Category: Class 6

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Pdf Term 1 Chapter 1 அளவீடுகள் Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 அளவீடுகள்

6th Science Guide அளவீடுகள் Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடு:

Question 1.
ஒரு மரத்தின் சுற்றளவை அளவிடப் பயன்படுவது.
அ) மீட்டர் அளவு கோல்
ஆ) மீட்டர் கம்பி
இ) பிளாஸ்டிக் அளவுகோல்
ஈ) அளவு நாடா
விடை:
ஈ) அளவு நாடா

Question 2.
7மீ என்பது செ.மீ -ல்
அ) 70 செ.மீ
ஆ) 7 செ.மீ
இ) 700 செ.மீ
ஈ) 7000 செ.மீ
விடை:
இ) 700 செ.மீ

Question 3.
ஒரு அளவை அளவிடும் முறைக்கு என்று பெயர்
அ) இயல் அளவீடு
ஆ) அளவீடு
இ) அலகு
ஈ) இயக்கம்
விடை:
ஆ) அளவீடு

Question 4.
சரியானதைத் தேர்ந்தெடு
அ) கி.மீ > மி.மீ > செ.மீ > மீ
ஆ) கி.மீ > மி.மீ > செ.மீ > மீ
இ) கி.மீ > மீ > செ.மீ > மி.மீ
ஈ) கி.மீ > செ.மீ > மீ > மி.மீ
விடை:
இ) கி.மீ > மீ > செ.மீ > மி.மீ

Question 5.
அளவுகோலைப் பயன்படுத்தி, நீளத்தை அளவிடும் போது, உனது கண்ணின் நிலை _____ இருக்க வேண்டும்.
அ) அளவிடும் புள்ளிக்கு இடது புறமாக
ஆ) அளவிடும் புள்ளிக்கு மேலே, செங்குத்தாக
இ) புள்ளிக்கு வலது புறமாக
ஈ) வசதியான ஏதாவது ஒரு கோணத்தில்
விடை:
ஆ) அளவிடும் புள்ளிக்கு மேலே, செங்குத்தாக

II. சரியா தவறா என எழுதுக.

Question 1.
நிறையை 126 கிகி எனக் கூறுவது சரியே.
விடை:
சரி

Question 2.
ஒருவரின் மார்பளவை அளவுகோல் பயன்படுத்தி அளவிட முடியும்.
விடை:
தவறு

Question 3.
10 மி.மீ என்பது 1 செ.மீ ஆகும்.
விடை:
சரி

Question 4.
முழம் என்பது நீளத்தை அளவிடும் நம்பத் தகுந்த முறையாகும்.
விடை:
தவறு

Question 5.
SI அலகு முறை என்பது உலகம் முழுவதும் ஏற்றுக்கொள்ளப்பட்ட ஒரு அலகு முறையாகும்.
விடை:
சரி

III. கோடிட்ட இடத்தை நிரப்புக.

Question 1.
SI அலகு முறையில் நீளத்தின் அலகு _______
விடை:
மீட்டர்

Question 2.
500 கிராம் = _____ கிலோகிராம்.
விடை:
0.5.

Question 3.
டெல்லிக்கும், சென்னைக்கும் இடையில் உள்ள தொலைவு _____ என்ற அலகால் அளக்கப்படுகிறது
விடை:
கிலோ மீட்டர்

Question 4.
1மீ = _____ செ.மீ என அளவிடப்படுகிறது.
விடை:
100

Question 5.
5 கி.மீ = ______ மீ.
விடை:
5000

IV. ஒப்புமை தருக.

Question 1.
சர்க்கரை : பொதுத்தராசு; எலுமிச்சை சாறு : ______ ?
விடை:
அளவுசாடி.

Question 2.
மனிதனின் உயரம் : செ.மீ; கூர்மையான பென்சிலின் முனையின் நீளம் : ______?
விடை:
மி.மீட்டர்

Question 3.
பால் : பருமன்; காய்கறிகள் : _____
விடை:
எடை

V. பொருத்துக.

VI. அட்டவணையை நிரப்புக.

விடை:

VII. பின்வரும் அலகினை ஏறு வரிசையில் எழுதுக.

Question 1.
மீட்டர், 1 சென்டி மீட்டர், 1 கிலோ மீட்டர் மற்றும் 1 மில்லிமீட்டர்.
விடை:
1 மில்லிமீட்டர், 1 சென்டிமீட்டர், 1 மீட்டர், 1 கிலோ மீட்டர்.

VIII. கீழ்க்கண்ட வினாக்களுக்கான விடையை கட்டத்திற்குள் தேடுக

Question 1.
10^-3 என்பது
விடை:
மில்லிமீட்டர்

Question 2.
காலத்தின் அலகு
விடை:
விநாடி

Question 3.
சாய்வாக அளவிடுவதால் ஏற்படுவது
விடை:

Question 4.
கடிகாரம் காட்டுவது
விடை:
நேரம்

Question 5.
ஒரு பொருளில் உள்ள பருப்பொருளின் அளவு
விடை:
நிறை

Question 6.
பல மாணவர்களின் பதிவுகளிலிருந்து கடைசியாக எடுக்கப்படும் ஒரு தனி அளவீடு
விடை:
சராசரி

Question 7.
_____ என்பது ஒரு அடிப்படை அளவு
விடை:
நீளம்

Question 8.
வாகனங்கள் கடக்கும் தொலைவைக் காட்டுவது
விடை:
ஒடோமீட்டர்

Question 9.
தையல்காரர் துணியைத் தைக்க அளவிடப் பயன்படுத்துவது.
விடை:
நாடா

Question 10.
நீர்மங்களை அளவிட உதவும் அளவீடு.
விடை:
லிட்டர்

விடை:

IX. ஓரிரு வார்த்தைகளில் விடை தருக.

Question 1.
SI என்பதன் விரிவாக்கம் என்ன?
விடை:
பன்னாட்டு அலகு முறை [International System of units]

Question 2.
நிறையை அளவிடப் பயன்படும் ஒரு கருவி.
விடை:
பொதுத்தராசு.

Question 3.
பொருந்தாததைத் தேர்ந்தெடு.
விடை:
விடை:
கிலோகிராம், மில்லி மீட்டர், சென்டி மீட்டர், நேனோ மீட்டர்.

Question 4.
நிறையின் SI அலகு என்ன?
விடை:
கிலோகிராம்.

Question 5.
ஒரு அளவீட்டில் இருக்கும் இரு பகுதிகள் என்ன?
விடை:

1. பன்மடங்கு
2. துணைப் பன்மடங்குகள்.

X. ஓரிரு வரிகளில் விடையளி:

Question 1.
அளவீடு – வரையறு.
விடை:
தெரிந்த ஒரு அளவைக் கொண்டு தெரியாத அளவை ஒப்பிடுவது ‘அளவீடு’ எனப்படும்.

Question 2.
நிறை வரையறு.
விடை:
நிறை என்பது ஒரு பொருளில் உள்ள பருப்பொருளின் அளவே ஆகும்.

Question 3.
இரு இடங்களுக்கு இடையே உள்ள தொலைவு 43.65 கி.மீ இதன் மதிப்பை மீட்டரிலும், சென்டிமீட்டரிலும் மாற்றுக.
விடை:
தொலைவு = 43.65 கி.மீ (1 கி.மீ = 1000 மீட்டர்)
தொலைவு = 43650 மீட்டர் (1 மீட்டர் = 100 செ.மீ)
தொலைவு = 4365000 செ.மீ

Question 4.
அளவுகோலில் அளவிடும் போது, துல்லியமான அளவீடு பெறப் பின்பற்றப்படும் விதிமுறைகள் என்ன?
விடை:

1. இடமாறு தோற்றப் பிழையைத் தவிர்க்கவும்.
2. அளவீட்டை கீழ்நோக்கி செங்குத்தாகப் பார்ப்பதன் மூலம் துல்லியமான அளவீட்டை பெறலாம்.

XI. கீழ்க்கண்டவைகளைத் தீர்க்க.

Question 1.
உனது வீட்டில் இருந்து உனது பள்ளிக்கு இடையே உள்ள தொலைவு 2250மீ. இந்தத் தொலைவினை கிலோமீட்டராக மாற்றுக.
விடை:
வீட்டிற்கும் பள்ளிக்கும் இடையே உள்ள தொலைவு = 2250 மீ
தொலைவு = 2.250 கிலோமீட்டர்.

Question 2.
கூர்மையான ஒரு பென்சிலின் நீளத்தை அளவிடும் போது அளவு கோலின் ஒரு முனை 2.0 செ.மீ மற்றும் அடுத்த முனை 12.1 செ.மீ என்ற இரு அளவுகளைக் காட்டினால் பென்சிலின் நீளம் என்ன?
விடை:
அளவு கோலின் ஒரு முனை = 2.0 செ.மீ
அடுத்த முனை = 12.1 செ.மீ
பென்சிலின் நீளம் = 10.1 செ.மீ (அல்லது) 10 செ.மீ மற்றும் 1 மி.மீ

XII. விரிவாக எழுதுக.

Question 1.
வளைகோடுகளின் நீளத்தை அளக்க நீ பயன்படுத்தும் இரண்டு முறைகளை விளக்குக.
விடை:
1. ஆவது முறை:

• ஒரு வளைகோட்டின் மீது ஒரு கம்பியை வைக்கவும்
• கம்பியானது வளைகோட்டின் எல்லாப் பகுதியையும் தொடுவதை உறுதி செய்ய வேண்டும்.
• வளைகோட்டின் தொடக்கப் புள்ளியையும் முடிவுப் புள்ளியையும் கம்பியின் மீது குறிக்க வேண்டும்.
• கம்பியை நேராக நீட்டி குறிக்கப்பட்ட தொடக்கப்புள்ளிக்கும், முடிவுப் புள்ளிக்கும் இடையிலான தொலைவை அளவுகோல் கொண்டு அளவிடவும்.
• இதுவே வளைகோட்டின் நீளமாகும்.

2 ஆவது முறை :

• கவையின் இரு முனைகளை 0.5 செ.மீ அல்லது 1 செ.மீ இடைவெளி உள்ளவாறு பிரிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வளைகோட்டின் ஒரு முனையிலிருந்து கவையை வைத்து தொடங்கவும். மறுமுனை வரை அளந்து குறிக்க வேண்டும்.
• வளைகோட்டின் மேல் சம அளவு பாகங்களாகப் பிரிக்கவும். குறைவாக உள்ள கடைசிப் பாகத்தை அளவுகோல் பயன்படுத்தி அளவிட வேண்டும்.
• வளைகோட்டின் நீளம் = (பாகங்களின் எண்ணிக்கை × ஒரு பாகத்தின் நீளம்) + மீதம் உள்ள கடைசி பாகத்தின் நீளம்.

Question 2.
கீழ்க்கண்ட அட்டவணையை நிரப்புக்

விடை:

6th Science Guide அளவீடுகள் Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
7 மீ என்ப து மி.மீ ல்
அ) 0.7 மி.மீ
ஆ) 700 மி.மீ
இ 7000 மி.மீ
ஈ) 70 மி.மீ
விடை:
இ) 7000 மி.மீ

Question 2.
SI அலகுமுறையில் மின்னோட்டத்தின் அலகு.
அ) கெல்வின்
ஆ) ஆம்பியர்
இ) வினாடி
ஈ) வோல்ட்
விடை:
ஆ) ஆம்பியர்

Question 3.
நீளத்தின் அலகு
அ) மீட்டர்
ஆ) லிட்டர்
இ) வினாடி
ஈ) கிலோகிராம்
விடை:
அ) மீட்டர்

Question 4.
திரவத்தின் பருமனை அளவிட உதவும் கருவிகள்
அ) குடுவைகள்
ஆ)
இ) பியூரெட்டுகள்
ஈ) அனைத்தும்
விடை:
ஈ) அனைத்தும்

Question 5.
ஒழுங்கற்ற பொருள்களின் பருமனை அளந்தறிய ____ முறை பயன்படுகிறது.
அ) தராசு
ஆ) மின்னணுதராசு
இ) நீர் இடப்பெயர்ச்சி
ஈ) மணல் கடிகாரம்
விடை:
இ) நீர் இடப்பெயர்ச்சி

II. சரியா? தவறா? என எழுதுக.

Question 1.
தெரிந்த ஒரு அளவைக் கொண்டு தெரியாத அளவை ஒப்பிடுவது நிறை எனப்படும்.
விடை:
தவறு

Question 2.
நீளம், அகலம் என இருவகையான நீளத்தைப் பயன்படுத்தி பரப்பளவை கணக்கிடலாம்.
விடை:
சரி

Question 3.
மின்னணுத்தராசைப் பயன்படுத்தி மிகத்துல்லியமாக எடையை அளக்கலாம்.
விடை:
சரி

III. கோடிட்ட இடத்தை நிரப்புக

Question 1.
7875 செ.மீ = ____ மீ ____ செ.மீ
விடை:
78.மீ;75.செ.மீ

Question 2.
1195 மீ = ____ கி.மீ. _____ மீ.
விடை:
1 கி.மீ; 195 மீ

Question 3.
15 செ.மீ 10 மி.மீ = ____ மி.மீ
விடை:
160 மி.மீ

Question 4.
45 கி.மீ 33மீ = _____ மீ
விடை:
45033 மீ

Question 5.
மெட்ரிக் முறை அலகுகள் _____ ஆண்டு ஃபிரெஞ்சு காரர்களால் 1790
விடை:
உருவாக்கப்பட்டது.

IV. பொருத்துக

V. பின்வரும் அலகினை ஏறுவரிசையில் எழுதுக.

Question 1.
டன் → கிராம் → கிலோகிராம் → மெட்ரிக் டன்.
விடை:
கிராம் → கிலோகிராம் → டன் → மெட்ரிக் டன்.

VI. மிகக் குறுகிய விடையளி (2 மதிப்பெண்கள்)

Question 1.
பன்னாட்டு அலகு முறை அல்லது SI அலகு என்றால் என்ன?
விடை:
ஒரே மாதிரியான அளவிடும் முறைக்காக உலகம் முழுவதும் உள்ள அறிவியல் அறிஞர்கள் ஏற்றுக் கொண்ட அலகுகளுக்கு பன்னாட்டு அலகு முறை அல்லது SI அலகு என்று பெயர்.

Question 2.
நிறை எடை வேறுபடுத்துக?
விடை:

Question 3.
மிகக் குறுகிய நீளங்களை அளக்க உதவும் அளவீடுகள் யாவை?
விடை:

1. மில்லி மீட்டர்
2. சென்டி மீட்டர்

Question 4.
அடிப்படை இயற்பியல் அளவுகள் யாவை?
விடை:
1- நீளம்;
2 – நிறை;
3 – காலம்,
4 – மின்னோட்டம்,
5 – வெப்பநிலை,
6 – ஒளிச்செறிவு,
7 – பொருளின் அளவு

Question 5.
முற்காலத்தில் மக்கள் பகல் நேரத்தை கணக்கிட பயன்படுத்திய கடிகாரங்கள் யாவை?
விடை:
1- மணல் கடிகாரம்;
2 – சூரியக் கடிகாரம்

Question 6.
நேரத்தை துல்லியமாக கணக்கிட உதவும் கடிகாரங்கள் யாவை?
விடை:
1 – மின்ன ணு கடிகாரம்;
2 – நிறுத்துக் கடிகாரம்

Question 7.
ஒடோமீட்டர் என்றால் என்ன?
விடை:
தானியங்கி வாகனங்கள் கடக்கும் தொலைவைக் கணக்கிட உதவும் கருவி.

VII. விரிவான விடை எழுதுக.

Question 1.
அளவு கோலைப் பயன்படுத்தி அளக்கும் போது ஏற்படும் கவனிக்க வேண்டிய வழிமுறைகளைக் கூறு?
விடை:

1. அளக்க வேண்டிய பொருளை எப்போதும் அளவு கோலின் சுழியில் “O” பொருந்துமாறு வைக்க வேண்டும்.
2. அளக்க வேண்டிய பொருளை அளவு கோலுக்கு இணையாக வைக்க வேண்டும்
3. எப்போதும் சுழியிலிருந்து (‘O’) அளவிட வேண்டும்.
4. முதலில் பெரிய பிரிவுகளையும் (செ.மீ) பிறகு சிறிய பிரிவு (மி.மீ) களையும் அளவிட வேண்டும்
5. அளவுகளைக் குறிக்கும் போது பெரிய அளவுகளை முதலிலும், அதன் பின் புள்ளி வைத்த பின் சிறிய அளவுகளைக் குறிக்க வேண்டும்.
   எ.கா. ஒரு பென்சிலின் நீளம் 6 செ.மீ, 2 மி.மீ என்றால் (6.2 செ.மீ)

Question 2.
ஒரு ஒழுங்கற்ற வடிவம் கொண்ட கல்லின் பருமனை எவ்வாறு காண்பாய்?
விடை:

1. அளவுகள் குறிக்கப்பட்ட ஒரு உருளை வடிவ குவளையில் 50 மி.லி அளவு வரை நீரால் நிரப்பவும்.
2. கன அளவு காண வேண்டிய கல்லை ஒரு நூலில் கட்டி ஜாடியில் உள்ள நீரினுள் அடிமட்டம் வரை மெதுவாக விடவும்.
3. இப்போது ஜாடியில் நீர்மட்டம் உயர்ந்துள்ளது. இதன் நீர்மட்டம் 75 மி.லி.
4. கல் நீரை இடப்பெயர்ச்சி செய்ததால், நீர் மட்டம் உயர்ந்துள்ளது.
5. இடப்பெயர்ச்சி செய்த நீரின் அளவே கல்லின் பருமனாகும்.

