Category: Class 6

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Vedic Culture Was Dash In Nature Question 1.
Aryans first settled in __________ region
(a) Punjab
(b) Middle Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Northeast
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Vedic Culture In North India And Megalithic Culture In South India Question 2.
Aryans came from ……………
(a) China
(b) North Asia
(c) Central Asia
(d) Europe
Answer:
(c) Central Asia

6th Social Guide Question 3.
Our National Motto “Sathyameva Jay ate” is taken from
(a) Brahmana
(c) Aranyaka
(b) Veda
(d) Upanishad
Answer:
(d) Upanishad

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Free Download Question 4.
What was the ratio of land revenue collected during Vedic Age ……………
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/6
(c) 1/8
(d) 1/9
Answer:
(b) 1/6

II. Match the statement with the Reason / Tick the appropriate answer:

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 1.
Assertion : The vedic age is evidenced by good number of texts and adequate amount of material evidences.
Reason : Shrutis comprise the Vedas, the Brahmanas, the Aranyakas and the Upanishads.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Answer:
(d) A is false but R is true.

6th Standard Social Science Guide In English Medium Pdf Download Question 2.
Statement I : Periplus mentions the steel imported into Rome from peninsular India was subjected to duty in the port of Alexandria.
Statement II : Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalli.
(a) Statement I is wrong
(b) Statement II is wrong
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic society
(a) A widow could re-marry.
(b) Child marriage was in practice.
(c) Father’s property was inherited by his son.
(d) Sati was unknown.
Answer:
(b) Child marriage was in practice.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 4.
Which is the correct ascending order of the Rig Vedic society?
(a) Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra < Jana
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra
(c) Rashtra < Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis
(d) Jana < Grama < Kula < Vis < Rashtra
Answer:
(b) Kula < Grama < Vis < Jana < Rashtra

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. Vedic culture was in nature.
2. was a tax collected from the people in Vedic period.
3. system is an ancient learning method.
4. Adhichanallur is in district.

Answer:

1. kinship
2. Bali
3. Gurukula
4. Thoothukudi

IV. True or False:

1. The Roman artefacts found at various sites provide evidence of Indo – Roman trade relations.
2. A Hero Stone is a memorial stone raised in remembrance of the honourable death of a hero.
3. The army chief was called Gramani.
4. The Black and Red were pottery became the characteristic of the Megalithic period.
5. Evidence for iron smelting has come to light at Paiyampalii.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

V. Match the following

Answers:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 1.
Name the four Vedas.
Answer:
The four Vedas are Rig, Yajur, Sama and Atharva.

6th Social Science Guide Question 2.
What were the animals domesticated by Vedic people?
Answer:

1. Elephants
2. Cow
3. Goat
4. Sheep
5. Horse

6th Social Guide Term 1 Question 3.
What do you know about Megalith?
Answer:
The term ‘Megalith’ is derived from Greek. ‘Megas’ means great and ‘lithos’ means stone. Using big stone slabs built upon the places of burial is known as Megalith.

6th Std Social Science Guide Tamil Medium Pdf Question 4.
What are Dolmens?
Answer:

1. Dolmens are Megalithic tombs.
2. They are made of two or more upright stones with a single stone lying across the burial site.

6 Social Guide Question 5.
What are Urns?
Answer:
Urns are large pottery jars used for burying the dead.

6th Standard Social Science Guide Question 6.
Name the coins used for business transactions in the Vedic period.
Answer:

1. Nishka
2. Satmana (gold)
3. Krishnala (silver)

Question 7.
Name some Megalithic monuments found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Dolmens
2. Menhir

Dolmens are Megalithic tombs. Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraraghavapuram village, Kanchipuram district, Kummalamaruthupatti, Dindigulfc, district, and in Narasingampatti, Madurai district.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write briefly about the archaeological site at Kodumanal.
Answer:

1. Kodumanal is in Erode district.
2. Kodumanal is identified with the Kodumanam of Pathitrupathu.
3. More than 300 pottery inscriptions in Tamil Brahmi have been discovered.
4. Spindles, whorls, piece of cloth, tools, weapons, ornaments and beads have been discovered.
5. A Menhir was found at the burial site.

Question 2.
Write about the Vedic women in a paragraph.
Answer:

1. In Rig Vedic society, women relatively enjoyed some freedom.
2. The wife was respected as the mistress of the household.
3. She could perform rituals in her house.
4. In Rig Vedic period widows could remarry.
5. But they were denied to inherit parental property.
6. They played no role in public affairs.
7. In the later Vedic period women’s position declined, demand to perform rituals and marriage rules became more rigid.
8. Polygamy became common, and women were denied education

VIII. HOTS:
Question 1.
Difference between the Gurukula system of education and the Modern system of education.
Answer:

IX. Pride and Joy – Let us find out die fact

X. students Activity

Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words.
(Shruti, Gramani, Rashtras, Iron Age, Semi-nomadic, Barter)
a. Shruti – Shruti works are considered to have been heard and transmitted by earthly sages.
b. Gramani – Gramani was the head of a village called Grama.
c. Rashtras – Rashtras were tribal kingdoms like Bharatas and Matsyas.
d. Iron Age – In India the Vedic period covers both the end of the Bronze Age and the start of the Iron Age.
e. Semi nomadic – Semi nomadic people lived usually in portable or temporary dwellings practicing seasonal migration.
f. Barter – Under barter system people exchanged services and goods for other services and goods in turn.

Question 2.
Word Search

1. A pass – KHYBER
2. Text containing teachings on religion – SMRITI
3. A group of villages – VIS
4. A tribal assembly – GANA
5.  Assembly of people – SAMITI
6. Fire – AGNI
7. Gold coin – SATMANA
8. Period of Vedic Age – IRON AGE
9. Megalithic tomb – DOLMENS

XI. Life Skill

Question 1.
Collect information from Newspapers about archaeological finds with the help your teacher.
Answer:

(i) An archaeological site is a place where evidence of past activity is preserved.

(ii) Archaeological theory is used to interpret the archaeological record for a better understanding of human culture.

(iii) The archaeological record can consist of the earliest ancient findings as well as contemporary artefacts. For example ‘The Hindu’ dated August 10, 2017, published the information about Azhagankulam site. New finds link Azhagankulam site to Sangam Era. 12,000 artefacts unearthed so far; Archaeologists believe excavation could throw up more surprises. The excavation at Azhagankulam in the Vaigai River Valley show that the site could date back to the Sangam Age, quite like the archaeological site at Keezhadi in Sivaganga district.

(iv) Another example: Hindustan Times dated June 28, 2016. Archaeologists and Researchers have unearthed the crumbling remains of an ancient urban centre, equal in size and importance of that of Mohenjodaro. Keezhadi is a small village that lies past an unmanned railway crossing, several stretches of paddy fields and swaying palms in the Sivaganga district of Tamil Nadu, 12 kms from the city of Madurai.

XII. Answer Grid:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Intext Questions

HOTS

Question 1.
State the differences between Indus and Vedic civilization.
Answer:

Vedic Culture In North India and Megalithic Culture in South India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The first phase of urbanisation in India came to an end with the decline of ______
(a) Indus civilization
(b) Vedic civilization
(c) Bronze civilization
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Indus civilization

Question 2.
Sapta Sindhu was the land of ……………
(a) Five
(b) Seven
(c) Eight
(d) Ten
Answer:
(b) Seven

Question 3.
Sapta Sindhu means the land of ______
(a) Seven rivers
(b) Seven villages
(c) Seven Tribes
(d) Seven hills
Answer:
(a) Seven rivers

Question 4.
Paiyampalli is in …………… District.
(a) Erode
(b) Vellore
(c) Thoothukudi
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(b) Vellore

Question 5.
In economic, political and military matters, the king was assisted by the ______
(a) Gramani
(b) Senani
(c) Purohit
(d) Vidhata
Answer:
(b) Senani

Question 6.
Non-Aryans were called ______
(a) Janas
(b) Dasyus
(c) Sabha
(d) Samitha
Answer:
(b) Dasyus

Question 7.
In the Later Vedic Period the role of women in society ______
(a) increased
(b) declined
(c) remained the same as before
(d) became equal with the role of man
Answer:
(b) declined

Question 8.
The staple crop of the Aryans was ______
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Millets
(d) Barley
Answer:
(d) Barley

Question 9.
Paiympalli is located in ______ district.
(a) Vellore
(b) Madurai
(c) Sivaganga
(d) Dindigul
Answer:
(a) Vellore

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Megalithic monuments bear witness to a highly advanced
state of civilisation with the knowledge of iron and community living.
Reason (R) : Megalithic Dolmens have been found in Veeraragavapuram village,
Kanchipuram District.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is False.
(d) A is false and R is True.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

Question 2.
Statement I : The Aryans were semi-nomadic pastoralists.
Statement II : The Aryans practised slash and burn agriculture.
(a) Statement I is wrong.
(b) Statement II is wrong.
(c) Both the Statements are wrong,
(d) Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(d) Both Statements are correct.

Question 3.
Which of the statement is not correct in the Vedic economy?
(a) Carpenters and Potters were there
(b) Two crops a year was raised
(c) The staple crop was wheat
(d) Barter system was prevalent
Answer:
(c) The staple crop was wheat

Question 4.
Which of the statement is correct in the Vedic culture?
(a) Bali was tax consisting of % of the agricultural produce or cattle for a person.
(b) Dasyus were Aryans Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class Polygamy was unknown
(c) Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class
(d) Polygamy was unknown
Answer:
(c) Kshatriyas belonged to the warrior class

III. Fill lit the blanks:

1. Vedic Age gets its name from ______
2. The Aryans moved eastward and settled in ______
3. Smritis are not ______
4. The basic unit of the Vedic Polity was ______
5. Sabha means ______
6. Samiti means ______
7. The Vedic family was ______
8. In the later Vedic period the rules of marriage became ______
9. Pottery of the vedic period was ______
10. In the Vedic period the mode of prayer was recitation of ______
11. The ancient method of learning was ______
12. Megalithic period in ancient Tamilakam synchronised with ______

Answer:

1. Four Vedas
2. Indo Gangetic Plain
3. eternal
4. Kula
5. A Council of Elders
6. Assembly of People
7. patriarchal
8. more rigid
9. Painted Grey Ware Culture
10. Vedic Hymns
11. Gurukula System
12. Pre sangam period

IV. State True or False

1. Vedic Age is a period in History of India between 1500 BC (BCE) and – 600 BC (BCE).
2. Ithihasas come under Shrutis.
3. Smritis are constantly revised.
4. Rajan was the head of a Village.
5. The king performed various rituals to make his position strong.
6. A rigid four fold vama system emerged under the Rig Vedic society.
7. Women of Vedic society played a major role in Public Affairs.
8. Idol worship was practised in the vedic period.
9. Under Gurukula system the Shishyas resided with their Guru.
10. The later Vedic culture in North India and the Iron Age in south India belong to the same period.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True

V. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. 3
2. 1
3. 4
4. 2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is slash and burn agriculture?
Answer:
Slash and bum agriculture is a farming method that involves clearing the land by cutting and burning all the trees and plants on it. Cultivation is done there for a short time.

Question 2.
What were the crops cultivated?
Answer:

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Barley

Question 3.
Mention the archaeological sources of the Aryans.
Answer:
Material remains such as iron implements and pottery from the archaeological sites in Punjab, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan along the Indus and the Ganges form the archaeologic sources of the Aryans.

Question 4.
Classify the Vedic Age.
Answer:

Question 5.
By whom were the powers of the Raj an limited?
Answer:

1. The main responsibility of the Rajan was to protect his tribe.
2. His powers were limited by tribal assemblies namely Vidhata, Sabha, Samiti and Gana.

Question 6.
When did hereditary kingship begin to emerge?
Answer:

1. When the Aryans moved east ward- into Ganges-Yamuna-Doab regions, the early settlements were replaced by territorial kingdoms.
2. Thus the hereditary kingship began to emerge.

Question 7.
How were Janapadas formed?
Answer:
In later Vedic period, many Janas or Tribes were amalgamated to form Janapadas or Rashtras.

Question 8.
Who formed Trevji in the early Vedic society?

1. Within the early Vedic Society there were three divisions (Trevji) as given below:
2. The general public were called Vis, the warrior class was called Kshatriyas and the Priestly class was named Brahmanas.

Question 9.
Mention the subject of the study under Gurukula system.
Answer:
The subjects of the study under Gurukula system included the four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths and military science.

Question 10.
Mention the four ashramas which emerged during the later vedic period.
Answer:
Towards the end of the later Vedic period, the concept of four stages in life (the four
ashramas) developed.

1. Brahmacharya (Student Life)
2. Grihastha (Married Life)
3. Vanaprastha (Going to the forest to meditate)
4. Sanyasa (Leading a life of an ascetic)

Question 11.
Define the term Menhir.
Answer:
In Breton Language ‘Men’ means “stone” and ‘hir’ means “long.” They are monolithic pillars planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead.

Question 12.
Where are herostones found in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
In Tamil Nadu hero stones are found at Maanur village near Palani, Dindigul district, Vellalankottai, Tuticorin district, and Pulimankombai, Dindigul district.

VII. Answer the following:

Question 1.
What about the Aryans and their home in India?
Answer:

(i) Aryans of the Rig Vedic Period were semi-nomadic. They were basically pastoral people with cattle as their main source of wealth.

(ii) In the Rig Vedic times, the Aryan homeland was Punjab, which was at that time called Sapta Sindhu, the land of seven rivers.

(iii) Around 1000 BC (BCE), Aryans in India moved eastward and settled in Indo- Gangetic Plain.

(iv) Use of iron axes and ploughs became widespread.

Question 2.
By whom was Rajan helped to protect his tribe?
Answer:

1. The main responsibility of the Rajan was to protect his tribe.
2. His powers were limited by tribal assemblies namely Vidhata, Sabha, Samiti and Gana.
3. Of these Vidhata, (the tribal assembly) was the oldest.
4. The king appointed a purohit (chief priest) to assist him.
5. In economic, political and military matters, the king was assisted by the Senani (army chief).
6. Gramani was the leader of the village.

Question 3.
How did trade become extensive under the Vedic age?
Answer:

1. Under the Vedic age, use of iron plough and axe helped to put more areas of land under cultivation.
2. Crops of wheat, rice and barley were cultivated.
3. With the growth of agriculture, the idea of private possession of land came into existence.
4. New crafts and arts developed leading to production of commodities for sale.
5. Thus, trade became extensive.
6. Barter system was prevalent.
7. They used Nishka, Satmana (gold coins) and Krishnala (silver coins) for business transactions.

Question 4.
State the salient features of the Gurukula system of education.
Answer:

1. The gurukula system is an ancient learning method.
2. The word Gurukula is a combination of the Sanskrit Word Guru (teacher or master) and Kula (family or home).
3. The shishyas resided with their guru and served them and simultaneously learnt L and gained knowledge.
4. Only Dvijas could be Shishyas. No women could have formal education.
5. The students received education through oral tradition meaning rote learning, and were required to memorise everything.
6. The subjects of the study included the four Vedas, Ithihasas, Puranas, grammar, logic, ethics, astrology, maths and military science.
7. The students were also trained to lead a disciplined life.

Question 5.
Write a note on Keezhadi in Sivaganga district. g ‘
Answer:

(i) The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) excavated an ancient town dating to Sangam Age in Keezhadi village at Tirupathur taluk.

(ii) Excavations have produced evidence for brick buildings, and well laid – out drainage system.

(iii) Tamil – Brahmi inscription on pottery, beads of glass, camelian and quartz, pearl, gold ornaments and iron objects, shell bangles, ivory dice have been unearthed.

(iv) The Roman artefacts found at the site add to the evidence of ancient Indo -Roman trade relations.

(v) Periplus mentions the steel imported to Rome from Peninsular India was subj ected to duty in the port of Alexandria.

Question 6.
What are Menhirs ? Where are they find in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

(i) Menhirs are monolithic pillars planted vertically into the ground in memory of the dead.

(ii) Menhir at Singaripalayam in Tirupur District and at Vembur in Theni District points to the existence of an ancient settlement along the banks of River Uppar.

(iii) Menhirs are found at Narasingampatti, Madurai district, Kumarikalpalayam and Kodumanal in Erode district.

VIII. Word search
Question 1.
Sentence making by using these new words.

1. Shruti Literature – UPANISHADS
2. An Archaeological site – RAJASTHAN
3. A tribal kingdom – PURAS
4. Three divisions of Early Vedic Society – TREYI
5. Unknown to Rig vedic women – SATI
6. Shyama – IRON
7. Leading of life of an ascetic – SANYASA
8. The Roman artefacts found here – KEEZHADI
9. Used for making thread from cotton – WHORLS
10. The Monolithic pillars planted vertically – MENHIR

IX. Answer Grid.

Students can Download English Lesson 2 When the Trees Walked Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Prose Chapter 2 When the Trees Walked

Reading

Listen to your teacher read the first part of the story. Many things described in the story can be seen in the picture. Find and name them.

Answer:

1. Mango Tree
2. Bungalow
3. Author
4. Grandpa
5. Plants
6. Butterflies

Discuss and answer.

When The Trees Walked Questions And Answers Question 1.
When did the garden become a happy place for the author?
Answer:
The garden became a happy place for the author when his grandfather joined him.

When The Trees Walked Question 2.
What are the two reasons the author gives for the plants moving towards grandfather?
Answer:
The two reasons the author gives for the plants moving towards grandfather are:

1. Light & Warmth
2. They liked to be near grandpa.

When The Trees Walked Lesson Question Answer Question 3.
Why does the writer think that the peepul tree is a great show off?
Answer:
Even when there is no breeze, their road-chested, slim-waisted leave will spin like tops determined to attract your attention and invite you into the shade.

Discuss and answer.

When The Trees Walked Summary Question 1.
Why do we need trees? List four reasons that Grandfather gives.
Answer:

1. We need trees to keep the desert away.
2. To attract rain.
3. To prevent banks of rivers being washed away.
4. For fruits and flowers
5. For timber.

When The Trees Walked Book Back Answers Question 2.
Why did the author help his Grandfather plant trees?
Answer:
The thought of a world without trees became a sort of nightmare to the author and so he helped his Grandfather in his tree-planting with greater enthusiasm.

When The Trees Walked 6th Standard Question 3.
What made Grandfather plant saplings on the rocky island?
Answer:
There was a mango tree on the island. So grandfather planted saplings there.

Discuss and answer.

When The Trees Walked Lesson Question 1.
What did grandmother feel about trees growing in the house?
Answer:
Grandmother felt that trees growing in the house made it look like a roof brought down by jungle.

Question 2.
Why did the author leave town?
Answer:
The author left town to live with his father.

Question 3.
How did grandfather’s dream come true?
Answer:
The island became a small green paradise.

Question 4.
Describe what the author saw when he went back to the Island.
Answer:
When he went back to the island, the author noticed smaller trees, wild plants and grasses had sprung up under their protection. The trees they had planted long ago had multiplied.

Read and Understand

A. Tick the most appropriate option.

Question 1.
According to the author the tendril was moving towards grandfather because it
(a) needed light and warmth .
(b) did not like the light and warmth,
(c) wanted to be near Grandfather. (✓)
(d) wanted to escape from the winter

2. Grandmother had wanted the peepul tree cut down because
(a) she did not like trees.
(b) she wanted to grow flowers.
(c) it was an old tree.
(d) it was knocking down the bricks of the outhouse. (✓)

3. Grandfather helped grandma out with the gardening because he
(a) liked gardening.
(b) wanted to grow flowers to attract butterflies. (✓)
(c) wanted to beautify the garden.
(d) wanted to make the house green.

4. The author did not want to plant saplings in the forest because
(a) no one would come to see them (✓)
(b) it was dangerous to enter the forest.
(c) it would not be of any use to them.
(d) no one would appreciate them.

5. Grandfather felt planting trees would help the forest because
(a) he wanted to make the view beautiful.
(b) the river-bed was dry.
(c) animals and birds in the forest would love him.
(d) the animals and birds would find it easier to live. (✓)

6. When the author returned from England to Dehradun, he found Grandfather’s dream had come true because the
(a) old house had changed.
(b) river was full.
(c) trees had red flowers.
(d) forest covered the island. (✓)

B. Read the story on your own. Discuss in a group and complete the story map below.

Answer:
story map is the main events of the story given in a flow chart.

C. Work in groups of five. Tell the story in ten sentences.

You can begin the story like this :
The author’s Grandfather served in the Indian Forest Service.
After his retirement he built ________
Now continue the story. Each one should say one sentence.
Answer:

1. Grandfather built a bungalow.
2. He planted trees around it.
3. During the rains Grandfather walked into the jungle.
4. He planted cuttings & saplings.
5. They found a small rocky island.
6. Grandfather planted a number of tamarind, laburnum and coral tree saplings.
7. During the second world war, the author was sent to a boarding school.
8. Two or three years later he went to England.
9. Some years later, the author returned and saw the island.
10. He looked around and noticed a beautiful small green paradise.

D. Write a summary based on the story map.
Answer:
Grandfather built a bungalow and planted trees around it. During the rains grandfather walked into the jungle. He planted cuttings & saplings. They found a small rocky island and grandfather planted a number of tamarind, laburnum and coral tree saplings. During the second world war, the author was sent to a boarding school. Two or three years later he went to England. Some years later, the author returned and saw the island. He looked around and noticed a beautiful small green paradise.

Vocabulary

E. Look at the words in the boxes. Match the words to make as many new words as possible. One is done for you. Eg. out house.

1. Out – a. root
2. river – b. wall
3. water – c. garden
4. flower – d. body
5. sun – e. hill
6. aerial – f. bed
7. busy – g- sill
8. window – h. house
9. foot – i. shine
10. compound – j fall

Answer:

1. (h)
2. (f)
3. (j)
4. (c)
5. (i)
6. (a)
7. (d)
8. (g)
9. (e)
10. (b)

F. Look at the words in the box. Make new words by adding ‘ly’ wherever possible, it will not be possible until all the words.
lone
blossom
fertile
vigorous
place
constant complete
strong
unlike
great
cross
immediate
broad

Answers:

lonely
vigorously
constantly
completely
strongly
unlikely
greatly
immediately
broadly

G. Look at the words in the box. Fill the wheel with their antonyms.

All the words begin with ‘S’ and are from the text.

hard, fat, weak, big, fast, hide, rough, dull

Answer:

hard × soft
fat × slim
weak × strong
big × small
fast × slow
hide × seek
rough × soft/still
dull × smart

Listening

H. Listen to you r teacher read out what happened to Nandhu. Some of the statements given beiow are correct. Tick them (✓).

• The truck went over a stone. (x)
• The box fell out of a truck. (✓)
• The brass lamp was in the truck. (x)
• Nandhu wanted to play with the lamp. (✓)
• It was like the lamp Nandhu had at home. (x)
• Nandhu pressed a button. (✓)

Speaking

I. Take something from your school bag. Describe it in three sentences. Ask the class to find out the thing you have described.

• I have a thin wooden piece.
• It has graphite in it.

J. Discuss in groups of five. Make a story about the comic strip. Then share it in the doss.
(To be done by the students)

Use Grammar

K. Tick the right option to fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
a beautiful flower!
(a) How
(b) Wow
(c) What
(d) Hurrah
Answer:
(c) What

Question 2.
play football?
(a) You can
(b) Can you
(c) Have you
(d) You could
Amswer:
(b) Can you

Question 3.
did you go yesterday?
(a) Which
(b) Where
(c) What
(d) Who
Answer:
(b) Where

Question 4.
us go for a walk.
(a) Shall
(b) May
(c) Let
(d) Can
Answer:
(c) Let

Question 5.
like to play hide and seek.
(a) He
(b) She
(c) I
(d) Muthu
Answer:
(c) I

L. Look at the punctuation of these sentences. Why are they punctuated differently ? Discuss in class.

Question 1.
One always felt like drawing close to Him.
Answer:.
This sentence is a statement. So, we end it with a full stop.

