Laxmi

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.3 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.3

கேள்வி 1.
f = { (x,y)/x, y ∈ N மற்றும் y = 2x } ஆனது N-ன் மீதான ஒரு உறவு என்க. மதிப்பகம், துணை மதிப்பகம் மற்றும் வீச்சகத்தைக் காண்க. இந்த உறவு சார்பாகுமா?
தீர்வு :
x, y ∈N
x = {1,2,3 ……}
y = {1,2,3….}
கணக்கின்படி y = 2x
x = 1 எனில் y = 2 x 1 = 2
x = 2 எனில் y = 2 x 2 = 4
x = 3 எனில் y = 2 x 3 = 6
∴ R = {(1,2), (2,4), (3,6), …….)
மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, ……………….}
துணை மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, 4……….}
சார்பகம் = {2, 4, 6, ………………}
இந்த உறவு சார்பு ஆகும்.

கேள்வி 2.
x = {3, 4, 6, 8) என்க . R ={(x, f(x) | x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1} என்ற உறவானது X- லிருந்து N க்கு ஒரு சார்பாகுமா?
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = x² + 1 இங்கே X = {3, 4, 6, 8}
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 9 + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 16 + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 36 + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 64 + 1 = 65
இது ஒரு சார்பு ஆகும்
காரணம் : Xல் உள்ள ஒவ்வொரு உறுப்பிற்கும்
N ல் ஒரே ஒரு உறுப்புடன் தொடர்புள்ளது.

கேள்வி 3.
கொடுக்கப்பட்ட சார்பு f 😡 → x² – 5x + 6, எனில்
(i) f(-1)
(ii) f(2a)
(iii) f(2)
(iv) f(x-1)
ஆகியவற்றை மதிப்பிடுக.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = x² – 5x + 6)
i) x = -1 எனில்
f(-1) = (-1)² – 5(-1) + 6
= 1 + 5 + 6
= 12

ii) x = 2a எனில்
f(2a) = (2a)² – 5(2a) = 6
= 4a² -10a + 6

iii) x = 2 எனில்
f(2) = (2)² – 5(2) + 6 = 4-10+6
= 0

iv) x = x-1 எனில்
f(x-1) = (x-1)² – 5(x-1) + 6
= x² – 2x + 1 -5x + 5 + 6
= x² – 7x + 12

கேள்வி 4.
படம் 1.16 ல் கொடுக்கப்பட்ட வரைபடம் f(x) யின் மூலமாக f(9) = 2 என்பது தெளிவாகிறது.

i) பின்வரும் சார்புகளின் மதிப்புகளைக் காண்க.
(அ) f (0) (ஆ) f (7) (இ) f (2) (ஈ) f (10)
ii) x-இன் எம்மதிப்பிற்கு f(x) = 1 ஆக இருக்கும்?
iii) படம் 1.16 யில் (i) மதிப்பகம் (ii) வீச்சகம் காண்க.
iv) f என்ற சார்பில் 6 -ன் நிழல் உரு என்ன?
தீர்வு :
i) (a) f (0) = 9)
(b) f (7) = 6
(c) f (2) = 6
(d) f (10) = 0

ii) f (x) = 1 எனில் x ன் மதிப்பு 9.5
iii) மதிப்பகம் = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
வீச்சகம் = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
iv) 6ன் நிழல் உரு 5

கேள்வி 5.
f(x) = 2x + 5 என்க. x ≠ 0 எனில், \(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}\) ஐக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = 2x + 5
f(x + 2) = 2(x+2) + 5
= 2x + 4 + 5
= 2x +9

f(2) = 2(2) + 5
= 4 + 5 = 9
\(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}=\frac{2 x+9-9}{x}=\frac{2 x}{x}\) = 2

கேள்வி 6.
ஒரு சார்பு f ஆனது f(x) = 2x – 3 என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால்
i) \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\) ஐக் காண்க
ii) f(x) = 0 எனில், x – ஐக் காண்க
iii) f(x) = x எனில், x – ஐக் காண்க
iv) f(x) = f(1-x) எனில், x – ஐக் காண்க
தீர்வு :
தரவு f(x) = 2x – 3 எனில்
f(0) = 2(0) – 3 = 0 – 3 = -3
f(1) = 2(1) – 3 = 2 – 3 = -1
(i) \(\frac{\mathrm{f}(0)+\mathrm{f}(1)}{2}=\frac{-3-1}{2}=\frac{-4}{2}\) = -2
ii) தரவு f(x) = 0 எனில்
2x – 3 = 0
2x = 3 ⇒ x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

iii) தரவு f(x) = x எனில்
2x – 3 = x
2x – x = 3
x = 3

iv) தரவு f(x) = f(1-x) எனில்
2x – 3= 2(1-x) -3
2x – 3 = 2 – 2x -3
2x – 3 = -1 – 2x
2x + 2x = -1 +3
4x = 2 ⇒ x = \(\frac{2}{4}=\frac{1}{2}\)

கேள்வி 7.
24 செ.மீ பக்க அளவுள்ள சதுர வடிவத் துண்டிலிருந்து நான்கு மூலைகளிலும் சம அளவுள்ள சதுரங்களை வெட்டிப்படம் 1.17 ல் உள்ளவாறு மேல் புறம் திறந்த ஒரு பெட்டி செய்யப்படுகிறது. இந்தப் பெட்டியின் கன அளவு Vஎனில், V ஐx -யின் சார்பாகக் குறிப்பிடுக.

தீர்வு :
நீளம் = 24 – 2x
அகலம் = 24 – 2x
உயரம் = x
பெட்டியின் கன அளவு = l x b x h
= (24 – 2x) x (24 – 2x) x x
= (24 – 2x)² x x
= (576 – 96x + 4x²) x x
= 4x³ – 96x² + 576x

கேள்வி 8.
f என்ற சார்பு f(x) = 3 – 2x என வரையறுக்கப்படுகிறது. f(x²) = (f(x))² எனில் Xஐக் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
f(x) = 3 – 21 எனில்
f(x) = 3 – 2x²
[f(x)]? = (3 – 23)²
கணக்கின் படி f(x2) = [f(x)]²
3 – 2x² = (3 – 2x)² |
3 – 2x² = 9 – 12x + 4x²
4x² + 2x² – 12x = 3 – 9
6x² – 12x = -6
6x² – 12x + 6 = 0
÷6 ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
⇒ (x – 1)² = 0
⇒ x- 1 = 0
∴ x = 1

கேள்வி 9.
ஒரு விமானம் 500 கி.மீ / மணி வேகத்தில் பறக்கிறது. விமானம் ‘d’ தொலைவு செல்வதற்கு ஆகும் காலத்தை f (மணியில்)-ன் சார்பாக வெளிப்படுத்துக.
தீர்வு :
வேகம் = 500 கி.மீ / மணி
காலம் = t நேரம் என்க
தூரம் = வேகம் X நேரம்
= 500 x t = 500 t

கேள்வி 10.
அருகில் உள்ள அட்டவணையில் நான்கு நபர்களின் முன்னங்கைகளின் நீளம் மற்றும் அவர்களுடைய உயரங்களின் தகவல்கள் வழங்கப்பட்டுள்ளன. அந்த விவரங்களின் அடிப்படையில் ஒரு மாணவர், உயரம் (y) மற்றும் முன்னங்கை நீளம் (x)-க்கான உறவை y = ax + b எனக் கண்டுபிடித்தார். இங்கு a மற்றும் b ஆகியவை மாறிலிகள்.
i) இந்த உறவானது சார்பாகுமா என ஆராய்க.
ii) a மற்றும் b – ஐக் காண்க.
iii) முன்ன ங்கையின் நீளம் 40 செ.மீ எனில், அந்த நபரின் உயரத்தைக் காண்க.
iv) உயரம் 53.3 அங்குலம் எனில், அந்த நபரின் முன்னங்கையின் நீளத்தைக் காண்க

தீர்வு :
உறவு V = 0.9.x + 24.5 ஆகும்
i) இது ஒரு சார்பு
ii) y = ax + b உடன் ஒப்பிடுகையில்
a = 0.9, b = 24.5
iii) முன்னங்கையின் நீளம் 40 செ.மீ எனில் பெண்ணின் உயரம் 60.5 அங்குலம் ஆகும்.
y = (0.9 x 40 + 24.5
= 36 + 24.5
= 60.5
iv) உயரம் 53.3 அங்குலம் எனில் பெண்ணின் முன்னங்கையின் நீளம் 32 செ.மீ
53.3 = 0.9x + 24.5
∴ x = 32

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.2 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.2

கேள்வி 1.
A = {1, 2, 3, 7} மற்றும் B = {3, 0, -1, 7} எனில் பின்வருவனவற்றில் எவை A-லிருந்து B க்கான உறவுகளாகும்?
i) R = {(2, 1), (7, 1)}
ii) R, = {(-1, 1)}
iii) Rs = {(2, -1), (7, 7), (1,3)}
iv) RA = {(7, -1), (0, 3), (3,3), (0, 7)}
தீர்வு :
i) இங்கு (2, 1) மற்றும் (7, 1) ∉ A X B எனவே உறவு இல்லை
ii) இங்கு (-1, 1) ∉ A X B எனவே உறவு இல்லை
iii) R₃ ∈ A X B எனவே இது ஒரு உறவு ஆகும்.
iv) இங்கே (0, 3), (0, 7) ∉ A X B எனவே உறவுஇல்லை

கேள்வி 2.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, ……… 45} மற்றும் R என்ற உறவு “A- யின் மீது ஓர் எண்ணின் வர்க்கம்” என வரையறுக்கப்பட்டால் R-ஐ A X A-யின் உட்கணமாக எழுதுக. மேலும் R-க்கான மதிப்பகத்தையும் வீச்சகத்தையும் காண்க.
தீர்வு :
1² = 1;
2² = 4;
3² = 9;
4² = 16;
5² = 25;
6² = 36
R = {(1, 1) (2, 4) (3, 9) (4, 16) (5, 25) (6, 36}
R ∈ A X A
R ன் மதிப்பகம் = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Rன் வீச்சகம் = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36)

கேள்வி 3.
R என்ற ஒரு உறவு {(x, y) / y = x + 3,
x ∈ {0,1,2,3,4, 5) எனக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ளது. இதன் மதிப்பகத்தையும் வீச்சகத்தையும் கண்டறிக.
தீர்வு :
தரவு y = x + 3
x = 0; எனில் y = 0 + 3 = 3
x = 1; எனில் y = 1 + 3 = 4
x = 2; எனில் y = 2 + 3 = 5
x = 3; எனில் y = 3 + 3 = 6
x = 4; எனில் y = 4 + 3 = 7
x = 5; எனில் y = 5 + 3 = 8
R ன் மதிப்பகம் = { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
R ன் வீச்சகம் = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

கேள்வி 4.
கொடுக்கப்பட்ட உறவுகள் ஒவ்வொன்றையும்
(1) அம்புக்குறி படம்
(2) வரைபடம்
(3) பட்டியல் முறையில் குறிக்க.
i) {(x,y)/x = 2y, x ∈ {2,3,4,5), y ∈ {1, 2, 3,4
ii) {(x,y) /y = x + 3, x, y ஆகியவை இயல் எண்க ள் < 10}
தீர்வு :
i) x = 2y ⇒ y = \(\frac{x}{2}\)
x = 2; எனில் y = \(\frac{2}{2}\) = 1
x = 3; எனில் y = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
x = 4 ; எனில் y = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
x= 5 ; எனில் y = \(\frac{5}{2}\)

i) அம்புக்குறி படம்

ii) வரைபடம்

iii) பட்டியல் முறை
{(2, 1), (4, 2)}

ii) {(x, y)/y = x+3, x,y என்ப வை இயல் எண்க ள் < 10}
x = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
y = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
கணக்கின் படி y = x + 3
x = 1; எனில் y = 1 + 3 = 4
x = 2; எனில் y = 2 + 3 = 5
x = 3; எனில் y = 3 + 3 = 6
x = 4; எனில் y = 4 + 3 = 7
x = 5; எனில் y = 5 + 3 = 8
x = 6; எனில் y = 6 + 3 = 9

i) அம்புக்குறி படம்

ii) வரைபடம்

iii) பட்டியல் முறை
{(1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8) (6, 9)}

