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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Free Download Question 1.
Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by
(a) Pandyan Neducheliyan
(b) Cheran Senguttuvan
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Mudathirumaran
Answer:
(b) Cheran Senguttovanj

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 2.
Which dynasty was not in power during the Sangam Age?
(a) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cheras
Answer:
(c) Pallavas

6th Social Guide Term 3 Question 3.
The rule of Pandyas was followed by
(a) Satavahanas
(b) Cholas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

6th Standard Social Science Guide In English Medium Pdf Download Question 4.
The lowest unit of administration during the Sangam Age was ……………..
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Ur
(d) Pattinam
Answer:
(c) Ur

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 5.
What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the Kurinji region?
(a) Plundering
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Hunting and gathering

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 1.
Assertion (A) :The assembly of the poets was known as Sangam.
Reason (R) :Tamil was the language of Sangam literature,
a. Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
Both A and R is not true.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A

6th Social Science Guide Question 2.
Which of the following statements are not true?
(b) The Pathitrupathu provides information about Chera Kings.
(c) The earliest literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of prose,
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 only

6th Std Social Science Guide Question 3.
The ascending order of the administrative division in the ancient Tamizhagam was
a. Ur < Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam
b. Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
c. Ur < Mandalam < Kurram < Nadu
d. Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam < Ur
Answer:
b Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam

6th Standard Social Guide Question 4.
Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia
Chera – 1. Fish
Chola – 2. Tiger
Pandya – 3. Bow and arrow
A. 3 2 1
B. 1 2 3
C. 3 1 2
D. 2 1 3
Answer:
A. 3 2 1

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. The battle of Venni was won by ___________
2. The earliest Tamil grammar work of the Sangam period was ___________
3. ___________ built Kallanai across the river Kaveri.
4. The chief of the army was known as ___________
5. Land revenue was called ___________

Answer:

1. Karikalana
2. Tholkappriya
3. Karikalana
4. Thanithalaivan
5. Irai

IV. True or False :

1. The singing bards of the Sangam age were called Irular.
2. Caste system developed during the Sangam period.
3. Kizhar was the village chief.
4. Puhar was the general term for city.
5. Coastal region was called Marudham

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

V. Match :

1. Thennar – i Cheras
2. Vanavar – ii Cholas
3. Senni – iii Velir
4. Adiyaman – iv Pandyas

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentence

Question 1.
Name any two literacy sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.
Answer:
Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai and Patthupattu are some of the literary sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.

Question 2.
What was Natukkal or Virakkal?
Answer:
In anciant Tamizhagam, the stones erected to commemorate the heroes who died in the battle field are called Natukal (Veerakkal)

Question 3.
Name five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature.
The five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature are
Answer:

1. Kurinji.
2. Mullai.
3. Marutham.
4. Neithal.
5. Palai.

Question 4.
Name any two archaeological sites related to the Sangam period.
Answer:

1. Adichanallur
2. Arikamedu

Question 5.
Name the seven patrons (KadaiyeluVallalgal).
The seven patrons were

1. Pari
2. Kari
3. Ori
4. Pegan
5. Ay
6. Adiyaman
7. Nalli

Question 6.
Name any three Tamil poetic works of Kalabhra period.
Answer:

1. Tamil Navalar Charithai
2. Yaperunkalam
3. Periapuranam

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Discuss the status of women in the Sangam Society.
Answer:

1. There was no restriction for women in social life.
2. There were learned and wise women.
3. Forty women poets had lived and left behind their valuable works.
4. Marriage was a matter of self-choice.
5. However, Chastity (Karpu) was considered the highest virtue of women.
6. Sons and daughters had equal shares in their parent’s property.
7. Women poets of Sangam Age were Arraiyar, Velliveethiyar, Kakkaipadiniyar, AathiManthiyar, Ponmudiyar.

VIII. Hots

Question 1.
KarikalValavan Is regarded as the greatest Chela king. Justify.
Answer:

1. KarikalValavan or Karikalan was the most famous of the Chola kings.
2. He defeated the combined army of the Cheras, Pandyas and the eleven Velir Chieftains who supported them at Venni, a small village in the Thanjavur region.
3. He converted forests into cultivable lands.
4. He built Kallanai across the river Kaveri to develop agriculture.
5. Their port Puhar attracted merchants from various regions of the Indian Ocean.
6. The Pattinapaalai a poetic work in the pathinenkeezhkanakku gives elaborate information of the trading activity during the rule of Karikalan.

Question 2.
The period of Kalabhra is not a dark age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. The literary sources include Tamil Navalar Charithai, Yapernkalam and Periapuranam for the period of Kalabhra.
2. Seevaka Chinthamani and Kundalakesi were aslo written during this period. Many works under pathinenkeezh kanakku were composed.
3. During this period Jainism and Buddhism became prominent.
4. The – introduction of Sanskrit and Prakrit developed Vattezhuththu script.
5. Trade and commerce flourished.

So the Kalabhra Period is not a dark age.

IX. Map Work :
Question 1.
Mark and colour the extent of Chera, Chola and Pandya empires on the river map of South India.

Question 2.
Mark the following places,
a. Kerkil
b. Kaveripoompattinam
c. Mwsiri
d. Uratyur
e. Madurai

XI. Answer Grid

Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Cheran Senguttuvan’s younger brother was .
(a) IlangoAdigal
(b) Udayan Cheralathan
(c) Cheran Irumporai
(d) Imayavaramban
Answer:
(a) Ilango Adigal

Question 2.
The epic character from Silappathikaram
(a) Kannagi
(b) Manimegalai
(c) Sita
(d) Panjali
Answer:
(a) Kannagi

Question 3.
The Pandyas ruled the present day Tamilnadu.
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Southern
(d) Northern
Answer:
(c) Southern

Question 4.
The first emporium of India is …………….
(a) Muziri
(b) Madurai
(c) Vanchi
(d) Puhar
Answer:
(a) Muziri

Question 5.
One of the Seven patrons were
(a) Nalli
(b) Vendan
(c) Valavan
(d) Vanaran
Answer:
(a) Nalli

Question 6.
The place served as the court of .Justice was .
(a) Padai
(b) Mandram
(c) Avai
(d) Ariyanai
Answer:
(b) Mandram

Question 7.
Mudur means
(a) big village
(b) small village
(c) old village
(d) developing village
Answer:
(c) old village

Question 8.
Paddy and Sugarcane were produced in .
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Palai
(d) Mullai
Answer:
(a) Marutham

Question 9.
Yapernkalam was one of the liter a sources of the
(a) Pandyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Marutham w as called fertile land.
Reason (R) :Marutham produced Paddy and Sugarcane.
a. A is true but R is false.
b. Both A and R is not true.
c. Both A and R are true ; But R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are true ; R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is / are not true.
a. Tholkappiam is a work on Tamil grammar.
b. Perunarkilli was a prominent Chera ruler.
c. Sembiyan was a title assumed by the Cholas.
d. Madurai was the capital of the Cholas.

1. a and b only
2. b and d only
3. c only iv. c and d only

Answer:

1. b and d only

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is / are true?.
a. Nanmaran was praised as the lord of Korkai.
b. Paddaikottil was a place where weapons were kept.
c. Women had many restrictions in social life during Sangam age.
d. Koothu means folk drama.

1. a and b are true
2. b is true
3. c and d are true
4. b and d are true

Answer:

1. b and d are true

Question 4
Match the following dynasties with the garlands they signified.
a. Chera – i. Margosa.
b. Chola – ii. Fig
c. Pandya – iii. Palmyra

1. iii, ii, i
2. ii, iii, i
3. i, ii, iii

Answer:

1. iii, ii, ii

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Sangam age belonged to ______ age.
2. Cheran Irumporai issued ______ in his name.
3. The ______ region remained the central part of the Kingdom.
4. Kallanai means a dam ______
5. MudukudimiPeruvazhuthi issued coins to commemorate his performance of many ______
6. The crown prince was known as ______
7. Veera kazhal means ______
8. Pattinam was the name for a ______

Answer:

1. Iron
2. Coins
3. Kaveri delta
4. Made of stone
5. vedic rituals
6. Komahan
7. coin
8. Kaveri deltas
9. made of stone
10. Vedic rituals
11. Komahan
12. Heroic anklet
13. coastal town

IV. True or False :

1. The King’s court was called Arasavai.
2. The King’s army consisted of eight divisions.
3. The entire kingdom was called Nadu.
4. The eco-regions were five thinais.
5. Varuna system existed in the Sangam age.
6. Sangam age developed the concept of Muthamizh.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True

V. Match:

1. Kurinji – i. Herding
2. Mullai – ii. Fishing
3. Marutham – iii. Heroic Deeds
4. Neithal – iv. Agriculture
5. Palai – v. Hunting

Answer:

1. v
2. i
3. iv
4. ii
5. iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the boundary of Tamizhagam.
Answer:
Tamizhagam started from Vengadam (Tirupathi hill) in the north to Kanyakumari (Cape comorin) in the south, bounded by sea on the east and the west.

Question 2.
What were the Festivals and Entertainments in the sangam period?
Answer:
Festivals:

1. People celebrated sveral festivals.
2. Some of them were the harvest festival (Pontal), the festival of spring and Karthigai.
3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the capital.

Entertainments:

1. There were many amusements and games.
2. Dances, festivals, bull fights, cork fights, dice, hunting, wrestling and playing in swings were some of them.
3. Children played with toy cart and with the sand houses made by them.

Question 3.
Where did the Cheras rule?
Answer:
The Cheras ruled over the central and north Travancore, Cochin, South Malabar and Kongu region of TamilNadu.

Question 4.
Mention about the Chera king Senguttuvan.
Answer:

1. Cheran Senguttuvan went on a military expedition to North India.
2. He brought stones from the Himalayas for making the idol of Kannagi, an epic character from Silappathikaram. He introduced Pattini cult.

Question 5.
Why was Kallanai built?
Answer:

1. Kallanai was a dyke (thick wall), built with stones.
2. It was constructed across the Kaveri to divert water throughout the delta region for irrigation.
3. When it was built, Kallanai irrigated an area of about 69,000 acres.

Question 6.
Why is Nedunchezhian hailed on the most popular warrior?
Answer:

1. Nedunchezhiyan is hailed as the most popular warrior.
2. He defeated the combined army of the Chera, Chola and five Velir Chieftains at Talayalanganam.
3. He is praised as the lord of Korkai.

Question 7.
What were the Symbols of royal used during the Sangam period?
Answer:
Kol, Murasu and Venkudai were used as the symbols of the royal authority.

Question 8.
What were the prominent weapons used during the Sangam period?
Answer:

1. The prominent weapons used during this period were sword, kedayam (shield), tomaram (lance) spears, bows and arrows.
2. Tomaram is mentioned as a missile to be thrown at the enemy from a distance.
3. The place where the weapons were kept was known as Paddaikottil.

Question 9.
Mention the important towns of the Sangam period.
Answer:
Puhar, Uraiyur, Korkai, Madurai, Musiri, Vanji or Karur and Kanchi were the important towns of the Sangam period.

Question 10.
What were the festivals celebrated by the people of the Sangam Age?
Answer:

1. People celebrate several festivals.
2. The harvest festival, (Pongal) and the festival of spring, Kaarthigai, were some of them.
3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the Capital.

Question 11.
What were the two kinds of markets or bazaars in Puhar and Madurai ?
Answer:

1. There were two kinds of markets or bazaars in the leading cities like Puhar and Madurai.
2. In Madurai, they were Nalangadi (the morning bazaar) and Allanga (the evening bazaar).
3. In these markets, large varieties as well as large quantities of goods were sold and purchased.

Question 12.
Mention the major exports and imports of Musiri, Tondi, Korkai.
Answer:

1. Main exports : Salt, pepper, Ivory, Silk, Spices, Diamonds, Saffron, Precious stones, Muslin, Sandal wood.
2. Main imports : Topaz, tin, wine, glass, horses.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.

Write about the sources of the Sangam Age.
Answer:
(i) Inscriptions – Hathigumpha Inscription of King Karavela ofKalinga, Pugalur (near Karur) Inscription, Ashokan Edicts II and XIII, and
inscriptions found at Mangulam, Alagarmalai and Ki lavalavu (all near Madurai).

(ii) Copper plates – Velvikudi and Chinnamanur copper plates.

(iii) Coins – Issued by the Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas and the chieftains of Sangam Age as well as the Roman coins.

(iv) Megalithic
Monuments – Burials and Hero stones.

(v) Excavated
Materials from – Adichanallur, Arikamedu, Kodumanal, Puhar, Korkai, Alagankulan, Uraiyur.

(vi) Literary Sources – Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai,Pathupattu, Pathinankeezhkanakku, Pattinapalai and Maduraikanji. Epics Silapathikaram and Manimegalai.

(vii) Foreign Notices – The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea, Pliny’s Natural History, Ptolemy’s Geography, Megasthenes’s Indica, Rajavali, Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa.

Question 2.
Write about the Kingship under the Sangam polity.
Answer:

1. The kingship was hereditary.
2. The eldest son of the reigning king generally succeeded to the throne.
3. The coronation ceremony was known as Arasukattilerudhal or Mudisoottuvila.
4. The crown prince was known as Komahan.
5. King held a daily durbar (naalavai) at which he heard and resolved all the disputes.
6. The income to the state was through taxation.
7. The kings and soldiers wore the heroic anklet (Veera kazhal).
8. Spies were used.
9. A wound in the back was considered a disgrace.

Question 3.
Write a note on a) Arts and b) Occupation during Sangam age.
Answer:
Arts:

1. There are many references to variety of musical instruments such as drum, flute and yazh.
2. Karikalan was master of seven notes of music.
3. Singing bards were called panar and vraliyar.
4. Dancing was performed by kanigaiyar. Koothu was the most important cultural practice of the people of Sangam Age.
5. They developed the concept of Muthamizh (Iyal, Isai, Naatakam).

Occupation :

1. The major occupations of the people were : agriculture, cattle rearing, fishing and hunting.
2. Other craftsmen like carpenter, blacksmith, goldsmith, and potters were also part of the population.
3. Weaving was the most common part-time occupation of the farmers and a regular full time job for many others.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
a. Write a note on Ornamental Gateway.
Answer:
Omainental gateway (Pailou) built during Han dynasty (202 BCE – 220 CE) across street lined with small shobs, Hanzhong, Shaanxi Province China in 1875.
b. Write a note on Pyramid Mayan civilisation

1. Mayan pyramid : The Maya are a people of Southern Mexico and northern central America with some 3000 years of history.
2. Archaeological evidence shows the Mayan started to build ceremonial architecture approximately 3000 yrs ago.
3. Mesoamerican pyramids or pyramid shaped structures form a prominent part of ancient Mesoamerican architecture resemblance to Egyptian pyramids.

Students can Download English Poem 3 Your Space Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 3 Your Space

Read And Understand

A. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

Your Space Poem Question 1.
Why should we speak gently?
Answer:
We should speak gently because soft and kind words leave a deep and lasting impression. We can win people’s hearts by love and God too likes it and rewards us for eternity.

Your Space Poem Questions And Answers Question 2.
What do you infer about speaking with others from this poem?
Answer:
From this poem we understand that at all levels there is problems and sadness to everyone but with kind and gentle words they can be overcome.

Your Space Poem Summary Question 3.
What are the disadvantages of speaking harshly?
Answer:
Speaking harshly to people will deprive us of all the good we do here. It is far better to rule by love than fear. Harsh speakers will have more enemies than friends.

Your Space Poem 7th Standard Question 4.
Why does the poet tell us to speak gently to young children?
Answer:
When we speak gently to young children they too will learn to speak gently. Childhood period does not remain long, so we should teach children softly and mildly. We can get their love and trust only with kind words.

Your Space Poem Mind Map Question 5.
How should you speak with old people?
Answer:
We should use kind, gentle, loving and caring words with the old people because their days are numbered. Harsh words will make them sad but gentle words will keep them happy and they will die in peace.

B. Read the poem and fill in the blanks with the correct option.

(Soft,Vain,fear,joy,love,heard,toiled,mild,good,sand,life,harsh)

1. It is better far to rule by ______ , then _____.
2. Teach it in accents ______ and ______
3. Let no tone be ______ and _____
4. They may have ______ in ______
5. The _____, the _____,Which it may bring
6. The _____ of _____ are nearly run

Answer:

1. love; fear
2. soft; mild
3. harsh; heard
4. toiled; vain.
5. good; joy
6. sands; life

C. Pick out the words which rhyme with the given words and write similar rhyming words on your own.
Answer:

D. Take a stanza from the poem. Write it in the blanks and find the rhyme scheme.
Answer:

Your space Additional Questions

I. Read these lines and answer the questions given below.

Your Space Poem In Tamil Question 1.
Speak gently! -Love doth whisper low
The vows that true hearts bind;
And gently Friendship’s accents flow
Affections voice is kind.

(a) How does love speak?
Answer:
Love speaks as a low whisper.

(b) What does vows of love do?
Answer:
Vows of love binds true hearts.

7th Std English Poem Your Space Question 3.
What flows gently?
Answer:
Friendship.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Memory Poem Question 4.
How is the voice of affection?
Answer:
Kindness.

Your Space Poem Explanation Question 2.
Speak gently! – ’tis a little thing
Dropped in the hearts deep well;
The good, the joy, which it may bring,
Eternity shall tell.

Speak Gently Question 1.
What is a‘little thing?
Answer:
Speaking gently is a little thing.

Speak Gently Poem Question 2.
Where should we drop the gentle words?
Answer:
We drop them deep in the hearts.

Speak Gently Poem Summary Question 3.
What does gentle words in our deep hearts bring?
Answer:
The gentle words bring goodness and joy to our hearts.

Speak Gently Summary Question 4.
Till when will the goodness and joy last?
Answer:
Goodness and joy would last forever till eternity.

II. Short Questions and Answers.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th English Question 1.
Why do the youth require gentle words?
Answer:
The foundation for living a good life is made during the youth days. Youth have to build a family, career, earn for the future. Hence during this period of hard work, stress and anxieties, we should speak gentle motivating words so that they may pass through this phase of life in the best way.

Question 2.
“They have enough they must endure”. Who are ‘they’? What do they endure?
Answer:
‘They’ refers to the poor people. They have a lot to endure like want of money, ill health, lack of food, big family, illiteracy, oppression by the rich, etc.

Question 3.
Why do people err according to the poet? How do gentle words help them?
Answer:
According to the poet people err when man treat them harsh and unkindly. When we love them and treat them gently and kindly, it will heal their soul and we can win them back.

III. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Poet David Bates mentions about speaking gently to six categories of people. Who are they? Why should we speak gently to them?
Answer:
The six categories of people to whom we should speak gently are children, youngsters, aged, poor, the erring and to God.

1. Childhood days move fast so the gentle and kind words we speak and teach them will make them to love and trust us and also train them to speak so.

2. The youth pass through a period of stress, anxiety and carry burdens. To make them cross this phase happily and successfully, we must talk to them understandingly, gentle and patiently.

3. The old people are tired, weak and worried. They have only a brief time left to live, so help them live happily and peacefully. We must talk to them softly, caring and kind words.

4. The poor are already burdened and undergone sufferings, so we must not use rough, unkind words but only gentle kind words.

5. Speaking gently to the erring people will make them realize their mistakes and to reconcile, repent and come back.

6. Finally we should speak gently and with reverence to God who controls the fierce elements of the earth. God gave his life to give us peace, happiness and to forgive our sins.

Question 2.
What does the poet tell about gentle words and love in our hearts in stanza 1,2 and 9?
Answer:
Gentle words help to rule over people by love and not fear. This love exists long. Promises given in a low soft voice with love, help tie hearts together. Gentle words make friendship root deeper and kind words establish affection. Soft words are not difficult to speak. If gentle words are planted deeply in hearts , it will bring goodness and joy forever.

Question 3.
Compare the effect of gentle and harsh words in life.
Answer:

Speaking Gently

1. Gentle words rule our hearts by love.
2. Soft loving promises, whispered lowly, bind the hearts.
3. Gentle words bring friendship and affection.
4. Gentle words help children to love and trust us. It trains them to speak gently.
5. Speaking gently to youngsters relieves their stress and anxiety and makes them happy.
6. By speaking gently , the worn out old people will be happy and peaceful the rest of their life.
7. Kind caring words, to the burden enduring poor people, make their life happy.
8. Speaking gently to the erring people makes them repent and reconcile
9. Speaking gently and with reverence to God helps us get his favour.
10. Gentle words go deep in our hearts and bring goodness and joy forever.

Speaking Harshly

1. Harsh words bring fear and remove all good deeds.
2. Harsh words do not bring hearts closer.
3. Unkind words bring hatred and enmity.
4. Children who hear harsh words do not love and they too speak harshly later.
5. Unkind words to youngsters increase anxiety and burdens. They cannot be successful.
6. Harsh words on old people make them sad and unhappy. It reduces their life time.
7. Rude and unkind words make life horrible for the poor.
8. Harsh words on erring people make them worser and they would never come back.
9. Harsh words put God on the cross again
10. Harsh words, planted in the hearts, bring unhappiness forever

Warm Up

Look at the pictures given below. Fill in the blanks according to the clues given.
Answer:

Your Space Summary

The poet David Bates says that we should speak gently as it is easy to control people by love rather than by fear. The good deeds we do are spoilt by the rough words we speak.

When promises of love are expressed in a low voice, it ties the truly loving hearts. Friendship grows deeper through the kind words that flow. The language of affection is kindness. We must speak gently to gain the love of little children. Childhood period does not extend for a long time, hence we must speak caring, soft and mild words that they may remember always.

