Category: Class 10

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.4

10th Maths Exercise 5.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the slope of the following straight lines
(i) 5y – 3 = 0
(ii) \(7 x-\frac{3}{17}\) = 0
Solution:

Exercise 5.4 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Find the slope of the line which is
(i) parallel to y = 0.7x -11
(ii) perpendicular to the line x = -11
Solution:
(i) y = 0.7x – 11
line parallel to y = 0.7x – 11 is y = 0.7x + C
If the lines are parallel, slopes are equal
∴ The slope of the required line is 0.7.
(ii) m = tan θ = tan 90°= ∞ undefined.

Ex 5.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Check whether the given lines are parallel or perpendicular

Solution:
(i) \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{4}+\frac{1}{7}\) = 0

10th Maths Exercise 5.4 Question 4.
If the straight lines 12y = -(p + 3)x + 12, 12x – 7y = 16 are perpendicular then find ‘p’.
Solution:

10th Maths Example 5.4 Question 5.
Find the equation of a straight line passing through the point P (-5, 2) and parallel to the line joining the points Q(3, -2) and R(-5, 4).
Solution:

Class 10 Maths Exercise 5.4 Solutions Question 6.
Find the equation of a line passing through ; (6, -2) and perpendicular to the line joining the points (6, 7) and (2, -3).
Solution:
Slope of line joining (6, 7) and (2,-3) is

5 Coordinate Geometry Question 7.
A(-3, 0) B(10, – 2) and C(12, 3) are the vertices of ∆ABC . Find the equation of the altitude through A and B.
Solution:
A(-3, 0), B(10, -2), C(12, 3)
Since AD ⊥ BC



(1), (2) are the required equations of the altitudes through A and B.

5.4 Geometry Question 8.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4, 2) and B(6, -4).
Solution:
Mid Point AB is

Ex 5.4 Class 10 Question 9.
Find the equation of a straight line through the intersection of lines 7x + 3y = 10, 5x – 4y = 1
and parallel to the line 13x + 5y + 12 = O
Solution:

l₁ passes through the intersecting point.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Coordinate Geometry Question 10.
Find the equation of a straight line through the intersection of lines 5x – 6y = 2, 3x + 2y = 10 and perpendicular to the line 4x – 7y + 13 = 0
Solution:

12th Maths Exercise 5.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
Find the equation of a straight line joining the point of intersection of 3x + y + 2 = 0 and x – 2y – 4 = 0 to the point of intersection of 7x – 3y = -12 and 2y = x + 3
Solution:

Exercise 5.4 Class 10 Question 12.
Find the equation of a straight line through the point of intersection of the lines 8x + 3+ = 18, 4x + 5+ = 9 and bisecting the line segment joining the points (5, -4) and (-7, 6).
Solution:
The intersecting point of the lines

Students who are preparing for the Science exam can download this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 13 from here for free of cost. These Tamilnadu State Board Textbook Solutions PDF cover all 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Book Back Questions and Answers.

All these concepts of Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 1 Structural Organisation of Animals.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 13th Science Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 13 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 13th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals solutions of Class 13th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Structural Organisation Of Animals Class 10 Question 1.
In leech, locomotion is performed by _____.
(a) Anterior sucker
(b) Posterior sucker
(c) Setae
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

10th Science Structural Organisation Of Animals Question 2.
The segments of leech are known as:
(a) Metameres (somites)
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Metameres (somites)

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Back Answers Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 3.
Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of _____.
(a) Excretory system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Respiratory system.
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Question 4.
The brain of leech lies above the:
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal Cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Crop
Answer:
(c) Pharynx

10th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
The body of leech has _____.
(a) 23 segments
(b) 33 segments
(c) 38 segments
(d) 30 segments.
Answer:
(b) 33 segments

Question 6.
Mammals are ______ animals.
(a) Cold – blooded
(b) Warm – blooded
(c) Poikilothermic
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(b) Warm – blooded

Question 7.
The animals which give birth to young ones are:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Viviparous

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the _______ segments.
Answer:
Last seven.

Question 2.
The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ______ dentition.
Answer:
Diphyodont.

Question 3.
The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called _____.
Answer:
Sucker.

Question 4.
The blood-sucking habit of a leech is known as _____.
Answer:
Sanguivorous.

Question 5.
______ separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in the rabbit.
Answer:
Nephrons.

Question 6.
_____ spinal nerves are present in the rabbit.
Answer:
37 pairs of.

III. Identify whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
An anticoagulant present in the saliva of the leech is called heparin.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The anticoagulant present in the saliva of the leech is called Hirudin.

Question 2.
The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.

Question 3.
The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The rabbit has a third eyelid called Nictitating membrane, which is movable.

Question 4.
Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The cerebral hemispheres of the rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The cerebral hemisphere of the rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called Corpus callosum.

IV. Match the Columns I, II and III correctly.

Question 1.

Organs	Membranous Covering	Location
Brain	Pleura	abdominal cavity
Kidney	Capsule	Mediastinum
Heart	Meninges	enclosed in the thoracic cavity
Lungs	Pericardium	cranial cavity

Answer:

Organs	Membranous Covering	Location
Brain	Meninges	cranial cavity
Kidney	Capsule	abdominal cavity
Heart	Pericardium	enclosed in the thoracic cavity
Lungs	Pleura	mediastinum

V. Answer in a sentence.

Question 1.
Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Answer:
Indian Cattle Leech.

Question 2.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
The leech respire through skin (diffusion).

Question 3.
Write the dental formula of the rabbit.
Answer:
Dental formula is \(\left(\mathrm{I} \frac{2}{1}, \mathrm{C} \frac{0}{0}, \mathrm{PM} \frac{3}{2}, \mathrm{M} \frac{3}{3}\right)\) in Rabbit, which is written as \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)

Question 4.
How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Answer:
In leech, there are eleven pairs of testes. One pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments.

Question 5.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
The diastema is formed in Rabbit, as a gap between the incisors and premolars,

Question 6.
What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Answer:
Lung, Bronchioles and Alveoli are the Organs, attached to Bronchi.

Question 7.
Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
Answer:
The muscular pharynx found below the buccal cavity acts as suction pump in leech. It is surrounded by large masses, unicellular glands called salivary glands.

Question 8.
What does CNS stand for?
Answer:
CNS stands for Central Nervous System.

Question 9.
Why are the teeth of a rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
The teeth of Rabbit are of different types. So it is called heterodont.

Question 10.
How does leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
In leech, blood is sucked by the muscular pharynx. The salivary secretion is poured in the wound. The saliva contains an active substance called hirudin which prevents the coagulation of the blood.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why are the rings of cartilages found in the trachea of a rabbit?
Answer:
Tracheal walls are supported by rings of cartilage, which help in the free passage of air.

Question 2.
List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
Answer:

1. The suckers are the primary organ of the blood sucking.
2. The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx.
3. Leeches attaches itself to the body of host by Anterior and Posterior ends of the body.
4. The three jaws inside the mouth, causes a painless triradiate or Y shaped incision in the skin of the host.
5. A protein called hirudin is produced in the salivary gland of leech to prevent blood coagulation. Thus, a continuous supply of the blood is maintained.
6. Parapodia and setae are completely absent.
7. Leeches also inject an anaesthetic substances that prevents the host from feeling their bite.
8. In the crop, blood is stored which gives nourishment to the leech for several months. Due to this reason there is no eloborate secretion of the digestive juices and enzymes.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
Answer:
There are no true blood vessels in leeches. The blood vessels are replaced by canals called haemocoelic canals. These canals are filled with haemocoelic fluid. There are four longitudinal canals. One is dorsal lying above the alimentary canal, another is ventral lying below the alimentary canal. The remaining two are lateral lying on either side of the alimentary canal. These four canals are connected together at the posterior end. There is no heart, but the lateral channels serve as a heart by being contractile. They have values inside. The dorsal and ventral channels are non-contractile having no muscular walls.

Question 2.
How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:
Locomotion in leech takes place by:

• Looping or Crawling movement: This type of movement is brought about, by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers, serve for attachment, during movement on a substratum.
• Swimming movement: Leeches swim very actively and perform undulating movements in the water.

Question 3.
Explain the male reproductive system of the rabbit with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
A pair of Testes, which are ovoid in shape, are enclosed by Scrotal Sac, in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called Seminiferous tubules. This network of tubules leads into a coiled tubule called Epididymis, which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens. The vas deferens join in the urethra, just below the Urinary Bladder. The Urethra runs backwards and passes into the penis.

The Prostate gland, Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland are the three accessory glands, whose secretions are involved in reproduction.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Arjun is studying in tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin ? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
Answer:
The leech makes a wound with the jaws by making a rasping movement. The blood is sucked by the muscular pharynx. The salivary secretion is poured in the wound. They inject an anaesthetic substances that prevents the host from feeling their bite. The saliva contains an active substances called hirudin which prevents the coagulation of the blood.

Question 2.
Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Answer:
The explanation of the grandfather would have been as follows: Teeth are hard bone – like structures, used to cut, tear and grind the food. There are incisors, canines, premolars and molars teeth are seen. Canines are absent. Something different from the teeth is the gap between incisors and premolar, which is called Diastema. It helps in mastication and chewing the food.

IX. Value-Based Questions.

Question 1.
Leeches do not have an secretion of digestive juices and enzymes -Why?
Answer:
The blood sucked by the leech is stored up in the crop. The blood gets haemolysed in the crop. Then the blood is passed drop by drop into the stomach where it is digested slowly by the peptolytic enzyme. The digested blood is absorbed slowly by the intestine.

Question 2.
How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for a herbivorous mode of feeding?
Answer:
The caecum is a thin – walled sac present at the Junction of the small intestine and large intestine. It contains bacteria, that helps in digestion of cellulose. So the digestive system of Rabbit is suited for a herbivorous mode of feeding.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Additional Questions Solved

I. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Segmentation	(a) Hirudin
2. Gregarious	(b) Vagina
3. Blood clotting	(c) Metamerism
4. Four chambered	(d) Move-in groups
5. Oviducts	(e) Septum

Answer:
1. (c) Metamerism
2. (d) Move-in groups
3. (a) Hirudin
4. (e) Septum
5. (b) Vagina.

II. Choose the correct pair.

Question 1.
The digestion of cellulose in rabbit takes place in:
(a) vemiform appendix
(b) colon
(c) caecum
(d) ileum
Answer:
(c) caecum

Question 2.
(a) Ureter and Dermis
(b) Clitella and Mouth
(c) Vagina and Egg case
(d) Sucker and Small intestine.
Answer:
(c) Vagina and Egg case

Question 3.
Total number of incisors teeth in rabbit is:
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 4.
(a) Mouth and Metamerism
(b) Ganglion and Colon
(c) Intestine and Integument
(d) Expiration and Inspiration.
Answer:
(d) Expiration and Inspiration

Question 5.
(a) Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands
(b) Triradiate and Thoracic
(c) Trachea and Tricuspid
(d) Seminiferous and Sansuivorous.
Answer:
(a) Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands

III. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
In leech, the ______ tissue lies beneath longitudinal muscles and fills the entire colon around the gut.
Answer:
Botryoidal.

Question 2.
_____ teeth are absent in Rabbit.
Answer:
Canine.

Question 3.
Digestion in leech takes place in the stomach by the action of ______ enzyme.
Answer:
Proteolytic.

Question 4.
The anterior part of the windpipe is enlarged to form ______ or _____.
Answer:
Larynx or Voicebox.

Question 5.
The opening of the pulmonary artery and Aorta are guarded by three ________ valves.
Answer:
Semilunar.

Question 6.
The coelomic fluid contains _____.
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 7.
The Jaws of Leeches are provided with _____.
Answer:
Papillae.

Question 8.
The pain of testes is enclosed by a sac called _____.
Answer:
Scrotal Sac.

Question 9.
Central Nervous System consists of _______ and _____.
Answer:
Brain, Spinal Chord.

Question 10.
Autonomous nervous system comprises _______ and _____.
Answer:
Sympathetic, Parasympathetic.

Question 11.
Each kidney is made up of several _____.
Answer:
Nephrons.

Question 12.
In Rabbits, as male and female sexes are separate, _____ is exhibited.
Answer:
Sexual dimorphism.

Question 13.
The other name for the voice box is _____ and the other name for the windpipe is _____.
Answer:
Larynx, Trachea.

Question 14.
The right and left ventricles are separated by _____.
Answer:
Inter Ventricular Septum

Question 15.
The external ear or ______ is situated at the top of the head in Rabbits.
Answer:
Pinnae.

IV. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The largest portion of the Alimentary Canal in Leech is _____.
(a) Mouth
(b) Pharynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Crop.
Answer:
(d) Crop.

Question 2.
In Leech, the dense network of tiny blood vessels, containing Haemocoelic fluid is called _____.
(a) Artery
(b) Capillaries
(c) Vein
(d) Blood Vessel.
Answer:
(b) Capillaries

Question 3.
Body wall of Leech includes ______ layers.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 4.
In female Rabbits, these four or five structures are present on the ventral surface between the thorax and abdomen _____.
(a) Nipples or Trets
(b) Limbs
(c) Vibrissae
(d) Diaphragm.
Answer:
(a) Nipples or Trets

Question 5.
In male rabbits, this structure is found in the ventral side of Anus _____.
(a) Claws
(b) Sweat glands
(c) Penis
(d) Abdomen.
Answer:
(c) Penis

V. Read the following statements and correct them, if it is not true.

Question 1.
Dorsal surface of Leech is Orange Yellow or Red in colour.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Dorsal surface of Leech is Olive green in colour.

Question 2.
The clitellum is formed on segments 9 to 11, which is meant to produce cocoon, during the breeding season.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The lower side of the thoracic cavity in Rabbit is the dome-shaped Sternum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lower side of the thoracic cavity in Rabbit is the dome-shaped Diaphragm.

Question 4.
Mammary glands are the modified glands of the skin.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The supra pharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The sub pharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.

VI. Find the Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Cuticle, Epidermis, Sphincters, Muscular layer.
Answer:
Sphincters.

Question 2.
Undigested food, Genital pore, Rectum, Anus.
Answer:
Genital pore.

Question 3.
Gregarious, Thorax, Abdomen, Pinnae.
Answer:
Gregarious.

Question 4.
Nephrons, Nitrogenous waste, Scrotal Sac, Urea.
Answer:
Scrotal Sac.

Question 5.
Teats or Nipples, Hairs, Claws, Nails
Answer:
Teats or Nipples.

V. Answer the following in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Where is mouth located in Leech?
Answer:
The mouth is located in the middle of the Anterior Sucker.

Question 2.
List out the structures derived from the skin of rabbit.
Answer:
The structures derived from the skin of rabbit are hair, claws, nails and glands like sweat glands, sebaceous glands and mammary glands.

Question 3.
What is Epiglottis?
Answer:
Epiglottis is a flap, in the neck, which prevents the entry of food into the trachea through the glottis.

Question 4.
The excretory system of rabbit is called a urinogenital system?
Answer:
The Urinogenital system of rabbit comprises the urinary system and genital or reproductive system. So they are called urinogenital system.

Question 5.
Where are Annular and Segmental receptors located?
Answer:
Annular receptors are located in each annulus and Segmental receptors are located on the first annulus of each segment.

Question 6.
What are Vibrissae?
Answer:
In Rabbit, from each side of upper lip tactile hairs or Whiskers present, which are called Vibrissae.

Question 7.
What is the scientific name of rabbit?
Answer:
The scientific name of rabbit is Oryctolagus cuniculus.

Question 8.
Which glands regulate the body temperature of Rabbits?
Answer:
The Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands embedded in the skin regulate the body temperature of Rabbits.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain the Excretory System of Leech briefly.
Answer:
In Leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called Nephridia. There are 17 pairs of Nephridia, which open out by nephridiopores from 6th to 22nd segments.

Question 2.
Explain the types of coelom in leech.
Answer:
Leech contains special longitudinal canals called haemocoelic canals filled with a blood like fluid called haemocolic fluid. This type of coelom is called Haemocoel.

Question 3.
What are Receptors? Write a short note on Receptors.
Answer:
Sensory projections are called Receptors on the dorsal side, there are five pairs of eyes on the first five segments. Annular receptors are located in each Annulus and segmental receptors are located on the first annulus of each segment.

Question 4.
What is hermaphrodite?
Answer:
If the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same animals, ‘ then the organism is said to hermaphrodite.

Question 5.
Name three accessory glands, which involve in the male reproductive system of Rabbit.
Answer:

• Prostate gland
• Cowper’s gland
• Perineal gland.

Their secretion involved in Reproduction.

Question 6.
Name the following:
(a) Three membranes, which cover the Brain in Rabbit
(b) Division of brain
Answer:
(a) Three membranes, which cover the Brain in Rabbit

• Dura mater
• Inner Piameter
• Arachnoid membrane.

