Laxmi

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution Of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose The correct answer:

Social Term 2 Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
November 26

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Term 2 Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year ……………..
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1949

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 3.
There are _________ amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a)101

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Term 2 Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
18 years

II. Fill In the blanks :

1. ______ was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly
2. The father of the Constitution of India is ______
3. ______ protects our fundamental rights
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ______

Answer:

1. Dr. Rajendra prasad
2. Dr. B.R Ambedkar
3. Constitution
4. 26th january

III. Match the following:

1. Independence day – (a) November 26
2. Republic Day – (b) April 1
3. Constitutional Day of India – (c) August 15
4. Right to Education – (d) January 26

a) c a d b
b) c d a b
c) d b a c
Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the questions given tinder the caption Constituent Assembly

6th Social Term 2 Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly was formed in the year 1946.

Term 2 Social Science Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Drafting Committee was formed with eight members with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its chairman.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
There were fifteen women particpents in the consituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as the Republic Day?
Answer:

1. When the Congress met at Lahore in 1929, the members of the Congress unofficially declared the same day as the Day of Pooma Swaraj or the Day of complete self governance.
2. The next year, 26th January 1930 was celebrated as the Independence Day. That day has been observed as our Republic Day.”

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The Constitution is an authentic document containing the basic ideas, principles and laws of a country.
2. It also defines the rights and duties of citizens.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The preface of the constitution is the Preamble.
2. According to it, India is a Sovereign, socialist, Secular democratic republic.
3. The constitution has granted the people the right to rule. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
4. The term secular refers to freedom of worship.
5. The Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of Government, both at the centre

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
“Fundamental rights are the basic human rights of all citizens”. They are

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right of Freedom of religion
5. Cultural and Educational rights
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Respect and protect the Constitution.
3. Readiness to serve our country if need arises.
4. Treating everyone as brothers and sister
5. Avoid violence.
6. Protect government property etc.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:
The preface of the Constitution is the Preamble.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. The preamble of Indian constitution clearly says that
2. To achieve Justice-social, economic and political
3. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
4. Equality of states and opportunity.
5. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:
An Independent country not subject to any external power or influence.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 1.
List your duties at

1. school
2. home and
3. society

Answer:

(a) Students’ duties at school

1. participate in learning activities.
2. Complete Home work.
3. Attend school regularly on time.
4. Be a part of safe and positive leavning environment.
5. Manage the time wisely.
6. Study for test and exams well ahead of time.

(b) Students’duties at home

1. Put books and magazines in a rack.
2. Be tidy and keep the surroundings clean.
3. Help parents wherever and whenever possible.
4. Fold blankets, saw buttons.
5. Pouring and making tea and coffee.

(c) Students’duties at society

1. Community Responsibility.
2. It includes co-operation, respect and participation.
3. Take active role in literacy campaigns.
4. Student’s role is very crucial in society development such as to increase human resource, educate others, protect
5. the environment, save mother nature, bring required changes in the society, respect elders, help the needy and reform the society.

Question 2.
Discuss on these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education
4. Equality:

Answer:

1. It is a state of affairs in which all people within a specific society have the same status in certain respects. .
2. It includes Civil rights, Freedom of speech, property rights etc.Gender Equality:

Gender equality :

1. means equality between men and women.
2.  Both are free to develop their personal abilities.
3. It means fairness of treatment for men and women according to their respective needs.

Child labour:

1. Child Labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives children of their childhood.
2. Child Labour interferes with their ability to attend regular school.
3. This interference is mentally, physically,, socially or morally dangerous and harmful.
4. Indian Government has passed the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act. of 1986. ,
5. It was amended in 2016 as CLPR Act.
6. Accordingly a child is defined as any person below the age of 14 and CLPR Act prohibit employment of a child in any employment including domestic help.

(c) Right to Education:

1. The Right of children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4th August 2009.
2. It describes free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the constitution.
3. India become one of the 135 countries to make education as a fundemental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1st April, 2010.

Question 3.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014). Find out the reason why:
Answer:
a) Kailash Satyarti (India):

1. Kailash Satyarti is an Indian Childrens’ right activist.
2. He is a Noble peace Prize receipient.
3. Founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan (save childhood movement.
4. Kailash Satyarti and his team at Bachpan Bachao Andolan have liberated more than 86,000 children in India from Child Labour, Slavery and Trafficking.
5. In 1998, Satyarti led global march against child labour across 103 countries.
6. His work has been recognized through various national and international honours and awards.
7. He shared the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 with Malala Yusufsai of Pakistan.

b) Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan)

1. Malala Yusufsai is a Pakistan Activist for female education.
2. She is the youngest Nobel Prize laurate.
3. She is known for human rights advocacy, especially the education of women and children in her native Swat valley.
4. She became a prominent activist for the right to education.
5. In 2012 she was the recipient of Pakistan’s first National Youth Peace Prize.
6. In 2014 she was the co-recipient of the 2014 Noble Peace Prize along with Kailash Satyarti at the young age of 17 years.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Intext Questions

Question 1.
Prepare a fist pf your immediate duties.
Answer:

1. To abide by the constitution and its ideals, to respect the National flag, the National Anthem etc.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brother hood.
5. To protect and improve the natural resources such as forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife etc.
6. To safeguard the public property and to avoid violence.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Additonal Questions

I. Choose The correct answer:

Question 1.
The Chairman of the constituent Assembly was
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Vallabai Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
The advisor of the Drafting Committee was
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) B.N. Rao
(e) Moulana Azad
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) B.N. Rao

Question 3.
The preface of the constitution is called
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental right
(c) Directive Principles of state policy
(d) legal document
Answer:
(a) Preamble

Question 4.
Iiva Parliamentary system, the Executive is-collectivity responsible to the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Legislature

Question 5.
The Chief Architect of the Indian constitution is
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlel Nehru
(c) Vallabhai Patel
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1929, the Congress met at ______
2. Poorna Swaraj means ______
3. It took a period of ______ to complete the Indian Constitution.
4. The basic human rights are known as ______
5. The original copies of the Constitution are preserved in special ______ filled cases.

Answer:

1. Lahore Complete-self-Government
2. 2 years, 11 months and 17 days
3. Fundamental rights
4. Helium

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
Write about the constitution Assembly. ‘
Answer:

1. “In 1946, nearly 389 members of the constituent Assembly who belonged to different parties from different places came together to frame the Constitution of India.
2. The Chairman of the committee was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Mention the names of some of the members of the Constitution Assembly.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabai Patel, MoulanaAzad, S. Radhakrishnan, Vijayalakshmi Pandit and Sarojini Naidu were the members in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 3.
Write about the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. The Drafting committee was formed with eight members.
2. Its Chairman was B.R. Ambedkar.
3. B.N.Rao was appointed as an advisor.
4. The committee met for the first time on 9th December 1946.
5. On the same day, the drafting the Constitution of India started.

Question 4.
Mention a few countries whose constitution were throughly examined to collect a few best features.
Answer:

1. The constitutions of nearly 60 countries including the UK, USA, former USSR, France, Switzerland etc., were thoroughly examined.
2. Their best features have been adopted by our constitution.

Question 5.
Mention the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, N. Gopalasamy, K.M.Munshi, Syed Ahmed Sadullah, P.L. Mitter, N.Madhava Rao, T.T.K, T.P. Khaitan were the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.

Question 6.
What is Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every Indian citizen has the right to vote when they attain 18 years of age, irrespective of any caste, religion, gender or economic status.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Letter Writing (to a friend)

Various parts of a formal letter

1. the heading
2. the inside address
3. the salutation
4. the body
5. the closing
6. the signature
7. the address on the envelope

The contents of a formal letter

• Use a courteous, positive and professional tone. Maintain a respectful, constructive tone.
• Use formal language. Avoid contractions or abbreviations.
• State your purpose clearly and briefly. State the purpose of your writing in the first or second sentence of the letter.
• Include all necessary information. Provide all the information your reader needs to understand and respond appropriately to your letter.

Format for Business and Official Letters:
Business : to dealers for buying and selling goods or comments on goods purchased.
Official : to Officials, to Principals, Teachers.

(a) Station (Place): y city
(b) Date: e.g. 20th Jan. 2019
(c) From Address
(d) To Address
(e) Salutation:
Sir, Dear Sir, Respected Sir, Madam (Principal, Teacher)
(f) Sub:
(i) Complaint on
(ii) Requisition for.
(iii) Orders placed on
(iv) Reminder on
(g) Ref:

Complaint letter
Bill No. _______ dated _______ (Reminder letter)
Previous letter dated
(h) Commencing lines :
(a) This is to inform you that
(b) I wish to bring to your kind notice that …………………………
(i) Content of the letter :
(j) Request:
(a) I shall be very grateful if the necessary measures are taken by the authorities concerned at the earliest
(b) I shall be obliged if early measures are taken in this regard by the authorities concerned
(k) Thank you,
(l) Subscription:
Yours truly,
Yours faithfully,
(m) Signature:
x x

Format For Personal Letter:

(a) From Address :
Y City

(b) Date : Eg. 20th June, 2019
(c) Salutation:
My Dearest __, Dearest __, Dear __,

(d) Commencing Lines:

1. Hope this letter finds you in the best of health
2. Hope you had received my previous letter
3. Thank you for your loving letter
4. Happy to meet you through this letter
5. Thank you for the you had sent me

(e) Concluding Lines:

1. Looking forward to your reply
2. Awaiting your reply / coming eagerly
3. Convey my love/regards to

(f) Subscription:
For Parents, Uncles,
Aunts – Yours lovingly,
For Friends – Yours lovingly, sincerely,
For Brother, Sisters, Cousins,
nephews, nieces – Yours affectionately,

(g) Signature

Exercises
1. Kumar wants to invite his friend Siva for his sister’s Marriage a week earlier, to assist him in the arrangments. He could not complete the content of his letter in about 100 words.
Answer:
Chennai,
23rd January 2019.

My Dear Siva,
Hope this letter finds you in good health. It’s been a few months since we’ve met. I have a good news. My sister, Shanthi’s marriage has been fixed on 30th of this month. We would like to have your presence two days ahead. So please be part of the family. Looking forward to be with you. We need your ideas for the reception hall and its decoration. All of us are expecting your arrival soon.

Your loving friend,
Kumar

Address on the envelope :
To
Mr. S. Siva,
20, Anna Salai,
Salem.

2. Kavya wanted to write a letter to her uncle to ask him if she could spend her summer holidays with him. She had started her letter but had not completed it. Complete the content of her letter in about 100 words.
Answer:
No. 20,4th Street,
Gandhi Nagar,
Chennai – 600 020.
13 th December, 2018.

Dear Uncle,
Hope this letter finds you in the best of health. Uncle, with my exams over and with the long wait for the results, I thought I could spend my summer holidays with you, aunt and brothers Ramu and Raju in the fields and plantation in the village.

It would be very refreshing after my exam and I am looking forward to put my hands to work. Shall I be there on Sunday? My father will drop me at the village.

Waiting for your reply or phone call at the earliest.

Your loving
niece,

Address on the envelope :

To
Mr. Vasanth,
20, Everon Heights, Ootacamund,
Nilgiris District.

3. Write a letter to your friend telling about how your house was burgled when your family was away on a holiday. (*^)
Answer:
36, Gandhi Road
Chennai – 45
04 August 2018

Dear Ramesh,
How are you? I feel sad to inform you that my house was burgled last week when I was on a holiday. Burglars might have known from the accumulated newspaper pile that I had gone away. When I came back last Sunday, I found the back-door lock broken. I could have forgotten to bolt the back-door from inside and they should have entered through it. My room was ransacked. They took my laptop and other valuables. I must have deposited the jewellery in a bank locker to avoid this loss. I should have informed my neighbours about my week-long trip. Well, I have registered an FIR with the police. They are investigating the case. They have assured that I would get my jewels back. The burglars will be caught very soon. Convey my regards to all at home.

Yours lovingly,
Murali

Address on the envelope :
Mr. Ramesh,
50, Bharathiyar Street,
Namakkal.

4. Suba wanted to write a letter to her friend congratulating her for her victory in Para Olympic Games. She had the format ready but Is yet to complete the letter. Complete the content of her letter in about 100 words.
Answer :
9/11, Kinely Street,
R City
2nd February, 2019.

Dear Rajalakshmi,
I am fine. How are you? I am very delighted to know that you have got victory in Para Olympic Games. Please accept my heartiest congratulations for this great achievement. Actually, your selfless dedication and devotion to the cause pf Sports and Games have earned you this deserving recognition. This is just the beginning and many such victories and medals should follow.

Your loving friend,
sudha

Address on the envelope :
To
Miss Rajalakshmi,
27, Woodland Street,
Ooty.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Chapter 6 Principles of Ecology

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Principles of Ecology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Botany Question 1.
Arrange the correct sequence of ecological hierarchy starting from lower to higher level.
(a) Individual organism → Population Landscape → Ecosystem
(b) Landscape → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere
(c) community → Ecosystem → Landscape → Biome
(d) Population → organism → Biome → Landscape
Answer:
(a) Individual organism → Population Landscape → Ecosystem

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Botany Book Back Answers Question 2.
Ecology is the study of an individual species is called
(i) Community ecology
(ii) Autecology
(iii) Species ecology
(iv) Synecology
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i and iv only
(d) ii and iii only
Answer:
(b) ii only

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Question 3.
A specific place in an ecosystem, where an organism lives and performs its functions is
(a) habitat
(b) niche
(c) landscape
(d) biome
Answer:
(b) niche

12th Botany Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Hydrophytes possess aerenchyma to support themselves in water.
(ii) Seeds of Viscum are positively photoblastic as they germinate only in presence of light.
(iii) Hygroscopic water is the only soil water available to roots of plant growing in soil as it is present inside the micropores.
(iv) High temperature reduces use of water and solute absorption by roots.
(a) i, ii, and iii only
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) ii and iii only
(d) i and ii only
Answer:
(d) i and ii only

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Bio Botany Question 5.
Which of the given plant produces cardiac glycosides?
(a) Calotropis
(b) Acacia
(c) Nepenthes
(d) Utricularia
Answer:
(a) Calotropis

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Bio Botany Solutions Question 6.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Loamy soil is best suited for plant growth as it contains a mixture of silt, sand and clay.
(ii) The process of humification is slow in case of organic remains containing a large amount of lignin and cellulose.
(iii) Capillary water is the only water available to plant roots as it is present inside the micropores.
(iv) Leaves of shade plant have more total chlorophyll per reaction centre, low ratio of chi a and chi b are usually thinner leaves.
(a) i, ii and iii only
(b) ii, iii and iv only
(c) i, ii and iv only
(d) ii and iii only
Answer:
(d) ii and iii only

Principles Of Ecology Book Pdf Question 7.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Cattle do not graze on weeds of Calotropis.
Statement B: Calotropis have thorns and spines, as defense against herbivores.
(a) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(b) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
(c) Both statements A and B are correct but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement A.
(d) Both statements A and B are correct and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
Answer:
(b) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Botany Solutions Question 8.
In soil water available for plants is
(a) gravitational water
(b) chemically bound water
(c) capillary water
(d) hygroscopic water
Answer:
(c) capillary water

Principle Of Ecology Pdf Question 9.
Read the following statements and fill up the blanks with correct option.