மனவரைபடம்

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Pdf Term 3 History Chapter 3 பேரரசுகளின் காலம்: குப்தர், வர்த்த னர் Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 6th Social Science Solutions Term 3 History Chapter 3 பேரரசுகளின் காலம்: குப்தர், வர்த்த னர்

6th Social Science Guide பேரரசுகளின் காலம்: குப்தர், வர்த்த னர் Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. சரியான விடையை தேர்ந்தெடுக்கவும்

Question 1.
குப்த வம்சத்தை நிறுவியவர் … ஆவார்.
அ) முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர்
ஆ) ஸ்ரீகுப்தர்
இ) விஷ்ணு கோபர்
ஈ) விஷ்ணுகுப்தர்
விடை:
ஆ) ஸ்ரீ குப்தர்

Question 2.
பிரயாகை மெய்கீர்த்தியை இயற்றியவர் … ஆவார்.
அ) காளிதாசர்
ஆ) அமரசிம்மர்
இ) ஹரிசேனர்
ஈ) தன்வந்திரி
விடை:
இ) ஹரிசேனர்

Question 3.
சந்திரகுப்தரால் நிறுவப்பட்ட ஒற்றை இரும்புத் தூண் … என்ற இடத்தில் உள்ளது.
அ) மெக்ராலி
ஆ) பிதாரி
இ) கத்வா
ஈ) மதுரா
விடை:
அ) மெக்ராலி

Question 4.
அறுவைச் சிகிச்சைச் செயல்முறை குறித்து விளக்கிய முதல் இந்தியர் …..
அ) சரகர்
ஆ) சுஸ்ருதர்
இ) தன்வந்திரி
ஈ) அக்னிவாசர்
விடை:
ஆ) சுஸ்ருதர்

Question 5.
வங்காளத்தின் கௌட அரசர் ………
அ) சசாங்கர்
ஆ) மைத்திரகர்
இ) ராஜ வர்த்தனர்
ஈ) இரண்டாம் புலிகேசி
விடை:
அ) சசாங்கர்

II. கூற்றைக் காரணத்துடன் பொருத்திப் பார்த்து சரியான விடையைக் கண்டுபிடிக்கவும்

Question 1.
கூற்று : வட இந்தியாவில் பல சிறிய நாடுகளைக் கைப்பற்றிய பின்னர், முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் ஒரு பெரிய நாட்டின் முடியரசராகத் தனக்குத்தானே முடி சூட்டிக் கொண்டார்.
காரணம் : முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் லிச்சாவி குடும்பத்தைச் சேர்ந்த குமாரதேவியை மணமுடித்தார்.
அ. காரணமும் கூற்றும் சரி, காரணம் கூற்றுக்கான சரியான விளக்கமே
ஆ. காரணமும் கூற்றும் சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றுக்கான சரியான விளக்கமல்ல.
இ. கூற்று சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் தவறு.
ஈ. கூற்று தவறு, ஆனால் காரணம் சரி.
விடை:
அ) காரணமும் கூற்றும் சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றுக்கான சரியான விளக்கமே.

Question 2.
கூற்று 1 : தென்னிந்திய அரசர்களோடு இரண்டாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் சுமுகமான உறவைக் கொண்டிருக்கவில்லை.
கூற்று 2 : குப்தர்கள் தெய்வீக உரிமைக் கோட்பாட்டினைப் பின்பற்றினர்.
அ) முதலாம் கூற்று தவறு, ஆனால் இரண்டாம் கூற்று சரி.
ஆ) இரண்டாம் கூற்று தவறு, ஆனால் முதல் கூற்று சரி.
இ) இரண்டு கூற்றுகளும் சரி
ஈ) இரண்டு கூற்றுகளும் தவறு
விடை:
அ) முதலாம் கூற்று தவறு, ஆனால் இரண்டாம் கூற்று சரி.

Question 3.
கீழ்க்கான்பனவற்றில் கால வரிசைப்படி அமைந்துள்ளது எது?
அ) ஸ்ரீ குப்தர் – முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் – சமுத்திரகுப்தர் – விக்கிரமாதித்யர்
ஆ) முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் – விக்கிரமாதித்யர் – ஸ்ரீகுப்தர் – சமுத்திரகுப்தர்
இ) ஸ்ரீகுப்தர் – சமுத்திரகுப்தர் – விக்கிரமாதித்யர் – முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர்
ஈ) விக்கிரமாதித்யர் – ஸ்ரீகுப்தர் – சமுத்திர குப்தர் – முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர்
விடை:
அ) ஸ்ரீகுப்தர் – முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் – சமுத்திரகுப்தர் – விக்கிமாதித்யர்

Question 4.
கீழ்க்காணும் கூற்றுகளைச் சிந்திக்கவும். அவற்றில் எது/எவை சரியானது சரியானவை
விடை:
என்பதைக் கண்டறியவும்.
1. அதிக வட்டிக்குப் பணத்தைக் கடன் வழங்கும் முறை பழக்கத்தில் இருந்தது.
2. மட்பாண்டம் செய்தலும் சுரங்கம் தோண்டுவதும் செழித்தோங்கிய தொழில்களாக இருந்தன.
அ) 1 மட்டும் சரி
ஆ) 2 மட்டும் சரி
இ) 1 மற்றும் 2 ஆகிய இரண்டுமே சரி
ஈ) 1 மற்றும் 2 ஆகிய இரண்டுமே தவறு
விடை:
அ) 1 மட்டும் சரி

Question 5.
பொருந்தாததை வட்டமிடுக.

Question 1.
காளிதாசர், ஹரிசேனர், சமுத்திரகுப்தர் சரகர்

விடை:
சமுத்திரகுப்தர்

Question 2.
ரத்னாவளி, ஹர்சரிதா நாகநந்தா, பிரியதர்சிகா

விடை:
ஹர்சரிதா

III. கோடிட்ட இடங்களை நிரப்புக

Question 1.
இலங்கை அரசர்………… சமுத்திரகுப்தரின், சமகாலத்தவர் ஆவார்.
விடை:
ஸ்ரீமேகவர்மன்

Question 2.
இரண்டாம் சந்திரகுப்தரின் ஆட்சியின் போது சீனாவைச் சேர்ந்த பௌத்தத் துறவி ………… இந்தியாவிற்கு வந்தார்.
விடை:
பாகியான்

Question 3.
……….. படையெடுப்பு குப்தர்களின் வீழ்ச்சிக்கு வழிகோலியது.
விடை:
ஹூணர்கள்

Question 4.
………. அரசாங்கத்தின் முக்கிய வருவாயாக இருந்தது.
விடை:
நிலவரி

Question 5.
குப்தர்களின் அலுவலக மொழி…………..
விடை:
சமஸ்கிருதம்

Question 6.
பல்லவ அரசர் ………… சமுத்திர குப்தரால் தோற்கடிக்கப்பட்டார்.
விடை:
விஷ்ணுகோபன்

Question 7.
வர்த்த ன அரச வம்சத்தின் புகழ்பெற்ற அரசர் ……… ஆவார்.
விடை:
ஹர்ஷவர்த்தனர்

Question 8.
ஹர்ஷர் தலைநகரை ………. லிருந்து கன்னோசிக்கு மாற்றினார்.
விடை:
தானேஷ்வரி

IV. சரியா/தவறா என எழுதுக

Question 1.
தன்வந்திரி மருத்துவத்துறையில் ஒரு புகழ்பெற்ற அறிஞராக திகழ்ந்தார்.
விடை:
சரி

Question 2.
குப்தர்களின் காலத்தில் கட்டப்பட்ட கட்டுமானக் கோவில்கள் இந்தோ – ஆரிய பாணியை ஒத்துள்ளன.
விடை:
தவறு

Question 3.
குப்தர்களின் ஆட்சிக்காலத்தில் உடன்கட்டை ஏறும் பழக்கம் இல்லை.
விடை:
தவறு

Question 4.
ஹர்ஷர் ஹீனயான பௌத்த பிரிவைச் சேர்ந்தவர்
விடை:
தவறு

Question 5.
ஹர்ஷர் அவருடைய மத சகிப்புத் தன்மையின்மைக்காகப் பெயர் பெற்றவர்.
விடை:
தவறு

V. பொருத்துக

அ)

விடை:
ஆ) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

ஆ)

விடை:
இ) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

VI. ஓரிரு வாக்கியங்களில் பதில் அளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
‘கவிராஜா’ என்ற பட்டம் யாருக்கு வழங்கப்பட்டது? ஏன்?
விடை:

• ‘கவிராஜா’ என்ற பட்டம் சமுத்திர குப்தருக்கு வழங்கப்பட்டது.
• ஏனெனில் அவர் கவிதைப் பிரியரும் இசைப்பிரியருமாவார்.

Question 2.
நாளந்தா பல்கலைக்கழகத்தில் கற்றுத்தரப்பட்ட பாடப்பிரிவுகள் யாவை?
விடை:

• பௌத்த தத்துவம்
• யோகா
• வேத இலக்கியங்கள்
• மருத்துவம்

Question 3.
அரசர்களின் தெய்வீக உரிமைக் கோட்பாட்டை விளக்குக.
விடை:

• குப்த அரசர்கள் தெய்வீக உரிமைக் கோட்பாட்டினை நடைமுறைப் படுத்தினர்.
• அரசர் கடவுளின் பிரதிநிதியாக கருதப்பட்டார்.

Question 4.
உலோகவியலில் குப்தர்களின் சாதனைகளை எடுத்துக் கூறுக.
விடை:

• உலோகவியலில் குப்தர்களின் சாதனை எனப்படுவது மெக்ராலி இரும்புத்தூணாகும். இது டெல்லி யில் சந்திரகுப்தரால் நிறுவப் பட்டதாகும்.
• இத்தூண் இன்றளவும் துருப்பிடிக்காமல் உள்ளது.

Question 5.
ஹூணர்கள் என்போர் யார்?
விடை:

• ஹூணர்கள் என்போர் நாடோடிப் பழங்குடியினர்.
• இவர்கள் ரோமாபுரியையும் கான்ஸ்டாண்டி நோபிளையும் பேரச்சத்திற்கு உள்ளாக்கினர்.

Question 6.
ஹர்ஷர் காலத்தில் வசூலிக்கப்பட்ட மூன்று வகையான வரிகளைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
விடை:

• பாகா
• ஹிரண்யா
• பாலி

Question 7.
ஹர்ஷர் எழுதிய நூற்களின் பெயர்களைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
விடை:

• ரத்னாவளி
• நாகநந்தா
• பிரியதர்சிகா

VII. சுருக்கமான விடையளிக்கவும்.

Question 1.
மெய்க்கீர்த்தி பற்றி சிறுகுறிப்பு வரைக.
விடை:
பிரசஸ்தி (மெய்க்கீர்த்தி) :

• பிரசஸ்தி என்பது ஒரு சமஸ்கிருதச் சொல். அதன் பொருள் ஒருவரைப் பாராட்டிப் புகழ்வது.
• அவைக்களப் புலவர்கள் அரசர்களைப் புகழ்ந்து பாடி அவர்தம் சாதனைகளைப் பட்டியலிட்டனர்.
• இவை பின்னர் மக்கள் படித்துத் தெரிந்து கொள்வதற்காக தூண்களில் பொறிக்கப்பட்டன.

Question 2.
சமுத்திரகுப்தரின் படையெடுப்புகள் குறித்து எழுதுக.
விடை:

• சமுத்திர குப்தர் மகத்தான போர்த்தளபதி. அவர் நாடு முழுவதும் படையெடுத்துச் சென்றார்.
• அவர் பல்லவ அரசர் விஷ்ணு கோபனை தோற்கடித்தார்.
• அவர் வட இந்தியாவில் ஒன்பது அரசுகளைக் கைப்பற்றினார்.
• அவர் தென்னிந்தியாவில் 12 அரசர்களை சிற்றரசர்களாக்கி கப்பம் கட்டச் செய்தார்.
• அவரின் மேலாதிக்கத்தை கிழக்கு வங்காளம், அஸ்ஸாம், நேபாளம், பஞ்சாபின் கிழக்குப் பகுதி ஆகியவற்றின் அரசர்களும் ராஜஸ்தானத்தைச் சேர்ந்த பல்வேறு பழங்குடியினரும் ஏற்றுக் கொண்டனர்.

Question 3.
குப்தர்கள் காலத்தில் நிலங்கள் எவ்வாறு வகைப்படுத்தப்பட்டன?
விடை:
குப்தர் காலத்தில் நிலங்களை வகைப்படுத்துதல்.

Question 4.
சிரெஸ்தி, சார்த்தவாகா வணிகர்களைக் குறித்து எழுதுக.
விடை:
சிரெஸ்தி :
சிரெஸ்தி பிரிவைச் சார்ந்த வணிகர்கள் ஓரிடத்தில் நிலையாக இருந்து வணிகம் செய்தவர்கள்.
கார்த்தவாகா :
சார்த்தவாகா வணிகர்கள் எருது பூட்டிய வண்டிகளில் சரக்குகளை ஏற்றி பல்வேறு இடங்களுக்குச் சென்று வணிகம் செய்தவர்கள்.

Question 5.
கட்டடக்கலைக்குக் குப்தர்கள் ஆற்றிய பங்களிப்பு பற்றி எழுதுக.
விடை:

• முன்பிருந்த மரபான பாறைக் குடைவரைக் கோவில்களிலிருந்து கட்டுமானக் கோவில்களை முதன் முதலாகக் கட்டியவர்கள் குப்தர்களே.
• இக்கோவில்கள் கோபுரங்களோடும், விரிவான செதுக்கு வேலைப்பாடுகளோடும் அனைத்து இந்து தெய்வங்களுக்கும் கட்டப்பட்டன.
• மிகவும் குறிப்பிடத்தக்க பாறைக் குடைவரைக் குகைகள் அஜந்தா, எல்லோரா, பாக், உதயகிரி, ஆகிய இடங்களில் காணப்படுகின்றன.
• இக்காலக்கட்டத்தில் கட்டப்பட்ட கட்டுமானக் கோவில்கள் திராவிடப் பாணியை ஒத்திருக்கின்றன.

Question 6.
காளிதாசர் இயற்றிய நூல்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
விடை:

• காளிதாசர் இயற்றிய நாடக நூல்கள் சாகுந்தலம், மாளவிகாக்கனிமித்ரம், விக்கிரம ஊர்வசியம் என்பனவாகும்.
• அவருடைய ஏனைய சிறப்புமிக்க நூல்கள் மேகதூதம், ரகு வம்சம், குமார சம்பவம், ரிது சம்காரம் ஆகும்.

Question 7.
ஹர்ஷரை ஒரு கவிஞராகவும் நாடக ஆசிரியராகவும் மதிப்பீடு செய்யவும்.
விடை:

• ஹர்ஷரே ஒரு கவிஞரும் நாடக ஆசிரியருமாவார்.
• சிறந்த கவிஞர்களும் கலைஞர்களும் அவரைச் சூழ்ந்து இருந்தனர்.
• ரத்னாவளி, நாகநந்தா, பிரியதர்சிகா ஆகியவை அவருடைய புகழ்பெற்ற நூல்கள்.
• அவரின் அவையை பானபட்டர், மயூரா, ஹர்தத்தா, ஜெயசேனர் ஆகியோர் அலங்கரித்தனர்.

VIII. உயர் சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
குப்த அரசர்கள் வெளியிட்ட தங்க நாணயங்கள் சுட்டிக் காட்டுவது.
அ) நாட்டில் தங்கச் சுரங்கங்கள் இருந்ததை
ஆ) தங்க வேலை செய்யும் திறனை மக்கள் பெற்றிருந்ததை
இ) அரசாட்சி செழிப்பாக இருந்ததை
ஈ) மன்னர்களின் ஆடம்பர இயல்பை
விடை:
இ) அரசாட்சி செழிப்பாக இருந்ததை

Question 2.
பழைமையும் புகழும்மிக்க அஜந்தாவிலுள்ள ஓவியங்கள் எவற்றின் மீது வரையப்பட்டுள்ளன?
அ) குகைச் சுவர்களில்
ஆ) கோவில்களின் விதானங்களில்
இ) பாறைகளில்
ஈ) பாப்பிரஸ் இலைகளில்
விடை:
அ) குகைச் சுவர்களில்

Question 3.
குப்தர்களின் காலம் எதனால் நினைவில் கொள்ளப்படுகிறது?
அ) கலை, இலக்கியத் துறைகளில் ஏற்பட்ட மறுமலர்ச்சி
ஆ) தென்னிந்தியப் படையெழுச்சி தயப் படையெழுச்சு
இ) ஹூணர்களின் படையெடுப்பு
ஈ) மத சகிப்புத் தன்மை
விடை:
அ) கலை, இலக்கியத் துறைகளில் ஏற்பட்ட மறுமலர்ச்சி

Question 4.
குப்தர்கள் காலத்தில் கணிதம், வானியல் ஆகிய துறைகளில் இந்திய அறிவியல் அறிஞர்கள் சாதித்ததென்ன?
விடை:

• நவீன உலகிற்கு விட்டுச் சென்ற பூஜ்ஜியத்தின் கண்டுபிடிப்பும், அதன் பரிணாம வளர்ச்சியான தசம எண் முறையும்.
• ஆரியப்பட்டர் சூரிய, சந்திர கிரகணங்களுக்கான உண்மைக் காரணங்களை விளக்கியுள்ளார். அவர்தான் பூமி தனது அச்சில் சுழல்கிறது எனும் உண்மையை அறிவித்த முதல் இந்திய வானியல் ஆய்வாளர்.

IX. மாணவர் செயல்பாடு (மாணவர்களுக்கானது)

1. காளிதாசரின் நாடகம் ஒன்றினை வகுப்பறையில் மேடையேற்றவும்.
2. மௌரியர் காலச் சமுதாயத்திற்கும் குப்தர்கள் கால சமுதாயத்திற்குமுள்ள ஒற்றுமை வேற்றுமைகளை ஒப்பீடு செய்க.

வாழ்க்கைத் திறன்கள் (மாணவர்களுக்கானது)

1. வானியல் துறைக்கு ஆரியப்பட்டர், வராகமிகிரர், பிரம்மகுப்தர் ஆகியோர் ஆற்றிய பங்களிப்பினைப் பற்றிய செய்திகளைச் சேகரிக்கவும்.
2. செயற்கைக்கோள் ஏவுவதைப் பற்றி அதிகமாக அறிந்து கொள்ள அருகேயுள்ள இஸ்ரோ மையத்திற்குச் சென்று வரவும்.