(b) Division of brain

1. Forebrain (Prosencephalon)
2. Midbrain (Mesencephalon)
3. Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon).

Question 7.
Write a note on Medicinal value of Leech.
Answer:

1. Leeches breaks up blood clots.
2. Increases blood circulation
3. Leeches are used to treat cardio vascular diseases.
4. Saliva of leeches are used in the preparation of drugs that can treat hypertension.

Question 8.
With the Tabular Column, mention the Divisions of the body of Leech.
Answer:

Region	Segments
Cephalic region	1st – 5th
Pre-clitellar region	6th, 7th and 8th
Clitellar region	9th, 10th and 11th
Middle region	12th – 22nd
Caudal region	23rd – 26th
Posterior sucker	27th – 33rd

Question 9.
Explain the hermaphrodite structure of leech.
Answer:
Leech is hermaphrodite because it contain both male and female genital organ in same animal.
Male Reproductive system: It is formed of: (i) Testes, (ii) Vas efferens, (Hi) Epididymis, (iv) Ejaculatory ducts and atrium.

There are eleven pairs of testes, one pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments. They are in the form of spherical sacs called testes sacs. From each testes arises a short duct called vas efferens, which join with the vas deferens. The vas deferens becomes convoluted to form the epididymis or sperm vesicle, to store spermatozoa.

The epididymis leads to a short duct called ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory ducts on both sides join to form the genital atrium. The atrium consists of two regions, the coiled prostate glands and the penial sac consisting of penis that opens through the male genital pore.

Female Reproductive system : It consists of ovaries, oviducts and vagina. There is a single pair of ovary in the 11th segment on the ventral side. Each ovary is a coiled ribbon-shaped structure. The ova are budded off from the ovary. From each ovary runs a short oviduct. The oviducts of the two sides joins together, to form a common oviduct. The common oviduct opens into a pear-shaped vagina which lies mid-ventrally in the posterior part of the 11th segment.

VIII. Label the following diagrams.

Question 1.
Draw and label the female Reproductive System of Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and label the Digestive System of Leech.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw and label the Brain of the rabbit.
Answer:

Question 4.
Draw and label the Lung of Rabbit.
Answer:

IX. Answer the following in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Digestive System of Rabbit with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Teeth are hard, bone – like structures used to cut, tear and grind the food materials. The digestive system includes the Alimentary canal and the associated digestive glands. The alimentary canal consists of a mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine and anus. The mouth is a transverse slit, bounded by upper and lower lips.

It leads to a buccal cavity muscular tongue is at the floor of the buccal cavity. Jaws bear teeth. Buccal cavity leads into Oesophagus. Oesophagus opens into the stomach followed by the small intestine. The thin-walled Sac, called Caecum, present at the Junction of the small intestine and large intestine, contains bacteria, which helps in digestion of cellulose.

The digestive glands such as salivary glands, gastric glands, Liver, Pancreas and intestinal glands secrete digestive juices, which help in the digestion of food in the Alimentary canal. After digestion, from the small intestine, the undigested food and wastes enter into the large intestine, which has colon and rectum. The rectum opens outside by the Anus.

Question 2.
Explain the male and the female Reproductive system of Leech with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Leech is hermaphrodite, both the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same.
Male Reproductive system: There are eleven pairs of testes, one pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments. They are in the form of Spherical Sacs called testes sacs. From each testis arises a short duct called Vas efferents, which join with the Vas deferens.

The Vas deferens becomes convoluted to form the epididymis or sperm vesicle, to store spermatozoa. The epididymis leads to a short duct called the ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct on both sides joins to form Genital Atrium. The Atrium consists of prostate glands and the Penial sac, with Penis, that opens through the genital pore.

Female Reproductive system: It consists of Ovaries, Oviducts and Vagina. Each ovary is coiled, ribbon-shaped, and the single pair of the ovary is in the 11th segment. The Ova are budded off from the ovary. From each ovary runs a short oviduct, and the oviducts of two sides join together, to form a common Oviduct, which opens into a pear-shaped Vagina. Vagina lies mid ventrally in the posterior part of 11th segment.

Internal fertilisation takes place. This is followed by cocoon formation. The cocoon or egg case is formed around 9th, 10th and 11th segments. Development directs, proceeds in a cocoon, which contain one to 24 embryos. The emerging young leech resembles the adult Leech.

Question 3.
Explain the Circulatory system of Rabbit with a neat labelled diagram of a Heart.
(i) Observe the external morphology of leech specimen in your biology laboratory.
(ii) Can you find leeches in your locality?
(iii) In which geographical areas are leeches found more predominantly in India?
Answer:
The Circulatory system consists of blood, blood vessels and Heart. The Heart is pear-shaped, lies in between the lungs, in the thoracic cavity. The heart is covered by a double-layered Pericardium. The Heart is four-chambered, with two Auricles and two ventricles. The right and the left ventricles are separated by inter auricular septum. The right and the left ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum. The right auricle opens into the right ventricle, by right Auriculoventricular aperture, guarded by a tricuspid valve. The left auricle opens into the left ventricle by left Auriculoventricular aperture, guarded by a bicuspid valve or Mitral valve. The opening of the Pulmonary Artery and Aorta are guarded by three semilunar valves.

The right Auricle receives deoxygenated blood through two Precaval (superior vena cava) and one postcaval (Inferior vena cava) veins from all parts of the body. The left auricle receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins from the lungs.
From the right ventricle arises Pulmonary trunk, which carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs and from the left ventricle arises the systemic arch (aorta) which supplies Oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.

(i) Observe the external morphology of Leech in the preserved bottle specimens in the Biology Laboratory.
(ii) No, Not in our areas. The Leeches are common in hilly areas
(iii) Most Leech species are found in shallow, slow-moving freshwater and moist soil on land.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
How were Leeches used in Ancient times?
Answer:
Leeches were used in medicines from Ancient times. Until the 19th century, Leeches were used to draw blood from patients.

Question 2.
How are Leeches used in modern times?
Answer:
In modem times, Leeches find medical use in the treatment of Joint diseases such as Epicondylitis and Osteoarthritis, Extremity vein diseases and Microsurgery. Hirudin is a valuable dmg for some blood clotting disorders. There are doctors who will use Leeches to treat muscle cramps.

Question 3.
What is the benefit of Rabbit?
Answer:
Rabbit meat is white meat of high quality, easily digestible with low fat, low cholesterol and high protein compared to most other meats. It is an excellent source of vitamins B₃ and B₁₂, minerals, and trace elements (Phosphorus, Potassium and Selenium) Rabbit meat is an excellent balance of fatty acids, Omega 3 than chicken or pork.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science Civics Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science Civics Board solutions for Chapter 1 Indian Constitution Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 1 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Indian Constitution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer

10th Social Civics 1st Lesson Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Social Solutions For Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens …………………
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Guide Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through:
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

10th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Social Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary

10th Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

10th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Indian Constitution 10th Class Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the:
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into ………………
(а) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in …………….
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1 and 2

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The concept of constitution first originated in ……………..
2. …………….. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
4. ………….. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article …………..
Answer:
1. USA
2. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
3. 26, November, 1949
4. Five
5. 51A

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution is the Fundamental law of a country which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of that country’ is based.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Originally the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights. At present there are only six fundamental rights.
2. Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right to freedom of Religion, Right against exploitation, cultural and Educational Rights and Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
Classical languages have an independent tradition that arose mostly on its own. Have a large and rich body of ancient literature. Tamil is the oldest of, all the languages in the world. In 2004, the Government of India has created a new category of languages called ‘Classical languages’ Six languages are granted the classical status Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is a national emergency?
Answer:
A national emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
The Centre-State relations can be studied under three heads.

1. Legislative Relations: Union list, State list and Concurrent list.
2. Administrative Relations: Executive power of the States and Union.
3. Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered to levy taxes.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
There are six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our Constitution to all the citizens.
Right to Equality: (Article 14 to 18)
Art. 14: Everyone is equal before law.
Art .15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art .17: Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.
Right to Freedom: (Art. 19 to Art. 22)
Art. 19 : Freedom of speech and expression. Assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21 A: Right to Elementary education.
Art. 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Right against Exploitation: (Art 23 & 24)
Prohibition of trafficking in human being and forced labour.
Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
Right to Religion: (Art. 25 to Art. 28)
Art. 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art.26: Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27: Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28: Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Cultural and Educational Rights: (Art 29 to Art 30)
Art. 29: Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. Right to Constitutional Remedies: (Art.32)
Art. 32: It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
Our Constitution guarantees six Fundamental Rights to its citizens. It safeguards all these rights by granting us the Right to Constitutional Remedies. It is possible that the Government or private bodies may violate one of our Fundamental Rights. Right to Constitutional Remedies protects us from such violations. It allows us to file a case against the Government or private bodies in the High Courts of the States and the Supreme Court of the India.

Both the Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition two warrants and certiorari to protect the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. That is why the Supreme Court is called the “Guardian of the Constitutions”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Here are the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

	Fundamental Rights	Directive Principles of State Policy
1.	It was derived from the Constitution of the USA.	It was drawn on the model of the Constitution of Ireland
2.	These Rights cannot be taken away even by the Government.	These are mere instructions to the Government.
3.	These Rights are enforceable by a Court of Law	These are not enforceable in any court.
4.	These have legal sanctions.	These have moral and political sanctions.
5.	These rights strengthen political democracy in the country.	The implementation of these principles ensures social and economic democracy.
6.	These are natural rights.	These lead to protect human rights.

In-text Activity:
List out the recognized languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
As per articles 344(1) and 351 of the Indian Constitution, the Eight Schedule includes the recognition of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Bondo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Meitei, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

Indian Constitution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was elected the President of the Constitutional Assembly after the death of Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) H. C. Mukherjee
Answer:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
A ………………. tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
(a) Assembly
(b) Central Government
(c) State Government
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(d) Constitution

Question 3.
The framers of Indian Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of ……………
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) France
(d) England
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 4.
Our Constitution is ………………. in nature.
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible
(b) rigid and flexible
(c) purely flexible
(d) very rigid
Answer:
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible

Question 5.
How many languages are recognised in our Constitution?
(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 26
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 6.
Preamble clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the ……………….
(a) Parliament
(b) people
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) people

Question 7.
……………. Constitution established the rule of law in India.
(a) Indian
(b) British
(c) USA
Answer:
(a) Indian

Question 8.
Right to property Art 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by ………………. Amendment Act.
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 86th
(d) Act of 1955
Answer:
(b) 44th

Question 9.
………………. committees were formed for framing of the Constitution.
(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 13
Answer:
(c) 13

Question 10.
In 1951 for the first time President’s rule was imposed in ………………. state.
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 11.
Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
(a) 26^th January, 1950
(b) 26^th November, 1949
(c) 15^th August, 1947
Answer:
(b) 26^th November, 1949

Question 12.
The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held in ………………
(a) 9^th December, 1947
(b) 9^th December, 1946
(c) 10^th December, 1946
Answer:
(b) 9^th December, 1946

Question 13.
Who was elected as interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.N, Rao
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Question 14.
Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) B.N. Rao
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Question 15.
Abolition of untouchability lies in which Article?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 16
Answer:
(a) Article 17

Question 16.
Who was the Viceroy of India when India became free?
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Mount Batten
Answer:
(c) Lord Mount Batten

Question 17.
Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from ……………..
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
Answer:
(c) Ireland

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Citizenship Act of …………. prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship.
2. While Fundamental Rights are available to all persons, certain Fundamental Rights are available only to ………….. citizens.
3. Habeas Corpus safeguards people from …………….. arrests.
4. In case of conflict between the law of the State and the Union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of …………… prevails.
5. The Constitution of India can be amended in ………….. ways.
6. …………….. was not the member of Drafting Committee.
7. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are ……………..
8. The Constitution of India recognises …………………
9. The Cabinet Mission of India was headed by ……………
10. Right to Constitutional remedies comes under ………….
11. ………….. of Indian Constitution is called ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’.
12. Right to freedom of religion includes ……………
13. …………….. of Indian Constitution is described as Magna Carte of India.
14. India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic on …………..
15. …………… is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
1. 1955
2. Indian
3. Illegal
4. Parliament
5. Three
6. Jawahar Lai Nehru
7. Article 14 to 18
8. religious and linguistic minorities
9. Lord Pethick Lawrence
10. Fundamental Rights
11. Article 32
12. Article 25 to 28
13. PartIII
14. 26 January, 1950
15. Government of India Act 1935

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (f)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (g)
10. (i)

IV. True or False.

1. A Secular State does not officially promote any one religion as the State religion,
2. Religious freedom is provided to all the citizens of the country.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not a part of the Indian Constitution.
4. The Universal adult franchise was adopted much before the Independence of India.
5. Our Constitution guarantees rights of minorities against the majority.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Why there is a need for Constitution?
Answer:

1. A Constitution lays down certain principles that form the basis to govern.
2. A Constitution tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
3. A Country is usually made of different communities of people having different beliefs.
4. It will be helpful in fulfilling the beliefs of different segment of citizens.
5. So the Constitution is necessary for a democratic country like India for the smooth functioning of the government for the welfare of the people.

Question 2.
Name five ways of acquiring citizenship.
Answer:
Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation and Incorporation of territory.

Question 3.
What did our Constitution contain?
Answer:
Our Constitution contained a Preamble, 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 4.
How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’?
Answer:
He described these Principles as ‘novel features’ of Indian Constitution.

Question 5.
People of India are the source of our Constitution. Justify.
Answer:
The Preamble begins with the phrase “ We the people of India”. This clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 6.
Freedom of Press implicit in which Article of the Constitution?
Answer:
Freedom of Press implicit in Article 19.

Question 7.
What are Directive principles of State Policy?
Answer:
Directive principles of State Policy are the directives issued by the Central Government to the State Government aiming at promoting the social welfare of the people enumerated in part IV of the Constitution.

Question 8.
How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly took about 3 years to pass the Constitution since 9 December, 1946.

Question 9.
By which amendment fundamental duties are included and by whom it was recommended?
Answer:
In 1976 the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations on fundamental duties. By the 42^nd amendment under part IVA of our Constitution. Article 51A deals with fundamental duties.

Question 10.
What is Right to Equality?
Answer:
Right to Equality means that all persons are equal before the law.

Question 11.
What is Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Under this Right the Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced labour and children working under 14 years.

Question 12.
Who was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original Constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italics style.

Question 13.
How has the section on Fundamental Rights often been referred to?
Answer:
It has often been referred to as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.

Question 14.
How are the Fundamental Rights important?
Answer:
It protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.

Question 15.
Which Articles deals with citizenship?
Answer:
Articles 5 to 11 under Part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship.

Question 16.
What is known as mini Constitution?
Answer:
42^nd amendment of the Constitution is known as mini Constitution.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the writs issued by the Supreme Court or the High Courts.
Answer:
To safeguard the fundamental rights the Supreme Courts or the High Courts issue order or command which are known as Writs.

1. Habeas Corpus: This writ safeguard people from illegal arrest.
2. Mandamus: It protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.
3. Prohibition: It prohibits a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
4. Certiorari: It quashes an order issued by a subordinate court by overstepping its jurisdiction.
5. Quo Warranto: It prevents unsurpation of public office through illegal manner.

Question 2.
Throw light on the Centre – State relations as described in our Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is federal in structure. It divides all powers between the Centre and the States. The Centre – State relationship can be studied under three heads.
(i) Legislative Relations: The Union Parliament has the power to legislate for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The -seventh schedule of the Constitution embodies these lists – the union list, state list and concurrent list consisting of 97, 66 and 47 items respectively. The Parliament has the power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the union list. The State Legislature has exclusive right to legislate on the State list. Both Parliament and State Legislature have power to legislate on subjects enlisted in the concurrent list. But in case of conflict between the law of the state and the union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of Parliament prevails.

(ii) Administrative Relations: The administrative power of State extends only to its own territory and with respect to which it has legislative competence, whereas the Union has exclusive executive power over the matters with respect to which Parliament is empowered to make laws and the exercise of its powers conferred by any treaty or agreement.

(iii) Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered by the Constitution to impose various kinds of taxes. Some of these taxes are imposed and collected by the Centre and divided between Centre and States based on the recommendation of the Finance Commission appointed by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.

Question 3.
How can a person lose his Citizenship?
Answer:
Loss of Citizenship: The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes three ways of losing Citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution.
Renunciation: It can be voluntarily renounced by a person.
Termination: It can be terminated if a person acquires the Citizenship of some other country.
Deprivation: The Central Government can deprive a naturalized Citizen if it satisfied that the Citizenship was

1. acquired by fraud
2. false representation or concealment of material facts
3. indulges in trade with enemy countries and has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of 2 years.

Question 4.
Write about the types of Amendments.
Answer:
Article 368 provides for three ways of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some of the articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a single majority of Parliament, that is a majority of the members of each House present and voting.
Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures

Question 5.
What do you mean by Amendment? And what are the three ways by which the Constitution can be amended?
Answer:
The term Amendment denotes change, improvement and modification. Usually this term is associated with one or more changes made in the Constitution of the country with one or more charges.

