Laxmi

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Chemical Bonding

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Chemical Bonding Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Chemical Bonding Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Number of valence electrons in carbon is …………….
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 4

9th Science Chemical Bonding Question 2.
Sodium having atomic number 11, ready to ………….. electron/ electrons to attain the
nearest Noble gas electronic configuration.
(a) gain one
(b) gain two
(c) lose one
(d) lose two
Answer:
(c) lose one

Chemical Bonding 9th Class Question 3.
The element that would form anion by gaining electrons in a chemical reaction is …………………
(a) Potassium
(b) Calcium
(c) Fluorine
(d) Iron
Answer:
(c) Fluorine

Chemical Bonding Class 9 Question 4.
Bond formed between a metal and non metal atom is usually ……………..
(a) ionic bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) coordinate bond
Answer:
(a) ionic bond

Chapter 13 Chemical Bonding Question 5.
…………….. compounds have high melting and boiling points
(a) Covalent
(b) Coordinate
(c) Ionic
Answer:
(c) Ionic

Chemical Bonding Questions And Answers Class 9 Question 6.
Covalent bond is formed by …………………
Answer:
(a) transfer of electrons
(b) sharing of electrons
(c) sharing a pair of electrons
Answer:
(b) sharing of electrons

Chemical Bonding Class 9 Pdf Question 7.
Oxidising agents are also called as …………….. because they remove electrons from other
substances.
(a) electron donors
(b) electron acceptors
Answer:
(b) electron acceptors

Chemical Bonding Questions And Answers Pdf Class 9 Question 8.
Elements with stable electronic configurations have eight electrons in their valence shell.
They are ………………..
(a) halogens
(b) metals
(c) noble gases
(d) non metals
Answer:
(c) noble gases

II. Answer in brief.

Chemical Bonding Answer Key Question 1.
How do atoms attain Noble gas electronic configuration?
Answer:
Atoms of all elements, other than inert gases, combine to form molecules because they have incomplete valence shell and tend to attain a stable electronic configuration similar to noble gases. Atoms can combine either by transfer of valence electrons from one atom to another or by sharing of valence electrons in order to achieve the stable outer shell of eight electrons.

Chemical Bonding Notes Class 9 Question 2.
NaCl is insoluble in carbon tetrachloride but soluble in water. Give reason.
Answer:
NaCl is an ionic compound that is soluble in polar solvents like water and insoluble in non-polar solvents like benzene (C₆H₆), carbon tetra chloride (CCl₄). Whereas, CCl₄ is an organic compound, hence it is insoluble m water

Class 8 Science Chapter 13 Chemical Change And Chemical Bond Question Answer Question 3.
Explain Octet rule with an example.
Answer:
The tendency of atoms to have eight electrons in the valence shell is known as the ‘Octet rule’ or the ‘Rule of eight’.
Example: Sodium with atomic number 11 will readily loose one electron to attain Neon’s stable electronic configuration.

Chemical Bond Class 9 Question 4.
Write a note on different types of bonds.
Answer:
All the elements differ with each other in their valence shell electronic configuration. So the way in which they combine to form compounds also differs. Hence, there are different types of chemical bonding possible between atoms which make the molecules. Depending on the type of bond they show different characteristics or properties. Such types of bonding that are considered to exist in molecules are categorized as the Ionic bond, Covalent bond and Coordinate bond.

Class 9 Science Chapter 13 Question Answer Question 5.
Correct the wrong statements.

1. Ionic compounds dissolve in non-polar solvents
2. Covalent compounds conduct electricity in molten or solution state

Answer:

1. Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvents like water. They are insoluble in non-polar solvents like benzene (C₆H₆), carbon tetra chloride (CCl₄).
2. Ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten or solution state.Covalent compounds are non-conductors of electricity.

Class 9 Chemical Bonding Question 6.
Complete the table given below.

Element	Atomic number	Electron distribution	Valence electrons	Lewis dot structure
Lithium	3
Boron	5
Oxygen	8

Answer:

Question 7.
Draw the electron distribution diagram for the formation of Carbon dioxide (CO₂) molecule
Answer:

Question 8.
Fill in the following table according to the type of bonds formed in the given molecule CaCl₂, H₂O, CaO, CO, KBr, HCl, CCl₄, HF, C0₂, Al₂Cl₆
Answer:

Ionic bond	Covalent bond	Coordinate covalent bond
CaO	H2O, HF	CO
CaCl2	CO2
KBr	CCl4, Al2Cl6

Question 9.
Choose the correct answer from the choices given below.
The property which is characteristics of an Ionic compound is that

1. it often exists as gas at room temperature
2. it is hard and brittle
3. it undergoes molecular reactions
4. it has low melting point
5. it is hard and brittle

Answer:
2. it is hard and brittle

Question 10.
Identify the following reactions as oxidation or reduction

1. Na ➝ Na+ + e^–
2. Fe³⁺ + 2 e^– ➝ Fe⁺

Answer:
1. It is an Oxidation reaction.
Oxidation: A chemical reaction which involves addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen or loss of electrons is called oxidation.

2. It is a Reduction reaction.
Reduction: A chemical reaction which involves addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen or gain of electrons is called reduction.

Question 11.
Identify the compounds as Ionic/Covalent/Coordinate based on the given characteristics.

1. Soluble in non-polar solvents
2. undergoes faster/instantaneous reactions
3. Non-conductors of electricity
4. Solids at room temperature

Answer:

1. Covalent compounds
2. Ionic compounds
3. Covalent compounds
4. Ionic compounds

Question 12.
An atom X with atomic number 20 combines with atom Y with atomic number 8. Draw the dot structure for the formation of the molecule XY.
Answer:
Atom X is Calcium with atomic number 20 and atom Y is Oxygen with atomic number 8.

Question 13.
Considering MgCl₂ as ionic compound and CH₄ as covalent compound give any two differences between these two compounds.
Answer:

MgCl2	CH4
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature	It occurs in gaseous state
It has high melting and boiling point	Have relatively low melting point
Soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvent	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents

Question 14.
Why are Noble gases inert in nature?
Answer:
Noble gases are inert in nature due to the completely filled subshells and thus have stable electronic structures which is very difficult to change. The elements Helium, Neon, Argon, Krypton, Xenon and Radon of group 18 in the periodic table are Noble gases.

III. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
List down the differences between Ionic and Covalent compounds.
Answer:

Ionic Compound	Covalent Compound
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature	It occurs in gaseous state
They are poor conductors of electricity in solid state. However, in molten state and their aqueous solutions conduct electricity.	They are bad conductors of electricity
It has high melting and boiling point	Have relatively low melting point
Soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvent	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents
They have high density and they are quite hard because of the strong electrostatic force between the ions. But they are highly brittle	They are neither hard nor brittle. But they are soft and waxy
Undergoes ionic reactions which are practically rapid and instantaneous	Undergo molecular reactions in solutions and these reactions are slow

Question 2.
Give an example for each of the following statements.
a. a compound in which two Covalent bonds are formed
b. a compound in which one ionic bond is formed
c. a compound in which two Covalent and one Coordinate bonds are formed
d. a compound in which three covalent bonds are formed
e. a compound in which Coordinate bond is formed
Answer:
a. Formation of oxygen molecule (O₂)
Each oxygen atom has six valence electrons (2, 6). These two atoms achieve a stable electronic configuration (octet) by sharing two pair of electrons. Hence a double bond is formed in between the two atoms.

b. Formation of Magnesium Chloride (MgCl₂)
Magnesium Chloride (MgCl₂) is an ionic compound formed when the magnesium ion loses two electrons to gain the noble state which is accepted by chloride ion.

c. Formation of coordinate covalent bond between NH₃ ➝ BF₃ molecules
Answer:
NH₃ ➝ BF₃ is a compound formed by coordinate covalent bonding. Here one pair of electrons from ammonia molecule is shared with electron deficit boron trifluoride. This type of bonding is also known as Dative bond.

d. Formation of nitrogen molecule (N₂)
Nitrogen molecule (N₂) is formed by three covalent bonds where three pairs of electrons are shared between the two to achieve a stable configuration.

e. Formation of coordinate covalent bond in ammonium ion (NH₄₊)
In ammonia molecule the central nitrogen atom has five valence electrons (2,5) among which three electrons are shared with three hydrogen atoms and still it has an unshared lone pair of electrons. This lone pair electrons are donated to a Hydrogen ion and thus a N ➝ H coordinate covalent bond is formed in ammonium ion molecule (NH₄₊).

Question 3.
Identify the incorrect statement and correct them.

1. Like covalent compounds, Coordinate compounds also contain charged particles (ions), so they are good conductors of electricity
2. Ionic bond is a weak bond when compared to Hydrogen bond.
3. Ionic or electrovalent bonds are formed by mutual sharing of electrons between atoms.
4. Loss of electrons is called Oxidation and Gain of electron is called Reduction.
5. The electrons which are not involved in bonding are called valence electrons.

Answer:

1. Like covalent compounds, coordinate compounds also do not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity
2. An ionic bond is formed by the electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions. Hence it is stronger than Hydrogen bonding which is formed by electronegativity.
3. The ionic bond is formed between two atoms when one or more electrons are transferred from the valence shell of one atom to the valence shell of the other atom. The atom that loses electrons will form a cation (positive ion) and the atom that gains electrons will form an anion (negative ion).
4. Loss of electrons is called Oxidation and Gain of electron is called Reduction.
5. The electrons which are involved in bonding are called valence electrons.

Question 4.
Discuss in brief about the properties of Coordinate covalent compounds.
Answer:
The compounds containing coordinate covalent bonds are called coordinate covalent compounds.

1. Physical state – These compounds exist as gases, liquids or solids.
2. Electrical conductivity – Like covalent compounds, coordinate compounds also do not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity.
3. Melting point – These compounds have melting and boiling points higher than those of purely covalent compounds but lower than those of purely Ionic compounds.
4. Solubility – Insoluble in polar solvents like water but are soluble in non-polar solvents like benzene, CCl₄, and toluene.
5. Reactions – Coordinate covalent compounds undergo molecular reactions which are
   slow.

Question 5.
Find the oxidation number of the elements in the following compounds,

1. C in CO₂
2. Mn in MnSO₄
3. N in HNO₃

Answer:

1. Oxidation number of C in CO₂ is +4
2. Oxidation number of Mn in MnSO₄ is +2
3. Oxidation number of N in HNO₃ is +5

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Chemical Bonding In Text Problems

Question 1.
Find the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO₄
Solution:
+ 7.
Since manganese atom is attached to four oxygen atoms through three double bonds and one single bond.

Question 2.
Find the oxidation number of Cr in Na₂Cr₂O₇.
Solution:
+ 6.

Question 3.
Find the oxidation number of Cu in CuS04.
Solution:
+ 2

Question 4.
Find the oxidation number of Fe in FeO.
Solution:
+ 2

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Chemical Bonding Additional Questions

I. Short answers questions.

Question 1.
What is an ionic or electrovalent bond?
Answer:
The oppositely charged ions are held together by electrostatic force of attraction which is called Ionic or Electrovalent bond.

Question 2.
What is electrovalency?
Answer:
The number of electrons that an atom of an element loses or gains to form an electrovalent bond is called electrovalency.

Question 3.
Write a short note on oxidizing and reducing agents.

1. Substances that have the ability to oxidize other substances are called oxidizing agents. These are also known as electron acceptors as they remove electrons from other substances. Example H202, Mn04, Cr03, Cr20?
2. The substances that have the ability to reduce other substances are called reducing agents. These are also called as electron donors as they donate electrons to other substances. Example – NaBEl₄, LiAlH₂ and metals like palladium and platinum

Question 4.
What is a redox reaction?
Answer:
Generally, the oxidation and reduction occurs in the same reaction (simultaneously). If one reactant gets oxidised, the other gets reduced. Such reactions are called oxidation-reduction ‘ reactions or Redox reactions.
Ex: 2 PbO + C ➝ 2Pb + C0₂

II. Long answers questions.

Question 1.
Mention some oxidation reactions that occur in daily life.
Answer:
In nature the oxygen present in atmospheric air oxidises many things, starting from metals to living tissues.

• The shining surface of metals tarnishes due to the formation of respective metal oxides on their surfaces. This is called corrosion.
• The freshly cut surfaces of vegetables and fruits turns brown after some time because of the oxidation of organic compounds present in them.
• The oxidation reaction in food materials that were left open for a long period is responsible for spoiling of food. This is called Rancidity.

Question 2.
What is Fajan’s rule? Discuss.
Answer:
As we know, a metal combine with a nonmetal through ionic bond. The compounds so formed are called ionic compounds. A compound is said to be ionic when the charge of the cation and anion are completely separated. But in 1923, Kazimierz Fajans found, through his X-Ray Crystallographic studies, that some of the ionic compounds show covalent character. Based on this, he formulated a set rules to predict whether a chemical bond is ionic or covalent. Fajan’s rules are formulated by considering the charge of the cation and the relative size of the cation and anion.

• When the size of the cation is small and that of anion is large, the bond is of more covalent character.
• Greater the charge of the cation, greater will be the covalent character.

Question 3.
What are the differences between ionic, covalent and coordinate covalent bond?
Answer:

Ionic Compound	Covalent Compound	Coordinate covalent bond
Ionic compounds are crystalline solids at room temperature	It occurs in gaseous state	It can exist as gases, liquids or solids
They are poor conductors of electricity in solid state. However, in molten state and their aqueous solutions conduct electricity.	They are bad conductors of electricity	Coordinate compounds also do not contain charged particles (ions), so they are bad conductors of electricity
It has high melting and boiling point	Have relatively low melting point	Have melting and boiling points higher than that of purely covalent compounds but lower than those of purely Ionic compounds
Soluble in polar solvents and insoluble in non-polar solvent	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents	Soluble in non-polar solvents and insoluble in polar solvents
They have high density and they are quite hard because of the strong electrostatic force between the ions. But they are highly brittle	They are neither hard nor brittle. But they are soft and waxy
Undergoes ionic reactions which are practically rapid and instantaneous	Undergo molecular reactions in solutions and these reactions are slow	Undergoes slow molecular reactions which are slow.

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Think to Win Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 2 Supplementary Chapter 1 Think to Win

A. Choose the correct answer.

Think To Win 6th Std Question 1.
“Girls you are a good team.”
Which team do the girls belong to?
(a) Badminton
(b) Hockey
(c) Relay
(d) Volleyball
Answer:
(c) Relay

Think To Win 6th Std Questions And Answers Question 2.
Spring fields is the name of a ________
(a) team
(b) house
(c) company
(d) school
Answer:
(d) school

Think To Win Book Back Answers Question 3.
The inter-school sports meet refers to competitions among the _______
(a) teams of the same school
(b) schools in the locality
(c) schools in neighborhood
(d) schools from other districts
Answer:
(b) schools in the locality

Think To Win Question 4.
Seema is Rucha’s _______
(a) friend
(b) teammate
(c) younger sister
(d) opponent
Answer:
(c) younger sister

Think To Win 6th English Question 5.
Order the names of the members in Team B relay event. Shabnum was followed by _______
(a) Neelam, Arana, Rucha
(b) Arana, Rucha ,Neelam
(c) Neelam, Rucha, Arana
(d) Arana, Neelam, Rucha
Answer:
(a) Neelam, Aruna, Rucha

MCQ : Additional

Think To Win Supplementary Summary Question 1.
The bicycle wobbled, as ten year old Rucha leaned forward in the seat and pumped the
(a) pedals
(b) tyres
(c) wheels
(d) tubes
Answer:
(a) pedals

Think To Win Summary Question 2.
For a few _______,he let go of his hold and Rucha was on her own.
(a) minute
(b) hours
(c) moments
(d) seconds
Answer:
(c) moments

Think To Win 6th Std Summary In Tamil Question 3.
Rucha _______ that he was not holding the bicycle anymore.
(a) noticed
(b) found
(c) realised
(d) knew
Answer:
(c) realised

6th English Think To Win Question 4.
Rucha cut in before her mother could .
(a) talk
(b) interfere
(c) listen
(d) answer
Answer:
(d) answer

Think To Win 6th Std Summary In English Question 5.
Their house stood _______ in the overall tally.
(a) third
(b) first
(c) last
(d) second
Answer:
(d) second

Think To Win 6th Std Summary Question 6.
He was very _______ about sports, (interesting / enthusiastic)
(a) eager
(b) enthusiastic
(c) curious
(d) interesting
Answer:
(b) enthusiastic

Think To Win Supplementary Question 7.
The girls murmured their _______.
(a) assent
(b) acceptance
(c) approval
(d) grievance
Answer:
(a) assent

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th English Question 8.
Prakash Sir was never far, even as he trained other _______.
(a) students
(b) schools
(c) children
(d) players
Answer:
(c) children

Question 9.
The stadium, where the meet was being held, bustled with great _______.
(a) activity
(b) pomp
(c) show
(d) fun
Answer:
(a) activity

Question 10.
Totally absorbed, she ran, she lost track of time and _______
(a) space
(b) energy
(c) distance
(d) strength
Answer:
(c) distance

B. Answer the Following.

Question 1.
How does Rucha differ from her sister?
Answer:
Rucha is over protective of herself. She never did things rashly. Even in running ‘ and playing, she would be conscious of her movements. But Seema, her younger sister was bold and was ready to take any risks.

Question 2.
‘Springfieids has a runner and they call her P.T. Usha’. Why did they call her so?
Answer:
As the runner, runs very fast, like P.T. Usha, they call her so.

Question 3.
Describe the qualities of the new PIT. Instructor Mr. Prakash.
Answer:
The new P.T. Instructor was very enthusiastic about sports and drove the children . hard – praising them, scolding and correcting them. But most of time, he encourages and advises them a lot.

Question 4.
What words were ringing in Rucha’s ears when she was running in the relay?
Answer:
When Rucha was running in the relay, her P.T. Sir’s words came to her mind. ‘Think to Win’ were the words ringing in her ears.

Question 5.
What did Rucha finally realise about herself?
Answer:
She realised that she had overcome her hesitations and denials. She could win, whenever she chose to do so.

C. Read the given lines and answer the questions.

1. His voice came from some distance away and, Rucha realized that he was not
holding the bicycle any more. “I will fall! I will fall!” she wailed.

Question a.
What was she afraid of?
Answer:
She was afraid of losing her balance and that she may fall down.

Question b.
Was the boy closely following her?
Answer:
No, the boy was not closely following her.

2. For the past two weeks he had been teaching her to ride.

Question a.
Who was teaching whom?
Answer:
Vishnu was teaching Rucha.

Question b.
What was he teaching?
Answer:
He was teaching Rucha to ride the bicycle.

3. Even ‘P.T. Usha’ came to shake her hand. “I thought I was fast, but you were simply
superb! ” she shook hands with her.

Question a.
Who does the word ‘you’ refer to?
Answer:
‘You’ refers to Rucha, the winner.

Question b.
What quality of the speaker is revealed?
Answer:
The speaker’s attitude to take her loss sportively and the good heart to praise the opponent’s ability.

Read The Given Lines and Answer The Questions – Additional

1. ‘Mummy may I ride the bicycle?’

Question a.
Who wants to ride the bicycle?
Answer:
Seema, Rucha’s sister, wanted to ride the bicycle.

Question b.
Was she allowed to ride the bicycle?
Answer:
No, she was not allowed to ride the bicycle.

2. ‘Cheer up now,’ Aruna told her. ‘At least you tried, I say, the inter-school sports meet is coming up. You are in the school’s relay team, aren’t,you?’

Question a.
Why was Aruna consoling Rucha?
Answer:
Aruna was consoling her because she was upset that she has lost her game by a couple of points.

Question b.
In which team was Rucha in the inter school sports meet?
Answer:
She was in the school’s relay team.

3. ‘Prakash Sir overheard this conversation. He took a quick decision.’

Question a.
What was the conversation overheard by Mr. Prakash?
Answer:
He heard the girls talking about a fast runner in Springfields school and they call her as P.T. Usha.

Question b.
Who Informed this to the other girls?
Answer:
Shabnam informed this message to the other girls.

D. Think and Answer

Imagine you are Rucha and make a diary entry on your feelings about the day’s happening and your victory. The start is given. Complete the diary.

Answer:
January 29, 2018.
Dear Diary,

Hurrah, we have won the race. I can’t believe it. At first, I thought, I would once again fail at the last minute and was not ready to take part in the race. But I did run and we did win. I am so happy. I took Sir’s advice. It really helped me. I was so excited when everyone applauded me. It was a proud moment for me, when our team was called to the victory stand. I had overcome my hesitations and denials. Now, I could win everything, whenever I chose to do so. I am really thankful to my P.T. Sir, who had motivated me and advised me to have a positive attitude every time I meet my opponent.

E. Discuss in class.

Question 1.
How did Rucha overcome her self-doubts? How can shyness and fear be overcome?
Answer:
Rucha was overprotective of herself. She never did things rashly. She would be conscious of her movements, even in running and playing. Her friends used to console her and motivate her, whenever she failed in her attempts. She had hesitations, self-doubts and denials in whatever task was done by her. Her RT instructor Mr. Prakash observed these negative qualities in her and advised her to have only positive attitude towards everything. He asked her to believe in herself and don’t ever think of losing, think to win. In the relay race, she put aside all her fears and self doubts about her ability. She just remembered her P.T. Sir’s words and ran fast to the finishing line. She won the race and everyone was excited about this attempt of Rucha. She made it because she overcame her self-doubts.

Your shyness and fear can be overcome by being confident always, trying new things, engaging yourself in talks with others, giving speeches or presentations often, walking with your head high and be aware of what is happening around you.

F. Role play.

Question:
Work in groups and enact the story.
Select the character you are going to impersonate.

• Read the story carefully.
• Prepare your dialogue.
• Co-ordinate with your group.
• Present your skit to the class.

(To be done by the students)

Project

G. Prepare a collage on different sports and present it in the class.

A Collage on different sports

Collage: An artistic composition of materials and objects pasted over a surface, often with unifying lines and colour.

Steps to Success

Identify the sport name from the given wuzzies. One is done for you.

Answer:

Find the odd one out.
eg. Weight lifting, Boxing, Silambam, Fencing – [Weight lifting]

1. Hide and Seek, Kho-Kho, Tennikoit, Kabaddi [Hide and seek]
2. Badminton, Cycling, Tennis, Squash [Cycling]
3. Trapeze, Throw Ball, Bowling, Goalball [Bowling]
4. Snooker, Polo, Five Pins, Carrom Board [Polo]
5. Cricket, Base Ball, Hockey, Basket Ball [Basket ball]

Think to Win Additional Questions

I. Identify The Character/Speaker.

1. ‘Hold tight, Vishnu! I will fall! ’ – Rucha to Vishnu
2. ‘Don’t worry, Ruchaji, you are doing well’. – Vishnu to Rucha
3. ‘You fell. Doesn’t matter. We all do, when we are learning to ride a cycle. ’ – Rucha’s niother to Rucha
4. ‘Rucha, hit harder.’ – Rucha’s friends to Rucha
5. ‘ You must practice more. That is all. ’ – Aruna to Rucha
6. ‘I will probably make everyone lose the race.’ – Rucha to Aruna
7. ‘Rucha, you are nimble and light. You can do better than that.’ – PT. Instructor to Rucha
8. ‘Has anyone heard about her? It seems they call herP.T. Usha!’ , – Shabnam to her friends
9. ‘No self-doubts, Rucha! This is exactly what I have been wanting to tell you.’ – P.T. Instructor to Rucha
10. ‘Girls, you are a good team. You can win. Go ahead and show your mettle! Good luck.’ – P.T. Instructor to the girls team

II. Read the Following. State True or False.

1. Rucha complained that the bicycle was too small for her.
2. Rucha’s sister, seema was younger to her by five years.
3. There was a considerable contrast between the two sisters.
4. Rucha finally agreed to stand in, if no better person could be found.
5. The spring fields did not have a very fast runner.
6. When Prakash overheard the conversation, he took a quick decision.
7. ‘You must have a positive attitude’ said Prakash Sir to Rucha.
8. The stadium, where the meet was being held was simple and had less of activity.
9. Prakash Sir, did not give the final words of encouragement to the girls.
10. She had overcome her hesitations and denials.

