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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Advent of the Europeans

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Advent of the Europeans Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Advent Of The European Questions And Answers Question 1.
Who laid the foundation of Portuguese power in India?
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Bartholomew Diaz
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
(d) Almeida
Answer:
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque

8th Standard Social Science History Question 2.
Which of the following European Nation was the foremost attempt to discover a sea route to India?
(a) Dutch
(b) Portugal
(c) France
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Portugal

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Social Science Solutions Question 3.
In 1453 Constantinople was captured by ……………
(a) The French
(b) The Turks
(c) The Dutch
(d) The British
Answer:
(b) The Turks

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 4.
Sir William Hawkins belonged to …………….
(a) Portugal
(b) Spain
(c) England
(d) France
Answer:
(c) England

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 5.
The first fort constructed by the British in India was ……………
(a) Fort St. William
(b) Fort St.George
(c) Agra fort
(d) Fort St. David
Answer:
(b) Fort St.George

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Question 6.
Who among the following Europeans were the last to come India as traders?
(a) The British
(b) The French
(c) The Danish
(d) The Portuguese
Answer:
(b) The French

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Solutions Question 7.
Tranqueber on the Tamilnadu coast was a trade centre of the ……………
(a) The Portuguese
(b) The British
(c) The French
(d) The Danish
Answer:
(d) The Danish

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. National Archives of India (NAI) is located in ……………..
2. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese sailor was patronized by ………………
3. The printing press in India was set up by …………….. at Goa in 1556.
4. The Mughal Emperor …………….. permitted the English to trade in India.
5. The French East India Company was formed by ……………..
6. …………….. the King of Denmark issued a charter to create Danish East India company.

Answer:

1. New Delhi
2. King John II
3. Portuguese
4. Jahangir
5. Colbert
6. Christian IV

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. ii
4. i.

IV. State true or false

Samacheer Kalvi 8th History Book Question 1.
Auto biography is one of the written sources.
Answer:
True

8th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Coins are one of the material sources.
Answer:
True

8th History Book In Marathi Pdf Question 3.
Ananda Rangam was a translator served under British.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Ananda Rangam was a translator served under French.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Guide Question 4.
The place where historical documents are preserved is called archives.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick (V) the appropriate answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 8 Social Science Solutions Question 1.
(i) Governor Nino de Cunha moved Portuguese capital from Cochin to Goa.
(ii) Portuguese were the last to leave from in India.
(iii) The Dutch founded their first factory at Surat.
(iv) Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England.

(a) i & ii are Correct.
(b) ii & iv are Correct.
(c) iii is correct
(d) i, ii & iv are correct.

Answer:
(d) i, ii & iv are correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.

1. Find out the wrong pair
2. Francis Day – Denmark
3. Pedro Cabral – Portugal
4. Captain Hawkins – Britain
5. Colbert – France

Answer:
1. Francis Day – Denmark

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Give a short note on Archives?
Answer:
Archives is the place where historical documents are preserved. The National Archives of India (NAI) is located in New Delhi. It is the chief storehouse of the records of the government of India.

Question 2.
Write about the importance of Coins.
Answer:
Coins are a good source to know about administrative history. As compared to the literary sources the chances of manipulation is very less in the case of coins. Thus they are an authentic archaelogical source.

Question 3.
Why Prince Henry is called ‘Henry the Navigator’?
Answer:
Prince Henry of Portugal, who is commonly known as the “Navigator”, encouraged his countrymen to take up the adventurous life of exploring the unknown regions of the world.

Question 4.
Name the important factories established by the Dutch in India.
Answer:
After their arrival in India, the Dutch founded their first factory in Masulipatnam, (Andhra Pradesh) in 1605. The other important factories in India were Pulicat, Surat, Chinsura, Kasim bazaar, Patna, Nagapatnam, Balasore and Cochin.

Question 5.
Mention the trading centers of the English in India.
Answer:
The English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad and Broach.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Give an account of the sources of Modern India.
Answer:
1. The sources for the history of modem India help us to know the political, socio – economic and cultural developments in the country.

2. The Portuguese, the Dutch, the French, the Danes, and the English recorded their official transactions in India on state papers.

3. History can be written with the help of written sources and material sources.

4. Written Sources:
After the advent of the printing press, book were published in different languages people began to acquire knowledge easily in the fields like art, literature, history and science.

5. Written sources include Literatures, Travel Accounts, Diaries, Auto Biographies, Pamphlets, Government Documents and Manuscripts.

6. Archives:
It has main source of information for understanding past administrative machinery as well as a guide to the present and future generations related to all matters.

7. Material Sources:
Paintings and statues are the main sources of modem Indian history which provide information about national leaders and historical personalities and their achievements.

8. Historical buildings and museums preserve and promote our cultural heritage,

9. Coins are a good source to know about administrative history.

Question 2.
How did the Portuguese establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:
1. In A.D. 1498, Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, where he was cordially received by King Zamorin, the ruler of Calicut. A second Portuguese navigator, Pedro Alvares Cabral, sailed towards India in 1500.

2. Vasco da Gama came to India for the second time in 1501 with 20 ships and founded a trading centre at Cannanore.

3. One after another, they established factories at Calicut and Cochin.

4. King Zamorin attacked the Portuguese in Cochin, but was defeated.

5. Cochin was the first capital of the Portuguese East India Company.

6. In 1505, Francisco de Almeida was sent as the first Governor for the Portuguese possessions in India.

7. Almeida had the aim of developing the naval power of the Portuguese in India. His policy was known as the “Blue Water Policy”.

8. Sultans of Bijapur and Gujarat were also apprehensive of the expansion of Portuguese control of ports which led to an alliance between Egypt, Turkey and Gujarat against Portuguese invaders.

9. In a naval battle fought near Chaul, the combined Muslim fleet won a victory over the Portuguese fleet under Almeida’s son.

10. Almeida defeated the combined Muslim fleet in a naval battle near Diu, and by the year 1509, Portuguese claimed the naval supremacy in Asia.

11. The real founder of the Portuguese power in India was Alfonso de Albuquerque who captured Goa and established the Portuguese authority over Ormuz in Persian Gulf.

12. Governor Nino de Cunha moved capital from Cochin to Goa in 1530. In 1534, he acquired Bassein from Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, in 1537.

13. During the 16th century, Portuguese succeeded in capturing Goa, Daman, Diu, Salsette, Bassein, Chaul and Bombay on the western coast, Hooghly on the Bengal coast and San Thome on the Madras coast and enjoyed good trade benefits.

Question 3.
How did the British establish their trading centres in India?
Answer:
1. In 1600, Elizabeth, the Queen of England granted a charter to the governor and company of Merchants of London to trade with East Indies.

2. The Company was headed by a Governor and a court of 24 directors.

3. Captain Hawkins visited Jahangir’s court and secured permission to raise a settlement at Surat which was cancelled later.

4. In 1612, the English Captain Thomas Best, inflicted a severe defeat over the Portuguese in a naval battle near Surat.

5. The Mughal Emperor Jahangir permitted the English to establish their factory in 1613 at Surat, which became the headquarters of the English in western India.

6. Captain Nicholas Downton won another decisive victory over the Portuguese in 1614.

7. This enhanced the British prestige at the Mughal court.

8. In 1615, Sir Thomas Roe was sent to Jahangir’s court by King James I of England, who succeeded in concluding a commercial treaty with the emperor

9. Before the departure of Sir Thomas Roe, the English had established their trading centres at Surat, Agra, Ahmadabad and Broach.

VIII. Map skill

Question 1.
On the river map of India, mark the following trading centres of the Europeans.

1. Calicut
2. Cochin
3. Madras
4. Pondicherry
5. Surat
6. Chinsura
7. Pulicat
8. Calcutta

Answer:

IX. HOTs

Question 1.
How did the fall of Constantinople affect the European nations?
Answer:

1. The fall of Constantinople was the end of an era for Europe as it severely hurt traders in the European region.
2. The land route between India and Europe was closed. The Turks penetrated into North Africa and the Balkan Peninsula.
3. It became imperative on the part of the European nations to discover new sea routes to the East.

X. Student Activity

Question 1.
Prepare a chart on the kinds of sources of Modern India.
Answer:
Kinds of Sources of Mordem India.
Hints:
Artifacts from Archeological sites coins, monuments, inscriptions, travelogues and autobiographies are primary sources of information for modem history, it also includes government reports, letter, photographs map diaries, news papers and films.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Advent of the Europeans Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The ……………… of India attracted Europeans to this country.
(a) Technology
(b) Machinery
(c) Wealth
(d) River
Answer:
(c) wealth

Question 2.
Ananda Rangan’s ……………… reveal his profound capacity for political judgment.
(a) Diaries
(b) Books
(c) Paintings
(d) Coins
Answer:
(a) Diaries

Question 3.
The first issue of the calendar of Madras records was published in ……………….
(a) 1914
(b) 1917
(c) 1918
(d) 1920
Answer:
(b) 1917

Question 4.
…………….. help to preserve and promote our cultural heritage.
(a) Parks
(b) Books
(c) Beaches
(d) Museums
Answer:
(d) Museums

Question 5.
The national museum in ……………… is the largest museum in India.
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(a) Delhi

Question 6.
The Reserve Bank of India was formally set up in ……………..
(a) 1940
(b) 1938
(c) 1935
(d) 1936
Answer:
(c) 1935

Question 7.
The first paper currency was issued by RBI in ……………..
(a) 1940
(b) 1938
(c) 1937
(d) 1936
Answer:
(b) 1938

Question 8.
After the capture of Constantinople by the Turks, the land route between India and ……………. was closed.
(a) Pakistan
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Africa
(d) Europe
Answer:
(d) Europe

Question 9.
Bartholomew Diaz, was patronized by king ……………..
(a) George II
(b) Henry VIII
(c) John II
(d) Edward VII
Answer:
(c) John II

Question 10.
……………… maintained friendly relations with Vijayanagar Empire.
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Francisco de Almeida
(c) Alfonso de Albuquerque
(d) Nino de Cunha
Answer:

Question 11.
The ……………. brought the cultivation of tobacco to India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) Dutch
(c) British
(d) French
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 12.
Due to the influence of the Portuguese ……………. religion spread in India’s western and eastern coasts.
(a) Islam
(b) Catholic
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(b) Catholic

Question 13.
The ……………. followed the Portuguese into India.
(a) British
(b) French
(c) Danish
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(d) Dutch

Question 14.
The Dutch shifted their headquarters from Pulicat to …………… in 1690.
(a) Madras
(b) Bangalore
(c) Nagapattinam
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Nagapattinam

Question 15.
The Dutch was completely wiped out by the year ……………..
(a) 1795
(b) 1695
(c) 1780
(d) 1800
Answer:
(a) 1795

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Europeans came to know about the Wealth of India from the accounts of ……………
2. ……………. was a translator to assist French trade in India.
3. Tamil Nadu Archives has Dutch records which relate to …………… and coast.
4. ………….. prepared the first issue of the calendar of Madras records.
5. The …………… was empowered to issue Government of India notes.
6. The first paper currency issued by RBI bore the portrait of ……………
7. Fort ……………. was built by the British in Cuddalore.
8. ………….. a Portuguese sailor reached the southern most point of Africa in 1487.
9. Vasco – da Gama sailed from ………….. to India.
10. In 1548, the Portuguese occupied …………….
11. The Portuguese were defeated by the English in the battle of …………… in 1759.
12. In Pulicat, the Dutch built the fort of …………….. in 1613.

Answer:

1. Marco Polo
2. Ananda Rangam
3. Cochin, Coromandal
4. Dodwell
5. Reserve Bank of India
6. King George VI
7. St. Davids
8. Bartholomew Diaz
9. Mozambique
10. Salsette
11. Bedera
12. Geldriaj

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. iv
2. i
3. ii
4. iii

IV. State True or False

Question 1.
The archives at Lisbon, Goa, Pondicherry and Madras were literally store houses of precious historical information.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
All documents in Tamil Nadu Archives are in English.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The most of the records in Tamil Nadu Archives are in English.

Question 3.
After his third voyage to India, Vasco da Gama, died in Cochin in 1524.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The English East India company of established its supremacy in the Spice Islands.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
United East India company of established its supremacy in the Spice Islands.

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (V) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
(i) After 1858, India came under the direct administration of the British crown.
(ii) The settlement of Pondicherry was founded by Martin under a grant from Ibrahim Lodi, the ruler of Bijapur.
(iii) France was the last European country to come to India as trader.
(iv) The three Carnatic wars ruined the English.

(a) i & ii are Correct.
(b) ii & iv are Correct.
(c) i and iii are Correct
(d) i, ii and iv are Correct.
Answer:
(c) i and iii are Correct

Find out the wrong pair

Question 2.

1. Fort St. David – Cuddalore
2. Fort Geldria – Pulicat
3. Fort St. Louis – Goa
4. Fort St. George – Madras

Answer:
(3) Fort St. Louis – Goa

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Name the powers which recorded their official transactions in India on State papers.
Answer:
The Portuguese, the Dutch, the French, the Danes, and the English recorded their official transactions in India on state papers.

Question 2.
What was the impact of the invention of printing press in India?
Answer:
Numerous books were published in different languages. Hence, people began to acquire knowledge easily in the fields like art, literature, history and science.

Question 3.
Name the languages other than English in which the records and documents are found in Tamil Nadu Archives.
Answer:
The collections include series of administrative records in Dutch, Danish, Persian and Marathi. Few documents are in French, Portuguese, Tamil and Urdu.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Dodwell.

1. Dodwell prepared with great effort and the first issue of the calendar of Madras records was published in 1917.
2. He was highly interested in encouraging historical researches. He opened a new chapter in the History of Tamil Nadu Archives.

Question 5.
Name a few historical buildings of India which depict styles and techniques of Indian architecture.
Answer:
Historical buildings like St. Francis Church at Cochin, St. Louis Fort at Pondicherry, St. George Fort in Madras, St. David fort in Cuddalore, India Gate, Parliament House, President House in New Delhi, etc are different styles and techniques of Indian architecture.

Question 6.
What does the term ‘audio – visual’ mean?

1. Audio – visual means possessing both a sound and a visual component, such as slide – tape presentations.
2. Audio – visual service providers frequently offer web streaming, video conferencing and live broadcast services. Television, films, internet are called ‘Audio – visual media’.

Question 7.
Name the important commodities traded by the Dutch.
Answer:
The most important Indian commodities traded by the Dutch were silk, cotton, indigo, rice and opium. They monopolized the trade in black pepper and other spices.

Question 8.
Why was the English East India Company engaged in rivalry with the Portuguese and the Dutch?

1. The English East India Company remained engaged in rivalry with the Portuguese and the Dutch throughout the 17th century.
2. In 1623, the Dutch cruelly killed ten English traders and nine Javanese in Amboyna. This incident accelerated the rivalry between the two Europeans companies.

Question 9.
Who permitted the French to establish a township near Calcutta?
Answer:
In 1673, the French obtained permission from Shaista Khan, the Mughal Subedar (governor) of Bengal to establish a township at Chandranagore, near Calcutta.

Question 10.
Write a short note on the Swedish East India Company.

1. The Swedish East India Company was founded in Gothenburg, Sweden, in 1731 for the purpose of conducting trade with the Far East.
2. The venture was inspired by the success of the Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company.

Question 11.
Why was the British Successful when compared to the other powers?
Answer:
The comparative success of the British over the Portuguese, the Dutch, the Danish, and the French was largely due to their commercial competitiveness, spirit of supreme sacrifice, government support, naval superiority, national character and their ascendency in Europe.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 6 Subsidiary Books – I

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Subsidiary Books – I Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Subsidiary Books Questions And Answers Pdf Question 1.
Purchases book is used to record ……………..
(a) all purchases of goods
(b) all credit purchases of assets
(c) all credit purchases of goods
(d) all purchases of assets
Answer:
(c) all credit purchases of goods

11th Accountancy Chapter 6 Book Back Answers Question 2.
A periodic total of the purchases book is posted to the ……………..
(a) debit side of the purchases account
(b) debit side of the sales account
(c) credit side of the purchases account
(d) credit side of the sales account
Answer:
(a) debit side of the purchases account

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Chapter 6 Question 3.
Sales book is used to record ……………..
(a) all sales of goods
(b) all credit sales of assets
(c) all credit sales of goods
(d) all sales of assets and goods
Answer:
(c) all credit sales of goods

11th Accountancy 6th Chapter Solutions Question 4.
The total of the sales book is posted periodically to the credit of ……………..
(a) Sales account
(b) Cash account
(c) Purchases account
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(a) Sales account

Class 11 Accountancy Chapter 6 Solutions Question 5.
Purchase returns book is used to record ……………..
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(b) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(c) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is received immediately
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately

Subsidiary Books Problems And Solutions Pdf Question 6.
Sales return book is used to record ……………..
(a) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(c) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(d) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
Answer:
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately

Subsidiary Books 11th Question 7.
Purchases of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in ……………..
(a) Purchases book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases returns book
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(d) Journal proper

Accountancy Class 11 Chapter 6 Solutions Question 8.
The source document or voucher used for recording entries in sales book is ……………..
(a) Debit note
(b) Credit note
(c) Invoice
(d) Cash receipt
Answer:
(c) Invoice

11th Accountancy Chapter 6 Question 9.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Cash discount is recorded in the books of accounts
(b) Assets purchased on credit are recorded in journal proper
(c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts
(d) 3 grace days are added while determining the due date of the bill
Answer:
(c) Trade discount is recorded in the books of accounts

Subsidiary Books Questions And Answers Question 10.
Closing entries are recorded in ……………..
(a) Cash book
(b) Ledger
(c) Journal proper
(d) Purchases book
Answer:
(c) Journal proper

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Accounting 11 Chapter 6 Answers Question 1.
Mention four types of subsidiary books.
Answer:

1. Purchase Book
2. Sales Book
3. Purchase Return Book
4. Sales Return Book

Subsidiary Books Of Accounts Class 11 Pdf Question 2.
What is purchases book?
Answer:
Purchases book is a subsidiary book in which only credit purchases of goods are recorded. When business wants to know the information about the credit purchases of goods at a glance, the information can be made available if purchases of goods on credit are separately recorded.

Class 11 Accounts Subsidiary Books Solutions Question 3.
What is purchases returns book?
Answer:
Purchases returns book is a subsidiary book in which transactions relating to return of previously purchased goods to the suppliers, for which cash is not immediately received are recorded. Since goods are going out to the suppliers, they are also known as returns outward and the book is called as ‘returns outward book or returns outward journal’.

Subsidiary Books Problems And Solutions Class 11 Question 4.
What is sales book?
Answer:
Sales book is a subsidiary book maintained to record credit sale of goods. Goods mean the items in which the business is dealing. These are meant for regular sale. Cash sale of goods and sale of property and assets whether for cash or on credit are not recorded in the sales book. This book is also named as sales day book, sold day book, sales journal or sale register.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Accountancy Question 5.
What is sales returns book?
Answer:
Sales returns book is a subsidiary book, in which, details of return of goods sold for which cash is not immediately paid are recorded. Just as goods may be returned to suppliers, goods may be returned by customers.

Subsidiary Books Sums Question 6.
What is debit note?
Answer:
A ‘debit note’ is a document, bill or statement sent to the person to whom goods are returned. This statement informs that the supplier’s account is debited to the extent of the value of goods returned. It contains the description and details of goods returned, name of the party to whom goods are returned and net value of the goods so returned with reason for return.

11th Accountancy Book Back Answers Question 7.
What is credit note?
Answer:
A credit note is prepared by the seller and sent to the buyer when goods are returned indicating that the buyer’s account is credited in respect of goods returned. Credit note is a statement prepared by a trader who receives back the goods sold from his customer. It contains details such as the description of goods returned by the buyer, quantity returned and also their value.

Class 11 Accounts Chapter 6 Solutions Question 8.
What is journal proper?
Answer:
Journal proper is a residuary book which contains record of transactions, which do not find a place in the subsidiary books such as cash book, purchases book, sales book, purchases returns book, sales returns book, bills receivable book and bills payable book. Thus, journal proper or general journal is a book in which the residual transactions which cannot be entered in any of the sub divisions of journal are entered.

Subsidiary Books Class 11 Solutions Question 9.
Define bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, “Bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Subsidiary Books Class 11 Pdf Question 10.
What is an opening entry?
Answer:
Journal entry made in the beginning of the current year with the balances of assets and liabilities of the previous year is opening journal entry. In this entry, asset accounts are debited, liabilities and capital accounts are credited.

11th Accountancy – Book Back Answers Question 11.
What is an invoice?
Answer:
Entries in the purchases day book are made from invoices which are popularly known as bills. Invoice is a business document or bill or statement, prepared and sent by the seller to the buyer giving the details of goods sold, such as quantity, quality, price, total value, etc. Thus, the invoice is a source document of prime entry both for the buyer and the seller.

III. Short Answer Questions

Subsidiary Books Questions Question 1.
Give the format of purchases book.
Answer:
Format of Purchases book / Purchases Journal

Subsidiary Books Class 11 Question 2.
Mention the subsidiary books in which the following transactions are recorded

1. Sale of goods for cash
2. Sale of goods on credit
3. Purchases of goods on credit
4. When the proprietor takes goods for personal use
5. Goods returned to suppliers for which cash is not received immediately
6. Asset purchased as credit.

Answer:

1. Cash book
2. Sales book
3. Purchase book
4. Journal proper
5. Purchase return book
6. Journal proper

Question 3.
What are the advantages of subsidiary books?
Answer:
The advantages of maintaining subsidiary books are:
1. Proper and systematic record of business transactions: All the business transactions are classified and grouped conveniently as cash and non cash transactions, which are further classified as credit purchases, credit sales, returns, etc. As separate books are used for each type of transactions, individual transactions are properly and systematically recorded in the subsidiary books.

2. Convenient posting: All the transactions of a particular nature are recorded at one place, i.e., in one of the subsidiary books. For example, all credit purchases of goods are recorded in the purchases book and all credit sales of goods are recorded in the sales book. It facilitates posting to purchases account, sales account and concerned personal accounts.

3. Division of work: As journal is sub-divided, the work will be sub – divided and different persons can work on different books at the same time and the work can be speedily completed.

4. Efficiency: The sub – division of work gives the advantage of specialisation. When the same work is done by a person repeatedly the person becomes efficient in handling it. Thus, specialisation leads to efficiency in accounting work.

5. Helpful in decision making: Subsidiary books provide complete details about every type of transactions separately. Hence, the management can use the information as the basis for deciding its future actions. For example, information regarding sales returns from the sales returns book will enable the management to analyse the causes for sales returns and to adopt effective measures to remove deficiencies.

6. Prevents errors and frauds: Internal check becomes more effective as the work can be divided in such a manner that the work of one person is automatically checked by another person. With the use of internal check, the possibility of occurrence of errors or fraud may be avoided or minimised.

7. Availability of requisite information at a glance: When all transactions are entered in one journal, it is difficult to locate information about a particular item. When subsidiary books are maintained, details about a particular type of transaction can be obtained from subsidiary books. The maintenance of subsidiary books helps in obtaining the necessary information at a glance.

8. Detailed information available: As all transactions relating to a particular item are entered in a subsidiary book, it gives detailed information. It is easy to arrive at monthly or quarterly totals.

9. Saving in time: As there are many subsidiary books, work of entering can be done simultaneously by many persons. Thus, it saves time and accounting work can be completed quickly.

10. Labour of posting is reduced: Labour of posting is reduced as posting is made in periodical totals to the impersonal account, for example, Purchases account.

Question 4.
Write short notes on:

1. Endorsement of a bill and
2. Discounting of a bill

Answer:
1. Endorsement means signing on the face or back of a bill for the purpose of transferring the title of the bill to another person. The person who endorses is called the “Endorser”. The person to whom a bill is endorsed is called the “Endorsee”. The endorsee is entitled to collect the money.

2. When the holder of a bill is in need of money before the due date of a bill, cash can be received by discounting the bill with the banker. This process is referred to as the discounting of bill. The banker deducts a small amount of the bill which is called discount and pays the balance in cash immediately to the holder of the bill.

