Category: Class 10

Students who are preparing for the Science exam can download this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 21 from here for free of cost. These Tamilnadu State Board Textbook Solutions PDF cover all 10th Science Health and Diseases Book Back Questions and Answers.

All these concepts of Chapter 21 Health and Diseases are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 21 Health and Diseases State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 21 Health and Diseases.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 21 Health and Diseases

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 21th Science Chapter 21 Health and Diseases Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 21 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 21th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 21 Health and Diseases solutions of Class 21th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Science Question 1.
Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate the secretion of adrenaline. The component causing this could be _______.
(a) Nicotine
(b) Tannic acid
(c) Curcumin
(d) Leptin.
Answer:
(a) Nicotine

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on:
(a) May 31
(b) June 6
(c) April 22
(d) October 2
Answer:
(a) May 31

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Pdf Download Question 3.
Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiations than normal cells because they are _______.
(a) Different in structure
(b) Non-dividing
(c) Mutated Cells
(d) Undergoing rapid division.
Answer:
(d) Undergoing rapid division.

10th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Which type of cancer affects lymph nodes and spleen?
(a) Carcinoma
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Leukemia
(d) Lymphoma
Answer:
(c) Leukemia

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 5.
Excessive consumption of alcohol leads to _______.
(a) Loss of memory
(b) Cirrhosis of liver
(c) State of hallucination
(d) Suppression of brain function.
Answer:
(b) Cirrhosis of liver

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 6.
Coronary heart disease is due to:
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) Weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science Question 7.
Cancer of the epithelial cells is called _______.
(a) Leukaemia
(b) Sarcoma
(c) Carcinoma
(d) Lipoma.
Answer:
(c) Carcinoma

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Question 8.
Metastasis is associated with:
(a) Malignant tumour
(b) Benign tumour
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Crown gall tumour
Answer:
(a) Malignant tumour

Health And Disease Class 10 In Tamil Question 9.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in _______.
(a) Obesity
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Diabetes insipidus
(d) AIDS.
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 10.
Where does alcohol effect immediately after drinking?
(a) Eyes
(b) Auditory region
(c) Liver
(d) Central Nervous System
Answer:
(d) Central Nervous System

II. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement:

Question 1.
AIDS is an epidemic disease.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: AIDS is a viral disease.

Question 2.
Cancer-causing genes are called Oncogenes.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Obesity is characterized by tumour formation.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Obesity is characterized by an accumulation of excess body fat with an abnormal increase in body weight.

Question 4.
In leukaemia, both WBCs and RBCs increase in number.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Leukemia is characterized by an increase in the formation of white blood cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes.

Question 5.
Study of the cause of the disease is called aetiology.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Study of a cause of the disease is called Pathology.

Question 6.
AIDS is not transmitted by contact with a patient’s clothes.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus results due to insulin deficiency.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In type 2 diabetes mellitus, Insulin production by the Pancreas is normal, but the target cells do not respond to insulin.

Question 8.
Carcinogens are cancer-causing agents.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Nicotine is a narcotic drug.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Nicotine is a stimulant, highly harmful and poisonous substance, in Tobacco.

Question 10.
Cirrhosis is associated with the brain disorder.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Liver damage resulting in Fatty liver which leads to Cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

Question 1.

1. IDDM
2. HIV
3. BMI
4. AIDS
5. CHD
6. NIDDM.

Answer:

1. Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus
2. Human Immunodeficiency Vims
3. Body Mass Index
4. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
5. Coronary Heart Disease
6. Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Sarcoma	(a) Stomach cancer
2. Carcinoma	(b) Excessive thirst
3. Polydipsia	(c) Excessive hunger
4. Polyphagia	(d) Lack of blood flow to the heart muscle
5. Myocardial Infarction	(e) Connective tissue cancer

Answer:

1. (e) Connective tissue cancer
2. (a) Stomach cancer
3. (b) Excessive thirst
4. (c) Excessive hunger
5. (d) Lack of blood flow to the heart muscle.

V. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Cirrhosis is caused in the liver due to excessive use of _______.
Answer:
Alcohol.

Question 2.
A highly poisonous chemical derived from tobacco is _______.
Answer:
Nicotine.

Question 3.
Blood cancer is called _______.
Answer:
Leukaemia.

Question 4.
Less response of a drug to a specific dose with repeated use is called _______.
Answer:
Tolerance.

Question 5.
Insulin resistance is a condition in _______ diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
Type – 2.

VI. Analogy Type Questions.

Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

Question 1.
Communicable : AIDS :: Non – communicable : _______.
Answer:
Obesity.

Question 2.
Chemotherapy : Chemicals :: Radiation therapy : _______.
Answer:
Radiation.

Question 3.
Hypertension : Hypercholesterolemia :: Glycosuria : _______.
Answer:
Polyphagia.

VII. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What are psychotropic drugs?
Answer:
The drugs which act on the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception, are called Psychotropic drags. They are also called Mood altering drugs.

Question 2.
Mention the diseases caused by tobacco smoke.
Answer:
Bronchitis, pulmonary tuberculosis, emphysema hypoxia, lung cancer, hypertension gastric and duodenal ulcer are diseases caused be tobacco smoke.

Question 3.
What are the contributing factors for obesity?
Answer:
Obesity is due to genetic factors, physical inactivity, overeating and endocrine factors.

Question 4.
What is adult onset diabetes?
Answer:
Type-2 Non Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM) is called as adult onset diabetes.

Question 5.
What is metastasis?
Answer:
The Cancerous cells migrate to distant parts of the body and affect new tissues and this process is called Metastasis.

Question 6.
How does insulin deficiency occur?
Answer:
Insulin deficiency occur due to the destruction of B – cells of the pancreas, characterized by abnormally elevated blood glucose level resulting from inadequate insulin secretion.

VIII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the various routes by which transmission of human immunodeficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
HIV is transmitted generally by:

1. Sexual contact with infected person
2. Use of contaminated needles or syringes especially in case of intravenous drag abusers
3. By transfusion of contaminated / infected blood or blood products (iv) From infected mother to her child through placenta.

Question 2.
How is a cancer cell different from a normal cell?
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy the surrounding tissue, forming a tumour or neoplasm. It is a heterogeneous group of cells, that do not respond to the normal cell division. The cancer cells move to distant parts of bodies such as lungs, bones, liver, skin and brain.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Type-1 and Type-2 diabetes mellitus.
Answer:

Type-1 Diabetes mellitus	Type-2 Diabetes mellitus
1. People with type – 1 diabetes do not produce insulin in the pancreas.	1. People with type – 2 diabetes do not respond to insulin.
2. the immune system destroys insulin – producing beta cells in the pancreas.	2. People with type – 2 diabetes are Insulin Resistant. The body produces insulin but unable to use effectively.
3. Cannot be controlled without taking insulin.	3. Possible to treat initially without medication or treating with tablets.

Question 4.
Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity has a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. To avoid the dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

Question 5.
What precautions can be taken for preventing heart diseases?
Answer:
Diet Management: Reduction in the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol – rich food, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the Dietary modifications. Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids is essential. Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins are needed.

• Physical activity: Regular exercise, walking and yoga are essential for bodyweight maintenance.
• Avoid Addictive substances: Alcohol consumption, Psychotropic drugs and smoking are to be avoided.

IX. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Suggest measures to overcome the problems of an alcoholic.
Answer:
Education and counselling: Education and proper counselling will help the alcoholics to overcome their problems and stress, to accept failures in their life.
Physical activity : Individuals undergoing rehabilitation should be channelized into healthy activities like reading, music, sports, yoga and meditation.

Seeking help from parents and peer groups : When a problematic situation occurs, the affected individuals should seek help and guidance from parents and peers. This would help them to share their feeling of anxiety, wrong dping and get rid of the habit.

Medical assistance : Individual should seek help from psychologists and psychiatrists to get relieved from this condition and to lead a relaxed and peaceful life.

Alcohol de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes are helpful to the individual so that they could get rid of the problem completely and can lead a normal and healthy life.

Question 2.
Changes in lifestyle is a risk factor for the occurrence of cardiovascular diseases. Can it be modified? If yes, suggest measures for prevention.
Answer:
The lifestyle can be modified to prevent cardiovascular diseases. These are the measures for prevention:

• Do not smoke or use Tobacco.
• Do Exercise for about 30 minutes.
• Eat a heart-healthy diet.
• Reduce the intake of calories, low saturated fat and cholesterol, low carbohydrates and common salt are some of the dietary modifications.
• Diet rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is essential.
• Increase in the intake of fibre diet, fruits and vegetables, protein, minerals and vitamins are essential.
• Maintain a healthy weight.
• Get enough quality sleep.
• Manage stress.
• Get regular health screens.
• Control Blood pressure.
• Keep the cholesterol and triglyceride levels under control.

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What is the role of fat in the cause of atherosclerosis?
Answer:
The deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessels gradually develops from which form a fatty streak called plaque. This blocks the pathway of blood flow by narrowing the blood vessels leading to atherosclerosis.

Question 2.
Eating junk food and consuming soft drinks results in health problems like obesity, still, children prefer. What are the suggestions you would give to avoid children eating junk food / consumption of soft drinks?
Answer:
Suggestions, to avoid children, eating Junk food / consumption of soft drinks.

• Carry a water bottle and drink water.
• Instead of soft drinks, drink fruit juices, sports drinks or energy drinks.
• Base meals around protein, legumes, chickpeas, kidney beans and nuts, etc.
• Avoid getting extremely hungry.
• Fight stress.
• Practice mindful eating.
• Have a piece of fruit, yoghurt, or some crackers.

Question 3.
Regular physical exercise is advisable for normal functioning of the human body. What are the advantages of practising exercise in daily life?
Answer:

1. Physical exercises help us to live longer and prevent many chronic diseases.
2. It improves cardiorespiratory and muscular fitness.
3. It reduces stress, anxiety and depression and improves our mood.
4. Improves sleep quality and overall quality of life.

Question 4.
A leading weekly magazine has recently published a survey analysis which says that a number of AIDS patient in the country is increasing day by day. The report says that the awareness among the people about AIDS is still very poor. You are discussing the magazine report in your class and a team of your class decides to help people to fight against the dreadful disease.
(a) What problem do you face when trying to educate the people in your village near your school?
(b) How do you overcome the problem?
Answer:
(a) The main problem, we face, is as follows:

• AIDS patients find it difficult to accept the news.
• Many people are afraid of telling others because they feel ashamed or they are worried about being rejected.
• AIDS patients are really discouraged with anxiety about their future.

(b)

• Confirm the disease by Western Blot Analysis or ELISA.
• Antiretroviral drugs and immunostimulating therapy can prolong the life of the infected person.
• Do not tell anyone about our friend’s HIV.
• Be there to talk to them.
• Do things together that can reduce stress. Go for a walk. Do something that we enjoy with our AIDS patient friend.
• Advice the patient friend to avoid activities that have bad health effects like smoking.
• Patients with HIV / AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

XI. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Once a person starts taking drugs or alcohol it is difficult to get rid of the habit. Why?
Answer:
The addictive potential of the drugs pulls the individual into a viscous cycle leading to regular abuse and depending. Moreover, some drugs act in the brain and alter the behaviour, consciousness, power of thinking and perception.

Question 2.
Men addicted to tobacco lead to oxygen deficiency in their body. What could be the possible reason?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide of tobacco smoke binds to the haemoglobin of RBC and decreases its oxygen-carrying capacity causing hypoxia in body tissues.

Question 3.
Name any three foods that are to be avoided and included in the diet of a diabetic patient. Why should it be followed?
Answer:
Refined sugar, carbohydrates rich food and high fat content rich foods should be avoided.
Low carbohydrate and fibre rich diet. Diet comprising whole grains, millet, green leafy vegetables should be included in the diet.

Question 4.
How can informational efforts change people’s HIV knowledge and behaviour?
Answer:

• Find the latest information about viral suppression and Viral Load Monitoring.
• Find the latest prevention and how to talk with patients with HIV about, what it means for them.
• Learn how HIV care providers, can identify and address mental health and substance use disorders to help patients, adhere to HIV treatment and remain in care.

XII. Assertion and Reasoning Questions

In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of statements given below mark the correct answer as
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion Mid Reason is true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) The assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion: All drugs act on the brain.
Reason: Drugs disturb the functioning of the body and mind.
Answer:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Excretion of excess glucose in the urine is observed in a person with diabetes mellitus.
Reason: Pancreas is unable to produce sufficient quantity of insulin.
Answer:
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true that Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.

Textbook Activities Solved

Question 1.
Collect pictures of people affected by tobacco chewing and tobacco smoking. Identify which part of the body is affected and the health hazards it can lead to?
Answer:
The students should collect pictures of people affected by Tobacco Chewing and Tobacco smoking.
Health Hazards: Affected part is mouth on Tobacco Chewing. Chewing Tobacco causes mouth cancer, throat cancer, soreness, gum diseases, tooth decay, tooth loss, possible links to other cancer and Cardiovascular diseases.

Tobacco smoking causes Lung diseases causing damaging alveoli, emphysema, chronic bronchitis, cough, cold, wheezing, asthma, pneumonia and lung cancer. It also affects the central nervous system, increases blood pressure and heartbeat. It also damages DNA.

Question 2.
Collect pictures of individuals with normal liver and alcoholic liver, compare and indicate the changes you find in them.
Answer:

• The students should collect pictures of normal liver and alcoholic liver.
• Normal liver: Under normal circumstances, the normal liver is smooth with no irregularities. The enzymes mostly reside within the cells of the liver.

Fatty liver disease occurs as a result of alcohol drinking, which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues, which replaces the normal liver tissue.

Question 3.
Prepare a chart showing the food items which are preferable and which should be avoided to prevent high blood pressure and heart disease. Apart from diet what are the other lifestyle modifications to be followed to manage this condition?
Answer:

1. Food items which are preferable: Whole grains, fruits and vegetables, low – fat dairy products, Green tea, Hibiscus tea, Pineapple juice and low carbohydrate food items.
2. Food items to be avoided: Salt, Meat, Pickles, Canned Soups, Tomato products, sugar, packaged foods, White bread and packaged snacks, etc.

Other Life Style Modification:

• Exercise for about 30 minutes.
• Eat a heart-healthy diet.
• Do not smoke or use tobacco.
• Get regular health screenings.
• Get enough quality sleep.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Health and Diseases Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Tobacco is obtained from the Tobacco plant _____ and ______.
Answer:
Nicotiana tobacco and Nicotiana rustica.

Question 2.
The increased urine output, leading to dehydration is termed as ______.
Answer:
Polyuria.

Question 3.
The inflammation of throat and bronchi due to smoke of Tobacco lead to the conditions of _____ and ______.
Answer:
Bronchitis and Pulmonary tuberculosis.

Question 4.
The study of cancer is called ______.
Answer:
Oncology.

Question 5.
The uncontrolled division of cells destroy the surrounding tissue forming a tumour or ______.
Answer:
Neoplasm.

Question 6.
_____ and ______ hydrocarbons present in tobacco smoke is carcinogenic causing Lung cancer.
Answer:
Benzopyrene and Polycyclic.

II. Write ‘True’ or ‘False’ for the following statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
The psychological dependent persons feel that drugs do not help them to reduce stress.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The psychological dependent persons feel that drugs help them to reduce stress.

Question 2.
Individuals should seek help from psychologists and psychiatrists to get relief from alcohol abuse.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Tobacco chewing does not cause oral cancer.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Tobacco chewing causes oral cancer.

Question 4.
In Type – 2 Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus, the target cells respond to insulin and allow the movement of glucose into cells.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In Type – 2 Non – Insulin Dependent Diabetes Mellitus, the target cells do not respond to insulin and does not allow the movement of glucose into cells.

Question 5.
Low Carbohydrate food in the form of starch, complex sugars, and fibre-rich diets are more appropriate for the Dietary management pf Diabetes.
Answer:
True.

III. Expand the following abbreviations:

Question 1.

1. CVD
2. HDL
3. PUFA
4. NACO
5. NGO
6. ELISA
7. WHO
8. NCPCR
9. CPCR
10. LOL
11. UV rays.

Answer:

1. Cardio-vascular Disease
2. High-Density Lipoprotein
3. Polyunsaturated Fatty Acids
4. National AIDS Control Organization
5. Non-Government Organization
6. Enzyme-Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay
7. World Health Organization
8. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights
9. Commission for Protection of Child Rights
10. Low-Density Lipoprotein
11. Ultra Violet rays.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Psychotropic drugs	(a) Nicotine
2. Chronic metabolic disorder	(b) Emphysema
3. Addiction to Tobacco	(c) Polyphagia
4. Excess hunger	(d) Polydipsia
5. Inflammation of lung alveoli	(e) Mood Altering drugs
6. Loss of water leads to thirst	(f) Diabetes Mellitus

Answer:

1. (e) Mood Altering drugs
2. (f) Diabetes Mellitus
3. (a) Nicotine
4. (c) Polyphagia
5. (b) Emphysema
6. (d) Polydipsia.

V. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
When powdered tobacco is taken through the nose, it is called ______.
(a) smoking
(b) stimulant
(c) snuffing
(d) addiction.
Answer:
(c) snuffing

Question 2.
Causative factor of cancer is called:
(a) Oncogenes
(b) Radiogenes
(c) Oestrogenes
(d) Carcinogens
Answer:
(d) Carcinogens

Question 3.
Insulin deficiency due to the destruction of β – cells occur in ______.
(a) IDDM
(b) BMI
(c) NIDDM
(d) CVD.
Answer:
(a) IDDM

Question 4.
Which is not cancer?
(a) Leukaemia
(b) Glaucoma
(c) Sarcoma
(d) Carcinogen
Answer:
(b) Glaucoma

Question 5.
The HIV Virus attack the body’s disease – fighting mechanism and the individual is prone to infectious diseases.
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Thrombocytes
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) platelets.
Answer:
(c) Lymphocytes

VI. Write the correct dates for the following:

Question 1.

1. December 1st
2. 4th February
3. 7th November
4. May 31st
5. June 26th.

Answer:

1. World AIDS Day
2. World Cancer day
3. National Cancer awareness day
4. No Tobacco Day or World Anti-Tobacco day
5. International day against Drug abuse and Illicit Trafficking.

VII. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
What are stimulants?
Answer:
Drugs that increase the activities of Central Nervous System.

Question 2.
What is abuse? What does it include?
Answer:
Abuse refers to cruel, violent, harmful or injurious treatment of another human being. It includes physical, emotional or psychological, verbal, child and sexual abuses.

Question 3.
List the instruction to be given to prevent child sexual abuse.
Answer:

1. Do not talk to any suspected person or strangers and to maintain a distance.
2. Not to be alone with unknown person.
3. To be careful while travelling alone in public or private transport:
4. Not to receive money, toys, gifts or chocolates from known or unknown person to them without the knowledge of their parents.
5. Not to allow known or unknown person to touch them.

Question 4.
What is an addiction? What is the effect of addiction on individuals?
Answer:
The physical and mental dependency on – alcohol, smoking and drugs are called addiction. The addictive potential of these substances pulls an individual into a vicious cycle leading to regular abuse and dependency.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms of diabetes?
Answer:
Diabetes mellitus is associated with several metabolic alterations. The most important symptoms are

1. Increased blood glucose level (Hyperglycemia).
2. Increased urine output (Polyuria) leading to dehydration.
3. Loss of water leads to thirst (Polydipsia) resulting in increased fluid intake.
4. Excessive glucose excreted in urine (Glycosuria).
5. Excess hunger (Polyphagia) due to loss of glucose in urine.
6. Fatigue and loss of weight.

Question 6.
Explain the types of cancers on the basis of the tissues from which they are formed?
Answer:
Cancers are classified on the basis of the tissues, from which they are formed:

• Carcinomas arise from epithelial and glandular tissues.
• Sarcomas occur in connective and muscular tissue. They include the cancer of bones, cartilage, tendons, adipose tissue and muscles.
• Leukaemia is characterised by an increase in the formation of white blood cells in the bone marrow and lymph nodes Leukaemia is called blood cancers.

Question 7.
Name the test done to diagnosis Aids.
Answer:
The presence of HIV virus can be confirmed by western Blot analysis or Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)

Question 8.
What is the treatment of cancer and the preventive measures for cancer?
Answer:
The treatment of cancer involves the following methods:

• Surgery: Tumours are removed by surgery to prevent further spread of cancer cells.
• Radiation therapy: Tumour cells are irradiated by lethal doses of radiation while protecting the surrounding normal cells.
• Chemotherapy: It involves the administration of anticancerous drugs, which prevent cell division and are used to kill cancer cells.
• Immunotherapy: Biological response modifiers like interferons are used to activate the immune system and help in destroying the tumours.

Preventive measures for cancer:

• Cancer control programmes should focus on primary prevention and early detection.
• To prevent lung cancer, tobacco smoking is to be avoided.
• Protective measures to be taken against exposure to toxic pollutants of industries.
• Excessive exposure to radiation is to be avoided to prevent skin cancer.

Question 9.
Explain the symptoms and treatment of AIDS.
Answer:

• Infected individuals become immunodeficient.
• The person becomes more susceptible to viral, bacterial, protozoan and fungal diseases.
• Swelling of lymph nodes, damage to the brain, loss of memory, lack of appetite and weight loss, fever, chronic diarrhoea, cough, lethargy, pharyngitis, nausea and headache.

