Category: Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Introduction to Algebra Ex 2.3

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Complete the following pattern.
9 – 1 =
98 – 21 =
987 – 321 =
9876 – 4321 =
98765 – 54321 =
What comes next?
Solution:
9 – 1 = 8
98 – 21 = 77
987 – 321 = 666
9876 – 4321 = 5555
98765 – 54321 = 44444
Next will be 987654 – 654321 = 333333

Question 2.
A piece of wire is ’12s’ cm long. What will be the length of the side, if it is formed as
(i) an equilateral triangle
(ii) a square?
Solution:
(i) 4s
(ii) 3s

Question 3.
Identify the value of the shapes and figures in the table given below the verify their addition horizontally and vertically.

Solution:

Question 4.
The table given below shows the results of the matches played by 8 teams in a Kabaddi championship tournament.

Find the value of all the variables in the table given above.
Solution:
We know that
Total matches played = Matches wont + Matches lost.
5 + k = 8
⇒ k = 3
7 + 2 = a
a = 9
7 = 6 + m
⇒ m = 1
b + 3 = 9
⇒ b = 6
4 + 6 = n
⇒ n = 10
6 + c = 10
⇒ c = 4
x + 4 = 8
⇒ x = 4
3 + 6 = y
⇒ y = 10

Challenging Problem (Text book Page No. 53)

Question 5.
Gopal is 8 years younger to Karnan. If the sum of their ages is 30, how old is Karnan?
Solution:
Let Kaman’s age be x years
Gopal age is x – 8 years
Given sum of their ages is 30. i.e, x + (x – 8) = 30
Now we will form the table to find their sums = 30.

For x = 19 (Karnan’s age)
the sum = 30
Kaman’s age = 19 years.

Question 6.
The rectangles made of identical square blocks with varying lengths but having only two square blocks as width are given below.

(i) How many smallest squares are there in each of the rectangles P, Q, R and S?
(ii) Fill in the boxes.

Solution:
(i) No. of smallest squares in P, Q, R and S are 2, 8, 6 and 10 respectively.
(ii)

Question 7.
Find the variables from the clues given below and solve the crossword puzzle.


Solution:

Please Check This Post:

• Shapes Worksheets

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ was founder or Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
I’he monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

Question 5.
________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin 11
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chandragupta 1 crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R) : Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Chandragupta II did not have cordial relationship with the rulers of South India.
Statement II : The divine theory of kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are correct.
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
a. Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
b. Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
c. Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
d. Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chadragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is / are correct

1. Lending money at high rate of interest was practised.
2. Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries.

a. 1. is correct
b. 2. is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
1. Kalidasa, Harisena, Samudragupta, Charaka.
Answer:
Samudragupta
Reason : Samudragupta was a king. Others were not.

2. Ratnavali, Harshacharita, Nagananda, Priyadharshika.
Answer:
Harshacharita
Reason .‘Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta. Other three were written by Harsha.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ the king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
2. Buddhist monk from China ______ visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. ______ invasion led to the downfall of Gupta Empire.
4. ______ was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was______
6. ______ the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. ______ was the popular king of Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his captial from ______ to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. Sri Meghavarman
2. Fahine
3. Hun
4. Land Tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopal
7. Harsha
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True or False :

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during Gupta period resemble the Indo-Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to Hinayana school of thought.
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following:
A
a. Mihirakula – 1. Astronomy
b. Aryabhatta – 2. Kumaragupta
c. Painting – 3. Skandagupta
d. Nalanda University – 4. Caravan trader
e. Sartavaga – 5. Bagh
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2,4,1,2,5
(c) 3,1,5,2,4
(d) 3,2,1,4,5
Answer:
(c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
a. Bana – 1.10,000 students
b. Harsha – 2. Prayag
c. Nalanda University – 3. Harshacharita
d. Hiuen – Tsang – 4. Ratnavali
e. Buddhist Assembly – 5 Si-Yu-Ki
a) 4,3,2,1,5
b) 5,2,1,3,4
c) 3,5,1,2,4
d) 2,1,3,4,5
Answer:
3,4,1,5,2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. The title Kaviraja was given to Samudragupta.
2. He was a great lover of poetry and music.
3. In one of the gold coins, he is portrayed playing harp (Veenai)

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The divine theory of Kingship meant that king is the representative of God on earth.
2. He is answerable only to God and not to any one else.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribe, who under their great Attila were terrorising Rome and Constantinople .
2. They came to India through Central Asia, defeated Skandagupta and spread across central India.
3. Their chief Toromana crowned himself as king.
4. After him, his son Mihirakula ruled and got finally defeated by Yasodharman, ruler of Malwa.

Question 6.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during the Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:
The books authored by Harsha were Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika.

VII. Answer the following briefly :

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning commendation or ‘in praise of’.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.
4. The Prayog Prashasti, composed by Samudragupta’s court poet Harisena was engraved on Allahabad Pillar.
5. This Allahabad Pillar inscription is the main source of information for Samudragupta’s reign.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general and he carried on a vigorous campaign all over the country.
2. He defeated the Pallava king Vishnugopa.
3. He conquered nine kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of southern India to the status of feudatories and to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
(i) Classification of land during Gupta period.

a. Kshetra	–	Cultivable land
b. Khila	–	Waste land
c. Aprahata	–	Jungle or forest land
d. Vasti	–	Habitable land
e. Gapata Saraha	–	Pastoral land

(ii) Land Tax was the main revenue to the government.

(iii) The condition of the peasants was pathetic. They were required to pay various taxes. They were reduced to the position of serfs.

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:

1. Sresti : Sresti traders were usually settled at a standard place.
2. Sarthavaha : Sarthavaha traders caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.

Question 5.
Highlights the contribution of guptas ro architecture.
Answer:

1. The Guptas were the first to construct temples, which evolved from the earlier trandition of rock-cut shrines.
2. Adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, these temples were dedicated to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock-cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora (Maharashtra), Bagh (Madhya Pradesh) and
4. Udaygiri (Odisha).
5. The structural temples built during this period resemble the characteristic features of the Dravidian style.
6. Two remarkable examples of Gupta metal sculpture are
   • a copper image of Buddha about 18 feet high at Nalanda.
   • Sultanganj Buddha seven-and-a-half feet in height.
7. Gupta paintings are found on the Fresco of the Ajanta caves and the Bagh cave in Gwalior.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:

1. Kalidasa’s famous dramas were Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other significant works were Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava and Ritusamhara

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha, himself a poet and dramatist, gathered around him best of poets and artists.
2. Harsha’s popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika.
3. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate __________
a. the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
b. the ability of the people to work with gold
c. the prosperity of the kingdom
d. the extravagant nature of kings
Answer:
c. the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on ………………
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for __________
a. renaissance in literature and art
b. expeditions to southern India.
c. invasion of Huns
d. religious tolerance
Answer:
a. renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. Invention of Zero and the cosequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses. He was the , first Indian astronomer to
3. declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.
Mauryan Society:

1. According to Megasthenes, the Greek historian, the ancient Mauryan society comprised of seven divisions namely philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates and councillors which were referred to as castes.
2. In the ancient Mauryan society, the cultivators formed the largest group becoming the central nerve of agriculture in society.
3. The caste system was very prevalent one.
4. Women were also engaged in a variety of activities like archers, royal bodyguards, spies and performers. But women were most of the times dominated by their male counter parts.
5. Wisdoms had a very honorable place in society. Offenses against women were severally dealt with.
6. An urban way of life developed. Education became fairly wide spread.
7. Slavery in India was beginning to make the appearance.

Gupta Society:

1. The society was adhered to four vama system.
2. According to laws of Manu, which was in force, women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
3. Polygamy was widely prevalent.
4. The kings and the feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Inscriptions refer to Kubernaga and Dhruvasvamini as the queens of Chandragupta II.
6. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

X. Life Skills :

Question 1.
Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
Answer:
Aryabhatta:

1. Aryabhatta (476-550CE) was the first of the major mathematician-astronomers from the classical age of Indian mathematics and Indian astronomy.
2. His major work, Aryabhatiya is a compendium of mathematics and astronomy.
3. Aryabhatiya covers several branches of mathematics such as algebra, arithmetic, plane and spherical trigonometry.
4. Aryabhatta discovered the position of nine planets and expressed that these likewise rotate around the sun.
5. He also provided the circumference and measurement of the Earth and the radius of the orbits of 9 planets.
6. Aryabhatta pronounced that the moon has no light of its own.
7. He concluded that the earth is round. He also stated that it rotates on its own axis, which is why we have days and nights.
8. He concentrated on a few geometric and trigonometric parts of the celestial sphere that are still used to study stars.
9. In his old age, Aryabhatta composed another treatise ‘ Aryabahatta – Siddhanta’. It is the booklet for everyday astronomical calculation for performing rituals, To this very day, astronomical data provided in this text is used for preparing panchangs (Hindu Calendars).
10. India’s first Satellite Aryabhatta was named after him.

Varahamihira:

1. Varahamihira (505-587CE) was an Indian astronomer, mathematician and astrologer from Ujjain.
2. Varahamihira is considered to be one of the Nine gems (Navarathnas) of the court of ancient ruler Yashodarman.
3. His knowledge of westren astrology was thorough but he was also very intrested in astrology and horoschope
4. His father was a worshipper of the Sun God and it was he who taught astrology.
5. Varahamihira was a scientist. He declared that the earth was spherical. He was the first to claim that some ‘force’ might be keeping bodies stuck to the round earth. This force is now called gravity.
6. He proposed that the moon and the planets are lustrous not because of their own light but due to Sunlight.
7. His book Panchasiddhantika on mathematical astronomy is one of the most important sources for the history of Hindu Astronomy.
8. His encyclopedia Brihat-Samhita with 106 chapters include subjects planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, growth of crops, various rituals.

Brahmagupta – (598-668 CE):

1. Brahmagupta was an Indian mathematician and astronomer. He wrote some important works on both mathematics and astronomy.
2. His most famous work is “Brahmasphutasiddanta”.
3. Brahmagupta explained how to find the cube and cuberoot.
4. He was the earliest known mathematician to treat zero as a number in its own right.
5. He dedicated a substantial portion of his work to geometry and trigonometry
6. He explains that since the Moon is closer to the Earth than the Sun, the degree of the illuminated part of the moon depends on the relative position of the sun and the moon. This can be computed from the size of the angle between the bodies.
7. In his treatise Khandakhadyaka, explored the longitudes of the planets, diurnal rotation, lunar and solar eclipses, rising and settings etc.

Question 2.
Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.
Answer:
ISRO :

1. The Indian space Research Qrgnisation is the space agency of the government of India.
2. Its headquarters is in the city of Bangalore.
3. it was formed in 1969.
4. It built India’s first satellite “Aryabhatta” in 1975.

Satellite Launching:

1. Usually the word ‘Satellite’ refers to a machine that is launched into space and moves around the Earth or another body in space.
2. Moon is an example of natural satellite. Thousands of artificial or Man made satellites orbit Earth.
3. India has two operational launchers :
   Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
   Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

XI. Answer Grid :

Who was Toromana? Ans : Chief of the Huns	Name the high ranking officials of Gupta Empire. Ans: Dandanayakas and Mahadanayakas
Name the Gupta kings who performed Asvamedha yagna. Ans : Samudra Gupta Kumaragupta I	Name the book which explained the causes for the lunar and solar eclipses. Ans : Surya Siddhanta
Name the first Gupta king to find a place on coins. Ans : Sri Guptha	Which was the main source of information to know about the Samudragupta’s reign? Ans : Allahabad Pillar Inscription
Harsha was the worshipper of in the beginning. Ans : Lord Shiva	University reached its fame during Harsha period. Ans :Nalanda

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Devichandraguptam was written by _______
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Harisena
(c) Bana
(d) Harsha
Answer:
(a) Visakhadatta

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasises the importance of ……………
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
Vishnugopa was the ruler of _______
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Pallava
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Pallava

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara ……………
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:
(d) Gold

Question 5.
Srimeghavarman was a contemporary of _______
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Narasimhagupta
Answer:
(c) Samudragupta

Question 6.
Nitisara was authored by _______
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Visakhadatha
(c) Kamandaka
(d) Harisena
Answer:
(c) Kamandaka

Question 7.
Hinayana and Mahayana were the two sects of
(a) Vaishnavism
(b) Saivism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Contribution of the traders for the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
Reason (R) : The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.
a. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Kumaragupta built the famous Nalanda University.
Statement II : Fahien spent many years studying Buddhism in Nalanda University.
a. Statement I is wrong but Statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are wrong.
d. Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct

Question 3.

Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is / are correct.

1. Lichchhavi was old gana-sanga.
2. Srigupta was given the title “Kaviraja’

a. 1 is correct
b. 2 is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correctd. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
a. 1 is correct

Question 4.
Circle the odd one.

Question 1.
Kshetra, Vasti, Nitisara, Khila.
Answer:
Nitisara
Reason : Nitisara is a book, whereas the other three were the classification of land in Gupta’s period.

