Category: Class 10

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Unit Exercise 3

10th Maths Unit Exercise 3 Question 1.
Solve \(\frac{1}{3}\) (x + y – 5) = y – z = 2x – 11 = 9 – (x + 2 z).
Solution:
Given

3z = 3 ⇒ z = 1
(3) becomes, 3x + 2 = 20 ⇒ 3x = 20 – 2 = 18
x = \(\frac{18}{3}\) = 6
(1) becomes, 6 – 2y + 3(1) = 5 ⇒ 9 – 2y = 5
⇒ 9 – 5 = 2y ⇒ 2y = 4
∴ y = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
∴ Solution set is {6, 2, 1}

Unit Exercise 3 Question 2.
One hundred and fifty students are admitted to a school. They are distributed over three sections A, B and C. If 6 students are shifted from section A to section C, the sections will have equal number of students. If 4 times of students of section C exceeds the number of students of section A by the number of students in section B, find the number of students in the three sections.
Solution:
Let the students in section A, B, C be a, b, c, respectively.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 3.1 Question 3.
In a three-digit number, when the tens and the hundreds digit are interchanged the new number is 54 more than three times the original number. If 198 is added to the number, the digits are reversed. The tens digit exceeds the hundreds digit by twice as that of the tens digit exceeds the unit digit. Find the original number.
Solution:
Let the three digits numbers be 100a +10b + c.
100b + 10a + c = 3(100a + 10b + c) + 54 ………. (1)
100a + 106 + c + 198 = 100c + 106 + a ……… (2)
(b – a) = 2(b – c) ……… (3)
(1) ⇒ 100b + 10a + c = 300a + 30b + 3c + 54
⇒ 290a – 70b + 2c = -54
(2) ⇒ 99a – 99c = -198 ⇒ a – c = -2
⇒ a = c – 2
(3) ⇒ a + b – 2c = 0 ⇒ a + b = 2c
⇒ b = 2c – c + 2
⇒ b = c + 2
Substituting a, b in (1)
290(c – 2) – 70 (c + 2) + 2c = -54
290c – 580 – 70c – 140 + 2c = -54
222c = 666 ⇒ c = 3
a = 1, 6 = 5
∴ The number is 153.

10th Maths Unit Exercise 2 Question 4.
Find the least common multiple of
xy (k² + 1) + k(x² + y²) and
xy(k² – 1) + k (x² – y²)
Answer:
xy (k² + 1) + k(x² + y²) = k²xy + xy + kx² + ky²
= (k²xy + kx²) + (ky² + xy)
= kx(ky + x) + y (ky + x)
= (ky + x) (kx + y)
xy (k² – 1) + k(x² – y²) = k²xy – xy + kx² – ky²
= (k²xy + kx²) – xy – ky²
= kx(ky + x) -y (ky + x)
= (ky + x) (kx – y)
L.C.M. = (ky + x) (kx + y) (kx – y)
= (ky + x)(k²x² – y²)
The least common multiple is
(ky + x) (k²x² – y²)

Unit Exercise Question 5.
Find the GCD of the following by division algorithm 2x⁴ + 13.x³ + 21 x² + 23x + 7, x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1, x² + 2x + 1.
Solution:
2x⁴ + 13x³ + 27x² + 23x + 7,
x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1, x² + 2x + 1.
By division algorithm, first divide

∴ (x + 1)² is G.C.D of x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1 and x² + 2x + 1.
Next let us divide
2x⁴ + 13x³ + 27x² + 23x + 7 by x² + 2x + 1

∴ G.C.D of 2x⁴ + 13x³ + 21 x² + 23x + 7, x³ + 3x² + 3x + 1, x² + 2x + 1 is (x + 1)².

10th Maths Example Sums Question 6.
Reduce the given Rational expressions to its lowest form

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solution Question 7.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Answers Question 8.
Arul, Ravi and Ram working together can clean a store in 6 hours. Working alone, Ravi takes twice as long to clean the store as Arul does. Ram needs three times as long as Arul does. How long would it take each if they are working alone?
Solution:
Let Aral’s speed of working be x
Let Ravi’s speed of working be y
Let Ram’s speed of working be z
given that they are working together. ,
Let V be the quantum of work, x + y + z = \(\frac{w}{6}\) …………. (1)
Also given that Ravi takes twice the time as Aral for finishing the work.

Also Ram takes 3 times the time as Aral for finishing the work.
∴ \(\frac{w}{z}\) = 3 × \(\frac{w}{x}\)
∴ x = 3z ∴ z = \(\frac{x}{3}\)
Substitute (2) and (3) in (1),

Exercise 1.6 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 9.
Find the square root of 289x⁴ – 612x³ + 970x² – 684x + 361
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 1.6 Answers Question 10.
Solve \(\sqrt{y+1}+\sqrt{2 y-5}\) = 3.
Solution:
Squaring both sides

9y² – 78y + 169 = 4 (y + 1)(2y – 5)
9y² – 78y + 169 = 4 (2y² + 2y – 5y – 5)
9y² – 78y + 169 = 8y² + 8y – 20y – 20
9y² – 78y + 169 – 8y² + 12y + 20 = 0
y² – 66y + 189 = 0
y² – 63y – 3y + 189 = 0
y(y – 63) – 3(y – 63) = 0
(y – 63)(y – 3) = 0
y = 63, 3

10th Maths Book Example Sums Question 11.
A boat takes 1.6 hours longer to go 36 kms up a river than down the river. If the speed of the water current is 4 km per hr, what is the speed of the boat in still water?
Solution:
Let the speed of boat in still water be ‘v’

⇒ 36(v + 4) – 36(v – 4) = \(\frac{8}{5}\) (v – 4) (v + 4)
⇒ 36v + 144 – 36v + 144 = \(\frac{8}{5}\) (v² – 4v + 4v – 16)
⇒ 288 = \(\frac{8}{5}\) v² – \(\frac{128}{5}\) ⇒ 8v² – 128 = 1440
⇒ 8v² = 1568 ⇒ v² = 196 v = ±14
∴ Speed of the boat = 14 km/hr. (∵ speed cannot be -ve)

10th Algebra Solutions Question 12.
Is it possible to design a rectangular park of perimeter 320 m and area 4800 m²? If so find its length and breadth.
Solution:
Let the length and breadth of the rectangle be lm and bm
Given 2(1 + b)
⇒ l + b = 160 ………. (1)
Also l b = 4800

∴ Length and breadth of the rectangular park is 120m and 40 m

10th Maths Samacheer Question 13.
At t minutes past 2 pm, the time needed to 3 pm is 3 minutes less than \(\frac{t^{2}}{4}\) Find t.
Solution:
60 – t = \(\frac{t^{2}}{4}\) – 3
⇒ t² – 12 = 240 – 4t
⇒ t² + 4t – 252 = 0
⇒ t² + 18t – 14t – 252 = 0
⇒ t(t + 18) – 14(t + 18) = 0
⇒ (t + 18) (t – 14) = 0
∴ t = 14 or t = -18 is not possible.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Solutions Question 14.
The number of seats in a row is equal to the total number of rows in a hall. The total number of seats in the hall will increase by 375 if the number of rows is doubled and the number of seats in each row is reduced by 5. Find the number of rows in the hall at the beginning.
Solution:
Let the no of seats in each row be x

⇒ 2x² – 10x = x² + 375
⇒ x² – 10x – 375 = 0
⇒ x² – 25x + 15x – 375 = 0
⇒ x (x – 25) + 15 (x – 25) = 0
⇒ (x – 25) (x + 15) = 0
⇒ x = 25, x = -15, x > 0
∴ 25 rows are in the hall.

3rd Standard Samacheer Maths Book Solutions Question 15.
If a and b are the roots of the polynomial f(x) = x² – 2x + 3, find the polynomial whose roots are
(i) α + 2, β + 2
(ii) \(\frac{\alpha-1}{\alpha+1}, \frac{\beta-1}{\beta+1}\)
Solution:

(i) α + 2, β + 2 are the roots (given)
Sum of the roots = α + 2 + β + 2
= α + β + 4
= 2 + 4 = 6
Product of the roots = (α + 2) (β + 2)
= αβ + 2α + 2β + 4
= αβ + 2(α + β) + 4
= 3 + 2 × 2 + 4
= 3 + 4 + 4 = 11
∴ The required equation = x² – 6x + 11 = 0.

⇒ 3x² – 2x + 1 = 0

Class 3 Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Question 16.
If -4 is a root of the equation
x² + px – 4 = 0 and if the equation
x² + px + q = 0 has equal roots, find the values of p and q.
Answer:
Let p(x) = x² + px – 4
– 4 is the root of the equation
P(-4) = 0
16 – 4p – 4 = 0
-4p + 12 = 0
-4p = -12
p = \(\frac { 12 }{ 4 } \) = 3
The equation x² + px + q = 0 has equal roots
x² + 3 x + q = 0
Here a = 1, b = 3, c = q
since the roots are real and equal
b² – 4 ac = 0
3² – 4(1)(q) = 0
9 – 4q = 0
9 = 4q
q = \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \)
The value of p = 3 and q = \(\frac { 9 }{ 4 } \)

10thmaths Question 17.
Two farmers Senthil and Ravi cultivates three varieties of grains namely rice, wheat and ragi. If the sale (in ₹) of three varieties of grains by both the farmers in the month of April is given by the matrix.

May month sale (in ₹) is exactly twice as that of the April month sale for each variety.
(i) What is the average sales of the months April and May.
(ii) If the sales continues to increase in the same way in the successive months, what will be sales in the month of August?
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Answers Question 18.

Solution:

10th Maths Question 19.

Solution:

10th Algebra Chapter 3 Question 20.

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.4

10th Maths Exercise 3.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Reduce each of the following rational expressions to its lowest form.


Solution:

Ex 3.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the excluded values, if any of the following expressions.

Solution:
(i) \(\frac{y}{y^{2}-25}=\frac{y}{(y+5)(y-5)}\) is undefined when (y + 5) (y – 5) = 0 that is y = -5, 5
∴ The excluded values are -5, 5

(ii) \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined when t² – 5t + 6 = 0 i.e.
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0 ⇒ t = 3, 2
∴ The excluded values are 3, 2

(iii) \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{2}+x-2}\) is undefined when x² + x – 2 = 0 i.e.
(x + 2) (x + 1) = 0
∴ The excluded values are 2, 1

(iv) \(\frac{x^{3}-27}{x^{3}+x^{2}-6 x}\) is undefined when x³ + x² – 6x = 0, i.e
x(x² + x – 6) = 0
x(x + 3) (x – 2) = 0
∴ The excluded values are -3, 2

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Note Making and Summarising

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Notes are short written record of facts to aid the memory. Notes are usually taken to record a speech or dictation while listening to it or after reading a book, magazine or article. They are referred back whenever needed and may be reproduced in the desired way.

The Necessity Of Note – Making
Knowledge is vast and unlimited, but our memory is limited. We cannot remember all the information all the time. Hence note – making is necessary. With the help of notes we can recall the entire information read/heard months ago. It is quite useful to students preparing for many subjects. At the time of examinations, it is not possible to go through voluminous books. At such critical times, notes are quite handy. Hence note-making fulfils three useful functions:

1. It keeps a lot of information at our disposal for ready reference.
2. It helps us reconstruct what was said or written and thus accelerates the process of remembering/recall.
3. It comes in handy in delivering a speech, participation in a debate/discussion, writing an essay and revising lessons before an examination.

How Note – Making Helps Us

While making notes we do not simply read the passage/listen to speech but consider various points made by the writer/speaker and draw our own inferences about what is being presented. Thus note-making helps us in understanding the passage in a better way and organising our thoughts systematically.

Characteristics Of Good Notes

1. Short and Compact: Good notes must be short and compact.
2. Complete Information: They must contain all the important information.
3. Logical: They must be presented in a logical way.
4. Understandable: They should be understandable when consulted at a later stage.

Mechanics Of Note – Making

While making notes we follow certain standard practices. These may be listed as follows:
(a) Heading and Subheadings
(b) Abbreviation and Symbols
(c) Note – form
(d) Numbering and Indentation

Heading And Sub – Headings

The heading reflects the main theme whereas the subheadings point out how it has been developed. The selection of proper heading and subheading reveals the grasp of the passage by the students. In the absence of proper assimilation of main ideas and subsidiary points, it is impossible to make notes.

Solved Questions
Read the following passages carefully and make notes and summarize.

PASSAGE 1
The epidemic of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. To contain and control the increasing death and disability from heart attacks and to focus on public awareness and their involvement at global level, the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the World Heart Federation observed September 24th as the World Heart Day. What causes heart attacks? Dr H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and stressful lifestyle.

The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be underestimated. “Physical exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy life in general and prevention of heart attacks in particular.” There are several studies showing that physically active people have higher longevity than those sedentary or physically inactive.

Notes:
Healthy Heart

1. World Heart Day: 24 September.
(a) To control death & disability
(b) To increase awareness

2. Causes of Heart Attacks
(a) Lack of physical exercise
(b) Wrong eating habits
(c) Smoking & alcohol
(d) Stressful lifestyle

3. Role of Physical Exercise.
(a) Prevents heart attacks – longer life
(b) Isotonic – beneficial; isometric – harmful
(c) Walking: best exercise
(i) 30 to 60 meters brisk walk
(ii) no equipment, money, material or membership of club
(iii) early morning: ideal for walking.

4. Consult cardiologist before beginning an exercise program.

Summary
Rough draft: Healthy Heart

The epithet of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportions in recent times causing grave to the medical fraternity. To have control on increasing death and disability due’ total art attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation nSssj^served September 24th as World Heart Day to focus on public awareness. “Physi&ak exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy life ing&netul and prevention of heart attacks ’’ in particular.” According to health experts, their age main habits that cause heart attack, these are lack of physical exercise, wrong&atijjg habits, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption and stressful lifestyle. The effect§’«Qieart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking.