Answers:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False
6. True
7. True
8. False
9. False
10. True

III. Rearrange the Following jumbled Sentences in The Correct Order.

A.
1. For the past two weeks, he had been teaching her to fide.
2. For a few moments he let go of his hold and Rucha was on her own.
3. The bicycle wobbled as ten year old Rucha leaned forward in the seat and pumped the pedals.
4. ‘Hold tight, Vishnu, I will fall!’ she shouted to the boy, who ran behind, steadying the bicycle.
5. ‘Don’t worry Ruchaji, you are doing well’ he puffed.
Answer:
3, 4, 1, 5, 2
3. The bicycle wobbled as ten year old Rucha leaned forward in the seat and pumped the pedals.
4. ‘Hold tight, Vishnu, I will fall!’ she shouted to the boy, who ran behind, steadying the bicycle.
1. For the past two weeks, he had been teaching her to ride.
5. ‘Don’t worry Ruchaji, you are doing well’ he puffed.
2. or a few moments he let go of his hold and Rucha was on her own.

B.
1. ‘The bicycle is too big for me’ Rucha complained.
2. She stormed into the house to complain.
3. At least you are not hurt.
4. ‘You fell. Doesn’t matter,” said her mother calmly.
5. We all do, when we are learning to ride a cycle.
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 3, 1
2. She stormed into the house to complain.
4. ‘You fell. Doesn’t matter,” said her mother calmly.
5. We all do, when we are learning to ride a cycle.
3. At least you are not hurt.
1. ‘The bicycle is too big for me’ Rucha complained.

C.
1. “I can’t seem to win,” said Rucha remorsefully.
2. Rucha lost the game by a couple of points.
3. ‘You played all right, ’ Arana consoled her.
4. ‘The time when your opponent was at the net, if you had hit just a little harder over her head, you could have won that point’.
5. Their house stood second in the overall tally.
Answer:
2, 5, 1, 3, 4
2. Rucha lost the game by a couple of points.
5. Their house stood second in the overall tally.
1. “I can’t seem to win,” said Rucha remorsefully.
3. ‘You played all right, ’ Arana consoled her.
4. ‘The time when your opponent was at the net, if you had hit just a little harder over her head, you could have won that point’.

D.
1. There was laughter and a great deal of joviality as Prakash Sir had seen to it that they were fit and relaxed as well.
2. The next few days, he saw the girls training extra hard.
3. The stadium, where the meet was being held, bustled with great activity.
4. Prakash Sir was never far, even as he trained other children.
5. The day of the sport meet dawned and the children piled into buses to reach the venue.
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 1, 3
2. The next few days, he saw the girls training extra hard.
4. Prakash Sir was never far, even as he trained other children.
5. The day of the sport meet dawned and the children piled into buses to reach the venue.
1. There was laughter and a great deal of joviality as Prakash Sir had seen to it that they were fit and relaxed as well.
3. The stadium, where the meet was being held, bustled with great activity.

IV. Read The Passage and Answer the Questions.

1. The bicycle wobbled as ten-year-old Rucha leaned forward in the seat and pumped the pedals. “Hold tight, Vishnu! I will fall!” she shouted to the boy, who ran behind, steadying the bicycle. For the past two weeks he had been teaching her to ride. “Don’t worry, Ruchaji, you are doing well,” he puffed. For a few moments he let go of his hold and Rucha was on her own.

Question a.
How old was Rucha?
Answer:
She was ten years old.

Question b.
Who was teaching Rucha to ride a bicycle?
Answer:
Vishnu was teaching Rucha to ride a bicycle.

Question c.
For how many days, he had been teaching her?
Answer:
He had been teaching her, for the past two weeks.

2. Next week, inter-house badminton matches were to be held in the school. Rucha was in the senior team. She gave up other activities and practised with her friends. “Rucha, hit harder,” they told her on the day of the match. Arana, a very good player of their house, was expected to win. And she did. Rucha and her opponent were almost evenly matched and Rucha lost the game by a couple of points.

Question a.
What matches were to be held in the school?
Answer:
Inter-house badminton matches were to be held in the school.

Question b.
What did Rucha do?
Answer:
She gave up other activities and practised with her friends.

Question c.
In which team was Rucha?
Answer:
She was in the Senior team.

3. He was very enthusiastic about sports and drove the children hard- praising, scolding, correcting but mostly encouraging them. “Rucha, you are nimble and light. You can do better than that,” he told her often. “How can I do that?” Rucha confided to Arana. “I will most probably fall.” “Don’t be silly. We are all trying to better ourselves. You must try too,” Arana told her.

Question a.
How was the P. T. Instructor?
Answer:
He was very enthusiastic about sports and drove the children hard.

Question b.
What did he tell Rucha often?
Answer:
He told her often that she was nimble and light. She can do better.

Question c.
Who encouraged her apart from the P. T. Instructor?
Answer:
Arana her teammate encouraged her.

4. Shabnam, a tall girl, was their first runner. She would pass the baton to Neelam, Neelam would pass it to Arana, and Arana to Rucha, who would be finishing the race for them. The whistle blew and the first runners were off. With her long strides, Shabnam gave the team a marginal lead. But by the time Neelam had passed the baton to Arana, both Team A and D had drawn level with her. Then, the runner of Team D fumbled and dropped the baton. Arana ran for all she was worth, just managing to keep abreast of the runner of the Team A.

Question a.
Who was the first runner?
Answer:
Shabnam was the first runner.

Question b.
What happened, when Neelam had passed the baton to Aruna?
Answer:
When Neelam had passed the baton to Aruna, both Team A and D had drawn level with her.

Question c.
How did Aruna ran?
Answer:
Aruna ran for all she was worth, just managing to keep abreast of the runner of the team A.

V. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What happened when Rucha was learning to ride the bicycle?
Answer:
Vishnu was teaching Rucha, a ten year old girl to ride a bicycle. Rucha was not confident of riding it smoothly. She was frightened that she would fall, if Vishnu doesn’t hold the bicycle. Vishnu was teaching her to ride the bicycle for the past two weeks. Though he told Rucha that she was doing well, Rucha had self-doubts about her riding. She was insisting Vishnu to hold the bicycle tightly. After some time, she realized that Vishnu had stopped holding the bicycle. She called out to him and cried that she will fall. Before Vishnu could reach her, the bicycle wobbled, tilted to one side and Rucha was deposited into a bush.

Question 2.
What type of a person was Mr. Prakash, the P. T. Instructor and how did he manage to motivate and help the girls?
Answer:
The P. T. Instructor, Mr. Prakash was very enthusiastic about sports and drove the children hard – praising, scolding, correcting but mostly encouraging them. When he heard about the fast runner from Springfields school, he took a quick decision. He gave the girls more practice on the field. He taught exercises that would allow their legs to stretch more and stride faster. Then he trained them in the skill of passing the baton without losing speed. He motivated Rucha to have a positive attitude always. She should always think to win and said that he felt that she can do it. All these words of motivation and the training given to the girls, made their relay team to win at the inter school sports meet.

Question 3.
How did Rucha finally win the match?
Answer:
Finally, when the baton was in Rucha’s hand, she was dismayed to see that she was pitted against P. T. Usha of Team A. She quickly put aside all her thoughts and got ready to speed up. She heard the shouts of her schoolmates. She could see P. T. Usha trying to overtake her. She thought that she had to win. Prakash Sir’s words were ringing in her ears – ‘Think to Win’. The next moment, she was conscious of nothing, except the finishing line, which she had to reach. Totally absorbed, she ran and lost the track of time and distance. She was conscious of what happened there only when Aruna called out jo her and told her that they have won. Everyone applauded her. Even P.T. Usha came over to shake her hands. Rucha had overcome her hesitations and denials. She could win, whenever she chose to do so.

Think to Win Summary

This lesson is based on Positive Attitude. You have to believe in yourself and work towards achieving your goal. You should not think of losing but think to win. Only to win and then you can do it easily. Rucha seldom did things rashly. Even in running and playing, she would be conscious of her movements. Seema, her younger sister, on the other hand, was bold and prone to taking risks. Rucha had no confidence in her ability.

She always had some hesitations and denials. Even while learning to ride a bicycle, she feared that she may fall off, little knowing that she was riding well. Her fear and hesitation made her fall off the bicycle. She was also upset, when she lost the inter-house badminton match by .a couple of points. Her friends consoled her and asked her to practice more for the relay in the inter-school sports meet. Rucha feared that she would make everyone lose the race. As her friends compelled her to take up the race, she agreed and started practising under the new P.T. instructor, Mr. Prakash. He was very enthusiastic about sports and drove the children hard – praising, scolding, correcting but mostly encouraging them.

Mr. Prakash overheard the conversation of the children that Springfields school had a very fast runner and they call her P.T. Usha. So he took a quick decision to make the girls practice more on the field. He also motivated them saying that their aim should be to win the race, not just to make an attempt in the relay. He showed them some exercises that would allow their legs to stretch more and stride faster. He also trained them in the skill of passing the baton without losing their speed.

He then turned to Rucha and gave her advice to win the relay. He asked her not to slow down and to have self confidence. She should not have any self-doubts, and not to think of losing. She must have positive attitude and see herself winning. Think to win. Only to win. He said that he can feel that she can do it. Rucha was inspired by his words. At the sports meet, Prakash Sir gave the girls his final words of encouragement.

As the whistle blew, Shabnam the first runner, gave the team a marginal lead. Then to Neelam and Arana, who ran just managing to keep abreast of the runner of the Team A. Finally, the baton was in Rucha’s hand. She had noted with dismay that she was pitted against P.T. Usha of Team – A. When the baton was passed to her, she was more than ready, Prakash Sir’s words came to her mind, ‘Think to Win’. The next moment, Rucha was conscious of nothing except the tape at the finishing line which she had to reach. Totally absorbed, she ran. She lost track of time and distance. She ran on, not conscious of the fact that the race was over till Aruna called out to her that they have won. She was applauded by everyone, including the fast runner. Rucha had overcome her hesitations and denials. She could win, whenever she chose to succeed.

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Owlie Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 1 Owlie

Mind Map

A. identify the character / speaker,

Owlie Supplementary Question And Answer Question 1.
Owlie’s gone!
Answer:
Payal to Mom.

Owlie’s Gone Question 2.
She opened one eye and then the other.
Answer:
Owlie.

Question 3.
Don’t panic.
Answer:
Mom to Payal.

Identify The Character / Speaker : Additional

1. “Well, now Owlie has gone”. – Mom to Payal
2. ‘Where would she have gone, Payal?’ – Mom to Payal
3. ‘She was right there, sleeping in her cage, a little while ago’. – Mom to Payal
4. ‘Mom, what shall we call her?’ – Mom to Payal
5. ‘How about Owlie?’ – Mom to Payal
6. ‘Oh, what have I done?’ – Mom to Payal
7. ‘She must be somewhere around’. – Mom to Payal
8. ‘Why don’t you find yourself a good book to read? – Mom to Payal
9. ‘Mom! she’s back’. – Payal to Mom
10. Tears rolled down Payal’s cheeks. – The author
11. ‘Don’t you ever give me a fright like that again’. – Payal to the ow

B. Choose the correct answer from the options given.

1. The owlet was _______ (brown and grey / white and grey)
2. In Payal’s family, they were all _______ (non-vegetarian / vegetarian).
3. The cage was shifted to the _______ (library / living room).

Answers:

1. brown and grey
2. vegetarian
3. library

Mcq: Additional

1. As Owlie was a baby, it didn’t know to _______ ( eat / dance)
2. Payal’s Mom was hesitant to _______ inside the house, (bring Owlie / bring meat)
3. Payal’s Mom started reading a lot about _______ (owls and their habits / feeding animals)
4. Owls were _______ so they slept all day and were active during the night. (night birds / day birds)
5. In the library , one door led to the rest of the house and another into _______ (kitchen / garden)
6. The book shelves also displayed _______, dolls and wooden and clay animals. (beautiful pieces of pottery / glass jars)
7. Payal left the cage door open as Owlie was _______ during the day. (eating / sleeping)
8. Payal panicked because _______ (the cage was empty / Owlie had died)
9. Payal’s Mom advised her _______ to cheer up. (to go for a ride / to read some book)
10. Payal noticed a _______ on the book shelf, (curio / tom book)

Answers:

1. eat
2. bring meat
3. owls and their habits
4. night birds
5. garden
6. beautiful pieces of pottery
7. sleeping
8. the cage was empty
9. to read some book
10. curio

C. Read the passage and answer the questions.

Payal and her mother started talking bravely about where to bury Owlie. Just then, Owlie opened one eye and then the other. She got onto her feet and quietly climbed the perch! Payal learnt later that falling on her back and pretending to be dead was Owlie’s way of defending herself against danger.

Owlie Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why did Payal and her mother want to bury Owlie?
Answer:
They thought that Owlie had died.

Owlie Question 2.
What did Owlie do then?
Answer:
Owlie opened one eye and then the other.

6th Standard English Supplementary Owlie Question Answers Question 3.
What did Payal learn from Owlie’s pretence?
Answer:
Owlie leamt the way of defending herself.

Read The Passage and Answer the Questions ; Additional

1. Owls are hunters. They eat rats and snakes and frogs. ’And in Payal’s house, they were all vegetarian, even the dogs! Payal’s mother was totally anti-meat. But now that Owlie had come to stay, she had to get over her dislike for meat. That was another reason why that day was memorable. It was the first day that meat was brought to the house! Payal got the number from her friend and called the meat shop to ask them to deliver half a kilogram of minced meat to the house. They put the meat before Owlie.

Owlie Supplementary Summary Question a.
What did Payal’s Mom dislike to do ?
Answer:
Payal’s Mom disliked to bring meat into the house.

Owlie Supplementary Question b.
Why was the day memorable ?
Answer:
The day was memorable as it was the first day that meat was brought to the house.

Owlie Lesson 6th Standard Question c.
How did Payal get the meat for Owlie ?
Ans.
Payal got the number from her friend and called the meat shop to ask them to deliver half a kilogram of minced meat to the house.

2. Reading up more about owls and their habits, Payal discovered that Owlie was a Spotted Owlet. She had the typical grey-brown coat, heavily spotted with white, the pale face, yellow eyes and the white neckband, which looked like a ribbon, Payal decided. Soon, Payal took over the job of looking after Owlie. She saw that the cage was cleaned every day.She filled the water bowl. Once Owlie began to eat by herself, Payal too could feed her.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th English Question a.
What did Payal’s mom discover by reading books on Owls?
Answer:
Payal’s Mom discovered that the Owlie was a Spotted Owlet.

6th Standard English Supplementary Owlie Question b.
Describe the appearance of Owlie ?
Answer:
Owlie had a typical grey-brown coat, heavily spotted with white, the pale face, yellow eyes and a white neckband.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th English Question c.
What was Payal’s job in taking care of Owlie ?
Answer:
Payal cleaned the cage and filled the water bowl everyday.

3. Once Owlie was moved to the library, strict rules were laid down for everyone in the house. The two doors were never to be left open – not at night, not in the day. Every night, Payal would leave the cage door open and put a plate of mincemeat on top of the cage. This was so that when Owlie flew out of her cage, she could also learn to find her food.

6th Standard Supplementary Question a.
What were the rules ?
Answer:
The two doors were never to be left open – not at night, not in the day. Every ‘ night, Payal would leave the cage door open and put a place of mincemeat on top of the cage.

The Owlet Was Answer Question b.
Why was the meat placed on the top of cage ?
Answer:
The meat was placed on the top of the cage so that Owlie would fly out of the cage and leam to find her food.

Supplementary Owlie Question c.
Where was Owlie moved ?
Answer:
Owlie was moved into the library.

4. Every day when Payal came back from school, the first thing she did was to peep into the library. Usually, she would find Owlie fast asleep on her perch. But today, it was different. The cage was empty and there was no sign of Owlie! And the door to the garden was open.‘Mom!’ Payal howled. ‘Who left the garden door open? How will we find Owlie now? ‘Don’t panic,’ said Mom. ‘She must be somewhere around.’ They shut the garden door and looked in every comer of the room. Behind doors, on top of the tall bookshelves, in every nook and cranny. No Owlie.

Question a.
What did Payal do everyday when she returned from school ?
Answer:
Everyday Payal would peep into the library and find Owlie fast asleep on her perch inside the cage.

Question b.
What was different today when Payal returned from School ?
Answer:
Today, the cage was empty and there was no sign of Owlie when Payal returned from School.

Question c.
What did Payal and Mom do when they found that Owlie was missing ?
Answer:
Payal and Mom shut the garden door and looked in every comer of the room. They searched behind the doors, on top of the tall bookshelves and in every nook and cranny.

D. Rearrange the following jumbled sentences in the correct order.

• Payal’s house was a home for abandoned animals.
• It was a small ball of brown and grey.
• She found an owlet in one comer.
• Payal’s mother picked her up gently.
• Payal’s mother opened the carton.
• One day they got a carton.

Answer:

• Payal’s house was a home for abandoned animals.
• One day they got a carton.
• Payal’s mother opened the carton.
• She found an owlet in one comer.
• It was a small ball of brown and grey.
• Payal’s mother picked her up gently.

Rearrange The Following Jumbled Sentences ; Additional

A.
1. When the owl got used to her, and seemed relaxed enough, Payal’s mother placed her inside a cage.
2. When Payal’s mother opened the carton, there was the smallest of owlets sitting in , one comer, a small ball of brown and grey.
3. There were always empty cages in Payal’s house – just in case a bird dropped in!
4. She had never handled owls before, so she was very careful not to get pecked.
5. Payal’s mother picked her up gently and placed her in her lap, talking to her just as she would to the dogs.
Answer:
2, 5, 4, 1, 3
2. When Payal’s mother opened the carton, there was the smallest of owlets sitting in one comer, a small ball of brown and grey.
5. Payal’s mother picked her up gently and placed her in her lap, talking to her just as she would to the dogs.
4. She had never handled owls before, so she was very careful not to get pecked.
1. When the owl got used to her, and seemed relaxed enough, Payal’s mother placed her inside a cage.
3. There were always empty cages in Payal’s house – just in case a bird dropped in!

B.
1. After all, people seldom went into that room all day, and Owlie was always asleep, so there seemed little point.
2. But Payal knew Owlie was flying because she found bits of meat all over the room.
3. After some time, Payal stopped shutting the cage door even during the day.
4. She would always find Owlie on her perch inside the cage, though the cage door was still open.
5. Initially, Payal would shut the cage door every morning when she popped in to say hello to Owlie before going to school.
Answer:
5, 4, 2, 3,-1
5. Initially, Payal would shut the cage door every morning when she popped in to say hello to Owlie before going to school.
4. She would always find Owlie on her perch inside the cage, though the cage door was still open.
2. But Payal knew Owlie was flying because she found bits of meat all over the room.
3. After some time, Payal stopped shutting the cage door even during the day.
1. After all, people seldom went into that room all day, and Owlie was always asleep, so there seemed little point.

C.
1. Where did this one come from, she wondered.
2. She noticed a curio on a shelf that she had never noticed before. Hello?
3. Where did her mother get the owl from?
4. It was Owlie pretending to be a curio! ‘Mom!’ bawled Payal.
5. She was about to pick it up when the curio opened one eye…
Answer:
2, 1, 3, 5, 4
2. She noticed a curio on a shelf that she had never noticed before. Hello?
1. Where did this one come from, she wondered.
3. Where did her mother get the owl from?
5. She was about to pick it up when the curio opened one eye.
4. It was Owlie pretending to be a curio! ‘Mom! ’ bawled Payal.

E. Discuss in pairs. Then write the answers.

Question 1.
What kind of a girl was Payal? What did she like? How did she behave with animals and people?
Answer:
Payal was a kind hearted girl. She liked pets. She behaved with love and care.

Question 2.
Do you think Owlie was happy to be with Payal? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, Owlie was very happy to be with Payal. It did not leave the house. It adapted the home well.

Project

F. Listen to the teacher read the passage, watch this website: https://sstcn.org/ Then write a Paragraph on students Turtle Walk Channai 2017.

It is a night long trek/walk along the beaches of Chennai between December to April. It is a breeding season of the Olive Ridley turtles. One has to volunteer with the students’conservation society and walk along the beaches, fishing hamlets looking out for turtle nests. The eggs are collected from these nests and kept at an artificial environment until the eggs hatch. After 21 days, the hatchlings are let back into the sea water safely. This is done in order to protect these eggs which otherwise have a very high threat of getting killed by many external factors. The volunteering is open to general public who is genuinely concerned about conserving this endangered reptile species.

Connecting To Self

G. Write a caption for these pictures. One is done for you

Answer:

Steps To Success

H. Find the group name and write them in the blanks. One is done for You.
eg: elephant, tiger, lion, monkey – Land animals

1. eel, seal, walrus, seahorse
2. pearl, coral,conch, oil
3. submarine, ship, yacht, ferry
4. kite surfing, scuba diving, parasailing
5. albatross, penguin, pelican, fish hawk

Answers:

1. sea/aquatic
2. sea products
3. sea vehicles
4. sea games
5. sea birds

Owlie Additional Questions

I. Write The Correct Word.

Answers:
shore
swim
aquatic
airport
row

II. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
How did Owlle spend her first day at Payal’s house?
Answer:
Payal’s mom ordered the meat to feed the owl. As Owlie was a baby, it didn’t know to eat. Mom decided to squish the meat until it was soft and forced the food into Owlie’s mouth. In a second, Owlie fell down on the floor of the cage She lay on her back with her feet up in the air. Payal and his Mom thought that they had killed the owl and started talking about burying the bird. Suddenly, Owlie opened one eye and got on to her feet. Payal learnt later that falling on her back and pretending to be dead was Owlie’s way of defending herself against danger. So that was Owlie’s first day at home.

Question 2.
What happened one day, when Payal returned home?
Answer:
One day, when Payal returned home, the cage was empty and the garden door was left open. Payal panicked and called for her mother. Payal’s mother ran into the room and searched for the owl. There was no sign of Owlie. Mom asked Payal to be calm and to search once again all over. They shut the garden door and looked ‘ in every comer of the room – Behind doors, on top of the tall book shelves and in every nook and cranny. They couldn’t find Owlie. Finally, they decided that the Owlie had gone and left the doors open. But Payal hoped secretly that Owlie would come in, if the doors were kept open.

Question 3.
How did Payal get back the owl?
Answer:
Payal was upset after the Owlie left their house. She was sitting, gazing mournfully at the Owlie’s cage. Mom advised Payal to read a good book to cheer herself up. Payal started looking for a book to read. Suddenly, she noticed, a curio on the shelf. She was about to pick it up, when the curio opened an eye. It was Owlie pretending to be a curio. Payal was happy to find out that it,was Owlie. Payal scolded the owl not to give her a fright like that again and put her back in her cage.

Owlie Summary

Payal and her mom are fond of birds and animals. Their house was a home to all kinds of abandoned animals, lost dogs, injured cats and lost baby birds. Though not a large house, Payal’s mom had a BIG heart. One day Shefali didi had brought a carton. Inside the carton, there was a small Owlet. Payal’s Mom picked it up carefully and placed her inside the cage. They named it Owlie.

