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Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Anti Colonial Movements And The Birth Of Nationalism Question 1.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 2.
Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 3.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra pal

Question 5.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(d) 16 October 1905

Question 6.
What was the context in which the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(c) Munda Rebellion

Question 7.
Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(d) Tilak

Question 8.
Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpan?
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by…………….., the moneylenders of Bengal.
2. …………….. was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement originated in and around 1827.
3. The major tribal revolt took place in Cbotanagpur region was ……………….
4. The ………….. Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
5. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ………………
6. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ……………..
7. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ……………..
8. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year …………..
Answers:
1. Jagat Seths
2. Wahhabi rebellion
3. Kol revolt
4. Chotanagpur Tenancy Act
5. Bir Singh
6. Major General High Wheelor
7. 1908
8. 1885

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against Government officers and money lenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers Sidhu and Kanu led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to God” .
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indian princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
(a) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders w as to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of partition was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, Government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Answer:
The peasants uprising in British India are classified in to four categories:

1. Restorative Rebellions – To attempt to restore old order and old social relations.
2. Religious movements – Led by religions leaders to liberate the locals by restructuring society on certain religious principles.
3. Social banditry – Looked upon by their people as heroes or champions of their cause.
4. Mass Insurrection – Leaderless and spontaneous uprisings.

Question 2.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:
The Siege of Cawnpur was a key episode in the Indian rebellion of 1857. The besieged Company forces and civilians in Cawnpur (now Kanpur) were unprepared for an extended siege and surrendered to rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad. However under ambiguous circumstances, their evacuation from Cawnpur turned into a massacre, and most of the men were killed.

Question 3.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi, and Nagpur were the territories annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.

Question 4.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
The colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is called the drain to wealth.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of constructive Swadeshi.
Answer:
Constructive Swadeshi: It largely stress upon self – help.

1. It focused on building alternative-institutions of self governance that would operate free of British control.
2. It also laid emphasis on the need of self strengthening of the people.
3. In turn it would help them in creating a worthy citizen for political agitation.
4. Swadeshi shops spread all over the place selling textiles, handlooms, soaps, earthenwares match and leather goods.

Question 6.
Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:
The following were the objectives of the Home Rule Movements in India –

• To attain self-government within the British Empire by rising constitutional means.
• To obtain the status of dominion, apolitical position accorded later to Australia, Canada, South Africa and New Zealand.
• To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve goals.

Question 7.
Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
Lucknow Pact was signed in the year 1916. Under the provision of this pact.

1. Congress and Muslim League agreed to work together to attain self Government in India.
2. A separate electorate for Muslim was accepted by the Congress leadership.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption.

Question 1.
Deccan Riots
(а) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
Answer:
The first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared in May 1875, in Supa, a village near Poona.

(b What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
Answer:
Under a new law, the British moneylenders were allowed to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters and auction it off.

(c) What did it result in?
Answer:
It resulted in transfer of lands from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.

(d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
The violence was directed mostly at the Gujarat moneylenders.

Question 2.
The Revolt of 1857.

(a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer, this was an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt.

(b) Who was proclaimed the Sahhensha – e- Hindustan in Delhi?
Answer:
Bahadhur Shah – II was proclaimed as Shahensha – e – Hindustan in Delhi.

(c) Who was the correspondent of London Times who reported on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
William Howard Russell was the correspondent of London Times who reported on the brutality of the 1857 Revolt.

(d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
The Queen’s proclamation said that the British would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

Question 3.
Indian National Congress
(a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed?
Answer:
The techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed included appeals, petition and delegation to Britain.

(b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the Swadeshi period. They are often referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.

(c) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.

(d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi movement by arresting prominent leaders and putting them into the prison.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Political Cause: The annexation policy of British India: Two major policies were followed to bring more territories under British rule.

(a) Doctrine of Paramountcy:
(i) New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt and inefficient.
(ii) British claimed themselves as paramount, supreme authority.

(b) Doctrine of Lapse:
(i) If a native ruler does not have biological male heir of their own to the throne after his death the territory would ‘lapse’ in to British India.
(ii) Sambalpur, Satara, Jhansi, parts of Punjab and Nagpur were annexed by the British through Doctrine of Lapse.

Religious Cause:
(i) Indian Sepoys were prohibited from wearing religious marks on their forehead.
(ii) To render their services overseas. Crossing sea meant the loss of their caste. So Sepoys at Barrackpore refused to go to Burma by sea.

Economic Cause: Discrimination in salary and promotion. They felt humiliated by racial abusement.

Immediate Cause:

1. Introduction of cartridges to the new Enfield Rifles.
2. There was a strong suspicion that the new cartridge was greased with cow and pig fat
3. The cartridge had to be bitten off before loading (pork is forbidden to the Muslims and cow is sacred to the Hindus) so the Sepoys refused to use it.
4. In 29th March a Sepoy named Mangal Pandey assaulted his European officer Along with some other Sepoys and Mangal Pandey were court martialled and hanged.

This fuelled the anger among the Sepoys and started revolt.

Consequences of the Revolt: The Revolt was suppressed: Army had been restored to British control under Martial law.

1. The British officers were given power to judge and take the life of Indians without dae process of law.
2. Bahadhur shah II was captured and sent to Burma.
3. The British parliament passed a law proclaiming the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown.
4. The structure of the Indian army was revised army was reduced and Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and positions.
5. Queen Victoria proclaimed that the British would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters of Indians.
6. It was promised that more Indians would be absorbed in Government services.
7. Secretary of state was appointed to review the Indian affairs.

Question 2.
How did the people of Bengal respond to the partition of Bengal (1905)?
Answer:

1. The partition of Bengal that took place in 1905, resulted in widespread protests all across India. It started a new phase of the Indian national movement.
2. The partition instead of dividing the Bengali people along the religious line united the leaders of both the groups – extremist and moderate.
3. The people of Bengal adopted new techniques of protest. The boycott of British goods was one such method.
4. The day Bengal was officially partitioned was declared as a day of mourning. Thousand’s of people took bath in River Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta singing Vande Mataram.
5. The people of Bengal were outraged at what they saw as a ‘divide and rule’ policy of the British government.

Question 3.
Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916?
Answer:
The Indian National Movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule Movement (1916- 1918), led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.

1. It emerged as a mass movement against the British betrayal to the Indian cause of self Government after the I World War in return for the support rendered.
2. Tilak first set up the Home Rule League in April 1916.
3. In September 1916 Annie Besant by the demand of her followers started the Home Rule Movement in Madras (Adyar) without the support of the congress.
4. Both the leagues worked independently.
5. They succeeded in enrolling young people in large numbers and extending the movement to the areas,
6. The Home Rule league was utilised to carry propaganda through press, speeches, public meetings, lectures, discussions and touring in favour of self Government.
7. Both declared their strong view of self Government as right based on the national principle of self determination.
8. The Home Rule Movement led to the reunion of moderate and the extremists leaders of Congress at the Lucknow session.
9. Opened the fresh talks with the leaders of the Muslim League and decided to work together for self Government.
10. The demand for Swaraj was raised by Tilak and Annie Besant gained popularity.
11. This strong hold of both the leaders made the British parliament to announce Montagau – Chelmsford reforms which promised gradual progress of India towards self Government.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Identify the Acts passed in British India from 1858 to 1919, with a brief note on each. The Government of India Act, 1858.
Answer:

1. The Government of India Act 1858, marked the beginning of new chapter in the constitutional history of India.
2. Liquidation of East India Company, and the powers of government, territories and revenues ‘ were transfer to the British Crown.

The Indian Council Act, 1861

1. It enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation.
2. However, the legislative councils were merely talk shops with no power to criticize the administration or ask for some information. Their scope was fixed in legislation purpose alone; they had no right to move some kind of vote of no confidence.

The Indian Council Act, 1892

1. This act marks the beginning of representative form of Government in India.
2. Indian National Congress had adopted some resolutions in its sessions in 1885 and 1889 and put its demand. The major demands placed were as follows:
   • A simultaneous examination of ICS to be held in England and India
   • Reforms of the legislative council and adoption of the principle of election in place of nomination
   • Opposition to the annexation of Upper Burma
   • Reduction in the Military expenditure.

The Indian Councils Act, 1909 (The Morely-Minto Reforms)
(i) The British viceroy of India (1905-10)—was able to introduce several important innovations into the legislative and administrative machinery of the British Indian government.

(ii) The act also increased the maximum additional membership of the Imperial Legislative Council from 16 to 60.

The Government of India Act, 1919 (The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms)
(i) Subjects of administration were divided into two categories – ‘Central’ and ‘Provincial’. All important subjects (like Railways and Finance) were brought under the category of Central, while matters relating to the administration of the Provinces were classified as Provincial.

(ii) The provincial subjects were divided into two groups viz. reserved and transferred.

• The reserved subjects were kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with the Indian Ministers.
• This division of subjects was basically what they meant by introducing the Diarchy.
• The reserved subjects were the essential areas of law enforcement such as justice, police, and revenue. The transferred subjects were such as public health, public works, education etc.

Question 2.
Mark the important Centres of 1857 Revolt in an outline map.
Answer:

Question 3.
Prepare album with pictures of frontline leaders of all the ant-colonial Struggles launched against the British.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The British historians call the Revolt of 1857 as ……………….
(a) Military revolt
(b) The great revolt
(c) Freedom struggle
Answer:
(a) Military revolt

Question 2.
The battle of plassey was orchestrated by:
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Hugh Rose
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Major Munro
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 3.
During the great revolt of 1857 the Governor General of India was ……………….
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Canning
Answer:
(c) Lord Canning

Question 4.
The British favoured the ……………….. to suppress the peasant uprising.
(a) religious leaders
(b) tribal leaders
(c) local population
(d) zamindars
Answer:
(d) zamindars

Question 5.
The first sign of unrest appeared at ………………
(a) Meerut
(b) Bareilly
(c) Barrackpore
Answer:
(c) Barrackpore

Question 6.
In ……………….. the sepoys at Barrackpur near Calcutta refused to go to Burma by sea, as it meant the loss of their caste.
(a) 1814
(b) 1824
(c) 1815
(d) 1826
Answer:
(b) 1824

Question 7.
The wife of Nawab of Oudh was ……………..
(a) Mumtaj Mahal
(b) Fathima Begum
(c) Begum Hazrat Mahal
Answer:
(c) Begum Hazrat Mahal

Question 8.
After the sepoy revolt, the first civil rebellion broke out in parts of:
(a) North-Western Provinces and Oudh
(b) Bengal and Bihar
(c) North-Eastern Provinces
(d) Central Provinces
Answer:
(a) North-Western Provinces and Oudh

Question 9.
Viceroy means ………………
(a) The representative of the crown
(b) General of an army
(c) Religious leader
Answer:
(a) The representative of the crown

Question 10.
The British Parliament adopted the ……………….. in November 1858.
(a) Lucknow Pact
(b) Swadeshi Movement
(c) Indian Government Act
(d) Rowlatt Act
Answer:
(c) Indian Government Act

Question 11.
The last Emperor of the Mughals …………..
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Bahadur Shah – II
Answer:
(c) Bahadur Shah – II

Question 12.
The second half of the ……………….. saw the emergence of national political consciousness.
(a) 16th Century
(b) 17th Century
(c) 18th Century
(d) 19th Century
Answer:
(d) 19th Century

Question 13.
Queen Victoria’s proclamation of 1858 was described as ……………
(a) Human Rights
(b) Magna Carta
(c) citizenship
Answer:
(b) Magna Carta

Question 14.
Partition of Bengal was introduced by:
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Rippon
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:
(d) Lord Curzon

Question 15.
The Nawab of Bengal after Alivardi Khan was ……………..
(a) Tipu Sultan
(b) Siraj-ud-daulah
(c) Mir Questionaim
Answer:
(b) Siraj-ud-daulah

Question 16.
The British who lead the company’s army against Siraj-ud-daulah at plassey was …………..
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Edmund Burke
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 17.
One-third of the population was wiped out from Bengal because ……………
(a) a terrible famine occurred there
(b) a civil war broke out
(c) an epidemic broke out
Answer:
(a) a terrible famine occurred there

Question 18.
The riots were ……………….
(a) cultivators
(b) zamindars
(c) traders
Answer:
(a) cultivators

Question 19.
The Indigo Commission was set up to enquire into the system of indigo production. Whom did the commission hold guilty?
(a) The riots
(b) The government
(c) The planters
Answer:
(c) The planters

Question 20.
After the indigo production collapsed in Bengal, the planters shifted their operation to ……………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Bihar
(c) Odissa
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Question 21.
At which battle was the Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daulah defeated by the East India Company?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Panipat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Battle of Plassey

Question 22.
Who led the Farazi Movement after the death of Dudu Mian?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Sidhu
(d) Noah Mian
Answer:
(d) Noah Mian

Question 23.
Who provided leadership of the 1857 revolt in Bareilly?
(a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Rani Lakshmi Bai
Answer:
(b) Khan Bahadur

Question 24.
The Indigo Revolt began in the year ……………
(a) 1857
(b) 1858
(c) 1859
(d) 1875
Answer:
(c) 1859

Question 25.
Who among the following was not an extremist leader?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Bai Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The British territories were broadly divided into administrative units called …………..
2. The Royal charter could not prevent other European powers from entering the ………….. Markets.
3. The Bengal Nawabs asserted their power and autonomy after the death of …………..
4. ………….. was made the Nawab of Bengal after the defeat of Siraj-ud-daulah at Plassey.
5. The first Anglo-Maratha war ended with the treaty of …………..
6. Indigo cultivation was done under two main systems known as …………… and …………..
7. By the terms of the Permanent Settlement, the rajas and taluqdars were recognized as …………………
8. ……………… developed Ryotwari System which gradually extended all over South India.
9. The indigo villages were usually around indigo factories owned by ……………….
10. The planters at times pressurised the village between to sign the …………… on behalf of the ryots.
11. The British described the tribal people as …………….
12. Tribals went to work in the ………….. and the ………….. in Bihar.
13. The new law passed in 1850 made …………… into ………….. easier.
14. The Revolt of 1857 began from …………….
15. Mangal Pandey a young soldier was hanged to death for ………….. his officer in ……………
16. The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar died in the …………… jail.
17. In the countryside peasants and zamindars resented the …………….. and the rigid methods of ……………. collection.
18. Nana Saheb, the adopted son of the late Peshwa Baji Rao, gathered armed forces and expelled the……………….. from the city.
19. …………… fought a guerrilla war against the British with the support of several tribal and peasant leaders.
20. The section of Indian nationalists who had little patience for the non-political constructive programmes was called ……………..
21. After the Battle of Plassey, the British adopted the policy of ……………..
22. Many of the peasant revolts were led by …………….. leaders.
23. The Kol uprising took place in Chotanagpur and Singbhum region of Jharkhand and Orissa, under the leadership of ……………. and …………
24. After the 1857 revolt, the British captured Bahadur Shah and transported him to …………….
Answers:
1. Presidencies
2. Eastern
3. Aurangzeb
4. Mir Jafar
5. Salbai
6. Nij, ryots
7. Zamindars
8. Thomas Munro
9. Planters
10. contract
11. Savage
12. tea plantations, Coal mines
14. Meerut
15. Attacking, Barrackpore
16. Rangoon
17. High takes, revenue
18. British garrison
19. Nana Saheb
20. Militant nationalists
21. territorial expansion
22. religious
23. Bindrai, Singhrai
24. Burma

III. True or false

1. Siraj-ud-daulah got help from his commander Mir Jafar and finally won victory in the Battle of Plassey.
2. Birsa urged his followers to purify themselves, give up drinking liquor and stop believing in witchcraft and sorcery.
3. The British wanted to preserve the tribal way of life.
4. The traders and moneylenders never deceived the tribal people.
5. Many tribal groups did not like the colonial forest laws and therefore revolted.
Answers:
1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True

IV. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Munda rebellion prompted the British to formulate a policy on tribal land.
(ii) The early objectives of the Congress were to develop and consolidate sentiments of national unity.
(iii) The Indian princes and zamindars were neither loyal to the British power.
(iv) The leaders of the 1857 revolt were defeated due to lack of weapons, organisation, discipline and betrayal by their aides.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i)The boycott and Swadeshi were liked to each other.
(ii) Pheroze Shah Mehta and Gokhale were the two important extremist leaders.
(iii) The methods of moderate leaders failed to yield any substantive change in the British attitude
(iv) The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha came into existence in 1870.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The plight of the indigo growers war miserable.
Reason (R): They were trapped in debts which were often passed from father to son.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R .is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Match the following.
a.

1.	Mangal Pandey	(a)	Kanpur
2.	Bahadur Shah II	(b)	Lucknow
3.	Nana Saheb	(c)	Central India
4.	Begum Hazarat Mahal	(d)	Barrackpore
5.	Rani Lakshmi Bai	(e)	Delhi

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

b.

1.	Rani Lakshmi Bai	(a)	Mughal Emperor
2.	Bahadur Shah II	(b)	Colin Campbell
3.	The Great Revolt	(c)	Jhansi
4.	Lucknow	(d)	Magna Carta
5.	Queen Victoria’s Proclamation	(e)	1857

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)

c.

1.	Birjis Qadr	(a)	Bihar
2.	Rani lakshmi bai	(b)	Faizabad
3.	Kunwar Singh	(c)	Jhansi
4.	Bakht Khan	(d)	Lucknow
5.	Ahmadullah Shan	(e)	Bareilly

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

d.

1.	Khunt Katti	(a)	Mirror of the Indigo
2.	Bethbehari	(b)	Joint holding
3.	Niladarpan	(c)	Self rule
4.	Swaraj	(d)	Great tumult
5.	Ulugulan rebellion	(e)	Forced labour

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5.(d)

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did the East India Company restructure the Mughal revenue system?
Answer:

1. British – The East India Company introduced land tenures and altered the agrarian relations.
2. Zamindars and other who collected the revenue never given the possession right on land.
3. No wide spread system of private ownership. In this way East India Company restructured the Mughal revenue system.

Question 2.
What was the main reason for the defeat of Siraj-ud-daulah at Plassey?
Answer:
Mir Jafar, one of Siraj-ud-daulah’s commanders did not fight the battle.

Question 3.
“Tribes” who are they?
Answer:

1. Tribes in India were and are very much part of the Indian society.
2. Infact they are the Indian peasantry subsisting through shifting cultivation.
3. The modem usage of word tribe in India restricts the definition to distinguish them from the rest of the Indian society, a stratified system based on caste.

Question 4.
How did the company purchase Indian goods?
Answer:
It purchased Indian goods with gold and silver imported from Britain.

Question 5.
What were the impacts of the transfer of power from East India Company to the Crown?
Answer:

1. After the transfer of power to the Crown.
2. De-industrialisation led to massive unemployment workers were forced out of the land.
3. Heavy taxation mined agriculture.
4. Famine deaths increased.
5. Peasants were forced to pay revenue directly to the Government.
6. Mortgaged land of the defaulters were auctioned by the moneylenders.
7. Peasants were trapped in the vicious-cycle of debt and forced to abandon cultivation.

Question 6.
When was Robert Clive appointed the Governor of Bengal?
Answer:
He was appointed the Governor of Bengal in 1764.

Question 7.
What were the two elements of early Indian response to colonialism?
Answer:
First response: Tribal uprisings and peasant rebellions made an attempts to restore the old order in the late 18th and early 19th century. It was restorative in nature.

Second response: In the second half of 19th-century response was in the ‘ form of Indian Nationalism emphasising on consciousness of unity and National aspiration.

Question 8.
What is indigo?
Answer:
It is a plant that produces rich blue colour used as a dye.

Question 9.
Why did cloth dyers prefer indigo to woad?
Answer:
Cloth dyers preferred indigo as a dye because it produced a rich blue colour whereas the dye from woad was pale and dull.

Question 10.
Mention different types of activities of tribal people.
Answer:
(a) Some practised Jhum cultivation
(b) Some were hunter-gatherers
(c) Some herded animals
(d) Some took to settled cultivation

Question 11.
Who was Birsa?
Answer:
Birsa belonged to a family of Mundas, a tribal group that lived in Chottanagpur.

Question 12.
What did people say about Birsa?
Answer:
People said that he had miraculous powers. He could cure all diseases and multiply grain.

Question 13.
What problems did Birsa set out to resolve?
Answer:
(a) The familiar ways of tribals seemed to be disappearing.
(b) Their livelihoods were under threat.
(c) The religion appeared to be in danger.

Question 14.
On what charges was Birsa convicted?
Answer:
Birsa was convicted on the charges of rioting.

Question 15.
When did Birsa die and how?
Answer:
He died of cholera in 1900 in jail.

Question 16.
Name any two smaller rulers who acknowledged the suzerainty of Bahadur Shah Zafar.
Answer:
Nana Saheb and Birjs Qadar.

Question 17.
Who was Tantia Tope?
Answer:
He was the general of Nana Saheb.

Question 18.
Name the important leaders and centres of the mutiny.
Answer:
Important leaders:

1. Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi
2. Tantia Tope
3. Nana Saheb and Kunwar Singh.

Important centres:

1. Kanpur
2. Delhi
3. Lucknow

Question 19.
Why was not the revolt widespread?
Answer:

• There was no unity among the rebels.
• It did not extend beyond north India.
• South India, Punjab, Sind and Rajasthan kept quiet.
• The rulers of the Indian States who did not support the movement remained neutral.
• A large number of rulers of the Indian States and the big zamindars did not join the movement
• The educated Indians did not support the movement.

Question 20.
The early Indian response to colonial exploitation and the colonial political and economic domination consisted of two elements. Mention them.
Answer:
The two responses:
(i) The first response in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries was restorative in nature. Both tribal uprising and peasant rebellion made an attempt to restore the older order.

(ii) The second response appeared in the second half of the nineteenth century in the form of Indian nationalism that progressively imagined India as a nation emphasising on a consciousness of unity, and national aspiration.

Question 21.
Mention some of the issues that added to a sense of resentment among the Indian peasants and tribals against the British.
Answer:
Some of the issues are – the concept of private property rights in land, rigorous collection of land revenue, encroachment of tribal land by the non-tribal people, the interference of Christian missionaries in the socio-religious life of the local people.

Question 22.
What is the significance of the peasant rebellion that erupted in the first half of the nineteenth century India?
(OR)
What were the characteristics of the peasant uprisings that began except in India in the first half of the nineteenth century ?
Answer:
(i) The peasant uprisings clearly showed an awareness of the power structure in rural society and a strong will to restructure the authority.

(ii) The rebels were quite familiar with the political source of oppression and demonstrated in their actions against the Zamindar houses, grain stocks, the money lenders, and the merchants.

(iii) At times, the British state machinery, which came forward to protect these local agents of oppression, was also attacked.

Question 23.
Highlight the reasons that make the Great Rebellion of 1857 so significant.
(OR)
Why are the events of 1857- 58 significant?
Answer:
The event of 1857-58 is significant for the following reasons,

1. This was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellions.
2. The revolt witnessed the unprecedented violence, peipetrated by both sides.
3. The revolt brought an end to the East India Company and the governance of the Indian subcontinent was taken over by the British Crown.

Question 24.
Mention some of the key demands of the Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Here are some of the key demands made by the Indian National Congress:

1. Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level.
2. Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
3. Separating judicial and executive functions.
4. Reducing military expenditure.
5. Reduction of home charges.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Farazi – Movement

(a) When and by whom was Farazi movement launched?
Answer:
In 1818 Farazi movement was lunched by Shariatullah.

(b) What did he advocate?
Answer:
He advocated the participants to abstain from un islamic activities.

(c) What was the result of it?
Answer:
This resulted in conflict directly with zamindars and in turn with the British who favoured the zamindars.

(d) Who revived this movement in the 1870?
Answer:
This movement was revived by Noahmian in the 1870s.

Question 2.
Revolt at Kanpur.
(a) Who joined the rebels at Kanpur and with whom?
Answer:
Nana Saheb joined the rebels with his commander Tantia Tope.

(b) What happened to the English?
Answer:
The English surrendered to the rebel force. The English men, women and children were mercilessly massacred.

(c) Who defeated Nana Saheb?
Answer:
Sir Colin Campbell defeated Nana Saheb.

(d) When was Cawnpur brought under British control?
Answer:
Kanpur was brought under the control of the British by the middle November 1857.

Question 3.
State of indian After the Battle of Plassey

(a) What was the policy adopted by the British after Plassey battle?
Answer:
British adopted the policy of territorial expansion.

(b) Name the areas that have undergone changes?
Answer:
Army, police, judicial system, land revenue administration and other institutions of Governance had systematic changes.

(c) What was the early Indians response to?
Answer:
The early Indians response to Colonial exploitation, political and Economic Domination.

(d) What was the nature of the response?
Answer:
The response in the. late 18th and early 19th Century was restorative in nature.

Question 4.
Munda Rebellion.
(a) Mention two reasons that aggravated the miseries of Munda people.
Answer:

• The corrupt police
• Lack of access to justice and the disillusionment with Christian missionaries.

(b) Describe briefly the role of Birsa Munda in this rebellion.
Answer:
Birsa Munda gave an impetus to the movement by declaring himself as the messenger of God. He claimed that he had a prophecy and promised supernatural solution to the problem of Munda people. The Munda leaders utilised the cult of Birsa Munda to recruit more people to their cause. A serious of night meetings were held and subsequently a revolt was planned.

(c) When did the revolt take place? How can you say that it was a violent revolt?
Answer:
The revolt took place on the Christmas day in 1889. The rebels resorted to violence. They burnt down buildings and shot arrows at the Christian missionaries, and Munda Christian converts. They also made attacks on police stations and government officials.

(d) How was resistance crushed?
Answer:
Their resistance was crushed and Birsa Munda was arrested who later died in jail.

VIII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the four major trends discerned during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
Answer:
Boycott and Swadeshi were the part of the plan to make India self-sufficient. Four major trends can be discerned during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.

The Moderate Trend:

1. Had faith in British rule and their sense of justice and democratic practice.
2. The moderate leaders were not ready to wrest power from British in one single movement.
3. Boycott and Swadeshi Movement was of limited significance to them.

Constructive Swadeshi:

1. Focused on self-help through Swadeshi industries national schools arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the villages.
2. Rejected the self-defeating modest approach of moderates.
3. It remained non-political in nature.

Militiant Nationalism:

1. Focused more on a relentless boycott of foreign goods.
2. Had little patience for the non – political constructive programmes.
3. They ridiculed the idea of self-help.

Revolutionary terrorism:

1. A radical response to the British rule with violent methods.
2. It marked the shift from the mass – based movement to individual action.
3. British officials who were anti – Swadeshi or repressive towards native population were targeted.

Question 2.
Mention the results of the Great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. It put an end to the company’s rule in India in 1858. The administration of India was directly taken over by the British Crown.
2. By a special Act, both the Board of Control and the Court of Directors were abolished.
3. The office of the Secretary of State for India was created. He was assisted by an Indian council of 15 members.
4. The Governor General of India was designated as viceroy of India.
5. The policy of ruthless conquest in India was given up.
6. The Indian princess were given the right of adoption.

Social and religious changes:

1. Full religious freedom was guaranteed to Indians.
2. Indian were also given assurance that high posts would be given to them without any discrimination.

Military changes:

1. The Indian army was thoroughly re-organized.
2. The number of the European forces were increased.
3. The artillery was put under the charge of the British.

Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858:

1. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation was issued in 1858.
2. According to Queen Victoria’s Proclamation the English East India. The administration of India was taken over by the British Crown. The revolt paved the way for the rise of the national movement and it served as a source of inspiration in the later struggle for freedom.

Question 3.
What do you know about Militant Nationalism?
Answer:

1. The following three were the well known extremist leaders of the Indian National Congress. Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bala Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandrapal of Bengal during the period of Swadeshi Movement.
2. They were referred to as Lai – Bal – Pal Triumvirate.
3. Punjab, Bengal and Maharashtra emerged as the hotbed of militant nationalism during the Swadeshi Movement.
4. In south India Tuticorin became the most important location of Swadeshi activity.
5. V.O.Chidambaranar launched Swadeshi Navigation Company as a part of it.
6. One of the common goals of the extremist leaders was to achieve Swaraj or Self-rule.
7. Political murders and individual acts of terrorism were not approved by the Militant leaders.

Question 4.
Describe the circumstances that led to the Indigo Revolt in 1859.
Answer:
(i) Natural Indigo dye was highly valued by cloth makers around the World. Many Europeans sought to make their fortunes by becoming Indigo planters in India. They employed Indian peasants to grow the Indigo which was processed into dye at the planters factories. The dye was then exported to Europe.