1. Total soil water content in soil is called ______
2. Soil water not available to plants is called ______
3. Soil water available to plants is called ______

Answer:
(a) Holard, Echard and Cheresard

Principles Of Ecology Book Question 10.
Column I represent the size of the soil particles components. Which of the following is correct match for the Column I and Column II

Answer:
(c) i, ii, i and iv

12th Bio Botany Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
The plant of this group are adapted to live partly in water and partly above substratum and free from water
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Mesophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Halophytes
Answer:
(b) Mesophytes

Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 Notes Question 12.
Identify the A, B, C and D in the given table:


Answer:
(a) (+) Parasitism (-) Amensalism

Question 13.
Ophrys an orchid resembling the female of an insect so as to able to get pollinated is due to phenomenon of
(a) Myrmecophily
(b) Ecological equivalents
(c) Mimicry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Mimicry

Question 14.
A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fem Azolla
(a) Nostoc
(b) Anabaena
(c) Chlorella
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Anabaena

Question 15.
Pedogenesis refers to
(a) Fossils
(b) Water
(c) Population
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

Question 16.
Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by
(a) Serving as a plant growth regulators
(b) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
(c) Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen
(d) Protecting the plant from infection
Answer:
(d) Protecting the plant from infection

Question 17.
Which of the following plant has a non-succulent xerophytic and thick leathery leaves with waxy coating?
(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Ruscus
(c) Nerium
(d) Calotropis
Answer:
(d) Calotropis

Question 18.
In a fresh water environment like pond, rooted autotrophs are
(a) Nymphaea and typha
(b) Ceratophyllum and Utricularia
(c) Wolffia and pistia
(d) Azolla and lemna
Answer:
(a) Nymphaea and typha

Question 19.
Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below:

Answer:
(d) iv, iii, ii, v and i

Question 20.
Strong, sharp spines that get attached to animal’s feet are found in the fruits of
(a) Argemone
(b) Ecballium
(c) Heraitier
(d) Crossandra
Answer:
(a) Argemone

Question 21.
Sticky glands of Boerhaavia and Cleome support
(a) Anemochory
(b) Zoochory
(c) Autochory
(d) Hydrochory
Answer:
(b) Zoochory

Question 22.
Define ecology.
Answer:
Ecology is the study of the reciprocal relationship between living organisms and their environment.

Question 23.
What is ecological hierarchy?
Name the levels of ecological hierarchy.
Answer:
The interaction of organisms with their environment results in the establishment of grouping of organisms which is called ecological hierarchy.

Question 24.
What are ecological equivalents? Give one example.
Answer:
Taxonomically different species occupying similar habitats (Niches) in different geographical regions are called Ecological equivalents.
E.g: Certain species of epiphytic orchids of Western Ghats of India differ from the epiphytic orchids of South America. But they are epiphytes.

Question 25.
Distinguish habitat and niche.
Answer:
Habitat:

1. A specific physical space occupied by an organism (species).
2. Same habitat may be shared by many organisms (species).
3. Habitat specificity is exhibited by organism.

Niche:

1. a functional space occupied by an organism in the same eco-system
2. A single niche is the occupied by a single species
3. Organisms may change their niche with time and season

Question 26.
Why are some organisms called as eurythermals and some others as stenohaline?
Answer:

1. Eurythermal: Organisms which can tolerate a wide range of temperature fluctuations.
   Example: Zostera.
2. Stenothermal: Organisms which can tolerate only small range of temperature variations.
   Example: Mango.

Question 27.
‘Green algae are not likely to be found in the deepest strata of the ocean’. Give at least one reason.
Answer:
As the name indicates, green algae possess photosynthetic pigments which use the light as energy source for survival and they are not found in deepest sea since there is lack of light.

Question 28
What is Phytoremediation?
Answer:
Phytoremediation refers to the using of living green plants to overcome soil or water contamination.
E.g: Growing Eichhomia in cadmium enriched soil reduces the level of cadmium.

Question 29.
What is Albedo effect and write their effects?
Answer:
Gases let out to atmosphere causes climatic change. Emission of dust and aerosols from industries, automobiles, forest fire,  and DMS (dimethyl sulphur) play an important role in disturbing the temperature level of any region. Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere. This is known as Albedo effect.

Question 30.
The organic horizon is generally absent from agricultural soils because tilling, e.g., plowing, buries organic matter. Why is an organic horizon generally absent in desert soils?
Answer:
Organic horizon is generally absent in deserts because of low content of organic matter due to scarcity of plant and animal remains or excreta.

Question 31.
Soil formation can be initiated by biological organisms. Explain how?
Answer:
Soil formation is initiated by the biological weathering process. Biological weathering takes place when organisms like bacteria, fungi, lichens and plants help in the breakdown of rocks through the production of acids and certain chemical substances.

Question 32.
Sandy soil is not suitable for cultivation. Explain why?
Answer:
Sandy soil has a high porosity leading to decreased water retention hence unfit for cultivation.

Question 33.
Describe the mutual relationship between the fig and wasp and comment on the phenomenon that operates in this relationship.
Answer:
Wasps present in the figs is an example of mutualism where both the interacting species are benefitted from the obligate association. Wasps acts as a pollinating agents for figs intum larvae of wasps are nourished and protected by fruits of figs.

Question 34.
Lichen is considered as a good example of obligate mutualism. Explain.
Answer:
Lichen is a mutual association of an alga and a fungus, where the algal partner nourishes and provides shelter to fungi, intum fungi confers protection from bacterial infections and also maintains moisture for algal growth.

Question 35.
What is mutualism? Mention any two example where the organisms involved are commercially exploited in modern agriculture.
Answer:

1. Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are benefitted from the obligate
2. association. Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria associated with Azolla (a fern) and Rhizobium found in the root nodules of leguminous plant are used in the field of agriculture to increase the soil fertility.

Question 36.
List any two adaptive features evolved in parasites enabling them to live successfully on their host?
Answer:
Presence of haustorial roots inside the host plant to absorb nutrients.

Question 37.
Mention any two significant roles of predation plays in nature.
Answer:
Predation maintains the stability of food chain in an ecosystem. Population of the insects and small animals are in control due to predation or else it may lead to overgrazing and browsing thereby altering the vegetation.

Question 38.
How does an orchid ophrys ensures its pollination by bees ?
Answer:
The plant, Ophrys an orchid, the flower looks like a female insect to attract the male insect to get pollinated by the male insect and it is otherwise called ‘floral mimicry ‘

Question 39.
Water is very essential for life. Write any three features for plants which enable them to survive in water scarce environment.
Answer:

1. Presence of highly developed root system to absorb water.
2. Stems and leaves are covered with waxing coating or dense hairs to avoid transpirational loss.
3. Modified leaves generally leathery and shiny to reflect light and heat.

Question 40.
Why do submerged plants receive weak illumination than exposed floating plants in a lake?
Answer:
Submerged plants like Vallisneria receive dim illumination because majority of the light are reflected back by the water surface whereas, the floating hydrophytes receive and absorb maximum light as they are on the water surface.

Question 41.
What is vivipary? Name a plant group which exhibits vivipary.
Answer:
Viviparity is the phenomenon, where the seeds germinate and then starts developing to some extent before they detach from the parent plant body. In plant, it is noticed in Halophytes like Rhizophora.

Question 42.
What is thermal stratification? Mention their types.
Answer:
Thermal Stratification is usually found in aquatic habitat. The change in the temperature profile with increasing depth in a water body is called thermal stratification. There are three kinds of thermal stratifications.

1. Epilimnion – The upper layer of warmer water.
2. Metalimnion – The middle layer with a zone of gradual decrease in temperature.
3. Hypolimnion – The bottom layer of colder water.

Question 43.
How is rhytidome act as the structural defence by plants against fire?
Answer:
Rhytidome is the structural defense by plants against fire. The outer bark of trees which extends to the last formed periderm is called Rhytidome. It is composed of multiple layers of suberized periderm, cortical and phloem tissues. It protects the stem against fire, water loss, invasion of insects and prevents infections by microorganisms.

Question 44.
What is myrmecophily?
Answer:
Sometimes, ants take their shelter on some trees such as Mango, Litchi, Jamun and Acacia, etc. These ants act as body guards of the plants against any disturbing agent and the plants in turn provide food and shelter to these ants. This phenomenon is known as Myrmecophily. Example: Acacia and its ants.

Question 45.
What is seed ball?
Answer:
Seed ball is an ancient Japanese technique of encasing seeds in a mixture of clay and soil humus (also in cow dung) and scattering them on to suitable ground, not planting of trees manually. This method is suitable for barren and degraded lands for tree regeneration and vegetation before monsoon period where the suitable dispersal agents become rare.

Question 46.
How is anemochory differ from zoochory?
Answer:
Anemochory:

1. Anemochory refers to the seed dispersal by wind.
2. Anemochory seeds are very minute and may have wings or feathery appendages for dispersal.
3. E.g: Orchids

Zoochory:

1. Zoochory refers to the seed dispersal by animals.
2. Zoochory seeds and fruits are very fleshy and succulent and sticky they may have hooks to adhere to the body of animals.
3. E.g: Mango

Question 47.
What is co-evolution?
Answer:
The interaction between organisms, when continues for generations, involves reciprocal changes in genetic and morphological characters of both organisms. This type of evolution is called Co-evolution. It is a kind of co-adaptation and mutual change among interactive species.
Examples:

• Corolla length and proboscis length of butterflies and moths (Habenaria and Moth).
• Bird’s beak shape and flower shape and size.

Question 48.
Explain Raunkiaer classification in the world’s vegetation based on the temperature.
Answer:
Raunkiaer classified the world’s vegetation into the following four types. They are megatherms, mesotherms, microtherms and hekistotherms.

Question 49.
List out the effects of fire to plants.
Answer:
Effects of fire:

1. Fire has a direct lethal effect on plants.
2. Burning scars are the suitable places for the entry of parasitic fungi and insects.
3. It brings out the alteration of light, rainfall, nutrient cycle, fertility of soil, pH, soil flora and fauna.
4. Some fungi which grow in soil of burnt areas are called pyrophilous.
5. Example: Pyronema confluens.

Question 50.
What is soil profile? Explain the characters of different soil horizons.
Answer:
Soil is commonly stratified into horizons at different depth. These layers differ in their physical, chemical and biological properties. This succession of super-imposed horizons is called soil profile.

Question 51.
Give an account of various types of parasitism with examples.
Answer:
(a) Parasitism: It is an interaction between two different species in which the smaller partner (parasite) obtains food from the larger partner (host or plant). So the parasitic species is benefitted while the host species is harmed. Based on the host-parasite relationship, parasitism is classified into two types they are holoparasite and hemiparasite.

(b) Holoparasites: The organisms which are dependent upon the host plants for their entire nutrition are called Holoparasites. They are also called total parasites.
Examples:

• Cuscuta is a total stem parasite of the host plant Acacia, Duranta and many other plants. Cuscuta even gets flower inducing hormone from its host plant.
• Balanophora, orobanche and Refflesia are the total root parasites found on higher plants.

(c) Hemiparasites: The organisms which derive only water and minerals from their host plant while synthesizing their own food by photosynthesis are called Hemiparasites. They are also called partial parasites.
Examples:

• Viscum and Loranthus are partial stem parasites.
• Santalum (Sandal Wood) is a partial root parasite.
  The parasitic plants produce the haustorial roots inside the host plant to absorb nutrients from the vascular tissues of host plants.

Question 52.
Explain different types of hydrophytes with examples.
Answer:
Hydrophytes
The plants which are living in water or wet places are called hydrophytes. According to their relation to water and air, they are sub-divided into following categories:

1. Free floating hydrophytes
2. Rooted-floating hydrophytes
3. Submerged floating hydrophytes
4. Rooted- submerged hydrophytes
5. Amphibious hydrophytes.

1. Free floating hydrophytes: These plants float freely on the surface of water. They remain in contact with water and air, but not with soil. Examples: Eichhornia, Pistia and Wolffia (smallest flowering plant).

2. Rooted floating hydrophytes: In these plants, the roots are fixed in mud, but their leaves and flowers are floating on the surface of water. These plants are in contact with soil, water and air. Examples: Nelumbo, Nymphaea, Potomogeton and Marsilea.

3. Submerged floating hydrophytes: These plants are completely submerged in water and not in contact with soil and air. Examples: Ceratophyllum and Utricularia.

4. Rooted-submerged hydrophytes: These plants are completely submerged in water and rooted in soil and not in contact with air. Examples: Hydrilla, Vallisneria and Isoetes.

5. Amphibious hydrophytes (Rooted emergent hydrophytes): These plants are adapted to both aquatic and terrestrial modes of life. They grow in shallow water. Examples: Ranunculus, Typha and Sagittaria.

Question 53.
Enumerate the anatomical adaptations of xerophytes.
Answer:

1. Presence of multilayered epidermis with heavy cuticle to prevent water loss due to transpiration.
2. Hypodermis is well developed with sclerenchymatous tissues.
3. Sunken shaped stomata are present only in the lower epidermis with hairs in the sunken pits.
4. Scotoactive type of stomata found in succulent plants.
5. Vascular bundles are well developed with several layered bundle sheath.
6. Mesophyll is well differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
7. In succulents, the stem possess a water storage region.

Question 54.
List out any five morphological adaptations of halophytes.
Answer:
Morphological adaptations

1. The temperate halophytes are herbaceous but the tropical halophytes are mostly bushy.
2. In addition to the normal roots, many stilt roots are developed.
3. A special type of negatively geotropic roots called pneumatophores with pneumathodes to get sufficient aeration are also present. They are called breathing roots.
   Example: Avicennia.
4. Presence of thick cuticle on the aerial parts of the plant body.
5. Leaves are thick, entire, succulent and glossy. Some species are aphyllous (without leaves).