Article 368 of the Constitution in part XX deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

Constitution can be amended in three ways.

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State Legislatures.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.3

10th Maths Exercise 1.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Let f = {(x, y)|x, y ∈ N and y = 2x} be a relation on N. Find the domain, co-domain and range. Is this relation a function?
Solution:
F = {(x, y)|x, y ∈ N and y = 2x}
x = {1, 2, 3,…}
y = {1 × 2, 2 × 2, 3 × 2, 4 × 2, 5 × 2 …}
R = {(1, 2), (2, 4), (3, 6), (4, 8), (5, 10),…}
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4,…},
Co-domain = {1, 2, 3…..}
Range of R = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10,…}
Yes, this relation is a function.

Exercise 1.3 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 2.
Let X = {3, 4, 6, 8}. Determine whether the relation R = {(x, f(x))|x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1} is a function from X to N ?
Solution:
x = {3,4, 6, 8}
R = ((x, f(x))|x ∈ X, f(x) = X² + 1}
f(x) = x² + 1
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 65

R = {(3, 10), (4, 17), (6, 37), (8, 65)}
R = {(3, 10), (4, 17), (6, 37), (8, 65)}
Yes, R is a function from X to N.

Ex 1.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Given the function
f : x → x² – 5x + 6, evaluate
(i) f(-1)
(ii) f(2 a)
(iii) f(2)
(iv) f(x – 1)
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 5x + 6
(i) f (-1) = (-1)² – 5 (-1) + 6 = 1 + 5 + 6 = 12
(ii) f (2a) = (2a)² – 5 (2a) + 6 = 4a² – 10a + 6
(iii) f(2) = 2² – 5(2) + 6 = 4 – 10 + 6 = 0
(iv) f(x – 1) = (x – 1)² – 5 (x – 1) + 6
= x² – 2x + 1 – 5x + 5 + 6
= x² – 7x + 12

10th Maths Relation And Function Question 4.
A graph representing the function f(x) is given in figure it is clear that f(9) = 2.

(i) Find the following values of the function
(a) f(0)
(b) f(7)
(c) f(2)
(d) f(10)
(ii) For what value of x is f (x) = 1?
(iii) Describe the following
(i) Domain
(ii) Range.
(iv) What is the image of 6 under f?
Solution:
From the graph
(a) f(0) = 9
(b) f(7) = 6
(c) f(2) = 6
(d) f(10) = 0
(ii) At x = 9.5, f(x) = 1
(iii) Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
= {x |0 < x < 10, x ∈ R}
Range = {x|0 < x < 9, x ∈ R}
= {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
(iv) The image of 6 under f is 5.

10th Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 5.
Let f(x) = 2x + 5. If x ≠ 0 then find \(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}\)
Solution:
Given f(x) = 2x + 5, x ≠ 0.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 6.
A function fis defined by f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
(ii) find x such that f(x) = 0.
(iii) find x such that f(x) = x.
(iv) find x such that f(x) = f(1 – x).
Solution:
Given f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
f(0) = 2(0) – 3 = -3
f(1) = 2(1) – 3 = -1
∴ \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}=\frac{-3-1}{2}=\frac{-4}{2}\) = -2

(ii) f(x) = 0
⇒ 2x – 3 = 0
2x = 3
x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

(iii) f(x) = x
⇒ 2x – 3 = x ⇒ 2x – x = 3
x = 3

(iv) f(x) = f(1 – x)
2x – 3 = 2(1 – x) – 3
2x – 3 = 2x – 2x – 3
2x + 2x = 2 – 3 + 3
4x = 2
x = \(\frac{2}{4}\)
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

10 Std Maths Exercise 1.3 VQuestion 7.
An open box is to be made from a square piece of material, 24 cm on a side, by cutting equal squares from the corners and turning up the sides as shown in figure. Express the volume V of the box as a function of x.

Solution:
Volume of the box = Volume of the cuboid
= l × b × h cu. units
Here l = 24 – 2x
b = 24 – 2x
h = x
∴ V = (24 – 2x) (24 – 2x) × x
= (576 – 48x – 48x + 4x²)x
V = 4x³ – 96x² + 576x

10 Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 8.
A function f is defined bv f(x) = 3 – 2x . Find x such that f(x2) = (f(x))2.
Solution:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2x²

10th Maths Exercise 1.3 In Tamil Question 9.
A plane is flying at a speed of 500 km per hour. Express the distance d travelled by the plane as function of time r in hours.
Answer:
Speed of the plane = 500 km/hr
Distance travelled in “t” hours
= 500 × t (distance = speed × time)
= 500 t

10th Maths 1.3 Question 10.
The data in the adjacent table depicts the length of a woman’s forehand and her corresponding height. Based on this data, a student finds a relationship between the height (y) and the forehand length(x) as y = ax + b, where a, b are constants.

(i) Check if this relation is a function.
(ii) Find a and b.
(iii) Find the height of a woman whose forehand length is 40 cm.
(iv) Find the length of forehand of a woman if her height is 53.3 inches.
Solution:
(i) Given y = ax + b …………. (1)
The ordered pairs are R = {(35, 56) (45, 65) (50, 69.5) (55, 74)}
∴ Hence this relation is a function.

Substituting a = 0.9 in (2) we get
⇒ 65 = 45(.9) + b
⇒ 65 = 40.5 + b
⇒ b = 65 – 40.5
⇒ b = 24.5
∴ a = 0.9, b = 24.5
∴ y = 0.9x + 24.5
(iii) Given x = 40 , y = ?
∴ (4) → y = 0.9 (40) + 24.5
⇒ y = 36 + 24.5
⇒ y = 60.5 inches
(iv) Given y = 53.3 inches, x = ?
(4) → 53.3 = 0.9x + 24.5
⇒ 53.3 – 24.5 = 0.9x
⇒ 28.8 = 0.9x
⇒ x = \(\frac{28.8}{0.9}\) = 32 cm
∴ When y = 53.3 inches, x = 32 cm

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.5

10th Maths Exercise 3.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Simplify

Solution:

Ex 3.5 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Simplify

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.5 Samacheer Question 3.
Simplify

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.5 Question 4.
If x = \(\frac{a^{2}+3 a-4}{3 a^{2}-3}\) and y = \(\frac{a^{2}+2 a-8}{2 a^{2}-2 a-4}\) find the value of x²y².
Solution:

Exercise 3.5 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 5.
If a polynomial p(x) = x² – 5x – 14 is divided by another polynomial q(x) we get \(\frac{x-7}{x+2}\) find q(x).
Solution:
p(x) = x² – 5x – 14

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.3

10th Maths Exercise 3.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the LCM and GCD for the following and verify that f(x) × g(x) = LCM × GCD.
(i) 21x²y, 35xy²
(ii) (x³ – 1)(x + 1), x³ + 1
(ii) (x³ – 1) (x + 1), (x³ – 1)
(iii) (x²y + xy²), (x² + xy)
Solution:
(i) f(x) = 21x²y = 3 × 7x²y
g(x) = 35xy² = 7 × 5xy²
G.C.D. = 7xy
L.C.M. = 7 × 3 × 5 × x²y² = 105x² × y²
L.C.M × G.C.D = f(x) × g(x)
105x²y² × 7xy = 21x²y × 35xy²
735x³y³ = 735x³y³
Hence verified.

(ii) (x³ – 1)(x + 1) = (x – 1)(x² + x + 1)(x + 1)
x³ + 1 = (x + 1) (x² – x + 1)
G.C.D = (x+ 1)
L.C.M = (x – 1)(x + 1)(x² + x + 1)(x² – x + 1)
∴ L.C.M. × G.C.D = f(x) × g(x)
(x – 1)(x + 1)(x² + x + 1) (x² – x + 1) = (x – 1)
(x² + x + 1) × (x + 1) (x² – x + 1)
(x³ – 1)(x + 1)(x³ + 1) = (x³ – 1)(x + 1)(x³ + 1)
∴ Hence verified.

(iii) f(x) = x²y + xy² = xy(x + y)
g(x) = x² + xy = x(x + y)
L.C.M. = x y (x + y)
G.C.D. = x (x + y)
To verify:
L.C.M. × G.C.D. = xy(x + y) × (x + y)
= x²y (x + y)² ……….. (1)
f(x) × g (x) = (x²y + xy²)(x² + xy)
= x²y (x + y)² …………… (2)
∴ L.C.M. × G.C.D = f(x) × g{x).
Hence verified.

Ex 3.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the LCM of each pair of the following polynomials
(i) a² + 4a – 12, a² – 5a + 6 whose GCD is a – 2
(ii) x⁴ – 27a³x, (x – 3a)² whose GCD is (x – 3a)
Solution:
(i) f(x) = a² + 4a – 12 = (a + 6)(a – 2)

(ii) f(x) = x⁴ – 27a³x = x(x³ – (3a)³)
g(x) = (x – 3a)²
G.C.D = (x – 3a)
L.C.M. × G.C.D = f(x) × g(x)
L. C.M = \(\frac{x\left(x^{3}-(3 a)^{3}\right) \times(x-3 a)^{2}}{(x-3 a)}\)
L.C.M = x(x³ – (3a)³) . (x – 3a)
= x(x – 3a)² (x² + 3ax + 9a²)

10th Maths Exercise 3.3 Question 3.
Find the GCD of each pair of the following polynomials
(i) 12(x⁴ – x³), 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²) whose LCM is 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)
(ii) (x³ + y³), (x⁴ + x²y² + y⁴) whose LCM is (x³ + y³) (x² + xy + y²)
Solution:
(i) f(x)= 12(x⁴ – x³)
g(x) = 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²)
L.C.M = 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)

(ii) (x³ + y³), (x⁴ + x²y² + y⁴)
L.C.M. = (x³ + y³)(x² + xy + y²)

Exercise 3.3 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 4.
Given the LCM and GCD of the two polynomials p(x) and q(x) find the unknown polynomial in the following table

Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture

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Components of Agriculture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Components Of Agriculture Question 1.
The soil which is rich in iron oxides is …………
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Red
(d) Alkaline
Answer:
(c) Red

3 Components Of Agriculture Question 2.
Which of the following organization has divided the Indian soils into 8 major groups?
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(b) Indian Meteorological Department
(c) Soil Survey of India
(d) Indian Institute of Soil Science
Answer:
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Social Science Question 3.
The soils formed by the rivers are: ……….
(a) Red soils
(b) Black soils
(c) Desert soils
(d) Alluvial soils
Answer:
(d) Alluvial soils

Two Characteristics Of Black Soil Question 4.
……………… is the highest gravity dam in india
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Define Ploughing Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
……… is a cash crop.
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 6.
Black soils are also called as:
(a) Arid solis
(b) Saline soils
(c) Regur soils
(d) Mountain soils
Answer:
(c) Regur soils

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is ……..
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The leading producer of rice in India is:
(a) Punjab
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(d) West Bengal

Question 9.
Which crop is called as “Golden Fibre” in India?
(a) Cotton
(b) Wheat
(c) Jute
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(c) Jute

Question 10.
The state which leads in the production of coffee is:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Odisha
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(b) Karnataka

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Horticulture involves the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and flowers.
Reason (R): India ranks first in the world in the production of mango, banana, and citrus fruits.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true: (R) does not explain (A)
(a) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of eroded and decayed materials brought by the rivers.
Reason (R): Paddy and wheat are grown well in the soil.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R)are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(d) (A) is false (R) is true

III. Pick the odd one out.

Question 1.
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Millets
(d) Coffee
Answer:
(d) Coffee

Question 2.
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Black soil
Answer:
(d) Black soil

Question 3.
(a) Inundational canals
(b) Perennial canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Tanks

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
2. (c) Karnataka
3. (e) Highest dam in the India
4. (a) Mahanadi
5. (b) Golden revolution

V. Answer in brief:

Question 1.
Define soil.
Answer:

1. Soil is the upper most layer of the land surface.
2. It is composed of minerals, organic matter, living organisms, air and water.

Question 2.
Name the types of soil found in India.
Answer:

1. Alluvial Soils
2. Black soils
3. Red soils
4. Laterite soils
5. Forest and mountain soils
6. Arid and desert soils
7. Saline and alkaline soils
8. Peaty and marshy soils.

Question 3.
State any two characteristics of black cotton soil.
Answer:

1. Black cotton soil are sticky (clayey) when wet and develops cracks when dry.
2. Has high degree of moisture retentivity.

Question 4.
What is Multipurpose project?
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purpose project”.

Question 5.
Define Agriculture.
Answer:
Agriculture is the process of producing food for people, fodder for cattle, fibre and many other desired products by cultivation and raising of animals (livestock).

Question 6.
State the types of agriculture practices in India.
Answer:

1. Subsistence Farming
2. Shifting Agriculture
3. Intensive Farming
4. Dry Farming
5. Mixed Farming Agriculture
6. Terrace Cultivation

Question 7.
Name the seasons of agriculture in India?
Answer:
Seasons of agriculture in India:

1. Kharif season (June – September)
2. Zaid season (April – June)
3. Rabi season (October – March)

Question 8.
Mention the plantation crops of India.
Answer:
Plantation crops are cultivated for the purpose of exports. These are cultivated in large estates on hilly slopes.
Tea, coffee, rubber and spices are the major plantation crops of India.

Question 9.
What do you mean by livestock?
Answer:

1. Livestock consists of Cattle, goats, buffaloes, sheeps and pigs. It also includes poultry.
2. It is an integral component of the farming system in India due to its multi-functional outputs and contribution to socio-cultural security.

Question 10.
Write a brief note on the categories of fisheries in India.
Answer:
Fisheries in India are a very important economic activity and a flourishing sector with varied resources and potentials. In India, fishing is categorised into two types: they are
1. Marine or Sea Fisheries
2. Inland or Fresh Water Fisheries

1. Marine or Sea Fisheries: It includes coastal, off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continental shelf upto a depth of 200 m. Among the coastal states, Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.

2. Inland or Fresh Water Fisheries: Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc. are the sources of fresh water and provide fresh water fisheries. About 50 percent of the country’s total fish production comes from the inland fisheries and Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

VI. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Agriculture is the backbone of India.
Answer:
More than 50% of Indian population is engaged in agriculture and its allied • industries. 25% of our National Income is from agricultural sector. It is the livelihood for the Indian population. Hence Agriculture is the backbone of India.

Question 2.
Rain water harvesting is necessary.
Answer:
Rain water harvesting is an activity of direct collection and storage of water for our purpose or it can be reached into the ground for withdrawal later.

India experience Tropical monsoon type of climate. It gives a seasonal rainfall. It is not uniform and is highly erratic. Most of the time the rainfall is scanty. Hence it is necessary to save the available rain water.

Question 3.
Small farms are predominant in India.
Answer:
Most of the farmers in India has only small land holdings and fragmented land due to ancestral property share. Mainly in densely populated areas of intensively cultivated states.

VII. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Rabi and Kharif crop seasons.
Answer:

S.No.	Rabi	Kharif
1.	Rabi crops are sown in the beginning of the winter (i.e.) in November.	Kharif crops are sown in the beginning of monsoon (i.e.) in June.
2.	The crops are harvested in the beginning of summer (i.e) in March.	The crops are harvested in the early days of November.
3.	Major crops are wheat, tobacco, mustard, pulses, linseed and grains.	Major crops are paddy, maize, cotton, millets, jute and sugarcane.

Question 2.
Inundational canal and perennial canal.
Answer:

S.No.	Inundational canal	perennial canal
1.	In this, water is taken out directly from the rivers without making any kind of barrage or dam.	These are developed from perennial rivers by constructing barrage to regulate the flow of water.
2.	These canals are not useful for irrigation.	These canals are useful for irrigation
3.	Punjab has got a large numbers of inundation canals drawing water from sutlej river.	These canals are found in Punjab, Haryana and UP.

Question 3.
Marine fishing and Inland fishing.
Answer:

S.No.	Marine fishing	Inland fishing
1.	It includes coastal off-shore and deep sea fisheries mainly on the continent shelf.	Rivers, lakes, canals, reservoirs, ponds, tanks etc.
2.	Kerala leads in the marine fish production in India.	Andhra Pradesh is the leading producer in India.

Question 4.
Alluvial soils and Black soils.
Answer:

VIII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
State the types of soil in India and explain the characteristics and distribution of soil.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write about any two Multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:

1. Multipurpose project is a scinetific management of water resources in our country.
2. Construction of dam across rivers is aimed to serve many purposes such as irrigation, hydro power generation, floods control, water supply for drinking and industrial purpose, development of fisheries, navigation etc.
3. In India we have many multipurpose River valley projects.

Bhakra Nangal Project:

1. Bhakra Nangal project is the largest and the most important river valley project named after two dams built at Bhakra and Nangal to harness the water of the Sutlej river.
2. This dam is the highest gravity dam in the world and forms the Gobmd Sagar Reservoir.
3. It irrigates an area of about 52,609 sq.km in the states of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan.
4. This project generates about 1500 megawatt of Hydropower electricity.
5. It is the second tallest dam in Asia with a height of 226 m.