Question 2.
Pataliputra, Benaras, Magadha, Mathura
Answer:
Magadha
Reason : Magadha was an ancient kingdom, where as the other three were the famous trade centers.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hiuen Tsang authored _______
2. Fahien visited the court of _______
3. The last of the great Guptas was _______
4. The last recognised king of the Gupta empire was _______
5. The espionage system of the Gupta was known as _______
6. Pushyabhuti dynasty ruled from _______
7. Harsha shifted his capital from Thaneswar to _______
8. Sasanka of Bengal was hostile to _______
9. Harsha met the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang at _______
10. Harsha built the charitable institution to care for the _______

Answer:

1. Si-Yu-Ki
2. Chandragupta II
3. Baiaditya /Narasimha Gupta I
4. Vishnugupta
5. Dutakas
6. Thaneswar
7. Kanau
8. Harsha
9. Kajangala
10. Sick and Poor

IV. True or False :

1. The surname Devaraja referred to Vikramaditya.
2. ChandraGupta II built the Nalanda University.
3. Aprahata meant Jungle or forest land.
4. Sresti traders were caravan traders.
5. Asvamedha Yagna means horse sacrifice ritual.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match:
A
Kalidasa – 1. Architect
Sanku – 2. Physician
Varahamihira – 3. Sanskrit Poet
Dhanvantri – 4. Magician
Vittalbhatta – 5. Astronomer
a) 1,3,2,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 3,1,5,2,4
d)4,2,3,1,5
Answer:
c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
Amarasimha – 1. Grammarian
Kahapanaka – 2. Sanskrit Poet
Varauchi – 3. Lexicographer
Harisena – 4. Buddhism
Hinayana – 5. Astrologer
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 4,5,3,1,2
d)5,3,2,4,1
Answer:
b) 3,5,1,2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was Srigupta?
Answer:

1. Srigupta is considered to be the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
2. He is believed to have reigned over parts of present day Bengal and Bihar.
3. He was the first Gupta ruler to be featured on coins.
4. He was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta he is portrayed playing harp (Veena).
2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title “Kaviraja7.

Question 3.
Mention the surnames of Chandragupta II.
The surnames of Chandragupta II were Vikramaditya, Narendrachandra, SimhachandraJ Narendrasimha, Vikrama Devaraja, Devagupta and Devasri.

Question 4.
What do the seals and inscriptions reveal about Gupta’s military administration?
Answer:

1. Seals and inscriptions mentioned about the military designations as baladhikrita and mahabaladhikrita (Commander of infantry and cavalry respectively).
2. The system of espionage included spies known as dutakas.

Question 5.
What were the metals used by the Guptas?
Answer:
Guptas used iron, gold, copper, tin, lead, brass, bronze, bell-metal, mica, manganese and red chalk.

Question 6.
Was there development of Sanskrit grammar during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The Gupta period saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on the grammar of Panini and Patanjali who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Mahabhashya respectively.

Question 7.
Why did Harsha embrace Buddhism?
Harsha embraced Buddhism under the influence of his sister Rajyashri and the Buddhist monk and traveller Hiuen Tsang.

Question 8.
As a Buddhist, what are the contributions of Harsha?
Answer:

1. Harsha belonged to Mahayana school of thought.
2. Harsha treated vedic scholars and Buddhist monks alike and distributed Charities equally to them.
3. He was the last Buddhist sovereign in India.
4. As a pious Buddhist, Harsha stopped the killing of animals for food.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Chandragupta II.
Answer:

1. Chandragupta II was the son of Samudragupta.
2. He was also known as Vikarmaditya.
3. He conquered western Malwa and Gujarat by defeating the Saka rulers.
4. He maintained friendly relationship with the rulers of southern India.
5. The iron pillar near Qutub Minar is believed to have been built by Vikramaditya.
6. Fahien, a Buddhist scholar from China, visited India during his region.
7. Vikramaditya is said to have assembled the greatest writers and artists [Navaratna (Nine Jewels)] in his court.
8. He was succeeded by Kumaragupta

Question 2.
What do you know about the society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Nalanda University.
Answer:

1. Nalanda University flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries and later under emperor Harsha of Kanauj.
2. At Nalanda, Buddhism was the main subject of study. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature and Medicine were also taught.
3. Hiuen Tsang spent many years studying Buddhism in the University.
4. Eight Mahapatashalas and three large libraries were situated on the campus.
5. Nalanda was ravaged and destroyed by Turkish Muslims.
6. Today it is a UbESCO World Heritage Site.

Question 4.
Explain the Gupta Monetary System under Samudra Gupta.
Answer:

1. Samundragupta introduced the Gupta monetary system.
2. Kushana coins provided inspiration to Samudragupta.
3. The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinara.
4. Gutpas issued many gold coins but comparatively fewer silver and copper coins.
5. However, the post-Gupta period saw a fall in the circulation of gold coins, indicating the decline in the prosperity of the empire.

Question 5.
Write about the conquests of Harshavardhana.
Answer:

1. The most popular king of the Vardhana dynasty was Harshavardhana. He ruled for 41 years.
2. His feudatories included those of Jalandhar, Kashmir, Nepal and Valabhi. Sasanka of Bengal remained hostile to him.
3. It was Harsha who unified most of northern India.
4. He maintained a cordial relationship with the rulers of Iran and China.
5. But the extension of his authority in the south was checked by Chalukya king Pulikesin II.
6. The kingdom of Harsha disintegrated rapidly into small states after his death in 648 AD

Question 6.
Who was Hiuen Tsang?
Answer:

1. Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveller, known as the “Prince of pilgrims”, visited India during Harsha’s reign.
2. His book ‘Si-yu-ki’ provides detailed information about the social, economic, religious and cultural conditions of India during Harsha’s time.
3. Hiuen Tsang tells us how Harsha, though a Buddhist, went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held at Prayag.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of the assemblies held at
a) Kanauj
b) Prayag.
Answer:
a. Assembly held at Kanauj:

1. The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings.
2. A large number of Buddhist, Jain and Vedic scholars attended the assembly.
3. The golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in the monastery and a small statue of Buddha (three feet) was carried in a procession.

b. Assembly at Prayag:

1. In the assembly at Prayag, Harsha distributed his wealth among the Buddhists, Vedic scholars and poor people.
2. Harsha offered fabulous gifts to the Buddhist monks on all the four days of the assembly

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Identify the fresh water ecosystem.
(a) Pond
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 2.
Producers are
a. Animals
b. Birds
c. Plants
d. Snakes
Answer:
c. Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
(a) Plastic
(b) Coconut Shell
(c) Glass
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(b) Coconut shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
a. Recycling
b. Reuse
c. Pollution
d. Reduce
Answer:
c. Pollution

Question 5.
Usages of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes pollution.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Water pollution

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called _______
2. Temperature, light and wind are _______ factors.
3. _______ is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread _______ and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, _______ and Recycle.

Answers:

1. Herbivores
2. Physical
3. Recycling
4. Diseases
5. Reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement :

Question 1.
The Pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
Answer:
False. Human and animal wastes are examples of biodegradable waste.

Question 4.
Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
Answer:
False. Excessive use of pestides leads to water pollution.

Question 5.
In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Biotic factor – Terrestrial Ecosystem
2. Sewage – Land pollution
3. Fertilizers – Air pollution
4. Desert – Water Pollution
5. Smoke – Animals

Answer:

1. Biotic factor – Animals
2. Sewage – Water pollution
3. Fertilizers – Land pollution
4. Desert – Terrestrial ecosystem
5. Smoke – Air pollution

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

Question 1.
Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake
Answer:
Carrot → Rabbit → Snake → Eagle

Question 2.
Human → Insect → Algae → Fish
Answer:
Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
Types of ecosystems :

1. Natural ecosystem
2. Artificial ecosystem

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples :

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution :

1. Air Pollution.
2. Water Pollution.
3. Land (Soil) Pollution.
4. Noise Pollution.

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:

1. Toxic gases and fine particles from burning fossil fuels, chemicals released from factories.
2. Sewage, industrial effluents, pesticides and fertilizers
3. Plastics and electronics are land pollutants.

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?
a. Loud Speaker
b. Plastic
Answer:
a. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
b. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘‘Biodegradable” is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of sun and microorganisms etc.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:
Importance of food chain

1. Learning food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. Understanding the food chain also helps us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem.
3. This is important because pollution impacts the ecosystem. The food chain can be used to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can Reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides on paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution is caused by loud sounds.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution which affects the environment.
3. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
4. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
5. It leads to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
6. Loud noise or music can damage our ears.
7. It also disturbs animals. For example in noisy areas birds have to communicate louder so they can hear each other.
8. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalance and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. Dengue and malaria fever are caused by the bite of mosquitoes.
2. Accumulation of waste and stagnant water or uncovered containers of stored drinking water are the habitat for breeding mosquitoes.
3. In order to control these infectious diseases, people should maintain clean environment, free from mosquitoes.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?
Answer:

1. The atmosphere is polluted in this picture. It is due to the smoke arising from burning garbage.
2. Land and water have been polluted because of leaching the toxins into the soil and water.

Questions 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps :-

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Think of the objects in your home. Just keep in mind, the books, toys, furniture, food materials and even pets of your home. These living and non-living things together make your home. Look at the following picture and list out the living and non-living things.

Answer:
Living things : Plants, Beetle, Mosquito, Larva, Water snake, Water scorpion, Snail, Fish, Duck and Frog etc.
Non- living things : Sun, Air, Water, Chemicals, Soil, Rocks and Temperature etc.

Activity 2

Take a square paper. Fold its diagonals. Draw three lines in three triangles as shown in the picture.

Cut from the edge of the diagonal to the centre as shown in the picture.

If you fold this triangle and paste behind the third triangle you get a pyramidal shape.

In one of the triangles, draw images of each of the organisms in the different levels.

In another triangle write the names of the organisms. In the last triangle, write the energy level of the organism. Have a look at the following example. You must come up with different organisms!

Answer:

Activity 3

Take two mud pots or glass jars and fill them up with garden soil. In the first pot, mix wastes such as banana peel, some vegetable peels and a few tree leaves into the soil. In the second pot, mix a piece of plastic carry bag, sweet wrapper and metal foil into the soil.

What happen to the waste materials placed in both pots? Do you notice a difference between first and second pot? Observe the changes over two weeks and discuss with your classmates.
Answer:
After two weeks, the wastes in the first pot, such as banana peel, some vegetable peel and tree leaves are degraded.

The wastes in the second pot such as carry bag, sweet wrapper and metal foil are not degraded.

Because, the first pot has biodegradable wastes. So they are degraded. But the second pot has non-biodegradable wastes. So they are not degraded.

Activity Pg.No : 53

Question 1.
Give some examples for Biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.

Answer:

Activity 4

Question 1.
Preparation of Vermi Compost

1. Dig a pit for about one feet depth in the backyard or garden of your home or school.
2. Fill the pit by bio-wastes, paper and food wastes, place few earth worms in it, sprinkle water and close the place with jute or cardboard and ensure moisture all the time.
3. After 45 days the vermi casting layer formed just above the pit.
4. These castings will be applied to the plant.
5. This contains water soluble nutrients.
6. This type of compost helps in plant growth as well as sustain the land is fertility.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Classroom Exercise:
Identify who am I ?

Question 1.
I am the type of pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels like pertrol (or) coal and the smoke of burning garbage. I float around and cause breathing problems. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Air.

Question 2.
I am the type of pollution caused by loud sounds and I can cause serious damage to your ears and also affect sleep. In India, I am mainly caused by loudspeakers and honking of air horns of cars. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Noise.

Question 3.
I flow from homes and farms into rivers and lakes. I kill fish and make water unfit for drinking. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Water.

Question 4.
I am the type of pollution caused by using too much chemical fertilizers and pesticides by farmers. I lower the quality of soil and even move chemicals into plant parts which are eaten by people. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Land.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
These are abiotic factors.
i. Sunlight
ii. Bacteria
iii. Air
iv. Plants
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv
Answer:
(b) i and iii

Question 2.
Pick out the terrestrial ecosystem
(a) lake
(b) mountain regions
(c) deserts
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c – mountain regions deserts

Question 3.
_______ are organisms that are able to produce their own Organic food.
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposer
(d) Omnivores
Answer:
(a) Producers

Question 4.
The primary energy production in the world of living things is made by?
(a) aquatic insect
(b) rabbit
(c) plants
(d) deer
Answer:
(c) plants

Question 5.
Natural agents like _______ are the decomposition factors breaking complex forms to simpler unit.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) micro organisms
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
The average person in India produces _______ kg of waste everyday
(a) 0.45
(d) 055
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.55
Answer:
(a) 0.45

Question 7.
Most _______ pollution is caused by the burning these fossil fuels.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Air
(d) Noise
Answer:
(c) Air

Question 8.
Among the following which one is not polluted by noise pollution?
(a) Sounds of motor vehicles
(b) Music from radio
(c) Firing crackers
(d) Loud music
Answer:
(b) Music from radio

Question 9.
_______ Pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
(a) Noise
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(a) Noise

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ are called as biotic factors.
2. _______ is the best example of natural terrestrial ecosystem.
3. Ecosystem originated without human intervention is called _______
4. The ecosystem in water is called _______ ecosystem.
5. _______ obtained energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms.
6. The sequence of who eats whom in an ecosystem is called as _______
7. The food chain begins with the energy given by the _______
8. Each level in the food chain is called a _______ level.
9. The burning of solid waste in _______ is called incineration.
10. Garbage buried inside landfills remain here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become _______
11. Polluted _______ affects skin, eyes and respiratory system.
12. Land (Soil) pollution happens when toxic change the natural balance in soil.

Answers:

1. Plants
2. Forest
3. Natural ecosystem
4. Aquatic
5. Bacterium
6. Food chain
7. Sun
8. Trophic
9. Incinerator
10. Manure
11. Air
12. Chemicals

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the artificial terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
False. Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the natural terrestrial ecosystem.

Question 2.
Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the terrarium.
Answer:
False. Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the aquarium.

Question 3.
Animals that eat both plants and animals are called as Carnivores.
Answer:
False. Animals that eat both plants and animals are called as Omnivores.

Question 4.
In a food chain grasshopper gets energy by eating frog.
Answer:
False. In a food chain frog gets energy by eating grasshopper.

Question 5.
If we protect the ecosystem, we can reduce waste by using durable goods.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that can be easily decomposed.
Answer:
False. The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that cannot be easily decomposed.

Question 7.
The process by which waste materials are used to make new products is called recycling.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Expired medicines, used batteries are domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Lcrud noise or even loud music can damage our eyes.
Answer:
False. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears.

IV. Match the following :

A.

i.	Abiotic factor	(a)	Deer
ii.	Decomposers	(b)	Owl
iii.	Herbivores	(c)	Heat
iv.	Carnivores	(d)	Human
v.	Omnivores	(e)	Fungi

Answers:
i – c
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – d.

