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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 2 Functions of Management

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Functions of Management Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the primary function of management?
(a) Innovating
(b) Controlling
(c) Planning
(d) Decision-making
Answer:
(c) Planning

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a main function?
(a) Decision-making
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) staffing
Answer:
(a) Decision-making

Question 3.
Distribution of work in groupwise or sectionwise is called as ________
(a) Co-ordinating
(b) Controlling
(c) Staffing
(d) Organising
Answer:
(d) Organising

Question 4.
Which of the following is verification function?
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answers
(d) Controlling

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note about Planning.
Answer:
Planning is the primary function of management. Nothing can be performed without planning. Planning is a constructive reviewing of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.

Question 2.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader.

Question 3.
What is meant by Controlling?
Answer:
Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions. The control function helps in identifying under performers and arranging remedial training for them. It is the control function which facilitates synchronization of actual performance with predetermined standards.

Question 4.
How do you coordinate your classroom with peace?
Answer:
All the activities are divided groupwise or sectionwise under organising function. Now, such grouped activities are co-ordinated towards the accomplishment of objectives of a classroom. With the function of co-ordination the classroom must be peaceful and calm.

Question 5.
What is meant by Innovation?
Answer:
Innovation refers to the preparation of personnel and organisation to face the changes made in the business world. Continuous changes are being made in the business. Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
List out the main functions of management.
Answer:
Main functions of management are listed below:

1. Planning
2. Organising
3. Staffing
4. Directing
5. Motivating
6. Controlling and
7. Co-ordination

Question 2.
State the importance of staffing.
Answer:
Staffing refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs. Staffing includes selection of right persons, training to those needy persons, promotion of best persons, retirement of old persons, performance appraisal of all the personnel, and adequate remuneration of personnel. The success of any enterprise depends upon the successful performance of staffing function.

Question 3.
Bring out the subsidiary functions of management.
Answer:

1. Innovation
2. Representation
3. Decision-making
4. Communication

Question 4.
State the importance of Motivation.
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a
willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader. The workers expect, favourable climate conditions to work, fair treatment, monetary or non-monetary incentive, effective communication and gentleman approach.

Question 5.
What are the main duties of a manager?
Answer:

1. A manager has to act as representative of a company.
2. Manager has dealings with customers, suppliers, government officials, banks, financial institutions, trade unions and the like.
3. It is the duty of every manager to have good relation with others.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the various functions of management.
Main Functions:

1. Planning:- Planning is the primary function of management. Planning is a constructive reviewing of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.
2. Organising:- Organising is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members of an organisation and the creation of network of relationship among them.
3. Staffing:- Staffing function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.
4. Directing:- Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding and communicating with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.
5. Controlling:- Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions.
6. Co-ordination:- Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities.
7. Motivating:- The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.

Subsidiary Functions:

1. Innovation:- Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.
2. Representation:- A manager has to act as representative of a company. It is the duty of every manager to have good relation with others.
3. Decision-making:- Every employee of an organisation has to take a number of decisions every day. Decision-making helps in the smooth functioning of an organisation.
4. Communication:- Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Communication helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Functions of Management Additional Questions and Answers

A. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Match the following:

(a)	Management process	–	(i)	Two categories
(b)	Management functions can be classified	–	(ii)	Primary function
(c)	Planning	–	(iii)	Subsidiary function
(d)	Innovation	–	(iv)	Management function

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
(A)	4	1	2	3
(B)	1	2	3	4
(C)	4	3	2	1
(D)	2	1	4	3

Answer:
(a) 4,1,2,3

Question 2
______ is the subsidiary function of management.
(a) Planning
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Innovation
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Innovation

Question 3.
Choose the odd one out.
(a) Directing
(b) Motivating
(c) Staffing
(d) Decision-making
Answer:
(d) Decision-making

Question 4.
Which one is not the main function of management?
(a) Communication
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Directing
(d) Motivating
Answer:
(a) Communication

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals.
Reason (R): Co-ordination is one of the subsidiary functions of management.
(a) Both are true
(b) (A) true but (R) is not correct
(c) (A) only true
(d) (R) only correct
Answer:
(b) (A) true but (R) is not correct

Question 6.
There are ______ subsidiary functions of management.
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Seven
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 7
______ function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.
(a) Organising
(b) Planning
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(c) Staffing

B. Fill in the blanks

1. Management functions are called as ______
2. A manager has to act as a ______ of a company.
3. ______ helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

Answers:

1. managerial process
2. representative
3. Communication

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How the functions of management can be classified?
Answer:
The functions of management can be classified into two categories. They are as follows:
(a) Main functions of Management
(b) Subsidiary functions of Management

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by communication?
Answer:
Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Workers are informed about what should be done, where it is to be done, how it is do be done and when it is to be done. Communication helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Solutions Chapter 2 Human Reproduction

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Human Reproduction Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The mature sperms are stored in the ________
(a) Seminiferous tubules
(b) Vas deferens
(c) Epididymis
(d) Seminal vesicle
Answer:
(c) Epididymis

Question 2.
The male sex hormone testosterone is secreted from ________
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Leydig cell
(c) Epididymis
(d) Prostate gland
Answer:
(b) Leydig cell

Question 3.
The glandular accessory organ which produces the largest proportion of semen is ________
(a) Seminal vesicle
(b) Bulbourethral gland
(c) Prostate gland
(d) Mucous gland
Answer:
(a) Seminal vesicle

Question 4.
The male homologue of the female clitoris is ________
(a) Scrotum
(b) Penis
(c) Urethra
(d) Testis
Answer:
(b) Penis

Question 5.
The site of embryo implantation is the ________
(a) Uterus
(b) Peritoneal cavity
(c) Vagina
(d) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(a) Uterus

Question 6.
The foetal membrane that forms the basis of the umbilical cord is ________
(a) Allantois
(b) Amnion
(c) Chorion
(d) Yolk sac
Answer:
(a) Allantois

Question 7.
The most important hormone in initiating and maintaining lactation after birth is ________
(a) Oestrogen
(b) FSH
(c) Prolactin
(d) Oxytocin
Answer:
(c) Prolactin

Question 8.
Mammalian egg is ________
(a) Mesolecithal and non-cleidoic
(b) Microlecithal and non-cleidoic
(c) Alecithal and non-cleidoic
(d) Alecithal and cleidoic
Answer:
(c) Alecithal and non-cleidoic

Question 9.
The process which the sperm undergoes before penetrating the ovum is ________
(a) Spermiation
(b) Cortical reaction
(c) Spermiogenesis
(d) Capacitation
Answer:
(d) Capacitation

Question 10.
The milk secreted by the mammary glands soon after child birth is called ________
(a) Mucous
(b) Colostrum
(c) Lactose
(d) Lactose
Answer:
(b) Colostrum

Question 11.
Colostrum is rich in ________
(a) IgE
(b) IgA
(c) IgD
(d) Ig M
Answer:
(b) IgA

Question 12.
The Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) is produced by ________
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) Pituitary gland
Answer:
(c) Sertoli cells

Question 13.
Which one of the following menstrual irregularities is correctly matched?
(a) Menorrhagia – excessive menstruation
(b) Amenorrhoea – absence of menstruation
(c) Dysmenorrhoea – irregularity of menstruation
(d) Oligomenorrhoea – painful menstruation
Answer:
(b) Amenorrhoea – absence of menstruation

Question 14.
Find the wrongly matched pair:
(a) Bleeding phase – fall in oestrogen and progesterone
(b) Follicular phase – rise in oestrogen
(c) Luteal phase – rise in FSH level
(d) Ovulatory phase – LH surge
Answer:
(c) Luteal phase – rise in FSH level

Question 15.
A – In human male, testes are extra abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs.
R – Scrotum acts as thermoregulator and keeps temperature lower by 2°C for normal sperm production.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A

Question 16.
A – Ovulation is the release of ovum from the Graafian follicle.
R – It occurs during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.
Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(c) A is true, R is false

Question 17.
A – Head of the sperm consists of acrosome and mitochondria.
R – Acrosome contains spiral rows of mitochondria.
(d) Both A and R are false
Assertion (A) and Reason (R)
(a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false

Question 18.
Mention the differences between spermiogenesis and spermatogenesis
Answer:

1. Spermiogenesis: Transformation of spermatids into mature sperm.
2. Spermatogenesis: Spermatogenesis is the sequence of events in the seminiferous tubules of testes that produces male gametes, the sperms.

Question 19.
At what stage of development are the gametes formed in new born male and female?
Answer:
In males, at puberty the spermatogonia (sperm mother cells) begin to undergo meiotic division and produces sperms through out life, whereas in females during the stage of foetal development, the germinal epithelial cells undergo mitosis and produce oogonia (egg mother cells) and they further enter prophase-I of meiosis-I forming primary oocytes and get arrested. No more oogonia is formed further. At puberty, out of million eggs (prime oocytes) produced at birth only 300-400 will ovulate till menopause.

Question 20.
Expand the acronyms

1. FSH
2. LH
3. hCG
4. hPL

Answer:

1. FSH – Follicle Stimulating Hormone
2. LH – Luteinizing Hormone
3. hCG – human Chorionic Gonadotropin
4. hPL – human Placental Lactogen

Question 21.
How is polyspermy avoided in humans?
Answer:
Once fertilization is accomplished, cortical granules from the cytoplasm of the ovum form a barrier called the fertilization membrane around the ovum preventing further penetration of other sperms. Thus polyspermy is prevented.

Question 22.
What is colostrum? Write its significance.
Answer:
The mammary glands secrete a yellowish fluid called colostrum during the initial few days after parturition. It has less lactose than milk and almost no fat, but it contains more proteins, vitamin A and minerals. Colostrum is also rich in  antibodies. This helps to protect the infant’s digestive tract against bacterial infection.

Question 23.
Placenta is an endocrine tissue. Justify.
Answer:
During pregnancy, the placenta acts as a temporary endocrine gland and produces large quantities of human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), human Chorionic Somatomammotropin (hCS) or human Placental Lactogen (hPL), oestrogens and progesterone which are essential For a normal pregnancy. A hormone called relaxin is also secreted during the later phase of pregnancy which helps in relaxation of the pelvic ligaments at the time of parturition.

Question 24.
Draw a labeled sketch of a spermatozoan.
Answer:

Question 25.
What is inhibin? State its functions.
Answer:
inhibin is a hormone secreted by Sertoli cells of testes which is involved in the negative feedback control of sperm production.

Question 26.
Mention the importance of the position of the testes in humans.
Answer:
The testes are positioned in such a way hanging out from the body in scrotal sac that provides optimal temperature 2°C to 3°C lower than internal body temperature for effective sperm production.

Question 27.
What is the composition of semen?
Answer:
Semen or seminal fluid is a milky white fluid which contains sperms and the seminal plasma, which is secreted from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland and the bulbourethral glands.

Question 28.
Name the hormones produced from the placenta during pregnancy, human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
Answer:

1. human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
2. Relaxin.

Question 29.
Define gametogenesis.
Answer:
Gametogenesis is the process of formation of gametes i.e., sperms and ovary from the primary sex organs in all sexually reproducing organisms. Meiosis plays the most significant role in the process of gametogenesis.

Question 30.
Describe the structure of the human ovum with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

Human ovum is non-cleidoic, alecithal and microscopic in nature. Its cytoplasm called ooplasm contains a large nucleus called the germinal vesicle. The ovum is surrounded by three coverings namely an inner thin transparent vitelline membrane, middle thick zona pellucida and outer thick coat of follicular cells called corona radiata. Between the vitelline membrane and zona pellucida is a narrow perivitelline space.

Question 31.
Give a schematic representation of spermatogenesis and oogenesis in humans
Answer:

Question 32.
Explain the various phases of the menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The menstrual or ovarian cycle occurs approximately once in every 28/29 days during the reproductive life of the female from menarche (puberty) to menopause except during pregnancy. The cycle of events starting from one menstrual period till the next one is called the menstrual cycle during which cyclic changes occurs in the endometrium every month. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase.

Menstrual cycle comprises of the following phases:

1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular or proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal or secretory phase

1. Menstrual phase: The cycle starts with the menstrual phase when menstrual flow occurs and lasts for 3-5 days. Menstrual flow is due to the breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus, and its blood vessels due to decline in the level of progesterone and oestrogen. Menstruation occurs only if the released ovum is not fertilized. Absence of menstruation may be an indicator of pregnancy. However it could also be due to stress, hormonal disorder and anaemia.

2. Follicular or proliferative phase: The follicular phase extends from the 5th day of the cycle until the time of ovulation. During this phase, the primary follicle in the ovary grows to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously, the endometrium regenerates through proliferation. These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by the secretion of gonadotropins like FSH and LH, which increase gradually during the follicular phase. It stimulates follicular development and secretion of oestrogen by the follicle cells.

3. Ovulatory phase: Both LH and FSH attain peak level in the middle of the cycle (about the 14th day). Maximum secretion of LH during the mid cycle called LH surge induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of the ovum (secondary oocyte) from the ovary wall into the peritoneal cavity. This process is called as ovulation.

4. Luteal or secretory phase: During luteal phase, the remaining part of the Graafian follicle is transformed into a transitory endocrine gland called corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. If fertilization takes place, it paves way for the implantation of the fertilized ovum.

The uterine wall secretes nutritious fluid in the uterus for the foetus. So, this phase is also called as secretory phase. During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates completely and leaves a scar tissue called corpus albicans. It also initiates the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation, marking the next cycle.

Question 33.
Explain the role of oxytocin and relaxin in parturition and lactation.
Answer:

1. Relaxin is the hormone secreted by placenta that cause the contraction of pelvic joints and promotes parturition (child birth).
2. Oxytocin causes the Let-down reflex – the actual ejection of milk from the alveoli of mammary glands. Oxytocin also stimulates the uterus to regain its pre-pregnancy size after child birth.