Mettur Dam:

1. Mettur Dam has been constructed on the river Kaveri at Salem. The Reservoir behind this dam has been called Stanley Reservoir with a height of 176 ft.
2. This project irrigates about 16.5 lakh acres of land in 12 districts of TamilNadu in Kaveri delta basin.
3. 40 megawatts hydro power is being produced from this project.

Question 3.
Bring out the characteristics of Intensive and Plantation farming.
Answer:
Intensive farming:

1. It involves various types of agriculture with higher levels of input, such as capital and labour, per unit of agricultural land area.
2. It aims to maximize yields from available land through various means, such as heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers.
3. Intensive farming is practiced in Punjab, parts of Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh in India.

Plantation farming:

1. It is a single crop farming, practised on a large area.
2. Crops are mainly grown for the market.
3. It is both labour intensive and capital intensive.
4. It has an interface of agriculture and industry.
5. Developed network of transport and communication connecting the plantation processing industries and markets play an important role in the development of plants. Example-tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, etc.

Question 4.
Examine the geographical conditions favourable for the cultivation of rice and wheat.
Answer:
Soil: Deep fertile clayey or loamy soils are suited.
Temperature and Rainfall: Require mean temperatures of 24°C and annual rainfall of 150 cm.
Rice is mainly a tropical crop.
Wheat: Wheat is a temperate or sub-tropical crop. Fertile alluvial soil or mixed soil is ideal for wheat cultivation.
Rainfall: Moderate 50cm – 100cm rainfall.
Temperature: It requires 10°-15°C at the time of sowing and 20°-25°C at the time of ripening.

IX. HOTS Questions.

Question 1.
Can you imagine a world without agriculture?
Answer:

1. No, it fs impossible to imagine a world without agriculture.
2. Agriculture satisfy the basic need of food to millions of people and live stocks.
3. It provide raw materials for agro based industries.
4. Export of agricultural produces help in the development of Country’s economy.

Question 2.
Can you give solutions for the prevailing water disputes in South India (construction of dams / raising of dams / cleaning of tanks)?
Answer:
Dams are meant to mitigate flood and drought by containing water and releasing it as per demand and supply. These days, dams are seen more as hydropower generators. However, in some cases, the price paid to construct a dam, especially in social and environmental terms, becomes too high. Instead of building new dams, we should attend to underperformance of existing ones. For irrigation purposes, we can revive traditional community-managed networks and recharge underground aquifers through rainwater.

We can use technology and develop adaptive farming techniques. Mathematical models can be developed to estimate the water availability in the river based on the rain estimation of the particular year. For example, if estimation says that there won’t be much rain in the particular year then the farmers can be advised to grow oil seeds, millets, etc. If good rains are predicted then the farmers can grow sugarcane, paddy, etc.

The improper use and management of water also add to the water crisis. Pollution and mining of riverbeds are irreversibly transforming riverine ecosystems. In many regions, excessive groundwater pumping has lowered water tables and worsened the problems. The solution lies in reversing environmental degradation, ensuring equitable allocation of water, and minimising disputes on the use of rivers. The health of any waterscape is fundamental to the well-being, lives and livelihoods of communities that depend on it.

X. Map exercise
1. Demarcate the major tracts of alluvial soils.
2. Delineate the main regions of black soil.
6. Demarcate the regions of desert soil.

4. Shade the regions of jute cultivation.
5. Mark any three tea and coffee growing areas.

3. Locate the Hirakud dam, Mettur dam and Damodar dam.
7. Locate the fishing hubs: Tuticorin, Chennai, Cochin, Mumbai, Machilipatnam
8. Demarcate: Cauvery delta, Godavari delta

Components of Agriculture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Paddy is grown well in the ……….
(a) black soil
(b) laterite soil
(c) alluvial soil
Answer:
(c) alluvial soil

Question 2.
……………… soils are formed due to ill drainage.
(a) Mountain
(b) Saline and alkaline
(c) Peaty
(d) Desert
Answer:
(b) Saline and alkaline

Question 3.
The predominant types of Indian agriculture is …….
(a) commercial agriculture
(b) subsistence agriculture.
(c) primitive agriculture
Answer:
(b) subsistence agriculture.

Question 4.
The effective source of irrigation in areas of low level relief is ……………… irrigation.
(a) Canal
(b) Tank
(c) Well
(d) Lakes
Answer:
(a) Canal

Question 5.
Black soils are ideal for the cultivation of
(a) Rice
(b) Jute
(c) Cotton
Answer:
(c) Cotton

Question 6.
……………… is the leading state in tank irrigation.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(a) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
The staple food of South Indian is ………
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Millets
Answer:
(a) Rice

Question 8.
……………… River valley project is a joint venture between Bihar and Nepal.
(a) Kosi
(b) Damodhar
(c) Bhakranangal
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Kosi

Question 9.
One of the important Kharif crops is ………..
(a) Barley
(b) Cotton
(c) Vegetables
Answer:
(b) Cotton

Question 10.
The name of the shifting agriculture followed by the tribals of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh is:
(a) Jhum
(b) Podu
(c) Poonam
(d) Penda
Answer:
(b) Podu

Question 11.
In Kerala ………….. has many coffee estates.
(a) Kochi
(b) Wynad
(c) Trivandrum
Answer:
(b) Wynad

Question 12.
The leading state in wool production is ……………… with 32.9%
(a) Karnataka
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Rajasthan
(d) West Bengal
Answer:
(c) Rajasthan

Question 13.
The ……… is known as Sorrow of Bihar.
(a) Krishna
(b) Damodar
(c) Kosi
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 14.
The Periyar river has its source in the state of ……..
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
Answer:
(c) Kerala

Question 15.
There is demand for additional farm labour due to ……….
(a) irrigation
(b) rainfall
(c) electrification
Answer:
(a) irrigation

Question 16.
To areas of small holidays …….. irrigation is well suited.
(a) well
(b) tubewell
(c) canal
Answer:
(b) tubewell

Question 17.
The ……… dam is constructed on the river Beas.
(a) Bakra Nangal
(b) Pong
(c) Mettur
Answer:
(b) Pong

Question 18.
The Kosi project in Bihar has been taken up in co-operation with ………
(a) Nepal
(b) Bhutan
(c) Thailand
Answer:
(a) Nepal

Question 19.
The Mettur dam irrigates Coimbatore and ………. district.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Tiruchy
(c) Salem
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 20.
Lower Bhavani project is located in ………….. district.
(a) coimbatore
(b) Tiruchy
(c) Salem
Answer:
(a) coimbatore

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Prime source of water is ……….
2. Canals taken out from reverse without regulating system are called ……… canals.
3. Shifting agriculture is performed by ……… people.
4. The most widely distributed source of irrigation in India is ……….
5. The highest gravity dam in the world is the ……..
6. The longest irrigation canal in the world is ………..
7. The longest dam in the world is the ………. dam.
8. The Cauvery delta canal system belongs to the …….. era.
9. The Bhavani river is one of the tributaries of the ………
10. The two important fibre crops are …….. and ………..
11. A Coffee research center is located at ……….
12. Topography of India favours ………. type of climate.
13. Dry farming mainly depends on ………..
14. Dual cropping is otherwise known as ………
15. As an impact of ………. the production of wheat has been increased in Punjab and Haryana.
16. The major cash crop is ………..
17. Coffee is a ……… crop.
18. Rubber plantation were first established in ……… in 1902.
19. ………. is the leading state in the wool production.
20. At the time of natural calamities farmers are helped by …….. scheme.
Answers:
1. rainfall
2. inundation
3. tribal
4. wells
5. Bhakra Nangal dam
6. Rajasthan canal
7. Hirakud
8. Pre-christian
9. cauvery
10. cotton, jute
11. Yercaud
12. monsoon
13. irrigation
14. double cropping
15. Green revolution
16. sugar cane
17. beverage
18. Kerala
19. Rajasthan
20. crop insurance

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5 .(b)

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (c)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
What are the determinant factors of agriculture?
Answer:

1. Physical factor
2. Institutional factors
3. Infrastructural factors
4. Technological factors

Question 2.
Name the types of farming.
Answer:

1. Subsistence farming
2. Shifting agriculture
3. Intensive farming
4. Dry farming
5. Mixed fanning agriculture
6. Terrace cultivation

Question 3.
Why and where millets are cultivated?
Answer:
Millets are cultivated in poor soils. They are rich in nutritional content higher when wheat or rice. They also provide fodder for cattle. They grown in almost all the states in India.

Question 4.
Name the Cotton growing areas of India.
Answer:
Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 5.
What are plantation crops?
Answer:

1. Tea
2. Coffee
3. Rubber

Question 6.
Name the oil seeds of India.
Answer:
Ground nut, sesamum, rape seed, mustard, sunflower seed, castor seed, coconut, soyabean etc.

Question 7.
What are the natural conditional required for the cultivation of cotton?
Answer:

1. Cotton grows well in tropical and subtropical climate.
2. Black soil is the most suitable soil for cotton cultivation.

Question 8.
What are the crops grown in rabi for cotton cultivation?
Answer:
Wheat, barley, gram and oil seeds.

Question 9.
Name the jute producing states in India.
Answer:
West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa and Meghalaya.

Question 10.
Mention the different methods of rice cultivation.
Answer:
Drilling, dibbling and transplanting.

Question 11.
What is ginning?
Answer:
The seeds are separated from the cotton fibre by means of a process called ginning.

Question 12.
Why is jute called the “ Golden fibre” of India?
Answer:
Jute is called the Golden fibre of India because India earns valuable foreign exchange by exporting jute.

Question 13.
How is Bio-Technology useful in agriculture?
Answer:
Adopting Bio-Technology is environmentally safe and sustainable, cost of production of the farmers will be decreased.

Question 14.
Name the major crops of India.
Answer:

1. Food crops
2. Cash crops
3. Plantation crops
4. Horticulture

Question 15.
Who is the largest production of rice in the world?
Answer:
China

Question 16.
What are the two types of canals?
Answer:

1. Inundation canals
2. Perennial canals

Question 17.
What is Animal husbandry?
Answer:
It is the art of rearing animals for milk, skin, hide and horns and farm works.

Question 18.
Name the leading wool production areas in India.
Answer:

1. Rajasthan
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Karnataka

Question 19.
Name some important varieties of fishes.
Answer:
Cat fish, Herrings, Mackerels, Perches, Eels, Mullets etc.

Question 20.
Name the top five fish producing states of India.
Answer:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. West Bengal
3. Gujarat
4. Kerala
5. Tamil Nadu

Question 21.
Name the important multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:

1. Damodar valley project
2. Bhakra-Nangal project
3. Hirakud project

V. Distinguish Between:

Question 1.
The Khadar and Bhangar
Answer:

S.No.	Khadar	Bhangar
1.	Khadar is the newer alluvium.	Bhangar is the older alluvium.
2.	It is sandy.	It is light coloured soil. It is clayey in nature.

Question 2.
Well irrigation and Tube well irrigation.
Answer:

Question 3.
Unicropping and Dual cropping
Answer:

Question 4.
Food crops and Cash crops
Answer:

Question 5.
Wet farming and Dry farming
Answer:

Question 6.
Horticulture and Animal husbandry.
Answer:

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Name the crops that are grown in alluvial soil.
Answer:
Rice, Wheat, Sugarcane and Oilseeds are mainly grown in alluvial soil.

Question 2.
Explain how land forms influence the pattern of agricultural.
Answer:
The major relief features are mountains, plateaus and plains. Among them, the plains with abundant alluvial soil determines the agricultural productivity. Ex: North Indian Plain, Coastal plains and deltaic plains of South India favour agriculture activity paddy and wheat are the main crops cultivated this region.

Question 3.
Name the factors on which the sources of irrigation depend?
Answer:
Sources of Irrigation depend upon the following factors: Topography, soil, rainfall, availability of surface or ground water, nature of river and requirements of crops.

Question 4.
Write about drip system.
Answer:
Drip system is used to watering like drops at near the root of plant. It will cover a tiny area at plant, but suitable for big trees and horticulture plant too which used to grow bigger.

Question 5.
What is a tank?
Answer:
A tank is a natural or man-made hollow on the surface developed by constructing a small bund around it across a stream.

Question 6.
What is mixed farming agriculture?
Answer:
Mixed farming is defined as a system of farm which includes crops production, raising, livestock, poultry, fisheries, bee keeping etc. to sustain and satisfy as many needs of the farmer as possible.

Question 7.
What are the three methods of sowing rice in India?
Answer:
Rice in India is sown in three ways namely:

1. Broadcasting
2. Ploughing or drilling
3. Transplanting

Question 8.
Name the different breeds of Indian cattle.
Answer:

1. Milch Breed
2. Draught breed and
3. Mixed or General breed.

VII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What are the main problems faced by the Indian soils? How can we conserve soil?
Solution:

1. Soil degradation is an acute problem in India.
2. The main reasons are:
   • Soil erosion
   • Waterlogging
   • Saline and Alkaline due to dry climate.
3. Deforestation and use of excessive fertilizers.

Methods of Conservation and Management of soil:

In order to retain the fertility and to prevent soil from erosion the following conservation methods can be useful.

1. Afforestation
2. Constructing Dams and Barrages
3. Prevention of overgrazing
4. Improved methods of Agricultural practices namely:
   • Contour ploughing
   • Rotation of crops
   • Strip cropping
   • Planting shelterbelts
   • Adopting techniques of sustainable agriculture for better soil management.

Question 2.
Write a brief account on Damodar valley project.
Answer:
Damodar valley project sets an example towards managing our water resources on scientific lines. Damodar though a small river, was called the “river of sorrow’’ owing to devastating floods it caused. It flows from Chotanagpur in south Bihar, to West Bengal. This project consists of series of small dams on the tributaries of Damodar. There are few hydel power stations st Tilaya, Konar Naithon and Panchet. They have been integrated in a common grid for the growing industrial complexes around South East Bihar and West Bengal. It irrigates half a million hectares of land in parts of South Bihar and West Bengal.

Question 3.
Name the oil seeds grown in India and its areas of production. How oil seeds are commercially important?
Answer:
Oil seeds are the vital source of fat in Indian diet obtained from number of crops like ground nut, linseed, mustard, grape seed, sesame, sunflower, castor seeds, cotton seeds etc.

Uses: They are commercially important too. Since they provide oil and oil cakes which are used for making lubricants, varnish, medicine, perfume, candles, soap, manure and cattle feed.

Areas of production: Gujarat is the largest producer of oil seeds. Other major producer of oil seeds are Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 4.
Write about the Cash crops in India.
Answer:
The crops which are cultivated for commercial purposes are called Cash crops. These crops include sugarcane, tobacco, fibre crops (cotton jute and mesta) and oil seeds.

1. Sugar cane:
Sugar cane is the most important cash of India and is the second largest producer in the world. It provides raw materials for the sugar industry which is the second largest industrial category of our country. Besides providing sugar, gur and Khandsari, it supplies molasses for alcohol industry and bagasse for paper industry. India is ranked Cuba and Brazil. Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of sugar cane followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Gujarat.

2. Cotton:
Cotton is the most important cash crop of India. It provides raw material to the largest industry of India. India ranks second next to China in the production of cotton. 79% of the total area and production in the country were contributes by Gujarat, Maharashtra, Andhra pradesh and Punjab.

3. Jute:
It is a tropical crops, grows well in the alluvial soil. It provides raw material for jute industry. It is used for manufacturing of gunny bags, carpets, lessian, ropes and strings, rugs, clothes, tarpaulins, upholstery etc. West Bengal is the leading state both in cultivation and production. Oil seeds

4. Oil seeds:
Oil seeds, the premier source of fat in the Indian diet are derived from number of crops like groundnut, grapes seed, mustard, sesame, linseed, sunflower, castor seed, cotton seed, nigar seed etc. Gujarat is India’s largest oilseeds producing state. Others are Rajasthan, MP, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh. In groundnut production, India is the second largest producer in the world after China.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 3 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Components of Agriculture Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.6

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the sum of the following
(i) 3, 7, 11, …….. up to 40 terms.
(ii) 102, 97, 92, ……… up to 27 terms.
(iii) 6 + 13 + 20 + ……… + 97
Solution:
(i) 3, 7, 11,. . . upto 40 terms.
a = 3, d = t₂ – t₁ = 7 – 3 = 4
n = 40
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2a + (n – 1)d)
S₄₀ = \(\frac{20}{2}\) (2× 3 + 39d)
= 20(6 + 39 × 4)
= 20(6 + 156)
= 20 × 162
= 3240

(ii) 102, 97, 952,… up to 27 terms
a = 102,
d = t₂ – t₁
= 97 – 102 = -5
n = 27

(iii) 6 + 13 + 20 + … + 97
a = 6,d = 7, l = 97

Ex 2.6 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
How many consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480?
Answer:
5,7,9, 11, 13,…
S_n = 480
a = 5, d = 2, S_n = 480

2n² + 8n – 960 = 0
⇒ n² + 4n – 480 = 0
⇒ n² + 24n – 20n – 480 = 0
⇒ n(n + 24) – 20(n + 24) = 0
⇒ (n – 20)(n + 24) = 0
⇒ n = 20,-24
No. of terms cannot be -ve.
∴ No. of consecutive odd integers beginning with 5 will sum to 480 is 20.