1. Diagnosis: The presence of the HIV virus can be detected by Western Blot Analysis or Enzyme – Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay (ELISA).
2. Treatment: Anti – retroviral drugs and immunostimulating therapy can prolong the life of the infected person.

Question 10.
Briefly note down the prevention and control of AIDS.
Answer:
The following steps help in controlling and preventing the spreading of HIV:

• Screening of blood from blood banks for HIV, before transfusion.
• Ensuring the use of disposable needles and syringes in hospitals and clinics.
• Advocating safe sex and the advantages of using condoms.
• Creating an awareness campaign and educating people on the consequences of AIDS.
• Persons with HIV / AIDS should not be isolated from the family and society.

Question 11.
What is obesity and body mass Index?
Answer:
Obesity is the state in which there is an accumulation of excess body fat with an abnormal increase in body weight.
Body Mass Index (BMI) is an estimate of body fat and health risk.
BMI = Weight (kg) / Height (m)²

Question 12.
What are the major causes and contributing factors for heart disease?
Answer:
Hypercholesterolemia (High blood cholesterol) and high blood pressure (Hypertension) are the major causes and contributing factors for heart disease.

1. Heredity (family history)
2. Diet rich in saturated fat and cholesterol
3. Obesity, increasing age
4. Cigarette smoking
5. Emotional stress
6. Sedentary lifestyle
7. Excessive alcohol consumption and
8. Physical inactivity are some of the causes.

VIII. Identify the first words and their relationship and suggest a suitable word for the fourth blank:

Question 1.
Drug abuse : addictive drug :: Tobacco chewing : ______.
Answer:
Oral cancer or mouth cancer.

Question 2.
Insulin : Diabetes :: Benzopyrene : ______.
Answer:
Lung cancer.

Question 3.
Disease of heart and blood vessels : Cardiovascular disease :: Deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessel : ______.
Answer:
Coronary Heart Disease (CHD).

Question 4.
Deficient blood supply to heart muscle : Ischemia :: Death of the heart muscle tissue : ______.
Answer:
Myocardial Infarction.

Question 5.
HIV Virus : ELISA :: Leukaemia : ______.
Answer:
Blood cancer.

X. Explain the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the approaches for protection of an abused child and the prevention of child sexual abuse.
Answer:

• Child helpline: The Child Helpline provides a social worker who can assist the child by providing food, shelter and protection.
• Counselling the child: Psychologists and social workers should provide guidance, counselling and continous support to a victim child.
• Family support: The victimized child should be supported by the family members. They should provide proper care and attention to child to overcome his/her sufferings.
• Medical care: A child victim of sexual offences should receive medical care and treatment from health care professionals to overcome mental stress and depression.
• Legal Counsel: The family or the guardian of the child victim shall be entitled to free assistance of a legal counsel for such offence.
• Rehabilitation: Enrolling in schools and resuming their education is an important step towards the rehabilitation of the child.
• Community – based efforts: Conducting awareness campaign on child abuse and its prevention.

Question 2.
List out the harmful effects of Alcohol to health.
Answer:
Prolonged use of alcohol depresses the nervous system, by acting as a sedative and analgesic substance. Some of the harmful effects are:

1. Nerve cell damage resulting in various mental and physical disturbances.
2. Lack of co-ordination of body organs.
3. Blurred or reduced vision, results in road accidents.
4. Dilation of blood vessels which may affect functioning of the heart.
5. Liver damage resulting in fatty liver which leads to cirrhosis and formation of fibrous tissues.
6. Body loses its control and consciousness eventually leading to health complications and ultimately to death.

Question 3.
Explain in detail the Smoking Hazards and effects of Tobacco. How can it be prevented?
Answer:
When smoke is inhaled, the chemicals get absorbed by the tissues and cause the following harmful effects:

• Benzopyrene and polycyclic hydrocarbons present in Tobacco smoke are carcinogenic causing lung cancer.
• Causes inflammation of throat and bronchi leading to conditions like bronchitis and pulmonary tuberculosis.
• Inflammation of lung alveoli, decrease surface area for gas exchange and cause emphysema.
• Carbon monoxide of Tobacco smoke binds to the haemoglobin of RBC and decreases its oxygen-carrying capacity causing hypoxia in body tissues.
• Increased blood pressure caused by smoking leads to increased risk of heart disease.
• Causes increased gastric secretion which leads to gastric and duodenal ulcers.
• Tobacco chewing causes oral cancer (mouth cancer).

Prevention: Adolescents and old people need to avoid these habits. Proper counselling and medical assistance can help an addict to give up the habit of smoking.

XI. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What do the following symbols represent?

Answer:
(a) 1. No Smoking
2. No Alcohol
3. No Psychotropic drugs
(b) 4. No – International Tobacco day
5. Inflammation of Lung Alveoli and decreased surface area.

Question 2.
Some human diseases are transmitted only through blood in one of such diseases, there is a progressive decrease in the number of lymphocytes of the patient.
(a) Name the disease and its causative agent.
(b) Write any two symptoms of it.
Answer:
(a) Name the disease is the AIDS caused by Human Immuno Deficiency Virus.
(b) Weight loss and lack of appetite are the symptoms of AIDS.

Question 3.
Which is the desirable blood cholesterol level for Indians?
Answer:
200 mg / dl.

Question 4.
Which cholesterol lowers the risk of heart disease and which cholesterol increases the risk of heart diseases?
Answer:

• HDL (High – Density Lipoprotein) or good cholesterol lowers the risk of heart disease.
• LDL (Low – Density Lipoprotein) or bad cholesterol increases the risk of heart diseases.

Question 5.
What are the two types of tumours?
Answer:

• Benign tumours or Non – malignant tumours: Remain confined in the organ affected and do not spread to other parts of the body.
• Malignant tumours: Mass of proliferating cells, which grow very rapidly invading and damaging the surrounding normal tissues.

Question 6.
Name some foods which help to reduce blood sugar levels.
Answer:
Flax seeds containing insoluble fibre, Guava, Tomatoes and spinach are the foods, which helps to reduce blood sugar levels.

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Breeding And Biotechnology Class 10 Question 1.
Which method of crop improvement can be practised by a farmer if he is inexperienced?
(a) clonal selection
(b) mass selection
(c) pure line selection
(d) hybridisation.
Answer:
(a) clonal selection

Breeding And Biotechnology In Tamil Question 2.
Pusa Komai is a disease resistant variety of:
(a) sugarcane
(b) rice
(c) cow pea
(d) maize
Answer:
(c) cow pea

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Science Question 3.
Himgiri developed by hybridisation and selection for disease resistance against rust pathogens is a variety of ______.
(a) chilli
(b) maize
(c) sugarcane
(d) wheat.
Answer:
(d) wheat.

Question 4.
The miracle rice which saved millions of lives and celebrated its 50th birthday is:
(a) IR 8
(b) IR 24
(c) Atomita 2
(d) Ponni
Answer:
(a) IR 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is used to produce products useful to humans by biotechnology techniques?
(a) enzyme from organism
(b) live organism
(c) vitamins
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b).

Question 6.
We can cut the DNA with the help of:
(a) scissors
(b) restriction endonucleases
(c) knife
(d) RNAase
Answer:
(b) restriction endonucleases

Question 7.
rDNA is a ______.
(a) vector DNA
(b) circular DNA
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA
(d) satellite DNA.
Answer:
(c) recombinant of vector DNA and desired DNA

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting is based on the principle of identifying sequences of DNA:
(a) single-stranded
(b) mutated
(c) polymorphic
(d) repetitive
Answer:
(d) repetitive

Question 9.
Organisms with a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as ______.
(a) transgenic organisms
(b) genetically modified
(c) mutated
(d) both (a) and (b).
Answer:
(a) transgenic organisms

Question 10.
In hexaploid wheat (2n = 6x = 42) the haploid (n) and the basic(x) number of chromosomes are:
(a) n = 7 and x = 21
(b) n = 21 and x = 21
(c) n = 1 and x = 1
(d) n = 21 and x = 7
Answer:
(d) n = 21 and x = 7

II Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Economically important crop plants with superior quality are raised by ______.
Answer:
Breeding.

Question 2.
A protein rich wheat variety is ______.
Answer:
Atlas 66.

Question 3.
_______ is the chemical used for doubling the chromosomes.
Answer:
Colchicine.

Question 4.
The scientific process which produces crop plants enriched with desirable nutrients is called ______.
Answer:
Biofortification.

Question 5.
Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but _____ is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
Answer:
Atomita – 2 rice

Question 6.
_____ technique made it possible to genetically engineer living organism.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA.

Question 7.
Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA molecule at specific positions known as ______.
Answer:
Molecular scissors.

Question 8.
Similar DNA fingerprinting is obtained for ______.
Answer:
Identical twins.

Question 9.
______ cells are undifferentiated mass of cells.
Answer:
Pleuripotent.

Question 10.
In gene cloning, the DNA of interest is integrated in a ______.
Answer:
Vector [plasmid].

III. State whether true or false. If false, write the correct statement.

Question 1.
Raphano brassica is a man – made tetraploid produced by colchicine treatment.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called mutation.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The process of producing an organism with more than two sets of chromosome is called polyploidy.

Question 3.
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called a pureline.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction are called clones.

Question 4.
Iron fortified rice variety determines the protein quality of the cultivated plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Iron fortified rice variety determines the iron quality of the cultivated plant.

Question 5.
Golden rice is a hybrid.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Golden rice is a genetically modified plant.

Question 6.
Bt gene from bacteria can kill insects.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done inside the body.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: In vitro fertilisation means the fertilisation done outside the body.

Question 8.
DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Molecular scissors refers to DNA ligases.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Molecular scissors refers to Restriction Enzymes.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Sonalika	(a) Phaseolus mungo
2. IR-8	(b) Sugarcane
3. Saccharum	(c) Semi-dwarf wheat
4. Mung No. 1	(d) Groundnut
5. TMV-2	(e) Semi-dwarf Rice
6. Insulin	(f) Bacillus thuringienesis
7. Bt toxin	(g) Beta carotene
8. Golden rice	(h) the first hormone produced using rDNA technique

Answer:

1. (c) Semi – dwarf wheat
2. (e) Semi – dwarf Rice
3. (b) Sugarcane
4. (a) Phaseolus mungo
5. (d) Groundnut
6. (h) the first hormone produced using rDNA technique
7. (f) Bacillus thuringienesis
8. (g) Beta carotene.

V. Understand the assertion statement, justify the reason given and choose the correct choice:

(a) The assertion is correct and the reason is wrong.
(b) Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong.
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

Question 1.
Assertion: Hybrid is superior to either of its parents.
Reason: Hybrid vigour is lost upon inbreeding.
Answer:
(a) The assertion is correct and the reason is wrong.

Question 2.
Assertion: Colchicine reduces the chromosome number.
Reason: It promotes the movement of sister chromatids to the opposite poles.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong.

Question 3.
Assertion: rDNA is superior over hybridisation techniques.
Reason: Desired genes are inserted without introducing the undesirable genes in target organisms.
Answer:
(c) Both assertion and reason are correct.

VI. Answer in a Sentence

Question 1.
Give the name of the wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Atlas 66, a protein-rich variety, having higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 2.
Semi-dwarf varieties were introduced in rice. This was made possible by the presence of dwarfing gene in rice. Name this dwarfing gene.
Answer:
Dee-geo-woo-gen a dwarf variety from China.

Question 3.
Define genetic engineering.
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organism to another organism to create a new DNA called recombinant DNA (rDNA). Genetic engineering is also called recombinant DNA technology.

Question 4.
Name the types of stem cells.
Answer:
Embryonic stem cells and somatic stem cells are the types of stem cells.

Question 5.
What are transgenic organisms?
Answer:
Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are called transgenic organisms.

Question 6.
State the importance of biofertiliser.
Answer:
Biofertilizer adds nutrients through the natural process of nitrogen fixation, stimulate the plant growth through the synthesis of growth-promoting substance.

VII. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the method of breeding for disease resistance.
Answer:
Plant diseases are caused by pathogens like viruses, bacteria and fungi. This affects crop yield. To develop disease-resistant varieties of crops, that would increase the yield and reduce the use of fungicides and bactericides are important. Some disease-resistant varieties are as follows:

Crop	Variety	Resistance to diseases
Wheat	Himgiri	Leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt
Cauliflower	Pusa Shubhra, Pusa Snowball K-1	Black rot
Cowpea	Pusa Komal	Bacterial blight

Question 2.
Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:
Sonalika, kalyan and sona are the three improved characteristic of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.

Question 3.
Name two maize hybrids rich in amino acid lysine.
Answer:
Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine – rich maize hybrids, which are developed in India.

Question 4.
Distinguish between
(a) Somatic gene therapy and germline gene therapy.
(b) Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.
Answer:
(a) Somatic gene therapy and germline gene therapy.

Somatic gene therapy	Germline gene therapy
Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in somatic cells.	Germline gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in the germ cell (egg and sperm).

(b) Undifferentiated cells and differentiated cells.

Undifferentiated cells	Differentiated cells
Our body is composed of over 200 specialised cell types, that can carry out specific functions, eg. Neurons or nerve cells that can transmit signals. Pancreatic cells to secrete insulin. These specialised cells are called as differentiated cells.	The cells which are variable potency, undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells are called stem cells. The stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells.

Question 5.
State the applications of DNA fingerprinting technique.
Answer:
Applications of DNA Fingerprinting:
(i) DNA fingerprinting technique is widely used in forensic applications like crime investigation such as identifying the culprit. It is also used for paternity testing in case of disputes.
(ii) It also helps in the study of genetic diversity of population, evolution and speciation.

Question 6.
How are stem cells useful in the regenerative process?
Answer:
Sometimes cells, tissues and organs in the body may be permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury. In such situations, stem cells are used for the treatment of diseases, which is called stem – cell therapy. In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.

Question 7.
Differentiate between outbreeding and inbreeding.
Answer:
Inbreeding:
When breeding or mating takes place between animals of the same breed, for about 4 – 6 generations, then it is called inbreeding. Superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs. It helps in the accumulation of superior genes and the elimination of undesirable genes. Inbreeding depression is the continued inbreeding, which reduces fertility and productivity. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.

Outbreeding:
The breeding of unrelated animals is outbreeding. The offsprings formed are called hybrids. The hybrids are stronger and vigorous than their parents. Cross between two different species with desirable features of economic value is mated. Mule is superior to the horse in strength, intelligence, ability to work and resistance to diseases, but they are sterile.

VIII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the effects of hybrid vigour in animals.
Answer:

1. Increased production of milk by cattle.
2. Increased production of egg by poultry.
3. High quality of meat is produced.
4. Increased growth rate in domesticated animals.

Question 2.
Describe mutation breeding with an example.
Answer:
The mutation is defined as the sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism. The genetic variations brings out changes in an organism. The organism which undergoes mutation is called a mutant.
The factors which induce mutations are known as mutagens or mutagenic agents. The mutagens are of two types:
(a) Physical mutagens: Radiations like X – rays, a, P and Y – rays, UV rays and temperature, etc, which induce, maturations are called physical mutagens.

(b) Chemical mutagens: Chemical substances that induce mutations are called chemical mutagens, eg. Mustard gas and nitrous acid. The utilization of induced mutation in crop improvement is called mutation inbreeding.
Achievements of mutation breeding:

• Sharbati Sonora wheat produced from Sonora – 64 by using gamma rays.
• Atomica – 2 rice with saline tolerance and pest resistance.
• Groundnuts with thick shells.

Question 3.
Biofortification may help in removing hidden hunger. How?
Answer:
Biofortification: Biofortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals. Some examples of crop varieties developed as a result of biofortification are given below:

1. Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine rich maize hybrids (developed in India).
2. Atlas 66, a protein rich wheat variety.
3. Iron rich fortified rice variety’.
4. Vitamin A enriched carrots, pumpkin and spinach.

Question 4.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the techniques involved in gene cloning.
Answer:
The carbon copy or more appropriately, a clone means to make a genetically exact copy of an organism. ‘Dolly’ is the cloned sheep.

In gene cloning, a gene or a piece of DNA fragment is inserted into a bacterial cell, where DNA will be multiplied (copied) as the cell divides.
The basic steps involved in gene cloning are:

• Isolation of desired DNA fragment by using restriction enzymes.
• Insertion of the DNA fragment into a suitable vector (plasmid) to make rDNA.
• Transfer of rDNA into the bacterial host cell (Transformation).
• Selection and multiplication of the recombinant host cell to get a clone.
• Expression of the cloned gene in the host cell.

Using this strategy several enzymes, hormones and vaccines can be produced.

Question 5.
Discuss the importance of biotechnology in the field of medicine.
Answer:
Using genetic engineering techniques medicinally important valuable proteins or polypeptides that form the potential pharmaceutical products for the treatment of various diseases have been developed on a commercial scale.
Pharmaceutical products developed by rDNA technique:

1. Insulin used in the treatment of diabetes.
2. Human growth hormone used for treating children with growth deficiencies.
3. Blood clotting factors are developed to treat haemophilia.
4. Tissue plasminogen activator is used to dissolve blood clots and prevent heart attack.
5. Development of vaccines against various diseases like Hepatitis B and rabies.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
A breeder wishes to incorporate desirable characters into the crop plants. Prepare a list of characters he will incorporate.
Answer:
The list of character he will incorporate are:

1. High yielding and better quantity
2. Disease resistance
3. Insects pest resistance
4. Improved nutritional quality
5. Short duration

Question 2.
Organic farming is better than Green Revolution. Give reasons.
Answer:

• Dwarfness is desired in cereals, so fewer nutrients are consumed by the crops.
• Fertilizer is responsive.
• Disease resistant varieties.
• Insect and pest resistant crop varieties.
• High levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.

Question 3.
Polyploids are characterised by gigantism. Justify your answer.
Answer:
An organism having more than two set of chromosome is called polyploidy. It can be induced by physical agents such as heat or cold treatment, X-rays and chemical agents like colchicine. As organisms produced by polyploidy have more than two set of chromosomes they are gigantic.

Question 4.
‘P’ is a gene required for the synthesis of vitamin A. It is integrated with the genome of ‘Q’ to produce genetically modified plant ‘R’.
(i) What is P, Q and R?
(ii) State the importance of ‘R’ in India.
Answer:
(i)  The P, Q and R:

• P – Beta – carotene gene.
• Q – Prevent vitamin A deficiency.
• R – Golden rice.

(ii) Importance of rice in India:

• Rice is the most important staple food for millions of people in developing countries like India.
• Beta – carotene is produced in the endosperm of the grain. It could control the chronic health problems caused by vitamin A deficiency, especially among the poor in developing countries like India.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Breeding and Biotechnology Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Plant ______ is the art of developing economically important plants.
Answer:
Breeding.

Question 2.
Plant diseases are caused by ______ like viruses, bacteria and fungi.
Answer:
Pathogen.

Question 3.
______ is the first man – made cereal hybrid.
Answer:
Triticale.

Question 4.
The superiority of the hybrid obtained by cross-breeding is called _____ or ______.
Answer:
Heterosis
or
Hybrid vigour.

Question 5.
The other name for genetic engineering is ______.
Answer:
Recombinant DNA technology.

Question 6.
The organism which undergoes mutation is called a ______ and the factors which induce mutations are ______.
Answer:
Mutant; mutagenic agents.

Question 7.
The replacement of the defective gene in a germ cell (egg or sperm) is called ______.
Answer:
Germline gene therapy.

Question 8.
Blood clotting factors are developed to treat ______.
Answer:
Haemophilia.

Question 9.
Stem cells, which are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells can be used for the treatment is called ______.
Answer:
Stem cell therapy.

Question 10.
_______ is used in the treatment of diabetes.
Answer:
Insulin.

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Cowpea	(a) Joining the DNA fragments
2. UV rays	(b) New breed of sheep
3. Lady’s finger	(c) Bacterial blight
4. DNA ligase	(d) Flat bean
5. Pusasem 3	(e) Pusa Sawani
6. Hissardale	(f) Induce mutation

Answer:
1. (c) Bacterial blight
2. (f) Induce mutation
3. (e) Pusa Sawani
4. (a) Joining the DNA fragments
5. (d) Flat bean
6. (b) New breed of sheep.

III. Write “True or False” statements. Correct the false statements:

Question 1.
Modem Agricultural practices are activities carried out to improve the plants.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called outbreeding.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called inbreeding.

Question 3.
The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called a selection.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The process of introducing high yielding varieties of plants from one place to another is called Exotic species.

Question 4.
The mutation is a sudden inheritable change in the nucleus sequence of DNA in an organism.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Mutation is a sudden heritable change in the nucleotide sequence of DNA in an organism.

Question 5.
A breed is a group of animals of common origin within a species, which has certain characters, that are not found in other members of the same species.
Answer:
True.

IV. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The high yielding rice variety from Indonesia and China are ______.
(a) Peta and DGWG
(b) IR-8 and Gold rice
(c) Hexaploid Triticale and Triticum durum
(d) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona.
Answer:
(a) Peta and DGWG

Question 2.
First artificially synthesized hormone is:
(a) Secretin
(b) Insulin
(c) Glucagon
(d) Renin
Answer:
(b) Insulin

Question 3.
The presence of this substance in bacteria can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA ______.
(a) heritable
(b) colchicine
(c) mutation
(d) plasmid.
Answer:
(d) plasmid.

