Laxmi

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 27 Hardware and Software

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Hardware and Software Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Find out the part that is not found in CPU?
(a) Mother Board
(b) SMPS
(c) RAM
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 2.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Free and Open source
(b) Free and Traditional Software
(c) Passive and Open source
(d) Passive and Traditional source
Answer:
(a) Free and Open source

Question 3.
LINUX is a ……………..
(a) Paid Software
(b) Licensed Software
(c) Free and Proprietary software
(d) Free and Open source software
Answer:
(d) Free and Open source software

Question 4.
Find out the Paid and Proprietary software from the given list.
(a) Windows
(b) MAC OS
(c) Adobe Photoshop
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 5.
……………….. is an Operating System.
(a) Android
(b) Chrome
(c) Internet
(d) Pendrive
Answer:
(a) Android

II. Match the following.

1. MAC OS – (a) Free and Open-source Software
2. Software – (b) Paid and Proprietary Software
3. Hardware – (c) Input Device
4. Keyboard – (d) RAM
5. LINUX – (e) Geogebra

Answer:

1. (b) Paid and Proprietary Software
2. (e) Geogebra
3. (d) RAM
4. (c) Input Device
5. (a) Free and Open-source Software

III. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What is Hardware and Software?
Answer:
Hardware is the parts of a computer which we can touch and feel. Hardware includes Input and Output devices, Cabinet, Hard Disk, Mother Board, SMPS, CPU, RAM, CD Drive and Graphics Card.

Software are programmed and coded applications to process the input information. The software processes the data by converting the input information into coding or programmed language.

Question 2.
What do you mean by Operating System? How it Works?
Answer:
Operating system or System software is a software that makes the hardware devices process the data fed by the user and to display the result on the output devices like Monitor. Without the operating system, computer cannot function on its own.

Question 3.
What is Free and Open Source Software? Give any two examples?
Answer:
Free and open software is available at free of cost and can be shared to many end users. Free software is editable and customizable by the user and this leads to updation or development of new software. Examples of Free and Open source software are: LINUX, Open office, Geogebra etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Hardware and Software Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………………. is a group of programs designed for the benefit of end user to work on computer.
(a) System software
(b) Application software
(c) Paid and Proprietary Software
(d) Free and open source software
Answer:
(b) Application software

Question 2.
…………….. is lifeless without software.
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) System
(d) Application
Answer:
(b) Hardware

Question 3.
The license of ……………. would not be provided unless it is purchased.
(a) free and open source software
(b) system software
(c) paid and proprietary software
(d) application software
Answer:
(c) paid and proprietary software

II. Match the following.

1. Editing software – (a) Paid and Proprietary Software
2. Android – (b) Monitor
3. Windows – (c) System software
4. Output device – (d) Application software

Answer:

1. (d) Application software
2. (c) System software
3. (a) Paid and Proprietary Software
4. (b) Monitor

III. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What do you mean by application software?
Answer:
Application software is a program or a group of programs designed for the benefit of end user to work on computer. The application programs can be installed in the hard disk for the usage on a particular computer. This type of application program completes one or more than one work of the end user. The following are the examples of application program: Video player, Audio player, Word processing software, Drawing tools, Editing software, etc.

Question 2.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
The software is divided into two types based on the process. They are:

1. System software (Operating System)
2. Application software

Question 3.
What are the types of system and application software?
Answer:
The operating system and application software are available in two forms. They are:

1. Free and Open source Software
2. Paid and Proprietary Software

Question 4.
What is Paid and Proprietary Software? Give examples.
Answer:
There are softwares that need a license to use it. They have to be paid for using either permanently or temporarily. The license of the software would not be provided unless it is purchased. Similarly the end users are legally prohibited to steal the software program or to use the pirated version of the Paid and Proprietary Software. Some of the examples of Paid and Proprietary Software are: Windows, Microsoft office, Adobe Photoshop, etc.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 26 Parts of Computer

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Parts of Computer Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an output device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Speaker
(d) Pendrive
Answer:
(c) Speaker

Question 2.
Name the cable that connects CPU to the Monitor.
(a) Ethernet
(b) VGA
(c) HDMI
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) VGA

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an input device?
(a) Speaker
(b) Mouse
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Mouse

Question 4.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connections?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Electric wires
(c) VGA
(d) USB
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 5.
Pen drive is ………… device.
(a) Output
(b) Input
(c) Storage
(d) Connecting cable
Answer:
(c) Storage

II. Match the following.

1. Bluetooth – (a) Connecting cable
2. Printer – (b) LDMI
3. Keyboard – (c) Wireless connection
4. HDMI – (d) Output device

Answer:

1. (c) Wireless connection
2. (d) Output device
3. (b) LDMI
4. (a) Connecting cable

III. Short answer.

Question 1.
Name the parts of a computer.
Answer:
Three parts of the computer are :

1. Input Unit
2. Central Processing Unit (CPU)
3. Output Unit.

Question 2.
Bring out any two differences between input and output devices.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Parts of Computer Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
How are the computers classified?
Answer:
The computers can be classified based on their design, shape, speed, efficiency, working of the memory unit and their applications. The computers can be classified as follows;

1. Mainframe Computer
2. Mini Computer
3. Micro or personal computer
4. Supercomputer

Question 2.
Name two wireless connections and how it is used.
Answer:
Bluetooth, Wi-Fi are used to connect to internet without using any connecting cables.

• Bluetooth: Mouse, Keyboard can be connected to the computer using the Bluetooth.
  Used in sharing data with nearby devices.
• Wi-Fi: Net connectivity can be obtained using the Wi-Fi without any connecting cables. Any data from anywhere can be shared using Wi-Fi.

Question 3.
What is a memory unit and where is it present?
Answer:
The memory unit in the computer saves all data and information temporarily. It is present in the Central Processing Unit (CPU) which is the brain of the Computer.

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Explain the types and functions of cables.
Answer:
The types of cable includes: Video Graphics Array (VGA), High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI), Universal Serial Bus (USB), Data cable, Power Cord, Mic cable, Ethernet cable.

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Exploring Continents – North America and South America

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Exploring Continents – North America and South America Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ______ separates North America from Asia
(a) Bering Strait
(b) Palk Straits
(c) Malacca Strait
(d) Gibraltar straits
Answer:
(a) Bering Strait

Question 2.
__________ is known as the “sugar bowl of the world”
(a) Mexico
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Cuba
Answer:
(d) Cuba

Question 3.
__________ are the longest rivers in North America
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers
(b) The Mackenzieriver
(c) The St. Lawrence river
(d) The Colorado river
Answer:
(a) The Mississippi and Missouri rivers

Question 4.
__________ is the longest mountain chain in the world.
(a) The Andes
(b) TheRockies
(c) The Himalayas
(d) The Alps
Answer:
(a) The Andes

Question 5.
__________ basin gets rainfall every day because of its equatorial location
(a) The Mackenzie
(b) The Orinoco
(c) The Amazon
(d) The Parana
Answer:
(c) The Amazon

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ 86 m below the sea level is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
2. _______ is one of the worlds best fishing grounds.
3. The highest peak in the Andes is ______ on the Chile – Argentina border.
4. _______ of the equatorial regions are called the “lungs of the world”.
5. _______ is also known as the “coffee pot” of the world.

Answer:

1. Death valley is
2. Grand Bank
3. Mt Aconcagua
4. The Selvas
5. Brazil

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Give Reasons.

Question 1.
The eastern coast of North America particularly USA enjoys mild climate.
Answer:
The South and east is usually warm all the year round and the regions around the mouth of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.

Question 2.
United States of America is known as “Melting Pot”.
Answer:
United States of America is known as “Melting Pot” where hundreds of different cultures meet, blend and creating a new culture.

Question 3.
Though Quito and Amazon basin are in the same latitude Quito enjoys eternal Spring. Whereas Amazon basin is hot.
Answer:

1. The climate of the continent of South America has been closely influenced by the latitudes, attitudes and the proximity of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
2. It is hot in the Amazon basin as the equator passes through it whereas Quito, situated almost on the same latitude on the Andes, has “Eternal Spring”.
3. That is, it has a pleasant climate throughout the year because of its high altitude at 9,350 feet or2849.88 meter above the sea level.

Question 4.
Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish.
Answer:

1. Peru is one of the world’s largest producers of tropical fish. Here the cool Humboldt Current helps in bring plankton, which is the main food for fishes.
2. Commercial deep sea fishing off of Peru’s coastal belt of over 3000 km.
3. Peruvian waters normally abound with sword fish, mackerel, yellow fin, pompano and shark.
4. More than 50 species are caught commercially. –
5. There are over 40 fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
6. Paita and Callao are being the most important centers in Peru.

V. Distinguish between

Question 1.
The Rocky mountain and the Appalachian mountain.
Answer:

Question 2.
The Prairies and the Pampas grassland.
Answer:

Question 3.
Tundra and Taiga.
Answer:

VI. Put (✓) for the correct option

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Cotton grows well in southern and western states of North America.
Reason (R): Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil which provide favourable condition.
(a) Both A and R is correct.
(b) A is correct and R is wrong,
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) industries in the South America has developed rapidly.
Reason (R) :The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) need for industrialization,
(a) Both A and R are correct.
(b) A is correct and R is wrong,
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(c) A is wrong and R is correct

VII. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Name the boundaries of North America.
Answer:

1. North America is surrounded by the Pacific Ocean in the West, the Atlantic Ocean in the east, Arctic Ocean in the north and South America in the south.
2. The North America is joined with the South America by the Isthmus of Panama.
3. The Bering Strait separates North America from Asia.

Question 2.
Write a note on Mackenzie River.
Answer:
The Mackenzie River is the second largest drainage basin of North America. It has it source from Great Slave Lake and drains into Arctic Ocean.

Question 3.
What type of fruits are cultivated in North America? Name some of them.
Answer:

1. Mainly Citrus Fruits are cultivated in Texas, California, Great Lakes regions and St. Lawrence Valley.
2. The important Fruits of North America are Cranberries, Blueberries, Concord Grapes, Strawberries, Gooseberries and the other fruits.

Question 4.
Give a short note about the lifestyle of an Eskimos.
Answer:

1. Eskimos live in the very cold and inhospitable region where plenty of fish varieties are available.
2. They were able to dress themselves in thick warm clothes made of fur, they live in igloos.
3. Their lives were very simple and they could not alter the environment to any extent.
4. They specially designed a house by ice and is known as igloos.

Question 5.
Which are the densely populated areas of North America?
Answer:
Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida, California, Mexico and Central America are the mostly densely populated areas.

Question 6.
Name the physiographic divisions of South America.
Answer:
On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following physiographic divisions:

1. The Andes Mountains
2. The River Basin or Central Plains
3. The Eastern Highlands

Question 7.
What is called “4’O clock rains”?
Answer:
In equatorial regions convectional rain occurs almost daily in the afternoons. It generally occurs at 4pm that’s why it is known as 4’ O Clock Rain.

Question 8.
Name the flora and fauna of equatorial forest in South America.
Answer:

1. Flora: Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Logwood, Brazil nuts and Ceiba.
2. Fauna: Anaconda, Armadillo, Piranha, Monkey, Snake, Crocodile and Parrots.

Question 9.
What is known as “Estancias”?
Answer:
The Breeds raised on large pasture lands is known as Estancias. These are divided into several paddocks. Besides this, there are small yards known as corrals where animals are sorted and branded. The owner is the Estanciera who has a number of gauchos.

Question 10.
Name the major export of South America.
Answer:
South Americas major exports are mostly primary commodities such as sugar, coffee, cocoa, tobacco, beef, corn, wheat, petroleum, natural gas, linseed, cotton, iron ore, tin and copper. South Americas products include mostly exported to North America and Europe.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the climate of North America.
Answer:

1. The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.
2. Unlike the Himalayas, the Rockies run north to south which do not form climatic barrier and do not prevent the icy winds from the Arctic region and penetrating the central plains which therefore have a very long cold winter and very short hot summer.
3. Precipitation occurs due to cyclonic storms.
4. The Arctic region is cold and mostly dry and has a very short summers and a very long bitterly cold winter.
5. As one proceeds southwards the short summers become warm but the winters are very cold.
6. The central plains have extreme climate from freezing conditions in winter to tropical heat in summer.
7. The South is usually warm all the year round and the regions around the mouth of the Mississippi-Missouri and the Gulf Coast have summer rain from the North East Trades which blow on-shore in summer.
8. The warm moist South Westerlies not only bring rainfall to the North West coast and also keep it warm.
9. The warm Alaskan Current keeps the North West coast ice free.
10. The State of California in USA has a Mediterranean Climate with moist winter and dry summers.

Question 2.
Describe the Heavy Engineering Industries in North America.
Heavy Engineering Industries:
Answer:

1. Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, involvement of huge investment and large transport costs are called heavy industries.
2. These industries depend heavily on the Iron and Steel industry.
3. The important Heavy Industries are automobile industries, aircraft industries, ship building industries, Railway Wagon industries and farm equipment industries.
4. USA is the largest producer of automobiles.
5. The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 3.
Describe the drainage system in South America.
Answer:

1. Owing to the position of the Andes all the great rivers of the continent drain into the Atlantic.
2. The Pacific streams are short and swift but along the coastlands of Peru their waters are used for irrigation and to some extent for hydro-electric power. Amazon is the longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world.
3. This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
4. The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
5. At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.
6. The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
7. The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
8. All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 4.
Write briefly about the major races in South America.
Answer:

1. South America contains the world s most mixed population.
2. Many people in South America are descended from European, especially the Spanish and Portuguese, who begin to arrive during the 15th century.
3. The descendants of African slaves brought over by the Europeans. Native people still live in the mountain and the rainforests and keeping their own languages and traditions.
4. There are three major races found in South America and are
   • American Indian
   • European
   • Blacks.
     The mixed population of Native Indians and Europeans is known as ‘Mestizo’.
5. The mixed population of European and the Blacks is called ‘Mulato’ and the mixture of Native Indians and Blacks is called ‘Zambo’.
6. The current population of South America is 429, 115, 060 (42.25 cores). Population density of South America is 21 persons per square kilometer.
7. South America is positioned 5th rank in total population among the continents

IX. Map skill

Question 1.
With the help of the map given in the text and an atlas, name the seas and bays in North America
Answer:

Question 2.
Mark the rivers Amazon, Orinoco, Negro, Paraguay, Uruguay on a map of South America.
Answer:

X. Activity

Question 1.
Given below are some important cities with industries placed in brackets. Pick out the correct answer from them.
(a) Pittsburgh (Textile, Iron and steel, Shipping)
(b) Chicago (Meat Packing, Woolen textile, Heavy Engineering)
(c) Ontario (Automobile, Paper, Cement)
(d) Chile (Oil refinery, Sugar, Cotton textile)
(e) Uruguay (Leather processing, Copper smelting, Dairy products)
Answer:
(a) Iron and steel
(b) Meat Packing
(c) Paper
(d) Oil refinery
(e) Dairy products

Question 2.
Write down the answers to the question given in blocks:
(a) Name the highest peak in South America.

(b) An active volcano in South America

(c) The combined Parana and Paraguay river.

(d) The highest falls in the world.