Question 55.
What are the advantages of seed dispersal?
Answer:
Advantages of seed dispersal:

1. Seeds escape from mortality near the parent plants due to predation by animals or getting diseases and also avoiding competition.
2. Dispersal also gives a chance to occupy favourable sites for growth.
3. It is an important process in the movement of plant genes particularly this is the only method available for self-fertilized flowers and maternally transmitted genes in outcrossing plants.
4. Seed dispersal by animals help in conservation of many species even in human altered ecosystems.
5. Understanding of fruits and seed dispersal acts as a key for proper functioning and establishment of many ecosystems from deserts to evergreen forests and also for the maintenance of biodiversity conservation and restoration of ecosystems.

Question 56.
Describe dispersal of fruit and seeds by animals.
Answer:
Birds and mammals, including human beings play an efficient and important role in the dispersal of fruit and seeds. They have the following devices.

1. Hooked fruit: The surface of the fruit or seeds have hooks (Xanthium), barbs (Andropogon), spines (Aristida) by means of which they adhere to the body of animals or clothes of human beings and get dispersed.
2. Sticky fruits and seeds:
   • Some fruits have sticky glandular hairs by which they adhere to the fur of grazing animals. Example: Boerhaavia and Cleome.
   • Some fruits have viscid layer which adhere to the beak of the bird which eat them and when they rub them on to the branch of the tree, they disperse and germinate.
     Example: Cordia and Alangium.
3. Fleshy fruits: Some fleshy fruits with conspicuous colours are dispersed by human beings to distant places after consumption.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Principles of Ecology Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Who is called as the father of Modem Ecology?
Answer:
Eugene P. Odum

Question 2.
Autoecology deals with the study of ________
(a) Community
(b) Population
(c) Individual species
(d) Niche of species
Answer:
(c) Individual species

Question 3.
Environment of any community is called
(a) Paratope
(d) Biotope
(c) Opitope
(d) Biotope
Answer:
(d) Biotope

Question 4.
Match Coloumn I with Column II

Answer:
(a) – iii
(b) – i
(c) – iv
(d) – ii

Question 5.
The study of soil is called as __________
(a) Lithotripsy
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Pedology
(d) Pedology analysis
Answer:
(c) Pedology

Question 6.
Identify the indicators of fire.
(a) Pucinia
(b) Pyricularia
(c) Pyronema
Answer:
(c) Pyronema

Question 7.
The surface features of earth are called __________
Answer:
Topography

Question 8.
Amensalism is called as __________
Answer:
Antibiosis

Question 9.
is the transition zone between two ecosystems.
Answer:
Ecotone

Question 10.
Match the type of species interaction with correct combination. Interaction Type Combination

Answer:
(a) – iii (b) – i (c) – iv (d) – ii

Question 11.
Wasps is the fruits of fig is an example for ________ type of species interaction.
Answer:
Mutualism

Question 12.
Statement 1: Latitudes represent distance from the equator.
Statement 2: Height above the seal level from longitude.
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 13.
Statement 1: Holoparsites depend totally on other organisms for nutrition.
Statement 2: Dumta is holoparasite.
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct.

Question 14.
Statement 1: Ephemerals are drought evaders.
Statement 2: They are not true xerophytes.
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct.

Question 15.
Assertion (A) : Plains and valleys are rich in vegetation
Reason (R): Slow drain of surface water and better water retention is noticed.
(a) A is true R is false
(b) R explains A
(c) A and R are false
(d) A and R are true. But R doesnot explains A
Answer:
(b) R explains A

Question 16.
Utricularia is a _______
(a) Rooted floating hydrophyte
(b) Submerged floating hydrophyte
(c) Rooted submerged hydrophyte
(d) Amphibious hydrophyte
Answer:
(b) Submerged floating hydrophyte

Question 17.
Earth day is observed on
(a) April 22nd
(b) March 21st
(c) July 07th
(d) September 16th
Answer:
(a) April 22nd

Question 18.
Plants in sandy soils are commonly called as _______
Answer:
Psammophytes

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
How Earnest Haeckel defined ecology?
Answer:
Earnest Haeckel defined “Ecology is the study of the reciprocal relationship between living organisms and their environment.”

Question 2.
What is ecological hierarchy?
Answer:
The interaction of organisms with their environment results in the establishment of grouping of organisms which is called ecological hierarchy.

Question 3.
Sequentially arrange the different units of ecological hierarchy.
Answer:

Question 4.
Define

1. Autecology
2. Synecology.

Answer:

1. Autecology is the ecology of an individual species and is also called species ecology.
2. Synecology is the ecology of a population or community with one or more species and also called as community ecology.

Question 5.
What is Niche?
Answer:
An ecological niche refers to an organism’s place in the biotic environment and its functional role in an ecosystem.

Question 6.
What are ecological factors?
Answer:
The environment (surrounding) includes physical, chemical and biological components. When a component surrounding an organism affects the life of an organism, it becomes a factor. All such factors together are called environmental factors or ecological factors.

Question 7.
Name the climatic factors that affect plant life.
Answer:
Light, Temperature, Water, Wind and Fire.

Question 8.
Name any four physiological processes in plants, where the light plays a crucial role.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Transpiration
3. Seed germination
4. Flowering

Question 9.
Heliophytes differ from Sciophytes. How?
Answer:
Heliophytes – Light loving plants. Example: Angiosperms.
Sciophytes – Shade loving plants. Example: Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

Question 10.
Based on temperature prevalence, Raunkiaer classified world’s vegetation into four types. Name them.
Answer:
Raunkiaer classified the world’s vegetation into the following four types. They are megatherms, mesotherms, microtherms and hekistotherms.

Question 11.
Distinguish between evergreen forests and sclerophyllous forests.
Answer:
Evergreen Forests: Found where heavy rainfall occurs throughout the year.
Sclerophyllous Forests: Found where heavy rainfall occurs during winter and low rainfall during summer.

Question 12.
What does the term ‘Timber line’ refers to?
Answer:
Timber line is an imaginary line in a mountain or higher areas of land that marks the level above which trees do not grow. The altitudinal limit of normal tree growth is about 3000 to 4000 m.

Question 13.
Compare Euryhaline organisms with stenohaline organisms.
Answer:

1. Euryhaline: Organisms which can live in water with wide range of salinity. Examples: Marine algae and marina angiosperms.
2. Stenohaline: Organisms which can withstand only small range of salinity. Example: Plants of estuaries.

Question 14.
Write the composition of gases in atmosphere.
Answer:
Nitrogen -78% , Oxygen -21%, Carbon-di-oxide -0.03%, Argon and other gases – 0.93%.

Question 15.
What is Albedo effect?
Answer:
Gases let out to atmosphere causes climatic change. Emission of dust and aerosols from industries, automobiles, forest fire, S02 and DMS (dimethyl sulphur) play an important role in disturbing the temperature level of any region. Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere. This is known as Albedo effect.

Question 16.
Point any two adverse effects of fire in an environment.
Answer:

1. Fire has a direct lethal effect on plants.
2. It brings out the alteration of light, rainfall, nutrient cycle, fertility of soil, pH, soil flora and fauna

Question 17.
Pyronema confluens is the indicator of fire – comment.
Answer:
Pyronema confluens is a fungus which grow on the soil of burnt or fire disturbed areas. Hence it is called as indicator of fire.

Question 18.
What are edaphic factors?
Answer:
Edaphic factors are the abiotic factors related to soil, include the physical and chemical composition of the soil formed in a particular area.

Question 19.
Name the study that deals with soil factors. Also mention the optimal soil pH for crop cultivation.
Answer:
The study of soil is called pedology. The best pH of soil for crop cultivation is 5.5 to 6.8.

Question 20.
Define soil profile.
Answer:
Soil is commonly stratified into horizons at different depth. These layers differ in their physical, chemical and biological properties. This succession of super-imposed horizons is called soil profile.

Question 21.
Given below are few types of plants. Mention their habitats.

1. Halophytes
2. Chasmophytes
3. Cryophytes
4. Psammophytes.

Answer:

1. Halophytes: Plants living in saline soils.
2. Chasmophytes: Plants living in rocky crevices.
3. Cryophytes: Plants living in ice surface.
4. Psammophytes: Plants living in sandy soils.

Question 22.
Mention any four topographic factors that affect vegetation.
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Direction of mountain and
4. Steepness of mountain.

Question 23.
How the steepness of mountain affects the vegetation?
Answer:
The steepness of the mountain or hill allows the rain to run off. As a result the loss of water causes water deficit and quick erosion of the top soil resulting in poor vegetation. On the other hand, the plains and valley are rich in vegetation due to the slow drain of surface water and better retention of water in the soil.

Question 24.
Name any two positive interactions with an example for each.
Answer:

1. Mutualism – E.g: Lichen
2. Commensalism – E.g: Orchids.

Question 25.
Define mutualism with an example.
Answer:
Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are benefitted from the obligate association. E.g: Lichens (alga with fungus).

Question 26.
What is the principle of commensalism?
Answer:
Commensalism is an interaction between two organisms in which one is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed. The species that derives benefit is called the commensal, while the other species is called the host.

Question 27.
Specify the type of interactions between the given pair of species.

1. Spanish moss and Oak tree
2. Cuscuta and Acacia
3. Nepenthes and Ants
4. Alga and fungus

Answer:

1. Commensalism
2. Parasitism
3. Predation
4. Mutualism

Question 28.
Explain the concept of proto co-operation.
Answer:
Proto Co-operation is an interaction between organisms of different species in which both organisms benefit but neither is dependent on the relationship. Example: Soil bacteria / fungi and plants growing in the soil.

Question 29.
What are Holoparasites? Give example.
Answer:
The organisms which are dependent upon the host plants for their entire nutrition are called Holoparasites. They are also called total parasites.
Example: Cuscuta is a total stem parasite of the host plant Acacia.

Question 30.
What are hemiparasites? Give example.
Answer:
Hemiparasites is the organisms which derive only water and minerals from their host plant while synthesizing their own food by photosynthesis are called Hemiparasites. They are also called partial parasites.
Example: Viscum.

Question 31.
Cite an example for partial stem parasite and partial root parasite.
Answer:

1. Partial stem parasite – E.g: Loranthus.
2. Partial root parasite – E.g: Santalum.

Question 32.
Define Amensalism.
Answer:
Amensalism is an interspecific interaction in which one species is inhibited while the other species is neither benefitted nor harmed. The inhibition is achieved by the secretion of certain chemicals called allelopathic substances. Amensalism is also called antibiosis.

Question 33.
Point out any two morphological adaptations noticed in the roots of hydrophytes.
Answer:

1. Roots are totally absent in Wolffia and Salvinia or poorly developed in Hydrilla or well developed in Ranunculus.
2. The root caps are replaced by root pockets.
   Example: Eichhomia.

Question 34.
What are hygrophytes? Give example.
Answer:
The plants which can grow in moist damp and shady places are called hygrophytes. Examples: Habenaria (Orchid) and Mosses (Bryophytes), etc.

Question 35.
What are trichophyllous plants? Give example.
Answer:
In xerophytic plants, with the leaves and stem are covered with hairs are called trichophyllous plants.
Example: Cucurbits (Melothria and Mukia)

Question 36.
Give an example for following type of adaptations.

1. Phyllode
2. Cladode

Answer:

1. Phyllode – E.g: Acacia.
2. Cladode – E.g: Asparagus.

Question 37.
Write a brief note on pneumatophores. Give an example.
Answer:
Pneumatophores are the special type of negatively geotropic roots developed by halophytes. It possess pneumathodes to get sufficient aeration. They are also called breathing roots.
Example: Avicennia.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 38.
Differentiate habitat from niche.
Answer:
Habitat:

1. A specific physical space occupied by an organism (species).
2. Same habitat may be shared by many organisms (species).
3. Habitat specificity is exhibited by organism.

Niche:

1. A functional space occupied by an organism in the same eco-system.
2. A single niche is occupied by a single species.
3. Organisms may change their niche with time and season.

Question 39.
What is thermal stratification? Explain its types.
Answer:
Thermal stratification is usually found in aquatic habitat. The change in the temperature profile with increasing depth in a water body is called thermal stratification. There are three kinds of thermal stratifications.

1. Epilimnion – The upper layer of warmer water.
2. Metalimnion – The middle layer with a zone of gradual decrease in temperature.
3. Hypolimnion – The bottom layer of colder water.

Question 40.
What are the adverse effects of temperature on plant?
Answer:

1. Temperature affects the enzymatic action of all the bio-chemical reactions in a plant body.
2. Low temperature with high humidity can spread diseases to plants.
3. The varying temperature with moisture determines the distribution of the vegetation types.

Question 41.
Explain briefly about the three types of fire.
Answer:

1. Ground fire – Which is flameless and subterranean.
2. Surface fire – Which consumes the herbs and shrubs.
3. Crown fire – Which bums the forest canopy.

Question 42.
Classify soil based on its formation.
Answer:
Based on soil formation (pedogenesis), the soils are divided into:

1. Residual soils -These are soils formed by weathering and pedogenesis of the rock.
2. Transported soils – These are transported by various agencies.

Question 43.
Loamy soil is ideal for crop cultivation – Justify.
Answer:
Loamy soil is ideal soil for cultivation, since it consists of 70% sand and 30% clay or silt or both. It ensures good retention and proper drainage of water. The porosity of soil provides adequate aeration and allows the penetration of roots.

Question 44.
Direction of mountain determines the richness of vegetation – Justify.
Answer:
North and south faces of mountain or hill possess different types of flora and fauna because they differ in their humidity, rainfall, light intensity, light duration and temperature regions. The two faces of the mountain or hill receive different amount of solar radiation, wind action and rain. Of these two faces, the windward region possesses good vegetation due to heavy rains and die leeward region possesses poor vegetation due to rain shadows (rain deficit).

Question 45.
What are epiphytes? Explain their characteristic features.
Answer:
The plants which are found growing on other plants without harming them are called epiphytes. They are commonly found in tropical rain forest The epiphytic higher plant (Orchids) gets its nutrients and water from the atmosphere with the help of their hygroscopic roots which contain special type of spongy tissue called Velamen. So it prepares its own food and does not depend on the host. They use the host plant only for support and does not harm.

Question 46.
Discuss on predator – prey interaction with example.
Answer:
Predation: It is an interaction between two species, one of which captures, kills and eats up the other. The species which kills is called a predator and the species which is killed is called a prey. The predator is benefitted while the prey is harmed. Many herbivores are predators. Cattles, Camels and Goats etc., frequently browse on the tender shoots of herbs, shrubs and trees.