XI. கட்டக வினா

விடை:

6th Social Science Guide பேரரசுகளின் காலம்: குப்தர், வர்த்த னர் Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. சரியான விடையை தேர்ந்தெடுக்கவும்

Question 1.
ஸ்ரீகுப்தருக்குப் பின் அரசப் பதவியேற்றவர்.
அ) முதலாம் குமாரகுப்தர்
ஆ) ஸ்கந்த குப்தர்
இ) விஷ்ணுகுப்தர்
ஈ) கடோத்கஜர்
விடை:
ஈ) கடோத்கஜர்

Question 2.
நிதி சாரம் என்னும் நூலில் முக்கியத்துவம் பெறுவது
அ) வணிகம்
ஆ) இராணுவம்
இ) வேளாண்மை
ஈ) கருவூலம்
விடை:
ஈ) கருவூலம்

Question 3.
தனக்குத்தானே அரசராக முடி சூட்டிக் கொண்ட ஹுண தலைவர்
அ) யசோதர்மன்
ஆ) அட்டில்லா
இ) மிகிரகுலர்
ஈ) தோரமானர்
விடை:
ஈ) தோரமானர்

Question 4.
தினாரா என்பது குப்தர்கள் காலத்தில் வெளியிடப்பட்ட ……. நாணயங்கள்
அ) செப்பு
ஆ) வெள்ளி
இ) வெண்கலம்
ஈ) பொன்
விடை:
ஈ) பொன்

Question 5.
ஹர்ஷர் கலந்து கொண்ட கும்பமேளா விழா நடைபெற்ற இடம்
அ) அலகாபாத்
ஆ) காசி
இ) அயோத்தி
ஈ) பிரயாகை
விடை:
ஈ) பிரயாகை

II. கூற்றைக் காரணத்துடன் பொருத்திப்பார்த்து சரியான விடையைக் கண்டுபிழக்கவம்.

Question 1.
கூற்று : குப்தப் பேரரசர்களில் கடைசிப் பேரரசரான முதலாம் நரசிம்ம குப்தர் மிகிரகுலருக்கு கப்பம் கட்டி வந்தார்.
காரணம் : மிகிர குப்தர் பௌத்தத்தைப் பகைமையோடு பார்த்ததால் மன வேதனை அடைந்து கப்பம் கட்டுவதை நிறுத்தினார்.
அ) காரணமும் கூற்றும் சரி, காரணம் கூற்றுக்கான சரியான விளக்கமே
ஆ) காரணமும் கூற்றும் சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றுக்கான சரியான விளக்கமல்ல.
இ) கூற்று சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் தவறு
ஈ) கூற்று தவறு. ஆனால் காரணம் சரி
விடை:
ஆ) காரணமும் சுற்றும் சரி, ஆனால் காரணம் கூற்றுக்கான சரியான விளக்கமல்ல.

Question 2.
கூற்று 1 : குப்தர்கள் காலத்தைக் காட்டிலும் ஹர்ஷர் காலத்தில் குற்றவியல் சட்டங்கள் கடுமையாக இல்லை.
கூற்று II : சட்டங்களை மீறுவோர்க்கும் அரசருக்கு எதிராக சதி செய்வோர்க்கும் மரண தண்டனை விதிக்கப்பட்டது.
அ) முதலாம் கூற்று தவறு, ஆனால் இரண்டாம் கூற்று சரி
ஆ) இரண்டாம் கூற்று தவறு. ஆனால் முதல் கூற்று சரி.
இ) இரண்டு கூற்றுகளும் சரி
ஈ) இரண்டு கூற்றுகளும் தவறு
விடை:
ஈ) இரண்டு கூற்றுகளும் தவறு.

III. கோடிட்ட இடங்களை நிரப்புக

Question 1.
…….. பேரவையில் ஹர்ஷர் தனது செல்வங்களை கொடையாக விநியோகித்தார்.
விடை:
பிரயாகை

Question 2.
சீனர்களின் தலைநகரான …… மாபெரும் கலை, கல்விக்கான மையம்
விடை:
சியான்

Question 3.
முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தரின் மனைவி ………
விடை:
குமாரதேவி

Question 4.
அரசர்களின் படையெடுப்பு நடவடிக்ககைகளில் வருவாயின் …….. முதலீடு செய்யப்பட்டது.
விடை:
உபரியே

Question 5.
விவசாயிகள் பல்வேறு வரிகளைச் செலுத்த வேண்டிய நிலையில் ……….. நிலைக்கு தள்ளப்பட்டனர்.
விடை:
கொத்தடிமை

IV. பொருத்துக

விடை:
ஆ) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3

V. ஓரிரு வாக்கியங்களில் பதில் அளிக்கவும்

Question 1.
லிச்சாவி குறித்து குறிப்பு வரைக.
விடை:

• கங்கை நதிக்கும் நேபாள நாட்டிற்கும் இடைப்பட்ட ஆட்சி பகுதி கொண்ட லிச்சாவி பழமையான கன சங்கங்களில் ஒன்று.
• முதலாம் சந்திரகுப்தர் புகழ்பெற்ற, வலிமைவாய்ந்த அந்த அரச குடும்பத்தில் குமாரதேவியை மணந்தார்.

Question 2.
கவிராஜா குறித்து நீ அறிவதென்ன?
விடை:

• சமுத்திர குப்தர் வெளியிட்ட தங்க நாணயங்களில் ஒன்றில் அவர் வீணை வாசிப்பது போன்ற உருவம் பொறிக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது.
• அவர் ஒரு சிறந்த கவிதைப் பிரியரும் இசைப்பிரியருமாவார். அதனால் கவிராஜா எனும் பட்டம் பெற்றார்.

Question 3.
பாஹியானின் பயணக் குறிப்புகள் மகதத்து மக்களின் வாழ்க்கை பற்றி என்ன கூறுகிறது?
விடை:

• பாஹியான் கூற்றுப்படி மகதத்து மக்கள் மகிழ்ச்சியோடும் செழிப்போடும் வாழ்ந்தனர்.
• கயா பாழடைந்திருந்தது. கபில வஸ்து காடாகியிருந்தது. ஆனால் பாடலிபுத்திரத்தில் மக்கள்’ செல்வத்தோடும் செழிப்போடும் வாழந்தனர்.

VII. சுருக்கமான விடையளிக்கவும்.

Question 1.
குப்த அரசர்களால் பணியமர்த்தப்பட்ட அதிகாரிகள் யார்?
விடை:

• உயர் பதவிகளில் அமர்த்தப்பட்ட அதிகாரிகள் தண்ட நாயகர் மற்றும் மகாதண்ட நாயகர் என அழைக்கப்பட்டனர்.
• தேசம் அல்லது புக்தி எனப்படும் பிராந்திய அதிகாரிகள் ‘உபாரிகா’ எனும் ஆளுநர்கள் விஷ்யா எனப்படும் மாவட்டங்களில் அதிகாரிகள் விஷ்யாபதிகள், கிராம அளவில் கிராமிகா, கிராமிதியாகஷா எனும் அதிகாரிகள் செயல்பட்டனர்.
• இராணுவப் பதவிகளின் பெயர்கள் : பாலாதிகிரிதா (காலாட்படை தளபதி) மஹா பாலாதிகிரிதா
  (குதிரைப்படை தளபதி) ‘தூதகா’ எனும் ஒற்றர்கள்.

Question 2.
குப்தர் கால சமூகம் பற்றி நீ அறிவதென்ன?
விடை:

• குப்தர் காலச் சமூகம் நான்கு வர்ணங்களைக் கொண்ட தந்தை வழிச் சமூகம்.
• மனுவின் சட்டங்கள் நடைமுறையில் இருந்தன.
• பெண்கள் தந்தையின், கணவனின் அல்லது மூத்த மகனின் பாதுகாப்பில் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
• பலதார மணம் பரவலாக நடைமுறையில் இருந்தது. அரசர்களும் நிலப்பிரபுக்களும் ஒன்றுக்கும் மேற்பட்ட மனைவியரைப் பெற்றிருந்தனர்.
• உடன்கட்டை ஏறும் (சதி முறை குப்தர்கள் காலத்தில் பின்பற்றப்பட்டது.

Question 3.
நாளந்தா பல்கலைக்கழகம் பற்றி எழுதுக.
விடை:

• குப்தர்கள் ஆதரவில் 5 மற்றும் 6 ஆம் நூற்றாண்டுகளில் நாளந்தா பல்கலைக்கழகம் தழைத்தோங்கியது. பின்னர் கன்னோசி அரசர் ஹர்ஷரின் ஆதரவில் சிறப்புற்றது.
• முக்கிய பாடம் பௌத்தத் தத்துவம், மருத்துவம், வேத இலக்கியம், யோகா கற்பிக்கப்பட்டன.
• யுவான் சுவாங் பௌத்தத் தத்துவத்தைப் படிப்பதில் பல ஆண்டுகள் செலவழித்தார்.
• நாளந்தாவில் 8 மகாபாட சாலைகளும் 3 மிகப் பெரிய நூலகங்களும் இருந்தன.
• பக்தியார் கில்ஜி தலைமையில் வந்த மம்லுக்குகளால் அழித்து தரைமட்டமாக்கப்பட்டது.
• நாளந்தா யுனேஸ்கோவின் உலகப் பாரம்பரியச் சின்னம்.

மன வரைபடம்

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution Of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose The correct answer:

Social Term 2 Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
November 26

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Term 2 Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year ……………..
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1949

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 3.
There are _________ amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a)101

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Term 2 Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
18 years

II. Fill In the blanks :

1. ______ was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly
2. The father of the Constitution of India is ______
3. ______ protects our fundamental rights
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ______

Answer:

1. Dr. Rajendra prasad
2. Dr. B.R Ambedkar
3. Constitution
4. 26th january

III. Match the following:

1. Independence day – (a) November 26
2. Republic Day – (b) April 1
3. Constitutional Day of India – (c) August 15
4. Right to Education – (d) January 26

a) c a d b
b) c d a b
c) d b a c
Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the questions given tinder the caption Constituent Assembly

6th Social Term 2 Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly was formed in the year 1946.

Term 2 Social Science Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Drafting Committee was formed with eight members with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its chairman.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
There were fifteen women particpents in the consituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as the Republic Day?
Answer:

1. When the Congress met at Lahore in 1929, the members of the Congress unofficially declared the same day as the Day of Pooma Swaraj or the Day of complete self governance.
2. The next year, 26th January 1930 was celebrated as the Independence Day. That day has been observed as our Republic Day.”

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The Constitution is an authentic document containing the basic ideas, principles and laws of a country.
2. It also defines the rights and duties of citizens.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The preface of the constitution is the Preamble.
2. According to it, India is a Sovereign, socialist, Secular democratic republic.
3. The constitution has granted the people the right to rule. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
4. The term secular refers to freedom of worship.
5. The Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of Government, both at the centre

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
“Fundamental rights are the basic human rights of all citizens”. They are

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right of Freedom of religion
5. Cultural and Educational rights
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Respect and protect the Constitution.
3. Readiness to serve our country if need arises.
4. Treating everyone as brothers and sister
5. Avoid violence.
6. Protect government property etc.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:
The preface of the Constitution is the Preamble.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. The preamble of Indian constitution clearly says that
2. To achieve Justice-social, economic and political
3. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
4. Equality of states and opportunity.
5. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:
An Independent country not subject to any external power or influence.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 1.
List your duties at

1. school
2. home and
3. society

Answer:

(a) Students’ duties at school

1. participate in learning activities.
2. Complete Home work.
3. Attend school regularly on time.
4. Be a part of safe and positive leavning environment.
5. Manage the time wisely.
6. Study for test and exams well ahead of time.

(b) Students’duties at home

1. Put books and magazines in a rack.
2. Be tidy and keep the surroundings clean.
3. Help parents wherever and whenever possible.
4. Fold blankets, saw buttons.
5. Pouring and making tea and coffee.

(c) Students’duties at society

1. Community Responsibility.
2. It includes co-operation, respect and participation.
3. Take active role in literacy campaigns.
4. Student’s role is very crucial in society development such as to increase human resource, educate others, protect
5. the environment, save mother nature, bring required changes in the society, respect elders, help the needy and reform the society.

Question 2.
Discuss on these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education
4. Equality:

Answer:

1. It is a state of affairs in which all people within a specific society have the same status in certain respects. .
2. It includes Civil rights, Freedom of speech, property rights etc.Gender Equality:

Gender equality :

1. means equality between men and women.
2.  Both are free to develop their personal abilities.
3. It means fairness of treatment for men and women according to their respective needs.

Child labour:

1. Child Labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives children of their childhood.
2. Child Labour interferes with their ability to attend regular school.
3. This interference is mentally, physically,, socially or morally dangerous and harmful.
4. Indian Government has passed the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act. of 1986. ,
5. It was amended in 2016 as CLPR Act.
6. Accordingly a child is defined as any person below the age of 14 and CLPR Act prohibit employment of a child in any employment including domestic help.

(c) Right to Education:

1. The Right of children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4th August 2009.
2. It describes free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the constitution.
3. India become one of the 135 countries to make education as a fundemental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1st April, 2010.

Question 3.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014). Find out the reason why:
Answer:
a) Kailash Satyarti (India):

1. Kailash Satyarti is an Indian Childrens’ right activist.
2. He is a Noble peace Prize receipient.
3. Founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan (save childhood movement.
4. Kailash Satyarti and his team at Bachpan Bachao Andolan have liberated more than 86,000 children in India from Child Labour, Slavery and Trafficking.
5. In 1998, Satyarti led global march against child labour across 103 countries.
6. His work has been recognized through various national and international honours and awards.
7. He shared the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 with Malala Yusufsai of Pakistan.

b) Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan)

1. Malala Yusufsai is a Pakistan Activist for female education.
2. She is the youngest Nobel Prize laurate.
3. She is known for human rights advocacy, especially the education of women and children in her native Swat valley.
4. She became a prominent activist for the right to education.
5. In 2012 she was the recipient of Pakistan’s first National Youth Peace Prize.
6. In 2014 she was the co-recipient of the 2014 Noble Peace Prize along with Kailash Satyarti at the young age of 17 years.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Intext Questions

Question 1.
Prepare a fist pf your immediate duties.
Answer:

1. To abide by the constitution and its ideals, to respect the National flag, the National Anthem etc.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brother hood.
5. To protect and improve the natural resources such as forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife etc.
6. To safeguard the public property and to avoid violence.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Additonal Questions

I. Choose The correct answer:

Question 1.
The Chairman of the constituent Assembly was
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Vallabai Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
The advisor of the Drafting Committee was
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) B.N. Rao
(e) Moulana Azad
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) B.N. Rao

Question 3.
The preface of the constitution is called
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental right
(c) Directive Principles of state policy
(d) legal document
Answer:
(a) Preamble

Question 4.
Iiva Parliamentary system, the Executive is-collectivity responsible to the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Legislature

Question 5.
The Chief Architect of the Indian constitution is
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlel Nehru
(c) Vallabhai Patel
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1929, the Congress met at ______
2. Poorna Swaraj means ______
3. It took a period of ______ to complete the Indian Constitution.
4. The basic human rights are known as ______
5. The original copies of the Constitution are preserved in special ______ filled cases.

Answer:

1. Lahore Complete-self-Government
2. 2 years, 11 months and 17 days
3. Fundamental rights
4. Helium

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

1.	Secular	a.	Equal distribution
2.	Socialist	b.	Freedom of Religion
3.	Sovereign	c.	Brotherhood
4.	Fraternity	d.	Independent

Answer:

1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
Write about the constitution Assembly. ‘
Answer:

1. “In 1946, nearly 389 members of the constituent Assembly who belonged to different parties from different places came together to frame the Constitution of India.
2. The Chairman of the committee was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Mention the names of some of the members of the Constitution Assembly.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabai Patel, MoulanaAzad, S. Radhakrishnan, Vijayalakshmi Pandit and Sarojini Naidu were the members in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 3.
Write about the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. The Drafting committee was formed with eight members.
2. Its Chairman was B.R. Ambedkar.
3. B.N.Rao was appointed as an advisor.
4. The committee met for the first time on 9th December 1946.
5. On the same day, the drafting the Constitution of India started.

Question 4.
Mention a few countries whose constitution were throughly examined to collect a few best features.
Answer:

1. The constitutions of nearly 60 countries including the UK, USA, former USSR, France, Switzerland etc., were thoroughly examined.
2. Their best features have been adopted by our constitution.

Question 5.
Mention the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, N. Gopalasamy, K.M.Munshi, Syed Ahmed Sadullah, P.L. Mitter, N.Madhava Rao, T.T.K, T.P. Khaitan were the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.

Question 6.
What is Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every Indian citizen has the right to vote when they attain 18 years of age, irrespective of any caste, religion, gender or economic status.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 From Chiefdoms To Empires

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chiefdoms To Empires Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

From Chiefdoms To Empires Question 1.
The Kingdom which was most powerful among the four Mahajanapadas
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Kosala
(d) Vajji
Answer:
(b) Magadhaj

From Chiefdoms To Empires In Tamil Question 2.
Among the following who was the contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bindusara
(c) Padmanabha Nanda
(d) Brihadratha
Answer:
(a) Ajatasatru

From Chiefdoms To Empires Book Back Answers Question 3.
Which of the following are the sources of Mauryan period?
(a) Artha Sastra
(b) Indica
(c) Mudrarakshasa
(d) All
Answer:
(d) AII

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 4.
Chandra Gupta Maurya abdicated the thrown and went to Sravanbelgola along with Jaina Saint …………….
(a) Badrabahu
(b) Stulabahu
(c) Parswanatha
(d) Rushabhanatha
Answer:
(a) Badrabahu

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 5.
was the ambassador of Seleucus Nicator.
(a) Ptolemy
(b) Kautilya
(c) Xerxes
(d) Megasthenese
Answer:
(d) Megasthenese

Question 6.
Who was the last emperor of the Mauryan Dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Brihadratha
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(c) Brihadratha

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Ashoka is considered as one of India’s greatest rulers.
Reason (R) : He ruled according to the principle of Dhamma.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Statement 1 : Chandragupta Maurya was the first ruler who unified entire India under one political unit.
Statement 2 : The Arthashastra provides information about the Mauryan administration
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement is/are correct.

1. Chandragupta Maurya was the first king of Magadha.
2. Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha.

(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

Question 4.
Arrange the following dynasties in chronological order.
(a) Nanda – Sishunaga – Haryanka – Maurya
(b) Nanda – Sishunaga -Maurya – Haryanka
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya
(d) Sishunaga – Maurya – Nanda – Haryanka
Answer:
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya]

Question 5.
Which of the following factors contributed to the rise of Magadhan Empire?

1. Strategic location
2. Thick forest supplied timber and elephant
3. Control over sea
4. Availability of rich deposits of iron ores

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ was the earliest capital of Magadha.
2. Mudrarakshasa was written by______
3. ______ was the son of Bindusara.
4. The founder of the Maurya Empire was______
5. ______ were appointed to spread Dhamma all over the empire.

Answer:

1. Raj agriha
2. Visakadatta
3. Ashoka
4. Chandragupta Maurya
5. Mahamattas

IV. State True or False:

1. The title Devanam Piya was given to Chandragupta Maurya.
2. Ashoka gave up war after his defeat in Kalinga.
3. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the principle of Buddhism.
4. The lions on the currency notes is taken from the Rampurwa bull capital.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following :

a. Gana 1. Arthasastra
b. Megasthenese 2. Religious tours
c. Chanakya 3. people
d. Dharmayatras 4. Indica
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 4 3
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention any two literary
Answer:

1. Secular Literature
2. Religious Literature: Vedic, Jain, Buddhist texts and Puranas

Question 2.
What is a stupa?
Answer:

1. A stupa is a semi-spherical dome-like structure. It is constructed on brick or stone.
2. The buddha’s relics were placed in the centre.