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 Solution Question 3.
Find the sum of first 28 terms of an A.P. whose n^th term is 4n – 3.
Answer:
Number of terns (n) = 28
t_n = 4n – 3
t₁ = 4(1) – 3 = 4 – 3 = 1
t₂ = 4(2) – 3 = 8 – 3 = 5
t₃ = 4(3) – 3 = 12 – 3 = 9
Here a = 1, d = 5 – 1 = 4
S₂₈ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n – 1)d]
= \(\frac { 28 }{ 2 } \) [2 + (27) (4)]
= 14 [2 + 108]
= 14 × 110
= 1540
Sum of 28 terms = 1540

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 Question 4.
The sum of first n terms of a certain series is given as 2n2 – 3n. Show that the series is an A.P.
Solution:
Given S_n = 2n² – 3n
S₁ = 2(1)² – 3(1) = 2 – 3 = – 1
⇒ t₁ = a = – 1
S₂ = 2(2²) – 3(2) = 8 – 6 = 2
t₂ = S₂ – S₁ = 2 – (-1) = 3
∴ d = t₂ – t₁ = 3 – (-1) = 4
Consider a, a + d, a + 2d, ….….
-1, -1 + 4, -1 + 2(4), …..…
-1, 3, 7,….
Clearly this is an A.P with a = – 1, and d = 4.

Exercise 2.6 Class 10 Maths Question 5.
The 104^th term and 4th term of an A.P are 125 and 0. Find the sum of first 35 terms.
Solution:
t₁₀₄ = 125
t₄ = 0
a + (n – 1)d = t_n

10th Maths Exercise 2.6 In Tamil Question 6.
Find the sum of all odd positive integers less than 450.
Solution:
Sum of all odd positive integers less than 450 is given by
1 + 3 + 5 + … + 449
a = 1
d = 2
l = 449


= 50625
Another method:
Sum of all +ve odd integers = n².
We can use the formula n² = 225²
= 50625

Ex 2.6 Class 10 Question 7.
Find the sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4.
Answer:
Natural numbers between 602 and 902
603,604, …, 901
a = 603, l = 901, d = 1,

Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible by 4.
= Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902
= Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are divisible by 4.
l = 902 – 2 = 900
To make 602 divisible by 4 we have to add 2 to 602.
∴ 602 + 2 = 604 which is divisible by 4.
To make 902 divisible by 4, subtract 2 from 902.
∴ 900 is the last number divisible by 4.

Sum of all natural numbers between 602 and 902 which are not divisible 4.
= 224848 – 56400
= 168448

Exercise 2.6 Class 10 Maths Solution Question 8.
Raghu wish to buy a Laptop. He can buy it by paying ₹40,000 cash or by making 10 installments as ₹4800 in the first month, ₹4750 in the second month, ₹4700 in the third month and so on. If he pays the money in this fashion, Find
(i) Total amount paid in 10 installments.
(ii) How much extra amount that he pay in installments.
Answer:
(i) Amount paid in 10 installments
4800 + 4750 + 4700 + ……………. 10
Here a = 4800; d = – 50 ; n = 10
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a +(n – 1)d]
S₁₀ = \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [2 × 4800 +9(-50)]
= \(\frac { 10 }{ 2 } \) [9600 – 450]
= 5 [9150]
= 45750
Amount paid in 10 installments
= ₹45750
(ii) Extra amount paid = amount paid in 10
installment – cost of the laptop
= ₹45750 – 40,000
= ₹ 5750
(i) Amount paid in 10 installments = ₹ 45750
(ii) Difference in payment = ₹ 5750

Class 10 Maths Exercise 2.6 Solution Question 9.
A man repays a loan of ₹65,000 by paying ₹400 in the first month and then increasing the payment by ₹300 every month. How long will it take for him to clear the loan?
Solution:
Loan Amount = ₹ 65,000
Repayment through installments
400 + 700 + 1000 + 1300 + …
a = 400
d = 300
S_n = 65000
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) (2a + (n – 1)d)
= 65000
\(\frac{n}{2}\)(2 × 400 + (n – 1)300) = 65000
n(800 + 300n – 300) = 130000
n(500 + 300n) = 130000
500n + 300n² = 130000

Number of terms should be (+ve) and cannot be (-ve) or fractional number.
∴ He will take 20 months to clear the loans.

2.6 Maths Class 10 Question 10.
A brick staircase has a total of 30 steps. The bottom step requires 100 bricks. Each successive step requires two bricks less than the previous step.
(i) How many bricks are required for the top most step?
(ii) How many bricks are required to build the stair case?
Answer:
Total number of steps = 30
∴ n = 30
Number of bricks for the bottom = 100
a = 100
2 bricks is less for each step

(i) Number of bricks required for the top most step
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t₃₀ = 100 + 29 (-2)
= 100 – 58
= 42

(ii) Number of bricks required
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 } \) [2a + (n-1) d]
S₃₀ = \(\frac { 30 }{ 2 } \) [200 + 29 (-2)]
= 15[200 – 58]
= 2130
(i) Number of bricks required for the top most step = 42 bricks
(ii) Number of bricks required = 2130

Exercise 2.6 Class 10 Question 11.
If S₁,S₂,S₃ , …. , S_m are the sums of n terms of m A.P.’s whose first terms are 1,2,3,…,m and whose common differences are 1, 3, 5,…, (2m – 1) respectively, then show that
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …. + Sm = \(\frac{1}{2}\)  mn(mn + 1).
Solution:

Question 12.
Find the sum

Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 16 Plant and Animal Hormones

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Plant And Animal Hormones Class 10 Question 1.
Gibberellins cause _____.
(a) Shortening of genetically tall plants
(b) Elongation of dwarf plants
(c) Promotion of rooting
(d) Yellowing of young leaves.
Answer:
(c) Promotion of rooting

10th Science Plant And Animal Hormones Question 2.
The hormone which has positive effect on apical dominance is:
(a) Cytokinin
(b) Auxin
(c) Gibberellin
(d) Ethylene
Answer:
(b) Auxin

Plant And Animal Hormones Class 10 Book Back Answers Question 3.
Which one of the following hormones is naturally not found in plants?
(a) 2, 4 – D
(b) GA3
(c) Gibberellin
(d) IAA.
Answer:
(a) 2, 4 – D

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 4.
Avena coleoptile test was conducted by:
(a) Darwin
(b) N. Smit
(c) Paal
(d) F.W. Went
Answer:
(d) F.W. Went

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 5.
To increase the sugar production in sugarcanes they are sprayed with _____.
(a) Auxin
(b) Cytokinin
(c) Gibberellins
(d) Ethylene.
Answer:
(d) Ethylene.

Animal Hormones Class 10 Question 6.
LH is secreted by:
(a) Adrenal gland
(b) Thyroid gland
(c) Anterior pituitary
(d) Hypothalamus
Answer:
(c) Anterior pituitary

Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 7.
Identify the exocrine gland _____.
(a) Pituitary gland
(b) Adrenal gland
(c) Salivary gland
(d) Thyroid gland.
Answer:
(c) Salivary gland

Plant And Animal Hormones Question 8.
Which organ acts as both exocrine gland as well as endocrine gland?
(a) Pancreas
(b) Kidney
(c) Liver
(d) Lungs
Answer:
(a) Pancreas

Plant Hormones And Animal Hormones Class 10 Question 9.
Which one is referred to as “Master Gland”?
(a) Pineal gland
(b) Pituitary gland
(c) Thyroid gland
(d) Adrenal gland.
Answer:
(b) Pituitary gland

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
______ causes cell elongation, apical dominance and prevents abscission.
Answer:
Auxin.

Question 2.
______ is a gaseous hormone involved in abscission of organs and acceleration of fruit ripening.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 3.
____ causes stomatal closure.
Answer:
Abscisic acid.

Question 4.
Gibberellins induce stem elongation in _____ plants.
Answer:
Corn and Pea.

Question 5.
The hormone which has a negative effect on apical dominance is _____.
Answer:
Cytokinin.

Question 6.
Calcium metabolism of the body is controlled by _____.
Answer:
Parathormone.

Question 7.
In the Islets of Langerhans, beta cells secrete _____.
Answer:
Insulin.

Question 8.
The growth and functions of the thyroid gland are controlled by _____.
Answer:
Hormone T₃ and T₄

Question 9.
Decreased secretion of thyroid hormones in the children leads to _____.
Answer:
Cretinism.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.
(a) Match the Column I with Columns II and III.

Column I	Column II	Column III
Auxin	Gibberella fujikuroi	Abscission
Ethylene	Coconut milk	Intermodal elongation
Abscisic acid	Coleoptile tip	Apical dominance
Cytokinin	Chloroplast	Ripening
Gibberellins	Fruits	Cell division

(b) Match the following hormones with their deficiency states.

Hormones	Disorders
1. Thyroxine	(a) Acromegaly
2. Insulin	(b) Tetany
3. Parathormone	(c) Simple goitre
4. Growth hormone	(d) Diabetes insipidus
5. ADH	(e) Diabetes mellitus

Answer:
(a)

Column I	Column II	Column III
Auxin	Coleoptile tip	Apical dominance
Ethylene	Fruits	Ripening
Abscisic acid	Chloroplast	Abscission
Cytokinin	Coconut milk	Cell division
Gibberellins	Gibberella fujikuroi	Intermodal elongation

(b)
1. (c) Simple goitre
2. (e) Diabetes mellitus
3. (b) Tetany
4. (a) Acromegaly
5. (d) Diabetes insipidus

IV. State whether True or false, If false write the correct statement.

Question 1.
A plant hormone concerned with stimulation of cell division and promotion of nutrient mobilization is cytokinin.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Gibberellins cause parthenocarpy in tomato.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Ethylene retards senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves, flowers and fruits.

Question 4.
Exophthalmic goitre is due to the over secretion of thyroxine.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The pituitary gland is divided into four lobes.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The Pituitary gland is composed of two lobes and performs different functions.

Question 6.
Estrogen is secreted by corpus luteum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Estrogen is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.

V. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

Direction: In each of the following questions a statement of assertion (A) is given and a corresponding statement of Reason (R) is given just below it. Mark the correct statement as,
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) If both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: Application of cytokinin to marketed vegetables can keep them fresh for several days.
Reason: Cytokinins delay senescence of leaves and other organs by mobilisation of nutrients.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are false.

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Pituitary gland is referred to as “Master gland”.
Reason (R): It controls the functioning of other endocrine glands.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Diabetes mellitus increases blood sugar levels.
Reason (R): Insulin decreases blood sugar levels.
Answer:
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

VI. Answer in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Which hormone promotes the production of male flowers in Cucurbits?
Answer:
Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in Cucurbits.

Question 2.
Write the name of synthetic auxin.
Answer:
2, 4 Dichloro phenoxy Acetic Acid is the synthetic hormone.

Question 3.
Which hormone induces parthenocarpy in tomatoes?
Answer:
Gibberellins are efficient in the formation of seedless fruit, inducing parthenocarpy in tomatoes.

Question 4.
What is the hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in female after child birth?
Answer:
Prolactin stimulates the secretion of milk in female after child birth.

Question 5.
Name the hormones which regulate water and mineral metabolism in man.
Answer:
Antidiuretic or vasopressin hormone regulates water and mineral metabolism in man.

Question 6.
Which hormone is secreted during emergency situation in man?
Answer:
Adrenaline and Noradrenaline is secreted during emergency situation in man.

Question 7.
Which gland secretes digestive enzymes and hormones?
Answer:
The pancreas is exocrine and endocrine in nature. The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic juice which plays a role in digestion. The endocrine portion (Islets of Langerhans) secrete hormones.

Question 8.
Name the endocrine glands associated with kidneys.
Answer:
Adrenal gland is associated with kidneys.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What are synthetic auxins? Give examples.
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxins, which have the properties like auxins are called as synthetic auxins, eg. 2, 4-D (2, 4-Dichlorophenoxy Acetic acid, Indole-3-Propionic Acid, alpha – Naphthalene Acetic Acid (NAA), 2, 4, 5-T (2, 4, 5-Trichlorophenoxy Acetic acid) are some of the synthetic auxins.

Question 2.
What is bolting? How can it be induced artificially?
Answer:
Rosette plant (genetic dwarfism) plant exhibit excessive intermodal growth when they are treated with gibberellins. This sudden elongation of a stem followed by flowering is called bolting.

Question 3.
Bring out any two physiological activities of abscisic acid.
Answer:

• During water stress and drought conditions, Abscisic acid causes stomatal closure.
• ABA induces bud dormancy towards the approach of winter in trees like birch.

Question 4.
What will you do to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop in plants? Support your answer with reason.
Answer:
Artificially synthesized auxin to be sprayed to prevent leaf fall and fruit drop as Auxin prevent the formation of abscission layer.

Question 5.
What are chemical messengers?
Answer:
A chemical messenger is any compound that serves to transmit a message. A chemical messenger refers to hormones.

Question 6.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:
The exocrine gland secretes juices, which plays a role in digestion. An endocrine portion is made up of endocrine glands, which secrete hormones. The pancreas is exocrine and endocrine in nature.

Question 7.
What is the role of parathormone?
Answer:
Parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

Question 8.
What are the hormones secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland? Mention the tissues on which they exert their effect.
Answer:

• Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone.
• Oxytocin is the two hormones of the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

In kidney tubules, the vasopressin hormone increases the reabsorption of water. It reduces the loss of water through urine.
Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus at the time of childbirth and ” milk ejection from the mammary gland after childbirth.

Question 9.
Why are thyroid hormones refered as personality hormone?
Answer:
Thyroid hormones are essential for normal, physical, mental and personality development. So, it is called as personality hormone.

Question 10.
Which hormone requires iodine for its formation? What will happen if the intake of iodine in our diet is low?
Answer:
The hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are:

• Triiodothyronine (T₃)1
• Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxin (T₄), which need an amino acid tyrosine and Iodine for its formation.

If the intake of Iodine in our diet is low or due to the inadequate supply of iodine in our diet leads to the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which protrudes, as swelling in the neck and is called as goitre.

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) Name the gaseous plant hormone. Describe its three different actions in plants.
Answer:
Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone.

1. Ethylene promotes the ripening of fruits. Eg: Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana, etc.
2. Ethylene inhibits the elongation of stem and root in dicots.
3. Ethylene hastens the senescence of leaves and flowers.

(b) Which hormone is known as a stress hormone in plants? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid increases the tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called a stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

Question 2.
Describe an experiment which demonstrates that growth-stimulating hormone is produced at the tip of the coleoptile?
Answer:
Went’s experiment was done by Frits warm out. This experiment demonstrates the growth-stimulating hormone Auxin is produced at the tip of the coleoptile.

He did a series of experiments in Avena Coleoptiles. In his first experiment, he removed the tips of Avena coleoptiles. The cut tips did not grow, indicating that the tips produced something essential for growth.
In his second experiment, he placed the agar blocks on the decapitated coleoptile tips. The coleoptile tips did not show any response.

In his third experiment, he placed the detached coleoptile tips on agar blocks. After an hour, the tips were discarded and placed this agar block on the decapitated coleoptile. It grew straight up, indicating that some chemical had diffused from the cut coleoptile tips into the agar block, which stimulated the growth.

From these experiments, Went concluded that, the chemical diffusing from the tip of coleoptile was responsible for the growth and he named it as “Auxin”.

Question 3.
Write the physiological effects of gibberellins.
Answer:

1. Application of gibberellins on plants stimulate extraordinary elongation of intemode. Eg: Com and Pea.
2. Treatment of rosette plants with gibberellin induces sudden shoot elongation followed by flowering. This is called bolting.
3. Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants (Cucurbits).
4. Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.
5. Gibberellins are efficient than. auxins in inducing the formation of seedless fruit – Parthenocarpic fruits (Development of fruits without fertilization) Eg: Tomato.

Question 4.
Where are estrogens produced? What is the role of estrogens in the human body?
Answer:
Estrogen, the female sex hormone is produced by the Graafian follicles of the ovary.
Role of estrogen:

• It brings about the changes that occur during puberty.
• It initiates the process of oogenesis.
• It stimulates the maturation of ovarian follicles in the ovary.
• It promotes the development of secondary sexual characters (breast development and high pitched voice, etc).