(ii) The Indian peasants were not interested in growing Indigo. Instead they wanted to grow food crops. But they were forced to grow indigo. The British planters gave them cash advances to help pay for the rent of the land or other costs. These advances needed to be repaid with interest.

(iii) At the end of the season, the planters paid the cultivators low prices for their indigo. Moreover, the small amount they earned was not enough to pay back the cash advance with interest. So, they fell into debt.

(iv) The peasants would be forced to enter into another contract to grow indigo. And same thing would be repeated once again. Thus, the peasants were never able to clear their debts. Debts were often passed from father to son.
Finally, they revolted against the oppressive system in 1859 which came to be known as the Indigo Revolt. The peasants took a collective decision and refused to grow indigo. The movement quickly spread far and wide.

IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:
Year – Events
1855 – Birth of Indian National Congress
1856 – The General Services Enlistment Act
1857 – The Great Revolt
1858 – Queen Victoria’s Proclamation
1858 – Darbar at Allahabad
1858 – Vernacular Press Act
1905 – Partition of Bengal, Swadeshi Movement
1906 – Formation of the Muslim league
1907 – Surat Split
1909 – Minto – Morley Reforms Act

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The Aged Mother Textual Questions

A. Rearrange the sentences given below in the correct sequence.

1. The son made up his mind to take back his mother home.
2. A farmer decided to leave his old mother on top of a mountain.
3. The governor realized his mistake and abolished the law.
4. Once in Shining, a cruel ruler declared that all old people must be put to death.
5. Using the clever idea of his mother, the farmer made a rope of ashes.
6. When the farmer bade farewell, she advised him to return home with the aid of twigs.
7. Filled with dread, he hid his mother in his home.
8. The mother dropped the small twigs as markers on the way to help her son return.
Answer:
4,2,8,6,1, 7, 5,3
4. Once in Shining, a cruel ruler declared that all old people must be put to death.
2. A farmer decided to leave his old mother on top of a mountain.
8. The mother dropped the small twigs as markers on the way to help her son return.
6. When the farmer bade farewell, she advised him to return home with the aid of twigs.
1. The son made up his mind to take back his mother home.
7. Filled with dread, he hid his mother in his home.
5. Using the clever idea of his mother, the farmer made a rope of ashes.
3. The governor realized his mistake and abolished the law.

B. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

The Aged Mother 10th Supplementary Question 1.
What was the cruel announcement made by the leader?
Answer:
The cruel announcement was to put to death all the aged people.

The Aged Mother Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why was the farmer filled with sorrow?
Answer:
The farmer was filled with sorrow because he loved his mother very much. So he did not want her to die.

The Aged Mother Paragraph Question 3.
What were the things carried by the farmer to the summit of the mountain?
Answer:
He took a quantity of unwhitened rice. He cooked and dried it. He tied it in a square cloth and swung it in a bundle around his neck. He also took a gourd filled with cool sweet water.

The Aged Mother Summary Question 4.
Why did the mother become anxious as they climbed up the mountain?
Answer:
The mother became anxious as they climbed up the mountain because her son did not know the mountains many paths and his return might be one of the dangers.

The Aged Mother Question 5.
What did the mother drop along the way?
Answer:
She dropped a pile of twigs along the way.

The Aged Mother Pdf Question 6.
What was the advice given by his mother for the safe return of her son?
Answer:
She advised her son to look carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. It will guide him to the familiar path farther down.

The Aged Mother Summary In English Question 7.
Why did the farmer’s burden seem to be light on his way back home?
Answer:
The farmer’s burden seemed to be light on his way back because he was happy to take his mother back to his home.

The Aged Mother Answers Question 8.
Where did the farmer hide his mother?
Answer:
The farmer hid his mother in a walled closet beneath the kitchen floor.

The Aged Mother Questions Question 9.
How did the farmer make the rope of ashes? On whose suggestion did he do it?
Answer:
Using the clever idea of his mother, the farmer made a rope of ashes. He made this by making a rope of twisted straw and burning it on a windless night.

The Aged Mother Summary For Class 10 Question 10.
How did the Governor realize his mistake?
Answer:
The Governor was pleased at the wit of the youth. So he demanded to know where he had obtained his wisdom. The farmer related the true story to him. He listened and meditated in silence. He realized his mistake and abolished his cruel law.

C. Answer each of the following in a paragraph of 120 to 150 words.

The Story Of The Aged Mother Question 1.
Narrate the circumstances that led to the abandoning of the aged in Shining.
Answer:
The country Shining was governed by a cruel leader. He was a warrior. But he had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive of failing health and strength. This caused him to send out a cruel announcement. The entire province was given strict orders to immediately put to death all aged people. Those were harsh days and the custom of abandoning old people to die was common.

The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender respect. This order filled his heart with sorrow. But no one ever thought twice about it. So with many deep and hopeless sighs, the farmer prepared to give his mother the kindest mode of death. He decided to take her to the summit of the Obatsuyama mountain and leave her there.

Aged Mother Summary Question 2.
Describe the farmer’s painful journey up the mountain.
Answer:
Just at sunset, the farmer took a quantity of unwhitened rice. He cooked and dried it. He tied it in a square cloth, which he swung in a bundle around his neck along with a gourd filled with cool, sweet water. He lifted his helpless old mother to his back and started on his painful journey up the mountain. The road was long and steep. The narrow road was crossed and recrossed by many paths made by the hunters and woodcutters.

In someplace, he lost the path and was confused. But he gave no heed to it. He blindly went upward towards the high bare summit of what is known as Obatsuyama. His mother was anxious, as her son did not know the mountains many paths. His return might be one of the dangers.

So she dropped piles of twigs on their path up to the summit of the mountain. Weary and heartsick, the youth gently released his burden and silently prepared a place of comfort as his last duty to the loved one. This was the painful journey of the farmer.

Question 3.
‘The old are wise’. Prove this with reference to the story ‘The Aged Mother’.
Answer:
A cruel ruler of Shining in Japan proclaims an announcement that all old people should be put to death. A poor farmer s heart was filled with sorrow after hearing this, because he loved his mother very much. So he carried her to the top of the mountain with a lot of difficulties, as the path was confusing and dangerous. When he bid farewell to her, she advised him to follow the path where piles of twigs were dropped.

It would be easier for him to find his way. Her son’s heart broke at this attitude of his mother. He brought her back and hid her in a closet beneath the kitchen floor. His mother proved her wisdom, when the governor demanded a rope of ashes. She gave her son a clever idea to present a rope of ashes. The Governor was glad. He praised her sense of wisdom and abolished his cruel law.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Elucidate, ‘With the crown, there cometh wisdom’.
Answer:
In the saying “With the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom” – the crown of snow is pertaining to the elders. It underlines the importance of the elders in shaping our society. The word, “there cometh wisdom” explains that as we get old our everyday experiences make us to be intelligent.

Theoretical knowledge is always superficial. The impact is made only by experienced persons. The wisdom one gets from experience can never be compared to one who is learned theoretically. A person leams from Mistakes. Elders are generally optimistic and are ready to learn from their mistakes.

They also remember it for their lifetime and never repeat them. The elders who have faced different challenges in life and had survived them braving all storm serve as our guiding path because their varied experiences teach us to become wise. They are wise enough to know what is right from wrong.
‘There is a wisdom of the head and a wisdom of the heart.’

Question 2.
Explain the mother’s love with reference to the story, ‘The Aged Mother’.
Answer:
The story of the aged mother revolves around a situation, when the despotic ruler, a warrior proclaimed a decree ordering that all the aged people should be put to death. The story is about a mother’s love. Mother’s love cannot be compared for it is pure and unselfish. Most of all it serves as our courage, weakness and strength that guides us to walk through our journey called life.

It’s something that no one can explain because it is cultivated with deep devotion, sacrifice, understanding and pain. When the poor farmer decides to give his mother a kind mode of death, he silently takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there. On their way to the summit of the mountain, the heart of the loving mother grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because it’s an untrodden path.

The aged mother, due to her wisdom and experience breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey. She knows from the very start that she will be abandoned in the summit of the mountain but she also understands that it’s for her own good and her son’s. However, she maintains silence to avoid agonizing her son who was already distressed at his action because of her love for her child.

D. Identify the character/speaker.

1. He gave orders for the aged to be put to death.
Answer:
Despotic leader of Shining

2. He considered the order to be the kindest mode of death.
Answer:
The Governor who is the despotic leader

3. She quietly dropped some twigs on the way.
Answer:
The aged mother of the poor farmer

4. Let not thine eyes be blinded.
Answer:
The aged mother of the poor farmer

5. Together we will follow the path, together we will die.
Answer:
Poor farmer

6. I will think. I will think.
Answer:
Widowed mother

7. The truth must be told.
Answer:
Poor farmer

8. He listened and meditated in silence.
The Governor

9. Shining needs more than the strength of the youth.
Answer:
The Governor

10. With the crown of snow there cometh wisdom.
Answer:
The Governor

E. Choose the appropriate answer and fill in the blanks.

1. Shining was governed by a ………………. leader.
(a) strict
(b) kind
(c) cruel
(d) diplomatic.
Answer:
(c) cruel

2. The ………………. was the principal food for the poor.
(a) wheat
(b) brown rice
(c) unwhitened rice
(d) millet.
Answer:
(c) unwhitened rice

3. The road was crossed and re-crossed by many paths made by the ………………………. .
(a) hunters and woodcutters
(b) robbers and thieves
(c) vendors and tradesmen
(d) wildlife photographers and trekkers
Answer:
(a) hunters and woodcutters

4. Gathering ……………… he made a soft cushion and tenderly lifted his old mother onto it.
(a) dry leaves
(b) fallen pine
(c) broken twigs
(d) flowers
Answer:
(b) fallen pine

5. The governor demanded that his subjects should present him with a …………………. .
(a) basket of fruits
(b) rope of ashes
(c) flesh of animals
(d) bag of silverwares
Answer:
(b) rope of ashes

Additional:

A. Choose the Correct answer.

1. A poor farmer and his aged, widowed mother owned a bit of …………………. .
(a) cloth
(b) land
(c) woolen cloth
(d) iron
Answer:
(b) land

2. The country ……………… was governed by a despotic leader.
(a) Shillong
(b) Japan
(c) Shining
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(c) Shining

3. The province was given strict orders to put to death all …………………. people.
(a) aged
(b) destitute
(c) handicapped
(d) sickly
Answer:
(a) aged

4. The order filled the poor man’s heart with ……………….. .
(a) joy
(b) happiness
(c) sorrow
(d) anxiety
Answer:
(c) sorrow

5. ………………….. was the principal food for the poor.
(a) unbeaten rice
(b) sifted flour
(c) wheat
(d) unwhitened rice
Answer:
(d) unwhitened rice

6. The poor farmer dried and cooked the rice and tied it in a ………………. cloth.
(a) triangular
(b) square
(c) wet
(d) parched dry
Answer:
(b) square

7. He took cool sweet water in a ……………………….. .
(a) bottle
(b) jar
(c) pot
(d) gourd
Answer:
(d) gourd

8. The high bare summit, is ………………… .
(a) Obayama
(b) Otsuyama
(c) Obatsuyama
(d) Obsuyata
Answer:
(c) Obatsuyama

9. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled ……………….. for food.
(a) closet
(b) clarinet
(c) open space
(d) cabinet
Answer:
(a) closet

10. Stretch the twisted straw upon a row of flat stones and bum it on a ……………………. night.
(a) windy
(b) windless
(c) breezy
(d) stormy
Answer:
(b) windless

B. Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.

1. a. It describes the love and affection a son and his mother have for one another.
b. Strict orders were given in the province to put to death all aged people at once.
c. The custom of abandoning old people to die was not uncommon, then.
d. ‘The Story of the Aged Mother’. By Matsuo Baasho is a Japanese folklore.
e. The country Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
Answers:
d, a, e, b, c
d. ‘The Story of the Aged Mother’, by Matsuo Baasho is a Japanese folklore.
a. It describes the love and affection a son and his mother have for one another.
e. The country Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
b. Strict orders were given in the province to put to death all aged people at once.
c. The custom of abandoning old people to die was not uncommon, then.

2. a. Then he lifted his helpless old mother to his back and started on his painful journey up the mountain.
b. The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence.
c. So with hopeless sighs, the youth prepared for the kindest mode of death.
d. But no one ever thought twice about obeying the mandate of the governor.
e. At sundown, he took some cooked food with some sweet water.
Answers:
b, d, c, e, a
b. The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence.
d. But no one ever thought twice about obeying the mandate of the governor.
c. So with hopeless sighs, the youth prepared for the kindest mode of death.
e. At sundown, he took some cooked food with some sweet water.
a. Then he lifted his helpless old mother to his back and started on his painful journey up the mountain.

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrases given below to form a complete meaningful paragraph.

1. (of abandoning old people to die / to send out / of failing health and strength / all aged people / was governed by a despotic leader)

The country Shining (i) …………………. who though a warrior, had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive (ii) …………………. This caused him (iii) …………………. a cruel proclamation. The entire province was given strict orders to immediately put to death (iv) ……………….Those were barbarous days, and the custom (v) …………………. was not uncommon.
Answers:
(i) was governed by a despotic leader
(ii) of failing health and strength
(iii) to send out
(iv) all aged people
(v)of abandoning old people to die

2. (with a rope of ashes / Time passed / sent forth heralds / hid his mother /as a boast of his power)

There the son (i) ………………………., supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered, (ii) ……………………., and he was beginning to feel safe when again the governor (iii) ……………….. bearing an unreasonable order, seemingly (iv) ……………….His demand was that his subjects should present him (v) ………………………… .
Answers:
(i) hid his mother
(ii) Time passed
(iii) sent forth heralds

C. Match the following appropriately:
1.

Answers:
(i)(b), (ii)(d), (iii)(e), (iv)(c), (v)(a).

2.

Answers:
(i)(d), (ii)(e), (iii)(b), (iv)(c), (v)(a).

D. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Long, long ago there lived at the foot of the mountain a poor farmer and his aged, widowed mother. They owned a bit of land which supplied them with food, and they were humble, peaceful, and happy.The country Shining was governed by a despotic leader who though a warrior, had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive of failing health and strength. This caused him to send out a cruel proclamation. The entire province was given strict orders to immediately put to death all aged people.

Those were barbarous days, and the custom of abandoning old people to die was not uncommon. The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence, and the order filled his heart with sorrow. But no one ever thought twice about obeying the mandate of the governor, so with many deep and hopeless sighs, the youth prepared for what at that time was considered the kindest mode of death.

(a) What do you know of the poor farmer and his aged mother?
Answer:
The poor farmer and his aged mother lived in their small bit of land at the foothills which supplied them with food. They were humble, peaceful and happy.

(b) Who ruled the country Shining?
Answer:
The Country Shining was ruled by a despotic leader who was a warrior himself.

(c) What was the despotic leader’s order to the entire province?
Answer:
The despotic leader ordered that all aged people who were failing in health and strength be put
to death immediately.

(d) Pick out the adjective that described the kind of days the people lived in at Shining.
Answer:
The adjective used to describe was ‘barbarous’.

(e) How did the poor farmer react in response to the order?
Answer:
The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence, and the order filled his heart with sorrow. With many deep and hopeless sighs, the youth prepared for the kindest mode of death.

2. Just at sundown, when his day’s work was ended, he took a quantity of unwhitened rice which was the principal food for the poor, and he cooked, dried it, and tied it in a square cloth, which he swung in a bundle around his neck along with a gourd filled with cool, sweet water. Then he lifted his helpless old mother to his back and started on his painful journey up the mountain.

The road was long and steep; the narrow road was crossed and re-crossed by many paths made by the hunters and woodcutters. In someplace, they were lost and confused, but he gave no heed. One path or another, it mattered not. On he went, climbing blindly upward – ever upward towards the high bare summit of what is known as Obatsuyama, the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

(a) What did the poor farmer do at the end of his work before taking his mother to the summit?
Answer:
The poor farmer took a quantity of unwhitened rice which was the principal food for the poor. He cooked it, dried it and tied it in a square cloth, which he swung in a bundle around his neck along with a gourd filled with cool, sweet water.

(b) Why was the journey painful?
Answer:
The journey up the mountain was painful because he was very grieved when he lifted his helpless old mother to his back.

(c) How was the road up the mountain?
Answer:
The road up the mountain was long and steep. It was crossed and recrossed by many paths made by the hunters and woodcutters.

(d) How do you know that he was focused on his journey?
Answer:
There were times, when they were lost and confused but he did not bother about anything and walked continuously up the summit.

(e) Why did the poor farmer choose Obatsuyama?
Answer:
The poor farmer chose Obatsuyama because it was the mountain of the ‘Abandoning the Aged’.

The Aged Mother by Matsuo Basho About the Author:

Matsuo Basho was born in 1644 in Iga Provence and died on 28th November, 1694 in Osaka, Japan. Matsuo Basho’s poetry is internationally renowned; and, in Japan, many of his poems are reproduced on monuments and traditional sites. Basho was introduced to poetry at a ‘young age, and after integrating himself into the intellectual scene of Edo which is modem Tokyo, he quickly became well known throughout Japan. He made a living as a teacher; but then renounced the social, urban life of the literary circles and was inclined to wander throughout the country, heading west, east, and far into the northern wilderness to gain inspiration for his writing.

The Aged Mother Summary:

Introduction:
Author Matsuo Basho expresses the love the mother shows on his son and the way he reciprocates it. The story is a drama of how the son fights to thwart the cruel fate that fell upon his mother and the wittiness of his mother that helped save her from the ill fate of all old mothers.

King’s decree:
“The Story of the Aged Mother”, by Matsuo Basho is a story in which a son and his mother’s pain in their battle against the decree of putting aged people to death is portrayed. The story happened at the foot of the mountain where a poor farmer lived in a country called Shining with his aged mother whom he loved. Their place was governed by a tyrannical leader who sent the announcement of killing all aged people which was not common then.

Son set to abandon mother:
When the poor farmer heard the decree he felt sorrow in his heart for his aged mother. Just as his labour ended, he prepared food from a portion of unwhitened rice, covered it in a square cloth and knotted it in his neck along with a gourd filled with cool, sweet water. He then carried his mother on his back and started walking towards the summit of Obatsayuma, the mountain of the“abandoning of aged”.

Mother’s anxiety:
On their way to the top, the helpless mother noticed the perilous path and thought that her son didn’t know the paths and might pass through danger. So she reached for twigs, snapped them to pieces and quietly dropped them until they reached the summit. The poor farmer freed his mother and made a comfortable cushion with pine needles and bid farewell.

Motherly love
Before he left her, she told him about the trail she made with the piles of twigs. His mother’s words clearly portrayed the unconditional love that the mother had for her son, an unselfish love that thumped the heart of the poor child and made him cry.

Son faces the verdict
Now, the farmer realized that they need to face the verdict together. So, he again carried his mother on his back and started to walk back to their humble hut in the valley.
He hid his mother on a walled closet used for food beneath the kitchen. Time passed and they both felt secure and safe until one day the despotic leader demanded the people of the valley to present him with a rope of ashes.

Farmer seeks mother’s wisdom:
The poor farmer was dumbstruck and informed his mother. His mother thought for a while and came upon a wise idea. She told him to make a rope of twisted straw, stretched upon a row of flat stones and bum it on a windless night. The tyrant was pleased of what he had witnessed and asked the poor farmer about his knowledge.

Poor farmer comes out with the truth:
The poor farmer told him the truth and stated everything he had done. The tormentor listened and meditated in silence. On hearing the story, he decided to abolish the harsh law and saw the presence of elders to shape the society. Now the despotic leader acknowledged that with the crown of snow, there cometh wisdom.

Conclusion:
It was a happy ending that has a moral code that a son should never let go of his mother whatsoever the situation may be. The king realised his mistakes and the worth of wise elders. Due to the wisdom of the mother, all the elders were saved.

The Aged Mother Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

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Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Social And Religious Reform Movements 10th Class Question 1.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1927
Answer:
(b) 1829

Social And Religious Reform Movements In The 19th Century Book Back Answers Question 2.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

10th Social History 5th Lesson Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Social And Religious Reform Movements 10th Class Question Answer Question 4.
Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Social And Religious Reform Movements 10th Class Notes Question 5.
Who was the founder of Namdhari Movement?
(a) Baba Dayal Das
(b) Baba Ramsingh
(c) Gurunanak
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(b) Baba Ramsingh

Question 6.
Who was Swami 5hradhananda?
(a) a disciple of Swami Vivekananda
(b) one who caused a split in the Brahmo Samaj of India
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj
(d) founder of Samathuva Samajam.
Answer:
(c) one who caused a split in the Arya Samaj

Question 7.
Who was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association?
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Devendranath Tagore
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Ayyankali
Answer:
(a) M.G. Ranade

Question 8.
Who was the author of the book Satyarthaprakash?
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Vaikunda Swamy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Swami Shradanatha
Answer:
(a) Dayananda Saraswathi

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……… founded the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam.
2. The founder of Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was ………
3. Satyashodak Samaj was launched by ………
4. Gulumgir was written by ………
5. Satyarthaprakash enumerates the positive principles of ………
6. Ramakrishna Mission was established by ………
7. ……… was the forerunner of Akali Movement.
8. ……… brought tremendous changes in the caste structure in Kerala.
9. Oru paisa Tamilan was started by ………
Answers:
1. Ramalinga Swamigal
2. M.G. Ranade
3. Jyotiba Phule
4. Jyotiba Phule
5. conduct
6. Swami Vivekanand
7. Singh Sabha
8. Narayan Guru
9. Iyothee Thassar

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Raja Rammohan Roy preached monotheism
(ii) He encouraged idolatry
(iii) He published tracts condemning social evils
(iv) Raja Rammohan Roy was supported by Governor General William Bentinck
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Prarthana Samaj was founded by Dr. Atma Ram Pandurang.
(ii) Prarthana Samaj encouraged interdining and inter-caste marriage.
(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of men.
(iv) Prarthana Samaj had it’s origin in the Punjab.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Ramakrishna Mission was actively involved in social causes such as education, health care, relief in time of calamities.
(ii) Ramakrishna emphasised the spiritual union with god through ecstatic practices.
(iii) Ramakrishna established the Ramakrishna Mission
(iv) Ramakrishna opposed the Partition of Bengal
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct (d)
(iv) alone correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Jyotiba Phule opened orphanages and homes for widows
Reason (R): Jyotiba Phule opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage
(a) Assertion is correct but reason is not apt to the assertion
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion
(c) Both are wrong
(d) Reason is correct but assertion is irrelevant
Answer:
(b) Assertion is correct and the reason is apt to the assertion

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Mention the four articles of faith laid down by Maharishi Debendranath Tagore?
Answer:
He laid down four articles of faith.

1. In the beginning there was nothing. The one Supreme Being alone existed who created the universe.
2. He alone is the God of Truth, Infinite wisdom, Goodness and power, eternal, omnipresent.
3. Our Salvation depends on belief in Him and in His worship in this world.
4. Belief consists in loving Him and doing His will.

Question 2.
Discuss Mahadev Govind Ranade’s contribution to social reforms.
Answer:
Mahadev Govind Ranade was a great social reformer. He advocated for inter-caste dining, inter-caste marriage, widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes. He founded the Widow Marriage Association, the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha and Decean Education society.

Question 3.
Assess the role of Ayyankali in fighting for the cause of “untouchables.”
Answer:
Ayyankali, as a child faced the problems that made him turn into a leader of an anti-caste movement. He fought for the basic rights including access to public spaces and entry to schools. He wore clothes associated with upper castes and rode an ox-cart which was a ban for untouchables on public roads.

Question 4.
Write a note on reforms of Ramalinga Adigal.
Answer:
Ramalinga swamigal emphasised the bonds of responsibility and compassion between living beings. He empressed the view that those who lack compassion for suffering beings are hard hearted, their wisdom clonded. He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants. He established the Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam in 1865 and it was renamed in 1872 as ‘Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam’ which means ‘Society for pure truth in universal self-hood’. Ramalinga also estabilished a free feeding house for everyone.

Question 5.
What was the impact of Swami Vivekananda’s activist ideology?
Answer:
Vivekananda’s activist ideology breed a sense of confidence among Indians. It kindled the desire for political change among many western-education young Bengal. He advocated that service to humanity is service to God. His ideology allowed the lower caste Hindus to be allowed in the Hindu rituals.

Question 6.
What are the differences between Reformist Movements and Revival Movements?
Answer:
While the reformist movements strived to change the fundamental system and structures of the society, through gradual changes within the existing institutions; revivalist movements tended to revive formers customs or practices and thus take the society back to the glorious past.

Question 7.
List the social evils eradicated by Brahmo Samaj.
Answer:

1. Abolition of Sati in 1829, Child marriage and Polygamy.
2. Advocated Education for women, western science in schools and colleges.

Question 8.
Highlight the work done by Jyotiba Phule for the welfare of the poor and the marginalized.
Answer:
Jyotiba Phule worked for the upliftment of depressed classes and the causes of women. He opened orphanges and homes for widows. He opened the first school for ‘untouchable’ in 1852 in Poona. He launched the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seekers Society) in 1870 to stir the non-Brahman masses to self-respect and ambition. He supported widow remarriage, which was prohibited particularly among high-caste Hindus. His work, Gulamgiri (slavery) is an important work that condemned the inequlities of caste.

Question 9.
What was the impact of lyotheeThassar’s visit to SriLanka.
Answer:
He converted himself to Buddhism. He founded the Sakya Buddhist society at Madras. He believed that the revival of Buddhism could liberate the people from the evil of caste that afflicted the Hindu society. He called the ‘Untouchables, Sathi Petham Atra Dravidar and urged them to register as castelss Dravidians.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Aligarh Movement

(i) What is the main aim of this Movement?
Answer:
The main aim of the Aligarh Movement was to persuade the Muslims to acquire modem knowledge and English language.

(ii) Who is considered the soul of this Movement?
Answer:
Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of the Aligarh Movement.

(iii)Why were English books translated into Urudu?
Answer:
Many English Books were translated into Urdu in order to enable the Muslims to accept the western science and take up government services.

(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
Aligarh Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.

Question 2.
Ramalinga Adigal

(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
Answer:
Ramalinga Adigal showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants . This he called as Jeevakarunya.

(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
Answer:
His voluminous songs were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarutpa which are called Songs of Grace.

(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam?
Answer:
The Major contribution of Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam were to establish free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867.

(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
The free feeding house is at Vadalur, established in 1867.

Question 3.
Deoband Movement

(a) Who were the organizers of this Movement?
Answer:
The Deoband Movement was organised be the orthodox Muslim Ulemas.

(b) What were the two main objectives of the Movement?
Answer:
The two main objectives of this Movement were:

• to propagate the pure teachings of the Quran and the Hadith
• to encourage the spirit of Jihad against the foreign and un-Ismalic elements

(c) Who founded the school at Deoband?
Answer:
The Ulemas under the leadership of Muhammad Qusim Wanoutavi and Rashed Ahmad Gangohi founded the school at Deoband in the Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh in 1866.

(d) Against whom the fatwa was issued by Deoband Ulema?
Answer:
In 1888 Deoband Ulemas issued the fatwa (a religious decree) against Syed Ahmed Khan’s Orgnisation called ‘The United Patriotic Association’ and ‘The Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental Association.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the contributions of Revivalist Movements with that of Reform Movements.
Answer:

1. Reform Movements were the Brahmo Samaj, the Prarthana Samaj and the Aligarh movement.
2. Revival movements were the Arya Samaj, the Ramakrishna mission, Deoband Movement.
3. To compare, both the reform and revival movements were in some way or other attack the social evils that prevailed in the society like sati, female infanticide, child marriages and various superstitious beliefs and complex rituals.
4. The reform movements strived to change the fundamental system and structure of the society, while the reformist movements strived to revive the earlier customs and practices, protecting the cultural heritage of the country.
5. Revival movements proved that the rich cultural heritage of India was found superior to the Western culture. That’s why, Arya Samaj advocated ‘Go back to the Vedas’.
6. The Reform movement responded to the changes in the time period and scientific thinking of the modem era.
7. For example, Brahmo Samaj, considers other religions such as Christianity, Islam as equal to Hinduism.
8. Arya Samaj believes in the superiority of Hinduism.
9. The Reform movements were influenced by the Western culture, whereas the Revival movements were influenced by Indian culture only.

