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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Water

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 1.
Around 97% of water available on earth is _______ water.
(a) fresh
(b) pure
(c) Salty
(d) polluted
Answer:
(c) Salty

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Which of the following is not a part of water cycle?
a. evaporation
b. condensation
c. rain
d. distillation

Science Term 3 Question 3.
Which of the following processes add water vapour to the atmosphere?
i. Transpiration
ii. Precipitation
iii. Condensation
iv. Evaporation
(a) ii and iii
(b) ii and iv
(c) i and iv
(d) i and ii
Answer:
(c) i and iv

6th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science 3rd Term Question 4.
About 30% of the freshwater is found in?
a. glaciers
b. groundwater
c. other sources of water
d. 0.3%
Answer:
b. groundwater

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Science Third Term Question 5.
Using R.O. plant at home eliminates a lot of non-potable water. The best way to effectively use the expelled water of R.O. plant is _______
(a) make the expelled water go and seep near the bore well
(b) use it for watering plants
(c) to drink the expelled water after boiling and cooling
(d) to use for cooking as the water is full of many nutrients
Answer:
(b) use it for watering plants

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Only _______ percent of natural water is available for human consumption.
2. The process of changing water into its vapour is called _______
3. _______ is built on rivers to regulate water flow and distribute water.
4. Water levels in rivers increase greatly during _______
5. Water cycle is also called as _______

Answer:

1. 0.3
2. Evaporation
3. Dam
4. Raining
5. Hydrological cycle

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 1.
Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is unfit for use by human beings.
Answer:
False. Water present in rivers, lakes and ponds is fit for use by human beings.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 3 Question 2.
Seas are formed when the water table meets the land surface.
Answer:
False. Ponds are formed when the water table meets the land surface.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Term 3 Question 3.
The evaporation of water takes place only in sunlight.
Answer:
True.

6th Science Term 3 Question 4.
Condensation results in the formation of dew on grass.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Question 5.
Sea water can be used for irrigation as such.
Answer:
False. Sea water cannot be used for irrigation as such.

IV. Match the following :

Answer:

V. Arrange the following statements in the correct sequence :

1. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
2. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
3. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
4. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.
5. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
8. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.

Answer:

1. The heat of the sun causes evaporation of water from the surface of the earth, oceans, lakes, rivers and other water bodies.
2. Water vapour is also continuously added to the atmosphere through transpiration from the surface of the leaves of trees.
3. Higher up in the atmosphere, the air is cool.
4. These vapours condense to form tiny droplets of water.
5. These droplets floating in the air along with the dust particles form clouds.
6. Warm air carrying clouds rises up.
7. The water droplets come together to form large water droplets.
8. The large water droplets become heavy and the air cannot hold them, therefore, they fall as rains.

VI. Analogy:

6th Standard Science Water Lesson Question 1.
Population explosion : Water scarcity :: Recycle : __________
Answer:
Water Management.

6th Science Water Question 2.
Ground water : __________ :: Surface water : lakes
Answer:
Tube wells

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Name four different sources of water.
Answer:
Rivers, wells, lakes, glaciers, ponds etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Science Question 2.
How do people in cities and rural areas get water for various purposes?
Answer:
In city, people get water from water tanks, hand pipes and bore wells.
In rural area, people get water from wells, canals, ponds and rivers.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Take out of cooled bottle of water from refrigerator and keep it on a table. After some time you notice a puddle of water around it. Why?
Answer:
The cooled surface of bottle cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses. So after some time a puddle of water can be noticed around the bottle.

Water Lesson 6th Standard Question 4.
We could see clouds almost every day. Why doesn’t it rain daily?
Answer:

1. The millions of tiny droplets do not collide with another to form larger droplets.
2. The air around the clouds is not cool.

Question 5.
Name the places where water is found as ice.
Answer:
Polar ice-caps, Ice sheets and glaciers in Artie region arid Antarctica.

Question 6.
How do aquatic animals manage to live in Arctic and Antarctic Circle?
Answer:
In Arctic and Antarctic circle, water in lakes and ponds will be frozen and a solid layer of ice is formed on the surface of water. Still aquatic animals living under the ice do not die. This is because the floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat and does not permit heat to escape from water. So as the surface water alone turns to ice, the aquatic animals manage it.

Question 7.
What are the types of rainwater harvesting?
Answer:
There are two types of rainwater harvesting.

1. Collecting water from where it falls.
2. Collecting rainwater by constructing bunds.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Differentiate between surface water and groundwater.
Answer:
Surface water:

1. Water present on the surface of the earth.
2. Ex : River, lake, ponds, streams or freshwater.

Groundwater:

1. Water present beneath earth’s surface in soil.
2. Ex : open wells, tube wells (or) hand pumps, Spings etc.

Question 2.
Write a few slogans of your own on the topic “Save Water”?
Answer:

1. “To a thirsty man, a drop of water is worth more than a sack of gold”.
2. “Water covers 2/3 of the surface of the earth. But only 0.002% is drinkable. Save water”
3. “Save water to secure your future”
4. “Don’t make nature cry, keep your water clean”
5. “Store water for dry days”.

Question 3.
About 71% of earth’s surface is covered with water, then why do we face scarcity of water?
Answer:
About 71% of the earth’s surface is covered with water and even then we face scarcity of water. Reasons:

1. 97% of total water is found in seas and oceans, which is salty and not fit for human consumption.
2. Only 3% found is the freshwater and that too available in polar ice caps and glaciers.
3. Out of 3% fresh water, only 0.3% is available to us as surface water, in lakes, rivers, and swamps.

Question 4.
Give a reason for the following statement – Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
Answer:

1. Sewage should not be disposed of in rivers or oceans before treatment.
2. If we dispose of sewage before treatment the rivers and oceans will be polluted.
3. Aquatic animals and species will die due to pollution.
4. We can not use the river water for our day to day life.

Question 5.
The freshwater available on earth is only 3%. We cannot increase the amount of water. In that case, how can sustain the water level?
Answer:

1. The sewage water treatment is to be adopted.
2. Decrease the usage of pesticides, insecticides, and fertilizers in agriculture.
3. Protect forest and trees.
4. Adopt drip irrigation and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.
5. Rainwater harvesting should be implemented in every building.
6. Create awareness about the impact of throwing wastes into the water bodies.

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What is potable water? List down its characteristics?
Answer:

1. Potable water is the water which is safe to drink.
2. On average the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.

Characteristics of potable water :

1. Cleaned of harmful contaminants.
2. It is transparent.
3. It is odourless and colourless.
4. It is harmless or free from disease-causing bacteria.

Question 2.
Who is known as Waterman of India? Browse the net and find the details about the award, the Waterman received for water management. State the findings by drafting a report.
Answer:
The ‘Waterman of India’ is Dr. Rajendra Singh. He is a well-known water conservationist and environmentalist from Alwar district, Rajasthan.

Awards:

1. He get Ramon Magasaysay award for community leadership in 2001.
2. In 2005, he got Jamnalal Bajaj award for Science and Technology for rural development.
3. In 2008, The Guardian, named him amongst its list of 50 people who could save the planet.
4. In 2015, he won Stockholm Water Prize. He runs an NGO called ‘Tarun Bharat Sangh’ (TBS), which was founded in 1975.
5. In 2016, he was bestowed with Ahimsa Award by Institute of Jainology based in UK.

Question 3.
What is rainwater harvesting? Explain in a few sentences how it can be used in houses.
Answer:

1. Direct collection and use of rain water is called rainwater harvesting.
2. The system is easy to install, operate and maintain for all types of houses.
3. Excellent and valuable source of water in emergencies.
4. Reduces rainwater runoff and solve drainage problems in houses.
5. Ideal solution for inadequacy of water.
6. Increase groundwater level.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
When there is no pond or lake in an area, will there be the formation of clouds possible in that area?
Answer:
Yes, the formation of clouds is possible at that area because plants also release water vapour by transpiration process. This water vapour will form clouds.

Question 2.
To clean the spectacles, people often breathe out on glasses to make them wet. Explain why do the glasses become wet.
Answer:
When we breathe out, the hot air comes out from our mouth which get condensed and changed into tiny water droplets and glasses become wet.

XI. Crossword :

DOWN:
1. A method of water conservation.
2. Process of getting water vapour from sea water.
6. Water stored in dams is used for generation of _____
ACROSS
3. _______ is a large body of non-potable water found in nature.
4. In summer, the body loses water as _______
5. Plants undergo _______ and contribute to water cycle.

Answer:
Down:
1. Recycling
2. Evaporation
6. Electricity

Across:
3. Ocean
4. Sweat
5. Transpiration

XI.

Question 1.
Observe the given graph carefully and answer the questions.

a. What percentage of water is seen in fish?
b. Name the food item that has maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Name the food item that has minimum amount of water in its content.
d. Human body consists of about _________ percentage of water.
e. Specify the food item that can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.
Answer:
a. 70% of water is seen in fish.
b. Watermelon has maximum amount of water in its content.
c. Fish has minimum amount of water in its content.
d. 60%.
e. Watermelon is the food item which can be consumed by a person when he/she is suffering from dehydration.

Question 2.
Look at the map of Tamilnadu showing annual rainfall and answer the questions given below.

a. Identify the districts that get only low annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
b. Identify the districts that get a medium annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
c. State the districts that enjoy high annual rainfall in Tamilnadu.
Answer:
a. Dharmapuri, Erode, Karur, Trichy, Perambalur, Tanjore, Pudukottai, Dindugul, Madurai, Sivagangai, Ramanathapuram.
b. Thiruvallur, Chennai, Kanchipuram, Vellore, Krishnagiri, Thiruvannamalai, Salem, Namakkal, Vizhupuram, Ariyalur, Thiruvarur, Thiruppur, Virudunagar, Tuticorin.
c. Cuddalore, Nagappatinam, Nilgiri, Coimbatore, Theni, Thirunelveli, Kanyakumari.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Intext Activities

Activity 1

Relative amount of water at various sources

Take a 20 litre bucket, a 500 ml mug, a 150 ml tumbler and a 1 ml spoon. If the capacity of the bucket is 20 litre, then it represents the total amount of water present on the Earth.

Now, transfer a mug of water from the bucket and it is 500 ml and then it represents the total amount of fresh water present in the Earth. The water left in the bucket represents seas and oceans. This water is not fit for human use.

The water present in the mug represents the freshwater which is present in frozen form on snow-covered mountains, glaciers and polar ice caps. This water is also not readily available for human use. Next, transfer 150 ml of water to the tumbler, then it represents the total amount of ground water. Finally, take one-fourth spoonful of water while the capacity of the spoon is 1 ml, then it represents the total amount of surface water (i.e) water seen in all the rivers, lakes and ponds of the world. It can be taken as potable water.

When such a small amount of potable water is available, then we should be more cautious in handling water. Is it not?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2
Conduct the activity with common salt, sand, chalk powder, charcoal powder and copper sulphate.

Fill up the following table.

From the above activity, we could observe that common salt and copper sulphate dissolve in water and contribute their properties like colour and other properties to water but sand, chalk powder and charcoal powder do not dissolve in water.
Answer:

Activity 3

Water contains dissolved salts

Take some tap water in a china dish and heat it. Continue heating till all the water gets dried up. Stop the heating and look at the china dish. What do you observe inside the china dish?

Deposits of some solid particles on the surface of china dish can be observed. The deposit is of salts that are dissloved in water. This shows that water has dissolved salts in it.

Note : Do not use distilled water or water from purifier or RO unit and the like for this activity.

Activity 4
Spread a piece of wet cloth in the sunlight. Observe after some time. Where has the water in the wet cloth gone?

The water evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun.

Activity 5

Condensation of water vapour

Take a glass half filled with water. Wipe the outer surface of the glass with a clean piece of cloth. Add some ice into the water. Wait for one or two minutes. Observe the changes that take place on the outer surface of the glass.

From where do water drops appear on the outer side of the glass?

The cold surface of the glass containing icy water cools the air around it and the water vapour of the air condenses on the surface of the glass. This process is also the result of condensation of water vapour.

Activity 6

Estimation of water consumed by a family on a day

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Water Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
_______ form of water is present in mountain and polar region.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gaseous
(d) All these
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 2.
The melting point of Ice is ……….
(a) 100°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 0.100°C
(d) 10°C
Answer:
(b) 0°C

Question 3.
_______ water contains 0.05% to 1% of salts.
(a) Brackish
(b) Fresh
(c) Sea
(d) Sewage
Answer:
(b) Fresh

Question 4.
The human body requires ………. litres of water per day for proper functioning.
(a) 2 – 3 litres
(b) 3 – 4 litres
(c) 4 – 5 litres
(d) 1 – 2 litres
Answer:
(b) 3 – 4 litres

Question 5.
In plants, the loss of water in the form of vapour from the aerial parts through _______
(a) Root
(b) Shoot
(c) Stomatal Pores
(d) Fruit
Ans:
(c) Stomatal Pores

Question 6.
_______ water is obtained through open wells, tube wells or hand pumps, springs.
(a) Surface
(b) Frozen
(c) Saline
(d) Ground
Ans:
(d) Ground

Question 7.
_______ of Asia’s largest rivers flow from the Himalayas.
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 11
(d) 15
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 8.
Volume of liquid is measured by _______
(a) Gallon
(b) Litre
(c) Cusec
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 9.
_______ forests are found in pichavaram near Chidambaram
(a) Green
(b) Grass lands
(c) Mangrove
(d) Estuaries
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. _______ plays a vital role in the evolution and survival of life.
2. _______ is present in the air around us.
3. In the distribution of total 0.3% of surface water, _______ have 87% surface water.
4. The molecular formula of water is _______
5. The oceanic volcanoes which are present inside also add _______ to the sea.
6. Every year _______ is observed as the world water day.
7. The water vapour gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form _______ in the sky.
8. A larger portion of water is _______ % of the total available fresh water in frozen state.
9. Water level in the reservoirs is measured in _______
10. Adoption of _______ and irrigation in agriculture.

Answers:

1. Water
2. Vapour
3. Lakes
4. H₂O
5. Salt
6. March 22nd
7. Clouds
8. 68.7
9. Cubic feet per second (cusecs)
10. Drip, Sprinkler

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Mountains helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.
Answer:
False. Water helps to regulate the temperature of our earth.

Question 2.
Solid form of water is present in underground.
Answer:
False. Liquid form of water is present in underground.

Question 3.
Water while passing through layers of soil dissolves salt and minerals to a maximum extent.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Water freeze at 100° Celsius at normal pressure.
Answer:
False. Water freeze at 0° celsius at normal pressure.

Question 5.
When the air around the clouds is cool, these drops of water fall in the form of snow or rain.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Direct collection and use of rain water is called rain water harvesting.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Estuaries are harmful to unique plants and animal species.
Answer:
False. Estuaries are home to unique plants and animal species.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Ice berg : Solid form :: Water vapour : _______
Answer:
Gaseous form.

Question 2.
Contain more than 3% of salt: _______ :: upto 3% of salt dissolved : Brackish water.
Answer:
Sea water.

Question 3.
Water bodies meet the sea : Estuaries :: Wet lands : _______
Answer:
Swamps.

Question 4.
Napier Bridge area : _______ :: Pallikkaranai: Wet land.
Answer:
Estuaries.

V. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Give the uses of water.
Answer:
Cooking food, washing cloths, cleaning utensils, bathing, agricultural etc.

Question 2.
What are the three forms of water?
Answer:
Water is available in solid, liquid and vapour forms.

Question 3.
Which places have fresh water?
Answer:
Ponds, pools, rivers, tube wells have fresh water.

Question 4.
How is 3% of fresh water distributed?
Answer:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Groundwater – 30.1%
Another source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%

Question 5.
Define – Saline water.
Answer:
Water with a large amount of dissolved solids is not potable or suitable for drinking. Such water is called saline water.

Question 6.
How water is classified based on its salinity?
Answer:
Based on salinity, water is classified into three main categories. Such as Fresh water, Brackish water and Sea water.

Question 7.
What are the salts dissolved in sea water?
Answer:
The salts are dissolved in sea water are sodium chloride, magnesium chloride and calcium chloride.

Question 8.
Define – Water cycle.
Answer:
The water on the earth evaporates into the atmosphere due to the heat of the sun. The water vapour in the atmosphere forms clouds. From the clouds, water falls on the earth in the form of rain or snow. By this natural process, water gets renewed. This is called water cycle.

Question 9.
What is Condensation?
Answer:
Water vapour which enters into the atmosphere by evaporation moves upward with air, gets cooled and changes into tiny water droplets that form clouds in the sky. This process is known as condensation.

Question 10.
What is transpiration?
Answer:
It is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of a plant in vapour form. This is called transpriation.

Question 11.
What is frozen water?
Answer:
Water that is present in the frozen form as polar ice caps and glaciers are called frozen water. A large portion of water is 68.7% of the total available fresh water is in frozen state.

Question 12.
Define – Scarcity of water.
Answer:
There is no change in.the total quantity of water available on the earth. It remains the same. But the water useful for plants, animals and man is decreasing day by day. It is called Scarcity of water.

Question 13.
List the wet lands in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

1. Pichavaram Mangroves near Chidambaram.
2. Muthupet Mangrove wet-land.
3. Pallikkaranai wet-land in Chennai.
4. Chembarambakkam in Kancheepuram are a few examples of swamps in Tamilnadu.

Question 14.
What is meant by conservation of water?
Answer:
Saving water for the future generations by using water carefully and in a limited way is conservation of water.

VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Draw and describe the total water on earth by pie chart.
Answer:
If the total water on earth be 100%, let’s see what percent would be the availability of fresh water. Look at the pie chart given below
From the pie chart, it can also be noted that 97% water is saline water. Only 3% found is the freshwater and that too in polar ice caps and glaciers. So this portion of water is not readily available for drinking.

The distribution of the totally available (3%) freshwater is as follows:
Polar ice caps and glaciers – 68.7%
Ground water – 30.1 %
Other source of water – 0.9%
Surface water – 0.3%
The distribution of total 0.3% of surface water is as follows:
Lakes – 87%
Rivers – 2%
Swamps – 11%
Thus the above pie chart explains that we have a very small amount of fresh water available for human usuage and so maintaining the water table and the conservation of water is very essential.

Question 2.
What are the methods of water conservation? Explain?
Answer:
1. Water management :

• Bringing awareness to the people.
• Recycling water by separating pollutants.
• Minimize the use of fertilizers.
• Controlling deforestation.
• Adopt drip and sprinkler irrigation in agriculture.

2. Rainwater harvesting:

• Collecting water from where it falls:
• Collecting water from the roof tops.
• Collecting flowing rain water :
• Collecting rain water by constructing dams.

Question 3.
Give the importance of water.
Answer:
The importance of water:

1. Our body uses water in all its cells, organs and tissues to help regulate its temperature and maintain other bodily functions.
2. On an average, the human body requires 2-3 litres of water per day for proper functioning.
3. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of toxins from the body.
4. Water is used in the domestic activities like cooking, bathing, washing clothes, washing utensils, keeping houses and common places clean, watering plants, etc.
5. It is also essential for the healthy growth of farm crops and farm stock and is used in the manufacture of many products.
6. Industry depends on water at all levels of production.

Question 4.
Describe water distribution and treatment system through flow chart.
Answer:

Question 5.
What are the reasons for scarcity of water?
Answer:
The main reasons for scarcity of water are:

1. Population explosion.
2. Uneven distribution of rainfall.
3. Decline of ground watertable.
4. Pollution of water.
5. Careless use of water.

Students can Download English Lesson 3 I Dream of Spices Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 3 I Dream of Spices

I Dream Of Spices Poem Overview

I Dream Of Spices Questions And Answers Glossary

cinnamon – the bark of a tree that gives a delicious flavour to food
garlic – a small bulb with a strong taste used in cooking
rattle off – recite
sesame seeds – gingelly seeds
ouch – sound that expresses pain

Read and Understand

A. Answer the following questions.

I Dream Of Spices Poem Summary Question 1.
Who is Raj?
Answer:
Raj is a little boy.

Dream Of Spices Question 2.
Where did Raj’s mother send him?
Answer:
Raj’s mother sent him to a shop.

I Dream Of Spices Poem Question 3.
Who is Muthu?
Answer:
Muthu is the owner of a shop.

I Dream Of Spices Mind Map Question 4.
What did mother ask Raj to buy?
Answer:
His mother asked him to buy some cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th English Question 5.
What did Raj buy?
Answer:
Raj bought sesame seeds,onions, tomatoes and pickles.

B. Choose the correct answers.

1. Mother called _______
(a) Muthu
(b) Raj
(c) Ram
Answer:
(b) Raj

2. Mother did not ask for _______
(a) cinnamon
(b) cardamom
(c) betel leaves
Answer:
(b) cardamom

Spices Poem Question 3.
Raj did not buy _______
(a) onions and sesame
(b) ginger and garlic
(c) tomato and pickles
Answer:
(b) ginger and garlic

Dream About Spices Appreciating The Poem

C Find an example of alliteration in the poem.

sesame – seeds
what – want
ginger – garlic

D. Listen to the poem read by your teacher.

Read the poem aloud in pairs. One person reads out Raj’s words and the other reads the mother’s. Take turns and read.
(To be done by the students)

E. Tell the stoiy of the poem In three or four sentences with the help of the pictures given below.

Answer:

• Mother asks her son to go to shop and buy a few items.
• The boy goes to shop and buys different items.
• He returns home.
• Mother sees the items & punishes him.

Writing

F. Read the jumbled lines from the poem and rearrange them in correct order.

Answer:
4. My mother would say:
6. “Little boy Raj…
3. Go to Muthu’s
5. and get some
1. cinnamon, betel leaves
2. and ginger and garlic.”
7. And so I go to the shops
8. singing all the way
13. and when Muthu asks me
12. what I’d want
11. I rattle off a list:
10. “Sesame seeds, onions
9. tomatoes and pickles”
15. And back home,
14. My mother twists my ears
16. Ouch!

G. Fill in the blanks with different words and write, your own poem.

Your Title for the poem : Me and Mani!
My mom would say :
“Little boy / girl Mano
Go to Mani’s
and get some
Tomato, Brinjai
Carrot and Onion”
And so I go to the Mani’s
singing all the way
and when Mani asks me
what I want
I rattle off a list:
“Biscuit, Candies
Cakes and Wafers”
And back home,
My mom twists my ears
Ouch!

I Dream of Spices Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension.

1. My mother would say:
“Little boy Raj….
Go to Muthu s

Question a.
Who would say to go to shop?
Answer:
Raj’s mother.

Question b.
How does she call Raj?
Answer:
Little boy

2. get some
cinnamon, betel leaves
and ginger and garlic. ”

Question a.
Where will he get the items?
Answer:
Muthu’s shop.

Question b.
What should he buy?
Answer:
Cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger, garlic.

3. And so I go to the shops
singing all the way

Question a.
Who goes to shops?
Answer:
Raj goes to shops.

Question b.
How does he go?
Answer:
He goes singing all the way.

4. when Muthu asks me
what I’d want
I rattle off a list:
“Sesame seeds, onions
tomatoes and pickles ’’

Question a.
What does Muthu ask?
Answer:
Muthu asks Raj what he would want.

Question b.
List the things he will buy?
Answer:
Sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles.

5. And back home,
Mother twists my ears
Ouch!

Question a.
What does mother do?
Answer:
Mother twists Raj’s ears.

Question b.
Why does she do so?
Answer:
He forgot the list of items told by her.

II. Poetic Devices.

1. And back home
Mother twists my ears.

What Is the poetic devise used in the second line?
Answer:
Alliteration – Mother – my

2. Cinnamom, beetal leaves
and ginger and garlic

Pick out the Alliteration.
Answer:
Alliterati on – ginger – garlic.

III. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Describe Raj’s experience in helping his mom at shopping?
Answer:
This is a simple and interesting poem by Raj Arumugam on a little boy’s memory while shopping for his Mom. One-day when Raj’s Mom asks him to buy cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic but Raj bought sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles. He gets lovingly punished by his Mom.

Question 2.
How did Raju react when his mother asked him to buy a list of items?
Answer:
Raju’s mother called him and gave him a list of items to be bought from Muthu’s shop. She told him to get some cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic. But, being a little boy, he goes to the shop, singing happily all the way. When the shop owner asks him what does he want, he forgets what his mother had told him to buy and recites different items like sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles. When he gets back home, his mother gets angry and twists his ears due to his poor memory.

I Dream of Spices Summary

This is a simple and interesting poem by Raj Arumugam on a little boy’s memory while shopping for his Mom. One-day when Raj’s Mom asks him to buy cinnamon, betel leaves, ginger and garlic but Raj bought sesame seeds, onions, tomatoes and pickles. He gets lovingly punished by his Mom.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Solutions Chapter 15 Carbon and its Compounds

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Carbon and its Compounds Textbook Exercises

I. Choose the correct answer.

Chapter 15 Carbon And Its Compounds Question 1.
A phenomenon in which an element exists in different modification in same physical state is called ……………….
(a) isomerism
(b) allotropy
(c) catenation
(d) crystallinity
Answer:
(b) allotropy

Carbon And Its Compounds 9th Class Question 2.
Number of free electron(s) in each carbon of graphite is ………………….
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 9 Samacheer Question 3.
Carbon forms large number of organic compounds due to ………………………
(a) Allotropy
(b) Isomerism
(c) Tetravalency
(d) Catenation
Answer:
(a) Allotropy

9th Science Carbon And Its Compounds Question 4.
Which of the following does not contain double bond?
(a) CO₂
(b) C₂H₄
(C) HCl
(d) O₂
Answer:
(C) HCl

Carbon And Its Compounds Class 9 Question 5.
Raagav brings his lunch every day to school in a plastic container which has resin code number 5. The container is made of …………….
(a) Polystyrene
(b) PVC
(c) Polypropylene
(d) LDPE
Answer:
(c) Polypropylene

Carbon And Its Compounds Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Plastics made of Polycarbonate (PC) and Acrylonitrile Butadiene Styrene (ABS) are made of resin code ………………
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Answer:
(d) 7

Carbon And Its Compounds Question 7.
The lead pencil contains ………………
(a) graphite
(b) diamond
(c) lead
(d) charcoal
Answer:
(a) Graphite

Carbon And Its Compounds Solutions Question 8.
Graphene is one atom thick layer of carbon obtained from ……………..
(a) diamond
(b) fullerene
(c) graphite
(d) gas carbon
Answer:
(c) graphite

Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Notes Question 9.
The legal measures to prevent plastic pollution come under the ……………….. Protection Act 1988.
(a) forest
(b) wildlife
(c) environment
(d) human rights
Answer:
(c) Environment

II. Fill in the blanks.

1.  ………….. named carbon.
2. Buckminster Fullerene contains ……………. carbon atoms.
3. Compounds with same molecular formula and different structural formula are known as ………………
4. Different methods of formation of carbon is the main reason for its ………………..
5. There are …………….. plastic resin codes.

Answer:

1. Antoine Lavoisier
2. 60
3. isomer
4. Allotropy
5. 7

III. Match the following.

Answer:

1. (d) Triple bond
2. (c) Graphene
3. (a) Bucky Ball
4. (e) Polystyrene
5. (b) Oxidation

IV. Answer in brief.

Class 9 Science Chapter 15 Exercise Questions And Answers Question 1.
Differentiate graphite and diamond.
Answer:

Science Chapter 15 Class 9 Question 2.
What are saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:
Saturated carbon compounds are called alkanes as they have single bond between carbon atoms. Unsaturated carbon compounds are called alkenes as they have one or more double bonds between carbon atoms.

Question 3.
Carbon do not form ionic compounds. Why?
Answer:
Carbon shares electrons only through covalent bonding, hence it does not form ionic compounds.

Question 4.
What is the valency of carbon in carbon monoxide?
Answer:
Valency of carbon in carbon monoxide is 2.

Question 5.
Why are one-time use and throwaway plastics harmful?
Answer:
Use and throwaway plastics cause short and long-term environmental damage as they are difficult to recycle. They stay in an environment for over 1000 years.

These block drains and pollute water bodies. One-time use plastic causes health problems for humans, plants and animals. Some examples are plastic carry bags, cups, etc.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is catenation? How does carbon form catenated compounds?
Answer:
Catenation is the binding of an element to itself or with other elements through covalent bonds to form open chain or closed chain compounds. .
Carbon is the most common element which undergoes catenation and forms long chain compounds. Carbon atom links repeatedly to itself through covalent bond to form linear chain, branched chain or ring structure. This property of carbon itself is the reason for the presence of large number of organic carbon compounds. So organic chemistry essentially deals with catenated carbon compounds.

Question 2.
What are the chemical reactions of carbon?
Answer:
Elemental carbon undergoes no reaction at room temperature and limited number of reactions at elevated temperatures. But its compounds undergo large number of reactions even at room temperature.
Oxidation – (Reaction with oxygen)
Carbon combines with oxygen to form its oxides like carbon monoxide (CO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) with evolution of heat. Organic carbon compounds like hydrocarbon also undergo oxidation to form oxides and steam with evolution of heat and flame. This is otherwise called Burning,
2C_(s) + O_2(g) ➝ 2CO_(g) + heat
C_(s) + O_2(g) ➝ CO_2(g) + heat

• Reaction with steam
  Carbon reacts with steam to form carbon monoxide and hydrogen. This mixture is called water gas.
  C_(s) + H_(s)O_(g) ➝ CO_(g) + H_2(g)
• Reaction with sulphur
  With sulphur, carbon forms its disulphide at high temperature.
  C_(s) + S_(s) ➝ CS_2(g)
• Reaction with metals
  At elevated temperatures, carbon reacts with some metals like iron, tungsten, Titanium, etc. to form their carbides.
  W_(s) + C_(g) ➝ WC_(s)

Question 3.
Name the three safer resin codes of plastics and describe their features.
Answer:

VI. HOTS

Question 1.
Why do carbon exist mostly in combined state?
Answer:
Carbon is an element that can form many different compounds, as each carbon atom can form 4 chemical bonds with other atoms and because the carbon atom is just the right size to fit in comfortably as parts of very large molecules.

Question 2.
When a carbon fuel burns in less aerated room, it is dangerous to stay there. Why?
Answer:
When carbon fuel bums in less aerated room, carbon monoxide is formed. When people are exposed to CO, it enters into human body through breathing and affects the function of haemoglobin. CO displaces oxygen from haemoglobin thereby stops its function (supply of oxygen to the parts of body) leading to death.

Question 3.
Explain how dioxins are formed? Which plastic type they are linked to and why they are harmful to humans?
Answer:
Burning PVC plastic releases dioxins which are one of the most dangerous chemicals known to humans.

Question 4.
Yugaa wants to bdy a plastic water bottle. She goes to the shop and sees four different kinds of plastic bottles with resin codes 1, 3, 5 and 7. Which one should she buy? Why?
Answer:
Yuga should by plastic bottle with resin code 5, as it is considered to be more safer.

Activity

Question 1.
With the help of your teacher, try to classify the following compounds and materials and, . fill in the table accordingly. HCN, CO₂, Propane, PVC, CO, Kerosene, LPG, Coconut oil, Wood, Perfume, Alcohol, Na₂CO₃, CaCO₃, MgO, Cotton, Petrol.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Science Carbon and its Compounds Additional Questions

I. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Explain carbon cycle or biogeochemical cycle.
Answer:
The carbon cycle is a biogeochemical cycle by which carbon is exchanged among the biosphere, geosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere of the Earth. Carbon is the main component of biological compounds as well as major component of many minerals such as lime stone.

Steps in carbon cycle:

1. Carbon enters the atmosphere as CO₂ from respiration and combustion.
2. CO₂ is absorbed by producers to make carbohydrates in photosynthesis.
3. Animals feed on the plant passing the carbon compounds along the food chain. Most of the carbon they consume is exhaled as CO₂, formed during respiration. The animals and plants eventually die.
4. The dead organisms are eaten by decomposers and the carbon in their bodies is returned to the atmosphere as CO₂. The plant and animal material may then be available as fossil fuel in the future for combustion.

Question 2.
What is isomerism? Explain with an example.
Answer:
Isomerism is a special feature of catenated organic compounds.
For example, if we consider the molecular formula of an organic compound to be C₂H₆O, we will not be able to name the compound. This is because the molecular formula of an organic compound represents only the number of different atoms present in that compound. It does not indicate the way in which the atoms are arranged and hence its structure.

The phenomenon in which the same molecular formula may exhibit different structural arrangements is called isomerism.
The given formula C₂H₆O can be represented with two kinds of arrangements.

Both the compounds have same molecular but different kind of arrangement. In compound ‘a’ the oxygen atom is attached to a hydrogen and a carbon. It is an alcohol. Whereas, compound ‘b’ the oxygen atom is attached to two carbon atoms and it is an ether. Both these compounds have different physical and chemical properties.

Question 3.
Write a short note on graphene.
Answer:
Graphene is most recently produced allotrope of carbon which consists of honeycomb-shaped hexagonal ring repeatedly arranged in a plane. Graphene is the thinnest compound known to man at one atom thick. It is the lightest material known (with 1 square metre weighing around 0.77 milligrams) and the strongest compound discovered (100-300 times stronger than steel).

It is the best conductor of heat at room temperature. Layers of graphene are stacked on top of each other form graphite, with an interplanar spacing of 0.335 nanometres. The separate layers of graphene in graphite are held together by Vander Waals forces.

Question 4.
What is carbon monoxide? Why is it toxic?
Answer:
Carbon monoxide is a toxic gas of carbon. When fuels undergo incomplete combustion, it results in the formation of carbon monoxide. It is released into the atmosphere from various sources like vehicle fuels, domestic fuels, industries, furnaces, etc, cigarette smoking also is a source of carbon monoxide.

Carbon monoxide is an odorless toxic gas. When CO enters the human body through breathing, it affects the function of hemoglobin. CO displaces oxygen from hemoglobin thereby stopping its function, i.e., a supply of oxygen is blocked to the parts of the body, thereby leading to death.

Question 5.
What are the drawbacks of plastics?
Answer:
Drawbacks of plastics

• Plastics take a long time to fully break down in nature.
• The microbes that breakdown plastics are too few and the quantity of plastics we produce is too many.
• A lot of plastics does not get recycled and ends up polluting the environment.
• Some plastics contain harmful chemical additives that are not good for human health.
• Burning of plastics releases toxic gases that are harmful to health and environment
• One time use and throwaway plastics end up littering and polluting the environment.

Question 6.
What is a resin code? What is the need to display them on plastic articles?
Answer:
The resin code is a set of symbols appearing on plastic products that is helpful in the identification of the type of polymer used to make that product.

Platic needs to be recycled or disposed of safely. Each plastic is composed of a different polymer or set of molecules. Different molecules do not mix when plastics are recycled. For this reason, plastics need to be segregated before recycling. These resin codes help in easy segregation of plastic products to be recycled.

Question 7.
A survey showed that one time use plastic items were among the top 10 plastic items found in garbage washed up from oceans. Can this be true? Explain how.
Answer:
Use and throwaway plastics cause short and long time environmental damage. These items like plastic carry bags, straws, plates, spoons, pouches, etc., take a few seconds to be made in a factory, but can stay in the environment forever a 1000 years. These items block drains and pollute water bodies. These plastics break down into pieces that are smaller than 5mm in diameter. These microplastics pollute the ocean and harm the marine life, who mistake them as their food.

These one time use plastics when disposed carelessly are carried to the ocean by winds, cause harm to marine life and are brought back to the shore by waves.

Students can Download English Lesson 2 The Mystery of the Cyber Friend Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Supplementary Chapter 2 The Mystery of the Cyber Friend

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Summary Read And Understand

A. Say whether the following are ‘True’ or ‘False’.

1. Shree spends most of the time on T.V.
2. Shrees aunt stays with them.
3. Chaitra is Shrees school friend.
4. Chaitra gifted Shree a new camera phone.
5. Shree went alone to the train station to meet Chaitra.
6. A fraud middle aged man pretended to be Chaitra. Name the speaker.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. False
6. True

B. Name the speaker.
Answer:

C. Answer the following questions

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Questions And Answers Question 1.
Why did Shree’s parents buy her a computer?
Answer:
Shrees parents bought her a computer because they wanted her to learn computers.

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Question 2.
How did Shree make friends through computer?
Answer:
Two months ago, on her thirteenth birthday, Shree joined “Friends Net”. Through this net, she made friends.

The Mystery Of Cyber Friend Question 3.
What were the online activities given in this story?
Answer:
Chaitra tells lies to Shree, saying that she is studying in a school near to Shree’s school. She used a film stars picture as her profile. She asked Shree to come to the raiway station all alone.

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Book Back Answers Question 4.
How did Shree’s aunt save Shree from the man who pretended to be Chaitra?
Answer:
Shrees aunt accompanied her to the railway station. She informed the station manager about the new friend and asked him to help them. When she saw the man talking to Shree, she hit him with her handbag. He ran away into the crowded train.

Summary Of The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Question 5.
How did the police find the man who pretended to be Chaitra?
Answer:
A Cyber crime officer went through Shrees computer within hours he found the man, who pretended to be Chaitra.

D. Based on your reading of the text, list out the merits and demerits of using a computer.
Answer:

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Story Step To Success

8th English The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Question 1.
The following series is provided and you need to answer the question accordingly.
ABCDEFGHIJKLMN| |OPRSTUVWXYZ
In this series find the letter which is fifth to the left from the thirteenth letter from your right.
(a) M
(b) I
(c) H
(d) J
Answer:
(c) H

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Summary In English Question 2.
Based on the above series of English alphabets, if every alternate alphabet starting from C is deleted than which of the following alphabet will seventh from the left side of the series?
(a) H
(b) K
(c) I
(d) G
Answer:
(b) K

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Mind Map Question 3.
If the above series is written in reverse order than what is the eleventh letter of the fifteenth letter from your left?
(a) V
(b) W
(c) D
(d) X
Answer:
(b) W

The Mystery of the Cyber Friend Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Lesson Plan Question 1.
Shree lives in an apartment in a small town called ___________ Junction.
(a) Thirupathi
(b) Katpadi
(c) Gudur
(d) Thiruvallur
Answer:
(b) Katpadi

Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Question 2.
They want her to learn ___________
(a) arts
(b) singing
(c) music
(d) computers

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend Pdf Question 3.
After tiffin, shree likes to ___________
(a) read books
(b) watch TV
(c) play
(d) sleep
Answer:
(c) play

The Mystery Of The Cyber Friend In Tamil Question 4.
The computer also has ___________ net.
(a) Friends
(b) Visitors
(c) Chat
(d) Vice
Answer:
(a) Friends

Question 5.
Shree says that she got extra sugar with her ___________
(a) coffee
(b) milk
(c) tea
(d) juice
Answer:
(c) tea

Question 6.
She chats with her ___________ friends through Friends Net.
(a) school
(b) college
(c) office
(d) best
Answer:
(a) school

Question 7.
Chaitra ___________ Shree to accept her as a new friend.
(a) pleaded
(b) begged
(c) requested
(d) ordered
Answer:
(c) requested

Question 8.
Soon Shree gets a ___________ from Chaitra.
(a) message
(b) warning
(c) threatening
(d) gift
Answer:
(a) message

Question 9.
Chaitra offers to give Shree her old ___________
(a) photos
(b) phone
(c) paintings
(d) laptop
Answer:
(b) phone

Question 10.
Best friends should be of the same ___________
(a) size
(b) race
(c) age
(d) status
Answer:
(c) age

II. dentify the character and speaker:

1. “Do you have many friends?”
2. “I lost a few friends today”
3. “Are you feeling unwell”.
4. “Too much of school work”
5. “Hello, Friend. How are you today?”
6. “Great. Now can you send me a selfie?”
7. “I have a new friend, Akka!”
8. “But that’s the film actress I like so much, Madhoo.”
9. “Don’t you dare come near my niece”
10. “You are clever to confide in a trusted adult.”

Answer:

1. Chaitra
2. Shree
3. Shree’s aunt
4. Shree
5. Chaitra
6. Chaitra
7. Shree
8. Shree’s aunt
9. Shree’s aunt
10. Policewoman

III. Give Very Short Answers :

Question 1.
Who was Shree’s best friend?
Answer:
The computer was Shree’s best friend.

Question 2.
What does Shree like to play on the computer?
Answer:
Shree likes to play games on the computer.

Question 3.
When did Shree join the Friends Net?
Answer:
She joined the friends Net two months ago on her thirteenth birthday.

Question 4.
How was Chaitra’s profile?
Answer:
Chaitra’s profile was very pretty. She looked like a film star.

Question 5.
Did Shree see Chaitra’s school? Why?
Answer:
No, Shree couldn’t see Chaitra’s school because it was not there.

Question 6.
Why didn’t Shree eat her tiffin?
Answer:
She couldn’t eat her tiffin because she was eagerly waiting to talk to Chaitra.

Question 7.
Where did Chaitra want to meet Shree ?
Answer:
Chaitra wanted to meet Shree at the Railway Station.

Question 8.
What did chaitra promise to give Shree?
Answer:
Chaitra promised to give her an old camera phone.

Question 9.
Who came to meet Shree at the Railway Station?
Answer:
A man, who was her father’s age, came to meet Shree.

IV. Write Short Answers :

Question 1.
Where did Shree live and what were his parents?
Answer:
Shree lived in an apartment in a small town called Katpadi Junction. Her mother works in a jewelery shop. Her father works as a taxi driver.

Question 2.
What does Shree do everyday?
Answer:
After snacks and tea, Shree chats with her school friends through Friend Net. They tell each other what they did everyday.

Question 3.
Who stays with Shree’s Family? What do everyone calls her?
Answer:
Shree’s aunt stays with their family. Everyone calls her “Akka”. Most of the time, she sleeps in front of the TV.

Question 4.
What did Shree’s aunt tell about Chaitra?
Answer:
Shree’s aunt tells Shree that Chaitra’s profile is not her. It is the picture of her favourite actress Madhoo.

Question 5.
What happend to the imposter at the Railway Station?
Answer:
Shree’s aunt hit the imposter with her handbag. The Station Manager rushed to catch the man. But he disappeared into the crowded train.

V. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
How was the Cyber friend of Shree caught by the police?
Answer:
Shree went to meet her friend Chaitra at the railway station. Her aunt accompanied her. She informed about the imposter to the Station Manager and requested him to help them. When they were waiting at the station, a man came towards Shree. He was of Shree’s father’s age. He tried to convince Shree and requested her to be his friend. Seeing him talking to her neice, Shree’s aunt hit him with her handbag. The Station Manager also rushed forward to catch him. But he disappeared in the crowded train. Later the Cyber Crime officer went through Shree’s computer. He found the man and nabbed him in Bengaluru.

VI. Rearrange the jumbled sentences :

Question A.
1. So they are pleased that she likes to use it.
2. Appa works as a taxi driver.
3. They want her to learn computers.
4. Shree lives in an apartment in a small town called Katpadi Junction.
5. Amma works in a jewellery shop.
Answer:
4. Shree lives in an apartment in a small town called Katpadi Junction.
5. Amma works in a jewellery shop.
2. Appa works as a taxi driver.
3. They want her to learn computers.
1. So they are pleased that she likes to use it.

Question B.
1. She watched her favourite old films.
2. Shrees aunt also stays with them.
3. She gives Shree hot dosas stuffed with spicy noodles.
4. Everyone calls her Akka.
5. Most of the time, she naps in the front of the TV.
Answer:
2. Shrees aunt also stays with them.
4. Everyone calls her Akka.
5. Most of the time, she naps in the front of the TV.
1. She watched her favourite old films.
3. She gives Shree hot dosas stuffed with spicy noodles.

Question C.
1. Within hours, the police find the man who pretended to be Chaitra.
2. They nab him from his office in Bengaluru.
3. They find out that he has been trying to befriend many young girls and boys on social media.
4. Shree decides to only have friends from her own school.
5. The next day, a cyber crime officer goes through Shrees computer.
Answer:
5. The next day, a cyber crime officer goes through Shrees computer.
1. Within hours, the police find the man who pretended to be Chaitra.
2. They nab him from his office in Bengaluru.
3. They find out that he has been trying to befriend many young girls and boys on social media.
4. Shree decides to only have friends from her own school.

VII. Comprehension.

Question 1.
The next morning, Shree looks for school near hers. But she cannot see one. It is a little strange that she hasn’t heard of any other school nearby. But Chaitra is nicer than all her other friends. She is Shrees special friend and nobody else’s friend.

(a) What did Shree look for?
Answer:
Shree looked for Chaitra’s School.

(b) Did she see the school?
Answer:
No, She did not see the school.

(c) What did Shree think about Chaitra?
Answer:
She thought that Chaitra was nicer than all her other friends.

(d) Whose friend is Chaitra?
Answer:
Chaitra is Shrees special friend.

Question 2.
But Shree doesn’t do her homework. Instead, she starts the computer, goes online and waits for her new friend to ping her. Soon she gets a message from Chaitra.
“Hello, friend. How are you today?”

(a) Does Shree do her homework?
Answer:
No, Shree doesn’t do her homework.

(b) What does Shree do, instead doing of her homework?
Answer:
Shree starts the computer, goes online and waits for her new friend to ping her.

(c) What does Shree get from Chaitra?
Answer:
Shree gets a message from Chaitra.

(d) What was the message?
Answer:
The message was “Hello Friend. How are you today?”

The Mystery of the Cyber Friend Summary

Section – I

Shree lived in an apartment with her father, mother and aunt. Her parents wanted her to learn computers. So they were pleased with her, when she used it. She used to find information for school projects and send e-mails. Two months ago, on her thirteenth birthday, she joined the “Friend Net” on the computer. She used to chat with her friends everyday. One day, a new friend requested her to accept her. Shree accepted her and chatted with her. Her name was Chaitra. She told Shree that she was studying in a school, which was near to her school. Shree considered her to be her special friend. On a Sunday, Ghaitra asked her to meet her at the railway station.

Her aunt saw Chaitra’s profile picture. She told Shree that it was actually the picture of her favourite heroine Madhoo. It was not the picture of Chaitra. Shree could not find any school near her school. Chaitra had also asked Shree to come to the Railway Station all alone. All these things, created suspicion in Shree about Chaitra.

Section – II

Shree was very confused and couldn’t focus on her homework. Shree informed about Chaitra to her aunt. The next day Shree’s aunt accompanied Shree to the railway station. She informed the station manager and waited to see who would come to see Shree. A man who was of her father’s age met her. He tried to convince Shree that he was an uncle and he would like to be her friend. Shree’s aunt hit the man with her handbag. The station manager tried to catch him, but he disappeared into the crowded train. They went to the police station. The policewoman praised them and told Shree to put up a poster about cycber security in her school.

Next day, a cyber crime officer went through Shree’s computer. Within hours, the police found the man, who pretended to be Chaitra. They nabbed him from his office in Bengaluru. They found that he had been trying to befriend many young girls and boys on social media. Shree waited eagerly to tell her friends about her frightening adventure with her cyber friend.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Production Analysis

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Production Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

11th Economics Chapter 3 Book Back Answers Multiple Choice Questions

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Economics Question 1.
The primary factors of production are:
(a) Labour and Organisation
(b) Labour and Capital
(c) Land and Capital
(d) Land and Labour.
Answer:
(d) Land and Labour.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Economics Question 2.
The man-made physical goods used to produce other goods and services are referred to as …………………………
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Organization
Answer:
(c) Capital

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Question 4.
Which factor is called the changing agent of society?
(a) Labourer
(b) Land
(c) Organizer
(d) Capital
Answer:
(c) Organizer

Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Who said, that one of the key of an entrepreneur is “uncertainty-bearing”.
(a) J.B.Clark
(b) Schumpeter
(c) Knight
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(c) Knight

Economics Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The functional relationship between “inputs” and “outputs” is called………………………..
(a) Consumption Function
(b) Production Function
(c) Savings Function
(d) Investment Function
Answer:
(b) Production Function

Samacheer Kalvi Economics 11th Question 7.
In a firm 5 units of factors produce 24 units of the product. When the number of factor increases by one, the production increases to 30 units. Calculate the Average Product.
(a) 30
(b) 6
(c) 5
(d) 24
Answer:
(c) 5

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Solutions Question 8.
The short-run production is studied through ………………………
(a) The Laws of Returns to Scale
(b) The Law of Variable Proportions
(c) Iso – quants
(d) Law of Demand
Answer:
(b) The Law of Variable Proportions

11th Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
The long-run production function is explained by
(a) Law of Demand
(b) Law of Supply
(c) Returns to Scale
(d) Law of Variable Proportions
Answer:
(c) Returns to Scale

Economics Class 11 Chapter 3 Notes Question 10.
An Iso – quant curve is also known as …………………………
(a) Inelastic Supply curve
(b) Inelastic Demand Curve
(c) Equi – marginal Utility
(d) Equal Product Curve
Answer:
(d) Equal Product Curve

11 Th Samacheer Kalvi Economics Question 11.
Mention the economies reaped from inside the firm
(a) Financial
(b) Technical
(c) Managerial
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

11th Economics Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 12.
Cobb – Douglas production function assumes ………………………….
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Diminishing returns to scale
(c) Constant returns to scale
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Constant returns to scale

Economics Class 11 Chapter 3 Question Answers Question 13.
Name the returns to scale when the output increases by more than 5%, for a 5% increase in the inputs,
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Decreasing returns to scale
(c) Constant returns to scale
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Increasing returns to scale

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) It’s a limited supply
(b) It is mobile
(c) Heterogeneous
(d) Gift of Nature
Answer:
(b) It is mobile

Question 15.
Product obtained from additional factors of production is termed as
(a) Marginal product
(b) Total product
(c) Average product
(d) Annual product
Answer:
(a) Marginal product

Question 16.
Modem economists have propounded the law of ………………………
(a) Increasing returns
(b) decreasing returns
(c) Constant returns
(d) variable proportions
Answer:
(a) Increasing returns

Question 17.
Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point where:
(a) The marginal rate of technical substitution(MRTS) is greater than the price ratio
(b) MRTS is lesser than the price ratio
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other
(d) The slopes of Iso-quant and Iso-cost lines are different.
Answer:
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other

Question 18.
The relationship between the price of a commodity and the supply of a commodity is ……………………….
(a) Negative
(b) Positive
(c) Zero
(d) Increase
Answer:
(b) Positive

Question 19.
If average product is decreasing, then marginal product
(a) Must be greater than average product
(b) Must be less than average product
(c) Must be increasing
(d) Both a and c
Answer:
(b) Must be less than average product

Question 20.
A production function measures the relation between ……………………….
(a) Input prices and output prices
(b) Input prices and the quantity of output
(c) The number of inputs and the quantity of output
(d) The number of inputs and input prices.
Answer:
(c) The number of inputs and the quantity of output

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
Classify the factors of production.
Answer:
Factors of production are classified as land, labour, capital and organisation.

1. Land and Labour – Primary factors
2. Capital and organisation – Secondary factors.

Question 22.
Define labour?
Answer:

1. Labour is the active factor of production.
2. In common parlance, labour means manual labour or unskilled work. But in Economics the term ‘labour’ has a wider meaning.
3. It refers to any work undertaken for securing an income or reward. Such work may be manual or intellectual. For example, the work done by an agricultural worker or a cook or rickshaw puller or a mason is manual.
4. The work of a doctor or teacher or an engineer is intellectual.
5. In short, labour in economics refers to any type of work performed by a labourer for earning an income.

Question 23.
State the production function.
Answer:
Production function is the relationship between inputs of productive services and .outputs of product per unit of time.

Question 24.
Define Marginal Product of a factor?
Answer:
It is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as
MP = ∆TP/∆N
Where MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input
It is also expressed as MP = TP [n] – TP [n-1]
MP = Marginal product
TP [n] = Total product of employing nth unit of a factor.
TP [n – 1] = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, [n – 1]^th unit of a factor.

Question 25.
What is the Iso-cost line?
Answer:
An Iso-cost line represents different combinations of inputs which shows the same amount of cost.

Question 26.
What are the conditions for the producer’s equilibrium?
Answer:
The two conditions that are to be fulfilled for the attainment of producer equilibrium are:

1. The isocost line must be tangent to the isoquant curve.
2. At the point of tangency, the isoquant curve must be convex to the origin or MRTSLk must be declining.

Question 27.
What are the reasons for the upward-sloping supply curve?
Answer:
As the price of the commodity increases the quantum supplied also increases. So the supply curve has a positive slope.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

1. Land is a primary factor of production
2. Land is a passive factor of production
3. Land is the free gift of nature
4. Land has no cost of production
5. Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
6. Land is permanent
7. Land is immovable
8. Land is heterogeneous as it differs infertility
9. Land has alternative uses
10. Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 29.
What are the factors governing elasticity of supply?
Answer:
1. Nature of the commodity:
The elasticity of supply of durable goods are high but perishables have low elasticity of supply.

2. Cost of production:
Under constant or increasing returns the elasticity of supply is greater, under diminishing returns elasticity is less.

3. Technical condition:
In large scale production supply cannot be adjusted easily. So elasticity of supply is lesser and vice versa.

4. Time factor:
During very short period, supply cannot be adjusted. In short period, variable factors can be changed so elasticity is more and in long period, supply is highly elastic.

Question 30.
What are the functions of entrepreneurs?
Answer:
Functions of an Entrepreneur:

• Initiation:
  An organizer is the initiator of the business, by considering the situation and availability of resources and planning the entire process of business of production.
• Innovation:
  A successful entrepreneur is always an innovator. He introduces new methods in the production process.
• Coordination:
  An organizer applies a particular combination of the factor of production to start and run the business or production.
• Control, Direction, and Supervision: An organizer controls so that nothing prevents the organization from achieving its goal. He directs the factors to get better results and supervises for the efficient functioning of all the factors involved in the process of production.
• Risk-taking and uncertainty-bearing: There are risk-taking and uncertainty-bearing obstacles. Risks may be insured but uncertainties cannot be insured. They reduce the profit.

Question 31.
State and explain the elasticity of supply.
Answer:
The elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
Mathematically:

Q – Supply, p – price, ∆ – change.

Question 32.
Bring out the Relationship among Total, Average and Marginal Products.
Answer:

Question 33.
Illustrate the concept of Producer’s Equilibrium.
Answer:
Producer equilibrium is the situation where the producer maximizes his output. It is also known as the optimum combination of the factors of production.
(Eg.) Maximum output at minimum cost.
Producer attains equilibrium where the Iso-cost line is tangent to the Iso-quant.

In the figure profit of the firm is maximised at the point of equilibrium.
At the point of equilibrium slope of the Iso-cost line = Slope of Iso-product curve At the point E, the firm employs OM units of labour and ON units of capital which is the least cost combination.

Question 34.
State the Cobb – Douglas Production Function?
Answer:
The Cobb – Douglas Production Function was developed by Charles W. Cobb and Paul H. Douglas, based on their empirical study of the American manufacturing industry. It is a linear homogeneous production function which implies that the factors of production can be substituted for one another up to a certain extent only.

The Cobb – Douglas production function can be expressed as follows.
Q = AL²K²
Where, Q = output; A = positive constant;
K = capital;
L = Labor α and β are positive fractions showing, the elasticity coefficients of outputs for the inputs labor and capital, respectively.
P = (1 – a) since a + p = 1. denoting constant returns to scale.
Factor intensity can be measured by the ratio β / α.

The sum of α + β shows the returns to scale.

1. (α + β) = 1, constant returns to scale.
2. (α + β) < 1, diminishing returns to scale.
3. (α + β) >1, increasing returns to scale.

• The production function explains that with the proportionate increase in the factors, the output also increases in the same proportion.
• Cobb – Douglas production function implies constant returns to scale.
  Cobb – Douglas Production Function is a specific standard equation applied to describe how much output can be made with capital and labour inputs.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Examine the Law of Variable Proportions with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
According to G. Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point the resulting increments of the product will decrease (ie) the marginal product will diminish”.
Assumptions:

1. Only one factor is variable.
2. All units of the variable factor are homogeneous
3. The product is measured in physical units.
4. There is no change in the state of technology and the price of the product.

Stage of production:

Units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors. There are three stages of production.

Stage I:

1. In the first stage MP_L increases upto third labourer and is higher than the average product.
2. So that total produt is increasing at an increasing rate.

Stage II:

1. MP_L decreases up to sixth unit of labour where MP_L curve intersects the x axis.
2. At fourth unit of labour MP_L = AP_L
3. After this, MP_L curve is lower than the AP_L. TP_L increases at a decreasing rate.

Stage III:

1. The seventh unit of labour is marked by negative MP_L the AP_L continues to fall but positive.
2. TP_L declines with the employment of more units of labour.

Question 36.
List out the properties of Iso-quants with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Iso-quant:
“An Iso-quant is a curve showing all possible combinations of inputs physically capable of producing a given level of output” – Ferguson.

Properties of Iso-quant curve:
1. The Iso-quant curve has negative slope:

1. It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable.
2. In the diagram combination A refers to more of capital K₅ and less of labour L₂
3. As the producer moves to B, C and D more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin:

1. In production, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing. It is called diminishing marginal rate of technical substitution.
2. If the marginal rate of technical substitution diminishes the Iso-quants will be convex to the origin.
3. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave).

3. Non-inter-section of Iso-Quant curves:

1. Point A lie on the Iso-quants IQ₁ and IQ₂
2. But the point C shows a higher output and point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁
3. If C = A, B = A, then C – B. But C > B which is illogical.
   

4. An upper Iso-quant curve represents a higher level of output:

1. Higher IQ_s show higher outputs and lower IQ_s show lower output.
2. The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an Iso-quant curve.

5. Iso-quant curve does not touch either X axis or Y axis:
No Iso-quant curve touches the X – axis or Y – axis because in IQ(, only capital is used and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

Question 37.
Elucidate the Laws of Returns to Scale. Illustrate.
Answer:
In the long-run all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long-run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion.
Assumptions :

1. All the factors are variable except the organization.
2. There is no change in technology.
3. There is perfect competition in the market.
4. Outputs or returns are increased in physical quantities.

Three phases of returns to scale:
1. Increasing returns to scale:
If all inputs are increased by one percent, output increase by more than one percent.

2. Constant returns to scale:
In this case, if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by one percent.
Diagrammatic Illustration:

In the diagram, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Between these two points, input has doubled but the output was tripled.

The law of constant returns is implied by the movement from point b to point c. Between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled.

Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units produce less than the increase in inputs, that is by only 33.33%.

Question 38.
Explain the internal and external economies of scale.
Answer:
The scale of production is an important factor affecting production. Every producer wishes to reduce the costs of production by using economies of scale.
Marshall classified economies into two.
1. Internal economies of scale: Internal economies refer to the reduction in the cost of production of the commodity. They are of various types.

• Technical economies: When the size and capital of the firm is large, up-to-date technologies can be used to improve the productivity of the firm. Here research and development strategies can be applied easily.
• Financial economies: Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot do so.
• Managerial economies: Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.
• Labour economies: Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour. This leads to specialization which enhances the quality. This increases the productivity of the firm.
• Marketing economies: The producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at a cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
• Economies of survival: Product diversification is possible and it reduces the risk in production. Even if the market for one product collapses, the market for other commodities offsets it.

Question 39.
External economies of scale:
Answer:
External economies of scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm or industry causing an improvement in the production process.
Important external economies are:

1. Increased transport facilities.
2. Banking facilities
3. Development of townships
4. Development of information and communication

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Production Analysis Additional Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Production refers to …………………….
(a) Destruction of utility
(b) Creation of utilities
(c) Exchange value
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Creation of utilities

Question 2.
_______ is a person who combines the factors of production in the production process to earn profit.
(a) Producer
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Consumer
(d) Labours
Answer:
(b) Entrepreneur

Question 3.
Division of labour is introduced by ………………………
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Schumpeter
(d) Hawley
Answer:
(a) Adam Smith

Question 4.
Total product is
(a) TP = ∑AP
(b) TP = ∑MP
(c) TP = ∆N
(d) TP = TP / N
Answer:
(b) TP = ∑MP

Question 5.
The Initial supply price of land is ……………………..
(a) Zero
(b) Greater than one
(c) Less than one
(d) Equal to one
Answer:
(a) Zero

Question 6.
Cobb – Douglas production function depends on ______
(a) Land, Labour
(b) Land, Capital
(c) Labour, capital
(d) Labour, organisation
Answer:
(c) Labour, capital

Question 7.
Who is the primary factor of production?
(a) Organizer
(b) Capital
(c) Machine
(d) Man
Answer:
(a) Organizer

Question 8.
_______ is the man-made factor of production.
(a) Labour
(b) Capital
(c) Savings
(d) Land
Answer:
(c) Savings

Question 9.
Technological relationship between inputs and output is called ……………………….
(a) Production function
(b) Technical function
(c) Capital function
(d) Organiser function
Answer:
(a) Production function

Question 10.
In the production process _______ bears incertainity.
(a) Manager
(b) Labour
(c) Entrepreneur
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Entrepreneur

Question 11.
α + β = 1 refers _______
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Constant return to scale
(c) Diminishing returns to scale
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Constant return to scale

Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(a) Production refers to the creation of utility
(b) Production means the transformation of inputs into output
(c) Production creates economic well-being.
(d) The scale of production influences the revenue.
Answer:
(d) The scale of production influences the revenue.

Question 2.
(a) An entrepreneur is a risk-taker – Walker.
(b) Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than the free gift of nature -Marshall.
(c) An entrepreneur innovates – Schumpeter.
(d) An entrepreneur is an uncertainty bearer – Walker.
Answer:
a. An entrepreneur is a risk-taker – Walker.

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 3.

a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 2 1 3 4
Answer:
(c) Active factor – (3) Cobb-Douglas

Question 4.

a. 2 4 1 3
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 4 1 2 3
Answer:
(a) (α + β) =1 – (1) Diminishing returns.

Question 5.

Answer:
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 2 3 1 4
Answer:
(c) Perfectly inelastic supply = (3) Es < 1

Question 6.

a. 2 3 1 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 3 4 2 1
Answer:
(b) Labour = (2) Initiator

Choose the odd one out

Question 7.
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Production
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(c) Production

Question 8.
(a) Technical economics
(b) Financial economics
(c) Economics of survival
(d) Banking facility
Answer:
(d) Banking facility

Choose the correct statement

Question 9.
(a) Iso-quant has a positive slope.
(b) Iso-quants never intersect each other
(c) Iso-quants are concave to the origin
(d) Iso-quant curve touch either X or Y-axis.
Answer:
(b) Iso-quants never intersect each other

Question 10.
Cobb-Douglas production function.
(a) Implies constant returns to scale
(b) It considers all the factors of production.
(c) The elasticity of substitution between the factors is less than one.
(d) Is a non-linear homogeneous production function.
Answer:
(a) Implies constant returns to scale

Analyze the reason for the following

Question 11.
Assertion (A) : Labour is the human input into the production process.
Reason (R) : Labour cannot be separated from the labourer.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. Both (A) and (R) are false.
d. (A) is true but, (R) is false.
Answer:
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : Perishables have a low elasticity of supply.
Reason (R) : Perishables cannot be stored for a long time.
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b. Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c. (A) is true but (R) is false.
d. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer:
a. Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 13.

Answer:
(a) Q = AL^α K^β

Question 14.

Answer:
(d) Q = f (N,L,K,T)

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 15.
Cobb-Douglas production function depends on _____
(a) Land, labour
(b) Land, capital
(c) Labour, capital
(d) Labour, organisation
Answer:
(c) Labour, capital

Question 16.
Total product is _____
(a) TP = ∑AP
(b) TP = ∆N
(c) TP = ∑MP
(d) TP = \(\frac { TP }{ N } \)
Answer:
(c) TP = ∑MP

Question 17.
In the production process __________ bears uncertainty.
(a) Manager
(b) Labour
(c) Worker
(d) Entrepreneur
Answer:
(d) Entrepreneur

Choose the best option

Question 18.
is the man-made factor of production.
(a) Labour
(b) Capital
(c) Savings
(d) Land
Answer:
(b) Capital

Question 19.
The labour exercised without expecting income is __________
(a) Service
(b) Physical labour
(c) Mental labour
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Service

Question 20.
Marginal product is ________
(a) MP = \(\frac { AP }{ N } \)
(b) MP = \(\frac { TP }{ N } \)
(c) MP = \(\frac { ∆AP }{ ∆N } \)
(d) MP = \(\frac { ∆TP }{ ∆N } \)
Answer:
(d) MP = \(\frac { ∆TP }{ ∆N } \)

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of capital?
Answer:

1. Capital is a man-made factor
2. Capital is mobile between places and persons
3. Capital is a passive factor of production
4. Capital’s supply is elastic
5. Capital’s demand is a derived demand
6. Capital is durable

Question 2.
What is the land?
Answer:
Land means all gifts of nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.

Question 3.
Explain the law of variable proportions assumptions?
Answer:

1. The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions.
2. Only one factor is variable while others are held constant.
3. All units of the variable factor are homogeneous.
4. The product is measured in physical units.
5. There is no change in the state of technology.
6. There is no change in the price of the product.

Question 4.
What is the total product?
Answer:
Total product is the summation of marginal products.
TP = ∑MP

Question 5.
What is average product ?
Answer:
Average product refers to the output per unit of the input.

Question 6.
What is diseconomies of scale ?
Answer:
Diseconomies of scale are a disadvantage to a firm or industry or organisation. This necessarily increases the cost of production.

Question 7.
What are Iso-quants ?
Answer:
An Iso-quant curve can be defined as the locus of points representing various combinations of two inputs yielding the same output.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
State the characteristics of labour.
Answer:

1. Labour is an active factor of production.
2. Labour may be manual or intellectual.
3. Labour is perishable.
4. Labour is inseparable from the labourer.
5. Labour is less mobile.
6. Labour is a means as well as an end.
7. Labour units are heterogeneous.
8. Labour has weak bargaining power.

Question 2.
Define Iso – quant, and Iso – quants Assumptions?
Answer:
Definition of Iso – quant:
According to Ferguson, “An Iso – quant is a curve showing all possible combinations of inputs physically capable of producing a given level of output”.

Assumptions:

1. It is assumed that only two factors are used to produce a commodity.
2. Factors of production can be divided into small parts.
3. The technique of production is constant.
4. The substitution between the two factors is technically possible. That is, the production function is of “variable proportion” type rather than a fixed proportion.
5. Under the given technique, factors of production can be used with maximum efficiency.

Question 3.
Who is an entrepreneur?
Answer:
An entrepreneur is a person who combines land, labour and capital in the production process to earn a profit. He not only runs the business but bears the risk of the business.

Question 4.
Differentiate the short period and long period.
Answer:
The short-run is the period where some inputs are variable. Another feature is that firms do not enter or exit the industry. The long-run is the period where all the inputs are variable. It is featured by the entry of new firms and the exit of existing firms from the industry.

Question 5.
Name the classification of a production function.
Answer:
Production function may be classified into two.

1. Short-run production function as illustrated by the law of variable proportions.
2. Long-run production function as explained by the laws of returns to scale.

Question 6.
What is an Iso-quant map?
Answer:
An Iso-quant map has different Iso-quant curves representing the different combinations of factors of production, yielding the different levels of output. An Iso-quant map is a family of Iso-quants..

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of labour?
Answer:

1. Labour is the animate factor of production.
2. Labour is an active factor of production.
3. Labour implies several types: It may be manual [farmer] or intellectual [teacher, lawyer, etc]
4. Labour is perishable.
5. Labour is inseparable from the labourer.
6. Labour is less mobile between places and occupations.
7. Labour is a means as well as an end. It is both the cause of production and consumer of the product.
8. Labour units are heterogeneous.
9. Labour differs in ability.
10. Labour – supply determines its reward [wage]
11. Labour has weak bargaining power.

Question 2.
Explain the law of supply with a diagram.
Answer:
1. Law of supply:
The Law of supply describes a direct relationship between the price of a good and the supply of that good.

2. Definition:
“Other things remaining the same, if the price of a commodity increases its quantity supplied increases and if the price of a commodity decreases, quantity supplied also decreases”.

3. Supply function:
Q = f (P_x, P_r, P_r T, O, E)
Q_s – Quantity supplied of x commodity
P_x – Price of x commodity
P_r – Price of related goods
P_f – Price of factors of production.
T – Technology
O – Objective of the producer.
E – Expected price of the commodity

Assumptions:

1. There is no change in the prices of factors of production and capital goods.
2. Natural resources, technology, climate, political situations and tax policy remain unchanged.
3. Prices of substitutes are constant.

Supply schedule :
A supply schedule shows the different quantities of supply at different prices

Supply curve:
The quantum supplied is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represent on the Y axis

As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS, represent various quantities of different prices.

Question 3.
Explain the factors determining supply.
Answer:
1. Price of the commodity:
Higher the price larger the supply Price is the incentive for the producers and sellers to supply more.

2. Price of other commodities:
The supply of a commodity not only depends upon its price but also prices of other commodities. For instance if the price of commercial crops increases, the supply of food crops may decrease.

3. Price of factors:
When the input prices go up, this results in rise in cost and so supply will be affected.

4. Price expectations:
The expectation over future prices determines present supply.

5. Technology:
With advancement in technology, production level improves, average cost declines and as a result supply level increases.

6. Natural factors:
In agriculture, natural factors like a monsoon, climate, etc., play a vital role in determining the production level.

7. Discovery of new raw materials:
The discovery of cheaper and high-quality raw materials tends to increase the supply of the product.

8. Taxes and subsidies:
Subsidies encourage the producers to produce more whereas taxes kill the ability and willingness to produce more.

9. The objective of the firm:
When the goal of the firm is sales maximization or improving market share, the supply of the product is likely to be higher.

Question 4.
Explain the characteristics of labour.
Answer:
According to Marshall, labour represents services provided by the factor labour, which helps in yielding an income to the owner of the labour-power.
Characteristics of labour:

1. Labour is the animate factor of production.
2. Labour is an active factor of production.
3. Labour implies several types it may be manual or intellectual.
4. Labour is perishable.
5. Labour is inseparable from the labourer.
6. Labour is less mobile between places and occupations.
7. Labour is a means as well as an end.
8. Labour units are heterogenous.
9. Labour-supply determines its reward.
10. Labour has weak bargaining power.

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Text Book Back Questions and Answers

12th Bio Botany 1st Lesson Question 1.
Choose the correct statement from the following
(a) Gametes are involved in asexual reproduction
(b) Bacteria reproduce asexually by budding
(c) Conidia formation is a method of sexual reproduction
(d) Yeast reproduce by budding
Answer:
(c) Conidia formation is a method of sexual reproduction

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Bio Botany Question 2.
An eminent Indian embryologist is ____________
(a) S.R. Kashyap
(b) P. Maheswari
(c) M.S. Swaminathan
(d) K.C. Mehta
Answer:
(b) P. Maheswari

12th Bio Botany Chapter 1 Question 3.
Identity the correctly matched pair ____________
(a) Tuber – Allium cepa
(b) Sucker – Pistia
(c) Rhizome – Musa
(d) Stolon – Zingiber
Answer:
(c) Rhizome – Musa

12th Botany 1st Lesson Question 4.
Pollen tube was discovered by ____________
(a) J.G. Kolreuter
(b) G.B. Amici
(c) E. Strasburger
(d) E. Hanning
Answer:
(b) G.B. Amici

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Botany Question 5.
Size of pollen grain in Myosotis ____________
(a) 10 micrometer
(b) 20 micrometer
(c) 200 micrometer
(d) 2000 micrometer
Answer:
(a) 10 micrometer

Botany Class 12 Chapter 1 Question 6.
First cell of male gametophyte in angiosperm is ____________
(a) Microspore
(b) Megaspore
(c) Nucleus
(d) Primary Endosperm Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Microspore

Botany Chapter 1 Class 12 Question 7.
Match the following ____________
(I) External fertilization – (i) pollen grain
(II) Androecium – (ii) anther wall
(III) Male gametophyte – (iii) algae
(IV) Primary parietal layer – (iv) stamens
(a) I-(iv); II-(i); III-(ii); IV-(iii)
(b) I-(iii); II-(iv); III-(ii); IV-(i)
(c) l-(iii); II-(iv); III-(ii); IV-(i)
(d) I-(iii); II-(i); III-(iv); IV-(ii)
Answer:
(b) I-(iii); II-(iv); III-(ii); IV-(i)

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Bio Botany Solutions Question 8.
Arrange the layers of anther wall from locus to periphery
(a) Epidermis,middle layers, tapetum, endothecium
(b) Tapetum, middle layers, epidermis, endothecium
(c) Endothecium, epidermis, middle layers, tapetum
(d) Tapetum, middle layers endothecium epidermis
Answer:
(d) Tapetum, middle layers endothecium epidermis

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Botany Book Back Answers Question 9.
Identify the incorrect pair
(a) sporopollenin – exine of pollen grain
(b) tapetum – nutritive tissue for developing microspores
(c) Nucellus – nutritive tissue for developing embryo
(d) obturator – directs the pollen tube into micropyle
Answer:
(c) Nucellus – nutritive tissue for developing embryo

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Solutions Question 10.
Assertion : Sporopollenin preserves pollen in fossil deposits
Reason : Sporopollenin is resistant to physical and biological decomposition
(a) assertion is true; reason is false
(b) assertion is false; reason is true
(c) Both Assertion and reason are not true
(d) Both Assertion and reason are true.
Answer:
(b) assertion is false; reason is true

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Biology Question 11.
Choose the correct statement(s) about tenuinucellate ovule
(a) Sporogenous cell is hypodermal
(b) Ovules have fairly large nucellus
(c) sporogenous cell is epidermal
(d) ovules have single layer of nucellus tissue
Answer:
(a) Sporogenous cell is hypodermal

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Guide Question 12.
Which of the following represent megagametophyte ____________
(a) Ovule
(b) Embryo sac
(c) Nucellus
(d) Endosperm
Answer:
(b) Embryo sac

12th Botany Samacheer Kalvi Question 13.
In Haplopappus gracilis, number of chromosomes in cells of nucellus is 4. What will be the chromosome number in Primary endosperm cell?
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 6
(d) 2
Answer:
(b) 12

Question 14.
Transmitting tissue is found in
(a) Micropylar region of ovule
(b) Pollen tube wall
(c) Stylar region of gynoecium
(d) Integument
Answer:
(c) Stylar region of gynoecium

Question 15.
The scar left by funiculus in the seed is ____________
(a) tegmen
(b) radicle
(c) epicotyl
(d) hilum
Answer:
(d) hilum

Question 16.
A Plant called X possesses small flower with reduced perianth and versatile anther. The probable agent for pollination would be ____________
(a) water
(b) air
(c) butterflies
(d) beetles
Answer:
(b) air

Question 17.
Consider the following statement(s)

1. In Protandrous flowers pistil matures earlier
2. In Protogynous flowers pistil matures earlier
3. Herkogamy is noticed in unisexual flowers
4. Distyly is present in Primula

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) ii and Hi are correct
(d) i and iv are correct
Answer:
(b) ii and iv are correct

Question 18.
Coelorhiza is found in ____________
(a) Paddy
(b) Bean
(c) Pea
(d) Tridax
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 19.
Parthenocarpic fruits lack ____________
(a) Endocarp
(b) Epicarp
(c) Mesocarp
(d) seed
Answer:
(d) seed

Question 20.
In majority of plants pollen is liberated at ____________
(a) 1 celled stage
(b) 2 celled stage
(c) 3 celled stage
(d) 4 celled stage
Answer:
(b) 2 celled stage

Question 21.
What is reproduction?
Answer:
Reproduction is the biological process of producing young ones of their own kind. It is a vital process for the existence of a species and it also brings suitable changes through variation in tlie offsprings for their survival on earth.

Question 22.
Mention the contribution of Hofmeister towards Embryology.
Answer:
Hofmeister described the structure of pollen tetrad

Question 23.
List out two sub-aerial stem modifications with example.
Answer:

1. Stolon – E.g.: Fragaria
2. Sucker – E.g.: Chrysanthemum

Question 24.
What is layering?
Answer:
Layering is a conventional propagation method, where the stem of a parent plant is allowed to develop roots while still intact. When the root develops, the rooted part is cut and planted to grow as a raw individual. E.g.: Jasminum.

Question 25.
What are clones?
Answer:
Individuals developed by asexual reproduction are morphologically and genetically identical. Such individuals are called as clones.

Question 26.
A detached leaf of Bryophyllum produces new plants. How?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, the leaf is succulent and notched on its margin. Adventious buds develop at these notches and are called epiphyllous buds. They develop into new plants forming a root system and become independent plants when the leaf gets decayed.

Question 27.
Differentiate Grafting and Layering.
Answer:
Grafting:

1. In grafting, two different plants (stock & scion) are used to develop new plant.
2. The new plant will support to possess the characters of both the parents or new variation can be noticed.

Layering:

1. In layering, only one plant is used to develop new plant.
2. Variation cannot be expected. The new individual is exactly similar to parent plant.

Question 28.
Tissue culture is the best method for propagating rare and endangered plant species”- Discuss.
Answer:
Micropropagation of plants invitro through tissue culturing is a modem and alternative tool to conserve and safeguard rare plant species. Since the basic principle behind PTC is totipotency. With the help of a single explant it is possible to generate a huge population of plantlets within a short span of time. Conservation through micropropagation offers the possibility to rescue endangered and endemic species.

Question 29.
Distinguish mound layering and air layering
Answer:
Mound Layering:
In mound layering, lower flexible branch with leaves is bent to ground and a part of the stem is buried in the soil and the tip of branch is exposed above the soil. After the roots emerge from the buried stem, a cut is made in parent plant so that the buried plant grows into a new plant.

Air Layering:
In air layering, the stem is girdled at nodal part and hormones are applied and covered with moist soil using polythene sheet. Roots emerge in these branches after 2-4 months. Such branches are removed from parent plant and grown separately.

Question 30.
Explain the conventional methods adopted in vegetative propagation of higher plants.
Answer:
The common methods of conventional propagation are cutting, grafting and layering.
a. Cutting: It is the method of producing a new plant by cutting the plant parts such as root, stem and leaf from the parent plant. The cut part is placed in a suitable medium for growth. It produces root and grows into a new plant. Depending upon the part used it is called as root cutting (Malus), stem cutting (Hibiscus, Bougainvillea and Moringa) and leaf cutting (Begonia, Bryophyllum). Stem cutting is widely used for propagation.

b. Grafting: In this, parts of two different plants are joined so that they continue to grow as one plant. Of the two plants, the plant which is in contact with the soil is called stock and the plant used for grafting is called scion. Examples are Citrus, Mango and Apple. There are different types of grafting based on the method of uniting the scion and stock. They are bud grafting, approach grafting, tongue grafting, crown grafting and wedge grafting.

(i) Bud grafting: AT- shaped incision is made in the stock and the bark is lifted. The scion bud with little wood is placed in the incision beneath the bark and properly bandaged with a tape.

(ii) Approach grafting: In this method both the scion and stock remain rooted. The stock is grown in a pot and it is brought close to the scion. Both of them should have the same thickness. A small slice is cut from both and the cut surfaces are brought near and tied together and held by a tape. After 1-4 weeks the tip of the stock and base of the scion are cut off and detached and grown in a separate pot.

(iii) Tongue grafting: A scion and stock having the same thickness is cut obliquely and the scion is fit into the stock and bound with a tape.

(iv) Crown grafting: When the stock is large in size scions are cut into wedge shape and are
inserted on the slits or clefts of the stock and fixed in position using graft wax.

(v) Wedge grafting: In this method a slit is made in the stock or the bark is cut. A twig of scion is inserted and tightly bound so that the cambium of the two is joined.

c. Layering: In this method, the stem of a parent plant is allowed to develop roots while still intact. When the root develops, the rooted part is cut and planted to grow as a new plant.
Examples: Ixora mdJasminum Mound layering and Air layering are few types of layering.

(i) Mound layering: This method is applied for the plants having flexible branches. The lower branch with leaves is bent to the ground and part of the stem is buried in the soil and tip of ( the branch is exposed above the soil. After the roots emerge from the part of the stem buried in the soil, a cut is made in parent plant so that the buried part grow into a new plant.

(ii) Air layering: In this method the stem is girdled at nodal region and hormones are applied to this region which promotes rooting. This portion is covered with damp or moist soil using a ; polythene sheet. Roots emerge in these branches after 2-4 months. Such branches are removed-from the parent plant and grown in a separate pot or ground.

Question 31.
Highlight the milestones from the history of plant embryology.
Milestones in Plant Embryology
Answer:

1. 1682 – Nehemiah Grew mentioned stamens as the male organ of a flower.
2. 1694 – R.J. Camerarius described the structure of a flower, anther, pollen and ovule
3. 1761 – J.G. Kolreuter gave a detailed account on the importance of insects in pollination.
4. 1824 – G.B. Amici discovered the pollen tube.
5. 1848 – Hofmeister described the structure of pollen tetrad.
6. 1870 – Hanstein described the development of embryo in Capsella and Alisma.
7. 1878 – E. Strasburger reported polyembryony.
8. 1884 – E. Strasburger discovered the process of Syngamy.
9. 1899 – S.G. Nawaschin and L. Guignard independently discovered Double fertilization.
10. 1904- E. Hanning initiated embryo culture.
11. 1950 – D.A. Johansen proposed classification for embryo development.
12. 1964 – S. Guha and S.C. Maheswari raised haploids from Datura pollen grains
13. 1991 – E.S. Coen and E.M. Meyerowitz proposed the ABC model to describe the genetics of initiation and development of floral parts
14. 2015 – K.V. Krishnamurthy summarized the molecular aspects of pre and post fertilization reproductive development in flowering plants

Question 32.
Discuss the importance of Modern methods in reproduction of plants.
Answer:
Advantages of modern methods

1. Plants with desired characteristics can be multiplied rapidly in a short duration.
2. Plants produced are genetically identical.
3. Tissue culture can be carried out in any season to produce plants.
4. Plants which do not produce viable seeds and seeds that are difficult to germinate can be propagated by tissue culture.
5. Rare and endangered plants can be propagated.
6. Disease free plants can be produced by meristem culture.
7. Cells can be genetically modified and transformed using tissue culture.

Question 33.
What is Cantharophily?
Answer:
Pollination carried out by beetles is said to be cantharophily.

Question 34.
List any two strategy adopted by bisexual flowers to prevent self-pollination.
Answer:
(a) Protandry or protogyny
(b) Herkogamy

Question 35.
What is endothelium?
Answer:
In Asteraceae species, the inner layer of integument get specialized for nourishing the embryosac and this is called integumentary tapetum or endothelium.

Question 36.
“The endosperm of angiosperm is different from gymnosperm”. Do you agree. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Endosperm of Angiosperm:

1. Develops as a s result of double fertilization.
2. Endosperm is generally triploid (polyploid).

Endosperm of Gymnosperm:

1. Develops before the fertilization process.
2. Endosperm is haploid.

Question 37.
Define the term Diplospory.
Answer:
Diplospory is a condition where a diploid embryosac is formed from megaspore mother cells without a regular meiotic division.
E.g: Eupatorium.

Question 38.
What is polyembryony. How it can commercially exploited.
Answer:
Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony.

1. Embryos developed through polyembryony are found virus free.
2. The seedlings formed from nuclear tissue in citrus are found on better clones for orchards.

Question 39.
Why does the zygote divides only after the division of Primary endosperm cell.
Answer:
The primary endosperm nuclear (PEN) divides prior to zygotic division and form endosperm. Endosperm acts as a nutritive tissue and nourishes the developing embryo.

Question 40.
What is Mellitophily?
Answer:
Pollination carried out by Bees is said to be mellitophily.

Question 41.
“Endothecium is associated with dehiscence of anther” Justify the statement.
Answer:
The inner tangential wall develops bands (sometimes radial walls also) of a cellulose (sometimes also slightly lignified). The cells are hygroscopic. The cells along the junction of the two sporangia of an anther lobe lack these thickenings. This region is called stomium. This region along with the hygroscopic nature of endothecium helps in the dehiscence of anther at maturity.

Question 42.
List out the functions of tapetum.
Answer:

1. It supplies nutrition to the developing microspores.
2. It contributes sporopollenin through ubisch bodies thus plays an important role in pollen wall formation.
3. The pollenkitt material is contributed by tapetal cells and is later transferred to the pollen surface.
4. Exine proteins responsible for ‘rejection reaction’ of the stigma are present in the cavities of the exine. These proteins are derived from tapetal cells.

Question 43.
Write short note on Pollenkitt.
Answer:
Pollenkitt is contributed by the tapetum and coloured yellow or orange and is chiefly made of carotenoids or flavonoids. It is an oily layer forming a thick viscous coating over pollen surface. It attracts insects and protects damage from UV radiation.

Question 44.
Distinguish tenuinucellate and crassinucellate ovules.
Answer:
Tenuinucellate Ovule:

1.  Ovules with hypodermal sporogerous cell with unilayerd nucellus tissue is called tenuinucellate type.
2. They have very small nucellus

Crassinucellate Ovule:

1. Ovule with subhypodermal sporogenous cell is called crassinucellate type.
2. They have large nucellus

Question 45.
‘Pollination in Gymnosperms is different from Angiosperms’ – Give reasons.
Answer:
In gymnosperms, the ovules are exposed and the pollens are deposited directly on it. Hence the pollution is direct in gymnosperm. Whereas in angiosperms it is said to be indirect, as the pollens are deposited on stigma or the pistil.

Question 46.
Write short note on Heterostyly.
Answer:
Heterostyly: Some plants produce two or three different forms of flowers that are different in their length of stamens and style. Pollination will take place only between organs of the same lepgth.
E.g: Primula.

Question 47.
Enumerate the characteristic features of Entomophilous flowers.
Answer:
The characteristic features of entomophilous flowers are as follows:

1. Flowers are generally large or if small they are aggregated in dense inflorescence. Example: Asteraceae flowers.
2. Flowers are brightly coloured. The adjacent parts of the flowers may also be brightly coloured to attract insect. For example in Poinsettia and Bougainvillea the bracts become coloured.
3. Flowers are scented and produce nectar.
4. Flowers in which there is no secretion of nectar, the pollen is either consumed as food or used in building up of its hive by the honeybees. Pollen and nectar are the floral rewards for the visitors.
5. Flowers pollinated by flies and beetles produce foul odour to attract pollinators.
6. In some flowers juicy cells are present which are pierced and the contents are sucked by the insects.

Question 48.
Discuss the steps involved in Microsporogenesis.
Answer:
Microsporogenesis: The stages involved in the formation of haploid microspores from diploid microspore mother cell through meiosis is called Microsporogenesis. The primary sporogeneous cells directly, or may undergo a few mitotic divisions to form sporogenous tissue. The last generation of sporogenous tissue functions as microspore mother cells.

Each microspore mother cell divides meiotically to form a tetrad of four haploid microspores (microspore tetrad). Microspores soon separate from one another and remain free in the anther locule and develop into pollen grains.

Question 49.
With a suitable diagram explain the structure of an ovule.
Answer:
Structure of ovule(Megasporangium):

Ovule is also called megasporangium and is protected by one or two covering called integuments. A mature ovule consists of a Raphe stalk and a body. The stalk or the funiculus (also called funicle) is present at the base and it attaches the ovule to the placenta. The point of attachment of funicle to the body of the ovule is known as hilum. It represents the junction ovule and funicle. In an inverted ovule, the funicle is adnate to the body of the ovule forming a ridge called raphe. The body of the ovule is made up of a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called nucellus which has large reserve food materials. The nucellus is enveloped by one or two protective coverings called integuments. Integument encloses the nucellus completely except at the top where it is free and forms a pore called micropyle.

The ovule with one or two integuments are said to be unitegmic or bitegmic ovules respectively. The basal region of the body of the ovule where the nucellus, the integument and the funicle meet or merge is called chalaza. There is a large, oval, sac-like structure in the nucellus toward the micropylar end called embryo sac or female gametophyte. It develops from the functional megaspore formed within the nucellus. In some species(unitegmic tenuinucellate) the inner layer of the integument may become specialized to perform the nutritive function for the embryo sac and is called as endothelium or integumentary tapetum (Example : Asteraceae).

Question 50.
Give a concise account on steps involved in fertilization of an angiosperm plant.
Answer:
Steps involved in fertilization of angiospermic plant:

1. Germination of pollen grain on stigma.
2. Formation of pollen tube in stigma.
3. Growth of pollen tube inside the style.
4. Direction of pollen tube towards the micropyle of ovule.
5. Entry of pollen tube into the synergid of embryo sac.
6. Discharge of male gametes from the pollen tube.
7. Fusion of male gamete with egg cell (syngany)
8. Fusion of second male gamete with polar nuclei (triple fusion/double

Question 51.
What is endosperm? Explain the types.
Answer:
1. Endosperm: The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides immediately after fertilization but before the zygote starts to divide, into an endosperm. The primary endosperm nucleus is the result of triple fusion (two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus) and thus has 3n number of chromosomes. It is a nutritive tissue and regulatory structure that nourishes the developing embryo. Depending upon the mode of development three types of endosperm are recognized in angiosperms. They are nuclear endosperm, cellular endosperm and helobial endosperm.

2. Nuclear endosperm: Primary Endosperm Nucleus undergoes several mitotic divisions without cell As, wall formation thus a free nuclear condition exists in the endosperm.
Examples: Coccinia, Capsella and Arachis.

3. Cellular endosperm: Primary endosperm nucleus divides into 2 nuclei and it is immediately followed by wall formation. Subsequent divisions also follow cell wall formation.
Examples: Adoxa, Helianthus and Scoparia.

4. Helobial endosperm: Primary Endosperm Nucleus moves towards base of embryo sac and divides into two nuclei. Cell wall formation takes place leading to the formation of a large micropylar and small chalazal chamber. The nucleus of the micropylar chamber undergoes several free nuclear division whereas that of chalazal chamber may or may not divide.
Examples : Hydrilla and Vallisneria.

5. Ruminate endosperm: The endosperm with irregularity and unevenness in its surface forms ruminate endosperm. Examples : Areca catechu, Passiflora and Myristica

Question 52.
Differentiate the structure of Dicot and Monocot seed
Answer:
Dicot Seed:

1. Possess two cotyledons
2. Absence of coleoptile and coleorhiza
3. Endosperm is scarce or absent

Monocot Seed:

1. Possess only one cotyledon
2. Presence of coleoptile and colerhiza surrounding plumule and radicle respectively.
3. Endosperm from the major storage tissue.

Question 53.
Give a detailed account on parthenocarpy. Add a note on its significance.
Answer:
In some plants, fruit like structures may develop from the ovary without the act of fertilization. Such fruits are called parthenocarpic fruits. Invariably they will not have true seeds. Many commercial fruits are made seedless.
Examples: Banana, Grapes and Papaya.Nitsch in 1963 classified the parthenocarpy into following types:

1. Genetic Parthenocarpy: Parthenocarpy arises due to hybridization or mutation.
   Examples: Citrus,Cucurbita.
2. Environmental Parthenocarpy: Environmental conditions like frost, fog, low temperature, high temperature etc., induce Parthenocarpy. For example, low temperature for 3-19 hours induces parthenocarpy in Pear. Chemically
3. induced Parthenocarpy: Application of growth promoting substances like Auxins and Gibberellins induces parthenocarpy.
4. Significance: The seedless fruits have great significance in horticulture.
   • The seedless fruits have great commercial importance.
   • Seedless fruits are useful for the preparation of jams, jellies, sauces, fruit drinks etc.
   • High proportion of edible part is available in parthenocarpic fruits due to the absence of seeds.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Bio Botany Asexual and Sexual Reproduction in Plants Additional Questions and Answers

1 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Match the following:
(1) Conidia – (i) Yeast
(2) Budding – (ii) Bacteria
(3) Gemma cups – (iii) Aspergilus
(4) Binary fission – (iv) Marchantia
(a) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (iii), 4 – (i)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (ii), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iv)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (iii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)

Question 2.
The unit of reproductive structure used in vegetative propagation is called as
(a) Diplospores
(b) Aplanospores
(c) Diaspores
(d) Condiospores
Answer:
(c) Diaspores

Question 3.
Which of the following aquatic plant is popularly known as the “Terror of Bengal”?
(a) Eichornia crassipes
(b) Vallisneria spiralis
(c) Pistia stratiotes
(d) Zostera marina
Answer:
(a) Eichornia crassipes

Question 4.
Identify the incorrect statement regarding vegetative reproduction.
Answer:
(a) Only one parent is required for propagation.
(b) New individuals are genetically dissimilar.
(c) Easy mode of reproduction.
(d) Variation does not exist.
Answer:
(b) New individuals are genetically dissimilar.

Question 5.
The genetic ability of a plant cell to produce the entire plant is said to be
(a) Multipotency
(b) Totipotency
(c) Pleuripotency
(d) Differentiation
Answer:
(b) Totipotency

Question 6.
A typical anther is
(a) Bisporangiate
(b) Tetrasporangiate
(c) Unisporangiate
(d) Multisporangiate
Answer:
(b) Tetrasporangiate

Question 7.
Match the following:
Vegetative Reproductive structures

(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (iii), 4 – (i)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (ii), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iv)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 8.
Innermost layer of anther wall is
(a) Endothecium
(b) Endothecum
(c) Endothelium
(d) Tapetum
Answer:
(d) Tapetum

Question 9.
Identify the mismatched pair:
(a) Epidermal layer – Protective infunction
(b) Endothecium layer – Helps in dehiscence of anther
(c) Middle layer – Persistent layer
(d) Tapetum – Nutritive in function
Answer:
(c) Middle layer – Persistent layer

Question 10.
Name the person who discovered the pollen tube?
(a) E.Strasburger
(b) Hofineister
(c) Nehemiah Grew
(d) G.B.Amici
Answer:
(d) G.B.Amici

Question 11.
Identify the mismatched pair
(i) Sucker – Chrysanthemum
(ii) Bulbils – Agave
(iii) Stolon – Fragaria
(iv) Runner – Lilium
(a) i only (b) ii only (c) iii only (d) iv only
Answer:
(d) iv only

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Epidermis is protective in function.
Reason (R): Epidermis is outermost unilayer of anther wall.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
(b) R explains A.
Answer:
(b) R explains A.

Question 13.
Assertion (A) : Microspores are the first cell of male gametophyte.
Reason (R) : Microspores undergo development and forms pollen grains.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(b) R explains A.

Question 14.
Assertion (A) : Carica papaya is a dioecious plant.
Reason (R): Both male and female flowers are borne on same plant.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.

Question 15.
Assertion (A) : Anemophilous pollination occurs by animals.
Reason (R) : Pollen grains are sticky for easy attachment on animals.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.

Question 16.
Assertion (A) : Fusion of male and female gametes results in zygote.
Reason (R): Product of triple fusion is PEN.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.

Question 17.
Assertion (A) : Zea mays is a monocotyledonous plant.
Reason (R) : Shield shaped cotyledon is called scutellum.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(b) R explain A.

Question 18.
Assertion (A) : In Bryophyllum, vegetative propagation occurs through leaf.
Reason (R) : Epiphyllous buds are noticed in Bryophyllum.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect.
(b) R explains A.
(c) Both A and R are incorrect.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A.
Answer:
(b) R explain A.

Question 19.
Assertion (A): Androecium and Gynoecium are essential whorls of flower
Reason (R) : Androecium and Gynoecium assist the reproduction.
(a) A is correct R is incorrect
(b) R explains A
(c) Both A and R are incorrect
(d) Both A and R are correct. R does not explain A
Answer:
(a) A is correct R is incorrect

Question 20.
Identify the correct statement.
(a) Grafting is a modem method of artificial propagation.
(b) The plant which is used for graft is scion.
(c) In tongue grafting, the scion bud is placed inside the incision beneath bark.
(d) Grafting is usually carried out in monocot plants.
Answer:
(b) The plant which is used for graft is scion.

Question 21.
Statement 1: Flower is a highly condensed shoot for reproductive purpose.
Statement 2: A complete flower possess four whorls.
(a) Both the statements are incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) Both the statements are correct.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct.

Question 22.
Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) One seeded fruit of paddy is caryopsis.
(b) Primitive root is called coleorhiza.
(c) Sctellum is a part of monocot seed.
(d) Embryonic axis above the cotyledon is epicotyl.
Answer:
(b) Primitive root is called coleorhiza.

Question 23.
Cleavage polyembryony is noticed in
(a) Orchids
(b) Casuarina
(c) Balanophora
(d) Syzygium
Answer:
(a) Orchids

Question 24.
Pick out the non-spermous seed
(a) Wheat
(b) Sunflower
(c) Bean
(d) Orchids
Answer:
(c) Bean

Question 25.
The type of endosperm noticed in Hydrilla seed
(a) Ruminate endosperm
(b) Nuclear endosperm
(c) Cellular endosperm
(d) Helobial endosperm
Answer:
(b) Nuclear endosperm

Question 26.
Which is note a part of mature seed?
(a) Funiculus
(b) Testa and tegma
(c) hilm
(d) Chalaza
Answer:
(d) Chalaza

Question 27.
Select the wrong statement(s) regarding cross pollination.
(a) Pollination depends on external agent and so it is certain.
(b) New varieties are produced.
(c) Continuous cross pollination leads to weaker progeny.
(d) Germination capacity is highly declined.
(i) a and d
(ii) b and c
(iii) a, b and d
(iv) a, c and d
(iv) a, c and d
Answer:
(iv) a, c and d

Question 28.
Which of the following characters does not exist in Omithophilous flowers?
(a) Huge sized flowers
(b) Bright coloured
(c) Scented flowers
(d) Nectar is secreted in large
Answer:
(c) Scented flowers

Question 29.
Which of the following plant was introduced as a contaminant into India along with wheat?
(a) Parthenium hysterophorus
(b) Zea mays
(c) Rosaindica
(d) Mangifera indica
Answer:
(a) Parthenium hysterophorus

Question 30.
_____ is a carotenoid derivative of exine layer which provides resistance to pollen grains.
Answer:
Sporopollenin

Question 31.
The most common type of ovule noticed in dicots and monocots is ______
(a) Orthotropus
(b) Anatropous
(c) Campylotropus
(d) Amphitropous
Answer:
(b) Anatropous

Question 32.
Identity the incorrect statement.
(а) The stalk of the ovule is funiculus.
(b) Nucellus is composed of sclerenchymatous tissue.
(c) Basal region of the ovule is chalaza end.
(d) Micropyle is always oriented opposite to chalaza.
Answer:
(b) Nucellus is composed of sclerenchymatous tissue.

Question 33.
Generally the pollen grains are liberated from anther at
(a) 2-celled stage
(b) 4-celled stage
(c) 6-celled stage
(d) 8-celled stage
Answer:
(a) 2-celled stage

Question 34.
Assertion (A) : Self – pollination is certain in cleistogamous flowers.
Reason (R) : Flowers never open and do not expose reproductive organs.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect.
(b) A is correct R is incorrect.
(c) R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not correct explanation for A.
Answer:
(c) R explains A.

Question 35.
Assertion (A): Entamophily is the most common type of pollination.
Reason (R) : Birds and animals brings out effective pollination.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect.
(b) A is correct R is incorrect.
(c) R explains A.
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not a correct explanation for A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct. R is not a correct explanation for A.

Question 36.
Statement 1: Primary sporogenous cell functions as megaspore mother cell.
Statement 2: Megaspore mother cell undergoes mitotic division producing megaspores.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(a) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.

Question 37.
Statement 1: Apomixis does not involve meiosis and syngamy.
Statement 2: The term Apomixis was introduced by Winkler.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Question 38.
Statement 1: The pollen grains are deposited on the receptive surface of style.
Statement 2: After landing, the first visible change in pollen is hydration.
(a) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect.
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.
(c) Both the statements 1 and 2 are correct.
(d) Both the statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
Answer:
(b) Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

Question 39.
Which of the following post fertilization change is incorrectly matched?
(a) Secondary nucellus – Endosperms
(b) Antipodals – Degenerates
(c) Nucellus – Testa and tegma
(d) Funicle – Seed stalk
Answer:
(c) Nucellus – Testa and tegma Identify the parthenocarpic fruit

Question 40.
Identify the parthenocarpic
(a) Banana
(b) Pear
(c) Papaya
(d) More than one option is correct
Answer:
(d) More than one option is correct

Question 41.
A mature angiospermic embryo sac is
(a) 8 celled and 8 nucleated
(b) 7 celled and 8 nucleated
(c) 8 celled and 7 nucleated
(d) 7 celled and 8 nucleated
Answer:
(A) 7 celled and 8 nucleated

Question 42.
Identify the type of ovule, where the nucellus acquires a horse-shoe shaped structure.
(a) Anatropus
(b) Hemianatropus
(c) Campylotropus
(d) Amphitropus
Answer:
(d) Amphitropus

Question 43
(a) 1 egg cell and 2 anti
(b) 1 egg cell and 2 polar nuclei
(c) 1 egg cell and 1 secondary nuycleus
(d) 1 egg cell and 2 synergids
Answer:
(d) 1 egg cell and 2 synergids

Question 44.
Match the following :
(1) Hemianatropous
(2) Circinotropus
(3) Campylotropus
(4) Anatropous

Question 45.
Product of triple fusion is
(a) PEN
(b) PEG
(c) PVC
(d) PPT
Answer:
(a) PEN

Question 46.
Ex-albuminous seeds are
(a) Pea, castor, paddy
(b) Paddy, Coconut, Groundnut
(c) Beans, coconut, castor
(d) Groundnut, pea, beans
Answer:
(d) Groundnut, pea, beans

Question 47.
The white edible part of coconut is…
(a) Epicarp
(b) Endosperm
(c) Embryo
(d) Mesocarp
Answer:
(b) Endosperm

Question 48.
Observe the diagram and select the correct option mentioning the parts A,B,C and D.


Answer:
(b) (A) Plumule, (B) Cotyledon, (C) Testa, (D) Radicle

Question 49.


Answer:
(d) (A) Hemiamphitropus, (B) Campylotropus, (c) Amphitropus, (d) Circinotropus

Question 50.
Attractants and rewards are required for.
(а) Anemophily
(b) Entamophily
(c) Malacophily
(d) Cheiropterophily
Answer:
(b) Entamophily

Question 51.
Filiform apparatus is a special cellular thickening which is seen in
(a) Antipodals
(b) Polar nuclei
(c) Nucellus
(d) Synergids
Answer:
(d) Synergids

Question 52.
In anatropous ovule, the micropyle faces
(a) Right side
(b) Leftside
(c) Upward
(d) Downward
Answer:
(d) Downward

Question 53.
Observe the diagram and select the correct option mentioning the parts A,B,C and D.

Answer:
(A) Synergid, (B) Egg, (C) polar nuclei, (D) Antipodals

Question 54.
Identify the correct adaptation that checks autogamy
(a) Homogamy
(b) Cleistogamy
(c) Herkogamy
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Herkogamy

Question 55.
In monoecious plants,
(a) Both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented
(b) Both autogamy and geitonogamy are takes place
(c) Autogamy takes place preventing geitonogamy
(d) Autogamy is prevented whereas geitonogamy takes place
Answer:
(d) Autogamy is prevented whereas geitonogamy takes place

Question 56.
Antipodals are located at of embryo sac.
Answer:
Chalazal end

Question 57.
Identify the correct sequence of anther wall layers from periphery towards core part.
(a) Epidermis → endothelium → stomium → tapetum
(b) Epidermis → middle layer → endothecium → endothelium
(c) Epidermis → endothelium → middle layers → tapetum
(d) Epidermis → endothelium → endothecium → tapetum
Answer:
(c) Epidermis → endothelium → middle layers → tapetum

Question 58.
The proteins responsible for rejection reaction present in exine cavities of pollen is a- derivative of.
(a) Stomium
(b) Endothecium
(c) Tapetum
(d) Ubisch bodies
Answer:
(c) Tapetum

Question 59.
Pick out the mismatched pair:
(a) Entamophily – Insects
(b) Malacophily – Mammals
(c) Cheiropterophily – Bats
(d) Omithophily – Birds
Answer:
(b) Malacophily – Mammals

Question 60.
Which is the most common type of style seen in monocots?
(a) Open type
(b) Closed type
(c) Solid type
(d) Half closed type
Answer:
(a) Open type

2 – Mark Questions

Question 1.
Write the names of organisms that undergo the following types of asexual reproduction.
(a) Budding
(b) fragmentation
(c) Regeneration
(d) Gemma cup formation.
Answer:
(a) Budding – Hydra
(b) Fragmentation – Spirogyra
(c) Regeneration – Planaria
(d) Gemma cup formation – Marchantia

Question 2.
What are diaspores?
Answer:
The unit of reproductive structures used in vegetative propagation is called diaspore or reproductive propagules.

Question 3.
Name the vegetative propagules of the following plants.
(a) Allium cepa
(b) Zingiber officinalis
(c) Agave
(d) Colocasia
Answer:
(a) Allium cepa – Bulb
(b) Zingiber officinalis – Rhizome
(c) Agave – Bulbils
(d) Colocasia – Corm

Question 4.
Point out the advantages of natural vegetative reproduction.
Answer:
(a) Only one parent is required.
(b) New individuals are genetically similar
(c) Rapid spreading
(d) Large scale production

Question 5.
Mention any two conventional propagation techniques.
Answer:
(a) Cutting
(b) Grafting.

Question 6.
What do you mean by terms‘stock’and‘scion’in grafting technique?
Answer:
In Grafting, parts of two different plants are joined so that they continue to grow as one plant. Of the two plants, the plant which is in contact with the soil is called stock and the plant used for grafting is called scion.

Question 7.
Name any four types of grafting.
Answer:
(a) Bud grafting
(b) Tongue grafting
(c) Crown grafting
(d) Wedge grafting

Question 8.
Define totipotency.
Answer:
The genetic ability of a plant cell to produce the entire plant under suitable conditions is said to be totipotency.

Question 9.
What are the term micropropogation refers to?
Answer:
The regeneration of a whole plant from single cell, tissue or small pieces of vegetative structures through tissue culture is called micropropagation. It is one of the modem methods used to propagate plants.

Question 10.
Name the four whorls of a typical flower.
Answer:
(a) Calyx
(b) Corolla
(c) Androecium
(d) Gynoecium

Question 11.
Write any four valid points on Androecium
Answer:
(a) Androecium is the male part of a flower
(b) It is made up of stamens
(c) Each stamen possess anther and a filament
(d) Anthers bear pollen grains (male gametophyte)

Question 12.
What is poilinium? Give example.
Answer:
In some plants, all the microspores in a microsporangium remain held together called poilinium.
Example: Calotropis.

Question 13.
Name the four anther wall layers.
Answer:
(a) Epidermis
(b) Endothecium
(c) Middle layers
(d) Tapetum

Question 14.
Tapetum is dual in origin – Justify.
Answer:
Tapetum is derived partly from peripheral anther wall layer and partly from the connective tissue of anther lining the anther locule. Hence it is said to dual in origin.

Question 15.
Name the two types of tapetum. Mention any one function of tapetum.
Answer:
Tapetum are of two types. Secretory tapetum and Invasive tapetum. Tapetum nourishes the pollen grains.

Question 16.
Differentiate between Exine and Intine layers of pollen grain.
Answer:
Exine:

1. Thick outer layers
2. It is made of cellulose, sporopollenin and pollenkitt.
3. Ununiform layer

Intine:

1. Thin inner layer
2. It is made up of pectin, hemicellulose, cellulose and callose
3. Uniform layer

Question 17.
What are the chemical components that make up the wall layers of pollen grains?
Answer:
Pectin, cellulose, hemicellulose, callose, sporopollenin, pollenkitt and other proteins.

Question 18.
Draw and label the structure of a typical pollen grain
Answer:

Question 19.
At which cellular stage, does the pollen grains are usually liberated from anther? What happens to the generative cell if the pollen reaches the stigma?
Answer:
In general, the pollen grains are liberated at 2 – celled stage. On reaching the stigma at this stage, the generative cell divides meiotically and form two male gametes (male cells)

Question 20.
Write the equivalent botanical terms for the following words / sentences.
(a) Landing platform of pollen
(b) Ovarian cavity
(c) Megasporangium
(d) Basal swollen part of pistil
Answer:
(a) Stigma
(b) Locule
(c) Ovule
(d) Ovary

Question 21.
What is Nucellus?
Answer:
The body of the ovule is made up of a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called nucellus which has large reserve food materials.

Question 22.
What is integumentary tapetum?
Answer:
In Asteraceae species, the inner layer of integument get specialized for nourishing the embryosac and this is called integumentary tapetum or endothelium.

Question 23.
Mention the types of ovule seen in the members of
Answer:
(a) Cactaceae
(b) Leguminosae
(c) Polygonaceae
(d) Primulaceae.
Answer:
(a) Cactaceae – Circinotropous ovule
(b) Leguminosae – Campylotropous ovule
(c) Polygonaceae – Orthotropous ovule
(d) Primulaceae. – Hemianatropous ovule

Question 24.
What does the term ‘Bisporic development of embryo sac’ refers to? Give example.
Answer:
In gynoecium, out of four megaspores formed, if two are involved in embryo sac formation then it is said to be bisporic embryo sac. E.g. Peperomia

Question 25.
State the role of filiform apparatus found in embryo sac of angiosperm.
Answer:
(a) Filiform apparatus helps in absorption conduction of nutrients from nucellus to embryo sac
(b) It guides the pollen tube into the egg.

Question 26.
What is pollination? Mention its types.
Answer:
The process of transfer of pollen grains from the anther to a stigma of a flower is called pollination. The pollination is classified into two kinds, namely, self-pollination (Autogamy) and cross pollination(Allogamy).

Question 27.
Why pollination in gymnosperm is said to be direct?
Answer:
Pollination in gymnosperms is said to be direct as the pollens are deposited directly on the exposed ovules.

Question 28.
Define Homogamy with an example
Answer:
When the stamens and stigma of a flower mature at the same time it is said to be homogamy. It favours self-pollination to occur. Example: Mirabilis jalapa.

Question 29.
What is cross – pollination? What are its types?
Answer:
Cross – pollination refers to the transfer of pollens on the stigma of another flower.
The cross-pollination is of two types:

1. Geitonogamy
2. Xenogamy.

Question 30.
Distinguish between monoecious and dioecious plants.
Answer:
Monoecious:
Male & Female flowers develop on the same plant.
E.g: Maize

Dioecious:
Male and Female flowers develop on different plants.
E.g: Papaya

Question 31.
Define the following terms.
(a) Protandry
(b) Protogyny
Answer:
(a) Protandry: The stamens mature earlier than stigma. E.g: Helianthus
(b) Protogyny: The stigma mature earlier than stamens. E.g: Aristolochia bracteata

Question 32.
What is Heterostyly? Give example.
Answer:
Heterostyly: Some plants produce two or three different forms of flowers that are different in their length of stamens and style. Pollination will take place only between organs of the same length. E.g: Primula.

Question 33.
How self-pollination is avoided in Abutilon?
Answer:
In Abutilon, the self-pollination is avoided by self sterility or self-incompatibility, in which if the pollen grain reaches the stigma of the same flower, it will be prevented from germination. It is a genetic mechanism.

Question 34.
Name the agents of the following types of pollination
(a) Anemophily
(b) Ornithophily
(c) Cheiropterophily
(d) Malacophily
Answer:
(a) Winds
(b) Birds
(c) Bats
(d) Snails and slugs

Question 35.
Give any four unique characters exhibited by anemophilous flowers.
Answer:
(a) Flowers are small and inconspicuous
(b) Colourless
(c) Non-scented
(d) No nectar secretion

Question 36.
How the pollen grains of Vallisneria protect themselves?
Answer:
Vallisneria is an aquatic plant. Pollen grains of vallisneria are covered by mucilage coating which protects them from wetting.

Question 37.
Point out the differences between anemophilous flowers and ornithophilous flowers.
Answer:

Question 38.
Mention any two disadvantages of self-pollination.
Answer:

• Continuous self-pollination, generation after generation results in weaker progeny.
• Chances of producing new species and varieties are meager.

Question 39.
What is pollen-pistil interaction?
Answer:
The events from pollen deposition on the stigma to the entry of pollen tube in to the ovule is called pollen – pistil interaction. It is a dynamic process which involves recognition of pollen and to promote or inhibit its germination and growth.

Question 40.
What are the major post fertilization events in a flower?
Answer:
Endosperm development, embryo development, seed formation and fruit formation.

Question 41.
What is perisperm? Give example.
Answer:
In some plants, the nucellar tissue is not utilized by the embryo completely, a small portion will remain as a storage tissue in the seed, which is called as perisperm.
E.g: Black Pepper.

Question 42.
What happens to the following floral parts, after the fertilization process?
(a) Ovary
(b) Secondary nucleus
(c) Outer integument of ovule
(d) Funicle
Answer:
(a) Ovary → Fruit
(b) Secondary nucleus → Endosperm
(c) Outer integument of ovule → Outer seed coat (Testa)
(d) Funicle → Stalk of the seed

Question 43.
What is the product of triple fusion? Mention its ploidy.
Answer:
The product of triple fusion is Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). It is triploid (3n) in condition.

Question 44.
Coconut is an albmunious seed. Why?
Answer:
Since coconut seed possess endosperm, it is called as albmunious seed. Endosperm nourishes the embryo during seed germination.

Question 45.
Name the various types of endosperms.
Answer:
(a) Nuclear Endosperm
(b) Helobial Endosperm
(c) Cellular Endosperm
(d) Ruminate Endosperm

Question 46.
What is scutellum?
Answer:
In monocot seeds, the embryo is small and consists of single shield-shaped cotyledon known as scutellum present towards lateral side of embryonal axis.

Question 47.
What is coleoptile and coleorhiza?
Answer:
In monocot embryo, the plumule is covered by a protective sheath called coleoptile and the radicle along with root cap is covered by a protective sheath called coleorhiza.

Question 48.
Who coined the term Apomixis? Define it.
Answer:
The term Apomixis was introduced by Winkler in the year 1908. It is defined as the substitution of the usual sexual system (Amphimixis) by a form of reproduction which does not involve meiosis and syngamy.

Question 49.
What are parthenocarpic fruits?
Answer:
In some plants, fruits develop from ovary without fertilization process. Such fruits are called parthenocarpic fruits. They lack true seeds.
E.g: Grapes.

3 – Mark Questions

Question 50.
How tongue grafting differs from wedge grafting?
Answer:
Tongue grafting:
In tongue grafting A scion and stock having the same thickness is cut obliquely and the scion is fit into the stock and bound with a tape.

Wedge grafting:
In wedge grafting a slit is made in the stock or the bark is cut. A twig of scion is inserted and tightly bound so that the cambium of the two is joined.

Question 51.
List any three advantages of micropropagation.
Answer:

1. Tissue culture can be carried out in any season to produce plants.
2. Plants which do not produce viable seeds and seeds that are difficult to germinate can be propagated by tissue culture.
3. Cells can be genetically modified and transformed using tissue culture.

Question 52.
Where the stomium is located? What is its role?
Answer:
In a mature anther, the cells along with junction or the two sporangia of an anther lobe lack cellulose and lignin thickening. This region is called stomium. Stomium along with hygroncopic nature of Endothecium helps in the dehiscence of anther at maturity.

Question 53.
Briefly explain about the types of tapetum.
Answer:
There are two types of tapetum based on its behaviour.
They are:
Secretory tapetum (parietal/glandular/ cellular): The tapetum retains the original position hnd cellular integrity and nourishes the developing microspores.

Invasive tapetum (periplasmodial): The cells loose their inner tangential and radial walls and the protoplast of all tapetal cells coalesces to form a periplasmodium.

Question 54.
Enumerate the functions of tapetum.
Answer:

1. It supplies nutrition to the developing microspores.
2. It contributes sporopollenin through ubisch bodies thus plays an important role in pollen wall formation.
3. The pollenkitt material is contributed by tapetal cells and is later transferred to the pollen surface.
4. Exine proteins responsible for ‘rejection reaction’ of the stigma are present in the cavities of the exine. These proteins are derived from tapetal cells.

Question 55.
State the significance of sporopollenin.
Answer:
The wall material sporopollenin is contributed by both pollen cytoplasm and tapetum. It is derived from carotenoids. It is resistant to physical and biological decomposition. It helps to withstand high temperature and is resistant to strong acid, alkali and enzyme action. Hence, it preserves the pollen for long periods in fossil deposits, and it also protects pollen during its journey from anther to stigma.

Question 56.
What do you know about bee pollen?
Answer:

1. Bee pollen is a natural substance with high proteins, carbohydrate and trace amount of vitamins and minerals.
2. It is used as dietary supplement as tablets.
3. It increases performance of athletes, race horses and also heals bum wounds.

Question 57.
Write a note on pollenkitt.
Answer:
Pollenkitt is contributed by the tapetum and coloured yellow or orange and is chiefly made of carotenoids or flavonoids. It is an oily layer forming a thick viscous coating over pollen surface. It attracts insects and protects damage from UV radiation.

Question 58.
Draw and label the structure of a mature embryo sac of angiosperm.
Answer:

Question 59.
How many synergid cells are there in an mature embryo sac. Mention any two major role of synergids.
Answer:
The egg apparatus possess two synergids.
Synergids secrete chemotropic substances that attracts the pollen tube.
Synergids also guides the pollen tube into the egg.

Question 60.
A mature female gametophyte (embryo sac / egg apparatus) of angiosperms is 7 celled with 8 nucleus. Name the individual cells and mention their count.
Answer:
(a) Egg – 1
(b) Secondary nucleus – 1
(c) Synergids – 2
(d) Antipodalcells – 3

Question 61.
Differentiate between chasmogamy and cleistogamy
Answer:
Chasmogamy:

1. In chasmogamy, the flowers opens and express its mature anthers and stigma for pollination.
2. Self-pollination is uncertain
3. Depend on pollinating agents
4. Example: Hibiscus

Cleistogamy:

1. In cleistogamy the pollination occurs without opening of flowers and exposing their sex organs.
2. Self pollination is certain.
3. No need of pollinating agents.
4. Example: Commelina

Question 62.
Geitonogamy is similar to autogamy. Justify the statement.
Answer:
When the pollen deposits on another flower of the same individual plant, it is said to be geitonogamy. It usually occurs in plants which show monoecious condition. It is functionally cross-pollination but is similar to autogamy because the pollen comes from same plant.

Question 63.
Explain the Herkogamy mechanism with suitable examples.
Answer:
In bisexual flowers the essential organs, the stamens and stigmas, are arranged in such a way that self-pollination becomes impossible. For example in Gloriosa superba, the style is reflexed away from the stamens and in Hibiscus the stigmas project far above the stamens.

Question 64.
Give a brief account on pollination process in Zea mays.
Answer:
The maize is monoecious and unisexual. The male inflorescence (tassel) is borne terminally and female inflorescence (cob) laterally at lower levels. Maize pollens are large and heavy and cannot be carried by light breeze. However, the mild wind shakes the male inflorescence to release the pollen which falls vertically below. The female inflorescence has long stigma (silk) measuring upto 23 cm in length, which projects beyond leaves. The pollens drop from the tassel is caught by the stigma.

Question 65.
Explain the role of water as a pollinating agent in Vallisneria spiralis.
Answer:
Pollination in Vallisneria spiralis: It is a dioecious, submerged and rooted hydrophyte. The female plant bears solitary flowers which rise to the surface of water level using a long coiled stalk at the time of pollination. A small cup shaped depression is formed around the female flower on the surface of the water.

The male plant produces male flowers which get detached and float on the surface of the water. As soon as a male flower comes in closer to a female flower, it gets settled in the depression and contacts with the stigma thus bringing out pollination. Later the stalk of the female flower coils and brings back the flower from surface to under water where fruits are produced.

Question 66.
Enumerate the characters of ornithophilous flowers.
Answer:
The ornithophilous flowers have the following characteristic features:

1. The flowers are usually large in size.
2. The flowers are tubular, cup shaped or um- shaped.
3. The flowers are brightly coloured, red, scarlet, pink, orange, blue and yellow which attracts the birds.
4. The flowers are scentless and produce nectar in large quantities. Pollen and nectar form the floral rewards for the birds visiting the flowers.
5. The floral parts are tough and leathery to withstand the powerful impact of the visitors.

Question 67.
How the flowers of salvia are adopted for mellitophily?
Answer:
Pollination in Salvia (Lever mechanism): The flower of Salvia is adapted for Bee pollination. The flower is protandrous and the corolla is bilabiate with 2 stamens. A lever mechanism helps in pollination. Each anther has an upper fertile lobe and lower sterile lobe which is separated by a long connective which helps the anthers to swing freely. When a bee visits a flower, it sits on the lower lip which acts as a platform. It enters the flower to suck the nectar by pushing its head into the corolla.

During the entry of the bee into the flower the body strikes against the sterile end of the connective. This makes the fertile part of the stamen to descend and strike at the back of the bee. The pollen gets deposited on the back of the bee. When it visits another flower, the pollen gets rubbed against the stigma and completes the act of pollination in Salvia.

Question 68.
Mention any three advantages of cross pollination.
Answer:

1. It always results in bringing out much healthier off springs.
2. Germination capacity is much better.
3. New varieties may be produced.
4. The adaptability of the plants to their environment is better.

Question 69.
Why pollination has to occur?
Answer:

1. Pollination is a pre-requisite for the process of fertilisation. Fertilisation helps in the formation of fruits and seeds.
2. It brings the male and female gametes closer for the process of fertilisation.
3. Cross-pollination introduces variations in plants due to the mixing up of different genes. These variations help the plants to adapt to the environment and results in speciation.

Question 70.
How the pollen germination and compatability is regulated by stigma of Gynoecium?
Answer:
The receptive surface of the stigma receives the pollen. If the pollen is compatible with the stigma it germinates to form a tube. This is facilitated by the stigmatic fluid in wet stigma and pellicle in dry stigma. These two also decide the incompatibility and compatibility of the pollen through recognition-rejection protein reaction between the pollen and stigma surface.

Question 71.
Give a brief account on solid style.
Answer:
It is common among dicots. It is characterized by the presence of central core of elongated, highly specialised cells called transmitting tissue.This is equivalent to the lining cells of hollow style and does the same function. Its contents are also similar to the content of those cells. The pollen tube grows through the intercellular spaces of the transmitting tissue.

Question 72.
What are the ways through which the pollen tube enters into ovule? Explain.
Answer:
Entry of pollen tube into the ovule: There are three types of pollen tube entry into the ovule.
Porogamy: when the pollen tube enters through the micropyle.
Chalazogamy: when the pollen tube enters through the chalaza.
Mesogamy: when the pollen tube enters through the integument.

Question 73.
What is the fate of pollen tube after reaching the embryo sac?
Answer:
After reaching the embryo sac, a pore is formed in pollen tube wall at its apex or just behind the apex. The content of the pollen tube (two male gametes, vegetative nucleus and cytoplasm) are discharged into the synergids into which pollen tube enters. The pollen tube does not grow beyond it, in the embryo sac. The tube nucleus disorganizes.

Question 74.
Double fertilization and triple fusion are correlated terms. Comment.
Answer:
The two male gametes released from a male gametophyte are involved in the fertilization. They fertilize two different components of the embryo sac. Since both the male gametes are involved in fertilization, the phenomenon is called double fertilization and is unique to angiosperms. One of the male gametes fuses with the egg nucleus (syngamy) to form , Zygote.

The second gamete migrates to the central cell where it fuses with the polar nuclei or their fusion product, the secondary nucleus and forms the primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). Since this involves the fusion of three nuclei, this phenomenon is called triple fusion. This
act results in endosperm formation which forms the nutritive tissue for the embryo.

Question 75.
Write a short note on endosperm.
Answer:
The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) divides immediately after fertilization but before 1 the zygote starts to divide, into an endosperm. The primary endosperm nucleus is the result of triple fusion (two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus) and thus has 3n number of chromosomes. It is a nutritive tissue and regulatory structure that nourishes the developing embryo. Depending upon the mode of development three types of endosperm are recognized in angiosperms. They are nuclear endosperm, cellular endosperm and helobial endosperm.

Question 76.
How nuclear endosperm is different from cellular endosperm.
Answer:
Nuclear endosperm:
Nuclear endosperm: Primary Endosperm Nucleus undergoes several mitotic divisions without cell wall formation thus a free nuclear condition exists in the endosperm.
Examples: Coccinia, Capsella and Arachis.

Cellular endosperm:
Cellular endosperm: Primary endosperm nucleus divides into 2 nuclei and it is immediately followed by wall formation. Subsequent divisions also follow cell wall formation.
Examples: Adoxa, Helianthus and Scoparia.

Question 77.
Give an account on Helobial endosperm.
Answer:
Helobial endosperm: Primary Endosperm Nucleus moves towards base of embryo sac and divides into two nuclei. Cell wall formation takes place leading to the formation of a large micropylar and small chalazal chamber. The nucleus of the micropylar chamber undergoes several free nuclear division whereas that of chalazal chamber may or may not divide.
Examples : Hydrilla and Vallisneria.

Question 78.
Differentiate between albuminous seed and ex-albuminous seed.
Answer:
Albuminous Seed:
The seeds with endosperm are called albuminous seed of endospermous seeds.
E.g: Coconut

Ex-albuminous Seed:
The seeds without endosperm are called ex-albuminous seeds or non-endospermous seeds.
E.g: Beans

Question 79.
Draw and label the structure of nuclear endosperm and Helobial endosperm
Answer:

Question 80.
Point out the function of endosperm.
Answer:
Functions of endosperm:

1. It is the nutritive tissue for the developing embryo.
2. In majority of angiosperms, the zygote divides only after the development of endosperm.
3. Endosperm regulates the precise mode of embryo development.

Question 81.
What are the components of mature dicot embryo.
Answer:
The mature dicot embryo has a radicle, two cotyledons and a plumule.

Question 82.
What is apospory?
Answer:
Megaspore mother cell undergoes the normal meiosis and four megaspores formed gradually disappear. A nucellar cell becomes activated and develops into a diploid embryo sac. This type of apospory is also called somatic apospory. Examples Hieracium and Parthenium.

5 – Mark Questions

Question 83.
Give a comperative account on Anther wall layers.
Answer:
Anther wall : The mature anther wall consists of the following layers
a. Epidermis
b. Endothecium
c. Middle layers
d. Tapetum.
a. Epidermis: It is single layered and protective in function. The cells undergo repeated anticlinal divisions to cope up with the rapidly enlarging internal tissues.

b. Endothecium: It is generally a single layer of radially elongated cells found below the epidermis. The inner tangential wall develops bands (sometimes radial walls also) of a cellulose (sometimes also slightly lignified). The cells are hygroscopic. In the anthers of aquatic plants, saprophytes, cleistogamous flowers and extreme parasites endothecial differentiation is absent. The cells along the junction of the two sporangia of an anther lobe lack these thickenings. This region is called stomium. This region along with the hygroscopic nature of endothecium helps in the dehiscence of anther at maturity.

c. Middle layers: Two to three layers of cells next to endothecium constitute middle layers. They are generally ephemeral. They disintegrate or get crushed during maturity.

d. Tapetum: It is the innermost layer of anther wall and attains its maximum development at the tetrad stage of microsporogenesis. It is derived partly from the peripheral wall layer and partly from the connective tissue of the anther lining the anther locule. Thus, the tapetum is dual in origin. It nourishes the developing sporogenous tissue, microspore mother cells andmicrospores.

The cells of the tapetum may remain uninucleate or may contain more than one nucleus or the nucleus may become polyploid. It also contributes to the wall materials, sporopollenin, pollenkitt, tryphine and number of proteins that control incompatibility reaction .Tapetum also controls the fertility of sterility of the microspores or pollen grains.

Question 84.
Explain the development process of male gametophyte.
Answer:

The microspore is the first cell of the male gametophyte and is haploid. The development of male gametophyte takes place while they are still in the microsporangium.

The nucleus of the microspore divides to form a vegetative and a generative nucleus. A wall is laid around the generative nucleus resulting in the formation of two unequal cells, a large irregular nucleus bearing with abundant food reserve called vegetative cell and a small generative cell. At this 2 celled stage, the pollens are liberated from the anther. In some plants the generative cell again undergoes a division to form two male gametes. In these plants,

the pollen is liberated at 3 celled stage. In 60% of the angiosperms pollen is liberated in 2 celled stage. Further, the growth of the male gametophyte occurs only if the pollen reaches the right stigma. The pollen on reaching the stigma absorbs moisture and swells.

The inline grows as pollen tube through the germ pore. Incase the pollen is liberated at 2 celled stage the generative cell divides in the pollen into 2 male cells (sperms) after reaching the stigma or in the pollen tube before reaching the embryo sac.

Question 85.
Explain any five types of angiospermic ovules.
Answer:
Orthotropous: In this type of ovule, the micropyle is at the distal end and the micropyle, the funicle and the chalaza lie in one straight vertical line. Examples: Piperaceae, Polygonaceae

Anatropous: The body of the ovule becomes completely inverted so that the micropyle and funiculus come to lie very close to each other. This is the common type of ovules found in dicots and monocots.

Hemianatropous: In this, the body of the ovule is placed transversely and at right angles to the funicle. Example: Primulaceae.

Campylotropous: The body of the ovule at the micropylar end is curved and more or less bean shaped. The embryo sac is slightly curved. All the three:, hilum, micropyle and chalaza are adjacent to one another, with the micropyle oriented towards the placenta.
Example: Leguminosae.

Amphitropous: The distance between hilum and chalaza is less. The curvature of the ovule leads to horse-shoe shaped nucellus.
Example: some Alismataceae.

Question 86.
Describe the development of monrosporic embryo sac.
Answer:
The functional megaspore is the first cell of the embryo sac or female gametophyte. The megaspore elongates along micropylar- chalazal axis. The nucleus undergoes a mitotic division. Wall formation does not follow the nuclear division. A large central vacuole now appears between the two daughter nuclei.

The vacuole expands and pushes the nuclei towards the opposite poles of the embryo sac. Both the nuclei divide twice mitotically, forming four nuclei at each pole. At this stage all the eight nuclei are present in a common cytoplasm (free nuclear division). After the last nuclear division the cell undergoes appreciable elongation, assuming a sac-like appearance. This is followed by cellular organization of the embryo sac. Of the four nuclei at the micropylar end of the embryo sac, three organize into an egg apparatus, the fourth one is left free in the cytoplasm of the central cell as the upper polar nucleus.

Three nuclei of the chalazal end form three antipodal cells whereas the fourth one functions atk the lower polar nucleus. Depending on the plant the 2 polar nuclei may remain free or iftiay fuse to form a secondary nucleus , (central cell). The egg apparatus is made up of a central egg celkand two synergids, one on each side of the egg cell. Synergids secrete chemotropic substances that help to attract the pollen tube. The special cellular thickening called filiform apparatus of synergids help in the absorption, conduction of nutrients from the nucellus to embryo sac. It also guides the pollen tube into the egg. Thus, a 7 celled with 8 nucleated embryo sac is formed.

Question 87.
Enumerate the characters of anemophilous flowers Anemophilous plants have the following characteristic features:
Answer:

1. The flowers are produced in pendulous, catkin-like or spike inflorescence.
2. The axis of inflorescence elongates so that the flowers are brought well above the leaves.
3. The perianth is absent or highly reduced.
4. The flowers are small, inconspicuous, colourless, not scented, do not secrete nectar.
5. The stamens are numerous, filaments are long, exerted and versatile.
6. Anthers produce enormous quantities of pollen grains compared to number of ovules available for pollination. They are minute, light and dry so that they can be carried to long distances by wind.
7. In some plants anthers burst violently and release the pollen into the air. Example: Urtica.
8. Stigmas are comparatively large, protruding, sometimes branched and feathery, adapted to catch the pollen grains. Generally single ovule is present.
9. Plant produces flowers before the new leaves appear, so the pollen can be carried without hindrance of leaves.

Question 88.
Describe the structure of a dicot seed.
Answer:
Structure of a Cicer seed as an example for Dicot seed The mature seeds are attached to the fruit wall by a stalk called funiculus. The funiculus disappears leaving a scar called hilum. Below the hilum a small pore called micropyle is present. It facilitates entry of oxygen and water into the seeds during germination. Each seed has a thick outer covering called seed coat. The seed coat is developed from integuments of the ovule. The outer coat is called testa and is hard whereas the inner coat is thin, membranous and is called tegmen.

In Pea plant the tegmen and testa are fused. Two cotyledons laterally attached to the embryonic axis are present. It stores the food materials in pea whereas in other seeds like castor the endosperm contains reserve food and the cotyledons are thin. The portion of embryonal axis projecting beyond the cotyledons is called radicle or embryonic root. The other end of the axis called embryonic shoot is the plumule.

Embryonal axis above the level of cotyledon is called epicotyl whereas the cylindrical region between the level of cotyledon is called hypocotyl. The epicotyl terminates in plumule whereas the hypocotyl ends in radicle.

Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions

Question 1.
Cleistogamous flower and chasmogamous flower. In which type does the autogamy is certain? Why?
Answer:
Autogamy is certain in cleistogamous flowers since they never open and expose the reproductive organs.

Question 2.
Position of essential whorls and inhibition of autogamy in Gloriosa superba – comment.
Answer:
In the bisexual flowers of Gloriosa superba, the style of the gynoecium is reflexed away from the stamens assuring that self-pollination (autogamy) is impossible.

Question 3.
Anemophilous flowers produce abundant pollen grains. Give reason.
Answer:
Anemophily is a chance event. The liberated pollen may or may not reach the target flower and are wasted during the transmission from one flower to another. Hence enormous pollen grains are produced to assure pollination.

Question 4.
Observe the picture and answer the questions.

(а) Label the part – A
(b) Name the types of vegetative propagule
(c) Give one example for such type of vegetative propagule.
Answer:
(a) A – Bud from eye
(b) Tuber
(c) Solanum tuberosum

Question 5.
Arrange the following events in a proper sequence.
Embryogenesis, Zygote formation, Syngamy, Gametogenesis
Answer:
Gametogenesis → Syngamy → Zygote formation → Embryogenesis

Question 6.
Name the process through which microspore tetrads are formed. What would be the ploidy of the cells of terad?
Answer:
Microspores are formed by the process of microsporogenesis. The cells of microspore tetrad are haploid(n).

Question 7.
Anemophilous flowers are colourless and non-scented. What may be the reason?
Answer:
Production of coloured and scented flowers are to attract the pollinating agents. Where as wind acts as a pollinating agent for anemophilous flowers. Hence it is unnecessory to produce coloured and scented flowers.

Question 8.
If you break open the coconut fruit, we can observe a fluid part and the white kernel.What does those parts represent?
Answer:
The fluid part of the coconut represents free-nuclear endosperm and the white kernel represents cellular endosperm.

Question 9.
Cite one common feature and one contrast feature shared between apomixis and parthenocarpy
Answer:
Common features : Fertilization (Syngamy) is absent in both apomixis and parthenocarpy.
Contrast features : Parthenocarpic fruits does not develop seeds, whereas in apomixis seeds are developed.

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Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 4 The Delhi Sultanate India Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Delhi Sultanate

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science The Delhi Sultanate Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answers

The Delhi Sultanate Class 7 In Tamil Question 1.
______ laid the foundation of ‘ Mamluk’ dynasty.
(a) Mohammad Ghori
(b) Jalal-ud-din
(c) Qutb-ud-dinAibak
(d) Iltutmish
Answer:
(c) Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Delhi Sultanate In Samacheer Book Question 2.
Qutb-ud-in shifted his capital to Delhi from .
(a) Lahore
(b) Poona
(c) Daulatabad
(d) Agra
Answer:
(a) Lahore

Delhi Sultanate Questions And Answers Question 3.
completed the construction of the Qutb-Minar.
(a) Razia
(b) Qutb-ud-din -Aibak
(c) Iltutmish
(d) Balban
Answer:
(c) Iltutmish

The Delhi Sultanate Class 7 Question 4.
laid the foundation of the city Tughluqabad near Delhi.
(a) Muhammad-bin -Tughluq
(b) Firoz shah Tughluq
(c) Jalal -ud-din
(d) Ghiyas -ud-din
Answer:
(d) Ghiyas -ud-din

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. was the founder, of Tughluq dynasty.
2. Muhammad-bin-Tughluq shifted his capital from Delhi to .
3. patronized the famous Persian poet Amir Khusru.
4. Quwwat-ul-Islam Masjid in Delhi was built by .
5. The threat of Mongols under Chengizkhan to India was during the reign of

Answer:

1. Ghiyas-ud-din
2. Devagiri or Daulatabad
3. Balban
4. Qutb-ud-din -Aibak
5. Iltutmish

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. iiv
3. ii

IV. State True or False :

Question 1.
Qutb-ud-din Aibak died of mysterious fever.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Qutb-ud-din Aibak died of mysterious injuries received during an accidental fall from a horse, while playing polo.

Question 2.
Razia was an able and brave fighter.
Answer:
True

Question 3.
The Turkish nobles chose Iltutmish, son of Aibak, as Sultan after the death of Aibak.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: The Turkish nobles chose Iltutmish, son-in-law of Aibak, as Sultan after the death of Aibak.

Question 4.
FirozShah Tughluq refused to accept an invitation from a Bahmani Prince to intervene in the affairs of the Deccan.
Answer:
True

V. Match the statement with the reason.
Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Balban maintained cordial relationship with Mongols
Reason (R): The Mongol ruler, a grandson of Chengiz Khan, assured that Mongols
would not advance beyond Sutlej.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A and R are wrong.
(d) A is wrong and R is the correct.
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Find out the correct pair

1. Hoysala – Devagiri
2. Yadavas – Dwarasamudra
3. Kakatias – Warrangal
4. Pallavas – Madurai

Answer:
3. Kakatias – Warrangal

(c) Find out the wrong statement /statements

1. After Ghori’s death in 1206, his slave Qutbud- din Aibak proclaimed him self the ruler of the Turkish territories in India.
2. Razia established the department of spies to gather intelligence about the conspirators and the trouble makers against her rule.
3. Balban built forts to guard his empire against the Mongol attack.
4. Ibrahim Lodi was defeated by Babur in 1526.

Answer:
2. Razia established the department of spies to gather intelligence about the conspirators and the trouble makers against her rule.

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name the land granted to army officials in lieu of a regular wage.
Answer:
Iqta is the land granted to army officials in lieu of a regular wage

Question 2.
Who founded the city of Agra?
Answer:
Sikandar Lodi founded the city of Agra.

Question 3.
Name the ruler who established Muslim rule in India in 12th century A.D (CE).
Answer:
Muslim rule in India was established by Muhammad Ghori in 12th century A.D. (CE).

Question 4.
Write a note on chahalgani.
Answer:
In order to counter the possible attack of the Mongols, Iltutmish organised Turkish nobility into a select group of 40 nobles known as chahalgani or The Forty.

Question 5.
How did Ala-ud-din Khalji consolidate the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:

1. The range of Khalji conquests is impressive: in the Punjab (against the Mongols), in Rajasthan and in Gujarat. With his northern frontiers secure, he sent his chief lieutenant Malik Kafur into the southern parts who took even the distant Madurai.
2. Thus Ala-ud-din Khalji consolidated the Delhi Sultanate.

Question 6.
List out the contributions of Firoz Shah Tughluq.
Answer:

1. Firoz rewarded Sufis and other religious leaders generously and listened to their advice.
2. He also created charities to aid poor Muslims
3. He built colleges, mosques, and hospitals.
4. He banned inhuman punishments and abolished taxes not recognised by Muslim law.
5. He promoted agriculture by waiving off the debts of the agriculturalists and constructing many canals for irrigation.
6. He built new towns such as Firozabad, Jaunpur, Hissar and Firozpur.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write about the invasion of Timur in 1398.
Answer:

1. The sacking and massacre by Tamerlane or Timur of Delhi came a decade after Firuz ME Shah Tughluq died.
2. Timur had occupied some parts in the north-west of India.
3. Taking advantage of India’s weakness, he entered India in December 1398 and plundered Delhi.
4. Punjab, besides the Delhi city, was the province that suffered most by Timur’s raid.
5. Apart from carrying huge wealth in the form of gold, silver, jewels, also took along Indian artisans like carpenters and masons to work on monuments in Samarkand.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
How would you evaluate Muhammad-bin- Tughluq as Sultan of Delhi?
Answer:
Muhammaad – bin – Tughlug was a learned but cruel man. He was a poor decision maker. There was chaos in the social, economic and political condition of the empire because of his ambiguous decisions. The first and foremost was changing the capital from Delhi to Devagiri or Daulatabad and vice versa which led to loss of money and human lives. He also ordered the revenue to be collected in money instead of grains. This move led to bankruptcy and famine. Though he was wise and learned his hasty decisions led to his downfall.

IX. Map Work
On the river map of India draw the extent of Tughluq Dynasty and mark the following places.

1. Delhi
2. Devagiri
3. Lahore
4. Madurai.

X. Student Activity :

Question 1.
Match the Father with Son

Answer:

1. v
2. i
3. ii
4. iii
5. iv

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science The Delhi Sultanate Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
___________ is a persian term used for slaves purchased for military service.
(a) Aibak
(b) bandagan
(c) Mamluk
(d) Lodi
Answer:
(b) bandagan

Question 2.
Iltutmish granted ___________ to members of his army.
(a) iqtas
(b) coins
(c) gold
(d) dirams
Answer:
(a) iqtas

Question 3.
___________ was a custom of the Rajputs, in which man would go out and die in the battle field and women would burn themselves on a pyre.
(a) Sati
(b) Devadasi
(c) Janhar
(d) Kaali
Answer:
(c) Janhar

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _____ is an Arabic word meaning slave.
2. Iltutmish refused to provide shelter to _____ who had been driven out by chengiz khan.
3. One significant military expedition of Ala-ud-din was against, the Deccan Kingdom _____
4. _____ was proclaimed a separate sultanate in 1334.

Answer:

1. Mamluk
2. Kwarezm Shah Jalalud – din
3. Devagiri
4. Madurai

III. True or False :

Question 1.
Balban abolished ‘The Forty’ as it was hostile to him.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Qutb-ud-din-Aibak shifted his capital from Delhi to Lahore.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: Qutb-ud-din-Aibak shifted his capital from Delhi to the centre of the kingdom, namely Devagiri.

Question 3.
Ala-ud-din khalfi was the nephew of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the statement with the reason. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Iltutmish nominated his daughter Razia sultan as his successor to the throne of Delhi.
Reason : His most capable son, Rukn-ud-din-Firaz was dead.
(a) Statement and Reason are wrong.
(b) Statement is correct, but Reason is wrong.
(c) Both Statement and Reason are correct.
(d) Statement is wrong but Reason is correct.
Answer:
(c) Both Statement and Reason are correct.

Question 2.
Statement : Ala-ud-din khalji employed spies to report to him directly.
Reason : He wanted to be informed about the movement of the enemy’s army.
(a) Both Statement and Reason are correct.
(b) Statement and Reason are wrong.
(c) Statement is correct and Reason is wrong.
(d) Statement is wrong and Reason is correct.
Answer:
(c) Statement is correct and Reason is wrong.

Question 3.
Find out the wrong statement
(a) Razia made an Ethiopian slave nmed Jalal-ud-din Yakut, her personal attendant.
(b) Hulagu Khan, was the grandson of chengiz khan.
(c) Jalal-ud-din khalji built forts to guard his empire.
(d) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq sent his Jauna khan to fight against Warangal.
Answer:
(c) Jalal-ud-din khalji built forts to guard his empire

VI. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write a short note on the Sack of Chittor.
Answer:
Sack of Chittor :When Ala-ud-din’s army overwhelmed the Rajput army in Chittor and in the context of threat of defeat, the men and women of the fortress, in accordance with their old custom, performed the rite of jauhar.

Question 2.
What is Indo-Saracenic architecture? Name a few structures constructed in this style.
Answer:

1. A combination of Persian and Indian architecture is called Indo-Saracenic architecture.
2. Mosques and Madrasas were built in this style during the Mughal rule.
3. The shape of these buildings were persian while the decoration was Indian.
   Eg. QutbMinar, Alai-Darwaza, tombs of Iltutmish.

VII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Alaud – din Khalgi was an able administrator.- Justify.
Answer:

1. Ala-ud-din’s political and administrative reforms were as impressive.
2. Ala-ud-din undertook a survey of the agrarian resources around his capital and fixed a standard revenue demand.
3. He entrusted the task of collecting the revenue to the military officers.
4. Ala-ud-din established a system of forced procurement of food grains for Delhi and other garrison centres.
5. The procurement prices were fixed and grain collected as tax was stored in state granaries.
6. To ensure the enforcement of his new regulations.
7. He employed spies who were responsible to report to him directly.

Students can Download English Lesson 2 Homeless Man and his Friends: A true story Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book 2Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 2 Homeless Man and his Friends: A true story

A. Comprehension Questions.

Homeless Man And His Friends A True Story Question 1.
What is the name of the hero of this story ?
Answer
“The name of the hero of this story is Cesar

Homeless Man And His Friends Summary Question 2.
Where did this story happen?
Answer:
This story happened on the street in Rio do Sul in South Brazil.

Homeless Man And His Friends A True Story Questions And Answers Question 3.
When was he admitted in the hospital?
Answer:
Cesar was admitted at the emergency room of the hospital at about 3 a.m.

Homeless Man And His Friends Question 4.
Where is the hospital?
Answer:
The hospital is in Rio do Sul, in South Brazil.

Homeless Man And His Friends A True Story Summary Question 5.
Who accompanied him to the hospital?
Answer:
A gang of dogs accompanied him to the hospital.

B. Write the answers for the following questions in 100 words.

Homeless Man And His Friends Lesson Plan Question 1.
Where did the nurse post this story?
Answer:
The nurse posted the story on Facebook.

Homeless Man And His Friends: A True Story Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
What did Cesar do when he was offered food by the nurses?
Answer:
When Cesar was offered food by the nurses, he ate some and saved a bit to give the dogs later. Though Cesar was a homeless man in Rio do Sul in South Brazil, he often sacrificed his own food to feed the stray dogs around him. When he suddenly required emergency treatment, his kindness came back to him like a boomerang, for the faithful dogs he had been feeding made sure he was not alone.

Homeless Man And His Friend A True Story Mind Map Question 3.
How many dogs accompanied him when left the hospital?
Answer:
Four dogs accompanied him when he left the hospital.

Homeless Man And His Friend A True Story In Tamil Meaning Question 4.
How many people followed Mamprim’s post?
Answer:
1,36,000 people followed Mamprim’s post.

C. Can you guess the meaning of following words after understanding the story?

1. homeless – without any house or people to care
2. boomerang – come back to the person threw it
3. canine – dog – due to its teeth it is named so
4. stray – dogs found in the streets without owners
5. health facility – health care
6. colleague – co-worker
7. accompany – go along with
8. trailing – following
9. wagging – moving the tail swiftly
10. reciprocal – in return
11. possession – own
12. mistreatment – ill treatment, wrong behaviour

Step To Success

Coding – Decoding

Number the alphabet according to their position to decode the following.

8th Standard English Friendship Lesson Question Answer Question 1.
In a certain code language, if BUG = 30 and ALMS = 45 then CADET =?
(a) 70
(b) 24
(c) 33
(d) 37
Answer:
(c) 33

8th Standard Friendship Lesson Question Answer Question 2.
In a certain code language, if INFER = 25 and JERSEY = 28, then CHOICE =?
(a) 43
(b) 34
(c) 89
(d) 52
Answer:
(b) 34

Friends Story In English Question 3.
In a certain code language, EGG is 577 and ICE is 935 then what is 8945?
(a) HIDE
(b) FEAR
(c) DEED
(d) HIGH
Answer:
(a) HIDE

Question 4.
In a certain code language, YSMIR is TNHDM and VPJHN is QKECI then GKTZO is ?
(a) TEFMD
(b) BFOUJ
(c) IPBVR
(d) ZOAFQ
Answer:
(b) BFOU

Connecting To Self

Tick the boxes that you have done and check yourself whether you are a good friend.
Question 1.

Answer:

Homeless Man and his Friends: A true story Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
The homeless man was called _____
(a) Peter
(b) Cris
(c) Cesar
(d) Charles
Answer:
(c) Cesar

Question 2.
He was admitted in a hospital at _____
(a) Berlin
(b) Brazil
(c) Germany
(d) India
Answer:
(b) Brazil

Question 3.
He took care of _____canines.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 4.
He was a simple person _____ luxury.
(a) with
(b) with excess
(c) without
(d) The street
Answer:

Question 5.
The homeless man lived on ______
(a) The hills
(b) The vally
(c) The river bank
(d) the street
Answer:
(d) the street

II. Identify the character/speaker:

1. “I came across this today”
2. “A simple person, who depends on help to overcome the hunger”
3. “They are all well taken care of and chubby”
4. “I do not know what his life is like”
5. He suddenly required emergency treatment.

Answer:

1. Mamprim
2. Mamprim about Cesai
3. Mamprim about dogs
4. Mamprim about Cesai
5. Cesai

III. Write True or False against each statement.

1. The stray dogs’ loyalty was witnessed by a doctor.
2. Three stray dogs showed up at the entrance.
3. Cesar was a simple person without luxury.
4. The animals reunited with their owner.
5. The staff let the dogs inside the hospital.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True

IV. Very Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Who sacrifices his own food to feed the stray dogs?
Answer:
Cesar sacrifices his own food to feed the stray dogs.

Question 2.
Who witnessed the dog’s incredible loyalty?
Answer:
The nurse Cris Mamprim and her colleagues witnessed the dog’s loyalty.

Question 3.
Where does Cesar normally go?
Answer:
Cesar normally goes to another health facility in town.

Question 4.
Who were anxiously anticipating Cesar’s safe return?
Answer:
The faithful dogs were anxiously anticipating Cesar’s safe return.

Question 5.
When did Cesar leave the hospital?
Answer:
Cesar left the hospital after an hour.

V. Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Why did the staff let the dogs inside?
Answer:
The staff let the dogs inside after giving Cesar the medication because they did not want to keep Cesar and his companions apart.

Question 2.
Did Cesar have any kin and material possession?
Answer:
No, he did not have any kin to turn to, and had little material possessions.

Question 3.
Why was he never alone?
Answer:
He was never alone because he had his warm and loving companions.

VI. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Describe the activities of the homeless person and his companions.
Answer:
The homeless person Cesar, sacrifices his own food to feed the stray dogs around him. When he required emergency treatment, his kindness came back to him, like a boomerang. Four concerned dogs showed up at the entrance of the hospital and were waiting for Cesar. They were anxious about their homeless master’s health. Their master is a simple person, who depends on help to overcome the hunger, the cold, the pain, the evils of the world. He had by his side the best companions and the exchange is reciprocal. An exchange of love, affection, warmth and understanding

VII. Mind Map

Question 1.

Answer:

1. Rio de Sul
2. The stray dogs
3. emergency
4. boomerang
5. the nurse

VIII. Rearrange the Jumbled Sentences.

A.
1. He often sacrificed his food to feed the dogs.
2. There is a homeless man in South Brazil.
3. His faithful dogs made sure he wasn’t alone.
4. He suddenly required emergency treatment.
5. The loyalty of the dogs were witnessed by a nurse.
Answer:
2,1,4,3,5
2. There is a homeless man in South Brazil.
1. He often sacrificed his food to feed the dogs.
4. He suddenly required emergency treatment.
3. His faithful dogs made sure he wasn’t alone.
5. The loyalty of the dogs were witnessed by a nurse.

B
1. The staff let the dogs inside.
2. The faithful canines waited anxiously.
3. The man ate some and saved a bit for the dogs.
4. They even offered food.
5. They are all well taken care of and chubby.
Answer:
5, 2,1,4,3
5. They are all well taken care of and chubby.
2. The faithful canines waited anxiously.
1. The staff let the dogs inside.
4. They even offered food.
3. The man ate some and saved a bit for the dogs.

IX. Read the passage and answer the questions.

A
The stray dogs’ incredible loyalty was witnessed by nurse Cris Mamprim and her colleagues shortly after the homeless man, Cesar, arrived at the emergency room of the hospital in Rio do Sul, in South Brazil at about 3 a.m. to seek treatment and medication for a pre-existing health condition he had been battling.

Question 1.
Who witnessed the dogs’ loyalty?
Answer:
The nurse Cris Mamprim and her colleagues witnessed the dogs’ loyalty.

Question 2.
Who was the man who came to the hospital?
Answer:
Cesar came to the hospital.

Question 3.
Where was the hospital?
Answer:
The hospital was in Rio do Sul, South Brazil.

Question 4.
Why did he come to the emergency room?
Answer:
He came to seek treatment and medication for a pre-existing health condition he had been battling.

Question 5.
What is the name of the nurse?
Answer:
The name of the nurse was Crim Mamprim.

B.
An hour later, Cesar left the hospital with the four dogs trailing behind, happily wagging their tails. “I do not know what his life is like, or why he’s on the street, but I admire the respect arid love he has for his little friends.” Mamprim concluded. “Seeing them like this, waiting at the door, just shows how much they are well cared for and loved”.

Question 1.
What is the meaning of the word trailing?
Answer:
‘Trailing’ means following behind.

Question 2.
To whom does T refer to?
Answer:
refers to Mamprim, the nurse.

Question 3.
Whd are they? What does Tike this’ indicate?
Answer:
They are dogs. ‘Like this’ indicates ‘the waiting of the dogs at the door of the hospital’.

Question 4.
Give the antonyms for ‘conclude’ and ‘like’
Answer:
The antonyms for ‘conclude’ and ‘like’ are ‘commence’ and ‘dislike’.

Question 5.
What is the title of this story?
Answer:
“Homeless Man and his Friends: A true story”.

Homeless Man and his Friends: A true story Summary

Life takes us on some interesting journey and having wonderful friends with us on the long ride can make both the best and worst periods enjoyable.

There is a homeless man called Cesar in South Brazil. He often sacrifices his own food to feed the stray dogs around him. One day he falls very sick and his kindness towards the animals comes back to him as they accompany him to the emergency room at a hospital in Brazil. The nurses are surprised to see Cesar who was new to the hospital. They did not know his previous condition.

They were surprised to see four canines waiting at the entrance to see Cesar. Watching them, the nurse is impressed and posts the picture of the scene in the Facebook, stating a simple person without luxury depends on help to overcome pain and other evils has the best companions and that the exchange is mutual.

They wait and Mamprin, the nurse, watches them reunite with their master in no time. When Cesar was offered food, he ate some and saved the rest for the dogs. Cesar has little material possessions and does not have any kin But he has his warm and loving companions.

Students who are interested in learning of 11th English Supplementary Chapter 3 The First Patient Questions and Answers can use Tamilnadu State Board Solutions of 11th English Chapter Wise Pdf. First check in which chapter you are lagging and then Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers Summary, Activity, Notes Chapter Wise. Students can build self confidence by solving the solutions with the help of Tamilnadu State Board English Solutions. English is the scoring subject if you improve your grammar skills. Because most of the students will lose marks by writing grammar mistakes. So, we suggest you to Download Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Solutions according to the chapters.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 3 The First Patient

Check out the topics covered in Supplementary Chapter 3 The First Patient Questions and Answers before you start your preparation. Improve your grammar skills with the help of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers pdf links. The solutions for Tamilnadu State Board 11th English Textbook are prepared by the English experts. So, if you follow Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th English Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Supplementary Chapter 3 The First Patient Questons and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Warm Up

Given below is a list of tools and equipment. Associate them with the relevant field and complete the table.

Plough, hammer, oven thermometer, volt meter, wood chisel, seed drill, voltage detector, cutting boards, stone picker, digital kitchen scale, cultivator, nail puller, wire strippers, framing square, fork, flashlight

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English The First Patient Textual Questions

1. Complete the summary of the play, choosing the appropriate words from the list given below the passage.

(hammer, patient, hacksaw, cabinet, frightened, queue, worried, waiting room, pliers,tooth, photographs, clinic, toothache, sawing, appointment)

A number of patients wait at the (1) _________ of a dentist’s clinic. Every body is tensed at the thought of a painful (2) _________ being extracted. One of the women is bent on showing everyone her (3) _________ After the arrival of the dentist, Joe, the first (4) _________ is called in. Some time later, the nurse comes out and goes in with a (5) _________ Every one is (6) _________ at this, imagining Joe being subjected to a lot of hammering in the process (7) _________ of his and later on she takes in a (8) _________ A little boy confesses that he pretended to have because he did not wish to go to school. The loud (10) _________ and screeching from within the room makes everyone leave the (11) _________ , one by one. Finally there are only two women in the waiting room, one of them being Joe’s wife. She weeps (12) _________ about her husband. But Joe comes out and explains that he had shifted his (13) _________ to the evening and had been given some pills for the pain. After they leave, the dentist comes out and locates the key of his tool (14) _________ He had been hying to open it using the hammer, the pliers and the hacksaw only in vain. The woman with the photographs is surprised to see that the (15) _________ had moved quickly and she was the next patient to go in.
Answer:

1. Waiting room
2. tooth
3. photographs
4. patient
5. hammer
6. frightened
7. pliers
8. hacksaw
9. tooth ache
10. sawing
11. clinic
12. worried
13. appointment
14. cabinet
15. queue

2. Based on your understanding of the play, complete the Graphic Organiser (GO) suitably.

Answer:

3. Based on your understanding of the play, answer the following questions in about three or four sentences each.

The First Patient Supplementary Summary Question (a)
Who were the patients waiting for?
Answer:
The patients were waiting for the arrival of the dentist. They were issued token. The Doctor would see the patients one by one.

11th English The First Patient Summary Question (b)
How did Woman 5 spend her time in the waiting hall?
Answer:
Woman 5 spent her time by showing her photos to some of the patients. She went on describing the place when the photo was taken. She explained the persons found in the photos and about their qualities and frailities.

11th English The First Patient Question (c)
How did the other Women react to Woman 5?
Answer:
Woman 6 looks at the photos when woman 5 keeps explaining the location and incidents connected to that woman’s photo and looks at them without interest. Woman 1 could not look at the photos as she was worried about her husband Joe.

The First Patient Supplementary Question (d)
Are children afraid of visiting the dentist? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, children are afraid of visiting the dentist. This is evident from the screams of the little girl Maurice and the confession of the little boy that he had no tooth ache. He was willing to go back to school. He had told a lie to bunk the school that day.

The First Patient Supplementary Paragraph Question (e)
What were the strange instruments the nurse carried to the surgery? How did the waiting patients interpret her act?
Answer:
The nurse carried pliers, hammer and hacksaw to the Dentists’s room. The patients thought the dentist was using those tools to extract bad tooth from patient one. Lady 1 couldn’t resist going to the surgical room as to know what was exactly happening to Joe who was the first patient. Woman restrained her all the time. Unable to bear the groans, two men left the waiting room. They were getting late for work.

The First Patient Supplementary Summary Ppt Question (f)
Bring out the people’s reaction to the noises from the surgery.
Answer:
The men who disliked the moan from inside the surgical room of the dentist made different interpretation. One man claimed that he would ask for gas to dull the pain of tooth extraction. But another man alarmed him saying he knew some one who never recovered from the effect of gas. Two men left the waiting room because it was getting late for their offices. The first patient’s wife was very upset. She cried and tried to go to the surgical room to see if her husband Joe was okay.

The First Patient Supplementary Ppt Question (g)
Why did they sympathize with the first patient?
Answer:
The first patient was seated inside the surgical room of the dentist for a long time. His devoted wife was anxiously waiting out for a long time. Whenever a noisy groan escaped the dentist’s surgical room,she cried. She wanted to rush to the room but was often restrained by the second person. Every adult who watched the lady in distress sympathized with her.

The First Patient Supplementary Moral Question (h)
Why did Woman 1 panic more than the others?
Answer:
Woman 1 panicked more than the rest of the visitors because her husband Joe was the first male patient of the day. He was with the dentist. The groans emerging from the surgical room really panicked her more than others. The large carpentry tools being taken to the surgical room annoyed her.

The First Patient Paragraph Question (i)
Woman 5 was not aware of what was happening. Why?
Answer:
Women 5 was busy showing her family album of photos: She was describing each photo with woman 6 who pathetically listened to her. So, she was not aware of what was happening.

The First Patient Supplementary Theme Question (j)
How did Woman 5 move ahead in the w aiting list of patients?
Answer:
Man 6 and man 5 left the clinic as it was late for work. Man 2 and 3 left the clinic unable to stand the howling of Dorothea. Women 3, 4 and 6 left seeing tools like pliers being taken into the surgical room. Man 7 who was very heroic and stoical about the pain on a dentist’s chair also left. Then women 2 and 7 also left. Now only woman 1 was left who was waiting for Joe. When woman 5 started looking for an amusing photograph, Joe came out. As all had left, woman 5 was told to go into the dentist’s room.

The First Patient Summary Question (k)
Why do patients leave the clinic without meeting the dentist?
Answer:
Some of them couldn’t wait as they had to rush to work. Some were upset by Dorothea’s howling. Some were scared by the groans made inside the surgical room and the hammer, pliers and jacksaw being taken inside the dentist’s room. So, patients left the clinic without meeting the dentist.

The First Patient Story Question (l)
What had really happened in the dentist’s room?
Answer:
The dentist had misplaced the key of the tool cabinet. He tried various carpentry tools like hammer, pliers, and hacksaw to open the cabinet without success for a long time. The groans were literally made by the dentist himself who was trying to break open the tool cabinet with out key.

4. Now, read the descriptions given under Column A and match them with their correct (-ist words) describing specialists in the various fields of medicine given under column B.

Answer:

1. pulmonologist
2. dermatologist
3. gynaecologist
4. nephrologist
5. neurologist
6. gastroenterologist
7. ophthalmologist
8. neonatologist
9. cardiologist
10. otolaryngologist

Summary Of The First Patient listening Activity

Read the following statements. Now, listen to the talk on the importance of humour and laughter for good physical and mental health. You may listen to the text again if required. to help you choose the correct option.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.iri)
Humour and laughter are used in a variety of therapeutic situations. Therapeutic humour has the power to motivate and lessen stress and pain. Laughter improves one’s sense of well being. The benefits of a good “belly laugh” are being discovered by empirical research. You can feel relaxed and good after laughing at a funny movie, television program, or humorous event.

It seems generally accepted that our bodies respond in a positive way to a hearty laugh. It is reported that laughter, like exercise, can reduce stress, improve tolerance to pain, and alter bodily functions such as blood pressure, heart rate, muscle activity, and stomach acidity. In business, managers are learning the advantages of using humour. Happier, healthier employees work better. Humour improves employee creativity, so employees are sometimes trained how to introduce humour into their personal/professional life.

A number of hospitals and related institutions have created humour rooms. The humour room is stocked with books, comics, funny posters, audiotapes, and videos. Humour is a therapeutic tool that demands energy for its creation, yet its rich rewards include a closer therapeutic bond through shared laughter. The best humour comes from what is going on “at the moment.” Therefore one can plan to use humour yet rely on spontaneous opportunities to employ it. Humour is something positive that should bring mutually shared enjoyment and pleasure. Above all, humour is called a way of living not a part of living.

The First Patient Supplementary In Tamil Question (i)
Humour has the power to motivate and _________ stress and pain.
(a) improve
(b) intensify
(c) reduce
(d) increase
Answer:
(c) reduce

The First Patient Question (ii)
It seems generally _________ that our bodies respond in a positive way to a hearty laugh.
(a) accepted
(b) denied
(c) improved
(d) confused
Answer:
(a) accepted

The First Patient Supplementary Summary Moral Question (iii)
The _________ is stocked with books,comics, funny posters, audiotapes, and videos.
(a) waiting room
(b) humour room
(c) ICU
(d) reception
Answer:
(b) humour room

The First Patient Moral Question (iv)
One can plan to use humour yet rely on _________ opportunities to employ it.
(a) late
(b) better
(c) future
(d) spontaneous
Answer:
(d) spontaneous

Summary Of The First Patient By Cv Burgess Question (v)
Humour is called a way of _________ ,not a part of living.
(a) living
(b) playing
(c) nourishing
(d) developing
Answers
(a) living

First Patient Summary Speaking Activity

Complete the following dialogue between a doctor and a patient with ten sets of utterances for the following situation in which a person goes to a doctor for treatment. The doctor wishes to give him/her an injection. The person is scared. The doctor convinces the patient and administers the injection. Now, in pairs, enact the dialogue in the classroom.

Doctor : Good evening. Please come in.
Patient : Good evening, Doctor.
Doctor : Tell me what ails you?
Patient : I have severe stomach pain and mild fever too.
Doctor : Show me your tongue.
Patient : (Shows the tongue) Is it dengue?
Doctor : Don’t jump to conclusions.
Patient : I’m worried, Sir.
Doctor : Don’t worry. Tell me. What did you eat last evening?
Patient : I took KFC chicken one full bucket.
Doctor : I doubt some food poisoning.
Patient : What should I do, Sir?.
Doctor : Take an injection to stem the effect of food poisoning, and we will give you bottles of glucose.
Patient : Can you avoid injection, Sir?
Doctor : Young man don’t worry. My muse Sarala will give you an injection where you won’t feel any pain.
Patient : Thank you, Doctor.

5. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 80-100 words each.

The First Patient By Cv Burgess Ppt Question (i)
Based on your understanding of the play, explain how a mistaken understanding of events can lead to confusion. How has the author used this unexpected combination of events in the situation to create humour?
Answer:
Author C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman. He reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is apprehensive about the husband. Among two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading. The snobbish woman who goes on showing her

photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play resolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these tools would be used in surgery. The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the dramatic irony. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key which adds to the comic situation

11th English Unit 3 Supplementary Question (ii)
Have you ever found yourself in such a situation? Discuss in groups and act out such a situation.
Answer:
Once I was watching a thriller movie inside my room. I had locked the room from with in. But I had foolishly not reduced the volume of the T. V. There was a blood curdling scream of a little boy seeing a ghost. My parents banged the door thinking that I may have had a nightmarish dream or something was wrong. I opened the door and I had to convince them that it was just the movie and I was absolutely normal.

Additional Questions

I. Rearrange the sentences in a logical sequence.

Question 1.
(a) A fashionable lady patient showed her photos to fellow patients.
(b) The first patient Joe was called in.
(c) It was a dentist’s clinic.
(d) A number of patients were waiting for their turn.
(e) Everybody was tensed at the painful prospect of their bad tooth being extracted.
Answers:
(c) It was a dentist’s clinic.
(d) A number of patients were waiting for their turn.
(e) Everybody was tensed at the painful prospect of their bad tooth being extracted.
(b) The first patient Joe was called in.
(a) A fashionable lady patient showed her photos to fellow patients.

Question 2.
(a) Seeing all these, a little boy confesses that he feigned tooth ache to bunk classes.
(b) Every one is frightened to see the nurse moving in with a pair of pliers and a hack saw. Patients find a nurse going in and out of the surgical room with a big hammer.
(c) Emily, wife of Joe, is worried.
(d) They hear groaning sound from within the surgical lab.
Answers:
(c) Patients find a nurse going in and out of the surgical room with a big hammer.
(e) They hear groaning sound from within the surgical lab.
(d) Emily, wife of Joe, is worried.
(b) Every one is frightened to see the nurse moving in with a pair of pliers and a hack saw.
(a) Seeing all these, a little boy confesses that he feigned tooth ache to bunk classes.

Question 3.
(a) Emily heaves a sign of relief that the carpentry tools were for opening the tool cabinet.
(b) Emily weeps worried about her husband (Joe’s) safety.
(c) The loud sawing and screeching from within the clinic makes everyone leave the clinic.
(d) Finally only two women remain in the waiting room.
(e) Joe informs Emily that the Dentist shifted his appointment to the evening.
Answers:
(c) The loud sawing and screeching from within the clinic makes everyone leav
(d) Finally only two women remain in the waiting room.
(b) Emily weeps worried about her husband (Joe’s) safety.
(e) Joe informs Emily that the Dentist shifted his appointment to the evening.
(a) Emily heaves a sign of relief that the carpentry tools were for opening the tool cabinet.

II. Choose the best option and fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
A number ___________ of were waiting at a dentist’s clinic.
(a) fans
(b) debtors
(c) players
(d) patients
Answer:
(d) patients

Question 2.
Everybody is ___________ at the prospect of painful tooth extraction.
(a) happy
(b) frightened
(c) delighted
(d) awaiting
Answer:
(b) frightened

Question 3.
___________ is the first patient.
(a) Emily
(b) Maurice
(c) Dorothea
(d) Joe
Answer:
(d) Joe

Question 4.
It was startling to the patients to find the nurse carrying a ___________ into the surgical room.
(a) injection
(b) tray
(c) cap
(d) hammer
Answer:
(d) hammer

Question 5.
Mrs. Joe was restless because she was frightened that her husband’s tooth was being extracted with ___________ and hacksaw.
(a) injection
(b) cotton
(c) hammer
(d) anaesthesia
Answer:
(c) hammer

Question 6.
It was funny to notice a woman patient showing her ___________ to everyone.
(a) case file
(b) prescription
(c) photos
(d) drawings
Answer:
(c) photos

Question 7.
Mrs. Joe was ___________ by the second woman because she tried to open the surgical room.
(a) motivated
(b) appreciated
(c) restrained
(d) persuaded
Answer:
(c) restrained

Question 8.
The ___________ sawing and screeching frightened most of the patients.
(a) quiet
(b) inaudible
(c) mild
(d) loud
Answer:
(d) loud

Question 9.
Except ___________ women all the patients left the dental clinic.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(b) two

Question 10.
Joe’s appointment was shifted to ___________
(a) afternoon
(b) morning
(c) evening
(d) the following Sunday
Answer:
(b) morning

Question 11.
The missing key of the ___________ was found under the telephone directory.
(a) cashbox
(b) tool cabinet
(c) Almirah
(d) surgical room
Answer:
(c) Almirah

Question 12.
The woman with the ___________ was surprised to see the queue had moved quickly.
(a) little girl
(b) little boy
(c) a hunch back
(d) photos
Answer:
(d) photos

Question 13.
Mr. Joe had been given some ___________ to dull the pain. did not care when the lady threatened her that she wouldn’t bring her anymore to the
Dentist’s.
(a) Maurice
(b) Lalitha
(c) Hema
(d) Dorothea
Answer:
(c) Hema

Question 14.
The ___________ from the surgical room was mistaken as painful reaction of Mr. Joe.
(a) music
(b) song
(c) news
(d) groan
Answer:
(d) groan

Question 15.
___________ did not care when the lady threatened her that she wouldn’t bring her anymore to the Dentist’s.
(a) Maurice
(b) Lalitha
(c) Hema
(d) Dorothea
Answer:
(d) Dorothea

Question 16.
A little girl and a small boy fought over ___________ a both wanted.
(a) photo
(b) doll
(c) ball
(d) magazine
Answer:
(d) magazine

Question 17.
Woman 5 is found to be ___________ because she gladly shares her photos with everyone.
(a) eccentric
(b) wise
(c) conventional
(d) unusual
Answer:
(a) eccentric

Question 18.
___________ was asking awkward questions.
(a) Lady 5
(b) Joe
(c) Emily
(d) Maurice
Answer:
(d) Maurice

Question 19.
Man attributed the noise from surgical room was of a man whose ___________ was being taken out.
(a) tonsil
(b) bad tooth
(c) kidney
(d) abrasives
Answer:
(b) bad tooth

Question 20.
Man said that there must be a special waiting room for ___________
(a) women
(b) children
(c) patients
(d) pets
Answer:
(d) pets

Question 21.
The boy who had feigned tooth ache was threatened by his mom that she would ask the ___________
to thrash him.
(a) daddy
(b) grandma
(c) headmaster
(d) dean
Answer:
(c) headmaster

Question 22
___________ claimed to have lied about tooth ache though her teeth appeared as black as kitche range.
(a) Emily
(b) Jane
(c) Dorothea
(d) Lucy
Answer:
(d) Lucy

III. Identify the speakers.

1. A bit big, wasn’t it? – Man 3 to Man 4
2. There, there, don’t upset yourself, dear. There’s nothing to worry about – Woman 2 to Woman 1.
3. I heard a chap once the roots of whose teeth were wrapped around his jawbone. He was fine hours in the chair – Man 4 to Man 3
4. It’s mine! It’s mine! – Little girl to Small boy
5. “Really, it’s the last time I’ll bring you anywhere” – Woman 7 to Dorothea.
6. “I wish some people would keep their children under control” – Woman 6 to Woman 7
7. I can’t stand it oh, Joe! Joe! Joe! – Emily
8. What was the noise, mummy? – Small boy to Woman 8
9. “That noise was a man having having a tooth out. That’s how it’s going to sound when your’s out” – Man 7 to Little boy
10. What a thing to tell a small boy!” – Woman 6
11. Disgusting – Man 6 about Man 7’s explanation of noise.
12. I haven’t got tooth ache at all. I was only joking. I just wanted to get off school – Little boy to Mummy (Woman 8)
13. I’ll get the headmaster to give you a good thrashing – Woman 8 to her son
14. “A little discipline, that’s what he wants” – Man 5 about truant boy
15. This one would make a good impression on you dear – Woman 5 to Woman 6 about her photo
16. Do hurry, Nurse or we’ll never get this thing shift. – Dentist to Nurse
17. Neither can I. I’ll be late for work – Man 5 to Man 6
18. Cowards everyone of them. They can’t take it. – Man 5 and Man 6
19. I can’t stand howling children. I’m off – Man 2
20. “This time the saw will be on the edge of his teeth” – Man 7
21. What ever is the matter my dear? – Woman 5 to Woman 1
22. It’s Joe! Poor Joe! Goodness knows what state he’s in now – Woman 1 to Woman 5
23. Well I suppose he hasn’t come to any harm – Woman 5 to Woman 1
24. Oh! dear me! Where’s that very amusing one? – Woman 5
25. 25. Why, What ever is the matter, Emily? – Joe .
26. Of course I’m alright. Why shouldn’t I be all right? – Joe to Emily
27. But Joe, all that hammering and sawing – Emily to Joe
28. Oh, that! That was only the dentist trying to force open his instrument cabinet – Joe to Emily
29. So, he hasn’t done anything to you, Joe – Emily to Joe
30. Dear me, that long queue did move quickly, didn’t it? – Woman 5 to Nurse

IV. Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given below.

Question 1.
There is a sudden screech of metal from the surgery. Woman 1 gasps with horror and is about to make a dash for the surgery door when she is dragged back by Woman 2. Man 4 groans loudly. The Small Boy and the Little Girl at the table start a fight about a magazine they both want. Woman 8 and Woman 7 attempt to separate them. Through all this noise Woman 5 is still trying to show her photographs.
Little Girl: It’s mine! It’s mine!
Small Boy: No, it’s mine! I saw it first.
Woman 7: Sit down, Dorothea. Sit down and be quiet. I’ll tell your daddy about this. Then there’ll be trouble. Really, it’s the last time I’ll bring you anywhere.
Little Girl: See if I care.

Question (a)
Who is called “woman 1”?
Answer:
Emily is called woman 1.

Question (b)
Why does woman 1 gasp with horror?
Answer:
Woman 1 hears groaning sound from the surgery room. Besides patients waiting for the dentist, tell horrifying tales about the extraction of teeth. Nurse also carries Hammer and Hack saw to the surgery room. So, she gasps with horror.

Question (c)
Why does Woman 1 try to dash to the surgery door?
Answer:
Woman 1 tries to dash to the surgery door to find out if her husband Joe was alright.

Question (d)
What is the cause of fight between the two children?
Answer:
Both the children want the same magazine. So, they fight.

Question (e)
How does woman 7 threaten Dorothea? What is her reaction to the threat?
Answer:
Dorothea quarrels with another boy over a magazine. Her mom threatens her that she would tell her dad and she would never bring her again anywhere. The little girl just does not care about the double threat.

2. I can’t stand it. Oh, Joe! Joe! Joe!
(Man 4 groans.)
Small Boy: What was that noise, Mummy?
Woman 8: Don’t ask awkward questions, Maurice.
Man 7: I’ll tell you, little boy. That noise was a man having a tooth out. That’s how it’s going to sound when you have yours out, only much, much louder, because then it’ll be inside your head.
Woman 6: What a thing to tell a small boy!
Man 6: Disgusting!
Man 7: It’ll do the lad good. Bring‘em up natural, I always say.

Question (a)
What is unbearable for woman 1?
Answer:
The sawing, screeching sound accompanied by a loud groan from the surgery room upsets woman 1. She thinks that her husband Joe, the first patient is subjected to torture.

Question (b)
Who asked awkward questions?
Answer:
Maurice asked awkward questions.

Question (c)
Why does the woman think that the question was awkward?
Answer:
Screeching sound and groaning sound are quite common in the surgery room of a Dentist when he is extracting a bad teeth. So, the question about the groan is said to be awkward.

Question (d)
Why was the answer to the boy’s question considered “disgusting”?
Answer:
The man 7 answered that the noise was from a man whose tooth was being extracted. He added when the little boy’s tooth is extracted there would be louder noise. So, this owner is deemed ‘disgusting’.

Question (e)
How did man 7 justify his answer? .
Man 7 justified his answer that it would help the lady to raise her son in a natural way.

3. Woman 6: But surely, they can’t really be using those tools to take out a tooth.
Woman 4: You heard what the Man said.
Woman 6: And those men have gone, too.
Man 7: Cowards, every one of them. They can’t take it.
Little Girl: Mummy, I was only joking about my toothache, too. I haven’t really got one. I was only trying to get off school.
Woman 7: Nonsense, Dorothea, you know your tooth is as black as the kitchen range. You’re only trying to get out of it.(The Little Girl breaks into a howl.)

Question (a)
What tools are talked about here?
Answer:
The carpentry tools like hammer, pliers and hacksaw are talked about here.

Question (b)
Why does the woman feel that the tools are inappropriate there?
Answer:
The woman believed that the carpentry tools may not be needed by a dentist to remove tooth. So, she feels they are inappropriate there.

Question (c)
Why does man 7 call his fellow patients as cowards?
Answer:
Some of the male patients left the clinic without meeting the dentists. Man 7 thought that they were scared of the tools of tooth extraction and left the clinic. So, he described them as “cowards”.

Question (d)
How did the little girl try to outsmart her mom?
Answer:
The little girl said that she was only joking about her tooth ache.

Question (e)
How did Dorothea’s mom find out the truth?
Dorothea’s teeth was black. The bad tooth had to be extracted. But Dorothea claimed that she was only joking about her tooth ache. So, mom found out Dorothea’s lies to escape the torture of the dentist.

4. Man 1: Why, whatever is the matter, Emily?
Woman 1: Joe, Joe, are you all right? Let me look at you, Joe! ,
Man 1: Of course I’m all right. Why shouldn’t I be all right?
Woman 1: But, Joe, all that hammering and sawing.
Man 1: Oh, that! That was only the dentist trying to force open his instrument cabinet. Woman 1: His cabinet?
Man 1: Yes, you see he lost the key.
Woman 1: So he hasn’t done anything to you, Joe!
Man 1: Not a thing, and I can’t wait any longer this morning. I’ve made an appointment with him for this evening instead. The nurse gave me some pills to deaden the pain in the meantime. Woman 1: Oh, Joe, I was so upset.
Man 1: Well, it’s all right now, Emily, so let’s go.

Question(a)
Why was Joe perturbed?
Answer:
Emily’s face was swollen and obviously she had cried. So, Joe was perturbed.

Question (b)
What did Emily want to look chosely at Joe?
Answer:
Emily was frightened that her husband Joe was subjected to some torture by the dentist. She wanted to find out if there were traces of pain or injury on his face. So, she wanted to look closely at Joe’s face.

Question (c)
Why did Emily think that her husband must have suffered much?
Answer:
Emily connected the sawing, hammering and groaning to the extraction of bad tooth. When noises came from the surgery room, Joe was inside it. So, Emily figured out that her husband must have suffered much.

Question (d)
How did Joe justify the loud noises and groan inside the dentist’s surgery room?
Answer:
The Dentist was trying to open his instrument key. He had lost his key somewhere. The sawing and screeching were the noises related to it.

Question (e)
How did the nurse help Joe?
Answer:
The nurse had given him some pills to dull the pain till the evening.

The First Patient About the Author

Christopher Victor Burgess is known as C. V. Burgess. He is a humorous playwright, His situational humour intensifies the emotions of the characters in the play. His plays ! usually accommodate a number of characters. His famous works are ‘Short Plays for Large Classes’, ‘Teach yourself Speech Training’ and ‘Classroom Playhouse Verse in Action’

The First Patient Summary

The story happens in a dentist’s clinic. The first patient Joe is called in by the dentist. For a long time all the waiting men, women and children hear loud groaning noise emerging from the surgical room of the dentist. Joe’s wife is obviously disturbed. She tries to barge into the surgical room to see for herself what is being done to Joe. Her curiosity turns into a traumatic experience as unusual tools like pliers, hammer and hacksaw add to the anxiety of Mrs. Joe. A girl namely Dorothea howls so hard that some men patients leave the clinic. A little boy confesses to his mom that he had faked tooth ache just for bunking his classes. His mom takes him back to school with a rebuke and threat that she would inform his teacher about it. The boy prefers punishment at school to surgery at the dentist’s room.

The little girl tries to persuade her mom to leave the waiting room. She says she has no bad tooth. The mother blackmails her that she wouldn’t give her ice-lollies if she doesn’t take the treatment. She also tells her sternly that if she howls again she wouldn’t bring her again to the dentist. The girl says that she would care less about it. Menfolks unable to wait for a longtime leave the clinic one by one. The boastful and snobbish lady who went on showing her photos to the waiting women is in for a surprise.

She is called in as the second patient. She wonders how, quickly the queue has moved on. Joe walks out of the surgical room with a beaming face. He admits that nothing happened to him. His appointment has been shifted to evening. Joe explains that the doctor has forgotten where he has left the tool cabin key. So, he was trying to open it so far with tools of carpentry. Mrs. Joe smiles understanding her

Textual:
agony – severe pain
blurred – hazy, not clear
dreadful – extremely bad
ferrying – carrying
gas – anesthesia
groaning – crying in pain
ice-lollies – flavoured ice or ice cream on a stick
queer – strange
scream – a very funny thing
sulking weeny tug – being sad and silent
wenny – small pull
writhing – twisting the body from side to side

Additional:
apprehension – worry
boastful – proud
extraction – removal
frightened – got afraid
groan – murmur in pain
restrained – detained
snobbish – thinking high of self
sympathized – felt sorry

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Supplementary Chapter 3 The First Patient Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

Students can Download Social Science Civics Chapter 2 Political Parties Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Political Parties

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Political Parties Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is meant by Bl-party system?
(a) Two parties run the government.
(b) Two members run a party.
(c) Two major political parties contest election.
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) Two parties run the government

Question 2.
Which system of government does India have?
(a) Single-party system
(b) Bl-party system
(c) Multi-party system
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Multi-party system

Question 3.
Recognition of a political party is accorded by .
(a) The Election commission
(b) The president
(c) The supreme court
(d) A committee
Answer:
(a) The Election commission

Question 4.
Political parties are generally formed on the basic Of
(a) Religious principles
(b) Common interest
(c) Economic principles
(d) caste
Answer:
(b) Common interest

Question 5.
Single-party system is found in
(a) India
(b) US.A
(c) France
(d) China
Answer:
(d) China

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ______ form the back bone of democracy.
2. Every party in our country has to register with ______
3. Political parties serve as intermediaries between the ______ and ______
4. A registered but ______ political party cannot contest election on its own symbol.
5. The leader of the opposition party enjoys the rank of ______

Answer:

1. Political parties
2. Election Commission
3. citizen, the policy makers
4. unrecognised
5. Cabinet minister

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. iv
3. ii
4. i

IV. Consider the following statements:
Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Which of the following statement is/are correct?
(a) Every party in the country has to register with the election commission.
(b) The commission treats all the parties equally.
(c) Election commission allots a separate symbol for recognized parties.
(d) All the above.
Answer:
d) All the above.

Question 2.
Assertion: Majority party plays a decisive role in making laws for the country.
Reason: The number of candidates elected is more than the others in the election.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) R is wrong A is correct.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the basic components of a political party?
Answer:
Any political party has three basic components

1. the leader
2. the active members
3. the followers

Question 2.
Name the three major types of party system.
Answer:
Single party system, Bi-party system, and multi-party system.

Question 3.
Name the countries which follow Bi – party system.
Answer:
UK, USA

Question 4.
Write a note on Coalition Government.
Answer:
In a Multiparty system a single party sometimes may not secure the majority required to form the government. In such a case, some parties join together to form the government. Such government is called Coalition Government.

VI. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write any four functions of political party?
Answer:
Functions of the Political parties:

1. Provide: Loyal opposition, accountability & stability.
2. Nominate: Select and nominate individuals to elected office.
3. Organize: Organize political campaign, rallies and announcement of Manifesto to win public office.
4. Inspire: Put forward different policies and programmes for the welfare of the people.
5. Co -ordinate: Connect the society and the state. Co-ordinate among members elected to office.
6. Govern: Form and run the government and develop public policy.

Question 2.
When is a political party recognized as a National Party?
Answer:
Criteria for A political party to be recognised as a National Party

1. The party that secures should atleast 6% of the valid votes in Lok sabha election or assembly elections in four states.
2. They must win 4 seats in Lok sabha from any State/States
3. It has to win 2% of seats in Lok sabha from atleast 3 different states in the latest general election.

VII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Is political party necessary for a democratic country?
Answer:
Yes political parties are necessary for a democratic country because

1. They are the backbone of democracy.
2. They are essential elements to form the government.
3. Citizens can elect their representatives.
4. Citizens also vote for the party of their choice and thus influence Government formation.

Question 2.
Give any three names of National party, Regional party, and Registered but unrecognized party.
Answer:

1. National Party: Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party, Communist party of India.
2. Regional Party: All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, Dravida Munnatra Kazhagam, Desiya Murpokku Dravidar Kazhagam, Pattali Makkal Katchi
3. Registered but unrecognized party: Labour party of India, Bhartiya Panchayat party, Indian Indira Congress.

VIII. Activity:

Question 1.
Write an election manifesto (if you were a party leader).
Answer:
If our party comes to power, we would

1. Take measures to give a corruption free Government.
2. Agriculture sector would be given prior importance.
3. Students will be taught technical skills at school which would enhance their scope for employment.
4. Free and quality medical care would be made available to all the needy people.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Political Parties Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In earlier times, the ______ was the supreme head of the Legislative, Executive and Judiciary branches.
(a) Governor
(b) Viceroy
(c) King
(d) Minister
Answer:
(c) King

Question 2.
In ______ India became a democratic country.
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1948
(d) 1952
Answer:
(b) 1950

Question 3.
The head quarters of Election commission is located in
(a) Chennai
(b) Mumbai
(c) New Delhi
(d) Kolkatta
Answer:
(c) New Delhi

Question 4.
A registered but unrecognised political party has to choose any symbol from .
(a) free symbols poll panel
(b) a list of their own choice
(c) ones which other parties have been given
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) free symbols poll panel

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The _____ of India is an autonomous constitutional authority to administer elections.
2. A reserved symbol is meant for a ______
3. Shiv Sena in Maharashtra and Jharkhand Mukti Morcha in Jharkand use _____ as their symbol.

Answer:

1. Election Commission
2. recognised political party
3. bow and arrow

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. ii
2. iii
3. i

IV. (Consider the following statements:
Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The role of the opposition party is as important as that of ruling party.
Reason (R) : They check the autocratic tendencies of the ruling party.
(a) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A and R are wrong.
(d) R is wrong A is correct.
Answer:
(b) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement/s is /are true?
(a) Political parties capture power only for constitutional means.
(b) They have their own ideology and Program.
(c) Political parties are recognized if they are engaged in political activity for 1 year.
(d) Political Parties provide legal opposition, accountability and stability.
Answer:
(a), (b) and (d)

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is party ‘manifesto’?
Answer:
During the campaign before election, the candidates announce the programmes and policies that their party will undertake if voted to power.

Question 2.
Mention the steps involved in forming a political party?
Answer:

1. Must get registered with Election Commission of India
2. Must have atleast 100 members. Each member needs to hold a voting card.
3. Must write a Party Constitution.

Question 3.
What is a regional/State party?
Answer:

1. A party that secures 6% of the votes in the state legislative assembly election.
2. It should win one Lok sabha seat for every 25 seats or at least 2 seats in Legislative assembly.
3. Should win a minimum of 3% of the total seats in Legislative assembly.

Question 4.
What is a Majority party?
Answer:

1. The Political Party whose number of candidates elected is more than the others is called the majority party.
2. The Majority Party forms and runs the government.

Question 5.
What is a Minority party?
Answer:
The Political Party with lesser number of elected candidates are called the Minority party.

Question 6.
What is an opposition party?
Answer:
The party which gets second largest number of seats next to the majority party in the election is called the Opposition party.

Question 7.
What is an Electroal symbol?
Answer:
An electoral symbol is a standardised symbol allocated to a political party. They play an important role in elections.

Question 8.
Distinguish between National party and Regional/State party?
Answer:

VI. Answer the following in Detail

Question 1.
Describe the major types of party system.
Answer:
There are three major types of party system.

1. Single Party System: a system in which a single political party has the right to form the government. Single party existed in China, North Korea and Cuba.
2. Bi – Party System: In Bi -Party system the power is usually shared between two parties. Of the two parties one becomes the ruling party and the other becomes opposition, eg Bi-Party system can be seen in U.K, U.S.A
3. Multi – Party System: When the competition for power is among three or more parties, the system is known as multi party system. This type of party system is in existence in India, France, Sweden and Norway etc.