Category: Class 10

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.6

Question 1.
If n(A × B) = 6 and A = {1, 3} then n(B) is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 6
Answer:
(3) 3
Hint:
If n(A × B) = 6
A = {1, 1}, n(A) = 2
n(B) = 3

Question 2.
A = {a, b,p}, B = {2, 3}, C = {p, q, r, s)
then n[(A ∪ C) × B] is ………….
(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 12
(4) 16
Answer:
(3) 12
Hint: A ∪ C = [a, b, p] ∪ [p, q, r, s]
= [a, b, p, q, r, s]
n (A ∪ C) = 6
n(B) = 2
∴ n [(A ∪ C)] × B] = 6 × 2 = 12

Question 3.
If A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4}, C = {5, 6} and D = {5, 6, 7, 8} then state which of the following statement is true.
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)
(2) (B × D) ⊂ (A × C)
(3) (A × B) ⊂ (A × D)
(4) (D × A) ⊂ (B × A)
Answer:
(1) (A × C) ⊂ (B × D)]
Hint:
A = {1, 2}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4},
C = {5, 6}, D ={5, 6, 7, 8}
A × C ={(1,5), (1,6), (2, 5), (2, 6)}
B × D = {(1, 5),(1, 6),(1, 7),(1, 8),(2, 5),(2, 6), (2, 7), (2, 8), (3, 5), (3, 6), (3, 7), (3, 8)}
∴ (A × C) ⊂ B × D it is true

Question 4.
If there are 1024 relations from a set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} to a set B, then the number of elements in B is ………………….
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 8
Answer:
(2) 2
Hint: n(A) = 5
n(A × B) = 10
(consider 1024 as 10)
n(A) × n(B) = 10
5 × n(B) = 10
n(B) = \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 } \) = 2
n(B) = 2

Question 5.
The range of the relation R = {(x, x²)|x is a prime number less than 13} is
(1) {2, 3, 5, 7}
(2) {2, 3, 5, 7, 11}
(3) {4, 9, 25, 49, 121}
(4) {1, 4, 9, 25, 49, 121}
Answer:
(3) {4, 9, 25, 49, 121}]
Hint:
R = {(x, x²)/x is a prime number < 13}
The squares of 2, 3, 5, 7, 11 are
{4, 9, 25, 49, 121}

Question 6.
If the ordered pairs (a + 2,4) and (5, 2a + 6) are equal then (a, b) is ………
(1) (2, -2)
(2) (5, 1)
(3) (2, 3)
(4) (3, -2)
Answer:
(4) (3, -2)
Hint:

The value of a = 3 and b = -2

Question 7.
Let n(A) = m and n(B) = n then the total number of non-empty relations that can be defined from A to B is
(1) mⁿ
(2) n^m
(3) 2^mn – 1
(4) 2^mn
Answer:
(4) 2^mn
Hint:
n(A) = m, n(B) = n
n(A × B) = 2^mn

Question 8.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and 6 are respectively
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6)
Answer:
(1) (8,6)
Hint: f = {{a, 8) (6, 6)}. In an identity function each one is the image of it self.
∴ a = 8, b = 6

Question 9.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {4, 8, 9, 10}. A function f : A → B given by f = {(1, 4),(2, 8),(3, 9),(4, 10)} is a
(1) Many-one function
(2) Identity function
(3) One-to-one function
(4) Into function
Answer:
(3) One-to one function
Hint:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4), B = {4, 8, 9,10}

Question 10.
If f(x) = 2x² and g (x) = \(\frac{1}{3 x}\), Then fog is

Answer:
(3) \(\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)
Hint:
f(x) = 2x²
g(x) = \(\frac{1}{3 x}\)
fog = f(g(x)) = \(f\left(\frac{1}{3 x}\right)=2\left(\frac{1}{3 x}\right)^{2}\)
= 2 × \(\frac{1}{9 x^{2}}=\frac{2}{9 x^{2}}\)

Queston 11.
If f: A → B is a bijective function and if n(B) = 7 , then n(A) is equal to …………..
(1) 7
(2) 49
(3) 1
(4) 14
Answer:
(1) 7
Hint:
n(B) = 7
Since it is a bijective function, the function is one – one and also it is onto.
n(A) = n(B)
∴ n(A) = 7

Question 12.
Let f and g be two functions given by f = {(0, 1), (2, 0), (3, -4), (4, 2), (5, 7)} g = {(0, 2), (1, 0), (2, 4), (-4, 2), (7, 0)} then the range of fog is
(1) {0, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(2) {-4, 1, 0, 2, 7}
(3) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(4) {0, 1, 2}
Answer:
(4) {0, 1, 2}
Hint:
gof = g(f(x))
fog = f(g(x))
= {(0, 2),(1, 0),(2, 4),(-4, 2),(7, 0)}
Range of fog = {0, 1, 2}

Question 13.
Let f (x) = \(\sqrt{1+x^{2}}\) then ………………..
(1) f(xy) = f(x) f(y)
(2) f(xy) > f(x).f(y)
(3) f(xy) < f(x). f(y)
(4) None of these
Answer:
(3) f(xy) < f(x) . f(y)

Question 14.
If g = {(1, 1),(2, 3),(3, 5),(4, 7)} is a function given by g(x) = αx + β then the values of α and β are
(1) (-1, 2)
(2) (2, -1)
(3) (-1, -2)
(4) (1, 2)
Answer:
(2) (2,-1)
Hint:
g(x) = αx + β
α = 2
β = -1
g(x) = 2x – 1
g(1) = 2(1) – 1 = 1
g(2) = 2(2) – 1 = 3
g(3) = 2(3) – 1 = 5
g(4) = 2(4) – 1 = 7

Question 15.
f(x) = (x + 1)³ – (x – 1)³ represents a function which is …………….
(1) linear
(2) cubic
(3) reciprocal
(4) quadratic
Answer:
(4) quadratic
Hint: f(x) = (x + 1)³ – (x – 1)³
[using a³ – b³ = (a – b)³ + 3 ab (a – b)]
= (x + 1 – x + 1)³ + 3(x + 1) (x – 1)
(x + 1 – x + 1)
= 8 + 3 (x² – 1)²
= 8 + 6 (x² – 1)
= 8 + 6x² – 6
= 6x² + 2
It is quadratic polynomial

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Additional Questions

Question 1.
Use Euclid’s algorithm to find the HCF of 4052 and 12756.
Solution:
Since 12576 > 4052 we apply the division lemma to 12576 and 4052, to get HCF
12576 = 4052 × 3 + 420.
Since the remainder 420 ≠ 0, we apply the division lemma to 4052
4052 = 420 × 9 + 272.
We consider the new divisor 420 and the new remainder 272 and apply the division lemma to get
420 = 272 × 1 + 148, 148 ≠ 0.
∴ Again by division lemma
272 = 148 × 1 + 124, here 124 ≠ 0.
∴ Again by division lemma
148 = 124 × 1 + 24, Here 24 ≠ 0.
∴ Again by division lemma
124 = 24 × 5 + 4, Here 4 ≠ 0.
∴ Again by division lemma
24 = 4 × 6 + 0.
The remainder has now become zero. So our procedure stops. Since the divisor at this stage is 4.
∴ The HCF of 12576 and 4052 is 4.

Question 2.
If the HCF of 65 and 117 is in the form (65m – 117) then find the value of m.
Answer:
By Euclid’s algorithm 117 > 65
117 = 65 × 1 + 52
52 = 13 × 4 × 0
65 = 52 × 1 + 13
H.C.F. of 65 and 117 is 13
65m – 117 = 13
65 m = 130
m = \(\frac { 130 }{ 65 } \) = 2
The value of m = 2

Question 3.
Find the LCM and HCF of 6 and 20 by the prime factorisation method.
Solution:
We have 6 = 2¹ × 3¹ and
20 = 2 × 2 × 5 = 2² × 5¹
You can find HCF (6, 20) = 2 and LCM (6, 20) = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 = 60. As done in your earlier classes. Note that HCF (6, 20) = 2¹ = product of the smallest power of each common prime factor in the numbers.
LCM (6, 20) = 2² × 3¹ × 5¹ = 60.
= Product of the greatest power of each prime factor, involved in the numbers.

Question 4.
Prove that \(\sqrt { 3 }\) is irrational.
Answer:
Let us assume the opposite, (1) \(\sqrt { 3 }\) is irrational.
Hence \(\sqrt { 3 }\) = \(\frac { p }{ q } \)
Where p and q(q ≠ 0) are co-prime (no common factor other than 1)

Hence, 3 divides p²
So 3 divides p also …………….. (1)
Hence we can say
\(\frac { p }{ 3 } \) = c where c is some integer
p = 3c
Now we know that
3q² = p²
Putting = 3c
3q² = (3c)²
3q² = 9c²
q² = \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) × 9c²
q² = 3c²
\(\frac{q^{2}}{3}\) = C²
Hence 3 divides q²
So, 3 divides q also ……………. (2)
By (1) and (2) 3 divides both p and q
By contradiction \(\sqrt { 3 }\) is irrational.

Question 5.
Which of the following list of numbers form an AP? If they form an AP, write the next two terms:
(i) 4, 10, 16, 22, …
(ii) 1, -1,-3, -5,…
(iii) -2, 2, -2, 2, -2, …
(iv) 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3,…
Solution:
(i) 4, 10, 16, 22, …….
We have a₂ – a₁ = 10 – 4 = 6
a₃ – a₂ = 16 – 10 = 6
a₄ – a₃ = 22 – 16 = 6
∴ It is an A.P. with common difference 6.
∴ The next two terms are, 28, 34

(ii) 1, -1, -3, -5
t₂ – t₁ = -1 – 1 = -2
t₃ – t₂ = -3 – (-1) = -2
t₄ – t₃ = -5 – (-3) = -2
The given list of numbers form an A.P with the common difference -2.
The next two terms are (-5 + (-2)) = -7, -7 + (-2) = -9.

(iii) -2, 2,-2, 2,-2
t₂ – t₁ = 2-(-2) = 4
t₃ – t₂ = -2 -2 = -4
t₄ – t₃ = 2 – (-2) = 4
It is not an A.P.

(iv) 1, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3
t₂ – t₁ = 1 – 1 = 0
t₃ – t₂ = 1 – 1 = 0
t₄ – t₃ = 2 – 1 = 1
Here t₂ – t₁ ≠ t₃ – t₂
∴ It is not an A.P.

Question 6.
Find n so that the n^th terms of the following two A.P.’s are the same.
1, 7,13,19,… and 100, 95,90,…
Answer:
The given A.P. is 1, 7, 13, 19,….
a = 1, d = 7 – 1 = 6
t_n1 = a + (n – 1)d
t_n1 = 1 + (n – 1) 6
= 1 + 6n – 6 = 6n – 5 … (1)
The given A.P. is 100, 95, 90,….
a = 100, d = 95 – 100 = – 5
tn₂ = 100 + (n – 1) (-5)
= 100 – 5n + 5
= 105 – 5n …..(2)
Given that, t_n1 = t_n2
6n – 5 = 105 – 5n
6n + 5n = 105 + 5
11 n = 110
n = 10
∴ 10^th term are same for both the A.P’s.

Question 7.
In a flower bed, there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the second, 19 is the third, and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row. How many rows are there in the flower bed?
Answer:
The number of rose plants in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd,… rows are
23, 21, 19,………….. 5
It forms an A.P.
Let the number of rows in the flower bed be n.
Then a = 23, d = 21 – 23 = -2, l = 5.
As, a_n = a + (n – 1)d i.e. t_n = a + (n – 1)d
We have 5 = 23 + (n – 1)(-2)
i.e. -18 = (n – 1)(-2)
n = 10
∴ There are 10 rows in the flower bed.