Question 34.
Identify the given image and label its parts marked as a, b, c and d.

Answer:
The given image is the diagram of human egg cell or ovum
a – vitelline membrane
b – Nucleus
c – Zona pellucida
d – Corona radiata

Question 35.
The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events (a-i) in a human female.

(a) Identify the figure that illustrates ovulation and mention the stage of oogenesis it represents.
(b) Name the ovarian hormone and the pituitary hormone that have caused the above- mentioned events.
(c) Explain the changes that occurs in the uterus simultaneously in anticipation.
(d) Write the difference between C and H.
Answer:
(a) name of types:
A- Primordial follicle
B- Primary follicle
C- Secondary follicle
D-Tertiary follicle
E- Mature graafian follicle
F- Ovulation (release of egg)
G- Empty Graafian follicle
H- Corpus luteum
I – Corpus albicans.

(b) Pituitary hormones: Follicle Stimulating Hormones (FSH) and Lutenizing Hormone (LH). Ovarian hormones: Estrogen and Progesterone.

(c) At the start of menstrual cycle, the endometrium of uterus starts regenerating through proliferation of cells induced by FSH and CH. After ovulation, the progesterone secreted by corpus luteum prepares the endometrium (uterine wall) to receive the egg if it is fertilized.

(d) C- Secondary follicle H – Corpus luteum During development of ovum, the primary follicle gets surrounded by many layers of granular Cells and forms a new layer called secondary follicle. Corpus luteum is the empty graafian follicle that remains after ovulation. It acts as a transitory endocrine gland secreting progesterone to maintain pregnancy.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Human Reproduction Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
The developing spermatoza are nourished by _________
(a) Leydig cells
(b) Sertoli cells
(c) Follicular cells
(d) Epididymis
Answer:
(b) Sertoli cells

Question 2.
Identify the correct sequence of reproductive events in human beings.
(a) Insemination, Implantation, Fertilization, Parturition and Placentation.
(b) Implantation, Fertilization, Insemination, Placentation and Parturition.
(c) Implantation, Insemination, Fertilization, Parturition and Placentation.
(d) Insemination, Fertilization, Implantation, Placentation and Parturition.
Answer:
(d) Insemination, Fertilization, Implantation, Placentation and Parturition.

Question 3.
Expulsion of baby from the mother’s womb is referred as _________
Answer:
(a) Ejection
(b) Relaxation
(c) Parturition
(d) Implantation
Answer:
(c) Parturition

Question 4.
Match the Column I with Column II

Answer:
(a) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is not correct?
(i) Interstitial cells are seen surrounding the seminiferous tubule.
(ii) Nurse cells secrete inhibin.
(iii)Males have single prostate gland which encircles the urethra.
(iv) Insemination, Fertilization, Implantation, Placentation and Parturition.
(a) i and ii
(b) iii only
(c) iii and iv
(d) iv only
(d) iv only
Answer:
(d) iv only

Question 6.
Assertion (A): In scrotum, the temperature is maintained 2 – 3°C lower than body temperature.
Reason (R): Reduced temperature results in efficient sperm production.
(a) R explains A.
(b) A is right R is wrong.
(c) A and R are right. R does not explains A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) R explains A.

Question 7.
Assertion (A): The acrosome of the sperm cell contains sperm lysin.
Reason (R): Sperm lysin destroys the deformed sperm cells.
(a) R explains A.
(b) A is right, R is wrong.
(c) A and R are right. R does not explains A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(A) A is right, R is wrong.

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Human ovum is non – cieidoic
Reason (R): Human does not contain yolk.
(a) R explains A.
(b) A is right, R is wrong.
(c) A and R are right. R does not explains A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A and R are right. R does not explains A.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Menopause refers to the absence of menstruation during pregnancy.
Reason (R): Ovulation occurs during menstrual phase.
(a) R explains A.
(b) A is right, R is wrong.
(c) A and R are right. R does not explains A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are wrong.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Cervix is common site of ectopic pregnancies
Reason (R): Implantation of fertilized ovum outside uterus.
(a) A is wrong, R is right.
(b) A is right, R is wrong.
(c) A and R are right. R does not explains A.
(d) Both A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is wrong, R is right.

Question 11.
Which of the following contributes to the seminal plasma?
(i) Cowper’s gland
(ii) Seminal vesicles
(iii) Prostate gland
(iv) Bulbourethral gland
(a) ii, iii and ii
(b) i, ii, and iii
(c) i, iii and iv
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 12.
Organ of copulation in human female is _________
(a) Cevix
(b) Fundus
(c) Vagina
(d) Uterus
Answer:
(c) Vagina

Question 13.
Identify the gland which is homologous to the Cowper’s glands of male.
(a) Bartholin’s gland
(b) Bulbourethral gland
(c) Prostate gland
(d) Skene’s gland
Answer:
(a) Bartholin’s gland

Question 14.
Find out the proper sequence representing the parts of female reproductive system.
(a) Vagina → Ovary → Uterus → Cervix → Infundibulum → Oviduct
(b) Vagina → Ovary → Oviduct → Infundibulum → Cervix → Uterus
(c) Ovary → Infundibulum → Oviduct → Uterus → Cervix → Vagina
(d) Oviduct → Ovary → Uterus → Infundibulum Vagina → Cervix
Answer:
(c) Ovary- Infundibulum → Oviduct → Uterus → Cervix → Vagina

Question 15.
Spermatid → spermatozoa. What does ‘A’ stands for?
(a) Spermatogenesis
(b) Spermiation
(c) Spermiogenesis
(d) Gametogenesis
Answer:
(c) Spermiogenesis

Question 16.
An adult male produces an average of…………….. sperms per day
(a) 200 million
(b) 300 million
(c) 300 billion
(d) 120 million
Answer:
(a) 200 million

Question 17.
Statement (1): During spermiation, the sperms are released into the cavity of I seminiferous tubule.
Statement (2): During spermiogenesis, the spermatids get mature into sperms.
(a) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 18.
Statement (1): Siamese twins are conjoined twins who are joined during birth.
Statement (2): Dizygotic twins will be of same sex.
(a) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(a) Statment 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 19.
Statement (1): The endometrium acts as transitory endocrine gland secreting
progesterone
Statement (2): Progesterone maintain pregnancy
(а) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct

Question 20.
Statement (1): Human pregnancy lasts for 35 weeks.
Statement (2): During gestation, embryo’s heat develops during 12th week.
(a) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Question 21.
Statement (1): Menstrual cycle occurs once in every 29 days.
Statement (2): The average age of menopause is 45-50 years.
(a) Statement 1 is correct; statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect; statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 22.
The first ejaculation of the semen in male is called as ___________
Answer:
Spermarche

Question 23.
Identify the mismatched pair.
(a) Castration – Orchidectomy
(b) Spermiogenesis – Release of sperms into the cavity of seminiferous tubule
(c) Ovulation – Release of egg from ovary
(d) Capacitation – Process enabling the sperm to penetrate the egg.
Answer:
(b) Spermiogenesis – Release of sperms into the cavity of seminiferous tuble.

Question 24.
Given below are the extra embryonic membranes of which identify the outermost membrane
(a) Amnion
(b) Chorion
(c) Yolk sac
(d) Allantois
Answer:
(b) Chorion

Question 25.
Identify the given figure and select the correct option representing X, Y and Z.

Answer:
(b) Acrosome, Nucleus and Mitochondria

Question 26.
The entire process of spermatogenesis takes about ________ days
(a) 60 days
(b) 44 days
(c) 64 days
(d) 50 days
Answer:
(c) 64 days

Question 27.
Observe the diagram and select the correct option denoting the proper sequence of parts.

Answer:
(b) Fimbriae, Infundibulum, Uterus and Isthmus

Question 28.
Pick out the incorrect statements.
(a) The upper rounded portion of uterus is fundus.
(b) Uterus open into vagina through narrow cervix.
(c) Cervix is the organ of copulation in female.
(d) Vagina extends from the cervix and opens to exterior.
Answer:
(c) Cervix is the organ of copulation in female.

Question 29.
What is the role of fimbriae?
(a) Secretion of oestrogen and prolactin.
(b) Helps in the collection of the ovum after ovulation.
(c) Attaches the ovary to the abdominal cavity.
(d) Connects oviduct with ovary.
Answer:
(b) Helps in the collection of the ovum after ovulation.

Question 30.
Name the enzyme found in the acrosomal tip of sperm cell.
Answer:
Hyaluronidase

Question 31.
Which is not a correct statement regarding Oogenesis?
Answer:
(i) During foetal development, cells in germinal epithelium of foetal ovary undergo , mitosis and produce oogonia.
(ii) Oogonial cell divide and enter into prophase I of meiosis I and from primary oocytes.
(iii)Primary oocytes later develop into primary follicles.
(iv) No oogonia is formed or added after the foetal birth.
(a) Only i
(b) ii and iii
(c) iv only
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 32.
In embryo development of human beings, how long does it takes for a zygote to convert into morula?
(a) 24hrs
(b) 36hrs
(c)48hrs
(d) 72hrs
Answer:
(d) 72 hrs

Question 33.
Identify the hormone which is produced only during the time of pregnancy
(a) Relaxin
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Progesterone
(d) Cortisol
Answer:
(a) Relaxin

Question 34.
The type of antibodies present in colostrum.
(a) IgE
(b) IgM
(c) IgA
(d) IgB
Answer:
(c) IgA

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Enumerate the functions of reproductive system.
Answer:
The reproductive system has four main functions namely,

1. to produce the gametes namely sperms and ova
2. to transport and sustain these gametes
3. to nurture the developing offspring
4. to produce hormones

Question 2.
Define the terms

1. Insemination
2. Fertilization.

Answer:

1. Insemination: Transfer of sperms by the male into the female genital tract.
2. Fertilization: Fusion of male and female gametes to form zygote, called fertilization.

Question 3.
What are seminiferous tubules? Mention its role.
Answer:
Seminiferous tubules are highly coiled tubules seen in the lobules of testis. They occupy 80% – of testicular substance. They are the site for sperm production.

Question 4.
Name the cells noticed in the epithelial layer of seminiferous tubule.
Answer:

1. Sertoli cells or Nurse cells
2. Spermatogonic cells or male germ cells.

Question 5.
Mention the role epididymis.
Answer:

1. Epididymis is a temporary store house for sperms.
2. Sperms undergo physiological maturation, increased motility and fertilizing capacity inside epididymis.

Question 6.
Seminal plasma is acidic or alkaline. Write its composition.
Answer:

1. Seminal plasma is alkaline in nature.
2. It contains fructose, ascorbic acid, prostaglandins and a coagulating enzyme called „ vesiculase.

Question 7.
Define Semen.
Answer:
Semen or seminal fluid is a milky white fluid which contains sperms and the seminal plasma, which is secreted from the seminal vesicles, prostate gland and the bulbourethral glands.

Question 8.
Why do males have Penis?
Answer:

1. Penis is the male external genitalia.
2. It functions as both excretory and copulatory organ.
3. It is made of special tissue that erects the penis to facilitate insemination.

Question 9.
Point out the female accessory organs.
Answer:
Fallopian tubes, Uterus and Vagina.

Question 10.
Define the nature of uterus.
Answer:
The uterus or womb is a hollow, thick-walled, muscular, highly vascular and inverted pear shaped structure lying in the pelvic cavity between the urinary bladder and rectum.

Question 11.
What are the components that make up external genitalia female?
Answer:
Labia Majora, Labia Minora, Hymen and Clitoris.

Question 12.
Name the accessory reproductive glands in female which are homologous to (a) Cowper’s gland and (b) Prostate gland.
Answer:
In female, Bartholin’s gland is homologous to Cowper’s gland and Skene’s gland is homologous to prostate gland.

Question 13.
Define Gametogenesis.
Answer:
Gametogenesis is the process of formation of gametes i.e., sperms and ovary from the primary ,sex organs in all sexually reproducing organisms. Meiosis plays the most significant role in the process of gametogenesis.

Question 14.
Define the terms

1. Spermiogenesis
2. Spermiation

Answer:

1. Spermiogenesis : Transformation of spermatids into mature sperm.
2. Spermiation : Release of mature sperm into the lumen of seminiferous tubule.

Question 15.
What do you mean by ‘Sperm lysin’? Mention its function.
Answer:

1. Sperm lysin is a proteolytic enzyme secreted in the acrosome of sperm.
2. It helps to penetrate the ovum during fertilization.
3. It is also called as hyaluronidase.

Question 16.
Name the four phases of menstrual cycle.
Answer:

1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular or proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal or secretory phase

Question 17.
What is corpus albicans?
Answer:
In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates completely and leaves a scar tissue called corpus albicans. It also initiates the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation, marking the next cycle.

Question 18.
Define menopause.
Answer:
Menopause is the phase in a women’s life when ovulation and menstruation stops. The average age of menopause is 45-50 years. It indicates the permanent cessation of the primary functions of the ovaries.

Question 19.
When does capacitation occurs? Define it.
Answer:
The sperms deposited in the female reproductive tract undergo capacitation. It is a bio chemical event that makes the sperm to penetrate and fertilize the egg.

Question 20.
Write a brief note on ectopic pregnancy?
Answer:
If the fertilized ovum is implanted outside the uterus it results in ectopic pregnancy. About 95 percent of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube. The growth of the embryo may cause internal bleeding, infection and in some cases even death due to rupture of the fallopian tube.

Question 21.
Point out the extra embryonic membranes of human embryo.
Answer:

1. amnion
2. Chorion
3. allantois
4. Yolk nac

Question 22.
What is placenta?
Answer:
Placenta is a temporary endocrine organ formed during pregnancy and it connects the foetus to the uterine wall through the umbilical cord. It is the organ by which the nutritive, respiratory and excretory functions are fulfilled.