Question 2.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:

1. The nineteenth century India was plagued with a number of social evils such as sati, child marriage, female infanticide, polygamy and so on.
2. Women were subjugated by men and were not allowed to get education. They were restricted to home and hearth. They were considered inferior to men.
3. The condition of the depressed classes was miserable. They were subject to untouchable. Their entry to schools, temples and other public places, meant for upper castes, was banned. Hence, there was no education among the people belonging to lower castes.
4. There were other evil practices prevalent in the Indian society such as excessive superstitious religious beliefs, animal sacrifice, which needed attention of the social reformers for the benefit of the common people of the society.
5. There was total absence of reason in the society. The system of child marriage was prevalent which resulted to child widows. These widows were never accepted in the family and were destined to lead a pathetic life. These were the circumstances that led to the Reform movements in the nineteenth century.

Question 3.
Evaluate the contributions of Ramakrishna Paramahamsa and Swami
Answer:
Vivekananda to regenerate Indian society.

1. Ramakrishna Paramahamsa was a simple priest of Kolkata gained popularity by emphasising the spiritual union with God by singing bhajans.
2. He declared that the manifestations of the divine mother were infinite and said ‘Jiva is Siva’ which means all living beings are God.
3. He insisted on not mercy, rather service. Service for Man as regarded as Service to God.
4. After his death in 1886, his disciples, especially Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission, which undertook not only religious activities but also social causes.
5. Education, Health Care, Relief in times of calamities were the main social works of the mission.
6. Vivekananda emphasised a cultural nationalism and made a call to Indian youth to regenerate Hindu society.
7. His ideas gave a sense of self-confidence among Indians who felt inferior in relation to the materialistic achievements of the west.
8. He suggested the orthodox Hindus that the lower castes should be allowed to engaged in the Hindu rituals from which they were excluded.
9. Vivekananda’s activist ideology rekindled the desire for political change among many Western education young Bengalis.
10. His ideas were inspiring to many of the militant nationalist before Indian independence and even for today’s people.

Question 4.
Write an essay on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the cause of Women.
Answer:
Several social reformers emerged during the 19th century India who played a big role towards the cause of women:

(i) Raja Rammohun Roy was deeply concerned with the prevanting customs of sati, child marriage and polygamy. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry. He wanted – polygamy to end. He raised voice against sati system and forced the Governor-General William Bentinck to abolish this social evil in 1829. He condemned the subjugation of women and opposed the prevailing ideas that women were inferior to men. He strongly advocated education for women.

(ii) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was lead against the burning of widows. He supported the idea of widow remarriage. He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting up a number of schools. He dedicated his entire life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society. He led a movement that resulted in the widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856.

(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the cause of women. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage, which was prohibited particularly their lives for the uplift of the depressed classes and women. Jyotiba opened orphanages and homes for widows.

(iv) Swami Dayanand Saraswati said that the prohibition of widow remarriage had no scriptural sanction.

(v) Reformers like R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade devoted themselves to activities such as widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes. M.G. Ranade founded the widow Remarriage Association in 1861.

Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The pioneer of the reform movements was
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Keshab ChandraSen
(c) Devendranath Tagore
Answer:
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy

Question 2.
……………… dedicated his whole life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu Society.
(a) M.G. Ranade
(b) Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar
(c) Atma Ram Pandurang
(d) Ramakrishna
Answer:
(b) Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar

Question 3.
Swami Dayananda Saraswathi started the
(a) Brahmo Samaj
(b) Arya Samaj
(c) Prarthana Samaj
Answer:
(b) Arya Samaj

Question 4.
The first age of consent Act was passed in the year ………………
(a) 1830
(b) 1840
(c) 1850
(d) 1860
Answer:
(d) 1860

Question 5.
Vallalar’s devotional songs are compiled in a volume called
(a) Devaram
(b) Ettuthogai
(c) Thiru Arutpa
Answer:
(c) Thiru Arutpa

Question 6.
……………… wrote the book Satyarthaprakash.
(a) Shraddhananda
(b) Dayananda Saraswathi
(c) Jyotiba Phule
(d) Narayana Guru
Answer:
(b) Dayananda Saraswathi

Question 7.
Sir Syed Ahamed Khan started a school at
(a) Alipore
(b) Allepey
(c) Ghazipur
Answer:
(c) Ghazipur

Question 8.
Inspired by Sree Narayan Guru, ……………… founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam.
(a) Deoband
(b) Ayyankali
(c) Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(d) Ramalinga Adigal
Answer:
(b) Ayyankali

Question 9.
“Go back to Vedas” was said by
(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswathi
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Swami Vivekananda
Answer:
(a) Swami Dayananda Saraswathi

Question 10.
Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as ………………
(a) Nirankar
(b) Vallalar
(c) Vaikunda Swami
(d) Iyothee Thassar
Answer:
(b) Vallalar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ……… was the pioneer of reform movements.
2. Raja Rammohan Roy was called the ……… India.
3. Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay in 1867 by ………
4. Swami Dayananda Saraswathi founded the ……… in 1875.
5. ……… was founded by Madame Blavatsky and Henry S Olcott.
6. Annie Besant started the ……… movement.
7. ……… was founded by Swami Vivekananda.
8. Samarasa Sudha Sanmarka Sangam was started by ………
9. ……… was started by Sir Syed Ahamed Khan.
10. Jyotiba Phule formed the ………
11. The Hindus who had been converted to other religions were reconverted by ………
12. Theosophy means ………
13. Home Rule movement was started by ………
14. The childhood name of Swami Vivekananda was ………
15. Sathya Gnana Sabai was established by ………
16. “The Hindus and Muslims are the two eyes of the beautiful bird that was India” was said by ………
17. “Satya Shodhak Samaj” was formed by ………
Answers:
1. Raja Rammohan Roy
2. Herald of New Age
3. Dr. Atmaram Pandurang
4. Arya Saniaj
5. The Theosophical Society
6. Home Rule
7. The Ramakrishna Mission
8. Ramalinga Adigal
9. The Aligarh movement
10. Satya Shodhak Samaj
11. Suddhi movement
12. Wisdom of God
13. Annie Besant
14. Narendranath Dutta
15. ValIalar
16. Syed Ahamed Khan
17. Jyotiba Phule

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
Write a note on the Age of Consent Act.
Answer:
The Age of Consent Act was enacted by the efforts of the reformer Vidyasagar in 1860. Initially it was fixed for ten years. Later it was raised to twelve years in 1891 and thirteen years in 1925.

Question 2.
Name the services rendered by the Arya Samaj.
Answer:

1. Arya Samaj opposed Child marriage, Polygamy, Purdha System, Casteism and Sati.
2. It advocated women education, inter-caste marriage and inter-dining.
3. It insisted on education of the women and upliftment of the depressed classes.
4. The Samaj started a number of schools all over the country to impart English and Vedic education. These schools are called Dayananda Anglo-Vedic schools and colleges.

Question 3.
Who opposed Arya Samaj for its doctrinal purity?
Answer:
Swami Shraddhananda opposed Arya Samaj for its doctrinal purity. He was the opinion that the group running the DAV schools are too westernised and thereby ignore founder’s ideology. Therefore he started own network of schools, Gurukulas, emphasising the study of vedas.

Question 4.
What are the teachings of Vallalar?
Answer:

1. Vallalar condemned the inequalities based on birth.
2. He advocated that feeding the poor is the highest form of worship.
3. He insisted compassion and mercy on all living things.
4. According to Vallalar “Service to mankind is the path of Moksha”
5. God is the personification of mercy and knowledge.
6. The path of compassion and mercy are the only way to reach God.

Question 5.
What are the Islamic Reform movements originated in India and what do they mainly focus on?
Answer:
Scientific society founded of Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan was his first initiative. Later he founded the Aligarh Movement emphasising education and started Aligarh University. Deoband movement organised by The orthodox Muslim Ulema to spread the spirit of Muslims against un-islamic elements.

Question 6.
Name the followers of Swami Dayananda Saraswathi.
Answer:

1. Lala Lajpat Rai
2. Lala Hansraj
3. Pandit Guru Dutt
4. Bala Gangathara Tilak
5. Gopala Krishna Gokhale

Question 7.
Who started the Sadharan Samaj? Why?
Answer:
In 1866, Keshab Chandra Sen left the Brahmo Samaj and founded a new organisation called as Debendranath’s organisation. Later it was called as Adi Brahmo Samaj. When Keshab’s 14 yrs old daughter married to an Indian prince, the opponents of child marriage left Brahmo Samaj and started the SadharanSamaj.

Question 8.
Write a note on Keshab Chandra Sen.
Answer:

1. He was one of the followers of Raja Rammohan Roy.
2. After the death of Raja Rammohan Roy, the works of the Brahmo Samaj were carried on by Keshab Chandra Sen.
3. Because of his efforts, an act was passed in 1872. It abolished polygamy and child marriage.

Question 9.
What are the Social reforms of Jyotiba Phule?
Answer:

1. He revolted against the domination of the Brahmins.
2. He worked for the rights of the peasants and other low caste people.
3. He formed the “Satya Shadhak Samaj” in 1873, to liberate the people of lower caste from the suppression by Brahmins.
4. He started Orphanage for the unfortunate children.
5. He decided to construct a common bathing tank outside his house for the people of lower caste people.

Question 10.
Write a short note about ‘Sree Narayana Guru’.
Answer:

1. He was a great social reformer from Kerala.
2. He started ‘Sree Narayana Guru Dharma Paripalana Yogam’ in 1903.
3. It worked for the social economic and educational development of the Ezhava community and other backward people.
4. He condemned animal sacrifices, casteism and other social evils.

Question 11.
What is called ‘Jeeva Karunya’?
Answer:

1. St. Ramalinga had the view that love is the “Master key to Spirituality”.
2. He showed compassion and mercy not only on human beings, but also on plants, insects, birds and animals. This is called ‘Jeeva Karunya’.

V. Answer all the questions given under each Captions:

Question 1.
Brahmo Samaj

(a) When was it founded? Who was its founder?
Answer:
Brahmo Samaj was founded in 1828 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.

(b) What was the important Legislation passed due to the efforts of. its founder?
Answer:
Abolition of Sati in 1829 was the important Legislation passed due to the efforts of its founder.

(c) What does the Samaj forbade?
Answer:
The Samaj forbade idol-worship and condemned meaning less religious rituals an ceremonies.

(d) Whow took over the Samaj leadership after the death of its founder?
Answer:
Maharishi Debendranath Tagore, carried on the work of the founder after his death in 1833.

Question 2.
Arya Samaj

(a) What was the original name of Swamy Dayananda Saraswathi?
Answer:
Mul Shankar

(b) Who was his guru”?
Answer:
Swamy Viijanand was his guru.

(c) What was his motto?
Answer:
His motto was “Go back to Vedas”.

(d) What did the Samaj advocate?
Answer:
The samaj advocated women education, inter-caste marriage and inter-dining.

Question 3.
Social Reform Movements in Kerala and Tamil nadu

(a) Name few Social Reformers from Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Sri Narayana Guru and Ayyarkali from Kerala and Ramalinga Adigal, Vaikunta Swamigal from Tamil Nadu.

(b) How was Vaikundar called by his followers. What was his cult called as?
Answer:
His followers called him respectfully as Ayya (father) and his cult was known as Ayya vazhi (The path of Ayya).

(c) What happened to the voluminous songs composed by Ramalinga Adigal?
Answer:
His voluminous songs were compiled and published under the title Thiruvarutpa (songs of Grace).

(d) Name the Association founded by Ayyankali inspired by Sree Narayana Guru?
Answer:
Ayyankali founded the Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangam (Association for the protection of the poor) in 1907, inspired by Sree Narayana Guru.

Question 4.
Aligarh Movement

(a) Name the first religious movement of the Muslims.
Answer:
Aligarh Movement was the first religious movement of the Muslims.

(b) What did Sir Syed Ahmed Khan strongly believe?
Answer:
He strongly believed in the Hindu-Muslim unity.

(c) What was his greatest achievement?
Answer:
His greatest achievement was the establishment of the Mohammaden Anglo Oriental College at Aligarh in 1875.

(d) Name the newspaper published by him.
Answer:
Tahzil-ud-Akhlaq

VI. Answer the following questions in detail:

Question 1.
Write about Brahmo Samaj.

(a) The Foundation of the Brahmo Samaj:
Answer:

1. Raja Rammohan Roy founded “Atmiya Saba” in 1815.
2. Later it developed into “Brahmo Samaj” in 1828.

(b) Aim of the Brahmo Samaj:
Answer:
To cure Hindu society and religion from all its evils and set it on right footing.

(c) Principle of the Brahmo Samaj:
Answer:
The Brahmo Samaj believed in a ‘Universal religion’ based on the principles of one Supreme God.

(d) Services of the Brahmo Samaj:
Answer:

1. The samaj condemned idol worship, costly rites and rituals, cartle distinctions, untouchability and the practice of Sati.
2. Because of Raja Rammohan Roy’s hard work, William Bentinck passed Sati prohibition Act in 1829.
3. The samaj also fought against polygamy and child marriage and supported inter-caste marriage and widow remarriage.
4. It tried to obtain a respectable position for women in the Indian Society.
5. It encouraged the study of English language and the western science in India. By western studies superstitions and blind faiths were removed from India. After the death of Raja Rammohan Roy, the works of the samaj was carried on by great men like Keshab Chandra Sen and Devendranath Tagore.

Question 2.
Write a note on Social Reformers of Tamil Nadu in the 19th century.
Answer:
Ramalinga Swamigal: Ramalinga Adigal was popularly known as Vallalar. He showed his compassion and mercy on all living beings including plants. This he called as Jeevakarunya. He established Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sangam in 1865. He also established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur in 1867. He wrote many songs which were compiled in the name of Thiruvarutpa.

Vaikunda Swamigal: His original name was Mudichudum Perumal which changed as Muthukutty because of the objection by upper class. He calls himself Vaikuntar. He preached the idea of equality and condemned the ’ worship of idols. He was against animal sacrifice in the name of religion. He was against caste differences and wanted social integration of the society.

Iyothee Thassaar: Iyothee Thassar was scholar , writer ,siddha medicine practitioner and also journalist and political activist. He campaigned for the social justice and worked for building up a casteless society and removal of untouchability. He established several schools for untouchables in Tamil Nadu. He published a weekly ‘Oru Paisa Tamilan’ in 1907 and it lasted till 1914. He worked also for the revival of Buddhism.

Question 3.
“Ramalinga Adigal played a prominent role in the social and Religious Reform Movements” – Explain it.
Answer:

1. St. Ramalinga tried his best to find solution to the social evils by inculcating spiritual awareness.
2. St. Ramalinga led to unity and solidarity of the Tamils.
3. He favoured the creation of a casteless society to be guided by God.
4. He believed God to be in the form of “Arul Perum Jothi”.
5. Ramalinga Adigal believed that hunger and poverty are the evils of the society.
6. He advocated that feeding the poor is the highest form of worship.
7. Ramalinga Adigal condemned the inequalities based on birth and promoted universal love and brother-hood.
8. As a result, he founded Sathya Dharma Sala at Vadalur for feeding the poor. It provides food to everyone irrespective of caste and creed throughout the year.
9. He showed compassion and mercy not only on human beings, but also on plants, insects, birds and animals. This is called “Jeeva Karunya”.
10. He opposed superstitious beliefs and rituals.
11. He emphasized on being vegetarian.
12. He forbade the killing of animals for the sake of food.
13. In 1870, he established Sathya Gnana Sabai.
14. His devotional songs are compiled in a volume called “Thiru Arutpa”.

Important years and events:

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 5 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 5 Social and Religious Reform Movements in the 19th Century Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 10 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 10 Types of Chemical Reactions solutions of Class 10th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Textual Problems Solved

Chemical Reactions Questions And Answers Pdf Question 1.
Calculate the pH of 0.01 M HNO₃?
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 2.
The hydroxyl ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-9 M. What is the pOH of the solution?
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
A solution has a pOH of 11.76. What is the pH of this solution?
Solution:
pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 11.76 = 2.24.

10th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Calculate the pH of 0.001 molar solution of HCl.
Solution:
HCl is a strong acid and is completely dissociated in its solutions according to the process:
\(\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{Cl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
From this process it is clear that one mole of HCl would give one mole of H⁺ ions.
Therefore, the concentration of H⁺ ions would be equal to that of HCl, i.e., 0.001 molar or 1.0 × 10^-3 mol litre^-1.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Question 5.
What would be the pH of an aqueous solution of sulphuric acid which is 5 × 10^-5 mol litre^-1 in concentration?
Solution:
Sulphuric acid dissociates in water as:
\(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{SO}_{4(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{SO}_{4}^{2-}(\mathrm{aq})\)
Each mole of sulphuric acid gives two moles of H⁺ ions in the solution. One litre of H₂SO₄ solution contains 5 × 10^-5 moles of H₂SO₄ which would give 2 × 5 × 10^-5 = 10 × 10^-5 or 1.0 × 10^-4 moles of H⁺ ion in one litre of the solution.
Therefore,

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 6.
Calculate the pH of 1 × 10^-4 molar solution of NaOH.
Solution:
NaOH is a strong base and dissociates in its solution as:
\(\mathrm{NaOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{+}+\mathrm{OH}_{(\mathrm{aq})}^{-}\)
One mole of NaOH would give one mole of OH^– ions.
Therefore,

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Calculate the pH of a solution in which the concentration of the hydrogen ions is 1.0 × 10^-8 mol litre^-1.
Solution:
Here, although the solution is extremely dilute, the concentration given is not of an acid or a base but that of H⁺ ions. Hence, the pH can be calculated from the relation:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Question 8.
If the pH of a solution is 4.5, what is its pOH?
Solution:
pH + pOH = 14
⇒ pOH = 14 – 4.5 = 9.5
⇒ pOH = 9.5.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Question 1.
\(\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\) is a ______.
(a) Decomposition Reaction
(b) Combination Reaction
(c) Single Displacement Reaction
(d) Double Displacement Reaction.
Answer:
(b) Combination Reaction
Hint: It is a combination reaction between H₂ and Cl₂ to form HCl as product.

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by:
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Science Question 3.
A reaction between carbon and oxygen is represented by \(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\) + Heat. In which of the type(s), the above reaction can be classified?
(i) Combination Reaction
(ii) Combustion Reaction
(iii) Decomposition Reaction
(iv) Irreversible Reaction
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iv
(c) i, ii and iii
(d) i, ii and iv.
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iv.
Hint:

• It is a combination reaction with one product.
• It involves the combustion of carbon to form CO₂.
• The reaction is irreversible and we cannot reverse the reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi Chemistry Question 4.
The chemical equation
Na₂SO_4(aq) + BaCI_2(aq) → BaSO_4(s)↓ + 2NaCl_(aq) represents which of the following types of reaction?
(a) Neutralisation
(b) Combustion
(c) Precipitation
(d) Single displacement
Answer:
(c) Precipitation

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Book Question 5.
Which of the following statements are correct about a chemical equilibrium?
(i) It is dynamic in nature
(ii) The rate of the forward and backward reactions are equal at equilibrium
(iii) Irreversible reactions do not attain chemical equilibrium
(iv) The concentration of reactants and products may be different
(a) i, ii and iii
(b) i, ii and iv
(c) ii, iii and iv
(d) i, iii and iv.
Answer:
(a) i, ii and iii
Hint: Chemical equilibrium is dynamic in nature for a reversible reaction.
At equilibrium, Rate of forwarding reaction = Rate of backward reaction.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 6.
A single displacement reaction is represented by
X_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → XCl_2(aq) + H_2(g). Which of the following(s) could be X?
(i) Zn
(ii) Ag
(iii) Cu
(iv) Mg. Choose the best pair.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (i) and (iv)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Standard Science Question 7.
Which of the following is not an “element + element → compound” type reaction?
(a) \(\mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
(b) \(2 \mathrm{K}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(l)} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{KBr}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
(c) \(2 \mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
(d) \(4 \mathrm{Fe}_{(\mathrm{s})}+3 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Fe}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{3(\mathrm{s})}\).
Answer:
(c) \(2 \mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
Hint: It involves one reactant compound i.e., carbon monoxide (CO).
\(2 \mathrm{CO}_{(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CO}_{2}\)

10th Standard Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
Which of the following represents a precipitation reaction?
(a) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
(b) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{l})}\)
(c) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{aq})}\)
(d) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{l})}\).
Answer:
(c) \(\mathrm{A}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{B}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{C}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{D}_{(\mathrm{aq})}\)
Hint: It involves the formation of solid precipitation by mixing of two aqueous solutions.

10th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 9.
The pH of a solution is 3. Its [OH^–] concentration is:
(a) 1 × 10^-3 M
(b) 3 M
(c) 1 × 10^-11 M
(d) 11 M
Answer:
(c) 1 × 10^-11 M

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Question 10.
Powdered CaCO₃ reacts more rapidly than flaky CaCO₃ because of ______.
(a) large surface area
(b) high pressure
(c) high concentration
(d) high temperature.
Answer:
(a) large surface area
Hint: We know that greater the surface area, faster will be a chemical reaction. Hence powdered CaCO₃ reacts more rapidly.

II. Fill in the blanks.

Samacheer Kalvi Science 10th Question 1.
A reaction between an acid and a base is called ______.
Answer:
Neutralization.

Question 2.
When lithium metal is placed in hydrochloric acid, _______ gas is evolved.
Answer:
Hydrogen.

Question 3.
The equilibrium attained during the melting of ice is known as ______.
Answer:
Physical equilibrium.

Question 4.
The pH of a fruit juice is 5.6. If you add slaked lime to this juice, its pH ______ (increase/decrease)
Answer:
Increases.

Question 5.
The value of the ionic product of water at 25°C is ______.
Answer:
1 × 10^-14

Question 6.
The normal pH of human blood is ______.
Answer:
7.4.

Question 7.
Electrolysis is type of _______ reaction.
Answer:
Decomposition reaction.

Question 8.
The number of products formed in a synthesis reaction is ______.
Answer:
One.

Question 9.
Chemical volcano is an example for ______ type of reaction.
Answer:
Decomposition reaction.

Question 10.
The ion formed by dissolution of H⁺ in water is called ______.
Answer:
Hydronium ion.

III. Match the following

Question 1.
Identify the types of reaction.

Answer:
i – c, ii-a, iii – d, iv- b.

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

Question 1.
Silver metal can displace hydrogen gas from nitric acid.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: In the activity series, any metals that are below hydrogen will not react with HNO₃.

Question 2.
The pH of rainwater containing dissolved gases like SO₃, CO₂, NO₂ will be less than 7.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
At the equilibrium of a reversible reaction, the concentration of the reactants and the products will be equal.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: At equilibrium rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction.

Question 4.
Periodical removal of one of the products of a reversible reaction increases the yield.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
On dipping a pH paper in a solution, it turns into yellow. Then the solution is basic.
Answer:
True.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
When an aqueous solution of potassium chloride is added to an aqueous solution of silver nitrate, a white precipitate is formed. Give the chemical equation of this reaction.
Answer:
\(\mathrm{KCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{AgNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{AgCl}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{KNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}\)
Formation of white precipitate by the above reaction is due to formation of silver chloride (AgCl).

Question 2.
Why does the reaction rate of a reaction increase on raising the temperature?
Answer:
The rate of a reaction increases at higher temperature, because the heat to the reactants provide energy to breakup more bonds and speeds up the reaction.

Question 3.
Define a combination reaction. Give one example of an exothermic combination reaction.
Answer:
A chemical reaction in which 2 or more reactants combine to form a single product, the reaction is known as combination reaction. Most of the combination reaction are exothermic because they involve formation of new bonds. For example,
\(\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{g})}\)
\(\mathrm{SiO}_{2(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow \mathrm{CaSiO}_{3(\mathrm{s})}\).

Question 4.
Differentiate reversible and irreversible reactions.
Answer:

Reversible reaction	Irreversible reaction
1. Reactions can be reversed	1. The reaction cannot be reversed
2. It proceeds in both directions	2. It is unidirectional
3. It attains equilibrium	3. Equilibrium is not attained
4. It is relatively slow	4. It is fast

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is called thermolysis reactions?
Answer:
A chemical reaction is a process in which old bond breaks up and new chemical bond get formed. Thermolysis chemical reactions is a special type of chemical reaction in which the reactant get decomposed by heat. For example,
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\text { Heat }}{\rightleftharpoons} \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
\(2 \mathrm{HgO}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\mathrm{Heat}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}_{(\mathrm{l})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
In these reactions heat is supplied to break the bonds, so generally they are endothermic in nature.

Question 2.
Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
When two compounds react, if their ions are interchanged, then the reaction is called double displacement reactions. There are two types of double displacement reactions. They are
(i) Precipitation reactions : When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction. Because the insoluble compound, formed as one of the products, is a precipitate and hence the reaction is so called.

(ii) When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead (II) nitrate are mixed, a double displacement reaction takes place between them.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s)↓ + 2KNO_3(aq).

(iii) Potassium and lead displace or replace one other and form a yellow precipitate of lead (II) iodide.

(iv) Neutralization reactions: When an acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralization reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.

(v) Reaction of sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid is a typical neutralization reaction. Here, sodium replaces hydrogen from hydrochloric acid forming sodium chloride, a neutral soluble salt.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 3.
Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors influencing the rate of a reaction are,
(i) Nature of the reactants: The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid. Do you know why? Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and thus more reactive. So, the nature of the reactants influences the reaction rate.
\(\begin{aligned} 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} & \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}(\mathrm{fast}) \\ 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COOH}_{(\mathrm{aq})} & \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{CH}_{3} \mathrm{COONa}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}(\mathrm{slow}) \end{aligned}\).

(ii) The concentration of the reactants: Changing the number of reactants also increases the reaction rate. The amount of the substance present in a certain volume of the solution is called ‘concentration’. More the concentration, more particles per volume exist in it and hence faster the reaction. Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M hydrochloric acid.

(iii) Temperature: Most of the reactions go faster at a higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus speed up the reaction. Calcium carbonate reacts slowly with hydrochloric acid at room temperature. When the reaction mixture is heated the reaction rate increases.

(iv) Pressure: If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate. This is because on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and collide frequently.

(v) Catalyst: A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction. In certain reactions, adding a substance as catalyst speeds up the reaction. For example, on heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

(vi) The surface area of the reactants: When solid reactants are involved in a reaction, their powdered form reacts more readily. For example, powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Because powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on the collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased. You will study more about reaction rate in your higher classes.

Question 4.
How does pH play an important role in everyday life?
Answer:
Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change. Different body fluids have different pH values.
Eg: pH of blood is ranging from 7.35 to 7.45. Any increase or decrease in this value leads to diseases. The ideal pH for blood is 7.4.

pH in our digestive system : It is very interesting to note that our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in the digestion of food without harming the stomach. During indigestion the stomach produces too much acid and this causes pain and irritation. pH of the stomach fluid is approximately 2.0.

pH changes as the cause of tooth decay : pH of the saliva normally ranges between 6.5 to 7.5. White enamel coating of our teeth is calcium phosphate, the hardest substance in our body. When the pH of the mouth saliva falls below 5.5, the enamel gets weathered. Toothpastes, which are generally basic ate used for cleaning the teeth that can neutralise the excess acid and prevent tooth decay.

pH of soil : In agriculture, the pH of the soil is very important. Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil, while rice requires acidic soil and sugarcane requires neutral soil.

pH of rain water : The pH of rain water is approximately 7, which means that it is neutral and also represents its high purity. If the atmospheric air is polluted with oxide gases of sulphur and nitrogen, they get dissolved in the rain water and make its pH less than 7. Thus, if the pH of rain water is less than 7, then it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers it lowers the pH of the river water also. The survival of aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult.

Question 5.
What is chemical equilibrium? What are its characteristics?
Answer:
Chemical equilibrium is the state for a reversible chemical reaction where the rate of forwarding direction is equally balanced by the rate of backward direction and the process seems like to be stopped.
Its characteristics are,

• The rate of the forward and backward reaction are equal in chemical equilibrium.
• The observable properties such as pressure, concentration, colour, density, viscosity, etc. of the system unchanged with time.
• In physical equilibrium, the volume of all phases remains constant.

VII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
A solid compound ‘A’ decomposes on heating into ‘B’ and a gas ‘C’ On passing the gas ‘C’ through water. It becomes acidic. Identify A, B and C.
\(\mathrm{CaCO}_{3(\mathrm{s})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{CaO}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{CO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
Calcium carbonate decomposes into solid Calcium oxide and a gas CO₂. This CO₂ dissolves in water and forms carbonic acid.
\(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{CO}_{2} \longrightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{CO}_{3}\) (Carbonic acid).