(e) The largest river in the world.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Exploring Continents – North America and South America Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In _______ North America was discovered by Christopher Columbus.
(a) 1492
(b) 1491
(c) 1498
(d) 1496
Answer:
(a) 1492

Question 2.
The landmass was named America in _____ after Italian explorer America Vespucci.
(a) 1506
(b) 1507
(c) 1508
(d) 1509
Answer:
(b) 1507

Question 3.
North America is the __________ largest continent next to Asia and Africa
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(b) third

Question 4.
North America has _____ time zones
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 9
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 5.
The _____ small countries which lies to the south of Mexico are referred to as central America
(a) six
(b) seven
(c) eight
(d) nine
Answer:
(b) seven

Question 6.
Death Valley is about _______ m below the sea level and is the lowest part of the continent of North America.
(a) 86
(b) 90
(c) 95
(d) 100
Answer:
(a) 86

Question 7.
Mount McKinley is about m _______ above the sea level and is the highest peak of North America.
(a) 6194
(b) 6195
(c) 6180
(d) 6185
Answer:
(a) 6194

Question 8.
The width of Rocky mountains varies from _______ to _______ kms.
(a) 100 to 500
(b) 110 to 480
(c) 115 to 485
(d) 120 to 490
Answer:
(b) 110 to 480

Question 9.
Mississippi and Missouri together form the _______ longest river system in the world.
(a) sixth
(b) fourth
(c) fifth
(d) third
Answer:
(b) fourth

Question 10.
The warm Alaskan Current keeps the _______ coast ice free.
(a) Northwest
(b) Northeast
(c) Southwest
(d) Southeast
Answer:
(a) North West

Question 11.
Approximately _____ percentage of the total land area is under forest cover.
(a) 10
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50
Answer:
(b) 30

Question 12.
North America accounts for approximately ________ Percentage of the world’s production of timber
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 50

Question 13.
Wheat was introduced by ________ settlers in North America.
(a) European
(b) Spanish
(c) Italian
(d) Dutch
Answer:
a) European

Question 14.
North America is the largest producer of meat and about ________ of the world production.
(a) one fourth
(b) one sixth
(c) half
(d) three fourth
Answer:
(a) one fourth

Question 15.
North America produces about ________ percent of the world total milk and dairy products.
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 25
(d) 40
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 16.
The New England region contains ________ % woolen textile industries.
(a) 70
(b) 80
(c) 50
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 70

Question 17.
North America is the ________ largest produce of synthetic fibres.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(a) second

Question 18.
The population density in North America is about ________ present per sq.km.
(a) 20
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 17
Answer:
(a) 20

Question 19.
North America population is equivalent to ________ % of the world total population.
(a) 4.75
(b) 4.76
(c) 4.77
(d) 4.78
Answer:
(c) 4.77

Question 20.
________ has the biggest railway yard in the world.
(a) Chicago
(b) Vancouver
(c) Newyork
(d) San Francisco
Answer:
(a) Chicago

Question 21.
There are ________ great rivers in south America that drain into Atlantic Ocean.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) six
Answer:
(a) three

Question 22.
The ________ is grown extensively on the Pampas of Argentina.
(a) maize
(b) wheat
(c) millets
(d) sugarcane
Answer:
(b) wheat

Question 23.
Brazil stands ________ in the production of Coffee and in Cocoa in the world.
(a) first, third
(b) third, first
(c) fourth, sixth
(d) fifth, sixth
Answer:
(a) first, third

Question 24.
South America has ________ varieties of fish that inhabit this river.
(a) 750
(b) 850
(c) 950
(d) 550
Answer:
(a) 750

Question 25.
There are over ________ fishing ports on the Peruvian coast.
(a) 50
(b) 45
(c) 40
(d) 55
Answer:
(c) 40

Question 26.
River Amazon has ________ varieties of fish.
(a) 700
(b) 750
(c) 800
(d) 850
Answer:
(b) 750

Question 27.
South America contains ________ of the world’s iron ore reserves.
(a) one seventh
(b) one fifth
(c) one sixth
(d) one third
Answer:
(b) one fifth

Question 28.
Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of ________
(a) iron ore
(b) copper
(c) coal
(d) gypsum
Answer:
(a) iron ore

Question 29.
Brazil is estimated to have about ________ % of the world export of iron ore.
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 14
Answer:
(b) 15

Question 30.
South America is positioned ________ rank in totoal population among the continents
(a) 4th
(b) 3rd
(c) 5th
(d) 8th
Answer:
(c) 5th

Question 31.
Population density of south America is ________ personal per square kilometer.
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 21
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 21

Question 32.
Chile is the ________ largest producer of copper in the world.
(a) second
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(b) third

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is a continent of great physical diversity.
2. The _______ mountain range extends for about. the Panama Strait in the south.
3. The_______ and ______ rivers are the longest rivers in North America.
4. The ______ river is the second largest drainage basin of North America.
5. St. Lawrence has its origin in ______
6. The ______ river forms the boundary between USA and Mexico.
7. Lake ______ is the largest fresh water lake in the world.
8. ______ is a well developed industry particular in Canada.
9. Cuba is known as ______
10. Edible oil is extracted from ______ .
11. Cattle and pigs are fed with ______ and ______
12. The ______ current brings plenty of plankton which provides food for fish.
13. ______ is the largest producer and exporter of all kinds of paper in the world.
14. Rayon and other synthetic fibres are made up of cellulose obtained from ______
15. The important ports in west coast of North America are ______ and ______
16. The Great Lakes region along ______ waterway is the most important inland water wayin North America.
17. USA has the best laid ______ in the world.
18. The Andes are rich in minerals like ______ and ______
19. The longest river in south America is ______
20. The Geo-climatic condition of ______ are ideal for agriculture
21. Brazil is the largest producer of in ______ south america
22. Maize is also knows as ______
23. _____and_____ are the most imortant crops of south america
24. Barley is a member of the ______ family.
25. The extensive tropical grasslands of south America are ______ and ______
26. Quebracho tree yields ______
27. South America is rich in ______
28. Northern Chile has the world s only natural deposits of ______
29. Venezuela is rice in ______ products
30. Peru has some of biggest _____ mines of the world
31. The ______ and ______ river of south America Provide cheap water transport
32. The temperate grasslands South America are Knows as ______

Answer:

1. North America
2. Rocky,4800
3. Mississippi and Missouri
4. Mackenzie
5. Lake Ontario
6. Rio Grand
7. Superior
8. Lumbering
9. sugar bowl of the world”
10. Soya beans
11. Potato and Sugar beet
12. Cold labarador
13. Canada
14. Wood pulp
15. Vancouver and san francisco
16. St. Lawrence
17. roadways
18. Copper and Tin
19. Amazon
20. Pampas
21. Sugar
22. Corn
23. Coffee and Cocoa
24. grass
25. Lianos and Campos
26. tannis
27. Mineral
28. Sodium nitrate
29. Petroleum
30. copper
31. Amazon,la plate
32. Pampas

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. c

Question 2.

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. c

Question 3.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. e
5. a

Question 4.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. b
4. e
5. d

IV. Give reason.

Question 1.
Mississippi river has been given the nick name “The Big Muddy”.
Answer:

1. The Mississippi river has been given the nickname “The Big Muddy” because it erodesa lot of sand and mud as it rushes down the Mountains.
2. Some of the States of the United States are named after the tributaries of two mighty rivers the Mississippi and Missouri.

Question 2.
The Climate of North America is as varied as that of Asia.
Answer:
The vast latitudinal extent from the Tropics to the Polar Regions makes the climate of North America as varied as that of Asia.

Question 3.
South America is also known as Latin America.
Answer:
Together with the Central America, South America is also known as Latin America, having been discovered and colonized mostly by the Latins, i.e., The Spanish and the Portuguese.

Question 4.
Cordilleras come under pacific ring of fire.
Answer:
The Cordilleras are also part of the Fire Ring of the Pacific. Because there are a number of active volcanoes and this area is also subject to earthquakes.

Question 5.
The selvas of the equatorial regions are called the lungs of the world.
Answer:
They are thick forests and provide fresh oxygen so are known as lungs of the world.

V. Distinguish between,

Question 1.
Rocky Mountain and Andes Mountain.
Answer:

Question 2.
Mississippi river and Amazon river.
Answer:

Question 3.
Bear Lake and Lake Titicaca.
Answer:

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the prominent intermontane plateaus of North America.
Answer:
There are high intermontane plateaus between the ranges. The prominent ones are the Mexican plateau, the Colorado Plateau and the Columbian plateau.

Question 2.
Name the fold mountains of North America.
Answer:
Rockies and Appalachians.

Question 3.
What are westerlies?
Answer:
The Westerlies or anti-trades are prevailing winds from the west toward the east in the middle latitudes between 30 and 60 degrees latitude.

Question 4.
Write a note on Grand Banks.
Answer:
Grand Banks: The Grand Banks is among the worlds largest and richest resource areas, renowned for both their valuable fish stocks and petroleum reserves.

Question 5.
Write a note on heavy industries of North America.
Answer:
Industries which require heavy and bulky raw materials using enormous amounts of power, involvement of huge investment and large transport costs are called heavy industries.

Question 6.
Name the important centers of heavy engineering industries.
Answer:
The important Centers of heavy engineering industries are Detroit, Chicago, Buffalo, Indianapolis, Los Angeles, Saint Louis, Philadelphia, New York, Baltimore, and Atlanta in USA and Windsor in Canada.

Question 7.
Name the world’s important ports found in North America.
Answer:
Quebec City, Montreal, Boston, New York, Philadelphia, Charleston and New Orleans are . the Worlds largest ports.

Question 8.
Write a note on Panama canal.
Answer:

1. Panama Canal: In 1914 a Canal was cut across the Isthmus of Panama for 80 kms long which connects the Atlantic with Pacific Ocean.
2. It greatly reduced the distance between Europe and the West Coast of North and South America.

Question 9.
Name the busiest international airports of the world found in North America.
Answer:
New York, Chicago, Los Angeles, Atlanta, Toronto, Montreal and Mexico City are some of the busiest international airports in the World.

Question 10.
Write about Trade in North America.
Answer:

1. North America trades mainly with Asia, Europe and Latin America.
2. Though Alaska belongs to the USA, it has to import practically every resource. It is being developed now due to its mineral wealth.
3. North Americas exports are mainly manufactured goods such as Industrial Machinery, Automobile, Paper, Fish, Arms and Ammunition, Aircraft, Telecom Equipments, Chemical, Plastics, Fertilizers, Wood Pulp, Timber, Crude Oil, Petroleum, Natural Gas, Aluminum, Nickel and Lead etc.,
4. The countries of North America Imports Tropical goods and Textiles from Asia and Africa. The countries of Europe, Japan, China and India are the major trading partners.

Question 11.
What are the main natural vegetation areas of south America?
Answer:
There are four main natural vegetation areas of South America and are the Amazon basin (the Selvas), the Eastern Highlands, the Gran Chaco and the slopes of the Andes.

Question 12.
Write a note on the coniferous forest of south America.
Answer:
The forests on the slopes of the Andes have coniferous such as pine, fir and spruce. These forests are also called Montana. They yield valuable softwood for the paper and pulp industry.

Question 13.
Write a note on Orinoco and Paraguay rivers.
Answer:

1. The Orinoco River originates in the Guiana Highlands and flows northwards into the Caribbean Sea.
2. The river Paraguay has the Parana and Uruguay rivers as the main tributaries which together form and known as the Platte River system.
3. All the rivers are navigable for quite some distance in the interior.

Question 14.
Write a note on Amazon river.
Answer:

1. Amazon is the longest river of South America (6,450km) and is the largest river system in the world. This river has over a thousand of tributaries.
2. The rivers Rio Negro, Madeira and Tapajos are important tributaries.
3. At the point where it enters the sea the river is so wide and powerful that it flows even at a distance of 80 km into the high seas.

Question 15.
Define

1. Isthumus
2. Strait
3. Igloo
4. Selvas
5. Pampas.

Answer:

1. Isthumus – A narrow stretch of land joining two large land masses
2. Strait – A narrow stretch of water joining two large water bodies
3. Igloo – The specially designed a house by ice
4. Selvas – A tract of land covered by dense equatorial forest in the Amazon basin.
5. Pampas – A temperate grassland of South America.

VII. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain about Rocky mountains.
Answer:
The Rocky Mountains:

1. The western part of the continent is occupied by long ranges of young folded mountains interspersed with high plateaus, narrow valleys and broad interior basins.
2. This mountain range extends for about 4800 km from Alaska in the North to the Panama Strait in the South.
3. The width varies from 110 to 480 Kms.
4. They are parallel ranges and are known as the Rockies in the east and the Coast Range Mountains in the west.
5. In Mexico, they are called Sierra Madre.
6. The Rockies and the Coast Range are together called the “Western Cordilleras”.
7. There are high intermontane plateaus between the ranges.
8. The prominent ones are the Mexican plateau, the Colorado Plateau and the Columbian plateau.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the drainage of North America.
Answer:
Drainage:

1. Many rivers flow across this land and some of them following the valleys are formed by the glaciers.
2. The Mississippi and Missouri rivers are the longest rivers in North America.
3. The Mackenzie River is the second largest drainage basin of North America. It has it source from Great Slave Lake and drains into Arctic Ocean.
4. St. Lawrence has its origin in Lake Ontario which flows north east and drains into the Atlantic Ocean.
5. The plateau of the west has been cut deeply by the River Columbia and its tributary which forms many gorges called Canyons. ,
6. The most famous is the Grand Canyon cut by the River Colorado which all flows over the plateau of Columbia.
7. The River Yukon rising in the north-west of the Western mountain system is frozen for eight months in the year. .
8. The River Rio Grande flows into the Gulf of Mexico and forms the boundary between USA and Mexico.
9. The most important chain consists of five lakes. The biggest is Lake Superior and it is the largest freshwater lake in the world.
10. Lake Winnipeg, Great Bear Lake and Lake Athabasca are some of the other lakes in Canada.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the crops grown in North America.
Answer:
(i) Agriculture:
Though least proportion of the total workforce is engaged in agriculture Americas agriculture is most productive in the world. Wheat, Corn (Maize), Oats, Soybean, Barley and many other food crops are grown throughout the vast interior plains.

(ii) Wheat:
Wheat was introduced by European settlers in North America. It is grown extensively in the Prairies of North America. North America is the largest exporter of North America produces more than half of the world total Maize.

(iii) Barley and Oats:
These are temperate crops which withstand cold climate and need less water. The Barley is grown in the United States and are produced in Minnesota, North Dakota and Washington. Barley and Oats is used as cattle fodder.

(iv) Cotton:
Cotton grows well in Southern and Western States and it is dominated in Texas, California, Mississippi, South of the Prairies and the Mexico. Warm summer with frequent rainfall and fertile soil are favorable conditions for growth of cotton crop.

(v) Sugar cane:
Sugar cane is cultivated along the Gulf of Mexico, Parts of Central America and West Indies. It is an important Cash Crop of West Indies. Cuba is known as the “sugar bowl of the world” and it is the worlds largest exporter of sugar.

(vi) Soya beans:
It is raised in the same area where Maize is grown. It is used for extraction of edible ml.

(vii) Potatoes and Sugar beet:
Prairie Region, North Dakota and Minnesota are the producers of Sugar Beets and Potatoes. Sugar beet is used for making Sugar. Potato and Sugar Beet are used to feed cattle and pigs.

Question 4.
Write about population density in North America.
Answer:
Density of population in North America is 19 person/Sq. km.
Population and Density of North America

1. Densely populated areas: Eastern part of North America, Great Lakes region, Florida,
   California, Mexico and Central America are the mostly densely populated areas.
2. Moderate populated areas: Central part of United States, Central Highland, Highlands
   of Mexico, Central and western Canada are the Moderate populated areas.
3. Sparsely populated areas: Northern Canada, Alaska, Rocky Mountain regions and desert regions are sparsely populated areas.

Question 5.
Explain in detail about the physiographic divisions of south America.
Answer:
On the basis of topographical features, the continent may be divided into the following
physiographic divisions:
The Andes Mountains:

1. The Andes are Fold Mountains like the Himalayas.
2. The highest peak in the Andes is Mount Aconcagua (an extinct volcano) on the Chile- Argentina border which reaches at an elevation of 6,961 m. In Chile, the mountains run very close to the coast.
3. The slopes are steep on the western side and gentle on the eastern side like Rockies in North America.
4. There are some active volcanoes like Cotopaxi (5,991m) on the Andes range. The Andes are rich in minerals like Copper, Tin and Precious Gems including Emeralds.

