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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Market Structure and Pricing

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Market Structure and Pricing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
11th Economics Chapter 5 Book Back Answers Multiple Choice Questions

Economics Class 11 Chapter 5 Question 1.
In which of the following is not a type of market structure Price will be very high?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(a) Perfect competition

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Economics Question 2.
Equilibrium condition of a firm is …………………….
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC > MR
(c) MC < MR
(d) MR = Price
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Class 11 Economics Chapter 5 Solutions Question 3.
Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic competition?
(a) One seller
(b) Few sellers
(c) Product differentiation
(d) No entry
Answer:
(c) Product differentiation

11th Economics Chapter 5 Exercise Question 4.
A firm under monopoly can earn ………………… in the short run.
(a) Normal profit
(b) Loss
(c) Supernormal profit
(d) More loss
Answer:
(c) Supernormal profit

Economics Chapter 5 Class 11 Question 5.
There is no excess capacity under ______
(a) Monopoly
(b) Monopolistic competition
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Perfect competition
Answer:
(d) Perfect competition

Economics Class 11 Question 6.
Profit of a firm is obtained when ……………………
(a) TR < TC (b) TR – MC (c) TR > TC
(d) TR = TC
Answer:
(c) TR > TC

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Economics Question 7.
Another name of price is ______
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Marginal Revenue
(c) Total Revenue
(d) Average Cost
Answer:
(a) Average Revenue

11th Economics Book Price Question 8.
In which type of market, AR and MR are equal ………………………
(a) Duopoly
(b) Perfect competition
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Perfect competition

Chapter 5 Economics Class 11 Question 9.
In monopoly, MR curve lies below ______
(a) TR
(b) MC
(c) AR
(d) AC
Answer:
(c) AR

Question 10.
Perfect competition assumes ……………………..
(a) Luxury goods
(b) Producer goods
(c) Differentiated goods
(d) Homogeneous goods
Answer:
(d) Homogeneous goods

Question 11.
Group equilibrium is analysed in ______
(a) Monopolistic competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Pure competition
Answer:
(a) Monopolistic competition

Question 12.
In monopolistic competition, the essential feature is …………………….
(a) Same product
(b) Selling cost
(c) Single seller
(d) Single buyer
Answer:
(b) Selling cost

Question 13.
Monopolistic competition is a form of ______
(a) Oligopoly
(b) Duopoly
(c) Imperfect competition
(d) Monopoly
Answer:
(c) Imperfect competition

Question 14.
Price leadership is the attribute of ………………………
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition
Answer:
(c) Oligopoly

Question 15.
Price discrimination will always lead to ______
(a) Increase in output
(b) Increase in profit
(c) Different prices
(d) b and c
Answer:
(d) b and c

Question 16.
The average revenue curve under monopolistic competition will be …………………….
(a) Perfectly inelastic
(b) Perfectly elastic
(c) Relatively elastic
(d) Unitary elastic
Answer:
(c) Relatively elastic

Question 17.
Under perfect competition, the shape of demand curve of a firm is ______
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Negatively sloped
(d) Positively sloped
Answer:
(b) Horizontal

Question 18.
In which market form, does absence of competition prevail?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 19.
Which of the following involves maximum exploitation of consumers?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 20.
An example of selling cost is ………………………
(a) Raw material cost
(b) Transport cost
(c) Advertisement cost
(d) Purchasing cost
Answer:
(c) Advertisement cost

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
Define Market.
Answer:
In economics, the term ‘Market’ refers to a system of exchange between the buyers and the sellers of a commodity. Exchange may be direct or indirect.

Question 22.
Who is price – taker?
Answer:
A large number of buyers’ implies that each individual buyer buys a very, very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market. This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product. He is only a price taker and not a price-maker.

Question 23.
Point out the essential features of pure competition.
Answer:

1. The absence of any monopoly element.
2. There is a large buyers and sellers.
3. Homogenous product and uniform price.
4. Free entry and exit.

Question 24.
What is selling costs?
Answer:

1. Selling Cost is the discussion of “ Product differentiation”.
2. We can infer that the producer under monopolistic competition has to incur expenses to popularize his brand.
3. This involved in selling the product is called selling cost.
4. According to Prof. Chamberlin, selling cost is “ The cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product”.

Question 25.
Draw demand curve of a firm for the following:
Answer:
(a) Perfect Competition
(b) Monopoly

Under perfect competition, as uniform price prevails AR = MR and the demand curve (AR) is horizontal to X-axis.
A monopoly firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve.

Question 26.
Mention any two type of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at lower price.

Question 27.
Define “Excess capacity”.
Answer:
Excess capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:
A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
2. A commodity to be bought and sold.
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 29.
Specify the nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition and monopoly.
Answer:
Perfect competition :
Under perfect competition, there is the possibility of free entry and exit of the firm. In the short run, if an efficient producer produces supernormal profits, it attracts new firms to enter the industry. When a large number of firms enter, the supply would increase, resulting in lower price. An inefficient producer, disturbed by the loss, quit the market. It results in a decrease in supply so the price will go up.

Monopoly :
In a monopoly, there is a strict barrier for entry of any new firm.

Question 30.
Describe the degree of price discrimination?
Answer:
Degrees of Price Discrimination:
Price discrimination has become widespread in almost all monopoly markets. According to A.C.Pigou, there are three degrees of price discrimination.

1. First degree price discrimination:
A monopolist charges the maximum price that a buyer is willing to pay. This is called as perfect price discrimination. This price wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus. This is maximum exploitation of consumers. Joan Robinson named it as “Perfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

2. Second degree price discrimination:
Under this degree, buyers are charged prices in such a way that a part of their consumer’s surplus is taken away by the sellers. This is called as imperfect price discrimination. Joan Robinson named it as “Imperfect Discriminating Monopoly”.

Under this degree, buyers are divided into different groups and a different price is charged for each group. For example, in cinema theatres, prices are charged for same film show from viewers of different classes. In a theatre the difference between the first row of first class and the last row in the second class is smaller as compared to the differences in charges.

3. Third degree price discrimination:
The monopolist splits the entire market into a few sub-market and charges different price in each sub-market. The groups are divided on the basis of age, sex and location. For example, railways charge lower fares from senior citizens. Students get discounts in museums, and exhibitions.

Question 31.
State the meaning of selling cost with an example.
Answer:
Under monopolistic competition as the products are differentiated, the producer has to incur expenses to make his brand popular. The expenditure involved in selling the product is called “selling cost”.

According to Prof.Chamberlin, selling cost is the cost incurred in order to alter the position or shape of the demand curve for a product.
Under perfect competition and monopoly there is soiling COM.
(Eg.) Advertisements, Free services, Home delivery etc.,

Question 32.
Mention the similarities between perfect competition and monopolistic competition,
Answer:

1. In both perfect competition and monopolistic competition number of firms are large.
2. Competition exists between the firms.
3. There are no barriers for entry and exit in both the markets.
4. Equilibrium occurs at the point where MC curve intersects MR curve.
5. In short run there is supernormal profit or loss and in long run there is only normal profits in both market structures.

Question 33.
Differentiate between ‘firm’ and ‘industry’.
Answer:
Firm :
A firm refers to a single production unit in an industry, producing a large or a small quantity of a commodity or service, and selling it at a price in the market. Its main objective is to earn a profit.

Industry :
An industry refers to a group of firms producing the same product or service in an economy.
(Eg.) A group of firms producing cement is called a cement industry.

Question 34.
State the features of duopoly.
Answer:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of . commodity)
3. They may enter into cut-throat competition.
4. There is no product differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Bring out the features of perfect competition.
Answer:
According to Joan Robinson, “Perfect competition prevails when the demand for the output of each producer is perfectly elastic. It is an ideal but imaginary market. 100% of perfect competition cannot be seen.
Features of the perfect competition :

(a) Large number of buyers and sellers :
Each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market. This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product. He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker. As the number of sellers is large the seller is also a price – taker.

(b) Homogenous product and uniform price :
The. products are homogenous in nature and are perfectly substitutable. All the units of the product are identical. Therefore a uniform price prevails in the market.

(c) Free entry and exit:
In the short run, if the very efficient producer earns super normal profits, new firms enter into the industry. When large number of firms enter, the supply would increase, resulting in lower price. If a inefficient producer incurs loss, the loss incuring firms quit the market. So the existing firms could earn more profit as supply decreases.

(d) Absence of transport cost:
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost. . e) Perfect mobility of factors of production :
As there is perfect mobility of the factors of production, uniform price exists. As they enjoy perfect freedom of mobility the price gets adjusted.

(f) Perfect knowledge of the market:
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price etc.

(g) No government intervention :
There is no government regulation on supply of raw materials and in the determination of price etc.

Question 36.
How price and output are determined under the perfect competition?
Answer:
In the short run at least a few factors of production are fixed. The firms under perfect .competition take the price (10) from the industry and start adjusting their quantities produced.
For example
Qd = 100 -5P and
Qs = 5p
At equilibrium Qd = Qs
100 – 5p = 5p
100 = 5p + 5p
p = 10
Qd = 100 – 5(10)
= 50
Qs = 5(10) = 50
Qd = Qs
50 = 50

SS – market supply, DD – market demand, AR – Average Revenue, AC – Average Cost, MR – Marginal Revenue, MC – Marginal Cost This diagram consists of three panels.
First part:
The equilibrium of an industry is explained. The demand and supply forces of the firms interact and the price is fixed as Rs.10. The equilibrium of an industry is obtained at 50 units of output.

Second part:
AC curve is lower than the price line. Equilibrium is achieved where
MC = MR. Equilibrium quantity is 50. With price Rs. 10, it experiences supernormal profit
AC = Rs. 8
AR = Rs. 10
TR – 50 x 10 = 500
TC = 50 x 8 = 400
Profit = 500-400= 100.

Third part:
Firm’s cost curve is above the price line. Equilibrium MC = MR. Quantity is 50 with price Rs. 10, it experiences loss (AC > AR)
TR = 50 x 10 = 500
TC = 50 x 12 = 600
Loss = 600-500= 100
If profit prevails in the market, new firms emerge results in declining price and if loss occurs the existing loss making firm exits results in increasing price consequent upon the entry and exit of new firms into the industry, firms always earn ‘normal profit’ in the long run.

Price and output determination in long run :
Long run equilibrium of the firm is illustrated in the diagram. Under perfect competition, long run equilibrium is only at minimum point of LAC. At point E,
LMC = MR = AR = LAC

In the diagram AR = AC. Equilibrium is at point E where price is 8 and output is 500. At this point, the profit of the firm is only normal. Thus condition for long run equilibrium of the firm is
Price = AR = MR = Minimum AC

At equilibrium SAC > LAC. Hence in the long run equilibrium price is lower and quantity is larger compared to the short run equilibrium price and quantity.

Question 37.
Describe the features oligopoly.
Answer:
1. Few large firms :
Very few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.

2. Interdependence among firms :
The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and . quality decisions of the rival firms.

3. Group behaviour :
The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual co-operation.

4. Advertisement cost :
The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.

5. Nature of the product:
Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogenous products.

6. Price rigidity :
It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolist firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

Question 38.
Illustrate price and output determination under monopoly.
Answer:
Monopoly is a market structure characterized by a single seller, selling the unique product with the restriction for a new firm to enter the market.

Price and Output Determination under Monopoly :
Nature of cost and revenue curves :
A monopoly is a one-firm industry. Therefore, a monopolist firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve. Since AR falls, MR lies below the AR curve (MR < AR)
The monopolist will continue to sell his product as long as his MR > MC

Condition for equilibrium :
Monopolists attain equilibrium at the level of output when MC = MR.
From the diagram, till he sells 3 units output, MR is greater than MC, and when he exceeds this output level, MR is less than MC. At equilibrium where MR = MC, price (AR) is Rs. 88. To know the profit of monopolists at equilibrium output, the average revenue curves and the average cost curves are used at equilibrium Output 3
AR= 88
AC = 50
Profit per unit = 88-50
= 38
= (AR – AC) × Total output
= (88 – 50) × 3
= 38 × 3
= 114

Question 39.
Explain price and output determined under monopolistic competition with help of diagram.
Answer:
Monopolistic competition refers to a market situation where there are many firms selling a differentiated product.

Price and output determination :
Nature of cost and revenue curves :
The monopolistic firm sell large quantity at less price. So, it faces a downward sloping demand curve. AR curve is fairly elastic. MR curve falls below AR. AC curve will be ‘U’ shaped.

Condition for equilibrium :
MC = MR, MC curve should cut MR from below. If MC is less than MR, the sellers will find it profitable to expand their output.

Short – run equilibrium :

Profit is maximised when MC = MR. From the diagram.
OM – Equilibrium output OP – Equilibrium price
TR – OMQP TC – OMRS
Profit = OMQP-OMRS
= PQRS
This is super normal profit under short-run.
A monopolistic competitive firm may also incur loss in the short-run.

As shown in the diagram, the AR and MR curves are fairly elastic.
At equilibrium output is OM , price is OP
TR – OMQP
TC-OMLK
Total loss = TR-TC
= OMQP – OMLK
= PQLK

Long – run equilibrium :
In the long run AR curve is more elastic or flatter. Hence, the firms will only earn normal profit.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Market Structure and Pricing Additional Questions and Answers

Part -A

Choose the best options

Question 1.
In the real world what type of market we see?
(a) Imperfect
(b) Perfect
(c) Monopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(a) Imperfect

Question 2.
First condition for equilibrium of the firm _______
(a) AC = AR
(b) AC = MC
(c) MC = MR
(d) AR = MR
Answer:
(c) MC = MR

Question 3.
How many types of price discrimination under monopoly?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Five
(d) Seven
Answer:
(a) Three

Question 4.
Indian railways is an example of _______ competition.
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Question 5.
Monopoly power achieved through patent right is called ………………………..
(a) Duopoly
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Legal monopoly
(d) Monopolistic competition
Answer:
(c) Legal monopoly

Question 6.
Differentiated products are seen in _______
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic
(d) Monopsony
Answer:
(c) Monopolistic

Question 7.
Under perfect competition, the firms are producing …………………………
(a) Firm
(b) Sales
(c) Public sector
(d) Homogeneous
Answer:
(d) Homogeneous

Question 8.
In perfect competition, short run equilibrium is determined by
(a) MC = MR
(b) MC = AC
(c) MR = AR
(d) AR = AC
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 9.
A firm and Industry are one and the same under ……………………
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Duopoly
(c) Oligopoly
(d) Monopoly
Answer:
(d) Monopoly

Question 10.
Group behaviour is seen in _______
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(d) Oligopoly

Question 11.
When the monopoly will be an equilibrium?
(a) MC = MR
(b) AC = AR
(c) AC = MR
(d) MC = AR
Answer:
(a) MC = MR

Question 12.
_______ degree of price discrimination wipes out the entire consumer’s surplus.
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) None
Answer:
(a) First

Question 13.
In monopolistic competition, the demand curve is
(a) More elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Less elastic
(d) None
Answer:
(a) More elastic

Question 14.
Government controls monopoly by _______
(a) Taxation
(b) Legal methods
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both

Question 15.
The important feature of non-price competition is _______
(a) Product differentiation
(b) Advertisement
(c) Sales promotion
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 16.
The concept of Imperfect Competition was
(a) J.M. Keynes
(b) Irving Fisher
(c) Marshall propounded by
(d) Joan Robinson
Answer:
(d) Joan Robinson

Question 17.
Identify the wrong statement about the features of Duopoly.
(a) There is product differentiation
(b) They fix the price for their product to maximise their profit
(c) Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions
(d) Both sellers may collude regarding the sale of commodity.
Answer:
(a) There is product differentiation

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer:
(b) 2 4 1 3

Question 2.

(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 1 2 3 4
Answer:
(d) 1 2 3 4

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 3.

Answer:
(d) Sub-market (iv) Fourth degree price discrimination

Question 4.

Answer:
(b) Artificial monopoly (ii) Gold mines (Africa)

Choose the odd one out

Question 5.
(a) Personal
(b) Geographical
(c) On the basis of use
(d) Price taker
Answer:
(c) On the basis of use

Question 6.
(a) Individual behaviour
(b) Few large firms
(c) Group behaviour
(d) Price rigidity
Answer:
(a) Individual behaviour

Question 7.
(a) Market period
(b) Short period market
(c) Very long period market
(d) Whole sale market
Answer:
(d) Whole sale market

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 8.
In perfect competition
(a) There are large number of buyers and sellers
(b) Free entry and exit of firm
(c) Price competition is essential
(d) Independent price policy
Answer:
(c) Price competition is essential

Question 9.
(a) In a market there is no exchange of goods.
(b) Commodities will be bought and sold in market.
(c) In market prices are agreeable to buyer and seller.
(d) In market there are buyer and seller of a commodity.
Answer:
(a) In a market there is no exchange of goods.

Analyse the reason for the following

Question 10.
Assertion (A) : Perfect competition is that no one is big enough to have any appreciable
influence over market price.
Reason (R) : Perfect competition is a market situation where there are infinite number of sellers.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is true but (R) is false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : At equilibrium MC cuts MR from below.
Reason (R) : MC cuts MR at two points.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : In monopoly there exist price discrimination.
Reason (R) : A monopolist is a price maker.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are false
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 13.

Answer:
(c) Monopolistic competition (iii) Non – price discrimination

Question 14.

Answer:
(b) Oligopoly (ii) Group behaviour

Fill in the blanks with suitable option given below

Question 15.
Supply curve in the very short period is ________
(a) Horizontal
(b) Slopes downward
(c) Slopes upward
(d) Vertical
Answer:
(d) Vertical

Question 16.
Differentiated products are seen in ________
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Monopolistic competition
(d) Monopsony
Answer:
(c) Monopolistic competition

Question 17.
Government controls monopoly by ________
(a) Taxation
(b) Legal method
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both

Choose the best option

Question 18.
________ classified market based on time
(a) Marshall
(b) Adam smith
(c) Chamberlin
(d) Hicks
Answer:
(a) Marshall

Question 19.
In monopolistic competition the demand curve is
(a) Inelastic
(b) More elastic
(c) Less elastic
(d) None
Answer:
(b) More elastic

Question 20.
The important feature of non-price competition is ________
(a) Product differentiation
(b) Advertisement
(c) Sales promotion
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Define duopoly?
Answer:
In a duopoly, there are only two sellers who are completely independent and no agreement exists between them.

Question 2.
Define “ Imperfect competition”?
Answer:
Imperfect competition is a competitive market situation where there are many sellers, but they are selling heterogeneous (dissimilar) goods as opposed to the perfect competitive market scenario. As the name suggests, competitive markets are imperfect in nature.

Question 3.
Classify market based on time.
Answer:

1. Very short period market (or) Market period.
2. Short period market
3. Long period market
4. Very long period market (or) Secular period market.

Question 4.
How is market classified based on the quantify of a commodity?
Answer:

1. Whole-sale market
2. Retail market

Question 5.
How can you classify market based on competition ?
Answer:

1. Perfect competition market.
2. Imperfect competition market which comprises monopoly, monopolistic competition, duopoly, oligopoly etc.

Question 6.
Define long run average cost curve.
Answer:
In the long run all the factors are variable. The LAC curve is an envelope curve as it contains a few average cost curves. It is a flatter ‘U’ shaped one. It is also called as planning curve.

Question 7.
Write a note imperfect competition.
Answer:
This concept was introduced by Joan Robinson and E.H.Chamberlin. Imperfect competition is a competitive market situation where there are many sellers, but they are selling heterogeneous goods. Competitive markets are imperfect in nature.

Question 8.
Explain monopoly.
Answer:
‘Mono’ refers to a single and ‘poly’ to seller. In this way, monopoly refers to a market situation in which there is only one seller of a commodity. There is no scope for competition.

Question 9.
What is dumping ?
Answer:
Dumping refers to practice of the monopolist charging higher price for his product in the local market and lower price in the foreign market. It is called as ‘International price discrimination’.

Question 10.
What is monopsony ?
Answer:
Monopsony is a market structure in which there is only one buyer of a good or service.

Question 11.
What is Bilateral monopoly ?
Answer:
If a single producer of a product faces a single buyer of that product, then it is called as bilateral monopoly.