Question 4.
Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) stains have been used for designing novel.
(a) Bio-metallogical techniques
(b) Bio-insecticidal plants
(c) Bio-mineralization
(d) Bio-fertilizer
Answer:
(b) Bio-insecticidal plants

Question 5.
A group of plants produced from a single plant through vegetative or asexual reproduction is called ______.
(a) Transgenic
(b) Hexaploid
(c) clones
(d) mutation.
Answer:
(b) Hexaploid

V. Answer the following briefly:

Question 1.
What is the green revolution? Who is the “Father of Green Revolution”?
Answer:
Green Revolution is the process of increasing food production through high yielding crop varieties and modem agricultural techniques in underdeveloped and developing nations. Dr Norman. E. Borlaug, an American agronomist is the “Father of Green Revolution”.

Question 2.
Write the role of polyploidy in crop improvement.
Answer:
The role of polyploidy in crop improvement are production of:

1. Seedless watermelons (3n) and bananas (3n).
2. TV-29 (triploid variety of tea) with larger shoots and drought tolerance.
3. Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. To make this plant fertile polyploidy is induced. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.
4. Raphanobrassica is an allotetraploid by colchicine treatment.

Question 3.
What is Bio – fortification? Give any two examples.
Answer:
Bio – fortification is the scientific process of developing crop plants enriched with high levels of desirable nutrients like vitamins, proteins and minerals.
Examples of crop varieties developed as a result of bio – fortification are:

• Protina, Shakti and Rathna are lysine – rich maize hybrids.
• Atlas 66, A protein – rich wheat variety.

Question 4.
Give two examples of cross-breeding in animals.
Answer:
Cross breed of fowls: White Leghorn X Plymouth Rock
↓
Hybrid fowl – yield more eggs

Cross breed of cows : Developed by mating the bulls of exotic breeds and cows of indigenous breeds.
Brown Swiss X Sahiwal
↓
Karan Swiss – yield 2-3 times more milk than indigenous cows.

Question 5.
What is hybridization? Explain the hybridization experiment.
Answer:
The process of crossing two or more types of plants for bringing their desired characters together into one progeny hybrid is called hybridization. Hybridization is creating a genetic variation to get improved varieties.

Hybridization Experiment:
Triticale is the first man-made cereal hybrid. It is obtained by crossing wheat (Triticum durum, 2n = 28) and rye (Secale cereal, 2n = 14). The F, a hybrid is sterile (2n = 21). Then the chromosome number is doubled using colchicine and it becomes hexaploid triticale (2n = 42). The cycle of crop raising and selection continues until the plants with the desired characters are finally obtained.

Question 6.
Name the methods of plant breeding for crop improvement.
Answer:
The methods of plant breeding to develop high yielding varieties, for crop improvement, are as follows:

• Introduction of new varieties of plants
• Selection
• Polyploid breeding
• Mutation breeding
• Hybridization.

Question 7.
Explain briefly about gene therapy.
Answer:
The replacement of a defective gene by the direct transfer of functional genes into humans to treat genetic disease or disorder is referred to as gene therapy.
The recombinant DNA technology is used for gene therapy:

• Somatic gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in somatic cells.
• Gene line gene therapy is the replacement of the defective gene in the germ cell (egg or sperm).

Question 8.
What were the important discoveries that led to the stepping stones of recombinant DNA technology?
Answer:

1. Presence of plasmid in bacteria that can undergo replication independently along with chromosomal DNA.
2. Restriction enzymes cuts or break DNA at specific sites and are also called as molecular scissors.
3. DNA ligases are the enzymes which help in ligating (joining) the broken DNA fragments.

Question 9.
What does modern agriculture include?
Answer:
Modem agricultural practices are activities carried out to improve the cultivation of plants. It includes:

1. Preparation of soil
2. Sowing
3. Application of manures and fertilizers
4. Proper irrigation
5. Protection from weeds and pests
6. Harvesting and threshing
7. Storage

Question 10.
What is the aim of crop improvement?
Answer:
The aim of crop improvement is to develop improved crop varieties possessing higher yield, better quality, resistance to diseases and shorter duration.

Question 11.
(a) What are the two important properties of stem cells?
(b) Write a short note on two types of stem cells.
Answer:
(a) Properties of stem cells:
It’s the ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
It’s the ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

(b) Types of cells:

• Embryonic stem cells: Embryonic stem cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst, which can be extracted from the early embryos. These cells can be developed into any cell in the body.
• Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell: These cells are found in the newborn and adults. They have the ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. Sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.

Question 12.
What are bulk genomic DNA and satellite DNA?
Answer:
In human beings, 99 % of the DNA base sequences are the same and this is called a bulk genomic DNA. The remaining 1 % of the DNA sequence differs from one individual to another. This 1 % DNA sequence is present as a small stretch of repeated sequences, which is called satellite DNA.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What are stem cells? Explain its types.
Answer:
Stem cells are undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells. The stem cells are the cells of variable potency. The two important properties of stem cells that differentiate them from other cells are:

1. Its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal.
2. Its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Types of stem cells Embryonic stem cells can be extracted and cultured from the early embryos. These cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. These cells can be developed into air, cell in the body.

Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell are found in the neonatal (new bom) and adults. They have tne ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. Sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.

Question 2.
Explain with examples the inbreeding and outbreeding of animal breeding.
Answer:
Animal breeding aims at the genotypes of domesticated animals to increase their yield and improve the desirable qualities to produce milk, egg and meat. When breeding takes place between animals of the same breed, it is called inbreeding.
The cross between different – breeds is called outbreeding.

1. Inbreeding:
Inbreeding refers to the mating of closely related animals within the same breed for about 4 – 6 generations. Superior males and superior females of the same breed are identified and mated in pairs. It helps in the accumulation of superior genes and elimination of genes, which are undesirable. Hissardale is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri (Magra) ewes and Australian Marino rams.

2. Inbreeding depression:
Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and productivity. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.

3. Outbreeding:
It is the breeding of unrelated animals. The offsprings formed are called hybrids. The hybrids are stronger and vigorous than their parents. Cross between two different species with desirable features of economic value are mated. Let’s see what cross produce a mule. Mule is superior to a horse in strength, intelligence, ability to work and resistance to diseases but they are sterile

Question 3.
Explain the DNA fingerprinting technology with an illustration.
Answer:
The DNA pattern of two individuals cannot be the same except for identical twins. Each persons DNA sequence is unique, due to the small difference in the base pairs. DNA fingerprinting is the easier and quicker method, to compare the genetic difference among the two individuals. This technique was developed by Alec Jeffrey.

Each individual’s unique DNA sequences provides distinct characteristics of an individual, which helps in identification. A variable number of tandem repeat sequences [VNTRs] serve as molecular markers for identification.

In human beings, 99 % of DNA base sequences are the same and this is called as bulk genomic DNA. The remaining 1 % DNA sequence differs from one individual to another. This 1 % DNA sequence is present as a small stretch of repeated sequences which is called as satellite DNA. The number of copies of the repeat sequence also called VNTRs differs from one individual to another and results in variation in the size of the DNA segment.

As shown in the illustration, the sequence AGCT is repeated six times in the first person, five times in the second person and seven times in the third person. Because of this, the DNA segment of the third person will be larger in size followed by a DNA segment of first – person and then the second person. Thus it is clear that satellite DNA brings about variation within the population. Variation in the DNA banding pattern reveals differences among the individuals.

Question 4.
Write a detailed account of stem cells, types of stem cells and stem cell therapy?
Answer:
Our body is composed of over 200 specialised cell types, that can carry out specific functions, eg. Neurons or nerve cell that can transmit signals or heart cells which contract to pump blood or pancreatic cells to secrete insulin. These specialised cells are called differentiated cells. These specialised cells are called as differentiated cells. In contrast to differentiated cells, stem cells are the undifferentiated or unspecialised mass of cells. The stem cells are the cells of variable potency.
The two important properties of stem cells are:

• its ability to divide and give rise to more stem cells by self-renewal,
• its ability to give rise to specialised cells with specific functions by the process of differentiation.

Types of stem cells:

1. Embryonic stem cells: These cells are extracted and cultured from the early embryos. These cells are derived from the inner cell mass of the blastocyst. These cells can be developed into any cell in the body.
2. Adult stem cell or somatic stem cell: They are found in the neonatal (newborn) and adults. They have the ability to divide and give rise to specific cell types. The sources of adult stem cells are amniotic fluid, umbilical cord and bone marrow.
3. Stem – cell therapy: Sometimes cells, tissues and organs in the body may be permanently damaged or lost due to genetic condition or disease or injury. In such situations, stem cells are used for the treatment of diseases, which is called stem cell therapy. In treating neurodegenerative disorders like Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease neuronal stem cells can be used to replace the damaged or lost neurons.

Question 5.
(a) Explain genetically modified organisms |GMOs|.
(b) With the help of a tabular column tabulate the genetically modified plants and animals, with the objectives, gene inserted and achievement.
Answer:
(a) Genetic modification is the alteration or manipulation of genes in the organisms using rDNA techniques in order to produce the desired characteristics. The DNA fragment inserted is called transgene. Plants or animals expressing a modified endogenous gene or a foreign gene are also known as transgenic organisms.

The transgenic plants are much stable, with improved nutritional quality, resistant to diseases and tolerant to various environmental conditions. Similarly, transgenic animals are used to produce proteins of medicinal importance at low cost and improve livestock quality.

(b) Genetically modified plants and animals:
1. Genetically Modified Plants:

Objective	Gene Inserted	Achievement
Improved nutritional quality in Rice	Beta carotene gene (In humans, Beta carotene is required for the synthesis of Vitamin A)	Golden Rice (Genetically modified rice can produce beta carotene, that can prevent Vitamin A deficiency)
Increased crop production	Bt gene from bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis. (Bt gene produces a protein that is toxic to insects)	Insect resistant plants (These plants can produce the toxin protein that kills the insects which attack them)

2. Genetically Modified Animals:

Objective	Gene inserted	Achievement
The improved wool quality and production	Genes for synthesis of amino acid, cysteine	Transgenic sheep (gene expressed)
Increased growth in fishes	Salmon or Rainbow trout or Tilapia growth hormone gene	Transgenic fish (gene expressed)

VII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Name the Indian scientist who is known for his leading role in India’s green revolution.
Answer:
Dr M. S. Swaminathan.

Question 2.
The application of biotechnology ‘A’ to treat a person born with a hereditary disease.
(a) What does ‘A’ mean?
(b) Mention its types.
Answer:
(a) Gene therapy refers to the replacement of defective gene.
(b) The two type of gene therapy are Somatic and Germline.

Question 3.
Write the crossbreeds of the following:
(a) Crossbreed of fowls
(b) Crossbreed of cows
Answer:
(a) A crossbreed of fowls:

• White Leghorn × Plymouth Rock
  ↓
  Hybrid fowl – yield more eggs

(b) A crossbreed of cows:

• Brown Swiss × Sahiwal
  ↓
  Karan Swiss [yield 2 – 3 times more milk than indigenous cows]

Believing that the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 20th Science Chapter 20 Breeding and Biotechnology Questions and Answers learning resource will definitely guide you at the time of preparation. For more details about Tamilnadu State Board Class 20th Science Chapter 20 textbook solutions, ask us in the below comments and we’ll revert back to you asap.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.9

10th Maths Exercise 3.9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Determine the quadratic equations, whose sum and product of roots are
(i) -9, 20
(ii) \(\frac{5}{3}\), 4
(iii) \(\frac{-3}{2}\), -1
(iv) -(2 – a)², (a + 5)²
Solution:
If the roots are given, general form of the quadratic equation is x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0.
(i) Sum of the roots = -9
Product of the roots = 20
The equation = x² – (-9x) + 20 = 0
⇒ x² + 9x + 20 = 0

(ii) Sum of the roots = \(\frac{5}{3}\)
Product of the roots = 4
Required equation = x² – (sum of the roots)x + product of the roots
= 0
⇒ x² – \(\frac{5}{3}\)x + 4 = 0
⇒ 3x² – 5x + 12 = 0

(iii) Sum of the roots = (\(\frac{-3}{2}\))
(α + β) = \(\frac{-3}{2}\)
Product of the roots (αβ) = (-1)
Required equation = x² – (α + β)x + αβ = 0
x² – (\(\frac{-3}{2}\))x – 1 = 0
2x² + 3x – 2 = 0

(iv) α + β = – (2 – a)²
αβ = (a + 5)²
Required equation = x² – (α + β)x – αβ = 0
⇒ x² – (-(2 – a)²)x + (a + 5)² = 0
⇒ x² + (2 – a)²x + (a + 5)² = 0

Exercise 3.9 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Find the sum and product of the roots for each of the following quadratic equations
(i) x² + 3x – 28 = 0
(ii) x² + 3x = 0
(iii) 3 + \(\frac{1}{a}=\frac{10}{a^{2}}\)
(iv) 3y² – y – 4 = 0

(i) x² + 3x – 28 = 0
Answer:
Sum of the roots (α + β) = -3
Product of the roots (α β) = -28

(ii) x² + 3x = 0
Answer:
Sum of the roots (α + β) = -3
Product of the roots (α β) = 0

(iii) 3 + \(\frac{1}{a}=\frac{10}{a^{2}}\)
3a² + a = 10
3a² + a – 10 = 0 comparing this with x² – (α + β)
x + αβ = 0

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science History Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science History Board solutions for Chapter 9 Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science History Chapter 9 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Freedom Struggle In Tamil Nadu Class 10 Question 1.
Who was the first President of the Madras Mahajana Sabha?
(a) T.M. Nair
(b) P. Rangaiah Naidu
(c) G. Subramaniam
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(b) P. Rangaiah Naidu

Freedom Struggle In Tamil Nadu Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St. George
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who said “Better bullock carts and freedom than a train de luxe with subjection”?
(a) Annie Besant
(b) M. Veeraraghavachari
(c) B.P. Wadia
(d) G.S. Arundale
Answer:
(a) Annie Besant

Question 4.
Which among the following was SILF’s official organ in English?
(a) Dravidian
(b) Andhra Prakasika
(c) Justice
(d) New India
Answer:
(c) Justice

Question 5.
Who among the following were Swarajists?
(a) S. Satyamurti
(b) Kasturirangar
(c) P. Subbarayan
(d) Periyar EVR
Answer:
(a) S. Satyamurti

Question 6.
Who set up the satyagraha camp in Udyavanam near Madras?
(a) Kamaraj
(b) Rajaji
(c) K. Santhanam
(d) T. Prakasam
Answer:
(d) T. Prakasam

Question 7.
Where was the anti-Hindi Conference held?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Salem

Question 8.
Where did the congress volunteers clash with the military during Quit India Movement?
(a) Erode
(b) Madras
(c) Salem
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(d) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… was appointed the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court.
2. The economic exploitation of India was exposed by …………….., through his writings.
3. Nilakanta Brahmachari started the secret society name …………….
4. The starting of trade unions in Madras was pioneered by ……………..
5. The Dravidian Association Hostel for non-Brahmin students was established by ………………
6. ……………… formed the first Congress Ministry in Madras.
7. …………….. was the founder of the Madras branch of the Muslim League.
8. ……………. hoisted the national flag atop Fort St. George on 26 January 1932.
Answers:
1. T. Muthuswami
2. G. Subramaniam
3. Bharata Matha Society
4. B.P. Wadia
5. C. Natesanar
6. Rajaji
7. Yakub Hasan
8. Bhashyam

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Madras Native Association was founded in 1852.
(ii) Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitran was started in 1891.
(iii) The Madras Mahajana Sabha demanded conduct of civil services examinations only in India.
(iv) V.S. Srinivasanar was an extremist.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) EVR did not participate in the Non – Cooperation Movement.
(ii) Rajaji worked closely with Yakub Hasan of the Muslim League.
(iii) Workers did not participate in the Non- Cooperation Movement.
(iv) Toddy shops were not picketed in Tamil Nadu.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (ii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Justice Party opposed the Home Rule Movement.
Reason (R): The Justice Party feared that Home Rule would give the Brahmins more power.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

Question 4.
Assertion (A): EVR raised the issue of representation for non-Brahmins in legislature.
Reason (R): During the first Congress Ministry, Rajaji abolished sales tax.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation
(b) A is correct but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is wrong

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

V. Answer the questions briefly.

Question 1.
List out the contribution of the moderates.
Answer:
Contributions of the Moderates:

1. They exposed the liberal claims of the British and how the British exploited India.
2. They exposed British’s hypocrisy in following democratic principles in England and imposing an unrepresentative Government in the colonies.

Question 2.
Write a note on the Tirunelveli Uprising.
Answer:
The Tirunelveli uprising took place after the arrests of V.O. Chidambaram Pillai and Subramania Siva in 1908. They were charged with sedition. During the protests, a police station, a court building and municipal office were burnt down and four people died in police firing.

Question 3.
What is the contribution of Annie Besant to India’s freedom struggle?
Answer:

1. Annie Besant, an Irish lady and the leader of the Theosophical society started the Home Rule League on the modelof Irish Home Rule League in 1916.
2. She carried forward the demand for Home Rule all over India: She started the newspapers “New India, Commonweal” to carry forward her agenda.
3. Large number of students who joined the movement were trained in Home Rule classes.
4. They were formed into boy scouts and volunteer troops.
5. By forming trade unions with her member B.P Wadia improved the working conditions of’the workers and they made them part of the struggle for freedom.

Question 4.
Mention the various measures introduced by the Justice Ministry.
Answer:
Measures introduced by Justice Ministry:

• reservation for non-Brahmins in local bodies and education
• establishment of Staff Selection Board
• enactment of Hindu Religious, Endowment Act,
• abolition of devadasi system
• allotment of waste government land to the poor, and extension of primary education to depressed classes.

Question 5.
Write briefly on EVR’s contribution to the constructive programme.
Answer:

1. E.V.R played an important role in Tamil Nadu during the period of Non – Cooperation movement.
2. He campaigned vigorously for the promotion and sale of Khadi.
3. In his opposition to consumption of liquor he cut down on entire coconut grove owned by him.
4. He played a key role in Satyagraha for temple entry in vaikom, then under Travancore.
5. E.V.R went to Vaikom and galvanised the movement.
6. He was imprisoned and released after one-month.
7. He refused to leave vaikom and sentenced to six month rigorous imprisonment for making inspiring speeches.
8. Due to his undeterred effort, in 1925, the ban on the roads around the temple where the permission was not given to the depressed classes to enter was lifted.
9. He was hailed as “Vaikom Hero” for his contribution against caste discrimination and temple entry agitation.

Question 6.
What is Cheranmadevei Gurukuiam controversy?
Answer:
V.V.S. Iyer established a Gurukuiam in Cheranmadevi. It got funds from Congress, but students were discriminated on the basis of caste. E.V. Ramaswamy got to know about the practices in 1925 and he severely criticised it.

Question 7.
Why was anti-Hindi agitation popular?
Answer:

1. Congress Ministry under Rajaji introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.
2. This was considered as a form of Aryan and North. Indian imposition detrimental to Tamil language and culture, and therefore caused much public resentment.
3. E.V.R led a massive campaign against it.
4. He organised an anti-Hindi conference at Salem and formulated a definite programme of action.
5. A rally was organised from Trichirapalli to Madras.
6. More than 1200 protesters including E.V.R were arrested.
7. As a result after the resignation of Congress Ministry the then Governor of Madras removed Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools. Thus the anti-Hindi agitation became popular as it succeeds in its objective.

Question 8.
Outline the key incidents during the Quit India Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
All sections of the society in Tamil Nadu participated in the Quit India Movement. There were workers’ strikes and students also protested. There were many incidents of violence and disruption of rail traffic. Congress volunteers clashed with the military in Madurai. There were police firings at some places.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Early Nationalist Movement In Tamil Nadu

(a) What were the objectives of Madras Native Association?
Answer:

1. To promote the interests of its members.
2. Focused on reduction of taxation.

(b) What led to the emergence of nationalist press in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The entire press was owned by the Europeans. When the appointment of Indian T. Muthuswami as Judge was criticised they felt the need of nationalist press to express the Indian perspective.

(c) What were the demands of Madras Mahajana Sabha?
Answer:

1. Conduct of simultaneous civil services examinations in England and India.
2. Reduction of taxes and reduction of civil and military expenditure.

(d) Who were the early nationalist leaders in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The early nationalists leaders in Tamil Nadu were V.S. Srinivasa Sastri. RS.Sivasamy and G.A.Natesan, T.R.Venkatramanar, S.Subramaniar, V.krishnasamy.

Question 2.
Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu
(a) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu. ‘
Answer:
Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.

(b) Why did Subramania Bharati moved to Pondicherry?
Answer:
Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.

(c) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
Answer:
Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.

(d) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Question 3.
Non-Brahmin Movement

(a) Why was the South Indian Liberal Federation formed?
Answer:
South Indian Liberal Federation was formed to promote the interests of the Non – Brahmins.

(b) What is the Non-Brahmin Manifesto?
Answer:
Reservation of jobs for Non – Brahmins in Government service and seats in representative bodies.