கேள்வி 5.
ஒரு நிறுவனத்தில் உதவியாளர்கள் (A) எழுத்தர்கள் (C), மேலாளர்கள் (M) மற்றும் நிர்வாகிகள் (E) ஆகிய நான்கு பிரிவுகளில் பணியாளர்கள் உள்ளனர். A, C, M மற்றும் E பிரிவு பணியாளர்களுக்கு ஊதியங்கள் முறையே ₹ 10,000, ₹ 25,000, ₹50,000 மற்றும் ₹1,00,000 ஆகும். A₁, A₂ A₃ A₄ மற்றும் A₅ ஆகியோர் உதவியாளர்கள் C₁, C₂ C₃ C₄ ஆகியோர் எழுத்தர்கள் M₁, M₂, M₃, ஆகியோர்கள் மேலாளர்கள் மற்றும் E₁, E₂, ஆகியோர் நிர்வாகிகள் ஆவர்.xRy என்ற உறவில் x என்பது y என்பவருக்குக் கொடுக்கப்பட்ட ஊதியம் எனில் R – என்ற உறவை, வரிசைச் சோடிகள் மூலமாகவும் அம்புக்குறி படம் மூலமாகவும் குறிப்பிடுக.
தீர்வு :
வரிசைச் சோடிகளின் கணம் :
{(10000, A₁) (10000, A₂) (10000, A₃ )
(10000, A₄) (10000, A₅) (25000, C₁)
(25000, C₂) (25000, C₃) (25000, C₄)
(50000, M₁) (50000, M₂) (50000, M₃) (100000, E₁) (100000, E₂)}
அம்புக்குறி படம்

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Guide Pdf Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.1 Textbook Questions and Answers, Notes.

TN Board 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 உறவுகளும் சார்புகளும் Ex 1.1

கேள்வி 1.
பின்வருவனவற்றிற்கு A × B, A × A மற்றும் B × A ஐக் காண்க.
i) A = {2, -2, 3} மற்றும் B = {1, -4}
ii) A = B = {p, q}
iii) A = {m, n}; B = Φ
தீர்வு:
i) A= {2, -2, 3} மற்றும் B = {1, -4}
A × B = {2, -2, 3} × {1,-4}
= {(2, 1), (2, -4), (-2, 1), (-2, -4), (3, 1), (3, -4)}
A × A = {2, -2, 3} × {2, -2, 3}
= {(2, 2), (2, -2), (2, 3), (-2, 2), (-2, -2), (-2, 3), (3, 2), (3, -2), (3, 3)}
B × A = {1, -4} × {2, -2, 3}
= {(1, 2), (1, -2), (1, 3), (-4, 2), (-4, -2), (-4, 3)}

குறிப்பு : இங்கே A × A = A × B = B × A
ஏனெனில் A மற்றும் B என்ற
கணங்களின் உறுப்புகள் சமம்.

ii) A = B = {p, q}|
A × B = {p, q} × {p, q}
= {(p, p), (p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}
A × A = {p, q} × {p, q}
= {(p, p), (p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}
B × A = {p, q} × {p, q}
= {(p,p), (p, q), (q p), (q, q)}

iii) A = {m, n}; B = Φ
A × B = {}
A × A = {m, n} × {m, n}
= {(m, m), (m, n), (n, m), (n, n)}
B × A = {}
குறிப்பு :
A × B = Φ எனில்
A = Φ அல்லது B =Φ

கேள்வி 2.
A = {1, 2, 3} மற்றும் B = {x|x என்பது 10-ஐ விடத் சிறிய பகா எண்).எனில், A × B மற்றும் B × A
ஆகியவற்றைக் காண்க.
தீர்வு:
A = {1, 2, 3} ; B = {2, 3, 5, 7} என்க
A × B = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 5), (1, 7), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 5), (2, 7), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 5), (3, 7)}
B × A= {2, 3, 5, 7} × {1, 2, 3}
= {(2, 1), (2, 2), (2, 3), (3, 1), (3, 2), (3, 3), (5, 1), (5, 2), (5, 3), (7, 1), (7, 2), (7, 3)}

கேள்வி 3.
B × A = {(-2, 3) (-2, 4) (0, 3) (0, 4) (3, 3) (3, 4)} எனில், A மற்றும் B ஐ காண்க
தீர்வு :
B = {B × A ல் உள்ள × அச்சுத் தூரங்களின் கணம்}
∴ B = {(-2, 0, 3)}
A = (B× Aல் உள்ள y அச்சுத் தூரங்களின் கணம்)
∴ A = {3, 4}

கேள்வி 4.
A = {5, 6}, B = {4, 5, 6), C = {5,6,7} எனில், A × A = (B × B) ∩ (C × C) எனக் காட்டுக.
தீர்வு :
L.H.S = A × A
= {5,6} × {5,6}
A × A = {(5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 5) (6, 6)} ………………(1)
RHS = (B × B) ∩ (C × C)
B × B = {4, 5, 6} x {4, 5, 6}
= {(4, 4) (4, 5) (4, 6) (5, 4) (5, 5) (5, 6) (6,4) (6, 5) (6, 6)}
C × C = {5,6,7} × {5,6,7}

= {(5, 5) (5, 6) (5, 7) (6, 5) (6, 6) (6, 7) (7, 5) (7, 6) (7, 7)}
(B X B) ∩(Cx C) = {(5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 5) (6, 6)} …………………….(2)
(1) = (2)
A × A = (B × B) ) (C × C)

கேள்வி 5.
A = {1, 2, 3} , B = {2, 3, 5} C = {3, 4} மற்றும் D = {1, 3, 5} எனில் (A ∩ C) × (B ∩ D)
= (A × B) ∩( C × D) என்பது உண்மையா என சோதிக்கவும்.
தீர்வு :
L.H.S (A ∩ C) × (B ∩ D)
A∩C= {1, 2, 3} ∩ {3, 4}
= {3}

B ∩ D = {2, 3, 5} ∩ {1, 3, 5}
= {3, 5}

(A∩C) × (B∩D) = {3} × {3, 5}
= {(3,3) (3, 5) ……………..(1)
R.H.S (A × B) ∩ (C × D)
A × B = {1, 2, 3} × {2, 3, 5}
= {(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5)}
C × D = { (3, 4)} × {(1, 3, 5)}
= {(3, 1) (3, 3) (3, 5) (4, 1) (4, 3) (4, 5)}

(A × B) ∩ (C × D) = { (3, 3) (3, 5) }
(1) = (2)
(A∩C) × (B∩D) = (A × B) ∩ (COD) என்பது உண்மை

கேள்வி 6.
A = {x ∈ W/x < 2}, B = {x ∈ N/1 < x ≤ 4} மற்றும் c = {3, 5} எனில் கீழேக் கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள சமன்பாடுகளைச் சரி பார்க்க.
i) A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∪ (A × C)

குறிப்பு
A = {0, 1}
B = {2, 3, 4}

ii) A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
iii) (A ∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
தீர்வு :
i) L.H.S = A × (B∪C)
B ∪ C = {2, 3, 4} ∪ {3, 5}
= {2, 3, 4, 5}

A× (B ∪ C) = {0, 1} × {2, 3, 4, 5}
= {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (0, 5) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4) (1, 5)} ………………… (1)
RHS = (A × B) ∪ (A × C)

A × B = {0, 1} × {2,3,4}
= {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 4)}

A × C = {0, 1} {3,5}
= {(0,3), (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5)}
(A × B) ∪ (A × C) = {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0,4) (0,5) (1, 2) (1,3) (1,4) (1,5)} ………………….. (2)
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

ii) A × (B ∩ C) = (A x B) ∩ (A x C)
L.H.S = A × (B ∩ C)
B ∩ C = {2,3,4} , {3,5}
= {3}

A × (B C) = {0, 1} {3}
= {(0,3) (1, 3) } …………………… (1)
R.H.S = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
A × B = {0, 1} x {2,3,4}
= {(0, 2) (0,3) (0, 4) (1, 2) (1, 3) (1,4)}
A × C = {0, 1} R {3,5}
= {(0, 3) (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5)}

(A × B) ∩ (A × C) = {(0, 3) (1,3)} …………….. (1)
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

iii) (A∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
L.H.S = (A ∪ B) × C
A ∪ B = {0, 1} ∪ {2,3,4}
= {0, 1, 2, 3,4}

(A ∪ B) × C = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} * {3,5}
= {(0, 3) (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5) (2, 3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5) (4, 3) (4,5)} ……………….. (1)

R.H.S = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
(A × C) = {(0, 1) × (3,5)}
= {(0, 3) (0,5) (1, 3) (1,5)}
B × C = {2,3,4} × {3,5}
= {(2,3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5) (4,3) (4,5)}

(A × C) ∪ (B × C) = {(0, 3) (0,5) (1,3) (1,5) (2, 3) (2,5) (3, 3) (3,5) (4, 3) (4,5)} ………………. (2)
∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

கேள்வி 7.
A என்பது 8 – ஐ விடக் குறைவான இயல் எண்களின் கணம், B என்பது 8-ஐ விடக் குறைவான
பகா எண்களின் கணம் மற்றும் C என்பது இரட்டைப்படை பகா எண்களின் கணம் எனில் கீழ்க்கண்டவற்றைச் சரிபார்க்க.

i) (A ∩ B) × C = (A × C) ∩ (B × C)
ii) A × (B – C)= (A × B) – (A × C)
தீர்வு :
கணக்கின் படி A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
B = {2, 3, 5, 7}
C = {2}
i) LHS = (A ∩ B) × C
A ∩ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7} {2,3,5,7}
= {2, 3, 5, 7}
(A ∩ B) × C = {2, 3, 5, 7} × {2}
= {(2, 2) (3, 2) (5, 2) (7, 2) …………….. (1)
R.H.S = (A × C) (B × C)
A × C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}
B × C = {2, 3, 5, 7} × {2}
={(2, 2) (3, 2) (5, 2) (7, 2)}
(A × C) B × C = {(2, 2) (3, 2) (5, 2) (7, 2)
L.H.S = R.H.S

ii) L.H.S = A × (B – C)
B – C = {2, 3,5,7} – {2}
= {3, 5, 7}
A × (B – C) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {3, 5, 7}
= {(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7
(5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ……………….(1)

R.H.S = (A × B) – (A × C)
(A × B) = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2, 3, 5, 7}
= {(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 2) (3,3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 2) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 2) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)}
A × C = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6,7} x {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}
(A × B) – (A × C))
={(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ……………… (2)
L.H.S = R.H.S (1 மற்றும் 2 லிருந்து)

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Conceptual Framework of Accounting

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Conceptual Framework of Accounting Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

11th Accountancy Chapter 2 Book Back Answers Question 1.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to ………………
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Business entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Business entity concept

Accounts 2nd Chapter Question 2.
The concept which assumes that a business will last indefinitely is ………………
(a) Business Entity
(b) Going concern
(c) Periodicity
(d) Conservatism
Answer:
(b) Going concern

11th Accounts Chapter 2 Question 3.
GAAPs are:
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Accountancy Question 4.
The rule of stock valuation ‘cost price or realisable value’ whichever is lower is based on the accounting principle of ………………
(a) Materiality
(b) Money measurement
(c) Conservatism
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Conservatism

Accountancy Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by ………………
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) The Cost and Management Accountants of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
Answer:
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Accounts Chapter 2 Class 11 Notes Question 1.
Define book – keeping.
Answer:
“Book – keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. (J.R.Batlibai)
“Book – keeping is the science and art of recording correctly in the books of account all those business transactions of money or money’s worth”. (R.N. Carter)

Accounts Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
What is meant by accounting concepts?
Answer:
Accounting concepts are the basic assumptions or conditions upon which accounting has been laid. Accounting concepts are the results of broad consensus. The word concept means a notion or abstraction which is generally accepted. Accounting concepts provide unifying structure to the accounting process and accounting reports.