Question 2.
But no one ever comes here
Answer:
This sentence expresses surprise. So, we end it with an exclamation mark.

Question 3.
Who’s going to see them?
Answer:
This sentence asks a question. So, we end it with aquestion mark.

Question 4.
Come here.
Answer:
This sentence gives a command. So, we end it with a full stop.

M. Work in pairs and say the sentences to each other. Do you hear any difference in the way it is spoken? Discuss and share with the class. Discuss the difference in the meaning of the sentences.

Question 1.
This is a banyan tree.
Answer:
Statement / Declarative Sentence.

Question 2.
Is this a banyan tree?
Answer:
Question / Interrogative Sentence.

Question 3.
What a beautiful banyan tree
Answer:
Exclamation / Exclamatory Sentence.

Question 4.
Look at this banyan tree.
Answer:
Command / Imperative Sentence.

N. Read these sentences from the story carefully. Do they give commands or requests or make statements? Write ‘C’ for command and ‘R’ for request and ‘S’ for statement,

1. The tendril moved towards grandfather. [S]
2. I want a roof over my head. [S]
3. Please do not cut trees. [R]
4. We spent the whole day planting saplings. [S]
5. Will you please remove the trees growing on the [R]
6. There was a forest on the island. [S]
7. Go to the river bed. [C]
8. The island was a green paradise. [S]
9. Grow more trees to protect nature. [C]
10. Grandfather’s dream had come true. [S]

writing

O. Look at the picture and write a paragraph using the dues in the picture.
Grow and protect trees

Answer:
Trees are most essential. They are the homes to different birds & insects. They give us medicine. They give fruits and provide shade. They prevent soil erosion & landslides. Trees bring rain and keep the temperature cool.

Creative Writing

Look at the Picture and write a story

Answer:
Man needs oxygen to live. A man cuts trees for his needs but one day he realises that there is no good air to survive. The man needs oxygen cylinder. He pays the fees of cutting down trees.

When the Trees Walked Additional Questions

I. Select The Suitable Synonyms.

1. beside
(a) above
(b) next to
(c) below
Answer:
(b) next to

2. creeping
(a) crawling
(b) summing
(c) moving
Answer:
(a) crawling

3. beneath
(a) above
(b) under
(c) front
Answer:
(b) under

4. fertile
(a) barren
(b) worthy
(c) productive
Answer:
(c) productive

5. trailing
(a) making
(b) tracking
(c) stopping
Answer:
(b) tracking

6. abandoned
(a) deserted
(b) habited
(c) occupied
Answer:
(a) deserted

7. vigorous
(a) quick
(b) slow
(c) energetic
Answer:
(c) energetic

8. invite
(a) refuse
(b) welcome
(c) decline
Answer:
(b) welcome

9. determined
(a) confused
(b) set
(c) done
Answer:
(b) set

10. constantly
(a) rare
(b) never
(c) always
Answer:
(c) always

11. content
(a) plenty
(b) satisfied
(c) few
Answer:
(b) satisfied

12. protested
(a) opposed
(b) dispose
(c) destroy
Answer
(a) opposed

13. prevent
(a) stop
(b) allow
(c) send
Answer:
(a) stop

14. nightmare
(a) interesting dream
(b) terrific dream
(c) pleasant dream
Answer:
(b) terrific dream

15. enthusiasm
(a) fast
(b) dull
(c) excited
Answer:
(c) excited

16. spare
(a) pull
(b) leave
(c) change
Answer:
(b) leave

17. sheltered
(a) protected
(b) demolished
(c) cut
Answer:
(a) protected

18. interfering
(a) putting
(b) stopping
(c) letting
Answer:
(b) stopping

19. completely
(a) moderately
(b) partially
(c) totally
Answer:
(c) totally

20. rambling
(a) walking
(b) running
(c) wanderiftg
Answer:
(c) wandering

21. sprang
(a) rose
(b) jumped
(c) fall
Answer:
(a) rose

22. spectacular
(a) eye-catching
(b) wonderful
(c) unpleasant
Answer:
(a) eye-catching

23. beckon
(a) to chase
(b) to follow
(c) to call
Answer:
(c) to call

24. paradise
(a) hell
(b) forest
(c) heaven
Answer:
(c) heaven

25. contrast
(a) variation
(b) liken
(c) same
Answer:
(a) variation

II. Select The Suitable Antonyms.

1. slowly
(a) lazily
(b) fast
(c) moderately
Answer:
(b) fast

2. soft
(a) cozy
(b) smooth
(c) hard
Answer:
(c) hard

3. lonely
(a) accompanied
(b) isolated
(c) destitute
Answer:
(a) accompanied

4. broad
(a) large
(b) narrow
(c) extensive
Answer:
(b) narrow

5. including
(a) containing
(b) along with
(c) excluding
Answer:
(c) excluding

6. attract
(a) repel
(b) entice
(c) bring
Answer:
(a) repel

7. happy
(a) elated
(b) sad
(c) merry
Answer:
(b) sad

8. comer
(a) edge
(b) rim
(c) centre
Answer:
(c) centre

9. small
(a) big
(b) tiny
(c) paltry
Answer:
(a) big

10. prevent
(a) avoid
(b) let
(c) hinder.
Answer:
(b) let

11. beyond
(a) further
(b) farther
(c) nearby
Answer:
(c) nearby

12. protested
(a) accepted
(b) revolted
(c) objected
Answer:
(a) accepted

13. improve
(a) deteriorate
(b) mend
(c) develop
Answer:
(a) deteriorate

14. enthusiasm
(a) passion
(b) excitement
(c) disinterest
Answer:
(c) disinterest

15. many
(a) lot
(b) few
(c) any
Answer:
(b) few

16. dry
(a) arid
(b) wet
(c) barren
Answer:
(b) wet

17. crossly
(a) madly
(b) angrily
(c) calmly
Answer:
(c) calmly

18. bought
(a) sold
(b) acquired
(c) procured
Ans.
(a) sold

19. falling
(a) sliding
(b) raising
(c) dropping
Answer:.
(b) raising

20. several
(a) various
(b) lot of
(c) none
Answer:
(c) none

21. across
(a) forward
(b) beyond
(c) over
Answer:
(a) forward

22. whispered
(a) murmured
(b) roar
(c) muttered
Answer:
(b) roar

23. nearer
(a) closer
(b) beside
(c) furtherer
Answer:
(c) furtherer

24. multiplied
(a) divided
(b) augmented
(c) added
Answer:
(a) divided

III. State True or False.

1. Grandfather had served many years in the Indian Forest Service
2. During the holidays, I went to live with my father in Dehradun.
3. My grandparents sold the house and went to Delhi.
4. My grandfather taught me a poem by George Morris.
5. In the fertile Doon Valley, plants and trees did not grow tall and strong.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False

IV. Choose the Correct Answer

Question 1.
_______ minutes later, it had crossed the step and was touching his
(a) Two
(b) Twenty
(c) Ten
(d) Five
Answer:
(b) Twenty

Question 2.
In the fertile Doon Valley, plants and trees grew tall and _______
(a) weak
(b) sturdy
(c) strong
(d) big
Answer:
(c) strong

Question 3.
Peepul. trees are great _______
(a) trees
(b) boons
(c) show offs
(d) gifts
Answer:
(c) show offs

Question 4.
But men are cutting down without
(a) growing
(b) replacing
(c) looking at
(d) plantini
Answer:
(b) replacing

Question 5.
Grandfather helped her out with the
(a) watering
(b) cutting
(c) planting
(d) gardening
Answer:
(d) gardening

Question 6.
We’re planting them for the _______
(a) garden
(b) prize
(c) forest
(d) award
Answer:
(c) forest

Question 7.
One day, the trees will _______ again
(a) run
(b) jump
(c) come
(d) move
Answer:
(d) move

Question 8.
We found a small _______ island
(a) stony
(b) pretty
(c) rocky
(d) award
Answer:
(c) rocky

Question 9.
At every turn, there was _______ new to see.
(d) always
(b) something
(c) rarely
Answer:
(b) something

Question 10.
When I went up to the trees, I noticed that some _______ were living in them.
(a) monkeys
(b) bats
(c) squirrels
(d) birds
Answer:
(c) squirrels

V. Very Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What did the author notice, white he was sitting beside his Grandfather?
Answer:
He noticed a tendril of a creeping vine trailing nearby

Question 2.
Where had Ms grandfather served many years?
Ans:
His Grandfather served many years in the Indian Forest Service.

Question 3.
What did his grandfather do, after his retirement?
Answer:
After his retirement, he built a bungalow on the outskirts of Dehradun, planting trees all around.

Question 4.
Name some of thetreespiantedby his grandfather.
Answer:
Lime, Mango, Orange, Guava, Eucalyptus, Jacaranda and Persian lilacs.

Question 5.
What did his grandmother prefer doing?
Answer:
His grandmother preferred growing flowers and was constantly ordering Catalogues and seeds.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Who wanted to cut down the peepul tree?
Answer:
Grandmother wanted to cut down the peepul tree but grandfather decided not to cut it down, as he thought he could build another outhouse.

Question 2.
What was the reason behind Grandfather helpinc his wife in gardening?
Answer:
His Grandfather helped her not because he liked the flower gardens but because he liked watching butterflies being attracted towards the flowers.

Question 3.
Was Grandfather content with growing trees in his compound? Why?
Answer:
No, he was not content with growing trees only in his compound because he desired to plant saplings and cuttings in the forest for animals, birds for more food and shelter.

Question 4.
What did his grandfather teach the author, wt»Be they were tree-planting?
Answer:
While the author helped his grandfather, in his tree – planting with greater enthusiasm, his grandfather taught him a poem on trees by George Morris.

Question 5.
What brought Hie and greenness to the plants and trees?
Answer:
Out of the earth and rock and leafless boughs, the magic touch of the rains had bought life and greenness to the trees. Plants sprang up in the most unlikely of place.

VII. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Describe the oM peepul tree In the compound of grandfathers house.
Answer:
An old peepul tree broke through the walls of an abandoned outhouse, knocking the bricks down with its vigorous growth. Peepul trees are great show-offs. Even when there is no breeze, their broad-chested, slim waisted leaves will spin like tops determined to attract our attention and invite us into the shade. Though the author’s grandmother wanted to cut down the tree, his grandfather decided to keep it, as he thought he could build another outhouse.

Question 2.
What did the narrator and his grandfather do in an island?
Answer:
The narrator and his grandfather saw an island, a small rocky one in a dry river-bed. It was one of those river-beds so common in the foothills, which are completely dry in summer, but flooded during the monsoon rains. A small mango tree was growing on the island. Seeing this, they decided to plant other trees. As soon as the rains set in and while rivers could still be crossed, they set out with a number of tamarind, laburnum, coral tree saplings and cuttings. They spent the day planting them on the island.

Question 3.
What did the narrator see on the island, after several years?
Answer:
The author went to live with his father in Delhi. After two or three years he left for England. When he returned to Dehradun after many years, he walked towards the / river bed. He was surprised to see the amazing view of the island, where they had planted coral tree saplings. He could hear squirrels and koels asking him who he was. The narrator could see that the trees recognized him and came nearer to him. The trees, they had planted long ago, had multiplied. They were walking again. He remembered his grandfather’s words and his dream had come true.

Question 4.
How did grandfather’s drawn come true?
Answer:
The author’s grandfather planted trees all around his bungalow. He told that trees would give food and shelter to the birds and animals. In a small rocky island, he planted a number of tree saplings. After some years, the author went to the island. The island looked like a small green paradise. Birds were living there. The trees had multiplied. It was because of his grandfather’s effort. Thus grandfather’s dream came true.

Picto Grammar

The Sentence

Kinds of Sentences
There are four kinds of sentences.

1. Assertive
2. Interrogative
3. Imperative
4. Exclamatory

1. Assertive (or declarative) sentences : These sentences assert, state or declare something. An assertive sentence either makes an affirmative (positive) or a negative statement. In assertive sentences the object mostly comes before the verb. For example :

1. The moon shines during the night, (affirmative)
2. He was never interested in sports, (negative)

2. Interrogative sentences: These sentences ask questions. In such sentences, the verb or a part of the verb comes before the subject. For example :

1. Where is the golf club?
2. Do you like to play cricket?
3. What is the matter?
   Interrogative sentences end with a question mark. (?)

3. Imperative sentences : These sentences express command, request, entreaty, suggestion or wish. The subject is generally omitted in these sentences. For example :

1. Never tease animals, (command)
2. Bring me a loaf of bread, please, (request)
3. Could you please show me the way to the airport? (suggestion)
4. It is better for you to consult a lawyer, (suggestion)
5. Bless me, Oh God. (entreaty)
6. God save my country, (wish)
   Imperative sentences also end with a full stop (.).

4. Exclamatory sentences: These sentences express strong and sudden feelings. For example :

1. How good the painting is!
2. What a beautiful woman you are!
3. How hot it is!
4. What a horrible man!
   Exclamatory sentences end with an exclamation mark (!).

Declarative or Interrogative?

Write whether the sentence is declarative or interrogative.

1. _______ The wind blows hard in a hurricane. [Declarative]
2. _______ How are you? [Interrogative]
3. _______ Who has seen the magic show? [Interrogative]
4. _______ Do you like white bread or wheat bread the best? [Interrogative]
5. _______ Fifteen boys and twelve girls ride my bus. [Declarative]
6. _______ Evan and Gary made a kite. [Declarative]
7. _______ The clowns made me laugh. [Declarative]
8. _______ Those three girls are my best friends. [Declarative]
9. _______ May I look at your pictures? [Interrogative]
10. _______ Can you tell time? [Interrogative]
11. _______ Who knows why dogs can’t write? [Interrogative]
12. _______ Mac can jump on a skateboard. [Declarative]

Declarative, Imperative, Interrogative, or Exclamatory?

I. Write whether the sentence is declarative, imperative, interrogative, or exclamatory.

1. _______ The little kittens feel so soft and warm. [Declarative]
2. _______ Wow! That was cool. [Exclamatory]
3. _______ Stop hitting me! [Imperative]
4. _______ Quit crying [Imperative]
5. _______ Can you see the bottom of the pond? [Interrogative]
6. _______ When will you be home? [Interrogative]
7. _______ Who has read this book? [Interrogative]
8. _______ The wind blows hard in a hurricane. [Declarative]
9. _______ Do not eat so much cake. [Imperative]
10. _______ Show Mom your report card. [Imperative]
11. _______ Kick the ball harder. [Imperative]
12. _______ Belinda has on a blue dress today. [Declarative]

II. Add the correct ending punctuation. Then write whether declarative, imperative, interrogative, or exclamatory.

1. _______ be careful ___ [. / Imperative]
2. _______ Mr. Vader wrote a note to my mother and father ___ [. / Declarative]
3. _______ Stop yelling at me ___ [. / Imperative]
4. _______ This shirt is not his ___ [. / Declarative]
5. _______ How fast can Ken run ___ [? / Interrogative]
6. _______ Show Mom your report card ___ [. / Imperative]
7. _______ Get out of my house ___ [. / Imperative]
8. _______ Lay this book on the table ___ [. / Imperative]
9. _______ Have you seen my baby brother ___ [? / Interrogative]
10. _______ Josh plays the drums in a band ___ [. / Declarative]
11. _______ Show me your homework ___ [. / Imperative]
12. _______ Does Ali have a sister ___ [? / Interrogative]

III. Tick the right option to fill in the blanks

Question 1.
_______ likes to play hide and seek.
(a) We
(b) Raju
(c) They
Answer:
(b) Raju

Question 2.
Wait a minute. _______ ?
(a) are you
(b) were you
(c) will you
Answer:
(c) will you

Question 3.
_______ you like tea?
(a) Could
(b) Would
(c) Should
Answer:
(b) Would

Question 4.
_______ big eyes you have!
(a) Which
(b) Where
(c) What
Answer:
(c) What

When the Trees Walked Summary

Section I

The story starts with the narrator and his Grandfather sitting on the veranda steps when the narrator notices a tendril (a climbing plant) creeping towards the Grandfather. After twenty minutes the tendril crosses the step and touches Grandfather’s feet.

The narrator believes there is a scientific explanation to the plant’s behavior. Whenever Grandfather joined the narrator in the garden, the garden became a happy place. The Grandfather served many years in the Indian Forest Service so he liked trees and plants. After his retirement he built a bungalow on the outer area of Dehradun. He planted trees like lime, mango, orange and guava around the house. The Doon valley was fertile, so all the trees grew tall and strong.

An old peepul tree broke through the walls of an abandoned outhouse. Peepul trees have broad-chested trunk and slim-waisted leaves that spin like tops which attract our attention and invites us into their shade. Grandmother wanted to cut down the peepul tree but Grandfather decided not to as he thought he could build another outhouse.

Grandmother was not against trees but fond of growing flowers. She ordered seeds and Grandfather helped her out in gardening. Grandfather helped her not because he liked flower garden but he liked watching butterflies attracted towards the flowers.

Section II

Grandfather, during the rains, would walk into the jungle beyond the river-bed with saplings and cuttings, which he would plant in the forest. The Narrator questioned Grandfather that no one would come there. Grandfather replied that he was planting them for the forest and for the animals and birds for more food and shelter. He also explained that trees are required to keep the desert away, to attract rain, to prevent the banks of rivers from being washed away, for fruits and flowers.

The Narrator helped Grandfather with enthusiasm while Grandfather taught the narrator a George Morris poem. Grandfather said trees would start to walk again like they did earlier until some busybody (a mischief) cast a spell on them.

The narrator and Grandfather saw an island that was dry in summer but flooded during rains. Grandfather saw a small mango tree growing there and decided to plant tamarind, laburnum and coral tree saplings on the island.

Section III

The narrator spent the monsoon season with his Grandparents, where he saw life and greenness brought by the rains. He also saw broad-leaved vines, peepul trees taking root in the ceiling, a mango sprout on the window-sill. During Second World War , the narrator went to live with his father in Delhi. After two or three years he left for England and returned to India after several years. When he returned to Dehradun after many years, he walked towards the river bed. He was surprised to see the spectacular (amazing) view of the island where they had planted coral tree saplings. He could hear squirrels and koel asking him who he was ?. The narrator could see that the trees recognized him and came nearer. He thought of what his Grandfather had said, “Trees are walking again”.

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Sea Turtles Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Prose Chapter 1 Sea Turtles

Talk about

Sea Turtle Questions And Answers Question 1.
Have you seen turtles? Where do they live?
Answer:
Yes, I have seen turtles. They live in the Oceans.

Sea Turtle Lesson 6th Standard In English Question 2.
What do you know about turtles?
Answer:
I know that turtles live long.

Sea Turtles Come To The Shore To Answers Question 3.
Why do you think the turtles in the picture have names such as Leatherback and Hawksbill?
Answer:
I think that the shells of the turtles are like leather and hawksbill.

Put (✓) for the correct and a (×) for the incorrect statements.

1. Turtles are different from tortoises. (✓)
2. Turtles are sea animals. (✓)
3. There are seven kinds of sea turtles in the world. (✓)
4. Sea turtles are very small. (×)
5. Turtles come ashore to lay eggs. (✓)
6. Sea turtles come to rest on land. (×)
7. Olive Ridleys are the only sea turtles seen on Indian shores. (✓)

Are these statements right? Discuss with your partner and (✓) them if they are correct. Correct them if they are wrong. Share your answers in class.

1. Female Olive Ridleys come ashore at night to lay eggs. (✓)
2. The eggs of an Olive Ridley are in the shape and size of a cricket ball. (×)
3. Ridleys come to lay their eggs in the month of January. (✓)
4. The turtles use their flippers and make a hollow for their nests. (✓)
5. The hatchlings use a tiny egg-tooth to come out of the eggs. (✓)

Fill in the table given below

Answer:

Read and Understand

A. Choose the correct answers. You may choose more than one answer If needed.

6th English Sea Turtles Answers Question 1.
The _______ is a biological relative of tortoises.
(a) sea turtle
(b) fish
(c) reptile
Answer.
(a) sea turtle

Sea Turtle Lesson Questions And Answers Question 2.
In India’s coastal waters we can see a species of _______
(a) tortoises
(b) sea turtles
(c) dolphin
Answer:
(b) sea turtles

Sea Turtles Lesson Question 3.
Sea turtles come to the shore to
(a) visit their birth place
(b) lay eggs
(c) go back to sea
Answer:
(b) lay eggs

Sea Turtles Come To The Shore To Question 4.
It is a problem for sea turtles to come ashore because _______
(a) they find it difficult to walk on sand
(b) they don’t know their way to the shore
(c) animals and people hunt them
Answer:
(a) they find it difficult to walk on sand

Sea Turtle Lesson 6th Standard Question 5.
A turtle’s flippers help it to _______
(a) swim
(b) dig a nest
(c) climb
Answer:
(a) swim

A Turtle Flippers Help It To Question 6.
A sea turtle camouflages its nest by tossing sand on it to _______
(a) hide its eggs from predators
(b) incubate eggs in the warmth of the sun
(c) keep the hatchlings safe
Answer:
(b) incubate eggs in the warmth of the sun

Vocabulary

B. Find any five words related to sea from the text (Sections I & II). Write them below. Then use the words to frame sentences of your own.

eg: beach – We like to play In the sandy beach.
Swimming – I like swimming
Motorboat – We went on a motorboat
Crabs – People eat crabs as sea food
Sand – Children play on sand
Cavity – There are cavities in beach

C. Fill in the blanks with words that convey correct meaning of the sentences.

1. Tiny hatchlings fall _______ (pray / prey) to many predators.
2. Sea turtles live their (hole / whole) life in the sea.
3. The turtles come ashore only during the _______ (night/knight).
4. The predators follow the _______ (sent / scent) of the turtles to eat their eggs.
5. The female turtles lay eggs and go back to the _______ (see / sea)

Answers:

1. prey
2. whole
3. night
4. scent
5. sea

D. Use the dues and fill In the crossword puzzle.

1. This word rhymes with seen.
2. This animal has two horns and a spotted coat.
3. This is a huge sea animal.
4. Sounds like hair
5. Shines brightly
6. Rhymes with load

Answer:

Listening

E. Listen to the flash news. Read the questions given below, then listen to the flash news again and complete the responses.

Answer:

Speaking

F. Look at the picture. Work in groups and give a short Wk about it using the words given below.

Good morning to one and all. I am going to speak about the Students’ Sea Turtle Conservation Network and its activities. This voluntary group protects the Olive Ridley turtles. The boys collect many eggs and incubate in a hatchery. Thus they enjoy doing this service. As soon as the hatchlings come out, they safely take them in a basket of sand. After that they leave them near the sea at night. The little turtles rush into the sea waves. However, rough sea conditions affect the turtles.

Grammar

G. Make meaningful sentences from the table given below.

A turtle – is huge.
– has flippers to swim.

Turtles – live in the sea.
– have a connection with the land.
– are found in coastal waters.
– are wonderful creatures.

H. Write a suitable sentence for the pictures given below.

Answer:

I. Match the two halves of the sentences and read them.

1. Sea turtles – a. threaten the survival of sea turtles.
2. Hatchlings – b. uses its front flippers to swim.
3. A turtle – c. come ashore to lay eggs.
4. Many factors – a. cut open the leathery egg shell.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

Writing

J. Tortoises and Turtles are not the same. Read the facts given below.
List the similarities and differences between them.

Answer:

K. Write a paragraph from the contents of the table given above. Frame sentences with these words – but as well as, whereas.
eg. A turtle as well as a tortoise belongs to the reptile family.
Answer:
A turtle as well as a tortoise belongs to the reptile family. A tortoise is a land animal whereas a turtle is a sea animal. Both a tortoise and a turtle lives long for many years. A tortoise uses its tiny feet to walk but a turtle uses flippers to swim. A tortoise feeds on grass, weeds and flowers but a turtle eats insects and bugs.