The youth and adolescents need gentle words as they already have burdens, worry and anxieties to undergo. We must help the youth pass their springtime in life in the best way happily and successfully by handling them with care, patiently and gently.

Next the poet asks us to speak gently to the seiner citizens. Our words and actions must not make their tired and worn out hearts more sorrowful. They have almost lived their life-time, so we must help them live the little time left, happily and peacefully.

The poor people must not hear rough and unkind words, says the poet. They already undergo hardships due to lack of money, food, health, oppression, etc.

We must use kind words to the criminals, prisoners and those who have committed mistakes in their lives to win them back and make them good. They could have become bad due to the unkindness shown towards them.

Finally the poet speaks about God. When God travelled on a fierce stormy sea, he commanded it to be calm and still and controlled the elements of nature. The same God gave his life on the cross to mend man’s sinful stubborn mind. So we should speak to him gently in prayer.

To conclude, the poet compares our hearts to a deep well. To conquer hearts we must put kind and gentle words into it. Those words would bring joy and goodness that lasts till the world ends.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct answer.

6th Computer Science Guide Question 1.
Who is the father of Computer?
(a) Martin Luther King
(b) Graham Bell
(c) Charlie Chaplin
(d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
(d) Charles Babbage

6th Standard Computer Science Guide Question 2.
Which of the following is another form of computer?
a. Blackboard
b. Mobile
c. Radio
d. Book
Answer:
b. Mobile

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Book Question 3.
When was the first computer introduced?
(a) 1980
(b) 1947
(c) 1946
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1946

6th Computer Guide Question 4.
Who is the computer’s first programmer?
a. Lady Wellington
b. Augusta ado Lovelace
c. Mary Curie
d. Mary Comb
Answer:
b. Augusta ado Lovelace

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Science Guide Question 5.
Pick out the odd one.
(a) Calculator
(b) Abacus
(c) Flash card
(d) Laptop
Answer:
(c) Flash card

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Data is ______ information.
2. World’s first general purpose computer is ______
3. Information is ______ data.
4. Fifth generation computer had ______ intelligence.
5. ______ is the device that uses Index number.

Answers:

1. unprocessed
2. Abacus
3. Processed
4. artificial
5. Analog Computer

III. State True or False.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Guide Question 1.
Computer is an Electronic device.
Answer:
True

6th Standard Computer Guide Question 2.
Sir Isaac Newton invented Computer.
Answer:
False. Charles Babbage invented Computer.

6th Computer Guide Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Computer can do calculations fast.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. e
5. a

V. Answer the following.

6th Std Computer Science Guide Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
Computer is an electronic device that process the data and information according to our needs.

Computer Science 6th Guide Question 2.
Who are the pioneers/forerunners of a computer?
Answer:
Charles Babbage and Augusta Ada Lovelace are the pioneers/forerunners of the computer.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Science Book Question 3.
Write a short note on Data.
Answer:

1. Data is the information that has to be processed.
2. They are in the form of numbers, alphabets and images.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Computer Science Question 4.
Name any four input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner and Web camera, etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Book Back Answers Question 5.
Differentiate Hardware and Software
Answer:
Hardware :
The parts that are available in the computer that helps the software to work.

Software :
The commands or programs that are used in a computer.

VI. Answer in detail.

6th Computer Book Answers Question 1.
Explain in detail the Applications of computer.
Answer:

1. Computer is used in textile shops for billing purpose.
2. It is used in railway station for issuing tickets.
3. It is used in the banks for multi purpose.
4. It is used in the ATMs.
5. It is used in Post office.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ______ is also a computer.
2. Computers are available in ______
3. ______ and ______ are different types of computers.

Answers:

1. Smart phone
2. different shapes
3. Laptops and tablets

II. Short Answers.

6th Computer Science Guide Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Mention the two types of softwares.
Answer:

1. Operating software
2. Application software

6th Standard Computer Book Back Answers Question 2.
Give any two examples of operating software.
Answer:
Windows and Linux are operating software.

6 Std Computer Science Guide Question 3.
Mention any two output devices.
Answer:
Printers and Monitors are output devices.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Development Of Industries In India 8th Standard Question 1.
Which of the following activities of the people will not come under handy craft?
(a) Carving statues out of stone
(b) Making bangles with glass
(c) Weaving silk sarees
(d) Smelting of iron
Answer:
(d) Smelting of Iron

Question 2.
The oldest industry in India was ……….. industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Steel
(c) Electrical
(d) Fertilizers
Answer:
(a) Textile

Question 3.
The woolen and leather factories became prominent in …………
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmadabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Decca
Answer:
(c) Kanpur

Question 4.
What was the aim of first Three Five year Plans of India?
(a) To control population growth
(b) To reduce illiteracy rate
(c) To built a strong industrial base
(d) To empower the women
Answer:
(c) To built a strong industrial base

Question 5.
What was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
(a) Loss of royal patronage
(b) Competition of machine made goods
(c) Industrial policy of India
(d) Trading policy of British
Answer:
(c) Industrial policy of India

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……….. was the integral part in the life of the people.
2. Industrial revolution took place in …………
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in ………………
4. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly Valley at ………. near Calcutta.
5. ………… shortened the distance between Europe and India.

Answer:

1. Craft
2. 1948
3. 1939
4. Rishra
5. Suez Canal

III. Match the following

1. Tavernier – Drain Theory
2. Dacca – Paper mill
3. Dadabai Naoroji – Artisan
4. Ballygunj – Muslin
5. Smiths – French traveller

Answer:

1. Tavernier – French traveller
2. Dacca – Muslin
3. Dadabai Naoroji – Drain Theory
4. Ballygunj – Paper mill
5. Smiths – Artisan

IV. State True or False

1. India was famous for cotton and silk cloths.
2. The railway was introduced in India by the British.
3. Steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Jamshedpur.
4. The industrial policy of 1948, brought mixed economy in industrial sector.
5. The tenth and eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of Agricultural production.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) According to Edward Baines, ‘The birth place of cotton manufacture is in England’.
(ii) Before mechanised industry handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in rural India.
(iii) Saurashtra was known for tin industry.
(iv) Construction of Suez Canal made the British goods cheaper in India.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(b) ii and iv are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian handicrafts collapsed under the colonial rule.
Reason (R) : British made India as the producer of raw materials and markets for their finished products.
(a) A is correct R is correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R is correct
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R is correct

Question 3.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Bernier – Shajahan
(b) Cotton mill – Ahmedabad
(c) TISCO – Jamshedpur
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980
Answer:
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the traditional handicrafts industries of India?
Answer:

1. The traditional handicrafts industries of India are textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
2. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils.

Question 2.
Write about the Drain theory.
Answer:
The Drain theory of Dadabai Naoroji was the first to acknowledge that the poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to Britain.

Question 3.
Name the inventions which made the production of textiles on large scale?
Answer:
The invention of cotton gin, flying shuttle, spinning jenny and steam engine in England, which made the production of textiles on large scale.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Confederation of Indian Industry.
Answer:

1. The Confederation of Indian Industry is a business association in India.
2. CIT is a non – Govemment, not – for – profit, industry – led and industry – managed organisation.
3. It was founded in 1985.

Question 5.
What is de – industrialisation?
Answer:
The process of disruption of traditional Indian crafts and decline in national income has been referred to as de – industrialisation.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was the trading policy of British caused for the decline of the Indian Industries?
Answer:

1. All the policies implemented by the British government in India had a deep impact on India’s indigenous industries.
2. Free trade policy followed by the East India Company compelled the Indian traders to sell their goods below the market prices.
3. This forced many craftsmen to abandon their ancestral handicraft talents.
4. East India company’s aim was to buy the maximum quantity of Indian manufactured goods at the cheapest price and sell them to other European countries for a huge profit.
5. This affected the traditional Indian industry.
6. The British followed the policy of protective tariffs that was much against the trading interests of India.
7. Heavy duties were charged on Indian goods in Britain, but at the same time, the English goods entering India were charged only nominal duties.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the plantation industries.
Answer:
Plantation industries :

1. The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans. This provide jobs on large scale.
2. In reality, it could meet the increasing demands for tea, coffee and indigo by the British Society.
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1839.
4. Coffee plantation also started simultaneously.
5. As the tea plantation was the most important industry of Eastern India, coffee plantation became the center of activities in South India.
6. The Third important plantation, which gave birth to factory was jute.
7. All these Industries were controlled by many former employees of the British East India Company.

Question 3.
Explain Industrial development after 1991 reforms.
Answer:

1. The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
2. India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
3. The Tenth and Eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
4. The abolition of Industrial licensing, dismantling of price controls, dilution of reservation of small scale industries.
5. Virtual abolition of monopoly law enabled Indian industry to flourish,
6. The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

VII. HOTs

Question 1.
How do handicraft products differ from machine made products?
Answer:
Handicraft:
Something you make with your own hands, especially an ornament or decoration, is a handicraft. Instead, items made by artisans like pottery, handwoven blankets, handmade jewellery and quilts stitched by hand are all examples of handicrafts.

Machine made Products:
Machine made Products are produced faster and all are exactly the same. Machine manufacturing is faster and more economical. Also machine made goods are cheaper than hand made goods.

IX. Mark the following places on the outline map of India

1. Bombay
2. Calcutta
3. Dacca
4. Jamshedpur
5. Rishra
6. Ahmedabad
7. Kanpur
8. Kulti
9. New Delhi
10. Assam
Answer:

X. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Name the industries in your state and divide them into Agro based metal based and forest based.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a project on air, water, and land pollution due to the industrial development in India.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
Make a power point presentation on the industrial development of India and highlight the main features of those developments.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The ………….. in India has a rich history.
(a) Craft
(b) Steel
(c) Agricultural
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Craft

Question 2.
Saurashtra was known for ………………
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Bell Metal
(c) Muslin Clothes
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bell Metal

Question 3.
Dacca was identified with ………….
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Muslin Clothes
(c) Bell Metal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Muslin Clothes

Question 4.
The Tradition Indian Industry was known in the fields of …………..
(a) textiles
(b) woodwork
(c) ivory
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Mummies in …………. tombs dating from 2000 BC were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
(a) Egyptian
(b) British
(c) Spanish
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Egyptian

Question 6.
A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a …………..
(a) dress
(b) matchbox
(c) tin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) match box

Question 7.
………… industry was the oldest industry in India.
(a) Steel
(b) Jute
(c) Textile
(d) Sugar
Answer:
(c) Textile

Question 8.
Poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to …………
(a) England
(b) Britain
(c) Egyptian
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Britain

Question 9.
Free trade policy followed by the ………….
(a) India
(b) England
(c) East India Company
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(c) East India Company

Question 10.
The process of Industrialization started in India from the mid ………..
(a) 18th Century
(b) 19th Century
(c) 20th Century
(d) 21st Century
Answer:
(c) 20th Century

Question 11.
The beginning of modern industry is associated with the development in mainly plantation like …………
(a) jute
(b) cotton
(c) steel
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
The ……….. was the first to attract the Europeans.
(a) Machine based Industries
(b) Plantation Industries
(c) Heavy Industries
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Plantation Industries

Question 13.
The Assam Tea Company was founded in ……………
(a) 1839
(b) 1939
(c) 1739
(d) 1840
Answer:
(a) 1839

Question 14.
The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was setup in …………..
(a) 1905
(b) 1906
(c) 1907
(d) 1908
Answer:
(c) 1907

Question 15.
In India, Modern Industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry at ……….. in 1854.
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(d) Bombay

Question 16.
The First Paper Mill was started in …………. near Calcutta in 1870.
(a) Ballygunj
(b) Rishra
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jamshedji
Answer:
(a) Ballygunj

Question 17.
Steel was First manufactured by modern methods at Kulti in ………….
(a) 1843
(b) 1874
(c) 1865
(d) 1878
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 18.
The year 1991 undered a new era of the ……………..
(a) Modernisation
(b) Industrialization
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

Question 9.
The New Policy welcomes ……………
(a) Craft
(b) Foreign Investment
(c) Agriculture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Foreign Investment

Question 20.
………….. is an important component of economic growth.
(a) Modernisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:
(d) Industrialisation

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. industry was started in Hoogly valley at Rishra near Culcutta
2. The …………. and ………… factories become prominent in Kanpur.
3. The ………… tea company was founded in 1939.
4. The steel was first manufactured by modern methods at ………..
5. ………… for tin industry.
6. The Second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture is ……….
7. The British conquest transformed Indian economy (self-reliant) into ………economy.
8. The accelerated industrialization began with the development of ……….. and ……………
9. The length of ………….. increased from 2,573 Km in 1861 to 55,773 Km in 1914.
10. ………….. mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
11. The heavy industries included the ……….. and ……….. industry.
12. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of ………. century.
13. Industrial Policy Resolution 1956, industries were classified into ………. categories.
14. ………….. skills were short in supply.
15. Very important aim of the first three five year plans were ……………. India.
16. A new era of the economic liberalization in …………..
17. The …………. policy welcomes foreign investments.
18. …………. has now a large verity of industries producing goods of varied nature
19. Give example for primary sector ……….
20. There was a limited development of mining, especially …………

Answer:

1. Jutej
2. Wollen and leather
3. Assam
4. Jamshedpui
5. Vanga
6. Handicrafts
7. colonial
8. roadways and railways
9. railways
10. Cotton
11. Iron and Steel
12. 20th Century
13. Three
14. Technical
15. Strong Industrial
16. 1991
17. New
18. India
19. agriculture
20. coal

III. Match the following:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. f
6. c

IV. State True or False:

1. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly ally at Rishra near Punjab.
2. Suez canal shortened the distance between Europe and India.
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1939.
4. The expand form of TISCO – True Iron and Steel Company.
5. Cotton Mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
6. India was famous for its quality of cotton and silk clothes.
7. Saurashtra was known for Dacca.
8. Vanga was known for tin industry.
9. India become the market for the finished products of Britain.
10. During the first half of 19th Century western countries were industrialization.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
(ii) Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.
(iii) The process of industrialization started In India from the mid-18’ century.
(iv) The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans.

(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(b) (i), (iii) & (iv) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian became the market for the finished products of Britain.
Reason (R) : The British conquest transformed Indian Economy (self-reliant) into colonial economy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Shajahan – Jamshedpur
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry
(c) TISCO – Bernier
(D) 1991 – New Agricultural Policy
Answer:
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry

Question 4.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
a) Paper Mill – Muslin
(b) Smiths – Artisan
(c) Drain Theory – The British exploitation of India’s resources
(d) De – industrialisation – 19th Century
Answer:
(a) Paper Mill – Muslin

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on industrial development during 1965 – 1980.
Answer:

1. As the first three five year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
2. The consumer goods sector is the backbone of rural economy.
3. As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

Question 2.
Classify the Industries on the basis of raw material.
Solution:
On the basis of raw material used, industries can be classified into –

1. Agro – based Industries
2. Mineral – based Industries

Question 3.
When and where was the first paper mill started?
Answer:
The first paper mill was started in Ballygunj near Calcutta in 1870.

Question 4.
Write any two machine based industries started in India.
Answer:

1. In India modern industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry in Bombay in 1854.
2. In 1855, Jute industry was started in the hooghly valley at Rishra near Calcutta.

Question 5.
Write about the Muslin of Dacca.
Answer:

1. Mummies in Egyptian tombs dating from 2000 BC (BCE) were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
2. A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a match box.

Question 6.
What happen to Indian handicrafts under the colonical rule?
Answer:
Indian handicrafts that had made the country famous collapsed under the colonical rule.

Question 7.
Which is an important component of economic growth?
Answer:

1. Industrialization is an important component of economic growth.
2. India’s industrial expansion over the plan period presents a mixed picture.

Question 8.
Write about Indian road network.
Answer:

1. The Indian road network has become one of the largest in the world.
2. Government efforts led to the expansion of the network of National Highways, State highways and major district roads, which in turn has directly contributed to industrial growth.

Question 9.
Classify the Industries oh the basis of ownership?
Answer:
On the basis of ownership it can be classified into –

1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector and
4. Co – operative Sector

Question 10.
What are the specialized goods produced by the Traditional Crafts?
Answer:
Some specialized goods produced by the traditional crafts are:

1. Cotton textiles
2. Muslin
3. Wool
4. Silk and
5. Metal articles

VII Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain the phases of Industrial development in India.
Answer:
1. Industrial development during 1950’s to 1965:

• During this phase, a majority of consumer goods were produced in India.
• The Industrial sector was underdeveloped with weak infrastructure.
• The first three Five-Year plans were very important because their aim was to build a strong industrial base in independent India.

2. Industrial development during 1965’s – 1980:

• As the first three Five-year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
• The consumer goods sector is the beck bone of rural economy.
• As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

3. Industrial development during 1980’s till 1991:

• The period of the 1980’s can be considered as the period of the industrial recovery.
• This period witnessed quite a healthy industrial growth.

4. Industrial development post 1991 Reforms:

• The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
• India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
• The Tenth and Eleventh Five-year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
• The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

Question 2.
Discuss about the Traditional Crafts of India.
Answer:

1. The Crafts in India has a rich history. Crafts were an integral part in the life of the people.
2. Before arrival mechanized industry, the production of Indian handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture.
3. The traditional Indian industry was known in the fields of textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
4. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
5. Some specialized goods were produced for cotton textiles, muslin, wool, silk and metal articles.
6. India was famous for its fine quality of cotton and silk clothes.
7. There are references made in many scholarly works to the professions of the weaver, the tailor and the dyer.
8. Certain centers of metal industry well quite well known.
9. For example, Saurashtra was known for bell metal, Vanga for tin industry and Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the Heavy Industries.
Answer:

1. The heavy industries included the iron and steel industry, steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Kulti in 1874.
2. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of 20th century.
3. However, the credit for the development of large-scale manufacture of steel in India goes to Jamshedji Tata.
4. The Tata Iron and steel company (TISCO) was setup in 1907 at Jamshedpur,
5. It started producing pig iron in 1911 and steel ingots in 1912.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 3 Computer Organization Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 3 Computer Organization

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Computer Organization Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

11th Computer Science Chapter 3 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Which of the following is said to be the brain of a computer?
(a) Input devices
(b) Output devices
(c) Memory device
(d) Microprocessor
Answer:
(d) Microprocessor

Computer Science Chapter 3 Answers Question 2.
Which of the following is not the part of a microprocessor unit?
(a) ALU
(b) Control unit
(c) Cache memory
(d) register
Answer:
(c) Cache memory

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Computer Science Question 3.
How many bits constitute a word?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) determined by the processor used
Answer:
(d) determined by the processor used

Class 11 Computer Science Chapter 3 Notes Question 4.
Which of the following device identifies the location when address is placed in the memory address register?
(a) Locator
(b) encoder
(c) decoder
(d) multiplexer
Answer:
(c) decoder

Computer Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Which of the following is a CISC processor?
(a) Intel P6
(b) AMD K6
(c) Pentium III
(d) Pentium IV
Answer:
(c) Pentium III

Samacheer Kalvi Computer Science Question 6.
Which is the fastest memory?
(a) Hard disk
(b) Main memory
(c) Cache memory
(d) Blue – Ray disc
Answer:
(c) Cache memory

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Question 7.
How many memory locations are identified by a processor with 8 bits address bus at a time?
(a) 28
(b) 1024
(c) 256
(d) 8000
Answer:
(c) 256

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 11th Computer Science Question 8.
What is the capacity of 12 cm diameter DVD with single sided and single layer?
(a) 4.7 GB
(b) 5.5 GB
(c) 7.8 GB
(d) 2.2 GB
Answer:
(a) 4.7 GB

11th Samacheer Kalvi Computer Science Question 9.
What is the smallest size of data represented in a CD?
(a) blocks
(b) sectors
(c) pits
(d) tracks
Answer:
(c) pits

Question 10.
Display devices are connected to the computer through.
(a) USB port
(b) PS/2 port
(c) SCSI port
(d) VGA connector
Answer:
(d) VGA connector

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the parameters which influence the characteristics of a microprocessor?
Answer:
It depends on (a) Clock speed (b) Instruction set (c) Word size

Question 2.
What is an instruction?
Answer:
Instruction is a command which is given to the computer to perform an operation on a piece of data.

Question 3.
What is a program counter?
Answer:
A program counter (PC) is a CPU register in the computer processor which has the address of the next instruction to be executed from memory. It is a digital counter needed for faster execution of tasks as well as for tracking the current execution point.

Question 4.
What is HDMI?
Answer:
HDMI (High Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/video interface which transfer the the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller, to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television, etc.

Question 5.
Which source is used to erase the content of a EPROM?
Answer:
Ultra violet rays are used to erase the contents of EPROM. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents making it possible to reprogram the memory.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Differentiate Computer Organisation from Computer Architecture.
Answer:
Differences between computer organisation and Computer Architecture:
Computer Organisation:

• Often called micro architecture (low level).
• Transparent from programmer (example: a programmer does not worry much how addition is implemented in hardware).
• Physical components (Circuit design. Adders, Signals, Peripherals).

Computer Architecture:

• Computer architecture (a bit higher level)
• Programmer viewfi.e. Programmer has to be aware of which instruction set used)
• Logic (Instruction set, Addressing modes, Data types, Cache optimization)

Question 2.
Classify the microprocessor based on the size of the data.
Answer:
Depending upon the size of the data the microprocessor can be classified as

1. 8 bit microprocessor
2. 16 bit microprocessor
3. 4 bit microprocessor
4. 32 bit microprocessor
5. 64 bit microprocessor.