Samacheer Kalvi Accountancy 11th Question 3.
Briefly explain about revenue recognition concept.
Answer:
According to accrual concept, the effects of the transactions are recognised on mercantile basis, i.e., when they occur and not when cash is paid or received. Revenue is recognised when it is earned and expenses are recognised when they are incurred. All expenses and revenues related to the accounting period are to be considered irrespective of the fact that whether revenues are received in cash or not and whether expenses are paid in cash or not.

Accountancy Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
What is “Full Disclosure Principle” of accounting.
Answer:
It implies that the accounts must be prepared honestly and all material information should be disclosed in the accounting statement. This is important because the management is different from the owners in most of the organisations.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Question 5.
Write a brief note on ‘Consistency’ assumption.
Answer:
The consistency convention implies that the accounting policies must be followed consistently from one accounting period to another. The results of different years will be comparable only when same accounting policies are followed from year to year.

III. Short Answer Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Question 1.
What is matching concept? Why should a business concern follow this concept?
Answer:
Matching concept: According to this concept, revenues during an accounting period are matched with expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenue during that period. This concept is based on accrual concept and periodicity concept. Periodicity concept fixes the time frame for measuring performance and determining financial status. All expenses paid during the period are not considered, but only the expenses related to the accounting period are considered.

On the basis of this concept, adjustments are made for outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues. Also due provisions are made for depreciation of the fixed assets, bad debts, etc., relating to the accounting period. Thus, it matches the revenues earned during an accounting period with the expenses incurred during that period to earn the revenues before sharing any profit or loss.

11th Accountancy Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
“Only monetary transactions are recorded in accounting”. Explain the statement.
Answer:
This concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money, are recorded in the accounts. Since, money serves as the medium of exchange transactions expressed in money are recorded and the ruling currency of a country is the measuring unit for accounting. Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts. For example, working conditions in the work place, strike by employees, efficiency of the management, etc. will not be recorded in the books, as they cannot be expressed in terms of money.

Samacheer Kalvi Accountancy Question 3.
“Business units last indefinitely”. Mention and explain the concept on which the statement is based.
Answer:
This concept implies that a business unit is separate and distinct from the owner or owners, that is, the persons who supply capital to it. Based on this concept, accounts are prepared from the point of view of the business and not from the owner’s point of view. Hence, the business is liable to the owner for the capital contributed by him/her.

According to this concept, only business transactions are recorded in the books of accounts. Personal transactions of the owners are not recorded. But, their transactions with the business such as capital contributed to the business or cash withdrawn from the business for the personal use will be recorded in the books of accounts. It implies that the business itself owns assets and owes liabilities.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Accountancy Question 4.
Write a brief note on Accounting Standards.
Answer:
Accounting Standards provide the framework and norms to be followed in accounting so that the financial statements of different enterprises become comparable. It is necessary to standardise the accounting principles to ensure consistency, comparability, adequacy and reliability of financial reporting. Thus, Accounting Standards are written policy documents issued by the expert accounting body or by government or other regulatory body covering the aspects of recognition, measurement, treatment, presentation and disclosure of accounting transactions and events in the financial statements.

Textbook Case Study Solved

Magesh started a new trading business. He buys and sells packing materials. He wants to be honest in doing his business. He has plans to establish his business in the future. He has little accounting knowledge but has excellent business skills. At the end of his first year of trading, he wanted to value his closing stock. He finds some of the goods are damaged. If he wants to sell them, then he has to • spend some amount for making them in a saleable condition. He also takes some money from his business bank account for his personal use. But, he forgot to record that.
Now, discuss on the following points:

11th Accounts Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Question 1.
Does every businessman need accounting knowledge?
Answer:
No, Every businessman does not need accounting knowledge. The businessman is called sole trader. If he has little accounting knowledge, is enough, but he should have business skill.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Chapter 4 Question 2.
Identify some of the accounting concepts in this case study.
Answer:

1. Money measurement concept.
2. Going concern concept.
3. Matching concept.
4. Realisation concept
5. Accrual concept

11th Accounts 2nd Chapter Question 3.
How should his closing stock be valued?
Answer:
Convention of conservation or prudence concept. The closing stock will be valued at market price or cost price whichever is lower.

Question 4.
Is it possible for him to compare his business results with that of his competitors?
Answer:
Yes, it is possible for him to compare his business results with that of his competitors, but the method is not accurate. It may be approximated i.e., capital comparison method followed.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Conceptual Framework of Accounting Additional Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
ASB was constituted in India in the year of ………………
(a) 1977
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1976
Answer:
(a) 1977

Question 2.
……………… is the primary stage in accounting.
(a) Journal
(b) Book – keeping
(c) ledger
(d) Transactions
Answer:
(b) Book – keeping

Question 3.
According to ……………… concept, every transaction or event has two aspects i.e.,’dual effect.
(a) Dual aspect concept
(b) Periodicity concept
(c) Matching concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect concept

Question 4.
……………… is routine and clerical in nature.
(a) Book – keeping
(b) Accounting
(c) Ledger
(d) Journal
Answer:
(a) Book – keeping

Question 5.
……………… requires analytical skill.
(a) Accounting
(b) Single entry
(c) Book – keeping
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 6.
The word convention refers ………………
(a) traditions
(b) trade
(c) business
(d) accounting
Answer:
(a) traditions

Question 7.
Capital + Liabilities = Assets
(a) Dual aspect concept
(b) Periodicity concept
(c) Matching concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect concept

Question 8.
requires that all accounting transactions recorded should be based on objective evidence.
(a) Matching concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Dual aspect concept
(d) Objective evidence concept
Answer:
(d) Objective evidence concept

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two features of book – keeping.
Answer:
The main features of Book – keeping are:

1. It is the process of recording transactions in the books of accounts.
2. Monetary transactions only are recorded in the accounts.

Question 2.
Write any two limitations of book-keeping.
Answer:
The limitations of Book-keeping are:

1. Only monetary transactions are recorded in the book accounts.
2. Effects of price level changes are not considered.

Question 3.
Write any two advantages of book – keeping.
Answer:
The advantages of Book – keeping are:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book – keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book – keeping is useful to get the financial information.

Question 4.
What is dual aspect concept?
Answer:
Accorcling to this concept, every transaction or event has two aspects, i.e., dual effect. This is the concept which recognises the fact that for every debit, there is a corresponding and equal credit. This is the basis of the entire system of double entry book – keeping.

Question 5.
Write any two needs for accounting standards.
Answer:
The need for accounting standards is:

1. To promote better understanding of financial statements.
2. To help accountants to follow uniform procedures and practices.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the objectives of book-keeping?
Answer:
The main objectives of book – keeping are:

1. To have a complete and permanent record of all business transactions in chronological order and under appropriate headings.
2. To facilitate ascertainment of the profit or loss of the business during a specific period.
3. To facilitate ascertainment of financial position.
4. To know the progress of the business.
5. To find out the tax liabilities.
6. To fulfil the legal requirements.

Question 2.
What are the features of book-keeping?
Answer:
The main features of book-keeping are:

1. It is the process of recording transactions in the books of accounts.
2. Monetary transactions only are recorded in the accounts.
3. Book – keeping is the primary stage in the accounting process.
4. Book – keeping includes journalising and ledger processing.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of book – keeping?
Answer:
The advantages of book-keeping are:

1. Transactions are recorded systematically in chronological order in the book of accounts. Thus, book-keeping provides a permanent and reliable record for all business transactions.
2. Book – keeping is useful to get the financial information.
3. It helps to have control over various business activities.
4. Records provided by business serve as a legal evidence in case of any dispute.
5. Comparison of financial information of different business units is facilitated.
6. Book – keeping is useful to find out the tax liabilities.

Question 4.
What are the differences between book – keeping and accounting?
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Map Reading

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Map Reading Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer:

Map Reading Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The subject which deals with map making process is-
(a) Demography
(b) Cartography
(c) Physiography
(d) Topography
Answer:
(b) Cartography

8th Social Map Reading Question 2.
A map that shows the physical features of an area is called.
(a) Cadastral map
(b) Relief map
(c) Climatic map
(d) Resource map
Answer:
(b) Relief map

Map Reading 8th Standard Question 3.
Shallow water bodies are represented by color.
(a) Yellow
(b) Brown
(c) Light blue
(d) Dark blue
Answer:
(c) Light blue

Map Reading Answers Question 4.
The maps which are known as plans are-
(a) Cadastral maps
(b) Topographical maps
(c) Isoline maps
(d) Transport maps
Answer:
(a) Cadastral maps

Map Reading Questions And Answers Question 5.
Actual distribution of population can be represented by-
(a) lines
(b) Shades
(c) Dots
(d) Contours
Answer:
(b) Shades

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. The globe is the true representation of the ……………
2. A way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface is ……………
3. A line that joins the points of equal elevation is ……………
4. Cadastral maps are usually maintained by ……………
5. …………… map is focused on a specific theme

Answer:

1. Earth
2. map projection
3. Isoline
4. Government
5. Thematic

III. Choose the option which matches the following correctly:

(a) Legend – 1. 45%
(b) North East – 2. brown colour
(c) Contour Line – 3. thematic map
(d) Cadastral map – 4. key of a map
(e) Choropleth – 5. taxation

(a) 3,5,1,4,2
(b) 4,1,2,5,3
(c) 2,5,1,3,4
(d) 5,2,4,1,3
Answer:
(b) 4,1, 2, 5, 3

IV. Match the statement with the reason and select the correct answer:
Map Reading Questions And Answers Pdf Question 1.
Statement: Small scale maps can show only major features
Reason: Due to lack of space ,it shows large areas like Continents and countries
(a) Statement is true but reason is wrong
(b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct
(c) Both the statement and reasons are correct
(d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 2.
Statement: The conventional signs and symbols are the keys of map reading
Reason: These symbols give a lots of information in a limited area
(a) Both the statement and reasons are correct
(b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct
(c) Statement is true but reason is wrong
(d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong
Answer:
(a) Both the statement and reasons are correct

V. Answer the following in one or two sentence:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Solutions Question 1.
Define “Map scale”
Answer:

1. Map scale refers to the relationship (or ratio) between distance on a map and the corresponding distance on the ground.
2. The map scale is stated in words i.e., 1cm to 1 km.

8th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 2.
What is a physical map?
Answer:
The map that shows the physical features of an area is usually called a Physical Map or a Relief Map.

8th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 3.
Write a short note on map projection.
Answer:
A map projection is a way of representing the spherical earth on a flat surface of a map. The curved surface of the earth cannot be shown accurately on a map. So, cartographers use map projections while mapping the earth surface which would help them to reduce distortions.

8th Standard Map Question 4.
Name the Intermediate directions.
Answer:
The Intermediate directions are north east, north west, south east and south west.

8th Standard Social Science Map Question 5.
What are the uses of a cadastral map?
Answer:
Cadastral maps are useful for local administration such as the city survey, taxation, management of estates and to define property in legal documents.

VI. Differentiate:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Solutions Guide Question 1.
Relief map and thematic map.
Answer:

1. Relief map:

• The map that shows the physical features of an area is usually called a Physical Map or a Relief Map.
• Their primary purpose is to show land forms like deserts, rivers, mountains, plains, plateaus etc.

2. Thematic map:

• A thematic map is a map that focuses on a specific theme or subject area.
• They show the subject such as physical phenomena like temperature variation, rainfall distribution and population density in an area.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 2.
Large Scale map and small scale map.
Answer:
1. Large Scale:

• The Large scale maps portray the information in detail than the small scale maps.
• For example physical map of India represents a small area of the earth but gives us more information.