Question 8.
Find the sum of the first 30 terms of an A.P. whose n^th term is 3 + 2n.
Answer:
Given,
t_n = 3 + 2n
t₁ = 3 + 2 (1) = 3 + 2 = 5
t₂ = 3 + 2 (2) = 3 + 4 = 7
t₃ = 3 + 2 (3) = 3 + 6 = 9
Here a = 5,d = 7 – 5 = 2, n = 30
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1)d]
S₃₀ = \(\frac { 30 }{ 2 } \) [10 + 29(2)]
= 15 [10 + 58] = 15 × 68 = 1020
∴ Sum of first 30 terms = 1020

Question 9.
How many terms of the AP: 24, 21, 18, . must be taken so that their sum is 78?
Solution:
Here a = 24, d = 21 – 24 = -3, S_n = 78. We need to find n.
We know that,
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) (2a + (n – 1)d)
78 = \(\frac { n}{ 2 } \) (48 + 13(-3))
78 = \(\frac { n}{ 2 } \) (51 – 3n)
or 3n² – 51n + 156 = 0
n² – 17n + 52 = 0
(n – 4) (n – 13) = 0
n = 4 or 13
The number of terms are 4 or 13.

Question 10.
The sum of first n terms of a certain series is given as 3n² – 2n. Show that the series is an arithmetic series.
Solution:
Given, S_n = 3n² – 2n
S₁ = 3 (1)² – 2(1)
= 3 – 2 = 1
ie; t₁ = 1 (∴ S₁ = t₁)
S₂ = 3(2)² – 2(2) = 12 – 4 = 8
ie; t₁ + t₂ = 8 (∴ S₂ = t₁ + t₂)
∴ t₂ = 8 – 1 = 7
S₃ = 3(3)² – 2(3) = 27 – 6 = 21
t₁ + t₂ + t₃ = 21 (∴ S₃ = t₁ + t₂ + t₃)
8 + t₃ = 21 (Substitute t₁ + t₂ = 8)
t₃ = 21 – 8 ⇒ t₃ = 13
∴ The series is 1,7,13, …………. and this series is an A.P. with common difference 6.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Unit Exercise 2

Question 1.
Prove that n² – n divisible by 2 for every positive integer n.
Answer:
To prove n² – n divisible by 2 for every positive integer n.
We know that any positive integer is of the form 2q or 2q + 1, for some integer q.
So, following cases arise:
Case I. When n = 2q.
In this case, we have
n² – n = (2q)² – 2q = 4q² – 2q = 2q(2q – 1)
⇒ n² – n = 2r where r = q(2q – 1)
⇒ n² – n is divisible by 2.

Case II. When n = 2q + 1.
In this case, we have
n² – n = (2q + 1)² – (2q + 1)
= (2q + 1)(2q + 1 – 1) = (2q + 1)2q
⇒ n² – n = 2r where r = q (2q + 1)
⇒ n² – n is divisible by 2.
Hence n² – n is divisible by 2 for every positive integer n.

Question 2.
A milk man has 175 litres of cow’s milk and 105 litres of buffalow’s milk. He wishes to sell the milk by filling the two types of milk in cans of equal capacity. Calculate the following (i) Capacity of a can
(ii) Number of cans of cow’s milk
(iii) Number of cans of buffalow’s milk.
Answer:
Cow’s milk = 175 litres
Buffalow’s milk = 105 litres
Find the H.C.F. of 175 and 105 using Euclid’s division method of factorisation method.

175 = 5 × 5 × 7
105 = 3 × 5 × 7
H.C.F. of 175 and 105 = 5 × 7 = 35
(i) The capacity of the milk can’s is 35 litres

(ii) Cows milk = 175 litres
Number of cans = \(\frac { 175 }{ 35 } \) = 5

(iii) Buffalow’s milk = 105 litres
Number of cans = \(\frac { 105 }{ 35 } \) = 3
(i) Capacity of one can = 35 litres
(ii) Number of can’s for cow’s milk= 5 litres
(iii) Number of can’s for Buffalow’s milk = 3 litres

Question 3.
When the positive integers a, b and c are divided by 13 the respective remainders are 9, 7 and 10. Find the remainder when a + 2b + 3c is divided by 13.
Answer:
Let the positive integers be a, b, and c.
a = 13q + 9
b = 13q + 7
c = 13q + 10
a + 2b + 3c = 13 q + 9 + 2(13q + 7) + 3(13q + 10)
= 13q + 9 + 269 + 14 + 39q + 30
= 78q + 53 = (13 × 6)q + 53
The remainder is 53.
But 53 = 13 × 4 + 1
∴ The remainder is 1

Question 4.
Show that 107 is of the form 4q + 3 for any integer q.
Answer:

107 = 4 x 26 + 3
This is in the form of a = bq + r
Hence it is proved.

Question 5.
If (m + 1)^th term of an A.P. is twice the (n + 1)^th term, then prove that (3m + 1)^th term is twice the (m + n + 1)^th term.
Solution:
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t_m+1 = a + (m + 1 – 1)d
= a + md
t_n+1 = a + (n + 1 – 1)d
= a + nd
2(t_n+1) = 2(a + nd)
t_m+1 = 2t_n+1 …………… (1)
⇒ a + md = 2(a + nd)
2a + 2nd – a – md = 0
a + (2n – m)d = 0
t_(3m+1) = a + (3m + 1 – 1)d
= a + 3md
t_(m+n+1) = a + (m + n + 1 – 1)d
= a + (m + n)d
2(t_(m+n+1)) = 2(a + (m + n)d)
= 2a + 2md + 2nd
t_(3m+1) = 2t_(m+n+1) ………….. (2)
a + 3md = 2a + 2md + 2nd
2a + 2md + 2nd – a – 3md = 0
a – md + 2nd = 0
a + (2n – m)d = 0
∴ It is proved that t_(3m+1) = 2t_(m+n+1)

Question 6.
Find the 12^th term from the last term of the A.P -2, -4, -6, … -100.
Solution:

12^th term from the last = 39^th term from the beginning
∴ t₃₉ = a + 38d
= -2 + 38(-2)
= – 2 – 76
= – 78

Question 7.
Two A.P.’s have the same common difference. The first term of one A.P. is 2 and that of the other is 7. Show that the difference between their 10^th terms is the same as the difference between their 21st terms, which is the same as the difference between any two corresponding terms.
Answer:
Let the common difference for the 2 A.P be “d”
For the first A.P
a = 2, d = d, n = 10
t_n = a + (n – 1) d
t₁₀ = 2 + 9 d ….(1)
For the 2^nd A.P
a = 7, d = d n = 10
t₁₀ = 7 + (9)d
= 7 + 9d ….(2)
Difference between their 10th term ⇒ (1) – (2)
= 2 + 9d – (7 + 9d)
= 2 + 9d – 7 – 9d
= -5
For first A.P when n = 21, a = 2, d = d
t₂₁ = 2 + 20d …….(3)
For second A.P when n = 21, a = 7, d = d
t₂₁ = 7 + 20d …….(4)
Difference between the 21^st term ⇒ (3) – (4)
= 2 + 20d – (7 + 20d)
= 2 + 20d – 7 – 20d
= -5
Difference between their 10th term and 21^st term = -5
Hence it is proved.

Question 8.
A man saved ₹16500 in ten years. In each year after the first he saved ₹100 more than he did in the preceding year. How much did he save in the first year?
Solution:
S₁₀ = ₹16500
a, a + d, a + 2d…
d = 100
n = 10
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)(2a+(n-1)d)
S₁₀ = 16500
S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \)(2×a+9×100)
16500 = 5(2a+900)
16500 = 10a + 4500
10a = 16500 – 4500
10a = 12000
a = \(\frac { 12000 }{ 10 } \) = ₹1200
∴ He saved ₹1200 in the first year

Question 9.
Find the G.P. in which the 2nd term is \(\sqrt { 6 }\) and the 6th term is 9\(\sqrt { 6 }\).
Solution:

Question 10.
The value of a motorcycle depreciates at the rate of 15% per year. What will be the value of the motor cycle 3 year hence, which is now purchased for ₹45,000?
Answer:
Value of the motor cycyle = ₹ 45000
a = 45000
Depreciation = 15% of the cost value
= \(\frac { 15 }{ 100 } \) × 45000
= 15 × 450
= 6750
d = – 6750 (decrease it is depreciation
Value of the motor cycle lightning of the 2nd year = 45000 – 6750
= ₹ 38250
Depreciation for the 2nd year = \(\frac { 15 }{ 100 } \) × 38250
= ₹ 57370.50

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.10

Multiple choice questions
Question 1.
Euclid’s division lemma states that for positive integers a and b, there exist unique integers q and r such that a = bq + r, where r must satisfy.
(1) 1 < r < b
(2) 0 < r < b
(3) 0 < r < b
(4) 0 < r < b
Answer:
(3) 0 < r < b

Question 2.
Using Euclid’s division lemma, if the cube of any positive integer is divided by 9 then the possible remainders are
(1) 0, 1, 8
(2) 1, 4, 8
(3) 0, 1, 3
(4) 1, 3, 5
Answer:
(1) 0,1,8
Hint:
Cube of any +ve integers 1³, 2³, 3³, 4³,. . .
1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216 …
Remainders when 27, 64, 125 are divided by 9.

Question 3.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117 , then the value of m is ………………….
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2
Hint:
117 = 3 × 3 × 13
65 = 5 × 13
H.C.F = 13
65m – 117 = 13 ⇒ 65m = 117 + 13 = 130
m = \(\frac { 130 }{ 65 } \) = 2
The value of m = 2

Question 4.
The sum of the exponents of the prime factors in the prime factorization of 1729 is
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer:
(3) 3
Hint:
1729 = 7¹ × 13¹ × 19¹

Question 5.
The least number that is divisible by all the numbers from 1 to 10 (both inclusive) is
(1) 2025
(2) 5220
(3) 5025
(4) 2520
Answer:
(4) 2520
Hint:

∴ L.C.M. of 1,2,3,4,…,10 is 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 2 × 3 = 2520

Question 6.
7^4k ≡ …………………. (mod 100)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Answer:
(1) 1
Hint:
7^4k ≡ . . . . . (mod 100)
7^4k = (7⁴)^k ≡ ……….. (mod 100) (7⁴ – 2401)
The value is 1.

Question 7.
Given F₁ = 1, F₂ = 3 and Fn = F_n-1 + F_n-2 then
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 11
Answer:
(4) 11
Answer:
F₁ = 1, F₂ = 3
F_n = F_n-1 + F_n-2
F₅ = F_5-1 + F_5-2 = F₄ + F₃
= F₃ + F₂ + F₂ + F₁
= F₂ + F₁ + F₂ + F₂ + F₁
= 3 + 1 + 3 + 3 + 1 = 11

Question 8.
The first term of an arithmetic progression is unity and the common difference is 4. Which of the following will be a term of this A.P …………..
(1) 4551
(2) 10091
(3) 7881
(4) 13531
Answer:
(3) 7881
Hint:
Here a = 1, d = 4
t_n = a + (n – 1) d = 1 + (n – 1) 4
= 1 + 4n – 4
= 4n – 3
4554
(i) 4n – 3 = 4551 ⇒ 4n = 4551 + 3 ⇒ n = \(\frac { 4554 }{ 4 } \) = 1138.5.
It is not a term of A.P.

(ii) 4n – 3 = 10091 ⇒ 4n = 10091 + 3 = 10094
n = \(\frac { 10094 }{ 4 } \) = 2523.5 it is a term of A.P.

(iii) 4n – 3 = 7881 ⇒ 4n = 7881 + 3
n = \(\frac { 7884 }{ 4 } \) = 1971.
∴ 7881 is a term of the A.P.