B.

i.	Avoid the usage	(a)	Recycle
ii.	Sharing newspapers	(b)	Incinerate
iii.	Using of fountain pens	(c)	Buying packaged food
iv.	Using old clothes to make paper	(d)	Reducing
v.	Human anatomical waste	(e)	Reusing

Answers:
i – c
ii – d
iii – e
iv – a
v – b.

C.

i.	Burning coal	(a)	Land pollution
ii.	Throwing plastic	(b)	Noise pollution
iii.	Waste water from factories is mixed with river	(c)	Air pollution
iv.	Louder hom of vehicle	(d)	Water pollution

Answers:
i – c
ii – a
iii – d
iv – b.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Biotic factor : Animals :: Abiotic factor : _______
Answer:
Air or Water.

Question 2.
Natural terrestrial ecosystem : Forest:: Artificial terrestrial ecosystem : _______
Answer:
Garden.

Question 3.
Primary Consumer : Goat, Cow :: Secondary Consumer : _______
Answer:
Frog, Owl.

Question 4.
Biodegradable waste: Leaves, Garden wastes:: Non-biodegradable waste: _______
Answer:
Plastic cover, glass bottle.

Question 5.
Edaphic factor : Water in soil:: Physical factor : _______
Answer:
Light.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
List out the following by biotic and abiotic factors. (Sun, plants, animals, air, soil, bacteria, heat, minerals.
Answer:
Abiotic Factors:
Sun, Air
Water, Soil
Heat, Minerals

Biotic Factors:
Plants
Animals
Bacteria

Question 2.
Give a brief account on land fill.
Answer:

1. Land filing is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occurring or man-made pits and covered with soil.
2. Garbage buried inside landfills remains here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become man use.
3. These places can be converted into parks, gardens etc.
4. The first step should always be to reduce waste.
5. The second step is to keep waste separate. So that the waste can be easily reused or recycled.

Question 3.
Define – Aquarium.
Answer:
An aquarium is a place in which fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained. Example : Fish growing in homes with small tank.

Question 4.
What is Autotrophs?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food. They do not need to eat other organisms, to do this. Producers are also called Autotrophs.

Question 5.
Define – Heterotrophs.
Answer:
Organisms which cannot produce their own food, need to eat other organisms as food. These Organisms are also called consumers. All animals are consumers as they cannot produce their own food. Consumers are also called Heterotrophs.

Question 6.
Differentiate between herbivores and carnivores.
Answer:
Herbivores:

1. Animals which eat plants or plant products.
2. Ex : Deer, Goat, Cattle and Rat.

Carnivores:

1. Animals that eat other animals..
2. Ex : Lion, Tiger, Frog and Owl.

Question 7.
What are decomposers?
Answer:
Micro-organisms (both plants and animals) that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms. They break complex organic substances into simple organic substances that goes into the soil and are used by plants.

Example : Bacterium, Fungi.

Question 8.
Define – Food web.
Answer:

1. If we put all the food chains within an ecosystem together, then we end up with many interconnected food chains. This is called as food web.
2. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.

Question 9.
What is reuse? Give examples.
Answer:
Reusing means using a thing again and again, rather than using and throwing after a single use.

Example :

1. Instead of using plastic bags, use cloth bags.
2. Rechargeable batteries and fountain pens.

Question 10.
What is Landfill?
Answer:
Landfilling is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occuring (or) man-made pits and covered with soil.

Question 11.
Give the Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules.
Answer:
The Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules, 2016, say that,

i. Every lTousehold should segregate and store the waste generated by them in three separate streams namely bio-degradable, non-bio-degradable and domestic hazardous waste in suitable bins and handover the segregated wastes to authorised waste pickers, (or) waste collector as per direction or notification by the local authorities from time to time.

ii. Nobody shall throw, bum, or bury the solid waste on streets, open public spaces outside his premises or in the drain or water bodies.

Question 12.
List any four domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:

1. Discarded paint drums
2. Pesticide cans,
3. CFL bulbs, tube lights
4. Used batteries, used needles and syringes.

Question 13.
How can we reduce land pollution?
Answer:

1. First try to reduce waste, then recycle the rest.
2. Always use a waste bin and never litter.
3. Do not bum waste, the ash mixes easily with soil.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give the types of ecosystem by flow chart.
Answer:

Question 2.
How can we reduce air pollution?
Answer:

1. Cycle or walk short distances instead of using a motor vehicle.
2. Travel by public transport (bus or train)
3. Do not burn solid waste.
4. Avoid fireworks.

Question 3.
Classify the most significant sources of water pollutants.
Answer:
The most significant sources of water pollutants are:

1. Sewage (water we use at home for bathing, cleaning, cooking).
2. Industrial effluents (liquid wastes from factories).
3. Agricultural pollutants (chemical pesticides and fertilisers that get washed from farms).
4. Solid waste (when waste gets dumped into water bodies).

Question 4.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when you watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak, do not shout (try to set an example).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Asia And Europe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia And Europe Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer:

Which is not the western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(d) Arabian Sea

Question 2.
The Intermontane …………… plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer:
(b) Iran

Question 3.
Equatorial climate :

1. Uniform throughout the year.
2. The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
3. The average temperature is 10°C. Of the statements given above,

(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) i alone is correct

Question 4.
Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below.

Answer:
(a) 2, 3 ,4, 1

Question 5.
India is the leading producer of ……………
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 6.
The natural boundary between Spain and France is _________
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
Answer:
(b) The Pyrenees

Question 7.
The western and north – western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate. Choose the correct option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature
Answer:
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) The Meseta – Spain
(b) The Jura – France
(c) The Pennines – Italy
(d) The Black Forest – Germany
Answer:
(c) The Pennines – Italy

Question 10.
Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) Iceland

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the knot.
2. The wettest place in the world is
3. Iran is the largest producer of in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and southeast Asia by
5. The national dance of Philippines is.
6. The second highest peak in Europe is.
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is.
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is.
9. The density of population in Europe is.
10. The river passes through nine countries of Europe.

Answer:

1. Armenian
2. Mawsynram
3. Dates
4. Suez
5. Tiniklingi
6. The Mont Blanc (4,807m)
7. Continental type
8. Dogger Bank
9. 34 persons / km2
10. Danube

III. Match the following :

1. Mesopotamian Plain – (a) Highest Rainfall
2. Mawsynram – (b) Norway
3. Rice Bowl of southeast asia – (c) Spain
4. Fjord Coast – (d) Euphrates & Tigris
5. Bull Fighting – (e) Thailand

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Let us Learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R): It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains.

A. Indo – Gangetic plain
B. Manchurian plain
C. Mesopotamian
D. Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:

Answer:
(b) 2 1 3 4

Question 3.
In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Dates

V. Answer in Brief:

Question 1.
Name the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.
Answer:
The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran and the plateau of Tibet are the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.

Question 2.
Write a short note on monsoon climate.
Answer:

1. The south, south east and eastern parts of Asia are strongly influenced by mansoon winds.
2. Summer is hot and humid. Winter is cool and dry.
3. The summer mansoon winds bring heavy rainfall to India, Bangaladesh, Indo – China, Philippines and southern China.

Question 3.
How does physiography play a vital role in determining the population of Asia?
Answer:

1. In Asia, the population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
2. China and India alone covers three fifth of Asia’s population.
3. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population, whereas low density is found in the interior parts of Asia.

Question 4.
Name the ports found is Asia.
Answer:

1. Tokyo
2. Shanghai
3. Singapore
4. Hongkong
5. Chennai
6. Mumbai
7. Karachi
8. Dubai

Question 5.
Asia is called the ‘Land of Contrasts’- Justify.
Answer:

1. Asia is the biggest continent has different types of land features such as mountain,plateau, plain, valley, bay, island etc.
2. It has different climatic conditions from the equator to polar region.
3. Apart from this many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people who live in Asia. Therefore, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 6.
Name the important mountains found in the Alpine system.
Answer:

1. The Sierra Nevada
2. The Pyrenees
3. The Alps
4. The Apennines
5. The Dinaric Alps
6. The Caucasus
7. The Carpathian.

Question 7.
What are the important rivers of Europe?
Answer:
The important rivers of Europe are Volga, Danube, Dnieper, Rhine, Rhone, Po and Thames.

Question 8.
Name a few countries which enjoy the Mediterranean type of climate.
Answer:

1. France
2. Spain
3. Italy
4. Sicily

Question 9.
Give a short note on the population of Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is the third-most populous continent, after Asia and Africa. The population density in Europe is.34 persons / km2.
2. High population density is often associated with the coalfields of Europe.
3. Other populous areas are sustained by mining, manufacturing, commerce, offering large market, labour forces and productive agriculture.
4. Monaco, Malta, San Marino, and the Netherlands are the most densely populated countries; Iceland and Norway have very low density of population.

Question 10.
Name the important festivals celebrated in Europe.
Answer:

1. Christmas
2. Easter
3. Good Friday
4. The saint
5. Day
6. Redentone
7. Tomatina
8. Cornival

VI. Distinguish.

Question 1.
Intermontane plateaus and Southern plateaus
Answer:
Intermontane plateaus:

1. Intermontane plateaus are found in the mountain ranges.
2. Eg, The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran and the plateau of Tibet

Southern plateaus:

1. The southern plateaus are relatively lower than the northern plateaus.
2. Eg. Arabian Plateau, Deccan Plateau, Shan Plateau and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 2.
Cold desert and hot desert
Answer:
Cold desert:

1. Gobi
2. Taklamakan

Hot desert:

1. The Arabian (Saudi Arabia)
2. The Thar (India and Pakistan)

The largest desert in Asia is the Arabian Desert.

Question 3.
Thunder and Taiga

Thunder:

1. The Arctic and northern Scandinavian highland have Tundra type of vegetation.
2. The winters are very long and severe summers are very short and warm.
3. It is the land with few animals like polar bear, reindeer and walrus
4. No trees. Lowest form of vegetation like Mosses and Lichen only available.

Taiga:

1. They are found in the south of the Tundra region in Norway, Sweden, Finland, Germany, Poland and Austria.
2. The winters are long and cold. Summers are short and warm.
3. It is the land of fur bearing animals. Eg. Mink, silver fox, squirrel etc.
4. Pine, fir, spruce and larch are the important tree varieties.

Question 4.
The North western highlands and the Alpine mountain range.
Answer:
The North Western Highlands:

1. This region includes the mountains and platea us of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland and Iceland.
2. This region has fjord coast. It was created by glaciations.
3. A lot of lakes here serve as reservoirs for producing hydro electricity.

The Alpine mountain range:

1. The Alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The Sierra Nevada, the pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the
3. Carpathian are the important mountain rangers.
4. The Pyrenees is a natural boundary between Spain and France.

VII. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
Asia is the leading producer of rice.
Answer:

1. In Asia, India has the largest area of arable lands.
2. Agriculture is intensively practised in the riverine plains of Asia
3. China and India are the leading producers of rice in the world.

Question 2.
Asia is the largest and most populous continent in the world,
Answer:

1. Asia is the most populated continent in the world.
2. Approximately six tenth of the world population lives in Asia.
3. The population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
4. China and India alone covers three fifth of Asia’s population.
5. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population.

Question 3.
Europe is called ‘a giant peninsula’.
Answer:

1. Europe is found in the northern hemisphere.
2. It covers an area of 10.5 million sq.km.
3. It is surrounded by the Arctic Ocean in the North, the Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea in the south, the Atlantic Ocean in the west and the Ural mountains in the east.
4. So it loots like a giant peninsula.

Question 4.
Although Western Europe is located in the high latitudes, it Isas a moderate climate.
Answer:

1. North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to the western Europe.
2. The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the drainage system in Asia,
Answer:

1. The rivers of Asia originate mostly from the central highlands.
2. The Ob, Yenise and Lena are the major rivers that flow towards the north and drain into the Arctic Ocean.
3. These rivers remain frozen during winter.
4. On the other hand, South Asia has many perennial rivers like Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Irrawaddy.
5. These rivers originate from the snow covered high mountains that do not freeze during winter.
6. The Euphrates and Tigris flow in West Asia.
7. The Amur, Huang He, Yangtze and Mekong rivers flow in the south and south eastern parts of Asia.
8. Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral sources found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Iron ore : Asia has the largest deposits of iron ore in the world. China, India, Turkey, Philippines, Malaysia, Thailand, Myanmar have iron ore deposit.
2. Coal : Coal is a fossil fuel. Asia has the largest deposits of coal in the world. China and India are the largest producers of coal in Asia.
3. Petroleum : Petroleum is a mineral oil. South west Asia has the largest petroleum reserves. Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iran, Bahrain, Qatar and UAE are important Petroleum producing countries. Other countries are South China, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, India and Russia.
4. Bauxite is found in India and Indonesia.
5. Mica is found in India
6. Tin is found in Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia and Indonesia.

Question 3.
What are fjords? How do they protect harbours from bad weather conditions?
Answer:

1. In Europe, the North Western Highlands region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland and Iceland.
2. This region has the most beautiful fjord coast.
3. It was created by glaciations in the past.
4. This region has a lot of lakes, which serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.
5. A fjord is a narrow and deep sea inlet between steep cliffs. It helps in the following ways.
   • It reduces the speed of wind, irrespective of its direction.
   • The force of sea waves are also controlled.
6. Hence, areas with fjords are best suited for natural harbours.

Question 4.
Describe the climatic divisions of Europe.
Answer:

1. The climate of Europe varies from the subtropical to the polar climate.
2. The Mediterranean climate of the south has warm summer and rainy winter.
3. The western and north western parts have a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
4. In central and eastern Europe, the climate is humid Continental type.
5. In the northeast subarctic and tundra climates are found.
6. The whole of Europe is subject to the moderating influence of prevailing westerly winds from the Atlantic Ocean.