They had to figure out a way to feed the owlet. As Owls eat rats, snakes and frogs, Payal’s mom was hesitant to bring meat inside the house. Finally, Mom ordered the meat and put the meat before Owlie. As Owlie was a baby, it didn’t know to eat. Mom decided to squish (smash) the meat until it was soft and shoved (forced) the food into Owlie’s mouth. In a second, Owlie fell down on the floor of the cage. They thought they had killed Owlie and started talking about burying Owlie. Suddenly, Owlie opened one eye and got onto her feet. That’s when Payal and her Mom learnt that it was Owlie’s way of defending danger.

Payal’s Mom started reading a lot about owls and their habits. Payal took the job of looking after Owlie. Once Owlie leamt to eat on its own, Payal loved it when she offered the meat on her hand and Owlie took the piece. Owls were night birds, so they slept all day and were active during the night. So Payal decided to let Owlie fly when she was bigger. To train her to fly, they had to keep Owlie in closed room. So they chose the library with two doors.

One door led to the rest of the house and another into the garden. Payal used to read all kinds of books in her favorite library room. The book shelves also displayed beautiful pieces of pottery, dolls and wooden and clay animals and birds from all around the world.

Once Owlie was moved to the library, it was decided by Mom and Payal not to leave the doors open. Every night, Payal left the cage door open and put a piece of meat on the cage. Owlie would fly out of the cage and find her food. Every morning, Payal used to close the cage door and find minced meats all over the room. So she thought Owlie was flying around in night and returning back to the cage in the morning to sleep. After some days, Payal left the cage door open as Owlie was sleeping during the day. But one day, when Payal returned, the cage was empty and the garden door was left open. Payal panicked and called for her Mom. Mom asked Payal to be calm and search for Owlie. They couldn’t find Owlie . Finally they decided that Owlie had gone and left the doors open.

Payal was very upset and was looking sadly at the cage . Mom advised Payal to read a book to cheer herself up. Payal started looking for a book to read. Suddenly she noticed a curio (unusual object) on the shelf. Payal was happy to find out that it was Owlie. Payal scolded the owl and put her back in her cage.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 1 Accounts from Incomplete Records Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 1 Accounts from Incomplete Records

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Accounts from Incomplete Records Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 1 Question 1.
Incomplete records are generally maintained by …………….
(a) A company
(b) Government
(c) Small sized sole trader business
(d) Multinational enterprises
Answer:
(c) Small sized sole trader business

12th Accountancy 1st Chapter Question 2.
Statement of affairs is a …………….
(a) Statement of income and expenditure
(b) Statement of assets and liabilities
(c) Summary of cash transactions
(d) Summary of credit transactions
Answer:
(b) Statement of assets and liabilities

12th Accountancy Chapter 1 Question 3.
Opening statement of affairs is usually prepared to find out the …………….
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year
(b) Capital at the end of the year
(c) Profit made during the year
(d) Loss occurred during the year
Answer:
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year

12th Accountancy 1st Chapter Solutions Question 4.
The excess of assets over liabilities is …………….
(a) Loss
(b) Cash
(c) Capital
(d) Profit
Answer:
(c) Capital

12th Accountancy Chapter 1 Exercise Sums Question 5.
Which of the following items relating to bills payable is transferred to total creditors account?
(a) Opening balance of bills payable
(b) Closing balance of bills payable
(c) Bills payable accepted during the year
(d) Cash paid for bills payable
Answer:
(c) Bills payable accepted during the year

12th Accountancy Chapter 1 Solutions Question 6.
The amount of credit sales can be computed from …………….
(a) Total debtors account
(b) Total creditors account
(c) Bills receivable account
(d) Bills payable account
Answer:
(a) Total debtors account

Accounts From Incomplete Records Class 12 Solutions Question 7.
Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and personal accounts
(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations
(d) Tax authorities do not accept
Answer:
(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations

12 Accountancy Chapter 1 Question 8.
What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are ₹ 85,000 and liabilities are ₹ 21,000?
(a) ₹ 85,000
(b) ₹ 1,06,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 64,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 64,000

Accounts From Incomplete Records Class 12 Question 9.
When capital in the beginning is ₹ 10,000, drawings during the year is ₹ 6,000, profit made during the year is ₹ 2,000 and the additional capital introduced is ₹ 3,000, find out the amount of capital at the end …………….
(a) ₹ 9,000
(b) ₹ 11,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 3,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 9,000

12th Accounts 1st Chapter Question 10.
Opening balance of debtors: ₹ 30,000, cash received: ₹ 1,00,000, credit sales: ₹ 90,000; closing balance of debtors is …………….
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 1,30,000
(c) ₹ 40,000
(d) ₹ 20,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 20,000

II. Very Short Answer Questions

12th Accounts Chapter 1 Question 1.
What is meant by incomplete records?
Answer:

1. When accounting records are not strictly maintained according to double entry system, these records are called incomplete accounting records.
2. Generally, cash accounts and the personal accounts of customers and creditors are maintained fully and other accounts are maintained based on necessity.

12th Accountancy 1st Lesson Question 2.
State the accounts generally maintained by small sized sole trader when double entry accounting system is not followed.
Answer:
Generally cash account and the personal accounts of customers and creditors are maintained by small sized sole trader. When double entry accounting system is not followed.

Incomplete Records Accounting Questions Answers Pdf Question 3.
What is a statement of affairs?
Answer:
A statement of affairs is a statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities on a particular date. The balance of assets are shown on the right side and the balance of liabilities on the left side. This statement resembles a balance sheet. The difference between the total of assets and total of liabilities is taken as captial.
Capital = Assets – Liabilities.

III. Short Answer Questions

12th Account Chapter 1 Question 1.
What are the features of incomplete records?
Answer:
1. Nature:

• It is an unscientific and unsystematic way of recording transactions.
• Accounting principles and accounting standards are not followed properly.

2. Types of accounts maintained – In general only cash and personal accounts are maintained fully. Real accounts and nominal accounts are not maintained properly. Some transactions are correctly omitted.

3. Lack of uniformity – There is no uniformity in recording the transactions among different organisations. Different organisations record their transactions according to their needs and conveniences.

4. Financial statements may not represent true and fair view – Due to the incomplete information and inaccurate records of accounts, the profit or loss calculated from these records cannot be relied upon. It may not represent true profitability. Assets and liabilities may not represent a true and fair view of financial position.

5. Suitability – Only the business concerns which have no legal obligation to maintain books of accounts under double entry system may maintain incomplete records. Hence, it may be maintained by small sized sole traders and partnership firms.

6. Mixing up of personal and business transactions – Generally, personal transactions of the owners are mixed up the with the business transactions. For example, purchase of goods for own use may be mixed up along with business purchases.

12 Account Chapter 1 Question 2.
What are the limitations of incomplete records?
Answer:
Limitations of Incomplete records:
1. Lack of proper maintenance of records – It is an unscientific and unsystematic way of maintaining records. Real and nominal accounts are not maintained properly.

2. Difficulty in preparing trial balance – As accounts are not maintained for all items, the accounting records are incomplete. Hence, it is difficult to prepare trail balance to check the arithmetical accuracy of accounts.

3. Difficulty in ascertaining true profitability of the business – Profit is found out based on available information and estimates. Hence, it is difficult to prepare ascertain true profit as the trading and profit and loss account cannot be prepared with accuracy.

4. Difficulty in ascertaining financial position – In general, only the estimated values of assets and liabilities are available from incomplete records. Hence, it is difficult to ascertain true and fair view of state of affairs or financial position as on a particular date

5. Errors and frauds cannot be detected easily – As only partial records are available, it may not be possible to have internal checks in maintaining accounts to detect errors and frauds.

6. Unacceptable to government and other activities – As accounts maintained are incomplete, these may not comply with the legal requirements. Hence, government, tax authorities and other legal authorities do not accept accounts prepared from incomplete records.

Question 3.
State the differences between double entry system and incomplete records.
Answer:

Question 4.
State the procedure for calculating profit or loss through statement of affairs.
Answer:
The difference between the closing capital and the opening capital is taken as profit or loss of the business. Due adjustments are to be made for any withdrawal of capital from the business and for the additional capital introduced in the business.
Adjusting closing capital = Closing capital + Drawings – Opening capital.
Closing capital + Drawings – Additional capital – Opening capital = Proft/Loss.

Question 5.
Differentiate between statement of affairs and balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 6.
How is the amount of credit sale ascertained from incomplete records?
Answer:
Ascertainment of Credit Sales:-

IV. Exercises:

Question 1.
From the following particulars ascertain profit or loss:

Answer:
Statement of profit or Loss

Question 2.
From the following particulars ascertain profit or loss:

Answer:
Statement of profit or Loss

Question 3.
From the following details, calculate the missing figure:

Answer:
Statement of profit or Loss

Question 4.
From the following details, calculate the capital as on 31^st December 2018.

Answer:
Statement of profit or Loss

Question 5.
From the following details, calculate the missing figure:

Answer:
Statement of profit or Loss

Question 6.
Following are the balances in the books of Thomas as on 31^st March 2019.

Prepare a statement of affairs as on 31st March 2019 and calculate capital as at that date.
Answer:
Statement of profit or Loss

Question 7.
On 1^st April 2018 Subha started her business with a capital of ₹ 1,20,000. She did not maintain proper book of accounts. Following particulars are available from her books as on 31.3.2019.

During the year she withdrew ₹ 30,000 for her personal use. She introduced further capital of? 40,000 during the year. Calculate her profit or loss.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs

Statement of profit or Loss

Question 8.
Raju does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.

During the year he introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 and withdrew ₹ 2,500 per month from the business for his personal use. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs

Statement of profit or Loss

Question 9.
Ananth does not keep his books under double entry system. Find the profit or loss made by him for the year ending 31^st March, 2019.

Ananth had withdrawn ₹ 60,000 for his personal use. He had introduced ₹ 17,000 as capita for expansion of his business. Create a provision of 5% on debtors. Plant and machinery is to be depreciated at 10%.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs

Statement of profit or Loss

Question 10.
Find out credit sales from the following information:

Answer:
Total / Sundry debtors Account

Question 11.
From the following details find out total sales made during the year.

Total / Sundry debtors Account

Total Sales = Cash Sales + Credit Sales
= 4, 60, 000 + 5, 40, 000
= 10, 00, 000

Question 12.
From the following particulars, prepare bills receivable account and compute the bills received from the debtors.

Answer:
Total/Bills Receivable Account

Question 13.
From the following particulars, calculate total sales.

Answer:
Bills Receivable Account

Debtors A/c

Total Sales = Cash Sales + Credit Sales
= 9, 85, 000 + 3, 15, 000
= ₹ 10, 00, 000

Question 14.
From the following details, calculate credit purchases.

Answer:
Total/ Sundry Creditors Account

Question 15.
From the following particulars calculate total purchases.

Answer:
Bills Payable Account

Total Creditors Account

Total purchases = Cash purchases + Credit purchases
Total purchases = 1, 55, 000 + 2, 25, 000
= Rs. 3, 80, 000

Question 16.
From the following details you are required to calculate credit sales and credit purchases by preparing total debtors account, total creditors account, bills receivable account and bills payable account.

Answer:
Bills Receivable A/c

Total debtors A/c

Bills Payable A/c

Total Creditors A/c

Question 17.
From the following details of Abdul who maintains incomplete records, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31^st March, 2018 and a Balance Sheet as on the date.

Other details:

Answer:
Total Debtors Account

Total Creditors Account

Trading Account for year ended 31^st March 2019

Profit/Loss Account for the year ended 31^st March 2019

Balance Sheet as on 31^st March 2019

Question 18.
Bharathi does not maintain her books of accounts under double entry system. From the following details prepare trading and profit and loss account for the year ending 31st March, 2019 and a balance sheet as on that date.

Cash Book

Other information:

Answer:
Total Debtors Account

Trading Account for that year ended 31^st March 2019

Profit/Loss Account for the year ended 31^st March 2019

Balance Sheet as on 31^st March 2019

Question 19.
Arjun carries on grocery business and does not keep his books on double entry basis. The following particulars have been extracted from his books:

Other information for the year ending 31 – 3 – 2019 showed the following:

Total sales during the year were ₹ 7, 70,000. Purchases returns during the year were ₹ 30, 000 and sales returns were ₹ 25, 000. Depreciate plant and machinery by 5%. Provide ₹ 1, 500 for doubtful debts. Prepare trading and profit and loss account for the year ending 31^st March, 2019 and a balance sheet as on the date.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs

Total Credit Account

Trading Account for year ended 31^st December 2019

Profit/Loss Account for the year ended 31^st December 2019

Balance Sheet as on 31^st December 2019

Question 20.
Selvam does not keep his books under double entry system. From the following information prepare trading and profit and loss account A/c and balance sheet as on 31 – 12 – 2018.

Adjustments:
Write off depreciation of 5% on furniture. Create a reserve of 1% on debtors for doubtful debts.
Answer:
Statement of affairs as on 1^st January, 2018
Answer:
Statement of Affairs as on ^st January, 2018

Trading Account for year ended 31^st December 2018

Profit/Loss Account for the year ended 31^st December 2018

Balance Sheet as on 31^st December 2018

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Accounts from Incomplete Records Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Single entry system is …………….
(a) a scientific method
(b) an incomplete double entry system
(c) None of these
Answer:
(b) an incomplete double entry system

Question 2.
Single entry system will not be accepted by …………….
(a) Proprietor
(b) Partners
(c) Tax authorities
Answer:
(c) Tax authorities

Question 3.
Single entry system capital is calculated.
(a) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
(b) Assets = Capital – Liabilities
(c) Capital = Assets + Liabilities
(d) Assets = Liabilities – Capital
Answer:
(a) Capital = Assets – Liabilities

Question 4.
Credit Purchase is obtained from …………….
(a) Total Debtors Accounts
(b) Total Creditors Account
(c) Statement of Affairs
Answer:
(b) Total Creditors Account

Question 5.
Statement of Affairs is like a …………….
(a) Trading Account
(b) Profit and Loss Account
(c) Balance Sheet
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 6.
Statement of affairs method is also called ……………. method.
Answer:
Networth Method.

Question 7.
A statement of affairs resembles a …………….
Answer:
Balance Sheet.

Question 8.
Single entry system maintains ……………. and ……………. accounts.
Answer:
Cash, Personal.

Question 9.
A firm has assets worth ₹ 10,00,000 and Capital ₹ 2,25,000 then its liabilities is …………….
Answer:
₹ 7,75,000.

Question 10.
The difference between capital while beginning and capital at the end indicates ……………. of the business.
Answer:
Profit/Loss.

Question 11.
The excess of assets over liabilities is …………….
Answer:
Capital.

III. Match the following

Question 12.

Answer:
(i) 3

Question 13.

Answer:
(ii) 3

IV. Assertion & Reason

Question 14.
(A) Assertion: Bill receivable endorsed are debited to Creditors Account
(B) Reason: Bills receivable is received from Debtors is credited to Debtors A/c
(a) Both (A) and (B) are correct
(b) (A) is correct and (B) is in correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (B) are correct

V. True or False

Question 15.
Limited Companies are free to choose either single entry (or) Double entry system.
Answer:
False.

Question 16.
Under networth method profit is ascertained by calculating the increase in network after adjusting for drawing and addition to capital.
Answer:
True.

Question 17.
Net Profit is calculated to capital at the end + Drawing + Capital introduced – Capital in the beginning.
Answer:
False.

Question 18.
In this system personal accounts and cash accounts transaction are recorded.
Answer:
True.

VI. Very Short Answer Question

Question 1.
Define of Single Entry System.
Answer:
According to Kohler, “Single Entry System is a system of Book-keeping in which as a rule, only records of cash and personal accounts are maintained. It is always incomplete double entry system varying with circumstances.

VII. Exercise

Question 1.
Calculate the profit for the following information.

Answer:

Question 2.
Calculate opening capital

Answer:

Question 3.
Calculate the missing figure.

Answer:

Question 4.
Joseph maintains books in single entry. Following details are given from his books.

He has taken ₹ 40,000 from the business for his personal exp depreciate furniture by 10%. Prepare a statement showing profit or loss for the year 2001.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs on 1.1.2010 to 31.12.2010

Statement Profit

Question 5.
From the following details find out the credit purchases and total purchase.

Answer:
Bills Payable Account

Total Creditors Account

Credit Purchase ₹ 30,800
Total Purchases = Cr Purchases + Cash Purchases
= 30, 800 + 29, 000
= ₹ 59, 800

Question 6.
From the following information you are required to calculate total sales.

Answer:
Bills Receivable Account

Total Debtors Account

Total Sales = Cash Sales + Credit Sales
= 40, 900 + 95, 300
= ₹ 1,36,200

Question 7.
From the following particulars prepare the final accounts of Mrs. Meenakshi for the year ended 31.3.2004

Answer:
Total Debtors Account

Sundry Creditors Account

Question 8.
How to prepare the final accounts from incomplete records?
Answer:
When books of accounts are incomplete, information regarding revenues, expenses, assets and liabilities is not known fully. Hence it becomes difficult to prepare trading and profit and loss account and balance sheet.

Steps to be followed to prepare final accounts:

1. Opening statement of affairs is to be prepared to ascertain the opening capital.
2. Missing figures must be found out with available date. This can be done by preparing memorandum accounts or by making necessary adjustments to the existing figure.
   • It may become necessary to prepare a cash book find out missing items such as cash purchase and sales.
   • By preparing total debtors and total creditors A/c credit sales and credit purchases can be ascertained.
   • Bills Receivable, Bills Payable A/cs are to be prepared to find out the balance of Bills Receivable. Bills Payable accepted.
3. The final step is to prepare trading and profit and loss A/c and balance sheet.

Question 9.
Kumaran, a trader does not keep proper books of account. However he furnishes you the following particulars.

During the year Kumaran introduced ? 6,000 as further capital and withdrew ? 4,000 as drawings. Write off Depreciation on furniture at 10% and on office equipment at 5% Prepare a statement showing the profit or loss made by him for the year ended 31st March, 2013.
Answer:
Statement of Affairs as on 31^st March 2012

Statement of Affairs as on 31^st March 2013

Statement of Profit/Loss for the year ended 31^st March 2013

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 6 Micro Organisms

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Micro Organisms Text Book Exercises

I. Multiple choice questions

8th Science Microorganisms Book Back Answers Question 1.
Micro organisms are measured in ……………..
(a) cm
(b) mm
(c) micron
(d) meter.
Answer:
(c) micron

8th Science Microorganisms Question Answer Question 2.
Shows both living and non-living characteristics ………………
(a) Protozoa
(b) Virus
(c) Bacteria
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(b) Virus

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 3.
……………. is a prokaryotic micro organisms.
(a) Virus
(b) Algae
(c) Fungi
(d) Bacteria
Answer:
(d) Bacteria

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Solutions Question 4.
Based on shape, the bacteria are classified into …………….. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Books Solutions Science Question 5.
The plant body of algae is called as ………………
(a) Stem
(b) Thallus
(c) Leaf
(d) Root
Answer:
(b) Thallus

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………… is prepared from a mould called Penicillium.
2. ……………… are the infectious protein particles.
3. The infect virus particle found outside the host cell is ………………
4. Micro organism can be seen with the help of a ………………
5. Bacteria, which have a flagellum at one end is classified as ………………

Answer:

1. Penicillin
2. Prions
3. Virion
4. Microscope
5. Monotrichous

III. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 1.

1.	Nitrogen fixing bacteria	(a)	Vaccine
2.	Tuberculosis	(b)	Prion
3.	Kuru	(c)	Lactobacillus acidophilus
4.	Probiotics	(d)	Bacteria
5.	Edward Jenner	(e)	Rhizobium

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

III. True or False

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Science Question 1.
Diseases causing micro organisms are called pathogens.
Answer:
True.

8th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 2.
Female Anopheles mosquito is a carrier of dengue virus.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Female Anopheles mosquito is a carrier of malaria.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Question 3.
Chicken pox is a communicable disease.
Answer:
True.

Class 8 Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Citrus canker is transmitted by insects.
Answer:
True.
Correct statement:
Citrus canker is transmitted by air and water

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Answers Question 5.
Yeast is used in the large scale production of alcohol.
Answer:
True.

V. Assertion & Reason

Direction:
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the four statements, given below, mark one as the correct answer.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

8th Standard Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Assertion : Malaria is caused by Protozoa.
Reason : The disease is transmitted by mosquito.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Science Book Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Assertion : Algae are heterotrophic.
Reason : They don’t have chlorophyll.
Answer:
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false

VI. Very short answer type

8th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.
Write the name of any nitrogen fixing bacteria.
Answer:
Rhizobium.

Samacheer Kalvi Science 8th Standard Question 2.
Name the bacteria used in the production of vinegar.
Answer:
Acetobacter aceti.

Science 8th Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Write the names of any three protozoans.
Answer:

1. Amoeba
2. Plasmodium
3. Paramecium.

8th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Who discovered penicillin?
Answer:
Alexander Flemming.

Samacheer Kalvi Science 8th Question 5.
Which diseases can be prevented by vaccination?
Answer:
Small pox, polio, measles, mumps, rubella, tuberculosis.

VII. Short answer type

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Science Question 1.
Write the four types of bacteria, based on their shape.
Answer:
Bacteria are described according to the shape of their cells. They are:

1. Bacilli – Rod shaped bacteria.
2. Spirilla – Spiral shaped bacteria.
3. Cocci – Spherical or ball shaped bacteria.
4. Vibrio – Comma shaped bacteria.

Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 2.
What are antibiotics?
Answer:
Antibiotic is a substance produced by living organisms which is toxic for other organisms. Example: Penicillin.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Books Science Question 3.
What are pathogens?
Answer:
Disease causing organisms are called pathogens. Example: The bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis in human beings.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 4.
How diseases causing micro organisms enter into human beings?
Answer:
The disease causing microbes are called pathogens. They enter into the body through –

1. Cuts and wounds in the skin, mouth or nose.
2. Some pathogens are found in air and enter into a healthy person by breathing. When a patient sneezes, droplets containing microbes spread in air. Example: Tuberculosis, Flu.
3. Some pathogens enter into our body through food and water contaminated with the pathogen. Example: Cholera.
4. Pathogens also enter through blood transfusion from a infected to healthy person. Example: Aids

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 5.
Why micro organisms are essential for agriculture?
Answer:
Role of microbes in agriculture:
1. Natural fertilizer:
Microbes like bacteria, fungi act as decomposers and break down the dead and degradable waste of plants and animals. During this process nutrients are released into the soil and the soil becomes fertile. This compost is called natural fertilizer.

2. Nitrogen fixation:
Microbes can fix atmospheric gaseous nitrogen as nitrate salts in the soil. Example: Rhizobium (root nodule bacteria in leguminous plants). Free living bacteria, cyanobacteria (Nostoc).

3. Biocontrol agents:
Microbes act as natural biocontrol agents and protect crops from pests. Example: Baculoviruses attack insects which harm the plants.

VIII. Long answer type

Question 1.
Write a short note on bacteria and its structure.
Answer:
1. Bacteria are single – celled prokaryotes (cells without nuclei).

2. Bacteria are grouped under the kingdom Monera. The study of Bacteria is called Bacteriology.

3. Bacteria are of two types based on respiration

• Aerobic bacteria (requires oxygen).
• Anaerobjc bacteria (Does not requires oxygen).

4. A bacterium has an outer covering known as the cell wall. Nuclear material is represented by a nucleoid without nuclear membrane.

5. An extra chromosomal DNA called plasmid is present in the cytoplasm.

6. Protein synthesis is carried out by 70S ribosomes. Other cell organelles (mitochondria, Golgi body endoplasmic reticulum etc.,) are absent. Flagella aids in locomotion.

7. Bacteria are described according to the shape of their cells. They are:

• Bacilli – Rod shape bacteria
• Spirilla – Spiral shaped bacteria
• Cocci – Spherical or ball shaped bacteria
• Vibrio – Comma shaped bacteria

Bacteria are also classified according to number and arrangement of flagella as follows:

• Monotrichous – Single flagella at one end. Example: Vibrio cholera
• Lophotrichous – Tuft of flagella at one end. Example: Pseudomonas.
• Amphitrichous – Tuft of flagella at both ends. Example:Rhodospirillum rubrum.
• Peritrichous – Flagella all around. Example: E.coli.
• Atrichous – Without any flagella. Example: Corynebacterium diptherae.

Question 2.
How micro organisms are useful in the field of medicine?
Answer:
Role of microbes in medicine:
We obtain antibiotics and vaccines from microbes.

1. Antibiotics:
It is a substance produced by living organisms which is toxic to other organisms. The antibiotic penicillin got from the fungus Penicillium chrysogenum is used to treat diseases like tetanus, diphtheria. Streptomycin got from streptomyces bacteria is used to cure bacterial infections like plague.

2. Vaccines:
They are prepared from dead or weakened microbes. When a vaccine is injected into the body of a patient, it produces antibodies to fight the germs. These antibodies protect the body from infections in future. Example: MMR vaccine for measles.

Question 3.
Answer:

Question 4.
How can we improve the beneficial bacterial count in human beings?
Answer:
We can improve the beneficial bacterial count in human beings by adopting the following methods:

1. Intake of fibre rich foods.
2. Intake of seasonal fruits and vegetables.
3. Intake of plenty of fermented foods with live microbes. Eat more of prebiotic foods.
4. Intake of whole grains.
5. Prefer plant based diet.
6. Avoid artificial sweeteners.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Probiotics.
Answer:
Probiotics:
Probiotics are live food supplements used in yoghurt and other fermented milk products. Example: Lactobacillus acidophilus and Bifidobacterium bifidum. These bacteria improve the microbial spectrum in the gut and thus contribute to the following effects:

1. Decrease the risk of colon cancer
2. Decrease cholesterol absorption
3. Prevent diarrheal diseases by increasing the immunity power.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Micro Organisms Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……………. is absent in bacteria.
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Cell wall
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria

Question 2.
……………. is not a shape seen in bacteria.
(a) Spiral
(b) Rod shaped
(c) Spherical
(d) Tadpole
Answer:
(d) Tadpole

Question 3.
E.coli is an example of ……………. bacteria.
(a) Peritrichous
(b) Atrichous
(c) Lophotrichous
(d) Monotrichous
Answer:
(a) peritrichous

Question 4.
……………. is not a fungus.
(a) Agaricus
(b) Nostoc
(c) Penicillium
(d) Albugo
Answer:
(b) Nostoc

Question 5
‘Grass of water’ refers to …………….
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Algae
(d) Bryophytes
Answer:
(c) Algae

Question 6.
……………. is a biocontrol agent.
(a) Mycorrhizae
(b) Rhizobium
(c) Trichoderma
(d) Agaricus
Answer:
(c) Trichoderma

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. One word virus means …………… in Latin.
2. …………… are considered to be the first living organisms on earth.
3. The nuclear material of bacteria is called …………….
4. The extra chromosomal DNA in bacteria is called ……………
5. …………… is a unicellular fungus.
6. The study of fungi is called ……………
7. Yeast has an enzyme called ……………
8. The mode of respiration in yeast is ……………

Answer:

1. Poison
2. Bacteria
3. Nucleoid
4. Plasmid
5. Yeast
6. Mycology
7. Zymase
8. Anaerobic

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Agaricus is a biocontrol agent.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Trichoderma is a biocontrol agents.

Question 2.
Nostoc is used for fixing nitrogen.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Phycoerythirin is a blue pigment.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
Phycoerythrin is a red pigment.

Question 4.
Mushroom is the part of the fungus which produces spores.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Plasmodium is a parasite.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

i	Probiotic	(a)	Kuru
ii	Preservation	(b)	Methanogen
iii	Prion	(c)	Curd
iv	Biogas	(d)	Sugar

Answer:

i. c
ii. d
iii. a
iv. b

Question 2.

i	Amoeba	(a)	Autotrophs
ii	Algae	(b)	Gills
iii	Agaricus	(c)	Biocontrol
iv	Bt cotton	(d)	Sporulation

Answer:

i. d
ii. a
iii. b
iv. c

V. Assertion and Reason

Direction:
In each of the following questions, a statement of Assertion is given and a corresponding statement of Reason is given just below it. Of the four statements, given below, mark one as the correct answer.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Fungi are heterotrophic in nutrition.
Reason (R) : They lack chlorophyll.
Answer:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Boiling milk is a method of preservation.
Reason (R) : Probiotics is a method of preserving milk.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false

VI. Very short Answers

Question 1.
What is a plasmid?
Answer:
Extra chromosomal DNA present in bacteria is called plasmid.

Question 2.
Why is nuclear content of a bacterial cell called nucleoid?
Answer:
The nuclear content of a bacterial cell lacks nuclear membrane. So it is called nucleoid.

Question 3.
What are chemosynthetic bacteria?
Answer:
Bacteria that live in harsh environment use chemicals (Ammonia, hydrogen sulphide) to produce their food instead of utilizing energy from the sun. This process is called chemosynthesis.

Question 4.
Why does yeast help in fermentation?
Answer:
It respires anaerobically and has an enzyme called zymase to bring about fermentation.

Question 5.
Name the pigments found in algae.
Answer:
Chlorophylls, fucoxanthin (brown), xanthophylls (yellow), phycoerythrin (red) phycocyanin (blue).

Question 6.
What is biocontrol?
Answer:
Use of microbes to protect crops is called biocontrol.
Example : Trichoderma (fungi) protects plant roots from pathogens.

Question 7.
What is pasteurization?
Answer:

1. Milk is heated up to 70°c to kill the bacteria and it is cooled to 10°c to prevent the growth of remaining bacteria.
2. Then milk is stored in sterilized bottles in cold places.
3. It is a method of preserving milk.

VII. Short Answer

Question 1.
Mention two living characteristics of viruses.
Answer:

1. They respond to heat, chemicals and radiations.
2. They reproduce inside the host cells and produce copies of themselves.

Question 2.
Mention two non living characteristics of viruses.
Answer:

1. They are inactive when present freely in the environment.
2. They can be crystallized and stored for a very long time, like other non – living things.

Question 3.
Draw a diagram of a bacteriophage and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 4.
How are protozoans classified?
Answer:

1. Ciliates – presence of cilia for locomotion (e.g. Paramecium)
2. Flagellates – presence of flagella for locomotion (e.g. Euglena)
3. Pseudopods – presence of pseudopodia for locomotion (e.g. Amoeba)
4. Sporozoans – parasites (e.g. Plasmodium)

Question 5.
What is pseudopodia?
Answer:
In amoeba pseudopodia are the extended part of cell membrane. It helps to catch its prey (algae).

Question 6.
What is retting?
Answer:
Flax plants are tied in bundles and kept in water. Bacteria loosen the supporting fibres of the stem by acting on the stem tissues. This process is known as retting.

Question 7.
Mention the symptoms and preventive measures undertaken for foot and mouth disease in animals.
Answer:

Animal disease	Symptoms	Preventive measures / Treatment
Foot and mouth disease	Fever, blisters in mouth, weight loss, decreased milk production	FMD vaccine

Question 8.
Draw a virion and label the parts.
Answer:

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
How are microbes useful in industry?
Answer:
1. Sewage Treatment:
Aerobic microbes are allowed to grow in the primary effluent during the secondary stage of waste water treatment. These microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent example Nitrobacter sps. In the anaerobic treatment of sewage Methanobacterium is used.

2. Production of Biogas:
Human and animal faecal matter and plant wastes are broken down by anaerobic bacteria to produce methane (biogas) along with carbon dioxide and hydrogen. These bacteria are called as methanogens.

3. Production of Alcohol and Wine:
Alcoholic drinks are prepared by fermentation process using yeast. Sugars in grapes are fermented by using yeast. Beer is produced by the fermentation of sugars in rice and barley.

4. Microbes in Retting and Tanning Process:
1. Retting:
Flax plants are tied in bundles and kept in water. Bacteria loosen the supporting fibres of the stem by acting on the stem tissues. This process is known as retting. Linen thread is made from these fibres example Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

2. Tanning:
In Tanning industry bacteria act upon the skin of animals and makes it soft and therefore it becomes pliable.

Question 2.
Describe the structure of chlamydomonas with neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. Chlamydomonas is a simple, unicellular, motile fresh water algae. They are oval, spherical or pyriform in shape.
2. The cell is surrounded by a thin and firm cell wall made of cellulose.
3. The cytoplasm is seen in between the cell membrane and the chloroplast.
4. The cell contains large dark nucleus lying inside the cavity of the cup shaped chloroplast.
5. The anterior part of the cell bears two flagella which helps in locomotion.
6. Two contractile vacuoles are seen at the base of each flagellum.
7. The anterior side of the chloroplast contains a tiny red coloured eyespot.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Changes Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Changes Around Us Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer :

Changes Around Us Class 7 Question 1.
When a woolen yarn is knitted to get a sweater, the change can be classified as _________
(a) physical change
(b) chemical change
(c) endothermic change
(d) exothermic change
Answer:
(a) physical change

7th Class Science Changes Around Us Question 2.
_________ of the following are endothermic changes.
(a) Condensation and melting
(b) Condensation and freezing
(c) Evaporation and melting
(d) Evaporation and freezing
Answer:
(a) Condensation and melting

Changes Around Us Class 7 Pdf Question 3.
The chemical change is _______
(a) water to clouds
(b) growth of tree
(c) cow dung to bio-gas
(d) ice-cream to molten ice-cream
Answer:
(c) cow dung to bio-gas

Changes Around Us 7th Class Lesson Question 4.
_______ is an example of a periodic change
(a) Earthquake
(b) Formation of rainbow in sky
(c) Occurrence of tides in seas
(d) Showering of rain
Answer:
(a) Earthquake

Question 5.
_______ is not a chemical change.
(a) Dissolution of ammonia in water
(b) Dissolution of carbon-dioxide in water
(c) Dissolution of oxygen in water
(d) Melting of polar ice caps
Answer:
(b) Melting of polar ice-caps

II.Fill in the blanks :

1. Filling up a balloon with hot air is a _______ change.
2. Stretching gold coin into a ring is a _______ change.
3. Opening a gas cylinder knob converts _______ fuel into _______ fuel. This is an example of _______ change.
4. Spoiling of food is a _______ change.
5. Respiration is a _______ change.

Answer:

1. physical
2. physical
3. liquid, gaseous, chemical
4. chemical
5. exothermic chemical

III. True or False – If False give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Cutting of cloth is an example of a periodic change.
Answer:
False, Cutting of cloth is an example of a physical change.

Question 2.
Taking a glass of water and freezing it by placing it in the freezer is a chemical change.
Answer:
False, Taking a glass of water and freezing it by placing it in the freezer is a physical change

Question 3.
A bean plant collecting sunlight and turning it into bean seeds is an example of physical and non-periodic change.
Answer:
False, A bean plant collecting sunlight and turning it into bean seeds is an example of chemical and non-periodic change.

Question 4.
If the chemical properties of a substance remain unchanged and the appearance or shape of a substance changes it is called a periodic change.
Answer:
False, if the chemical properties of a substance remain unchanged and the appearance or shape of a substance changes it is called a fossil change.

Question 5.
Tarnishing of silver is an example of endothermic change.
Answer:
False, Tarnishing of silver is an example of change.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

V. Classify the following changes as physical and chemical changes:

Question 1.
A rough piece of wood is sanded and polished resulting in change in texture, Rusting of a iron nail, Painting the grill, Bending a paper clip, Pounding silver into thin plate, Rolling the chapathi dough into thin wire, Occurrence of day and night, eruption of volcano, burning of matchstick, dosa from the batter, blinking of eyelids, occurrence of a thunderstorm, rotation of the earth, formation of eclipses.
Answer:

Physical changes

1. Bending a paper clip.
2. Pounding silver into thin plate.
3. Rolling a chapathi dough into thin wire.
4. Occurrence of a day and night.
5. Blinking of eyelids.
6. Occurrence of a thunderstorm.
7. Rotation of the earth.
8. Formation of eclipses.
9. Painting the grill.
10. A rough piece of wood is sanded and polished resulting in change in texture.
11. Dosa from the batter.

Chemical changes

1. Rusting of a iron
2. Eruption of volcano
3. Burning of matchstick.

VI Analogy:

Question 1.
Physical Change: Boiling::Chemical Change: ________
Answer:
Burning.

Question 2.
Wood to saw dust: _________ :: Wood to Ash: Chemical change
Answer:
Physical change.

Question 3.
Forest fire: ________ change::Change in period in a school: periodic change
Answer:
Non-periodic.

VII. Very short answer type question :

Question 1.
State two examples of periodic changes.
Answer:
Seasonal changes, motion of hands of a clock.

Question 2.
Mention any two exothermic reactions.
Answer:
Burning of magnesium ribbon and burning of a candle.

Question 3.
Cold milk is heated and it becomes hot. Which type of change it is?
Answer:
Reversible.

Question 4.
What type of change is artificial ripening of fruit?
Answer:
Irreversible chemical change.

Question 5.
What type of change is coloring of a paper?
Answer:
Physical change.

Question 6.
Growing of nails is a periodic change. Why?
Answer:
Growing of nail is a periodic change, because it occurs periodically at regular intervals.

Question 7.
What type of energy changes is associated when ice melts?
Answer:

1. Physical change
2. Endothermic (heat energy is absorbed)

VII. Short answer type question :

Question 1.
Distinguish physical and chemical changes.
Answer:
Physical changes:

1. No new substance is formed
2. Reversible
3. Change in physical properties like size, shape, state
4. Melting of ice, tearing of paper freezing, evaporation vaporization

Chemical changes:

1. New substance is formed
2. Irreversible
3. Change in properties of reactants and products
4. Burning of paper, photosynthesis, digestion of food, rusting of iron

Question 2.
How can a change occur in a substance?
Answer:
A change can occurs in a substance by an alteration in the properties such as colour, texture and the state of the substance since there is formation of a new substance.

Question 3.
Can you suggest a method to collect water from sea water?
Answer:
Evaporation.

Question 4.
Is solar eclipse a periodic change? Give your reason.
Answer:
Yes, solar eclipse is a periodic change as it occurs after a definite interval of time.

Question 5.
What is the difference between dissolution of sugar and burning of sugar ?
Answer:

Dissolution of sugar:

1. When sugar is dissolved in water it disappears. It we taste the solution, the sugar is still present in dissolved form.
2. If water is evaporated we get back the sugar.
3. So it is a physical and reversible change.

Burning of sugar:

1. Fire activates a chemical reaction between sugar and oxygen. The oxygen in the air reacts with the sugar as the chemical bonds broke.
2. Energy is released in the form of smoke.
3. So, burning a sugar is a chemical change.

IX. Long answer type question :

Question 1.
Explain the following statement: Digestion is a chemical change.
Answer:

1. When we eat, our mouth physically break down food into small pieces.
2. Mechanical digestion occurs in the mouth, stomach and small intestine.
3. Food is chemically changed in digestion when new, smaller substances are formed.
4. Moreover, we will never be able to get back the raw material in the same form as it was before.
5. Digestion of food is a permanent change which is irreversible.

Question 2.
How the iron blade is fixed into a wooden handle in tools used to dig the soil?
Answer:

1. First the ring in the iron blade of spade is heated.
2. Heating of the blade leads to its expansion and thus the ring gets bigger.
3. This happens because metals always expand on heating.
4. The metal blade is then fitted easily into the wooden handle.
5. After this, cold water is usually poured on the iron blade which leads to the contraction of the expanded iron blade.
6. The spade can also be left to cool down, undisturbed so that it is firmly fixed, (vu) The blade is attached firmly to the wooden handle of a spade in this process.

X.Higher order Thinking questions :

Question 1.
Peeled and unpeeled banana does not look the same. Does that mean peeling banana is a chemical change?
Answer:
No, it is not a chemical change. We just separated the skin of the banana and there is no change is its composition..

Question 2.
A very hot glass on putting in cold water cracks. What does this change indicate?
Answer:
When hot glass is cooled fast, the glass cools down unevenly and therefore cause the glass to crack because inside contracts while the outside remains expanded. Glass expands when hot and contracts when cold. It’s a physical but irreversible change.

Question 3.
Boiling of water is a physical change; but boiling of egg is a chemical change. Why?
Answer:
Boiling of water is a physical change:

1. On boiling, water is converted into steam. If we cover the beaker with a lid, steam condenses back to water. So, boiling, of water is a physical change since only the physical state of water changes.

Boiling of egg is chemical change:

1. When egg is boiled, chemical nature of the egg changes. The properties of a boiled egg are totally different from the raw egg. Hence, boiling of an egg is a chemical change.

XI. Assertion – Reason type question :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The explosion of fire cracker is a physical change.
Reason (R) : A physical change is a reversible change.
Option:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : e process of conversion of liquid water to its vapours by heat mg the liquid is called boiling.
Reason (R) :The process of conversion of water vapours to liquid by cooling the vapors is called condensation
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are 11 but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation Of A.’

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Burning of wood log to charcoal is a physical change.
Reason (R) : The products formed of burning a piece of wood can be easily converted back to wood log.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
The correct answer is A Both A and R are false]

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : The formation of iron oxide from iron is a chemical change.
Reason (R) : For the rust to form from iron, it must be exposed to air and water.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false. .
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

XII. Picture based Questions:
Observe the picture and list down the changes that are accompanied in the picture.

Answer:
(a)Physical change
(b)Chemical change
(c) Exothermic

Question 2.
Observe the picture containing a kettle and note that it has salt water in it and answer the following questions.
(a) What is name of the process that is done to the kettle?
(b) What will happen to the content of the kettle?
(c) What kind of change is occurring on the cold surface of the metal plate?
(d) What can you say about the quality of water that is obtained in the beaker?

Answer:
(a) Boiling
(b) Water in the kettle gets converted into vapour
(c) Endothermic
(d) Water vapour converted into liquid (condensation)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Changes Around Us Intext Activity

Activity – 3

Question 1.
Take two pans, one wide and another narrow. Fill hot water in both to the same depth. Keep them in open. Observe after one to two hours. The pan that is wide has cooled more than the narrow one. That is more the surface area; the rate of evaporation is more.

From this, can you guess why we unfurl the clothes while putting them to dry, rather than just drape them over the cloth line?
Answer:
Wet clothes dry faster when we unfurl (Spread) them because the rate of evaporation depends on the surface area. If the surface area will be more, rate of evaporation will be higher or more.

Activity – 7

Question 1.
Take a small piece of magnesium ribbon and clean it by rubbing its surface with a sand paper. Hold the magnesium ribbon at one end with a pair of tongs and bring its other end over the flame of a burner.

Answer:
Magnesium ribbon must be cleaned before burning. So that the layer of magnesium oxide can be removed in order to get the desired chemical reaction.
Magnesium ribbon burns in air with a dazzling flame and forms a white ash, I magnesium gets oxidised to magnesium oxide.

Activity- 9

Question 11.
Ask a student to stretch both hands, put a pinch of soap powder in one hand and a pinch of glucose in the other hand. Add a few drops of water to soap powder and ask how the student feels upon adding water. Now add a few drops of water to the glucose at the other hand. Now ask the student how he /she feels on adding water, What is the feeling when water is added to glucose?
Answer:
We feel cool.

Question 10.
What is the difference when water is added to soap powder and when water is added to glucose?
Answer:
When water is added to soap powder we feel hot. When water is added to glucose we feel cold.

Intext Questions.

Question 1.
Look at the following list. Identify the physical and chemical changes and fill in the given table.
(rusting of iron, digestion of food, boiling egg, rotting banana, mixing sand and water, chopping wood, crushing a can, mixtures of different coloured buttons, burning of wood)

Answer:
Physical changes:

1. Chopping wood
2. Mixing sand and water
3. Crushing a can
4. Mixtures of different coloured buttons

Chemical changes:

1. Rusting of iron
2. Digestion of food
3. Boiling egg
4. Rotting banana
5. Burning of wood

Question 2.
When food gets spoiled, it produces a foul smell. Shall we call this change as a chemical change?
Answer:
Yes, it is a chemical change.

Question 3.
Discuss and give your answer. You know that plant produce their food by a process called photosynthesis. Can we call photosynthesis a chemical change?
Answer:
Yes.

1. Photosynthesis is the process through which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. Here is the chemical reaction involved.
2. As we can see, water and carbon di oxide combine to form glucose and oxygen.
3. Since new chemical species are formed, photosynthesis is clearly a chemical change.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Changes Around Us Additional Questions.

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The change of state of a substance from solid to liquid and liquid to gas is ____________
(a) physical change
(b) a chemical change
(c) combination of a physical and chemical changes
(d) none
Answer:
(a) physical change

Question 2.
Rusting of iron is ____________
(a) an irreversible chemical change
(b) a reversible chemical change
(c) an irreversible chemical change
(d) a reversible physical change
Answer:
(a) an irreversible chemical change

Question 3.
Keeping a stone in sunlight for few hours is ____________
(a) a physical change
(b) a chemical change
(c) neither physical nor a chemical change
(d) combination of physical and chemical changes
Answer:
(c) neither physical nor a chemical change

Question 4.
Beating an egg to make a cake is a ____________
(a) physical change
(b) reversible change
(c) chemical change
(d) change in state
Answer:
(c) chemical change

Question 5.
Large crystals of pure substances can be obtained from their solutions by the process of ____________
(a) sublimation
(b) evaporation
(c) melting
(d) crystallization
Answer:
(d) crystallization

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a physical change?
(a) crushing of a paper
(b) Burning of a paper
(c) making boat of a paper
(d) melting of butter
Answer:
(b) Burning of a paper

Question 7.
Cut vegetables turn brown when exposed to air, this is due to ____________
(a) evaporation
(b) oxidation
(c) neutralization
(d) displacement
Answer:
(b) oxidation

Question 8.
Which gas is produced when vinegar reacts with baking soda?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) carbondioxide
(c) carbon monoxide
(d) oxygen
Answer:
(b) carbondioxide

Question 9.
Vanaspathi is obtained from vegetable oils by addition of ____________ to the oils.
(a) oxygen
(b) hydrogen
(c) carbon di oxide
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
(b) hydrogen

Question 10.
The simplest method of preventing rusting of iron is to coat it with oil, grease or paint. The reason being ____________
Answer:
(a) this layer does not allow iron to come in contact with air.
(b) this layer does not allow iron to come in contact with water
(c) this layer does not allow iron to come in contact
(d) this layer does not allow iron to come in contact with air and water.
Answer:
(c) this layer does not allow iron to come in contact

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. When water is added to _______ there will be evolution of heat along with the formation of slaked lime.
2. A lump of curd is the _______ that is obtained by the chemical reaction between hot milk and lemon juice.
3. Heat may evolved or absorbed during a _______ change.
4. Salt is obtained from sea water by the process of _______
5. When magnesium is burnt in air, a new substance is formed which is _______
6.  _______ occurs in the absence of air and in the presence of micro-organisms such as yeast.
7.  _______ are substances that speed up the process of a chemical change and it will not under go any change during the course of the reaction.
8. Galvanisation is a process is which _______ is coated as a layer on iron.
9. The chemical formula of rust is _______.
10. _______ happens when molecules in a gas cool down.
11. Solid substances like_______ , _______ heating without becoming liquid.
12. Dissolution of glucose in water is an _______ Change
13. In an endothermic process, the speed of the molecules is _______ hence they move faster
14. _______ is the changing of a liquid into its solid state and it happens by cooling.
15. The rate of evaporation _______ with rising temperature.