Question 3.
Write down the classifications of microprocessors based on the instruction set.
Answer:
Classification of Microprocessor based on the Instruction set:

1. RISC- Reduced Instruction Set Computers.
2. CISC- Complex Instruction set Computers.

Question 4.
Differentiate PROM and EPROM.
Answer:
PROM:

• Can be Programmed only once.
• This has Permanent memory.
• Enclosed in plastic package so that not visible to UV light.
• Uses high Voltage.

EPROM:

• It is reusable and can be programmed multiple times.
• EPROMs memory can be erased using UV light.
• EPROMs are fused with quartz window.
• Also use high Voltage but not enough to alter the semiconductor layer permanently.

Question 5.
Write down the interfaces and ports available in a computer.
Answer:
Interfaces are HDMI interface port, USB 3.0 port, Ports available in the computer: Serial Port. Parallel port, USB ports, VGA connector. Audio plugs, PS/2 port, SCSI Port.

Question 6.
Differentiate CD and DVD.
Answer:
CD:

• CD stands for Compact Disc.
• Can store up to 700 MB.
• CD’s are single sided.
• Due to capacity constraint, CD’s cannot store movies of good quality.
• CD players cannot play DVD’s.

DVD:

• DVD stands for Digital Versatile Disc.
• Capacity of DVD is 4.7 GB of data.
• DVD’s are single or double sided.
• DVD’s are used for storing movies with good quality.
• DVD players can play CD’s.

Question 7.
How will you differentiate a flash memory and an EEPROM?
Answer:
Flash memory:

• It is faster.
• Flash memory is read/write memory.
• Flash memory can store 4GB to 2TB of data.
• Flash memory is used in PDA’S, Digital camera to store data.

EEPROM:

• It is slower.
• EEPROM is read only memory.
• EEPROM can store only less data.
• It is used to store critical programs.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the characteristics of a microprocessor.
Answer:
(a) Clock speed – Each microprocessor has an internal clock that regulates the speed at which it executes instructions. The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called clock speed. It is measured in MHz or in GHz.

(b) Instructions set – The set of machine level instructions that a microprocessor is designed to execute is called as an instruction set. This carries 4 types of operations. They are

• Data transfer
• Arithmetic operations
• Logical Operations
• Control flow
• Input/output

(c) Word size – The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called as its word size. It determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor. Total number of input and output pins in turn determines the architecture of the microprocessor.

Question 2.
How the read and write operations are performed by a processor? Explain.
Answer:

1. The Central Processing Unit(CPU) has a Memory Data Register (MDR) and a Memory Address Register (MAR).
2. The Memory Data Register (MDR) keeps the data which is transferred between the Memory and the CPU. The Program Counter (PC) is a special register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.
3. The Arithmetic and Logic unit of CPU places the address of the memory to be fetched, into the Memory Address Register.
4. A bus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.
5. The address bus is used to point a memory location. A decoder, a digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located.
6. The address register is connected with the address bus, which provides the address of the instruction. A data bus is used to transfer data between the memory and the CPU.
7. The data bus is bidirectional and the address bus is unidirectional. The control bus controls both read ana write operations.
8. The read operation fetches data from memory and transfers to MDR. A single control line performs two operations like Read/Write using lor 0.
9. Also, the write operation transfers data from the MDR to memory. This organisation is shown below.
   
10. The word in the RAM has the same size (no. of bits) as the Memory Data Register (MDR). If the processor is an 8-bit processor like Intel 8085, its MDR and the word in the RAM both have 8 bits.
11. If the size of the MDR is eight bits, which can be connected with a w7ord in the memory which is also eight bits size. The data bus has eight parallel wires to transfer data either from MDR to word or word to MDR based on the control(Read or write).
12. This control line is labeled as R/W, which becomes 1 means READ operation and 0 means WRITE operation.
    
13. These pictures show the contents of MDR and the word before and after the READ operation.
14. The read operation transfers the data(bits) from word to Memory Data Register.
15. The write operation transfers the data(bits) from Memory Data Register to word.

Question 3.
Arrange the memory devices in ascending order based on the access time.
Answer:
A memory is just like a human brain. It is used to store data and instructions. Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored. There are two types of accessing methods to access (read or write) the memory. They are sequential access and random access. In sequential access, the memory is accessed in an orderly manner from starting to end. But, in random access, any byte of memory can be accessed directly without navigating through previous bytes. Different memory devices are arranged according to the capacity,

Question 4.
Explain the types of ROM.
Answer:
Types of Rom:

Read Only Memory (ROM):

1. Read Only Memory refers to special memory in a computer with pre-recorded data at manufacturing time which cannot be modified.
2. The stored programs that start the computer and perform diagnostics are available in ROM’s. ROM stores critical programs such as the program that boots the computer.
3. Once the data has been written onto a ROM chip, it cannot be modified or removed and can only be read.
4. ROM retains its contents even when the computer is turned off. So, ROM is called as a non – volatile memory.

Programmable Read Only Memory (PROM):

1. Programmable read only memory is also a non – volatile memory on which data can be written only once. Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever.
2. Unlike the main memory, PROM’s retain their contents even when the computer is turned off.
3. The PROM differs from ROM. PROM is manufactured as a blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process itself.
4. PROM programmer or a PROM burner is used to write data to a PROM chip. The process of programming a PROM is called burning the PROM.

Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (EPROM):

1. Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory is a special type of memory which serves as a PROM, but the content can be erased using ultraviolet rays.
2. EPROM retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory.
3. An EPROM differs from a PROM, PROM can be written only once and cannot be erased.
4. EPROMs are used widely in personal computers because they enable the manufacturer to change the contents of the PROM to replace with updated versions or erase the contents before the computer is delivered.

Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (EEPROM):

1. Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory is a special type of PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge.
2. Like other types of PROM, EEPROM retains its contents even when the power is turned off.
3. Comparing with all other types of ROM, EEPROM is slower in performance.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Computer Organization Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ………………. is the major component of a computer, which performs all taks.
(a) CPU
(b) MDR
(c) MAR
(d) RISC
Answer:
(a) CPU

Question 2.
The speed at which the microprocessor executes instructions is called ……………….
(a) Instruction set
(b) word size
(c) clock speed
(d) control flow
Answer:
(c) clock speed

Question 3.
The number of bits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called ……………….
(a) word size
(b) CPU
(c) Data transfer
(d) CISC
Answer:
(a) word size

Question 4.
The main memory is otherwise called as ……………….
(a) cache memory
(b) main memory
(c) hard disk
(d) random access memory
Answer:
(d) random access memory

Question 5.
………………. is a magnetic disk on which you can store data.
(a) compact disc
(b) hard disk
(c) DVD
(d) flash memory devices
Answer:
(b) hard disk

Question 6.
………………. is a high – density optical disc similar to DVD.
(a) Blu – Ray disc
(b) digital versatile disc
(c) flash memory devices
(d) compact disc
Answer:
(a) Blu – Ray disc

Question 7.
………………. connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.
(a) PS/2 port
(b) SCSI port
(c) USB port
(d) serial port
Answer:
(b) SCSI port

Question 8.
………………. is an electronic (solid – state) non – volatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed.
(a) main memory
(b) flash memory
(c) Blu – Ray disc
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) flash memory

Question 9.
The micro processors were first introduced in early ……………….
(a) 1976
(b) 1975
(c) 1970
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1970

Question 10.
………………. is commonly used to measure wave frequencies.
(a) Hertz
(b) internal memory
(c) RAM
(d) ALU
Answer:
(a) Hertz

Question 11.
Which one of the following deals with hardware components of a computer system.
(a) Computer organisation
(b) Computer architecture
(c) System software
(d) Application software
Answer:
(a) Computer organisation

Question 12.
Computer architecture deals with ……………….
(a) designing the computer
(b) input devices
(c) output devices
(d) memory
Answer:
(a) designing the computer

Question 13.
The first general purpose microprocessor was ……………….
(a) IBM 2002
(b) IBM 1620
(c) Intel 4004
(d) Intel 4002
Answer:
(c) Intel 4004

Question 14.
Which one of the following is a programmable multipurpose silicon chip and are driven by clock pulses?
(a) Hardware
(b) Memory
(c) Microprocessor
(d) Clock
Answer:
(c) Microprocessor

Question 15.
Which of the following temporarily holds the instructions and data for execution of the processor.
(a) ALU
(b) CU
(c) Registers
(d) RAM
Answer:
(c) Registers

Question 16.
How many types of system buses are available?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 17.
System bus is a collection of ……………….
(a) address bus
(b) data bus
(c) control bus
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 18.
Which one of the following bus serves as a communication channel between the microprocessor and other devices.
(a) Address bus
(b) Data bus
(c) Control bus
(d) Process bus
Answer:
(c) Control bus

Question 19.
MHz arid GHz are the units of ……………….
(a) clock speed
(b) instruction set
(c) Word size
(d) system bus
Answer:
(a) clock speed

Question 20.
An average human ear can detect sound waves between ……………….
(a) 20 to 200 Hz
(b) 20 to 2000 Hz
(c) 20 to 20000 Hz
(d) 20 to 200000 Hz
Answer:
(c) 20 to 20000 Hz

Question 21.
One hertz is equal to ………………. cycles per second.
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 2
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 22.
Which among the following is not an operation carried out Instruction set?
(a) Arithmetic operations
(b) Logical operations
(c) Control flow
(d) Bitwise operations
Answer:
(d) Bitwise operations

Question 23.
The architecture of the microprocessor is determined by ……………….
(a) total no. of input and output pins
(b) clock speed
(c) word size
(d) instruction set
Answer:
(a) total no. of input and output pins

Question 24.
The amount of RAM that can be accessed by a microprocessor at one time is determined by ……………….
(a) clock speed
(b) word size
(c) instruction
(d) software
Answer:
(b) word size

Question 25.
Intel 8085 is a ………………. bit processor.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 26.
What will be the value of of control line for read operation from RAM to MDR?
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 27.
Which bus is unidirectional?
(a) Control
(b) System
(c) Data
(d) Address
Answer:
(d) Address

Question 28.
Which of the following digital circuit is used to point to the specific memory location where the word can be located?
(a) Logic gate
(b) Transistor
(c) Encoder
(d) Decoder
Answer:
(d) Decoder

Question 29.
How many classifications of microprocessors are there based on data width?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 30.
Which one of the following is not a RISC processor?
(a) Pentium IV
(b) AMD K6
(c) Intel P6
(d) AMD K8
Answer:
(d) AMD K8

Question 31.
Which one of the following is not a CISC processor?
(a) Pentium II
(b) Pentium III
(c) Pentium IV
(d) Pentium
Answer:
(c) Pentium IV

Question 32.
Which of the following memory is of higher cost?
(a) Hard disk
(b) Main memory
(c) Cache memory
(d) Floppy
Answer:
(c) Cache memory

Question 33.
Which of the following needs refreshing very often?
(a) ROM
(b) Static RAM
(c) Dynamic RAM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(c) Dynamic RAM

Question 34.
In which of the following memory, contents can be erased by exposing to ultraviolet rays?
(a) ROM
(b) EPROM
(c) PROM
(d) RAM
Answer:
(b) EPROM

Question 35.
Identify the wrong statement.
(i) Dynamic RAM have to be refreshed frequently.
(ii) SRAM is faster.
(iii) SRAM is cheap.
(iv) SRAM is to be refreshed less often.
(a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)
Answer:
(b) (iii)

Question 36.
The time taken to respond to a read/write operation is ………………….
(a) response time
(b) access time
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) sequential time
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 37.
CD data represented as tiny indentations are called ………………….
(a) tracks
(b) sectors
(c) stacks
(d) pits
Answer:
(d) pits

Question 38.
Which one of the following has the stacked arrangement of disks?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) Blu – Ray
(d) Hard disk
Answer:
(d) Hard disk

Question 39.
A 12 cm diameter DVD with single sided, single layer has the storage capacity of ………………….
(a) 4.7 GB
(b) 8.7 GB
(c) 8.5 GB
(d) 1.5 GB
Answer:
(a) 4.7 GB

Question 40.
What is the colour of double layered sides DVD?
(a) Silver
(b) Green
(c) Gold
(d) Brown
Answer:
(c) Gold

Question 41.
Which type of disc is : used for playing High-Definition movies?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) Flash Devices
(d) Blu – Ray Disc
Answer:
(d) Blu – Ray Disc

Question 42.
DVD uses a …………………. colour laser to read and write data.
(a) red
(b) green
(c) blue
(d) orange
Answer:
(a) red

Question 43.
Blu – ray uses a …………………. laser to write data.
(a) red
(b) green
(c) blue – violet
(d) violet
Answer:
(c) blue – violet

Question 44.
USB 3.0 can transfer data up to ………………….
(a) 3 GB/sec
(b) 5GB/sec
(c) 5GB/min
(d) 3GB/min
Answer:
(b) 5GB/sec

Question 45.
Match the following.

(a) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(b) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(c) (2) (3) (4) (1)
(d) (3)(4) (2) (1)
Answer:
(c) (2) (3) (4) (1)

Question 46.
Which port is used to LCD projector.
(a) SCSI
(6) PS/2
(c) Audio
(d) VGA port
Answer:
(d) VGA port

Question 47.
The areas between the pits in CD’s are called ………………….
(a) memory
(b) bus
(c) buffer
(d) lands
Answer:
(d) lands

Question 48.
Which one of the following uses magnetic disk to store the data?
(a) DVD
(b) HD
(c) CD
(d) FD
Answer:
(b) HD

Question 49.
How are sound waves close to 20 Hz with low pitch called?
(a) Treble
(b) Tremble
(c) Bass
(d) Accumulator
Answer:
(c) Bass

Question 50.
Which of the following interface transfers the uncompressed audio and video data to monitor, projector?
(a) CD
(b) DVD
(c) HDMI
(d) FDD
Answer:
(c) HDMI

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Which is the first commercial microprocessor?
Answer:
Intel 4004 is a 4-bit processor.

Question 2.
What are the components of CPU?
Answer:
The CPU has a Memory Data Register (MDR) and a Memory Address Register (MAR). The MDR keeps the data which is to be transferred between memory and the CPU. The ALU of CPU places the address of the memory to be fetched into MAR.

Question 3.
What is Program counter?
Answer:
Program counter is a special Register in the CPU which always keeps the address of the next instruction to be executed.

Question 4.
Define a BUS?
Answer:

1. A bus is a collection of wires used for communication between the internal components of a computer.
2. The three types of buses are: address bus, data bus and control bus.

Question 5.
What is the use of cache memory?
Answer:

1. Cache memory is a very high speed and expensive memory.
2. It is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.
3. Cache memory comes with smaller size.

Question 6.
What is meant by Hard Disk?
Answer:

1. Hard disk is a magnetic disk on which user can store data.
2. The hard disks has the stacked arrangement of disks accessed by a pair of heads for each of the disk.
3. The hard disks come with a single or double sided disk.

Question 7.
Write notes on Blu-Ray Disc.
Answer:

1. Blu – Ray disc is a high density optical disc used for playstation games and HD movies.
2. A double layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to 50 GB of data.
3. Blu – Ray disc uses a blue-violet laser to write data.

Question 8.
Why the Blu – Ray disc is called so?
Answer:
Since it uses a blue – violet laser to write, hence it is called so.

Question 9.
What is meant by word size?
Answer:

1. The number of hits that can be processed by a processor in a single instruction is called its Word Size.
2. Word size determines the amount of RAM that can be accessed by a microprocessor at one time and the total number of pins on the microprocessor.

Question 10.
Expand RISC, CISC
Answer:
RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computers CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers.

Question 11.
What is Cache Memory?
Answer:
The cache memory is a very high speed and expensive memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process.

Question 12.
Expand HDMI
Answer:
HDMI – High Definition Multimedia Interface

Question 13.
What are the main units of a microprocessor.
Answer:
The three major units of a microprocessor are:

1. Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU): To perform arithmetic and logical instructions.
2. Control Unit (CU): To control the overall operation of the computer through signals.
3. Registers (Internal Memory): They are used to hold the data and instruction for the execution of the processor.

Question 14.
Name the types of operations performed by the Instruction Set.
Answer:

1. Data transfer
2. Arithmetic operations
3. Logical operations
4. Control flow
5. Input/output

Question 15.
Mention the criteria on which microprocessors are classified.
Answer:
Microprocessors are classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of the data that can be processed.
2. The instruction set.

Question 16.
What is RISC?
Answer:
RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computers. They have small set of highly optimised instructions. Example Pentium IV, intel P6, AMD K6 and K7.

Question 17.
What is CISC?
Answer:
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. It is ideal for personal computers. Example Intel 386486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, Motorola 68000.

Question 18.
What are the two types of accessing methods to access the memory?
Answer:
The two types of accessing methods are:

1. In sequential access, the memory is accessed in an orderly manner from starting to end.
2. In random access, any byte of memory can be accessed directly without navigating through previous bytes.

Question 19.
Give the Block diagram of microprocessor based system.
Answer:

Question 20.
Write note on secondary storage devices.
Answer:
To store data and programs permanently, secondary storage devices are used. Secondary storage devices serve as a supportive storage to main memory and they are non-volatile in nature. Secondary storage is also called as back up storage.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is memory?
Answer:
A memory is just like a human brain. It is used to store data and instructions. Computer memory is the storage space in the computer, where data and instructions are stored.

Question 2.
What is RAM?
Answer:
The main memory is otherwise called as Random Access Memory. This is available in computers in the form of Integrated Circuits (ICs). It is the place in a computer where the Operating System, Application Programs and the data in current use are kept temporarily so that they can be accessed by the computer’s processor.

Question 3.
What is ALU?
Answer:
Arithmetic and Logic unit (ALU):
To perform arithmetic and logical instructions based on computer instructions.

Question 4.
What is control unit?
Answer:
Control unit: To control the overall operations of the computer through signals.

Question 5.
What is microprocessor?
Answer:
The microprocessor is a programmable multipurpose silicon chip. It is driven by clock pulses. It accepts input as a binary data and after processing, it provides the output data as per the instructions stored in the memory.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the ports and interfaces.
Answer:
Ports and Interfaces:
The Motherboard of a computer has many I/O sockets that are connected to the ports and interfaces found on the rear side of a computer. The external devices can be connected to the ports and interfaces. The various types of ports are given below:

Serial Port:
To connect the external devices, found in old computers.

Parallel Port:
To connect the printers, found in old computers.

USB Ports:
To connect external devices like cameras, scanners, mobile phones, external, hard disks and printers to the computer. USB 3.0 is the third major version of the Universal Serial Bus (USB) standard to connect computers with other electronic gadgets. USB 3.0 can transfer data up to 5 Giga byte/second. USB 3.1 and USB 3.2 are also released.

SCSI Port:
To connect the hard disk drives and network connectors.

VGA Connector:
To connect a monitor or any display devices like LCD projector.

Audio plugs:
To connect sound speakers, microphone and headphones

PS/2 Port:
To connect mouse and keyboard to PC.

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI):
High Definition Multimedia Interface is an audio/video interface which transfers the uncompressed video and audio data from a video controller to a compatible computer monitor, LCD projector, digital television.

Question 2.
Explain the flash memory devices and Blu-ray disc.
Answer:
Flash Memory Devices:
Flash memory is an electronic (solid – state) non – volatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. They are either EEPROM or EPROM. Examples for Flash memories are pendrives, memory cards etc. Flash memories can be used in personal computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDA), digital audio players, digital cameras and mobile phones. Flash memory offers fast access times. The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called access time. The capacity of the flash memories vary from 1 Gigabytes (GB) to 2 Terabytes (TB).

Blu – Ray Disc:
Blu – Ray Disc is a high – density optical disc similar to DVD. Blu-ray is the type of disc used for PlayStation games and for playing High – Definition (HD) movies. A double – layer Blu – Ray disc can store up to 50 GB (gigabytes) of data. This is more than 5 times the capacity of a DVD, and above 70 times of a CD. The format was developed to enable recording, rewriting and playback of high – definition video, as well as storing large amount of data. DVD uses a red laser to read and write data. But, Blu – ray uses a blue-violet laser to write. Hence, it is called as Blu – Ray.

Question 3.
Explain various types of microprocessors.
Answer:
Microprocessors can be classified based on the following criteria:

1. The width of data that can be processed
2. The instruction set

Classification of Microprocessors based on the Data Width
Depending on the data width, microprocessors can process instructions. The microprocessors can be classified as follows:

1. 8 – bit microprocessor
2. 16 – bit microprocessor
3. 32 – bit microprocessor
4. 64 – bit microprocessor

Classification of Microprocessors based on Instruction Set:
The size of the instruction set is another important consideration while categorizing microprocessors. Initially, microprocessors had very small instruction sets because complex hardware was expensive as well as difficult to build. As technology had developed to overcome these issues, more and more complex instructions were added to increase the functionality of microprocessors. Let us learn more about the two types of microprocessors based on their instruction sets.

Reduced Instruction Set Computers (RISC):
RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computers. They have a small set of highly optimized instructions. Complex instructions are also implemented using simple instructions, thus reducing the size of the instruction set.
Examples of RISC processors are Pentium IV, Intel P6, AMD K6 and K7.

Complex Instruction Set Computers (CISC):
CISC stands for Complex Instruction Set Computers. They support hundreds of instructions. Computers supporting CISC can accomplish a wide variety of tasks, making them ideal for personal computers.
Examples of CISC processors are Intel 386 & 486, Pentium, Pentium II and III, and Motorola 68000.

Question 4.
Explain the secondary storage devices.
Answer:
Secondary Storage Devices:
A computer generally has limited amount of main memory which is expensive and volatile. To store data and programs permanently, secondary storage devices are used. Secondary storage devices serve as a supportive storage to main memory and they are non – volatile in nature, secondary storage is also called as Backup storage

Hard Disks:
Hard disk is a magnetic disk on which you can store data. The hard disk has the stacked arrangement of disks accessed by a pair of heads for each of the disks. The hard disks come with a single or double sided disk.

Compact Disc (CD):
A CD or CD – ROM is made from 1.2 millimeters thick, polycarbonate plastic material. A thin layer of aluminum or gold is applied to the surface. CD data is represented as tiny indentations known as “pits”, encoded in a spiral track moulded into the top of the polycarbonate layer. The areas between pits are known as “lands”. A motor within the CD player rotates the disk. The capacity of an ordinary CD – ROM is 700 MB.

Digital Versatile Disc (DVD)
A DVD (Digital Versatile Disc or Digital Video Disc) is an optical disc capable of storing up to 4.7 GB of data, more than six times what a CD can hold. DVDs are often used to store movies at a better quality. Like CDs, DVDs are read with a laser.
The disc can have one or two sides, and one or two layers of data per side; the number of sides and layers determines how much it can hold. A 12 cm diameter disc with single sided, single layer has 4.7 GB capacity, whereas the single sided, double layer has 8.5 GB capacity. The 8 cm DVD has 1.5 GB capacity. The capacity of a DVD-ROM can be visually determined by noting the number of data sides of the disc. Double – layered sides are usually gold – coloured, while single – layered sides are usually silver – coloured, like a CD.

Fash Memory Devices:
Flash memory is an electronic (solid – state) non – volatile computer storage medium that can be electrically erased and reprogrammed. They are either EEPROM or EPROM. Examples for Flash memories are pendrives, memory cards etc. Flash memories can be used in personal computers, Personal Digital Assistants (PDA), digital audio players, digital cameras and mobile phones. Flash memory offers fast access times. The time taken to read or write a character in memory is called access time. The capacity of the flash memories vary from 1 Gigabytes (GB) to 2 Terabytes (TB).

Blu – Ray Disc
Blu – Ray Disc is a high-density optical disc similar to DVD. Blu-ray is the type of disc used for PlayStation games and for playing High-Definition (HD) movies. A double – layer Blu-Ray disc can store up to 50GB (gigabytes) of data. This is more than 5 times the capacity of a DVD, and above 70 times of a CD. The format was developed to enable recording, rewriting and playback of high-definition video, as well as storing large amount of data. DVD uses a red laser to read and write data. But, Blu-ray uses a blue-violet laser to write. Hence, it is called as Blu-Ray.

Question 5.
Explain the cache memory.
Answer:
Cache Memory:
The cache memory is a very high speed and expensive memory, which is used to speed up the memory retrieval process. Due to its higher cost, the CPU comes with a smaller size of cache memory compared with the size of the main memory. Without cache memory, every time the CPU requests the data, it has to be fetched from the main memory which will consume more time. The idea of introducing a cache is that, this extremely fast memory would store data that is frequently accessed and if possible, the data that is closer to it. This helps to achieve the fast response time, Where response time, (Access Time) refers to how quickly the memory can respond to a read / write request. Arrangement of cache memory between the CPU and the main memory is shown below

Question 6.
Explain main memory and its types.
Answer:
The main memory is otherwise called as Random Access Memory. This is available in computers in the form of Integrated Circuits (ICs). It is the place in a computer where the Operating System, Application Programs and the data in current use are kept temporarily so that they can be accessed by the computer’s processor. The smallest unit of information that can be stored in the memory is called as a bit. The memory can be accessed by a collection of 8 bits which is called as a byte. The bytes are referred by ‘B\ If a computer has 1 megabyte of memory, then it can store 10,48,576 bytes (or characters) of information. [Hence 1MB is 1024KB and 1 KB is 1024 Bytes, So 1024 X 1024 =10,48.576 Bytes],

Types of RAM:
There are two basic types of”RAM

1. Dynamic RAM (DRAM)
2. Static RAM (SRAM)

These two types differ in the technology they use to hold data. Dynamic RAM being a common type needs to be refreshed frequently. Static RAM needs to be refreshed less often, which makes it .faster. Hence, Static RAM is more expensive than Dynamic RAM.

Students can Download English Poem 1 From a Railway Carriage Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 2 Poem Chapter 2 From a Railway Carriage

From A Railway Carriage Poem Questions And Answers Poem Overview

Read And Understand

A. Read the lines and answer the questions given below.

1. Faster than fairies, faster than witches,
Bridges and houses, hedges and ditches;

From A Railway Carriage Questions And Answers Question a.
What is faster than fairies and witches?
Answer:
The train runs faster than fairies and witches.

From A Railway Carriage Question b.
Why does the poet mention ‘bridges and houses, hedges and ditches’? Where are they?
Answer:
The poet mentions them because we can see them while travelling in a train.
They are on the way of the train journey.

2. Here is a child who clambers and scrambles,
All by himself and gathering brambles;

From A Railway Carriage 6th Standard Question a.
Where do you think the child is?
Answer:
The poet sees a child in the fields climbing up a steepy ground.

From A Railway Carriage Comprehension Questions And Answers Question b.
What does ‘gathering brambles’ mean?
Answer:
He climbs with difficulty and gathers blackberries.

3. And ever again, in the wink of an eye,
Painted stations whistle by.

From The Railway Carriage Question Answer Question a.
‘In the wink of an eye’ means very quickly. Explain ‘painted stations whistle by’.
Answer:
Many colourful buildings of stations appear and disappear in a glance due to the speed of the train.

4. Each a glimpse and gone forever;

6th Standard English Poem From A Railway Carriage Question a.
What is ‘each’ over here? Why is it gone forever?
Answer:
All the objects appeared and disappeared so quickly that the poet looked at them only for a short time and they can never be seen again.

B. Answer the following questions.

6th English Poem From A Railway Carriage Question 1.
What does ‘charges along like troops in a battle’ mean?
Answer:
The train runs forward as quickly as army soldiers attack the enemy in the battlefield.

From A Railway Carriage Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
What word could best replace ‘charges’ in the poem – marches, rushes or pushes?
Answer:
‘Marches’could best replace‘charges’ih the poem.

From A Railway Carriage Questions And Answers For Class 6 Question 3.
Why does the child damber and scramble?
Answer:
The child clambers and scrambles to gather blackberries.

C. Think and write.

6th Poem From A Railway Carriage Question 1.
Write a paragraph about SO words describing the scenes that the poet passed by.
Answer:
The poet shares his experience of a Railway Journey with us. He says that the train runs more faster than the fairies and witches. The bridges, houses, rows of thorny plants and ditches pass by in a moment. It rushes through common grass lands where horses and cattle are grazing. Painted stations, a child gathering blackberries a homeless person who stares at the train, garlands of daisies, a loaded cart, a river and a mill all pass by in a very short moment.

From A Railway Carriage Exercises Question 2.
There is a connection between the rhyming words and rhythms of the train. Present your views about it.
Answer:
The poem coveys the experience of a railway journey through the rhythm of verse. This poem is a masterly piece of versification, using its sprightly rhythm to evoke the movement of a train. The rhythm of the poem echoes the rhythm of the train, with the rhyme scheme suggesting the sense of repetition – the poem being written in rhyming couplets. For example witches / ditches, battle / cattle, plain / rain, etc. The rhythm of the poetic lines is regular and steady, but the view from the window of the train is constantly changing.

D. Fill in the blanks to complete the summary.

Ever since their introduction, rhymes, and their unique rhythms have inspired poets. In this poem the poet shares his experience of a Journey in a Railway Carriage with us. He presents natural scenes seen from the window of a railway carriage. The rhythm of the lines is regular and steady but the view from the window of the train is constantly changing. The poem’s rhythm and phrases bring speed and exhilaration of a railway journey. The poet looks out of the window at the fast moving array of images outside. Every line we see here is a quick account of something seen for short moment. The line that best sums up is the final one: “Each a glimpse and gone forever!”

Vocabulary

E. Find me in the poem.

1. I can help you to cross the river – ________.
2. I can border your garden – ________.
3. I can alert you – ________.
4. I can carry you – ________.
5. You can ride on me – ________.
6. You can climb on me – ________.
7. You can lay down on me – ________.
8. You can play with me – ________.

Answers:

1. bridge
2. hedge
3. troop
4. cart
5. horse
6. bramble
7. meadow
8. child

Appreciating The Poem

F. Work in pairs.

A simile is a figure of speech that directly compares two things. Similes explicitly use connecting words such as ‘like’ and ‘as’,

eg. ‘as cool as’; ‘like a child’.

From A Railway Carriage Poem 6th Standard Question 1.
Discuss with your partner and pick out the similes used in the poem. Which one do you like the most? Why?
Answer:
Similes used in this poem are :
(i) ‘And charging along like troops in a battle’.
(ii) ‘Ely as thick as driving rain’
I like the second one the most because the poet says all the sights of hills and plains fly as quickly as a drop of rain following another drop in a storm.

From A Railway Carriage Question Answer Question 2.
Discuss with your, partner and pick out the rhyming words from the poem.
Answer:
The rhyming words in the poem are :
“witches – ditches ; battle – cattle ; plain – rain; eye – by ; scrambles – brambles; gazes – daisies ; road – load ; river – forever”.

Creative Writing

Cinquain Poem:

• Brainstorm some interesting nouns, verbs and adjectives connected to travel.
• Pick out the most descriptive words from your brainstorming and put your cinquain together.
• Your cinquain should have five lines and the finished poem should have only eleven words.

Answer:
(1) Nouns : Train, plane, carriage, compartment, journey, window, scenery, view, sights, pictures, landscape, hedges, ditches, fairies, houses, bridges, witches, plains, hills, rivers, child, mill, stations, horses and cattle, flight.

(2) Verbs : run, move, see, view, fly, clambers, scrambles, charge, stand, gaze, enjoy, look, gather, carry, board.

(3) Adjective : colourful, painted, twisting, curving, winding, crossing, driving, stringing, charging, gathering, booking, boarding, landing, next, international.

Cinquain poem connected to travel.

Flight
next, international
booking, boarding, landing
no place like home
plane

G. Pick out the nouns from the poem. Write as many Cinquain poems as you can.
Answer:
1. Fairy
humble, sweet
working, dreaming, helping
heart full of action
goddess

2. Flowers
colourful, fragrant
swaying, growing, blooming
make me feel happy
blossoms.

3. Child
innocent, playful
laughing, running, dreaming
lonely in the track
tramp

From a Railway Carriage Additional Questions

Alliteration:
It is the repetition of the initial consonant sounds of words in a single line.

I. Poem Comprehension And Poetic Devices.

1. And charging along like troops in a battle,
All through the meadows the horses and cattle:

From A Railway Carriage Answers Question a.
How does the train move forward?
Answer:
The train moves forward, like the soldiers attacking the enemy in a battlefield.

6th Standard From A Railway Carriage Question b.
Where do the horses and cattle graze?
Answer:
They graze in the meadows.

Question c.
What is the figure of speech in the first line?
Answer:
Simile. The horses and cattle are compared with troops, using the word, “like”.

2. Here is a tramp who stands and gazes;
And there is the green for stringing the daisies!

Question a.
Who is a tramp?
Answer:
A tramp is a homeless person, who travels from place to place on foot in search of work.

Question b.
What does the poet mention in the line ‘There is the green’?
Answer:
Green is a common grassy village land, where ladies make garlands of daisies.

Question c.
Pick out the rhyming words.
Answer:
gazes – daises are the rhyming words.

3. Here is a cart run away in the road,
Lumping along with man and load;

Question a.
Where was the cart?
Answer:
The cart was in the middle of the road.

Question b.
How was it moving?
Answer:
Due to the heavy load, it was moving awkwardly. The cart man was also sitting on the cart.

Question c.
Identify the rhyming words here?
Answer:
The rhyming words are road – load.

4. Faster than fairies, faster than witches,
Bridges and houses, hedges and ditches;
And charging along like troops in a battle,
All through the meadows the horses and cattle:

Question a.
Who is moving faster than fairies and witches?
Answer:
The train is moving faster than fairies and witches.

Question b.
What is the rhyming scheme used here?
Answer:
The rhyming scheme is ‘a a b b’.

Question c.
Write down the words in Alliteration.
Answer:
The Alliterated words are :
(1) faster – fairies – faster
(2) houses – hedges

5. And ever again, in the wink for an eye, painted stations whistle by
‘In the wink of the eye’ means very ________.
Answer:
Quickly.

6. All of the sights of the hill and the plain
Fly as thick as driving rain;
And ever again, in the wink of an eye,
Painted stations whistle by.

Question a.
What is the rhyme scheme of these lines?
Answer:
The rhyme scheme of these lines are ‘a a b b’.

Question b.
What figure of speech is employed in the second line.,
Answer:
Simile. The hill and plain fly as the driving rain. They pass quickly as one drop of the rain follows another drop in a storm.

Question c.
How do the painted stations pass by?
Answer:
The stations pass by in a very short moment.

7. Here is a child who clambers and scrambles,
All by himself and gathering brambles;

Question a.
Pick out the alliterated words in these lines.
Answer:
The Alliterated words are :
by – brambles

Question b.
What does the child do?
Answer:
The child clambers and scrambles to gather blackberries.

Question c.
Is the child alone?
Answer:
Yes the child is alone.

II. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What does the poet mean by the word ‘troops’?
Answer:
Troops are soldiers or army officers who attack their enemy in the battle.

Question 2.
Why Is the cart moving awkwardly?
Answer:
It is moving awkwardly due to the heavy load on it along with the cart dri ver.

Question 3.
What was the child doing?
Answer:
The child was clambering and scrambling. He was all alone gathering blackberries.

Question 4.
What was the tramp doing when the train passed him?
Answer:
He was standing idle and gazing at the passing railway carriage.

Question 5.
What is a bramble?
Answer:
A bramble is a prickly scrambling shrub of the rose family especially a blackberry.

III. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What pleasure does the railway journey give to the poet?
Answer:
The poet enjoys watching the natural scene from the window of a railway carriage. His railway journey becomes a source of great happiness for him. He shares this happiness with us. He gives in detail the scenery, seen from his carriage, as he wants to share his experience with us. In the end, he sums up saying that everything appeared and disappeared in a very short moment and they can never be seen again.

From a Railway Carriage Summary

Robert Louis Stevenson’s poem ‘From a Railway Carriage’ communicates a child’s excitement at travelling by train and takes us on an unforgettable picture book journey. The poet shares his experience of a railway journey. He says that the train runs more fast than the fairies and witches. It runs so fast that the bridges, houses, rows of thorny plants and ditches pass by in a moment. It goes forward as quickly as army soldiers attack the enemy in the battlefield. The train runs through common grassy lands, where horses and cattles are grazing. All the sights pass as quickly as drop of rain follows another drop. Many colourful buildings of stations appear and disappear in a glance due to the speed of the train.

The poet sees a child climbing up the steepy ground. He moves with difficulty and gathers blackberries. He also sees a homeless person looking at the train with amazement. He sees some ladies making garlands of daisies in a common grassy village land. In the middle of road, there was cart with load. Due to the heavy load, it was moving awkwardly. The cart man was sitting on the cart.

He sees a river and a floor mill. All these scenes appeared and disappeared in a very short moment.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 5 Basis of Classification

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Basis of Classification Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Basis Of Classification Class 7 Question 1.
The following characteristics are essential for classification.
(a) Similarities
(b) Differences
(c) Both of them
(d) None of them
Answer:
(c) Both of them

Question 2.
Approximately species of living organisms found in the earth.
(a) 8.7 million
(b) 8.6 million
(c) 8.5 million
(d) 8.8 million
Answer:
(a) 8.7 million

Question 3.
The largest division of the living world is
(a) Order
(b) Kingdom
(c) Phylum
(d) Family
Answer:
(b) Kingdom

Question 4.
Who proposed the five kingdom of classification?
(a) Aristotle
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Whitakar
(d) Plato
Answer:
(c) Whitakar

Question 5.
The binomial name of pigeon is
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Rattus rattus
(c) Mangifera indica
(d) Columbo livia
Answer:
(d) Columbo livia

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ________ in 1623, introduced the binomial nomenclature.
2. Species is the ________unit of classification.
3.  ________ are non- green and non-photosynthetic in nature.
4. The binomial name of onion is ________
5. Carolus Linnaeus is known as the Father of ________

Answer:

1. Gaspard Bauhin
2. Basic
3. Fungi
4. Hum sativum
5. Modern Taxonomy

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Monera – Moulds
2. Protista – Bacteria
3. Fungi – Neem
4. Plantae – Butterfly
5. Animalia – Euglena

Answer:

1. Monera – Bacteria
2. Protista – Euglena
3. Fungi – Moulds
4. Plantae – Neem
5. Animalia – Butterfly

V. Assertion and Reason Questions:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Binomial name is the universal name and contains two names.
Reason (R) : It was first introduced by Carolus Linnaeus.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct
(b) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is incorrect
(c) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is correct
(d) Assertion and Reasoning are incorrect
Answer:
(b) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is incorrect

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Identification, assortment and grouping are essential for classification.
Reason (R) : These are basic steps of taxonomy.
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct
(b) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is incorrect
(c) Assertion is incorrect, Reasoning is correct
(d) Assertion & Reasoning is incorrect.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct

VI. Give very short answer:

Question 1.
What is classification?
Answer:
The method of arranging the organisms into groups is called classification

Question 2.
List out the five kingdoms classification.
Answer:

1. Monera
2. Protista
3. Fungi
4. Plantae
5. Animalia

Question 3.
Define – dichotomous key.
Answer:
It is a tool used to classify organisms based on their similarities and differences.

Question 4.
Write two examples of Monera.
Answer:
Bacteria and Blue green algae.

Question 5.
What is binomial nomenclature?
Answer:
Binomial nomenclature is an universal system of naming organisms. As per this system, each organism has two names – the first is the Genus name and the second is the Species name.

Question 6.
Write the binomial name of
(a) Human being
(b) Paddy
Answer:
Binomial name
(a) Human being – Homo sapiens
(b) Paddy – Oryza sativa

Question 7.
Write two features of protista.
Answer:

1. It includes unicellular and few simple multicellular eukaryotes.
2. It includes plant like protists (Algae) and animal like protists (protozoans)

VII. Give short Answer :

Question 1.
Write the levels of classification.
Answer:
There are seven main categories of hierarchies namely, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus and Species- Species is the basic unit of classification

Question 2.
Differentiate plantae and animalia
Answer:
Kingdom plantae

1. They are multicellular eukaryotes that can photosynthesize.
2. The cells have cell wall.
3. The cells can perform specialised functions like photosynthesis.
4. Eg. Ferns, cone bearing plants and flowering plants

Kingdom Animalia

1. They are multicellular, eukaryotic and heterotrophic animals.
2. The cells lack cell wall.
3. They cannot photosynthesize but animals move from place to place unlike plants.
4. Eg. Invertebrates and Vertebrates

Question 3.
Write any two merits of Five Kingdom classification.
Answer:

1. This system of classification is more scientific and natural.
2. This system of classification clearly indicates the cellular organization, mode of nutrition, and characters for early evolution of life.

VII. Give answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain about five kingdom classification.
Answer:

1. The five kingdom classification was proposed by R.H.Whittaker in 1969.
2. He classified the organisms into five kingdoms on the basis of characteristics like cell structure, mode of Nutrition, Source of Nutrition and body organization.

Question 2.
Write short notes on – Binomial Nomenclature.
Answer:
(i) Gaspard Bauhin jn 1623, introduced naming of organisms with two names which is known as Binomial nomenclature, and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeas in 1753

(ii) Binomial nomenclature an universal system of naming organisms. As per this system, each organism has two names – the first is the Genusname and the second is the Speciesname.

(iii) Genus name begins with a capital letter and Species name begins with a small letter. Example The nomenclature for onion is Allium sativam. Genus name is Allium, species name is sativam.

(iv) Vernacular name is a local name that is familiar for a particular place. Binomial name is an universal name which never changes.

(v) Binomial nomenclature and classification helps scientists to identify any organisms and to place them at a particular hierarchy.

Question 3.
Give an account on the classification of invertebrates with few general features and examples.
Answer:
Invertebrates are animals without a backbone. The invertebrates have been classified into various phyla as follows:

IX. HOTS :

Question 1.
Which kingdom has saprophytic, parasitic and symbiotic nutrition. Why?
Answer:
Kingdom Fungi comprises of unicellular to multicellular organisms which are heterotrophic in their mode of nutrition. They do not contain chlorophyll and cannot photosynthesize. Hence they show modes of Nutrition such as:

1. Saprophytic – Obtaining nutrition from dead matter Eg. Mucor
2. Parasitic – Obtaining nutrition from living organisms Eg. Cercospora
3. Symbiotic – Obtaining nutrition through a mutually beneficial relationship with another organism. Eg. Lichens

X. See the Diagram and write The Kingdom:
Question 1.
Pictures of some living organisms are given below. Identify the kingdom to which each of these belong and write the kingdom name in the blanks provided.

Answer:
(a) Kingdom plantae
(b) Kingdom protista
(c) Kingdom protista
(d) Kingdom Animalia
(e) Kingdom Fungi

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Basis of Classification Intext Activities.

Activity- 2
Question 1.
Fill up the blanks with the suitable organisms

1. Vertebrates ________ , ________ and ________
2. Invertebrates ________, ________ and ________.
3. Name the vertebrates with wings ________, ________.
4. Name the invertebrates with wings ________, ________.
5. Name the invertebrates with segmented legs ________, ________.
6. Name the invertebrates with Jointed legs ________, ________.
7. Name the warm blooded vertebrates ________.
8. Name the cold blooded vertebrates ________.
9. Name the vertebrates with lungs respiration ________, ________.
10. Name the animal with beak ________.

Answers:

1. Fishes, Amphibians, Mammals.
2. Protozoa, Porifera, Annelida.
3. Bat, Pigeon.
4. Butterfly, Dragon fly.
5. Millipedes, Centipedes.
6. Crab, Prawn.
7. Mammals.
8. Fishes.
9. Birds, Mammals.
10. Birds

Activity – 3
Given table shows the name of the phylum and its characteristic features. Write name of the animals belonging to the respective phylum

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Science Basis of Classification Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
_______ belongs to Phylum Platyhelminthes.
(a) Ascaris
(b) Liver fluke
(c) Leucosolcnia
(d) Euglena
Answer:
(b) Liver fluke

Question 2.
_______ are diploblastic.
(a) Protozoa
(b) Annelida
(c) Coelenterata
(d) Echinodermata
Answer:
(c) Coelenterata

Question 3.
_______ is not a characteristic of Phylum Echinodertnata.
(a) Water vascular system
(b) Tube feet
(c) Pores in the body
(d) Spicules
Answer:
(c) Pores in the body

Question 4.
Bones with air cavities ate seen in _______
(a) snail
(b) pigeon
(c) bats
(d) cuttle fish
Answer:
(b) pigeon

Question 5.
_______ is not oviparous.
(a) Snake
(b) Crow
(c) Frog
(d) Human being
Answer:
(d) Human being

Question 6.
Plant is a thallus in _______
(a) Algae
(b) Ferns
(c) Bacteria
(d) Pinus
Answer:
(a) Algae

Question 7.
Naked ovules are seen in _______
(a) Cycas
(b) Funaria
(c) Mango
(d) Chara
Answer:
(a) Cycas

Question 8.
_______ is not a fugus.
(a) Yeast
(b) Chlamydomonas.
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Agaricus
Answer:
(b) Chlamydomonas

Question 9.
_______ belong to Monera.
(a) Blue green algae
(b) Yeast
(c) Mushrooms
(d) Red algae
Answer:
(a) Blue green algae

Question 10.
_______ are called Amphibious plants.
(a) Ferns
(b) Mosses
(c) Fungi
(d) Gymnosperms
Answer:
(b) Mosses

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.

1. ________ was a greek philosopher who classified animals.
2. Paired and jointed legs are seen in phylum ________
3. Giving birth to young ones is described as________
4. Animals belonging to phylum ________ are mostly parasites.
5. Flowering plants belong to________
6. ________ are considered to be first land plants,
7. ________ are dominant plant forms of present day.
8. All prokaryotic belong to kingdom________
9. Scientific name for Human being is ________
10. Cones are produced by ________

Answer:

1. Aristotle
2. Arthropoda
3. Viviparous
4. Aschelminthes
5. Angiosperms
6. Ferns
7. Angiosperms
8. Monera
9. Homo sapiens
10. gymnosperms

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Animals belonging to phylum protozoa reproduce by fission.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Specialised vascular tissues for conduction of food and water are seen in mosses.
Answer:
False. Specialised vascular tissues for conduction of food and water are seen in ferns ‘

Question 3.
Angiosperms are divided into monocots and dicots.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The angiosperms are evergreen trees.
Answer:
False. The gymnosperms are evergreen trees.

Question 5.
Fungi need water to complete their life cycle.
Answer:
False. Mossesneed water to complete their life cycle

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Protozoa- (a) Spongy bones
2. Annelida- (b) Hermaphrodite
3. Coelenterata- (c) Soft body
4. Aves- (d) Colonial forms
5. Mollusca- (e) Conjugation

Answer:

1. -e
2. -b
3. -d
4. -a
5. -c

Question 2.

1. Fungi- (a) Funaria
2. Mosses- (b) Cycas
3. Gymnosperms- (c) Adiantum
4. Flowering Plants- (d) Agaricus
5. Ferns- (e) Tamarind

Answer:

1. -d
2. -a
3. -b
4. -e
5. -c

V. Assertion and Reason.

Mark the correct choice as
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is correct
(b) Assertion is correct, Reasoning is incorrect
(c) Assertion is incorrect Reasoning is correct
(d) Assertion & Reasoning are incorrect

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Angiosperms have ovary in the flower.
Reason (R) : They produce fruits and seeds.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Blue green algae are prokaryotes.
Reason (R) : They do not have a true nucleus.
Answer:
(a) Assertion is correct, Reasoning

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Xylem does not have vessels in angiosperms.
Reason (R) : They conduct food.
Answer:
(d) Assertion & Reasoning is

Question 4.
Assertion (A) : Reptiles are warm blooded animals.
Reason (R) : They have scales.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is incorrect Reasoning is correct

VI. Give Very short Answers:

Question 1.
Name the following:

1. A phylum with diploblastic animals
2. A phylum which has hermaphrodite animal

Answer:

1. phylum coelenterata.
2. Phylum Annelida / Phylum Platyhelminthes.

Question 2.
Mention two features of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
Water vascular system, tube feet.

Question 3.
Mention two salient features of class mammalia.
Answer:
Viviparous animals, heterodont dentition.

Question 4.
What is heterodont dentition?
Answer:
Presence of different kinds of teeth.

Question 5.
Why do Aves have bones with air cavities?
Answer:
It makes the body lighter and helps in flight.

Question 6.
Name the vascular tissues seen in plants.
Answer:
Xylem and phloem.

Question 7.
Gymnosperms do not produce fruits. Give Reason.
Answer:
The ovules are naked, without ovary. Hence gymnosperms do not produce fruits.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
List two demerits of five kingdom system of classification.
Answer:

1. In this system of classification, viruses have not been given a proper place
2. Multicellular organisms have originated several times from protists.

Question 2.
Write a note on kingdom fungi.
Answer:

1. Fungi are eukaryotic, and mostly are multicellular.
2. They secrete enzymes to digest the food and absorb the food after digested by the enzymes.
3. Fungi saprophytes as decomposes (decay-causing organisms) or as parasites.
4. Kingdom Fungi includes molds, mildews, mushrooms and yeast.

Question 3.
Differentiate Angiosperms and Gymnosperms.
Answer:
Angiosperms

1. They produce flowers.
2. They produce fruits.
3. They are classified into monocots and dicots.
4. They possess well developed xylem and phloem.

Gymnosperms

1. They produce cones.
2. Ovules are naked and no fruit formation occurs.
3. They are not classified.
4. Xylem lacks vessels and phloem lacks companion cells.

VIII. Give answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Write the merits and demerits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:
Merits:

1. This system of classification is more scientific and natural.
2. This system of classification clearly indicates the cellular organization, mode of nutrition, and characters for early evolution of life.
3. It is the most accepted system of modem classification as the different groups of organisms are placed phylogenetically.
4. It indicates gradual evolution of complex organisms from simpler one.

Demerits:

1. 1.In this system of classification of viruses have not been given a proper place.
2. Multicellular organisms have originated several times from protists.
3. This type of classification has drawn back with reference to the lower forms of life.
4. Some organisms included under protista are not eukaryotic.

IX. Creative questions: HOTS

Question 1.
Blue green algae are not placed under kingdom protista whereas other algae are placed under it.
Answer:
Blue green algae has prokaryotic cells like bacteria. The cells lake a proper nucleus, therefore they are placed with bacteria in kingdom monera.

Question 2.
How can you differentiate a Prokaryotic cell from Eukaryotic cell.
Answer:
Prokaryotic
1. Presence of a true nucleus is eukaryotes ,
2. Eg. A nucleus which is covered by a nuclear membrane.

Prokaryotic
1. Presence of a true nucleus is eukaryotes ,
2. Eg. A nucleus which is covered by a nuclear membrane.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Electricity

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 2 Question 1.
The device which converts chemical energy into electrical energy is
(a) fan
(b) solar cell
(c) cell
(d) television
Answer:
(c) cell

Science Term 2 Question 2.
Electricity is produced in
(a) transformer
(b) power station
(c) electric wire
(d) television
Answer:
(b) power station

Samacheer Kalvi Term 2 Question 3.
Choose the symbol for battery

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 4.
In which among the following circuits does the bulb glow?

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 5.
……… is a good conductor
(a) silver
(b) wood
(c) rubber
(d) plastic
Answer:
(a) silver

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. _______ are the materials which allow electric current to pass through them.
2. Flow of electricity through a closed circuit is _______
3. _______ is the device used to close or open an electric circuit.
4. The long perpendicular line in the electrical symbol represents its _______ terminal.
5. The combination of two or more cells is called a _______

Answers:

1. conductors
2. a complete electric circuit
3. Key or Switch
4. positive
5. Battery

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
In a parallel circuit, the electricity has more than one path.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Question 2.
To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cell.
Answer:
False. To make a battery of two cells, the negative terminal of one cell is connected to the positive terminal of the other cell. (OR) To make a battery of two cells, the positive terminal of one cell is connected to the negative terminal of the other cells.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 3.
The switch is used to close or open an electric circuit.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Answers Question 4.
Pure water is a good conductor of electricity.
Answer:
False. Impure water is a good conductor of electricity

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Term 2 Question 5.
Secondary cell can be used only once.
Answer:
False. Primary cells can be used only once

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

V. Arrange in sequence:

Answer:

VI. Give Very Short Answers:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Guide Science Question 1.
In the given circuit diagram, which of the given switch(s) should be closed, So that only the bulb A glows.

Answer:
Switches K₁ and K₂ should be closed.

6th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 2.
Assertion (A): It is very easy for our body to receive electric shock.
Reason (R) : Human body is a good conductor of electricity.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.
b. A is correct, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
c. A is wrong but R is correct.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation for A.
Answer:
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation for A.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Book Back Answers Question 3.
Can you produce electricity from lemon?
Answer:
Yes, I can produce electricity from lemon.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Question 4.
Identify the conductor from the following figures.

Answer:
The conductor is Iron chain.

6th Standard Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
What type of circuit is there in a torchlight?
Answer:
Simple circuit system is used in a torchlight.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 2 Question 6.
Circle the odd one out. Give reason for your choice.
Switch, Bulb, Battery, Generator.
Answer:
Generator. Switch, Bulb, Battery are the components used to make simple circuit. Generator is used to generate electricity.

VII. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
Draw the circuit diagram for series connection.
Answer:

Question 2.
Can the cell used in the clock gives us an electric shock? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. The cell used in clock will not give us an electric shock because the voltage of that cell is very low nearly 1.5 v.
2. So it will not affect our body.

Question 3.
Silver is a good conductor but it is not preferred for making electric wires. Why?
Answer:
Silver is a good conductor. But it is a costly metal. So it is not preferred for making electric wire.

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is the source of electricity? Explain the various power stations in India? Thermal power stations:
Answer:

1. In thermal power stations, thermal energy is generated by burning coal, diesel or gas to produce steam.
2. Steam is used to rotate turbine to generate electricity.
3. Here heat energy is converted into electric energy.

Hydel power stations :

1. In hydel power stations, the turbine is made to rotate by the flow of water from dams.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electric energy.

Atomic power station :

1. Here nuclear energy is used to boil water
2. The steam thus produced is used to rotate the turbine, as a result electricity is produced.
3. Here nuclear energy is converted into mechanical energy.

Windmills :

1. In wind mills, wind energy is used to rotate turbine to produce electricity.
2. Here kinetic energy is converted into electrical energy.

Question 2.
Tabulate the different components of an electric circuit and their respective symbols.
Answer:

Question 3.
Write short notes on conductors and insulators.
Answer:
Conductors:
The rate of flow of electric charges in a circuit is called electric current. The materials which allow electric charges to pass through them are called conductors.
Examples: Copper, iron, aluminum, impure water, earth etc.,

Iniulaton (Non-Conductors):
The materials which do not allow electric charges to pass through them are called insulators or non- conductors. Examples: plastic, glass, wood, rubber, china clay, ebonite etc.

IX. Questions Based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Rahul wants to make an electric circuit. He has a bulb, two wires, a safety pin and a piece of copper. He does not have any electric cell or battery. Suddenly he gets some idea. He uses a lemon instead of a battery and makes a circuit. Will the bulb glow?
Answer:
Yes the bulb will glow:

1. Take a lemon. Squeeze it without breaking its skin. The squeezing action releases the juice inside the lemon needed as a the battery to work.
2. Use a nail to make one hole in one end of the lemon and push a copper wire into that hole.
3. Then, push the nail into the other end.
4. Connect a bulb with one of the terminal with the copper wire and other terminal with the nail, as shown in the figure.
5. Now the lemon generates a small amount of electricity and the bulb glows.

X. Search ten words in the given word grid and classify them as conductors and insulators.

Answer:

Conductors:

1. Alumtnium
2. Earth
3. Copper
4. Iron
5. Sea water

Insulators:

1. Wood
2. Plastic
3. Rubber
4. Glass
5. Eraser

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
List out the electrical appliances used in your home.
Answer:

1. Television
2. Computer
3. Laptop
4. Mobile Phones
5. Fridge
6. Heater
7. Air conditioner
8. Microwave oven
9. Inverter
10. Washing machine with drier.

Activity 2

Question 2.
From the following pictures, identify those use primary cell and secondary cell. Mark Primary cell as ‘P’, Secondary cell as ‘S’.

Answer:
Watch – Primary cell
Car – Secondary cell
Remote – Primary cell
Mobile phone – Secondary cell
Emergency Lamp – Secondary cell

Activity 3

Question 1.
Take a dry cell used in a flashlight or clock. Read the label and note the following.
1. Where is the ‘+’ and ‘-’ symbol?
2. What is the output voltage?
Look at the cells that you come across and note down the symbols and voltage.
Answer:
1. The polarity of the cell is labeled in the schematic by a (+) and a (-) at the appropriate pole of the cell. Long line pole is +ve and short line pole is -ve.
2. The output voltage is 1.5 V.

Activity 4

Question 1.
Connect the objects given in the table between A and B and write whether the bulb glows or not.

Answer:

Activity 5

Question 1.
Shall we make our own Battery
Produce electricity using copper plates, zinc plate, connecting wires, key, beaker and porridge (rice water) [the older the porridge the better will be the current| Arrange copper and zinc plates in series as shown in the figure. Half till two beakers with porridge. Connect the copper plate with the positive of and LED bulb and zinc to the negative. Observe what happens.
Now you can replace porridge with curd, potato, lemon etc.

Answer:
Porridge, curd, potato, lemon are used to produce electricity. Less amount of electricity is produced. The LED bulb will glow with low energy.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Electricity Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
One of the atomic power station is located in ________
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Neyveli
(d) Kalpakkam
Answer:
(d) Kalpakkam

Question 2.
Coil of wire is rotated between electromagnets is created
(a) Heat
(b) Electromagnetic induction
(c) Kinetic energy
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Electromagnetic induction

Question 3.
Secondary cells are used in ________
(a) Mobile phone
(b) wall clocks
(c) watches
(d) toys
Answer:
(a) Mobile phone

Question 4.
Which circuits are used in homes?
(a) Parallel circuit
(b) Serial circuit
(c) Simple circuit
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Parallel circuit

Question 5.
________ is an instrument used in electric circuits to find the quantity of current flowing through the circuit.
(a) Volt meter
(b) Ammeter
(c) Cell
(d) Key
Answer:
(b) Aniniele

Question 6.
Thomas Alva Edison invented more than ________ useful inventions which are used in homes.
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 500
(d) 1000
Answer:
(d) 1000

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Hydel electricity is produced in ________ in Tirunelveli district.
2. In Thermal power station ________ is used as fuel.
3. ________ Cells used in automobiles like cars and buses are large and very heavy.
4. The rate of flow of electric charges in a circuit is called ________
5. ________ is a kind of fish which is able to produce electric current.
6. ________ are used to connect devices.
7. ________ was an American inventor, who invented electric bulb.

Answers:

1. PaPanasam
2. Coal or diesel
3. Secondary
4. Electric Current
5. Electric Eel
6. Connecting Wires
7. Thomas Alva Edison

III. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement.

Question 1.
Windmills are located at Neyveli in Kanyakumari district.
Answer:
False. Windmills are located at Aalvaimozhi in Kanyakumari district.

Question 2.
In atomic power station nuclear energy is converted into electrical energy.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Primary cells are usually produced in large sizes.
Answer:
False. Primary cells are usually produced in small sizes.

Question 4.
Primary cells are used in mobile phones.
Answer:
False. Secondary cells are used in mobile phones.

Question 5.
In a circuit if the key is in open (off) condition, then electricity will not flow.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Ebonite do not allow electric charges to pass through them.
Answer:
True.

IV. Analogy.

Question 1.
Thermal power station : Neyveli.
Hydel power station : ________
Answer:
Mettur

Question 2.
Kayatharu in Tirunelveli district: Wind mills.
Koodankulam in Tirunelveli district: ________
Answer:
Atomic power station.

Question 3.
Primary cells : Toys
Secondary cells: ________
Answer:
Emergency lamps.

Question 4.
Bulbs are connected in series : Series circuit.
Bulbs are connected in parallel: ________
Answer:
Parallel circuit.

V. Match the following :
A.

Answer:

1. – d
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c

B.

Answer:

1. – e
2. – d
3. – b
4. – a
5. – c

VI. Give Short Answers

Question 1.
How many cells are required to make a battery?
Answer:

1. Two or more cells are combined to make a battery.
2. A battery is a collection of cells.

Question 2.
Where are the Hydel power stations located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Mettur in Salem District.
2. Papanasam in Tirunelveli District.

Question 3.
Where are Windmills located in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Aralvaimozhi in Kanyakumari District.
2. Kayatharu in Tirunelveli District.

Question 4.
What are the types of electric circuits?
Answer:

1. Simple circuit
2. Series circuit
3. Parallel circuit

Question 5.
What are the types of cells? Give examples.
(i) Primary cells.
(ii) Secondary cells.
Primary cells : Cells used in clocks, watches and toys, etc.
Secondary cell: Cells used in Mobile phones, Laptops and Emergency lamps.

Question 6.
What is the electric current?
Answer:
The rate of flow of electric charges in a circuit is called electric current.

Question 7.
Differentiate Primary and Secondary cells.
Answer:
Primary cells:

1. They cannot be recharged.
2. They can be used only once
3. Usually produced in small size.

Secondary cells:

1. They can be recharged.
2. They can be used again and again.
3. The size can be small or even large.

Question 8.
Define simple circuit.
Answer:
A circuit consisting of a cell, key, bulb and connecting wires is called a simple circuit.

Question 9.
What is electric circuit?
Answer:
An electric circuit is the continuous or unbroken closed path along which electric current flows from the positive terminal to the negative terminal of the battery.

Question 10.
Give the types of circuits.
Answer:
They are three types of circuits.

1. Simple circuit
2. Series circuit
3. Parallel circuit.

Question 11.
Why parallel circuits are used in homes?
Answer:
Parallel circuits are used in homes, because if any one of the bulb is damaged or disconnected, the other part of the circuit will work.

Question 12.
Identify the conductors and insulators among the following?
Copper, plastic, glass, iron, wood, Aluminum, China clay, impure water, Earth, ebonite
Answer:
Conductors:

1. Copper
2. iron
3. Aluminium
4. impure water
5. Earth

Insulators:

1. plastic
2. glass
3. wood
4. China clay
5. ebonite

Question 13.
Draw a circuit diagram for parallel connection?
Answer:

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Describe open circuit and closed circuits with diagram.
Answer:
(i) Open Circuit:
In a circuit if the key is in open (off) condition, then electricity will not flow and the circuit is called an open circuit. The bulb will not glow in this circuit.

(ii) Closed Circuit
In a circuit if the key is in closed (on) condition, then electricity will flow and the circuit is called a closed circuit. The bulb will glow in this circuit.

Question 2.
Describe series circuit a..d parallel circuit with diagram.
Answer:
(i) Series Circuit:

If two or more bulbs are connected in series in a circuit, then that type of circuit is called series circuit. if any one of the bulbs is damaged or disconnected, the entire circuit will not work.

(ii) Parallel Circuit:

If two or more bulbs are connected in parallel in a circuit, then that type of circuit is called parallel circuit. If any one of the bulb ¡s damaged or disconnected, the other part of the circuit will work. So parallel circuits are used in homes.

Question 3.
What are the safety measures to safeguard a person from electric shock?
Answer:

1. Switch off the power supply.
2. Remove connections from the switch.
3. Push him away using non conducting materials.
4. Give him first aid.
5. Take him to the nearest health centre.

Students can Download English Lesson 3 In Celebration of Being Alive Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Prose Chapter 3 In Celebration of Being Alive

12th English In Celebration Of Being Alive Paragraph Warm Up

There are several physically-challenged people who have lived successful and meaningful lives. Here are a few personalities who have fought great odds and lived a life of blazing achievements. Let’s share wdiat we know about each of them and complete the table below.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English In Celebration of Being Alive Textual Questions

1. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences based on your understanding of the lesson.

In Celebration Of Being Alive Summary Question (a)
What thoughts troubled Dr. Christiaan Barnard as he neared the end of his career as a heart surgeon?
Answer:
Towards the end of his career, Dr. Christiaan Barnard was troubled by the suffering of people and especially of young children. He could not accept the fact that 12 million children are unlikely to reach the age of one and about 6 million children die annually before reaching the age of five.

In Celebration Of Being Alive Paragraph Question (b)
What were Dr. Barnard’s feelings when he was hospitalized after an accident?
Answer:
He experienced not only agony but also anger after they had met with an accident. He had eleven broken ribs and perforated lungs. His wife had a badly fractured shoulder. He could not understand why they should undergo pain when they had other important things to do in life during that time.

In Celebration Of Being Alive Question (c)
When and where did the accident occur?
Answer:
He and his wife were crossing the road after a lovely meal. A car hit him and knocked him ’ into his wife. His wife was thrown into the other lane and was struck by a car coming in the opposite direction.

In Celebration Of Being Alive Questions And Answers Question (d)
How did the hospitalization of Dr. Barnard and his wife affect their routine?
Answer:
As a heart surgeon, he had to operate many heart patients. He was helpless as he had perforated lungs and broken ribs. His wife could not take care of the baby. Thus the routine life of both Dr. Barnard and his wife was affected adversely.

12th English Unit 3 Prose Question (e)
How was Dr. Barnard’s attitude to suffering different from that of his father’s?
Answer:
Dr. Barnard’s father accepted suffering as God’s will. He also believed that suffering ennobles humans. But Dr. Barnard found no meaning in the agony and suffering of patients and especially of the young children.

In Celebration Of Being Alive Book Back Answers Question (f)
How was the unattended trolley put to use?
Answer:
The unattended trolley was used as a car for a race (Grand prix of Cape Town’s Red cross childrens’ hospital) within the hospital.

In Celebration Of Being Alive Summary In English Question (g)
What roles did the duo take up?
Answer:
The unattended trolley was commandeered by a crew of two boys. One served as the driver and the other as a mechanic.

12th English 3rd Prose Question (h)
Why did the choice of roles prove to be easy for them?
Answer:
The mechanic provided motor power by galloping along behind the trolley with his head down. The driver steered the trolley by scraping his foot on the floor. The choice of the roles was easy because the mechanic was totally blind and the driver had only one arm.

Question (i)
Who encouraged them and how?
Answer:
They were encouraged by laughter and shouts of encouragement from the rest of the patients.

Question (j)
What does Dr. Barnard compare this entertainment to?
Answer:
Dr. Barnard compared the trolley race as much better entertainment than anything anyone puts on at the Indianapolis 500 car race.

Question (k)
What happened in the grand finale?
Answer:
There was a grand finale of scattered plates and silverware before the nurse and ward sister caught up with them.

Question (l)
How does Dr. Barnard know the boy who played the trolley’s driver?
Answer:
Dr. Barnard knew the trolley’s driver better. He had successfully closed a hole in his heart a few years back.

Question (m)
What was the profound lesson that Dr. Barnard learnt from the boys?
Answer:
The boys had taught Dr. Barnard the lesson in getting on with the business of living. The business of living is the celebration of being alive.

Additional Questions

Question (a)
What did the Grand Prix of the hospital teach the author?
Answer:
The author found out that his perception of human suffering was incomplete. The boys taught him how the experience of suffering helps a person value life. This thought gave the author a solace.

2. Answer the following questions in three or four sentences.

Question (а)
Detail the statistics Dr. Barnard has provided in his speech.
Answer:
Of the 125 million children bom that year, 12 million are unlikely to reach the age of one. Another six million will die before the age of five. Among the rest, many will end up as mental or physical cripples.

Question (b)
What happened when the doctor couple were crossing the street?
Answer:
After a nice meal, Dr. Barnard and his wife were crossing the street. A car hit the doctor. He dashed against his wife who was thrown on the other side of the road. She was hit by another car from the opposite side.

Question (c)
What injuries did they sustain in the accident?
Answer:
Dr. Barnard had eleven broken ribs. A lung was profoundly perforated. His wife had a badly fractured shoulder.

Question (d)
Dr. Barnard couldn’t find any nobility in suffering. Why?
Answer:
As a doctor, he does not find any nobility in suffering. There is nothing noble in a patient’s thrashing around in a sweat-soaked bed, mind clouded in agony. He was against his dad’s faith that suffering ennobles human beings.

Question (e)
Why does Dr. Barnard find suffering of children heartbreaking?
Answer:
He has always found suffering of young children heart-breaking. Especially because they have total faith in doctors. They believe doctors will help. They don’t complain even after undergoing a mutilating surgery.

Question (f)
How did the boy who played the mechanic lose his eyesight?
Answer:
The mechanic was seven years old. One night, when his drunk father tortured his mom, she threw a lantern at him. The lantern broke over the child’s head and shoulders. He suffered third degree bums on the upper part of his body and lost both of his eyes.

Question (g)
Why does Dr. Barnard describe the blind boy as a ‘walking horror’?
Answer:
At the time of the grand prix, the boy was a walking horror. His face was disfigured. A long flap of skin was hanging from the side of his neck to his body. As the wound healed around his neck, his lower jaw became gripped in a mass of fibrous tissue. The only way he could open his mouth was to raise his head.

Question (h)
What were the problems the trolley driver suffered from?
Answer:
The trolley’s driver had a malignant tumour of the bone. A few days before the race, his shoulder and arm were amputated. There was no hope of recovery.

Additional Questions

Question (a)
How does suffering ennoble a person?
Answer:
One does not become a better person because one has suffered. One becomes a better person because one has undergone suffering. One can’t appreciate light in the absence of darkness.

3. Answer the following in a paragraph of 100 – 150 words each.

Question (a)
Give an account of the medical problems for which the two boys were hospitalized.
Answer:
The seven years old mechanic suffered third degree bums on the upper part of his body. He had lost both his eyes. He was literally a walking horror. He was disfigured. A long flap of skin w as hanging from the side of his neck to his body. As the wound healed around his neck, his lower jaw became gripped in a mass of fibrous tissue. The trolley driver had a malignant tumour of the bone. A few days before the race, his shoulder and arm were amputated. There was little hope of his recovery. If two adults had similar ailments, they would have got dejected with life. But the boys were just happy celebrating the joy of being alive.

Question (b)
“These two children had given me a profound lesson …” Elucidate.
Answer:
The author had self-pity and was cursing the accident that had caused him and his wife great pain and inconveniences in the daily routine. But the two little boys, one almost scarred to death with both eyes gone and the other with amputated arm and no hope of recovery wrere together celebrating the joy of being alive. They minded the business of living ignoring pain, surgery and the sickly environment. Dr. Barnard leamt the lesson from the children that the business of living is joy in the real sense of the w ord. It was not just something for pleasure, amusement or recreation. The business of living is the celebration of being alive.

Question (c)
Describe the ‘Grand Prix’ at Cape Town’s Red Cross Children’s Hospital.
Answer:
The author describes the event as “the Grand Prix of Cape Town’s Red Cross Childrens’ Hospital”. A nurse had left a breakfast trolley unattended. Very soon this trolley was commandeered by a daring crew of two, a driver and a mechanic. The mechanic provided motor power by galloping along behind the trolley head down. While the driver, seated on the lower deck held on with one hand and steered it by scrapping his foot on the floor. The choice of roles wag easy because the mechanic was totally blind and the driver had only one arm. It was better than Indianapolis 500 car race. Patients shouted and cheered the boys. There was a grand finale of scattered plates and silverware before the nurse and ward sister took control of the situation.

Question (d)
How did a casual incident in a hospital help Dr. Barnard perceive a new dimension of life?
Answer:
Initially Dr. Barnard was grumbling. He wondered why on earth he and his wife should have been subjected to agony and inconvenience. He couldn’t take his dad’s view that suffering ennobles human beings. But the little boys taught him a profound lesson of life. One should get on with the business of living irrespective of whatever misfortune strikes one. You don’t become a better person because you suffered, your suffering does not ennoble you. But you become a better person because you have experienced suffering. It is not what you have lost is important. What is important is what you have left. We can appreciate light better once we have experienced darkness. Similarly, we can appreciate warmth only after experiencing cold.

Question (e)
Life is unjust and cruel to certain people. Do they all resign themselves to their fate? Can you think of some who have fought their disabilities heroically and remained a stellar example for others? (for e.g. the astrophysicist Stephen Hawking, a paraplegic). Give an account of one such person and his/her struggle to live a fruitful life.
Answer:
Alexis Leon lives in Kakkanad, Kerala. He passed B.Tech from the university of Kerala with first rank. Then he did his M.Tech. He met w ith an accident in 1993 which left him paralysed from chest down and confined him to a wheel chair for the rest of his life. After a brief spell of dejection owing to a suspended marriage, he made up his mind to write books. He has written 50 books for Engineering graduates.

His notable w’ork is ‘Internet for Everyone’ and ‘A Guide to Software Configuration Management’. He is also a mentor at International Mentoring Network Association. He offers software consultancy to international IT companies. He travels across the world and delivers lectures to graduates and Corporates. His indomitable will has made him strong. He has become a light house for many aspirants in the software industry.

Additional Questions

(a) What did Dr. Christiaan Barnard know about the mechanic and his family?
Answer:
The mechanic was seven years old. Both of his parents were drunk while quarreling, his mom threw a lantern at his father. It missed him but hit the boy. He suffered severe third degree bums on the upper part of his body. He had lost both his eyes in the process. He got a disfigured face. He was a walking horror with a long flap of skin hanging from the side off his next to his body.

Vocabulary

1. More and more, as I near the end of my career as a heart surgeon, my thoughts have turned to the consideration of why people should suffer. Suffering seems so cruelly prevalent in the world today. Do you know that of the 125 million children born this year, 12 million are unlikely to reach the age of one and another six million will die before the age of five? And, of the rest, many will end up as mental or physical cripples.

2. My gloomy thoughts probably stem from an accident I had a few years ago. One minute I was crossing the street with my wife after a lovely meal together, and the next minute a car had hit me and knocked me into my wife. She was thrown into the other lane and struck by a car coming from the opposite direction.

3. During the next few days in the hospital, I experienced not only agony and fear but also anger. I could not understand why my wife and I had to suffer. I had eleven broken ribs and a perforated lung. My wife had a badly fractured shoulder. Over and over, I asked myself, why should this happen to us? I had work to do, after all; there were patients waiting for me to operate on them. My wife had a young
baby who needed her care

4. My father, had he still been alive, would have said: “My son, it’s God’s will. That’s the way God tests you. Suffering ennobles you – makes you a better person.”

5. But, as a doctor, I see nothing noble in a patient’s thrashing around in a sweat-soaked bed, mind clouded in agony. Nor can I see any nobility in the crying of a lonely child in a ward at night.

6. In those days, they didn’t have sophisticated heart surgery. I have always found the suffering of children particularly heartbreaking–especially because of their total trust in doctors and nurses. They believe you are going to help them. If you can’t they accept their fate. They go through mutilating surgery, and afterwards they don’t complain.

7. One morning, several years ago, I witnessed what I call the Grand Prix of Cape Town’s Red Cross Children’s Hospital. It opened my eyes to the fact that I was missing something in all my thinking about suffering – something basic that was full of solace for me.

8. What happened there that morning was that a nurse had left a breakfast trolley unattended. And very soon this trolley was commandeered by an intrepid crew of two – a driver and a mechanic. The mechanic provided motor power by galloping along behind the trolley with his head down, while the driver, seated on the mower deck, held on with one hand and steered by scraping his foot on the floor. The choice of roles was easy because the mechanic was totally blind and the driver had only one arm.

9. They put on quite a show that day. Judging by the laughter and shouts of encouragement from the rest of the patients, it was a much better entertainment than anything anyone puts on at the Indianapolis 500 car race. There was a grand finale of scattered plates and silverware before the nurse and ward sister caught up with them, scolded them and put them back to bed.

10. Let me tell you about these two. The mechanic was all of seven years old. One night, when his mother and father were drunk, his mother threw a lantern at his father, missed and the lantern broke over the child’s head and shoulders. He suffered severe third-degree burns on the upper part of his body, and lost both his eyes.

At the time of the Grand Prix, he was a walking horror, with a disfigured face and long flap of skin hanging from the side of his neck to his body. As the wound healed around his neck, his lower jaw became gripped in a mass of fibrous tissue. The only way this little boy could open his mouth was to raise his head. When I stopped by to see him after the race, he said, “You know, we won.” And he was laughing.

11. The trolley’s driver I knew better. A few years earlier, I had successfully closed a hole in his heart. He had returned to the hospital because he had a malignant tumour of the bone. A few days before the race, his shoulder and arm were amputated. There was little hope of his recovery. After the Grand Prix, he proudly informed me that the trolley’s wheels were not properly oiled, but he was a good driver, and he had full confidence in the mechanic.

12. Suddenly, I realized that these two children had given me a profound lesson in getting on with the business of living. Because the business of living is joy in the real sense of the word, not just something for pleasure, amusement, recreation. The business of living is the celebration of being alive.

13. I had been looking at suffering from the wrong end. You don’t become a better person because you are suffering; but you become a better person because you have experienced suffering. We can’t appreciate light if we haven’t known darkness. Nor can we appreciate warmth if we have never suffered cold. These children showed me that it’s not what you’ve lost that’s important. What is important is what you have left

(a) Go through the lesson and spot the words which mean the same as the following.

1. profession (para 1)
2. sorrowful (para 2)
3. decency (para 5)
4. destiny (para 6)
5. hijacked (para 8)
6. motivation (para 9)
7. serious (para 10)
8. significant (para 13)

Answer:

1. career
2. gloomy
3. nobility
4. fate
5. commandeered
6. encouragement
7. severe
8. important

(b) Go through the lesson and spot the words opposite to the meaning of the following.

1. rare (para 1)
2. primitive (para 6)
3. fiction (para 7)
4. fearful (para 8)
5. benign (para 11)
6. diffidence (para 11)
7. boredom (para 12)
8. criticize (para 13)

Answers

1. prevalent
2. sophisticated
3. fact
4. intrepid
5. malignant
6. confidence
7. recreation
8. appreciate

(c) Frame illustrative sentences to distinguish the meaning of the words in the following clusters.

Question 1.
career – carrier – courier
Answer:
A J. Cronin started his career as a doctor but eventually became a writer.
The curry spilled over as the tiffin carrier lid was not tightly closed.
The courier office is closed on Sundays.

Question 2.
patients – patience – patents
Answer:
I saw a large number of patients standing in queue in front of the Government Hospital.
The patience of the gardener got paid well when the garden bloomed.
No other scientist in the world has got so many patents as Edison did.

Question 3.
accident – incident – incidence
Answer:
The accident took place in front of the hospital.
The incident of the French camp is an interesting poem.
The rising incidence of cross border terror attacks has annoyed India.

Question 4.
scraping – scrapping – scrubbing
Answer:
Scraping of NEET may help rural students to get into Government Medical Colleges.
Anil Ambani’s company suffered through several bankruptcies, resulting in scrapping of many deals.
After scrubbing the stains for a long time, she found that the stain was gone but the cloth had got damaged.

Question 5.
accept – except – expect
Answer:
Don’t accept bribe.
Except Raghu all had paid the fees for NEET coaching.
Those who don’t expect much gain a lot in life.

Question 6.
lesson – lessen – lesion
Answer:
Dr. Barnard leamt a great lesson from the two disabled kids.
This medicine will lesson the pain.
The protruding thorn caused a lesion in his forearm.

Question 7.
severe – sever – sewer
Answer:
Prime Minister of India warned Pakistan of severe consequences of Pulwana terror attack.
It is difficult to sever the relationship on flimsy reasons.
Madras Corporation has invested a lot in laying underground sewer.

Question 8.
raise – rise – rice
Answer:
The philanthropist raised funds for the benefit of relations of those warriors who laid down their lives in Pulwana.
“The rise and fall of Roman empire” is an interesting book.
Many poor people do not use the ration rice but exchange it for other items.

Question 9.
quiet – quite – quit
Answer:
Sheela lives in her quiet cottage in Chengalpattu with her retired husband.
Life in Coimbatore is quite expensive.
Some players, who are jealous of Dhoni’s reputation, want him to quit before the world cup matches.

Question 10.
final – finale – feline
Answer:
You must be relaxed before the final examination.
The performance of the child with autism in super singer in the grand finale was amazing.
I have a young feline pet who is very naughty.

(d) Fill in the blanks with the words given in brackets.

[profound, amusement, confidence, agony, solace, intrepid, disfigured, perforated]

1. Theatrical plays were a main source of ________ before the advent of television.of police.
2. The ________ warriors of the Spartan Army marched into battle against a powerful enemy.
3. The ________ of parents finally came to an end when their lost child was found with the help
4. Social media has brought about a ________ impact on the lives of millennial.
5. The tyres of the car got ________ when the vehicle rolled over the rusted nails scattered on the road.
6. Thomas Alva Edison did not lose his ________ , even after facing a series of experimental’ failures in his quest to discover tungsten.
7. Many victims of the pipeline explosion in an oil refinery were left permanently ________
8. The old lady found ________ in the company of the children in the neighbourhood

Answer:

1. amusement
2. intrepid
3. agony
4. profound
5. perforated
6. confidence
7. disfigured
8. solace

(e) Form a phrase with each of the

1. muscle + pain – muscular pain
2. skeleton + system – skeletal system
3. nerve + disorder – nervous disorder
4. digestion + enzymes – digestive enzyme
5. surgery + instruments – surgical instruments
6. agony + experience – agonising experience
7. glory + victory – glorious victory
8. fancy + idea – fanciful idea
9. emotion + song – emotional song
10. sense + issue – sensitive issue

(f) Fill the empty boxes with suitable words under each word class.

Answer:

(g) Spot the errors in the following sentences and rewrite them correctly.

Question 1.
My grandfather is well-known in the village for his nobel deeds.
Answer:
My grandfather is well-known in the village for his noble deeds.

Question 2.
I had my evening meals in a restaurant near my office.
Answer:
I had my dinner in a restaurant near my office.

Question 3.
The Boss had full confidence on his Manager for successful completion of the project.
Answer:
The Boss had full confidence in his Manager for successful completion of the project.

Question 4.
After the complicated surgery, the patient hoped of complete recovery.
Answer:
After the complicated surgery, the patient hoped for complete recovery.

Question 5.
The new health care scheme announced by the Government will bring relief to the children suffering with acute tuberculosis.
Answer:
The new health care scheme announced by the Government will bring relief to the children suffering from acute tuberculosis.

Question 6.
In spite of his poverty and setbacks, he was able to launch his dream carrier.
Answer:
In spite of his poverty and setbacks, he was able to launch his dream career.

Listening Activity

Listen to the passage being read out. Based on your understanding, complete the statements given below with appropriate answers.

Boredom
We have all experienced boredom sometime or the other. Boredom occurs when a person is unable to stay attentive. It is something more than an unpleasant feeling. It can make you angry and frustrated and lead to negative physical health consequences.

How boredom affects one physically
A study reveals that when a person is affected by acute boredom his eyelids droop and the face assumes a frown. There is a gradual loss of ability to coordinate movements. These symptoms are accompanied by mental fatigue and a slowing down of thought processes. A bored person at work is likely to make many more errors than one who is not bored. We should never let boredom take charge. There are several easy ways to overcome boredom.

Here are a few practical suggestions:

• Set goals for yourself, work towards them.
• Develop an interest in hobbies and crafts.
• Socialize, stay in the company of cheerful people.
• Take up a charitable cause.
• Exercise regularly.

Coming out of boredom will feel like breaking free from a cold, dark room into the outdoors on a warm, sunny day

Questions:

1. Boredom occurs when a person is unable to
2. ______ and ______ are emotional consequences of boredom.
3. Two physical signs of acute boredom are (a) ______ (b) ______
4. How does boredom affect the quality of work a person does?
5. Mention two ways by which one can overcome boredom. (a) ______ (b) ______

Answers:

1. stay attentive
2. Anger, frustration
3. (a) Drooping eyelids, (b) Frown
4. A bored person commits a lot of errors in his work.
5. (a) Goal setting, (b) stay in the company of cheerful people

Speaking Activity

1. You are rushing to attend to an important work and you witness an accident on your way. Will you go to the rescue of the injured person? Share your views with the class.
Answer:
There is nothing more valuable than a human life. I would suspend whatever important work I have in hand and call 108 and summon the ambulance. I will try to get the contact number . of the next of kin of the injured person if he/she is conscious. I will inform them the incident without causing panic. I will accompany the injured person to the hospital. In our NSS team, we have blood donors whatsapp group. I will find out if blood is required and inform in my blood donor group to ensure blood donation to the injured person. Only after the doctor confirms that the injured person is out of danger, I will leave the place.

I draw my inspiration to help people in distress from the life of Abraham Lincoln. He was a budding lawyer. He had to walk 2 hours to reach the court. On his way, he found a pig sinking in mud and grunting in agony. It was scared that it would die. Abraham Lincoln was on his only best dress. He just got into the mud, lifted the pig and left him safely on the hard surface. As he reached the court everyone laughed at his dirty coat but Abraham Lincoln just smiled and argued well in favour of his innocent client and got him acquitted too.

2. Every person should take up the responsibility to serve the society in his or her own way. Discuss the various ways in which you can serve the society.
Answer:
Elders keep on telling that students should not enter into politics, instead should focus on studies and scoring high marks. I’ve a sincere feeling that life is more than marks. Students can do a lot of service which would certainly make the society a better place. Though the state government has banned the use of single use plastics, it is widely used. Hot sambar curry and tea are packed in small plastic bags. People just use them.

We can generate awareness to all sellers and buyers in places where large number of people gather that by eating hot things from single use plastic bags, we are increasing the chances of getting cancer.The plastic covers thrown away blatantly does not degenerate for hundreds of years, it does not allow percolation of rain water and soon after rain, we suffer from water scarcity. The rain water runs away and joins the oceans.

We can tell the importance of rain water harvesting and make farming practises economically viable. During elections we can campaign for judicious use of voting rights to elect a person who has both the capacity and love for citizens to serve without expecting anything in return. We can also spread hygiene among the masses.

(a) Pair work: Practise the dialogue with another student. Then write a similar dialogue between a student and the class teacher regarding an educational trip.

Teacher : We plan to go on an excursion.
Student A : Where sir?
Teacher : We will discuss and finalise it today.
Student B : Sir, how about Vandaloor Zoo?
Teacher : it is a very hot season now, all the animals will be taking shelter under distant trees
Student A : We can’t see all of them. What about Vedanthangal?
Teacher : No, only after the rains foreign birds visit it.
Student B : What about Birla Planetarium?
Teacher : Fine, that is a good choice. We will go there next week.

(b) Build a conversation for the following situations with a minimum of five exchanges.

1. A passenger and a railway staff regarding the cancellation of the reserved tickets.

Passenger : Sir, I want to cancel a ticket.
Clerk : When was the journey planned?
Passenger : Sir, next Monday, the 23rd of March.
Clerk : Well, still three days are there.
Passenger : This is my ticket and take the filled in cancellation form. Tell me sir, how much will you deduct.
Clerk : Well, we will deduct only the reservation charges and you will get the balance amount. Take the money and count it, it is Rs. 280/ Thank you sir.

2. Two friends about the NSS camp which they are going to attend.

Tarun : I am leaving for NSS camp.
Kavin : How many days?
Tarun : One week.
Kavin : Where are you going?
Tarun : To Madagupatti.
Kavin : That village has no electricity.
Tarun : Yes. That’s why we are going there to help them in small possible ways.
Kavin : What will you do?
Tarun : We will deepen the lakes, clean the streets, remove the unneeded thorny
Kavin : bushes from the school and temple premises.
Tarun : That is a lot of work.
Kavin : We will conduct a medical camp with the help of doctors too.
Tarun : Sounds exciting. Can I join you?
Tarun : No, brother. Wait till you become old enough to become a volunteer.
Kavin : Well, I’m ten years old already.

3. A salesman and a customer at an electronic shop.

Customer : Good evening sir.
Salesman : Good evening. What shall I do for you?
Customer : We bought a Smart TV last week. It is not working properly.
Salesman : May be the problem is with your dish antenna or cable connection.
Customer : No, the fault is only with the TV.
Salesman : Please leave your address and phone number. I will send the TV mechanic in half an hour.
Customer : Thanks.

4. A father and his daughter about the advantages of the habit of newspaper- reading.

Father : Maydhini my dear, you must read newspapers daily.
Maydhini : How does it help dad? Will they ask questions in the examination from them?
Father : No, newspapers help you know about the world.
Maydhini : I’m a small girl. Are there sections in a newspaper which will have things to my taste?
Father : Why not? You read young world in the Hindu. In fact, children write and send things to be published here.
Maydhini : Can I send my puzzles and paintings?
Father : Yes, of course.
Maydhini : Ok dad, I will read newspaper everyday.

(c) Extend the conversation with two more relevant exchanges.

Question 1.
Receptionist : Good evening, sir. Welcome to Chennai.
Traveller : I would like to book a deluxe room in your hotel for 3 days.
Receptionist : (i) ________
Traveller :(ii) ________
Receptionist :(iii) ________
Traveller :(iv) ________
Answers:
(i) How many people intend to stay sir?
(ii) Three members
(iii) For Deluxe A/C room the charge is Rs. 5000/- per day and for Non A/C it is Rs. 3500/-
(iv) If it includes GST, please book Deluxe A/C room. Take my card and book the room.

Question 2.
Student : Good morning, sir. May I come in?
Teacher : Good morning, why are you late today?
Student : (i) ________
Teacher : (ii) ________
Student : (iii) ________
Teacher : (iv) ________
Answers:
(i) There was a traffic jam sir.
(ii) Why?
(iii) A political party had staged a protest blocking the vehicles. I was stranded and helpless.
(iv) Oh! The politicians should keep in mind the difficulties common people face when doing such protests. Okay, go to your seat now.

Reading

Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.

Humans have long been fascinated by fiction. We experience excitement in assigning supernatural power to imaginary characters in fictional stories – and so we have Spider man, Batman, He man, Titans and many more. The ‘Cyborg’ was an offshoot of such wild imagination of humans to invest our species with superhuman powers. Today, the Cyborg is no more an imaginary organism. We are living in a world where a sizeable population of humans have merged their bodies with technological implants. The term ‘Cyborg’, short for ‘cybernetic organism’, was coined to describe a man, whose body is implanted with technological devices to supplement and substitute body functions.

Cyborgs include people with cardiac pacemakers, contact lenses, bionic ears and eyes, prosthetics and so on. In other words, a cyborg is partly human and partly machine. The technological innovations in the field of medicine and healthcare augment humans with machines, producing a beta version of the human body. The advent of brain machine interfaces is certain to blur the boundary between humans and machines. Scientists are working hard to find a technique for age reversal too. People do not want to die, so mankind is striving to get to the final frontier, which is development of machines and devices that would accord man immortality.

The needs of humans are not limited. As time passes, food habits change, thinking patterns change, and even appearances change. We are about to travel by driverless, folly automated vehicles. Computers and smart phones have become our masters. The more we depend and merge with technological advancements, the more the humanness in us slowly erodes. Intelligence is sought to be infused into machines and robotics are designed in such a way to give man a virtual human companion.

The field of artificial intelligence is overtaking the human brain and many fear that it could even harm the human race. Despite certain limitations and potential threats, many believe that cyborgs will be the next step in the evolution of mankind. The amalgamation of man and machine is sure to add a new dimension to the life of mankind and this will prove to be the ‘biggest evolution in Biology’ since the emergence of life, four billion years ago.

Question (a)
Account for the popularity’ of characters with supernatural powers.
Answer:
Human beings want to achieve things far above their natural capacity. The superheroes like Spiderman, Batman and He man do great feats on screen. So, people like them.

Question (b)
Who is referred to as a ‘Cyborg’?
Answer:
Cyborg is a man whose body is implanted with technological devices to supplement and substitute body functions.

Question (c)
What is expected to happen with the advent of the brain machine interface?
Answer:
The advent of brain machine interface is certain to blur the boundary between machines and humans.

Question (d)
The needs of humans are not limited. How is this statement elaborated in the passage?
Answer:
As the time passes, food habits change, thinking patterns change, even appearances change. We are about to travel by driverless, folly automated
vehicles.

Question (e)
How can a machine turn into a virtual companion for humans?
Answer:
Intelligence is sought to be infused into machines and robots are designed in such a way to give man a virtual human companion.

Question (f)
Explain the flipside of the rapid technological advancement.
Answer:
The more we depend and merge with technological advancements, the humanness in us slowly erodes.

Question (g)
Identify the word in para 2 which means ‘everlasting life’.
Answer:
Immortality in para 2 means ‘everlasting life’.

Question (h)
Which of the following words is synonymous with ‘amalgamation’?
(a) recreation
(b) integration
(c) exploration
(d) proposition
Answer:
(b) integration

Question (i)
Which of the following options is the antonym of the word ‘advent’?
(a) drawback
(b) dispute
(c) departure
(d) danger
Answer:
(c) departure

Question (J)
Find out the word which is the antonym of ‘natural’ in para 2.
Answer:
Prosthetics

Grammar

Tenses
Task 1
Change the following sentences into Passive Voice.

Question (a)
The Governor inaugurated the exhibition at ten o’ clock.
Answer:
The exhibition was inaugurated by the Governor at ten o’ clock

Question (b)
The crowd expected their leader to arrive early in the morning.
Answer:
The leader was expected to arrive early in the morning.

Question (c)
Who taught her Computer Science?
Answer:
By who was she taught Computer Science.

Question (d)
They unanimously named Ravi the captain of team.
Answer:
Ravi was named the captain of the team unanimously.

Question (e)
The President gave the commander an award.
Answer:
An award was given to the commander by the president.

Question (f)
Do not tell a lie.
Answer:
Let not a lie be told.

Question (g)
Please open the door.
Answer:
Let the door be opened please.

Question (h)
It is time to stop the work.
Answer:
It is time for the work to be stopped.

Question (i)
They say he is a spy.
Answer:
It is said that he is a spy.

Question (j)
One should keep one’s promise.
Answer:
Promise must be kept.

Question (k)
People burn a great deal of w ood in winter.
Answer:
A great deal of wood is burnt in the winter by people.

Question (l)
Where had you kept the book?
Answer:
Where had the book been kept by you?

Question (m)
When did you feel the tremors?
Answer:
When was the tremors felt by you?

Question (n)
How did you do the experiment?
Answer:
How was the experiment done by you?

Question (o)
Whose car did someone park in front of your gate?
Answer:
Whose car was parked in front of your gate?

Task 2
Change the following sentences into Active Voice.

Question (а)
The smuggler has been nabbed by the police.
Answer:
The police have nabbed the smuggler.

Question (b)
By whom were you interviewed?
Answer:
Who interviewed you?

Question (c)
Why were you scolded by your parents?
Answer:
Why did your parents scold you?

Question (d)
Not a word was spoken by the convict in self-defence.
Answer:
The convict spoke not a word in self-defence.

Question (e)
Good news is expected shortly.
Answer:
We expect good news shortly.

Question (f)
The mail has just been received.
Answer:
We have received the mail just now.

Question (g)
Sundari has been taken to hospital by her husband.
Answer:
Sundari’s husband has taken her to the hospital.

Question (h)
Our television is being repaired now.
Answer:
We are repairing our TV now.

Question (i)
Sweets have not been distributed to children by the organisers.
Answer:
The organization have not distributed sweets to children.

Question (j)
Prizes were being given by the chief guest.
Answer:
The chief guest was giving prizes.

Question (k)
Nobody has been seen in the library this week.
Answer:
The librarian has not seen anybody in the library this week.

Question (l)
Nobody would have known the truth if you had not disclosed it.
Answer:
Nobody will know the truth if you have not disclosed it.

Question (m)
You are advised to help the poor and needy.
Answer:
Help the poor and the needy.

Question (n)
You are requested to make a cup of tea for the guest.
Answer:
Please make a cup of tea for the guest.

Interrogations Or Questions

Task 1
Add suitable question tags to the following sentences and punctuate properly.

Question 1.
The children are very happy today.
Answer:
The children are very happy today, aren’t they?

Question 2.
You have not returned my books yet.
Answer:
You have not returned my books yet, have you?

Question 3.
We enjoyed the trip very much.
Answer:
We enjoyed the trip very much, didn’t we?

Question 4.
Let’s clean the shelves this weekend.
Answer:
Let’s clean the shelves this weekend, shall we?

Question 5.
My mother rarely travels by bus.
Answer:
My mother rarely travels by bus, does she?

Question 6.
Somebody must bell the cat.
Answer:
Somebody must bell the cat, mustn’t they?

Question 7.
Anita never comes late to office.
Answer:
Anita never comes late to office, does she?

Question 8.
Iam always the winner.
Answer:
I am always the winner, aren’t I?

Question 9.
Don’t commit this mistake again.
Answer:
Don’t commit this mistake again, will you?

Question 10.
There is a pharmacy near that bus stand.
Answer:
There is a pharmacy near that bus stand, isn’t it?

Question 11.
Bacteria can never survive in extreme weather conditions.
Answer:
Bacteria can never survive in extreme weather conditions, can it?

Question 12.
I am not as smart as you are.
Answer:
I am not as smart as you are, am I?

Question 13.
The boys broke the window pane last evening.
Answer:
The boys broke the window pane last evening, didn’t they?

Question 14.
Leaves wither during autumn.
Answer:
Leaves wither during autumn, don’t they?

Question 15.
You should add a little salt to the buttermilk.
Answer:
You should add a little salt to the buttermilk, shouldn’t you?

Task 2
Correct the error found in the question tag in each of the following.

Question 1.
The evil doers cannot cross the path of truth, can’t they?
Answer:
The evil doers cannot cross the path of truth, can they?

Question 2.
The vegetables in the fridge are still fresh, aren’t it?
Answer:
The vegetables in the fridge are still fresh, aren’t they?

Question 3.
The village head understood the intention of the politician, doesn’t he?
Answer:
The village head understood the intention of the politician, didn’t he?

Question 4.
I claim to be a person of faith and prayer, aren’t I?
Answer:
I claim to be a person of faith and prayer, don’t I?

Question 5.
The employees are seldom allowed to meet their boss, aren’t they?
Answer:
The employees are seldom allowed to meet their boss, are they?

Question 6.
Let’s organize a trip to Goa, can we?
Answer:
Let’s organize a trip to Goa, shall we?

Question 7.
The landlady will charge me for the damage, shan’t she?
Answer:
The landlady will charge me for the damage, won’t she?

Question 8.
Both the sisters have left for Canada, aren’t they?
Answer:
Both the sisters have left for Canada, haven’t they?

Question 9.
That’s definitely not the right thing to do in this situation, isn’t that?
Answer:
That’s definitely not the right thing to do in this situation, isn’t it?

Question 10.
We needn’t apply for a bank loan, do we?
Answer:
We needn’t apply for a bank loan, need we?

Question 11.
The Chief Guest spoke a few words, did he?
Answer:
The Chief Guest spoke a few words, didn’t he?

Question 12.
The rhinoceros has a horn made of keratin, haven’t they?
Answer:
The rhinoceros has a horn made of keratin, hasn’t it?

Writing

Story Writing
Task 1
Expand the following outlines into complete stories and supply a suitable title for each.

Question 1.
Big cotton merchant – owned a factory – many employees – one day a heap of cotton stolen – no clue – merchant’s secretary assured to find out – asked him to host dinner – invite all workers – merchant agreed – middle of feast – secretary suddenly shouted – cotton sticking to hair of thieves – the guilty dusted their heads – tried to clear – caught in the trap – punished.
Answer:
Once upon a time there was a big cotton merchant. He owned a factory. Many employees were working in it. One day a bale of cotton was stolen. The merchant had no clue as to who might have stolen the bale of cotton. The merchant’s secretary assured him that she will find out the thief. She asked him to host a dinner and invite all the workers. Merchant agreed. When the feast was in progress, the secretary shouted suddenly, “There is cotton sticking on to the hair of the thieves. The guilty ones involuntarily dusted their heads to clear it. They were caught unawares. They were sacked from their jobs as a punishment for their theft.

Question 2.
Mr. X, a rich businessman – runs a company – always very busy with office work – one day his son – 10 years old – approaches dad and asks – how much he earns in one hour – father gets furious – boy persuades – father says Rs. 500 – immediately son asks for ’ Rs. 300 – father shouts – wasting money on toys – son leaves to his room crying – father feels bad – thinks might need some stationery – enters boy’s room and gives money – boy becomes happy – takes some crumpled notes – under his pillow – counts everything together – total Rs.500 – gives it to dad – wants to buy – one hour of his time – father realizes his mistake – feels sorry and guilty – hugs son – closes all office files – takes him on a picnic – decides to spend more time w ith near and dear ones.
Answer:
Mr. X is a rich business man. He runs a company. He is always busy with his office work. Like a snail, he carries his office work everywhere. His young son one day asks him, “How much do you earn in an hour?” The father gets furious and refuses to reply. But the son coaxes him to give the answer. The father grudgingly says, “Rs. 500/- an hour.” Immediately the boy asks his dad to give him three hundred rupees. He reprimands his son for trying to waste his hard earned money. The boy cries and goes to the bedroom without dinner. The father feels guilty.

He realises that the boy might really need the money for buying some stationary. He gives him three hundred rupees. The next moment, the boy collected all the crumpled notes from under his pillow. Dad asks, “why did you ask for money when you have so much?” Without replying the boy handed him Rs. 500/- and said, “this is the amount you earn in an hour, I have given you that money. Now will you spend an hour with me?” The father realises his mistake. He suspends his work and takes the boy out on a picnic. Then onwards he regularly spends time with near and dear ones.

Task 2
Continue and complete the following stories and suggest suitable titles for the same.

Question 1.
A rich man had a neighbour who was suffering from acute poverty. The rich man was
proud of his wealth and treated his poor neighbour with disrespect and derision. One day, a fortune-teller told the rich man that all his wealth would be possessed by his neighbour within a month. The rich man became greatly worried and spent sleepless nights. He did not know how to safeguard his wealth round the clock. Suddenly he thought of a plan. He disposed of everything he had and with all that money, he bought a large, precious diamond. He sewed up the diamond in his turban. He proudly said to himself, “Now, there’s no way. My poor neighbour can never secure my wealth. The words of the fortune-teller will prove false.” _______
Answer:
Once, he had to go to a distant town with his merchandise. His poor neighbour’s wife came to borrow the turban on the occasion of attending a marriage function in the town. The rich man’s wife wasn’t aware of the value of the turban. She gave it to him. This poor neighbour wore the turban proudly and attended the wedding. When he was returning, he had a feeling that something hurt like a stone. On reaching home, he took a needle and untied the stitches.

He was amazed at the hidden diamond. He threw the turban into the rich man’s compound and vacated the house at night and ran away with his family. When the rich man returned, he saw the turban lying in his compound. He shouted at his wife for not keeping the turban in its proper place. He hurriedly took the turban and touched at the bottom. He was shocked to find the diamond missing. He realized that the fortune-teller w as proved right.
Title: The Rich man’s turban and the fortune-teller

Question 2.
Four friends decided to go to a restaurant for dinner. They ordered an extra-large pizza with grated cheese and other choice toppings. The next 20 minutes seemed to be too long a time. Their eyes widened and their mouth watered, when the server brought the steaming hot pizza and placed it on the table. They could barely control the drool. Simultaneously, all the four hands pulled at a slice from the plate, their faces beaming with a victorious grin. Silence prevailed as they were absorbed in the taste of their favourite food. They relished every mouthful to the core and savoured the taste of each topping with a smile of approval. Soon, the plate was empty and clean with no trace.

The boys dabbed their mouths and wiped their hands with tissues. Mission accomplished, they leaned back with immense joy and satisfaction not knowing, it would be short-lived. The waiter arrived with the bill. Joseph, who had brought the others to the restaurant for a treat casually slipped his hand into his pocket to get his wallet. He gave a soft shriek accompanied by an expression of dismay and utter disbelief. He exclaimed, “It’s not there! Someone has pinched my wallet! What are we to do now?”______
Answer:
One of the friends sprang up saying, “take it easy. Our government has made things simple for us. See we are going digital, isn’t it. So now consider the problem we encountered to be solved.'”Joseph, still will, asked, “What do you mean?” Simple, let me pay the bill through the Paytm app in my mobile. The money will be transferred instantly. Everyone was overjoyed at the turn of the event. They walked out with their pride being saved. It is important to be safe and to have an alternative option in unwarranting situations.

UTHIRA is an event conducted by the NSS unit of ABC Hr Sec School. Imagine you are a volunteer and help a parent fill in the following registration form. (Invent necessary details)

Question 1.

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

In Celebration of Being Alive About The Author

Christiaan Neethling Barnard was bom in rural South Africa in 1922 to poor parents as their fourth child. After the loss of his brother to heart ailment, he resolved to become a doctor. He performed the world’s first successful human heart transplantation in the year 1967. He instantly gained worldwide recognition. He has penned 14 books and 235 scientific articles. Some of his prominent books are, ‘The Best Medicine’ and ‘The Faith’. He has been conferred with 11 honorary doctorates, and 36 International Awards. In his late years, he established the Christiaan Barnard Foundation to serve and promote the cause of underprivileged children throughout the world and died at the age of 78.

In Celebration of Being Alive Summary in English

Introduction
The piece “In celebration of being alive” portrays a new dawn of understanding of human life after he met with an accident.

Is there divinity behind suffering?
Christian Barnard was a Doctor who performed the world’s first human heart transplant operation. He found the suffering of children particularly heart-breaking. During his lifetime, Christian Barnard and his wife met with an accident while they were crossing the road. His eleven ribs were broken and lung was perforated. His wife had a badly fractured shoulder. Both experienced fear and agony in the hospital. He totally disagreed with his father’s view that God tests human beings and suffering ennobles a person.

A life changing event
His brother died of an abnormal heart. This incident brought awareness to Dr. Barnard of the sufferings of little children. Several years ago. Dr. Barnard witnessed an incident at Cape Town’s Red Cross Children’s Hospital. That event made him realize that he was missing something in all his thinking about suffering.

Grand prix in the hospital
While he and his wife were undergoing treatment in the hospital, one day a nurse left a breakfast trolley unattended. Two children who were patients took charge of the trolley. One was blind and the other was crippled. One of them played the role of a driver and the other played that of a mechanic. The blind boy provided motor power, and the crippled sat on the lower deck and steered the trolley. The rest of the patients laughed and gave shouts of encouragement. The nurse and the ward sister finally took control over the situation

Harsh truth about the heroes
The mechanic was a seven-year old boy who was admitted in the hospital due to serious bums on the upper part of his body and lost both of I .eyes.
The driver had a harmful tumor and his shoulder and arm were amputated with little hope of recovery. Both did not lose hope. They enjoyed life despite its stings

Learning life’s lesson
These two children taught Dr. Barnard a profound lesson that the business of living is in the celebration of being alive and not just something for pleasure, amusement and recreation. They made it clear that being alive is more important than the suffering they are experiencing. They made him understand that sufferings does not ennobles humans but celebrating life inspite of the sufferings makes it noble

Conclusion
People try to understand life always with their own experiences. Only when a misfortune strikes, they look at life from a different angle. They may have scars but then they understand what makes life noble.

In Celebration of Being Alive Summary in Tamil

முன்னுரை:
ஆசிரியர் தாம் விபத்துக்குள்ளாகிய பிறகு எழுதிய இந்தக் கட்டுரை மனித வாழ்க்கையின் புது அர்த்தத்தை விவரிக்கக் கூடிய ஒரு விடிவெள்ளியாகும்.

நாம் படும் வேதனைக்குப் பின்னால் தெய்வீக காரணம் உள்ளதா?
கிரிஸ்டியன் பார்னாட் உலகத்திலேயே முதன் முதலாக மனித இதய மாற்று சிகிச்சையை மேற்கொண்ட மருத்துவர் ஆவார். அவர், குழந்தைகள் இதய நோயால் அவதிப்படுவதை கண்டு மனமுடைந்து போனார். அவர்தம் மனைவியுடன் சாலை ஒன்றை கடக்கும் போது இருவரும் விபத்திற்கு உள்ளானார்கள். அவரின் 11 விலா எலும்புகள் முறிந்தன மற்றும் நுரையீரல் சல்லடைத் துளையாகிப் போனது. அவர் மனைவிக்கு தோற்பட்டை முறிந்து போனது. மருத்துவமனையில் பயமும், வேதனையும் அவரைத் தொற்றிக் கொண்டது. ஆசிரியர் தம் தகப்பனாரின் கருத்தான ‘கடவுள் மனிதனை சோதிப்பான், அந்த சோதனை அவனை மேன்மைபடுத்தும்’ என்பதை ஆட்சேபித்தார்.

ஒரு வாழ்க்கை மாறும் நிகழ்வு
அவரின் சகோதரர் அசாதாரண இதயத்துடன் பிறந்ததால் இறந்து போனார். இந்த சம்பவம் குழந்தைகள் படும் துன்பத்தை உணர்த்த வல்லதாக அமைந்தது. பல வருடங்களுக்கு முன்னதாக டாக்டர். பார்னாட் கேப் டவுனின் செஞ்சிலுவை குழந்தைகள் மருத்துவமனையில் ஒரு சம்பவத்தை காண நேரிட்டது. இந்த சம்பவம் அவர் வேதனை என்று தாம் நினைப்பதில் ஏதோ ஒரு குறைபாடு இருப்பதை உணர்ந்தார்.

கிரிஸ்டியன் பார்னாட்டின் மருத்துவமனை அனுபவம்
ஆசிரியரும் அவரது மனைவியும் மருத்துவமனையில் சிகிச்சை மேற்கொண்டிருந்த போது ஒரு சமயம் செவிலிப் பெண் சிற்றுண்டி வண்டியை நிறுத்தி சென்று விட்டார். அங்கு அனுமதிக்கப் பட்டிருந்த இரண்டு நோயாளிகளான சிறுவர்கள் அந்த சிற்றுண்டி வண்டியைக் கையாண்டனர். ஒருவன் குருடன், மற்றவனோ முடவன். அதில் ஒரு சிறுவன் தன்னை ஓட்டுனர் போல் சித்தரித்துக் கொண்டான். மற்றொருவன் இயந்திர தொழில் நிபுணராக வேடம் ஏற்றுக் கொண்டான், கண் இல்லாத சிறுவன் வண்டியை தள்ள வண்டியின் அடித்தளத்தில் அமர்ந்த முடவனான சிறுவன் வண்டியை செலுத்துவது போல் பாவனை செய்தான். இதைக் கண்ட இதர நோயாளிகள் உற்சாகக் கூக்குரல் எழுப்பினார்கள். ஒரு வழியாக செவிலிப் பெண்ணும் மற்றும் வார்ட் சிஸ்ட்டரும் நிலைமையை கட்டுக்குள் கொண்டு வந்தனர்.

இரு கத இயந்திர தெரு வயது சிங்கம் கருகி
இரு கதாநாயகர்களைப் பற்றிய திடுக்கிடும் தகவல்:
இயந்திர தொழில் நிபுணராக தன்னை சித்தரித்துக் கொண்ட 7 வயது சிறுவனின் தீப்புண் காயங்களால் உடலின் மேல் பாகம் கருகி கண் பார்வையை இழந்த நிலையில் மருத்துவமனையில் அனுமதிக்கப்பட்டான். தன்னை ஓட்டுநர் போல் சித்தரித்துக் கொண்டு இருந்த சிறுவனுக்கு தோள்பட்டை புற்றுநோய் பாதித்ததால் கை ஒன்று வெட்டி எடுக்கப்பட்டு உடல்நலம் தேற சிறிது வாய்ப்பே இருந்தது. ஆனால், இருவரும் நம்பிக்கையை இழக்கவில்லை. வாழ்க்கையின் வலியைத் தாண்டிய குதூகலம் அவர்களிடம் காணப்பட்டது.

வாழ்க்கை தந்த பாடம்:
இந்த இரு சிறுவர்களும் டாக்டர். பர்னாட் அவர்களுக்கு கற்றுத் தந்த ஆழ்ந்த உண்மை நாம் | உயிருடன் இருப்பதை கொண்டாடுவதே வாழ்க்கை. | அல்லாமல் சொகுசு. வேடிக்கை மற்றும் பொழுது போக்கு அல்ல என்பதாகும். அவர்கள் தாம் அனுபவிக்கின்ற வலியைக் காட்டிலும் உயிருடன் இருப்பதை |முக்கியத்துவம் வாய்ந்ததாக தெளிவுபடுத்தினர். வேதனைகள் மனிதனை மேம்படுத்துவதில்லை. மாறாக,வேதனைகளை அனுபவித்த பின் வாழ்வதின் சுகம் எளிதில் புலப்படுகிறது.

முடிவுரை:
தம் அனுபவத்தின் வாயிலாகதான் மனிதன் வாழ்க்கையை அறிந்து கொள்கிறான். துன்பப்படும் போது தான் வாழ்க்கையை வேறு கோணத்தில் பார்க்க முயல்கிறான். காயங்கள் அடைந்தபோதிலும் வாழ்க்கையை எது உன்னதப்படுத்துகிறது என்பதை அறிந்து கொள்கிறான்.

In Celebration of Being Alive Glossary

Textual:

Additional:

In Celebration of Being Alive Synonyms

Find out the synonym of the underlined word in each of the following sentences.

Question 1.
My thoughts have turned to the consideration of why people suffer.
(a) imagination
(b) curiosity
(c) absurdity
(d) careful thought
Answer:
(d) careful thought

Question 2.
Suffering seems cruelly prevalent in the world today.
(a) unique
(b) uncommon
(c) common
(d) fair
Answer:
(c) common

Question 3.
Of the rest, many will end up as mental or physical cripples
(a) people with sound bodies
(b) people with rare gifts
(c) people with disabilities
(d) people with perfect health
Answer:
(c) people with disabilities

Question 4.
My gloomy thoughts stem from an accident.
(a) ecstatic
(b) blissful
(c) depressed
(d) lofty
Answer:
(c) depressed

Question 5.
I experienced agony.
(a) relaxation
(b) liberation
(c) amusement
(d) extreme suffering
Answer:
(d) extreme suffering

Question 6.
Dr. Barnard had a perforated lung.
(a) damaged with holes
(b) inflated
(c) shrunk
(d) inebriated
Answer:
(a) damaged with holes

Question 7.
The wound healed around his neck.
(a) cursed
(b) cured
(c) curtailed
(d) contorted
Answer:
(b) cured

Question 8.
He had a malignant tumour of the bone.
(a) harmless
(b) friendly
(c) harm full
(d) helpful
Answer:
(c) harm full

Question 9.
His shoulder and arm were amputated.
(a) attached
(b) surgically cut off
(c) frustrated
(d) transplant
Answer:
(b) surgically cut off

Question 10.
There was little hope for his recovery.
(a) recuperation
(b) discovery
(c) loss
(d) damage
Answer:
(a) recuperation

Question 11.
He had full confidence in the mechanic.
(a) trust
(b) disbelief
(c) doubt
(d) scepticism
Answer:
(a) trust

Question 12.
Two children had given me a profound lesson.
(a) humble
(b) modest
(c) shallow
(d) very great
Answer:
(d) very great

Question 13.
The business of living is joy
(a) amnesia
(b) dyslexia
(c) dementia
(d) delight
Answer:
(d) delight

Question 14.
Life is not something for recreation.
(a) earnestness
(b) meditation
(c) entertainment
(d) distress
Answer:
(c) entertainment

Question 15.
Nor can we appreciate warmth if we have not
(a) heat
(b) wellness
(c) chillness
(d) wetness
Answer:
(a) heat

Question 16.
Suffering ennobles you.
(a) destroys
(b) dignifies
(c) distress
(d) encourages
Answer:
(b) dignifies

Question 17.
I see nothing noble in thrashing around in a sweat-soaked bed
(a) heated
(b) warmed
(c) drenched
(d) smellled
Answer:
(c) drenched

Question 18.
There was a grand finale of scattered plates.
(a) anti-climax
(b) climax
(c) boring end
(d) gloomy denouement
Answer:
(b) climax

Question 19.
They didn’t have sophisticated surgery.
(a) crude
(b) undeveloped
(c) cumbersome
(d) well-advanced
Answer:
(d) well-advanced

Question 20.
Something basic that w as full of solace for me.
(a) pity
(b) neglect
(c) abandon
(d) consolation
Answer:
(d) consolation

In Celebration of Being Alive Antonyms

Find out the antonym of the underlined word in each of the following sentences.

Question 1.
Why people should suffer.
(a) undergo pain
(b) struggle
(c) enjoy
(d) heal
Answer:
(c) enjoy

Question 2.
Suffering is cruelly prevalent.
(a) sarcastically
(b) tortuously
(c) mercilessly
(d) mercifully
Answer:
(d) mercifully

Question 3.
My gloomy thoughts stem from an accident.
(a) sad
(b) murky
(c) happy
(d) vague
Answer:
(c) happy

Question 4.
I experienced agony.
(a) calamity
(b) delight
(c) horror
(d) misery
Answer:
(b) delight

Question 5.
Suffering ennobles you.
(a) exalts
(b) dignifies
(c) praises
(d) humilites
Answer:
(d) humilites

Question 6.
This trolley was commandeered by an intrepid crew of two.
(a) timid
(b) bold
(c) daring
(d) adventurous
Answer:
(a) timid

Question 7.
They did not have sophisticated heart surgery.
(a) advanced
(b) well-developed
(c) backward
(d) cultured
Answer:
(c) backward

Question 8.
He was a walking horror.
(a) disgust
(b) delight
(c) shock
(d) fear
Answer:
(b) delight

Question 9.
They go through mutilating surgery.
(a) crippling
(b) paralysing
(c) maiming
(d) heating
Answer:
(d) heating

Question 10.
There was a grand finale.
(a) end
(b) climax
(c) exciting finish
(d) begining
Answer:
(d) begining

Question 11.
It was solace for me.
(a) anguish
(b) cheer
(c) consolation
(d) reassurance
Answer:
(a) anguish

Question 12.
The trolley was commandeered by the two boys.
(a) hijacked
(b) snatched
(c) usurped
(d) abandoned
Answer:
(d) abandoned

Question 13.
The wound healed around his neck.
(a) cured
(b) worsened
(c) got healthy again
(d) returned to normalcy
Answer:
(b) worsened

Question 14.
He had full confidence.
(a) trust
(b) belief
(c) disabilities
(d) distrust
Answer:
(c) disabilities

Question 15.
Two children had given me profound lesson.
(a) deep
(b) great
(c) intense
(d) superficial/hollow
Answer:
(d) superficial/hollow

Question 16.
The business of living is the celebration of being alive.
(a) commemoration
(b) praise
(c) honour
(d) criricism
Answer:
(d) criricism

Question 17.
Business of living is not just for joy.
(a) bliss
(b) sorrow
(c) indulgence
(d) elation
Answer:
(b) sorrow

Question 18.
We can’t appreciate light if we haven’t known darkness.
(a) criticise
(b) acknowledge
(c) welcome
(d) be obliged
Answer:
(a) criticise

Question 19.
Living is not for just recreation.
(a) dalliance
(b) amusement
(c) drudgery
(d) pastime
Answer:
(c) drudgery

Question 20.
He was laughing.
(a) crying
(b) chuckling
(c) whooping
(d) simpering
Answer:
(a) crying

Students can Download Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Production Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Economics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Production

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Production Textual Evaluation

I.Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Science Question 1.
Production refers to
(a) destruction of utility
(b) creation of utilities
(c) exchange value
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) creation of utilities

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Books Answers Question 2.
Utilities are in the nature of
(a) form utility
(b) time utility
(c) place utility
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Question 3.
is carried out by extractive industries.
(a) Secondary production
(b) Primary production
(c) Tertiary production
(d) Service production
Answer :
(b) primary production

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
Primary factors are
(a) land, capital
(b) capital, labour
(c) land, labour
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) land, labour

7th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
The entrepreneur is also called
(a) exchanger
(b) Agent
(c) organizer
(d) communicator
Answer:
(c) organizer

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ________ means want satisfying power of a product.
2. Derived factors are ________ and ________
3. ________ is a fixed in supply.
4. ________ is the human input into the production process.
5. ________  is the man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services.

Answer:

1. Utility
2. Capital, Organization
3. Land
4. Labour
5. Capital

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. ii
2. iv
3. i
4. v
5. ii

IV.Give short answer:

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 7th Social Question 1.
What is production?
Answer:
Production is a process of combining various material inputs and immaterial inputs in order to make something for consumption (the output).

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Book Question 2.
What is utility?
Answer:
Utility means want satisfying power of a product.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Question 3.
Name the types of utility.
Answer:

1. Form utility
2. Time utility and
3. Place utility

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 7th Question 4.
Name the types of production.
Answer:
There are three types of production

1. Primary production
2. Secondary Production
3. Tertiary or Service Production

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Standard Social Science Question 5.
What are the factors of production?
Answer:
The factors of production

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital
4. Organization

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Social 7th Question 6.
Define Labour.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines labour as, ‘the use of body or mind, partly or wholly, with a view to secure an income apart from the pleasure derived from the work’.

7th Soc Guide Question 7.
Define Division of labour.
Answer:
Division of labour means dividing the process of production into distinct and several component processes and assigning each component in the hands of a labour or a set of labourers, who are specialists in that particular process.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Science Guide Question 8.
Write the forms of capital.
Answer:

1. Physical Capital or Material Resources, Ex. Machinery, tools, buildings, etc.
2. Money capital or Monetary resources, Ex. Bank deposits, shares and securities, etc.
3. Human capital or Human Resources Ex. Investments in education, training and health

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Question 9.
Who is the changing agent of the society? .
Answer:
The entrepreneur is also called ‘Organizer’. In, modem times, an entrepreneur is called ‘the changing agent of the society’.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Solutions Question 10.
Write the three characteristics of entrepreneur.
Answer:

1. Identifying profitable investible opportunities
2. Deciding the location of the production unit
3. Making innovations

V. Give brief answer.

Question 1.
Explain the types of production.
Answer:
There are three types of production

1. Primary production
2. Secondary Production
3. Tertiary or Service Production

1. Primary Production:

1. Primary production is carried out by ‘extractive’ industries like agriculture, forestry, fishing, mining and oil extraction.
2. These industries are engaged in such activities as extracting the gifts of nature from the earth’s surface, from beneath the earth’s surface and from the oceans.

2. Secondary Production:

1. This includes production in manufacturing industry, turning out semi-finished and finished goods from raw materials and intermediate goods, conversion of flour into bread or iron ore into finished steel.
2. They are described as manufacturing and construction industries.
3. Such as the manufacture of cars, furnishing, clothing and chemicals, as also engineering and building.

3. Tertiary Production

1. Industries in the tertiary sector produce all those services which enable the finished goods to be put in the hands of consumers.
2. These services are supplied to the firms in all types of industry and directly to consumers.
3. Ex. cover distributive traders, banking, insurance, transport and communications. Government services, such as law, administration, education, health and defence, are also included.

Question 2.
What is land ? What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:
Land as a factor of production refers to all those natural resources or gifts of nature which are provided free to man.
Characteristics of Land:

1. Land is a Free Gift of Nature
2. Land is fixed in supply
3. Land is imperishable
4. Land is a Primary Factor of Production
5. Land is Immovable
6. Land has some Original Indestructible Powers
7. Land Differs in Fertility

Question 3.
Explain the merits and demerits of division of labour.
Answer:

Merits of division of labour

1. It improves efficiency of labour when labour repeats doing the same tasks.
2. Facilitates the use of machinery in production, resulting in inventions.
3. Time and Materials are put to the best and most efficient use.

Demerits of division of labour

1. Repetition of the same task makes labour to feel that the work is monotonous and stale. It kills the humanity in him.
2. Narrow specialization reduces the possibility of labour to find alternative avenues of employment. This results in increased unemployment.
3. Reduce the growth of handicrafts and the worker loses the satisfaction of having made a commodity in full.

Question 4.
Describe the characteristics of capital.
Answer:
Characteristics of Capital

1. Capital is a passive factor of production
2. Capital is man-made
3. Capital is not an indispensable factor of production
4. Capital has the highest mobility
5. Capital is productive
6. Capital lasts over time
7. Capital involves present sacrifice to get future benefits

Question 5.
What are the functions of entrepreneur?
Answer:
The functions are

1. Decision making
2. Management control
3. Division of income
4. Risk-Taking
5. Uncertainty-Bearing

VI. Activity and Project

Question 1.
Students are asked to prepare a chart containing dummy images of primary, secondary and tertiary sectors images.
Answer:

Question 2.
Students are asked to visit some local farmers and to discuss about the land and its characteristics. Collect some photographs of land and make a album.
Answer:

1. We visited a local farm which is built with in an existing coconut grove. This thatched ‘ roofed structure is made from materials mostly from the farm.
2. The land is then made suitable for cultivation using organic farming method.
3. They grow vegetables and fruits which will produce a good yield in that soil.
4. They first test the soil and make sure that it is suitable for growing vegetables and fruits.

VII. Life skills:

Question 1.
Students to know about the characteristics of entrepreneur, Set up your classroom like a industry. Some Students are asked to act like a businessman, Do the industries activities. Teacher and students together discuss about the entrepreneur and their important of development of society.
Answer:
Role of business man:
Ensures smooth operation of his business. He coordinates with people to procure the factors of production namely land, labour and capital. He has to look into access of raw materials needed, skilled labour transport and the prospects to market the products.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Production Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Indian Economy is a ______ Economy.
(a) Private
(b) Public
(c) Mixed
(d) Socialist
Answer:
(c) Mixed

Question 2.
The most to the Gross Domestic product of our country is contributed by the ______ sector.
(a) Tertiary
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Tertiary

Question 3.
_______ is known as ‘Father of Economics.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Karl Mark
(d) Amartya Sen
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 4.
_______ cannot be stored.
(a) Land
(b) Capital
(c) Organisation
(d) Labour
Answer:
(d) Labour

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _____ can be both customers of the producers and suppliers to the producers.
2. Entrepreneurship is otherwise called ______
3. ______ is more perishable than other factors of production.
4. The Theory of Moral Sentiments’ was written by ______

Answer:

1. Consumers
2. Organization
3. Labour
4. Adam Smith

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. ii
2. iii
3. i

IV. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is a mixed Economy?
Answer:
An Economy in which Private and Public sectors co-exist is a mixed economy. Eg. India.

Question 2.
Name the components of Human activity.
Answer:
Production and consumption.

Question 3.
What are Primary factors of production?
Answer:
Land and Labour

Question 4.
What are derived factors of production?
Answer:
Capital and Organisation.

Question 5.
What is capital?
Answer:
Capital is man made physical goods used to produce other goods and services. In short, Capital means money.

VI. Answer the following in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the types of utility.
Answer:
Types of Utility

1. Form utility: If the physical form of a commodity is changed, its utility may increase. Eg. Cotton increases, if it is converted into clothes.
2. Place utility: If a commodity is transported from one place to another, its utility may increase. Eg. If rice transported to Tamilnadu to Kerala, its utility will be more.
3. Time utility : If the commodity is stored for future usage, its utility may increase. Eg. Agricultural commodities like Paddy, Wheat, etc. are stored for the regular uses of consumers throughout the year.

Question 2.
Mention the characteristics of Labour.
Answer:

1. Labour is more perishable than other factors of production.
2. Labour cannot be stored.
3. Labour is an active factor of production.
4. Labour is not homogeneous.
5. Labour cannot be separated from the labourer.
6. Labour is mobile.
7. Individual labour has only limited bargaining power. He cannot fight with his employer for a rise in wages or improvement in work-place conditions.

Question 3.
Mention the characteristics of entrepreneur.
Answer:

1. An entrepreneur is a person who combines the different factors of production (land, labour and capital), in the right proportion
2. Initiates the process of production and bears the risk involved in it.
3. He is not only responsible for producing the socially desirable output but also to increase the social welfare.
4. Identifying profitable investible opportunities
5. Deciding the location of the production unit
6. Making innovations
7. Deciding the reward payment
8. Taking risks and facing uncertainties