The River Basins (or) the Central Plains:

1. Nearly half of the Continent is covered by the plains. Three great rivers drain into the Atlantic Ocean.
2. The biggest of them is the Amazon.
3. The Amazon basin consisting mainly of the alluvial deposits is the thickly forested
   part of the world.

The Eastern Highlands:

1. These are considerably older than the Andes and are mainly Plateau which is cut by many rivers.
2. They lie to the north and south of the Amazon River.
3. The Brazilian Highlands are found to the south of the Amazon basin.
4. They are gently rolling plateaus with steep cliffs along the east coast.

Question 6.
Explain about the mineral deposits of south America.
Answer:
Minerals:

1. South America is rich in minerals. These mineral deposits are unevenly distributed.
2. South America has many valuable deposits of minerals particularly of iron ore, manganese, petroleum, copper and bauxite. There are some active mines producing silver and gold.
3. Northern Chile has the world’s only natural deposits of sodium nitrate an important ingredient of fertilizers.

Iron ore:

1. South America contains about one fifth of the world s iron ore reserves.
2. Brazil and Chile both have massive deposits of iron ore.
3. Brazil has the second largest iron ore deposits in the world after Russia, Brazil is estimated to have about 15% of the world export of iron ore.

Manganese:

1. Brazil also has large deposits of Manganese.
2. Manganese ore is mined at Lafaiete, Minas Gerais and in the Northern State of Amapa.

Petroleum:

1. Venezuela is rich in petroleum deposits.
2. Argentina, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Chile and Bolivia are the other valuable oilfields. Petroleum is the only mineral produced in substantial quantity.

Copper:

1. Chile is the third largest producer of copper in the world.
2. Copper provides over 40% of exports by value. Some of the biggest copper mines of the world are located in Peru.
3. It is found in the Atacama Desert.

Bauxite:

1. Brazil is the third largest bauxite producing country.
2. An important bauxite mining centre is located near the mouth of the Amazon River. Bauxite is used for aluminum production.

Question 7.
Explain about the industries of South America.
Answer:
Industries:

1. Industries in South America have developed slowly Argentina, Brazil and Chile are the most highly developed industrial countries in this continent.
2. The continent lacks infrastructure (especially transport) which is an essential need for Industrialisation. Railways and the roads could not be developed sufficiently owing to a rugged terrain.
3. In spite of having an abundance of natural resources, industrialisation started quite late in South America.

Question 8.
Explain about the Transport of South America.
Answer:
Transport:
Unlike North America, South America still does not have an adequately integrated transportation network. Significant efforts have been made to improve both the connection within the countries and the linkages between them.

Roadways:

1. South America has an extensive and rapidly expanding network of roads.
2. A Road linking Venezuela and Brazil allows north to south movement through the Amazon Basin.
3. Brazil continues to have the largest network of roads belonging to the Pan American Highway System which extends throughout the Americas.

Railways:

1. In most South American countries, railways have lost their dominant position of the major mode of transportation and have been replaced by the road networks that have developed rapidly since the 1960 s.
2. Moreover, rail transport is plagued by operational problems as well as by obsolete equipment.
3. Many countries have two or more track gauges which impedes the efficient integration of the rails system.

Waterways:

1. Seaways have long been a vital component of the transport systems of South American countries.
2. Majority of imports and exports to and from the continent are moved by ship. South America has a number of outstanding natural harbours.
3. There are two inland waterways system of international importance. They are
   • The Paraguay – Uruguay basin which includes territory in four countries and
   • The Amazon basin which includes six countries. Each has several thousand miles of navigable waterways..

Airways:

1. Airways have developed rapidly since World War II.
2. The increase is particularly significant with respect to passenger traffic and also handling of bulky freights.
3. All the South America capitals and most of the large cities are linked by direct air services to the major traffic centres of the United States and Europe.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 24 Environmental Science

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Environmental Science Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
All the factors of biosphere which affect the ability of organisms to survive and reproduce are called as ………………
(a) biological factors
(b) abiotic factors
(c) biotic factors
(d) physical factors
Answer:
(b) abiotic factors

Question 2.
The ice sheets from the north and south poles and the icecaps on the mountains, get converted into water vapour through the process of …………….
(a) evaporation
(b) condensation
(c) sublimation
(d) infiltration
Answer:
(a) evaporation

Question 3.
The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of …………………….
(a) photosynthesis
(b) assimilation
(c) respiration
(d) decomposition
Answer:
(a) photosynthesis

Question 4.
Increased amount of …………….. in the atmosphere, results in greenhouse effect and global warming.
(a) carbon monoxide
(b) sulphur dioxide
(c) nitrogen dioxide
(d) carbon dioxide
Answers
(d) carbon dioxide

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. (b) Ammonification
2. (d) Denitrification
3. (a) Nitrogen fixation
4. (c) Nitrification

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. Nitrogen is a greenhouse gas – False
   Correct statement: Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains about 78% nitrogen.
2. Poorly developed root is an adaptation of mesophytes – False
   Correct statement: The roots of mesophytes are well developed and are provided with root caps.
3. Bats are the only mammals that can fly – True
4. Earthworms use the remarkable high frequency system called echoes – False
   Correct statement: Bats use the remarkable high frequency system called echoes.
5. Aestivation is an adaptation to overcome cold condition – False
   Correct statement: Aestivation is an adaptation to overcome hot and dry condition.

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the two factors of biosphere?
Answer:
Biosphere is the part of the earth where life exists. All resources of biosphere can be grouped into two major categories namely:

1. Biotic or living factors which include plants, animals and all other living organisms.
2. Abiotic or non-living factors which include all factors like temperature, pressure, water, soil, air and sunlight which affect the ability of organisms to survive and reproduce.

Question 2.
How do human activities affect nitrogen cycle?
Answer:
Burning fossil fuels, application of nitrogen based fertilizers and other activities can increase the amount of biologically available nitrogen in an ecosystem.

Question 3.
What is adaptation?
Answer:
Any feature of an organism or its part that enables it to exist under conditions of its habitat is called adaptation.

Question 4.
What are the challenges faced by hydrophytes in their habitat?
Answer:
Hydrophytes face certain challenges in their habitat. They are:

1. Availability of more water than needed.
2. Water current may damage the plant body.
3. Water levels may change regularly.
4. Maintain buoyancy in water.

Question 5.
Why is it important to conserve water?
Answer:
Importance of water conservation:

• It creates more efficient use of water resources.
• It ensures that we have enough usable water.
• It helps in decreasing water pollution.
• It helps in increasing energy saving.

Question 6.
List some of the ways in which you could save water in your home and school?
Answer:

• When washing dishes, don’t let the tap be open. Fill one sink with wash water and another with rinse water.
• Adjust sprinklers so that only the plants are watered.
• Install rainwater tanks.
• Use hose water once a week to clean the driveway and sidewalk.
• Be sure to turn off the tap while not in use.

Question 7.
What are the uses of recycled water?
Answer:
Uses for recycled water:
Agriculture, Landscape, Public parks, Golf course irrigation, Cooling water for power plants and oil refineries, Toilet flushing, Dust control and Construction activities.

Question 8.
What is IUCN? What is the vision of IUCN?
Answer:
IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources.
The vision of IUCN is ‘A just world that values and conserves nature’.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the processes involved in the water cycle?
Answer:
Water cycle or hydrological cycle is the continuous movement of water on earth. In this process, water moves from one reservoir to another, from river to ocean or from ocean to the atmosphere by processes such as evaporation, sublimation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, surface runoff and infiltration, during which water converts itself to various forms like liquid, solid and vapour.

• Evaporation: Water evaporates from the surface of the earth and water bodies such as the oceans, seas, lakes, ponds and rivers turn into water vapour.
• Sublimation: Ice sheets and ice caps from north and south poles, and icecaps on mountains get converted into water vapour directly, without converting into liquid.
• Transpiration: Transpiration is the process by which plants release water vapour to atmosphere through small pores in leaves and stems.
• Condensation: At higher altitudes, the temperature is low. The water vapour present there condenses to form very tiny particles of water droplets. These particles come close together to form clouds and fog.
• Precipitation: Due to change in wind or temperature, clouds combine to make bigger droplets, and pour down as precipitation(rain). Precipitation includes drizzle, rain, snow and hail.
• Runoff: As the water pours down, it runs over the surface of earth. Runoff water combines to form channels, rivers, lakes and ends up into seas and oceans.
• Infiltration: Some of the precipitated water moves deep into the soil. Then it moves down and increases the groundwater level.
• Percolation: Some of the precipitated water flows through soil and porous or fractured rock. Infiltration and percolation are two related but different processes describing the movement of water through soil.

Question 2.
Explain carbon cycle with the help of a flow chart?
Answer:
Carbon occurs in various forms on earth. Charcoal, diamond and graphite are elemental forms of carbon. Combined forms of carbon include carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and carbonate salts. All living organisms are made up of carbon-containing molecules like proteins and nucleic acids. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of photosynthesis to form carbohydrates.

From plants, it is passed on to herbivores and carnivores. During respiration, plants and animals release carbon into atmosphere in the form of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is also returned to the atmosphere through decomposition of dead organic matter, burning fossil fuels and volcanic activities. Contribution of carbon to the atmosphere could be reduced by aforestation and lesser use of fossil fuels.

Question 3.
List out the adaptations of xerophytes?
Answer:
The conditions that leads to adaptation of plants in a dry habitat are;

1. To absorb as much water as they can get from the surroundings.
2. To retain water in their organs for very long time.
3. To reduce the transpiration rate.
4. To reduce consumption of water.

Adaptations of xerophytes:

1. They have well-developed roots. Roots grow very deep and reach the layers where water is available as in Calotropis.
2. They store water in succulent water-storing parenchymatous tissues, e.g. Opuntia, Aloe vera.
3. They have small-sized leaves with waxy coating, e.g. Acacia. In some plants, leaves are modified into spines, e.g. Opuntia.
4. Some of the xerophytes complete their life cycle within a very short period when sufficient moisture is available.

Question 4.
How does a bat adapt itself to its habitat?
Answer:
Mostly, bats live in caves. Caves provide them protection during the day from most predators and the temperature here is very stable. Apart from caves, bats also live in trees, hollowed logs and rock crevices. They are extremely important to humans as they reduce insect population and help to pollinate plants.

Bats are active at night. This is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. Their thin, black wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption during the day. This may lead to dehydration.

Question 5.
What is water recycling? Explain the conventional wastewater recycling treatment?
Answer:
Water recycling is reusing treated wastewater for beneficial purposes such as agricultural and landscape irrigation, industrial processes, flushing in toilets and groundwater recharge. Conventional wastewater treatment consists of a combination of physical, chemical and biological processes which remove solids, organic matter, and nutrients from wastewater.

The wastewater treatment involves the following stages:

Primary treatment:
Primary treatment involves temporary holding of the wastewater in a tank. The heavy solids get settled at the bottom while oil, grease and lighter solids float over the surface. The settled and floating materials are removed. The remaining liquid may be sent for secondary treatment.

Secondary treatment:
Secondary treatment is used to remove the biodegradable dissolved organic matter. This is performed in the presence of oxygen by aerobic microorganisms (Biological oxidation). The microorganisms must be separated from treated wastewater by sedimentation. After separating the sediments of biological solids, the remaining liquid is discharged for tertiary treatment.

Tertiary treatment:
Tertiary or advanced treatment is the final step of sewage treatment. It involves removal of inorganic constituents such as nitrogen, phosphorus and microorganisms. The fine colloidal particles in the sewage water are precipitated by adding chemical coagulants like alum or ferric sulphate.

VI. Give reason.

Question 1.
Roots grow very deep and reach the layers where water is available. Which type of plants develops the above adaptation? Why?
Answer:
Xerophytes are the type of plants that grow deep roots so as to reach the water source as they exist in a dry habitat.

Question 2.
Why streamlined bodies and presence of setae is considered as adaptations of earthworm?
Answer:
Stream-lined bodies helps them to live in narrow burrows underground and for easy penetration into the soil.
Setae help the earthworm to move through the soil and provide anchor in the burrows. Therefore these are considered to be adaptaions of earthworm.

Question 3.
Why is it impossible for all farmers to construct it in their fields?
Answer:
All farmers may not be able to constmct a pond in their fields as they occupy a large portion of farmer’s lands.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Environmental Science Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… includes plants, animals and all other living organisms.
(a) Physical factors
(b) biotic factors
(c) abiotic factors
(d) biological factors
Answer:
(b) biotic factors

Question 2.
……………… is a type of vapourization, where liquid is converted to gas before reaching its boiling point.
(a) Evaporation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Condensation
(d) Transpiration
Answer:
(a) Evaporation

Question 3.
When there is change in wind or temperature, clouds combine to make bigger droplets, and pour down as ……………….
(a) percolation
(b) infiltration
(c) precipitation
(d) run off
Answer:
(c) precipitation

Question 4.
……………… is the changing of gas phase into liquid phase.
(a) Transpiration
(b) Percolation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Condensation
Answer:
(d) Condensation

Question 5.
During …………….. microorganisms must be separated from treated waste water by sedimentation.
(a) water recycling
(b) primary treatment
(c) secondary treatment
(d) tertiary treatment
Answer:
(c) secondary treatment

Question 6.
Which of the following is not an adaptation of xerophytes?
(a) well developed root system
(b) store water
(c) small sized leaves with waxy coating
(d) straight and branched stems
Answer:
(d) straight and branched stems

Question 7.
…………….. helps earthworm to live in narrow burrows underground and easy penetration into the soil.
(a) Aestivation
(b) Setae
(c) Stream-lined body
(d) Skin
Answer:
(c) Stream-lined body

Question 8.
……………. is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered metabolic rate during winter.
(a) Hibernation
(b) Noctumality
(c) Echolocation
(d) Aestivation
Answer:
(a) Hibernation

Question 9.
…………… provides the primary nutrient important for the survival of all living organisms.
(a) Water cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Carbon cycle
(d) Oxygen cycle
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen cycle

Question 10.
……………….. is the process by which plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter.
(a) Ammonification
(b) Nitrification
(c) Nitrogen assimilation
(d) Denitrification
Answer:
(c) Nitrogen assimilation

II. Match the Following:

Answer:

1. d. Landscape irrigation
2. c. Non-living factors
3. b. Management of water resources
4. a. Living factors

III. State whether True or false. If false, write the correct statement.

1. Water cycle is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll – False
   Correct statement: Nitrogen cycle is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll.
2. Well developed root is an adaptation of hydrophytes – False
   Correct statement: Well developed root is an adaptation of xerophytes.
3. Noctumality is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day – True
4. Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered metabolic rate during winter – True
5. The ability to tolerate temperature depends on the surrounding moisture in the environment – True

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What are the types of biogeochemical cycles?
Answer:
Some of the important biogeochemical cycles are:

1. Water cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Carbon cycle

Question 2.
Write the human impacts on carbon cycle.
Answer:
More carbon moves into the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels and deforestation. By increasing the amount of carbon dioxide, earth becomes warmer. This leads to the greenhouse effect and global warming.

Question 3.
Define ‘Cindrella of the plant kingdom’.
Answer:
Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) is a very charming plant. It is called as ‘Cindrella of the plant kingdom’. It covers entire surface of the water resources.

Question 4.
What are the strategies to support water conservation?
Answer:
Some of the strategies to support water conservation are:

• Rainwater harvesting.
• Improved irrigation techniques.
• Active use of traditional water harvesting structures.
• Minimising domestic water consumption.
• Awareness on water conservation.
• Construction of farm ponds.
• Recycling of water.

Question 5.
Write a short note on water conservation.
Answer:
Water conservation is the preservation, control and management of water resources.