Answer:

1. Quicklime
2. precipitate
3. chemical
4. evaporation
5. magnesium oxide
6. fermantation
7. catalysts
8. chromium or zinc
9. fe₂O₃.H₂O
10. condensation
11. camphor,naphthalene
12. endothermic
13. incresed
14. freezing
15. increses

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Nitrogen gas turns lime water milky.
Answer:
False.
Carbondioxide gas turns lime water milky.

Question 2.
Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a chemical change.
Answer:
False.
Cutting a log of wood into pieces is a physical change.

Question 3.
Iron pipes coated with zinc do not get rusted easily.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Iron and rust are the same substances.
Answer:
False.
Rust is iron oxide.

Question 5.
The chemical name of baking soda is sodium bicarbonate.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Adding sugar to milk is a physical change.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Magnesium + oxygen → magnesium oxide.
2Mg + O₂ → 2Mg O
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Evaporation is a fast process and occurs only at the surface of the liquid.
Answer:
False. Evaporation is a slow process and occurs only at the surface of the liquid.

Question 9.
The rate of evaporation is more when the surface area is greater.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
When lemon juice is mixed with soda water, they produce brisk effervescence
Answer:
true

IV. Match the following :
Question 1.

Answer:

1. (a)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (b)

Question 2.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

Question 3.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

IV. Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Mention few physical properties of a substance.
Answer:
Lustre, malleability, ductility, density, viscosity, solubility mass and volume.

Question 2.
What are crystals?
Answer:
Crystals are solids in their purest form that have definite geometrical shapes.

Question 3.
Is conversion of milk into ice-cream a chemical change?
Answer:
Yes, conversion of milk into ice-cream is a chemical change. Since properties of ice-cream are different from the milk

Question 4.
Which is used as a catalyst during the process of hydrogenation of oils?
Answer:
Nickel, platinum or palladium.

Question 5.
Mention some of the different conditions needed for chemical changes to occur.
Answer:
Physical contact of the substances, heat, light, electricity and pressure.

Question 6.
Write the chemical reaction of baking soda with lemon.
Answer:
Sodium hydrogen carbonate + citric acid → sodium citrate + carbon di oxide+ water.

Question 7.
Give examples for endothermic process.
Answer:
Melting, vaporization and sublimation.

Question 8.
Give examples for exothermic process.
Answer:
Freezing and condensation.

Question 9.
Write the equation for the process of formation of rust.
Answer:
Iron + oxygen + water → rust
2Fe + 2O₂ + 2H₂O →2Fe₂O₃.H₂O

Question 10.
What will happen when we mix baking soda with lemon juice?
Answer:
When we mix baking soda with lemon juice we can hear a hissing sound when bubbles of carbon di oxide coming out and rising is the reaction vessel.

VI. Short Answer.

Question 1.
How would you show that settling of curd is a chemical change?
Answer:
When milk is set to curd, the properties of milk are completely changed and a new product is formed. Curd cannot be converted back to milk, hence it is a chemical change.

Question 2.
Explain how painting of an iron gate prevents it from rusting.
Answer:
When an iron surface is painted, iron does not come in contact with air or moisture. Paint acts as a protective layer and prevents exposure of iron to the atmosphere. Since air and water are necessary for rusting, iron does not get rusted, if painted.

Question 3.
Give an example where heat, light and sound are produced during a chemical change.
Answer:
Burning of a fire cracker is accompanied by evolution of heat, light and sound.

Question 4.
Give an example of a physical change in which the colour of the substance changes.
Answer:
Heat a piece of iron wire on fire. After some time, it turns red in colour. On cooling it is again converted into its original colour.

Question 5.
Write five changes in the characteristics of a substance which can take place during a chemical change. .
Answer:

1. Change in colour
2. Change in physical state.
3. Evolution of gas
4. Absorption or evolution of heat
5. Formation of a precipitate

Question 6.
How can we prevent rusting?
Answer:
Iron articles can be prevented from making contact with oxygen, water/water vapour. A simple way is to apply a coat of paint or grease. These coats should be applied regularly to prevent rusting.

Question 7.
Write a note on catalyst.
Answer:
Catalysts are substances that speed up the process of a chemical change and it will not undergo any change during the course of the reaction. For example, yeast acts as the catalyst in the fermentation of sugar.

Question 8.
We are advised to not to play with fireworks. Give reason.
Answer:
Explosion of a firework is a chemical change. This explosion produces heat,Tight, sound andampleasant gases that pollute the atmosphere.

Question 9.
The process of eveporation is not a good technic to seperate salt from a sea water give a reason
Answer:
The process of evaporation is not a good technique because the soluble impurites do not get removed in the process of evaporation.

Question 10.
Chemical changes are important is our day to day life. Give examples
Answer:

1. Medicines are prepared by carrying out a chain of chemical changes.
2. The materials such as plastics, soaps, detergents, perfumes, acids, bases, salts etc are all made by carrying out various types of chemical changes.

Question 11.
A puddle of water getting pooled around the glass of ice-cream or a glass of ice cubes. When it is kept in room temperature. Give reason.
Answer:
The ice kept in the beaker receives heat from the surrounding air, to melt and form water.

VII. Long Answers

Question 1.
Distinguish between the characteristics of solid, liquid and gas.
Answer:

Question 2.
We would have observed that the plate that covers the cooked food items have water droplets inside. Why? Explain.
Answer:

1. The water vapour emerges from the hot food and goes up.
2. The plate covering the food item is in relative less temperature than the hot food.
3. Thus the more energetic molecules loose energy once they touch the cooler plate.
4. As the molecules lose heat, they lose energy and slow down.
5. They move closer to other gas molecules.
6. Finally these molecules collect together to form a liquid.
7. Condensation happens when molecules in a gas cool down.

Question 3.
Write note on the following:

1. Curdling of milk
2. Fermentation

Answer:
(i) Curdling of milk: Curdling is a process in which liquid gradually turns into solid, forming clumps along the way. Take hot milk in a pan and add few drops of curd, in few minutes milk curdles forming lumpy solid masses. We can even add lemon extract to the hot milk to effect curdling immediately, but the taste and texture of the curd will not be the same as that of the curdling occurring in a few hours.

(ii) Fermentation: Fermentation is the process in which microorganisms such as yeast and certain bacteria break down sugar solution into alcohol and carbon-di-oxide. It is an irreversible process as the alcohol fosned cannot be turned back into sugar. Thus, fermentation is a chemical change.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of physical change with examples.
Answer:

(i) During a physical change, no new substances are formed. In a physical change,the chemical properties of a substance do not change. For example, when ice cube melts, water is formed. In this change, there is no new substance, but water is same both in ice and in water.

(ii) A physical change is usually temporary and reversible in nature. For example, when water is heated, water vapours are formed, once water vapours are cooled, water can be obtained again.

(iii) In a physical change, the chemical properties of a substance do not change. For example, when a piece of gold is melted, its chemical composition remains the same in the solid form and also in the liquid form.

(iv) In a physical change, the physical properties such as colour, shape and size of a substance may undergo a change.For example, cutting of vegetables and inflating a balloon are some examples of physical changes in which size and shape of a substance undergoes a change.

Question 5.
Write the characteristics of chemical change.
Answer:

1. Heat, light or any other radiation may be given off or absorbed.
2. Sound may be produced.
3. A change in smell may take place (or) a new smell may be given off.
4. A colour change may take place.
5. A gas may be formed.
6. Formation of precipitate

Question 6.
Explain about indicators of a chemical change with examples.
Answer:
(i) Take some broken pieces of egg shell in a test tube and add lemon juice to it. You could see bubbles of carbon-di-oxide evolving in the test tube. This is because of the chemical change between the two. Hence, we can say that evolution of bubbles serve as an indicator that of a chemical change.

(ii) When water is added to quicklime (calcium oxide) there will be evolution of lot of heat along with the formation of slaked lime (calciumhydroxide). This is a chemical change and it is indicated by the evolution of heat when the reaction sets in between quicklime and water.

(iii) Spoilage of food is a chemical change and it is indicated by the foul smell. So, change of odour is also an indicator of a chemical change.

(iv) When an iron nail is kept in water for a few days and taken out, the nail will become reddish brown in colour indicating that it has rusted. Rusting is a chemical change and it is indicated by a change in colour of the iron nail.

(v) A lump of curd is the precipitate that is obtained by the chemical reaction between hot milk and lemon juice. So, formation of precipitate is also an indication of a chemical change.

VII. Assertion – Reason type questions

Mark the correct choice as:

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is true butR is false.
d. Both assertion and reason are false.

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Burning of a candle is considered a physical as well as chemical change.
Reason (R)Melting of wax is a physical change melted wax turns into vapours and then bums which is a chemical change.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : No-new substance is formed when water is heated to get steam.
Reason (R) :Conversion of water into steam is a physical change.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Cutting of paper into very small pieces is an irreversible change.
Reason (R) : Physical changes are always reversible.
Answer:
(c) A is true but R is false

IX. Picture based Question:
Question 1.
Cut a fresh slice of potato, apple and brinjal and keep it away for sometime. What is the reason for the change of colour in these cases?

Answer:

1. Colour of the potato and brinjal remains the same when stored in water but there is a change in colour with the piece kept in air.
2. The slice of an apple acquires a brown colour if it is not consumed immediately.
3. This occurs mainly due to oxidation which is caused by oxygen from the air.
4. So, it is a chemical change.

Question 2.

Answer:

1. Meting
2. Condensation

X. Higher order Thinking questions (HOTS):

Question 1.
Give an example to justify the statement that physical changes can be reversible as well as irreversible.
Answer:

1. When water is frozen into ice, it is a physical change. It is reversible since ice can be converted to water again.
2. When a piece of wood is cut into very small pieces, it is a physical change. It is reversible since small pieces of wood cannot be converted back to the bigger piece of wood.
3. It shows that physical changes can be reversible as well as irreversible.

Question 2.
Photosynthesis is a chemical charge. Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis is the process through which plants convert light energy into chemical energy. Here is the chemical reaction involved.
2. As we can see, water and carbon di oxide combine to form glucose and oxygen,
3. Since new chemical species are formed, photosynthesis is clearly a chemical change.

Question 3.
Why is spoiling of food a chemical change?
Answer:

1. Spoiling of food is a chemical change as it involves the breakdown of the food particles by the microbes.
2. When the food gets spoiled certain properties of that food is loosed and some are gained, as there is a new change happening it is a chemical change.
3. Spoilage of food is indicates by the foul-smell. So change of odour is an indicator of a chemical change.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 Movements

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Movements Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Movement In Animals Question 1.
Which of the following parts of our body help us in movement?
(i) Bones
(ii) Skin
(iii) Muscles
(iv) Organs
Choose the correct answer from the options below.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (ii)
Answer: (a) (i) and (iii)

Movement In Animals Class 8 Question 2.
Which one of the following organisms lack muscles and skeleton for movement?
(a) Dog
(b) Snail
(c) Earthworm
(d) Human being
Answer:
(b) Snail

Movements In Animals 8th Standard Question 3.
……………… joints are immovable.
(a) Shoulder and arm
(b) Knee and joint
(c) Upper jaw and skull
(d) Lower jaw and upper jaw
Answer:
(c) Upper jaw and skull

Movements In Animals Class 8 Question 4.
Why do underwater divers wear fin-like flippers on their feet?
(a) To swim easily in water
(b) To look like a fish
(c) To walk on water surface
(d) To walk over the bottom of the sea (sea bed).
Answer:
(a) To swim easily in water

Movements In Animals Class 8 Samacheer Videos Download Question 5.
External ear (pinna) is supported by –
(a) bone
(b) cartilage
(c) tendon
(d) capsule
Answer:
(b) cartilage

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Biology Book Solutions Question 6.
Cockroach moves with the help of its –
(a) leg
(b) bone
(c) muscular foot
(d) whole body
Answer:
(d) whole body

Question 7.
Which one of the following categories of vertebrae are correctly numbered?
(a) Cervical – 7
(b) Thoracic – 10
(c) Lumbar – 4
(d) Sacral – 4
Answer:
(a) Cervical – 7

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Movement of organisms from place to place is called ………………..
2. ……………….. refers to change in position of the part of an organisms body.
3. A structure which provides rigid frame work to the body is called ………………..
4. Axial skeleton in human consists of ……………….., ……………….., ………………..and …………………
5. Appendicular skeleton in human consists of ……………….. and …………………
6. The place where two bones meet is termed as …………………
7. ……………….. is attached to soft parts of the body like blood vessels, iris, bronchi and the skin
8. ……………….. muscle makes pupil of eyes wider.

Answer:

1. locomotion
2. Movement
3. skeleton
4. Skull facial bones. sternum. ribs, vertebral column
5. Pelvic, Pectoral girdle
6. Joint
7. Smooth muscle
8. Radial

III. State True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 1.
Skull in humans consists of 22 bones.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
There are 12 pairs of ribs in human body.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Pelvic girdle is a part of axial skeleton.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Pelvic girdle is a part of appendicular skeleton.

Question 4.
Hinge joint is slightly movable joint.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Cardiac muscle is a voluntary muscle.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Cardiac muscle is a involuntary muscle.

Question 6.
The flexor and extensor muscle of the arm are antagonistic muscles.
Answer:
True

IV. Answer very briefly

Question 1.
What is skeleton?
Answer:

1. The skeleton system provides the hard structure or framework to the human body which supports and protects the body.
2. It is composed of connective tissues like bones, cartilage, tendons and ligaments.

Question 2.
What is cranium?
Answer:

1. Skull has 22 bones of which 8 bones are fixed together to form the cranium.
2. It is called brain box since it protects the brain.

Question 3.
Why our backbone is slightly movable?
Answer:
In the backbone, vertebrae are joined by gliding points, which allow the body to be bent back, front or side wards.

Question 4.
Differentiate axial and appendicular skeleton.
Answer:
Axial skeleton:
The axial skeleton consists of the bones along the axis, or central line of the human body and consists of the skull, facial bones, sternum, ribs, and vertebral column.

Appendicular skeleton:
The appendicular skeleton contains the bones in the appendages of the body, as well as the structures that connect the appendages to the axial skeleton. It comprises the shoulder girdle; the arm, wrist, and hand bones; the pelvic girdle; and the leg, ankle, and foot bones.

Question 5.
What is ligament?
Answer:
A ligament is a band of strong fibrous tissue which connects a bone to a bone.

Question 6.
Define Muscle.
Answer:
Muscles are long bundles of contractile tissue, which has a fixed end (Origin) and movable end which pulls some other part.

Question 7.
Differentiate tendons and ligament.
Answer:
Tendon:

1. They are made of elastic tissue.
2. They attach muscle to a bone

Ligament:

1. They are short bands of tough fibrous connective tissues.
2. They connect one bone to another

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Differentiate between the following.

1. Movement and Locomotion.
2. Endoskeleton and Exoskleton
3. Pectoral and Pelvic girdle
4. Ball and socket Joint and Hinge Joint
5. Voluntary and Involuntary muscle

Answer:
1. Movement and Locomotion

Movement:

• Movement is the act of changing the place or position by one or more parts of the body.
• It can either be voluntary or involuntary.
• A movement takes place at the biological level.
• Movement requires energy.

Locomotion:

• Locomotion is the movement of an organism from one place to another.
• It is always voluntary.
• Locomotion takes place at the organism level.
• Locomotion doesn’t necessarily require energy.

2. Endoskeleton and Exoskleton

Endoskeleton:

• It is the skeleton found inside the body.
• It originals from mesoderm.
• Example: Human beings.

Exoskleton:

• It is the skeleton found on the exterior layer of the body.
• It originals from embryonic ectoderm or mesoderm.
• Example: Scales of fish feathers of birds

3. Pectoral and Pelvic girdle

Pectroal girdle:

• It is situated in the shoulder region.
• It gives articulation to forelimbs.
• The shoulder blade and collar bone remain separate.
• They are comparatively lighter.

Pelvic girdle:

• It is situated in the hip region.
• It gives articulation to legs or hind limb.
• Three bones (ilium, ischium and pubis) are fused to form a single hip bone.
• They are strong to take upto lot of stress

4. Ball and socket Joint and Hinge Joint

Ball and socket Joint:

• A ball shaped head of one bone articulates with a cup like socket of j an adjacent bone.
• Movement can occur in three planes. This joint allows the greatest range of movement.
• Example: Shoulder, Hip

Hinge Joint:

• A cylindrical protrusion of one bone articulates with a trough-shaped depression of an adjacent bone.
• Movement is restricted to one plane. This joint allows bending and straightening only.
• Example: Elbow Knee Ankle

5. Voluntary and Involuntary muscle:

Voluntary muscle:

• They are striated (Multinucleate muscles and unbranched) muscles.
• They are attached to bones.
• Example: found in arms, legs
• They are used as per our will.

Involuntary muscle:

• They are non – striated (Single muscle, central nucleus) muscles.
• They are attached to soft parts of the body like blood vessels, Iris, Skin etc.
• They are not under our control.

Question 2.
What are antagonistic muscles? Give one example.
Answer:

1. Muscles often work in pairs which work against each other. These are called antagonistic pairs.
2. The muscles in the upper arm control the bending and straightening of the arm.
3. The two muscles, the biceps and triceps are working against each other.
4. When the biceps contracts the lower arm is raised and the arm bends.
5. In this position the triceps muscle is relaxed.
6. To straighten the arm the reverse happens.
7. The triceps contracts straightening the arm, while the biceps relaxes.

Question 3.
How is the skeleton of a bird well-suited for flying?
Answer:

1. A bird has streamlined body. Its bones are light and strong.
2. They are hollow and have air spaces between them.
3. The hind limbs of birds are modified as claws, which help them to walk and to perch.
4. The breast bones are modified to hold massive flight muscles which help in moving wings up and down.
5. Birds have special flight muscles and the forelimbs are modified as wings.
6. The wings and tail have long feathers, which help in flying. Birds show two types of flight: gliding and flapping.

Question 4.
What are the functions of skeleton in human body?
Answer:
The skeletal system serves five important functions in the human body:

1. It provides structure and shape to the body.
2. It supports and surrounds the internal organs of the body.
3. Calcium and phosphorus, the two minerals that the body needs for important regulatory functions, are stored inside the bones.
4. Red blood cells are produced in the bone marrow.
5. The bones of the skeletal system act as levers for muscular action.

Muscular movement would not be possible without tendons (fibrous cords of tissue that attach muscle to bone) and ligaments (fibrous cords of tissue that attach bone to bone).

VI. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Name the different types of joints? Give one example for each type.
Answer:

Joint	Examples
Ball and Socket	Shoulder Hip
Hinge	Elbow Knee Ankle
Pivot	Spine (Atlas / Axis joint at the top)
Condyloid	Wrist
Gliding	Spine (between the bony processes of the vertebrae)
Saddle	Thumb, shoulder and inner ear.

Question 2.
Write about the human axial skeleton, giving suitable labelled diagram.
Answer:
The axial skeleton consists of the bones along the axis or central line of the human body. It consists of the skull, facial bones sternum, ribs and vertebral column.

Skull:

1. It is a hard structure made of 22 bones.
2. 8 bones are fixed together to form the cranium and 14 hones fuse to form the face.
3. The lower jaw is the only movable bone of the skull.

Vertebral column:

1. It is called the backbone and runs of the back of the body.
2. It is made of 33 individual bones called vertebrae as follows :
   • 7 Cervical vertebrae
   • 12 Thoracic vertebrae
   • 5 Lumbar vertebrae
   • 5 Fused sacral vertebrae
   • 4 Fused coccygeal vertebrae
3. The hollow tube of the vertebral column contains the spinal cord.
4. Vertebrae are joined by gliding points which allow the body to be bent back, front or side – wards.

Function of vertebral column:

1. It protects the spinal cord
2. It supports the head
3. It serves as an attachment for ribs
4. Helps in walking, standing erect and posture.

Sternum or Ribcage:

1. It is a cone shaped structure in the chest region and made up of 12 pairs of ribs.
2. The ribs attached to the vertebral column at the back and the breast bone in the front.
3. There are 12 pairs of ribs.
   • First 10 pairs are attached to breast bone.
   • 2 pairs are called free floating ribs and are free in the front.
4. Rib cage can contract and expand during breathing.
5. It protects the lungs, hearts and a part to the liver.

Question 3.
Discuss various types of movements seen in living organisms.
Answer:
There are three types of movements:

1. Amoeboid movement:
It is brought about by pseudopodia which are appendages which move with movement of protoplasm within a cell.

2. Ciliary movement:
This movement is brought about by appendages called as cilia which are the hair-like extensions of the epithelium. Both these kinds of movements are seen with cells of the lymphatic system.

3. Muscular movement:
It is a more complex movement which is brought about by the musculoskeletal system. This type of movement is seen in the higher vertebrates.
Example: Human beings.

The movements brought about by the musculoskeletal system, comprising of the joints, skeleton and types of muscles.

Some of the movements in body parts of human are:

1. Movement of eyelids.
2. Movement of the heart muscles.
3. Movement of teeth and jaw.
4. Movement of arms and legs.
5. Movements of head.
6. Movements of neck.

Question 4.
What is a streamlined body? How does it help in the movement of animals that fly or swim in water?
Answer:
1. A streamlined body is one which is pointed at the ends and broad in the middle. When such a body travels through a fluid or gaseous medium it exhibits minimum friction or resistance. A body shape which is streamlined helps cut against the friction created by the medium around the moving body.

2. Streamlined body lowers the friction drag between a fluid, air or water and an object moving trough that fluid. Drag is a force that slows down motion. Streamlining reduces the surface area of the moving object.

3. Streamlining reduces friction of movement to a minimum thus decreasing overall drag. Fishes can save energy while swimming because of the streamlined body.