Question 3.
Name the dynasties of Magadha.
Four dynasties ruled over Magadha Empire.

1. The Haryanka dynasty
2. The Shishunaga dynasty
3. The Nanda dynasty
4. The Maurya dynasty

Question 4.
What were the sources of revenue during Mauryan period?
Answer:

1. The land was the most important source of revenue for the state. The land tax (bhaga) was 1/6 of the total produce.
2. Additional revenue was taxes on forests, mines, salt and irrigation.

Question 5.
Who assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns?
Answer:
Sthanika and Gopa assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns.

Question 6.
What do you know from the Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka?
Answer:
The Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka refer to the names of three dynasties.

1. Pandyas
2. Cholas
3. The Keralaputras and the Sathyaputras.

Question 7.
Which classical Tamil poetic works have the reference of Maurvans?
Answer:
Mamulahar’s poem in Agananuru gives the reference of the Mauryans.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What did Ashoka do to spread Buddhism?
Answer:

1. Ashoka sent his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to Srilanka to propagate Buddhism.
2. He also sent missionaries to West Asia, Egypt, and Eastern Europe to spread the message of Dhamma.
3. The Dhamma-mahamattas were a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka.
4. Their job was to spread dhamma all over the empire.
5. Ashoka held the third Buddhist counil at his capital pataliputra.

Question 2.
Write any three causes for the rise of Magadha.
Answer:

1. Magadha was located on the lower part of the Gangetic plain. The plain was fertile which ensured the rich agricultural yield. This provided income to the state.
2. The thick forests supplied timber for construction of buildings and elephants for army.
3. Abundance of natural resources especially iron enabled them to equip themselves with weapens made of iron.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Kalinga war became a turning paint in Ashoka’$ life. How?

1. In the war of Kalinga, many people died.
2. He understood that war only brings destruction of families.
3. The Kalinga war had incredible influence over the personal life and policy of Ashoka.
4. Hence Kalinga war proved to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka.
5. He found his consolation in Buddhism.
6. He was representing for his deeds. He embraced Buddhism and took the vow of \ inculcation ‘Dhamma’ to all men through out his life.
7. He gave up the policy of Dig Vijay and adopted the policy of Dharma Vijay.

Question 2.
Write any five welfare measures you would do if you were a king like Ashoka.
Answer:

1. Free education to all.
2. Free food for the disabled, the aged, the sick and the needy.
3. Free medical treatment to all the citizens.
4. Free shelter for the homeless.
5. Justice for all. Equality of gender, religion, caste.

IX. Picture Study

Question 1.
This is the picture off an Ashokan edict.

a. What are edicts?
b. How are Ashokan edicts useful?
c. Where were these edicts inscribed?
d. Name the script used in Sanchi Inscription.
e. How many Rock Edicts are there?
Answer:
(a) An Edict is an official order or proclamation issued by a person in authority or a king.
(b) Edicts are very informative about Ashoka’s belief in peace, righteousness, Justice and his concern for the welfare of the people.
(c) The edicts were inscribed on the pillars as well as boulders and cave walls made by the Emperor Ashoka.
(d) Brahmi Script.
(e) 33 Rock Edicts.

X. Who am I

1. I belonged to Haryanka dynasty. I extended territory by matrimonial alliances. My son is Ajatasatru – who am I?
2. I played a significant role in the transformation of society. I am used in making ploughshare – Who am I?
3. I was known as Devanampiya. I embraced the path of peace – Who am I?
4. I established the first largest empire in India. I performed Sallekhana. Who am I?
5. Iam found in the Lion capital of Ashoka. I am at the centre of our national flag. Who am I?

Answer:

1. Bimbisara
2. Iron
3. Ashoka
4. Chandra Gupta Maurya
5. Ashoka Chakra

XI. Decipher the code – The Mauryan Empire.

1. The first dynasty that ruled over Magadha was ______ (8, 1, 18, 25, 1, 14, 11, 1).
2. ______ empire was the first largest empire (13, 1, 21,18, 25, 1).
3.  ______ laid the foundation of the new capital at Pataliputra. (21, 4, 1,25, 9,14).
4.  ______ was one of the main exports (19, 16, 9, 3, 5, 19).
5.  ______ became later the most renowned seat of learning. (14, 1, 12, 1, 14, 4, 1).
6. Revenue from agricultural produce was called ______ (2, 8, 1, 7, 1).
7. The horror of war was described in ______ (18, 15, 3, 11, 5, 4, 9, 3, 20)
8. Greeks called Bindusara as ______ (1, 13, 9, 20, 18, 1,7, 1, 20, 8, 1)
9. The crowning element in Saranath Pillar is ______ (4, 8,1, 18,13,1, 3, 8,1,11,18,1)
10. Council of ministers were known as ______ (13, 1, 14, 4, 18, 9, 16, 1, 18, 9, 19, 8, 1,4)

Answer:

1. HARYANKA
2. MAURY
3. UDAYIN
4. SPICKS
5. NALAINDA
6. HAGA
7. ROCK EDICT
8. AMITRAG AT HA
9. DHARMA CHAKRA
10. MANDRIPARISHAD

XIII Map Work

1. Mark the extent of Aihokan Empire.
2. Mark the fallowing places a the river map of India

a. Taxila
b. Pataliputra
c. Ujjain
d. Sanchi
e. Indraprastha

XIV Life Skill

Question 1.
Make a model of Ashoka Chakra.

Question 2.
Make a model of Sanchi Stupa.

Question 3.
Draw and colour our National Flag

XV. Answer Grid:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chief Doms To Empires Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The earliest gathering places of men were
(a) Kingdoms
(b) Janapadas
(c) Mahajanapadas
(d) Republics
Answer:
(b) Janapadas

Question 2.
The capital city Pataliputra had ……………. gates to the city.
(a) 24
(b) 32
(c) 49
(d) 64
Answer:
(d) 64

Question 3.
Udavin belonged to dynasty.
(a) Nanda
(b) Shishunaga
(c) Haryanka
(d) Maurya
Answer:
(c) Haryanka

Question 4.
Kalasoka belonged to ……………. dynasty.
(a) Haryanka
(b) Shishunaga
(c) Nanda
(d) Maurya
Answer:
(b) Shishunaga

Question 5.
The name Vishnu Gupta refers to
(a) Ajata satru
(b) Ashoka
(c) Dhana nanda
(d) Chanakya
Answer:
(d) Chanakya

Question 6.
Simhasena refers to
(a) Chandragupta
(b) Bambisara
(c) Udayin
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(a) Chandragupta

Question 7.
Ashoka sent his son and daughter to
(a) China
(b) Burma
(c) Srilanka
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(c) Srilanka

Question 8.
Under the Mauryas, the king was
(a) Sovereign authority
(b) head of the Judiciary
(c) Commander of the Army
(d) All the three
Answer:
(d) All the three

Question 9.
The terms Sthanika and Gopa are related to Mauryan
(a) Council
(b) Assembly
(c) Army
(d) Town Administration
Answer:
(a) Council

Question 10.
Mashakas were made out of
(a) copper
(b) gold
(c) silver
(d) paper
Answer:
(a) copper

Question 11.
Dasharatha Maurya was the grand son of
(a) Bindusara
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Dhana Nanda
(d) Ashoka
Answer:
(d) Ashoka

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Magadha’s gradual rise to political supremacy began with Bimbisara of Haryanka dynasty.
Reason (R) : Bimbisara extended the territory of Magadhan Empire by matrimonial alliances
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true but R is false.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Which of the statement given below is / are correct?
Statement I : Megasthenese was an Ambassador from Greece in the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
Statement II : Megasthenese – work ‘Indica’ is one of the main sources of the Mauryan Empire.
(a) Only II
(b) Only I
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
Answer:
(d) Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statements is/ are correct.

1. Trade flourished under the Maurvans.
2. Spices and Ivory works formed the main exports under the Mauryans

(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(c) Both 1 and 2

Question 4.
Arrange the following rulers in Chronological order
(a) Bimbisara, Kalasoka, Mahapadma Nanda, Chandra Gupta
(b) Chandra Gupta, Mahapadma Nanda, Bimbisara, Kalasoka
(c) Kalasoka, Bimbisara, Chandra Gupta, Mahapadma Nanda
(d) Mahapadma Nanda, Chandra Gupta, Kalasoka, Bimbisara
Answer:
(a) Bimbisara, Kalasoka, Mahapadma Nanda, Chandra Gupta

Question 5.
Which of the following factors contributed to the decline of the Mauryan Empire?

1. Weak successors
2. Continuous revolts
3. Invasion by Bactrian Greeks
4. Regular and substantial income to the state.

(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) All of these
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only.
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 3 only

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The term ‘gana’ means ______.
2. Sixteen dooted the indo – Gangetic plain in the sixth century BC
3. The thick forests supplied _______ for the construction of buildings
4. Kalasoka belonged to ______dynasty
5. Mahapadma Nanda was succeeded by his eight sons known as_______
6. The tearm nalanda means_______
7. Megasthanese stayed in India for _________ Years.
8. The teacher and advisor to Emperor Chandra Gupta Maurya was ______
9. Chandragupta performed ________ in Sravanbelgola.
10. Chandragupta Maurya’s son was ______
11. Bindusara was succeeded by his son ______
12. Ashoka was known as ‘Devanam Piya’ which means ______
13. Ashoka’s Dhamma contained the essence of ________
14. The third Buddhist council was held at ______
15. The first Buddhist council was held at ______
16. The second Buddhist council was held at ______
17. The foundation for the new capital at Pataliputra was laid by _____
18. The highest court of appeal under the Mauryans was _______
19. Status of Yakshas and Yakshis belonged to the _______
20. Three caves in Barabar hills have dedicative inscriprion of __________

Answer:

1. people of equal status
2. Mahajanapadas
3. timber
4. Sishunaga
5. Navanandas
6. No stopping of the gift of knowledge
7. 14
8. Chanakya / Vishnugupta/ Kautilyal
9. Sallekhanai
10. Bindusaral
11. Ashokal
12. beloved of the Gods
13. All religions
14. Pataliputraj
15. Raj agriha
16. Vaishali
17. Udayin
18. The king
19. Indigenous
20. Ashoka

IV. State True or False:

1. Mahavira and Buddha represented the new awakening in the sixth century BC (BCE)
2. Among the four Mahajana padas Vatsa emerged as an empire.
3. Haryanka dynasty was succeeded by Sishunaga dynasty.
4. Seleucus wrote the book Indica.
5. Chanakya is called the Architect of the Mauryan Empire.
6. After the battle of Kalinga, Ashoka became a Buddhist.
7. Ashoka emphasised on obedience and respect for parents, preceptors and elders.
8. Council of Ministers referred to Mantriparishad.
9. Mauryans were not aware of spy system.
10. Under the Mauryan administration punishments were very mild.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False

V. Match the following:

1. Panchala (a) Foreign Notice
2. Mahavamsa (b) Daughter
3. Ashoka (c) Proclamation
4. Sangamithra (d) Mahajanapada
5. Edict (e) Governor of Ujjain

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)

VI. Answer in one or two sentences :

Question 1.
Explain the term kingdom.
Answer:

1. Kingdom means a territory ruled by a king or queen.
2. In a kingdom (monarchy), a family, which rules for a long period becomes a dynasty.
3. Usually these kingdoms adhered to orthodox Vedic traditions.

Question 2.
Who was Bhadrabahu?
Answer:

1. Bhadrabahu was a Jain monk.
2. He took Chandragupta Maurya to South India.

Question 3.
Name the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Name of the Sixteen Mahajanapadas are
Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Kasi, Kura, Kosala, Avanti, Chedi, Vatsa, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Gandhara and Kamboja.

Question 4.
Write a note on Megasthenese.
Answer:

1. Megasthenese was the ambassador of the Greek ruler, Seleucus.
2. He lived in the court of ChandraGupta Maurya.
3. He stayed in India for 14 years.
4. He wrote the book Indica, one of the main sources for the study of Mauryan Empire.

Question 5.
Write about Pataliputra.
Answer:

1. Pataliputra was the capital of the Mauryan Empire.
2. It has 64 gates to the city with 570 watch towers.

Question 6.
Why is Chanakya known as the architect of the Mauryan empire?
Answer:

1. Chanakya was the teacher and advisor to Emperor Chandragupta Mauryan.
2. His treatise on statecraft ‘Arthashastra’ was a very great guide for rulers.
3. Hence he is referred to as the architect of the Mauryan empire.

Question 7.
Explain Ashoka’s Dhamma.
Answer:

1. The meaning of Dhamma is explained in Ashoka’s – Pillar Edict II.
2. It contained the noblest ideas of humanism, forming the essence of all religions.
3. He laid stress On Compassion, Charity, Purity, Saintliness, Self-control, Truthfulness, Obedience and respect for parents, preceptors and elders.

Question 8.
Mention the different wings of the Mauryan army.
Answer:

1. Under the Mauryan army, a board of 30 members divided into six committees with five members on each, monitored
2. Navy, Armoury (transport and supply), Infantry, Cavalry, The war chariots and The war elephants.

Question 9.
Mention the regions which produced specialised textiles under the Mauryas.
Answer:
The regions which produced specialised textiles under the Mauryas were Kasi (Benares), Vanga (Bengal), Kamarupa (Assam) and Madurai in Tamilnadu.

Question 10.
What were the exports and imports of the Mauryans?
Answer:

1. Main exports were Spices, Pearls, Diamonds, Cotton textiles, Ivory Works, Conch Shells.
2. Main Imports were Horses, Gold, Glassware, Linen.

Question 11.
Mention the two divisions of the Mauryan art.
Answer:
Mauryan art can be divided into two.

1. Indigenous Art – Statues of Yakshas and Yakshis.
2. Royal Art – Palaces and Public buildings, Monolithic Pillars, Rock cut Architecture, ‘ Stupas.

Question 12.
Who were Yakshas and Yakshis?
Answer:

1. Yakshas were deities connected with water, fertility, trees, the forest and wilderness,
2. Yakshis were their female counterpart.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Mention the role of iron in changing a society.
Answer:

1. Iron played a significant role in this transformation of society.
2. The fertile soil of the Gangetic Valley and the use of iron ploughshares improved , agricultural productivity.
3. Iron facilitated craft production.
4. Agrarian surplus and increase in craft products resulted in the emergence of trading and exchange centres.
5. There were rise of towns and cities.

Question 2.
Write about the revenue system of the Mauryans.

1. The land was the most important source of revenue for the state.
2. Bali and Bagha as taxes collected from people.
3. The land tax (bhaga) collected was 1/6 of the total produce.
4. Revenue from taxes on forests, mines, salt and irrigation provided additional revenue to the government.
5. Much of the State revenue was spent on paying the army, the officials of the royal government, on charities and on different public works.

Question 3.
Mention the reasons for the decline of the Mauryan empire.
Answer:

1. Ashoka’s successors were very weak.
2. Continuous revolts in different parts of the empire.
3. Invasion by the Bactrian Greeks weakened the empire.
4. Pacifist policy of Ashoka weakened the military strength.
5. Last Maurya ruler Brihadratha was killed by his commander Pushyamitra Sungha.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
State the salient feature of the Lion Capital of Ashoka.
Answer:

1. The lion capital of Ashoka is a sculpture of four Asiatic lions standing back to back on an elaborate base.
2. This base includes other animals.
3. A graphic representation of it was adopted as the official emblem of India in 1950.
4. It was originally placed atop the Ashoka pillar at the important Buddhist site of Samath by the Emperor Ashoka, in about 250 BCE.
5. The pillar, sometimes called the Ashoka Column, is still in its original location.
6. But the Lion Capital is now in the Samath Museum, in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
7. It is 7 feet high including the base.
8. The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction on the Buddhist Dharma Chakra with 24 spokes.

Question 2.
One of the seven wonders of Ancient world – Great wall of China – Prove.
Answer:

1. The Great Wall of China is a series of fortifications made of stone, brick, tamped earth, wood, and other materials.
2. It is built along an east-to-west line across the historical northern borders of China.
3. It was built to protect the Chinese states and empires against the raids and invasions of the various nomadic groups of the Eurasian Steppe.
4. It was built by Qin Shi Huang, the first Emperor of China. Little of that wall remains.
5. The Great Wall has been rebuilt, maintained, and enhanced over various dynasties.

Question 3.
The temple of Zeus at Olympia is an important piece of art in Greek history. – Do you agree?
Answer:

1. The temple of Zeus at Olympia was an ancient Greek temple in Olympia, Greece.
2. It was dedicated to the God Zeus.
3. The temple was built in the second quarter of the 5th Century BCE.
4. Zeus is the Sky and Thunder God in ancient Greek religion, who rules as king of the Gods of Mount Olympus.

Question 4.
What do you about the Lomas Rishi cave, Barabar.
Answer:

1. The Lomas Rishi Cave, also called the Grotto of Lomas Rishi, is one of the man¬’ made Barabar Caves in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Jehanabad district in Bihar.
2. This rock-cut cave was carved out as a sanctuary.
3. It was built during the Ashokan period of the Maurya Empire in the 3rd century BC.

Question 5.
Nalanda served as a great source of knowledge. Prove.
Answer:

1. Nalanda was a large Buddhist monastery, in the ancient kingdom of Magadha (modern-day Bihar) in India.
2. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
3. Nalanda flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries.
4. The word Nalanda is a Sanskrit combination of three words Na + alam + daa meaning “no stopping of the gift of knowledge”.
5. The school attracted scholars and students from near and far with some travelling from Tibet, China, Korea and Central Asia

Question 6.
State the importance of Girnar Inscription of Rudradaman.
Answer:

1. The Junagarh / Gimar Inscription gives the information about the Sudarshana Lake
2. This lake was an artificial reservoir.
3. The Construction was begun during the time of Chandra Gupta Maurya and completed during Ashoka’s reign.
4. It was built by the Mauryan kings to check floods.
5. Around 150AD, lake was repaired by the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I.
6. Again it was repaired under the Skandagupta’s reign by his Governor Pamadatta.

IX. Who am I

1. I Practise egalitarian traditions.
2. I supply elephants for army.
3. I was overthrown by Chandra Gupta Maurya.
4. I wrote a treatise on state craft.
5. I was called by the Greeks as ‘slayer of enemies’.
6. I carry an official order or proclamation issued by a king.
7. I am the crowning element of Saranath Pillar.
8. I am known as Patna now. Originally who was I?