1. Industrial conservation
   Water conservation measures that can be taken by industries are:
   • using dry cooling systems.
   • if water is used as cooling agent, reusing the water for irrigation or other purposes.
2. Agricultural conservation
   Agricultural water is often lost due to leaks in canals, run off and evaporation. Some of the water conserving methods are:
   • using lined or covered canals that reduce loss of water and evaporation.
   • using improved techniques such as sprinklers and drip irrigation.
   • encouraging the development of crops that require less water and are drought resistant.
   • mulching of soil in vegetable cultivation and in horticulture.

Question 6.
What are the limitations of farm ponds?
Answer:
Limitations of farm ponds

• Farm ponds reduce water flow to other tanks and ponds situated in lower-lying areas.
• They occupy a large portion of farmer’s lands.

Question 7.
Why are earthworms called as “farmers friend”?
Answer:
Earthworms are referred to as farmers friends as after digesting organic matter, they excrete nutrient rich Waste product called castings. These are useful to the plant and also as the earthworms burrow the soil, there is sufficient aeration which is useful for the roots.

Question 8.
Explain nocturnality in Bat and Earthworm.
Answer:

• Nocturnality in Bat
  Bats are active at night which is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. The thin, black wing membrane called patagium may cause excessive heat absorption during the day leading to dehydration.
• Nocturnality in Earthworm
  Earthworms have no eyes, instead, they can sense light through the light-sensitive cells called photoreceptors present in their skin. They are very sensitive to bright light and therefore stays in burrows during the day and comes out only at night.

Question 9.
Why is Water Hyacinth responsible for the death of aquatic plants arid animals?
Answer:
Water Hyacinth is called as ‘Cindrella of the plant kingdom’. It covers entire surface of the water resources like ponds and lakes. It will not allow the light to penetrate into the water and increases the Biological Oxygen Demand leading to the death of aquatic plants and animals.3

Question 10.
What is vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the manure prepared by using earthworms to speed up the process of decomposition of plant and animal wastes. Vermicomposting is the fundamental practise of organic gardening. Vermicompost helps better plant growth and crop yield, improves physical structure of soil, increases the water holding capacity of soil and is useful in elimination of biowaste.

Question 11.
Describe methods of water conservation in agriculture.
Answer:
Ways of water conservation in agriculture:
Agricultural water is often lost due to leaks in Canals, run off and evaporation. Some Of the water conserving methods are:

• using lined or covered canals that reduce loss of water and evaporation.
• using improved techniques such as sprinklers and drip irrigation.
• encouraging the development of crops that require less water and are drought resistant.
• mulching of soil in vegetable cultivation and in horticulture.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Explain Nitrogen cycle with a diagram.
Answer:
Nitrogen is primary nutrient important for survival of all living organisms. It is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll. Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains about 78% nitrogen. Plants and animals cannot utilize atmospheric nitrogen. They can use it only if it is in the form of ammonia, amino acids or nitrates. Processes involved in nitrogen cycle are:

• Nitrogen fixation: Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen, which is inert, into reactive compounds available to living organisms. This conversion is done by a number of bacteria and blue green algae (Cyanobacteria).
• Nitrogen assimilation: Plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter like proteins and nucleic acids.
• Ammonification: The process of decomposition of nitrogenous waste by putrefying bacteria and fungi into ammonium compounds is called ammonification.
• Nitrification: The ammonium compounds formed by ammonification process are oxidised to soluble nitrates. This process of nitrate formation is known as nitrification. The bacteria responsible for nitrification are called as nitrifying bacteria.
• Denitrification: Free-living soil bacteria such as Pseudomonas sp. reduce nitrate ions of soil into gaseous nitrogen which enters the atmosphere.
  

Question 2.
Write in detail the adaptations of bat.
Answer:
Mostly, bats live in caves. Caves provide them protection during the day from most predators and the temperature here is very stable. Apart from caves, bats also live in trees, hollowed logs and rock crevices. They are extremely important to humans as they reduce insect population and help to pollinate plants.
The adaptations of a bat in relation to their habitat are;

• Nocturnality
  Bats are active at night. This is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. Their thin, black wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption during the day. This may lead to dehydration.
• Flight adaptation
  Bat wings are entirely different from those of birds or insects. Modified forelimbs serve as wings. The bones in the wings of bats are elongated fingers and are connected by the flaps of skin on either side of the body known as Patagia. Tail supports and controls movements during flight. Muscles are well developed and highly powerful and achieve in beating of wings. Tendons of hind limbs provide a tight grasp when the animals are suspended upside down at rest.
• Hibernation
  Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered
  metabolic rate during winter. Bats are warm-blooded animals but unlike other mammals, they let their internal temperature reduce when they are resting. They go to a state of decreased activity to conserve energy.
• Echolocation
  Bats are not blind. But to fly around and hunt for insects in the dark, they use a remarkable high-frequency system called echolocation. Bats give out high-freqUeney sounds (ultrasonic sounds). These sounds are reflected back from its prey and perceived by the ear. Bats use these echoes to locate and identify the prey.

Question 3.
Write the advantages of farm ponds.
Answer:
The advantages of farm ponds are:

• They provide water to growing crops, without waiting for rainfall.
• They provide water for irrigation, even when there is no rain.
• They reduce soil erosion.
• They recharge groundwater.
• They improve drainage.
• The excavated soil can be used to enrich soil in fields and levelling lands.
• They promote fish rearing.
• They provide water for domestic purposes and livestock.

Question 4.
Write in detail about IUCN.
Answer:
International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN), is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. It provides public, private and non- governmental organizations with the knowledge to enable human progress, economic development and nature conservation to take place together.

1. Vision of IUCN
   The vision of IUCN is ‘A just world that values and conserves nature’.
2. Mission of IUCN
   The mission of IUCN is to influence, encourage and assist societies throughout the world to conserve the integrity and diversity of nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable. It tries to influence the actions of governments, business and other stakeholders by providing information and advice.The organization is best known to the wider public for compiling and publishing the IUCN red list of threatened species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide.

India became state member of IUCN in 1969, through the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change (MOEFCC). Four of 34 globally identified biodiversity hotspots are found in India. They are:

• The Himalayas
• The Western ghats
• The North-East
• The Nicobar islands

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which is the oldest structural temple in south India?
(a) Shore Temple
(b) Mandagapattu
(c) Kailasanatha Temple
(d) Vaikuntha Perumal Temple
Answer:
(a) Shore Temple

Question 2.
In which year were the Mamallapuram monuments and temples notified as a UNESCO world Heritage site?
(a) 1964
(b) 1994
(c) 1974
(d) 1984
Answer:
(d) 1984

Question 3.
What was the special feature of the architecture of early Chola period?
(a) bas-reliefs
(b) vimanas
(c) corridors
(d) gopurams
Answer:
(b) vimanas

Question 4.
Where is the Azhakiya Nambi Temple situated?
(a) Tirukkurungudi
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirunelveli
(d) Srivilliputhur
Answer:
(a) Tirukkurungudi

Question 5.
Who built the Vaikuntha Perumal Temple?
(a) Mahendravarman
(b) Narasimhavarman
(c) Rajasimha
(d) Rajarajall
Answer:
(b) Narasimhavarman

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. _______ was the first rock-cut cave temple built by the Pallava king Mahendravarman.
2. The early Chola architecture followed the style of _______
3. The most celebrated mandapam in Madurai Meenakshiamman temple is the _______
4. Later Chola period was known for beautiful _______
5. Vijayanagar periods unique feature is the _______

Answer:

1. Mandagapattu temple
2. Sembian Mahadevi
3. Pudumandapam
4. gopurams
5. mandapam

III. Match the following.

Answer:

IV. Find out the wrong pair/pairs.

Question 1.
1. Krishnapuram Temple – Tirunelveli
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari
3. Sethupathis – Feudatories of Madurai Nayaks
4. Jalagandeshwara temple – Vellore
Answer:
2. Kudalazhagar Temple – Azhwar Tirunagari

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The predominance of corridors of Rameswaram Temple is striking.
Reason (R):The Temple has the largest set of corridors in the world.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) R is the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the odd one out:
Srivilliputhur, Azhaharkoil, Srirangam, Kanchipuram, Tiruvannamalai.
Answer:
Kanchipuram

Question 4.
Name the epoch of the following:
(a) A.D. 600 to 850 – The Pallava Epoch
(b) A.D. 850 to 1100 – Early Chola Epoch
(c) A.D. 1100 to 1350 – Later Chola Epoch
(d) A.D. 1350 to 1600 – Vijayanagara / Nayak Epoch

Question 5.
Find out the correct statement/s:
1) The Arjunas Penance is carved out of a granite boulder.
2) Meenakshi Amman temple in Madurai represents Pallava’s architectural style.
3) The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas.
4) The Sethupathis as feudatories of Madurai Nayaks contributed to Madurai Meenakshiamman Temple.
Answer:
(1) The Arjuna’s Penance is carved out of a granite boulder
(3) The cave temple at Pillayarpatti is a contribution of Later Pandyas

V. State true or false:

1. Rajasimha built the Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
2. Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of Later Cholas.
3. Rock-cut and structural temples are significant parts of the Pandya architecture.
4. Brihadeeshwara temple was built by Rajendra Chola.
5. Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at temple at Dadapuram.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False

VI. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Write a note on Pancha Pandava Rathas.
Answer:

1. The Tamil Dravida tradition is exemplified by rock-cut monuments such as Pancha Pandava Rathas, namely Draupadi ratha, Dharmaraja ratha, Bheema ratha, Arjuna ratha and Nagula- Sahadeva ratha.
2. The outer walls of the rathas, especially of Arjuna, Bhima and Dharmaraja, are decorated with niches and motifs.
3. The niches have the sculptures of gods, goddesses, monarchs and scenes from mythology.

Question 2.
Throw light on the paintings of Sittanavasal.
Answer:

1. Caves at Sittanavasal, have outstanding early Pandya paintings.
2. Sittanavasal was a residential cave of the Jain monks. They painted the walls with fresco painting.
3. The lotus pond is notable for its excellent execution of colours and exposition of the scene.
4. The image of lotus flowers, leaves spread all over the pond, animals, elephants, buffalos, swans and a man who plucks the flowers look brilliant.

Question 3.
Point out the special features of Thanjavur Big temple.
Answer:

1. At the time the Big Temple of Thanjavur was constructed, it was a huge temple complex.
2. The 216 feet vimana (structure over the garbhagriha) is notable as it is one among the tallest man-made shikaras of the world.
3. Due to its massive height, the shikara is called the Dakshina Meru.
4. The huge bull statue (Nandi) measures about 16 feet long and 13 feet height and is carved out of a single rock.

Question 4.
Highlight the striking features of Rameswaram Temple.

1. In the temple of Rameswaram, the predominance of corridors is striking.
2. This temple has the longest set of corridors in the world. The temple has three sets of corridors.
3. The outer set of the temples corridors has a height of almost 7 metres and stretches for about 120 metres in both the eastern and western directions.
4. The outer corridor is also remarkable for the number of pillars that support it, which is over 1200 in number.
5. Moreover, many of these pillars are decorated by ornate carvings.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1
The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples – Explain.
Answer:
Pallava Epoch:

1. The Pallava epoch witnessed a transition from rock-cut to free-standing temples.
2. Rock-cut temples were initially built by carving a rock to the required design and then rocks were cut to build temples.
3. The Pallava king Mahendravarman was a pioneer in rock-cut architecture. Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
4. The rock-cut cave structure has two pillars in the front that hold it.
5. This cave architecture reached its decadent phase after A.D.700 and gave way to the large structural temples probably because the structural temples provided a wider scope to the sculptor to use his skill.
6. The Shore Temple at Mahabalipuram, also called the Seven Pagodas, was built by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
7. The structural temples were built using blocks of rock instead of a whole block as earlier.
8. Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) is built of cut stones rather than carved out of caves.

Question 2.
Discuss how the architecture of Vijayanagara and Nayak period was different from the one of Pallavas and Later Cholas.
Answer:

VIII. HOTS.

Question 1.
Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin – Explain.
Answer:

1. Dravidian architecture is of indigenous origin. It advanced over time by a process of evolution. The earliest examples of the Tamil Dravidian architectural tradition were the 7th century rock-cut shrines at Mahabalipuram.
2. The absence of monuments in south India prior to the 7th century is attributed by scholar to temples ought to have been built in wood, which were eventually destroyed by forces of nature.
3. It consists primarily of Hindu temples where the main feature is the high gopura, large temples etc.
4. Mentioned as one of the three styles of temple building in the book. Vastu Shastra the majority of the structures are located in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Telungana, Kerala, Tamil Nadu & Karnatada.
5. The Cholas, Cheras, Pandyas, Pallavas Kakatiyas, Kadambas, Chalukyas and the vijayanagar kings contributed to this architecture.

Question 2.
Temple art was at its best during the Nayak Period – Elucidate.
Answer:

1. The practice of fitting the niches with sculptures continued during the Nayak period,
2. There was an increased use of major sculpted figures (relief sculpture) as found at the Alakiya Nambi temple at Tirukkurungudi (Tirunelveli district) and the Gopalakrishna temple in the Ranganatha temple complex at Srirangam.
3. The southern festival mandapam of Adinatha temple at Azhwar Tirunagari and the porch of the Nellaiyappar temple at Tirunelveli are other notable examples.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Art and Architecture of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Narasimhavarman II, built the ______ temple at Kanchipuram.
(a) Vaikuntha Perumal
(b) Kailasanatha
(c) Meenakshi amman
(d) Nellaiappar
Answer:
(b) Kailasanatha

Question 2.
Early Pandyas were the contemporaries of the ______
(a) Cholas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Cheras
(d) Nayaks
Answer:
(b) Pallavas

Question 3.
Tirumalai Nayakkar museum is located at ______
(a) Madurai
(b) Chennai
(c) Salem
(d) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Madurai

Question 4.
______ from where we get early Pandya paintings, are in a damaged condition.
(a) Tirunelveli
(b) Madurai
(c) Tirumalaipuram
(d) Anaimalai
Answer:
(c) Tirumalaipuram

Question 5.
For the Early Chola epoch, the temple at ______ near Tindivanam in TamilNadu, is worth mentioning.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Darasuram
(c) Gangaikonda Cholapuram
(d) Dadapuram
Answer:
(d) Dadapuram

Question 6.
Thanjavur Big temple was built by ______ chola.
(a) Rajaraja
(b) Vijayalaya
(c) Rajendra
(d) Karikala
Answer:
(a) Rajaraja

Question 7.
______ near kumbakonam is a temple dedicated to Iravatheswara.
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Darasuram
(c) Dadapuram
(d) Tiruparankundram
Answer:
(b) Darasuram

Question 8.
The Sethupathis, as the feudatories of Madurai Nayaks, ruled ______
(a) Tirunelveli
(b) Madurai
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 9.
_______ temple has the longest set of corridors in the world.
(a) Meenakshiamman
(b) Nellaiappar
(c) Ramanathaswamy
(d) Jalagandeshwarat
Answer:
(c) Ramanathaswamy

Question 10.
______ Pillars were the peculiar feature of the Vijayanagara and Nayak period.
(a) Cave
(b) Coin
(c) Musical
(d) Elephant
Answer:
(c) Musical

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Narasimhavarman II was also known as ______
2. In the siva temple of Pandyas, the ______ is carved out of the mother rock.
3. The ______ , is a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai.
4. The ______ paintings have similarities with the Ajantha paintings.
5. The Cholas came to limelight in A.D. 850 under ______
6. Temples with the increased number of ______ figures belong to the Sembiyan style.
7. ______ is an illustrious example of early temple that was re-fashioned in the days of Sembiyan Mahadevi.
8. ______ served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.
9. ______ constructed the Iravatheswara temple at Darasuram.
10. In the temple of Rameswaram. the ______ set of corridors is the oldest of the three.