Question 12.
What are the conditions for short, run and long-run equilibrium in the monopolistic competition ?
Answer:
Short – run equilibrium : MC = MR
Long – run equilibrium has two conditions : MC = MR and AC = AR

Question 13.
Give example for perfect competition.
Answer:

1. Online ticket auctions.
2. Truck farming
3. Salt
4. Gravel
5. Garage sales
6. Online sales in general

Question 14.
What is oligopoly ?
Answer:
Oligopoly is a market situation in which there are a few firms selling homogeneous or differentiated products.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the types of markets based on area.
Answer:
The market is classified not only on its geographical spread but also on the nature of the goods exchanged.
1. Local market:
It refers to the products or services which are sold and bought in the place of their production. (Eg.) Fruits, Vegetables etc.

2. Provincial market:
It arises when products or services are sold and bought in a restricted circle. (Eg.) : Provincial newspaper.

3. National market:
It arises when products and services are sold and bought throughout a country. (Eg.) Tea, Coffee, Cement etc.

4. International market:
It arises when products and services are sold and bought at the world level. (Eg.) Petrol, Gold etc.

Question 2.
What is the Duopoly and the characteristics of Duopoly?
Answer:
Duopoly is a special case of the theory of oligopoly in which there are only two sellers. Both the sellers are completely independent and no agreement exists between them. Even though they are independent, a change in the price and output of one will affect the other, and may set a chain of reactions. A seller may, however, assume that his rival is unaffected by what he does, in that case he takes only his own direct influence on the price.

Characteristics of Duopoly:

1. Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
2. Both sellers may collude (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
3. They may enter into cut-throat competition.
4. There is no product differentiation.
5. They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.
6. Describe the features of monopolistic competition.

Features of monopolistic competition:

1. There are large number of buyers and many sellers.
2. Firms under monopolistic competition are price makers. They set their own prices.
3. Firms produce differentiated products. It is the key element of monopolistic competition.
4. There is a free entry and exit of firms.
5. Firms compete with each other by incurring selling cost or expenditure on sales promotion of their products.
6. Non – price competition is an essential part of monopolistic competition.
7. A firm can follow an independent price policy.

Question 3.
Classify markets based on quantity of the commodity.
Answer:
1. Whole-sale market:
It is for bulk selling and buying of goods. The price is likely to be low compared to retail market. (Eg.) Clothing, Grocery etc.

2. Retail market:
It is the market for commodities in small quantities .(Eg.) Clothing, Vegetable etc.

Question 4.
Explain total cost curve approach.
Answer:
In the TC – TR approach, profit is obtained by a firm, through the difference between the TC and the TR.
Equilibrium is obtained at the point where maximum difference between the TC and TR occurs.

Question 5.
State the hvo conditions for equilibrium using marginal curve approach.
Answer:

1. MC = MR
A rational seller will not be in equilibrium at output level 1, though MC = MR at that point. He continues his production till 5 units where MC < MR. Beyond 5 units of Q, MC > MR where the seller incurs loss. So condition for equilibrium MC – MR. It is a necessary but not a sufficient condition.

2. MC cuts MR curve from below (Sufficient conditions):
MC curve is ‘U’ shaped. MR cuts MC both from above (at point A) and also from below (at point B). Only at point B the equilibrium condition is fulfilled.

Thus for equilibrium under all market situations the two conditions are MC = MR and MC cuts MR from below.

Question 6.
Explain the features of monopoly.
Answer:

1. There is a single producer / seller of a product.
2. The product of a monopolist is unique and has no close substitute. There is strict barrier for entry of any new firm.
3. The monopolist is a price – maker.
4. The monopolist earns maximum profit / abnormal profit.

Question 7.
Explain the sources of monopoly power.
Answer:
1. Natural monopoly :
Ownership of the natural raw materials. (Eg.) Gold mines (Africa)

2. State monopoly :
Single supplier of some special services. (Eg.) Railways in India

3. Legal monopoly :
A monopoly firm can get its monopoly power by getting patent rights, trade mark from
the government.

Question 8.
Explain the features of monopolistic competition.
Answer:

1. There are large number of buyers and sellers.
2. Firms under monopolistic competition are price makers.
3. They produce differentiated products.
4. There is a free entry and exit of firms.
5. Finns compete with each other by incurring selling cost or expenditure on sales promotion.
6. Non-price competition is an essential part of monopolistic competition.
7. A firm can follow an independent price policy.

Question 9.
Explain the types of price discrimination.
Answer:
1. Personal :
Different prices are charged for different individuals.
(Eg.) Tickets at concessional rate to the senior citizens in railways.

2. Geographical:
Different prices are charged at different places for the same product.
(Eg.) A book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at lower price.

3. On the basis of use :
Different prices are charged according to the use of a product.
(Eg.) TNEB charges lower rate for domestic use of electricity and higher rate for commercial uses.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Explain long-run equilibrium in perfect competition.
Answer:
In the long run, all the factors are variable.
The LAC curve is an envelope curve as it contains a few average cost curves.
It is a flatter ‘U’ shaped one. It is also known as planning curve.

1. The firms will earn only normal profit.
2. All the firms in the market are in equilibrium. So entry and exit of a firm is not possible.
   

A firm under perfect competition in the long run is a price-taker. It takes the price of the product from the industry. And it superimposes its cost curves on the revenue curves.

Long run equilibrium is at minimum point of LAC. In the diagram AC = AR, at equilibrium E price is 8 and output is 500. At this point, the profit of the firm is only normal.

The condition for long run equilibrium of the price is.
Price = AR = MR = Minimum AC. At this equilibrium.

1. SAC > LAC
2. Long run equilibrium price is lower than short run equilibrium price.
3. Long run equilibrium quantity is larger than short run equilibrium quantity.

Question 2.
Describe the wastes of monopolistic competition?
Answer:
Wastes of Monopolistic Competition:
Generally there are five kinds of wastages under monopolistic competition.
1. Excess capacity:

• Un-utilized capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.
• In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces delibourately output which is less than the optimum output that is the output corresponding to the minimum average cost.
• This leads to excess capacity which is actually as waste in monopolistic competition.

2. Unemployment:

• Under monopolistic competition, the firms produce less than optimum output.
• As a result, the productive capacity is not used to the fullest extent.
• This will lead to unemployment of human resources also.

3. Advertisement:

• There is a lot of waste in competitive advertisements under monopolistic competition.
• The wasteful and competitive advertisements lead to high cost to consumers.

4. Too many varieties of Goods:

• The goods differ in size, shape, style and colour. A reasonable number of varieties would be sufficient.

5. Inefficient firms:
Under monopolistic competition, inefficient firms charge prices higher than their marginal cost. Efficient firms cannot drive out inefficient firms.

Question 3.
Explain long-run equilibrium in perfect competition.
Answer:
Similarities :

1. The motive of both the type of market is profit maximisation.
2. Condition for equilibrium is MC = MR

Dissimilarities :

Perfect Competition:

1. Price taker. As the contribution of a single seller is less he cannot determine the price
2. At equilibrium MC = MR = AR (Price)
3. AR curve is perfectly elastic and horizontal to X – axis. MR curve is equal to AR and coincides with AR. AR = MR
4. Equilibrium is attained at increasing marginal cost condition.
5. In the short – run the firm earns super normal profit. In the long run, attracted by super-normal profit new firms enter the industry, which results in normal profit.
6. The firms produce optimum quantity of output.
7. Price discrimination is not possible, because of the perfectly elastic demand curve.
8. Output is maximum and price is minimum.
9. Possibility for consumer’s surplus.

Monopoly:

1. Price maker. As the firm and industry remains the same, producer fix price for his product.
2. At equilibrium MC = MR < AR (Price)
3. AR curve is a downward sloping curve. MR falls below AR.
4. Equilibrium can be attained during increasing, decreasing and constant marginal cost condition.
5. In both short-run and long-run the firm earns super-normal profit because of the barrier to entry.
6. The firm produces less than optimum quantity of output.
7. Price discrimination is possible.
8. Output is minimum and price is maximum.
9. As the price is high there is no possibility for consumer’s surplus.

Question 4.
Explain long-run equilibrium of the firm and the group equilibrium in monopolistic competition.
Answer:
In the short run, the firm may earn super normal profit or incur loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the super normal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and exit of loss making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry.

In the long run AR curve is more elastic or flatter. Because plenty of substitutes are available.

In the diagram, equilibrium is achieved at point E The equilibrium output is ‘OM’ and the equilibrium price is ‘OP’. AR is ‘MQ’ and MC is also ‘MQ’.

In the long run, the condition for equilibrium is AR = AC And MC = MR. It means that a firm earns normal profit. AR is tangent to the Long run Average Cost (LAC) curve at point ‘Q’.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Achieving Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Achieving Equality For Class 6 Question 1.
Which one of the following is not the reason for Prejudice?
(a) Socialization
(b) Economic Benefits
(c) Authoritarian personality
(d) Geography
Answer:
(d) Geography

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 2.
Discrimination done on the basis of gender is referred to as …………….
(a) gender discrimination
(b) caste discrimination
(c) religious discrimination
(d) inequality
Answer:
(a) gender discrimination

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 3.
Gender-based stereotypes are often portrayed in
(a) films
(b) advertisements
(c) TV serials
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) AH of these

Social Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 4.
Name the book/s written by A.P.J. Abdul Kalam …………….
(a) India 2020
(b) Wings of Fire
(c) Ignited Minds
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1997
(b) 1996
(c) 1995
(d) 1994
Answer:
(a) 1997

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Question 6.
Viswanathan Anand became India’s first grandmaster in the year.
(a) 1985
(b) 1986
(c) 1987
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Samacheer Kalvi Social 6th Standard Question 7.
In which sport Ilavazhagi excels
(a) Chess
(b) Wrestling
(c) Carrom
(d) Tennis
Answer:
(c) Carrom

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 8.
Which article of the Constitution says discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them is not …………….
(a) 14(1)
(b) 15(1)
(c) 16(1)
(d) 17(1)
Answer:
(b) 15(1)

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 9.
B.R. Ambedkar was conferred Bharat Ratna in the year
(a) 1990
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1987
Answer :
(a) 1990

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Question 10.
As per the 2011 census the highest literate district in Tamil Nadu …………….
(a) Namakkal
(b) Salem
(c) Kanyakumari
(d) Sivagangai
Answer:
(c) Kanyakumari

II. Fill in the blanks :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.

1. People have false belief and ideas on others is called _______.
2. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam was born in _______.
3.  _______was the first recipient of Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award, India’s highest Sport honour
4. _______was independent India’s first Law Minister
5. As per the 2011 Census, the lowest Sex ratio was in _______.

Answers:

1. Prejudices
2. Rameswaram
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
5. Dharmapuri Dist

III. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Question 1.

1. Prejudice – (i) abolition of untouchability
2. Stereotype – (ii) treating someone less fairly than others
3. Discrimination – (iii) equality before law
4. Article 14 – (iv) false view or idea about something
5. Article 17 – (v) judge other people negatively

Answer:

1. – v
2. – iv
3. – ii
4. – iii
5. – ii

IV. Answer the following questions:

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Science Question 1.
What is Prejudice?
Answer:

1. Prejudice means to judge other people in a negative or inferior manner, without knowing much about them.
2. It happens when people have false belief and ideas.

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 2.
What is a stereotype?
Answer:
When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a stereotype. Stereotype is a false view or idea about something. For example, girls are not good at sports.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 6th Question 3.
What is discrimination?
Answer:

1. Discrimination can be defined as negative actions towards people.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion and gender etc.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 4.
What are the articles that are discussing the equality in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Article 14 of the Indian constitution provides equality before the law or equal protection within the territory of India.
2. Article 15 (1) of the Constitution states that the State shall not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
3. Article 17 of the Indian consitution, untouchability is totally abolished.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Question 1.
What are the causes of Prejudice?
Answer:
Some common social factors that contributes to the rise of prejudice are-

1. Socialisation
2. Conforming behaviours
3. Economic benefits
4. Authoritarian personality
5. Ethno – centrism
6. Group closure
7. Conflicts

Social Guide For Class 6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Write any two types of discrimination?
Answer:
Caste discrimination:

1. Caste system is the most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination in India.
2. In the beginning the society was divided into different groups on the basis of occupation, known as varnas.
3. Leaders like Ambedkar was against caste discrimination.
4. He fought actively for equality among the citizens of India

Gender discrimination:

1. Gender discrimination refers to health, education, economic and political inequalities between men and women in India.
2. For example: A girl is not allowed to go to college after finishing her schooling.
3. Most of the girls are not allowed to select a career of their choice.
4. In some families girls are not allowed to wear modern dresses while boys in such families wear modern dresses.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Question 3.
Explain the solution to the removal of inequality and discrimination in Indian society?
Answer:
The remedial measures for abolishing inequality and discrimination in Indian society are as follows.

1. Wider access to quality based services like healthcare and education for all.
2. Be aware of current gender bias.
3. Make women more visible in public life and institution to eradicate gender disparity.
4. Be open to learning about other religions.
5. Promoting community dining in the classroom may help the students to sit together without any bias of caste, religion or gender.
6. Socialise with people of all types outside home.
7. Effective implementation of laws.

VI. Projects and Activities:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Science Question 2.
Collect information about any two famous personalities who faced prejudice and discrimination.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar :

(i) Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 in the town and military cantonment of Mhow in the Central Provinces (now in Madhya Pradesh).

(ii) He was the 14th and last child of Ramji Maloji Sakpal, an army officer who held the rank of Subedar, and Bhimabai Sakpal, daughter of Laxman Murbadkar.

(iii) His family was of Marathi background from the town of Ambadawe (Mandangad taluka) in Ratnagiri district of modem-day Maharashtra.

(iv) Ambedkar was bom into a poor low Mahar (dalit) caste, who were treated as untouchables and subjected to socio-economic discrimination.

(v) Ambedkar’s ancestors had long worked for the army of the British East India Company, and his father served in the British Indian Army at the Mhow cantonment.

(vi) Although they attended school, Ambedkar and other untouchable children were segregated and given little attention or help by teachers. They were not allowed to sit inside the class. When they needed to drink water, someone from a higher caste had to pour that water from a height as they were not allowed to touch either the water or the vessel that contained it.

(vii) This task was usually performed for the young Ambedkar by the school peon, and if the peon was not available then he had to go without water; he described the situation later in his writings as “No peon, No Water”. He was required to sit on a gunny sack which he had to take home with him.

Dr. Nelson Mandela :

(i) Mandela was bom on 18 July 1918 in the village of Mvezo in Umtata, then part of South Africa’s Cape Province.

(ii) He spent the first 18 of his 27 years in jail at the brutal Robben Island Prison, a former leper colony off the coast of Cape Town.

(iii) He was confined to a small cell without a bed or plumbing and compelled to do hard labor in a lime quarry. ,

(iv) As a black political prisoner, he received scantier rations and fewer privileges than other inmates. He was only allowed to see his wife, Winnie Madikizela-Mandela once every six months.

(v) Mandela and his fellow prisoners were routinely subjected to inhumane punishments for the slightest of offenses; among other atrocities, there were reports of guards burying inmates in the ground up to their necks and urinating on them.

(vi) Despite his forced retreat from the spotlight, Mandela remained the symbolic leader of the antiapartheid movement.

(vii) In 1980 Oliver Tambo introduced a “Free Nelson Mandela” campaign that made the jailed leader a household name and fueled the growing international outcry against South Africa’s racist regime.

(viii) As pressure mounted, the government offered Mandela his freedom in exchange for various political compromises, including the renouncement of violence and recognition of the “independent” Transkei Bantustan, but he categorically rejected these deals.

(ix) In 1982 Mandela was moved to Pollsmoor Prison on the mainland, and in 1988 he was placed under house arrest on the grounds of a minimum-security correctional facility.

(x) The following year, newly elected president F. W. de Klerk lifted the ban and called for a nonracist South Africa, breaking with the conservatives in his party. On February 11, 1990, he ordered Mandela’s release.

(xi) Mandela helped bring an end to apartheid and has been a global advocate for human rights.

(xii) He was a leader of both peaceful protests and armed resistance against the white minority’s oppressive regime in a racially divided South Africa.

(xiii) His actions landed him in prison for nearly three decades and made him the face of the antiapartheid movement both within his country and internationally.

(xiv) Released in 1990, he participated in the eradication of apartheid and in 1994 became the first black president of South Africa, forming a multiethnic government to oversee the country’s transition.

VII. HOTS:

Class 6 Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Various discrimination in India. Discuss.
Answer:

1. The different forms of inequalities such as caste inequality, religious inequality, race inequality or gender inequality give rise to discrimination.
2. Discrimination can happen on the basis of colour, class, religion gender etc.
3. Treating dark-skinned people differently from fair-skinned people, giving more importance to people of higher than to those of lower caste and thinking boys are smarter than girls are all thoughts of discrimination.
4. Article 15(1) of the consitution states that the State not to discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.

VIII Life Skill:

Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 1.
How can you fight against prejudice and discrimination in your village?
Answer:
Fighting against prejudice and discrimination :

1. First we should assess our own biases. We should understand what they are.
2. Keep ourselves accountable. Prejudice is a kind of handicap to our perspective. We are forbidden to think beyond our assumptions. A virtual wall gets built around our objective thinking.
3. Acknowledge our own biases and prejudices and actively replace them with more! reasonable alternative.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Achieving Equality Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Books Answers Question 1.
The eleventh President of India was _______
(a) Narasimha Rao
(b) Man mohan singh
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam
(d) lal bahadur sastri
Answer:
(c) Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam

6th Samacheer Kalvi Social Guide Question 2.
Apartheid was abolished in ……………
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(b) 1990

Question 3.
Baba Saheb refers to ______
(a) Patel
(b) Tilak
(c) Ambedkar
(d) Gandhiji
Answer:
(c) Ambedkar

Question 4.
As per the 2011 census the lowest literate district in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Chennai
(b) Thoothukudi
(c) Nilgiris
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(d) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Urban people are more civilised than rural people in _______ and _______.
2. When prejudice gets stronger, it develops into a _______.
3. In 1988, India’s first grandmaster was _______.
4. The Indian National carrom championship in 2008 was won by _______.
5. At the Rio Paralympics (2016) _______ won the gold medal in men’s high jump T-42 event.
6. The Father of the Indian Constitution is _______.
7. The most dominant reason for inequality and discrimination is _______.

Answer:

1. Attitudes,behaviour
2. stereotype
3. Viswanathan Anand
4. Ilavazhagi
5. Mariyappan
6. Dr. Ambedkar
7. caste system

II. Match the following
(a) Abdul Kaiam – (i) Padma Vibushan
(b) Viswanathan Anand – (ii) India’s first law minister
(c) Ambedkar – (iii) Closed
(d) Varrias – (iv) Missile Man of India
Answer:
(a – iv)
(b – i)
(c – ii)
(d – iii)

IV. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is meant by Stereotype?
Answer:

1. When prejudice gets stronger in develops into a stereotype.
2. Stereotype is a false view or idea about something.
3. Stereotype is learned at a very early age, and children grow to have very strong ideas or opinions about things, groups or ideologies.
4. As children grow up, the lines of like and hate for others things, people, cultures, beliefs, languages become sharper.

Question 2.
Mention the different forms of inequalities
Answer:

1. Caste inequality
2. Religious inequality
3. Race inequality
4. Gender inequality

Question 3.
How many times did Viswanathan Anand win World Chess Championship?
Answer:
Viswanathan Anand won the World Chess Championships five times in 2000, 2007,2008, 2010 and 2012.

V. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a short note op Dr. APJ Abdul Kaiam. ,
Answer:
Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kaiam was bom in a Muslim family in Rameswaram.He was the 11th President of India and who is fondly remembered as People’s President.He completed his schooling at Ramnad, graduation from St. Joseph’s College, Trichy, and went on to study aerospace engineering at the Madras Institute of Technology (MIT) after he joined the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).

Kalam’s family had become poor at his early age; he sold newspapers to supplement )his family income.Kaiam has written many books. Among them, very famous books are India 2020, Wings of Fire, Ignited Minds, The Luminous Sparks and Mission India.He was a recipient of several prestigious awards, including the Bharat Ratna. India’s v highest civilian honour in 1997.His outstanding work earned him the title of the ‘Missile Man of India’.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 4 With the Photographer

Check out the topics covered in Supplementary Chapter 4 With the Photographer Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Supplementary Chapter 4 With the Photographer Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

With The Photographer Question Answer Warm Up

Photographs capture memorable moments. They fill us with nostalgia. Discuss the following questions.