Question 9.
If 6 times of 6^th term of an A.P is equal to 7 times the 7th term, then the 13th term of the A.P. is
(1) 0
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 13
Answer:
(1) 0
Hint:
6t₆ = 7t₇
6(a + 5d) = 7(a + 6d)
6a + 30d = 7a + 42d
7a + 42d – 6a – 30d = 0
a + 12d = 0 = t₁₃

Question 10.
An A.P consists of 31 terms. If its 16^th term is m, then the sum of all the terms of this A.P. is …………..
(1) 16m
(2) 62m
(3) 31m
(4) \(\frac { 31 }{ 2 } \)m
Answer:
(3) 31m
Hint:
M = 31
t₁₆ = m ⇒ a + 15d = m
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \)[2a + (n – 1)d]
S_n = \(\frac { 31 }{ 2 } \)[2a + 30d]= \(\frac { 31 }{ 2 } \) × 2[a + 15d]
= 31 (m) = 31m

Question 11.
In an A.P., the first term is 1 and the common difference is 4. How many terms of the A.P must be taken for their sum to be equal to 120?
(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9
Answer:
(3) 8
Hint:

Question 12.
If A = 2⁶⁵ and B = 2⁶⁴ + 2⁶³ + 2⁶² + +2⁰ which of the following is true?
(1) B is 264 more than A
(2) A and B are equal
(3) B is larger than A by 1
(4) A is larger than B by 1
Answer:
(4) A is larger than B by 1
Hint:
A = 2⁶⁵
B = 2⁶⁴ + 2⁶³ + 2⁶² + … + 20
B = 2⁰ + 2¹ + 2² + … + 264
G.P = 1 + 2¹ + 2² + … + 2⁶⁴ it is a G.P
Here a = 1, r = 2, n = 65

A = 2⁶⁵, B = 2⁶⁵ – 1
∴ B is smaller.
A is larger than B by 1.

Question 13.
The next term of the sequence \(\frac { 3 }{ 16 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 8 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 12 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 18 } \), ….
(1) \(\frac { 1 }{ 24 } \)
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 27 } \)
(3) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \)
(4) \(\frac { 1 }{ 81 } \)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 27 } \)
Hint:

Question 14.
If the sequence t₁, t₂, t₃, …………are in A.P. then the sequence t₆, t₁₂, t₁₈, …… is ………….
(1) a Geometric progression
(2) an Arithmetic progression
(3) neither an Arithmetic progression nor a Geometric progression
(4) a constant sequence
Answer:
(2) an Arithmetic progression
Hint: t₁, t₂, t₃ …. are in A.P
t₆, t₁₂, t₁₈ …… is also an A.P. (6, 12, 18 …….. is an A.P.)

Question 15.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ + … + 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 + … + 15) is
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280
Hint:
\(\left(\frac{15 \times 16}{2}\right)^{2}-\frac{15 \times 16}{2}\) = (120)² – 120 = 14280

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Additional Questions

Question 1.
Solve the following system of linear equations in three variables. x + y + z = 6; 2x + 3y + 4z = 20;
3x + 2y + 5z = 22
Solution:
x + y + z = 6 ………….. (1)
2x + 3y + 4z = 20 ………… (2)
3x + 2y + 5z = 22 …………(3)

Sub. z = 3 in (5) ⇒ y – 2(3) = -4
y = 2
Sub. y = 2, z = 3 in (1), we get
x + 2 + 3 = 6
x = 1
x = 1, y = 2, z = 3

Question 2.
Using quadratic formula solve the following equations.
(i) p²x² + (p² – q²) x – q² = 0
(ii) 9x² – 9 (a + b)x + (2a² + 5ab + 2b²) = 0
Solution:
(i) p²x² + (p² – q²)x – q² = 0
Comparing this with ax² + bx + c = 0, we have
a = p²
b = p² – q²
c = -q²
Δ = b² – 4ac
= (p² – q²)-4 × p² × -q²
= (p² – q²)² + 4p² q²
= (p² + q²)² > 0
So, the given equation has real roots given by
\(\alpha=\frac{-b-\sqrt{\Delta}}{2 a}=\frac{-\left(p^{2}-q^{2}\right)+\left(p^{2}+q^{2}\right)}{2 p^{2}}=\frac{q^{2}}{p^{2}}\)
\(\beta=\frac{-b-\sqrt{\Delta}}{2 a}=\frac{-\left(p^{2}-q^{2}\right)-\left(p^{2}+q^{2}\right)}{2 p^{2}}\)
= -1

(ii) 9x² – 9(a + b)x + (2a² + 5ab + 2b²) = 0
Comparing this with ax² + bx + c = 0.
a =9
b = -9 (a + b)
c = (2a² + 5 ab + 2b²)
Δ = B² – 4AC
⇒ 81 (a + b)² – 36(2a² + 5ab + 2b²)
⇒ 9a² + 9b² – 18ab
⇒ 9(a – b)² > 0
∴ the roots are real and given by

Question 3.
Find the HCF of x³ + x² + x + 1 and x⁴ – 1.
Answer:
x³ + x² + x + 1 = x² (x + 1) + 1 (x + 1)
= (x + 1) (x² + 1)
x⁴-1 = (x²)² – 1
= (x² + 1) (x²– 1)
= (x² + 1) (x + 1) (x – 1)
H.C.F. = (x² + 1)(x + 1)

Question 4.
Prove that the equation x²(a² + b²) + 2x(ac + bd) + (c² + d²) = 0 has no real root if ad ≠ bc
Solution:
Δ = b² – 4ac
⇒ 4(ac + bd)² – 4(a² + b²)(c² + d²)
⇒ 4[(ac + bd)² – (a² + b²)(c² + d²)]
⇒ 4(a²c² + b²d² + 2acbd – a²c²b²c² – a²d² – b²d²]
⇒ 4[2acbd – a²d² – b²c²]
⇒ 4 [a²c² + b²c² – 2adbc]
⇒ -4[ad – bc]²
We have ad ≠ bc
∴ ad – bc > 0
⇒ (ad – bc)² > 0
⇒ -4(ad – bc)² < 0 ⇒ Δ < 0
Hence the given equation has no real roots.

Question 5.
Find the L.C.M of 2(x³ + x² – x – 1) and 3(x³ + 3x² – x – 3)
Answer:
2[x³ + x² – x – 1] = 2[x²(x+ 1)- 1 (x + 1)]
= 2(x + 1) (x² – 1)
= 2(x + 1) (x + 1) (x – 1)
= 2(x + 1)² (x – 1)
3[x³ + 3x² – x – 3] = 3[x²(x + 3) -1 (x + 3)]
= 3[(x + 3)(x² – 1)]
= 3(x + 3)(x + 1) (x – 1)
L.C.M. = 6(x + 1)²(x – 1) (x + 3)

Question 6.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 12. When 36 is added to the number the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the ten’s digit of the number be x. It is given that the product of the digits is 12.
Unit’s digit = \(\frac{12}{x}\)
Number = 10x + \(\frac{12}{x}\)
If 36 is added to the number the digits interchange their places.

x = -6, 2.
But a number can never be (-ve). So, x = 2.
The number is 10 × 2 + \(\frac{12}{2}\) = 26

Question 7.
Seven years ago, Vanin’s age was five times the square of swati’s age. Three years hence Swati’s age will be two fifth of Varun’s age. Find their present ages.
Solution:
Seven years ago, let Swathi’s age be x years.
Seven years ago, let Varun’s age was 5x² years.
Swathi’s present age = x + 7 years
Varun’s present age = (5x² + 7) years
3 years hence, we have Swathi’s age = x + 7 + 3 years
= x + 10 years
Varun’s age = 5x² + 7 + 3 years
= 5x² + 10 years
It is given that 3 years hence Swathi’s age will be \(\frac{2}{5}\) of Varun’s age.
∴ x + 10 = \(\frac{2}{5}\) (5x² + 10)
⇒ x + 10 = 2x² + 4
⇒ 2x² – x – 6 = 0
⇒ 2x(x – 2) + 3(x – 2) = 0
⇒ (2x + 3)(x – 2) = 0
⇒ x – 2 = 0
⇒ x = 2 (∵ 2x + 3 ≠ 0 as x > 0)
Hence Swathi’s present age = (2 + 7) years
= 9 years
Varun’s present age = (5 × 2² + 7) years = 27 years

Question 8.
A chess board contains 64 equal squares and the area of each square is 6.25 cm². A border round the board is 2 cm wide find its side.
Solution:
Let the length of the side of the chess board be x cm. Then,

Area of 64 squares = (x – 4)²
(x – 4)² = 64 × 6.25
⇒ x² – 8x+ 16 = 400
⇒ x² – 8x-384 = 0
⇒ x² – 24x + 16x – 384 = 0
⇒ (x – 24)(x + 16) = 0
⇒ x = 24 cm.

Question 9.
Find two consecutive natural numbers whose product is 20.
Solution:
Let a natural number be x.
The next number = x + 1
x (x + 1) = 20
x² + x – 20 = 0
(x + 5)(x – 4) = 0
x = -5, 4
∴ x = 4 (∵ x ≠ -5, x is natural number)
The next number = 4 + 1 = 5
Two consecutive numbers are 4, 5

Question 10.
A two digit number is such that the product of its digits is 18, when 63 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. Find the number.
Solution:
Let the tens digit be x. Then the units digits = \(\frac{18}{x}\)

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 2.
Who made peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russian
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Question 3.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prathana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 4.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic war?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) NawabofArcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) NawabofArcot

Question 5.
……………………..was the official newspaper of the Self-Respect Movement.
(c) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(c) Kudi Arasu

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is ……………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question 7
……………………is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Question 8.
The first Jute mill of India was established at ………………
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 10.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is…………………..
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 11.
The Indian constitution gives to its citizens………………………
(a) Double citizenship
(b) Single citizenship
(c) Single citizenship in some states and double in others .
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single citizenship

Question 12.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related …………..
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence

Question 13.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agricultural Sector
(b) Industrial Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Service Sector

Question 14.
………………are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference 1884-1885.
Answer:

• The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
• The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this
  resolution.

Question 16.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:

• The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World.
• During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America.
• With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 17.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
The colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is called the drain to wealth.

Question 18.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite ministry ?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples. These temples commanded huge resources which were monopolised and exploited by the dominant caste in the society and led to mismanagement of public resources.
• The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 19.
State the west flowing rivers of India.
Answer:

• The Narmada and the Tapi are the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular India:
• These rivers drain into the Arabian Sea.
• These rivers form estuaries on the west coast.
• These rivers are devoid of an large tributary system.
• Narmada river is the largest among the west flowing rivers of peninsular India. Its principal tributaries are Bushner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama and Kolar.
• Tapti river is one of only the three rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west. The others being the Narmada and the Mahi.
• The major tributaries are Vaki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray Panjhra and Bori. It outfall into the Arabian sea through the Gulf of Cambay.

Question 20.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:

• Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural products and natural gas from oil fields to the refineries, factories and big thermal power plants.
• Pipelines are more reliable and considerably safer mode of transportation.
• The possibility of pilferage or product less on pipelines is almost negligible. The basic limitations of pipelines is that they are capital intensive mode of transportation.

Question 21.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 22.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 23.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 24.
Write about India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
What is meant by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The GDP is the market value of all the final goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 26.
Write the types of globalization.
Answer:
There are three types of globalization –

• Archaic globalization
• Proto globalization and
• Modem globalization.

Question 27.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
The levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governance or to alter prices in order to affect demand. States and their functional equivalents throughout history have used money provided by taxation to carry out many functions.

Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure (transportation, sanitation, public safety, education, healthcare cur systems, to name a few), military, scientific research, culture and the arts, public works and public insurance and the operation of government itself. A government’s ability to raise taxes is called its fiscal capacity.

Question 28.
Name the states that lead in the production of iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) Japan forced a war on China in the year ………………
(ii) The major tribal revolt took place in chota nagpur region was ……………
(iii) The Cauvery rises in hills of …………………. district in Karnataka.
(iv) Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to
(v) A better economy introduce rapid development of the ……………….
Answers
(i) 1894
(ii) Kolrevolt
(iii) Coorg
(iv) President
(v) Capital market

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers.
(ii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
(a) (i) Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers

Himalayan Rivers:

• Originate from Himalayas.
• Long and wide Perennial in nature.
• Perennial in nature.
• Unsuitable for hydropower generation.
• Middle and lower courses are navigable.

Peninsular Rivers:

• Originate from Western Ghats.
• Short and arrow.
• Non Perennial in nature.
• Suitable for hydropower generation.
• Not useful for navigation.

(ii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands
Andaman and Nicobar Islands :

• They are located in the Bay of Bengal.
• They are far off from India.
• Port Blair is the capital.
• They are about 572 islands.
• Only 38 are inhabited.

Lakshadweep Islands:

• They are located in the Arabian Sea.
• They are of coral origin
• Kavaratti is the administration headquaters.
• They are 27 islands here.
• Only 11 islands are inhabited.

(b) Give reason: The great Indian desert is called Marusthali.
Answer:
The Thar desert, also known as the Great Indian desert is a large arid region in the north western part of the Indian Subcontinent that covers an area of 2,00,000 Km2 and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.

Marusthali means sand-dune. It covered eastern portion of the Great Indian Thar Desert in western Rajasthan. It extends over about 24,000 square miles north of the Luni River.

Question 33.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-Israeli wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:
(i) The formation of Palestinian Liberation Organisation (PLO) was never friendly to Israel. It came to be attached frequently by Palestinian guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan. Israel also made violent retaliation.

(ii) In November 1966, Israel attacked the village of Al-Sami in the Jordanian West Bank. The death toll in this attack was 18. In April 1967 Israel started air battle with Syria which resulted in the shooting down of six Syrian Mig fighter jet.

(iii) In his bid to show Egypt’s support for Syria, Nasser mobilised Egyptian forces in the Sinai, seeking the removal of UN emergency forces stationed there on May 18. On May 22, he closed the Gulf Aqaba to Israeli shifting.

(iv) On June 5, Israel stopped a sudden pre-emptive air strike that destroyed more than 90 percent of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac. A similar air assault was in capacitated the Syria air force. Within three ways, Israel captured the Gaza Strip and all the Senai Peninsula up to the East Bank of the Suez Canal.

(v) On June 7, the Israeli forces drove Jordanian forces out of East Jerusalem and most the West Bank. The War ended when the UN Security Council called for a ceasefire. Arab-Israel War of 1973: Egypt and Syria made a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.

(vi) Hafez al-Assad, the President of Syria was keen on retrieving Golan Heights. As Assad was aware that his country’s weapons were dated, he offered the Israelis a peace deal of they would withdraw from Sinai. Israel rejected the offer.

(vii) Egypt and Syria then launched a sudden attack on the Yom Kippur religions holiday on 6 October 1973. Though Israel suffered heavy casualties, it could finally push back the Arab forces. But this time, due to UN intervention, Israel was forced to return to 1967 position. Arabs gained nothing out of this war too.

Question 34.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Periyar was a great social reformer. His contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu is really praise worthy.

• He launched ‘Temple entry’ movement to provide the lower caste people easy access to the temples.
• He also started the Self-Respect movement in 1925, with the determination that there ought to be ‘no God; no religion; no Gandhi; no Congress; and no Brahmins’.
• Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the Devadasi system. Right from 1929, when the Self-Respect conference began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising on women’s right to divorce and property.
• He advocated atheism as a mode of critique to deconstruct the established practices of faith, culture and custom. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
• He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption. He was strong champion of birth control and contraception.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities.
• It creates water scarcity in cities.
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Write about Road Safety Rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Cross roads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never cross road at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

Question 37.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the Chief Minister are:

• The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. He recommends the persons who can be appointed as ministers by the Governor. He allocates the portfolio among the ministers.
• He presides over the meetings of the council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
• The Chief Minister is the principal channel of communication between Governor and the Council of Ministers.
• He announces the Government policies on the floor of the House. He can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
• For smooth functioning of the State and for good Centre – State relations, he has to develop a rapport with the Union Government.

Question 38.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
The role of taxation in developing economics is as follows.

1. Resource mobilisation: Taxation enables the government to mobilise a substantial amount of revenue. The tax revenue is generated by imposing direct taxes such as personal income tax and corporate tax and indirect taxes such as customs duty, excise duty, etc.

2 Reduction in equalities of income: Taxation follows the principle of equity. The direct
taxes are progressive in nature. Also certain indirect taxes, such as taxes on luxury goods, is also progressive in nature.

3. Social welfare: Taxation generates social welfare. Social welfare is generated due to higher taxes on certain undesirable products like alcoholic products.

4. Foreign exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports, Generally developing countries and even the developed countries do not impose taxes on export items.

5. Regional development: Taxation plays an important role in regional development, Tax incentives such as tax holidays for setting up industries in backward regions, which induces business firms to set up industries in such regions.

6. Control of inflation: Taxation can be used as an instrument for controlling inflation. Through taxation the government can control inflation by reducing the tax on the commodities.

Question 39.
Write briefly the history of globalization.
Answer:
The historical background of globalization can be discussed in three steps –
(i) Archaic Globalization – It is an early form of globalization. It existed during the Hellenistic Age. It established a trade link between the Roman Empire, Parthian Empire and the Han Dynasty. The commercial links between these powers inspired the development of the Silk Road. The Islamic Golden Age was also an important early stage of globalization.

(ii) Proto Globalization – It was characterised by the rise of maritime European empires in the 16th and 17th centuries. In the 17th century, globalization became private business phenomenon like British East India Company founded in 1600, described as the first multinational company.

(iii) Modern Globalization – The 19th and 20th centuries witnessed the advent of modem globalization. Global trade and capital investment increased. Several multinational firms came into being.

Question 40.
What are the contributions of Industrialization to development?
Answer:

(i) As stated earlier, it is essential to produce inputs to other producers in an economy. Even agriculture requires inputs from industry such as fertilisers and tractors to increase productivity.

(ii) Second, a market exists for both producers and consumer goods. Even services like banking, transport and trade are dependent on production of industrial goods.

(iii) Third, by using modem methods of production, industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production of all goods produced. It therefore helps people to buy goods at a cheaper rate and help create demand for more products.

(iv) Fourth, through such expansion of production, industrialisation helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture. Employment generation is therefore an important objective of industrialisation.

(v) Fifth, a related advantage of industrialisation is therefore technological change. Through use of modem techniques, industrialisation contributes to learning of such methods and their improvement. As a result labour productivity, ie, output per unit of labour input increases, which can help workers earn higher wages.

(vi) Sixth, expanding incomes lead to more demand for goods and services. If an economy is not able to produce enough to meet such demand, it has to rely on imports and therefore spend a lot of foreign exchange. If the economy does not earn enough from exporting, it will be difficult to meet the growing demand. Industrialisation therefore helps an economy to save and also generate foreign exchange through exports. .

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
five important events between 1889-1935.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium – 5

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Russia
(iii) Hawai Island
(iv) Germany
(v) Norway
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia
(i) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
(ii) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
(iii) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
(iv) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
(a) Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia:

(i) Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies (Indonesia) and Burma.
(ii) The Allies faced many reverses in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparations. The colonial rulers, especially the British, withdrew from their territories, leaving the local people to face the atrocities of the Japanese.
(iii) The US navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway.
(iv) Many Indians walked all the way from Burma to the Indian border, facing hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion. Those who remained suffered under the Japanese.

(b) Aligarh Movement
(i) What is the main aim of this movement? ‘
(ii) Who is considered the soul of this movement?
(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
(b) Aligarh Movement:

(i) The main aim of the Aligarh Movement was to persuade the Muslims to acquire modem knowledge and English language.
(ii) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of the Aligarh Movement.
(iii) Many English Books were translated into Urdu in order to enable the Muslims to accept the western science and take up government services.
(iv) Aligarh Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Factors leading to the rise of National Movement.
(i) How did the national leaders inspire the people?
(ii) When was the Vernacular Press Act passed?
(iii) What was the policy of the British?
(iv) How did the British consider the Indians?
Answer:
(c) Factors leading to the rise of National Movement:

(i) They inspired the people with the ideas of self-respect and self-confidence.
(ii) The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878.
(iii) The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.
(iv) The British considered the Indians as inferior and uncivilized.

(d) Maraimalai Adigal
(i) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
(ii) Name the journal where he worked as a young man.
(iii) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
(iv) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal

(i) Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.
(ii) Siddhanta Deepika
(iii) Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.
(iv) His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Zaskar range
(ii) River Ganga
(iii) Baghelkhand Plateau
(iv) Coffee growing area
(v) Any one Iron ore production area
(vi) Bombay high
(vii) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Mangrove forest
(iii) Villupuram
(iv) One oil seeds area
(v) Udagamandalam
(vi) Kancheepuram
(vii) Gomukhi dam
(viii) River Tamirabarani
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Russia
(iii) Hawai Island
(iv) Germany
(v) Norway
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Zaskar range
(ii) River Ganga
(iii) Baghelkhand Plateau
(iv) Coffee growing area
(v) Any one Iron ore production area
(vi) Bombay high
(vii) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Mangrove forest
(iii) Villupuram
(iv) One oil seeds area
(v) Udagamandalam
(vi) Kancheepuram
(vii) Gomukhi dam
(viii) River Tamirabarani
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Let f and g be two functions given by f = {(0,1),(2,0),(3,-4),(4,2),(5,7)} g = {(0,2),(1, 0),(2,4),(-4,2),(7, 0)} then the range of fog is …………. .
(1) {0,2,3,4,5}
(2) {-4,1,0,2,7}
(3) {1,2,3,4,5}
(4) {0,1,2}
Answer:
(4) {0,1,2}

Question 2.
An A.P consists of 31 terms. If its 16^th term is m, then the sum of all the terms of this A.P. is …………. .
(1) 16m
(2) 62 m
(3) 31m
(4) \(\frac{31}{2}\)m
Answer:
(3) 31m

Question 3.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +….+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is …………. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square …………. .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
The number of points of intersection of the quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the X axis is …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 or 1
(4) 2
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 6.
In the adjacent figure ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥BC then …………. .

(1) BDCD = BC²
(2) AB.AC = BC²
(3) BD.CD = AD²
(4) AB.AC = AD²
Answer:
(3) BDCD = AD²

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3, p) and (6, 6) are collinear, then the value of p is …………. .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) is equal to …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) -1
Answer:
(3) 2

Question 9.
The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of its height is
(1) \(\frac{9 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq. units
(2) 24πh² sq. units
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
(4) \(\frac{56 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units

Question 10.
The mean of 100 observations is 40 and their standard deviation is 3. The sum of squares of all deviations is …………. .
(1) 40000
(2) 160900
(3) 160000
(4) 30000
Answer:
(2) 160900

Question 11.
The probability a red marble selected at random from a jar containing p red, q blue and r green marbles is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)
(2) \(\frac{p}{p+q+r}\)
(3) \(\frac{p+q}{p+q+r}\)
(4) \(\frac{p+r}{p+q+r}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)

Question 12.
If there are 28 relation from a set A = {2,4, 6, 8} to a set B, then the number of elements in B is …………. .
(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 5
(4) 4
Answer:
(1) 7

Question 13.
If a₁ ,a₂, a₃ ……….. are in A.P. such that \(\frac{a_{4}}{a_{7}}=\frac{3}{2}\), then the 13th term of the AP is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(2) 0
(3) 12a₁
(4) 14a₁
Answer:
(2) 0

Question 14.
The X-intercept of the line 2x – 3y + 5 = 0 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(4) \(\frac{-2}{5}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 3 – 2x. Find x such that f(x²) = (f (x))².
Answer:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2 (x²)
= 3 – 2x²
(f(x)² = (3 – 2x)²
= 9 + 4x² – 12x
But f(x²) = (f(x))²
3 – 2x² = 9 + 4x² – 12x
– 2x² – 4x² + 12x + 3 – 9 = 0
– 6x² + 12x – 6 = 0
(÷ by – 6) ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)(x – 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or x – 1 = 0
x = 1
The value of x = 1

Question 16.
If f(x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 find a, if gof (a) = 1.
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 1 ; g(x) = x – 2
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(x² – 1)
= x² – 1 – 2
= x² – 3
given gof (a) = 1
a² – 3 = 1 [But gof(x) = x² – 3]
a² = 4
a = √4 = ± 2
The value of a = ± 2

Question 17.
Find the number of integer solutions of = 1 (mod 15).
Answer:
3x ≡ 1 (mod 15) can be written as
3x – 1 = 15k for some integer k
3x = 15k + 1
x = \(\frac{15 k+1}{3}\) = 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Since 5k is an integer, 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\) cannot be an integer. So there is no integer solution.

Question 18.
Find the rational form of the number \(0 . \overline{123}\)
Answer:
Let x = \(0 . \overline{123}\)
= 0.123123123 ….
= 0.123 + 0.000123 + 000000123 + ….
This is an infinite G.P
Here a = 0.123, r = \(\frac{0.000123}{0.123}\) = 0.001
S_n = \(\frac{a}{1-r}=\frac{0.123}{1-0.001}=\frac{0.123}{0.999}\)
S_n = \(\frac{41}{333}\)

Question 19.
Find the GCD of 12(x⁴ – x³), 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²) whose LCM is 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)
Answer:

p(x) = 12(x⁴ – x³)
= 12x³(x – 1)
g(x) = 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²)
= 8x²(x² – 3x + 2)
= 8x²(x – 2) (x – 1)
L.C.M = 24x³(x – 1) (x – 2)
G.C.D = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { L.C.M. }}\)
= \(\frac{12 x^{3}(x-1) \times 8 x^{2}(x-2)(x-1)}{24 x^{3}(x-1)(x-2)}\)
G.C.D = 4x²(x – 1)

Question 20.
Find the square root of the polynomial x⁴ – 12x³ + 42x² – 36x + 9 by division method
Answer:

\(\sqrt{x^{4}-12 x^{3}+42 x^{2}-36 x+9}\) = |x² – 6x + 3|

Question 21.
Write expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) interms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
In the given diagram show that ∆PST ~ ∆PQR
Answer:

In ∆PST and ∆PQR,
\(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{2}{2+1}=\frac{2}{3}\) , \(\frac{P T}{P R}=\frac{4}{4+2}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Thus, \(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{P T}{P R}\) and ∠P is common
Therefore, by SAS similarity,
∆PST ~ ∆PQR

Question 23.
Find the value of for which the given points (2,3), (4, a) and (6, -3) are collinear.
Answer:
Let the points be A (2, 3), B(4, a) and C(6, -3).
Since the given points are collinear.
Area of a triangle =0

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₁ + x₂y₂ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)] = 0
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(2a – 12 + 18) – (12 + 6a – 6)] = 0
2a + 6 – (6 + 6a) = 0
2a + 6 – 6 – 6a = 0
-4 a = 0 ⇒ a = \(\frac { 0 }{ 4 }\) = 0
The value of a = 0

Question 24.
The horizontal distance between two buildings is 70 m. The angle of depression of the top of the first building when seen from the top of the second building is 45°. If the height of the second building is 120 m, find the height of the first building.
Answer:

Let the height of the first building AD be “x” m
∴ EC = 120 – x
In the right ∆ CDE,
tan 45° = \(\frac{C E}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{120-x}{70}\) ⇒ 70 = 120 – x
x = 50m
∴ The height of the first building is 50 m

Question 25.
If the coefficient of variation of a collection of data is 57 and its standard deviation is 6,84, then find the mean.
Answer:
Given coefficient of variation =57
Standard deviation (σ) = 6.84
C.V = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}}\)
57 = \(\frac{6.84}{\bar{x}} \times 100\)
x̄ = \(\frac{6.84}{57} \times 100=\frac{684}{57}=12\)
∴ Arithmetic mean x̄ = 12

Question 26.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 2:7. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 352 sq.cm. Find its radius.
Answer:
Let the radius be “2x” and the height be “7x”
Curved surface area = 352cm²
2πrh = 352
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2x × 7x = 352
44 × 2x² = 352
x² = \(\frac{352}{44 \times 2}=\frac{176}{44}=4\)
x = √4 = 2
Radius of the cylinder (2 × 2) = 4 cm

Question 27.
A number is selected at random from integers 1 to 100. Find the probability that it is not a perfect cube.
Answer:
Sample space = {1, 2, 3,…. 100}
n(S) = 100
Let A be the event of getting a perfect cube.
A = (1, 8, 27, 64)
n(A) = 4
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
p(A) = \(\frac{4}{100}=\frac{1}{25}\)
The Probability that the selected number is not a perfect cube is
P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{25}\)
= \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 28.
Find the value of k if 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
\(\left[\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 2025
\(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\) = \(\sqrt{2025}\) = 45
k² + k = 90
K² + k – 90 = 0
(k + 10) (k + 9) = 0
k = -10 or k = 9 k = 9 (k = -10) is not possible
∴ The value of k = 9

Part – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let A = The set of all natural numbers less than 8, B = The set of all prime numbers less than 8, C = The set of even prime number. Verify that A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)
Answer:
A= {1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7}; B = {2, 3, 5,7} and C= {2}
B – C = {2, 3, 5, 7} – {2}
= {3,5,7}
A × (B – C) = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {3, 5,7}
= {(1,3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3,3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5,3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} …. (1)

A × B = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {2, 3, 5,7}
= {(1,2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4,2) . (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 2) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)}

A × C = {1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}

(A × B) – (A × C) = {(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 3) 5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

Question 30.
If f(x) = x – 4, g(x) = x² and h(x) = 3x – 5 prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = x – 4; g(x) = x²; h(x) = 3x – 5
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog) oh(x) = fog[h(x)]
= fog (3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 …. (1)
goh(x) = g[h(x)]
= g(3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² + 25 – 30x
fo(goh) x = f[goh(x)]
= f [9x² – 30x + 25]
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(2)
Fróm (1) and (2) we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
In an A.P., sum of four consecutive terms is 28 and their sum of their squares is 276. Find the four numbers.
Answer:
Let us take the four terms in the form (a – 3d), (a – d), (a + d) and (a + 3d).
Since sum of the four terms is 28,
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 2%
4a = 28 gives a = 7
Similarly, since sum of their squares is 276,
(a – 3d)² + (a – d)² + (a + d)²+ (a + 3d)² = 276.
a² – 6ad + 9d² + a² – 2ad + d² + a² + 2ad + d² + a² + 6ad + 9d² = 276
4a² + 20d² = 276 ⇒ 4(7)² + 20d² = 276.
d² = 4 gives d = ± 2
If d = 2 then the four numbers are 7 – 3(2), 7 – 2, 7 + 2, 7 + 3(2)
That is the four numbers are 1, 5, 9 and 13.
If a = 7, d = -2 then the four numbers are 13, 9, 5 and 1
Therefore, the four consecutive terms of the A.P. are 1, 5, 9 and 13.

Question 32.
If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P. and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P. then prove that x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b} = 1.
Answer:
a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P
∴ a = a, b = a + d and c = a + 2d respectively ……. (1)
x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P
∴ x = x, y = xr, z = xr² respectively ….(2)
L.H.S = x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b}
( Substitute the values from 1 and 2 we get)

L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.
Answer:
Let the number of ₹5 currencies be “x”
Let the number of ₹10 currencies be “y”
and the number of ₹20 currencies be “z”
By the given first condition
x + y + z = 12 …….. (1)
By the given second condition
5x + 10y + 20z = 105
x + 2y + 4z = 21 (÷5) …….. (2)
By the given third condition
10x + 5y + 20z = 105 + 20
10x + 5y + 20z = 125
2x + y + 4z = 25 ………. (3)


Substituting the value of x = 7 in (5)
7 – y = 4 ⇒ – y = 4 – 7
-y = -3 ⇒ y = 3
Substituting the value of x = 7, y = 3 in …. (1)
7 + 3 + z = 12
z = 12 – 10 = 2
x = 7,y = 3,z = 2
Number of currencies in ₹ 5 = 7
Number of currencies in ₹ 10 = 3
Number of currencies in ₹ 20 = 2

Question 34.
Find the square root of the expression \(\frac{4 x^{2}}{y^{2}}+\frac{20 x}{y}+13-\frac{30 y}{x}+\frac{9 y^{2}}{x^{2}}\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 3 & 1 \\ -1 & 2 \end{matrix} \right]\) show that A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0
Answer:

L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0

Question 36.
State and prove Thales theorem
Answer:
A straight line drawn parallel to a side of triangle intersecting the other two sides, divides the sides in the same ratio.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, D is a point on AB and E is a point on AC.
To prove : \(\frac{A D}{D B}=\frac{A E}{E C}\)
Construction : Draw a line DE || BC

Question 37.
Find the value of k, if the area of a quadrilateral is 28 sq. units, whose vertices are (-4, -2), (-3, k), (3,-2) and (2,3)
Answer:
Let the vertices A (-4, -2), B (-3, k), C (3, -2) and D (2, 3)
Area of the Quadrilateral = 28 sq. units
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₄y₃ + x₁y₄)] = 28

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 6 + 9 – 4)-(6 + 3k – 4 – 12)] = 28
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 11) – (3k – 10)] = 28
-4k + 11 – 3k + 10 = 56
-7k + 21 = 56
-7k = 56 – 21
-7k = 35 ⇒ 7k = -35
k = \(-\frac{35}{7}\) = -5
∴ The value of k = -5

Question 38.
A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 m high tree. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bird is 45° . The bird flies away horizontally in such away that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds, the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30° . Determine the speed at which the bird flies. (√3 = 1.732)
Answer:
A is the initial position of the bird
B is the final position of the bird
Let the speed of the bird be “s”
Distance = speed × time

∴ AB = 2 s
Let CD be x
∴ CE = x + 2s
In the ∆ CDA, tan 45° = \(\frac{A D}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{80}{x}\)
x = 80 …(1)
In the ∆ BCE
tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{BE}}{\mathrm{CE}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{80}{x+2 s}\)
x + 2 s = 80 √3
x = 80 √3 – 2 s …(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
80 √3 – 2 s = 80
80 √3 – 80 = 2s ⇒ 80(√3 – 1) = 2 s
s = \(\frac{80(\sqrt{3}-1)}{2}\) = 40 (1.732 – 1) = 40 × 0. 732 = 29. 28
Speed of the flying bird = 29. 28 m / sec

Question 39.
The total marks scored by two students Sathya and Vidhya in 5 subjects are 460 and 480 with standard deviation 4.6 and 2.4 respectively. Who is more consistent in performance?
Answer:
Total marks scored by Sathya = 460
Total marks scored by Vidhya = 480
Number of subjects = 5
x̄ = 92%
Mean marks of Sathya = \(\frac{460}{5}\)
Given standard deviation, (σ) = 4.6
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{4.6}{92} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{460}{92}=5 \%\)
Mean marks of vidhya = \(\frac{480}{5}\)
Given standard deviation (σ) = 2.4
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{2.4}{96} \times 100=\frac{240}{96}=2.5 \%\)
CV₁ > CV₂
Vidhya coefficient of variation is less than Sathya
∴ Vidhya is more consistent.