Question 2.
Can a nickel spatula be used to stir copper sulphate solution? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, a nickel spatula cannot be used to stir CuSO₄ solution, because Nickel will displace copper from CuSO₃ solution and Cu gets deposited on the Ni spatula.

VIII. Solve the following problems.

Question 1.
Lemon juice has a pH = 2, what is the concentration of H⁺ ions?
Solution:

Question 2.
Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10^-4 molar solution of HNO₃?
Solution:

Question 3.
What is the pH of 1.0 × 10^-5 molar solution of KOH?
Solution:

Question 4.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-11. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Additional Question Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Methane + Oxygen → A + Water. Identify A ______.
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) ethane
(d) LPG.
Answer:
(i) Carbon dioxide

Question 2.
The chemical reaction in which electricity is used to bring about the change is:
(a) Thermal decomposition
(b) Photo decomposition
(c) Single displacement reaction
(d) Electrolytic decomposition
Answer:
(d) Electrolytic decomposition

Question 3.
Decomposition of the molecule occurs on passing an electric current through its aqueous solution. This process is termed as ______.
(a) Thermolysis
(b) Photolysis
(c) Electrolysis
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(c) Electrolysis

Question 4.
The most reactive element in the activity series is:
(a) platinum
(b) potassium
(c) sodium
(d) gold
Answer:
(b) potassium

Question 5.
Which one of the following is a more reactive element?
(a) Cu
(b) Li
(c) Zn
(d) Pb.
Answer:
(b) Li

Question 6.
Which one of the following is the least reactive element?
(a) Au
(b) Fe
(c) Ca
(d) Na.
Answer:
(a) Au

Question 7.
Double displacement reaction is also called as ______.
(a) Metastasis
(b) Metathesis
(c) Methanolysis
(d) Metalysis.
Answer:
(b) Metathesis

Question 8.
The acidic solution among the following is:
(a) seawater
(b) coffee
(c) lime water
(d) antacid
Answer:
(b) coffee

Question 9.
The reaction of sodium hydroxide with hydrochloric acid is an example for ______.
(a) Combination reaction
(b) Thermolysis reaction
(c) Neutralization reaction
(d) Precipitation reaction.
Answer:
(c) Neutralization reaction

Question 10.
In agriculture, the nature of the soil for rice is:
(a) alkaline
(b) neutral
(c) acidic
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) acidic

Question 11.
The role of manganese dioxide in the decomposition of potassium chlorate is ______.
(a) act as a reactant
(b) act as a catalyst
(c) act as a reagent
(d) act as a reaction medium.
Answer:
(b) act as a catalyst

Question 12.
The ionic product of water K_w is ______.

Answer:
(c) \(\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{W}}=\left[\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{O}^{+}\right]\left[\mathrm{OH}^{-}\right]\)

Question 13.
Unit of ionic product of water is ______.
(a) mol^-2 dm^-6
(b) mol² dm^-6
(c) mol² dm⁶
(d) mol dm^-3.
Answer:
(b) mol² dm^-6

Question 14.
What is the value of ionic product of water?
(a) 1 × 10^-4
(b) 1 × 10^-1
(c) 1 × 10¹⁴
(d) 1 × 10^-14.
Answer:
(d) 1 × 10^-14.

Question 15.
pH of milk of magnesia is ______.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 10.5.
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 16.
What is the relationship between pH and pOH?
(a) pH – pOH = 14
(b) pH + pOH = 14
(c) pH/pOH = 14
(d) pH + pOH = 1.4.
Answer:
(b) pH + pOH = 14

Question 17.
\(\mathrm{Zn}+2 \mathrm{HCl} \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnCl}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \uparrow\)
The above reaction is an example of ______.
(а) Combination reaction
(b) Double displacement reaction
(c) Displacement reaction
(d) Decomposition reaction.
Answer:
(c) Displacement reaction

Question 18.
A student tests the pH of pure water using a pH paper. It shows a green colour. If a pH paper is after adding lemon juice to water, what colour will he observe?
(a) Green
(b) Red
(c) Yellow
(d) Pink.
Answer:
(b) Red

Question 19.
When aqueous solution of silver nitrate and sodium chloride are mixed, ______ precipitate is immediately formed.
(a) white
(b) yellow
(c) red
(d) black.
Answer:
(a) white

Question 20.
pH = – log₁₀ [H⁺]. The pH of a solution containing hydrogen ion concentration of 0.001 M solution is ______.
(a) 3
(b) 11
(c) 14
(d) 15.
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 21.
Silver anklet has got tarnished due to the formation of ______.
(a) Ag₂O
(b) AgNO₃
(c) Ag₂S
(d) AgBr.
Answer:
(c) Ag₂S

Question 22.
The colour of the precipitate formed by the reaction of lead nitrate with potassium iodide is ______.
(a) white
(b) yellow
(c) black
(d) red.
Answer:
(b) yellow

Question 23.
The reaction of calcium oxide with water is a ______ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) isothermic
(d) adiabatic.
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 24.
The gas released when calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is ______.
(a) NO₂
(b) CO
(c) CO₂
(d) H₂.
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 25.
The chemical used in whitewashing on the walls is ______.
(a) CaO
(b) CaCl₂
(c) CaOCl₂
(d) Ca(OH)₂.
Answer:
(d) Ca(OH)₂.

Question 26.
The chemical formula of marble is ______.
(a) CaCO₃
(b) CaOCl₂
(c) CaSO₄. \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) H₂O
(d) Ca(OH)₂.
Answer:
(a) CaCO₃

Question 27.
Combustion of coal is an example of _____ reaction.
(a) displacement
(b) reduction
(c) decomposition
(d) combination.
Answer:
(d) combination.

Question 28.
The colour change takes place when copper carbonate is strongly heated is ______.
(a) green to black
(b) green to blue
(c) blue to green
(d) blue to black.
Answer:
(a) green to black

Question 29.
The reaction of heat on copper carbonate into copper (II) oxide is _________ reaction.
(a) combination
(b) decomposition
(c) displacement
(d) redox.
Answer:
(b) decomposition

Question 30.
The dissolution of glucose in water is a _____ reaction.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) neutralisation
(d) combination.
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 31.
All combustion reactions are _______ reactions.
(a) combination
(b) exothermic
(c) endothermic
(d) neutralisation.
Answer:
(b) exothermic

Question 32.
The factor that affects the rate of the chemical reaction is ______.
(a) temperature
(b) concentration
(c) catalyst
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 33.
Magnesium ribbon reacts at a very faster rate with ______ acid.
(a) hydrochloric
(b) acetic
(c) formic
(d) oxalic.
Answer:
(a) hydrochloric

Question 34.
Our body metabolism is carried out by means of ______ secreted in our stomach.
(a) sulphuric acid
(b) hydrochloric acid
(c) nitric acid
(d) acetic acid.
Answer:
(b) hydrochloric acid

Question 35.
Which metals do not liberate gas on reaction with acids?
(a) Zn, Mg
(b) Ag, Cu
(c) Na, K
(d) Cr, Al.
Answer:
(b) Ag, Cu

Question 36.
When CO₂ is passed through lime water, it turns ______.
(a) milky
(b) black
(c) red
(d) blue.
Answer:
(a) milky

Question 37.
The physical form of calcium carbonate is ______.
(a) limestone
(b) chalk
(c) marble
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 38.
The colour change takes place when copper (II) oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is ______.
(a) blue to green
(b) black to green
(c) green to black
(d) green to blue.
Answer:
(b) black to green

Question 39.
Which of the following is a strong base?
(a) NH₄OH
(b) Ca(OH)₂
(c) Al(OH)₃
(d) NaOH.
Answer:
(d) NaOH.

Question 40.
Zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide to form ______.
(a) Zinc hydroxide + H₂O
(b) Sodium zincate + H₂
(c) Zinc oxide + H₂
(d) Zinc oxide + H₂O.
Answer:
(b) Sodium zincate + H₂

Question 41.
_____ reacts with sodium hydroxide.
(a) Cu
(b) Ag
(c) Cr
(d) Zn.
Answer:
(d) Zn.

Question 42.
________ is used as a medicine for stomach disorder.
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Ammonium hydroxide
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Calcium hydroxide.
Answer:
(c) Magnesium hydroxide

Question 43.
The pH of stomach fluid is ______.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 2
(d) 1.
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 42.
The hardest substance in the human body is ______.
(a) bone
(b) the enamel coating of teeth
(c) brain
(d) liver.
Answer:
(b) the enamel coating of teeth

Question 43.
Sugarcane requires _______ soil.
(a) acidic
(b) alkaline
(c) neutral
(d) amphoteric.
Answer:
(c) neutral

Question 44.
Rice requires _____ soil.
(a) acidic
(b) basic
(c) alkaline
(d) neutral.
Answer:
(a) acidic

Question 45.
______ is a double salt.
(a) Sodium chloride
(b) Washing soda
(c) Potash alum
(d) Bleaching powder.
Answer:
(c) Potash alum

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
During chemical changes _____ are formed and these changes are more _____ than physical changes.
Answer:
New products, permanent.

Question 2.
Calcium oxide reacts with water to produce ______ and the reaction is ______.
Answer:
Slaked lime, exothermic.

Question 3.
During whitewashing, ______ reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in the air to form a thin layer of _______ on the walls.
Answer:
Calcium hydroxide, calcium carbonate.

Question 4.
When copper carbonate is heated, the products formed are _____ , ______ and change of colour from ______ to ____ is observed.
Answer:
CuO, CO₂, green, black

Question 5.
When lead nitrate is heated, the gas liberated is ______ and its colour is ______.
Answer:
NO₂, Reddish – brown

Question 6.
Copper sulphate solution changes its blue colour into _____ colour when an iron nail is added to it and it acquires _____ colour.
Answer:
Green, brownish.

Question 7.
When Barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate, the product formed is _____ and it is a ______ precipitate.
Answer:
Barium sulphate, white.

Question 8.
Powdered ____ reacts more quickly with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.
Answer:
CaCO₃

Question 9.
Calcium carbonate present in the marble reacts with hydrochloric acid at a faster rate at _______ temperature.
Answer:
Higher.

Question 10.
______ is a substance which furnishes H⁺ ions when dissolved in water and a ______ is a substance which furnishes OH^– ions in water.
Answer:
Acid, Base.

Question 11.
Acids present in plants and animals are ______ and the acids in rocks and minerals are ______.
Answer:
Organic acid, inorganic acid.

Question 12.
Metal displaces _______ gas from dilute acid and the flame goes off with a ______ sound.
Answer:
Hydrogen, popping.

Question 13.
_____ is used in the manufacturing of soap and ______ is used in whitewashing buildings.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide, calcium hydroxide.

Question 14.
pH scale was introduced by ______ and the pH of the solution is 7, it is a ______ solution.
Answer:
S.P.L. Sorenson, neutral.

Question 15.
The pH of a normal healthy human skin is _____ and the pH of the stomach fluid is ______.
Answer:
7.4, 5.5.

Question 16.
The ideal pH for blood is _______ and pH of the mouth falls below ______.
Answer:
7.35 – 7.45, Sulphuric acid.

Question 17.
All photo decomposition reaction are _______ reactions.
Answer:
Endothermic.

Question 18.
Precipitation reactions give a _____ as the product.
Answer:
Insoluble salt.

Question 19.
Plants cannot grow in a ______ soil.
Answer:
Acidic.

Question 20.
Equilibrium is possible in a _____ system.
Answer:
Closed.

Question 21.
Pure water is a _______ electrolyte.
Answer:
Weak.

Question 22.
Most of the combination reactions are _______ in nature.
Answer:
Exothermic.

Question 23.
Silicon dioxide reacts with calcium oxide to form ______.
Answer:
Calcium silicate.

Question 24.
Our mobile phones get energy from its _____ battery by chemical reaction.
Answer:
Lithium.

Question 25.
A ______ is a substance which increases the reaction rate.
Answer:
Catalyst.

Question 26.
pH range of human saliva is ______.
Answer:
6 – 8.

Question 27.
pH range of fresh milk is ______.
Answer:
5.

Question 28.
The pH of a solution can be determined by using a _______ indicator.
Answer:
Universal.

Question 29.
pH is ______.
Answer:
-log₁₀ [H⁺].

Question 30.
The white enamel coating of our teeth is ______.
Answer:
Calcium phosphate.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

(i) \(\mathrm{S}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightarrow \mathrm{SO}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)	(a) Electrolytic decomposition reaction
(ii) \(2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)	(b) Combination reaction
(iii) \(2 \mathrm{AgBr}_{(\mathrm{s})} \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)	(c) Single displacement reaction
(iv) \(\mathrm{Zn}_{(\mathrm{s})}+2 \mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{ZnCl}_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)	(d) Photo decomposition reaction

Answer:
i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c.

Question 2.

Sample	pH
(i) Oranges	(a) 8
(ii) Grapes	(b) 7
(iii) Pure water	(c) 3.5
(iv) Egg white	(d) 4

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 3.

Sample	pH
(i) Sour milk	(a) 4.2
(ii) Tomato juice	(b) 4.5
(iii) Seawater	(c) 12
(iv) Lime water	(d) 8

Answer:
i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c.

Question 4.

(i) Citrus fruits	(a) Neutral soil
(ii) Rice	(b) pH = 7
(iii) Sugarcane	(c) alkaline soil
(iv) Rainwater	(d) acidic soil

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b.

Question 5.

(i) Sodium hydroxide	(a) medicine
(ii) Calcium hydroxide	(b) stain remover
(iii) Ammonium hydroxide	(c) soap
(iv) Magnesium hydroxide	(d) whitewashing

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 6.

(i) Gain of electrons	(a) Oxidation reaction
(ii) Loss of electrons	(b) Combination reaction
(iii) Combustion of coal	(c) Redox reaction
(iv) Rusting of iron	(d) Reduction reaction

Answer:
i – d, ii-a, iii – b, iv – e.

IV. State true or false. If false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Chemical changes are reversible changes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Chemical changes are irreversible changes.

Question 2.
The silver anklet has got tarnished when exposed to air due to the formation of silver oxide. (Ag₂O).
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The silver anklet has got tarnished when exposed to air due to the formation of silver sulphide (Ag₂S).

Question 3.
Brisk effervescence takes place with the evolution of CO₂ when calcium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The chemical formula for marble is CaCl₂.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The chemical formula for marble is CaCO₃

Question 5.
A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as displacement reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as a combination reaction.

Question 6.
Lead Nitrate on heating decomposes to give lead oxide with the evolution of reddish-brown gas NO₂ and O₂ gas.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Any reaction that produces a precipitate is called a redox reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Any reaction that produces a precipitate is called a precipitation reaction.

Question 8.
The reaction in which a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound is called displacement reaction.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The chemical reactions which take place with the evolution of heat energy are called endothermic reaction.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The chemical reactions which take place with the evolution of heat energy are called exothermic reaction.

Question 10.
All combustion reactions are endothermic reactions.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.

Question 11.
Our body metabolism is carried out by means of sulphuric acid secreted in our stomach.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Our body metabolism is carried out by means of hydrochloric acid secreted in our stomach.

Question 12.
Limestone, chalk and marble are different physical forms of calcium oxide.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Limestone, chalk and marble are different physical forms of calcium carbonate.

Question 13.
The atmosphere of earth is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The atmosphere of Venus is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid.

Question 14.
Bond breaking releaser energy whereas bond formation absorbs energy.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Bond breaking absorbs energy whereas bond formation releases energy.

Question 15.
More active elements readily displace less active elements from their aqueous solution.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
The irreversible reaction is relatively slow.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Irreversible reaction is fast.

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The lustrous white colour of the silver anklet slowly changes into slightly back colour.
Reason (R): silver anklet reacts with H₂S in the air to form Ag₂S (Silver Sulphide) which is black in colour.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The reaction of calcium oxide with water is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): The reaction is accompanied by a hissing sound and formation of bubbles leading to the absorption of a considerable amount of heat.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 3.
Assertion (A): During the reaction of calcium carbonate with dilute hydrochloric acid, brisk effervescence takes place.
Reason (R): Brisk effervescence is due to the evolution of carbon dioxide gas.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion: When copper carbonate is heated strongly, the green colour is changed into a black colour.
Reason (R): The colour change is due to the decomposition of copper carbonate into copper oxide.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 5.
Assertion (A): when lead nitrate is heated, the gas released has red – orange colour and it is lead oxide.
Reason (R): Lead nitrate on heating undergoes combination reaction.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong

Question 6.
Assertion (A): iron js more reactive than copper.
Reason (R): iron js displaced from iron sulphate by copper.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Copper displaces zinc (or) lead from the salt solution.
Reason (R): Copper is more reactive than zinc and lead.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Question 8.
Assertion (A): All combustion reactions are exothermic reactions.
Reason (R): During combustion reaction, heat energy is liberated.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): when glucose is kept on our tongue, a cooling effect is felt.
Reason (R): It is an endothermic reaction in which heat is absorbed.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more quickly with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.
Reason (R): Powdered calcium carbonate offers a large surface area than marble chips. Because the greater the surface area, the greater is the rate of the reaction.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Combination reaction is exothermic in nature.
Reason (R): During the formation of new bonds, releases a huge amount of energy in the form of heat.
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)

Question 12.
Assertion (A): When glucose is kept on our tongue, a cooling effect is felt.
Reason (R): It is an endothermic reaction in which heat is absorbed.
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What type of chemical reaction takes place when
(i) limestone is heated
(ii) a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air?
Answer:
(i) When limestone is heated, the reaction takes place is a decomposition reaction.

(ii) When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, it is an oxidation reaction.

Question 2.
What is a combustion reaction?
Answer:
A combustion reaction is one in which the reactant rapidly combines with oxygen to form one or more oxides and energy (heat). So in combustion reactions, one of the reactants must be oxygen.

Question 3.
Which of the following is a combustion?

1. Digestion of food
2. Rusting of iron.

Answer:

1. Digestion of food : Not a combustion reaction, because it is a endothermic process and where energy is utilized.
2. Rusting of iron : Combustion reaction.

Question 4.
When the lead powder is added to copper chloride solution, a displacement reaction occurs and solid copper is formed.
(i) Write the equation for the reaction.
(ii) Why does the displacement reaction occur?
Answer:

(ii) Copper is less reactive than lead. So lead has displaced copper from copper chloride. It is a displacement reaction.

Question 5.
What happens when lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide solution?
Answer:
Lead nitrate solution when reacts with a potassium iodide solution, a deep yellow precipitate of Pbl₂ is formed.

Question 6.
Differentiate Exothermic reaction and Endothermic reaction.
Answer:

Exothermic reaction	Endothermic reaction
1. The chemical reactions which take place with the evolution of heat energy are called exothermic reactions.	1. The chemical reactions which take place with the absorption of heat energy a called endothermic reactions.
2. e.g. All combustion reactions are exothermic.	2. e.g. Dissolution of glucose is the endothermic reaction.
3. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 + Heat	3. 2NH3 + Heat → N2 + 3H2

Question 7.
Why the study of reaction rate is important?
Answer:
Faster the reaction, more will be the amount of the product in a specified time. So, the rate of a reaction is important for a chemist for designing a process to get a good yield of a product. Rate of reaction is also important for a food processor who hopes to slow down the reactions that cause food to spoil.

Question 8.
What is meant by decomposition reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
A single compound breaks down to produce two or more substances. Such type of reaction is called decomposition reaction.

Question 9.
Give reason.
(a) Granulated Zinc reacts faster with 2M HCl than 1M HCl.
Answer:
Reason: As the concentration of the reactant increases the rate of the reaction increases.

(b) Food kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator.
Answer:
Reason: In the refrigerator the temperature is lower than room temperature, so the reaction rate is less.

Question 10.
What is meant by double displacement reaction? Give an example.
Answer:
A double decomposition reaction is a reaction in which the exchange of ions between two reactants occur leading to the formation of two different products.

Question 11.
Why the toothpastes are generally basic in nature?
Answer:
The pH of the saliva is usually between 6.5 to 7.5, when the pH of the mouth saliva falls below 5.5 the enamel coating of our teeth calcium phosphate gets weathered. That is why the tooth pastes are generally basic in nature.

Question 12.
What happens to food containing fat and oil kept open for a long time?
Answer:
When food containing fat and oil is left as such for a long time, it becomes stale. The stale food develops bad taste and foul smell. This is very common in curd and cheese, particularly in summer. Oils and fats are slowly oxidised to certain foul – smelling compounds.

Question 13.
Define the rate of a chemical reaction.
Answer:
The rate of a chemical reaction is defined as the change in concentration of any one of the reactants or product per unit time.
\(\text { Rate }=-\frac{\mathrm{d}[\mathrm{A}]}{\mathrm{dt}}\).

Question 14.
Define catalyst.
Answer:
A substance which alters the rate of a reaction without undergoing any change in mass and composition is known as a catalyst.

Question 15.
What happens during a chemical reaction?
Answer:

• In a chemical reaction, the atoms of the reacting molecules or elements are rearranged to form new molecules.
• Old chemical bonds between atoms are broken and new chemical bonds are formed.
• Bond breaking absorbs energy whereas bond formation releases energy.

Question 16.
What; is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation is the simplified representation of a chemical reaction which describes the chemical composition, the physical state of the reactants and the products, and the reaction conditions.

Question 17.
What are the main classes of decomposition reactions?
Answer:
There are three main classes of decomposition reactions. They are,

• Thermal decomposition reactions
• Electrolytic decomposition reactions
• Photo decomposition reactions

Question 18.
What are thermal decomposition reactions?
Answer:
In a thermal decomposition reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying heat.
For example, on heating mercury (II) oxide is decomposed into mercury metal and oxygen gas.
\(2 \mathrm{HgO}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\Delta}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Hg}_{(\mathrm{l})}+\mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\).

Question 19.
What are Electrolytic decomposition reactions?
Answer:
In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying electricity.
For example, decomposition of sodium chloride occurs on passing electric current through its aqueous solution.
\(2 \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \stackrel{\text { Electricity }}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Na}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\).

Question 20.
What is the photodecomposition reaction?
Answer:
In this type of reaction, the reactant is decomposed by applying light.
For example, when silver bromide is exposed to light, it breaks down into silver metal and bromine gas.
\(2 \mathrm{AgBr}_{(\mathrm{s})} \stackrel{\mathrm{Light}}{\longrightarrow} 2 \mathrm{Ag}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{Br}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\).

Question 21.
What is Metathesis reaction?
Answer:
The ion of one compound is replaced by the ion of another compound. Ions of identical charges are only interchanged, i.e. a cation can be replaced by another cation. This reaction is called metathesis reaction.

Question 22.
What is a precipitation reaction?
Answer:
When aqueous solution of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
e.g„ \(\mathrm{Pb}\left(\mathrm{NO}_{3}\right)_{2(\mathrm{aq})}+2 \mathrm{KI}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{PbI}_{2(\mathrm{s})} \downarrow+2 \mathrm{KNO}_{3(\mathrm{aq})}\).

Question 23.
How will you distinguish between combination and decomposition reactions?
Answer:

Combination Reactions	Decomposition Reactions
One or more reactants combine to form a single product	A single reactant is decomposed to form one or more products
Energy is released	Energy is absorbed
Elements or compounds may be the reactants	The single compound is the reactant

Question 24.
What is a neutralization reaction?
Answer:
It is another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called neutralization reaction as both acid and base neutralizes each other.

Question 25.
What is Combustion reaction?
Answer:
A combustion reaction is one in which the reactant rapidly combines with oxygen to form one or more oxides and energy (heat).

Question 26.
What are reversible and irreversible reactions?
Answer:
Reversible reaction : A reversible reaction is a reaction that can be reversed, i.e., the products can be converted back to the reactants.
e.g., \(\mathrm{PCl}_{5(\mathrm{g})} \rightleftharpoons \mathrm{PCl}_{3(\mathrm{g})}+\mathrm{Cl}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)
Irreversible reaction: The reaction that cannot be reversed is called irreversible reaction. The irreversible reactions are unidirectional.

Question 27.
Why is the reaction rate important?
Answer:
Faster the reaction, more will be the amount of the product in a specified time. So, the rate of a reaction is important for a chemist for designing a process to get a good yield of a product. Rate of reaction is also important for a food processor who hopes to slow down the reactions that cause food to spoil.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Suggest a reason for each observation given below.
Answer:
(i) In fireworks, powdered Mg is used rather than Mg ribbon.
Powdered Mg will have larger surface area than Mg ribbon and the rate of the reaction increases.

(ii) Zn and dil. H₂SO₄ react much more quickly when a few drops of CuSO₄ solution are added.
When few drops of CuSO₄ are added to the solution containing Zn and dil. H₂SO₄, the rate of the reaction increases, because CuSO₄ acts as catalyst.

(iii) The reaction between MgCO₃ and dil. HCl speeds up when some con. HCl is added. As the concentration of the reactant increases, the rate of the reaction increases.

Question 2.
Observe the given chemical change and answer the following:

1. Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’.
2. Write the commercial name of calcium hydroxide.
3. Identify products ‘C’ and ‘D’ when HCl is allowed to oxide react with calcium oxide.
4. Say whether calcium oxide is acidic or basic.

Answer:

1. A is calcium carbonate. B is carbon-di-oxide.
2. Slaked lime is the commercial name of calcium hydroxide.
3. The products C and D are calcium chloride (CaCl₂) and water (H₂O).
4. Calcium oxide is basic in nature.

Question 3.
Take copper nitrate in a test tube and heat it over the flame.

1. What is the colour of cupric nitrate?
2. What do you observe?
3. Name the type of reaction that takes place.
4. Write the balanced equation.

Answer:

1. The colour of cupric nitrate is Blue.
2. When cupric nitrate is heated in a test tube, we can observe the evolution of reddish-brown gas (NO₂) Nitrogen dioxide.
3. The reaction takes place is a decomposition reaction.
4. 

Question 4.
Redox reactions are reactions during which electron transfer takes place. Here magnesium atom transfers two electrons one each to the two chlorine atoms.
(i) What are the products of this reaction?
(ii) Write the balanced equation for the complete reaction.
(iii) Which element is being oxidized?
(iv) Which element is being reduced?
(v) Write the reduction part of the reaction.
Answer:
(i) Magnesium atom is converted to Mg²⁺ ion. Two chlorine atoms are converted to 2Cl^– ions. So the products are Mg²⁺ ion and 2Cl^– ions.
(ii)

(iii) Mg atom is being oxidised by donating 2 electrons.
(iv) Cl₂ molecule is being reduced by accepting 2 electrons.
(v) Cl₂ + 2e^– → 2Cl^–. It is a reduction reaction in which gain of e^– take place.

Question 5.
Take Cu(NO₃)₂ in a test tube and heat it over the flame.
(i) What is the colour of Cu(NO₃)₂?
Answer:
Blue

(ii) What do you observe?
Answer:
Evolution of reddish-brown gas.

(iii) Name the type of reaction that takes place.
Answer:
Decomposition.

(iv) Write the balanced equation.
Answer:
Cu(NO₃)₂ → 2CuO + 4NO₂ + O₂↑

Question 6.
Sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid react as shown in this equation.
\(\mathbf{N a O H}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathrm{HCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})} \longrightarrow \mathrm{NaCl}_{(\mathrm{aq})}+\mathbf{H}_{2} \mathbf{O}_{(\mathrm{l})}\)
(i) Which type of chemical reaction is this?
(ii) The reaction is exothermic. Explain what that means.
(iii) Differentiate exothermic reaction and endothermic reaction.
(iv) What happens to the temperature of the solution as the chemicals react?
Answer:
(i) It is a neutralisation reaction.
(ii) An exothermic reaction is a chemical reaction in which the evolution of heat energy takes place.
(iii)

Exothermic reaction	Endothermic reaction
1. The reaction In which heat energy is evolved is known as an exothermic process.	1. The reaction in which heat energy is absorbed is known as an endothermic process.
2. N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 + Heat	2. 2NH3 + Heat → N2 + 3H2

(iv) When NaOH reacts with HCl to give NaCl and water, heat is evolved. So the solution’s temperature increases.

VIII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid is added to test tube A, while acetic acid is added to test tube B. The amount and concentration taken for both the acids are same. In which test tube does the reaction occur more vigorously and why?
Answer:
In the test tube, the reaction occurs more vigorously.
Comparing hydrochloric acid and acetic acid, HCl (hydrochloric acid) is a strong acid and more reactive whereas acetic acid is a weak organic acid and less reactive.
\(\mathrm{Mg}+2 \mathrm{HCl} \stackrel{\text { Fast reaction }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{MgCl}_{2}+\mathrm{H}_{2} \uparrow\).