With The Photographer By Stephen Leacock Question And Answers Question 1.
What are the occasions when photographs are taken?

Answer:

With The Photographer Summary Question 2.
Why are photographs taken?

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English With the Photographer Textual Questions

1. Based on your understanding of the story, answer the following questions in two or three sentences each.

With The Photographer Essay In English Question (a)
Why did the author go to the photo studio?
Answer:
The author wanted his photograph taken. He wanted to leave it behind with his friends and relatives after his death. So, he went to a photographer.

With The Photographer Paragraph Question (b)
Describe the photographer.
Answer:
The photographer was a drooping’man in a gray suit. He had dim eyes as a natural scientist.

With The Photographer Question (c)
Bring out the significance of what Leacock was reading at the photographer’s.
Answer:
The poet had to wait. To kill the time, he read Ladies companion for 1912 and the girls’ magazine for 1902 and the infants’journal for 1888. He read the old magazines which were meant for people who lived long ago.

Question (d)
Why did Leacock assume that the photographer was praying?
Answer:
The photographer hid himself behind the camera under a cloth. He did not move or say anything for quile’sometime. So, the author assumed that the photographer was praying.

Question (e)
How did the inner room get light?
Answer:
There was a frosted window. A sheet of factory cotton hung against it. A beam of sunlight filtered through it. Thus the studio got the needed light.

Question (f)
Why did the photographer take a longtime to photograph Leacock?
Answer:
The photographer wanted to prove his skills in photography. Somehow, the author’s face didn’t appear to be good enough for a photo. So, he gave many instructions like “open the mouth, close it, droop your ear, roll your eyes, turn your face up” and went on correcting the pose. This took a lot of time.

Question (g)
What angered the author?
Answer:
The author’s facial features and body was severely criticized by the photographer. He gave plenty of instructions. He himself held the author’s face and twisted it. He said, “I don’t like the head … The ears are bad”. He was asked to expand the lungs, contract the waist, turn the face upward. All this added to the author’s annoyance. He became really angry.

Question (h)
Why did the photographer feel happy after taking the photograph?
Answer:
The photographer felt happy after taking the photograph. The author was angry and was about to get up from his place. The animation on his face was caught in the photograph.

Question (i)
Why did Leacock visit the studio on Saturday?
Answer:
The photographer had asked the author to come and collect the proof on Saturday. So, the author went to the studio on Saturday.

Question (J)
How did the author react on seeing his photograph?
Answer:
The author was upset to see his photo. It carried little likeness of him. He even asked the photographer if it was himself on the photo.

Question (k)
What changes had the photographer effected on Leacock’s face in the picture?
Answer:
The photographer had retouched the author’s eyes. His eyebrows were removed and put in new ones. The mouth was adjusted a little. The author had a consolation that his ears were recognizable. The photographer declared his intention of removing it and fixing them anew.

Question (l)
What was the human side to the photographer?
Answer:
The photographer stated, “I think the face would be better three – quarters full. The author was glad to find that he had such a human side to him.

Question (m)
Why was the photographer proud to receive Leacock on Saturday?
Answer:
While handing over the proof of the photo, there was a certain pride in the photographer’s manner. He believed that with his technical expertise, he had corrected all the ugly features and made the photo presentable. So, he was naturally proud.

Question (n)
What was the only similarity between Leacock’s face and his photograph?
Answer:
The author’s ears were almost the same in the photograph.

2. Based on your understanding of the lesson, complete the sentences given below to make a summary of the story ‘With the Photographer’ in a paragraph.

(a) The narrator went to the photographer to
(b) The photographer made the author wait for
(c) While waiting in the studio the narrator kept reading
(d) The photographer told him to
(e) The narrator got angry because
(f) The photographer was pleased after
(g) He was called on Saturday to
(h) On seeing the photograph the narrator
(i) The photographer had made changes
(j) The photograph did not look like
(k) The narrator was frustrated as
(l) He left the studio saying

Answers:

(a) take a photograph of himself
(b) an hour
(c) old useless magazines
(d) sit down
(e) the photographer repeatedly said his face was wrong
(f) developing the negative
(g) see the proof
(h) was annoyed
(i) in the author’s face
(j) himself
(k) he could not share it with his friends
(l) that it was a worthless bauble for him

3. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of 100 -150 words each:

Question (a)
Stephen Leacock’s visit to the photo studio turns out to be an annoying experience for him. Discuss citing relevant instances from the story.
Answer:
The author had to wait for an hour and read the magazines like “The Ladies Companion, Girls’ Magazine and the Infants’ Journal. He had a disturbing feeling that he had done an unwarrantable thing in breaking in on the photographer’s privacy and his scientific pursuits with a face like his. After studying his face for sometime from behind the camera, he said, the face was wrong. He commented that the face would be better three quarters full. Then he held the author’s face making him believe that he was going to kiss it. He twisted the author’s face as far as it would go. He said that he didn’t like the head. He asked him to open the mouth a little and then close it. Then he said that the ears was bad. He suggested that he should droop them a little more. He asked him to roll his eyes under the lids.

He asked him to turn his face upward a little and keep his hand on the knee. He instructed the author to hump the neck and contract the waist and also twist the hip. It was the last straw when he said that he didn’t quite like his face for, it was just a trifle too full. These numerous instructions and cynical comments about the features of his face annoyed him. He exploded with anger saying that he had lived with the same face for forty years. He even wanted to leave the place without taking the photograph. When he was about to get up, the photographer clicked the button. The photographer looked pleased. He said that he had caught the author in a moment of animation. Thus the experience with the photographer was really annoying.

“Once you start to dislike someone, Everything they do begins to annoy you. ”

Question (b)
“To me it is but a worthless bauble.”Why did the photographer’s touch of technical expertise appear a worthless bauble to Leacock?
Answer:
The author wanted to have himself photographed. The purpose was to leave behind the image or picture of his likeness to his family and relatives. It would remind them of him after he is dead. The photo could reconcile his absence or loss to them. But the phototgrapher had retouched the eyebrows, eyes, mouth etc. All these features did n6t resemble the author. In a depressed mood, the author said his ears were almost the same.

But the photographer said he could completely replace his ears using a new technique. When the author saw the photo it was technically sound but when it came to likeness, it was a disaster. The purpose of taking the photo was lost. The poet asked the photographer to do all sorts of corrections and keep it with himself and for his friends as a technically sound photo. But for himself it was a worthless bauble. The author broke into tears and left the studio.

“God spent a long time crafting you, and God doesn’t make worthless things. ”

Additional Questions

Question (a)
Attempt a character sketch of the photographer.
Answer:
The photographer was a drooping man in gray coat. He appeared to be a scientist making a study on the faces of people who visit his studio. He wore a serious face all the time. He always looked at the faces of people through his camera. He disapproved of the features of people which did not conform to his estimate of perfect looks. He was proud of his expertise in using various editing skills. He boasted of his skill of removing eyebrows and refixing them artistically. He could correct the mouth, nose and eyes of photos.

Infact, he had corrected every feature of the author’s face except his ears which carried some resemblance to the original. Even that he offered to replace with better looking ears using sophisticated technique.

“To a photographer, photography is to place Head, Heart and Eye along the same line of sight. ”

I. Choose the correct answer from the following:

Question 1.
The photographer was a ____ man in gray suit.
(a) cheerful
(b) drooping
(c) drowsy
(d) flamboyant
Answer:
(b) drooping

Question 2.
The author has to wait for ____ to have his photo taken.
(a) two hours
(b) 15 minutes
(c) 45 minutes
(d) an hour
Answer:
(a) two hours

Question 3.
The author visited a ____ to have his photo taken.
(a) Jeweller’s
(b) dentist
(c) X-ray centre
(d) Studio
Answer:
(d) Studio

Question 4.
Stephen Leacock wanted a ____ taken to leave behind with his friends and relatives.
(a) portrait
(b) photo
(c) will
(d) video
Answer:
(b) photo

Question 5.
The photographer rolled a machine into the centre of the room. The machine was an old ____
(a) megaphone
(b) Radio
(c) TV
(d) camera
Answer:
(d) camera

Question 6.
The cameraman was apparently ____ for light and air.
(a) calm
(b) composed
(c) frantic
(d) foolish
Answer:
(c) frantic

Question 7.
The author believed that he had eroded into the ____ of the photographer.
(a) life
(b) business
(c) privacy
(d) publicity
Answer:
(c) privacy

Question 8.
Initially the photographer spent just a ____ behind the camera.
(a) minute
(b) second
(c) rupee
(d) pound
Answer:
(b) second

Question 9.
The photographer said “The face is quite ____ ”.
(a) right
(b) impressive
(c) wrong
(d) handsome
Answer:
(c) wrong

Question 10.
The photographer commented, “The face would be better ____ full”.
(a) one quarter
(b) three – quarter
(c) two quarter
(d) four quarter
Answer:
(b) three – quarter

Question 11.
The author closed his eyes when the photographer held his head in his hands. He thought the photographer was going to ____ him.
(a) touch
(b) kiss
(c) kick
(d) hug
Answer:
(b) kiss

Question 12.
The photographer twisted the author’s ____ as far as it would go.
(a) hand
(b) face
(c) leg
(d) ear
Answer:
(b) face

Question 13.
The photographer asked the author to drop his ____ a little.
(a) shoulders
(b) hands
(c) ears
(d) eyes
Answer:
(c) ears

Question 14.
The photographer instructed the author to expand his ____
(a) eyes
(b) ears
(c) hands
(d) lungs
Answer:
(d) lungs

Question 15.
Inspite of making many corrections in the position, the photographer found author’s face just a ____ too full.
(a) little
(b) lot
(c) a trifle
(d) a lot
Answers
(c) a trifle

II. Identify the speakers.

1. “I want my photograph taken.” – Stephen Leacock
2. “Sit there, and wait”. – The photographer
3. “The face is quite wrong”. – The photographer
4. “I know….. I have always known it”. – Stephen Leacock

III. Spoken by Stephen Leacock to photographer.

1. I’m sure it would.
2. Stop….. This is my face. It is not yours.
3. I’ve lived with it for forty years
4. I know its faults.
5. I know’ tis my face. I know it wasn’t made for me, but it’s my face, the only one I have.
6. Is it me?
7. The eyes don’t look very much like mine.
8. Fine…. but my eyebrows are not like that?
9. Oh, you don’t, don’t you?
10. What about the mouth?
11. The ears though strike me as a good likeness they’re like mine.
12. Heaven gave it to me, humble thought the gift may have been.
13. “To me it is, but a worthless bauble”,
14. What I wanted is no longer done.
15. “Go on, then with your brutal work”

IV. Spoken by the photographer to Stephen Leacock:

1. I don’t like the head.
2. Open the mouth a little.
3. Close it.
4. The ears are bad drop them a little more.
5. Put the hands on the knees.
6. “I think… that I caught the features just in a moment of animation.”
7. No I don’t care for it. I like to get the hair clear back’to the superficies and make out a new brow line.
8. It’s adjusted a little, yours is too low. I found I couldn’t use it.
9. “But I can fix that all right in the print. We have a process now – the sulphide for removing ears entirely. I’ll see if
10. Yes,…. it’s you.
11. Oh, no, “ I’ve retouched them. They came out splendidly, don’t they?
12. The eye brows are removed. We have a process now – the delphide for putting in new ones.
13. I don’t like the hair low on the skull. .

V. Rearrange the sentences logically:

Question 1.
(a) The photographer told him to sit.
(b) The photographer repeatedly said that his face was wrong.
(c) The author went to the photographer to have his photo taken.
(d) The photographer made him wait for an hour.
(e) While waiting in the studio, the narrator kept reading old magazines.

Answer:

(c) The author went to the photographer to have his photo taken.
(d) The photographer made him wait for an hour.
(e) While waiting in the studio, the narrator kept reading old magazines.
(a) The photographer told him to sit.
(b) The photographer repeatedly said that his face was wrong.

Question 2.
(a) He said that he didn’t like the head.
(b) He gave several instructions and kept on commenting about the author’s ears, eyes and face.
(c) The photographer said that the author’s face would be better three quarters full.
(d) The author got angry and said he had lived with the same face for forty years and knew its fault.
(e) He took the author’s face in his hand and twisted it sideways.

Answers:

(c) The photographer said that the author’s face would be better three quarter full.
(e) He took the author’s face in his hands and twisted it sideways.
(a) He said that he didn’t like the head.
(b) He gave several instructions and kept on commenting about the author’s ears, eyes and the face.
(d) The author got angry and said he lived with the same face for forty years and knew its faults.

Question 3.
(a) The photographer offered to remove the ears and fix them anew with a new teclmique.
(b) The ears alone resembled those of the author.
(c) The photographer asked the author to come on Saturday to see the proof.
(d) On seeing the photograph, the author was annoyed.
(e) The photographer had made several changes in the author’s face.

Answers:

(c) The photographer asked the author to come on Saturday to see the proof.
(d) On seeing the photograph, the author was annoyed.
(e) The photographer had made several changes in the author’s face.
(b) The ears alone in the photo resembled those of the author.
(a) The photographer offered to remove the ears and fix them anew with a new technique

Question 4.
(a) Calling it a worthless bauble, he left the studio in tears.
(b) As the photographer had made several changes, he could not share it with his friends.
(c) Stephen Leacock wanted to have his photo taken.
(d) He wanted his family and friends to remember him with the photo.
(e) The photographer, after making him wait for an hour and criticising his looks, took his photo.

Answers:

(c) Stephen Leacock wanted to have his photo taken.
(d) He wanted his family and friends to remember him with the photo after his death.
(e) The photographer, after making him wait for an hour and criticising his looks took his photo.
(b) As the photographer had made several changes, he could not share it with his friends.
(a) Calling it a worthless bauble, he left the studio in tears.

VI. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given below.

1. “I want my photograph taken,” I said. The photographer looked at me without enthusiasm. He was a drooping man in a gray suit, with the dim eye of a natural scientist. But there is no need, to describe him. Everybody knows what a photographer is like.
“Sit there,” he said, “and wait.”

I waited an hour. I read the Ladies Companion for 1912, the Girls Magazine for 1902 and the Infants Journal for 1888. I began to see that I had done an unwarrantable thing in breaking in on the privacy of this man’s scientific pursuits with a face like mine. After an hour the photographer opened the inner door.
Come in,” he said severely.

I went into the studio.
“Sit down,” said the photographer.

Question (a)
Who wanted to have his photograph taken?
Answer:
Stephen Leacock wanted to have his photo taken.

Question (b)
What was the reaction of the photographer when the speaker disclosed his intention of visiting the studio?
Answer:
The photographer looked at the speaker without any enthusiasm and asked him to sit and wait.

Question (c)
How long did the author wait?
Answer:
He waited for an hour.

Question (d)
What did the author realized while waiting at the studio?
Answer:
The author realized that he had done an unnarratable thing in breaking in on the privacy of the photographer’s scientific pursuits with a face like his.

Question (e)
Why did the photographer make people wait for a long time before taking a photograph?
Answer:
In older times, it took enormous time to load a negative into the big camera. They needed time to fix the camera in the right angle and ensured the appropriate lighting for taking the photo. So, the photographers made people wait for a long time.

2. “The face is quite wrong,” he said. “I know,” I answered quietly; “I have always known it.” He sighed. “I think,” he said, “the face would be better three-quarters full.” “I’m sure it would,” I said enthusiastically, for I was glad to find that the man had such a human side to him. “So would yours. In fact,” I continued, “how many faces one sees that are apparently hard, narrow, limited, but the minute you get them three-quarters full they get wide, large, almost boundless in-”

But the photographer had ceased to listen. He came over and took my head in his hands and twisted it sideways. I thought he meant to kiss me, and I closed my eyes. But I was wrong.

Question (a)
What statement disturbed the author?
Answer:
The photographer said, “The face is quite wrong”. This statement disturbed the author.

Question (b)
What observation cheered up the author?
Answer:
The photographer said, “The face would be better three quarters full”. This cheered up the author.

Question (c)
How did the author respond to the photographer’s observation?
Answer:
The author, in a bid to please the photographer said that one comes across hard, narrow limited faces which become all right when they are three quarters full.

Question (d)
Why did the photographer sigh?
Answer:
The photographer had a feeling that the author’s face was not good for a photo. So, he 1 sighed.

Question (e)
How was the author wrong?
Answer:
When the photographer held the author’s head in his hand, he thought that he was going to kiss him. But he was wrong.

3. “I don’t like the head,” he said. Then he went back to the machine and took another look. “Open the mouth a little,” he said. I started to do so. “Close it,” he added quickly. Then he looked again.“The ears are bad,” he said; “droop them a little more. Thank you. Now the eyes. Roll them in under the lids. Put the hands on the knees, please, and turn the face just a little upward. Yes, that’s better. Now just expand the lungs! So! And hump the neck-that’s it-and just contract ! the waist-ha!-and twist the hip up toward the elbow-now! I still don’t quite like the face, it’s just a trifle too full, but-” I swung myself round on the stool. “Stop,” I said with emotion but, ‘ I think, with dignity.

Question (a)
What did the photographer not like?
Answer:
The photographer did not like the author’s head.

Question (b)
What did the photographer do after going back the machine?
Answer:
He asked the author to open the mouth a little and close it.

Question (c)
What did the photographer tell about the ears?
Answer:
The photographer told the author that the ears were bad.

Question (d)
What did the photographer ask the author to do with?
Answer:
The photographer asked the author to roll his eyes under the lids.

Question (e)
What was the photographer’s final comment comments after suggesting various changes in the posture?
Answer:
The photographer said, “I still don’t like the face. Its just a trifle too full.

4. “This face is my face. It is not yours, it is mine. I’ve lived with it for forty years and I know its faults. I know it’s out of drawing. I know it wasn’t made for me, but it’s my face, the only one I have-” I was conscious of a break in my voice but I went on-”such as it is, I’ve learned

( to love it. And this is my mouth, not yours. These ears are mine, and if your machine is too narrow-” Here I started to rise from the seat.)

Snick! The photographer had pulled a string. The photograph was taken. I could see the machine still staggering from the shock. “I think,” said the photographer, pursing his lips in a pleased smile, “that I caught the features just in a moment of animation.” “So!” I said bitingly,- “features, eh? You didn’t think I could animate them, I suppose? But let me see the picture.’’ “Oh, there’s nothing to see yet,” he said, “I have to develop the negative first. Come back on Saturday and I’ll let you see a proof of it.”

Question (a)
Why was there a break in the author’s voice?
Answer:
The photographer had given a lot of instructions and made insulting remarks about his face. He could not possibly allow a photographer to insult a face with which the author had lived for forty years. So, there was a break in his voice protesting against his rude remarks.

Question (b)
How did the author retaliate the photographer’s rudeness?
Answer:
The author said his camera was too narrow to take a proper photograph.

Question (c)
Why did the photographer take the snap when author refused to be photographed?
Answer:
The photographer found the author animated and caught his features in animation.

Question (d)
How did the author reveal his ignorance of the art of photography?
Answer:
Soon after the photo was taken, the author asked for the printout of the photo. In those days, developing a photo involved a long and cumbersome process.

Question (e)
When did the photographer ask the author to see a proof of the photo?
Answer:
The photographer wanted the author to come to collect the proof on Saturday.

5. “Fine,” I said, “but surely my eyebrows are not like that?” “No,” said the photographer, with a momentary glance at my face, “the eyebrows are removed. We have a process now-the Delphide-for putting in new ones. You’ll notice here where we’ve applied it to carry the hair away from the brow. I don’t like the hair low on the skull.”

“Oh, you don’t, don’t you?” I said. “No,” he went on, “I don’t care for it. I like to get the hair clear back to the superficies and make out a new brow line.” “What about the mouth?” I said with a bitterness that was lost on the photographer, “is that mine?” “It’s adjusted a little,” he said, “yours is too low. I found I couldn’t use it.”

Question (a)
What was the only consolation to the author in the proof given to him?
Answer:
The ears in the photo appeared to be like the author’s own. The rest of the facial features had been edited by the photographer. It was the only consolation.

Question (b)
Why did the author express scorn while talking to the proud photographer?
Answer:
The photographer could not accept the ears resembling those of the author. He offered to remove them completely and fix them anew with the process called sulphide. This infuriated the author so much that he expressed scorn in the words he spoke to the photographer.

Question (c)
What was the purpose of the author’s visit to the studio?
Answer:
The author visited with the purpose of taking a photo, a picture which would look like him.

Question (d)
What did the author want to do with the photograph he wanted?
Answer:
The author wanted to leave his photo with his friends who might keep it after his death to reconcile them to his loss.

Question (e)
Why did the author treat the photograph as a bauble?
Answer:
The photographer had used all his craftsmanship to correct the eyebrows, mouth and all the. facial features except the ears. The author was shocked to see the photo dissimilar to his look. Except his ears all looked different. The photographer offered to replace his ears using sulphide process. So, the author treated the photo as a worthless bauble and asked the photographer to retain it.

With the Photographer About the author.

Stephen Leacocok (1869-1944) was a Canadian teacher, political scientist, writer and a humorist. He was the best known English- speaking humorist in the world in the years 1915-1925. He is popular for his light humour and criticism of people’s follies. In his honour “The Stephen Leacock Memorial Medal for Humour’ has been named. His stories and novels earned him a world wide reputation. He was awarded the “Royal Society of Canada’s Lome Pierce Medal in 1937. He is still remembered for his satire and witty criticism in his prose writings.

With the Photographer Summary

Leacock goes to a photographer to get himself photographed. He waits for an hour. He is called into the inner room. The photographer is a serious man. He is obviously not satisfied with Leacock’s face. He says his face is wrong. He says it should be three quarters full. Leacock talks about different kinds of faces and agrees with the photgrapher’s view. Meanwhile, the photographer withdraws himself behind the camera under a covered cloth. He comes close to Leacock. He holds his face tenderly. Leacock closes his eyes thinking he is going to kiss his face. But the photographer turns his face in many directions to suit the angle from which he is going to shoot him with his static camera. He gives many directions to Leacock as to how he should pose.

Infact his instructiohs, “close your mouth, droop your ears, turn your face, expand you lungs, raise your hip” annoy Leacock. He is really confused and frightened. He becomes impatient and scolds him for finding fault with his face. It was after all the only face he had lived with for forty years. He is photographed when he is angry and about to get up. The photographer is pleased because he took the photo-when he was animated.

He asks Leacock to come again on Saturday to see the proof of his photograph. To the great annoyance of the author, the photographer claimed to have edited his eyebrows and mouth and wanted to edit his ears using some sophisticated techniques. Leacock tells the photographer that he wanted a photo of his likeness so that family members and friends could see the photo and remember him after his death. He is so angry that he asks the photographer to keep the corrected photo and left the studio in tears of humiliation.

With the Photographer Glossary

Textual:
animation – excitement
bauble – a thing of no value / trifle
beckoned – called
boundless – limitless
ceased – stopped
depict – show, give a picture of
drooping – bending
emboss – cause to bulge out
frantic – mad, desperate
grave – serious
pursuits – quest
reconcile – to comfort and heal
staggering – shaking or vibrating
super ficies – surface / outer face
trifle – bit
unwarrantable – illegal, wrongful
withering scorn – disapproving hatred

Additional:
animated – lively
annoyance – irritation
apparently – obviously
beam – a line of light
conscious – be aware of
contract (u) – shrink
dim – dull
droop – bend
expand – stretch / widen
frightened – got afraid
frosted – dimmed by frost
hooked – bent
humiliation – feeling of being hurt
likeness – similarity
quietly – silently
sophisticated – modem
tenderly – gently
unfolded – opened

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Supplementary Chapter 4 With the Photographer Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 9 Ratio Analysis

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Ratio Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

12th Accountancy 9th Chapter Question 1.
The mathematical expression that provides a measure of the relationship between two figures is called ……………..
(a) Conclusion
(b) Ratio
(c) Model
(d) Decision
Answer:
(b) Ratio

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 9 Solutions Question 2.
Current ratio indicates ……………..
(a) Ability to meet short term obligations
(b) Efficiency of management
(c) Profitability
(d) Long term solvency
Answer:
(a) Ability to meet short term obligations

12th Accountancy Chapter 9 Solutions Question 3.
Current assets excluding inventory and prepaid expenses is called ……………..
(a) Reserves
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Funds
(d) Quick assets
Answer:
(d) Quick assets

12th Accountancy Chapter 9 Question 4.
Debt equity ratio is a measure of ……………..
(a) Short term solvency
(b) Long term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
Answer:
(b) Long term solvency

12th Accountancy 9th Chapter Solutions Question 5.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Answer:
(a) 1 4 3 2

Class 12 Accounts Chapter 9 Solutions Question 6.
To test the liquidity of a concern, which of the following ratios are useful?
(i) Quick ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio
(iii) Debt – equity ratio
(iv) Current ratio
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Question 7.
Proportion of share holder’s funds to total assets is called ……………..
(a) Proprietary ratio
(b) Capital gearing ratio
(c) Debt equity ratio
(d) Current ratio
Answer:
(a) Proprietary ratio

Ratio Analysis Chapter 9 Pdf Question 8.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Liquid ratio – Proportion
(b) Gross profit ratio – Percentage
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage
(d) Debt – equity ratio – Proportion
Answer:
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Accountancy Question 9.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; Current assets ₹ 1,00,000 ; Inventory ₹ 20,000 . Quick ratio is ……………..
(a) 1:1
(b) 2.5:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(c) 2:1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Question 10.
Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 3,00,000; Inventory in the beginning of the year ₹ 60,000; Inventory at the close of the year ₹ 40,000. Inventory turnover ratio is
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 6 times
(d) 8 times
Answer:
(c) 6 times

II. Very short answer questions

12th Accountancy Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
What is meant by accounting ratios?
Answer:
Ratio is a mathematical expression of relationship between two related or interdependent items. It is the numerical or quantitative relationship between two items. It is calculated by dividing one item by the other related item. When ratios are calculated on the basis of accounting information, these are called ‘accounting ratios’.

Ratio Analysis Class 12 Question 2.
What is quick ratio?
Answer:
Quick ratio gives the proportion of quick assets to current liabilities. It indicates whether the business concern is in a position to pay its current liabilities as and when they become due, out of its quick assets. Quick assets are current assets excluding inventories and prepaid expenses. It is otherwise called “liquid ratio” or “acid test ratio”.
Quick ratio = \(\frac{\text { Quick assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}\)
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses.
Higher the quick ratio, better is the short – term financial position of an enterprise.

Accounting Chapter 9 Answer Key Question 3.
What is meant by debt equity ratio?
Answer:
It is calculated to assess the long term solvency position of a business concern. Debt equity ratio expresses the relationship between long term debt and shareholder’s funds.
Debt equity ratio = \(\frac{\text { Long term debt }}{\text { Shareholders funds }}\)
Capital employed = Shareholder’s funds + Non current liabilities
Greater the return on investment better is the profitability of a business and vice versa.

Samacheer Kalvi Accountancy Question 4.
What does return on investment ratio indicate?
Answer:
It shows the proportion of net profit before interest and tax to capital employed (shareholder’s fund and long term debts). It is an overall measure of profitability of a business concern.

Capital employed = Shareholder’s funds + Non current liabilities
Greater the return on investment better is the profitability of a business and vice versa.

12th Samacheer Kalvi Accountancy Solution Book Question 5.
State any two limitations of ratio analysis.
Answer:
Ratios are only means: Ratios are not end in themselves but they are only means to achieve a particular purpose. Analysis of related items must be done by the management or experts with the help of ratios. Change in price level: Ratio analysis may not reflect price level changes and current values as they are calculated based on historical data given in financial statement.

III. Short answer questions

Ratio Analysis Questions And Answers Pdf Question 1.
Explain the objectives of ratio analysis.
Answer:
The objectives of ratio analysis:

1. To simplify accounting figures
2. To facilitate analysis of financial statements
3. To analysis the operational efficiency of a business
4. To help in budgeting and forecasting
5. To facilitate intra firm and inter firm comparison of performance

Ratio Analysis Questions And Answers Question 2.
What is inventory conversion period? How is it calculated?
Answer:
It is the time taken to sell the inventory. A shorter inventory conversion period indicates more efficiency in the management of inventory. It is computed as follows:

(in days)

(in months)

12th Accountancy Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
How is operating profit ascertained?
Answer:
It gives the proportion of operating profit to revenue from operations. Operating profit ratio is an indicator of operational efficiency of an organisation. It may be computed as follows:

Alternatively, it is calculated as under:
Operating profit ratio = 100 – Operating cost ratio
Operating profit = Revenue from operations – Operating cost

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Pdf Question 4.
State any three advantages of ratio analysis.
Answer:
1. Measuring operational efficiency: Ratio analysis helps to know operational efficiency of a business by finding the relationship between operating cost and revenues and also by comparison of present ratios with those of the past ratios.

2. Intra firm comparison: Comparison of efficiency of different divisions of an organisation is possible by comparing the relevant ratios.

3. Inter firm comparison: Ratio analysis helps the firm to compare its performance with other firms.

Ratio Analysis Sums With Solution Pdf Question 5.
Bring out the limitations of ratio analysis.
Answer:
Following are the limitations of ratio analysis:
1. Ratios are only means: Ratios are not end in themselves but they are only means to achieve a particular purpose. Analysis of related items must be done by the management or experts with the help of ratios.

2. Accuracy of financial information: The accuracy of a ratio depends on the accuracy of information taken from financial statements. If the statements are inaccurate, ratios computed based on that will also be inaccurate.

3. Consistency in preparation of financial statements: Inter firm comparisons with the help of ratio analysis will be meaningful only if the firms follow uniform accounting procedures consistently.

4. Non – availability of standards or norms: Ratios will be meaningful only if they are compared with accepted standards or norms. Only few financial ratios have universally recognised standards. For other ratios, comparison with standards is not possible.

5. Change in price level: Ratio analysis may not reflect price level changes and current values as they are calculated based on historical data given in financial statements.

IV. Exercises

Accounting Ratios Formula Class 12 Question 1.
Calculate the current ratio from the following information.

Solution:
Current ratio =
Current assets = current investment + Inventories + Trade debtors + Bills receivable + Cash and cash equivalents
C. A = 40,000 + 2,00,000 + 1,20,000 + 80,000 + 10,000 = 4,50,000
Current liablities = Trade crditors + Bills payable + Expenses payable
C.L = 80,000 + 50,000 + 20,000
= 1,50,000
Current ratio = \(\frac { 4,50,000 }{ 1,50,000 }\)
Current ratio = 3:1

Question 2.
Calculate quick ratio: Total current liabilities ₹ 2,40,000; Total current assets ₹ 4,50,000; Inventories ₹ 70,000; Prepaid expenses ₹ 20,000
Solution:
Quick ratio =
Quick ratio = Current assets – Inventory – Prepaid expenses = 4,50,000 – 70,000 – 20,000
= 3,60,000
Quick ratio = \(\frac { 3,60,000 }{ 2,40,000 }\) = 1.5 : 1

Question 3.
Following is the balance sheet of Lakshmi Ltd. as on 31^st March, 2019:

Calculate:
(i) Current ratio (ii) Quick ratio
Solution:
(i) Current ratio =
= \(\frac { 6,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\)
Current ratio = 1.5:1
Current assets = Inventories + Trade debtors + Cash and cash equivalents + other current assets prepaid expenses.
= 40,000 + 1,60,000 + 3,20,000 + 80,000
= 6,00,000
Current Liabilities = short-term loans + trade payables + Expenses payable + short term provision.
= 50,000 + 3,10,000 + 15,000 + 25,000
= 4,00,000
Quick ratio = \(\frac{\text { Quick assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}\)
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventory – Prepaid expenses
= 6,00,000 – 1,60,000 – 40,000 = 4,00,000
Quick ratio = \(\frac { 4,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 1 : 1

Question 4.
From the following information calculate debt equity ratio.
Balance sheet (Extract) as on 31^st March, 2019:

Solution:
Debt equity ratio = \(\frac{\text { Long term debt }}{\text { Shareholders funds }}\)
Debentures = 6,00,000
Shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 6,00,000 + 2,00,000
= 8,00,000
Debt Equity ratio = \(\frac { 6,00,000 }{ 8,00,000 }\) = 0.75 : 1

Question 5.
From the following Balance Sheet of Pioneer Ltd. calculate proprietary ratio:
Balance sheet of Pioneer Ltd. as on 31.3.2019

Solution:

Shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,50,000 + 50,000
= 4,50,000
Total tanginle assets = Fixed assets capital + preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,00,000 + 40,000
=6,00,000
Proprietary Ratio = \(\frac { 4,50,000 }{ 6,00,000 }\) = 0.75 : 1

Question 6.
From the following information calculate capital gearing ratio:
Balance Sheet (Extract) as on 31.03.2018

Solution:

Capital gearing ratio =0.5 : 1
= \(\frac { 4,00,000 }{ 8,00,000 }\)
Funds bearing fixed interest and dividend Preference share capital + Debentures
= 1,00,000 + 3,00,000 = 4,00,000
Equity shareholder’s funds = Equity share capital + General reserve + Surplus
= 4,00,000 + 2,50,000 + 1,5,000 = 8,00,000

Question 7.
From the following Balance Sheet of Arunan Ltd. as on 31.03.2019 calculate

1. Debt – equity ratio
2. Proprietary ratio
3. Capital gearing ratio

Balance Sheet of Arunan Ltd. as on 31.03.2019

Solution:
1. Debt Equity Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Long term debt }}{\text { Shareholders funds }}\)
Long term debt = Debentures = 3,00,000
Shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Preference share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 2,00,000 + 1 ,50,000
= 6,00,000
Debt Equity Ratio = \(\frac { 3,00,000 }{ 6,00,000 }\) = 0.5 : 1
Debt – equity ratio : 0.5 : 1

2. Proprietary ratio =
Total Tangible assets = 12,00,000
Proprietary ratio = \(\frac { 6,00,000 }{ 12,00,000 }\) = 0.5 : 1

3. Capital geanng ratio =
Funds bearing fixed interest or dividend = Preference share capital + Debentures + Long term borrowings.
= 2,00,000 + 4,00,000 = 5,00,000
Equity shareholders’ funds = Equity share capital + Reserves and surplus
= 2,50,000 + 1,50,000 = 4,00,000
Capital gearing ratio = \(\frac { 5,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 1.25 : 1

Question 8.
From the given information calculate the inventory turnover ratio and inventory conversion period (in months) of Sania Ltd.

Solution:
Inventory turnover ratio =
Cost of revenue from operations = Opening inventory + Net Purchases + Direct expenses (carriage inwards) – Closing inventory
= 1,70,000 + 6,90,000 + 20,000 – 1,30,000
= 7,50,000
Average inventory =
= 1,50,000
Inventory Turnover ratio = \(\frac { 7,50,000 }{ 1,50,000 }\) = 5 times
Inventory conversion period =
= \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 }\) 2.4 months

Question 9.
The credit revenue from operations of Harini Ltd. amounted to ₹ 9,60,000. Its debtors and bills receivable at the end of the accounting period amounted to ₹ 1,00,000 and ₹ 60,000, respectively. Calculate trade receivable turnover ratio and also collection period in months.
Solution:
Trade receivables turnover ratio =
Average trade Receivables = Debtors + Bills receivable
Average Trade Receivables = \(\frac{1,10,000+1,40,000}{2}\) = 2,50,000
Trade receivable turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 10,00,000}{2,50,000}\) = 4 times
Debt collection period = = 3 months.

Question 10.
From the following figures obtained from Kalpana Ltd, calculate the trade payables turnover ratio and credit payment period (in days).

Solution:
Trade payable turnover ratio =
Average trade payable =
= \(\frac{60,000+50,000+45,000+35,000}{2}\)
= 95,000
Trade payable turnover ratio = \(\frac{9,50,000}{95,000}\) = 10 times
Credit payment period = = \(\frac{365}{10}\) = 36.5 days

Question 11.
From the following information of Ashika Ltd., calculate fixed assets turnover ratio:

1. Revenue from operations during the year were ₹ 60,00,000.
2. Fixed assets at the end of the year was ₹ 6,00,000.

Solution:
Fixed assets turnover ratio = = \(\frac{ 55,00,000}{ 5,00,000}\) = 11 times

Question 12.
Calculate:

1. Inventory turnover ratio
2. Trade receivable turnover ratio
3. Trade payable turnover ratio and
4. Fixed assets turnover ratio from the following information obtained from Delphi Ltd.

Additional information:

1. Revenue from operations for the year ₹ 10,50,000
2. Purchases for the year ₹ 4,50,000
3. Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 6,00,000. Assume that sales and purchases are for credit.

Solution:
1. Inventory turnover ratio =
Average inventory =
= \(\frac{3,60,000+4,40,000}{2}\) = 4,00,000
Inventory turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 16,00,000}{4,00,000}\) = 4 times

2. Trade receivables turnover ratio =
Average trade receivable = \(\frac{ 7,40,000 + 6,60,000 }{2}\) = 7,00,000

Trade receivables turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 35,00,000 }{ 7,00,000}\) = 5 times

3. Trade payable turnover ratio =
Average trade receivable = \(\frac{ 1,90,000 + 2,30,000 }{2}\) = 21,00,000
Trade payable turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 21,00,000}{2,10,000}\) = 10 times

4. Fixed assets turnover ratio =
Average fixed assets = \(\frac{ 6,00,000 + 8,00,000 }{2}\) = 7,00,000
Fixed assets turnover ratio = \(\frac{ 35,00,000}{7,00,000}\) = 5 times

Question 13.
Calculate gross profit ratio from the following:
Revenue from operations ₹ 1,00,000, Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 80,000 and purchases ₹ 62,500.
Solution:
Gross profit ratio =
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 2,50,000 – 2,10,000
= 40,000
Greater profit ratio = \(\frac{40,000}{2,50,000}\) x 100 = 16%

Question 14.
Following is the statement of profit and loss of Maria Ltd. for the year ended 31^st March, 2018. Calculate the operating cost ratio.
Statement of Profit and Loss

Notes to Accounts

Solution:
Operating cost ratio =
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchases of stock-in-trade + Change in inventories of stock
= 8,60,000 + 40,000 = 9,00,000
Operating expenses = office and administrative expenses + Selling and distribution expenses + Employee benefits expenses salaries
= 50,000 + 90,000 + 1,60,000 = 3,00,000
Operating cost = Cost of revenue from operations + Operating expenses
= 9,00,000 + 3,00,000
= 12,00,000
Operating cost ratio = \(\frac{12,00,000}{15,00,000}\) x 100 = 80%

Question 15.
Calculate operating profit ratio under the following cases.
Case 1: Revenue from operations ₹ 10,00,000, Operating profit ₹ 1,50,000.
Case 2: Revenue from operations ₹ 15,00,000, Operating cost ₹ 12,00,000.
Case 3: Revenue from operations ₹ 20,00,000, Gross profit 30% on revenue from operations, Operating expenses ₹ 4,00,000
Solution:
Operating ratio =
Case I :
Operating ratio = \(\frac{2,00,000}{8,00,000}\) x 100 = 25%

Case II.
Operating profit = Revenue from operation – Operating Cost
= 20,00,000 – 14,00,000 = 6,00,000
Operating ratio = \(\frac{6,00,000}{20,00,000}\) x 100 = 30%

Case III.
Operating profit = Gross profit – Operating expenses
Gross profit = 10,00,000 x \(\frac{ 25 }{ 100 }\) = 2,50,000
Operating profit = 2,50,000 – 1,00,000 = 1,50,000
Operating ratio = \(\frac{1,50,000}{10,00,000}\) x 100 = 1.5%

Question 16.
From the following details of a business concern calculate net profit ratio.

Solution:
Net Profit Ratio =
Net profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operation – office and administrative expenses – selling and distribution expenses
=9,60,000 – 5,50,000 – 1,45,000 – 1,25,000 = 2,40,000
Net profit ratio = \(\frac{2,40,000}{9,60,000}\) x 100 = 25%

Question 17.
From the following statement of profit and loss of Mukesh Ltd. calculate

1. Gross profit ratio
2. Net profit ratio.

Statement of Profit and Loss

Solution:
1. Gross Profit = 
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Purchase of stock in trade – Changes in inventories
= 24,00,000 – 18,80,000 – ( – 80,000)
= 6,00,000
Greater profit ratio = \(\frac{6,00,000}{24,00,000}\) x 100 = 10%

2. Net Profit Ratio =
Net profit ratio = \(\frac{2,40,000}{24,00,000}\) x 100 = 10%

Question 18.
From the following trading activities of Naveen Ltd. calculate

1. Gross profit ratio
2. Net profit ratio
3. Operating cost ratio
4. Operating profit ratio

Statement of Profit and loss

Solution:
1. Gross profit ratio =
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Purchase of stock in trade – Changes in inventories
= 44,00,000 – 21,00,000 – 30,000
= 16,00,000
Greater profit ratio = \(\frac{1,60,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 40%

2. Net Profit Ratio =
Net profit ratio = \(\frac{80,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 20%

3. Operating cost ratio =
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchases of stock-in-trade + Change in inventories of stock
= 2,10,000 + 30,000 = 2,40,000
Operating expenses = Administrative expenses + Selling and expenses = 60,000
Operating cost = 2,40,000 + 60,000 = 3,00,000
Operating cost ratio = \(\frac{3,00,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 75%

4. Operating profit ratio =
Operating profit = Gross profit – Operating expenses
= 1,60,000 – 60,000 = 1,00,000
Operating profit ratio = \(\frac{10,00,00}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 25%

Question 19.
Following is the extract of the balance sheet of Babu Ltd., as on 31^st March, 2018:

Net profit before interest and tax for the year was ₹ 25,000. Calculate the return on capital employed for the year.
Solution:

Capital employed = Share capital + Reserves and surplus + Long term borrowings
= 2,00,000 + 50,000 + 1,50,000 = 4,00,000
Return on Capital employed = \(\frac{60,000}{4,00,000}\) x 100 = 15%

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Ratio Analysis Additional Questions and Answers

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are liquidity ratios?
Answer:
Liquidity ratios are the ratios meant for testing short term solvency position of the firm, i.e., Whether a company is able to repay the short-term loans their due dates. They include

1. Current ratio and
2. Liquid ratio.

Question 2.
What are activity ratio?
Answer:
Activity ratios measure the effectiveness with which assets are used for generating revenue from operations.They include

1. Inventory turnover ratio and
2. Trade receivable turnover ratio and
3. Working capital turnover ratio, etc.

II. Exercise

Question 1.
From the following complete (i) current ratio, (ii) Quick ratio.

Solution:

Current assets = Current investments + Inventories + Trade receivables + Cash and cash + short – term loans and Advances
= ₹ 40,000 + 5,000 + 2,000 + 10,000 + 4,000 = ₹ 61,000
Current liabilities = Short – term borrowings + Trade payable + short-term provisions + other current liabilities
= ₹ 20,000 + 2,500 + 3,000 + 5,000 = ₹ 30,500
Current Ratio = \(\frac{61,000}{30,500}\) = 2 : 1

(ii) Quick ratio
Quick ratio =
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= ₹ 61,000 – 5,000 – Nil = ₹ 56,000
Quick Ratio = \(\frac{56,000}{30,500}\) = 1.8 : 1

Question 2.
Current ratio = 2:1. State and give reason which of the following would improve, reduce or does not change the ratio
(a) Repayment of current liabilities
(b) Purchasing goods on credit
(c) Sale of office equipments for ₹ 4000 (book value ₹ 5000)
(d) Sale of goods ₹ 11,000 (cost ₹ 10,000)
(e) Payment of dividend
Answer:
Current ratio of a company is 2:1. In other words, it may be assumed that the current assets are ₹ 2,00,000 and current liabilities are ₹ 1,00,000.
(a) Repayment of current liabilities say ₹ 50,000

Ratio is improved

(b) Purchasing goods on credit say ₹ 60,000

Ratio reduced.

(c) Sale of office equipment for ₹ 4,000 (book value ₹ 5,000)

Ratio is improved.

(d) Sale of goods ₹ 11,000 [Cost value is ₹ 10,000]

Ratio is improved.

(e) Payment of dividend say ₹ 50,000

= 3 : 1 Ratio is Improved

Question 3.
Calculate current ratio of a company from the following information
Inventory turnover ratio = 4 times
Inventory in the end was ₹ 20,000 more than inventory in the beginning. Revenue from operations ₹ 3,00,000 Gross profit ratio = 25%
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; Quick ratio 0.75:1
Cost of revenue from operations
Answer:
Inventory turnover ratio =
4(Given) =
Average Inventory =
Average inventory = \(\frac{2,25,000}{4}\) = ₹ 56,250
Closing inventory = 56,250 + \(\frac{1}{2}\) (20,000)
₹ 56,250 + 10,000 = ₹ 66,250
Current assets = Liquid assets + Closing inventory with the help of quick ratio. We can findout liquid assets.
Quick ratio =
0.75(given) =\(\frac{\text { Liquid assets }}{40,000}\)
Liquid assets = ₹ 40,000 x 0.75 = ₹ 30,000
Current assets = Liquid assets + Inventory
= ₹ 30,000 + ₹ 66,250 = ₹ 96,250
Current ratio =
= \(\frac{96,250}{40,000}\) = 2.41:1

Question 4.
From the given balance sheet of Mr. A, calculate the activity (turnover) ratios.
Balance sheet as on 31.12.2004

Additional Information: Credit purchase ₹ 5,00,000; credit sales ₹ 9,00,000
Answer:
(a) Capital Turnover Ratio =
Capital employed = Share capital + Profit and loss A/c + Reserve and surplus + debentures
= ₹ 2,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 1,00,000 + ₹ 50,000 = ₹ 4,50,000
Capital turnover ratio = \(\frac{9,00,000}{4,50,000}\) = 2 times

(b) Fixed assets turnover ratio =
Fixed assets = Land + Buildings + Equipments + Furniture = ₹ 50,000 + 1,00,000 + 1,75,000 + 75,000
= ₹ 3,00,000
Fixed assets turnover ratio = \(\frac{9,00,000}{4,50,000}\)

(c) Debtors Turnover ratio =
Credit ₹ 9,00,000.
Average debtors = Closing debtors = ₹ 60,000
Debtors Turnover Ratio = \(\frac{9,00,000}{60,000}\) = 15 times

(d) Creditors turnover ratio =
Credit purchases = ₹ 5,00,000
Average creditors = closing creditors ₹ 1,25,000
Creditors turnover ratio = \(\frac{5,00,000}{1,25,00}\) = 4 times

Question 5.
From the following particulars ascertain gross profit ratio:
Cash sales – ₹ 30,000
Gross profit – ₹ 1,58,500
Credit sales – ₹ 1,70,000
Return inward – ₹ 5,000
Answer:
Gross profit = \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Sales }}\) x 100
Sales = Cash sales + Credit sales – Sales return
= ₹ 30,000 + 1,70,000 – 5,000
= ₹ 1,95,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{58,500}{1,95,000}\) x 100 = 30%

Question 6.
Calculate current ratio
Cash ₹ 2,00,000; Sundry debtors ₹ 80,000
Stock ₹ 1,20,000; Sundry Creditors ₹ 1,50,000
Bills payable ₹ 50,000
Answer:
Current ratio =
Current Assets = Cash + Sundry debitor + Stock
= ₹ 2,00,000 + 80,000 + 1,20,000
= ₹ 4,00,000
= ₹ 1,50,000 + 50,000 = ₹ 2,00,000
Current ratio = \(\frac{4,00,000}{2,00,000}\) = 2:1

Question 7.
Calculate Liquidity ratio
Current assets – ₹ 20,000
Prepaid expenses – ₹ 1,000
Stock – ₹ 3,000
Current liabilities – ₹ 8,000
Answer:
Liquidity ratio =
Liquid assets = Current assets – (stock + Prepaid exp)
= ₹ 20,000 – (3000+ 1000)
= ₹ 20,000 – 4000 = ₹ 16,000 Current liabilities = ₹ 8,000
Liquid Ratio = \(\frac{16,000}{8,000}\) = 2:1

Question 8.
Calculate Debt – Equity ratio.
Equity share capital ₹ 2,00,000; General reserve ₹ 1,50,000; Long term loan Debt – Equity ₹ 50,000; Debenture ₹ 1,00,000.
Answer:
Debt – Equity ratio =
Total long term debt = debentures + long term loan = ₹ 1,00,000 + ₹ 50,000 = ₹ 1,50,000
Shareholders fund = Equity share capital + General reserve
= ₹ 2,00,000 + ₹ 1,50,000
= ₹ 3,50,000
Debt – equity ratio = \(\frac{1,50,000}{3,50,000}\) = 0.43 : 1

Question 9.
From the following calculate gross profit ratio:
Gross profit ₹ 50,000 Sales ₹ 5,50,000
Sales return = ₹ 50,000
Answer:
= \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Sales }}\) x 100
Sales = Sales – sales returns
= ₹ 5,50,000 – ₹ 50,000
= ₹ 5,00,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{50,000}{5,00,000}\) = 10%

Question 10.
Calculate gross profit ratio:
Sales ₹ 6,50,000; Cost of goods sold ₹ 4,80,000; Sales returns ₹ 50,000.
Answer:
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Sales }}\) x 100
Sales = Sales – Sales returns
= ₹ 6,50,000 – ₹ 50,000
= ₹ 6,00,000
Gross profit = Sales – Cost of goods sold
= ₹ 6,00,000 – 4,80,000
= ₹ 1,20,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac { 1,20,000 }{ 6,00,000 }\) x 100 = 20%

Question 11.
Calculate capital turnover ratio:
Sales ₹ 20,40,000; Equity share capital ₹ 2,00,000
Preference share capital ₹ 1,00,000; Sales return ₹ 40,000
Loan ₹ 50,000; Reserve ₹ 50,000.
Answer:
Capital turnover ratio =
Sales = Sales – Sales returns
= ₹ 20,40,000 – ₹ 40,000
= ₹ 20,00,000
Capital employed = Equity share capitals + Preference share capital + Reserve + Loans
= ₹ 2,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 50,000 + 50,000
= ₹ 4,00,000
Capital turnover ratio = \(\frac { 20,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 5 times

Question 12.
From the following data, calculate the fixed assets turnover ratio: ₹ 6,00,000; fixed assets depreciation ₹ 2,00,000 Total sales ₹ 17,00,000; Sales returns ₹ 1,00,000.
Answer:
Fixed assets turnover ratio =
Sales = Total sales – Sales returns
= ₹ 17,00,000 – 1,00,000
= ₹ 16,00,0000
Fixed assets = Fixed assets – depreciation
= ₹ 6,00,000 – ₹ 2,00,000
= ₹ 4,00,000
Fixed assets turnover ratio = \(\frac { 16,00,000 }{ 4,00,000 }\) = 4 times

Question 13.
Calculate Stock – Turnover ratio:
Opening stock = ₹ 80,000; Closing stock ₹ 60,000; Purchases ₹ 1,90,000.
Answer:
Inventory turnover ratio =
Cost of revenue from operation = Opening stock + Purchase – Closing stock
= ₹ 80,000 + 1,90,000 – 60,000 = ₹ 2,10,000
Average Inventory =
= \(\frac{80,000+60,000}{2}\) = \(\frac{1,40,000}{2}\) = ₹ 70,000
Inventory Turnover Ratio = \(\frac{ 2,10,000 }{ 70,000 }\) = 3 times

Students can find the most related topics which helps them to analyse the concepts if they practice according to the chapter-wise page. It is necessary for the students to practice more Questions and Answers for Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th Commerce are given in the pdf format in chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Questions and Answers so that students can prepare in both online and offline modes. So, Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, to score good marks.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Solutions Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership

Get the Questions and Answers, in Tamilnadu State Board 11th Commerce Solutions for Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership. Learn the concepts of 11th Commerce Chapter-Wise by referring to the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Chapter 5 Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Questions and Answers. Hence we suggest the students to Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf to enhance your knowledge.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

11th Commerce 5th Lesson Questions And Answers Question 1.
The firm of Hindu Undivided Family is managed by whom?
(a) Owner
(b) Karta
(c) Manager
(d) Partner
Answer:
(b) Karta

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Commerce Question 2.
In the firm of Hindu Undivided Family, how one gets the membership?
(a) By Agreement
(b) By Birth
(c) By Investing Capital
(d) By Managing
Answer:
(b) By Birth

Hindu Undivided Family Business Examples Question 3.
The members in the joint Hindu family are known as ………………..
(a) Karta
(b) Coparceners
(c) Generations
(d) Partners
Answer:
(b) Coparceners

Question 4.
Only the male members in the family get the right of inheritance by birth as ………………..
(a) Hindu law
(b) Mitakshara Law
(c) Dayabhaga law
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Mitakshara Law

Question 5.
partnership is formed by ………………..
(a) Agreement
(b) relationship among partners
(c) The direction of government
(d) Friendship
Answer:
(a) Agreement

Question 6.
Registration of partnership is ………………..
(a) Compulsory
(b) Optional
(c) Not necessary
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Optional

Question 7.
A temporary partnership which is formed to complete a specific job doing a specified period of time is called ………………..
(a) Partnership – at – will
(b) Particular partnership
(c) Limited Partnership
(d) Joint Venture
Answer:
(d) Joint Venture

Question 8.
The partnership deed is also called ………………..
(a) Articles of Association
(b) Articles of Partnership
(c) Partnership Act
(d) Partnership
Answer:
(b) Articles of Partnership

Question 9.
A partnership is registered with ………………..
(a) Registrar of Companies
(b) Registrar of Co – operatives
(c) Registrar of Firms
(d) District Collector
Answer:
(c) Registrar of Firms

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Who is called KARTA?
Answer:
All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled and managed by one person who is known as ‘Karta’ or ‘Manager’.

Question 2.
What are the two schools of Hindu law?
Answer:

1. Dayabhaga and
2. Mitakshara

Question 3.
Who is a called a Partner?
Answer:
The persons who enter into partnership are individually called ‘Partners’.

Question 4.
Who is a Sleeping partner?
Answer:
Such a partner contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm but does not take part in the management of the business.

Question 5.
Who is a Minor?
Answer:
Under the Indian Majority Act, person who has not completed 18 years of age is a minor.

Question 6.
How many types of Dissolution?
Answer:

1. Without order of court.
2. By order of court.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the meaning of Joint Hindu Family Business?
Answer:
The Joint Hindu Family Business is a distinct form of organisation peculiar to India. Joint Hindu Family Firm is created by the operation of law. It does not have any separate and distinct legal entity from that of its members.

Question 2.
Write any 3 features of HUF?
Answer:

1. Governed by Hindu Law : The business of the Joint Hindu Family is controlled and managed under the Hindu law.
2. Membership by Birth : The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as a male child is born in the family, that child becomes a member.
3. Liability : Except the Karta, the liability of all other members is limited to their shares in the business.

Question 3.
Explain the nature of liability of Karta.
Answer:
The Karta is not only liable to the extent of his share in the business but his separate property is equally attachable and amount of debt can be recovered from his personal property.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of Coparceners?
Answer:
The members of the Joint Hindu Family business are called Coparceners. It is regulated by the provisions of Hindu Law. According to Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Coparcener will have a share in the Coparcenaries property after the death of the Co – parcener.

Question 5.
Define Partnership?
Answer:
According to Prof. Haney, “The relations which exist between persons, competent to make contracts, who agree to carry on a lawful business in common with a view to private gain”.

Question 6.
What is the minimum and maximum number of members in the partnership concern?
Answer:
Since partnership is the outcome of an agreement, the minimum number of persons required to form a partnership is two. Maximum is restricted to 10 in the case of banking business and to 20 in all other cases.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of Partnership Deed?
Answer:
Though a partnership agreement need not necessarily be in writing, it is important to have a written agreement in order to avoid misunderstandings; it is desirable to have a written agreement. A carefully drafted partnership deed helps in ironing out differences which may develop among partners and in ensuring smooth running of the partnership business. It should be properly stamped and registered.

Question 8.
Who is called a Secret partner?
Answer:
A secret partner is one whose association is not known to the general public. Other than this distinct feature, he is like rest of the partners in all respects.

Question 9.
What is meant by Joint and Several Liability?
Answer:
Every partner is jointly and severally liable for all acts of the firm. It means that in case the assets are inadequate for meeting the claims of creditors, even their personal properties should be made available. The creditors can recover their claims from all the partners.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the implied authority of Karta?
Answer:
1. In a joint family firm, only Karta has the implied authority to enter into a contract for debts and pledge the property of the firm for the ordinary purpose of the business of the firm.

2. The Karta is the senior most male member of the family. The members of the family have full faith and confidence in Karta. Only Karta is entitled to deal with outsiders. But other members can deal with outsiders only with the permission of Karta.

3. Except the Karta, the liability of all other members is limited to their shares in the business. The Karta is not only liable to the extent of his share in the business but his separate property is equally attachable and amount of debt can be recovered from his personal property.

Question 2.
Can a minor be admitted in the Joint Hindu Family business – Why?
Answer:
In a partnership, minor cannot become co – partner though he may be admitted to the benefit of partnership. In a Joint Hindu Family firm even a new born baby can be a partner. The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as the male child is born in the family, that child becomes the member.

Question 3.
What are the contents of Partnership Deed?

Answer:

1. Name : Name of the Firm.
2. Nature of Business : Nature of the proposed business to be carried on by the partners.
3. Duration of Partnership : Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.
4. Capital Contribution : The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for, one contribute his organising power, business acumen, managerial skill etc., instead of capital.
5. Withdrawal from the Firm : The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.
6. Profit/Loss Sharing : The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared. If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.
7. Interest on Capital : Whether any interest is to be allowed on capital and if so. the rate of interest.
8. Rate of Interest on Drawing : Rate of interest on drawings, if any.
9. Loan from Partners : Whether loans can be accepted from the partners and if so the rate of interest payable thereon.
10. Account Keeping : Maintenance of accounts and audit.
11. Salary and Commission to Partners : Amount of salary or commission payable to partners for their services. (Unless this is specifically provided, no partner is entitled to any salary).
12. Retirement : Matters relating to retirement of a partner. The arrangement to be made for paying out the amount due to a retired or deceased partner must also be stated.
13. Goodwill Valuation : Method of valuing goodwill on the admission, death or retirement of a partner.
14. Distribution of Responsibility : Distribution of managerial responsibilities. The work that is entrusted to each partner is better stated in the deed itself.
15. Dissolution Procedure : Procedure for dissolution of the firm and the mode of settlement of accounts thereafter.
16. Arbitration of Dispute : Arbitration in case of disputes among partners. The deed should provide the method for settling disputes or difference of opinion. This clause will avoid costly litigations.

Question 4.
Explain the types of dissolution of partnership firm.
Answer:
Dissolution of Partnership is different from the dissolution of partnership firm. It is due to the fact that when the jurally relation present between all partners, comes to an end, it is known as dissolution of firm, however, when any one of the partners become incapacitated, then the partnership between the concerned partner and other partners of the firm, comes to an end, but the firm may continue to operate, if other partners desire so.

Question 5.
Write any three differences between Dissolution of Partnership and Dissolution of Firm?
Answer:
Dissolution of Partnership:

• In the case of dissolution of partnership, only one or more of the partners terminate their connections with the firm.
• Dissolution of partnership may or may not bring the business of the firm to an end.
• In dissolution of partnership, the business will continue even after dissolution.

Dissolution of Firm:

• Whereas all the partners terminate their connections with the firms in the case of dissolution of firm.
• But dissolution of the firm brings the business of the firm to an end.
• But business cannot be continued in the case of dissolution of firm.

Question 6.
Write the procedure for Registration of a Firing Procedure for registration:
Answer:
A statement should be prepared stating the following particulars.

1. Name of The firm.
2. The principal place of business.
3. Name of other places where the firm carried on business.
4. Names and addresses of all the partners.
5. The date on which .each partner joined the firm.
6. The duration of the firm.

This statement signed by all the partners should be produced to the Registrar of Firms along with the necessary registration fee of Rs.3. Any change in the above particulars must be communicated to the Registrar within 14 days of such alteration.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Commerce Hindu Undivided Family and Partnership Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer:

Question 1.
……………. is that form of business organisation which is ow’ned and controlled by a single individual
(a) Sole trading concern
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Joint Hindu family business
(d) Joint stock companies
Answer:
(a) Sole trading concern

Question 2.
……………… is known as individual entrepreneurship.
(a) Partnership
(b) Sole trader
(c) Joint stock company
(d) Co – operative
Answer:
(b) Sole trader

Question 3.
When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts, he has to pay from his personal property.
(a) Unlimited Liability
(b) Flexibility
(c) Small capital
(d) Limited Liability
Answer:
(a) Unlimited Liability

Question 4.
“He receives all the profits and risks all of his property in the success or failure of the enterprise”- was said by ………………..
(a) Wheeler
(b) J.L. Hansen
(c) H. Haney
(d) O.R. Krishnasamy
Answer:
(a) Wheeler

Question 5.
Which of the following is under non – corporate enterprise?
(a) Government
(b) Co – operative
(c) Company
(d) Sole trading concern
Answer:
(d) Sole trading concern

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write any two examples of Joint Hindu Family business run in India?
Answer:

1. Reliance Industries
2. Tata Consultancy Services.

Question 2.
Mention any four kinds of Partners?
Answer:

1. Active partner
2. Sleeping partner
3. Nominal partner
4. Partner in profits only

Question 3.
What is partnership firm?
Answer:
The persons who enter into partnership are collectively known as ‘Firm’.

Question 4.
Write any two types of dissolution through court?
Answer:

1. When a partner becomes of unsound mind.
2. Permanent incapacity observed in its formation, management or in its closure.

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a sole trader is unlimited. Since, apart from his business assets, even his private properties are also available for satisfying the claims of creditors. Hence, creditors may give more loans because they can get back the loan from the personal properties of sole traders.

Question 2.
What is Particular partnership?
Answer:
When a partnership is formed to carry on a particular venture or a business of temporary nature, it is called particular partnership. In other words, it comes to an end on the completion of the particular venture.

Question 3.
What is meant by Mitakshara Law?
Answer:
According to Mitakshara law, only the male members in the family get the right of inheritance by birth. It is applied throughout India except Assam and West Bengal.

Question 4.
What is meant by Dayabhaga Law?
Answer:
According to Dayabhaga Law, the right of property develops on the Coparceners by succession and not by birth. The share in the property is not fluctuating on the basis of births and deaths. The share are specified prior to partition. The coparceners can alienate their share of property given without the concern of their coparceners.

IV. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the rights of a partner? (Any five)
Answer:
1. Right to take part in business : Every partner has a right to take part in the management of the business.

2. Right to be consultant : Every partner has the right to be consulted in all the matters concerning the firm. The decision of the majority will prevail in all the routine matters.

3. Right of access to books, record and document : Every partner has the right of access to all records and books of accounts, and to examine and copy them.

4. Right to share profit : Every partner is entitled to share the profits in the agreed ratio. If no profit – sharing ratio is specified in the deed, they must be shared equally.

5. Right to receive interest : A partner has the right to receive interest on loans advanced by him to the firm at the agreed rate, and where.no rate is stipulated, interest @ 6% p.a. allowed.

Question 2.
What are the circumstances under which a partnership firm is dissolved? (any five)
Answer:
1. By agreement or mutual consent : A firm may be dissolved when all the partners agree to close the affairs of the firm. Just as a partnership is created by contract, it can also be terminated by contract.

2. By insolvency of all the partners but one : If any of the partners adjudged an insolvent »(or if all the partners become insolvent) it is necessary to dissolve the firm.

3. Business becoming unlawful : When the business carried on by the partnership becomes illegal, the partnership firm is automatically dissolved.

4. By notice of dissolution : In the case of partnership at will when any partner gives in writing to all the other partners indicating his intension to dissolve the firm, the firm will be dissolved.

5. Continued loss : If the business of the firm cannot be continued expect at a loss, the same may be dissolved by the court on application by a partner.

Case Study

Question a.
A father had self acquired agricultural land. He transferred the said land in the name of his three sons. The revenue records reflect the names of the three sons with 1/3rd share against each name. Father died recently. However physical partition of the said land amongst the three brothers has not been done as they have mutually decided against it. Eldest son has started managing the land since father’s demise. Is the land in question ancestral property of the three brothers? Can the three brothers claim to a HUF? If yes, then since when are they HUF – after father’s demise or since the date land transferred in their names?
Answer:
Yes, the land is ancestral property of the three brothers. It is their father’s land. The three brothers can claim to a HUF. After their father’s death, they can get the land transferred in their names.

Question b.
Draw a family tree diagram as you think. Just imagine you are running a business under the Joint Hindu Family system.
Answer:

For Future Learning

Question a.
Raman with members of his extended family established a Joint Hindu Family business of Handicrafts. Raman being the head of family controlled the business as ‘Karta’. He had authority to take all decisions for the business. Many times, he sold goods for cash without informing other members of the family business. This resulted in lesser profits. He also sold one of the family properties and gave money to his daughter as a wedding gift. What values did Karta ignore in the above case?
Answer:

1. Unlimited liability
2. No consultation with family members.
3. Quick decision making.
4. Hasty decision.

Question b.
Palani is an Electronics Engineer. He has met two businessmen who wish to enter into a partnership with him for the manufacture of tape – recorders. They are prepared to make the investment and offer a fourth share in profits to Palani. Would you have any special words of advice for Palani?
Answer:
Palani is a working partner. He knows the field of product manufacturing of tape – recorders. So he is an expert in the business.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 8 Bank Reconciliation Statement

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Accountancy Bank Reconciliation Statement Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the Correct Answer

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions And Answers Pdf Question 1.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by ………………
(a) Bank
(b) Business
(c) Debtor to the business
(d) Creditor to the business
Answer:
(b) Business

11th Accountancy Chapter 8 Book Back Answers Question 2.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the help of ………………
(a) Bank statement
(b) Cash book
(c) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(c) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book

Accountancy Class 11 Chapter 8 Solutions Question 3.
Debit balance in the bank column of the cash book means ………………
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement
(b) Debit balance as per bank statement
(c) Overdraft as per cash book
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement

Bank Reconciliation Statement Problems And Solutions Pdf Question 4.
A bank statement is a copy of ………………
(a) Cash column of the cash book
(b) Bank column of the cash book
(c) A customer’s account in the bank’s book
(d) Cheques issued by the business
Answer:
(c) A customer’s account in the bank’s book

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions And Answers Question 5.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared to know the causes for the difference between:
(a) The balance as per the cash column of the cash book and bank column of the cash book
(b) The balance as per the cash column of the cash book and bank statement
(c) The balance as per the bank column of the cash book and the bank statement
(d) The balance as per petty cash book and the cash book
Answer:
(c) The balance as per the bank column of the cash book and the bank statement

Bank Reconciliation Questions For Class 11 Question 6.
When money is withdrawn from bank, the bank ………………
(a) Credits customer’s account
(b) Debits customer’s account
(c) Debits and credits customer’s account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Debits customer’s account

Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 Question 7.
Which of the following is not the salient feature of bank reconciliation statement?
(a) Any undue delay in the clearance of cheques will be shown up by the reconciliation
(b) Reconciliation statement will discourage the accountant of the bank from embezzlement
(c) It helps in finding the actual position of the bank balance
(d) Reconciliation statement is prepared only at the end of the accounting period
Answer:
(d) Reconciliation statement is prepared only at the end of the accounting period

Bank Reconciliation Statement Class 11 Solutions Question 8.
Balance as per cash book is ₹ 2,000. Bank charge of ₹ 50 debited by the bank is not yet shown in the cash book. What is the bank statement balance now?
(a) ₹ 1,950 credit balance
(a) ₹ 1,950 credit balance
(b) ₹ 1,950 debit balance
(c) ₹ 2,050 debit balance
(d) ₹ 2,050 credit balance
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,950 credit balance

Bank Reconciliation Statement Questions Question 9.
Balance as per bank statement is ₹ 1,000. Cheque deposited, but not yet credited by the bank is ₹ 2, 000. What is the balance as per bank column of the cash book?
(a) ₹ 3,000 overdraft
(b) ₹ 3,000 favourable
(c) ₹ 1,000 overdraft
(d) ₹ 1,000 favourable
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,000 favourable

Bank Reconciliation Questions Question 10.
Which one of the following is not a timing difference?
(a) Cheque deposited but not yet credited
(b) Cheque issued but not yet presented for payment
(c) Amount directly paid into the bank
(d) Wrong debit in the cash book
Answer:
(d) Wrong debit in the cash book

II. Very Short Answer Questions

Bank Reconciliation Statement Answers Question 1.
What is meant by bank overdraft?
Answer:
It is not possible to have unfavourable cash balance in the cash book. But, it is possible to have unfavourable balance in the bank account. When the business
is not having sufficient money in its bank account, it can borrow money from the bank. As a result of this, amount is overdrawn from bank.

Accounting Chapter 8 Bank Reconciliation Question 2.
What is bank reconciliation statement?
Answer:
If every entry in the cash book matches with the bank statement, then bank balance will be the same in both the records. But, practically it may not be possible. When the balances do not agree with each other, the need for preparing a statement to explain the causes arises. This statement is called bank reconciliation statement (BRS).

Chapter 8 Bank Reconciliation Question 3.
State any two causes of disagreement between the balance as per bank column of cash book and bank statement.
Answer:
(a) Cheques issued but not yet presented for payment.
(b) Cheques deposited into bank but not yet credited.

Bank Reconciliation Statement Solutions Question 4.
Give any two expenses which may be paid by the banker as per standing instruction.
Answer:
Insurance premium, loan instalment, etc., paid as per standing instructions.

Bank Reconciliation Solutions Question 5.
Substitute the following statements with one word/phrase
(a) A copy of customer’s account issued by the bank.
(b) Debit balance as per bank statement.
(c) Statement showing the causes of disagreement between the balance as per cash book and balance as per bank statement.
Answer:
(a) Pass book
(b) Pass book favourable
(c) (1) Timing difference, (2) Errors in recording

Question 6.
Do you agree on the following statements? Write “yes” if you agree, and write “no” if you disagree.
(a) Bank reconciliation statement is prepared by the banker.
(b) Adjusting the cash book before preparing the bank reconciliation statement is compulsory.
(c) Credit balance as per bank statement is an overdraft.
(d) Bank charges debited by the bank increases the balance as per bank statement.
(e) Bank reconciliation statement is prepared to identify the causes of differences between balance as per bank column of the cash book and balance as per cash column of the cash book.
Answer:
(a) No
(b) No
(c) No
(d) No
(e) Yes

III. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give any three reasons for preparing bank reconciliation statement.
Answer:
The main reasons for preparing bank reconciliation statement are:

1. To identify the reasons for the difference between the bank balance as per the cash book and bank balance as per bank statement.
2. To identify the delay in the clearance of cheques.
3. To ascertain the correct balance of bank column of cash book.

Question 2.
What is meant by the term “cheque not yet presented?”
Answer:
When the cheques are issued by the business, it is immediately entered on the credit side of the cash book by the business. But, this may not be entered in the bank statement on the same day. It will be entered in the bank statement only after it is presented with the bank.

Question 3.
Explain why does money deposited into bank appear on the debit side of the cash book, but on the credit side of the bank statement?
Answer:
When the cheques are deposited into bank, the amount is debited in the cash book on the same day. But, these may not be shown in the bank pass book on the same day because these will be entered in the bank statement only after the collection of the cheques.

Question 4.
What will be the effect of interest charged by the bank, if the balance is an overdraft?
Answer:
The bank has to cover the cost of running the customer’s account. So debit is given to the account of the business towards bank charges. Also, if the business had taken any loan or overdrawn, interest has to be paid by the business. These entries for bank charges and interest are made in the bank statement. But, the entry is made in the cash book only when the bank statement is received by the business. Till then, the Cash book shows more balance than bank statement.

Question 5.
State the timing differences in BRS with examples.
Answer:
The timing differences in BRS are:
(a) cheques issued but not yet presented for payment
(b) cheques deposited into bank but not yet credited
(c) bank charges and interest on loan and overdraft
(d) interest and dividends collected by the bank
(e) dishonour of cheques and bills
(f) amount paid by parties directly into the bank
(g) payment made directly by the bank to others
(h) bills collected by the bank on behalf of its customer

IV. Exercises

Question 1.
From the following particulars prepare a bank reconciliation statement of Jayakumar as on 31^st December, 2016. (3 Marks)
(a) Balance as per cash book ₹ 7,130
(b) Cheque deposited but not cleared ₹ 1,000
(c) A customer has deposited ₹ 800 into the bank directly
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Jayakumar as on 31^st December, 2016

Question 2.
From the following particulars of Kamakshi traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018. (3 Marks)
(a) Debit balance as per cash book ₹ 10,500
(b) Cheque deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 5,500 credited by bank, but entered twice in the cash book
(c) Cheques issued and presented for payment amounting to ₹ 7,000 omitted in the cash book
(d) Cheque book charges debited by the bank ₹ 200 not recorded in the cash book.
(e) Cash of ₹ 1,000 deposited by a customer of the business in cash deposit machine not recorded in the cash book.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Kamakshi as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 3.
From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement to find out the bank statement balance as on 31^st December, 2017. (5 Marks)

Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 4.
On 31^st March, 2017, Anand’s cash book showed a balance of ₹ 1,12,500. Prepare bank reconciliation statement. (5 Marks)
(a) He had issued cheques amounting to ₹ 23,000 on 28.3.2017, of which cheques amounting to ₹ 9,000 have so far been presented for payment.
(b) A cheque for ₹ 6,300 deposited into bank on 27.3.2017, but the bank credited the same only on 5th April 2017.
(c) He had also received a cheque for ₹ 12,000 which, although entered by him in the cash book, was not deposited in the bank.
(d) Wrong credit given by the bank on 30th March 2017 for ₹ 2,000.
(e) On 30th March 2017, a bill already discounted with the bank for ₹ 3,000 was dishonoured, but no entry was made in the cash book.
(f) Interest on debentures of ₹ 700 was received by the bank directly.
(g) Cash sales of ₹ 4,000 wrongly entered in the bank column of the cash book.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Anand as on 31^st March, 2017

Question 5.
From the following particulars of Siva and Company, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017. (2 Marks)
(a) Credit balance as per cash book ₹ 12,000.
(b) A cheque of ₹ 1,200 issued and presented for payment to the bank, wrongly credited in the cash book as ₹ 2,100.
(c) Debit side of bank statement was undercast by ₹ 100.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Siva and Company as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 6.
From the following particulars of Raheem traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018. (3 Marks)
(a) Overdraft as per cash book ₹ 2,500
(b) Debit side of cash book was undercast by ₹ 700
(c) Amount received by bank through RTGS amounting to ₹ 2,00,000, omitted in the cash book.
(d) Two cheques issued for ₹ 1,800 and ₹ 2,000 on 29^th March 2018. Only the second cheque is presented for payment.
(e) Insurance premium on car for ₹ 1,000 paid by the bank as per standing instruction not recorded in the cash book.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Raheem as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 7.
From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017 to find out the balance as per bank statement. (5 Marks)

Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 8.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement from the following data. (5 Marks)

Answer:

Question 9.
From the following particulars of Veera traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017. (2 Marks)
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement ₹ 6,000
(b) Amount received by bank through NEFT for ₹ 3,500, entered twice in the cash book.
(c) Cheque dishonoured amounting to ₹ 2,500, not entered in cash book.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Veera Traders as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 10.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement from the following data and find out the balance as per cash book as on 31^st March, 2018. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 11.
Ascertain the cash book balance from the following particulars as on 31^st December, 2017: (5 Marks)

1. Credit balance as per bank statement ₹ 2,500
2. Bank charges of ₹ 60 have not been entered in the cash book
3. Cheque deposited on 28^th December 2017 for ₹ 1,000 was not yet credited by the bank
4. Cheque issued on 24^th December 2017 for ₹ 700, not yet presented for payment
5. A dividend of ₹ 400 collected by the bank directly but not entered in the cash book
6. A cheque of ₹ 600 had been dishonoured, but no entry was made in the cash book
7. Interest on term loan ₹ 1,200 debited by bank but not accounted in cash book
8. No entry had been made in the cash book for a trade subscription of ₹ 500 paid vide banker’s order on 23^rd December 2014

Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017

Question 12.
From the following particulars of Raja traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st January, 2018. (5 Marks)
(a) Balance as per bank statement ₹ 5,000
(b) Cheques amounting to ₹ 800 had been recorded in the cash book as having been deposited into the bank on 25^th January 2018, but were entered in the bank statement on 2^nd February 2018.
(c) Amount received by bank through NEFT amounting to ₹ 3,000, omitted in the cash book.
(d) Two cheques issued for ₹ 3,000 and ₹ 2,000 on 29^th March 2018. Only the first cheque is presented for payment.
(e) Insurance premium on motor vehicles for ₹ 1,000 paid by the bank as per standing instruction not recorded in the cash book.
(f) Credit side of cash book was undercast by ₹ 700
(g) Subsidy received directly by the bank from the state government amounting to ₹ 10,000, not entered in cash book.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Raja Traders as on 31^st January, 2018

Question 13.
From the following particulars of Simon traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018. (2 Marks)
(a) Debit balance as per bank statement ₹ 2,500
(b) Cheques deposited amounting to ₹ 10,000, not yet credited by bank.
(c) Payment through net banking for ₹ 2,000, omitted in the cash book
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of Simon Traders as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 14.
From the following particulars, ascertain the cash book balance as on 31^st December, 2016.

1. Overdraft balance as per bank statement ₹ 1,26,640 (3 Marks)
2. Interest on overdraft entered in the bank statement, but not yet recorded in cash book ₹ 3,200
3. Bank charges entered in bank statement, but not found in cash book ₹ 600
4. Cheques issued, but not yet presented for payment ₹ 23,360
5. Cheques deposited into the bank but not yet credited ₹ 43,400
6. Interest on investment collected by the bank ₹ 24,000

Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2016

Question 15.
From the following particulars of John traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2018. (5 Marks)
(a) Bank overdraft as per bank statement ₹ 4,000
(b) Cheques amounting to ₹ 2,000 had been recorded in the cash book as having been deposited into the bank on 26^th March 2018, but were entered in the bank statement on 4^th April 2018.
(c) Amount received by bank through cash deposit machine amounting to ₹ 5,000, omitted in the cash book.
(d) Amount of ₹ 3,000 wrongly debited to John traders account by the bank, for which no details are available.
(e) Bills for collection credited by the bank till 29th March 2017 amounting to ₹ 4,000, but no advice received by John traders.
(f) Electricity charges made through net banking for ₹ 900 was wrongly entered in cash column of the cash book instead of bank column.
(g) Cash sales wrongly recorded in the bank column of the cash book for ₹ 4,000.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement of John Traders as on 31^st March, 2018

Question 16.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement from the following data. (3 Marks)

Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement

Question 17.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st March, 2017 from the following extracts of cash book and bank statement.

Bank Statement

Answer:

Question 18.
A trader received his bank statement on 31^st December, 2017 which showed an overdraft balance of ₹ 12,000. On the same day, his cash book showed a debit balance of ₹ 2,000.
Analyse the following transactions. Choose the possible causes and prepare a bank reconciliation statement to show the causes of differences.
(a) Cheque deposited for ₹ 2,000 on 21^st December, 2017. Bank credited the same on 26^th December, 2017.
(b) Cheque issued for payment on 26^th December, 2017 amounting to ₹ 2,500, not yet presented until 31^st, December, 2017.
(c) Bank charges amounting to ₹ 200 not yet entered in the cash book.
(d) Online payment for ₹ 1,500 entered twice in the cash book.
(e) Cheque deposited amounting to ₹ 1,000, but omitted in the cash book. The same cheque was dishonoured by bank, but not yet entered in cash book.
(f) Cheque deposited, not yet credited by bank amounting to ₹ 17,800.
Answer:
Bank reconciliation statement as on 31^st December, 2017

Note: Transactions (a) and (c) have been entered in both cash book and bank statement also. So we need not false in to accounts.

Textbook Case Study Solved

Magesh, an enthusiastic young entrepreneur, started a business on 1^st  December, 2017. He opened a current account with a nationalised bank for his business transaction. In the same bank, he maintains his personal savings bank account too. He did not find time to maintain his cash book. So he appointed a person called Dinesh to take care of bank transactions. But that person was inexperienced.

Question 1.
On 1^st December, 2017, the opening balance as per cash book and bank record was the same. On 2^nd December, Magesh issued a cheque for ₹ 2,000 to a supplier, but the same was entered in the credit side of the cash book as ₹ 200.
Answer:
Credit balance as per bank statement is ₹ 19,700.

Question 2.
On 3^rd, December, Magesh issued his savings bank account cheque for his personal expenses amounting to ₹ 2,500, but Dinesh assumed this as current account cheque and the same was entered in the cash book as drawings.
Answer:
Over casting of debit side of bank column of the cash book is ₹ 1800.

Question 3.
Dinesh was asked to deposit cash of ₹ 1,000 in cash deposit machine in order to make a payment to one of the business’ supplier. He credited the same in the bank column of the cash book.
Answer:
Wrong debit in cash book is ₹ 2,500.

Question 4.
On 15^th December, one of his customers made online payment to Magesh’s current account, amounting to ₹ 1,000. There was no entry in the cash book for this.
Answer:
Wrong credit in cash book is ₹ 1,000.
Instead of personal bank account he can open business bank account (i.e.) current account.

Question 5.
Dinesh received his salary in cash for ₹ 5,000. He credited this amount in the bank column of cash book.
Answer:
Online payment no recorded in cash book is ₹ 1,000.

Question 6.
Bank made payment on 23^rd December, amounting to ₹ 2,500, as per standing instruction. But, there is no entry in the cash book for the same.
Answer:
Wrong credit in the cash book of bank column is ₹ 5,000.

Question 7.
On 31^st, December 2017, Magesh received a bank statement from his bank, which showed a credit balance of ₹ 19,700. He instructed Dinesh to check the statement with the cash book. On comparing both, Dinesh found that the cash book showed a balance of ₹ 14,500. He was puzzled. He needs your help to reconcile the balances.
Answer:
Insurance premium paid but not entered in cash book is ₹ 2,500.
Bank reconciliation cash book as on 31^st December 2017

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Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Economics Chapter 4 Cost and Revenue Analysis Questions and Answers PDF has all given in Chapter Wise Section. Check Out daily basis with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th Economics PDF will help to improve your score. Improve your level of accuracy to answer a question by reading with Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Solutions Questions and Answers PDF.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Cost and Revenue Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

11th Economics Chapter 4 Book Back Answers Multiple Choice Questions

11th Economics Chapter 4 Question 1.
Cost refers to _______
(a) price
(b) value
(c) fixed cost
(d) cost of production
Answer:
(d) cost of production

Cost And Revenue In Economics Class 11 Question 2.
Cost functions are also known as …………………….. function.
(a) Production
(b) Investment
(c) Demand
(d) Consumption
Answer:
(a) Production

Cost And Revenue In Economics Question 3.
Money cost is also known as _______ cost.
(a) explicit
(b) implicit
(c) social
(d) real
Answer:
(a) explicit

Cost And Revenue Analysis Question 4.
Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote ………………… cost.
(a) Social
(b) Economic
(c) Money
(d) Fixed
Answer:
(b) Economic

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Economics Question 5.
Explicit costs are termed as
(a) out of pocket expenses
(b) social cost
(c) real cost
(d) sunk cost
Answer:
(a) out of pocket expenses

Cost And Revenue Analysis In Economics Question 6.
The costs of self – owned resources are termed as ……………………… cost.
(a) Real
(b) Explicit
(c) Money
(d) Implicit
Answer:
(d) Implicit

Cost And Revenue Questions Question 7.
The cost that remains constant at all levels of output is _______ cost.
(a) fixed
(b) variable
(c) real
(d) social
Answer:
(a) fixed

Cost And Revenue Analysis In Economics Pdf Question 8.
Identify the formula for estimating average variable cost.
(a) TC/Q
(b) TVC/Q
(c) TFC/Q
(d) TAC/Q
Answer:
(b) TVC/Q

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Economics Question 9.
The cost incurred by producing one more unit of output is _______ cost.
(a) variable
(b) fixed
(c) marginal
(d) total
Answer:
(c) marginal

Question 10.
The cost that varies with the level of output is termed as …………………. cost.
(a) Money
(b) Variable cost
(c) Total cost
(d) Fixed cost
Answer:
(b) Variable cost

Question 11.
Wage is an example for _______ cost of the production.
(a) fixed
(b) variable
(c) marginal
(d) opportunity
Answer:
(b) variable

Question 12.
The cost per unit of output is denoted by …………………… cost.
(a) Average
(b) Marginal
(c) Variable
(d) Total
Answer:
(a) Average

Question 13.
Identify the formula of estimating average cost.
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 14.
Final total cost where TFC = 100 and TVC = 125.
(a) 125
(b) 175
(c) 225
(d) 325
Answer:
(c) 225

Question 15.
Long-run average cost curve is also called as _______ curve.
(a) demand
(b) planning
(c) production
(d) sales
Answer:
(b) planning

Question 16.
Revenue received from the sale of products is known as …………………….. revenue.
(a) Profit
(b) Total revenue
(c) Average
(d) Marginal
Answer:
(b) Total revenue

Question 17.
Revenue received from the sale of an additional unit is termed as _______ revenue.
(a) profit
(b) average
(c) marginal
(d) total
Answer:
(c) marginal

Question 18.
Marginal revenue is the addition made to the ……………………….
(a) Total sales
(b) Total revenue
(c) Total production
(d) Total cost
Answer:
(b) Total revenue

Question 19.
When price remains constant, AR will be _______ MR.
(a) equal to
(b) greater than
(c) less than
(d) not related to
Answer:
(a) equal to

Question 20.
A bookseller sold 40 books with a price of ₹10 each. The total revenue of the sellers is ₹ …………………….
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400
Answer:
(d) 400

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
Define cost.
Answer:
Cost refers to the total expenses incurred in the production of a commodity.

Question 22.
Define cost function?
Answer:
The functional relationship between cost and output is expressed as ‘Cost Function’.
A Cost Function may be written as
C = f (Q)
Eg: TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12
Where, C = Cost, and Q = quantity of output. Cost functions are derived functions because they are derived from Production Functions.

Question 23.
What do you mean by fixed cost?
Answer:
Fixed cost does not change with the change in the quantity of output. The expenses on fixed factors remain unchanged irrespective of the level of output and these expenses are called fixed cost.

Question 24.
Define Revenue?
Answer:
The amount of money that a producer receives in exchange for the sale of goods is known as revenue. In short, revenue means sales revenue. It is the amount received by a firm from the sale of a given quantity of a commodity at the prevailing price in the market.

Question 25.
Explicit Cost – Define.
Answer:
Explicit cost refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs.

Question 26.
Give the definition for ‘Real Cost’?
Answer:
Real Cost refers to the payment made to compensate for the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production. Real Cost includes the efforts and sacrifices of landlords in the use of land, capitalists to save and invest, and workers in foregoing leisure. Real costs are considered pains and sacrifices of labour as the real cost of production.

Question 27.
What is meant by Sunk cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in the future is called a sunk cost.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
Distinguish between fixed cost and variable cost.
Answer:
Fixed Cost:

1. Does not change with the change in the quantity of output.
2. It is also called as ‘Supplementary cost’ or ‘Overhead cost’.
   (Eg.) Rent of the factory, Permanent worker’s salary.

Variable Cost:

1. These costs vary with the level of output
2. It is also called as ‘Prime cost’, ‘Special cost’ or ‘Direct cost’.
   (Eg.) Cost of raw materials, Temporary worker’s salary.

Question 29.
State the differences between money cost and real cost.
Answer:
Money Cost:

1. It is the total money expenses incurred by a firm in producing a commodity.
2. It includes the cost of raw materials, payments of wages and salaries, rent, interest, etc.,
3. It is also called as prime cost or direct cost or nominal cost.

Real Cost:

1. It refers to the payment made to compensate for the efforts and sacrifices of all factor owners for their services in production.
2. It includes the efforts and sacrifices of factors of production.
3. Landlords effort is the use of land, capitalists to save and invest and workers in foregoing leisure.

Question 30.
Distinguish between explicit cost and implicit cost.
Answer:
Explicit Cost:

1. Payment made to others for the purchase of factors of production.
2. It includes wages, payment for raw material, rent, interest, expenditure on transport and advertisement.
3. It is also called as accounting cost or out of pocket cost or money cost.

Implicit Cost:

1. Payment made to the use of resources that the firm already owns.
2. Cash payment is not made for the use of producer’s own land, building, machinery and other factors of production.
3. Implicit cost is also called as imputed cost or book cost.

Question 31.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example?
Answer:

1. Opportunity cost refers to the cost of the next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
2. For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in farmland.
3. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
4. Opportunity Cost is also called as “Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 32.
Stale the relationship between AC and MC.
Answer:
There is a unique relationship between the AC and MC curves.

1. When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
2. When AC becomes constant, MC also becomes equal to it.
3. When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
4. MC curve always cuts AC at its minimum point from below.

Question 33.
Write a short note on Marginal Revenue?
Answer:

1. Marginal Revenue [MR] is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
2. MR can be found out by dividing change in total revenue by the change in quantity sold out.
3. MR = ∆TR/∆Q where MR denotes Marginal Revenue, ∆TR denotes change in Total Revenue and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.
4. The other method of estimating MR is:

MR = TR_n – TR_n-1, (or) TR_n+1 – TR_n
Where, MR denotes Marginal Revenue,
TR_n denotes total revenue of n^th item,
TR_n-1 denotes Total Revenue of n – 1^th item and
TR_n+1 denotes Total Revenue of n + 1^th item.
If TR = PQ,
MR = dTR/dQ = P, which is equal to AR.

Question 34.
Discuss the Long run cost curves with a suitable diagram.
Answer:
In the long run all factors of production become variable. 1 he existing size of the firm can be increased. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.

LAC = LTC/Q
LAC – Long-run average cost LTC – Long-run total cost
Q – denotes the quantity of output.
The LAC curve is derived from short run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output.
The LAC curve is called as ‘Planning curve’ or ‘Envelope curve’

Part – D
Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
If total cost =10+Q³, find out AC, AVC, TFC, AFC when Q = 5.
Answer:
TC = 10 + Q³
AC = \(\frac { TC }{ Q } \)
AC = \(\frac{10+Q^{3}}{Q}\)
If Q=5, Q = 5 × 5 × 5 = 125
AC = \(\frac { 10 + 125 }{ 5 } \) = \(\frac { 135 }{ 5 } \) = 27

AVC:
TC = 10 + Q³
TC = TFC + TVC
TVC = Q³
AVC = \(\frac { TVC }{ Q } \)
= \(\frac{Q^{3}}{Q} = Q\)²
If Q = 5, then AVC = 5²
AVC = 25

TFC:
TC = 10 + Q³
TC = TFC + TVC
TFC = 10

AFC:
AFC = \(\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)
= \(\frac { 10 }{ 5 } \)
AFC = 2

Question 36.
Discuss the short run cost curves with suitable diagram :
Answer:
1. Total fixed cost: TFC
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as total fixed cost. It does not change with output.

2. Total variable cost: TVC
All payments to the variable factors of production is called as total variable cost. As output increases TVC also increases.

3. Total cost curves: TC
Total cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is the total cost of production.
TC = TFC + TVC.

4. Average fixed cost: AFC
It refers to the fixed cost per unit of output.
AFC = \(\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)

5. Average variable cost: AVC
It refers to the total variable cost per unit of output.
AVC = \(\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)

6. Average cost:
It refers to the total cost per unit of output.
AC = \(\frac { TC }{ Q } \) (or) AC = AFC + AVC

1. ATC curve is also a ‘U’ shaped curve.
2. Initially ATC declines, reaches a minimum and rises beyond the optimum output.
3. The ‘U’ shape of the AC reflects the law of the variable proportions.

Marginal Cost:
Marginal cost is the additional made to the total cost by producer one extra unit of output

Question 37.
Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant. If the firm sells its additional units only by reducing the price then both AR and MR will fall and be different.

Constant AR and MR: (at fixed price)
If price remains constant, MR also remain constant and coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is constant, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be straight line horizontal to X axis.
TR – AR – MR – Constant price

Declining AR and MR: (at declining price)

When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall. But the fall in MR will be more steeper than the fall in the AR and MR lies below AR.

The MR curve divides the distance between AR curve and Y axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear may be concave or convex to the origin

AR,TR,MR declining price

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Cost and Revenue Analysis Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A

Choose the best options

Question 1.
Real Costis ……………………
(a) Pain and sacrifice
(b) Subjective concept
(c) Efforts and foregoing leisure
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Average fixed cost is obtained by _______
(a) TC / Q
(b) TFC / Q
(c) TVC / Q
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) TFC / Q

Question 3.
The Marginal Cost curve is ……………………..
(a) V-shaped
(b) Upward
(c) Downward
(d) U – shaped
Answer:
(d) U – shaped

Question 4.
Total fixed cost + Total variable cost is?
(a) AC-MC
(b) TC-AC
(c) TC
(d) None
Answer:
(c) TC

Question 5.
What is break-even point?
(a) No profit no loss point
(b) No profit
(c) No loss
(d) Profit – point
Answer:
(a) No profit no loss point

Question 6.
Break-Even point is _______
(a) Total cost and total revenue
(b) Average revenue and financial revenue
(c) No profit – no loss point
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) No profit – no loss point

Question 7.
What is the other name for “Opportunity Cost”?
(a) Real Cost
(b) Money Cost
(c) Economic Cost
(d) Social Cost
Answer:
(a) Real Cost

Question 8.
Average variable cost is _______
(a) TFC / Q
(b) TVC / Q
(c) TC / Q
(d) None
Answer:
(b) TVC / Q

Question 9.
…………………….. revenue means price of the product.
(a) Total
(b) Marginal
(c) Profit
(d) Average
Answer:
(d) Average

Question 10.
Cost function is the
(a) Relationship between total cost and output
(b) Relationship between revenue and cost
(c) Relationship between wages and interest d. None of the above
(d) None of this above
Answer:
(a) Relationship between total cost and output

Question 11.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (iii), 4 – (ii)
(b) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (i)
(d) 1 – (iii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 2.

(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 3.

(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(d) 4 3 2 1

Question 4.

(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 4 1 3
Answer:
(b) 2 1 4 3

Choose the correct statement

Question 5.
(a) In the long run, all the factors are fixed
(b) The LAC curve is called an envelope curve.
(c) LAC is equal to the long-run total cost
(d) LAC curve cannot be derived from short-run cost curves
Answer:
(b) The LAC curve is called as an envelope curve.

Question 6.
(a) Revenue means the price of the product.
(b) Marginal revenue is equal to the price of the product.
(c) Revenue means sales revenue d. Average revenue is the total income of the firm.
(d) Average revenue is the total income of the firm
Answer:
(c) Revenue means sales revenue d. Average revenue is the total income of the firm.

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 7.

Answer:
(d) MR is infinity (iv) TR is decreasing

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) ATC  – (1) TC_n – TC_n-1

Analyze the reason for the following

Question 9.
Assertion (A) : If AR remains constant MR is also constant.
Reason (R) : MR is the addition made to the TR by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is true (R) is false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 10.
Assertion (A) : Real cost refers to the payment made to compensate the efforts and sacrifice of all factor owners.
Reason (R) : Adam Smith regarded pain and sacrifice of labour as real cost of production.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 11.
(a) When AC is falling, MC lies below AC.
(b) When AC becomes constant, MC also equal to it.
(c) When AC starts increasing, MC lies above the AC.
(d) MC never cuts AC curve.
Answer:
(d) MC never cuts AC curve.

Question 12.
(a) MR is equal to zero and TR is decreasing
(b) AR and MR curve depends upon the elasticity of AR curve
(c) When price elasticity is greater than one, MR is positive
(d) When price elasticity is less than one, MR is negative
Answer:
(a) MR is equal to zero and TR is decreasing

Choose the odd one out

Question 13.
(a) Money cost
(b) Total variable
(c) Real cost
(d) prime cost
Answer:
(b) Total variable

Question 14.
(a) When P = 3, Q = 8 then TR = 24
(b) When P = Q = 1 then TR = 10
(c) When P = 4, Q = 6 then TR = 27
(d) When P = 5, Q = 7 then TR = 35
Answer:
(c) When P = 4, Q = 6 then TR = 27

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 15.
Economics profit is ______
(a) TR – TC
(b) TC – TR
(c) AC – MC
(d) None
Answer:
(a) TR – TC

Question 16.
Cost function is the ________
(a) Relationship between total cost and output
(b) Relationship between revenue and cost
(c) Relationship between wages and interest
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Relationship between total cost and output

Question 17.
Break – even point is _________
(a) Total cost and total revenue
(b) Average revenue and financial revenue
(c) No profit – No loss point
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) No profit – No loss point

Choose the best option

Question 18.
Average fixed cost is obtained by
(a) TC / Q
(b) TVC / Q
(c) AC / Q
(d) TFC / Q
Answer:
(d) TFC / Q

Question 19.
Long-run average cost curve can also be called as _____
(a) Planning curve
(b) Envelope curve
(c) Boat-shaped curve
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 20.
Total fixed cost + Total variable cost is _____
(a) AC – MC
(b) TC
(c) TC – AC
(d) None
Answer:
(b) TC

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Give the definition for Economic Cost?
Answer:

1. Economic cost refers to all payments made to the resources owned and purchased or hired by the firm in order to ensure their regular supply to the process of production. It is the summation of explicit and implicit costs.
2. Economic Cost is relevant to calculate the normal profit and thereby the economic profit of a firm.

Question 2.
What is the economic cost?
The economic cost is the summation of explicit and implicit costs.

Question 3.
What is the Average Variable Cost?
Answer:
The average variable cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output [Q], AVC = TVC/Q, where AVC denotes Average variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes the quantity of output.

Question 4.
What is a floating cost?
Answer:
Floating cost refers to all expenses that are directly associated with business activities but not with asset creation.

Question 5.
What are variable costs?
Answer:
Variable cost vary with the level of output. It is also called as prime cost, special cost or direct cost.

Question 6.
What is total revenue?
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products.

Question 7.
What is marginal revenue?
Answer:
Marginal revenue is the addition to the total revenue by the sale of an additional unit of a commodity.
MR = TR_n – TR_n-1

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
How can you calculate average fixed cost ?
Answer:
Average fixed cost is the fixed cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output.
AFC = \(\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)
(Eg.) If TFC is 100;
Q = 10 Find AFC
AFC = \(\frac { TFC }{ Q } \)
= \(\frac { 1000 }{ 10 } \)
AFC = 100.

Question 2.
Define the Prime Cost?
Answer:

1. All costs that vary with output, together with the cost of administration are known as Prime Cost.
2. Prime Cost = Variable Costs + Costs of Administration.

Question 3.
Write a note on average revenue.
Answer:
Average revenue is the revenue per unit of the commodity sold. It is calculated by dividing the total revenue (TR) by the number of units sold (Q).
AR = \(\frac { TR }{ Q } \)
If TR = PQ
AR = \(\frac { PQ }{ Q } \) = P
AR = P
AR – Average revenue, TR – Total revenue, Q – quantity of unit sold.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Grammar Degrees of Comparison

A comparison can be made using the three forms of an adjective.
The adjective is a word that describes or qualifies a noun. It gives more information about a noun.
(e.g.) The tiger is a strong animal.

There are three degrees of comparison :

1. Positive (e.g.) Kumar is a kind man.
2. Comparative (e.g.) A tsunami is more destructive than a cyclone.
3. Superlative (e.g.) Mount Everest is the highest peak in the world.

Read The Following Example

The Positive Degree is used to express or describe a quality.
The Positive Degree of an adjective states the characteristic of the noun.
(e.g.) It is a tall building.
(e.g.) Mango is sweet to taste.

The Comparative Degree is used when two things (or two sets of things) are compared.
(e.g.) This building is taller than any other building.
(e.g.) Mango is sweeter than pineapple.

The Superlative Degree is used when more than two things are compared.
(e.g.) This is the tallest building.
(e.g.) Mango is the sweetest fruit.

Examples :
Prabhu is young. (Positive Degree)
Prabhu is younger than Amirtha. (Comparative Degree)
Prabhu is the youngest of all. (Superlative Degree)

Hint-
For adjectives of the multi syllabus we add
MORE (or LESS) for the comparatives and MOST (or LEAST) for the superlatives.

Exercises
(i) Complete the following sentences.
1. She is from her sister.
(a) pretty (b) prettier (c) prettiest
Ans:
(b) prettier

2. Priyaisa girl.
(a) nice (b) nicer (c) nicest
Answer:
(a) nice

3. Supriyaisthe girl in the class.
(a) intelligent (b) more intelligent (c) most intelligent
Answer:
(c) most intelligent

4. Martin speaks English
(a) well (b) better (c)best
Answer:
(a) well

5. Nile is the river in the world.
(a) long (b) longer (c) longest
Answer:
(c) longest

6. India is a country.
(a) big (b) bigger (c) biggest
Answer:
(a) big

7. China is than India.
(a) big (b) bigger (c) biggest
Answer:
(b) bigger

8. This is the book I have ever read.
(a) interesting (b) more interesting (c) most interesting
Answer:
(c) most interesting

9. I am than you.
(a) smart (b) smarter (c) smartest
Answer:
(b) smarter

10. Take the of the two routes.
(a) short (b) shorter (d) shortest
Answer:
(b) shorter

(ii) Complete the following sentences using the correct degree of the adjective given in the brackets.
1. My brother’s handwriting is (bad) mine.
Answer:
worse than

2. Health is wealth, (important)
Answer:
more important than

3. Blood is water, (thick)
Answer:
thicker than

4. Everest is peak in the world, (high)
Answer:
the highest peak

5. This is play I have ever heard on the radio, (interesting)
Answer:
the most interesting

6. Sushila is of all the four sisters, (beautiful)
Answer:
the most beautiful

7. The planet Mars is from the earth than the satellite Moon, (far)
Answer:
farther

8. The elephant is animal in the world, (large)
Answer:
the largest

9. An ocean is certainly a sea. (big)
Answer:
bigger than

10. Iam in cricket than in football, (interested)
Answer:
more interested

(iii) Write the words in your own sentences using any one of the degrees of comparison.
1. famous
Answer:
Mr. Ravi is more famous than his friends. (Comparative degree)

2. happy
Answer:
She is as happy as a lark. (Positive degree)

3. good
Answer:
Mahesh is the best student in the class. (Superlative degree)

4. sincere
Answer:
You should be more sincere in your work. (Comparative degree)

5. strong
Answer:
The lion is the strongest animal in this jungle. (Superlative degree)

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms

English Subject experts who are having max years of experience prepared this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 10th English Vocabulary Synonyms Questions and Answers. They have explained all the topics covered in the board prescribed latest syllabus in a simple way to understand easily. So, students can prepare English from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Questions and Answers PDF. Download the Tamilnadu State Board 10th English Workbook Answers PDF by accessing the below links and learn properly for the final exams to score well.

PART – I

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.
10th English Synonyms Question 1.
Technology has empowered the disabled.
(a) brightened (b) endowed (c) triggered (d)
Answer:
(b) endowed

10th English Synonyms And Antonyms Pdf Question 2.
Technology impacts the environment.
(a) influences (b) imparts (c) impedes (d)
Answer:
(a) influences

10th English Synonyms And Antonyms Pdf Download Question 3.
India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) deviated (b) decomposed (c) rundown (d)
Answer:
(c) rundown

10th Std English Synonyms And Antonyms Question 4.
Consumable products can be self-ordered.
(a) disposable (b) durable (c) challenged (d)
Answer:
(a) disposable

Synonyms 10th Standard Question 5.
Anything which is below a certain threshold can be self-ordered.
(a) floor (b) edge (c) thrift (d)
Answer:
(b) edge

10th Synonyms And Antonyms Question 6.
The voyage was aimed to show case ‘Make in India’ initiative.
(a) intuition (b) inventiveness (c) interrogation (d)
Answer:
(b) inventiveness

10th English Vocabulary Question 7.
NSP was a project undertaken in consonance with the National policy.
(a) agreement (b) alignment (c) arrangement (d)
Answer:
(a) agreement

10th Synonyms Question 8.
The vessel is built indigenously in India.
(a) locally (b) indirectly (c) invisibly (d)
Answer:
(a) locally

10th Standard Synonyms Question 9.
Women were permitted to go out only with an escort.
(d) enigma (b) enemy (c) attendant (d)
Answer:
(c) attendant

Question 10.
INSV Tarini has an array of satellite communication systems.
(a) collection (b) rainbow (c) disorder (d) variety
Answer:
(a) collection

Question 11.
‘Burglars?’ she shouted, intuitively.
(a) intentionally (b) thoughtfully (c) knowingly (d) instinctively
Answer:
(d) instinctively

Question 12.
I gripped his arm.
(a) cut (b) grieved (c) grasped (d) damaged
Answer:
(c) grasped

Question 13.
I suspected next that it was a burglar.
(a) alerted (b) blamed (c) called (d) doubted
Answer:
(d) doubted

Question 14.
Instantly the steps began again.
(a) blatantly (b) callously (c) suddenly (d) definitely
Answer:
(c) suddenly

Question 15.
I could hear a rending of wood.
(a) shredding (b) breaking (c) rubbing (d) rushing
Answer:
(a) shredding

Question 16.
I could see the faint shine of plates on the plate-rail.
(a) tired (b) feeble (c) weary (d)
Answer:
(b) feeble

Question 17.
Tyranny of all sorts may stare at you.
(a) autocracy (b) aristocracy (c) animals
Answer:
(a) autocracy

Question 18.
Grandfather had evidently jumped to a conclusion.
(a) immediately (b) earnestly (c) obviously (d)
Answer:
(c) obviously

Question 19.
Herman rushed to his room and slammed the door.
(a) altered (b) banged (c) sliced (d) dug
Answer:
(b) banged

Question 20.
Herman ventured out of his room.
(a) volunteered (b) venerated (c) visioned (d) vagaries
Answer:
(a) volunteered

Question 21.
Lessons were repeated in unison.
(a) discord (b) harmony (c) usage (d) underway
Answer:
(b) harmony

Question 22.
The birds were chirping at the edge of the woods.
(a) cheating (b) duplicitous (c) tweeting (d) clinging
Answer:
(c) tweeting

Question 23.
Wachter was there with his apprentice.
(a) appearance (b) baggage (c) calmness (d) trainee
Answer:
(d) trainee

Question 24.
The teacher’s great ruler rapped on the table.
(a) tapped (b) sang (c) reigned (d) kept
Answer:
(a) tapped

Question 25.
Hauser had brought an old primer.
(a) prankster (b) textbook (c) guitar (d) machine
Answer:
(b) textbook

Question 26.
T sat in silent dejection.
(a) optimism (b) depression (c) hope (d) delight
Answer:
(b) depression

Question 27.
Holmes groaned.
(a) whispered (b) whined (c) sang in joy (d) grounded
Answer:
(b) whined

Question 28.
It was a contagious disease.
(a) impregnable (,b) crisp (c) cussed (d) spreadable
Answer:
(d) spreadable

Question 29.
His hand twitched.
(a) trembled (b) got crushed (c) shivered (d) suddenly jerked
Answer:
(a) trembled

Question 30.
He was delirious.
(a) relaxed (b) calm (c) composed (d) incoherent
Answer:
(d) incoherent

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Students can Download Social Science Geography Term 3 Chapter 1 Industries Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Industries

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Industries Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Solutions Question 1.
Silk weaving and house hold industries come under the category of ……………
(a) Small scale industry
(b) Large scale industry
(c) Marine based industry
(d) Capital intensive industry
Answer:
(a) Small scale industry

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Question 2.
On the basis of ownership the industry can be divided into ………….. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c)4

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 3.
Amul dairy industry is best example of ………….. sector.
(a) Private Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Co-operative Sector
(d) Joint Sector
Answer:
(c) Co-operative sector

8th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 4.
Iron and Steel and Cement Industries are the examples of ………….. industries.
(a) Agro based
(b) Mineral based
(c) Forest based
(d) Marine based
Answer:
(b) Mineral based

8th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Tertiary activity is divided into ………….. types
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 2

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Banking is a ………….. economic activity.
2. Tertiary activity is divided into ………….. and …………..
3. Government decision making process comes under the ………….. category of tertiary economic activity.
4. Raw material based perspective Cotton Textile industry is a ………….. industry.
5. Capital required for establishing a large scale industry is,more than ……………

Answer:

1. Tertiary
2. Quaternary/Quinary
3. Quinary
4. Agro based
5. one crore

III. Match the following:

1. Judicial sector – Private Sector
2. TV telecasts – Non Geographical factor
3. Geographical factor – Quaternary activity
4. Capital – Raw materials
5. Bajaj Auto – Quinary activity

Answer:

1. Judicial sector — Quinary activity
2. TV telecasts – Quaternary activity
3. Geographical factor – Raw materials
4. Capital – Non Geographical factor
5. Bajaj Auto – Private Sector

IV. Distinguish the following:

8th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 1.
Secondary economic activity and tertiary economic activity.
Answer:
1. Secondary economic activity:

• Secondary activities are those that change raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
• Bakeries that make flour into bread and factories that change metals and plastics into vehicles are examples of secondary activities.

2. Tertiary economic activity:

• Tertiary economic activities are those that provide essential services and support the industries to function. Often it is called service industries.
• It includes the transportation, finance, utilities, education, housing, medical and other services.

8th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Agro based and marine based industries.
Answer:
1. Agro based industries:

• These industries use plant and animal based products as their raw materials.
• Example; Food Processing, Vegetable Oil, Cotton Textile, Dairy Products, etc.

2. Marine based Industries:

• These industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
• Example; Processed Sea Food, Fish Oil manufacturing units etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Guide Question 3.
Large scale industries and small scale industries.
Answer:
1. Large scale industries:

• The capital required for the establishment of an industry is more than one crore the industry is called as large scale industry.
• Iron and steel, Oil refineries, Cement and Textile industries are the best examples for large scale industries.

2. Small scale Industries:

• The capital required for the establishment of an industry is less than one crore, the industry is called as small scale industry.
• Silk weaving and household industries belong to this category.

V. Answer briefly:

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Define industry.
Answer:
Industry is a process by which the raw materials are changed into finished products.

Define Industry Class 8 Question 2.
What is meant by economic activity?
Answer:
Any action that involves in the production, distribution, consumption or services is an economic activity.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Question 3.
Name the major economic activities.
Answer:
The major economic activities are:

• Primary Economic Activities (e.g., Raw cotton production)
• Secondary Economic Activities (e.g., Spinning mill)
• Tertiary Economic Activities (e.g., Trade,Transport)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 4.
What are the secondary economic activities? Give some examples.
Answer:

1. Secondary activities are those that change raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
2. Bakeries that make flour into bread and factories that change metals and plastics into vehicles are examples of secondary activities.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 8th Question 5.
What is Quinary activity? Elucidate with an example.
Answer:

1. Quinary economic activities refer to the high level decision making processes by executives in industries,business, education, and government.
2. This sector include top executives or officials in the fields of science and technology, universities health care etc.
3. In our house, our parents make decisions by themselves in some situations. Similarly, the Council of Ministers take decisions to introduce various people welfare schemes in the state.
4. These two are examples of quinary activities.

Question 6.
Name the factors responsible for the location of industries.
Answer:
The locational factors of industries are grouped into.

1. Geographical factors and
2. Non-Geographical factors

1. Geographical factors include:

• Raw Materials
• Power
• Labour
• Transport
• Storage and Warehousing
• Topography
• Climate and
• Water resources.

2. Non-Geographical factors include:

• Capital
• Availability of loans and
• Government Policies / Regulations.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the following
Answer:

1. Large scale Industries
2. Small scale industries

1. Large scale Industries:
The capital required for the establishment of an industry is more than one crore the industry is called as large scale industry.
Eg : Iron & steel, Oil refineries, Cement and Textile industries etc.

2. Small scale industries:
The capital required for the establishment of an industry is less than one crore, the industry is called small scale industry.
Eg : Silk weaving and household industries.

VI. Write in detail:

Question 1.
Classify and explain the industries based on the source of raw materials.
Answer:
Industries are classified on various bases in the following ways. On the basis of raw materials.
1. Agro Based Industries:

• These industries use plant and animal based products as their raw materials.
• Example; Food Processing, Vegetable Oil, Cotton Textile, Dairy Products, etc.

2. Mineral Based Industries:

• These are the industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials.
• Iron made from iron ore is the product of mineral based industry. Cement,Machine Tools, etc. are the other examples of mineral based industries.

3. Marine Based Industries:

• These industries use products from the sea and oceans as raw materials.
• Example; Processed Sea Food, Fish Oil manufacturing units etc.

4. Forest Based Industries:

• These industries use forest products as their raw materials.
• Example; Pulp and Paper, Furniture and Some Pharmaceuticals industries, etc.

Question 2.
Explain the Geographical factors which affect the location of industries?
Answer:
Geographical factors which affect the location of industries are:
1. Raw materials:
Industries like iron and steel and sugar industries are located near the place of availability of iron ore and sugar cane respectively.

2. Power:
Power is base and essential to run the entire industry. Power is mostly generated from the conventional sources like coal, mineral oil, and water.

3. Labour:
Availability of cheap and skilled labour is another important requirement.

4. Transport:
It is needed for transporting raw materials to the industries and also for sending the finished products to the market. Availability of easy transportation always influences the location of an industry.

5. Storage and Warehousing:
Finished products should be stored at suitable storage or warehouse.

6. Topography:
The site that is selected for the establishment of an industry must be flat.

7. Climate:
Extreme climate condition is not suitable for the successful industrial growth. Cool- humid climate is ideal for cotton textile industry. Hence Coimbatore and Tiruppur are important for Cotton Textile Industries.

8. Water Resources:
Availability of water is another important factor that influences the industrial location.

Question 3.
Classify the industries through a flow chart.
Answer:

VII. Hot:

Question 1.
Find out the reasons for uneven distribution of industries in India.
Answer:

1. The distribution of Industries in India is highly uneven.
2. This is so partly on account of uneven distribution of the necessary raw materials and power resources.
3. And partly due to the contributes of enterprises, financial resources and other necessary condition in large towns.
4. Where there is good transport system, the industries flourish.
5. India’s regional growth performance has been particularly uneven.
6. Jharkhar|d, Orissa, Chattisgarh, Parts of Rajasthan, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu account for most of the reserves of metallic minerals. These are located particularly in north eastern part of Peninsula.
7. Agro based industries including Cotton, Jute and Sugar are heavily concentrated in the raw material producing areas.
8. The coastal belt of Kerala has a heavy concentration of coir, copra and fish carrying industries.

Samacheer Kalvi 8thSocial Science Geography Industries Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Trade and Transport come under activities.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Tertiary

Question 2.
Information Industries belong to.
(a) Secondary activity
(b) Primary activity
(c) Quaternary activity
(d) Quinary activity
Answer:
(c) Quaternary activity

Question 3.
The backbone of the Indian economy is –
(a) Primary Sectors
(b) Service Sector
(c) Secondary Sector
(d) Name of the above
Answer:
(b) Service Sector

Question 4.
The locational factors of Industries are grouped into –
(a) Geographical factors
(b) Non – graphicaIfactors
(c) both a and b
(d) neither a nor b
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 5.
Cement is based industry.
(a) Agro
(b) Mineral
(c) Marine
(d) Forest
Answer:
(b) Mineral

Question 6.
In India is known as Detroit of India.
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkatta
(d) Chennai
Answer:
(d) Chennai

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Industry is a place of process by which the ………. are changed into products.
2. The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of ………. industries.
3. Quarrying in a ………. economic activity.
4. Education comes under ………. economic activity.
5. Industrial locations are ………. in nature.
6. Some Pharmaceutical industries come under ………. industries.
7. The industry owned and operated by an individual belongs to ………. sector.

Answer:

1. raw materials, finished
2. manufacturing
3. primary
4. Tertiary
5. complex
6. Forest based
7. private

III. Match the following:

1. Sugarcane – a) Cotton Textile Industry
2. Tea Industry – b) Require plenty of water
3. Cool humid Climate – c) Marine based Industry
4. Chemical industries – d) Raw material
5. Processed Sea food – e) Labour Intensive

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

IV. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Mineral, based industries and Forest Based Industries.
Answer:
1. Mineral based industries:

• These are the industries that use mineral ores as their raw materials.
• Eg; Iron made from iron ore, Cement Industry Machine Tools industry etc.

2. Forest based Industries:

• These industries use forest products as their raw materials.
• Eg; Pulp and Paper Industry, Furniture and Some Pharmaceuticals industries, etc.

Question 2.
Primary Economic Activity and Secondary Economic Activity.
Answer:
1. Primary Economic Activity:

• These are the economic activities which have been originated in the very beginning.
• It includes the activities such as, forestry, grazing, hunting, food gathering, fishing, agriculture, mining, and quarrying.

2. Secondary Economic Activity:

• These secondary activities are those that change raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
• Bakeries that make flour into bread and factories that change metals and plastics into vehicles.

Question 3.
Quaternary Economic Activity and Quinary Economic Activity.
Answer:
1. Quaternary Economic Activity:

• Quaternary economic activities are associated with the creation and transfer of information, including research and training. Often called information industries.
• This level has been dramatic growth as a result of advancements in technology and electronic display and transmission of information, e.g., Television.

2. Quinary Economic Activity:

• Quinary economic activities refer to the high level decision making processes by executives in industries, business, education, and government.
• This sector include top executives or officials in the fields of science and technology, universities, health care etc.

Question 4.
Private Sector Industries and Public Sector Industries.
Answer:
1. Private Sector Industries

• These type of industries are owned and operated by individuals or a group of individuals.
• Eg : Bajaj Auto, Reliance, etc.

2. Public Sector Industries:

• These type of industries are owned and operated by the Government.
• Eg: Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd (HAL), Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd (BHEL) etc.

Question 6.
Joint Sector Industries and Co-operative Sector Industries.
Answer:
1. Joint Sector Industries:

• These types of industries are owned and operated jointly by the Government and Individuals or a group of individuals.
• Eg : Indian Oil Sky Tanking Ltd, Indian Synthetic Rubber Ltd, etc.

2. Co-operative Sector Industries:

• Industries of this kind are owned and operated by the producers or suppliers of raw materials Or workers or both.
• Eg: Anand Milk Union Limited (AMUL) is the best example of the Co-operative sector.

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
State the importance of the Service Sector.
Answer:
Importance of the Service Sector:

1. Service Sector is one of the largest sectors of India.
2. Currently this sector is the backbone of the Indian economy.
3. It contributes around 53% of the Indian Gross Domestic Product.

Question 2.
Explain about the availability of loans as a non geographical factor.
Answer:

1. In most cases, it is not possible to start an industry with enough capital in hand.
2. So the investors seek loan to start the industries.
3. Thus, the organizational set up which provides loan and insurance are required.

Question 3.
Why is Chennai known as Detroit of Indias?

1. Detroit city in Michigan State, USA is known as the world’s traditional automotive centre.
2. In India, Chennai is known as‘Detroit of India.
3. It has the world famous automobile industries such as GM, Ford, Hyundai and Mahindra.
4. The city accounts for 60% of the country’s automotive exports.

VI. Write in detail :

Question 1.
Explain the basic economic activities.
1. Primary economic activity :

• These are the economic activities which have been originated in the very beginning.
• It includes the activities such as, forestry, grazing, hunting, food gathering, fishing, agriculture, mining, and quarrying.

2. Secondary economic activity :

• Secondary activities are those that change raw materials into usable products through processing and manufacturing.
• Bakeries that make flour into bread and factories that change metals and plastics into vehicles are examples of secondary activities.

3. Tertiary economic activity :

• Tertiary economic activities are those that provide essential serv ices and support the industries to function.
• Often it is called service industries, which includes transportation, finance, utilities, education etc. Tertiary activity is further sub divided into Quaternary and Quinary activities.
• Quaternary activities are associated with the creation and transfer of information, including research and training.
• Quinary activity refer to the high level decision making processes by executives in industries, business, education, and government.