Fair Draft: Healthy Heart
In recent times, heart attack is an epidemic disease that causes grave concern to the medical fraternity. To have control on increasing death and disability due to heart attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation has observed September 24th as the World Heart Day to focus on public awareness. According to health experts, there are four main habits that cause heart attack, these are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption and stressful lifestyle. The effects of heart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 100

PASSAGE 2
Scientists in the USA and Japan are developing a set of smart materials that clean themselves off dirt and stains besides eliminating foul odors and dangerous bacteria. Exploiting powerful catalytic properties, researchers succeeded in creating tiles, glass, paint, paper and cloth that can keep themselves sparkling clean. The first item to reach the market, a self – cleaning wall and counter tile, can not only kill bacteria but also eliminate odors and staining associated with smoke from cooking oils and cigarettes, reports the journal Technology Review. The key to the self – cleaning world of the future is the interaction between titanium dioxide and ultraviolet rays from the sun or fluorescent lights. The special properties of titanium dioxide – a substance used to make paint and toothpaste white – were first discovered by Tokyo University chemist Akira Fujishima and Associates in 1969. Their research showed that when exposed to solar energy, titanium dioxide has the ability to break down water into hydrogen and oxygen.

Notes
Self Cleaning Materials

1. Self-cleaning materials
(a) Clean dirt, stains
(b) Eliminate foul odour & dangerous bacteria

2. Self-clearing tiles – people of work.
(a) Ultraviolet rays – * Ti02

3. Special properties of TiOz
(a) Ti02 makes paint/toothpaste white
(b) Ability to break down H20 into H2 and 02
(c) Absorbs energy from ultraviolet band + reacts with H20 vapours → produced 02 → break organic matter → C02 + trace elements

Summary
Rough’ttraft: Self Cleaning Materials
Scientists in thetfSAiand Japan are developing a set of smart materials that clean themselves off dirt and taus but also eliminate odors and dangerous bacteria. The first item to reach the market/a’selfAfieaning wall and counter tile, can not only kill bacteria but also eliminate odours arm causing associated with smoke from cooking oils and cigarettes, reports the journal Technology Review. Some tiles, glass, paint, paper and cloth have been introduced those can be’ kept dean manually. Titanium dioxide and Ultraviolet rays from the sun are the keys to the’self^cleaning world.

Fair Draft: Self Cleaning Materials
Scientists of Japan and USA have developed many smart materials that not only clean themselves off dirt and stains but also eliminate odours and dangerous bacteria. Some tiles, glass, paint, paper and cloth have been introduced those can be kept clean manually. Titanium dioxide and Ultraviolet rays from the sun are the keys to the self – cleaning world.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

PASSAGE 3
According to the National Council for Applied Economic Research’s latest report, India: Human Development Report which is a profile of the Indian states in the 1990s, there are many problems in women’s education. Girls are taken out of school as soon as some calamity hits the family’s fortunes. They are made to look after their younger siblings and they are not looked upon as ‘investment’. In order to marry them off early and without problems, girls are not allowed to traverse long distances to go to school. They are not allowed to study under male teachers. Affluent families invest in girls’ education only if they are assured of getting better bridegrooms.

When women are educated, they can at least look after their own and the family’s health, better. Without adequate education, there is a low level of awareness about ailments and sheer ignorance can cause them to ascribe ailments to non – medical, often supernatural causes. Uneducated women are often too shy to reveal their diseases and many do not go to doctors out of fear that it may cause undue expenses to their budgetary balances. Pregnant women in many villages have been found not to be given any special diet. In fact they often reduce their food intake because of the prevailing belief that they cannot digest heavy food. There is gender disparity in most states in the treatment of young children and the elderly.

In any case, a majority of the rural areas do not have provision for primary health care services. The prevalence of diseases is rather high in the southern states, West Bengal and Punjab perhaps because of better reporting of sickness and the availability of treatment. About 41 million individuals receive medication for major illnesses at a point of time in India and the highest prevalence is of hypertension followed by tuberculosis. The critical issues of education and health are closely connected with expansion of job opportunities and while reducing unemployment has been a standard slogan during the elections by all parties, the emphasis on health and education has been subdued.

Notes
Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
1. Female dropouts in schools
(a) Family hit by calamity – girl looks after siblings
(b) Girl’s education. – not regarded investment
(i) rich – investment, if better bridegroom
(c) Problem-free marriage
(i) early age
(ii) no long distance to school
(iii) no male teachers

2. Results of inadequate female education.
(a) Health probs.
(i) ignorance
(ii) superstitions
(iii) shyness about disease
(iv)fear of undue expenses
(v)lack of proper diet to pregnant women

3. Lack of rural/health care services
(a) High prevalence of diseases 41 million get medication.
(b) Southern states, West Bengal & Punjab
(i) better reporting of sickness
(ii) availability of treatment.
(c) Most common diseases
(i) hyper tension
(ii) T.B.

Summary
Rough draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
Women’s arts education is still lagging behind under various factors. If any calamity hits, girls are taken^out of school to look after their younger siblings. Girls education is not regarded as asihvqstment. When women are educated, they can at least look after their own and the ralmlVs health, better. Only the rich class people educate their girls for better match. MokNa^the parents do not like to send their girl child in distant school or taught by male teacher. The working women give up their job with an increase in their family income. Secbn4Jy inadequate education in female create health problems due to ignorance, superstitiPn§and fear of undue expense. There is lack of rural health care services so rural women become victims of diseases like T.B., hypertension etc. There is gender disparity ‘furriest states in the treatment of young children and the elderly.

Fair Draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
Women’s education is still lagging behind under various factors. If any calamity hits, a girls are taken out of school to look after their younger siblings. Girls education is not regarded as investment. Only the rich class people educate their girls for better match. Most of the parents do not like to send their girl child in distant school or taught by male teachers. The working women give up their job with an increase in their family income. Secondly inadequate education in female create health problems due to ignorance, superstitions and fear of undue expense. There is lack of rural health care services so the rural women become victims of diseases like T.B., hypertension etc.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 115

PASSAGE 4
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. The concentration of forests is mostly in the hills of western districts and in the Javadi group of hills in Vellore district. Dense forests are also seen in Salem district. More than half of the area in the Nilgiris is under forest. Other districts hold 1% to 5% of area under forests. Thanjavur being the alluvial plain is suitable for agriculture which has less than 1% of forest cover.

The forests of Tamil Nadu have different types of trees. Most of the trees in the state shed their leaves in the dry season. Tamil Nadu has large areas of sandal wood plantations, about 5,88,000 hectares. Hard wood trees are available in the forests of Coimbatore, Nilgiris and Kanyakumari. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Notes
Forests in Tamil Nadu
Uneven distribution – concentration in western districts, Nilgiris, Javadi hills, Vellore and Salem – other districts have 1 – 5% forests. Thanjavur only 1% of land under forests.

Different kinds of trees.
Deciduous trees, Hardwood trees, Sandalwood trees and Ordinary trees for firewood available – 5,88,000 hectares under sandalwood.

Spread
Hardwood trees – Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Nilgiris
Firewood – Madurai, Thanjavur and Coimbatore
Rubber – Kanyakumari

Summary
Rough’drai’t: Forests in Tamil Nadu
The distributibiKQf forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Forest cover is denseSuwestem districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than l%^of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees/San^lalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found inTSAQyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyaktmri has rubber plantations. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Fair Draft: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Forest cover is dense in western districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

PASSAGE 5
Oils are of three main kinds – vegetable, animal and mineral oil. Vegetable oil is obtained by crushing oilseeds. Mineral oil is pumped out from deep under the earth. Animal oil is got from the fat of animals. To extract vegetable oil, the dried oilseeds are put in the crushing machine and oil is squeezed out. This is found deep below the ground. Holes are drilled and oil is pumped out or forced out. The crude oil is a source of many useful things. We get kerosene, petrol and diesel out of crude oil. We use most of the vegetable oils for cooking. Mineral oils are mainly used as fuel. Animal oils are used as medicine. For example, shark liver oil is given to strengthen weak children. Neem oil, lime oil and sandalwood oil also have medicinal value.

Notes:
Three kinds of oil

• Vegetable oil – crushing dried seeds – using machines
• Mineral oil – holes drilled – deep under the ground – oil pumped out crude oil – refined – petrol/diesel/kerosene
• Animal oil – fat of animals – whales, sharks – blubber melted

Uses of oil

• Vegetable oil – edible – used for cooking – for making soaps residue – oil cake – used as cattle feed.
• Mineral oil – used as fuels
• Animal oil – used as medicine – skin care soaps.

Summary
Rough draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health

Oils are of mrbe’Oiiain kinds – vegetable, animal and mineral oil. Vegetable oil is obtained by crushing’ my seeds. Vegetable oil is extracted from dried seeds by crushing. Mineral oils are purer pinout from underground. Animal oils are extracted from the fat or blurb of whale andsharl^s. We get kerosene, petrol and diesel from crude oil. Vegetable oils are used for cooking mineral oils are used as fuels. Neem oil, lime oil and sandalwood oil also have medic math value.

Fair Draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
Vegetable oil is extracted from dried seeds by crushing. Mineral oils are pumped out from underground. Animal oils are extracted from the fat or blurb of whale and sharks. We get kerosene, petrol and diesel from crude oil. Vegetable oils are used for cooking. Mineral oils are used as fuels.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 50

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 2 Central Government

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Central Government Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 1.
The Constitutional Head of the Union is …………..
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(a) The President

Social Solutions For Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Who is the real executive in a Parliamentary type of-government?
(a) Army
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The President
(d) Judiciary
Answer:
(b) The Prime Minister

Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 3.
Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) President
(b) Attorney General
(c) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Class 10 Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Question 4.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) The President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Lok Sabha

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Social Science Question 5.
The Joint sittings of Indian Parliament for transacting legislative business are presided over by?
(a) Senior most member of Parliament
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(c) The President of India
(d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Social Question 6.
What is minimum age laid down for a candidate to seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years
Answer:
(c) 25 years

Question 7.
The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rest with?
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) State Government
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(d) Parliament

Question 8.
Under which Article the President is vested with the power to proclaim Financial Emergency
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 365
Answer:
(b) Article 360

Question 9.
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme court are appointed by …………….
(a) The President
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Governor
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 10.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under:
(a) Appellate Jurisdiction
(b) Original Jurisdiction
(c) Advisory Jurisdiction
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Original Jurisdiction

Question 11.
If you are elected as the President of India, which of the following decision can you take on your own?
(a) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the council of minister
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses
(c) Select the person you like as Prime Minister
(d) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in the Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. ………….. Bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without President’s approval.
2. ………….. is the leader of the nation and chief spokesperson of the country.
3. ………….. is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
4. The President generally nominates two members belonging to the …………. community to the Lok Sabha.
5. ……………. has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament.
6. The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of ………….. years.
7. ………….. is the Guardian of the Constitution.
8. At present, the Supreme Court consists of ………….. judges including the Chief Justice.
Answers:
1. Money
2. Prime Minister
3. Vice-President
4. Anglo-Indian
5. Attorney General of India
6. 65
7. Supreme Court
8. 28

III. Choose the Correct Statement.

Question 1.
(i) Total members of the Rajya Sabha is 250.
(ii) The 12 nominated members shall be chosen by the President from amongst persons experience in the field of literature, science, art, or social service.
(iii) The Members of the Rajya Sabha should not be less than 30 years of age.
(iv) The members of the Rajya Sabha are directly elected by the peoples.
(a) ii and iv are correct
(b) iii and iv are correct
(c) i and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme Court hold the office up to the age of 62 years.
(ii) Judiciary is the third organ of the government.
(iii) The cases involving fundamental rights come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
(iv) The law declared by Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(a) ii and iv are correct
(b) iii and iv are correct
(c) i and iv are correct
(d) i, and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) ii and iv are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house and it cannot be dissolved.
Reason (R): One third of the members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill the seats thus vacated.
(a) (A) is false but R is true
(b) (A) is false but (R) is true
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for( A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

IV. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V. Answer the brief questions.

Question 1.
How is President of India elected?
Answer:
The President is elected by an electoral college with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote.

Question 2.
What are the different categories of Ministers at the Union level?
Answer:
The different categories of Ministers at the Union level are –

1. Cabinet Ministers
2. Ministers of States and
3. Deputy Ministers

Question 3.
What is the qualification of Judges of the Supreme Court?
Answer:

1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He should have worked as a judge of a High court for atleast 5 years.
3. He should have worked as an advocate of High Court for atleast 10 years.
4. He is in the opinion of the President a distinguished Jurist.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The office of the Speaker occupies an important position in our Parliamentary democracy. He presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. He has the power to decide whether a Bill is Money Bill or an ordinary one. The Speaker continues to be in the office even if the Houses dissolved, till a new speaker is elected by the new’ Lok Sabha.

Question 5.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:

1. Money Bill in general covers issue of . receipt and spending of money, borrowing by the Government, tax laws and expenditure of the Government and prevention of Black money etc.
2. Money Bill can be introduced in the Parliament (the Lok Sabha) Lower House only.

Question 6.
List out any two special powers of the Attorney General of India?
Answer:
(i) The Attorney General of India has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of the Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named as a member, but without a right to vote.

(ii) In the performance of his official duties, Attorney General of India has the right of audience ‘ in all Courts in the territory of India.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the powers and functions of the President of India.
Answer:
According to Article 53 of the Constitution the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President which shall be exercised by him directly or through subordinates to him in accordance with Constitution.

Powers of the President: Executive power.

1. Article 77 specifies that every executive action of the union shall be taken in the name of the President.
2. He appoints Prime Minister and the other council of minister on the advice of the Prime Minister, distributing Port folios to them .Wide variety of appointments made by him include appointment of Governors of States, the Chief Justice and the other Judges of the Supreme Court and High courts, the Attorney General, the comptroller and Auditor General, the Chief Election Commissioner, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission, Ambassadors and High commissioners to other countries.
3. He appoints a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other backward classes.
4. The President appoints the chiefs of defence forces – Army, Navy and Air Force.