Answer:

1. Gana-Sangha
2. Thick forests
3. Dhana Nanda
4. Chanakya
5. Bindusara
6. Edict
7. Dharmachakra
8. Pataliputra

X. Decipher the code – The Mauryan. Empire.

1. It means a territory ruled by a king or queen ______ (11, 9, 14, 7, 4, 15, 13).
2. He shifted the Capital from Rajagirha to Pataliputra. (11, 1, 12,1, 19, 15, 11, 1).
3. One of the religions sources of the Mauryan Empire ______ (16,21,18,1,14,1, 19).
4. It is a part of our National Flag. (1, 19, 18,15, 11, 1,3,8, 1, 11, 19, 1).
5. Construction of this lake was begun during the time of Chandra Gupta Mauryan and completed during Ashoka’s reign ______ (19, 21, 4, 1, 18, 19, 8, 1, 14, 1).
6. One of the main exports of the Mauryan Period. (4, 9, 1, 13, 15, 14, 4, 19).
7. Statues of Yakshas and Yakshi come under the ______ art of the Mauryans,(9, 14, 4, 9, 7, 5, 14, 15, 14,21, 19)
8. Ancient name of Odisha. (11, 1, 12, 9, 14, 7, 1).

Answers:

1. KINGDOM
2. KALASOK
3. PURANAS
4. ASHOKA CHAKRA
5. SUDARSH ANA
6. DIAMONDS
7. INDIGENOUS
8. KALLNGA

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 6 Human Organ Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Human Organ System Class 6 Question 1.
Circulatory system transports these throughout the body
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nutrient
(c) Hormones
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Term 2 Question 2.
Main organ of respiration in human body is
(a) Stomach
(b) Spleen
(c) Heart
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(d) Lungs

6th Standard Question 3.
Breakdown of food into smaller molecules in our body is known as
(a) Muscle contraction
(b) Respiration
(c) Digestion
(d) Excretion
Answer:
(c) Digestion

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A group of organs together make up an _______ system.
2. The part of the skeleton that protects the brain is _______
3. The process by which the body removes waste is _______
4. The _______ is the largest sense organ in our body.
5. The endocrine glands produce chemical substances called _______

Answers:

1. organ
2. skull
3. Excretion
4. skin
5. hormones

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Question 1.
Blood is produced in the bone marrow.
Answer:
False, Red Blood Corpuscles are produced in the bone marrow.

6th Standard Science Question 2.
All the waste products of the body are excreted through the circulatory system.
Answer:
False, All the waste products of the body are excreted through the excretory system.

Chapter 6 The Human Body Answers Question 3.
The other name of food pipe is alimentary canal.
Answer:
False. The other name of food pipe is called oesophagus.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 2 Question 4.
Thin tube like structures which are the component of circulatory system are called blood vessels.
Answer:
False, The tube like structure which are the component of circulatory system are called blood capillaries.

Samacheer Class 6 Science Solutions Question 5.
The brain, the spinal cord and nerves form the nervous system.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

1. Ear	Cardiac muscle
2. Skeletal System	Flat muscle
3. Diaphragm	Sound
4. Heart	Air sacs
5. Lungs	Protection of internal organs

Answer:

1. Ear	Sound
2. Skeletal System	Protection of internal organs
3. Diaphragm	Flat muscle
4. Heart	Cardiac muscle
5. Lungs	Air sacs

V. Arrange in Correct sequence:

Question 1.
Stomach → Large intestine → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Mouth → Small Intestine → Rectum → Anus.
Answer:
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Stomach → Small Intestine → Large intestine → Rectum → Anus.

Question 2.
Urethra → Ureter → Urinary Bladder → Kidney.
Answer:
Kidney → Ureter → Urinary Bladder → Urethra.

VI. Analogy:

Question 1.
Arteries : Carry blood from the heart:: _______ :carry blood to the heart.
Answer:
Veins.

Question 2.
Lungs: Respiratory system:: _______ : Circulatory system.
Answer:
Heart

Question 3.
Enzymes: Digestive glands:: _______ : Endocrine glands.
Answer:
Hormones

VII. Give very short answer:

Question 1.
Write about skeletal system.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system consists of bones, cartilages and joints.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing etc.

Question 2.
Write the functions of epiglottis.
Answer:
The function of Epiglottis is to prevent the entry of food into the wind pipe.

Question 3.
What are the three types of blood vessels?
Answer:

1. Arteries
2. Veins
3. Capillaries

Question 4.
Define the term “Trachea”.
Answer:
Trachea is commonly called as windpipe. It is a tube supported by cartilaginous rings that connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs, allowing the passage of air. The trachea divides into right and left bronchi and enter into the lungs.

Question 5.
Write any two functions of digestive system?
Answer:

1. Digestive system is involved in the conversion of complex food substances into simple forms.
2. Absorption of digested food.

Question 6.
Name the important parts of the eye.
Answer:
The important parts of eye are cornea, iris, lens and pupil.

Question 7.
Name the five important sense organs?
Answer:

1. Eyes
2. Ears
3. Nose
4. Tongue
5. Skin

VIII. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on rib cage.
Answer:
Rib cage
The rib cage is made up of 12 pairs of curved, flat rib bones. It protects the delicate vital organs such as heart and lungs.

Question 2.
List out the functions of the human skeleton.
Answer:

1. The skeletal system gives shape to the body.
2. Bones provide a framework for the body.
3. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing etc.
4. It protects, the soft internal organs.

Question 3.
Differentiate between the voluntary muscles and involuntary muscles.
Answer:
Voluntary muscles:

1. They are attached to the bones.
2. They can be controlled by our will. Example: Muscles of arm.

Involuntary muscles:

1. They are found in the walls of digestive tract, urinary bladder, arteries and other internal organs.
2. They cannot be controlled by our will.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
List out the functions of Endocrine system and Nervous system.
Answer:

1. Endocrine system regulates various functions of the body and maintain the internal environment.
2. Endocrine glands produce chemical substances called “Hormones’ which control various activities of the body.
   Eg. Growth hormone controls growth, Adrenalin hormone acts at the time of fear stress etc.

Functions of nervous system:

1. Sensory input: The conduction of signals from sensory receptors.
2. Integration : The interpretation of the sensory signals and the formulation of responses.
3. Motor output: The conduction of signals from the brain and spinal card to effectors such as muscle and gland cells.

Question 2.
Label the diagram given below to show the four main parts of the urinary system and answer the following questions.

A. Which organ removes extra salts and ws
B. Where is the urine stored?
C. What is the tube through which urine is body?
D. What are the tubes that transfer urine fi the urinary bladder called?
Answers:

A. Kidney removes extra salts and water from the blood.
B. Urine is stored in urinary bladder.
C. Urine is excreted out of the body through urethra.
D. Ureter transfers urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
What will happen if the diaphragm shows no movement?
Answer:

1. The diaphragm is the primary organ of breathing.
2. The movement of the diaphragm expands the lungs and creates a vacuum.
3. Due to this the air is sucked in.
4. If the diaphragm does not move the lungs do not expand or contract and breathing stops.
5. The person will die.

Question 2.
Why is the heart divided into two halves by a thick muscular wall?
Answer:
The oxygenated and deoxygenated blood are separately circulated. So the heart is divided into two halves by a thick muscular wall.

Question 3.
Why do we sweat more in summer?
Answer:

1. Sweating plays an important health role as it helps to maintain constant body temperature by cooling us down.
2. When it is hot and we sweat that moisture evaporates and cools us immediately.
3. This is why we sweat more when the summer is very hot.

Question 4.
Why do we hiccup and cough sometimes when we swallow food?
Answer:
Normally, the entry of food into the windpipe is prevented by a flap like structure called Epiglottis. But when we eat in a hurry, the flab gets lesser time to close the windpipe. Thus some of the food particles enter into the windpipe. It creates a hindrance in the movement of air in the windpipe and results in coughing or hiccup.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Sit absolutely still. Observe the movements taking place in your body. You must K be blinking your eyes time to time. Observe the movements in your body as you I breathe. Write down the movements in your note book.

We are able to move a few parts of our body easily in various directions and some, ft only in one direction. Why we are not able to move some parts at all directions?
Answer:
We are able to bend or rotate our body in places where two parts of our body seem to be joined together – like elbow, shoulder or neck. These places are called joints. If ft our body has no joints, it would not be possible for us to move in any way at all.

Bones cannot be bent. But we can bend our elbow. It is not one long bone from ft the upper arm to our wrist. It is different bones joined together at the elbow. Similarly, there are many bones present in each part of the body.

We can bend or move our body only at those points where bones meet. There are different types of joints in our body to help us carry out different movements and activities. Let us see the function / movements of some of the joints in our body.

Fixed joints which do not allow movement are called fixed joint.

Gliding joints allow only a limited amount of movement of sliding nature of cartilage. For example, the joints of back bone.

Hinge joint allows movement only in one plane. For example, fingers, knees. Elbow joint is composed of hinge joint. These joints allow movement in one plane and up to 180° only. Hence, we cannot move our elbows backwards.

Piyotal joint allows movement in all planes, i.e. up and down, side and other planes. For example, head.

Ball and socket joint allows movement in all directions. The rounded end of one bone fits into the cavity (hollow space) of other bone. Such a joint only allows movements in all directions. For example, joint between upper arm.

Activity 2

To show that we can bend or move our body only at those points where the bones meet.

Materials required; A wooden scale and string.
Method Ask your friend to tie a wooden scale and your arm together. So that the elbow is at the centre. Even if you try hard, you cannot bend your elbow.
Conclusion: A single bone cannot bend. The different bones joined together at the elbow, help the elbow to bend.

Activity 3

Question 1.
Move your lower arm up and down gently. Feel the contraction and relaxation of your biceps and triceps muscles. The muscles present in the upper arm help in the contraction of front biceps muscles (become short and thick), and also relaxation of rear triceps muscles (become long and thin). You can feel the muscles on top that go stiff. When the arm is moved downwards, the front muscles relax and the rear muscles contract.
Answer:
Activities to be done by the students themselves

Activity 5

Air? To prove that exhaled air is rich in carbon- dioxide
Materials required Two glass jars with lime water and a straw

Procedure: Leave the first jar with lime water undisturbed, blow air in to the second jar with the help of a straw

Observation: Lime water turns milky in few seconds in the second jar. The CO? gas alone can change the lime water into milky white.

Conclusion: Carbon-di-oxidc is present in the air that we exhale.

Activity 6

Question 1.
Place the middle and index fingers of your right hand on the inner side of your left wrist. Can you feel a throbbing movement. Why do you feel the throbbing? This throbbing is called the pulse and it is due to the blood flowing in the arteries. Count the number of pulse in one minute.

How many pulse beats could you count in one minute? The number of beats per minute is called the Pulse rate. A resting person usually has a pulse rate between 72 to 80 beats per minute.

Find other places in your body where you can feel the pulse. Record your own pulse beats and your classmates as beats per minute; Compare the values.
Answer:
Activities to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Human Organ Systems Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
A group of organs that work together to perform a particular function is known as _______
(a) Skeletal system
(b) Muscular system
(c) Nervous system
(d) Organ system
Answer:
(d) Organ system

Question 2.
………. is the largest and strongest bone in the human face.
(a) Hyoid bone
(b) Stapes
(c) Cranial bones
(d) Lower jaw bone
Answer:
(d) Lower jaw bone

Question 3.
_______ bone is the largest and strongest bone in the human face.
(a) Nasal
(b) Temporal
(c) Lower jaw
(d) Parietal
Answer:
(c) Lower jaw

Question 4.
The heart is surrounded by a double-layered membrane called
(a) Pleura
(b) Alveolar membrane
(c) Pericardium
(d) Iris
Answer:
(c) Pericardium

Question 5.
_______ is a major organ for digestion of food materials.
(a) Heart
(b) Oesophagus
(c) Stomach
(d) Kidney
Answer:
(c) Stomach

Question 6.
The _______ is a complex organ which is placed inside the cranium.
(a) Kidney
(b) Heart
(c) Lungs
(d) Brain
Answer:
(d) Brain

Question 7.
Skin helps us to synthesize using sun light.
(a) vitamin A
(b) vitamin B
(c) vitamin C
(d) vitamin D
Answer:
(d) vitamin D

Question 8.
_______ gland is located in the neck region.
(a) Pituitary
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal
(d) Thymus
Answer:
(b) Thyroid

Question 9.
Pituitary gland is located at _______ in our body.
(a) Neck region
(b) base of brain
(c) Abdomen region
(d) above the kidney
Answer:
(b) base of brain

Question 10.
The functional units of the kidney are called _______
(a) Nephrons
(b) Neuron
(c) bladder
(d) urethra
Answer:
(a) Nephrons

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The adult human skeletal system consists of _______ bones
2. _______ help in connecting bone to bone.
3. Vertebral column is formed by a number of serially arranged small bones called _______
4. The rib cage is made up of _______ of curved flat rib bones.
5. The digestive gland associated with alimentary canal is _______
6. _______ are located within the chest cavity.
7. The lungs are covered by a double layered _______
8. The heart is _______ chambered.
9. The heart is surrounded by a double layered membrane called _______
10. _______ are produced in the bone marrow.
11. Nervous system is we,11 developed in human and is composed of _______ or _______
12. _______ is the controlling centre of the body.
13. The outer ear in human beings is made up of an external flap called _______
14. _______ gland is located above the kidney.
15. Our body contains _______ % of water.
16. Our stomach consists of _______ acid.

Answers:

1. 206
2. Ligaments
3. vertebrae
4. 12 pairs
5. salivary gland
6. Lungs
7. pleura
8. four
9. pericardium
10. Red Blood Carpuscles
11. neurons or nerve cells
12. Brain
13. pinna
14. Adrenal
15. 70
16. Hydro choloric

III. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement.

Question 1.
The nervous system consists of bones, cartilages and joints.
Answer:
False. The Skeletal system consists of bones, cartilages and joints.

Question 2.
Lower jaw bone is the smallest and strongest bone in the human face.
Answer:
False. Lower jaw bone is the largest and strongest bone in the human face.

Question 3.
The smallest bone in our body is stapes.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Intake of oxygen from the air and releasing of carbon-di-oxide from the lungs occur through nostrils is called internal respiration.
Answer:
False. Intake of oxygen from the air and releasing of carbon-di-oxide from the lungs occur through nostrils is called external respiration.

Question 5.
The walls of the heart is made up of cardiac muscle.
Answer:
True.

Questions 6.
Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Kidney is located in the thoracic cavity between the two lungs.
Answer:
False. Heart is located in the thoracic cavity between the two lungs.

Question 8.
A resting person usually has a pulse rate between 72 to 80 beats per minute.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Pulmonary artery carries blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
Answer:
False. Pulmonary Vein carries blood from the lungs to the left atrium.

Question 10.
Heart forms an effective barrier against infection by microbes and pathogens.
Answer:
False. Skin forms an effective barrier against infection by microbes and pathogens.

Question 11.
The nitrogenous wastes are removed from the body by the endocrine system.
Answer:
False. The nitrogenous wastes are removed from the body by the excretory system.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Skull protects : Brain.
Rib cage protects : _______
Answer:
heart and liver.

Questions 2.
The smallest bone of our body : Stapes.
The longest bone of our body : _______
Answer:
Femur.

Question 3.
A newborn baby has bones : More than 300.
An adult has bones : _______
Answer:
206.

Questions 4.
Skeletal muscle : Muscle of arm.
Cardiac muscle: _______
Answer:
Walls of heart.

Question 5.
Heart: Pericardium membrane.
Lungs : _______
Answer:
Pleura membrane.

Question 6.
Carries blood from right ventricle to lungs : Pulmonary artery.
Carries blood from the lungs to left atrium : _______
Answer:
Pulmonary vein.

Question 7.
Carry oxygenated blood : Arteries.
Carry deoxygenated blood : _______
Answer:
Vein.

Question 8.
Neurons : Nervous system.
Nephrons: _______
Answer:
Excretory system.

V. Match the following :

A

Answer:

1. – f
2. – d
3. – e
4. – a
5. – c
6. – b

B

Answer:

1. – c
2. – e
3. – a
4. – b
5. – d

C

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – e
4. – b
5. – a

VI. Give short answer

Question 1.
List the major organ system of our body.
Answer:
Human body has eight major organ system. They are:

• Skeletal system
• Digestive system
• Circulatory system
• Endocrine system
• Muscular system
• Respiratory system
• Nervous system
• Excretory system.

Question 2.
Axial skeleton – Explain.
Answer:
Axial skeleton forms the upright axis of the body which includes, skull, vertebral column and Rib cage.

Questions 3.
What are the bones found in the skull?
Answer:
Hyoid bone and the auditory ossicles like Malleus, Incus and Stapes are found in the skull.

Questions 4.
What are the three types of muscles?
Answer:
They are skeletal muscle, smooth muscle and cardiac muscles.

Question 5.
How do muscle work?
Answer:
Muscles pf the body can only pull and they cannot push. Two muscles are required to move a bone at a joint. When one muscle contracts the other muscle relaxes. Thus muscles do work.

Questions 6.
List the parts of digestive system.
Answer:
Parts of digestive systems are Mouth, Buccal cavity, Phanynx, Oesophagus, Stomach, Small intestine, Large intestine, Anus.

Question 7.
List the glands associated for digestion.
Answer:
Salivary glands, Gastric glands, Liver, Pancreas and Intestinal glands are associated glands for digestion.

Questions 8.
List the parts of respiratory system.
Answer:
Respiratory system consists of nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs.

Question 9.
What is internal respiration?
Answer:
Taking in oxygen and giving out CO₂ The circulatory system transports O₂ and CO₂, to and from all parts of body. Hemoglobin in the red blood cells transport O₂ and CO₂ This is called internal respiration.

Question 10.
Define – blood.
Answer:
Blood is a fluid connective tissue of red colour containing plasma and blood cells. There are three types of blood cells namely, Red blood corpuscles (RBCs), White Blood corpuscles (WBCs) and Blood Platelets. RBCs are produced in the bone marrow.

Question 11.
What is pulse rate?
Answer:
The number of beats per minute is called pulse rate.

Question 12.
Name the three regions of brain.
Answer:
The three regions of brain are fore brain, mid brain and hind brain.

Question 13.
List the endocrine glands found in our body.
Answer:
Pituitary gland, Pineal gland, Thyroid gland, Thymus gland, Pancreas, Adrenal gland, Gonads are found in our endocrine system.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
(a) How do muscles work.
(b) How circulatory system is important for human life?
Answer:
(a) Muscles work.