Question 5.
What are the conditions which occur due to lack of ADH and insulin? How are the conditions different from one another?
Answer:
ADH:
Deficiency of ADH causes a disorder called diabetes insipidus.
Deficiency of ADH reduces the reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urea output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What would be expected to happen if,

1. Gibberellin is applied to rice seedlings?
2. A rotten fruit gets mixed with unripe fruits.
3. When cytokinin is not added to the culture medium.

Answer:

1. When gibberellins are applied, it stimulates, the extraordinary elongation of internodes.
2. The mass of undifferentiated cell is called callus. If the rotten fruits get mixed with unripe fruits, then the ethylene produced from the rotten fruits will hasten the ripening of the unripe fruits.
3. If cytokinin is not added to the culture medium, then the cell division, growth and differentiation will not be observed.

Question 2.
A plant hormone was first discovered in Japan when rice plants were suffering from Bakanae disease caused by Gibberella fujikoroi. Based on this information answer the following questions:
(a) Identify the hormone involved in this process.
Answer:
Gibberellin is involved in this process.

(b) Which property of this hormone causes the disease?
Answer:
It stimulates extraordinary elongation of intemode.

(c) Give two functions of this hormone.
Answer:

1. Gibberellin break dormancy of potato tubers.
2. Gibberellin promotes the production of male flower in monoecious plant (Cucurbits).

Question 3.
Senthil has high blood pressure, protruded eyeball and increased body temperature. Name the endocrine gland involved and hormone secretion responsible for this condition.
Answer:
The endocrine gland is Thyroid gland, and the hormones secreted are Triiodothyronine (T₃) and Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxine (T₄). The excess secretion of the Thyroid hormone leads to Grave’s disease. The symptoms are protrusion of eyeballs (exophthalmia), increased metabolic rate, high body temperature, profuse sweating, loss of body weight and nervousness.

Question 4.
Sanjay is sitting in the exam hall. Before the start of the exam, he sweats a lot, with increased rate of heart beat. Why does this condition occur?
Answer:
It is due to secretion of Epinephrine and Norepinephrine as it produced during conditions of stress and emotion. They are called as “Emergency hormones” or flight, fright and fight hormone.

Question 5.
Susan’s father feels very tired and frequently urinates. After clinical diagnosis, he was advised to take an injection daily to maintain his blood glucose level. What would be the possible cause for this? Suggest preventive measures.
Answer:
The deficiency of insulin causes Diabetes mellitus. He has Diabetes mellitus. Increase in blood sugar level (Hyperglycemia). He was advised to take an injection, Insulin, which helps in the conversion of glucose into glycogen, which is stored in the liver. It decreases the concentration of glucose in the blood.
Preventive measures:

• Manage the weight
• Exercise regularly
• Eat a balanced healthy diet
• Limit alcohol intake
• Quit smoking
• Control the blood pressure

Textbook Activities Solved

Activity 1.
Place two or three unripe tomatoes in a brown paper bag with a ripe banana and roll the top closed. In another bag place two or three unripe tomatoes only and roll the top closed, Observe what happens to the tomatoes? Why?
Answer:
As the banana continues to ripen in the first bag, it produces ethylene gas. The gas trapped in the bag will cause tomatoes to ripen. The tomatoes remain unripe in the second bag.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant and Animal Hormones Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The chemical substances produced by plants are called _____.
Answer:
Hormones.

Question 2.
Tie two lobes of thyroid glands are connected by means of a narrow band of tissue called _____.
Answer:
Isthmus.

Question 3.
The chief cells of parathyroid glands are _____.
Answer:
Parathormone.

Question 4.
The other name for adrenal gland is _____.
Answer:
Supra Renal.

Question 5.
The hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex are _____.
Answer:
Corticosteroids

Question 6.
During water stress and drought conditions _______ causes stomatal closure.
Answer:
Abscisic acid.

Question 7.
Glucagon helps the break down of ______ to glucose in the liver.
Answer:
Glycogen.

Question 8.
The adrenal medulla is composed of ______ cells.
Answer:
Chromaffin.

Question 9.
The male sex hormone _______ is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters.
Answer:
Testosterone.

Question 10.
_______ is a gaseous plant hormone, mainly concerned with maturation and ripening of fruits.
Answer:
Ethylene.

Question 11.
The other name for pituitary gland is _____.
Answer:
Hypophysis.

Question 12.
The glandular follicles of the thyroid gland are filled with colloid material called _____.
Answer:
Thyroglobulin.

II. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Morphogenesis	(a) Chromaffin cells
2. Bakanae disease	(b) Male sex hormone
3. Tetany	(c) Thymus
4. Testosterone	(d) Gibberella fujikuroi
5. Adrenal medulla	(e) Female sex hormone
6. Thymosin	(f) Callus in tissue culture
7. Estrogen	(g) Muscle spasm

Answer:

1. (f) Callus in tissue culture
2. (d) Gibberella fujikuroi
3. (g) Muscle spasm
4. (b) Male sex hormone
5. (a) Chromaffin cells
6. (c) Thymus
7. (e) Female sex hormone.

III. Choose the odd one out.

Question 1.
Auxins, Parthenocarpy, apical dominance, Parathormone?
Answer:
Parathormone.

Question 2.
Senescence, Dormancy, Estrogen, abscission?
Answer:
Estrogen.

Question 3.
Glucagon, Endocrine, Exocrine, Gibberellins?
Answer:
Gibberellins.

Question 4.
Norepinephrine, Isthmus, tyrosine, thyroglobulin?
Answer:
Norepinephrine.

Question 5.
Gonads, Thyroid, Cytokinin, Thymus?
Answer:
Cytokinin.

IV. Match the following endocrine glands with their location.

Question 1.

1. Pituitary gland	(a) Female sex gland
2. Thyroid gland	(b) Male sex gland
3. Parathyroid	(c) Above the kidney
4. Islets of Langerhans	(d) The posterior surface of the thyroid lobe
5. Adrenal gland	(e) The upper part of the chest, the lower end of the trachea
6. Testes	(f) Base of midbrain
7. Ovary	(g) Pancreas
8. Thymus	(h) Trachea

Answer:

1. (f) Base of midbrain
2. (h) Trachea
3. (d) The posterior surface of the thyroid lobe
4. (g) Pancreas
5. (c) Above the kidney
6. (b) Male sex gland
7. (a) Female sex gland
8. (e) The upper part of the chest, the lower end of Trachea.

V. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ for the following statements. Write the correct statement for false:

Question 1.
Auxins, cytokinins and gibberellins inhibit plant growth, while abscisic acid and Ethylene promote plant growth.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Auxins, cytokinins and gibberellins promote plant growth, while abscisic acid and ethylene inhibit plant growth.

Question 2.
Glucagon helps in the breakdown of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The thymus is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Leydig cells from the cells of a female. Gonads located in the pelvic cavity.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Leydig cells from the endocrine part of the testes.

Question 5.
Cretinism is caused due to increased secretion of the thyroid hormones in children.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Cretinism is caused due to decreased secretion of the thyroid hormones in children.

Question 6.
Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical buds.
Answer:
True.

VI. Answer the following in a word or with a sentence.

Question 1.
Where are Auxins produced?
Answer:
Auxins are produced at the tip of stems and roots from where they migrate to the zone of elongation.

Question 2.
What is Richmond Lang effect?
Answer:
Delaying the process of ageing in plants with the application of cytokinin is called Richmond Lang effect.

Question 3.
What is Richmond Lang effect?
Answer:
Application of cytokinin delays the process of ageing in plants. This is called Richmond Lang effect.

Question 4.
Give the uses of progesterone.
Answer:
Progesterone maintains pregnancy and regulates the menstrual cycle.

Question 5.
What are the secretions of alpha and beta cells of Islets of Langerhans?
Answer:
Alpha cells secrete glucagon and beta cells secrete Insulin.

Question 6.
What is the main function of Glucogen.
Answer:
Glucogon converts excess amount of glycogen stored under the muscle and liver to glucose. Thus raising the blood glucose level.

Question 7.
Name the two types of sex glands.
Answer:
Testes and Ovaries.

Question 8.
Specify the symptoms of acromegaly.
Answer:
Acromegaly leads to abnormal enlargement of head, face, hand and feet.

Question 9.
Name the three layers of the adrenal cortex.
Answer:

• Zona glomerulosa
• Zona fasciculata
• Zona reticularis

Question 10.
What is Endocrinology?
Answer:
The branch of biology which deals with the study of the endocrine glands is called Endocrinology.

VII. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Name the types of plant hormones.
Answer:

• Auxins
• Cytokinins
• Gibberellins
• Abscisic acid
• Ethylene.

Question 2.
Growth hormone is important for normal growth. Explain.
Answer:
Growth hormone promotes the development and enlargement of all tissues •of the body. It stimulates the growth of muscles, cartilage and long bones. It controls cell metabolism.

Question 3.
What are Ductless glands? Why are they called so?
Answer:
Endocrine glands are called ductless glands because their secretions are diffused into the bloodstream, and are carried to the different parts of the body. They do not have specific ducts to carry the hormones.

Question 4.
Why pancreas is called as dual gland?
Answer:
The exocrine part of the pancreas produces pancreatic juice. The endocrine part produce islets of Langerhans, consists of two cells namely alpha cells that produce a hormone called glucagon and Beta cells that produce insulin. So, it is called as dual gland.

Question 5.
Write any three physiological effects of cytokinins.
Answer:

• Cytokinins induce cell division.
• Cytokinins promote the growth of lateral buds even in the presence of apical buds.
• Cytokinesis causes cell enlargement.

Question 6
Which gland is a link between endocrine and lymphoid gland.
Answer:
Thymus is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland. It is located in the upper part of the chest covering the lower end of trachea. Thymosin is the hormone secreted by the thymus.

Question 7.
What are the functions of thyroid hormones? Write any three points.
Answer:

• Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body.
• Helps to maintain normal body temperature.
• Influences the activity of the Central Nervous System.

Question 8.
What are plant hormones?
Answer:
Plant hormones are organic molecules that are produced at extremely low concentration in plants. These molecules control morphological, physiological and biochemical responses.

Question 9.
Explain any three functions of Testosterone.
Answer:

• It influences the process of spermatogenesis.
• It stimulates protein synthesis and controls muscular growth.
• Responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters (distribution of hair on body and face and deep voice pattern, etc.).

Question 10.
Write a short note on the thymus gland.
Answer:
The thymus gland is partly an endocrine gland and partly a lymphoid gland. It is located in the upper part of the chest covering the lower end of the trachea. Thymosin is the hormone secreted by Thymus.
Functions:

• It has a stimulatory effect on the immune function.
• It stimulates the production and differentiation of lymphocytes.

VIII. Draw a labelled diagram for the following.

Question 1.
Hormonal interaction in plant growth and development.
Answer:

Question 2.
Pancreas
Answer:

Question 3.
Adrenal gland
Answer:

IX. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram, explain the pituitary gland and the types of hormones.
Answer:

The pituitary gland is a pea-shaped compact mass of cells located at the base of the midbrain. As it regulates and controls the other endocrine glands, it is called “Master gland”

1. Hormones secreted by anterior pituitary:
(a) Growth Hormone (GH): It promotes the development and enlargement of all tissues. It stimulates the growth of muscles, cartilage and long bones. It controls cell metabolism. Decreased secretion of growth hormone leads to Dwarfism in children characterised by stunted growth, delayed skeletal formation and mental disability. Oversecretion of growth hormone leads to gigantism in children. Characterised by abnormal enlargement of head, face, hands and feet.

(b) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) – a growth of thyroid gland.

(c) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) – Protein synthesis in the adrenal cortex.

(d) Gonadotrophic hormones (GTH) – for the normal development of Gonads.
The other two hormones are Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH); Luteinizing Hormones (LH)

(e) Prolactin (PRL) Initiates the development of mammary glands during pregnancy and production of milk after childbirth.

2. Hormones secreted by the posterior lobe:
(a) Vasopressin or Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) – It reduces the loss of water through urine. Deficiency of ADH reduces the reabsorption of water and causes an increase in urine output (polyuria). This deficiency disorder is called Diabetes insipidus.

(b) Oxytocin – It helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of the uterus at the time of childbirth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after childbirth.

Question 2.
With a neat labelled diagram, explain thyroid gland, functions of thyroid hormones and the thyroid dysfunction.
Answer:
The thyroid gland is composed of two distinct lobes lying one on either side of the trachea. The two lobes are connected by means of a narrow band of tissue called as the isthmus, the gland is composed of glandular follicles and lined by cuboidal epithelium. The follicles are filled with colloid material called thyroglobulin. An amino acid tyrosine and iodine are involved in the formation of thyroid hormone.
The hormones secreted by the thyroid gland are:

1. Triiodothyronine (T₃)
2. Tetraiodothyronine or Thyroxine (T₄)
   

Functions of Thyroid hormone:

• Production of energy by maintaining the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of the body.
• Helps to maintain normal body temperature.
• Influences the activity of the Central Nervous System.
• Controls growth of the body and bone formation.
• Essential for normal physical, mental and personality development. So it is called personality hormone.
• Regulates cell metabolism.

When the thyroid gland fails to secrete the normal level of hormone, the condition is called thyroid dysfunction. It leads to the following conditions:
1. Hypothyroidism: It is caused due to the decreased secretion of the thyroid hormones.

• Goitre: Goitre is caused due to the inadequate supply of iodine in our diet. It leads to the enlargement of the thyroid gland, protruded, marked swelling in the neck and is called goitre.
• Cretinism: It is caused due to decreased secretion of thyroid hormone in children. The conditions are stunted growth, mental defect, lack of skeletal development and deformed bones. They are called as cretins.
• Myxoedema: It is caused by the deficiency of thyroid hormone in adults. They are mentally sluggish, increase in body weight, puffiness of the face, hand etc.

2. Hyperthyroidism: It is caused due to the excess secretion of the thyroid hormone, which leads to Grave’s disease. The symptoms are protrusion of the eyeballs (Exopthalmia), increased metabolic rate, high body temperature, sweating, loss of body weight and nervousness.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Prose Chapter 2 The Night the Ghost Got in

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The Night the Ghost Got in warm up:

Use the following tongue twisters in a ‘Game of Telephone: where each student whispers the phrase to the next. The student who finishes the last says it aloud to the class. Let the students fill in the table given with what they listen to. They can get the help of their teacher

1. Six sleek swans swam swiftly southwards.
2. Four furious friends fought ur the phone.
3. Green glass globes glow greenly.
4. Six slimy snails sailed silently.
5. Scissors sizzle, thistles sizzle.
6. He threw three free throws.
7. Tommy Tucker tried to tie Tammys Turtles tie.
8. I wish you were a fish in my dish.
9. Five frantic frogs fled from fifty fierce fishes.
10. black bugs bleed blue black blood but baby black bugs bleed blue blood.
11. Red blood blue blood
12. Fresh registration… Fresh registration
13. She sells seashells at the seashore
14. Fred fed Ted bread, and Ted fed Fred bread

Answer:

I hope you ended with a delightfully tangled whole new tongue twisters.

The Night the Ghost Got in InText Questions

a. Where was the author when he heard the noise?
Answer:
The author had just stepped out of the bathtub, when he heard the noise.

b. What did the narrator think the unusual sound was?
Answer:
At first, he thought it was his father or his brother Roy. Next, he suspected that it was a burglar. Later on, he thought that it was a ghost.

c. What were the various sounds the brothers heard when they went downstairs?
Answer:
The brothers heard like a man running and started up the stairs towards them. They thought that they were coming two at a time. They saw nothing, but only heard the steps.

d. Who were the narrator neighbors?
Answer:
The narrator’s neighbors were a retired engraver named Bodwell and his wife.

e. How did the Bodwells react, when a shoe was thrown into their house?
Answer:
Mr. Bodwell was shouting, frothing a little and shaking his fist. Mrs. Bodwell wanted to sell their house and go back to Peoria. For some years, he had been in a bad way and was subjected to mild attacks.

f. What did the Bodwells think when they heard the mother shout?
Answer:
Bodwell thought that there were burglars in his house when they heard the mother shout.

g. What was the grandfather wearing?
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather was wearing a long flannel nightgown over long woollen pants, a nightcap and a leather jacket around his chest.

h. What conclusions did grandfather jump to when he saw the cops?
Answer:
His grandfather was going through fits where he believes he is in the war. He thinks that General Meade’s men are deserting under fire from Stonewall Jackson.

i. Were the policemen willing to leave the house?
Answer:
No, the policemen were not willing to leave without getting their hand on somebody besides grandfather.

j. What made the reporter gaze at the author?
Answer:
The author had put on one of his mother’s dress, as he couldn’t find anything else. The reporter looked at him with mingled suspicion and interest.

The Night the Ghost Got in Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

The Night The Ghost Got In Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why was the narrator sorry to have paid attention to the footsteps?
Answer:
The imagination of the ghost getting into his house lead to a commotion. It caused his mother to throw a shoe through a window of the neighbouring house. It ended with his grandfather shooting a policeman. So the narrator was sorry to have paid attention to the footsteps.