Legislative power:

1. After the General election (Election to the Lok Sabha) and also at the beginning of the first session each year the President inaugurates the session by addressing.
2. The President has to summon the Parliament.
3. All bills passed in the Parliament become “Laws of Acts” only after getting the assent of the President.
4. Money bills cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha without his approval.
5. He has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry term of the House.
6. He nominates 12 persons who are eminent in various fields to Rajya Sabha.
7. He also nominates 2 persons from Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.

Financial Power:

1. Money bill can be introduced in the Parliament only with his approval.
2. Annual Budget is presented in the Parliament in the name of the President.
3. Contingency Fund is at his disposal.
4. He can make advances out of it to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
5. He constitutes a finance commission after every five years for the distribution of revenue between Centre and the State.

Judicial Power:

1. President has the power to grant pardon, reprieves, respites or remmission of punishment.
2. He is not answerable to any court of law.
3. But subjected to Impeachment.
4. Military power: President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces.
5. He can declare war against a country or make peace.

Diplomatic powers:

1. The President appoints Indian diplomats to other countries and receives foreign diplomats.
2. All treaties and agreements with foreign states are entered into, in the name of the President.
3. Emergency powers: President has empowered by the Parliament to proclaim emergency arose out of war or armed rebellion, Constitution failure in the state and a threat to financial stability.
4. Being the First Citizen of India, he is the Constitutional Head and Nominal head of the country.

Question 2.
Explain the Jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court of India.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the constitution. He performs the following functions.
(i) Original Jurisdiction: The cases which are brought directly in the first instance to the Supreme Court come under original jurisdiction. These may be – (a) dispute between the government of India and one or more States, (b) dispute between two or more States and (c) the cases involving fundamental rights come under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

(ii) Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court is the final appellate Court in the country. It hears appeals against the decisions of High Court in “civil, criminal and constitutional” cases with a certificate from the High Court that it is fit to appeal in the Supreme Court.

(iii) Advisory Jurisdiction The Constitution confers on the President the power to refer to the Supreme Court any question of law or fact which in his opinion is of public importance

(iv) The Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
(v) The Supreme Court also enjoys the power of judicial review.

Question 3.
What are the duties and functions of Prime Minister of India?
Answer:
The leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha is appointed as the Prime Minister by the President.
The duties and functions of Prime Minister:

1. The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments.
2. He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the cabinet he presides.
3. The Prime Minister is the Head of the Cabinet and the other ministers are his colleagues.
4. The Prime Minister supervises the work of various ministers.
5. He consults informally two or three of his senior colleagues when he does not convene a Cabinet meeting.
6. Prime Minister should inform the affairs of the Union and proposals of legislation, all decisions of the council of ministers connecting to the government.
7. He act as the link between die President and the Council of ministers.
8. He is the leader of the nation and chief spokes person of the country.
9. As the leader of the nation the Prime Minister represents our nation at all International conferences such as SAARC, Common Wealth and Summit of Non-aligned nations.

Question 4.
Critically examine the Powers and Functions of the Parliament.
Answer:

1. The Parliament is the highest law making body in our country. It makes laws for the entire country.
2. It provides a platform where public grievances are discussed and their solutions are made
3. The Parliament is vested with powers to impeach the President and to remove judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, Chief Election Commissioner and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India in accordance with the procedure laid down in the Constitution.
4. The Parliament exercises control over the executive by asking questions and supplementary questions, moving motions of adjournment, discussing and passing resolutions, discussing and pushing censure motion or vote of no-confidence.
5. It has the power to change the boundaries of the States.

Question 5.
List out the functions of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
Functions of the Lok Sabha:

1. Any bill can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha (including Money bill)
2. It has the power in passing any bill for Constitutional Amendment.
3. Lok Sabha member have the power to elect the President and the Vice President.
4. It can participate in case of impeachment of the President and the judges of the Supreme Court.
5. Motion of no confidence can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. If it is passed then the Prime Minister and the other council of ministers need to resign from their post.

Functions of Rajya Sabha:

1. Any bill (except the money bill) needs to be approved by Rajya Sabha to get passed.
2. If the bill is not approved for more than six months then President calls for a joint session of both the houses to resolve the dead lock.
3. It has the same power like Lok Sabha for passing any bills for Constitutional Amendment.
4. Together with the members of Lok Sabha and all the State Legislative Assemblies they elect the President and Vice President.
5. It has the power in the impeachment procedure of the President and judges of the Supreme Court and High Court.
6. Rajya Sabha can also create or abolish an All India service, and has the power to make a state list subject into National importance with two third majority to support it.

Central Government Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The Council of Ministers is headed by the ……………….
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) President
(d) Vice – President
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister

Question 2.
Our country has …………….. system of government.
(a) Aristocratic
(b) Monarchial
(c) Parliamentary
(d) Oligarchy
Answer:
(c) Parliamentary

Question 3.
Which are the two states of India where the President’s rule was imposed for maximum number of times?
(a) Kerala and Maharashtra
(b) Kerala and Punjab
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Goa and Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(b) Kerala and Punjab

Question 4.
The President of India resides at …………….. in New Delhi.
(a) Raj Bhavan
(b) Sastri Bhavan
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan
(d) Vignyan Bhavan
Answer:
(c) Rashtrapathi Bhavan

Question 5.
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of ……………
(a) Six years
(b) Five Years
(c) Four Years
(d) Seven years
Answer:
(a) Six years

Question 6.
The …………….. occupies the second highest office in the country.
(a) Vice-President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Cabinet Minister
Answer:
(a) Vice-President

Question 7.
Oath of the President is administered by ……………
(a) Vice President
(b) Lok Sabha Speaker
(c) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(c) Chief Justice of India

Question 8.
The leader of the majority party in the …………….. is appointed by the President as the Prime Minister.
(a) Committee
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Cabinet
Answer:
(c) Lok Sabha

Question 9.
Judges of Supreme Court is appointed by ……………
(a) Lok Sabha Speaker
(b) Vice President
(c) President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 10.
The first Prime Minister of India was ……………..
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Thiru. Lai Bahadur Sastri
(c) Mrs Indira Gandhi
(d) Thiru Narendra Modi
Answer:
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the ………….. before the expiry of its term on the advice of the Prime Minister.
2. The Rajya Sabha does not have any power to amend or reject the …………… Bill.
3. The salaries and allowances of the Prime Minister and the Ministers are determined by the ………………
4. The Supreme Court is the final ……………. court in the country.
5. The ………….. of India is the highest law officer in the country.
6. A joint meeting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is presided by ……………
7. The annual financial statement is caused to be laid before both Houses of Parliament by ……………
8. The Lower House of the Indian Parliament is called ……………….
9. The …………. is a permanent House and it can not be dissolved.
10. Presently the Lok Sabha consists of ………… members.
11. The Lok Sabha is presided over by the …………..
12. …………. is the third organ of the Government.
13. The ………….. is the final appellate court in the country.
14. There are ………….. different levels of court in our country.
15. President of India is elected by elected members of …………., ………….. and ………….
Answer:
1. President
2. Money
3. Parliament
4. Appellate
5. Attorney General
6. Speaker of Lok Sabha
7. President
8. The Lok Sabha
9. Rajya Sabha
10. 545 Members
11. Speaker
12. Judiciary
13. Supreme Court
14. Three
15. Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and State Assemblies

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The power of the judiciary to declare a law as unconstitutional is known as judicial review.
(ii) Our Constitution provides for a democratic form of Government.
(iii) All Bills passed by the Parliament become “Law of Acts” only after getting the assent of the President.
(iv) The leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha is appointed by the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court as the Prime Minister
(a) i, ii and iv are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) i, ii and iii are correct
(d) i, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
(c) i, ii and iii are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Lok Sabha is the popular House of the Indian Parliament and contains elected representatives of the people.
(ii) At present, the Lok Sabha consists of 547 Members.
(iii) The Lok sabha is a permanent House and it cannot be dissolved.
(iv) The Lok Sabha can only introduce Money Bill
(a) i and ii are correct
(b) i, ii and iv are correct
(c) ii, iii and iv are correct
(d) i, and iv are correct
Answer:
(d) i, and iv are correct

IV. Match the following.

A.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

B.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (c)

C.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

V. True or False.

1. The Constitution of Independent India adopted the principle of Universal Adult Franchise.
2. The opposition parties play no role in the functioning of a Government.
3. Not a single seat is reserved in the Parliament for SCs and STs.
4. The total membership of the Lok Sabha is 500.
5. When the Parliament is in session, it begins with a question hour.
6. The Supreme Court is presided over by the Chief Justice of India.
7. Poor people can approach only the lower courts.
8. The judiciary acts as per the wishes of the Government.
9. The public interest litigation plays an important role in facilitating justice to all.
10. The civil cases usually begin with the lodging of a First Information Report (FIR) with
police who investigate the crime after which a case is filed in the court.
Answers:
1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. False

VI. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What does the Electoral College consist of?
Answer:
The Electoral College consists of the elected members of both the houses of the Parliament, the elected members of the states and elected members of National Capital Territory of Delhi and Puducherry.

Question 2.
What do you know about the term of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. It means that it cannot be dissolved. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of six years. One third of its members retire every two years and new members are elecied to till the seats. The Vice – President of India is the Ex- officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

Question 3.
Our Parliament is a “Bicameral Legislature”. How?
Answer:
If any legislature has two Houses the Upper House and the Lower House it is said to be Bicameral Legislature. Since our Parliament has two Houses namely Lok Sabha (House of the elected people) and the Rajya Sabha (House of the States) it is termed as “Bicameral Legislature”

Question 4.
What is the qualification of Attorney General of India?
(OR)
Who can be appointed as the Attorney General of India?
Answer:
One who wants to become the Attorney General of India must

1. be a citizen of India
2. have been a judge of some High Court for five years or an advocate of some High Court for 10 years or eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.

Question 5.
How the members of Lok Sabha are elected?
Answer:

1. The members of the Lok Sabha are directly elected by the people of the Constituencies on the basis of population.
2. Universal Adult Franchise is followed while electing the members of the Lok Sabha.
3. All Indian citizens above 18 years of age who are registered as voters will vote for their representatives.

Question 6.
What is Parliament?
Answer:
The Legislature is known as the Parliament. It consists of two houses, namely Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha.

Question 7.
What does the Collegium consist of?
Answer:

1. Collegium consists of four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court and 3 members of concerned High court with Chief Justice as Head.
2. The appointment and transfer of the judges in Supreme Court and high courts is taken by Collegium.

Question 8.
How is the Vice-President of India elected?
Answer:
The Vice-President occupies the second highest office in the country. He is not elected directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the member of both Houses of Parliament.

Question 9.
What are the three sessions of the Parliament?
Answer:
Parliament sessions should be held at least twice in a year.
The three sessions of the Parliament

1. Budget session – From February to May
2. Monsoon Session – From July to September
3. Winter session – From November to December.

Question 10.
Name the different Parliament Sessions.
Answer:

1. Budget Session from February to May
2. Monsoon Session from July to September
3. Winter Session from November to December

Question 11.
What do you mean by integrated Judiciary?
Answer:
An integrated Judiciary means a single judicial hierarchy for the whole country.

Question 12.
What do you mean by the executive?
Answer:
An executive is a group of people who work together to implement the laws made by Parliament.

Question 13.
Who is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the leader of the ruling party in the Lok Sabha.

Question 14.
Name the ministries which are housed in the North Block.
Answer:
The ministries in the housed in the North Block are The Ministry of Finance and the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Question 15.
Who nominates the 12 members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
The President of India nominates the 12 members of the Rajya Sabha.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe briefly the different categories of the ministers at the Union level.
Answer:
The ministers at the Union level are classified under three ranks:
(i) Cabinet Ministers:- The Cabinet is an informal body of senior ministers who form the nucleus of administration. All the important decisions of the Government are taken by the Cabinet, such as defence, finance, external affairs and home. The Cabinet recommends to the President to promulgate an ordinance. It is instrumental in moving amendments to the Constitution. These Finance Bills have their origin in the Cabinet and they are introduced in Lok Sabha with the President’s recommendations.

(ii) Ministers of State:- These ministers belong to the second category of ministers in the council. They are also in charge of ministries or departments but they do not participate in the meetings of the Cabinet unless invited to do so.

(iii) Deputy Ministers:- They are the lowest-ranked ministers in the Cabinet. They assist either the ministers of Cabinet or State in the performance of the duties entrusted to them.

Question 2.
How the Vice President elected? What are the qualification needed to elect as Vice President?
Answer:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He must have completed the age of thirty five years.
3. He must not hold any office of profit under the Union, State or Local government.
4. He should have the other qualifications required to become a member of the Rajya Sabha. Election and term of-the Vice-President is five years. His office may terminate earlier than the fixed term either by resignation, death or by removal.
5. He is eligible for re-election.
6. The Constitution does not provide a mechanism of succession to the office of the Vice President.
7. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can perform the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the vice president).

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 2 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 2 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Central Government Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science Geography Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science Geography Board solutions for Chapter 7 Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 7 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Human Geography Of Tamil Nadu Question 1.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is ……………….
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Geography Book Question 2.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oilseeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 3.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ……………
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 4.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Tungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 5.
Number of major and minor ports in Tamil Nadu are
(a) 3 and 15
(b) 4 and 15
(c) 3 and 16
(d) 4 and 16
Answer:
(a) 3 and 15

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Agriculture of Tamil Nadu constitutes …………….. % of its economy.
2. Sathanur dam is constructed across the river …………..
3. Tamil Nadu ranks …………….. in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public – Private Partnership (PPP).
4. ………….. is the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.
5. The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ………….
Answers:
1. 21
2. Thenpennai
3. Second
4. Chennai International Airport
5. Balance of trade

III. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)

IV. Questions 1-2 are assertion and reasoning type

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Coimbatore, Tiruppur and Erode region is called as The Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu.
Reasoning (R): They contribute a major share to the state’s economy through textiles.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Nilgiris is the least populated district of Tamil Nadu
Reasoning (R): It is located in the western most part of Tamil Nadu.
(а) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is false
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A)

V. Answer the following in briefly.

Question 1.
Explain the cropping seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Coimbatore has the ideal conditions for cotton cultivation – Humid weather in the early stages and hot weather during the harvest period. Cotton cultivation and the textile industries are the reasons to call Coimbatore as the “Manchester of Tamil Nadu”.