IX. Map Skill:

Mark the following in the outline map of Asia and Europe.

Asia : Ural mountain, Himalayas, Pamir knot, Gobi Desert, Arabian Peninsula, Deccan plateau, River Yangtze River Ob, Aral Sea and Lake Baykal.

Europe : The Pyrenees, Black forest, Apennines, Hungarian Plain, Caucasus Mountain, River Volga, River Danube, Strait of Gibraltar, Lake Ladoga, North Sea
Answer:

HOTS:

Question 1.
The Khyber Pass is located in the Sulaiman range, the Bolan Pass is located in Toba Kakar range. What is the importance of these two passes?
Answer:

(i) Khyber Pass : A mountain pass in the northwest of Pakistan on the border with Afghanistan. It connects the town of Landi Kotal to the valley of Peshawar. An integral part of the Silk Road, it has long substantial cultural, economic, and geopolitical significance for Eurasian trade. It is an important trade route between Central Asia and South Asia and a vital strategic military choke point.

(ii) Bolan Pass : A mountain pass through the Toba Kakar range of Balochistan province in western Pakistan. Strategically located, traders, invaders, and nomadic tribes have also used it as a gateway to and from South Asia. The Bolan Pass is an important pass on the Baluch frontier, connecting Jacobabad and Sibi with Quetta.

Question 2.
There is no winter in the equatorial region. Why?
Answer:

1. At the equator there are no seasons because each day the Sun strikes at about the same angle.
2. Every day of the year the equator receives about 12 hours of sunlight. The poles remain cool because they are never tilted in a direct path of sunlight.

Question 3.
Few countries in Asia have high population. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. China and India have historically been very large sized nations as opposed to European and other countries. So large nations obviously means large population,
2. People used to have large number of children, because few would survive beyond age 5 due to disease and malnutrition. The average longevity in India in 1947 was just 38 years, but now it is over 60.
3. Post-independence, health services were expanded and child mortality came down. This also caused an increase in life span. But the rate of child bearing came down much more slowly, which led to a population explosion.
4. With improving health care and education, and less fear of a child dying, the rate of growth has been coming down. In the southern states, where education and health services are better, it has actually now reached a stable level.
5. The rise of industry and large-scale agriculture meant that families could be much bigger than they had been in the past.
6. The social effects of the rural-urban divide led to more complex societies, more cities, and many more people.

Question 4.
Europe is called as the ‘Peninsula of Peninsulas Justify.
Answer:

(i) A peninsula is an extension of land surrounded on three sides by bodies of water. Europe is an extension of the super continent Eurasia and is surrounded by the Mediterranean sea to the south, the Baltic sea and North sea to the north and the Atlantic ocean to the west.

(ii) On the peninsula of Europe, there are five large peninsulas. The Iberian (Spain and Portugal), the italic (Italy), The Peloponnesian (Greece), Scandinavian (Norway and Sweden) and Finland (Denmark).

Question 5.
Why are European rivers suitable for inland navigation?
Answer:

1. The western Europe has a navigable waterways network of about 19,000 kms. Inland waterway transport plays an important role for the transport.
2. Europe has 45,000 kms of navigable waterways which is more than what even USA has (40,000 kms). A waterway is navigable only if the water is deep, slow and wide enough for certain types of ship to pass through.
3. Europe has two main flat regions, the North European plain and the East European plain. These rivers do not have sudden breaks and connect various towns and cities.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia And Europe Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answers:
Question 1.
The highest peak in Asia ______
(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Mt. Lhoste
(c) Kangchenjunga
(d) Mt. K2
Answer:
(a) Mt. Everest

Question 2.
The lowest point in the world …………….
(a) Black sea
(b) Red sea
(c) Dead sea
(d) Yellow sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 3.
Kuril is ______
(a) a mountain
(b) an island
(c) a plateau
(d) a river

Question 4.
Only about …………… of the area is cultivable in Asia.
(a) 18% of the area is cultivable in Asia.
(b) 28%
(c) 40%
(d) 48%
Answer:
(a) 18%

Question 5.
The longest rail route in the world _____
(a) Trans – Siberian Railways
(b) Trans continental rail way
(c) Trans Asian Railway
(d) Bullet train

Question 6.
The island located in the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Maldives
(b) Bahrain
(c) Srilanka
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Srilanka

Question 7.
in Europe we find _____.
(a) Andalusian Plain
(b) The Hungarian Plain
(c) The Wallachian Plain
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Eastern Europe is covered by ______
(a) Coniferous forest
(b) Tundra vegetation
(c) Grassland
(d) Cactus
Answer:
(c) Grassland

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The most extensive lowland in Asia is the ______
2. The convergence of mountain is denoted by the term ______
3. The highest mountain range in the world is the ______
4. The lowest point in the world is located in ______ in Asia
5. The largest Plateau is ______
6. Sri Lanka an island, is located in the ______
7. Coal is a fossil ______
8. The largest producer of Mica in the world is ______
9. Rice bowl of South East Asia” is ______
10. Malaysia and Thailand are the leading producers of ______
11. One of the world’s richest sources of fresh water fishing in Cambodia is ______
12. Pearl fishing is popular in the eastern coast of ______
13. The most common mode of transport in Asia is ______
14. Europe to South Asia get connected by the ______ route
15. Ankorwat means the ______
16. Europe is the ______ largest continent in the world.
17. The most developed continent in the world is ______
18. The areas with fjords are best suited for ______
19. The backbone of England is ______
20. The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn is located in the ______
21. The longest river in Europe is ______
22. The dominant crop throughout Europe is ______
23. Big Ben in located in ______
24. A majority of people in Asia are evolved in ______ Activities
25. Asia is located in the ______ hemisphere.

Answer:

1. Siberian Plains
2. Knot
3. Himalayan mountain range
4. Dead Sea
5. Arabian Plateau
6. Bay of Bengal
7. fuel
8. India
9. Thailand
10. Natural rubber
11. Tonle Sap lake
12. Arabia
13. Roadway
14. Cape of Good Hope
15. City of temples
16. sixth
17. Europe
18. natural harbours
19. Permutes
20. Swiss Alps
21. Volga
22. Wheat
23. London
24. primary
25. Eastern

III. Match the following :

1. Yangee – (i) Arabian sea
2. Orangutan – (ii) Active Volcano
3. Lakshadweep – (iii) North sea
4. Stromboli – (iv) Dance
5. Thames – (v) Rare species

Answer:

1. (iv)
2. (v)
3. (i)
4. (ii)
5. (iii)

IV. Let us learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The largest desert in Asia is the Arabian Desert.
Reason (R): Deserts are found along the western part of Asia.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Suez Canal separates Asia from Europe.
Reason (R): Asia is the largest continent in the world.
(a) I is true
(b) II is true
(c) Both are I and II true
(d) Both I and II are false.
Answer:
(b) II is true

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Siberia – Coniferous trees
(b) East China – Cherry
(c) Sri Lanka – Cactus
(d) Malaysia – Rosewood
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka – Cactus

Question 4.
Find out the correct pair.
(a) Coffee – Food crop
(b) Jute – Thailand
(c) Japan – Fishing
(d) Wheat – Tropical region
Answer:
(c) Japan – Fishing

Question 5.
Circle the odd one.
(a) Yangee, Mandarin,, Kabaki, Tinikling
Answer:
Mandarin
Reason : Mandarin is a language. Other three are famous dances.
(b) Saint day, Redentore, Tomatina, Songkran
Answer:
Songkran
Reason : Songkran is a festival in Asia. Other three are some famous festivals in Europe.

V. Answer in Brief:

Question 1.
Write about the political divisions of Asia.
Answer:

1. There are forty eight countries in Asia.
2. The countries are grouped into several realms based on landscape and political status such as

(a) East Asia
(b) Southeast Asia
(c) South Asia
(d) Southwest and
(e) Central Asia

Question 2.
What do you know about archipelago?
Answer:

1. A group of islands is called an archipelago.
2. The largest archipelago is Indonesia.

Question 3.
State the importance of Khyber and Bolan Pass.
Answer:
(a) Khyber

1. The Khyber Pass is located in the Sulaiman range.
2. It is in the north west of Pakistan on the border with Afghanistan.
3. It connects the town of Landi Kotal in the Valley of Peshwar. An integral part of the Silk Road as well as Eurasian trade. It is an important trade route between Central Asia and South Asia.

(b) Bolan Pass:

1. Located in Toba Kakar range of Balochistan province in Western Pakistan.
2. Strategically located, traders, invaders and nomadic tribes have also used it as a gateway to and from South Asia. It is an important pass on the Baluch frontier.

Question 4.
What are the Mediterranean trees?
Answer:

1. Cypress
2. Cork
3. Oak
4. Olive
5. Cedar

Question 5.
Write about the flora and fauna of the region with summer rainfall with dry winter in Asia.
Answer:

1. India, Vietnam, Cambodia, Thailand, Southern China – these regions experience Summer rainfall with dry winter.
2. Flora of this region – Deciduous trees – Teak, Sandal wood, Bamboo
3. Fauna of this region – Tiger, Elephant, Indian Cobra, Viper.

Question 6.
Write about the two most important natural fibers cultivated in Asia.
Answer:

1. Jute and cotton are the important natural fibres cultivated in Asia.
2. One third of the world’s cotton is produced by Asia.
3. The major cotton producing countries are India, China, Russia and Kazakhstan.
4. India, Pakistan, China and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Question 7.
Write a note on Ankorwat.
Answer:

1. Ankorwat is a world heritage site.
2. It was built by king Suriya Varma II in 1100 AD (CE) at Cambodia.
3. Ankorwat means ‘the city of temples’ in Khmer language. It is the largest Hindu Temple in the world.’

Question 8.
What are polders?
Answer:

1. In Netherlands about 25 percent of the Netherlands lies below sea level.
2. So they have built dikes.
3. They have reclaimed new land from the sea with the help of dikes.
4. These reclaimed lands are called polders.

Question 9.
Mention the Physical Divisions of Europe.
Answer:
The Physical Divisions of Europe are

1. The North Western Highlands
2. The Central Plateaus/Highland
3. The Alpine Mountain system
4. The North European plains

Question 10.
Classify the Natural Vegetation of Europe.
Answer:
The Natural Vegetation of Europe can be classified as

1. Tundra
2. Taiga or Coniferous
3. Mixed Forest
4. Mediterranean Forest
5. Grassland

Question 11.
Mention some of the master pieces of Art and Architecture in Europe.
Answer:
Some of the master pieces of art and architecture in Europe are Acropolis, the Colosseum, the statue of David, The thinker, Eiffel tower, Big Ben, Pisa Tower and Mona Lisa.

Question 12.
Name some of the seven wonders of the world located in Asia.
Answer:
Among the seven wonders of the world, two are located in Asia. They are

1. The Tajmahal in India,
2. The Great wall of China.

VI. Distinguish:

Question 1.
Arabian Plateau and Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

Arabian Plateau:

1. The Arabian Plateau (Saudi Arabia),in Asia is steeper in the west but gently slopes eastwards towards the Persian Gulf.
2. It is a dry plateau with low rainfall and no rivers.
3. Grew to importance after petroleum reserves were discovered here.

Deccan Plateau:

1. The Deccan Plateau (India) in Asia lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats
2. It is steeper and higher along the Arabian sea in the West but slopes gently towards the Bay of Bengal in the East.
3. A number of rivers flow across their plateau like Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri.

Question 2.
Mixed forest and Mediterranean forest
Answer:

Mixed forest

1. They are found in Western France,Belgium, Denmark, Britain etc.
2. Birch, beech, poplar, oak and maple trees are found here.

Mediterranean forest

1. They are found along the borders of the Mediterranean sea
2. Cypress, cork, oak, olive and cedar are found here.

Question 3.
Hardwood and Softwood.

Hardwood:

1. Hardwood comes from a deciduous tree.
2. The deciduous trees lose their leaves annually.
3. They tend to be slower growing and therefore they are more dense.
4. Eg. Eucalyptus, beech, teak.

Softwood:

1. Softwood comes from a conifer.
2. This conifer remains evergreen.
3. They are less dense.
4. Eg. Pine, Red wood, cedar

Question 4.
Climate in Asia and Europe.
Answer:

Climate in Asia:

1. All kinds of climatic conditions are found here.
2. It also enjoys the distinctive monsoon type of climate.
3. Southern Asia receives summer rainfall.

Climate in Europe:

1. It lies largely in the temperate zone.
2. It enjoys the distinctive Mediterranean type of climate.
3. Southern Europe receives winter rainfall.

VII. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
People of Asia get involved in diverse economic activity.
Answer:

1. Asia is the land of long mountain ranges, snow capped high mountains, vast plateaus, extensive plains, river valleys and sea coasts.
2. These diverse physical features encourage the people of this continent to involve in diverse economic activities

Question 2.
Tibet is known as the third pole.
Answer:
Tibet is called the ‘Roof of the world’ and it is also known as the third pole because of its cold weather, largest reserve of freshwater and inhospitable environment.

Question 3.
Why is sugarcane cultivation important in India, Indonesia and Philippines.
Answer:

1. The tropical wet and dry climate is suitable for sugarcane cultivaiton.
2. India, Indonesia and Philippines are the major producers of sugarcane.

Question 4.
Asia is the Land of contrasts.
Answer:

1. Asia, the biggest continent, is featured with different types of land and climatic conditions.
2. Many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people. So, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 5.
Europe is called peninsula of peninsulas.
Answer:

1. A peninsula is an extension of land surrounded by waterbodies on three sides.
2. Europe is an extension of the continent Eurasia and is surrounded by the mediterranean sea to the south, the Baltic sea and North sea to the north and the Atlantic ocean to the west.
3. On the peninsula of Europe, there are five large peninsulas. The Iberian (Spain and , Portugal), the Italic (Italy), The peloponnesian (Greece), Scandinavian (Norway ’ and Sweden) and Finland (Denmark).