Question 47.
Give an account of Mimicry.
Answer:
Mimicry is a phenomenon in which living organism modifies its form, appearance, structure or behavior and looks like another living organism as a self defence and increases the chance of their survival. Floral mimicry is for usually inviting pollinators but animal mimicry is often protective. Mimicry is a result of evolutionary significance due to shape and sudden heritable mutation and preservation of natural selection.

Question 48.
Mention any two species that exhibits protective mimicry.
Answer:

1. Carausium morosus (Stick insect)
2. PhyIlium frondosum (Leaf insect).

Question 49.
What is co-evolution? Explain with example.
Answer:
The interaction between organisms, when continues for generations, involves reciprocal changes in genetic and morphological characters of both organisms. This type of evolution is called Co-evolution. It is a kind of co-adaptation and mutual change among interactive species.
Examples:

• Corolla length and proboscis length of butterflies and moths (Habenaria and Moth).
• Bird’s beak shape and flower shape and size.

Question 50.
How physical dryness differ from physiological dryness?
Answer:

1. Physical dryness: In these habitats, soil has a little amount of water due to the inability of the soil to hold water because of low rainfall.
2. Physiological dryness: In these habitats, water is sufficiently present but plants are unable to absorb it because of the absence of capillary spaces.
   Example: Plants in salty and acidic soil.

Question 51.
Point out the Anatomical adaptations exhibited by the Halophytes.
Answer:
Anatomical adaptations:

1. Epidermal cells of stem is heavily cutinized, almost squarish and are filled with oil and tannins.
2. Star’ shaped sclereids and ‘H’ shaped heavy thickened spicules that provide mechanical strength to cortex are present in the stem.
3. The leaves may be dorsiventral or isobilateral with salt secreting glands.

5-Mark Question

Question 52.
Explain various edaphic factors that affect vegetation.
Answer:
The important edaphic factors which affect vegetation are as follows:

1. Soil moisture: Plants absorbs rain water and moisture directly from the air.
2. Soil water: Soil water is more important than any other ecological factors affecting the distribution of plants. Rain is the main source of soil water. Capillary water held between pore spaces of soil particles and angles between them is the most important form of water available to the plants.
3. Soil reactions: Soil may be acidic or alkaline or neutral in their reaction. pH value of the . soil solution determines the availability of plant nutrients. The best pH range of the soil for cultivation of crop plants is 5.5 to 6.8.
4. Soil nutrients: Soil fertility and productivity is the ability of soil to provide all essential plant nutrients such as minerals and organic nutrients in the form of ions.
5. Soil temperature: Soil temperature of an area plays an’important role in determining the
   geographical distribution of plants. Low temperature reduces use of water and solute absorption by roots. .
6. Soil atmosphere: The spaces left between soil particles are called pore spaces which contains oxygen and carbon-di-oxide.
7. Soil organisms: Many organisms existing in the soil like bacteria, fungi, algae, protozoans, nematodes, insects and earthworms, etc. are called soil organisms.

Question 53.
What does competition refers to? Classify and describe it.
Answer:
1.Competition: It is an interaction between two organisms or species in which both the organisms or species are harmed. Competition is the severest in population that has irregular distribution. Competition is classified into intraspecific and interspecific.

2. Intraspecific competition: It is an interaction between individuals of the same species. This competition is very severe because all the members of species have similar requirements of food, habitat and pollination etc., and they also have similar adaptations to fulfill their needs.

3. Interspecific competition: It is an interaction between individuals of different species. In grassland, many species of grasses grow well as there is little competition when enough nutrients and water is available. During drought Shortage of water occurs. A life and death competition starts among the different species of grass lands.

Survival in both these competitions is determined by the quantity of nutrients, availability of water and migration to new areas. Different species of herbivores, larvae and grass hopper competing for fodder or forage plants. Trees, shrubs and herbs in a forest struggle for sunlight, water and nutrients and also for pollination and dispersal of fruits and seeds, The Utricularia (Bladderwort) competes with tiny fishes for small crustaceans and insects.

Question 54.
Point out any five morphological adaptations of epiphytes.
Answer:
Morphological adaptations:

1. Root system is extensively developed. These roots may be of two types. They are Clinging roots and Aerial roots. Clinging roots fix the epiphytes firmly on the surface of the supporting objects. Aerial roots are green coloured roots which may hang downwardly and absorb moisture from the atmosphere with the help of a spongy tissue called velamen.
2. Stem of some epiphytes are succulent and develop pseudo bulb or tuber.
3. Generally the leaves are lesser in number and may be fleshy and leathery.
4. Myrmecophily is a common occurrence in the epiphytic vegetation to prevent the predators.
5. The fruits and seeds are very small and usually dispersed by wind, insects and birds.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
Being a tropical country, India is the largest producer of delicious mangoes. These mango tree don’t grow in temperate countries. Give reason.
Answer:
Mango tree show very narrow range of thermal tolerance. Hence they cannot grow in temperate countries.

Question 2.
What is cause of flag forms in trees?
Answer:
Unidirectional wind stimulates the development of flag forms in trees.

Question 3.
In the picture given below, A and B represents the two different biomes. What does the letter C denotes? What will be its impact on the organisms in C Explain with example.
Answer:

The letter C denotes Ecotone – a transition zone between two different ecosystem. Those species found in the ecotone will have impact of environment of two habitats.
E.g. Owl in the ecotone area between forest and grassland.

Question 4.
Observe the tabular column and complete it using proper terms.

Answer:
A = +
B = Commensalism
C = –
D = Parasitism
E = –

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English General Para Writing, Using Given Hints

Exercises
1. Develop the following hints into a readable passage and give a suitable title.
A rich farmer – lot of land – cattle and servants – two sons – happy life – After some years younger son unhappy – asked for his share of the property – wouldn’t listen to father’s advice – got his share – sold them all – went away to another country – fell into bad ways – soon all money gone – poor – no one to help him – understood his mistake.
Answer:

The Disobedient Son

Once there was a rich farmer in a Village. He had a lot of land, cattle and many servants. He had two sons. He led a happy life with them. After some years the younger son became unhappy.

He asked his father for his share of the property. His father advised him not to demand like that. But he would not listen to his father’s advice. He got his share and sold them. He had a huge amount with him.

With this amount he travelled to a distant country. He had bad company there and fell into evil ways. All the money was gone. He became poor and no one helped him. Then he understood his mistake and returned to his country. His father and brother took him into their fold and supported him forever. We should obey our parents.

Moral: We should obey our parents.

Develop the following hints into a readable passage and give a suitable title.

2. Devan – clever thief – robs the rich – gives all to the sick and the needy – other thieves jealous – plan to get rid of him – challenge Devan to steal the King’s pyjamas – Devan accepts challenge – finds king sleeping – opens a bottle of red ants on the bed – King badly bitten – cries for help – servants rush in pretends to look for ants – Devan removes King’s pyjamas – escapes – other thieves dumbfounded – accept Devan their leader
Answer:

Clever Thief

Devan was a clever thief. He robbed the rich and gave all to the sick and the needy. The other thieves were jealous of him. They planned to get rid of him. They challenged to steal the king’s pyjamas. Devan accepted the challenge. He found the king sleeping. He opened a bottle of red. ants on the bed. The king was badly bitten. He cried for help. The servants rushed in. They pretended to look for ants. Devan removed king’s pyjamas and escaped. Other thieves were dumb founded. They accepted Devan their leader.

Moral: When luck joins in the game cleverness scores double.

3. Develop the following hints into a readable passage and give a suitable title.
Manager of a firm advertised – night watchman – applicants presented – manager not satisfied – found something wrong with each man – there was Raju – an applicant – sat in a comer – patiently waiting – his turn came – manager found nothing wrong in his appearance – questioned about his health – got the reply -1 suffering from sleeplessness – manager happy – appointed him
Answer:

Night Watchman

The manager of a firm advertised for a night watchman. All the applicants were present. But the manager was not satisfied. He found something wrong with each man. There was Raju, an applicant. He was sitting in a comer, waiting for his turn. Manager found nothing wrong in his appearance. He questioned about his health. He got the reply that he was suffering from sleeplessness. Manager was happy and appointed him.

Moral: Life is about creating yourself.

4. Develop the following hints into a readable passage and give a suitable title.
Farmer in a village – had a hen – Golden egg – farmer became rich By selling golden eggs – greedy – thought to get all eggs at a time- killed the hen – found no eggs.
Answer:

The Greedy Farmer

There lived a farmer in a village. His name was Richard. He had a hen. The hen used to lay a golden egg every day. The farmer used to sell the golden egg in the market and got huge amount of money. Soon he became rich. He got a big house built. But the farmer was very greedy. He wanted to get more eggs every day. He thought, “At present I get an egg every day. This is not enough. Why should I not get all the eggs at a time? I must kill the hen to get all the golden eggs at a time.” And the greedy farmer killed the hen. Did the farmer find any egg? No, He did not find any egg. He was very sad now. He could not get golden egg now. This happened only due to his greed.

Moral: Greed leads to heavy losses..

5. Develop the following hints into a readable passage and give a suitable title.
Tenali Raman – offends King – King gets angry sentences Raman to death – but allows Raman to choose type of death – wise Raman – promptly says – want natural death – of old age – King amazed – pardons Raman.
Answer:

Tenali Raman’S Wisdom

Tenali Raman was a courtier. He offended the king. The king got angry and sentenced Raman to death. The king allowed Tenali Raman to choose the type of death. Raman was a wise man and he said like this, he wanted natural death and wanted to die of old age. The king was amazed at Tenali Raman’s wisdom and pardoned him.

Moral: Knowledge is strength.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 From Chiefdoms To Empires

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chiefdoms To Empires Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

From Chiefdoms To Empires Question 1.
The Kingdom which was most powerful among the four Mahajanapadas
(a) Anga
(b) Magadha
(c) Kosala
(d) Vajji
Answer:
(b) Magadhaj

From Chiefdoms To Empires In Tamil Question 2.
Among the following who was the contemporary of Gautama Buddha?
(a) Ajatasatru
(b) Bindusara
(c) Padmanabha Nanda
(d) Brihadratha
Answer:
(a) Ajatasatru

From Chiefdoms To Empires Book Back Answers Question 3.
Which of the following are the sources of Mauryan period?
(a) Artha Sastra
(b) Indica
(c) Mudrarakshasa
(d) All
Answer:
(d) AII

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 4.
Chandra Gupta Maurya abdicated the thrown and went to Sravanbelgola along with Jaina Saint …………….
(a) Badrabahu
(b) Stulabahu
(c) Parswanatha
(d) Rushabhanatha
Answer:
(a) Badrabahu

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 5.
was the ambassador of Seleucus Nicator.
(a) Ptolemy
(b) Kautilya
(c) Xerxes
(d) Megasthenese
Answer:
(d) Megasthenese

Question 6.
Who was the last emperor of the Mauryan Dynasty?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Brihadratha
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(c) Brihadratha

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Ashoka is considered as one of India’s greatest rulers.
Reason (R) : He ruled according to the principle of Dhamma.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
Statement 1 : Chandragupta Maurya was the first ruler who unified entire India under one political unit.
Statement 2 : The Arthashastra provides information about the Mauryan administration
(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both 1 and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement is/are correct.

1. Chandragupta Maurya was the first king of Magadha.
2. Rajagriha was the capital of Magadha.

(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) both and 2
(d) neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(b) only 2

Question 4.
Arrange the following dynasties in chronological order.
(a) Nanda – Sishunaga – Haryanka – Maurya
(b) Nanda – Sishunaga -Maurya – Haryanka
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya
(d) Sishunaga – Maurya – Nanda – Haryanka
Answer:
(c) Haryanka – Sishunaga – Nanda – Maurya]

Question 5.
Which of the following factors contributed to the rise of Magadhan Empire?

1. Strategic location
2. Thick forest supplied timber and elephant
3. Control over sea
4. Availability of rich deposits of iron ores

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,2 and 4 only
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. ______ was the earliest capital of Magadha.
2. Mudrarakshasa was written by______
3. ______ was the son of Bindusara.
4. The founder of the Maurya Empire was______
5. ______ were appointed to spread Dhamma all over the empire.

Answer:

1. Raj agriha
2. Visakadatta
3. Ashoka
4. Chandragupta Maurya
5. Mahamattas

IV. State True or False:

1. The title Devanam Piya was given to Chandragupta Maurya.
2. Ashoka gave up war after his defeat in Kalinga.
3. Ashoka’s Dhamma was based on the principle of Buddhism.
4. The lions on the currency notes is taken from the Rampurwa bull capital.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False

V. Match the following :

a. Gana 1. Arthasastra
b. Megasthenese 2. Religious tours
c. Chanakya 3. people
d. Dharmayatras 4. Indica
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 1 4 3
Answer:
(a) 3 4 1 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention any two literary
Answer:

1. Secular Literature
2. Religious Literature: Vedic, Jain, Buddhist texts and Puranas

Question 2.
What is a stupa?
Answer:

1. A stupa is a semi-spherical dome-like structure. It is constructed on brick or stone.
2. The buddha’s relics were placed in the centre.

Question 3.
Name the dynasties of Magadha.
Four dynasties ruled over Magadha Empire.

1. The Haryanka dynasty
2. The Shishunaga dynasty
3. The Nanda dynasty
4. The Maurya dynasty

Question 4.
What were the sources of revenue during Mauryan period?
Answer:

1. The land was the most important source of revenue for the state. The land tax (bhaga) was 1/6 of the total produce.
2. Additional revenue was taxes on forests, mines, salt and irrigation.

Question 5.
Who assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns?
Answer:
Sthanika and Gopa assisted Nagarika in the administration of towns.

Question 6.
What do you know from the Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka?
Answer:
The Rock Edicts II and XIII of Ashoka refer to the names of three dynasties.

1. Pandyas
2. Cholas
3. The Keralaputras and the Sathyaputras.

Question 7.
Which classical Tamil poetic works have the reference of Maurvans?
Answer:
Mamulahar’s poem in Agananuru gives the reference of the Mauryans.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What did Ashoka do to spread Buddhism?
Answer:

1. Ashoka sent his son Mahinda and daughter Sanghamitta to Srilanka to propagate Buddhism.
2. He also sent missionaries to West Asia, Egypt, and Eastern Europe to spread the message of Dhamma.
3. The Dhamma-mahamattas were a new cadre of officials created by Ashoka.
4. Their job was to spread dhamma all over the empire.
5. Ashoka held the third Buddhist counil at his capital pataliputra.