Question 3.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 4.
What is MRTS?
Answer:

1. Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) a well established suburban railway network. Currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground operation since May 2017.
2. It is mainly started to manage the crowd during peak hours. The elevated metro system. Connects the heart of the city from North to South.

Question 5.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

1. Chennai International Airport
2. Coimbatore International Airport
3. Madurai International Airport
4. Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:

1. Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

1. Chennai
2. Ennore and
3. Tuticorin
   Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 6.
Have you heard about any stampede in your district? write about that incident briefly.
Answer:
During Athivaradhar festival minor stampede that brokeout on Thursday (18^th July 2019) the crowd flocked to Kancheepuram as it was an auspicious day after the lunar eclipse. Four people died.

On 21^st April 2019 atleast seven people died in stampede in Tamil Nadu during a temple festival at Muthuaiyampalayam Karuppusamy temple in Thuraiyur a village near Trichy (Sunday).

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Marine Fishing and Inland fishing
Answer:

Marine Fishing	Inland Fishing
It is carried out in oceans and seas.	Inland fishing is carried out in lakes, rivers, ponds, estuaries, backwaters and swamps.
Large mechanised boats are used for fishing.	Catamaran, diesel boats and floating nets are used in fishing.
The fish varieties caught are sharks, flying fish, counch, catfish, silver bellies and crabs.	Oysters and prawns are cultured in original nurseries.
Chennai, KanyaKumari, Tirunelveli, Nagapattinam, Thanjavur and Ramanathapuram.	Vellore, Cuddalore, Sivagangai and Virudhunagar districts are inland fish production of the state.

Question 2.
Food Crops and Non- Food Crops
Answer:

Food Crops	Non- Food Crops
Food crops are mainly grown for consumption	They are mainly grown for sale purpose
Paddy is the main food crop and cereals, pulses and millets are also the second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu	Sugarcane, cotton, tree and coffee
Cauvery delta is known as the Granary of South India leading in rice cultivation	Tiruvallur, Kancheepuram, Vellore, coimbatore, Cuddalore, Erode, Madurai, Ramanatha Puram, Salem, Thoothukudi, Nilgiris and yercaud.

Question 3.
Surface Water and Ground Water
Answer:

Surface Water	Ground Water
The total surface water potential of the state is about 24,864 mem.	The utilizable groundwater resource of the state is 22,423 mem.
There are 17 major river basins in the state with 81 reservoirs and about 41,262 tanks	The current level of utilization of water is about 13,558 mem.
Most of the surface water has already been tapped, primarily for irrigation, where water use in the largest.	60% of the available recharge, while about (8875 mcm) 40% is the balance available for use.

VII. Give reasons for the following

Question 1.
Farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming.
Answer:
By continuous usage of chemical fertilizers, pesticides and insecticides the soil became unfit for cultivation after some years. It causes a threat to agriculture. So to bring back the soil to fertility and to make it fit for cultivation farmers switch over from inorganic to organic farming. Organic wastes, biological pest control crop residues and animal manure only used under organic farming.

Question 2.
Cities are densely populated than the villages.
Answer:
Agriculture, job opportunities and industrial development are the main causes of population density in the cities then the villages.

Question 3.
Karur is Called the Textile Capital of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Karur is an industry town and is very famous for cottage and hand-loom textile industries. Moreover state’s most of the textile goods exports is from Karur district. That is why Karur is called the textile capital of Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Mostly stampede occurs in Temples.
Answer:
Most of the religious festivals are located in areas like banks of rivers hilly terrains or mountain tops. These areas lack proper pathways, posing a geographical risk to the pilgrims. It often disrupts the orderly movement of crowds resulting in irrational and dangerous movement for self-protection, leading to injuries and fatalities. Because of the lack of physical infrastructure, the mob behaviour increases the sense of threat, which results in a stampede.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Plantation Crops: Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber, pepper and cinchona.

The hill slopes with laterite soil and acidic-nature is ideal for the plantation crops.

Tea: Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgins and Coimbatore. Notable region for tea estates Nilgiris.

Coffee: Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats. It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigui, Madurai, Theni and Salem districts.
Notable places: Yercaud, Kolli hills and Kodaikanal,

Rubber: Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.

Cashew: It is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.

Pepper: Confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.

Cinchona: It is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.

Cardamom: Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Position: Tamil Nadu stands second in area and production of tea and coffee next to Assam and Karnataka respectively.

Question 2.
Give an account on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu constitutes 4% of India’s land area and is inhabited by 6% of India’s population, but has-only 2.5% of India’s water resources.
2. More than 95% of the surface water and 80% of the ground water have already been put into use.
3. Major uses of water include human/animal consumption irrigation and industrial use.
4. The state is heavily dependent on monsoon rains.
5. The annual average rainfall is around 930 mm (47% during the northeast monsoon, 35% during the south west monsoon, 14% in summer and 4% in winter.
   

Question 3.
Bring out the mineral distribution in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(i) Tamil Nadu is the leading holder of country’s resources of vermiculite, magnetite, dunite, rutile, garnet, molybdenum and ilmenite.

(ii) The state accounts for the country’s 55.3% of lignite, 75% of vermiculite, 69% of dunite, 59% of garnet, 52% of molybdenum and 30% of titanium mineral resources.
Important minerals are found in the state are as follows:

1. Neyveli has large lignite resources.
2. Coal is available in Ramanathapuram
3. Oil gas are found in the Cauvery basin
4. Iron deposits are found in Kanjamalai region in Salem district and Kalrayan Malai region of Tiruvannamalai district.
5. Magnesite ores are available near Salem.
6. Bauxite is found in Servarayan Hills, Kotagiri, Udagamandalam, Palani and Kollimalai areas.
7. Gypsum is obtained in Tiruchirappalli, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi and Virudhunagar districts.
8. Ilmenite and rutile are found in the sands of Kanyakumari beach.
9. Limestone is available in Coimbatore, Cuddalore, Dindigul, Kancheepuram, Karur, Madurai, Nagapattinam, Namakkal, Perambalur, Ramanathapuram, Salem and Tiruvallur districts.
10. Magnesite is obtained in Coimbatore, Dharmapuri, Karur, Namakkal, the Nilgiris, Salem.
11. Feldspar, quartz, copper and lead are found in some parts of the state.

Question 4.
State the densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu and account for its high density.
Answer:

1. The number of persons living per square km is referred as population density.
2. A place is said to have high density of population if number of persons living per sq km is above 800.
3. As per 2011 census the density of population in Tamil Nadu is 555 per sq.km

Densely populated regions of Tamil Nadu:
Chennai is the densest district – 26,903 persons per sq.km followed by Kanyakumari (1106), Tiruvallur (1049), Kancheepuram (927), Madurai (823), Coimbatore (748), Cuddalore (1702), Thanjavur (691), Nagapattinam (668-), Salem (663), Vellore (646), Tiruchirappalli (602).

Question 5.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Roadways:
The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, In which 60,628km are maintained by state Highways Department. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered at Chennai.
  The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s southern peninsula, covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km with 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most of the major cities in India.
• Main rail junctions in the state include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirappalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

Water ways:

• Tamil Nadu has 3 major ports. They are Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin. It has an intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports. Ennore intermediate port was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and ore traffics in Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Write about Road safety rules.
Answer:
In recent years the number of road accidents in Tamil Nadu has been increasing. It is reported that 15% of the road accidents of the country takes place in Tamil Nadu.

Basic road safety rules:

1. Aware of the road signals
2. Stop, look and cross
3. Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
4. Don’t rush on roads
5. Crossroads in pedestrian crossings
6. Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles.
7. Never crossroad at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle.
8. Avoid speeding, Drunk and driving, use helmets and seat belts and follow traffic rules.

“Know – Risk! No – risk!”

IX. Map Study

Question 1.
Mark the areas of major crops, minerals, dams, airport and seaports.
Answer:

Human Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Tea, Coffee, rubber, pepper and cashew are …………. crops.
(a) Food
(b) Fiber
(c) Plantation
Answer:
(c) Plantation

Question 2.
The word Agriculture is derived from the ……………….. words “ager and Cultura”.
(a) Latin
(b) Greek
(c) Tamil
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 3.
Rice, Cotton, Sugercane are grown with …………….
(a) Drying farming
(b) Irrigation farming
(c) Cattle reasing
Answer:
(b) Irrigation farming

Question 4.
In Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute is situated at:
(a) Aduthurai
(b) Madurai
(c) Thiruvallur
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(a) Aduthurai

Question 5.
Millets are ……………… crops.
(a) Wet crops
(b) Dry crops
(c) Plantation
Answer:
(b) Dry crops

Question 6.
To promote ……………….. a central scheme named ‘National Project on Organic Farming’was launched.
(a) mixed farming
(b) organic farming
(c) aquaculture
(d) plantation farming
Answer:
(b) organic farming

Question 7.
Which is known as the Textile capital of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Salem
(b) Karur
(c) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(b) Karur

Question 8.
……………….. is also known as ‘poor man’s cow’.
(a) Goat
(b) Sheep
(c) Buffalo
(d) Horse
Answer:
(a) Goat

Question 9.
The most populated district in Tamil Nadu is …………….
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruvallur
(c) Chennai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 10.
districts lead in the Inland fish production.
(a) Chennai
(b) Cuddalore
(c) Sivagangai
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(d) Vellore

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. …………. irrigation is most predominant irrigation system in TamilNadu.
2. ……….. Dam is one of the biggest earthen dams in the country.
3. Amaravathi reservoir is notable for the …………….
4. Papanasam dam is also known as ………….. dam.
5. Parappalar project is located near …………….
6. Tamil Nadu occupies ……………… position in the country in silk production.
7. The Vellore district is the top exporter of finished …………. in the country.
8. Tamil Nadu accounts for about ………….. of India’s …………. exports.
9. Tamil Nadu ranks among the Indian states in population density.
10. ………… in considered the ‘fire works capital’ of India.
Answers:
1. Well
2. Bhavani
3. Mugger crocodiles
4. Karaiyar
5. Ottanchatram
6. Fourth
7. leather goods
8. 17%, Software
9. 12th
10. Sivakasi

III. Match the following.

a.

1.	Rearing of birds	(a)	Apiculture
2.	Rearing of honeybees	(b)	Horticulture
3.	Rearing of silkworms	(c)	Poultry farming
4.	Growing fruits	(d)	Sericulture

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3.(d)
4.(b)

b.

1.	Wet fanning	(a)	Millets
2.	Dry farming	(b)	Rice
3.	Plantation farming	(c)	Sugarcane
4.	Market gardening	(d)	Tea, Coffee
5.	Irrigation farming	(e)	Kancheepuram

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (c)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture is a practice of farming that includes cultivation of crops, rearing of animals, birds, forestry, fisheries and other related activities.

Question 2.
What is the Multipurpose River Valley Projects?
Answer:
Multipurpose river valley projects are basically designed for the development of irrigation for agriculture and hydropower generation they are used for many other purposes as well.

Question 3.
List out the major food crops and commercial crops of the state.
Answer:

1. The principal food crops – paddy, millets and pulses.
2. The commercial crops – sugarcane, cotton, oilseeds, spices, tea, and coffee and cashew.

Question 4.
Define Trade.
Answer:
Trade-in an exchange of goods and commodities either within the country or between countries.

Question 5.
Write a note on Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu Rice Research Institute was established in April 1985 under Tamil Nadu Agricultural University.
2. It is situated at AduthUrai (Thanjavur).
3. It’s function is to perform lead function for rice and rice based cropping system research with the help of existing agriculture colleges and research centers.

Question 6.
Name any four districts with low density of population.
Answer:
Nilgiris, Perambalur, Dharmapuri and Sivagangai.

Question 7.
What are minor ports?
Answer:
Minor ports are anchorage ports where cargo is transhipped from the vessel to the store.
Ex. Cuddalore, Nagapattinam, Kolachal and Rameshwaram.

Question 8.
What are the uses of Chinchona?
Answer:

• Chinchona is a forest product.
• From chinchona quinine a drug is extracted.
• Malaria is treated with this medicine.

Question 9.
Write the expansion of these abbreviated terms.

1. TNAU
2. TANTEA
3. TNPL
4. TANCEM
5. Gl
6. CLRI
7. SEZ
8. TTDC

Answer:

1. TNAU: Tamil Nadu Agriculture University
2. TANTEA: Tamil Nadu Tea Plantation Corporation Limited
3. TNPL: Tamil Nadu Newsprint and Papers Limited
4. TANCEM: Tamil Nadu Cements Corporation Limited
5. GI: Geographical Indication
6. CLRI: Central Leather Research Institute –
7. SEZ: Special Economic Zone
8. TTDC: Tamil Nadu Tourism-Development Corporation

Question 10.
Name the factors influencing agriculture.
Answer:
The factors influencing agriculture can be classified as Physical, Social and economic factors.

• Physical factors includes soil, temperature, rainfall, humidity, climate and slope of land.
• The social factors includes traditional knowledge belief and myths of farmers, farm size and holdings and fanners acceptance towards innovation.
• Economic factors are market loan assistance, government subsidy and incentives.

V. Distinguish:

Question 1.
Wet farming and Dry farming
Answer:

Wet farming	Dry farming
Water supply is available through out the year from rain fall and irrigation for farming.	Farming is carried out only during rainy season.
Rice and sugarcane are grown.	Ragi and millets are grown.