Question 2.
Classify the following reactions based on the rate of the reactions as very fast or instantaneous slow and moderate reactions.
(a) AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO_3(aq)
Answer:
Very fast reaction (or) Instantaneous reaction.

(b) 2 Na_(s) + 2H₂O_(l) → 2NaOH_(aq) + H_2(g)
Answer:
Very fast reaction.

(c) Rusting of iron.
Answer:
Very slow reaction.

(d) Inversion of cane sugar into Glucose and fructose.
Answer:
Moderately slow reaction.

(e) Fermentation of sugar into alcohol.
Answer:
Very slow reaction.

Question 3.
What is the chemical reaction taken place in the tarnishing of silver anklet?
Answer:
The lustrous white colour of the silver anklet slowly changes into a slightly black colour. It is due to the formation of silver sulphide (Ag₂S) as a result of the reaction between silver and hydrogen sulphide in the air.

Question 4.
Why toothpaste are basic in nature?
Answer:
The white enamel coating of our teeth is calcium phosphate, the hardest substance in our body. It does not dissolve in water. If the pH of mouth falls below 5.5, the enamel gets corroded. Toothpaste is generally basic and used for cleaning the teeth can neutralize the excess acid and prevent tooth decay.

Question 5.
Why the solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing?
Answer:
A solution of slaked lime is used for whitewashing walls. Calcium hydroxide reacts slowly with the carbon dioxide in the air to form a thin layer of calcium carbonate on the walls. Calcium carbonate is formed after two to three days of whitewashing and gives a shiny finish to the walls. It is interesting to note that the chemical formula for marble is also CaCO₃.

Question 6.
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 7.
Let us consider the following two reactions.

Which reaction will not occur. Why?
Answer:
The first reaction involves the displacement of chlorine from NaCl, by fluorine. In the second reaction, chlorine displaces fluorine from NaF. Out of these two, the second reaction will not occur. Because fluorine is more active than chlorine and occupies the upper position in the periodic table. So, in displacement reactions, the activity of the elements and their relative position in the periodic table are the key factors to determine the feasibility of the reactions. More active elements readily displace less active elements from their aqueous solutions.

Question 8.
Which of the metals displaces hydrogen gas from hydrochloric acid? Silver or zinc. Give the chemical equation of the reaction and justify your answer.
Answer:
Zinc displaces hydrogen gas from hydrochloric, acid.
Zinc is more reactive than silver.
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑.

Question 9.
Foods kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator. Why?
Answer:
Food kept at room temperature spoils faster than that kept in the refrigerator. In the refrigerator, the temperature is lower than the room temperature and hence the reaction rate is less.

Question 10.
How will you enhance the rate of decomposition of potassium chlorate?
Answer:
On heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

Here MnO₂ is the catalyst. Therefore the addition of MnO₂ enhances the rate of decomposition of potassium chlorate.

Question 11.
Powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Why?
Answer:
Powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on the collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased. Hence powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Types of Chemical Reactions Additional Problems Solved

Question 1.
The [OH^–] ion concentration of a solution is 1.0 × 10^-8 M. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:
The concentration of hydroxide ion = [OH^–] = 1.0 × 10^-8 M.

Question 2.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 1.0 × 10^-9 m. What is the pH of the solution? Find out whether the given solution is acidic, basic or neutral.
Solution:

Question 3.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 0.001 m. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:

pH = 14 – pOH
pH = 14 – 3 = 11
pH = 11.

Question 4.
The hydroxide ion concentration of a solution is 1.0 × 10^-9 m. What is the pH of the solution?
Solution:

Question 5.
The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution is 1 × 10^-4 m. Calculate the pH and pOH of that solution.
Solution:

Question 6.
Calculate the pH of sodium hydroxide solution having the concentration of OH^– 0.01 mL^-1.
Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 9 Solutions

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Textual Problems Solved

I. Problems based on Solubility.

10th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
1.5 g of solute is dissolved in 15 g of water to form a saturated solution at 298K. Find out the solubility of the solute at the temperature.
Solution:
Mass of the solute = 1.5 g
Mass of the solvent = 15 g
Solubility of the solute = \(\frac{\text { Mass of the solute }}{\text { Mass of the solvent }} \times 100\)
= \(\frac{1.5}{15} \times 100=10 \mathrm{g}\).

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Question 2.
Find the mass of potassium chloride would be needed to form a saturated solution in 60 g of water at 303 K? Given that solubility of the KCl is 37 / 100 g at this temperature.
Solution:
Mass of potassium chloride in 100 g of water in saturated solution = 37 g
Mass of potassium chloride in 60 g of water in saturated solution = \(\frac{37}{100} \times 60\) = 22.2 g.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide PDF help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 10 Science Solutions Question 3.
What is the mass of sodium chloride that would be needed to form a saturated solution in 50 g of water at 30°C. Solubility of sodium chloride is 36 g at 30°C?
Solution:
At 30°C, 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water.
Mass of sodium chloride that would be need for 100 g of water = 36 g
Mass of sodium chloride dissolved in 50 g of water = \(\frac{36 \times 50}{100}\) = 18 g.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 4.
The Solubility of sodium nitrate at 50°C and 30°C is 114 g and 96 g respectively. Find the amount of salt that will be thrown out when a saturated solution of sodium nitrate-containing 50 g of water is cooled from 50°C to 30°C?
Answer:
Amount of sodium nitrate dissolved in 100 g of water at 50°C is 114 g
Amount of sodium nitrate dissolving in 50 g of water at 50°C is = \(\frac{114 \times 50}{100}\) = 57 g
Similarly amount of sodium nitrate dissolving in 50 g of water at 30°C is = \(\frac{96 \times 50}{100}\) = 48 g
Amount of sodium nitrate thrown when 50 g of water is cooled from 50°C to 30°C is 57 – 48 = 9 g.

II. Problems based on Mass percentage.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Question 1.
A solution was prepared by dissolving 25 g of sugar in 100 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Solution:
Mass of the solute = 25 g
Mass of the solvent = 100 g

Class 10 Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
16 grams of NaOH is dissolved in 100 grams of water at 25°C to form a saturated solution. Find the mass percentage of solute and solvent.
Solution:
Mass of the solute (NaOH) = 16 g
Mass of the solvent H₂O = 100 g
(i) Mass percentage of the solute
= \(\frac{\text { Mass of the solute }}{\text { Mass of the solute }+\text { Mass of the solvent }} \times 100\)
= \(\frac{16 \times 100}{16+100}=\frac{1600}{116}\)
Mass percentage of the solute = 13.79 %.

(ii) Mass percentage of solvent = 100 – (Mass percentage of the solute) = 100 – 13.79 = 86.21 %.

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Find the amount of urea which is to be dissolved in water to get 500 g of 10 % w/w aqueous solution?
Solution:
Mass percentage = \(\frac{\text { Mass of the solute }}{\text { Mass of the solution }} \times 100\)
\(10=\frac{\text { Mass of the urea }}{500} \times 100\)
Mass of urea = 50 g.

III. Problem based on Volume – Volume percentage.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Question 1.
The solution is made from 35 ml of methanol and 65 ml of water. Calculate the volume percentage.
Solution:
The volume of the ethanol = 35 ml
The volume of the water = 65 ml

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Calculate the volume of ethanol in 200 ml solution of 20 % v/v aqueous solution of ethanol.
Solution:
Volume of aqueous solution = 200 ml
Volume percentage = 20 %

Activity

10th Std Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Activity 1.
Look at the following pictures. Label them as a dilute and concentrated solution and justify your answer.

Solution:
In the above picture, the first teacup is more concentrated and the first beaker is more concentrated CuSO₄ solution. The reason is the colour intensity is more in a concentrated solution.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Class 10 Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
A solution is a ____ mixture.
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) homogeneous and heterogeneous
(d) non – homogeneous.
Answer:
(a) homogeneous

Science 10th Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
The number of components in a binary solution is:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Answers Question 3.
Which of the following is the universal solvent?
(a) Acetone
(b) Benzene
(c) Water
(d) Alcohol.
Answer:
(c) Water

Science Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of solvent at a given temperature is called:
(a) Saturated solution
(b) Unsaturated solution
(c) Supersaturated solution
(d) Dilute solution
Answer:
(a) Saturated solution

Samacheer Class 10 Science Solutions Question 5.
Identify the non – aqueous solution ______.
(a) sodium chloride in water
(b) glucose in water
(c) copper sulphate in water
(d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide.
Answer:
(d) sulphur in carbon-di-sulphide.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 6.
When pressure is increased at a constant temperature the solubility of gases in liquid:
(a) No change
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) no reaction
Answer:
(b) increases

Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
The solubility of NaCl in 100 ml water is 36 g. If 25 g of salt is dissolved in 100 ml of water how much more salt is required for saturation ______.
(a) 12 g
(b) 11 g
(c) 16 g
(d) 20 g.
Answer:
(b) 11 g

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Science Question 8.
A 25% alcohol solution means:
(a) 25 ml alcohol in 100 ml of water
(b) 25 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
(c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water
(d) 75 ml alcohol in 25 ml of water
Answer:
(c) 25 ml alcohol in 75 ml of water

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Pdf Download Question 9.
Deliquescence is due to ______.
(a) Strong affinity to water
(b) Less affinity to water
(c) Strong hatred of water
(d) Inertness to water.
Answer:
(a) Strong affinity to water

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 10.
Which of the following is hygroscopic in nature?
(a) ferric chloride
(b) copper sulphate penta hydrate
(c) silica gel
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) silica gel

II. Fill in the blanks.

10th Standard Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The component present in a lesser amount, in a solution, is called ______.
Answer:
Solute.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Standard Science Question 2.
Example for liquid in solid type solution is ______.
Answer:
Sodium chloride dissolved in water.

Question 3.
Solubility is the amount of solute dissolved in _______ g of solvent.
Answer:
100.

Question 4.
Polar compounds are soluble in ______ solvents.
Answer:
Polar.

Question 5.
Volume percentage decreases with increases in temperature because of ______.
Answer:
Expansion of liquid.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

Blue vitriol	(a) CaSO4.2H2O
Gypsum	(b) CaO
Deliquescence	(c) CuSO4.5H2O
Hygroscopic	(d) NaOH

Answer:
1 – (c), 2 – (a), 3 – (d), 4 – (b).

IV. True or False: (If false give the correct statement)

Question 1.
Solutions which contain three components are called binary solution.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Solutions which contain two components are called binary solution.

Question 2.
In a solution, the component which is present in a lesser amount is called solvent.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement:

• In a solution, the component which is present in a larger amount is called a solvent.
• In a solution, the component which is present in a lesser amount is called solute.

Question 3.
Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms a non-aqueous solution.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Sodium chloride dissolved in water forms an aqueous solution.

Question 4.
The molecular formula of green vitriol is MgSO₄.7H₂O
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The molecular formula of green vitriol is FeSO₄ .7H₂O
Question 5.
When Silica gel is kept open, it absorbs moisture from the air, because it is hygroscopic in nature.
Answer:
True.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the term Solution.
Answer:
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

Question 2.
What is mean by binary solution?
Answer:
Solutions which are made of one solute and one solvent, then it is called binary solution.

Question 3.
Give an example each

1. gas in liquid
2. solid in liquid
3. solid in solid
4. gas in gas.

Answer:

1. Carbon – di – oxide dissolved in water (Soda water).
2. Sodium chloride dissolved in water.
3. Copper dissolved in gold (Alloy).
4. A mixture of Helium – Oxygen gases.

Question 4.
What is aqueous and non-aqueous solution? Give an example.
Answer:
(i) Aqueous solution : The solution in which water acts as a solvent.
(ii) Non-aqueous solution : The solution in which any liquid other than water acts as a solvent.
Eg: Alcohol, benzene, CS₂ acetone.

Question 5.
Define Volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.
Volume percentage = \(\frac{\text { Volume of the solute }}{\text { Volume of the solution }} \times 100\).

Question 6.
The aquatic animals live more in cold region Why?
Answer:
Aquatic animals live more in cold regions because the solubility of O₂ in water is more at low temperature and therefore the amount of dissolved O₂ is more in the water of cold regions.

Question 7.
Define Hydrated salt.
Answer:
The number of water molecules found in the crystalline substance or salts is called water of crystallization. Such salts are called hydrated salts.

Question 8.
A hot saturated solution of copper sulphate forms crystals as it cools. Why?
Answer:
A hot saturated solution of CuSO₄ forms crystal as it cools. Because on cooling the water molecules move closer together and there is less space for the solution to hold on to as much of the dissolved solid and so it forms crystals.

Question 9.
Classify the following substances into deliquescent, hygroscopic. Conc. Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel, Calcium chloride, and Gypsum salt.
Answer:

1. Deliquescent substances: Calcium chloride
2. Hygroscopic substances: Conc Sulphuric acid, Copper sulphate penta hydrate, Silica gel and Gypsum salt.

VI. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Write notes on
(i) saturated solution
(ii) unsaturated solution
Answer:
(i) Saturated solution : A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent at a given temperature is called saturated solution.
Eg: 36 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms saturated solution.

(ii) Unsaturated solution : Unsaturated solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution at a given temperature.
Eg: 10 g or 20 g or 30 g of Sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms an unsaturated solution.

Question 2.
Write notes on various factors affecting solubility.
Answer:
Factors affecting solubility: There are three main factors which govern the solubility of the solute. They are
(i) Nature of the solute and solvent
(ii) Temperature
(iii) Pressure

(i) Nature of the solute and solvent: The nature of the solute and solvent plays an important role insolubility. Although water dissolves an enormous variety of substances, both ionic and covalent, it does not dissolve everything. The phrase that scientists often use when predicting solubility is “like dissolves like.” This expression means that dissolving occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute. For example, Common salt is a polar compound and dissolves readily in polar solvent like water.

Non – polar compounds are soluble in non-polar solvents. For example, Fat dissolved in ether. But non-polar compounds, do not dissolve in polar solvents; polar compounds do not dissolve in non-polar solvents.

(ii) Effect of Temperature
The solubility of Solids in Liquid: Generally, the solubility of a solid solute in a liquid solvent increases with increase in temperature. For example, a greater amount of sugar will dissolve in warm water than in cold water.
In the endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature. In the exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.

The solubility of Gases in liquid: Solubility of gases in liquids decreases with increase in temperature. Generally, water contains dissolved oxygen. When water is boiled, the solubility of oxygen in water decreases, so oxygen escapes in the form of bubbles. Aquatic animals live more in cold regions because more amount of dissolved oxygen is present in the water of cold regions. This shows that the solubility of oxygen in water is more at low temperatures.

(iii) Effect of Pressure: Effect of pressure is observed only in the case of solubility of a gas in a liquid. When the pressure is increased, the solubility of a gas in liquid increases.
The common examples for solubility of gases in liquids are carbonated beverages, i.e. soft drinks, household cleaners containing an aqueous solution of ammonia, formalin aqueous solution of formaldehyde, etc.

Question 3.
(a) What happens when MgSO₄.7H₂O is heated? Write the appropriate equation.
(b) Define solubility.
Answer:
(a) MgSO₄.7H₂O has a water of crystallization is 7. When magnesium sulphate heptahydrate crystals are gently heated, it loses seven water molecules and becomes anhydrous magnesium sulphate.

(b) Solubility: It is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 4.
In what way, hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Difference between hygroscopic and deliquescent substances is in the extent to which each material can absorb moisture. This is because both of these terms are very much related to each other and they refer to the property of observing and the retention of moisture from the air. However, they differ in the extent of absorption of moisture where hygroscopic materials absorb moisture but not to the extent the original substance dissolves in it, which is the case with deliquescence. Therefore deliquescence can be regarded as an extreme condition of hygroscopic activity.

Difference between hygroscopic substances and deliquescence

Hygroscopic Substances	Deliquescence Substances
When exposed to the atmosphere at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and do not dissolve.	When exposed to the atmospheric air at ordinary temperature, they absorb moisture and dissolve.
Hygroscopic substances do not change their physical state on exposure to air.	Deliquescent substances change its physical state on exposure to air.
Hygroscopic substances may be amorphous solids or liquids.	Deliquescent substances are crystalline solids.

Question 5.
A solution is prepared by dissolving 45 g of sugar in 180 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of sugar (solute) = 45 g
Mass of water (solvent) = 180 g.

Question 6.
3.5 litres of ethanol is present in 15 litres of an aqueous solution of ethanol. Calculate volume per cent of the ethanol solution.
Answer:
Volume of ethanol (solute) = 3.5 litre
Volume of aqueous solution = 15 litre
Volume of the solution = \(\frac{\text { Volume of the solute }}{\text { Volume of the solution }} \times 100\)
= \(\frac{3.5}{15} \times 100\)
Volume percentage = 23.33 %.

VII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, Sarath dissolves 50 g of same sugar in 250 ml of cold water. Who will get faster dissolution of sugar? and Why?
Answer:
Vinu will get faster dissolution of sugar. Because Vinu dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of hot water, whereas Sarath dissolves 50 g of sugar in 250 ml of cold water. Solubility of a solid in liquid increases with increase in temperature.

Question 2.
‘A’ is a blue coloured crystalline salt. On heating, it loses a blue colour and to give ‘B’. When water is added, ‘B’ gives back to ‘A’. Identify A and B, write the equation.
Answer:

• Blue coloured crystalline salt is copper sulphate pentahydrate (A)
• On heating Copper sulphate pentahydrate it loses blue colour and to give anhydrous copper sulphate (B).
• When water is added to the anhydrous copper sulphate (B) gives back to copper sulphate pentahydrate (A).
• 

Question 3.
Will the cool drinks give more fizz at top of the hills or at the foot? Explain.
Answer:
Carbonated cool drinks give more fizz at the foot hill because solubility of gases in liquid decrease with increase in temperature. At higher altitudes, the temperature is low and the dissolved CO₂ will not escape as fizz, whereas at the foot hill it does.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Find out the homogeneous mixture.
(a) Salt + Water
(b) Sand + Water
(c) Clay + Water
(d) Gold + Water.
Answer:
(a) Salt + Water

Question 2.
The aqueous solution is:
(a) S in CS₂
(b) I₂ in CCl₄
(c) Salt in H₂O
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Salt in H₂O

Question 3.
In a solution, the component which is present in a larger amount is called ______.
(a) solvent
(b) dissolution
(c) solute
(d) mole.
Answer:
(а) solvent

Question 4.
The solubility of ammonia gas at 25°C is:
(a) 36 g
(b) 48 g
(c) 80 g
(d) 184 g
Answer:
(b) 48 g

Question 5.
Example for liquid in liquid binary solution is ______.
(a) Copper dissolved in gold
(b) Water vapour in the air
(c) Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water
(d) NaCl dissolved in water.
Answer:
(c) Ethyl alcohol dissolved in water

Question 6.
Which one of the following is an aqueous solvent?
(a) Benzene
(b) Acetone
(c) Alcohol
(d) Water.
Answer:
(d) Water.

Question 7.
Mass percentage of a solution is independent of:
(a) temperature
(b) amount of solute
(c) amount of solvent
(d) chemical nature of the solute
Answer:
(a) temperature

Question 8.
Solubility is equal to ______.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\text { Mass of the solute }}{\text { Mass of the solvent }} \times 100\)

Question 9.
In which case solubility increases with increase in temperature?
(a) Endothermic process
(b) Exothermic process
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Endothermic process

Question 10.
The factor/factors which affect the solubility of a solute:
(a) Nature of the solute and solvent
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
The effect of pressure on the solubility of a gas in a liquid is given by ______.
(a) Hess’s law
(b) Ohm’s law
(c) Henry’s law
(d) Gases law.
Answer:
(c) Henry’s law

Question 12.
5% sugar solution means ______.
(a) 5 g of sugar in 95 g of water
(b) 50 g of sugar in 50 g of water
(c) 20 g of sugar in 80 g of water
(d) 95 g of sugar in 5 g of water.
Answer:
(a) 5 g of sugar in 95 g of water

Question 13.
The water of crystallisation present in white vitriol is:
(a) 2
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 24
Answer:
(b) 7

Question 14.
Mass percentage is independent of ______.
(a) density
(b) volume
(c) pressure
(d) temperature.
Answer:
(d) temperature.

Question 15.
Volume percentage is expressed as ______.
(a) v/v
(b) w/w
(c) v/w
(d) w/v.
Answer:
(a) v/v

Question 16.
When the temperature increases, volume percentage ______.
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) no change
(d) increases then decrease.
Answer:
(b) Decreases

Question 17.
The mass of NaCl needed to form saturated solution in 50 g of water at 30°C. When the solubility of NaCl is 36 g at 30°C is:
(a) 9 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 57 g
(d) 19 g
Answer:
(b) 18 g

Question 18.
Zinc sulphate heptahydrate is also called as ______.
(a) Blue Vitriol
(b) Epsom salt
(c) Green Vitriol
(d) White Vitriol.
Answer:
(d) white Vitriol.
Question 19.
Water of crystallization of blue vitriol is ______.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 2.
Answer:
(b) 5

Question 20.
On heating copper sulphate pentahydrate crystals ______.
(a) blue colour changes into green
(b) green colour changes into blue
(c) blue colour changes into colourless
(d) no colour changes.
Answer:
(c) blue colour changes into colourless

Question 21.
Water of crystallization of Epsom salt is ______.
(a) 1
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 1.
Answer:
(d) 7.

Question 22.
Hygroscopic substances are used as ______.
(a) drying agents
(b) hydrating agents
(c) freezing agents
(d) reducing agents.
Answer:
(a) drying agents

Question 23.
If two liquids are mutually soluble, they are called _____ liquids.
(a) miscible
(b) immiscible
(c) insoluble
(d) viscous.
Answer:
(a) miscible

Question 24.
Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water because of ______.
(a) as the temperature decreases, the solubility of dissolved oxygen increases
(b) as the temperature increases, the solubility of dissolved oxygen increases
(c) as the temperature increases, the solubility of dissolved oxygen decreases
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) as the temperature decreases, the solubility of dissolved oxygen increases

Question 25.
The process of food assimilation by man is in the form of ______.
(a) solution
(b) solid
(c) solute
(d) solvent.
Answer:
(a) solution

Question 26.
Common salt in water is an example of ______.
(a) Colloidal solution
(b) Binary solution
(c) Suspension
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(b) Binary solution

Question 27.
36 g of NaCl in 100 g of water is a ____ solution.
(a) Non – aqueous
(b) Unsaturated
(c) Supersaturated
(d) Saturated.
Answer:
(d) Saturated.
Question 28.
Nitrogen in soil is an example of _____ solution in nature.
(a) saturated
(b) unsaturated
(c) supersaturated
(d) aqueous.
Answer:
(a) saturated

Question 29.
The solubility of CuSO₄ in H₂O is ______ at 20°C.
(a) 36 g
(b) 20.7 g
(c) 10 g
(d) 95 g.
Answer:
(b) 20.7 g

Question 30.
The solubility of NaNO₃ in 100 g water at 25°C is ______.
(a) 36 g
(b) 95 g
(c) 184 g
(d) 92 g.
Answer:
(d) 92 g.

Question 31.
Which of the following affect solubility?
(a) Temperature
(b) Nature of solute and solvent
(c) Pressure
(d) all the above.
Answer:
(d) all the above.

Question 32.
In _____ process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.
(a) exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) isothermic
(d) adiabatic.
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 33.
In ______ process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
(a) exothermic
(b) adiabatic
(c) endothermic
(d) isothermic.
Answer:
(a) exothermic

Question 34.
Increase in ______ increases the solubility of gases.
(a) temperature
(b) pressure
(c) no. of moles
(d) concentration.
Answer:
(b) pressure

Question 35.
The solubility of NaBr in H₂O is ______.
(a) 36 g
(b) 95 g
(c) 184 g
(d) 92 g.
Answer:
(b) 95 g

Question 36.
The gas – filled in soft drinks in ______.
(a) O₂
(b) N₂
(c) CO₂
(d) H₂
Answer:
(c) CO₂

Question 37.
The solubility of KNO₃ in water is ______ process.
(a) Exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) Isothermic
(d) Adiabatic.
Answer:
(b) endothermic

Question 38.
The solubility of CaO in water is ______ process.
(a) Exothermic
(b) endothermic
(c) Adiabatic
(d) Isothermic.
Answer:
(a) Exothermic

Question 39.
The solubility of NaI in water is ______.
(a) 184 g
(b) 92 g
(c) 95 g
(d) 36 g.
Answer:
(a) 184 g

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
A solution is a _____ mixture of two or more substances.
Answer:
Homogeneous.

Question 2.
Common salt dissolved in water is an example for _____ solution.
Answer:
Binary.

Question 3.
In a solution, the component present in a lesser amount by weight is called ____ and in a large amount by weight is called ______.
Answer:
Solute, solvent.

Question 4.
The solution in which water acts as a solvent is called ______ and the solution in which Benzene acts as a solvent is called ______.
Answer:

1. The aqueous solution,
2. Non – aqueous solution.

Question 5.
20 g of NaCl in 100 g of water is _____ solution.
Answer:
Unsaturated.

Question 6.
36 g of NaCl in 100 g of water at room temperature forms a ____ solution.
Answer:
Saturated.

Question 7.
Nitrogen in soil is an example for _____ in nature.
Answer:
Saturated solution.

Question 8.
A solution which has more of solute than the saturated solution at a given temperature is called ______ solution.
Answer:
Supersaturated.

Question 9.
In _____ process, solubility increases with ______ in temperature.
Answer:
Endothermic, increase.

Question 10.
In an ______ process, solubility decreases with ______ in temperature.
Answer:
Exothermic, increase.

Question 11.
The solubility of KNO₃ increases with the _____ in temperature.
Answer:
Increase.

Question 12.
The solubility of CaO decreases with the ______ in temperature.
Answer:
Increase.

Question 13.
The solubility of oxygen is _____ in cold water.
Answer:
More.

Question 14.
A polar compound is insoluble in _____ solvent.
Answer:
Non – polar.

Question 15.
An increase in ______ increases the solubility of a gas in a liquid.
Answer:
Pressure.

Question 16.
______ gas is filled in soft drinks using the effect of pressure.
Answer:
CO₂

Question 17.
Hygroscopic substances are used as ______.
Answer:
Drying agents.

Question 18.
Anhydrous calcium chloride is an example of ______.
Answer:
hygroscopic substance.

Question 19.
Hygroscopic substances absorb moisture without changing their ______.
Answer:
Physical state.

Question 20.
Deliquescent substances lose their ______.
Answer:
Crystalline shape.

Question 21.
Ferric chloride is an example of ______.
Answer:
Deliquescent substances.

Question 22.
On heating, hydrated crystalline salts lose their ______.
Answer:
Water of crystallization.

Question 23.
The number of water molecules in blue vitriol is ______.
Answer:
Five.

Question 24.
The number of water molecules in magnesium sulphate heptahydrate is ______.
Answer:
Seven.

Question 25.
Mass percentage is _______ to temperature.
Answer:
Independent.

Question 26.
To qualify the solute in a solution, we can use the term ______.
Answer:
Concentration.

Question 27.
Based on the amount of solute, the solution is classified into ________ types.
Answer:
Three.

Question 28.
Zinc dissolved in copper is an example of ______ solution.
Answer:
Solid in solid.

Question 29.
______ is an example of gas in the liquid.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide dissolved in water.

Question 30.
______ and _______ are in the form of solution to decide the physiological activity of human beings.
Answer:
Blood, Lymph.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

i. Sugar in water	(a) Exothermic process
ii. Sulphur in carbon sulphide	(b) Aqueous solution
iii. The solubility of CaO	(c) Endothermic process
iv. Solubility of KNO3	(d) Non-aqueous solution

Answer:
i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c.

Question 2.

i. Saturated solution	(a) Sulphur in acetone
ii. Unsaturated solution	(b) 56 g NaCl in water
iii. Supersaturated solution	(c) 10 g of NaCl in water
iv. Non-aqueous solution	(d) 36 g of NaCl in water

Answer:
i – d, ii – c, iii – b, iv – a.

Question 3.

i. Solubility of KNO3	(a) decreases with increase in temperature
ii. The solubility of CaO	(b) increases with increase in pressure
iii. The solubility of oxygen	(c) increases with increase in temperature
iv. Solubility of CO2	(d) more in cold water

Answer:
i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b.