(c) Why did EVR join the Non-Brahmin Movement?
Answer:
When EVR raised the issue of representation for Non – Brahmins in the legislature his efforts to achieve this since 1920 had met with.

(d) What do you know about anti-Hindi agitation?
Answer:
It Caused much resentment as it was considered to be a form of Aryan and North India imposition detrimental to Tamil language and culture.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the response to Swadeshi Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
During the Swadeshi movement, public meetings were organized in various parts of Tamil Nadu, and they were attended by thousands of people. Tamil was used for the first time to mobilize people. Many journals came into existence to spread Swadeshi ideals. Students and youth participated widely in the movement. Some lectures were delivered by Bipin Chandra Pal, while Subramania Bharati’s patriotic songs stirred patriotic emotions in people.

Question 2.
Examine the origin and growth of Non- Brahmin Movement in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Origin of Non – Brahmin Movemet.

Cause: In the Madras presidency due to the rapid growth of education, there was an increase in the number of educated Non – Brahmins.

Reason: Intense political and social activities politicised the educated Non-Brahmins to raise the issue of caste discrimination and unequal opportunities in Government employment and representation in the elected bodies which were dominated by Brahmins.

Formation: The Non – Brahmins organised themselves into political organisations to protect their interests.

1. In 1912 the Madras Dravidian Association was founded with C.Natesanar as its secretary. Active role if C.Natesanar. for the.growth of Non – Brahmin movement.
2. In June 1916 he established the Dravidian Association Hostel for Non¬Brahmin students.
3. He bridged the gap between the two leading Non-Brahmin leaders of the time Dr. T.M.Nair and P.Thiyagarayar.
4. On 20th November 1916 a meeting was held for about thirty Non-Brahmins under the leadership of P.Thiyagarayar Dr. T.M.Nair and C.Natesanar at Victoria public hall (Chennai).

South Indian Liberal Federation (SILF):

South Indian Liberal Federation was founded to promote the interests of the Non-Brahmins.

News papers launching: They launched three newspapers Justice – in English, Dravidian – in Tamil and Andhra prakasika in Telugu.

1. SILF popularly known as ‘Justice party’ after its English Newspaper.
2. They held several meetings throughout the presidency to set up branches.

Objectives of Non- Brahmin Manifesto:

1. Reservation of jobs in Government services.
2. Seats in local bodies

Achievement: The act of 1919 provided reservation of seats to Non-Brahmins.

In the elections held in 1920 the Justice Party won the majority seats in the Legislative Council. A. Subburayalu of the Justice Party became the first Chief Minister.

Question 3.
Describe the role of Tamil Nadu in the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was at the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Shops were picketed and foreign goods were boycotted in Madurai. C. Rajagopalachari led the Salt Satyagraha march to Vedaranyam and was arrested. The march took place in April 1930. Twelve volunteers broke the salt law by picking up the salt.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to write a sentence or two about the important places of freedom struggle in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Panchalankuruchi is a place 17 km from Tuticorin. This small village holds a lot of historic value in terms of India’s freedom struggle against English dominance. It is home to an 18th century chieftain Veerapandya Kattabomman who fought valiantly against the English, but was defeated and hanged.

Velunachiyar employed agents for gathering intelligence to find where the British had stored their ammunition. With military assistance from Gopala Nayakar and Hyder Ali she recaptured Sivagangai. She was the first female ruler or queen to resist the British colonial power in India.

A procession carrying national flags and singing patriotic songs was brutally beaten by the police in Tirupur. O.K.S.R. Kumaraswamy, popularly Tirupur Kumaran, fell dead holding the national flag aloft.

The Salt satyagraha under the leadership of T. Prakasam and K. Nageswara Rao set up a camp at Udayavanam near Madras. However, the police arrested them. In Madras, the Simon Boycott Propaganda Committee was set up with S. Satyamurti as the president. There was widespread campaign among the students, shopkeepers, lawyers and commuters in train to boycott.

Rowlatt Satyagraha: On 6 April 1919 hartal was organised to protest against the “Black Act”. Protest demonstrations were held at several parts of Tamil Nadu. Processions from many areas of the city converged in the Marina beach where there was a large gathering.

Annie Besant started the Home Rule League in 1916 and carried forward the demand for home rule all over India. G.S. Arundale, B.P. Wadia and C.P. Ramaswamy assisted her in this campaign.

Radical papers such as India, Vijaya and Suryodayam came out of Pondicherry. Such revolutionary papers and Bharati’s poems were banned as seditious literature. These activities in Pondicherry intensified with the arrival of Aurobindo Ghosh and V.V. Subramanianar in 1910.

Question 2.
Role Play: Students can be divided into groups and asked to debate the views of the Moderates, Extremists, Revolutionaries, Annie Besant’s supporters, Justice Party, and British Government.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Freedom Struggle in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The first organization in the Madras presidency to agitate for the rights of people was the …………..
(a) Indian National Congress
(b) Madras Native Association
(c) Muslim league
Answer:
(b) Madras Native Association

Question 2.
…………………. played an active role as the secretary of Madras Mahajana Sabha.
(a) P.Anandacharlu
(b) Gazalu
(c) T.Muthuswami
(d) G.Subramaniam
Answer:
(a) P.Anandacharlu

Question 3.
The Headquarters of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee is named as ……………
(a) Raj Bhavan
(b) Sathyamurthi Bhavan
(c) Rajaji Bhavan
Answer:
(b) Sathyamurthi Bhavan

Question 4.
…………………. purchased two ships for Swadeshi Indian Trade.
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal
(b) V.O.Chidambaranar
(c) T.S.S.Rajan
(d) V.V.Subramaninar
Answer:
(b) V.O.Chidambaranar

Question 5.
Who made Hindi a compulsory subject …………..
(a) Rajaji
(b) V.O.C
(c) Nehru
Answer:
(a) Rajaji

Question 6.
Annie Besant was the leader of …………………. society who propagated Home Rule Movement in Madras.
(a) Theosophical
(b) Madras Dravidian Association
(c) Madras Mahajana Sabha
(d) Madurai Labour Union
Answer:
(a) Theosophical

Question 7.
Who started the Tamil nationalist periodical Swadesamitram?
(a) T. Muthuswami
(b) G. Subramaniam
(c) M. Veeraraghavachari
(d) P. Anandacharlu
Answer:
(b) G. Subramaniam

Question 8.
In Tamil Nadu Khilafat day was observed on:
(a) 19th April 1920
(b) 15 th April 1920
(c) 21st April 1920
(d) 17th April 1920
Answer:
(d) 17th April 1920

Question 9.
What was Bharata Matha Society?
(a) A newspaper
(b) A periodical
(c) A secret society
(d) A political party
Answer:
(c) A secret society

Question 10.
…………………. was hailed as Vaikom Hero.
(a) Periyar
(b) P.Subbarayan
(c) Rajaji
(d) M.A.Ansari
Answer:
(a) Periyar

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The third session of the Indian National Congress was held at …………., now known as the thousand lights.
2. ………….. provided a safe haven for the revolutionaries.
3. On 18th march 1919 Gandhi addressed a meeting on …………..
4. …………….. was the epicenter of Khilafat Agitaion.
5. A no-tax campaign took place in ……………
6. ………….. and ……………. was the first woman to pay penalty for violation of salt laws.
7. E.V.R organized an Anti-Hindi conference at …………..
8. In Madras, the Simon Boycott Propaganda Committee was set up with ……………… as the President.
9. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced ……………….
10. ……………One of the controversial measures of Rajaji was the introduction of ………………. as a compulsory subject in school.
11. The Swarajists did not contest the 1930 elections leading to an easy victory for the ……………. party.
12. The Madras Native Association or MNA was the earliest organization to be founded in ……………. to articulate larger public rather than sectarian interests.
Answers:
1. Makkis Garden
2. Pondicherry
3. Marina beach
4. Vaniyambadi
5. Thanjavur
6. Rukmani Lakshmipathi
7. Salem
8. S. Satyamurthi
9. Provincial Autonomy
10. Hindi
11. Justice
12. South India

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Non-Brahmin Manifesto opposed the Home Rule Movement as a movement of Brahmins and feared that Home Rule might give them more power.
(ii) However, it never criticized the Congress as the party of the Brahmins.
(iii) The Justice Party demanded communal representation in society.
(iv) The Madras government was supportive of the Justice Party. .
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion: E. V. R. was becoming increasingly dissatisfied with the Congress.
Reason: He felt it was promoting the interests of the Brahmins alone.
(a) Both A and R are correct but R is not the right explanation
(b) A is right but R is wrong
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the right explanation

IV. Match the following.

1.	The Madras Native Association	(a)	1878
2.	The Hindu newspaper	(b)	1884
3.	The Madras Dravidian Association	(c)	1852
4.	The Temple Entry Authorisation and Indemnity Act	(d)	1912
5.	The Madras Mahajana Sabha	(e)	1939

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Who was appointed as High court Judge of Madras in 1877? How it was criticized?
Answer:
The appointment of T. Muthuswami as the First Indian Judge of Madras High court in 1877. The press entirely owned by Europeans criticized the appointment of an Indian as Judge.

Question 2.
Write a note on Subramaniya Siva.
Answer:

• Subramaniya Siva was bom in Vathalagundu in Dindigal district.
• He was a freedom fighter and a creative writer.
• He was arrested many times for his anti-imperialist activities.
• While in jail he was affected by leprosy and he was ordered to be shifted to Salem jail.
• But the British Government enacted a law for Siva stating that leprosy patient should not travel by rail. So he had to walk a long distance with sores on his body.
• He died of the disease on 23rd July 1925.

Question 3.
Name the states that was then a part of the Madras Presidency.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu was then a part of Madras Presidency which included larger parts of the present day states of Andhra Pradesh (Coastal districts and Royalaseema) Karnataka (Bengaluru, Bellary, South Canara) Kerala (Malabar) and even Odhisha (Ganjam).

Question 4.
Name the paper edited by Subramania Bharathiyar in 1907.
Answer:
Tamil weekly India and the English Newspaper ‘Bala Bharatham’ were edited by Subramania Bharathiyar in 1907.

Question 5.
Name the persons who assisted Annie Besant to carry the Home Rule Movement campaign.
Answer:
G.S.Arundale, B.P. Wadia and C.P.Ramaswamy were some of the personalities who assisted Annie Besant to carry the Home Rule movement campaign.

Question 6.
Who established the Madras Native Association? Why?
Answer:
It was established by Harley Lakshmi Narasu Chetty and Srinivasa Pillai in 1852.

Question 7.
Name the Newspapers launched by SILF.
Answer:
The Newspapers launched by SILF (South Indian Liberal Federation) were
Justice – in English
Dravidian – In Tamil – and
Andhra prakasika – in Telugu

Question 8.
When was the need for a newspaper keenly felt?
Answer:
The appointment of T. Muthuswami Iyer as the first South Indian Judge of the Madras High Court in 1878 created resentment in Madras Presidency. The entire press in Madras criticised the appointment of an Indian as a judge. This left a deep impact on the educated youth of India. For the first time they realized that the entire press was owned by Europeans. At this very moment the need for a newspaper to express the Indian perspective was keenly felt,

Question 9.
Name the persons who organised the “Black Act” protest, How?
Answer:
On 6^th April 1919 hartal was organised to protest against the ‘Black Act’ (Rowlatt Act).

1. Processions from many areas of the city converged at Marina Beach.
2. Rajaji, Kasturirangari S.Sathyamurthy, and George Joseph addressed the meeting.
3. Workers meeting was addressed by Thiru.V. Kalyanasundaranar, B.P. Wadia and V.O.C.. They devoted the whole day to fasting and prayers along with large number of people in the Marina Beach.

Question 10.
Why were the moderates disappointed with the Minto-Morley reforms?
Answer:
They were disappointed with the Minto-Morley reforms as it did not provide for responsible government. Despite this the Congress extended support to the British war effort in the hope of getting more reforms.

Question 11.
What resulted in India’s Independence?
Answer:
The Royal Navy Mutiny, the negotiations initiated by the newly formed • labour party Government in England resulting in India’s independence.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Vanchinathan
(a) Whom did Vanchinathan kill?
Answer:
Collector Ashe.

(b) Where did he kill him?
Answer:
At Maniyachi Railway Station.

(c) Why did he kill him?
Answer:
To take revenge against the death of four extremists.

(d) What was the end of Vanchinathan?
Answer:
He committed suicide.

Question 2.
Salt March to Vedaranyam (second part)

(a) Who composed the marching song?
Answer:
A special song was composed for the salt march by Nammakkal Ramalinganar.

(b) How was the response from the people along their route?
Answer:
The marching Satyagraha’s were provided warm reception along the route.

(c) How many volunteers along with Rajaji picked up the salt ?
Answer:
Twelve volunteers under the leadership of Rajaji picked up the salt.

(d) Who were the other prominent leaders from Tamil Nadu participated?
Answer:
T.S.S.Rajan, Rukmani Lakshmipathi, Sardar Vedarathnam, C.Swaminathar and K.Santhanam were the prominent leaders who participated in Vedaranyam Salt march.

Question 3.
No Tax Campaign and Movement against Liquor
(a) Name the city where no-tax campaign took place. How did people respond to this campaign?
Answer:
Thanjavur. People boycotted councils, schools and courts. They also boycotted foreign goods.

(b) What was temperance movement? How was this movement made successful?
Answer:
Temperance Movement was a movement against liquor. This movement was made successful by picketing toddy shops.

(c) Why were Rajaji, Subramania Sastri and E. V. R. arrested?
Answer:
They were arrested because they were going to organise civil disobedience movement in Tamil Nadu.

(d) Why was the Non Co-operation Movement withdrawn?
Answer:
It was withdrawn after the Chauri Chaura incident in which 22 policemen were killed.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What were the reforms brought forth by the first Congress Ministry led by C. Rajaji?
Answer:

1. C. Rajaji formed the first Congress Ministry in 1937.
2. He introduced prohibition on an experimental basis in salem.
3. To compensate the loss of revenue he introduced a sales tax.
4. He opened temples to the ‘untouchables’ (Harijans).
5. He appointed a committee to enquire into the condition of the tenants in the zamindari areas.
6. One of the controversial measures of Rajaji was the introduction of Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools [and Kula Kalvi Thittam in 1953].
7. After the resignation of Congress Ministry in 1939 the then, Governor of Madras Lord Erskine in Feb 1940 who took over the reigns of administration removed Hindi as compulsory subject.

Question 2.
Throw light on the Madras Native Association or MNA. When did it cease to exist?
Answer:
(i) The Madras Native Association was the earliest organization to be founded in South India.
It was started by Gazulu Lakshminarasu, Srinivasanar and their associates in 1852. It con¬sisted primarily of merchants.

(ii) The objective of MNA was to promote the interests of its members and their focus was on reduction in taxation. It also protested against the support of the government to Christian missionary activities.

(iii) It drew attention of the government to the condition and needs of the people. Its main contribution was its agitation against torture of the peasants by revenue officials.

(iv) The efforts of MNA led to the establishment of the Torture Commission and the eventual abolition of the Torture Act, which justified the forcible collection of land revenue through tortuous methods.

(v) The Madras Native Association ceased to exist by 1862.

Question 3.
Reason out why James Neill statue was moved to Madras Museum.
Answer:

1. James Neill of the Madras Fusilers (Infantry men with fire arms) was brutal in wrecking vengence at Kanpur. Women and children were massacred in 1857 Revolt.
2. A statue was erected for him at mount road, Madras.
3. Nationalist felt this as an insult to Indian sentiments.
4. They organised a series of demonstrations in Madras.
5. Protesters came from all over the Madras Presidency and were led by S.N.Somayajulu of Tirunelveli.
6. Many were arrested and sentenced to prison.
7. Gandhi who visited Madras during the same time gave his support to the agitation.
8. The statue was finally moved to Madras Museum when Congress Ministry, led by C.Rajaji formed the Government in 1917.

IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEAR

Years	Events
1806	Vellore Mutiny
1852	Madras Native Association
1884	Madras Mahajana Sabha
1905	Partition of Bengal
1907	The congress session held at Surat
1908	Swaraj Day
1910	Abhinava Bharats Sangham
1911	Vanchinathan shot Ashe
1916	Home Rule League
1912	Madras Dravidian Association
1919	Gandhi addressed on Marina beach
1930	Vedaranyam march

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Carbon and its Compounds Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the best answer.

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 10 Samacheer Question 1.
The molecular formula of an open – chain organic compound is C₃H₆. The class of the compound is ______.
(a) alkane
(b) alkene
(c) alkyne
(d) alcohol.
Answer:
(b) alkene
Hint:
As we know the general molecular formula of alkene is C_nH_2n.
n = 2, C₂H₄
n = 3, C₃H₆
n = 4, C₄H₈

Carbon And Its Compounds Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
The IUPAC name of an organic compound is 3-Methyl butan-1-ol. What type of compound it is?
(a) Aldehyde
(b) Carboxylic acid
(c) Ketone
(d) Alcohol.
Answer:
(d) Alcohol
3-Methyl butan-1-ol

This compound contains -OH group, i.e. alcohol.

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 10 Hots Questions With Answers Question 3.
The secondary suffix used in IUPAC nomenclature of an aldehyde is ______.
(a) – ol
(b) – oic acid
(c) – al
(d) – one.
Answer:
(c) – al

Suffix ‘al’ is used to exhibit the aldehyde group.

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 10 Book Pdf Question 4.
Which of the following pairs can be the successive members of a homologous series?
(a) C₃H₈ and C₄H₁₀
(b) C₂H₂ and C₂H₄
(c) CH₄ and C₃H₆
(d) C₂H₅OH and C₄H₈OH
Answer:
(a) C₃H₈ and C₄H₁₀

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 10 In Tamil Question 5.
C₂H₅OH + 3O₂ → 2CO₂ + 3H₂O is a ______.
(a) Reduction of ethanol
(b) Combustion of ethanol
(c) Oxidation of ethanoic acid
(d) Oxidation of ethanol.
Answer:
(b) Combustion of ethanol
Hint: Above chemical reaction is an example of combustion reaction because it produces CO₂ and H₂O on the action of O₂.

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 10 Solutions Question 6.
Rectified spirit is an aqueous solution which contains about ………… of ethanol.
(a) 95.5%
(b) 15.5%
(c) 55.5%
(d) 45.5%
Answer:
(a) 95.5%

Class 10 Carbon And Its Compounds Solutions Question 7.
Which of the following are used as anaesthetics?
(a) Carboxylic acids
(b) Ethers
(c) Esters
(d) Aldehydes.
Answer:
(b) Ethers

Chapter Carbon And Its Compounds Class 10 Question 8.
TFM in soaps represents ………… content in soap.
(a) mineral
(b) vitamin
(c) fatty acid
(d) carbohydrate
Answer:
(c) fatty acid

Carbon And Its Compounds Pdf Question 9.
Which of the following statements is wrong about detergents?
(a) It is a sodium salt of long – chain fatty acids
(b) It is sodium salts of sulphonic acids
(c) The ionic part in a detergent is \(-\mathrm{SO}_{3}-\mathrm{Na}^{+}\)
(d) It is effective even in hard water.
Answer:
(a) It is a sodium salt of long-chain fatty acids
Hint: Detergents are not sodium salt of long – chain fatty acids. Actually soaps are sodium salts of long – chain fatty acids.

II. Fill in the blanks.

Carbon Compounds Question 1.
An atom or a group of atoms which is responsible for chemical characteristics of an organic compound is called ______.
Answer:
Functional group.

Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Extra Questions Question 2.
The general molecular formula of alkynes is ______.
Answer:
C_nH_2n-2.

Carbon And Its Compounds Worksheet With Answers Pdf Question 3.
In IUPAC name, the carbon skeleton of a compound is represented by ______ (root word / prefix / suffix)
Answer:
Root word.

Question 4.
______ compounds decolourize bromine water. (Saturated/Unsaturated)
Answer:
Unsaturated.

Question 5.
Dehydration of ethanol by concentrated Sulphuric acid forms ________ (ethene/ethane)
Answer:
Ethene.

Question 6.
100% pure ethanol is called ______.
Answer:
Absolute alcohol.

Question 7.
Ethanoic acid turns ________ litmus to ______.
Answer:
Blue, red.

Question 8.
The alkaline hydrolysis of fatty acids is termed as ______.
Answer:
Saponification.

Question 9.
Biodegradable detergents are made of ______ (branched / straight) chain hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Straight.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

i. Functional group –OH	a. Benzene
ii. Heterocyclic	b. Potassium stearate
iii. Unsaturated	c. Alcohol
iv. Soap	d. Furan
v. Carbocyclic	e. Ethene

Answer:
i – c, ii – d, iii – e, iv – b , iv – a.
Hint:
i. Alcohol (-OH) is a functional group.
ii. Furan is a heterocyclic compound because it contains an oxygen atom in the cyclic ring.
iii. Ethene contains a double bond, so it is unsaturated.
iv. Soap is potassium/sodium stearate.
v. Benzene is a six-membered carbon atom ring, so it is carbocyclic.

IV. Assertion and Reason.

Answer the following questions using the data given below:
(i) A and R are correct, R explains the A.
(ii) A is correct, R is wrong.
(iii) A is wrong, R is correct.
(iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explain A.

