Category: Class 10

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.4

10th Maths Exercise 2.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the next three terms of the following sequence.
(i) 8, 24, 72, …….
(ii) 5, 1, -3, …….
(iii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 9 } \),\(\frac { 3 }{ 16 } \)………..
Solution:
(i) 8, 24, 72…
In an arithmetic sequence a = 8,
d = t₁ – t₁ = t₃ – t₂
= 24 – 8       72 – 24
= 16 ≠ 48
So, it is not an arithmetic sequence. In a geometric sequence,
r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{t_{3}}{t_{2}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{24}{8}=\frac{72}{24}\)
⇒ 3 = 3
∴ It is a geometric sequence
∴ The n^th term of a G.P is t_n = ar^n-1
∴ t₄ = 8 × 3^4-1
= 8 × 3³
= 8 × 27
= 216

t₅ = 8 × 3^5-1
= 8 × 3⁴
= 8 × 81
= 648

t₆ = 8 × 3^6-1
= 8 × 3⁵
= 8 × 243
= 1944
The next 3 terms are 8, 24, 72, 216, 648, 1944.

(ii) 5, 1, -3, …
d = t₂ – t₁ = t₃ – t₂
⇒ 1 – 5 = -3-1
-4 = -4 ∴ It is an A.P.
t_n = a+(n – 1)d
t₄ = 5 + 3 × – 4
= 5 – 12
= -7
15 = a + 4d
= 5 + 4 × -4
= 5 – 16
= -11
t₆ = a + 5d
= 5 + 5 × – 4
= 5 – 20
= – 15
∴ The next three terms are 5, 1, -3, -7, -11, -15.

(iii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 9 } \),\(\frac { 3 }{ 16 } \),………..
Here a_n = Numerators are natural numbers and denominators are squares of the next numbers
\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 9 } \),\(\frac { 3 }{ 16 } \),\(\frac { 4 }{ 25 } \),\(\frac { 5 }{ 36 } \),\(\frac { 6 }{ 49 } \)………….

Ex 2.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the first four terms of the sequences whose n^th terms are given by

(i) a_n = n³ -2
Answer:
a_n = n³ – 2
a₁ = 1³ – 2 = 1 – 2 = -1
a₂ = 2³ – 2 = 8 – 2 = 6
a₃ = 3³ – 2 = 27 – 2 = 25
a₄ = 4³ – 2 = 64 – 2 = 62
The four terms are -1, 6, 25 and 62

(ii) a_n = (-1)ⁿ⁺¹ n(n + 1)
Answer:
a_n = (-1)ⁿ⁺¹ n(n + 1)
a₁ = (-1)² (1) (2) = 1 × 1 × 2 = 2
a₂ = (-1)³ (2) (3) = -1 × 2 × 3 = -6
a₃ = (-1)⁴ (3) (4) = 1 × 3 × 4 = 12
a₄ = (-1)⁵ (4) (5) = -1 × 4 × 5 = -20
The four terms are 2, -6, 12 and -20

(iii) a_n = 2n² – 6
Answer:
a_n = 2 n² – 6
a₁ = 2(1)² – 6 = 2 – 6 = -4
a₂ = 2(2)² – 6 = 8 – 6 = 2
a₃ = 2(3)² – 6 = 18 – 6 = 12
a₄ = 2(4)² – 6 = 32 – 6 = 26
The four terms are -4, 2, 12, 26

10th Maths Exercise 2.4 Question 3.
Find the n^th term of the following sequences
(i) 2, 5, 10, 17, ……….
(ii) 0, \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \), \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \),…..
(iii) 3, 8, 13, 18, ………
Solution:
(i) 2, 5, 10, 17
= 1² + 1, 2² + 1, 3² + 1, 4² + 1 ……….
∴ n^th term is n²+1
(ii) 0, \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \),………….
= \(\frac { 1-1 }{ 1 } \),\(\frac { 2-1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 3-1 }{ 3 } \)…..
⇒ \(\frac { n-1 }{ n } \)
∴ nth term is \(\frac { n-1 }{ n } \)
(iii) 3, 8, 13, 18
a = 3
d = 5
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
= 3 + (n – 1)5
= 3 + 5n – 5
= 5n – 2
∴ n^th term is 5n – 2

10th Maths 2.4 Exercise Question 4.
Find the indicated terms of the sequences whose n^th terms are given by
(i) a_n = \(\frac { 5n }{ n+2 } \) ; a₆ and a₁₃
(ii) a_n = -(n² – 4); a₄ and a₁₁
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 2.4 In Tamil Question 5.
Find a₈ and a₁₅ whose n^th term is

Solution:

Exercise 2.4 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
If a₁ = 1, a₂ = 1 and a_n = 2a_n-1 + a_n-2 n > 3, n ∈ N. Then find the first six terms of the sequence.
Answer:
a₁ = a₂ = 1
a_n = 2a_n-1 + a_n-2
a₃ = 2a_3-1 + a_3-2 = 2a₂ + a₁
= 2(1) + 1 = 3
a₄ = 2a_4-1 + a_4-2
= 2a₃ + a₂
= 2(3) + 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
a₅ = 2 a_5-1 + a_5-2
= 2a₄ + a₃
= 2(7) + 3 = 17
a₆ = 2a_6-1 + a_6-2
= 2a₅ + a₄
= 2(17) + 7
= 34 + 7 = 41
The sequence is 1, 1, 3, 7, 17,41, …

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Nervous System

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 15th Science Chapter 15 Nervous System Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 15 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 15th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 15 Nervous System solutions of Class 15th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Pdf Download Question 1.
Bipolar neurons are found in _______
(a) retina of eye
(b) cerebral cortex
(c) embryo
(d) respiratory epithelium
Answer:
(a) retina of eye

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Question 2.
Site for processing of vision, hearing,memory, speech, intelligence and thought is:
(a) kidney
(b) ear
(c) brain
(d) lungs
Answer:
(c) brain

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide PDF help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 3.
In reflex action, the reflex arc is formed by _______
(a) brain, spinal cord, muscle
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord
(c) muscle, receptor, brain
(d) receptor, spinal cord, muscle
Answer:
(b) receptor, muscle, spinal cord

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 4.
Dendrites transmit impulse ……cell body and axon transmit impulse …….. cell body.
(a) away from, away from
(b) towards, away from
(c) towards, towards
(d) away from, towards
Answer:
(b) towards, away from

Samacheer Kalvi Books 10th Science Question 5.
The outer most of the three cranial meninges is ______
(a) arachnoid membrane
(b) piamater
(c) duramater
(d) myelin sheath
Answer:
(c) duramater

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Question 6.
There are ______ pairs of cranial nerves and ______ pairs of spinal nerves.
(a) 12, 31
(b) 31, 12
(c) 12, 13
(d) 12, 21
Answer:
(a) 12, 31

Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Solutions Question 7.
The neurons which carries impulse from the central nervous system to the muscle fibre:
(a) afferent neurons
(b) association neuron
(c) efferent neuron
(d) unipolar neuron
Answer:
(c) efferent neuron

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 8.
Which nervous band connects the two cerebral hemispheres of brain?
(a) thalamus
(b) hypothalamus
(c) corpus callosum
(d) pons
Answer:
(c) corpus callosum

Class 10 Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
Node of Ranvier is found in ______
(a) muscles
(b) axons
(c) dendrites
(d) cyton
Answer:
(b) axons

Ch 15 Science Class 10 Question 10.
Vomiting centre is located in:
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) stomach
(c) cerebrum
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Class 10 Chapter 15 Science Question 11.
Nerve cells do not possess _______
(a) neurilemma
(b) sarcolemma
(c) axon
(d) dendrites
Answer:
(b) sarcolemma

Nervous System Question 12.
A person who met with an accident lost control of body temperature, water balance, and hunger. Which of the following part of brain is supposed to be damaged?
(a) Medulla oblongata
(b) cerebrum
(c) pons
(d) hypothalamus
Answer:
(d) hypothalamus

II. Fill in the blanks.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 1.
______ is the longest cell in our body.
Answer:
Axon

10th Science Interior One Mark Questions Pdf Question 2.
Impulses travels rapidly in ______ neurons.
Answer:
Myelin sheath of

Class 10 Chapter 15 Science Pdf Question 3.
A change in the environment that causes an animal to react is called ______
Answer:
reactions or responses

Question 4.
_____ carries the impulse towards the cell body.
Answer:
Dendrites

Question 5.
The two antagonistic components of the autonomic nervous system are _____ and ______
Answer:
Sympathetic, Parasympathetic

Question 6.
A neuron contains all cell organelles except _______
Answer:
Golgi apparatus in axon

Question 7.
_____ maintains the constant pressure inside the cranium.
Answer:
Cerebrospinal fluid

Question 8.
______ and ______ increases the surface area of cerebrum.
Answer:
Gyri and Sulci

Question 9.
The part of the human brain which acts as a relay centre is _______
Answer:
Thalamus

III. State whether True or False, if false write the correct statement.

Question 1.
Dendrons are the longest fibres that conduct impulses away from the cell body.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: Axons are the longest fibres that conduct impulses away from the cell body.

Question 2.
The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the central nervous system.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: Sympathetic nervous system is a part of the autonomic nervous system.

Question 3.
Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory centre of the human body.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The cerebrum controls the voluntary actions of our body.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
In the central nervous system, myelinated fibres form the white matter.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: In the central nervous system, two types of matter such as white matter or grey matter, is formed, with respect to the presence or absence of myelin sheath.

Question 6.
All the nerves in the body are covered and protected by meninges.
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The brain is covered by three connective tissue membrane or meninges.

Question 7.
Cerebrospinal fluid provides nutrition to brain.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Reflex arc allows the rapid response of the body to a stimulus.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Pons helps in regulating respiration.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Nissil’s granules	(a) Forebrain
2. Hypothalamus	(b) Peripheral Nervous system
3. Cerebellum	(c) Cyton
4. Schwann cell	(d) Hindbrain

Answer:
1. (c) Cyton
2. (a) Forebrain
3. (d) Hindbrain
4. (b) Peripheral Nervous system

V. Understand the assertion statement. Justify the reason given and choose the correct choice.

(a). Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong
(b). Reason is correct and the assertion is wrong
(c). Both assertion and reason are correct
(d). Both assertion and reason are wrong

Question 1.
Assertion: Cerebrospinal fluid is present throughout the central nervous system.
Reason: Cerebrospinal fluid has no such functions.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct and Reason is wrong

Question 2.
Assertion: Corpus callosum is present in space between the dura mater and pia mater. Reason: It serves to maintain constant intracranial pressure.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are wrong

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the stimulus.
Answer:
The changes in the environmental condition, that are detected by receptors present in the body are called stimulus.

Question 2.
Name the parts of the hind brain.
Answer:
Hind brain consists of cerebellum, pons and medulla oblongata.

Question 3.
What are the structures involved in the protection of the brain?
Answer:
The brain is covered by three connective tissue membrane or meninges.

• Dura mater, which is the outermost thick fibrous membrane.
• Arachnoid membrane, which is the middle thin vascular membrane providing a web-like cushion.
• Pia mater, which is the innermost, thin delicate membrane richly supplied with blood. Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.

Question 4.
Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Common examples of conditioned reflexes are playing a musical instrument, tying shoelaces or the neck-tie without being attentive, watering of the mouth after seeing or smelling favourite food.

Question 5.
Which acts as a link between the nervous system and the endocrine system?
Answer:
The hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormones from the Anterior Pituitary gland and is an important link between the nervous system and the endocrine system.

Question 6.
Define reflex arc.
Answer:
The path along which the reflexive impulse travel is called reflex arc.
(OR)
The path way taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called reflex arc.

VII. Differentiate between

Question 1.
Voluntary and involuntary actions.
Answer:

Voluntary Action	Involuntary Action
1. The actions which are under the control of our will, eg. Eating, walking.	1. The actions, which are not under our control, eg. Breathing, Heartbeat
2. Controlled by the brain.	2. Controlled by the spinal cord.
3. Voluntary Action results in muscular action.	3. Involuntary actions result in a muscular action or secretions of some glands.

Question 2.
Medullated and non-medullated nerve fibre.
Answer:

Medullated nerve fibre	Non-medullated nerve fibre
1. Nerve fibre is covered by a protective sheath, called the Myelin sheath, which is covered by Neurilemma.	1. Nerve fibre is covered by a single sheath, Neurilemma.
2. Nodes of Ranvier are present.	2. Nodes of Ranvier are absent.
3. They appear white.	3. They appear grey.
4. They carry nerve impulses, much faster than non-medullated nerve fibre.	4. They carry nerve impulses, much slower than medullated nerve fibre.
5. They are present in the white matter of brain, spinal cord and in the cranial and spinal nerves.	5. They are present in the grey matter of the brain and spinal cord and in the autonomic nerves.

VIII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron
Answer:
Structure of Neuron: A neuron consists of three basic parts namely Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.

(a) Cyton: Cyton is called cell body or perikaryon. It has a central nucleus with abundant cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has a large granular body called Nissl’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum. Neurons do not have the ability to divide. Several neurofibrils are present in the cytoplasm that help in the transmission of nerve impulses to and from the cell body.

(b) Dendrites: These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes, that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses, towards the cyton. The branched projections increase the surface area for receiving the signals from other nerve cells.

(c) Axon: The axon is a single, elongated, slender projections. The end of axon terminates as fine branches, which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob.

The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton. The axons may be covered by a protein sheath called myelin sheath, which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called neurilemma.

Myelin sheath breaks at intervals, by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called an internode. Myelin sheath acts as an insulator and ensures the rapid transmission of nerve impulses.
A junction between synaptic knob of the axon of one neuron and dendron of next neuron is called Synaptic Junction. Information from one neuron can pass to another neuron through these junctions, with the release of chemicals known as neurotransmitters, from the synaptic knob.

Question 2.
Illustrate the structure and functions of the brain.
Answer:
A human brain is formed of three main parts forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain.
1. Forebrain: The forebrain is formed of Cerebrum and Diencephalon. The diencephalon consists of dorsal thalamus and ventral hypothalamus.
(a) Cerebrum: It is the largest portion and nearly forms two-third of the brain. The cerebrum is longitudinally divided into two halves, as of right and left cerebral hemispheres by a deep – cleft called median cleft. The two cerebral hemispheres are interconnected by thick band of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The outer portion of each cerebral hemisphere is formed of grey matter and is called cerebral cortex.

The inner or deeper part is formed of white matter and is called cerebral medulla. The cortex is extremely folded forming elevations called gyri, with depressions between them termed as sulci, that increase the surface area. Each cerebral hemisphere is divisible into a frontal lobe, a parietal lobe, a temporal lobe and an occipital lobe. These lobes are also known as cerebral lobes.

(b) Thalamus: Thalamus present in the cerebral medulla is a major conducting centre for sensory and motor signalling. It acts as a relay centre.

(c) Hypothalamus: It lies at the base of the thalamus. It controls the secretions of hormones from the anterior pituitary gland.

2. Midbrain: It is located between thalamus and Hindbrain. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists of four rounded bodies called corporaquadrigemina, that control visual and auditory (hearing) reflexes.

3. Hindbrain: It is formed of three parts Cerebellum, Pons and Medulla Oblongata.

• Cerebellum: It is the second-largest part of the brain formed of two large-sized hemispheres and middle vermis.
• Pons: It is a bridge of nerve fibre that connects the lobes of the cerebellum. It relays signals between the cerebellum, spinal cord, midbrain and cerebrum.
• Medulla Oblongata: It is the posterior-most part of the brain, that connects the spinal cord and various parts of the brain.

Functions of Brain:

Structure	Functions
1. Cerebral cortex	Sensory perception, Intelligence, consciousness, control of voluntary functions, language, thinking, memory, decision making, creativity, reasoning and will power.
2. Thalamus	Acts as Relay Station.
3. Hypothalamus	Temperature control, anger, thirst, hunger, urination, the important link between the nervous system and endocrine glands, sleep, sweating, sexual desire, fear, water balance, blood pressure.
4. Midbrain	Visual and Auditory reflexes.
5. Cerebellum	Maintenance of posture and balance, and co-ordinate voluntary muscle activity.
6. Pons	Respiration and Role in the sleep-wake cycle.
7. Medulla Oblongata	Cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive control centres, vasomotor centres to control heartbeat, contraction of blood vessels. It also regulates vomiting and salivation.

Question 3.
What will you do if someone pricks your hand with a needle? Elucidate the pathway of response with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

The pathway taken by nerve impulse to accomplish reflex action is called the reflex arc.

• When the hand is pricked by a needle, the stimulus is the prick (touch) pain, which is sensed by a receptor called touch or pain receptors in the skin in our hand. This stimulus in tum triggers an impulse in a sensory neuron.
• The sensory neuron transmits or conveys the message to the spinal cord.
• The spinal cord interprets the stimulus and the impulse is passed on to the relay neuron, which in tum transmits it to a motor neuron.
• Motor neurons carry command from the spinal cord to our arm.
• The muscle in our arm contracts and we withdraw our hand immediately from the needle prick. Muscle is the effector organ which has responded to the prick (pain).

Question 4.
Describe the structure of the spinal cord.
Answer:
The spinal cord is a cylindrical structure lying in the neural canal of the vertebral column. It is also covered by meninges. It extends from the lower end of medulla oblongata to the first lumbar vertebra. The posterior-most region of spinal cord tapers into a thin fibrous thread-like structure called Filum terminate.

Internally, the spinal cord contains a cerebrospinal fluid-filled cavity, known as the central canal. The grey matter of the spinal cord is ‘H’ shaped. The upper end of the letter, ‘H’ forms posterior horns and lower end forms anterior horns. A bundle of fibres pass into the posterior horn forming the dorsal or afferent root. Fibres pass outward, from the anterior horn forming the ventral or efferent root. These two roots joins to form spinal nerves. The white matter is external and has a bundle of nerve tracts. Spinal cord conducts sensory and motor impulses to and from the brain. It controls the reflex actions of the body.

Question 5.
How nerve impulses are transferred from one neuron to next neuron?
Answer:
All the information from the environment is detected by the receptors, located in the sense organs such as the eyes, nose, skin and etc. Information from the receptors is transmitted as electrical impulse and is received by the dendritic tips of the neuron. This impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its terminal end. On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve endings to release a chemical (neurotransmitter) which diffuses across a synapse and starts a similar electrical impulse in the dendrites of the next neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along the axon.

The electrical signal reaches the brain or spinal cord. The response from the brain (or spinal cord) is similarly passed on to the effector organs such as the muscle or gland cell, that undergoes the desired response.

Question 6.
Classify neurons based on its structure.
Answer:
The neurons are classified, based on their structures:

(a) Unipolar neurons: Only one nerve process arises from the cyton, which acts as both axon and dendron. It is found in early embryos, but not in the adult.

(b) Bipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to two nerve processes, of which one acts as an axon, while another acts as a dendron. Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of the eye and olfactory epithelium of nasal chambers.

(c) Multipolar neurons: The cyton gives rise to many dendrons and an axon. Multipolar neurons found in the cerebral cortex of the brain.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
‘A’ is a cylindrical structure that begins from the lower end of medulla and extend downwards. It is enclosed in bony cage ‘B’ and covered by membranes ‘C’ As many as ‘D’ pairs of nerves arise from the structure ‘A’.

1. What is A?
2. Name (a) bony cage ‘B’ and (b) membranes ‘C’
3. How much is D?

Answer:

1. A is spinal cord.
2. (a) Bony cage is Vertebral column
   (c) is Meninges
3. D is 31 pairs of spinal nerve.

Question 2.
Our body contains a large number of cells ‘L’ which are the longest cells in the body. L has a long and short branch called as ‘M’ and ‘N’ respectively. There is a gap ‘O’ between two ‘L’ cells, through which nerve impulse transfer by the release of chemical substance ‘P’.

1. Name the cells L
2. What are M and N?
3. What is gap O?
4. Name the chemical substance P?

Answer:

1. Neuron
2. Axon and Dendrites
3. Synaptic Junction (knob)
4. Neurotransmitter (Acetylcholine)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Nervous System Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The condition needed for the coordination between the various cells and organ for the diverse activities is called _____
Answer:
Homeostasis

Question 2.
A number of nerve fibres bundled up together to form _____
Answer:
Nerves

Question 3.
The other name for cyton is cell body or _____
Answer:
Perikaryon

Question 4.
______ is an important neurotransmitter released by neurons.
Answer:
Acetylcholine

Question 5.
_______ membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.
Answer:
Meningeal

Question 6.
The four rounded bodies of the midbrain are called ______
Answer:
Corporaquadrigemina

Question 7.
The Posterior most region of spinal cord tapers into fibrous thread-like structures called _____
Answer:
Filum terminale

II. Choose the incorrect statement and Write it as a correct statement.

Question 1.
Responses refer to the changes in the environmental conditions, which are detected by receptors.
Answer:
Incorrect Statement
Correct Statement: Stimulus refer to the changes in the environmental conditions, which are detected by receptors. .

Question 2.
The brain is the controlling centre of all the body activities.
Answer:
Correct Statement

Question 3.
Axon carries impulses towards the cyton.
Answer:
Incorrect Statement
Correct Statement: Axon carries impulses away from the cyton.

Question 4.
CNS consists of all nerves, which connect the brain and spinal cord to all parts of the body.
Answer:
Incorrect Statement
Correct Statement: CNS consists of all nerves, which connect the brain and spinal cord to all parts of the body.

Question 5.
A receptor is a cell or group of cells that receive the stimuli.
Answer:
Correct Statement

III. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Neuroglia	(a) Conduct nerve impulses
2. Electrical impulse	(b) Connects the lobe of the cerebellum
3. Pons	(c) Cerebrospinal fluid
4. Brain	(d) Do not conduct nerve impulses
5. Dendrites	(e) Information from the receptor

Answer:
1. (d) Do not conduct nerve impulses
2. (e) Information from the receptor
3. (b) Connects the lobe of the cerebellum
4. (c) Cerebrospinal fluid
5. (a) Conduct nerve impulses

IV. Answer the following in a word or with a Sentence.

Question 1.
What are Spinal Reflexes?
Answer:
Most of the reflex actions are monitored and controlled by the spinal cord. So it is called Spinal Reflexes.

Question 2.
Name the two enlargement found in spinal cord.
Answer:
The spinal cord has two enlargements.
Cervical plexus – found in neck region
Lumbar plexus – in Lumbar region.

Question 3.
What is the function of Meningeai membranes in the brain?
Answer:
Meningeal membranes protect the brain from mechanical injury.

Question 4.
Write a function of glial cells.
Answer:
Glial cells or Neuroglia are non-exciting, supporting cells of nervous system.

Question 5.
Name the granules in the cytoplasm of Peyton.
Answer:
Nissl’s granules.

Question 6.
Which is the controlling centre of all body activities?
Answer:
Brain

Question 7.
In which fluid, is the brain suspended?
Answer:
The brain is suspended in the cerebrospinal fluid.

Question 8.
Name the four rounded bodies in the dorsal portion of midbrain.
Answer:
Corpora quadrigemina

Question 9.
Which is the longest cell of the human body?
Answer:
The longest cell of the human body is axon.

Question 10.
Name the tapered spinal cord into a thin thread-like structure present in the posterior-most region.
Answer:
Filum terminate.

V. Draw a neat labelled diagram of the following.

Question 1.
(a) Brain
(b) Structure of Spinal Cord
(c) Nerve impulse transmission
Answer:
(a) Brain

(b) Structure of Spinal Cord

(c) Nerve impulse transmission

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What is the synaptic transmission?
Answer:
The flow of nerve impulses from the axonal end of one neuron to the dendrite of another neuron through a synapse is called synaptic transmission.

Question 2.
What is homeostasis?
Answer:
The coordination between the various cells and organs is essential for their diverse activities to maintain physiological balance called Homeostasis.

Question 3.
What are Neurotransmitters? Give an example.
Answer:
Neurotransmitters are chemicals, which allow the transmission of a nerve impulse from the axon terminal of one neuron to the dendron of another neuron or to an effector organ. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by neurons.

Question 4.
Name the three connective tissue membrane of Meninges.
Answer:

1. Duramater : Outermost thick fibrous membrane.
2. Arachnoid membrane : Middle thin vascular membrane provide web like cushion.
3. Piamater : Innermost thin oblicate membrane richly supplied with blood.

Question 5.
What are the types of nerve fibres?
Answer:
The two types of nerve fibres, based on the presence or absence of myelin sheath are

• Myelinated nerve fibre: The axon is covered with a myelin sheath.
• Non-myelinated nerve fibre: The axon is not covered by a myelin sheath.

Myelinated and non-myelinated nerve fibres from the white matter and grey matter of the brain.

Question 6.
Why is the Autonomic Nervous System called Visceral nervous system?
Answer:
The Autonomic Nervous System is also called Visceral Nervous System because it regulates the function of internal visceral organs of our body.

Question 7.
What are the cerebral lobes?
Answer:
Each cerebral hemisphere is divisible into a frontal lobe, a parietal lobe, a temporal lobe and an occipital lobe. These lobes are called cerebral lobes.

Question 8.
How are neurons categorized on the basis of functions?
Answer:
On the basis of functions the neurons are categorised as:

• Sensory or afferent neurons, which carry impulses from the sense organ to the central nervous system.
• Motor or efferent neurons, which carry impulses from the central nervous system to effector organs such as the muscle fibre and the gland.
• Association neurons, which conduct impulses between sensory and motor neurons.