Creative Writing

L. Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words/phrases given below.

Answer:
There are many sea animals in the ocean. They are beautiful and wonderful in varied sizes, shape and structure. The fishes are in different colours and are of different varieties. Many rare species of fishes are found in deep sea. Most corals and exotic species are under the sea.

Sea Turtles Additional Questions

I. Select the Suitable Synonyms.

1. entire
(a) small
(b) partial
(c) whole
Answer:
(c) whole

2. huge
(a) large
(b) little
(c) dwarfed
Answer
(a) large

3. connection
(a) separation
(b) link
(c) division
Answer.
(b) link

4. extremely
(a) majorly
(b) initially
(c) slowly
Answer
(a) majorly

5. commonly
(a) individually
(b) usually
(c) urgently
Answer:
(b) usually

6. haul
(a) pull force
(b) push force
(c) twist force
Answer:
(a) pull force

7. slash
(a) join
(b) cut
(c) merge
Answer:
(b) cut

8. emerge
(a) disperse
(b) submerge
(c) come out
Answer:
(c) come out

9. camouflage
(a) seek
(b) colour
(c) hide
Answer:
(c) hide

10. scent
(a) stink
(b) perfume
(c) heat
Answer
(b) perfume

11. aspect
(a) characteristic
(b) respect
(c) perfect
Answer
(a) characteristic

12. prey
(a) winner
(b) victim
(c) survivor
Answer:
(b) victim

13. tiny
(a) large
(b) huge
(c) small
Answer:.
(c) small

14. estimate
(a) calculate
(b) exact
(c) appropriate
Answer:
(a) calculate

15. adult
(a) young
(b) pre-mature
(c) matured
Answer:
(c) matured

16. survive
(a) die
(b) exist
(c) kill
Answer:
(b) exist

17. fascinating
(a) interesting
(b) surprising
(c) enjoying
Answer:
(a) interesting

18. mystery
(a) interesting
(b) story
(c) puzzle
Answer
(c) puzzle

19. wonderful
(a) amazing
(b) ordinary
(c) casual
Answer:
(a) amazing

20. accidentally
(a) wantedly
(b) deliberately
(c) unintentionally
Answer:
(c) unintentionally

21. construction
(a) destruction
(b) creation
(c) confusion
Answer:
(b) creation

II. Select the Suitable Antonyms.

1. entire
(a) absolute
(b) integral
(c) partial
Answer:
(c) partial

2. largest
(a) biggest
(b) smallest
(c) tallest
Answer:
(b) smallest

3. commonly
(a) rarely
(b) frequently
(c) regularly
Answer:
(a) rarely

4. after
(a) later
(b) next
(c) before
Answer:
(c) before

5. life
(a) soul
(b) death
(c) spirit
Answer:
(b) depth

6. tiny
(a) big
(b) small
(c) little
Answer:
(a) big

7. predators
(a) hunters
(b) killers
(c) rescuers
Answer:
(c) rescuers

8. cavity
(a) crater
(b) bulge
(c) dent
Answer:
(b) bulge

9. camouflage
(a) expose
(b) mask
(c) cover
Answer:
(a) expose

10. scent
(a) aroma
(b) fragrance
(c) stink
Answer:
(c) stink

11. emerge
(a) arise
(b) submerge
(c) appear
Answer:
(b) submerge

12. haul
(a) push
(b) lift
(c) pull
Answer:
(a) push

13. natural
(a) normal
(b) common
(c) artificial
Answer:
(c) artificial

14. accidentally
(a) unintentionally
(b) deliberately
(c) unwittingly
Answer:
(b) deliberately

15. sadly
(a) happily
(b) gloomily
(c) cheerlessly
Answer:
(a) happily

16. interested
(a) keen
(b) concerned
(c) uninterested
Answer:
(c) uninterested

17. conservation
(a) preservation
(b) depletion
(c) control
Answer:
(b) depletion

18. famous
(a) infamous
(b) acclaimed
(c) eminent
Answer:
(a) infamous

19. estimate
(a) guess
(b) appraise
(c) exact
Answer:
(c) exact

20. own
(a) possess
(b) rent
(c) dominate
Answer:
(b) rent

21. adult
(a) juvenile
(b) grown-up
(c) mature
Answer:
(a) juvenile

III. State True or False.

1. Turtles and tortoises are the same. [False]
2. The Leatherback is the largest sea turtle. [True]
3. Jackals, dogs and pigs will not eat the eggs of Olive Ridley. [False]
4. Crabs and birds will eat the tiny hatchlings. [True]
5. Human activities have put the turtles in grave danger. [True]

IV. Fill in the Blanks Using the Homophones.

1. The eggs are left to incubate under the warmth of the _______ (sun/son).
2. Most of us have _______ (scene/seen) a tortoise in a zoo or a reptile park.
3. This is _______ (quiet/quite) a problem for female Olive Ridleys for moving on land.
4. Human activities during the _______ (lost/last) few decades have put sea turtles in grave danger.
5. The Olive Ridley weighs up to 35 kg when fully _______ (grown/groan).

Answers:

1. sun
2. seen
3. quite
4. last
5. grown

V. Choose the Correct Answers (mcq).

Sea Turtle 6th Standard Question 1.
The hatchlings open the egg shell using their _______
(a) egg-tooth
(b) flippers
(c) body
Answer:
(a) egg-tooth

Sea Turtle Lesson Question 2.
It is estimated by scientists that only one in every _______ hatchlings become an adult
(a) 5000
(b) 1000
(c) 500
Answer:
(b) 1000

Sea Turtles Questions And Answers Question 3.
Female hatchlings that have become adults _______
(a) find a new beach to lay their eggs
(b) return to the same beach to lay their eggs
(c) lay their eggs in the ocean
Answer:
(b) return to the same beach to lay their eggs

A Turtles Flippers Help It To Answer Question 4.
Sea Turtles are _______ species
(a) endangered
(b) out of danger
(c) extinct
Answer:
(a) endangered

Sea Turtles Come To Rest On Land True Or False Question 5.
The only way to solve the problems faced by Sea Turtles is _______
(a) to not allow the sea turtles to come ashore
(b) to systematically tackle the problems and removing threats
(c) to dig the eggs laid on shore and put it back into the sea.
Answer:
(b) to systematically tackle the problems and removing threats

VI. Very short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Where do ths reptiles spend, almost their entire life?
Answer:
Ammamma asked the children to sit upstairs in the middle room and gave. The Reptiles spend almost their entire life in the sea.

Question 2.
How many species of marine or sea turtles are there?
Answer:
There are seven species of marine or sea turtles in the world.

Question 3.
Name the five sea-turtles found in India’s coastal waters.
Answer:
The Oliver Ridley, the Hawksbill, the Green sea turtle, the Loggerhead and the Leatherback.

Question 4.
Where do they go to lay eggs?
Answer:
They must come ashore to lay their eggs.

Question 5.
How much does an Olive Ridley weight?
Answer:
It weighs up to 35kg, when fully grown.

VII. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How do the local people jackles and domestic dogs identify the turtle’s eggs?
Answer:
Jackals, domestic dogs and pigs dig up and eat the eggs by following the scent left by the turtle. Even the local people follow the tracks of the turtle to its nest and collect the eggs for eating.

Question 2.
What happens to the eggs, that escape front the people and predators?
Answer:
The eggs that escape from the people and predators hatch 45 – 60 days later. The hatchlings slash open the leathery eggshell with the help of a tiny egg – tooth.

Question 3.
How do the hatchlings read) the shore?
Answer:
When most of the eggs have hatched, the hatchlings push themselves upwards through the sand and emerge on the surface of the beach. From there, they make a hurried dash to the sea.

Question 4.
Where does nesting takes place?
Answer:
Mass nesting takes place on the shore. Odisha is one of the only three places in the world, where a phenomenon known as mass nesting or Arribada takes place. Thousands of female turtles come ashore simultaneously to lay their eggs on particular beaches.

Question 5.
How can we ensure that the sea turtles wfl continue to exist in die yean to come?
Answer:
Only by systematically tackling the problems faced by the sea turtles and removing the threats subjected to them, can we ensure that sea turtles will continue to exist in the years to come.

VIII. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What problems are faced by the female turtles, when they come ashore to lay their eggs?
Answer:
Between the months of January and March, female Olive Ridleys come ashore at night to lay their eggs. This is quite a problem for them, as a turtle’s front flippers enable it to swim gracefully and effortlessly, but are not very useful for moving on land. The turtle has to haul itself laboriously onto the beach. Then it chooses a spot well away from the high tide line. There, it scoops out a nest cavity, 45 cms deep, into which it lays about 100 eggs. Then it fills the cavity and hides the nest with the sand. Finally, it returns to the sea, leaving the eggs to incubate under the warmth of the sun.

Question 2.
Describe one of the many mysterious of these fascinating reptiles
Answer:
After many years of swimming in the open ocean, the female hatchlings that have become adults return to the same beach, they were bom. They come there to lay their own eggs. How they manage to find the place after so many years in the sea is one of the many mysteries of these fascinating reptiles. It is also a wonder that they have survived natural dangers for millions of years.

Question 3.
What are the problems that affect the survival of turtles?
Answer:
People hunt the sea turtles for their meat. They collect their eggs. Some times the turtles are trapped in the nets of motorboats. Pollution and dumping of plastics into the ocean affect their survival. Construction activities on nestling beaches also hurt their survival.

Picto Grammar

Subjects and Predicate

Identify the subject and the predicate in the following sentences.

Question 1.
The sun was shining brightly.
Answer:
The sun (subject) / was shining brightly (predicate).

Question 2.
The dogs were barking loudly.
Answer:
The dogs (subject) / were barking loudly (predicate).

Question 3.
The pretty girl was wearing a blue frock.
Answer:
The pretty girl (subject) / was wearing a blue frock (predicate).

Question 4.
My younger brother serves in the army.
Answer:
My younger brother (subject) / serves in the army (predicate).

Question 5.
The man and his wife were working in their garden.
Answer:
The man and his wife (subject) / were working in their garden (predicate).

Question 6.
My mother and my aunt are trained classical dancers.
Answer:
My mother and my aunt (subject) / are trained classical dancers (predicate).

Question 7.
You don’t have to wait for me.
Answer:
You (subject) / don’t have to wait for me (predicate).

Question 8.
We will no longer tolerate this.
Answer:
We (subject) / will no longer tolerate this (predicate).

Question 9.
The little tree was covered with needles instead of leaves.
Answer:
The little tree (subject) / was covered with needles instead of leaves (predicate).

Question 10.
A rich merchant was passing by the shoemaker’s window.
Answer:
A rich merchant (subject) /was passing by the shoemaker’s window (predicate).

For each sentence given below, underline the subject once and the predicate twice.

Example : John went to the movies with his friends.
Answer:
John went to the movies with his friends.

1. The horse appeared at the starting line.
Answer:
The horse appeared at the starting line.

2. The student arrived late to class because he woke up late.
Answer:
The student arrived late to class because he woke up late.

3. John looked out of the window to check the sky.
Answer:
John looked out of the window to check the sky.

4. The audience grew very restless waiting for the play to start.
Answer:
The audience grew very restless waiting for the play to start.

5. The air in the classroom smelled fresh.
Answer:
The air in the classroom smelled fresh.

6. I felt exhausted from the anticipation.
Answer:
I felt exhausted from the anticipation.

7. The owners grew flowers all around their house.
Answer:
The owners grew flowers all around their house.

Underline the simple subjects In the following sentences.

1. I want a new car.
Answer:
I want a new car.

2. James is nice.
Answer:
James is nice.

3. The sun is moving.
Answer:
The sun is moving.

4. Max wrote the letter.
Answer:
Max wrote the letter.

5. The letter was written by Max.
Answer:
The letter was written by Max.

The simple predicate is the main verb in the sentence.

Example: Mary plays the piano.
Answer:
Plays the piano.
In this example, the verb phrase “plays the piano” is the predicate.

Example : Josephine is having a nice day.
In this example, the verb phrase “is having a nice day” is the predicate.

Underline the simple predicates in the following sentences.

1. I run with my dog.
Answer:
I run with my dog.

2. We made a cake.
Answer:
We made a cake.

3. The cake was made by us.
Answer:
The cake was made by us.

4. Jessica and Rebecca are playing the piano and singing.
Answer:
Jessica and Rebecca are playing the piano and singing.

5. We will be running in the race this Sunday.
Answer:
We will be running in the race this Sunday.

Underline the simple subjects and draw a box around the simple predicates In the following sentences.

Example : Elise is going to sing in the concert tomorrow

1. The dentist charges $6200 for an office visit.
Answer:
The dentist charges $6200 for an offce visit.

2. The baby weighed 7.2 pounds at birth.
Answer:
The baby weighed 7.2 pounds at birth.

3. We need to make a new plan.
Answer:
We need to make a new plan.

4. I want to go to the concert, but I don’t have enough money.
Answer:
I want to go to the concert, but I don’t have enough money

5. My friend and I are going to the movies tonight.
Answer:
My friend and I are going to the movies tonight.

Now try to write three complete sentences of your own.
Try to underline the simple subjects and circle the simple predicates.

Choose a subject from the box to complete each sentence.

A big spider, A buzzing bee, My notebook, A gray dolphin, My mother, My closet, The houseplant, The eye doctor, The space alien

1. _________ looked for nectar in the flower.
2. _________ has lots of clothes in it.
3. _________ checked my vision.
4. _________ needs soil, water, and sunlight.
5. _________ landed the UFO.
6. _________ jumped in the sea.
7. _________ was upset because I broke her favorite vase.
8. _________ is filled with stories that I wrote.
9. _________ spun a web in the doorway.

Answers:

1. A buzzing bee
2. My closet
3. The eye doctor
4. The houseplant
5. The space alien
6. A gray dolphin
7. My mother
8. My notebook
9. A big spider

Choose a predicate from the box to complete each sentence.

watered her flowers, barked all night long, drove me to school, blew in the wind, ate crickets, cut the boy’s hair, fixed the sink, slept in her crib, flew the airplane.

1. The gardener _________
2. The pilot _________
3. The little puppy _________
4. The barber _________
5. James’ baby sister _________
6. The flag _________
7. The lizard _________
8. The plumber _________
9. The bus driver _________

Answers:

1. watered her flowers
2. flew the airplane
3. barked all night long
4. cut the boy’s hair
5. slept in her crib
6. blew in the wind
7. ate crickets
8. fixed the sink
9. drove me to school

Creative Writing

I. Make sentence of your own

1. Beach
2. Breeze
3. Swimming
Answer:
1. We like to the play in the sandy beach.
2. The trees swayed in the breeze.
3. I like swimming.

II. Picture Composition:

Question 1.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
children
playing park
boy
hand in hand
colourful
flowers wheel
girls
performed

Answer:
Theme park
There are children playing in a theme park. Two girls are playing by the swing each hand in hand. A boy is playing with a colourful boy. Some children are playing on the giant wheel. A circus show is also being performed there. The park is full of trees and flowers.

Question 2.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
activities
classroom
student
building
discussing
Everyone
useful
answers
skit

Answer:
Drawing Class
These children are doing various activities with enthusiasm outside their classroom. A student is drawing and two other students are playing with the building blocks. Three children are enacting a skit. There are four children sitting and discussing about their activity. Everyone is busy doing something useful answers.

Question 3.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
monkey
picture
entrance
snakes
people
animals
welcome
bears
lions

Answer:
Zoo
This is a zoo. There are plenty of ammals seen in the picture. I can see monkey, elephants, lions, rabbits, giraffe, snakes, bears, tigers and birds. They are all at the entrance of the zoo. I can see some animals on top of the board ‘zoo’. It seems that they are all ready to welcome the people, who visit the zoo.

Question 4.
Describe the picture in about fifty words and give a suitable title. Make use of the words / phrases given below.
bird
nest
hungry
mother
food
sitting
near

Answer:
Nest
I see a bird and two nestlings in the picture. The nestlings are seemed to be in hungry. The mother bird has fetched some food. It is sitting near the nestlings. The nestlings eagerly open their beaks for the food.

Sea Turtles Summary

Section I

This lesson is about Sea Turtles which are different from Tortoise that we see in a zoo or a reptile park. There are seven species of sea turtles -out of which five are seen in India – the Olive Ridley, the Hawksbill, the Green Sea Turtle, the Loggerhead and the Leatherback. The turtles are huge and weigh between 35 kg and 700 kg. The largest sea turtle is the Leatherback which is 2.2m long and 700 kg in weight. Sea turtles come to the shore to lay their eggs. Except Olive Ridleys, other species have become rare in India. Mass Nesting or Arribada is a phenomenon that occurs in Odisha and other two places in the world where Olive Ridleys come ashore alone to lay their eggs.

Section II

Between January and March, female Olive Ridleys come ashore and haul (pull with force) using their front flippers onto the beach. They choose a spot away from the high tide and dig 45 cm into which they lay their eggs. They lay about 100 eggs at one time. After covering the nest with sand it returns to the sea. The eggs are left to incubate under the sun. People collect these eggs for eating. Jackals, domestic dogs and pigs eat the eggs. After escaping from the predators, the hatchlings (little ones) come out the egg shell with the help of egg-tooth. After they come out they make a dash into the sea.

Section III

Weighing less than 20 grams, many of these hatchlings fall prey to crabs or birds before they reach the sea. It is estimated that one in a thousand hatchlings become an adult. After swimming for years in the sea, the adult female returns to the same beach where they were born which is an unsolved mystery. Human activities have endangered the survival of sea turtles. Problems like pollution, dumping of plastics in to the ocean and the construction activities on nesting beaches endanger their survival. We have to tackle these problems to save the sea turtles.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Heat

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Heat Lesson For Class 6 Question 1.
When an object is heated, the molecules that make up the object
(a) begin to move faster
(b) lose energy
(c) become heavier
(d) become lighter
Answer:
(a) begin to move faster

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Term 2 Question 2.
The unit of heat is
(a) newton
(b) joule
(c) volt
(d) Celsius
Answer:
(b) Joule

6th Standard Science Heat Question 3.
One litre of water at 30°C is mixed with one litre of water at 50°C. The temperature of the mixture will be
(a) 80°C
(b) More than 50°C but less than 80°C
(c) 20°C
(d) around 40°C
Answer:
(d) around 40°C

Science Term 2 Question 4.
An iron ball at 50°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 50°C. The heat will
(a) flow from iron ball to water.
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
(c) flow from water to iron ball.
(d) increase the temperature of both.
Answer:
(b) not flow from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Heat flows from a ______ body to a ______ body.
2. The hotness of the object is determined by its ______
3. The SI unit of temperature is ______
4. Solids on heating and ______ on cooling.
5. Two bodies are said to be in the state of thermal ______ if there is no transfer of heat taking place.

Answers:

1. higher temperature, lower temperature
2. temperature
3. kelvin
4. expand, contract
5. equilibrium

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 1.
Heat is a kind of energy that flows from a hot body to a cold body.
Answer:
True

6th Science Heat Lesson Question 2.
Steam is formed when heat is released from water.
Answer:
False. Ice is formed when heat is released from water.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Term 2 Question 3.
Thermal expansion is always a nuisance.
Answer:
False. Thermal expansion is always beneficial.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 4.
Borosilicate glass do not expand much on being heated.
Answer:
True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solution Question 5.
The unit of heat and temperature are the same.
Answer:
False. The unit of heat and temperature are different

IV. Give reasons for the following:

6th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
An ordinary glass bottle cracks when boiling water is poured into it, but a borosilicate glass bottle does not.
Answer:
The reason is that the borosilicate glass do not expand much on being heated and therefore they do not crack.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Guide Question 2.
The electric wire which sag in summer become straight in winter.
Answer:
In summer the electric wire is expanded by high temperature. So it sags in summer. In winter die electric wire is contracted by low temperature. Hence it becomes straight in winter.

6th Science Term 2 Question 3.
|Rivet is heated before fixing in hole to join two metal plates.
Answer:

1. When we heat rivet expansion takes place and become soft.
2. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new head.
3. When cooled, rivet will contract and hold tightly.

V. Match the following:

Answer:

VI. Analogy:

Heat Class 6 Question 1.
Heat: Joule :: Temperature : _______
Answer:
kelvin

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Question 2.
Ice cube : 0°C :: Boiling water : _______
Answer:
100°C

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Total Kinetic Energy of molecules: Heat:: Average Kinetic Energy: _______
Answer:
Temperature

VII. Give Very Short Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6 Science Question 1.
Make a list of electrical equipments at home which we get heat from.
Answer:
Water heater, Iron box, Electric kettle, Micro oven.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Answers Question 2.
What is the temperature?
Answer:

1. The measurement of warmness or coldness of a substance is known as temperature.
2. SI unit is Kelvin.
3. Other units : Celsuis, Fahrenheit

6th Standard Science Term 2 Question 3.
What is thermal expansion?
Answer:
The expansion of a substance on heating is called the thermal expansion.

Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 4.
What do you understand by thermal equilibrium?
Answer:
Thermal equilibrium exists when two objects in thermal contact no longer affect each other’s temperature (or) Both the objects are in same temperature they are in thermal equilibrium.

VIII. Give Short Answer:

Heat Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
What difference do you think heating the solid will make in their molecules?
Answer:

1. When we heat solids the vibrations and movement of molecules will increase.
2. The temperature of the object increases.
3. The distance between molecules will increase.

Question 2.
Distinguish between heat and temperature.
Answer:

IX. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Explain thermal expansion with suitable examples.
Answer:
Thermal expansion:
The expansion of a substance on heating is called, the thermal expansion of that substance.

Fitting the iron rim on the wooden wheel:

1. The diameter of the iron ring is slightly less than that of the wooden wheel.
2. So, it cannot be easily slipped on from the rim of wooden wheel.
3. The iron ring is, therefore, first heated to a higher temperature so that it expands in size and the hot ring is then easily slipped over to the rim of the wooden wheel.
4. Coldwater is now poured on the iron ring so that it contracts in size and holds the wooden wheel tightly.

Rivetting:

1. Rivets are used to join two steel plates together.
2. Hot rivet is driven through the hole in the plates.
3. One end of the rivet is hammered to form a new rivet head.
4. When cooled, the rivet will contract and hold the two plates tightly together.

Cracking of a thick glass tumbler:

1. Glass is a poor conductor of heat.
2. When hot liquid is poured into the tumbler, the inner surface of the tumbler becomes hot and expands while the outer surface remains at the room temperature and does not expand.
3. Due to this unequal expansion, the tumbler cracks.

X. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills:

Question 1.
When a window is accidentally left open on a winter night, will you feel uncomfortable because the cold is getting in, or because the heat is escaping from the room?
Answer:

1. When a window is left open on winter night I will feel uncomfortable because the heat is escaping from the room.
2. Heat will transfer from high temperature to low temperature.
3. During winter cold air enter into room, so room temperature will decrease.

Question 2.
Suppose your normal body temperature were lower than what it is. How would the sensation of hot and cold change?
Answer:
If the normal body temperature, (37°C or 98.6°F) is lower than what it is, then it is called hypothermia.

In such a case, the body feels cold sensation. When we are too cold, our blood vessels narrow. This reduces blood flow to our skin to save body heat. We may start to shiver. When the muscles tremble this way, it helps to make more heat.

Hypothermia can be serious one or even deadly. Low body temperature usually happens from being out in cold weather. But it may also be caused by alcohol or drug use, going into shock, or certain disorders such as diabetes or low thyroid.

A low body temperature may occur with an infection. This is most common in newborns, older adults, or people who are frail. A very bad infection may also cause an abnormal low body temperature.