1. Muscles of the body can only pull and they can not push.
2. Two muscles are required to move a bone at a joint.
3. When one muscle contracts, the other muscle relaxes.
4. For example to move the lower arm up and down biceps and triceps muscles are required.
5. When we raise our lower hand the biceps in front become short by contraction and the triceps at the back stretch to pull up the arm.
6. When we lower our arm the triceps at the back contract and biceps stretch to pull the arm down.

(b) Circulatory system – importance :

1. It is one of the important system consisting of heart, blood vessels and blood.
2. It transports respiratory gases, nutrients, hormones and waste materials within the body.
3. If protects the body from harmful pathogens.
4. Regulates the body temperature.
5. The heart pumps blood continuously throughout our lifetime.

Question 2.
Describe construction of eye with neat diagram.
Answer:
Eyes help us to see things around us i.e., their colour, shape, size whether they are near or far, moving or at rest. The eyelids and eyelashes keep the eyes safe. The eye has three main parts namely cornea, iris and pupil.

Question 3.
Tabulate the names of glands of endocrine system and their locations.
Answer:
Glands:

1. Pituitary gland
2. Pineal Gland
3. Thyroid Gland
4. Thymus Gland
5. Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans)
6. Adrenal Gland
7. Gonads

Location:

1. At the base of brain
2. At the base of brain
3. Neck
4. Chest
5. Abdomen
6. Above the kidney
7. Pelvic cavity

Question 4.
Draw and lable the parts of kidney.
Answer:

Question 5.
List the parts of excretory system and write their functions.
Answer:

1. Renal artery : Brings blood containing oxygen and urea from the aorta to the kidneys.
2. Renal vein : Brings filtered blood from the kidneys to the inferior vena cave.
3. kidneys : Regulate the chemical composition Of fluids in the body.
4. Ureter : Carries urine from the kidneys to the urinary bladder.
5. Urinary bladder : An expandable, muscular sac that retains urine until it is discharged from the body.
6. Urethra : The tube through which urine is discharged from the body, it is surrounded by muscles that allow us to control urination.

Question 6.
Give any five endocrine glands and their location.
Answer:

(Glands)	(Location)
Pituitary gland	At the base of brain
Pineal Gland	At the base of brain
Thyroid Gland	Neck
Thymus Gland	Chest
Pancreas (Islets of Langerhans)	Abdomen
Adrenal Gland	Above the kidney
Gonads	Pelvic cavity

Students can Download English Lesson 3 Spices of India Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3 Spices of India

A. Answer the following questions.

Spices Of India Supplementary Question 1.
Why do we add spices to food?
Answer:
We add spices to food to balance nutrition and to keep us healthy.

Spices Of India 6th Std Summary Question 2.
Which spices are used a lot in Indian food?
Answer:
Spices used a lot in Indian food are cumin, mustard, pepper, cloves, fennel,cinnamon and turmeric

Spices Of India Supplementary Summary Question 3.
Which parts of a plant are collected as spices?
Answer:
Flowers, leaves, roots, bark, seeds and bulbs.

Spices Of India Summary Question 4.
What are the uses of spices?
Answer:
The spices give the dish a special, savoury taste. It makes us want to eat more!

6th Standard Question 5.
What happened after Columbus discovered America?
Answer:
After Columbus discovered America, he got chilli.

B. Choose the best option.

Indian Spices Book Pdf Question 1.
People say curry comes from a Tamil word ‘kari’ which means _______
(a) soup
(b) sauce
(c) sambar
Answer:
(b) sauce

Spices Of India Question 2.
Pepper is also known as _________
(a) liquid gold
(b) black gold
(c) white gold
Answer:
(b) black gold

Spices English Question 3.
_______ wrote about cinnamon in 2700 BC (BCE).
(a) Chinese
(b) Indians
(c) Japanese
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 4.
The Greeks, Romans and Egyptians all bought cinnamon from _________
(a) Japan
(b) South America
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Project

C. compare the travel maps of vasco da gama and Columbus

Flit In the table with the prompts. Frame sentences with the help of the table.

Answer:

Sailor	Vasco da Gama	Columbus
Year of travel	1497 – 1499	1492-1504
Started from	Portugal	Portugal
Reached	Calicut	South America
Explored	Melinda, Mombaca	Bahamas, Cuba, La Isabella
Taken away	Black pepper	Chilli

Connecting To Self

D. Leek it the table carefully. Then Complet the points below.

1. The paddy plants are given manure after 35 days watering
2. The plants take 35 – 90 days in ripening phase.
3. It takes 10 days to harvest the rice.
4. The rice grains have to be dried and then stored.
5. We store the grains for 120 days before boiling.

E. Talk In groups, Then share your thoughts with the class,

• Do you usually eat all the food served to you? If not, what are the reasons? When you eat lunch at school, which are the dishes you don’t eat or waste?
• Why do you avoid certain food items?
• Can you think of ways to reduce the amount of food wasted in your school?
• Have you seen or known anyone in need of food? Have you helped them? How?
• Take a pledge in your group not to waste food.

(To be done by the students)

Steps To Success

Question 1.
Four of the following five are alike in certain ways and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) Garlic
(b) Sesame
(c) Mustard
(d) Olive
(e) Com
Answer:
(a) All others are grown above the ground, while garlic grows under the ground.

Question 2.
In a certain code language if KBOVBSZ is the code word for JANUARY, what is the code word for OCTOBER?
(a) PDUBCFS
(b) PDUPCFS
(c) BDUPCFB
(d) PDUPCFM
Answer:

Spices of India Additional Questions

I. Choose The Correct Answers.

Question 1.
Spices are added to balance _______
(a) height
(b) weight
(c) nutrition
Answer:
(c) nutrition

Question 2.
Kari means _______
(a) sauce
(b) chutney
(c) curd
Answer:
(a) sauce

Question 3.
Columbus went to find
(a) Iran
(b) Italy
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Question 4.
Spices were traded along with
(a) paper
(b) perfume
(c) metals
Answer:
(b) perfume

Question 5.
Pepper is called as _______
(a) white gold
(b) black gold
(c) black diamond
Answer:
(b) black gold

II. Steps To Success.

Question 1.
Surya is 6th from the left end in a row of 20 boys, and Karthik is 13th from the right end in the same row. How many boys are there in between them in the row?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) None
Answer:
(c) One

Question 2.
Find the odd one out:
(a) orange
(b) pear
(c) apple
(d) papaya
(e) mango
Answer:
(e) Mango has only one seed in the given list of fruits.

Question 3.
Find the odd one out:
(a) carrot
(b) cucumber
(c) onion
(d) potato
(e) tomato
Answer:
(d) All except potato can be eaten raw.

III. Rearrange The Following Jumbled Sentences Intile Correct Order.

1. Many spices are added to keep us healthy.
2. They add no fat and no calories.
3. In India, spices are the soul of food.
4. They add flavour to dishes.
5. When we think of spices, we think of tasty & healthy food.
Answer:
(3, 5,1, 2,4)
3. In India, spices are the soul of food.
5. When we think of spices, we think of tasty & healthy food.
1. Many spices are added to keep us healthy.
2. They add flavour to dishes.
4. They add no fat and no calories.

IV. Read The Passage And Answer The Questions.

1. When it comes to Indian food, the first thing that comes to many people’s minds is probably ‘ Spicy curry’. People say curry comes from the Tamil word ‘kari’. In Tamil, kari means sauce. It is something that is cooked with a roasted or powdered mixture of spices, condiments and herbs. This mixture of spices can be different in different places. It can be mild or it can be spicy and pungent. Flowers, leaves, roots, bark, seeds and bulbs, are combined in many different ways to produce a great variety of flavours: sweet, sharp, hot, sour, spicy, aromatic, tart, mild, flagrant or pungent. When cooked with rice, meat, fish, or vegetables, the spices give the dish a special, savoury taste. It makes us want to eat more.

Question a.
What comes to our mind of Indian food?
Answer:
When it comes to Indian food, the first thing that comes to many people’s minds is probably ‘Spicy curry’.

Question b.
Explain the term “curry”
Answer:
People say curry comes from the Tamil word ‘kari’. In Tamil, kari means sauce.

Question c.
How will a curry be?
Ans.
It can be mild or it can be spicy and pungent.

Question d.
What are the parts used as spices?
Answer:
Flowers, leaves, roots, bark, seeds and bulbs, are combined in many different ways to produce a great variety of flavours.

Question e.
Why do we add of plant spice?
Answer:
It makes us want to eat more.

2. Black pepper also known as ‘Black gold’ was the most prized spice traded from the Kerala coast. Indians have been using black pepper for a very long time. Farmers began growing it in around 5000 years ago. And exported it to North and West Asia. The trade soon spread to Greece, Rome, Europe, and China, and also became popular in the Islamic empire. Recipes from rich Roman households show the value of the spice in ancient Rome. The Romans sent 120 ships a year from Egypt to trade with India and bring back enormous quantities of pepper.

Question a.
Where was pepper traded from?
Answer:
Black pepper also known as ‘Black gold’ was the most prized spice traded from the Kerala coast.

Question b.
When did farmers grow pepper?
Answer:
Farmers began growing it in around 5000 years ago.

Question c.
How do we know that Romans used pepper?
Answer:
Recipes from rich Roman households show the value of the spice in ancient Rome.

Question d.
Describe the pepper trade between Egypt & India.
Answer:
The Romans sent 120 ships a year from Egypt to trade with India and bring back enormous quantities of pepper.

V. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What are the adventures that spices bring to our mind?
Answer:
Apart from delicious food, spices also bring to mind adventures. Many of the most exciting voyages and modem history were made to conquer the spice trade and the race to become its master. The colonization of the America and Asia had its roots in spice trade. In 1492, Columbus went West to find India and pepper, but ran into America and the Chilli’.- Vasco-do-gama, six years later, went around Africa to reach Kozhikode, the home of pepper. These voyages ended the very profitable trade that the Arabs and Romans had built up over the centuries. They set the stage for a new world.

Question 2.
Which was the most prized spice traded from the Kerala coast? Who were using this spice?
Answer:
Black pepper also known as ‘Black gold’ was the most prized spice traded from the Kerala coast. Indians have been using black pepper for a very long time. Farmers began growing it in around 5000 years ago and exported it to North and West Asia. The trade soon spread to Greece, Rome, Europe, China and in the Islamic empire. Recipes from rich Roman households show the value of the spice in ancient Rome. The Romans sent 120 ships a year from Egypt to trade with India for Black pepper.

Question 3.
Who bought cinnamon from India and how did Venetians prosper by this spice?
Answer:
Cinnamon not only adds great flavour to food, it also helps to preserve it. People from other parts of the world appreciated the fragrance and taste of cinnamon. They wanted it too and were willing to pay a good price for it. The Greeks, the Romans and Egyptians bought cinnamon from India. In the middle ages, the Venetians grew rich by taxing the cinnamon that was brought from India to Europe and the Meditteranean.

Question 4.
Write a paragraph on My favourite dish.
Answer:
My favourite dish is Briyani. I know it is yummy due to the spices in it. It is made with tasty spices, rice, meat (chicken, goat, prawn, or fish), vegetables or eggs. My mother uses garlic, ginger, curd, cumin seeds, pepper, chillies etc. She uses a little curd and lemon juice to get a tangy taste.

Question 5.
Write a paragraph on My favourite teacher.
Answer:
My favorite teacher is Mrs. Nalini who teaches me English. She studied in Delhi and came back Chennai to be an English teacher. She has skills at teaching, sense of humour, friendly, patient and easygoing. She would give us lots of assignments which were for improving our English. She is very patient and enthusiastic to teach us whenever we had questions in her classes.

VI. Complete In Given Dialogue.

Priya : Good Morning (i) ________ ?
Sowmiya : I am watching T V dear.
Priya : Shall we go for a movie today?
Sowmiya (ii) ________________
Priya : I will come and pick you up at 5 p.m.
Sowmiya (iii) ________________
Priya : Ok. See you then.
Answer:

1. Sowmiya! What are you doing?
2. With pleasure. I am ready to see a movie.
3. Thank you. I will wait for you.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 2 Question 1.
_______ is the percentage of nitrogen in air
(a) 78%
(b) 21%
(c) 0.03%
(d) 1%
Answer:
(a) 78%

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Gas exchange takes place in plants using …………
(a) Stomata
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Leaves
(d) Flowers
Answer:
(a) Stomata

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Science Question 3.
The constituent of air that supports combustion is _______
(a) Nitrogen
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) water vapour
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Question 4.
Nitrogen is used in the food packaging industry because of it …………
(a) provides colour to the food
(b) provides oxygen to the food
(c) adds proteins and minerals to the food
(d) keeps the food fresh
Answer:
(d) keeps the food fresh

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 5.
_______ and _______ are the two gases, which when taken together, make up about 99 percentage of air.
I. Nitrogen
II. carbon-di-oxide
III. Noble gases
IV. Oxygen
(a) I and II
(b) I and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and IV
Answer:
(d) I and IV

II. Fill in the blanks:

1.  _______ is the active component of air.
2. The gas given out during photosynthesis is _______
3. _______ gas is given to the patients having breathing problems.
4. _______ can be seen moving in a beam of sunlight in a dark room.
5. _______ gas turns lime water milky.

Answers:

1. Oxygen
2. Oxygen
3. Oxygen
4. Dust particles
5. Carbon-di-oxide

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6 Science Question 1.
Inhaled air contains a large amount of carbon-di-oxide.
Answer:
False, Inhaled air contains a large amount of Oxygen.

Samacheer Kalvi Term 2 Question 2.
Planting trees help in decreasing global warming.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 3.
The composition of air is always exactly the same.
Answer:
False, The composition of air changes slightly place to place.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 4.
Whales come up to the water surface to breathe in oxygen.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi Books 6th Science Question 5.
The balance of oxygen in atmosphere is maintained through photosynthesis in animals and respiration in plants.
Answer:
False. The balance of oxygen in atmosphere is maintained through photosynthesis in plants and respiration in animals.

IV. Match the following:

6th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.

1. Moving Air	Photosynthesis
2. Layer in which we live	Troposphere
3. Stratosphere	Wind
4. Oxygen	Ozone layer
5. carbon-di-oxide	Combustion

Answer:

1. Moving Air	Wind
2. Layer in which we live	Troposphere
3. Stratosphere	Ozone layer
4. Oxygen	Combustion
5. carbon-di-oxide	Photosynthesis

V. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Term 2 Question 1.

1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide just as animals.
4. Plants take carbon-di-oxide from the atmosphere, use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
6. During this process, oxygen is released by plants.

Answers:

1. Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis.
2. Plants require energy for their growth.
3. Plants take in oxygen and release carbon di oxide just as animals.
4. Plant take carbon di oxide from the atmosphere use chlorophyll in the presence of sunlight and prepare food.
5. Such oxygen is available to animals and human beings for breathing.
6. During this process oxygen is released by plants.

VI. Analogy:

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Photosynthesis : _______ :: Respiration : Oxygen.
Answer:
Carbon – dioxide.

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 2.
78% of air : Does not support combustion :: ________ : Supports combustion
Answer:
21% of air.

VII. Observe the given figure carefully and answer the questions:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science 6th Question 1.
What will happen if we remove plants from the aquarium?
Answer:
If we remove the plants from the aquarium, oxygen percentage will be decreased. So fishes would die.

Question 2.
What will happen if we remove the fish from the aquarium and keep it (with green plants) in a dark place?

Answer:
If the aquarium is kept in the dark place, the green plants will not prepare their food due to lack of sunlight and carbon di oxide. So the plants get spoiled.

VIII. Give very short answer:

Question 1.
What is the atmosphere? Name the five layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called the atmosphere.
The atmosphere is made of five different layers – the Troposphere, the Stratosphere, the Mesosphere, the Ionosphere and the Exosphere.

Question 2.
How do the roots of land plants get oxygen for breathing?
Answer:
The roots can absorb oxygen from the small air spaces in soil.

Question 3.
What should be done if the clothes of a person catch fire accidentally? Why?
Answer:

1. Cover the person in a rug or blanket and Roll him on the floor.
2. This will cut off the air and put out the flames.
3. Suitable fire extinguisher can also be chosen.

Question 4.
What will happen if you breathe through mouth?
Answer:
Anyone can develop a habit of breathing through their mouth, but certain conditions increase your risk. These include:-

1. Chronic allergies
2. Hay fever
3. Chronic or recurring Sinus infections
4. Asthma
5. Chronic Stress and Anxiety.

IX. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Biscuits kept open on a plate during monsoon days lose it’s crispness. Why?
Answer:
Air also contains more water vapour in rainy season (monsoon days). So, Biscuits kept open on a plate during monsoon days loses its crispness.

Question 2.
Why do traffic assistants wear a mask on duty?
Answer:
Traffic assistants are continually exposed to smoke emitted out from the vehicles. Inhaling the pollutants in the smoke may cause breathing and lung problems. So they wear a mask on duty.

X. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How do plants and animals maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon-di-oxide in air?
Answer:
Respiration in plants:
During respiration, plants take in oxygen and release carbon-di-oxide, just as animal also do. Gaseous exchange with air in atmosphere takes place in plants with stomata.

Photosynthesis:
During photosynthesis, carbon-di-oxide from the air and water from the soil react in the presence of sunlight to produce food. Plants release oxygen during photosynthesis which is much more than the oxygen consumed by the plants during respiration.

Respiration in animats:
When we breath in air, the oxygen present in the air reacts chemically with digested food within the body to produce carbon-di-oxide gas. The inhaled air contains more oxygen while the exhaled air contains more carbon-di-oxide.

So plants sent out more oxygen during the photosynthesis. Animals sent out more carbon-di-oxide during respiration. Plants take carbon-di-oxide for photosynthesis. Animals take oxygen during respiration. So plants and animals maintain the balance of oxygen and carbon-di-oxide in air.

Question 2.
Why is atmosphere essential for life on earth?
Answer:
The atmosphere is essential for life because it maintains an appropriate climate for the maintenance of life by carrying out the following activities:

1. The atmosphere keeps the average temperature of the Earth fairly constant during the day time.
2. It prevents a sudden increase in temperature during the day time.
3. It also slows down the escape of heat from the surface of the Earth into outer space during the night time.