Question 9.
What is cerebrospinal fluid? What is its functions?
Answer:
The brain is suspended in a special fluid environment called cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Functions:

• It acts as a shock-absorbing fluid and protects the brain from damage when it is subjected to a sudden jerk.
• It supplies nutrients to the brain.
• It collects and removes wastes from the brain.
• It is responsible for maintaining a constant pressure inside the cranium.

Question 10.
Explain the Peripheral Nervous System.
Answer:
Peripheral Nervous System is formed, by the nerves arising from the brain and the spinal cord. The nerves arising from the brain are called cranial nerves. In man, there are 12 pairs of cranial nerves. Some of the cranial nerves are sensory.
Nerves arising from the spinal cord are called spinal nerves. In man, there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves. Each spinal nerve has a dorsal sensory root and the ventral motor root.

VI. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Raju got an injury on the head during motorbike accident on the road. Later he faced a problem in maintaining balance of the body while walking or sitting. Which part of the brain do you think is affected?
Answer:
Cerebellum in the brain is affected as it maintains the body balance.

Question 2.
What is Electroencephalogram (EEG)?
Answer:
Electroencephalogram (EEG) is an instrument, which records the electrical impulses of the brain. An EEG can detect abnormalities in the brain waves and help in diagnoses of epilepsy, brain tumours and head injuries, etc.

Question 3.
Name a few brain diseases.
Answer:

• Alzheimer’s disease (develop, as we age)
• Parkinson’s disease
• Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

Question 4.
What are brain injuries? Give examples.
Answer:
The damage of brain tissue, neurons and nerves. This damage affects our brain’s ability to communicate with the rest of our body. Examples of Brain injuries include blood clots, hematomas, swelling inside the skull, strokes and etc.

Question 5.
What are the symptoms of brain injury?
Answer:
Vomiting, Nausea, Speech difficulty, bleeding from the ear, Numbness and etc.

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The World Between Two World Wars Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

The World Between Two World Wars Question 1.
With whom of the following was the Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

10th Social History 2nd Lesson Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Hernan Cortes

The World Between Two World Wars Book Back Answers Question 3.
Who made Peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russians
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

The World Between Two World Wars In Tamil Question 4.
Which President of the USA pursued the “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

World Between Two World Wars Question 5.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 2 Question 6.
Who was the brain behind the apartheid policy in South Africa?
(a) Verwoerd
(b) Smut
(c) Herzog
(d) Botha
Answer:
(a) Verwoerd

10th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Which quickened the process of liberation in South America?
(a) Support of US
(b) Napoleonic Invasion
(c) Simon Bolivar’s involvement
(d) French Revolution
Answer:
(d) French Revolution

10th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
Name the President who made amendment to Munro doctrine to justify American intervention in the affairs of Latin America:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Eisenhower
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(a) Theodore Roosevelt

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The founder of the Social Democratic Party was ………
2. The Nazi Party’s propaganda was led by ………
3. The Vietnam Nationalist Party was formed in ………
4. The Secret State Police in Nazi Germany was known as ……..
5. The Union of South Africa came into being in May ………
6. The ANC leader Nelson Mandela was put behind the bars for ……. years
7. …….. were a military nation.
8. Boers were also known as ………
Answers:
1. Ferdinand Lassalle
2. Josef Goebbeels
3. 1927
4. Gestapo
5. 1910
6. 27
7. Aztecs
8. Afrikaners

III. Choose the correct statement.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Question 1.
(i) During World War I the primary task of Italy was to keep the Austrians occupied on the Southern Front.
(ii) Germany took to Fascism much later than Italy.
(iii) The first huge market crash in the US occurred on 24 October 1929.
(iv) The ban on African National Congress was lifted in 1966.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Book Question 2.
Assertion: A new wave of economic nationalism which expressed itself in protectionism affected the world trade.
Reason: This was because the USA was not willing to provide economic aid to the debtor countries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct explanation
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Assertion : The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884 – 85 had resolved that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
Reason: The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.
(a) Both A and R are right
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) A is wrong and R has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the right reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer briefly.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Question 1.
What do you know of the White Terror in Indo-China?
Answer:
The period of Political repression in Indo-China starting in 1927 by the Republic of China government was called ‘White Terror’.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 10th Std Question 2.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:
When British trade was badly affected by the Great Depression of 1929, it transferred its effect on its colonies by signing a bilateral trade with them. This was called as Economic summit at Ottawa in 1932. It was agreed by the colonies that they will prefer only British goods and not any other goods.

Question 3.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:
The famous Monroe doctrine was brought by Monroe, the President of the USA. This doctrine declared that if Europeans inteferred anywhere in America, north or south, it would amount to waging a war against the United States. This threat frightened the European powers and kept them away from South America.

Question 4.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:
In 1919, Mussolini joined the Fascist party. He gathered support from all groups of people in the society and in October 1922, he organised a March to Rome. Impressed by the force behind Mussolini, king invited him to form the Government.

Question 5.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference, 1884 – 85.
Answer:
The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884 – 85 had that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers. The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this resolution.

Question 6.
How did Great Depression impact on Indian agriculture?
Answer:
The impact of Great depression on Indian agriculture was very severe. The value of the agricultural produce reduced by half whereas the rent to be paid to the government remain the same. To compensate the loss, the farmers had to sell their gold and silver reserves.

Question 7.
Explain the reason for the Smuts-Herzog alliance.
Answer:
The world economic depression brought unemployment and bankruptcy to South Africa. In this context labour withdrew its support given to the National Party. Smuts believed that a coalition government was required to solve the country’s economic problems. Therefore, the South Africa party (led by Smuts) and the National Party (led by Herzog) united in 1934 to form the United South Africa National Party or United Party for short. However, the Smuts- Herzog alliance lasted until 1939.

Question 8.
Define “Dollar Imperialism.”
Answer:
It refers to the USA’s policy to maintain the distant lands and dominate them through their economic help and support in terms of their currency dollar.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Anti-Colonial Struggle in Indo-china

(a) Define the concept of decolonisation.
Answer:
Decolonization means the process of transferring the legal and – institutional control to the indigenous nationalist governments by the colonial powers.

(b) What were the three States that formed Indo-China?
Answer:
The Laos, Cambodia and Vietnam were the three states that formed inrio- China.

(c) How did Communist ideas heip in developing the spirit of anti-colonialism.
Answer:
Communist ideas helped to convince people that considerable wealth of Indo-China was beneficial only to the colonial power. This helped to develop anti-colonialism spirit in Indo-China.

(d) Which was the mainstream political party in Indo-China?
Answer:
Vietnam Nationalist party was the mainstream political party in Indo-China.

Question 2.
Ho Chi Minh
(a) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.

(b) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.

(c) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
Answer:
In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.

(d) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

Question 3.
Political Developments In South America

(a) By which year did the whole of South America become free from European domination?
Answer:
By the year 1830, the whole of South America became free from European domination.

(b) How many republics came into being from Central America?
Answer:
Central America split into five republics namely Costa Rica, El Salvador, .Guatemala, Honduras and Nicaragua.

(c) In which year was Cuba occupied by the USA?
Answer:
In 1898, Cuba was occupied by the USA.

(d) What made oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America?
Answer:
The situation created by the great depression made Oligarchic regimes unpopular in South America.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Trace the circumstances that led to the rise of Hitler in Germany.
Answer:
(i) In 1919, a group of seven men met in Munich and founded the National socialist German worker’s Party which later came to be known as Nazi Party. One of these men was Adolf Hitler.
(ii) In 1923, Hitler abortively attempted to capture power in Bavaria. But this proved a blunder. He was sent to prison. In the Presedential election of 1932, the communist party polled about 6,000,000 votes. This alarmed capitalists and property owners. Hitler exploited this opportunity to usurp powers.
(iii) In 1933, Hitler was made the Chancellor of Germany. Having acquired power, he brought an end to the parliamentary democracy established in Germany after the First World War.
(iv) He converted Germany into a highly centralised state. All political parties except the Nazi Party were declared illegal. The army of brown-shirted and jack-booted storm-troopers was expanded.
(v) Hitler Youth was created, and the Labour Front set up. Trade unions were abolished, their leaders were arrested and all workers were compelled to join the German Labour Front. Strikes were made illegal, wages were fixed by the government, and the Labour Front was used by the Nazis to control industry.
(vi) Total state control was extended over the press, theatre, cinema, radio and over education. The Nazi Party’s propaganda manipulated public opinion through planned propaganda.

Question 2.
Attempt a narrative account of how the process of decolonization happened in India during the inter-war period (1919-39).
Answer:

1. It was the launch of the Swadeshi movement in 1905 that mark the beginning of the decolonization process in India.
2. In 1919, the Government of India Act provided dyarchy in the provinces.
3. The elected provincial assemblies and Indian ministers are permitted to hold certain portfolios in the Legislature.
4. But the Indian National congress rejected dyarchy and decided to boycott the Legislature.
5. In 1930, the Indian National Congress emerged as a mass militant movement.
6. The Government of India Act of 1935 , made the British to appease the Indian nationalists and provided great power to the local governments.
7. In 1937, British introduced direct elections and the congress won in most of the provinces.
8. The process of decolonisation is very clear by the Montague declaration stating, Increasing association of Indians in every branch of the administration and gradual self-government in India is an integral part . of the British Empire.

Question 3.
Describe the rise and growth of nationalist politics in South Africa.
Answer:

1. There were two major political parties in South Africa – the unionist party which was mainly British, and the South Africa Party which had largely Afrikaners (Boers).
2. The first Prime Minister, Botha belonged to the South Africa Party. He ruled in cooperation with the British. But a militant section of the South Africa Party formed the National Party under Herzog.
3. Herzog wanted a twin policy of supremacy of whites over Blacks and Afrikaners over British.
4. In the 1920 elections, the National Party gained forty-four seats. The South Africa Party, now led by Smuts, secured forty-one seats.
5. The British dominated Unionist Party now merged with the South Africa Party. This gave Smuts a majority over the militant Afrikaner-controlled National Party.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Each student may be asked to write an assignment on how each sector and each section of population in the USA came to be affected by the Stock Market Crash in 1929.
Answer:
The New York stock Market Crash occurred in 1929. As a result of this the price of shares in the stock market fell steeply. The investors and consumers got discouraged to such an extent that more and more people began to sell their shares and dispose of their stocks. But there were no buyers. This great crash and decline in investments was followed by the failure of American banks. The American financiers were forced to recall their own funds invested abroad.

Question 2.
A group project work on Vietnam War is desirable. An album or pictures, portraying the air attacks of the US on Vietnam and the brave resistance put up by the Vietnamese may be prepared.
Answer:
You can do this activity in the class by taking reference from internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

The World Between Two World Wars Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The Great Economic Depression began in ……
(a) England
(b) USA
(c) France
Answer:
(b) USA

Question 2.
The secret police of Hitler were called as:
(a) Duce
(b) Gestapo
(c) Swastika
(d) Third Reich
Answer:
(b) Gestapo

Question 3.
The Great Depression in USA began on
(a) Oct 24, 1929
(b) Oct 24, 1930
(c) Oct 24, 1939
Answer:
(a) Oct 24, 1929

Question 4.
The discovery of ……………. in Transvaal, led to large number of Britishers settle in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Smuts
(b) Coal
(c) Gold
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(c) Gold

Question 5.
Mussolini provided a
(a) Democratic government
(b) stable government
(c) Republic government
Answer:
(b) stable government

Question 6.
……………. adopted ‘Good Neighbour’ policy in USA.
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Monroe
(c) Theodore
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 7.
A democratic constitution with the federal structure was established by a National Assembly,
(a) Berlin
(b) Weimer
(c) Finland
Answer:
(b) Weimer

Question 8.
recognised the Vatican city as an independent state.
(a) Hitler
(b) FDR
(c) Mussolini
(d) Ho-Chi Minh
Answer:
(c) Mussolini

Question 9.
Hitler’s anti-Semitism grew to the extent of killing the
(a) Aryans
(b) Jews
(c) Mongolians
Answer:
(b) Jews

Question 10.
The Boer wars took place between the Boers and the:
(a) Germans
(b) Africans
(c) British
(d) Americans
Answer:
(c) British

Question 11.
In 1941, Hitler invaded
(a) Russia
(b) Prussia
(c) Persia
Answer:
(a) Russia

Question 12.
“Speak softly, but carry a big stick”- The attitude of US President Theodore Roosevelt to countries.
(a) European
(b) Imperialist
(c) Latin America
(d) Republican
Answer:
(c) Latin America

Question 13.
Mussolini left the League of Nations in …….
(a) 1931
(b) 1937
(c) 1932
Answer:
(b) 1937

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The main cause of the depression was the collapse of ………
2. Franklin D.Roosevelt was commonly known as ………
3. The New Deal Policy includes ……… , ……… and ………
4. Mussolini was called by his followers as ………
5. The followers of Mussolini were called ………
6. Mussolini’s secret police was known as ………
7. ……… issued by Mussolini provided great relief to workers.
8. Benito Amilcale Andrea Mussolini was born on ………
9. Mussolini organised a groups of young persons or gangs called ………
10. The founder of the Nazist party was ………
11. Hitler’s secret police was ………
12. Hitler pulled Germany out of the League of Nation in ………
13. The Locarno Treaty was signed in ………
Answers:
1. American share market
2. FDR
3. Relief, Recovery and Reforms
4. Duce
5. Black shirts
6. OVRA
7. The Charter of Labour
8. 1883
9. Fasces
10. Hitler
11. Gastapo
12.1933
13.1925

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (f)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Answers:
1 .(c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (e)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What were the causes for the Great Economic Depression?
Answer:

1. The main cause for the Depression was the collapse of the American share market.
2. It was due to speculation on borrowed money.

Question 2.
What is meant by Fascism?
Answer:
Fascism is a form of government which is characterized by one-party dictatorship, Forcible power, strict control on society and of the economy.

Question 3.
What does the term ‘Fascism” mean?
Answer:

1. The term ‘Fascism” is derived from the Latin word ‘Fasces’.
2. “Fasces” means a bundle or group.

Question 4.
What are the factors that led to the triumph of Fascism in Germany?
Answer:
Germany raised to great heights in economic, political and cultural accomplishments. Germany’s universities, its science, philosophy, music were known all over the world. Germany exceeded much more than Britain and the USA in the Industrial production.

Question 5.
Name the reasons for the rise of fascism.
Answer:

1. Italy faced with a great economic crisis.
2. There was social unrest and economic distress.
3. The prices of essential goods shot up.
4. Cost of living was very high.
5. There was great dismay and frustration among the people.
6. On account of the revolutionary ideas of the socialists, unrest and spread in Italy.
7. This situation demanded a bold leadership. These conditions favoured the rise of Fascism.

Question 6.
Write a note on Nelson Mandela.
Answer:
Nelson Mandela was a South African revolutionary who fought against apartheid and joined the African National Congress (ANC). When the ANC was banned he was arrested, and was in prison for 27 years. In 1994, he became the first black president of South Africa.

Question 7.
Write any two achievements of Mussolini.
Answer:

1. Mussolini established peace and order and he provided a stable government.
2. Mussolini brought order and discipline in the industrial field.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘Inflation’?
Answer:
It refers to the general increase in the price level and a fall in the purchasing power of money.

Question 9.
Write a short note on the early life of Mussolini?
Answer:

1. Mussolini was born on July 29, 1883 at Romagna in East – Central Italy.
2. His father was a blacksmith and his mother was an elementary school teacher.
3. Mussolini graduated in 1902 and became a school teacher.
4. He learned Lenin’s ideology and became an editor of Italian socialist paper.

Question 10.
Write about the end of Mussolini.
Answer:

1. The Allied forces heavily bombarded Sicily and landed in the island in 1943.
2. Mussolini was shot dead by his own country men.
3. Fascism died out along with the death of its founder Mussolini.

Question 11.
How did Hitler become a Chancellor of Germany?
Answer:
Under the inspiring leadership of Hitler, the nazi party grew in power and number.

1. In the election of 1932, the Nazi party became the 2nd largest group in the German parliament.
2. In 1933, the Nazists became the largest party in the German parliament and Hitler became the Chancellor and Hindenburg as president.
3. On the death of President Hindenburg, he made himself as President and Chancellor.
4. He abolished the Weimar Republic and himself became a dictator.

Question 12.
Write about the Nazi policy towards Jews?
Answer:

1. The Jews were removed from government position, excluded from the universities and deprived of citizenship.
2. Jewish business were closed down, and their establishments were attacked.
3. Jews were interred and used as forced labour.
4. Later they were turned into extermination camps, where industrial means of murder such as gas chambers were used to kill them.
5. It is estimated that about 6 million Jews in Europe were killed, which the Nazis termed, as ‘The final solution’.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Position of America at the end of I world war

(a) What is the position of America, at the end of the world war I ?
Answer:
America was financially in a sound position.

(b) How did America help the European debtor countries?
Answer:
As the moneylender to the world, America encouraged the flow of capital into Europe, which helped the European debtor countries.

(c) What happened to the U.S economy in the meantime?
Answer:
A sudden fall in the U.S economy forced here to impose restrictions on the export of capital.

(d) What was the impact of it all over the world?
Answer:
This resulted in a steep decline in the volume and value of exports all over the world.

Question 2.
Adolf Hitler

(a) Where was Adolf Hitler born?
Answer:
Adolf Hitler was born in Austria.

(b) What was his father?
Answer:
His father was a customs officer.

(c) What did he organize?
Answer:
He organized group of men called the National socialists in 1919, which became the Nazist Party.

(d) Name the book written by Hitler.
Answer:
He wrote a book called, “Mein Kampf “ (My struggle).

Question 3.
Mayas and Aztecs

(a) What did the three centres of civilization exist even before the discovery of America?
Answer:
The Maya, the Inca and the Aztec were the three centers of civilizations.

(b) Which was the centre of Maya Civilization?
Answer:
The League of Mayapan was the centre of Maya civilization.

(c) Who conquered the Maya country?
Answer:
Aztecs from Mexico conquered the Maya country in the fourteenth century.

(d) What did Aztecs do?
Answer:
For nearly 200 years, Aztecs ruled their empire and founded their capital city of Tenochtitlan.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
What were the achievements of Fascism under Mussolini?
Answer:

1. Mussolini wanted to make Italy a powerful nation. So he adopted various methods.
2. He established peace and order. He provided a stable government.
3. He brought order and discipline in the industrial field.
4. For the welfare of the workers he issued the “Charter of Labour”
5. By this charter industries were freed from the strike epidemic. He took several measures to increase production.
6. Marshes were drained and canals were dug. Reclamation projects were launched.
7. Hydroelectric schemes were undertaken.
8. Railways and other means of transportation were improved.
9. A fair degree of self-sufficiency was achieved.
10. In 1929, Mussolini signed the Latern Treaty with Pope. The 60 years conflict between the Papacy and the Italian government came to an end by this treaty.

Question 2.
Explain the Anti-colonial movement that emerged in Indo-China and the influence of Ho-Chi-Minh.
Answer:

1. Indo – china consists of today’s Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam.
2. From the beginning, French occupation and communist ideas from China were a major influence in Indo-China.
3. Considerable wealth of Indo-china was benefiting only these colonial powers.
4. In 1916, there was a major anti-colonial revolt but was crushed brutally.
5. Vietnam Nationalist Party was the main political party formed in 1927 in Indo-China.
6. In 1925, Ho-Chi-Minh founded the Revolutionary youth movement. He led the peasant revolt in 1930 which was crushed. He left to Moscow thereafter.’
7. When France was defeated by Germany in 1940, Ho-Chi-Minh and his followers used this to the favour of Vietnamese.
8. In 1941, he organized the League for the independence of Vietnam which was called as Viet Minh.
9. Vietnamese nationalism, thus renewed its importance with the help of Ho-Chi-Minh.

Question 3.
State the contribution of Ho Chi Minh in the freedom of Vietnam.
Answer:

1. In February 1930, Ho Chi Minh brought together competing nationalist groups to establish the Vietnamese Communist Party. It was later renamed as the Indo-Chinese Communist Party.
2. Ho chi minh was inspired by the militant demostrations of the European Communist Parties.
3. In 1940, Japan occupied Vietnam, as part of its imperial drive to control Southeast Asia.
   The nationalists now had a fight against the Japanese as well as the French. The League for the Independence of Vietnam (Vietnam Doc Lap Dong Minh), which came to be known as the Vietminh fought the Japanese occupation and recaptured Hanoi in September 1945.
4. The Democratic Republic of Vietnam was formed and Ho Chi Minh was made the chairman.

Question 4.
Write any three features of the Civil Disobedience Movement of 1930.
Answer:
The Civil Disobedience Movement was started under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi, in the year 1930. It was an important milestone in the history of Indian nationalism. The main ideology behind the civil disobedience movement was to defy the laws made by the British. Three features of this movement were:

1. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
2. In many places, forest people violated forest laws – going into reserved forests to collect wood and graze cattle.
3. Women participated in the movement on a large scale.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 5 Acoustics

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Textual Solved Problems

10th Science Acoustics Question 1.
At what temperature will the velocity of sound in the air be double the velocity of sound in air at 0° C?
Solution:
Let T° C be the required temperature. Let v₁ and v₂ be the velocity of sound at temperatures T₁K and T₂K respectively.
T₁ = 273K (0°C) and T₂ = (T°C + 273)K
\(\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_{2}}{\mathrm{T}_{1}}}=\sqrt{\frac{273+\mathrm{T}}{273}}=2\)
Here, it is given that, v₂/v₁ = 2
So \(\frac{273+\mathrm{T}}{273}=4\)
T = (273 × 4) – 273 = 819° C.

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
A source producing a sound of frequency 90 Hz is approaching a stationary listener with a speed equal to (1 / 10) of the speed of sound. What will be the frequency heard by the listener?
Solution:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{s}}\right) n\)
\(\begin{array}{l}{=\left(\frac{v}{v-\left(\frac{1}{10}\right) v}\right) n=\left(\frac{10}{9}\right) n} \\ {=\left(\frac{10}{9}\right) \times 90=100 \mathrm{Hz}}\end{array}\)

10th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
A source producing a sound of frequency 500 Hz is moving towards a listener with a velocity of 30 ms^-1. The speed of the sound is 330 ms^-1. What will be the frequency heard by the listener?
Solution:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
n’ = \(\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)
= \(\left(\frac{330}{330-30}\right) \times 500\)
= 550 Hz.

Guru Acoustics Question 4.
A source of sound is moving with a velocity of 50 ms^-1 towards a stationary listener. The listener measures the frequency of the source as 1000 Hz. what will be the apparent frequency of the source when it is moving away from the listener after crossing him? (velocity of sound in the medium is 330 ms^-1)
Solution:
When the source is moving towards the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n \\ 1000 &=\left(\frac{330}{330-50}\right) n \\ n &=\left(\frac{1000 \times 280}{330}\right) \end{aligned}\)
n = 848.48 Hz.
The actual frequency of the sound is 848.48 Hz. When the source is moving away from the stationary listener, the expression for apparent frequency is
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n \\ &=\left(\frac{330}{330+50}\right) \times 848.48 \end{aligned}\)
= 736.84 Hz.

Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Question Answer Question 5.
A source and listener are both moving towards each other with a speed v/10 where v is the speed of sound. If the frequency of the note emitted by the source is f, what will be the frequency heard by the listener?
Solution:
When source and listener are both moving towards each other, the apparent frequency is
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v+v_{l}}{v-v_{s}}\right) n \\ n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v+\frac{v}{10}}{v-\frac{v}{10}}\right) n \\ n^{\prime} &=\frac{11}{9} \cdot f \\ &=1.22 f \end{aligned}\)

Class 10 Science Chapter 5 Question 6.
At what speed should a source of sound move away from a stationary observer so that the observer finds the apparent frequency equal to half of the original frequency?
Solution:
When the source is moving away from the stationary listener, the expression for the apparent frequency is
\(\begin{array}{l}{n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n} \\ {\frac{n}{2}=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n} \\ {v_{\mathrm{s}}=v}\end{array}\)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best Answer

Question 1.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _____.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate.
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 2.
Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is 330 ms^-1. If the pressure is increased by 4 times without causing a change in the temperature,
the velocity of sound in the gas is:
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 660 ms¹
(c) 156 ms^-1
(d) 990 ms^-1
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1

Question 3.
The frequency, which is audible to the human ear is _____.
(a) 50 kHz
(b) 20 kHz
(c) 15000 kHz
(d) 10000 kHz.
Answer:
(b) 20 kHz
Hint: Audible frequency hearing the human ear range between 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Question 4.
The velocity of sound in air at a particular temperature is 330 ms^-1. What will be its value when temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved?
(a) 330 ms^-1
(b) 165 ms^-1
(c) 330 × √2 ms^-1
(d) 320 × √2 ms^-1
Answer:
(a) 330 ms^-1

Question 5.
If a sound wave travels with a frequency of 1.25 × 10⁴ Hz at 344 ms^-1, the wavelength will be _____.
(a) 27.52 m
(b) 275.2 m
(c) 0.02752 m
(d) 2.752 m.
Answer:
(c) 0.02752 m
Hint: Velocity of sound = frequency × wavelength
v = nλ
\(\lambda=\frac{v}{n}=\frac{344}{1.24 \times 10^{4}}\)
λ = 0.02752 m.

Question 6.
The sound waves are reflected from an obstacle into the same medium from which they were incident. Which of the following changes?
(a) speed
(b) frequency
(c) wavelength
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(d) none of these.
Hint: If there is the same medium of a reflected obstacle is used, there is no change in speed, frequency and wavelength of the sound.