Question 1.
Assertion: Detergents are more effective cleansing agents than soaps in hard water.
Reason: Calcium and magnesium salts of detergents are water – soluble.
Answer:
(ii) A is correct, R is wrong.

Question 2.
Assertion: Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons.
Reason: Hydrocarbons consist of covalent bonds.
Answer:
(iv) A and R are correct, R doesn’t explain A.
Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons due to the presence of single bonds.

V. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Name the simplest ketone and give its structural formula.
Answer:
Simplest ketone contains three carbon atom chain with the molecular formula C₃H₆O.

Question 2.
Classify the following compounds based on the pattern of the carbon chain and give their structural formula:

1. Propane
2. Benzene
3. Cyclobutane
4. Furan.

Answer:

1. Propane is an open chain or a cyclic compound because it contains an open chain.
   CH₃-CH₃-CH₃ [Propane].
2. Benzene is a carbocyclic compound because it contains carbon atoms cyclic ring of 6 atoms.
   
3. Cyclobutane is a carbocyclic compound.
   
4. Furan is a heterocyclic compound because in the cyclic chain one atom is oxygen atom. HC – CH
   

Question 3.
How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation.
Answer:
Ethanoic acid can be prepared by oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate of acidified potassium dichromate.

Question 4.
How do detergents cause water pollution? Suggest remedial measures to prevent this pollution?
Answer:
(i) Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by microorganism present in water and they cause water pollution.
(ii) Remedial Action: We have to use biodegradable detergents which have linear hydrocarbon chains.

Question 5.
Differentiate soaps and detergents.
Answer:

Soaps	Detergents
1. It is a sodium salt of long – chain fatty acids.	1. It is a sodium salt of sulphonic acids.
2. Its effectiveness is reduced when used in hard water.	2. It is effective even in hard water.
3. Soaps are biodegradable.	3. Most of the detergents are non-biodegradable.

VI. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is called a homologous series? Give any three of its characteristics?
Answer:
A homologous series is a group or a class of organic compounds having same general formula and similar chemical properties in which the successive members differ by a -CH₂ group.
Characteristics of homologous series:

1. Each member of the series differs from the preceeding or succeeding member by one methylene group (-CH₂) and hence by a molecular mass of 14 amu.
2. All members of a homologous series contain the same elements and functional group.
3. They are represented by a general molecular formula. Eg: Alkanes, C₂H_2n+2.
4. The members in each homologous series show a regular gradation in their physical properties with respect to their increase in molecular mass.
5. Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar.
6. All the members can be prepared by a common method.

Question 2.
Arrive at, systematically, the IUPAC name of the compound: CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH.
Answer:

• Step 1: The parent chain consists of 4 carbon atoms. The root word is ‘but’.
• Step 2: All are single bonds between the carbon atoms of the chain. So the primary suffix is ‘ane’.
• Step 3: Since the compound contains the -OH group, it is an alcohol. The secondary suffix is ‘ol’.
  But + ane + ol = Butan-ol = Butanol.

Question 3.
How is ethanol manufactured from sugarcane?
Answer:
Fermentation method can be used to obtain ethanol from sugarcane. Actually, in industries, C₂H₅OH is prepared by the fermentation of molasses, which is a by – product obtained during the manufacture of sugar from sugarcane.
It is converted into ethanol by following steps:

• Dilution of molasses
• Addition of nitrogen source
• Addition of yeast
• Distillation of wash.

Chemical Reductions:

Question 4.
Give the balanced chemical equation of the follows ing reactions:
(i) Neutralization of NaOH with ethanoic acid.
(ii) Evolution of carbon dioxide by the action of ethanoic acid with NaHCO₃
(iii) Oxidation of ethanol by acidified potassium dichromate.
(iv) Combustion of ethanol.
Answer:

Question 5.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
(i) A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one non-polar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

(ii) The polar end is hydrophilic (Water loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

(iii) When a soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

VII. HOT Questions.

Question 1.
The molecular formula of an alcohol is C₄H₁₀O. The locant number of its -OH group is 2.
(i) Draw its structural formula.
(ii) Give its IUPAC name.
(iii) Is it saturated or unsaturated?
Answer:

the group is placed in the secondary carbon atom.

(ii) Butan-2-ol

(iii) In butan-2-al all bonds are single bonds. So, this is a saturated compound.

Question 2.
An organic compound ‘A’ is widely used as a preservative and has the molecular formula C₂H₄O₂. This compound reacts with ethanol to form a sweet – smelling compound ‘B’.

1. Identify the compound ‘A’.
2. Write the chemical equation for its reaction with ethanol to form compound ‘B’.
3. Name the process.

Answer:

1. Acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is widely used as a preservative.
2. CH₃COOH reacts with ethanol to form fruity smell ester, this reaction is known as an esterification reaction.
   
3. Esterification process.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Carbon and its Compounds Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
Most of the organic compounds are insoluble in ______.
(a) Ether
(b) CCl₄
(c) Toluene
(d) Water.
Answer:
(d) Water.

Question 2.
Which is/are unsaturated compounds among the following?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethene
(c) Propyne
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 4.
Pick out the saturated compound form the following ______.
(a) propane
(b) propene
(c) propyne
(d) butene.
Answer:
(a) propane

Question 4.
The alkane with six carbon atoms is known as:
(a) Propane
(b) Pentane
(c) Hexene
(d) Hexane
Answer:
(d) Hexane

Question 5.
Which one of the following is an example for the carbocyclic compound?
(a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Propane
(d) Furan.
Answer:
(d) Furan.

Question 6.
Structure of cyclobutane is ______.

Answer:

Question 7.
The general formula for ketones is written as:
(a) R – OH
(b) R-COOR
(c) ROR
(d) RCOR
Answer:
(d) RCOR

Question 8.
General formula for alkane is ______.
(a) C_nH_2n
(b) C_nH_2n+2
(c) C_nH_2n-2
(d) C_nH_n
Answer:
(b) C_nH_2n+2

Question 9.
Which one of the following is a general formula for an alkene?
(a) C_nH_2n
(b) C_nH_2n+2
(c) C_nH_2n-2
(d) C_nH_n
Answer:
(a) C_nH_2n

Question 10.
Hand sanitizers contain:
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethanal
(c) Ethanoic acid
(d) Ethane
Answer:
(a) Ethanol

Question 11.
Lower hydrocarbons are ______ state at room temperature.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gaseous
(d) viscous.
Answer:
(c) gaseous

Question 12.
Reagent which distinguishes alkane and alkene is ______.
(a) Br₂ / H₂O
(b) H₂O
(c) C₂H₅OH
(d) Ether.
Answer:
(a) Br₂ / H₂O

Question 13.
Pick out the functional group for alcohol ______.
(a) -CHO
(b) -COOH
(c) -OH
(d) -OR.
Answer:
(c) -OH

Question 14.
-COOH is a functional group of ______.
(a) carboxylic acid
(b) ester
(c) ether
(d) aldehyde.
Answer:
(a) carboxylic acid

Question 15.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence to get the IUPAC name of the cojnpound?
(a) Prefix + Root word + Suffix → IUPAC name
(b) Prefix + Suffix + Root word → IUPAC name
(c) Suffix + Root word + Prefix → IUPAC name
(d) Root word + Prefix + Suffix → IUPAC name.
Answer:
(a) Prefix + Root word + Suffix → IUPAC name

Question 16.
What is the root word, if the compound has nine number of carbon atoms?
(a) Meth-
(b) Oct-
(c) Non-
(d) Dec-.
Answer:
(c) Non-

Question 17.

(a) pentane
(b) 2-methyl pentane
(c) 4-methyl pentane
(d) 1, 1-dimethyl butane.
Answer:
(b) 2-methyl pentane

Question 18.
Dehydration of ethanol gives ______.
(a) Ethane
(b) Ethene
(c) Ethyne
(d) no reaction.
Answer:
(b) Ethene

Question 19.
Dehydration of ethanol gives ______.
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethanoic acid
(c) Ethyne
(d) Ethene.
Answer:
(a) Ethanol

Question 20.
Power alcohol is a mixture of ______.
(a) Ethanol + Methane
(b) Ethanol + water
(c) Ethanol + Petrol
(d) Ethanol + Pyridine.
Answer:
(c) Ethanol + Petrol

Question 21.
Which one of the following has sour in taste?
(a) Ethanol
(b) Ethanoic acid
(c) Ethanal
(d) Ethyne.
Answer:
(b) Ethanoic acid

Question 22.
Decarboxylation of ethanoic acid is ______.
(a) Ethane
(b) Methane
(c) Propane
(d) Ethanol.
Answer:
(b) Methane

Question 23.
______ compounds hold the key to plant and animal life on the earth.
(a) Sulphur
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Boron.
Answer:
(b) Carbon

Question 24.
All living organisms are made of ______ atoms.
(a) phosphorous
(b) sodium
(c) carbon
(d) sulphur.
Answer:
(c) carbon

Question 25.
Which of the following is not the characteristic of carbon?
(a) carbon form allotropes
(b) carbon is a tetravalent atom
(c) carbon is a metal
(d) catenation is possible in carbon.
Answer:
(c) carbon is a metal

Question 26.
Which one is the characteristic of carbon compounds?
(a) Carbon compounds have high melting and boiling point.
(b) Carbon compounds show isomerism.
(c) Carbon compounds are electrovalent compounds.
(d) Carboncompoundsarenotcombustible.
Answer:
(b) Carbon compounds show isomerism.

Question 27.
The hydrocarbons containing at least one carbon to carbon double bond are called ______.
(a) paraffin
(b) alkyne
(c) alkene
(d) alkane.
Answer:
(c) alkene

Question 28.
Decolourisation of bromine takes place in ______.
(a) CH₂ = CH₂
(b) CH₄
(c) CH₃ – CH₃
(d) CH₃ – CH₂OH.
Answer:
(a) CH₂ = CH₂

Question 29.
The hydrocarbons containing carbon to carbon triple bond are called ______.
(a) Alkane
(b) Alkyne
(c) Paraffin
(d) Alkene.
Answer:
(b) Alkyne

Question 30.
The IUPAC name of \(\mathrm{H}_{3} \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{2}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\) is ______.
(a) 2-butyne
(b) But-2-ene
(c) 1-butyne
(d) But-1-ene.
Answer:
(c) 1-butyne

Question 31.
The common name of methanoic acid is ______.
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Formic acid
(c) Propionic acid
(d) Butyric acid.
Answer:
(b) Formic acid

Question 32.
Molasses contains ______.
(a) 50 % glucose
(b) 90 % sucrose
(c) 30 % sucrose
(d) 50 % fructose.
Answer:
(c) 30 % sucrose

Question 33.
______ acts as food for yeast during the fermentation of molasses?
(a) Ammonium sulphate
(b) Dilute H₂SO₄
(c) Ammonium nitrate
(d) Quick lime.
Answer:
(a) Ammonium sulphate

Question 34.
The rectified spirit contains ______.
(a) 100 % ethanol
(b) 50 % ethanol + 50 % water
(c) 95.5 % ethanol and 4.5 % water
(d) Ethanol + pyridine.
Answer:
(c) 95.5 % ethanol and 4.5 % water

Question 35.
The enzyme used in the conversion of glucose into ethanol is ______.
(a) invertase
(b) maltase
(c) diastase
(d) zymase.
Answer:
(d) zymase.

Question 36.
100% pure ethanol is known as ______.
(a) power alcohol
(b) rectified spirit
(c) absolute alcohol
(d) denatured spirit.
Answer:
(c) absolute alcohol

Question 37.
Denatured spirit is obtained by mixing ethanol with ______.
(a) pyridine
(b) petrol
(c) methanol
(d) quicklime.
Answer:
(a) pyridine

Question 38.
The reaction has taken place when ethanol is heated with Conc. H₂SO₄ of 443K is ______.
(a) oxidation
(b) reduction
(c) intermolecular dehydration
(d) intramolecular dehydration.
Answer:
(d) intramolecular dehydration.

Question 39.
The reaction took place when ethanol is heated with Conc. H₂SO₄ at 413K is ______.
(a) intermolecular dehydration
(b) hydrogenation
(c) oxidation
(d) intramolecular dehydration.
Answer:
(a) intermolecular dehydration

Question 40.
Which reagent is used to identify alcohol consumed persons?
(a) CH₃COOH
(b) CaO
(c) K₂Cr₂O₇
(d) H₂SO₄
Answer:
(c) K₂Cr₂O₇

Question 41.
The reaction of ethanol with ethanoic acid in the presence of Conc. H₂SO₄ is known as ______.
(a) etherification
(b) esterification
(c) dehydrogenation
(d) dehydration.
Answer:
(b) esterification

Question 42.
Which reagent is used to convert ethanol to acetaldehyde?
(a) Conc.H₂SO₄
(b) Acidified
(c) Alkaline KMnO₄
(d) Copper.
Answer:
(d) Copper.

Question 43.
Which compound is used as an anti-freeze in automobile radiators?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Ethyl ethanoate
(c) Ethanol
(d) Acetaldehyde.
Answer:
(c) Ethanol

Question 44.
The organic compound used in cough syrups and in digestive syrups is ______.
(a) ethanoic acid
(b) ethyl ethanoate
(c) methanol
(d) ethanol.
Answer:
(d) ethanol.

Question 45.
The organic compound that depresses the central nervous system after consumption is ______.
(a) ethanol
(b) methanol
(c) acetic acid
(d) ethyl ethanoate.
Answer:
(b) methanol

Question 46.
The organic compound used for coagulating rubber from latex is ______.
(a) methanoic acid
(b) ethanoic acid
(c) ethanol
(d) methanol.
Answer:
(b) ethanoic acid

Question 47.
The alcohol that is poisonous in nature is ______.
(a) methanol
(b) ethanol
(c) benzyl alcohol
(d) phenol.
Answer:
(a) methanol

Question 48.
In a homologous series, the successive compounds differ by a ______ group.
(a) CH₂
(b) CH
(c) CH₃
(d) C₂H₅
Answer:
(a) CH₂

Question 49.
The fermented liquid wash contains ____ % alcohol.
(a) 90
(b) 8 – 25
(c) 15 – 18
(d) 40 – 60.
Answer:
(c) 15 – 18

Question 50.
Carbon has the ability to form ______ bonds.
(a) ionic
(b) covalent
(c) electrovalent
(d) dative.
Answer:
(b) covalent

Question 51.
Decarboxylation is removal of ______.
(a) CO
(b) CO₂
(c) H₂
(d) \(\mathrm{CO}_{3}^{-}\).
Answer:
(b) CO₂

Question 52.
The enzyme used in the conversion of molasses into glucose and fructose is ______.
(a) zymase
(b) diastase
(c) invertase
(d) maltase.
Answer:
(c) invertase

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
Organic compounds are _____ reactive.
Answer:
Less.

Question 2.
The reaction involving organic compounds proceed at ______ rates.
Answer:
Slower.

Question 3.
Organic compounds form ____ bonds in nature.
Answer:
Covalent.

Question 4.
If organic compounds contain carbon and other atoms like O, N, S etc., these compounds are called ______.
Answer:
Heterocyclic compounds.

Question 5.
The organic compounds that are composed of only carbon and hydrogen atoms are called ______.
Answer:
Hydrocarbons.

Question 6.
Alkynes are the most reactive due to the presence of the ______.
Answer:
Triple bond.

Question 7.
A series of compounds containing the same functional group is called ______.
Answer:
Class of organic compounds.

Question 8.
______ is used as an anti-freeze in automobile radiators.
Answer:
Ethanol.

Question 9.
Vanilla beans solution is made up of ______ and ______.
Answer:
Ethanol, water.

Question 10.
Soda – lime is a mixture of ______.
Answer:
3 parts of NaOH(s) + 1 part of CaO(s).

Question 11.
_____ is used as a flavouring agent and preservative.
Answer:
Ethanoic acid.

Question 12.
Formaldehyde is used as a ______.
Answer:
Disinfectant.

Question 13.
______ is a Anaesthetic agent.
Answer:
Ethers.

Question 14.
All the cooking oils and lipids contain ______.
Answer:
Esters.

Question 15.
The most commonly used alkali for preparation of soap is ______.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide.

Question 16.
______ process helps to manufacture of soap.
Answer:
Kettle.

Question 17.
________ are salts of sulphonic acids.
Answer:
Detergents.

Question 18.
When soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ______.
Answer:
Micelles.

Question 19.
A soap which has ______ TFM is a good bathing soap.
Answer:
Higher.

Question 20.
______ is present in many fruits.
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 21.
______ are sodium salts of long-chain carboxylic acids.
Answer:
Soap.

Question 22.
Unsaturated carbon compounds undergo _____ reactions whereas saturated carbon compounds undergo ______ reactions.
Answer:
Addition, substitution.

Question 23.
Each member of the homologous series differ from the succeeding member by a common difference of _____ and by a molecular mass of ______.
Answer:
CH₂, 14 amu.

Question 24.
Saturated hydrocarbons were earlier named as ______ and by IUPAC system they are named as ______.
Answer:
Paraffin, Alkanes.

Question 25.
Alkenes have the general formula ______ and they were previously called ______.
Answer:
C_nH_2n, olefins.

Question 26.
The slow chemical change that takes place in complex organic compounds by the action of _______ leading to the formation of simple molecules is called ______.
Answer:
Enzymes, fermentation.

Question 27.
A mixture contains 95.5% ethanol and 4.5% water is called ______ and 100% pure ethanol is called ______.
Answer:
Rectified spirit, absolute alcohol.

Question 28.
Ethanol when heated with Conc. H₂SO₄ at 443K gives ______ and at 413K gives ______ as products.
Answer:
Ethene, diethyl ether.

Question 29.
During the oxidation of ethanol with acidified K₂Cr₂O₇, the _____ colour changes to ______ colour.
Answer:
Orange, green.

Question 30.
The compound formed by the reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid is known as ______ and the reaction is called ______.
Answer:
Ester, esterification.

Question 31.
______ is used as a preservative for biological specimens and ______ is used as a preventative in food and fruit juices.
Answer:
Ethanol, Ethanoic acid.

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. CnH2n+2	(a) Alkene
2. CnH2n	(b) Alcohol
3. CnH2n-2	(c) Alkane
4. ROH	(d) Alkyne

Answer:
1. (c), 2. (a), 3. (d), 4. (b).

Question 2.

1. CH3 – CH2OH	(a) Ethanal
2. CH3 – COOH	(b) Ethanol
3. CH3 – CHO	(c) Propanone
	(d) Ethanoic acid

Answer:
1. (b), 2. (d), 3. (a), 4. (c).

Question 3.

1. Methylated spirit	(a) Ethanol + water
2. Power alcohol	(b) Ethanol + pyridine
3. Denatured spirit	(c) Ethanol + petrol
4. Rectified spirit	(d) Ethanol + methanol

Answer:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (b), 4. (a).

Question 4.

Compound	Common Name	IUPAC Name
CH2 = CH2	Acetylene	Butane
\(\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}\)	n-butane	Ethene
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3	Dimethyl acetylene	Ethyne
\(\mathrm{CH} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)	Ethylene	2 – butyne

Answer:

Compound	Common Name	IUPAC Name
CH2 = CH2	Ethylene	Ethene
\(\mathrm{CH}_{3}-\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{C}-\mathrm{CH}_{3}\)	Dimethyl acetylene	2 – butyne
CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH3	n-butane	Butane
\(\mathrm{CH} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)	Acetylene	Ethyne

Question 5.

1. Alcohol	(a) >C = O
2. Aldehyde	(b) -COOH
3. Ketone	(c) -CHO
4. Carboxylic acid	(d) -HO

Answer:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (b).

Question 6.

1. Ethene	(a) C3H4
2. Ethane	(b) C3H6
3. Propyne	(c) C2H4
4. Propene	(d) C2H6

Answer:
1. (c), 2. (d), 3. (a), 4. (b).

Question 7.

1. CH3OH	(a) Dimethyl Ketone
2. CH3CHO	(b) Acetic acid
3. CH3COCH3	(c) Acetaldehyde
4. CH3COOH	(d) Methyl alcohol

Answer:
1. (d), 2. (c), 3. (a), 4. (b).

Question 8.

Common Name	Formula
1. Methane	(a) CH3CH2CH2CH3
2. Ethane	(b) CH3CH2CH3
3. Propane	(c) CH4
4. n-Butane	(d) CH3CH3

Answer:
1. (c), 2 .(d), 3. (b), 4. (a).

Question 9.

1. Acyclic compounds	(a) Cyclobutene
2. Alicyclic compounds	(b) Ethene
3. Homocyclic aromatic compounds	(c) Pyridine
4. Heterocyclic compounds	(d) Benzene

Answer:
1. (b), 2. (a), 3. (d), 4. (c).

Question 10.

1. Sodium silicate	(a) glow to the clothes
2. Fluorescent whitening agent	(b) removal of certain stains
3. Sodium perborate	(c) prevent the caking of the detergent powder
4. Sodium sulphate	(d) prevents corrosion

Answer:
1. (d), 2. (a), 3. (b), 4. (c).

IV. State True or False. If false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Carbon circulates through air, plants, animals and soil by means of complex reactions is called the Kreb cycle.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Carbon circulates through air, plants, animals and soil by means of complex reactions is called the carbon cycle.