Question 4.

i. Mercury with sodium	(a) Liquid in gas
ii. NaCl in water	(b) Liquid in solid
iii. CO2 in water	(c) Solid in liquid
iv. Water vapour in air	(d) Gas in liquid

Answer:
i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a.

Question 5.

Solute	Solubility
i. CaCO3	(a) 80
ii. NH3	(b) 91
iii. NaOH	(c) 0.0013
iv. C6H12O6	(d) 48

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b.

Question 6.

i. Epsom salt	(a) ZnSO4.7H2O
ii. Green Vitriol	(b) MgSO4.7H2O
iii. White Vitriol	(c) SiO2
iv. Silica gel	(d) FeSO4.7H2O

Answer:
i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c.

IV. State whether true or false. If false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances.

Question 2.
A solution contains four components, it is called as a binary solution.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A solution contains two components, it is called as a binary solution.

Question 3.
The solution in which water acts as a solvent, it is called a non-aqueous solution.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The solution in which water acts as a solvent, it is called an aqueous solution.

Question 4.
The solution of sulphur in CS₂ is a suitable example of a non-aqueous solution.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Nitrogen in soil is an example of a supersaturated solution.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Nitrogen in the soil is an example of a saturated solution.

Question 6.
The solubility of CuSO₄ in H₂O is 36 g at 25°C.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Solubility of CuSO₄ in H₂O is 20.7 g at 20°C.

Question 7.
100 ml of water can dissolve 36 g of NaCl at 25°C to attain saturation.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
In an endothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: In an endothermic process, solubility increases with increase in temperature.

Question 9.
In an exothermic process, solubility decreases with increase in temperature.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
The solubility of CaO increases with the increase in temperature.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The solubility of CaO decreases with the increase in temperature.

Question 11.
The solubility of oxygen is more in cold water.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
SO₂ gas is filled in soft drinks using the effect of pressure.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: CO₂ gas is filled in soft drinks using the effect of pressure.

Question 13.
Ether act as a universal solvent.
False.
Correct statement: Water acts universal solvent.

Question 14.
Covalent compounds are soluble in water.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Covalent compounds are insoluble in water.

Question 15.
36 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms a saturated solution.
Answer:
True.

Question 16.
40 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms an unsaturated solution.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: 40 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms a supersaturated solution.

Question 17.
Aquatic animals live more in hot regions.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Aquatic animals live more in cold regions.

Question 18.
Mass percentage is dependent of temperature.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Mass percentage is independent of temperature.

Question 19.
Hygroscopic substances do not change their physical state on exposure to air.
Answer:
True.

Question 20.
Deliquescent substances do not change their physical state on exposure to air.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Deliquescent substances change its physical state on exposure to air.

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Salt solution-common salt dissolved in water is an example of a binary solution.
Reason (R): A solution with two components is called a binary solution.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Sugar in water is a true solution.
Reason (R): True solution is a homogeneous mixture that contains small solute particles that are dissolved throughout the solvent.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Solution of sulphur in CS₂ is an example of a non-aqueous solution.
Reason (R): The solution in which any liquid other than water acts as a solvent is called the non – aqueous solution.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Solubility of KNO₃ increases with increase in temperature.
Reason (R): Solubility of KNO₃ is an endothermic process.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Aquatic species are more comfortable in cold water.
Reason (R): Solubility of oxygen is more in cold water.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 6.
Assertion (A): CO₂ gas is filled in soft drinks using the effect of pressure.
Reason (R): A decrease in pressure increases the solubility of a gas in a liquid.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Aqueous copper sulphate is a binary solution.
Reason (R): Copper sulphate solution contains two components i.e., one solute-copper sulphate and one solvent-water.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Water act as a universal solvent.
Reason (R): Most of the substances are soluble in water.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 9.
Assertion (A): When Blue vitriols are gently heated it turns colourless.
Reason (R): It loses five water molecules and becomes anhydrous compounds.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Anhydrous calcium chloride is an example of a hygroscopic substance.
Reason (R): Anhydrous calcium chloride changes its physical state on exposure to air.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
Answer:
(d) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
State Henry’s Law.
Answer:
The solubility of a gas in liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 2.
Define solute and solvent.
Answer:
In a solution, the component present in a lesser amount by weight is called solute and the component present in a large amount by weight is called solvent.

Question 3.
What is a
(i) saturated and
(ii) supersaturated solution?
Answer:
(i) Saturated : A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent at a given temperature.
(ii) Super saturated solution : A solution which contains more solute than the saturated solution at a given temperature.

Question 4.
Why water is known as a universal solvent?
Answer:
Most of the solutes (substances) are soluble in water and so it is called universal solvent.

Question 5.
Common salt dissolves in water easily. Give reason.
Answer:
Common salt is an electrolyte. It is easily dissociated into its ions like Na⁺ and Cl^– in polar solvent water. So NaCl (common salt) an inorganic compound readily dissolves in water.

Question 6.
What is meant by the ternary solution?
Answer:
Solutions which contain three components are called ternary solutions.
E.g. If salt and sugar are added to water, both dissolves in water forming a solution. Here two solutes are dissolved in one solvent. Therefore it is a ternary solution.

Question 7.
Name the type of solution formed in the following cases;

1. 20 g of NaCl in 100 g of water at 25°C
2. 36 g of NaCl in 100 g of water at 25°C
3. Nitrogen in soil
4. Sulphur in CS₂.

Answer:

1. Unsaturated
2. Saturated
3. Saturated
4. Non-aqueous solution

Question 8.
What are concentrated and dilute solutions?
Answer:
Two solutions having the same solute and solvent, the one which contains a higher amount of solute per the given amount of solvent is said to be concentrated solution and the other is said to be dilute solution.

Question 9.
Define Henry’s law.
Answer:
To quantify the solute in a solution, we can use the term concentration. The concentration of a solution may be defined as the amount of solute present in a given amount of solution or solvent.
(or)
The solubility of a gas in a liquid is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 10.
Define Mass percentage.
Answer:
Mass percentage of a solution is defined as the percentage by mass of the solute present in the solution.
Mass percentage,
\(=\frac{\text { Mass of the solute }}{\text { Mass of the solution }} \times 100\).

Question 11.
What is water crystallization?
Answer:
The number of water molecules found in the crystalline substance is called water of crystallization.

Question 12.
What are hygroscopic substances?
Answer:
Certain substances, when exposed to the atmospheric air at ordinary temperature, absorb moisture without changing their physical state. Such substances are called hygroscopic substances and this property is called hygroscopy.

Question 13.
List out the examples for hygroscopic substances.
Answer:

• Conc.Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄).
• Phosphorus Pentoxide (P₂O₅).
• Quick lime (CaO).
• Silica gel (SiO₂).
• Anhydrous calcium chloride (CaCl₂).

Question 14.
What are the Deliquescent substances?
Answer:
Certain substances which are so hygroscopic, when exposed to the atmospheric air at ordinary temperatures, absorb enough water and get completely dissolved. Such substances are called deliquescent substances and this property is called deliquescence.

Question 15.
When is deliquescence is maximum?
Answer:

• The temperature is low
• The atmosphere is humid.

Question 16.
Give examples for deliquescent substances.
Answer:

• Calcium chloride (CaCl₂)
• Caustic soda (NaOH)
• Caustic potash (KOH)
• Ferric chloride (FeCl₃).

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
From the table given below, furnish your points of inference.

Substance	Solubility at 25°C
NaCl	36 g
NaBr	95 g
NaI	184 g

Answer:
Inferences:

• At 25°C, 36g NaCl is dissolved in 100 g water to give a saturated solution.
• At 25°C, 95 g NaBr is dissolved in 100 g water to get a saturated solution.
• At 25°C, 184g Nal is dissolved in 100 g water to get a saturated solution.
• The solubility of a solute at a given solvent at a particular temperature is defined as the number of grams of solute necessary to saturate 100 g of the solvent at that temperature.
• In the above tabular column, we infer that the solubility of NaI is the highest and the solubility of NaCl is the lowest.
• All the NaCl, NaBr, Nal solution in water are called aqueous solutions.
• Depending upon the amount of the solute, the solutions are classified as a saturated and unsaturated solution.
• The above solutions are saturated solutions.

Question 2.
Distinguish between the saturated and unsaturated solution at a temperature of 25°C using the data given below (Note: Solubility of NaCl is 36 g).

1. 16 g NaCl in 100 g water
2. 36 g NaCl in 100 g water.

Answer:
The solubility of NaCl is 36g.

1. 16 g NaCl in 100 g water is an unsaturated solution.
2. 36 g NaCl in 100 g water is a saturated solution.

Saturated Solution	Unsaturated Solution
1. A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent at a given temperature is called a saturated solution.	1. A solution in which the solute is lesser in the amount in the solvent is called unsaturated solution.
2. In this solution, no more solute can be dissolved. If more of solute is added, it will not dissolve to give a supersaturated solution.	2. More of solute can be dissolved to get a saturated solution.

Question 3.
Write a note on the type of solution based on the amount of solute present in a solution.
Answer:
Based on the amount of solute, in the given amount of solvent, solutions are classified into the following types.
(i) Saturated solution : A solution in which no more solute can be dissolved in a definite amount of the solvent at a given temperature is called saturated solution. Eg: 36 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms saturated solution.Further addition of sodium chloride, leave it undissolved.

(ii) Unsaturated solution : Unsaturated solution is one that contains less solute than that of the saturated solution at a given temperature. Eg: 10 g or 20 g or 30 g of Sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms an unsaturated solution.

(iii) Super saturated solution : Supersaturated solution is one that contains more solute than the saturated solution at a given temperature. Eg: 40 g of sodium chloride in 100 g of water at 25°C forms super saturated solution. This state can be achieved by altering any other conditions liken temperature, pressure. Super saturated solutions are unstable, and the solute is reappearing as crystals when the solution is disturbed.

Question 4.
Find the concentration of a solution in terms of weight per cent if 20 g of common salt is dissolved in 50 g of water.
Answer:

VIII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
Observe the diagram.

1. Which is a concentrated solution and why?
2. Which is dilute solution and why?
   

Answer:

1. Flask (b) is a concentrated solution. Because (b) flask contains a large number of solute particles than (a) flask.
2. Flask (a) is a dilute solution. Because (a) flask contains a lesser number of solute particles than (b) flask.

Question 2.
Where we use the phrase – “Like dissolves Like” and explain the meaning of the phrase?
Answer:
The phrase “like dissolves like” is often used for predicting solubility. This expression means that dissolving occurs when similarities exist between the solvent and the solute. For example, Common salt is a polar compound and dissolves readily in polar solvent like water.

Question 3.
Why bubbling occurs when water is boiled?
Answer:
The solubility of a gas in liquid decrease with increase in temperature. Generally, water contains dissolved oxygen. When water is boiled, the solubility of oxygen in water decreases, so oxygen escapes in the form of bubbles.

Question 4.
What happens when blue vitriol is heated? Explain.
Answer:
When blue vitriol (Copper sulphate pentahydrate) crystals are gently heated, it loses it five water molecules and becomes colourless anhydrous copper sulphate.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Additional Problems Solved

Question 1.
Take 10 g of common salt and dissolve it in 40 g of water. Find the concentration of a solution in terms of weight per cent.
Solution:
Weight percent = \(\frac{\text { Weight of the solute }}{\text { Weight of solute }+\text { Weight of solvent }} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{10}{10+40} \times 100=20 \%\).

Question 2.
2 g of potassium sulphate was dissolved in 12.5 ml of water. On cooling, the first crystals appeared at 60°C. What is the solubility of potassium sulphate in water at 60°C? Solution. 12.5 ml of water weighs 12.5 g.
Solution:
In 12.5 g of water, the amount of potassium sulphate dissolved is 2 g.
In 1 g of water, the amount of potassium sulphate dissolved is 2 / 12.5 g.
Hence in 100 g of water, the amount of potassium sulphate dissolved is (2 × 100) / 12.5 = 16 g.
The solubility of potassium sulphate in the water at 60°C is 16 g.

Question 3.
50 g of a saturated solution of NaCl at 30°C is evaporated to dryness and 13.2 g of dry NaCl was obtained. Find the solubility of NaCl at 30°C in water.
Solution:
Mass of water in solution = 50 – 13.2 = 36.8 g
Solubility of NaCl
\(\begin{aligned} &=\frac{\text { Mass of } \mathrm{NaCl}}{\text { Mass of water }} \times 100 \\=& \frac{13.2}{36.8} \times 100=36 \mathrm{g} \end{aligned}\)
Solubility of NaCl = 36 g (approx).

Question 4.
An empty evaporating dish weighs 20.0 g. After adding a saturated solution of NaNO₃, the dish weighs 66.0 g. When evaporated to dryness, the dish with crystals weighs 42.5 g. Find the solubility of NaNO₃ at 20°C.
Solution:
Weight of saturated solution of NaNO₃ = (66.0 – 20.0) g = 46.0 g
Weight of crystals of NaNO₃ = (41.5 – 20.0) g = 21.5 g
Weight of water in saturated solution = (46.0 – 21.5) g = 24.5 g
Solubility of NaNO3 = \(\frac{\text { Weight of NaNO }_{3} \text { crystals }}{\text { Weight of water }} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{21.5}{24.5} \times 100=87.7 \mathrm{g}\)
Solubility of NaNO₃ at 20°C is = 87.7 g in 100 g H₂O.

Question 5.
30 g sugar is dissolved in 170g of water. Calculate the concentration of solution in terms of weight percent.
Solution:
Weight percent = \(\frac{\text { Weight of the solute }}{\text { Weight of solute }+\text { Weight of solvent }} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{30}{30+170} \times 10=15 \%\).

Question 6.
50 g common salt is dissolved in 150 g of water; Find oat the concentration of solution in terms of weight percent.
Solution:
Weight percent = \(\frac{\text { Weight of the solute }}{\text { Weight of solute }+\text { Weight of solvent }} \times 100\)
\(=\frac{50}{50+150} \times 100\)
= 25 %.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.7

10th Maths Exercise 3.7 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the square root of the following rational expressions.

Solution:

Ex 3.7 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the square root of the following
(i) 4x² + 20x + 25
(ii) 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
(iii) 1 + \(\frac{1}{x^{6}}+\frac{2}{x^{3}}\)
(iv) (4x² – 9x + 2) (7x² – 13x – 2) (28x² – 3x – 1)
(v) ( 2x² + \(\frac{17}{6} x\) + 1) (\(\frac{3}{2} x^{2}\) + 4x + 2)(\(\frac{4}{3} x^{2}+\frac{11}{3} x\) + 2)
Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.9

10th Maths Exercise 2.9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the sum of the following series
(i) 1 + 2 + 3 + … + 60
(ii) 3 + 6 + 9 + … + 96
(iii) 51 + 52 + 53 + … + 92
(iv) 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + … + 225
(v) 6² + 7² + 8² + … + 21²
(vi) 10³ + 11³ + 12³ + … + 20³
(vii) 1 + 3 + 5 + … + 71
Solution:
(i) 1 + 2 + 3 + ……… + 60

= 4278 – 1275 = 3003
(iv) 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 + … + 225
= 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² + ……… + 15²
\(\sum_{1}^{n} n^{2}=\frac{n(n+1)(2 n+1)}{6}\)

Ex 2.9 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
If 1 + 2 + 3 + … + k = 325, then find 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + …………. + K³.
Solution:
1 + 2 + 3 + … + K = 325

If 1 + 2 + 3 … + k = 325
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + … + K³ = (325)² = 105625

10th Maths Exercise 2.9 Answers Question 3.
If 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + … + K³ = 44100 then find 1 + 2 + 3 + … + k.
Solution:
If 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + … + K³ = 44100
1 + 2 + 3 + … + K = \(\sqrt { 44100 }\)
= 210

Exercise 2.9 Class 10 Maths Question 4.
How many terms of the series 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + … should be taken to get the sum 14400?
Solution:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + n³ = 14400
\(\left(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right)^{2}\) = 14400 = (120)²
\(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = \(\sqrt { 14400 }\) = 120
n(n + 1) = 240
Method 1:
n² + n – 240 = 0
n² + 16n – 15n – 240 = 0
n(n + 16) – 15(n + 16) = 0
(n + 16)(n – 15) = 0
n = -16, 15
∴ 15 terms to be taken to get the sum 14400.
Method 2:
n² + n – 240 = 0

Exercise 2.9 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 5.
The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is 285, while the sum of their cubes is 2025. Find the value of n.
Solution:
1² + 2² + 3² + …… + n² = 285
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + …… + n³ = 2025

10th Maths Exercise 2.9 Question 6.
Rekha has 15 square colour papers of sizes 10 cm, 11 cm, 12 cm,…, 24 cm. How much area can be decorated with these colour papers?
Solution:
10² + 11² + 12² + … + 24²
= (1² + 2² + … + 24²) – (1² + 2² + … + 9²)

∴ Rekha has 4615 cm² colour papers. She can decorate 4615 cm² area with these colour papers.

Ex 2.9 Class 10 Question 7.
Find the sum of the series (2³ – 1) + (4³ – 3³) + (6³ – 15³) +… to (i) n terms (ii) 8 terms.
Solution:
(2³ – 1) + (4³ – 3³) + (6³ – 15³) + ……… n

= 4n³ + 3n² = sum of ‘n’ terms.
When n = 8
Sum = 4 × 8³ + 3 × 8²
= 2048 + 192 = 2240

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 3 The Story of Mulan

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The Story of Mulan Textual Questions

A. Choose the best answers.

1. Mulan goes to the battle instead of her father because ……………….. .
(a) she wants to be a soldier
(b) she was asked to join the army
(c) her father is old
(d) her brother is sick
Answer:
(c) her father is old

2. What did Mulan do before leaving the house?
(a) took leave from her mother
(b) cut off her hair
(c) prayed
(d), made a dress for war
Answer:
(b) cut off her hair

3. What is the story about?
(a) winning
(b) friendship
(c) women empowerment
(d) patriotism
Answer:
(c) women empowerment

4. The emperor asked Mulan to stay with him in the palace as his ……………….. .
(a) wife
(b) royal adviser
(c) army general
(d) friend
Answer:
(b) royal adviser

5. The emperor gave Mulan ……………….. .
(a) six horses and six swords
(b) a death sentence
(c) gold
(d) six camels
Answer:
(a) six horses and six swords

6. How did people of the village react to Mulan after her return from the battle?
(a) cheered her
(b) mocked her
(c) punished her
(d) scolded her
Answer:
(a) cheered her

The Story Of Mulan 10th Standard Additional Questions

1. The classic story of Mulan is based on the legend of ………………….. .
(a) Hua Mulan
(b) Hans Mulan
(c) Fa Mulan
(d) Hua Mulan
Answer:
(a) Hua Mulan

2. Many years ago, China was in the …………………. of a great war.
(a) beginning
(b) end
(c) middle
(d) process
Answer:
(c) middle

3. Mulan, a …………… girl who lived in a faraway village of China, heard the news.
(a) young
(b) married
(c) widowed
(d) teenage
Answer:
(d) teenage

4. Mulan heard the Emperor’s command while ……………….. .
(a) grazing the cows
(b) feeding the horses
(c) washing clothes
(d)making porridge
Answer:
(c) washing clothes

5. Mulan’s father was sitting in a chair, ……………………. a piece of wood.
(a) carving
(b) chiseling
(c) scraping
(d) fixing
Answer:
(a) carving

6. Mulan’s father said that Mulan’s brother was a ……………. .
(a) sickly child
(b) child
(c)deserter
(d) traitor
Answer:
(b) child

7. Mulan poured her father a cup of …………… and handed it to him.
(a) coffee
(b) green tea
(c)cold coffee
(d) tea
Answer:
(d) tea

8. Mulan cut off her long, ……………….. hair.
(a) blonde
(b) grey
(c) black
(d) lustrous
Answer:
(c) black

9. For years, Mulan was trained in ………….. by her father.
(a) Judo
(b) Kung Fu
(c) Taekwondo
(d) Aikido
Answer:
(b) Kung Fu

10. Mulan climbed on a family ………….. and set off to join the Emperor’s army.
(a) pony
(b) elephant
(c) tiger
(d) horse
Answer:
(d) horse

B. Identify the character or speaker of the following lines.

1. I heard about it in town.
Answer:
Mulan’s father

2. I am your son now.
Answer:
Mulan

3. The General is a woman?
Answer:
The soldiers

4. Mulan, stay with me in the palace.
Answer:
The Emperor of China

5. You are too kind sir.
Answer:
Mulan

The Story Of Mulan Summary Additional:

1. One man from each Chinese family must join the army.
Answer:
The Emperor

2. Did you hear what the Emperor says each family must do?
Answer:
Mulan

3. Well, I may as well go pack up.
Answer:
Mulan’s father

4. Why at your age must you keep up with all those young men?
Answer:
Mulan

5. What else can be done?
Answer:
Mulan’s father

6. Of course that’s true.
Answer:
Mulan

7. Please sit for a minute. I will be right
Answer:
back.
Mulan

8. Look at me. I am your son now.
Answer:
Mulan

9. I will go to your place. I will do my part for China.
Answer:
Mulan

10. “Na, you c.unot do this!
Answer:
Mulan’s father :

11. You showed me boss to use a sword.
Answer:
Mulan

12. Only so that you could stay safe
Answer:
Mulan’s father

13. I never meant for you logo to war.
Answer:
Mulan’s father

14. You know as well as I do that you will die!
Answer:
Mulan’s father

15. Take care of yourself.
Answer:
Mulan

16. What I wish most of all is to return home to my family.
Answer:
Mulan

17. “How can this be?”
Answer:
Some soldiers

18. “She tricked us!”
Answer:
Some soldiers

19. “We will not fight for a woman!”
Answer:
Some soldiers

20. “Punish her! Make her pay!
Answer:
Some soldiers

21. The cost is for her to die!
Answer:
Some soldiers

22. With Mulan, we win every battle!”
Answer:
Other soldiers

23. “Stay away from our General!”
Answer:
Other soldiers

24. “Everyone! A surprise attack is coming!”
Answer:
A soldier

25. Someone as smart as you would be a fine royal adviser.
Answer:
The Emperor

26. Then at least take these fine gifts.
Answer:
The Emperor

27. So everyone at your home and village will know I think of you.
Answer:
The Emperor

28. Tell my brother I said goodbye.
Answer:
Mulan

29. I love you.
Answer:
Mulan to her father

30. Listen please.
Answer:
Mulan

C. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

The Story Of Mulan Question Answer Question 1.
What was the emperor’s order?
Answer:
The Emperor’s order was that one man from each Chinese family must leave his family. to join the army.

The Story Of Mulan Summary 10th Standard Question 2.
Where did Mulan’s father hear about the emperor’s order?
Answer:
Mulan’s father heard about the Emperor’s order in town.

Mulan Questions And Answers Question 3.
Why couldn’t Mulan’s brother go to war?
Answer:
Mulan’s brother couldn’t go to the war because he was a child.

The Story Of Mulan Paragraph Question 4.
Why did Mulan disguise herself as a man?
Answer:
Mulan disguised herself as a man because women were not allowed to join the army.

10th English Supplementary Story In English Question 5.
How did the soldiers become sick?
Answer:
A bad fever swept through the army. So, many soldiers became sick.

Story Of Mulan Summary Question 6.
How would she be punished if found guilty?
Answer:
if found guilty, she would be killed.

10th English Unit 3 Supplementary Question 7.
Why did the emperor give her fine gifts?
Answer:
The Emperor gave her fine gifts because she won the battle and saved China.

The Story Of Mulan Summary In Tamil Question 8.
How did the soldiers come to know about Mulan’s real identity?
Answer:
When a bad fever swept the army, all the soldiers became sick. Even Mulan was affected by this fever. When the doctor examined Mulan in her tent, the doctor came to know that she was a woman and informed the soldiers.

The Story Of Mulan 10th English Additional:

The Story Of Mulan Supplementary Question 1.
W,here did the story of Mutan come from?
Answer:
Hua Mulan was a Chinese warrior woman who lived during the Northern and Southern dynasties, which was between 420 and 589 CE and her story was told through the “Ballad of Mulan.”

10th English Supplementary Story In Tamil Question 2.
How do you know that the story of Mulan ¡s a true story?
Answer:
Any legend is a story from ancient times and it is believed to be based mostly on true stories. Now, it’s possible that she was a real person, but it is largely believed that her story is fictional.

Question 3.
Why did Mutan take a decision risking her life?
Answer:
In response to the Emperor’s order, Mulan decided to risk her life since her father was aged and her only brother was a child. To add to these, she was also trained in Kung Fu by her father to stay safe.

Question 4.
Why should Mutan be considered a hero?
Answer:
Hua Mulan should be considered as a hero because she joined the all-male army to interchange her father’s place. It was really hard for a woman to make this choice in ancient China. She is my hero because she showed filial respect for her father, made an impact among her countrymen and was brave.

D. Answer the following questions in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Sketch the character of Mulan.
Answer:
Mulan was a brave warrior who saved China from the enemies. She was determined, courageous and intelligent. She was unselfish too. The incident which best attests to this trait was after returning from the war, the Emperor offered her the post of royal advisor. She refused the post and simply told that she wanted to return home. Mulan’s determination helped her through her adventures defeating the enemies’ army. She never gave up in bad situations. At war, she was very intelligent and was a quick planner. This attitude won her the war for the Chinese. She fought in the battle for twelve years and gained high merit. She refused any rewards except for six fine horses and six fine swords.

Question 2.
Do you agree with Mulan’s decision to go to war? Justify.
Answer:
Yes, Mulan’s decision to go to the war was correct. She is a patriotic girl who wanted to fight for her country. When the Emperor of China insisted that one man from each family should join the army, she was ready to join the army disguised as a man. At first, her father decided to join the army. But Mulan protested that he could not go as he was old and sick. Her brother was a child. So she decided to join the army. Her father was afraid that the Emperor would kill her, if he knew that she was a woman. But Mulan was confident that no one would find her. She cut her hair like a man and picked up the sword. She bade him goodbye, climbed on a horse and went to join the Emperor’s army.

Additional:

A. Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.

1. a. With her sword, she cut off her long, black hair.
b. No, my daughter, you cannot do this!
c. Many years ago, China was in the middle of a great war.
d. Look at me, I am your son now.
e. I will do my part for China.
Answers:
c, a, d, e, b
c. Many years ago, China was in the middle of a great war.
a. With her sword, she cut off her long, black hair.
d. Look at me, I am your son now.
e. I will do my part for China.
b. No, my daughter, you cannot do this!

2. a. But, I never meant for you to go to war.
b. Father, for years, you trained me in Kung Fu.
c. No one will find out, Father, said Mulan and kissed him goodbye.
d. Take care of yourself, father and tell my brother I said goodbye.
e. If they find out you are a woman, you know as well as I do that you will die!
Answers:
b, a, e, c, d
b. Father, for years, you trained me in Kung Fu.
a. But, I never meant for you to go to war.
e. If they find out you are a woman, you know as well as I do that you will die!
c. No one will find out, Father, said Mulan and kissed him goodbye.
d. Take care of yourself, father and tell my brother I said goodbye.

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrases given below to form a complete meaningful paragraph.

1. (put on/cannot do this / into her room /cut off her long / Going back to her father)

Mulan went (i) ………………. With her sword, she (ii) ……………., black hair. She (iii) …………… her father’s robe, (iv) …………….., Mulan said, “Look at me. I am your son now. I will go in your place. I will do my part for China.” “No, my daughter!” said the old man. “You (v) ……………. !”
Answers:
(i) into her room
(ii) cut off her long
(iii) put on
(iv) Going back to her father
(v) cannot do this

2. (she was safe / returned to her village / stay with me in the palace / smart as you / so glad that)

The Emperor was (i) ……………. Mulan had ended the long war. He set aside the rule about being a woman. “Mulan, (ii) ………………..,” he said. “Someone as (iii) …………….. would be a fine royal adviser.” Politely refusing the offer, Mulan (iv) ………….. with six fine horses and six fine swords. Everyone cheered that (v) ……………. The person who had saved China was their very own Mulan!
Answers:
(i) so glad that
(ii) stay with me in the palace
(iii) smart as you
(iv) returned to her village
(v) she was safe

C. Match the following appropriately:

1.

Answer:
(i)(c), (ii)(e), (iii)(d), (iv)(b), (v)(a).