Question 23.
Name the organs developed from embryonic ectoderm.
Answer:
Brain and spinal cord (CNS), peripheral nervous system (PNS), epidermis and its derivatives and mammary glands.

Question 24.
Mention the hormones secreted by the placenta during pregnancy.
Answer:

1. human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
2. human Chorionic Somatomammotropin (hCS)
3. human Placental Lactogen (hPL)
4. Oestrogen and progesterone and relaxin.

Question 25.
Name the hormones that are secreted in human only during pregnancy.
Answer:

1. human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)
2. human Chorionic Somatomammotropin (hCS)
3. relaxin

Question 26.
State the role of relaxin.
Answer:
Relaxin is an hormone secreted by the placenta during the later phase of pregnancy. It helps in relaxation of pelvis during child birth.

Question 27.
Define parturition and labour.
Answer:
Parturition is the completion of pregnancy and giving birth to the baby. The series of events that expels the infant from the uterus is collectively called “labour”.

Question 28.
What do you mean by ‘false labour’?
Answer:
Throughout pregnancy the uterus undergoes periodic episodes of weak and strong contractions, fhese contractions called Braxter-Hick’s contractions lead to false labour.

Question 29.
Explain the term C-section.
Answer:
When normal vaginal delivery is not possible due to factors like position of the baby and nature of the placenta, the baby is delivered through a surgical incision in the woman’s abdomen and uterus. It is also termed as abdominal delivery or Caesarean Section or ‘C’ Section.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Compare gametogenesis with organogenesis.
Answer:
Gametogenesis:

1. Formation of gametes i.e., Sperm and Ova.
2. It takes place in gonads.

Organogenesis:

1. Formation of tissues, organs and organ system.
2. It takes place in the embryonic germ layers.

Question 2.
What are primary reproductive organs? What role does they play in organisms?
Answer:
The primary reproductive organs namely the ovary and testis are responsible for producing the ova and sperms respectively. Hormones secreted by the pituitary gland and the gonads help in the development of the secondary sexual characteristics, maturation of the reproductive system and regulation of normal functioning of the reproductive system.

Question 3.
Scrotum acts as a thermoregulator – Justify.
Answer:
The scrotum is a sac of skin that hangs outside the abdominal cavity. Since viable sperms cannot be produced at normal body temperature, the scrotum is placed outside the abdominal cavity to provide a temperature 2-3°C lower than the normal internal body temperature. Thus, the scrotum acts as a thermoregulator for spermatogenesis.

Question 4.
Write any three statements on Sertoli cells.
Answer:

1. Sertoli cells are elongated and pyramidal cells.
2. They provide nourishment to sperm till maturation.
3. They secrete a hormone called inhibin which is involved in negative feedback control of sperm production.

Question 5.
Give a brief account on leydig cells.
Answer:

1. Interstitial cells of Leydig are seen embedded in the soft connective tissue surrounding the seminiferous tubules.
2. These cells are endocrine natured and produce testosterone (androgen).
3. These cells are characteristic to mammalian testes.

Question 6.
Name the accessory glands of male reproductive system.
Answer:

1. A pair of seminal vesicles.
2. A pair of bulbourethral gland (Cowper’s gland).
3. A single prostate gland.

Question 7.
State the location and secretion of prostate gland.
Answer:
The prostate encircles the urethra and is just below the urinary bladder and secretes a slightly acidic fluid that contains citrate, several enzymes and prostate specific antigens.

Question 8.
Write a note on hymen.
Answer:
The external opening of the vagina is partially closed by a thin ring of tissue called the hymen. The hymen is often tom during the first coitus (physical union). However in some women it remains intact. It can be stretched or tom due to a sudden fall or jolt and also during strenuous physical activities such as cycling and horseback riding, etc., and therefore cannot be considered as an indicator of a woman’s virginity.

Question 9.
“Role of hormones in spermatogenesis” – comment on the statement.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty and is initiated due to the increase in the release of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the secretion of two gonadotropins namely Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Lutenizing Hormone (LH). FSH stimulates testicular growth and enhances the production of Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) by the Sertoli cells and helps in the process of spermiogenesis. LH acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates the synthesis of testosterone which in turn stimulates the process of spermatogenesis.

Question 10.
Define menstrual cycle.
Answer:
The menstrual or ovarian cycle occurs approximately once in every 28/29 days during the reproductive life of the female from menarche (puberty) to menopause except during pregnancy. The cycle of events starting from one menstrual period till the next one is called the menstrual cycle during which cyclic changes occurs in the endometrium every month. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase.

Question 11.
Luteal phase of menstrual cycle is also called as secretory phase. Why?
Answer:
After ovulation, the graafian follicle turns into corpus luteum (a transistory endocrine gland) which secrets progesterone. Progesterone maintain endometrium for implantation of fertilized ovum, the endometrium of uterus also secretes nutritious fluid for the foetus. Hence this phase is also referred as secretory phase.

Question 12.
Menstrual hygiene is essential for women. Why?
Answer:
Menstrual hygiene is vital for good health, well-being, dignity, empowerment and productivity of women. The impact of poor menstrual hygiene on girls is increased stress levels, fear and embarrassment during menstruation. This can keep girls inactive during such periods leading to absenteeism from school.

Question 13.
Name the absorbents or materials used to manage menstruation.
Answer:
Clean and safe absorbable clothing materials, sanitary napkins, pads, tampons and menstrual cups have been identified as materials used to manage menstruation.

Question 14.
Explain acrosomal reaction.
Answer:
The follicular cells of egg are held together by an adhesive cementing substance called hyaluronic acid. The acrosomal membrane disintegrates releasing the proteolytic enzyme, hyaluronidase during sperm entry through the corona radiata and zona pellucida. This is called
acrosomal reaction.

Question 15.
Differentiate between monozygotic and Dizygotic twins.
Answer:
Monozygotic twins:

1. Monozygotic (Identical) twins are produced when a single fertilized egg splits into two during the first cleavage.
2. They are of the same sex, look alike and share the same genes.

Dizygotic twins:

1. Dizygotic (Fraternal) twins are produced when two separate eggs are fertilized by two separate sperms.
2. The twins may be of the same sex or different sex and are non-identical.

Question 16.
What is morula?
Answer:
The first cleavage in zygote produces two identical cells called blastomeres. These produce 4 cells, then 8 and so on. After 72 hours of fertilization, a loose collection of cells forms a berry shaped cluster of 16 or more cells called the morula.

Question 17.
Explain gastrulation.
Answer:
The inner cell mass in the blastula is differentiated into epiblast and hypoblast immediately after implantation. The hypoblast is the embryonic endoderm and the epiblast is the ectoderm. The cells remaining in between the epiblast and the endoderm form the mesoderm. Thus the transformation of the blastocyst into a gastrula with the primary germ layers by the movement of the blastomeres is called gastrulation.

Question 18.
Name the three primary germ layers of embryo. Also mention any three organs or ortgan systems developing from each layer.
Answer:

Question 19.
Define lactation and explain its hormonal background.
Answer:
Lactation is the production of milk by mammary glands. The mammary glands show changes during every menstrual cycle, during pregnancy and lactation. Increased level of oestrogens, progesterone and human Placental Lactogen (hPL) towards the end of pregnancy stimulate the hypothalamus towards prolactin – releasing factors. The anterior pituitary responds by secreting prolactin which plays a major role in lactogenesis.

Question 20.
What is “let-down reflex”?
Answer:
Oxytocin causes the “Let-Down” reflex the actual ejection of milk from the alveoli of the mammary glands. During lactation, oxytocin also stimulates the recently emptied uterus to contract, helping it to return to pre – pregnancy size.

Question 21.
Explain Foetal-ejection reflex.
Answer:
As the pregnancy progresses, increase in the oestrogen concentration promotes uterine contractions. These uterine contractions facilitate moulding of the foetus and downward movement of the foetus. The descent of the foetus causes dilation of cervix of the uterus and vaginal canal resulting in a neurohumoral reflex called Foetal ejection reflex or Ferguson reflex. This initiates the secretion of oxytocin from the neurohypophysis which in turn brings about the powerful contraction of the uterine muscles and leads to the expulsion of the baby through the birth canal.

Question 22.
Give an account on uterine wall layers.
Answer:
The wall of the uterus has three layers of tissues. The outermost thin membranous serous layer called the perimetrium, the middle thick muscular layer called myometrium and the inner glandular layer called endometrium. The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle while myometrium exhibits strong contractions during parturition

5 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Describe the structure of human ovary.
Answer:

1. Ovaries are the primary female sex organ producing eggs (ovum).
2. They are located one on each side of lower abdomen (pelvis).
3. The ovary is attached in pelvic wall uterus by an ovarian ligament called mesovarium.
4. It is an elliptical structure of 2-4 cm long
5. Each ovary is covered by thin cuboidal germinal epithelium encloses ovarian stroma.
6. Below germinal epithelium is a dense connective tissue called tunica albuginea.
7. The stroma is differentiated into outer cortex and inner medulla.
8. The cortex is dense and granular due to follicular cells at varying development stages.
9. The medulla is a loose connective tissue with blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerve

Question 2.
Explain the structure and function of mammary glands.
Answer:
The mammary glands are modified sweat glands present in both sexes. It is rudimentary in the males and functional in the females. A pair of mammary glands is located in the thoracic region. It contains glandular tissue and variable quantities of fat with a median nipple surrounded by a pigmented area called the areola. Several sebaceous glands called the areolar glands are found on the surface and they reduce cracking of the skin of the nipple. Internally each mammary gland consists of 2-25 lobes, separated by fat and connective tissues.

Each lobe is made up of lobules which contain acini or alveoli lined by epithelial cells. Cells of the alveoli secrete milk. The alveoli open into mammary tubules. The tubules of each lobe join to form a mammary duct. Several mammary ducts join to form wider mammary ampulla which is connected to the lactiferous duct in the nipple. Under the nipple, each lactiferous duct expands to form the lactiferous sinus which serves as a reservoir of milk. Each lactiferous duct opens separately by a minute pore on the surface of the nipple.

Normal development of the breast begins at puberty and progresses with changes during each menstrual cycle. In non-pregnant women, the glandular structure is largely underdeveloped and the breast size is largely due to amount of fat deposits. The size of the breast does not have an influence on the efficiency of lactation.

Question 3.
Describe the spermatogenesis with diagram.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis is the sequence of events in the seminiferous tubules of the testes that produce the male gametes, the sperms.
During development, the primordial germ cells migrate into the testes and become immature germ cells called sperm mother cells or spermatogonia in the inner surfaces of the seminiferous tubules. The spermatogonia begin to undergo mitotic division at puberty and continue throughout life.

In the first stage of spermatogenesis, the spermatogonia migrate among sertoli cells towards the central lumen of the seminiferous tubule and become modified and enlarged to form primary spermatocytes which are diploid with 23 pairs i.e., 46 chromosomes. Some of the primary spermatocytes undergo first meiotic division to form two secondary spermatocytes which are haploid with 23 chromosomes each.

The secondary spermatocytes undergo second meiotic division to produce four haploid spermatids. The spermatids are transformed into mature spermatozoa (sperms) by the process called spermiogenesis. Sperms are finally released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules by a process called spermiation The whole process of spermatogenesis takes about 64 days. At any given time, different regions of the seminiferous tubules contain spermatocytes in different stages of development.

The sperm production remains nearly constant at a rate of about 200 million sperms per day. Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty and is initiated due to the increase in the – release of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the secretion of two gonadotropins namely Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Lutenizing Hormone (LH). FSH stimulates testicular growth and enhances the production of Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) by the sertoli cells and helps in the process of spermiogenesis. LH acts on the Leydig cells and stimulates the synthesis of testosterone which in turn stimulates the process of spermatogenesis.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of human spermatozoan.
Answer:
The human sperm is a microscopic, flagellated and motile gamete. The whole body of the sperm is enveloped by P plasma membrane and is composed of a head, neck and a tail. The head comprises of two parts namely acrosome and nucleus. Acrosome is a small cap like pointed structure present at the tip of the nucleus and is formed mainly from the Golgi body of the spermatid. It contains hyaluronidase, a proteolytic enzyme, popularly known as sperm lysin which I helps to penetrate the ovum during fertilization. The nucleus is flat and oval. The neck is very short and is present between the head and the middle piece. It contains the proximal centriole towards the nucleus which plays a role in the first

division of the zygote and the distal centriole gives rise to I the axial filament of the sperm. The middle piece possesses mitochondria spirally twisted around the axial filament called mitochondrial spiral or nebenkem. It produces energy in the form of ATP molecules for the movement of sperms.The tail is the longest part of the sperm and is slender and tapering. It is formed of a central ! axial filament or axoneme and an outer protoplasmic sheath. The lashing movements of the tail, push the sperm forward.

Question 5.
Explain the process of oogenesis.
Answer:
Oogenesis is the process of development of the female gamete or ovum or egg in the ovaries. During foetal development, certain cells in the germinal epithelium of the foetal ovary divide by mitosis and produce millions of egg mother cells or oogonia. No more oogonia are formed or added after birth.

The oogonial cells start dividing and enter into Prophase-I of meiotic division-I to form the primary oocytes which are temporarily arrested at this stage. The primary oocytes then get surrounded by a single layer of granulosa cells to form the primordial or primary follicles. A large number of follicles degenerate during the period from birth to puberty, so at puberty only 60,000 to 80,000 follicles are left in each ovary.

The primary follicle gets surrounded by many layers of granulosa cells and a new theca layer to form the secondary follicle. A fluid filled Oogenesis space, the antrum develops in the follicle and gets transformed into a tertiary follicle. The theca layer gets organized into an inner theca interna and an outer theca externa. At this time, the primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle grows in size and completes its first meiotic division and forms the secondary oocyte.