Question 2.
Carbon atoms form the building blocks of living organisms.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The characteristics of a carbon atom by virtue of which it forms four covalent bonds are referred to as catenation.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The characteristic of a carbon atom by virtue of which it forms four covalent bonds is referred to as tetravalency of carbon.

Question 4.
Carbon compounds show isomerism and possess the characteristic property catenation.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Carbon compounds have high melting and boiling points because of their electrovalent nature.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points because of their covalent nature.

Question 6.
Alcohols react with sodium metal to liberate oxygen gas.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Alcohols react with sodium metal to liberate hydrogen gas.

Question 7.
All members of each homologous series contain different elements and different functional groups.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: All members of each homologous series contain the same elements and same functional groups.

Question 8.
The chemical properties of the members of each homologous series are similar.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Decolourisation of bromine takes place in saturated compounds.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Decolourisation of bromine takes place in unsaturated compounds.

Question 10.
Molasses is a dark coloured syrupy liquid left after the crystallization of sugar from sugarcane juice.
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Rectified spirit on heating with Cone. H₂SO₄ for about 5 to 6 hours and allowed to stand for 12 hours to get absolute alcohol.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Rectified spirit on heating with quicklime for about 5 to 6 hours and allowed to stand for 12 hours to get absolute alcohol.

Question 12.
Ethanol is a clear liquid with burning taste whereas ethanoic acid is a colourless liquid with a sour taste.
Answer:
True.

Question 13.
Ethanol affects the optic nerve causing blindness.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Methanol affects the optic nerve causing blindness.

Question 14.
Consumption of ethanol slows down the metabolism of our body and depresses the central nervous system.
Answer:
True.

Question 15.
On cooling, pure ethanol is frozen to form ice – like flakes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: On cooling, pure ethanoic acid is frozen to form ice – like flakes.

Question 16.
Methanol is oxidised to methanal in the liver and reacts with components of cells.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
Removal of carbon dioxide is known as dehydrogenation.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Removal of carbon dioxide is known as decarboxylation.

Question 18.
Organic compounds have a high molecular weight and a simple structure.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Organic compounds have a high molecular weight and a complex structure.

Question 19.
The organic compound is less reactive than inorganic compounds.
Answer:
True.

Question 20.
Answer:
Organic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Organic compounds have low melting and boiling points.

Question 21.
Furan is a carbocyclic compound.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Furan is a heterocyclic compound.

Question 22.
The boiling point of hydrocarbons increases with an increase in the number of carbon atoms.
Answer:
True.

Question 23.
Saturated compounds, decolourise the bromine water.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:

• Unsaturated compounds, decolourise the bromine water.
• Saturated compounds do not decolourise bromine water.

Question 24.
Chemical properties of the members of a homologous series are similar.
Answer:
True.

Question 25.
IUPAC stands for International Union of Pure and Analytical Chemistry.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: IUPAC stands for International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

Question 26.
Hard soaps are used for cleaning the body.
False.
Correct statement: Soft soaps are used for cleaning the body.

Question 27.
Hard water limits the cleaning action of soap.
Answer:
True.

Question 28.
Soap forms a scum in hard water.
Answer:
True.

Question 29.
Soap has greater foaming capacity.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Soap has a poor foaming capacity.

Question 30.
Most of the detergents are biodegradable.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Most of the detergents are non-biodegradable.

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Carbon compounds hold the key to plant and animal life on the earth.
Reason (R): Carbon circulates through air, plants, animals and soil by means of complex reactions.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Carbon chemistry is called as living chemistry.
Reason (R): The carbon atoms form the building blocks of living organisms and carbon combined with other atoms decide life on earth.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion(A): C⁴⁺ cation formation is easy.
Reason (R): Carbon can lose four electrons to form C⁴⁺ cation require less amount of energy.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Methane is formed when four electrons of carbon are shared with four hydrogen atoms.
Reason (R): This characteristic of a carbon atom by virtue of which it forms four covalent bonds is referred to as tetra valency of carbon.
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(a) (A) is correct and (R) explains (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Diamond is a rigid substance and it is very hard.
Reason (R): In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same place giving hexagonal layers held together by weak van der Waals forces.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)

Question 6.
Assertion (A): Graphite is a good conductor of electricity, unlike other non – metals.
Reason (R): Graphite has free electrons in it.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct

Question 7.
Assertion (A): Carbon combines with many other elements to form various stable compounds.
Reason (R): The stability of carbon compounds is due to the small size of carbon which enables the nucleus to hold on to the shared pair of electrons strongly.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct.

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Carbon compounds have low melting and boiling points and they are easily combustible.
Reason (R): Carbon compounds are electrovalent compounds.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Answer:
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Ethanol has a much higher boiling point than ethane.
Reason (R): Presence of hydrogen bond in a molecule increases the boiling point.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) doesn’t explain (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Hard water limits the cleaning action of soap.
Reason (R): When combined with soap, hard water develops a thin layer.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)
(b) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong
(c) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) doesn’t explain (A).
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) explains (A)

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How will you test to identify saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:
Test to identify saturated and unsaturated compounds:

• Take the given sample solution in a test tube.
• Add a few drops of bromine water and observe any characteristic change in colour.
• If the given compound is unsaturated, it will decolourise bromine water.
• Saturated compounds do not decolourise bromine.
  

Question 2.
What is a functional group?
Answer:
A functional group is an atom or group of atoms in a molecule, which gives its characteristic chemical properties.

Question 3.
What is a locant number?
Answer:
Number the carbon atoms of the parent chain, beginning at the closest end of the substituent or functional group. These are called locant numbers.

Question 4.
Obtain the IUPAC name of the following compounds systematically.
(i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃

Answer:
(i) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃

• Step 1: It is a five-carbon chain and hence the root word is ‘Pent’. (Rule 1)
• Step 2: All the bonds between carbon atoms are single bonds, and thus the suffix is ‘ane’. So, its name is Pent + ane = Pentane

• Step 1: The longest chain contains five carbon atoms and hence the root word is ‘Pent’.
• Step 2: There is a substituent. So, the carbon chain is numbered from the left end, which is closest to the substituent. (Rule 2)
  
• Step 3: All are single bonds between the carbon atoms and thus the suffix is ‘ane’.
• Step 4: A substituent is a methyl group and it is located at a second carbon atom. So, its locant number is 2. Thus the prefix is ‘2-Methyl’.(Rule 6).
  The name of the compound is 2-Methyl + pent + ane = 2-Methylpentane

Question 5.
Mention the uses of ethanol?
Answer:

• Ethanol is used in medical wipes, as an antiseptic.
• Ethanol is used as an antifreeze in automobile radiators.
• Ethanol is used for effectively killing microorganisms like bacteria, fungi, etc., by including it in many hand sanitizers.
• Ethanol is used as an antiseptic to sterilize wounds in hospitals.
• Ethanol is used as a solvent for drugs, oils, fats, perfumes, dyes, etc.
• Ethanol is used in the preparation of methylated spirit (a mixture of 95 % of ethanol and 5 % of methanol) rectified spirit (a mixture of 95.5 % of ethanol and 4.5 % of water), power alcohol (a mixture of petrol and ethanol) and denatured spirit (ethanol mixed with pyridine).
• Ethanol is used to enhance the flavour of food extracts, for example, vanilla extract; a common food flavour, which is made by processing vanilla beans in a solution of ethanol and water.

Question 6.
What is a decarboxylation reaction?
Answer:
When a sodium salt of ethanoic acid is heated with soda lime (a solid mixture of 3 parts of NaOH and 1 part of CaO), methane gas is formed. During this reaction, the CO₂ molecule is eliminated. Therefore, this reaction is called a decarboxylation reaction.

Question 7.
What is soap?
Answer:
Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of some long-chain carboxylic acids, called fatty acids. Soap requires two major raw materials:

• fat
• alkali.

Question 8.
|What are the two types of soaps? Explain.
Answer:

1. Hard Soap : Soaps, which are prepared by the saponification of oils or fats with caustic soda (sodium hydroxide), are known as hard soaps. They are usually used for washing purposes.
2. Soft Soap : Soaps, which are prepared by the saponification of oils or fats with potassium salts, are known as soft soaps. They are used for cleansing the body.

Question 9.
What is soft soap?
Answer:
Soaps, which are prepared by the saponification of oils or fats with potassium salts, are known as soft soaps. They are used for cleansing the body.

Question 10.
What are the disadvantages of detergents?
Answer:

1. Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-organisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
2. They are relatively more expensive than soap.

Question 11.
What are biodegradable and non-biodegradable detergents?
Answer:

1. Biodegradable detergents: They have straight hydrocarbon chains, which can be easily degraded by bacteria.
2. Non – biodegradable detergents: They have highly branched hydrocarbon chains, which cannot be degraded by bacteria.

Question 12.
Mention the disadvantages of detergents.
Answer:

1. Some detergents having a branched hydrocarbon chain are not fully biodegradable by micro-organisms present in water. So, they cause water pollution.
2. They are relatively more expensive than soap.

Question 13.
What is catenation?
Answer:
Carbon has the ability to form covalent bonds with other atoms of carbon giving rise to a large number of molecules through self linking property. This property is called catenation.

Question 14.
Define isomerism. Give a suitable example.
Answer:
The phenomenon by which two or more compounds have the same molecular formula but different structural formula with the difference in properties is known as isomerism.
C₂H₆O. This molecular formula has two isomeric structures.

1. C₂H₅OH → Ethyl alcohol
2. CH₃ – O – CH₃ → Dimethyl ether

Question 15.
How will you differentiate saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbon compounds?
Answer:

Saturated hydrocarbon	Unsaturated hydrocarbon
Saturated hydrocarbon undergoes substitution reactions in the presence of sunlight.	Unsaturated hydrocarbon undergoes an addition reaction with hydrogen in the presence of nickel catalyst.
Saturated hydrocarbon does not decolourise bromine water.	Unsaturated hydrocarbon decolourise bromine water.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
All living organisms are made of carbon atoms. This means that carbon atoms form the building blocks of living organisms. Justify this statement by giving physical nature of carbon and its compounds.
Answer:
Physical nature of carbon and its compounds.

1. Carbon has the ability to form covalent bonds with other atoms of carbon giving rise to a large number of molecules through self linking property which is called catenation.
2. Carbon combines with oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen sulphur, chlorine and many other elements to form various stable compounds.
3. The stability of carbon compounds is due to the small size of carbon which enables the nucleus to hold on to the shared pair of electrons strongly.
4. Carbon compounds show isomerism, the phenomenon by which two or more compounds have the same molecular formula but different structural formula with the difference in properties.
5. Carbon compounds have low boiling points and low melting points because of their covalent nature.
6. Carbon compounds are easily combustible.

Question 2.
Explain the preparation of detergents with their ingredients.
Answer:
Detergents are prepared by adding sulphuric acid to the processed hydrocarbon obtained from petroleum. This chemical reaction result in the formation of molecules similar to the fatty acid in soap. Then, an alkali is added to the mixture to produce the ‘surfactant molecules’, which do not bond with the minerals present in the hard water, thus preventing the formation of their precipitates.

In addition to a ‘surfactant’, the modem detergent contains several other ingredients. They are listed as follows:

1. Sodium silicate, which prevents the corrosion and ensures that the detergent does not damage the washing machine.
2. Fluorescent whitening agents that give a glow to the clothes.
3. Oxygen bleaches, such as ‘sodium perborate’,enable the removal of certain stains from the cloth.
4. Sodium sulphate is added to prevent the caking of the detergent powder.
5. Enzymes are added to break down some stains caused by biological substances like blood and vegetable juice.
6. Certain chemicals that give out a pleasant smell are also added to make the clothes fragrant after they are washed with detergents.

Question 3.
Explain the classification of organic compounds.
Answer:

Question 4.
Discuss the characteristics of hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Characteristics of hydrocarbons:

1. Lower hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature E.g. methane, ethane is gassed.
2. They are colourless and odourless.
3. The boiling point of hydrocarbons increases with an increase in the number of carbon atoms.
4. They undergo combustion reaction with oxygen to form CO₂ and water.
5. Alkanes are least reactive when compared to other classes of hydrocarbons.
6. Alkynes are the most reactive due to the presence of the triple bond.
7. Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated.
8. They are insoluble in water.

Question 5.
Identify the compounds using the clues given below.
(a) This is a dark coloured syrupy liquid containing 30% of sucrose.
Answer:
Molasses.

(b) During manufacture of ethanoic acid this acts as an oxidising agent.
Answer:
Alkaline KMnO₄ or acidified K₂Cr₂O₇.

(c) This enzyme converts sucrose into glucose and fructose.
Answer:
Invertase

(d) Ethanol on dehydrogenation with Cu/573K gives this compound.
Answer:
Ethanal

(e) This compound is used as an antiseptic.
Answer:
Ethanol

VIII. HOT Questions

Question 1.
An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O reacts with sodium metal and liberates H₂ gas. (A) on reaction with alkaline KMnO₄ gives (B) of formula C₂H₆O₂. The sodium salt of (B) on reaction with soda lime gives (C) a first member of alkane homologous series. Identify A, B, and C.
Answer:
(i) (A) is Ethanol: CH₃ – CH₂OH.
Ethanol reacts with sodium metal and liberates H₂ gas.

(ii) Ethanol on reaction with alkaline KMnO₄, oxidation takes place and the product formed is Ethanoic acid, CH₃COOH. It is (B).

(iii) The sodium salt of ethanoic acid on reaction with soda lime (NaOH + CaO) undergo decarboxylation reaction to give methane CH₄ (C) the first member of alkane homologous series.

Question 2.
In what way yeast is important in the fermentation process?
Answer:
Yeasts are single-celled microorganisms, belonging to the class of fungi. The enzymes present in yeasts catalyse many complex organic reactions. Fermentation is the conversion of complex organic molecules into simpler molecules by the action of enzymes. E.g. Curdling of milk.

Question 3.
Write and explain the reaction that can be used for the identification of alcohols.
Answer:
Oxidation reaction: Ethanol is oxidized to ethanoic acid with alkaline KMnO₄ or acidified K₂Cr₂O₇

During this reaction, the orange colour of K₂Cr₂O₇ changes to green. Therefore, this reaction can be used for the identification of alcohols.

Question 4.
How dirt is washed away with the soap?
Answer:
When soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called micelles. Their long hydrocarbon chain attaches themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end to the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus the dirt is washed away with the soap.

Question 5.
Why ordinary soap is not suitable for use with hard water?
Answer:
Ordinary soaps when treated with hard water, precipitate as salts of calcium and magnesium. They appear at the surface of the cloth as sticky grey scum. Thus, the soaps cannot be used conveniently in hard water.

Test Yourself

Question 1.
Obtain the IUPAC name of the following compounds systematically.
(i) CH₃CHO
(ii) CH₃CH₂COCH₃
(iii) ClCH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
(i) CH₃CHO

• Step 1: The parent chain consists of 2 carbon atoms. The root word is “Eth”.
• Step 2: All are single bonds between the carbon atom of the chain. So the primary suffix is “ane”.
• Step 3: Since the compound contains the – CHO group, it is an aldehyde. The secondary suffix is “al”.
  The name of the compound is Eth + ane + al = Ethanal

(ii) CH₃CH₂COCH₃

• Step 1: The parent chain consists of 4 carbon atoms. The root word is “But”.
• Step 2: All are single bonds between the carbon atom of the chain. So the primary suffix is “ane”.
• Step 3: Since the compound contains the – CO – group, it is a ketone group. The secondary suffix is “one”.
  The name of the compound is But + ane + one = Butanone

(iii) ClCH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃

• Step 1: The parent chain consists of 4 carbon atoms. The root word is “But”.
• Step 2: All are single bonds between the carbon atom of the chain. So the suffix is “ane”.
• Step 3: Since the compound contains the – Cl substituent. The prefix is Chloro.
• Step 4: The locant number of – Cl is 1 and thus prefix is 1-Chloro.
  The name of the compound is 1-Chloro + Butane = 1-Chlorobutane.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.3

10th Samacheer Maths Exercise 2.3 Solutions Question 1.
Find the least positive value of x such that
(i) 71 ≡ x (mod 8)
(ii) 78 + x ≡ 3 (mod 5)
(iii) 89 ≡ (x + 3) (mod 4)
(iv) 96 = \(\frac{x}{7}\) (mod 5)
(v) 5x ≡ 4 (mod 6)
Solution:
To find the least value of x such that
(i) 71 ≡ x (mod 8)
71 ≡ 7 (mod 8)
∴ x = 7.[ ∵ 71 – 7 = 64 which is divisible by 8]

(ii) 78 + x ≡ 3 (mod 5)
⇒ 78 + x – 3 = 5n for some integer n.
75 + x = 5 n
75 + x is a multiple of 5.
75 + 5 = 80. 80 is a multiple of 5.
Therefore, the least value of x must be 5.

(iii) 89 ≡ (x + 3) (mod 4)
89 – (x + 3) = 4n for some integer n.
86 – x = 4 n
86 – x is a multiple of 4.
∴ The least value of x must be 2 then
86 – 2 = 84.
84 is a multiple of 4.
∴ x value must be 2.

(iv) 96 ≡ \(\frac{x}{7}\) (mod 5)
96 – \(\frac{x}{7}\) = 5n for some integer n.
\(\frac { 672-x }{ 7 } \) = 5n
672 – x = 35n.
672 – x is a multiple of 35.
∴ The least value of x must be 7 i.e. 665 is a multiple of 35.

(v) 5x ≡ 4 (mod 6)
5x – 4 = 6M for some integer n.
5x = 6n + 4
x = \(\frac { 6n+4 }{ 5 } \)
When we put 1, 6, 11, … as n values in x = \(\frac { 6n+4 }{ 5 } \) which is divisible by 5.
When n = 1, x = \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 } \) = 2
When n = 6, x = \(\frac { 36+4 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 40 }{ 5 } \) = 8 and so on.
∴ The solutions are 2, 8, 14…..
∴ Least value is 2.

10th Maths Exercise 2.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
If x is congruent to 13 modulo 17 then 7x – 3 is congruent to which number modulo 17?
Answer:
Given x ≡ 13 (mod 17) ……(1)
7x – 3 ≡ a (mod 17) ……..(2)
From (1) we get
x- 13 = 17 n (n may be any integer)
x – 13 is a multiple of 17
∴ The least value of x = 30
From (2) we get
7(30) – 3 ≡ a(mod 17)
210 – 3 ≡ a(mod 17)
207 ≡ a (mod 17)
207 ≡ 3(mod 17)
∴ The value of a = 3

Ex 2.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Solve 5x ≡ 4 (mod 6)
Solution:
5x ≡ 4 (mod 6)
5x – 4 = 6M for some integer n.
5x = 6n + 4
x = \(\frac{6 n+4}{5}\) where n = 1, 6, 11,…..
∴ x = 2, 8, 14,…

10th Maths Exercise 2.3 In Tamil Question 4.
Solve 3x – 2 ≡ 0 (mod 11)
Solution:
3x – 2 ≡ 0 (mod 11)
3x – 2 = 11 n for some integer n.
3x = 11n + 2

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Question 5.
What is the time 100 hours after 7 a.m.?
Solution:
100 ≡ x (mod 12) (∵7 comes in every 12 hrs)
100 ≡ 4 (mod 12) (∵ Least value of x is 4)
∴ The time 100 hrs after 7 O’ clock is 7 + 4 = 11 O’ clock i.e. 11 a.m

10th Maths Exercise 2.3 Question 6.
What is time 15 hours before 11 p.m.?
Answer:
15 ≡ x (mod 12)
15 ≡ 3 (mod 12)
The value of x must be 3.

The time 15 hours before 11 o’clock is (11 – 3) 8 pm

10th Maths Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Today is Tuesday. My uncle will come after 45 days. In which day my uncle will be coming?
Solution:
No. of days in a week = 7 days.
45 ≡ x (mod 7)
45 – x = 7n
45 – x is a multiple of 7.
∴ Value of x must be 3.
∴ Three days after Tuesday is Friday. Uncle will come on Friday.