2.
Answer:
(i)(d), (ii)(e), (iii)(a), (iv)(c), (v)(b).

D. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Many years ago, China was in the middle of a great war. The Emperor said that one man from each Chinese family must leave his family to join the army. Mulan, a teenage girl who lived in a faraway village of China, heard the news when she was outside, washing clothes.

Mulan ran into the house. Her father was sitting in a chair, carving a piece of wood. “Father!” she said. “Did you hear what the Emperor says each family must do?” “Yes,” said her old father, “I heard about it in town. Well, I may as well go pack up.” He put down his carving, stood up and walked very slowly to his room.“Wait!” said Mulan, “Father, you have not been well.

If I may say so, why at your age must you keep up with all those young men?” “What else can be done?” said her father. “Your brother is a child. He cannot go.” “Of course that’s true,” said Tvfrulan. “He is too little. But I have an idea.” She poured her father a cup of tea and handed it to him. “Father, have some tea. Please sit for a minute. I will be right back.” “Very well, dear,” said the father.

Mulan went into her room. With her sword, she cut off her long, black hair. She put on her father’s robe. Going back to her father, Mulan said, “Look at me. I am your son now. I will go in your place. I will do my part for China.” “No, my daughter!” said the old man. “You cannot do this!”

(а) What was order to the people of China in the middle of war from the Emperor?
Answer:
The Emperor ordered that one man from every Chinese family must leave his family to join the army.

(b) How did Mulan react to this order from the Emperor?
Answer:
Mulan, a teenage girl heard the news when she was washing clothes outside and decided to replace her dad who wasn’t feeling well.

(c) What was Mulan’s father doing at home when she ran into the house?
Answer:
When Mulan ran into the house, her father who was unwell was sitting on a chair and carving a piece of wood.

(d) Why didn’t Mulan want her father to respond to the Emperor’s order?
Answer:
Mulan did not want her father to go to war because he was aged and was unwell. She was sure that he would not be able to keep up with all the young men in the opponent’s army.

(e) How did Mulan prove to be a different kind of a girl child?
Answer:
Mulan was quick in thinking. She quickly went in, cut off her long black hair with her sword, put on her father’s robe and told her father that she would go as a son of a family to fight in the war.

2. “Father, listen please,” said Mulan. “For years, you trained me in Kung Fu. You showed me how to use a sword.” Mulan swung the sword back and forth with might.
“Only so that you could stay safe!” said her father. “I never meant for you to go to war. If they find out you are a woman, you know as well as I do that you will die!”
“No one will find out, Father,” said Mulan. She picked up her sword.
“Mulan!” said the Father. He tried to get up but had to hold on to his chair.

The daughter kissed him goodbye. “I love you, Father,” she said. “Take care of yourself. Tell my brother I said goodbye.” She climbed on a family horse. And off she went to join the Emperor’s army.

In the army, Mulan proved to be a brave soldier. In time, she was put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles went so well that she was put in charge of more soldiers. Her battles kept on going well. After a few years Mulan was given the top job – she would be General of the entire army. Not long after that, a very bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers were sick. And Mulan, the General of the Army, became sick, too. When the doctor came out of Mulan’s tent, he knew the truth.

(a) What martial art did Mulan’s father teach her? Why?
Answer:
Mulan’s father taught her the art of Kung Fu. He showed her how to use the sword so that she could stay safe and protect herself.

(b) What did the father fear about Mulan’s decision?
Answer:
Mulan’s father feared that she would be put to death if the army men found out that she was a woman and not a man.

(c) What did Mulan do before leaving to war?
Answer:
Mulan kissed her father goodbye and said that she loved him. She also asked him to take care of himself and convey her ‘goodbye’ to her little brother who was a child.

(d) What were Mulan’s accomplishments in the army?
Answer:
In the army, Mulan proved to be a brave soldier. Within a short time, she was put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles went so well that she was put in charge of more soldiers and after a few years she was given the top job – General of the entire army.

(e) What caused the other’s to identify Mulan’s identify?
Answer:
A bad fever swept through the army and Mulan was also a prey to it. This fever revealed her identity to others through the doctor who came to treat her.

E. Study the given mind map and fill in the incomplete details:

Answers:
(i) was in the middle of a great war.
(ii) one man from each Chinese family must leave his family.
(iii) heard the news when she was outside, washing clothes.
(iv) carving a piece of wood.
(v) what the Emperor says each family must do.

Answers:
(i) swept through the army.
(ii) Mulan, the General of the army,
(iii) he knew the truth
(iv) “The General is a woman?
(v) With Mulan, we win every battle! Stay away

The Story of Mulan Summary:

Introduction:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan and is mostly based on the information of her from the poem, ‘The Ballad of Mulan’. This restating of the old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who learns that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor.

Announcement from the Chinese:
When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes. She discusses the same with her father who had also heard of it when he had gone to the town. Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country and the honour of his family though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter. He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing that her father will never endure the rigours of war in his frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts yet convincing him. Mulan’s only brother who is a small child cannot pitch in.

Mulan joins the battle:
She takes blessings from her father, kisses him goodbye, wore his army clothes and rode on his horse after cutting her long hair short. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles go so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army.

Truth about Mulan:
Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth. Many soldiers disprove such a thought and want her to be punished to death because of gender disparity. However, some soldiers are broad minded and see the winning chances.

Mulan’s bravery and the acceptance of soldiers:
Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and goes outside. Though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge. It worked! The battle was won. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! You can be sure that after that last battle, no one cared anymore that Mulan was a woman.

Mulan’s final decision and the emperor’s gift:
The Emperor was glad that Mulan had ended the long war that he set aside the rule about being a woman. He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but she chose to go to her family, thanking the emperor. The emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her. Everyone cheered that she was safe and well honoured.

Conclusion:
The story depicts the daughter’ love for her fajher. Father wanted the girl to be able to defend herself and thus taught her sword fight and Kung Fu. How this girl hails to become a commander of an army from learning the art of war from her father is narrated in a fine manner to readers delight.

The Story of Mulan Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.13

10th Maths Exercise 3.13 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Determine the nature of the roots for the following quadratic equations
(i) 15.x² + 11.x + 2 = 0
(ii) x² – x – 1 = 0
(iii) \(\sqrt{2} t^{2}\) – 3t + \(3 \sqrt{2}\) = 0
(iv) 9y² – \(6 \sqrt{2} y\) + 2 = 0
(v) 9a²b²x² – 24abcdx + 16c²d² = 0 a ≠ 0, b ≠ 0
Solution:
(i) 15x² + 11x + 2 = 0 comparing with ax² + bx + c = 0.
Here a = 15, 6 = 11, c = 2.
Δ = b² – 4ac
= 11² -4 × 15 × 2
= 121 – 120
= 1 > 1.
∴ The roots are real and unequal.

(ii) x² – x – 1 = 0,
Here a = 1, b = -1, c = -1 .
Δ = b² – 4ac
= (-1)² – 4 × 1 × -1
= 1 + 4 = 5 > 0.
∴ The roots are real and unequal.

(iii) \(\sqrt{2} t^{2}\) – 3t + \(3 \sqrt{2}\) = 0
Here a = \(\sqrt{2}\), b = -3, c = \(3\sqrt{2}\)
Δ = b² – 4ac
= (-3)² – 4 × \(\sqrt{2}\) × \(3\sqrt{2}\)
= 9 – 24 = -15 < 0.
∴ The roots are not real.

(iv) 9y² – \(6 \sqrt{2} y\) + 2 = 0
a = 9, b = \(6\sqrt{2}\) , c = 2
Δ = b² – 4ac
= (\(6\sqrt{2}\))² – 4 × 9 × 2
= 36 × 2 – 72
= 72 – 72 = 0
∴ The roots are real and equal.

(v) 9a²b²x² – 24abcdx + 16c²d² = 0
Δ = b² – 4ac
= (-24abcd)² – 4 × 9a²b² × 16c²d²
= 576a²b²c²d² – 576a²b²c²d²
= 0
∴ The roots are real and equal.

Ex 3.13 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the value(s) of ‘A’ for which the roots of the following equations are real and equal.
(i) (5k – 6)x² + 2kx + 1 = 0
Answer:
Here a = 5k – 6 ; b = 2k and c = 1
Since the equation has real and equal roots ∆ = 0.

∴ b² – 4ac = 0
(2k)² – 4(5k – 6) (1) = 0
4k² – 20k + 24 = 0
(÷ 4) ⇒ k² – 5k + 6 = 0
(k – 3) (k – 2) = 0
k -3 = 0 or k – 2 = 0
k = 3 or k = 2
The value of k = 3 or 2

(ii) kx² + (6k + 2)x + 16 = 0
Answer:
Here a = k, b = 6k + 2; c = 16
Since the equation has real and equal roots

∆ = 0
b² – 4ac = 0
(6k + 2)² – 4(k) (16) = 0
36k² + 4 + 24k – 4(k) (16) = 0
36k² – 40k + 4 = 0
(÷ by 4) ⇒ 9k² – 10k + 1 = 0
9k² – 9k – k + 1 = 0
9k(k – 1) – 1(k – 1) = 0
9k (k – 1) -1 (k – 1) = 0
(k – 1) (9k – 1) = 0
k – 1 or 9k – 1 = 0
k = 1 or k = \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 } \)
The value of k = 1 or \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 } \)

10th Maths Exercise 3.13 Solution Question 3.
If the roots of (a – b)x² + (b – c)x + (c – a) = 0 are real and equal, then prove that b, a, c are in arithmetic progression.
Solution:
(a – b)x² + (b – c)x + (c – a) = 0
A = (a – b), B = (b – c), C = (c – a)
Δ = b² – 4ac = 0
⇒ (b – c)² – 4(a – b)(c – a)
⇒ b² – 2bc + c² -4 (ac – bc – a² + ab)
⇒ b² – 2bc + c² – 4ac + 4bc + 4a² – 4ab = 0
⇒ 4a² + b² + c² + 2bc – 4ac – 4ab = 0
⇒- (-2a + b + c)² = 0 [∵ (a + b + c) = a² + b² + c² + 2ab + 2bc + 2ca)]
⇒ 2a + b + c = 0
⇒ 2 a = b + c
∴ a, b, c are in A.P.

10th Maths Exercise 3.13 Question 4.
If a, b are real then show that the roots of the equation
(a – b)x² – 6(a + b)x – 9(a – b) = 0 are real and unequal.
Answer:
(a – b)x² – 6(a + b)x – 9(a – b) = 0
Here a = a – b ; b = – 6 (a + b); c = – 9 (a – b)
∆ = b² – 4ac
= [- 6(a + b)]² – 4(a – b)[-9(a – b)]
= 36(a + b)² + 36(a – b)(a – b)
= 36 (a + b)² + 36 (a – b)²
= 36 [(a + b)² + (a – b)²]
The value is always greater than 0
∆ = 36 [(a + b)² + (a – b)²] > 0
∴ The roots are real and unequal.

Exercise 3.13 Question 5.
If the roots of the equation (c² – ab)x² – 2(a² – bc)x + b² – ac = 0 are real and equal prove that either a = 0 (or) a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc.
Solution:
(c² – ab)x² – 2(a² – bc)x + (b² – ac) – 0
Δ = B² – 4AC = 0 (since the roots are real and equal)
⇒ 4(a^2′ – bc)² – 4 (c² – ab)(b² – ac) = 0
⇒ 4(a⁴ – 2a²bc + b²c²) – 4(c²b² – ab³ – ac³ + a²bc) = 0
⇒ 4a⁴ + 4b²c² – 8a²bc – 4c²b² + 4ab³ + 4ac³ – 4a²bc = 0
⇒ 4a⁴+ 4ab³ + 4ac³ – 4a²bc – 8a²bc = 0
⇒ 4a [a³ + b³ + c³] = 0 or a = 0
⇒ a = 0 or [a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc] = 0
⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc = 0
⇒ a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc or a = 0
Hence proved.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 6 Nuclear Physics

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Textual Solved Problems

10th Science Nuclear Physics Question 1.
Identify A, B, C, and D from the following nuclear reactions.

Solution:

A is alpha particle, B is neutron, C is proton and D is electron.

Nuclear Physics 10th Class Question 2.
A radon specimen emits radiation of 3.7 × 10³ GBq per second. Convert this disintegration in terms of a curie, (one curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegration per second)
Solution:
1 Bq = one disintegration per second
one curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq

Nuclear Physics Class 10 Question 3.
\(_{92} \mathrm{U}^{235}\) experiences one α – decay and one β – decay. Find the number of neutrons in the final daughter nucleus that is formed.
Solution:
Let X and Y be the resulting nucleus after the emission of the alpha and beta particles respectively.

Number of neutrons = Mass number – Atomic number = 231 – 91 = 140.

10th Nuclear Physics Question 4.
Calculate, the amount of energy released when a radioactive substance undergoes fusion and results in a mass defect of 2 kg.
Solution:
Mass defect in the reaction (m) = 2 kg
Velocity of light (c) = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
By Einstein’s equation,
Energy released E = mc²
= 2 × (3 × 10⁸)²
= 1.8 × 10¹⁷ J.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Activity 6.1 Class 10 Science Question 1.
Man – made radioactivity is also known as _____.
(a) Induced radioactivity
(b) Spontaneous radioactivity
(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) (a) & (c).
Answer:
(d) (a) & (c).

Class 10 Science Chapter 6 Solutions Question 2.
Unit of radioactivity is:
(a) roentgen
(b) curie
(c) becquerel
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Nuclear Physics Question 3.
Artificial radioactivity was discovered by _____.
(a) Becquerel
(b) Irene Curie
(c) Roentgen
(d) Neils Bohr.
Answer:
(b) Irene Curie

Physics 10th Question 4.
In which of the following, no change in mass number of the daughter nuclei takes place:
(i) a decay;
(ii) P decay
(iii) y decay
(iv) neutron decay
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 5.
_____ isotope is used for the treatment of cancer.
(a) Radio Iodine
(b) Radio Cobalt
(c) Radio Carbon
(d) Radio Nickel.
Answer:
(b) Radio Cobalt

Question 6.
Gamma radiations are dangerous because:
(a) it affects eyes and bones
(b) it affects tissues
(c) it produces genetic disorder
(d) it produces an enormous amount of heat
Answer:
(c) it produces genetic disorder

Question 7.
_____ aprons are used to protect us from gamma radiations.
(a) Lead oxide
(b) Iron
(c) Lead
(d) Aluminium.
Answer:
(c) Lead

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is / are correct?
(i) α particles are photons
(ii) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very low
(iii) Ionization power is maximum for α rays
(iv) Penetrating power of γ radiation is very high
(a) (i) & (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct.

Question 9.
Proton-Proton chain reaction is an example of:
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) α – decay
(c) Nuclear fusion
(d) β – decay
Answer:
(c) Nuclear fusion

Question 10.
In the nuclear reaction \(_6^{\mathrm{X}^{12}} \stackrel{\alpha \text { decay }}{\longrightarrow} \mathrm{z}^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}}\), the value of A & Z.
(a) 8, 6
(b) 8, 4
(c) 4, 8
(d) cannot be determined with the given data.
Answer:
(c) 4, 8

Question 11.
Kamini reactor is located at _____.
(a) Kalpakkam
(b) Koodankulam
(c) Mumbai
(d) Rajasthan.
Answer:
(a) Kalpakkam

Question 12.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Chain reaction takes place in a nuclear reactor and an atomic bomb.
(ii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is controlled.
(iii) The chain reaction in a nuclear reactor is not controlled.
(iv) No chain reaction takes place in an atom bomb.
(a) (i) only correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (iv) only correct
(d) (iii) & (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
One roentgen is equal to ______ disintegrations per second?
Answer:
3.7 × 10¹⁰.

Question 2.
Positron is an _____.
Answer:
antiparticle of electron.

Question 3.
Anaemia can be cured by _____ isotope.
Answer:
Radio iron (Fe⁵⁹).

Question 4.
Abbreviation of ICRP _____.
Answer:
International Commission on Radiological Protection.

Question 5.
_____ is used to measure the exposure rate of radiation in humans.
Answer:
Roentgen.

Question 6.
_____ has the greatest penetration power.
Answer:
Gamma ray.

Question 7.
\(z^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}} \rightarrow_{\mathrm{Z}+1} \mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}+\mathrm{X}\); Then X is _____.
Answer:
\(_{-1} \mathrm{e}^{0}\) (β decay).

Question 8.
\(z^{\mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}}} \rightarrow_{\mathrm{Z}}^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}}\) This reaction is possible in _____ decay.
Answer:
Gamma (γ).

Question 9.
The average energy released in each fusion reaction is about _____ J.
Answer:
3.84 × 10^-12.

Question 10.
Nuclear fusion is possible only at an extremely high temperature of the order of _____ K.
Answer:
10⁷ to 10⁹.

Question 11.
The radioisotope of _____ helps to increase the productivity of crops.
Answer:
phosphorous (P – 32).

Question 12.
If radiation exposure is 100 R, it may cause _____.
Answer:
fatal disease.

III. State whether the following statements are true or false: If false, correct the statement

Question 1.
Plutonium -239 is a fissionable material.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Elements having an atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Elements having an atomic number greater than 83 can undergo nuclear fusion.

Question 3.
Nuclear fusion is more dangerous than nuclear fission.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Nuclear fission is more dangerous than nuclear fusion. Because the average energy released in fission (3.2 × 10^-11 J) process is more than the average energy released in fusion (3.84 × 10^-12 J).

Question 4.
Natural uranium U-238 is the core fuel used in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: U-238 is not a fissile material but are abundant in nature. But in a reactor, this can be converted into a fissile material Pu²³⁹ and U²³³. Only fissile materials are used in the fuel of a nuclear reactor.

Question 5.
If a moderator is not present, then a nuclear reactor will behave like an atom bomb.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
During one nuclear fission on an average, 2 to 3 neutrons are produced.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Einstein’s theory of mass-energy equivalence is used in nuclear fission and fusion.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. BARC	(a) Kalpakkam
2. India’s first atomic power station	(b) Apsara
3. IGCAR	(c) Mumbai
4. The first nuclear reactor in India	(d) Tarapur

Answer:
1. (c) Mumbai
2. (d) Tarapur
3. (a) Kalpakkam
4. (b) Apsara

Question 2.

1. Fuel	(a) lead
2. Moderator	(b) heavy water
3. Coolant	(c) Graphite
4. Shield	(d) Uranium

Answer:
1. (d) uranium
2. (c) Graphite
3. (b) heavy water
4. (a) lead

Question 3.

1. Soddy Fagan	(a) Natural radioactivity
2. Irene Curie	(b) Displacement law
3. Henry Becquerel	(c) Mass energy equivalence
4. Albert Einstein	(d) Artificial Radioactivity

Answer:
1. (b) Displacement law
2. (d) Artificial Radioactivity
3. (a) Natural radioactivity
4. (c) Mass energy equivalence

Question 4.

1. Uncontrolled fission Reaction	(a) Hydrogen Bomb
2. Fertile material	(b) Nuclear Reactor
3. Controlled fission Reaction	(c) Breeder reactor
4. Fusion reaction	(d) Atom bomb

Answer:
1. (d) Atom bomb
2. (c) Breeder reactor
3. (b) Nuclear Reactor
4. (a) Hydrogen Bomb

Question 5.

1. Co – 60	(a) Age of fossil
2. I – 13	(b) Function of Heart
3. Na – 24	(c) Leukaemia
4. C – 14	(d) Thyroid disease

Answer:
1. (c) Leukemia
2. (d) Thyroid disease
3. (b) Function of Heart
4. (a) Age of fossil

V. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Arrange in descending order, on the basis of their penetration power.

1. Alpha rays
2. Beta rays
3. Gamma rays
4. Cosmic rays.

Answer:

1. Gamma rays
2. Beta rays
3. Alpha rays
4. Cosmic rays.

Question 2.
Arrange the following in the chronological order of discovery.

1. A nuclear reactor
2. Radioactivity
3. Artificial radioactivity
4. Discovery of radium.

Answer:

1. Radioactivity (1896)
2. Discovery of radium (1898)
3. Artificial radioactivity (1934)
4. Nuclear reactor (1942).

VI. Use the analogy to fill in the blank

Question 1.
Spontaneous process : Natural Radioactivity, Induced process: _____.
Answer:
Artificial radioactivity
(or)
Man – made activity.

Question 2.
Nuclear Fusion : Extreme temperature, Nuclear Fission: _____.
Answer:
Room temperature.

Question 3.
Increasing crops : Radio phosphorous, Effective functioning of heart: _____.
Answer:
Radio sodium (Na²⁴).

Question 4.
Deflected by electric field : α ray, Null Deflection: _____.
Answer:
γ ray (Gamma – ray).

VII. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
\(\mathrm{8} \mathrm{8}^{\mathrm{Ra}^{226}}\) experiences three α-decay. Find the number of neutrons in the daughter element.
Solution:
\(\mathrm{8} \mathrm{8}^{\mathrm{Ra}^{226}}\) consider as a parent element that is \(\mathrm{8} \mathrm{8}^{\mathrm{X}^{226}}\) and their daughter element is \(z^{\mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}}}\)
According to α decay process,
\(88^{\mathrm{X} 26} \stackrel{3 \alpha \text { decay }}{\longrightarrow} 82^{214}+3 \alpha\) decay
During the 3α decay, the atomic number decreases by 6 and mass number decreases by 12.
So the number of neutrons in the daughter element
N = A – Z
N = 214 – 88 = 126
Number of neutrons in the daughter element N = 126.

Question 2.
A cobalt specimen emits induced radiation of 75.6 millicurie per second. Convert this disintegration in to becquerel (one curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq).
Solution:
Cobalt specimen emits induced radiation = 75.6 millicurie per second
(1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq)
So 75.6 millicurie = 75.6 × 10³ × 1 curie
= 75.6 × 10^-3 × 3.7 × 10¹⁰ Bq
= 279.72 × 10⁷
= 2.7972 × 10⁹ Bq
75.6 millicurie per second is equivalent to 2.7972 × 10⁹ Bq.

VIII. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: A neutron impinging on U²³⁵, splits it to produce Barium and Krypton.
Reason: U-235 is a fissile material.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: In a β – decay, the neutron number decreases by one.
Reason: In β – decay atomic number increases by one.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Explanation: In β – decay there is no change in the mass number of the daughter nucleus but the atomic number increases by one.

Question 3.
Assertion: Extreme temperature is necessary to execute nuclear fusion.
Reason: In nuclear fusion, the nuclei of the reactants combine releasing high energy.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 4.
Assertion: Control rods are known as ‘Neutron seeking rods’
Reason: Control rods are used to perform a sustained nuclear fission reaction.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained the chain reaction. They absorb the neutrons, (they seeking the neutrons)

IX. Answer in one or two words (VSA)

Question 1.
Who discovered natural radioactivity?
Answer:
Henri Becquerel was discovered natural radioactivity.

Question 2.
Which radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende?
Answer:
Uranium

Question 3.
Write any two elements which are used for inducing radioactivity?
Answer:

1. Boron and Aluminium.
2. Alpha particle and neutron.

Question 4.
Write the name of the electromagnetic radiation which is emitted during a natural radioactivity.
Answer:
Gamma rays

Question 5.
If A is a radioactive element which emits an α-particle and produces \({ { _{ 104 }{ Rf } } }^{ 259 }\). Write the atomic number and mass number of the element A.
Answer:
In α decay
\(\begin{array}{l}{_{\mathrm{z}} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}} \frac{\alpha \text { decay }}{263} \times \mathrm{z}-2 \mathrm{Y}^{\mathrm{A}-4}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}(\alpha \text { decay })} \\ {106^{\mathrm{X}^{263}} \stackrel{\alpha \text { decay }}{\longrightarrow}_{104} \mathrm{Rf}^{259}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}}\end{array}\)
In element A having atomic number is 106 and mass number is 263.

Question 6.
What is the average energy released from a single fission process?
Answer:
The average energy released from a single fission process is about 3.2 × 10^-11 J.

Question 7.
Which hazardous radiation is the cause for the genetic disorders (or) effect?
Answer:
Radioactive radiations

Question 8.
What is the amount of radiation that may cause the death of a person when exposed to it?
Answer:
When the body is exposed to about 600 R, it leads to death.

Question 9.
When and where was the first nuclear reactor built?
Answer:
The first nuclear reactor was built in 1942 in Chicago, USA.

Question 10.
Give the SI unit of radioactivity.
Answer:
Becquerel

Question 11.
Which material protects us from radiation?
Answer:
Lead coated aprons and lead gloves should be used while working with the hazardous area. These materials are used to protects us from radiation.

X. Answer the following questions in a few sentences.

Question 1.
Write any three features of natural and artificial radioactivity.
Answer:

Natural radioactivity	Artificial radioactivity
1. Emission of radiation due to the self-disintegration of a nucleus.	1. Emission of radiation due to the disintegration of a nucleus through the induced process.
2. Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations are emitted.	2. Mostly elementary particles such as neutron, positron, etc. are emitted.
3. It is a spontaneous process.	3. It is an induced process.

Question 2.
Define critical mass.
Answer:
The minimum mass of fissile material necessary to sustain the chain reaction is called ‘critical mass (m_c). It depends on the nature, density and the size of the fissile material.

Question 3.
Define One roentgen.
Answer:
One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10^-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 4.
State Soddy and Fagan’s displacement law.
Answer:
During a radioactive disintegration, the nucleus which undergoes disintegration is called a parent nucleus and that which remains after the disintegration is called the daughter nucleus.

Question 5.
Give the function of control rods in a nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have sustained chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.

Question 6.
In Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases. Why?
Answer:
During the Second World War American, a bomber dropped the nuclear weapons over the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki. In the explosion of the atomic bomb to release the high energy dangerous radiation. In the explosion period, Japanese peoples are affected by radiation. This is the reason in Japan, some of the newborn children are having congenital diseases.

Question 7.
Mr Ramu is working as an X – ray technician in a hospital. But, he does not Wear the lead aprons. What suggestion will you give to Mr Ramu?
Answer:
X – rays have a destructive effect on living tissue. When the human body is exposed to X – rays, it causes redness of the skin, sores and serious injuries to the tissues and glands. They destroy the white corpuscles of the blood. If you don’t wear the lead aprons these kinds of diseases formed in your body. In my suggestion, you must wear lead aprons.

Question 8.
What is stellar energy?
Answer:
Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as stellar energy.

Question 9.
Give any two uses of radioisotopes in the field of agriculture?
Answer:

• The radioisotope of phosphorus (P – 32) helps to increase the productivity of crops.
• The radiations from the radioisotopes can be used to kill the insects and parasites and prevent the wastage of agricultural products.

XI. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the process of controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions.
Answer:
(a) Controlled chain reaction

• In the controlled chain reaction, the number of neutrons released is maintained to be one. This is achieved by absorbing the extra neutrons with a neutron absorber leaving only one neutron to produce further fission.
• Thus, the reaction is sustained in a controlled manner. The energy released due to a controlled chain reaction can be utilized for constructive purposes.
• The controlled chain reaction is used in a nuclear reactor to produce energy in a sustained and controlled manner.

(b) Uncontrolled chain reaction:

• In the uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons multiplies indefinitely and causes fission in a large amount of the fissile material.
• This results in the release of a huge amount of energy within a fraction of a second.
• This kind of chain reaction is used in the atom bomb to produce an explosion.
  

Question 2.
Compare the properties of Alpha, Beta and Gamma radiations.
Answer:

Properties	α rays	β rays	γ rays
What are they?	Helium nucleus \(\left(_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\right)\) consisting of two protons and two neutrons.	They are electrons \(\left(_{-1} e^{\mathrm{0}}\right)\), basic elementary particle in all atoms.	They are electromagnetic waves consisting of photons.
Charge	Positively charged particles. Charge of each alpha particle = +2e	Negatively charged particles. Charge of each beta particle = -e	Neutral particles. Charge of each gamma particle = zero
Ionising Power	100 time greater than β rays and 10,000 times greater than γ rays	Comparatively low	Very less ionization power
Penetrating power	Low penetrating power (even stopped by a thick paper)	Penetrating power is greater than that of α rays. They can penetrate through a thin metal foil.	They have a very high penetrating power greater than that of β rays. They can penetrate through thick metal blocks.
Effect of an electric and magnetic field	Deflected by both the fields. (in accordance with Fleming’s left-hand rule)	Deflected by both the fields, but the direction of deflection is opposite to that for alpha rays. (in accordance with Fleming’s left-hand rule)	They are not deflected by both the fields.
Speed	Their speed ranges from 1/10 to 1/20 times the speed of light.	Their speed can go up to 9/10 times the speed of light.	They travel with the speed of light.