2. Small Scale map:

• Small scale maps can show only major features omitting the minor ones due to lack of space.
• For example physical map of the world will show us only the major physical features in the world.

Question 3.
Globe and Map.
Answer:
1. Globe:

• Globe gives a three dimensional representation of the entire world.
• It is a miniature form of the earth (model of the earth).

2. Map:

• Map gives a two dimensional representation of certain regions or the entire world.
• It is a visual representation of an entire or a part of an area typically represented on a flat surface.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the different types of scales in detail.
Answer:
Scales on maps can be represented in three different ways. They are:

1. Statement or Verbal scale
2. Representative Fraction (RF) or Ratio Scale
3. Graphical or Bar Scale

1. Statement or Verbal scale:

• In this method, the map scale is stated in words i.e., 1 cm to 1 km.
• It means 1 cm distance on the map corresponds to 1 km distance on the ground.
• Thus it is written on the map like 1 cm to 1 km.

2. Representative Fraction (RF) or Numerical Fraction or Ratio Scale:

• It shows the relationship between the map distance and the corresponding ground distance in the same units of length.
• R.F. is generally shown as a fraction.

3. Graphical or Bar Scale or Linear Scale:

• A graphic scale looks like a small ruler drawn at the bottom of the page.
• This line is line is divided and sub divided into lengths each of which represents a certain distance on the ground.
• This scale has added advantage for taking copies of maps as the measurement does not change.

Question 2.
Describe the Cadastral map and its importance.
Answer:
The Cadastral map:

1. Cadastral map refers to a map that shows the boundaries and ownership of land within a specified area.
2. These maps are sometimes known as plans.
3. They are useful for local administration such as the city survey, taxation, management of estates.
4. They are used to define property in legal documents.
5. They are maintained by the government and they are a matter of public record.

Importance of Cadastral maps:

1. Cadastral surveys document the boundaries of land ownership, by the production of documents, diagrams, sketches, plans, charts and maps.
2. They were originally used to ensure reliable facts for land valuation and taxation.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph about the conventional signs and symbols.
Answer:
The conventional signs and symbols:

1. Conventional signs are symbols used in maps to represent different features.
2. The symbols are explained in the key of the map.
3. These symbols give a lot information in a limited space.
4. With the use of these symbols, maps can be drawn easily and the concept of the map can be understood well. There is an International agreement regarding the use of certain symbols.
5. The symbols fall under this category are Called Conventional Symbols. Other category is called contextual symbols which are decided by the cartographers.

VIII. Students Activity:

1. Underline the map title.
2. Write N,S,W & E on the compass rose.
3. Label the road Kambar Street.
4. The rail track runs from Southwest to.
5. The park is situated on of the rail track.
6. Colour the school with red.
7. Colour the supermarket with brown.
8. Colour the restaurant with yellow.
9. Colour the house east of the railroad with orange.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Map Reading Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Map reading is the act of-
(a) Interpreting geographical information
(b) Industrially geographical information
(c) Develops mental maps of the real world
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 2.
Some of the components of the map.
(a) Title and Scale
(b) Legend and Direction
(c) Source and map projection
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Physical map shows.
(a) Physical features
(b) Cities
(c) Industries
(d) Population
Answer:
(a) Physical features

Question 4.
Scale is represented by-
(a) Veíbal
(b) Representative Fraction
(c) Graphical
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
Symbols in the key might be-
(a) pictures
(b) icons
(e) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 6.
The source should normally be given-
(a) outside the frame of the map
(b) inside frame of the map
(c) at the top of the map
(d) at the bottom of the map
Answer:
(a) outside the frame of the map

Question 7.
Contextual symbols are decided by the-
(a) government
(b) countries
(c) cartographers
(d) scientists
Answer:
(c) cartographers

Question 8.
symbol represents.
(a) Bridge
(b) Baffle field
(e) Foot path
(d) Íain load
Answer:
(a) Bridge

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. A map ………….. is a representation of an entire or a part of an area.
2. Globe is the miniature form of the …………..
3. The art and science of map making in known as …………..
4. The content of the map is revealed by its …………..
5. A graphical scale looks like a ………….. drawn at the bottom of the page.
6. Locational information of an area is given by ………….. and …………..
7. Different features on the map are represented by …………..
8. Cadastral maps are matter of ………….. record.
9. Cadastre means …………..
10. General reference maps do not focus any …………..
11. Map showing the distribution of soil is a ………….. map.
12. The distribution of atmospheric pressure is represented by …………..

Answer:

1. Visual
2. earth
3. Cartography
4. Title
5. small ruler
6. Conventional signs
7. Conventional signs
8. public
9. Register of Territorial property
10. Specific theme
11. Qualitative
12. Isobar

III. Match the following:

1. Globe – a) Percapital income
2. Source – b) Temperature
3. Choropleth – c) High Concentration
4. Isotherms – d) Model of the Earth
5. Many dots – e) Bottom right

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV. Match the statement with the reason and select the correct answer:

Question 1.
Statement: A map must indicate direction.
Reason : By means of an arrow printing to the north, the rest of the directions are easily located.
(a) Statement is true but reason is wrong
(b) Statement is wrong and reason is correct
(c) Both the statement and reasons are correct
(d) Both the statement and reasons are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statement and reasons are correct

Question 2.
Statement: A dot density map is a type of Thematic Map.
Reason : Each dot on a dot density map represents some amount of data.
(a) Statement is true but reason is wrong
(b) Statement and reason are correct
(c) Statement and reason are wrong
(d) Statement is wrong but reason is Correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct

V. Answer the following one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is a map?
Answer:

1. A map is a visual representation of an entire or a part of an area, typically represented on a flat surface.
2. The work of a map is to illustrate specific and detailed features of a particular area, most frequently used to illustrate geography.

Question 2.
What is map reading?
Answer:
Map reading:

1. Map reading is the act of interpreting or understanding the geographic information portrayed on a map.
2. By map reading,the reader should be able to develop a mental map of the real-world information.
3. This is done by processing the symbolized information shown on maps.

Question 3.
Mention the components of a map.
Answer:
The basic components of a map are:

1. Title
2. Scale
3. Legend or key
4. Direction
5. Source
6. Map projection and location information and
7. Conventional signs and symbols.

Question 4.
What is meant by the Term Title of the map?
Answer:
Term Title of the map:

1. Title tells about the content of the map.
2. It is placed mostly at the top comer or at the bottom comer of the map.

Question 5.
Explain the term ‘Source’ of the map.
Answer:
The term ‘Source’ of the map:

1. All maps must show the source of the data used in the respective maps.
2. The source should normally be given outside the frame of the map on the bottom right.
3. On the bottom left the name of the author, publisher, place of publication and year of publication must be given.

Question 6.
What is the scale of a Cadastral Map?
Answer:
The scale of a Cadastral Map:

1. Cadastral maps commonly range from scales of 1:500 to 1:10,000.
2. Large scale diagrams or map shows more precise dimensions and features.
3. Exampl; Buildings, irrigation units, etc. are often prepared by cadastral surveys.

Question 7.
What is a Choropleth Mapping?
Answer:
A choropleth map is a Thematic map in which areas are shaded or patterned in proportion to the measurement of the statistical variable being displayed on the map, such as population density or per-capita income.

VI. Differentiate:

Question 1.
Isoline map and Dot Density Map.
Answer:
1. Isoline map:

• Isolines are lines drawn to link different places that share a common value.
• An Isoline is a line joining equal points. Eg; Isobars,Isotherms etc.

2. Dot Density Map:

• A dot-density map is a type of Thematic map that uses dots on the map to show the values of one or more numeric data fields.
• Each dot on a dot-density map represents some amount of data. In a dot-density map, areas with many dots indicate high concentration of values.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
What are the uses of maps?
Answer:
Uses of maps:

1. To find the location of objects and places
2. To find the transportation routes
3. Maps showing strategic locations are useful for military
4. Serve as tourist guide
5. To find the spatial distribution of different phenomena
6. Display weather conditions
7. Highly helpful in learning geography
8. Represent the real world on a small scale

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Constitution Of India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose The correct answer:

Social Term 2 Question 1.
The Constitution Day is celebrated on
(a) January 26
(b) August 15
(c) November 26
(d) December 9
Answer:
November 26

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Term 2 Question 2.
The Constituent Assembly accepted the Constitution of India in the year ……………..
(a) 1946
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949
Answer:
(d) 1949

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 3.
There are _________ amendments made in the Constitution of India till 2016
(a) 101
(b) 100
(c) 78
(d) 46
Answer:
(a)101

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Term 2 Question 4.
Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to education
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 5.
An Indian citizen has the right to vote at
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 16 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
18 years

II. Fill In the blanks :

1. ______ was selected as the chairman of the Constituent Assembly
2. The father of the Constitution of India is ______
3. ______ protects our fundamental rights
4. The Constitution of India came into existence on ______

Answer:

1. Dr. Rajendra prasad
2. Dr. B.R Ambedkar
3. Constitution
4. 26th january

III. Match the following:

1. Independence day – (a) November 26
2. Republic Day – (b) April 1
3. Constitutional Day of India – (c) August 15
4. Right to Education – (d) January 26

a) c a d b
b) c d a b
c) d b a c
Answer:
b) c d a b

IV. Answer the questions given tinder the caption Constituent Assembly

6th Social Term 2 Question 1.
In which year was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly was formed in the year 1946.

Term 2 Social Science Question 2.
How many members were in the Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Drafting Committee was formed with eight members with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as its chairman.

Question 3.
How many women were part of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
There were fifteen women particpents in the consituent Assembly.

Question 4.
When was the Constitution of India completed?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was completed on 26th November 1949.

V. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why was January 26 adopted as the Republic Day?
Answer:

1. When the Congress met at Lahore in 1929, the members of the Congress unofficially declared the same day as the Day of Pooma Swaraj or the Day of complete self governance.
2. The next year, 26th January 1930 was celebrated as the Independence Day. That day has been observed as our Republic Day.”

Question 2.
What is the Constitution of India?
Answer:

1. The Constitution is an authentic document containing the basic ideas, principles and laws of a country.
2. It also defines the rights and duties of citizens.

Question 3.
List out the special features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The preface of the constitution is the Preamble.
2. According to it, India is a Sovereign, socialist, Secular democratic republic.
3. The constitution has granted the people the right to rule. Sovereignty refers to the ultimate power of the country.
4. The term secular refers to freedom of worship.
5. The Constitution provides a Parliamentary form of Government, both at the centre

Question 4.
What are the fundamental rights?
Answer:
“Fundamental rights are the basic human rights of all citizens”. They are

1. Right to Equality
2. Right to Freedom
3. Right against exploitation
4. Right of Freedom of religion
5. Cultural and Educational rights
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 5.
List out the fundamental duties that you would like to fulfill
Answer:

1. Respecting the National flag and National Anthem.
2. Respect and protect the Constitution.
3. Readiness to serve our country if need arises.
4. Treating everyone as brothers and sister
5. Avoid violence.
6. Protect government property etc.

Question 6.
What is Preamble?
Answer:
The preface of the Constitution is the Preamble.

Question 7.
What do you understand by Liberty, Equality and Fraternity?
Answer:

1. The preamble of Indian constitution clearly says that
2. To achieve Justice-social, economic and political
3. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
4. Equality of states and opportunity.
5. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

Question 8.
Define: Sovereign
Answer:
An Independent country not subject to any external power or influence.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Question 1.
List your duties at

1. school
2. home and
3. society

Answer:

(a) Students’ duties at school

1. participate in learning activities.
2. Complete Home work.
3. Attend school regularly on time.
4. Be a part of safe and positive leavning environment.
5. Manage the time wisely.
6. Study for test and exams well ahead of time.

(b) Students’duties at home

1. Put books and magazines in a rack.
2. Be tidy and keep the surroundings clean.
3. Help parents wherever and whenever possible.
4. Fold blankets, saw buttons.
5. Pouring and making tea and coffee.