It is an unequal division resulting in the formation of a large haploid secondary oocyte and a first polar body. The first polar body disintegrates. During fertilization, the secondary oocyte undergoes second meiotic division and produces a large cell, the ovum and a second polar body. The second polar body also degenerates. The tertiary follicle eventually becomes a mature follicle or Graafian follicle. If fertilisation does not take place, second meiotic division is never completed and the egg disintegrates. At the end of gametogenesis in females, each primary oocyte gives rise to only one haploid ovum.

Question 6.
Write a note on embryonic membranes
Answer:
The extra embryonic membranes include amnion, yolk sac, allantois and chorion. They protect the embryo from dessication, mechanical shock, absorption of nutrients, gaseous exchange and placental formatio
Answer:

Question 7.
Name the three primary germ layers of embryo. Also mention any three organs or organ systems developing from each layer.
Answer:

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Questio 1.
Give the alternate terminologies for

1. Spermatogonia
2. Embryonic ectoderm

Answer:

1. Spermatogonia = Sperm mother cell
2. Embryonic ectoderm = hypoblast

Question 2.
Mention the production site and action site of following hormones.
(a) GnRH
(b) Relaxin
Answer:

Questio 3.
May 28th is celebrated as annual Menstrual Hygiene Day (MHD). State its importance.
Answer:
MHgD aims to create awareness of importance for women and girls to hygienically manage their menstruation. Menstrual hygiene is vital for good health, well-being, dignity, empowerment and productivity of women.

Questio 4.
Suggest few hygiene tips to face healthy and happy menses.
Answer:

1. Change the napkins periodically for 4 to 6 hours.
2. Wash your genitals properly using clean lukewarm water.
3. Avoid using soaps and vaginal hygiene products.
4. Discard the sanitary napkins by incinerating.
5. Wear clean and comfortable underwear. Avoid tight clothing.
6. Have healthy diet rich in Iron content and vitamins.

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Reproduction in Organisms Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which type of parthenogenesis are only males produced?
(a) Arrhenotoky
(b) Thelytoky
(c) Amphitoky
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(a) Arrhenotoky

Question 2.
Animals giving birth to young ones:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Ovoviviparous
(c) Viviparous
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(c) Viviparous

Question 3.
The mode of reproduction in bacteria is by ___________
(a) Formation of gametes
(b) Endospore formation
(c) Conjugation
(d) Zoospore formation
Answer:
(c) Conjugation

Question 4.
In which mode of reproduction variations are seen?
(a) Asexual
(b) Parthenogenesis
(c) Sexual
(d) Both a and b
Answer:
(c) Sexual

Question 5.
Assertion and reasoning questions:
In each of the following questions there are two statements. One is assertion (A) and other is reasoning (R). Mark the correct answer as
(a) If both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) If A is true but R is false
(d) If both A and R are false
I. Assertion: In bee society, all the members are diploid except drones.
Reason: Drones are produced by parthenogenesis.
A B C D
II. Assertion: Off springs produced by asexual reproduction are genetically identical to the parent.
Reason: Asexual reproduction involves only mitosis and no meiosis.
A B C D
III. Assertion: Viviparous animals give better protection to their off springs.
Reason: They lay their eggs in the safe places of the environment.
A B C D
Answer:
(I) A (II) A (III) C

Question 6.
Name an organism where cell division is itself a mode of reproduction.
Answer:
Amoeba

Question 7.
Name the phenomenon where the female gamete directly develops into a new organism with an avian example.
Answer:
Parthenogenesis is the phenomenon where the unfertilized female gamete (egg) develops into a new individual,
e.g. Turkey

Question 8.
What is parthenogenesis? Give two examples from animals.
Answer:
Development of an egg into a complete individual without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis. It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet in 1745.
E.g. Honey bees, Aphis.

Question 9.
Which type of reproduction is effective – Asexual or sexual and why?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction is highly effective than asexual reproduction since the off springs produced are genetically different from parents causing variations. Variation leads to evolution.

Question 10.
The unicellular organisms which reproduce by binary fission are considered immortal. Justify.
Answer:
In unicellular organisms during binary fission, the entire cell (organism) divides completely to form two daughter cells which later on develop into adult and the process goes on repeatedly during each division leading to immortality of cell (organism). Hence unicellular organisms like amoeba are ‘biologically immortal’.

Question 11.
Why is the offspring formed by asexual reproduction referred as a clone?
Answer:
Off springs developed by asexual reproduction are referred as clones since they are genetically & morphologically similar to this parent.

Question 12.
Why are the off springs of oviparous animal at a greater risk as compared to off springs of viviparous organisms?
Answer:
Oviparous animals are egg-layers. The eggs containing embryo are laid out of their body and are highly susceptible to environmental factors (temperature, moisture etc.) and predators. Whereas, in viviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the body of female and comes out as young ones. Hence off springs of oviparous animals are at risk compared to viviparous animal.

Question 13.
Give reasons for the following:

1. Some organisms like honey bees are called parthenogenetic animals
2. A male honey bee has 16 chromosomes whereas its female has 32 chromosomes

Answer:

1. Among honey bees, the queen bee and worker bees develop from fertilized eggs whereas the drones develop from unfertilized eggs. Hence the honey bees are parthenogenetic animals showing incomplete parthenogenesis.
2. Female honey bees (Queen or worker bees) are diploid having 32 chromosomes since they develop from the fertilized egg. On the other hand, the male honey bees (drones) develop from unfertilized egg possessing only 16 chromosomes (i.e., Haploid)

Question 14.
Differentiate between the following:
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple fission in Plasmodium
(b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra
(c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria
Answer:
(a) Binary fission in amoeba and multiple fission in Plasmodium

1. Binary fission in amoeba: In binary fission of amoeba, the plane of division is hard to observe. The nucleoli disintegrates. The nucleus divides mitotically forming two nucleus. The cell constricts in middle, so the cytoplasm divides forming two daughter cells.
2. Multiple fission: In Multiple fission of plasmodium, the oocyte or schizont divides into many similar daughter cells simultaneously. Nucleus undergoes repeated mitosis producing many nuclei without the division of cytoplasm. Later the cytoplasm divides & encircles each nucleus forming many daughter cells oocyte undergoes sporogony forming sporozoites. Schizont undergoes schizogony forming merozoites.

(b) Budding in yeast and budding in Hydra:

1. Budding in Yeast: Yeast is xxxx cellular organism in which the bud develops as a small protuberance following the nuclear division and finally detached to new individual.
2. Budding in Hydra: Hydra is a multicellular organism where the bud xxxxxx from the parents body, grows gradually and finally gets detached.

(c) Regeneration in lizard and Planaria:

1. Regeneration of Lizard: If the tail of the lizard is cut and removed, a new tail will regenerate in damaged part. In lizard only the new tail is regenerated.
2. Regeneration of Planaria: If a planarian worm get cut then each half regenerates the lost part resulting in two worms.
   In planaria, the cut removed part developed into an entire worm.

Question 15.
How is juvenile phase different from reproductive phase?
Answer:

1. Juvenile phase: Juvenile phase is the period of growth between the brith of an organism and before its reproductive maturity.
2. Reproduction phase: Reproductive phase is the period of growth after juvenile phase when an individual attain reproductive maturity and reproduces.

Question 16.
What is the difference between syngamy and fertilization?
Answer:
Syngamy & fertilization both are more similar terms with a difference that syngamy refers to the process of fusion of two gametes forming zygote while fertilization refers to the process of being fertile.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Zoology Reproduction in Organisms Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Transverse binary fission is noticed in ___________
(a) Amoeba
(b) Planaria
(c) Ceratium
(d) Vorticella
Answer:
(b) Planaria

Question 2.
Multiple fission occurring in the oocyte of plasmodium is called ___________
(a) Schizogony
(b) Merogamy
(c) Syngamy
(d) Sporogony
Answer:
(d) Sporogony

Question 3.
Taenia solium requires ___________ as a secondary host to complete its life cycle.
(a) Mosquito
(b) pig
(c) dog
(d) human
Answer:
(b) pig

Question 4.
Which type of parthenogenesis only females are produced?
(a) Arrhenotoky
(b) Amphitoky
(c) Thelytoky
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Thelytoky

Question 5.
Which among the following animal is not a continuous breeder?
(a) Hen
(b) Rabbit
(c) Honey bees
(d) Frogs
Answer:
(d) Frogs

Question 6.
Match the following.

Answer:
a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

Question 7.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding parthenogenesis.
(a) Development of sperm without fertilization.
(b) It was first discovered by Charles Bonnet.
(c) Honey bees exhibit incomplete parthenogenesis.
(d) Amphitoky is a type of natural parthenogenesis.
Answer:
(a) Development of sperm without fertilization.

Question 8.
Oblique binary fission is seen in ___________
Answer:
Dinoflagellates

Question 9.
The process by which gravid proglottids of tapeworm gets cut off is called ___________
Answer:
apolysis

Question 10.
The concept of regeneration was first noticed in ___________
Answer:
Hydra

Question 11.
Fusion of small sized, morphologically different gametes is called ___________
Answer:
merogamy

Question 12.
Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Oviparous animals lays eggs.
(b) Viviparous animals give rise to young ones.
(c) Ovoviviparous animals lays eggs and then hatch it to young ones.
(d) Amphibians are oviparous animals.
Answer:
(c) Ovoviviparous animals lays eggs and then hatch it to young ones.

Question 13.
Assertion (A): Organisms show three phases in their life cycle.
Reason (R): Juvenile phase is a degenerative phase.
(a) A is correct R but is incorrect.
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) R is the correct explanation for A
(d) A is not correct but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct R but is incorrect.

Question 14
Match the statements.

Answer:
a – iii, b – iv, c-i, d- ii.

Question 15.
The ploidy of males produced by arrhenotoky parthenogenesis is
Answer:
haploid

Question 16.
Identify the mismatched pair.
(a) Paedogenesis – Liver fluke
(b) Strobilation – Aurelia
(c) Amphitoky – Honey bee
(d) Encystment – Amoeba
Answer:
(c) Amphitoky – Honey bee

Question 17.
Identify the proper sequence.
(a) juvenile phase, senescent phase, vegetative phase
(b) juvenile phase, maturity phase, senescent phase
(c) vegetative phase, maturity phase, juvenile phase
(d) senescent phase, juvenile phase, vegetative phase
Answer:
(b) juvenile phase, maturity phase, senescent phase

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i

Question 19.
Which of the following types of asexual reproduction is noticed in Amoeba?
(a) Sporulation
(b) Encystment
(c) Binary fission
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 20.
Pick out the organism whose fertilization occurs internally.
(a) reptiles
(b) sponges
(c) pisces
(d) amphibians
Answer:
(a) reptiles

Question 21.
Assertion (A): Asexual reproduction is called blastogenic reproduction.
Reason (R): It is accomplished by mitotic and meiotic divisions.
(a) A and R are correct
(b) A is correct but R is incorrect
(c) Both A and R are incorrect
(d) R is the correct explanation for A
Answer:
(6) A is correct but R is incorrect

Question 22.
Egg laying hen is an example for ___________
(a) Thelytoky
(b) Ovovivipary
(c) Vivipary
(d) Ovipary
Answer:
(d) Ovipary

Question 23.
Assertion (A): Syngamy refers to the fusion of two haploid gametes.
Reason (R): Syngamy leads to zygote formation.
(a) A and R are correct.
(b) A and R are incorrect.
(c) R is not the right explanation for A
(d) A is correct but R is incorrect.
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct.

Question 24.
Human beings are an example for ___________ breeders.
Answer:
continuous

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Why asexual reproduction is called as somatogenic reproduction?
Answer:
Asexual reproduction is usually by amitotic or mitotic division of the somatic (body) cells, – hence is also known as somatogenic or blastogenic reproduction.

Question 2.
Name the four types of fission seen in animals.
Answer:
Binary fission, Multiple fission, Sporulation and Strobilation.

Question 3.
Define fission.
Answer:
Fission is the division of the parent body into two or more identical daughter individuals.

Question 4.
Differentiate between transverse binary fission and longitudinal binary fission.
Answer:
Transverse binary fission:

1. Plane of division runs along the transverse axis of the organism
2. Example: Paramecium

Longitudinal binary fission:

1. Plane of division runs along the longitudinal axis of the organism.
2. Example: Euglena

Question 5.
Define Plasmotomy with example.
Answer:
Plasmotomy is the division of multinucleated parent into many multinucleate daughter individuals with the division of nuclei. Nuclear division occurs later to maintain normal number of nuclei. Plasmotomy occurs in Opalina and Pelomyxa (Giant Amoeba).

Question 6.
What do you mean by regeneration in living organisms? Mention its types.
Answer:
Regeneration is the regrowth of injured region.
It is of two types:

1. Morphallaxis
2. Epimorphosis.

Question 7.
How is the fertilization of amphibians differs from aves based on site?
Answer:
In amphibians the fertilization is external (taking place outside the body of female organism) whereas internal fertilization takes place in aves.

Question 8.
What is Paedogamy?
Answer:
Paedogamy is the sexual union of young individuals produced immediately after the division of the adult parent cell by mitosis.

Question 9.
Write a brief note on conjugation.
Answer:
Conjugation is the temporary union of the two individuals of the same species. During their union both individuals, called the conjugants exchange certain amount of nuclear material (DNA) and then get separated. Conjugation is common among ciliates,
e.g. Paramecium, Vorticella and bacteria (Prokaryotes).

Question 10.
Classify animal breeding based on time.
Answer:
On the basis of time, breeding animals are of two types: seasonal breeders and continuous breeders. Seasonal breeders reproduce at particular period of the year such as frogs, lizards, most birds, deers etc., Continuous breeders continue to breed throughout their sexual maturity
e.g. honey bees, poultry, rabbit etc.