Question 2.
Write any three causes for the rise of Magadha.
Answer:

1. Magadha was located on the lower part of the Gangetic plain. The plain was fertile which ensured the rich agricultural yield. This provided income to the state.
2. The thick forests supplied timber for construction of buildings and elephants for army.
3. Abundance of natural resources especially iron enabled them to equip themselves with weapens made of iron.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Kalinga war became a turning paint in Ashoka’$ life. How?

1. In the war of Kalinga, many people died.
2. He understood that war only brings destruction of families.
3. The Kalinga war had incredible influence over the personal life and policy of Ashoka.
4. Hence Kalinga war proved to be a turning point in the life of Ashoka.
5. He found his consolation in Buddhism.
6. He was representing for his deeds. He embraced Buddhism and took the vow of \ inculcation ‘Dhamma’ to all men through out his life.
7. He gave up the policy of Dig Vijay and adopted the policy of Dharma Vijay.

Question 2.
Write any five welfare measures you would do if you were a king like Ashoka.
Answer:

1. Free education to all.
2. Free food for the disabled, the aged, the sick and the needy.
3. Free medical treatment to all the citizens.
4. Free shelter for the homeless.
5. Justice for all. Equality of gender, religion, caste.

IX. Picture Study

Question 1.
This is the picture off an Ashokan edict.

a. What are edicts?
b. How are Ashokan edicts useful?
c. Where were these edicts inscribed?
d. Name the script used in Sanchi Inscription.
e. How many Rock Edicts are there?
Answer:
(a) An Edict is an official order or proclamation issued by a person in authority or a king.
(b) Edicts are very informative about Ashoka’s belief in peace, righteousness, Justice and his concern for the welfare of the people.
(c) The edicts were inscribed on the pillars as well as boulders and cave walls made by the Emperor Ashoka.
(d) Brahmi Script.
(e) 33 Rock Edicts.

X. Who am I

1. I belonged to Haryanka dynasty. I extended territory by matrimonial alliances. My son is Ajatasatru – who am I?
2. I played a significant role in the transformation of society. I am used in making ploughshare – Who am I?
3. I was known as Devanampiya. I embraced the path of peace – Who am I?
4. I established the first largest empire in India. I performed Sallekhana. Who am I?
5. Iam found in the Lion capital of Ashoka. I am at the centre of our national flag. Who am I?

Answer:

1. Bimbisara
2. Iron
3. Ashoka
4. Chandra Gupta Maurya
5. Ashoka Chakra

XI. Decipher the code – The Mauryan Empire.

1. The first dynasty that ruled over Magadha was ______ (8, 1, 18, 25, 1, 14, 11, 1).
2. ______ empire was the first largest empire (13, 1, 21,18, 25, 1).
3.  ______ laid the foundation of the new capital at Pataliputra. (21, 4, 1,25, 9,14).
4.  ______ was one of the main exports (19, 16, 9, 3, 5, 19).
5.  ______ became later the most renowned seat of learning. (14, 1, 12, 1, 14, 4, 1).
6. Revenue from agricultural produce was called ______ (2, 8, 1, 7, 1).
7. The horror of war was described in ______ (18, 15, 3, 11, 5, 4, 9, 3, 20)
8. Greeks called Bindusara as ______ (1, 13, 9, 20, 18, 1,7, 1, 20, 8, 1)
9. The crowning element in Saranath Pillar is ______ (4, 8,1, 18,13,1, 3, 8,1,11,18,1)
10. Council of ministers were known as ______ (13, 1, 14, 4, 18, 9, 16, 1, 18, 9, 19, 8, 1,4)

Answer:

1. HARYANKA
2. MAURY
3. UDAYIN
4. SPICKS
5. NALAINDA
6. HAGA
7. ROCK EDICT
8. AMITRAG AT HA
9. DHARMA CHAKRA
10. MANDRIPARISHAD

XIII Map Work

1. Mark the extent of Aihokan Empire.
2. Mark the fallowing places a the river map of India

a. Taxila
b. Pataliputra
c. Ujjain
d. Sanchi
e. Indraprastha

XIV Life Skill

Question 1.
Make a model of Ashoka Chakra.

Question 2.
Make a model of Sanchi Stupa.

Question 3.
Draw and colour our National Flag

XV. Answer Grid:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science From Chief Doms To Empires Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The earliest gathering places of men were
(a) Kingdoms
(b) Janapadas
(c) Mahajanapadas
(d) Republics
Answer:
(b) Janapadas

Question 2.
The capital city Pataliputra had ……………. gates to the city.
(a) 24
(b) 32
(c) 49
(d) 64
Answer:
(d) 64

Question 3.
Udavin belonged to dynasty.
(a) Nanda
(b) Shishunaga
(c) Haryanka
(d) Maurya
Answer:
(c) Haryanka

Question 4.
Kalasoka belonged to ……………. dynasty.
(a) Haryanka
(b) Shishunaga
(c) Nanda
(d) Maurya
Answer:
(b) Shishunaga

Question 5.
The name Vishnu Gupta refers to
(a) Ajata satru
(b) Ashoka
(c) Dhana nanda
(d) Chanakya
Answer:
(d) Chanakya

Question 6.
Simhasena refers to
(a) Chandragupta
(b) Bambisara
(c) Udayin
(d) Bindusara
Answer:
(a) Chandragupta

Question 7.
Ashoka sent his son and daughter to
(a) China
(b) Burma
(c) Srilanka
(d) Indonesia
Answer:
(c) Srilanka

Question 8.
Under the Mauryas, the king was
(a) Sovereign authority
(b) head of the Judiciary
(c) Commander of the Army
(d) All the three
Answer:
(d) All the three

Question 9.
The terms Sthanika and Gopa are related to Mauryan
(a) Council
(b) Assembly
(c) Army
(d) Town Administration
Answer:
(a) Council

Question 10.
Mashakas were made out of
(a) copper
(b) gold
(c) silver
(d) paper
Answer:
(a) copper

Question 11.
Dasharatha Maurya was the grand son of
(a) Bindusara
(b) Bimbisara
(c) Dhana Nanda
(d) Ashoka
Answer:
(d) Ashoka

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement (A) : Magadha’s gradual rise to political supremacy began with Bimbisara of Haryanka dynasty.
Reason (R) : Bimbisara extended the territory of Magadhan Empire by matrimonial alliances
(a) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is true but R is false.
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Which of the statement given below is / are correct?
Statement I : Megasthenese was an Ambassador from Greece in the court of Chandragupta Maurya.
Statement II : Megasthenese – work ‘Indica’ is one of the main sources of the Mauryan Empire.
(a) Only II
(b) Only I
(c) Neither I nor II
(d) Both I and II
Answer:
(d) Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statements is/ are correct.

1. Trade flourished under the Maurvans.
2. Spices and Ivory works formed the main exports under the Mauryans

(a) only 1
(b) only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:
(c) Both 1 and 2

Question 4.
Arrange the following rulers in Chronological order
(a) Bimbisara, Kalasoka, Mahapadma Nanda, Chandra Gupta
(b) Chandra Gupta, Mahapadma Nanda, Bimbisara, Kalasoka
(c) Kalasoka, Bimbisara, Chandra Gupta, Mahapadma Nanda
(d) Mahapadma Nanda, Chandra Gupta, Kalasoka, Bimbisara
Answer:
(a) Bimbisara, Kalasoka, Mahapadma Nanda, Chandra Gupta

Question 5.
Which of the following factors contributed to the decline of the Mauryan Empire?

1. Weak successors
2. Continuous revolts
3. Invasion by Bactrian Greeks
4. Regular and substantial income to the state.

(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) All of these
(c) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 4 only.
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 3 only

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The term ‘gana’ means ______.
2. Sixteen dooted the indo – Gangetic plain in the sixth century BC
3. The thick forests supplied _______ for the construction of buildings
4. Kalasoka belonged to ______dynasty
5. Mahapadma Nanda was succeeded by his eight sons known as_______
6. The tearm nalanda means_______
7. Megasthanese stayed in India for _________ Years.
8. The teacher and advisor to Emperor Chandra Gupta Maurya was ______
9. Chandragupta performed ________ in Sravanbelgola.
10. Chandragupta Maurya’s son was ______
11. Bindusara was succeeded by his son ______
12. Ashoka was known as ‘Devanam Piya’ which means ______
13. Ashoka’s Dhamma contained the essence of ________
14. The third Buddhist council was held at ______
15. The first Buddhist council was held at ______
16. The second Buddhist council was held at ______
17. The foundation for the new capital at Pataliputra was laid by _____
18. The highest court of appeal under the Mauryans was _______
19. Status of Yakshas and Yakshis belonged to the _______
20. Three caves in Barabar hills have dedicative inscriprion of __________

Answer:

1. people of equal status
2. Mahajanapadas
3. timber
4. Sishunaga
5. Navanandas
6. No stopping of the gift of knowledge
7. 14
8. Chanakya / Vishnugupta/ Kautilyal
9. Sallekhanai
10. Bindusaral
11. Ashokal
12. beloved of the Gods
13. All religions
14. Pataliputraj
15. Raj agriha
16. Vaishali
17. Udayin
18. The king
19. Indigenous
20. Ashoka

IV. State True or False:

1. Mahavira and Buddha represented the new awakening in the sixth century BC (BCE)
2. Among the four Mahajana padas Vatsa emerged as an empire.
3. Haryanka dynasty was succeeded by Sishunaga dynasty.
4. Seleucus wrote the book Indica.
5. Chanakya is called the Architect of the Mauryan Empire.
6. After the battle of Kalinga, Ashoka became a Buddhist.
7. Ashoka emphasised on obedience and respect for parents, preceptors and elders.
8. Council of Ministers referred to Mantriparishad.
9. Mauryans were not aware of spy system.
10. Under the Mauryan administration punishments were very mild.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. True
8. True
9. False
10. False

V. Match the following:

1. Panchala (a) Foreign Notice
2. Mahavamsa (b) Daughter
3. Ashoka (c) Proclamation
4. Sangamithra (d) Mahajanapada
5. Edict (e) Governor of Ujjain

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)

VI. Answer in one or two sentences :

Question 1.
Explain the term kingdom.
Answer:

1. Kingdom means a territory ruled by a king or queen.
2. In a kingdom (monarchy), a family, which rules for a long period becomes a dynasty.
3. Usually these kingdoms adhered to orthodox Vedic traditions.

Question 2.
Who was Bhadrabahu?
Answer:

1. Bhadrabahu was a Jain monk.
2. He took Chandragupta Maurya to South India.

Question 3.
Name the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Name of the Sixteen Mahajanapadas are
Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Kasi, Kura, Kosala, Avanti, Chedi, Vatsa, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Gandhara and Kamboja.

Question 4.
Write a note on Megasthenese.
Answer:

1. Megasthenese was the ambassador of the Greek ruler, Seleucus.
2. He lived in the court of ChandraGupta Maurya.
3. He stayed in India for 14 years.
4. He wrote the book Indica, one of the main sources for the study of Mauryan Empire.

Question 5.
Write about Pataliputra.
Answer:

1. Pataliputra was the capital of the Mauryan Empire.
2. It has 64 gates to the city with 570 watch towers.

Question 6.
Why is Chanakya known as the architect of the Mauryan empire?
Answer:

1. Chanakya was the teacher and advisor to Emperor Chandragupta Mauryan.
2. His treatise on statecraft ‘Arthashastra’ was a very great guide for rulers.
3. Hence he is referred to as the architect of the Mauryan empire.

Question 7.
Explain Ashoka’s Dhamma.
Answer:

1. The meaning of Dhamma is explained in Ashoka’s – Pillar Edict II.
2. It contained the noblest ideas of humanism, forming the essence of all religions.
3. He laid stress On Compassion, Charity, Purity, Saintliness, Self-control, Truthfulness, Obedience and respect for parents, preceptors and elders.

Question 8.
Mention the different wings of the Mauryan army.
Answer:

1. Under the Mauryan army, a board of 30 members divided into six committees with five members on each, monitored
2. Navy, Armoury (transport and supply), Infantry, Cavalry, The war chariots and The war elephants.

Question 9.
Mention the regions which produced specialised textiles under the Mauryas.
Answer:
The regions which produced specialised textiles under the Mauryas were Kasi (Benares), Vanga (Bengal), Kamarupa (Assam) and Madurai in Tamilnadu.

Question 10.
What were the exports and imports of the Mauryans?
Answer:

1. Main exports were Spices, Pearls, Diamonds, Cotton textiles, Ivory Works, Conch Shells.
2. Main Imports were Horses, Gold, Glassware, Linen.

Question 11.
Mention the two divisions of the Mauryan art.
Answer:
Mauryan art can be divided into two.

1. Indigenous Art – Statues of Yakshas and Yakshis.
2. Royal Art – Palaces and Public buildings, Monolithic Pillars, Rock cut Architecture, ‘ Stupas.

Question 12.
Who were Yakshas and Yakshis?
Answer:

1. Yakshas were deities connected with water, fertility, trees, the forest and wilderness,
2. Yakshis were their female counterpart.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Mention the role of iron in changing a society.
Answer:

1. Iron played a significant role in this transformation of society.
2. The fertile soil of the Gangetic Valley and the use of iron ploughshares improved , agricultural productivity.
3. Iron facilitated craft production.
4. Agrarian surplus and increase in craft products resulted in the emergence of trading and exchange centres.
5. There were rise of towns and cities.

Question 2.
Write about the revenue system of the Mauryans.

1. The land was the most important source of revenue for the state.
2. Bali and Bagha as taxes collected from people.
3. The land tax (bhaga) collected was 1/6 of the total produce.
4. Revenue from taxes on forests, mines, salt and irrigation provided additional revenue to the government.
5. Much of the State revenue was spent on paying the army, the officials of the royal government, on charities and on different public works.

Question 3.
Mention the reasons for the decline of the Mauryan empire.
Answer:

1. Ashoka’s successors were very weak.
2. Continuous revolts in different parts of the empire.
3. Invasion by the Bactrian Greeks weakened the empire.
4. Pacifist policy of Ashoka weakened the military strength.
5. Last Maurya ruler Brihadratha was killed by his commander Pushyamitra Sungha.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
State the salient feature of the Lion Capital of Ashoka.
Answer:

1. The lion capital of Ashoka is a sculpture of four Asiatic lions standing back to back on an elaborate base.
2. This base includes other animals.
3. A graphic representation of it was adopted as the official emblem of India in 1950.
4. It was originally placed atop the Ashoka pillar at the important Buddhist site of Samath by the Emperor Ashoka, in about 250 BCE.
5. The pillar, sometimes called the Ashoka Column, is still in its original location.
6. But the Lion Capital is now in the Samath Museum, in the state of Uttar Pradesh.
7. It is 7 feet high including the base.
8. The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction on the Buddhist Dharma Chakra with 24 spokes.

Question 2.
One of the seven wonders of Ancient world – Great wall of China – Prove.
Answer:

1. The Great Wall of China is a series of fortifications made of stone, brick, tamped earth, wood, and other materials.
2. It is built along an east-to-west line across the historical northern borders of China.
3. It was built to protect the Chinese states and empires against the raids and invasions of the various nomadic groups of the Eurasian Steppe.
4. It was built by Qin Shi Huang, the first Emperor of China. Little of that wall remains.
5. The Great Wall has been rebuilt, maintained, and enhanced over various dynasties.

Question 3.
The temple of Zeus at Olympia is an important piece of art in Greek history. – Do you agree?
Answer:

1. The temple of Zeus at Olympia was an ancient Greek temple in Olympia, Greece.
2. It was dedicated to the God Zeus.
3. The temple was built in the second quarter of the 5th Century BCE.
4. Zeus is the Sky and Thunder God in ancient Greek religion, who rules as king of the Gods of Mount Olympus.

Question 4.
What do you about the Lomas Rishi cave, Barabar.
Answer:

1. The Lomas Rishi Cave, also called the Grotto of Lomas Rishi, is one of the man¬’ made Barabar Caves in the Barabar and Nagarjuni hills of Jehanabad district in Bihar.
2. This rock-cut cave was carved out as a sanctuary.
3. It was built during the Ashokan period of the Maurya Empire in the 3rd century BC.

Question 5.
Nalanda served as a great source of knowledge. Prove.
Answer:

1. Nalanda was a large Buddhist monastery, in the ancient kingdom of Magadha (modern-day Bihar) in India.
2. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
3. Nalanda flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries.
4. The word Nalanda is a Sanskrit combination of three words Na + alam + daa meaning “no stopping of the gift of knowledge”.
5. The school attracted scholars and students from near and far with some travelling from Tibet, China, Korea and Central Asia

Question 6.
State the importance of Girnar Inscription of Rudradaman.
Answer:

1. The Junagarh / Gimar Inscription gives the information about the Sudarshana Lake
2. This lake was an artificial reservoir.
3. The Construction was begun during the time of Chandra Gupta Maurya and completed during Ashoka’s reign.
4. It was built by the Mauryan kings to check floods.
5. Around 150AD, lake was repaired by the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I.
6. Again it was repaired under the Skandagupta’s reign by his Governor Pamadatta.

IX. Who am I

1. I Practise egalitarian traditions.
2. I supply elephants for army.
3. I was overthrown by Chandra Gupta Maurya.
4. I wrote a treatise on state craft.
5. I was called by the Greeks as ‘slayer of enemies’.
6. I carry an official order or proclamation issued by a king.
7. I am the crowning element of Saranath Pillar.
8. I am known as Patna now. Originally who was I?

Answer:

1. Gana-Sangha
2. Thick forests
3. Dhana Nanda
4. Chanakya
5. Bindusara
6. Edict
7. Dharmachakra
8. Pataliputra

X. Decipher the code – The Mauryan. Empire.

1. It means a territory ruled by a king or queen ______ (11, 9, 14, 7, 4, 15, 13).
2. He shifted the Capital from Rajagirha to Pataliputra. (11, 1, 12,1, 19, 15, 11, 1).
3. One of the religions sources of the Mauryan Empire ______ (16,21,18,1,14,1, 19).
4. It is a part of our National Flag. (1, 19, 18,15, 11, 1,3,8, 1, 11, 19, 1).
5. Construction of this lake was begun during the time of Chandra Gupta Mauryan and completed during Ashoka’s reign ______ (19, 21, 4, 1, 18, 19, 8, 1, 14, 1).
6. One of the main exports of the Mauryan Period. (4, 9, 1, 13, 15, 14, 4, 19).
7. Statues of Yakshas and Yakshi come under the ______ art of the Mauryans,(9, 14, 4, 9, 7, 5, 14, 15, 14,21, 19)
8. Ancient name of Odisha. (11, 1, 12, 9, 14, 7, 1).

Answers:

1. KINGDOM
2. KALASOK
3. PURANAS
4. ASHOKA CHAKRA
5. SUDARSH ANA
6. DIAMONDS
7. INDIGENOUS
8. KALLNGA

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Grammar Spot The Error

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Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
1. People of diverse cultures live together in India.
People of diverse cultures live together in India.

2. Geoffrey Chaucer is considered to be the ‘Father for English Literature’ and the greatest poet of the Middle Ages.
Geoffrey Chaucer is considered by many to be the ‘Father for English Literature’ and the greatest poet of the Middle Ages.

3. The two first units of the text book are boring.
The first two units of the text book are boring.

4. She only lost her glasses in the stampede.
Only she lost her glasses in the stampede.

5. William Wordsworth is born in 1770 and helped developed a new literary movement called Romanticism.
William Wordsworth was bom in 1770 and helped develop a new literary movement called Romanticism.

6. He put of his coat.
He put off his coat.

7. He sat besides John.
He sat beside John.

8. There is nothing much selfish much you can do than come for work sick.
There is nothing more selfish much you can do than come to work sick.

9. Elimination for child lablour is undoubtedly for one of the biggest challenges facing our country.
Elimination of child lablour is undoubtedly for one of the biggest challenges facing our country.

10. The bird flew above the ocean.
The bird flew over the ocean.

11. It is a five – years integrated degree course.
It is a five – year integrated degree course.

12. One must finish his duty on time.
One must finish one’s duty on time.

13. Today, democracy is often assumed to be a liberal form at governance.
Today, democracy is often assumed to be a liberal form of governance.

14. Overeating is one of the more wonderful practices among those which think that they can afford it.
Overeating is one of the most wonderful practices among those who think that they can afford it.

15. The opening ceremony for the 2016 Summer Olympic Games takes place in the Maracana stadium.
The opening ceremony of the 2016 Summer Olympic Games took place in the Maracana stadium.

16. No less than forty persons were hurt in the accident.
No fewer than forty people were hurt in the accident.

17. It is one of the most memorable day in my life.
It is one of the most memorable days in my life.

18. I regard Ram my friend.
I regard Ram as my friend.

19. The mobile phone neither went dead or worked properly.
The mobile phone neither went dead nor worked properly.

20. One must finish his work in time.
One must finish one’s work in time.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Vocabulary Clipped Words

Clipping is a process of coining a new word. It is done by removing a portion of the original word.
For example: document – doc

Clipped Words For 12th English Question 1.
Choose the clipped word for airplane”.
(a) aer
(b) aerop
(c) aero
(d) plane
Answer:
(d) plane

Clipped Word For Internet Question 2.
Choose the clipped word for “biology”.
(a) bio
(b) biol
(c) logy
(d) Biolog
Answer:
(a) bio

12th English Clipped Words Question 3.
Choose the clipped word for the word “cafeteria”.
(a) caf
(b) cafe
(c) tena
(a) cafet
Answer:
(b) cafe

Clipped Word For Promenade Question 4.
Choose the clipped word for “champion”.
(a) chap
(b) pion
(c) ch ion
(d) champ
Answer:
(d) champ

Clipped Word For Cafeteria Question 5.
Choose the clipped word for “Chemistry”.
(a) Chemist
(b) Mistry
(c) Chern
(d) Chemis
Answer:
(c) Chem

Clipped Form Of Cafeteria Question 6.
Choose the clipped word for “chimpanzee”.
(a) chimpan
(b) chimp
(c) panzee
(d) chirn
Answer:
(b) chimp

Clipped Word Of Chemistry Question 7.
Choose the clipped word tòr “coeducational”.
(a) co-ed
(b) co-edu
(c) co-educate
(d) co-educ
Answer:
(a) co-ed

Cafeteria Clipped Word Question 8.
Choose the clipped word for “Internet”.
(a) mt
(b) intern
(c) net
(d) inter
Answer:
(c) net

Clipped Words Pdf Question 9.
Choose the clipped word for “graduate”.
(a) grate
(b) grad
(c) grade
(d) gradu
Answer:
(b) grad

Clipped Word Of Internet Question 10.
Choose the clipped word for “electronic mail”.
(a) E-mail
(b) electro-mail
(c) elect-mail
(d) e-mail
Answer:
(d) e-mail

Clipped Word For Information Question 11.
Choose the clipped word for ‘dormitory”.
(a) dort
(b) dorm
(c) dormi
(d) dormit
Answer:
(b) dorm

Clipped Form Of Hippopotamus Question 12.
Choose the clipped word for “fabulous”.
(a) fabul
(b) falous
(c) fab
(d) fabu
Answer:
(c) fab

Clipped Word Question 13.
Choose the clipped word for the word “information”.
(a) info
(b) inform
(c) ino
(d) infrm
Answer:
(a) info

Clipped Word For University Question 14.
Choose the clipped word for “gasoline”.
(a) galine
(b) gas
(c) gasol
(d) gaso
Answer:
(b) gas

Clipped Word For Demarcate Question 15.
Choose the clipped word for “hippopotamus”.
(a) hipot
(b) potamus
(c) hipo
(d) hippo
Answer:
(d) hippo

Clipped Word For Pianoforte Question 16.
Choose the clipped word for “teenager”.
(a) tee
(b) teenag
(c) teen
(d) ager
Answer:
(c) teen

Question 17.
Choose the clipped word for “luncheon”.
(a) lunch
(b) lunchon
(c) leon
(d) lunchen
Answer:
(a) lunch

Question 18.
Choose the clipped word for “moving picture”.
(a) mpic
(b) mopic
(c) movepic
(d) movie
Answer:
(d) movie

Question 19.
Choose the clipped
(a) piano word for “pianoforte”.
(b) piaf
(c) pionofort
(d) piaforte
Answer:
(a) piano

Question 20.
Choose the clipped
(a) prade word for “promenade”.
(b) promade
(c) prom
(d) promade
Answer:
(c) prom

Question 21.
Choose the clipped
(a) reftor word for ‘refrigerator’.
(b) refrig
(c) gerator
(d) fridge
Answer:
(d) fridge

Question 22.
Choose the clipped
(a) chronise word for “synchronise”.
(b)synchron
(c) sync
(d) synchro
Answer:
(d) vet

Question 23.
Choose the clipped
(a) rhin word for the word “rhinoceros”.
(b) rhino
(c) rhinoce
(d) ceros
Answer:
(c) sync

Question 24.
Choose the clipped
(a) stats word for “statistics”.
(b) statis
(c) static
(d) statist
Answer:
(b) rhino

Question 25.
Choose the clipped word for “veterinarian”.
(a) vetem
(b) vetrin
(c) veter
(d) vet
Answer:
(a) stats

Some more examples of clipped words:

1	agriculture	agri
2.	alchemist	chemist
3.	alumni/alumna	alum
4.	amend	mend
5.	apollinaris	polly
6.	automobile	auto
7.	beautiful	beauty
8.	biology	bio
9.	botany	bot
10.	brassiere	bra
11.	brother	bro
12.	burst	bust
13.	buttocks	butt
14.	cablegram	cable
15.	calculus	calc
16.	cellphone	cell
17.	centum	cent
18.	cleric	clerk
19.	coattails	tails
20.	coca-cola / cocaine	coke
21.	coeducational	coed
22.	comprehensive	comp
23.	condominium	condo
24.	co-operative	co-op
25.	cousin	cous
26.	cucumber	cuke
27.	daddy	dad
28.	daily paper	daily
29.	delicatessen / delicacy	deli
30.	dental / dentistry	dent
31.	detective	tec
32.	differential	diff
33.	disport	sport
34.	distill	still          ;
35.	doctor	doc
36.	dormitory	dorm
37.	drapery	drape
38.	earthquake	quake
39.	ecology	eco
40.	enthusiasm	enthu
41.	examination	exam
42.	fabulous	fab
43.	faggot	fag
44.	fraternity	frat
45.	gabble	gab
’46.	gentleman	gent
47.	Gypsy	gyp
48.	hackney	hack
49.	head-shrinker	shrink
50.	homosexual	homo
51.	jet aircraft	jet
52.	laboratory	lab
53.	lavatory	lav
54.	limousine	limo
55.	literature	lit
56.	lubricate	lube
57.	mathematics	maths
58,	maximum	max
59.	medical	medic
60.	memorandum	memo
61.	mistress	miss
62.	mobile vulgus	mob
63.	modem	mod
64.	mommy	mom
65.	motorcar	car
66.	non-vegetarian	non-veg
67.	oleomargarine	margarine
68.	parachute	chute
69.	parole dhonneur	parole
70.	penitentiary	pen
71.	pepper	pep
72.	percolate / perquisite	perk
73.	periwig	wig
74.	petroleum	petro
75.	photograph	photo
76.	popular	pop
77.	president	pres
78.	professional	pro
79.	professor	prof
80.	psychology	psych
81.	public house	pub
82.	pugnacious	pug
83.	pajamas	jams/jammies
84.	quadrangle / quadraphonic	quad
85.	raccoon	coon
86.	referee/reference	ref          ‘
87.	representative	rep
88.	revolution/reverend	rev
89.	robot	bot
90.	saxophone	sax
91.	schizophrenic	schizo
92.	scramble	scram
93.	squadron	squad
94.	specifications	specs
95.	sweatsuit	sweats
96.	synchronize	sync
97.	teacher	teach
98.	technical	tech
99.	telephone	phone
100.	television	tele
101.	trigonometry	trig
102.	triumph	trump
103.	trombone	bone
104.	turnpike	pike
105.	tuxedo	tux
106.	tympani	tymps
107.	universal joint	U joint
108.	university	varsity
109.	vegetarian	veg
110.	veteran / veterinarian	vet
111.	website	web
112.	zoological garden	zoo

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Status of Women in India through the Ages

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Status of Women in India through the Ages Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Status Of Women In India Through The Ages Question 1.
…………… society is constantly changing with additions, assimilation and omissions from within and outside.
(a) Human
(b) Animal
(c) Forest
(d) Nature
Answer:
(a) Human

Question 2.
The First woman doctor in India was
(a) Dharmambal
(b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
(c) Moovalur Ramamirdham
(d) Panditha Ramabai
Answer:
(b) Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

Question 3.
The practice of sat was abolished in.
(a) 1827
(b) 1828
(c) 1829
(d) 1830
Answer:
(c) 1829

Question 4.
B.M Malabar was a
(a) teacher
(b) doctor
(c) lawyer
(d) journalist
Answer:
(d) journalist

Question 5.
Which of the following was/were the reform movement(s)?
(a) Brahma Samaj
(b) Prarthana Samaj
(c) Arya Samaj
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 6.
The Bethune school was founded in by J.E.D. Bethune.
(a) 1848
(b) 1849
(c) 1850
(d) 1851
Answer:
(b) 1849

Question 7.
Which commission recommended to start primary schools for girls in 1882?
(a) Wood’s
(b) Welly
(c) Hunter
(d) Muddiness
Answer:
(c) Hunter

Question 8.
Sara’s child Marriage Bill fixing the minimum marriageable age for girls at.
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) 14
Answer:
(d) 14

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. ……………. society was setup by the Christian missionaries in 1819.
2. ……………. of Sivaganga fought bravely against the British.
3. Servants of India Society was started by ……………
4. ……………. was the one of the greatest social reformer of Tamil Nadu.
5. Kandukuri Veeresalingam published a journal called …………….

III. Match the following:

1. Theosophical society – Italian traveler
2. Sarada Sadan – Social evil
3. Wood’s Despatch – Annie Besant
4. Niccolo Conti – Pandita RamaBhai
5. Dowry – 1854

Answer:

1. Theosophical society — Annie Besant
2. Sarada Sadan — Pandita RamaBhai
3.  Wood’s Despatch — 1854
4. Niccolo Conti — Italian traveler
5. Dowry — Social evil

IV. State True or False:

1. Women were honoured in Rig Vedic period.
2. Devadasi system was a social evil.
3. Raja Rammohan Roy, was the pioneer of Indian social reform movement.
4. Reservation of 23 percent to women envisaged an improvement in the sociopolitical status of women.
5. The age of marriage was raised for boys and girls by the Sharda Act of 1930.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Find out the correct pair:
(a) Women’s university – Prof. D.K. Karve
(b) Justice Ranade – Arya Samaj
(c) Widow Remarriage Act – 1855
(d) Rani Lakshmi Bhai – Delhi
Answer:
(a) Women’s university – Prof. D.K. Karve

Question 2.
Find the odd
(a) Child marriage devadasi system)
(b) sati
(c) devadasi system
(d) widow remarriage
Answer:
(d) widow remarriage

Question 3.
Consider the following Statements
i) Begum Hazarat Mahal, Rani Lakshmi Bhai led an armed revolt against the British
ii) Velunachiyar of Sivaganga, Tamil Nadu fought bravely against the British Which of the statement (s) given above is/or correct?
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i and ii
(d) neither i nor ii
Answer:
(c) i and ii

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Raja Rammohan Roy is most remembered by all Indians
Reason (R): He wiped out the evil practice of Sati form the Indian Society
(a) A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Quesstion 1.
Name the prominent leaders who fought for the enlistment of women.
Answer:
During the British Raj, many socioreligious reformers like Raja Rammohan Roy, Dayananda Saraswathi, Keshab Chandra Sen, Iswara Chandra Vidya Sagar, Pandita Ramabai, Dr. Muthulakshmi, Jyoti rao phule, Periyar E.V.R, Dr. Dharmambal were the prominent leaders who fought for the upliftment of women.

Question 2.
List out some social evils.
Answer:
Sat, child marriages, female infanticide, Purdah system and slavery were some of the social evils that existed in Indian Society.

Question 3.
Who were the notable women during the medieval period?
Answer:
Some of the notable women during the medieval period were Razia sultana, Queen Durgavati, Chand bibi, Nurjahan, Jahan nara, Jijabai and Mira bai.

Question 4.
Mention the important women freedom fighters of India.
Answer:
Velunachiyar of Sivaganga, Begum Hazrat Mahal and Rani Lakshmi Bhai of Jhansi were important women freedom fighters of India.

Question 5.
Give a note on Sati.
Answer:

1. Sati was social evil that prevailed in Indian Society especially among the Rajputs,
2. The feudal society of the time encouraged “sati” which meant self-immolation of the widow on the funeral pyre of her husband.
3. Earlier it was a voluntary act but later by the relatives forced the widow to sit on the funeral pyre.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Trace the role of women in freedom struggle.
Answer:

• The spread of female education led to several other social reforms of great consequences, such as the abolition of purdah system, participation of women in the freedom struggle.
•  In the early anti-colonial Struggle women played major roles in various capacities,
• Velunachiyar of Sivaganga fought violently against the British and restored her rule in Sivaganga.
•  Begum Hazrat Mahal, Rani Lakshmi Bhai of Jhansi led an armed revolt of 1857* against the British.
• In the freedom struggle thousands of women came out of their homes, boycotted foreign goods, marched in processions, defied laws, received lathi charges and Courted jails.

Quesstion 2.
Explain the contribution of the Social Reformers for the eradication of social evils.
Answer:
The contribution of the social reformers for the eradication of social evils is listed below.
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

• Raja Rammohan Roy was, the pioneer of Indian social reform movement by abolishing sati in 1829 with the help of Lord William Bentinck.
• He also protested against the child marriage and female infanticide and favoured the remarriage of widows.

(b) Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar:

• Ishwar Chandra Vidhyasagar carried on the movement for female education, widow remarriage and abolition of polygamy in Bengal.
• He was instrumental to passing of the Hindu Widow Remarriage Act in 1856.
•  His son Narayanachandra set an example to others by marrying a widow of his choice.

(c) Kandukuri Veeresalingam:

• Veeresalingam Pantulu published a journal Viveka Vardhani.
• He opened his first girls’ school in 1874, and made widow remarriage and female education the key points of his programme for social reform.

(d) M.G. Ranade and B.M. Malabari:

• In Bombay presidency, M.G. Ranade and B.M. Malabari carried on the movement
  for the upliftment of women.
• In 1869, Ranade joined the Widow Remarriage Association and encouraged widow remarriage and female education.
• He opposed child marriage..
• In 1884, B.M. Malabari, a journalist, started a movement for the abolition of child marriage.

(e) Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
In 1905, Gopal Krishna Gokhale started the Servants of India Society to reform the society with various measures.

(f) Periyar E.V.R:
Periyar E.V.R. was one of the greatest social reformers of Tamil Nadu. He advocated upliftment of women education, widow remarriage and opposed child marriages.

(g) Women Reformers:

• In 1889, Pandita Ramabai opened Sarada Sadan for Hindu widows in Bombay.
• Dr. Annie Besant established Theosophical society to developed general social reform programme.
• Dr. S.Dharmambal showed great interest in implementing widow remarriage and women education.
• Moovalur Ramamirdham Ammaiyar opposed Devadasi system along with Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar.

Question 3.
Give a detailed account on the Impact of reform movement.
Answer:

• Significant advances were made in the field of emancipation of women.
• It created of national awakening among the masses.
• It created the feeling of sacrifice, service and rationalism.
• The practice of sati and infanticide were made illegal.
• It permitted widow remarriage.
• The following legislations have enhanced the status of women in matters of marriage adoption and inheritance.

Legislation Provisions:

• Bengal regulation of XXI, 1804 – Female infanticide was declared illegal
• Regulation of XVII, 1829 – Practice of sat was declared illegal
• Hindus Widow’s Remarriage Act, 1856 – It permitted widow remarriage
• The Native Marriage Act, 1872 – The Child Marriage was prohibited
• The Sharda Act, 1930 – The age of marriage was raised for boys and girls
• Devadasi abolition Act, 1947 – It abolished Devadasi system

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Status of Women in India through the Ages Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following put limitations and restrictions on the liberty of women?
(a) New Social practices
(b) New Customs
(c) New Systems
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
Who fought for the upliftment of women?
(a) Keshab Chandra Sen
(b) Jyoti rao Phule
(c) Pandit Rama Bai
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
When was there a transitional development in the status of women restricting her role in the social life?
(a) In Indus Valley Civilization
(b) In Rig Vedic period
(c) In Later Vedic period
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) In Later Vedic period

Question 4.
The social evils which affected the position of women in the medieval period was / were ……………..
(a) Purdah system
(b) Slavery
(c) Female infanticide
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
The Mughal ruler …………… attempted to abolish sati.
(a) Aurangazeb
(b) Jahangir
(c) Akbar
(d) Babar
Answer:
(c) Akbar

Question 6.
Female infanticide was particularly in vogue in ……………
(a) Rajputana
(b) North Western Provinces
(c) Punjab
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 7.
Sati was abolished during the time of …………….
(a) Lord William Bentinck
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Wellesley
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer:
(a) Lord William Bentinck

Question 8.
The person who was nominated to the Tamil Nadu Legislative Council in 1929 was ……………
(a) Moovalur Ramamirdham
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar
(c) Pandit Rama Bai
(d) Rajaji
Answer:
(b) Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar

Question 9.
The person who was responsible for the abolition of polygamy in Bengal was.
(a) Raja Ram
(b) Dayananda Saraswathi,
(c) Periyar E.V.R
(d) Vidya Sagar
Answer:
(d) Vidya Sagar

Question 10.
Ranade started the National Social Conference in.
(a) 1829
(b) 1853
(c) 1887
(d) 1882
Answer:
(c) 1887

Question 11.
Dr. Annie Besant came to India from
(a) U.S.A
(b) Europe
(c) AustraliaAfrica
(d) Africa
Answer:
(b) Europe

Quesstion 12.
Dr. S. Dharmambal was very much influenced by the ideas of
(a) Gokhale
(b) Periyar
(c) Rajaji
(d) None ofthe above
Answer:
(b) Periyar

Question 13.
The National Commission for women was set up by January
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1992
(d) 2000
Answer:
(c) 1992

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The position of women was not ……………. in all periods.
2. The widow remarriage Act was passed in ……………..
3. Among the Rajputs of Rajasthan ……………. was practiced.
4. Purdah system became popular as a result of ……………. invasion.
5. J.E.D. Bethune was the president of the council of education in ……………..
6.  In ……………. the women’s medical service did a lot of work in training mid-wives.
7. D.K. Karve established a number of female schools in ……………..
8. Lady Harding Medical College was started in ……………..
9. Bengal Regulatory Act XXI of 1795 banned the practice of …………….
10. Child marriage was prevalent among the …………….
11. Radhakanta Deb, and Bhawani Charan Banerji advocated the orthrodox Hindu opinion against the abolition of …………….
12. The Person who was instrumental in passing the “Devadasi abolition bill” was …………….
13. Narayanachandra was the son of …………….
14. Pandit Ramabai’s greatest legacy was her effort to educate …………….
15. Equal opportunity and equal pay for equal work in guaranteed by the Indian Constitution through …………….

Answer:

1. uniform
2. 1856
3. Jauhar
4. Muslim
5. Calcutta
6. 1914
7. poona
8. Delhi
9. Female Infanticide
10. tribes
11. Sati
12. Periyar E.V. Ramasamy
13. Iswar Chandra Vidya sagar
14. Widows
15. Article 14

III. Match the following:

1. Raja Rammohan Roy – a) Opened first girl’s school
2. Vidhyasagar – b) Women Reformer
3. Veeresalingam – c) Revolt of 1857
4. Tarabai Shinde – d) Abolition of Sati
5. Rani Laxmi Bai – e) Widow Remarriage

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV. State True or False:

1. Women enjoyed equal rights among the later Vedic period.
2. The social reformers rightly realised that female education as an emancipating agent in eradicating social evils.
3. The position of wife was honoured during the ancient period of India.
4. The patriarchal system was flexible in later vedic period.
5. Sati was in practice particularly among the royal and upper strata of the society.
6. The major effect of national awakening in the nineteenth century was seen in the field of social reform.
7. Charles Wood’s despatch recommended female education in 1857.
8. The Indian Women’s University was started in 1919.
9. In 1846, the minimum marriageable age for a girl was only 14 years.
10. Niccolo Conti was an Italian Traveller.
11. Moovalur Ramamirdham fought for the emancipation of the Devadasi.
12. M.G. Ranade opposed child marriage.
13. Sarada Sadan was stated by Tarabai Shinde.
14. The Native Marriage Act was passed in 1872.
15. The National policy on Education of 1986 was passed for empowerment of women.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. False
10. True
11. True
12. True
13. False
14. True
15. True

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Find out the correct pair.
(a) Gokhale – Servants of India Society
(b) Veereslingam – The Indian Women’s University
(c) Jagan Mohan Roy – Abolition of Sati
(d) Serampore missionaries – Female infanticide
Answer:
(a) Gokhale – Servants of India Society

Question 2.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Raja Ram
(b) Dayananda saraswathi
(c) Niccolo Conti
(d) Rama Bai
Answer:
(c) Niccolo conti

Question 3.
Consider the following Statements
i) Akbar made obligatory for the parents to obtain the approval of both the bride and the bridegroom before the marriage.
ii) According to Bengal regulation of XXI, 1804 Female infanticide was declared illegal. Which of the statement
given above is/or correct?
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i and ii
(d) neither i nor ii
Answer:
(c) i and ii

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Veeresalingam Pantulu was the earliest champion in South India of women’s emancipation.
Reason (R) : Veeresalingam opened his first girls’ school in 1874 and made widow remarriage and female
education the key points of his programme for social reform.
(a) A and R are wrong
(b) A is correct and R is Wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What was the positive of women in Rig Vedic period?
Answer:
During the Rig Vedic period the position of wife was honoured and women’s position was acknowledged,
especially in the performance of religious ceremonies.

Question 2.
How were women treated in the later Vedic period?
Answer:

• In the later vedic period women’s social and political freedom was restricted.
• Sati became popular
• The patriarchal system became rigid.

Question 3.
Explain the term Jauhar.

• The Jauhar refers to the practice of collective voluntary immolation by wives and daughters of defeated Rajput warriors.
• They followed it in order to avoid capture and dishonor.

Question 4.
Mention the type of education followed for women in medieval India.
Answer:

• Female education was informal
• Girls usually had their lessons from their parents in their childhood.
• The rich appointed tutors to teach their daughters at home.

Question 5.
Mention the main provisions of Indian Education Commission of 1882.
Answer:

• Indian Education Commission of 1882 recommended to start primary schools for girls.
• It also suggested teacher – training institutions to be established.
• Special scholarships and prizes were mentioned for girls.

Question 6.
Explain the Madras Devadasi Act of 1947.
Answer:

• The Madras Devadasi Act was a law that was enacted on 9th October 1947.
• It gave Devadasis the legal right to marry.
•  It made it illegal to dedicated girls to India temples.