Question 3.
If you heat a circular disk with a hole, what change do you expect in the diameter of the hole? Remember that the effect of heating increases the separation between any pair of particles.
Answer:

1. If I heat a circular disk with a hole the diameter of the hole will increase.
2. Because thermal expansion takes place when we heat the disk.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Take three bowls. Pour very cold water in the first bowl. (you can also add ice cube for cooling). Place luke warm water in the second. Half fill the third with hot water (-not hot enough to burn!)

Set them in a row on the table, with the lukewarm water in the center. Place your right hand in the cold water, and your left hand in the hot water. Keep them in for a few minutes. Then take them out, shake off the water and put both into the middle bowl. How do they feel?
Answer:
I feel that my right hand’s coldness is changed into warm condition, because my right hand’s temperature is increased.
I feel that my left hand’s heat is decreased and it is also in wann condition. Here, my left hand’s temperature is decreased.

Activity 2

Question 1.
The Temperature of Boiling Water.
Take water in a vessel and place the vessel on a stove. Fix the thermometer as shown in figure (Caution: The thermometer should not touch the vessel in which the water is being heated. Otherwise the thermometer will be broken at high temperature.)

All students have to read the temperature of the water and note the reading on the blackboard. Do you notice that the temperature is raising?
What is the temperature of water when it is boiling? _______
Answer:
The temperature of water when boiling is 100°C.

Question 2.
Does the temperature of the boiling water rise further after that?
Answer:
No. the temperature of the boiling water does not rise further after 100°C.

Guess and Write:
(Check your assumption with the help of a thermometer.)
Approximate temperature of the tea when you drink ________
Approximate temperature of cool lemon juice when you drink ________
Answer:
Approximate temperature of the tea when you drink 70°C.
Approximate temperature of cool lemon juice when you drink 20°C.

Question 3.
Is Neela correct?
Beaker A and B has water at 80°C. Then pour the water of A and B to an empty beaker C. Now, What is the A temperature of the water in the beaker C? Neela says it will be 160°C.

What is your opinion? Does Neela say correctly? Make a guess and verify it experimentally.
Answer:
My opinion is that the temperature will not change. Approximately it will be 80°C only. Neela’s answer is wrong.
Beaker A and Beaker B has water at 80°C. So both beaker has 80°C temperature. Two beakers are in thermal equilibrium. So heat is not transfered to other objects.

Activity 3

Question 1.
Take one litre water in a pan, and heat it on a stove. Calculate the time taken to start boiling, (i.e. the time taken to thermometer reading goes up to 100°C). Take five litre water in another pan and heat it on the same stove. Calculate the time taken by the water to start boiling.

In which pan the water starts to boil earlier?
[ ] One litre water
[ ] Five litre water.
Answer:
[✓] One litre water

Question 2.
Both, however, show a temperature of 100°C at the boiling point. Five litre water takes more time to boil i.e. more heat is needed to boil the larger amount of water. So, five litre boiling water has more heat energy than one litre water. Place an open can of lukewarm water in each pan. Observe their temperature to find out which can gets hotter.
In which can water shows quick rise in temperature?
[ ] Can in One litre boiled water
[ ] Can in five litre boiled water.
Answer:
[✓] Can in five litre boiled water.

Question 3.
You can see that, five litre water pan will raise the can of water to a higher temperature. Though, both pans of boiling water have the temperature of 100°C the five litre water can give off more heat energy than one litre water. Because it has more heat energy, and gives more energy to the water in the can.
Which has more heat energy in each pair? Put ✓ mark.

The temperature determines the direction of flow of heat.

Question 1.
You are holding a hot cup of coffee, would the Heat energy transfer from

(a) Your body to the coffee, or
(b) The coffee to your body?
Answer:
(b) The coffee to your body

Question 2.
You are standing outside on a summer day. It is 40°C outside (note that normal body temperature is 37°C). Would the Heat energy transfer from.

(a) Your body to the air particles, or
(b) The air particles to your body?
Answer:
(b) The air particles to your body

Question 3.
You are standing outside on a winter day. It is 23°C outside. Would the heat’ energy transfer from:

(a) Your body to the air particles, or
(b) The air particles to your body?
Answer:
(a) Your body to the air particles

Activity 4
Hammer a nail into a tin can. Ease the nail out. Put it in again to make sure that the hole is large enough for the nail. Then, holding the nail with a pair of pliers, scissors or forceps, heat the nail over a candle, in hot water, or over the stove. Try to put it into the hole in the can.

I see that: ________________________________
Answer:
I will see that, now it is hard to put the nail into the hole. Heat expands solids.
The molecules in the solid move faster, spread apart and occupy more space.

Activity 5

Question 1.

Linear Expansion
Take a bulb, dry cell, candle, cycle spoke, coin (or broad – headed nail) and two wooden blocks.

Place one end of the cycle spoke on a wooden block and connect an electric wire to it. Put a stone over the spoke) to hold it firmly in place on the wooden block, as shown in Figure . The spoke should be parallel to the ground. Place the second wooden block under the free end of the spoke. Wrap some electric wire around the coin (or nail) and place it on the block. You may put a stone over the coin to hold it in place.
Connect a bulb and dry cell to the free ends of the wires connected to the coin and the spoke and make the circuit shown in the figure.

When the tip of the free end of the spoke touches the coin, the circuit is completed and the bulb lights up. Check to ensure this. If the bulb does not light up, it means the circuit is not complete, so check your connections properly. (Note: We will learn about electric circuit elaborately in electricity lesson.) Now slide a page of your book between the coin and spoke and then slide it out. That way you would get a gap between the coin and spoke equal to the thickness of the sheet of paper,

1. Does the bulb light up? If it does not, what could be the reason? ___________________
   You saw that the bulb does not light up when the spoke does not touch the coin. Now light the candle and heat the spoke with it.
2. Did the bulb light up after the spoke was heated for some time?
3. If it did, then explain how the spoke touched the coin after it was heated.
4. Why does the bulb go off some time after the candle is taken away from the spoke?
5. What happens to the length of the spoke when it is heated or cooled?

Answer:

1. The bulbs is not light up, because, the coin and the spoke do not touch it. The circuit is not completed.
2. Yes, the bulb is light up, because the spoke is heated the circuit is completed.
3. When the spoke is heated, it will be expanded. Here, linear expansion takes place. So it touched the coin.
4. After removing the candle, the spoke does not get the heat. The spoke is returned to its original state. So it does not touch the coin once again and the bulb goes off.
5. The length of the spoke is expanded when the spoke is heated.

Activity 6

Question 1.
Cubical Expansion
Take a metal ring and metal ball of such size that the ball just passes through the ring.
Heat the ball and check whether it passes through the ring.

[ ] Passed through
[ ] Not passed through
Answer:
[✓] Not passed through

Question 2.
Now let the ball cool down, and check whether it passes through the ring.
[ ] Passed through
[ ] Not passed through
Answer:
[✓] passed through
Solids expand due to heat and come back to the original state if heat is removed.

Give Reasons for the following

Question 1.
Gaps are left in between rails while laying a railway track.
Answer:

In summer days, the temperature rises and the rails expand. So, in order to allow expansion at the joints of the rails, a small gap is left in between the rails, while laying a railway track. If such a gap is not left at the joints of the rails, the track will get deformed due to thermal expansion. It will cause derailment of trains.

Question 2.
Gaps are left in between two joints of a concrete bridge.
Answer:

The gaps in the concrete bridges are knows as expansion joints, Expansion joints are basically gaps in the bridge that allow the bridge to expand (during summer) and contract (during winter). Without these gaps, the bridge will fall apart.

Question 3.
The photographs below show an expansion joint at the end of a bridge in winter and in summer. Which season is shown in each picture? Explain how do you know?

Answer:
Bridges are made of concrete and steel. These components expand with higher temperature during summer and the gap is minimized in between the joints. So, summer season is shown in Picture B.

During winter, the components (concrete and steel) contract due to lower temperature. Therefore the gap is at maximum in between the joints. So, winter season is shown in Picture A.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Numerical problems

Question 1.
I put a kettle containing 1 litre of cold water on the gas stove, and it takes 5 minutes to reach the boiling point. My friend puts on a small electric kettle, containing 1/2 litre of cold water, and it takes 5 minutes to get up to boiling point. Which gives more heat in 5 minutes?
a. the gas supply; or
b. the electricity supply? Can you say how many times as much?
Answer:
The gas supply, Two times as much.

Question 2.
One calorie heat energy is needed to raise the temperature of the water from 30°C to 31°C. How much heat energy is needed to raise the temperature of the water from 30°C to 35°C.
Answer:
For 1°C change in temperature, heat energy needed = 1 Calorie
∴ For 5°C change in temperature heat energy needed = 5 Calories.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Heat Additional Questions

I. Choose, the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
We reduce the heat by adding ________ while preparing fruit juice.
(a) sugar
(b) lime
(d) ice cubes
(d) salt
Answer:
(c) ice cubes

Question 2.
The SI unit of temperature is ………..
(a) Calorie
(b) Joule
(c) Celsius
(d) Kelvin
Answer:
(d) Kelvin

Question 3.
Our normal body temperature is _______
(a) 34°C
(b) 36°C
(c) 35°C
(d) 37°C
Answer:
(d) 37°C

Question 4.
Two tumblers of A and B have water at 50°C temperature. If the water from A and B is poured into tumbler C. The temperature of C is ………….
(a) 100° C
(b) 0° C
(c) 50° C
(d) between 0° C to 100° C
Answer:
(c) 50°

Question 5.
______ exists when two objects In thermal contact no longer affect each other’s temperature.
(a) Thermal expansion
(b) Thermal equilibrium
(c) average temperature
(d) coolness
Answer:
(b) Thermal equilibrium

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. We feel heat on our body when the _______ shines.
2. _______ energy can be generated by the burning of fuels like coal, wood, charcoal, gasoline etc.
3. When _______ flows through a conductor, heat energy is produced.
4. _______ is a form of energy.
5. _______ determines the direction of flow of heat.
6. The coldest temperature in the world was measured in the _______ continent.
7. Temperature measures the _______ kinetic energy of molecules.

Answers:

1. Sun
2. Heat
3. Electric current
4. Heat
5. Temperature
6. Antarctic
7. average

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
The sun give us light and heat.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
We can absorb heat by rubbing two surfaces of some substances .
Answer:
False. We can generate heat by rubbing two surfaces of some substances.

Question 3.
In the past people used to rub two wooden pieces together to light fire.
Answer:
False. In the past people used to rub two stones together to light fire.

Question 4.
When we cool the object the temperature of the object will be increased.
Answer:
False. When we heat the object the temperature of the object will be increased.

Question 5.
Two objects are said to be in thermal contact if they can exchange heat energy.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The expansion in volume is called linear expansion.
Answer:
False. The expansion in length is called linear expansion.

IV. Match the following:

Answer:

1. – e
2. – d
3. – a
4. – b
5. – c.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Movement of molecules : Heat.
Heat energy: _______
Answer:
calorie

Question 2.
Expansion is length : Linear expansion.
Expansion in volume : _______
Answer:
cubical expansion

Question 3.
Ordinary glass : Glass tumbler.
Pyrex glass: _______
Answer:
Laboratory glassware.

VI. Give Short Answers:

Question 1.
How can heat energy be generated?
Answer:
Heat energy can be generated by the burning of fuels like wood, Kerosene, Coal, charcoal, gasoline/petrol, oil, etc.

Question 2.
What is heat? Give its units.
Answer:

1. Heat is an energy that raises the temperature of a thing by causing the molecules in that thing to move faster.
2. Units are Joule, Calorie.

Question 3.
What are the units of heat used?
Answer:
SI unit of heat is Joule. The unit calorie is also used.

Question 4.
Define one calorie.
Answer:

1. Total heat is measured by calorie.
2. The amount of heat needed to raise one gram of water by one degree centigrade.

Question 5.
Define – Calorie.
Answer:
The amount of heat needed to raise one gram of water by one degree Centigrade.

Question 6.
What is thermal expansion?
Answer:
The expansion of a substance on heating is called the thermal expansion of that substance.

Question 7.
Differentiate linear expansion and cubical expansion.
Answer:
Linear expansion:

1. The expansion is in length.
2. Ex.: Expansion of railway track rod.

Cubical expansion:

1. The expansion is in volume.
2. Ex.: Expansion of metal ball.

Question 8.
How solids are expanded on heating?
Answer:
The molecules in the substance move faster when heating, spread apart and occupy more space. So substances expand when heated.

Question 9.
How heat energy is transferred?
Answer:
Heat energy flows from higher temperature to lower temperature.

Question 10.
What type of glassware is used in laboratories? Why?
Answer:
Pyrex glass is used in Laboratory, because pyrex glass (Borosilicate glass) do not expand much on being heated and therefore they do not crack.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
List and describe the sources of heat.
Answer:

1. Sun: It is the primary source of light and it gives us light and heat.
2. Combustion: Heat energy can be generated by the burning of fuels like wood, Kerosene, Coal, Charcoal, Petrol etc.
3. Friction: We can generate heat by rubbing two surfaces of some substances. In the past people used to rub two stones together to light fire.
4. Electricity: When Electric current flows through a conductor, heat energy is produced. Ex.: Iron box, Electric kettle.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 What is History

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science What is History Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 1.
What was the step taken by the early man to collect his food?
(a) Trade
(b) Hunting
(c) Painting
(d) Rearing of animals
Answer:
(b) Hunting

II. Match the statement with the Reason, tick the appropriate answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Guide Question 1.
Statement: Pre historic men went along with the dog for hunting.
Reason: Dogs with its sniffing power would find out other animals.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong and reason is correct.
(d) Both statements and reasons are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 2.
Statement : The objects used by the early man are excavated. They are
preserved to know the lifestyle of the people.
Find out which of the following is related to the statement:
(a) Museum
(b) Burial materials
(c) Stone tools
(d) Bones
Answer:
(a) Museum

Samacheer Kalvi 6th History Book Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair:
(a) Old stone age – (i) Stone tools
(b) Rock paintings – (ii) Walls of the caves
(c) Copper plates – (iii) A source of history
(d) Cats – (iv) First domesticated
Answer:
(d) Cats – (iv) First domesticated

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Question 4.
Find the odd one:
(a) Paintings were drawn on rocks and caves.
(b) There were paintings depicting hunting scenes.
(c) It was drawn to show his family members about hunting.
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours.
Answer:
(d) The paintings were painted by using many colours

III. Fill in the blanks :

Social Science 6th Guide Question 1.

1. The Old Stone Age man lived mostly in _______ .
2. _______ is the father of history.
3. _______ was the first animal tamed by Old Stone Age man.
4. Inscriptions are _______ sources.
5. Dharma Chakra has _______ spokes.

Answer:

1. caves
2. Herodotus
3. Dog
4. archaeological
5. 24

IV. State True or False:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Question 1.

1. 1.Stone tools belonging to Old Stone Age have been excavatad at Athtirampakkam near Chennai.
2. 2.The materials used by the ancient people are preserved in the museums by the Archaelogical Department.
3. 3.During the period of Ashoka, Buddhism spread across the country.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. True

V. Match the following :

(a) Rock paintings – (i) copper plates
(b) Written records – (ii) the most famous king
(c) Ashoka – (iii) Devaram
(d) Religious Literature – (iv) to understand the life style
Answer:
(a) – iv
(b) – i
(c) – ii
(d) – iii

VI. Answer in one word :

6th Social Guide Question 1.
Can you say any two advantages of writing a diary?
Answer:

1. Diary writing helps to record the events.
2. It reveals the lifestyle of people of that period.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Social Science Question 2.
How do we know the people’s lifestyle of the Old Stone age?
Answer:
From used stone tools, rock paintings, fossils and other excavated materials.

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Free Download Question 3.
Is inscription a written record?
Answer:
Yes. Inscription is a written record. .

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Science Question 4.
What is proto history?
Answer:
Protohistory is the period between prehistory and history.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Guide Question 5.
Name an epic.
Answer:
Ramayana/ Mahabharatha/ Manimegalai

VII. Answer the following :

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Question 1.
What is history?
Answer:

1. History is a record of past events in chronological order.
2. The term History has been derived from the Greek word Istoria which means learning by enquiry.

6th Samacheer Social Guide Question 2.
What do you know about the prehistoric period?
Answer:

1. The period between the use of first stone tools and the invention of writing systems is called the prehistoric period.
2. Stone tools, excavated materials, fossils and rock paintings are the major sources of the pre-historic period.

6th History Guide Question 3.
What are the sources available to know about the pre-historic period?
Answer:
Paintings on the rocks and the walls of the caves, stone tools, excavated materials are the sources available to know about the pre-historic period.

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 4.
Mention the places from where we got prehistoric tools?
Answer:

1. Adichanallur
2. Athirampakkam
3. Brahmagiri
4. Hallur
5. Lothal
6. Bimbetka

Samacheer Kalvi Class 6 Social Science Solutions Question 5.
What are the benefits of a museum?
Answer:

1. Museums are community centres designed to inform and teach the public.
2. The educational benefit of a museum is academic learning.
3. Museums are the caretakers of history as much as they offer connections to history.
4. Museums are full of stories, and it is interesting for students to hear these stories.
5. Museums offer opportunities for children to compare and contrast leading to critical thinking skills.
6. Children’s curiosity comes out in the form of questions.
7. Students are exposed to new ideas and concepts.
8. Museums inspire students to wonder, imagine and dream Of possibilities that are beyond what they know.
9. Students are exposed to opportunities that spark creative moments.

6th Standard Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Name some tools used by early man to hunt animals.
Answer:

1. Weapons made of stones.
2. Bones.
3. Homs of animals.
4. Weapons made of branches of trees.

6th Standard Social Science History Question 7.
Why were paintings drawn on rocks?
Answer:

1. Paintings could have been drawn or rocks to convey their lifestyles to the future generations.
2. They might have wished to record their activities through their paintings.

Samacheer 6th Social Guide Question 8.
Name any two artefacts.
Answer:

1. Toys
2. Ornaments

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
How dogs were useful to pre-historic men?
Answer:

1. There might have been chances of wild animals entering their caves.
2. But, they realised that dogs could help them prevent the entry of such dangerous animals.
3. They thought that dog by its sniffing skill would help them in such situations.

Question 2.
Compare the lifestyle of Old Stone age man with present-day lifestyle.
Answer:
Old Stone age man

1. He was a nomad.
2. Took shelter on branches of trees, in holes and caves.
3. Wore dresses made out of leaves, skin of animals and barks of trees.
4. Ate vegetables, fruits and roots which he gathered from jungles.
5. Not civilized.

Present day man:

1. Settled in villages and towns.
2. Lives in well built houses.
3. Wears dresses made out of cotton and other materials.
4. Eats all kinds of food grains.
5. Well civilized.

IX. Student Activity :
Question 1.
Identify the category of the following sources of history.

1. Ums excavated from Adhichanallur
2. Copper plates of Yelvikudi.
3. Mahabharatha.
4. Sanchi Stupa.
5. Pattinappaalai.
6. The earthemwares from Keezhadi.
7. Toys of Indus Civilisation.
8. Big Temple of Thanjavur.

Answer:

1. Artefact (Archaeological)
2. Inscriptions (Archaeological)
3. Religions Literature – Literary sources
4. Monuments (Archaeological)
5. Literary sources Artefact (Archaeological)
6. Artefact (Archaeological)
7. Monuments (Archaeological sources)

X. Life Skill
Question 1.
Make some weapon models used by the Old Stone Age man using clay. Hints:
Answer:

Question 2.
Discuss with your grandpa, grandma, neighbours and teachers and collect information about your street, village, town or school. With that collected data, try to write its history titling your Writing as “I am a Historian”.
Answer:
Am I am living at Mylapore. I have collected information about it from my grandparents, neighbours and teacher and internet. It is given below:
I am a Historian

(i) Mylapore is located a few kilometres to the south of the British-built Chennai city.

(ii) It lies between Tiruvallikkeni and Teynampet in the west then across to the coast in the east.

(iii) The word Mylapore is derived from Mayil Arparikum Oor, which means “Land

(iv) Historically, peacocks have been known to thrive in the area, which is evident from the several statues in the Kapaleeshwarar Temple towers and in the emblem of the San Thome Basilica.

(v) Thirugnanasambandar has also mentioned about mayil (peacock) in his songs in Tevaram.

(vi) Mylapore was historically known as Vedapuri.

(vii) As the available historical and archaeological evidence show, it could well be the oldest part of Chennai, with written records of early settlements going back to the first century BC.

(viii) It was known for its ancient port with a flourishing trade with the Roman Empire, receiving gold in exchange for its products like pepper and fine cloth.

(ix) St. Thomas the Apostle allegedly died at Mylapore in 72 AD.

(x) Ptolemy had recorded in the 2nd century AD that the port of Mylapore was known to the Greeks and the Romans. The Saivite Saints of the 7th Century, Saint Sambandar and Saint Appar, have sung about the Shrine in their hymns.

(xi) Mention has been made of the early settlement of Santhome (currently known),by Arab travelers and merchants of the 9th and 10th centuries AD.

(xii) Marco Polo visited the place in the late 13th century and left a detailed description of the land, the people along with their customs and religion.

(xiii) It was considerable maritime time and the ancient German and Greek maps refer to the town as ‘Maliarpha’.

(xiv) Mylapore was occupied by the Portuguese in 1523. Their rule lasted until 1749, except for a brief interregnum between 1662 and 1687, when the town was occupied by the Dutch.

(xv) After 1749, the British East India Company took possession of the settlement in . the name of Muhammad Ali Khan Wallaj ah, the Nawab of Arcot. In that same year, Mylapore was incorporated into the administration of the Presidency of Madras.

(xvi) In the late 19th and early 20th centuries the town became the commercial and intellectual hub of Madras city and home to British-educated lawyers and statesmen.

XI. Answer Grid

XII. Map work

Question 1.
Mark the following places in the political map of India.
a. Delhi
b. Chennai
c. Tamil Nadu
d. Andhra Pradesh
e. Kerala
f. Karnataka
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science What is History Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Where did early man live?
(a) mud house
(b) under tree
(c) caves
(d) river banks
Answer:
(c) caves

Question 2.
Who was the first ruler to give up war after victory?
(a) Bimbisara
(b) Raja Raja Chola
(c) Akbar
(d) Ashoka
Answer:
(d) Ashoka

II. Match the statement with the Reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
(a) Statement: Charles Allen wrote a book titled. The search for the India’s Lost Emperor.
Reason: It provided a comprehensive account of Ashoka.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, and reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct.

(b) Statement: Early man used stone tools.
Reason: He knew only stones as tools.
(a) Statement is true, but reason is wrong.
(b) Statement and reason are correct.
(c) Statement is wrong, and reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement and reason are correct

Question 2.
Statement: ‘Dhamma’ is the Prakrit word for the Sanskrit term ‘Dharma’
Find out which of the following is related to the statement.
(a) Helping the poor
(b) Obedience to God
(c) Religious duty
(d) Tolerance
Answer:
(c) Religious duty

(b) Statement: Raja Raja Chola built the Big Temple. Find out which of the following is related of the statement
(a) Kumbakonam
(b) Tiruchi
(c) Madurai
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(d) Thanjavur

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a)
(a) Stone tools – Prehistory
(b) Writing system – History
(c) Epigraphy – Study of inscription
(d) Numismatics – Study of tools

(b)
(a) Dharma – Righteousness
(b) Chakra – 24 spokes
(c) Lion pillar – Sanchi
(d) Ashoka – Buddhism
Answer:
(d) Numismatics – Study of tools

Question 4.
(a) Find the odd one:
(a) History is a record of past events.
(b) In History the past events are given in chronological order.
(c) History is derived from Istoria meaning learning by enquiry.
(d) History is a mere collection of stories.
Answer:
(d) History is a mere collection of stories.

4 (b) Find the odd one:
(a) We have lion pillar in Saranath.
(b) This pillar was built by Ashoka.
(c) There is a Dharmachakra in this pillar.
(d) This Chakra has uncountable spokes.
Answer:
(d) This Chakra has uncountable spokes.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. In history, BCE stands for _______
2. The first historian of India was _______
3. Fossil remains belongs to _______ sources.
4. The most famous ruler of ancient India was
5. Sanchi is situated in the Raisen district of _______

Answer:

1. Before Common Era
2. Kalhana
3. Archaeological
4. Ashoka
5. Madhya Pradesh

IV. Sate True or False:

1. Pre-historic period people led an advanced style of life.
2. The greatness of Ashoka had been unknown till 20th century.
3. Artifacts form one of the important archaeological sources.
4. Bimbetka is in Andhra Pradesh.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False

V. Match the followings:

Question 1.

1. History – (i) Learning by enquiry
2. Istoria – (ii) Father of History
3. Edicts – (iii) Record of the past
4. Herodoturs – (iv) Archaeological source

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

Question 2.

1. BCE – (i) Hunting activities
2. Dogs – (ii) Search for India’s Lost Emperor
3. Allen – (iii) Study of inscription
4. Epigraphy – (iv) Before common Era.

Answer:

1. iv
2. i
3. ii
4. iii

VI. Answer in one word :

Question 1.
What is meant by Numismatics?
Answer:
The study of Coins.

Question 2.
Mention the names of Archaeological sources.
Answer:

1. Inscription
2. Monuments
3. Artefacts
4. Coins.

Question 3.
What do literary sources include?
Answer:

1. Religious literature and
2. Secular literature.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is the importance of Sarnath pillar?
Answer:

1. Lion captial of Sarnath has been adopted as the Natural Emblem of the Republic of India.
2. The Ashoka Chakra is a depiction of the Buddhist Darmachakra represented with 24 spokes.

Question 2.
By whom was the material evidence provided revealing the greatness of Emperor Ashoka?
Answer:
The material evidence provided by William Jones, James Princep and Alexander Cunningham revealed the greatness of Emperor Ashoka.

Question 3.
What is meant by artefact?
Answer:
Art fact means an object that is made by a person, such as tool or a decoration, especially one that is of historical interest, on The museum’s collections include artefacts dating back to historic times.

Question 4.
Name any three devotional literature.
Answer:

1. Devaram,
2. Thiuvasagam,
3. Nalayira Divya prabhandam

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Why should we study History?
Answer :

1. History helps us understand changes, and how the society, we live in came to be. j tin The study of history helps us to understand our present.
2. Historical research involves studying, understanding and interpreting past events.
3. Historical data are categorised into primary and secondary sources.
4. Study of history will increase the cultural awareness and moral understanding of the world we live in.

IX. Who am I?

Question 1.
I reveal the lifestyle of the stone age people.
Answer:
Paintings

Question 2.
lam in between the use of forest stone tools and the invention of writing system.
Answer:
Prehistoric period

Question 3.
lam titled as numismatics and serve as one of the archaeological sources.
Answer:
coins

Question 4.
gave protection and helped in hunting activities.
Answer:
dog

Question 5.
People say my service for the cause of public good was exemplary.
Answer:
Ashoka

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Sports Stars Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 2 Prose Chapter 1 Sports Stars

Read and Understand

I. Identify the sports and the sports personalities from the lesson and fill in the table.

Answer:

II. Read the questions related to the three sports stars you have read about and tick the appropriate boxes.

III. Think and answer.

Sports Stars 6th English Question 1.
Women/ Men can achieve anything, provided they put their heart and soul into it. Discuss in the class. Do you think being a man or a woman makes a difference?
Answer:
In this world of competition, everyone can achieve success, if they put their heart and soul into their task. Every person who achieves success in life, has to work hard with dedication and determination. It’s no matter, whether they are men or women. That makes no difference. All that matters is only hard work, determination and the willingness to achieve something big. One can always leam something from another person’s story. Each one of us should believe in ourselves and follow our passion to win with devotion and dedication. Success will surely embrace us one day.

Sports Stars 6th English Questions And Answers Question 2.
How can you balance your academic goals and your passion for sports or arts?
Answer:
A person’s determination and readiness to cross the obstacles in life, can make him / her to balance his / her academic goals and the passion for sports or arts. P.V. Sindhu is a good example for this. Despite being busy with her training schedules and International tournaments, she managed to attend regular school until class 9, after which all her classes were through correspondence. She did balance both her passion as well as her academics and she holds a Bachelor’s degree in Commerce (B.Com.). The other sports stars who balanced their passion for sports and academics are Rahul Dravid, Anil Kumble, V.V.S. Laxman, K. Srikkanth, M.S. Dhoni, Murali Vijay and Suresh Raina. All these stars excelled in Cricket. There are also others, who have excelled in the field of sports and academics. Therefore, the determination to surpass both in academics and sports and the ability in balancing both are the prime factors to achieve success in both the fields.

Vocabulary

A. Match the sport and the equipment.

Answer:

1. (v)
2. (iv)
3. (ii)
4. (iii)
5. (i)

B. Find the names of twelve sports and games from the grid.

Answer:

C. Tide the meaning of the italicised word.

Sports Star Lesson In 6th Standard Question 1.
Being compared to Sachin is an absolute privilege.
(a) Honour
(b) Right
(c) Favour
(d) Disadvantage
Answer:
(a) Honour

Chapter 1 Sports Stars Question 2.
The boy was taken by surprise when he learnt about Mithali Dorai Raj.
(a) Affected
(b) Moved
(c) Amazed
(d) Upset
Answer:
(c) Amazed

Sports Stars 6th English Book Back Answers Question 3.
Usha Rani had to struggle all through her life.
(a) Fight
(b) Duel
(c) Fun
(d) Work hard
Answer:
(d) Work hard

6th Standard English Sports Stars Question 4.
Usha Rani is expert at giving leads.
(a) Clumsy
(b) Sharp
(c) Skilled
(d) Bad
Answer:
(c) Skilled

Sports Star 6th Standard Summary Question 5.
No opponent is too big to defeat.
(a) Competitor
(b) Rival
(c) Helper
(d) Enemy
Answer:
(a) Competitor

D. Fit in the blanks with the opposites of the words given in brockets.

1. We should learn from our _______ (success).
2. Children don’t like to read _______ (interesting) books.
3. Be _______ (general) when you’are telling us what you need.
4. The teacher asked the children to _______ (start) talking.
5. The new boss decided to _______ (appoint) the lazy workers.

Answers:

1. failure
2. uninteresting
3. specific
4. stop
5. dismiss

Listening

E. Listen to your teacher and number the pictures accordingly.

Answer:

Write ‘T’ if the statement is True and ‘F’ if the statement is False.

1. Himachal Pradesh is an ideal place for paragliding.
2. Skiing offers opportunities to delve into oceans.
3. Paragliding is also a recreational adventure sport.
4. Scuba Diving has a huge following all over the world.
5. The most suitable period for Skiing is from March to June.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

Speaking

F. Look at these images of different kinds of sports. Identify and name as many as you can with your partner.
Answers:

1. Football
2. Weight Lifting
3. Cycling
4. Swimming
5. Skiing
6. Horse Riding
7. Basket Ball
8. Running
9. Gymnastics
10. Tennis
11. Boat race
12. Hockey

Describe any one of them to four partner.

Sports Stars 6th English Summary Question 1.
Name of the sport.
Answer:
Cricket
I love to play cricket with my friends. I often watch cricket matches with my father and my brother.

Sports Stars 6th English In Tamil Question 2.
What equipment is used to play the sport?
Answer:
The equipments used for this sport are pads, chest guard, elbow guard, helmet, abdominal guard, gloves, cricket bat and cricket ball.

6th Standard Sports Star Question 3.
What kind of area/ground/field it is played in?
Answer:
It is played on a field, where there is a rectangular 22-yard long pitch.

6th English Sports Stars Question 4.
How is it played?
Answer:
It is played between two teams of eleven players. Each team attempts to score runs, while the other team will defend by fielding. I enjoy playing this game whenever I get free time.

• I like to play cricket.
• I play cricket regularly with my friends.
• Cricket is an outdoor game.
• This game requires eleven players.
• The cricket sport has a bat, ball, leg pads, chest guards, elbow guards, gloves and , an abdominal guard.
• It is generally played in a ground.
• I enjoy playing this game

Grammar

G. Look sat the picture awl fill in the foiante with suitable words.

1. There is a play ground in my school.
   
2. The starry sky looks beautiful at night.
   
3. The tray has fresh vegetables.
   
4. It is a hot day.
   
5. The girl gave her friend a pleasant smile.
   

H. Put the words in correct order and rewrite each sentence.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th English Question 1.
They have a post-box. (Red, Small, Rectangular)
Answer:
They have a small rectangular red post-box.

6th Standard Sports Stars Question 2.
I have sticks. (Long, Two, Brown)
Answer:
I have two long brown sticks.

6th Standard English Sports Stars Book Back Answers Question 3.
Find me the brushes. (New, Five, Yellow)
Answer:
Find me five new yellow brushes.

Question 4.
Mahesh is a boy. (Thin, Tall, Clever)
Answer::
Mahesh is a tell thin clever boy.

Question 5.
It is a plate. (Round, Pink, Small)
Answer:
It is a small round pink plate.

I. Refer to a dictionary for the meanings and circle the odd one.
Answer:

Writing

J.
Question 1.
Imagine that you are the School Pupil Leader, Write a formal letter inviting the chief,guest for the school’s Annual Day. Give details of the time and place of the event.
Answer:
From
Ravi Teja, School Pupil Leader,
R. R. K. Hr. Sec. School,
No. 610, Ram Ngar,
Villivakkam, Chennai – 600 038.
November 15th 2018.

To
Mrs. G. Shoba Ranganathan
(Retired Police Officer)
3A, First Main Road,
Adyar, Chennai – 600 020.

Respected Madam,

I am writing this letter on behalf of R.R. K. Hr. Sec. School. Our school is going to conduct its Annual Day on 10th of November. In this connection, we cordially invite you to our 23rd Annual Day to be as the chief guest and to address the gathering. We are sure the students will benefit from your ideas and words. We will be privileged to have you in our school on this special day.

We look forward to receiving your acceptance.

Yours sincerely,
Ravi Teja
School Pupil Leader

Question 2.
Imagine that you are the sports captain of your school. Write a formal letter to the sports captain of another school inviting her/ his team for a friendly match. You may choose any sport. Give details of time and place.
Answer:
From
V. Raghav, Sports Captain,
Aditya Senior Secondary School,
Kolathur, Chennai – 600 099.
24^th October 2018.

To
Master Ravi Varma,
Sports Captain,
VRC Higher Secondary School,
Athipattu, Ambattur,
Chennai – 600 053.

Dear Friend,

I am writing this letter on behalf of my school ‘Aditya Senior Secondary School’ at Kolathur. I am the sports captain of this school. Our school is going to conduct a friendly match on 27th October 2018 in our school premises. As the sports captain of my school, I would like to invite your school team for a friendly basketball match on 27th October 2018 at 10 a.m. Tea and Lunch will be provided to all the students and the teachers, who accompany them.

We look forward to receiving your acceptance.

Yours sincerely,
V. Raghav
School Sports Captain

Creative Writing

K. Make a diary entry on the impact of a sports personality who is an inspiration to you.
Answer:

Diary Entry

Place: XYZ
Date : 22^nd October, 20xx.
Day & Time : Sunday, 8.00 p.m.

Today I read the biography of P.V. Sindhu, the Badminton player. She was one of the two Indian badminton players to ever win a silver friedai in 2017 Olympics. I have watched her playing Badminton with my family members. Now after reading her biography, I am inspired by her hard work and dedication. Despite of her busy training schedules, she managed to attend regular school until class 9. After that, she did her studies through correspondence and now she holds a Bachelor’s Degree in Commerce (B.Com.). How well has she balanced her passion to play Badminton, as well as her academics! Really very great! She has become my role model and I will strive to become a sports star like her and also excel in my academics.

Sports Stars Additional Questions

I. Select The Suitable Synonyms.

Question 1.
co-ordinate
(a) organize
(b) disturb
(c) scatter
Answer:
(a) organize

Question 2.
unfold
(a) open
(b) close
(c) bring
Answer:
(a) open

Question 3.
surprised
(a) unmoved
(b) raged
(c) amazed
Answer:
(c) amazed

Questions 4.
introduced
(a) acquainted with
(b) ignored
(c) withheld
Answer:
(a) acquainted with

Question 5.
formats
(a) chapters
(b) documents
(c) patterns
Answer:
(c) patterns

Questions 6.
complimented
(a) scorned
(b) despised
(c) praised
Answer:
(c) praised

Question 7.
quote
(a) repeat
(b) speak
(c) warn
Answer:
(a) repeat

Question 8.
achieved
(a) scared
(b) reached
(c) retrieved
Answer:
(b) reached

Question 9.
recognised
(a) unknown
(b) known
(c) identified
Answer:
(b) known

Question 10.
barriers
(a) preventions
(b) hurdles
(c) movements
Answer:
(b) hurdles

Question 11.
secure
(a) react
(b) spread
(c) obtain
Ans:
(c) obtain

Questions 12.
humble
(a) high
(b) low
(c) proud
Answer:
(b) low

Question 13.
mention
(a) refer
(b) narrate
(c) notice
Answer:
(a) refer

Question 14.
anchored
(a) fixed
(b) unbound
(c) unconfined
Answer:
(a) fixed

Question 15.
passion
(a) dream
(b) methods
(c) desire
Answer:
(c) desire

Question 16.
prominent
(a) unnoticed
(b) noticeable
(c) hideous
Answer:
(b) noticeable

Question 17.
determined
(a) will powered
(b) upset
(c) strong
Answer:
(a) will powered

Question 18.
unfulfilled
(a) unfashioned
(b) unrealised
(c) unrefined
Answer:
(b) unrealised

Question 19.
events
(a) gatherings
(b) occasions
(c) meetings
Answer:
(b) occasions

Question 20.
instantly
(a) immediately
(b) abruptly
(c) slowly
Ans:
(a)immediately

Question 21.
Profiling
(a) collecting information
(b) going through
(c) analyzing
Ans:
(a) collecting information

Question 22.
reflection
(a) study
(b) reason
(c) result
Answer:
(c) result

Question 23.
schedules
(a) plans
(b) activities
(c) appointments
Answer:
(a) plans

Question 24.
commitment
(a) appointment
(b) dedication
(c) betrayal
Answer:
(b) dedication

Question 25.
privilege
(a) honour
(b) disgrace
(c) insult
Answer:
(a) honour

II. Select The Suitable Antonyms.

Question 1.
beginning
(a) starting
(b) heralding
(c) ending
Answer:
(c) ending

Question 2
same
(a) correct
(b) different
(c) immediate
Answer:
(b) different

Questions 3.
batting
(a) bowling
(b) hitting
(c) scoring
Answer::
(a) bowling

Questions 4.
today
(a) last Monday
(b) the same day
(c) yesterday
Answer:
(c) yesterday

Question 5.
success
(a) outcome
(b) failure
(c) victory
Answer:
(b) failure

Question 6.
many
(a) several
(b) few
(c) countless
Answer:
(b) few

Question 7.
proud
(a) humble
(b) sad
(c) merry
Answer:
(a) humble

Question 8.
first
(a) last
(b) least
(c) prime
Answer:
(a) last

Question 9.
highest
(a) best
(b) utmost
(c) lowest
Answer:
(c) lowest

Question 10.
forgot
(a) thought
(b) remembered
(c) liked
Answer:
(d) remembered

Question 11.
interesting
(a) exciting
(b) uninteresting
(c) pleasing
Answer:
(b) uninteresting

Question 12.
comfortable
(a) uncomfortable
(b) safe
(c) cosy
Answer:
(a) uncomfortable

Question 13.
follows
(a) plans
(b) implements
(c) chases
Answer:
(c) chases

Question 14.
general
(a) specific
(b) overall
(c) universal
Answer:
(a) specifi

Question 15.
soon
(a) early
(b) late
(c) instantly
Answer:
(b) late

Question 16.
started
(a) commenced
(b) began
(c) stopped
Answer:
(c) stopped

Question 17.
something
(a) everything
(b) nothing
(c) more
Answer:
(b) nothing

Question 18.
defeat
(a) avoid
(b) lose
(c) win
Answer:
(c) win

Question 19.
most
(a) highest
(b) least
(c) lowest
Answer:
(b) least

Question 20.
regular
(a) irregular
(b) orderly
(c) planned
Ans:
(c) irregular

Question 20.
several
(a) few
(b) many
(c) most
Answer:
(a) few

III. Match The Following.

1. Tennis – (a) Club
2. Golf – (b) Bow and Arrow
3. Archery – (c) Racquets

Answer:

1. (c) Racquets
2. (a) Club
3. (b) Bow and Arrow

IV. Choose The Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
It has so much to ________
(a) cover
(b) show
(c) open
(d) unfold
Answer:
(d) unfold

Question 2.
She indeed is an ________ to all of us.
(a) motivation
(b) inspiration
(c) example
(d) role model
Answer:
(b) inspiration

Question 3.
I was interested to learn that her mother tongue is ________
(a) Telugu
(b) Hindi
(c) Urdu
(d) Tamil
Answer:
(d) Tamil

Question 4.
Mithali anchored the innings to ________ with an unbeaten 76.
(a) perfection
(b) excellence
(c) achievement
(d) a completion
Answer:
(a) perfection

Question 5.
She was just 29 years old, when she won a ________ in Kabbadi.
(a) Silver Medal
(b) Gold Medal
(c) merit
(d) Cheque
Answer:
(b) Gold Medal

Question 6.
She has also become ________ to her brothers and sisters at home and other fellow sports persons.
(a) an example
(b) an opponent
(c) a role model
(d) a player
Answer:
(c) a role model

Question 7.
Believe in yourself and follow your ________
(a) passion
(b) aim
(c) will power
(d) goal
Answer:
(a) passion

Question 8.
Sindhu started playing badminton at the age of ________
(a) nine
(b) ten
(c) twelve
(d) eight
Answer:
(d) eight

Question 9.
Sindhu first learned the basics of the sport with the ________ of Mehboob Ali.
(a) help
(b) support
(c) coaching
(d) guidance
Answer:
(d) guidance

Question 10.
After joining Gopichand’s badminton academy, Sindhu won several ________
(a) awards
(b) merits
(c) titles
(d) honours
Answer:
(c) titles

V. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What did the teacher read?
Answer:
The teacher read a diary account of a school boy.

Question 2.
Who is Mithaii Dorai Raj?
Answer:
She is the captain of the Indian Women’s Cricket Team.

Question 3.
Who is the first player to score seven consecutive 50s?
Answer:
Mithaii Dorai Raj was the first player to score seven consecutive 50s.

Question 4.
When did Usha Rani won a Gold Medal?
Answer:
When Usha Rani was just 29 years old, she won a Gold Medal.

Question 5.
From which town did Usha Rani come?
Answer:
Usha Rani came from the town of Subedarpalaya in Yeshwanthpur.

Question 6.
Can one learn something from another person’s story?
Answer:
Yes, one can learn something from other person’s story.

Question 7.
From where does P.V. Sindhu drew inspiration?
Answer:
She drew inspiration from the success of Pullela Gopichand.

Question 8.
What did Gopichand observe in P.V. Sindhu?
Answer:
He observed ‘a never say die spirit’ in her.

Question 9.
Who is one of the top five shuttlers in the women’s singles category?
Answer:
P.V. Sindhu is one of the top shuttlers in the women’s singles.

Question 10.
Who was the sports officer at Karnataka State Police Sports Promotion Board?
Answer:
E.S. Sumanth was the sports officer at Karnataka State Police Sports Promotion Board.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why did the school boy not allow his sister to play cricket?
Answer:
He never thought that a woman could play cricket so well. That’s why he had never allowed his sister to play cricket.

Question 2.
What was the nick name given to Mithaii? Why?
Answer:
Mithaii was nick named as Tendulkar of Indian women’s cricket, as she is presently the all-time leading run scorer for India, in all formats, including Tests, ODIs and T20s.

Question 3.
What does Mithali want people to know about her?
Answer:
As a woman cricketer, she wanted people to know her for her own identity.

Question 4.
What did the government of India confer on her?
Answer:
The Government of India in recognition of her contribution to cricket conferred on her the Padma Shri Award.

Question 5.
What was Usha Rani’s mother’s unfulfilled dream?
Answer:
Her mother’s unfulfilled dream was to become an athlete. So Usha Rani became determined and practised Kabbadi thoroughly.

Question 6.
What did the sports officer E.S. Sumath say about Usha Rani?
Answer:
‘Despite a well paid job, Usha participated in national events every year without a miss. She is an expert in giving leads, raiding opponents and consistently playing a prominent role in the Indian Kabbadi team.’

Question 7.
For what is Usha Rani working hard now?
Answer:
She is now working hard and practising Kabbadi everyday to win the Gold Medal at the Asian Games in 2018.

Question 8.
What should a person do to achieve success?
Answer:
Every person has to work hard with dedication and determination to achieve success in life. He / she should believe in himself / herself and follow his / her passion.

Question 9.
Who won the Silver and the bronze medals in 2017 and 2012 Olympics respectively?
Answer:
P. V. Sindhu won the silver medal in 2017 Olympics. Saina Nehwal won the bronze medal in 2012 Olympics.

Question 10.
How did Gopichand supported a correspondent’s opinion about P.V. Sindhu?
Answer:
He seconded the correspondent’s opinion by saying ‘The most striking feature in Sindhu’s game is her attitude and the ‘never say die spirit’.

VII. Paragraph Questions and Answers.

Question 1.
When and how did Mithali Dorai Raj start her career as a cricketer?
Answer:
Mithali Dorai Raj actually started playing Cricket with her brother. When she was young, she used to go with her father to the grounds, where he practised. She used to stand outside the ground, and returned the ball when it came her way. Though it was a humble start, she managed to secure a name and a place for herself. She broke the traditional barriers that cricket is for men and proved that women are on par with men in every field.

Question 2.
Given an account of Mithali Dorai Raj’s contribution to cricket?
Answer:
Mithali Dorai Raj was the captain of the Indian women’s cricket team in Tests and One Day Internationals. She started to play cricket at the age of 10 and was selected for the Indian team at the age of 17. She was widely recognized and acknowledged as one of the best cricketers. She was the highest run scorer in Women’s International Cricket and the only woman cricketer to surpass the 6,000 run mark in ODI’s. She was also the first player to score seven consecutive 50s. She is nick named as ‘Tendulkar of Indian women’s cricket, as she is presently the all time leading run scorer for India in all formats, including Tests, ODIs and T20s.

Question 3.
How did Usha Rani become a role model to her brothers and sisters at home and to other sports persons?
Answer:
Usha Rani, Cop-cum-Kabbadi champion rose from a poor town of Subedarpalaya in Yeshwanthpur near Bengaluru in Karnataka. As she was determined to become a Kabbadi player, she practised Kabbadi every morning whether it rained or shined. As a school child, she grew up watching Kabbadi at a club in front of her house. She joined the club and started playing Kabbadi at National level in Sub-Junior category.

She used to sell flowers for her daily living and was a source of support for her family. She got a job as a police person for her excellence in sports and was the youngest in the Karnataka State Police Women Kabbadi team. She won a Gold medal at the age of 29 years. Now, she is working hard to win the Gold Medal at the Asian Games in 2018. She has also become a role model to her brothers, sisters and other fellow sports persons. All this was achieved by her, through her dedication and her consistency in playing a prominent role in the Indian Kabbadi team.

Question 4.
Write any 3 points about your favourite sports.
Answer:
My favourite sports : Cricket

1. I love to play cricket with my friends.
2. It is an outdoor game.
3. It is played between two teams of eleven players.

Question 5.
How did P.V. Sindhu managed to balance her passion as well as her academics?
Answer:
P. V. Sindhu started playing badminton at the age of eight. Though her parents were professional volleyball players, Sindhu chose badminton over volleyball because she drew inspiration from the success of Pullela Gopichand, the 2001 All England Open Badminton Champion. Despite her busy training schedules and international tournaments, she managed to attend regular school until class 9, after which all her classes were through correspondence.

She balanced both her passion as well as her academics. Now, she holds a Bachelor’s degree in Commerce (B.Com.). Her commitment and the required hard work has fulfilled her desire to be a good badminton player.

Grammar – Additional

Adjectives

Adjectives describe nouns and pronouns. They may be classified as :

(a) Proper Adjectives :
Russian, American, Chinese, Japanese.

(b) Adjectives of quality :
little, huge (garden), nice (colour), kind (lady), good (man), beautiful (house).

(c) Adjectives of quantity :
same, little, much, enough.

(d) Adjectives of number:
first, second, third, all, a few, several, many, some.

(e) Demonstrative Adjectives :
This (dog), that (box), those (pencils), these (girls), such (men).

(f) Distributive Adjectives :
each (boy), every (girl), either, neither.

(g) Interrogative Adjectives:
Which (child), what (task), whose (book).

(h) Possessive Adjectives:
my (watch), his (pen), our (child), their (buffallo), your (cow).

(i) Present and Past Participles functioning as adjectives.
burnt (hut), running (water)

I. Fill in the blanks with suitable adjectives.

1. He is a _______ boy.
2. She bought a _______ watch.
3. Raju likes to have a _______ tea.
4. My father is _______ man.
5. My family doctor is a _______ gentleman.
6. Latha is a _______ girl.
7. I like _______ chocolates.
8. We saw a _______ bear.
9. There is a _______ hole here.
10. Our school has a _______ play ground.
11. He is an _______ painter.
12. _______ work leads to success.
13. She is a _______ model.
14. Listen to his _______ story.
15. He is the _______ ranker.

Answers:

1. smart
2. lovely
3. hot
4. sturdy
5. kind
6. good
7. milk
8. big
9. tiny
10. large
11. excellent
12. Hard
13. role
14. sad
15. top

II. Refer to dictionary for the meanings and circle the odd one.

III. Put the words in correct order and rewrite each sentence.

Question 1.
She has pens, (six, black, good)
Answer:
She has six good black pens.

Question 2.
Get me water, (cool, some, pine)
Answer:
Get me some cool pure water.

Question 3.
This is an book, (old, interesting, big)
Answer:
This is an interesting big old book.

Question 4.
It is a table, (brown, big, one)
Answer:
It is one big brown table.

Question 5.
I saw elephants in this jungle (great, old, six)
Answer:
I saw six great old elephants in this jungle.

Question 6.
They went to temples, (big, Amazing, two)
Answer:
They went to two Amazing big temples.

Question 7.
Buy me dress, (green, one, attractive)
Answer:
Buy me one attractive green dress.

Question 8.
Look at the birds, (colourful, tree, young)
Answer:
Look at the three colourful young birds.

Question 9.
Here is the book, (brown, great, big)
Answer:
Here is the great big brown book.

Question 10.
I love ice-creams, (two, creamy, chocolate)
Answer:
I love two creamy chocolate ice-creams.

IV. Choose the correct adjectives.

1. Latha stays ________ than Rani, (farther / further)
2. He is ________ than his friend, (popular / more popular)
3. My father is six feet ________ (tall / high)
4. Raju is ________ than Ravi, (more stronger / stronger)
5. This school has many trees that are ________ (tall / high)
6. He is ________ than his neighbour, (richer / more rich)
7. The brides were much ________ than the grooms, (young / younger)
8. Shakespeare is the ________ playwright in English, (great / greatest)
9. Jane was the ________ player of all. (good / best)
10. We saw ________ animals at the zoo. (many / much)
11. I don’t have ________ friends, (more / many)
12. The ________ turtle swims slowly, (big / bigger)
13. I love the ________ cat. (blacker / black)
14. She runs ________ than him. (fast / faster)
15. Her dress looks ________ than Latha’s dress, (prettier / pretty)

Answers:

1. further
2. more popular
3. tall
4. stronger
5. high
6. richer
7. younger
8. greatest
9. best
10. many
11. many
12. big
13. black
14. faster
15. prettier

Sports Stars Summary

Section I

This lesson is about sports stars of our country. They have been widely recognised and acknowledged. They have received awards and medals for their excellence in sports. In this section, the teacher reads a diary account of a school boy. This school boy loves Cricket. One day, his teacher tells him about Mithali Dorai Raj, who is the captain of the Indian women’s cricket team in Tests and One Day Internationals [ODIs]. He was surprised to hear from his teacher that Mithali, started to play cricket from the age of 10, and she was selected for the Indian team at the age of 17 years. The boy had never let his sister play cricket.

Though Mithali lived in Hyderabad, her mother tongue was Tamil. She was the highest run scorer and the only woman cricketer to surpass the 6,000 run mark in ODIs. She was also the first player to score seven consecutive 50s. She is nick named as ‘Tendulkar of Indian Women’s Cricket’. But she says that women should not be compared with men in Cricket. She broke the traditional barriers of many people, who think cricket is only for men. She proved that women are equal to men in every field. The government conferred on her the ‘Padma Shri’ Award. Recently, in the second women’s T20 International, Mithali led her side to a comfortable nine-wicket victory with an unbeaten 76 runs.

The boy was so inspired by Mithali and he changes his attitude. He felt happy and allowed his little sister to play cricket.

Put a (✓) for the correct and (×) for the incorrect statements.

1. A school-going girl writes the diary account. (×)
2. The boy was so inspired by Mithali that he was happy for his sister to play cricket. (✓)
3. Mithali Raj is happy to be recognised as Tendulkar of Indian Women’s Cricket. (×)
4. Women should not be compared with men in cricket, says Mithali. (✓)
5. Mithali Raj was not encouraged to play cricket by her family members. (×)
6. Mithali is one of the women players to score seven consecutive 50s. (×)
7. Mithali’s mother tongue is Telugu. (×)

Section II

This is a report on Usha Rani, cop-cum Kabbadi champion. She was from a poor town of Subedarpalaya in Yeshwanthpur near Bengaluru in Karnataka. To fulfill her mother’s dream, she became determined and practised Kabbadi from a young age. Soon she started playing Kabbadi at National level in sub-junior category. She used to sell flowers for her daily living and to support her family. She had to struggle hard all through her life, until she became the youngest cop in the Karnataka State Police Force.

At the age of 29 years, she won a Gold Medal in Kabbadi. She is now working hard and practising every day to win the Gold Medal at the Asian Games in 2018. She has also become the role model to her brothers, sisters and other fellow sports persons.

Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
When did Usha Rani start playing Kabaddi?
Answer:
As a school child, Usha Rani started playing Kabbadi.

Question 2.
What did she sell to support her family?
Answer:
She sold flowers to support her family.

Question 3.
Find out the idiom that relates to ‘whatever the circumstances’, from the first paragraph.
Answer:
‘Armed with her mother’s unfulfilled dream’, is the idiom related to ‘whatever the circumstances’.

Identify and write the sport’s name respectively.


Answer:

1. Kabbadi
2. Badminton
3. Cricket
4. Relay race

Section III.

This section deals with the biography of RV. Sindhu, the Badminton player. Pusarla Venkata Sindhu is one of the two Indian badminton players to ever win a silver medal in 2017 Olympics. She is one of the top five shuttlers in the women’s singles category. She drew inspiration from the success of Pullela Gopichand, the 2001 All England Open Badminton Champion. Sindhu joined Gopicharid’s Academy and practised her training schedules earnestly. She balanced both her passion as well as her academics. Now, she holds a Bachelor’s degree in Commerce (B.Com).

P.V. Sindhu won several titles, awards and cash grants for her contribution. The Government of India has also conferred three awards on her. They are Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award in 2016, Padma Shri in 2015 and Arjuna Award in 2013.

Complete the mind map given

Answer:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Introduction to Algebra Ex 2.3

Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Question 1.
Complete the following pattern.
9 – 1 =
98 – 21 =
987 – 321 =
9876 – 4321 =
98765 – 54321 =
What comes next?
Solution:
9 – 1 = 8
98 – 21 = 77
987 – 321 = 666
9876 – 4321 = 5555
98765 – 54321 = 44444
Next will be 987654 – 654321 = 333333

Question 2.
A piece of wire is ’12s’ cm long. What will be the length of the side, if it is formed as
(i) an equilateral triangle
(ii) a square?
Solution:
(i) 4s
(ii) 3s

Question 3.
Identify the value of the shapes and figures in the table given below the verify their addition horizontally and vertically.

Solution:

Question 4.
The table given below shows the results of the matches played by 8 teams in a Kabaddi championship tournament.

Find the value of all the variables in the table given above.
Solution:
We know that
Total matches played = Matches wont + Matches lost.
5 + k = 8
⇒ k = 3
7 + 2 = a
a = 9
7 = 6 + m
⇒ m = 1
b + 3 = 9
⇒ b = 6
4 + 6 = n
⇒ n = 10
6 + c = 10
⇒ c = 4
x + 4 = 8
⇒ x = 4
3 + 6 = y
⇒ y = 10

Challenging Problem (Text book Page No. 53)

Question 5.
Gopal is 8 years younger to Karnan. If the sum of their ages is 30, how old is Karnan?
Solution:
Let Kaman’s age be x years
Gopal age is x – 8 years
Given sum of their ages is 30. i.e, x + (x – 8) = 30
Now we will form the table to find their sums = 30.

For x = 19 (Karnan’s age)
the sum = 30
Kaman’s age = 19 years.

Question 6.
The rectangles made of identical square blocks with varying lengths but having only two square blocks as width are given below.

(i) How many smallest squares are there in each of the rectangles P, Q, R and S?
(ii) Fill in the boxes.

Solution:
(i) No. of smallest squares in P, Q, R and S are 2, 8, 6 and 10 respectively.
(ii)

Question 7.
Find the variables from the clues given below and solve the crossword puzzle.


Solution:

Please Check This Post:

• Shapes Worksheets

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
________ was founder or Gupta dynasty.
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Vishnu Gopa
(d) Vishnugupta
Answer:
(b) Sri Gupta

Question 2.
Prayog prashasti was composed by ………………
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Amarasimha
(c) Harisena
(d) Dhanvantri
Answer:
(c) Harisena

Question 3.
I’he monolithic iron pillar of Chandragupta is at ________
(a) Mehrauli
(b) Bhitari
(c) Gadhva
(d) Mathura
Answer:
(a) Mehrauli

Question 4.
……………… was the first Indian to explain the process of surgery.
(a) Charaka
(b) Sushruta
(c) Dhanvantri
(d) Agnivasa
Answer:
(b) Sushruta

Question 5.
________ was the Gauda ruler of Bengal.
(a) Sasanka
(b) Maitraka
(c) Rajavardhana
(d) Pulikesin 11
Answer:
(a) Sasanka

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Chandragupta 1 crowned himself as a monarch of a large kingdom after eliminating various small states in Northern India.
Reason (R) : Chandragupta I married Kumaradevi of Lichchavi family.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Chandragupta II did not have cordial relationship with the rulers of South India.
Statement II : The divine theory of kingship was practised by the Gupta rulers.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are correct.
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct

Question 3.
Which of the following is arranged in chronological order?
a. Srigupta – Chandragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya
b. Chandragupta I – Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta
c. Srigupta – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya – Chandragupta I
d. Vikramaditya – Srigupta – Samudragupta – Chandragupta I
Answer:
(a) Srigupta – Chadragupta I – Samudragupta – Vikramaditya

Question 4.
Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is / are correct

1. Lending money at high rate of interest was practised.
2. Pottery and mining were the most flourishing industries.

a. 1. is correct
b. 2. is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correct
d. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
(a) 1. is correct

Question 5.
Circle the odd one
1. Kalidasa, Harisena, Samudragupta, Charaka.
Answer:
Samudragupta
Reason : Samudragupta was a king. Others were not.

2. Ratnavali, Harshacharita, Nagananda, Priyadharshika.
Answer:
Harshacharita
Reason .‘Harshacharita was written by Banabhatta. Other three were written by Harsha.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ the king of Ceylon, was a contemporary of Samudragupta.
2. Buddhist monk from China ______ visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
3. ______ invasion led to the downfall of Gupta Empire.
4. ______ was the main revenue to the Government.
5. The official language of the Guptas was______
6. ______ the Pallava king was defeated by Samudragupta.
7. ______ was the popular king of Vardhana dynasty.
8. Harsha shifted his captial from ______ to Kanauj.

Answer:

1. Sri Meghavarman
2. Fahine
3. Hun
4. Land Tax
5. Sanskrit
6. Vishnugopal
7. Harsha
8. Thaneswar

IV. State whether True or False :

1. Dhanvantri was a famous scholar in the field of medicine.
2. The structural temples built during Gupta period resemble the Indo-Aryan style.
3. Sati was not in practice in the Gupta Empire.
4. Harsha belonged to Hinayana school of thought.
5. Harsha was noted for his religious intolerance.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. False

V. Match the following:
A
a. Mihirakula – 1. Astronomy
b. Aryabhatta – 2. Kumaragupta
c. Painting – 3. Skandagupta
d. Nalanda University – 4. Caravan trader
e. Sartavaga – 5. Bagh
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 2,4,1,2,5
(c) 3,1,5,2,4
(d) 3,2,1,4,5
Answer:
(c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
a. Bana – 1.10,000 students
b. Harsha – 2. Prayag
c. Nalanda University – 3. Harshacharita
d. Hiuen – Tsang – 4. Ratnavali
e. Buddhist Assembly – 5 Si-Yu-Ki
a) 4,3,2,1,5
b) 5,2,1,3,4
c) 3,5,1,2,4
d) 2,1,3,4,5
Answer:
3,4,1,5,2

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Who was given the title Kaviraja? Why?
Answer:

1. The title Kaviraja was given to Samudragupta.
2. He was a great lover of poetry and music.
3. In one of the gold coins, he is portrayed playing harp (Veenai)

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Explain the Divine Theory of Kingship.
Answer:

1. The divine theory of Kingship meant that king is the representative of God on earth.
2. He is answerable only to God and not to any one else.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Who were the Huns?
Answer:

1. Huns were the nomadic tribe, who under their great Attila were terrorising Rome and Constantinople .
2. They came to India through Central Asia, defeated Skandagupta and spread across central India.
3. Their chief Toromana crowned himself as king.
4. After him, his son Mihirakula ruled and got finally defeated by Yasodharman, ruler of Malwa.

Question 6.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during the Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

Question 7.
Name the books authored by Harsha.
Answer:
The books authored by Harsha were Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika.

VII. Answer the following briefly :

Question 1.
Write a note on Prashasti.
Answer:

1. Prashasti is a Sanskrit word, meaning commendation or ‘in praise of’.
2. Court poets flattered their kings listing out their achievements.
3. These accounts were later engraved on pillars so that the people could read them.
4. The Prayog Prashasti, composed by Samudragupta’s court poet Harisena was engraved on Allahabad Pillar.
5. This Allahabad Pillar inscription is the main source of information for Samudragupta’s reign.

Question 2.
Give an account of Samudragupta’s military conquests.
Answer:

1. Samudragupta was a great general and he carried on a vigorous campaign all over the country.
2. He defeated the Pallava king Vishnugopa.
3. He conquered nine kingdoms in northern India.
4. He reduced 12 rulers of southern India to the status of feudatories and to pay tribute.
5. He received homage from the rulers of East Bengal, Assam, Nepal, the eastern part of Punjab and various tribes of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Describe the land classification during the Gupta period.
Answer:
(i) Classification of land during Gupta period.

(ii) Land Tax was the main revenue to the government.

(iii) The condition of the peasants was pathetic. They were required to pay various taxes. They were reduced to the position of serfs.

Question 4.
Write about Sresti and Sarthavaha traders.
Answer:

1. Sresti : Sresti traders were usually settled at a standard place.
2. Sarthavaha : Sarthavaha traders caravan traders who carried their goods to different places.

Question 5.
Highlights the contribution of guptas ro architecture.
Answer:

1. The Guptas were the first to construct temples, which evolved from the earlier trandition of rock-cut shrines.
2. Adorned with towers and elaborate carvings, these temples were dedicated to all Hindu deities.
3. The most notable rock-cut caves are found at Ajanta and Ellora (Maharashtra), Bagh (Madhya Pradesh) and
4. Udaygiri (Odisha).
5. The structural temples built during this period resemble the characteristic features of the Dravidian style.
6. Two remarkable examples of Gupta metal sculpture are
   • a copper image of Buddha about 18 feet high at Nalanda.
   • Sultanganj Buddha seven-and-a-half feet in height.
7. Gupta paintings are found on the Fresco of the Ajanta caves and the Bagh cave in Gwalior.

Question 6.
Name the works of Kalidasa.
Answer:

1. Kalidasa’s famous dramas were Sakunthala, Malavikagnimitra and Vikramaoorvashiyam.
2. Other significant works were Meghaduta, Raghuvamsa, Kumarasambava and Ritusamhara

Question 7.
Estimate Harshvardhana as a poet and a dramatist.
Answer:

1. Harsha, himself a poet and dramatist, gathered around him best of poets and artists.
2. Harsha’s popular works are Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadharshika.
3. His royal court was adorned by Banabhatta, Mayura, Hardatta and Jayasena.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
The gold coins issued by Gupta kings indicate __________
a. the availability of gold mines in the kingdom
b. the ability of the people to work with gold
c. the prosperity of the kingdom
d. the extravagant nature of kings
Answer:
c. the prosperity of the kingdom

Question 2.
The famous ancient paintings at Ajanta were painted on ………………
(a) walls of caves
(b) ceilings of temples
(c) rocks
(d) papyrus
Answer:
(a) walls of caves

Question 3.
Gupta period is remembered for __________
a. renaissance in literature and art
b. expeditions to southern India.
c. invasion of Huns
d. religious tolerance
Answer:
a. renaissance in literature and art

Question 4.
What did Indian scientists achieve in astronomy and mathematics during the Gupta period?
Answer:

1. Invention of Zero and the cosequent evolution of the decimal system to the modern world.
2. Aryabhatta explained the true causes of solar and lunar eclipses. He was the , first Indian astronomer to
3. declare that the earth revolves around its own axis.

IX. Student Activity

Question 1.
Compare and contrast the society of Guptas with that of Mauryas.
Mauryan Society:

1. According to Megasthenes, the Greek historian, the ancient Mauryan society comprised of seven divisions namely philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsmen, artisans, magistrates and councillors which were referred to as castes.
2. In the ancient Mauryan society, the cultivators formed the largest group becoming the central nerve of agriculture in society.
3. The caste system was very prevalent one.
4. Women were also engaged in a variety of activities like archers, royal bodyguards, spies and performers. But women were most of the times dominated by their male counter parts.
5. Wisdoms had a very honorable place in society. Offenses against women were severally dealt with.
6. An urban way of life developed. Education became fairly wide spread.
7. Slavery in India was beginning to make the appearance.

Gupta Society:

1. The society was adhered to four vama system.
2. According to laws of Manu, which was in force, women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
3. Polygamy was widely prevalent.
4. The kings and the feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Inscriptions refer to Kubernaga and Dhruvasvamini as the queens of Chandragupta II.
6. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

X. Life Skills :

Question 1.
Collect information about the contribution of Aryabhatta, Varahamihira and Brahmagupta to astronomy.
Answer:
Aryabhatta:

1. Aryabhatta (476-550CE) was the first of the major mathematician-astronomers from the classical age of Indian mathematics and Indian astronomy.
2. His major work, Aryabhatiya is a compendium of mathematics and astronomy.
3. Aryabhatiya covers several branches of mathematics such as algebra, arithmetic, plane and spherical trigonometry.
4. Aryabhatta discovered the position of nine planets and expressed that these likewise rotate around the sun.
5. He also provided the circumference and measurement of the Earth and the radius of the orbits of 9 planets.
6. Aryabhatta pronounced that the moon has no light of its own.
7. He concluded that the earth is round. He also stated that it rotates on its own axis, which is why we have days and nights.
8. He concentrated on a few geometric and trigonometric parts of the celestial sphere that are still used to study stars.
9. In his old age, Aryabhatta composed another treatise ‘ Aryabahatta – Siddhanta’. It is the booklet for everyday astronomical calculation for performing rituals, To this very day, astronomical data provided in this text is used for preparing panchangs (Hindu Calendars).
10. India’s first Satellite Aryabhatta was named after him.

Varahamihira:

1. Varahamihira (505-587CE) was an Indian astronomer, mathematician and astrologer from Ujjain.
2. Varahamihira is considered to be one of the Nine gems (Navarathnas) of the court of ancient ruler Yashodarman.
3. His knowledge of westren astrology was thorough but he was also very intrested in astrology and horoschope
4. His father was a worshipper of the Sun God and it was he who taught astrology.
5. Varahamihira was a scientist. He declared that the earth was spherical. He was the first to claim that some ‘force’ might be keeping bodies stuck to the round earth. This force is now called gravity.
6. He proposed that the moon and the planets are lustrous not because of their own light but due to Sunlight.
7. His book Panchasiddhantika on mathematical astronomy is one of the most important sources for the history of Hindu Astronomy.
8. His encyclopedia Brihat-Samhita with 106 chapters include subjects planetary movements, eclipses, rainfall, clouds, growth of crops, various rituals.

Brahmagupta – (598-668 CE):

1. Brahmagupta was an Indian mathematician and astronomer. He wrote some important works on both mathematics and astronomy.
2. His most famous work is “Brahmasphutasiddanta”.
3. Brahmagupta explained how to find the cube and cuberoot.
4. He was the earliest known mathematician to treat zero as a number in its own right.
5. He dedicated a substantial portion of his work to geometry and trigonometry
6. He explains that since the Moon is closer to the Earth than the Sun, the degree of the illuminated part of the moon depends on the relative position of the sun and the moon. This can be computed from the size of the angle between the bodies.
7. In his treatise Khandakhadyaka, explored the longitudes of the planets, diurnal rotation, lunar and solar eclipses, rising and settings etc.

Question 2.
Visit a nearby ISRO centre to know more about satellite launching.
Answer:
ISRO :

1. The Indian space Research Qrgnisation is the space agency of the government of India.
2. Its headquarters is in the city of Bangalore.
3. it was formed in 1969.
4. It built India’s first satellite “Aryabhatta” in 1975.

Satellite Launching:

1. Usually the word ‘Satellite’ refers to a machine that is launched into space and moves around the Earth or another body in space.
2. Moon is an example of natural satellite. Thousands of artificial or Man made satellites orbit Earth.
3. India has two operational launchers :
   Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
   Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).

XI. Answer Grid :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Age Of Empires : Guptas And Vardhanas Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Devichandraguptam was written by _______
(a) Visakhadatta
(b) Harisena
(c) Bana
(d) Harsha
Answer:
(a) Visakhadatta

Question 2.
‘Nitisara’ emphasises the importance of ……………
(a) Trade
(b) Military
(c) Agriculture
(d) Treasury
Answer:
(d) Treasury

Question 3.
Vishnugopa was the ruler of _______
(a) Cheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Pallava
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Pallava

Question 4.
The Gupta coins were known as Dinara ……………
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Gold
Answer:
(d) Gold

Question 5.
Srimeghavarman was a contemporary of _______
(a) Chandragupta I
(b) Sri Gupta
(c) Samudragupta
(d) Narasimhagupta
Answer:
(c) Samudragupta

Question 6.
Nitisara was authored by _______
(a) Kalidasa
(b) Visakhadatha
(c) Kamandaka
(d) Harisena
Answer:
(c) Kamandaka

Question 7.
Hinayana and Mahayana were the two sects of
(a) Vaishnavism
(b) Saivism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Jainism
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The Contribution of the traders for the development of Gupta’s economy was very impressive.
Reason (R) : The Guptas developed roadways connecting different parts of the country.
a. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Kumaragupta built the famous Nalanda University.
Statement II : Fahien spent many years studying Buddhism in Nalanda University.
a. Statement I is wrong but Statement II is correct.
b. Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct.
c. Both the statements are wrong.
d. Both the statements are correct.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong but Statement I is correct

Question 3.

Consider the following statements and find out which of the following statement(s) is / are correct.

1. Lichchhavi was old gana-sanga.
2. Srigupta was given the title “Kaviraja’

a. 1 is correct
b. 2 is correct
c. Both 1 and 2 are correctd. Both 1 and 2 are wrong
Answer:
a. 1 is correct

Question 4.
Circle the odd one.

Question 1.
Kshetra, Vasti, Nitisara, Khila.
Answer:
Nitisara
Reason : Nitisara is a book, whereas the other three were the classification of land in Gupta’s period.

Question 2.
Pataliputra, Benaras, Magadha, Mathura
Answer:
Magadha
Reason : Magadha was an ancient kingdom, where as the other three were the famous trade centers.

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hiuen Tsang authored _______
2. Fahien visited the court of _______
3. The last of the great Guptas was _______
4. The last recognised king of the Gupta empire was _______
5. The espionage system of the Gupta was known as _______
6. Pushyabhuti dynasty ruled from _______
7. Harsha shifted his capital from Thaneswar to _______
8. Sasanka of Bengal was hostile to _______
9. Harsha met the Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang at _______
10. Harsha built the charitable institution to care for the _______

Answer:

1. Si-Yu-Ki
2. Chandragupta II
3. Baiaditya /Narasimha Gupta I
4. Vishnugupta
5. Dutakas
6. Thaneswar
7. Kanau
8. Harsha
9. Kajangala
10. Sick and Poor

IV. True or False :

1. The surname Devaraja referred to Vikramaditya.
2. ChandraGupta II built the Nalanda University.
3. Aprahata meant Jungle or forest land.
4. Sresti traders were caravan traders.
5. Asvamedha Yagna means horse sacrifice ritual.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Match:
A
Kalidasa – 1. Architect
Sanku – 2. Physician
Varahamihira – 3. Sanskrit Poet
Dhanvantri – 4. Magician
Vittalbhatta – 5. Astronomer
a) 1,3,2,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 3,1,5,2,4
d)4,2,3,1,5
Answer:
c) 3,1,5,2,4

B
Amarasimha – 1. Grammarian
Kahapanaka – 2. Sanskrit Poet
Varauchi – 3. Lexicographer
Harisena – 4. Buddhism
Hinayana – 5. Astrologer
a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 3,5,1,2,4
c) 4,5,3,1,2
d)5,3,2,4,1
Answer:
b) 3,5,1,2,4

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Who was Srigupta?
Answer:

1. Srigupta is considered to be the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
2. He is believed to have reigned over parts of present day Bengal and Bihar.
3. He was the first Gupta ruler to be featured on coins.
4. He was succeeded by his son Ghatotkacha.

Question 2.
What do you know about ‘Kaviraja’?
Answer:

1. In one of the gold coins issued by Samudragupta he is portrayed playing harp (Veena).
2. He was a lover of poetry and music and for this, he earned the title “Kaviraja7.

Question 3.
Mention the surnames of Chandragupta II.
The surnames of Chandragupta II were Vikramaditya, Narendrachandra, SimhachandraJ Narendrasimha, Vikrama Devaraja, Devagupta and Devasri.

Question 4.
What do the seals and inscriptions reveal about Gupta’s military administration?
Answer:

1. Seals and inscriptions mentioned about the military designations as baladhikrita and mahabaladhikrita (Commander of infantry and cavalry respectively).
2. The system of espionage included spies known as dutakas.

Question 5.
What were the metals used by the Guptas?
Answer:
Guptas used iron, gold, copper, tin, lead, brass, bronze, bell-metal, mica, manganese and red chalk.

Question 6.
Was there development of Sanskrit grammar during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The Gupta period saw the development of Sanskrit grammar based on the grammar of Panini and Patanjali who wrote Ashtadhyayi and Mahabhashya respectively.

Question 7.
Why did Harsha embrace Buddhism?
Harsha embraced Buddhism under the influence of his sister Rajyashri and the Buddhist monk and traveller Hiuen Tsang.

Question 8.
As a Buddhist, what are the contributions of Harsha?
Answer:

1. Harsha belonged to Mahayana school of thought.
2. Harsha treated vedic scholars and Buddhist monks alike and distributed Charities equally to them.
3. He was the last Buddhist sovereign in India.
4. As a pious Buddhist, Harsha stopped the killing of animals for food.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Chandragupta II.
Answer:

1. Chandragupta II was the son of Samudragupta.
2. He was also known as Vikarmaditya.
3. He conquered western Malwa and Gujarat by defeating the Saka rulers.
4. He maintained friendly relationship with the rulers of southern India.
5. The iron pillar near Qutub Minar is believed to have been built by Vikramaditya.
6. Fahien, a Buddhist scholar from China, visited India during his region.
7. Vikramaditya is said to have assembled the greatest writers and artists [Navaratna (Nine Jewels)] in his court.
8. He was succeeded by Kumaragupta

Question 2.
What do you know about the society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

Question 3.
Write a note on Nalanda University.
Answer:

1. Nalanda University flourished under the patronage of the Gupta Empire in the 5th and 6th centuries and later under emperor Harsha of Kanauj.
2. At Nalanda, Buddhism was the main subject of study. Other subjects like Yoga, Vedic literature and Medicine were also taught.
3. Hiuen Tsang spent many years studying Buddhism in the University.
4. Eight Mahapatashalas and three large libraries were situated on the campus.
5. Nalanda was ravaged and destroyed by Turkish Muslims.
6. Today it is a UbESCO World Heritage Site.

Question 4.
Explain the Gupta Monetary System under Samudra Gupta.
Answer:

1. Samundragupta introduced the Gupta monetary system.
2. Kushana coins provided inspiration to Samudragupta.
3. The Gupta gold coins were known as Dinara.
4. Gutpas issued many gold coins but comparatively fewer silver and copper coins.
5. However, the post-Gupta period saw a fall in the circulation of gold coins, indicating the decline in the prosperity of the empire.

Question 5.
Write about the conquests of Harshavardhana.
Answer:

1. The most popular king of the Vardhana dynasty was Harshavardhana. He ruled for 41 years.
2. His feudatories included those of Jalandhar, Kashmir, Nepal and Valabhi. Sasanka of Bengal remained hostile to him.
3. It was Harsha who unified most of northern India.
4. He maintained a cordial relationship with the rulers of Iran and China.
5. But the extension of his authority in the south was checked by Chalukya king Pulikesin II.
6. The kingdom of Harsha disintegrated rapidly into small states after his death in 648 AD

Question 6.
Who was Hiuen Tsang?
Answer:

1. Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveller, known as the “Prince of pilgrims”, visited India during Harsha’s reign.
2. His book ‘Si-yu-ki’ provides detailed information about the social, economic, religious and cultural conditions of India during Harsha’s time.
3. Hiuen Tsang tells us how Harsha, though a Buddhist, went to participate in the great Kumbhamela held at Prayag.

Question 7.
Mention the significance of the assemblies held at
a) Kanauj
b) Prayag.
Answer:
a. Assembly held at Kanauj:

1. The assembly at Kanauj was attended by 20 kings.
2. A large number of Buddhist, Jain and Vedic scholars attended the assembly.
3. The golden statue of Buddha was consecrated in the monastery and a small statue of Buddha (three feet) was carried in a procession.

b. Assembly at Prayag:

1. In the assembly at Prayag, Harsha distributed his wealth among the Buddhists, Vedic scholars and poor people.
2. Harsha offered fabulous gifts to the Buddhist monks on all the four days of the assembly

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 Our Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Identify the fresh water ecosystem.
(a) Pond
(b) Lake
(c) River
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 2.
Producers are
a. Animals
b. Birds
c. Plants
d. Snakes
Answer:
c. Plants

Question 3.
It is a biodegradable waste
(a) Plastic
(b) Coconut Shell
(c) Glass
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(b) Coconut shell

Question 4.
It is an undesirable change that occurs in air and water.
a. Recycling
b. Reuse
c. Pollution
d. Reduce
Answer:
c. Pollution

Question 5.
Usages of chemical pesticides and fertilisers causes pollution.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Water pollution

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Primary consumers that eat plants are called _______
2. Temperature, light and wind are _______ factors.
3. _______ is the process of converting waste materials into new materials.
4. Water pollution can spread _______ and chemicals.
5. The 3R’s are Reduce, _______ and Recycle.

Answers:

1. Herbivores
2. Physical
3. Recycling
4. Diseases
5. Reuse

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement :

Question 1.
The Pacific ocean is an example of an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Bacteria and fungi are called decomposers.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Human and animal wastes are examples of non-biodegradable waste.
Answer:
False. Human and animal wastes are examples of biodegradable waste.

Question 4.
Excessive use of pesticides leads to air pollution.
Answer:
False. Excessive use of pestides leads to water pollution.

Question 5.
In schools, waste management rules say that we should separate waste in two categories.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Biotic factor – Terrestrial Ecosystem
2. Sewage – Land pollution
3. Fertilizers – Air pollution
4. Desert – Water Pollution
5. Smoke – Animals

Answer:

1. Biotic factor – Animals
2. Sewage – Water pollution
3. Fertilizers – Land pollution
4. Desert – Terrestrial ecosystem
5. Smoke – Air pollution

V. Arrange the following in a correct sequence and form a food chain

Question 1.
Rabbit → Carrot → Eagle → Snake
Answer:
Carrot → Rabbit → Snake → Eagle

Question 2.
Human → Insect → Algae → Fish
Answer:
Algae → Insect → Fish → Human

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define ecosystem.
Answer:
An ecosystem is a community of living or biotic and non-living or a biotic things that work together.

Question 2.
What are the two types of ecosystems?
Answer:
Types of ecosystems :

1. Natural ecosystem
2. Artificial ecosystem

Question 3.
Write any two things that can be recycled.
Answer:
Examples :

1. Old clothes
2. Plastics

Question 4.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
There are four major kinds of pollution :

1. Air Pollution.
2. Water Pollution.
3. Land (Soil) Pollution.
4. Noise Pollution.

Question 5.
Give one example of a food chain in an aquatic ecosystem.
Answer:
Food chain in aquatic ecosystem.
Aquatic plant → Aquatic insect → Larva → Fish.

Question 6.
Name some pollutants.
Answer:

1. Toxic gases and fine particles from burning fossil fuels, chemicals released from factories.
2. Sewage, industrial effluents, pesticides and fertilizers
3. Plastics and electronics are land pollutants.

Question 7.
What are the pollutions caused by the objects given below?
a. Loud Speaker
b. Plastic
Answer:
a. Loud Speaker – Noise Pollution.
b. Plastic – Land Pollution.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is biodegradable waste?
Answer:
The term ‘‘Biodegradable” is used for those things that can be easily decomposed by natural agents like water, oxygen, ultraviolet rays of sun and microorganisms etc.

Question 2.
How can we reduce water pollution?
Answer:

1. Do not pour leftover oil, old medicines or waste down the drain or into the toilet.
2. Reduce the use of chemical pesticides and fertilizers to grow crops.
3. Reduce the use of detergents and bleach to wash clothes.
4. Do not litter or dump waste always use a waste bin.

Question 3.
Write the importance of the food chain.
Answer:
Importance of food chain

1. Learning food chain help us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between organisms in any ecosystem.
2. Understanding the food chain also helps us to appreciate the energy flow and nutrient circulation in an ecosystem.
3. This is important because pollution impacts the ecosystem. The food chain can be used to understand the movement of toxic substances and their impacts.

VIII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give two examples of how you can avoid or reduce waste?
Answer:
Examples of how we can Avoid waste:-
Avoid buying packaged foods. Refuse to buy ‘use-and-throw’ plastic products.

Examples of how we can Reduce waste:-

1. Write on both sides on paper
2. Share newspaper and magazines with others.

Question 2.
Write a short note on noise pollution.
Answer:

1. Noise pollution is caused by loud sounds.
2. Loud music, the sounds of motor vehicles, fireworks and machines cause noise pollution which affects the environment.
3. We all like a quiet and peaceful place since unpleasant or loud sounds disturb us.
4. Continuous noise disturbs our sleep and does not let us study.
5. It leads to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
6. Loud noise or music can damage our ears.
7. It also disturbs animals. For example in noisy areas birds have to communicate louder so they can hear each other.
8. Even underwater noise pollution from ships can make whales lose their way as they use sounds to navigate.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
What would happen if an organism is removed from the food chain?
Answer:
If an organism is removed from the food chain,

1. The food chain will fall apart.
2. The ecosystem will become imbalance and collapse.
3. For example, Consider a food chain: Plants → grasshoppers → frogs → snakes → hawks.

If frogs were to die off in this chain, (due to disease/pollutants), then, there will be an increase in the number of grasshoppers. This will cause a major problem.

Question 2.
Explain the link between waste and dangerous diseases like dengue and malaria?
Answer:

1. Dengue and malaria fever are caused by the bite of mosquitoes.
2. Accumulation of waste and stagnant water or uncovered containers of stored drinking water are the habitat for breeding mosquitoes.
3. In order to control these infectious diseases, people should maintain clean environment, free from mosquitoes.

X. See the diagram and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Explain what is happening in the picture?
Answer:

1. The atmosphere is polluted in this picture. It is due to the smoke arising from burning garbage.
2. Land and water have been polluted because of leaching the toxins into the soil and water.

Questions 2.
What types of pollution are caused by open dumps?
Answer:
The following types of pollution are caused by open dumps :-

1. Water pollution
2. Land pollution
3. Air pollution

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Think of the objects in your home. Just keep in mind, the books, toys, furniture, food materials and even pets of your home. These living and non-living things together make your home. Look at the following picture and list out the living and non-living things.

Answer:
Living things : Plants, Beetle, Mosquito, Larva, Water snake, Water scorpion, Snail, Fish, Duck and Frog etc.
Non- living things : Sun, Air, Water, Chemicals, Soil, Rocks and Temperature etc.

Activity 2

Take a square paper. Fold its diagonals. Draw three lines in three triangles as shown in the picture.

Cut from the edge of the diagonal to the centre as shown in the picture.

If you fold this triangle and paste behind the third triangle you get a pyramidal shape.

In one of the triangles, draw images of each of the organisms in the different levels.

In another triangle write the names of the organisms. In the last triangle, write the energy level of the organism. Have a look at the following example. You must come up with different organisms!

Answer:

Activity 3

Take two mud pots or glass jars and fill them up with garden soil. In the first pot, mix wastes such as banana peel, some vegetable peels and a few tree leaves into the soil. In the second pot, mix a piece of plastic carry bag, sweet wrapper and metal foil into the soil.

What happen to the waste materials placed in both pots? Do you notice a difference between first and second pot? Observe the changes over two weeks and discuss with your classmates.
Answer:
After two weeks, the wastes in the first pot, such as banana peel, some vegetable peel and tree leaves are degraded.

The wastes in the second pot such as carry bag, sweet wrapper and metal foil are not degraded.

Because, the first pot has biodegradable wastes. So they are degraded. But the second pot has non-biodegradable wastes. So they are not degraded.

Activity Pg.No : 53

Question 1.
Give some examples for Biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.

Answer:

Activity 4

Question 1.
Preparation of Vermi Compost

1. Dig a pit for about one feet depth in the backyard or garden of your home or school.
2. Fill the pit by bio-wastes, paper and food wastes, place few earth worms in it, sprinkle water and close the place with jute or cardboard and ensure moisture all the time.
3. After 45 days the vermi casting layer formed just above the pit.
4. These castings will be applied to the plant.
5. This contains water soluble nutrients.
6. This type of compost helps in plant growth as well as sustain the land is fertility.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Classroom Exercise:
Identify who am I ?

Question 1.
I am the type of pollution caused by burning of fossil fuels like pertrol (or) coal and the smoke of burning garbage. I float around and cause breathing problems. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Air.

Question 2.
I am the type of pollution caused by loud sounds and I can cause serious damage to your ears and also affect sleep. In India, I am mainly caused by loudspeakers and honking of air horns of cars. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Noise.

Question 3.
I flow from homes and farms into rivers and lakes. I kill fish and make water unfit for drinking. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Water.

Question 4.
I am the type of pollution caused by using too much chemical fertilizers and pesticides by farmers. I lower the quality of soil and even move chemicals into plant parts which are eaten by people. I am _______ pollution.
Answer:
Land.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Our Environment Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
These are abiotic factors.
i. Sunlight
ii. Bacteria
iii. Air
iv. Plants
(a) i and ii
(b) i and iii
(c) ii and iv
(d) iii and iv
Answer:
(b) i and iii

Question 2.
Pick out the terrestrial ecosystem
(a) lake
(b) mountain regions
(c) deserts
(d) both b and c
Answer:
(d) both b and c – mountain regions deserts

Question 3.
_______ are organisms that are able to produce their own Organic food.
(a) Producers
(b) Consumers
(c) Decomposer
(d) Omnivores
Answer:
(a) Producers

Question 4.
The primary energy production in the world of living things is made by?
(a) aquatic insect
(b) rabbit
(c) plants
(d) deer
Answer:
(c) plants

Question 5.
Natural agents like _______ are the decomposition factors breaking complex forms to simpler unit.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Water
(c) micro organisms
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 6.
The average person in India produces _______ kg of waste everyday
(a) 0.45
(d) 055
(c) 0.40
(d) 0.55
Answer:
(a) 0.45

Question 7.
Most _______ pollution is caused by the burning these fossil fuels.
(a) Water
(b) Land
(c) Air
(d) Noise
Answer:
(c) Air

Question 8.
Among the following which one is not polluted by noise pollution?
(a) Sounds of motor vehicles
(b) Music from radio
(c) Firing crackers
(d) Loud music
Answer:
(b) Music from radio

Question 9.
_______ Pollution has been directly linked to stress and health impacts such as high blood pressure and hearing loss.
(a) Noise
(b) Land
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(a) Noise

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. _______ are called as biotic factors.
2. _______ is the best example of natural terrestrial ecosystem.
3. Ecosystem originated without human intervention is called _______
4. The ecosystem in water is called _______ ecosystem.
5. _______ obtained energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms.
6. The sequence of who eats whom in an ecosystem is called as _______
7. The food chain begins with the energy given by the _______
8. Each level in the food chain is called a _______ level.
9. The burning of solid waste in _______ is called incineration.
10. Garbage buried inside landfills remain here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become _______
11. Polluted _______ affects skin, eyes and respiratory system.
12. Land (Soil) pollution happens when toxic change the natural balance in soil.

Answers:

1. Plants
2. Forest
3. Natural ecosystem
4. Aquatic
5. Bacterium
6. Food chain
7. Sun
8. Trophic
9. Incinerator
10. Manure
11. Air
12. Chemicals

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the artificial terrestrial ecosystem.
Answer:
False. Forest and Mountain regions are the best examples of the natural terrestrial ecosystem.

Question 2.
Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the terrarium.
Answer:
False. Fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained in the aquarium.

Question 3.
Animals that eat both plants and animals are called as Carnivores.
Answer:
False. Animals that eat both plants and animals are called as Omnivores.

Question 4.
In a food chain grasshopper gets energy by eating frog.
Answer:
False. In a food chain frog gets energy by eating grasshopper.

Question 5.
If we protect the ecosystem, we can reduce waste by using durable goods.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that can be easily decomposed.
Answer:
False. The term non-biodegradable is used for those things that cannot be easily decomposed.

Question 7.
The process by which waste materials are used to make new products is called recycling.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Expired medicines, used batteries are domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:
True.

Question 9.
Lcrud noise or even loud music can damage our eyes.
Answer:
False. Loud noise or even loud music can damage our ears.

IV. Match the following :

A.

Answers:
i – c
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – d.

B.

Answers:
i – c
ii – d
iii – e
iv – a
v – b.

C.

Answers:
i – c
ii – a
iii – d
iv – b.

V. Analogy:

Question 1.
Biotic factor : Animals :: Abiotic factor : _______
Answer:
Air or Water.

Question 2.
Natural terrestrial ecosystem : Forest:: Artificial terrestrial ecosystem : _______
Answer:
Garden.

Question 3.
Primary Consumer : Goat, Cow :: Secondary Consumer : _______
Answer:
Frog, Owl.

Question 4.
Biodegradable waste: Leaves, Garden wastes:: Non-biodegradable waste: _______
Answer:
Plastic cover, glass bottle.

Question 5.
Edaphic factor : Water in soil:: Physical factor : _______
Answer:
Light.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
List out the following by biotic and abiotic factors. (Sun, plants, animals, air, soil, bacteria, heat, minerals.
Answer:
Abiotic Factors:
Sun, Air
Water, Soil
Heat, Minerals

Biotic Factors:
Plants
Animals
Bacteria

Question 2.
Give a brief account on land fill.
Answer:

1. Land filing is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occurring or man-made pits and covered with soil.
2. Garbage buried inside landfills remains here for a long time as they decompose very slowly and become man use.
3. These places can be converted into parks, gardens etc.
4. The first step should always be to reduce waste.
5. The second step is to keep waste separate. So that the waste can be easily reused or recycled.

Question 3.
Define – Aquarium.
Answer:
An aquarium is a place in which fish and other water creatures and plants are maintained. Example : Fish growing in homes with small tank.

Question 4.
What is Autotrophs?
Answer:
Producers are organisms that are able to produce their own organic food. They do not need to eat other organisms, to do this. Producers are also called Autotrophs.

Question 5.
Define – Heterotrophs.
Answer:
Organisms which cannot produce their own food, need to eat other organisms as food. These Organisms are also called consumers. All animals are consumers as they cannot produce their own food. Consumers are also called Heterotrophs.

Question 6.
Differentiate between herbivores and carnivores.
Answer:
Herbivores:

1. Animals which eat plants or plant products.
2. Ex : Deer, Goat, Cattle and Rat.

Carnivores:

1. Animals that eat other animals..
2. Ex : Lion, Tiger, Frog and Owl.

Question 7.
What are decomposers?
Answer:
Micro-organisms (both plants and animals) that obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of dead organisms. They break complex organic substances into simple organic substances that goes into the soil and are used by plants.

Example : Bacterium, Fungi.

Question 8.
Define – Food web.
Answer:

1. If we put all the food chains within an ecosystem together, then we end up with many interconnected food chains. This is called as food web.
2. A food web is very useful to show the many different feeding relationships between different species within an ecosystem.

Question 9.
What is reuse? Give examples.
Answer:
Reusing means using a thing again and again, rather than using and throwing after a single use.

Example :

1. Instead of using plastic bags, use cloth bags.
2. Rechargeable batteries and fountain pens.

Question 10.
What is Landfill?
Answer:
Landfilling is a method in which wastes are dumped into naturally occuring (or) man-made pits and covered with soil.

Question 11.
Give the Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules.
Answer:
The Solid Waste Management (SWM) rules, 2016, say that,

i. Every lTousehold should segregate and store the waste generated by them in three separate streams namely bio-degradable, non-bio-degradable and domestic hazardous waste in suitable bins and handover the segregated wastes to authorised waste pickers, (or) waste collector as per direction or notification by the local authorities from time to time.

ii. Nobody shall throw, bum, or bury the solid waste on streets, open public spaces outside his premises or in the drain or water bodies.

Question 12.
List any four domestic hazardous waste.
Answer:

1. Discarded paint drums
2. Pesticide cans,
3. CFL bulbs, tube lights
4. Used batteries, used needles and syringes.

Question 13.
How can we reduce land pollution?
Answer:

1. First try to reduce waste, then recycle the rest.
2. Always use a waste bin and never litter.
3. Do not bum waste, the ash mixes easily with soil.