(c) Students’duties at society

1. Community Responsibility.
2. It includes co-operation, respect and participation.
3. Take active role in literacy campaigns.
4. Student’s role is very crucial in society development such as to increase human resource, educate others, protect
5. the environment, save mother nature, bring required changes in the society, respect elders, help the needy and reform the society.

Question 2.
Discuss on these topics:

1. Equality
2. Child labour
3. Right to Education
4. Equality:

Answer:

1. It is a state of affairs in which all people within a specific society have the same status in certain respects. .
2. It includes Civil rights, Freedom of speech, property rights etc.Gender Equality:

Gender equality :

1. means equality between men and women.
2.  Both are free to develop their personal abilities.
3. It means fairness of treatment for men and women according to their respective needs.

Child labour:

1. Child Labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives children of their childhood.
2. Child Labour interferes with their ability to attend regular school.
3. This interference is mentally, physically,, socially or morally dangerous and harmful.
4. Indian Government has passed the Child and Adolescent Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act. of 1986. ,
5. It was amended in 2016 as CLPR Act.
6. Accordingly a child is defined as any person below the age of 14 and CLPR Act prohibit employment of a child in any employment including domestic help.

(c) Right to Education:

1. The Right of children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE) is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted on 4th August 2009.
2. It describes free and compulsory education for children between the age of 6 to 14 years in India under Article 21A of the constitution.
3. India become one of the 135 countries to make education as a fundemental right of every child when the Act came into force on 1st April, 2010.

Question 3.
Kailash Satyarti (India) and Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan) have been awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace (2014). Find out the reason why:
Answer:
a) Kailash Satyarti (India):

1. Kailash Satyarti is an Indian Childrens’ right activist.
2. He is a Noble peace Prize receipient.
3. Founder of Bachpan Bachao Andolan (save childhood movement.
4. Kailash Satyarti and his team at Bachpan Bachao Andolan have liberated more than 86,000 children in India from Child Labour, Slavery and Trafficking.
5. In 1998, Satyarti led global march against child labour across 103 countries.
6. His work has been recognized through various national and international honours and awards.
7. He shared the Nobel Peace Prize in 2014 with Malala Yusufsai of Pakistan.

b) Malala Yusufsai (Pakistan)

1. Malala Yusufsai is a Pakistan Activist for female education.
2. She is the youngest Nobel Prize laurate.
3. She is known for human rights advocacy, especially the education of women and children in her native Swat valley.
4. She became a prominent activist for the right to education.
5. In 2012 she was the recipient of Pakistan’s first National Youth Peace Prize.
6. In 2014 she was the co-recipient of the 2014 Noble Peace Prize along with Kailash Satyarti at the young age of 17 years.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Intext Questions

Question 1.
Prepare a fist pf your immediate duties.
Answer:

1. To abide by the constitution and its ideals, to respect the National flag, the National Anthem etc.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To promote harmony and the spirit of common brother hood.
5. To protect and improve the natural resources such as forests, lakes, rivers, wildlife etc.
6. To safeguard the public property and to avoid violence.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Constitution Of India Additonal Questions

I. Choose The correct answer:

Question 1.
The Chairman of the constituent Assembly was
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Vallabai Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
The advisor of the Drafting Committee was
(a) S. Radhakrishnan
(b) B.N. Rao
(e) Moulana Azad
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer:
(b) B.N. Rao

Question 3.
The preface of the constitution is called
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental right
(c) Directive Principles of state policy
(d) legal document
Answer:
(a) Preamble

Question 4.
Iiva Parliamentary system, the Executive is-collectivity responsible to the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Legislature

Question 5.
The Chief Architect of the Indian constitution is
(a) Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlel Nehru
(c) Vallabhai Patel
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In 1929, the Congress met at ______
2. Poorna Swaraj means ______
3. It took a period of ______ to complete the Indian Constitution.
4. The basic human rights are known as ______
5. The original copies of the Constitution are preserved in special ______ filled cases.

Answer:

1. Lahore Complete-self-Government
2. 2 years, 11 months and 17 days
3. Fundamental rights
4. Helium

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – c

IV. Answer the following Questions

Question 1.
Write about the constitution Assembly. ‘
Answer:

1. “In 1946, nearly 389 members of the constituent Assembly who belonged to different parties from different places came together to frame the Constitution of India.
2. The Chairman of the committee was Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Mention the names of some of the members of the Constitution Assembly.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru, Sardar Vallabai Patel, MoulanaAzad, S. Radhakrishnan, Vijayalakshmi Pandit and Sarojini Naidu were the members in the Constituent Assembly.

Question 3.
Write about the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.
Answer:

1. The Drafting committee was formed with eight members.
2. Its Chairman was B.R. Ambedkar.
3. B.N.Rao was appointed as an advisor.
4. The committee met for the first time on 9th December 1946.
5. On the same day, the drafting the Constitution of India started.

Question 4.
Mention a few countries whose constitution were throughly examined to collect a few best features.
Answer:

1. The constitutions of nearly 60 countries including the UK, USA, former USSR, France, Switzerland etc., were thoroughly examined.
2. Their best features have been adopted by our constitution.

Question 5.
Mention the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, N. Gopalasamy, K.M.Munshi, Syed Ahmed Sadullah, P.L. Mitter, N.Madhava Rao, T.T.K, T.P. Khaitan were the legal experts of the Drafting Committee.

Question 6.
What is Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Every Indian citizen has the right to vote when they attain 18 years of age, irrespective of any caste, religion, gender or economic status.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Letter Writing (to a friend)

Various parts of a formal letter

1. the heading
2. the inside address
3. the salutation
4. the body
5. the closing
6. the signature
7. the address on the envelope

The contents of a formal letter

• Use a courteous, positive and professional tone. Maintain a respectful, constructive tone.
• Use formal language. Avoid contractions or abbreviations.
• State your purpose clearly and briefly. State the purpose of your writing in the first or second sentence of the letter.
• Include all necessary information. Provide all the information your reader needs to understand and respond appropriately to your letter.

Format for Business and Official Letters:
Business : to dealers for buying and selling goods or comments on goods purchased.
Official : to Officials, to Principals, Teachers.

(a) Station (Place): y city
(b) Date: e.g. 20th Jan. 2019
(c) From Address
(d) To Address
(e) Salutation:
Sir, Dear Sir, Respected Sir, Madam (Principal, Teacher)
(f) Sub:
(i) Complaint on
(ii) Requisition for.
(iii) Orders placed on
(iv) Reminder on
(g) Ref:

Complaint letter
Bill No. _______ dated _______ (Reminder letter)
Previous letter dated
(h) Commencing lines :
(a) This is to inform you that
(b) I wish to bring to your kind notice that …………………………
(i) Content of the letter :
(j) Request:
(a) I shall be very grateful if the necessary measures are taken by the authorities concerned at the earliest
(b) I shall be obliged if early measures are taken in this regard by the authorities concerned
(k) Thank you,
(l) Subscription:
Yours truly,
Yours faithfully,
(m) Signature:
x x

Format For Personal Letter:

(a) From Address :
Y City

(b) Date : Eg. 20th June, 2019
(c) Salutation:
My Dearest __, Dearest __, Dear __,

(d) Commencing Lines:

1. Hope this letter finds you in the best of health
2. Hope you had received my previous letter
3. Thank you for your loving letter
4. Happy to meet you through this letter
5. Thank you for the you had sent me

(e) Concluding Lines:

1. Looking forward to your reply
2. Awaiting your reply / coming eagerly
3. Convey my love/regards to

(f) Subscription:
For Parents, Uncles,
Aunts – Yours lovingly,
For Friends – Yours lovingly, sincerely,
For Brother, Sisters, Cousins,
nephews, nieces – Yours affectionately,

(g) Signature

Exercises
1. Kumar wants to invite his friend Siva for his sister’s Marriage a week earlier, to assist him in the arrangments. He could not complete the content of his letter in about 100 words.
Answer:
Chennai,
23rd January 2019.

My Dear Siva,
Hope this letter finds you in good health. It’s been a few months since we’ve met. I have a good news. My sister, Shanthi’s marriage has been fixed on 30th of this month. We would like to have your presence two days ahead. So please be part of the family. Looking forward to be with you. We need your ideas for the reception hall and its decoration. All of us are expecting your arrival soon.

Your loving friend,
Kumar

Address on the envelope :
To
Mr. S. Siva,
20, Anna Salai,
Salem.

2. Kavya wanted to write a letter to her uncle to ask him if she could spend her summer holidays with him. She had started her letter but had not completed it. Complete the content of her letter in about 100 words.
Answer:
No. 20,4th Street,
Gandhi Nagar,
Chennai – 600 020.
13 th December, 2018.

Dear Uncle,
Hope this letter finds you in the best of health. Uncle, with my exams over and with the long wait for the results, I thought I could spend my summer holidays with you, aunt and brothers Ramu and Raju in the fields and plantation in the village.

It would be very refreshing after my exam and I am looking forward to put my hands to work. Shall I be there on Sunday? My father will drop me at the village.

Waiting for your reply or phone call at the earliest.

Your loving
niece,

Address on the envelope :

To
Mr. Vasanth,
20, Everon Heights, Ootacamund,
Nilgiris District.

3. Write a letter to your friend telling about how your house was burgled when your family was away on a holiday. (*^)
Answer:
36, Gandhi Road
Chennai – 45
04 August 2018

Dear Ramesh,
How are you? I feel sad to inform you that my house was burgled last week when I was on a holiday. Burglars might have known from the accumulated newspaper pile that I had gone away. When I came back last Sunday, I found the back-door lock broken. I could have forgotten to bolt the back-door from inside and they should have entered through it. My room was ransacked. They took my laptop and other valuables. I must have deposited the jewellery in a bank locker to avoid this loss. I should have informed my neighbours about my week-long trip. Well, I have registered an FIR with the police. They are investigating the case. They have assured that I would get my jewels back. The burglars will be caught very soon. Convey my regards to all at home.

Yours lovingly,
Murali

Address on the envelope :
Mr. Ramesh,
50, Bharathiyar Street,
Namakkal.

4. Suba wanted to write a letter to her friend congratulating her for her victory in Para Olympic Games. She had the format ready but Is yet to complete the letter. Complete the content of her letter in about 100 words.
Answer :
9/11, Kinely Street,
R City
2nd February, 2019.

Dear Rajalakshmi,
I am fine. How are you? I am very delighted to know that you have got victory in Para Olympic Games. Please accept my heartiest congratulations for this great achievement. Actually, your selfless dedication and devotion to the cause pf Sports and Games have earned you this deserving recognition. This is just the beginning and many such victories and medals should follow.

Your loving friend,
sudha

Address on the envelope :
To
Miss Rajalakshmi,
27, Woodland Street,
Ooty.

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Principles of Ecology Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Botany Question 1.
Arrange the correct sequence of ecological hierarchy starting from lower to higher level.
(a) Individual organism → Population Landscape → Ecosystem
(b) Landscape → Ecosystem → Biome → Biosphere
(c) community → Ecosystem → Landscape → Biome
(d) Population → organism → Biome → Landscape
Answer:
(a) Individual organism → Population Landscape → Ecosystem

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Botany Book Back Answers Question 2.
Ecology is the study of an individual species is called
(i) Community ecology
(ii) Autecology
(iii) Species ecology
(iv) Synecology
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) i and iv only
(d) ii and iii only
Answer:
(b) ii only

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Question 3.
A specific place in an ecosystem, where an organism lives and performs its functions is
(a) habitat
(b) niche
(c) landscape
(d) biome
Answer:
(b) niche

12th Botany Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Hydrophytes possess aerenchyma to support themselves in water.
(ii) Seeds of Viscum are positively photoblastic as they germinate only in presence of light.
(iii) Hygroscopic water is the only soil water available to roots of plant growing in soil as it is present inside the micropores.
(iv) High temperature reduces use of water and solute absorption by roots.
(a) i, ii, and iii only
(b) ii, iii and iv
(c) ii and iii only
(d) i and ii only
Answer:
(d) i and ii only

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Bio Botany Question 5.
Which of the given plant produces cardiac glycosides?
(a) Calotropis
(b) Acacia
(c) Nepenthes
(d) Utricularia
Answer:
(a) Calotropis

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Bio Botany Solutions Question 6.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
(i) Loamy soil is best suited for plant growth as it contains a mixture of silt, sand and clay.
(ii) The process of humification is slow in case of organic remains containing a large amount of lignin and cellulose.
(iii) Capillary water is the only water available to plant roots as it is present inside the micropores.
(iv) Leaves of shade plant have more total chlorophyll per reaction centre, low ratio of chi a and chi b are usually thinner leaves.
(a) i, ii and iii only
(b) ii, iii and iv only
(c) i, ii and iv only
(d) ii and iii only
Answer:
(d) ii and iii only

Principles Of Ecology Book Pdf Question 7.
Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement A: Cattle do not graze on weeds of Calotropis.
Statement B: Calotropis have thorns and spines, as defense against herbivores.
(a) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(b) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.
(c) Both statements A and B are correct but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement A.
(d) Both statements A and B are correct and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
Answer:
(b) Statement A is correct but statement B is incorrect.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Botany Solutions Question 8.
In soil water available for plants is
(a) gravitational water
(b) chemically bound water
(c) capillary water
(d) hygroscopic water
Answer:
(c) capillary water

Principle Of Ecology Pdf Question 9.
Read the following statements and fill up the blanks with correct option.

1. Total soil water content in soil is called ______
2. Soil water not available to plants is called ______
3. Soil water available to plants is called ______

Answer:
(a) Holard, Echard and Cheresard

Principles Of Ecology Book Question 10.
Column I represent the size of the soil particles components. Which of the following is correct match for the Column I and Column II

Answer:
(c) i, ii, i and iv

12th Bio Botany Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
The plant of this group are adapted to live partly in water and partly above substratum and free from water
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Mesophytes
(c) Hydrophytes
(d) Halophytes
Answer:
(b) Mesophytes

Chapter 6 Biology Class 12 Notes Question 12.
Identify the A, B, C and D in the given table:


Answer:
(a) (+) Parasitism (-) Amensalism

Question 13.
Ophrys an orchid resembling the female of an insect so as to able to get pollinated is due to phenomenon of
(a) Myrmecophily
(b) Ecological equivalents
(c) Mimicry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Mimicry

Question 14.
A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fem Azolla
(a) Nostoc
(b) Anabaena
(c) Chlorella
(d) Rhizobium
Answer:
(b) Anabaena

Question 15.
Pedogenesis refers to
(a) Fossils
(b) Water
(c) Population
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

Question 16.
Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by
(a) Serving as a plant growth regulators
(b) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
(c) Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen
(d) Protecting the plant from infection
Answer:
(d) Protecting the plant from infection

Question 17.
Which of the following plant has a non-succulent xerophytic and thick leathery leaves with waxy coating?
(a) Bryophyllum
(b) Ruscus
(c) Nerium
(d) Calotropis
Answer:
(d) Calotropis

Question 18.
In a fresh water environment like pond, rooted autotrophs are
(a) Nymphaea and typha
(b) Ceratophyllum and Utricularia
(c) Wolffia and pistia
(d) Azolla and lemna
Answer:
(a) Nymphaea and typha

Question 19.
Match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below:

Answer:
(d) iv, iii, ii, v and i

Question 20.
Strong, sharp spines that get attached to animal’s feet are found in the fruits of
(a) Argemone
(b) Ecballium
(c) Heraitier
(d) Crossandra
Answer:
(a) Argemone

Question 21.
Sticky glands of Boerhaavia and Cleome support
(a) Anemochory
(b) Zoochory
(c) Autochory
(d) Hydrochory
Answer:
(b) Zoochory

Question 22.
Define ecology.
Answer:
Ecology is the study of the reciprocal relationship between living organisms and their environment.

Question 23.
What is ecological hierarchy?
Name the levels of ecological hierarchy.
Answer:
The interaction of organisms with their environment results in the establishment of grouping of organisms which is called ecological hierarchy.

Question 24.
What are ecological equivalents? Give one example.
Answer:
Taxonomically different species occupying similar habitats (Niches) in different geographical regions are called Ecological equivalents.
E.g: Certain species of epiphytic orchids of Western Ghats of India differ from the epiphytic orchids of South America. But they are epiphytes.

Question 25.
Distinguish habitat and niche.
Answer:
Habitat:

1. A specific physical space occupied by an organism (species).
2. Same habitat may be shared by many organisms (species).
3. Habitat specificity is exhibited by organism.

Niche:

1. a functional space occupied by an organism in the same eco-system
2. A single niche is the occupied by a single species
3. Organisms may change their niche with time and season

Question 26.
Why are some organisms called as eurythermals and some others as stenohaline?
Answer:

1. Eurythermal: Organisms which can tolerate a wide range of temperature fluctuations.
   Example: Zostera.
2. Stenothermal: Organisms which can tolerate only small range of temperature variations.
   Example: Mango.

Question 27.
‘Green algae are not likely to be found in the deepest strata of the ocean’. Give at least one reason.
Answer:
As the name indicates, green algae possess photosynthetic pigments which use the light as energy source for survival and they are not found in deepest sea since there is lack of light.

Question 28
What is Phytoremediation?
Answer:
Phytoremediation refers to the using of living green plants to overcome soil or water contamination.
E.g: Growing Eichhomia in cadmium enriched soil reduces the level of cadmium.

Question 29.
What is Albedo effect and write their effects?
Answer:
Gases let out to atmosphere causes climatic change. Emission of dust and aerosols from industries, automobiles, forest fire,  and DMS (dimethyl sulphur) play an important role in disturbing the temperature level of any region. Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere. This is known as Albedo effect.

Question 30.
The organic horizon is generally absent from agricultural soils because tilling, e.g., plowing, buries organic matter. Why is an organic horizon generally absent in desert soils?
Answer:
Organic horizon is generally absent in deserts because of low content of organic matter due to scarcity of plant and animal remains or excreta.

Question 31.
Soil formation can be initiated by biological organisms. Explain how?
Answer:
Soil formation is initiated by the biological weathering process. Biological weathering takes place when organisms like bacteria, fungi, lichens and plants help in the breakdown of rocks through the production of acids and certain chemical substances.

Question 32.
Sandy soil is not suitable for cultivation. Explain why?
Answer:
Sandy soil has a high porosity leading to decreased water retention hence unfit for cultivation.

Question 33.
Describe the mutual relationship between the fig and wasp and comment on the phenomenon that operates in this relationship.
Answer:
Wasps present in the figs is an example of mutualism where both the interacting species are benefitted from the obligate association. Wasps acts as a pollinating agents for figs intum larvae of wasps are nourished and protected by fruits of figs.

Question 34.
Lichen is considered as a good example of obligate mutualism. Explain.
Answer:
Lichen is a mutual association of an alga and a fungus, where the algal partner nourishes and provides shelter to fungi, intum fungi confers protection from bacterial infections and also maintains moisture for algal growth.

Question 35.
What is mutualism? Mention any two example where the organisms involved are commercially exploited in modern agriculture.
Answer:

1. Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are benefitted from the obligate
2. association. Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria associated with Azolla (a fern) and Rhizobium found in the root nodules of leguminous plant are used in the field of agriculture to increase the soil fertility.

Question 36.
List any two adaptive features evolved in parasites enabling them to live successfully on their host?
Answer:
Presence of haustorial roots inside the host plant to absorb nutrients.

Question 37.
Mention any two significant roles of predation plays in nature.
Answer:
Predation maintains the stability of food chain in an ecosystem. Population of the insects and small animals are in control due to predation or else it may lead to overgrazing and browsing thereby altering the vegetation.

Question 38.
How does an orchid ophrys ensures its pollination by bees ?
Answer:
The plant, Ophrys an orchid, the flower looks like a female insect to attract the male insect to get pollinated by the male insect and it is otherwise called ‘floral mimicry ‘

Question 39.
Water is very essential for life. Write any three features for plants which enable them to survive in water scarce environment.
Answer:

1. Presence of highly developed root system to absorb water.
2. Stems and leaves are covered with waxing coating or dense hairs to avoid transpirational loss.
3. Modified leaves generally leathery and shiny to reflect light and heat.

Question 40.
Why do submerged plants receive weak illumination than exposed floating plants in a lake?
Answer:
Submerged plants like Vallisneria receive dim illumination because majority of the light are reflected back by the water surface whereas, the floating hydrophytes receive and absorb maximum light as they are on the water surface.

Question 41.
What is vivipary? Name a plant group which exhibits vivipary.
Answer:
Viviparity is the phenomenon, where the seeds germinate and then starts developing to some extent before they detach from the parent plant body. In plant, it is noticed in Halophytes like Rhizophora.

Question 42.
What is thermal stratification? Mention their types.
Answer:
Thermal Stratification is usually found in aquatic habitat. The change in the temperature profile with increasing depth in a water body is called thermal stratification. There are three kinds of thermal stratifications.

1. Epilimnion – The upper layer of warmer water.
2. Metalimnion – The middle layer with a zone of gradual decrease in temperature.
3. Hypolimnion – The bottom layer of colder water.

Question 43.
How is rhytidome act as the structural defence by plants against fire?
Answer:
Rhytidome is the structural defense by plants against fire. The outer bark of trees which extends to the last formed periderm is called Rhytidome. It is composed of multiple layers of suberized periderm, cortical and phloem tissues. It protects the stem against fire, water loss, invasion of insects and prevents infections by microorganisms.

Question 44.
What is myrmecophily?
Answer:
Sometimes, ants take their shelter on some trees such as Mango, Litchi, Jamun and Acacia, etc. These ants act as body guards of the plants against any disturbing agent and the plants in turn provide food and shelter to these ants. This phenomenon is known as Myrmecophily. Example: Acacia and its ants.

Question 45.
What is seed ball?
Answer:
Seed ball is an ancient Japanese technique of encasing seeds in a mixture of clay and soil humus (also in cow dung) and scattering them on to suitable ground, not planting of trees manually. This method is suitable for barren and degraded lands for tree regeneration and vegetation before monsoon period where the suitable dispersal agents become rare.

Question 46.
How is anemochory differ from zoochory?
Answer:
Anemochory:

1. Anemochory refers to the seed dispersal by wind.
2. Anemochory seeds are very minute and may have wings or feathery appendages for dispersal.
3. E.g: Orchids

Zoochory:

1. Zoochory refers to the seed dispersal by animals.
2. Zoochory seeds and fruits are very fleshy and succulent and sticky they may have hooks to adhere to the body of animals.
3. E.g: Mango

Question 47.
What is co-evolution?
Answer:
The interaction between organisms, when continues for generations, involves reciprocal changes in genetic and morphological characters of both organisms. This type of evolution is called Co-evolution. It is a kind of co-adaptation and mutual change among interactive species.
Examples:

• Corolla length and proboscis length of butterflies and moths (Habenaria and Moth).
• Bird’s beak shape and flower shape and size.

Question 48.
Explain Raunkiaer classification in the world’s vegetation based on the temperature.
Answer:
Raunkiaer classified the world’s vegetation into the following four types. They are megatherms, mesotherms, microtherms and hekistotherms.

Question 49.
List out the effects of fire to plants.
Answer:
Effects of fire:

1. Fire has a direct lethal effect on plants.
2. Burning scars are the suitable places for the entry of parasitic fungi and insects.
3. It brings out the alteration of light, rainfall, nutrient cycle, fertility of soil, pH, soil flora and fauna.
4. Some fungi which grow in soil of burnt areas are called pyrophilous.
5. Example: Pyronema confluens.

Question 50.
What is soil profile? Explain the characters of different soil horizons.
Answer:
Soil is commonly stratified into horizons at different depth. These layers differ in their physical, chemical and biological properties. This succession of super-imposed horizons is called soil profile.

Question 51.
Give an account of various types of parasitism with examples.
Answer:
(a) Parasitism: It is an interaction between two different species in which the smaller partner (parasite) obtains food from the larger partner (host or plant). So the parasitic species is benefitted while the host species is harmed. Based on the host-parasite relationship, parasitism is classified into two types they are holoparasite and hemiparasite.

(b) Holoparasites: The organisms which are dependent upon the host plants for their entire nutrition are called Holoparasites. They are also called total parasites.
Examples:

• Cuscuta is a total stem parasite of the host plant Acacia, Duranta and many other plants. Cuscuta even gets flower inducing hormone from its host plant.
• Balanophora, orobanche and Refflesia are the total root parasites found on higher plants.

(c) Hemiparasites: The organisms which derive only water and minerals from their host plant while synthesizing their own food by photosynthesis are called Hemiparasites. They are also called partial parasites.
Examples:

• Viscum and Loranthus are partial stem parasites.
• Santalum (Sandal Wood) is a partial root parasite.
  The parasitic plants produce the haustorial roots inside the host plant to absorb nutrients from the vascular tissues of host plants.

Question 52.
Explain different types of hydrophytes with examples.
Answer:
Hydrophytes
The plants which are living in water or wet places are called hydrophytes. According to their relation to water and air, they are sub-divided into following categories:

1. Free floating hydrophytes
2. Rooted-floating hydrophytes
3. Submerged floating hydrophytes
4. Rooted- submerged hydrophytes
5. Amphibious hydrophytes.

1. Free floating hydrophytes: These plants float freely on the surface of water. They remain in contact with water and air, but not with soil. Examples: Eichhornia, Pistia and Wolffia (smallest flowering plant).

2. Rooted floating hydrophytes: In these plants, the roots are fixed in mud, but their leaves and flowers are floating on the surface of water. These plants are in contact with soil, water and air. Examples: Nelumbo, Nymphaea, Potomogeton and Marsilea.

3. Submerged floating hydrophytes: These plants are completely submerged in water and not in contact with soil and air. Examples: Ceratophyllum and Utricularia.

4. Rooted-submerged hydrophytes: These plants are completely submerged in water and rooted in soil and not in contact with air. Examples: Hydrilla, Vallisneria and Isoetes.

5. Amphibious hydrophytes (Rooted emergent hydrophytes): These plants are adapted to both aquatic and terrestrial modes of life. They grow in shallow water. Examples: Ranunculus, Typha and Sagittaria.

Question 53.
Enumerate the anatomical adaptations of xerophytes.
Answer:

1. Presence of multilayered epidermis with heavy cuticle to prevent water loss due to transpiration.
2. Hypodermis is well developed with sclerenchymatous tissues.
3. Sunken shaped stomata are present only in the lower epidermis with hairs in the sunken pits.
4. Scotoactive type of stomata found in succulent plants.
5. Vascular bundles are well developed with several layered bundle sheath.
6. Mesophyll is well differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
7. In succulents, the stem possess a water storage region.

Question 54.
List out any five morphological adaptations of halophytes.
Answer:
Morphological adaptations

1. The temperate halophytes are herbaceous but the tropical halophytes are mostly bushy.
2. In addition to the normal roots, many stilt roots are developed.
3. A special type of negatively geotropic roots called pneumatophores with pneumathodes to get sufficient aeration are also present. They are called breathing roots.
   Example: Avicennia.
4. Presence of thick cuticle on the aerial parts of the plant body.
5. Leaves are thick, entire, succulent and glossy. Some species are aphyllous (without leaves).

Question 55.
What are the advantages of seed dispersal?
Answer:
Advantages of seed dispersal:

1. Seeds escape from mortality near the parent plants due to predation by animals or getting diseases and also avoiding competition.
2. Dispersal also gives a chance to occupy favourable sites for growth.
3. It is an important process in the movement of plant genes particularly this is the only method available for self-fertilized flowers and maternally transmitted genes in outcrossing plants.
4. Seed dispersal by animals help in conservation of many species even in human altered ecosystems.
5. Understanding of fruits and seed dispersal acts as a key for proper functioning and establishment of many ecosystems from deserts to evergreen forests and also for the maintenance of biodiversity conservation and restoration of ecosystems.

Question 56.
Describe dispersal of fruit and seeds by animals.
Answer:
Birds and mammals, including human beings play an efficient and important role in the dispersal of fruit and seeds. They have the following devices.

1. Hooked fruit: The surface of the fruit or seeds have hooks (Xanthium), barbs (Andropogon), spines (Aristida) by means of which they adhere to the body of animals or clothes of human beings and get dispersed.
2. Sticky fruits and seeds:
   • Some fruits have sticky glandular hairs by which they adhere to the fur of grazing animals. Example: Boerhaavia and Cleome.
   • Some fruits have viscid layer which adhere to the beak of the bird which eat them and when they rub them on to the branch of the tree, they disperse and germinate.
     Example: Cordia and Alangium.
3. Fleshy fruits: Some fleshy fruits with conspicuous colours are dispersed by human beings to distant places after consumption.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Principles of Ecology Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Who is called as the father of Modem Ecology?
Answer:
Eugene P. Odum

Question 2.
Autoecology deals with the study of ________
(a) Community
(b) Population
(c) Individual species
(d) Niche of species
Answer:
(c) Individual species

Question 3.
Environment of any community is called
(a) Paratope
(d) Biotope
(c) Opitope
(d) Biotope
Answer:
(d) Biotope

Question 4.
Match Coloumn I with Column II

Answer:
(a) – iii
(b) – i
(c) – iv
(d) – ii

Question 5.
The study of soil is called as __________
(a) Lithotripsy
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Pedology
(d) Pedology analysis
Answer:
(c) Pedology

Question 6.
Identify the indicators of fire.
(a) Pucinia
(b) Pyricularia
(c) Pyronema
Answer:
(c) Pyronema

Question 7.
The surface features of earth are called __________
Answer:
Topography

Question 8.
Amensalism is called as __________
Answer:
Antibiosis

Question 9.
is the transition zone between two ecosystems.
Answer:
Ecotone

Question 10.
Match the type of species interaction with correct combination. Interaction Type Combination

Answer:
(a) – iii (b) – i (c) – iv (d) – ii

Question 11.
Wasps is the fruits of fig is an example for ________ type of species interaction.
Answer:
Mutualism

Question 12.
Statement 1: Latitudes represent distance from the equator.
Statement 2: Height above the seal level from longitude.
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 13.
Statement 1: Holoparsites depend totally on other organisms for nutrition.
Statement 2: Dumta is holoparasite.
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct.

Question 14.
Statement 1: Ephemerals are drought evaders.
Statement 2: They are not true xerophytes.
(a) Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Both the statements are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct.

Question 15.
Assertion (A) : Plains and valleys are rich in vegetation
Reason (R): Slow drain of surface water and better water retention is noticed.
(a) A is true R is false
(b) R explains A
(c) A and R are false
(d) A and R are true. But R doesnot explains A
Answer:
(b) R explains A

Question 16.
Utricularia is a _______
(a) Rooted floating hydrophyte
(b) Submerged floating hydrophyte
(c) Rooted submerged hydrophyte
(d) Amphibious hydrophyte
Answer:
(b) Submerged floating hydrophyte

Question 17.
Earth day is observed on
(a) April 22nd
(b) March 21st
(c) July 07th
(d) September 16th
Answer:
(a) April 22nd

Question 18.
Plants in sandy soils are commonly called as _______
Answer:
Psammophytes

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
How Earnest Haeckel defined ecology?
Answer:
Earnest Haeckel defined “Ecology is the study of the reciprocal relationship between living organisms and their environment.”

Question 2.
What is ecological hierarchy?
Answer:
The interaction of organisms with their environment results in the establishment of grouping of organisms which is called ecological hierarchy.

Question 3.
Sequentially arrange the different units of ecological hierarchy.
Answer:

Question 4.
Define

1. Autecology
2. Synecology.

Answer:

1. Autecology is the ecology of an individual species and is also called species ecology.
2. Synecology is the ecology of a population or community with one or more species and also called as community ecology.

Question 5.
What is Niche?
Answer:
An ecological niche refers to an organism’s place in the biotic environment and its functional role in an ecosystem.

Question 6.
What are ecological factors?
Answer:
The environment (surrounding) includes physical, chemical and biological components. When a component surrounding an organism affects the life of an organism, it becomes a factor. All such factors together are called environmental factors or ecological factors.

Question 7.
Name the climatic factors that affect plant life.
Answer:
Light, Temperature, Water, Wind and Fire.

Question 8.
Name any four physiological processes in plants, where the light plays a crucial role.
Answer:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Transpiration
3. Seed germination
4. Flowering

Question 9.
Heliophytes differ from Sciophytes. How?
Answer:
Heliophytes – Light loving plants. Example: Angiosperms.
Sciophytes – Shade loving plants. Example: Bryophytes and Pteridophytes.

Question 10.
Based on temperature prevalence, Raunkiaer classified world’s vegetation into four types. Name them.
Answer:
Raunkiaer classified the world’s vegetation into the following four types. They are megatherms, mesotherms, microtherms and hekistotherms.

Question 11.
Distinguish between evergreen forests and sclerophyllous forests.
Answer:
Evergreen Forests: Found where heavy rainfall occurs throughout the year.
Sclerophyllous Forests: Found where heavy rainfall occurs during winter and low rainfall during summer.

Question 12.
What does the term ‘Timber line’ refers to?
Answer:
Timber line is an imaginary line in a mountain or higher areas of land that marks the level above which trees do not grow. The altitudinal limit of normal tree growth is about 3000 to 4000 m.

Question 13.
Compare Euryhaline organisms with stenohaline organisms.
Answer:

1. Euryhaline: Organisms which can live in water with wide range of salinity. Examples: Marine algae and marina angiosperms.
2. Stenohaline: Organisms which can withstand only small range of salinity. Example: Plants of estuaries.

Question 14.
Write the composition of gases in atmosphere.
Answer:
Nitrogen -78% , Oxygen -21%, Carbon-di-oxide -0.03%, Argon and other gases – 0.93%.

Question 15.
What is Albedo effect?
Answer:
Gases let out to atmosphere causes climatic change. Emission of dust and aerosols from industries, automobiles, forest fire, S02 and DMS (dimethyl sulphur) play an important role in disturbing the temperature level of any region. Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere. This is known as Albedo effect.

Question 16.
Point any two adverse effects of fire in an environment.
Answer:

1. Fire has a direct lethal effect on plants.
2. It brings out the alteration of light, rainfall, nutrient cycle, fertility of soil, pH, soil flora and fauna

Question 17.
Pyronema confluens is the indicator of fire – comment.
Answer:
Pyronema confluens is a fungus which grow on the soil of burnt or fire disturbed areas. Hence it is called as indicator of fire.

Question 18.
What are edaphic factors?
Answer:
Edaphic factors are the abiotic factors related to soil, include the physical and chemical composition of the soil formed in a particular area.

Question 19.
Name the study that deals with soil factors. Also mention the optimal soil pH for crop cultivation.
Answer:
The study of soil is called pedology. The best pH of soil for crop cultivation is 5.5 to 6.8.

Question 20.
Define soil profile.
Answer:
Soil is commonly stratified into horizons at different depth. These layers differ in their physical, chemical and biological properties. This succession of super-imposed horizons is called soil profile.

Question 21.
Given below are few types of plants. Mention their habitats.

1. Halophytes
2. Chasmophytes
3. Cryophytes
4. Psammophytes.

Answer:

1. Halophytes: Plants living in saline soils.
2. Chasmophytes: Plants living in rocky crevices.
3. Cryophytes: Plants living in ice surface.
4. Psammophytes: Plants living in sandy soils.

Question 22.
Mention any four topographic factors that affect vegetation.
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Direction of mountain and
4. Steepness of mountain.

Question 23.
How the steepness of mountain affects the vegetation?
Answer:
The steepness of the mountain or hill allows the rain to run off. As a result the loss of water causes water deficit and quick erosion of the top soil resulting in poor vegetation. On the other hand, the plains and valley are rich in vegetation due to the slow drain of surface water and better retention of water in the soil.

Question 24.
Name any two positive interactions with an example for each.
Answer:

1. Mutualism – E.g: Lichen
2. Commensalism – E.g: Orchids.

Question 25.
Define mutualism with an example.
Answer:
Mutualism is an interaction between two species of organisms in which both are benefitted from the obligate association. E.g: Lichens (alga with fungus).

Question 26.
What is the principle of commensalism?
Answer:
Commensalism is an interaction between two organisms in which one is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed. The species that derives benefit is called the commensal, while the other species is called the host.

Question 27.
Specify the type of interactions between the given pair of species.

1. Spanish moss and Oak tree
2. Cuscuta and Acacia
3. Nepenthes and Ants
4. Alga and fungus

Answer:

1. Commensalism
2. Parasitism
3. Predation
4. Mutualism

Question 28.
Explain the concept of proto co-operation.
Answer:
Proto Co-operation is an interaction between organisms of different species in which both organisms benefit but neither is dependent on the relationship. Example: Soil bacteria / fungi and plants growing in the soil.

Question 29.
What are Holoparasites? Give example.
Answer:
The organisms which are dependent upon the host plants for their entire nutrition are called Holoparasites. They are also called total parasites.
Example: Cuscuta is a total stem parasite of the host plant Acacia.

Question 30.
What are hemiparasites? Give example.
Answer:
Hemiparasites is the organisms which derive only water and minerals from their host plant while synthesizing their own food by photosynthesis are called Hemiparasites. They are also called partial parasites.
Example: Viscum.

Question 31.
Cite an example for partial stem parasite and partial root parasite.
Answer:

1. Partial stem parasite – E.g: Loranthus.
2. Partial root parasite – E.g: Santalum.

Question 32.
Define Amensalism.
Answer:
Amensalism is an interspecific interaction in which one species is inhibited while the other species is neither benefitted nor harmed. The inhibition is achieved by the secretion of certain chemicals called allelopathic substances. Amensalism is also called antibiosis.

Question 33.
Point out any two morphological adaptations noticed in the roots of hydrophytes.
Answer:

1. Roots are totally absent in Wolffia and Salvinia or poorly developed in Hydrilla or well developed in Ranunculus.
2. The root caps are replaced by root pockets.
   Example: Eichhomia.

Question 34.
What are hygrophytes? Give example.
Answer:
The plants which can grow in moist damp and shady places are called hygrophytes. Examples: Habenaria (Orchid) and Mosses (Bryophytes), etc.

Question 35.
What are trichophyllous plants? Give example.
Answer:
In xerophytic plants, with the leaves and stem are covered with hairs are called trichophyllous plants.
Example: Cucurbits (Melothria and Mukia)

Question 36.
Give an example for following type of adaptations.

1. Phyllode
2. Cladode

Answer:

1. Phyllode – E.g: Acacia.
2. Cladode – E.g: Asparagus.

Question 37.
Write a brief note on pneumatophores. Give an example.
Answer:
Pneumatophores are the special type of negatively geotropic roots developed by halophytes. It possess pneumathodes to get sufficient aeration. They are also called breathing roots.
Example: Avicennia.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 38.
Differentiate habitat from niche.
Answer:
Habitat:

1. A specific physical space occupied by an organism (species).
2. Same habitat may be shared by many organisms (species).
3. Habitat specificity is exhibited by organism.

Niche:

1. A functional space occupied by an organism in the same eco-system.
2. A single niche is occupied by a single species.
3. Organisms may change their niche with time and season.

Question 39.
What is thermal stratification? Explain its types.
Answer:
Thermal stratification is usually found in aquatic habitat. The change in the temperature profile with increasing depth in a water body is called thermal stratification. There are three kinds of thermal stratifications.

1. Epilimnion – The upper layer of warmer water.
2. Metalimnion – The middle layer with a zone of gradual decrease in temperature.
3. Hypolimnion – The bottom layer of colder water.

Question 40.
What are the adverse effects of temperature on plant?
Answer:

1. Temperature affects the enzymatic action of all the bio-chemical reactions in a plant body.
2. Low temperature with high humidity can spread diseases to plants.
3. The varying temperature with moisture determines the distribution of the vegetation types.

Question 41.
Explain briefly about the three types of fire.
Answer:

1. Ground fire – Which is flameless and subterranean.
2. Surface fire – Which consumes the herbs and shrubs.
3. Crown fire – Which bums the forest canopy.

Question 42.
Classify soil based on its formation.
Answer:
Based on soil formation (pedogenesis), the soils are divided into:

1. Residual soils -These are soils formed by weathering and pedogenesis of the rock.
2. Transported soils – These are transported by various agencies.

Question 43.
Loamy soil is ideal for crop cultivation – Justify.
Answer:
Loamy soil is ideal soil for cultivation, since it consists of 70% sand and 30% clay or silt or both. It ensures good retention and proper drainage of water. The porosity of soil provides adequate aeration and allows the penetration of roots.

Question 44.
Direction of mountain determines the richness of vegetation – Justify.
Answer:
North and south faces of mountain or hill possess different types of flora and fauna because they differ in their humidity, rainfall, light intensity, light duration and temperature regions. The two faces of the mountain or hill receive different amount of solar radiation, wind action and rain. Of these two faces, the windward region possesses good vegetation due to heavy rains and die leeward region possesses poor vegetation due to rain shadows (rain deficit).

Question 45.
What are epiphytes? Explain their characteristic features.
Answer:
The plants which are found growing on other plants without harming them are called epiphytes. They are commonly found in tropical rain forest The epiphytic higher plant (Orchids) gets its nutrients and water from the atmosphere with the help of their hygroscopic roots which contain special type of spongy tissue called Velamen. So it prepares its own food and does not depend on the host. They use the host plant only for support and does not harm.

Question 46.
Discuss on predator – prey interaction with example.
Answer:
Predation: It is an interaction between two species, one of which captures, kills and eats up the other. The species which kills is called a predator and the species which is killed is called a prey. The predator is benefitted while the prey is harmed. Many herbivores are predators. Cattles, Camels and Goats etc., frequently browse on the tender shoots of herbs, shrubs and trees.

Question 47.
Give an account of Mimicry.
Answer:
Mimicry is a phenomenon in which living organism modifies its form, appearance, structure or behavior and looks like another living organism as a self defence and increases the chance of their survival. Floral mimicry is for usually inviting pollinators but animal mimicry is often protective. Mimicry is a result of evolutionary significance due to shape and sudden heritable mutation and preservation of natural selection.

Question 48.
Mention any two species that exhibits protective mimicry.
Answer:

1. Carausium morosus (Stick insect)
2. PhyIlium frondosum (Leaf insect).

Question 49.
What is co-evolution? Explain with example.
Answer:
The interaction between organisms, when continues for generations, involves reciprocal changes in genetic and morphological characters of both organisms. This type of evolution is called Co-evolution. It is a kind of co-adaptation and mutual change among interactive species.
Examples:

• Corolla length and proboscis length of butterflies and moths (Habenaria and Moth).
• Bird’s beak shape and flower shape and size.

Question 50.
How physical dryness differ from physiological dryness?
Answer:

1. Physical dryness: In these habitats, soil has a little amount of water due to the inability of the soil to hold water because of low rainfall.
2. Physiological dryness: In these habitats, water is sufficiently present but plants are unable to absorb it because of the absence of capillary spaces.
   Example: Plants in salty and acidic soil.

Question 51.
Point out the Anatomical adaptations exhibited by the Halophytes.
Answer:
Anatomical adaptations:

1. Epidermal cells of stem is heavily cutinized, almost squarish and are filled with oil and tannins.
2. Star’ shaped sclereids and ‘H’ shaped heavy thickened spicules that provide mechanical strength to cortex are present in the stem.
3. The leaves may be dorsiventral or isobilateral with salt secreting glands.

5-Mark Question

Question 52.
Explain various edaphic factors that affect vegetation.
Answer:
The important edaphic factors which affect vegetation are as follows:

1. Soil moisture: Plants absorbs rain water and moisture directly from the air.
2. Soil water: Soil water is more important than any other ecological factors affecting the distribution of plants. Rain is the main source of soil water. Capillary water held between pore spaces of soil particles and angles between them is the most important form of water available to the plants.
3. Soil reactions: Soil may be acidic or alkaline or neutral in their reaction. pH value of the . soil solution determines the availability of plant nutrients. The best pH range of the soil for cultivation of crop plants is 5.5 to 6.8.
4. Soil nutrients: Soil fertility and productivity is the ability of soil to provide all essential plant nutrients such as minerals and organic nutrients in the form of ions.
5. Soil temperature: Soil temperature of an area plays an’important role in determining the
   geographical distribution of plants. Low temperature reduces use of water and solute absorption by roots. .
6. Soil atmosphere: The spaces left between soil particles are called pore spaces which contains oxygen and carbon-di-oxide.
7. Soil organisms: Many organisms existing in the soil like bacteria, fungi, algae, protozoans, nematodes, insects and earthworms, etc. are called soil organisms.

Question 53.
What does competition refers to? Classify and describe it.
Answer:
1.Competition: It is an interaction between two organisms or species in which both the organisms or species are harmed. Competition is the severest in population that has irregular distribution. Competition is classified into intraspecific and interspecific.

2. Intraspecific competition: It is an interaction between individuals of the same species. This competition is very severe because all the members of species have similar requirements of food, habitat and pollination etc., and they also have similar adaptations to fulfill their needs.

3. Interspecific competition: It is an interaction between individuals of different species. In grassland, many species of grasses grow well as there is little competition when enough nutrients and water is available. During drought Shortage of water occurs. A life and death competition starts among the different species of grass lands.

Survival in both these competitions is determined by the quantity of nutrients, availability of water and migration to new areas. Different species of herbivores, larvae and grass hopper competing for fodder or forage plants. Trees, shrubs and herbs in a forest struggle for sunlight, water and nutrients and also for pollination and dispersal of fruits and seeds, The Utricularia (Bladderwort) competes with tiny fishes for small crustaceans and insects.

Question 54.
Point out any five morphological adaptations of epiphytes.
Answer:
Morphological adaptations:

1. Root system is extensively developed. These roots may be of two types. They are Clinging roots and Aerial roots. Clinging roots fix the epiphytes firmly on the surface of the supporting objects. Aerial roots are green coloured roots which may hang downwardly and absorb moisture from the atmosphere with the help of a spongy tissue called velamen.
2. Stem of some epiphytes are succulent and develop pseudo bulb or tuber.
3. Generally the leaves are lesser in number and may be fleshy and leathery.
4. Myrmecophily is a common occurrence in the epiphytic vegetation to prevent the predators.
5. The fruits and seeds are very small and usually dispersed by wind, insects and birds.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
Being a tropical country, India is the largest producer of delicious mangoes. These mango tree don’t grow in temperate countries. Give reason.
Answer:
Mango tree show very narrow range of thermal tolerance. Hence they cannot grow in temperate countries.

Question 2.
What is cause of flag forms in trees?
Answer:
Unidirectional wind stimulates the development of flag forms in trees.

Question 3.
In the picture given below, A and B represents the two different biomes. What does the letter C denotes? What will be its impact on the organisms in C Explain with example.
Answer:

The letter C denotes Ecotone – a transition zone between two different ecosystem. Those species found in the ecotone will have impact of environment of two habitats.
E.g. Owl in the ecotone area between forest and grassland.

Question 4.
Observe the tabular column and complete it using proper terms.

Answer:
A = +
B = Commensalism
C = –
D = Parasitism
E = –

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