Exercise 2.3 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 8.
Prove that 2ⁿ + 6 × 9n is always divisible by 7 for any positive integer n.
Answer:
9 = 2 (mod 7)
9ⁿ = 2ⁿ (mod 7) and 2ⁿ = 2ⁿ (mod 7)
2ⁿ + 6 × 9ⁿ = 2ⁿ (mod 7) + 6 [2ⁿ (mod 7)]
= 2ⁿ (mod 7) + 6 × 2ⁿ (mod 7)
7 × 2ⁿ (mod 7)
It is always divisible for any positive integer n

10th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Question 9.
Find the remainder when 2⁸¹ is divided by 17.
Solution:
2⁸¹ ≡ x (mod 17)
2⁴⁰ × 2⁴⁰ × 2⁴¹ ≡ x (mod 17)
(2⁴)¹⁰ × (2⁴)¹⁰ × 2¹ ≡ x (mod 17)
(16)¹⁰ × (16)¹⁰ × 2 ≡ x(mod 17)
(16⁵)² × (16⁵)² × 2
(16⁵) ≡ 16 (mod 17)
(16⁵)² ≡ 16² (mod 17)
(16⁵)² ≡ 256 (mod 17)
≡ 1 (mod 17) [∵ 255 is divisible by 17]
(16⁵)² × (16⁵)² × 2 ≡ 1 × 1 × 2 (mod 17)
∴ 2⁸¹ ≡ 2(mod 17)
∴ x = 2

Maths Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
The duration of flight travel from Chennai to London through British Airlines is approximately 11 hours. The aeroplane begins its journey on Sunday at 23:30 hours. If the time at Chennai is four and a half hours ahead to that of London’s time, then find the time in London, when will the flight lands at London Airport.
Solution:
The duration of the flight from Chennai to London is 11 hours.
Starting time at Chennai is 23.30 hrs. = 11.30 p.m.
Travelling time = 11.00 hrs. = 22.30 hrs = 10.30 a.m.
Chennai is \(4 \frac{1}{2}\) hrs ahead to London.
= 10.30 – 4.30 = 6.00
∴ At 6 a.m. on Monday the flight will reach at London Airport.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.3

10th Maths Exercise 6.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
From the top of a rock 50\(\sqrt{3}\) m high, the angle of depression of a car on the ground is observed to be 30°. Find the distance of the car from the rock.
Solution:

Ex 6.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
The horizontal distance between two buildings is 70 m. The angle of depression of the top of the first building when seen from the top of the second building is 45°. If the height of the second building is 120 m, find the height of the first building.
Solution:


∴ The height of the first building is 50m.

10th Maths 6.3 Question 3.
From the top of the tower 60 m high the angles of depression of the top and bottom of a vertical lamp post are observed to be 38° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the lamp post, (tan 38° = 0.7813, \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:

From the figure,

∴ The height of the lamp post = CE
CE = BD = 60 – 27.064 = 32.93 m.

10th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.3 Question 4.
An aeroplane at an altitude of 1800 m finds that two boats are sailing towards it in the same direction. The angles of depression of the boats as observed from the aeroplane are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the distance between the two boats. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:


Distance between the boats = 1200\(\sqrt{3}\) m
= 2078.4 m

10th Maths Exercise 6.3 Question 5.
From the top of a lighthouse, the angle of depression of two ships on the opposite sides of it are observed to be 30° and 60°. If the height of the lighthouse is h meters and the line joining the ships passes through the foot of the lighthouse, show that the distance between the ships is \(\frac{4 h}{\sqrt{3}}\) m.
Solution:

It is proved.

10th Maths Exercise 6.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
A lift in a building of height 90 feet with transparent glass walls is descending from the top of the building. At the top of the building, the angle of depression to a fountain in the garden is 60°. Two minutes later, the angle of depression reduces to 30°. If the fountain is \(30 \sqrt{3}\) feet from the entrance of the lift, find the speed of the lift which is descending.
Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Letter Writing

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Letters are the most common forms of written communication. Writing letters is an art and it is mastered through practice. We write letters to friends and relatives to maintain contacts with them. However, in the present times with the boom in methods of communication, many of us don’t have the time or the inclination, or the temperament and the art to write letters.

So telephone, fax, and e-mail have replaced personal (informal) letters. However, formal ‘ letters are still in vogue. Commerce, trade, official correspondence, public representation, complaints, and other dealings, transactions, and communication with the people are still (conducted through letters. Students are therefore advised to cultivate the art and skill of letter writing. It must be remembered that different kinds of letters follow different conventions. So, the format should suit the type.

INFORMAL LETTERS
These are ordinary personal letters and informal invitations written to relatives, friends, and acquaintances. The main characteristics of informal letters are:

• These letters are first/second person presentations.
• Personal feelings and emotions find an expression,
• The writer’s address is given in the usual place.
• The salutation is usually‘Dear’plus name’.
• The date of writing is given, but the year is generally omitted.
• The style and tone are relaxed and informal.
• Different tenses are used as sense demands.
• The complimentary close is: ‘Yours lovingly’or‘Yours truly’.

FORMAL LETTERS
A formal letter is different from a personal letter in tone and content. These letters are written for official purposes or commercial correspondence, so they must be systematic, specific in content and formal in treatment of the subject. The main features of formal letters are:

• The matter is brief, clear and to the point.
• There are separate paragraphs for separate topics.
• The first paragraph indicates the theme of the letter,
• The facts are stated in simple and direct language.
• Long and high sounding words are avoided.
• Even while lodging a complaint or making a criticism, the tone should be polite.
• Clumsy expressions should not be used.
• The complimentary close is: ‘Yours sincerely’, or ‘Yours faithfully’.

FORMAT/LAYOUT OF A FORMAL LETTER
08th March, 20XX
From
XXX
Sender’s Address & Phone No.

To THE DIRECTOR Addressee’s Address ………………………………. ……………………………….

Respected Sir/Madam,
SUB: Frequent Power Failure

Body of the Letter

Thank you,
Yours sincerely,
XXX

To The Director ………………………………. ……………………………….

Note: There is no punctuation after From and To Thank you has been used instead of Thanking you

Types Of Formal Letters
A. BUSINESS LETTERS

• Making enquiries/asking for information
• Replying to enquiries/giving information
• Placing orders and sending replies
• Cancelling orders
• Letters of complaints

B. OFFICIAL LETTERS

• Registering complaints regarding civic amenities, law & order, etc.
• Making inquiries pertaining to development projects, health facilities, etc.
• Making requests/appeals

C. LETTER TO THE EDITOR

• Giving suggestions on an issue (usually of public interest)
• Expressing views on an issue already raised in an article/write – up/in a published letter

D. LETTER OF APPLICATION

• Applications for jobs

Solved Questions
Informal Letter
(i) Write a letter to your mother informing her that your vacations will be starting on 15th April and will reach home on 16th of April.
Answer:

Chennai
02.04.2020

Dear mother,
I’m fine. I hope all are fine at home. My vacations are starting on the 15th of April and I’ll reach home the next day. Please prepare my favorite dishes mom. Counting days to be home. Love you ma.

Yours lovingly,
XYZ

To
Mrs. Malathi
12, MG Road,
Trichy

(ii) Radhika has got success in NEET. She wants to celebrate her admission to Shivaji Medical College, Nagpur by throwing a party to her friends. Help her write an informal invitation giving details of venue, time and date. Do not exceed 50 words.

18, Natesan Street,
T. Nager,
15th July, 20XX

Dear Vaishali,
You will be glad to learn that I have secured 80th rank in the NEET competition. I have got admission in a prestigious institution – Shivaji College, Nagpur. I want to share a few happy moments of my life in the company of my old friends at a dinner in the Hotel GRT grand days T. Nagar at 8.00 p.m. on 23 July, 20XX.

Please join the celebrations and merry-making.

Yours sincerely,
Radhika.

Address on the envelope
D. Vaishali D/O Krishnan,
18, VOC Street,
Vandalur.

(iii) Raju’s parents have completed 25 years of happy married life. Help him to invite his aunt, living in Kalayarkovil, to join him in the Silver Jubilee celebration of their marriage at his residence.

245, Greenway Road,
Chennai.
25th March, 2020

Respected Aunt,
My parents Sh. R.S. Swaminathan and Smt. Parvathi Devi will be completing 25 years of their happy, prosperous and eventful married life next month. We are going to celebrate the Silver Jubilee of their married life on 5th May, 2016. It will be a simple ceremony. Only family members and close friends are invited.

Do join us on this auspicious day.

Yours sincerely,
S. Raju.

Address on the envelope
Mrs. Leela, W/o Soundar,
8, Car St,
Kalayar Kovil.

Formal Letter Letter Of Request
(i) Madhu/Rajesh Dharmapuri is a student of class 10th. Write a letter to the Principal, Sishya Matriculation School, Dharmapuri, requesting him A her to open a career counseling center in the school to help and guide the students in the choice of subjects at + 2 level as well as at college level and to give other valuable advice/suggestions. Help him/her to complete the letter.

From
Madhu / Rajesh
51, Main Road,
Dharmapuri.
16th March, 2020

To
The Principal,
Sishya Matriculation School,
Dharmapuri.

sir,
Sub: Request to open a career counselling centre.

I am a student of class X in your school and is currently appearing for the Board examination. Very soon, we will have to make an important decision. We will have to select the stream/ subjects we should opt for at the +2 level. As you know, this is the most crucial decision of a student’s life. Most of the parents are unaware of the latest trends in educational/job fields. I, therefore, request you to kindly open a career counselling centre in our school to help us make the correct choice according to our aptitudes/talents as well as future job prospects. Expert guidance in the field will prove invaluable to us.

I hope you will consider my request favourably.

Thank you

Yours faithfully,
Madhu / Rajesh

Address on the envelope
The Principal,
Sishya Matriculation School,
Dharmapuri

(ii) You are Raja/Vaishnavi, Head Boy/Girl of your school. Help him/her in writing to arrange extra classes in Maths for the students of X classes. Give detailed reasons to support your demand.
Answer:

12 March, 20XX

From
Raja / Vaishnavi,
X A Student ABC Hr. Sec. School,
XYZ City.

To
The Principal,
ABC Hr. Sec. School,
XYZ City

Sir,
Sub: Extra Classes in Maths

The other day we were admonished about the poor performance in Maths in the Revision Examination. We have tried to search our souls, rack our brains and find out the fault. The reason is quite obvious. Our Maths teacher retired in August and stop-gap arrangements were made for three months by appointing temporary hands. Only last month we were able to get guidance from an expert and competent teacher like Mr. Murthy. However, a lot of our course remains uncovered and proper justice cannot be done to it in the regular periods only. Moreover, we have to make up the time-lapse. Drill, revision, and classroom tests also require certain periods. In view of the paucity of time available to us between now and the commencement of board examination, it is requested that some extra classes before/after school hours be arranged in Maths for Std. X.

I hope that the request of the students will be acceded to without any delay.

Thank you

Yours obediently,
Raja/Vaishnavi.
Head boy / Head Girl.

Address on the envelope
The Principal,
ABC Hr. Sec. School, XYZ City

Complaint Letter

(iii) You are Pramila of 32,3rd main road, Adyar, Chennai. Last week, you bought a mobile phone from ‘The Mobile Junction’, 20N, Muthulakshmi street, Chennai. The mobile phone developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. Write a complaint letter to the dealer giving details of the nature of the problem and asking him/her to rectify the defect or replace the phone.

Ms. Pramila
32, 3rd main road
Adyar
Chennai

29 April, 20XX
The Sales Manager
The Mobile Junction
20N, Muthulakshmi street
Chennai

Sir,
Sub: Defective Mobile Phone

I am a resident of Adyar, Chennai. I purchased a Samsung 4G mobile phone from The Mobile Junction on 22nd April, 20XX, vide cash memo No. 14219/18.1 am sorry to say that the mobile phone developed a problem within a few days of its purchase. The sound system is quite irritating and jarring. The camera doesn’t give a clear and deep impression. I feel cheated to have such a defective mobile phone after spending more than fifteen thousand rupees. It is quite unfortunate that even after sending two reminders, you have shown no urgency to rectify the defects or replace the defective mobile set at the earliest. I hope you will do the needful within a week. I am sure you will not compel me to knock the doors of the Consumer Court for this unpleasant lapse of time on your part.

Yours sincerely
Pramila

To
The Sales Executive
The Mobile Junction
20N, Muthulakshmi street
Chennai

(iv) You are R. M. Sridharan, the Head Librarian of M.G. Sr. Secondary School, Thuthukudi. Write a letter to Mrs. Atma Ram & Sons, Guwahati, complaining about the poor quality of books supplied to your library. You can invent your own details.
Answer:
R. M. Sridharan
M.G. Sr. Secondary School
Thuthukudi
25 March, 20XX
M/s Atma Ram & Sons
23, Fancy Bazar
Thuthukudi

Sir,
Sub: Poor quality of books ‘

We need no introduction. We are old customers of Atma Ram & Sons. But, I am constrained to express my displeasure at the poor and substandard supply of books by you in response to our order.
On examination, the following obvious discrepancies were found in the books supplied by you;

1. 40 textbooks of Mathematics by R.K. Sharma are of 20XX (old) edition. While these books are available in the latest 20XX editions in the market.
2. We ordered for 30 books of History of Ancient India by L.K. Gupta. However, we have been supplied with the books of the same title written by R.K– Gupta.
3. Some books are not in good and proper condition and can’t be accepted as such.

We hope you will do the needful without any further delay and replace them with their latest editions and in proper conditions.

Yours sincerely
R.M. Sridharan
(Head Librarian)
Enel. – Photocopy of the book – list.

To
M/s Atma Ram & Sons
23, Fancy Bazar
Thuthukudi

(v) Write a letter to the Station House Officer of Mattencheri Police Station in Cochin complaining him about the bad law and order situation in your area. You can give concrete and useful suggestions to protect and safeguard the interests of school and college going girls and senior citizens. You can invent your own details.
Answer:
James Mathews
4/12, Mattencheri Street
Cochin
10 March 20XX The S.H.O.
Mattencheri Police Station
Cochin

Sir,
Sub: Protecting female students and senior students from lawlessness

It pains me to express my strong resentment and anguish against the bad law and order situation prevailing in Mattencheri Residential Colony of Cochin.

Bad law and order situation has become an integral part of Mattencheri’s social and cultural scene. The recent day – light robberies and murders have sent a shockwave among the residents of the area. I would like to highlight the routine and regular harassment faced by the female students near their schools. In spite of the legal ban, wine shops do exist just in front of schools. Drunkards indulge in teasing and assaulting school girls. Even the kidnapping of a minor school girl last week didn’t arouse the conscience of the law and order authorities. It is not only the job of the administration to open new schools for girls but also their primary responsibility to provide them a safe journey from their house to their schools. All wine shops near school should be closed immediately. The bad characters and teasers must be given exemplary punishments. Senior citizens must be given a special protection. Complete records of maid servants and helpers must be maintained in the concerned police stations.

The need of the hour is to take effective and prompt actions to maintain peace and harmony in the area.

Yours faithfully
James Mathews

To
The S.H.O.
Mattencheri Police Station
Cochin

(vi) You are Anuradha, the Head Girl of Swami Vivekanand Sr. Secondary School, Patna. You are distressed at the unhygienic conditions in the school toilets. Even the classrooms remain dusty and dirty. Write a letter to the Principal of your school, complaining him of this unfortunate situation. Also give suggestions to improve the condition.
Answer:
Anuradha
X B, Swami Vivekanand Sr. Secondary School
Chennai
12 June 20XX
The Principal
Swami Vivekanand Sr. Secondary School
Chennai

Sir,
Sub: Unclean toilets and classrooms
On behalf of all students of classes IX and X, I want to bring to your notice the unhygienic conditions of the toilets in the school. Even the classrooms remain dusty and dirty for days together. The toilets in the school stink badly. It needs a lot of patience to go and use them. One can use them only by putting one’s handkerchief over the nose. The flushing system generally remain out of order. Most of the urine pots are broken. The leaked urine flows on the floor causing a nauseating odour. The condition of the classrooms is not much better. They are not swept or cleaned daily. A layer of dust and dirt gathers over the benches and desks. To be brief, such unhygienic conditions don’t go with this illustrious institution. They bring a bad name and create a bad impression on the outsiders. I hope that you will take some prompt action to improve the situation drastically in the near future.

Yours obediently
Anuradha
Head Girl
Class X

To ,
The Principal
Swami Vivekanand Sr. Secondary School
Chennai

Letter Of Enquiry

(vii) Write a letter seeking detailed inquiries from the General Manager, Holiday Inn, Puducherry for conducting the wedding reception of your younger brother at the hotel. Make specific inquiries about the catering cost per head, service and decoration charges. You can also ask for the advance amount to be paid. You are Krishna/Kamini.
Answer:
House No. 43/4
Civil Lines
Puducherry
20 May 20XX
The General Manager
Holiday Inn
Puducherry

Sir,
Sub: Enquiring about rates for wedding reception

The wedding reception of my younger brother, Mukesh will be solemnized on 20 June 20XX. We want to hold the ceremony and the wedding reception at your hotel. The party may include about 300 heads, including children. We would like to book four rooms in the hotel for the guests also. The ceremony may continue up to the early hours of 23rd June, 20XX.

Kindly furnish the following details regarding the reception function:

• Catering cost per head with menu details
• Service charges
• Decoration charges (stage and mandap)
• Room charges
• Advance money to be paid

We would appreciate if you send any other relevant information concerning the wedding reception.

Yours truly
Krishna/Kamini

To
The General Manager
Holiday Inn
Puducherry

Letter Of Placing Order

(viii) You are Laxman/Laxmi, the Head Librarian of Rammanna Public School, Nellore. Write a letter to Janta Book Depot, Nellore placing bulk order for books needed for the school library. You can invent your own details.
Answer:
The Head Librarian
Ramanna Public School
Nellore
12th July, 20XX
Sales Manager
Janta Book Depot
Nellore

Dear Sir
Sub: Order for books
We received the quotations sent by you regarding the purchase of books for the school library. We are glad to inform you that we have found your quotations acceptable to us. We welcome the 20% discount that you are providing on the books in general. However, we would expect a special discount that some dealers are providing on the bulk purchases for the educational institutions.

The list of books with their particulars are attached here with.

Name	Author/Publisher	Copies Required
A Comprehensive Grammar of the English Language	Quick & Leech Pearson Pub.	40
The Fall of Roman Empire	Gibbon	40
Arabian Nights	Harper & Collins	30
Stories for Children	Rupa & Co.	50
Fables	National Book Trust	50
Wonder That was India	Bhasham	30
Shakespeare’s Complete Works	Penguin	50
Mathematics for All	Bansi Lai	60
History of Ancient India	R.K. Sharma	30
Chemistry for Schools	M. L. Soni	30
Physics for Schools	Ghanshyam Das	30
Prem Chand Ki Kahania	Prem Chand National Book Trust	50
Nirala	R. B. Sharma	30

Books must be in their latest editions and delivered in good condition.

Yours truly
Laxman/Laxmi
Head Librarian

To
Sales Manager
Janta Book Depot
Nellore

Letter Of Cancelling Order
(ix) You are Ramkumar, Sales Manager of Modern Dresses, Madurai. You placed a bulk ’order with Shobha Dresses, Madurai for the supply of Gowns for your showroom. The firm has failed to execute the order. In spite of our many reminders, there is no positive response from them. Write a letter to the firm that you are constrained to cancel the order that you had placed before.
Answer:
K. Raman
Modem Dresses
TVS Nagar
Madurai
25th September, 2020
M/s Shobha Dresses Pandian Nagar Madurai

Dear Sirs,
Sub: Order for Gowns – Cancellation
I can express only my deep dismay and displeasure at the non – execution of the bulk order that we placed with you for the purchase of gowns on 10th August, 2020. The said order was to be executed within 10 days. However, when more than a month expired, you expressed regrets giving the strike of workers in the factory as the main reason of non – execution. We accepted your request for executing the order within a week. We condoned the delay keeping in view of our previous good business terms. As we have not heard from you recently, we have reasons to believe that cancellation of the said order is the only option for us. I hope that the cancellation of the said order will not affect our otherwise good business terms in future.

Yours faithfully
K. Ramkumar

To
M/s Shobha Dresses
Pandian Nagar
Madurai

Letter To The Editor
(x) The tourism industry can bring valuable income to the country. Write a letter to the Editor of a popular daily on how the government and the public can boost the development of this industry. You are Rama/Ram, 4 Rani Road, Tiruchirappalli.
Answer:
Ram
4, Rani Road
Tiruchirappalli
20 April 20XX

The Editor
The Hindustan Times
Tiruchirappalli

Sir,
Sub: Boosting tourism industry in India
Through the column of your esteemed daily, I want to highlight the tremendous potentiality that the tourism industry has in India. The tourism industry can easily be a money-spinner as it can bring valuable income to the country. Let’s first explore the new avenues for international tourists in India. It has been a great shame for us that India has not been even among the top ten in the international market. We have breathtaking views of the Himalayas, beautiful valleys, wonderful hill stations, very rich wildlife, including the tiger and the rhino reserves. India can boast of fascinating beaches in Goa and Kerala. We have the Taj Mahal and the Fatehpur Sikri in Agra; Madurai and Tanjavur in Tamil Nadu; Sanchi in MP and Nalanda in Bihar. The ghats of Varanasi and feudal splendors of Rajasthan need no introduction. Only we will have to revamp our strategies. We will have to re – woo our tourists. Instead of running after the recession hit western Europe and America, we must explore new avenues in China, Russia, and Brazil. China attracts 50.9 million tourists every year. India manages just 5.1 million tourists. We will have to fill up the gap.

Domestic tourism can’t be neglected. States like Karnataka and Kerala have shown the way to the other states of India. They have attracted budget domestic tourists by providing clean and affordable accommodation. Enhanced infrastructure, such as good roads, airports and good hygiene will attract more international as well as domestic tourists. Surely, tourism industry can bring valuable income to the country.