Question 6.
The Stromboli is called the ‘light house of the Mediterranean’.
Answer:

1. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system. Mt. Etna,Vesuvius and Mt. Stromboli are the important volcanoes.
2. Earthquakes are common in this region. The Stromboli is called the ‘light house of the Mediterranean’.

Question 7.
The North European plain is densely populated.
Answer:

1. Major European rivers criss – cross this region and deposit their alluvium.
2. It has rich deposits of coal and iron ore.
3. Cities like Paris, Moscow and Berlin are located here.
4. Hence this region is densely populated.

Question 8.
European rivers suitable for inland navigation.
Answer:

1. Inland waterway transport plays an important role in Europe.
2. It has 45,000 kms of navigable waterways.
3. A waterway is navigable only if the water is deep, slow and wide enough for certain types of ships pass through.
4. The North European plain and the East European plain are the main flat regions. These rivers do not have sudden breaks and connect various towns and cites.

Question 9.
Europe, a modern economically developed continent in the world.
Answer:
Availability of resources, efficient educated work force, research, contact with other nations and innovations have transformed Europe into a modem and economically developed continent in the world.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Write a note on the Central Highlands of Asia.
Answer:

1. The central highlands stretches from Turkey to the Bering Strait.
2. There are two knots found in Asia. They are
   • The Pamir Knot and
   • The Armenian Knot.
3. Knot’ refers to the convergence of mountain ranges.
4. The Hindukush range, the Sulaiman range, the Himalayan range and the Tian Shan range radiate from the Pamir knot.
5. The Hindukush range continues westward as the Elburz, whereas the Sulaiman range continues south west as the Zagros range.
6. The Elburz and the Zagros converge at the Armenian knot.
7. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the Armenian knot.
8. The Himalayan mountain range is the highest mountain range in the world Mt. Everest (S848 m) is the highest peak in Asia, as well as the world.
9. The lowest point in the world is located in Dead Sea in Asia. Intermontane plateaus are found in these mountain ranges.

Question 2.
Mention the Island group of Asia.
Answer:

1. Numerous islands are found in the Pacific coast of Southeast Asia.
2. Kuril, Taiwan, Singapore and Borneo are the important island groups.
3. The Philippines, Japan islands and Indonesia are the major archipelagos in Asia.
4. Smaller archipelagos are also located in the Indian Ocean such as the islands of Maldives and Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea.
5. Bahrain is in the Persian Gulf.
6. Sri Lanka is an island, which is located in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3.
Write about the waterways in Asia.
Answer:

1. The Cape of Good Hope route connects Europe to South Asia.
2. The Trans Pacific route connects the ports of eastern Asia to the ports of western American countries.
3. The Suez Canal route passes through the heart of the world trade route and connects Europe with South and Southeast Asia.
4. Tokyo, Shanghai, Singapore, Hong Kong, Chennai, Mumbai, Karachi and Dubai are the important seaports in Asia.

Question 4.
Explain the Alpine mountains system.
Answer:

1. The alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The important mountain ranges are the Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the Carpathian.
3. The Pyrenees forms a natural boundary between Spain and France.
4. The highest peak in Europe is Mt. Elburz (5645 m) in the Caucasus range.
5. The Mont Blanc (4,807 m) found in the Alps is the second highest peak in the Alpine System.
6. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system.
7. Mt. Etna, Mt. Vesuvius and Mt. Stromboli are the important volcanoes found in Europe.
8. Earthquakes are common in this region.
9. The Stromboli is called the Tight house of the Mediterranean’.
10. The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn mountain is located in the Swiss Alps a height of 4478 m. It is popular for its shape.

Question 5.
Mention the importance of rivers in Europe.
Answer:

1. The rivers play an important role in the development of Europe.
2. These rivers are used to irrigate farmland and also help to produce electricity.
3. Most of the rivers originate in the Alps and the central plateau of Europe.
4. These rivers are useful for inland navigation in central and Eastern Europe.
5. The Volga is the longest river in Europe.
6. The river Danube passes through nine countries in Europe.

Question 6.
Compare the contrast the continents of Asia and Europe by giving six point
Answer:

	Asia	Europe
i.	It is the largest continent, both by area and population.	It is the smallest continent by area and the most developed.
ii.	It is located on the eastern hemisphere	It is located at the centre of the earth.
iii.	Both hot and cold deserts are located here.	There are no deserts here.
iv.	It has a variety of mineral deposits.	Mineral resources are limited, except for coal & iron.
V.	The Bering Strait separates Asia and North America.	The Strait of Gibraltar separates Europe from Africa.
vi.	The important parallels such as the Equator, Tropic of Cancer, Arctic Circle pass through it.	Only the Arctic Circle passes through it.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Road Safety

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Textual Evaluation

I. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Prepare the slogans for road safety.
Answer:
Slogans on Road Safety

1. Alert today – Alive tomorrow.
2. Leave sooner, drive slower, live longer.
3. Speed thrills but kills.
4. Be alert! Accidents hurt.
5. Drive carefully, to live joyfully.
6. A little care makes accidents rare.
7. Fast-drive could be your last drive.
8. Driving faster can cause disaster
9. Chance takers are accident makers.

Question 2.
Identify the following signs.

Answer:
a. No U Turn
b. No Entry
c. Cross Road
d. Hospital

Question 3.
Discuss about the statistics of 2017 accidents data.
Answer:

1. Nearly three persons died every ten minutes in road accidents across India last year.
2. The Report, prepared by the Transport Research Wing of the Ministry of Road Transport and highways, discovered that a total of 4,64,910 road accident were reported by States and Union territories in the calender year of 2017, claiming 1,47,913 lives and causing injuries to 4,70,975 persons.
3. The subject of road safety is an important one. Victims of hit and run cases would now be compensated for up to Rs one million in case of road accident fatalities.
4. Among vehicle categories involved in road accidents, two-wheelers accounted for the highest share (33.9%) in total accidents and fatalities (29.8%) in 2017.
5. However there has been a decline in the total number of road accidents as compared with the year 2016. In percentage terms the number of accidents in 2017 was lower by 3.3 percent and injuries 4.8 percent over that of the previous year.

Question 4.
Debate : Is Wearing helmet necessary?
Answer:

1. It is important for motor cyclists to understand the risks of riding without a helmet.
2. Riders who do not wear helmets are at risk of suffering traumatic brain injury if they are in an accident.
3. Without protection, the head is vulnerable to a traumatic impact in an accident even when travelling at low speeds.
4. Wearing helmet is absolutely necessary for riders and pillion riders.

Question 5.
Draw posters related to road safety.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Mandatory road signs are_________generally in shape.
(a) Circular
(b) Oval
(c) Square
(d) Hexagonal
Answer:
(a) Circular

Question 2.
The pedestrian crossing was instituted in Britain in_________
(a) 1930
(b) 1932
(e) 1934
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1934

Question 3.
Children above_________ years of age should occupy the back seat.
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 12

Question 4.
The Zebra crossing with black and white stripes was developed after
(a) Cold war
(b) Civil war
(c) First World war
(d) Second World war
Answer:
(d) Second World war

Question 5.
Red rings or circles give_________ instructions
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Caution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Negative

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Cautionary road signs are generally in_________ shape.
2. Informatory road signs are generally in_________ shape.
3. We should wait until_________ a signal appears before proceeding.
4. Amber means_________
5. Traffic signs are there to_________traffic.
6. Answer:
7. Triangular
8. Rectangular
9. Caution
10. green
11. Regulate

III. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain the three types of traffic signs.
Answer:

1. Mandatory road signs are the ones that give order regarding do’s and don’ts and are to be followed strictly. They are generally circular in shape.
2. Cautionary road signs are the ones that was in the road rules regarding the road situation ahead. These signs are generally in triangular shape.
3. Informatory road signs are the ones that give information regarding directions, destination etc. Informatory signs are generally rectangular in shape.

Question 2.
What do the three colours Red, Amber and Green signify?
Answer:

1. Red means stop – wait behind the stop line.
2. Amber means CAUTION.
3. Green means Go-Proceed ahead ensuing that the way is clear.

Question 3.
Mention about the languages of the road.
Answer:

1. Road signs, markings, traffic signals and other traffic devices are there to guide the road users and hence the languages of the road.
2. Traffic signals are there to regulate traffic, warn about hazards and to guide the road user.

Question 4.
How should children use the pavements?
Answer:
Children should be taught to use the pavements. When walking on the road,

1. Walk on any side of the road if there are food paths.
2. On roads without food path walk on your extreme right side facing the oncoming traffic.
3. Use Zebra crossing, foot over bridge and subways to cross the roads.
4. Children below 8 years of age should cross the road with the help of elders.

Question 5.
What should not be done by children while crossing the road?
Answer:

1. Do not cross the road hastily by running.
2. Do not cross the road in front of or in between parked vehicles.
3. Do not try to cross the road from blind comers, turnings where you are not visible to the vehicle drivers.
4. Do not jump over the railings to cross the road.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Soaps were originally made from _______
(a) proteins
(b) animal fats and vegetable oils
(c) chemicals extracted from the soil
(d) foam booster
Answer.
(b) animal fats and vegetable oils

Question 2.
The saponification of a fat or oil is done using ……….. solution for hot process.
a. potassium hydroxide
b. sodium hydroxide
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium hydroxide
Answer:
b. sodium hydroxide

Question 3.
Gypsum is added to the cement for _______
(a) fast setting
(b) delayed setting
(c) hardening
(d) making paste
Answer:
(b) delayed setting

Question 4.
Phenol is ……..
a. carbolic acid
b. acetic acid
c. benzoic acid
d. hydrochloric acid
Answer:
a. carbolic acid

Question 5.
Natural adhesives are made from _______
(a) Protein
(b) fat
(c) starch
(d) vitamins
Answer:
(c) starch

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. _______ gas causes tears in our eyes, while cutting onions.
2. Water, coconut oil and ________ are necessary for soap preparation.
3. _______ is called as farmer’s best friend.
4. _______ fertilizer is ecoffiendly.
5. _______ is an example for natural adhesive.

Answers:

1. Propanethial s-oxide
2. animal fat
3. Earthworm
4. Organic
5. Starch dissolved in water

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement :

Question 1.
Concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.
Answer:
False. Low concentrated phenol is used as a disinfectant.

Question 2.
Gypsum is largely used in medical industries.
Answer:
False. Gypsum is largely used in cement preparation.

Question 3.
Plaster of Paris is obtained from heating gypsum.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Adhesives are the substances used to separate the components.
Answer:
False. Adhesives are the substances used to join the components.

Question 5.
NPK are the primary nutrients for plants.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

V. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence :

1. Pour that solution into an empty match box, soap can be obtained after drying.
2. Take necessary quantity of water in ajar.
3. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
4. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
5. Try this soap to wash your hand kerchief.
6. Cover your work area with old newspaper.

Answers:

1. Cover your work area with old newspaper.
2. Take necessary quantity of water in a jar.
3. Add concentrated sodium hydroxide in the jar and allow it to cool.
4. Then add coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well.
5. Pour that solution into an empty match box, soap can be obtained after drying.
6. Try this soap to wash your hand kerchief.

VI. Analogy :

Question 1.
Urea : Inorganic fertilizer;
Vermi compost: _______
Answer:
Organic fertilizer.

Question 2.
_______ : Natural adhesives ;
Cello tape : Artifical adhesives.
Answer:
Starch dissolved in water.

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are the three main constituents of soap?
Answer:
The three main constituents of soap are Lye (Sodium hydroxide), coconut oil and water.

Question 2.
What are the two different types of molecules found in the soap?
Answer:

1. Loving water molecules.
2. Hating water molecules.

Question 3.
Give an example of inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
The Inorganic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium sulphate and Super phosphate.

Question 4.
Mention any three physical properties of phenol?
Answer:

1. Weak acid
2. High volatile
3. White crystalline powder.

Question 5.
Explain the uses of plaster of paris.
Answer:
Uses of plaster of pairs :

1. In making black board chalks.
2. In surgery for setting fractured bones.
3. For making casts for statues and toys etc.
4. In the construction industry.

Question 6.
What are the ingredients of the cement?
Answer:

1. Limestone
2. Clay
3. Gypsum

Question 7.
Why gypsum is used in cement production?
Answer:
Gypsum is added to control the setting of cement.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Why earthworm is called a farmer’s friend?
Answer:
Earthworms take organic wastes as food and produce compost castings. So earthworms are known as Farmers’ Friends because of the multitude of services they provide to improve soil health and consequently plant health.

Question 2.
Explain the process of manufacturing cement.
Answer:
The cement is manufactured by crushing of naturally occurring minerals such as lime stone, clay and gypsum through a milling process.

Question 3.
What are uses of Gypsum?
Answer:
Uses of Gypsum :

1. It is used as fertilizers.
2. It is used in the process of making cement.
3. It is used in the process of making Plaster of Paris.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
How are detergents manufactured?
Answer:
Manufacture of Detergents:-
Materials used:
Acid slurry, Soda ash (or) Sodium Carbonate, Trisodium phosphate (TSP), sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour perfume and brightner.

Preparation:

1. Acid slurry is first neutralised.
2. Then neutralised Acid Slurry is mixed with Soda ash and kept for one hour for completion of reaction.
3. Other ingredients such as Trisodium phosphate (TSP), Sodium tripolyphosphate (STPP), Carboxy Methyl Chloride (or) Cellulose, Glauber’s salt, colour, perfume, brightner are then blended to the neutralised Acid Slurry with continuous mixing.
4. Then the mixture is dried.
5. Now we get detergent powder.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills

Question 1.
Ravi is a farmer; he rears many cattle in his farm. His field has many bio wastes. Advise Ravi how to change this bio waste to compost by using vermi-composting techniques. Explain the benefits of vermi castings.
Answer:

1. A cement tub is to be constructed to a height of 2’A feet and the breadth 3 feet.
2. Put the Bio-wastes in the cement tub with 5 cm height.
3. Add few earthworms with the Bio-waste.
4. Then add saw dust, or coir waste and husk on the top of Bio-wastes.
5. Then add sand to form a layer of 3 cm.
6. Then add garden waste on the layer of sand.
7. Then spray with water.
8. All layers must be moistioned with water.
9. After 10 to 15 days, we get vermicompost manure.