Answer:

1. Rajasimha
2. linga
3. Vettuvankoil
4. Sittanavasal
5. Vijaylaya Chola
6. devakoshta
7. Tiruppurambiyam
8. Gangaikonda Cholapuram
9. Rajaraja II
10. innermost

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

IV.
Asseration (A): The Pallava King Mahendravarman was a Pioneer in rock-cut architecture.
Reason (R): Mandagapattu temple was the first rock-cut temple built by him.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one out.
Vijayalaya, Rajasimha, Rajaraja, Rajendra.
Answer:
Rajasimha

Question 3.
Find out the correct statement/s.
1) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2) The lotus pond is notable for its execution of colours is found in Ajantha paintings.
3) Pillayarpatti is located near Vellore.
4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of Vijayanagara Period.
Answer:
(1) The illustrious example for rock-cut style is unfinished Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
(4) Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars are found in temples of Vijayanagara Period.

V. State true or false:

1. Dwarapalas mean Gatekeepers in temples.
2. Sittanavasal is famous for the tallest Vimanas in the world.
3. The Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur has 55 metre high Vimana The
4. Pallava period featured sculptural rocks.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True

VI. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Which are the most important Pandya cave temples found?
Answer:
The most important cave temples are found in Malaiyadikurichi, Anaimalai, Tiruparankundram and Trichirappali.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temples.
Answer:

1. The illustrious example for rock-cut style is Kazhugumalai Vettuvankoil temple.
2. The Vettuvankoil, a monolithic temple at Kazhugumalai, is hewn out of a huge boulder on four sides.
3. At the top of the temple, sculptures of Uma Maheswarar, Dakshinamoorthy, Vishnu and Brahma are found.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of the Dharasuram temple.
Answer:

1. Dharasuram, near Kumbakonam, is a Later Chola period temple, rich in architectural
   splendour, dedicated to Iravatheswara (Siva as god of lord Indiras elephant).
2. The Mahamandapam is an elaborate structure. The entire structure looks like a ratha because it has four wheels at the Mahamandapam. The sanctum and pillars have many sculptures, of various mythological figures.
3. A compound wall runs round the temple with a gopuram.

Question 4.
What is the significance of the figure of Ganesha at Pillayarpatti?
Answer:

1. At Pillayarpatti a beautiful Ganesha is carved facing the entrance.
2. The importance of the figure, referred to Desivinayaga in the cave inscription, is that there are two arms with the trunk turning to the right.

Question 5.
What is the new form of construction that emerged during the Vijayanagara epoch?
Answer:
Give examples.

1. During the Vijayanagara epoch, a new form of construction emerged. It is the mandapam (pavilion) to where the gods are carried every year.
2. Pillared outdoor mandapams are meant for public rituals with the ones in the east serving as the waiting room for devotees, which adorn the large temples.
3. The kalyana mandapam at Kanchipuram (Varadaraja Perumal temple) and at Vellore (Jalagandeshwar temple) are notable examples.

Question 6.
What are the main features of the Vijayanagara and Nayak architecture?
Answer:

1. The main features of the Vijayanagar and Nayak architecture are decorated mandapas, ornamental pillars, life-size images, gopuras, prakaras, music pillars, floral works and stone windows.
2. Tanks are attached to the temples. Gateways to temple are constructed from four directions with massive gopurams.

Question 7.
Describe the pillars of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period.
Answer:

1. The pillars of this period are more decorative than the previous period.
2. Monolithic gigantic yazhi pillars, horse pillars with life-size portraits of mythological and royal family members, common folk, animals and floral works were made.
3. Musical pillars were the peculiar feature of this time.

Question 8.
In which temples are Vijayanagara and Nayak paintings seen?
Answer:
Vijayanagar and Nayak paintings are seen at Varadharaja Perumal temple at Kanchipuram, Kudalazhagar Temple at Madurai and the temples of Srivilliputhur, Tiruvellarai, Azhaharkoil, Tiruvannamalai and Srirangam.

Question 9.
What do the paintings in temples of the Vijayanagar and Nayak period depict?
Answer:
The paintings mostly have the stories from Ramayana, palace scenes and mythological stories.

Question 10.
Who contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture?
Answer:
The Sethupathis, as the feudatories of Madurai Nayaks, ruled Ramanathapuram and contributed to the Ramanathaswamy temple architecture.

VII. Answer in Detail :

Question 1.
Write a note on Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
Answer:

1. Gangaikonda Cholapuram served as the Chola capital for about 250 years.
2. The Brihadeeshwara temple of Gangaikonda Cholapuram, built by Rajendra Chola,’ is undoubtedly as worthy a successor to the Brihadeeshwara temple of Thanjavur.
3. The height of the temple is 55 metres.
4. The sanctum has two storeys as in the big temple at Thanjavur.
5. The outer wall has many projections with niches and recesses on three sides. In the niches there are the images of Siva, Vishnu and other gods.
6. This temple complex has the shrines of Chandeeswarar, Ganesa and Mahishasura Mardhini.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Universal and Space

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Universal and Space Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers:

Question 1.
The Moon takes ________ days to complete one revolution around the Earth.
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 27
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) 27

Question 2.
If the Moon is appeaing in the sky today near the star Karthikai, the position of the Moon after 27 days is near the Star
(a) Bharani
(b) Karthikai
(c) Rohini
(d) Asvini
Answer:
(d) Asvini

Question 3.
Telescope was invented by
(a) Han Lippershey
(b) Galilio
(c) Nicolus Coppernicus
(d) Ptolomy
Answer:
(a) Han Lippershey

Question 4.
The galaxy containing young and hot stars is
(a) elliptical galaxy
(b) irregular galaxy
(c) cluster
(d) spiral galaxy
Answer:
(d) spiral galaxy

Question 5.
With the launch of this satellite, ISRO became capable of launching 4 ton heavy satellites
(a) GSAT- 13
(b) GSAT- 14
(c) GSAT-17
(d) Way par GSAT-19
Answer:
(d) Way par GSAT-19

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Waxing of Moon means _______
2. Heliocentric model is proposed by _______
3. _______ is the prevailing model of Evolution of the Universe.
4. _______ is a large constellation which covers a large part of the sky.
5. _______ is the first satellite launched by India

Answer:

1. growing or expanding
2. Nicolus copernicus
3. The Big Bang Theory
4. Ursa Major
5. Aryabhatta

III. True or False – If False give the correct answer

Question 1.
On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon rises in the West.
Answer:
False Correct statement: On a full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in the west, Moon rises in the East

Question 2.
The word crescent refers to the phases where the Moon is less than half illuminated.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Galilio accepted the Geo-centric model.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Galilio did nof accepted the Geo-centric model.

Question 4.
Our Milky Way galaxy is identified as an elliptical galaxy.
Answer:
False Correct statement: Our Milky Way galaxy is identified as an galaxy.

Question 5.
The planet Venus in our solar system doesn’t have a Moon.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Older stars : elliptical galaxies :: younger stars : ___________
Answer:
Irregular galaxies.

Question 2.
Nearest galaxy: Andromeda :: Nearest star : ___________
Answer:
Alpha Centauri.

VI. Very short answer:

Question 1.
The word _______ refers to the phases where the Moon is less than half illuminated (cresent / gibbous)
Answer:
cresent.

Question 2.
___________ and ___________ planets never appear in the mid-night sky.
Answer:
Mercury, Venus.

Question 3.
Number of days taken by the Mars to orbit around the Sun.
Answer:
687 days.

Question 4.
In which phase does the size of the planet Venus is small?
Answer:
When it was in Gibbous phase.

Question 5.
The only evidence of the big bang theory is
Answer:
The only evidence of the big bang theory is a faint glow in space, called cosmic microwave background.

Question 6.
The galaxy which contains abundant amount of gas and dust is ___________ ?
Answer:
Spiral galaxy.

Question 7.
Which country launched the world’s first artificial launch vehicle?
Answer:
Russia launched the world’s first artificial launch vehicle.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is epicyclic model?
Answer:

1. To explain the puzzling phenomena astronomers in early times proposed a change in the simple geocentric model. This is called as epicycle model.
2. A small circle whose centre is on the circumference of a larger circle, in ptolemic astronomy.
3. It was seen as the basis of revolution of the seven plants, given a fixed central Earth.

Question 2.
Name the four different types of Galaxies.
Answer:

1. Spiral galaxy
2. Elliptical galaxy
3. Irregular galaxy
4. Barred spiral galaxy

Question 3.
What is constellation?
Answer:
A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky when viewed from the Earth.

Question 4.
Give the expansions of PSLV and GSLV.
Answer:
PSLV : Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle.
GSLV : Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle.

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the waxing and waning phases in Venus.
Answer:

1. As the Venus went around the epicycle, as shown in the diagram Venus would exhibit phases.
2. Also at times the planet would be nearer, making the apparent size grow bigger and at times far making the apparent size smaller.
3. If the Venus was going around the Sun, and its orbit is inside that of Earth, Venus would appear always near the Sun in the sky.
4. It can never be seen in the midnight sky. Two when it is near the Earth, it would be brighter and bigger compared to when it is on the other side of the Sun.
5. Thirdly only if the Venus is revolving around the Sun, it can exhibit gibbous phase, and the size of the gibbous phase smaller than the crescent phase.
6. If the Venus was revolving around the Earth, we can never see the gibbous phase of the Venus and it would be seen only if it is orbiting the Sun.

Question 2.
Write short notes on constellations.
Answer:

1. A constellation is a recognizable pattern of stars in the night sky when viewed from the Earth.
2. International Astronomical Union has classified 88 constellations to cover the entire celestial sphere.
3. Many of the old constellations have Greek or Latin names and are often named after mythological characters.
4. Ursa Major (Saptha Rishi Mandalam) is a large constellation and it covers a large part of the sky.
5. The most striking feature of this constellation is a group of seven bright stars known as big dipper (seven Sages in Indian astronomy).
6. Ursa Minor in Lattin means ‘the little bear’ it lies in the northern sky.
7. The Pole star – Polaris (Dhrua) lies within this constellation.
8. The main group, ‘little dipper’, consists of seven stars and is quite similar to that found in Ursa Major.

IX. HOT Question:

Question 1.
Neelan and Mala are having a conversation about our Universe. Neelan is telling our Earth will be the only planet in the entire Universe to have a life with. But, Mala is opposing his view by citing certain points. What would be the argument of Mala? Do you support Mala? Justify your stand.
Answer:
I would like to support Neelan, because Life is possible only on the Earth due to presence of water, oxygen, various gases and suitable temperature, which enables us to live.
Mala opposed Neelan’s view based on the following points :

1. Like the Sun, there might be billions of other stars with their own planets revolving around them.
2. Thus there are many chances of any planet getting the suitable conditions for supporting life.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Universal and Space Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What type of galaxy is the milky way?
(a) Spherical
(b) Irregular
(c) Spiral
(d) Elliptical
Answer:
(c) Spiral

Question 2.
Stars mainly consists of ___________
(a) Oxygen and hydrogen
(b) hydrogen and helium
(c) Oxygen and nitrogen
(d) Carbon and helium
Answer:
(b) hydrogen and helium

Question 3.
The Great Bear or Saptha Rishi Mandalam are the names of
(a) The Ursa Major
(b) Orion
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) The Ursa Major

Question 4.
GSLV means ___________
(a) Global Satellite Locus Verification
(b) Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle
(c) German Satellite Launching Vehicle
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Geostationary Satellite Launch Vehicle

Question 5.
Parsec is equal to ___________
(a) 2 light years
(b) 5 light years
(c) 4.56 light years
(d) 3.26 light years
Answer:
(d) 3.26 light years

Question 6.
The hottest planet in the solar system is ___________
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Sun
(d) Mars
Answer:
(b) Venus

Question 7.
The first artificial satellite is ___________
(a) Sputnik -1
(b) Sputnik – II
(c) Apollo – II
(d) Vostok
Answer:
(a) Sputnik -1

Question 8.
The nearest galaxy to our Milky way is ___________
(a) Andromeda
(b) Proxima centauri
(c) Large megallanic cloud
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Andromeda

Question 9.
Earth orbit around Sun in ___________days.
(a) 465
(b) 365
(c) 687
(d) 24
Answer:
(b) 365

Question 10.
According to Big Bang theory, space and time emerged together about ___________billions of years ago.
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 14
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 14

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ is commonly defined as the totality of everything that exists or is known to exist.
2. At all times one half of _______ is illuminated by Sun and the opposite side is shroud in darkness.
3. The reversal of direction of planets is called as _______
4. Telescope was invented by _______ but Galilio used it for studying the sky for the first time.
5. To naked eye, _______ is just a gleaming bright spot.
6. The event when the matter confined in a single point and began to expand is called _______
7. The distance travelled by light in one year is called a _______
8. The average distance between the Earth and the Sun is called an _______
9. The diameter of Milky Way is over _______ light years.
10. The solar system travels at an average speed of _______
11. ISRO built India’s first satellite _______ which was launched by the Soviet Union on 19 April 1975.

Answer:

1. Universe
2. Moon
3. retrograde motion
4. Hans Lippershey
5. Venus
6. ‘big bang
7. light year
8. astronomical unit
9. 100,000
10. 828,000 km/h
11. Aryabhatta

III. True or False – If false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
On the full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in west, at the same time, Moon rises at the west.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: On the full Moon day, when the Sun is setting in west, at the same time, Moon rises at the same time

Question 2.
Moon going around Earth with 27 days period.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The word gibbous refers to phases where the Moon is more than half illuminated.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The word refers to phases where the Moon is more than half illuminated.

Question 4.
Kepler found that his observation of Venus gave the observational evidence to support the heliocentric theory.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: found that his observation of venus gave the observational evidence to support the heliocentric theory.

Question 5.
All the galaxies are appearing to move away from us.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Solar system is located, is classified as a barred spiral galaxy.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Unlike galaxy, constellations are more optical appearance and not real objects.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
All planets except mercury in our solar system have Moons.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: All planets except mercury and in our solar system have Moons.

Question 9.
The vision of ISRO is to harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
NASA sent a lunar orbiter, Chandrayan -1 on 22 October- 2008.
Answer:
Correct statement: sent a lunar orbiter, Chandrayan -1 on 22 October-2008

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

V. Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Name the planets which have no Moon.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus.

Question 2.
Name the galaxy in which we live.
Answer:
Milky way.

Question 3.
Name the star that appears to be stationary in the night sky.
Answer:
Pole star.

Question 4.
What is the Indian name of Ursa Minor?
Answer:
Laghu Saptarishi.

Question 5.
Name the planets which have more than 60 Moons.
Answer:
Jupiter and Saturn.

Question 6.
What is the distance of our solar system from the centre of the galaxy?
Answer:
27,000 light years.

Question 7.
What is the distance that light travels in one year called?
Answer:
Light year.

Question 8.
The constellation Big dipper is known by another name also. What is it?
Answer:
Ursa Major.

Question 9.
What are constellations?
Answer:
Constellations are stars that appear to form a pattern when viewed from the Earth.

VI. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Why does the Moon changes its shape daily?
Answer:
Moon changes its shape daily because, it revolves around the Earth and the light from the Sun continuously changes due to the presence of Earth between Moon and the Sun.

Question 2.
What is first quarter?
Answer:

1. When the Sun, Earth and Moon are in 90 degree angle.
2. Half if it illuminated and half is dark side.
3. The Moon will appear as half Moon.
4. The half Moon during the waxing period is called as first quarter

Question 3.
Write a note on planet.
Answer:

1. Planets are heavenly bodies that revolve around the Sun.
2. They do not give out light of their own.
3. Their surface reflects the light of the Sun to us.

Question 4.
Write a note on ISRO.
Answer:

1. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is the space agency of the Government of India headquartered in the city of Bangalore.
2. Its vision is to “harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.”

Question 5.
Why Earth is called a unique planet?
Answer:

1. Earth is unique because it is the only planet on which life is known to exist.
2. The presence of atmosphere, water and suitable temperature make life possible here.