Question 7.
Velocity of sound in the atmosphere of a planet is 500 ms^-1. The minimum distance between the sources of sound and the obstacle to hear the echo, in point Is is:
(a) 17 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 25 m
(d) 50 m
Answer:
(c) 25 m

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The rapid back and forth motion of a particle about its mean position is called _____.
Answer:
vibrations.

Question 2.
If the energy in a longitudinal wave travels from south to north, the particles of the medium would be vibrating in _____.
Answer:
both north and south.

Question 3.
A whistle giving out a sound of frequency 450 Hz, approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 ms^-1. The frequency heard by the observer is (speed of sound = 330 ms^-1) ______.
Answer:
Data:
v = 330 ms^-1
v_S = 33 ms^-1
n = 450 Hz
n’ =?
Apparent frequency
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n \\ &=\left(\frac{330}{330-33}\right) \times 450=1.11 \times 450 \end{aligned}\)
n’ = 500 Hz.

Question 4.
A source of sound is travelling with a velocity 40 km/h towards an observer and emits a sound of frequency 2000 Hz. If the velocity of sound is 1220 km/h, then the apparent frequency heard by the observer is _____.
Answer:
2068 Hz
Hint: Apparent frequency heard by the observer.
Data:
v = 1220 km/h (or) 339 ms^-1
v_S = 40 km/h (or) 11.1 ms^-1
n = 2000 Hz
\(\begin{aligned} n^{\prime} &=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n \\ &=\left(\frac{339}{339-11.1}\right) \times 2000 \end{aligned}\)
= 1.03385 × 2000
n’ = 2068 Hz.

III. True or False. If false give the reason

Question 1.
Sound can travel through solids, gases, liquids and even vacuum.
Answer:
False.
Reason: Sound can not travel in a vacuum. This is because sound waves are vibrating waves. In vacuum, where there are no atoms or molecules to vibrate.

Question 2.
Waves created by Earth Quake are Infrasonic.
Answer:
True.
Question 3.
The velocity of sound is independent of temperature.
Answer:
False.
Reason: For an ideal gas the velocity of sound depends on its temperature and is independent of gas pressure.

Question 4.
The velocity of sound is high in gases than liquids.
Answer:
False.
Reason: Velocity of a sound wave is maximum in solids because they are more elastic in nature than liquids and gases. Since gases are least elastic in nature, the velocity of sound is the least in a gaseous medium.
So V_S > V_L > V_G.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Infrasonic	(a) Compressions
2. Echo	(b) 22 kHz
3. Ultrasonic	(c) 10 Hz
4. High-pressure region	(d) Ultrasonography

Answer:
1. (c) 10 Hz
2. (d) Ultrasonography
3. (b) 22 kHz
4. (a) Compressions

V. Assertion and Reason Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The change in air pressure affects the speed of sound.
Reason: The speed of sound in a gas is proportional to the square of the pressure
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 2.
Assertion: Sound travels faster in solids than in gases.
Reason: Solid posses a greater density than that of gases.
Answer:
(b) If both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer very briefly

Question 1.
What is a longitudinal wave?
Answer:
If the particles of the medium vibrate along the direction of propagation of the wave.

Question 2.
What is the audible range of frequency?
Answer:
Audible range of frequency is from 20 Hz to 20000 Hz.

Question 3.
What is the minimum distance needed for an echo?
Answer:

1. The minimum distance required to hear an echo is 1/20th part of the magnitude of the velocity of sound in air.
2. If you consider the velocity of sound as 344 ms^-1, the minimum distance required to hear an echo is 17.2 m.

Question 4.
What will be the frequency sound having 0.20 m as its wavelength, when it travels with a speed of 331 m s^-1?
Answer:
Speed v = 331 m/s
Let the wave length be λ = 0.2 m
Let the frequency be n
∴ Frequency n = \(\frac{v}{λ}\) = \(\frac{331}{0.2}\) = \(\frac{3310}{2}\)
∴ Frequency = 1655 Hz

Question 5.
Name three animals, which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
Mosquitos, bats and dogs are the three animals that can hear ultrasonic vibrations.

VII. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Why does sound travel faster on a rainy day than on a dry day?
Answer:
When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
Why does an empty vessel produce more sound than a filled one?
Answer:
In an empty vessel, multiple reflections of sound takes place. Hence more sound is produced in an empty vessel than tilled one.

Question 3.
Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
Velocity of sound, v₀ = 331 ms^-1
Air temperature, T = 46° C
Velocity of sound in air temperature v_T = (v₀ + 0.61T) ms^-1
= 331 + (0.61 × 46)
= 331 + 28.06
v_T = 359.06 ms^-1.

Question 4.
Explain why the ceilings of concert halls are curved.
Answer:
The ceilings of concert halls are curved so that multiple reflections of sound waves can take place.
The parabolic surfaces are used to focus the sound at a particular point. Hence sound will be louder.

Question 5.
Mention two cases in which there is no Doppler effect in sound?
Answer:

1. When source (S) and listener (L) both are at rest.
2. When S and L move in such a way that distance between them remains constant.
3. When source S and L are moving in mutually perpendicular directions.
4. If the source is situated at the centre of the circle along which the listener is moving.

VIII. Problem Corner

Question 1.
A sound wave has a frequency of 200 Hz and a speed of 400 ms^-1 in a medium. Find the wavelength of the sound wave.
Solution:
A sound wave of frequency, n = 200 Hz
Speed, v = 400 ms^-1
The wavelength of the sound wave, λ = \(\frac{v}{n}\)
λ = \(\frac{400}{200}\) = 2 m.

Question 2.
The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms^-1, what will be the height of the cloud?
Answer:
Speed of sound in air v = 330 m/s
Time to hear thunder t = 9.8 s
∴ Height of the cloud = v × t
= 330 × 9.8
= 3234 m.

Question 3.
A person who is sitting at a distance of 400 m from a source of sound is listening to a sound of 600 Hz. Find the time period between successive compressions from the source?
Solution:
Frequency = \(\frac{1}{\text { Time period }}\)
Time period = \(\frac{1}{\text { Frequency }}=\frac{1}{600}\)
T = 0.00167 seconds
The time period between successive compressions from the source is 0.00167 seconds.

Question 4.
An ultrasonic wave is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is found that the time interval between the transmission and reception of the wave is 1.6 seconds. What is the depth of the sea, if the velocity of sound in the seawater is 1400 ms^-1?
Solution:

The depth of the sea is 1120 m.

Question 5.
A man is standing between two vertical walls 680 m apart. He claps his hands and hears two distinct echoes after 0.9 seconds and 1.1 seconds respectively. What is the speed of sound in the air?
Solution:
Given data is
d = 680 m
t₁ = 0.9 s
t₂ = 1.1 s
v = ?
\(\text { Velocity }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
\(v=\frac{2 d}{t}\)

Question 6.
Two observers are stationed in two boats 4.5 km apart. A sound signal sent by one, under water, reaches the other after 3 seconds. What is the speed of sound in the water?
Answer:
Distance of boats d = 4.5 × 10³ m
= 4500 m.
Time t = 3 s
Speed of sound in water = \(\frac{d}{t}\)
= \(\frac{4500}{3}\)
= 1500 m/s

Question 7.
A strong sound signal is sent from a ship towards the bottom of the sea. It is received back after 1 s What is the depth of sea given that the speed of sound in water 1450 ms^-1?
Solution:
Velocity of sound in water \(=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Time taken }}\)
Depth of the sea, d = velocity × time
\(d=\frac{v t}{2}=\frac{1450 \times 1}{2}\) = 725 m.

IX. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
What are the factors that affect the speed of sound in gases?
Answer:
In the case of gases, the following factors affect the velocity of sound waves.
Effect of density : The velocity of sound in a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of the density of the gas. Hence, the velocity decreases as the density of the gas increases.
v ∝\(\sqrt{\frac{1}{d}}\)

Effect of temperature : The velocity of sound in a gas is directly proportional to the square root of its temperature. The velocity of sound in a gas increases with the increase in temperature v ∝ √T. Velocity at temperature T is given by the following equation:
V_r = (v_o + 0.61 T)ms^-1.
Here, v_o is the velocity of sound in the gas at 0° C. For air, v_o = 331 ms^-1. Hence, the velocity of sound changes by 0.61 ms^-1 when the temperature changes by one degree Celsius.

Effect of relative humidity : When humidity increases, the speed of sound increases. That is why you can hear sound from long distances clearly during rainy seasons.

Question 2.
What is mean by the reflection of sound? Explain.
Answer:
Reflection of Sound:
The bouncing of sound waves from the interface between two media is termed as the reflection of sound.
(a) Reflection at the boundary of a rarer medium

• Consider a wave travelling in a solid medium striking on the interface between the solid and the air. The compression exerts a force F on the surface of the rarer medium.
• As a rarer medium has smaller resistance for any deformation, the surface of separation is pushed backwards.
• As the particles of the rarer medium are free to move, a rarefaction is produced at the interface. Thus, compression is reflected as rarefaction and a rarefaction travels from right to left.

(b) Reflection at the boundary of a denser medium

• A longitudinal wave travels in a medium in the form of compressions and rarefactions. Suppose a compression travelling in the air from left to right reaches a rigid wall.
• The compression exerts a force F on the rigid wall. In turn, the wall exerts an equal and
  opposite reaction R = -F on the air molecules. This results in a compression near the rigid wall.
• Thus, a compression travelling towards the rigid wall is reflected back as a compression. That is the direction of compression is reversed.

(c) Reflection at sound in curved surfaces

• When the sound waves are reflected from the curved surfaces, the intensity of the reflected waves is changed.
• When reflected from a convex surface, the reflected waves are diverged out and the intensity is decreased.
• When sound is reflected from a concave surface, the reflected waves are converged and focused at a point. So the intensity of reflected waves is concentrated at a point.
• Parabolic surfaces are used when it is required to focus the sound at a particular point. Hence, many halls are designed with parabolic reflecting surfaces.
• In elliptical surfaces, sound from one focus will always be reflected the other focus, no matter where it strikes the wall.

Question 3.
(a) What do you understand by the term ‘ultrasonic vibration’?
(b) State three uses of ultrasonic vibrations.
(c) Name three animals which can hear ultrasonic vibrations.
Answer:
(a) Ultrasonic vibrations are the vibration with frequency greater than 20 KHz. Human ear cannot detect the ultrasonic vibration.

(b) (i) Ultrasonic waves are used in ultrasonography.
(ii) It is used to get signal images of a developing embryo in the mother’s uterus.
(in) They are used to forecast about tsunami and earthquake.

(c) Certain creatures like dog, bats, dolphins and mosquito can detect the waves.

Question 4.
What is an echo?
(a) State two conditions necessary for hearing an echo.
(b) What are the medical applications of echo?
(c) How can you calculate the speed of sound using echo?
Answer:
Echo: An echo is the sound reproduced due to the reflection of the original sound from various rigid surfaces such as walls, ceilings, surfaces of mountains, etc.

(a) (i) The persistence of hearing for human ears is 0.1 second. This means that we can hear two sound waves clearly if the time interval between the two sounds is at least 0.1 s. Thus, the minimum time gap between the original sound and an echo must be 0.1 s.

(ii) The above criterion can be satisfied only when the distance between the source of the sound and the reflecting surface would satisfy the following equation:
\(\begin{aligned} \text { Velocity } &=\frac{\text { Distance travelled by sound }}{\text { Timetaken }} \\ v &=\frac{2 d}{t} \\ d &=\frac{v t}{2} \end{aligned}\)
Since, t = 0.1 second, then \(d=\frac{v \times 0.1}{2}=\frac{v}{20}\)

(b) (i) The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real – time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus.
(ii) This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.

(c) Apparatus required:
A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver and a stopwatch.
Calculation of speed of sound:
The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2nd while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver.
The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of the sound wave is given by:
\(\text { Speed of sound }=\frac{\text { Distance travelled }}{\text { Timetaken }}=\frac{2 d}{t}\).

X. HOT Questions

Question 1.
Suppose that a sound wave and a light wave have the same frequency, then which one has a longer wavelength?
(a) Sound
(b) Light
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) data not sufficient.
Answer:
(b) light
Explanation: The light wave has a longer wavelength because it has much greater speed.

Question 2.
When sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance between the reflecting surface and the source of sound remain the same. Do you hear an echo sound on a hotter day? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Echo of sound is heard with less velocity and intensity on a hotter day. Because the velocity of sound is directly proportional to temperature of air. On a hotter day temperature will be higher so velocity of sound will be changed by higher values.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Acoustics Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answer

Question 1.
Light can travel in a vacuum but not sound because of ______.
(a) speed of sound is very slow than light.
(b) light waves are electromagnetic in nature.
(c) sound waves are electromagnetic in nature.
(d) light waves are not electromagnetic in nature.
Answer:
(a) speed of sound is very slow than light.
Hint: Light can travel in a vacuum because light waves are electromagnetic in nature.

Question 2.
In a longitudinal wave there is a state of maximum compression at a point at an instant. The frequency of wave is 50 Hz. After what time will the same point be in the state of maximum rarefaction:
(a) 50 s
(b) 25 s
(c) 0.01 s
(d) 0.002 s
Answer:
(c) 0.01 s

Question 3.
When sound travels from air to water, which parameter does not change?
(a) Wavelength
(b) Frequency
(c) Velocity
(d) Temperature.
Answer:
(b) Frequency
Hint: Frequency remains unchanged when sound travels from air to water.

Question 4.
When a wave passes from one medium to another, there is a change of:
(a) Wavelength and velocity
(b) Wavelength and frequency
(c) Velocity and frequency
(d) Velocity only
Answer:
(a) Wavelength and velocity

Question 5.
At what temperature, the speed of sound in the air will become double of its value at 27°C?
(a) 54° C
(b) 627° C
(c) 327° C
(d) 927° C.
Answer:
(d) 927° C.
Hint:
\(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}} \Rightarrow \frac{v_{1}}{2 v_{1}}=\sqrt{\frac{\mathrm{T}_{1}}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{4}=\frac{27+273}{\mathrm{T}_{2}}\)
⇒ T₂ = 300 × 4 = 1200 K
⇒ T₂ = 1200 – 273 = 927° C.

Question 6.
Sound waves from a point source are propagating in all directions. What will be the ratios of amplitude at a distance 9 m and 25 m from the source?
(a) 9 : 25
(b) 25 : 9
(c) 3 : 5
(d) 81 : 625
Answer:
(b) 25 : 9

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Sound waves in a gas are ______.
Answer:
Longitudinal.

Question 2.
The velocity of sound is the largest in ______.
Answer:
Steel.

Question 3.
Hertz is the unit of ______.
Answer:
Frequency.

Question 4.
Sound travels in rocks in the form of ______.
Answer:
Both longitudinal and transverse elastic waves.

Question 5.
The velocity of sound varies directly as the square root of the ______.
Answer:
The absolute temperature of the gas.

Question 6.
Reflection of sound waves obey the ______.
Answer:
Laws of reflection.

Question 7.
RADAR is the short form of ______.
Answer:
Radio Detection and Ranging.

Question 8.
The abbreviation of SONAR is ______.
Answer:
Sound Navigation and Ranging.

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Medium	Speed of Sound (m/s)
(i) Copper	(a) 343
(ii) Water	(b) 331
(iii) Air (0° c)	(c) 5010
(iv) Air (at 20° c)	(d) 1493

Answer:
(i) (c) 5010
(ii) (d) 1493
(iii) (b) 331
(iv) (a) 343.

Question 2.

Waves	Range
(i) Audible	(a) 340 m/s
(ii) Sound	(b) greater than 20kHz
(iii) Infrasonic	(c) 20Hz – 20 kHz
(iv) Light	(d) below 20 Hz
(v) Ultrasonic	(e) 3 × 108 m/s

Answer:
(i) (c) 20 Hz – 20 kHz
(ii) (a) 340 m/s
(iii) (d) below 20 Hz
(iv) (e) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
(v) (b) greater than 20 kHz.

IV. Assertion and Reason Questions

Question 1.
Assertion: Sound wave cannot propagate through a vacuum but light can.
Reason: Sound wave cannot be polarised but light can.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Explanation: Sound waves, being mechanical waves, cannot travel through a vacuum. Light waves, electromagnetic waves, can travel through a vacuum.

Question 2.
Assertion: The velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity.
Reason: Velocity of sound does not depend upon the medium.
(a) both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
Explanation: Velocity of sound increases with increase in humidity. The velocity of sound depends upon medium.

V. Answer Very Briefly

Question 1.
What is sound? Is it a force or energy?
Answer:
Sound is a vibration that typically propagates as an audible wave of pressure, through a transmission medium such as a gas, liquid or solid. Sound is not a force, it is an energy.

Question 2.
In which type of media, can longitudinal waves be propagated?
Answer:
Longitudinal waves can be propagated through solids, liquids and gases.

Question 3.
How does sound reach our ears from various sources?
Answer:
Sound reaches our ears in the form of transverse waves or vibrations from its source of production.

Question 4.
What is the minimum distance between two points in a wave having a phase difference of 2π?
Answer:
The minimum distance is the wavelength.

Question 5.
Suppose you and your friend are on the Moon. Will you be able to hear any sound produced by your friend?
Answer:

• As the Moon does not have air, you will not be able to hear any sound produced by your friend.
• Hence, you understand that the sound produced due to the vibration of different bodies needs a material medium like air, water, steel, etc, for its propagation.
• Hence, sound can propagate through a gaseous medium or a liquid medium or a solid medium.

Question 6.
What is the effect of pressure on the speed of sound in gas?
Answer:
The increase of pressure has no effect on the speed of sound in a gas.

Question 7.
Write down the difference between the sound and light waves.
Answer:

Sound	Light
1. Medium is required for the propagation	1. Medium is not required for the propagation.
2. Sound waves are longitudinal.	2. Light waves are transverse.
3. Wavelength ranges from 1.65 cm to 1.65 m.	3. Wavelength ranges from 4 × 10-7 m to 7 × 10-7 m.
4. Sound waves travel in the air with a speed of about 340 ms-1 at NTP.	4. Light waves travel in the air with a speed of 3 × 108 ms-1

Question 8.
Define particle velocity.
Answer:
The velocity with which the particles of the medium vibrate in order to transfer the energy in the form of a wave is called particle velocity.

Question 9.
Define wave velocity.
Answer:
The velocity with which the wave travels through the medium is called wave velocity.

Question 10.
Define velocity of a sound wave.
Answer:
The distance travelled by a sound wave in unit time is called the velocity of a sound wave.
\(\text { Velocity }=\frac{\text { Distance }}{\text { Time taken }}\)

Question 11.
State the laws of reflection of sound.
Answer:
The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.

Question 12.
State ‘Laws of reflection’.
Answer:

• The incident wave, the normal to the reflecting surface and the reflected wave at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.
• The angle of incidence ∠i is equal to the angle of reflection ∠r.

Question 13.
What is meant by rarer and denser medium?
Answer:

1. Rarer medium: The medium in which the velocity of sound increases compared to other medium is called rarer medium. (Water is rarer compared to air for sound).
2. Denser medium: The medium in which the velocity of sound decreases compared to other medium is called denser medium. (Air is denser compared to water for sound)

VI. Problem Corner

Question 1.
A wave of length 0.60 cm is produced in air and travels with a velocity of 340 ms^-1. Will it be audible to the human ear?
Solution:
Wavelength, λ = 0.6 × 10^-2 m
Velocity of sound, v = 340 ms^-1
Frequency, n = \(\frac{v}{\lambda}\)
⇒ n = \(\frac{340}{0.6 \times 10^{-2}}\)
⇒ n = 566.66 × 10²
⇒ n = 567 × 10² Hz.

Question 2.
Consider a source moving towards a listener at a speed of 0.9 v. Where v is the velocity of sound. Calculate the apparent frequency if the actual frequency is 600 Hz.
Solution:

Question 3.
Audible frequencies have a range of 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. Express it in terms of wavelength in air.
Answer:
Let the velocity of sound in air be 340 m/s
Initial frequency v₁ = 20 Hz
Initial wavelength λ₁ = \(\frac{v}{V_1}\)
= \(\frac{340}{20}\) = 17 m
Final frequency v₂ = 20 × 10³ Hz
Final wavelength λ₂ = \(\frac{340}{20×10³}\)
= 17 × 10^-3 = 0.017 m
The range of wavelength is from 17 m to 0.017 m

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write down the applications of echo?
Answer:
Applications of echo:

• Some animals communicate with each other over long distances and also locate objects by sending the sound signals and receiving the echo as reflected from the targets.
• The principle of echo is used in obstetric ultrasonography, which is used to create real – time visual images of the developing embryo or fetus in the mother’s uterus. This is a safe testing tool, as it does not use any harmful radiations.
• Echo is used to determine the velocity of sound waves in any medium.

Question 2.
Classify sound waves based on their frequencies.
Answer:
(i) Audible waves : These are sound waves with a frequency ranging between 20 Hz and 20,000 Hz. These are generated by vibrating bodies such as vocal cords, stretched strings etc.

(ii) Infrasonic waves : These are sound waves with a frequency below 20 Hz that cannot be heard by the human ear. eg: waves produced during earth quake, ocean waves, sound produced by whales, etc.

(iii) Ultrasonic waves : These are sound waves with a frequency greater than 20 kHz, Human ear cannot detect these waves, but certain creatures like mosquito, dogs, bats, dolphins can detect these waves, eg: waves produced by bats.

Question 3.
Write down the concept of Ear trumpet and Megaphone.
Answer:
Ear trumpet:

• Ear trumpet is a hearing aid, which is useful by people who have difficulty in hearing.
• In this device, one end is wide and the other end is narrow. The sound from the sources fall into the wide end and are reflected by its walls into the narrow part of the device. This helps in concentrating the sound and the sound enters the eardrum with more intensity. This enables a person to hear the sound better.

Megaphone:

• A megaphone is a horn – shaped device used to address a small gathering of people.
• It’s one end is wide and the other end is narrow. When a person speaks at the narrow end, the sound of his speech is concentrated by the multiple reflections from the walls of the tube. Thus, his voice can be heard loudly over a long distance.

Question 4.
What is the Doppler effect? Derive the formula for the change in apparent frequency
1. Both source and listener move towards and away from each other.
2. Both source and listener move one behind the other source follows the listener and listener follows the source.
3. A source at rest, listener moves towards and away from the source.
4. A listener at rest, the source moves towards and away from the listener.
Answer:
1.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move towards each other	(a) Distance between source and listener decreases. (b) Apparent frequency is more than actual frequency.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move away from each other	(a) Distance between source and listener increases. (b) Apparent frequency is less than actual frequency. (c) vS and vL become opposite to that in case-1.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v+v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)

2.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move one behind the other (iii) Source follows the listener	(a) Apparent frequency depends on the velocities of the source and the listener. (b) vS becomes opposite to that in case-2.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)
(i) Both source and listener move (ii) They move one behind the other (iii) The listener follows the source	(a) Apparent frequency depends on the velocities of the source and the listener. (b) vS and vL become opposite to that in case-3.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v+v_{\mathrm{s}}}\right) n\)

3.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Source at rest (ii) Listener moves towards the source	(a) Distance between source and listener decreases. (b) Apparent frequency is more than actual frequency. (c) vS = 0 in case-1.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v+v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v}\right) n\)
(i) Source at rest (ii) Listener moves away from the source	(a) Distance between source and listener increases. (b) Apparent frequency is less than actual frequency. (c) vS = 0 in case-2.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v-v_{\mathrm{L}}}{v}\right) n\)

4.

Position of source and listener	Note	Expression for apparent frequency
(i) Listener at rest (ii) Source moves towards the listener	(a) Distance between source and listener decreases. (b) Apparent frequency is more than actual frequency. (c) vL = 0 in case-1.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v-v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)
(i) Listener at rest (ii) Source moves away from the listener	(a) Distance between source and listener increases. (b) Apparent frequency is less than actual frequency. (c) vL = 0 in case-2.	\(n^{\prime}=\left(\frac{v}{v+v_{\mathrm{S}}}\right) n\)

Question 5.
Explain echo method to measure velocity’ of sound.
Answer:
Apparatus required: A source of sound pulses, a measuring tape, a sound receiver, and a stop watch.
Procedure:

1. Measure the distance ‘d’ between the source of sound pulse and the reflecting surface using the measuring tape.
2. The receiver is also placed adjacent to the source. A sound pulse is emitted by the source.
3. The stopwatch is used to note the time interval between the instant at which the sound pulse is sent and the instant at which the echo is received by the receiver. Note the time interval as ‘t’.
4. Repeat the experiment for three or four times. The average time taken for the given number of pulses is calculated.