Question 40.
The perimeters of the ends of frustum of a cone are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm. If the height of the frustum be 8 cm, find the whole surface area of the frustum. [Use π = 3.14]
Answer:

Let the radii of circular ends be R and r [R > r]
Perimeter of circular ends are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm
∴ 2πR = 207.24 cm
⇒ R = \(\frac{207.24}{2 \pi}=\frac{207.24}{2 \times 3.14}=33\)
⇒ R = 33m and 2 πr = 169.56
⇒ r = \(\frac{169.56}{2 \pi}=\frac{169.56}{2 \times 3.14}=27\)
Slant-height of the frustum
l = \(\sqrt{h^{2}+(\mathrm{R}-r)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{8^{2}+(33-27)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{64+36}\) = 10 cm
The whole surface area of the frustum = π [(R² + r2²) + (R + r) l]
∴ Required whole surface area of the frustum
= 3.14 [33² + 27² + (33 + 27) × 10] cm²
= 3.14 [1089 + 729 + 600] cm²
= 3.14 [2418] cm²
= 7592.52 cm²

Question 41.
A jar contains 54 marbles each of which is blue, green or white. The probability of selecting a blue marbles at random from the jar is \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) and the probability of selecting a green marble at random is \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) . How many white marbles does the jar contain?
Answer:
n(S) =54
Let the number of blue marble, be ‘x’
Let A be the event of getting blue marbles
n(A) = x
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{1}{3}=\frac{x}{54}\)
3x = 54
x = \(\frac{54}{3}\) = 18
Number of blue marble is 18. Let the number of green marble be “y”. Let B be the event of getting green marbles.

P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{4}{9}=\frac{y}{54}\)
9y = 54 × 4
y = \(\frac{54 \times 4}{9}\) = 24
Blue marbles + green marbles + white marbles = 54
18 + 24 + white marbles = 54
∴ Number of white marbles = 54 – 42 = 12
The jar contain 12 white marbles.

Question 42.
One – fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to mountain and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. Find the total number of camels.
Answer:
Le the total number of camels be ‘x’
Number of camels seen in the forest = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\)
Number of camels gone to the mountain = 2√x
Number of camels on the bank of river = 15
Total number of camels = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
x = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
4x = x + 8√x + 60 (muliply by 4)
3x – 8√x – 60 = 0
Let x = a²
3a² – 8√a² – 60 = 0
3a² – 8a – 6 = 0
3a (a – 6) + 10(a – 6) = 0
(3a + 10) (a – 6) = 0
3a + 10 = 0 or a – 6 = 0
a = \(\frac{-10}{3}\) or a = 6
x = \(\left(\frac{-10}{3}\right)^{2}\) or 6²(x = a²)
x = \(\frac{100}{9}\) (or) 36
Number of camels can-not be a fraction
∴ Number of camels = 36

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR
Answer:
Given a triangle PQR, we are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR.

Steps of construction
1. Construct a ∆PQR with any measurement.
2. Draw a ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to vertex P.
3. Locate 7 points (the greater of 7 and 4 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\))
Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, Q₄, Q₅, Q₆ and Q₇ on QX so that
QQ₁ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃ = Q₃Q₄= Q₄Q₅ = Q₅Q₆ = Q₆Q₇
4. Join Q₄ (the 4^th point, 4 being smaller of 4 and 7 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\)) to R and draw a line through Q₇ parallel to Q₄ R, intersecting the extended line segment QR at R’.
5. Draw a line through R’ parallel to RP intersecting the extended line segment QP at P’ Then ∆P’QR’ is the required triangle each of whose sides is seven-fourths of the corresponding sides of ∆PQR.

[OR]

(b) Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Answer:
Radius = 4 cm; Distance 11 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle A and B.
5. Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents.
   This the length of the tangents PA = PB = 10.2 cm

Verification: In the right angle triangle OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 11² – 4² = 121 – 16= 105
PA = √105 = 10.2 cm
Length of the tangents = 10.2 cm

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 preparing the table of values as below.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 6), (-3, 2), (-2, 0), (-1, 0), (0, 2), (1, 6), (2, 12), (3, 20) (4, 30).
(iii) To solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0 subtract x² + 2x + 1 = 0 from y = x² + 3x + 2

(iv) Draw the graph of y = x +1 from the table

The equation y = x + 1 represents straight line.
This line intersect the curve at only one point (-1, 0). The solution set is (-1).

[OR]

(b) (2x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
y = (2x – 3) (x + 2)
= 2x² + 4x – 3x – 6
= 2x² + x – 6
(i) Prepare a table of values for y from x – 4 to 4

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 22) (-3, 9) (-2, 0) (-1, -5) (0, -6) (1,-3), (2, 4), (3, 15) and (4, 30).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
The curve intersect the X – axis at (-2, 0) and \(\left(1 \frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
∴ The solution set is \(\left(-2,1 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(iv) Since there are two points of intersection with X – axis, the quadratic equation has real and un – equal roots.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Inertia of a body depends on ______.
(a) weight of the object
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
(c) mass of the object
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(c) mass of the object

Question 2.
Magnification of a convex lens is _______.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 3.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _______.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 4.
The number of neutrons is ₈O¹⁶ is _______.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 24
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon-di-oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 6.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) phloem
(b) epidermis
(c) cortex
(d) xylem
Answer:
(d) xylem

Question 8.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31^st
(b) April 22^nd
(c) June 6^th
(d) October 2^nd
Answer:
(a) May 31^st

Question 9.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

Question 10.
The phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidised to release ethyl alcohol is
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(d) Fermentation

Question 11.
Biogenetic law states that ______.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 12.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 14.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

Question 15.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through fog, rain etc.

Question 16.
Define volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.

Question 17.
Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Answer:
Heterodiatomic molecules -E.g: HCl, NaCl.

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 19.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Question 20.
Identify the parts A,B,C and D.
Answer:

A – Exine, B – Intine, C – Generative cell, D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 21.
Define Cancer.
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming a tumor or neoplasm: It is a heterogenous group of cells that do not respond to the normal cell division.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductor is 110 V. How much work moving 5C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Given, V = 110 V , Charge q = 5C
V = \(\frac{W}{q}\)
W = V × q
W = 110 × 5 = 550 J
∴ Work done W = 550 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Describe the rocket propulsion.
Answer:

• Propulsion of rockets is based on the law of conservation of linear momentum as well as Newton’s III law of motion.
• Rockets are filled with a fuel (either liquid or solid) in the propellant tank. When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum.
• To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.
• While in motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
• Since, there is no net external force acting on it, the linear momentum of the system is conserved.
• The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in the gradual increase in velocity of the rocket.
• At one stage, it reaches a velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of the Earth. This velocity is called escape velocity.

Question 24.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as,

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

1. Elastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

2. Inelastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.
The nature and size of the scattered results in different types of scattering. They are

• Raylight scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 25.
(a) Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V electric bulb in an electric circuit.
Answer:
Given, P = 100 W, V = 200 V
Power P = VI

(b) What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

• The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
• The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
• Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one nonpolar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

The polar end is hydrophilic (Water loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

When a soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

Question 27.
(a) Explain the various types of binary solutions based on the physical states of solute and solvent table.
Answer:

(b) State Henry’s law?
Answer:
Henry’s law states that, the solubility of a gas in a liquid, is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 28.
(a) Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes which required conscious training effort.

(b) How many cranial nerves and spinal nerves are present in man?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves are present in man.

Question 29.
(a) What are Allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. There are two types of sex chromosomes. X and Y chromosomes. Human male have one X chromosome and one Y chromosomes and the human female have two X chromosomes.

(b) What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The opening and closing of stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guard cells. When the water enters into the guard cells, they become turgid and the stomata open. When guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 30.
(a) Draw and label the structure of oxysomes
Answer:

(b) What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)

Question 31.
(a) Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity is a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. Hence dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

(b) Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 32.
(a) State Newton’s third law of motion and explain with examples:
Answer:
Law: ‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
They always act on two different bodies’.
F_B = – F_A

Examples:
(i) When birds fly:
Push the air downwards with their wings – Action
Air push the bird upwards – Reaction

(ii) When firing bullet:
Gun recoils backward and the bullet is moving forward – Action
Gun equals this forward action by moving backward – Reaction.

(b) How will you identify saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:

• Take the given sample solution in a test tube.
• Add a few drops of bromine water
• If the given compound is unsaturated, it will decolourise bromine water.
• If the given compound is saturated it will not decolourise bromine water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering, S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

(ii) Explain the construction and working of a ‘compound microscope’.
Answer:
Construction
A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:
(i) The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u >fo).
(ii) A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
(iii) This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece.
(iv) This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
(v) Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

[OR]

(b) (i) A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 1:2)
Answer:
Given: Let m_b , m_t are the masses of truck and bike.
mt = 4m_b ………(1)

(ii) Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.16 T)
T = 46°C, v₀ =331 ms^-1
_VT = 331 +(0.61 × 46)
= 331 +28.06
V_T = 359.06 ms^-1

Question 34.
(a) (i) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15 g of NaCl in 85 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of solute = 15 g
Mass of solvent = 85 g

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.001 M NaOH.
Answer:
[OH^–] = Normality = Molarity × acidity
= 0.001 × 1 = 1 × 10^-3
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]
= -log₁₀ ¹× [10^-3]
= -log ¹– log₁₀ 10^-3
= 0 – (-3 log₁₀ ¹⁰)
pOH = 3
pH + pOH = 14 .
pH = 14 – pOH= 14 – 3
pH = 11

(iii) Calculate the mass of 0.01 mole of H₂O.
Answer:
n = 0.01 mole; μ = 18 g mol^-1; W = ?
W = n × M
= 0.01 × 18 = 0.18 g

[OR]

(b) (i) In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Difference between hygroscopic and deliquescent substances is in the extent to which each material can absorb moisture. This is because both of these terms are very much related to each other and they refer to the property of observing and the retention of moisture from the air. However, they differ in the extent of absorption of moisture where hygroscopic materials absorb moisture but not the extent the original substance dissolves in it, which is the casewith deliquescence. Therefore deliquescence can be regarded as an extreme condition of hygroscopic activity.

(ii) Define solubility.
Answer:
It is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth, inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

(ii) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

(iii) What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:
(1) Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.

(2) Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.

(3) Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.

(4) Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit?
Answer:

The male reproductive system of rabbit consists of a pair of testes which are ovoid in shape. Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules.
This network of tubules lead into Cowper s glands a coiled tubule called epididymis, Perineal glands which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens.

The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder. The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland and perineal gland. Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

(ii) What are vestigeal organs?
Answer:
The degenerated and non functional organs of animals are called Vestigeal organs. Eg. Vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra, coccyx.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Hernan Cortes

Question 3.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1927
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 4.
Who was the first Palayakkarar to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veera Pandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 6.
The North-South extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
Answer:
(c) 3,214 km

Question 7.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Cotton
(b) rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 8.
The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 9.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayar
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 10.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 11.
How many times has the preamble to the constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Question 12.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 13.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 14.
Tiruppur is known for ………………
(a) Leather tanning
(b) lock making
(c) knit wear
(d) Agro – Processing
Answer:
(c) knit wear

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
How did Great Depression impact on the Indian agriculture?
Answer:

• The Great Depression had a deep impact on the Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce, declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant, remained unchanged.
• In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.