Question 3.
What is a nuclear reactor? Explain its essential parts with their functions.
Answer:
Nuclear reactor: A Nuclear reactor is a device in which the nuclear fission reaction takes place in a self – sustained and controlled manner to produce electricity.

Components of a Nuclear Reactor:
The essential components of a nuclear reactor are

• Fuel: A fissile material is used as the fuel. The commonly used fuel material is uranium.
• Moderator: A moderator is used to slow down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons. Graphite and heavy water are commonly used moderators.
• Control rod: Control rods are used to control the number of neutrons in order to have a sustained a chain reaction. Mostly boron or cadmium rods are used as control rods. They absorb the neutrons.
• Coolant: A coolant is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam. This steam is used to run a turbine in order to produce electricity. Water, air and helium are some of the coolants.
• Protection wall: A thick concrete lead wall is built around the nuclear reactor in order to prevent the harmful radiations from escaping into the environment.

XII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Mass number of a radioactive element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. When this element undergoes certain nuclear reactions, it transforms into an isotope of lead with a mass number 208 and an atomic number 82. Determine the number of alpha and beta decay that can occur.
Answer:
Mass number A = 232
Atomic number Z = 90
Daughter element:
Mass number A = 208
Atomic number Z = 82
Difference in mass number = 232 – 208 = 24
Difference in atomic number
= 90 – 82 = 8
Atomic number of α = 2
Atomic number of β = -1
Mass number of α = 4
Mass number of β = 0
Difference in mass number in transformations
= 24
Number of a decays = \(\frac{24}{4}\) = 6
Difference in atomic number = 8
ΔZ = 6α + 4β
= 6(2) + 4(-1)
= 12 – 4
= 8
∴ Number of β decays = 4
∴ Number of α decays = 6
∴ Number of β decays = 4

Question 2.
‘X – rays should not be taken often’. Give the reason.
Answer:

• Radiation does involve in X – rays tests and isotope scans (in nuclear medicine) are too low to cause immediate hazardous effects.
• If should be taken often, X – ray radiation from medical examinations though slightly increases one’s risk for cancer which can occur year or decades after X-ray exposure.

Question 3.
Cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area. why?
Answer:

1. Living near a cell phone tower is not healthy. There is multiple health risks associated with living near a cell phone tower.
2. Cell phone towers communicate by use pulsed microwave signals (radiofrequency radiation) with each other.
3. That is the reason cell phone towers should be placed far away from the residential area.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nuclear Physics Additional Questions

I. Choose the best Answer.

Question 1.
Radium was discovered by _____.
(a) Marie curie
(b) Irene curie
(c) Henri Becquerel
(d) F. Joliot.
Answer:
(a) Marie Curie

Question 2.
How many radioactive substances discovered so far?
(a) 83
(b) 92
(c) 43
(d) 29
Answer:
(d) 29

Question 3.
The SI unit of Radioactivity is _____.
(a) Curie
(b) Rutherford
(c) Becquerel
(d) Roentgen (R).
Answer:
(c) Becquerel

Question 4.
Radioactivity is _____.
(a) increases with increase in temperature
(b) increases with increase in pressure
(c) depends on the number of electrons
(d) purely a nuclear phenomenon.
Answer:
(d) purely a nuclear phenomenon

Question 5.
Which of the following processes is a spontaneous process?
(a) Artifical radioactivity
(b) Natural radioactivity
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Collisions
Answer:
(b) Natural radioactivity

Question 6.
The charge of the β rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) 0
(c) -e
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) -e

Question 7.
The charge of the γ rays _____.
(a) 2e
(b) 0
(c) -e
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 8.
The atomic number of the elements that exhibit artifical radioactivity is:
(a) more than 82
(b) more than 83
(c) less than 83
(d) less than 82
Answer:
(c) less than 83

Question 9.
Arrange α, β, γ rays in the increasing order of their ionizing power.
(a) α, β, γ
(b) β, α, γ
(c) γ, β, α
(d) γ, α, β.
Answer:
(c) γ, β, α

Question 10.
Which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10^-4 Coulomb in 1 Kg of air?
(a) Curie
(b) Becquerel
(c) Rutherford
(d) Roentgen
Answer:
(d) Roentgen

Question 11.
Ionising power of the γ rays _____.
(a) Comparatively very high ionization power
(b) 100 times greater than the α rays
(c) 100 times greater than the β rays
(d) Comparatively very less ionization power.
Answer:
(d) Comparatively very less ionization power.

Question 12.
Ionization power maximum for _____.
(a) neutrons
(b) α particles
(c) γ rays
(d) β particles.
Answer:
(b) α particles

Question 13.
Charge of gamma particle is:
(a) +2e
(b) -e
(c) Zero
(d) +1e
Answer:
(c) Zero

Question 14.
Which has low penetrating power?
(a) α rays
(b) γ rays
(c) β rays
(d) X rays.
Answer:
(a) α rays

Question 15.
In β – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) the mass number decreases by one
(c) proton number remains the same
(d) neutron number decreases by one.
Answer:
(d) neutron number decreases by one

Question 16.
In which decay the energy level of the nucleus changes:
(a) α – decay
(b) β – decay
(c) γ – decay
(d) neutron decay
Answer:
(c) γ – decay

Question 17.
In γ – decay _____.
(a) atomic number decreases by one
(b) there is no change in atomic and mass number
(c) energy only changes in the decay process
(d) both (b) and (c).
Answer:
(d) both (b) and (c).

Question 18.
The unit of decay constant is _____.
(a) no unit
(b) second
(c) second^-1
(d) curie.
Answer:
(c) second^-1

Question 19.
The range of temperature required for nuclear fusion is from:
(a) 10⁷ to 10⁹ K
(b) 10^-9 to 10^-7 K
(c) 10⁵ to 10⁹
(d) 10⁵ to 10⁷ K
Answer:
(a) 10⁷ to 10⁹ K

Question 20.
1 Rd is equal to _____.
(a) 10⁶ decay / second
(b) 1 decay / second
(c) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ becquerel
(d) 1.6 × 10¹² decay / second.
Answer:
(a) 10⁶ decay / second

Question 21.
An element \(Z^{X^{A}}\) successively undergoes three α decays and four β decays and gets converted an element Y are respectively _____.
(a) \({ { _{ Z-6 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)
(b) \({ { _{ Z+2 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)
(c) \({ { _{ Z-2 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)
(d) \({ { _{ Z-10 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\).
Answer:
(c) \({ { _{ Z-2 }{ Y } } }^{ A-12 }\)

Question 22.
In the nuclear reaction ₈₈Ra²²⁶ → X + ₂He⁴ X is:
(a) ₉₀Th²³⁴
(b) ₉₁Pa²³⁴
(c) ₈₆Rn²²²
(d) ₈₈Rn²²⁶
Answer:
(d) ₈₈Rn²²⁶

Question 23.
Which one of the following is used in the treatment of skin diseases _____.
(a) Na²⁴
(b) I³¹
(c) Fe⁵⁹
(d) P³².
Answer:
(d) P³².

Question 24.
Anaemia can be diagnosed by _____.
(a) \({ { _{ 15 }{ P } } }^{ 31 }\)
(b) \({ { _{ 15 }{ P } } }^{ 32 }\)
(c) \({ { _{ 26 }{ P } } }^{ 59 }\)
(d) \({ { _{ 11 }{ P } } }^{ 24 }\).
Answer:
(c) \({ { _{ 26 }{ P } } }^{ 59 }\)

Question 25.
Which is used as a coolant?
(a) Graphite
(b) Liquid sodium
(c) Boron
(d) Cadmium
Answer:
(b) Liquid sodium

Question 26.
The energy released per fission is _____.
(a) 220 MeV
(b) 300 MeV
(c) 250 MeV
(d) 200 MeV.
Answer:
(d) 200 MeV.

Question 27.
In the reaction ₁N¹⁴ + ₀n¹ → X + ₁H¹ X is:
(a) ₁₅P³⁰
(b) ₆C¹⁴
(c) ₆C¹²
(d) ₁₁Na²³
Answer:
(c) ₆C¹²

Question 28.
Natural uranium consists of _____.
(a) 99.72 % of U-238
(b) 0.28 % of U-238
(c) 0.72 % of U-238
(d) 99.28 % of U-238.
Answer:
(d) 99.28 % of U-238.

Question 29.
The number of power reactors in India is _____.
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 7
(d) 2.
Answer:
(a) 14

Question 30.
In the nucleus of ₁₁Na²³ the number of protons and neutrons are:
(a) 12, 11
(b) 10, 12
(c) 11, 12
(d) 11, 23
Answer:
(c) 11, 12

Question 31.
The moderator used in nuclear reactor is _____.
(a) cadmium
(b) boron carbide
(c) heavy water
(d) uranium \(\left(_{92} \mathrm{U}^{235}\right)\).
Answer:
(c) heavy water

Question 32.
The first nuclear reactor was built at _____.
(a) Kalpakkam, India
(b) Hiroshima, Japan
(c) Chicago, USA
(d) Trombay, Bombay.
Answer:
(c) Chicago, USA

Question 33.
Which of the following is used in the treatment of skin cancer?
(a) Radio Cobalt
(b) Radio gold
(c) Radio Cobalt and radio gold
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) Radio Cobalt and radio gold

Question 34.
The explosion of an atom bomb is based on the principle of _____.
(a) uncontrolled fission reaction
(b) fusion reaction
(c) controlled fission reaction
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) uncontrolled fission reaction

Question 35.
The reactor in which no moderator used is _____.
(a) fast breeder reactor
(b) pressurised water reactor
(c) pressurised heavy water reactor
(d) boiled water reactor.
Answer:
(a) fast breeder reactor

Question 36.
The number of neutrons present in ₉₂U²³⁵ is:
(a) 133
(b) 143
(c) 43
(d) 243
Answer:
(b) 143

Question 37.
In fast breeder, the coolant system used is _____.
(a) heavy water
(b) light water
(c) liquid sodium
(d) boiled water.
Answer:
(c) liquid sodium

Question 38.
The only reactor in the world which uses U-233 as fuel is _____.
(a) Zerlina
(b) Purnima
(c) Kamini
(d) Tires.
Answer:
(c) Kamini

Question 39.
The temperature of the interior of Sun is about _____.
(a) 1.4 × 10⁷ K
(b) 10⁸ K
(C) 14 × 10⁷ K
(d) 600 K.
Answer:
(a) 1.4 × 10⁷ K

Question 40.
Total energy radiated by Sun is about _____.
(a) 3.6 × 10²⁸ Js^-1
(b) 3.8 × 10²⁸ Js^-1
(c) 3.8 × 10²⁶ Js^-1
(d) 3.8 × 10²³ Js^-1.
Answer:
(c) 3.8 × 10²⁶ Js^-1

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Cathode rays are discovered by _____.
Answer:
J.J. Thomson.

Question 2.
Positive rays discovered by _____.
Answer:
Goldstein.

Question 3.
The chargeless particles are called neutron, it was discovered by _____.
Answer:
James Chadwick.

Question 4.
Ernest Rutherford explained that the mass of an atom is concentrated in its central part called _____.
Answer:
Nucleus.

Question 5.
The radioactive elements emit harmful radiations are ____, ____, ____ rays.
Answer:
alpha, beta, gamma.

Question 6.
_____ is an spontaneous process.
Answer:
Natural radioactivity.

Question 7.
The element whose atomic number is more than 83 undergoes _____.
Answer:
spontaneous process.

Question 8.
______ radioactive material is present in the ore of pitchblende.
Answer:
Uranium.

Question 9.
_____ are the example of artificial (or) man-made radioactive elements.
Answer:
Boron, Aluminium.

Question 10.
The element whose atomic number is less than 83 undergoes _____.
Answer:
induced radioactivity.

Question 11.
______ is an controlled manner.
Answer:
Artificial radioactivity.

Question 12.
Spontaneous radioactivity is also known as _____.
Answer:
Natural radioactivity.

Question 13.
One Curie is equal to _____ disintegrations per second.
Answer:
3.7 × 10¹⁰

Question 14.
One Rutherford (Rd) is equal to ______ disintegrations per second.
Answer:
10⁶

Question 15.
The radioactive displacement law is framed by _____.
Answer:
Soddy and Fajan.

Question 16.
During the α decay process, the atomic number is ______ by 2 and the mass number is decreases by _____.
Answer:
decreases, 4.

Question 17.
In β-decay the atomic number increases by ____ unit and mass number _____.
Answer:
One, remains the same.

Question 18.
In α radiation, the charge of each alpha particle is _____.
Answer:
+2e.

Question 19.
In γ radiation, the charge of each gamma particle is _____.
Answer:
Zero.

Question 20.
In radioactive radiation, which one is travel with the speed of light _____.
Answer:
Gamma radiation.

Question 21.
\(z^{Y^{A}} \rightarrow z_{-2} Y^{A-4}+X\); Then X is _____.
Answer:
\(_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (α decay).

Question 22.
\(z^{Y^{A}} \rightarrow_{z} Y^{{A}+X}\); Then X is _____.
Answer:
γ decay.

Question 23.
The average energy released in each fission process in about _____.
Answer:
3.2 × 10^-11 J.

Question 24.
Fissionable material is a radioactive element, which undergoes fission in a sustained manner when it absorbs a _____.
Answer:
Neutron.

Question 25.
_____ isotope is used to detect the presence of block in blood vessels and also used for the effective functioning of the heart.
Answer:
Na²⁴ – Radio sodium.

Question 26.
_____ is used to cure goitre.
Answer:
Radio Iodine – I¹³¹

Question 27.
_____ is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
Answer:
Radio – iron (Fe⁵⁹).

Question 28.
Radio cobalt (Co⁶⁰) and radio gold (Au¹⁹⁸) are used in the treatment of _____.
Answer:
Skin cancer.

Question 29.
_____ are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.
Answer:
Radiations.

Question 30.
The age of the earth, fossils, old paintings and monuments can be determined by _____. technique.
Answer:
Radiocarbon dating.

Question 31.
When the body is exposed to about 600 R, it leads to _____.
Answer:
Death.

Question 32.
Radioactive materials should be kept in a thick – walled container of _____.
Answer:
Lead.

Question 33.
_____ is used to remove the heat produced in the reactor core, to produce steam.
Answer:
Coolant.

Question 34.
The abbreviation of BARC is _____.
Answer:
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.

Question 35.
India’s 1st nuclear power station is _____.
Answer:
Tarapur Atomic Power Station.

Question 36.
The first nuclear reactor built in India was _____.
Answer:
Apsara.

Question 37.
The total nuclear power operating sites in India is _____.
Answer:
7

Question 38.
The energy released in a nuclear fission process is about ______
Answer:
200 Mev.

Question 39.
The number of \({ { _{ 0 }{ n } } }^{ 1 }\) released on an average per fission is _____.
Answer:
2.5.

Question 40.
A hydrogen bomb is based on the principle of _____.
Answer:
Nuclear fusion.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Natural radioactivity	(a) 3.7 × 1010 decay/second
2. Artificial radioactivity	(b) spontaneous process
3. 1 curie	(c) 106 decay/second
4. 1 Rd (Rutherford)	(d) induced process

Answer:
1. (b) spontaneous process
2. (d) induced process
3. (a) 3.7 × 10¹⁰ decay / second
4. (c) 10⁶ decay / second

Question 2.

1. Charge of each α particle	(a) γ ray
2. Charge of each β particle	(b) +2e
3. Penetration power is maximum	(c) α ray
4. Ionisation power is maximum	(d) zero

Answer:
1. (b) +2e
2. (d) zero
3. (a) γ ray
4. (e) α ray

Question 3.

1. Deuterium	(a) \(-1^{e^{0}}\)
2. Protium	(b) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
3. Tritium	(c) \(_{2} \mathrm{H}^{4}\)
4. α – decay	(d) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{1}\)
5. β – decay	(e) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}\)

Answer:
1. (e) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}\)
2. (d) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{1}\)
3. (b) \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{3}\)
4. (c) \(_{2} \mathrm{H}^{4}\)
5. (a) \(-1^{e^{0}}\)

Question 4.

1. Uranium core bomb	(a) fusion bomb
2. Plutonium core bomb	(b) fission bomb
3. Hydrogen bomb	(c) Nagasaki
4. Atom bomb	(d) Hiroshima

Answer:
1. (d) Hiroshima
2. (c) Nagasaki
3. (a) fusion bomb
4. (b) fission bomb

Question 5.

1. Radio iron (Fe59)	(a) treatment of skin diseases
2. Radio phosphorous (P32)	(b) smoke detector
3. Radio gold (Au198)	(c) diagnose anaemia
4. An isotope of Americium (Am241)	(d) treatment of skin cancer

Answer:
1. (c) diagnose anaemia
2. (a) treatment of skin diseases
3. (d) treatment of skin cancer
4. (b) smoke detector

IV. Arrange the following in the correct sequence

Question 1.
Arrange α, β, γ rays in ascending order, on the basis of their penetrating power?
Answer:
Ascending order:

• Alpha (α)
• Beta (β)
• Gamma (γ)

Question 2.
Arrange in ascending and descending order, on the basis of their Ionisation power.
Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
Answer:

1. Ascending order: Gamma (γ), Beta (β), Alpha (α)
2. Descending order: Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)

Question 3.
Arrange in ascending and descending order, on the basis of their biological effect.
Alpha (α), Gamma (γ), Beta (β)
Answer:

1. Ascending order: Alpha (α), Beta (β), Gamma (γ)
2. Descending order: Gamma (γ), Beta (β), Alpha (α).

V. Numerical Problems

Question 1.
\(_{92} U^{238}\) emits 8α particles and 6β particles. What is the neutron / proton ratio in the product nucleus?
Solution:

Question 2.
The element with atomic number 84 and mass number 218 change to another element with atomic number 84 and mass number 214. The number of α and β particles emitted are respectively?
Solution:

Number of alpha decay, x = 1
Number of beta decay, y = 2.

Question 3.
The number of α and β particles emitted in the nuclear reaction \(_{90} \mathrm{Th}^{228} \longrightarrow_{83} \mathrm{Bi}^{12}\) are respectively.
Solution:

Number of α decay, x = 4
Number of β decay, y = 1.

VI. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
(e) If the Assertion and reason both are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: All the radioactive element are ultimately converted in lead.
Reason: All the elements above lead are unstable.
Answer:
(c) If Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
Explanation: When they are converted into a lead, the emission is stopped because the nucleus of lead is stable (or lead is most stable elements in radioactive series)

Question 2.
Assertion: Among the alpha, beta and gamma-ray a particle has maximum penetrating power.
Reason: The alpha particle is heavier than beta and gamma rays.
Answer:
(e) If the Assertion and reason both are false.
Explanation: The penetrating power is maximum in case of gamma rays because gamma rays are electromagnetic radiation of very small wavelength.

Question 3.
Assertion: The ionising power of β – particle is less compared to α – particles but their penetrating power is more.
Reason: The mass of β-particle is less than the mass of α-particle
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: β – particle being emitted with very high speed compared to α – particle. Due to this reason, their loss of energy is very slow and they can penetrate the medium through a sufficient depth.

Question 4.
Assertion: Neutrons penetrate matter more readily as compared to protons.
Reason: Neutrons are slightly more massive than protons.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Neutron is about 0.1 % more massive than a proton. But the unique thing about the neutron is that while it is heavy, it has no charge (it is neutral). This lack of charge gives it the ability to penetrate matter without interacting as quickly as the beta particles or alpha particles.

Question 5.
Assertion: \(_{z} X^{A}\) undergoes a decays and the daughter product is \({ _{ z-2 } }Y^{ A-4 }\)
Reason: In α – decay, the mass number decreases by 4 and atomic number decreases by.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: \(_{z} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}} \longrightarrow_{z-2} \mathrm{X}^{\mathrm{A}-4}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (α decay)

Question 6.
Assertion: Moderator is used to slowing down the high energy neutrons to provide slow neutrons.
Reason: Cadmium rods are used as control rods.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Graphites and heavy water are commonly used moderators. This helps in moderator to slow down the fast neutrons.

Question 7.
Assertion: Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted.
Reason: Nuclear fission process can be performed at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: At room temperature, the nuclear fission process can perform breaking up of heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei. In this process to emitted the alpha, beta and gamma radiations.

Question 8.
Assertion: An enormous amount of energy is released which is called stellar energy.
Reason: Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: The stars like our Sun emit a large amount of energy in the form of light and heat. This energy is termed as the stellar energy.

Question 9.
Assertion: Artificial radioactivity is a controlled process.
Reason: It is a spontaneous process – natural radioactivity.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Artificial radioactivity is a controlled process. It is an induced process and man-made radioactivity.

Question 10.
Assertion: Gamma rays, penetrates through materials most effectively.
Reason: Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation.
Answer:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Gamma rays, which have the shortest wavelengths of all electromagnetic radiation. This is a reason they can penetrate through materials most effectively.

VII. Answer the following questions

Question 1.
Define ‘Radioactivity’.
Answer:
The phenomenon of nuclear decay of certain elements with the emission of radiations like alpha, beta, and gamma rays is called ‘radioactivity’.

Question 2.
By whom radioactivity is detected in pitchblende?
Answer:
Marie curie and Purie curie.

Question 3.
Define ‘Artificial Radioactivity’.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which even light elements are made radioactive, by artificial or induced methods, is called ‘Artificial radioactivity’ or ‘Man – made radioactivity’.

Question 4.
Define ‘One curie’.
Answer:
It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance which undergoes 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of 1 g of radium 226.
Curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations per second.

Question 5.
In which elements artifical radioactivity is induced?
Answer:
Boron and aluminum

Question 6.
What is alpha decay (α decay)? give an example.
Answer:
A nuclear reaction in which an unstable parent nucleus emits an alpha particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus is called ‘alpha decay’.
E.g. Decay of uranium (U²³⁸) to thorium (Th²³⁴) with the emission of an alpha particle.
\(_{92} \mathrm{U}^{238} \rightarrow_{90} \mathrm{Th}^{234}+_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) (α – decay).

Question 7.
What is beta decay (β decay)? Give an example?
Answer:
A nuclear reaction, in which an unstable parent nucleus emits a beta particle and forms a stable daughter nucleus, is called ‘beta decay’.
E.g. Beta decay of phosphorous.
\(_{15} \mathrm{P}^{32} \rightarrow_{16} \mathrm{S}^{32}+_{-1} \mathrm{e}^{0}\) (β – decay)

Question 8.
What is gamma decay (γ decay)?
Answer:
In a γ – decay, only the energy level of the nucleus changes. The atomic number and mass number of the radioactive nucleus remain the same.

Question 9.
State the value of Roentgen in terms of Coulomb.
Answer:
Roentgen = 2.58 × 10^-4 Coulomb in / kg of air.

Question 10.
Define ‘nuclear fission’ Give an example.
Answer:
The process of breaking (splitting) up of a heavier nucleus into two smaller nuclei with the release of a large amount of energy and a few neutrons are called ‘nuclear fission’.
E.g. Nuclear fission of a uranium nucleus (U²³⁵)
\(92^{\mathrm{U}^{235}}+_{0} \mathrm{n}^{1} \rightarrow_{56} \mathrm{Ba}^{141}+_{36} \mathrm{Kr}^{92}+_{30} \mathrm{n}^{1}+\mathrm{Q}(\text { energy })\)

Question 11.
Define ‘Nuclear fusion’ Give an example.
Answer:
The process in which two light nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus is termed as ‘Nuclear fusion’.
E.g. \(_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2}+_{1} \mathrm{H}^{2} \rightarrow_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}+\mathrm{Q}(\text { Energy })\)

Question 12.
Write down the types of the nuclear reactor.
Answer:
Breeder reactor, fast breeder reactor, pressurized water reactor, pressurized heavy water reactor, boiling water reactor, water – cooled reactor, gas – cooled reactor, fusion reactor and thermal reactor are some types of nuclear reactors, which are used in different places worldwide.

Question 13.
What is the safe limit of receiving radioactive radiations?
Answer:
100 m R per week

VIII. Answer in the details:

Question 1.
Explain the principle and working of an atom bomb?
Answer:
Atom bomb:
(i) The atom bomb is based on the principle of the uncontrolled chain reaction. In an uncontrolled chain reaction, the number of neutrons and the number of fission reactions multiply almost in a geometrical progression.

(ii) This releases a huge amount of energy in a very small time interval and leads to an explosion.

Structure:
(i) An atom bomb consists of a piece of fissile material whose mass is subcritical. This piece has a cylindrical void.

(ii) It has a cylindrical fissile material which can fit into this void and its mass is also subcritical. When the bomb has to be exploded, this cylinder is injected into the void using a conventional explosive.

(iii) The two pieces of fissile material join to form the supercritical mass, which leads to an explosion. During this explosion, a tremendous amount of energy in the form of heat, light and radiation is released.

(iv) A region of very high temperature and pressure is formed in a fraction of a second along with the emission of hazardous radiation like y rays, which adversely affect the living creatures. This type of atom bombs was exploded in 1945 at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during World War II.

Question 2.
State and define the units of radioactivity.
Answer:
Curie : It is the traditional unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance which undergoes 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations in one second. This is actually close to the activity of lg of radium 226. 1 curie = 3.7 × 10¹⁰ disintegrations per second.

Rutherford (Rd) : It is another unit of radioactivity. It is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance, which produces 10⁶ disintegrations in one second.
1 Rd = 10⁶ disintegrations per second.

Becquerel (Bq) : It is the SI unit of radioactivity is becquerel. It is defined as the quantity of one disintegration per second.

Roentgen (R) : It is the radiation exposure of γ and x-rays is measured by another unit called roentgen. One roentgen is defined as the quantity of radioactive substance which produces a charge of 2.58 × 10^-4 coulomb in 1 kg of air under standard conditions of pressure, temperature and humidity.

Question 3.
Write down the features of nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
Answer:

Nuclear Fission	Nuclear Fusion
1. The process of breaking up (splitting) of a heavy nucleus into two smaller nuclei is called ‘nuclear fission’.	1. Nuclear fusion is the combination of two lighter nuclei to form a heavier nucleus.
2. Can be performed at room temperature.	2. Extremely high temperature and pressure are needed.
3. Alpha, beta and gamma radiations are emitted.	3. Alpha rays, positrons, and neutrinos are emitted.
4. Fission leads to emission of gamma radiation. This triggers the mutation in the human gene and causes genetic transform diseases.	4. Only light and heat energy are emitted.

Question 4.
Write down the medical and industrial application of radioisotopes?
Answer:

1. Radio sodium (Na²⁴) is used for the effective functioning of the heart.
2. Radio – Iodine (I¹³¹) is used to cure goitre.
3. Radio – Iron is (Fe⁵⁹) is used to diagnose anaemia and also to provide treatment for the same.
4. Radio Phosphorous (P³²) is used in the treatment of skin diseases.
5. Radio Cobalt (Co⁶⁰) and radio – gold (Au¹⁹⁸) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
6. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.
7. Radio cobalt (Co⁶⁰) and radio – gold (Au¹⁹⁸) are used in the treatment of skin cancer.
8. Radiations are used to sterilize the surgical devices as they can kill the germs and microbes.

Question 5.
Write a note about stellar energy.
Answer:
The stars like our Sun emit a large amount of energy in the form of light and heat. This energy is termed as the stellar energy. Where does this high energy come from? All-stars contain a large amount of hydrogen. The surface temperature of the stars is very high which is sufficient to induce fusion of the hydrogen nuclei.

Fusion reaction that takes place in the cores of the Sun and other stars results in an enormous amount of energy, which is called as ‘stellar energy’. Thus, nuclear fusion or thermonuclear reaction is the source of light and heat energy in the Sun and other stars.

IX. Additional HOT Questions

Question 1.
Why is neutron so effective as bombarding particle?
Answer:
A neutron carries no charge. It easily penetrates even a heavy nucleus without being repelled or attracted by nucleus and electrons. So it serves as an ideal projectile for starting a nuclear reaction.

Question 2.
Is there any difference between electron and a beta particle.
Answer:
Basically, there is no difference between an electron and a beta particle. β particle is the name given to an electron emitted from the nucleus.

Question 3.
Why are the control rods made of cadmium?
Answer:
Cadmium has high cross – section for the absorption of neutrons.

Question 4.
Name two radioactive elements that are not found in observable quantities why is it so?
Answer:
Tritium and Plutonium are two radioactive elements that are not found in observable quantities in the universe.
It is because half-life period of each of two elements is very short compared to the age of the universe.

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