The Night The Ghost Got In Summary Question 2.
Why did Herman and the author slam the doors?
Answer:
Herman and the author slammed the doors because they thought that someone was coming up their stairs. They were scared as they heard the steps of someone.

10th English Unit 2 Prose Question Answer Question 3.
What woke up the mother?
Answer:
The slamming of the doors had awakened their mother.

10th English The Night The Ghost Got In Question Answer Question 4.
What do you understand by the mother’s act of throwing the shoe?
Answer:
His mother enormously fancied the thrill of throwing a shoe through a glass window of her neighbour. She is a highly excitable woman.

The Night The Ghost Got In Question 5.
Why do you think Mrs. Bodwell wanted to sell the house?
Answer:
Mrs. Bodwell wanted to sell the house, as she wanted to go back to Peoria, due to the frequent mild attacks.

10th English The Night The Ghost Got In Question 6.
How did the cops manage to enter the locked house?
Answer:
The cops managed to enter the locked house by breaking the glass of the front door.

The Night The Ghost Got In Paragraph Question 7.
Why were the policemen prevented from entering grandfather’s room?
Answer:
The policemen were prevented from entering into grandfather’s room because the narrator realized that it would be bad if they do so. His grandfather was going through a phase, in which he believed that General Meade’s men were beginning to retreat. They were under the control of Stonewall Jackson.

The Night The Ghost Got In Pdf Question 8.
Who used the zither and how?
Answer:
Zither was used by the guinea pig to sleep on it. It would never sleep anywhere except on the zither.

Question 9.
Mention the things that the grandfather imagined.
Answer:
His grandfather imagined that the cops were deserters from Meade’s army. He thought that they were trying to hide away in his attic.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Who is Mr. Bodwell?
Answer:
Bodwell is Thurber family’s neighbour, a retired engineer. He is “subject to mild ‘attacks,’” like most people whom the family knows.

Question 2.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily confused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 3.
Who is the only cop referred by name and what does he do?
Answer:
The only policeman referred to by name is Joe. He examines an old zither with another policeman.

Question 4.
Why does Joe mock the policeman who wants to retrieve his gun from the grandfather?
Answer:
When the policeman talks bravely about going to retrieve his gun from the grandfather, Joe mocks him because he feels it’s dangerous to approach an armed and unstable suspect.

Question 5.
Who is Herman? Comment on his personality.
Answer:
Herman is the brother of the narrator, James Thurber. He generally sleeps uneasily, always fearful that something might come and “get him” in the night. When the narrator wakes him and he hears the sounds in the dining room, he runs back into his room and slams the door showing what a timid boy he can be.

Question 6.
Who is the Zither-cop? Why is he called so?
Answer:
One of the policemen who search through the house finds an old zither and strums it in curiosity. The story later refers to this officer as “Zither,” as well as “the zither- cop.”

Question 7.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering grandfather’s room?
Answer:
The zither-cop was shot at by the grandfather because he was the first to go up the stairs when they heard the sound of a creaking in the attic caused by the grandfather turning in the bed.

B. Answer the following questions in about 100-150 words.

Question 1.
Describe the funny incident that caused the confusion in the house.
Answer:
James, the author comes out of the bathroom, drying him she dining table. He wakes up his brother Herman. They both listen to the footsteps and gets scared. Their mother wakes up. When she comes to know lf. At that moment, he hears the footsteps of someone walking downstairs near the she alerts her neighbour to call the police. The police arrive with some reporters.

They search all over, upstairs and downstairs. When they find nothing, they rush to the attic. The narrator’s grandfather believes that he is still in the war. He thinks that the policemen are deserters. So he starts shooting at them. The policemen leave their house immediately, creating a lot of confusion everywhere.

Question 2.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The police were on hand in a commendably short time. They began banging at the narrator’s front door. When nobody responded, they broke into the house. They searched downstairs and upstairs messing up everything. They opened all the doors and windows. They pulled the drawers and furniture. They began to ransack the floor, pulled beds away from the walls, tore clothes off the hooks in the closets.

They also pulled suitcases and boxes off the shelves. Later, they heard some creaking in the attic. They stepped into the attic. As his grandfather thought that they were the deserters from Meade’s army, so he started shooting at them. Then he went back to bed. The cops were unwilling to leave without getting their hand on somebody. They felt it was a defeat for them. They began to poke into things again and finally left the place.

Additional:

Question 1.
What do you know about James Thurber, the narrator?
Answer:
The narrator James Thurber, presents himself as acting judiciously, although his actions are uncommon to raise the uncertainties of the policemen. He is the first person in the household to hear the mysterious sound, as he is stepping out of the bathtub at 1:15 a.m. on November 17th. After waking his brother Herman, he is the one who resolves that the reason of the sound downstairs must be an apparition.

When his hasty mother decides that the sounds must be caused by intruders, the narrator thinks that she is past reasoning. Even when the cops arrive, he is still wrapped in a towel from his bath. Later, when the reporter comes around asking questions, the narrator puts on one of his mother’s blouses, explaining that it is the only thing that he can find at the moment.

He chooses to be honest with the reporter and tell him that the problem was caused by ghosts, but the reporter does not take him earnestly. Later, when the policeman who has been shot by Grandfather wants to challenge him and take his gun back, the narrator mediates with composed receptivity and offers to take the gun over to the police station in the morning.
“A judicious reticence is hard to learn, but it is a lifetime lesson.”

Question 2.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected do have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 3.
Bring out the character of the grandfather and the mother in the lesson, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’.
Answer:
The narrator’s grandfather is an old- timer of the Union army of the Civil War, which terminated about fifty-two years ago. His bedroom is in the attic. When the police come to the house to search for the burglar, the grandfather thinks that they are militaries who are abandoning because they are losing to the South. The grandfather calls them “cowardly dog” and “lily-livered cattle” and then fetches a policeman’s holster and shoots a man with his own gun.

The police retreat, terrified of the irrational old man but at the breakfast table the next morning, Grandfather seems impeccably conscious of the previous night’s situation, asking why so many police had been “tanyhootin” around the house. On the contrary, the narrator’s mother, Mrs Thurber is a highly excitable woman, scatter brained yet practical at times.

Hearing a sound in her house and suspecting a burglar, she thinks of the clever plan of alerting Mrs and Mr. Bodwell the neighbours by throwing a shoe through his closed window. After he goes to alert the police, she considers throwing the matching shoe, a thrill and fanciful act. She is surprised to hear that Grandfather has shot a policeman, not because of the courageous ferocity of the act, but because the cop was such a nice-looking young man.
“Great powers don’t get angry Nor do they act in haste!”

Vocabulary:

C. Look at the following expressions from the text. With the help of your teacher rewrite them in standard English. One has been done for you.

Answer:

D. Complete the given tabular column with the suitable plural forms.

Answer:

Listening Activity:

E. Listen to the story and answer the following.

A Short Story : Three Simple Rules This Short Story Three Simple Rules is quite interesting to all the people. Enjoy reading this story. Once there was a rich man in Thailand. His name was Chulong. He was a very rich man. Yet he wanted more riches, more money. One day he was walking in his garden. He saw a strange bird in a bush. It was very small. But it had very beautiful and colorful features. Its voice was also very sweet. Chulong had never seen such a bird in his life. He slowly went near the bush unseen. He caught the bird. Now the bird began to speak.

“Why have you caught me?” the bird asked. “I want to make money. I can sell you for a big amount,” replied Chulong. “But you are already rich. Why do you want more?” asked the bird. “Because I want to become richer and richer,” replied Chulong. “But do not dream of making .

money through me!” said the bird. It further added, “You cannot sell me. Nobody will buy me, because, in imprisonment, I lose my beauty and my sweet voice.” Then it slowly turned into a black bird. The beautiful features were now looking like the feathers of a crow. Chulong hopes of making money were shattered. He said angrily, “I will kill you, and I will eat your meat.” “Eat me! I am so small. You will not get any meat out of me,” replied the bird.

Chulong could not answer. The bird then suggested, “Well set me free. In return I shall teach you three simple but useful rules.” “What is the use of the rules? I want only money,” said Chulong. He was irritated. “But these rules can profit you greatly,” added the bird. “Profit me! Really? Then I shall set you free. But how can I trust you? You may fly away,” said Chulong. “I give you my word. And I always keep my word,” said the bird. Chulong wanted to take a chance.

He released the bird. It flew up at once. Then it sat on the branch of a tree. Its color started changing. It became beautiful again. Chulong asked, “Now teach me the rules.” “Certainly,” said the bird. Then it added, “The first rule is Never Believe everything others say. The second rule is Never be sad about something you do not have. The third rule is Never throw away what you have in your hand.” “You silly bird,” shouted Chulong. And he added, “These three rules are known to everyone.

You have cheated me.” But the bird said, “Chulong, just sit down for ” a while. Think about all your actions of today. You had me in your hands, but you threw me away (released me). You believed all that I said. And you are sad about not having me. The rules are simple. But you never followed them. Now do you see the value of the rules?” so saying the bird Threw away and disappeared from his sight.

Question 1.
The rich man was from
(a) Nagaland
(b) Thailand
(c) Finland
Answer:
(b) Thailand

Question 2.
Where did Chulong catch the bird?
Answer:
Chulong caught the bird in a bush in his garden.

Question 3.
Why did Chulong catch the bird?
Answer:
Chulong caught the bird because it was strange and small and would surely fetch him good •money.

Question 4.
What will happen to the bird in imprisonment?
Answer:
The bird in imprisonment will lose its beauty and sweet voice.

Question 5.
What did the bird suggest Chulong, in exchange for its freedom?
Answer:
The bird in exchange for its freedom suggested to Chulong three simple, yet useful rules.

Question 6.
Does Chulong want to earn money honestly?
Answer:
No, he did not want to earn money honestly.

Question 7.
What were Chulongs plans for the bird?
Answer:
Chulong wanted to sell the bird and earn good money.

Question 8.
Who is wise according to you?
Answer:
The bird is wise according to me.

Question 9.
Is the bird a crow?
Answer:
No, the bird isn’t a crow.

10. What are the three rules given by the bird?
Answer:
The three rules given by the bird are:

1. Never believe everything others say.
2. Never be sad about something you do not have.
3. Never throw away what you have in your hand.

Speaking Activity

F. Quiz: Who am I ?
Sample questions to ask. Answers must be ‘yes’ or ‘no’ only.

1. Are you a male (female)?
2. Are you young (old)?
3. Are you a famous personality?
4. Are you alive now?
5. Are you a singer (dancer, actor)?
6. Does your name start with ‘……………’ ?
7. Are you a historical figure?
8. Is he/she ………………. ?

G. Use this passage to play the game. You can collect information on other famous personalities and play too.

Charlie Chaplin was bom on April 16, 1889, in London England. His birth name was Charles ‘ Spencer Chaplin, though he had many nicknames growing up such as Charlie, Chariot, and The Little Tramp. His father, Charles Chaplin, and his mother, Hannah Chaplin, were inducted into the music hall of fame, leading the way to his exposure even as a young boy.

His first on stage moment was when he was 5 years old; he sang a song that was intended to be sung by his own mother; she had become ill at the time of the performance, so little Charlie Chaplin stood instead and performed for his mother. Charlie Chaplin came to the United States in 1910, at the age of 21. He was brought to New York, which was known to be a great place to start out for anyone trying to become a professional actor. Two years later, in 1913, Chaplin signed his very first contract at Keystone and it was no time before he headed to Hollywood. His first movie premiered in 1914, “Making a Living,” and went on to make over 35 movies total in that year alone.

Charlie Chaplin grew to become one of the most popular and successful actors of all time. The moment that really kicked off his long career was in 1921 when he starred in, and produced, his first full length film called “The Kid.” From then on, most people all over the world knew Charlie Chaplin and loved his movies. He had a great career and life, dying on December 25, 1977, in Vevey, Switzerland. He had apparently died of natural causes in his sleep from old age.

Give Answers:
Is the personality a female character? No
Is he a political figure? No
Is he from the Film Industry? Yes
Is he a comedian? Yes
Is he from India? No
Is the person alive? No
Is he an artist from his childhood? Yes

Reading:

H. Read the following incident carefully to answer the questions that follow.

The tie that does not bind
“Oh, so you’re going abroad? Can you bring me back ?” I’ve been asked to bring back a vaccine for a course. Once I searched the suburbs of Paris for two days for a special brand of ceramic paint. Having spent a lot of money for Cartier lighter refills, I had them confiscated at the airport just before boarding because the gas might be dangerous in the air.

Now, two months before a trip, I stop talking to people so they won’t suspect I’m about to travel. But someone always catches me.” I’ve heard you’re going to New York, and I want you to get something for me. It’s just a little thing you can find anywhere. I don’t know exactly how much it costs, but it shouldn’t be much. We’ll settle up when you get back”.

What Gilson asked me to buy was, in fact a little thing: a tie. But not just any tie. He wanted a tie with a small embroidered G. Any colour would do, as long as it had his initial. Look , this is a special flight, I explained . We are only staying Saturday through Tuesday. On the day we arrived I didn’t have time to think about the tie, but strolling around on Sunday I did see ties bearing various letters in more than one shop window. They were cheap, just a dollar, but all the shops were closed.

On Monday, lunch lasted the whole afternoon. Then it was Tuesday morning, time to leave. It was only when I saw our airport bus waiting outside the hotel that I remembered the tie. I told the group to go on. I would get a taxi to the airport. And so I went in search of a nearby shop where I had seen ties.

But I couldn’t find it. I walked further down the street-one, two, three blocks – all in vain. Back at the hotel, a bit anxious now, I took my suitcase, got a taxi and asked the driver to rush to the street where I had seen them. The driver stopped at each shop we passed so I could look from the window.

The stores had all sorts of ties, but not the kind I was looking for. When I finally thought I had located the right shop, I decided to go in and check. The driver refused to wait. Parking was prohibited, he said. I promised to double the fare, jumped out and ran into the shop. Was I going to miss the plane just for a damned tie?

The salesman was unbearably slow. When I realized that the smallest change I had was a ten dollar note , I grabbed ten ties of different colours so I wouldn’t have to wait for change. I rushed out with the ties in a paper bag. On the street I looked around. The taxi had vanished, taking my suitcase. What is more, I was going to miss the plane.

I ran to the comer, and hope flared up again: the taxi was waiting in the next street. Quick to the airport! As I settled down inside the taxi. I sighed with relief. Gilson was going to have enough initialized ties to last him a lifetime.

When I reached the airport, I paid the taxi driver the double fare and grabbed my suitcase. Panting, I boarded the plane under the reproachful gaze of the other passengers, all primly seated with their seat belts fastened. Ready to take off. Departure had been delayed because of me.
“At least I hope you found your tie”, said one who knew the story.
“I did”, I answered triumphantly.
After making myself comfortable, I reached for the paper bag to show the ties.
I had left it behind; in the taxi.

Question 1.
What was the writer always asked to do whenever he planned to go abroad?
Answer:
Whenever the writer planned to go abroad, he was always asked to buy something or the other like a vaccine for a course, a special brand of ceramic paint, Cartier lighter refills and so on.

Question 2.
What did Gilson want the writer to bring for him?
Answer:
Gilson wanted the writer to bring a tie with a small embroidered G on it.

Question 3.
When did the writer remember the fact that he had to buy something for Mr. Gilson? The writer remembered the fact that he had to buy
Answer:
something for Mr. Gilson only on Tuesday when it was time to leave.

Question 4.
Why were the other passengers in the flight gazing at the writer?
Answer:
The other passengers in the flight gazed at the writer since the flight was delayed because of him.

Question 5.
What is the humour element in the above incident?
Answer:
The humour element in the above accident is that after all the frantic search for the tie and purchasing ten of them to avoid the trouble of getting back the change, the writer had left it – behind in the taxi for which he had also paid double the fare.

I. Suggesting titles.
Title summarises the story. Each paragraph is a part of the story. Look at the following expressions and find out the paragraphs that best suit these expressions.

1. Oh, No! But it happens! Paragraph 1
2. Don’t let out your travelling dates Paragraph 2
3. Anyway, people will be people Paragraph 3
4. Search begins Paragraph 6
5. Things are not that easy Paragraph 7
6. Hurry invites worry Paragraph 10

J. Look at the following situations the writer was in. He could have avoided the situation and saved himself. Glance through the write up again and comment on what the writer should have done in the following situations.

1. Gilson asked the writer to bring a tie.
He should have politely refused stating it was a business trip.

2. On the day of arrival, the writer had no time to think about the tie.
The writer should not have felt guilty since he was busy.

3. The writer remembered about the tie when the bus was leaving for the airport.
He should have stopped being courteous and proceeded to the airport with others.

4. The writer walked down in search of the shop.
When he couldn’t find the shop with ties he was looking for, he should have not searched for it in other shops.

5. The writer rushed out with the tie in a paper bag.
The writer should have kept the paper bag inside his suitcase as soon as he got into the taxi.