Question 16.
How was the Cuban Missile crisis defused?
Answer:

• The Cuban Missile crisis was a confrontation between the United States and the Soviet Union which initiated by the American discovery of Soviet Ballistic missile deployment in Cuba.
• Finally, the Soviet President Nikita Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles and thus the missile crisis was defused.

Question 17.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 18.
What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:
A Gurukulam was established in Cheranmahadevi by V. V. S. Iyer with the financial support of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste. Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately.

Periyar was disturbed to see the discrimination. He questioned the practice, and severely criticised it. Despite his objections the Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam. This disappointed Periyar.

Question 19.
Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshaweep.
Answer:

• It lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
• This group of islands is composed of small coral islands.
• Earlier they were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive. In 1973, these were named as Lakshadweep.
• It covers small area of 32 sq.km. Kavaratti island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
• This island group has great diversity of flora and fauna. The Pitti island which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.

Question 20.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:
The major inland water ways of India are:

• National Waterway 1: It extends between Haldia and Allahabad, measures 1620 km and includes the stretches of the Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hooghly river system.
• National Waterway 2: This waterway includes the stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya a distance of 891 km.
• National Waterway 3: This waterway extends between Kollam and Kottappuram in the state of Kerala. It is the first national waterway in the country with 24 hour navigation facilities along its entire stretch of 205 km.

Question 21.
Name the major Islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 22.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

• Chennai International Airport
• Coimbatore International Airport
• Madurai International Airport
• Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:

• Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

• Chennai
• Ennore
• Tuticorin

Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 23.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 24.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

1. Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-interference
3. Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
4. Peaceful co-existence.

Question 25.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. National Income is also known as Gross National Product or GNP or National Dividend.

Question 26.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 27.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends upon direct and indirect taxes.

Question 28.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.
Types of Natural Resources are:

1. Renewable and
2. Non – renewable resources.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) …………..was humiliated by the Treaty of Versailles.
(ii) …………………..makes our toothpaste white.
(iii) The Dutch captured pondicherry in ………………..
(iv) ………………are very important in the modem economic activities of man.
(v) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river………….
Answers
(i) Germany
(ii) Titanium Oxide
(iii) 1693
(iv) Industries
(v)Thenpennai

Question 30.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) GMT and 1ST.
(ii) Weather and Climate,
Answer:
(a) (i) GMT and IST:
GMT :

• It means Greenwich Mean Time.
• GMT is calculated at 0° longitude.
• It passes through Greenwich.
• It is the World Standard Time.

IST:

• It means Indian Standard Time.
• India’s central meridian is 82° 30’ E longitude.
• It passes through Mirzapur.
• It is the Indian Standard Time.

(ii) Weather and Climate:
Answer:
Weather:

• Weather is a day to day conditions of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.
• It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.

Climate:

• Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
• To get reliable average of climate, a minimum of 35 years records of weather are necessary.

(b) Give reason: The river Godavari is often referred as Vridha Ganga.
Answer:

• The Godavari is India’s second longest river after Ganga.
• It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
• It covers a large number of states as the Ganga does. Because of its large size and extend among the peninsular rivers, the river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.

Question 33.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe.

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 34.
Eumerate the cause for the failure of the great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

• Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
• A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not j oin the movement.
• The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
• The educated Indians did not support the movement.
• The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
• The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
• The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
• The revolt was not extended beyond North.
• The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
• The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
• The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
• The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
• The revolutionaries had no common idea.
• The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
• The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian rulers to j oin together for a common cause.

Question 35.
Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purposes project”.
1. The Bhakra Nangal Project: India’s biggest multipurpose river valley project is ‘Bhakra Nangal Project’. It has been built at a strategic point where two hills on either side of the Sutlej are very close to each other. It is the highest gravity dam in the world. Its length is 226 metres from the riverbed. The canals taken out are 1100 kilometres long. The ‘Nangal Power Plant’ on the Sutlej produces electricity, and serves the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and New Delhi. The distributaries are 8400 km in length. It irrigates an area of 1.4 million hectares.

2. Indira Gandhi Project: This project is an ambitious scheme to bring new areas under irrigation so that more areas could be cultivated. The waters of the River Beas and the Ravi are diverted to the River Sutlej. The ‘Pong’ Dam on the River Beas has been constructed to divert the Beas water into the Sutlej in a regulated manner. So that ‘Rajasthan canal’, the longest irrigation canal in the world can irrigate Gandhi Nagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of North West Rajasthan, (i.e) a part of Thar desert. The main canal now called ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ is 468 km long runs entirely in Rajasthan, Western of Sutlej, Beas and Ravi are now being fully utilised for irrigating thirsty lands of South Western parts of our country.

Question 36.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and in production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu. .
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 37.
Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 38.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

• India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
• SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
• Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary general of SAARC.
• The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.
• On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting. Afghanistan became its 8th member.
• 18th SAARC summit took place on 26* and 27* of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.
• The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 39.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product or GDP:

• Expenditure Approach – In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
• Income Approach – This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
• Value-added Approach – In the value – added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.

Question 40.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Status of Nutrition:

• We noted earlier that food security includes nutrition security too. Though our country has reached self-sufficiency in food production, the nutrition status of the population has not seen corresponding levels of improvement.
• In 2015-16, 27% of the rural women and 16% of the urban women (in the age group of 15-49 years) were counted as undernourished or chronically energy deficient by the National Family Health Survey.
• More than half of the women in the reproductive age group (15-49 years) in both rural and urban India were anaemic in 2015-16. As regards children, about 60% of the rural and 56% of the urban children (in the age group of 6-59 months) are counted to be anaemic, in 2015-16.
• About 41 % of the rural and 31 % of urban children are stunted, that is, they are not of the required height in correspondence to their age. Another indicator of nutrition deficiency . among children is “underweight”, which is weight in relation to age.
• In India, in 2015-16, about 20% of children (in the age group of 6-59 months) in rural and urban India are estimated to be underweight.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1934-1961
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) France
(iv) Italy
(v) Greece
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) German Emperor
(i) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
(ii) What was the violent form of Germany called?
(iii) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
(iv) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
(a) German Emperor

(i) The Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.

(ii) It was called Germany’s Kultur.

(iii) The British agreement with France over the latter’s interest in Morocco was consented by Germany. So Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany intentionally recognised the independence of the Sultan and demanded an international conference to decide on the future of Morocco.

(iv) The German colonies in western and eastern Africa were attacked by the Allies. As these
colonies were quite far off from Germany they could not receive any immediate help, and therefore had to surrender to the Allies.

(b) Korean War
(i) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
(ii) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
(iii) How long did the Korean War last?
(iv) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
(b) Korean War
(i) Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.
(ii) Syngman Rhee
(iii) The Korean War lasted three years
(iv) The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(i) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
(ii) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
(iii) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
(iv) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(i) Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.
(ii) The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.
(iii) The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.
(iv) The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. ‘

(d) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(i) What is constructive programme?
(ii) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
(iii) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
(iv) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
(d) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(i) Programmes that aimed at Khadi promotion, Hindu-Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability are called constructive programmes.
(ii) He exhorted the Congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, the message of Hindu-Muslim unity, the message of anti-untouchability and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj.
(iii) Gandhi tried to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity to strengthen the cause of Swaraj.
(iv) Gandhiji wanted to abolish untouchability from the country. He undertook an all-India tour called the Harijan Tour. He started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of discriminations. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquor among the depressed class. He also launched the Temple Entry Movement.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mumbai
(iii) Rice cultivation area
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Air route from Chennai to Delhi
(vi) Mountain forests
(vii) Direction of South West monsoon
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
(i) Gulf of Mannar .
(ii) Manimutharu dam
(iii) Pamban
(iv) Chennai port
(v) Any one international airport
(vi) Graphite ore production centre
(vii) Rubber growing area
(viii) Magnesite ore production centre .

Map for Q 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) France
(iv) Italy
(v) Greece
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mumbai
(Hi) Rice cultivation area
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Air route from Chennai to Delhi
(vi) Mountain forests
(vii) Direction of South West monsoon
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Gulf of Mannar
(ii) Manimutharu dam
(iii) Pamban
(iv) Chennai port
(v) Any one international airport
(vi) Graphite ore production centre
(vii) Rubber growing area
(viii) Magnesite ore production centre
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He felt certain that his wings would never support him.
(a) curtain
(b) screen
(c) sure
(d) unsure
Answer:
(c) sure

Question 2.
‘Nothing,’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) angrily
(c) carefully
(d) grievously
Answer:
(b) angrily

Question 3.
‘We left our ancestral house, twenty- nine years ago.
(a) inherited
(b) anterior
(c) interior
(d) palatial
Answer:
(a) inherited

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It covered the expedition in five legs with stop-overs at four ports.
(a) exposed
(b) shielded
(c) protected
(d) hid
Answer:
(a) exposed

Question 5.
Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) promotional
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 6.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) released
(b) conquered
(c) liberated
(d) controlled
Answer:
(c) liberated

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of Chinese from the following.
(a) Chinese
(b) Chineses
(c) Chinesies
(d) Chinesses
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word – ‘legal’.
(a) en-
(b) mis-
(c) il-
(d) dis-
Answer:
(c) il-

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation PSU.
(a) Public Sector University
(b) Public Sector Unit
(c) Public Service Unit
(d) Public Sector Unit
Answer:
(d) Public Sector Unit

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The air hostess instructed the passengers to wear the seat belts during the
(a) take off.
(b) take out
(c) take after
(d) take in
Answer:
(a) take off.

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ wash’ to form a compound word.
(a) clean
(b) gentle
(c) room
(d) out
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from a green
shawl.
(a) across
(b) under
(c) into
(d) inside
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The sun in ………… the west.
(a) sets
(b) is setting
(c) was set
(d) will set
Answer:
(a) sets

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He believed Maede’s men were beginning to retreat.
(a) for
(b) and
(c) but
(d) that
Answer:
(d) that

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any three of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily contused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 16.
Which skill was considered important in the selection process? How long were they trained to undertake this voyage?
Answer:
Little survival skills they showcased was considered important in the selection process. They were trained for almost three years to undertake this voyage.

Question 17.
What was the condition of the attic?
Answer:
A portion of a wall of the attic had crumbled down. In the whole house, the attic had probably been the worst hit by wind and weather. The floor was strewn with twigs and straw and pigeon droppings.

Question 18.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board—the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) How can one travel on with cheer?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.

Question 20.
“Despite the sighs and groans and moans,
She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!.”
(a) Is she complaining about the problems of life?
(b) Pick out the words that show her grit.
Answer:
(a) No she is not complaining about the problems of life.
(b) The words that show her grit are strong and firm.

Question 21.
“We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit ”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in first stanza?
(b) Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to the Machines in the first stanza.
(.b) The speakers are the Machines which are the brain children of man and the listeners are the readers of this poem.

Question 22.
“ What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) You know what happened inside that house?
(A) What is meant by ‘bare to the bone’?
Answer:
(a) No one knows what happened inside the house.
(b) ‘Bare to the bone’means there isn’t anything in the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Are you disturbed by listening to hard rock music?
Answer:
Does listening to hard rock music disturb you?

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Shalini said to Mr. Shamrock, “Have you decided to give me the job?”
Answer:
Shalini asked Mr. Shamrock if he had decided to give her the job.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Psst I hissed, in the dark shaking him.
Answer
‘Psst!’ I hissed, in the dark, shaking him.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
As there was a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(а) advertise/ use/ convenient/ telephone/ you/ as/ to/ banking/ your/ service/ and/ easy
(b) afraid/ not/ of/ evidence/ have/1 /features/ seen/ am/1/ either/ yet/ these/ of
Answer:
(a) You advertise your telephone banking service as easy to use and convenient.
(b) I am afraid I have not yet seen evidence of either of these features.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Your neighbour wants to meet his friend in MM Hospital. Write in about 50 words / 5 sentences guiding him with your directions.
Answer:

• Go straight on Rajaji Street and take the first right on Shanthi Colony Main Road.
•  Proceed further and go past the 1st main road on the left and 2nd main road on the right.
  Take the road on the left after the 2nd main road. You will find MM Hospital on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -1

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2×5 = 10]

Question 29.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him.

He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it. It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space.

Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute. The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.

‘’Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way. ”

Question 30.
What makes Culverton Smith fall a prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him.

Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness. Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.

“You cannot escape from a detective s eye.”

Question 31.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder.He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

“Wisdom requires not only the investigation of many things but contemplation of the mystery.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Then the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques.

Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over air the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“Its about women helping women and women doing things together and supporting each other”

Section – II
Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat.

He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality.

Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away be the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.

“Accept responsibility for your life.
Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.”

Question 34.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning.

When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender. We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self-centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

“Acceptance for one another is the key to living.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown, ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the third line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Down and crown; joy and boy
(ii) abba is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iii) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘way wind’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street In the city of Never-Are-Satisfied,
The River of Discontent beside.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent runs by the side of their house.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(iv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (tv), (ii)
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(tv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The trembling mother’s voice was full of unselfish love as she gave her last injunction. “Let not thine eyes be blinded, my son.” She said. “The mountain road is full of dangers. LOOK carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. They will guide you to the familiar path farther down”.

The son’s surprised eyes looked back over the path, then at the poor old, shriveled hands all scratched and soiled by their work of love. His heart broke within and bowing to the ground, he cried aloud: “Oh, honorable mother, your kindness breaks my heart! I will not leave you.

Together we will follow the path of twigs, and together we will die!’’Once more he shouldered his burden (how light it seemed now) and hastened down the path, through the shadows and the moonlight, to the little hut in the valley. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled closet for food, which was covered and hidden from view. There the son hid his mother, supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered.
(i) What was the last injunction given by the mother?
(ii) What did the aged mother do for her son’s safe return?
(iii) Why was the aged mother’s hands shriveled?
(iv) What does the poor mother’s kindness do to the poor farmer’s heart?
(v) Where did the son hide his mother in his little hut in the valley?
Answer:
(i) The last injunction given by the mother was that her son’s eyes should not be blinded to the mountain road filled with dangers.
(ii) The aged mother dropped piles of twigs as her son carried her up the mountain so that they would guide him while returning.
(iii) The aged mother’s hands were shriveled, scratched and soiled because of the work of love.
(iv) The poor mother’s kindness broke the poor farmer’s heart.
(v) The son hid his mother beneath the kitchen floor in the walled closet for food which was hidden from view.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Milton Electronic Ltd – 30% discount sale – all electronic appliances – additional warranty – gifts with every purchase.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Catherine/ Shilogaran. You want to share your thoughts to Angeline who was your classmate five years ago when you were in Class V. You have not met after leaving school. Write a letter explaining your life.
Answer:

40, West Street,
10th August, 2020

Dear Angeline,
By the grace of God, we are doing well and I hope the same from you and your family. It’s been five long years since we have met or had the opportunity to write to each other. I recently came to Chennai and happened to see your neighbour during my visit. I asked for your address and here I am wanting to share my days at Salem with a friend whom my miss a lot. My father was transferred to Salem during our summer vacation after our Terminal exams for Std V. Hence I could not inform you in person.

I am now studying in Reva Public School at Srimangalam Colony. The teachers are very cordial and good coaching. I miss the Sports activities here since we do not have a playground. We do have a P.T. period but we just do exercises and running. I miss playing Khokho and Football at Vellore Voorhees school.

This year, being in tenth, we went on an excursion to Hyderabad. It was my first trip out of Tamil Nadu and also my trip without my family. Though I enjoyed the trip with my friends, I did miss my family.

Angelene I hope to receive a letter from you and I am so excited penning a few words to you. Looking forward to hearing from you at the earliest and do convey my regards to uncle and aunty.

Loads of love,
Catherine/Shilogaran

Question 41.
As student Editor, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board inviting articles from the students for your school magazine. You are Caleb/Christabel of Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai.

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

Family time is very important for family ties to be strengthened. This picture portrays a family where the father relaxes under a beach umbrella and hopes to enjoy the suntan effect. Under another umbrella you can see the mother relaxing with a book in hand. A small little girl enjoys making a sand castle while her brother runs to plunge into the water. You can also see a boy swimming in the water. Birds are hoping to find some food as people are in the seashore.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The term earthquake is applied to any tremor or shaking of the ground. Many earthquakes are so gentle as to pass almost unrecognised, others are sufficiently pronounced to excite general alarm, while some spread enormous destruction. Destructive earthquakes are usually confined to limited regions. The usual phenomena recorded in well-known earthquakes are first a trembling, next one or more severe shocks, and then a trembling which gradually dies away. In most cases, each shock lasts only a few seconds, but the tremblings that follow may continue for days, weeks, or even months.

Noises of various kinds usually accompany an earthquake. They have been likened to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains, or the rumbling of heavy wagons along a road. Such noises are conducted through the ground, or they may travel through the sea or air, and are often heard at great distances from the place where the shock is felt. Some earthquakes, however, are not accompanied by these noises.

At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riobamba in Ecuador on February 4, 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modem times may be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Notes
Title: Earthquake
1. Definition, -tremor/shaking of ground
2. Types of Earthquake
(a) Gentle – unrecognized
(b) Sufficiently pronounced – gentle alarm
(c) Severe – enormous destruction

3. Signs of Occurrence
(a) Trembling – 1 or more severe shocks – trembling
(b) Various Noises
(c) howling of storm

• growling of thunder
• clanking / clashing of iron chains
• rumbling of heavy wagon on road

(c) Range – through ground, sea, air – heard at distance
(d) Some earthquakes silent

Title: Earthquake
Rough draft
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earthquakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also Causedand slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country. In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riehqmba in Ecuador in 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modenTtimesogay be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Fair draft
Title : Earthquake
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these are known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earth¬quakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also cause land slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country.

In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. Some can be silent like the one which occurred in Ecuador on Feb 4, 1797. Tsunami of 2004 was devastating in Tamil Nadu.
No. of words written in the summary: 87

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Which dress is the best of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I have got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park are coming up near our house.
(d) It is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends until they quarrelled.
Answer:
(a) Which dress is the better of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park is coming up near our house.
(d) There is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends before they quarrelled.

Section – V

Question 45.
Quote from memory. [1×5 = 5]
From : My heart was …………… Sir, you say?
Answer:
My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ”
“For all nature looked gay ”.
“ You sang, Sir, you say?

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(а) The plot – Prospero’s revenge – the spirit of Ariel – dirty work – shipwreck – Antonio- a sea storm – shipwreck the crew – A delicious banquet – King of Naples – the lost son – meticulous planning – rivals state of regret – re-establish the legal command – dukedom of Milan – Prospero all-powerful – past conspirators face-to-face the sins of their past, repent and plead forgiveness.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, by William Shakespeare revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. Interestingly, he uses the spirit of Ariel to deliver the punishments while Prospero delegates the action. Prospero sends Ariel to do his dirty work while hiding his involvement in shipwrecking his brother, Antonio, from his daughter, Miranda.

He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. A delicious banquet is placed before the King of Naples that vanishes before they could relish its taste.

At another stage, those who were thought dead were discovered alive. The lost son, Ferdinand is resorted to a joyous father making those who have committed offenses repent. Prospero meticulously plans to bring his rivals to a state of regret so that he can pardon them and re-establish the legal command of things to his dukedom of Milan. Prospero being all¬powerful over the island, can easily destroy or punish his enemies as he wishes. However, he chooses not to and brings the past conspirators face-to- face with the sins of their past, which causes them to repent and plead his forgiveness.

[OR]
(b) Futuristic story written in 1889, – 25th July, 2889 – Earth Herald – the world’s largest newspaper – spoken and not written – reporters’ room – four quarters of the earth – telephone – commutators – visual sights – ten astronomical reporters – recent discoveries – Phototelegrams – nothing from Jupiter – can’t blame optical science – scientists worked on satellite – new planet Gandini – pass on to subscribers immediately.

This Futuristic story, written in 1889 speaks about the people of the 29th century who live in fairyland, foreseeing 25th July, 2889 @ the office block of the Managing Editor of the Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper where news is not printed but spoken. The day’s work started at the reporters’ room.

His fifteen hundred reporters, with their telephones, were speaking the news received from the four quarters of the earth to subscribers. Besides telephone, all reporters have commutators, which allow communication on telephotic line with visual sights. Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters Cash about the recent discoveries in the stellar world.

Cash replied that it was Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, and nothing from Jupiter since the Jovians signal could not be understood. He added that even results from the Moon wasn’t possible and one can’t blame optical science though moon was six hundred times nearer than Mars. Corley another reporter said it was the inhabitants which was refuted by Bennett who said the simplest way was to turn the moon round and find out.

From then on, the scientists of the Bennett factory started working on turning satellite. One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini and Bennett was delighted at his accuracy. He wanted the reporters to pass on the news to the subscribers immediately. The broad gallery for such a journal as the Earth Herald brought in an average of three million dollars daily.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
India celebrates Slumdog Millionaire’s sweeping success at the Academy Award ceremony last year. In addition to the movie by Director Danny Boyle, which took home eight Oscars, Smile Pinki won for the Best Documentary short subject, telling the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P who becomes a social outcast because of a cleft lip. Despite this achievement, few Indians received an award from the victories of British Director Boyle and US.

Documentary maker Megan Mylan; they were composer A.R. Rahman, singer Sampooran Singh Gulzar and sound designer Resul Pookutty. Slumdog Millionaire producers have also been dogged by controversy. They have been accused of underpaying the two child actors who worked in the film, Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie went back to live in their slums. Still for ordinary people success in Los Angeles has been the cause for celebration in the streets. Even schools stayed close.

What the movie celebrates is not India’s cinema which produces hundreds of movies each year drawing an average 23 million spectators per day, but the country and its stories, placed under the limelight of Hollywood for once. The stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, that of muslim boy Jamal and Pinki from Dabai, are but two of the many faces of today’s India, faces always ignored until Slumdog Millionaire’s triumph put the spotlight on them.

Questions.
(a) Who is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire?
(b) Which film was given the Oscar Award for the best documentary short subject and state the reason?
(c) What is the controversy about the producers of Slumdog Millionaire?
(id) On whom is the story of Slumdog Millionaire centered?
(a) Danny Boyle is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire.
(b) Smile Pinki was given the Oscar Award for the Best Documentary short subject because
it brought out the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P. who became a social outcast because of a cleft lip.
(c) The controversy is that the producers have been accused of underpaying the two child actors Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie still live in their slums.
(d) The story of Slumdog Millionaire centered on the stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, whose faces are always ignored.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
BREAK, BREAK, BREAK
Break, break, break,
On thy cold grey stones, O Sea!
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.

O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!

And the stately ships go on To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanished hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still.

Break, break, break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead Will never come back to me.

Questions.
(a) What does the poet ask the sea to break?
(b) What are the fisherman’s children doing on the shore?
(c) What does sailor lad singing and children of fishermen playing indicate?
(d) What is the moral of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poet asks the sea to break the cold grey stones.
(b) The fisherman’s children are shouting and playing without any worries on the seashore.
(c) It indicates that the children are not bothered about the happenings around nor bothered about the poet’s grief.
(d) The moral of the poem is that life goes on despite the human loss, suffering and tragedies.