Question 2.
Commercial crops and Plantation crops
Answer:

Commercial crops	Plantation crops
Sugarcane, tobacco, oil seeds, spices, turmeric etc are commercial crops.	Tea, coffee, rubber, pepper and cashewnut are the main plantation crops.
Tobacco is yet another commercial crop grown an Dindigul, Teni and Madurai districts.	Coffee in grown in the W.Ghats and E. Ghats.

Question 3.
Imports and Exports
Answer:

Imports	Exports
Goods and services bought from overseas producers.	Goods and services sold to overseas consumers.
A country that imports goods and services loses foreign exchage currency.	A country that exports goods and services gains foreign exchange currency.
Tamil Nadu imports machineries, electrical equipments, mineral, fuel and pharmaceutical products.	Tamil Nadu exports agricultural products, Leather products, Gems, and jewellery, chemical and related products.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Tourism is considered as an industry – justify. Give an account on Tourism in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tourism is considered as an industry because of its enormous potential in creating employment for a large number of people.
2. Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit our state (Tamil Nadu) annually.
3. Reasons: The presence of ancient temples and monuments, hill stations pilgrim centres, a variety of natural land scapes, long coast line along with rich culture and heritage make Tamil Nadu the best destination for tourists.
4. Promoter: Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC).
5. The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals (in 2013).

Question 2.
Give an account for the distribution of Textile industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Textile industry is one of the traditionally well-developed industries in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu has a major share in the Indian Textile industry in terms of production and export of yams, fabrics, knitwear and garments. Tamil Nadu contributes 30% of India’s share in export of cotton, yam and fabrics.

Tropical climate availability of raw materials, demand for cotton in market, power supply from numerous power projects and abundant cheap labour are favourable factors for widespread distribution of textile industries in Tamil Nadu. The textile mills are concentrated in Coimbatore, Tirupur, Salem, Palladam, Kamr, Dindigul, Vimdhunagar, Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi, Madurai and Erode. Tamil Nadu has about 3,50,000 power looms manufacturing cotton fabrics.

Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region for this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”. Timpur and Erode contributes much for the state economy, therefore they are referred to as ‘Textile Valley of Tamil Nadu’.

Timpur alone contributes 70% of export of knitwear of Tamil Nadu. Erode specializes in garments and bedspreads. The city of Kamr is known as ‘Textile capital of Tamil Nadu Silk Textiles’. Tamil Nadu occupies fourth place in silk textile production in our country Kancheepuram silk is unique in its quality and is known for its traditional value all over the world. Arani, Rasipuram and Thimbuvanam are other silk centres of Tamil Nadu.

Sericulture Training Institute in Hosur training farmers to adopt agriculture along with farm work to accelerate rural industrialization Mettur, Madurai and Ramanathapuram are specialized areas for manufacturing synthetic clothes.

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Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Successful Industrial Clusters In Tamilnadu Question 1.
‘The Detroit of Asia’ is …………….
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Industrial Clusters Meaning In Tamil Question 2.
Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharampuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Industrial Clusters Question 3.
Tuticorin is known as …………
(a) Gatew ay of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
…………….. are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Industry

Question 5.
Tiruppur is knowm for ……………..
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Agro-processing
Answer:
(c) Knitwear

Question 6.
Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi is also a centre for leather goods exports.
(a) Chennai
(b) Sivakasi
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
IT means …………….
(a) Indian Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Institute Technology
(d) Initiative Technology
Answer:
(b) Information Technology

Question 8.
A successful Industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Hosur

Question 9.
SIPCOT was formed in the year …………….
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1971
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 10.
Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TANSIDCO
(c) TIDCO
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………… are very important in the modem economic activities of man.
2. ………….. are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and technologies.
3. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ………………. District in Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………… is fondly called as ‘Little Japan’.
5. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced in …………….
6. ……………. is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.
Answers:
1. Industries
2. Industrial clusters
3. Vellore
4. Sivakasi
5. April 2000
6. Entrepreneur

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
I. Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
II. They are not providing large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and professionals.
III. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income.
IV. Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
(a) I and IV is correct
(b) I only correct
(c) III and IV is correct
(d) I and III is correct
Answer:
(d) I and III is correct

IV. Pick out odd one.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Dharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
Answer:
(b) Dharmapuri

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a Industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPG
(d) SIPCOT
Answer:
(c) MEPG

V. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

VI. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:
The demand for agricultural products remains constant at all levels of income, The agricultural products need to be processed and preserved to exports them, and there are limit for the primary sector to absorb labour. For all these reasons, a developing economy diversify out of agriculture.

Question 2.
Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land. As a result, labour productivity in the agricultural sector cannot increase much. Wages cannot increase as a result poverty levels may remain high, especially when more and more people continue to rely on agriculture for their livelihood.

Question 3.
What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Answer:
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and skill requirements.

Question 4.
What are the routes for cluster formation?
Answer:
Apart from the Chennai region, industrial growth has been concentrated in several small towns clusters. Throughout the state, with the western region being more dominant these clusters specialise in a range of activities like clothing, home furnishing, textiles, leather, poultry, coir products, transport, equipment servicing, engineering services and auto component making.

Question 5.
Mention the 3 areas of policy-making that helped Tamil Nadu become one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Answer:

1. Education – The state is known for its vast supply of Technical Human Resources.
2. Infrastructure – Excellent Infrastructure facilities like transport facilities, electricity, markets, widespread m the state.
3. Industrial promotion – Efforts taken to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components. IT etc..

Question 6.
Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971
It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of Tamil Nadu established in the year 1970 to promote small-scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (TamilNadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

Question 7.
What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Some of the Industrial clusters tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affects health.
2. Decrease in the employment potential due to use of capital intensive technology.
3. Quality of employment suffer a§ workers are employed temporarily.

Question 8.
What is Meant by Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Entrepreneur is an innovator of new ideas and business processes. He possesses management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Question 9.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
It is a process of an action of an entrepreneur Who undertakes efforts to establish his enterprise. It is the ability to run the business-facing risk and innovating new ideas.

VII. Brief Answer.

Question 1.
What are the contributions of industrialization to development?
Answer:
As stated earlier, it is essential to produce inputs to other producers in an economy. Even agriculture requires inputs from industry such as fertilizers and tractors to increase productivity.

Second, a market exists for both producers and consumer goods. Even services like banking, transport and trade are dependent on the production of industrial goods.

Third, by using modem methods of production, industries contribute to better productivity’ and hence lower cost of production of all goods produced. It therefore helps people to buy goods at a cheaper rate and help create demand for more products.

Fourth, through such expansion of production, industrialization helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture. Employment generation is therefore an important objective of industrialisation.

Fifth, a related advantage of industrialization is therefore technological change. Through use of modem techniques, industrialisation contributes to learning of such methods and their improvement. As a result labour productivity, ie, output per unit of labour input increases, which can help workers earn higher wages.

Sixth, expanding incomes lead to more demand for goods and services. If an economy is not able to produce enough to meet such demand, it has to rely on imports and therefore spends a lot of foreign exchange. If the economy does not earn enough from exporting, it will be difficult to meet the growing demand. Industrialization therefore helps an economy to save and also generate foreign exchange through exports.

Question 2.
Write a note on history of industrialisaton in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a vast coastline therefore the region has been involved in trade with both South – East and West Asia for several centuries.
2. The introduction of cotton cultivation in Western and Southern Tamil Nadu by the Colonial Government led to the emergence of large – scale textile Industries.
3. The introduction of Railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped to develop this sector.
4. The Chennai and Tuticorin ports in Tamil Nadu led to the greater Industrial development.
5. The growth of Jaggery Industry in South Tamil Nadu and match factory in the Sivakasi region, Leather production in Dindigul, Vellore and Ambur region are remarkable development of Industries in Tamil Nadu.
6. Another major development in the Western region is the introduction of electricity from hydro- electric power in 1930’s.
7. The emergence of workshops for servicing engines and also for demand for spare parts.
8. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchy and Avadi Industrial Estate in 1950’s to supplying to the large firms in the region.
9. The Salem Steel Plant was set up in 1973 to produce stainless steel.
10. In 1990’s with the,ideas of Liberalisation phase, many MNC’s has been opened such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung etc.,
11. Tamil Nadu has been halied as a model for successfully using the SEZ route to attract productive Investments also.

Question 3.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters?
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

• geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• sectoral specialisation
• close inter-firm collaboration
• inter-firm competition based on innovation
• a socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust
• multi-skilled workforce
• active self-help organisations, and
• supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 4.
Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is the home to the largest textile sector in the country.
2. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore is often referred as the Manchester of South India.
3. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.
4. Palladam, Somanur small towns near Coimbatore region, and Erode and Salem region have large number of powerloom units.
5. Cotton knitwear firms accounting for nearly 80% of the cotton knitwear exports and generates large employment in Tiruppur region.
6. Because of the success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South countries in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise?
Answer:
Industrial Policy of Tamil Nadu:
Tamil Nadu enjoys growth and has excellent infrastructure. A straggly established cluster and political stability are the major advantages. The state government has a pro-active industrial policy and is very encouraging when it comes to SEZs.
Important industrial policies:
(a) Tamil Nadu Industrial Policy – 2014
(b) Implementation of Industrial Policy – 2015
(c) Tamilnadu State Environmental Policy – 2014
(d) Tamilnadu SEZs Policy – 2013
(e) Tamilnadu Automobiles and Auto Parts Policy – 2014
(f) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policies – 2014

Question 6.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Answer:
Entrepreneur is a person one who possesses management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Role of Entrepreneur:

1. To promote development of Industries.
2. To remove regional disparities by Industrialising rural and backward areas.
3. To help the country to increase the GDP and Pre-capita income.
4. They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of Income and wealth.
5. They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the citizens and country’s exports.
6. Entrepreneurs provide large – scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and work in an environment of changing
7. technology and try to maximize profits by innovations.
8. To enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices.
9. This results in the improvement of their standard of living.

VIII. Case studies

Question 1.
Choose a cluster in Tamil Nadu based on online research and write a note on it.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

IX. Activity and project.

Question 1.
Write a note on a cluster or a firm near your school/home based on your observations.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

X. Life Skills

Question 1.
Teacher and Students discuss about the entrepreneurs and their activities and Write an a essay in the topic of “If you are like a Entrepreneur”.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In the year 1965 …………….. was formed.
(a) TIDCO
(b) TALW
(c) TANSI
Answer:
(a) TIDCO

Question 2.
Countries in the Southern hemisphere are called Global ………………. countries.
(a) Western
(b) South
(c) Eastern
(d) Minor
Answer:
(b) South

Question 3.
……………. gives subsides and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale
sector.
(a) TANSIDCO
(b) SIPCOT
(c) TANSI
Answer:
(a) TANSIDCO

Question 4.
………………. is nicknamed as the Detroit of Asia.
(a) Madurai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Tiruppur
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 5.
The MEPZ headquarters is located on:
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Madurai
(d) Ramnad
Answer:
(a) Chennai

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Food products are taken over longer distances processed and ……………..
2. Countries in the southern hemisphere are called …………….
3. The ……………. district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
4. ……………. is famous for cotton knitwear.
5. Chennai is nick named as ………………
Answers:
1. branded
2. Global South countries
3. Vellore
4. Tiruppur
5. The Detroit of Asia

III. Match the following.

a.

1.	Sivakasi	(a)	1970
2.	SIPCOT	(b)	leather Goods
3.	Namakkal-Tiruchengode	(c)	1971.
4.	Tiruppur	(d)	Cotton knit wear
5.	Vellore	(e)	Truck body building industry
6.	TANSIDCO	(f)	fire works

Answer:
1. (f)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (d)
5. (b)
6. (a)

b.

1.	TANSI	(a)	Andhra Pradesh
2.	TIIC	(b)	Auto Cluster
3.	TIDCO	(c)	1949
4.	Hosur	(d)	1965
5.	Cement Industry	(e)	1965

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘Industry’?
Answer:
Any human activity which is engaged in the conversion of raw materials into readily usable materials is called an Industry.

Question 2.
What is consumer goods rector?
Answer:
If the output is consumed by the final consumer, it is called as consumer goods sectors.

Question 3.
Name few examples of Industrial clusters.
Answer:
Clothing, home furnishing, textiles, leather, poultry, coir products, engineering services, etc., are few examples of Industrial sector clusters.

Question 4.
How do clusters Originate?
Answer:
Clusters may arise due to many factors. Certain clusters evolve over a long time in history when artisans settle in one locality and evolve over centuries. Hand loom weaving clusters are one example of this development.

Government may decide to encourage manufacturing using raw materials from a region, which may also lead to emergence of clusters.

Question 5.
Why is Coimbatore often referred to as the ‘Manchester of South India”?
Answer:
Most of the cotton textile Industries are located in Coimbatore region since the colonial period, so it is called as Manchester of South India.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write about the major Industrial Clusters and their specialisation in Tamil Nadu. Automotive Clusters:
Answer:
Chennai is nicknamed as “ The Detroit of Asia” because of its large auto industry base. Chennai is home to large number of auto assembly and coponents making firms.
While there were a few domestic firms like TVS, TI Cycles, Ashok Leyland and Standard Motors earlier in the post-reform period, several MNC firms like Hyundai, Ford, Daimler- Benz and Renault-Nissan have opened factories in the region.

Textile Cluster:
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the “Manchester of South India”

At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to the smaller towns and villages at a radius over 100 to 150 km around the Coimbatore city. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.

Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns, are home to a dynamic power loom weaving cluster as well. Power loom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a large number of power loom units.

Leather and Leather Goods Clusters:
Tamil Nadu accounts for 60% of leather tanning capacity in India and 38 % of all leather Leather footwear, garments and components. Hundreds of leather and tannery facilities are located around Vellore and its nearby towns, such as Ranipet, Ambur and Vaniyambadi. The Vellore district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country. The leather products sector too is a major employment generator.

Fireworks, Matches and Printing Cluster:
Sivakasi region, once famous for its match industry has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country. It is believed to contribute to 90% of India’s fireworks production, 80% of safety matches and 60% of offset printing solutions. The offset printing industry has a high degree of specialization among firms with several of them undertaking just one operation required for printing. All these industries have their origin in the colonial period and at present offer employment to a large number of workers.