Benefits:

1. It is rich in all essential nutrients.
2. It improves soil structure, texture and prevent soil corrosion.
3. It contains valuable hormones like auxons, gibberellin etc.
4. It neutralizes the soil protection.

XI. Project :

1. Take 100 ml of hot water in a glass jar.
2. Add 50 gram of maida powder in the hot water and stir it well.
3. A paste like substances are formed. Add a small quantity of copper sulphate for a long use.
4. Now you test this paste by binding your damaged book.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Discuss with your group and list out few chemicals which we use in our home and school.
_______________________
_______________________
Answer:
We are using the following Chemicals in our home and school:-
Detergents, Air fresheners, Disinfectant, Glass cleaning chemicals, Detergents, Shampoo, Lubricants, Metal polishers, Rest room cleaning chemicals, Naphthalene, Bathing soap, Hit.

Activity 2

Preparation of Soap
Materials Required: 35 ml of water, 10 g of Lye (Sodium hydroxide), 60 ml of coconut oil.

Process : Cover your work area with old newspaper. Take 35 ml of water in a jar. Add 10 gram of concentrated sodium hydroxide and allow it to cool.

Then add 60 ml of coconut oil drop by drop and stir it well. Pour that solution into an empty match box, soap can be obtained after getting dried.

Try this soap to wash your handkerchief.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 3

Collect various kinds, of soap’s wrapper. Complete the following table based on the information provided in the wrapper.

Inference : Nature of the soaps varies according to its constituents.
Answer:

Activity 4

Make a visit to agriculture field in your area. List out the various crops and type of fertilizers used there.

S.No	Name of the Crop	Name of the Fertillizer
1.
2.
3.

Answer:

S.No	Name of the Crop	Name of the Fertillizer
1.	Rice and wheat	Urea, Potassium Nitrate
2.	Tomato	Super Phosphate
3.	Potato and Mango	Potassium Nitrate

Activity 5

Take three empty tumblers of same size and name them as A, B and C. Add two tea spoonful of cement in each of the container. Then pour one tea spoonful of water in container A and two spoonful of water in B and three spoonful of water in C.

After an hour, observe which container of the cement set fast? Touch the containers and see if they are warm or cool. From this experiment, we understand that water and cerhent should be mixed in a certain ratio for fast setting.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Chemistry in Everyday Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ change results in the change of the substance.
(a) Physical
(b) Chemical
(c) Biological
(d) Zoological
Answer:
(b) Chemical

Question 2.
The percentage composition of Nitrogen in Ureas is ………..
(a) 23%
(b) 13%
(c) 21%
(d) 46%
Answer:
(d) 46%

Question 3.
_______ is the important material in construction industry.
(a) Soap
(b) Adhesives
(c) Cement
(d) Fertilizers

Question 4.
Who invented cement?
(a) Edison
(b) Joseph Aspdin
(c) Robert Hooke
(d) Robert Brown
Answer:
(b) Joseph Aspdin

Question 5.
_______ concrete is a composite material by mixing iron mesh with cement.
(a) Mortar
(b) m-sand
(c) Reinforced cement
(d) Gypsum
Answer:
(c) Reinforced cement

Question 6.
The molecular formula of ‘Plaster of Paris’ is
(a) CaSO₄. ½ H₂O
(b) CaSO₄. H₂O
(c) CaSO₄. 2H₂O
(d) CaSO₄. 3H₂O
Answer:
(a) CaSO₄. ½ H₂O

Question 7.
The chemical name of gypsum is .
(a) Magnesium sulphate hydrate
(b) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate
(c) Carbolic acid
(d) Calcium sulphate dihydrate
Answer:
(d) Calcium sulphate dihydrate

Question 8.
is used in making blackboard chalks.
(a) Plaster of Paris
(b) Gypsum
(c) Epsom
(d) Phenol
Answer:
(a) Plaster of Paris

Question 9.
_________ is used as surgical antiseptic.
(a) Epsom
(b) Phenol
(c) Gypsum
(d) None of these

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Burning of paper is the best example of _______ change.
2. _______ is the branch of science which deals with the study of particles around us.
3. Salt is a combination of the chemicals _______ and _______.
4. We could prepare soft idly as a result of a chemical change named _______ takes place in the idly batter.
5. We are using _______ to remove strong stains on the clothes.
6. _______ help plant grow and restore soil fertility.
7. _______ is the organic tertillzer.
8. _______ invented Portland cement.
9. _______ is the medicine for skin problems.
10. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is called as _______
11. _______ is used in mouthwash in low concentrations.
12. The adhesive used in puncture shop is _______

Answers:

1. Chemical
2. Chemistry
3. Sodium, Chlorine
4. fermentation
5. Wash powder
6. Organic fertilizers
7. Compost
8. Joseph Aspdin
9. Epsom
10. Plaster of parisl
11. Pheno
12. Artificial adhesivel

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Water boiling into water vapour is an example of chemical change.
Answer:
False. Water boiling into water vapour is an example of Physical change.

Question 2.
Chemist identify gypsum as a natural indicator.
Answer:
False. Chemist identify turmeric powder as a natural indicator.

Question 3.
The water we drink is the combination of hydrogen and oxygen.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
When we soak onion in water, then the irritation is increased.
Answer:
False. When we soak onion in water then the irritation is reduced.

Question 5.
Mortar is a paste of cement and sand mixed with water.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Fertilizers containing only plant or animal based materials or those synthesized by microorganisms are called inorganic fertilizers.
Answer:
False. Fertilizers containing only plant or animal based materials or those synthesized by microorganisms are called organic fertilizers,

Question 7.
‘Portland’ cement resembled the high-quality building stones found in Portland, England.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Reinforced Cement Concrete is a mixture of cement, sand and gravel.
Answer:
False. Concrete js a mixture of cement, sand and gravel.

Question 9.
Gypsum is used in the process of making cement.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Gypsum is used in improving plant growth in agriculture.
Answer:
False. Epsom js usecj jn improving plant growth in agriculture.

IV. Match the following :

1.	Sodium Chloride	–	(a)	CaSO41/2H2O
2.	Calcium sulphate dihydrate	–	(b)	C2H5Oh
3.	Magnesium sulphate hydrate	–	(c)	CaSO4.2H2O
4.	Calcium sulphate hemihydrate	–	(d)	NaCl
5.	Phenol	–	(e)	MgSO4.H2O

Answer:

1. – d
2. – c
3. – e
4. – a
5. – b.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
H₂O : Water :: NaCl: ________
Answer:
Sodium Chloride.

Question 2.
Used to join components : Adhesives :: Clean the body _______
Answer:
Soaps.

Question 3.
Organic fertilizer : Compost:: Inorganic fertilizer _______
Answer:
Super phosphate.

Question 4.
Used as fertilizer : Gypsum :: Helps nerves function properly : _______
Answer:
Epsom.

Question 5.
Making casts for statues : Plaster of paris :: Used as mouthwash : _______
Answer:
phenol.

VI. Give Short Answer :

Question 1.
Define physical change.
Answer:
In physical change only the shape, size (or) volume changes; the state of the matter may also change.

Question 2.
What is the use of indicator?
Answer:
The use of indicator is to identify whether material is acid (or) base medium.

Question 3.
How to prepare soft idly?
Answer:
We could prepare soft idly as a result of chemical change named fermentation takes place in the idly batter. During fermentation the idly batter undergoes a chemical change by bacteria.

Question 4.
If we soak onion in water the irritation is reduced. Why?
Answer:
It is due to the presence of a chemical, propanethial s-oxide in onion. This is easily volatile. When we cut onion, some of the cells are damaged and the chemical come out. It becomes vapour and reach our eyes result in irritation and tears in eyes. If we soak onion in water, the chemical is diluted and it cannot reach our eyes. So the irritation is reduced.

Question 5.
Write some materials prepared by chemical changes.
Answer:
Soaps, fertilizers, cement, gypsum, epsom, plaster of paris, phenol are the materials.

Question 6.
Define Principal nutrients.
Answer:
Nitrogen (N), Phosphorous (P) and Potassium (K) are the three important nutrients among the various nutrients needed for plant growth. These three are called as Principal Nutrients.

Question 7.
Differentiate between organic and inorganic fertilizer.
Answer:
Organic fertilizers:

1. Plant (or) animal based materials synthesized by micro-organisms
2. Prepared easily.
3. Economical
4. Example : Vermicompost, Compost

Inorganic fertilizers:

1. Natural elements by making them undergo chemical changes.
2. Prepared complicated
3. Not economical
4. Example : Urea, Super phosphate, Ammonium Phosphate.

Question 8.
Why the cement is called as Portland cement?
Answer:
It was named Portland cement because it resembled the high quality building stones found in Portland, England.

Question 9.
What are the uses of cement?
Answer:

1. It is used to construct houses.
2. It is used to construct dams, bridges.

Question 10.
What is the use of Epsom Salt?
Answer:

1. In medical, it eases the stress and relaxes the body.
2. In agriculture, it improves plant growth.
3. It is used as medicine for skin problems.
4. Helps muscles and nerves function properly.

Question 11.
Define Adhesives.
Answer:
A paste like material which is used to join two components together is called adhesive.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
How soaps clean clothes?
Answer:

1. We are using wash powder to remove strong stains on the clothes.
2. The detergent molecules have two sides, one side “water-loving”, other “water-hating”.
   
3. Water hating goes and joins with dirt and oil in the cloth while the water-loving joins with the water molecules.
4. When you agitate the cloth the dirt is surrounded by many molecules and is taken away from the cloth.
5. The cloth becomes clean, and the dirt surrounded by the detergent molecules float in the water making it dirty.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Local Bodies – Rural And Urban

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies – Rural And Urban Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_________ is set up w ith several village panchayats.
(a) Panchayat Union
(b) District Panchayat
(c) Taluk
(d) Revenue village
Answer:
(a) Panchayat Union

Question 2.
……………… is National Panchayat Raj Day.
(a) January 24
(b) July 24
(c) November 24
(d) April 24
Answer:
(d) April 24

Question 3.
The oldest urban local body in India is _________
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Kolkata
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 4.
The district has the highest number of Panchayat Unions.
(a) Vellore
(b) Thiruvallore
(c) Villupuram
(d) Kanchipuram
Answer:
(c) Villupuram

Question 5.
The head of a corporation is called a_________
(a) Mayor
(b) Commissioner
(c) Chair Person
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Mayor

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ is the fist state in India to introduce town Panchayat.
2. The Panchayat Raj Act was enacted in the year______
3. The tenure of the local body representative is______ years.
4. ______ is the first municipality in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:

1. Tamilnadu
2. April 24,1992
3. five
4. Walajahpet in Vellore Dt.

III. Match the following

1.	Grama Sabha	Executive Officer
2.	Panchayat Union	State Election Commission
3.	Town Panchayat	Block Development Officer
4.	Local body election	Permanent Unit

Answer:

1.	Grama Sabha	Permanent Unit
2.	Panchayat Union	Block Development Officer
3.	Town Panchayat	Executive Officer
4.	Local body election	State Election Commission

IV. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Is there any corporation in your district? Name it.
Answer:
Chennai Corporation.

Question 2.
What is the need for local bodies?
Answer:
In order to fulfil the requirements of the people and to involve them directly in governance, there is need for an effective system of local bodies.

Question 3.
What are the divisions of a rural local body?
Answer:
The rural local bodies are Categorized into Village Panchayats, Panchayat Unions and District Panchayats.

Question 4.
What are the divisions of an Urban local body?
Answer:
The Urban local bodies are Categorized into City Municipal Corporations, Municipalities and Town Panchayats.

Question 5.
Who are the representatives elected in a Village Panchayat?
Answer:
The elected representatives of the Village Panchayat are

1. Panchayat President
2. Ward members
3. Councillor
4. District Panchayat Ward Councillor.

Question 6.
List out a few functions of corporations.
Answer:

1. Drinking-Water Supply
2. Street Light
3. Maintenance of Clean Environment
4. Primary Health facilities
5. Corporation Schools
6. Birth and Death registration etc.

Question 7.
List out a few means of revenue of village Panchayats.
Answer:
Revenue of Village Panchayats are

1. House Tax
2. Professional Tax
3. Tax on shops
4. Water charges
5. Specific fees for property tax
6. Specific fees for transfer of immovable property
7. Funds from Central and State Governments, etc.

Question 8.
When are Grama Sabha meetings convened? What are the special on those days?
Answer:

1. The Grama Sabha meetings are Convened on January 26, May 1, August 15, and October 2.
2. These days are celebrated as National festival days every year.

Question 9.
What are the special features of Panchayat Raj system?
Answer:
Special features of Panchayat Raj .

1. Grama Sabha
2. Three tier local body governance.
3. Reservations
4. Panchayat elections
5. Tenure
6. Finance Commission
7. Account and Audit, etc.

Question 10.
What is the importance of Grama Sabha?
Answer:

1. Grama Sabha is essential for the effective functioning of Village Panchayat.
2. It enhances public participation in the planning and implementation of schemes for social benefit.

HOTS:

Question 1.
Local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities. How?
Answer:

1. Local self government has been playing a vital role.
2. The local bodies provide services to the local community.
3. They act as an instrument of democratic self-government.
4. This level of government is recoginsed by the people as they are close to the citizens and involve them in the decision making process.
5. These institutions perform the functions related to education, sanitation, public health, industry, etc and try to tackle the day-to-day problems of the local people. In a big country like India, the Union government and State government are unable to know the local problems of the citizens. Only the local people can suggest the right solution to local problems.
6. These bodies lessen the workload of Central and State governments. They are the best schools of democracy.
7. Therefore the local bodies play an important role in the development of villages and cities.

VI. Activities:

Question 1.
Find out the number of local bodies in your district and list them
Answer:

Name of the District	Village Panchayat	Panchayat Union (Blocks)	Town Panchayat	Municipality	Corporation
Ariyalur	201	6	2	2	–
Chennai	–	–	–	–	1
Coimbatore	389	13	52	6	1
Cuddalore	682	13	16	5	–
Dharmapuri	251	8	10	1	–
Dindigul	306	14	24	2	1
Erode	343	14	53	4	1
Kancheepuram	648	13	24	10	–
Kanyakumari	99	9	56	4	–
Karur	157	8	11	4	–
Krishnagiri	337	10	7	2	–
Madurai	431	12	24	6	1
Nagapattinam	434	11	8	4	–
Namakkal	331	15	19	5	–
Perambalur	121	4	4	1	–
Pudukottai	498	13	8	2	–
Ramanathapuram	443	11	7	4	–
Salem	385	20	33	4	1
Sivagangai	445	12	12	3	–
Thanjavour	589	14	22	2	1
Nilgris	35	4	11	4	_
Theni	130	8	22	6	–
Thruvallur	539	14	13	5	–
Thruvannamalai	860	18	10	4	–
Thiruvarur	430	10	7	4	–
Thoothukudi	408	12	19	2	1
Tiruchirappalli	408	14	17	3	1
Tirunelveli	425	19	36	8	1
Tiruppur	273	13	17	6	1
Vellore	753	20	22	8	1
Villlupurarn	1104	22	15	3	–
Virudhunagar	450	11	9	7	–
32	12.524	385	529	123	12

HOTS

Question 1.
Why are there only 31 district panchayats, but 32 districts?
Answer:

1. There are 32 districts but there are only 31 districts panchayats because there is no such body for chennai.
2. It is because the district of chennai is falls in urban district. District rural development agency’s ex-officio chairman is the district collector.
3. In the state of Tamil Nadu there are total 32 districts including chennai but there is no district panchyat.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Local Bodies-Rural And Urban Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tamil Nadu there is corporation in __________
(a) Namakkal
(b) Perambalur
(c) Thiruvarur
(d) Erode
Answer:
(d) Erode

Question 2.
All local bodies have a reservation of percent for women ……………….
(a) 30
(b) 25
(c) 33
Answer:
(c) 33

Question 3.
The administrative oi Beer of a Municipality is __________
(a) Engineer
(b) Executive Officer
(c) Ward Member
(d) Deputy Commissioner
Answer:
(b) Executive Officer

Question 4.
The Tamil Nadu Panchayats (Amendment) Act,2016 has fixed percent reservation for women in panchayat Raj institutions.
(a) 40
(b) 50
(c) 60
Answer:
(b) 50

Question 5.
The grass root level, democratic institution is __________
(a) Town Panchayat
(b) Village Panchayat
(c) Grama Sabha
(d) Panchayat Union
Answer:
(c) Grama Sabha

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The __________district has the most number of municipalities.
2. A __________ is between a village and a city.
3. A city Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner who is an __________ officer.
4. The Nilgris and Perambalur district have the lowest number of __________
5. Vehicle charges are one of the revenue sources to __________
6. Mahatma Gandhi advocated __________ as the foundation of India’s political system.
7. The Tamil Nadu State Election Commission is situated in __________ Chennai.

Answer:

1. Kanchipuram
2. Town Panchayat
3. IAS
4. Panchayat Unions
5. City Municipal Corporation
6. Panchayat Raj
7. Koyambedu

III. Match the Following

1.	Chennai	a. Obligatory Function
2.	Panchayat President	b. Village Panchayat
3.	Laying Roads	c. Corporation
4.	Grama Sabha	d. Wards
5.	Constituencies	e. Elected representative

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. d

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Mention the list of corporations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
The list of corporations in Tamil Nadu :

1. Chennai
2. Madurai
3. Coimbatore
4. Tiruchirapalli
5. Salem
6. Tirunelveli
7. Erode
8. Thoothukudi
9. Tiruppur
10. Vellore
11. Dindigul
12. Thanjavur.

Question 2.
What is a Municipality?
Answer:

1. A Municipality is found in the level below the City Municipal Corporation.
2. These areas have a population of more than one lakh and a high amount of revenue.

Question 3.
What is a Town Panchayat?
Answer:

1. A Town Panchayat has about 10,000 population.
2.  A Town Panchayat is between a village and a city.
3. Tamil Nadu was the first state to introduce a town panchayat in the whole of India.

Question 4.
Mention the officials of a City Municipal Corporation?
Answer:

1. A City Municipal Corporation has a Commissioner. He is an Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer.
2. Government officials are deputed as Commissioners for the Municipalities.
3. The Administrative officer of a Municipality is an Executive Officer (EO).

Question 5.
What is a Village Panchayat?
Answer:

1. Village Panchayats are the local bodies of villages.
2. They act as a link between the people and the government.
3. Villages are divided into wards based on their population.
4. The representatives are elected by the people.

Question 6.
What is Panchayat Union?
Answer:

1. Many Village Panchayats join to form a Panchayat Union.
2. A Councillor is elected from each Panchayat.
3. These councillors will elect a Panchayat Union Chairperson among themselves.
4. A Vice-Chairperson is also elected.
5. A Block Development Officer (BDO) is the administrative head of a Panchayat Union.

Question 7.
What is a District Panchayat?
Answer:

1. A District Panchayat is formed in every district.
2. A district is divided into wards on the basis of 50,000 population.
3. The ward members are elected by the Village Panchayats.
4. The members of the District Panchayat elect the District Panchayat Committee Chairperson.
5. They provide essential services and facilities to the rural population.

Question 8.
Mention the officials of a City Municipal Corporation.
Answer:

1. Mayor of the City Municipal Corporation and the Municipal Chairperson are the elected representatives of the people.
2. The people elect them.
3. The Corporation Deputy Mayor and the Municipal Vice Chair-person are elected by the ward councillors.

Question 9.
Mention the obligating functions of the Village Panchayat.
Answer:
The obligating functions of the Village Panchayat:

1. Water supply
2. Street lighting
3. Cleaning roads
4. Drainage and sewage pipes system
5. Laying down roads
6. Activation of Central and State Government Schemes.

Question 10.
Mention the revenue of the City Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
The revenue of the City Municipal Corporation :

1. House Tax
2. Water Tax
3. Tax on shopping Complexes
4. Professional Tax
5. Entertainment Tax
6. Vehicle charges
7. Funds by Central and State governments, etc.

Question 11.
Mention the role of women in the Local Self government.
Answer:

1. All local bodies have a reservation of 33% for women.
2. In 2011, Local Bodies election, 38% seats were won by women.
3. As per the Tamil Nadu Panchayats (Amendment) Act 2016, 50% reservation for women is being fixed in Panchayat Raj institutions.

V. HOTS:

Question 1.
What do you know about Panch at Awards?
Answer:

1. Panchayat Awards are distributed by Ministry of Panchayat Raj, Government of India every year in the month of April.
2. Best performing panchayats are selected from all over India.
3. Panchayat that performs well in all aspects is chosen as Winners.
4. In 2018, Digambarpur in West Bengal became the best Grama Panchayat of India.
5. A survey was conducted to find out the best Grama Panchayat in India among 2.5 lakh Grama Panchayats.
6. Out of these, the Ministry of Panchayat Raj finalised three top states.
7. The ranking was prepared based on different seven factors that includes system of planning, quality of planning, different activities and level of co-ordination etc.
8. Finally it was Digambarpur chosen as the best one in the country.
9. Karnataka and Sikkim were the other two states that were finalised in top three.
10. In India, April 24th is celebrated as National Panchayat Raj Diwas every year. This day marks the passing of the constitution (73rd Amendment) Act; 1992 that came into force with effect from 24 April 1993.

Question 2.
Write down the Key difference between Urban and Rural Basis for Comparison.
Answer:

S.No	Basis for Comparison	Urban	Rural
1.	Meaning	A settlement where the population is very high and has the features of a built environment, is known as Urban	An area located in, the outskirts, is known as Rural
2.	Includes	Cities and Towns	Villages and Hamlet
3.	Life	Fast and Complicated	Simple and relaxed
4.	Environment	Greats isolation from Nature	Direct contact with Nature
5.	Associated with	Non agricultural work, ie trade, commerce or provision of services	Agriculture and livestock
6.	Population size	Densely populated	Sparsely population
7.	Development	Planned settlement exists in Urban areas, that are developed according to the process of urbanisation and industrialisation	Developed randomly based on availability of natural vegetation and fauna in that area.
8.	Social mobility	Highly intensive	Less intensive
9.	Division of Labour	Always present at the time of job allotment	No such division

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 6 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Textual Evaluation

I Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in CPU?
(a) Mother Board
(b) SMPS
(c) RAM
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
a. Free and Open source
b. Free and Traditional software
c. Passive and Open source
d. Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
a. Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a
(a) Paid Software
(b) Licensed Software
(c) Free and Proprietary software
(d) Free and Open-source software
Answer:
(d) Free and Open-source software

Question 4.
Find out Paid and Proprietary software from the given list
a.- Windows
b. MAC OS
c. Adobe Photoshop
d. All the above
Answer:
d. All the above

Question 5.
_______ is a Operating System
(a) Android
(b) Chrome
(c) Internet
(d) Pendrive

IV. Match the following :

1. MAC OS	Free and Open source Software
2. Software	Paid and Proprietary Software
3. Hardware	Input Device
4. Keyboard	RAM
5. LINUX	Geogebra

Answer:

1. MAC OS	Paid and Proprietary Software
2. Software	Geogebra
3. Hardware	RAM
4. Keyboard	Input device
5. LINUX	Free and open source software

III. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What are Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware:

1. Hardware is the parts of the computer which we can touch and feel.
2. Hardware includes input and output devices, Cabinet, Hard disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive and Graphics card.

Software :

1. Software are programmed and coded application to process the input information.
2. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.
3. Touching and feeling is not possible. But, we can see the functions of the software in the form of output.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How does it work?
Answer:

1. System Software (Operating System) is software that makes the hardware devices process the data inputted by the user and to display the result on the output devices like Monitor.
2. Without the operating system, computer cannot function on its own.
3. Some of the popular operating system are Linux, Windows, Mac, Android etc.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:

1. Free and open software is available at free of cost and can be shared to many end-users.
2. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to update or development of new software.
3. Examples: 1. Linux, 2. Geogebra.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Hardware and Software Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_____ is a device comprising both hardware and software.
(a) Microwave Oven
(b) Car
(c) Bike
(d) Computer
Answer:
(d) Computer

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct
(a) Free and Open source software
(b) Free and Licensed software
(c) Free and Traditional software
(d) Passive and Traditional source software
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source software

Question 3.
_____ existed before the World Wide Web.
(a) Whatsapp
(b) Email
(c) Facebook
(d) Google
Answer:
(b) Email

Question 4.
Windows is a
(a) Paid software
(b) Licensed software
(c) Free and Open-source software
(d) Free and Proprietary software
Answer:
(a) Paid software

Question 5.
_____ is one of the example of application program.
(a) Drawing tools
(b) Language
(c) Linker
(d) Device driver
Answer:
(a) Drawing tools

Question 6.
The license of the software would not be provided unless it is _____
(a) Collected
(b) Purchased
(c) dismantled
(d) sold
Answer:
(b) Purchased

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ is lifeless without software in a computer.
2. _______ are programmed and coded applications to process the input information.
3. Software is divided into _______ types based on the process.
4. _______ is a developing software to control the internal computer operation.
5. _______ software is available at free of cost and can be shared to many end users.
6. _______ is the Paid and Proprietary Software.

Answer:

1. Hardware
2. Software
3. two
4. Linker
5. Free and Open
6. Adobe Photoshop

III. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
How can we classify the software?
Answer:
The software is divided into two types based on the process. They are

1. System software
2. Application software

Question 2.
Give some examples of System Softwares.
Answer:
Some of the Popular Operating system are LINUX, Windows, Mac, Android etc.

Question 3.
What is open source initiative?
Answer:
The open source initiative is an organization dedicated to promote open source software.

Question 4.
Define – Application Software.
Answer:

1. Application software is a program (or) a group of programs designed for the benefit of end user to work on computer.
2. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usuage on a particular computer.

Question 5.
What is the classification of System Software?
Answer:
System software is divided into two types :

1. System Management Program.
2. Developing Software.

Question 6.
Give the classification of Application Software?
Answer:

1. General Purpose Software.
2. Specific Purpose Software.

Question 7.
Give some examples of Specific Purpose Software?
Answer:

1. Reservation System.
2. Attendance System.
3. Billing System.
4. Report card Generator.

Question 8.
What are the two forms of System and Application Software?
Answer:
The Operating System and application Software are available in two forms. They are:

1. Free and Open Source.
2. Paid and Proprietary Software.

IV. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Draw the flow chart of software classification.
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Economics An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Textual Evaluation

 

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. The producers of food grains are ______
2. Collection of honey is a ______ occupation.
3. The conversion of raw materials into finished goods is called ______
4. According to Gandhiji the villages are ______ of the nation.
5. The percentage of population in the cities of Tamil Nadu is ______

Answer:

1. farmers
2. Primary
3. manufacturing
4. backbone
5. 47 Percent

II. Match the following:

1. Cattle rearing – Secondary occupation
2. Food processing – Services
3. Iron & Steel Industry – Primary occupation
4. Telephone – Agro based industry
5. Cotton Industry – Tertiary occupation

Answer:

1. Cattle rearing – Primary occupation
2. Food processing – Agro based industry
3. Iron & Steel Industry – Secondary occupation
4. Telephone – Services (or) Tertiary occupation
5. Cotton Industry – Agro based industry (or) Secondary occupation

III. Match and find the odd pair:

1. Small scale Industry – Transaction of Money
2. Forest based Industries – Information Technology
3. Services – Paper Industries
4. Banking – Cattle rearing

Answer:

1. Small scale Industry – Cattle rearing
2. Forest based Industries – Paper Industries
3. Services – Information Technology
4. Banking – Transaction of Money

IV. Choose the correct answer:

1. Agriculture is a (Primary / Secondary) occupation
2. Economic activities are divided on the basis of (ownership / use)
3. Sugar Industries are (Primary / Secondary) activity
4. Agro based industry (Cotton / Furniture)
5. Dairy farming is a (Public sector / Co-operative sector)

Answer:

1. Primary
2. use
3. Secondary
4. Cotton
5. Co-operative sector

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Sandhai – Define
Answer:
In villages once in a week or month, all things are sold in a particular place at a specific time to meet the needs of the people. That is called Sandai.
What is called barter system?