Question 11.
Define Vivipary.
Answer:
Vivipary is a condition in which animals give rise to live young ones after being nourished in the uterus though the placenta.
E.g. human.

Question 12.
List out the four types of binary fission.
Answer:

1. Simple irregular binary fission
2. Transverse binary fission
3. Longitudinal binary fission
4. Oblique binary fission

Question 13.
Repeated fission is a type of multiple fission. Yes or No? Why?
Answer:
Yes. If multiple fission produces four or many daughter individuals by equal cell division and the young ones do not separate until the process is complete, then this division is called repeated fission
e.g. Vorticella.

Question 14.
Define apolysis.
Answer:
The detachment of gravid proglottids either singly or in groups from the body of tapeworm is called apolysis.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 15.
Compare schizogony with sporogony of plasmodium.
Answer:
Schizogony:

1. In schizogony, the multiple fission occurs in the schizont.
2. It results in the formation of merozoites.

Sporogony:

1. In sporogony, the multiple fission occurs in the oocyte.
2. It results in the formation of sporozoites.

Question 16.
Write a short note on encystment in amoeba.
Answer:
During unfavorable conditions (increase or decrease in temperature, scarcity of food) Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a three-layered, protective, chitinous cyst wall around it and becomes inactive. This phenomenon is called encystment. When conditions become favourable, the encysted Amoeba divides by multiple fission and produces many minute amoebae called pseudopodiospore or amoebulae.

The cyst wall absorbs water and breaks off liberating the young pseudopodiospores, each with a fine pseudopodia. They feed and grow rapidly to lead an independent life.

Question 17.
How exogenous buds are developed by Hydra?
Answer:
When buds are formed on the outer surface of the parent body, it is known as exogenous budding e.g. Hydra. In Hydra when food is plenty, the ectoderm cells increase and form a small elevation on the body surface. Ectoderm and endoderm are pushed out to form the bud. The bud contains an interior lumen in continuation with parent’s gastrovascular cavity. The bud enlarges, develops a mouth and a circle of tentacles at its free end. When fully grown, the bud constricts at the base and finally separates from the parent body and leads an independent life.

Question 18.
Apolysis favours Taenia solium. How?
Answer:
In the tapeworm, Taenia solium the gravid (ripe) proglottids are the oldest at the posterior end of the strobila. The gravid proglottids are regularly cut off either singly or in groups from the posterior end by a process called apolysis. This is very significant since it helps in transferring the developed embryos from the primary host (man) to find a secondary host (pig).

Question 19.
What is autogamy?
Answer:
In autogamy, the male and female gametes are produced by the same cell or same organism and both the gametes fuse together to form a zygote
e.g. Actinosphaerium and Paramecium.

Question 20.
What is exogamy?
Answer:
In exogamy, the male and female gametes are produced by different parents and they fuse to form a zygote. So it is biparental. e.g. Human – dioecious or unisexual animal.

Question 21.
Give the definition for

1. Arrhenotoky
2. Thelytoky
3. Amphitoky

Answer:

1. Arrhenotoky: In this type only males are produced by parthenogenesis
   eg: honey bees
2. Thelytoky: In this type of parthenogenesis only females are produced by parthenogenesis.
   e.g: Solenobia
3. Amphitoky: In this type parthenogenetic egg may develop into individuals of any sex.
   e.g: Aphis.

Question 22.
What is Incomplete parthenogenesis? Explain with example.
Answer:
Incomplete parthenogenesis is a type of reproduction in which both sexual reproduction and parthenogenesis occurs. Example: In honey bees, the fertilized eggs develop into queen bee and worker bees, whereas the unfertilized eggs develop into drones (male).

Question 23.
Explain briefly on the nature of Ovovivipary.
In Ovoviviparous animals, the embryo develops inside the egg and remains in the mother’s body until they are ready to hatch. This method of reproduction is similar to viviparity but the embryos have no placental connection with the mother and receive their nourishment from the egg yolk. Ovoviviparity is seen in fishes like shark.

Question 24.
Point out any six modes of asexual reproduction seen in animals.
Answer:

1. fission
2.  budding
3. fragmentation
4. sporulation
5. regeneration
6. gemmule formation.

Question 25.
Enumerate the types of syngamy.
Answer:

1. Autogamy
2. Exogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Paedogamy
5. Merogamy
6. Isogamy
7. Anisogamy
8. Conjugation

Question 26.
Name the types of animals based on embryonic development with an example for each.
Answer:

1. Oviparous animals
   e.g. Birds
2. Viviparous animals
   e.g. Human beings
3. Ovoviviparous animals
   e.g. Shark

Question 27.
Write a short note on phases of life cycle.
Answer:

1. Juvenile phase – Period of growth between birth of an individual and reproductive maturity.
2. Reproductive phase – Period of growth when an organism attain reproductive maturity and produces new off springs.
3. Senescent plane – Period of growth when the structure and functioning of body starts degenerating.

Question 28.
What is a Paedogenesis?
Answer:
In paedogenetic parthenogenesis (paedogenesis) the larvae produce a new generation of larvae ” by parthenogenesis. It occurs in the sporocysts and Redia larvae of liver fluke. It is also seen in the larvae of some insects,
e.g. Gall fly.

Question 29.
Draw and label a gemmule of sponge.
Answer:

Question 30.
Differentiate between asexual and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction:

1.  Involves only one parent
2. Only mitotic cell division takes place.
3. Off springs are genetically identical to parent.
4. Gametes are not produced

Sexual Reproduction:

1. Involves two parents (male & female)
2. Both mitosis & meiosis takes place.
3. Off springs genetically differ from the parents.
4. Gametes are produced.

5 – mark Questions

Question 31.
Describe the regeneration process noticed in living organism.
Answer:
Regeneration is regrowth in the injured region. Regeneration was first studied in Hydra by Abraham Trembley in 1740. Regeneration is of two types, morphallaxis and epimorphosis. In morphallaxis the whole body grows from a small fragment e.g. Hydra and Planaria. When Hydra is accidentally cut into several pieces, each piece can regenerate the lost parts and develop into a whole new individual. The parts usually retain their original polarity, with oral ends, by developing tentacles and aboral ends, by producing basal discs.

Epimorphosis is the replacement of lost body parts. It is of two types, namely reparative and restorative regeneration. In reparative regeneration, only certain damaged tissue can be regenerated, whereas in restorative regeneration severed body parts can develop
e.g. star fish, tail of wall lizard.

Question 32.
Given an account on following terms.

1. Hologamy
2. Isogamy
3. Anisogamy
4. Merogamy
5. Paedogamy

Answer:

1. Hologamy: In Hologamy, the adult individuals do not produce gametes, but they themselves act as gametes and fuse to form new individuals.
   E.g : Trichonympha
2. Isogamy : Fusion of morphologically & physiologically similar gametes.
   E.g : Monocystis.
3. Anisogamy : Fusion of morphologically & physiologically dissimilar gametes.
   Eg: Vertebrates.
4. Merogamy : Fusion of small sized morphologically different gametes (merogametes)
5. Paedogamy : Fusion of young individuals produced immediately after the mitotic division of adult parent cell.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Question

Question 1.
Under threat or attack, garden lizard loses a part of its tail which trembles and avert the attention of predators, so that the lizard escapes later the tail regrown for lizard. The same phenomenon can also be noticed in organisms like starfish etc. What do you call this phenomenon? Define it.
Answer:
Regeneration is the regrowth in the injured region.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:
A – Only males
B – Only Females
C – Both Males & Females

Question 3.
In Vivipary, how the developing embryoes are nourished?
Answer:
In Vivipary, the embryo develops inside the womb of females body, hence they are nourished by the mother through placenta.

Question 4.
How Charles Bonnet and Abraham Trembley contributed to Biological filed?
Answer:
Charles Bonnet discovered the process of parthenogenesis. Abraham Trembley was the first to study the concept of Regeneration in the Hydra

Question 5.
‘A’ and ‘B’ are the male & female sex cells respectively which look alike and performs similar functions. ‘A’ and ‘B’ fuse to form a new individual ‘D’ Which type of gametic fusion does this represent? Give an example.
Answer:
Isogamy Eg: Monocystis

Question 6.
Complete the flow chart by mentioning the ploidy of cells in boxes.
Answer:

1. Queen Bee Worker Bee – Diploid (2n)
2. Drones (Male Bee), Egg, sperm – Haploid (n)

Question 7.
Meiosis is a type of cell division where the chromosomal number is reduced to half the number daughter cells. Which type of cellular division occurs in the drones to produces spermatozoa? Why?
Answer:
The gonadal cells of drones undergo mitosis to form sperms. Because the drones are haploid in nature since they develop from unfertilized eggs. To avoid further reduction in chromosome no. and maintain the chromosomal constancy, (instead of undergoing meiosis), mitosis will take place leading to formation of haploid gametes.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Indirect Taxation Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Who is the chairman of the GST council?
(a) RBI Governor
(b) Finance Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President of India
Answer:
(b) Finance Minister

Question 2.
GST Stands for …………….
(a) Goods and Supply Tax
(b) Government sales Tax
(c) Goods and Services Tax
(d) General Sales Tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and Services Tax

Question 3.
What kind of Tax the GST is?
(a) Direct Tax
(b) Indirect Tax
(c) Dependence on the Type of Goods and Services
(d) All Business Organisations
Answer:
(b) Indirect Tax

Question 4.
What is IGST?
(a) Integrated Goods and Service Tax
(b) India Goods and Service Tax
(c) Initial Goods and Service Tax
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Integrated Goods and Service Tax

Question 5.
In India GST became effective from?
(a) 1^st April, 2017
(b) 1^st January, 2017
(c) 1^st July, 2017
(d) 1^st March, 2017
Answer:
(d) 1^st March, 2017

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Indirect tax.
Answer:
Indirect Tax is levied on the goods and services. It is collected from the buyers by the sellers and paid by the sellers to the Government. Since it is indirectly imposed on the buyers it is called indirect tax.

Question 2.
List out any four types of indirect taxes levied in India.
Answer:

1. CGST
2. SGST
3. UGST
4. IGST

Question 3.
What do you mean by Goods and Services Taxes?
Answer:
Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the tax imposed on the supply (consumption) of goods and services. It is a destination based consumption tax and collected on those value added items at each stage of the supply chain.

Question 4.
Write a note on SGST.
Answer:
SGST – State Goods and Services Tax – is imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.)

Question 5.
What is CGST?
Answer:
CGST – Central Goods and Services Tax – is imposed and collected by the Central Government on all supply of goods within a state (intra – state) under CGST Act 2017.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two differences between direct taxes and indirect taxes?
Answer:

Basis	Direct Taxes	Indirect Taxes
1. Meaning	If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person is paid by that person (or his office) directly to the Government, it is called direct tax.	If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person is collected from he buyers by another person (seller) and paid by him to the Government it is called indirect tax.
2. Incidence and Impact	Falls on the same person. Imposed on the income of a person and paid by the same person.	Falls on different persons. Imposed on the sellers but collected from the consumers and paid by sellers.

Question 2.
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

1. To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax, One Market)
2. To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
3. To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected on the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
4. To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
5. To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
6. To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the functions of GST council.
Answer:

1. The GST Council will oversee the implementation of the GST. But the Central Board of Excise and Customs is responsible for administration of the CGST and IGST Acts.
2. The Council makes recommendations on rate of GST, apportionment of IGST, exemptions, model GST laws, etc.
3. The Minister of State in the Finance Ministry and all Finance Ministers of the State Governments shall be its members.
4. All decisions of the Council can be passed only with Atb of the total votes. Each state has one vote, irrespective of its size or population.

Question 4.
Explain IGST with an example.
Answer:
IGST – Inter-State Goods and Services Tax is imposed and collected by the Central Government and the revenue is shared with States under IGST Act 2017.

Question 5.
Write any three demerits of UGST.
Answer:

1. Several Economists says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market. It would add up to 8 percent to the cost of new homes and reduce demand by about 12 percent.
2. Another criticism is that CGST, SGST are nothing but new names for Central Excise/ Service Tax, VAT and CST. Hence, there is no major reduction in the number of tax layers.
3. A number of retail products currently have only four percent tax on them. After GST, garments and clothes could become more expensive.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between direct taxes and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Question 2.
Discuss the different kinds of GST.
Answer:
GST is of three kinds: CGST, SGST/UGST, and IGST.
1. CGST – Central Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government on all supply of goods within a state (intra-state) under CGST Act 2017.

2. SGST – State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.)

3. UGST – Union Territory Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the five Union Territory Administrations in India under UGST Act 2017.

4. IGST – Inter-State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government and the revenue shared with States under IGST Act 2017.

5. IGST on exports – All exports are treated as Inter-State supply under GST. Since exports are zero rated, GST is not imposed on all goods and services exported from India. Any input credit paid already on exports will be refunded.

Question 3.
Elucidate the merits of GST.
Answer:
A. To the Society and country:

1. Unified common national market will attract more foreign investment. GST has integrated the economy of all States and Union Territories.
2. It brings parity in taxation among imported goods and Indian manufactured goods. All imported goods will be charged with IGST which will be more or less equivalent to the total of CGST and SGST levied on manufactured goods. Removal of several taxes will make the price of Indian products more competitive at world market.
3. It will boost manufacturing, export, GDP leading to economic growth through increase in economic activity.
4. Creation of more employment opportunities which will result in poverty eradication.
5. It will bring more tax compliance (more tax payers) and increase revenue to the Governments.
6. It is transparent and will improve India’s ranking in the Ease of Doing Business in the world.
7. Uniform rates of tax will reduce tax evasion and rate arbitrage between States.

B. To Business Community:

1. Simpler Tax System with fewer exemptions. 17 taxes were abolished and one tax exists today.
2. Input tax credit will reduce cascading effect of taxes. Reduction in average tax burden will encourage manufacturers and help “Make in India” campaign and make India as a manufacturing hub.
3. Common procedures, common classification of goods and services and timelines will lend greater certainty to taxation system.
4. GSTN facility will reduce multiple record keeping, lesser investment in manpower and resources and improve efficiency.
5. All interactions will be through common GSTN portal and will ensure corruption free administration
6. Uniform prices throughout the country. Expansion of business to all states is made easy.

C. To Consumers:

1. Input tax credit allowed will lower the prices to the consumers.
2. All small retailers will get exemption and purchases from them will cost less for the consumers.

Question 4.
Compare CGST, SGST and IGST.
Answer:

Share this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 33 Indirect Taxation Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the issues in exams. Keep visiting this site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 32 Direct Taxes Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 32 Direct Taxes

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 32 Direct Taxes. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 32 Direct Taxes Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Direct Taxes Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
Income Tax is ……………
(a) a business tax
(b) a direct tax
(c) an indirect tax
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) a direct tax

Question 2.
Period of assessment year is ……………
(a) 1^st April to 31^st March
(b) 1^st March to 28^st Feb
(c) 1^st July to 30^st June
(d) 1^st Jan to 31^st Dec
Answer:
(a) 1^st April to 31^st March

Question 3.
The year in which income is earned is known as ……………
(a) Assessment Year
(b) Previous Year
(c) Light Year
(d) Calendar Year
Answer:
(b) Previous Year

Question 4.
The aggregate income under five heads is termed as ……………
(a) Gross Total Income
(b) Total Income
(c) Salary Income
(d) Business Income
Answer:
(b) Total Income

Question 5.
Agricultural income earned in India is ……………
(a) Fully Taxable
(b) Fully Exempted
(c) Not Considered for Income
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Fully Exempted

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Income tax?
Answer:
Income tax is a direct tax under which tax is calculated on the income, gains or profits earned by a person such as individuals and. other artificial entities (a partnership firm, company, etc.).

Question 2.
What is meant by previous year?
Answer:
The year in which income is earned is called previous year. It is also normally consisting of a period of 12 months commencing on 1^st April every year and ending on 31^st March of the following year. It is also called as financial year immediately following the assessment year.

Question 3.
Define the term person?
Answer:
The term ‘person’ has been defined under the Income tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu, Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of person or body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons.

Question 4.
Define the term assessee?
Answer:
Assessee means a person by whom any tax or any other sum of money is payable under this Act. It includes every person in respect of whom any proceeding has been taken for the assessment of his income or assessment of fringe benefits.

Question 5.
What is an assessment year?
Answer:
The term has been defined under section 2(9). The year in which tax is paid is called the assessment year. It normally consists of a period of 12 months commencing on 1^st April every year and ending on 31^st March of the following year.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is Gross Total Income?
Answer:
Income from the five heads, namely – Salaries, House Property, Profits and Gains of Business or Profession, Capital Gains, and Other Sources – is computed separately according to the provisions given in the Act. Income computed under these heads shall be aggregated after adjusting past and present losses and the total so arrived at is known as ‘Gross Total Income’.

Question 2.
List out the five heads of income.
Answer:
The five heads of income are:

1. Income from‘Salaries’ [Sections 15 – 17];
2. Income from ‘House Property’ [Sections 22 – 27];
3. Income from ‘Profits and Gains of Business or Profession’ [Sections 28 – 44];
4. Income from ‘Capital Gains’ [Sections 45 – 55]; and
5. Income from‘Other Sources’ [Sections 56 – 59].

Question 3.
Write a note on Agricultural Income.
Answer:
Any rent or revenue derived from land which is situated in India and is used for agriculture purposes. Agricultural income is fully exempted from tax u/s 10(1) and as such does not form part of total income.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Total Income.
Answer:
Out of Gross Total Income, Income Tax Act 1961 allows certain deductions under section 80. After allowing these deductions the figure which we arrive at is called ‘Total Income’ and on this figure tax liability is computed at the prescribed rates.

1. Gross Total Income ****
2. Less: Deductions (Sec. 80C to 80U) ****
3. Total Income (T.I.) ****

Question 5.
Write short notes on:

1. Direct Tax
2. Indirect Tax

Answer:
1. Direct Tax:
If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person and is paid by that person (or his office) directly to the Government, , it is called direct tax, example Income – Tax, Wealth Tax, Capital Gains Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, Fringe Benefits Tax (from 2005), Banking Cash Transaction Tax (for Rs,50,000 and above – from 2005), etc. In India all direct taxes are levied and administered by Central Board of Direct Taxes.

2. Indirect Tax:
If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person (seller). It is collected from, the buyers and is paid by seller to the Government. It is called indirect tax example GST.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Elucidate any five features of Income Tax.
Features of Income Tax in India:
1. Levied as Per the Constitution Income tax is levied in India by virtue of entry No. 82 of list I (Union List) of Seventh Schedule to the Article 246 of the Constitution of India.

2. Levied by Central Government Income tax is charged by the Central Government on all incomes other than agricultural income. However, the power to charge income tax on agricultural income has been vested with the State Government as per entry 46 of list II, i.e., State List.

3. Direct Tax Income tax is direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on same person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket and cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

4. Annual Tax Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year which is chargeable to tax.

5. Tax on Person It is a tax on income earned by a person. The term ‘person’ has been defined under the Income tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of person or body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons. The persons who are covered under Income tax Act are called ‘assessees’.

Question 2.
Define Tax. Explain the term direct tax and indirect tax with an example.
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory contribution to state revenue by the Government. It is levied on the income or profits from business of individuals and institutions. It may be added to the price of goods, services or transactions. Tax is the basic source of revenue to the Government. This revenue is utilised for the expenses of civil administration, internal and external security, building infrastructure, etc.

There are two types of taxes – direct taxes and indirect, taxes.

1. Direct Tax:
If a tax levied on the income or wealth of a person and is paid by that person (or his office) directly to the Government, it is called direct tax, e.g., Income – Tax, Wealth Tax, Capital Gains Tax, Securities Transaction Tax, Fringe Benefits Tax (from 2005), Banking Cash Transaction Tax (for Rs.50,000 and above – from 2005), etc. In India all direct taxes are levied and administered by Central Board of Direct Taxes.

2. Indirect Tax:
If tax is levied on the goods or services of a person (seller). It is collected from the buyers and is paid by seller to the Government. It is called indirect tax. example GST.

Question 3.
List out any ten kinds of incomes chargeable under the head income tax.
Answer:

1. Profits and gains of business or profession.
2. Dividend
3. Voluntary contribution received by a charitable / religious trust or university/education institution or hospital/electoral trust[ w.e.f. 01.04.2010]
4. Value of perquisite or profit in lieu of salary taxable u/s 17 and social allowance or benefit specifically granted either to meet personal expenses or for performance Of duties of an office or an employment of profit.
5. Export incentives, like duty drawback, cash compensatory support, sale of licenses, etc.
6. Interest, salary, bonus, commission or remuneration earned by a partner of a firm from such firm.
7. Capital gain chargeable u/s 45.
8. Profits and gains from the business of banking carried on by a co – operative society with its members.
9. Winning from lotteries, crossword puzzles, races including horse races, card games and other games of any sort or from gambling or betting of any form or nature whatsoever.
10. Deemed income u/s 41 or 59.

Question 4.
Discuss the various kinds of assesses.
Answer:
Assessee means a person by whom any tax or any other sum of money is payable under this Act. It includes every person in respect of whom any proceeding has been taken for the assessment of his income or assessment of fringe benefits. The term ‘person’ includes the following:

1. an individual
2. a Hindu Undivided Family (HUE)
3. a company
4. a firm
5. an Association Of Persons or a Body Of Individual, whether incorporated or not
6. a local authority, and
7. every artificial juridical person example an idol or deity.

Share this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 32 Direct Taxes Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the issues in exams. Keep visiting this site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Discharge and Breach of a Contract Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
On the valid performance of the contractual obligation by the parties, the contract ……………….
(a) Is discharged
(b) Becomes enforceable
(c) Becomes void
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Is discharged

Question 2.
An agreement to do an act impossible in itself under Section 56 is ……………….
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable
(d) Unenforceable
Answer:
(a) Void

Question 3.
Any agreement which becomes impossible to perform under various circumstances.
(a) Voidable
(b) Void
(c) Valid
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Void

Question 4.
Discharge by mutual agreement may involve ……………….
(a) Novation
(b) Rescission
(c) Alteration
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
The compensation given for breach of contract is ……………….
(a) Damage
(b) Remuneration
(c) Money
(d) Cheque
Answer:
(a) Damage

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the kinds of consent?
Answer:
The consent may be of the following types:

1. Express
2. Implied

Question 2.
What are the types of Impossibility of Performance?
Answer:
There are two types of impossibility of performance, such as –

1. Impossibility existing at the time of agreement.
2. Impossibility arising subsequent to the formation of contract.

Question 3.
What is Quantum merit?
Answer:
The meaning of the phrase quantum merit is ‘as much as earned’.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the different modes of discharge by implied consent?
Answer:
Different modes of discharge by implied consent are:

1. Novation
2. Alteration
3. Recession
4. Remission
5. Accord and Satisfaction
6. Waiver
7. Merger

Question 2.
Define discharge by Performance.
Answer:
Performance implies carrying out the obligation of the contract. Performance must be completed according to the real intentions of the agreement. Performance must be done according to time and manner prescribed.

Question 3.
What are reasons for impossibility arising after the formation of contract?
Answer:
Impossibility arising subsequent to the formation of a contract or supervening impossibility may be:

1. By some event beyond the control of the parties; or
2. By some act either of the promisor or of the promisee.

Question 4.
What are the various rules regarding damages?
Answer:
Generally in the following cases, the court grants specific performance:

1. When the act agreed to be done is such that compensation in money for its non – performance is not sufficient.
2. When it is probable that compensation in money cannot be received for the non – performance of the act agreed to be done.
3. When there is no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused by the non – performance of the act agreed to be done.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the ways of discharge of Contract?
Answer:
Different modes of discharge of contract have been provided under different sections of the Act:
1. Discharge by Performance : Performance implies carrying out the obligation of the contract. Performance must be completed according to the real intentions of the agreement. Performance must be done according to time and manner prescribed. Performance of contract may be of two types namely:

• Actual performance
• Attempted performance

2. By Agreement on Consent : Agreement between the parties comes to an end by mutually agreeing for it. Any contract is created by an agreement, hence in the same way, it can be discharged by an agreement. The consent may be of the following types:

• Express consent
• Implied consent

3. By Impossibility of Performance : A contract may be discharged if its performance becomes impossible. There are two types of impossibility of performance, such as –

• Impossibility existing at the time of agreement.
• Impossibility arising subsequent to the formation of contract.

4. By Lapse of Time : According to the Limitation Act, 1963 a contract must be performed within a specified time. If it is not performed within this specified time limit and against which if no action is taken by the promisee in the Court of Law within specified time, then the promisee is deprived of his remedy at law. In such cases, the contract is discharged.

5. By Operation of Law : A contract can be discharged by the operation of law. The operation of law by which contract can be discharged are as follows:

• By Death
• By Merger
• By Insolvency
• Unauthorized Alteration of the Terms of a Contract
• Rights and liabilities vesting in the same person

Question 2.
Write about the various remedies for breach of contract.
Answer:
There are various types of remedies for the injured parties listed as follows:

1. Recission of Contract – In case of breach of contract by one party, then the other parties may rescind the contract and thereby the party is absolved from his all obligations under the contract.

2. Claim for Specific Performance – In some specific cases if the damages are not the adequate remedy, then the court can direct the party in breach for the specific performance of the contract. In such case, the promise is carried out as per terms and conditions of the contract.

3. Claim for Injunction – Injunction is an order passed by a competent Court restraining a person from doing some act. Injunction can be defined as a mode of securing the specific performance of the negative terms of a contract.

4. Claim for Quantum Merit – The claim for quantum merit may arise if a contract performed by one party has become discharged by breach of the other party. The meaning of the phrase quantum merit is as much as earned’.

5. Claim for Damages – The claim for quantum merit may arise if a contract performed by one party has become discharged by breach of the other party. The meaning of the phrase quantum merit is as much as earned.

Question 3.
Discuss the different types of damages awarded to the injured party.
Answer:
Damages are a monetary compensation awarded by the court to the injured party for the loss or injury suffered by him. As per contract, one party can claim damages if other party breach the contract. The main purpose of awarding the damages is to make good the loss suffered by him. It is known as doctrine of restitution. The Section 73 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with the compensation for loss or damages caused by a party for breach of contract. There are mainly four types of damages, such as

1. Ordinary damages
2. Special damages
3. Vindictive or exemplary damages; and
4. Nominal damages

Share this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 31 Discharge and Breach of a Contract Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the issues in exams. Keep visiting this site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 30 Performance of Contract Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 30 Performance of Contract

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 30 Performance of Contract. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 30 Performance of Contract Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Performance of Contract Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
On the valid performance of the contractual obligations by the parties, the contract ………………..
(a) Is discharged
(b) Become enforceable
(c) Becomes void
(d) Becomes legal
Answer:
(a) Is discharged

Question 2.
Which of the following persons can perform the contract?
(a) Promisor alone
(b) Legal representatives of promisor
(c) Agent of the promisor
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
A, B, C jointly promised to pay Rs.50,000 to D. Before performance of the contract, C dies. Here, the contract ………………..
(a) Becomes void on C’s death
(b) Should be performed by A and B along with C’s legal representatives.
(c) Should be performed by A and B alone.
(d) Should be renewed between A, B and D.
Answer:
(b) Should be performed by A and B along with C’s legal representatives.

Question 4.
Which of these parties cannot demand performance of promise?
(a) Promisee
(b) Any of the Joint Promisees
(c) On the death of a Promisee, his Legal Representative.
(d) Stranger to the Contract
Answer:
(d) Stranger to the Contract

Question 5.
A person is said to be a third person if he is not a ………………..
(a) promisor
(b) promise
(c) agent
(d) Legal Representative
Answer:
(c) agent

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State the ways of Performing a Contract.
Answer:
There are mainly two ways of performing a contract such as:

1. Actual Performance
2. Attempted Performance

Question 2.
Who is a Legal Representative?
Answer:
Legal representative can demand Exception performance. Contrary intention appears from the contract. Contract is of a personal nature.

Question 3.
Who is an agent?
Answer:
According to Para 2 of Section 40, the promisor may employ a competent person such as agent to perform the promise, if the contract is not formed on personal condition.

Question 4.
Define Reciprocal Promise.
Answer:
Promises which form consideration or part of consideration for each other are called ‘reciprocal promise’.

Question 5.
By whom must contracts be performed?
Answer:

1. Promisor himself
2. Agent
3. Representations
4. Third person
5. Joint Promisors

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a Valid tender?
Answer:
A valid tender of performance is considered to be the performance of a promise.

Question 2.
Who can execute and Perform a Contract?
Answer:
Promisor himself – Under Para 1 to Section 40, it is laid down that where it appears from the nature of the contract, the intention of the parties that any promise contained in it must be performed by the promisor himself or by his legal representatives or by any other competent person employed by him.

Question 3.
Who can demand performance?
Answer:

1. Promisee – only a promisee can demand performance and not a stranger demand performance of the contract.
2. Legal Representative – legal representative can demand Exception performance. Contrary intention appears from the contract. Contract is of a personal nature.
3. Third party – Exception to “stranger to a contract”.

Question 4.
Write a note on the benefits of Reciprocal Promise.
Answer:
Promises which form consideration or part of consideration for each other are called ‘reciprocal promise’. For example X promises to sell his house to Y for Rs.5,00,000. The promises are reciprocal. X is the promisor to give the house and a promise to receive Rs.5,00,000. Y is the promise to receive the house and a promisor to pay Rs. 5,00,000.

Question 5.
Who is a Joint Promisors?
Answer:
Joint Promisors:
(a) Devolution of Joint Liabilities (Section 42)
Section 42 of Indian Contract Act lays down that “When two or more persons have made a joint promise, then unless a contrary intention appears in the contract, all such persons, during their joint lives and after the death of the last survivor, representatives of all, jointly must fulfil the promise”

(b) Devolution of Joint Rights (Section 45)
“When a person has made a promise to two or more persons jointly, then unless there is a contract to the contrary, the right to claim performance rests as between him and them, with them during their joint lives and after the death of them with representatives of such deceased person jointly with survivors, and after the death of last survivor, with the representatives of all jointly”.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain rules relating to place of performance of promise.
Answer:
Time and place of Performance of Promise:
It is only the promisee for whom the contract is performed. Only the promisee can demand the performance of the promise under a contract.

For Example:
X promises Y to pay Z ₹ 10,000/-. X does not pay the sum to Z. Here Z cannot bind X for the payment. It is only promisee Y who can enforce the promise against the promisor X. Of course, there are certain special cases, where a third party can enforce a promise though he is not a party to the contract For example in respect of trust, marriage settlement etc. In case of death of promisee, the representative appointed by him can ask for the performance of the promise under a contract.

Question 2.
Elucidate the provision regarding time as factor in performance.
Answer:
1. Under Section 46, performance within a reasonable time:
According to Section 46, a promisor is to perform his promise within a reasonable time. On the other hand, reasonable time will depend upon the circumstance of the case, the usage of trade or on the intention of the parties entering into the contract.
Example : A has given an order of supply of books in July which should be performed within 4 to 5 days of the month of July.

2. Under Section 47, specified time and place for performance:
If the promise is to be performed on a certain day, the promisor may undertake to perform it without application of the promisee. According to the Section 47, In such a case the promisor may perform the promise at any time during the usual hours of business on such day and at the place at which the promise ought to be performed.

Question 3.
How do you think appropriation of payments takes place?
Answer:
Appropriation means application of payments – The question of appropriation of payments arises when a debtor owes several debts to the same creditor and makes a payment that is not sufficient to discharge the whole indebtedness.

Appropriation of Payments : Sometimes, a debtor owes several distinct debts to the same creditor and he makes a payment which is insufficient to satisfy all the debts. In such a case, a question arises as to which particular debt the payment is to be appropriated. Section 59 to 61 of the Act lay down following rules as to appropriation of payments which provide an answer to this question.

Share this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 30 Performance of Contract Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the issues in exams. Keep visiting this site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
The Statement which discloses a record of transactions between the residents of one country and residents of foreign country …………….
(a) Balance of Payment
(b) Balance of Trade
(c) Statement of Receipts and Payments
(d) Accounting Statement
Answer:
(a) Balance of Payment

Question 2.
The Balance of Payments councils consists of …………….
(a) Current Account
(b) Capital Account
(c) Receipts and Payments Account
(d) Both Current Account and Capital Account
Answer:
(d) Both Current Account and Capital Account

Question 3.
Foreign capital long – term loan and foreign currency reserve are recorded under …………….
(a) Official Capital
(b) Private Capital
(c) Banking Capital
(d) Both Private and Official Capital
Answer:
(b) Private Capital

Question 4.
The term official capital includes …………….
(a) RBI holdings of foreign currencies
(b) Special Drawing Rights held by the Government
(c) Both A and B
(d) Foreign Investment
Answer:
(c) Both A and B

Question 5.
Balance of payments surplus indicates …………….
(a) Exports are more than the Imports
(b) Imports are more than Exports
(c) Exports and Imports are at Equilibrium
(d) Exports and Imports are above Equilibrium
Answer:
(a) Exports are more than the Imports

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Balance of payments?
Answer:
Balance of payment refers to a systematic record of all economic transactions between the residents of one country and the residents of foreign countries during a particular period of time.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade denotes the difference between the value of import and the value of export during a year.

Question 3.
Define Balance of payments.
Answer:
According to International Monetary Fund, “The balance of payments for given period is a systematic records of all economic transactions taken place during the period between residents of the reporting countries.”

Question 4.
What is the composition of private capital?
Answer:
Private capital consists of foreign investments, long term loan and foreign currency deposits.

Question 5.
Mention the components of banking capital.
Answer:
Banking capital includes movement into external financial asset and liabilities commercial and co – operative banks authorized to dealing in foreign exchange.

Question 6.
Mention the components of official capital.
Answer:
It includes RBI’s holdings of foreign currency and special drawing rights (SDR) held by the Government.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Why is Balance of payment prepared?
Answer:
Balance of payment help in framing monetary, fiscal and trade policies of country. Government keenly observes balance of payment position of its important trade partners in making policy decisions. It reveals whether a country produces enough economic output to pay for its growth.

Question 2.
What does Balance of payment disclose?
Answer:
A Balance of Payment surplus indicates that country’s exports are more than its imports and its government and residents are savers. A Balance of Payment deficit points to the fact that country’s import is more than the export. This situations forces the country to borrow from other countries to pay for its imports.

Question 3.
What are the credit items shown in currents accounts?
Answer:
A. Goods Export(visible)
B. Invisible Exports

1. Transport service sold abroad
2. Banking service sold abroad
3. Insurance service sold abroad
4. Income received on loan and investment made in foreign countries
5. Expenses incurred by foreign tourists in India

Question 4.
State the components of capital account.
Answer:
Capital account consists of three components

1. Private Capital
2. Banking Capital
3. Official Capital

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write down the structure of capital account.
Answer:
Capital account consists of three components

1. Private Capital
2. Banking Capital
3. Official Capital

1. Private Capital : Private capital consists of foreign investments, long term loan and foreign currency deposits.
2. Banking Capital : Banking capital includes movement into external financial asset and liabilities commercial and co – operative banks authorized to dealing in foreign exchange.
3. Official Capital : It includes RBI’s holdings of foreign currency and special drawing rights (SDR) held by the Government.

Question 2.
Distinguish balance of payment and balance of trade.
Answer:

Question 3.
Highlight the features of balance of trade.
Answer:

1. Balance of trade is statement showing the net effect of export and import of a country.
2. It records only transactions,relating to merchandise, i.e. goods transactions.
3. It does not record capital transactions.
4. It is part of current account of BOP.
5. It may be at favorable or unfavourable or in equilibrium state.
6. It is not true indicator of economic prosperity or economic relations of country. Unfavourable balance of trade can be converted into favorable balance of payment.

For Future Learning

Question a.
Impact of Balance of Payments and Trade.
Answer:
Global village is also a term to express the constituting relationship between economics and other social sciences throughout the world making it a part of our popular culture before it actually happened.

Question b.
Necessary for Global Village concept.
Answer:
The current account, capital account and financial account together make up the overall balance of payments, which accounts for all of the international inflows and outflows for a given Nation. The current account, as mentioned, capture the balance of trade meaning the purchases and sale of goods and services.

For Own Thinking

Question a.
Balance of Payment is key to economic development.
Answer:
Yes, it is correct.

Question b.
Importance of BOP and BOT.
Answer:
BOP:

1. It presents the international financial positions of the country.
2. It helps the government in taking decisions on monetary and fiscal policies on the one hand and on external trade and payments issued on the other.

BOT:

1. It is the difference between a country’s import and export over a period of time.
2. It is the largest component of the balance of payments for all nations.

Share this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Commerce Chapter 28 Balance of Trade and Balance of Payments Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the issues in exams. Keep visiting this site Tamilnadu State Board Solutions frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 29 Elements of Contract Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 29 Elements of Contract

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 29 Elements of Contract. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 29 Elements of Contract Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Elements of Contract Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
An agreement enforceable by law is a ………………
(a) Enforceable acceptance
(b) Accepted offer
(c) Approved promise
(d) Contract
Answer:
(d) Contract

Question 2.
Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other, is an ………………
(a) Agreement
(b) Contract
(c) Offer
(d) Acceptance
Answer:
(a) Agreement

Question 3.
Void agreement signifies ………………
(a) Agreement illegal in nature
(b) Agreement not enforceable by law
(c) Agreement violating legal procedure
(d) Agreement against public policy
Answer:
(b) Agreement not enforceable by law

Question 4.
Acceptance to be valid must ………………
(a) Be absolute
(b) Be unqualified
(c) Both be absolute & unqualified
(d) Be conditional
Answer:
(c) Both be absolute & unqualified

Question 5.
A contract with or by a minor is a ………………
(a) Valid contract
(b) Void contract
(c) Voidable contract
(d) Voidable at the option of either party
Answer:
(b) Void contract

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is law?
Answer:
Law means a ‘set of rules’ which governs our behaviour and relating in a civilized society.

Question 2.
Why should one know law?
Answer:
One to should know the law to which he is subjected to because ignorance of law is no excuse.

Question 3.
Can a minor enter into a Contract?
Answer:
No, a minor cannot enter into contract.

Question 4.
Who can enter into a Contract?
Answer:
The Indian contract Act specifies that every person is competent to contract provided he is of the age of majority according to the Law which he is subject to and who is of sound mind.

Question 5.
Define Contract.
Answer:
Contract 2(h) An agreement enforceable by Law is a Contract.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define Offer.
Answer:
Offer (i.e. Proposal) [section 2(a)]: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other person either to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Agreement?
Answer:
An “agreement” means ‘a promise or a set of promises’ forming consideration for each other. A promise arises when a proposal is accepted. By implication, an agreement is an accepted proposal. In other words, an agreement consists of an ‘offer’ and its ‘acceptance’.
Agreement = offer / Proposal + Acceptance

Question 3.
Define a Voidable Contract.
Answer:
An agreement which is enforceable by law at’the option of one or more parties but not at the option of the other- or others is a voidable contract. This is the result of coercion, undue influence, fraud and misrepresentation.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Revocation?
Answer:
The Revocation mean the withdrawal of an offer power of attorney.

Question 5.
Who is a promisor, promisee?
Answer:

1. A promisor – Contract law – a person who makes a promise.
2. A promisee – Contract law – a person to whom a promise is made.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the essentials of a Valid Contract
Answer:
1. Offer and Acceptance : There must be two parties to an agreement namely one party making the offer and the other party accepting it.

2. Legal Relationship : The parties must have the intention to create legal relationship between them. An agreement of Social or domestic nature is not at all a contract.

3. Lawful Consideration (quid pro quo) : As per Contract Act under Sec.2(d) Consideration means something in return. A contract without consideration becomes invalid.

4. Lawful Object (Section 23) : The object of agreement should be lawful and legal. It must not be immoral, illegal or opposed to public policy.

5. Free Consent (Section 13 & 14) : Consent of the parties must be free and genuine. Consent means agreeing upon same thing in the same sense at the same time i.e. there should be consensus – ad – idem. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.

6. Capacity of Parties (Section 11) : The parties to a contract must have capacity (legalability) to make valid contract.

7. Certainty of Terms (Section 29) : The agreement should be clear to the parities of the agreement. The agreement must be precise.

8. Possibility of Performance (Section 56) : The terms of the agreement should be capable of performance. An agreement to do an act, impossible in itself cannot be enforced.

9. Not declared Void : The agreement should be such that it should be capable of being enforced by law. Certain agreements have been expressly declared illegal or void by the law.

10. Necessary Legal Formalities : A contract may be oral or in writing. Where a particular type of contract is required by law to be in writing and registered, it must comply with necessary formalities as to writing, registration and attestation.

Question 2.
Difference between Contract and Agreement.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain the classification of Contract on the basis of the Validity.
Answer:
1. Valid Contract : An agreement which fulfils all the essentials prescribed by law on the basis of its creation. For example S offers to sell his car for Rs.2,00,000 to T. T agrees to buy it. It is a Valid Contract.

2. Void Contract 2(j) : A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law. A contract which does not satisfy any of the essential elements of a valid contract is said to be Void.

3. Voidable Contract 2(i) : An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more parties but not at the option of the other or others is a voidable contract.

4. Illegal Contract : It is a contract which is forbidden by law. All illegal agreements are Void but all void agreements or contracts are not necessarily illegal. Contract that is immoral or opposed to public policy are illegal in nature.

5. Unenforceable Contract : Where a contract is unenforceable because of some technical defect i.e. absence in writing barred by imitation etc. If the parties perform the contract it will be valid, but the court will not compel them if they do not.

Question 4.
Explain the classification of Contract on the basis of the Formation.
Answer:
1. Express Contract : A contract made by word spoken or written. According to Section. 9, in so for as the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made in words, the promise is said to be express. For example P says to Q ‘will you buy my bicycle for Rs. 1,000?” Q says to P “Yes”.

2. Implied Contract : The implied contract is one, which is not expressly written but understood by the conduct of parties. Where the proposal or acceptance of any promise is made otherwise than in words, the promise is said to be implied. For example A gets into a public bus, there is an implied contract that he will pay the bus fare.

3. Quasi Contract : It is a contract created by law. Actually, there is no contract. It is based on the principle that “a person shall not be allowed to enrich himself unjustly at the expense of the other”. In other words it is an obligation of one party to another imposed by law independent of an agreement between the parties.

4. Tacit Contract : A contract is said to be tacit when it has to be inferred from the conduct of the parties. For example obtaining cash through automatic teller machine, sale by fall of.hammer of an auction sale.

Question 5.
Explain the classification of Contract on the basis of the Performance.
Answer:
1. Executed Contract : A contract in which both the parties have fulfilled their obligations under the contract. For example X contracts to buy a car from Y by paying cash, Y instantly delivers his car.

2. Executory Contract : A contract in which both the parties are yet to fulfil their obligations, it is said to be an executory contract. For example A agrees to buy B’s cycle by promising to pay cash on 15th June. B agrees to deliver the cycle on 20th June.

3. Unilateral Contract : A unilateral contract is a one sided contract in which only one party has performed his promise or obligation, the other party has to perform his promise or obligation.

For example X promises to pay Y a sum of Rs. 10,000 for the goods to be delivered by Y. X paid the money and Y is yet to deliver the goods.

4. Bilateral Contract : A contract in which both the parties commit to perform their respective promises is called a bilateral contract. For example R offers to sell his fiat car to S for Rs. 10,00,000 on acceptance of R’s offer by S, there is a promise by R to Sell the car and there is a promise by S to purchase the car, there are two promises.

For Future Learning

Question 1.
After studying this chapter any one can enter into Valid Contract and can also identify the essentials present in the contract.
Answer:
Anyone can enter into the valid contract but he must attain the age of majority. He should be sound mind.

Question 2.
After understanding this chapter entering into Offer and giving Acceptance becomes easier.
Answer:
Offer – Proposal
Acceptance – Proposal is accepted

Question 3.
After going through this chapter the value of consideration and the requirement for return payment can be understood better.
Answer:
Consideration means something in return.

Question 4.
After reviewing this chapter the parties who are allowed to enter and the parties who are not allowed to enter into a contract can be clearly demarcated.
Answer:
Major can enter into contract with sound mind. Minor cannot enter into contract with unsound mind.

Question 5.
After analysing this chapter an obligation imposed by law – Quasi Contracts are better understood and distinguished from other contracts.
Answer:
It is an obligation of one party to another imposed by law independent of an agreement between the parties.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Solutions Chapter 26 Companies Act 2013

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Companies Act 2013 Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The Company will have to issue the notice of situation of Registered Office to the Registrar of Companies with in _____ days from the date of incorporation.
(a) 14 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 30 Days
(d) 60 Days
Answer:
(c) 30 Days

Question 2.
How does a person who envisages the idea to form a company called?
(a) Director
(b) Company Secretary
(c) Registrar
(d) Promoter
Answer:
(d) Promoter

Question 3.
For which type of capital a company pays the prescribed fees at the time of registration?
(a) Subscribed Capital
(b) Authorised Capital
(c) Paid-up Capital
(d) Issued Capital
Answer:
(b) Authorised Capital

Question 4.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity Shares
(b) Right Shares
(c) Preference Shares
(d) Bonus Shares
Answer:
(b) Right Shares

Question 5.
Specify the type of resolution to be passed to choose the location of Registered Office of the company within the town or village or city.
(a) Ordinary
(b) Special
(c) Either Ordinary or Special
(d) Board
Answer:
(d) Board

Question 6.
Who can issue stock?
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) One Person
(d) Small
Answer:
(a) Public

Question 7.
Specify the document which comes under the Negotiable Instrument Act.
(a) Share Certificate
(b) Share
(c) Share Warrant
(d) Stock
Answer:
(c) Share Warrant

Question 8.
The shares which are offered to the existing shareholder at free of cost is known as _____
(a) Bonus Share
(b) Equity Share
(c) Right Share
(d) Preference Share
Answer:
(a) Bonus Share

Question 9.
The shares which are offered first to the existing shareholder at reduced price is known as _____
(a) Bonus Share
(b) Equity Share
(c) Right Share
(d) Preference Share
Answer:
(c) Right Share

Question 10.
The Companies Act 2013 Prohibits the issue of shares at _____ to the public.
(a) Premium
(b) Par
(c) Discount
(d) Both at par and Premium
Answer:
(c) Discount

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called as Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a ‘promoter’.

Question 2.
What is Share?
Answer:
The term Share is viewed by a layman as a fraction or portion of total capital of the company which have equal denomination.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Equity Share?
Answer:
The share of a company which do not have any preferential rights with regard to dividend and repayment of share capital at the time of liquidation of a company, is called as equity share or ordinary share.

Question 4.
What do you understand by Preference Share?
Answer:
The term ‘preference shares’ means that part of the share capital the holders of which have a preferential right over payment of dividend (fixed amount or rate) and repayment of share capital in the event of winding up of the company.

Question 5.
What is Sweat Equity Shares?
Answer:
Sweat Equity Shares means issue of shares to employees or directors at a lower price for cash or other than Cash.

Question 6.
What is Bonus Shares?
Answer:
Bonus share means to utilize the company’s reserves and surpluses. Issue of shares to existing shareholders without taking any consideration is known as Bonus Shares.

Question 7.
What is Right Shares?
Answer:
The right shares are primarily issued to the existing equity shareholders through a letter of an issue, on pro rata basis.

Question 8.
What is Private placement?
Answer:
Private placement means offer of securities or invitation to subscribe to securities to a select group of persons through private placement offer letter.

Question 9.
Define Share Warrant.
Answer:
A share warrant is a negotiable instrument, issued by the public limited company only against fully paid up shares. It is also termed as a document of title because the holder of the share warrant is entitled to the number of shares mentioned in it.

Question 10.
What is Debentures?
Answer:
When a company needs funds for extension and development purpose without increasing its share capital, it can borrow from the general public by issuing certificates for a fixed period of time and at a fixed rate of interest. Such a loan certificate is called a debenture.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between shares and stocks.
Answer:

Basis for Difference	Shares	Stocks
1. Meaning	The term ‘share’ means a fraction or unit of the total capital of the company which have equal denomination.	Stock is created from fully paid shares by passing resolution in the general meeting. The Articles of Association of the company must permit this conversion.
2. Denomination	All the shares are of equal denomination.	The denomination of stocks may. differ.
3. Paid up value	Shares can be partly or fully paid up.	Stock can only be fully paid up.

Question 2.
What do you understand by Issue of Securities at Premium?
Answer:
When shares are issued at a price above the face or nominal value, they are said to be issued at a premium. For example, a share having the face value of Rs. 10 is issued at Rs. 12. Here, Rs.2 is the premium. The amount of share premium has to be transferred to an account called the ‘ Securities Premium Account’

Question 3.
What is issue of shares at discount? What conditions should be fulfilled?
Answer:
When the shares are issued at a price below the face value they are said to be issued at a discount. For example, a share having the face value of Rs 10 is issued at Rs 8. The companies act 2013, prohibits the issue of shares at discount (Section 53), except sweat Equity share.

Question 4.
State condition stipulated for capital subscription at the time of promotion.
Answer:
For capital subscription, steps to be taken are listed below:

1. The fulfilling formalities to raise necessary capital.
2. Adhering to SEBI guidelines in this regard.
3. Observing guidelines for Disclosure and investor protection issued by SEBI.
4. Issuing prospectus.
5. Appointing official banker of the company for receiving application from the investors.

Question 5.
Explain different kinds of preference shares.
Answer:
There are eight types of preference shares:

1. Cumulative Preference shares: As the word indicates, all dividends are carried forward until specified.
2. Non-cumulative Preference shares: These are opposite of cumulative.
3. Redeemable Preference shares: Such preference shares can be claimed after a fixed period or after giving due notice. ,
4. Non-Redeemable Preference shares: Such shares cannot be redeemed during the lifetime of the company.
5. Convertible Preference shares: The shares can be converted into equity shares after a time period. .
6. Non-convertible Preference shares: Non-convertible preference shares cannot be, at any time, converted into equity shares.
7. Participating Preference shares.
8. Non-Participating Preference shares.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write the difference between Debentures and Shares.
Answer:
Debentures:

1. Debentures mean a loan.
2. Debenture holder gets fixed rate of Interest.
3. Debentures generally have a charge on the assets of the company.
4. Debentures can be issued at a discount.
5. Debenture holders do not have any voting right.
6. Interest on debentures is payable even if there are no profits.
7. Interest paid on debenture is a business expense.

Shares:

1. Shares are part of the capital of a company.
2. Shareholders gets dividends with a varying rate.
3. Shares do not carry any such charge.
4. Shares cannot be issued at a discount.
5. Shareholders enjoy voting right.
6. Dividend is payable only if there is profit.
7. Dividend is not a business expense.

Question 2.
Brief different stages in Formation of a Company.
Answer:
Section 3 (1) of the Act states that a company may be formed for any lawful purpose by-
(a) seven or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a public company;
(b) two or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a private company;
(c) one person, where the company to be formed is to be One Person Company.
The process of formation of company consists of different stages:
1. Promotion: Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person.

2. Registration: The second stage in the formation of the company is incorporation or – registration. In this stage, the promoter has to fix name of the company, prepare the necessary documents (Memorandum and Articles of Association), fix the registered office, and name of the directors. After this, certificate of incorporation is issued.

3. Capital Subscription: A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two stages. One of them is capital subscription. The steps for this is:

1. Formalities for raising capital
2. Issuing prospectus
3. Appointing official banker
4. Pass resolution to make allotment

4. Commencement of Business: As per section 11 of the Act, a company having share capital should file with the Registrar, declaration stating that

1. Every subscriber has paid the value of shares.
2. Paid up capital is not less than Rs.5 lakhs for a public limited company and Rs.1 lakh in case of a private limited company.
3. It has filed the Registrar, regarding the verification of registered office. After fulfilling these details, the Registrar will issue certificate of commencement of business.

Question 3.
What are the various kinds of Debentures?
Answer:
Debenture is a document issued by the company for acknowledging the loan from the public. Debentures are classified into different categories on the basis of:

1. Convertibility of the Instrument
2. Security of the Instrument
3. Redemption ability; and
4. Registration of Instrument.

1. On the basis of convertibility:
(a) Non-Convertible Debentures: These instruments cannot be converted into equity shares.
(b) Partly Convertible Debentures: Apart of these instruments are converted into equity shares.
(c) Fully Convertible Debentures: These are fully convertible into equity shares.
(d) Optionally Convertible Debentures: The investor can have the option to either convert the debentures at a price decided by the issuer or agreed upon at the time of issue.

2. On the basis of Security:
(a) Secured Debentures: These instruments are secured by a charge on the fixed assets of the issuer company.
(b) Unsecured Debentures: These instruments are unsecured against the assets.

3. On the basis of Redeemability:
(a) Redeemable Debentures: It refers to the debentures which will be redeemed in future.
(b) Irredeemable Debentures: It is a debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay back the money.

4. On the basis of Registration:
(a) Registered Debentures: These are issued in the name of a particular person, who is registered by the company.
(b) Bearer Debentures: These are issued to the bearer and are negotiable instruments, and are transferred by mere delivery.

Question 4.
What formalities need to be fulfilled for companies having share capital to commence business?
Answer:
A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two more stages. One of them is capital subscription, steps to be taken at this stage are listed below:

1. The fulfilling formalities to raise necessary capital.
2. Following the SEBI guidelines in this regard.
3. Issuing prospectus.
4. Appointing official banker of the company for receiving application from the investors.
5. Passing resolution for making allotment by director.
6. Despatch allotment letters to allottees.
7. Filing allotment return with the Registrar.
8. Issuing share certificates in exchange for their allotment letter.
9. Ensuring collection of minimum subscription.

Question 5.
Write the difference between Share Certificate and Share Warrant.
Answer:
Share Certificate:

1. A share certificate is an instrument in writing for the legal proof of the ownership.
2. Every company must issue share certificate to its shareholders.
3. Normally, the holder of the share certificate is to be the member of the company.
4. The share certificate is issued by the company within three months of the allotment of shares.
5. No need to authorized in the Articles of Association to issue share certificate.

Share Warrant:

1. A share warrant is a negotiable instrument, issued against fully paid up shares.
2. There is no compulsion of the issue of share warrants by the company.
3. Generally, the holder of the share warrant is not the member of the company.
4. Shares warrant can be issued only when the shares are fully paid up.
5. The issue of a share warrant must be authorized in the Articles of Association of the company.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Commerce Companies Act 2013 Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer
Question 1.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

Answer:
(c) 3,1,4,2

Question 2.
The first two stages of formation of a company are
(i) Issue of prospectus
(ii) Promotion
(iii) Issue of share certificate
(iv) Registration
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iv)

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