Calculation of speed of sound : The sound pulse emitted by the source travels a total distance of 2d while travelling from the source to the wall and then back to the receiver. The time taken for this has been observed to be ‘t’. Hence, the speed of sound wave is given by:
Speed of sound = \(\frac{distence Travelled}{Time Taken}\)
= \(\frac{2d}{t}\)

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Resources and Industries

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Resources and Industries Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

India Resources And Industries Question 1.
Manganese is used in …
(a) Storage batteries
(b) Steel Making
(c) Copper smelting
(d) Petroleum Refining
Answer:
(b) Steel Making

10th Geography Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
The Anthracite coal has:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon
(b) Above 70% Carbon
(c) 60 to 70% Carbon
(d) Below 50% Carbon
Answer:
(a) 80 to 95% Carbon

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Geography Book Question 3.
The most important constituents of petroleum are hydrogen and
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) Carbon
(d) Nitrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Solutions Question 4.
The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is:
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Science Question 5.
The first Jute mill of India was established at
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
(d) Baroda
Answer:
(a) Kolkata

Social Solutions For Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in:
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

10th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
The most abundant source of energy is
(a) Biomass
(b) Sun
(c) Coal
(d) Oil
Answer:
(b) Sun

10th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in:
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Assam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Question 9.
The nucleus for the development of the Chotanagpur plateau region is
(a) Transport
(b) Mineral Deposits
(c) Large demand
(d) Power Availability
Answer:
(b) Mineral Deposits

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 10.
One of the shore based steel plants of India is located at:
(a) Kolkata
(b) Tuticorin
(c) Goa
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(d) Visakhapatnam

II. Match the following.

Answer:
a – 2,
b – 1,
c – 4,
d – 5,
e – 3

Answer:
a – 5,
b – 4,
c – 1,
d – 2,
e – 3

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Question 1.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment and is used by living things including humans is termed as resource. Based on continued availability classified into Renewable and Non-Renewable Resources.

10th Social India Outline Map Question 2.
Name the states that lead in the production of Iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand, Odisha Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 10th Std Question 3.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and physical properties.
Minerals are broadly grouped into two Metallic minerals and Non-Metallic minerals.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 4.
State the uses of magnesium.
Answer:

1. It is an important minerals used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material for alloying.
2. It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 10th Question 5.
What is natural gas?
Answer:

1. Natural gas is a natural hydrocarbon gas mixture primarily consisting of methane.
2. Usually accompanies the petroleum accumulations.
3. It is formed when layers of decomposed plants and animals are exposed to intense heat and pressure over thousands of years.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 10 Social Science Solutions Question 6.
Name the different types of coal with their carbon content.
Answer:

1. Anthracite: contains 80 to 90% Carbon
2. Bituminous: contains 60 to 80% Carbon
3. Lignite : 40 to 90% Carbon
4. Peat: Contains less than 40% Carbon

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Social Question 7.
Mention the major areas of jute.production in India.
Answer:

1. The major Jute producing area are in West Bengal and concentrated along Hoogly river within the radius of six kilometer of Kolkata.
2. Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Assam, Chattisgarh and Odisha are other jute producing areas.

Question 8.
Name the important oil producing regions of India.
Answer:
Oil in India is obtained from both from on-shore and off-shore areas.

Western Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Mumbai high oil fields
2. Gujarat Coast
3. Basseim oil field, South of Mumbai high
4. Ankleshwar
5. Cambay-Luni Region
6. Ahemedabad-Kalol Region
7. Aliabet oil feild, south of Bhavanagar

Eastern Coast off shore oil fields:

1. Brahmaputra valley
2. Digboi oil feilds
3. Nahoratiya oil fields
4. Moran-Hugrijan oil field
5. Rudrasagar-Lawa oil feilds
6. Surrma valley
7. Offshore of Andaman and Nicobar, Gulf of Mannar, Baleshwar coast, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

IV. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Renewable and Non-renewable resources.
Answer:

Question 2.
Metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:

Question 3.
Agro based industry and mineral based industry.
Answer:

Question 4.
Jute industry and the sugar industry.
Answer:

Question 5.
Conventional energy and Non-conventional energy.
Answer:

V. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Write about the distribution of cotton textile industries in India.
Answer:
The cotton textile industry is the largest organized modem industry of India.

The major cotton textile industries are concentrated in the States of Maharashtra. Gujarat, West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

The location of cotton textile industries states are due to the presence of black cotton soil, humid climate, cheap labour, availability of capital, transport facilities, port facilities, power supply and good market.

Mumbai: Manchester of India.
Coimbatore: Manchester of South India
Kanpur: Manchester of Uttar Pradesh

The above cities have more number of cotton mills.

Question 2.
Explain the factors responsible for the concentration of jute industries in the hoogly region.
Answer:
Most of the Jute mills of India are centralised in “Hooghly Basin” of the West Bengal. The factors responsible for the concentration of Jute industry in Hooghly Basin region are:

1. Ganga, Brahmaputra delta regions grow about 90% of India’s Jute and provides raw materials in jute mills.
2. Coal for power is obtained from Raniganj coalfields.
3. Hooghly River provides cheap water transport and soft water for washing, processing, retting and dyeing jute.
4. Humid climate is favourable for spinning and weaving.
5. Cheap labour is available from West Bengal, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
6. Conductive port facility of Kolkata for export and import at Kolkata.

In addition to West Bengal, Jute mills are also located in Andhra pradesh, Uttar pradesh, Bihar, Madhya pradesh and Odisha.

India exports jute products to Australia, U.K, Thailand, U.S.A, Canada, Argentina, East Africa, New Zealand and Indonesia.

Question 3.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:

1. Mineral based industries:

• The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
• It is a key or basic industry and lays the foundation for other industries.
• These industries form the economic backbone of a country.

2. Location of Iron and Steel Industries:
Most of our country’s major iron and steel industries are located in the Chotanagpur plateau region.

3. Distribution of Iron and Steel Industries:
India has 11 integrated steel plant and 150 mini steel plants and a large number of rolling and re-rolling mills.

1. Tata Iron and Steel Company [TISCO]: In 1911, Tata Iron and Steel Company was setup at Jamshedpur. Its major products are Pig Iron and Crude steel.
2. Indian Iron and Steel Company [IISCO]: The Steel plant at Kulti, Bumpur and Hirapur were integrated and the Indian iron and steel company was set up at Bumpur in 1972.
3. Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Ltd(VISL): Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Limited was set up in 1923 at Bhadravati in Karnataka. Its major products are alloy and sponge steel.
4. • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bhilai: It is located in Durg district of Chattisgarh. It started its production in 1957. Its major products are Railway Equipment and shipbuilding.
   • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Rourkela: It was established in 1965 in Odisha. Its major products include hot and cold rolled sheets, Galvanized sheets and electrical plates.
   • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Durgapur: It was established in 1959 in Durgapur of West Bengal. Its major products are alloy,steel, construction materials and railway equipments.
   • Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bokaro: It is situated in the Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It started its operation in 1972. Its major products are sludge and slog.
5. Salem Steel Ltd: It is located at salem in Tamil Nadu. It started its production in 1982. The major products are stainless steel.
6. Vijayanagar Steel Plant: The Vijayanagar Steel Plant has been set up at Tomagal in Karnataka. It started its production in 1994. The major products are flat steel and long steel.
7. The Visakhapatnam Steel Plant(VSP): It started its operation in 1981 at Visakhapatnam in Andhra pradesh. Its major products are Hot metal.

4. Mini Steel Plants:

1. Mini steel plants are decentralized secondary units with capacity ranging from 10,000 tonnes to 5 lakh tonnes per year.
2. They produce mild steel, alloy steel and stainless steel.
3. Most of the mini steel plants are located in areas far away from the major steel plants so that they can meet the local demands.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following

Question 1.
Iron ore production centres.
Answer:

Question 2.
Centres of Petroleum and Natural Gas production.
Answer:

Question 3.
Coal mining centres.
Answer:

Question 4.
Areas of cltivation of cotton.
Answer:

Question 5.
Iron and Steel Industries.
Answer:

Resources and Industries Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The cotton textile industry is ……..
(a) Mineral-based industry
(b) Agro-based industry
(c) Forest-based industry
Answer:
(b) Agro-based industry

Question 2.
………………. is the largest coal-producing state in India.
(a) Rajasthan
(b) TamilNadu
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Odisha
Answer:
(c) Jharkhand

Question 3.
Tata Iron and Steel industry is located at ………
(a) Durgapur
(b) Bhilai
(c) Jamshedpur
Answer:
(c) Jamshedpur

Question 4.
………………. is the oldest oil field in the country.
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Dibrugarh
(c) Digboi
(d) Rudra Sagar
Answer:
(c) Digboi

Question 5.
The City Known as Electronic Capital is ……….
(a) Kanpur
(b) Delhi
(c) Bangalore
Answer:
(c) Bangalore

Question 6.
The flexible mode of power generation is ………………. very quickly adapting to changing demands.
(a) Thermal power
(b) Hydropower
(c) Solar power
(d) Nuclear power
Answer:
(b) Hydropower

Question 7.
…….. is the major exporter of jute.
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Bangladesh
Answer:
(c) Bangladesh

Question 8.
Development of wind power in India began in the year:
(a) 1976
(b) 1966
(c) 1986
(d) 1906
Answer:
(c) 1986

Question 9.
Petroleum is also known as ……..
(a) Black oil
(b) Mineral oil
(c) Yellow liquid
Answer:
(b) Mineral oil

Question 10.
………………. is the process by which the cotton seeds are removed from the cotton fibre.
(a) Ginning
(b) Relting
(c) Pruning
(d) Tapping
Answer:
(a) Ginning

Question 11.
The first automobile industry was started at ………
(a) Uttar pradesh
(b) Kurla
(c) Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Kurla

Question 12.
Make in India programme was launched in ………………. the year:
(a) 2000
(b) 2004
(c) 2014
(d) 2016
Answer:
(c) 2014

Question 13.
The Oldest and the largest integrated Iron and Steel plant of India is
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(b) Salem Steel Ltd
(c) Indian Iron and Steel Company
Answer:
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company

Question 14.
India exports software service to nearly ………………. countries in the world.
(a) 65
(b) 75
(c) 85
(d) 95
Answer:
(d) 95

Question 15.
Jharkhand is the leading producer of
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Indian ore
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 16.
………. is contained in the Monazite sand.
(a) Oil
(b) Thorium
(c) Coal
Answer:
(b) Thorium

Question 17.
Where are minerals usually found?
(a) On rocks
(b) On earth crust
(c) On ores
Answer:
(c) On ores

Question 18.
Minerals occur igneous and metamorphic rocks in
(a) the veins and the lodes
(b) layers
(c) alluvial deposit
Answer:
(a) the veins and the lodes

Question 19.
…….. is the basic minerals and the backbone of industrial development.
(a) Coal
(b) Copper
(c) Iron ore
Answer:
(c) Iron ore

Question 20.
…….. metal has a very high content of iron up to 70%.
(a) Magnetic ore
(b) Limonite ore
(c) Hematite ore
Answer:
(a) Magnetic ore

Question 21.
……… is the largest producer of manganese ore in India.
(a) Kudremukh
(b) Odisha
(c) Bailadila
Answer:
(b) Odisha

Question 22.
……… is the basic raw material for the cement industry.
(a) Gypsum
(b) Limestone
(c) Potash salt
Answer:
(b) Limestone

Question 23.
……. is the hardest mineral.
(a) Gold
(b) Diamond
(c) Ruby
Answer:
(b) Diamond

Question 24.
…….. is the softest mineral.
(a) Talc
(b) Salt
(c) Cement
Answer:
(a) Talc

Question 25.
Which one is not a ferrous mineral?
(a) Iron ore
(b) Copper
(c) Hematite
Answer:
(b) Copper

Question 26.
Which one of the following is not a property of Copper?
(a) It is ductile
(b) It is a good conductor
(c) It is hard
Answer:
(c) It is hard

Question 27.
The mineral ore from which aluminium is mainly obtained.
(a) Copper
(b) bauxite
(c) iron ore
Answer:
(b) bauxite

Question 28.
…….. is the finest iron ore.
(a) Hematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Lignite
Answer:
(b) Magnetite

Question 29.
……. and …….. are obtained from veins and Nodes.
(a) Zinc and copper
(b) Copper and coal
(c) Coal and Bauxite
Answer:
(a) Zinc and copper

Question 30.
……. is not a conventional source of energy.
(a) Coal
(b) Biogas
(c) firewood
Answer:
(b) Biogas

Question 31.
The largest solar plant of India is located at …….
(a) Madhapur
(b) Nagarcoil
(c) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Madurai

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……… is a silvery grey element.
2. ……… is the first metal used by man.
3. Bauxite is an important one from which …….. is extracted.
4. In ancient time, ……… was used in ayurvedic medicine.
5. ……… is an inflammable organic substance composed mainly of hydrocarbons.
6. …….. usually accompanies petroleum accumulation.
7. India is the second-largest producer of ……..
8. ……… is the largest producer of silk.
9. The first paper mill of India was started in ………
10. The first Jute mill in India was established ……… at near Kolkata.
11. The by-product of the sugar industry are ……. and ……………
12. Most of the jute mills of India are centralized in …….. basin of the West Bengal
13. India is the ……… sugar-producing country in the world.
14. High-grade iron ore is available in …… in Jharkhand.
15. The fast-growing industry of India is …….. industry.
16. The Manchester of Tamil Nadu is ……..
17. The process of rearing silkworm is called ………
18. The first short based integrated steel plant in the country is the …
19. The Electronic capital of India is called ……….
20. Low quality brown coal is called ……..
21. …….. makes our toothpaste white.
22. The first hydro-electric power station in India was established at …….
23. Limestone is found in ………. rocks.
Answers:
1. Manganese
2. Copper
3. aluminium
4. Mica
5. Coal
6. Natural gas
7. raw silk
8. Karnataka
9. West Bengal
10. Rishra
11. Bagasse, Molasses
12. Hooghly
13. second
14. Singbhum
15. automobile
16. Coimbatore
17. Sericulture
18. Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant
19. Bangalore
20. lignite
21. Titanium Oxide
22. Darjeeling
23. Sedimentary

III. Match the following.

Answers
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (e)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3.(e)
4. (b)
5. (e)

IV. Answer in one or two words.

Question 1.
What makes our toothpaste white?
Answer:
Titanium oxide

Question 2.
Name the rock which is made of one mineral.
Answer:
Limestone

Question 3.
How many minerals have been identified so far in the world?
Answer:
Nearly 2000

Question 4.
Name the mineral which is used to harden steel during manufacturing.
Answer:
Manganese

Question 5.
Which is the most abundantly available fossil fuel?
Answer:
Coal

Question 6.
How many thermal power plants are there in India?
Answer:
310 thermal plants

Question 7.
Which energy can be produced from ocean water?
Answer:
Tidal energy

Question 8.
What are two categories of minerals?
Answer:

1. Metallic
2. Non-metallic

Question 9.
Name the two countries which import iron ore from India?
Answer:
Japan and India

Question 10.
In what form ore minerals generally found?
Answer:
In the form of ores.

Question 11.
Name the two important coalfields of India?
Answer:
Jharia and Bokaro

V. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Give the full form of these abbreviated words:
Answer:
SAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
MOIL – Manganese Ore India Limited
HCL – Hindustan Copper Limited
NALCO – National Aluminium Company Limited
NLCIL – Neyveli Lignite Corporation of India Limited

Question 2.
How do we get metals?
Answer:
We get metals by processing minerals ores.

Question 3.
What are the uses of petroleum?
Answer:
Petroleum is used as a source of power and fuel for automobiles, aeroplanes, ships and locomotives.

Question 4.
What are the by products of Jute industry?
Answer:
Gunny bags, canvas, pack sheets, jute webs, lassian, carpets, cordage and twines

Question 5.
What are the by-products of petroleum?
Answer:
The by-products of petroleum are Lubricants, Kerosene, Vaseline, Tar, Soap, Terylene and Wax.

Question 6.
List out the sugar-producing states of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu.

Question 7.
Name some of the Nuclear power stations in India.
Answer:

1. Rawatbhatta-Kota in Rajasthan.
2. Kalpakkam and Kudankulam in Tamil Nadu.
3. Narora in Uttar Pradesh.
4. Kaiga in Karnataka and Kakrapara in Gujarat.

Question 8.
List out the leading states of paper production in our country.
Answer:
West Bengal, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.

Question 9.
Name some of the major software industries in the country?
Answer:
Tata Consultancy Services (TCS) , L and T Infotech, i-Flex, Accenture, Cognizant, GalexE Solutions India Pvt Limited and ITC Infotech are the major software industries in the country.

Question 10.
How are the industries classified on the basis of raw materials?
Answer:

1. Agro based industries
2. Forest based industries
3. Mineral based industries

Question 11.
Define the term ‘ore’.
Answer:
The term ‘ore’ is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements.

Question 12.
Why is natural gas considered an eco-friendly fuel?
Answer:
Because of low carbon dioxide emissions.

Question 13.
How is thermal electricity generated?
Answer:
Thermal electricity is generated by using coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 14.
How is hydro-electricity generated?
Answer:
Hydro-electricity is generated by fast flowing water.

Question 15.
What is called pruning?
Answer:
Trimming of over grown branches of tea plants is known as pruning.

Question 16.
What is ginning?
Answer:
The seeds are separated from the cotton fibre by means of a process called ginning.

Question 17.
Name the chief silk weaving centers of India.
Answer:
Srinagar, Amritsar, Murshidabad, V aranasi, Pune, Mysore, Bangalore, Arani and Kanchipuram. Karnataka is famous for silk worm rearing.

Question 18.
What is Byssionosis?
Answer:
Byssionosis also called “Brown lung disease” or “Monday fever” ia an occupational lung disease caused dust in inadequately ventilated working environments.

Question 19.
Mention any four activities which require energy.
Answer:

1. Cook food
2. Provide light and heat
3. Propel vehicles
4. Drive machinery in industries

Question 20.
How is natural gas used?
Answer:
Natural gas is used as a source of energy as well as an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry.

Question 21.
Mention any three major iron ore belts of India.
Answer:

1. Odisha – Jharkhand belt
2. Durg – Bastar – Chandrapur belt in Chattisgarh and Maharashtra
3. Bellary – Chitradurga – Chikmangalur – Tumkur belt in Karnataka

Question 22.
Mention the properties of Mica.
Answer:

1. It is made up of a series of plates or leaves.
2. It splits easily into thin sheets.
3. Mica can be clear, black, green, red, yellow or brown.
4. Mica is considered an important mineral used in electric and electronic industries.

Question 23.
What is solar energy?
Answer:
The energy obtained from the sun is known as the solar energy. It does not cause environmental problems as it is pollution free.

Question 24.
Mention the importance of sugar industry.
Answer:
India is the world’s second largest producer of sugarcane after Brazil. Sugar industry provide employment to 2.86 lakh workers, besides creating extensive indirect employment and income for 25 million cultivators of sugarcane. It is also an important source of excise duty.

Question 25.
Write about Silk industry.
Answer:
India is one of the large producer of raw silk. Sericulture is the process of rearing silkworm. The chief silk weaving centres are Srinagar, Amritsar, Murshidabad, Varanasi, Pune, Mysore, Bangalore, Salem, Arani and Kanchipuram. Karnataka is famous for silkworm rearing.
India exports exclusively silk fabrics like scarves, dress-materials and sarees. The principal buyers of Indian silk are West Germany, Singapore, USA, UK, Russia, Saudi Arabia and Kuwait.

Question 26.
How are deposits of bauxite formed and aluminium obtained?
Answer:
Bauxite deposits are formed due to decomposition of wide variety of rocks rich in aluminium silicates. Ores containing aluminium are obtained from bauxite which is a clay-like substance from which alumina and later aluminium is obtained.

Question 27.
Write the importance of Solar energy.
Answer:

1. Solar energy does not cause environmental problems as it is pollution free.
2. India has enormous possibilities of tapping solar system.
3. It is becoming popular in rural and remote areas of India. Thus, it will be able to minimise the dependence of rural households on firewood and dunk cake.

Question 28.
How is nuclear energy obtained?
Answer:
Nuclear energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. When such an alteration is made, much energy is released in the form of heat and this is used to generate electric power. Uranium and thorium, which are available in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power. The monazite sands of Kerala is also rich in thorium.

Question 29.
Give the importance of the Salem Steel Plant.
Answer:
Salem Steel Plant started for commercial production in 1982. It is a major producer of world class stainless steel, which is exported to USA, Mexico, Australia and some other countries of South East Asia.

Question 30.
Give an account of Electronic industry of India.
Answer:
India has made remarkable progress in electronic and computer technology since 1996. “Bangalore” is known as the Electronic Capital of India as it is the leading centre for the production of electronic goods. The other centres are Hyderabad, Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Kanpur, Pune, Lucknow, Jaipur, Coimbatore etc. India can now boast as the leading exporter of electronic goods. It covers a wide range of products including television, transistor, telephone, cellular phones, computer and varied equipment for posts and telegraph, defence, railway and meteorological departments.

VI. Distinguish Between.

Question 1.
Textile industry and Jute industry
Answer:

Question 2.
Solk industry and Jute industry
Answer:

Question 3.
Automobile industry and Electronic industries
Answer:

Question 4.
Forest based industries and Agro based industries
Answer:

Question 5.
Ginning and Retting
Answer:

Ginning Retting
The seeds are separated from the cotton fibre by the process of Ginning. Retting is a micro-biology process which loosens the outer bark and makes it easier to remove the jute fibres from the stalk.

Question 6.
Iron and steel industry and Software industry
Answer:

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are Resources? How they are classified based on their availability? Give examples.
Answer:

(i) Natural resources are the matter or energy obtained from the environment used by living things including human beings.

(ii) Natural resources include air, water, soil, minerals, fossil, fuels, plants, wild life etc..

(iii) They are classified on several basis. Based on continued availability the resources are classified into two types:

Renewable Resources:
The resources which have natural regeneration after their utilization. Eg: Solar energy, Wind energy, Bio gas, tidal energy, wave energy etc

Non – Renewable Resources:
The resources that cannot be replaced again after utilization.
Eg: Minerals like Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas, Iron ore, Manganese, Bauxite etc.

(iv) Many natural resources are used as raw materials and they play a vital role in the economic development of a region.

Question 2.
Describe the factors encouraging cotton textile industry in Mumbai.
Answer:
Mumbai in Maharashtra is the leading cotton textile center and it is called the “Manchester of India”.
The following factors favour the cotton industries in Mumbai:

1. Location of port facilities for the export of finished goods.
2. Well connected to rail and road links with cotton growing area.
3. Humid coastal climate favours yarning.
4. Availability of capital goods and finance.
5. Availability of manpower.

VIII. Expand the following:

1. NFTDC – Non-Ferrous Material Technology Department Centre
2. SAIL – Steel Authority of India Limited
3. MOIL Manganese Ore India Limited
4. HCL – Hindustan Copper Limited
5. NALCO – National Aluminium Company Limited
6. CIL Coal India Limited
7. MOP & NG – The Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
8. GAIL The Gas Authority of India Limited
9. CNG Compressed Natural Gas
10. NPCIL – The Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
11. DAE – Department of Atomic Energy
12. NHPC National Hydroelectric Power Corporation
13. MNES Ministry of Non-Conventional Energy Source
14. NIWE – The National Institute of Wind Energy
15. CSTRI – Central Silk Technological Research Institute
16. NEPA National Newsprint and Paper Mills
17. BHEL – Bharat Heavy Electrical Limited
18. TCS Tata Consultancy Service
19. NTPC – National Thermal Power Corporation

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The Last Lesson Warm up:

A. Fill the globe with an acrostic poem.

Answer:

B. How can you make the world a better place?

While “making the world a better place” often calls to mind the image of Michael Jackson’s song, ‘Heal the world’, there is plenty of room for less lofty acts that create small measures of happiness in the lives of those around us. Little gesticulations can create or fortify our sense of community and of shared human race, lessening our problems for just a moment and giving us something to smile about.

C. What does the picture symbolise?
Answer:
The picture symbolises Peace and tranquillity.

D. Find the names of the various UN organizations with the logo given below and fill in the blanks.

Answer:

The Last Lesson Intext Questions

The Last Lesson Class 10 Question a.
What kind of news was usually put up on the bulletin board?
Answer:
All bad news like lost battles, the draft, the orders of the commanding officer, came from the Bulletin board.

The Last Lesson Book Back Answers Question b.
What was the usual scene when school began every day?
Answer:
When school began every day, there was a great bustle of opening and closing of the desks, lessons were repeated in unison loudly and the teacher’s ruler rapped on the table.

10th English The Last Lesson Question c.
Other than the students, who were present in the class?
Answer:
The village people, old Hauser, the former mayor, the former postmaster and several others were present in the class, besides the students.

The Last Lesson 10th Class Question d.
Why did Mr. Hamel say it was the last French lesson?
Answer:
The order had come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine. So Mr. Hamel said that was the last French lesson.

The Last Lesson Summary In Tamil Question e.
What was Franz asked to tell? Was he able to answer?
Answer:
Franz was asked to recite the rule for participle all through. But he got mixed up on the first words and stood there nervous.

10th English Unit 6 Poem Question f.
Why did Mr.Hamel blame himself?
Answer:
Mr. Hamel blamed himself because he had often sent Franz to water his flowers instead of learning his lessons and when he went for fishing he gave him a holiday.

The Last Lesson In Tamil Question g.
What did M. Hamel say about the French language?
Answer:
M. Hamel said that French was the most beautiful language in the world – the clearest, the most logical and that they must guard it and never forget it.

The Last Lesson Question Answers Pdf Question h.
How many years had M. Hamel been in the village?
Answer:
M. Hamel had been in the village for forty years.

The Last Lesson Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

The Last Lesson Summary Class 10 Question 1.
Why did Franz dread to go to school that day?
Answer:
Franz dreaded to go to school that day because M.Hamel had said he would question them on participles and he did not know the first word about them.

Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer:
The day was warm and bright. The birds were chirping and in the open field back of the sawmill, the Prussian soldiers were drilling.

Question 3.
Why was the narrator not able to get to his desk without being seen?
Answer:
The narrator was not able to get to his desk without being seen because that day everything was quiet about the school. He had to open the door and go in before everybody, who were in their places already.

Question 4.
What was Franz sorry for?
Answer:
Franz was sorry for not learning his lessons, for having found his books heavy and his history of the saints, were old friends, now that he couldn’t give up. He also felt sorry for Hamel who was going away.

Question 5.
Why were the old villagers sitting in the last desk?
Answer:
The old villagers sat in the last desks feeling sad that, that was the last French lesson that would be taught at school. They were sorry that they hadn’t gone to school, it was their way of thanking the master for his forty years of faithful service.

Question 6.
What were the thoughts of the narrator’s parents?
Answer:
The narrator’s parents preferred to send him to work on a farm or at the mills so as to have a little more money.

Question 7.
Why does M. Hamel say that we must guard our language?
Answer:
M. Hamel said that we must guard our language among us and never forget it because when a people are enslaved, as long as they hold fast to their language it is as if they had the key to their prison.

Question 8.
M. Hamel was gazing at many things. What were they?
Answer:
M.Hamel was gazing at his garden outside the window, his class in front of him, the walnut- trees in the garden and the hop vine that he had planted twined about the windows to the roof, with a broken heart that he is leaving all.

Question 9.
When and how did M. Hamel bid farewell to the class?
Answer:
When the trumpets of the Prussians sounded under their windows, M.Hamel stood up, very pale, with words choking his throat, he turned to the blackboard, and wrote “LONG LIVE FRANCE!” in French with a great deal of effort and a heavy heart.

Additional Questions

Question 1.
What was Franz expected to be prepared with for school that day?
Answer:
That day Franz was expected to be prepared with participles because M. Hamel had said that he would question them on participles. Franz did not know anything about participles.

Question 2.
What had been put up on the bulletin- board?
Answer:
An order had come from Berlin to teach only German in the schools of Alsace and Lorraine. The Germans had put this notice upon the bulletin-board.

Question 3.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board-the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Question 4.
Who was Wachter? What did he ask Franz and why? How did Franz react?
Answer:
Wachter, a blacksmith was reading the latest bulletin. He asked Franz not to rush to his school and said that he would get to his school well ahead of time. Franz thought that the blacksmith was making fun of him not realizing the order that was announced. So, he ignored Wachter and rushed so that he would escape M. Hamel’s rebuke.

Question 5.
What changes did the order from Berlin cause in school that day?
Answer:
M. Hamel had put on his best dress-his beautiful green coat, his frilled shirt and the little black silk cap, all embroidered. The whole school seemed so strange and solemn. On the back benches that were always empty, the elderly village people were sitting quietly like the kids.

Question 6.
Why was Franz not scolded for reaching the school late that day?
Answer:
Franz was late for school. Usually there was a great hustle and bustle in the morning. He had anticipated to take benefit of that noise and hubbub. He wanted to get to his desk without being noted. But that day he had to go in before everybody. M. Hamel politely requested him to take his seat without scolding him as it was Hamel’s last lesson of French in that school.

Question 7.
What did Franz wonder about when he entered the class that day?
Answer:
M. Hamel was to question the students on participles and Franz knew nothing about them and feared caning or scolding. He wondered about the big crowd he had seen around the notice board at the Town Hall and also the empty back benches filled by the villagers including the Mayor and the Postmaster.

Question 8.
What happened when the lesson in History was over?
Answer:
After the History lesson, the babies chanted their ba, be, bi, bo, bu. Old Hauser, who was sitting at the back of the room had put on his spectacles. He was holding his primer in both hands and was spelling the last lesson. He was seated motionless in his chair during the writing lesson. He gazed at one thing or the other. Perhaps he wanted to fix in his mind how everything looked in that little school room. Surely, it must have pained his heart to leave his familiar spot after forty long years.

Question 9.
“He had the courage to hear every lesson to the very last.” What led Franz to make this remark?
Answer:
Franz observed that M. Hamel was feeling sad to leave the place after forty years and not being allowed to teach French any longer. Yet, he did not emote his feelings. Rather, he performed his duties faithfully listening to every lesson to the last till the school was dismissed at mid-day prayer time.

B. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
The Last Lesson’, written by Alphonse Daudet describes the year 1870 when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. Alsace and Lorraine, districts of France went into Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers issued an order that only German should be taught in all schools. The French teachers were asked to leave with immediate effect. The story describes the last day of one such French class under M. Hamel. M. Hamel had taught French for forty years. Most of them never knew the value of the teacher’s devotion and dedicated service.

We do not always get an opportunity to learn, and this is never understood till the end. Luck doesn’t favour always. Likewise, opportunity knocks ones. Time should be valued. Procrastination is a sin. Most of us end up delaying things. Unless we are constant and regular in our efforts, we cannot achieve our goals.

When things come easy, we do not realise ifs value. Time and tide wait for no man. The entire village knew the value of Mr. Hamel and his teaching only when he was asked to leave. There was no use in their regrets. It was all too late. Therefore, let’s remember that we should make hay when the sun shines and not weep in vain.
‘Understand, your worth; Value your life; Appreciate your blessings’

Question 2.
Give an account of the last day of M. Hamel in school.
Answer:
The story described what was just another ordinary day for Franz who started very late for school that morning. Franz, who played truant with French class, feared M. Hamel’s iron rod. He came to the school thinking he would be punished as he had not learnt his lesson on participles.

In fact, he was reluctant to go to school. Initially, he thought of spending the bright warm day outdoors enjoying the chirping of birds and seeing the drilling of Prussian soldiers at the back of the sawmill. On the way, Franz passed the Town hall, where he saw a large crowd reading the bulletin board which had been a source of all bad news.

Franz rushed to his classroom, overseeing it for the fear of being chided. When Franz arrived at the school, his classmates were already seated and the teacher had already started teaching. The back benches were occupied by grim and solemn villagers including the Mayor, The Postmaster, Hauser and many others. To his surprise, M. Hamel was in his Sunday clothes. Franz found M. Hamel to be kinder than usual. Franz was shocked to know that it was the last French lesson and the German teacher would start classes the next day. He was full of regret for not learning his mother tongue and felt a sudden love for French.

He even started liking M. Hamel and forgot all about his ruler. When M. Hamel asked Franz to recite the rules of participle, he was petrified. M. Hamel didn’t scold him and remarked that the only problem with people of, Alsace was procrastinating learning. He blamed parents and himself for exploiting children. Hamel then talked of the French language, calling it the most beautiful language in the world. He said that when we were enslaved knowing our mother tongue was similar to having the key to prison. As the church clock bell struck twelve, M. Hamel with a choked throat wrote on the Blackboard Vive La France!, i.e. Long Live France and dismissed the class.
‘Our memories of yesterday will last a lifetime.’

Additional Questions:

Question 1.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
‘The bird of love flies on two wings Faith and Dedicated Service.’

Question 2.
Justify the title ‘The Last Lesson’.
Answer:
The title The Last Lesson’ is noteworthy and conveys the principal theme of the story. The story has an appropriate and suggestive title. It highlights the fact that sometimes even the most precious things in our lives are taken for granted by us. The people of Alsace never give much thought or importance to their mother tongue, French. They least expect such a situation in their motherland. Parents prefer their children to go to the farm and bring an extra income rather than learn French.

They hardly encourage regular attendance in school. They think there will be plenty of time to leam the language in their life but it’s a sudden bolt from the blue when the order is announced. The order from Berlin to ban French and make German compulsory had to be accepted without any rejection. This ruthless order from Prussians makes them realise various things in life. The beginning of the story serves as preparation for it. The unusual quietness at school, presence of village elders and the teacher in his best Sunday dress—all point out to the unusual and unique occasion-the last lesson in French in a French village conquered by the Prussians. While delivering the last lesson, the teacher wants to transmit all his knowledge in one stretch. He explains everything with patience and the students as well as old villagers listen attentively.

As the teacher is unable to express his emotions because of choked throat, he ends the lesson by writing ‘Vive La France’ on the blackboard. He makes a gesture with his hand to indicate that the school is dismissed and students can go home. This was the last class of French. Hamel was the last teacher of the last French class. Perhaps this was the last attentive class too. Thus, the title The Last Lesson’ reveals the theme of the story and is fully justified.
‘Do it with passion The last may be sudden.’

Question 3.
Write a character sketch of little Franz. Franz was a typical schoolboy who played truant. He hated school or learning. He was afraid of his
Answer:
French Teacher M. Hamel’s ‘iron ruler’. He was more eager to spend his time outside the school. Many times, he missed the school and went in search of ‘bird’s eggs’. He preferred to watch the Prussian soldiers drilling at the saw-mill. He did not realise the importance of learning his mother tongue till the time his country passed into Prussian hands and teaching French was banned.

This was a rude shock to him when he came to school and found it to be his last French lesson. At this point, he lamented the loss of his language. His entire perspective towards the language and the teacher changed. He was surprised to learn and understand everything on the last day and did not find M. Hamel strict during the lesson nor did he find his teaching complicated. He felt he was able to understand the rules of grammar so very easily and thought it was his readiness to learn that mattered. He was really a child and was not able to understand the. severity of war and wondered whether the Pigeons would be made to coo in German too. Such was his innocence!
‘Thoughts change, Perceptions change, ‘Changes are inevitable.’

Question 4.
“Order from Berlin aroused a particular zeal in the school.” Comment.
Answer:
The order from Berlin brought a sense of shock and surprise in the class. They were all dumbstruck. As per the order, this was the last French class. Alsace and Lorraine had been captured by the Prussians. So only German was to be taught in the schools. Hamel had to leave the next day. Now they all felt passionate about their mother tongue. All the eminent village elders felt guilty for neglecting their mother tongue.

Now they came to the class and showed their love and respect for their mother tongue. They were in awe for their French teacher M. Hamel. The entire school was filled with an air of repentance and guilt. There was complete quietness. The teacher, M. Hamel, was dressed at his best and was full of emotions. Even the students in the class, including little Franz, felt remorse for their indifference to their mother tongue. There was an atmosphere of stillness and quietness in the class.
‘Education prepares you for the future.’

Question 5.
Give a character sketch of M. Hamel.
Answer:
M. Hamel is a strict disciplinarian at a school in a village in the French districts of Alsace and Lorraine. M. Hamel is an experienced teacher who has been teaching in that village school for forty years. He imparts primary education in all subjects. He is a hard taskmaster and students like Franz, who are not good learners, are in great dread of being scolded by him. He loves his profession from the bottom of his heart and holds a deep sense of respect for the mother tongue.

The latest order of the Prussian conquerors upset him. He has to leave the place forever and feels heartbroken. He feels sad but exercises self-control. He has the courage to hear every lesson to the last. This thought completely shatters a calm and composed man like M. Hamel. He tries his level best to remain calm and unruffled but breaks down at the end. His performance during the last lesson is exemplary. He is kind even to a latecomer like Franz. He uses a solemn and gentle tone while addressing the students.

He has a logical mind and can analyse problems and deduce the reasons responsible for it. He feels grief-stricken at the fact that people became indifferent to learning French. He charms them to keep their language alive. Hamel is a patriot in the real sense. He regards the mother tongue to be a means of holding one’s identity and self-respect. He knows the emotional hold of a language over its users. He is a good communicator and explains everything patiently. Partings are painful and being human, M. Hamel too is no exception. He fails to say goodbye as his throat is choked
‘Good teachers are rarity. M.Hamel is an exception to rarity!’

Vocabulary:

C. In column A are some of the idiomatic phrases from the essay. Match them with equivalent single words in column B:

Answer:

D. Frame sentences of your own using the above idiomatic phrases.

1. You will go far (succeed) if you learn to persevere and never give up.
2. I just knew that Sasikala would blow up (explode) as a result of her sustained anger.
3. The records show up (reveal) the true personality of the Managing Director of the factory.
4. This project calls on (requires) all the creative hands to launch it immediately.
5. Although Leela was angry, she did not want to break off (finish) her long relationship with Chandran.
6. I hate to knuckle under (submit) my boss, just to hold on to my job.

E. Given below are some idiomatic phrases. Find the meaning of it using the dictionary:

Frame sentences of your own to bring out the meaning.

1. Put on – (assume) They put on an American Accent which sounded perfect.
2. Come in – (join later) Ashish will sing the verse and then the rest of choristers will come in on the chorus.
3. Try again – (don’t quit) Oh common, just try again.
4. Walk away – (escape a danger) You were lucky to walk away from that ghastly car accident.
5. Time out – (a short break) Workaholics rush around so much now-a-days that they all need a time out now and then.
6. Try again – (never give up) It’s hard at first to shift gears but try, try again till you feel at ease with changing gears.

Listening Activity

F. Listen to the article titled “Remembering Nel Jayaraman”

It must have been eight years ago I was at Thiruvarur to attend the Nel Thiruvizha (seed festival) organised by Jayaraman.
I went there to volunteer; I’d heard about him from organic farming pioneer G. Nammalvar and wanted to see if we could bring the varieties Jayaraman revived, to the market.

It was just a small affair then; some people attended. But the festival grew exponentially from then on; from 500, the number of participants went up to 1,500 next year; and then to 2,500, 5,000… there was no looking back. When I entered the village Adhirangam where the festival took place, I saw men carrying sacks of paddy, they came with five kilograms and returned with 10 kilograms the next year. That was how the seed exchange work.

I remember how Jayaraman cycled across villages to find traditional paddy seeds and distribute them. I asked him how he planned to carry his vision forward; what would he do for funds/ But he replied, “What do I need funds for ? I have seeds and my cycle will take me to everywhere. Or I’ll take a bus”.

If people called him asking for his number of varieties of seeds, he went directly to see to it – that they got what they wanted. I participated in the planning of his seed festivals.

But the man didn’t believe I going by a strict plan. He was always cool when those around him panicked. For instance, if I told him there were many people coming for the event and that we i had to pain for meals and plates, he would respond unfettered, “Thambi, it’ll fall in place. If i there is no plates we can buy banana leaves; if there’s no food. We can cook and serve rice, we have it in plenty, don’t we?”

What if the sound system doesn’t work, I insisted and he said.’Then we might have to speak louder”. I joked that I would refuse to come for planning meetings, because anyway, he didn’t need them. On a serious note, all the festivals he organised went on smoothly, like he believed. During floods or droughts , he took the collector of Nagapattinam to show him how our traditional paddy withstood the forces of Nature.

He visited collectorates to submit petitions against genetically modified crops whenever he encountered them. Later in life, when his popularity grew, he spent more time in the field; but that’s where his heart was. Hundreds of people called me from India and abroad, enquiring about his health during his final days. He showed that if you worked selflessly for the society, it will give back.

Student A: (interviewer) – Vanakkam sir. For what cause do you organise festivals ?
Student B : ( NJ) – I organise these festivals with a difference. I present seeds to all the 1 participating farmers.
Student A: (interviewer) – Oh ! That’s really good, Sir. What do you expect in return?
Student B : (NJ) – In return I expect them to have double the harvest next year.
Student A: (interviewer) – Where did you organise the NEL festival?
Student B:(NJ) – (1) ……………………………………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – Can you mention how many people congregated for the meeting?
Student B : (NJ) – (2) …………………………………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – What did you distribute to the farmers?
Student B : (NJ) – (3) ……………………………………………………………………………………
Student A: (interviewer) – How did you commute to each of these villages?
Student B : (NJ) – (4) ……………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – Ayya, Do you plan your schedules?
Student B : ( NJ) (5) ……………………………………………………………….
Student B : ( NJ) – 1 have an alternative (6) ……………………………………………………………
Student A: (interviewer) – Where was your heart and soul?
Student B : (NJ) – (7) ……………………………………………………………..
Student A: (interviewer) – People say when your popularity grew, you spent less time in the field?
Student B : (NJ) – (8) ……………………………………………………………..
Student A : (interviewer) – What is your message to the world?
Student B :(NJ) – (9) ……………………………………………………………….
Student A: (interviewer) – Thank you, Sir. Nandri
Student B : (NJ) – Nandri.
Answers:

1. I organized the Nel festival at Thiruvarur.
2. Around 500 people congregated for the meeting.
3. I distributed traditional paddy seeds to the farmers.
4. I used to cycle across to these villages.
5. Yes, I do plan my seed festival schedules.
6. to everything – no plates meant that we could buy banana leaves; no food meant that we could cook and serve rice which was available in plenty; no mike meant that we have to just raise our voices and speak!
7. My heart and soul was in the field.
8. That’s the world we live in!
9. If you work selflessly for the society, it will give back.

Speaking Activity:

G. A road map is given below. Answer the questions that follow with the help of the road map. Work in pairs and discuss to give directions to get to one place from another.

Answer:

Question 1.
You are at the market. You need directions to go to the pharmacy.
Answer:
From the market on George Street, go past two crossroads. After you cross the library and the bakery on the left, take your right on South road at the cross roads just before the Art Gallery. You will find a Gift shop as soon as you turn on the left side. After a kilometer or so you will find a Hospital on the left. Take left immediately and you will find the pharmacy just opposite to the hospital on Central Avenue.

Question 2.
You are in a book shop. Ask your partner to direct you to the Art Gallery.
Answer:
Walk straight on Central Avenue and go past the School on your right. Proceed further and cross the Post office on the left. After a couple of buildings, take the immediate left on South Road. Walk down further till you arrive at the cross roads on George street. At the crossroads, you will find the Art Gallery, diagonally opposite to you on the right side on George Street.

Question 3.
Give your partner the directions to go from the Bank to the hotel.
Answer:
Go to the Bank out-gate on Park Street and take your left. Go past the Swimming pool on the left and take the right on George Street. Further down you will find a Police station on the right before the next crossroad at North Road. A few buildings after the North road crossing you will find the Hotel on the right side.

Question 4.
Direct your partner from the post office to the market.
Answer:
Use the gate on Central Avenue and take your right. Go past the Museum on the right and take the right turn on Park Street just before the Bank. Proceed further and keep left. You will find a Swimming pool on the left. Take the immediate right after the Swimming pool. You will find the Market just opposite to the Swimming pool on George Street.

Question 5.
Your partner wants to go the library from school. Give suitable directions.
Answer:
Take the right on Central Avenue. Take the first right again on Park street. Keep to the left of the Park Street and walk further. Cross the Bank and the Swimming pool till you reach the junction at George Street. Take your right and walk further. You will find the Library just opposite the Police station on George Street.

Additional:

Question 1.
Direct your partner who had visited the museum with her family to go to the Gift Shop on South Road.
Answer:
Use the gate on Central Avenue and take your left. Go past the Post office on the left and take the left on South Road. Keep left and walk further. Cross the road to take the first lane on your right. You will find the Gift shop after three or four buildings on the left side of the road.

Question 2.
Guide a stranger from the Police Station to the Hospital.
Answer:
Take the right on George Street. Proceed further and cross the Hotel after the Crossroads of North Road. Take the right after the Hotel on South Road. Walk straight and go past the lane on the left. Take the left on Central Avenue at the Crossroads. You will find the Hospital on the left after a furlong or so.

Reading:

H. Read the poem carefully and answer the questions that follow:

Fill in the blanks.

1. (a) ………………………. is the festival which fills our hearts with delight.
(b) ………………….. is referred to as a festival of sacrifice.
(a) Festival of light
(b) Unfurling the joy of giving

2. What kind of joy is unfurled during the festival of sacrifice?
The joy of giving is unfurled during the festival of sacrifice.

3. How can we make our life worth living?
By celebrating all festivals well and nice, we can make our life worth living.

4. What does the poet mean by ‘Festival of flowers’?
By festival of flowers the poet means that they brighten up with colours.

5. When are we in a state of trance?
We are in a state of trance, when we celebrate the festival of dance.

6. What do the people do when the festival of Music is celebrated?
They sing the joyous lyric when the festival of music is celebrated.

7. What makes us happy and free, according to the poet?
The festival of love that spreads treasures on a tree, shares the word from above and makes us happy and free.

8. Find out the rhyme scheme employed in the fourth stanza.
‘abab’ is the rhyme scheme employed in the fourth stanza.

9. Pick out the rhyming words from the first stanza of the poem.
‘Harvest-best; and light-delight’ are the rhyming words from the first stanza of the poem.

10. Write down the words that alliterate in the poetic lines below.
(a) Festival of Flowers
(b) That spreads treasures on a tree
(a) Festival of Flowers
(b) That spreads treasures on a tree

Writing:

I. Create posters for following:

1. You are Raja/ Ranjani. Draft a poster to create awareness about the harmful effects of using plastics, in not more than 50 words

2. Say ‘No to Drugs’ – Design a poster for it in not more than 50 words. You may use slogans/ phrases.

3.“ Save our Earth” is the need of the hour. Draft a poster with attractive slogans/ phrases for the same in not more than 50 words. Use attractive drawings.

4. You are Sita/ Sudhan. Design a poster in not more than 50 words to focus on not wasting water. Be creative.

5. Good handwriting is the index of an individual. Design a poster on the importance of good handwriting. Use catchy slogans or phrases. Your poster should not exceed 50 words.

J. Draft Letters for the following

1. You are Ajeet, living in a remote village in Tirunelveli. You participated in a health camp organised by your school. You were surprised to observe that most of the residents were unaware of health and hygiene. As a concerned citizen, write a letter to the editor stating the need to organise such camps focusing on the importance of health and hygiene.
From
Mast. Ajeet.
SGH High School
Meviyar kuppam
Tenkasi
Tirunelveli district
20.10.2020
To
The Editor
The Hindu
New Town
Tirunelveli
Respected Sir
Subject: Requisition for more Camps on Health and Hygiene
Recently the Health and Hygiene club of SGH High school at Meviyar Kuppam conducted a health camp in the school campus. Three doctors from the nearby Public Health Centre were kind enough to be a part of this successful camp.
I was quite shocked as the Secretary of the Health and Hygiene Club to note that most of the villagers who came that day were unaware about the importance of health and hygiene. It is also alarming to note that many of them needed immediate medical treatment.
As a well wisher of the village community in Meviyar Kuppam, I request you to publish this article in your daily so that the authorities in the Government Health Department will take the necessary steps to organize such camps frequently.
Thank you
Yours faithfully
Ajeet
To
The Editor
The Hindu
New Town
Tirunelveli

2. You are Sanjay. Your colony utilises solar energy to light the common areas. You find many friends of your colony forgetting to switch off the lights in the common area. As a responsible citizen, write a letter to a newspaper, echoing the importance to conserve and preserve solar energy.
From
Mr.Sanjay,
7, Shanaz street,
TNGO Colony,
Adambakkam,
Chennai – 600088
30th September, 2020
To
The Editor
The Times of India
Chennai – 600001
Sir,
Sub: Importance of Conserving and Preserving Solar Energy Through the esteem column of your daily, I wish to bring to the Readers the importance to conserve and preserve solar energy.

Our colony Samba colony at Adambakkam uses Solar energy to lighten up the common area. Though we may save on electricity charges, it is important that we reduce the usage of solar energy also when not needed. I had noticed that in many areas the lights are not switched off in the mornings.

Although it may not be obvious, there’s a direct connection between your energy use and the environment. When you consume less power, you reduce the amount of toxic fumes released by power plants, conserve the earth’s natural resources and protect ecosystems from destruction. By taking steps to reduce your energy intake, you’ll contribute to a healthier and happier world. When you opt to cut back on energy use, you also help conserve limited natural resources that would otherwise be used to power the power plants. Less demand for energy creates less demand for harvesting fossil fuels.

Turning off the lights at night or washing clothes in cold water can save trees, coal, natural gas and more. From an economic standpoint, it’s critical to conserve our finite resources. Reducing electricity use in your home – or going off the power grid with solar energy -can benefit the environment, conserve resources and save lives. Although your own energy saving adjustments may seem inconsequential, small steps become great leaps when multiplied by the number of people living in the vicinity. Thereby I appeal to all the importance to conserve and preserve energy resources and save Mother Earth and lead a pollution free atmosphere.
Thank you
Yours faithfully
Sanjay
To
The Editor
The Times of India
Chennai – 600001

3. You are Sadasivam. You recently visited your native town in Vellore. You happened to accompany your grandmother to your family temple. You were shocked to notice the poor condition and maintenance of the temple. Write a letter to the Editor of local newspaper highlighting the poor condition of the temple. Also give some suggestions and request the HRC to take steps to improve the situation.
From
Mr.Sadasivam
Subash street
Sathuvachary
Vellore
21st June, 2020
To
The Editor
The Hindu
Bose Bank Road
Vellore
Sir / Madam
Sub: Poor maintenance of the Temple
This is to bring to the notice of the authorities concerned over the deliberate damage done to Vinayagar Temple in Sathuvachary.
What shocks me most is the negligence and indifference of the civic authorities to the maintenance and conservation of these temples frequently visited by tourists. These temples are not only the irreplaceable symbols of our past culture and traditional importance, but also a very rich source of earnings. If foreign and local tourists stop visiting these places because of poor maintenance, the consequences will be quite massive.
The damaged areas of these buildings must be improved and repaired. Installation of CCTV cameras, putting sentries on duty, sanitation, and providing some facilities for the tourists also must be looked into. In the absence of proper restrooms, the immediate surroundings of these places have become very unhealthy.
Through the columns of your venerated daily I appeal to the concerned authorities of HRC to look into the problem and do the needful. After all these temples are symbols and treasures of our cultural heritage.
Through this letter, let me request the public to showcase their civic responsibilities.
I also appeal to the authorities to take the necessary action to maintain a congenial atmosphere to worship the deity.
Yours truly,
Sadasivam
To
The Editor.
The Hindu
Bose Bank Road
Vellore

4. You are Sudha. Your neighbour has a pet dog that barks continuously. Write a letter to the Editor of a weekly newspaper of your locality, highlighting the nuisance and noise pollution created thus. Also suggest ways to solve the problem.
From
Ms. Sudha,
Lawyer Road.
Medavakam
Chennai-89
4th July, 2020
To
The Editor
The Indian Express
Sreyas Chamiers Towers,
Chamiers Road, Teynampet,
Chennai – 600 018
Sir,
Subject: Nuisance and Noise pollution
Through the esteemed columns of your daily/ newspaper, I wish to bring to your kind notice the sleepless nights we are having at home because of the continuous barking of the neighbour’s dog.
Noisy dogs are a common lawful argument. After all, while pet owners may feel irritation at a dog that barks at every little sound, a neighbour has unquestionably no control over teaching the dog not to retort in this manner.
I tried in vain to resolve the issue simply by talking with my neighbour, politely explaining my concerns, and asking if a compromise can be made that will satisfy both of us. However, my neighbour is unwilling to do what is necessary to quieten their pet without requiring me to take the next step.
I am writing to let the SPCA know that the dog’s barking has been disrupting our ability to have peace inside our home and in our back yard. I believe that if the dog isn’t chained, it might not bark at least in the night. Please take the necessary action immediately so that we can have peaceful nights.
Yours sincerely,
Sudha
To
The Editor
The Indian Express
Chamiers Road, Teynampet,
Chennai – 600 018

5. You are Raja. The street lights of your area do not work properly. As a responsible citizen, write a letter to the newspaper enlightening them about the problem and also suggest ways to brighten the area.
From
Mr. Raja,
17-A, Abraham Street,
Nellikuppam,
Royapuram,
Chennai – 13
12.11.2020
To
The Editor
The Hindu
Anna Salai
Chennai – 2
Sir,
Sub: Dark Roads lead to Chain Snatching
I am writing to your esteemed self to express my deep concern and anguish over the poor state of street lights in our colony. Almost all the street lights are not burning. After it gets dark, moving on the colony streets is unsafe and perilous. Many chain snatching incidents have happened owing to poor visibility on the roads. Even mobile phones and purse snatching cases have also been reported. We fear other antisocial activities to be on the rise.
Through the medium of your esteemed daily I appeal to the concerned authorities in the municipal corporation to look into the matter and make the street lights functional again in Nellikupam area.
I hope you will give space to my voice in your esteemed daily.
Thank you
Raja
To
The Editor
The Hindu
Anna Salai
Chennai – 2

Grammar

A. Fill in the blanks appropriately:

1. Mahatma Gandhi ……………….. the father of our nation.
2. There ………………. ten dogs in my street.
3. They …………….. to write the exercises neatly.
4. Butter milk …………….. good for health.
5. Fruits ……………… good for health.

Answers:
1. is, 2. are, 3. have, 4. is, 5. are.

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate verb:

1. The quality of dal …………………. not good.
2. The horse carriage …………………… at the door.
3. My friend and teacher ……………….. come.
4. …………….. your father and mother at home?
5. Honour and glory ………………… his reward.
6. The ship with its crew ………………… sailing good.
7. Gullivers Travels ………………….. an excellent story.
8. Neither food nor water ………………… found here.
9. Mathematics ………………. a branch of study.
10. Fifteen minutes …………………… allowed to read the question paper.

Answers:
1. is, 2. is, 3. has, 4. is, 5. is, 6. is, 7. is, 8. is, 9. is, 10. is.

C. Change the singular nouns to plurals by either adding ‘s’, ‘ies’, ‘es\ ‘ves

D. Identify the non-finites in the following sentences and underline them
E. g., Children love eating chocolates

1. Roshan dreams of becoming an architect.
Answer:
Roshan dreams of becoming an architect.

2. We must aim at fulfilling Dr AP J Abdul Kalam’s dream to make India the most developed country by 2020.
Answer:
We must aim at fulfilling Dr APJ Abdul Kalam’s dream to make India the most developed country by 2020.

3. Taking the children to the museum is Seema’s responsibility.
Answer:
Taking the children to the museum is Seema’s responsibility.

4. Having finished the work, the manager decided to return home.
Answer:
Having finished the work, the manager decided to return home.

5. Travelling with her family, Tara enjoyed every minute of it.
Answer:
Travelling with her family, Tara enjoyed every minute of it.

E. Replace the underlined words by a participle in the following sentences:

Example: When young people wear soiled clothes on formal occasions to show rebelliousness.
Answer:
Young people wear soiled clothes on formal occasions to show rebelliousness.

1. While Sudha was climbing the stairs, she tripped and fell down.
Answer:
While climbing the stairs, Sudha tripped and fell down.

2. After her evening prayers, my grandmother went to the temple.
Answer:
Having said her evening prayers, my grandmother went to the temple.

3. Since he is a king, he can order everybody.
Answer:
Being a King, he can order everybody.

4. They took the last wicket and walked back to the pavilion.
Answer:
Having taken the last wicket, they walked back to the pavilion.

5. When he saw the train in the platform he rushed.
Answer:
Seeing the train in the platform, he rushed.

F. Fill in the blank with the correct alternative:

1. ………………….. on the flute, Krishna returned it. (played/having played)
2. We wish she continues ……………….. healthy, (being /be)
3. The doctor advised him against ………………. in the sun. (wander / wandering)
4. I like ………………………. rasam. (drinking / drink)
5. …………………. the scissors I returned it to her. (using / having used)

Answers:

1. Having played
2. being
3. wandering
4. drinking
5. Having used

G. Tick the correct sentences:

Answer:

The Last Lesson by Alphonse Daudet About the Author:
Alphonse Daudet born on 13th May 1840, was a French novelist and short story writer. His creativeness resulted in characters that were real and also typical. His other work includes Jack, a novel about an illegitimate child, a martyr to his mother’s selfishness, which followed in 1876, served only to deepen the same impression. Daudet died in Paris on 16 December 1897, and was interred at Pere Lachaise Cemetery. The story, ‘The Last Lesson’ highlights the pain that is inflicted on the people of a territory by its conquerors by taking away their right to study or speak their own language.

The Last Lesson Summary:

Introduction:
The Last Lesson is set in the days of the Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871) when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. The French districts of Alsace and Lorraine went into
Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers discontinued the teaching of French and introduced German in the schools of these two districts. The story deals with the theme of language imposition and language loyalty. The French teachers were asked to leave. Pmssia at that time, consisted of Germany, Poland and parts of Austria.

Worry of Franz
Franz started for school quite late that morning. He was afraid of being scolded by M. Hamel. He was to question them on participles and little Franz hadn’t studied. He wanted to spend the day out of doors admiring the warm bright day, chirping birds and the Prussian soldiers drilling in the open field back of the sawmill. But he resisted the temptation and rushed to school.

The idea that M. Hamel was going away made the narrator forget all about his iron ruler. Now Franz understood the situation well. The villagers were there to thank the master for his forty years of faithful service and to show their respect for the country that was theirs no more.

M. Hamel asked Franz to recite in vain. The teacher did not scold but confessed that his parents and he himself were at fault. Then he talked of the French language, the best in the world. He asked them to guard and never forget for it was the key to their prison. Then they had lesson in grammar and writing.

The pigeons cooed very low on the roof. Franz wondered if they would even make the pigeons sing in German. All the while M. Hamel was sitting motionless in his chair and gazing at one thing or the other. His sister was packing their trunks in the room above as they had to leave the country next day.

After writing, they had a lesson in history, and then the babies chanted their ba, be, bi, bo, bu. Even old Hauser was crying. All at once the church-clock struck twelve and then the mid-day prayers. At the same moment the trumpets of the Prussians, returning from drill, sounded under the windows.

M. Hamel stood up. He wanted to speak but something choked him. Then he took a piece of chalk and wrote on the blackboard as large as he could “Vive La France!” After this he stopped and leaned his head against the wall. Without a word, he made a gesture with his hand to indicate that the school was dismissed and they might go.

Now M. Hamel could no longer stay in his school. Still he gave a lesson to his students with utmost devotion and sincerity as ever.

Conclusion:
The author has expressed the true feeling of loyalty, duty and concern of a teacher towards his pupils. The helplessness of the citizens and the unawareness of the impending danger to the nation is portrayed well by the author.

The Last Lesson Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

Synonyms:

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

1. I was in great dread of a scolding.
(a) fear
(b) tread
(c) walk
(d) footfall
Answer:
(a) fear

2. The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods.
(a) cheating
(b) duplicitous
(c) tweeting
(d) clinging
Answer:
(c) tweeting

3. Wachter was there with his apprentice.
(a) appearance
(b) baggage
(c) calmness
(d) trainee
Answer:
(d) trainee

4. Usually, when school began, there was a great bustle.
(a) commotion
(b) bus
(e) haste
(d) silence
Answer:
(a) commotion

5. Lessons were repeated in unison.
(a) discord
(b) harmony
(c) usage
(d) underway
Answer:
(b) harmony

6. The teacher’s great ruler rapped on the table.
(a) tapped
(b) sang
(c) reigned
(d) kept
Answer:
(a) tapped

7. I had counted on the commotion to get to my desk without being seen.
(a) blocked
(b) reckoned
(c) cancelled
(d) dreaded
Answer:
(b) reckoned

8. You can imagine how I blushed and how frightened I was.
(a) blamed
(b) beamed
(c) bleated
(d) flushed
Answer:
(d) flushed

9. Hauser had brought an old primer.
(a) prankster
(b) textbook
(c) guitar
(d) machine
Answer:
(b) textbook

10. I want you to be very attentive.
(a) attendance
(b) concentrating
(c) creative
(d) distracted
Answer:
(b) concentrating

Antonyms:

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

1. This lesson is set in the days of France-Prussian war.
(a) avarice
(b) battle
(c) combat
(d) peace
Answer:
(d) peace

2. The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

3. The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) liberated
(b) released
(c) conquered
(d) controlled
Answer:
(a) liberated

4. M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) beautify
(b) answer
(c) clarify
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(b) answer

5. The birds were chirping in the open field back of the saw mill.
(a) enrolled
(b) built-up
(c) enclosed
(d) vulnerable
Answer:
(c) enclosed

6. I had the strength to resist.
(a) asset
(b) forte
(c) weakness
(d) dream
Answer:
(c) weakness

7. There was a crowd in front of the bulletin-board.
(a) averse
(b) reverse
(c) anterior
(d) façade
Answer:
(b) reverse

8. Then, as I hurried by as fast as I could go.
(a) hassled
(b) released
(c) relaxed
(d) Warmed
Answer:
(c) relaxed

9. Lessons were repeated in unison.
(a) accord
(b) discord
(c) united
(d) ignited
Answer:
(b) discord

10. Everything had to be as quiet as Sunday morning.
(a) queer
(b) quaint
(c) noisy
(d) calm
Answer:
(c) noisy

We hope the data given here will benefit you to the fullest extent at the time of preparation. For better understanding of English subject this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions for Class 10th English Prose Chapter 6 The Last Lesson PDF is the best resource. Download & ace up your preparation. Keep in touch with us and get the latest information on Tamilnadu State board Textbook Solutions PDF.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.3

10th Maths Exercise 7.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
A vessel is in the form of a hemispherical bowl mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter is 14 cm and the height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the capacity of the vessel.
Solution:
Diameter = 14 cm
Radius = 7 cm
Total height = 13 cm
Height of the cylindrical part = 13 – 7
= 6 cm
∴ Capacity of the vessel = Capacity of the cylinder + Capacity of the hemisphere.

∴ The total volume = 924 + 718.67
The capacity of the vessel = 1642.67 cm³

Exercise 7.3 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Nathan, an engineering student was asked to make a model shaped like a cylinder with two cones attached at its two ends. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of the model that Nathan made.
Solution:
Volume of the model = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of 2 cones.


The volume of the model that Nathan made = 66 cm³

Ex 7.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and the diameter 1.4 cm, a cone of the same height and same diameter is carved out. Find the volume of the remaining solid to the nearest cm³.
Solution:
Volume of the cylinder = πr²h cu. units
Volume of the cone = \(\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\) cu. units

d = 1.4 cm, r = 0.7 cm = \(\frac{7}{10}\)
h = 2.4 cm = \(\frac{24}{10}\)
Volume of the cylinder:

Volume of cone carved out

∴ Volume of the remaining solid = Volume of the cylinder – Volume of the cone
= 3.696 – 1.232
= 2.464
= 2.46 cm³

10th Maths Exercise 7.3 Question 4.
A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 12 cm and radius 6 cm standing on a hemisphere of radius 6 cm is placed upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it touches the bottom. Find the volume of the water displaced out of the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 6 cm and height is 18 cm.

Solution:
Volume of water displaced out = Volume of the solid immersed in.
Volume of the solid = Volume of the cone + Volume of the hemisphere


∴ The volume of water displaced out = Volume of the solid
= (1) + (2)
= 905.14 cm³

9th Maths Exercise 7.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
A capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemisphere stuck to each of its ends. If the length of the entire capsule is 12 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 3 mm, how much medicine it can hold?
Solution:
Volume of medicine the capsule can hold = Volume of the cylinder + 2 volume of hemisphere
Volume of the cylinder part


∴ The total volume = 56.571 mm³
∴ The volume of the medicine the capsule can hold = 56.57 mm³

10th Maths Mensuration Exercise 7.3 Question 6.
As shown in figure a cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. Find the surface area of the solid.

Solution:
Clearly, greatest diameter of the hemisphere is equal to the length of an edge of the cube is 7 cm.
Radius of the hemisphere = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm
Now, total surface area of the solid = Surface area of the cube + Curved surface area of the hemisphere – Area of the base of the hemisphere.

10th Maths 7.3 Question 7.
A right circular cylinder just enclose a sphere of radius r units.
Calculate
(i) the surface area of the sphere
(ii) the curved surface area of the cylinder
(iii) the ratio of the areas obtained in (i) and (ii).
Solution:
(i) Surface area of sphere = 4πr² sq. units

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Mensuration Question 8.
A shuttle cock used for playing badminton has the shape of a frustum of a cone is mounted on a hemisphere. The diameters of the frustum are 5 cm and 2 cm. The height of the entire shuttle cock is 7 cm. Find its external surface area.
Solution:
External surface area of the cock = Surface area of frustum + CSA of hemisphere

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 3 World War II

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science History Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science History Board solutions for Chapter 3 World War II Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science History Chapter 3 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

World War II Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

10th Social World Map Question 1.
When did the Japanese formally sign of their surrender?
(a) 2 September, 1945
(b) 2 October, 1945
(c) 15 August, 1945
(d) 12 October, 1945
Answer:
(a) 2 September, 1945

10th World Outline Map Question 2.
Who initiated the formation of League of Nations?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Chamberlain
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Baldwin
Answer:
(c) Woodrow Wilson

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Solutions Question 3.
Where was the Japanese Navy defeated by the US Navy?
(a) Battle of Guadalcanal
(b) Battle of Midway
(c) Battle of Leningrad
(d) Battle of El Alamein
Answer:
(b) Battle of Midway

10th World Map Question 4.
Where did the US drop its first atomic bomb?
(a) Kavashaki
(b) Innoshima
(c) Hiroshima
(d) Nagasaki
Answer:
(c) Hiroshima

History Chapter 3 Question 5.
Who were mainly persecuted by Hitler?
(a) Russians
(b) Arabs
(c) Turks
(d) Jews
Answer:
(d) Jews

Meaning In Tamil Question 6.
Which Prime Minister of England who signed the Munich Pact with Germany?
(a) Chamberlain
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Lloyd George
(d) Stanley Baldwin
Answer:
(a) Chamberlain

Social Science World Map Question 7.
When was the Charter of the UN signed?
(a) June 26, 1942
(b) June 26, 1945
(c) January 1, 1942
(d) January 1, 1945
Answer:
(b) June 26, 1945

World Map For 10th Class Question 8.
Where is the headquarters of the International Court of Justice located?
(a) New York
(b) Chicago
(c) London
(d) The Hague
Answer:
(d) The Hague

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Hitler attacked ……… which was a demilitarised zone.
2. The alliance between Italy, Germany and Japan is known as ……..
3. ……… started the Lend Lease programme.
4. Britain Prime Minister …….. resigned in 1940.
5. Saluting the bravery of the ………. Churchill said that “Never was so much owed by so many to so few”.
6. is a device used to find out the enemy aircraft from a distance.
7. ………. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights set forth fundamental human rights in articles.
8. After the World War II ……… was voted into power in Great Britain.
Answers:
1. Rhineland
2. Axis power
3. US – President Roosevelt
4. Chamberlain
5. British Royal airforce
6. Radar
7. 30
8. Labour party

III. Choose the correct statement.

World War Question 1.
(i) Banking was a major business activity among Jews.
(ii) Hitler persecuted the Jews.
(iii) In the concentration camps Jews were killed.
(iv) The United Nations has currently 129 member countries in it.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) is correct and (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct 2.

History Chapter 3 Class 10 Question 2.
Assertion: President Roosevelt realised that the United States had to change its policy of isolation.
Reason: He started a programme of Lend Lease in 1941.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the questions briefly.

History Class 10 Chapter 3 Question 1.
Mention the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:
Here are the important clauses of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany:

1. Germany was forced to give up territories to the west, north and east of the German border;
2. Germany had to disarm and was allowed to retain a very restricted armed force (army, navy and air force);
3. As reparations for the War, Germany was expected to pay for the military and civilian cost of the War to the Allied nations.

World War 2 In Tamil Question 2.
Who were the three prominent dictators of the post World War I ?
Answer:
Mussolini of Italy, Hitler from Germany and Franco from Spain were the three prominent dictators of post-world war I.

Question 3.
How did Hitler get support from the people of Germany?
Answer:
Hitler was well aware of the discontent among the Germans. He used his oratorical skills to sway the common people and promised them to return the glorious military past of Germany. He founded the National Socialist Party, generally known as “the Nazis”. The fundamental platform on which Hitler built his support was the notion of the racial superiority of the Germans as a pure. ‘Aryan’ race and a deep-seated hatred of the Jews.

Hitler came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany for twelve long years.

Question 4.
Describe the Pearl Harbour incident.
Answer:
America had installed strong naval base in Pearl harbour, Hawaii on December 1941, Japan attacked America’s pacific fleet without any warning. Japan’s idea was to cripple America so that they can freely move towards South-east Asian countries. But, when many battle ships and numerous fighter planes were destroyed, the U.S.A. declared war on Japan.

Question 5.
What do you know of Beveridge Report?
Answer:
In 1942, a report commonly known as the Beveridge Report was published in the United Kingdom. The report proposed a series of measures which the government should adopt to provide citizens with adequate income, health care, education, housing and employment to overcome poverty and disease which were the major impediments to general welfare.

Question 6.
Name the Bretton Woods Twins.
Answer:
The World Bank and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) are referred to as the Bretton Woods Twins. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and International Development Agency (IDA) together often referred as the World Bank.

Question 7.
What are the objectives of IMF?
Answer:
The objectives of the IMF are to:

1. foster global monetary cooperation,
2. secure financial stability,
3. facilitate international trade,
4. promote high employment and sustainable economic growth, and
5. reduce poverty around the world.

VI. Answer the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Battle of Stalingrad

(a) When did Germany attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
The Germans attack Stalingrad in August 1942.

(b) What were the main manufactures of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The main manufactures of Stalingrad were armaments and tractors.

(c) What was the name of the plan formulated by Hitler to attack Stalingrad?
Answer:
“Operation Blue” or “Fall Blau” was the name of the plan formulated by ‘ Hitler to attack Stalingrad.

(d) What is the significance of the Battle of Stalingrad?
Answer:
The people of Russia successfully defended the city of Stalingrad. It stopped the German advance into the Soviet Union and favoured the allies. It was a great patriotic war by the Russians.

Question 2.
Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia

(а) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
Answer:
Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies (Indonesia) and Burma.

(b) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
Answer:
The Allies faced many reverses in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparations. The colonial rulers, especially the British, withdrew from their territories, leaving the local people to face the atrocities of the Japanese.

(c) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
Answer:
The US navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway.

(d) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
Many Indians walked all the way from Burma to the Indian border, facing hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion. Those who remained suffered under the Japanese.

Question 3.
General Assembly and Security Council

(a) List the permanent member countries of the Security Council.
Answer:
The United States, Britain, France, Russia and China are permanent member countries of the Security Council.

(b) What is the Holocaust?
Answer:
Holocaust refers to World’s worst ever genocide of killing nearly six million Jews by the Germans during the Second World War.

(c) Who was the Chairperson of the UN Commission on Human Rights?
Answer:
The widow of the American President Franklin Roosevelt was the chairperson of the UN commission on Human Rights.

(d) What is meant by veto?
Answer:
Veto is an constitutional right to reject a decision or proposal made by a law making body. Each of the permanent members of the UNO has the right of veto.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Attempt an essay on the rise and fall of Adolf Hitler.
Answer:
Hitler was great orator. He swayed the people by his impassioned speeches, promising a return to the glorious military past of Germany. He founded the National Socialist Party, known as ‘the Nazis’. He came to power in 1933 and ruled Germany till 1945, with a small group of fanatic followers. He rearmed Germany. He made huge expenditure on the recruitment of armed forces and the manufacture of armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force. Soon the economic condition of Germany got strengthened and the problem of unemployment came to an end. In 1938, Hitler invaded Austria and Czechoslovakia. Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia was German-speaking, and Hitler’s claim was that the German-speaking people should be united in one nation. Though Hitler gave an assurance in the Munich Pact that Germany would not attack any other country, but this was broken immediately.

In 1939, he invaded Czechoslovakia. Poland was attacked next, and this was the final act which resulted in declaration of war by Britain and France against Germany. In June 1940, Italy joined Germany, and in September 1940, Japan also joined the Axis Powers. The German army followed a tactic of ‘lightning strike’ to storm into various countries and overrun them. In June 1941, German army invaded Russia and remained successful in the initial years. But ultimately got defeated due to the resistance by Soviet army, and the fierce Russian winter. In the Battle of Alamein 1942, the Allied forces counter-attacked and defeated the German and Italian forces in North Africa. The German army was chased across the desert, out of North Africa. The war continued till Hitler’s suicide in April 1945.

Question 2.
Analyse the effects of World War II.
Answer:
The long term effects of II World War were mostly unpleasant but a little platform of cherishment to the colonies by way of extending them independence. The radiation from the atom bombs were not clearly estimated at the time of war.

New geo-political power alignment: The world got itself split into two new political super powers. One led by the United States with anti-communist ideas and the other one led by Soviet Russia with communist ideas.

Nuclear proliferation: The United States and the Soviet Union built large stock of nuclear powered weapons. This was just like a race between them. Britain and France also joined in the race. More and more resources were spent by the countries for destructive purposes.

International agencies: International agencies like the United Nations Organisation, the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund came into existence.

Independence of the colonies: Colonial powers were forced to give independence.

Empowerment of Women: Women power entered into the labour force in great numbers. There was a change in social relations and more and more women become economically independent.

Question 3.
Assess the structure and activities of the UN.
Answer:
The United Nations came into existence in the year 1945 to achieve lasting peace among all nations which were inter-dependent. It functions like any government, through its principal organs which are similar to the legislative, executive and judicial wings of a state.

1. The General Assembly is the body in which each member state is represented. It meets once a year and issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.
2. The Security Council has fifteen members, five of them (the USA, Britain, France, Russia and China) are permanent members. The other ten temporary members are elected in rotation from different parts of the world. Each of the permanent members has the right to veto any decision by the other members of the Security Council.
3. The UN Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
4. The International Court of Justice is the Judicial wing of the United Nations. Its headquarter is at The Hague.
5. The fifth organ of the UN is the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It is responsible for coordinating all the economic and social work of the United Nations.

Activities of the United Nations

Human rights, the problems of refugees, climate change, gender equality are all within the ambit of the activities of the United Nations. The UN Peace-keeping force has acted in many areas of conflict all over the world.

VIII. Students Activity

Question 1.
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on different phases of the World War II.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
A debate in the class on the success or failure of the UN in preserving World Peace.
Answer:
You can do this activity by discussing the points in the class under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 3.
Marking the Allies and Axis countries, as well as important battlefields of World War II in a world map.
Answer:

IX. Map Work

Mark the following on the world map:
1. Axis Power Countries
2. Allied Power Countries
3. Hiroshima, Nagasaki, Hawai Island, Moscow, San Fransico

2.

World War II Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
This treaty contained the seeds of the second world war ………
(a) Treaty of London
(b) Treaty of Rome
(c) Treaty of Versailles
Answer:
(c) Treaty of Versailles

Question 2.
The Dictator of Spain was called:
(a) Mussolini
(b) Franco
(c) Hitler
(d) Edi-Amin
Answer:
(b) Franco

Question 3.
The country emerged as a World power after the First World war was ………
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Japan
Answer:
(c) Japan

Question 4.
Hitler came to power in ……………….. and ruled till 1945.
(a) 1932
(b) 1936
(c) 1934
(d) 1933
Answer:
(d) 1933

Question 5.
In September 1938, Hitler threatened a war on ………
(a) Czechoslovakia
(b) Poland
(c) Finland
Answer:
(a) Czechoslovakia

Question 6.
Italy invaded Ethiopia in ……………….. when they asked help from League of nations, got no help.
(a) 1931
(b) 1935
(c) 1937
(d) 1939
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 7.
Blitzkrieg means a ………
(a) Lightning war
(b) Trench warfare
(c) Guerilla warfare
Answer:
(a) Lightning war

Question 8.
World War II was ……………….. war.
(a) Traditional
(b) Modem
(c) Scientific
(d) Alarming
Answer:
(b) Modem

Question 9.
Hitler signed the Non-Aggression pact with ……………
(a) Gorbachev
(b) Stalin
(c) Lenin
Answer:
(b) Stalin

Question 10.
In the year ……………….. Italy and Japan joined the axis powers.
(a) 1939
(b) 1937
(c) 1935
(d) 1940
Answer:
(d) 1940

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The great powers of the world split up into two opposing groups namely the ……… and the ………
2. ……… was humiliated by the Treaty of Versailles.
3. The dictators ……… and ……… started Nazism and Fascism.
4. The Japanese attacked American fleet stationed at ……… on December 7, 1941.
5. America dropped atom bombs on the cities of ……… and ……… on August 6th and
9th of 1945.
6. The Second World War came to an end in ………
7. The German Air force was known as ………
8. In 1941, Prime Minister Winston Churchill and president F.D.Roosevelt concluded the ………
9. The Munich agreement was signed between Britain and ………
10. In 1945, at the end of the Second World War Hiroshima and Nagasaki were destroyed by ………
11. Hitler sent his airforce to drop bombs on ………
12. The UNO was established in ………
13. The UN charter was signed at ………
14. UNO’s main deliberative body is ………
15. The seat of International Court of Justice is at ………
Answers:
1. Allies and Axis
2. Germany
3. Hitler and Mussolini
4. Pearl Harbour
5. Hiroshima and Nagasaki
6. 1945
7. Luftwaffe
8. Atlantic Charter
9. Germany
10. America
11. Russia
12. 1945
13. San Francisco
14. The General Assembly
15. The Hague

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1.(c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did Japan sowed the seeds for Second World War?
Answer:

1. Japan emerged as a world power after the First World War.
2. The industrial development and economic growth forced Japan to follow the policy of imperialism.
3. It signed Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis with Italy and Germany and sowed the seeds for the second world war.

Question 2.
List down the important organs of the UN.
Answer:

• FAO – Food and Agricultural organisation
• WHO – World Health Organisation
• UNESCO – United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural organisation
• UNICEF – United Nations Children’s Fund
• UNDP – United Nations Development programme

Question 3.
What was the immediate cause of the Second World War?
Answer:

1. In 1939, Hitler demanded from Poland and right to construct a military road connecting East Prussia and Germany through Polish corridor.
2. He also demanded the surrender of Danzig.
3. When Poland refused, Hitler made a lightning attack on Poland known as Blitzkrieg on 1st September 1939. It was the immediate cause of the second world war.
4. Britain and France declared war on Germany in support of Poland and Second World War started.

Question 4.
What are the principal organs of the UNO?
Answer:

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Secretariat
4. The International Court of Justice
5. The Economic and Social Council.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Atlantic charter.
Answer:

1. In August 1941, the British prime minister Winston Churchill and U.S. president F.D.Roosevelt met on the board of the battleship Augusta.
2. They signed the Atlantic charter and agreed to launch a massive attack against the common enemy Germany.

Question 6.
What is meant by “Lend-Lease”?
Answer:
President Roosevelt of U.S.A. brought the Lend-Lease programme in 1941. Arms, food, military equipment, other supplies were sent to power in the name of loan which would be returned after use.

Question 7.
What were the main objectives of the UNO?
Answer:

1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations.
3. To settle International disputes by peaceful means.
4. To be a centre for helping nations to achieve these goals.

Question 8.
What is the difference between a ‘Vote’ and a ‘Veto’?
Answer:
Veto: It is the right to block a decision or can be called as Negative vote by law.
Vote: It is the right law that is done infavour of a person/party. This can be called as positive vote.

Question 9.
Mention any two major achievements of the UNO.
Answer:

1. The UNO settled disputes between Israel and Palestine, Iran and Iraq, and withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
2. It has signed many Nuclear Test Ban Treaties like NTBT in 1963 and CTBT in 1996.

Question 10.
What is meant by the Holocaust?
Answer:
The word ‘Holocaust’ refers to the mass killing of nearly six million jews by the Germans during II World War. This was done because the Nazis completely want to exterminate jews completely from Germany and all other countries where they are.

Question 11.
Name the five permanent members of the security council.
Answer:
The USA, the UK, the France, the Russian Federation and the China.

Question 12.
What are the official languages of the UNO?
Answer:
The official languages of the UNO are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian and Spanish. However its working languages are English and French.

Question 13.
How does the UNO get its financial aid?
Answer:
UNO gets its financial aid mainly from USA and from other member nations.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Aggressive Act of Hitler

(a) When did Hitler came to power?
Answer:
Hitler came to power in 1933.

(b) What did he do to bring back glorious Germany?
Answer:
He began to re-arm Germany. The recruitment of the armed forces, new armaments and machinery for the army, navy and air force.

(c) What was the name of the alliances he had with Japan and Italy?
Answer:
Rome-Berlin-Tokyo axis.

(d) What was his claim for Sudetenland?
Answer:
He claimed that the German-speaking people should be United into one nation and Sudetenland people were German-speaking people.

Question 2.
End of War

(a) Where did a big American and British force land?
Answer:
The American and British force landed in Normandy.

(b) With whom did they join?
Answer:
They joined with the secret underground French forces.

(c) What did Hitler do?
Answer:
He committed suicide.

(d) When did America drop atom bomb on Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
America dropped atom bombs on the cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki on August 6th and 9th of 1945.

Question 3.
Outbreak Of II World War.

(a) What are the axis powers?
Answer:
Germany, Italy and Japan.

(b) What is the significance of Blitzkrieg?
Answer:
Blitzkrieg means lightning strike which was the tactic followed by Germany to storm into various countries and over run them.

(c) Which country’s naval force was very powerful among the european naval forces?
Answer:
The British Royal Navy was very powerful among the European naval forces.

(d) How did British and French Saved their soldiers at the Battle of Dunkrik?
Answer:
British saved their men by calling all those who had boats/small ship and put them into use.The French formed the nucleus of their army.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write and explain any two International agencies of the UNO.
Answer:
The need for international co-operation and achieving peace among the world nations led to the formation of the international agencies of the UNO.

These agencies are:

1. The World Bank
2. The International Monetary Fund
3. The International Labour Office (ILO)
4. The International Finance Corporation.

The World Bank:
(i) The World Bank was established in 1945. It is located in Washington, USA. All the members of IMF are also the members of the World Bank.

(ii) The two main organs of the World Bank are the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and the International Development Agency (IDA). Together they are called “World Bank”.

(iii) Earlier, the IBRD was funding only for the reconstruction activities of the European countries after World War II. Later, its work expanded to promote economic development for poor countries and development projects for developing countries.

(iv) The Bank also works on the key areas like poverty alleviation, and other basic issues of the Societies of the World. The International Development Agency (IDA): It lends money to the governments for developmental activities.

The International Development Agency (IDA): It lends money to the governments for developmental activities.

These loans are given at low rate of interest and for 50 long years. Therefore they are called as soft loans.

The International Finance Corporation (IFC): It mainly functions with private enterprises in developing countries.

The International Labour Office: Is located in Geneva, Switzerland. It works on issues related to Labour and employment.

Question 2.
What are the major achievements of the UNO?
Answer:

1. The UNO has rendered a great service in establishing peace, and security by solving various problems.
2. Political disputes are solved by security council, legal disputes by International court of Justice and others by special agencies.
3. UNO has solved many International disputes.
4. It preserves peace in the world through peaceful negotiations.
5. It settled disputes between Israel and Palestine, Iran and Iraq and withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
6. In the conference, all countries adopted “Agenda 21”, a blueprint to promote economic development and protect natural resources.
7. The UNO established the International Research and Training Institute for the Advancement of Women.
8. It has supported many programmes and projects to improve the quality of life for women in over 100 countries.
9. The UNO played a vital role in the Suez canal crisis of 1956. It made France, Britain, and Israel to withdraw their troops from Egypt.
10. The UNO also settled the Korean war and Vietnam war.

Question 3.
Describe the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
Answer:

1. The International Monetary Fund was primarily the brainchild of Harry Dexter White and John Maynard Keynes, the famous economist.
2. It was formally organized in 1945 with 29 member countries.
3. Now it has a membership of 189 countries.
4. Its primary objective is to ensure financial stability and development across the world,
5. The main agenda is to promote international monetary co-operation, expansion of international trade and exchange stability.
6. The Fund lends money from its resources to countries facing balance of payments problems.
7. It imposes stringent conditions on the borrowing nations to tighten their budgets, practice fiscal prudence and reduce their expenditure.
8.  This is often unpopular, especially among the developing countries which may have to cut down on various programmes which provide subsidies to the people.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 18 Heredity

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Question 1.
According to Mendel, alleles have the following character ______.
(a) Pair of genes
(b) Responsible for character
(c) Production of gametes
(d) Recessive factors.
Answer:
(a) Pair of genes

Question 2.
9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio is due to:
(a) Segregation
(b) Crossing over
(c) Independent assortment
(d) Recessiveness
Answer:
(c) Independent assortment

Question 3.
The region of the chromosome where the spindle fibres get attached during cell division ______.
(a) Chromomere
(b) Centrosome
(c) Centromere
(d) Chromonema.
Answer:
(c) Centromere

Question 4.
The centromere is found at the centre of the ……… chromosome.
(a) Telocentric
(b) Metacentric
(c) Sub-metacentric
(d) Acrocentric
Answer:
(b) Metacentric

Question 5.
The ______ units form the backbone of the DNA.
(a) 5 carbon sugar
(b) Phosphate
(c) Nitrogenous bases
(d) Sugar phosphate.
Answer:
(c) Nitrogenous bases

Question 6.
Okasaki fragments are joined together by:
(a) Helicase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA primer
(d) DNA ligase
Answer:
(d) DNA ligase

Question 7.
The number of chromosomes found in human beings are ______.
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
(b) 22 autosomes and 1 allosome.
(c) 46 autosomes.
(d) 46 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.
Answer:
(a) 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of allosomes.

Question 8.
The loss of one or more chromosome in a ploidy is called:
(a) Tetraploidy
(b) Aneuploidy
(c) Euploidy
(d) polyploidy
Answer:
(b) Aneuploidy

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The pairs of contrasting character (traits) of Mendel are called ______.
Answer:
Alleles or allelomorphs.

Question 2.
The physical expression of a gene is called ______.
Answer:
Phenotype.

Question 3.
The thin thread-like structures found in the nucleus of each cell are called ______.
Answer:
Chromosomes.

Question 4.
DNA consists of two _______ chains.
Answer:
Polynucleotide.

Question 5.
An inheritable change in the amount or the structure of a gene or a chromosome is called ______.
Answer:
Mutation.

III. Identify whether the statement is True or False. Correct the False Statement.

Question 1.
A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 3 : 1.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: A typical Mendelian dihybrid ratio of F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 2.
A recessive factor is altered by the presence of a dominant factor.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Each gamete has only one allele of a gene.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
hybrid is an offspring from a cross between genetically different parent.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendage known as a telomere.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob – like appendage known as the satellite.

Question 6.
New nucleotides are added and a new complementary strand of DNA is formed with the help of enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic condition with 45 chromosomes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: Down’s syndrome is the genetic condition with 21 chromosomes.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

Column A	Column B
1. Autosomes	(a) Trisomy 21
2. Diploid condition	(b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3. Allosome	(c) 22 pair of chromosome
4. Down’s syndrome	(d) 2n
5. Dihybrid ratio	(e) 23rd pair of chromosome

Answer:
1. (c) 22 pair of chromosome
2. (d) 2n
3. (e) 23rd pair of chromosome
4. (a) Trisomy 21
5. (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

V. Answer in a Sentence.

Question 1.
What is a cross in which inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characters is studied?
Answer:
Dihybrid cross.

Question 2.
Name the conditions when both the alleles are identical.
Answer:
Homozygous

Question 3.
A garden pea plant produces axial white flowers. Another of the same species produced terminal violet flowers. Identify the dominant trait?
Answer:

• Axial position – a dominant trait
• White flowers – a recessive trait
• Terminal position – a recessive trait
• Violet flower – dominant trait.

Question 4.
What is the name given to the segments of DNA, which are responsible for the inheritance of a particular character?
Answer:
Genes

Question 5.
Name the bond which binds the nucleotides in a DNA.
Answer:
The hydrogen bonds bind the nucleotides in a DNA.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why did Mendel select pea plant for his experiments?
Answer:

• The pea plant is self-pollinating and so it is very easy to raise pure breeding individuals.
• It has a short life span, as it is an annual.
• It is easy to cross-pollinate.
• It has deeply defined contrasting characters.
• The flowers are bisexual.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term phenotype and genotype?
Answer:
Phenotype is the outward appearance or morphological character of an organism. The expression of gene or the genetic make up of an individual for a particular trait is called genotype.

Question 3.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs are autosomes and the 23rd pair is the allosome or sex chromosome.

Question 4.
What are Okazaki fragments?
Answer:
For the synthesis of new DNA, two things are required one is RNA primer and the enzyme primase. The DNA polymerase moves along the newly formed RNA primer nucleotides, which leads to the elongation of DNA. In the other strand, DNA is synthesis in small fragments called okazaki fragments. These fragments are linked by the enzyme called ligase.

Question 5.
Why is euploidy considered to be advantageous to both plants and animals?
Answer:
In euploidy condition, the individual bears more than the usual number of diploid chromosomes. The triploid plants and animals are sterile. The tetraploid plants, often result in increased fruit and flower size.

Question 6.
A pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), what would be the F₁ and F₂ generations? Explain.
Answer:
When a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with pure dwarf plant (tt), In F₁ generation all the plants will be tall. In F₂ generation by selling the F₁ monohybrid the tall and dwarf plant will be in the ratio of 3 : 1. In F₂ generation phenotypic ratio will be 3 : 1. genotypic ratio will be 1 : 2 : 1

Question 7.
Explain the structure of a chromosome.
Answer:
The chromosomes are thin long and thread-like structures, consisting of two identical strands called sister chromatids. They are held together by a centromere. Each chromatid is made up of a spirally coiled thin structure called chromonema. The bead-like structures along the length are called chromomeres. The chromosomes are made up of DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins (histones and non-histones) and certain metallic ions. These proteins give structural support to the chromosome.

Question 8.
Label the parts of the DNA in the diagram given below. Explain the structure briefly. Structure of DNA.
Answer:
DNA is the hereditary material as it contains the genetic information. DNA is a large molecule, consisting of millions of nucleotides. Each nucleotide consists of three compounds.

(a) A sugar molecule – Deoxy Ribose sugar

(b) A nitrogenous base [Purines and Pyrimidines]

• Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
• Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

(c) A phosphate group Nucleoside and Nucleotide:
Nucleoside = Nitrogen base + sugar
Nucleotide = Nucleoside + Phosphate
The nucleotides are formed according to the purines and pyrimidines present in them.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Explain with an example of the inheritance of the dihybrid cross. How is it different from a monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs of contrast characteristics, round – yellow seeds and wrinkled – green seeds. When pea plants having round – yellow seeds cross – bred with pea plants having wrinkled – green seeds, in the first generation (F₁), only round yellow seeds were produced.
No wrinkled – green seeds were obtained. Round yellow colour seeds were dominant and wrinkled-green seeds were recessive.

When round – yellow seeds were cross-bred by self-pollination, four types of seeds having different combinations of shape and colour were obtained in the F₂ generation. They were round- yellow, round-green, wrinkled-yellow and wrinkled – green seeds.

A dihybrid cross produced four types of F₂ offsprings in the ratio of 9 with two dominant traits, 3 with one dominant trait and one recessive trait, 3 with another dominant trait and another recessive trait and one with two recessive traits. The new combinations of traits with round green and wrinkled yellow had appeared in the dihybrid cross (F₂ generation). The ratio of each phenotype of seeds in the F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. This is known as the Dihybrid ratio.

Difference between a monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross:
Monohybrid cross:
Monohybrid cross is a genetic cross, that involves a single pair of genes, which is responsible for one trait.
Parents differ by a single trait.
Monohybrid ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1.

Dihybrid cross:
Dihybrid cross is a genetic cross, that involves two pairs of genes, which are responsible for two traits,
The parents have two different independent traits.
The dihybrid ratio in the F₂ generation is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 2.
How is the structure of DNA organised? What is the biological significance of DNA?
Answer:
DNA is the hereditary material, as it contains the genetic information. It is a large molecule consisting of millions of nucleotides, so it is called a polynucleotide. Each nucleotide consists of three components.
(a) A sugar molecule – Deoxyribose sugar

(b) A nitrogenous base – There are two types of the nitrogenous base in DNA they are

• Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
• Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

(c) A phosphate group – The polynucleotide chains from a double helix. Nitrogenous bases in the centre are linked to sugar – phosphate units, which form the backbone of the DNA. Pairing between the nitrogenous bases is very specific and is always between purine and pyrimidine, linked by hydrogen bonds.

Adenine (A) links Thymine (T) with two hydrogen bonds [A=T]. Cytosine (C) links Guanine (G) with three hydrogen bonds (C = G). The hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases make the DNA molecule stable. The nucleotides in a helix are joined together by phosphodiester bonds.

The biological significance of DNA:

• It is responsible for the transmission of heredity information from one generation to the next generation.
• It contains the information required for the formation of proteins.
• It controls the developmental process and life activities of an organism.

Question 3.
The sex of the newborn child is a matter of chance and neither of the parents may be considered responsible for it. What would be the possible fusion of gametes to determine the sex of the child?
Answer:
Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair (23rd pair) is the sex chromosome. The female gametes or the eggs formed are similar in their chromosome type [22 + XX], So human females are homogametic. The male gametes or sperms produced are of two types. They are produced in equal proportions. The sperm bearing [22 + X] chromosomes and the sperm bearing (22 + Y) chromosomes. So human males are called heterogametic.

It is a chance, as to which category of sperm fuses with the egg. If the egg [X] is fused by the X – bearing sperm an [XX] individual (female) is produced. If the egg [X] is fused by the Y – bearing sperm an [XY] individual (male) is produced. The sperm produced by the father determines the sex of the child. The mother is not responsible for determining the sex of the child.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Flowers of the garden pea are bisexual and self-pollinated. Therefore, it is difficult to perform hybridization experiment by crossing a particular pistil with the specific pollen grains. How Mendel made it possible in his monohybrid and dihybrid crosses?
Answer:
As the garden pea is self-pollinating plant the parent plant were emasculated to prevent self pollination.
The anthers were collected from male parent and dusted on the female parent and the stigma was bagged.

Question 2.
Pure-bred tall pea plants are first crossed with pure-bred dwarf pea plants. The pea – plants obtained in the F₁ generation are then cross-bred to produce F₂ generation of pea plants.

1. What do the plants of the F₁ generation look like?
2. What is the ratio of tall plants to dwarf plants in the F₂ generation?
3. Which type of plants was missing in F₁, generation but reappeared in the F₂ generation?

Answer:

1. Tall
2. 1 : 2 : 1
3. Dwarf plants.

Question 3.
Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the statement is not true.
Sex determination is a chance of probability as to which category of sperm fuses with the eggs. If the egg(x) is fused by the x-bearing sperm, then
individual is female. If the egg (x) is fused by the y-bearing sperm then the individual is male. The sperm produced by the father only determines the sex of the child.

IX. Value-Based Questions

Question 1.
Under which conditions does the law of independent assortment hold good and why?
Answer:
Mendel gave this law based on his dihybrid cross experiment. Here the total number of individuals is F₂ will be sixteen which occur in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 where two parental classes and two new combination will be produced.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Heredity Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The branch of biology that deals with the genes, genetic variation and heredity of living organisms is called ______.
Answer:
Genetics.

Question 2.
The chromatids are held together by ______.
Answer:
Centromere.

Question 3.
______ is the enzyme, which separates the double helix of DNA, above the replication fork.
Answer:
Topoisomerase.

Question 4.
_____ mutation is the changes occurring in the nucleotide sequence of a gene.
Answer:
Gene or point.

Question 5.
The end of the chromosome is called ______.
Answer:
Telomere.

Question 6.
The constriction of the chromosome at any point is called ______.
Answer:
Nuclear Zone.

Question 7.
The nucleotides in a helix are joined together by ______ bonds.
Answer:
Phosphodiester.

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Homozygous	(a) polynucleotide
2. Genes	(b) human male
3. DNA	(c) occurs in pairs and alike
4. Heterozygous	(d) segments of DNA
5. Heterogametic	(e) bind DNA to the origin of replication site
6. Autosome	(f) occurs in pairs and unlike
7. Helicase	(g) somatic characters

Answer:

1. (c) occurs in pairs and alike
2. (d) segments of DNA
3. (a) polynucleotide
4. (f) occurs in pairs and unlike
5. (b) Human male
6. (g) somatic characters
7. (e) bind DNA to the origin of replication site.

III. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The thin long thread-like structures consisting of two identical strands ______.
(a) Hybrid
(b) Chromosomes
(c) Genes
(d) DNA and RNA.
Answer:
(b) Chromosomes

Question 2.
A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait
(b) Shortness in the dominant trait
(c) Tallness in the recessive trait
(d) Height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
Answer:
(a) Tallness is the dominant trait

Question 3.
The number, size and shape of chromosomes in the cell nucleus of an organism ______
(a) Karyotype
(b) Heterozygous
(c) Autosome
(d) Nucleotide
Answer:
(a) Karyotype

Question 4.
In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. The unpaired chromosomes are:
(a) large chromosome
(b) small chromosome
(c) Y- chromosome
(d) X- chromosome
Answer:
(c) Y- chromosome

Question 5.
The addition or deletion in the number of chromosomes present in a cell is called _______
(a) Homogametic
(b) Polymerase
(c) Ploidy
(d) Nucleoside
Answer:
(c) Ploidy

IV. Write true or false for the statements. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
The character which expresses itself is called the dominant condition and that which is masked is called recessive condition. Answer:
True

Question 2.
The chromosomes of body cells of an organism are haploid in condition and the single set of chromosomes in gametes are diploid in condition.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The chromosomes of body cells of an organism are diploid in condition and the single set of chromosomes in gametes are haploid in condition.

Question 3.
The mother is responsible for determining the sex of the child. The sperm produced by the father does not determine the sex of the child.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The mother is not responsible for determining the sex of the child. The sperm produced by the father determines the sex of the child.

Question 4.
The human female is called Homogametic. The human males are called heterogametic.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Adenine always links with Guanine with three hydrogen bonds and cytosine always links with thymine with two hydrogen bonds.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Adenine always links with thymine with two hydrogen bonds. Cytosine always links with Guanine with three hydrogen bonds.

V. Match the following persons with the correct statements.

Question 1.

1. Waldeyar	(a) Role of chromosome in heredity
2. James Watson and Crick	(b) Father of genetics
3. Hugo de Vries	(c) Down’s syndrome
4. Langdon Down	(d) Chromosomes
5. T.H Morgan	(e) Mutation
6. Gregor Johan Mendel	(f) Model of DNA

Answer:

1. (d) chromosomes
2. (f) Model of DNA
3. (e) Mutation
4. (c) Down’s syndrome
5. (a) Role of chromosome in heredity
6. (b) Father of genetics

VI. Answer the following in a word or with a sentence.

Question 1.
Who is the father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel.

Question 2.
Name the plant on which Mendel performed his experiment.
Answer:
Pisum sativum (Garden Pea).

Question 3.
What is locus?
Answer:
Each gene is present at a specific position on a chromosome called its locus.

Question 4.
Who proposed the double helical model of DNA?
Answer:
Watson and Crick

Question 5.
What does the dihybrid cross involve?
Answer:
The dihybrid cross involves the inheritance of two pairs of contrasting characteristics.

Question 6.
What are the components of chromosome?
Answer:
The components of chromosomes are DNA, RNA, chromosomal proteins like histones and non histones and certain metallic ions.

Question 7.
What are Nucleoside and Nucleotide?
Answer:
Nucleoside = Nitrogen base + sugar
Nucleotide = Nucleoside + phosphate

VII. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Write the Law of purity of gametes.
Answer:
When a pair of contrasting alleles are brought together in a heterozygote, the two members of the allelic pair remain together without mixing and when gametes are formed, the two separate out, so that only one enters each gamete.

Question 2.
What are chromonema and chromomeres?
Answer:
Each chromatid is made up of a spirally coiled thin structure called chromonema. The chromonema has a number of bead – like structures along its length which are called chromomeres.

Question 3.
Explain the types of chromosome-based on the position of the centromere.
Answer:

Based on the position of the centromere, the chromosomes are classified as follows:

• Telocentric: The centromere is at the proximal end. The chromosomes are rod – shaped.
• Acrocentric: The centromere is found at the end with a short arm and a long arm. They are rod-shaped chromosomes.
• Sub metacentric: The centromere is found near the centre of the – chromosome. Thus forming two unequal arms. They are J shaped or L shaped chromosomes.
• Metacentric: The centromere occurs in the centre of the chromosome and forms two equal arms. They are V – shaped chromosomes.

Question 4.
Give reason for the appearance of new combination of characters in F₂ progene.
Answer:
At the time of gamete formation in the F₁ Hybrid genes character asserted independently resulted in the appearance of new combination of character in the F₂ progene.

Question 5.
What is sickle cell anaemia?
Answer:
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the mutation of a single gene. This alteration in gene brings a change in the structure of protein part of Haemoglobin molecule. The red blood cells, that carry the haemoglobin is sickle-shaped and oxygen-carrying capacity reduces, causing sickle cell anaemia.

Question 6.
Represent the phenotypic, genotypic ratio of both monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross in 72 generations of pea plants.
Answer:
Monohybrid cross:
Phenotypic ratio – 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 1

Dihybrid cross:
Phenotypic ratio – 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic ratio – 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 2 : 1.

Question 7.
How do chromosomes take part in the formation of the male and female child?
Answer:
Fertilization of the egg (22 + X) with a sperm [22 + X] will produce a female child [44 + XX] The fertilization of the egg (22 + X) with a sperm [22 + Y] will give rise to a male child [44 + XY].

VIII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the regions of chromosomes with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
The chromosomes are thin, long and thread-like structures, with two identical strands called chromatids. They are held together by a centromere. The chromatid is made up of spirally coiled, a thin structure called chromonema, which has a number of bead-like structures along its length called chromomeres.

A chromosome consists of the following regions:

1. Primary constriction: The two arms of a chromosome meet at a point called primary constriction or centromere. The centromere is the region, where spindle fibres attach to the chromosome during cell division.
2. Secondary constriction: Some chromosomes have a secondary constriction at any point of the chromosome, called the nuclear zone or nucleolar organizer. (Formation of the nucleolus in the nucleus).
3. Telomere: The end of the chromosome is called telomere. Each extremity of the chromosome has a polarity and prevents it from joining the adjacent chromosome. It maintains and provides stability to the chromosomes.
4. Satellite: Some of the chromosomes have an elongated knob-like appendage at one end of the chromosome, known as a satellite. The chromosomes with satellites are called as sat- chromosomes.
   

Question 2.
Given an account of the Laws of Mendel.
Answer:
Mendel proposed three important laws which are now called as Mendel’s Laws of Heredity.
(i) Law of Dominance : “When two homozygous individuals with one or more sets of contrasting characters are crossed, the characters that appear in the F₁ hybrid are dominant and those that do not appear in F₁ are recessive characters”.

(ii) Law of Segregation or Law of purity of gametes : “When a pair of contrasting factors or genes or allelomorphs are brought together in a heterozygote or hybrid, the two members of the allelic pair remain together without mixing and when gametes are formed, the two separate out, so that only one enters each gamete.”

(iii) Law of independent assortment : “In case of inheritance of two or more pairs of characters simultaneously, the factors or genes of one pair assort out independently of the other pair.”

Question 3.
Explain the monohybrid cross, with a diagram and describe the interpretation of Mendel oh monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Crosses involving the inheritance of only one pair of contrasting characters are called monohybrid cross. It is a cross between two forms of a single trait like a cross between tall and dwarf plant. In a monohybrid cross, a pure breeding tall plant and a pure breeding dwarf plant, results, tall and monohybrids in the F₁ generation.

In the F₂ generation, selfing of the F₁ monohybrids resulted in tall and dwarf plants in the ratio of 3 : 1. The external expression of a particular trait is known as the phenotype. So the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1.
In the F₂ generations, 3 different types were obtained.
Tall Homozygous – TT (pure) – 1
Tall Heterozygous – Tt – 2
Dwarf Homozygous – tt – 1
So the genotypic ratio 1 : 2 : 1.
A genotype is the genetic expression of an organism.

Mendel’s interpretation on monohybrid cross:
Factors are passed on from one generation to another, factors are referred to as genes. Tallness and dwarfism are determined by a pair of contrasting factors tall plant T, a dominant character and a plant is dwarf’s’, recessive character in pairs. Pure breeding tall plants (TT) and pure dwarf plants (tt) are called homozygous. If they are unlike, (Tt) they are referred to as heterozygous.

(i) Two factors make up a pair of contrasting characters are called alleles or allelomorphs. One member of each pair is contributed by one parent.

(ii) When two factors of a trait are brought together, by fertilization, only one expresses itself (tallness), masking the expression of the other (dwarfness). The character which expresses itself is called dominant and the character, which is masked is called recessive.

(iii) The factors for tallness [T] and dwarfness (t) are separate entities, and in a gamete either T or t is present. When F₁ hybrids are self crossed the two entities separate and then unite independently, forming tall and dwarf plants.

Question 4.
Explain Mendel’s laws of heredity with the results of a dihybrid cross.
Answer:
Mendel crossed pea plants having round yellow seeds (dominant) with pea plants having wrinkled green seeds. In the F₁ generation, round shape, yellow colour of the seeds were dominant over the wrinkled green colour seeds. When the hybrids of the F₁ generation were cross-bred by self-pollination, the dihybrid cross, produced four types of F₂ offsprings in the ratio of 9, with two dominant traits, 3 with one dominant trait and one recessive trait, 3 with another dominant trait and another recessive trait and 1 with two recessive traits.

Two new combinations of traits with round green and wrinkled yellow had appeared in the dihybrid cross. [F₂ generation]
Mendel’s law of heredity:
(i) Law of dominance: When two homozygous individuals with contrasting characters are crossed, the characters, that appear in the F₁ hybrid are dominant and those do not appear in F₁ are recessive characters.

(ii) Law of segregation or Law of purity of gametes: When a pair of contrasting factors or genes are brought together, in a heterozygote the contrasting pair remain together without, mixing and when gametes are formed, the two separate out so that only one enters each gamete.

(iii) Law of Independent Assortment: In case of inheritance of two or more pairs of characters simultaneously, the factors or genes of one pair assort out independently of the other pair.

Question 5.
Explain the Watson and Crick model of DNA.
Answer:
Watson and Crick model of DNA:
DNA molecules consist of two polynucleotide chains. These chains form a double helix. Structure, with two strands, which run anti-parallel to one another. Nitrogenous bases in the centre are linked to sugar – phosphate units, which form the backbone of the DNA. Pairing between the nitrogenous bases is very specific and is always between purine and pyrimidine linked by hydrogen bonds.

Adenine [A] links Thymine [T] with two hydrogen bonds (A = T)
Cytosine [C] links Guanine [G] with three hydrogen bonds (C = G). This is called complementary base pairing.
Hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases make the DNA molecule stable.
Each turn of the double helix is 34 A° (3.4 nm). There are ten base pairs in a complete turn.
Nucleotides in a helix are joined together by phosphodiester bonds.

Question 6.
Explain in detail, the various steps of DNA replication.
Answer:
Replication of DNA:
Replication of DNA occurs within a cell. DNA molecule produces exact copies of its own structure during replication.
The two strands of a DNA molecule have complementary base pairs, the nucleotides of each strand, provide the information needed to produce its new strand. The two resulting daughter cells contain exactly the same genetic information as the parent cell.

DNA replication involves the following steps:
(a) Origin of replication: The points on the DNA, where replication begins, is the site of origin of replication. The two strands open and separate at this point, forming the replication fork.

(b) An unwinding of DNA molecule: The enzyme, helicase, bind to the origin of a replication site. Helicase separates the two strands of DNA. The enzyme called topoisomerase separates the double helix above the replication fork and removes the twists formed during the unwinding process.

(c) Formation of RNA primer: An RNA primer is a short segment of RNA nucleotides. The primer is synthesized by the DNA template, close to the origin of a replication site.

(d) Synthesis of the new complementary strand from the parent strand: After the formation of RNA primer, nucleotides are added with the help of an enzyme DNA polymerase, a new complementary strand of DNA is formed from each of the parent strands. The daughter strand is synthesized as a continuous strand, which is called the leading strand.

The short segments of DNA are synthesized, in the other strand and called lagging strand. The short segments of DNA are called Okazaki fragments. The enzyme DNA ligase joins the fragments. The replication fork of the two sides meets at a site called terminus, which is stimulated opposite to origin of a replication site.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills [HOTS] Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand about DNA, gene and chromosome in short?
Answer:
Deoxy ribonucleic acid [DNA] is the material located in the cells and nucleus, that makes up the chromosomes and genes. Its molecule is in the shape of a double helix.

A gene is a segment of DNA that is passed down from parents to children and confers a trait to the offspring. Genes are organised and packaged in units called chromosomes.

Chromosomes are thin, long thread-like structures contain two identical strands, called chromatids, held together by a centromere. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 2.
What is the difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation?
Answer:

Gene mutation	Chromosomal mutation
1. A change in the nucleotide sequence, in a particular gene.	1. A change in several genes in the chromosome.
2. Gene mutation is only a structural alteration.	2. The chromosomal mutation is either numerical or structural changes in the entire DNA strand.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction

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Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Gross Domestic Product And Its Growth An Introduction Question 1.
GNP equals …………
(a) NNP adjusted for inflation
(b) GDP adjusted for inflation
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad
(d) NNP plus net property income or abroad
Answer:
(c) GDP plus net property income from abroad

10th Social Economics 1st Lesson Question 2.
National Income is a measure of:
(a) Total value of money
(b) Total value of producer goods
(c) Total value of consumption goods
(d) Total value of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Total value of goods and services

10th Economics Book Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Primary sector consist of ………………
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Samacheer Kalvi Economics Question 4
………………….. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value-added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value-added approach

Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Question 5.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
(a) Agricultural sector
(b) Industrial sector
(c) Service sector
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Service sector

Growth Of Gross Domestic Product Match The Following Question 6.
Gross value added at current prices for services sector is estimated at …………………..
(a) 91.06
(b) 92.26
(c) 80.07
(d) 98.29
Answer:
(b) 92.26

10th Social Science Economics Question 7.
India is …………… larger producer in agricultural product.
(a) 1^st
(b) 3^rd
(c) 4^th
(d) 2^nd
Answer:
(d) 2^nd

10th Economics Question 8.
India’s life expectancy at birth is ………………. years.
(a) 65
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 55
Answer:
(a) 65

Gross Meaning In Tamil Question 9.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 10.
Indian economy is:
(a) Developing Economy
(b) Emerging Economy
(c) Dual Economy
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. …………….. sector is largest sector in India.
2. GDP is the indicator of ………………. economy.
3. Secondary sector otherwise called as …………..
4. ……………… sector is the growth engine of Indian economy.
5. India is …………….. largest economy of the world.
6. India is ………………. fastest growing nation of the world.
7. ………………. policy envisages rapid industrialization with modernization for attaining rapid economic growth of GDP.
Answers:
1. Service
2. a country’s
3. industry sector
4. Service
5. sixth
6. fifth
7. Industrial

III. Choose the Correct Statement.

Question 1.
The rate of saving is low in India for the following reason
(i) Low per capita income.
(ii) Poor performance and less contribution of public sector.
(iii) Poor contribution of household sector.
(iv) Savings potential of the rural sector not tapped fully.

(a) i, ii and iv are correct
(b) i, ii and iii are correct
(c) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
(d) i, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
(a) i, ii and iv are correct

IV. Match the Following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5 .(b)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. Commonly National Income is called a Gross National product (or) National Dividend.

Question 2.
What is meant by Gross domestic product?
Answer:
The GDP is the market value of all the final goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 3.
Write the importance of Gross Domestic product.
Answer:

1. It helps in the study of economic growth of an economy.
2. To understand to unequal distribution of wealth in an economy.
3. To analyse the problem of inflation and deflation.
4. To compare domestic country with the developed countries of the world.
5. To estimate the purchasing power of the economy.
6. Helps public sector to frame suitable policies for development.
7. It acts as a guide to economic planning.

Question 4.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Per capita income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 5.
Define the value added approach with example.
Answer:
The value of each intermediate good is added together to estimate the value of the final good. It is called as value added approach. Eg: In order to find the value of a cup of tea, we need to add the value of tea powder plus milk plus sugar. Here Tea powder, milk and sugar are intermediate goods, whereas tea is the final good. Eg: Tea powder – ₹ 3 /-, Milk – ₹ 5 /-, Sugar – ₹ 2 /- Market price of one cup of tea is ₹ 10 /- (3 + 5 + 2).

Question 6.
Name the sectors contribute to the GDP with examples.
Answer:
Name of the sectors are: (i) Primary sector, (ii) Secondary sector and (Hi) Tertiary sector.

Question 7.
Write the sector wise Indian GDP composition in 2017.
Answer:
Sector wise contribution in GDP of India for the year 2016 – 2017
Primary Sector – 17.09%
Secondary Sector – 29.03%
Tertiary Sector – 52.08%

Question 8.
What are the factors supporting to develop the Indian Economy?
Answer:

1. A fast growing working age population
2. Strong Legal system
3. Many English language speakers
4. Low wage cost
5. Highly advanced space technology
6. External economics of scale.

Question 9.
Write the name of economic policies in India.
Answer:
Name of economic policies in India are:

• Agriculture Policy
• Industrial Policy
• New Economic Policy
• Trade Policy
• Employment Policy
• Currency and Banking Policy
• Fiscal and Monetary Policy
• Wage Policy
• Population Policy

Question 10.
Write a short note on
(i) Gross National Happiness (GNH)
(ii) Human Development Index (HDI).
Answer:
(i) Gross National Happiness: This term was introduced in 1972, by the King of Bhutan Jigme Wang chuck. It is an index which is used to measure the collective happiness and well-being of a population.
(ii) Human Development Index: This term was introduced in 1990 by a Pakistani Economist at the United Nations. It is a composite index of life expectancy at birth, adult literacy rate and standard of living measured in terms of GDP adjusted to purchasing power parity.

VI. Write in detail answer.

Question 1.
Briefly explain various terms associated with measuring of national income.
Answer:
Various terms associated with measuring of national income.
(i) Gross National Product or GNP is the total value of goods and services produced and income received in a year by domestic residents of a country. It excludes profits earned from capital invested abroad.

(ii) Gross Domestic Product or GDP is the total value of output of goods and services produced by the factors of production within the geographical boundaries of the country.

(iii) Net National Product or NNP refers to gross national product, i.e., the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of productions of a country or other polity during a given time period, minus depreciation.

(iv) Net Domestic Product or NDP is a part of Gross Domestic Product. It is obtained from the Gross Domestic Productby deducting the Quantum of ten wear and tear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(v) Per Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.
Per Capita Income = \(\frac{\text { National Income }}{\text { Population }}\)

(vi) Personal Income or PI is the total money income received by individuals and households of a country from all possible services before direct taxes. Personal income can be expressed as follows:
PI = NI Corporate Income Texes – Undistributed Corporate Profits – Social Security Contributions + Transfer payment.

(vii) Disposable Income or DI means actual income which can be spent on consumption by . individuals and families. It can expressed as DPI = PI – Direct Taxes.

Question 2.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Explain it.
There are three methods to calculate Gross Domestic Product.
(i) Expenditure Approach
(ii) Income Approach
(iii) Value-Added Approach

(i) Expenditure Approach: According to this method, the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specific period are added together, to get the GDP.
Y = C + I + G + (X – M)
Y – National Income
C – Consumption Expenditure,
I – Investment Expenditure
G – Government Expenditure,
X – Exports
M – Imports.

(ii) The Income Approach: In this method, the earnings of all the men and women who are involved in producing goods and services are added together to measure GDP.
Y = W + R + I + π
Y = National Income, W- Wages,
R – rent, I – interest, π – profit

(iii) Value-Added Approach: In this method, the value of each intermediate good is added together to estimate the value of final goods. The sum of the value of all the final goods gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy, which is Measured as GDP.

GDP = Sum of final goods produced in the economy S_f
S_f = Sum of Intermediate goods produced in the economy.

Question 3.
Write about the composition of GDP in India.
Answer:
Indian economy is broadly divided into three sectors which contribute to the GDP –
(i) Primary Sector – It includes agriculture-based allied activities, production of raw materials such as cattle farm, fishing, mining, forestry etc. It is also called agricultural sector.

(ii) Secondary Sector – It includes industries that produce a finished, usable product or are involved in construction. This sector generally takes the output of the primary sector and manufactures finished goods. It is also called industrial sector.

(iii) Tertiary Sector – It is known as service sector and includes transport, insurance, banking, trade, education, health care etc. ’

Question 4.
Write the differences between the growth and development.
Answer:
Differences between the Economic growth and Economic development

Economic Growth	Economic Development
(i) It is the positive quantitative change in the output of an economy in a particular time period	(i) It consider the rise in the output in an economy along with the advancement of HDI index which considers a rise in living standards, advancement in technology and overall happiness index of a nation.
(ii) Economic growth is the ‘narrower’ concept.	(ii) Economic development is the ‘broader’ concept.
(iii) Quantitative in nature.	(iii) Qualitative in nature.
(iv) Rise in parameters like, GDP, GNP, FDI, FII etc.	(iv) Rise in life expectancy rate, infant, improvement in literacy fate, infant mortality rate and poverty rate etc.
(v) Short term in nature.	(v) Long-term in nature.
(vi) It is applicable in developed nations.	(vi) It is applicable in developing co countries.
(vii) It is measured by increase in national income.                    ,	(vii) It is measured by increase in real national income, i.e., per capita income.
(viii) It occurs in a certain period of time.	(viii) It is a continuous process.

Question 5.
Explain the development path based on GDP and employment.
Answer:

1. In the earlier stages of Indian Independence, India remained as closed economy and the interaction with the outside world remained limited.
2. The reason for closed trade was to give importance to domestic industries and reduce the dependence on foreign products and companies.
3. Later in the year 1991, India adopted free trade policy, and liberalised the economy.
4. It has given permission for the foreign companies to enter into the Indian economy.
5. To give employment to the increasing size of work force, a thrust was given to employment generation under the Five year plans.
6. Rural Development was also given special importance.
7. Eradication of poverty became a very important part in context of Rural Development.
8. The private companies and Industries were subject to strict rules and regulations.
9. It was believed that the social welfare of the people could be possible only by the government, therefore it gained importance.
10. India’s Per Capita Income have doubled in 12 years.
11. India falls under Middle Income country category.
12. There is reduction in poverty percentage and the life expectancy at birth is 65 years.
13. 44% of children under 5 are malnourished.
14. The literacy rate for the population of 15 years of age is only 63% compared to 71% of other middle income countries.
15. India has followed a different path of development by moving from agricultural sector to service sector very quickly. This help India to expect emerging Industrialists in Indian Economy.

Question 6.
Explain the following the economic policies
1. Agricultural Policy
2. Industrial policy
3. New economic policy.
Answer:
Many economic policies have been framed by the Government of India since independence for increasing rate of economic growth and economic development. The important economic policies are :
(i) Agricultural Policy – This policy is the set of Government decisions and actions relating to domestic agriculture and imports of foreign agricultural products. Governments usually implement agricultural policies with the goal of achieving a specific outcome in the domestic agricultural product markets. Some agricultural policies are price policy, land reform policy, irrigation policy, food policy etc.

(ii) Industrial Policy – It is a very important aspect of any economy. It create employment, promotes research and development, leads to modernisation and ultimately make the economy self sufficient. Several industrial policies since 1948 have come into existence – textile industrial policy, sugar industry policy, price policy of industrial growth etc.

(iii) New Economic Policy – The economy of India had undergone a significant policy shifts in the beginning of the 1990s. This new model of economic reforms is commonly known as the LPG or Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation model. The primary objective of this model was to make the economy of India the fastest developing economy in the globe with capabilities that help at match up with the biggest economies of the world. These economic reforms influenced the overall economic growth of the country in a significant manner.

Gross Domestic Product and its Growth: an Introduction Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What is ‘H’ in GNH?
(a) Holislic
(b) Happiness
(c) Human
(d) Hazardous
Answer:
(b) Happiness

Question 2.
Goods are …………………
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) services
Answer:
(a) Tangible

Question 3.
What is India’s world rank in industrial sector?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 4.
…………………. is the market value of all goods and services produced in the country.
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 5.
India finally decided to liberalise its economy in the year …………..
(a) 1991
(b) 1995
(c) 2000
(d) 2001
Answer:
(a) 1991

Question 6.
The Goods and Services are measured in terms of ………………… of that country.
(a) wealth
(b) currency
(c) type
(d) size
Answer:
(b) currency

Question 7.
Income method sums all forms of …………
(a) Expenditure
(b) Income
(c) Savings
Answer:
(b) Income

Question 8.
Only those goods and services that has a market value are included in the …………………
(a) GNP
(b) GDP
(c) NNP
(d) NDP
Answer:
(b) GDP

Question 9.
The primary function of the Government is …………….
(a) to maintain law and order
(b) Military defence
(c) Social Security measures
Answer:
(a) to maintain law and order

Question 10.
According to Economists Tyler and Alex, Final goods and services a part of other goods and services ………………… a part of other goods and services
(a) will be
(b) will not be
(c) fully
(d) None
Answer:
(b) will not be

Question 11.
Economic development is the process as well as an increase in real …………. income.
(a) individual
(b) family
(c) national
Answers:
(c) national

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Economic development focuses on balanced and ……….. distribution of wealth among all individuals and tries to uplift the downgrade society.
2. The GDP of the United States of America is 19.3 trillion USD and ranked ………….
3. Human development Index is apt tool to measure the real development in an …………….
4 ………….. has emerged as a hub of global software business.
5. In India the GDP is measured both annually and …………….
6. Economic growth means an increase in ……………. and …………. in an economy.
7. Human Resources are ……………. for economic development.
8. Per capita income is calculated by dividing National Income by ……………
9. Per capita income is an indicator of …………… in a country.
10. Economic development is economic growth and allocation of resources from primary sector ………… to sector.
11. Tertiary sector is known as ……………
Answers:
1. equitable
2. one
3. economy
4. Bangalore
5. quarterly
6. production of good, services
7. instruments
8. population
9. living standard of people
10. tertiary
11. service sector

III. Match the Following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the four pillars of Gross National Happiness Index?
Answer:
The four pillars of GNHI are

1. Sustainable and equitable socio-economic development
2. Environmental conservation
3. Preservation and Promotion of culture
4. Good Governance

Question 2.
“India has followed a different path of development from many other countries”. Explain.
Answer:
India has gone more quickly from agriculture to services that tend to be less tightly regulated than heavy industry. There are some emerging manufacturing giants in the Indian economy.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term ‘double counting’?
Answer:
The value of final goods are included in the calculation of GDP, but not the value of Intermediate goods. This is because the value of the Intermediate goods is already included in the final good. So, if it is added again it will result in double counting.

Question 4.
What are the nine domains of Gross National Happiness or GNH?
Answer:
The nine domains of GNH are – psychological well-being, health, time use, education, cultural diversity and resilience, good governance, community vitality, ecological diversity and resilience, and living standards.

Question 5.
What is meant by Market value?
Answer:
The price at which the goods and services are sold in the market is called as Market value.

Question 6.
Write a note on Income method.
Answer:

• Income method is one of the methods of calculating National Income.
• In this method, the income and payments received by all the people in the country are calculated.

Question 7.
What are the key parameters of Economic Growth?
Answer:
The key parameters of Economic Growth in an economy are its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP) which helps in measuring the actual size of an economy.

Question 8.
What is Net Domestic Product?
Answer:
Net Domestic Product is obtained from the Gross Domestic Product by deducting the Quantum of tear and wear expenses (depreciation).
NDP = GDP (-) Depreciation.

Question 9.
What are the nine domains of GNHI?
Answer:

1. Psychological well-being
2. health
3. time-use
4. Education
5. Cultural diversity and Resilience
6. Good governance
7. Community vitality
8. Ecological diversity
9. Living standards.

Question 10.
What are the basic concepts of National Income?
Answer:

1. Gross National Product (GNP)
2. Gross Domestic Product (GDP)
3. Net National Product (NNP)
4. Net Domestic Product (NDP)
5. Per Capita Income (PCI)
6. Personal Income (PI)
7. Disposable Income (DI)

Question 11.
What is meant by GNP Deflator?
Answer.
It means the change in the Gross National Product (GNP) with the change in the price levels symbolically.\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{GNP}}{\Delta \mathrm{P}}\)

Question 12.
What are called sectors?
Answer:
Sectors are the groups of various economic activities that produced goods and services.

Question 13.
Why is the primary sector also called agricultural and related sector?
Answer:
Since most of the natural products we get are from Agriculture based allied activities. Production of raw materials such as cattle farm, dairy, fishing, mining, forestry, com and coal. The primary sector is also called agriculture and related sector.

Question 14.
Why is the tertiary sector also called the ‘Service Sector’?
Answer:
Since the activities that fall under the tertiary sector generate services rather than goods, this sector is also called the service sector.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air. which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens r because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country’ may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed to unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 2.
Write a detailed note on the measurement of GDP.
Answer:
(i) The GDP Gross Domestic Product of a country measures the market value of goods and services produced during a particular period of time.

(ii) In the measurement of GDP, the GDP of the previous years are not included. Eg: the GDP of 2018 will include the market value of goods and services produced only during 2018.

(iii) In India, GDP is measured both annually and in quarterly.

(iv) The Annual GDP financial year (2017-18) is from 1st April 17 to 31st March 18.

(v) The quarterly GDP for any financial year is calculated by dividing the year into 4 quarters with 3 months each.

1^st Quarter – April, May, June (Q₁)
2^nd Quarter – July, Aug, Sept (Q₂)
3^rd Quarter – Oct, Nov ,Dec (Q₃)
4^th Quarter – Jan, Feb, March (Q₄)
(vi) The GDP of Q₂ will not include GDP of Q₁ and vice versa. This means, only the goods and services produced in that quarter is included for the measurement of GDP.

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