1. The system of exchanging goods for other goods is called barter system.
2. This was followed in olden days.
3. For example, exchange a bag of rice for enough clothes.

Question 2.
What is trade?
Answer:
The action of buying and selling goods and services is called trade.

Question 3.
What is Savings?
Answer:
The amount from the income which is left for future needs after consumption is called sayings.

Question 4.
What was the necessity for the invention of money?
Answer:

1. When people exchanged commodities, they might have faced, certain problems when comparing the differences in the value of commodity.
2. To solve this problem, people invented a tool called money.

Question 5.
What was the reason for the development of settlements near water bodies?
Answer:

1. Rivers acts as the main source for cultivation of crops.
2. So early man settled permanently near the rivers.

Question 7.
What are called secondary occupation?
Answer:

1. The raw materials obtained from the primary activities are converted into finished products through machinery on a large scale.
2. These activities involve secondary occupation.

Question 8.
Name the city centred industries.
Answer:
Cement, iron, and Aluminium industries, sea food processing are some of the city centered industries.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
List out the important primary occupations of your district.
Answer:
Some of the primary occupation are agriculture, crop production, animals husbandry, fisheries, foresting and mining. It also includes gazing, hunting, gathering.

Question 2.
Mention the manufacturing industries found in your district.
Answer:

1. Cotton textiles
2. Spinning and weaving
3. Food processing industries
4. Beedi production
5. Wind power generations

Question 3.
How are the industries classified on the basis of raw materials?
Answer:
On the basic of raw materials industries are classified as

1. Agro Based Industries – Cotton textiles, Sugar mills and Food processing.
2. Forest Based Industries – Paper mills, Furniture making, Building materials.
3. Mineral Based Industries – Cement, Iron, Aluminium Industries. .
4. Marine Based Industries – Sea food processing.

Question 4.
Write down the occupations in the service sector.
Answer:

1. Transport – Roadways, railways waterways, airways
2. Communication – Post, Telephone, information Technology etc.
3. Trade – Procurment of goods, selling
4. Banking – Money transactions, banking services

Question 5.
What do you know about the features of cities?
Answer:

1. A city is a large human settlement.
2. High density of population.
3. Four way roads, flyovers, sky scrapers, parks.
4. Educational institution, hospital, Government offices.
5. Private and public industries and technological institutions.
6. Employment opportunities permanent monthly income, basic requirements are

VII. Fill in the tabular column given below:

S.No.	Occupations in Villages	Occupations in cities	Occupations in Villages and cities
1.	Farming	Engineer	Carpenter
2.	Grazing of Herding	Scientists	Teacher
3.	Blacksmith	Musicians	Weaver
4.	Pottery	Journalists	Self employed
5.	Water Bearers	Doctors	Marketing

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Intext Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
Imagine if money disappears one day?
Answer:

1. In our daily life we utilize many things. These things are sold in shops. To buy and sell commodities we use money. If we save money it is good for us and the country.
2. Money is the lubrication for the movement of goods. If these contracts symbolized by money disappeared, there would be instant chaos. All activity would grind to a halt.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Intext Activities

Activity – 3

Fill up the given table.
Answer:

S.No.	Countries	Currency	Symbol
1.	Germany	Eurb	€
2.	Brazil	Brazilian real	R$
3.	India	Rupee	₹
4.	Argentina	Peso	$
5.	China	Renminbi	¥

Activity – 4
Put ✓ mark in appropriate box
Answer:

S.No.	Occupation	Primary activity	Secondary activity	Tertiary activity
1.	Farmer	✓
2.	Teacher			✓
3.	Tailor		✓
4.	Engineer		✓
5.	Bank Manager			✓

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Economics An Introduction Additional Questions

I. Fill In the blanks:

1. Things which are produced in villages are brought to
2. The permanent settlements of early man were called
3. The root of our economy is
4. The raw material for sugar is
5. Banks help in of money.

Answer:

1. Sandhai
2. Villages
3. Agriculture
4. Sugare cane
5. Circulation

II. Match the following:

1.	Exchange of goods	a.	Primary Activity
2.	Lumbering	b.	Trade
3.	Cement	c.	Post
4.	Buying and selling	d.	Barter
5.	Communication	e.	Mineral based

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

III. Find the odd pair:

1.	Harvesting products             ‘	a.	Primary
2.	Goods and services	b.	Tertiary
3.	Manufacturing	c.	Primary
4.	Teaching	d.	Tertiary

IV. Choose the correct answer and fill in the appropriate column:

1. Coal miner
2. Automobile assembling plant
3. Grocery store
4. Helicopter pilot
5. Fisherman
6. Firefighters
7. Cashier
8. Delivery man
9. Oil well
10. Furniture maker
11. Timber cutters
12. Cotton farmer
13. Oil refinery.

Answer:

S.No.	Primary	Secondary	Tertiary
1.	Coal miner	Automobile assembling plant	Grocery store
2.	Fisherman	Furniture maker	Helicopter pilot
3.	Oil well	Oil refinery	Fire fighters
4.	Timber cutters		Cashier
5.	Cotton farmer		Delivery man .

V. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What art consumer goods?

1. The finished goods which are bought from the market to fulfill the daily needs of the consumers is called consumer goods.
2. Example: Rice, Cloth, Bicycle etc.

Question 2.
Mention a few primary activities.
Answer:
Agriculture, Cattle rearing, fishing, mining, collection of fruits, nuts, honey, rubber, resin and medicinal herbs, lumbering etc are primary activities.

VI. Give a detailed answer :
Question 1.
What is economics? Why is if so important?
Answer:

1. Economics is the study of how societies, governments, business establishments, households and individuals allocate their scarce resources.
2. The study of economics can also provide valuable knowledge for making decisions
   in everyday life.
3. Economics is about the study of scarcity and choice.
4. By studying how markets work, our young people also learn how to make efficient choices in managing their own scarce resources, such as time and money.

 

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Bill, Profit and Loss Ex 3.1

Question 1.
A School purchases some furniture and gets the following bill.

(i) What is the name of the store?
(ii) What is the serial number of the bill?
(iii) What is the cost of a blackboard?
(iv) How many sets of benches and desks does the school buy?
(v) Verify whether the total bill amount is correct.
Solution:
(i) Mullai Furniture Mart, Thanjavur
(ii) Serial No. 728
(iii) Cost of a blackboard is ₹ 3000
(iv) 50 sets
(v) Yes, the total bill amount is correct.

Question 2.
Prepare a bill for the following books of biographies purchased from Maruthu Book Store, Chidambaram on 12.04.2018 bearing the bill number 507.
10 copies of Subramanya Bharathiar @ ₹ 55 each, 15 copies of Thiruvalluvar @ ₹ 75 every 12 copies of Veeramamunivar @ ₹ 60 each and 12 copies of Thiru. Vi.Ka @ ₹ 70 each.
Solution:

Question 3.
Fillup the appropriate boxes in the following table.

Solution:
(i) Here Cost price < Selling price
Profit = S.P – C.P = 120 – 100 = ₹ 20
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = 120 – 110 = ₹ 10
(iii) Profit = ₹ 20
Profit = S.P. – C.P
⇒ 20 = S.P. – 120
⇒ 20 + 120 = S.P
⇒ S.P = ₹ 140
(iv) C.P = ₹ 100
S.P = ₹ 90
Here S.P < C.P
Loss = 100 – 90 = ₹ 10
(v) Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 25 = S.P – 120
⇒ 25 + 120 = S.P
⇒ S.P = ₹ 145

Question 4.
Fill up the appropriate boxes in the following table.

Solution:
(i) S.P. = M.P – Discount
S.P = ₹ 130
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = 130 – 110 = ₹ 20
(ii) S.P = M.P – Discount = 130 – 10 = ₹ 120
Here S.P > C.P
Profit = S.P – C.P = ₹ 120 – ₹ 110 = ₹ 10
(iii) S.P = M.P – Discount = 130 – 30 = ₹ 100
Here S.P < C.P
Loss = 110 – 100 = ₹ 10
(iv) C.P = ₹ 110
M.P = ₹ 120
Loss = ₹ 10
Loss = C.P – S.P
⇒ 10 = 110 – SP
⇒ SP = 110 – 10 = ₹ 100
Discount = M.P – S.P = 120 – 100 = ₹ 20
(v) M.P = ₹ 120
Discount = ₹ 10
Discount = M.P – S.P
⇒ 10 = 120 – S.P
⇒ S.P = 120 – 10 = ₹ 110
Profit = ₹ 20
Profit = S.P – C.P
⇒ 20 = 110 – C.P
⇒ C.P = 110 – 20 = 90

Question 5.
Rani bought a set of bangles for Rs 310. Her neighbour liked it most. So, Rani sold it to her for Rs 325. Find the profit or loss to Rani.
Solution:
CP = Rs 310
SP = Rs 325
Profit = SP – CP = Rs 325 – Rs 310 = Rs 15

Question 6.
Sugan bought a Jeans pant for ₹ 750. It did not fit him. He sold it to his friend for ₹ 710. Find the profit or loss to sugan.
Solution:
C.P of the Jeans pant = ₹ 750
S.P of the Jeans pant = ₹ 710
Here S.P < C.P
Loss = C.P – S.P = 750 – 710 = ₹ 40
Loss = ₹ 40

Question 7.
Somu bought a second hand bike for Rs 28,000 and spent Rs 2,000 on its repair. He sold it for Rs 30,000. Find his profit or loss.
Solution:
CP = Rs 28,000 + Rs 2,000
CP = Rs 30,000
SP = Rs 30,000
CP = SP
No profit / Loss

Question 8.
Muthu has a car worth ₹ 8,50,000 and he wants to sell it at a profit of ₹ 25,000. What should be the selling price of the car? Solution:
Cost price of the car = ₹ 8,50,000
Expected profit = ₹ 25,000
We know that profit = S.P – C.P
25000 = S.P – 8,50,000
⇒ 25,000 + 8,50,000 = S.P
⇒ S.P = 8,75,000
Selling Price of the car should be ₹ 8,75,000

Question 9.
Valarmathi sold her pearl set for Rs 30,000 at profit of Rs 5,000. Find the cost price of the pearl set.
Solution:
SP = Rs 30,000
Profit = Rs 5,000
CP = SP – Profit
= Rs 30,000 – Rs 5,000
= Rs 25,000

Question 10.
If Guna marks his product to be sold for ₹ 325 and gives a discount of ₹ 30, then find the S.P.
Solution:
Marked Price of the Product = ₹ 325
Discount = ₹ 30
Selling Price = M.P – Discount = 325 – 30 = ₹ 295
S.P. = ₹ 295

Question 11.
A man buys a chair for 1,500. He wants to sell it at a profit of Rs 250 after making a discount of Rs 100. What is the M.P. of the chair?
Solution:
CP = Rs 1,500
Profit = Rs 250
SP = CP + Profit
= Rs 1,500 + Rs 250
= Rs 1,750
Discount = Rs 100
SP = MP – Discount
MP = SP + Discount
= Rs 1,750 + Rs 100
= Rs 1,850

Question 12.
Amutha marked her home product of pickle as ₹ 300 per pack. But she sold it for only ₹ 275 per pack. What was the discount offered by her per pack?
Solution:
M.P of the pickle = ₹ 300
S.P = ₹ 275
S.P = M.P – Discount
⇒ 275 = 300 – Discount
⇒ Discount = 300 – 275 = ₹ 25
Discount per pack = ₹ 25

Question 13.
Valavan bought 24 eggs for Rs 96. Four of them were broken and also he had a loss of Rs 36 on selling them. What is the selling price of one egg?
Solution:
Cost of 24 eggs = Rs 96
Since 4 of the eggs were broken, the number of remaining eggs = 24 – 4 = 20
Since the loss is Rs 36
Selling price of 20 eggs
SP = CP – Loss
= Rs 96 – Rs 36
= Rs 60
∴ Cost of 1 egg = Rs 60 / 20 = Rs 3

Question 14.
Mangai bought a cell phone for ₹ 12,585. It fell down. She spent ₹ 500 on it repair. She sold it for ₹ 7,500. Find her profit or loss.
Solution:
Cost of the cell phone = ₹ 12,585
Spent on repairs = ₹ 500
Cost price = Cost of cell phone + repair charge = 12,585 + 500 = ₹ 13,085
S.P. = 7,500
Here C.P > S.P
∴ It is loss
Loss = C.P – S.P = 13,085 – 7500 = ₹ 5,585
Loss = ₹ 5,585

Objective Type Questions

Question 15.
Discount is subtracted from ……… to get S.P.
(a) M.P
(b) C.P
(c) Loss
(d) Profit
Solution:
(a) M.P

Question 16.
‘Overhead expenses’ is always included in _____.
(a) S.P
(b) C.P.
(c) Profit
(d) Loss
Solution:
(b) C.P.

Question 17.
There is no profit or loss when
(a) C.P = S.P
(b) C.P > S.P
(c) C.P < S.P
(d) M.P = Discount
Solution:
(a) C.P = S.P

Question 18.
Discount = M.P _____
(a) Profit
(b) S.P
(c) Loss
(d) C.P
Solution:
(b) S.P