K. State whether the following statements are true or false.

1. The narrator searched for three days to buy ceramic paint. [False]
2. The author was going to New York. [True]
3. Gilson asked the narrator to buy a tie. [True]
4. The taxi driver took away the narrator’s suitcase. [False]
5. Departure was delayed because of the author. [True]
6. The author left the ties in the taxi. [True]

M. Write a speech for your school Literary Association celebration with the given lead.

Writing:

Good morning to one and all present here, it is indeed my privilege to stand before you as the Secretary of the Literary Association. It was formed to stimulate and motivate the young minds to perform challenging activities and become good orators, dramatists, poets and also be short story writers. The purpose is mainly to enhance the literary, aesthetic and communicative skills among students. You are the pillars of the future society. The advancement of the society lies in your hands.

Communication skills is vital for the development of an individual or a society. Thereby, every year informative programmes are conducted to enhance the language skills and dramatic talents. Students are provided a platform to nurture and exhibit their innate potentials. We request you to unleash the hidden potentials and bring out the latent abilities. Explore the world around and experience a different environment. I am sure, each one of you will have a story to share about the learning experiences in this Literary Association. Wishing you a challenging journey for a lifetime experience. Thank you.

Grammar:

A. Na’garajan and Dhanalakshmi want to buy a new house. They have come to see a house for sale. Complete the conversation below by adding a, an or the.

Nagarajan : Well, here we are, No. 8, Kaveri Street. I think this is …………………. (a)…………… house we saw online. What do you think of ………….. (b) ………….. location?
Dhanalakshmi : It is in …………….. (c) ……………….. nice neighbourhood. And it’s close to the railway station.
Nagarajan : And …………….. (d) …………….. bus stop is not too far away
Dhanalakshmi : How many rooms are there?
Nagarajan : There are three rooms, ………………….. (e) kitchen and ……………….. (f) …………………balcony.
Dhanalakshmi : There is ………………….. (g) ………………. lawn behind ………….. (h) …………………. house, right?
Nagarajan That’s right …………….. (i) ……………….. lawn is actually quite large. Did you see any photos of ……………… (j) ……………….. living room, online? What does it look like?
Dhanalakshmi : …………………. (k) ………………… living room looks great. It looks bright and airy. It has …………………. (l) …………………. nice view of ………………… (m) ………………… hills. But …………….. (n) …………. kitchen looks ……………… (o) …………….. little small.
Nagarajan : And, I remember you said there isn’t …………… (p) ………….. store room, right?
Dhanalakshmi : No, but there is …………… (q) …………… attic, where we can store things.
Nagarajan : I hope this house is ……………(r) ……………. better option.
Dhanalakshmi : let’s wait for …………(s) ……………….. real estate agent. She said, she would be here at three o’clock.
Nagarajan : Look there she is!
Answers:
(a) the, (b) the, (c) a, (d) the, (e) a, (f) a, (g) a, (h) the, (i) The, (j) the, (k) The, (l) a, (m) The, (n) the, (o) a, (p) a, (q) an, (r) a, (s) the

B. Few articles are missing in the given passage. Edit the passage given below by adding suitable articles wherever necessary.

My neighbourhood is very interesting place. My house is located in apartment building downtown near many stores and offices. There is small supermarket across street, where * my family likes to go shopping. There is also post office and bank near our home. In our neighbourhood there is small, Green Park where my friends and I like to play on weekends and holidays. There is small pond near park and there are many ducks in park. We always have great time. In addition there is elementary school close to our home where my little brother studies in third grade. There are so many things to see and do in my neighbourhood that’s why I like it. It’s really great place.
Answer:
My neighbourhood is a very interesting place. My house is located in an apartment building downtown near many stores and offices. There is a small supermarket across the street, where my family likes to go shopping. There is also a post office and a bank near our home. In our neighbourhood there is a small, Green Park where my friends and I like to play on weekends and holidays. There is a small pond near the park and there are many ducks in the park. We always have a great time. In addition there is an elementary school close to our home where my little brother studies in third grade. There are so many things to see and do in my neighbourhood. That’s why I like it. It’s really a great place.

C. Refer to the dictionary to find out the meaning of the following prepositions and match them with the correct meaning.

D. Fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate prepositional phrase from the given options.

1. Everything falls to the ground …………………. earth’s gravitational pull.
(a) in addition to
(b) because of
(c) cause of
Answer:
(b) because of

2. The trial was conducted ………………. the procedure of law.
(a) in accordance with
(b) due to
(c) despite of
Answer:
(a) in accordance with

3. There is a temple right …………. my house.
(a) in back of
(b) apart from
(c) in front of
Answer:
(c) in front of

4. As a ……………….. of his hard work, he achieved the target.
(a) instead of
(b) result of
(c) apart from
Answer:
(b) result of

5. Failure is often the ………………. negligence.
(a) effect of
(b) consequence of
(c) reason of
Answer:
(b) consequence of

6. Children are given toys ………………. sweets on Children’s day.
(a) on top of
(b) in addition to
(c) due to
Answer:
(b) in addition to

7. The parents must be informed …………………… any indiscipline conduct of their wards.
(a) because of
(b) in case of
(c) in spite of
Answer:
(b) in case of

8. He didn’t turn up ……………………… his busy schedule.
(a) consequence of
(b) due to
(c) except for
Answer:
(b) due to

9. Global warming is ……………………. the green house emission.
(a) an effect of
(b) in spite of
(c) in addition to
Answer:
(a) an effect of

10. ……………… several warnings, he continued to swim.
(a) due to
(b) in spite of
(c) because of
Answer:
(b) in spite of

E. Edit the following passage by replacing the underlined incorrect words with correct prepositional phrases.
1. Janu is studying in class X. In the event of the teachers.
According to the teachers, Janu is studying in Class X.

2. she is a disciplined student. In addition to her poverty, she …………….. .
In spite of her poverty, she is a disciplined student.

3. is always neat. Many students like her in case of …………….. .
Because of her neatness, many students like her.

4. her simplicity. According to her studies, she also ………………. .
Apart from her studies, she is also known for her simplicity.

5. participates in sports. She gets on with everyone in case of ………….. .
She gets on with everyone in spite of her participation in sports.

6. age and gender in the school. In opposition to taking leave, she ensures …………….. .
Due to her opposition to take leave, she ensures her age and gender in the school.

7. that she completes the work given before she goes to school next day.
On account of completing the work given before, she goes to school the next day.

The Night the Ghost Got in by James Thurber:
James Thurber was born on December 8, 1894, in Columbus, Ohio. He was an American cartoonist, author, humourist, journalist, playwright, and celebrated wit. He worked for the New Yorker from 1927 to 1933 and continued contributing stories and drawings to it for the rest of his life, becoming one of America’s most treasured humourists. He was best known for, “The Catbird Seat”. As the sight in Thurber’s good eye failed, his literary production dwindled. Thurber fell into alcoholism in his later years and died of pneumonia following a stroke on November 2, 1961.

The Night the Ghost Got in Summary:

Introduction:
Imagination of odd things leads to absolute humourous drama making everybody confused. This story makes us laugh at the confused family members whose imagination creates a chaos ultimately for nothing that made everyone spend a sleepless night. Let us enjoy the sequence that happened inside a house due to each persons’ different imaginations.

Confusion over foot steps:
The narrator, James Thurber, comes out of his bathtub in the bathroom at 1:15 a.m. in the morning, on November 17th, 1915 and hears footsteps going round and round the dining room, downstairs. At first, James thinks the footsteps might belong to his father and brother Roy, who had been traveling in Indianapolis and were supposed to be back late in the evening. James quickly realizes that it isn’t his father and brother.

Brother Herman Wakes Up
After a few minutes, he fears something strange and goes to wake up his brother, Herman. Waking up all of a sudden in the middle of the night, Herman is frightened to know of someone downstairs as stated by his brother. He goes back to bed, slamming the door.

Mother’s fear for Burglar’s
The slamming of the door makes their mother come out of her room. The mother asks them about the footsteps she has heard and then comes to the conclusion that there are burglars inside their house.

Agitated neighbours
As the telephone is in the dining area, she plans to contact the police through her neighbour and throws a shoe through the window of the Bodwell’s. They are cross with her behavior. However, Mr.Bodwell mistakes for burglars in his house. The confusion is cleared and he calls the police and tells them about the burglars in Thurber house.

Arrival of Police
A whole lot of police in a Ford Sedan, two on motorcycles, and a patrol wagon with about eight policemen and a few reporters creates more chaos and confusion. They call out for the inmates and when no one responds, they break in. They find the narrator upstairs with a towel round his waist and the mother who is certain of burglars in the house. Though all doors and windows are bolted from inside, to justify their trip, the police set about searching the house, moving furniture and cleaning closets.

Police are suspicious
At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness gets the best of him, and he points out a rare old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The narrator adds to the confusion with the inadequate information about the family’s old guinea pig which used to sleep on the zither. The police are suspicious of this strange family.

Grandfather’s obsession
Just when the police decide to retire, the narrator’s grandfather sleeping in the attic makes a slight noise and the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to catch the culprit. The narrator knows that this will lead to worry because his grandfather thinks that the Civil War is still going on. Grandfather is obsessed with the retreat of the army under General George Meade. When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army. He calls them cowards and tells them to go back to the battle.

Grandpa shoots a Policeman
Grandpa slaps one of the policemen across the back of the head, sending him to the floor and as the others leave their fallen companion and run away, he takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder. He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police are upset that there is nobody to arrest, but they are not willing to go back to the attic and risk being shot at. The wounded officer’s shoulder is bandaged and they start looking around the house \ again.

Reporter gazes at narrator’s stupidity
A reporter approaches the narrator who is wearing one of his mother’s outfit since he doesn’t find his nightdress. When the reporter asks him about the commotion, the narrator admits the presence of ghosts in the house. It is indeed a comedy, when the narrator’s mother is informed about Grandfather shooting a policeman and she is concerned about a nice-looking young man being shot at.

Unraveled Mystery
The next morning, the grandfather comes down for breakfast looking cheery. James, Herman, and their mother all think that the grandfather has forgotten the whole scene. However, the story ends with the grandfather asking, with a smirk on his face, what on earth the police had been doing raiding the house the night before. He chided them that none of them left a bottle beside his head and told them that they did not realize how hard it was for a thirsty man to look for water in the dining room. Now the family had him there; it was the grandpa who was going around the dining room last night.

Conclusion:
This story thus ended as a humourous drama, each one assuming that there is a ghost, a burglar and Meade’s army men inside the house. Author has sequenced the scenes as a lively comedy show that one will roar with laughter at the stupidity of each person in the story.

The Night the Ghost Got in Glossary:
Textual:

Additional:

Synonyms:

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

1. ‘Burglars!’ she shouted, intuitively.
(a) intentionally
(b) thoughtfully
(c) knowingly
(d) instinctively
Answer:
(d) instinctively

2. ‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

3. ‘Nothing.’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) grievously
(c) angrily
(d) carefully
Answer:
(c) angrily

4. ‘Open up!’ cried a hoarse voice.
(a) sharp
(b) haughty
(c) soft
(d) trough
Answer:
(d) rough

5. ‘What’s that?’ snapped Joe.
(a) retorted
(b) smiled
(c) mocked
(d) photographed
Answer:
(a) retorted

6. A board creaked, when it was trod upon.
(a) weary
(b) worn
(c) walked
(d) opened
Answer:
(c) walked

7. A half-dozen policemen emerged out of the darkness.
(a) appeared
(b) exit
(c) charged
(d) jumped
Answer:
(a) appeared

8. A reporter, a thin-faced, wispy man, came up to me.
(a) considerable
(b) significant
(c) substantial
(d) delicate
Answer:
(d) delicate

9. Before I could intervene, the cops were in the attic.
(a) interfere
(b) interrogate
(c) instigate
(d) investigate
Answer:
(a) interfere

10. Finally the cops broke the thick bevelled glass.
(a) rough
(b) thin
(c) oblique
(d) hovelled
Answer:
(c) oblique

11. Five or six cops sprang for the attic door.
(a) leaped
(b) water
(c) spring
(d) sprout
Answer:
(a) leaped

12. Flashlights shot streaks of gleam up and down the walls.
(a) glows
(b) signals
(c) strains
(d) splashes
Answer:
(d) splashes

13. Glass tinkled into the bedroom.
(a) jingled
(b) placed
(e) tinged
(d) sparked
Answer:
(a) jingled

14. Grandfather had evidently jumped to a conclusion.
(a) immediately
(b) earnestly
(c) obviously
(d) drastically
Answer:
(c) obviously

15. He gazed at me a long time.
(a) gawked
(b) stared
(c) glared
(d) shouted
Answer:
(b) stared

16. Herman looked at me in some alarm.
(a) apprehension
(b) excitement
(c) intuition
(d) bell
Answer:
(a) apprehension

17. Herman rushed to his room’and slammed the door.
(a) altered
(b) banged
(c) sliced
(d) dug
Answer:
(b) banged

18. Herman ventured out of his room.
(a) volunteered
(b) venerated
(c) visioned
(d) vagaries
Answer:
(a) volunteered

19. I can see their viewpoint – phony.
(a) deceptive
(b) sounding
(c) clear
(d) phonetic
Answer:
(a) deceptive

20. T could hear a rending of wood.
(a) shredding
(b) breaking
(c) rubbing
(d) rushing
Answer:
(a) shredding

21. I could see the faint shine of plates on the plate-rail.
(a) tired
(b) feeble
(c) weary
(d) track
Answer:
(b) feeble

22. I gripped his arm.
(a) cut
(b) grieved
(c) grasped
(d) damaged
Answer:
(c) grasped

23. I prevented her.
(a) legitimate
(b) prohibited
(c) presumed
(d) deserted
Answer:
(b) prohibited

24. I suspected next that it was a burglar.
(a) alerted
(b) blamed
(c) called
(d) doubted
Answer:
(d) doubted

25. Instantly the steps began again.
(a) blatantly
(b) callously
(c) suddenly
(d) definitely
Answer:
(c) suddenly

Antonyms:

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

1. Imagination of odd things always leads to absolute humour.
(a) tragedy
(b) beauty
(c) comedy
(d) danger
Answer:
(a) tragedy

2. The ghost raised such a hullabaloo of misunderstandings.
(a) misinterpretation
(b) calculations
(c) silence
(d) tumult
Answer:
(c) silence

3. Its advent caused my mother to throw a shoe.
(a) initiation
(b) departure
(c) calmness
(d) dawn
Answer:
(b) departure

4. They began about a quarter past one o’clock in the morning.
(a) started
(b) culminated
(c) culminated
(d) brought
Answer:
(b) culminated

5. My mother was asleep in one room upstairs.
(a) lethargic
(b) brimming
(c) awake
(d) dozing
Answer:
(c) awake

6. The old walnut bed, you will remember, fell on my father.
(a) agree
(b) blame
(c) forget
(d) daring
Answer:
(c) forget

7. They were the steps of a man walking rapidly.
(a) forcibly
(b) speedily
(c) hurriedly
(d) leisurely
Answer:
(d) leisurely

8. The steps kept going round and round at regular intervals.
(a) unvarying
(b) irregular
(c) consistent
(d) reckless
Answer:
(b) irregular

9. It did not enter my mind until later that it was a ghost.
(a) fixture
(b) earlier
(c) advanced
(d) latter
Answer:
(b) earlier

10. The steps had ceased.
(a) stopped
(b) seized
(c) begun
(d) terminated
Answer:
(c) begun

11. The slamming of the doors had aroused mother.
(a) dampened
(b) below
(c) above
(d) finite
Answer:
(a) dampened

12. ‘What was all that running around downstairs?’ said mother.
(a) stairway
(b) attic
(c) dining
(d) upstairs
Answer:
(d) upstairs

13. Bodwell was subject to mild ‘attacks’.
(a) trivial
(b) serious
(c) insignificant
(d) meagre
Answer:
(b) serious

14. The police were on hand in a commendably short time.
(a) laudably
(b) outrageously
(c) committedly
(d) admirably
Answer:
(b) outrageously

15. They came in a patrol wagon with a few reporters.
(a) meagre
(b) limited
(c) many
(d) scarce
Answer:
(c) many

16. Finally the cops put their shoulders to our big heavy front door.
(a) light
(b) substantial
(c) hefty
(d) dense
Answer:
(a) light

17. He believed that General Meade’s men, were beginning to retreat.
(a) rejoice
(b) advance
(c) evacuation
(d) withdrawal
Answer:
(b) advance

18. The; cops were reluctant to leave.
(a) indisposed
(b) settle
(c) keen
(d) lazy
Answer:
(c) keen

19. The night had been distinctly a defeat for them.
(a) victory
(b) setback
(c) conquest
(d) destiny
Answer:
(a) victory

20. The reporter was a thin-faced, wispy man.
(a) fine
(b) flimsy
(c) thin
(d) substantial
Answer:
(d) substantial

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