Question 5.
Write a short note on different types of muscles.
Answer:

Muscles found in higher vertebrates are of three types:

1. Striated or skeletal muscles or voluntary muscles.
2. Unstriated or smooth muscles or involuntary muscles.
3. Cardiac muscles.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Movements Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Gliding allows ………………..
(a) movement in two planes
(b) movement in three planes
(c) movement in one plane
(d) no movement
Answer:
(b) movement in three planes

Question 2.
The greatest range of movement is seen in ……………….. joint.
(a) saddle
(b) hinge
(c) ball and socket
(d) pivot
Answer:
(c) Ball and socket

Question 3.
The wrist bones are examples of ……………….. joint.
(a) condyloid
(b) saddle
(c) gliding
(d) hinge
Answer:
(a) condyloid

Question 4.
There are ……………….. types of movable joints.
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6

Question 5.
……………….. is a immovable joint.
(a) Skull
(b) Lower jaw
(c) Spine
(d) Inner ear
Answer:
(a) Skull

Question 6.
The ……………….. is the strongest bone of human skeleton.
(a) femur
(b) skull
(c) vertebrae
(d) ribs
Answer:
(a) Femur

Question 7.
Flat bones are seen in …………………
(a) legs
(b) spine
(c) shoulder
(d) wrist ankle
Answer:
(c) shoulder

Question 8.
Irregular bones are seen in ………………..
(a) legs
(b) skull
(c) vertebral column
(d) ribs
Answer:
(e) vertebral column

Question 9.
Phalanges refer to bones of the ………………..
(a) ankle
(b) toes
(c) wrist
(d) knee
Answer:
(b) toes

Question 10.
……………….. is not a characteristic of cardiac muscle.
(a) Branched
(b) Multi nucleate
(c) Involuntary
(d) Smooth muscle
Answer:
(d) Smooth muscle

Question 11.
……………….. is not found in arm bone.
(a) Radius
(b) Humerus
(c) Patella
(d) Carpals
Answer:
(c) Patella

Question 12.
The hardest working muscle is found in the …………………
(a) skull
(b) eye
(c) thigh
(d) rib cage
Answer:
(b) Eye

Question 13.
……………….. is a bundle of contractile tissue.
(a) Bone
(b) Skeleton
(c) Muscle
(d) Joint
Answer:
(c) Muscle

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The body of cockroach is covered with exoskeleton made of ………………..
2. Setae are seen in ………………..
3. The Atlas/Axis joint is an example of ……………….. joint.
4. A bone is connected to another bone with a …………………
5. Bones are connected to muscles by …………………
6. Inflammation of joints can lead to a disease called …………………
7. The bones need two important minerals which are ……………….. and …………………
8. The endoskeleton originates from …………………
9. ……………….. is the smallest and lightest bone of human skeleton.
10. The ……………….. protects the brain.
11. ……………….. is the bone of the upper arm.
12. An immovable joint is found in the …………………

Answer:

1. chitin
2. earthworm
3. pivot
4. ligamcnt
5. tendon
6. Arthritis
7. calcium, phosphorous
8. mesoderm
9. Stapes
10. cranium
11. Humerus
12. upper jaw

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Muscles can contract, relax and lengthen.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Muscles can only contract and relax but cannot lengthen.

Question 2.
In the Iris, there are two sets of muscles.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
Non-striated muscles are involuntary muscles.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Cardiac muscles are voluntary muscles.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Cardiac muscles are in voluntary muscles.

Question 5.
There are 14 pairs of ribs.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
There are 12 pairs of ribs.

Question 6.
Bone of upper jaw is a immovable bone.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
Synovial fluid helps to reduce friction.
Answer:
True

Question 8.
Joint between rib and breast bone is a fixed joint.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Joint between rib and breast bone is a slightly movable joint.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1.	Humerus	(a)	Fore arm
2.	Radius	(b)	Leg
3.	Tarsals	(c)	Upper arm
4.	Atlas	(d)	vertebral column

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. b
4. d

Question 2.

1.	Ball & socket	(a)	Elbow
2.	Saddle	(b)	Spine
3.	Hinge	(c)	Thumb
4.	Gliding	(d)	Hip

Answer:

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b

Question 3.

1.	Earthworm	(a)	Flapping
2.	Cockroach	(b)	Setae
3.	Birds	(c)	Slithering
4.	Snake	(d)	Legs

Answer:

1. b
2. d
3. a
4. c

V. Very short Answers

Question 1.
Define locomotion.
Answer:
The movement of an organism from one place to another is known as locomotion.

Question 2.
How does the fish change direction?
Answer:
The caudal or tail fin helps in changing direction.

Question 3.
Name the types of flight seen in birds.
Answer:
Gliding and flapping.

Question 4.
Why do birds have hollow bones?
Answer:
Hollow bones have air spaces between them and make the body light. This helps the birds in flight.

Question 5.
Name the types of movements seen in animals.
Answer:

1. Amoeboid movement.
2. Ciliary movement
3. Muscular movement

Question 6.
Name two joints with examples.
Answer:

1. Ball and socket joint – Eg. Hip
2. Hinge joint – Eg. Elbow.

Question 7.
Name the types of muscles.
Answer:

1. Striated muscle
2. Non – striated muscle
3. Cardiac muscle

Question 8.
Name the regions of vertebral column and number of vertebrae in each.
Answer:

1. Cervical – 7
2. Thoracic – 12
3. Lumbar – 5
4. Sacral – 5
5. Coccygeal – 4

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
How are joints classified? Explain with example.
Answer:
The point at which two separate bones meet is called a joint Depending on the type of movement they allow, joints can be of three types: fixed, slightly movable and movable joints.

1. Fitted or Immovable joints:
In this type of joint, no movement is possible between the two bones. The structures between the bones of the skull box are examples of immovable joints.

2. Slightly movable joints:
Only very little (partial) movement occurs between the two bones. The joint between a rib and the breast bone or between the vertebrae is the example for slightly movable joint.

3. Freely movable joints:
In this type, varying degree of movements is possible between the two bones forming the joint. There are six major types of movable joints.

Condition:
The different types of movable joints are:

Joint	Examples
Ball and Socket	Shoulder Hip
Hinge	Elbow Knee Ankle
Pivot	Spine (Atlas / Axis joint at the top)
Condyloid	Wrist
Gliding	Spine (between the bony processes of the vertebrae)
Saddle	Thumb, shoulder and inner ear.

Question 2.
What is a synovial joints?
Answer:

A synovial joint is a joint which makes connection between two bones consisting of a cartilage lined cavity filled with fluid, which is known as a diarthrosis joint. These are the most flexible type of joint between bones, because the bones are not physically connected and can move more freely in relation to each other. Synovial joints have four main distinguishing features.

Question 3.
Explain the arrangement of arm bones.
Answer:

1. Arm bone is the upper limb made up of humems, radius, ulna, carpals, metacarpals and phalanges.
2. All these bones are joined by hinge joints which allow the limb to move only in one direction.
3. Humems makes up the upper arm.
4. Fore – arm is made up of radius and ulna.
5. Wrist is made up of carpals. Palm is made up of metacarpals Fingers are made up of phalanges.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Educational Development in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Educational Development In India 8th Standard Question 1.
The word ‘Veda’ is derived from ………
(a) Sanskrit
(b) Latin
(c) Prakrit
(d) Pauli
Answer:
(a) Sanskrit

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 2.
Which of the following was an important center for the learning in the ancient period?
(a) Gurukula
(b) Viharas
(c) Pauli
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Gurukula

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 3.
Nalanda, the oldest university in India was located in –
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Bihar
(d) Punjab
Answer:
(c) Bihar

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Question 4.
When did the UNESCO declare Takshashila as world heritage site?
(a) 1970
(b) 1975
(c) 1980
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 5.
Which European country were the first to start Modern System of Education in India?
(a) British
(b) Danish
(c) French
(d) Portuguese
Answer:
(d) Portuguese

Question 6.
Which of the following Charter Act made a provision for an annual grant one lakhs Rupees for the promotion of Education in India?
(a) Charter Act of 1813
(b) Charter Act of 1833
(c) Charter Act of 1853
(d) Charter Act of 1858
Answer:
(a) Charter Act of 1813

Question 7.
Which of the following Commission recommended to constitute the University Grants Commission?
(a) Sergeant Report, 1944
(b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948
(c) Kothari Commission, 1964
(d) National Education Policy, 1968
Answer:
(b) Radhakrishnan Commission, 1948

Question 8.
In which year the New Education Policy was introduced in India?
(a) 1992
(b) 2009
(c) 1986
(d) 1968
Answer:
(c) 1986

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The word ‘Veda’ means ………
2. Taxila ruins were discovered by ………..
3. ………. was the first ruler to establish a madrasa at Delhi.
4. The New Education Policy was revised in ………….
5. ……….. is the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right to Education Act of (RTE) 2009.
6. Mid – day meal program was introduced in schools in ………

Answers:

1. Knowledge
2. Archaeologist Alexander Cunningham
3. Iltutmish
4. 1992
5. SSA (Sarva Shiksha Abhiyanj
6. 1956

III. Match the following

1. I – Tsing – Saraswathi Mahal
2. Francis Xavier – Magnacarta of Indian Education
3. Wood’s Despatch – Western Education in Madras
4. Sarafoji II – University at Kochin
5. Sir Thomas Munroe – Chinese scholar

Answer:

1. I – Tsing – Chinese scholar
2. Francis Xavier – University at Kochin
3. Wood’s Despatch – Magnacarta of Indian Education
4. Sarafoji II – Saraswathi Mahal
5. Sir Thomas Munroe – Western Education in Madras

IV. State True or False

1. The writings of Charaka and Sushrutha were the sources of learning of medicine.
2. Temples were the centers of learning and played an active role in the promotion of knowledge.
3. The Jataka tales tell us that the kings and society took an active interest in promoting education.
4. Women education in India was not prevalent during the medieval period.
5. The RMSA scheme was implemented during tenth Five Year Plan.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Nalanda University was founded in fifth century C.E
(ii) In ancient India teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students to designing their syllabi
(iii) In ancient times the teacher was called Kanakkayar.
(iv) The famous college during the Chola period was Kandhalur salai.

(a) i and ii are correct iii and iv are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii are correct

Question 2.
Find out the Correct pair –
(a) Maktabs – Secondary School
(b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835 – English education
(c) Operation Blackboard – Secondary Education Commission
(d) Salabhogam – Lands were given to temples
Answer:
(b) Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write about the importance of Gurukulas.
Answer:

1. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru / Acharya.
2. Many of these Gurukulas were named after the sages. Situated in forests, in serve and peaceful surroundings, hundreds of students used to learn together in Gurukulas.
3. This was known as ‘Gurukula System’ of education.

Question 2.
Name the most notable universities that evolved in ancient India.
Answer:
The most notable universities the emerged during that period were situated at –

1. Taxila
2. Nalanda
3. Valabhi
4. Vikramshila
5. Odantapuri
6. Jagaddala

Question 3.
Write a short note on Taxila.
Answer:

1. Taxila was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north – western Pakistan.
2. It is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1980.
3. Its fame rested on the university where Chanakya is said to have composed his Arthashastra.

Question 4.
Mention the education centres flourished in Cholas period?
Answer:

1. Rajaraja Chaturvedimangalam – Vedic College (Ennayiram in Former South Arcot District)
2. Tirubuvanai – Vedic College (Pondicherry)
3. Viravajendra – Medical School (Tiruvaduthurai)

Question 5.
Expand SSA and RMSA.
Answer:

1. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)
2. Rastriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)

Question 6.
What do you know about RTE.?
Answer:
Right to Education (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to all the children from the age of 6 to 14 years.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
What were the sources of .education in ancient India?
Answer:
Education in Ancient India:

1. The historical Sources provide the information that from very early times, the tradition on teaching and learning had been in vogue in India.
2. The concept of Education might have originated from the Vedas.
3. The literal meaning the Sanskrit word ‘Veda’ is knowledge and the word derived from the word Vid, which means ‘to know’.

Gurukula System in ancient India :

1. In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed.
2. There were people in homes, villages and temples who guided young children in imbibing pious ways of life.
3. Teaching was oral and students remembered and meditated upon what was taught in the Gurukulas Guru / Acharya.

Question 2.
Write a paragraph about the education under the British rule.
Answer:
History of education in British rule can be divided into four periods.

1. From the early days of the British rule upto 1813.
2. Period from 1813 – 1853
3. Period from 1854 – 1920
4. Period from 1921 – 1947

1. From the early days of the British Rule:

• The Company’s charter was renewed in 1813, which compelled the company to assume responsibility for the education of Indian’s, though on a very limited scale.
• Missionaries, non-missionaries like Raja Ram Mohan Roy of Bengal, Pachyappar of Madras, W. Frazer of Delhi contributed to the cause of education.

2. Period from 1813 – 1853:

• The second period was also marked by great educational controversies concerning the issues of educational policy, medium of instruction and method of spreading education.
• These controversies were partially set at rest by Macaulay’s Minutes of 1835.
• It also encouraging English education for the upper classes.

3. Period from 1854 – 1920:

• The Third phase of British – influenced education may be called the period of an All India Educational Policy.
• It commenced with Sir Charles Wood’s Despatch in 1854.

4. Period from 1921 – 1947 :

• This period may be called provincial autonomy.
• The Act of 1935 ushered a new era of educational advancement through the country.
• After the Second World War, a very important plan for educational development, known as the Sergeant Report (1944) was prepared.

Question 3.
Describe the National Policy on Education.
Answer:

1. The First National Educational Policy of 1968,marked a significant step in the history of education in post independent India.

2. It aimed to promote national progress, culture and to strengthen national integration.

3. In 1986, the Government of India introduced a New Education Policy.

4. The aim of New Education Policy (NEP) was to transfer a static society into a vibrant one with a commitment to development and change. It emphasized an equal opportunities for marginalized – sections of the country and the removal of disparity through scholarships, adult education and open universities, especially for rural India.

5. The New Education Policy called for a child – centered approach in primary education.

6. This policy launched operation of Blackboard to improve primary schools nationwide.

7. The New Education Policy was revised again in 1992.

8. It envisaged the formulation of National Curriculum Framework, emphasis on in – service education,improvement of facilities and streamlining of the evaluation system at the secondary stage.

Question 4.
Give a detailed account on education under Cholas.
Answer:
The Chola Period :

1. The Chola Period was the most brilliant and creative period in the Tamil Literature.
2. Tamil education enjoyed a greater connection with religion and temple.
3. Free education was given to people.
4. The curriculum and syllabi had a theoretical background.
5. From the inscription of that period, we. can now gain knowledge about the qualification of teacher, method of teaching etc.

The education centres flourished in Chola’s Period:

1. Rajaraja Chaturvedimangalam Vedic College (Ennayiram in Former South Arcot District).
2. Tirubuvanai Vedic College (in Pondicherry)
3. Viravajendra Medical School (in Tiruvaduthurai).

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
How does the flagship programme of SSA achieve Universal Elementary Education?
Answer:
The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) is the Government of India’s flagship programme that was launched in 2000 – 01 to achieve Universal Elementary Education (UEE). SSA is now the primary vehicle for implementing the provisions of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (2009) (RTE). Right To Education (RTE) provides for free and compulsory education to all the children from the age of 6 to 14 years. The SSA initiates a variety of innovation and activities related to schools.

IX. Mark the following places on the outline map of India

1. Nalanda
2. Taxila
3.Valabhi
4. Kanchi
5. Vikramshila
6. Delhi
7. Lucknow
8. Allahabad
9. Cochin
10. Calcutta
11. Madras
12. Chidambaram
Answer:

X. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of ancient educational centres and prepare an album.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 2.
Find out the historic importance of Nalanda, Taxila and prepare a power point presentation on it.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Educational Development in India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
……… is derived from Sanskrit word
(a) Latin
(b) Prakrit
(c) Veda
(d) Pali
Answer:
(c) Veda

Question 2.
In 1986 …………. policy was introduced in India.
(a) New Education Policy
(b) New Agricultural Policy
(c) New Industrial Policy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) New Education Policy

Question 3.
………. Program was introduced in School in 1956.
(a) Educational
(b) Mid-day-meal
(c) Free Books Scheme
(d) Free Cycle
Answer:
(b) Mid-day-meal

Question 4.
………… means knowledge.
(a) Prakrit
(b) Pali
(c) Viharas
(d) Veda
Answer:
(d) Veda

Question 5.
Iltutmish was the first ruler to establish a ……… at Delhi.
(a) Madrasas
(b) School
(c) Dam
(d) Gurukulam
Answer:
(a) Madrasas

Question 6.
………. ‘Vid’ means:
(a) ‘Togo’
(b) ‘Toknow’
(c) ‘Torun’
(d) ‘Tostudy’
Answer:
(b) ‘To know’

Question 7.
Education is a continuous process of aquring and sharing of ………..
(a) Knowledge
(b) Skills
(c) Values
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8.
The concept of ……….. might have originated from the Vedas.
(a) Information
(b) Distribution
(c) Education
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Education

Question 9.
……… was an ancient Indian city, which is now in north – western Pakistait.
(a) Jataka
(b) Alexander
(c) Nalanda
(d) Taxila
Answer:
(d) Taxila

Question 10.
The UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in ……….
(a) 1980
(b) 1976
(c) 1986
(d) 1982
Answer:
(a) 1980

Question 11.
………. played a vital role in importing education and served the centers of learning.
(a) Church
(b) Temples
(c) Both‘a’and‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Temples

Question 12.
Chanakya is said to have composed his ……….
(a) Jataka Tales
(b) Taxila
(c) Arthashastra
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Arthashastra

Question 13.
Archaeologist Alexandar Cunningham discovered its ruins in the mid ……….
(a) 15th Century
(b) 17th Century
(c) 18th Century
(d) 19th Century
Answer:
(d) 19th Century

Question 14.
In the later medieval era, the British came to India and introduced ……… education.
(a) Arabic
(b) Tamil
(c) English
(d) Spanish
Answer:
(c) English

Question 15.
…………. of Jaipur encouraged learning of scientific subjects.
(a) Maulana Sadruddin
(b) Ghaziuddin
(c) Ilthumis
(d) Raj a Jai Singh
Answer:
(d) Raja Jai Singh

Question 16.
Several Madrasas were set up by the ………. and nobles.
(a) Sultans
(b) Raja Jai Singh
(c) Maulana
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Sultans

Question 17.
……… came to India for trade and established trading companies.
(a) Arabs
(b) Europeans
(c) Japanese
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Europeans

Question 18.
The first college offering degrees on a completion of a course was started in ……..
(a) Madras
(b) Culcutta
(c) Goa
(d) Cochin
Answer:
(c) Goa

Question 19.
Charter of Act in 1813 made a provision for an annual grant of sum of ………. for the promotion of education.
(a) 1 lakh rupees
(b) 2 lakhs rupees
(c) 10 thousand rupees
(d) 5 lakhs rupees
Answer:
(a) 1 lakh rupees

Question 20.
Gandhiji evolved a scheme popularly known as the ……… scheme of Basic National Education.
(a) Wood’s Despatch
(b) Wardha Scheme
(c) SSA Scheme
(d) Kothari Commission
Answer:
(b) Wardha Scheme

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Free education at secondary level was introduced in ……….
2. ……….. Rural College was established in 1975.
3. The First National Educational Policy of ………… marked a significant step in the history of education in post – independent India.
4. ……… program was introduced in school in 1956.
5. The Annamalai University was founded at ……….. in 1929.
6. The Madras University was founded in ……….
7. The First University in Tamil Nadu under the British rule ……….
8. Wood’s Dispatch of 1854 introduced the department of public instruction in …………
9. ………….. came to Madurai during the time of Veerappa Nayak.
10. The Maratha ruler ……….. collected the old records and kept them in the Saraswathi Mahal Library.
11. ………….. the Governor of Madras Presidency in (1820 – 27).
12. Pradran is an important center of ………. in the country.
13. The curriculum and ………. had a theoretical background.
14. In ancient times, the teacher was called as …………
15. ………… period was the most brilliant and creative period in the Tamil literature
16. ……………. Kings patronized Sanskrit in an exemplary way.
17. The SSA is the Government of India flagship programme was launched in …………
18. In 1948 …………. commission was appointed to present a report on university education.
19. Free and compulsory primary education for all children up to the age of …………
20. The family of Guru functioned as a domestic school or an ………..
21. The ………. accounts given by Hiuen Tsang and I – Tsing.

Answer:

1. 1964 – 64
2. Gandhigram
3. 1968
4. Mid-day meal
5. Chidambaram
6. 1857
7. The Madras University
8. Madras Presidency
9. Fernandez
10. Sarfoji – II
11. Sir Thomas Munroe
12. higher education
13. syllabi
14. ‘Kanakkayar’
15. The Chola
16. The Pandya
17. 2000 – 01
18. Dr. Radhakrishnan
19. 14 years
20. Ashram
21. Jataka tales

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. e
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. c

IV. State True or False

1. The word derived from the word vid, which means ‘to understand’.
2. The Gurus and their students worked conscientiously together to become proficient in all aspects of learning.
3. In ancient India, both formal and informal education existed.
4. Taxila is an important archaeological site and the UNESCO declared it as a world heritage site in 1960.
5. The New Nalanda University is envisaged as a centre of inter – civilisational dialogue.
6. Women education in India was followed during the medival period.
7. The Revered Dr. Middleton, started a missionary college at Calcutta, which become famous as the Bishop’s college.
8. The fourth phase may be called the period of provincial autonomy.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Chola’s period free education was given to people.
(ii) Thinnappalli Koodam was established during the Vijayanagar rule.
(iii) Pradran is an important center of higher education in the country.
(iv) Fernandez, who came to Madurai during the time of Veerappa Nayak, established a primary school.

(a) (i) & (ii) are Correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are Correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Lord William – Western System of Education in India
(b) Sir Thomas Munroe – Creation of two school principal
(c) Fernandez – Printing press with Devanagari type
(d) Thirukkural – Stress the need for education
Answer:
(c) Fernandez – Printing press with Devanagari type

Question 3.
Find out the correct pair
(a) RMSA – College level
(b) SSA – Serva Shiksha Abhiyan
(c) Hiuen Tsang – Vidhyasathana
(d) The Pallava – ‘Kanakkayar’
Answer:
(b) SSA – Serva Shiksha Abhiyan

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is the role of the Teacher?
Answer:

1. Teachers had complete autonomy in all aspects from selection of students to designing their syllabi.
2. When the teacher was satisfied with the performance of the students, the course concluded.

Question 2.
Who introduced Modern System of Educational in India?
Answer:

1. The Portuguese were the first Europeans who started modem system of education in India.
2. Francis Xavier, a Jesuit, started a University at Cochin.
3. The first collage offering degrees on a completion of a course was started in Goa in (1575).

Question 3.
Write a short note on Wood’s despatch.
Answer:

1. The Wood’s Despatch (1854) is called the ‘Magna Carta’ of English education in India because it was the first declaration of British education policy for educating the masses at all levels.
2. But it resulted in the complete control on state education, divorcing it from Indian ideals and culture.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Jataka tales.
Answer:
The Jataka tales accounts given by Hiuen Tsang and I – Tsing (Chinese scholars) and other sources tell us that kings and society took an active interest in promoting education.

Question 5.
Write a few lines about Monasteries.
Answer:
Many monasteries and viharas were set up for monks and nuns to meditate, debate and discuss with the learned for their quest for knowledge during this period.

Question 6.
What are the characteristics of India’s traditional economy?
Answer:
India’s traditional economy was characterized by a blend of agriculture and handicrafts.

Question 7.
Write few Metal Industrial Centers found in India.
Answer:

1. Certain centers of metal industry were quite well known.
2. For example, Saurashtra was known for bell metal, Vanga for tin industry and Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.

Question 8.
Which is the oldest industry in India?
Answer:
Textile Industry was the oldest industry in India.

Question 9.
Write a short note on beginning of modern industries.
Answer:

1. The process of industrialization started in India from the mid-19th Century.
2. The beginning of modem industry is associated with the development in mainly plantations like jute, cotton and also steel.

Question 10.
Write a short note on self-reliance.
Answer:

1. Another positive aspect of industrial growth is the attainment of the goal of self reliance.
2. We have achieved self-reliance in machinery, plant and other equipment.

VII Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain education in Medieval India.
Answer:

1. The country was invaded by various foreign rulers and several traders from different part of the world.
2. Besides, religion, society and culture, education in medieval India also experienced a new perspective.
3. The aim of education during Muslim period (Medieval) was the illumination and extension of knowledge.
4. In the eleventh century, the Muslim rulers established elementary and secondary schools.
5. They founded primary schools (maktabs) in which students learnt reading, writing and basic Islamic prayers.
6. And secondary schools (madrasas) were established to teach advanced language skills. Several madrasas were set up by the Sultans and nobles.
7. The main objective of these madrasas was to train and educate the scholars who would become eligible for the civil service.
8. Iltutmish was the first ruler to establish a madrasas at Delhi during his rule. Gradually many madrasas came into existence.
9. In the later medieval era, the British came to India and introduced English education with the coming of the European missionaries, Western education made firm advances in the country.
10. Various universities and thousands of colleges were formed and popularity of education increased.