Question 6.
Write a note on artificial satellites.
Answer:

1. Artificial satellites are man-made objects placed in an obit to rotate around a planet – usually the Earth.
2. The world’s first artificial satellite launched was Sputnik-lby Russia, Aryabhatta was the first satellite launched by India.
3. These satellites are used in television and radio transmission, studying agriculture yield, locating mineral resources, weather forecasting, locate different places on Earth.

Question 7.
Stars appear to twinkle. Give reason.
Answer:

1. The stars are remotely located and appear as tiny dots of light.
2. Their light travels long distances to reach us.
3. The atmosphere disturbances do not allow light to reach us in a straight line path.
4. Because of this the stars appear to twinkle.

VII. Long Answer:

Question 1.
Explain about the origin of the universe.
Answer:

1. All the galaxies were appearing to move away from us. Further, farther they are faster they appear to move.
2. Cosmologists, scientists who study the structure and evolution of universe that is cosmos, reason that this imply at one point of time in the past all matter was confined in a single point and since then it has started to expand.
3. The event when the matter confined in a single point and began to expand is called ‘big bang’.
4. This is considered as the origin of our universe as we know it.
5. The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model of the evolution of the Universe.
6. Under this theory, space and time emerged together about 14 billions of years ago.
7. At that time, the entire Universe was inside a bubble that was thousands of times smaller than a pinhead.
8. It was hotter and denser than anything we can imagine.
9. Then it suddenly expanded. The present Universe emerged.
10. Time, space and matter all began with the Big Bang.

VIII. Creative questions: HOTS

Question 1.
It Do stars emit light only during night?
Answer:
No. Stars emit light all the time. But we are not able to see their light due to excess brightness of the Sun.

Question 2.
In the given picture out of the positions P, Q, R and S which will indicate the position of the Sun. Draw the Sun at the appropriate position.

Answer:
Sun will be at position R.

Question 3.
We never see the backside of the Moon from the Earth. Is it true?
Answer:
Yes, as the Moon revolves around the Earth facing one part of the Moon towards the Earth, then we never see back side of the Moon from the Earth.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_________ is a event which causes enormous physical damage to property, loss of life
and change in the environment.
(a) Hazard
(b) Disaster
(c) Recovery
(d) Mitigation
Answer:
(a) and (b)
(a) Hazard
(b) Disaster

Question 2.
Activities that reduce the effects of disaster
(a) Preparation
(b) Response
(c) Mitigation
(d) Recovery
Answer:
(c) Mitigation

Question 3.
A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an _________
(a) Tsunami
(b) Earthquake
(c) Fire
(d) Cyclone
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 4.
A sudden overflow of water in a large amount caused due to heavy rainfall is called _________
(a) Flood
(b) Cyclone
(c) Drought
(d) Seasons
Answer:
(a) Flood

Question 5.
Road accidents can be avoided by permitting the persons who have is _________ allowed to drive vehicle
(a) Ration card
(b) License
(c) permission
(d) Documents
Answer:
(b) License

II. Fill in the blanks

1. A hazard is a ______ event that can causes harm or damage to human and his property
2. Activities taken during a disaster is called ______
3. Displacement of water can produce one or more huge destructive waves known as ______
4. In case of fire accidents call the nearby police station or the no ______ for the fire service.
5. Disaster management refers to ______ of lives and property during a natural or man-made disaster.

Answer:

1. dangerous
2. Disaster management
3. Tsunami
4. 101
5. conservation

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Assertion (A) : In the modern world we can’t live happing everyday.
Reason (R) : Due to pollution and environmental degradation we are undergoing natural hazard and Disaster.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is not correct but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are in correct
Answer:
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth’s crust is called an Earthquake.
Reason (R) : Movement of the tectonic plates, mass wasting, surface fault all leads to earthquake
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R
(c) A is in correct but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are in correct
Answer:
(b) A and R are correct but A does not explain R

V. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Define Hazard.
Answer:
A hazard is a dangerous phenomenon, substance, human activity or condition that may cause loss of life, injury, health impacts, property damage, loss of livelihoods, services, social and economic disruption or environmental damage.

Question 2.
What is disaster?
Answer:
A disaster can be generally defined as “A serious disruption in the society causing widespread material, economic, social or environmental losses which exceed the ability of the affected society to cope using its own resources”.

Question 3.
What are the six concepts of Disaster management cycle?
Answer:
Preparation, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response, Recovery and Development are the six Disaster management cycles.

Question 4.
Name any two agency which involves in warring system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. TNSDMA
2. DDMA
3. SDRF

Question 5.
Waite about any three effects of flood.’
Answer:
Effects:

1. Loss of life and property,
2. Displacement of people and
3. Spread of contagious diseases such as cholera and Malaria etc.,

Question 6.
Give any four Rail safety tips.
Answer:

1. Stay alert. Trains can come from either direction at any time,
2. Never sit on the edge of the Station Platform,
3. Cross the tracks safely.

Question 7.
Name any four different industry which goes under industrial disaster frequently.
Answer:
Defense, Energy, Food and Mining.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Earthquake and Tsunami.
Answer:

Question 2.
Flood and cyclone.
Answer:

Question 3.
Hazard and disaster
Answer:

VII. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Write about disaster management cycle.
Answer:
The six disaster management phases that have been used in the concept of disaster cycle are
as follows;
Pre-Disaster phase:
Prevention and Mitigation:

1. The term prevention is often used to embrace the wide diversity of measures to protect persons and property.
2. Mitigation embraces all measures taken to reduce both the effects of the hazard itself and the vulnerable conditions to it in order to reduce the scale of a future disaster.
3. Therefore, mitigation may incorporate addressing issues such as land ownership, tenancy rights, wealth distribution, implementation of earthquake resistant building codes, etc.

Preparedness:

1. The process includes various measures that enable governments, communities and individuals to respond rapidly to disaster situations to cope with them effectively.
2. Preparedness includes for example, the formulation of viable emergency plans, the development of warning systems, the maintenance of inventories, public awareness and education and the training of personnel.

Early Warning:

1. This is the process of monitoring the situation in communities or areas known to be vulnerable to slow onset hazards, and passing the knowledge of the pending hazard to people harmless way.
2. To be effective, warnings must be related to mass education and training of the population who know what actions they must take when warned.

The Disaster Impact:

1. This refers to the “real-time event of a hazard occurrence and affecting elements at risk.
2. The duration of the event will depend on the type of threat; ground shaking may only occur in a matter of seconds during an earthquake while flooding may take place over a longer sustained period.

During Disaster Phase:

Response: This refers to the first stage response to any calamity, which include for examples such as setting up control rooms, putting the contingency plan in action, issue warning, action for evacuation, taking people to safer areas, rendering medical aid to the needy etc., simultaneously rendering relief to the homeless, food, drinking water, clothing etc. to the needy, restoration of communication, disbursement of assistance in cash or kind.

The Post- Disaster Phase:

Recovery: Recovery is used to describe the activities that encompass the three overlapping phases of emergency relief, rehabilitation and reconstruction.

Rehabilitation: Rehabilitation includes the provision of temporary public utilities and housing as interim measures to assist long-term recovery.

Reconstruction: Reconstruction attempts to return communities with improved pre-disaster functioning. It includes replacement of buildings; infrastructure and lifeline facilities so that long-term development prospects are enhanced rather than reproducing the same conditions, which made an area or population vulnerable in the first place.

Development: In an evolving economy, the development process is an ongoing activity. Longterm prevention/disaster reduction measures. For examples like construction of embankments against flooding, irrigation facilities as drought proofing measures, increasing plant cover to reduce the occurrences of landslides, etc.

Question 2.
Write about flood its effects and the mitigation.
Answer.
Flood: Sudden overflow of water in a large amount caused due to heavy rainfall, cyclone, melting of snow, Tsunami or a dam burst.
Effects:

1. Loss of life and property
2. Displacement of people and
3. Spread of contagious diseases such as cholera and Malaria etc.,

Mitigation for flood:
They include flood walls / sea walls, flood gates, levees and evacuation routes. Non structural measures reduce damage by removing people and property out of risk areas. They induce elevated structures, property buyouts, permanent relocation, zoning, subdivision and building codes.

Question 3.
Write about any five general survival techniques.
Answer:
General Survival Techniques:

1. During the earthquake be under the table, chair, kneel to the floor and protect yourself. Go near a sturdy wall, sit on the floor and hold the floor strongly and protect yourself. Use only torch lights,
2. During flood forecast, store up necessary things like first aid etc. Listen to the local Radio/TV for instructions. Cut off all the electrical supplies during flood and earthquake,
3. In case of fire accidents call fire service (No. 101)
4. If clothes are on fire, “Don’t Run; Stop, Drop and Roll,”
5. Stay alert. Trains can come from either direction at any time,
6. Never sit on the edge of the Station Platform,
7. Cross the tracks safely.

Question 4.
Write about earthquake, its effects, and mitigation steps.
Answer:
Earthquake:
A sudden movement (or) trembling of the earth crust is called as earthquake. The movement of the tectonic plates, mass wasting, landslides, surface fault, etc., causes earthquake.
Effects:
Due to a strong earthquake, loss of lives, buildings, roads, bridges and dams are damaged. Earthquake cause floods, tsunamis, landslides, fires, break down of water supply and electrical lines. It may change the course of a river too.
Mitigation steps:

1. Construct Earthquake resistant building.
2. Seek shelter under stable tables.
3. Move to open areas.
4. Secure your belonging.
5. Put latches on cabinet doors and file cabinets.
6. Store hazardous materials in a sturdy place.
7. Keep fire extinguishers.

VIII. Hots

Question 1.
Why should we know about the natural disasters? .
Answer:

1. To Prevent loss of life.
2. To Protect our belongings.
3. To create awareness among youngsters.
4. To be prepared with emergency phone nos.
5. To be stocked with food, water medicine.
6. For children and old age people.

Question 2.
Four places in India prone to landslider.
Answer:

1. Western ghats and Konkan hills.
2. Darjeeling and Sikkim (NE Himalayas)
3. North west Himalayas (Uttarakand, Himachal pradesh, Jammu and Kashmir)
4. Eastern ghats (Araku region in Andhra pradesh)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Natural Hazards – Understanding of Disaster Management in Practice Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Tsunami is derived from _____ word
(a) Japanese
(b) Chinese
(c) Arabic
(d) Persian
Answer:
(a) Japanese

Question 2.
______ is an earthquake prone area.
(a) Gujarat
(b) Tamil nadu
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu Assam
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

Question 3.
Fire involves _________ basic aspects.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 4.
A cyclone is are area of _________ pressure.
(a) high
(b) low
(c) medium
(d) none
Answer:
(b) low

Question 5.
Drought is an example for _________ hazard.
(a) fire
(b) flood
(c) natural
(d) earthquake
Answer:
(c) natural

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Natural hazards are the environment. phenomenon that might have negative impact on human or the environment
2. Natural hazards are classified into two broad categories
3. Hazards are termed as when they cause destruction to property and human lives.
4. A ________ pressure area circled by high pressure is called cyclone.
5. Hurricane is a ______ hazard.

Answer:

1. natural
2. Geophysical, biological
3. low
4. disaster
5. natural

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. d
4. b
5. a

Question 2.

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

IV. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on stampede.
Answer:

1. The term stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, usually resulting in injuries and death from suffocation and trampling.
2. It is believed that most major crowd disasters can be prevented by simple crowd management strategies.
3. Human stampedes can be prevented by organization and traffic control, such as barriers, following queues and avoid mass crowd.

Question 2.
Name the four aspects of fire. Ans. Fire involves 3 basic aspects
Answer:

1. Prevention
2. Detection and
3. Extinguishing

Question 3.
Why is disaster management necessary?
Answer:
Disaster Management is necessary or expedient for:

1. Prevention
2. Mitigation
3. Preparedness
4. Response
5. Recovery
6. Rehabilitation

Question 4.
Why mitigating the hazards essential?
Answer:
It is more cost-effective to mitigate the risks from natural disasters than to repair damage after the disaster. Hazard mitigation refers to any action or project that reduces the effects of future disasters.

Question 5.
What is disaster management?
Answer:
The systematic process of applying administrative directives, organizations, and operational skills and capacities to implement strategies, policies and improved coping capacities in order to lessen the adverse impacts of hazards and the possibility of disaster is called Disaster Management.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Write about disaster management in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu State Disaster Management Authority (TNSDMA)is responsible forall measures for mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery are undertaken under the guidance and supervision of the Authority.
2. District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) is responsible for Disaster Management at district level
3. Tamil Nadu State Disaster Response Force (SDRF) has been constituted with a strength of 80 Police PersonnelThey have been trained in disaster management and rescue operations in consultation with National Disaster Response Force (NDRF).

Question 2.
Write about state disaster Management.
Answer:

1. State Disaster Management – Perspective plan – 2018 -2030 prepared by the Revenue and Disaster Management Department.
2. Hot line between Indian Meteorological Department and the State Emergency Operation Centre is established and mitigation in the District is done through telephone, fax and IP phones also available which connect the State with District Head Quarters, Taluks and Blocks of the State.
3. Wireless radio network with both high frequency and very high frequency are also available in the State.
   Expand the following:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Tax and its Importance

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Tax and its Importance Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Taxes are ______ payment.
(a) Voluntary
(b) Compulsory
(c) a & b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Compulsory

Question 2.
Minimum possible amount should be spent in the collection of taxes is
(a) canon of equality
(b) canon of certainity
(c) canon of economy
(d) canon of convenience
Answer:
(c) canon of economy

Question 3.
This taxation is a very opposite of progressive taxation.
(a) degressive
(b) proportional
(c) regressive
(d) none
Answer:
(c) regressive

Question 4.
Income tax is a
(a) direct tax
(b) indirect tax
(c) a &b
(d) degressive tax
Answer:
(a) direct tax

Question 5.
Which tax is raised on provision of service.
(a) wealth
(b) corporate
(c) wealth
(d) service
Answer:
(d) service

II. Fill in the blanks

1. _______ is a term for when a taxing authority usually a government levies or imposes a tax.
2. _______ is the method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the income
3. _______ is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.
4. _______ tax burden cannot be shifted by tax payers.
5. Indirect tax is ______ elastic.

Answer:

1. Taxation
2. Proportional Taxation
3. Gift tax
4. Direct
5. more

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV. Odd one out:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a indirect tax?
(a) Service tax
(b) Value Added Tax(VAT)
(c) Estate duty
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(c) Estate duty

V. Correct one out:

Question 1.
Which one of the following tax is a direct tax?
(a) Service tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Sales tax
(d) Progressive tax
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

VI. Give short answer

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
Taxes are defined as a compulsory contribution from a person to the government to defray the expenses incurred in the common interest of all without reference to special benefits conferred.

Question 2.
Why taxes are imposed?
Answer:
Everybody is obliged by law to pay taxes. Total Tax money goes to government exchequer. Appointed government decides that how are taxes being spent and how the budget is organized.

Question 3.
Write name of taxation types and draw its diagram.
Answer:
Taxation Types:
There are four types of Taxation:

1. Proportional Tax
2. Progressive Tax
3. Regressive Tax and
4. Degressive Tax

Question 4.
Write any three importance of tax.
Answer:

1. Health
2. Education
3. Governance

Question 5.
What are the types of tax? and explain its.
Answer:
in modern times taxes are classified into two types. There are:
Direct Tax:

1. A Direct tax is the tax whose burden is directly borne’ by the person on whom it is imposed, (i.e), its burden cannot be shifted to others.

Indirect Tax:

1. When liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that tax shifts on some other person, this type of tax is called an indirect tax.

Question 6.
Write short note on Gift Tax and Service Tax.
Answer:
Gift Tax:

1. Gift tax is paid to the Government by the recipient of gift depending on value of gift.

Service Tax:

1. Service tax is raised on provision of Service. This tax is collected from the service recipients and paid to the Central Government.

Question 7.
What is Goods and Service Tax?
Answer:

1. Goods and Services Tax is a kinds of tax imposed on sale, manufacturing and usage of goods and services.
2. This tax is applied on services and goods at a national level with a purpose of achieving overall economic growth.

Question 8.
Distinction between the direct and indirect tax.
Answer:

VII. Give brief answer

Question 1.
Write briefly about the principles of taxation.
Answer:

1. Canon of Equality: The government should impose taxes in such a way that people have to pay according to their ability does not mean equal amount of tax but it means that the burden of a tax must be fair and just.
2. Canon of Certainity: Certainty creates confidence in the taxpayers cost of collection of taxes and increases economic welfare because it tends to avoid all economic waste
3. Canon of Convenience: Taxes should be levied and collected in such a manner that provides a maximum of convenience to the taxpayers should always keep in view that the taxpayers suffer the least inconvenience in payment of the tax.
4. Canon of Economy : Minimum possible money should be spent in the collection of taxes. Collected amount should be deposited in the Government treasury.

Question 2.
Explain the taxation types.
Answer:
Taxation Types:
There are four types of Taxation:

1. Proportional Tax
2. Progressive Tax
3. Regressive Tax and
4. Degressive Tax

(i) Proportional Taxation is a method, where the rate of tax is same regardless size of the income. The tax amount realized will vary in the same proportion as that of income. If tax rate is 5% on income, Mr. X getting an income of Rs.1000 will pay. Rs.50, Mr. B will be getting an income Rs.5,000 will pay tax of Rs.50. In short, proportional tax leaves the relative financial status of taxed persons unchanged.

(ii) Progressive Taxation is a method by which the rate of tax will also increase with the increase of income of the person a case of progressive taxation if a person with Rs.1000 income per annum pay a tax of 10% (i.e) Rs.100, a person with an income of Rs. 10,000 per annum pays a tax of 25% (i.e) Rs.2,500 and a person with income of 1 lakh per annum pay the tax of 50% that is Rs.50,000.

(iii) Regressive taxation: it implies that hire the rate of tax furrow income groups than in the case of higher income groups it is a very opposite to progressive taxation.

(iv) Digressive Taxes which are to mildly progressive, hence not very steep, so that high income earners do not make a due sacrifice on the basis of equity, are called digressive. In digressive taxation, a tax may be progressive up to a certain limit; after that it may be charged at a flat rate.

Question 3.
Explain the importance of tax.
Answer:
Importance of Tax:
Taxes are crucial because governments collect this money and use it to finance under the
following social projects.
Health:

1. Without taxes, government contributions to the health sector would be impossible.
2. Taxes go to funding health services such as social healthcare, medical research, social security, etc.

Education:

1. Education could be one of the most deserving recipients of tax money.
2. Governments put a lot of importance in the development of human capital and education is central in this development.

Governance:

1. Governance is a crucial component in the smooth running of country affairs.
2. Poor governance would have far reaching ramifications on the entire country with a heavy toll on its economic growth.
3. Good governance ensures that the money collected is utilized in a manner that benefits citizens of the country.

Other important sectors are infrastructure development, transport, housing, etc.

1. Apart from social projects, governments also use money collected from taxes to fund sectors that are crucial for the wellbeing of their citizens such as security, scientific research, environmental protection, etc.
2. Some of the money is also channeled to fund projects such as pensions, unemployment benefits, childcare, etc,

Question 4.
Explain the direct and indirect tax with examples.
Answer:
Direct Tax:

1. A Direct tax is the tax whose burden is directly borne by the person on whom it is imposed, i.e., its burden cannot be shifted to others.
2. It is deducted at source from the income of a person who is taxed.
3. Income tax is a direct tax because the person, whose income is taxed, is liable to pay the
   tax directly to the Government and bear the burden of the tax himself. Eg. Corporation tax, wealth tax gift tax estate dirty.

Indirect Tax:

1. On the other hand when liability to pay a tax is on one person and the burden of that tax shifts on some other person, this type of tax is called an indirect tax.
2. Indirect Tax is a tax whose burden can be shifted to others.
3. For example: Service tax, Sales tax, Excise duty, Entertainment tax.

Question 5.
Why need for tax on people welfare? And explain it.
Answer:

1. The levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governing or to alter prices in order
   to affect demand.
2. Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure like, transportation, sanitation, public safety, education, health-care systems, etc., military, scientific research, culture and the arts, public works, public insurance, etc. and the operation of government itself.
3. When expenditures exceed tax revenue, a government accumulates debt. A portion of taxes may be used to service past debts.
4. Governments also use taxes to fund welfare and public services. These services can include education systems, pensions for the elderly, unemployment benefits, and public transportation.
5. Energy, water and waste management systems are also common public utilities.
6. The purpose of taxation is to maintain the stability of the currency, express public policy regarding the distribution of wealth, subsidizing certain industries or population groups or isolating the costs of certain benefits, such as highways or social security.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Tax and its Importance Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ is a method by which the rate of tax will also increase with the increase of income.
(a) Proportional Taxation
(b) Progressive Taxation
(c) Regressive taxation
(d) Digressive Taxes
Answer:
(b) Progressive Taxation

Question 2.
Wealth tax is an example of ______
(a) direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) a and b
(d) none
Answer:
(a) direct tax

Question 3.
______ is charged from successor of inherited property
(a) Wealth Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Estate Duty
(d) Service Tax
Answer:
(c) Estate Duty

Question 4.
________ is paid by the producer of goods who recovers it from wholesalers and retailers.
(a) Wealth Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Estate Duty
(d) Excise Duty
Answer:
(d) Excise Duty

Question 5.
Swachh Bharat Cess was started from _________
(a) 15 November 2015
(b) 20 November 2015
(c) 10 November 2016
(d) 10 November 2017
Answer:
(a) 15 November 2015

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ________ principles or cannons of taxation still form the basis of the tax structure of a modern state
2. ________ could be one of the most deserving recipients of tax money
3. ________ is a crucial component in the smooth running of country affairs.
4. Taxes generally contribute to the________ of a country.
5. ________ constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
6. ________ is particularly designed to replace the indirect taxes imposed on goods and services by the Central and State.

Answer:

1. Adam Smith’s
2. Education
3. Governance
4. gross domestic product
5. Central Board of Direct Taxes
6. GST

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV. Find the odd one out

Question 1
Movie tickets, sale of goods, game arcades, amusement parks
Answer:
sale of goods

V. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note an corporation tax.
Answer:
Corporation tax is levied on profit of corporations and companies. It is charged on royalties, interest, gains from sale of capital assets located in India, fees for technical services and dividends.

Question 2.
What is wealth tax?
Answer:
Wealth tax is imposed on property of individuals depending upon the value of property. The ‘ same property will be taxed every year on its current market value.

Question 3.
Give an account of Tool tax and Road Tax.
Answer:
Toll tax is a tax you often pay to use any form of infrastructure developed by the government, example roads and bridges. The tax amount levied is rather negligible which is used for maintenance and basic upkeep of a particular project.

VI. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the following
(a) Sales Tax or VAT
(b) Excise duty
(c) Entertainment tax.
Answer:
(a) Sales Tax or VAT
Sales tax is an indirect tax on sale of goods because liability to collect tax is that of shopkeeper but the burden of that tax falls on the customer. The shopkeeper realizes the tax amount from the customer by including it in the price of the commodity that . he sells.
(b) Excise Duty:
Excise duty is paid by the producer of goods, who recovers it from wholesalers and retailers. This tax in India is levied by the Central Government.
(c) Entertainment Tax:
The state governments charge such tax on every transaction related to entertainment. Some examples are movie tickets, video game arcades, stage shows, exhibitions, amusement parks, and sports-related activities.

Students can Download Science Chapter 4 Chemistry in Daily Life Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Chemistry in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Chemistry in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers :

Question 1.
A drug effective in the treatment of pneumonia, and bronchitis, is ______
(a) Streptomycin
(b) Chloramphenicol
(c) Penicillin
(d) Sulphaguanidine
Answer:
(c) Penicillin

Question 2.
Aspirin is ______
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Sedative
(d) Psychedelic
Answer:
(b) Antipyretic

Question 3.
______ are that neutralize stomach acid.
(a) Antacid
(b) Antipyretic
(c) Analgesic
(d) Antihistanics
Answer:
(a) Antacid

Question 4.
The lowest temperature at which a substance catch the fire is called its ______
(a) Boiling point
(b) Melting point
(c) Critical temperature
(d) Ignition temperature
Answer:
(d) Ignition temperature

Question 5.
Which is the hottest part in the flame of candle ______
(a) Blue
(b) Yellow
(c) Black
(d) Way part
Answer:
(a) Blue

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Penicillin was first discovered by ______
2. World ORS Day is ______
3. Combustion is a chemical reaction in which and substance react with ______
4. In the presence of water, the ignition temperature of paper is ______
5. Fire produced by oil cannot be controlled by ______

Answer:

1. Alexander Fleming
2. July 29
3. oxidizing agent
4. not reached
5. water

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Antibiotics does work for viruses like cold and
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement: Antibiotics does not work for viruses like cold and flu

Question 2.
Analgesics are the substances that lower the temperature during fever.
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement : Antipyretic are the substances that lower the temperature during fever.

Question 3.
All fuels form flame.
Answer:
(False)
Correct statement: All fuels do not form flame.

Question 4.
Oxygen is necessary for combustion.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Burning wood and coal causes pollution of air.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Inner zone of flame:: ______, outer zone of flame : : ________
Anwer:
Black, Blue

Question 2.
Tincture:: ______, Histamine : : _______
Answer:
Antiseptic, Chemical messenger

VI. Very short answer :

Question 1.
First viral disease detected in human being was : _____ (Yellow fever / dengue fever)
Answer:
Yellow fever.

Question 2.
______,:_______,:_______ are called green house gases
Answer:
CO₂ , Methane, Chlorofluorocarbons

Question 3.
Name a substance which can be used as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant.
Answer:
Garlic, Turmeric, Aloe vera.

Question 4.
What are the main constituents of dettol?
Answer:
Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpincol

Question 5.
Name the unit in which the calorific value of a fuel is expressed.
Answer:
KJ/Kg.

Question 6.
How many types of combustion are there?
Answer:

1. Rapid combustion
2. Spontaneous combustion
3. Explosion

Question 7.
What are the essential requirements for producing fire?
Answer:
Fuel, Heat and Oxygen.

VII. Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Why should not medicines be taken without consulting doctors?
Answer:
One should not take medicines without consulting doctors because if a wrong medicine is accidently eaten for a disease, it may not cure the disease but actually can have harmful side effects to the body.

Question 2.
Why do antiseptics differ from disinfectants? Give one example of each.
Answer:
Difference between Antiseptic and Disinfectants

Question 3.
What is ignition temperature?
Answer:
The minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire and burns is called its ignition temperature..

Question 4.
If 4.5kg of fuel is completely burnt and amount of heat produced stands measured at 1,80,000 KJ. What is the calorific value?
Answer:
Amount of fuel = 4.5 kg
Heat produced = 1,80,000 kj
Calorific value = ?
Solution:

∴ Calorific value = 40,000 kj/kg

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain briefly about antibiotic and analgesic.
Answer:

1. Many micro organisms and plants synthesize chemicals which are toxic in nature to protect them from invading organisms.
2. Those biosynthesized chemicals can be isolated from the plants/micro organisms and was used as medicines against infectious diseases, these substances were called as antibiotics.
3. Ex: Chloramphenicols, tetracyclines, Penicillin derivatives, cephalosporin’s and their derivatives.
4. The world’s first antibiotic penicillin was discovered by Dr. Alexander Fleming.

Analgesics:

1. Analgesics or pain killers that react like the pain-suppressing chemicals released by the body.
2. They suppress the feeling of ‘pain.
3. This analgesics drug selectively relieves pain by acting either in CNS (Central Nerves System) or on peripheral pain mechanism, without significantly altering consciousness.

Question 2.
Make labeled diagram of a candle flame.
Answer:

IX. Picture based question

Question 1.
Arul and Aakash were doing an experiment in which water was to be heated in a beaker. Arul kept the beaker near the wick in the yellow part of candle flame. Aakash kept the beaker in the outer most part to the flame. Whose water will get heated in a shorter time?

Answer:
The water heated by Akash will get heated in a shorter time because he kept his beaker near the hottest (non- luminous) zone of the flame. But Arul kept the beaker in the luminous zone which is moderately hot. So, it will take longer time.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Chemistry in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity

Question 1.
What happens when you add with these chemicals?
Sugar + Potassium permanganate + Glycerin

Answer:

1. After adding sugar, potassium permanganate and glycerin to the dish, immediately step back because spark and solid potassium permanganate will be expelled from the dish.
2. When potassium permanganate mixes with glycerin, a redox reaction starts. This reaction starts out really slow, but produces a lot of heat, so it will start to speed up bit by bit. As the potassium permanganate oxidises the sugar, it will speed up more and more until it finally starts to smoke and after that it will ignite.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Chemistry in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
is a special combination of dry salt that is mixed with safe water.
(a) PRS
(b) ORS
(c) SOR
(d) ROS
Answer:
(b) ORS

Question 2.
Which of the following conditions is not necessary for combustion?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Adequate ignition temperature
(c) Combustible substance
(d) High calorific value
Answer:
(d) High calorific value

Question 3.
During diarrhoea the intestine is still able to absorb molecules.
(a) glucose
(b) sodium
(c) citrate
(d) none
Answer:
(a) glucose

Question 4.
Antacids are actually .
(a) weak acids
(b) weak bases
(c) strong acids
(d) strong bases
Answer:
(b) weak bases

Question 5.
Our stomach naturally produce to help digest and breakdown food.
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) acetic acid
(c) hydrochloric acid
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) hydrochloric acid

Question 6.
_______ are substances applied to the exterior of a body that kill microbes.
(a) Antiseptics
(b) Antihistamine
(c) Antipyretic
(d) ORS
Answer:
(a) Antiseptics

Question 7.
All combustion reactions are .
(a) endothermic
(b) exothermic
(c) both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) exothermic

Question 8.
Any reaction that involves reaction with oxygen is called reaction.
(a) reduction
(b) ignition
(c) oxidation
(d) none
Answer:
(c) oxidation

Question 9.
Which is the luminous part of the plame?
(a) Outer zone
(b) Middle zone
(c) Inner zone
(d) None
Answer:
(b) middle zone

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The chemical process in which a substance reacts with oxygen to produce heat is called _________
2. Substances which vapourise during burning produce _________
3.  _________ is one that neutralize stomach acid
4.  _________ is a chemical messenger involved in number of complex biological reactions.
5.  _________ are used to treat the disease and to improve our health.
6. Once infection is sensed, the immune system releases a chemical called _________
7. Sensing the pyrogens, hypothalamus increases the body temperature by releasing a chemical _________
8.  _________ that react like the pain – suppressing chemicals released by the body.
9.  _________ resistane is defined as the ability of the microorganisms to resist the effects of an antibiotic to which they were once sensitive.
10. The process of osmosis, the salts and sugars pull water into your bloodstream and speed up _________

Answer:

1. Combustion
2. flames
3. Antacid
4. Histamine
5. Medicines
6. pyrogen
7. prostaglandin
8. Analgesics
9. Antibiotic
10. rehydration

III. True or False – if false, give the correct statement.

Question 1.
If there is inadequate salt in the intestinal wall, the body will not be able to absorb water.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Acidity issues arise when there is excess production of acetic acid due to triggers.
Answer:
Correct statement : Acidity issues arise when there is excess production of due to triggers.

Question 3.
The lining of our stomach with a pH of 4 to 6 is designed as such to withstand a high acidic environment.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: The lining of our stomach with a pH of 1 to 3 is designed as such to withstand a high acidic environment.