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods. (3 Marks)
2017:
April 5 – Purchased from Karthik Electric Co., on credit
10 Electric iron box @ ₹ 2,500 each
5 electric stoves @ ₹ 2,000 each
April 19 – Purchased on credit from Khaitan Electric Co.,
3 electric heaters @ ₹ 6,000 each
April 25 – Purchased from Polar Electric Co., on credit.
10 Fans @ ₹ 2,000 each
April 29 – Purchased from M & Co. for cash
10 electric stoves @ ₹ 3,000 each
Solution:
In the books of M/s Subhashree Electric Co.
Purchases book

Question 2.
Enter the following credit transactions in the purchases book of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant. (5 Marks)
2017:

1. May 2 – Bought from Vasu 100 bags of rice @ ₹ 800 per bag
2. May 8 – Bought from Cheyyar Sugar Mills Ltd., 20 bags of sugar @ ₹ 2,600 per bag
3. May 10 – Bought from Ram Flour Mill, Coimbatore, 10 bags of wheat flour @ ₹ 750 per bag
4. May 15 – Bought from Nilgiri Tea Co., Nilgiris, 15 cases of tea @ ₹ 900 per case
5. May 25 – Bought from Sairam Coffee Works Ltd., 100 kgs of Coffee @ ₹ 190 per kg.
6. May 29 – Bought from X & Co. furniture worth ₹ 2,000

Solution:
In the books of Manoharan, a Provisions Merchant
Purchase book

Question 3.
From the following transactions write up the Sales day book of M/s. Ram & Co., a stationery merchant. (3 Marks)
2017:

1. Jan. 1 – Sold to Anbu & Co., on credit 20 reams of white paper @ ₹ 150 per ream
2. Jan. 2 – Sold to Jagadish & Sons on credit 6 dozen pens @ ₹ 360 per dozen
3. Jan. 10 Sold old newspapers for cash @ ₹ 620
4. Jan. 15 – Sold on credit M/s. Elango & Co., 10 drawing boards @ ₹ 170 per piece
5. Jan. 20 – Sold to Kani & Co., 4 writing tables at ₹ 1,520 per table for cash

Solution:
In the books of M/s Ram & Co., Stationery Merchant
Sales book

Question 4.
Enter the following transactions in the Sales book of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop. (3 Marks)
2017:

1. May 2 – Sold to Naveen Stores, Trichy on credit 5 computer tables @ ₹ 1,750 per table
2. May 9 – Sold to Deepa & Co., Madurai on credit 6 dining tables @ ₹ 1,900 per dining table
3. May 15 – Sold to Rajesh 10 dressing tables @ ₹ 2,750 each on credit
4. May 24 – Sold to Anil 5 wooden tables @ ₹ 1,250 per table on credit
5. May 27 – Sold to Gopi 3 old computers @ ₹ 3,500 each
6. May 29 – Sold 50 chairs to Anil @ ₹ 275 each for cash

Solution:
In the books of Kamala Stores, a furniture shop
Sales book

Question 5.
Enter the following transactions in the purchases and sales books of Kannan, an automobile dealer, for the month of December, 2017.

Solution:
In the books of Kannan, an automobile dealer
Purchases book

Sales Book

Question 6.
Prepare Purchases book and Sales book in the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd., from the following transactions given for April, 2017. (5 Marks)
2017:
April 1 Purchased goods from Prasad, Kancheepuram on credit
100 meters Silk @ ₹ 450 per meter
75 meters Velvet @ ₹ 180 per meter
April 10 Sold goods to Rathinam, Chennai on credit
60 meters Silk @ ₹ 490 per meter
50 meters Velvet @ ₹ 210 per meter
April 18 Nathan & Sons purchased from us on credit
100 meters Silk @ ₹ 510 per meter
April 20 Purchased goods from Hari Ram & Sons, Madurai on credit
50 rolls kada cloth @ ₹ 730 per roll
80 rolls cotton cloth @ ₹ 650 per roll
April 24 Purchased from Mohan, Karur for cash
Shirting cloth @ ₹ 7,000
Sarees @ ₹ 25,000
Solution:
In the books of Santhosh Textiles Ltd.,
Purchase book

Sales book

Question 7.
From the following information, prepare purchase day book and purchases returns book for the month of June, 2017 and post them into ledger accounts in the books of Robert Furniture Mart. (5 Marks)
2017:

June 1 – Purchased from Balu Traders 20 chairs @ ₹ 150 each on credit

June 13 – Bought from Subash & Co., on credit
2 Almirah @ ₹ 3,100 each
10 tables @ ₹ 1,500 each
15 chairs @ ₹ 200 each
Less: 10 % Trade discount on all items
Add: Freight charges ₹ 220

June 21 – Returned 2 damaged chairs to Balu Traders and cash not received

June 24 – Purchased from Sunrise Furniture Mart on credit
25 Almirahs @ ₹ 1,300 each

June 27 – Purchased from Mouli Traders on credit
10 executive tables @ ₹ 3,275 each

June 29 – Returned 3 Almirahs to Sunrise Furniture Mart and cash not received
Solution:
In the books of Robert Furniture Mart
Purchases book

In the books of Robert Furniture Mart
Purchases Return book

Ledger Acconts
Purchase A/c

Balu Traders A/c

Sunrise Furniture Mart A/c

Subash & Co.A/c

Mouli Traders A/c

Ledger Accounts
Purchase Return A/c

Question 8.
Enter the following transactions in the proper subsidiary books of Suman who is dealing in electronic goods for the month of January, 2017. (5 Marks)
2017
Jan. 2 – Purchased from M/s. Raj Electronics on credit
20 cell phones @ ₹ 5,500 per piece
10 colour TVs @ ₹ 14,500 per piece

Jan. 5 Purchased from M/s. Ruby Electronics on credit
10 radios @ ₹ 1,650 per piece
8 Tape recorders @ ₹ 2,500 per piece
Trade discount on all items @ 10%

Jan. 10 Returned to M/s. Raj Electronics 4 cell phones damaged and cash not received

Jan. 20 Purchased from M/s. Suganthi Electronics on credit
10 radios @ ₹ 3,700 per piece
2 Sony colour TVs @ ₹ 27,000 per piece
Trade discount @ 5% on all items
Solution:
In the books of Suman
Purchase book

In the Books of Suman
Purchase returns book

Question 9.
Enter the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Guhan & Sons, who is a textile dealer. (5 Marks)
2017
May 2 – Sold to M/s. Karan & Co., on credit
100 pieces towels @ ₹ 280 per piece
200 metres shirtings @ ₹ 270 per metre

May 5 – Sold to M/s. Veeran & Sons on credit
10 pieces ready – made dress @ ₹ 1,500 per piece

May 16 – Sold to M/s. Jain & Sons on credit
50 blankets @ ₹ 240 each

May 20 Damaged 10 pieces towels returned by Karan & Co. and cash not paid

May 25 Sold old furniture to M/s. Saran & Co., on credit ₹ 18,000

May 27 Returned 2 pieces ready-made dresses by M/’s. Veeran&Sons due to inferior qualityand cash not paid
Solution:
In the books of M/s Guhan & Sons, a textile dealer
Sales book

Sales return book

Question 10.
Record the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Ponni & Co., and post them to ledger. (5 Marks)
2017:

1. Aug. 1 – Sold goods to Senthil as per Invoice No. 68 for ₹ 20,500 on credit
2. Aug. 4 – Sold goods to Madhavan as per Invoice No. 74 for ₹ 12,800 on credit
3. Aug. 7 – Sold goods to Kanagasabai as per Invoice No. 78 for ₹ 7,500 on credit
4. Aug. 15 – Returns inward by Senthil as per Credit Note no. 7 for ₹ 1,500 for which cash is not paid
5. Aug. 20 – Sold goods to Selvam for ₹ 13,300 for cash
6. Aug. 25 – Sales returns of ₹ 1,800 by Madhavan as per Credit Note No. 11 for which cash is , not paid

Solution:
In the books of M/s Ponni & Co.,
Sales book

Sales returns book

Ledger Accounts in the books of M/s Ponni & Co.
Sales A/c

Sales Return A/c

Senthil A/c

Madhavan A/c

Kanagasabai A/c

Question 11.
Prepare necessary subsidiary books in the books of Niranjan and also Sachin account and Mukil account from the following transactions for the month of February, 2017.

In the books of Niranjan
Purchase book

Sales book

Purchase return book

Sales return book

Sachin A/c

Mukil A/c

Question 12.
From the following information, prepare the necessary subsidiary books for Nalanda Book Stores.
2017:
Dec. 1 – Bought from M/s. Umadevi on credit
100 copies of Business Statistics Book @ ₹ 80 each
100 copies of Accountancy Book @ ₹ 150 each

Dec.7 – Sold to Sridevi & Co., on credit
240 copies of Business Statistics @ ₹ 90 each
250 copies of Accountancy books @ ₹ 170 each

Dec. 10 – Bought from Subha & Co.,
40 copies of Economics Books @ ₹ 80 each
Less: 15% Trade Discount

Dec. 15 Returned to M/s. Uma Devi 10 copies of damaged Accountancy book for which cash is not received

Dec. 18 Sold to Gupta Bros., on credit
200 copies of Economics book @ ₹ 95 each

Dec. 26 Returned 6 copies of Economics books to Subha & Co.,
Solution:
In the books of Nalanda Book Store
Purchase book

Sales book

Purchase Return book

Textbook Case Study Solved

Mr. Joseph started a trading business of selling readymade clothes. In the earlier period, he dealt only with cash, because he felt that would be risk-free. But, later on, he had to give credit period for his regular customers in order to retain them. For some customers, when they made bulk purchase, he offered them some discount. That brought him even more customers. But, some of his customers are not prompt in making the payment.

He expanded his business and employed few staff. As the credit transactions were numerous, he found it difficult to maintain properly. One of his friends, who is a Chartered Accountant advised him to maintain subsidiary books.
Discuss on the following points.

Question 1.
What could be the reason for Joseph’s feeling that dealing in cash is risk free?
Answer:
When we sell the goods, immediately we can get cash at once. So no debts had occurred in the business.

Question 2.
What type of discount is offered by Joseph?
Answer:
He offered trade discount.

Question 3.
Suggest some ways to Joseph for making his customers to pay on time.
Answer:
The cash discount may be offered by Joseph to his customers to pay on time.

Question 4.
Do you think that maintaining the subsidiary books will be useful to Joseph?
Answer:
Yes. it is useful.

1. Sales book
2. Sales returns book
3. Purchases book
4. Purchase returns book

Question 5.
What business documents are needed to maintain the subsidiary books?
Answer:

1. Invoice
2. Debit note
3. Credit note

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The Tempest Textual Questions

A. Choose the correct answer.

1. ………………. was the chief of all spirits.
(a) Sycorax
(b) Caliban
(c) Ariel
(d) Prospero
Answer:
(c) Ariel

2. ……………….. raised a dreadful storm.
(a) Ariel
(b) Prospero
(c) Miranda
(d) Sycorax
Answer:
(b) Prospero

3. Miranda was brought to the island …………… years ago.
(a) fourteen
(b) ten
(c) twelve
(d) five
Answer:
(c) twelve

4. Prospero ordered Ariel to bring ………………… to his place.
(a) Gonzalo
(b) Ferdinand
(c) King of Naples
(d) Antonio
Answer:
(b) Ferdinand

5. …………….. had provided Prospero formerly with books and provisions.
(a) Antonio
(b) Ferdinand
(c) Gonzalo
(d) Antonio
Answer:
(c) Gonzalo

6. The second human being that Miranda saw on the island was …………. .
(a) Ariel
(b) Prospero
(c) Ferdinand
(d) Gonzalo
Answer:
(c) Ferdinand

Additional Questions

1. Prospero and Miranda lived in a cave divided into several ………….. .
(a) compartments
(b) apartments
(c) vestibules
(d) partitions
Answer:
(b) apartments

2. Prospero released many good spirits like …………….. .
(a) Sycorax
(b) Ariel
(c) Caliban
(d) Ferdinand
Answer:
(a) Sycorax

3. Sycorax, a good spirit imprisoned many in the bodies of large ……………. .
(a) animals
(b) bottles
(c) barrels
(d) trees
Answer:
(d) trees

4. Ariel tormented an ugly monster called …………………….. .
(a) Miranda
(b) Sycorax
(c) Caliban
(d) Prospero
Answer:
(c) Caliban

5. ……………… was the son of Sycorax.
(a) Caliban
(b) smooth
(c) bumpy
(d) blunt
Answer:
(a) Caliban

6. Mirnda was just ………………. years old when she came to this cell.
(a) five
(b) three
(c) seven
(d) twelve
Answer:
(b) three

7. Prospero was the Duke of ……………… .
(a) Naples
(b) Milan
(c) Mulan
(d) Maples
Answer:
(b) Milan

8. Prospero had a younger brother by name …………….. .
(a) Antonio
(b) Caliban
(c) Shylock
(d) Ferdinand
Answer:
(a) Antonio

9. Antonio joined hands with the king of ……………… and betrayed his brother.
(a) Maples
(b) Naples
(c) Milan
(d) Mulan
Answer:
(b) Naples

10. ………………. was a kind lord of Prospero’s court.
(a) Gonzalo
(b) Ferdinand
(c) Ariel
(d) Milan
Answer:
(a) Gonzalo

B. Identify the’character or speaker.

10th English The Tempest Paragraph Question 1.
He imprisoned the spirits in the bodies of large trees.
Answer:
Sycorax

10th English Supplementary The Tempest Summary Question 2.
He was the chief of all spirits.
Answer:
Ariel

The Tempest Hints Development Question 3.
It seems to me like the recollection of a dream.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero (Not in the textual passage)

10th Std The Tempest Summary Question 4.
I was Duke of Milan, and you were a princess.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

The Tempest 10th Supplementary In English Question 5.
What a trouble must I have been to you then!
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

The Tempest Book Back Answers Question 6.
Now pray tell me, sir, your reason for raising this sea-storm?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

The Tempest Questions And Answers Question 7.
I will soon move you.
Answer:
Ariel to Ferdinand

10th English Unit 1 Supplementary Question 8.
I will tie your neck and feet together.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

The Tempest Questions And Answers Pdf Question 9.
I must finish my task before I take my rest.
Answer:
Ferdinand to Miranda

10th English Supplementary Story In English Question 10.
He repented and implored his brother’s forgiveness.
Answer:
Antonio to Prospero

Additional Questions

The Tempest 10th Supplementary In Tamil Question 1.
She came to this island so young, that she had no memory other than her father.
Answer:
Miranda

10th English The Tempest In Tamil Question 2.
They lived in a cave made out of a rock.
Answer:
Prospero and Miranda

The Tempest Supplementary Question 3.
He kept his books to chiefly create magic.
Answer:
Prospero

10th English Supplementary The Tempest Question 4.
This spirit imprisoned many in the bodies of large trees.
Answer:
Sycorax

10th English Supplementary Paragraph Pdf Question 5.
He was the chief of all the gentle spirits.
Answer:
Ariel

Tempest Questions And Answers Question 6.
He took too much pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster.
Answer:
Ariel

10th English The Tempest Summary Question 7.
He was the son of Sycorax.
Answer:
Caliban

The Tempest Paragraph Question 8.
He was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices.
Answer:
Caliban

10th Supplementary The Tempest Question 9.
He had the charge of compelling Caliban to these services.
Answer:
Ariel

10th English Supplementary Story In Tamil Question 10.
With the help of spirits, he could command the winds, and the waves of the sea.
Answer:
Prospero

10th English Character/Speaker Pdf Question 11.
“Have pity on their sad distress. See! the vessel will be dashed to pieces.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

10th English The Tempest Question 12.
Be not so amazed, there is no harm done.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 13.
No person in the ship shall receive any hurt.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 14.
What I have done has been in care of you.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 15.
Can you remember a time before you came to this cell?
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 16.
You were not then three years of age.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 17.
I was Duke of Milan, and you were a princess, and my only heir.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 18.
Prospero had a younger brother.
Answer:
Antonio

Question 19.
He began to think himself the duke indeed.
Answer:
Antonio

Question 20.
Wherefore, did they not that hour destroy us?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 21.
He forced us into a small boat, without either tackle, sail, or mast.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 22.
A kind lord of my court placed water, provisions, apparel, and some books.
Answer:
Gonzalo

Question 23.
What a trouble must I have been!
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 24.
You were a little angel.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 25.
“Well, my brave spirit,” “how have you performed your task?”
Answer:
Prospero to Ariel

Question 26.
Where is the king, and my brother?
Answer:
Prospero to Ariel

Question 27.
Tell me what you are looking at yonder?
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 28.
Believe me, it is a beautiful creature. Is it not a spirit?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 29.
“It eats, and sleeps, and has senses such as we have”.
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 30.
This young man you see was altered by grief.
Answer:
Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 31.
He has lost his companions, and is wandering about to find them.
Answer:
Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 32.
She was the goddess of the place.
Answer:
Ferdinand about Miranda

Question 33.
He resolved to throw some difficulties to check on Ferdinand’s constancy.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 34.
I will tie your neck and feet together.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 35.
You shall drink sea-water; shell-fish and withered roots.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 36.
I will resist this and drew his sword.
Answer:
Ferdinand to Prospero

Question 37.
He fixed Ferdinand to the spot where he stood, so that he had no power to move.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 38.
Why are you so ungentle?
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 39.
Have pity, sir; I will be his surety.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 40.
This is the second man I ever saw, and to me he seems a true one.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero about Ferdinand

Question 41.
Silence, one word more will make me chide you!
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 42.
What! An advocate for an impostor!
Answer:
Prospero to Miranda

Question 43.
My affections are most humble. I have no wish to see a goodlier man.
Answer:
Miranda to Prospero

Question 44.
You have no power to disobey me.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand

Question 45.
“Alas! Do not work so hard; my father is at his studies.”
Answer:
Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 46.
Pray rest yourself.
Answer:
Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 47.
I dare not. I must finish my task before I – take my rest.
Answer:
Ferdinand to Miranda.

Question 48.
I will carry your logs.
Answer:
Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 49.
Fear nothing, I have overheard, and approve of all you have said.
Answer:
Prospero to Ferdinand and Miranda

Question 50.
He soon returned with the king, Antonio, and old Gonzalo.
Answer:
Ariel

Question 51.
Who is this maid?
Answer:
King of Naples about Miranda to Ferdinand

Question 52.
He has made himself to me a second father, giving me this dear lady.
Answer:
Ferdinand about Prospero to the King of Naples.

Question 53.
Let us not remember our troubles past, since they so happily have ended.
Answer:
Prospero

Question 54.
And then Prospero embraced his brother, and again assured him of his forgiveness.
Answer:
Antonio

Question 55.
He dismissed Ariel from his service, to the great joy of that lively little spirit.
Answer:
Prospero

C. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who were the inhabitants of the island?
Answer:
The inhabitants of the island were an old man named Prospero and his daughter Miranda.

Question 2.
What powers did Prospero possess?
Answer:
Prospero possessed magical powers.

Question 3.
Who was Caliban? What was he employed for?
Answer:
Caliban was the son of a witch named Sycorax. He was employed like a slave to fetch wood and do the most laborious work.

Question 4.
Who were on the ship? How were they related to Prospero?
Answer:
Prospero’s brother Antonio, the King of Naples, the king’s son Ferdinand and an old lord Gonzalo were on the ship. Antonio, with the help of the King of Naples, deprived Prospero of his dukedom.

Question 5.
Why had Prospero raised a violent storm in the sea?
Answer:
Prospero raised a violent storm in the sea to make his enemies repent for the injustice done to him and his daughter.

Question 6.
How did Miranda feel when her father raised the storm to destroy the ship?
Answer:
Miranda felt extremely sad for the distress of the members in the ship. She wanted Prospero to have pity on the poor souls.

Question 7.
What was Ariel ordered to do with the people on the ship?
Answer:
Prospero ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship by raising a violent storm. He also instructed Ariel to bring Ferdinand, the Prince of Naples to his cave.

Question 8.
Give two reasons why Miranda was so concerned about Ferdinand.
Answer:
Ferdinand was the second human whom Miranda had seen after her father. She was attracted by him and had more concern towards him.

Question 9.
Why did Prospero set Ferdinand a severe task to perform?
Answer:
Prospero set Ferdinand a severe task to perform to try his constancy. He resolved to throw some difficulties in his way.

Question 10.
How was Gonzalo helpful to Prospero when he left Milan?
Answer:
Gonzalo had privately placed water, provisions, clothes and some books, which Prospero loved the most in the boat.

D. Answer the questions in a paragraph of about 100 – 150 words.

Question 1.
Write a detailed character sketch of Prospero.
Answer:
Prospero was skilled magically and used his powers to create storms, provide entertainment, manipulate others, exercise power and control over the lives of others. He enjoyed knowledge and learning of spells. He became so entranced by his magic that he did not notice his brother trying to take his title and kill him. Prospero controlled all those who were around him. In the beginning of the play, he got the help of Ariel, the chief of gentle spirits, to create a violent and windy storm to punish his enemies who harmed him and his daughter. Ariel worked for Prospero in exchange for his freedom from a witch, Sycorax. But Caliban was the son of Prospero’s old enemy Sycorax. So, Prospero employed Caliban like a slave, to fetch wood and do the most laborious work.

Question 2.
Narrate how Prospero made his enemies repent to restore his dukedom.
Answer:
Prospero, the Duke of Milan, was more interested in reading books and in the art of magic. He trusted his brother Antonio and asked him to look after his affairs in his kingdom. But Antonio overthrew Prospero out of the kingdom, with the help of the king of Naples.

Prospero reached an island with his daughter and stayed there for twelve years. He released many good spirits from the clutches of the witch Sycorax. With the help of Ariel, he created a violent storm in the sea. He made his enemies travelling in the ship, to suffer for their mistakes done to him. He asked Ariel to bring Ferdinand to the cave. There, Miranda and Ferdinand were attracted to each other.

But Prospero tested Ferdinand to try his constancy. At last, he forgave all of them, as they realized their mistakes and repented. Everyone left the island and Prospero restored his dukedom.

E. Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.

1. He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
2. Miranda was attracted by Ferdinand and had more concern towards him.
3. Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
4. Prospero forgave them and restored his dukedom, Milan.
5. He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
6. Prospero wanted to test Ferdinand and gave a severe task to perform.
Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
8. The King of Naples, and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.
9. Ariel was instructed to bring Ferdinand, the prince of Naples to his cave.
10. Ferdinand was the second human whom Miranda had seen after her father.
Answer:
3, 7, 5, 1, 9, 10, 2, 6, 8, 4
3. Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
7. Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
5. He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
1. He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
9. Ariel was instructed to bring Ferdinand, the prince of Naples to his cave.
10. Ferdinand was the second human whom Miranda had seen after her father.
2. Miranda was attracted by Ferdinand and had more concern towards him.
6. Prospero wanted to test Ferdinand and gave a severe task to perform.
8. The King of Naples, and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.
4. Prospero forgave them and restored his dukedom, Milan.

Additional Questions:

A. Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.

1. a. Of these Ariel was the chief.
b. By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax.
c. Prospero and his daughter Miranda were the only inhabitants in an island.
d. Ariel took pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban.
e. These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero.
Answers:
c, b, e, a, d
c. Prospero and his daughter Miranda were the only inhabitants in an island.
b. By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax.
e. These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero.
a. Of these Ariel was the chief.
d. Ariel took pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban.

2. a. Ariel had the charge of compelling Caliban to these services.
b. Caliban was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices.
c. Miranda was worried about the inmates of a fine large ship which could be shipwrecked.
d. Prospero assured his daughter about the safety of all those who were in the ship.
e. At Prospero’s Commands they raised a violent storm.
Answers:
b, a, e, c, d
b. Caliban was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices.
a. Ariel had the charge of compelling Caliban to these services.
e. At Prospero’s Commands they raised a violent storm.
c. Miranda was worried about the inmates of a fine large ship which could be shipwrecked.
d. Prospero assured his daughter about the safety of all those who were in the ship.

B. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrases given below to form a complete meaningful paragraph.

1. (in the bodies of large trees / in the sea / treated of magic / with no memory of / made out of a rock.)
There was an island (i) ………………………. where an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda lived. She came to this island (ii) ………………. seeing any other human face than her father’s. They lived in a cave (iii) ………………. In his study, Prospero kept his books, which chiefly (iv) ………………… By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned (v) …………………… .
Answers:
(i) in the sea
(ii) with no memory of
(iii) made out of a rock
(iv) treated of magic
(v) in the bodies of large trees

2. (who was my enemy/1 was Duke of Milan /to think himself / whose name was Antonio / of my dukedom)
“Twelve years ago, Miranda,” continued Prospero,” (i) ………………………., and you were a princess and my only heir. I had a younger brother, (ii) …………………, to whom I trusted everything; My brother Antonio began (iii) ………………. the duke indeed. The opportunity I gave him deprived me (iv) ………………. this he soon effected with the aid of the King of Naples, (v) ……………… .
Answers:
(i) I was Duke of Milan
(ii) whose name was Antonio
(iii) to think himself
(iv) of my dukedom
(v) who was my enemy

C. Match the following appropriately:

1.
Answer:
(i)(e), (ii)(d), (iii) (a), (iv)(c), (v)(b).

2.
Answer:
(i)(e), (ii)(d), (iii)(a), (iv)(b), (v)(c).

3.
Answer:
(i)(b), (ii)(d), (iii)(c), (iv)(a), (v)(c).

D. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. There was an island in the sea, the only inhabitants of which were an old man, named Prospero, and his daughter Miranda, a very beautiful young lady. She came to this island so young, that she had no memory of having seen any other human face than her father’s.

They lived in a cave made out of a rock; it was divided into several apartments, one of which Prospero called his study; there he kept his books, which chiefly treated of magic. By virtue of his art, he had released many good spirits from a witch called Sycorax who had them imprisoned in the bodies of large trees.

These gentle spirits were ever after obedient to the will of Prospero. Of these Ariel was the chief. Ariel took rather too much pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban, because he was the son of his old enemy Sycorax.

(а) Who were the only inhabitants of the island in the sea?
Answer:
Prospero an old man and his daughter Miranda were the only inhabitants of the island in the sea.

(b) Where did Prospero and Miranda live?
Answer:
Prospero and Miranda lived in a cave made out of a rock.

(c) Who is Sycorax?
Answer:
Sycorax is a witch who had imprisoned many good spirits in the bodies of large trees.

(d) Who was the chief of all the gentle spirits?
Answer:
Ariel was the chief of all the gentle spirits.

(e) Why did Ariel find pleasure in tormenting Caliban?
Answer:
Ariel found pleasure in tormenting Caliban an ugly monster because he was the son of his old enemy Sycorax.

2. Ariel took rather too much pleasure in tormenting an ugly monster called Caliban, because he was the son of his old enemy Sycorax. Caliban was employed like a slave, to fetch wood, and do the most laborious offices; and Ariel had the charge of compelling him to these services. With the help of these spirits, Prospero could command the winds, and the waves of the sea.

By his orders they raised a violent storm, in the midst of which, he showed his daughter a fine large ship, which he told her was full of living beings like themselves. “Oh my dear father,” said she, “if by your art you have raised this dreadful storm, have pity on their sad distress. See! The vessel will be dashed to pieces. Poor souls! They will all perish.”

“Be not so amazed, daughter Miranda,” said Prospero; “there is no harm done. I have so ordered it, that no person in the ship shall receive any hurt.

(a) Who was Caliban?
Answer:
Caliban, an ugly monster was the son of Ariel’s old enemy Sycorax, the witch.

(b) What was the work given to Caliban by Ariel?
Answer:
Ariel made Caliban fetch wood and do most of the laborious offices.

(c) How did Prospero use the spirits?
Answer:
Prospero with the help of the spirits commanded the winds and the waves of the sea.

(d) What did Prospero show his daughter?
Answer:
Prospero showed a fine large ship in the midst of a violent storm that he had created.

(e) What was the fear of Miranda?
Answer:
Miranda feared that the vessel would be dashed to pieces and that the people in the ship may perish.

E. Study the given mind map and fill in the incomplete details:

Answers:
(i) to pfle up some heavy logs of wood.
(ii) is at his studies, pray rest yourself.
(iii) my task before I take my rest.
(iv) I will carry your logs the while.
(v) would by no means agree to.

Answers:
(i) the beauty of young Miranda.
(ii) who is the famous Duke of Milan.
(iii) a second father.
(iv) our troubles past, since they so happily have ended.
(v) embraced his brother.

The Tempest by William Shakespeare About the Author:
William Shakespeare (1564-1616) was born in Stratford-upon-Avon, England. He was an English poet, playwright and actor, widely regarded as the greatest writer in the English language and the world’s greatest dramatist. He is often called England’s national poet and the “Bard of Avon”. His surviving body of work includes 37 plays, 154 sonnets and two narrative poems, the majority of which he penned between 1589 and 1613.

The Tempest Summary:

Introduction:
The Tempest was considered as one of Shakespeare’s well-written plays. It is believed that the play was based on an actual wreck of a ship called the Sea Venture of Bermuda that was headed to Virginia. There is strong evidence that Shakespeare used elements of the story of the wreck.

Tragedy that surrounded Prospero
When the play, The Tempest by William Shakespeare begins, Prospero, the overthrown Duke of Milan, and his teenage daughter, Miranda, live on an isolated island where they have been marooned for the past twelve years. Their only companions are Ariel, a magical spirit and Caliban, enslaved by Prospero. Prospero was originally Duke of Milan, but his position was appropriated by his brother Antonio, possibly with the approval of King of Naples.

Ariel’s violent storm
A ship with King of Naples, his son Ferdinand, Antonio, and other nobles, is wrecked in a sea storm created by the spirit Ariel, under the magic art of Prospero. Ariel explains that he has carried out Prospero’s orders: He admits that be had destroyed the ship and dispersed its passengers across the island. Prospero instructs Ariel to be invisible and spy on them. Prospero explains to his daughter that the crew members in the ship are all safe and sound when he sees her glum. He puts Miranda to sleep as Ariel comes there to report that the lords are on the island as he had commanded, with Ferdinand separated from the others. Caliban, a vicious native of the island who is also controlled by Prospero, expresses his hatred to Prospero, but is forced to do his command.

Ferdinand meets Miranda
Prospero gets Ariel to lead Ferdinand across the island so that he meets Miranda, and fall in love. As planned, Ferdinand stumbles across Miranda and they fall in love and decide to marry. Prospero warns Miranda off and decides to test Ferdinand’s loyalty. To test his worth, Prospero makes Ferdinand carry out menial tasks. Ferdinand finds his labour pleasant because of Miranda. Miranda, thinking that her father is asleep, tells Ferdinand to take a break. They propose marriage and they accept each other. Prospero who has been on stage invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda is pleased with this development.

Grieving ship wrecked crew
The rest of the shipwrecked crew are grieving for their lost, loved ones. The search for Ferdinand goes in vain and Antonio and the King of Naples fear him drowned. Gonzalo and the others think that the spellbound men are suffering from the guilt of their past actions and promise to ensure their safety.

King of Naples punished for disloyalty
Ariel places a magical delicious banquet before the lords which vanishes when they crave to eat. Ariel leads the lords to Prospero, and they stand in a trance before him.

Prospero pardons Antonio
Ariel rouses them, and they beg forgiveness, which Prospero grants, and he is restored to his dukedom. Ferdinand and Miranda are then revealed to them to their happiness. At the end of the play, Ariel is told to provide good weather to guide the king’s ship back to the royal fleet and then to Naples, where Ferdinand and Miranda will be married.

Conclusion:
Thus the story ends happily. Prospero pardons Antonio for his disloyalty. The Duke regains his Dukedom. His daughter is married to Ferdinand.

William Shakespeare Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Vedic Culture Was Dash In Nature Question 1.
Aryans first settled in __________ region
(a) Punjab
(b) Middle Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Vedic Culture In North India And Megalithic Culture In South India Question 2.
Aryans came from ……………
(a) China
(b) North Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Central Asia

6th Social Guide Question 3.
Our National Motto “Sathyameva Jay ate” is taken from
(a) Brahmana
(c) Aranyaka
(b) Veda
(d) Upanishad
Answer:
(d) Upanishad

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Free Download Question 4.
What was the ratio of land revenue collected during Vedic Age ……………
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/9
Answer:
(b) 1/6

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer:

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 1.
Assertion : The vedic age is evidenced by good number of texts and adequate amount of material evidences.
Reason : Shrutis comprise the Vedas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas and the Upanishads.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true.

6th Standard Social Science Guide In English Medium Pdf Download Question 2.
Statement I : Periplus mentions the steel imported into Rome from peninsular India was subjected to duty in the port of Alexandria.
Statement II : Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalli.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic society
(a) A widow could re-marry.
(b) Child marriage was in practice.
(c) Father’s property was inherited by his son.
(d) Sati was unknown.
Answer:
(b) Child marriage was in practice.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
Which is the correct ascending order of the Rig Vedic society?
(a) Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra < Jana
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra
(c) Rashtra < Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis
(d) Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra
Answer:
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. Vedic culture was in nature.
2. was a tax collected from the people in Vedic period.
3. system is an ancient learning method.
4. Adhichanallur is in district.

Answer:

1. kinship
2. Bali
3. Gurukula
4. Thoothukudi

IV. True or False:

1. The Roman artefacts found at various sites provide evidence of Indo – Roman trade relations.
2. A Hero Stone is a memorial stone raised in remembrance of the honourable death of a hero.
3. The army chief was called Gramani.
4. The Black and Red were pottery became the characteristic of the Megalithic period.
5. Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalii.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

V. Match the following

Answers:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 1.
Name the four Vedas.
Answer:
The four Vedas are Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva.

6th Social Science Guide Question 2.
What were the animals domesticated by Vedic people?
Answer:

1. Elephants
2. Cow
3. Goat
4. Sheep
5. Horse

6th Social Guide Term 1 Question 3.
What do you know about Megalith?
Answer:
The term ‘Megalith’ is derived from Greek. ‘Megas’ means great and ‘lithos’ means stone. Using big stone slabs built upon the places of burial is known as Megalith.

6th Std Social Science Guide Tamil Medium Pdf Question 4.
What are Dolmens?
Answer:

1. Dolmens are Megalithic tombs.
2. They are made of two or more upright stones with a single stone lying across the burial site.

6 Social Guide Question 5.
What are Urns?
Answer:
Urns are large pottery jars used for burying the dead.

6th Standard Social Science Guide Question 6.
Name the coins used for business transactions in the Vedic period.
Answer:

1. Nishka
2. Satmana (gold)
3. Krishnala (silver)

Question 7.
Name some Megalithic monuments found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Dolmens
2. Menhir

Dolmens are Megalithic tombs. Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraraghavapuram village, Kanchipuram district, Kummalamaruthupatti, Dindigulfc, district, and in Narasingampatti, Madurai district.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write briefly about the archaeological site at Kodumanal.
Answer:

1. Kodumanal is in Erode district.
2. Kodumanal is identified with the Kodumanam of Pathitrupathu.
3. More than 300 pottery inscriptions in Tamil Brahmi have been discovered.
4. Spindles, whorls, piece of cloth, tools, weapons, ornaments and beads have been discovered.
5. A Menhir was found at the burial site.

Question 2.
Write about the Vedic women in a paragraph.
Answer:

1. In Rig Vedic society, women relatively enjoyed some freedom.
2. The wife was respected as the mistress of the household.
3. She could perform rituals in her house.
4. In Rig Vedic period widows could remarry.
5. But they were denied to inherit parental property.
6. They played no role in public affairs.
7. In the later Vedic period women’s position declined, demand to perform rituals and marriage rules became more rigid.
8. Polygamy became common, and women were denied education

VIII. HOTS:
Question 1.
Difference between the Gurukula system of education and the Modern system of education.
Answer:

IX. Pride and Joy – Let us find out die fact

X. students Activity

Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words.
(Shruti, Gramani, Rashtras, Iron Age, Semi-nomadic, Barter)
a. Shruti – Shruti works are considered to have been heard and transmitted by earthly sages.
b. Gramani – Gramani was the head of a village called Grama.
c. Rashtras – Rashtras were tribal kingdoms like Bharatas and Matsyas.
d. Iron Age – In India the Vedic period covers both the end of the Bronze Age and the start of the Iron Age.
e. Semi nomadic – Semi nomadic people lived usually in portable or temporary dwellings practicing seasonal migration.
f. Barter – Under barter system people exchanged services and goods for other services and goods in turn.

Question 2.
Word Search

1. A pass – KHYBER
2. Text containing teachings on religion – SMRITI
3. A group of villages – VIS
4. A tribal assembly – GANA
5.  Assembly of people – SAMITI
6. Fire – AGNI
7. Gold coin – SATMANA
8. Period of Vedic Age – IRON AGE
9. Megalithic tomb – DOLMENS

XI. Life Skill

Question 1.
Collect information from Newspapers about archaeological finds with the help your teacher.
Answer:

(i) An archaeological site is a place where evidence of past activity is preserved.

(ii) Archaeological theory is used to interpret the archaeological record for a better understanding of human culture.

(iii) The archaeological record can consist of the earliest ancient findings as well as contemporary artefacts. For example ‘The Hindu’ dated August 10, 2017, published the information about Azhagankulam site. New finds link Azhagankulam site to Sangam Era. 12,000 artefacts unearthed so far; Archaeologists believe excavation could throw up more surprises. The excavation at Azhagankulam in the Vaigai River Valley show that the site could date back to the Sangam Age, quite like the archaeological site at Keezhadi in Sivaganga district.

(iv) Another example: Hindustan Times dated June 28, 2016. Archaeologists and Researchers have unearthed the crumbling remains of an ancient urban centre, equal in size and importance of that of Mohenjodaro. Keezhadi is a small village that lies past an unmanned railway crossing, several stretches of paddy fields and swaying palms in the Sivaganga district of Tamil Nadu, 12 kms from the city of Madurai.

XII. Answer Grid:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Intext Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
State the differences between Indus and Vedic civilization.
Answer:

Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The first phase of urbanisation in India came to an end with the decline of ______
(a) Indus civilization
(b) Vedic civilization
(c) Bronze civilization
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Indus civilization

Question 2.
Sapta Sindhu was the land of ……………
(a) Five
(b) Seven
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Answer:
(b) Seven

Question 3.
Sapta Sindhu means the land of ______
(a) Seven rivers
(b) Seven villages
(c) Seven Tribes
(d) Seven hills
Answer:
(a) Seven rivers

Question 4.
Paiyampalli is in …………… District.
(a) Erode
(b) Vellore
(c) Thoothukudi
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(b) Vellore

Question 5.
In economic, political and military matters, the king was assisted by the ______
(a) Gramani
(b) Senani
(c) Purohit
(d) Vidhata
Answer:
(b) Senani

Question 6.
Non-Aryans were called ______
(a) Janas
(b) Dasyus
(c) Sabha
(d) Samitha
Answer:
(b) Dasyus

Question 7.
In the Later Vedic Period the role of women in society ______
(a) increased
(b) declined
(c) remained the same as before
(d) became equal with the role of man
Answer:
(b) declined

Question 8.
The staple crop of the Aryans was ______
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Millets
(d) Barley
Answer:
(d) Barley

Question 9.
Paiympalli is located in ______ district.
(a) Vellore
(b) Madurai
(c) Sivaganga
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(a) Vellore

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Megalithic monuments bear witness to a highly advanced
state of civilisation with the knowledge of iron and community living.
Reason (R) : Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraragavapuram village,
Kanchipuram District.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is False.
(d) A is false and R is True.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Statement I : The Aryans were semi-nomadic pastoralists.
Statement II : The Aryans practised slash and burn agriculture.
(a) Statement I is wrong.
(b) Statement II is wrong.
(c) Both the Statements are wrong,
(d) Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both Statements are correct.

Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic economy?
(a) Carpenters and Potters were there
(b) Two crops a year was raised
(c) The staple crop was wheat
(d) Barter system was prevalent
Answer:
(c) The staple crop was wheat

Question 4.
Which of the statement is correct in the Vedic culture?
(a) Bali was tax consisting of % of the agricultural produce or cattle for a person.
(b) Dasyus were Aryans Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class Polygamy was unknown
(c) Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class
(d) Polygamy was unknown
Answer:
(c) Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class

III. Fill lit the blanks:

1. Vedic Age gets its name from ______
2. The Aryans moved eastward and settled in ______
3. Smritis are not ______
4. The basic unit of the Vedic Polity was ______
5. Sabha means ______
6. Samiti means ______
7. The Vedic family was ______
8. In the later Vedic period the rules of marriage became ______
9. Pottery of the vedic period was ______
10. In the Vedic period the mode of prayer was recitation of ______
11. The ancient method of learning was ______
12. Megalithic period in ancient Tamilakam synchronised with ______

Answer:

1. Four Vedas
2. Indo Gangetic Plain
3. eternal
4. Kula
5. A Council of Elders
6. Assembly of People
7. patriarchal
8. more rigid
9. Painted Grey Ware Culture
10. Vedic Hymns
11. Gurukula System
12. Pre sangam period

IV. State True or False

1. Vedic Age is a period in History of India between 1500 BC (BCE) and – 600 BC (BCE).
2. Ithihasas come under Shrutis.
3. Smritis are constantly revised.
4. Rajan was the head of a Village.
5. The king performed various rituals to make his position strong.
6. A rigid four fold vama system emerged under the Rig Vedic society.
7. Women of Vedic society played a major role in Public Affairs.
8. Idol worship was practised in the vedic period.
9. Under Gurukula system the Shishyas resided with their Guru.
10. The later Vedic culture in North India and the Iron Age in south India belong to the same period.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True

V. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. 3
2. 1
3. 4
4. 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is slash and burn agriculture?
Answer:
Slash and bum agriculture is a farming method that involves clearing the land by cutting and burning all the trees and plants on it. Cultivation is done there for a short time.

Question 2.
What were the crops cultivated?
Answer:

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Barley

Question 3.
Mention the archaeological sources of the Aryans.
Answer:
Material remains such as iron implements and pottery from the archaeological sites in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan along the Indus and the Ganges form the archaeologic sources of the Aryans.

Question 4.
Classify the Vedic Age.
Answer:

Question 5.
By whom were the powers of the Raj an limited?
Answer:

1. The main responsibility of the Rajan was to protect his tribe.
2. His powers were limited by tribal assemblies namely Vidhata, Sabha, Samiti and Gana.

Question 6.
When did hereditary kingship begin to emerge?
Answer:

1. When the Aryans moved east ward- into Ganges-Yamuna-Doab regions, the early settlements were replaced by territorial kingdoms.
2. Thus the hereditary kingship began to emerge.

Question 7.
How were Janapadas formed?
Answer:
In later Vedic period, many Janas or Tribes were amalgamated to form Janapadas or Rashtras.

Question 8.
Who formed Trevji in the early Vedic society?

1. Within the early Vedic Society there were three divisions (Trevji) as given below:
2. The general public were called Vis, the warrior class was called Kshatriyas and the Priestly class was named Brahmanas.

Question 9.
Mention the subject of the study under Gurukula system.
Answer:
The subjects of the study under Gurukula system included the four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths and military science.

Question 10.
Mention the four ashramas which emerged during the later vedic period.
Answer:
Towards the end of the later Vedic period, the concept of four stages in life (the four
ashramas) developed.

1. Brahmacharya (Student Life)
2. Grihastha (Married Life)
3. Vanaprastha (Going to the forest to meditate)
4. Sanyasa (Leading a life of an ascetic)

Question 11.
Define the term Menhir.
Answer:
In Breton Language ‘Men’ means “stone” and ‘hir’ means “long.” They are monolithic pillars planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead.

Question 12.
Where are herostones found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu hero stones are found at Maanur village near Palani, Dindigul district, Vellalankottai, Tuticorin district, and Pulimankombai, Dindigul district.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What about the Aryans and their home in India?
Answer:

(i) Aryans of the Rig Vedic Period were semi-nomadic. They were basically pastoral people with cattle as their main source of wealth.

(ii) In the Rig Vedic times, the Aryan homeland was Punjab, which was at that time called Sapta Sindhu, the land of seven rivers.

(iii) Around 1000 BC (BCE), Aryans in India moved eastward and settled in Indo- Gangetic Plain.

(iv) Use of iron axes and ploughs became widespread.

Question 2.
By whom was Rajan helped to protect his tribe?
Answer:

1. The main responsibility of the Rajan was to protect his tribe.
2. His powers were limited by tribal assemblies namely Vidhata, Sabha, Samiti and Gana.
3. Of these Vidhata, (the tribal assembly) was the oldest.
4. The king appointed a purohit (chief priest) to assist him.
5. In economic, political and military matters, the king was assisted by the Senani (army chief).
6. Gramani was the leader of the village.

Question 3.
How did trade become extensive under the Vedic age?
Answer:

1. Under the Vedic age, use of iron plough and axe helped to put more areas of land under cultivation.
2. Crops of wheat, rice and barley were cultivated.
3. With the growth of agriculture, the idea of private possession of land came into existence.
4. New crafts and arts developed leading to production of commodities for sale.
5. Thus, trade became extensive.
6. Barter system was prevalent.
7. They used Nishka, Satmana (gold coins) and Krishnala (silver coins) for business transactions.

Question 4.
State the salient features of the Gurukula system of education.
Answer:

1. The gurukula system is an ancient learning method.
2. The word Gurukula is a combination of the Sanskrit Word Guru (teacher or master) and Kula (family or home).
3. The shishyas resided with their guru and served them and simultaneously learnt L and gained knowledge.
4. Only Dvijas could be Shishyas. No women could have formal education.
5. The students received education through oral tradition meaning rote learning, and were required to memorise everything.
6. The subjects of the study included the four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths and military science.
7. The students were also trained to lead a disciplined life.

Question 5.
Write a note on Keezhadi in Sivaganga district. g ‘
Answer:

(i) The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) excavated an ancient town dating to Sangam Age in Keezhadi village at Tirupathur taluk.

(ii) Excavations have produced evidence for brick buildings, and well laid – out drainage system.

(iii) Tamil – Brahmi inscription on pottery, beads of glass, camelian and quartz, pearl, gold ornaments and iron objects, shell bangles, ivory dice have been unearthed.

(iv) The Roman artefacts found at the site add to the evidence of ancient Indo -Roman trade relations.

(v) Periplus mentions the steel imported to Rome from Peninsular India was subj ected to duty in the port of Alexandria.

Question 6.
What are Menhirs ? Where are they find in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

(i) Menhirs are monolithic pillars planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead.

(ii) Menhir at Singaripalayam in Tirupur District and at Vembur in Theni District points to the existence of an ancient settlement along the banks of River Uppar.

(iii) Menhirs are found at Narasingampatti, Madurai district, Kumarikalpalayam and Kodumanal in Erode district.

VIII. Word search
Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words.

1. Shruti Literature – UPANISHADS
2. An Archaeological site – RAJASTHAN
3. A tribal kingdom – PURAS
4. Three divisions of Early Vedic Society – TREYI
5. Unknown to Rig vedic women – SATI
6. Shyama – IRON
7. Leading of life of an ascetic – SANYASA
8. The Roman artefacts found here – KEEZHADI
9. Used for making thread from cotton – WHORLS
10. The Monolithic pillars planted vertically – MENHIR

IX. Answer Grid.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 4 Electric Charge and Electric Current

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Electric Charge And Electric Current Class 9 Question 1.
In current electricity, a positive charge refers to,………………
(a) presence of electron
(b) presence of proton
(c) absence of electron
(d) absence of proton
Answer:
(c) absence of electron

9th Science Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 2.
Rubbing of comb with hair ……………………
(a) creates electric charge
(b) transfers electric charge
(c) either (a) or (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) either (a) or (b)

Chapter 4 Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 3.
Electric field lines ………….. from positive charge and ………. in negative charge.
(a) start; start
(b) start; end
(c) start: end
(d) end; end
Answer:
(b) start; end

Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 4.
Potential near a charge is the measure of its ………… to bring a positive charge at that point.
(a) force
(b) ability
(c) tendency
(d) work
Answer:
(d) work

9th Standard Science Electric Charge And Electric Current Question 5.
In an electrolyte the current is due to the flow of …………. .
(a) electrons
(b) positive ions
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) electrons

9th Science Chapter 4 Solution Question 6.
Heating effect of current is called
(a) Joule heating
(b) Coulomb heating
(c) Voltage heating
(d) Ampere heating
Answer:
(a) Joule heating

Electric Charge Match The Following Question 7.
Electroplating is an example for
(a) heating effect
(b) chemical effect
(c) flowing effect
(d) magnetic effect
Answer:
(b) chemical effect

Question 8.
Resistance of a wire depends on
(a) temperature
(b) geometry
(c) nature of material
(d) all the above
Answer:
all the above

II. Match the following.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

III. True or False.

Question 1.
Electrically neutral means it is either zero or equal positive and negative charges
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Ammeter is connected in parallel in any electric circuit
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: An ammeter is connected in series with a device to measure its current.

Question 3.
The anode in electrolyte is negative
Answer:
False
Correct Statement: The anode in electrolyte is positive.

Question 4.
Current can produce magnetic field
Answer:
True

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. Electrons move from ………….. potential to …………….. potential.
2. The direction opposite to the movement of electron is called ……………….. current.
3. The e.m.f of a cell is analogous to ……………. of a pipe line.
4. The domestic electricity in India is an ac with a frequency of ………… Hz.
5. Trip switch is an …………. safety device

Answer:

1. higher, lower
2. Conventional
3. a pump
4. 50
5. electromechanical

V. Conceptual questions.

Question 1.
A bird sitting on a high power electric line is still safe. How?
Answer:
Birds don’t get shocked when they sit on electrical wires because they are not good conductors of electricity. Electricity flowing through a single power line at 35,000 volts will continue along the path of least resistance and bypass birds, because there is no difference in electrical potential.

Question 2.
Does a solar cell always maintain the potential across its terminals constant? Discuss.
Answer:
The electro-chemical process inside a battery provides electrons at the negative terminal and draws electrons from the positive terminal to maintain the current being drawn. By providing energy to the electrons, the cell is capable of maintaining an electric potential difference across the two ends of the external circuit.

Question 3.
Can electroplating be possible with alternating current?
Answer:
Electroplating is a process where there is continuous flow of ions for the deposistion of copper, which is not possible in Alternating current. Therefore, electroplating is possible with DC only, for the sake of perfectness and homogeneity of the electroplating.

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
On what factors does the electrostatic force between two charges depend?
Answer:
The electrostatic force between two charges depend on the following factors;

• value of charges on them,
  
• distance between them, and
  
• nature of medium between them.

Question 2.
What are electric lines of force?
Answer:
The direction of the electric field is the direction of the force that would act on a small positive charge. Therefore the lines representing the electric field are called ‘electric lines of force’.

Question 3.
Define electric field.
Answer:
The electric lines of force are straight or curved paths along which a unit positive charge tends to move in the electric field.

Question 4.
Define electric current and give its unit.
Answer:
Current is the rate at which charges flow past a point on a circuit. Current (I) is represented as, I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\)
The standard SI unit for current is ampere with the symbol A.

Question 5.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
Ohm’s law states that electric potential difference across two points in an electrical circuit is directly proportional to the current passing through it. That is,
V~I
The proportionality constant is tne resistance (R) offered between the two points.
Hence, Ohm’s law is written as,
V = RI (or) V = IR
Where, V is the potential difference in volt (V), I is the current flow in ampere (A), R is the resistance in ohm (Ω)

Question 6.
Name any two appliances which work under the principle of heating effect of current.
Answer:
The principle of all electric heating appliances like iron box, water heater, toaster etc. work under the principle of heating effect of current.

Question 7.
How are the home appliances connected in general, in series or parallel. Give reasons.
Answer:
The home appliances are connected in parallel. This is because, when the appliances are connected in parallel, each of them can be switched on and off independently. This is a feature that is essential in a house wiring. Also, if the appliances were wired in series, the potential difference across each appliance would vary depending on the resistance of the appliance.

Question 8.
List the safety features while handling with electricity.
Safety features to be followed are:

• Ground connection
• Trip switch
• Fuse.

VII. Exercises.

Question 1.
Rubbing a comb on hair makes the comb get – 0.4C.
(a) Find which material has lost electron and which one gained it.
Answer:
The material is comb which gained electrons and the hair gained it.

(b) Find how many electrons are transferred in this process.
Answer:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
n = \(\frac { 0.4 }{ 1.6 }\) × 10^{– 19} = 0.25 × 10¹⁹ = 2.5 × 10¹⁸

Question 2.
Calculate the amount of charge that would flow in 2 hours through an element of an electric bulb drawing a current of 2.5A.
Answer:
Given: Time ‘t’ = 2 hours = 2 × 60 × 60s
t = 7200s
I = 2.5A
Amount of charge, Q = I × t
= 2.5 × 7200
Q = 18000C

Question 3.
The values of current I flowing through a resistor for various potential differences V across the resistor are given below. What is the value of resistor?
Answer:

[Hint: plot V-I a graph and take slope].

Resistance(R) = \(\frac { ∆V }{ ∆I }\)
= 10.2 – \(\frac { 6.7 }{ 3 }\) – 2 = 3.5/1
R = 3.5Ω

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current In Text Problems

Question 1.
How many electrons will be there in one coulomb of charge?
Solution:
Charge on 1 electron, e = 1.6 × 10^{– 19}C
q = ne or n = \(\frac { q }{ e }\)
number of electrons in 1 coulomb = \(\frac{1}{1.6 \times 10^{-19}}\) = 6.25 × 10¹⁸ electrons

Question 2.
If, 25 C of charge is determined to pass through a wire of any cross-section in 50 s, what is the measure of current?

Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\) = \(\frac { (20C) }{50s}\) = 0.5 \(\frac { C }{ s }\) = 0.5 A

Question 3.
The current flowing through a lamp is 0.2A. If the lamp is switched on for one hour, what is the total electric charge that passes through the lamp?
Solution:
I = \(\frac { q }{ t }\);q = I × t
1hr = 1 × 60 × 60 s = 3600 s
q = I × t = 0.2A × 3600s = 720C

Question 4.
The e.m.f of a cell is 1.5 V. What is the energy provided by the cell to drive 0.5 C of charge around the circuit?
Solution:
ℰ = 1.5V and q = 0.5C
ℰ = \(\frac { W }{ q }\); W= ℰ × q ; Therefore W = 1.5 × 0.5 = 0.75J

Question 5.
A charge of 2 × 10⁴ C flows through an electric heater. The amount of electrical energy converted into thermal energy is 5 MJ. Compute the potential difference across the ends of the heater.
Solution:
V = \(\frac { W }{ q }\) that is 5 × 10⁶ \(\frac { J }{ 2 }\) × 10⁴ C = 250 V

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Electric Charge and Electric Current Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What is a positive and a negative ion?
Answer:
If an electron is removed from the atom, it becomes positively charged. Hence it is called . a positive ion. When an electron is added to an atom, it becomes negatively charged. Hence it is called a negative ion.

Question 2.
Define Electric potential.
Answer:
Electric potential is a measure of work done on unit positive charge to bring it to that point against all electrical forces. It is represented as ‘V’.

Question 3.
What are the effects of electric current?
Answer:
When current flows in a circuit, it exhibits various effects. The main effects are; heating, chemical and magnetic effects.

Question 4.
What is resistance?
Answer:
The resistance (R) is the measure of opposition offered by the component to the flow of electric current through it.

Question 5.
What is common to both direct and alternating current?
Answer:
Joule’s heating effect of current is common to both direct and alternating current.

Question 6.
What is a trip switch?
Answer:
It is an electromechanical device which does not allow a current beyond a particular value by automatically switching off the connection.

Question 7.
What are the advantages of AC over DC?
Answer:
Advantages of AC over DC are;

1.  The voltage of an AC can be varied easily using a transformer.
2.  The AC can be carried over long distances using step up transformers.
3.  The loss of energy while distributing current in the form of AC is negligible.
4.  DC cannot be transmitted as such, but AC can be easily converted to DC.
5.  Generating AC is easier than DC, AC can produce elctromagnetic induction which is useful in several ways.

Question 8.
What is ground connection?
Answer:
A ground connection is a safety feature. The metal bodies of all electrical appliances are connected to the ground by a third wire, apart from the two wires used for electrical connection. The ground connection wire is green in colour, All the ground wires from various electrical sockets are connected together finally to a thick copper wire, hurried deep in the ground, so that excess current flows down instead of entering our body.

Question 9.
Write a short note on different electrical circuit.
Answer:
There are two types of electrical circuits – Series circuit and Parallel circuit.

• Series circuit – A series circuit has only one path for electricity to flow from one point to another. The amount of electricity in the circuit is constant throughout the circuit. When electricity flows through the circuit, there will be no fluctuation in its speed.
•  Parallel circuit – A parallel circuit has multiple path for electricity to flow, horizontally and vertically. The components of parallel circuit will have the same voltage across their ends.

Question 10.
What is the difference between electromagnetic force and potential difference?
Answer:
The e.m.f. refers to the voltage developed across the terminals of an electrical source when it does not produce current in the circuit.

Potential difference refers to the voltage developed between any two points in an electric circuit when there is current in the circuit.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Draw and explain electric circuit diagram.
Answer:

To represent an electrical wiring or solve problem involving electric circuits, the circuit diagrams are made. The four main components of any circuits namely the,

1.  cell,
2.  connecting wire,
3.  switch and
4.  resistor or load are given above. In addition to the above many other electrical components are also used in an actual circuit. A uniform system of symbols has been evolved to describe them. It is like learning a sign language, but useful in understanding circuit diagrams.

Question 2.
What is the magnetic effect of electricity?
Answer:
A wire or a conductor carrying current develops a magnetic field perpendicular to the direction of the flow of current. This is called magnetic effect of current. The discovery of the scientist Oersted and the ‘right hand thumb rule’ are detailed in the chapter on Magnetism and Electromagnetism in this book. Direction of current is shown by the right hand thumb and the direction of magnetic field is shown by other fingers of the same right hand.

Question 3.
Explain fuse.
Answer:

A fuse is another safety mechanism which works on joule heating principle. Fuse is a wire made up of a Nickel and Chromium alloy which has a definite melting point. If current passes through the fuse beyond a particular desired value, the excess heat produced melts the fuse wire, thus the electrical connection is cut-off. Fuse has to be kept in tight a ceramic enclosure to avoid the melting heat from producing fire accidents.

Question 4.
Name any ten symbols with diagram.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Plant Kingdom

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Plant Kingdom Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the correct answers

Plant Kingdom Class 8 Question 1.
Solanum trilobatum is the binomial name of Thoothuvalai. Here the word ‘Solanum’ refers to …………….
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Class
(d) Orders
Answer:
(b) Genus

8th Science Plant Kingdom Question 2.
…………….. is an example for colonial form of algae.
(a) Oscillatoria
(b) Nostoc
(c) Volvox
(d) Chlorella
Answer:
(c) Volvox

Question 3.
Floridean starch is a reserve food material of …………….
(a) Chloroplyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Rhodophyceae
(d) Cyanophyceae
Answer:
(c) Rhodophyceae

Question 4.
The edible mushroom is …………….
(a) Polyporus
(b) Agaricus
(c) Pennicillium
(d) Aspergillus
Answer:
(b) Agaricm

Question 5.
Soil erosion is prevented by …………….. plants.
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Pteridophytes
Answer:
(c) Bryophytes

Question 6.
The first vascular cryptogams in land plants are …………….
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Angiosperm
Answer:
(b) Pteridophytes

Question 7.
The well – developed sporophytic plant body is seen in ……………..
(a) Bryophytes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperms
(d) Angiosperms
Answer:
(c) Gymnosperms

Question 8.
Binominal Nomenclature was first introduced in the year of ……………
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1978
(d) 1623
Answer:
(d) 1623

Question 9.
Penicillin is an antibiotic, which is extracted from
(a) Algae
(b) Fungi
(c) Bryophytes
(d) Pteridophytes
Answer:
(b) Fungi

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word‘Taxonomy’is derived from …………….
2. Binomial Nomenclature was first introduced by …………….
3. The book “Genera Plantarum” was written by ……………..
4. Monocotyledon seeds bear only …………….. cotyledon.
5. Brown algae belongs to ……………. class.
6. Agar Agar is obtained from ……………. algae.
7. The reserve food material of fungi are and …………….
8. The first true land plant is …………….
9. Xylem and phloem are absent in ……………. plants.
10. Reticulate venation is present in ……………. plants.

Answer:

1. Greek
2. Gaspard Bauhin
3. Bentham and Hooker
4. One
5. Phaeophyceae
6. Red
7. Glycogen, oil
8. Pteridophyte
9. Bryophyte
10. Dicot

III. True or False

Question 1.
In polypetalae, the petals are free.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Binomial name should contains more than two words.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Binomial name should contain two words.

Question 3.
Artificial system of classification is based on the vegetative characters of the plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Artificial system of classification is based on the morphological characters of the plant.

Question 4.
Cell wall of fungi is made up of chitin.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Pinus is a closed seeded plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Pinus is a naked seeded plant.

Question 6.
All bryophytes are hydrophytes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
All bryophytes are amphibians.

Question 7.
Dicotyledons have well developed characters than the monocotyledons.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Monocotyledons have well developed characters than the dicotyledons.

Question 8.
Mosses are the well developed plant in bryophytes.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
The dominant phase of the bryophytes is sporophytes.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The dominant phase of the bryophytes is gametophyte.

Question 10.
The dominant phase of the pteridophytes is diploid(2n).
Answer:
True.

Question 11.
Seeds of angiosperm are produced inside the ovary.
Answer:
True.

Question 12.
In gymnosperms ovules are developed from the flowers.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
In gymnosperms, ovules are developed from the seeds.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
Which of the following pairs are in correct?

(a) a, b, c
(b) c, d
(c) a, c, d
(d) a ,b ,c, d

Answer:
(b) c, d

Question 2.
Find out the correct pairs:

(a) a, b,
(b) c, d
(c) a,b, c,
(d) a,b, d
Answer:
(b) a,b, d

Question 3.
Which of the following characters are not suitable to angiosperm?
(a) Reticulate / parallel venation, closed seeded plants, sieve tubes are present in phloem.
(b) Seeds are open, ovary is not present, gametes are produced in cones.
(c) Tracheids are the conducting cells, companion cells not are present in phloem.
(d) Trimerous or tetramerous, closed seed, seed with seed coat, bears fruit.

(a) a, b
(b) b, c
(c) e, d
(d) a, d
Answer:
(b) b, c

Question 4.
Which of the following sequences are correct
(a) In Bryophytes – Gametophytes – Sex organ – Gamete fusion – Zygote – Spore mother cell – spore – Thallus.
(b) In Angiosperm – pollination – fertilization – zygote – new plant.
(c) In Gymnosperm – male cone, and female cone – microspore and megaspore – Zygote – new sporophytes plant.
(d) In pteridophytes – pollination by wind, fertilization in the presence of water – zygote prothallus, new plant.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) c, d
(4) b, d
Answer:
(2) a, b

Question 5.
Match column I with coloumn II

(a) A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 3, E – 1
(b) A – 4, B – 5, G – 1, D – 2, E – 1
(c) A – 3, B – 2, C – 4, D – 5, E – 1
(d) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 5, E – 3
Answer:
(a) A – 4, B – 5, C – 2, D – 3, E – 1

V. Answer the following questions shortly

Question 1.
Define Thallus.
Answer:
Thallus refers to a plant body which is not differentiated into roots, stem and leaves. Example: Algae.

Question 2.
What is mean by Binomial Nomenclature? Give example.
Answer:
The naming of an organisms with two words are known as Binomial Nomenclature. For example, the binomial name of mango is Mangifera indica. Here the first word Mangifera refers to the genus name and the second word indica to the species name.

Question 3.
Write any two points of dicotyledons.
Answer:

1. Seed has two cotyledons.
2. Plants have tap root system, leaves with reticulate venation.
3. Flowers are tetramerous or pentamerous. Calyx and corolla are well differentiated.
4. Pollination occurs mostly by insects.

Question 4.
Seeds of gymnosperm plants are naked. Why?
Answer:
In gymnosperms, ovules are borne on megasporophylls and no flowers are produced. Therefore the seeds are described as naked. They are open seed bearing plants.

Question 5.
Write any two economic importance of fungi.
Answer:

1. Mushrooms contain rich protein, minerals and are edible. Example: Agaricus.
2. The antibiotic penicillin is got from the fungus penicillium notatum other antibiotics like gentamycin, erythromycin are also got from fungi.

VI. Answers the following questions in brief

Question 1.
Write short notes about natural system of classification.
Answer:

1. In this system, plants are classified on the basis of several characters. Bentham and Hooker’s classification is an example of Natural System of Classification.
2. This system of classification is based on morphological.
3. This classification is widely used in many Herbaria and botanical gardens all over the world.
4. Bentham and Hooker published their Natural system of Classification in their book named Genera Plantarum in 3 volumes.

Question 2.
Write any three economic importance of algae.
Answer:
1. Agriculture : Some of the blue green algae are essential for the fixing of atmospheric nitrogen into the soil, which increases the fertility of the soil, example Nostoc, Anabaena.

2. Agar Agar : Agar Agar is extracted from some red algae, namely Gelidium, Gracillaria, etc., which is used to prepare growth medium in laboratories.

3. Iodine : Iodine is obtained from brown algae like Laminaria (kelp).

Question 3.
Write the differences between algae and fungi.
Answer:
Algae:

• Algae are autotrophs.
• It has pigments.
• Reserve food material is starch.
• Some algae are prokaryotic in nature, example: Cyanobacteria (Nostac, Anabenae)

Fungi:

• Fungi are heterotrophs.
• It has no pigments
• Reserve food materials are glycogen and oil.
• All are eukaryotic nature, example: Agaricus

Question 4.
How many classes are there in Bryophytes? What are they?
Answer:
Bryophytes are classified into 3 classes.

• Class I: Hepaticae (Liverworts) Example: Riccia.
• Class II: Anthocerotae (Homworts) Example : Anthoceros
• Class III : Musci (Mosses) Example: Funaria

Question 5.
Write any four characters of pteridophytes.
Answer:

1. The main plant body is sporophytes, which is the dominant phase, differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
2. Sporophytes reproduce by means of spores. Spores are produced in sporangium.
3. The sporangia bearing leaves are called sporophyll.
4. Most of the plants produce only one type of spore, it may be either microspore or megaspore (homosporous).

VII. Answers the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Draw the outline of Bentham and Hookers system classification.
Answer:
Outline of Bentham and Hooker’s system of classification:
Seeded plants (Division):

(i) Dicotyledonae (Class I)

1. Polypetalae (Sub class I)

• Thalamiflorae
• Disciflorae
• Caliciflorae

2. Synpetalae (Sub class II)

• Inferae
• Heteromerae
• Bicarpellatae

3. Monochlamydeae (Sub class III)

• Series 8 Family 36)

(ii) Gymnospermae (Class II) (3 families)

(iii) Monocotyledonae (Class III) (Series 8 Family 36)

Question 2.
Write any five differences between monocot and dicot plants.
Answer:
Monocots:

• Seeds have a single cotyledon.
• Leaves show parallel venation
• They have fibrous root system.
• Flowers are trimerous. Example : Paddy

Dicots:

• Seeds have two cotyledons.
• Leaves show reticulate venation.
• They have tap root system.
• Flowers are tetra or pentamerous. Example : Mango

Question 3.
Write differences between Gymnosperm and Angiosperm.
Answer:

Gymnosperm:

• They reproduce by production of cones.
• Pollination is by wind.
• They are naked seed bearing plants.
• The xylem lacks vessels and phloem lacks sieve tubes.
• They have two phases in its life cycle. (Sporophyte & Gametophyte).

Angiosperm:

• They produce flowers.
• Pollination takes place by wind, water, insects etc.
• They are closed seed bearing plants.
• Xylem and phloem and well developed.
• The sporophyte is the dominant phase. Gametophytic phase is much reduced in angiosperms.

Question 4.
Write the economic importance of Gymnosperms.
Answer:

1. Woods of many conifers are used in the paper industries, example Pinus, Agathis.
2. Conifers are the sources of soft wood for construction, packing and plywood industry example Cedrus, Agathis.
3. Turpentine is an essential oil used for paint preparation extracted from the resin of Pinus. It is also used medicinally for relief from pain and bronchitis etc.
4. Seeds of Pinus gerardiana are edible.
5. Ephedrine is an alkaloid extracted from Ephedra. It cures asthma and respiratory problems.
6. Araucaria bidwillii is an ornamental plant.

Question 5.
Write the names of medicinal plants and explain their uses.
Answer:
Medicinal plants and their uses:
1. Acalypha indica (Kuppaimeni):

• The paste obtained from the leaves of this plant is used to cure the bums on the skin.
• The juice of this plant leaves is mixed with lemon juice to cure ringworm.

2. Aegle marmelos (Vilvam):

• The unripe fruit of this tree is used to treat indigestion.
• It is used to cure chronic, diarrhoea and dysentery.

3. Solanum trilobatum:

• The leaves and fruits of this plant cure cough and cold.
• It is widely used in the treatment of tuberculosis and bronchial asthma.

4. Phyllanthus amarus (Keezhanelli):

• The entire plant is used for the treatment of jaundice.
• It gives additional strength to human liver and used to treat other liver disorders.

5. Aloe vera (Sothu katrazhai):

• Leaves of this plant is used to cure piles and inflammations on the skin.
• It cures peptic ulcer.

VIII. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Penicillin is an antibiotic extracted from Penicillium notation.
Reason (R) : It can kill (or) inhibits the growth of the other micro organism.
(a) Both A and R True, R explains A
(b) A only correct, R doesn’t explain A
(c) A True, R explains A
(d) Both A and R False.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R True, R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Artificial system of classification is otherwise called sexual system of classification.
Reason (R) : Artificial system of classification is based on the nature of the vegetative characters.
(a) Both A and R correct
(b) Both A and R incorrect
(c) A is correct R is incorrect
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct R is incorrect

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Bryophytes are called Amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason (R) : Bryophytes are land plants but they need water for the completion of their life cycle.
(a) A correct R correct
(b) A incorrect R correct
(c) A and R correct R explain A
(d) A and R incorrect
Answer:
(c) A and R correct R explains A

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Plant Kingdom Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………. is a blue green algae.
(a) Chlorella
(b) Oscillatoria
(c) Chara
(d) Laminaria
Answer:
(d) Laminaria

Question 2.
Polvsiohonia is a …………… alga.
(a) Red
(b) Brown
(c) Green
(d) Blue green
Answer:
(a) Red

Question 3.
…………… is used in space travel.
(a) Chlorella
(b) Chlamydomonas
(c) Volvox
(d) Laminaria
Answer:
(a) Chlorella

Question 4.
……………. is an edible algae.
(a) Spirulina
(b) Gelidium
(c) Nostoc
(d) Volvox
Answer:
(a) Spirulina

Question 5.
Tikka disease is seen in ……………..
(a) paddy
(b) Ground nut
(c) Mango
(d) Maize
Answer:
(b) ground nut

Question 6.
Classification of algae was given by …………….
(a) Martin
(b) Alexopoules
(c) Fritsch
(d) Bentham & Hooker
Answer:
(c) Fritsch

Question 7.
…………… is a hallucinogenic fungus.
(a) Colletotrichum
(b) Claviceps
(c) Cercospora
(d) Albugo
Answer:
(b) Claviceps

Question 8.
…………… is not a fungal disease.
(a) Athlet’s foot
(b) Foot and mouth
(c) Dandruff
(d) Ringworm
Answer:
(b) Foot and mouth

Question 9.
Horse tail refers to …………….
(a) Equisetum
(b) Dryopteris
(c) Lycopodium
(d) Nephrolepis
Answer:
(a) Equisetum

Question 10.
Coralloid roots are seen in …………….
(a) Pimis
(b) Cycas
(c) Gingko
(d) Gnetum
Answer:
(b) Cycas

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Minute algae floating on the surface of water are called …………..
2. ……………… is an example of symbiosis between algae & fungi.
3. The book writtin by Linnaeus is titled …………….
4. Largest Herbarium of India is in ………………
5. The root like structure in bryophytes is called ………………
6. …………….. are the simplest group of land plants.
7. ……………… is a bryophyte which is commonly used in nurseries.
8. In bryophytes spore is the first cell of the ……………… generation.
9. Club moss refers to ……………….
10. An alkaloid got from gymnosperm is ………………
11. ……………… is a essential oil got from pinus.
12. The plant ……………… is used for treatment of jaundice.
13. Special roots present in parasites are called ……………….
14. The male and female sex organs in bryophytes are called as ……………… and ……………… respectively.
15. ……………… got from algae is used to prepare growth medium in laboratories.

Answer:

1. Phytoplanktons
2. Lichens
3. Species Plantarum
4. Kolkata
5. Rhizoid
6. Bryophytes
7. Sphagnum
8. Gametophytic
9. Lycopodium
10. Ephedrine
11. Turpentine
12. Phyllanthus amarus
13. Haustoria
14. Antheridium, archegonium
15. Agar Agar

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Monocotyledonae leaves have reticulate venation.
False.
Correct statement:
Dicotyledonae leaves have reticulate venation. Monocotyledonae leaves have parallel venation.

Question 2.
Carolus linnaeus published their Natural System of Classification.
False.
Correct statement:
Bentham and Hooker published their Natural System of Classification.

Question 3.
Biomial name was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin.
True.

Question 4.
Agar Agar is extracted from red algae.
True.

Question 5.
Blue green algae increases the fertility of the soil.
True.

Question 6.
Cell wall of algae is made up of a chemical substance called chitin.
False.
Correct statement:
Cell wall of fungi is made up of a chemical substance called chitin.

Question 7.
Saprophytes grow up on the dead and decay matters.
True.

Question 8.
Erymothercium ashbyii are used to produce vitamin Br
True.

Question 9.
Button mushroom cause allergy to children.
False.
Correct statement:
Aspergillus species cause allergy to children.

Question 10.
Reserve food materials of fungi is starch.
False.
Correct statement:
Reserve food materials of fungi is glycogen and oil.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

i. d
ii. a
iii. b
iv. c

Question 2.

Answer:

i. b
ii. c
iii. a
iv. d

Question 3.

Answer:

i. c
ii. a
iii. d
iv. b

V. Assertion and Reason

Direction:
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the four statements, given below, mark one as the correct answer.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion : Fungi are considered as thallophytes.
Reason : The plant body is made up of hyphae.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : The sporophyte of bryophytes is borne on the gametophyte.
Reason : The sporophyte is the dominant phase.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false

Question 3.
Assertion : In pteridophytes, gametophyte is the dominant phase.
Reason : They reproduce by spore production.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 4.
Assertion : Gymnosperms are more developed than monocots.
They produce closed seeds.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

VI. Very short Answers

Question 1.
Name the types of classification.
Answer:
There are four types of classification.

1. Artificial system of classification
2. Natural system of classification
3. Phylogenetic system of classification
4. Modem system of classification.

Question 2.
What are phytoplankton?
Answer:
Some algae are very minute and float on the surface of the water. These algae are called Phytoplankton.

Question 3.
Mention two forms of algae with examples.
Answer:

1. Colonial form – Example: Volvolx.
2. Unicellular form (motile) – Example: Chlamydomonas

Question 4.
Mention two fungal diseases in human beings.
Answer:
Dandruff and ring worm.

Question 5.
Why are byrophytes called as amphibians of the plant kingdom?
Answer:
Water is essential for bryophytes to complete their life cycle. So they are called as amphibians of the plant kingdom.

Question 6.
Write two uses of bryophytes.
Answer:

1. Bryophytes prevent soil erosion.
2. Sphagnum can absorb large amount of water. Hence it is used by gardeners in nurseries.

Question 7.
How are gymnosperms classified?
Answer:

1. Cycadaceae
2. Coniferae
3. Gnetaceae

VI. Short Answer

Question 1.
Mention two differences between bryophytes and pteridophytes.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mention any four fungal diseases in plants
Answer:

1. Wilt disease of cotton
2. Tikka disease of ground nut
3. White rust of radish
4. Red rot of sugarcane.

Question 3.
Mention two salient features of algae.
Answer:

1. Algae are chlorophyll bearing simple, primitive plants and are autotrophs.
2. Algae belongs to thallophyta, and the plant body of algae are called thallus. i.e. the plant body is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf.

Question 4.
What is artificial system of classification.
Answer:
This is the earliest system of classification in plants. Plants are classified on the basis of one or few morphological characters. The most famous artificial system of classification is Linnaeus classification which was proposed by Carolus Linnaeus.

Question 5.
What is taxonomy?
Answer:
Taxonomy is the branch of biology that deals with the study of identification, classification, description and nomenclature of living organisms.

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Write the classification of algae with type of reserve food, pigments and examples for each type.
Answer:

Question 2.
Answer:
1. Antibiotic :
Penicillin (Penicillium notatum), Neomycin, Gentamycin, Erythromycin are some antibiotics obtained from fungi, which cure variable diseases.

2. Food:
Mushroom contains rich protein and minerals. The most common edible mushroom is Agaricus. (Button mushroom).

3. Vitamins :
Fungus like Ashbya gospii and Erymothecium ashbyii are used to produce vitamin B? (riboflavin).

4. Alcohol:
Fungus like yeast contain enzymes invertase and zymase, which ferment the sugar molasses into alcohol.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

Heat Lesson For Class 8 Question 1.
Heat is a form of ………….
(a) electrical energy
(b) gravitational energy
(c) thermal energy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) thermal energy

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Term 2 Question 2.
If you apply some heat energy to a substance, which of the following can take place in it?
(a) Expansion
(b) Increase in temperature
(c) Change of state
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

8th Standard Science Heat Question 3.
Which of the following substances will absorb more heat energy?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Science Term 2 Question 4.
If you apply equal amount of heat to a solid, liquid and gas individually, which of the following will have more expansion?
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) All of them
Answer:
(c) Gas

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 5.
The process of converting a liquid into a solid is called ……………
(a) sublimation
(b) condensation
(c) freezing
(d) deposition
Answer:
(c) freezing

8th Science Heat Lesson Question 6.
Conduction is the heat transfer which takes place in a …………….
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) All of them

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the …………….
2. …………… is defined as the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1°C.
3. A thermostat is a device which maintains ……………
4. The process of converting a substance from gas to solid is called ……………
5. If you apply heat energy, the temperature of a system will …………….
6. If the temperature of a liquid in a container is decreased, then the inter atomic distance will ……………

Answer:

1. heat capacity of water
2. Specific heat capacity
3. temperature of an object constant
4. deposition
5. increase
6. decrease

III. State True or False. If false, correct the statement

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Term 2 Question 1.
The applied heat energy can be realized as an increase in the average kinetic energy of the molecules.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 2.
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is decreased.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The dimensions of a substance are increased if the temperature of the substance is increased.

Thermal Expansion Is Always A Nuisance Question 3.
The process of converting a substance from solid to gas is called condensation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The process of converting a substance from solid to gas is called sublimation.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solution Question 4.
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in solids.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Convection is the process by which the thermal energy flows in liquids and gases.

8th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
The amount of heat gained by a substance is equal to the product of its mass and latent heat.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Guide Question 6.
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect and radiate the heat to the outside.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In a thermos flask, the silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.

III. Match the following

8th Science Term 2 Question 1.

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b

V. Read the directions given below and answer the questions.

(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Heat Class 8 Question 1.
Assertion : Radiation is a form of heat transfer which takes place even in vacuum.
Reason : The thermal energy is transferred from one part of a substance to another part without the actual movement of the atoms or molecules.
Answer:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 2.
Assertion : A system can be converted from one state to another state.
Reason : It takes place when the temperature of the system is constant.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

VI. Answer briefly

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
What are the applications of conduction in our daily life?
Answer:

1. We cook food in vessels made up of metals. When the vessel is heated, heat is transferred from the metal to the food.
2. When we iron dresses heat is transferred from the iron to the cloth.
3. Handles of cooking utensils are made up of plastic or wood because they are poor conductors of heat.
4. The temperature inside igloo (snow house) is warm because snow is a poor conductor of heat.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Science Question 2.
What are the effects of heat?
Answer:

1. Expansion
2. Increase in temperature
3. Change in state

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Answers Question 3.
Name three types of heat transfer.
Answer:
Three types of heat transfer are:
Answer:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

8th Standard Science Term 2 Question 4.
What is conduction?
Answer:
The process of heat transfer in solids from the region of higher temperature to the region of lower temperature without the actual movement of atoms or molecules is called as conduction.

Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 5.
Write a note on convection.
Answer:
The form of heat transfer from places of high temperature to places of low temperature by the actual movement of molecules is called convection. Convection takes place in liquids and gases.

Heat Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1°C or 1 K. It is denoted by the symbol C.

Question 7.
Define one calorie.
Answer:
One calorie is the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1°C.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
With the help of a neat diagram explain the working of a calorimeter.
Answer:
1. A calorimeter is a device used to measure the amount of heat gained or lost by a substance.

2. It consists of a vessel made up of metals like copper or aluminium which are good conductors of heat and electricity.

3. The metallic vessel is kept in an insulating jacket to prevent heat loss to the environment.

4. There are two holes in it. Through one hole a thermometer is inserted to measure the temperature Of the Contents.

5. A stirrer is inserted through another hole for stirring the content in the vessel.

6. The vessel is filled with liquid which is heated by passing current through the hating element.

7. Using this device we can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.

Question 2.
Write a note on thermostat.
Answer:

1. A thermostat is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.

2. The word thermostat is derived from two Greek words, ‘thermo’ meaning heat and ‘static’ meaning staying the same.

3. Thermostats are used in any device or system that gets heated or cools down – to a pre – set temperature. It turns an appliance or a circuit on or off when a particular temperature is reached.

4. Devices which use thermostat include building heater, central heater in a room, air conditioner, water heater, as well as kitchen equipment including oven and refrigerators.

5. Sometimes, a thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal 6 system.

Question 3.
Explain the working of thermos flask.
Answer:

1. A thermos flask has double walls, which are evacuated.
2. It is silvered on the inside.
3. The vacuum between the two walls prevents heat being transferred from the inside to the outside by conduction and convection.
4. With very little air between the walls, there is almost no transfer of heat from the inner wall to the outer wall or vice versa.
5. Conduction can only occur at the points where the two walls meet, at the top of the bottle and through an insulated support at the bottom.
6. The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the bottle.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Why does the bottom of a lake not freeze in severe winter even when the surface is all frozen?
Answer:
Lakes don’t completely freeze because the ice (and eventually snow) on the surface acts to insulate die water below. To freeze water into ice, a large quantity of heat is to be withdrawn. This heat cannot be

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? Give reason.
(a) Steel > Wood > Water
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
(c) Water > Steel > Wood
(d) Water > Wood > Steel
Answer:
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
Reason:
Thermal conductivity is defined as the heat flow per unit time.
Steel has a higher thermal conductivity than water and wood.
[Thermal conductivity of steel = 50.2 w/mk
Thermal conductivity of water = 0.6 w/mk Thermal conductivity of wood = 0.12 w/mk]

IX. Problems

Question 1.
An iron ball requires 1000 J of heat to raise its temperature by 20°C. Calculate theheat capacity of the ball.
Solution:
Heat capacity C’ = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\)
Here, A = 1000 J
T = 20°C – 0°C = 20°C = 20 k
C = \(\frac{1000}{20}\) = 50 JK^-1
The heat capacity of the ball = 50 JK^-1

Question 2.
The heat capacity of the vessel of mass 100 kg is 8000 J/°C. Find its specific heat capacity.
Solution:
Specific heat capacity, C = \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\)
Here, m = 100 kg
Heat capacity = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\) = 8000 J/°C = 8000 J/K
C = \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\) = 100 x 8000 J = 8,00,000 JKg^-1 K^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Intext Activities

Activity – 2

Question 1.
Take a cup of water and note its temperature. Heat the water for few minutes and note the temperature again. What caused the temperature change?

Question (i)
Do you find any increase in the temperature?
Answer:
When the water is heated, water molecules receives heat energy, increases the kinetic energy of the molecules.

Question (ii)
What caused the temperature change?
Answer:

1. When the molecules receive more energy, the temperature of the water increases.
2. Heat energy causes increase in temperature.

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Take few ice cubes in a container and heat them for some time. What happens? The ice cubes melt and become water. Now heat the water for some time. What do you observe? The volume of water in the vessel decreases. What do you understand from this Activity?
Answer:

1. In ice cubes, the force of attraction between the water molecules is more. So they are close together.
2. When we heat them the force of attraction decreases and the ice cubes become water.
3. when we heat the water, the force of attraction between the molecules decreases further.
4. Hence they move away from one another and become vapor.
5. Since water vapor escape to the surrounding,water level decreases.
6. From this Activity we understand that heat energy causes change in the state of the substances.

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Take hot water in a cup and put a silver spoon in it. Leave the spoon inside the water for some time. Now touch the end of the spoon. Do you feel the heat?
Answer:

1. Yes, we feel hot.
2. It is because heat in the hot water is transferred from one end to other end of the spoon.
3. In solid substances such as silver spoon, atoms are arranged very closely.
4. So heat transfer takes place from the higher temperature region to lower temperature region.
5. This is due to conduction.

Activity – 5

Question 1.
Take some water in a vessel and heat it on a stove. Touch the surface of the water. It will be cold. Touch it after some time. It will be hot now. How did the heat which was supplied at the bottom reach the top?
Answer:

1. When water in the vessel is heated, water molecules at the bottom receive heat energy and move upward.
2. Then the molecules at the top comes down and get heated.
3. This kind of heat transfer is known as convection.

Activity – 6

Question 1.
Take some amount of water and cooking oil in two separate vessels. Heat them till they reach a particular temperature (Caution: Heat the oil under the supervision of your teacher). Which one is heated first? Water will take more time to get heated. Why?
Answer:

1. Heat transfer depends on the nature of the substance.
2. Water has high specific heat capacity than that of cooking oil.
3. A substance with high specific heat capacity absorbs a large quantity of heat.
4. Thus, it takes long time to heat up.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Heat Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
1 calorie equals ……………….
(a) 0.42 J
(b) 4.2 J
(c) 420 J
(d) 4200 J
Answer:
(b) 4.2 J

Question 2.
The SI unit of heat energy is ………………
(a) joule
(b) calorie
(c) kilo calorie
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) joule

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a scale of temperature?
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Celsius scale
(c) Richter scale
(d) Fahrenheit scale
Answer:
(c) Richter scale

Question 4.
Convection of heat takes place in ……………
(a) liquids only
(b) gases only
(c) metals only
(d) liquids and gases
Answer:
(d) liquids and gases

Question 5.
In solid substances, heat is transferred by –
(a) conduction
(b) radiation
(c) convection
(d) only a and b
Answer:
(b) radiation

Question 6.
In conduction, heat flows from ………………
(a) hotter to hotter region
(b) colder to hotter region
(c) hotter to colder region
(d) colder to colder region
Answer:
(c) hotter to colder region

Question 7.
Mud houses are cooler in summer and warmer in winter because –
(a) mud is a bad conductor of heat
(b) mud is a good conductor of heat
(c) mud is a super conductor of heat
(d) none
Answer:
(c) mud is a super conductor of heat

Question 8.
Process of change of state from gaseous state to liquid state is called …………….
(a) freezing
(b) condensation
(c) sublimation
(d) boiling
Answer:
(b) condensation

Question 9.
Substances which allow heat to pass through them are called …………….
(a) conductors
(b) insulators
(c) moderators
(d) none
Answer:
(a) conductors

Question 10.
When two objects are in thermal contact, the heat is transferred by ………………
(a) convection
(b) radiation
(c) conduction
(d) none
Answer:
(c) conduction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. In vacuum, heat energy can travel by the process of ……………….
2. In ice cubes the force of attraction between the water molecules is ……………….
3. When we heat water, the force of attraction decreases and the ice cubes becomes ……………….
4. ………………. is the only matter on the Earth that can be found naturally in all three states.
5. Radiation is defined as the heat transfer from one place to another in the form of ………………..
6. Heat capacity C’= ……………….
7. 1 Calorie = …………….. J.
8. Specific heat capacity C = ………………..
9. The device which is used to measure the heat capacity of the liquid is …………………
10. ……………….. is a device which maintains the temperature of a place or an object constant.
11. The vacuum flask was invented by …………………
12. Vacuum flask is also called as …………………
13. The water in the black can becomes ……………….. than that in white can after exposing to the sun.
14. The handles of cooking utensils are made of …………………
15. Black color is a ……………….. absorber of heat.

Answer:

1. radiation
2. morel
3. water
4. Water
5. electro magnetic waves
6. \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\)
7. 4.186 J
8. \(\frac{Q}{mx∆T}\)
9. Calorimeter
10. Thermostat
11. Sir James Dewar
12. Dewar flask
13. hotter
14. insulators
15. good

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Heat is the transfer of energy between two objects with different temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
When ice changes into a liquid, it absorbs energy.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Heat energy flows from a body at low temperature to a body at higher temperature.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Heat energy flows from a body at high temperature to a body at lower temperature.

Question 4.
J/Kg °C is the unit of specific heat capacity.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Conductors have generally high specific heat capacities and insulators have low specific heat capacities.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Conductors have generally low specific heat capacities and insulators have high specific heat capacities.

Question 6.
Temperature is a measure of average kinetic energy of molecules.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
When a liquid evaporates, it gives off energy.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
When a liquid evaporates, it absorbs energy.

Question 8.
When a liquid boils, energy is absorbed.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Water has the lowest specific heat capacity.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Water has the very high specific heat capacity.

Question 10.
While a substance is undergoing a change of state, the temperature of the body remains the same.
Answer:
True

Question 11.
In summer, we prefer light – colored clothes and in winter we usually wear dark – colored clothes.
Answer:
True

Question 12.
The transfer of heat by radiation does not require any medium.
Answer:
True

Question 13.
Metals like copper, aluminium are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 14.
In thermos flask, the vacuum between the two walls prevents heat from the inside to the outside by radiation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In thermos flask, the vacuum between the two walls prevents heat from the inside to the outside by conduction and convection.

Question 15.
Thermostat is a device can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Calorimeter is a device can measure the heat capacity of the liquid in the container.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

Question 4.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

V. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : When a very hot liquid is poured into a thick glass tumbler it cracks.
Reason : Unequal expansion of the inner and outer glass walls causes the glass to crack.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion : Radiation is a process of transfer of heat in which a material medium is not necessary.
Reason : The heat from the sun reaches us through millions of miles of empty space by convection.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 3.
Assertion : Temperature is the measure of the heat energy.
Reason : Energy is the capacity to do work.
Answer:
Assertion is false, but the reason is true

Question 4.
Assertion : Small gaps left between railway lines.
Reason : It allows for contraction of rails during summer.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Write the relation between joule and calorie.
Answer:
1 Calorie = 4.186 J.
1 K cal = 4186 J = 4.186 KJ.

Question 2.
Mention the factors affecting the flow of heat.
Answer:

1. Mass and materials of the bodies in contact.
2. Difference in their temperatures.

Question 3.
What is the principle of calorimetry?
Answer:
Heat lost by the hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body.

Question 4.
What are the various modes of transfer of heat?
Answer:

1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation

Question 5.
Which color absorb heat radiation and which color reflects heat radiation?
Answer:
Black surfaces absorb heat radiation. White color reflects heat radiation.

Question 6.
What is the SI unit of heat capacity?
Answer:
The SI unit of heat capacity is JK^-1

Question 7.
Mention the SI unit of specific heat capacity?
Answer:
The SI unit of specific heat capacity is J Kg^-1 K^-1.

Question 8.
What is the function of a thermostat in a device?
Answer:
Thermostat functions both as the sensor and the controller of a thermal system.

Question 9.
Name some appliances which uses thermostat.
Answer:
Central heater in a room, air conditioner, water heater, oven and refrigerators.

Question 10.
What is the function of silvered wall in a thermos flask?
Answer:
The silvered walls reflect radiated heat back to the liquid in the flask.

Question 11.
You would have noticed some space being left in railway tracks. Why?
Answer:

1. It is because railway tracks which are made up of iron (metal) expand during summer.
2. When there is a gap, there will not be any damage in the track due to expansion of the metal rod.

Question 12.
What is transfer of heat?
Answer:
If heat energy is supplied to any substance, it will be transferred from one part of the substance to another part.

Question 13.
Mention the applications of convection in daily life.
Answer:

1. Formation of land breeze and sea breeze is due to convection of air.
2. Wind flows from one region to another region by convection.
3. In hot air balloons heat is transferred by convection and so the balloon raises.
4. In refrigerators, cool air moves downward and replaces the hot air because of convection.

Question 14.
Define radiation.
Answer:
Radiation is defined as the way of heat transfer from one place to another in the form of electromagnetic waves.

Question 15.
Mention the applications of radiation in daily life.
Answer:

1. Heat energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by radiation.
2. While standing near fire we feel the heat which is transferred as radiation.
3. Black surfaces absorb heat radiation. So that the bottom of the cooking vessels are painted black.
4. White color reflects heat radiation. That’s why we are advised to wear white cloth during summer.

Question 16.
Why do we wear woolen clothes in winter?
Answer:

1. The fibers of wool have the property of trapping air in between them.
2. In trapping the air, woolen clothes do not allow the heat to flow away from the body, which would then become cold.
3. Besides, wool is poor conductor of heat. So this property further prevents heat from leaving the body.

Question 17.
Can convection take place in solids? Why?
Answer:

1. No. The molecules in a solid are only free to vibrate about their fixed positions.
2. For convection to take place, the molecules need to move carrying the heat with them.
3. Hence convection cannot take place in solids.

Question 18.
Distinguish between heat capacity and specific heat capacity.
Answer:

Question 19.
Arrange the following in order of decreasing expansion of heating : Steel, milk, air.
Answer:
Air, milk, steel.

Question 20.
Distinguish between evaporation and vaporization.
Answer:

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Describe an experiment to prove that solids expands on heating and contract on cooling.
Answer:

1. Take a metal ball and a metal ring of suitable diameter.
2. Pass the metal ball through the ring.
3. You can observe that the metal ball can easily go through it.
4. Now heat the metal ball and then try to pass it fits through through the ring.
5. It will not pass through the ring.
6. Keep the metal ball on the ring for some time.
7. In few minutes, it will fall through the ring. Expansion in Solids
8. When the ball is heated the atoms in the ball gain heat energy.
9. They start vibrating and force each other apart.
10. As a result an expansion takes place. That’s why the ball did not go through the ring.
11. After some time, as the ball lost the heat energy to the surrounding it came back to its original size and it went through the ring.
12. This shows that heat energy causes expansion in solids.

Question 2.
Write a note on radiation.
Answer:

1. Radiation is the third form of heat transfer.
2. By conduction, heat is transferred through solids, by convection heat is transferred through liquids and gases, but by radiation heat can be transferred through empty space even through vacuum.
3. Heat energy from the Sun reaches the Earth by this form of heat transfer.
4. Radiation is defined as the way of heat transfer from one place to another in the form of electromagnetic waves.

Question 3.
Write the difference between conduction, convection, and radiation.
Answer:

Question 4.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

VIII. Problems for practice

Question 1.
What is the rise in temperature of 5 kg of water if it is given 84,000 J heat energy? Specific heat capacity of water 4200 J Kg^-1 °C^-1.
Solution:
Given, m = 5 kg
Q = 84,000 J
C = 4200 J Kg^-1 °C^-1
Let rise in the temperature be ∆T.
Heat energy (Q) = mC∆T
84,000 = 5 x 4200 x ∆T

= 4°C

Question 2.
A body of mass 750 g requires 13,500 J of heat energy in order to raise its temperature from 25 °C to 55 °C. Calculate its specific heat capacity.
Solution:
Given
m = 750 g = 0.750 kg
∆T (55 – 25)°C = 30°C
Q = 13,500 J
Q = mC∆T
or

= 600 JKg^-1

Question 3.
An iron ball requires 9000 J heat energy to raise its temperature by 10°C. Calculate the heat capacity of the iron bail.
Solution:
Given, Q = 9000 J
∆T = 10°C
Heat capacity, C = \(\frac{Q}{∆T}\) = \(\frac{9000}{10}\) = 900 J°C^-1

IX. Picture based Questions

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Freezing
2. Vaporization
3. Condensation
4. Deposition

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Prose Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing

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Warm up
We use various sports equipment to play different indoor and outdoor games. Now, associate the following sports equipment with their corresponding sports or games.

11th English The Queen Of Boxing Paragraph Question 1.
Have you won any medals? What are the levels to be accomplished to become an international sports person?
Answer:
Yes, I have won three medals. To become an international sportsperson, one has to clear district, regional and national level sports contests.

The Queen Of Boxing Lesson Summary Question 2.
What is your favourite sport? Do you play any sport?
Answer:
My favourite sport is cricket. I play cricket.

The Queen Of Boxing Question 3.
In India, the number of women pursuing careers in sports is considerably less, when compared to men. What do you think are the reasons? Discuss with a partner and share the ideas with the class.
Answer:
In India, the community looks at marriage as a culmination of a woman’s goal in life. The society is yet to recognize the potential of women players to compete with international players.

The Queen Of Boxing Questions And Answers Question 4.
Here is a list of Indian women celebrities who are accomplished in the field of sports and games. Match their names with the sports or games they are associated with, by drawing lines. One has been done for you as an example.

Answer:

1. (d) badminton
2. (i) wrestling
3. (j) chess
4. (b) weight lifting
5. (k) shooting
6. (n) tennis
7. (i) squash
8. (c) swimming
9. (h) athletics
10. (J) hockey
11. (k) basketball
12. (e) cricket
13. (a) golf
14. (g) archery

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English The Queen of Boxing Textual Questions

1. Antonym:

Answer:
(a) Professional
(b) Optional
(c) Modern
(d) Cheap
(e) Desperate
(f) Refused

2. Based on your reading of the text, answer the following questions in two to three sentences each:

Queen Of Boxing Summary Question (a)
How did Mary Kom manage to get financial support for her trip to the USA?
Answer:
Mary Koms dad gave her Rs. 2,000/-. She spoke to her friend Onler about her problem. He took some elders and friends to meet the two Members of Parliament and seek their support. Two MPs donated Rs, 5,000/- and 3,000/- respectively. Thus Mary Kom managed to raise a princely sum of Rs. 10,000/- for her trip to USA.

The Queen Of Boxing Lesson Paragraph Question (b)
Why did Mary Kom think that she should not return empty-handed?
Answer:
Mary Korn’s dad had given all he had for her trip to USA. Besides, her friends had raised funds through MPs. They had pinned their hopes on her. So, she thought she should not return empty- handed.

11th English Prose 2 Paragraph Question (c)
What was her first impression of America?
Answer:
America was cold and beautiful. What little she saw was very pleasing to her eyes. Americans were enormously nice too.

11th English Unit 2 Prose Question (d)
Why did she call herself lucky’?
Answer:
Mary Kom was tired and suffering from jet lag. After weighing in, she found out that she did not have a match that day. Unlike her team mates, she could take rest well enough to face her opponent in the ring. So, she called herself lucky.

Queen Of Boxing Question (e)
According to Mary Kom, what was the reason for her losing in the finals?
Answer:
Mary Kom was not accustomed to American food. The greatest disadvantage was her loss of appetite. She could not eat food however hard she tried. She started losing weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This probably cost her the dream of winning the gold in the finals. What made her feel confident about the competitive players? Explain.
She was heartbroken because she lost the gold. The coaches were kind and appreciated her for winning silver to medal-hungry India. She was the only person in the team to get a medal. The biggest thing she took away from World Women’s boxing championship in Pennsylvania, USA was the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.

The Queen Of Boxing Summary Question (g)
What difficulty did she experience while eating Chinese food?
Answer:
Once Mary Kom and her team mates were given chopsticks to eat their food in China. Other friends, asked for spoons and managed. But Mary Kom ended up using both her hands to hold the chopsticks to pick up the food and push it into her mouth. She managed the complex work and satisfied her hunger.

The Queen Of Boxing Paragraph Question (h)
How was she felicitated on her return to India?
Answer:
On her return, Mary Kom was given a warm welcome at the airport. Back at Imphal, she was greeted with garlands, drumbeats and dancing. There was a victory procession across the town. A felicitation programme was held at Langol. People showered her with rich encomiums. She was presented with a traditional shawl.

11th English The Queen Of Boxing Question (i)
What did she consider her greatest achievement? Why?
Answer:
Mary Kom won a medal in each of the six World Boxing Championships she attended. There were a number of other international level Boxing Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her world title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania 22-7 at the fourth World Championship in New Delhi that she considered her greatest achievement in life because she was able to win at home.

Additional Questions

Queen Of Boxing Book Back Answers Question 1.
What did the first ‘silver’ mean to Mary Kom? Why?
Answer:
The first international silver medal in Boxing meant a lot to Mary Kom. The boxing contest and all that followed got clearly etched in her memory. Besides, it gave her the confidence that she could take on anyone in the ring in a boxing contest.

Question 2.
Why was Mary Kom dissatisfied with her first silver?
Answer:
Mary Kom was not satisfied with her .first silver medal because she knew she was good enough to win gold. So, she vowed to herself that the next time she would win gold in future tournaments.

Question 3.
Why did Mary Kom want a Government job?
Answer:
A Government job alone can bring long-term security and a steady income. After her first win, she was getting married. She had no savings. So, she wanted a Government job, both to support herself and to pursue her dreams.

Question 4.
How did the Sub-Inspector job give Mary Kom the required flexibility to follow her dreams? [OR] How does a Government job on sports quota support sportsmen?
Answer:
She got sub-Inspeetor job on sports quota from Manipur Government. Persons appointed under sports quota need not attend office regularly. They tend to be away either at practice camps or at the tournaments most of the year. They went to the office only when necessary. Thus Government job on sports quota helped Mary Kom (sports person) pursue her dream. with the most required financial security.

Question 5.
What was the speculation of Mary Korn’s friends and family members? How did Mary Kom explode it?
Answer:
Mary Kom’s friends and family members speculated that she may not continue to win medals in boxing after marriage. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005 and fourth in 2006. Thus, she exploded the speculation and myth that women may not achieve stardom in sports after marriage.

3. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100-150 words each:

Question (i)
Describe Mary Kom’s personal experiences during her first International Championship match from the time of selection to winning the medal.
Answer:
Mary Kom flew to Pennsylvania, USA to compete under 48 kg World Womens’s Boxing Championship in 2001. On landing, she rushed to the sports arena and weighed. She was lucky as she could rest enough to face her opponent the following day. As soon as she won her opponent in the first match, she gained enormous confidence. Her fear of facing new opponents in the ring vanished completely. While her team-mates went on losing one after another, she went on to reach the finals. She was even hopeful of winning gold. She had defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC.

She also defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 219. The greatest disadvantage just before finals was that she lost her appetite. She was not accustomed to American food. However hard she tried, she could not eat. She lost her weight. She was just 46 kg before the finals. This cost her, her long cherished dream of gold medal and she lost to Hula Sahin of Turkey 13-5. She won her silver but was very sad. But the biggest thing she took home from Pennsylvania was not the medal but the conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world.
“Some people want it to happen, some wish it would happen, others make it happen.”

Question (ii)
Lack of adequate financial resource and sponsorships often affect sports persons. Hpw is this evident from Mary Kom’s life?
Answer:
Sports is all about Money. Mary Kom was selected to represent India in Pennsylvania, USA to contest under 48 kg World Women’s Boxing championship. Her father managed to collect only Rs. 2,000/- for her trip. Having heard of the cost of living.in USA, her heart sank. Things were very expensive in America. Her parents could do nothing more. She spoke to Onler and some of her friends. They met two local MPs and sought their help. Two MPs donated Rs. 5,000 and 3,000 respectively. It was only with the princely sum of Rs 10,000/- she was able to leave for USA.

Even after winning the first silver for India her financial worries did not end. Prize money offered respite to her immediate financial worries. She had no savings on her except a few insurance policies. She was getting married. She longed for a Government job under sports quota. With a government job she could follow her dreams with a steady income and flexible work schedule. It was only after she won her second World Women’s Boxing Championship gold, the Manipur state government offered her the job of a Sub-Inspector. Her ‘ first salary of Rs 15,000/- gave her a sense of relief.

“There is an old saying that money can’t buy happiness. If it could, I would buy my self four hits every game.”

Question (iii)
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”?
Answer:
After Mary Kom’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary. There, were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Kom’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her, “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.
“Don’t quit; suffer now; so that you can live the rest of your life like a Queen.”

Additional Questions

Question 1.
Mary Kom had an intention that her first championship contest would be a turning point in her life. How did this self fulfilling prophecy turn out to be true?
Answer:
On landing at Pennsylvania, Mary Kom didn’t have time to stand and stare. The weather was ’ chill but the people were enormously warm in the American soil. She kept telling herself that she could beat anyone in the ring. Her fear of facing opponents vanished. As her team-mates had to take in opponents soon after reaching USA, they started losing in a succession. But her first win against Nadia Hokmi of Poland (RSC) and at the semi-finals against Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9 gave her a feeling that the championship contest in Pennsylvania would be a turning point in her life. She lost her gold but she was lauded for her silver medal by the kind coaches. The match gave her an invaluable conviction that she could take on any boxer in the world. On return, Delhi gave her a warm welcome.

Back in Imphal, there was a victory procession. At Langol, there was a felicitation programme. People were liberal with their praise. She was presented with the traditional shawl. Her hero, Oja Ibomcha was also present. She spoke at Langol of her hope of winning gold for India. From 2001 – 2004 she won many International and National titles. She was recognized by the Government of Manipur which gave her a Sub-Inspector job. This addressed all her financial worries and she could focus on her dream alone. She is the only woman boxer to have won a medal in earth one-of six World Championship. She was honoured with Padma Shri in 2010 and Padma Bhushan in 2013 for her achievements in Sports. She lived up to her-self fulfilling prophecy in Sports Career.

“If you are persistent, you will get it. If you are consistent, you will keep it. ”

Vocabulary

A. Write the expanded forms of the following abbreviations, we commonly come across in our daily life:

Answers:

B. Note the underlined words in the sentences below. They are antonyms formed by adding prefixes ‘un’ and ‘dis’ to the base words, for example.

The boxers were not unbeatable as I had earlier thought.
The greatest disadvantage for me was my loss of appetite.
Now form the opposites of the words given below by prefixing ‘un’, ‘in’, ‘dis’, ‘ir’, ‘il’ appropriately.

Answer:

C. Idioms related to Sports:

Question 1.
Match the idioms with their meanings:

1. throw in the towel – (a) state of near collapse or defeat
2. in our comer – (b) unfair or unsporting behaviour
3. on the ropes – (c) prepare for a conflict
4. below the belt – (d) on your side in an argument or dispute
5. square off – (e) to give up

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Listening Activity

Read the questions based on the running commentary of a cricket match. Then, listen to the running commentary of the match read out by your teacher or played on the recorder and tick the right answers.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.iri)

49th over, first ball, Kulasekara to Yuvraj, 1 run, yorker outside off, dug out to point, Yuvraj and Dhoni scamper through for a single. Perfect time for Dhoni to hit the winning runs. He deserves to hit the runs. Second ball, Kulasekara to Dhoni, SIX!! India are World Champions! A nation of a billion will sleep well tonight. What a shot to end the game! Yuvraj can’t control his emotions. He is in tears. Sachin runs in from the dressing room and is mobbed. What marvellous scenes in Mumbai! Dhoni got under the length ball and absolutely hammered that out of sight and out of the park. The White Kookaburra soared over the fence. Bhajji too is in tears. 28 years in waiting and the helicopter shot has brought an end to the game.

The finishers of old times Dhoni and Yuvraj, who were popularly called ‘ The Finishers ’ against Pakistan and Sri Lanka a few years ago, took the game closer and a thrilling finish was on the cards. They needed 30 off 30 deliveries when the batting power play became mandatory. Could they do it? They were up against a lethal bowler in Malinga. Just three runs of the Malinga over meant the Indians needed 27 off the next four overs. There were nerves all around, but the two batsmen in the middle looked to be in a different world altogether. Pressure was just a distant relative and they kept their cool to help India romp home with 10 deliveries to spare.

Question 1.
Who faced the first ball in the 49th over?
(a) Kulasekara
(b) Yuvraj
(c) Dhoni
(d) Sachin
Answer:
(b) Yuvraj

Question 2.
Which batsman hit a sixer?
(a) Kulasekara
(b) Bajji
(c) Dhoni
(d) Yuvraj
Answer:
(c) Dhoni

Question 3.
Where was the match held?
(a) Chennai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(d) Mumbai

Question 4.
Who were popularly called ‘The Finishers’?
(a) Dhoni and Yuvaraj
(b) Bajji and Malinga
(c) Gambhir and Yuvaraj
(d) Perara and Malinga
Answer:
(a) Dhoni and Yuvaraj

Question 5.
How many runs did India need to win the match in the last four overs?
(a) 30
(b) 21
(c) 37
(d) 27
Answers
(d) 27

Speaking Activity

In a group of five, discuss the following topic taking examples from Mary Kom’s life. Athletes cannot run with money in their pockets. They must run hope in their heart and dreams in their head.

Mr.A : In my opinion, every sportsman is not bom with a silver spoon in his mouth. Many sportsmen have come from very poor backgrounds.

Mr.B : I whole heartedly support your view, even Milka Singh, the flying Sikh had his humble beginnings.

Miss.C : At the outset, let me tell you, it is the burning desire in one’s heart that propels one to success in sports.

Mr.A : I should like to draw your attention to the fact that even former skipper Kapil Dev even did not have enough food when he began his career in cricket. The mess boy even refused to give him a few chapattis more during practice sessions. He commanded respect of every one with his batting and bowling skills.

Mr.B : New sports stars like Bhuvaneswar Kumar who took five wickets in the latest T-20 cricket in South Africa is also from a humble home.

Miss C : Similar to Mary Kom, I wish to share with you about the rising star of Indian women Hockey team. She is Rani Rampal, who was bom in a very poor family. Her dad was a driver of a horse-drawn cart in a small village called Shahabad in Haryana. She was impressed with many hockey players landing in jobs in Indian Railways as a result of their performance in Hockey games. At the age of six, she walked to the Hockey academy coach Mr. Baldev Singh. She disclosed her dream of becoming a Hockey Champion and replacing the leaky hut with a good house.

Baldev Singh considered her too young to start practice and asked her to come after some time. She met him again after a few days and begged him to take her in. Impressed, he admitted her. People protested that a young girl was practising a boy’s game. Her parents ignored the protest. They had no money to buy her even the uniform or the hockey stick. One day, she came late for her practice. Baldev Singh being a dedicated coach got angry and imposed a penalty of Rs 200/-.

Miss E : Dear friends, I would also like to highlight a girl rising as a volleyball champion . from Tamil Nadu. She has become a star player giving hopes to Tamil Nadu.She is Michael Nandhini (16). She hails from Tharuvaikulam, Thoothukudi district. She is studying in Std XI, like us, in the Government Higher Secondary School in her own village. She has represented Tamil Nadu Sub-Junior Volley Ball team and helped Tamil Nadu bag Silver medal in Rajasthan. Her father and brother are coolies.

But she cherishes the dream of playing for India in the lntemationalgames.Thechallengeforheristoscaleoverthethreateningpoverty at home and touch stardom in sports. Nandhini wants to break the vicious cycle of poverty by training herself in volley ball. She is also making her mark in athletic events such as long jump, triple jump, 100 meter and 200 meter races. The balls she hits over the net may help her scale over poverty line.

Mr. A : MS Dhoni is also from a small tribal village. Today he is rich and famous but it was his hardwork and dream for India that made him great.

Miss E : Well, Shikhar Dhawan who has hit 72 runs out of 39 balls is a legend who guides India to success during critical situations.

Mr. B : Why have you left Virat Kohli? He leads by example. He has proved to the world that if you believe in your dreams you can beat any team in the world:

Mr. A : Yes, with persistence and hard work one can grow from rags to riches.

Reading

The passage given is on Kabbadi. Read the passage and complete the activities that follow.

Kabbadi (கபடி – in Tamil) is a contact team sport that originated in Tamil Nadu, India. It is the national Sport of Bangladesh. It is also popular in South Asia and is the state game of the Indian states of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Punjab and Telangana,

Kabbadi is played between two teams of seven players: the objective of the game is for a . single player on offence referred as a “raider” to run in to the opposing teams half of a court, tag out as many of their defenders as possible, and return to their own half of the court-all without being tackled by the defenders. Points are scored for each player tagged by the raider, while the opposing team earns a point for stopping the raider. Players are taken out of the game if they are tagged or tackled, but can be “revived” for each point scored by their team from a tag or tackle. The raider should hold his breath and utter the words like “Kabbadi, Kabbadi; hututu, hututufchadu, kudu;” etc. while the opponents try to catch him. If he stops uttering these words, he is considered out.

The game is known by its regional names in different parts of the subcontinent, such as Kabbadi or Chedugudu in Andhra Pradesh, Kabbadi in Kerala and Telangana, Hadudu in Bangladesh, Bhavatik in Maldives, Kauddi or Kabbadi in the Punjab Region, Hu-Tu-Tu in Western India and Hu-Do-Do in Eastern India and Chadakudu in South India. The highest governing body of Kabbadi is the International Kabbadi Federation.
Given below is the visual presentation of the first paragraph.

Given below is the visual presentation of the first paragraph.

I. Represent the other paragraphs in a visual form of your choice.(flow chart, mind-map, pie-chart, etc.)

II. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
A contact sport usually involves a .
(a) violent
(b) gentle
(c) Physical
Answer:
(c) Physical

Question 2.
Kabbadi is a game played between
(a) seven teams of two players
(b) two teams of seven players
(c) four teams of seven players
Answer:
(b) two teams of seven players

Question 3.
A single
(a) player on offence is reffered to as a raider.
(b) offence is reffered to as a raider.
(c) raider is an offence by the player. .
Answers:
3. (a) player on offence is referred to as a raider

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
How does a raider score points for his team?
Answer:
A raider runs into the area of opponents (i.e.) defenders who are secure in half part of the Kabbadi court. He tries to tag out as many as possible. If he. tags two defenders, the offence team wins two points.

Question 2.
When does a raider concede a point to the opponent team?
Answer:
A raider concedes a point to the opponent team when he is tackled successfully by the defenders. .

Question 3.
Can a player be revived when he/she is out of the game? Explain your answer.
Answer:
If a defender is tagged by a raider, one member from the raider’s team can be revived. Similarly, a defender can be revived if his team tackles a raider.

Question 4.
Kabbadi is called by different names in different parts of India. Do you know how Pallankuzhi is called in Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala?
Pallanguzhi/Pallankuzhi is called Ali gulimare in Karnataka; Vamana guntalu in Andhra Pradesh and Kuzhipara in Kerala.

Grammar

Modal Verbs

A. Choose the correct word to complete the following sentences. (Modal Verbs)

Question 1.
We are not completely sure but Kishore come _____ back tomorrow.
(a) needn’t
(b) may
(c) ought
Answer:
(b) may

Question 2.
When Koushik was a child, he _____ play in the street.
(a) won’t
(b) must
(c) used to
Answer:
(c) used to

Question 3.
_____ I have some more juice, please?
(a) Could
(b) Needn’t
(c) Would
Answer:
(a) Could

Question 4.
I _____ believe my eyes. Is Santhosh the one who is standing over there?
(a) couldn’t
(b) mustn’t
(c) can’t
Answer:
(c) can’t

Question 5.
Dinesh _____ be the richest person in the village. He’s just bought two luxury cars.
(a) may not
(b) ought
(c) must
Answer:
(c) must

Question 6.
Imran _____ have studied more for the final exam than playing.
(a)would
(b) should
(c) can
Answer:
(b) should

Question 7.
My house _____ decorating as I’m tired of the old furniture.
(a) could
(b) may
(c) needs
Answer:
(c) needs

Question 8.
I _____ rather request you to check my exercise before giving it to the teacher.
(a) would
(b) should
(c) ought to
Answer:
(a) would

Question 9
_____ I use your mobile phone? It’s an emergency.
(a) Must
(b) May
(c) Won’t’
Answer:
(b) May

Question 10.
In schools, students _____ wear uniforms. It is compulsory.
(a) should
(b) must
(c) may
Answer:
(a) should

Question 11.
Nirmala’s daughter _____ write perfectly when she was seven.
(a) might
(b) could
(c) mustn’t
Answer:
(b) could

Question 12.
I _____ let you know when I have more information about the matter.
(a) would
(b) shall
(c) can’t
Answer:
(b) shall

B. Practice your modal verbs. Look at these signs and write down the rules, regulations or advice they convey using the modal verbs given below.
(can – could – may – might – must – ought to – shall – should – will – would)

1. Nobody should trespass in this area
2. Those who enter this area must wear chemical goggles for safety.
3. Danger zone-materials may fall on visitors.
4. Visitors may contact officer for information pertaining to this factory.
5. Loitering must be avoided. This gate should be used only for exit.
6. You should walk carefully, the floor is slippery.
7. Unauthorised persons should not enter.
8. You should bend your knees while lifting heavy materials

C. Read the following passage adapted from ‘Three Men in a Boat’ and fill in the blanks with appropriate modals and read the paragraph aloud.

I thought I will go to British Museum today to read the treatment for some slight ailment of which I had a touch. I (1) _____ read all I wanted to read and then felt I (2) _____ begin to study diseases. I started to generally turn the leaves idly.(I came to typhoid fever, read the symptoms and discovered I (3) _____ (be) having it for months without knowing it. Cholera, I had severe complications. Diphtheria, I (4) _____ have been born with. I was relieved to find that Bright’s disease, I had only in a modified form as so far as that was concerned, I (5) _____ live for years. The only diseaset I (6) _____ conclude I had not got was a housemaid’s knee. I sat and pondered. I tried to feel my heart. I (7) _____ (not feel) my heart. I walked into the reading room as a happy healthy man but crawled out as a decrepit wreck.
Answer:

1. could
2. must
3. was
4. must
5. would
6. could
7. could not feel

Prepositions And Prepositional Phrases:

(on, off. up, in, out. above, below, over, under, to, from, with, without, before, aller. at. f during, according to, a head of, a part of. from, as far as, in spite of, owing to. in addition to, in case of, in front of, but for, on account of, on behalf of, with reference to etc.)

Sometimes, a sentence can end with a preposition. Read the sentences given below.

1. This seat is not very comfortable to sit ________
2. My father gave me some pictures to look ________
3. Was it worth waiting ________ ?

Answers:

1. in
2. at
3. for

(A) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with appropriate prepositions.

Question (i)
In case (1) ______ difficulty, you should refer (2) ______ a dictionary and then respond (3) ______ the question.
Answer:

1. of
2. to
3. to

Question (ii)
The clothes that he has put (1) ______ . are very impressive. He is going (2) ______ his hometown to pay homage (3) ______ the village head.;
Answer:

1. on
2. to
3. to

Question (iii)
The nearest hospital (1) ______ this place is (2) ______ a distance of twenty. kilometers. You can reach it either (3) ______ car or (4) ______ a bicycle.
Answer:

1. in
2. at
3. by
4. by

(B) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks with suitable prepositions and read the paragraph aloud for better understanding of the use of prepositions.

Mr. Beek of New Jersey has invented a floating life-preserver, which gives complete protection (1) _____ people who have been shipwrecked. The upper section is large enough for the wearer to be able to move his head and arms (2) _____ , and a month’s supply (3) _____ food and drinking water can also be stored (4) _____ it. The cover can be closed in rough weather, and the wearer can see (5) _____ the window in the front, and breathe (6) _____ a curved pipe. The life preserver is made (7) _____ water proof cloth attached (8) _____ circular metal tubes, which protect the wearer (9) _____ sharp rocks and hungry fish.
Answers:

1. for
2. out
3. of
4. in
5. through
6. through
7. of
8. to
9. from

(C) Fill in the blanks in the following sentences, using prepositions if necessary.

Question (i)
The new machines are quite different (1) _______ the old ones. They are able to work (2) _______ a much faster pace, a substantially reduced risk (3) _______ .the environment.
Answer:

1. from
2. at
3. to

Question (ii)
The students discussed the problem (1) _______ themselves. However, they did not arrive
(2) _______ any conclusion. They went (3) _______ their class teacher and discussed (4) _______ her. She gave a solution (5) _______ it and they were happy.
Answer:

1. among
2. at
3. to
4. with
5. for

(D) Do you know what happened to the Titanic, the largest ship to sail then? She hit an iceberg and sank into the Atlantic Ocean. Now choose the right word and complete the paragraph. Read the paragraph aloud.

The wreck (1) _____ (up/of) the RMS Titanic lies (2) _____ ( in/at)a depth of (3) _____ (about/ above) 12,500 feet, about 370 miles south east (4) _____ (of/off) the coast of Newfoundland. It lies (5) _____ (in/on) two main pieces about a third (6) _____ (of/off) a mile apart. The bow is still largely recognizable (7) _____ (with/ within) many preserved interiors, despite the damage it sustained hitting the sea floor. A debris field (8) _____ (of/around) the wreck contains thousands (9) _____ (on/ of) items spilled (10) _____ (from/of) the ship as it sank. She sank (11) _____ (in/at) the year 1912.
Answer:

1. of
2. at
3. about
4. off
5. in
6. of
7. with
8. around
9. of
10. from
11. in

(E) Solve the crossword using the clues given

Across

2. We fought _____ the measure.(7)
9. The cat climbed _____ the tree.(2)
11. Cats are _____ dogs.(6)
14. Let’s walk _____ the park.(7)
16. The vegetables were planted _____ the apple tree(6)
17. Banu sings _____ a bird.(4)
19. Subash is the president _____ our class.(2)
20. We live _____ the river.(2)
22. The bank is _____ the park.(8)
25. I saw John waving _____ the crowd.(5)
29. I have a present _____ you.(3)
32. He ran _____ us.(7)
7. The cat jumped _____ the table.(4)
10. My story is shorter _____ yours.(4)
13. Put the cookie _____ the jar.(2)
18. My story is _____ my pets.(5)
21. Let’s walk _____ class together.(4)
23. We live _____ the city limits.(6)
28. I am more cautious _____ the fall.(5)
31. We strolled _____ the river.(5)
33. The leaves had collected _____ the trees.(7)

Answer:

2. against
7. onto
9. up
10. than
11. unlike
13. in
14. through
16. Beside
17. like
18. about
19. of
20. by
21. into
22. opposite
23. within
25. above
28. since
29. for
31. along
32. between
33. beneath

Down

1. put the book _____ the table.(4)
3. Desert will be served _____ dinner.(5)
2. Please treat us _____ equals.(2)
4. My house is _____ the school.(4)
5. We walked _____ the store.(2)
6. No eating _____ class.(6)
8. The book fell _____ my desk.(3)
11.I will not leave _____ the speech is finished.(5)
12. The store is open everyday _____ Sunday.(3)
15. The dog is____ the house.(7)
16. The cat is hiding _____ my bed.
19. The cat jumped _____ the dog.(4)
20. He is hiding _____ the bookcase.
22. Dinner is _____ the table (2)
24. I put my hands _____ my Pockets.(6)
26. We will eat _____ the play.(6)
27. The cat is sleeping the bed.(5)
29. This letter is ______ my aunty.(4)
30. We ran ______ the other kids.(4)

Answer:

1. upon
2. as
3. after
4. near
5. to
6. during
8. off
11. until
12. but
15. outside
16. below
19. over
20. behind
22. on
24. inside
26. before
27. under
29. from
30. past

Writing

A. Note-making:
Decline of Traditional Games

I. Modern child Vs child of prev. gen.:

Question (a)
Games modern children play
Answer:
Cricket – Tennis – Football – West origin – unidimensional – just hit & run in nature – hand eye co-ordination only ^

Questions (b)

Question (i)
Games played in 1970’s
Answer:
Variety of outdoor games – Kabbadi, Goli, Ghilli, Pandi, Adupuliyattam

Question (ii)
Indoor Games
Answer:
Dhayakkattam, Paramapadham, Pallanguzhi

Question (iii)
Advantages
Answer:

• Retain rich culture & value pass on ancestral knowledge
• sharpen our observn
• dvp. math skills

II. Potential of Traditional games:
(a) can dvp. a lot of skills like logical thinking, bldg, strategy, concentration, basic math, aiming etc.

III. Traditional Games – learning Aids:
(a) Teach How to treat success & failure
(b) dvp. sensory skills
(c) count add
(d) Improve motor skills
(e) Hand – eye coordination

IV. Values Gained:
(a) Envt. – friendly values
(b) Chance to learn abt. our cultural history.
(c) Suitable for all ages
(d) Interaction between generations
Conclusion:
(e) Modem games – origin in our traditional games-pride

B. Summarising:

Task: On the basis of your understanding of the given sample, make notes of the following text and write a summary in about 75 words.

Paralympic Games

Summarising is to briefly sum up the various points given in the notes made from the original passage. It is a retrieval of information from the notes made. Hence, while writing it, one need not go back to the original passage but refer only to the notes made. A first draft will help us to write a fair summary.

Rough Draft
Worrisome decline of Traditional games
I Most-efLthemodem children play cricket, Tennis, football originated in west that are uni-
dimensiond and-develpp only hand and eye coordination, Traditional indoor games like Dayakkattam, Parama PadKaSirPallanguzhi, Pandi or Adupuliyattam and out door games, like Kabbadi, Gobi and Ghilli are legacy oflirSemLJcnow 1 edge. They develop logical thanking, basic math, sensory skills and improve motor skillsTGne~vanJiaye great fun either playing or watching traditional games. By playing traditional games we leam about ourjculture and enhance interaction between generation. It is a matter of pride that many moderir-garaes originated from traditional Indian games.

Fair draft
Modern Games Vs Traditional Games
Modem games like Tennis, Cricket and football develop only hand-eye coordination and are unidimensional in nature, whereas traditional indoor and outdoor games are inherited legacy of our ancestral knowledge. Each traditional game is a learning aid helping us develop, sensory skills and improve motor skills and enhance inter-generational bondage too. It is a pride that traditional games influenced modem games.

C. Debate is an essential skill and your class room is the best place to practice this skill. Your teacher will now divide the class into two groups and organize a debate on the topic “Fast food tastes better than nutritious food.” The following points may help you to participate and speak in a debate. One group will speak FOR the motion and the other group will speak AGAINST the motion. Now prepare a speech for the debate.

Debate
Fast Food Tastes Better Than Nutritious Food
Preethi : Respected principal, teachers and my dear friends, good morning to you all. I am Preethi from XI ‘B’ section. I am before you to talk in favour of the topic, “Fast food tastes better than nutritious food”. At the outset, I would like to tell you all that change is inevitable. Nowadays we have the world in our palm and we can order any food that we like online or just by a phone call. Pizza, Noodles and Crispy KFC chicken are delivered to us at our door step. People who are jealous of the variety of foods we have, accuse us of wasting money and eating junk food.

But if they are so, would the central Government and sanitary Inspectors permit the proliferation of fast food chains and open the doors for foreign fast food joints like Domino’s, PizzaHut, KFC and MC Donald’s restaurants in all big and small cities of India. Quick service restaurants hope to expand further. The parents, also wish to take children out for eating in Quick Service Restaurants. Friends do you know that the United Nation’s Economic situation and prospects 2018 estimated that India will grow 7.2% in 2018 and accelerate to 7.47 in 2019.

Judge : Now I invite Sangeetha to present her case against fast food Sangeetha Respected Principal/Headmaster, teacher and my dear friends whenever a nation moves away from its cultural moorings and natural food habits it is doomed for a health disaster. My heart-felt sympathies are for my friends in the fast food team because they don’t know what they are doing. Friends please try to understand the scientific truth that Burger, fried crispy item, pizza and the like are important food items not designed to suit our physical needs.

Besides, taste is not the only thing. Nutrition is more important. Sprouts, greens, pulses, fruits and vegetables, nourish our health. All the traditional food items our ancestors have left us have excellent nutritional value. Even the simple rasam made of Tamarind water has its rich nutritional value as it has ingreditents of pepper, garlic etc. Young ones are now becoming victims of obesity because of their addition to eating fast food and spending long hours before T.V. Our team is really worried about blind shifting over to fast food. Health is more important than pleasing your palate.

If you don’t change and return to nutritious traditional food consumption, we will be producing large number of well-fed sick younger generation. Do you want India to be populated by people who can’t play and have fun but just eat junk food, become fat and die early. No, I appeal to my friends in the opponent team to concede defeat and mend their ways before it is too late. We come across juvenile diabetics, digestion- related problems and cholesterol increase among young children.
Even the beverages children take like Pepsi, Coke and the likes are harmful to health. School canteens are offering foods, high in fat and sugar. Such food increases body weight among children and cause infection, food poisoning and dental diseases. As a

concluding remark, I would like to say, the practice of high consumption of junk foods, like noodles, burgers, pao-bhaji, sandwiches, hot dogs, patties, pastries, popcorn, potato chips, carbonated drinks, kulcha channa, pani puri, samosa have become common food items of adolescent children in India. As per WHO report, let me repeat, claims more than 3% of children in India are obese. It is time to get over your addiction to junk food. Instead, you can take healthy food such as fermented foods, wheat noodles by adding a lot of vegetables, sprouted pulses, vegetable cutlets and multi-grain bread, etc. Should you pay health for your taste? Don’t dig your own grave with your teeth. There are enough undertakers and cremation facilities. Don’t rush to death, live a healthy life. Thank you one and all.

Judge : Based on the arguments, I am glad to announce that the person who spoke against fast food has won. Please avoid junk food and stay healthy.

D. Writing an article:

Task: Read and understand the data presented in the pie-chart below on factors affecting health, and write an article for your school magazine highlighting the fact that it’s our lifestyle that determines how healthy we remain. Write your article in about 150 words. Give a suitable title too.

Cause For Diseases

For a billion plus population in India, the medical facilities are restricted to only 10% of the population. As the poorest of the poor ‘ can’t afford to buy health services, their health gets affected and they die early. The pollution levels in all the metropolitan cities are growing to alarming levels. Lung-related diseases are caused by the toxic fumes released by two wheelers and four wheelers. The study’reveals 19% of diseases are caused due to pollution. Of course there are 20% of diseases genetically inherited from parents. TB and diabetics are said to be some of the inherited diseases.

Now doctors are trying to isolate the gene that causes terminal illness and correct it during pregnancy itself. Such advanced health care and preventive support may not be available for poor countries. 51% of the causes of illness is jointly shared by lifestyle, smoking, obesity, stress, diet, nutrition and blood pressure. Lifestyle and stress are inter-related.

Hectic work schedules, lack of sleep, eating disorders contribute to stress and high level of blood pressure. Due to addiction to android games and TV shows, young ones neglect playing in open grounds. They are glued to small or big screens and keep eating chips, fries and heavily advertised junk food. Poor people don ’t give nutritious food to children. The malnourishment leads to various diseases. Some children lose their eyesight due to vitamin deficiency. Politicians should focus on investing money in sports and games and health care delivery systems that give good health care to all freely.

The Queen of Boxing About the Author

Mary Kom is a boxer and the winner of five world boxing championships and an Olympic Bronze medal in 2012. Influenced by the media attention and recognition bestowed on Dingko Singh, a Manipuri boxer, Mary Kom made up her mind to become a boxer. Despite all odds, how she achieved glory, forms this brief excerpt from Mary Korn’s autobiography “Unbreakable”.

The Queen of Boxing Summary

Mary Kom was selected in the 48 kg category for the International Boxing Association, World Women’s Boxing championships in Pennsylvania, USA, in November-December 2001.

Mary Kom wanted to become a world boxing champion but her dad could manage only Rs 2000 for her expenses in USA. Mary Kom was deeply disturbed as she had heard that things were very expensive in America. She realized that her parents can’t do much about her predicament. So, she talked to her friend Only. A few well wishers met two Members of Parliament and they gave her Rs 8000. With the princely sum of Rs 10000 in her hands, she went to USA. She made up her mind to bring laurels back home.

Unlike fellow players, who had to rush to sporting arena straight from the airport, she could take rest. Her match was scheduled the following day. She won in the first round comfortably. This eliminated her fear of facing opponents quickly. She went on to reach the finals while her friends lost. She even harboured the idea of bagging gold.

Mary Kom had an intuition that the event in Pennsylvania would change the rest of her life. In the quarter final, she defeated Nadia Hokmi of Poland by RSC. In the semi-final, she defeated Jamie Behai of Canada by 21-9. She reached the finals but lost to Hula Sahin ofo Turkey by 13-5.

Mary Kom wasn’t accustomed to the kind of food available in USA. As she skipped food, she began losing her weight. Just before the finals, she weighed only 46kg. This cost her the dream of winning Gold. She cried her heart out. But her kind coaches consoled her and cheered her up. The silver medal gave her the confidence that she could take on any boxer in the ring.

The career of boxing took Mary Kom to different countries of the world. Incidentally, she learnt about the different cultures and lifestyles of people. In China, they were given chopsticks to eat their meal. Just then she was trying to master the art of handling a knife and fork. Others asked for spoons whereas Mary Kom managed to satisfy her hunger using chopsticks.

Medal-hungry India, gave her a warm welcome at the airport. Back at Imphal, she was greeted with garlands and victory ride across the tours. The whole community shared its joy. She was felicitated at Langol. She was presented with a traditional shawl. Her boxing model Oja Ibomcha was also felicitated. Mary Kom shared her hope of gold in future boxing tournaments.

The first international silver medal meant a lot to Mary Kom though she was not content with it. She vowed to bring gold in future for India. The prize money from the Government helped her overcome financial worries. In order to ensure long-term security and a steady income she needed a Government job. Her dream of getting a Government job under sports quota was fulfilled when she got her Second World championship gold. The Manipur Government offered her the post of a Sub-Inspector. She earned a salary of Rs 15000 per month. Sports quota job allows persons to invest time in practice and apply for leave while going for tournament.

Mary Kom’s medal haul continued breaking the speculation about her ability to win after her marriage. She retained the world title in the Third World Women’s Championship at Podolsk in Russia. Her winning streak continued in Fourth World Women’s Championship in 2006.

Retaining her world title for the fourth time in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania 22-7 at New Delhi was one of her greatest achievements in life. Winning at home turned out to be the most memorable thing for her.

Mary Kom inspired fellow boxers to excel. In 2006, India hauled four golds, one silver and three bronzes. Her team went on to win the overall title. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her “Queen of boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.

Mary Kom became the “Queen of Boxing” breaking free from poverty with her perseverance. She exploded the myth about women’s participation in boxing. She is a living legend to all women who wish to reach stardom in sports.

The Queen of Boxing Glossary

Textual:

appetite – hunger
adulation – appreciation
conviction – firm faith or belief
etched – imprinted
felicitation – congratulatory address
haul – taking a collection
jet lag – a tired and unpleasant feeling, a person experiences, following a long flight through different timezones
lauded – appreciated
myth – a legendary tale (imaginary)
princely – very large
palate – sense of taste
sate – satisfy
speculation – guess

Additional:

accustomed to – habituated to
auto – biography – life story written by oneself
disappointed – upset over failure
enough – sufficient
unbeatable – unconquerable / invincible
vanished – disappeared
vowed – pledged / promised
security – protection
steady – constant

The Queen of Boxing Synonyms

I. Choose the correct synonyms of the word underlined below:

Question 1.
My father managed to collect only Rs 2000 for my trip.
(a) tip
(b) dance
(c) journey
(d) jogging
Answer:
(c) journey

Question 2.
I was both unset and worried.
(a) disappointed
(b) disliked
(c) destined
(d) distracted
Answer:
(a) disappointed

Question 3.
Onler and few of my friends went to seek help from MPs.
(a) give
(b) obtain
(c) reject
(d) denounce
Answer:
(b) obtain

Question 4.
With the princely sum of Rs 10000 Mary Kom left for USA.
(a) very small
(b) meagre
(c) insignificant
(d) huge
Answer:
(d) huge

Question 5.
Players need to weight in which is compulsory for all players.
(a) optional
(b) objectionable
(c) mandatory
(d) discretionary
Answer:
(c) mandatory

Question 6.
I was fortunate.
(a) unlucky
(b) lucky
(c) optional
(d) descretionary
Answer:
(b) lucky

Question 7.
I was able to rest enough to face my opponent.
(a) Friend
(b) Villain
(c) anto:hero
(d) enemy
Answer:
(d) enemy

Question 8.
The fight and all that followed are clearly etched in my memory.
(a) erased
(b) melted
(c) stayed
(d) imprinted
Answer:
(d) imprinted

Question 9.
My fear of facing the opponents quickly vanished.
(a) vanquished
(b) disappeared
(c) appeared
(d) soared
Answer:
(b) disappeared

Question 10.
The boxers were not unbeatable.
(a) conquerable
(b) invincible
(c) invisible
(d) visible
Answer:
(b) invincible

Question 11.
The greatest disadvantage for me was my loss of appetite.
(a) thirst
(b) hunger
(c) anger
(d) passion
Answer:
(b) hunger

Question 12.
I was very disappointed.
(a) happy
(b) pleased
(c) sad
(d) envious
Answer:
(c) sad

Question 13.
The coaches lauded me on the silver.
(a) reproached
(b) rebuked
(c) rescinded
(d) appreciated
Answer:
(d) appreciated

Question 14.
The biggest thing I took away from this championship was the conviction that I could take on any boxer.
(a) infirmity
(b) assurance
(c) acquittal
(d) despair
Answer:
(b) assurance

Question 15.
I was not accustomed to the food there.
(a) unfamiliar
(b) adapted
(c) unused
(d) accursed
Answer:
(b) adapted

Question 16.
T managed the complex work required.
(a) easy
(b) delicate
(c) intricate
(d) intimate
Answer:
(c) intricate

Question 17.
I ate enough to sate my appetite.
(a) saturate
(b) satisfy
(c) stratify
(d) sanctify
Answer:
(b) satisfy

Question 18.
A felicitation programme was Held in Langol.
(a) congratulatory
(b) evaluation
(c) assessment
(d) acknowledge
Answer:
(a) congratulatory

Question 19.
Words of praise and adulation were showered on me.
(a) censure
(b) reproach
(c) criticism
(d) appetite
Answer:
(d) appetite

Question 20.
My medal haul continued after my marriage.
(a) dispersal
(b) collection
(c) separation
(d) dispersal
Answer:
(b) collection

Question 21.
It put an end to the speculation among my friends and family.
(a) truth
(b) calculation
(c) guess
(d) guess
Answer:
(c) guess

Question 22.
A grand reception was organized.
(a) mean
(b) frugal
(c) simple
(d) magnificent
Answer:
(d) magnificent

Question 23.
Indian boxers also performed exceptionally well.
(a) usually
(b) abnormally
(c) unusually
(d) commonly
Answer:
(c) unusually

Question 24.
They christened her, ‘Queen of Boxing’.
(a) Christ-like
(b) named
(c) incognito
(d) named
Answer:
(b) named

Question 25.
The new flavour pleased his palate.
(a) disgust
(b) taste
(c) plate
(d) tasteless
Answer:
(b) tasteless

The Queen of Boxing Antonyms

II. Choose the correct antonyms of the word underlined below: (Exam model)

Question 1.
I left for TISA with this princely sum.
(a) meagre
(b) substantial
(c) enormous
(d) large
Answer:
(a) meagre

Question 2.
T spoke to Onler and some of mv friends about my problem.
(a) issue
(b) conflict
(c) confrontation
(d) solution
Answer:
(d) solution

Question 3.
I was relieved to have money in my pocket.
(a) happy
(b) free
(c) tensed
(d) bonded
Answer:
(c) tensed

Question 4.
The people were enormously nice.
(a) radically
(b) drastically
(c) largely
(d) insignificantly
Answer:
(d) insignificantly

Question 5.
It is compulsory for each player to wear uniform.
(a) obligatory
(b) mandatory
(c) indispensable
(d) optional
Answer:
(d) optional

Question 6.
I was fortunate.
(a) lucky
(b) unlucky
(c) lovely
(d) unlikely
Answer:
(b) unlucky

Question 7.
I was able to rest well to face my opponent
(a) fiend
(b) foe
(c) villain
(d) friend
Answer:
(d) friend

Question 8.
My fear vanished.
(a) disappeared
(b) appeared
(c) concluded
(d) ended
Answer:
(b) appeared

Question 9.
The biggest thing I took away from this championship that I could take on any boxer was conviction
(a) faith
(b) hope
(c) trust
(d) disbelief
Answer:
(d) disbelief

Question 10.
She came across different cultural practices across the world.
(a) dissimilar
(b) unlike
(c) same,/similar
(d) likely
Answer:
(c) same,/similar

Question 11.
They consoled and lauded
(a) appreciated
(b) praised
(c) condemned
(d) confided
Answer:
(c) condemned

Question 13.
I was presented with a traditional shawl.
(a) ancient
(b) inherited
(c) cultural
(d) modern
Answer:
(d) modern

Question 14.
Everybody was doubtful.
(a) convinced
(b) suspicious
(c) relaxed
(d) consulted
Answer:
(a) convinced

Question 15.
Retaining my world cup was one Of my greatest achievements.
(a) holding
(b) losing
(c) rescuing
(d) reviving
Answer:
(b) losing

Question 16.
Things were expensive in America.
(a) costly
(b) extravagant
(c) highly priced
(d) cheap
Answer:
(d) cheap

Question 17.
It was the most memorable even
(a) worth-remembering
(b) forgettable
(c) unforgatable
(d) facination
Answer:
(b) forgettable

Question 18.
She was hopefull of winning gold.
(a) optimistic
(b) pessimistic
(c) firm
(d) desperate
Answer:
(b) pessimistic

Question 19.
She accepted donations.
(a) took
(b) approved
(c) agreed
(d) refused
Answer:
(d) refused

Question 20.
They were not amateur players.
(a) novice
(b) inexperienced
(c) fresher
(d) professional
Answer:
(d) professional

Question 21.
Media christened her magnificent Mary.
(a) significant
(b) accomplished
(c) rescuing
(d) insignificant
Answer:
(d) insignificant

Question 22.
I was selected by the Boxing association.
(a) adopted
(b) stipulated
(c) excluded
(d) sophisticated
Answer:
(c) excluded

Question 23.
My father managed to collect Rs. 2000/-
(a) distribute
(b) gather
(c) compose
(d) restrain
Answer:
(a) distribute

Question 24.
We were the last team to arrive.
(a) reach
(b) articulate
(c) great
(d) depart
Answer:
(d) depart

Question 25.
One should never feel inferior.
(a) lesser
(b) minor
(c) superior
(d) menial
Answer:
(c) superior

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Prose Chapter 2 The Queen of Boxing Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 20 Organ Systems in Animals

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer:

Organ System In Animals Class 9 Question 1.
Which of the following is not a salivary gland?
(a) Sublingual
(b) Lachrymal
(c) Submaxillary
(d) Parotid
Answer:
(b) Lachrymal

Chapter 20 Organ Systems In Animals Question 2.
Stomach of human beings mainly digests
(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Proteins
(c) Fat
(d) Sucrose
Answer:
(b) Proteins

9th Science Organ System In Animals Question 3.
To prevent the entry of food into the trachea, the opening is guarded by
(a) Epiglottis
(b) Glottis
(c) Hard palate
(d) Soft palate
Answer:
(a) Epiglottis

Organ System In Animals Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Bile helps in the digestion of
(a) Proteins
(b) Sugar
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
Answer:
(c) Fats

Science Digest 9th Question 5.
The structural and functional unit of the kidney is
(a) Villi
(b) Liver
(c) Nephron
(d) Ureter

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 6.
Which one of the following substances is not a constituent of sweat?
(a) Urea
(b) Protein
(c) Water
(d) Salt
Answer:
(b) Protein

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 7.
The common passage meant for transporting urine and sperms in male is
(a) Ureter
(b) Urethra
(c) Vas deferens
(d) Scrotum
Answer:
(b) Urethra

Organ System In Animals Question 8.
Which of the following is not a part of female reproductive system?
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Testes
(d) fallopian tube
Answer:
(c) testes

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The opening of the stomach into the intestine is called …………………
2. The muscular and sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with saliva is ………………….
3. Bile, secreted by liver is stored temporarily in ……………………
4. The longest part of alimentary canal is ………………
5. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about …………………..
6. The largest cell in the human body of a female is ……………………

Answer:

1. duodenum
2. tongue
3. the gall bladder
4. small intestine
5. 37°C
6. an ovum

III. State whether the following statements are true or false. If false, correct the wrong statements:

1. Nitric acid in the stomach kills microorganisms in the food – False
   Correct Statement: Hydrochloric acid kills the bacteria swallowed along with food.
2. During digestion, proteins are broken down into amino acids – True
3. Glomerular filtrate consists of many substances like amino acids, vitamins, hormones, salts, glucose, and other essential substances – True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. b. Sweat
2. c. Carbon dioxide
3. d. Undigested food
4. a. Urine

V. Differentiate the following terms:

a. Excretion and Secretion
b. Absorption and Assimilation
c. Ingestion and Egestion
d. Diphyodont and Heterodont
e. Incisors and Canines
Answer:

a.

b.

c.

d.

e.

VI. Answer briefly:

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 9th Science Question 1.
How is the small intestine designed to absorb digested food?
Answer:
Small intestine comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger like projections called villi where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

Organ Systems In Animals Question 2.
Why do we sweat?
Answer:
Sweat palys an important role in maintaining body temperature. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about 37°C. When it gets hot sweat glands start secreting sweat, which contains water with small amounts of other chemicals like ammonia, urea, lactic acid and salts. This helps in cooling the body.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Question 3.
Mention any two vital functions of the human kidney.
Answer:
Two vital functions of the kidneys are;

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.

Science Organ System Question 4.
What is micturition?
Answer:
When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition.

Kalvi Guru 9th Science Question 5.
Name the types of teeth present in an adult human being. Mention the functions of each.
Answer:
Types of teeth and their functions

Question 6.
Explain the structure of nephron.
Answer:
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys. Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus.

Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles. The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hairpin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the alimentary canal of man.
Answer:
Alimentary canal (digestive tract/gastro-intestinal tract):
The glands associated with the digestive system are the salivary glands, gastric glands, pancreas, liver and intestinal glands.

Structure of the Alimentary Canal:
Alimentary canal is a muscular coiled, tubular structure. It consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine (consisting of duodenum, jejunum and ileum), large intestine (consisting of caecum, colon and rectum) and anus.

Mouth: The mouth leads into the buccal cavity. It is bound by two soft, movable upper and lower lips. The buccal cavity is a large space-bound above by the palate (which separates the windpipe and food tube), below by the throat and on the sides by the jaws. The jaws bear teeth.

Teeth: Teeth are hard structures meant for holding, cutting, grinding and crushing the food. In human beings, two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their lifetime. The first appearing set of 20 teeth called temporary or milk teeth are replaced by the second set of thirty-two permanent teeth, sixteen in each jaw. Each tooth has a root fitted in the gum (Theocodont). Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont), according to their structure and function namely incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.

Salivary glands: Three pairs of salivary glands are present in the mouth cavity. They are: parotid glands, sublingual glands and submaxillary or submandibular glands

• Parotid glands are the largest salivary glands, which lie in the cheeks in front of the ears (in Greek Par – near; otid – ear).
• Sublingual glands are the smallest glands and lie beneath the tongue.
• Submaxillary or Submandibular glands lie at the angles of the lower jaw.
  The salivary glands secrete a viscous fluid called saliva, approximately 1.5 liters per day. It digests starch by the action of the enzyme ptyalin (amylase) in the saliva which converts starch (polysaccharide) into maltose (disaccharide). Saliva also contain an antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme.

Tongue: The tongue is a muscular, sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with the saliva. The taste buds on the tongue help to recognize the taste of food.

The masticated food in the buccal cavity becomes a bolus which is rolled by the tongue and passed through pharynx into the oesophagus by swallowing. During swallowing, the epiglottis (a muscular flap-like structure at the tip of the glottis, beginning of trachea) closes and prevents the food from entering into trachea (wind pipe).

Pharynx is a membrane lined cavity behind the nose and mouth, connecting them to the oesophagus. It serves as a pathway for the movement of food from mouth to oesophagus.

Oesophagus or the food pipe is a muscular-membranous canal about 22 cm in length. It conducts food from pharynx to the stomach by peristalsis (wave-like movement) produced by the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscular walls of alimentary canal.

Stomach is a wide J-shaped muscular organ located between oesophagus and the small intestine. The gastric glands present in the inner walls of the stomach secrete gastric juice. The gastric juice is colourless, highly acidic, containing mucus, hydrochloric acid and enzymes rennin (in infants) and pepsin.

Small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal, which is a long coiled tube measuring about 5 – 7 m. It comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

1. Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from the pancreas).
2. Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region of the small intestine. The secretion of the small intestine is intestinal juice which contains enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
3. Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine and opens into the large intestine. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger-like projections called villi (one millimeter in length) where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

The small intestine serves both for digestion and absorption. It receives

• the bile from liver and
• the pancreatic juice from pancreas in the duodenum. The intestinal glands secrete the intestinal juices.

Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. The right lobe is larger than the left lobe. On the under surface of the liver, gall bladder is present. The liver cells secrete bile which is temporarily stored in the gall bladder.

Pancreas is a lobed, leaf shaped gland situated between the stomach and duodenum. Pancreas acts both as an exocrine gland and as an endocrine gland. The gland’s upper surface bears the islets of Langerhans which have endocrine cells and secrete hormones in which α (alpha) cells secrete glucagon and β (beta) cells secrete insulin.

The intestinal glands secrete intestinal juice called succusentericus which contains enzymes like maltase, lactase, sucrase and lipase which act in an alkaline medium. From the duodenum the food is slowly moved down to ileum, where the digested food gets absorbed

Large intestine
The unabsorbed and undigested food is passed into the large intestine. It extends from the ileum to the anus. It is about 1.5 meters in length. It has three parts- caecum, colon and rectum.

The caecum is a small blind pouch like structure situated at the junction of the small and large intestine. From its blind end a finger – like structure called vermiform appendix arises. It is a vestigeal (functionless) organ in human beings.

The colon is much broader than ileum. It passes up the abdomen on the right (ascending colon), crosses to the left just below the stomach (transverse colon) and down on the left side (descending colon).

The rectumis the last part which opens into the anus. It is kept closed by a ring of muscles called anal sphincter which opens when passing stools.

Question 2.
Explain the structure of kidney and the steps involved in the formation of urine.
Answer:

Kidneys are bean-shaped organs reddish brown in colour. The kidneys lie on either side of the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity attached to the dorsal body wall. The right kidney is placed lower than the left kidney as the liver takes up much space on the right side. Each kidney is about 11 cm long, 5 cm wide and 3 cm thick. The kidney is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue, the renal capsules, adipose capsule and a fibrous membrane.

Internally the kidney consists of an outer dark region, the cortex and an inner lighter region, the medulla. Both of these regions contain uriniferous tubules or nephrons. The medulla consists of multitubular conical masses called the medullary pyramids or renal pyramids whose bases are adjacent to cortex. On the inner concave side of each kidney, a notch called hilum is present through which blood vessels and nerves enter in and the urine leaves out.

Ureters are thin muscular tubes emerging out from the hilum. Urine enters the ureter from the renal pelvis and is conducted along the ureter by peristaltic movements of its walls. The ureters carry urine from kidney to urinary bladder.

Urinary bladder is a sac-like structure, which lies in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen. It stores urine temporarily.

Urethra is a membranous tube, which conducts urine to the exterior. The urethral sphincters keep the urethra closed and opens only at the time of micturition (urination).

Functions of kidney:

1. Maintain the fluid and electrolyte balance in our body.
2. Regulate acid-base balance of blood.
3. Maintain the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.
4. Help to retain important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.

Structure of Nephron
Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys.
Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule. The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus. Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles.

The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hair pin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule which opens into the collecting tubule. The nitrogenous wastes are drained into renal pelvis which leads to ureters and stored in the urinary bladder. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.

Mechanism of Urine Formation
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

• Glomerular filtration
• Tubular reabsorption and
• Tubular secretion

Glomerular filtration: Urine formation begins with the filtration of blood through epithelial walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule, The filtrate is called as the glomerular filtrate. Both essential and non-essential substances present in the blood are filtered.

Tubular reabsorption: The filtrate in the proximal tubule consists of essential substances such as glucose, amino acids, vitamins, sodium, potassium, bicarbonates, and water that are reabsorbed into the blood by a process of selective reabsorption.

Tubular secretion: Substances such as H+ or K+ ions are secreted into the tubule. Certain substances like potassium and a large number of drugs like penicillin and aspirin are passed into the filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule. This tubular filtrate is finally known as urine, which is hypertonic in man. Finally, the urine passes into collecting ducts to the pelvis and through the ureter into the urinary bladder by urethral peristalsis (waves of constriction in the ureters.

The relaxation of sphincter muscles located at the opening of the urinary bladder into the urethra. When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition. A healthy person excretes one to two litres of urine per day.

VIII. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct answer.
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
b. If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
c. If Assertion is true but Reason is false
d. If both Assertion and Reason are false

Question 1.
Assertion: Urea is excreted out through the kidneys
Reason: Urea is a toxic substance.
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion: In both the sexes gonads perform dual function
Reason: Gonads are also called primary sex organs
Answer:
a. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

XI. Match the parts of the given figure with the correct option.

Question 1.

Answer:

1. a. Fallopian tube,
2. d. Ovary,
3. d. Cervix,
4. d. Uterus,
5. a. Vagina

X. Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
If pepsin is lacking in gastric juice, then which event in the stomach will be affected?
a. digestion of starch into sugars.
b. breaking of proteins into peptides.
c. digestion of nucleic acids.
d. breaking of fats into glycerol and fatty acids.
Answer:
kidney

Question 2.
Name the blood vessel that
a. enter Malpighian capsule and
b. leaves the Malpighian capsule.
Answer:
urinary bladder

Question 3.
Why do you think that urine analysis is an important part of medical diagnosis?
Answer:
Urine is excreted from the human body which constitutes of mote than 95% water and other constituents like urea, chloride, sodium, potassium, creatinine and other dissolved ions, and inorganic and organic compounds. When there is an illness or disease, the constituents and its levels in urine also changes.

Therefore urinalysis is also an important diagnostic tool which may be used to screen for and/or help diagnose conditions such as a urinary tract infections, kidney disorders, liver problems, diabetes or other metabolic conditions.

Question 4.
Why your doctor advises you to drink plenty of water?
Answer:
The doctor advises to drink more water as;

• Water helps to maximize physical performance.
• Hydration has a major effect on energy levels and brain function.
• Drinking water may help to prevent and treat headaches.
• Drinking more water may help relieve constipation.

Question 5.
Can you guess why there are sweat glands on the palm of our hands and the soles of our feet?
Answer:
Sweating is important for thermal regulation. Sweat works as a defense against microbes to which our hands and feet are mostly exposed than the other parts of our body.

Activity

Question 1.
Look at the pictures given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. Are the teeth of animals similar to ours?
2. How is the shape of their teeth related to their food habit?

Answer:

1. Not all the teeth are similar to ours.
2. The lion is a carnivore and hence canine teeths are predominant.
   The buffalo is a herbivorous animal and incissors are predominant in them.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Organ Systems in Animals Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
Write the function of the following organ systems: Muscular system, Endocrine system, Sensory system, Excretory system.
Answer:

• Muscular system: Involved in the contraction and relaxation resulting movement.
• Endocrine system: Co-ordinates the functions of all organ systems.
• Sensory system: This helps in sight, smell, hearing, taste, and touch.
• Excretory system: Elimination of nitrogenous waste products.

Question 2.
What are the three stages of urine formation?
The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

1. Glomerular filtration
2. Tubular reabsorption and
3. Tubular secretion

Question 3.
What are the functions of liver?
Answer:
Functions of Liver

• Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
• Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
• Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
• Destroys red blood cells
• Stores iron, copper, vitamins A, and D.
• Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)
• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 4.
Draw the excretory system and label its parts.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw a flow chart showing the route of urine flow.
Answer:

Question 6.
What is dialysis or artificial kidney?
Answer:
When kidneys lose their filtering efficiency, an excessive amounts of fluid and toxic waste accumulate in the body. This condition is known as kidney (renal) failure. For this, an artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of the patient. The patient is said to be put on dialysis and the process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is called hemodialysis. When renal failure cannot be treated by drug or dialysis, the patients are advised for kidney transplantation.

Question 7.
What is spermatogenesis?
Answer:
The process of formation of sperms is called spermatogenesis.

Question 8.
Describe the three parts of small intestine.
Answer:
The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal. It comprises of 3 parts – duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

• Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from pancreas).
• Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region. It contains the enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.
• Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine. It is the longest part of the small intestine. It contains minute finger like projections called villi. Absorption of food takes place here.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Tabulate the enzymes secreted by the digestive glands secrete in a human body.
Answer:

Question 2.
Describe the liver and list out its functions.
Answer:
Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes. On the undeside of the liver, the gall bladder is present. It stores the bile which is secreted by the liver. The bile is secreted into the smll intestine when food enters it. Bile helps in the digestion of fats.

Functions of Liver:

• • Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
  • Synthesizes foetal red blood cells
  • Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood
  • Destroys red blood cells
  • Stores iron, copper, vitamins A and D.
  • Produces heparin (an anticoagulant)

• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons
• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol

Question 3.
Draw a flowchart describing the process of digestion.
Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat and Temperature

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Heat and Temperature Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Heat And Temperature Class 7 Samacheer Question 1.
International unit of measuring temperature is
(a) Kelvin
(b) Fahrenheit
(c) Celsius
(d) Joule
Answer:
(a) Kelvin

Heat And Temperature 7th Standard Question 2.
In thermometer when bulb comes in contact with hot object, liquid inside it
(a) expands
(b) contracts
(c) remains same
(d) none of above
Answer:
(a) expands

Heat And Temperature 7th Class Question 3.
The body temperature of a healthy man is;
(a) 0°C
(b) 37°C
(c) 98°C
(d) 100°C
Answer:
(b) 37°C

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Science Question 4.
Mercury is often used in laboratory thermometers because it
(a) is a harmless liquid
(b) is silvery in colour and is attractive in appearance
(c) Expands uniformly
(d) is a low cost liquid
Answer:
(c) Expands uniformly

7th Science Heat And Temperature Question 5.
Which of the following temperature conversions is incorrect K (Kelvin) = oc ( Celsius) + 273.15

II. Fill In the blanks:

1. Doctor uses ________ thermometer to measure the human body temperature.
2. At room temperature mercury is in _______ state.
3. Heat energy transfer from _______ to _______
4. -7°C temperature is _______ than 0°C temperature.
5. The common laboratory thermometer is a _______ thermometer.

Answer:

1. clinical
2. liquid
3. hotter object, colder object
4. less
5. mercury

III. Match the following:

1. Clinical thermometer – A form of energy
2. Normal temperature of human body – 100°C
3. Heat – 37°C
4. Boiling point of water – o°c
5. Melting point of water – Kink

Answer:

1. Clinical thermometer – Kink
2. Normal temperature of human body – 37°C
3. Heat – A form of energy
4. Boiling point of water – 100°C
5. Melting point of water – 0°C

IV. Give very short answer:

7th Standard Science Heat And Temperature Question 1.
Temperature of Srinagar (J&K) is -4°C and in Kodaikanalis 3°C which of them
has greater temperature ? What is the difference between the temperatures of
these two places?
Answer:
Kodaikanal has greater temperature.
Temperature of srinagar (J &K) = -4°C
Temperature of = 3°C
Difference = -4°C + 3°C = 7°C
Srinagar is colder than that of kodaikanal.

7th Standard Heat And Temperature Question 2.
Jyothi was prepared to measure the temperature of hot water with a clinical thermometer. Is it right or wrong? Why?
Answer:
It is wrong, because clinical thermometer has small temperature range (35°C to 42°C or 94°F to 108°F). If it is used to measure the temperature of hot water, the glass will crack/ burst due to excessive pressure created by expansion of mercury.

Science 7 Heat And Temperature Question 3.
A clinical thermometer is not used to measure the temperature of air, why?
Answer:
The range of the clinical thermometer is less than that of thermometer used to measure temperature of air.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Term 2 Question 4.
What is the use of kink in clinical thermometer?
Answer:
A kink is clinical thermometer prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when the thermometer is taken out of the patient’s mouth, so that the temperature can be noted conveniently.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Science Book Back Answers Question 5.
Why do we jerk a clinical thermometer before we measure the body temperature?
Answer:
The jerk to the thermometer will allow the mercury level to flow into the bulb so that the mercury level is below the normal temperature.

V. Give Short Answer

Heat And Temperature Class 7 Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why do we use mercury in thermometers? Can water be used instead of mercury? What are the problems in using it?
Answer:

1. We use mercury in thermometers as they remain in liquid form even with a change of temperature in it.
2. A small change in the temperature causes change in volume of a liquid.
3. Water cannot be used as a thermometric liquid, because it is not helpful to measure below 0°C and above 100°C.
4. Water is transparent. So it makes the reading of the scales of the thermometer more difficult, water wets the glass tube so its steady is glass tube.
5. Due to this constraints it is not used as a thermometric liquid.

Heat And Temperature Answer Key Question 2.
Swathi kept a laboratory thermometer in hot water for some time and took it out to read the temperature. Ramani said it was a wrong way of measuring temperature. Do you agree with Ramani ? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with Ramani.

1. Laboratory thermometer does not have a kink. So, when Swathi takes out the thermometer, the level can go back because of absence of kink.
2. So Swathi should note the reading when the thermometer bulb has surrounded by hot water.

Question 3.
The body temperature of Srinath is 99°F. Is he suffering from fever? If so, why?
Answer:
Srinath is having a fever because the normal body temperature is 98.6°F.

VI. Give long answer:

Question 1.
Draw the diagram of a clinical thermometer and label its parts
Answer:

Question 2.
State the similarities and differences between the laboratory thermometer and the clinical thermometer.
Answer:
Similarities between laboratory thermometer and the clinical thermometer:

1. Both clinical and laboratory thermometers have long, narrow and uniform glass tubes.
2. Bulbs contain mercury.
3. Both have Celsius scale.

Differences:

Laboratory thermometer:

1. Laboratory thermometer is generally scaled from -10°C to 11 CPC.
2. Mercury level falls on its own as no kink is present.
3. Temperature is read while keeping the thermometer in the source of temperature, e.g. a liquid or any other thing.
4. No need to give jerk to lower the mercury level.
5. It is used to take temperature in laboratory.

Clinical thermometer:

1. Clinical thermometer is scaled from 35°C to 42°C or from 94°F to 108°F.
2. Mercury level does not fall on its own, as there is a kink near the bulb to prevent the fall of mercury level.
3. Temperature can be read after removing the thermometer from armpit or mouth.
4. To lower the mercury level jerks are given.
5. It is used for taking the body temperature.

VII. Higher Order Thinking questions:

Question 1.
What must be the temperature in Fahrenheit, so that it will be twice its value in Celsius?
Answer:
According to the question, F = 2C and C₁ = C
F = \(\frac { 9C }{ 5 }\) + 32
2c =\(\frac { 9 }{ 5 }\) C + 32
2c – \(\frac { 9 }{ 5 }\) c = 32 ⇒\(\frac { 10c – 9c }{ 5 }\) = 32 + 0
\(\frac { 1c }{ 5 }\) = 32

Question 2.
Answer:
Go to a veterinary doctor (a doctor who treats animals). Discuss and find out the normal temperature of domestic animals and birds.

1. Dog – 38.9°C
2. Horse – 38°C
3. Rabbit – 38.3°C
4. Cow – 38.6°C
5. Cat – 39°C
6. Goat- 39.7°C
7. Pigeon – 44.1°C
8. Crow – 40°C
9. Duck – 40.7°C
10. Karaknath – 41.8°C
11. Parrot – 41°C

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Heat and Temperature Intext Activites

Activity – 1

Question 1.
What is required?
A small glass bottle, a rubber cork, an empty refill, water, colour, a candle, a fork, a paper.
What to do?

• Take a small glass bottle. Fill it with coloured water.
• Make hole at the centre of the rubber cork.
• Pass empty refill from the hole of the rubber cork.

• Make the bottle air tight and observe the water raised in the refill.
• Make a scale on paper, place it behind the refill and note down the position of the surface of water.
• Hold bottle with fork and supply heat to it with candle. Then ‘ observe.

Question 2.
What is the change in the surface of water?
Answer:
The level of water increases.
Stop the supply of heat. When water is cooled, observe the surface of water in the refill,

Question 3.
what change takes place? Why?
Answer:
The level of water comes to the original position.
When, a liquid is heated, it expands and when it is cooled down, it contracts.

Activity – 2

Question 1.
What is required?
A big bottle, a balloon, threads, candle, water, fork.
What to do?

• Take one big bottle, and fill some water in it.
• Attach one balloon on the mouth of bottle and fix it with thread.
• Hold bottle with a fork. Heat the bottle with a candle and take observation.

Question 2.
What change occurs in the state of balloon after heating the bottle?
Answer:
The balloon expands.

Question 3.
What change occurs in the state of balloon after heating the bottle?
Why?
Answer:
The air inside it gets heated and expands. This causes the balloon to stretch and expand.
Now, let the bottle get cooled down.

Question 6.
What change occurs in the state of balloon after bottle gets cool down?
Why?
Answer:
The temperature within the bottle reduces causing the air to cool down. This causes the balloon to contract.
When gases substance gets heat, it expands; when it cools it contracts.

Question 5.
Why does a tyre get burst in summer?
Answer:
During summer, the air inside the tyre of a vehicle will get heated up with the increase in pressure of the air inside the tyre. As there is no place to air to escape tyre will get bursted.

Activity – 3
Measure your body temperature.
Wash the thermometer preferably with an antiseptic solution. Hold it firmly by the end and give it a few jerks. These jerks will bring the level of Mercury down. Ensure that it falls below 35°C (95°F). Now place the thermometer under your tongue or arm pit. After one minute, take the thermometer out and note the reading. It tells you your body temperature.
What did you record as your body temperature?
Answer:
37°C

1.6 Numerical problems:

3. Convert the given temperature :

Question 1.
45°C = _____ °F
Solution:
F = \(\frac { 9c }{ 5 }\) + 32
\(\frac{9 \times 45^{9}}{8}\)
= 81 +32
45°c = 113°F

Question 2.
20°C =______°F
Solution:
F =\(\frac { 9c }{ 5 }\)
= \(\frac{9 \times 20^{4}}{5}\) + 32
=36 + 32
20°c = 68°F

Question 3.
68°F =_______°F
Solution:
C = (F-32) ×\(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= (68 – 32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= 36 ×\(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
68°F = 20°C

Question 4.
185°C =_______°F
Solution:
c = (F – 32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= (185 -32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= 153 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
185F° = 85°C

Question 5.
0°=________°F
Solution:
K = C + 273
= 0 + 273
0°C = 273K

Question 6.
– 20°=________°F
Solution:
k = C + 273
= – 20 + 273
– 20°C = 273K

Question 7.
100K=________°F
Solution:
C = K – 273
=272.15 – 273
272.15K= – 0.85°C

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Heat and Temperature Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Heat energy is the total of the particles that make up a substance.
(a) potential energy
(b) substance
(c) temperature
(d) none
Answer:
(b) substance

Question 2.
Heat energy is always transferred from to temperatures.
(a) lower, higher
(b) higher, lower
(c) conductor, insulator
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(b) higher, lower

Question 3.
A clinical thermometer is calibrated from to .
(a) 10°Ctol00°C
(b) 32°C to 110°C
(c) 0°Ctol00°C
(d) 35°C to 42°C
Answer:
(d) 35°C to 42°C

Question 4.
The thermometer which ranger from -10°C to 110°C is .
(a) clinical thermometer
(b) digital thermometer
(c) laboratory thermometer
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) laboratory thermometer

Question 5.
Which one of the following scale has lower fixed point at 0°C?
(a) Kelvin scale
(b) Fahrenheit scale
(c) Celsius scale
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Celsius scale

Question 6.
The lower fixed point on the Celsius scale is
(a) melting point of mercury
(b) melting point of ice
(c) boiling point of water
(d) none
Answer:
(b) melting point of ice

Question 7.
The measure of degree of hotness or coldness of a body is called
(a) heat energy
(b) Celsius
(c) kelvin
(d) temperature
Answer:
(d) temperature

Question 8.
Digital thermometer is widely used for the measurement of the temperature due to .
(a) Analog display
(b) Mercury
(c) High accuracy
(d) Low accuracy
Answer:
(c) High accuracy

Question 9.
Temperature of boiling water cannot be measured by a thermometer.
(a) laboratory
(b) digital
(c) clinical
(d) both b & c
Answer:
(d) both b & c

Question 10.
When a substance is heated, its temperature .
(a) rises
(b) falls
(c) remains same
(d) none
Answer:
(a) rises

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Digital thermometers do not use ______
2. In a thermometer, when liquid gets heat, it_____and when it is cooled down, it
3. The SI unit of temperature is ______
4. A small change in the temperature causes change in of a liquid.________
5. The freezing point of alcohol is less than________
6. All clinical thermometers have a________ that prevents mercury from flowing back into the bulb.
7. A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures from a minimum of ________ °F to a maximum of °F.
8. Before use, the mercury level in clinical thermometer should be below________
9. The coldest natural temperature ever recorded on earth is________
10. The hottest natural temperature ever recorded on earth is________
11. Temperature of the universe in the earliest moments after the big bang is ________

Answer:

1. mercury
2. expand, contact
3. kelvin
4. volume
5. – 100°
6. kink
7. 94° F,108° F
8. 35° C or 94° F
9. 178.45K
10. 392.85K
11. 10³² K

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Temperature is related to how fast the atoms within a substance are moving.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mercury is a poor conductor of heat.
Answer
False. Mercury is a good conductor of heat.

Question 3.
Fahrenheit scale is more sensitive that the Celsius scale.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
In humans, the average internal temperature is 98.60°C.
Answer:
False. In humans, the average internal temperature is 98.60°F.

Question 5.
Digital thermometers are mainly used to take the body temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
The glass of a clinical thermometer will burst due to excessive pressure created by contraction of mercury.
Answer:
The glass of a clinical thermometer will burst due to excessive pressure created by expansion of mercury.

Question 7.
In greek, Centium means 100 and Gradus means steps, both words make it Centigrade and later Celsius.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Kelvin is written as K also known as absolute scale as it starts from absolute zero temperature.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The temperatures in Celsius and in Fahrenheit will be same at -40.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Answers:

1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)

V. Assertion and Reason.
Mark the correct choice as
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of assertion.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

1. Assertion

(A): Heat energy is transferred from one body to another due to a temperature difference between them.
Reason (R): Heating a substance causes a rise in temperature.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of assertion.

Correct reason: Heat energy always travels from hotter object to colder objects.

1. Assertion

(A): When a very hot liquid is poured into a thick glass tumbler it cracks.
Reason (R): Unequal expansion of inner and outer glass walls causes the glass to crack.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of assertion

VI . Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Mention the three units which are used to measure the temperature.
Answer:
The three units which are used to measure the temperature: Degree Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin.

Question 2.
What is the boiling point of mercury?
Answer:
357°C

Question 3.
What is the freezing point of alcohol?
Answer:
Less than -100°C

Question 4.
Mention the use of laboratory thermometers.
Answer:
To measure the temperature is laboratories for scientific research.

Question 5.
What is the average internal temperature of human body?
Answer:
37°C (98.6°F)

Question 6.
What is the freezing point of water is Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:
32°F

Question 7.
At what temperature the value will be same in Celsius and in Fahrenheit?
Answer:
– 40.

Question 8.
Name the principle which is used in thermometer.
Answer:
Liquids expand on heating and contract on cooling.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Mention any two precautions to be followed while using a clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. The thermometer should be washed before and after use, preferably with an antiseptic solution.
2. Jerk the thermometer a few times to bring the level of the mercury down.

Question 2.
What are the uses of laboratory thermometers?
Answer:
Laboratory thermometers are used to measure the temperature in school and other laboratories for scientific research. They are also used in the industry as they can measure temperatures higher than what clinical thermometers can record.

Question 3.
Mention any two properties of alcohol.
Answer:

1. The freezing point of alcohol is less than -100°C. So it can be used to measure very low temperatures.
2. Its expansion per degree Celsius rise in temperature is very large.

Question 4.
What is the use of kink in clinical thermometers?
Answer:
Kink prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when the thermometer is taken out of the patient’s mouth. So that the temperature can be noted conveniently.

Question 5.
Why mercury or alcohol is used in thermometers?
Answer:
Mostly Alcohol and Mercury are used in thermometers as they remain in liquid form even with a change of temperature in them. A small change in the temperature causes change in volume of a liquid. We measure this temperature by measuring expansion of a liquid in thermometer.

Question 6.
We are advised to avoid keeping clinical thermometer in the sun or near a flame. Why?
Answer:
A Clinical thermometer has small temperature range. The glass will crack/ burst due to excessive pressure created by expansion of mercury.

VIII. Long Answer:

Question 1.
Explains the properties of mercury.
Answer:

1. Its expansion is uniform. (For equal amounts of heat it expands by equal lengths.)
2. If is opaque and shining.
3. It does not stick to the sides of the glass tube.
4. It is a good conductor of heat.
5. It has a high boiling point (357°C) and a low freezing point (-39°C). Hence a wide range of temperatures can be measured using a mercury thermometer.

Question 2.
Explain the construction and working of clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. Clinical thermometers are used to measure the temperature of a human body – at home, clinics and hospitals.
2. All clinical thermometers have a kink that prevents the mercury from flowing back into the bulb when the thermometer is taken out of the patient’s mouth, so that the temperature can be noted conveniently.
3. There are temperature scales on either side of the mercury thread, one in C elsius scale and the other in Fahrenheit scale.
4. Since the Fahrenheit scale is more sensitive than the Celsius scale, body temperature is measured in F only.
5. A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures from a minimum of 35°C or 94°F to a maximum of 42°C or 108°F.

Question 3.
Explain the precautions to be followed while using clinical thermometer.
Answer:

1. The thermometer should be washed before and after use, preferably with an antiseptic solution.
2. Jerk the thermometer a few times to bring the level of the mercury down.
3. Before use, the mercury level should be below 35°C or 94°F.
4. Do not hold the thermometer by its bulb.
5. Keep the mercury level along your line of sight and then take the reading.
6. Handle the thermometer with care. If it hits against some hard object, it may break.
7. Do not place the thermometer in a hot flame or in the hot sun.

Question 4.

1. Write a note on laboratory thermometer.
2. Write the precautions to be following while using a laboratory thermometer.

Answer:
(a) Laboratory Thermometers:

1. Laboratory thermometers are used to measure the temperature in school and other laboratories for scientific research.
2. They are also used in the industry as they can measure temperatures higher than what clinical thermometers can record.
3. The stem and the bulb of a lab thermometer are longer when compared to that of a clinical thermometer and there is no kink in the lab thermometer.
4. A laboratory thermometer has only the Celsius scale ranging from -10°C to 110°C.

(b) Precautions to be Followed While Using a Laboratory Thermometer:

1. Do not tilt the thermometer while measuring the temperature. Place it  upright.
2. Note the reading only when the bulb has been surrounded by the substance from all sides.

Question 5.
Explain how do you determine the temperature of hot water using laboratory thermometer?
Answer:

1. Take some water in a beaker.
2. Take a laboratory thermometer and immerse its bulb end in water; holding it vertically. Ensure to dip whole portion of bulb end. The bulb end should not touch the bottom or side of the beaker.
3. Observe the movement of rise of mercury. When it becomes stable, take the reading of the thermometer.
4. Repeat this with hot water and take the reading.

Question 6.

1. write a note on digital thermometer.
2. Mention the precaution to be followed while using digital thermometer.

Answer:
(a) Digital Thermometer:

1. Mercury is a toxic substance and is very difficult to dispose of if a thermometer breaks.
2. These days, digital thermometers are available which do not use mercury.
3. Instead, it has a sensor which can measure the heat coming out from the body directly and from that can measure the temperature of the body.
4. Digital thermometers are mainly used to take the body temperature.
5. Do not use a clinical thermometer for measuring the temperature of any object other than human body.
6. Avoid keeping it in the sun or near of flame.

Question 7.
Explain the usage of digital thermometer.
Answer:
Use of Digital thermometer:

1. Wash the tip with warm (not hot), soapy water.
2. Press the “ON” button.
3. Insert the tip of the thermometer into the mouth, bottom, or under the armpit.
4. Hold the thermometer in place until it beeps (about 30 seconds).
5. Read the display.
6. Turn off the thermometer, rinse under water, and put it away in a safe place.

IX.Problems for practice:
Convert the given temperature:

Question 1.
40°C =_______°F
Solution:
F = \(\frac { 9c }{ 5 }\) +32
\(\frac{9 \times 40^{8}}{8}\) + 32
= 72 + 32
40°C = 104°F

Question 2.
0 K =_______°F
Solution:
C = k – 273
= 0 – 273
0 K = – 273°C

Question 3.
– 30°C = _______°F
Solution:
K = C + 273
= – 30 + 273

Question 4.
150°F =_______°C
Solution:
C = (F – 32) × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
= 118 × \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\)
=\(\frac { 590 }{ 9 }\) = 65.9
150°F = 65.9°C

X . Creative Questions: HOTS

Question 1.
What the minimum possible temperature is 0 k .There also a maximum possible temperature ?
Answer:
The minimum possible temperature is 0 K. There is no limit to maximum temperature.

Question 2.
Complete the table.

Answer:

1. 212°F
2. Freezing point of water
3. 273.15 K
4. 37°C
5. 23 K