Question 2.
Explain the Educational Development in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The pattern of education in Tamil Nadu was not merely reading and understanding of books but listening to learned persons.
2. The Thirukkural stresses the need for education and warns the dangers of illiteracy.
3. In ancient times, the school was called (Palli) and the teacher was a Kanakkayar.
4. Hiuen Tsang gives a graphic picture about Kanchi Buddhist centre and Kanchi, was considered as the main centre of learning.
5. The Chola period was the most brilliant and creative period in the Tamil literature.
6. Tamil education enjoyed a greater connection with religion and temple. Free education was given to people.
7. The curriculum and syllabi had a theoretical background.

Education Centres flourished in Cholas period :

1. Rajaraja Chaturvedimangalam was the famous seat of a Vedic College (Ermayiram in Former South Arcot District).
2. Tirubuvanai Vedic College (in Pondicherry).
3. Viravajendra Medical School (in Thiruvaduthurai).

Education Development in Pandya’s Kings:

1. The Pandya Kings patronised Sanskrit in an exemplary way.
2. It is revealed in the copper plates.
3. The educational institutions of that period were called as (Ghatigai, Salai and Vidhyasathana).
4. Lands were given to teacher. They were known as Salabhogam (Eg. Vallabha Perunchalai at Kanyakumari).
5. The famous college during the Pandya regime was Kandhalur Salai.
6. Mutts occupied a significant place in the promotion of education.

Vijayanagar Rule:

1. Learning flourished under the Vijayanagar rule.
2. Many educational institution were established under their patronage.

Nayak Rule:

1. Thinnappalli Koodam was established during the Nayak Rule.

Question 3.
Explain educational development in modern period.
Answer:

1. Fernandez, who came to Madurai during the time of Veerappa Nayak, established a primary school.
2. Tha Maratha ruler Sarfoji II collected the old records and kept them in the Saraswathi Mahal Library.
3. He also had a printing press with Devanagari type, which was located at Tanjore.
4. Pradran is an important center of higher education in the country.
5. Sir Thomas Munroe the Governor of Madras Presidency (1820 – 27) was highly responsible for the introduction of Western education in Madras Presidency.
6. The Education Commission of Munroe recommended the creation of two principal schools (Collectorate and Tahsildare Schools) in each district.
7. In 183 5 Lord William passed a resolution favouring the introduction of western system of education in India.
8. Wood’s Despatch of 1854 introduced the department of public instruction in Madras Presidency. Grant – in – aid was given to all schools.
9. The Madras University was founded in 1857. It was the first University in Tamil Nadu under the British rule.
10. In 1882 the Local Boards Act was passed. The Board was empowered to open new schools and to get grants from the government.
11. In 1938, all subjects except English were taught in Tamil in Schools.
12. The Annamalai University was founded at Chidambaram in 1929. This was the next step in the development of higher education.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 5 Admission of a Partner Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 5 Admission of a Partner

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Admission of a Partner Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

12th Accountancy 5th Chapter Solutions Question 1.
Revaluation A/c is a ……………..
(a) Real A/c
(b) Nominal A/c
(c) Personal A/c
(d) Impersonal A/c
Answer:
(b) Nominal A/c

12th Accountancy Chapter 5 Solutions Question 2.
On revaluation, the increase in the value of assets leads to ……………..
(a) Gain
(b) Loss
(c) Expense
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Gain

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 5 Solutions Question 3.
The profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities is transferred to the capital account of ……………..
(a) The old partners
(b) The new partner
(c) All the partners
(d) The Sacrificing partners
Answer:
(a) The old partners

12th Accountancy Chapter 5 Question 4.
If the old profit sharing ratio is more than the new profit sharing ratio of a partner, the difference is called ……………..
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Sacrificing ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sacrificing ratio

12th Accounts Chapter 5 Solutions Question 5.
At the time of admission, the goodwill brought by the new partner may be credited to the capital accounts of ……………..
(a) all the partners
(b) the old partners
(c) the new partner
(d) the sacrificing partners
Answer:
(d) the sacrificing partners

Accountancy Class 12 Chapter 5 Solutions Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true in relation to admission of a partner?
(a) Generally mutual rights of the partners change
(b) The profits and losses of the previous years are distributed to the old partners
(c) The firm is reconstituted under a new agreement
(d) The existing agreement does not come to an end
Answer:
(d) The existing agreement does not come to an end

Accountancy Chapter 5 Class 12 Question 7.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer:
(b) 3 2 4 1

Class 12th Accounts Chapter 5 Solutions Question 8.
Select the odd one out:
(a) Revaluation profit
(b) Accumulated loss
(c) Goodwill brought by new partner
(d) Investment fluctuation fund
Answer:
(c) Goodwill brought by new partner

12th Accountancy 5th Chapter Solutions Pdf Question 9.
James and Kamal are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admit Sunil as a partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. Find out the sacrificing ratio.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:5
Answer:
(c) 5:3

Accounts Chapter 5 Class 12 Solutions Question 10.
Balaji and Kamalesh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 2:1. They admit Yogesh into partnership. The new profit sharing ratio between Balaji, Kamalesh and Yogesh is agreed to 3:1:1. Find the sacrificing ratio between Balaji and Kamalesh.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(d) 1:2

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Accountancy Question 1.
What is meant by revaluation of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
When a partner is admitted into the partnership the assets and liabilities are revealed as the current value may differ from the book value. Determination of
current values of assets and liabilities is called revaluation of assets and liabilities.

Chapter 5 Accounts Class 12 Question 2.
How are accumulated profits and losses distributed among the partners at the time of admission of a new partner?
Answer:
Profits and losses of previous years which are not distributed to the partners are called accumulated profit and losses. This belong to the old partners and hence these should be distributed to the old partners in the old profit sharing ratio.

Chapter 5 Accounts Class 12 Solutions Question 3.
What is sacrificing ratio?
Answer:
Sacrificing ratio is the proportion of the profit which is sacrificed or foregone by the old partners in favour of the new partner. The purpose of finding the sacrificing ratio is to share the goodwill brought in by the new partner.
Sacrifice Ratio = Old share – New share

Chapter 5 Class 12 Accounts Question 4.
Give the journal entry for writing off existing goodwill at the time of admission of a new partner.
Answer:
Journal Entry

Std 12 Account Chapter 5 Question 5.
State whether the following will be debited or credited in the revaluation account.

1. Depreciation on assets
2. Unrecorded liability
3. Provision for outstanding expenses
4. Appreciation of assets

Answer:

1. Depreciation on assets – Debited
2. Unrecorded liability – Debited
3. Provision for outstanding expenses – Debited
4. Appreciation of assets – Debited

III. Short Answer Questions

12th Accountancy 3rd Chapter Solutions Question 1.
What are the adjustments required at the time of admission of a partner?
Answer:
The following adjustments are necessary at the time of admission of a partner.

1. Distribution of accumulated profits, reserves and losses
2. Revaluation of assets and liabilities
3. Determination of new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio
4. Adjustment for goodwill
5. Adjustment of capital on the basis of new profit sharing ratio

12th Accountancy 6th Chapter Solutions Question 2.
What are the journal entries to be passed on revaluation of assets and liabilities?
Answer:

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 5 Question 3.
Write a short note on accounting treatment of goodwill.
Answer:
1. For the goodwill brought in cash credited to old partner’s capital account

2. For the goodwill brought in kind (in the form of asset) credited to old partner’s capital account

3. For withdrawal of cash received for goodwill by the old partners

III. Exercises

Chapter 5 Admission Of A Partner Question 1.
Arul and Anitha are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 3. On 31.3.2018, Ajay was admitted as a partner. On the date of admission, the book of the firm showed a general reserve of ₹ 42,000. Pass the journal entry to distribute the general reserve.
Answer:

Ch 5 Accounts Class 12 Question 2.
Anjali and Nithya are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. They admit Pramila on 1.1.2018. On that date, their balance sheet showed accumulated loss of ₹ 40,000 on the asset side of the balance sheet. Give the journal entry to transfer the accumulated loss on admission.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 1 Question 3.
Oviya and Kavya are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admit Agalya into the partnership. Their balance sheet as on 31^st March, 2019 is as follows:
Balance Sheet as on 31^st March 2019

Pass journal entry to transfer the accumulated profits and reserve on admission.

Question 4.
Hari, Madhavan and Kesavan are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. As from 1^st April 2017, Vanmathi is admitted into the partnership and the new profit sharing ratio is decided as 4:3:2:1. The following adjustments are to be made.

1. Increase the value of premises by ₹ 60,000.
2. Depreciate stock by ₹ 5,000, furniture by ₹ 2,000 and machinery by ₹ 2,500.
3. Provide for an outstanding liability of ₹ 500.

Pass journal entries and prepare revaluation account.
Journal Entries

Revaluation Account

Question 5.
Seenu and Siva are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. In the view of Kowsalya admission, they decided

1. To increase the value of building by ₹ 40,000.
2. To bring into record investments at ₹ 10,000, which have not so far been brought into account.
3. To decrease the value of machinery by ₹ 14,000 and furniture by ₹ 12,000.
4. To write off sundry creditors by ₹ 16,000.

Pass journal entries and prepare revaluation account.

Revaluation Account

Question 6.
Sai and Shankar are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3. The firm’s balance sheet as on 31^st December, 2017, was as follows:

On 31^st December, 2017 Shanmugam was admitted into the partnership for 1/4 share of profit with ₹ 12,000 as capital subject to the following adjustments.

1. Furniture is to be revalued at ₹ 5,000 and building is to be revalued at ₹ 50,000
2. Provision for doubtful debts is to be increased to ₹ 5,500
3. An unrecorded investment of ₹ 6,000 is to be brought into account
4. An unrecorded liability ₹ 2,500 has to be recorded now

Pass journal entries and prepare Revaluation Account and capital account of partners after admission.
Journal Entries

Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Question 7.
Amal and Vimal are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 5. Their balance sheet as on 31^st March, 2019, is as follows:

Nirmal is admitted as a new partner on 1.4.2018 by introducing a capital of 30,000 for 1/3 share in the future profit subject to the following adjustments.

1. Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 5,000
2. Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 3,000
3. Land to be appreciated by ₹ 20,000

Prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners after admission.
Answer:
Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Question 8.
Praveena and Dhanya are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 3. They admit Malini into the firm. The new ratio among Praveena, Dhanya and Malini is 5 : 2 : 3. Calculate the sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
Sacrificing Ratio = Old Ratio – New Ratio
Praveena = \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\) – \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 }\)
Dhanya = \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\) – \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\)
Sacrificing Ratio = 2 : 1

Question 9.
Ananth and Suman are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit Saran for 1/5 share, which he acquires entirely from Ananth. Find out the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
New Profit Sharing Ratio:
Ananth = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
Suman = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) – = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\)
Ananth = \(\frac { 1}{ 5 }\) – = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\)
New Profit sharing Ratio = 2 : 2 : 1
Sacrificing Ratio = 1 : 0

Question 10.
Raja and Ravi are partners, sharing profits in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit Ram for 1/4 share of the profit. He takes 1/20 share from Raja and 4/20 from Ravi. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
New Profit Sharing Ratio = Old Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
Raja = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 }\) = \(\frac { 12 – 1 }{ 20 }\) = \(\frac { 11 }{ 20 }\)
Ravi = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 4 }{ 20 }\) = \(\frac { 8 – 4 }{ 20 }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 20 }\)
Ram = \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 }\) + \(\frac { 4 }{ 20 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 20 }\)
New Profit sharing Ratio = 11 : 4 : 5
Sacrificing Ratio = \(\frac { 1 }{ 20 }\) : \(\frac { 4 }{ 20 }\)

Question 11.
Vimala and Kamala are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3. Vinitha enters into the partnership and she acquires 1/14 from Vimala and 1/14 from Kamala. Find out the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
New Profit Sharing Ratio = Old Ratio – Sacrificing Ratio
Vimala = \(\frac { 4 }{ 7 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 14 }\) = \(\frac { 8 – 1 }{ 14 }\) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 14 }\)
Kamala = \(\frac { 3 }{ 7 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 14 }\) = \(\frac { 6 – 1 }{ 14 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 14 }\)
Vinitha = \(\frac { 1 }{ 14 }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 14 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 14 }\)
New Profit Sharing Ratio = 7 : 5 : 2
Sacrificing Ratio = 1 : 1

Question 12.
Govind and Gopal are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5 : 4. They admit Rahim as a partner. Govind surrenders 2/9 of his share in favour of Rahim. Gopal surrenders 1/9 of his share in favour of Rahim. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
New Profit Sharing Ratio:
Govind = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) x \(\frac { 2 }{ 9 }\) = \(\frac { 10 }{ 81 }\) ; \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) – \(\frac { 10 }{ 81 }\) = \(\frac { 45 – 10 }{ 81 }\) = \(\frac { 35 }{ 81 }\)
Gopal = \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 81 }\) ; \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 }\) – \(\frac { 3 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 24 – 3 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 21 }{ 64 }\)
Rahim = \(\frac { 2 }{ 9 }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 }\) ; \(\frac { 10 }{ 81 }\) + \(\frac { 4 }{ 81 }\) = \(\frac { 14 }{ 81 }\)
New Profit Sharing Ratio = 35 : 32 : 14
Sacrificing Ratio = \(\frac { 10 }{ 81 }\) : \(\frac { 4 }{ 81 }\) = 5 : 2

Question 13.
Prema and Chandra share profits in the ratio of 5:3. Hema is admitted as a partner. Prema surrendered 1/8 of her share and Chandra surrendered 1/8 of her share in favour of Hema. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
New Profit Sharing Ratio:
Prema = \(\frac { 5 }{ 8 }\) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 64 }\) ; \(\frac { 5 }{ 8 }\) – \(\frac { 5 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 40 – 5 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 35 }{ 64 }\)
Chandra = \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 }\) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 64 }\) ; \(\frac { 3 }{ 8 }\) – \(\frac { 3 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 24 – 3 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 21 }{ 64 }\)
Hema = \(\frac { 5 }{ 64 }\) + \(\frac { 3 }{ 64 }\) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 64 }\)
New Profit Sharing Ratio = 35 : 21 : 8
Sacrificing Ratio = 5 : 3

Question 14.
Karthik and Kannan are equal partners. They admit Kailash with 1/4 share of the profit. Kailash acquired his share from old partners in the ratio of 7:3. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
New Profit Sharing Ratio:
Karthik = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) x \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 40 }\) ; \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) – \(\frac { 7 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 20 – 7 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 13 }{ 40 }\)
Kannan = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) x \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 40 }\) ; \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) – \(\frac { 3 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 20 – 3 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 17 }{ 40 }\)
Kailash = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) x 10 = \(\frac { 10 }{ 40 }\)
New Profit Sharing Ratio = 13 : 17 : 10
Sacrificing Ratio = 7 : 3

Question 15.
Selvam and Senthil are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 2:3. Siva is admitted into the firm with 1/5 share of profit. Siva acquires equally from Selvam and Senthil. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
New Profit Sharing Ratio:
Siva’s share = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\)
Selvam’s share = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 4 – 1 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\)
Senthil’s share = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 6 – 1 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 }\)
Siva’s share = \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 10 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 }\)
New Profit sharing Ratio = 3 : 5 : 2
Sacrificing Ratio = 1 : 1

Question 16.
Mala and Anitha are partners, sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Mercy is admitted into the partnership with 1/5 share in the profits. Calculate new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
Calculate New Profit Sharing Ratio = 1 – \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) = \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\)
Mala = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) x \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) = \(\frac { 12 }{ 25 }\)
Anitha = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) x \(\frac { 4 }{ 5 }\) = \(\frac { 8 }{ 25 }\)
Mercy = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) x 5 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 25 }\)
New Profit Sharing Ratio = 12 : 8 : 5
Sacrificing Ratio = Old share – New share
Mala = \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 12 }{ 25 }\) = \(\frac { 15 – 12}{ 25 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 25 }\)
Anitha = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) – \(\frac { 8 }{ 25 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 25 }\)
Sacrificing Ratio = 3 : 2

Question 17.
Ambika, Dharani and Padma are partners in a firm sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. They admit Ramya for 25% profit. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio and sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
Ramya share = 25% = 100% – 25% = 75% = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\)
Ambika’s share = \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 }\) x \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) = \(\frac { 15 }{ 40 }\)
Dharani’s share = \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\) x \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) = \(\frac { 9 }{ 40 }\)
Padma’s share = \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 }\) x \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) = \(\frac { 6 }{ 40 }\)
Mercy’s share
New Profit Sharing Ratio
Sacrificing Ratio = Old share – New share
Ambika’s share = \(\frac { 5 }{ 10 }\) – \(\frac { 15 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 20 – 15 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 5 }{ 40 }\)
Dharani’s share = \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\) – \(\frac { 9 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 12 – 9 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 3 }{ 40 }\)
Padma’s share = \(\frac { 2 }{ 10 }\) – \(\frac { 6 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 8 – 6 }{ 40 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 40 }\)
Sacrificing Ratio = 5 : 3 : 2

Question 18.
Aparna and Priya are partners who share profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. Brindha joins the firm for 1/5 share of profits and brings in cash for her share of goodwill of ₹ 10,000. Pass necessary journal entry for adjusting goodwill on the assumption that the fluctuating capital method is followed and the partners withdraw the entire amount of their share of goodwill.
Adjustment of goodwill
Journal Entries

Question 19.
Deepak, Senthil and Santhosh are partners sharing profits and losses equally. They admit Jerald into partnership for 1/3 share in future profits. The goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 45,000 and Jerald brought cash for his share of goodwill. The existing partners withdraw half of the amount of their share of goodwill. Pass necessary journal entries for adjusting goodwill on the assumption that the fluctuating capital method is followed.
Journal Entries

Jerald’s Share of goodwill = ₹ 45000 x 1/3 = ₹ 1,500
As the sacrifice made by the existing partners is not mentioned. It is assumed that they sacrifice in their old share profit ratio = 1 : 1 : 1.
Therefore, Sacrificing ratio = 1 : 1 : 1.

Question 20.
Malathi and Shobana are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 4. They admit Jayasri into partnership for 1/3 share of profit. Jayasri pays cash ₹ 6,000 towards her share of goodwill. The new ratio is 3 : 2 : 1. Pass necessary journal entry for adjusting goodwill on the assumption that the fixed capital method is followed.
Adjusting Goodwill: Old share – New Share
Malathi’s share = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) – \(\frac { 3 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 10 – 9 }{ 18 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 18 }\)
Shobana’s share = \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) – \(\frac { 2 }{ 6 }\) = \(\frac { 8 – 6 }{ 18 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 18 }\)

Question 21.
Anu and Arul were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4 : 1. They have decided to admit Mano into the firm for 2/5 share of profits. The goodwill of the firm on the date of admission was valued at ₹ 25,000. Mano is not able to bring in cash for his share of goodwill. Pass necessary journal entry for goodwill on the assumption that the fluctuating capital method is followed.
Answer:
Mano’s shares: 25000 x \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) = Rs 10000

Question 22.
Varun and Barath are partners sharing profits and losses 5 : 4. They admit Dhamu into partnership. The new profit sharing ratio is agreed at 1 : 1 : 1. Dhamu’s share of goodwill is valued at ₹ 15,000 of which he pays ₹ 10,000 in cash. Pass necessary journal entries for adjustment of goodwill on the assumption that the fluctuating capital method is followed.
Answer:
Dhamu’s share of goodwill against sacrificing ratio:
Sacrificing Ratio = Old share – New share
Varun = \(\frac { 5 }{ 9 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = \(\frac { 5 – 3 }{ 9 }\) = \(\frac { 2 }{ 9 }\)
Barath = \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) = \(\frac { 4 – 3 }{ 9 }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 9 }\)
Goodwill value = \(\frac { 15000 }{ 3 }\) = ₹ 5000.

Question 23.
Sam and Jose are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. On 1^st April 2018, they admitted Joel as a partner. On the date of Joel’s admission, goodwill appeared in the books of the firm at ₹ 30,000. By assuming fluctuating capital method, pass the necessary journal entry if the partners decide to

1. write off the entire amount of existing goodwill
2. write off ₹ 20,000 of the existing goodwill.

Answer:
Journal Entries
(a) Write off the entire amount of existing goodwill

(b) Write off ₹ 20,000 of the existing goodwill

Question 24.
Raj an and Selva are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:1. Their balance sheet as on 31^st March 2017 is as under:

On 1.4.2017, they admit Ganesan as a new partner on the following arrangements:

1. Ganesan brings ₹ 10,000 as capital for 1/5 share of profit.
2. Stock and furniture is to be reduced by 10%, a reserve of 5% on debtors for doubtful debts is to be created.
3. Appreciate buildings by 20%.

Prepare revaluation account, partners’ capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after admission.
Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Balance Sheet

Question 25.
Sundar and Suresh are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 1^st January, 2017 was as follows:

They decided to admit Sugumar into partnership for 1/4 share in the profits on the following terms:

1. Sugumar has to bring in ₹ 30,000 as capital. His share of goodwill is valued at ₹ 5,000. He could not bring cash towards goodwill.
2. That the stock be valued at ₹ 20, 000.
3. That the furniture be depreciated by ₹ 2,000.
4. That the value of building be depreciated by 20%.

Prepare necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet after admission.
Answer:
Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Balance Sheet as on 31.12.17

Question 26.
The following is the balance sheet of Janies and Justina as on 1.1.2017. They share the profits and losses equally.

On the above date, Balan is admitted as a partner with 1/5 share in future profits. Following are the terms for his admission:

1. Balan brings ₹ 25,000 as capital.
2. His share of goodwill is ₹ 10,000 and he brings cash for it.
3. The assets are to be valued as under:

Building ₹ 80,000; Debtors ₹ 18,000; Stock ₹ 33,000 Prepare necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet after admission.
Answer:
Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Cash Account

Balance Sheet as on 01.01.2017

Question 27.
Anbu and Shankar are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 5. The balance sheet of the partners on 31.03.2018 is as follows:

Rajesh is admitted for 1/5 share on the following terms:

1. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 80,000 and Rajesh brought cash ₹ 6,000 for his share of goodwill.
2. Rajesh is to bring ₹ 1,50,000 as his capital.
3. Motor car is valued at ₹ 2,00,000; stock at ₹ 3,80,000 and debtors at ₹ 3,50,000.
4. Anticipated claim on workmen compensation fund is ₹ 10,000
5. Unrecorded investment of ₹ 5,000 has to be brought into account.

Prepare revaluation account, capital accounts and balance sheet after Rajesh’s admission.
Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2018

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Admission of a Partner Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
At the time of admission of a partner calculation of new profit ratio is ………………
(a) not necessary
(b) necessary
(c) optional
Answer:
(b) necessary

Question 2.
In admission, undistributed profit or loss transferred to ………………
(a) New Partners only
(b) Old Partners only
(c) All the Partners
Answer:
(b) Old Partners only

Question 3.
To get sacrificing ratio should be deducted from old share ………………
(a) Gaining share
(b) New share
(c) Neither of the two
Answer:
(b) new share

Question 4.
A person who is admitted to the firm is known as ………………
(a) Outgoing partners
(b) Incoming partner
(c) Both
Answer:
(b) incoming partner

Question 5.
At the time of admission of a new partner the following are revalued ………………
(a) Assets
(b) Liabilities
(c) Both
Answer:
(c) Both

Question 6.
New profit ratio is calculated at the time of admission, by deducting ………………
(a) Sacrifice from the old ratio
(b) Old ratio from the sacrifice
(c) Sacrifice from the new ratio
Answer:
(a) Sacrifice from the old ratio

Question 7.
On the admission of a new partner ………………
(a) Old firm has to be dissolved
(b) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(c) Both old firm and partnership have to be dissolved
(d) Neither partnership nor firm has to be dissolved
Answer:
(b) Old partnership has to be dissolved

Question 8.
When a new partner brings his share of goodwill in cash, the amount is debited to ………………
(a) Premium A/c
(b) Cash A/c
(c) Capital A/c of old partner
(d) Capital A/c of new partner
Answer:
(b) Cash A/c

Question 9.
Goodwill already appearing in the Balance sheet at the time of admission of a partner is transferred to ………………
(a) New Partners’ Capital A/c
(b) Old Partners’ Capital A/c
(c) Revaluation A/c
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Old Partners’ Capital A/c

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 People’s Revolt

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science People’s Revolt Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

People’s Revolt Class 8 Question 1.
The Palayakkarar system was instituted in –
(a) 1519
(b) 1520
(c) 1529
(d) 1530
Answer:
(c) 1529

Question 2.
Which of the following Palayakkarar of Tamil Nadu was the pioneer against the English rule –
(a) Pulitevan
(b) Yusuf Khan
(c) Kattabomman
(d) Marudhu brothers
Answer:
(a) Pulitevan

Question 3.
Colin Jackson was the collector of –
(a) Madurai
(b) Tirunelveli
(c) Ramanathapuram
(d) Tuticorin
Answer:
(c) Ramanathapuram

Question 4.
Veera Pandiya Kattabomman was hanged at the fort of –
(a) Panchalamkurichi
(b) Sivagangai
(c) Tiruppathur
(d) Kayathar
Answer:
(d) Kayathar

Question 5.
Velu Nachiyar was a queen of –
(a) Nagalapuram
(b) Sivagiri
(c) Sivagangai
(d) Virapachi
Answer:
(c) Sivagangai

Question 6.
Tiruchirapalli proclamation was issued by –
(a) Marudhu Pandiyars
(b) Krishnappa Nayak
(c) Velu Nachiyar
(d) Dheeran Chinnamalai
Answer:
(a) Marudhu Pandiyars

Question 7.
Which of the following place was associated with Dheeran chinnamalai –
(a) Dindigul
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Pudukottai
(d) Odanilai
Answer:
(d) Odanilai

Question 8.
Rani Lakshmi Bai led the revolt at –
(a) Central India
(b) Kanpur
(c) Delhi
(d) Bareilly
Answer:
(a) Central India

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Eastern Palayms were ruled under the control of ………………
2. Vishwanatha Nayakar instituted the Palayakarar system with the consultation of his minister ……………….
3. The ancestors of Kattabomman belonged to ……………….
4. ……………… was known by Tamils as Veera mangai and Jhansi Rani of south india.
5. ……………… was called as ‘lion’ of sivagangai.
6. ……………… was described the revolt of 1857 as First War of India Independence.

Answer:

1. Kattabomman
2. Ariyanatha Mudaliyar
3. Andhra
4. Velu Nachiyar
5. Chinna Marudu
6. V.D. Savarkar

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. v
2. iii
3. iv
4. ii
5. i.

IV. State true or false

Question 1.
The Vijayanagar rulers appointed Nayaks in their provinces.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Sivasubramania was the minister of Marudhu pandiyas.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Sivasubramania was the minister of Kattabomman.

Question 3.
Kattabomman was hanged on 17th October 1799.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Fettah Hyder was the elder son of Tippu Sultan.
Answer:
True

V. Consider the following statements and tick (V) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Vellore revolt was held in 1801.
(ii) The family members of Tippu were imprisoned at Vellore fort after the fourth Mysore war.
(iii) At the time of Vellore revolt, the Governor of Madras was Lord William Bentinck.
(iv) The victory of revolt of Vellore against British was one of the significant event in the history of India.

(a) i & ii are Correct
(b) ii & iv are Correct
(c) ii &iii are correct
(d) i, ii & iv are correct
Answer:
(c) ii &iii are correct

Question (a)
Find out the wrong pair :

1. Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram
2. Gopala Nayak – Dindigul
3. Kerala Varma – Malabar
4. Dhoondaji – Mysore

Answer:
1. Marudu Pandiyar – Ettayapuram

Question (b)
Find out the odd one :
Kattabomman, Oomaithurai, Sevathaiah, Tippu Sultan.
Answer:
Tippu Sultan

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What you know about the Palayakarars? Name some of them.
Answer:
1. Palayakkarar was the holder of a territory or a Palayam. These Palayams were held in military tenure and extended their full co – operation to be need of the Nayaks. The Palayakkarars collected taxes, of which one third was given to the Nayak of Madurai another one third for the expenditure of the army and rest was kept for themselves.

2. Kattabomman, Pulithevan, Marudu Brothers, Dheeran Chinnamalai.

Question 2.
What was the part of Velu Nachiyar in the Palayakkarar revolt?
Answer:
1. Velu Nachiyar was a queen of Sivagangai. she was married to Muthu Vaduganathar, the Raja of Sivagangai. In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot and the British troops invaded Sivagangai. They killed Muthu Vaduganathar in Kalaiyar Koil battle. Velu Nachiyar escaped with her daughter and lived under the protection of Gopala Nayaker at Virupachi near Dindigul.

2. During this period she organised an army and employed her intelligent agents to find where the British stored their ammunition.

3. She arranged a suicide attack by a faithfull follower Kuyili, a commander of Velu Nachiar. She recaptured Sivagangai and was again crowned as queen with the help of Marudu brothers.

Question 3.
Who were the leaders of Palayakkarar confederacy in the south Indian rebellion?
Answer:
Marudu Pandiar of Sivaganga, Gopala Nayak of Dindugal, Kerala Varma of Malabar and Krishnappa Nayak and Dhoondaji of Mysore.

Question 4.
What was the importance of Tiruchirappalli proclamation?
Answer:

1. The Marudu Pandyas issued a proclamation of Independence called Tiruchirappalli Proclamation in June 1801.
2. It was the first call to the Indians to unite against the British.
3. A copy of the proclamation was pasted on the walls of the Nawab’s palace in the fort of Tiruchi and another copy was placed on the walls of the Vaishnava temple at Srirangam. Thus Marudu brothers spread the spirit of opposition against the English everywhere.
4. As a result many Palayakkarars of Tamil Nadu went on a rally to fight against the English.

Question 5.
Bring out the effects of the Vellore revolt.
Answer:
Effects of the Vellore Revolt:

1. The new methods and uniform regulations were withdrawn.
2. The family of Tippu as a precautionary measure was sent to Calcutta.
3. William Cavendish Bentinck was removed from his service.

Question 6.
What was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
1. The immediate cause was the introduction of new Enfield Riffles in the army. The top of the cartridge of this rifle was to be removed by the mouth before loading it in the rifle. The cartridges were greased by the fat of pig and the cow.

2. The Indian sepoys believed that the British were deliberately attempting to spoil the religion of both the Hindus and the Muslims because while the Hindus revered the cow, the Muslims hated the pig.

3. The soldiers, therefore, determined to refuse their service and, ultimately revolted.

4. Thus, the primary and the immediate cause of the revolt was the use of the greased cartridges.

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
What do you know about the Pulithevar?
Answer:
1. Pulithevar was the pioneer in Tamil Nadu, to protest against the English rule in India. He was the Palayakkarar of the Nerkattumseval, near Tirunelveli.

2. During his tenure he refused to pay the tribute neither to Mohammed Ali, the Nawab of Arcot nor to the English. Further he started opposing them. Hence, the forces of the Nawab of Arcot and the English attacked Pulithevar. But the combined forces were defeated by Pulithevar at Tirunelveli.

3. Pulithevar was the first Indian king to have fought and defeated the British in India. After this victory Pulithevan attempted to form a league of the Palayakkars to oppose the British and the Nawab.

4. In 1759, Nerkattumseval was attacked by the forces of Nawab of Arcot under the leadership of Yusuf Khan.

5. Pulithevar was defeated at Anthanallur and the Nawabs forces captured Nerkattumsevval in 1761.

6. Pulithevar who lived in exile recaptured Nerkattumseval in 1764. Later, he was defeated by Captain Campell in 1767. Pulithevar escaped and died in exile without fulfilling his purpose, although his courageous trail of a struggle for independence in the history of South India.

Question 2.
Explain the events that led to conflict between Dheeran Chinnamalai and the british.
Answer:
1. Dheeran Chinnamalai was bom at Melapalayam in Chennimalai near Erode. His original name was Theerthagiri. He was a palayakkarar of Kongu country who fought the British East India Company.

2. The Kongu country comprising Salem, Coimbatore, Kamr and Dindigul formed a part of the Nayak kingdom of Madurai but had been annexed by the Wodayars of Mysore.

3. After the fall of the Wodayars, these territories along with Mysore were controlled by the Mysore Sultans. After the third and fourth Mysore wars the entire Kongu region passed into the hands of the English.

4. Dheeran Chinnamalai was trained by French military in modem warfare. He was along the side Tippu Sultan to fight against the British East India Company and got victories against the British.

5. After Tippu Sultan’s death Chinnamalai settled down at Odanilai and constructed a fort there to continue his struggle against the British. He sought the help of Marathas and Maruthu Pandiyar to attack the British at Coimbatore in 1800.

6. British forces managed to stop the armies of the allies and hence Chinnamalai was forced to attack Coimbatore on his own. His army was defeated and he escaped from the British forces.

7. Chinnamalai engaged in guerrilla warfare and defeated the British in battles at Cauvery, Odanilai and Arachalur. During the final battle, Chinnamalai was betrayed by his cook Nallapan and was hanged in Sankagiri Fort in 1805.

Question 3.
What were the causes for the Great revolt of 1857?
Answer:
1. The most important cause of revolt 1857 was a popular discontent of the British policy of economically exploiting India. This hurt all sections of society. The peasants suffered due to high revenue demands and the strict revenue collection policy.

2. Policies of doctrine of lapse, subsidiary alliance and policy of Effective Control created discontentment among people. Annexation of Oudh proved that even the grovelling loyalty can’t satisfy British greed for territories.

3. The conversion activities of Christian missionaries were looked upon with suspicion and fear. The priests and the maulavis showed their discontent against the British rule.

4. Abolition of practices like sati, female infanticide, support to widow remarriage and female education were seen by many as interference in their Indian culture by the Europeans.

5. The Indian sepoys were looked upon as inferior beings and treated with contempt by their British officers. They were paid much less than the British soldiers. All avenues of the promotion were closed to them as all the higher army posts were reserved for the British.

Question 4.
What were the causes for the failure of the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
Various causes were responsible for the failure of the revolt:

1. Lack of organisation, discipline, common plan of action, centralised leadership, modem weapons and techniques.

2. The rebel leaders were no match to the British Generals. Rani Lakshmi Bai, Tantia Tope and Nana Saheb were courageous but they were not good generals.

3. Non – participation of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, western Punjab and Rajputana.

4. The modem educated Indians did not support the Revolts as they believed that only British rule could reform Indian society and modernize it.

5. The British managed to get the loyalty of the Sikhs, Afghans and the Gurkha regiments. The Gurkhas actually helped the British in suppressing the revolt.

6. The British had better weapons, better generals, and good organisation.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Prove that there was no common purpose among the leaders of the Great revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. The revolt did not have a clear leader. Bahadur Shah II was old and exhausted. He lacked military leadership.
2. At kanpur, Nana Sahib was proclaimed a Peshwa, who was he adopted son of the exited Peshwa Baji Rao II.
3. He believed that he was entitled to a pension from the British.
4. When he was refused to be given, he was compelled to revolt against them. Rani Lakshmi Bai and Tantia Tope fought for Jhansi and Gwaliar.
5. Begun of Awadh wanted to safeguard her territory.
6. Khan Bahadur khan fought against the British when they subjugated his government in Bareiley.
7. As such, they lacked unity and gave way for the easy victory of the British.

Ix. Map skill

Question 1.
On the Riyer map of India mark the following centres of the revolt of 1857.

1. Delhi
2. Lucknow
3. Meerut
4. Barrackpore
5. Jhansi
6. Gwalior
7. Kanpur

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History People’s Revolt Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Viswanatha instituted Palayakkarar system in ……………..
(a) 1546
(b) 1529
(c) 1539
(d) 1549
Answer:
(b) 1529

Question 2.
The Eastern Palayams were the ……………..
(a) Nayaks
(b) Maravas
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Pandyas
Answer:

Question 3.
The Western Palayams were the ……………..
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Maravas
(d) Nayaks
Answer:
(c) Maravas

Question 4.
The ancestors of …………… migrated to Tamil country during the 11th Century.
(a) Pulithevan
(b) Sivasubramaniam
(c) Nawab of Arcot
(d) Kattabomman
Answer:
(d) Kattabomman

Question 5.
……………….. became a poligar during the rule of Nayaks.
(a) Jagaveera Pandiya Kattabomman
(b) Pulithevan
(c) Oomathurai
(d) Sevathaiah
Answer:
(a) Jagaveera Pandiya Kattabomman

Question 6.
After the decline of the Vijayanagar empire, the ……………. established their supremacy in the south.
(a) Nizamz
(b) Mughals
(c) Marathas
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(b) Mughals

Question 7.
…………….. the Governor of Madras council ordered Kattabomman to surrender.
(a) Colin Jackson
(b) S.R. Lushington
(c) Edward Clive
(d) Agnew
Answer:
(c) Edward Clive

Question 8.
In a clash at , SIva subramaniyam was taken as a prisoner.
(a) Pudukottai
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Kayathar
(d) Kallarpatti
Answer:
(d) Kallarpattil

Question 9.
In 1772 the ………….. laid seige of Sivaganga and captured it.
(a) Velu Nachiyar
(b) Nawab of Arcot
(c) Britian
(d) Palayakkaras
Answer:
(b) Nawab of Arcoti

Question 10.
Umaithurai and other fled to Sivaganga, where ………….. gave protection to them.
(a) Marudu Pandya
(b) Nawabs
(c) Pulithevar
(d) Gopala Nayak
Answer:
(a) Marudu Pandya

Question 11.
…………… was the capital of chinna Marudhu.
(a) Palayamkottai
(b) Sivaganga
(c) Siruvayal
(d) Mysore
Answer:
(c) Siruayal

Question 12.
……………… policy followed by the English split the forces of the Palayakkarars.
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Divide and Rule
(c) Subsidiary Alliance
(d) Permanent Settlement
Answer:
(b) Divide and Rule

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. became the Nayak of Madurai in 1529.
2. The two blocs among the Palayakkarars were the ………….. and the ………….. blocs.
3. The Western Palayams were ruled under the control of ……………
4. ………….. was the capital of Virapandiyapuram.
5. ………….. was appointed collector in the place of Colin Jackson.
6. ………….. Raj a of pudukottai captured kattabomman and handed him over to the Britian.
7. Siva Subramania was executed at ……………
8. ………….. was more popular among the Marudu Brothers.
9. Penang in Malaya was called the ………….. island.
10. Chinnamalai was betrayed by his cook …………..

Answer:

1. Viswanatha
2. Eastern, Western
3. Pulithevan
4. Panchalankurichi
5. S.R. Lushington
6. Vijaya Ragunatha Tondaiman
7. Nagalauram
8. Chinna Marudu
9. Prince of Wales
10. Nallappan]

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. iv
3. v
4. i
5. ii.

IV. State True or False

Question 1.
Oomathurai was the brother of Veerapandya Kattabomman.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In 1772, the British laid seige of sivaganga and captured it.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In 1772, the Nawab of Arcot laid seige of sivaganga and captured it.

Question 3.
V.D. Savarkar calls the Vellore revolt of 1806 as the prelude to the first war of Indian Independence.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Lord Canning called the British army deputed to Germany by Britain to Calcutta.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Lord Canning called the British army deputed to China by Britain to Calcutta.

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) In May 1801, English attacked the rebels in Thanjavur and Tiruchi areas.
(ii) The Maruthu brothers were executed in the fort of vellore.
(iii) Oomathurai and Sevathaiah were captured and beheaded at Panchalankurichi.
(iv) The Karnataka Treaty was signed in 1805.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i, ii and iv are correct
Answer:
(c) i and iii are correct

Question 2.
Find out the wrong Pair

1. Periya Marudu – Vella Marudhu
2. Pulithevan – Nerkattum seval
3. Tippu sultan – Kanpur
4. Dheeran Chinnamalai – Erode

Answer:
3. Tippu sultan – Kanpur

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What was the main causes of rivalry between the English and Kattabomman?
Answer:
Based on the Carnatic treaty of 1792, the company gained the right to collect taxesfrom Panchalamkuruchi. The collection of tribute was the main cause for the rivalry between the English and Kattabomman.

Question 2.
Why did the Madras Goverment direct the collector to Summon the Palavakkarar (Kattabomman)
Answer:
In 1798, Colin Jackson, the collector of Ramanathapuram wrote letters to Kattabomman asking him to pay the tribute arrears. But Kattabomman replied that he was not in a position to remit the tribute due to the famine in the country. Colin Jackson got angry and decided to send an expedition to punish Kattabomman. So the Madras government directed the collector to summon the Palayakkarar at Ramanathapuram and hold a discussion.

Question 3.
What action was taken against the collector for his misbehaviour at Ramanathapuram?
Answer:
Kattabomman wrote a letter to the Madras Council narrating the behaviour of the Collector Colin Jackson. Edward Clive, the Governor of Madras dismissed the Collector for his misbehaviour and released SivaSubramania.

Question 4.
Write a note on Tiruchirpalli proclamation.
Answer:
Marudu Pandyan of Sivaganga formed the South Indian Confederacy of rebels against the British, along with the neighbouring Palayakkarars. This confederacy declared a proclamation which came to be known as Tiruchirappalli Proclamation.

Question 5.
Why did the company order the army to march to Panchalamkurchi?
Answer:
Kattabomman tried to establish his influence over Sivagiri,who refused to join with alliance of the rebels. Kattabomman advanced towards Sivagiri. But the Palayakkar of Sivagiri was a tributary to the Company. So the Company considered the expedition of Kattabomman as a challenge to their authority. So the Company ordered the army to march to Panchalamkuruchi.

Question 6.
Why did the company wage war against Sivaganga?
Answer:
Kattabomman was hanged to death and his brother Umaithurai and others fled to Sivaganga, where Marudu Pandya gave protection to them. The merchants of Sivaganga did not like the interference of the company in their internal politics. The company waged war against Sivaganga for these two causes.

Question 7.
How did the Vellore fort become the meeting ground of the rebel forces of South India?
Answer:
The Vellore fort consisted of large majority of Indian troops, a good part of it recently been raised in Tirunelveli after the Palayakarar uprising of 1800. Many of the trained soldiers of the various Palayams were admitted into the English army. Thus the Vellore fort became the meeting ground of the rebel forces of South India.

Question 8.
State the causes for the Vellore revolt.
Answer:
Causes for the revolt:

1. The strict discipline, new weapons, new methods and uniforms were all new to the sepoys.
2. The sepoys were asked to shave the beard and to trim the moustache.
3. The wearing of religious mark on the forehead and the use of earrings were also banned.
4. The English treated the Indian sepoys as their inferior. There was the racial prejudice.

Question 9.
How did the British regain their lost positions after the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
Lord Canning, the governor-general took immediate steps to suppress the revolt. He collected the forces of Madras, Bombay, Sri Lanka and Burma. On his own initiative, he called the British army which was deputed to China by Britain to Calcutta. He ordered the loyal Sikh army to proceed to Delhi immediately. The British regained their lost positions very soon.

Question 10.
Mention the places of 1853 revolt and the Indian leaders involved.
Answer:
Places of Revolt:

• Delhi
• Lucknow
• Kanpur
• Jhansi & Gwalior
• Bareilly
• Bihar

Indian Leaders:

• Bahadur Shah II
• Begum Hazrat Mahal
• Nana Saheb
• Lakshmi Bai, Tantia tope
• Khan Bahadur Khan
• Kunwar Singh

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Narrate the fall of Panchalamkurchi.
Answer:
1. Major Bannerman moved his army to Panchalamkuruchi on 5th September. They cut of all the communications to the Fort. In a clash at Kallarpatti, Siva Subramaniyam was taken as a prisoner. Kattabomman escaped to Pudukottai.

2. Vijaya Ragunatha Tondaiman, Raja of Pudukottai, captured Kattabomman from the jungles of Kalapore and handed over to the Company. After the fall of Panchalamkuruchi, Bannerman brought the prisoners to an assembly of the Palayakkarars and after trial sentenced them to death. Sivasubramania was executed at Nagalapuram.

3. On the 16th October ViraPandya Kattabomman was tried before an assembly of Palayakkarar, summoned at Kayathar. On 17th October 1799, Kattabomman was hanged at the fort of Kayathar. Kattabomman’s heroic deeds were the subject of many folk ballads which kept his memory alive among the people.

Question 2.
Explain the course and suppression of the Vellore Revolt.
Answer:
Course of the Vellore Revolt:

1. The Indian soldiers were waiting for an opportunity to attack the English officers. Tippu’s family also took part. Fettah Hyder, the elder son of Tippu, tried to form an alliance against the English.

2. On July 10th in the early morning the native sepoys of the 1 st and 23rd Regiments started the revolt. Colonel Fancourt, who commanded the garrison, was their first victim. The fort gates were closed. Meantime, the rebels proclaimed Futteh Hyder, as their new ruler. The British flag in the fort was brought down. The tiger-striped flag of Tippu Sultan was hoisted on the fort of Vellore.

Suppression of the Vellore Revolt:

1. Major Cootes who was outside the fort rushed to Ranipet and informed Colonel Gillespie. Col. Gillespie reached Vellore fort. He made an attack on the rebel force. The revolt was completely suppressed and failed. Peace was restored in Vellore.

2. On the whole, 113 Europeans and about 350 sepoys were killed in the uprising. The revolt was suppressed within a short period. It was one of the significant events in the history of Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Describe the Course of the 1857 Revolt.
Answer:
On 10 May 1857, the Sepoys of the third cavalry at Meerut openly revolted by swarming the prisons and releasing their comrades. They were immediately joined by the men of the 11th and 20th Native Infantries, and they murdered some English officers and then marched to Delhi. The arrival of Meerut sepoys at Delhi on 11th May and declared of Bahadur Shah II as the Emperor of India. Delhi became the centre of the Great Revolt and Bahadur Shah, its symbol.

The revolt spread quickly. There were mutinies at Lucknow, Kanpur, Jhansi, Bareilly, Bihar, Faizabad, and many other places in north India. Many of them . found that it was a good opportunity to bum the papers of their landlords. Many others whose titles and pensions were abolished by the British who participated in it, inorder to take revenge. The Muslim leaders and Maulvis sought the opportunity of establishing the Muslim rule in India after turning out the British.

Question 4.
What were the consequences of the 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Consequences of the Revolt:

1. The Revolt of 1857 marked a turning point in the history of India. It led to changes in the system of administration and the policy of the Government.
2. The administration of India was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown through the ‘Queen’s Proclamation’ in 1858.
3. The governor general was given the title of viceroy.
4. The Board of Directors and the Board of Control were replaced by the Council of 15 members headed by the Secretary of State to supervise Indian affairs.
5. The Indian Army was thoroughly reorganised. More Britishers were employed in the army.
6. The British military policy came to be dominated by the idea of ‘divide and counterpoise’.