Question 7.
How did Vidyasagar promote female education?
Answer:
To promote female education, Vidhyasagar founded several girls’ schools in the districts of Nadia, Midnapur, Hugh and Burdwan in Bengal.

Question 8.
What were the key points of Veeresalingam programme for social reform?
Answer:

• Veeresalingam published a journal Viveka Vardhani and opened his first girls’ school in 1874.
• Widow remarriage and female education the key points of his programme for social reform.

Question 9.
Name the institution started by M.G. Ranade in 1887.
Answer:

• In 1887, M.G. Ranade started the National Social Conference.
• It became a preeminent institution for social reform.

Question 10.
What are the measures taken by the servants of India society of reform the society.
Answer:

• In 1905 Gokhale started the Servant of India Society.
• It took up such social reform measures as primary education, female education and uplifitment of the depressed classes in society.

Question 11.
Who was Periyar E.V.R?
Answer:

• Periyar E.V.R. was one of the greatest social reformers of Tamil Nadu.
• He advocated women education, widow remarriage and inter-caste marriages.
• He opposed child marriages.

Question 12.
Write about Sarada Sadan.
Answer:

• • Sarada Sadan means Home of Learning. It was started by Pandita Ramabai in 1889.
  • It was started to educate Hindu widows in Bombay.
  • It was later shifted to Poona.

Question 13.
How did the government of Tamil Nadu recognise the service of Moovalur Ramamirdham Ammaiyar?
Answer:

• Moovalur Ramamirdham Ammaiyar raised her voice against Devadasi system along with Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar.
• In her memory, the government of Tamil Nadu has instituted the “Moovalur Ramamirdha Ammal Ninaivu Marriage assistance scheme”.
• It is a social welfare scheme to provide financial assistance to poor women.

Question 14.
Mention the three major National Women’s organisation.
Answer:

• Leading women realized the need of forming their own association in order to safeguard their interests.
• As a result three major natural women’s organisation namely
• Women’s India Association
• National Council of Women in India .
• The All India Women’s Conference were started

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What was the position of women in the Medieval period?
Answer:

• In the medieval period the position of women in society further deteriorated.
• Women suffered from many social evils such as sati, child marriages, Purdah system, female infanticide and slavery.
• Normally monogamy was in practice but among the rich polygamy was prevalent.
• Widow re-marriage was rare.
• Devadasi system was in practice in some parts of India.
• The Rajputs of Rajastan, the Jauhar was practiced.
•  The condition of widow became miserable during rhe medieval period.
• But People like Akbar attempted to abolish sati.
• There were exceptional women like Razia Sultana, Queen Durgavati, Chand bibi, Nurjahan and Mira bai.
• Women’s education was not completely ignored. Female education was informal. Girls usually had their lessons from their parents in their childhood.
• The rich appointed tutors to teach their daughters at home.
• The daughters of Rajput chiefs and Zamindars studied literature and philosophy.

Question 2.
Why were the three major national women’s organisation started?
Answer:

1. Most of the reform movements like Brahma Samaj, Prarthana Samaj and Arya Samaj were led by male
   reformers.
2. Women reformers like Pandita Ramabai, Rukhmabai and Tarabai Shinde tried to extent further.
3. In 1889, Pandita Ramabai opened Sarada Sadan in Bombay to educate Hindu widows.
4. Dr. Annie Besant established Theosophical society at Chennai developed general social reform programme.
5. Dr. S.Dharmambal showed great interest in implementing widow remarriage and women education.
6. Moovalur Ramamirdham Ammaiyar’ opposed Devadasi system along with Dr. Muthulakshmi Ammaiyar.
7. Thus women reformers also contributed a lot for winning their own rights
8.  As a result three major national women’s organizations were started. They were
   • Women’s India Association
   • National Council of Women in India
   • The All India Women’s Conference.

Question 3.
Write about women in independent India.
Answer:

• Women in India now participate in all activities such as education, politics, medical, culture, service sectors, science and technology.
• The constitution of India guarantees through Article 14 equal opportunity and equal pay for equal work.
• The National policy for empowerment of women was passed under the National Policy on Education in 1986.
• New programme was launched called Mahila Samakhya.
• It mainly focused on empowerment of women.
• Reservation of 33 percent to women, envisaged an improvement in the socio-political status of women.
• The National Commission for women was set up in January 1992.
• it reviews women related legislation and intervene in specific individual complaints of atrocities and denial of rights.

Students can Download Science Chapter 5 Animals in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Animals in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Animals in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers :

Animals In Daily Life Class 7 Question 1.
__________ is the daily essential product which is obtained from cattle.
(a) Egg
(b) Milk
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them
Answer:
(b) Milk

Animals In Daily Life Question 2.
Eggs are rich in __________
(a) Protein
(b) Carbohydrate
(c) Fat
(d) Acid
Answer:
(a) Protein

Animals Are The Greatest Gift Of Nature True Or False Question 3.
Which parts of the goat and sheep is used for manufacturing clothes?
(a) Leg
(b) Hand
(c) Hair
(d) Head
Answer:
(c) Hair

Animals In Daily Life Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 4.
The cultivation and production of silk is known as __________
(a) Horticulture
(b) Floriculture
(c) Agriculture
(d) Sericulture
Answer:
(d) Sericulture

Animal In Daily Life Question 5.
Sorter’s Disease is otherwise known as __________
(a) Asthma
(b) Anthrax
(c) Typhoid
(d) Cholera
Answer:
(b) Anthrax

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Proteins and __________ is rich in milk.
2.  __________ is extracted from bee hives.
3. Anthrax is caused by __________
4.  __________ is the strongest natural fibre.
5. Peace silk was produced in the year __________

Answer:

1. Calcium
2. Honey
3. Bacillus anthracis
4. Silk
5. 1992

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Animals In Daily Life Class 7 Ppt Question 1.
Animals are the greatest gift of nature.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Horse hair is used as bristles in small painting brushes.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Wool is the fibre derived from the silk worm.
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement: Sill is the fibre derived from the silk worm.

Question 4.
Ahimsa silk is otherwise known as Mulberry silk.
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement: Ahimsa silk is otherwise known as peace silk.

Question 5.
Pencillin is the best medicine for curing Anthrax.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Water: pipe : Electric current: : ______
Answer:
Wire

Question 2.
Copper: conductor : wood: : _______
Answer:
Non conductor

Question 3.
Length : metre scale : current: : _________
Answer:
Ampere

Question 4.
Milli ampere: micro ampere: 10^-3 A : : _________
Answer:
10^-6 A

VI. Very short answer :

Question 1.
Write about any two dairy products.
Answer:

1. Paneer
2. Cheese

These two are dairy products. They are Nutritive food containing protein and calcium are made from milk.

Question 2.
What are the two types of fibres that are obtained from animals?
Answer:

1. Wool – silk fibre is obtained from the cocoon of silkworm.
2. Wool is got from fleece of sheep or goat

Question 3.
What is shearing?
Answer:
The fleece of the sheep is removed from its body. This is called shearing.

Question 4.
Write the symptoms of Anthrax.
Answer:

1. The symptoms are fever, cough and shortness of breathe, similar to a typical pneumonia.
2. Sometimes it may leads to nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea. .

Question 5.
Define – Sericulture.
Answer:

1. Sericulture or silk farming is the cultivation of silk worm to produce silk.
2. It is the rearing of silk worms to obtain silk.

Question 6.
How should we treat animals?
Answer:

1. We must love and protect animals.
2. We should safeguard them and treat them with care.

Question 7.
Who invented the Ahimsa silk?
Answer:
Kusuma Rajaiah, a Government officer from Andhra Pradesh proposed Ahimsa way of silk production for the making silks without killing the silkworms.

VII. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of wool? Give any three.
Answer:

1. It is resistant to heat, water, wear and tear.
2. It absorbs moisture.
3. Wool insulates against cold. So wool is a good insulator.
4. It does not wrinkle easily.

Question 2.
Write about any three uses of silk.
Answer:

1. Silk has natural beauty and elegance.
2. It gives comfort in warm weather and warmth during colder months.
3. It is used in the manufacture of classical and high fashion clothes, modern dresses particularly silk sarees, the elegant of beautiful dresses.
4. It is also used in household for making wall hangings, curtains, rugs and carpets.
5. It is also being used in the manufacture of surgical threads for sutures.

Question 3.
What are the common diseases that are found in
Answer:

VIII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Write about Ahimsa Silk.
Answer:

1. It is also known as Peace silk.
2. In 1992, Kusuma Rajaiah, a Government officer from Andhra Pradesh state of India proposed ahimsa way of silk production for the making silks without killing the silkworm.
3. It involves a humane method specifically letting the worms to hatch and then using the vacant cocoons.
4. Traditional silk manufacturing methods involve boiling the cocoons of the silk worms and then sorting out the threads, which is used later in silk production.
5. It has been supported by many people who are interested in the welfare of animals.

Question 2.
Write about the hazards of silk industry.
Answer:

1. Generally, the workers in silk industry affected with arthritis is they stand for a long time reeling the silk into yarn.
2. They also develop back pain and visionary problem and skin injuries.
3. Some time they may suffer from respiratory problem like asthma and bronchitis due to poor ventilated area of their work.

Question 3.
What are the major steps involved in this wool factory?
Answer:

1. The processing of wool involves five major steps.
2. They are as follows Shearing, Grading (or) Sorting, Washing (or) Scouting, Carding and Spinning.
3. Shearing:- The fleece of the sheep is removed from its body. This is called shearing.
4. Grading (or) Sort:- The fleece from the same sheep may be different from different
   parts of the body. It is sorted out into separate piles of similar nature. This is known as Grading (or) Sorting.
5. Washing (or) Scouts: The sheared skin is washed thoroughly with soap (or)
   detergents to remove dirt, dust and grease.
6. Carding:- The dried wool is carefully removed. These fibres then passed through the rollers which are covered with fine sheet of thin wire teeth. This process arranges the wool into a flat sheet called a web.
7. Spinning:- The web is drawn into narrow strand and then passed through spinning machines. The spinning machines twist the strands into yarn. The yarn is wound to form balls of wool. This yarn is either weaved into fabric (or) retained for knitting.

Question 4.
Write the uses of the wool.
Answer:

1. Wool is a multifunctional fibre with a range of diameters that makes it suitable for clothing, household fabrics and technical textiles.
2. Two third of wool is used in the manufacture of garments including sweaters, dresses, coats and active sportswear.
3. Blended with other natural (or) synthetic fibres wool used as adds drape and crease resistance blankets, anti-static and noise absorbing carpets.

IX. HOTS :

Question 1.
Silk fiber is used to manufacture parachute. Why?
Answer:

1. Silk is the strongest natural fibre.
2. It is thin light in weight, strong.
3. It is easly to peak and unfold.
4. It is also fire resistant.
5. It is dries quickly.
6. It is also resistant to abrasion and chemicals.

Question 2.
Honey is recommended for all. Why? What is its significance.
Answer:

1. Honey has high levels of sugar.
2. It has antiseptic and antibacterial properties.
3. It can prevent cancer, heart diseases reduce ullcer and digestive problems.
4. It also soothes coughs and sore throats.
5. Hence it is recommended for all.

X. Assertion and Reason :

Question 1.
Assertion : Wool is the fibre derived from the fur of animals.
Reason : Animals like goat, Yak, Alpaca and rabbit yields wool.
(a) Both Assertion and reasoning is correct
(b) Assertion is correct but reason in wrong
(c) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct
(d) Assertion and Reason are incorrect
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and reasoning is correct

Question 2.
Assertion : Pencillin or ciprofloxacin.
Reason (R) : These medicines cures cow pox.
(a) Assertion is correct Reason is wrong
(b) Assertion is wrong reason is correct
(c) Assertion is wrong reason is also wrong
(d) Assertion is correct and reason is correct.
Answer:
(d) Assertion is correct and reason is correct.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Animals in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity – 1

Some of the food items are given below. Find out their ingredients and sources.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Animals in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Qestion 1.
Honey is rich in _______
(a) sugar
(b) protein
(c) fat
(d) vitamins
Answer:
(a) sugar

Question 2.
Fowl pox is caused by _______
(a) virus
(b) bacteria
(c) fungus
(d) protozoan
Answer:
(a) virus

Question 3.
Scouting process during processing of wool refers to _______
(a) shearing
(b) grading
(c) washing
(d) spinning
Answer:
(c) washing

Question 4.
India stands _______ in silk production in the world.
(a) first
(b) third
(c) second
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) second

Question 5.
Cashmere, Alpaca. Muga are types of _______
(a) meat
(b) fibres
(c) eggs
(d) diseases
Answer:
(b) fibres

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ are boiled to get the silk.
2. The production of silk is called _______
3. The silk moth feed on _______
4. The larva of a silk worm is called _______
5. The process called _______ involves removal of dried wool.
6. _______ is the strongest natural fibre.
7. Egg laving chickens are called _______
8. The _______ bees collect the nectar from flowers.
9. Silk is the secretion of _______
10. The spread of Anthrax can be controlled by _______

Answer:

1. cocoons
2. sericulture
3. mulberry leaves
4. caterpilla
5. carding
6. silk
7. Layers
8. worker
9. silk moth
10. vaccination

III. Very Short Answer.

Question 1.
How are chickens classified?
Answer:
Chickens are broadly of two types.

1. Layers (egg laying chickens)
2. Broilers (one’s that are reared for meat).

Question 2.
List few requirements for poultry farming.
Answer:

1. Sufficient space
2. Plenty of water
3. Proper ventilation
4. Regular feed rich in proteins, fats and vitamins.

Question 3.
Name two plant fibres.
Answer:
Cotton and Jute.

Question 4.
List few characteristic features of silk.
Answer:
Characteristic features of Silk

1. It is very soft,comfortable and versatile
2. can be easily dyed.
3. It is the strongest natural fibre.
4. It has a poor resistance to sunlight exposure.

IV. Short Answer :

Question 1.
Write a note on Anthrax.
Answer:

1. The disease Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis by handling contaminated animal hair and contact with live stock during hair processing.
2. The symptoms are fever, cough and shortness of breath,
3. It may also lead to nausea, vomiting and diarrhoea.

Treatment:

1. Pencillin or Ciprofloxacin is given as the best medicine for treatment of anthrax.
2. The spread of the disease is controlled by vaccination of animals and by burning or burial of infected animals carcases.
3. It is the duty of the employer to take care of the industrial workers by providing hygienic and well ventilated work place.