Question 2.
Write a note a Special Economic Zones.
Answer:

1. SEZ (or) Special Economic Zones are set up based on the policy that was introduced in april 2000.
2. This was set up to have hazzle free environment for exports.
3. The policy provides for setting up of SEZs in the public, private, joint sector (or) by the State Governments.
4. It also envisaged that some of the existing Export Processing Zone would be converted into Special Economic Zones.
5. Accordingly, the Government has converted EPZ into SEZ in almost eight places in Tamil Nadu.
6. The Madras Export Processing Zone (MEPZ) is one of the seven export processing zones in the country set up by the Central Government.
7. It was established in 1984 to promote foreign direct investment, enhance foreign exchange earnings and create greater employment opportunities in the region.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

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India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

India Population Transport Communication And Trade Question 1.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called ……..
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Question 2.
The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is:
(a) Tamil nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarpradesh.
Answer:
(c) Kerala

10th Social India Map In Tamil Question 3.
Human Development is measured in terms of …….
(a) Human Resource Index
(b) Per capita index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) UNDP
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index

10th Social India Outline Map Question 4.
…………………. transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways.
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Geography Book Question 5.
The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5847 km
(c) 5849 km
(d) 5800 km
Answer:
(a) 5846 km

10th India Outline Map Question 6.
The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is:
(a) 17,500 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 1000 km
Answer:
(c) 14,500 km

Question 7.
The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

Question 8.
The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is:
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 9.
Which of the following is associated with helicopter services?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot
(d) Pavan Hans
Answer:
(d) Pavan Hans

Question 10.
The major import item of India is:
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(d) Petroleum

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (f)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
Dr Mahabub-ul-haq defined Human Development as “it is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.

Question 2.
What is migration? State its types.
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

1. Internal migration and
2. International migration.

Question 3.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:
Advantages of Railways:

1. Cater to the needs of large scale movement of traffic for freight and passengers.
2. Promotes trade, tourism, education etc.
3. Promotes National integration by bringing people together.
4. Facilitates the quick movement of perishable goods.

Question 4.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:
Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural products and natural gas from oil fields to the refineries, factories and big thermal power plants. Pipelines are more reliable and considerably safer mode of transportation. The possibility of pilferage or product less on pipelines is almost negligible. The basic limitations of pipelines is that they are capital intensive mode of transportation.

Question 5.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:

1. Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hoogly river system between Haldia and Allahabad.
2. Stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya National Waterway.
3. The waterway between Kollam and Kottapuram – the first national waterway.

Question 6.
What is communication? What are its types?
Answer:
Communication refers to exchange of ideas, messages, emotions, either written or oral, from one place to another.
Types of communications are :

1. personal communication and
2. mass communication.

Question 7.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
Trade carried on between two or more countries is called “International trade”. It is also called as external trade or foreign trade. It has two components Exports and Imports.

Question 8.
State the merits of Roadways.
Answer:

1. Cost of construction of roads is much lower.
2. Provides door to door services thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
3. Used as feeder to other modes of transport to reach any destination be it railway station, sea port or airport, one need to travel through roads.

IV. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
The density of population and growth of population.
Answer:

Question 2.
Personal communication and mass communication.
Answer:

Question 3.
Print Media and Electronic Media.
Answer:

Question 4.
Roadways and Railways.
Answer:

Question 5.
Waterways Airways
Answer:

Question 6.
Internal trade and International trade.
Answer:

V. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
“The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization”.

Impacts of Urbanization:

1. Overcrowding in urban centres.
2. It creates urban sprawl.
3. It leads to the formation of slums.
4. Shortage of houses in urban areas.
5. It creates water scarcity in the cities.
6. It creates drainage problem.
7. It poses the problem of solid waste management.
8. It increases traffic congestion in cities.
9. It increases the rate of crime.

A rapid rate of urbanization in society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.

Question 2.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:
Satellite images are used for weather forecasting, monitory of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas etc. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in communication in our country after the establishment of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969. Satellite systems in India can be grouped into two on the basis of two satellites namely “Indian National Satellite” (INSAT) and “Indian Remote Sensing Satellite” (IRS). These satellites collect data in several spectral band and transmit there to ground stations for various uses. The communication and remote sensing satellites INSAT and IRS have revolutionized India’s communication system. Metrological studies and natural resource management.

The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. There is no doubt that India has irrefatably arrived as a space power in the world. The INSAT series are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio, mobile phone. It is also useful in weather detection, internet. The INSAT series GSAT series, GSAT series KALPANA -1, HAMSAT, EDUSAT are the major communication satellite used for communication purpose. GSAT – 7A is the recent launch for communication programs. INSAT – IB launched on 30th August, 1983 is the first communication satellite in INSAT series.

Question 3.
Bring out the distribution and density of population in India.
Answer:
The term “Population Distribution” refers to the way the people are spaced over the earth’s surface.

The distribution of population in India is unevenly distributed due to the vast variation in the availability of resources.

Factors that affect the distribution of population are: Terrain, climate, soil, water bodies, mineral resources, industries, transport and urbanization.

Areas of high concentration of population: Industrial centres and the areas of good agricultural lands.

Areas of thin population: high mountains, arid lands, thickly forested areas and some remote comers and some areas are even uninhabited.

Most populous states in India: Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India (199.5 million) followed by Maharashtra (112.3 million), Bihar (103.8 million) West Bengal (91.3 million) and the combined Andhra Pradesh (84.6 million).

Least populated State: Sikkim (0.61 million).

Union territory with high population: Delhi (16.75 million). Union territory with least population – Lakshadweep (64,073).

Question 4.
Explain the process of measuring Human Development.
Answer:
Dr. Mahabub – ul – Haq defined as “It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment”. Human
Development Index (HDI) is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development.

1. Health – life expectancy at birth,
2. Education – expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population,
3. Income – Measured by gross national income and per capita income.

Question 5.
Classify and explain the roadways in India.
Answer:
Roadways play an important role in carrying goods and passengers for short, medium and long distances. It is highly suitable for short-distance services.

For the purpose of construction and maintenance Roadways in India are classified into:

1. National Highways (NH)
2. State Highways (SH)
3. District Roads
4. Rural Roads (Village roads)
5. Border Roads
6. International Highways

National Highways:

1. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways of India is responsible for the development and maintenance of the National Highways in India.
2. These Highways are connecting capitals of states, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
3. The total length of the National Highways in India is 1,01,011 Km which accounts for 1.8% of total road network length in 2016.
4. The longest National Highway NH-7 runs from Varanasi (U.R) to Kanyakumari (T.N) to a distance of 2369 km.
5. The shortest National Highway is NH-47A, runs from Emakulum to Kochi port (Willington Island) covering a distance of 6 km.

State Highways:

1. These roads are administered and financed by State Governments.
2. These highways link important cities, towns and district headquarters within the state and connect them with national highways or highways of neighbouring states.
3. State highways run to a length of 1,76,166 km as of 2016.

District Roads:

1. District Roads are constructed and maintained by the Public Works Department of the states.
2. District Roads provide connectivity between the district and taluk headquarters with the state highways and national highways.
3. The total length of the road is 5,61,940 km in 2016.
4. Rural Roads (Village Roads): They are maintained by village Panchayats.
5. It links different villages with their neighbouring towns.
6. Rural roads connectivity is a key component of Rural development.
7. The total length of Rural roads in India is 39,35,337 km as of 2016.
8. Rural roads consists of Panchayat roads, (Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat), roads of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) and those constructed by the State PWDs.

Border Roads:

1. They are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization established in 1960 for the development of the roads of Northern and North Eastern border areas.
2. These are the roads of strategic importance in border areas.
3. The Border Road organization has constructed world’s highest road joining Chandigarh and Leh in Ladak (at an altitude 4,270 mt).
4. Golden Quadrilateral: This project was launched in 1999.
5. It connects India’s four metropolitan cities Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai Mumbai.
6. It has 4/6 lanes and of 5,846 km long.
7. North-South and East-West corridors: These two corridors intersect at Jhansi.
8. North-South Corridor connects Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kaniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (4,076 km).
9. The East-West corridor connects Silchar in Assam with port town of Porbandar in Gujarat (3,640 km).

Express ways: These are the multi lane good quality highways for high speed traffic. Eg: (a) Mumbai – Pune Road, (b) Delhi – Agra.

International Highways:

1. These Highways have been constructed with an aid from World Bank under an agreement with the Economic and Social Commission for Asia-pacific (ESCAP).
2. These roads link India with her neighbouring countries – Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar.

India has the second-longest road network in the world.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following.

1. National Highway NH-7.
3. Major International Airports in India.

2. Major seaports in India.
4. Densely populated state of India.
5. State of highest literacy in India.

6. Railway zones of India

In-Text Hots Questions:

Question 1.
What could be the reason for uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of population in the country is the result of several factors such as physical, socio-economic and historical ones.

Physical factors: Relief, climate, water, natural, vegetation, mineral and energy resources.

Socio-economic factors: Religion, political issues economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization, urbanization, employment opportunity etc.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:

• Widening gap between birth and death rates.
• Low age at marriage.
• High illiteracy.
• Religious attitudes towards family planning.

Question 3.
The sex ratio in our country is always unfavourable to females. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Attitude of the people: Prestige and pride in having male child made them to prefer a male child to a female child.
2. Female infanticide: Even now in same places it is being done for fear of neglect by their family members if they give birth to a female child.
3. Future marriage expenses on female child.
4. Considered as weaker sex so will not be given opportunity to prove their ability suppressed by male domination.

Question 4.
Find out what are the functions of NHAI.
Answer:
The functions of National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) are:

• To develop, maintain and manage the national highways and any other highways vested in, or entrusted to it by the Government.
• Survey, develop, maintain and manage highways vested in, or entrusted to it.
• Construct offices or workshops and establish and maintain hotels, motels, restaurants and rest-rooms at or near the highways vested in, or entrusted to it.
• Construct residential buildings and townships for its Employees.
• Regulate and control the plying of vehicles on the highways vested in or entrusted to it for the proper management thereof.
• Provide such facilities and amenities for the users of the highways vested in, or entrusted to it as are in the opinion the Authority, necessary for the smooth flow of traffic on such highways.
• Advise the Central Government on matters relating to highways.

Question 5.
What are the highlights and benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Highways?
Answer:
The main objective of this project is connectivity, speed and safety.

Connectivity: Connects four major metropolitan cities enhances the movement of goods and people to the industrial areas enhances job development.
Access to hinterland of agricultural areas to market areas, ports for export needs.

Speed: Reduces the travel time.

Safety: Six lanes super highways meant for safety.

This project was launched in the year 1999. Implemented by National Highway Authority of India.

Encourages the private sector companies to invest, develop and maintain these highways.

Question 6.
Why is air travel preferred in the north eastern states?
Answer:

• Due to mountains, rivers, etc. road journey becomes too long even for short distance.
• So air travel is the most feasible option and the costs are also quite low due to subsidies by the government.
• Most of the cities have regional active airports.
• Air transport is preferred mainly in the North eastern states of India.

Question 7.
Find out the major trade blocks which are useful for multilateral trade.
Answer:
Major trade blocks useful for Multilateral trade.

EU: European Union

APEC: (Asian Pacific Economic Community) .

ASEAN: (Association of South East Asian Nations)

SAPTA: (South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement)

These trade blocks made the international trade easier. All member countries who signed the agreement are treated equally. These trade blocks remove the barriers and complications arose between nations in international trade.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar topic about “Role of Railways in Indian Economy”.
Answer:
Role of Railways in Indian Economy

• Railways are the principle mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
• Railways also make it possible to conduct multifarious activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
• Railways in India bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of industry and agriculture.
• The distribution pattern of the railway netw ork in the country has been largely influenced by physiographic, economic and administrative factors.

Question 2.
Collect the names for different types of goods and differentiate it and make a table as perishable and non-perishable goods.
Answer:
Perishable goods are foods like fresh meat, seafood, and ripe fruits.
Non-perishable are items that do not spoil or decay.
Ex. Canned goods, all pasta types, sugar, flour, curls and chips if air-sealed.

Question 3.
Collect the countries names and make it as a table of Bilateral trade and multilateral trade countries.
Answer:

Find Out:

The important National Highways in India and label it on the outline map of India.

The important National Highways in India are:
NH-6- Hazira to Kolkata (via Nagpur, Raipur, Sambalpur and Dhule)
NH-7 -Varanasi to Kanyakumari (Nagpur, Bangaluru and Madurai
NH-8 – Delhi to Mumbai (Jaipur, Ahmedabad and Vadodara)
NH-9 – Pune to Machilipatnam and Hyderabad, Vijayawada

The important National Highways in India.

India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India is the ……. most populous country in the world.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) sixth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 2.
The …………………. is the least populous state.
(a) Assam
(b) Goa
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Sikkim

Question 3.
Postal service and telegraph are some of the ………. communication.
(a) personal
(b) professional
(c) mass
Answer:
(a) personal

Question 4.
In India the year of demographic divide registered negative growth rate is ………………….
(a) 1921
(b) 1931
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(a) 1921

Question 5.
The headquarters of the Northern Railways is ………
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Allahabad
(c) Guwahati
Answer:
(c) Guwahati

Question 6.
The National Highways Authority of India was established in:
(a) 1975
(b) 1985
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 7.
The first railway line was laid between in 1853.
(a) Delhi and Kolkata
(b) Mumbai and Kolkata
(c) Mumbai and Thane
Answer:
(c) Mumbai and Thane

Question 8.
Indian Railways is organized into …………………. zones for operations and management.
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 19
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 9.
Trade blocs are created to make the ……. trade easier.
(a) Multilateral
(b) Bilateral
(c) Local
Answer:
(a) Multilateral

Question 10.
The …………………. is the fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Waterways
(d) Airways
Answer:
(c) Waterways

Question 11.
The headquarters of Indian Railways is ……..
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Nagpur
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 12.
The …………………. are the most powerful means of print media.
(a) Radio
(b) Magazines
(c) Fax
(d) Newspapers
Answer:
(d) Newspapers

Question 13.
The highways connecting the four metropolitan cities – Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.
(a) Six lanes super highways
(b) Expressways
(c) Border Roads
Answer:
(a) Six lanes super highways

Question 14.
Primitive method of trade was known as system.
(a) communication
(b) barter
(c) bilateral
(d) balanced
Answer:
(b) barter

Question 15.
Metro Rail transport in Chennai was introduced in …….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2005
Answer:
(a) 2015

Question 16.
Since 1957 All India Radio came to be called ……..
(a) Akshvani
(b) Sooriyan FM
(c) Vivith Bharathy
Answer:
(a) Akshvani

Question 17.
The Government of India merged all the Indian Airlines under ………
(a) TATA Airline
(b) National Aviation Corporation of India
(c) Airport Authority of India
Answer:
(b) National Aviation Corporation of India

Question 18.
Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays.
(a) Railways
(b) Pipelines
(c) Roadways
Answer:
(b) Pipelines

Question 19.
Which of the following sates is not connected with the H.V.J. Pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 20.
Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the
east coast?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradip
(c) Vishakhapatnam
Answer:
(c) Vishakhapatnam

Question 21.
Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?
(a) Internal Trade
(b) International Trade
(c) Local Trade
Answer:
(b) International Trade

Question 22.
The National Highway No.l is also known as
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Marg
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru Road
Answer:
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg

Question 23.
Trade carried in cities, towns and villages is called
(a) External trade
(b) Local trade
(c) international trade
Answer:
(b) Local trade

Question 24.
The Indian National Highways are maintained by the department of …….
(a) State Public Works Department
(b) Zila Parishad
(c) Central Public Works Department
Answer:
(c) Central Public Works Department

Question 25.
Which one of the following organizations constructs Border roads in India?
(a) PWD
(b) CPWD
(c) NHAI
Answer:
(c) NHAI

Question 26.
World has become a global village due to which of the following?
(a) Transport and communication
(b) Engineering Industry
(c) International trade
Answer:
(a) Transport and communication

Question 27.
Border Roads Organization was established in
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
Answer:
(c) 1960

Question 28.
The longest highways of India is
(a) National Highway – 8
(b) National Highway – 7
(c) National Highway – 1
Answer:
(b) National Highway – 7

Question 29.
Delhi and Mumbai are connected by …..
(a) National Highway – 1
(b) National Highway – 15
(c) National Highway – 8
Answer:
(c) National Highway – 8

Question 30.
Which Port is the major iron ore exporting port of the country?
(a) Mumbai Port
(b) Marmagoa
(c) Kandala Port
Answer:
(b) Marmagoa

Question 31.
The biggest port is …….
(a) Mumbai Port
(b) Marmagoa Port
(c) Kandala Port
Answer:
(a) Mumbai Port

Question 32.
The extreme south – western port is …….
(a) Tuticorin Port
(b) Kochi Port
(c) New Mangalore Port
Answer:
(b) Kochi Port

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……
2. …… have been replaced by more powerful diesel or electric engines.
3. There are ……… major ports located on the coast line of India.
4. Crude oil, petroleum and natural gas are transported by ……….
5. The largest terrestrial network of the world is ……….
6. The latest means of communication is ………
7. The multi purpose satellite system for telecommunication is …… – INSAT
8. The roadways are able to connect most of the ……… villages.
9. It is easier to construct and maintain ………..
10. National highways are maintained by ……… Government.
11. Indian railways system is the ……… in Asia.
12. Under transport the ….. forms the lifeline of the country.
13. The city ……. is the focal point from where railway lines radiate in all directions.
14. River Ganga is navigable upto …….
15. This world has been shrunk since the introduction of ……..
Answers:
1. Railways
2. Steam Engines
3. 13
4. pipelines
5. Doordharshan
6. Satellite
7. Indian National Satellite
8. remote
9. roadways
10. Central
11. largest
12. Railways
13. Delhi
14. Varanasi
15. Internet

III. Match the following.

Answers:
(1 – c)
(2 – d)
(3 – a)
(4 – e)
(5 – b)

Answers:
(1 – d)
(2 – a)
(3 – e)
(4 – c)
(5 – b)

Answers:
(1 – e)
(2 – c)
(3 – a)
(4 – b)
(5 – d)

Answers:
(1 – d)
(2 – c)
(3 – e)
(4 – b)
(5 – a)

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
What provides information regarding the population of our country?
Answer:
The Census of India.

Question 2.
When was the first Census held in India?
Answer:
1872

Question 3.
When was the first complete census taken?
Answer:
1881

Question 4.
After how many years Census is held in India?
Answer:
Census is held regularly after every tenth year.

Question 5.
Which is the most comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic data in India?
Answer:
Indian Census

Question 6.
What is the population of India according to 2001 and 2011 Census?
Answer:
India’s population size as on March 2001 stood at 1,028 million and in 2011 is 1,210 million.

Question 7.
Which is the most populous state of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 8.
Which is the least populated state of India?
Answer:
Sikkim

Question 9.
Which is the least populated region of India?
Answer;
Lakshadweep

Question 10.
Name the five most populated states in India.
Answer:

1. Uttar Pradesh,
2. Maharashtra,
3. Bihar,
4. West Bengal and
5. Andhra Pradesh.

Question 11.
Define population density.
Answer
It is calculated as the number of persons per unit area.

Question 12.
Which is the least densely populated state of India?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh with 17 persons per sq.km.

Question 13.
Name the three main processes of change of population.
Answer:
Birth rates, death rates and migration.

Question 14.
Which two countries have a higher average population density than India?
Answer:
Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 15.
What are various types of migration?
Answer:
Internal migration and International migration.

Question 16.
Define age structure.
Answer:
It refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country.

Question 17.
Define sex ratio.
Answer:
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the popultion.

Question 18.
Is sex ratio balanced in India?
Answer:
No

Question 19.
Which regions of India has the highest and lowest sex ratio as per Census 2011?
Answer:
Kerala has a sex ratio of 1084 females per 1000 males, Delhi has only 866 females per 1000 males.

Question 20.
Who is a literate?
Answer:
A person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

V. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
National Highways and State Highways.
Answer:

Question 2.
Exports and Imports.
Answer:

Question 3.
Village Roads and District Roads.
Answer:

Question 4.
Bilateral Trade and Multilateral Trade
Answer:

Question 5.
Birth Rate and Death Rate
Answer:

Question 6.
Favourable balance of trade and Unfavaourable balance of Trade
Answer:

VI. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is the position of Indian population in the World?
Answer:

1. India is the second most populous country in the world.
2. It is the home of 17.5% of world’s population.
3. One out of every six persons in the w orld is from India.
4. Our population is almost equal to the combined population of USA, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 2.
How is the population of India grouped?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories.

1. Children (below 15 years): They are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care.
2. Working Age (15-59 years): They are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise the working population.
3. Aged (above 59 years): They can be economically productive though they may have retired.

Question 3.
What does the term “population change” refer to?
Answer:
The term “population change” refers to an increase or decrease of population of an area from one period to another period.

Question 4.
Name the three major superhighway project.
Answer:

1. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways: It links Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai and Delhi by six lane Super Highways.
2. North – South Corridor: Linking Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu).
3. East-West Corridor: Linking Silcher (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat). The major objective of these Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of India.

Question 5.
Name the three major means of transport in the world?
Answer:
The three major means of transport in the world are:

1. Land transport: Roadways, Railways and pipelines.
2. Waterways: Inland waterways and ocean routes
3. Air transport: Domestic airways and International airways.

Question 6.
What is trade? What are the types of ti;ade?
Answer:

1. Trade is an act or process of buying, selling or exchanging goods and services.
2. Types of trades are
   • Internal trade
   • International trade.

Question 7.
Write about the merits of air transport.
Answer:
Airways are the quickest, costliest most modem and comfortable means of transport.

1. Facilitates connectivity on a regional, national and international scale.
2. Made accessibility by connecting difficult terrains like high mountains and deserts.
3. It carries passengers, freight and mail.
4. Air transport plays a key role in times of emergency, during the time of natural and man made calamities like floods, epidemics and wars.

Question 8.
What are the merits of pipeline transport?
Answer:

1. It can be laid through difficult terrain as well as under water.
2. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent cost for maintenance and operation is low.
3. It ensures steady supply and minimizes transhipment losses and delays.
4. Pipeline operation involves very low consumption of energy.

Question 9.
What are the different kinds of mail services introduced by Department of posts?
Answer:

1. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and airlifted between ‘ stations both land and air.
2. The second class mail includes-book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals, carried by surface mail covering land and water transport.
3. Recently six mail channels have been introduced to facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities. They are Rajdhani channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk mail Channel

Question 10.
Explain MRTS (Metro Rail System).
Answer:

1. The Mass Rapid Transit System is an elevated line of the suburban railways in Chennai.
2. This Railway is administrated by the state owned Southern Railway.
3. This railway line currently runs from Chennai beach to Velachery covering 17 stations for a distance of 25 km.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Foreign Exchange?
Answer:
Foreign Exchange is the mechanism or process by which payments between any two places operating under different national currency systems are effected without passing of actual money or gold etc.

Question 12.
What are the four ship building yards in India?
Answer:

1. Hindustan Shipyard at Vishakhapatnam.
2. Garden reach workshop at Kolkata.
3. Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai.
4. Kochin Ship Yard and Kochi.

Question 13.
Define the term Dependency Ratio.
Answer:
The ratio between the economically active and economically inactive of population is termed as Dependency Ratio.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Define population. Why there is a need to study population?
Answer:

1. The total number of people residing in a country at a specified period of time is called “population” of that country. The study of population is known as Demography.
2. The human population has many components but the most fundamental are its numbers, composition, distribution and density. The study on these aspects also would reveal the work force of the country.
3. Population census of India provides the detailed information about the demography of India.

Question 2.
Name the major National Waterways of our country.
Answer:

1. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km). National Waterways No. 1
2. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km) – National Waterways No.2
3. The West Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapuram – Komman – Udyogmandal and Champakkara Canals – 205 km) – National Waterways No.3
4. Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry Stretch of canals (1078 km) – National Waterways No.4 (v) Specified stretches of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canal (588 km) – National Waterways No.5.

There are some other inland waterways on which substantial transportation taken place. These are Mandavi, Zuari and cumberjua, Sundarbans, Barak, backwaters of Kerala and tidal stretches of some other rivers.

Question 3.
Explain about the population composition.
Answer:
Population composition refers to characteristics such as age, sex, marital status, caste, language, education, occupation etc.

The study of composition of population helps us to understand the Social, economic and demographic structure of population.

Age Composition: Population of a county is generally grouped into three broad categories.

1. Children less than 15 years of age (29.5%)
2. The people above 60years (8%)
3. These two categories falls under dependent population (37,5%)
4. Independent population 16 – 59 years (62.5%)

It shows that our country has enormous man power i.e., working force.

Sex Ratio: Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 male population.

This is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given rime.

According to 2011 census the sex ratio of the country is 940 females per 1000 males.

Literacy Rate: It is an important indicator of quality of people.

The people who are able to read and write are known as literates. The percentage of literate people to the total population is termed as literacy rate.

As per 2011 India’s literacy rate is 74.04%.

Occupational Structure: The economically active part of a country’s population are termed as workers.

They are placed under three categories as main workers, marginal workers and non workers.

Main workers are those who worked for the major part of the preceding year at least 6 months or 183 days.

Who worked less than six months are marginal.

People who have not worked at all comes under non workers.

In India as per 2011 census 75.23% are main workers and 24.77% of the people belong to marginal workers.

Question 4.
What are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Answer:
The development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement to their destination. Transport plays an important role in the economy. Because of transport raw materials reach to the factory or industry, and finally finished products reach to the consumer. It has helped in both production and distribution of goods. Hence, all efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development.

India is well – linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet etc., have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has also enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life. Hence, it is right to say that means of transportation and communication are the lifelines of a nation and its economy.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 5 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.8

10th Maths Exercise 2.8 Question 1.
Find the sum of first n terms of the G.P.
(i) 5, -3, \(\frac { 9 }{ 5 } \), – \(\frac { 27 }{ 25 } \), ……….
(ii) 256, 64, 16, ……..
Solution:
(i) 5, -3, \(\frac { 9 }{ 5 } \), \(\frac { -27 }{ 25 } \), ………

(ii) 256, 64, 16,…….
a = 256

Ex 2.8 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the sum of first six terms of the G.P. 5, 15, 45, …
Solution:
G.P.= 5, 15, 45, 15

Exercise 2.8 Class 10 Maths Solution Question 3.
Find the first term of the GP. whose common ratio 5 and whose sum to first 6 terms is 46872.
Solution:
Common ratio, r = 5
S₆ = 46872

10th Maths Exercise 2.8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Find the sum to infinity of (i) 9 + 3 + 1 + ….
(ii) 21 + 14 + \(\frac { 28 }{ 3 } \) + ….
Solution:
(i) 9 + 3 + 1 + ….

(ii) 21 + 14 + \(\frac { 28 }{ 3 } \) + ….

Exercise 2.8 Class 10 Maths Question 5.
If the first term of an infinite G.P. is 8 and its sum to infinity is \(\frac { 32 }{ 3 } \) then find the common ratio.
Solution:
a = 8

2.8 Maths Class 10 Question 6.
Find the sum to n terms of the series
(i) 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 +…. to n terms
(ii) 3 + 33 + 333 + …. to n terms
Solution:
(i) 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + … to n terms
= 4 (0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111 + … to n terms)
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 } \) (0.9 + 0.99 + 0.999 + … to n terms)
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 } \) (1 -0.1) + (1 – 0.01) +(1 – 0.001) + … n terms)

(ii) 3 + 33 + 333 + … to n terms.
= 3 (1 + 11 + 111 + …….. to n terms)
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 } \) (9 + 99 + 999 +… to n terms)
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) = [(10 – 1) + (100 – 1) + (1000 – 1) + … to n terms]
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) [(10 + 100 + 1000 + .. ) + (-1)n]

2.8 Exercise Class 10 Question 7.
Find the sum of the Geometric series
3 + 6 + 12 + …… + 1536.
Solution:
3 + 6 + 12 + …… + 1536
Here a = 3

Ex 2.8 Class 10 Question 8.
Kumar writes a letter to four of his friends. He asks each one of them to copy the letter and mail to four different persons with the instruction that they continue the process similarly. Assuming that the process is unaltered and it costs ₹2 to mail one letter, find the amount spent on postage when 8th set of letters is mailed.

Solution:
Kumar (1) 2 × 4
Cost of posting 1^st set of Letters.
Cost of posting 2^nd set of letters

Amount spent
[a + ar + ar² +… ar^n-1]
= 4 [2 + 2 × 4 + 2 × 42 ÷ + 2 × 4⁷]
= 4 [S_n] Here n = 8, r = 4
It is a G.P

∴ Cost of postage after posting 8th set of letters
= 4 × 43690 = ₹ 174760

Class 10 Maths Exercise 2.8 Solutions Question 9.
Find the rational form of the number 0.\(\overline{123}\)
Solution:
Let x = 0.123123123 ………. ⇒ x = 0.\(\overline{123}\) …..(1)
Multiplying 1000 on both rides
1000 x = 123.123123… ⇒ 1000x = 123.\(\overline{123}\) …..(2)
(2) – (1) = 1000x – x 123.\(\overline{123}\) – 0.\(\overline{123}\).
⇒ 999 x = 123
⇒ x = \(\frac { 123 }{ 999 } \)
⇒ x = \(\frac { 41 }{ 333 } \) Rational number

Exercise 2.8 Class 10 Question 10.
If Sn = (x + y)+(x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + …n terms then prove that (x – y)

Solution:
Sn = (x + y) + (x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + …n terms
⇒ x. S_n = (x + y)x + (x² + xy + y²)x + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) x + ….
⇒ x. S_n = x² +xy + x³ + x²y + y²x + x⁴ + x³y
+ x² y² + y³ x +…… ….(1)
Multiplying ‘y’ on both sides,
= y.S_n = (x + y)y + (x² + xy + y²) y+
(x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) y + ….
= y.S_n = xy + y² + x²y + xy² + y³ + x³y
+ x³y + x²y² + xy³ + y⁴ + ……….
(1) – (2) ⇒

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Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy

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India’s Foreign Policy Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Indian Foreign Policy Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Which Minister plays a vital role in molding the foreign policy of our country?
(a) Defense Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) External Affairs Minister
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(c) External Affairs Minister

Indian Foreign Policy 10th Standard Notes Question 2.
The Panchseel treaty has been signed between:
(a) India and Nepal
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and China
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Answer:
(c) India and China

10th Social Indian Foreign Policy Notes Question 3.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Foreign Policy Of India 10th Notes Question 4.
Apartheid is:
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Indian Foreign Policy Notes 10th Class Question 5.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related to …………..
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence

Indian Foreign Policy Class 10 Notes Question 6.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Indian Foreign Policy Class 10 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 7.
Which of the following country is not the founder member of NAM?
(a) Yugoslavia
(b) Indonesia
(c) Egypt
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(d) Pakistan

Indian Foreign Policy 10th Notes Question 8.
Find the odd one:
(a) Social welfare
(b) Health care
(c) Diplomacy
(d) Domestic affairs
Answer:
(c) Diplomacy

Question 9.
Non-Alliance means ………..
(a) being neutral
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently
(c) demilitarisation
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) freedom to decide on issues independently

Question 10.
Non – military issues are:
(a) Energy security
(b) Water security
(c) Pandemics
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(d) All the above.

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. India conducted its first nuclear test at …………
2. At present our foreign policy acts as a means to generate ……….. for domestic growth and development.
3. ……….. is the instrument for implementing foreign policy of a state.
4. …………. was India’s policy in the face of the bipolar order of the cold war.
5. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice …………..
Answers:
1. Pokhran
2. inward investment, business and technology
3. Diplomacy
4. Non-Alignment
5. disarmament

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below.
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) i, iii, iv, ii
(b) i, ii, iii, iv
(c) i, ii, iv, iii
(d) i, iii, ii, iv
Answer:
(c) i, ii, iv, iii

Question 2.
Which of the following is not about NAM?
(i) The term Non-Alignment was coined by V. Krishna Menon
(ii) It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by joining any military alliance
(iii) At present it has 120 member countries
(iv) It has transformed to an economical movement
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iv) only
Answer:
(c) (ii) only

Question 3.
Write true or false against each of the statement.
(a) During Cold War India tried to form a third bloc of nations in the international affairs.
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs is responsible for the conduct of the country’s foreign relations.
(c) The nuclear test at Pokhran was done under Subterranean Nuclear Explosions Project.
Answer:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) True

Question 4.
Assertion (A): India aligned with Soviet Union by the Indo-Soviet treaty on 1971.
Reason (B): This began with a disastrous Indo-China war of 1962.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is Wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A

Question 5.
Assertion (A): India has formal diplomatic relations with most of the nations.
Reason (R): India is the World’s second-most populous country.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A

Question 6.
Avoidance of military blocs was a necessity for India after political freedom. Because India had to redeemed from
(a) acute poverty
(b) illiteracy
(c) chaotic socio-economic conditions
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

IV. Match the following.

1.	Indian Ocean island	(a)	1955
2.	Landbridge to ASEAN	(b)	1954
3.	Panchsheel	(c)	Maldives
4.	Afro Asian Conference	(d)	Foreign Policy
5.	World Peace	(e)	Myanmar

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is foreign policy?
Answer:
Foreign policy can be defined as a country’s policy that is conceived, designed and formulated to safeguard and promote her national interests in her external affairs in the conduct of relationships with other countries, both bilaterally and multilaterally.

Question 2.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:
Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes. The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are
• No first use
• Credible minimum deterrence
It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would never use against any non-nuclear state.

Question 3.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

1. The most idealistic phase of India’s foreign policy under the guidance of India’s first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development.
3. So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America U.S.A (or) Union Soviet Socialist Republic (U.S.S.R).

Question 4.
Differentiate: Domestic policy and Foreign policy
Answer:

Domestic Policy	Foreign Policy
Domestic policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.	Foreign policy is the nation’s plan for dealing with other nations.
It includes laws focusing on domestic affairs, social welfare, health care, education, civil rights, economic issues and social issues.	Trade, diplomacy, sanctions, defence, intelligence and global environments are the types of foreign policy.

Question 5.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Mutual non – aggression
2. Mutual non – interference
3. Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
4. Peaceful co-existence

Question 6.
What was the reason for India to choose the path of Non-Alignment?
Answer:
The new nations that got independence after the long period of colonial struggle found themselves in a very difficult situation with respect to economic development. So it was necessary to align with either of the blocs – United States of America (USA) or United Soviet Socialist Republic (USSR). Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). So he chose the path of Non-Alignment.

Question 7.
In what ways are India’s global security concerns reflected?
Answer:
India’s global security concerns are reflected in its military modernisation, maritime security and nuclear policies.

Question 8.
List out the member countries of SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.

Question 9.
Name the architects of the Non-Aligned movement.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and KwameNkumarah of Ghana were the architects of Non Aligned Movement.

Question 10.
Mention the main tools of foreign policy.
Answer:
The main tools of foreign policy are treaties and executive agreements, appointing ambassadors, foreign aid, international trade and armed forces.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write a detailed note on Non-alignment.
Answer:

• The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was coined by V. Krishna Menon.
• Non-alignment has been regarded as the most important feature of India’s foreign policy.
• It aimed to maintain national independence in foreign affairs by not joining any military alliance.
• The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was formed with a membership of 120 countries and 17 states as observers and 10 international organisations.

The founding fathers of Non-Aligned Movement:
Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana were the founding fathers of NAM.

• • Non-aligned countries have been successful in establishing a foundation of economic co-operation among underdeveloped countries.

Question 2.
Discuss the core determinants of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:

1. Geographical position and size of territory.
2. Nation’s history, traditions and philosophical basis.
3. Natural resources.
4. The compulsion of economic development.
5. Political stability and structure of Government.
6. The necessity of peace, disarmament and non – proliferation of nuclear weapons.
7. Military strength
8. International milieu.

Question 3.
Make a list on basic concepts followed by India to maintain friendly relations with its neighbours.
Answer:
(i) Indian foreign policy has always regarded the concept of neighbourhood as one of widening concentric circles, around the central axis of historical and cultural commonalties.

(ii) India gives political and diplomatic priority to her immediate neighbours and the Indian Ocean Island states such as Maldives.

(iii) India provides neighbours with support as needed in this form of resources equipment and training.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Identify any two aspects of India’s foreign policy that you would like to retain and two that you would like to change if you were the decision maker.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

India’s Foreign Policy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India is a country with an unbounded faith in …………
(a) War
(b) Peace
(c) Love
Answer:
(b) Peace

Question 2.
Find out the main tools of the foreign policy of the following.
(a) Treaties
(b) International trade
(c) Foreign Aid
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
Apartheid was abolished on …………
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1890
Answer:
(a) 1990

Question 4.
In which place the Foreign Service Training Institute was established?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Calcutta
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) New Delhi

Question 5.
Apartheid was abolished by …………..
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Nelson Mandela

Question 6.
In which year Panchsheel was signed?
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 1954
(d) 1956
Answer:
(c) 1954

Question 7.
SAARC’s first meeting was held at ………….
(a) Colombo
(b) Cairo
(c) Dacca
Answer:
(c) Dacca

Question 8.
Who was opposed to the rivalry of the two super powers? (America and Russia)
(a) V. Krishna Menon
(b) Nasser
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 9.
The first SAARC’s meeting was held at Dacca in the year …………..
(a) 1985
(b) 1965
(c) 1995
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 10.
Which year did India conduct its first nuclear test at Pokhran?
(a) 1971
(b) 1972
(c) 1974
(d) 1976
Answer:
(c) 1974

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. India followed the policy of …………..
2. India has rendered whole-hearted support to the ………….. to bring World Peace.
3. ………….. is an economic and geopolitical organization of eight countries are particularly located in South Asia.
4. SAARC Disaster Management Centre was set up at ………….
5. …………policy is the nation’s plan for dealing issues within its own nation.
Answers:
1. Non-alignment
2. UNO
3. SAARC
4. New Delhi
5. Domestic

III. Match the following.

1.	Jawaharlal Nehru	(a)	Indonesia
2.	Chou-En-Lai	(b)	Egypt          .
3.	Nelson Mandela	(c)	India
4.	Nasser	(d)	China
5.	Sukarno	(e)	South Africa

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Mention any three objectives of our Foreign Policy.
Answer:

1. National security
2. National prosperity
3. Achieving world peace and enable every nation to peacefully co-exist.

Question 2.
Why is world peace an essential one?
Answer:
The economic development of the nations can be achieved only through world peace. So world peace is very essential not only for the economic development of India but also for all the developing countries of the world.

Question 3.
Explain the foreign policy stance of India?
Answer:
The foreign policy stance of India was:

1. Supporting the cause of decolonisation.
2. Staunch opponent of the apartheid regime in South Africa.
3. Accepted the importance of defence preparedness.

Question 4.
Name the areas identified by the SAARC countries for mutual co-operations.
Answer:
The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas. They are transportation, postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture, rural construction and telecommunications.

Question 5.
What are the two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine?
Answer:
The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are:

1. No first use
2. Credible minimum deterrence.

V. Detail.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about Panchsheel and the policy of Non-alignment.
Answer:
Panchsheel:
India is called by the name of “A Great Peace Maker”. It followed five principles which are popularly known as ‘Panchsheel’. Jawaharlal Nehru said, stress on these five principles. They are:

1. Each country should respect the territorial integrity and sovereignty of others.
2. No country should attack any other country.
3. No one should try to interference in the internal affairs of others.
4. All countries shall strive for equality and mutual benefit.
5. Every country should try to follow the policy of peaceful co-existence.

These Panchsheel greatly added to the international status of India.
Policy of Non-allignments:

1. After the Second World War the world was divided into two hostile blocs. The
   American Bloc and The Russian Bloc.
2. Both of them are trying to increase their influence at the cost of the other.
3. But India has not joined either of these two blocs.
4. Whenever any difference arises between there blocs, India tries to remove that difference. Thus India has contributed substantially towards world peace.

Question 2.
Write about policy of Disarmament.
Answer:

1. Our tradition and national ethos is to practice disarmament.
2. Since Independence, global non-proliferation has been a dominant theme of India’s nuclear policy.
3. So India supported UN disarmament progrmme.
4. Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes.

Question 3.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy:
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 4 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 4 India’s Foreign Policy Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.11

10th Maths Exercise 3.11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Solve the following quadratic equations by completing the square method
(i) 9x² – 12x + 4 = 0
(ii) \(\frac{5 x+7}{x-1}\) = 3x + 2
Solution:

Ex 3.11 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Solve the following quadratic equations by formula method
(i) 2x² – 5x + 2 = 0
(ii) \(\sqrt{2} f^{2}\) – 6f + \(3 \sqrt{2}\)
(iii) 3y² – 20y – 3 = 0
(iv) 36y² – 12 ay + (a² – b²) = 0
Solution:
(i) 2x² – 5x + 2 = 0
The formula for finding roots of a quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0 is

Exercise 3.11 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
A ball rolls down a slope and travels a distance d = t² – 0.75t feet in t seconds. Find the time when the distance travelled by the ball is 11.25 feet.
Solution:
Distance d = t² – 0.75 t,
Given that d = 11.25 = t² – 0.75 t.
t² – 0.75t – 11.25 = 0