Question 4.
The bacteria staphylococcus is meant to cause deadly diseases such as pneumonia sour throat etc.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Fleming named the mould penicillum notatum, from which the antibiotic penicillin was isolated.
Answer:
True

Question 6.
Paracetamol interact with the receptors and reduce the intensity of pain signals to the brain.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Bacteria and virus can thrive above a certain temperature.
Answer:
Correct statement: Bacteria and virus thrive above a certain temperature.

Question 8.
The adverse effects of antihistamines are mouth dryness and sleepiness.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
Complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is yellow and is the hottest part of the flame.
Answer:
False
Correct statement: Complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is blue and is the hottest part of the flame.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. a

Question 2.

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

V. Very short Answers:

Question 1.
What is antipyretics?
Answer:

1. Antipyretics (anti – against and pyretic – feverish) are chemical substances that reduce fever.
2. They suppress the release of prostaglandin and reduce fever.

Question 2.
What is antiseptics?
Answer:
Antiseptics are substances applied to the exterior of a body that kill or inhibit microbes and infective agents.

Question 3.
Name few natural antiseptics.
Answer:

1. Garlic
2. Turmeric
3. Aloevera.

Question 4.
Define histamine.
Answer:
Histamine is a chemical messenger involved in number of complex biological reactions.

Question 5.
Complete the oxidation reaction.
Answer:
CH₄ + 2O₂ → ______ + ______ + Heat energy
CO₂ + 2H₂O

Question 6.
Name a few substances which produce flames on burning.
Answer:
Wax, Kerosene.

Question 7.
Give one example for spontaneous combustion.
Answer:
Phosphorous burns spontaneously at room temperature.

Question 8.
Give one example for slow combustion.
Answer:
Respiration.

Question 9.
What are the classes of fire?
Answer:
There are 5 classes of fire.

1. Class A
2. Class B
3. Class C
4. Class D
5. Class D.

Question 10.
Give example for class B fires.
Answer:
Petrol, turpentine or paint.

VI. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Mention some of the common antacids.
Answer:

1. Sodium bicarbonate (NaHC03)
2. Calcium carbonate (CaC03)
3. Magnesium Hydroxide (MgOH)2
4. Magnesium carbonate (MgCOs)
5. Aluminium Hydroxide Al (OH)3

Question 2.
What is antibiotic resistance?
Answer:
Antibiotic resistance is defined as the ability of the microorganisms to resist the effects of an antibiotic to which they were once sensitive.

Question 3.
What is fever?
Answer:
In normal course, our body temperature is one degree below or one degree above 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit. When the temperature goes above this level it is called fever.

Question 4.
Mention the ways to intake the medicine.
Answer:

1. Oral use
2. External use
3. Injections (Intramuscular/Intra venous).

Question 5.
What do you mean by inflammable substance?
Answer:

1. Substances which have very low ignition temperature and can easily catch fire with a flame are called inflammable substances.
2. E.g. Petrol. Alcohol, LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas), CNG (Compressed Natural Gas), etc.

Question 6.
Write a note on flame.
Answer:

1. Flame is actually a chemical reaction.
2. To be specific, the flame is a mixture of gases (vaporized fuel, oxygen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, water vapor, and many volatile materials) and so is matter.
3. The light and heat produced by the flame is energy, not matter. But fire is a matter.

Question 7.
What is slow combustion? Give example.
Answer:
Slow combustion is a form of combustion which takes place at low temperatures. Respiration is an example of slow combustion.

Question 8.
Mention the conditions necessary for producing fire.
Answer:
The conditions necessary for producing fire are,

1. Fuel
2. Air (to supply oxygen)
3. Heat (to raise the temperature of the fuel beyond its ignition temperature)

Question 9.
Mention the most common types of fire extinguishers.
Answer:

1. Air pressurized water extinguishers
2. Carbon-di-oxide extinguishers
3. Dry chemical powder extinguishers.

VII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Explain the structure of a candle flame.
Answer:
A candle flame has three main zones, they are

1. The outer zone – complete combustion of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is blue and is the hottest part of the flame. It is the non-luminous part of the flame.
2. The middle zone – partial combustions of the fuel takes place and the colour of the flame is yellow and is moderately hot part of the flame. It is the luminous part of the flame.
3. The inner zone – There are unburnt vapours of the fuel and the colour is black and is least hot part.

Question 2.
Write the characteristics of a good fuel.
Answer:

1. Readily available
2. Cheap
3. Easy transport and store
4. Burns at moderate rate
5. Produce large amount of heat
6. Do not leave behind any undesirable substances.
7. Does not cause pollution.

Question 3.
How do fire extinguishers work? Explain.
Answer:

1. Portable fire extinguishers apply an extinguishing agent that will either cool burning fuel, displace or remove oxygen, or stop the chemical reaction so fire cannot continue to burn.
2. When the candle of an extinguisher is compressed, it opens and inner canister of high pressure gases forces the extinguishing agent from the main cylinder through a siphon tube and out the nozzle.
3. A fire extinguisher works much like a can of hair spray.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Why a person is covered with a blanket when the clothes of that person catch fire?
Answer:
When the clothes of a person catch fire, the person is covered with a blanket to extinguish
the fire. This is because the supply of air to the burning clothes is cut off by blanket, due to this the clothes stop burning and the fire gets extinguished.

Question 2.
Why is the candle flame straight?
Answer:
A candle flame is caused by vapour burning above the candle. This burning vapour is hotter than the surrounding air and is therefore less dense. So, by the principle of convection, it “rises” so the flame is always upwards

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Map Reading Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Map Reading

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Map Reading Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The science of map making is called ___________
(a) Geography
(b) Cartography
(c) Physiography
(d) Physical Geography
Answer:
(b) Cartography

Question 2.
North, South, East and West are four directions are called as
(a) Cardinal
(b) Geographical
(c) Latitudinal
(d) Angels
Answer:
(a) Cardinal

Question 3.
Cultural maps are those which shows the ___________features
(a) Natural
(b) Man-made
(c) Artificial
(d) Environmental
Answer:
(b) Man-made

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ______ is an essential tool of a geographer.
2. The directions in between the cardinal directions are the inter mediate
3. ______ in a map which explains the different colours and symbols used in it.
4. Cadastral maps are known as _______
5. Small scale maps are helpful to us to show large areas like ______ and ______

Answer:

1. Map
2. direction
3. Legend
4. Village and town maps
5. continents, countries

III. Circle the Odd one

Question 1.
North East, Scale, North West and East.
Answer:
North East, (Scale) North West and East.

Question 2.
White, Snow, High land, and Plains.
Answer:
White, Snow, High land, and (Plains)

Question 3.
Relief map, Soil map, Physical map and Atlas.
Answer:
Relief map, Soil map, Physical map and (Atlas)

Question 4.
Weather Forecasting, Climate, Rainfall and Temperature.
Answer:
Weather Forecasting,(Climate) Rainfall and Temperature.

IV. Match the following

Answer:

V. Examine the Following Statements

Question 1.
1. An Atlas is a bound volume of different types of maps.
2. Atlas maps are drawn on smaller scale.
3. Insignificant details are omitted
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Question 2.
Statement I : Globe is a three dimensional model of the Earth.
Statement II : It is easy to handle and to carry, as it can be rolled up or folded.
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong.
(b) Statement I is wrong and II is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct and II is wrong

VI. Name the following

Question 1.
Representing the earth on a flat surface.
Answer:
Map

Question 2.
Ratio between the distance on a map and distance on the ground.
Answer:
Scale

Question 3.
Symbols which help to show road ways and railways.
Answer:

Question 4.
A book which contains different kinds of maps.
Answer:
Atlas

Question 5.
A map which shows administration divisions.
Answer:
Political map

VII. Answer the following.

Question 1.
What is a map?
Answer:

1. A map is an essential tool of a geographer.
2. Map is a representation of the earth as a whole or a part of the earth drawn on a flat surface according to a given scale.
3. It can show continents, countries, cities and even a local area are drawn with specific details.

Question 2.
What is cartography?
Answer:
The science of map-making is called cartography (carte means ‘map’ and graphic means ‘drawing’).One who draws maps is called a Cartographer.

Question 3.
What are cardinal directions?
Answer:

1. The cardinal direction are North, South, East and West.
2. A legend (or) key of a map explain the details in the map.

Question 4.
What is an Atlas?
Answer:

1. Atlas is a collection of maps in a book.
2. Atlas maps are small-scale maps covering large areas like continents and countries.
3. Only prominent relief features, main roads and railways important towns are shown in Atlas maps.
4. The study of geographic characteristics of a large area is possible at the time with the help of an atlas.

Question 5.
Name the types of Atlas.
Answer:

1. School Atlas
2. Advanced Atlas
3. Regional Atlas
4. National Atlas

Question 6.
What are the uses of maps?
Answer:
Uses of Maps:

1. Maps enable us to know details of the landforms and other ground features without seeing the area.
2. Maps are of immense importance to the military personnel for planning campaigns.
3. It is used in the aero planes to reach their destinations and the ships to sail safely in the oceans.
4. Maps are used for weather forecasting and agricultural operations.
5. We can study and interpret the future possibilities of soil erosion, settlement patterns, drainage patterns, land utilization, etc.,

VIII. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
What are the elements of maps? Write about it.
Answer:
Elemehts of maps:

1. Maps provide us with a lot of information and one must know how to read and interpret them.
2. Every map is provided with certain features that act as an aid to study the information presented in it.
3. The basic essential elements of a map are title, direction, scale and legend (or) key of symbol.

Title:
Every map has a title that describes the information given in the map. For example, a map with the title India Rivers shows Rivers of India.

Direction:

1. In general maps are drawn with north orientation it helps us to find other direction on the map like East, West and South. In addition to the North notation, latitudes and longitudes were depicted in the margins.
2. The North is notified by letter ‘N’ with an arrow mark.

Scale:

1. The scale of a map is the ratio between the distance on the map between two points and actual distance between the two places on the ground.
2. The scales can be represented as 1cm = 10km.
3. It means 1 cm on the map is equal to 10 km on the ground. It helps to find the distance on the map between two points.

Legend:

1. A legend or key of a map explain the symbols that are used on it to represent various physical and cultural features. .
2. The common signs and symbols are internationally accepted and used in maps are called conventional signs and symbols.
3. Every map has a legend or a key which explains the different colours and symbols used in it.
4. They are depicted by using certain colours, symbols or letters.

Question 2.
What are the three ways of representation of maps?
Answer:
Maps are a graphical representation of the world or a section of the world. As a representation of the world, maps are compressed versions of the real world meaning that a large piece of land is recreated onto a smaller piece of paper or digital file. The relationship between the real world size of a geographic feature and its representative feature on a map is known as scale. There are three main ways that scale is indicated on a map: graphic (or bar), Verbal and representative fraction (RF).

Question 3.
Classify the maps based on functions.
Answer:

1. Physical maps show natural features such as relief, geology, soils, drainage, elements weather, and vegetation.
2. Relief Maps show general topography like mountains valleys, plains, plateaus and rivers.
3. Geological Maps are drawn to show geological structures, rocks and minerals.
4. Climatic Maps show the distribution of temperature, rainfall, clouds, relative humidity, direction and velocity of winds and other elements of weather.
5. Soil Maps which are drawn to show the distribution of different types of soil and their properties.
6. Cultural Maps which shows the man-made features are called cultural maps. Political Maps show the administrative divisions of a country, state or district. These maps facilitate the administration in planning and management of the concerned administrative units.
7. Population Maps show the distribution, density and growth of population, occupation structure and literacy.
8. Economic Maps depict the production and distribution of different types of crops and minerals, location of industries, trade routes and flow of commodities.
9. Transportation Maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway station, airports and seaports, etc.,
10. Thematic maps are all such maps that represent the distribution of a particular feature or theme and its spatial variation.
11. Google maps is a web-based service that provides detailed information about geographical regions and sites around the world.

Question 4.
Write about comparison of map and Globe.
Answer:

Question 5.
Describe the types of maps based on the scale? Write about it?
Answer:
Maps on the basis of scale:

1. Large scale maps show small areas in greater details because they are drawn on a relatively large scale.
2. Cadastral maps are village and town maps which show individual fields and house sites.
3. Topographical Maps shows smaller areas in much greater detail. These maps are prepared by Survey of India. These are also large scale maps which show both natural features like hills and valleys as well as man-made features like buildings, road and canals.
4. Small scale maps that show large areas like continent or countries. These maps are drawn on 1cm = 1000 kms. These are called small-scale maps.
5. Wall maps are small-scale maps showing large areas. They are useful for students in classrooms and offices, small scale maps covers a larger area and depicts with limited information.
6. Atlas is a collection of maps in a book. Atlas maps are small-scale maps covering large areas like continents and countries. Only prominent relief features, main roads and railways important towns are shown in Atlas maps. The study of geographic characteristics of a large area is possible at the time with the help of an atlas.

IX. Hots

Question 1.
Map is an essential tool for a traveler why?
Answer:
Map is an essential tool for a traveller, It helps a traveller to find out direction. It also tells about the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of a place. It helps one to locate a place easily and follow the correct travelling route.

X. Activity

Question 1.
In an outline map of India mark the following features by using symbols and colours
a) Mark any one of the District capitals
b) Draw any one river path
c) Mark any one of the mountains
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw the convectional signs and symbols to given points
(a) Bridge
(b) Canal
(c) Dam
(d) Temple
(e) Forest
(f) Railway Station
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Map Reading Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The ________ of a map describes the information given in the map.
(a) title
(b) scale
(c) direction
(d) legend
Answer:
(a) title

Question 2.
________ maps show distribution of temperature.
(a) Soil
(b) Weather
(c) Climatic
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(c) Climatic

Question 3.
Political Maps show the ________ divisions of a country
(a) administrative
(b) economic
(c) Cultural
(d) Relief
Answer:
(a) administrative

Question 4.
Agriclture is shown in maps using ________ colour.
(a) brown
(b) yellow
(c) green
(d) blue
Answer:
(b) yellow

Question 5.
Black colour indicate ________ line.
(a) railway
(b) transport
(c) settlement
(d) road
Answer:
(a) railway

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Topographical maps show ________ areas in much greater detail.
2.  ________ that show large areas like continent or countries.
3.  ________ are small scale maps showing large areas.
4. Relief maps show general ________ like amountain vally ,plains ,plateaus and rivers
5.  ________ maps are drawn to show geological structures.
6. Every map has a ________ that describes the information given in the map.
7. The North is notified by letter ________ with an arrow mark
8. A sign is a widely used ________ or a ________ Pattern
9. The ________ have standardized a set of conventional signs and symbols.

Answer:

1. smaller
2. Small scale maps
3. wall maps
4. topography
5. Geological
6. title
7. ‘N’
8. symbol,line
9. Survey of India (SOI)

III. Match the following.

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

IV. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Write a note on conventional signs and symbols.
Answer:
A sign is a symbol or a line pattern or a colour on a map that relates to and represents a feature on the ground and is widely used. The Survey of India (SOI) have standardized a set of convectional signs and symbols. Several colours are commonly used in the map.

Question 2.
What are the colours used in the maps?
Answer:

Question 3.
Define scale
Answer:
The scale of a map is the ratio between the distance on the map between two points and actual distance between the two places the ground

Question 4.
What are Economic maps?
Answer:
Economic Maps depict the production and distribution of different types of crops and minerals, location of industries, trade routes and flow of commodities.

Question 5.
What are transporation maps?
Answer:
Transportation Maps show roads, railway lines and the location of railway station, airports and seaports, etc.,

Question 6.
What is a legend?
Answer:
A legend or key of a map explain the symbols that are used on it to represent various physical and cultural features.

Question 7.
What do you mean by conventional signs and symbols?
Answer:
The common signs and symbols are internationally accepted and used in maps are called conventional signs and symbols.

V. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Draw the various symbols used in a map.
Answer: