Prasanna

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1

Question 1.
Using Integration, find the area of the region bounded the line 2y + x = 8, the x-axis and the lines x = 2, x = 4
Solution:
The given lines are 2y + x = 8, x-axis, x = 2, x = 4

Question 2.
Find the area bounded by the lines y – 2x – 4 = 0, y = 1, y = 3 and the y-axis.
Solution:
Given lines are y – 2x – 4 = 0, y = 1, y = 3, y-axis
y – 2x = 4 = 0 ⇒ x = \(\frac{y-4}{2}\)
We observe that the required area lies to the left to the y-axis

Question 3.
Calculate the area bounded by the parabola y² = 4ax and its latus rectum.
Solution:
Given parabola is y² = 4ax
Its focus is (a, 0)
Equation of latus rectum is x = a
The parabola is symmetrical about the x-axis
Required area = 2[Area in the first quadrant between the limits x = 0 and x = a]

Question 4.
Find the area bounded by the line y = x, the x-axis and the ordinates x = 1, x = 2.
Solution:
Given lines are y = x, x-axis, x = 1, x = 2

Question 5.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line y – 1 = x, the x axis and the ordinates x = -2, x = 3
Solution:
Given lines are y – 1 = x, x-axis, x = -2, x = 3

Question 6.
Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant bounded by the region y = 4x², x = 0, y = 0 and y = 4.
Solution:
The given parabola is y = 4x²
\(x^{2}=\frac{y}{4}\)
comparing with the standared form x² = 4ay
\(4 a=\frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow a=\frac{1}{16}\)
The parabola is symmetric about y-axis
We require the area in the first quadrant.

Question 7.
Find the area bounded by the curve y = x² and the line y = 4
Solution:
Given the parabola is y = x² and line y = 4
The parabola is symmetrical about the y-axis.
So required area = 2 [Area in the first quadrant between limits y = 0 and y = 4]

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The Reserve Bank of India commenced its operations from April 1 ………………..
(a) 1936
(b) 1935
(c) 1934
(d)1923
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 2.
What kind of tax is the GST?
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Debenture on the type of goods and services
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Indirect tax

Question 3.
Who wrote “Arthasasthra”?
(a) Kautilya
(b) Chanakya
(c) Thiruvalluvar
(d) Elangovadigal
Answer:
(a) Kautilya

Question 4.
Which is not a division of activities based on the ownership?
(a) Private enterprise
(b) Foreign enterprise
(c) Public enterprise
(d) Joint enterprise
Answer:
(b) Foreign enterprise

Question 5.
The board of directors of a company is elected by ………………
(a) creditors
(b) debtors
(c) debenture holders
(d) share holders
Answer:
(d) share holders

Question 6.
Enterprises operating in several countries but managed from one country is termed as ………………
(a) Government company
(b) Multinational company
(c) Private company
(d) Joint venture
Answer:
(b) Multinational company

Question 7.
The traditional functions of RBI are ………………
(i) Monopoly of note issue
(ii) Monetary authority
(iii) Regulating Banking System
(iv) Banker’s Bank
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 8.
Which of the following is not applicable in insurance contract?
(a) Unilateral contract
(b) Conditional contract
(c) Indemnity contract
(d) Inter-personal contract
Answer:
(c) Indemnity contract

Question 9.
The advantages of sole trading are ………………
(i) easy formation
(ii) limited capital
(iii) flexibility
(iv) hasty decision
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 10.
Air consignment note is prepared in ……………. forms.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 11.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i)  Barter system
(ii) Bank official
(iii) Sole trading
(iv) Joint Hindu family

List – II
(1) Employment
(2) Invention of money
(3) Co-parcener
(4) Non-corporate enterprise
code:
(a) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 3
(b) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(c) (i) 4, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 1
(d) (i) 3, (ii) 2, (iii) 1, (iv) 4
Answer:
(a) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 3

Question 12.
The role of government in logistics management is through ………………..
(a) Legislations
(b) Governance
(c) Transport
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(d) Distribution

Question 13.
Which of the following holder is given voting right?
(a) Debentures
(b) Preference shares
(c) Equity shares
(d) Bonds
Answer:
(c) Equity shares

Question 14.
Who is the last middleman in the channel of distribution?
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Producer
(c) Retailer
(d) Customer
Answer:
(c) Retailer

Question 15.
……………….. warehouses are licensed by the government and are permitted to accept the goods on bond.
(a) Bonded
(b) Cold storage
(c) Public
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Bonded

Question 16.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Life insurance – Nearest cause
(b) Causa proxima – Life assurance
(c) Health insurance – Life Insurance
(d) Motor vehicle insurance – Mediciaim policy
Answer:
(d) Motor vehicle insurance – Mediciaim policy

Question 17.
The features of partnership are ………………
(i) contractual relationship
(ii) limited liability
(iii) mutual agency
(iv) common seal
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 18.
Which is not a Regional Rural Bank ?
(a) Pallavan Grama Bank
(b) Valluvar Grama Bank
(c) Pandian Grama Bank
(d) Indian Bank
Answer:
(d) Indian Bank

Question 19.
From the following which one is non-corporate form of business?
(a) Joint stock company
(b) Sole Trading Business
(d) Government Company
(d) Co-operatives
Answer:
(b) Sole Trading Business

Question 20.
Outsource is carried out for the benefit of ………….
(a) global village
(b) transport
(c) factory
(d) time and money
Answer:
(d) time and money

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any four examples of MNC.
Answer:

1. Coca-cola corporation
2. Unilever Ltd
3. Sony corporation
4. IBM

Question 22.
What is meant by Marine Insurance?
Answer:
Marine insurance is a contract of insurance under which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured against marine losses. The insured pays the premium for the insurer’s guarantee to make good the losses arising from marine perils. Marine perils may be damage of ship, fire, etc.

Question 23.
Give some examples of sole trading business.
Answer:
Saravana Stores, Hotel Saravana Bhavan, grocery stores, petty shops, etc.

Question 24.
It is a document involved in export trade. It is issued by the captain of the ship. What does it mean? Write a short note about this.
Answer:
This document is Mate’s Receipt. It is issued by the captain of the ship acknowledging the receipt of goods on board by him to the port of specified destination. This contains details like quantity of goods shipped and number of packages condition for packing, etc.

Question 25.
What is meant by private company?
Answer:
Private limited company is a type of company which is formed with minimum two shareholders and two directors, the minimum requirement with respect to authorised or paid up capital of Rs. 1,00,000 has been omitted by the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015 w.e.f 29th of May, 2015. Another crucial condition of a private limited company is that it by its articles of association restricts the right to transfer its shares and also prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.

Question 26.
It is a private sector bank. It is also called as non-banking financial companies. What is the name of the bank? Mention any two objectives of the bank.
Answer:
The name of the bank is Small Finance Banks (SFBs). It is a private sector bank. Objectives:

• Mobilising rural savings (accepting deposits).
• Providing credit to farmers and small industries.

Question 27.
Give the meaning of trade.
Answer:
The buying and selling of goods and services consists of trade. Trade is conducted in order to earn profit.

Question 28.
Human activity is divided into:

1. economic activity
2. non-economic activity.

What is meant by non-economic activity? Mention two examples of this.
Answer:
Activities undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs are called non-economic activities.
Examples – cooking food for family, celebrating festivals, etc.

Question 29.
What do you mean by Articles of Association?
Answer:
Articles of Association is a secondary document which contains the purpose, duties and responsibilities of the members. It has to be filed with the registrar of companies at the time of forming the company. It contains the details of the internal management of the company.

Question 30.
Who is a franchisee?
Answer:
The individual who acquires the right to operate the business or use the trademark of the seller is known as the franchisee.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain any three objectives of IMF.
Answer:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organisation, having headquarters in Washington DC.
Objectives:

• Promoting international monetary co-operation.
• Ensuring balanced international trade.
• Ensuring exchange rate stability.

Question 32.
Trade between buyer and seller of different countries is called foreign trade. It is also called international trade. What is the classification of foreign trade?
Answer:
On the basis of sale and purchase of goods and services, international or foreign trade can be divided into three types:
They are –

• Export trade:
  Selling of goods from one country to another country.
• Import trade:
  When a country purchases goods from another country is called import trade.
• Entrepot trade:
  Goods are imported for the purpose of exporting is called entrepot trade.

Question 33.
What are the various kinds of social responsibilities?
Answer:

• Economic responsibility
• Legal responsibility
• Ethical responsibility
• Discretionary responsibility

Question 34.
For commencing a company, two main documents are needed. They are:

1. Memorandum of Association,
2. Articles of Association.

Articles of Association is a document which contains the duties and responsibilities of members. What are the contents of Articles of Association? (Any six points)
Answer:

• Amount of shares, capital, value and type of shares.
• Rights of each class of shareholders regarding voting, dividend, return of capital.
• Rules regarding issue of shares and debentures.
• Procedures as well as regulations in respect of making calls on shares.
• Manner of transfer of shares.
• Declaration of dividends.
• Borrowing powers of the company.
• Rules regarding the appointment, remuneration, removal of directors.
• Procedure for conducting proxy, quorum, meetings, etc.
• Procedures concerning keeping of books and audits.
• Seal of the company.
• Procedures regarding the winding up of the company.

Question 35.
Siva takes a policy for the non-recovery of freight.

1. What kind of policy is this?
2. Also write a brief note about this.

Answer:

1. The policy is freight insurance, coming under marine insurance.
2. A marine policy is taken to safeguard against non-recovery of freight; it is called as freight insurance. It is useful to the shipping company to collect the freight.

Question 36.
Write any three characteristics of sole trader.
Answer:

• Ownership by one man:
  This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
• Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
  Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
• Unlimited Liability:
  When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 37.
Write down the functions of IMF.
Answer:
IMF is an international organisation having head quarters at Washington DC.
Functions of IMF:

• It acts as a short term credit institution at the international level. .
• It provides machinery for ordinary adjustments of exchange rates.
• It promotes economic stability and global growth by encouraging countries.

Question 38.
Why is balance of payments prepared?
Answer:
Balance of payments help in framing monetary, fiscal and trade policies of country. Government keenly observes balance of payment position of its important trade partners in making policy decisions. It reveals whether a country produces enough economic output to pay for its growth.

Question 39.
What is the necessity of entrepot trade?
Answer:
Meaning of Entrepot Trade:
If a country imports goods for the purpose of exporting the same goods to other country, it is known as entrepot trade. Necessity for Entrepot Trade – A country can re-export the goods for the following reasons:

• The country may not have any accessible trade routes connecting the importing country.
• The goods imported may require further processing before exporting. For this, some facilities may not be available in exporting or importing country.
• There may not have any bilateral trade agreement between both the countries.
• Importer and exporter may not share good economic relation with each other.

Question 40.
What is pledge?
Answer:
A customer transfers the possession of an article with the creditor (banker) and receives loan. Till the repayment of loan, the article is under the custody of the borrower. If the debtor fails to refund the loan, creditor (banker) will auction the article pawned and adjust the outstanding loan from the sale proceeds.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
What is IRDAI? Explain the objectives of IRDAI.
Answer:
Insurance Regulatory Development and Authority of India is the statutory and apex body that governs, regulates and supervises the insurance in India. It was constituted in the year 2000 by Parliament of India Act called IRDAI Act, 1999.
Objectives of IRDAI:

• To promote the interest and rights of policy holders.
• To promote and ensure the growth of Insurance industry.
• To ensure speedy settlement of genuine claims and to prevent frauds and malpractices.
• To bring transparency and orderly conduct in financial markets, dealing with insurance.

[OR]

Question 41(b).
Explain the features of factoring.
Answer:

1. Maintenance of book-debts:
   A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of debtors of a business institution.
2. Credit coverage:
   The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
3. Cash advances:
   Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
4. Collection service:
   Issuing reminders, receiving part payments, collection of cheques from part of the factoring service.
5. Advice to clients:
   From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advises Jregarding the credit worthiness of customers, perception of customers about the products of the client, etc.

Question 42 (a).
What are the hindrances of business? Explain any five hindrances.
Answer:
There are so many hindrances of business. They are as follows:
(1) Hindrance of Person:
The manufacturers and consumers do not know each other. It is called as hindrance of a person. It is removed by the trade or trader. The trader is connecting the producer and the consumer.

(2) Hindrance of Place:
The manufacturing place is different from the place of consumption. This difficulty is known as hindrance of place. It is removed by the transport.

(3) Hindrance of Time:
Goods are produced in one season but may be demanded throughout the year. Some goods are produced throughout the year, but may be used in certain season. It is known as hindrance of time. It is removed by the warehouse.

(4) Hindrance of risk:
Fire, theft, floods, etc., may bring huge loss to the business. It is known as hindrance of risk. It is overcome by the insurance companies.

(5) Hindrance of knowledge:
The difficulty of not knowing the place and availability of goods is known as hindrance of knowledge. It is removed by advertising and communication.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Every business enterprise has certain objectives which regulate and generate its activities. The objectives may be classified into five types. Explain the objectives of business.
Answer:
(1) Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes creation of customers, regular innovations and best possible use of available resources.

(2) Social Objectives:
Social objective are those objectives of business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of the society. Since business operates in a society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare

(3) Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, supply of quality goods to consumers, customers’ satisfaction, etc.

(4) Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well-being as well as fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped and deprived of proper education and training. The human objectives of business may thus include economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees and development of human resources.

(5) National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 43 (a).
The trade takes place between the traders of one country is known as Internal trade. Whereas the trade takes place between two countries is called as International trade. Distinguish between internal trade and international trade.
Answer:

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Describe the functions of IMF.
Answer:

• It acts as short term.credit institution at the international level.
• It provides machinery for ordinary adjustments of exchange rates.
• It has a reservoir of currencies of the member countries from which a borrower can borrow currencies of other nations.
• It promotes economic stability and global growth by encouraging countries adopt sound economic and financial policies.
• It offers technical assistance and training to help member countries strengthen and implement effective policies. Technical assistance is offered in formulating banking, fiscal, monetary and exchange policies.
• It helps member countries correct their imbalance in balance of payment.

Question 44 (a).
Describe the role of Chamber of Commerce in promotion of internal trade.
Answer:

1. Transportation or inter-state movement of goods:
   The Chambers facilitate registration of vehicles, surface transport policies, construction of highways and roads in promoting interstate movement of goods.
2. Harmonisation CGST and SGST structure.
3. Marketing of agro products and related issues:
   The associations of agriculturists and other federations interact with farming co-operatives to streamline local subsidies and formulate marketing policies for selling agro products.
4. Weights and measures and prevention of duplication of brands:
   They help the Government in formulation and implementation of uniform policies in weights and measures and prevention of duplication of brands.
5. Promoting sound infrastructure:
   They interact with Government to construct roads, ports, electricity, railways, etc.
6. Labour legislation:
   They interact with the Government on regular basis and the issues related to labour laws, retrenchments, compensation, etc., so that the industry can run efficiently, generate employment and achieve maximum productivity.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
What are the differences between bill of lading and Charter party?
Answer:

Question 45 (a).
Goods were exchanged for goods prior to invention of money. It is known as barter system. There are certain constraints for the barter system. What are the constraints of the barter system?
Answer:
The constraints of barter system are:
(1) Lack of Double Coincidence of Wants:
Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, barter cannot take place.

(2) Non-existence of Common Measure of Value:
Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.

(3) Lack of Direct Contact between Producer and Consumers:
It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.

(4) Lack of surplus stock:
Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
Distinguish between economic and non-economic activity.
Answer:

Question 46 (a).
What are the five features of income tax?
Answer:
Features of Income Tax in India:
(1) Levied as Per the Constitution:
Income tax is levied in India by virtue of entry No. 82 of list I (Union List) of Seventh Schedule to the Article 246 of the Constitution of India.

(2) Levied by Central Government:
Income tax is charged by the Central Government on all incomes other than agricultural income. However, the power to charge income tax on agricultural income has been vested wife the State Government as per entry 46 of list II, i.e., State List.

(3) Direct Tax:
Income tax is direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on sane person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket am cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

(4) Annual Tax:
Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year which is chargeable to tax.

(5) Taxon Person:
It is a tax on income earned by a person. The term ‘person’ has been defined under the income tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of person or body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons. The persons who are covered under Income tax Act are called ‘assessees’

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
Describe the features of factoring.
Answer:

• Maintenance of book-debts:
  A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of cebtors of a business institution.
• Credit coverage:
  The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
• Cash advances:
  Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
• Collection service:
  Issuing reminders, receiving part payments, collection of cheques from part of the factoring service.
• Advice to clients:
  From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advices regarding the credit worthiness of customers, perception of customers about tie products of the client, etc.

Question 47 (a).
Compare CGST and SGST
Answer:

Question 47 (b).
Point out the objectives of WTO.
Answer:

• Improving the standard of living of people in member countries.
• Making optimum utilization of world’s resources for sustainable development of member countries.
• Promoting an integrated more viable and durable trading system in the sphere of international business.
• Expansion of trade in goods and services.
• Ensuring full employment and large steady growth volume of real income and effective demand. .
• Protecting the environment.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1 .
……………. refers to occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries.
(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) Industry
Answer:
(a) Employment

Question 2.
The following are the disadvantages of a sole trader.
(i) Limited capital
(ii) Unlimited liability
(iii) Easy formation
(iv) Small capital
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of RBI?
(a) Banker to the Government
(b) Acceptance of deposits
(c) Banker’s Bank
(d) Monopoly of Note issue
Answer:
(b) Acceptance of deposits

Question 4.
Which one of the following is a type of Marine insurance?
(a) Money back
(b) Mediclaim
(c) Health Insurance
(d) Cargo Insurance
Answer:
(d) Cargo Insurance

Question 5.
Registration of partnership is ……………
(a) Compulsory
(b) Optional
(c) Not necessary
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Optional

Question 6.
The relationship between the outsiders and the company is defined in …………….
(a) Prospectus
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Memorundum of Association
(d) Certificate of incorporate
Answer:
(a) Prospectus

Question 7.
In 1969 ……………. Banks were nationalised in India.
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 6
(d) 26
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 8.
MSMEs are important for the nations economy because they significantaly contributed to
(a) industrial production
(b) exports
(c) employment
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 9.
Co-operative fails because of …………….
(a) Unlimited membership
(b) Cash trading
(c) Mismanagement
(d) Loss making
Answer:
(c) Mismanagement

Question 10.
Which is not recent trend in transportation?
(a) Mono rail
(b) Pipeline transport
(c) Bullock cart
(d) Conveyor transport
Answer:
(c) Bullock cart

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a type of Marine insurance?
(a) Money back
(b) Mediclaim
(c) Hull insurance
(d) Cargo insurance
Answer:
(c) Hull insurance

Question 12.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i) Limited liability
(ii) Unlimited liability
(iii) Voluntary organization
(iv) Special Statute

List – II
(1) Public corporation
(2) Co-operatives
(3) Joint stock company
(4) Partnership

Codes:
(a) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 2
(c) (i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 2, (iv) 1
(d) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 3
Answer:
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 2

Question 13.
Aids to trade is also called as …………….
(a) Trade
(b) Advertisement
(c) Warehousing
(d) Auxiliaries to trade
Answer:
(d) Auxiliaries to trade

Question 14.
Dispersion of decision making power to branches / subsidiaries to head office represents …………….
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Power
(d) Integration
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation

Question 15.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Development Banks – Pallavan Grama Bank
(b) Specialised Banks – Private Sector Bank
(c) Regional Rural Banks – EXIM Bank
(d) Indian Bank – Industrial Bank
Answer:
(d) Indian Bank – Industrial Bank

Question 16.
The main benefit of outsourcing is …………….
(a) Productivity
(b) Cost reduction
(c) Skill
(d) Units
Answer:
(b) Cost reduction

Question 17.
Debenture holders are entitled to a fixed rate of …………….
(a) dividend
(b) profits
(c) interest
(d) ratio
Answer:
(c) interest

Question 18.
An ………………. is a document prepared by the importer and sent to the exporter to buy the goods.
(a) invoice
(b) indent
(c) enquiry
(d) charter party
Answer:
(b) indent

Question 19.
………………. acts as connective link between the producer and the consumer.
(a) Trade
(b) Industry
(c) Commerce
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 20.
……………….. is the basic principle behind every insurance contract.
(a) Service
(b) Co-operation
(c) Fixed deposit
(d) Social service
Answer:
(b) Co-operation

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by business?
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

Question 22.
When two or more families agree to live and work together to earn profit – Identify the form of business organization. Also give any two features of it.
Answer:
The form of business organization is Joint Hindu Family Business. They are doing business with family property.
Features:

• Governed by Hindu Law
• Membership by birth

Question 23.
What is meant by barter system?
Answer:
In barter system, goods were exchanged for goods prior to invention of money.

Question 24.
Some enterprises operate in more than one country. But it is incorporated in one country. What does the organisation mean? What are the other names of the organisation?
Answer:
The name of the organisation is Multinational Corporation. The other names of MNC is known by:
(a) Global enterprise
(b) International enterprise
(c) World enterprise
(d) Transnational corporation

Question 25.
Are low taxes possible in Co-operative society?
Answer:
Yes, Low taxes are possible in co-operative society because it is a non-profit enterprise, and government provides various exemptions and tax concessions.

Question 26.
What are the services included in the service business?
Answer:
Educational, Medical, Hospitality and banking are the services included in service businesses. Bank service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country.

Question 27.
Who is called a partner?
Answer:
The persons who enter into partnership are individually called ‘Partners’.

Question 28.
Who are Rochdale pioneers?
Answer:
At first, the co-operative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year 1844. He formed a consumer’s co-operative society in England with 28. workers as members, called “Rochdale Society of Equitable Pioneers”.

Question 29.
Give a short note on FCI.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India (FCI) provides storage facilities for food grains. It also hires storage capacity from other sources such as Central Warehousing Corporation, State Warehousing Corporation and Private parties. It was set up under the Food Corporation Act 1964.

Question 30.
Write a short note on debentures.
Answer:
Debentures are an important instrument for raising long term debt capital. A company can raise funds through issue of debentures which bear a fixed rate of interest.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What is charter party?
Answer:
When goods are to be consigned in large quantity, it is advantageous to hire the whole or substantial part of the ship. The document through which this contract is made is known as ‘Charter Party’ may also be known as ‘Voyage Charter’ or ‘Time Charter’. The person who hires the ship is known as ‘Charter’. The charter becomes responsible to the third parties for the acts of the master and crew of the ship.

Question 32.
What is meant by ‘Mail order retailing’?
Answer:
Mail order business is the retail trade that sells the goods through mail. There is no direct contact between the buyer and seller in this type of trading.
Procedure:

1. Advertisements provide information about the products to consumers.
2. Order receiving and processing: On receiving orders, the goods are sent to the customers through the post office by Value Payable Post (VPP).
3. Receiving Payments: At the time of receiving goods, the customers have to make full payment of goods.

Question 33.
Mention the functions of ‘SAARC’
Answer:

1. Monitoring and co-ordinating the development programme.
2. Determining inter-sectoral priorities.
3. Mobilizing cooperation within and outside the region.
4. Dealing with modalities of financing!

Question 34.
Write any three characteristics of sole proprietorship.
Answer:

• Ownership by one man:
  This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
• Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
  Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
• Unlimited Liability:
  When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 35.
Distinguish between extractive and genetic industries.
Answer:

1. Extractive Industries:
   These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
   Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of geographical or natural environment.
2. Genetic Industries:
   These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
   The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries and apiary, etc.

Question 36.
What is meant by ATM?
Answer:
ATM means Automated Teller Machine. A customer can withdraw money any time, anywhere in India from the ATM machine using the ATM card given by his / her bank. The machine also shows the balance available in the customers’ account, provides statement print of the few past transactions, etc.

Question 37.
List the kinds of social responsibility.
Answer:

• Economic responsibility
• Legal responsibility
• Ethical responsibility
• Discretionary responsibility

Question 38.
List the steps in factoring process.
Answer:

1. The firm enters into a factoring arrangement with a factor, which is generally a financial institution, for invoice purchasing.
2. Whenever goods are sold on credit basis, an invoice is raised and a copy of the same is sent to the factor.
3. The debt amount due to the firm is transferred to the factor through assignment and the same is intimated to the customer.

Question 39.
Write a note on agricultural income.
Answer:
Agricultural income is any rent or revenue derived from land which is situated in India and is used for agriculture purposes. It is fully exempted from tax u /s 10(1) and as such does not form part of total income.

Question 40.
There are two schools of Hindu law in Joint Hindu family business organisation. What are the two schools of Hindu law? Explain.
Answer:
In Joint Hindu Family business, there are two schools of Hindu Law: one is Dayabhaga which is prevalent in Bengal and Assam, and the other is Mitakshara prevalent in the rest of the country. In Mitakshara Law, there is a son’s right by birth in the property of joint family.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Business consists of many hindrances, while facilitating the production and distribution of goods.
(i) List out any five hindrances.
(ii) Explain any three.
(iii) How they are overcome?
Answer:
(i) For production of goods and services, there are so many hindrances. They are:

• Hindrance of person
• Hindrance of place _
• Hindrance of Time
• Hindrance of knowledge .
• Hindrance of Finance

(ii) 1. Hindrance of Person:
The problem of not knowing the place of consumers is called as hindrance of person. Because the manufacturer does not know the consumer, and the consumer does not know the producer. This difficulty is called Hindrance of person.

2. Hindrance of place:
The difficulty of connecting the place of production with the place of consumption is known as hindrance of place. The goods may be produced in one place but it may be used throughout the world, in many places. This problem is known as place hindrance.

3. Hindrance of Time:
Goods may be produced in certain period only. But it may be demanded throughout the year. Some goods may be produced throughout the year, but may be used in certain time only. This difficulty is known as hindrance of time.

(iii) Hindrance of person may be eliminated by the trader; the trader links the producer and consumer.
Hindrance of place can be overcome by the transport. The transport is connecting the place of production and place of consumption. Hindrance of time can be removed by warehouses. Goods can be stored in the warehouses till the time of demand.

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
Explain briefly about Business Process Outsourcing under the following headings:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Core activities
(iii) Any three benefits

(i) Meaning of outsourcing:
Business process outsourcing is a recent type of business in service sector. BPO (Business process sector) refers to outsourcing the work which is routine in nature to an outside agency. This practice was in USA in few companies.

(ii) Core Activities:
Companies can benefit in the long run provided they are keen on their core activities. A core activity involves experience, expertise, efficiency and even investment in the field of specialisation.

(iii) Benefits:

1. Focusing on the core activities:
   Companies can focus on their core competence, a few areas where the company has distinct capability.
2. To fill up economic development:
   Outsourcing stimulates entrepreneurship, encouraging employment opportunities, which increases economic development.
3. Reduction in investment:
   Companies through outsourcing avails the services of outsiders which in turn reduces the investment requirements.

Question 42 (a).
TO manage the government, revenue is needed. For the revenue, the government is collecting income from various methods. That revenue is used to meet the expenses of the government.
(i) How the government is collecting revenue from the public?
(ii) Also explain the methods of collecting tax.
Answer:
(i) The government is levying Tax for getting revenue. Tax is a compulsory payment by the public. It is the basic source of revenue to the government.

(ii) Tax is divided into two types:

1. Direct Tax:
   If a tax is levied on the income or wealth of a person and paid by that person directly to the government, it is called direct tax. Example: Income Tax, Wealth Tax and Capital Gains Tax.
2. Indirect Tax:
   If a tax is levied on the goods or services of a person (seller); it is collected from the buyers and is paid by seller to the Government, it is called indirect tax. Example:

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Explain the functions of wholesalers, (any 5)
Answer:
Meaning of wholesalers:
The traders who are engaged in wholesale trade are called wholesalers. A wholesaler buys goods in bulk directly from manufacturers and sells them in small lots to customers.
Functions of Wholesalers – The following are the functions of wholesalers:

(1) Collection of Goods:
Wholesaler collects the goods from the manufacturers or producers in bulk.

(2) Storage of Goods:
Wholesaler collects and stores them safely in warehouses, till they are sold out.

1. Distribution:
   Wholesaler sells goods to different retailers. Thus he performs the function of distribution.
2. Financing:
   Wholesalers provide financial support to producers and manufacturers by providing money in advance to them. He also sells goods to retailer on credit.
3. Risk Taking:
   Wholesaler buys finished goods from the producer and stores them in the warehouses till they are sold out. The wholesalers bear the risk arising from price, and damage of goods.
4. Grading and Packing:
   Wholesaler classifies the goods into different categories. He grades the goods on the basis of quality, size and weight, etc.
5. Providing Information:
   Wholesalers provide valuable information to retailers and producers.

Question 43(a).
Explain the types of Mercantile agents.
Answer:
Mercantile Agents are also called functional middlemen. A businessman appoints a person to buy and sell goods on his behalf. There are many types of Mercantile Agents:
(1) Brokers:
A broker is one who bargains for another and receives commission for his service. He brings the buyer and the seller to negotiate the contract.

(2) Factors:
A factor is a mercantile agent to whom goods are entrusted for sale by a principal. He takes physical possession of the goods, but does not obtain ownership of the goods.

(3) Commission Agent or Consignees:
A commission agent buys and sells goods on behalf of the principal for a fixed rate of commission. All risks connected with his transactions are borne by the principal.

(4) Del-credere Agents:
The agent who guarantees to the principal the collection of cash from credit sales is called ‘del-credere agent’. He is paid an additional commission known as del-credere commission for bearing the risk.

(5) Auctioneers:
They are agents who sell goods by auction on behalf of their principals. They are selling by giving notification to the public. The notice gives details about the date, time, place and details of goods for sales.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

• To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax and One
  Market)
• To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
• To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected oh the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
• To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
• To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
• To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms.

Question 44 (a).
Explain any five principles of Co-operative society.
Answer:
(1) Voluntary and Open Membership:
Co-operatives are voluntary organisations, open to all people able to use its services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political or religious discrimination.

(2) Democratic Member Control:
Co-operatives are democratic organisations controlled by their members – those who buy the goods or use the services of the co-operative-who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

(3) Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to, and democratically control, the capital of the co-operative. This benefits members in proportion to the business they conduct with the co-operative rather than on the capital invested.

(4) Autonomy and Independence:
Co-operatives are autonomous, self-help organisations controlled by their members. If the co-operative enters into agreements with other organisations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the co-operative’s autonomy.

(5) Education, Training, and Information:
Co-operatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their co-operative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of co-operatives.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
Explain the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
• Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
• It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to a wholesaler or retailer.
• It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
• It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living.

Question 45 (a).
Distinguish between economic activity and non-economic activity.
Answer:

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
State the constraints of barter system.
Answer:
The constraints of barter system are:
(1) Lack of Double Coincidence of Wants:
Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, barter cannot take place.

(2) Non-existence of Common Measure of Value:
Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.

(3) Lack of Direct Contact between Producer and Consumers:
It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.

(4) Lack of surplus stock:
Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the classification of companies on the basis of nationality.
Answer:
1. Domestic Companies:
A company which cannot be termed as foreign company under the provision of the Companies Act should be regarded as a domestic company.

2. Foreign Companies:
A foreign company means a company which is incorporated in a country outside India under the law of that country. The following documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies-

• A certified copy of the charter or statutes under which the company is incorporated.
• The full address of the registered office of the company.
• A list of directors and secretary of the company.
• The name and address of any Indian resident who is authorised to accept legal documents on behalf of the company.
• The full address of the company’s principal place of business in India.

3. Multi National Companies:
A Multi National Company (MNC) is a huge industrial organisation which-

• Operates in more than one country.
• Carries out production, marketing and research activities.
• Seeks to maximise profits world over. A domestic company or a foreign company can be a MNC.

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
Every nation has one central bank. It controls the entire banking system of the country.

1. What is the name of our central bank?
2. Explain the organisational structure of our central bank.

Answer:

1. In India the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank
2. The head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai. This central office has 33 departments in 2017. It has four zonal offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta and Chennai functioning under local boards with deputy governors as their heads. It also has 19 regional offices and 11 sub-offices (2017).

The RBI is governed by a central board of directors. The 21 member board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of:

• One Governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years
• Ten Directors from various fields
• Two Government officials
• Four Directors – one each from local boards

Question 47 (a).
What are the advantages of warehousing?
Answer:

1. It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
2. Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
3. It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to a wholesaler or retailer.
4. It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
5. It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living. .

[OR]

Question 47 (b).
Short term and medium term loans are provided by commercial banks. It is repayable in one lump sum or in installments. Loans may be of various types. Explain the various kinds of loan granted by the commercial banks.
Answer:
Banks can provide various kinds of loan to the customers. They are as follows:

1.  Housing Loan:
   Accepting the title deeds of the house as security, banks provide medium and long term loans, based on the monthly income of the customer. It is a boon to the middle class salaried employees who cannot afford to pay the full price of a house in a lump sum.
2. Consumer Loans:
   Loan is granted to the customer to purchase durables like refrigerator, air-conditioner, laptop, washing machine, television, etc.
3. Vehicle Loans:
   Two wheelers, cars, buses and other vehicles can be purchased by individuals as well as organisations obtaining vehicle loans from the banks.
4. Educational Loan:
   Loan is provided by banks to students for studying undergraduate, post graduate or professional courses. Loan may be received in instalments to pay the educational fees.
5. Jewel Loan:
   Customers can pledge their gold jewels and obtain loans from banks. Interest should be paid every month.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th English Previous Year Question Paper June 2019

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The role of the University today is not Cloistered.
(a) flexible
(b) restricted
(c) determined
(d) challenging
Answer:
(b) restricted

Question 2.
She thumped the sagging skin of the dilapidated drum.
(a) preserved
(b) repaired
(c) damaged
(d) costly
Answer:
(c) damaged

Question 3.
I am always reluctant to trust a departing visitor to post an important letter.
(a) insensitive
(b) interested
(c) unwilling
(d) forgetful
Answer:
(c) unwilling

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
He has a memory like a sieve or is an audacious perverter of the truth.
(a) clever
(b) timid
(c) rigid
(d) strong
Answer:
(b) timid

Question 5.
It is because of their antipathy to pills and potions………..
(a) faith
(b) loyalty
(c) interest
(d) liking
Answer:
(d) liking

Question 6.
The other teams ………. weight in, which is compulsory for all players.
(a) optional
(b) natural
(c) critical
(d) occasional
Answer:
(a) optional

Question 7.
Choose the correct prefix for the word “Comfort”.
(a) dis
(b) de
(c) un
(d) under
Answer:
(a) dis

Question 8.
My grandfather is very sick, but the doctor has said that he will “recover”.
(a) pull up
(b) pull on
(c) pull out
(d) pull through
Answer:
(d) pull through

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom in the sentence.
It is raining on and off for the past two days.
(a) normally
(b) violently
(c) continuously
(d) intermittently
Answer:
(d) intermittently

Question 10.
Choose the clipped form of the word “helicopter”.
(a) heli
(b) helicop
(c) copter
(d) helter
Answer:
(c) copter

Question 11.
Choose the right definition for the given term “Dermatologist”.
(a) One who treats stomach disorders
(b) One who treats heart complications
(c) One who specializes in lung diseases
(d) One who specializes in skin problems
Answer:
(d) One who specializes in skin problems

Question 12.
Choose the expanded form of “MHRD”.
(a) Member of Human Resource Department
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(c) Modem Housing Rural Development
(d) Metro Highways and Railways Department
Answer:
(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

Question 13.
“Ability” is a ……….. word.
(a) trisyllabic
(b) tetrasyllable
(c) disyllabic
(d) pentasyllabic
Answer:
(b) tetrasyllable

Question 14.
The protestors were arrest enmasse yesterday.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word underlined in the above sentence.
(a) mercilessly
(b) before sunset
(c) all together
(d) as usual
Answer:
(c) all together

Question 15.
I cannot put up with this nonsense anymore. (Replace the phrasal verb with a single word)
(a) tolerate
(b) handle
(c) witness
(d) rectify
Answer:
(a) tolerate

Question 16.
Choose the word that cannot be used after “Key” to form a compound word.
(a) note
(b) lock
(c) board
(d) hole
Answer:
(b) lock

Question 17.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
We met a great writer in the library.
(a) SVOA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVC A
Answer:
(a) SVOA

Question 18.
Choose the unclipped form of “memo”.
(a) memorabilia
(b) memorizer
(c) memorandum
(d) memento
Answer:
(c) memorandum

Question 19.
Choose the suitable preposition and fill in the blank.
A cool and moist breeze drifted ………. the open windows.
(a) from
(b) within
(c) against
(d) through
Answer:
(d) through

Question 20.
Add a suitable question tag to the statement given below.
You can never misuse your power and authority,……….?
(a) can’t you
(b) would you
(c) wouldn’t you
(d) can you
Answer:
(d) can you

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Most of all, I want to relearn
How to laugh,……..”
(а) What does the poet want to relearn?
(b) Whom does he want to relearn from?
Answer:
(a) The poet wants to relearn to laugh with his eyes.
(b) The poet wants to relearn to laugh from his little son.

Question 22.
“Let’s talk of graves, of worms, and epitaphs,
Make dust our paper………”,
(а) Define the term ‘epitaphs’.
(b) Mention the figure of speech used here.
Answer:
(a) Epitaphs are ‘a phrase written as an inscription on a tombstone in memory of a person who has died.
(b) Metaphor

Question 23.
“He, who does not stoop, is a king we adore.
We bow before competence and merit;”
(а) Pick out the words in alliteration in the second line.
(b) Who is adored as a king?
Answer:
(a) ‘bow and before’ are the words that alliterate.
(b) An upright or straight forward person is adored as a king.

Question 24.
“Athletes, I’ll drink to you,
Or eat with you,
Or anything except compete with you.”
(a) What does the term ‘drink to you’ mean?
(b) Does the poet want to compete with the athletes?
Answer:
(a) The term ‘drink to you’ means to wish for someone’s success.
(b) The poet is ready to drink or eat with the athletes but never wants to compete with them.

Question 25.
“And‘ this my faith that every flower
Enjoys the air it breathes…….”
(a) What is the poet’s faith?
(b) Identify the figure of speech used here.
Answer:
(a) The poet has faith that nature lives, breathes and enjoys its own presence. Twigs, birds, creepers all live in harmony with each other in absolute bliss and contentment.
(b) Personification.

Question 26.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape,
a monster of depravity.”
(а) How is Macavity described in this line?
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(а) Macavity is described as a “demon in the shape of a cat”.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked, all the time involved in doing something evil.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Answer:
Leena : “Mom, I burnt my finger.”
Mother : “I have warned you not to play with fire.”
Leena exclaimed with sorrow to her mother that she had burnt her finger. Mother said that she had warned her not to play with fire.

Question 28.
Change the Voice of the following sentences.
My friend was arrested by the police on a charge of theft.
He was released soon for lack of evidence.
Answer:
The police arrested my friend on a charge of theft.
They/The police released him soon for lack of evidence.

Question 29.
Convert the following simple sentence into a compound sentence.
On hearing their teacher’s footsteps, the boys ran away.
Answer:
They heard their teacher’s footsteps and the boys ran away.

Question 30.
If Reema had informed me earlier, I would have returned home. (Begin the sentence with ‘Had’)
Answer:
Had Reema informed me earlier, I would have returned home.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 x 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“Every hillock has a summit to boast!”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while exploding the myth about achievements or world records. He says climbing Everest alone is not a feat. Every hillock has a peak. He means that every effort, however small it may be, must be respected and appreciated. Each one sets a challenge as per his limited capacity and strives to achieve it in life.

Question 32.
“I have also learned to say “Goodbye”
When I mean “Good-riddance”:”
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these while sharing his exasperation over his own deceitful behaviour with fellow humans.

Explanation: Gabriel Okara regrets that the days when people were innocent and expressed their true emotions in their greetings and day to day interactions have changed a lot. The traditional saying “Goodbye” means ‘God be with you’. But, in modem times, in the postcolonial context it means “good riddance”. The poet finds himself behaving the same way others behave. He is also wearing faces like dresses. He has lost his true cultural identity.

Question 33.
“His powers of levitation would make a fakir stare”
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot. Context: T.S. Eliot says, these words describing the skills of Macavity – The mystery cat. Explanation: Macavity does all kinds of mischiefs, petty thefts. He breaks things also. But before anyone could link the crime to Macavity he makes good his escape, floating in the air, jumping from building to building. His powers of levitatioh baffles even a fakir who has mystical powers.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What made the dogs follow the grandmother after school hours?
Answer:
Grandmother brought a bundle of stale chapattis with her to the temple. The village dogs followed her. On return, she went on throwing the chapattis to the dogs who growled and fought with each other to have a piece of chapatti.

Question 35.
How did Mary Kom manage to get financial support for her trip to the USA?
Answer:
Mary Korn’s dad gave her Rs. 2,000/-. She spoke to her friend Onler about her problem. He took some elders and friends to meet the two Members of Parliament and seek their support. Two MPs donated Rs. 5,000/- and 3,000/- respectively. Thus Mary Kom managed to raise a . princely sum of Rs. 10,000/-for her trip to USA.

Question 36.
What happened to Bryson when he leaned to tie his shoelace?
Answer:
When Bryson leaned to tie a shoe lace inside the air-craft, someone in the seat ahead of him threw his seat back into full recline. The author found himself pinned helplessly in a crash position.

(iii) Answer any three of the following questions briefly: [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
You are Joseph, the sports secretary of XYZ School. Draft a mail to the Director of Rajarathinam Stadium at Egmore, seeking permission to conduct your School Annual Sports Day celebration in the Stadium.
Answer:
From
Joseph
XYZ School
A.K. Puram
Chennai
25th July, 2021

To
The Director
Rajarathinam Stadium
Egmore
Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Reg. Permission to conduct School Annual Sports Day celebration in the Stadium

I am Joseph, the sports secretary of XYZ School, A.K. Puram. We are celebrating the Annual Sports Day on 14th August 2021. As we have invited a special dignitary as the chief guest we would like to conduct this Sports Day celebration in Rajarathinam Stadium at Egmore. Therefore I kindly request you to grant your consent.

Thank you
Yours sincerely
Joseph
Sports Secretary
Address on the envelope
To
The Director
Rajarathinam Stadium
Egmore
Chennai.

Question 38.
Describe the process of cleaning an overhead water tank.
Answer:

• First empty the tank by draining the water.
• Then clean the floors and the walls of the tank by manual scrubbing.
• After scrubbing, a vacuum cleaner can be used to remove the remaining dirt.
• After the scrubbing, the floors and ceiling of the tank is washed using water and high pressure jet.
• To ensure that the tank is germ free, it is necessary to disinfect the tank. Usually liquid bleach is used.
• After this, the tank is again filled with water, and is made to run through the taps to disinfect the water pipes.
• The water from the tank is now drained and can be left for drying. After the tank is dry, you can refill the tank.

Question 39.
Expand the news headlines in a sentence each.
Answer:
(a) Tension at Sabarimala – Women pilgrims targetted.
(b) Police nabs gang of 6 robbers in Trichy – Seizes jewellery.
(c) Longest cold spell in Delhi in 14 years – Cold wave to continue.
Answer:
(a) Tensions are high in Kerala as Sabarimala temple gates were opened today to all devotees, including women, for the first time since a Supreme Court order overturned a centuries- old ban on women of menstruating age -between 10 and 50 – from visiting the shrine.

(b) The Trichy police busted a gang of robbers involved in breaking into a jewellery shop on June 27 and have recovered valuables worth Rs. 1.60 lakh. The gang comprising six members was arrested on Thursday night.

(c) According to reports from India Meteorological Department (IMD), Delhi is facing the longest cold spell in a December in as long as fourteen years and apparently, it’s going to remain like this for a while.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) An idle ………. a devil’s workshop, (soul, body, mind)
(b) ………. is in the eye of the beholder. (Magic, Beauty, Problem)
(c) Don’t judge a ……… by its cover, (book, pillow, letter)
Answer:
(a) mind
(b) Beauty
(c) book

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”?
Answer:
After Mary Kom’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004.

She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary. There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Kom’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her, “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.

Question 42.
Explain the things Gabriel Okara has learnt when he grew into an adult.
Answer:
The African poet observes a marked change in the attitude of modem people. Those who were once so genuine, warm and sincere, have now suddenly turned cold and hostile towards him. He realizes that the early values in the society like sincerity, good-naturedness, simplicity, whole-heartedness, hospitality, friendliness, originality and uniqueness have now drastically changed. The earlier warmth and heartfulness have gone.

He finds himself behaving the same way as those around him. He has learnt to wear different faces for different occasions. He wears faces like dresses. He says not what his heart tells him. His smiles are also fake. He smiles only to be socially accepted. He has learnt to say “Good bye”, when he wants to say ‘good riddance’. After being bored, he brings a fake smile and says “It’s been nice talking to you”.

[OR]

The poem ‘Everest is not the only peak’ does not focus on the destination but the journey towards it. Discuss.
Answer:
The poet discusses the merits of efforts, duty and devotion and values of honesty, uprightness and service-mindedness. He does not have any special appreciation to those who reach great peaks like Himalayas. He appreciates the process, the journey and not the destination. When the whole world has a perspective of seeking glory using any foul method Or underhand dealing, the poet differs from it. For him the means is more important than the end.

However modest may be one’s position is, it is adorable if attained by competence and merit. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Thus the poet pays importance to the journey of life not the destination.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints.
Philip – travels – train – Brill Manor – meets Bertie – second son – left purse – four quids – needs money – requests Philip to lend him – two pounds -did not help – true son – mistaken for a fraud.
Answer:
The young man who entered the coach gave out a smothered curse, he was engaged in searching something elusive angrily and uselessly. From time to time, he dug a six penny bit out of a waist coat pocket and stared.at it sadly, then resumed his search. He voluntarily broke the silence. He exclaimed that Mr. Sletherby was going to Bill Manor. He introduced himself as Bertie, the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. He admitted that he was away for about six months and had not seen his own mother.

Making use of the lucky coincidence that he was going to Brill Manor, he asked for a loan of three pounds as he had lost his sovereign purse and was desperately in need of help. He promised to meet him on the subsequent Monday. There is a dramatic irony when the son himself gives a different version of his mom’s appearance. This influences the decision of Mr. Sletherby in refusing to lend Bertie a loan of three pounds and mistaking the true son Bertie to be a fraud.

[OR]

Jack and Jill – things in instalments – house on instalment – Aunt Jane visited – preached – ease and comfort of buying – first baby in instalment.
Answer:
The Never Never Nest is a comic one-act play about a young couple who make full use of the buy-now-pay-later system. Jack and Jill were a young married couple who had a small baby. One day Aunt Jane visited them and was surprised to find that even though Jack’s salary was not high, they lived in a beautiful house with all comforts. She began to wonder whether, as a wedding gift she had given them 2000 pounds instead of 20 pounds. Otherwise how did Jack and Jill buy all these things?

Then Jane understood that though they had everything, nothing really belonged to them. They bought everything on installments. Only a steering wheel of the car, a wheel and two cylinders had been paid for. The total amount to be paid towards instalments was more than their earnings. Aunt Jane was shocked at the way Jack and Jill ran their family. Before she left, she gave ten pounds to Jill and told them to make at least one article completely theirs, using that money. While Jack went with aunt Jane to the bus stop, Jill sent the money to Dr. Martin. Jack came back and said that he wanted to pay two months instalments on the car using the aunt’s gift. But Jill said that by paying this money to Dr. Martin, their baby would become completely theirs.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
Stress is a part of everyday life. There are many instances when stress can be helpful. A fire alarm is intended to cause the stress that alerts you to avoid danger. The stress created by a deadline to finish a paper can motivate you to finish the assignment on time. But when experienced in excess, stress has the opposite effect.

It can harm our emotional and physical health and limit our ability to function at home, in school and within our relationships. The good news is that, since we are responsible for bringing about much of our own stress, we can also do much to manage stress by learning and practicing specific stress reduction strategies.

Practice time management skills to manage your academic schedule, social activities and making time for yourself. Set and implement specific goals for yourself that will improve your mood and help you reduce stress. Avoid procrastination. It can create more mental and physical stress. Exercise regularly, Physical activity can help you bum-off the energy generated by stress. Do meditation, practice good sleep habits to ensure that you are well rested.

Stress and it’s Management:
No. of words given in the original passage: 184
No. of words to be written in the summary: 184/3 = 61 ± 5

Rough Draft:
Stress is a part of everyday life. At times stress can be helpful. It helps you avoid dangers and motivates you to finish an assignment on time. But excessive stress leads to emotional and physical health breakdown. Hence it is good to learn to manage your own stress. Set and implement specific goals. Avoid procrastination. Exercise regularly, do meditation and practice good sleep habits.

Fair Draft
Stress and it’s Management:
Stress is a part of everyday life. At times stress can be helpful. It helps you avoid dangers and motivates you to finish an assignment on time. But excessive stress leads to emotional and physical health breakdown. Hence it is good to learn to manage your own stress. Set and implement specific goals. Avoid procrastination. Exercise regularly, do meditation and practice good sleep habits.

No. of words in the summary: 64

[OR]

Notes:
Answer:
Stress and it’s Management Stress

• part of everyday life
• stress can be helpful
• fire alarm – avoid dangers and
• Motivation to finish an assignment on time.

Excessive stress

• emotional and physical health breakdown.
• distorts our behaviour at home, school

Management of stress

• set and implement specific goals.
• avoid procrastination.
• exercise regularly
• meditation
• good sleep habits

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Inspector of Police reporting a theft in your house.
Answer:
12.10.20
From
D. Siddarth
Royapuram
Chennai

To
Inspector of Police
Chennai
Respected Sir,
Sub: Regarding theft in my house.
I, Siddharth, am a resident of Royapuram, North Chennai. On 11th October 2020 when I returned from work I found the almirah of my house opened and gold worth Rs. 5 lakhs and money worth Rs. 1 lakh stolen. These were kept to present for my sister’s wedding which is going to take place on 22nd October 2020. Therefore, I bring the theft to your notice in order to nab the culprits and kindly request you to help me recover my belongings at the earliest. Thanking you.

Yours sincerely
Siddharth
Address on the Envelope
To
Inspector of Police
Chennai

[OR]

Write a paragraph on ‘the various reasons for road accidents in Indian cities’.
Answer:
The Various Reasons for Road Accidents in Indian Cities:
According to a recent data, around one and a half lakh persons die due to road accidents per year in Indian cities among which most of the deaths are avoidable. The first reason for this is traffic rules violation by riders and drivers. These include; over speeding and red light jumping. Other reasons are bad roads, drunken driving, distractions to drivers such as usage of mobile phones, stereo/radio in vehicles, animals or big banners and billboards, avoiding safety measures like seat belt and helmets, and so on.

Certain people lose control when the other vehicles overtake them from the wrong sides. People are riot willing to learn from their own or others mistakes. It is high time for the government to take necessary steps to reduce the number of accidental deaths by; constructing better designed roads that will cater to the requirements of pedestrians, two-wheelers, and other slow-moving traffic, regulating the safety features of vehicles as well as stricter enforcement of the traffic rules and regulations.

Question 46.
(i) Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentence correctly.
(a) Malini told to her cousin that she would donate some money.
(b) Though I had a good sleep, but I feel very tired.
(c) Every tourist has a amazing story to share.
(d) One of the components are already missing.
(e) Mr. Mohan is going through the most worst phase of his life.
Answer:
(a) Malini told her cousin that she would donate some money.
(b) Though I had a good sleep I feel very tired.
(c) Every tourist has an amazing story to share.
(d) One of the components is already missing.
(e) Mr. Mohan is going through the worst phase of his life.

[OR]

(ii) Fill in the blanks with the correct tense forms of the verbs given in brackets.
(a) Helena ……….. (visit) several doctors before she ……….. (find) out what the problem ………… (be) with her knee.
(b) The fire-service ………… endanger their ………… safety, during their operations, (personal, personnel)
Answer:
(a) visited, found, was
(b) personnel, personal

Question 47.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below:
At the end of his voyage, Sindbad decided to settle down at Baghdad and spend the rest of his life there. But soon he got tired of this kind of life, which was not at all active. He disliked laziness and wished to be doing something always. So he joined with several other friendly merchants and set out to sea a second time.

They set sail in a good ship and soon reached an island and walked for some distance but could see neither men nor animals. While the other merchants, were amusing themselves in various ways, Sindbad sat down under a tree near a small river to take his food. He had a good meal and fell asleep. He did know how long he slept, but when he woke up, the ship was no longer seen.
Questions:
(a) What did Sindbad decide to do at the end of his first voyage?
(A) Why did he embark on a voyage the second time?
(c) Describe the island the merchants reached.
(d) What did the merchants do after landing on the island?
(e) What happened when Sindbad was fast asleep?
Answer:
(a) At the end of his voyage, Sindbad decided to settle down at Baghdad and spend the rest of his life there.
(b) He got tired of that kind of life, which was not at all active. He disliked laziness and wished to be doing something always.
(c) There were neither men nor animals in that island.
(d) The other merchants, were amusing themselves in various ways.
(e) The ship had gone when Sindbad was fast asleep.

[OR]

Frame a dialogue between two friends discussing and analysing a movie they recently watched (minimum five exchanges).
Answer:
Anand : The movie was superb!
Abhay : Yes. I enjoyed the action sequence.
Anand : Oh! Me too. The action choreography was too good and realistic.
Abhay: Even the comedy scenes were amusing.
Anand : Yogi Babu has done a decent job.
Abhay : I like his confidence.
Anand : But the twist in the story should have been more sensible.
Abhay : Yes. There was something missing in the connectivity after the intermission.
Anand : Yes. Overall, it was worth watching.
Abhay : Definitely. It was a good time pass.

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Additional Problems and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Additional Problems

I. One Mark Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The integral of \(\left(\sqrt{x}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)\) equals _____

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{2}{3} x^{\frac{3}{2}}+2 x^{\frac{1}{2}}+c\)

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) \(x^{4}+\frac{1}{x^{3}}-\frac{129}{8}\)
Hint:

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{\sin ^{2} x-\cos ^{2} x}{\sin ^{2} x \cos ^{2} x} d x\) is equal to _____
(a) tan x + cot x + c
(b) tan x + cosec x + c
(c) -tan x + cot x + c
(d) tan x – sec x + c
Answer:
(a) tan x + cot x + c
Hint:

Question 4.

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{12}\)
Hint:

Question 5.
The value of \(\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\left(x^{3}+x \cos x+\tan ^{5} x\right) d x\) is ______
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) π
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 0
Hint:
Let f(x) = x³ + x cos x + tan⁵ x
f(-x)= -x³ – x cos x – tan⁵ x = -f(x)
So f(x) is odd function.
Integral is 0.

Question 6.
Fill in the blanks.
(a) \(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos ^{3} x d x\) is equal to _____
(b) \(\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin ^{31} x d x\) is equal to _________
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) 0
Hint:

Question 7.
Match the following.


Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (v)
(d) – (ii)
(e) – (i)

Question 8.
State True or False.

Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True
(d) False
(e) False
(f) True

Question 9.
Which of the following is not equal to ∫ tan x sec² x dx?
(a) \(\frac{1}{2} \tan ^{2} x\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{2} \sec ^{2} x\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{2 \cos ^{2} x}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these
Hint:

Question 10.
∫e^x (cos x – sin x) dx is equal to ______
(a) e^x sin x + c
(b) e^x cos x + c
(c) -e^x cos x + c
(d) -e^x sin x + c
Answer:
(b) e^x cos x + c
Hint:
Let f(x) = cos x
f'(x) = -sin x
∫e^x [f(x) + f'(x)] dx = e^x f(x) + c

Question 11.
\(\int \frac{1-\cos 2 x}{1+\cos 2 x} d x\) is _____
(a) tan x – x + c
(b) x + tan x + c
(c) x – tan x + c
(d) -x – cot x + c
Answer:
(a) tan x – x + c
Hint:

Question 12.
\(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x e^{\sin x} d x\) is equal to ______
(a) e = 1
(b) 1 – e
(c) \(e^{\frac{\pi}{2}}-1\)
(d) \(1-e^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\)
Answer:
(a) e = 1
Hint:

Question 13.
Which of the following is an even function?
(a) sin x
(b) e^x – e^-x
(c) x cos x
(d) cos x
Answer:
(d) cos x

Question 14.
Which of the following is neither odd nor even function?
(a) x sin x
(b) x²
(c) e^-x
(d) x cos x
Answer:
(c) e^-x

Question 15.
∫sec² (7 – 4x) dx equal to ______
(a) tan (7 – 4x)
(b) -tan (7 – 4x)
(c) –\(\frac{1}{4}\) tan (7 – 4x)
(d) \(\frac{1}{4}\) tan (7 – 4x)
Answer:
(c) – \(\frac{1}{4}\) tan (7 – 4x)

II. 2 Mark Questions.

Question 1.

Solution:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.
\(\int\left(e^{x}+e^{-x}\right)^{2} d x\)
Solution:

Question 4.
Find \(\int x^{5} \sqrt{3+5 x^{6}} d x\)
Solution:

Question 5.
\(\int \frac{(x+1)(x+\log x)^{2}}{x} d x\)
Solution:

Question 6.
\(\int \frac{e^{2 x}-1}{e^{2 x}+1} d x\)
Solution:
Dividing numerator and denominator by ex, we get \(\int \frac{e^{x}-e^{-x}}{e^{x}+e^{-x}} d x\)

Question 7.
\(\int \frac{1}{x+\sqrt{x}} d x\)
Solution:

III. 3 and 5 Mark Questions.

Question 1.
Find \(\int \frac{e^{x}(x+1)}{(x+3)^{3}} d x\)
Solution:

Question 2.
\(\int \frac{1}{2 x^{2}-x-1} d x\)
Solution:

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{1}{1-3 \sin ^{2} x} d x\)
Solution:
Divide the numerator and denominator by cos² x

Question 4.
\(\int \frac{d x}{e^{x}-e^{-x}}\)
Solution:

Question 5.
Evaluate \(\int_{-1}^{2}(7 x-5) d x\) as the limit of a sum.
Solution:

Question 6.
Evaluate \(\int_{1}^{2}\left(x^{2}-1\right) d x\) as the limit of a sum.
Solution:

Question 7.
Evaluate \(\int_{1}^{2} \frac{1}{x\left(x^{4}+1\right)} d x\)
Solution:

Question 8.
Evaluate \(\int_{\frac{\pi}{6}}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \frac{d x}{1+\sqrt{\tan x}}\)
Solution:

Question 9.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{1} x(1-x)^{5} d x\)
Solution:

Question 10.
Evaluate \(\int \frac{2 x+3}{\sqrt{x^{2}+x+1}} d x\)
Solution:

Question 11.
∫(x² + 1) log x dx
Solution:

Question 12.
\(\int \sqrt{x^{2}+4 x-5} d x\)
Solution:

Question 13.
\(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}}\left(2 \sec ^{2} x+x^{3}+2\right) d x\)
Solution:

Question 14.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{2 x}{\left(x^{2}+1\right)\left(x^{2}+2\right)} d x\)
Solution:
Let x² = t, then 2x dx = dt
when x = 0, t = 0 and x = 1, t = 1
so integral becomes, \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{d t}{(t+1)(t+2)}\)
We use partial fractions to proceed further

Question 15.
\(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\sin x-\cos x}{1+\sin x \cos x} d x\)
Solution:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th English Previous Year Question Paper March 2019

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
……….. and I do claim to represent him in all his ruggedness.
(a) toughness
(b) weakness
(c) brightness
(d) seriousness
Answer:
(a) toughness

Question 2.
The greatest disadvantage for me was my loss of appetite.
(a) hope
(b) memory
(c) alertness
(d) hunger
Answer:
(d) hunger

Question 3.
………..that we regard a man who does not possess it as eccentric.
(a) modem
(b) weary
(c) normal
(d) weird
Answer:
(d) weird

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
Her happiest moments were with her sparrows whom she fed with frivolous rebukes,
(a) serious
(b) harmless
(c) funny
(d) decent
Answer:
(a) serious

Question 5.
“Don’t look so doleful, girls.”
(a) peaceful
(b) joyful
(c) doubtful
(d) powerful
Answer:
(b) joyful

Question 6.
There are, it must be admitted, some matters…………
(a) replied
(b) denied
(c) argued
(d) accepted
Answer:
(b) denied

Question 7.
Select the correct expansion of “HDTV”.
(a) High definition Television
(b) Heavy Dielectric Television
(c) Heavy Distributory Television
(d) Highly Decentralized Television
Answer:
(a) High definition Television

Question 8.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word “mantel” to form a compound word,
(a) cover
(b) cloth
(c) picture
(d) piece
Answer:
(d) piece

Question 9.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word ‘regular’.
(a) -ance
(b) -able
(c) -fill
(d) -ity
Answer:
(d) -ity

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
Nalini is a bonafide student of the Madras University.
(a) confident
(b) punctual
(c) brilliant
(d) genuine
Answer:
(d) genuine

Question 11.
Choose the right definition for the given term “Photophobia”.
(a) Fear of rain
(b) Fear of flight
(c) Fear of light
(d) Fear of pictures
Answer:
(c) Fear of light

Question 12.
Add a suitable question tag to the following sentence.
Many women candidates attended the interview, …………?
(a) haven’t they
(b) shouldn’t they
(c) don’t they
(d) didn’t they
Answer:
(d) didn’t they

Question 13.
Replace the underlined word with a phrasal verb.
I couldn’t understand what you meant.
(a) break out
(b) find out
(c) iron out
(d) figure out
Answer:
(d) figure out

Question 14.
Add a suitable prefix to the root word “Polite”.
(a) im-
(b) non-
(c) un-
(d) anti-
Answer:
(a) im-

Question 15.
One who studies the human mind and behaviour is called a ………..
(a) physicist
(b) psychologist
(c) pathologist
(d) physiologist
Answer:
(b) psychologist

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
The angry champion broke the crystal cup ……….. million pieces.
(a) into
(b) with
(c) against
(d) upon
Answer:
(a) into

Question 17.
Choose the clipped form of the word “dormitory”.
(a) dormy
(b) dory
(c) dorm
(d) dormit
Answer:
(c) dorm

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
The gentleman in the black suit is a barber.
(a) hair clipper
(b) hair remover
(c) Mir splitter
(d) hair dresser
Answer:
(d) hair dresser

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Never put off Until tomorrow what you can do today.
(a) continue
(b) finish
(c) halt
(d) postpone
Answer:
(d) postpone

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
The books………….are brought are often not read.
(а) that
(b) what
(c) who
(d) whose
Answer:
(а) that

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 x 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Feel at home,” “come again.
They say………”
(a) Who are ‘they’?
(b) Do ‘they’ really mean it?
Answer:
(a) They are modem people.
(b) No they don’t mean it.

Question 22.
“And reassure myself anew
That you are not me and I’m not you.”
(a) Who does the poet refer to as “you”?
(b) What does the poet reassure?
Answer:
(a) The athletes who play games and sweat for fun and money are referred as ‘you’.
(b) The poet reassures himself that he is not one of the athletes and the athletes are not in his group either. So, he is safe.

Question 23.
“I heard a thousand blended notes While in a grove I sate reclined,”
(a) What is meant by “a thousand blended notes”?
(b) Where is the poet sitting?
Answer:
(a) The thousand blended notes mean the combined music of birds which cohabit in the grove.
(b) The poet is sitting in a grove.

Question 24.
“He sways his head from side to side,
with movements like a snake;”
(a) Who is ‘he’?
(b) Mention the figure of speech used here.
Answer:
(a) He is Macavity.
(b) Simile

Question 25.
“In dignity and pride no one need to be poor.”
(a) What are the two things mentioned here as our strength?
(b) Is the tone of the line positive or negative?
Answer:
(a) Dignity and pride are the two things mentioned as strength here.
(b) The tone of the line is positive.

Question 26.
“For you have but mistook me all this while…..”
(a) How is the speaker mistaken by the people?
(b) Write the words in alliteration.
Answer:
(a) People mistook the speaker to be a person endowed with divine right to rule them. He was after all like them with similar wants, likes, dislikes and grief. He too needs comfort of friends.
(b) Mistook and me alliterate.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Conductor : Where do you want to go?
Passenger : I’m going to Coimbatore. Give me a ticket, please.
Answer:
The conductor asked the passenger where he was going. The passenger replied that he was going to Coimbatore and requested for a ticket.

Question 28.
Tom didn’t know Spanish. He didn’t get the job. (Combine using ‘if’).
Answer:
If Tom had known Spanish, he would have got the job.
(or)
If Tom didn’t know Spanish, he wouldn’t have got the job.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If you were a King, you would know the difficulties.
Answer:
Were you a king you would know the difficulties.

Question 30.
The food was cheap. It was very tasty, (form a simple sentence using in spite of)
Answer:
In spite of the food being cheap it was also very tasty.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“The birds around me hopp’d and play’d;
Their thoughts I cannot measure.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem, “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet was quite impressed with the beauty and peace that prevailed in the woodland. The birds were oblivious to the presence of the poet. They hopped and chirped around him in absolute bliss. The poet said these words while trying to fathom their thoughts.

Explanation: The poet was overwhelmed with delight in the company of birds, plant kingdom and the brook. He tried hard to understand the thoughts of the birds through the bird’s language. But he couldn’t succeed. He simply inferred that they were thrilled and enjoying the jocund company.

Question 32.
“How can you say to me, lam a king?”
Answer:
Reference: This lines is from the poem, “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The ‘ poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: King Richard II says these words to his loyal nobles when he talks about the power of death over monarchs.

Explanation: British subjects usually believe that a king is born with a divine right to rule. People respect his crown as a symbol of great power. After he is deposed from power, Henry II realizes the bitter truth that he is no way different from ordinary subjects. He also has wants, need for friends and the compulsion to taste grief. Nobody can escape death.

Question 33.
“I am just glad as glad can be
That I am not them, that they are not me…”
Answer:
Reference: The poet Ogden Nash says these words in the poem “Confession of a Bom Spectator’.

Context and Explanation: While discussing about the athletes he admires, the poet says these words. Right from his boyhood, he had seen boys aspire for sports championships. He had wondered at their ability to specialize in horse riding, to play hockey or basketball. He had seen young ones trying to play center in the football or be a tackle or offender in a game like kabaddi. But he has been absolutely glad that he is not them and they are not him.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How do the chemists make fortunes out of the medicines people forget to take?
Answer:
Similar to the author, many remember to forget medicine as soon as the appointed time arrives. The forgotten medicines tend to aggravate the illness. As a vicious cycle, again they are forced to buy costlier medicines. Thus people who forget to take medicines contribute to the fortunes of chemists.

Question 35.
Why did Mary Kom think that she should not return empty-handed?
Answer:
Mary Kom’s dad had given all he had for her trip to USA. Besides, her friends had raised funds through MPs. They had pinned their hopes on her. So, she thought she should not return empty handed.

Question 36.
What is the difference between a physical and mental tight corner?
Answer:
Physical tight comers are those situations which threaten the life of an individual. Mental tight comers are worries for which no solution is in sight. It upsets the individuals and confounds them.

(ii) Answer any three of the following questions briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:

Questions:
(A) What is the most sought after entertainment activity in the apartment?
(B) Name the activity preferred by the least number of people.
(C) Which activity is chosen by half the number of people who use mobile phones?
Answer:
(A) Mobile phone is the most sought after entertainment activity in the apartment.
(B) Reading is preferred by the least number of people.
(C) Outdoor games is chosen by half the number of people who use mobile phones.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a fruit vendor and a customer.
Answer:
Fruit Vendor : What fruits do you want to buy sir?
Customer : I would like to buy 1 Kg of Pineapple.
Fruit Vendor : Good choice sir. It is the right season. Anything else?
Customer : Yes. The fruits look so fresh. I would also like to buy some Kiwis and a dozen of bananas.
Fruit Vendor : Sure sir. Here is the bill.
Customer : Oh! It’s Rs. 250? No seasonal discount?
Fruit Vendor : This is the discounted price sir.
Customer : Okay. Thank you.

Question 39.
Describe the process of opening a bank account.
Answer:

• Go to the bank and get an application form from the counter.
• Fill in the details accurately in the mandatory fields.
• Affix your passport-size photograph on the form.
• Attach your address proof and the adhaar card photocopy.
• Obtain the signature of an introducer.
• Fill in the chalan and hand it over to the bank employee with initial amount.
• You will receive the bank passbook with the details of your newly created account details with the bank seal on the first page.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Waste not, ……… not. (fight, want, earn)
(b) ………….. waters run deep, (still, flowing, stagnant)
(c) One ……….. doesn’t make a garland, (pearl, bead, flower)
Answer:
(a) want
(b) Still
(c) flower

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
What does Robert Lynd try to convey in his essay on ‘Forgetting’.
Answer:
Forgetting is deemed by many people leading prosaic lives as a mistake or an inefficiency of mind. But in reality, forgetfulness is freedom. Osho is right in his opinion of forgetfulness. In fact, it liberates painful memories and unpleasant things. We need to “let go” painful memories of the past and be free to aspire for better things in life. Robert Frost in his poem, “Let go” talks about mediocre person’s inability to let go things that hurt them. The capacity to. forget hurtful memories is a real blessing.

If human mind does not have the capacity to forget, life would be miserable for every one of us. Human mind is such a wonderful machine that it retains what is most important for personal or professional growth and allows the other things to slip away from the bank of memory. But young ones should remember to remember important assignments, deadlines for submission of homework, examination time-tables and hall tickets before leaving for examination. Td assist memory, we can have a checklist before leaving for the school. It is often said, “If you fail to plan, you plan to fail.” So students must love whatever work they do. The brain retains in memory whatever one does with great passion, love and involvement.

For a successful life, a strong memory is indispensable. So, one must cultivate a strong memory. However, one may forget failures, betrayals and hurts to grow into a happy and healthy person.

[OR]

How do Universities mould students apart from imparting academic education to them?
Answer:
Universities mould students by providing various opportunities to develop their soft skills and to develop values which would contribute to the process of nation building. They enable graduates to develop patience and perseverance. They help them develop faith in their own inherent ability to shoulder responsibilities. They are oriented to become citizens of democracy and repay to the society quality services which would reform the lives of the poor people.

They develop true spirit of democracy among young graduates. They enable appreciation of others point of view. The graduates are also provided opportunities to adjust with difference through amicable discussions. The universities, apart from imparting education mould the students’character and personality too.

Question 42.
Write an appreciation of the poem “The Hollow Crown”.
Answer:
Shakespeare portrays the fleeting nature of human glory. King Richard II, on the verge of surrender to his rebellious cousin Boling broke, talks about the nature of temporal power and death. He talks about graves, epitaphs and worms. He explains how even monarchs leave nothing behind as their own except a small patch of land in which they are buried. The dejected king talks on various ways kings get killed. Some are slain in the battle field, some poisoned to death by their own spouses.

The kings who believed their bodies to be impregnable brass are shattered by just a pinprick. In fact, death is in supreme command which waits for the king, and only allows the king to act as if he were ruling and in control of everything. He chides his loyal friends who still believe that he is a monarch and tells them that he is an ordinary mortal just like them. He is humbled as he is powerless before the impending death.

[OR]

How does Gabriel Okara criticise the modern life in his poem “Once Upon a Time”?
Answer:
The poet’s understanding of adult society is extremely negative. The poet distinctly portrays how people in modem times have become hypocrites and fake emotions to be socially accepted. The phrases of hospitality they use “feel at home” and “come again” are so fake that a third visit would be disallowed by the hosts. In modem times, people don’t value real emotions instead they value positions and possessions.

Even while shaking hands, they try to assess the material worth of a person. People don’t laugh with heart. Their ice-cold block eyes search the person they talk to. Most of them have acquired the skill of wearing a standard, deceitful, artificial smile on all occasions, i.e., “portrait smile”. Thus the poem is nothing but a criticism of modem life.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints.
Miss Meadows, a music teacher – gets a letter – feels upset – Fiance not interested,- reflects her gloom on students – changes the happy song to a sad one – Headmistress calls – delivers a telegram – Fiance agrees to wedding – Meadows happy – changes the song again to a cheerful one.
Answer:
Miss Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to Science Mistress demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval.

Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love. The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle.

After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush. She goads the children to sing a song of joy congratulating someone for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

[OR]

Leacock goes to a studio – The photographer dislikes Leacock’s face – passes several comments – Leacock gets irritated the photo – taken – wants to see the proof – visits the studio again – The photo is edited – help of technology – Leacock upset over the changes – calls it worthless – leaves in anger.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance.

It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong. What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator. How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday.

He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made.

The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself. The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The Chinese were the first to make gunpowder, invent the magnetic compass and gave to the world the art of making paper. About 2000 years ago the Chinese made gunpowder by mixing sulphur and saltpetre. The mixture exploded when set on fire. The Chinese were the first to find out the fact that a narrow magnet floating in a bowl of water would always point to the north. The discovery led to the invention of magnetic compass. This device helped the sailors to find out the direction when they were out of sight of land.

The Chinese also invented the art of making paper using vegetable pulp reached Arabia, Spain and Europe. In course of time paper factories came into existence. The fourth invention of the Chinese was the art of printing. Before this invention books were written by hand. The Chinese invented the art of printing with movable types. With this invention reading and learning became open to. ordinary people as they were able to print books in large numbers.

Summary:
No. of words given in the original passage: 171
No. of words to be written in the summary: 171/3 = 57 ± 5

Rough Draft
were the first to make gun powders, to invent the magnetic compass, paper \and printing. TheyTnadeJhegun powder by mixing sulphur with salt. The mixture exploded When set on fire. They foundlEaTa^naiiowmagnet floating in a bowl of water would always p|oint to die North. This led to the inventimToflnagaeticcompass. With this the sailors found tfteir direction. Explorers used this for their discoveries/TESyTeutid^the art of making paper using vegetable pulp. As a result factories came into existence. The inventron-oijnjnting led to tpe printing of books in large numbers.

Fair Draft:
The Great Inventions of China
The Chinese made gun powder mixing sulphur and saltpetre. They invented magnetic compass and paper. They enabled great explorers like Magellan, Vasco da Gama and Columbus discovered new lands by their invention the Mariner’s compass. They made papers from vegetable pulp and soon many factories started producing it. The greatest contribution of China to’he world is her invention of printing press which revolutionized printing of books. No. of words in the summary: 68

[OR]

Notes
Title: The Great Inventions of China
Answer:
1. Chinese Inventions – (a) gun powder, (b) magnetic compass, (c) paper, (d) printing
2. (a) Gun powder from sulphur and saltpeter – explosive.
(b) Magnetic powder – finding direction – great explorers used in discovery of lands.
(c) Paper from vegetable pulp – paper industry.
(d) Art of printing – books available to ordinary people.

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and prepare a Bio-data considering yourself fulfilling the conditions mentioned.
(Write XXXX for name and YYYY for address.)

WANTED:
Qualified nurses for a multi-speciality hospital, Attractive salary, Flexible working hours, Age below 30
Apply to-
Post Box No : 3210,
The Times of India,
Chennai – 600 002.
Answer:

14th January, 2020

From
XXXX
YYYY

To
Post Box No : 3210
C/o. The Times of India
Chennai – 02.
Respected Sir/Madam,
Sub: Application for the post of a Senior Nurse.
With reference to your advertisement dated 12th December 2018,1 hereby wish to apply for the post of a senior nurse in your multi-speciality hospital. I have rich experience and can communicate well with a pleasing personality.

If given an opportunity, I will do my best in taking care of the patient needs.
Please find enclosed my resume for your kind perusal. Looking forward to a positive reply.

Yours sincerely,
XXXX
Address on the Envelope
To
Post Box No : 3210
C/o. The Times of India
Chennai – 02

Bio-data:

Name : XXXX
Date of Birth : 18th May, 1994
Marital Status : Married
Father’s Name : Mr. Rajan
Address For Communication : YYYY
Contact Number – Mobile : 9998777655
Residence : 22345576
Mother Tongue : Tamil
Language Known : Hindi, English and Tamil

Educational Background:

Professional Experience:

Hobbies : Reading, Music.
Expected Salary : 35,000/ per month
Salary Drawn : 28,000/ per month
Reference : 1. Dr. Ram (Dean, MIOT Hospital 9998887777
2. Dr. Yashodha (ICU in-charge) 9900000222

Declaration
I hereby declare that the above given information is true to my knowledge.
Station : YYY
Date : 14.01.2020

XXXX
Signature of the Applicant

[OR]

Write a paragraph of 150 words on “The Advantages and Disadvantages of Online Shopping”.
Answer:
The Advantages and Disadvantages of Online Shopping:
Due to rapid growth of technology, transformation in buying and selling has taken place. Sellers use internet as a main vehicle to conduct commercial transactions. But, like every coin has two sides, online shopping has got its own advantages and disadvantages.

Advantages:

• The biggest advantage is convenience. Online shops give us the opportunity to shop 24/7 without being held up in crowd or standing in queue for billing.
• As we receive products directly from the manufacturers the prices are lower.
• The choices are unlimited in almost all brands that one looks for.
• Out of stock products also can be booked which will be sent to us when available.
• Sending gifts to the persons we desire has become easier.
• One can analyse the consumer reviews before purchasing the products.

Disadvantages:

• Online shopping may lead one to spend too much time online. Also, one may end up buying unwanted things.
• Sometimes the products that you receive may not be the one you ordered or it can be of low quality. There is no guarantee that you are receiving the original product.
• Returning the product may be problematic.
• There’s a larger risk of: credit card scams, hacking, phishing, counterfeit products, identity theft, bogus websites, and other scams.
• Local retailers are affected which brings down the country’s economy.

Question 46.
(i) Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentence correctly.
(a) The colour of the curtains are very bright.
(b) I saw an uniformed soldier behind the wall.
(c) Nobody knows why was he killed.
(d) My older brother is living abroad.
(e) They are discussing about their picnic.
Answer:
(a) The colour of the curtains is very bright.
(b) I saw a uniformed soldier behind the wall.
(c) Nobody knows why he was killed.
id) My older brother lives abroad.
(e) They are discussing their picnic.

[OR]

(ii) Fill in the blanks suitably
(a) Have you ever…………such a beautiful ……… (scene/seen)
(b) How ………. you disobey my words? (use a quasi modal verb)
(c) What is done ………… not be undone, (use a modal verb)
(d) Take an umbrella with you ……….. you will get wet (use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) seen, scene
(b) dare
(c) can
(d) or else

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the given fields given below:
(a) In a democracy, we have the right to criticise anyone.
(ft) The price of the vegetable shot up suddenly.
(c) The passenger sat down to check his e-mails.
(d) It was a thrilling neck and neck finish.
(e) The programme will be telecast next week.
(Commerce, Sports, Literature, Computer, Politics, Media, Agriculture)
Answer:
(a) Politics
(b) Commerce
(c) Computer
(d) Sports
(e) Media

[OR]

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
After the meal, the way we place our eating tools, our knives, forks, spoons or chopsticks is also culturally defined. In Australia, when we have finished eating the main course, we put the knife and fork across the middle of the plate parallel to each other with the handles facing towards us.

When we are resting during the meal, we place the knife and fork across each other in the middle of the plate. In China, the chopsticks go crossways across the top of the plate with the handles facing towards the right. In Indonesia, some people place the fork and spoon like the Australians do but not all. Indonesia is a multi-cultural society, so there may be a number of customs practised within the country.
Questions:
(a) Which table manners reveals one’s culture?
(b) Is table manners important? Why?
(c) What do you know about the table manners observed by the Australians?
(d) How do the Chinese practise their table manners?
(e) Explain the Indonesian culture.
Answer:
(a) After the meal, the way we place our eating tools, our knives, forks, spoons or chopsticks is culturally defined.
(b) Yes, because it ensures comfort of both the guests and hosts at the table.
(c) In Australia, when people have finished eating the main course, they put the knife and fork across the middle of the plate parallel to each other with the handles facing towards them. When they are resting during the meal, they place the knife and fork across each other in the middle of the plate.
(d) In China, the chopsticks go crossways across the top of the plate with the handles facing towards the right.
(e) Indonesia is a multi-cultural society, so there may be a number of customs practised within the country.

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Miscellaneous Problems and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Miscellaneous Problems

Evaluate the following integrals:

Question 1.
\(\int \frac{1}{\sqrt{x+2}-\sqrt{x+3}} d x\)
Solution:

Question 2.
\(\int \frac{d x}{2-3 x-2 x^{2}}\)
Solution:

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{d x}{e^{x}+6+5 e^{-x}}\)
Solution:

Question 4.
\(\int \sqrt{2 x^{2}-3} d x\)
Solution:

Question 5.
\(\int \sqrt{9 x^{2}+12 x+3} d x\)
Solution:


Note: The constant \(\frac{1}{6}\) log 3 can be merged with the constant ‘c’.

Question 6.
∫(x + 1)² log x dx
Solution:
∫(x + 1)² log x dx
We use integration by parts method.

Question 7.
\(\int \log (x-\sqrt{x^{2}}-1) d x\)
Solution:

Question 8.
\(\int_{0}^{1} \sqrt{x(x-1)} d x\)
Solution:

Question 9.
\(\int_{-1}^{1} x^{2} e^{-2 x} d x\)
Solution:

Question 10.
\(\int_{0}^{3} \frac{x d x}{\sqrt{x+1}+\sqrt{5 x+1}}\)
Solution:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Physics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever: applicable
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the questions. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
The direction of the angular velocity vector is along…………
(a) the tangent to the circular path
(b) the inward radius
(c) the outward radius
(d) the axis of rotation
Answer:
(d) the axis of rotation

Question 2.
The angle between two vectors 2\(\hat{i}\) + 3\(\hat{j}\) + \(\hat{k}\) and -3\(\hat{j}\) + 6\(\hat{k}\) is………..
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 90°
Answer:
(d) 90°

Question 3.
The breaking stress of a wire depends on………….
(a) length of a wire
(b) nature of the wire
(c) diameter of the wire
(d) shape of the cross section
Answer:
(b) nature of the wire

Question 4.
The moment of inertia of a rigid body depends upon…………….
(a) distribution of mass from axis of rotation
(b) angular velocity of the body
(c) angular acceleration of the body
(d) mass of the body
Answer:
(a) distribution of mass from axis of rotation

Question 5.
The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in the graph.If Y_A and Y_B are the young’s moduli of the materials then……….

(a) Y_B = 2Y_A
(b) Y_A = Y_B
(c) Y_B = 3Y_A
(d) Y_A = 3Y_B
Answer:
(d) Y_A = 3Y_B
Hint:
Slope of stress strain curve gives the young’s modules Y_A = tan 60° = √3 ; Y_B = tan 30° \(\frac{1}{√3}\)
\(\frac{Y_A}{Y_B}\) = \(\frac{√3}{\frac{1}{√3}}\) = 3 ⇒ Y_A = 3Y_B

Question 6.
The ratio of the velocities of two particles as shown in figure is…………

(a) 1 : √3
(b) √3 : 1
(c) 1 : 3
(d) 3 : 1
Answer:
(c) 1 : 3
Hint:
Velocity = Slope of the line formed in displacement v/s time graph = Tan θ
V_a : V_b = Tan θ_A : Tan θ_B
= Tan 30° : Tan 60°
V_a : V_b = 1 : 3

Question 7
The load-elongation graph of three wires of the same material are shown. Which of the following wire is the thickest?

(a) wire 1
(b) wire 2
(c) wires
(d) all of them have same thickness
Answer:
(a) wire 1
Hint:
Wire 1 is the thickness compared to other wires. Because the elongation of the wire 1 is minimum.

Question 8.
The waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water.are………
(a) transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c) longitudinal and transverse
(d) stationary
Answer:
(c) longitudinal and transverse

Question 9.
A sound wave whose frequency is 5000 Hz travels in air and then hits the water surface. Theratio of its wavelengths in water surface. The ratio of its wavelengths in water and air is………….
(a) 4.30
(b) 0.23
(c) 5.30
(d) 1.23
Answer:
(a) 4.30
Hint:
f = 5000 Hz ; V_a = 343 ms^-1; V_b = 1480 ms^-1
Ratio of wavelength \(\frac{λ_a}{λ_w}\) = \(\frac{V_w}{f}\) × \(\frac{f}{V_a}\) = \(\frac{1480}{343}\) = 4.31

Question 10.
The wavelength of two sine waves and λ₁ = 1 m and λ₂ = 6 m, the corresponding wave numbers are respectively…………
(a) 1.05 rad m^-1 and 6.28 rad m^-1
(b) 6.28 rad m^-1 and 1.05 rad m^-1
(c) 1 rad m^-1 and 0.1666 rad m^-1
(d) 0.166 rad m^-1 and 1 rad m^-1
Answer:
(b) 6.28 rad m^-1 and 1.05 rad m^-1
Hint:
Standard wave equation, Y = A sin (kx – ωt)
K₁ = \(\frac{2π}{λ_1}\) = \(\frac{2π}{1}\) = 6.28 rad m^-1
K₂ = \(\frac{2π}{λ_2}\) = \(\frac{2π}{6}\) = 1.05 rad m^-1

Question 11.
During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute temperature. The value of \(\frac{C_p}{C_r}\) for that gas is ………..
(a) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
(b) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
Hint:
PT = \(\frac{γ}{1-γ}\) = constant …….(1)
PT^-3 = constant ……….(2)
From equation (1) and (2) \(\frac{γ}{1-γ}\) = (-3)
∴ γ = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Question 12.
If the rms speed of the molecules of a gas is 1000 ms^-1 the average speed of the molecule is………..
(a) 1000 ms^-1
(b) 922 ms^-1
(c) 780 ms^-1
(d) 849 ms^-1
Answer:
(b) 922 ms^-1
Hint:

Question 13.
In a cyclic process, work done by the system will be ………….
(a) zero
(b) more than the heat given to the system
(c) equal to heat given to the system
(d) independent of heat given to system
Answer:
(c) equal to heat given to the system

Question 14.
A closed tube partly filled with water lies is a horizontal plane. If the tube is rotated about perpendicular bisector, the moment of inertia of the system…………
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) depends on sense of rotation
Answer:
(c) remains constant

Question 15.
Force acting on the particle moving with constant speed is…………..
(a) always zero
(b) need not be zero
(c) always non zero
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(a) always zero
Hint:
In a straight line motion, velocity (speed) is constant, a = 0; F = ma = 0

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 23 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Write limitations of dimensional analysis with examples, (any 2 points only) Limitations of Dimensional analysis.
Answer:

1. This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula like 1, 2, …..π, e, etc.
2. This method is not suitable to derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.
3. It can only check on whether a physical relation is dimensionally correct but not the correctness of the relation. For example, using dimensional analysis, s = ut + \(\frac{1}{3}\) at² is dimensionally correct whereas the correct relation is s = ut +\(\frac{1}{2}\) at²

Question 17.
A particle of mass 2 kg experiences two forces \(\vec{F_1}\) =5\(\hat{i}\) + 8\(\hat{j}\) + 7\(\hat{k}\) and \(\vec{F_2}\) = 3\(\hat{i}\) – 4\(\hat{j}\) + 3\(\hat{k}\). What is the acceleration of the particle?
Answer:
We use Newton’s second law, \(\vec{F}_{net}\) = m\(\vec{a}\) where \(\vec{F}_{net}\) = \(\vec{F_1}\) + \(\vec{F_2}\). From the equations the acceleration is \(\vec{a}\) = \(\frac{\vec{F}_{net}}{m}\), where
\(\vec{F}_{net}\) = (5 + 3)\(\vec{i}\) + (8 – 4)\(\vec{j}\) + (7 + 3)\(\vec{k}\)
\(\vec{F}_{net}\) = 8\(\vec{i}\) + 4\(\vec{j}\) + 10\(\vec{k}\)
\(\vec{a}\) = (\(\frac{8}{2}\))\(\vec{i}\) + (\(\frac{4}{2}\))\(\vec{j}\) + (\(\frac{10}{2}\))\(\vec{k}\)
\(\vec{a}\) = 4\(\vec{j}\) + 2\(\vec{j}\) + 5\(\vec{k}\)

Question 18.
An electron and proton are detected in a cosmic ray experiment, the first with kinetic energy 10 KeV and the second with 100 KeV. Which is faster, the electron or the proton? Obtain the ratio of their speeds.
(electron mass : 9.11 × 10^-31 kg : proton mass : 1.67 × 10^-27 kg : lev = 1.6 × 10^-19 J)
Answer:
Here K_e = 10 keV and K_p = 100 keV
m_e = 9.11 × 10^-31 kg and m_p = 1.67 × 10^-27 kg
As K = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv² or v = \(\sqrt {\frac{2K}{m}}\)
Hence

Question 19.
A bullet of mass 20 g strikes pendulum of mass 5 kg. The centre of mass of pendulum rises a vertical distance of 10 cm. If the bullet gets embedded into the pendulum, calculate its initial speed.
Answer:
Given data: m₁ = 20 g = 20 × 10^-3kg; m₂ = 5 kg; s = 10 × 10^-2m
Let the speed of the bullet be v. The common velocity of bullet and pendulum bob is V. According to law of conservation of linear momentum.
V = \(\frac{m_1v}{(m_1+m_2)}\) = \(\frac{20×10^{-3}v}{5+20×10^{-3}}\) = \(\frac{0.02}{5.02}\) v = 0.004 v
The bob with bullet go up with a deceleration of g= 9.8 ms^-2. Bob and bullet come to rest at a height of 10 × 10^-2 m.
from IIIrd equation of motion

Question 20.
Get the relation between rotational kinetic energy and angular momentum.
Answer:
Let a rigid body of moment of inertia I rotate with angular velocity ω
The angular momentum of a rigid body is, L = Iω
The rotational kinetic energy of the rigid body is, KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)Iω²
By multiplying the numerator and denominator of the above equation with I, we get a relation between L and KE as,
KE= \(\frac{1}{2}\) \(\frac{I^2ω^2}{I}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) \(\frac{(Iω)^2}{I}\)
KE = \(\frac{L^2}{2I}\)

Question 21.
Why is there no lunar eclipse and solar eclipse every month?
Answer:
If the orbits of the Moon and Earth lie on the same plane, during full Moon of every month, we can observe lunar eclipse. If this is so during new oon we can observe solar eclipse. But Moon’s orbit is tilted 5° with respect to Earth’s orbit. Due to this 5° tilt, only during certain periods of the year, the Sun, Earth and Moon align in straight line leading to either lunar eclipse or solar eclipse depending on the alignment.

Question 22.
Calculate the change in internal energy of a block of copper of mass 200 g when it is heated from 25°C to 75°C. Specific heat of copper = 0.1 cal / g / °C and assume change in volume is negligible.
Answer:
dQ = cmΔT = 0.1 × 200 (75 – 25) = 100 calorie
dw = Pdv = 0
dU = dQ – dW = 100 – 0 = 100 calorie = 4200 J

Question 23.
The shortest distance travelled by a particle executing SHM from mean position in 2 seconds is equal to \(\frac{√3}{2}\) times of its amplitude. Determine its time period.
Answer:
Given data t = 2s ; y = \(\frac{√3}{2}\)A ; T = ?
displacement y = A sin ωt = A sin \(\frac{2π}{T}\) t
\(\frac{√3}{2}\)A = A sin \(\frac{2π×2}{T}\) ; sin \(\frac{4π}{T}\) = \(\frac{√3}{2}\) = sin \(\frac{π}{3}\)
∴ \(\frac{4π}{3}\) = \(\frac{π}{3}\) ; T = 12s

Question 24.
What are the differences from sliding and slipping?
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of the thread?
Answer:
The diameter of a thread is so small. Therefore we cannot measure it using metre scale. We wind a number of turns of the thread on the metre scale so that the turns are closely touching one another.
Measure the length (l) of the windings on the scale which contains number of turns.
∴ Diameter of thread = \(\frac{1}{n}\)

Question 26.
Consider two cylinders with same radius and same mass. Let one of the cylinders be solid and another one be hollow. When subjected to same torque, which one among them gets more angular acceleration than the other?
Answer:
Moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its axis I_s = \(\frac{π}{2}\)MR²
Moment of inertia of a hollow cylinder about its axis l_h = MR³
I_s = \(\frac{π}{2}\)I_h or I_h = 2I_s
torque τ = lα ⇒ α = \(\frac{τ}{I}\)
α_s = \(\frac{τ}{I_s}\) and a_h = \(\frac{τ}{I_h}\)
α_sI_s = α_hI_h ⇒ α_s = α_h \(\frac{I_h}{I_s}\)
I_h > I_h ⇒ \(\frac{I_h}{I_s}\) > 1
∴ a_s > a_h

Question 27.
The reading of pressure meter attached with a closed pipe is 5 × 10⁵ Nm^-2. On opening the valve of the pipe, the reading of the pressure meter is 4.5 × 10⁵ Nm^-2. Calculate the speed of the water flowing in the pipe.
Answer:
Using Bernoulli’s equation

Here initial velocity V₁ = 0 and density of water ρ = 1000 kg m 3

Question 28.
State and prove perpendicular axis theorem.
Answer:
Perpendicular axis theorem: This perpendicular axis theorem holds good only for plane laminar objects.

The theorem states that the moment of inertia of a plane laminar body about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of moments of inertia about two perpendicular axes lying in the plane of the body such that all the three axes are mutually perpendicular and have a common point.

Question 29.
State Stoke’s law and give some practical applications of Stoke’s law.
Answer:
The viscous force F acting on a spherical body of radius r depends directly on:
(i) radius (r) of the sphere
(ii) velocity (v) of the sphere and
(iii) coefficient of viscosity q of the liquid
Therefore F ∝ η^xr^yv^z = F = k η^xr^yv^z, where k is a dimensionless constant. Using dimensions, the above equation can be written as
[MLT^-2] = k [ML^-1T^-1]^z × [L]^y × [LT^-1]^x
On solving, we get x = 1, y = 1 and z = 1. Therefore, F = kηrv
Experimentally, Stoke found that the value of k = 6π
F = 6πηrv
This relation is known as Stoke’s law.
Practical applications of Stoke’s law Since the raindrops are smaller in size and their terminal velocities are small, remain suspended in air in the form of clouds. As they grow up in size, their terminal velocities increase and they start falling in the form of rain.
This law explains the following:

1. Floatation of clouds
2. Larger raindrops hurt us more than the smaller ones
3. A man coming down with the help of a parachute acquires constant terminal velocity.

Question 30.
Derive the ratio of two specific heat capacities of triatomic molecules.
(a) Linear molecule:
Answer:
Energy of one mole

(b) Non – Linear molecule:
Answer:
Energy of one mole

Note that according to kinetic theory model of gases the specific heat capacity at constant volume and constant pressure are independent of temperature. But in reality it is not sure. The specific heat capacity varies with the temperature.

Question 31.
If 5 L of water at 50°C is mixed with 4 L of of water at 30°C, what will be the final temperature of water? Take the specific heat capacity of water as 4184 J kg^-1 k^-1.
Answer:
We can use the equation T_f = \(\frac{m_{1} s_{1} \mathrm{T}_{1}+m_{2} s_{2} \mathrm{T}_{2}}{m_{1} s_{1}+m_{2} s_{2}}\)
m₁ = 5L = 5 kg ancl m₂ = 4 L = 4 kg, s₁ = s₂ and T₁ = 50°C = 323K and T₂ = 30°C = 303 K

T_f = 314.11 K – 273 K ≈ 41°C.
Suppose if we mix equal amount of water (m₁ = m₂) with 50°C and 30°C, then the final temperature is average of two temperatures.
T_f = \(\frac{T_1+T_2}{2}\) = \(\frac{323+303}{2}\) = 313 K = 40°C
Suppose if both the water are at 30°C then the final temperature will also 30°C. It implies that they are at equilibrium and no heat exchange takes place between each other.

Question 32.
Smooth block is released at rest on a 45° incline and then slides a distance d. If the time taken of slide on rough incline is n times as large as that to slide than on a smooth incline. Show that co-efficient of friction µ = (1 – \(\frac{1}{n_2}\))
Answer:
When there is no friction, the block slides down the inclined plane with acceleration.
a – g sin θ
when there is friction, the downward acceleration of the block is
a’ = g (sin θ — µ cos θ)
As the block slides a distance d in each case so
d = \(\frac{1}{2}\) at² = \(\frac{1}{2}\) a’t’²
\(\frac{a}{a’}\) = \(\frac{t’^2}{t^2}\) = \(\frac{(nt)^2}{r^2}\) = n² or \(\frac{g sin θ}{g(sin θ – µ cos θ)}\) = n²
Solving, we get (Using θ = 45°)
µ = 1 – \(\frac{1}{n_2}\)

Question 33.
How do you distinguish between stable and unstable equilibrium?
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34. (a).
What are the limitation of Dimensional formula? By assuming that the frequency y of a vibrating string may depend upon
(i) Tension
(ii) length (l)
(iii) mass per unit
length (m), prove that γ ∝ \(\frac{1}{l}\) \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{M}}\)
Answer:
(i) Limitations of Dimensional analysis:

1. This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula like 1, 2, ……. π, e, etc.
2. This method cannot decide whether the given quantity is a vector or a scalar.
3. This method is not suitable to derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.
4. It cannot be applied to an equation involving more than three physical quantities.
5. It can only check on whether a physical relation is dimensionally correct but not the correctness of the relation. For example, using dimensional analysis, s = ut + \(\frac{π}{2}\) at² is dimensionally correct whereas the correct relation is s = ut + \(\frac{π}{2}\) at².

(ii) n ∝ I^a T^bm^c, [I] = [M⁰L¹ T⁰]
[T] = [M¹L¹T^-2] (force)
[M] = [M¹L^-1T⁰]
[M⁰L⁰T^-1] = [M⁰L¹T⁰]^a [M¹L¹T^-2]^b [M⁰L^-1T⁰]^a
b + c = 0
a + b – c = 0
-2b = -1 ⇒ b = \(\frac{π}{2}\)
c = –\(\frac{π}{2}\)a = 1
γ ∝ \(\frac{1}{l}\) \(\sqrt{\frac{T}{M}}\)

[OR]

(b) Prove the law of conservation of linear momentum. Use it to find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it.
Answer:
In nature, conservation laws play a very important role. The dynamics of motion of bodies can be analysed very effectively using conservation laws. There are three conservation laws in mechanics. Conservation of total energy, conservation of total linear momentum, and conservation of angular momentum. By combining Newton’s second and third laws, we can derive the law of conservation of total linear momentum.

When two particles interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other. The particle 1 exerts force \(\frac{\vec{F}_{12}}{m}\) on particle 2 and particle 2 exerts an exactly equal and opposite force \(\frac{\vec{F}_{12}}{m}\) on particle 1 according to Newton’s third law.
\(\frac{\vec{F}_{21}}{m}\) = –\(\frac{\vec{F}_{21}}{m}\) ……….(1)
In terms of momentum of particles, the force on each particle (Newton’s second law) can be written as
\(\frac{\vec{F}_{12}}{m}\) = \(\frac{\vec{dp_1}}{dt}\) and \(\frac{\vec{F}_{21}}{m}\) = \(\frac{\vec{dp_2}}{dt}\) ………(2)
Here \(\vec{p}_1\) is the momentum of particle 1 which changes due to the force \(\vec{F}_{12}\) exerted by
particle 2. Further \(\vec{p}_2\) is the momentum of particle 2. This changes due to \(\vec{F}_{21}\) exerted by particle 1.
Substitute equation (2) in equation (1)

It implies that \(\vec{p_1}\) + \(\vec{p_2}\) constant vector (always).
\(\vec{p_1}\) + \(\vec{p_2}\) is the total linear momentum of the two particles (\(\vec{p_{tot}}\) = \(\vec{p_1}\) + \(\vec{p_2}\)).It is also called as total linear momentum of the system. Here, the two particles constitute the system. From this result, the law of conservation of linear momentum can be stated as follows.

If there are no external forces acting on the system, then the total linear momentum of the system (\(\vec{p}_{tot}\)) is always a constant vector. In other words, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved in time. Here the word ‘conserve’ means that \(\vec{p_1}\) and p\(\vec{p_2}\) can vary, in such a way that \(\vec{p_1}\) + \(\vec{p_2}\) is a constant vector.

The forces \(\vec{F_{12}}\) and \(\vec{F_{21}}\) are called the internal forces of the system, because they act only between the two particles. There is no external force acting on the two particles from outside. In such a case the total linear momentum of the system is a constant vector or is conserved.

To find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it:
Consider the firing of a gun. Here the system is Gun+bullet. Initially the gun and bullet are at rest, hence the total linear momentum of the system is zero. Let \(\vec{p_1}\) be the momentum of the bullet and \(\vec{p_2}\) the momentum of the gun before firing. Since initially both are at rest,

Total momentum before firing the gun is zero, \(\vec{p_1}\) + \(\vec{p_2}\) = 0
According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, total linear momemtum has to be zero after the firing also.

When the gun is fired, a force is exerted by the gun on the bullet in forward direction. Now the momentum of the bullet changes from \(\vec{p_1}\) + \(\vec{p_1}\). To conserve the total linear momentum of the system, the momentum of the gun must also change from \(\vec{p_2}\) to \(\vec{p_2}\) Due to the conservation of linear momentum, \(\vec{p_1}\)+ \(\vec{p_2}\)= 0. It implies that \(\vec{p_1}\) = – \(\vec{p_2}\), the momentum of the gun is exactly equal, but in the opposite direction to the momentum of the bullet. This is the reason after firing, the gun suddenly moves backward with the momentum (\(\vec{p_2}\)). It is called ‘recoil momentum’. Th is is an example of conservation of total linear momentum.

Question 35 (a).
Explain the variation of g with
(i) latitude
(ii) altitude.
Answer:
(i) Latitute: When an object is on the surface fo the Earth, it experiences a centrifugal force that depends on the latitude of the object on Earth. If the Earth were not spinning, the force on the object would have been mg. However, the object experiences an additional centrifugal force due to spinning of the Earth.

This centrifugal force is given by mω²R’.
OP_z cos λ = \(\frac{PZ}{OP}\) = \(\frac{R’}{R}\)
R’ = R cos λ
where λ is the latitude. The component of centrifugal acceleration experienced by the object in the direction opposite to g is
Na_PQ = ω²R cos λ = ω²R COS² λ
Since R’ = R cos λ
Therefore, g’ = g – ω²R cos² λ
From the above expression, we can infer that at equator, λ = 0, g’ = g ω²R. The acceleration due to gravity is minimum. At poles λ = 90; g’ = g, it is maximum. At the equator, g’ is minimum.

(ii) Altitude: Consider an object of mass m at a height h from the surface of the Earth. Acceleration experienced by the object due to Earth is

If h << R_e: We can use Binomial expansion. Taking the terms up to first order
g’ =\( \frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}_{e}^{2}}\left[1+\frac{h}{\mathrm{R}_{e}}\right]^{-2}\)
If h << R sub>e: We can use Binomial expansion. Taking the terms up to first order
(1 + x)ⁿ = 1 + nx

We find that g’ < g. This means that as altitude h increases the acceleration due to gravity g decreases.

[OR]

(b) Explain why a cyclist bends while negotiating a curve road? Arrive at the expression for angle of bending for a given velocity.
Answer:

Let us consider a cyclist negotiating a circular level road (not banked) of radius r with a speed v. The cycle and the cyclist are considered as one system with mass m. The center gravity of the system is C and it goes in a circle of radius r with center at O. Let us choose the line OC as X-axis and the vertical line through O as Z-axis as shown in Figure.

The system as a frame is rotating about Z-axis. The system is at rest in this rotating frame. To solve problems in rotating frame of reference, we have to apply a centrifugal force (pseudo force) on the system which will be \(\frac{mv^2}{r}\). this force will act through the center of gravity. the forces acting on the system are , (i) gravitational force (mg), (ii) Normal force (n), (iii) frictional force (f) and (iv) centrifugal force (\(\frac{mv^2}{r}\)). As the system is in equilibrium in the rotational frame of will be of reference, the net external force and net external torque must be zero. Let us consider all torques about the point A in Figure.
For rotational equilibrium,
\(\vec{τ}_{net}\) = 0
The torque due to the gravitational force about point A is (mg AB) which causes a clockwise turn that is taken as negative. The torque due to the centripetal force is (\(\frac{mv^2}{r}\) BC) which causes an anticlock wise turn that is taken as positive

While negotiating a circular level road of radius Force diagrams for the cyclist r at velocity v, a cyclist has to bend by an angle in turns
0 from vertical given by the above expression to stay in equilibrium (i.e. to avoid a fall).

Question 36 (a).
Derive an expression for moment of inertia of a uniform ring and uniform disc.
Answer:
Let us consider a uniform ring of mass M and radius R. To find the moment of inertia of the ring about an axis passing through its center and perpendicular to the plane, let us take an infinitesimally small mass {dm) of length (dx) of the ring. This (dm) is located at a distance R, which is the radius of the ring from the axis as shown in figure.
The moment of inertia (dl) of this small mass (dm) is,
dl = (dm) R²
The length of the ring is its circumference (2πR). AS the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) is,
mass M
λ = \(\frac{mass}{length}\) = \(\frac{M}{2πR}\)
The mass (dm) of the infinitesimally small length is,
dm = λ dx = \(\frac{M}{2πR}\) dx
Now, the moment of inertia (I) of the entire ring is,

To cover the entire length of the ring, the limits of integration are taken from 0 to 2πR.

[OR]

(b) Explain how overtones are produced in a (i) closed organ pipe
Answer:
(i) Closed organ pipes: Look at the picture of a clarinet, shown in figure. It is a pipe with one end closed and the other end open. If one end of a pipe is closed, the wave reflected at this closed end is 180° out of phase with the incoming wave. Thus there is no displacement of the particles at the closed end. Therefore, nodes are formed at the closed end and anti¬nodes are formed at open end.

(a) No motion of particles which leads to nodes at closed end and antinodes at open and (fundamental mode) (N-node, A-antinode)
Let us consider the simplest mode of vibration of the air column called the fundamental mode. Anti-node is formed at the open end and node at closed end. From the figure, let L be the length of the tube and the wavelength of the wave produced. For the fundamental mode of vibration, we have,
L = \(\frac{λ_1}{4}\) or λ₁ = 4L …(1)
The frequency of the note emitted is . v v
f_p = \(\frac {v}{λ_1}\) = \(\frac{v}{4L}\) …….(2)
which is called the fundamental note.
The frequencies higher than fundamental frequency can be produced by blowing air strongly at open end. Such frequencies are called overtones.
The figure (b) shows the second mode of vibration having two nodes and two antinodes,

is called first over tone, since here, the frequency is three times the fundamental frequency it is called third harmonic.
The figure (c) shows third mode of vibration having three nodes and three anti-nodes.

is called second over tone, and since n = 5 here, this is called fifth harmonic. Hence, the closed organ pipe has only odd harmonics and f₁ : f₂ : f₃ : f₄ : …… = 1 : 3 : 5 : 7 : …… ………(3)

Question 37 (a).
What is meant by Doppler effect? Discuss following cases.
(i) source moves towards stationary observer
(ii) source moves away from stationary observer
Answer:
When the source and the observer are in relative motion with respect to each other and to the medium in which sound propagates, the frequency of the sound wave observed is different from the frequency of the source. This phenomenon is called Doppler Effect.

(i) Source moves towards the observer: Suppose a source S moves to the right (as shown in figure) with a velocity v_s and let the frequency of the sound waves produced by the source be f_s. We assume the velocity of sound in a medium is v. The compression (sound wave front) produced by the source S at three successive instants of time are shown in the figure. When S is at position x₁ the compression is at C₁. When S is at position x₂, the compression is at C₂ and similarly for x₃ and C₃. Assume that if C₁ reaches the observer’s position A then at that instant C₂reaches the point B and C₃ reaches the point C as shown in the figure. It is obvious to see that the distance between compressions C₂ and C₃ is shorter than distance between C₃ and C₂. This means the wavelength decreases when the source S moves towards the observer O (since sound travels longitudinally and wavelength is the distance between two consecutive compressions). But frequency is inversely related to wavelength and therefore, frequency increases.

Let λ be the wavelength of the source S as measured by the observer when S is at position x₁ and λ’ be wavelength of the source observed by the observer when S moves to position x₂. Then the change in wavelength is Δλ = λ – λ’ = v_st, where t is the time taken by the source to travel between x₁ and x₂. Therefore,
λ’ = λ – v_st ………..(1)
But t = \(\frac{λ}{v}\) ………(2)
On substituting equation (2) in equation (3), we get
λ’ = λ\(\left(1-\frac{v_{s}}{v}\right)\)
Since frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength, we have

Since, \(\frac{v_s}{v}\) << 1, we use the binomial expansion and retaining only first order in \(\frac{v_s}{v}\) we get
f’ = f(1 + \(\frac{v_s}{v}\))v ………..(4)

(ii) Source moves away from the observer: Since the velocity here of the source is opposite in direction when compared to case (a), therefore, changing the sign of the velocity of the source in the above case i.e, by substituting (v_s → -v_s) in equation (1), we get
\(f^{\prime}=\frac{f}{\left(1+\frac{v_{s}}{v}\right)}\) ………(5)
Using binomial expansion again, we get,
\(f^{\prime}=f\left(1-\frac{v_{s}}{v}\right)\) ……….. (6)

[OR]

(b) (i) Define specific heat capacity of gas at constant volume
(ii) Define specific heat capacity of gas at constant pressure
(iii) Derive the relationship between C_p and C_v.
Answer:
(i) The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one kg of a substance by 1 K or 1?C by keeping the volume constant is called specific heat capacity at constant volume.

(ii) The amount of heat required to rise the temperature of one mole of a substance by IK or 1°C at constant volume is called molar specific heat capacity at constant volume.

(iii) Application of law of equipartition energy in specific heat of a gas Meyer’s relation C_p – C_v = R connects the two specific heats for one mole of an ideal gas.

Equipartition law of energy is used to calculate the value of C_p – C_v and the ratio between them γ = \(\frac{C_p}{C_v}\) Here y is called adiabatic exponent.

Question 38 (a).
Explain Isobaric process and derive the work done in this process.
Answer:
Isobaric process: This is a thermodynamic process that occurs at constant pressure. Even though pressure is constant in this process, temperature, volume and internal energy are not constant. From the ideal gas equation, we have
V = (\(\frac{µR}{P}\))T ………(1)
Here \(\frac{µR}{P}\) = constant
In an isobaric process the temperature is directly proportional to volume.
V ∝ T (Isobaric process) …(2)
This implies that for a isobaric process, the V-T graph is a straight line passing through the origin.
If a gas goes from a state (V_i ,T_i) to (V_f, T_f) at constant pressure, then the system satisfies the following equation
\(\frac{T_f}{V_f}\) = \(\frac{T_i}{V_i}\) …(3)
Examples for Isobaric process:
(i) When the gas is heated and pushes the piston so that it exerts a force equivalent to atmospheric pressure plus the force due to gravity then this process is isobaric.

(ii) Most of the cooking processes in our kitchen are isobaric processes. When the food is cooked in an open vessel, the pressure above the food is always at atmospheric pressure.

The PV diagram for an isobaric process is a horizontal line parallel to volume axis. Figure (a) represents isobaric process where volume decreases figure (b) represents isobaric process where volume increases.

The work done in an isobaric process: Work done by the gas
\(\mathbf{W}=\int_{\mathbf{V}_{\mathbf{i}}}^{\mathbf{V}_{f}} \mathbf{P} d \mathbf{V}\) …….(4)
In an isobaric process, the pressure is constant, so P comes out of the integral,

Where ΔV denotes change in the volume. If ΔV is negative, W is also negative. This implies that the work is done on the gas. If ΔV is positive, W is also positive, implying that work is done by the gas.
The equation (6) can also be rewritten using the ideal gas equation.
From ideal gas equation
PV = µRT and V = \(\frac{µRT}{P}\)
Substituting this in equation (6) we get
W = µRT_f (1 – \(\frac{T_i}{T_f}\)) …….(7)
In the PV diagram, area under the isobaric curve is equal to the work done in isobaric process.

The first law of thermodynamics for isobaric process is given by
ΔU = Q – PΔV ……..(8)
W = PΔY, ΔU = Q – µRT_f [1 – \(\frac{T_i}{T_f}\)]

[OR]

(b) Explain how the interference of waves is formed.
Answer:
Consider two harmonic waves having identical frequencies, constant phase difference φ and same wave form (can be treated as coherent source), but having amplitudes A₁ and A₂, then
y₁ = A₁sin (kx – ωf), ……(1)
y₂ = A₂ sin (kx – ωt + φ) …..(2)
Suppose they move simultaneously in a particular direction, then interference occurs (i.e., overlap of these two waves). Mathematically
y = y₁ + y₂ …….(3)
Therefore, substituting equation (1) and equation (3) in equation (3), we get
y = A₁ sin (kx – ωt) + A₂ sin (kx – ωt + φ)
Using trigonometric identity sin (α + β) = (sin α cos β + cos α sin β ), we get
y= A₁ sin (kx – ωt) + A₂ [sin (kx – ωt) cos φ + cos (kx – ωt) sin φ]
y= sin (kx – ωt) (A₁ + A₂ cos φ) + A₂ sin φ cos (kx – ωt) ……(4)
Let us re-define A cos θ = (A₁ + A₂ cos φ) …(5)
and A sin θ = A₂ sin φ …(6)
then equation (4) can be rewritten as y = A sin (kx – ωt) cos θ + A cos (kx – ωt) sin θ
y = A (sin (kx – ωt) cos θ + sin θ cos (kx – ωt))
y = A sin (kx – ωt + θ) ……..(7)
By squaring and adding equation (5) and equation (6), we get
A₂ =\mathrm{A}_{1}^{2}+\mathrm{A}_{2}^{2} + 2A₁ A₂ cos φ ……..(8)
Since, intensity is square of the amplitude (I = A₂), we have
I = I₁ + I₂ + 2\(\sqrt{I_1I_2}\) COS φ ……..(9)
This means the resultant intensity at any point depends on the phase difference at that point.

(a) For constructive interference: When crests of one wave overlap with crests of another wave, their amplitudes will add up and we get constructive interference. The resultant wave has a larger amplitude than the individual waves as shown in figure (a). The constructive interference at a point occurs if there is maximum intensity at that point, which means that
cos φ = + 1 ⇒ φ = 0, 2π, 4π,… = 2πn,
where n = 0, 1, 2,…
This is the phase difference in which two waves overlap to give constructive interference. Therefore, for this resultant wave,

(b) For destructive interference: When the trough of one wave overlaps with the crest of another wave, their amplitudes “cancel” each other and we get destructive interference as shown in figure (b). The resultant amplitude is nearly zero. The destructive interference occurs if there is minimum intensity at that point, which means cos φ = – 1 ⇒ φ = π, 3π, 5π,… = (2 n – 1) π, where n = 0,1,2,…. i.e. This is the phase difference in which two waves overlap to give destructive interference. Therefore,

Hence, the resultant amplitude
A= |A₁ – A₂|

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Additional Questions

Question 1.
Find the standard deviation of 30, 80, 60, 70, 20, 40, 50 using the direct method.
Solution:
Direct method:

Question 2.
Find the standard deviation for the following data. 5, 10, 15, 20, 25. And also find the new
S.D. if three is added to each value.
Solution:



S.D. doesn’t change when a number is added or subtracted to the values.

Question 3.
The marks scored by 5 students in a test for 50 marks are 20, 25, 30, 35, 40. Find the S.D for the marks. If the marks are converted for 100 marks, find the S.D. for newly obtained marks.
Solution:
Let assumed mean A = 30
C = 5


To convert the values for 100, all the values will be multiplied by 2. Therefore the new values are 40, 50, 60, 70, 80.
Let A = 60,
C = 10

S.D. also be multiplied by 2. It is also true for the division also.

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.
Find the co-efficient of variation for the following data: 16, 13, 17, 21, 18.
Solution:

Question 6.
C.V. of a data is 69%, S.D. is 15.6, then find its mean.
Solution:

Question 7.
S.D. of a data is 2102, mean is 36.6, then find its C.V.
Solution:

Question 8.

Which team is more consistent?
Solution:




∴ Team A is more consistent.

Question 9.
Final the probability of choosing a spade or a heart card from a deck of cards.
Solution:
Total number of cards = 52
Event of selecting a spade card = A
Event of selecting a heart card = B
n(A) = 13,
n(B) = 13

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Unit Exercise 8

Question 1.
The mean of the following frequency distribution is 62.8 and the sum of all frequencies is 50. Compute the missing frequencies f₁ and f₂.

Solution:
Mean \(\overline{x}\) = 62.8
\(\Sigma x\) = 50

Question 2.
The diameter of circles (in mm) drawn in a design are given below.

Claculate the standard deviation.
Solution:

Question 3.
The frequency distribution is given below.

In the table, k is a positive integer, has a varience of 160. Determine the value of k.
Solution:

Question 4.
The standard deviation of some temperature data in degree Celsius (°C) is 5. If the data were converted into degree Fahrenheit (°F) then what is the variance?
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = 5
Variance = 5² = 25
We know the formula, F = \(\frac{9}{5}\) C + 32
Variance (F) = Vanance \(\frac{9}{5}\) C° + 32
[Variance of ax + b = a² (variance of x)]
= \(\left(\frac{9}{5}\right)^{2}\) . variance
= \(\frac{81}{25}\) × 25
= 81° F
New variance = 81° F

Question 5.
If for a distribution, \(\Sigma(x-5)=3, \Sigma(x-5)^{2}=43\) and total number of observations is 18, find the mean and standard deviation.
Solution:

Question 6.
Prices of peanut packets in various places of two cities are given below. In which city, prices were more stable?

Solution:

Question 7.
If the range and coefficient of range of the data are 20 and 0.2 respectively, then find the largest and smallest values of the data.
Solution:
Range = L – S = 20

Question 8.
If two dice are rolled, then find the probability of getting the product of face value 6 or the difference of face values 5.
Solution:
Product of face values 6: {(1, 6), (2, 3), (6, 1), (3,2)}
Difference of face value 5: {(1, 6), (6, 1)}

Question 9.
In a two children family, find the probability that there is at least one girl in a family.
Solution:
S = {BB, BG, GB, GG}
n(S) = 4
Event of atleast one girl in a family say A
A= {BG, GB, GG}
n( A) = 3

Probability of at least one girl in a family is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

Question 10.
A bag contains 5 white and some black balls. If the probability of drawing a black ball from the bag is twice the probability of drawing a white ball then find the number of black balls.
Solution:
Let a number of black balls be ‘x’.
Number of white balls = 5.

Number of Black balls = 10.

Question 11.
The probability that a student will pass the final examination in both English and Tamil is 0.5 and the probability of passing neither is 0.1. If the probability of passing the English examination is 0.75, what is the probability of passing the Tamil examination?
Solution:

P(English) = 0.75
P(Tamil) = x(assume)
P(English ∪ Tamil) = P(English) + P(Tamil) – P(English ∩ Tamil)
⇒ 1 – 0.1 = 0.75 + x – 0.5
⇒ x = 0.9 – 0.25

Question 12.
The King, Queen and Jack of the suit spade are removed from a deck of 52 cards. One card is selected from the remaining cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a diamond
(ii) a queen
(iii) a spade
(iv) a heart card bearing the number 5.
Solution:
King spade, Queen spade, Jack spade are removed
∴ total number of cards = 52 – 3 = 49.