XI. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
Can you guess why fire extinguishers throw a stream of carbon-di-oxide while putting – off fire?
Answer:
The reasons behind fire extinguishers throw a stream of CO, while putting-off fire:-

1. CO₂ is a colourless and in normal concentrations, odourless gas. It doesn’t react with burning materials, so it doesn’t create any toxic or other by products while putting-off fire.
2. Carbon dioxide doesn’t conduct electricity, making it an ideal fire suppressant for use in the places where a large amount of electricity may be present.
3. CO₂ acts on fires in two ways: The release of the gas under pressure has a cooling effect, as can be seen by the resulting mist cloud and ice particles; the gas also displaces the oxygen that’s necessary to maintain combustion.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Air Intext Activities

Activity 1

Air is everywhere
Let us take an empty glass bottle. Is it really empty or does it have something inside?

Now, shall we turn the glass bottle upside down? Can you agree that there is still something inside the empty glass bottle? Let us do the following activity to find what is there inside an empty glass bottle.
Dip the open mouth of the bottle into the trough filled with water as shown in Fig 1. Observe the bottle. Does water enter the bottle? _______
Now tilt the bottle slightly. Now again dip the open mouth of the bottle as shown in
Fig 2. Do you think that water will enter the bottle? _______
Kindly observe the Fig 2 carefully. You can see bubbles coming out of the bottle.
When you perform the experiment, can you hear the bubbly sound? can you now guess what was inside the bottle? _______
Yes, you are right. It is “air” that was present in the bottle.
The bottle was not empty at all. In fact, it was filled completely with air even when you turned it upside down. That is why we notice that water does not enter the bottle when it is pushed in an inverted position, as there was no space for air to escape.
When the bottle was tilted, the air was able to come out in the form of bubbles, and water filled up the empty space that the air has occupied.
Hence we can see that air fills all the space inside the bottle.
Answer:
Fig. – 1 – No.
Fig – 2 – Yes.
Yes, I can hear a bubbly sound. Yes the bottle has a full of ‘Air’.

Activity 2

Take a healthy branch of Hydrilla and place it in a funnel. Invert the funnel in a beaker of water as shown in the figure. Invert a test tube over the stem of the funnel. The stem of the funnel should be kept immersed inside the water Leave the beaker in sunlight for some time. You will notice some bubbles rising in the test tube. The bubbles contain oxygen released by the plant during photosynthesis. If we show a glowing splinter to the collected air, it burns brightly. This shows that the collected gas is oxygen.

Activity 3

We know that iron undergoes rusting with oxygen and forms iron oxide. This process can be used to estimate the percentage of oxygen in air, which has been removed by the rusting reaction.

Take a small portion of iron wool, press it into a 20 ml graduated test tube and wet it with water. Tip away excess of water. Take a 500ml beaker and fill half of the beaker with water. Invert the test tube and place it in air. Leave the arrangement at least for a week without making any disturbance to the test tube.

Observe the changes that had happened in the iron wool and to the level of water inside the test tube. We could see that the water level has increased inside the test tube. The rise in water is because of oxygen in air which has been removed by the rusting reaction. This will be about 20% which is approximately the percentage of oxygen in the air.

Activity 4

Oxygen is necessary for burning

Place two candles on a table. Ensure that both the candles are of same size and height. Mark them as candle 1 and candle 2 using a chalkpiece. Light both the candles. Now, cover candle 2 with glass tumbler as shown in the figure. Observe the happenings at both the candles.

What does happen to candle 1?
_________________________
What does happen to candle 2?
_________________________
Can you guess why did the covered candle extinguish?
_________________________

Let us summarize the happenings.

The candle 1 continues to bum, unless it is blown – off by strong moving air or any other external force. This is because fresh air is continuously available to the candle for its burning process.

Candle 2 glows for a while and then gets put – off. When the burning candle is covered with a glass tumbler, the candle can use the oxygen available in the air inside the glass tumbler. Since only a small amount of air is present inside the glass tumbler – only a small portion of oxygen is available for the candle to continue glowing. When all the oxygen of the air inside the gas jar is used up, then the burning candle gets extinguished.

Now, repeat the candle – glowing experiment taking four containers of different sizes. Lor example, you can take a 250ml conical flask, a 500ml bottle, a one – litre jar, a two – litre jar. Cover the burning candle one by one with these containers and find out how long it takes for the candle to extinguish in each case. Record your observations in the following table.
Answer:

S.No.	Volume of the container (ml)	Time taken for candle to extinguish (second)
1.	250	6 seconds
2.	500	12 seconds
3.	1000	24 seconds
4.	2000	48 seconds

The time taken for the candle to extinguish depends upon the volume of the containers. Lor less volume, the time taken is less. Lor more volume, the time taken is more.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Movement of wind takes place in _______ layer
(a) Troposphere
(b) ozone
(c) stratosphere
(d) ionosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Question 2.
A component of air used by green plants to prepare their food is
(a) N₂
(b) O₂
(c) He
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(d) CO₂

Question 3.
_______ layer contain ozone layer.
(a) Trophosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(b) Stratosphere

Question 4.
The percentage of oxygen in exhaled air of respiration is
(a) 78%
(b) 16%
(c) 4%
(d) 21%
Answer:
(b) 16%

Question 5.
During respiration carbon-di-oxide is exhaled out of the body through the _______
(a) Lungs
(b) Heart
(c) Kidney
(d) Skin
Answer:
(a) Lungs

Question 6.
_______ respire using their skin.
(a) Fish
(b) Frogs
(c) Rats
(d) Human beings
Ans:
(b)Frogs

Question 7.
_______ gas cylinders are used for breathing purpose for a diver going deep into the sea
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon-di-oxide
(c) Oxygen
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Atmosphere is held in place by the earth’s _______
2. The atmosphere is made of _______ different layers.
3. A _______ shows the direction in which the air is moving at a particular place.
4. The ozone layer protects all life on earth from the harmful _______ rays of the sun.
5. Highly reactive gas was later names ‘oxygen’ by _______
6. _______ discovered nitrogen.
7. Air contains small amount of CO₂, Water vapour and some other gases like _______ etc.
8. Air contains more _______ in rainy season

Answers:

1. gravity
2. five
3. weathercock
4. ultraviolet
5. Lavoisier
6. Daniel Rutherford
7. argon,helium
8. water vapour

III. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement:

Question 1.
When air is moving with cool and soothing, it is called as cyclone.
Answer:
False. When air is moving with cool and soothing is called as breeze.

Question 2.
Exosphere has high temperature.
Answer:
False. Exosphere has low temperature.

Question 3.
Jan Ingenhousz showed that chlorophyll is essential to the plant to carry out photosynthesis.
Answer:
False. Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to the plant to carry out photosynthesis.

Question 4.
The second major component of air is oxygen.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Air also contains small amount of carbon-di-oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The amount of water vapour in the air is more in windy places than other areas.
Answer:
False. The amount of dust in the air is more in windy places then other areas.

IV. Match the following:

1. More industrial cities	(a)	dust particles
2. Coastal areas	b)	Humidity
3. Rainy season	c)	Carbon di oxide
4. Windy places	(d)	water vapour

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Cool and soothing wind : Breeze.
uproot trees wind : ________
Answer:
Cyclone

Question 2.
Weather changes : Trophosphere.
Ozone layer: ________
Answer:
Stratosphere

Question 3.
Oxygen : Joseph Priestley.
Nitrogen : ________
Answer:
Daniel Rutherford

Question 4.
Respire through skin: ________
Respire through gills: Fish
Answer:
Frogs

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define – Atmosphere.
Answer:
Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air. It is called atmosphere.

Question 2.
The air envelope is thicker near the earth’s surface and we go higher the density and availability of air gradually decreases. Why?
Answer:
When altitude increases, number of gas molecules will be decreased. Therefore, the density is also decreased when we go higher. Gravity pulls most of the atmosphere’s gas molecules close to the Earth’s surface. Air rises as it is heated because it becomes less dense.

Question 3.
Define troposphere.
Answer:

1. This layer is closest to the earth.
2. It is the layer in which we live.
3. Movement of wind takes place in this layer.
4. It also contains water vapour, which is responsible for making clouds.
5. It is responsible for the weather we experience on earth.

Question 4.
Why aircraft usually fly above the troposphere layer?
Answer:
Aircrafts usually fly above the troposphere to avoid strong winds and bad weather.

Question 5.
How to show that the presence of carbon-di-oxide in air?
Answer:
Pour some lime water in a glass tumbler Bubble some air using a straw through the litne water. After a few minutes, lime water will produce a white precipitate and that the lime water will turn to a milky white solution. This shows the presence of Carbon- di-oxide in air.

Question 6.
Write the composition of air.
Answer:
The major component of air is nitrogen. Almost four – fifth of air is nitrogen. The second major component of air is oxygen. Air also contains small amount of Carbon-di- oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc. The air may also contain some dust particles.

Question 7.
The composition of air changes slightly from place to place. Give examples.
Answer:

1. Air over industrial cities has a higher amount of carbon-di-oxide in it.
2. Air in coastal areas may have more water vapour than inland areas.
3. Air also contains more water vapour in rainy season.
4. The amount of dust in the air is more in windy places.

Question 8.
What is meant by burning?
Answer:
The process of burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen and releasing a large amount of light and heat is called burning.

Question 9.
In Rockets, along with fuel, oxygen is also carried for combustion – why?
Answer:
In Rockets, as they go high in the atmosphere, the availability of oxygen is considerably reduced. So rockets along with the fuel, oxygen is also carried for combustion.

Question 10.
Write the equation of photosynthesis.
Answer:

Question 11.
What is dry ice? What is its use?
Answer:

1. When carbon-di-oxide is cooled to -57°C, it directly becomes a solid, without changing to its liquid state. It is called dry ice.
2. Dry ice is used in trucks or freight cars for refrigerating meat and fish while transporting them.

Question 12.
Write the uses of wind mills.
Answer:
The wind mills are used

1. to draw water by running pumps
2. run flour mills
3. to generate electricity.

Question 13.
Give the components present in the air with percentage?
Answer:
The components present in the air with percentage Nitrogen – 78%, Oxygen – 21%, Carbon di oxide, Argon, Water vapour and other gases – 1%.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Prove by an experiment that Oxygen is released during photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Take a healthy branch of Hydrilla and place it in a funnel. Invert the funnel in a beaker of water as shown in the figure.
2. Invert a test tube over the stem of the funnel.
3. The stem of the funnel should be kept immersed inside the water Leave the beaker in sunlight for some time.
4. You will notice some bubbles rising in the test tube.
   
5. The bubbles contain oxygen released by the plant during photosynthesis.
6. If we show a glowing splinter to the collected air, it bums brightly.
7. This shows that the collected gas is oxygen.

Question 2.
Prove by an experiment that oxygen is necessary for burning.
Answer:

1. Place two candles on a table.
2. Ensure that both the candles are of same size and height.
3. Mark them as candle 1 and candle 2 using a chalkpiece.
4. Light both the candles. Now, cover candle 2 with glass tumbler as shown in the figure.
5. Observe the happenings at both the candle.
   
6. The candle 1 continues to bum, unless it is blown – off by strong moving air or any other external force.
7. This is because fresh air is continuously available to the candle for its burning process.
8. Candle 2 glows for a while and then gets put – off.
9. When the burning candle is covered with a glass tumbler, the candle can use the oxygen available in the air inside the glass tumbler.
10. Since only a small amount of air is present inside the glass tumbler – only a small portion of oxygen is available for the candle to continue glowing.
11. When all the oxygen of the air inside the gas jar is used up, then the burning candle gets extinguished.

Question 3.
Compare the composition of inhaled air and exhaled air.
Answer:

Component	Inhaled air	Exhaled air
Nitrogen	78%	78%
Oxygen	21%	16%
Carbon-di -oxide	0.03%	4%
Water vapour	Variable amount	amount increases in exhaled air
Noble gases	0.95%	0.95%
Dust	Variable amount	none
Temperature	Room temperature	Body temperature

Question 4.
Write the uses of air.
Answer:

1. Air is used by plants and animals for breathing.
2. Air is used for burning fuels like wood, coal, kerosene, LPG etc.
3. Compressed air is used to fill tyres of various kinds of vehicles.
4. Ozone layer, present in the atmosphere, helps in preventing harmful radiations of the sun from reaching the earth’s surface.
5. Under extra – ordinary conditions such as:
   • (a) a patient having breathing difficulties,
   • (b) a mountaineer climbing a high mountain,
   • (c) a diver going deep into the sea, oxygen gas cylinders are used for breathing purposes.
6. Blowing air is used to turn the blades of wind mills. The wind mills are used to draw water by running pumps, run flour mills and to generate electricity.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Achieving Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Achieving Equality For Class 6 Question 1.
Which one of the following is not the reason for Prejudice?
(a) Socialization
(b) Economic Benefits
(c) Authoritarian personality
(d) Geography
Answer:
(d) Geography

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 2.
Discrimination done on the basis of gender is referred to as …………….
(a) gender discrimination
(b) caste discrimination
(c) religious discrimination
(d) inequality
Answer:
(a) gender discrimination

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 3.
Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in
(a) films
(b) advertisements
(c) TV serials
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) AH of these

Social Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 4.
Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam …………….
(a) India 2020
(b) Wings of Fire
(c) Ignited Minds
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
Answer:
(a) 1997

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Question 6.
Viswanathan Anand became India’s first grandmaster in the year.
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Samacheer Kalvi Social 6th Standard Question 7.
In which sport Ilavazhagi excels
(a) Chess
(b) Wrestling
(c) Carrom
(d) Tennis
Answer:
(c) Carrom

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 8.
Which article of the Constitution says discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them is not …………….
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
(d) 17(1)
Answer:
(b) 15(1)

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 9.
B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
Answer :
(a) 1990

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Question 10.
As per the 2011 census the highest literate district in Tamil Nadu …………….
(a) Namakkal
(b) Salem
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Sivagangai
Answer:
(c) Kanyakumari

II. Fill in the blanks :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.

1. People have false belief and ideas on others is called _______.
2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was born in _______.
3.  _______was the first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, India’s highest Sport honour
4. _______was independent India’s first Law Minister
5. As per the 2011 Census, the lowest Sex ratio was in _______.

Answers:

1. Prejudices
2. Rameswaram
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Dharmapuri Dist

III. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Question 1.

1. Prejudice – (i) abolition of untouchability
2. Stereotype – (ii) treating someone less fairly than others
3. Discrimination – (iii) equality before law
4. Article 14 – (iv) false view or idea about something
5. Article 17 – (v) judge other people negatively

Answer:

1. – v
2. – iv
3. – ii
4. – iii
5. – ii

IV. Answer the following questions:

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Science Question 1.
What is Prejudice?
Answer:

1. Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner, without knowing much about them.
2. It happens when people have false belief and ideas.

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 2.
What is a stereotype?
Answer:
When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a stereotype. Stereotype is a false view or idea about something. For example, girls are not good at sports.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 6th Question 3.
What is discrimination?
Answer:

1. Discrimination can be defined as negative actions towards people.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion and gender etc.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 4.
What are the articles that are discussing the equality in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides equality before the law or equal protection within the territory of India.
2. Article 15 (1) of the Constitution states that the State shall not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
3. Article 17 of the Indian consitution, untouchability is totally abolished.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Question 1.
What are the causes of Prejudice?
Answer:
Some common social factors that contributes to the rise of prejudice are-

1. Socialisation
2. Conforming behaviours
3. Economic benefits
4. Authoritarian personality
5. Ethno – centrism
6. Group closure
7. Conflicts

Social Guide For Class 6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Write any two types of discrimination?
Answer:
Caste discrimination:

1. Caste system is the most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination in India.
2. In the beginning the society was divided into different groups on the basis of occupation, known as varnas.
3. Leaders like Ambedkar was against caste discrimination.
4. He fought actively for equality among the citizens of India

Gender discrimination:

1. Gender discrimination refers to health, education, economic and political inequalities between men and women in India.
2. For example: A girl is not allowed to go to college after finishing her schooling.
3. Most of the girls are not allowed to select a career of their choice.
4. In some families girls are not allowed to wear modern dresses while boys in such families wear modern dresses.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Question 3.
Explain the solution to the removal of inequality and discrimination in Indian society?
Answer:
The remedial measures for abolishing inequality and discrimination in Indian society are as follows.

1. Wider access to quality based services like healthcare and education for all.
2. Be aware of current gender bias.
3. Make women more visible in public life and institution to eradicate gender disparity.
4. Be open to learning about other religions.
5. Promoting community dining in the classroom may help the students to sit together without any bias of caste, religion or gender.
6. Socialise with people of all types outside home.
7. Effective implementation of laws.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Science Question 2.
Collect information about any two famous personalities who faced prejudice and discrimination.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar :

(i) Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 in the town and military cantonment of Mhow in the Central Provinces (now in Madhya Pradesh).

(ii) He was the 14th and last child of Ramji Maloji Sakpal, an army officer who held the rank of Subedar, and Bhimabai Sakpal, daughter of Laxman Murbadkar.

(iii) His family was of Marathi background from the town of Ambadawe (Mandangad taluka) in Ratnagiri district of modem-day Maharashtra.

(iv) Ambedkar was bom into a poor low Mahar (dalit) caste, who were treated as untouchables and subjected to socio-economic discrimination.

(v) Ambedkar’s ancestors had long worked for the army of the British East India Company, and his father served in the British Indian Army at the Mhow cantonment.

(vi) Although they attended school, Ambedkar and other untouchable children were segregated and given little attention or help by teachers. They were not allowed to sit inside the class. When they needed to drink water, someone from a higher caste had to pour that water from a height as they were not allowed to touch either the water or the vessel that contained it.

(vii) This task was usually performed for the young Ambedkar by the school peon, and if the peon was not available then he had to go without water; he described the situation later in his writings as “No peon, No Water”. He was required to sit on a gunny sack which he had to take home with him.

Dr. Nelson Mandela :

(i) Mandela was bom on 18 July 1918 in the village of Mvezo in Umtata, then part of South Africa’s Cape Province.

(ii) He spent the first 18 of his 27 years in jail at the brutal Robben Island Prison, a former leper colony off the coast of Cape Town.

(iii) He was confined to a small cell without a bed or plumbing and compelled to do hard labor in a lime quarry. ,

(iv) As a black political prisoner, he received scantier rations and fewer privileges than other inmates. He was only allowed to see his wife, Winnie Madikizela-Mandela once every six months.

(v) Mandela and his fellow prisoners were routinely subjected to inhumane punishments for the slightest of offenses; among other atrocities, there were reports of guards burying inmates in the ground up to their necks and urinating on them.

(vi) Despite his forced retreat from the spotlight, Mandela remained the symbolic leader of the antiapartheid movement.

(vii) In 1980 Oliver Tambo introduced a “Free Nelson Mandela” campaign that made the jailed leader a household name and fueled the growing international outcry against South Africa’s racist regime.

(viii) As pressure mounted, the government offered Mandela his freedom in exchange for various political compromises, including the renouncement of violence and recognition of the “independent” Transkei Bantustan, but he categorically rejected these deals.

(ix) In 1982 Mandela was moved to Pollsmoor Prison on the mainland, and in 1988 he was placed under house arrest on the grounds of a minimum-security correctional facility.

(x) The following year, newly elected president F. W. de Klerk lifted the ban and called for a nonracist South Africa, breaking with the conservatives in his party. On February 11, 1990, he ordered Mandela’s release.

(xi) Mandela helped bring an end to apartheid and has been a global advocate for human rights.

(xii) He was a leader of both peaceful protests and armed resistance against the white minority’s oppressive regime in a racially divided South Africa.

(xiii) His actions landed him in prison for nearly three decades and made him the face of the antiapartheid movement both within his country and internationally.

(xiv) Released in 1990, he participated in the eradication of apartheid and in 1994 became the first black president of South Africa, forming a multiethnic government to oversee the country’s transition.

VII. HOTS:

Class 6 Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Various discrimination in India. Discuss.
Answer:

1. The different forms of inequalities such as caste inequality, religious inequality, race inequality or gender inequality give rise to discrimination.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion gender etc.
3. Treating dark-skinned people differently from fair-skinned people, giving more importance to people of higher than to those of lower caste and thinking boys are smarter than girls are all thoughts of discrimination.
4. Article 15(1) of the consitution states that the State not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

VIII Life Skill:

Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 1.
How can you fight against prejudice and discrimination in your village?
Answer:
Fighting against prejudice and discrimination :

1. First we should assess our own biases. We should understand what they are.
2. Keep ourselves accountable. Prejudice is a kind of handicap to our perspective. We are forbidden to think beyond our assumptions. A virtual wall gets built around our objective thinking.
3. Acknowledge our own biases and prejudices and actively replace them with more! reasonable alternative.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Books Answers Question 1.
The eleventh President of India was _______
(a) Narasimha Rao
(b) Man mohan singh
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(d) lal bahadur sastri
Answer:
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

6th Samacheer Kalvi Social Guide Question 2.
Apartheid was abolished in ……………
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 3.
Baba Saheb refers to ______
(a) Patel
(b) Tilak
(c) Ambedkar
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Ambedkar

Question 4.
As per the 2011 census the lowest literate district in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chennai
(b) Thoothukudi
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Urban people are more civilised than rural people in _______ and _______.
2. When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a _______.
3. In 1988, India’s first grandmaster was _______.
4. The Indian National carrom championship in 2008 was won by _______.
5. At the Rio Paralympics (2016) _______ won the gold medal in men’s high jump T-42 event.
6. The Father of the Indian Constitution is _______.
7. The most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination is _______.

Answer:

1. Attitudes,behaviour
2. stereotype
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Ilavazhagi
5. Mariyappan
6. Dr. Ambedkar
7. caste system

II. Match the following
(a) Abdul Kaiam – (i) Padma Vibushan
(b) Viswanathan Anand – (ii) India’s first law minister
(c) Ambedkar – (iii) Closed
(d) Varrias – (iv) Missile Man of India
Answer:
(a – iv)
(b – i)
(c – ii)
(d – iii)

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is meant by Stereotype?
Answer:

1. When prejudice gets stronger in develops into a stereotype.
2. Stereotype is a false view or idea about something.
3. Stereotype is learned at a very early age, and children grow to have very strong ideas or opinions about things, groups or ideologies.
4. As children grow up, the lines of like and hate for others things, people, cultures, beliefs, languages become sharper.

Question 2.
Mention the different forms of inequalities
Answer:

1. Caste inequality
2. Religious inequality
3. Race inequality
4. Gender inequality

Question 3.
How many times did Viswanathan Anand win World Chess Championship?
Answer:
Viswanathan Anand won the World Chess Championships five times in 2000, 2007,2008, 2010 and 2012.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a short note op Dr. APJ Abdul Kaiam. ,
Answer:
Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kaiam was bom in a Muslim family in Rameswaram.He was the 11th President of India and who is fondly remembered as People’s President.He completed his schooling at Ramnad, graduation from St. Joseph’s College, Trichy, and went on to study aerospace engineering at the Madras Institute of Technology (MIT) after he joined the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).

Kalam’s family had become poor at his early age; he sold newspapers to supplement )his family income.Kaiam has written many books. Among them, very famous books are India 2020, Wings of Fire, Ignited Minds, The Luminous Sparks and Mission India.He was a recipient of several prestigious awards, including the Bharat Ratna. India’s v highest civilian honour in 1997.His outstanding work earned him the title of the ‘Missile Man of India’.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is _______ water.
(a) fresh
(b) pure
(c) Salty
(d) polluted
Answer:
(c) Salty

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of water cycle?
a. evaporation
b. condensation
c. rain
d. distillation

Science Term 3 Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
(a) ii and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) i and ii
Answer:
(c) i and iv

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science 3rd Term Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
a. glaciers
b. groundwater
c. other sources of water
d. 0.3%
Answer:
b. groundwater

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Third Term Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates a lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is _______
(a) make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
(b) use it for watering plants
(c) to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
(d) to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
(b) use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Only _______ percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called _______
3. _______ is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during _______
5. Water cycle is also called as _______

Answer:

1. 0.3
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Raining
5. Hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.
Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
Answer:
False. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 3 Question 2.
Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
Answer:
False. Ponds are formed when the water table meets the land surface.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Term 3 Question 3.
The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
Answer:
True.

6th Science Term 3 Question 4.
Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Question 5.
Sea water can be used for irrigation as such.
Answer:
False. Sea water cannot be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following :

1. Flood	Lake
2. Surface water	Evaporation
3. Sunlight	Water vapour
4. Cloud.	Pole
5. Frozen water	Increased rainfall

Answer:

1. Flood	Increased rain fall
2. Surface water	Lake
3, Sunlight	Evaporation
4. Cloud	Water vapour
5. Frozen water	Pole

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence :

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
4. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
5. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

6th Standard Science Water Lesson Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity :: Recycle : __________
Answer:
Water Management.

6th Science Water Question 2.
Ground water : __________ :: Surface water : lakes
Answer:
Tube wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Science Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
In city, people get water from water tanks, hand pipes and bore wells.
In rural area, people get water from wells, canals, ponds and rivers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Water Lesson 6th Standard Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:

1. The millions of tiny droplets do not collide with another to form larger droplets.
2. The air around the clouds is not cool.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
In Arctic and Antarctic circle, water in lakes and ponds will be frozen and a solid layer of ice is formed on the surface of water. Still aquatic animals living under the ice do not die. This is because the floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So as the surface water alone turns to ice, the aquatic animals manage it.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface water:

1. Water present on the surface of the earth.
2. Ex : River, lake, ponds, streams or freshwater.

Groundwater:

1. Water present beneath earth’s surface in soil.
2. Ex : open wells, tube wells (or) hand pumps, Spings etc.

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”?
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water and even then we face scarcity of water. Reasons:

1. 97% of total water is found in seas and oceans, which is salty and not fit for human consumption.
2. Only 3% found is the freshwater and that too available in polar ice caps and glaciers.
3. Out of 3% fresh water, only 0.3% is available to us as surface water, in lakes, rivers, and swamps.

Question 4.
Give a reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:

1. Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
2. If we dispose of sewage before treatment the rivers and oceans will be polluted.
3. Aquatic animals and species will die due to pollution.
4. We can not use the river water for our day to day life.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics?
Answer:

1. Potable water is the water which is safe to drink.
2. On average the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.

Characteristics of potable water :

1. Cleaned of harmful contaminants.
2. It is transparent.
3. It is odourless and colourless.
4. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as Waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the Waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He get Ramon Magasaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got Jamnalal Bajaj award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian, named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:

1. Direct collection and use of rain water is called rainwater harvesting.
2. The system is easy to install, operate and maintain for all types of houses.
3. Excellent and valuable source of water in emergencies.
4. Reduces rainwater runoff and solve drainage problems in houses.
5. Ideal solution for inadequacy of water.
6. Increase groundwater level.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
Yes, the formation of clouds is possible at that area because plants also release water vapour by transpiration process. This water vapour will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which get condensed and changed into tiny water droplets and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword :

DOWN:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from sea water.
6. Water stored in dams is used for generation of _____
ACROSS
3. _______ is a large body of non-potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as _______
5. Plants undergo _______ and contribute to water cycle.

Answer:
Down:
1. Recycling
2. Evaporation
6. Electricity

Across:
3. Ocean
4. Sweat
5. Transpiration

XI.

Question 1.
Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

a. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
b. Name the food item that has maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Name the food item that has minimum amount of water in its content.
d. Human body consists of about _________ percentage of water.
e. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.
Answer:
a. 70% of water is seen in fish.
b. Watermelon has maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Fish has minimum amount of water in its content.
d. 60%.
e. Watermelon is the food item which can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
a. Dharmapuri, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Perambalur, Tanjore, Pudukottai, Dindugul, Madurai, Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
b. Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kanchipuram, Vellore, Krishnagiri, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Namakkal, Vizhupuram, Ariyalur, Thiruvarur, Thiruppur, Virudunagar, Tuticorin.
c. Cuddalore, Nagappatinam, Nilgiri, Coimbatore, Theni, Thirunelveli, Kanyakumari.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Intext Activities

Activity 1

Relative amount of water at various sources

Take a 20 litre bucket, a 500 ml mug, a 150 ml tumbler and a 1 ml spoon. If the capacity of the bucket is 20 litre, then it represents the total amount of water present on the Earth.

Now, transfer a mug of water from the bucket and it is 500 ml and then it represents the total amount of fresh water present in the Earth. The water left in the bucket represents seas and oceans. This water is not fit for human use.

The water present in the mug represents the freshwater which is present in frozen form on snow-covered mountains, glaciers and polar ice caps. This water is also not readily available for human use. Next, transfer 150 ml of water to the tumbler, then it represents the total amount of ground water. Finally, take one-fourth spoonful of water while the capacity of the spoon is 1 ml, then it represents the total amount of surface water (i.e) water seen in all the rivers, lakes and ponds of the world. It can be taken as potable water.

When such a small amount of potable water is available, then we should be more cautious in handling water. Is it not?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2
Conduct the activity with common salt, sand, chalk powder, charcoal powder and copper sulphate.

Fill up the following table.

Substance	Dissolves in water	Does not dissolve in water
common salt
sand
chalk powder
charcoal powder
copper sulphate

From the above activity, we could observe that common salt and copper sulphate dissolve in water and contribute their properties like colour and other properties to water but sand, chalk powder and charcoal powder do not dissolve in water.
Answer:

Substance	Dissolves in water	Does not dissolve in water
common salt	✓
sand		✓
chalk powder		✓
charcoal powder		✓
copper sulphate	✓

Activity 3

Water contains dissolved salts

Take some tap water in a china dish and heat it. Continue heating till all the water gets dried up. Stop the heating and look at the china dish. What do you observe inside the china dish?

Deposits of some solid particles on the surface of china dish can be observed. The deposit is of salts that are dissloved in water. This shows that water has dissolved salts in it.

Note : Do not use distilled water or water from purifier or RO unit and the like for this activity.

Activity 4
Spread a piece of wet cloth in the sunlight. Observe after some time. Where has the water in the wet cloth gone?

The water evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun.

Activity 5

Condensation of water vapour

Take a glass half filled with water. Wipe the outer surface of the glass with a clean piece of cloth. Add some ice into the water. Wait for one or two minutes. Observe the changes that take place on the outer surface of the glass.

From where do water drops appear on the outer side of the glass?

The cold surface of the glass containing icy water cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses on the surface of the glass. This process is also the result of condensation of water vapour.

Activity 6

Estimation of water consumed by a family on a day

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ form of water is present in mountain and polar region.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gaseous
(d) All these
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 2.
The melting point of Ice is ……….
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 0.100°C
(d) 10°C
Answer:
(b) 0°C

Question 3.
_______ water contains 0.05% to 1% of salts.
(a) Brackish
(b) Fresh
(c) Sea
(d) Sewage
Answer:
(b) Fresh

Question 4.
The human body requires ………. litres of water per day for proper functioning.
(a) 2 – 3 litres
(b) 3 – 4 litres
(c) 4 – 5 litres
(d) 1 – 2 litres
Answer:
(b) 3 – 4 litres

Question 5.
In plants, the loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts through _______
(a) Root
(b) Shoot
(c) Stomatal Pores
(d) Fruit
Ans:
(c) Stomatal Pores

Question 6.
_______ water is obtained through open wells, tube wells or hand pumps, springs.
(a) Surface
(b) Frozen
(c) Saline
(d) Ground
Ans:
(d) Ground

Question 7.
_______ of Asia’s largest rivers flow from the Himalayas.
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 8.
Volume of liquid is measured by _______
(a) Gallon
(b) Litre
(c) Cusec
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 9.
_______ forests are found in pichavaram near Chidambaram
(a) Green
(b) Grass lands
(c) Mangrove
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ plays a vital role in the evolution and survival of life.
2. _______ is present in the air around us.
3. In the distribution of total 0.3% of surface water, _______ have 87% surface water.
4. The molecular formula of water is _______
5. The oceanic volcanoes which are present inside also add _______ to the sea.
6. Every year _______ is observed as the world water day.
7. The water vapour gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form _______ in the sky.
8. A larger portion of water is _______ % of the total available fresh water in frozen state.
9. Water level in the reservoirs is measured in _______
10. Adoption of _______ and irrigation in agriculture.

Answers:

1. Water
2. Vapour
3. Lakes
4. H₂O
5. Salt
6. March 22nd
7. Clouds
8. 68.7
9. Cubic feet per second (cusecs)
10. Drip, Sprinkler

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Mountains helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.
Answer:
False. Water helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.

Question 2.
Solid form of water is present in underground.
Answer:
False. Liquid form of water is present in underground.

Question 3.
Water while passing through layers of soil dissolves salt and minerals to a maximum extent.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Water freeze at 100° Celsius at normal pressure.
Answer:
False. Water freeze at 0° celsius at normal pressure.

Question 5.
When the air around the clouds is cool, these drops of water fall in the form of snow or rain.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Direct collection and use of rain water is called rain water harvesting.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Estuaries are harmful to unique plants and animal species.
Answer:
False. Estuaries are home to unique plants and animal species.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Ice berg : Solid form :: Water vapour : _______
Answer:
Gaseous form.

Question 2.
Contain more than 3% of salt: _______ :: upto 3% of salt dissolved : Brackish water.
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 3.
Water bodies meet the sea : Estuaries :: Wet lands : _______
Answer:
Swamps.

Question 4.
Napier Bridge area : _______ :: Pallikkaranai: Wet land.
Answer:
Estuaries.

V. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give the uses of water.
Answer:
Cooking food, washing cloths, cleaning utensils, bathing, agricultural etc.

Question 2.
What are the three forms of water?
Answer:
Water is available in solid, liquid and vapour forms.

Question 3.
Which places have fresh water?
Answer:
Ponds, pools, rivers, tube wells have fresh water.

Question 4.
How is 3% of fresh water distributed?
Answer:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Groundwater – 30.1%
Another source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%

Question 5.
Define – Saline water.
Answer:
Water with a large amount of dissolved solids is not potable or suitable for drinking. Such water is called saline water.

Question 6.
How water is classified based on its salinity?
Answer:
Based on salinity, water is classified into three main categories. Such as Fresh water, Brackish water and Sea water.

Question 7.
What are the salts dissolved in sea water?
Answer:
The salts are dissolved in sea water are sodium chloride, magnesium chloride and calcium chloride.

Question 8.
Define – Water cycle.
Answer:
The water on the earth evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun. The water vapour in the atmosphere forms clouds. From the clouds, water falls on the earth in the form of rain or snow. By this natural process, water gets renewed. This is called water cycle.

Question 9.
What is Condensation?
Answer:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky. This process is known as condensation.

Question 10.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form. This is called transpriation.

Question 11.
What is frozen water?
Answer:
Water that is present in the frozen form as polar ice caps and glaciers are called frozen water. A large portion of water is 68.7% of the total available fresh water is in frozen state.

Question 12.
Define – Scarcity of water.
Answer:
There is no change in.the total quantity of water available on the earth. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals and man is decreasing day by day. It is called Scarcity of water.

Question 13.
List the wet lands in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. Pichavaram Mangroves near Chidambaram.
2. Muthupet Mangrove wet-land.
3. Pallikkaranai wet-land in Chennai.
4. Chembarambakkam in Kancheepuram are a few examples of swamps in Tamilnadu.

Question 14.
What is meant by conservation of water?
Answer:
Saving water for the future generations by using water carefully and in a limited way is conservation of water.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Draw and describe the total water on earth by pie chart.
Answer:
If the total water on earth be 100%, let’s see what percent would be the availability of fresh water. Look at the pie chart given below
From the pie chart, it can also be noted that 97% water is saline water. Only 3% found is the freshwater and that too in polar ice caps and glaciers. So this portion of water is not readily available for drinking.

The distribution of the totally available (3%) freshwater is as follows:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Ground water – 30.1 %
Other source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%
The distribution of total 0.3% of surface water is as follows:
Lakes – 87%
Rivers – 2%
Swamps – 11%
Thus the above pie chart explains that we have a very small amount of fresh water available for human usuage and so maintaining the water table and the conservation of water is very essential.

Question 2.
What are the methods of water conservation? Explain?
Answer:
1. Water management :

• Bringing awareness to the people.
• Recycling water by separating pollutants.
• Minimize the use of fertilizers.
• Controlling deforestation.
• Adopt drip and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.

2. Rainwater harvesting:

• Collecting water from where it falls:
• Collecting water from the roof tops.
• Collecting flowing rain water :
• Collecting rain water by constructing dams.

Question 3.
Give the importance of water.
Answer:
The importance of water:

1. Our body uses water in all its cells, organs and tissues to help regulate its temperature and maintain other bodily functions.
2. On an average, the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.
3. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of toxins from the body.
4. Water is used in the domestic activities like cooking, bathing, washing clothes, washing utensils, keeping houses and common places clean, watering plants, etc.
5. It is also essential for the healthy growth of farm crops and farm stock and is used in the manufacture of many products.
6. Industry depends on water at all levels of production.

Question 4.
Describe water distribution and treatment system through flow chart.
Answer:

Question 5.
What are the reasons for scarcity of water?
Answer:
The main reasons for scarcity of water are:

1. Population explosion.
2. Uneven distribution of rainfall.
3. Decline of ground watertable.
4. Pollution of water.
5. Careless use of water.