Thank you

Yours sincerely
Ram

To
The Editor
The Hindustan Times
Tiruchirappalli

(xi) You are Santhanam/Sapna. You are a regular visitor to the Prasad Nagar Lake. Of late, residents of the colony have been disturbed by the constant flow of foul-smelling water in the lake garden and generally failing cleanliness standards. Taking hints given in the input below, along with your own details, write a letter to the Editor of a local daily emphasizing the urgent need to improve the hygienic conditions of the park.
Answer:
Santhanam/Sapna
12, Swami Nagar
Prasad Nagar
Mysore
12 April 20XX

The Editor
The Deccan Herald
Bangalore

Sir,
Sub: Unhygienic conditions of Prasad Nagar Lake and its surroundings
Through the column of your esteemed daily, I express my anguish at the deterioration of Prasad Nagar Lake and its surroundings.
There was a time when Prasad Nagar Lake and its surroundings were considered to be the most beautiful spot in the area. It is a pity that within a decade everything has reached a stage of decay and deterioration. I am a regular visitor to the lake. Of late, residents of the colony have been disturbed by the constant flow of foul-smelling water into the lake garden. This has been caused due to the repeated bursting of a sewer line running next to the lake garden. The foul-smelling water accumulates and stagnates in the lake. This has resulted in a heavy presence of algae in the lake. It has hampered the boating facilities provided here by the authorities. The state of fish farming is quite deplorable.

I hope this letter will arouse the concerned authorities out of their hibernation. They must take immediate and effective steps to bring the lake and its surroundings back to its former grandeur and glory.

Thank you

Yours faithfully
Santhanam/Sapna

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Food Security and Nutrition

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Food Security and Nutrition Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Economics Class 10 Chapter 3 Question 1.
………….. of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.
(a) Availability of food
(b) Access to food
(c) Absorption of food
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Availability of food

Question 2.
Buffer stock is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the:
(a) FCI
(b) Consumer Cooperatives
(c) ICICI
(d) IFCI
Answer:
(a) FCI

Question 3.
Which is correct?
(i) HYV-High Yielding Varieties
(ii) MSP-Minimum Support Price
(iii) PDS-Public Distribution System
(iv) FCI-Food Corporation of India
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) all are correct
Answer:
(d) all are correct

Question 4.
……………….. extended assistance through its Public Law 480.
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Singapore
(d) UK
Answer:
(a) United States of America

Question 5.
………….. revolution was bom in India paving way for self sufficiency in food grain production.
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) Green Revolution
(d) Grey Revolution
Answer:
(c) Green Revolution

Question 6.
……………….. is the only state in India to adopt universal PDS.
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 7.
…………. is the process of providing or obtaining the food necessary for health and growth.
(a) Health
(b) Nutrition
(c) Sanitation
(d) Security
Answer:
(b) Nutrition

Question 8.
Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in:
(a) 1980
(b) 1975
(c) 1955
(d) 1985
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 9.
………….. status is one of the indicators of the overall well-being of population and human resources development.
(a) Health
(b) Nutritional
(c) Economic
(d) Wealth

Question 10.
Tamil Nadu Health System Projects has launched ……………….. service at free of cost.
(a) 106 Ambulance
(b) 108 Ambulance
(c) 107 Ambulance
(d) 105 Ambulance
Answer:
(b) 108 Ambulance

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. foundation from USA introduced HYV in India.
2. ………… is an important indicator of nutrition deficiency.
3. In the year …………… National Food Security Act was passed by the Indian Parliament.
4. ………….. play an important role in the supply of quality goods at responsible rates to common people.
5. …………. is the value of currency expressed in terms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.
Answers:
1. FORD
2. Underweight
3. 2013
4. Consumer co-operatives
5. Purchasing power

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Purchasing power increases, price decreases and vice versa.
Reason (R): The production of goods decline, the price of goods increases and then the purchasing power is affected.
(a) A is correct, R is false
(b) Both A and R are false statements
(c) A is correct but R is not a correct explanation
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
A is not correct and R is correct

V. Answer in Short.

Question 1.
Define food security according to FAO.
Answer:
“Food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access of sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life” FAO – 2009.

Question 2.
What are the basic components of food and nutrition security?
Answer:

• Availability of food
• Access to food
• Absorption of food

Question 3.
Explain ‘ship to mouth’ phenomenon.
Answer:
After India’s Independence, during early 1960’s India experienced severe drought that forced her to plead for food grains from richer countries at concessional rates. USA extended help through its Public Law 480 (PL480). This situation was popularly known as ship to mouth phenomenon.

Question 4.
What is the role of FCI in Green Revolution?
Answer:
Minimum support price (MSP) for the crops were announced at the beginning of the season and the state procured the harvested grains through the Food Corporation of India (FCI). The FCI had built huge storage godowns and built buffer stocks of food grain during the harvest season to be distributed all through the year.

Question 5.
What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

1. Country became self-sufficient in food production.
2. Increase in the yield of major cereal crops and area under cultivation.
3. Cheaper farm credit was given to farmers through co-operative banks.

Question 6.
Write a note on Differential Universal PDS and Targeted PDS.
Answer:
While Tamil Nadu has adopted an ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had a ‘Targeted’ PDS. Under universal PDS all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving out the rest. Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.

Question 7.
Write a short note on purchasing power.
Answer:
The financial power to purchase goods is called purchasing power. It is Indirectly related to price. It is the value of a currency expressed interms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

Question 8.
What are the main reasons for the New Agricultural Policy?
Answer:
The main reason is to give an assurance that organic or processed agricultural products will not be under any export restrictions such as export duty, export bans and quota restriction. Agricultural policy of a country is mostly designed by the Government for raising agricultural production and productivity and also for raising the level of income and standard of living of farmers within a definite time frame. This policy is formulated for all round and comprehensive development of the agricultural sector.

Question 9.
Write short note on multi-dimensional nature of poverty.
Answer:

1. Multi-dimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was launched by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the oxford poverty Human Development Initiative in 2010.
2. It constitute factors like health, education, living standards, Income, dis-empowerment, quality of work, non-violence etc.
3. India has reduced poverty drastically from 55% to 28% in 10 years from 2005 -06 to 2015 – 16.

Question 10.
Write some name of the nutrition programmes in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Purachi Thalaivar M.G.R. Nutrition Meal Programme
• National Programme of Nutritional Support to Primary Education
• General ICDS Projects and World Bank Assisted Integrated Child Development Services
• Pradhan Manthri Gramodaya Yojana Scheme (PMGYS)
• Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme
• Mid-Day Meal Programme

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Elucidate why the Green Revolution was born.
Answer:
The Green Revolution was bom in the country paving way for self-sufficiency in food grain production. Increased food grain production was made possible by an increase area cultivated with HYV of rice and wheat as also an increase in the yield of these major cereal crops. Area under food grains was a little more than 98 million hectares during early 1950s. The country was producing just 54 million tonnes of food grains then with an average yield of food grains of 547 kg per hectare.

The food situation has steadily improved over a period of 65 years. Area under food grain cultivation has grown to 122 million hectares, with an increase of five-fold increase in food grain production. Yield of food grains has increased four-fold between the time of independence and at present.

Question 2.
Explain Minimum Support Price.
Answer:

1. Minimum support price is the price announced by the Government to support the farmers with a better price for particular crops.
2. The MSP is much helpful for the farmer’s because they are certain / sure about the price they would get at the crop season.
3. After announcing the MSP, the state will open procurement centres in places where these crops are widely grown.
4. Farmers get an assured price by selling their produce to Food Corporation of India (FCI) after the harvest.
5. But, if the farmers find open market price is lower than the minimum support price, then they are free to sell in the open market.
6. Thus, the farmers gain a kind of protection against any price crash during the harvest season.

Question 3.
Elaborate the Public Distribution System.
Answer:
The increase in food grain production need not result in increase in access to food for all. Given the unequal distribution of income and the level of poverty that persists in Indian economy, the government took steps to distribute food grains at subsidised rates through the Public Distribution System (PDS). The nature, scope and functioning of PDS varies from state to state. While Tamil Nadu has adopted an ‘Universal’ PDS, the rest of the states in India had a ‘Targeted’ PDS.

Under universal PDS all the family ration card holders are entitled to the supplies from PDS. In the targeted PDS, the beneficiaries are identified based on certain criteria and given their entitlements, leaving out the rest. Both the Union and the State governments subsidised the supplies distributed through PDS. The level and quantum of subsidy also varied across states.

Question 4.
What are the factors affecting the purchasing power and explain them.
Answer:
Purchasing power is the value of a currency expressed interms of the amount of goods and services that one unit of money can buy.

The factors affecting purchasing power are:

1. Over Population: Large population leads to increasing demand. But supply was not equal to the demand. So, the normal price level will go higher.
2. Increasing price of essential goods: The continuous rise in the prices of essential goods erodes the purchasing power and adversely affect the poor people.
3. Demand for goods: When demand for goods increases, the prices of goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.
4. Price of goods affect the value of currency: When prices increases, the purchasing power decreases and finally the value of the currency decreases and vice versa.
5. Production and supply of goods: When the production and the supply of goods decreases, the price of the goods increases, then the purchasing power is affected.
6. Poverty and Inequality: In general, purchasing power is affected by poverty and unequal distribution of Income and wealth.

Question 5.
Write briefly some of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy.
Answer:
• Raising the productivity of inputs: One of the important objectives of India’s agricultural policy is to improve the productivity of inputs so purchased like, HYV seeds, fertilisers, pesticides, irrigation projects etc.

• Raising value-added per hectare: Agricultural policy is to increase per hectare value-added rather than raising physical output by raising the productivity of agriculture in general and productivity of small and marginal holding in particular.

• Protecting the interests of poor farmers: Agricultural policy is proposed to protect the interests of poor and marginal farmers by abolishing intermediaries through land reforms, expanding institutional credit support to poor farmers etc.

• Modernizing agricultural sector: Here the policy support includes the introduction of modem technology in agricultural operations and application of improved agricultural inputs like HYV seeds, fertilizers etc.

• Environmental degradation: Agricultural policy of India has set another objective to check environmental degradation of natural base of Indian agriculture.

• Removing bureaucratic obstacles: The policy has set another objective to remove bureaucratic obstacles on the farmer’s co-operative societies and self-help institutions so that they can work independently.

Question 6.
Discuss the Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index India and Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
A multi-Dimensional poverty index is a measure to reveal who is poor, how they are poor and the ranges of disadvantages they experience.

Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index of India:

1. Poverty rate reduced from 55% in 2005 – 06 to 28% in 2015 – 16.
2. The number of poor people reduced from 635 million people 2005 – 06 to 364 million poor people in 2015 – 16.
3. Of these 364 million poor people, 156 million were children which was (292 million in 2005-06).
4. From the people belonging to ST category 80% were poor in 2005 – 06 which reduced to 50% in 2015 -16.
5. In 2015 – 16, Bihar is stated as the poorest state with more than half of its population in poor condition.
6. Multi-Dimensional poverty index is reduced to the maximum in Kerala by around 92% claiming to be the least poor region in 2006.
7. The four poorest states of India are Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttarpradesh and Madhyapradesh where 196 million MPI poor people live which is half of MPI of India.

Multi – Dimensional Poverty Index of Tamil Nadu:

1. The state of Tamil Nadu has a smaller share of India’s poor relative to its population.
2. Tamil Nadu leads in the poverty alleviation programmes during 2014-17.
3. The districts in Tamil Nadu are classified into three categories namely high – poverty districts (> 40%) moderately poor districts (30% to 40%) low – level poverty districts (< 30%).
4. Government of India is implementing many polices and programmes to eradicated poverty.
5. In future, Tamil Nadu can become a model Of development in India.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Status of Nutrition:
We noted earlier that food security includes nutrition security too. Though our country has reached self-sufficiency in food production, the nutrition status of the population has not seen corresponding levels of improvement. In 2015-16, 27% of the rural women and 16% of the urban women (in the age group of 15-49 years) were counted as undernourished or chronically energy deficient by the National Family Health Survey.

More than half of the women in the reproductive age group (15 – 49 years) in both rural and urban India were anaemic in 2015-16. As regards children, about 60% of the rural and 56% of the urban children (in the age group of 6-59 months) are counted to be anemic, in 2015-16. About 41% of the rural and 31% of urban children are stunted, that is, they are not ‘ of the required height in correspondence to their age. Another indicator of nutrition deficiency among children is “underweight”, which is weight in relation to age. In India, in 2015-16, about 20% of children(in the age group of 6-59 months) in rural and urban India are estimated to be underweight.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Visit nearby “Uzhavar Sandhai” and collect the information about the functions of market.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Collect information about health centre functioning nearby your location.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Food Security and Nutrition Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. in the ability to biologically utilise the food consumed.
(a) Absorption of food
(b) Access to food
(c) Availability of food
Answer:
(a) Absorption of food

Question 2.
The rapid increase in food grain production was accompanied by the ……………… sector also.
(a) Dairy
(b) Poultry
(c) Fisheries
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
………… plays a crucial role in human health and well-being.
(a) Health
(b) Security
(c) Nutrition
Answer:
(c) Nutrition

Question 4.
There are ……………… structure of consumer co-operative societies in India.
(a) Two-tier
(b) Three-tier
(c) Five-tier
(d) Seven-tier
Answer:
(b) Three-tier

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ………… scheme is playing an important role in food security in India.
2. ……….. is the stock of food grains, namely wheat and rice, procured by the government through the FCI.
3. Tamil Nadu Integrated Nutrition Programme was started in ……………
4. Govt, of India is implementing many policies and programmes to eradicate ……………..
5. The NFSA covers …………. of urban household.
Answers:
1. Consumer Cooperations
2. Buffer Stock
3. 1980
4. poverty
5. 50%

III. Match the following.

1.	ICDS	(a)	National Rural Health Mission
2.	RCH	(b)	Meal Programme
3.	NRHM	(c)	Emergency Ambulance Service
4.	TNHSP	(d)	Reproductive and Child Health Programme
5.	PTMGRNMP	(e)	Integrated Child Development Service

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)

IV. Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define Food.
Answer:
Food is defined as any substance that people eat and drink to maintain life.

Question 2.
Write the role of Consumer Cooperatives in Food Security.
Answer:
• Consumer Cooperatives play an important role in-the supply of quality goods of at responsible rates to common people.

• There is a three-tier structure of Consumer Cooperative Societies in India. They are primary consumer cooperative societies. Central consumer cooperative stores and state level consumer federations. There are many benefits to consumer cooperatives such as health care, insurance, housing etc.

• This scheme is playing an important role in food security in India. For ex. out of all fair price shops running in Tamil Nadu around 94% are being run by cooperatives.

Question 3.
What is meant by Absorption of food?
Answer:
Absorption of food is the ability to biologically utilise the food consumed.

Question 4.
Describe HYV:
Answer:
HYV means High Yielding Variety. It refers to hybrid or cultivars which are purposefully developed for high yielding. This motto of developing HYV started in the 1965 famine which also leads to the green revolution to feed the population of India.

Question 5.
Write a note on SMART family cards.
Answer:
The Government of Tamil Nadu has declared that Bio-metric SMART family cards will be issued in the place of family cards. The advantage is that since it is based on unique identity, the data duplication of members and bogus cards can be eliminated.

VIII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Write about the basic components of food and nutrition security.
Answer:
The term was broadened to include the three basic components of food and nutrition security. They are availability, access and absorption.
(i) Availability of food:
Availability of food is physical availability of food stocks in desired quantities, which is a function of domestic production, changes in stocks and imports.

(ii) Access to food:
Access to food is primarily a matter, of purchasing power and is therefore closely linked with the capabilities and employment opportunities to earn. Capabilities and opportunities in turn are related to one’s access to assets and education.

(iii) Absorption of food:
Absorption of food is the ability to biologically at line the food consumed. Several factors such as nutrition, knowledge and practices, safe and hygienic, environmental conditions allow for effective biological absorption of food and health status.

Question 2.
Explain Buffer stock scheme.
Answer:

1. Buffer stock is the stock of food grains namely wheat and rice, which are stored in granaries.
2. It is procured by the Government through the FCI food corporation of India from the States of surplus production.
3. The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops which is called as Minimum Support Price.
4. The minimum support price is announced by the Government every year before the sowing season.
5. This is to provide incentives to farmers for raising the production of these crops.
6. The Buffer stock is done to distribute food grains in the deficit areas among the poor people in the society.
7. Since the price is lower than the market price, it is also called as the Issue Price.
8. The stored food helps to resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during the periods of calamity.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.19

Multiple choice questions.
10th Maths Exercise 3.19 Answers Question 1.
A system of three linear equations in three variables is inconsistent if their planes
(1) intersect only at a point
(2) intersect in a line
(3) coincides with each other
(4) do not intersect.
Solution:
(4) do not intersect

10th Maths Exercise 3.19 Question 2.
The solution of the system x + y – 3z = – 6, -7y + 7z = 7, 3z = 9 is …………
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
(2) x = -1, y = 2, z = 3
(3) x = -1, y = -2, z = 3
(4) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Answer:
(1) x = 1, y = 2, z = 3
Hint.
x + y – 3x = – 6 ….(1)
– 7y + 7z = 7 ….(2)
3z = 9 ….(3)
From (3) we get
z = \(\frac { 9 }{ 3 } \) = 3
Substitute the value of z in (2)
-7y + 7(3) = 7
-7y = -14
Substitute the value of y = 2 and z = 3 in (1)
x + 2 – 3(3) = -6
x + 2 – 9 = -6
x = -6 + 7
x = 1
The value of x = 1, y = 2 and z = 3

Exercise 3.19 Class 10 Question 3.
If (x – 6) is the HCF of x² – 2x – 24 and x² – kx – 6 then the value of k is
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
Solution:
(2) 5

10th Maths 3.19 Question 4.

Solution:
(1) \(\frac{9 y}{7}\)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 5.
\(\mathbf{y}^{2}+\frac{\mathbf{1}}{y^{2}}\) is not equal to

Solution:
(2) \(\left(y+\frac{1}{y}\right)^{2}\)
Hint:
\(y^{2}+\frac{1}{y^{2}} \neq\left[y+\frac{1}{y}\right]^{2}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Question 6.

Solution:
(3) \(\frac{x^{2}-7 x+40}{(x+5)(x-5)(x+1)}\)
Hint:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Question 7.

Solution:
(4) \(\frac{16}{5}\left|\frac{x z^{2}}{y}\right|\)
Hint:

10th Maths Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……….
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²
Hint.
x² + 64 = (x²)² + 8² – 2 × x² × 8
= (x² – 8)²
2 × x² × 8 must be added
i.e, 16x² must be added

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Answers Question 9.
The solution of (2x – 1)² = 9 is equal to
(1) -1
(2) 2
(3) -1, 2
(4) None of these
Solution:
(3) -1, 2
Hint:
(2x – 1)² = (±3)²
⇒ 2x – 1 = +3
2x – 1 = 3, 2x – 1 = – 3
2x = 4, 2x = – 2
x = 2,-1

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Maths Question 10.
The values of a and b if 4x⁴ – 24x³ + 76x² + ax + b is a perfect square are
(1) 100, 120
(2) 10, 12
(3) -120, 100
(4) 12, 10
Solution:
(3) -120, 100
Hint:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Graph Solution Question 11.
If the roots of the equation q²x² + p²x + r² = 0 are the squares of the roots of the equation qx² +px + r = 0, then q,p, r are in ______.
(1) A.P
(2) G.P
(3) Both A.P and G.P
(4) none of these
Solution:
(2) G.P
Hint: q²x² + p²x + r² = 0
(2) G.P.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Graph Question 12.
Graph of a linear polynomial is a …………..
(1) straight line
(2) circle
(3) parabola
(4) hyperbola
Answer:
(1) straight line

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solution Question 13.
The number of points of intersection of the T quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the X axis.
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 or 1
(4) 2
Solution:
(2) 1
(x + 2)² = (x + 2)(x + 2)
= x = -2, -2 = 1

10th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Guide Question 14.
For the given matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cccc}{1} & {3} & {5} & {7} \\ {2} & {4} & {6} & {8} \\ {9} & {11} & {13} & {15}\end{array}\right]\) the order of the matrix A^T is
(1) 2 × 3
(2) 3 × 2
(3) 3 × 4
(4) 4 × 3
Solution:
(3) 3 × 4
Hint:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Question 15.
If A is a 2 × 3 matrix and B is a 3 × 4 matrix, how many columns does AB have
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5
Solution:
(2) 4
Hint:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Graph Solutions Question 16.
If a number of columns and rows are not equal in a matrix then it is said to be a …………..
(1) diagonal matrix
(2) rectangular matrix
(3) square matrix
(4) identity matrix
Answer:
(2) rectangular matrix

Samacheer Kalvi Maths 10th Question 17.
Transpose of a column matrix is
(1) unit matrix
(2) diagonal matrix
(3) column matrix
(4) row matrix
Solution:
(4) row matrix

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Question 18.

Solution:
(2) \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}{2} & {2} \\ {2} & {-1}\end{array}\right)\)
Hint:

Question 19.
Which of the following can be calculated from the given matrices
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{1} & {2} \\ {3} & {4} \\ {5} & {6}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {2} & {3} \\ {4} & {5} & {6} \\ {7} & {8} & {9}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) A²
(ii) B²
(iii) AB
(iv) BA
(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iiii) only
(3) (ii) and (iv) only
(4) all of these
Solution:
(3) (ii) and (iv) only
Hint:

Question 20.

(1) (i) and (ii) only
(2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (ii) and (iv) only
(4) all of these
Solution:
(1) (i) and (ii) only
Hint: