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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer.

Matter Around Us Class 6 Question 1.
_____ is not made of matter.
(a) gold ring
(b) iron nail
(c) light ray
(d) oil drop
Answer:
(c) light ray

Matter Around Us Class 6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
200 ml of water is poured into a bowl of 400 ml capacity. The volume of water now will be
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 800 ml
Answer:
(c) 200 ml

6th Standard Science Matter Around Us Question Answer Question 3.
Seeds from water-melon can be removed by _____ method.
(a) hand-picking
(b) filtration
(c) magnetic separation
(d) decantation
Answer:
(a) hand-picking

6th Standard Science Matter Around Us Question 4.
Lighter impurities like dust when mixed with rice or pulses can be removed by
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(d) winnowing

Matter Around Us Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
_____ is essential to perform winnowing activity.
(a) Rain
(b) Soil
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Matter Around Us Tamil Meaning Question 6.
Filtration method is effective in separating mixture
(a) Solid-solid
(b) Solid-liquid
(c) liquid-liquid
(d) liquid-gas
Answer:
(b) Solid-Liquid

6th Science Matter Around Us Question 7.
From the following _____ is not a mixture.
(a) coffee with milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) water
(d) ice cream embedded with nuts
Answer:
(c) water

II. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

For 6th Standard Question 1.
Air is not compressible.
Answer:
False. Air is highly compressible.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Liquids have no fixed volume but have fixed shape.
Answer:
False. Liquids have fixed volume but have no fixed shape.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 3.
Particles in solids are free to move.
Answer:
False. Particles of solid can not move freely (or) Particles of liquid are free to move.

Question 4.
When pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of filtration.
Answer:
False. When pulses are washed with water before cooking the water is separated from them by the process of decantation.

Question 5.
Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Grain and husk can be separated by winnowing.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Air is a pure substance.
Answer:
False. Air is a mixture of gases.

Question 8.
Butter from curds is separated by sedimentation.
Answer:
False. Butter from curd is separated by Churning.

III. Match the following.

(a)

Answer:

(b)

Answer:

IV. Fill In the blanks.

1. Matter is made up of ______
2. In solids, the space between the particles is less than in ______
3. Grains can be separated from their stalks by ______
4. Chillies are removed from ‘upma’ by ______ method.
5. The method employed to separate clay particles from water is ______
6. Among the following items: safety pins, pencil and rubber band, ______ will get attracted to a magnet.
7. Water obtained from tube wells is usually ______ water.

Answers:

1. atoms
2. liquids and gases
3. Threshing
4. handpicking
5. Filtration
6. Safety pins
7. Impure

V. Complete the given analogy.

1. Solid: rigidit :: gas: ______
2. Large Inter-particle space: gas:: ______ :solid
3. Solid: definite shape :: ______ : shape of the vessel.
4. Husk-grains: winnowing:: Sawdust-Chalk piece : ______
5. Murukku from hot oil: ______ : coffee powder residue from decoction: ______
6. Iron – sulphur mixture : ______ :: Mustard seeds from Urad-dhal: rolling

Answers:

1. Flexibility.
2. Little inter-particle space.
3. Liquid.
4. Filtration
5. Filtration
6. Magnetic separation.

VI. Give a very short answer.

Question 1.
Define the term matter?
Answer:
Matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space. Matter is found in solid, liquid and gas.

Question 2.
How can husk or fine dust particles be separated from rice before cooking?

1. The husk or fine dust particles can be separated from rice by washing the rice with water before cooking.
2. The lighter impurities float while heavier rice grains sink to the bottom. (It is sedimentation).
3. Then the water with the impurities is carefully poured away by decantation, leaving clean rice at the bottom.

Question 3.
Why do we separate mixtures?
Answer:
A mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles. So, we have to separate mixtures.

Question 4.
Give an example for mixture and justify your answer with reason.
Answer:
Milk is an example for mixture.
It contains water, fat, protein etc. Since two or more compounds are mixed in a physical combination, milk is a mixture.

Question 5.
Define sedimentation?
Answer:
Sedimentation is the deposition process of setting down of heavy solids in a mixture of liquid and an insoluble solid.

Question 6.
Give the main difference between a pure substance and an impure substance.
Answer:
Pure substance:

1. It is made up of only one kind of particles
2. Unadulterated

Impure substance:

1. It is made up of two or more toxic particles
2. Adulterated

VII. Give a short answer :

Question 1.
A rubber ball changes its shape on pressing. Can it be called a solid?
Answer:
Yes. A solid has a certain shape and size. The shape of a rubber ball changes only if we squeeze it.

Question 2.
Why do gases not have fixed shape?
Answer:

1. Gases possess more intermolecular space and less forces of attraction.
2. They can move freely at any direction.
3. They have the property of filling the entire part of a container by taking the shape of the container.

So, gases do not have fixed shape.

Question 3.
What method will you employ to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk? Explain.
Answer:
“Churning followed by Coagulation” is employed to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk. There are six important steps in making cheese (Paneer) from milk:

1. Acidification
2. coagulation
3. separating curds and whey
4. Salting
5. shaping
6. ripening

Question 4.
Look at the picture given below and explain the method of separation illustrated.

Answer:
The method is called as Sieving. It is used to separate solid particles of different sizes. Ex. bran from flour.

Question 5.
How can you separate a mixture of a large quantity of tiny bits of paper mixed with pulses/dal?
Answer:
We can separate the mixture of a large quantity of tiny bits of paper and pulses/dal by “Winnowing”. The lighter papers will be carried by wind and heavier pulses/dais will fall closer and form a separate heap.

Question 6.
What is meant by food adulteration?
Answer:
Food adulteration is the process in which the quality of food is lowered either by the addition of inferior quality material or by extraction of valuable ingredient.

Question 7.
Mr. Raghu returns home on a hot summer day and wants to have buttermilk. Mrs. Raghu has only curds. What can she do to get buttermilk? Explain
Answer:
Mrs. Raghu has to take half a cup of curd, add half a cup of water to it and mix well. Now, she can serve buttermilk.

VIII. Question based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Distinguish between properties of Solid, liquid, gas. Draw suitable diagram.
Answer:

Question 2.
Using suitable apparatus from your laboratory separate the mixture of chalk powder, mustard oil, water and coins. Draw a flow chart to show the separation process.
Answer:

Question 1.
Malar’s mother was preparing to cook dinner. She accidentally mixed ground nuts with urad-dhal. Suggest a suitable method to separate the two substances so that Malar can have ground nuts to eat.
Answer:
The groundnuts shall be separated by hand picking method, because they are in different size, When compared with urad-dhal.

Question 2.
In a glass containing some water, tamarind juice and sugar is added and stirred well. Is this a mixture can you tell why? Will this solution be sweet? or sour? or both sweet and sour?
Answer:
Yes. It is a mixture. It has more than one kind of particle, i.e. Tamarind, Water and Sugar are mixed together. This solution will be sweet and sour.

Question 3.
Justify your answer.

Arrangement of particles in three different phases of matter is shown above.
(a) Which state is represented by fig. 1?
(b) In which will be the inter particle attraction maximum?
(c) Which one of them cannot be contained in an open vessel?
(d) Which one can take the shape of its container?
Answer:
(a) Liquid state, is represented by Fig 1.
(b) In Fig. 3 the inter particle attraction will be maximum, because it is in solid state.
(c) Fig. 2 cannot be contained in an open vessel, as it is in gaseous state.
(d) Fig. 1 can take the shape of its container, as it is in liquid state.

IX. Life Skills-Debate

Question 1.
Debate on “Food adulteration and detection”.
Answer:
Food is the basic requirement for life. It should be pure, nutritious and free from any type of adulteration.

Adulteration :
Sometimes, things that we buy in the market are mixed with harmful and unwanted substances. Food can also get adulterated due to carelessness or lack of proper handling. It will not possible to check for adulteration on visual examination. Following tests will help even a layman or non-technical person to detect adulterants in the some of the products.

Detection:
Milk: Adulterants used can be water, starch, urea, sucrose, detergents, neutralizer, formalin etc. These adulterants are used to increase thickness, viscosity and shelf life of milk.

Test: Put a drop of milk on polished vertical surface. The drop of pure milk either stops or flows slowly leaving a white trail behind it. Whereas milk adulterated with water will flow immediately without leaving a mark. We can also use Lactometer for measuring specific density of milk.

Sugar: Adulterant: Chalk

Test: Dissolve sugar in a glass of water,chalk will settle down at the bottom

Ice Cream: Adulterant: washing Powder

Test: Put some lemon juice on ice-cream, bubbles come out in the presence of washing powder

Test: Take one teaspoonful of melted ghee or butter with equal quantity of cone. Hydrochloric acid in a test tube and add to it a pinch of cane sugar. Shake well for one minute and let it stand for five minutes. Appearance of crimson colour in lower layer shows the presence of vanaspathi.

We must be careful about the common adulterants in our food. We might be eating a dangerous dye, sawdust, industrial starch or other contaminated foods which are a major source of diseases. And thus, we invite diseases rather than good health. Food adulteration is basically lowering the quality of food. So, we must be aware of such adulteration.

XI. Sequence Type

Question 1.
Write the sequence of steps you would use for making tea.
Use the words : mixture, dissolve, filtrate and residue.
Answer:

1. Take Tea powder and Milk
2. Heat the milk, then add tea powder.
3. Add sugar to taste and, Stirr well.
4. The sugar will be dissolved in the mixture.
5. Filter the mixture. Tea (filtrate) flows down through filter paper.
6. Tea leaves settle as residue on the filter paper.

XII. Topic enrichment – Project.

Question 1.
Make a fruit or vegetable salad. Give reasons why you think it is a mixture.
Answer:
Fruit Salad:
Discard the skin of banana, papaya, orange, apple, pine apple, guava and make small slices. Add pomegranate and grapes. Then mix with cream milk and honey. Now the fruit salad is ready. As this Fruit Salad is a physical combination of two or more substances, it is a mixture.

Vegetable Salad:
It is prepared with the primary ingredients of tomato, cucumber, onion, carrot, mint, lemon juice and dried chili peppers. As this Vegetable Salad is a physical combination of two or more substances, it is a mixture.

Question 2.
Connect with sports
Air is not a pure substance. It helps us in many ways from breathing to playing. Balloon sports are a very popular sport. The basis of how the balloon works is that, hot air is lighter than cool air. which makes balloon rise up Find out more about Hot Air balloons.

Answer:
The hot air balloon consists of three parts: an envelope- which contains heated air, basket, and burner system which creates an open flame by burning a mix of liquid propane and air.

The basic principle behind hot air balloon is the use of hot air to create buoyancy, which generates lift.

Hot air weighs less than the same volume of cold air, because it is less dense. It means that hot air will rise up and float when there is cold air around it.

Nowadays, most hot air balloons are made of nylon. The melting point of this material is approximately 230° C. The temperature inside a hot air balloon is usually kept below 120° C.

Hot air balloon festivals are held annually in many places throughout the year, allowing hot air balloons operators to gather- as well as for the general public to participate in various activities.

Hot air balloon flights are not possible in the rain. This is because the heat inside of the balloon can bring rain to boiling temperatures on top of the balloon, thereby destroying hot air balloon fabric.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Intext Activities

Activity 1

Take a few crystals of sugar. Observe them carefully with the help of a magnifying lens.

Which of the shapes given above resembles a sugar crystal?
A B C D E F
Answer:
D
Now place a few sugar crystals in a teaspoon full of water. What happens to the sugar crystals?

A sugar crystal is also made up of molecules. When sugar dissolves in water, the sugar crystals break down and the molecules of sugar get distributed in water. This makes water sweet to taste. The sugar molecules are extremely small, that is why we are not able to see them. Small amount of matter has nfany millions of molecules in it. (1 million =10 lakhs).

Activity 2
Sit together in groups of three. Look at objects given below. Are they familiar to you? Are they same or different? On what basis did you group them? Is there only one way of doing it or more ways? Discuss with your group members and note it down.

Answer:
There are various objects. There are many ways to group them. For example,
Pencil & books – Used for Studying
Bucket and comb – Made of Plastic
Table and ladle – Made of Wood
Glass of water and spectacles – Light can pass through
Apple and iron box – Light cannot pass through
Cow and bird – Living things
Feathers and paper cup – Will float in water
Apple or piece of stone – Will sink in water
Scrub brush and broom – Rough

Try to fill in the following table.
Answer:
Things that float:

1. Feathers
2. Plastic Comb
3. Paper cups

Things that sink:

1. Glass
2. Piece of stone
3. Apple

Activity 3

Work in a group of two. Malar was asked to group some items based on their physical states. This was the table she made. Do you agree with her? Correct the table if you do not agree and submit it to your teacher.

Answer:

Activity 4

Question 1.
Lift an uninflated cycle tube. Inflate it and lift it again. Is there a change in the weight? Can we see that air has mass?
Answer:
The weight of the inflated cycle tube is more than the weight of the uninflated cycle tube. So we can say that air is also matter though we cannot see, it occupies and also has mass.

Test Yourself

1. Name an object which is brittle and transparent ______
2. Name an object which can be stretched ______
3. Name two objects which can be bent ______

Answer:

1. Glass
2. Rubber band
3. Feather, Paper cup

Activity 5

Let us take two sachets of juice. In both the sachets, it is written 100ml. Let us empty two sachets and pour the juice into the following glasses.

Question 1.
Does its shape also change? Yes / No

Answer:
Yes.

Question 2.
Does its volume change? when it is poured into a big glass or a small one? Yes / No.
Answer:
No.

Question 3.
How will you find out whether the volume has changed or not?
Answer:
With the help of graduated beaker, we can find put whether the volume has changed or not.

A liquid needs a container and takes the shape of a container because the particles slide past one another and keep moving. The amount of juice is the same in both glasses. The volume of a liquid remains the same whether it is kept in a large container or a small one but its shape changes.

Try it yourself.

Identify the mixture the table given below. Write “yes” for mixture and no if it is not a mixture. You may also write “I do not know” and later discuss with your teacher.

Answer:

Activity 6

Think and find out, is it a good idea to separate bran from flour?
Answer:
No. It is not a good idea to separate bran from flour. Because, Bran is rich in dietary fiber, and essential fatty acids. It contains significant quantities of starch, protein, vitamins. It is also source of phytic acid. In foreign countries it is used as a nutrients and production of oils.

Activity 7

Group Activity – Students are divided into 4 groups

Each group should suggest a method to separate mixtures and also give reasons why they used a particular method and what property of the components forms the basis for separation. Examples should be drawn from day-to-day life. After the group presents its method to the rest of the class, the whole class will discuss and analyse if the suggested method will work and then make a note of it in the form given below:

Answer:

Activity 8
Collect and share information on common adulterants and their detection in food stuff in the class. Watch the youtube video: 10 simple tricks to find adulterated food, https://www.youtube.com/watch? v=_XLi WunnudY
Answer:
(i) Argemone seed in mustard seed.
Argemone seed is crushed with hammer its cotyledon is white in colour.
Mustard seed is crushed with hammer its cotyledon is yellow in colour.

(iv) Tea Powder
Adultered tea powder – add water : The water is changed in red colour
Original tea powder – add water : The water colour will be yellow

(v) Chill Powder
Adultered Chilli povder – add water : The colour of water is changed to red colour
Good quality chilli powder – add water : The colour of water will be yellow.

(vi) Adulterated Turmeric powder is added with HCl. The mixture is red in colour then add water. No change.

Original Turmeric power is added with HCl. The mixture is red in colour then add water. The red colour is changed into colourless.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
All the matter made of ______
(a) Particles
(b) Atoms
(c) Elements
(d) Mixture
Answer:
(b) Atoms

Question 2.
Intermolecular forces of attractions is maximum in
(a) liquids
(b) plasma particles
(c) solids
(d) gases
Answer:
(c) solids

Question 3.
A drop of water contains about ______ water particles.
(a) 1021
(b) 1012
(c) 1022
(d) 1020
Answer:
(a) 1021

Question 4.
The method of separating substances based on size, color and shape is called
(a) Hand-picking
(b) Winnowing
(c) Threshing
(d) sieving.
Answer:
(a) Hand-picking

Question 5.
has definite shape and volume.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 6.
The space between _______ particles is the greatest one.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) cold
Answer:
(c) gas

Question 7.
For removing grains from stalks, _______ method is used.
(a) Winnowing
(b) Sieving
(c) Churning
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(d) Threshing

Question 8.
Very tiny insoluble solid separated from a liquid is _______
(a) Winnowing
(b) Churning
(c) Sieving
(d) Filtration
Answer:
(b) Churning

Question 9.
_______ is a smallest particle.
(a) Molecule
(b) Element
(c) Atom
(d) Substance
Answer:
(c) Atom

Question 10.
We mix rice, dal, salt, chillies, pepper, ghee and other ingredients to make pongal. So pongal is also a _____
(a) Mixture
(b) Compound
(c) Element
(d) Matter
Answer:
(a) Mixture

II. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Gas like state of Matter that exists at extremely cold temperatures used in the field of cryogenics.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The particles in matter are extremely small and can be seen even with a powerful microscope.
Answer:
False. The particles in matter are extremely small and cannot be seen even with a powerful microscope.

Question 3.
The Cow and Birds are nonliving things.
Answer:
False. The Cow and Birds are living things.

Question 4.
The feather and paper cup can float on the water.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The force of attraction between liquid particles is more than solid particles.
Answer:
False. The force of attraction between liquid particles is less than solid particles.

Question 6.
Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Water particles have no space between them.
Answer:
False. Water particles have space between them.

Question 8.
Liquid is affected by gravity less than anything.
Answer:
False. Liquid is effected by gravity more than anything.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Stars including Sun are covered in _______
2. Tiny particles present in all matter are called as _______
3. A _______ substance is made up of only one kind of particles.
4. Purity of gold is expressed in terms of _______
5. _______ is used to separate gravel from sand at a construction site.
6. _______ process is done after sedimentation.
7. RO is a process for removing impurities from _______ to make it potable.
8. Turmeric powder is adulterated with a _______ chemical.
9. In most houses people use commercial water filter to remove impurities and also kill the harmful germ in water using _______
10. The principle used in washing machines to squeeze out dirt from cloth is called _______
11. _______ is not affected by gravity.
12. An example for a substance to be obtained in highly pure form is _______

Answers:

1. Plasma
2. atoms and molecules
3. pure
4. Carat
5. Wire mesh
6. Decantation
7. Water
8. bright yellow
9. UV-rays
10. centrifugation
11. Gas
12. Gold from gold mines

IV. Complete the Analogy.

1. Bucket: Plastic :: Table : _______
2. Water : Liquid :: Apple : _______
3. Made up of one kind of particles : Pure substance :: Chemical combination of two or more element: _______
4. Mixture containing iron: Magnetic separation:: Muddy water: _______
5. Removal of Harmful germs : UV rays :: Removal of Impurities from water : _______

Answers:

1. Wood
2. Solid
3. Compound
4. Filtration
5. RO process

V. Short Answers.

Question 1.
Mention any two characteristics of the particles of matter.
Answer:

1. Particles of matter have a lot of space in between them.
2. Particles of matter attract each other.

Question 2.
How matter is grouped on the basis of physical states?
Answer:
Matter can be grouped into three states : 1. Solid, 2. Liquid, 3. Gas.

Question 3.
What is meant by compound?
Answer:
Compound is the substance formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘Diffusion’.
Answer:
Diffusion is the tendency of particles to spread out in order to occupy the available space.

Question 5.
What is Decantation?
Answer:
After sedimentation, the supernatant liquid is slowly poured out from the container without disturbing the sediment.

Question 6.
How the substance of gaseous particles change to liquid state?
Answer:
When Pressure on a gas is increased, its molecules comes closer together, and its temperature is reduced, which removes enough energy to make it change from the gaseous to the liquid state.

Question 7.
Give any two characters of a pure substance.
Answer:

1. A pure substance is made up of only one kind of particles.
2. It may be elements or compounds.

Question 8.
Air is a mixture. Justify.
Answer:
Air contains Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon di oxide, Water vapour, Noble gases etc. So it is a Mixture.

Question 9.
Give the characters of a mixture.
Answer:

1. Mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles.
2. In the mixture, the components are mixed in any proportion.

Question 10.
What is meant by separation?
Answer:
The process by which the components of mixture are isolated and removed from each other to get pure substance is called separation.

Question 11.
What are the steps involved in separation of sand, salt and water?
Answer:
Sedimentation, decantation, filtration, evaporation, and condensation.

Question 12.
Give any two examples of adulterated food.
Answer:

1. Used tea leaves are used as adulterants in tea.
2. Small stones are mixed with rice.

VI. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Classify the following based on their physical states.
Stone, Air, Kerosene, LPG, Book, Eraser, Smoke, Coconut oil, Petrol, Cool drinks.
Answer:

Question 2.
Fill up the column B with the correct term, given in the options below: (Sedimentation, Churning, Sieving, Threshing, Filtration)

Answer:

1. Threshing
2. Sieving
3. Filtration
4. Churning
5. Sedimentation

Question 3.
What is Decantation? Explain with Diagram.
Answer:
The water with the impurities is carefully poured away leaving clean rice at the bottom. This is called decantation.

1. This process is done after sedimentation.
2. The supernatant liquid is slowly poured out from the container without disturbing the sediment.
3. The part that has settled down is called sediment.
4. The water that is obtained after decantation is called the decantate.
5. The process of removal of water above the sediment is called decantation.
6. But even after decantation the water is not completely free from fine soil particles.
7. By the process of filtration, we can remove soil particles.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Weather and Climate

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Weather And Climate Class 8 Question 1.
Earth’s atmosphere contains about …………… percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.
(a) 78% and 21%
(b) 22% and 1%
(c) 21% and 0.97%
(d) 10% and 20%
Answer:
(a) 78% and 2l%]

Define Weather Class 8 Question 2.
…………… is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a region.
(a) Earth
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Climate
(d) sun
Answer:
(c) climate

8th Social Weather And Climate Question 3.
The earth receives energy from …………….
(a) Current
(b) Electro magnetic radiation
(c) Waves
(d) Heat
Answer:
(b) Electro magnetic radiation

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 4.
Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall
(a) Isotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyets
Answer:
(d) Isohyets

Climate Match The Following Question 5.
………….. is used to measure the humidity.
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Thermometer
Answer:
(c) hygrometer

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.
2. The scientific study of weather is called ………………
3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is …………….
4. ……………. is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold.
5. …………….. and ……………. are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
6. ………………. are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places.

Answer:

1. Weather
2. Meterology
3. 56.7°C
4. Relative humidity
5. Wind speed, Wind direction
6. Isotherms

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. v
4. i
5. ii

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

Weather And Climate Answer Question 1.
The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet.
Answer:
True

Weather And Climate Question Answer Question 2.
The Scientific study of weather is called Climatology.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Scientific study of weather is called meterology.

Define Climate Class 8 Question 3.
Isohel refers equal sunshine.
Answer:
True

Weather Definition Geography Question 4.
Humidity is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Air pressure is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.

V. Answer in brief

Match The Following Climate Question 1.
Define‘weather’.
Answer:
Weather is the day today conditions(state) of the atmosphere at any place as regards sunshine, temperature, cloud cover. Wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and such other elements.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.
What is insolation?
Answer:
Insolation is the solar radiation that reaches the earth’s surface. The earth and its atmosphere get heated from the sun through insolation.

Question 3.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The weight of air above a given area on the earth’s surface is called atmospheric pressure or air pressure.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Planetary winds”
Answer:

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds.
2. Trade winds, Westerlies and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

Question 5.
What are “Isolines”?
Answer:
Distribution of weather elements are shown by means of Isolines on maps. Isolines are lines which join the places of equal values of weather elements.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:
Weather:

• Weather is the day to day condition of the atmosphere at any place
• Refers to short periods like a day, a week, a month etc.,
• Sunshine, temperature, cloud cover, wind, fog condition, air pressure, humidity precipitation are some weather elements.

Climate:

• Average condition of the weather of a place or a region.
• Determined by measuring weather elements for a long period of time usually for 35 years
• Latitude, Altitude, direction of winds, distance from the sun, Ocean currents are some of the factors determining climate.

Question 2.
Absolute and relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity:

• Mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.
• Expressed usually in grams per cubic metre of air.

Relative humidity:

• Ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature.
• Expressed as a percentage.

Question 3.
Permanent and seasonal winds.
Answer:
Permanent winds:

• The ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.
• Also called Planetary winds. Example Trade wings, Weather winds

Seasonal winds:

• Winds which change their direction according to season in a year. Blow from sea to land in summer and land to sea in winter.
• Also called Monsoon winds. Example North east monsoon winds, South west monsoon winds

VII. Give reasons.

Question 1.
The Weather and climate in different regions vary.
Answer:
Angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

Question 2.
Temperature decreases with increase in altitude.
Answer:
Temperature varies both horizontally and vertically. Temperature always decreases with increasing height is known as Lapse rate which is 6.5 degree Celsius per 1000 meters in troposphere.

Question 3.
Mountain climbers carry oxygen cylinders while ascending peaks.
Answer:
With decreasing air pressure,the availability of oxygen to breath also decreases. At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low that people can become sick and even die. Mountain climbers use bottled oxygen when they ascend very high peaks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
How is temperature measured?
Answer:
Measuring Temperature:
1. The temperature of a unit volume of air at a given time is measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin. Meteorologist measures the temperature by the Thermometer, Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum Thermometer.

2. The energy received by the earth through insolation is lost by outgoing radiation.

3. Atmosphere is mainly heated by outgoing radiation from 2 to 4pm .So the maximum temperature is recorded between 2 and 4 pm regularly and minimum temperature is recorded around 4 am before sunrise.

Mean Temperature:
1. The average of maximum and minimum temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature [(87°F + 73°F)/2=80°F].

2. Diurnal range of temperature is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day. Annual range of temperature is the difference between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures of a year.

Question 2.
Write about the wind and its types.
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air is called wind.
The wind systems are broadly categorized into three as follows.

• Planetary winds
• Seasonal winds
• Local winds

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds. Trade winds, Westerlies and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

2. Seasonal winds are those which change their direction according to season in a year. They are called as monsoon winds. These winds blow from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

3. Local winds are the winds blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or a short period of a year. Land and sea breezes are example of these winds.

Question 3.
List out the weather elements and associated measuring instruments.
Answer:
Temperature, rainfall, pressure, humidity and wind are the major elements of weather and climate.
1. Temperature:
Measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin. Meterorologists Measure the temperature by the Thermometer. Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum thermometer.

2. Rain:
Is a major component of the water cycle and is the source of most of the fresh water on the earth. Rainfall is measured by raingauge.

3. Air Pressure:
Meteorologist uses barometer/aneroid barometer to measure the air pressure. Barograms are used for recording continuous variation in atmospheric pressure.

4. Humidity:
Hygrometer is used to measure the humidity, (which comprises wet and dry bulbplate side by side in the Stevenson screen)

V. Wind

1. Meteorologist measures wind direction using wind vane or weather cock. Wind speed is measured by anemometer. Wind need rose is a diagram used to depict the direction and periods (No. of days) of prevailing winds on map.

2. Meteorograph or triple register is an instrument which records wind speed and direction, sunshine and precipitation. It also provides graphic representation.

IX. Give any three suggestions to reduce global warming.

1. …………………………..
2. ………………………….
3. ………………………….

Answer:

1. Switching over to renewable energy sources.
2. Reduce water wastage
3. Shrinking carbon profile.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Weather and Climate Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ……………. receive slanting sun’s rays.
(a) Polar regions
(b) Equator
(c) Torrid zone
(d) Indian Ocean
Answer:
(a) Polar regions

Question 2.
The degree of heat present in the air is termed as ……………..
(a) Pressure
(b) Humidity
(c) Temperature
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(c) temperature

Question 3.
Which of the following represents places of equal sunshine ……………..
(a) Iosotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyet
Answer:
(b) Isohel

Question 4.
The distribution of temperature is shown by means of ……………..
(a) Isocryme
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isotherm
Answer:
(d) Isotherm

Question 5.
Based on the heat received from the sun, the earth is divided into ………………. zones.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 6.
The standard air pressure at sea level is ………………
(a) 1014.25 mb
(b) 1016.25 mb
(c) 1013.25 mb
(d) 1020.25 mb
Answer:
(c) 1013.25 mb

Question 7.
The scale is a sacle for measuring wind speeds.
(a) Richter
(b) Vernier
(c) Ratio
(d) Beaufort
Answer:
(d) Beaufort

Question 8.
…………….. has a large area where the average wind speed is low.
(a) France
(b) India
(c) Brazil
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Brazil

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word climate is derived from the word …………… which means inclination.
2. The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth was at …………… station in Antartica.
3. There is a close relationship between …………… and rainfall distribution.
4. Generally, rainfall is high in …………… region.
5. Rainfall is high in the equatorial region and …………… gradually towards poles.
6. Low pressure system are also called …………… and ……………
7. High pressure is called …………….
8. …………… is used to show the distribution of air pressure. [Ans : ]
9. The highest air pressure at sea level was recorded at …………… Russia.
10. The small variations in pressure that exist largely determine the …………… and …………… patterns of the earth.
11. The level of humidity …………… towards poles form equator.
12. ……………. air holds more water vapour.

Answer:

1. Klimo
2. Soviet Vostok
3. Temperature
4. Equatorial
5. Decreases
6. Depression, cyclones
7. Anti cyclones
8. Iso bar
9. Agata
10. wind, storm
11. Decreases
12. Warm

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
The climate does not often change like weather.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Soil does not affect the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Soil affect the distribution of temperature.

Question 3.
The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth is – 89.2°C.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Humans are sensitive even to small variation in pressure.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Humans are not sensitive even to small variation in pressure.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
State the composition of gases in atmosphere.
Answer:
Earth’s atmosphere contains about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.97% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide and 0.04% trace amounts of other gases and water vapour.

Question 2.
Define temperature.
answer:
Temperature is one of the key elements of weather and climate. The degree of heat present in the air is termed as temperature.

Question 3.
What does temperature influence?
Answer:
The temperature influences the level of humidity, the process of evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the three mechanisms through which the earth received heat from solar radiation.
Answer:
Radiation, Conduction and Convection.

Question 5.
Define Low pressure.
Answer:
Low pressure area is an area in the atmosphere where the pressure is lower than its surrounding areas. In this situation, the wind
from the surroundings blow towards the centre of low pressure.

Question 6.
Define High pressure.
Answer:
High pressure is an area of atmosphere where the barometric pressure is higher than its surrounding areas. In this case, the wind from the centre of high pressure blows towards the surrounding low pressure areas.

Question 7.
What do low pressure and high pressure lead to?
Answer:
Low pressure leads to cloudiness, wind, and precipitation. High pressure leads to fair and calm weather.

Question 8.
Define Humidity.
Answer:
Humidity refers to the degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere in gaseous form in particular time and place.

Question 9.
Mention the effects of relative humidity.
Answer:
Relative humidity affects human health and comfortness. Very high and very low humidity are injurious to health. It also affects the stability of different objects, buildings and electrical applications.

Question 10.
How do the passengers in aircraft remain comfortable while flying?
Answer:
Aircraft take time to get used to the altitude as the quick move from high pressure to low pressure can cause decompression sickness. Aircraft create artificial pressure in the cabin which makes the passengers remain comfortable while flying.

Question 11.
Mention a few least windy places on earth.
Answer:
Gabon, Congo and DR Congo in Africa, Sumatra, Indonesia and Malaysia are the least windy places on earth.

Question 12.
Write a note on Al – Balakhi.
Answer:
Al – Balakhi, an Arab Geographer collected climatic data from the Arab travellers and prepared the First climatic Atlas of the world

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Seasonal and Local winds.
Answer:
Seasonal winds:

• Winds which change their direction according to season in a year. Also called monsoon winds.
• Example North East and South west monsoon winds.

Local winds:

• Winds which blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or short period of a year.
• Example Land and Sea breezes.

VII. Give Reason for the following

Question 1.
The polar regions are extremely cold in winters.
Answer:
The earth is spherical in shape. So, the sun’s rays fall unevenly on the earth’s surface. The Polar regions receive slanting sun’s rays. Hence there is little or no sunlight, thus there is an extreme cold winters.

Question 2.
Temperature varies with time due to changes.
Answer:
Temperature varies with time due to changes in the level of radiation which reach the earth surface. This is due to motions of the earth (The rotation and revolution) and inclination of the earth’s axis.

Question 3.
Our ears pop in Airplanes.
Answer:
As you go up in an airplane, the atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the pressure of the air inside your ears. Your ears pop because they are trying to equalize or match the pressure.

VIII. Answer in a Paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the Heat Zones of the earth.
Answer:
Heat zones of the earth:
The fact that the earth is spherical in shape results in different parts of the earth getting heated differently. Based on the heat received from the sun, Earth is divided into three heat zones. They are

1. Torrid Zone:
It is a region between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn. This region receives the direct rays of the sun and gets the maximum heat from the sun. This zone known as the torrid or the tropical zone

2. Temperate zone:
This zone lies between the Tropic of cancer and the Arctic circle in the Northern Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antartic circle in the southern Hemisphere. This zone gets the slanting rays of the sun and the angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards as the poles. Thus this zone experiences moderate temperature.

3. Frigid Zone:
The frigid zone lies between the Arctic circle and the North Pole and between the Antartic circle and the South Pole. This region also known as Polar region. Since it receives the extremely low temperature throughout the year,these regions are covered with snow.

Question 2.
Explain the ways in which humidity is expressed.
Answer:
1. Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.

2. Absolute Humidity is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air. It is expressed usually in grams per cubic meter of air.

3. Relative humidity is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature. It is expressed as a percentage.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Force And Motion Class 6 Book Back Questions And Answers Question 1.
Unit of speed is
(a) m
(b) s
(c) kg
(d) m/s
Answer:
(d) m/s

Unit 2 Force And Motion Question 2.
Oscillatory motion among the following is
a. Rotation of the earth about its axis
b. Revolution of the moon about the earth
c. To and fro movement of a vibrating string
d. All of these.
Answer:
c. To and fro movement of a vibrating string

Force And Motion Class 6 Question 3.
The correct relation among the following is
(a) Speed = distance × time
(b) speed = distance / time
(c) Speed = time / distance
(d) speed = 1/ (distance × time)
Answer:
(b) speed = distance / time

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 4.
Gita rides with her father’s bike to her uncle’s house which is 40 km away from her home. She takes 40 minutes to reach there.
Statement 1 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/minute
Statement 2: She travels with a speed of 1 km/hour
a. Statement 1 alone is correct.
b. Statement 2 alone is correct
c. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
d. Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
a. Statement 1 alone is correct.

II. Find whether the following statements are true or false. – if false give the correct answer.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 1.
To and fro motion is called oscillatory motion.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Vibratory motion and rotatory motion are periodic motions.
Answer:
False. Vibratory motion and oscillatory motion are periodic motions.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6 Science Question 3.
Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in uniform motion.
Answer:
False. Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in ton-uniform motion.
(OR)
Vehicles moving with uniform speeds are said to be in uniform motion.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Science Question 4.
Robots will replace human in future.
Answer:
False. Robots wili not replace human in future.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. A bike moving on a straight road is an example of _______ motion.
2. Gravitational force is a _______ force.
3. Motion of a potter’s wheel is an example of _______ motion.
4. When an object covers equal distances in equal interval of time, it is said to be in _______ motion.

Answers:

1. Linear
2. Non Contact Force
3. rotatory
4. uniform

IV. Match the following


Answers:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. e

V. Analogy

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Guide Question 1.
kicking a ball: contact force :: falling of leaf: ________?
Answer:
Non contact force.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 2.
Distance : metre :: speed : _______ ?
Answer:
metre/second.

6th Standard Choose The Correct Answer Question 3.
circulatory motion :: a spinning top :: oscillatory motion : _______ ?
Answer:
Swinging of a pendulum.

VI. Given below Is the distance-travelled by an elephant across a forest with uniform speed. Complete the data of the table given below with the idea of uniform speed.

Answer:

(i) Distance/Time = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 } \) × 4 = \(\frac { 16 }{ 22 } \) = 8
(ii) Distance / Time = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 } \) × 8 = \(\frac { 32 }{ 2 } \) = 16
(iii) Time/Distance = \(\frac{1 \emptyset}{2 \emptyset}\) × 12 = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 } \) = 6

VII. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

VIII. Give one word for the following statements.

Question 1.
The force which acts on an object without physical contact with it.
Answer:
non-contact forces.

Question 2.
A change in the position of an object with time.
Answer:
Motion.

Question 3.
The motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion.

Question 4.
The motion of an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
Uniform motion.

Question 5.
A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically.
Answer:
Artificial intelligence.

IX. Answer the following in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.

Question 2.
Name different types of motion based on the path.
Answer:

1. Linear motion;
2. Curvilinear;
3. Circular motion;
4. Rotatory motion;
5. Oscillatory motion
6. Irregular motion.

Question 3.
If you are sitting in a moving car, will you be at rest or motion with respect your friend sitting next to you?
Answer:
I am in rest with respect to my friend, sitting inside the car.

Question 4.
Rotation of the earth is a periodic motion. Justify
Answer:
Rotation of the earth is a periodic motion because it takes equal interval of time for all rotations.

Question 5.
Differentiate between rotational and curvilinear motion.
Answer:
Rotational motion:

1. A body moves along a circular path.
2. Without changing its position, about its own (fixed) axis.
3. Eg. Rotation of a spinning top.

Curvilinear motion:

1. A body moves along a curved path.
2. Changes its position with motion.
3. Eg. Throwing paper airplanes or paper darts.

X. Calculate

Question 1.
A vehicle covers a distance of 400 km in 5 hour. Calculate its average speed.
Answer:
Distance covered by the vehicle = 400 km
Time taken = 5 hour

XI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is motion? Classify different types of motion with examples.
Answer:
Motion :
Change of position of an object with respect to time is known as motion.

1. Based on Path :

1. Linear motion. – Ex.: Parade of the soldiers.
2. Curvilinear motion. – Ex.: Paper flight moving.
3. Circular motion. – Ex.: Swirling stone tied to the rope.
4. Rotatory motion. – Ex.: Rotating top.
5. Oscillatory motion. – Ex.: Clock pendulum.
6. Zigzag (irregular) motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bee.

2. Based on Duration :

1. Periodic motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bob of simple Pendulum.
2. Non periodic motion. – Ex.: Swaying of the branches of a tree.

3. Based on Speed:

1. Uniform motion. – Ex.: Elour hand of a clock.
2. Non – uniform motion. – Ex.: Motion of a train, as it leaves a station.

XII. Fill with examples.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Intext Activities

Activity – 1

Can you identify whether it is push or pull that results in motion in the following cases?

Event 2:
The girl on the swing is moving with respect to the seat of the swing.
She is at rest with respect to the garden.

Event 3:
Nisha is going to her grandmother’s house by bicycle The girl on the bicycle is moving with respect to the road.
She is at rest with respect to the bicycle.

Activity – 2

Moon or Cloud?
Observe the moon on a windy night with a fair bit of cloud cover in the sky. As a cloud passes in front of the moon you sometimes think it is the moon which is moving behind the cloud. What would you think if you were to observe a tree at the same time?

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity – 3

Fill in the empty spaces.

Answer:

Can you give example for contact and non-contact forces?

Answer:

Activity – 4
Play with pencil
Please do what Shanthi did…

1. Shanthi took a pencil and sharpened it with a sharpener.
2. Then she drew a circle using the pencil and a compass.
3. Later she took her ruler (scale) and drew a straight line in another paper.
4. Then she kept the pencil between her finger and moved it back and forth.

Now, look at the motion of the pencil in all these four cases. How was it?

1. In the first case, the pencil rotated in its axis.
2. In the second case, it went in a circle.
3. In the third case, the pencil travelled in a straight line.
4. Fourth case, the pencil tip moved back and forth, that is it oscillated like a swing.

Activity – 5

Activity – 6
Classify the following according to the path it takes.

Linear, Curvilinear, Circular, Rotatory, Oscillatory, Zigzag (irregular)

• A sprinter running a 100 m race – Linear Motion
• A coconut falling from a tree – Linear Motion
• striking a coin in a carom board game – Zigzag Motion
• Motion of flies and mosquitoes – Zigzag Motion
• Beating of heart – Oscillatory Motion
• Children playing in a swing – Oscillatory Motion
• The tip of hands of a clock – Rotatory Motion
• Flapping of elephant’s ears – Oscillatory Motion
• A stone thrown into the air at an angle – Curvilinear Motion
• Movement of people in a bazaar – Zigzag Motion
• Athlete running around a track – Circular Motion
• Revolution of the moon around the earth – Circular Motion
• The movement of a ball kicked in a football match – Curvilinear Motion
• Motion of a spinning top – Rotatory Motion
• Revolution of the earth around the sun – Circular Motion
• Swinging of a pendulum – Oscillatory Motion
• Children skidding on a sliding board – Linear Motion
• Skidding down a playground slide – Zigzag Motion
• Wagging tail of a dog – Oscillatory Motion
• Flapping of a flag in wind – Oscillatory Motion
• A car driving around a curve – Circular Motion
• Woodcutter cutting with a saw – Linear Motion
• Motion of water wave – Oscillatory Motion
• Motion of piston inside a syringe – Linear Motion
• Bouncing ball – Oscillatory Motion

add five motions you observe to this list :

• Falling fruits from the tree – Linear Motion
• Ceiling fan running – Rotatory Motion
• Car running on the straight road – Linear Motion
• Swirling stone tied to the rope – Circular Motion
• Motion of sewing machine needle – Oscillatory Motion

Activity

Answer:
The Taxi driver travelled with highest speed.

How do we say? Let us calculate how long they travelled in One Hour?
Distance travelled by the Car in One Hour = 80 km (160 ÷ 2)
Distance travelled by the Bus in One Hour = 50 km (200 ÷ 4)
Distance travelled by the Truck in One Hour = 60 km (300 ÷ 5)

Have you found out? say now.
Fastest Taxi, Slowest Bus.

Our speed…

Let us play a small game. Go to the playground with your friends. Mark 100 metre distance for a race. Conduct a friendly running race and calculate the time they taken to complete the distance by stopwatch. Now fill up the following table.

Compute the following Numerical Problems.

1. If you travel 10 kilometres in 2 hours, your speed is 5 km per hour. (10 km/2 hours)
2. If you travel 15 kilometres in 1/2 hour, you would travel 30 km in one hour, and your speed is 30 km per hour. (15 km × 2/1 hours)
3. If you run fast at 20 kilometres per hour for 2 hours, you will cover 40 km. (20 km × 2 hours)

Activity

Multiple Motion to a Sewing Machine

Motion of the needle
Periodic (or) Oscillatory motion

Motion of the wheel
Rotatory motion

Motion of footrest
Oscillatory motion

Activity – 7

Simple Spinner

Let us enjoy by making a simple spinner. Make it by the following instruction.

Cut a 2cm long piece from an old ball-pen refill and make a hole in its center with a divider point (Fig 1).

Take a thin wire of length 9cm and fold it into a U-shape (Fig 2).

Weave the refill spinner in the U-shaped wire (Fig 3).

Wrap the two ends of the wire on the plastic refill, leaving enough clearance for the spinner to rotate (Fig 4).

On blowing through the refill, the spinner rotates (Fig 5).

For obtaining maximum speed – adjust the wires so that air is directed towards the ends of the spinner.

Have you enjoyed with simple spinner. Do you observe the motions in the toy. Can you answer the following question?

1. Motion of the air in tube is _____________ motion.
2. Motion of the refill stick _____________ motion.
3. The toy converts _____________ motion into _____________ motion.

Answers:

1. Linear
2. Rotatory
3. Linear, Rotatory

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ is an ancient Indian astronomer.
(a) C.V. Raman
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Usain Bolt
(d) Edison
Answer:
(b) Aryabhata

Question 2.
What is the path of the housefly buzzing around the room?
(a) Periodic motion
(b) Non- Periodic motion
(c) circular motion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Non- Periodic motion

Question 3.
Identify the Periodic motion among the following :
(a) a horse running in a race
(b) revolution of the moon around the earth
(c) a coconut falling from a tree
(d) paper flight moving
Answer:
(b) revolution of the moon around the earth

Question 4.
The cheetah the fastest animal among terrestrial animals run with the average speed of
(a) 100 km /hr
(b) 200 km/hr
(c) 112 km/hr
(d) 10 km /hr.
Answer:
(c) 112 km/hr

Question 5.
_______ are robots scaled down to microscopic size in order to put them into very small spaces to perform a function.
(a) Car robots
(b) Home robots
(c) Game robots
(d) Nanobots
Answer:
(d) Nanobots

Question 6.
A _______ is the fastest land animal.
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Cheetah
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(c) Cheetah

Question 7.
A cheetah can run with an average speed of _______
(a) 112 km/h
(b) 121 km/h
(c) 211 km/h
(d) 122 km/h
Answer:
(a) 112 km/h

II. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement.

Question 1.
Motion occurs when the object is pulled or pushed by an agency.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Force executed by touching the body is called non – contact force.
Answer:
False. Force executed by touching the body is called contact force.

Question 3.
Gravity pushes the ripen coconut from the tree to the ground.
Answer:
False. Gravity pulls the ripen coconut from the tree to the ground.

Question 4.
Throwing paper aeroplane is the best example of linear motion.
Answer:
False. Throwing paper aeroplane is the best example ofcurvilinear motion.

Question 5.
The movement of a body about its own axis like a rotating top is liner motion.
Answer:
False. The movement of a body about its own axis like a rotating top is Rotatory

Question 6.
Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called as periodic motion.
Answer:
True.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. _________ are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.
2. Application of force in an object results in motion from a state of _________
3. Fast oscillations are referred to as _________
4. Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called _________
5. _________ are automatic machines.
6. The term Robots comes from a czech word _________
7. _________ is die study of robots in science.

Answers:

1. Forces
2. rest
3. vibrations
4. periodic motion
5. Robots
6. robota
7. Robotics

IV. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

• A – In animate factors,
• B – Contact forces.

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is meant by the State of Rest?
Answer:
When there is no change of position of an object with respect to time and if it remains stationary it is called rest.

Question 2.
What is a non-contact force?
Answer:
The force applied without touching the object is known as non-contact force.

Question 3.
What is the contact force?
Answer:
When the force is in contact with the object then it is known as contact force.

Question 4.
Give the properties of force.
Answer:

1. Forces can change the state of a body from rest to motion or motion to rest.
2. Forces can change the shape of the body.

Question 5.
A bus moves with a speed of 40 km and crosses 200 km and then how many hours has that bus taken to travel?
Answer:
Time (t) = \(\frac{distence}{AverageSpeed}\)
Time (t) = \(\frac{200 km}{400 km/h}\) = 5 hours

Question 6.
Define Average speed.
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object in unit time is called average speed.

Question 7.
List out the types of motion on the basis of speed.
Answer:
There are two types:

1. Uniform motion,
2. Non-uniform motion.

Question 8.
Define uniform motion.
Answer:
If an object covers uniform distances in uniform intervals, then the motion of the object is called uniform motion.

Question 9.
Why robots are used in many places?
Answer:
Robots can perform mechanical and repetitive jobs faster, more accurately than human beings. It can also handle dangerous materials and explore distant planets.

Question 10.
What are the important parts of a robot?
Answer:
Electronic sensors are a robot’s eyes and ears. These are the important parts.

Question 11.
What is nanobots?
Answer:
Nanobots are robots scaled down to microscopic size in order to put them into very small places to perform a function.

Question 12.
What are the uses of future robots?
Answer:

1. It could be placed in the bloodstream to perform surgical procedures.
2. It could target cancer cells and destroy them without touching healthy cells nearby.

VI. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Classify the following motions according to the path it takes.
(a) A coconut falling from a tree
(b) Heart beat
(c) A stone thrown into the air at an angle
(d) Movement of people in a bazzar
(e) Motion of a spinning top
Answers:
(a) A coconut falling from a tree – Linear Motion
(b) Heart beat – Oscillatory Motion
(c) A stone thrown into the air at an angle – Curvilinear Motion
(d) Movement of people in a bazar – Zigzag Motion
(e) Motion of a spinning top – Rotatory Motion

Question 2.
Classify the following motions based on duration and speed.
(a) Coconut falls to the ground
(b) A cart pulled by a bullock
(c) Train journey
(d) A bouncing ball
(e) Revolution of Moon around the earth
Answers:
(a) Non-periodic Motion
(b) Non-periodic Motion
(c) Non-uniform Motion
(d) Periodic Motion
(e) Uniform Motion

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Light Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

Mirrors having a curved reflecting surface are called as –
(a) Plane mirrors
(b) Spherical mirrors
(c) Simple mirrors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Spherical mirrors

Light Book Back Answers Question 2.
The spherical mirror with a reflecting surface curved inward is called –
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Curved mirror
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Concave mirror

8th Std Science Light Lesson Question 3.
The centre of a sphere of which the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is a part is called –
(a) Pole
(b) Centre of curvature
(c) Cradius of curvature
(d) Aperture
Answer:
(b) Centre of curvature

8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question 4.
The spherical mirror used as a rear view mirror in the vehicle is –
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Convex mirror

8th Standard Light Lesson Question Answer Question 5.
The imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called –
(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Pole
(c) principal axis
(d) Radius curvature
Answer:
(c) principal axis

Light Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The distance from the pole to the focus is called –
(a) Pole length
(b) Focal length
(c) principal axis
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Focal length

8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question Answer Question 7.
Focal length is equal to half of the –
(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Axis
(c) Radius of curvature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Radius of curvature

8th Science Light Lesson Question 8.
If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 10 cm, what is the value of its radius of curvature?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 15 cm
Answer:
(c) 20 cm

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 9.
If the image and object distance is same, then the object is placed at –
(a) Infinity
(b) At F
(c) Between f and P
(d) At C
Answer:
(d) At C

Light 8th Standard Question 10.
The refractive index of water is –
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.44
(d) 1.52
Answer:
(b) 1.33

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The spherical mirror used in a beauty parlour as make – up mirror is ………………
2. Geometric centre of the spherical mirror is ………………
3. Nature of the images formed by a convex mirror is ………………
4. The mirror used by the ophthalmologist to examine the eye is ………………
5. It the angle of incidence is 45°, then the angle of reflection is ………………..
6. Two mirrors are parallel to each other, then the number of images formed is ………………

Answer:

1. Concave mirror
2. pole
3. Smaller, virtual and erect
4. Concave mirror
5. 45°
6. Infinite

III. Match the following

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Science Question A.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

Samcheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Question B.

Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. d
4. a

IV. Answer in brief

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Science Question 1.
What is called a spherical mirror?
Answer:
Spherical mirrors are one form of curved mirrors. If the curved mirror is a part of a sphere, then it is called a ‘spherical mirror’.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 2.
Define focal length.
Answer:
The distance between the pole and the principal focus is called focal length (f) of a spherical mirror.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 3.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 25 cm. Find its focal length.
Answer:
Given : Radius of curvature = 25 cm
To find: f = ?
Solution:
f = \(\frac { R }{ 2}\) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 2 }\)
f = 12.5 cm

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 4.
Give two applications of a concave and convex mirror.
Answer:
Concave mirrors:

1. Concave mirrors are used while applying make – up or shaving, as they provide a magnified image.
2. They are used in torches, search lights and head lights as they direct the light to a long distance.

Convex mirrors:

1. Convex mirrors are used in vehicles as rear view mirrors because they give an upright image and provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
2. They are found in the hallways of various buildings including hospitals, hotels, schools and stores. They are usually mounted on a wall or ceiling where hallways make sharp turns.

Samacheer Guru 8th Science Question 5.
State the laws of reflection.
Answer:

1. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
2. The angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are always equal.

8th Standard Light Lesson Question 6.
If two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle of 45°, find the number of images formed.
Answer:
Given :
Angle of inclination = 45°
To find : Number of images formed = \(\frac { 360° }{ angle }\) – 1
Solution:
= \(\frac { 360° }{ 45% }\) – 1
= 8 – 1
= 7 images

Question 7.
Define the refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The amount of refraction of light in a medium is denoted by a term known as refractive index of the medium, which is the ratio of the speed of light in the air to the speed of light in that particular medium.

Question 8.
State the Snell’s law of refraction.
Answer:
Refraction of light rays, as they travel from one medium to another medium, obeys two laws, which are known as Snell’s laws of refraction. They are:

1. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of intersection, all lie in the same plane.

2. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence (i) to the sine of the angle of refraction (r) is equal to the refractive index of the medium, which is a constant.
\(\frac { sin i }{ sin r}\) = µ

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the images formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is reflection? Write short notes on regular and irregular reflection?
Answer:
A ray of light, falling on a body having a shiny polished and smooth surface alone is bounced back. This bouncing back of the light rays as they fall on the smooth, shiny and polished surface is called reflection.
Regular reflection:

1. When a beam of light (collection of parallel rays) falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected.
2. After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other. Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
3. Hence, the law of reflection is obeyed in this case and thus a clear image is formed. This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.

Irregular reflection:

1. In the case of a body having a rough or irregular surface, each region of the surface is inclined at different angles.
2. When light falls on such a surface, the light rays are reflected at different angles.
3. In this case, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
4. Hence, the law of reflection is not obeyed in this case and thus the image is not clear. Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.

Question 3.
Explain the working of a periscope.
Answer:
Periscope:

1. It is an instrument used for viewing bodies or ships, which are over and around another body or a submarine.
2. It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light.
3. It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end, inclined at an angle of 45°.
4. Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and gets reflected vertically downward.
5. This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
6. In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher resolution.
7. The distance between the mirrors also varies depending on the purpose of using

Question 4.
What is dispersion? Explain in detail.
Answer:

1. Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours (wavelength), on passing through a transparent medium is known as dispersion of light.
2. Dispersion occurs because, light of different colours present in white light have different wavelength and they travel at different speeds in a medium.
3. Refraction of a light ray in a medium depends on its speed.

Question 5.
Speed of light in air is 3 x 10⁸ m s^-1 and the refractive index of a medium is 1.5. Find the speed of light in the medium.
Answer:
Given :
Speed of light in air c = 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1
Refractive index of a medium µ = 1.5
To find : Speed of light in medium v = ?
Formula :
µ = \(\frac { c }{ v}\)
Solution:
1.5 = \(\frac{3×10^{8}}{v}\)
v =\(\frac{3×10^{8}}{1.5}\)
v = 2 x 10⁸ ms^-1
Speed of light in medium v = 2 x 10⁸ ms^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Light Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which object use the reflection of light?
(a) Kaleidoscope
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Which surface will not reflect most of the light falling on them?
(a) Rough surface
(b) Smooth surface
(c) Shining surface
(d) Opaque surface
Answer:
(a) Rough surface

Question 3.
Which of the following demonstrates the law of reflection?

Answer:

Question 4.
The ENT doctor uses a …………….
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) Convex lens
Answer:
(b) Concave mirror

Question 5.
In dispersion, the colour of light that will bend more is ……………..
(a) Red
(b) yellow
(c) Green
(d) Violet
Answer:
(d) violet

Question 6.
Reflection by a looking mirror is called …………….
(a) Regular reflection
(b) Irregular reflection
(c) Regular and irregular reflection
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Regular reflection

Question 7.
The velocity of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms^-1 and in glass is 2 x 108 ms^-1. The refractive index of glass is .
(a) 2
(b) 1.5
(c) 1.8
(d) 1.33
Answer:
(b) 1.5

Question 8.
Incident angle of a ray of light is 30°. The angle between the incidend ray and the reflected ray is …………….
(a) 50°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 15°
Answer:
(c) 60°

Question 9.
In the head lights of motor vehicles, ……………… mirrors are used as reflectors.
(a) Plane mirrors
(b) Concave lenses
(c) Convex mirrors
(d) Concave mirrors
Answer:
(d) Concave mirrors

Question 10.
The phenomenon of light passing through the object is called ……………..
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Dispersion
(d) Total internal reflection
Answer:
(b) Refraction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The bouncing back of light from a surface is called …………….
2. ……………. mirrors make things look larger when objects are placed close to it
3. Convex mirror always forms ……………. and ……………. image.
4. The incident ray, ……………. ray and the ……………. at the point of incidence, all lie on the same plane.
5. A ray of light incident along normal to the mirror ……………. its path.
6. When light passes from one medium to another the ray gets bent. This property of light is called ……………..
7. Spherical mirrors are one form of …………… mirrors.
8. ……………… mirrors magnify the object placed close to them.
9. The image formed by convex mirrors is ……………… than the object
10. …………….. mirrors form the perfect image of an object.
11. The …………….. of a mirror determines the type of image it forms.
12. The ……………. is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Answer:

1. Reflection
2. Concave
3. Virtual and erect
4. Reflected, normal
5. Retraces
6. Refraction
7. Curved
8. Concave
9. Smaller
10. Plane
11. Shape
12. Mirror

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
We can see things around us only when the light reflected by them reaches our eyes.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Light is a form of energy and it travels in a straight line.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The periscope is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The mirror is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Question 4.
Curved mirrors have surfaces that are spherical, cylindrical, parabolic and ellipsoid.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Curved mirrors form the perfect image of an object.
Answer:
False. Correct statement: Plane mirrors form the perfect image of an object.

Question 6.
Curved mirrors produce images that are either enlarged or diminished.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
A thin layer of molten aluminium or silver is used for coating glass plates that will then become mirrors.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The most common example of a convex mirror is the make – up mirror.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The most common example of a concave mirror is the make – up mirror.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

i. e
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
v. b

Question 2.

Answer:

i. e
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
v. b

Question 3.

Answer:

i. d
ii. c
iii. b
iv. e
v. a

V. Assertion and Reason

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path
Reason : In reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Convex mirrors are used as rear view mirror in vehicles for observing traffic at our back.
Reason : A convex mirror has a much larger field of view.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 3.
Assertion : The mirrors used in search lights are parabolic and not concave spherical.
Reason : In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false
Correct explanation:
In search lights, we need an intense parallel beam of light. If a source is placed at the focus of a concave spherical mirror only paraxial rays are rendered parallel. Due to large aperture of mirror, marginal rays give a divergent beam. But in case of parabolic mirror, when source is at the focus, beam of light produced over the entire cross – section of the mirror is a parallel beam.

Question 4.
Assertion : We can see the rainbow in the sky when the rain starts falling after a spell of bright sunlight.
Reason : The rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of light.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true
Correct explanation:
The rainbow is formed when the light passes through the water droplets in air after it rains and gets dispersed into seven colours.

VI. Very short Answers

Question 1.
How does the light travel?
Answer:
The light travels along straight lines.

Question 2.
What is reflection of light?
Answer:
The bouncing back of light when it falls on smooth surface is called reflection.

Question 3.
What is mirror?
Answer:
The mirror is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Question 4.
What type of image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
Real and inverted image. If the object is placed very close to the mirror then the image is virtual and erect.

Question 5.
What is rainbow?
Answer:
The rainbow is seen as a large area in the sky with many colours.

Question 6.
Name the triangular piece of glass that splits white light into different colours.
Answer:
Prism.

Question 7.
What is the composition of sunlight?
Answer:
Sunlight is a mixture of seven colours.

Question 8.
Light bends as it passes from one medium to another. What is this phenomenon called?
Answer:
Refraction of light.

Question 9.
Name the two types of spherical mirrors.
Answer:

1. Concave mirror
2. Convex mirror.

Question 10.
The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?
Answer:

since angle of incidence = angle of reflection.
So, angle of incidence = 30°.

VII. Short Answer

Question 1.
Light travels fastest in vacuum. Why?
Answer:
Light travels fastest in vacuum than any other medium because there is no obstruction to the passage of light in vacuum.

Question 2.
Distinguish between real and virtual images.
Answer:
Real image:
Type of image which can be obtained on a screen is called a real image

Virtual image:
An image which cannot be obtained on a screen is called a virtual image.

Question 3.
State any two uses of concave mirrors.
Answer:

1. It is used as a reflector in torches, light houses, head lights of vehicles, etc., as it diverges the rays of light.
2. A dentist uses a concave mirror to obtain a magnified image of the teeth of the patient.

Question 4.
A convex rear view mirror is preferred over a plane mirror in a car. Why?
Answer:
Since convex mirror forms a smaller and virtual image, it can be used to see a much larger area than the area visible by a plane mirror.

Question 5.
What type of image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
The image formed by a concave mirror is real and inverted. If the object is placed very rear to the mirror then the image formed is virtual and erect.

Question 6.
Why do we need a shiny surface for reflection?
Answer:
The extent of reflection depends upon the shine and smoothness of the surface. More is the shine and smoothness of the surface more will be the reflection.

Question 7.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 18 cm. What is the focal length of this mirror?
Answer:
f = \(\frac { R}{ 2 }\)
R = 18 cm
f = \(\frac { 18}{ 2 }\) = 9 cm.

Question 8.
What happens to light when it gets dispersed? Give an example.
Answer:
Light is splitted into its constituent colours, when it gets dispersed.
Example:
Rainbow formation is due to the dispersion of white light after passing through water droplets.

Question 9.
If two mirrors are placed at an inclination of 30° then how many images can be seen?
Answer:
Formula : Number of images N = \(\frac { 360°}{ 30° }\) – 1
Given: θ = 30°
Solution:
N = \(\frac { 360°}{ 30° }\) – 1
= 12 – 1 = 11 images.

Question 10.
What is the speed of light in diamond if its refractive index is 2.41?
Formula :
Refractive index µ =\(\frac {Speed of light in air (c) }{ Speed of light in the medium (v) }\)
Given : µ = 2.41
Solution:
c = 3 x 10⁸ms^-1
µ = \(\frac { c }{ v }\)
v =\(\frac{3×10^{8}}{2.41}\)
Speed of light in diamond v = 1.24 x 10⁸ ms^-1

Question 11.
A light ray moves from glass (V_glass = 2.0 x 10⁸ms^-1) to diamond (V_diamond = 1.25 x 10⁸ ms^-1). What is the refractive index of diamond with respect to glass?
Answer:
Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass

Solution:

= \(\frac { 200 }{ 125 }\)
= 1.60 (No unit).

Question 12.
Find the refractive index of water with respect to glass if the refractive index of water is \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) and the reiractive index of glass is \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:

Solution:
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x \(\frac { 2}{ 3 }\)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 9}\)
Thus, refractive index
of water with respect to glass = \(\frac { 8 }{ 9}\) (No unit).

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between regular and irregular reflection.
Answer:
Regular reflection:

1. When a beam of light (collection of parallel rays) falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected. After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other.
2. Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
3. Hence, the law of reflection is obeyed in this case and thus a clear image is formed.
4. This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.

Example : Reflection of light by a plane mirror and reflection of light from the surface of still water.

Irregular reflection:

1. In the case of a body having a rough or irregular surface, each region of the surface is inclined at different angles.
2. When light falls on such a surface, the light rays are reflected at different angles. In this case, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
3. Hence, the law of reflection is not obeyed in this case and thus the image is not clear. Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.

Example : Reflection of light from a wall.

Question 2.
Explain the construction and working of kaleidoscope.
Answer:
Construction:

1. Take three equal sized plane mirror strips and arrange them in such a way that they form an equilateral triangle.
2. Cover the sides of the mirrors with a chart paper. With the help of a chart paper cover the bottom of the mirrors also.
3. Put some coloured things such as pieces of bangles and beads inside it.
4. Now, cover the top portion with the chart paper and make a hole in it to see.
5. You can wrap the entire piece with coloured papers to make it attractive.
6. Now, rotate it and see through its opening. You can see the beautiful patterns.

Question 3.
Explain the construction, working of periscope with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. It is an instrument used for viewing bodies or ships, which are over and around another body or a submarine.
2. It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light. It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end, inclined L’9ht at an angle of 45°.
3. Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and gets reflected 450 vertically downward.
4. This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
5. In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher resolution.
6. The distance between the mirrors also varies depending on the purpose of using the periscope.

Question 4.
Explain the uses of periscope.
Answer:

1. It is used in warfare and navigation of the submarine.
2. In military it is used for pointing and firing guns from a ‘bunker’.
3. Photographs of important places can be taken through periscopes without trespassing restricted military regions.
4. Fibre optic periscopes are used by doctors as endoscopes to view internal organs of the body.

Question 5.
Explain the images formed by a convex mirror for different position of the object.
Answer:

Question 6.
Answer:
1. A pencil placed in water in a glass appear to be bent at the surface of separation.

2. The base of a swimming pool appears to be raised due to refraction of light.

3. We should look straight down into the river while catching fish. If observed obliquely, the fish appears to be closer to the surface of the water than it actually is.

4. Stars look like tiny dots when viewed from earth, because they are far away from us. The light from the stars has to travel a long distance through the atmosphere before it reaches us. The atmosphere has various layers of different refractive indices. Light is refracted through each of them. These layers are turbulent. Every time one of the layers shifts, the thickness and refractive indices of air change and the light is refracted differently, creating a twinkling effect.

IX. Complete the given table

Question 1.

Answer:

1. At F
2. Diminished
3. At C
4. Magnified
5. Virtual and erect

X. Draw the following

Question 1.
Concave mirror.
Answer:

Question 2.
Convex mirror.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw the ray diagram and write the characteristics of the image formed when an object is placed

1. At infinity in front of a concave mirror.
2. At infinity in front of a convex mirror.

Answer:

Position of the image : At F
Image size : Highly diminished
Nature of the image : Real and inverted

Position of the image : At F
Image size : Highly diminished , point sized
Nature of the image : Virtual and erect

Question 4.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a periscope.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw a ray diagram to show a light ray travels from denser medium (glass) to rarer medium (air).
Answer:

When a light ray travels from denser medium to rarer medium, it speeds up and refracts away from the normal.

Question 6.
Draw a ray diagram to show a light ray travels from rarer medium (air) to denser medium (water).
Answer:

When a light ray travels from rarer to denser medium, it bends towards the normal.

XI. Cross word puzzle

Across:
3. The geometrical centre of a spherical mirror.
6. Centre of the sphere from which the mirror is made.
7. An optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.
8. Image which can be formed on a screen.
9. Image which cannot be formed on a screen.
10. The bending of a light ray when it passes from one medium to another medium of different density.

Down:
1. Mirror which converges a parallel beam of light passing through it.
2. Imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature of the mirror.
4. Mirror which diverges a parallel beam of light passing through it.
5. The formation of rainbow is an example of ______.
Answer:

Across:
3. Pole
6. Centre Of Curvature
7. Mirror
8. Real
9. Virtual
10. Refraction

Down:
1. Concave
2. Principal Axis
4. Convex
5. Dispersion

XI. Creative questions : HOTS

Question 1.
Imagine that parallel rays are incident on an irregular surface. Are the rays reflected from the surface parallel to each other?
Answer:
No, the reflected rays from irregular surface are in different direction.

Question 2.
A safety vest helps to keep the workers who are working by the roadside safe. This especially so during the nights. Why?
Answer:
The reflectors on the safety vest reflect light into the motorists eyes.
This help to alert the motorists of the wearer’s presence on the road.

Question 3.
What is the difference between virtual images of an object formed by a concave mirror and a convex mirror?
Answer:
The virtual image of an object formed by a concave mirror is always magnified one but the image formed by a convex mirror is always diminished one.

Question 4.
What is a virtual image? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.
Answer:
The image formed by the plane mirror appears behind it. We cannot however touch it. Also, the image of the object cannot be obtained on a screen, whether it is held in front of the mirror or behind it. Such type of images are not real. They are virtual images.

Question 5.
If all objects around us were to reflect light in a regular way, what problem might we face?
Answer:

1. Irregular reflection is what makes us see all the objects and everything around us.
2. If light were to get regularly reflected then every object would act like a mirror and our surroundings would be illuminated.
3. This would have a blinding effect on eyes making it harder for us to see.

Question 6.
Car rear view mirrors carry a warning message that “objects in the rear view mirror are closer than they appear”. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

1. Convex mirrors used in vehicles as rear – view mirrors are labeled with the safety warning: ‘Objects in the mirror are closer than they appear’ to warn the drivers. This is because inside the mirrors, vehicles will appear to be coming at a long distance.
2. Convex mirrors form erect and smaller images of the objects.
3. This does not give us the exact idea how far the vehicle is from us.
4. Thus, to avoid accidents, car view mirrors carry a warning message.

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Jim Corbett, A Hunter Turned Naturalist Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 1 Jim Corbett, A Hunter Turned Naturalist

A. Fill in the blanks.

1. Jim Corbett was born on _________
2. Corbett shot wild animals in his _________
3.  _________ was the first man-eater shot by Corbett.
4. Corbett shot the tigress dead, near the _________

Answer:

1. 25th July 1875
2. cine film camera
3. The Champawat Tiger
4. Chataar Bridge

B. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Jim Corbett played a key role in establishing, India’s first national park in the Kumaon Hills, the Hailey National Park, in Uttarakhand, India. It was initially named after, Lord Malcolm Hailey. Jim Corbett died on 19 April 1955. The park was renamed in 1957 as, The Jim Corbett National Park. It was named after him to honour his role in establishing this protected area in 1930s.

Jim Corbett A Hunter Turned Naturalist Question 1.
Who played a key role in establishing the national park?
Answer:
Corbett played a key role in establishing the India’s first National Park in the Kumaon Hills.

Jim Corbett A Hunter Turned Naturalist Question And Answer Question 2.
Why was the park named Hailey National Park?
Answer:
The park was named ‘Hailey National Park’ to honour the Governor of United Provinces ‘Lord Malcolm Hailey’.

Jim Corbett A Hunter Turned Naturalist Summary Question 3.
When was it renamed as Jim Corbett National Park?
Answer:
The park was renamed in 1957 as the Jim Corbett National Park to honour his role in establishing the protected area in 1930s.

C. Answer the following in one or two words.

Jim Corbett Hunter Turned Naturalist Question 1.
What was the birth name of Jim Corbett?
Answer:
The birth name of Jim Corbett was Edward James Corbett.

Jim Corbett A Hunter Turned Naturalist 8th Std In Tamil Question 2.
What was the name of Corbett’s dog?
Answer:
The name of Jim Corbett’s dog was Robin.

Corbett Shot Wild Animals In His Answer Question 3.
How many kills did the Champawat Tiger recorded?
Answer:
The Champawat Tiger recorded 436 deaths in Nepal and the Kumaon area of India. Her attacks have been listed in the Guinness Book of World Records as the highest number of death from a tiger.

Jim Corbett Shot Wild Animals In His Question 4.
Who was the last kill of the Champawat Tiger?
Answer:
The last person to be killed by the Champawat Tiger was a 16 year old girl in a village near Champawat.

Jim Corbett A Hunter Turned Naturalist Book Back Answers Question 5.
When did Jim Corbett died?
Answer:
Jim Corbett died on 19th April 1955.

D. Answer the following in 100 words.

Jim Corbett Question Answer Question 1.
According to Corbett, why a tiger turns into a man eater?
Answer:
According to Corbett’s theory, a tiger starts eating humans, when they grow old or got hurt. As they cannot run fast, they start killing humans. People cannot run as fast . as animals. So they become easy prey. After eating human flesh once, a tiger will not
eat any other flesh. These tigers are called man-eaters. Join Corbett’s first man eating tiger hunt was the Champawat Tiger. It was a Bengal tigress. It was responsible for nearly 436 deaths in Nepal and the Kumaon area of India.

8th English Jim Corbett A Hunter Turned Naturalist Question 2.
How was the Champawat Tiger killed?
Answer:
Jim Corbett camped in the Kumaon District and started tracking the tigress. He moved around the villages and limited the activities of the man-eater. After several unsuccessful attempts, Corbett managed to kill the tiger. When a 16 year old girl was killed by the tigress, it left a trail of blood, which was followed by Jim. After a whole day of search, Jim, decided to organise a bait, the next day. With the help of the Thasildar of Champawat, the bait was organised with about 300 villagers. The next day, Corbett shot the tigress dead, near the Chataar Bridge in Champawat.

Question 3.
What were the findings of the postmortem ?
Answer:
A postmortem was done on the Bengal Tigress. It showed that the upper and lower ’ canine teeth on the right side of her mouth were broken. The upper one was broken in half and the lower one broke right down to the bone. This injury was a result of an old gunshot from the game hunter who failed to track and kill it. According to Jim Corbett this injury prevented her from hunting her natural prey and so she started to hunt humans.

Step To Success

Analogy – verbal reasoning questions.
There is certain relation between two given words, find the relation to find the missing word.

Question 1.
Reading : Knowledge, Work: ?
(a) Experience
(b) Engagement
(c) Experiment
(d) Employment
Answer:
(a) Experience

Question 2.
Cricket: Bat, Hokey: ?
(a) Field
(b) Stick
(c) Player
(d) Ball
Answer:
(b) Stick

Question 3.
Dog : Rabies, Mosquito : ?
(a) Plague
(b) Death
(c) Malaria
(d) Sting
Answer:
(c) Malaria

Question 4.
Man : Biography, Nation : ?
(a) Leader
(b) People
(c) Geography
(d) History
Answer:
(d) History

Question 5.
Bread: Bakery, Brick: ?
(a) Mint
(b) Kiln
(c) Furnace
(d) Mine
Answer:
(b) Kiln

Question 6.
Doctor: Diagnosis, Judge : ?
(a) Court
(b) Punishment
(c) Lawyer
(d) Judgement
Answer:
(d) Judgement

Connecting To Self

Try to know whether your hobby makes things easy.
Answer:

Jim Corbett, A Hunter Turned Naturalist Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
Jim Corbett was a wildlife photographer
(a) American
(b) British
(c) German
(d) French
Answer:

Question 2.
Though he was an expert hunter, he admired
(a) game hunt
(b) birds
(c) wildlife
(d) travel
Answer:

Question 3.
He took no joy from the .
(a) kill
(b) chase
(c) deaths
(d) survival
Answer:
(d) kill

Question 4.
There she continued her killings in the district.
(a) Kumaon
(b) Wayanad
(c) Vadodara
(d) Kolar
Answer:
(a) Kumaon

Question 5.
The British government Jim Corbett to help the villagers.
(a) advised
(b) ordered
(c) commanded
(d) requested
Answer:
(d) requested

II. Identify the Character / Speaker.

1. “He had a lot of experience with tigers and other wild animals”.
2. “She was shot in 1907 by Jim Corbett”.
3. “He camped in the Kumaon district”.
4. “He took no joy from the kill”.
5. “All her kills happened during the daylight”.

Answer:

1. Jim Corbett
2. Bengal tigress
3. Jim Corbett
4. Jim Corbett
5. Bengal tigress

III. Write True or False against each statement.

1. Jim often hunted with his horse Robin.
2. The Bengal tigress was responsible for nearly 336 deaths in Nepal and Kumoan area.
3. The British government requested Jim Corbett to help the villagers.
4. Jim Corbett was always against game hunting.
5. People were not terrified to go out into the forest.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False

IV. Very Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What did Jim Corbett hunt?
Answer:
Jim Corbett hunted a number of man-eating tigers and leopards in India.

Question 2.
What did Jim admire?
Answer:
Corbett admired wildlife.

Question 3.
Did he kill wildlife for pleasure or sport?
Answer:
No, he did not kill wildlife for pleasure or sport.

Question 4.
When was the tiger shot?
Answer:
The tiger was shot in 1907 by Jim Corbett.

Question 5.
How old was the girl killed by the tiger?
Answer:
She was 16 years old.

V. Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Where did the tiger begin her attacks?
Answer:
The tiger began her attacks in a Rupal village in western Nepal, Himalayas.

Question 2.
What did the Nepalese army do?
Answer:
The Nepalese army, after failing to kill the tiger, drove her across the border into India.

Question 3.
How were the people to go out and refused to leave?
Answer:
The people were terrified to go out and refused to leave their hunts for work after hearing the tigress’ roar from the forest.

Question 4.
According to Jim, what were the main cause of the mischief of wild animals?
Answer:
Deforestation and human encroachment were the main cause of the mischief of wild animals.

Question 5.
What did Jim educate the people?
Answer:
Jim went on lecturing tours to educate the people about their natural heritage and the need to conserve forests and their wildlife

VI. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Describe the attacks of the Bengal tigress?
Answer:
The tigress began her attacks in a Rupal village in Western Nepal, Himalayas. Hunters were sent to kill the tiger, but she managed to escape from them. The Nepalese army failed to capture or kill the tigress. It drove the tigress across the border into India. There the tigress continued her killings in the Kumaon District. She killed the people mostly during the day time. After several incidents, people stopped going into the forest to collect firewood, fruits, roots and other things. They were terrified to go out, after hearing her roar from the forest.

VII. mind map

Question 1.

Answer:

1. killing humans
2. as animals
3. easy prey
4. a tiger
5. man-eaters

Question 2.

Answer:

1. The Champawat Tiger
2. Bengal Tigress
3. Guinness Book of World Records
4. fatalities
5. 1907

VIII. Rearrange the Jumbled Sentences.

A.

1. Jim Corbett died on 19th April 1955.
2. Jim played a key role in establishing India’s first national park in the Kumaon Hills.
3. It was named after him to honour his role in establishing this protected area in 1930s.
4. It was initially named after Lord Malcolm Hailey.
5. The park was renamed in 1957 as ‘The Jim Corbett National Park’.
Answer:
2,4,1, 5, 3
2. Jim played a key role in establishing India’s first national park in the Kumaon Hills.
4. It was initially named after Lord Malcolm Hailey.
1. Jim Corbett died on 19th April 1955.
5. The park was renamed in 1957 as ‘The Jim Corbett National Park’.
3. It was named after him to honour his role in establishing this protected area in 1930s.

IX. Read the passage and answer the questions.

A. Edward James Corbett, popularly known as Jim Corbett was a British wildlife photographer, hunter, tracker, naturalist, and writer. He has hunted a number of man-eating tigers and leopards in India. He had a lot of experience with tigers and other wild animals to shoot with his cine film ‘ camera.

Question 1.
Who was Jim Corbett?
Answer:
Jim Corbett was a wildlife photographer, hunter, tracker, naturalist and writer.

Question 2.
How did he shoot tigers and other wild animals?
Answer:
He shot the tigers and other wild animals with his cine film camera.

Question 3.
What was the name given to Jim by his parents?
Answer:
Jim was given the name ‘Edward James Corbett’ by his parents.

B. Jim Corbett was always against game hunting. He strongly advocated that deforestation and human encroachment were the main cause of the mischief of wild animals. He went on lecturing tours to educate the people about their natural heritage and the need to conserve forests and their wildlife.

Question 1.
Who was against game hunting?
Answer:
Jim Corbett was against game hunting.

Question 2.
According to Jim, what were the main cause of the mischief of wild animals?
Answer:
Deforestation and human encroachment were the main causes of mischief of wild animals.

Question 3.
What did Jim educate the people?
Answer:
Jim went on lecturing tours to educate the people about their natural heritage and the need to conserve wildlife.

Jim Corbett, A Hunter Turned Naturalist Additional Questions:

Jim Corbett was a British wildlife photographer, hunter, tracker, naturalist and writer. His birth name was Edward James Corbett. He had hunted a lot of man-eating tigers and leopards in India. He used to shoot the tigers and the wild animals with his cine film camera. His dog, Robin accompanied him for the hunt. Jim Corbett hunted these animals only to help the people and at the request of the government.

His first man-eating tiger hunt was ‘The Champawat Tiger’. It was a Bengal tigress which was responsible for nearly 436 deaths in Nepal and the Kumaon area of India. Her attacks have been listed in the Guinness Book of World Records as the highest number of deaths from a tiger. The tigress began her attacks in a Rupal village in Western Nepal, Himalayas. She continued her killings even in the Kumaon District. Hunters were sent to kill the tigress, but she managed to escape. People were frightened to go to the forest to collect firewood, fruits, roots and other things. Then the British government requested Jim Corbett to help the villagers.

He camped in the Kumaon District and started tracking the tigress. After several unsuccessful attempts, Corbett managed to kill the tigress. When it left a trail of blood, after killing a 16 year old girl, Corbett followed it. He organised a bait with about 300 villagers. The next day, he shot the tigress dead near the Chataar Bridge in Champawat in the year 1907.

Jim Corbett was always against game hunting. He promoted ‘The Association for the Preservation of Game” and the “All India conference for the Preservation of Wildlife”. He played a key role in establishing India’s first national park – ‘the Hailey National Park’. After Jim Corbett’s death on 19th April 1955, the park was renamed in 1957 as “The Jim Corbett National Park”.

Students can Download English Poem 1 The Crocodile Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 1 The Crocodile

The Crocodile Poem Questions And Answers Poem Overview

The Crocodile Poem Summary Glossary

doth – an expression of old English for ‘does’
Improve – to become better than before
cheerful – happy
gently – softly, mildly
scale – thin horny things on the skin of crocodile
grin – smile meaninglessly showing the teeth

A. Read the poem aloud in pairs.
To be done by the students

B. Choose the rhyming words from the box and write thehn in the correct blanks.
file, din, caws, nail, while, paws, mail, thin

1. claws, jaws, _______ , _______
2. grin, in, _______ , _______
3. crocodile, Nile, _______ , _______
4. tail, scale, _______ , _______

Answers:

1. caws, paws
2. din, thin
3. file,while
4. nail, mail

C. Read these lines and answer the questions given below.

The Crocodile Poem 6th Standard Question 1.
How cheerful he seems to grin
Who does ‘he’ refer to?
Answer:
He refers to the crocodile.

Crocodile Poem Summary Question 2.
And pour the water of the Nile
What does the Nile refer to? Where is it?
Answer:
The Nile is the longest river in the world. It flows in Northeastern Africa, covering eleven countries, including Egypt.

The Crocodile – Poem Summary Question 3.
And welcomes little fishes in
With gently smiling jaws!

a. Who welcomes the fish? Why?
Answer:
The Crocodile welcomes the fish. It welcomes the fish as they would become its food.

b. Which line tells you that the crocodile is hungry?
Answer:
The line ‘when you can smell the grass from your garden seat’ tells us The second line “with gently smiling jaws”

D. Work in pairs. Share your answers with your partner.

Crocodile Poem Question 1.
What is the poem about?
Answer:
The poem is about a crocodile.

Crocodile Poem In English Question 2.
How does the crocodile’s tail look?
Answer:
The tail looks shining.

The Crocodile Poem Question 3.
What does ‘improve his tail’ mean?
Answer:
To become better than before.

Crocodile Questions And Answers Question 4.
How does he spread his claws?
Answer:
He spreads his claws neatly.

6th Standard English Poem The Crocodile Question 5.
Why does he welcome little fishes?
Answer:
He is hungry and he feeds on them. So he welcomes them.

Question 6.
Which line talks about the crocodile’s mouth and his shape?
Answer:
The last line with gently smiling jaws.

Writing

E. What does the poet say about the crocodile? Write in your own words, (in about fifty words).
Answer:
“How doth the little crocodile” is a children’s poem by Lewis Carroll. It discusses the looks of a crocodile. It uses rhyming words. In the first stanza, the poet talks about the tail of the crocodile and the scales of it. The scales are so, shiny like the waters of the river Nile. The second stanza speaks of the crocodile’s smile (grin) and claws. The crocodile is cheerful to welcome the little fishes to consume them.

The Crocodile Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension.

1. And Pour the water of the Nile
On every golden scale !

(a) What Is rafarrad as water of tha Nile ?
Answer:
The tears of the crocodile is referred as water of the Nile.

(b) Why Is the scale golden ?
Answer:
The scale in the tail is shining like gold due to water poured on it.

2. How cheerful he seems to grip
How neatly spreads its claws

(a) Who is’he’referred here?
Answer:
The crocodile.

(b) Why is he cheerful ?
Answer:
He is cheerful because he is onto the land and going to eat the fishes.

II. Poetic Devices.

1. How cheerful he seems to grin
How neatly spreads his claws
What Is the poetic device used In this line ? Explain your answer.
Answer:
Personification. He refers to the crocodile with the word “he” rather than the word “it”. He acknowledges that the crocodile’s tears are not the result of emotional distress, but also shows how the crocodile generates them with the intention of capturing his prey.

2. And pour the water of the Nile
On every golden scale !
What is the poetic device used in this line ? Explain your answer
Answer:
Metaphor: This poetic device is used when a covert comparison is made between two different things or ideas. Here the poet compares the tears of the crocodile with the waters of the River Nile.

III. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What does the crocodile uses to improve the shining of Its tall?
Answer:
It uses its tears to spread over its back, so that it can improve the shining of its tail.

Question 2.
How does the poet comment on the crocodile’s tear drops?
Answer:
He says that the crocodile secrets enough tear drops, so that they seem to equal all the water in the river Nile‘

Question 3.
What does the poet say in the second stanza?
Answer:
The poet describes what the crocodile does, when it spots the fish in the water, tries to swim near the shore.

Question 4.
How does the crocodile create space for the fish to move in?
Answer:
It spreads his claws out on the sand, as if to create space for the fish to move in.

Question 5.
What actions are being designed by the crocodile to trick and trap the fish?
Answer:
It welcomes the fish by grinning at it and also spreads his claws out on the sand, as if to create space for the fish to move in.

IV. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
The crocodile seems to have cruet intentions. Justify.
Answer:
The crocodile does have cruel intentions of using deception (cheating) and tricking its prey. It fakes the tears as if the killing of the prey is causing it emotional distress. However it isn’t so. The crocodile is a crafty creature that tricks its prey into surrendering itself. The shedding of tears is not related to emotional status in any way as the poet shows us in the poem. Rather it is aimed at enhancing the physical appearance of the crocodile so that it can attract its prey and deceive the prey into offering itself up for the crocodile’s consumption. Thus crocodile has cruel intentions to cheating and tricking its prey.

The Crocodile Summary

Stanza 1

In this stanza, the poet describes how a crocodile may enhance the physical appearance of its tail. The crocodile has come up out of the water and is sitting on the shore. It is evident on a sunny day, for the light of the sun to fall on the scales of the crocodile’s body is making them shine. However, the poet does not seem to be content with just the sunlight brightening up its appearance. He concludes that a certain amount of water poured on its scales would further beautify its appearance. As we know, the eyes of the crocodile are placed in a horizontal relation with its back. Therefore, when it secretes tears, the water from the tears can easily spread over its back.

This is exactly what the crocodile does. The crocodile’s tears are not only caused by emotional distress, as they are in the case of human beings. Hence, it is easy for the crocodile to secrete a large amount of teardrops and have them roll down the scales of its body, making them shine to a larger extent than they naturally would in the sunlight. The poet jokes that the crocodile secretes enough teardrops for them to seem like they equal all the water in the River Nile.

Stanza 2

In this stanza, Alice describes what the crocodile does when it spots the fish in the water trying to swim near the shore. The crocodile seems to start grinning, as if it was welcoming its fellow creatures of the sea oftto land along with itself. The crocodile also spreads his claws out on the sand, as if to create space for the fish to move in. The last thing the crocodile does is to open its mouth wide, as if to utter a kindly word. However, the fish are sorely mistaken if they interpret the crocodile’s actions in this way. In fact, all these actions on the crocodile’s part are designed to trick them and to trap them. When it opens its shining mouth, it infact gobbles up all the fish that come swimming up towards its body

Message: The poem also draws our attention to the various people in the world, who outwardly seem friendly but wait for an opportunity to strike at innocent people who may be unaware of their real malicious intentions.

So the poet is warning us to be very careful while dealing with others and not get carried away by their sweet smile or attractive looks.

Students can Download English Poem 1 The Computer Swallowed Grandma Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 1 The Computer Swallowed Grandma

B. Read these lines and answer the questions given below.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
The computer swallowed grandma.
Answer:
Who swallowed Whom?
The computer swallowed grandma.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Question 2.
She pressed ‘Control’ and ‘Enter’
And disappeared from view.
How did Grandma disappear from view?
Answer:
Grandma disappeared from the view on the computer screen when she pressed the control’ and enter’ keys.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Question 3.
It devoured her completely.
Who does ’if refer to?
Answer:
‘It’ refers to the computer.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Summary Question 4.
She must have caught a virus Or been eaten by a worm.
What happened to Grandma?
Answer:
Grandma was affected by computer ‘virus’.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Answers Question 5.
I’ve searched through the recycle bin And files of every kind;
I’ve even used the Internet,
But nothing did I find.
Where did the author search for grandma?
Answer:
The author searched Grandma in the recycle bin, files and on the internet.

C. Work in pairs. Read the last two stanzas of the poem and answer the following questions.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Paragraph Question 1.
Who did the author ask for grandma?
Answer:
The author asked Jeeves.

Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Question 2.
Did the author get a positive reply?
Answer:
No, the author did not get a positive reply.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Book Back Answers Question 3.
What is the author’s plea?
Answer:
The author pleads to send grandma back to him by an email, if anyone sees her in their Inbox

D. Pick out the rhyming pairs and write them in the blanks given.
Answer:

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Additional Questions

Poem Comprehension – Additional
7th English Poem The Computer Swallowed Grandma Question 1.
In desperation, I asked Jeeves
My searches to refine.
The reply from him was negative,
Not a thing was found Online’.

(a) Why was the poet desperate?
Answer:
The poet was desperate as her old Grandmother had disappeared.

(b) Who was Jeeves?
Answer:
Jeeves was a software engineer called to repair the computer to bring back Grandma.

(c) Did Jeeves spot Grandma?
Answer:
No, he could not find Grandma.

(d) What do you understand from the last line?
Answer:
Not only Grandma, nothing was found ‘online’. That means the computer was not connected to the internet.

I. One Word Two Meanings.

II. Short Questions and Answers.

7th Standard English The Computer Swallowed Grandma Question 1.
List the computer terms used in the poem.
Answer:
Control, enter, virus, recycle bin, files, internet, online, inbox, copy, scan, paste.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Summary In Tamil Question 2.
Did Grandma really got swallowed by the computer?
Answer:
No, Grandma did not get swallowed by the computer. Only her image on the computer screen disappeared.

III. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Explanation Questions 1.
Why was Jeeves called ? Was his visit successful ? Give reasons.
Answer:
Jeeves was called to find out ‘Why grandma was swallowed and consumed by the computer or if she had been caught by a virus or eaten by a worm?’ The computer repairer Jeeves refined the search for grandma everywhere in the computer and in the end, he gave only a negative reply. He said that not only grandma but nothing was found ‘online’. This means that the computer’s internet connection has been snapped for reasons unknown.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Summary Question 2.
When and how did grandma disappear? Explain the different efforts put by the poet to get back her grandma.
Answer:
The poet’s grandma was an old tech savvy modern lady who lived far away from the poet. They loved each other and often had ‘online’ video chatting. On one such day, grandma mistakenly pressed ‘control’ and ‘enter’ and completely disappeared from the view of the poet on the other end.
The poet took many measures to get back grandma. She searched for grandma in the recycle bin and all the files. She also used the internet to find her. Then the poet called a computer mechanic Jeeves to identify the cause and bringing back grandma, but even that was a failure. Finally the poet desperately requests all the readers of her poem to send grandma back to her if they find her in their ‘inbox’, by email, after copying’, ‘scanning’ and ‘pasting’.

Figures of speech in this poem

1. Personification: the poet personifies the computer to a human being and says it had swallowed/ consumed Grandma.
Line 1 : The computer swallowed grandma.
Line 5 : It devoured her completely.

2. Hyperbole is extravagant exaggeration of an incident. Here the poet exaggerates and says the computer had swallowed and consumed grandma.
Line 1 : The computer swallowed grandma.
Line 5 : It devoured her completely.

3. Pun : It’s a play of words. In the poem the poet writes that her grandma was caught by a virus. Virus means medically a bacteria that causes disease. But in computer it denotes to a defect which erases and destroys the data in it.

Warm up

Look at the picture, discuss in pairs and present it before the class.

If your grandmother is …
The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Meaning In Tamil Question 1.
ready for a bicycle race, ______
Answer:
I will go for a race with her.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Poem Lesson Plan Question 2.
willing to play hide and seek, _______
Answer:
I will play with her.

Question 3.
grabbing a lollipop from you, _______
Answer:
I will give mine to her.

Question 4.
How will you react to these situations?
Answer:
Grandma’s are always a blessing for us. So I would try to fulfill her wishes and make her happy.

The Computer Swallowed Grandma Summary

This childrens poem ‘The Computer Swallowed Grandma, was written by an Anonymous. Ever since it was published in ‘The Daily Mail’ national newspaper in July 2004, it was welcomed the world over for its humour, imagination and language.

The poet was chatting with her grandma online. Suddenly by mistake when grandma presses ‘Control’ and ‘Enter’, her image vanishes from the screen. The upset poet thinks that a virus must have attacked her computer and searches for her in the recycle bin, all files and on the internet. But she couldn’t find grandma, so she calls software engineer Jeeves to search grandma and he too couldn’t find. In the end, the poet requests all the readers of her poem to send grandma by email by copying, scanning and pasting her, if they happen to find grandma in their ‘in-box’.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Poem Chapter 5 Everest is not the Only Peak

Check out the topics covered in Poem Chapter 5 Everest is not the Only Peak Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Poem Chapter 5 Everest is not the Only Peak Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Warm up

Identify the following personalities and their fields of achievement.

Answer:

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Question 1.
Mention a remarkable achievement of any of these personalities
Answer:
Kailash Satyarthi has rescued thousands of child labourers and gave them new life.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Summary Question 2.
What quality do you admire the most in each of these achievers?
Answer:
They were persistent and never accepted failure.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Summary Question 3.
What are the qualities that you may share with them?
Answer:
Each one has concern for the country.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Line By Line Explanation Question 4.
Name a few more popular personalities who have made our nation proud.
Answer:
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mother Teresa
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) Sania Mirza
(e) Mary Kom
(f) Virat Kohli
(g) Saina Nehwal
(h) Abhinav Bindra
(i) MS Dhoni
(j) AR Rahman

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Everest is not the Only Peak Textual Questions

A. Based on your understanding of the poem, answer the following questions in a sentence or two each.

We are proud and feel so tall,
Our virtues though be few and small
Our nature it is that whatever we try
We do with devotion deep and true.

Defeat we repel, courage our fort;
Cringing from others we haven’t done,
To seek a gain we adore none:
We are proud and feel so tall.

We deem it our duty and mission in life,
To bless and praise the deserving ones;
Never shall we fail in what we commit,
Shall nourish the ones that nourish the world.

We are proud of the position we
Hold; humble as we are,
Our pride springs from the way we live.
Ours is a path of dignity and honour,
A life that knows no kneeling and bending.
We are proud and feel so tall.

Everest is not the only peak,
Every hillock has a summit to boast!
The height you reach is not that we care;
He, who does not stoop, is a king we adore.
We bow before competence and merit;
The ones that are true and stand on their own
Are really the ladder for the rise of Man.
Honour is a property, common to all:
In dignity and pride no one need to be poor.
We are proud and feel so tall.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Figures Of Speech Question 1.
Which line is repeated in the poem? What is the effect created by this repetition?
Answer:
The line, “We are proud and feel so tall” is repeated often in the poem. This establishes beyond a doubt the poet’s pride in dignity of iabour and pride of hardwork experienced by ordinary folks in life.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Summary In English Question 2.
Who are the ‘deserving ones’?
Answer:
Those who have merit and competence are the deserving ones.

Summary Of The Poem Everest Is Not The Only Peak Question 3.
Which quality does the speaker wish to nourish? What is his mission?
Answer:
The speaker wishes to nourish love to the mankind. The poet loves to nourish the ones who nourish the world. His mission is to bless and praise the deserving ones.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Question 4.
Which path should we follow in life?
Answer:
We should follow the path of dignity and honour. We should never stoop before others for any ‘gains’.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Warm Up Answers Question 5.
What does ‘Everest’ in the title stand for?
Answer:
‘Everest’ means the greatest achievement in life or the highest point one can reach in life.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Theme Question 6.
What does ‘hillock’ refer to in the line ‘Every hillock has a summit to boast!’?
Answer:
Hillock is a small hill. Everyone need not become Tenzing. Each one can achieve some ordinary pursuit and be proud of his achievements.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Explanation Question 7.
Why does the speaker say ‘Everest is not the only peak’?
Answer:
Everyone is not made to be a mountain climber or a captain. Each one has an important role in this life however small it may appear to be. The poet respects every small achievement in every walk of life. So, he says, “Everest is not the only peak”.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Paragraph Question 8.
What does the ladder symbolize?
Ladder symbolizes help given to enable others to climb up to a higher position in life.

B. Read the given lines and answer the questions that follow.

1. Our nature it is that whatever we try
We do with devotion deep and true.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Meaning In Tamil Question (a)
Who does ‘we’ refer to?
Answer:
‘We’refers to ordinary people.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Meaning Question (b)
How should we carry out our duties?
Answer:
We must do our duty with sincerity and deep devotion.

2. Defeat we repel, courage our fort;

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Meaning In English Question (a)
How do we react to defeat?
Answer:
We defy defeat.

(b) Which is considered as our stronghold?
Answer:
Courage is our stronghold.

3. We are proud of the position we hold;
humble as we are,

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Poem Analysis Question (a)
What is the speaker proud of?
Answer:
The speaker is proud of the position people hold on to.

Everest Is Not The Only Peak Theme Question (b)
How is the speaker both humble and proud?
Answer:
The ordinary position they hold keeps them humble. But the path of self-dignity and honour they tread, makes them feel proud.

Question (c)
Pick out the alliteration in these lines.
Answer:
proud, position, hold, humble are the words which alliterate.

4. He, who does not stoop, is a king we adore.
We bow before competence and merit;

Question (a)
Who is adored as a king?
Answer:
An upright or straight forward person is adored as a king.

Question (b)
What is the figure of speech used in the first line?
Answer:
Metaphor

5. Honour is a property, common to all:
In dignity and pride no one need to be poor.

Question (a)
Who are considered rich?
Answer:
Those who possess dignity and pride are considered rich.

Question (b)
What is their asset?
Answer:
Honour is their asset.

C. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of 100-150 words each.

Question 1.
In what way is every hillock similar to Everest?
Answer:
The poet does not compare rare feats of athletes, mountaineers or horsemen. He does not attach great value to positions or possessions. He scoffs at those who pull strings to achieve their ends. The means must justify the ends. One should not stoop to underhand dealings to achieve their desired goals in life. Those who reach great heights in life like Everest due to their hardwork, perseverance and competence are adorable. At the same time those who trek any small hillocks can’t be underestimated. The efforts made in reaching even the smallest positions in life, if done with sincerity of purpose and deep devotion, is worthy of hearty appreciation.

One who holds a humble position, but upright and serves as a ladder for fellow humans to reach great heights deserve our respect. The poet admits that he is proud of people’s humble positions because their pride springs not from positions or possessions but the way they live. Their life knows no bending. The poet just doesn’t bother the height of the peak one reaches. It could even be a hillock. What matters is how one reaches that spot. If merit and competence have paved the way for their success and positions, however humble they are, the poet admires them.

“Take on risks and ride the journey called life with no regrets. ”

Question 2.
The poem does not focus on the destination but the journey towards it. Discuss.
Answer:
The poet discusses the merits of efforts, duty and devotion and values of honesty, uprightness and service-mindedness. He does not have any special appreciation to those who reach great peaks like Himalayas. He appreciates the process, the journey and not the destination. When the whole world has a perspective of seeking glory using any foul method or underhand dealing, the poet differs from it. For him the means is more important than the end. However modest may be one’s position is, it is adorable if attained by competence and merit. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Thus the poet pays importance to the journey of life not the destination.

“The journey of life is not meant to be feared and planned;It is meant to be travelled and enjoyed. ”

Creative Activity

D. Write eight words you associate with success.

• Use the words to write eight lines that mean success to you or how success makes you feel.
• Arrange your lines into a poem.
• Share your poem with the class and post a copy on the notice board.
  1. strive
  2. flaunt
  3. determination
  4. destination
  5. wise
  6. want
  7. success
  8. kind

Succes
Poem:

Real success is when you strive
for what you want
when you have that guts to flaunt
Not thinking about the world and wise
when you can alone suffice
With upright will and determination
where finally you reach your destination.
Real success is hard to find. But its one of a kind.
(OR)

1. brave
2. hunt
3. learn
4. mistakes
5. encounter
6. failure
7. never
8. If

Poem

You’ll never be brave.
If you don’t get hurt
you’ll never learn.

If you don’t make mistakes
you’ll never be successful.
If you don’t enounter failure.

Speaking Activity

E. Discuss the following topics in groups of five and choose a representative to sum up the views and share them with the class.

Question (a)
To succeed in life, one must have a single-minded devotion to duty.
Answer:
Singleminded determination is necessary to achieve success in life. Legend says Dronacharya was training Pandavas to shoot arrows in the jungle. Once guru saw a bird at the top branch of a tall tree. He assigned the task of shooting the bird on its right eye.
Bhim, Nakulan, Sakadevan and Dharman were denied the chance to aim at it because they all told Dronacharya that they saw the whole jungle, tree, sky and the bird respectively. But it was Arjun who said that he saw only the right eye of the bird and nothing else. Indo-Pak war was in progress. Four bombers were prowling into Indian airspace.

Indian fighter bomber pilot realized all the bombs were exhausted. He had singleminded determination to prevent the four bombers from bombing India harm and force them to surrender. He tried a trick. He called them and spoke to them. He informed them that he was thousand feet above them with his finger on a missile. If they just surrender, their lives would be spared. He radioed to his chief that they should welcome four prisoners of war along with their fighter bombers.

Napoleon Boneparte was once watching a battle from a hillock. One of his soldiers came with an urgent message. Napoleon looking at the badly wounded soldier thought that the war was lost. He called one of his aides and gave instructions for pullout. But the soldier said, “Sire, we‘ve won”. Then he gave a slip from another pocket. Being a practical leader, he had alternate plans always at hand. Such leaders never accept failure as permanent. People who pursue their goals in life with single minded determination always win.

Question (b)
‘Success is not final, failure is not fatal.’ It is the courage and perseverance that Counts.
Answer:
India’s cricket team was beaten in Test series in Africa. Infact, it was routed. The team’s morale was a little down. The team captain Virat Kohli told his team to focus on what they were good at (i.e) sterling performance in One Day Internationals. He believed in the youngest bowlers and told them to play the game, the way they loved to play. He still believed in them. They would have to prove who are the masters of the game. Gathering their broken hopes and courage, the Indian team players, snatched the ODI series from the overconfident South Africans. They went on to win the T20 series too against the hosts. Thus they proved that success is not final and failure never fatal. One may bounce back from failure if one persists long enough.

A king had lost a battle. All his soldiers had been scattered across the country. Heart broken king Bruce was hiding in a cave. He saw a spider failing a number of times to spin a web. But it made it after about 20 attempts. This bolstered the confidence of the king. He refused to be controlled by failure. He defied defeat. He gathered his soldiers again and won the battle. These incidents throw much light on the truth that perseverance and courage counts for success in fife.

Question (c)
Successful people neither brood over the past nor worry about the future.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi and his followers were arrested and jailed many times. Gandhi’s followers were brutally lathi charged. Gandhi had decided to silence the guns of the British with Ahimsha passive non-violent resistance. The brutal suppression of the struggle for freedom did not dishearten Gandhi. He did not brood about the strength of British army and weaknesses of unarmed peasants who believed in his leadership. He was a Karmayogi. What ever the duty to be done it must be done with steadfast devotion and sincerity. Other leaders got worried. Some angry young men resorted to violence.

They burnt down a police station at Chauri chaura too. But Gandhi declared a fast unto death. He plunged into action. If he had worried about the unpleasant developments, he wouldn’t have launched Quit India Movement or Salt Satyagraha effectively.

Thomas Alva Edison was not able to find the element that would glow if electricity was passed. He had failed 1000 times to invent the bulb. But he said, “The light bulb was an invention with 1000 steps”. Each step taught him what did not work. He lost his hearing capacity. He had many failures. His teachers believed him to be mad and unteachable.

His entire schooling was only a few years. His mom taught him and made him believe in himself. This man who had been ill-treated in school and faced many challenges had no time to brood. He went on to make 1093 inventions and got them patented. Those who are busy building facilities for transforming the world have neither the time nor the inclination to brood about failures or about possibilities of success in future.

Everest is not the Only Peak About the poet:

Prof. V.C. Kulandtiisamy ( 14th July 1929 10th Dec 2016) is known as Kulotliimgan. He i is a prolific Tamil writer with six volumes of poems and seven of prose essays. He has 1 been conferred Thiruvalluvar Award by Government of Tamil Nadu (1999) and Sahitva j Academy’s Award in 1988 for his outstanding masterpiece “Vaazhum Valluvam”. Ills i poems, as evident in the poem “Everest is not the only Peak” deal with the gamut of human [ progress and all pervasive human effort to better the world.

Everest is not the Only Peak Summary

This poem discusses in depth the virtues that make people greater than those who scale Himalayas. We have a few virtues which make us feel proud and tall. By nature we do every assigned duty with deep and true devotion.

We repel defeats because courage is our fort. We have never cringed from others. We don’t lick others’ shoes to achieve personal gains. We are proud and tall.

We deem it a duty and a mission to appreciate those who deserve appreciation. We shall carry on doing unfailingly what we are committed to do. We shall nourish those who nourish the world (i.e) those who better the world with their services, inventions and discoveries.

Despite living a simple and humble life, we have pride over our path of dignity and honour. We feel proud and tall for we never bend before the mighty.

We value individual differences. Every small effort to succeed in life matters. Peaks alone don’t matter. Even a hillock is a symbol of human achievement. We respect those who don’t stoop to conquer. We are proud to be rich in honour, dignity and pride. Those who stand on their own merit and serve as ladder for progress of fellowmen are worthy of our appreciation. We are proud and feel so tall.

Not the worldly riches, power and positions impress us. We derive our happiness in serving those who serve the nation. We respect all who are upright in their dealings. So, as honest citizens, we are proud.

Everest is not the Only Peak Glossary

Textual:
adore – worship someone
competence – the ability to do something efficiently
cringing – behaving in an excessively humble or servile way
devotion – loyal commitment towards a particular activity
merit -the quality of being particularly good or worthy
nourish – to help the growth and development of someone
repel – hate or detest
stoop – yield or submit, to descend from dignity
summit – the highest point of a hill or mountain peak
virtues – good qualities

Additional:
dignity – deserves respect
fort – huge building for protection
hillock – small hill
humble -modest
mission – vocation
praise – appreciate
property – possession
proud – feeling important
springs – arises

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Resources

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Resources Textual Evaluation

A. Match the following.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 1.

Answer:

B. Fill in the blanks :

1. Sugarcane is processed to make ___________
2. Conservation of resources is ___________ use of resources.
3. Resources which are confined to certain regions are called ___________
4.  ___________ resources are being used in the present.
5.  ___________ resources are the most valuable resources.
6. Collection of resources directly from nature is called ___________

Answer:

1. Sugar
2. careful
3. Localise d resources
4. Actual
5. Human
6. Primary Activities

C. Write short notes on the following :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
Renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Resources once consumed can be renewed with the passage of time are called renewable resources.
2. (e.g.) Air, Water, Sunlight.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 2.
Human resources.
Answer:

1. Human resources are group of individuals who use nature to create more resources.
2. Example: Doctors, Teachers, Scientists.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Term 2 Question 3.
Individual resources.

1. Based on ownership, resources can be classified into Individual resources, Community-owned resources, National resources and International resources.
2. Individual resources are resources privately owned by individuals? (e.g.) Apartments.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 4.
Tertiary activities.
Answer:

1. Tertiary activities are those which render services to production and distribution of goods.
2. Example: Banking, Trade, Communications.

D. Give brief answers for the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Term 2 Question 1.
What are resources?

1. Resource is anything that fulfills human needs. When anything is of some use it becomes valuable. All resources have value.
2. The value can be either commercial or non-commercial.

Social Science Term 2 Question 2.
What are actual resources?
Answer:

1. Actual resources are resources that are being used and the quantity available is known.
2. Example: Coal at Neyveli.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 3.
Define abiotic resources.
Answer:
Abiotic resources are non-living things. Land, Water, Air and Minerals are abiotic resources.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:

1. The present needs for resources are met.
2. The conserving of resources for the future are balanced. It is sustainable development.

E. Give short answers to the following questions.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Term 2 Question 1.
Differentiate universal and localized resources.
Answer:
Universal Resources

1. Universal resources are present everywhere.
2. Eg. Sunlight and air

Localized Resources

1. Localized resources are present in specific regions.
2. Eg. Minerals

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Geography Book Question 2.
Though human beings are natural resources, why are they classified separately?
Answer:

1. Education, Health, Knowledge and Skill have made human beings a valuable resource.
2. So Human beings are classified separately. Example: Doctors, Teachers, Scientists.

6th Class Social Guide Question 3.
Compare national and International
Answer:
National resources

1. National resources are resources within the political boundaries and oceanic area of a country.
2. Eg. Tropical Forest Region of india

International resources

1. International resources are all oceanic resources found in the open ocean. Resources found in the region can be utilised only after an international agreement.
2. Eg. Ambergris.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Question 4.
What is the difference between Man-made resources and Human resources?
Answer:
Man-made resources:

1. Natural resources are modified or processed by technology.
2. All structures built by man

Human Resources:

1. Groups of individuals use nature to create more resources
2. Education, Health, Knowledge and Skill have made this.

6th Social Guide Question 5.
Write the Gandhian thought on conservation of resources.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi blamed “human beings” for depletion of resources because of
(a) over exploitation of resources
(b) Unlimited needs of human beings. So, conservation is very important.

F. Give detailed answers for the following questions. (100-120 words).

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Guide Question 1.
How are natural resources classified? Explain an three with examples.
Answer:
Natural resources can be classified into different groups depending on origin, development, renewability, distribution, ownership etc.

(a) On the basis of orgin:
On the basis of origin, resources can be classified into biotic and abiotic resources.

1. All living resources are biotic resources. Plants, animals and other micro organisms are biotic resources.
2. Abiotic resources are non-living things. Land, water, air and minerals are abiotic resources.

(b) On the basis of development:
Based on the level of development, resources can be divided into actual and potential resources.

1. Actual resources are resources that are being used and the quantity available is known, (e.g.) Coal mining at Neyveli.
2. Potential resources are resources that are not being used in the present and its quantity and location are not known, (e.g.) Wind Energy.

(c) On the basis of distribution:
On the basis of distribution resources can be classified into localised resources and universal resources.

1. When resources are present in specific regions, they are called localised resources (eg.) Minerals.
2. Some resources are present everywhere. Such resources are called universal

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Social Question 2.
How can resources be conserved?
Answer:
Conservation of Resources:

1. Careful use of resources is conservation of resources.
2. Due to the rapid increase in population the resources are being utilized at a very fast rate.
3. To avoid this we need sustainable development. The sustainable development can take place when
   1. • Wastage and excess consumption is prevented
      • Reusable resources are recycled
      • Pollution is prevented
      • Environment is protected
      • Natural vegetation and wild life are preserved.
4. The easiest way to conserve resources is to follow the “3R”s : Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.

Question 3.
What is resource planning and why is it necessary?
Answer:
Resource planning is a technique or skill of proper utilization of resources. Resource planning is necessary because,

1. Resources are limited, their planning is quite necessary so that we can use them properly and at the same time we can save them for our future generation.
2. Resources are not only limited, but also they are unevenly distributed over the different parts of the World.
3. It is essential for the production of resource to protect them from overexploitation.

Question 4.
Explain the primary, secondary and tertiary activities.
Answer:
Primary Activities:

1. According to the human needs the substances (biotic resources) were collected by the ancient men and preserved for use.
2. For his basic needs (food, clothing and shelter) he collected things through activities.
3. The activities like hunting, food gathering, fishing and forestry are called “Primary Activities”.
4. Later when food became scarce they had to cultivate and that became agriculture.
5. Mining became one of the leading primary activities.

Secondary Activities:

1. Natural resources are modified or processed by technology. Ex : sugarcane 2 sugar
2. This transforming of raw materials into finished goods is called “Secondary Activities”.
3. Man’s skills and ideas are the basic requirement for secondary activities.

Tertiary Activities:

1. Tertiary activities are those which render services to production and distribution of goods.
2. These are concerned with the distribution of primary and secondary products through a system of transport and trade.
3. Example: Banking, Trade and Communications

G. Statements and inferences:

Question 1.
Statement : Solar energy is the best substitute for thermal energy in tropical regions.
Inference 1 : Coal and petroleum resources are receding.
Inference 2 : Solar energy will never deplete.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows,
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow

Question 2.
Statement : If you don’t conserve resources, human race may become extinct.
Inference 1 : You need not conserve resources.
Inference 2 : You need to conserve resources.
Now choose the right answer
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows
(c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow
Answer:
(b) Only conclusion 2 follows

Question 3.
Statement : Man switched over to agriculture.
Inference 1 ; Food gatherers experienced scarcity of food.
Inference 2 : Food gathered was not nutritious.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows,
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
(a) Only conclusion 1 follows

H. Given are three suggestions to conserve resources: Write the 3Rs in suitable places:

1. Giving your childhood cycle to your neighbour
2. Using a flush that consumes less water
3. Melting used plastic to lay roads

Answer:
Reuse
Reduce
Recycle

I. Cross word puzzle

Answer:

Across left to right

1. A development that balances time
2. Energy from the sun
3. All resources that belongs to country

Answer:

1. SUSTAINABLE
2. SOLAR
3. NATIONAL

Across right to left

1. One of the 3Rs

Answer:

1. REUSE

Down

1. A resource found everywhere
2. An international resource
3. A resource provided by nature
4. A resource restricted to specific areas

Answer:

1. UNIVERSAL
2. AMBERGRIS
3. NATURAL
4. LOCALISED

J. Mark the following in the outline map of India

Question 1.

1. Neyveli
2. Bay of Bengal
3. Arabian Sea
4. Forest region of Tamil Nadu
5. Indian Ocean
6. Iron mining in Kanjamalai (Salem)

Answer:

K. Identify the different economic activities and fill the table given below

Activity – 1
Circle the resources that are not necessary for gardening. Soil, Seeds, A piece of Land, Computers, Saplings, Flower Pots, Manure, Textbook
Answer:

Activity- 2
Which region/continent does each of these animals belong to?

Answer:

1. Penguins: They are found in Antarctica, South Africa, Australia. Penguins are not generally fans of hot weather.
2. A Lion Asiatic Lions live in India’s Gir Forest. African lions live in Central and Southern Africa.
3. Tigers originate from the Asian continent especially in Thailand, Indonesia, Laos, China, Malaysia, Russia, Nepal, Myanmar. There are Chinese and Bengal tigers.
4. Elephants are found in Africa as well as Asia. African elephants have the ears shaped like the African continent, where Asian elephants have smaller ears.
5. Most Kangaroos have their habitat in Australia. Gray Kangaroos, Antilopine Kangaroo, Tree Kangaroos are some types of Kangaroo family.

Activity – 3

Question 1.
What natural resources are necessary to lay a road?
Answer:
For paving roads we need asphalt and concrete. Asphalt uses an oil based substance called bitumen to make sand and curshed rock stick together like glue.

Activity :
Identify the personalities and professionals.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Resources Additional Question

A. Match the following.

Question 1.

Answer:

1. – iii
2. – iv
3. – i
4. – v
5. – ii

B. Fill in the blanks:

1. All living things are_______ resources.
2. Collection of resources directly from nature is called _______
3. Natural resources when processed to meet man’s needs are called _______
4. Solar Panels generate _______
5. Silicon , extracted from _______ is used in making pv cells
6. All resource have _______
7. Wind energy is a _______ resource
8. Man’s skills and ideas are the basic requirements for _____ activities.
9. A plate that can absorb solar energy is known as______
10. Areas of ocean that does not belong to any country is called ______

Answer:

1. biotic
2. Primary Activities
3. Man made
4. electricity
5. sand
6. value
7. potential
8. secondary
9. solar penal
10. open ocean

C. Write short notes on the following :

Question 1.
Non – Renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Natural resources which are limited can be called non-renewable resources.
2. They become exhausted after use and the time they take to replaces does not
   match the life cycle.

Question 2.
Community – Owned resources.
Answer:

1. Resources which can be utilized by all the members of the community are called community – owned
2. resources. Example: Public parks

Question 3.
Secondary Activities.
Answer:

1. The transforming of raw materials into finished goods is called Secondary Activities.
2. Man’s skills and ideas are the basic requirements for these activities.

D. Give brief answers for the following:

Question 1.
How are Natural resources classified?
Answer:
Natural resources can be classified into different groups depending on origin, development, renewability, distribution, ownership etc.

Question 2.
What are the basic needs man had in the beginning?
Answer:

1. Food
2. Clothing
3. Shelter

Question 3.
What are the primary activities?
Answer:
Hunting, food gathering, fishing and forestry are some of the primary activities.

Question 4.
What are the Potential resources?
Answer:

1. Potential resources are resources that are not being used in the present.
2. Its quantity and location are not known.
3. The technology to extract such resources is also yet to be developed.

E. Give short answers for the following questions

Question 1.
How is ambergris useful?
Answer:

1. Ambergris belongs to international resources.
2. It is an extract from the sperm whale.
3. A pound (0.454 kg) of sweet-smelling ambergris is worth US$ 63,000. It is used in perfume industries.

Question 2.
Explain the term Resource planning.
Answer:

1. Resource planning is a technique or skill of proper utilisation of resources.
2. Resource planning in necessary became

(a) Resources are limited, their planning is necessary to use them properly and saving them for the future generation.
(b) Resources are unevenly distributed over different parts of the world.
(c) Resources should be protected from over-exploitation.

Question 3.
When can sustainable development take place?
Answer:
Sustainable development can take place when,

1. The reasons of depletion are identified.
2. Wastage and excess consumption is prevented.
3. Reusable resources are recycled.
4. Pollution is prevented.
5. Environment is protected.
6. Natural vegetation and wild life are preserved.
7. Alternative resources are used.
8. The easiest way to conserve resources is to follow the ‘3R’s, Reduce, Reuse, Recycle.

F. Statements and inferences:

Question 1.
Statement : All resources have value.
Inference 1 : Petroleum has great economic value.
Inference 2 : Air is a non – commercial resource.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.

Question 2.
Statement : Development is necessary without affecting the needs of the future generation.
Inference 1 : Environment should be protected.
Inference 2 : Excess consumption should be prevented.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows,
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
(d) Both 1 and 2 follow.

Question 3.
Statement : Mining became one of the leading primary activities of early man.
Inference 1 : Early man was in need of better tools other than stone.
Inference 2 : Early man mined precious metals for making ornaments.
Now choose the right answer.
a) Only conclusion 1 follows.
b) Only conclusion 2 follows,
c) Neither 1 nor 2 follows.
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.
Answer:
d) Both 1 and 2 follow.

G. The easiest way to conserve resources is to follow the 3Rs, Reduce, Reuse, Recycle. Give example.
Answer:

a) Reduce

1. Print on both sides of the paper to reduce paper wastage.
2. Avoid giving presents with excess packing.
3. Use cloth Napkins instead of paper napkins.

b) Reuse

1. Buy reusable products instead of disposable ones like rechargeable batteries, plastic picnic tableware instead of paper ones.
2. Old newspapers can be used to pack items.
3. Old jars and pots can be used to store items in the kitchen.

c)Recycle

1. If you can, compost your garden waste and vegetable peelings or take your garden waste to a recycling centre.
2. Reuse carrier bags as bin liness or take your reusable bags with you to the shops.
3. Pack your lunch in reusable box.
4. Green waste is processed at recycling centres to produce a compost soil conditioner.

H. Cross word puzzle.

Across (Left to right)
1. A non-renewable resource
4. A tertiary activity
9. A Biotic Resource

Down :

1. A technique used for proper utilization of resources
2. A man made Resource
3. Tropical forests known for this medicine
4. Well known for Coal Mining
5. A potential Resource
6. An Individual Resource
7. One of the 3Rs.

Answer:

Across (Left to right)

1. PETROLEUM
4. BANKING
9. PLANTS
Down

1. PLANNING
2. ROADS
3. CINCHONA
5. NEYVELI
6. WIND
7. FLAT
8. REUSE
9. PLANTS

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 2 Number Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

11th Computer Science Chapter 2 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Which refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU?
(a) Byte
(b) Nibble
(c) Word length
(d) Bit
Answer:
(c) Word length

11th Computer Science Chapter 2 Workshop Answers Question 3.
Expansion for ASCII ………………..
(а) American School Code for Information Interchange
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) All Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Society Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

11th Computer Science 2nd Lesson Book Back Answers Question 4.
2^50 is referred as
(a) Kilo
(b) Tera
(c) Peta
(d) Zetta
Answer:
(c) Peta

Class 11 Computer Science Chapter 2 Solutions Question 5.
How many characters can be handled in Binary Coded Decimal System?
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(a) 64

11th Computer Science 2nd Lesson Question 6.
For 1101₂ what is the Hexadecimal equivalent?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
Answer:
(c) D

Computer Science Chapter 2 Question 7.
What is the 1’s complement of 00100110?
(a) 00100110
(b) 11011001
(c) 11010001
(d) 00101001
Answer:
(b) 11011001

Number System Class 11 Pdf Question 8.
Which amongst this is not an Octal number?
(a) 645
(b) 234
(c) 876
(d) 123
Answer:
(c) 876

II. Short Answers

Number System Class 11 Computer Science Pdf Question 1.
What is data?
Answer:
The term data comes from the word datum which means a raw fact. The data is a fact about people, places or some objects.
Example: Rajesh, 16, XI

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Computer Science Question 2.
Write the 1’s complement procedure.
Answer:
Step 1 : convert given decimal number into Binary
Step 2 : if the binary bit contains 8 bits if less add 0 at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
Step 3 : Invert all the bits, (i.e.) change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1.

Class 11 Computer Science Chapter 2 Question Answer Question 3.
Convert (46)₁₀ into Binary number
Answer:
(46)₁₀ into binary = 101110₂

Question 4.
We cannot find 1’s complement for (28)₁₀. State reason.
Answer:
Since it is a positive number. 1 ’s complement will come only for negative number.

Question 5.
List the encoding systems for characters in memory.
Answer:

1. BCD – Binary Coded Decimal
2. EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
3. ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange
4. Unicode
5. ISCII – Indian standard code for Information interchange

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is radix of a number system? Give example.
Answer:
The radix refers to the base of a number system: the total number of possible digits. The decimal number system that we all use is base ten, as it has ten distinct digits (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9).
Example : Binary system – Radix 2

Question 2.
Write note on binary number system.
Answer:
In Binary Number System, there are only two digits namely 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2. In the Binary Number, the left most bit is the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and the right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB). MSB has largest positional weight and LSB has smallest positional weight.
Example : 110010₂

Question 3.
Convert (150)₁₀ into Binary, then convert that Binary number to Octal.
Step 1:
Change it to Binary.

(150)₁₀ = 10010110

Step – 2:
Change it to Octal.

Answer:
Binary 10010110₂
Octal 226_g

Question 4.
Write short note on ISCII.
Answer:
ISCII – Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange (ISCII) is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This is a 8 – bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (2⁸) characters. It is recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). It is integrated with Unicode.

The supported scripts are:
Assamese, Bengali (Bangla), Devanagari, Gujarati, Gurmukhi, Kannada, Malayalam, Oriya, Tamil, and Telugu. ISCII does not encode the writing systems of India based on Arabic, but its writing system switching codes none the less provide for Kashmiri, Sindhi, Urdu, Persian, Pashto and Arabic. The Arabic – based writing systems were subsequently encoded in the PASCII encoding.

ISCII is an 8 – bit encoding. The lower 128 code points are plain ASCII, the upper 128 code points are ISCII – specific. In addition to the code points representing characters, ISCII makes use of a code point with mnemonic ATR that indicates that the following byte contains one of two kinds of information. One set of values changes the writing system until the next writing system indicator or end – of – line.

Question 5.
Add (a) – 22₁₀ + 15₁₀
(b) 20₁₀ + 25<sub>10

Answer:
(a) – 2210 = 101102
Binary Equivalent = 101102

Answer:
111110012</sub>

(b) 20₁₀ + 25₁₀
Answer:

Answer:
00101101₂

IV. Detail Answers

Question 1.
(a) Write the procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
(b) Convert (98.46)₁₀ to Binary
Answer:
(а) Procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
Step 1 : Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either Oor 1.
Step 2 : Discard the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2. Repeat step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3 : The resulting integer part forms a sequence of 0’s and 1 ’s that becomes the binary equivalent of decimal fraction.
Step 4 : The final answer is to be written from first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.

(b) Convert (98.46)₁₀ to Binary

Answer:
1100010.01110 … ₂

Question 2.
Find 1’s Complement and 2’s Complement for the following Decimal number (a) – 98 (b) – 135
Answer:

98₁₀ = 01100010
8 bit format = 01100010
1’s complement = 10011101
Add 1 bit = + 1
= 10011110

135₁₀ = 10000111
1’st complement = 01111000
Add 1 bit = + 1
= 01111001

Question 3.
(a) Add 1101010₂ + 101101₂
(b) Subtract 1101011₂ – 111010₂
Answer:

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals?
(a) Boolean algebra
(b) Gate
(c) Fundamental gates
(d) Derived gates
Answer:
(b) Gate

Question 2.
Which gate is called as the logical inverter?
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) XNOR
Answer:
(c) NOT

Question 3.
A + A = ?
(a) A
(b) O
(c) 1
(d) A
Answer:
(a) A

Question 4.
NOR is a combination of?
(a) NOT(OR)
(b) NOT(AND)
(c) NOT(NOT)
(d) NOT(NOR)
Answer:
(a) NOT(OR)

Question 5.
NAND is called as ……………… Gate.
(a) Fundamental Gate
(b) Derived Gate
(c) Logical Gate
(d) Electronic gate
Answer:
(b) Derived Gate

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Boolean Algebra?
Answer:
Boolean algebra is a mathematical discipline that is used for designing digital circuits in a digital computer. It describes the relation between inputs and outputs of a digital circuit.

Question 2.
Write a short note on NAND Gate.
Answer:
The NAND gate is the combination of NOT and AND gates. The NAND gate is generated by inverting the output of a AND gate. The algebraic expression of the NAND is Y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A} . \mathrm{B}}\)

Question 3.
Draw the truth table for XOR gate.
Answer:
The truth table for XOR gate is

Question 4.
Write the associative laws?
Answer:
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A.(B.C) = (A.B).C

Question 5.
What are derived gates?
Answer:
Derived Gates are the gates which are derived from the fundamental gates.
Example : NAND, NOR, XOR, XNOR

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write the truth table of fundamental gates.
Answer:
(a) AND gate – Truth Table

(b) OR gate – Truth Table

(c) NOT Gate – Truth Table

Question 2.
Write a short note on XNOR gate.
The XNOR (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination of XOR gate followed by an inverter. Its output is “true” if the inputs are same and false if the inputs are different.
The output of XNOR is C = AB + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
= A \(\odot\) B
Where \(\odot\) indicates included dot.
Truth Table:

Logic symbol:

Logic circuit:

Question 3.
Reason out why the NAND an NOR are called universal gates?
Answer:
NAND and NOR gates are called as Universal gates because the fundamental logic gates can be realized through them.

Question 4.
Give the truth table of XOR gate.
Answer:
XOR – Truth Table

Question 5.
Write the De Morgan’s law.
Answer:
De Morgan’s \(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) . \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(\(\overline{\mathrm{A}+\mathrm{B}}\)) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the fundamental gates with expression and truth table.
Answer:
A gate is a basic electronic circuit which operates on one or more signals to produce an output signal.
The three fundamental gates are AND, OR and NOT gates.

AND Gate:
The AND gate can have two or more input signals and produce an output signal. The output is “true” only when both inputs are “true”, otherwise, the output is “false”. In other words the output will be 1 if and only if both inputs are 1; otherwise the output is 0. The output of the AND gate is represented by a variable say C, where A and B are two and if input boolean variables. In boolean algebra, a variable can take either of the values ‘0’ or ‘1’. The logical symbol of the AND gate is

The truth table for AND gate is

OR Gate:
The OR gate gets its name from its behaviour like the logical inclusive “OR”. The output is “true” if either or both of the inputs are “true”. If both inputs are “false” then the output is “false”. In other words the output will be 1 if and only if one or both inputs are 1; otherwise, the output is 0. The logical symbol of the OR gate is

The truth table for OR gate is

NOT Gate:
The NOT gate, called a logical inverter, has only one input. It reverses the logical state. In other words the output C is always the complement of the input. The logical symbol of the NOT gate is

The truth table for NOT gate is

Question 2.
How AND and OR can be realized using NAND and NOR gate.
Bubbled AND Gate
(i) Realized of and using only AND gate:
The Boolean function for AND is C = AB. The same can be realized using only NAND gates.

(ii) Realization of or using only NAND’s:
The Boolean function of OR is C = A + B. The same can be realized using only NAND gates.

(iii) Realization of AND using NOR:
By using only the NOR gates, we can get the output equivalent to the output of AND gate.
C = A.B

(iv) Realization of OR using NOR’s:
By using only NOR gates we are getting the output equivalent to OR gate.

Question 3.
Explain the Derived gates with expression and truth table.
Answer:
The logic gates like NAND, NOR, XOR and XNOR are derived gates which are derived from the fundamental gates AND, OR NOT.
(i) NAND gate:
The NAND is the combination of NOT and AND. The NAND is generated by inverting the output of an AND operation.
Output: y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Logic circuit

Logic symbol:

Truth table:

Inputs Outputs
(ii) NOR gate:
The NOR is the combination of NOT and OR. The NOR is generated by inverting the output of an OR operation.
Logic function: y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Logic circuit:

logic symbol:

Truth table:

(iii) XOR gate:
The XOR (exclusive – OR) gate acts in the same way as the logical either /or.
Logic symbol:

Logic circuit:

Truth table:

(iv) XNOR gate:
XNOR gate (exclusive – NOR) gate is a combination of XOR gate followed by an inverter.
Logic function: y = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)

logic symbol:

Truth table:

Boolean function:

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Number Systems Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The simplest method to represent negative binary number is called ………………..
(a) signed magnitude
(b) sign bit or parity bit
(c) binary
(d) decimal
Answer:
(a) signed magnitude

Question 2.
The term data comes from the word ………………..?
(a) number
(b) datum
(c) nibble
(d) bit
Answer:
(b) datum

Question 3.
Expansion for BCD ………………..
(a) Binary coded decimal
(b) binary complement decimal
(c) binary computer decimal
(d) binary convert decimal
Answer:
(a) Binary coded decimal

Question 4.
……………….. scheme is denoted by hexadecimal numbers.
(a) binary
(b) Unicode
(c) word length
(d) data
Answer:
(b) Unicode

Question 5.
The ……………….. operator is defined in boolean algebra by the use of the dot (.) operator.
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) NAND
Answer:
(a) AND

Question 6.
A ……………….. number is represented using base 16.
(a) Hexadecimal
(b) octal
(c) binary
(d) decimal
Answer:
(a) Hexadecimal

Question 7.
The convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent octal number ………………..
(a) (101)₈
(b) (101)₁₀
(c) (101)₁₂
(d) (101)₄
Answer:
(a) (101)₈

Question 8.
Octal number system uses digits ………………..
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 9.
……………….. is the general idea behind positional numbering system.
(a) Radix
(b) Computer memory
(c) Binary number
(d) Decimal number
Answer:
(a) Radix

Question 10.
The NAND gate operates an AND gate followed by a ……………….. gate.
(a) AND
(b) OR
(c) NOT
(d) XOR
Answer:
(c) NOT

Question 11.
Bit means ………………..
(a) nibble
(b) byte
(c) word length
(d) binary digit
Answer:
(d) binary digit

Question 12.
Expand BIT.
(a) Basic Input Term
(b) Binary Input Term
(c) Binary Digit
(d) Binary Inverse Digit
Answer:
(c) Binary Digit

Question 13.
The computer can understand ……………….. languages.
(a) computer
(b) machine
(c) post
(d) pre
Answer:
(b) machine

Question 14.
Identify the wrong pair.
1. 1 YB = 2^80
2. 1 BM = 2^70
3. 1 MB = 2^20
4. 1 TM = 2^40
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 15.
How many bytes does 1 zetta byte contains?
(a) 2⁹⁰
(b) 2⁸⁰
(c) 2⁷⁰
(d) 2⁶⁰
Answer:
(c) 2⁷⁰

Question 16.
The collection of 4 bits is ………………..
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) nibble
(d) KB
Answer:
(c) nibble

Question 17.
Match the following.

(a) 4 12 3
(b) 12 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 1 3
Answer:
(a) 4 12 3

Question 18.
1 kilo byte represents ……………….. bytes.
(a) 512
(b) 256
(c) 1024
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 1024

Question 19.
How many mega bytes does 1 GB contains?
(a) 2²⁰
(b) 2¹⁰
(c) 2³⁰
(d) 2⁴⁰
Answer:
(b) 2¹⁰

Question 20.
What is the decimal value of 1111₂?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 14
(d) 15
Answer:
(d) 15

Question 21.
What is the 1’ s complement of 11001.
(a) 11100110
(b) 01010101
(c) 11110000
(d) 100100111
Answer:
(a) 11100110

Question 22.
The decimal value of Binary number 10 is ………………..
(a) 101010
(b) 2
(c) 100
(d) A
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 23.
The hexadecimal equivalent of 15 is ………………..
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) F
Answer:
(d) F

Question 24.
Which of the following are data?
(a) Alphabet
(b) Special character
(c) Number
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 25.
The radix of hexadecimal number is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 26.
Pick the odd one.
(a) BCD
(b) ENIAC
(c) ASCII
(d) EBCDIC
Answer:
(b) ENIAC

Question 27.
The most commonly used number system is ………………..
(a) binary
(b) decimal
(c) octal
(d) hexadecimal
Answer:
(b) decimal

Question 28.
Unicode can handles how many characters?
(a) 64
(b) 128
(c) 256
(d) 65536
Answer:
(d) 65536

Question 29.
What does MSB means?
(a) Major sign bit
(b) Most sign bit
(c) Minor sign bit
(d) Most significant bit
Answer:
(d) Most significant bit

Question 30.
Which one is the right most bit?
(a) MSB
(b) LSB
(c) USB
(d) USRB
Answer:
(b) LSB

Question 31.
The binary equivalent of hexadecimal number B is ………………..
(a) 1011
(b) 1100
(c) 1001
(d) 1010
Answer:
(a) 1011

Question 32.
The left most bit of a positive binary number in signed notation is ………………..
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) A
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 33.
What is the range of ASCII values for lower case alphabets?
(a) 65 to 90
(b) 65 to 122
(c) 97 to 122
(d) 98 to 122
Answer:
(c) 97 to 122

Question 34.
The radix for octal number system is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 1
(d) 16
Answer:
(b) 8

Question 35.
What is the ASCII value for blank space?
(a) 8
(b) 2
(c) 18
(d) 32
Answer:
(d) 32

Question 36.
Which one of the following company have formulated EBCDIC?
(a) Microsoft
(b) 1 BM
(c) Sun
(d) Apple
Answer:
(b) 1 BM

Question 37.
Which one of the following bit has smallest positional weight?
(a) MSB
(b) LSB
(c) UPS
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) LSB

Question 38.
The base value of hexadecimal number is ………………..
(a) 2
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 39.
Name the person who proposed the basic principles of Boolean Algebra?
(a) Wiliam Boole
(b) George Boole
(c) James Boole
(d) Boolean George
Answer:
(b) George Boole

Question 40.
How many truth values are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 41.
What is the other name for logical statement?
(a) Truth values
(b) Truth functions
(c) Truth table
(d) Truth variables
Answer:
(b) Truth functions

Question 42.
The variables which can store the truth values are called as ………………..
(a) logical variable
(b) binary valued variable
(c) boolean variables
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 43.
The NOT operator is represented by the symbol.
(a) over bar
(b) single apostrophe
(c) a and b
(d) plus
Answer:
(c) a and b

Question 44.
Which is not a logical operator?
(a) dot
(b) plus
(c) over bar
(d) command
Answer:
(d) command

Question 45.
The output for the AND operator is ………………..
(a) A + B
(b) –
(c) A.B
(d) AB + C
Answer:
(c) A.B

Question 46.
Which symbol is used to in OR operator?
(a) –
(b) •
(c) *
(d) +
Answer:
(d) +

Question 47.
Which gate takes only one input?
(a) OR
(b) AND
(c) NOT
(d) XOR
Answer:
(c) NOT

Question 48.
Which among the following can be replaced by a bubbled AND gate?
(a) AND
(b) NAND
(c) OR
(d) not
Answer:
(b) NAND

Question 49.
Which is not a derived date?
(a) AND
(b) NAND
(c) NOR
(d) XOR
Answer:
(a) AND

Question 50.
Find the universal gates from the following.
(a) XOR
(b) XNOR
(c) a and b
(d) NOR
Answer:
(d) NOR

Question 51.
The statement “C equal the complement of A or B” means
(a) C = A + B
(b) C = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}+\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(c) C = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(d) C = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(a) C = A + B

Question 52.
Which symbol is used in XOR gate?
(a) \(\odot\)
(b) \(\otimes\)
(c) \(\oplus\)
(d) –
Answer:
(c) \(\oplus\)

Question 53.
Included dot means ………………..
(a) \(\odot\)
(b) [•]


Answer:
(a) \(\odot\)

Question 54.
What is the output of XOR gate?
(a) C = A% B
(b) C = A \(\otimes\) A
(c) C = A \(\odot\) B
(d) C = A \(\oplus\) B
Answer:
(d) C = A \(\oplus\) B

Question 55.
Identify the statement which is wrong.
(a) A . 1 = A
(b) A . A = A
(c) A + O = A
(d) A . 1 = 0
Answer:
(b) A . A = A

Question 56.
Find A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) .B = ………………..
(a) A + B
(b) A.B
(c) \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\).B
(d) A.\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
Answer:
(d) A.\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)

Question 57.
Identify the statements which are true.
(i) A + 0 = A
(ii) A.A = A
(iii) A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = 1
(iv) A. O = O

(a) (iii) (iv) are true
(b) (i) (ii) are true
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) are true.
(d) all are true
Answer:
(d) all are true

Question 58.
Find the wrong pair from the following:
(a) Null element : A + 1 = 1
(b) Involution : \(\overset { = }{ A }\) = A
(c) Demorgan’s : \(\overline{\mathrm{A+B}}\) =\(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) . \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\)
(d) Commutative : A + B = B . A
Answer:
(d) Commutative : A + B = B . A

Question 59.
Match the following

(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 60.
With 2 inputs in the truth table, how many set of values will be obtained.
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 4

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is nibble?
Answer:
Nibble is a collection of 4 bits. A nibble is a half a byte.

Question 2.
Expand ASCII.
Answer:
American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 3.
What is radix?
Answer:
The base value of a number is also known as the radix.

Question 4.
What is MSB and LSB?
Answer:
MSB means Most Significant Bit; LSB-Least Significant Bit

Question 5.
Expand: BCD, EBCDIC, ASCII
Answer:
BCD – Binary Coded Decimal; EBCDIC – Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code; ASCII – American Standard Code for Information Interchange.

Question 6.
Define word length?
Answer:
Word length refers to the number of bits processed by a computers CPU.

Question 7.
What are the methods of converting a number from decimal to binary.
Answer:

1. Repeated division by two.
2. Sum of powers of 2.

Question 8.
How will you convert a number from octal to Binary.
Answer:
For each octal digit in the given number write its 3 digits binary equivalent using positional notation.

Question 9.
What are the various ways for Binary representation of signed numbers?
Answer:

1. Signed magnitude representation
2. 1’s complement
3. 2’s complement

Question 10.
Write a short note on BCD.
Answer:

1. BCD stands for Binary Coded Decimal system.
2. BCD is 26 bit encoding system.
3. IT can handle 64 characters.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is binary number system?
Answer:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Example:
The binary sequence (11101)₂ has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)₂ = 1 x 2³ + 1 x 2² + 0 x 2¹ + 1 x 2⁰
= 8 + 4 + 0 + 1
= (13)₁₀

Question 2.
What is octal number system?
Answer:
Octal number system uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (8 digits): Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.
Example:
The Octal sequence (547)₈ has the decimal equivalent:

Question 3.
What is decimal number system?
Answer:
It consists of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9(10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day to day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.
Example:
(123)₁₀ = (1 x 10²) + (2 x 10¹) + (3 x 10⁰)
= 100 + 20 + 3
= (123)₁₀

Question 4.
Write the distributive law.
Answer:
A . (B + C) = A . B + A . C
A + (B . C) = (A + B) . (A + C)

Question 5.
What is truth table?
Answer:
A truth table represents all the possible values of logical variable or statements along with ail the possible results of given combination of truth values.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the different types of number systems?
Answer:
Different Types of Number Systems

A numbering system is a way of representing numbers. The most commonly used numbering system in real life is Decimal number system. Other number systems are Binary, Octal, Hexadecimal number system. Each number system is uniquely identified by its base value or radix. Radix or base is the count of number of digits in each number system. Radix or base is the general idea behind positional numbering system.

Decimal Number System:
It consists of 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9(10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day to day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.
Example:
(123)₁₀ = 1 x 10² + 2 x 10¹ + 3 x 10⁰
= 100 + 20 + 3
= (123)₁₀

Binary Number System:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Example:
The binary sequence (1101)₂ has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)₂ = 1 x 2³ + 1 x 2² + 0 x 2¹ + 1 x 2⁰
= 8 + 4 + 0 + 1
= (13)₁₀

Octal Number System:
Octal number system uses digits 0,1,2,3,4,5,6 and 7 (8 digits). Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.
Example:
The Octal sequence (547)₈ has the decimal equivalent:
(547)₈ = 5 x 8² + 4 x 8² + 7 x 8⁰
= 5 x 64 + 4 x 8 + 7 x 1
= 320 + 32 + 7
= (359)₁₀

Hexadecimal Number System:
A hexadecimal number is represented using base 16. Hexadecimal or Hex numbers are used as a shorthand form of binary sequence. This system is used to represent data in a more compact manner. Since 16 symbols are used, 0 to F, the notation is called hexadecimal. The first 10 symbols are the same as in the decimal system, 0 to 9 and the remaining 6 symbols are taken from the first 6 letters of the alphabet sequence, A to F, where A represents 10, B is 11, C is 12, D is 13, E is 14 and F is 15.

Question 2.
Explain the octal to decimal conversion and hexadecimal to decimal conversion.
Answer:
Octal to Decimal Conversion:
To convert Octal to Decimal, we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the Octal digits and list the powers of 8 from right to left(Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation of the digit write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Add all the values.

Example:
Convert (1265)₈ to equivalent Decimal number

(1265)₈ = 512 x 1 + 64 x 2 + 8 x 6 + 1 x 5
= 512 + 128 + 48 + 5
(1265)₈ = (693)₁₀

Hexadecimal to Decimal Conversion:
To convert Hexadecimal to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the Hexadecimal digits and list the powers of 16 from right to left (Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Add all the values to get one final value.

Example:
Convert (25F)₁₆ into its equivalent Decimal number.

Question 3.
Explain the binary addition and binary subtraction
Answer:
Binary Addition:
The following table is useful when adding two binary numbers.

Example Add: 1011₂ + 1001₂

Example : Perform Binary addition for the
following : 23₁₀ + 12₁₀
Step 1 : Convert 23 and 12 into binary form

Step 2 : Binary addition of 23 and 12:

Binary Subtraction:
The table for Binary Subtraction is as follows:

When subtracting 1 from 0, borrow 1 from the next Most Significant Bit, when borrowing from the next Most Significant Bit, if it is 1, replace it with 0. If the next Most Significant Bit is 0, you must borrow from a more significant bit that contains 1 and replace it with 0 and Os upto that point become Is.
Example : Subtract 1001010₂ – 10100₂

Example Perform binary addition for the following: (-21)₁₀ + (5)₁₀
Step 1 : Change – 21 and 5 into binary form

Step 2:

Step 3.
Binary Addition of – 21 and 5:

Question 4.
Explain the theorems of boolean algebra.
Answer:
Theorems of Boolean Algebra:
Identity:
A + 0 = A
A. 1 = A

Complement:
A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = 1
A. \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) = 0

Commutative:
A + B = B + A
A. B = B .A

Associative:
A + (B + C) = (A + B) + C
A. (B . C) = (A. B). C

Distributive
A. (B + C) = A B + A. C
A + (B . C) = (A + B). (A + C)

Null Element:
A + 1 = 1
A. 0 = 0

Involution
(\(\overset { = }{ A }\)) = A

Indempotence:
A +A = A
A.A = A

Absorption:
A + (A . B) = A
A . (A + B) = A

3rd Distributive:
A + \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\). B = A + B

De Morgan’s:
\(\overline{\mathrm{A+B}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\).\(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)
(\(\overline{\mathrm{A.B}}\)) = \(\overline{\mathrm{A}}\) + \(\overline{\mathrm{B}}\)