VII. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Give the types of ecosystem by flow chart.
Answer:

Question 2.
How can we reduce air pollution?
Answer:

1. Cycle or walk short distances instead of using a motor vehicle.
2. Travel by public transport (bus or train)
3. Do not burn solid waste.
4. Avoid fireworks.

Question 3.
Classify the most significant sources of water pollutants.
Answer:
The most significant sources of water pollutants are:

1. Sewage (water we use at home for bathing, cleaning, cooking).
2. Industrial effluents (liquid wastes from factories).
3. Agricultural pollutants (chemical pesticides and fertilisers that get washed from farms).
4. Solid waste (when waste gets dumped into water bodies).

Question 4.
How do we reduce noise pollution?
Answer:

1. Turn off your electronics when you do not use them.
2. Lower the volume when you watch TV or listen to music.
3. Remind drivers not to use the horn too much.
4. Avoid fireworks.
5. Speak, do not shout (try to set an example).

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Asia And Europe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia And Europe Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the best answer:

Which is not the western margin of Asia?
(a) Black Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea
(c) Red Sea
(d) Arabian Sea
Answer:
(d) Arabian Sea

Question 2.
The Intermontane …………… plateau is found between Elbruz and Zagros.
(a) Tibet
(b) Iran
(c) Deccan
(d) The Yunnan
Answer:
(b) Iran

Question 3.
Equatorial climate :

1. Uniform throughout the year.
2. The average / mean rainfall is 200 mm.
3. The average temperature is 10°C. Of the statements given above,

(a) i alone is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(a) i alone is correct

Question 4.
Match list I correctly with list II and select your answer from the codes given below.

Answer:
(a) 2, 3 ,4, 1

Question 5.
India is the leading producer of ……………
(a) Zinc
(b) Mica
(c) Manganese
(d) Coal
Answer:
(b) Mica

Question 6.
The natural boundary between Spain and France is _________
(a) The Alps
(b) The Pyrenees
(c) The Carpathian
(d) The Caucasus
Answer:
(b) The Pyrenees

Question 7.
The western and north – western Europe enjoys mild and humid climate. Choose the correct option:
(a) These regions are found near the equator
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift
(c) It is surrounded by mountains
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) It is influenced by the North Atlantic Drift

Question 8.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Europe produces electricity from hydel power
(b) All the rivers of Europe originate in the Alps
(c) Most of the rivers in Europe are used for inland navigation
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature
Answer:
(d) The rivers of Europe are perennial in nature

Question 9.
Choose the incorrect pair.
(a) The Meseta – Spain
(b) The Jura – France
(c) The Pennines – Italy
(d) The Black Forest – Germany
Answer:
(c) The Pennines – Italy

Question 10.
Which country in Europe has a very low density of population?
(a) Iceland
(b) The Netherlands
(c) Poland
(d) Switzerland
Answer:
(a) Iceland

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the knot.
2. The wettest place in the world is
3. Iran is the largest producer of in the world.
4. Europe connected with south and southeast Asia by
5. The national dance of Philippines is.
6. The second highest peak in Europe is.
7. The type of climate that prevails in the central and eastern parts of Europe is.
8. The important fishing ground in North Sea is.
9. The density of population in Europe is.
10. The river passes through nine countries of Europe.

Answer:

1. Armenian
2. Mawsynram
3. Dates
4. Suez
5. Tiniklingi
6. The Mont Blanc (4,807m)
7. Continental type
8. Dogger Bank
9. 34 persons / km2
10. Danube

III. Match the following :

1. Mesopotamian Plain – (a) Highest Rainfall
2. Mawsynram – (b) Norway
3. Rice Bowl of southeast asia – (c) Spain
4. Fjord Coast – (d) Euphrates & Tigris
5. Bull Fighting – (e) Thailand

Answer:

1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Let us Learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Italy has dry summers and rainy winters
Reason (R): It is located in the Mediterranean region
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Places marked as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the given map are noted for the following plains.

A. Indo – Gangetic plain
B. Manchurian plain
C. Mesopotamian
D. Great plains of China
Match the plains with the notation on the map and select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:

Answer:
(b) 2 1 3 4

Question 3.
In the given outline map of Asia, the shaded areas indicate the cultivation of

(a) Sugarcane
(b) Dates
(c) Rubber
(d) Jute
Answer:
(b) Dates

V. Answer in Brief:

Question 1.
Name the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.
Answer:
The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran and the plateau of Tibet are the important intermontane plateaus found in Asia.

Question 2.
Write a short note on monsoon climate.
Answer:

1. The south, south east and eastern parts of Asia are strongly influenced by mansoon winds.
2. Summer is hot and humid. Winter is cool and dry.
3. The summer mansoon winds bring heavy rainfall to India, Bangaladesh, Indo – China, Philippines and southern China.

Question 3.
How does physiography play a vital role in determining the population of Asia?
Answer:

1. In Asia, the population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
2. China and India alone covers three fifth of Asia’s population.
3. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population, whereas low density is found in the interior parts of Asia.

Question 4.
Name the ports found is Asia.
Answer:

1. Tokyo
2. Shanghai
3. Singapore
4. Hongkong
5. Chennai
6. Mumbai
7. Karachi
8. Dubai

Question 5.
Asia is called the ‘Land of Contrasts’- Justify.
Answer:

1. Asia is the biggest continent has different types of land features such as mountain,plateau, plain, valley, bay, island etc.
2. It has different climatic conditions from the equator to polar region.
3. Apart from this many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people who live in Asia. Therefore, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 6.
Name the important mountains found in the Alpine system.
Answer:

1. The Sierra Nevada
2. The Pyrenees
3. The Alps
4. The Apennines
5. The Dinaric Alps
6. The Caucasus
7. The Carpathian.

Question 7.
What are the important rivers of Europe?
Answer:
The important rivers of Europe are Volga, Danube, Dnieper, Rhine, Rhone, Po and Thames.

Question 8.
Name a few countries which enjoy the Mediterranean type of climate.
Answer:

1. France
2. Spain
3. Italy
4. Sicily

Question 9.
Give a short note on the population of Europe.
Answer:

1. Europe is the third-most populous continent, after Asia and Africa. The population density in Europe is.34 persons / km2.
2. High population density is often associated with the coalfields of Europe.
3. Other populous areas are sustained by mining, manufacturing, commerce, offering large market, labour forces and productive agriculture.
4. Monaco, Malta, San Marino, and the Netherlands are the most densely populated countries; Iceland and Norway have very low density of population.

Question 10.
Name the important festivals celebrated in Europe.
Answer:

1. Christmas
2. Easter
3. Good Friday
4. The saint
5. Day
6. Redentone
7. Tomatina
8. Cornival

VI. Distinguish.

Question 1.
Intermontane plateaus and Southern plateaus
Answer:
Intermontane plateaus:

1. Intermontane plateaus are found in the mountain ranges.
2. Eg, The plateau of Anatolia, The plateau of Iran and the plateau of Tibet

Southern plateaus:

1. The southern plateaus are relatively lower than the northern plateaus.
2. Eg. Arabian Plateau, Deccan Plateau, Shan Plateau and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 2.
Cold desert and hot desert
Answer:
Cold desert:

1. Gobi
2. Taklamakan

Hot desert:

1. The Arabian (Saudi Arabia)
2. The Thar (India and Pakistan)

The largest desert in Asia is the Arabian Desert.

Question 3.
Thunder and Taiga

Thunder:

1. The Arctic and northern Scandinavian highland have Tundra type of vegetation.
2. The winters are very long and severe summers are very short and warm.
3. It is the land with few animals like polar bear, reindeer and walrus
4. No trees. Lowest form of vegetation like Mosses and Lichen only available.

Taiga:

1. They are found in the south of the Tundra region in Norway, Sweden, Finland, Germany, Poland and Austria.
2. The winters are long and cold. Summers are short and warm.
3. It is the land of fur bearing animals. Eg. Mink, silver fox, squirrel etc.
4. Pine, fir, spruce and larch are the important tree varieties.

Question 4.
The North western highlands and the Alpine mountain range.
Answer:
The North Western Highlands:

1. This region includes the mountains and platea us of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland and Iceland.
2. This region has fjord coast. It was created by glaciations.
3. A lot of lakes here serve as reservoirs for producing hydro electricity.

The Alpine mountain range:

1. The Alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The Sierra Nevada, the pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the
3. Carpathian are the important mountain rangers.
4. The Pyrenees is a natural boundary between Spain and France.

VII. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
Asia is the leading producer of rice.
Answer:

1. In Asia, India has the largest area of arable lands.
2. Agriculture is intensively practised in the riverine plains of Asia
3. China and India are the leading producers of rice in the world.

Question 2.
Asia is the largest and most populous continent in the world,
Answer:

1. Asia is the most populated continent in the world.
2. Approximately six tenth of the world population lives in Asia.
3. The population is unevenly distributed because of various physical features.
4. China and India alone covers three fifth of Asia’s population.
5. River plains and industrial regions have high density of population.

Question 3.
Europe is called ‘a giant peninsula’.
Answer:

1. Europe is found in the northern hemisphere.
2. It covers an area of 10.5 million sq.km.
3. It is surrounded by the Arctic Ocean in the North, the Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea in the south, the Atlantic Ocean in the west and the Ural mountains in the east.
4. So it loots like a giant peninsula.

Question 4.
Although Western Europe is located in the high latitudes, it Isas a moderate climate.
Answer:

1. North Atlantic Drift is a warm ocean current which brings warmth to the western Europe.
2. The westerly wind further transports warmth across Europe.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Give an account of the drainage system in Asia,
Answer:

1. The rivers of Asia originate mostly from the central highlands.
2. The Ob, Yenise and Lena are the major rivers that flow towards the north and drain into the Arctic Ocean.
3. These rivers remain frozen during winter.
4. On the other hand, South Asia has many perennial rivers like Brahmaputra, Indus, Ganga and Irrawaddy.
5. These rivers originate from the snow covered high mountains that do not freeze during winter.
6. The Euphrates and Tigris flow in West Asia.
7. The Amur, Huang He, Yangtze and Mekong rivers flow in the south and south eastern parts of Asia.
8. Yangtze is the longest river in Asia.

Question 2.
Describe the mineral sources found in Asia.
Answer:

1. Iron ore : Asia has the largest deposits of iron ore in the world. China, India, Turkey, Philippines, Malaysia, Thailand, Myanmar have iron ore deposit.
2. Coal : Coal is a fossil fuel. Asia has the largest deposits of coal in the world. China and India are the largest producers of coal in Asia.
3. Petroleum : Petroleum is a mineral oil. South west Asia has the largest petroleum reserves. Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, Iran, Bahrain, Qatar and UAE are important Petroleum producing countries. Other countries are South China, Malaysia, Brunei, Indonesia, India and Russia.
4. Bauxite is found in India and Indonesia.
5. Mica is found in India
6. Tin is found in Myanmar, Thailand, Malaysia and Indonesia.

Question 3.
What are fjords? How do they protect harbours from bad weather conditions?
Answer:

1. In Europe, the North Western Highlands region includes the mountains and plateaus of Norway, Sweden, Finland, Scotland and Iceland.
2. This region has the most beautiful fjord coast.
3. It was created by glaciations in the past.
4. This region has a lot of lakes, which serve as reservoirs for producing hydroelectricity.
5. A fjord is a narrow and deep sea inlet between steep cliffs. It helps in the following ways.
   • It reduces the speed of wind, irrespective of its direction.
   • The force of sea waves are also controlled.
6. Hence, areas with fjords are best suited for natural harbours.

Question 4.
Describe the climatic divisions of Europe.
Answer:

1. The climate of Europe varies from the subtropical to the polar climate.
2. The Mediterranean climate of the south has warm summer and rainy winter.
3. The western and north western parts have a mild, generally humid climate, influenced by the North Atlantic Drift.
4. In central and eastern Europe, the climate is humid Continental type.
5. In the northeast subarctic and tundra climates are found.
6. The whole of Europe is subject to the moderating influence of prevailing westerly winds from the Atlantic Ocean.

IX. Map Skill:

Mark the following in the outline map of Asia and Europe.

Asia : Ural mountain, Himalayas, Pamir knot, Gobi Desert, Arabian Peninsula, Deccan plateau, River Yangtze River Ob, Aral Sea and Lake Baykal.

Europe : The Pyrenees, Black forest, Apennines, Hungarian Plain, Caucasus Mountain, River Volga, River Danube, Strait of Gibraltar, Lake Ladoga, North Sea
Answer:

HOTS:

Question 1.
The Khyber Pass is located in the Sulaiman range, the Bolan Pass is located in Toba Kakar range. What is the importance of these two passes?
Answer:

(i) Khyber Pass : A mountain pass in the northwest of Pakistan on the border with Afghanistan. It connects the town of Landi Kotal to the valley of Peshawar. An integral part of the Silk Road, it has long substantial cultural, economic, and geopolitical significance for Eurasian trade. It is an important trade route between Central Asia and South Asia and a vital strategic military choke point.

(ii) Bolan Pass : A mountain pass through the Toba Kakar range of Balochistan province in western Pakistan. Strategically located, traders, invaders, and nomadic tribes have also used it as a gateway to and from South Asia. The Bolan Pass is an important pass on the Baluch frontier, connecting Jacobabad and Sibi with Quetta.

Question 2.
There is no winter in the equatorial region. Why?
Answer:

1. At the equator there are no seasons because each day the Sun strikes at about the same angle.
2. Every day of the year the equator receives about 12 hours of sunlight. The poles remain cool because they are never tilted in a direct path of sunlight.

Question 3.
Few countries in Asia have high population. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. China and India have historically been very large sized nations as opposed to European and other countries. So large nations obviously means large population,
2. People used to have large number of children, because few would survive beyond age 5 due to disease and malnutrition. The average longevity in India in 1947 was just 38 years, but now it is over 60.
3. Post-independence, health services were expanded and child mortality came down. This also caused an increase in life span. But the rate of child bearing came down much more slowly, which led to a population explosion.
4. With improving health care and education, and less fear of a child dying, the rate of growth has been coming down. In the southern states, where education and health services are better, it has actually now reached a stable level.
5. The rise of industry and large-scale agriculture meant that families could be much bigger than they had been in the past.
6. The social effects of the rural-urban divide led to more complex societies, more cities, and many more people.

Question 4.
Europe is called as the ‘Peninsula of Peninsulas Justify.
Answer:

(i) A peninsula is an extension of land surrounded on three sides by bodies of water. Europe is an extension of the super continent Eurasia and is surrounded by the Mediterranean sea to the south, the Baltic sea and North sea to the north and the Atlantic ocean to the west.

(ii) On the peninsula of Europe, there are five large peninsulas. The Iberian (Spain and Portugal), the italic (Italy), The Peloponnesian (Greece), Scandinavian (Norway and Sweden) and Finland (Denmark).

Question 5.
Why are European rivers suitable for inland navigation?
Answer:

1. The western Europe has a navigable waterways network of about 19,000 kms. Inland waterway transport plays an important role for the transport.
2. Europe has 45,000 kms of navigable waterways which is more than what even USA has (40,000 kms). A waterway is navigable only if the water is deep, slow and wide enough for certain types of ship to pass through.
3. Europe has two main flat regions, the North European plain and the East European plain. These rivers do not have sudden breaks and connect various towns and cities.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Asia And Europe Additional Questions

I. Choose the best answers:
Question 1.
The highest peak in Asia ______
(a) Mt. Everest
(b) Mt. Lhoste
(c) Kangchenjunga
(d) Mt. K2
Answer:
(a) Mt. Everest

Question 2.
The lowest point in the world …………….
(a) Black sea
(b) Red sea
(c) Dead sea
(d) Yellow sea
Answer:
(c) Dead sea

Question 3.
Kuril is ______
(a) a mountain
(b) an island
(c) a plateau
(d) a river

Question 4.
Only about …………… of the area is cultivable in Asia.
(a) 18% of the area is cultivable in Asia.
(b) 28%
(c) 40%
(d) 48%
Answer:
(a) 18%

Question 5.
The longest rail route in the world _____
(a) Trans – Siberian Railways
(b) Trans continental rail way
(c) Trans Asian Railway
(d) Bullet train

Question 6.
The island located in the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Maldives
(b) Bahrain
(c) Srilanka
(d) Japan
Answer:
(c) Srilanka

Question 7.
in Europe we find _____.
(a) Andalusian Plain
(b) The Hungarian Plain
(c) The Wallachian Plain
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
Eastern Europe is covered by ______
(a) Coniferous forest
(b) Tundra vegetation
(c) Grassland
(d) Cactus
Answer:
(c) Grassland

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The most extensive lowland in Asia is the ______
2. The convergence of mountain is denoted by the term ______
3. The highest mountain range in the world is the ______
4. The lowest point in the world is located in ______ in Asia
5. The largest Plateau is ______
6. Sri Lanka an island, is located in the ______
7. Coal is a fossil ______
8. The largest producer of Mica in the world is ______
9. Rice bowl of South East Asia” is ______
10. Malaysia and Thailand are the leading producers of ______
11. One of the world’s richest sources of fresh water fishing in Cambodia is ______
12. Pearl fishing is popular in the eastern coast of ______
13. The most common mode of transport in Asia is ______
14. Europe to South Asia get connected by the ______ route
15. Ankorwat means the ______
16. Europe is the ______ largest continent in the world.
17. The most developed continent in the world is ______
18. The areas with fjords are best suited for ______
19. The backbone of England is ______
20. The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn is located in the ______
21. The longest river in Europe is ______
22. The dominant crop throughout Europe is ______
23. Big Ben in located in ______
24. A majority of people in Asia are evolved in ______ Activities
25. Asia is located in the ______ hemisphere.

Answer:

1. Siberian Plains
2. Knot
3. Himalayan mountain range
4. Dead Sea
5. Arabian Plateau
6. Bay of Bengal
7. fuel
8. India
9. Thailand
10. Natural rubber
11. Tonle Sap lake
12. Arabia
13. Roadway
14. Cape of Good Hope
15. City of temples
16. sixth
17. Europe
18. natural harbours
19. Permutes
20. Swiss Alps
21. Volga
22. Wheat
23. London
24. primary
25. Eastern

III. Match the following :

1. Yangee – (i) Arabian sea
2. Orangutan – (ii) Active Volcano
3. Lakshadweep – (iii) North sea
4. Stromboli – (iv) Dance
5. Thames – (v) Rare species

Answer:

1. (iv)
2. (v)
3. (i)
4. (ii)
5. (iii)

IV. Let us learn:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The largest desert in Asia is the Arabian Desert.
Reason (R): Deserts are found along the western part of Asia.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation for A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Suez Canal separates Asia from Europe.
Reason (R): Asia is the largest continent in the world.
(a) I is true
(b) II is true
(c) Both are I and II true
(d) Both I and II are false.
Answer:
(b) II is true

Question 3.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Siberia – Coniferous trees
(b) East China – Cherry
(c) Sri Lanka – Cactus
(d) Malaysia – Rosewood
Answer:
(c) Sri Lanka – Cactus

Question 4.
Find out the correct pair.
(a) Coffee – Food crop
(b) Jute – Thailand
(c) Japan – Fishing
(d) Wheat – Tropical region
Answer:
(c) Japan – Fishing

Question 5.
Circle the odd one.
(a) Yangee, Mandarin,, Kabaki, Tinikling
Answer:
Mandarin
Reason : Mandarin is a language. Other three are famous dances.
(b) Saint day, Redentore, Tomatina, Songkran
Answer:
Songkran
Reason : Songkran is a festival in Asia. Other three are some famous festivals in Europe.

V. Answer in Brief:

Question 1.
Write about the political divisions of Asia.
Answer:

1. There are forty eight countries in Asia.
2. The countries are grouped into several realms based on landscape and political status such as

(a) East Asia
(b) Southeast Asia
(c) South Asia
(d) Southwest and
(e) Central Asia

Question 2.
What do you know about archipelago?
Answer:

1. A group of islands is called an archipelago.
2. The largest archipelago is Indonesia.

Question 3.
State the importance of Khyber and Bolan Pass.
Answer:
(a) Khyber

1. The Khyber Pass is located in the Sulaiman range.
2. It is in the north west of Pakistan on the border with Afghanistan.
3. It connects the town of Landi Kotal in the Valley of Peshwar. An integral part of the Silk Road as well as Eurasian trade. It is an important trade route between Central Asia and South Asia.

(b) Bolan Pass:

1. Located in Toba Kakar range of Balochistan province in Western Pakistan.
2. Strategically located, traders, invaders and nomadic tribes have also used it as a gateway to and from South Asia. It is an important pass on the Baluch frontier.

Question 4.
What are the Mediterranean trees?
Answer:

1. Cypress
2. Cork
3. Oak
4. Olive
5. Cedar

Question 5.
Write about the flora and fauna of the region with summer rainfall with dry winter in Asia.
Answer:

1. India, Vietnam, Cambodia, Thailand, Southern China – these regions experience Summer rainfall with dry winter.
2. Flora of this region – Deciduous trees – Teak, Sandal wood, Bamboo
3. Fauna of this region – Tiger, Elephant, Indian Cobra, Viper.

Question 6.
Write about the two most important natural fibers cultivated in Asia.
Answer:

1. Jute and cotton are the important natural fibres cultivated in Asia.
2. One third of the world’s cotton is produced by Asia.
3. The major cotton producing countries are India, China, Russia and Kazakhstan.
4. India, Pakistan, China and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

Question 7.
Write a note on Ankorwat.
Answer:

1. Ankorwat is a world heritage site.
2. It was built by king Suriya Varma II in 1100 AD (CE) at Cambodia.
3. Ankorwat means ‘the city of temples’ in Khmer language. It is the largest Hindu Temple in the world.’

Question 8.
What are polders?
Answer:

1. In Netherlands about 25 percent of the Netherlands lies below sea level.
2. So they have built dikes.
3. They have reclaimed new land from the sea with the help of dikes.
4. These reclaimed lands are called polders.

Question 9.
Mention the Physical Divisions of Europe.
Answer:
The Physical Divisions of Europe are

1. The North Western Highlands
2. The Central Plateaus/Highland
3. The Alpine Mountain system
4. The North European plains

Question 10.
Classify the Natural Vegetation of Europe.
Answer:
The Natural Vegetation of Europe can be classified as

1. Tundra
2. Taiga or Coniferous
3. Mixed Forest
4. Mediterranean Forest
5. Grassland

Question 11.
Mention some of the master pieces of Art and Architecture in Europe.
Answer:
Some of the master pieces of art and architecture in Europe are Acropolis, the Colosseum, the statue of David, The thinker, Eiffel tower, Big Ben, Pisa Tower and Mona Lisa.

Question 12.
Name some of the seven wonders of the world located in Asia.
Answer:
Among the seven wonders of the world, two are located in Asia. They are

1. The Tajmahal in India,
2. The Great wall of China.

VI. Distinguish:

Question 1.
Arabian Plateau and Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

Arabian Plateau:

1. The Arabian Plateau (Saudi Arabia),in Asia is steeper in the west but gently slopes eastwards towards the Persian Gulf.
2. It is a dry plateau with low rainfall and no rivers.
3. Grew to importance after petroleum reserves were discovered here.

Deccan Plateau:

1. The Deccan Plateau (India) in Asia lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats
2. It is steeper and higher along the Arabian sea in the West but slopes gently towards the Bay of Bengal in the East.
3. A number of rivers flow across their plateau like Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri.

Question 2.
Mixed forest and Mediterranean forest
Answer:

Mixed forest

1. They are found in Western France,Belgium, Denmark, Britain etc.
2. Birch, beech, poplar, oak and maple trees are found here.

Mediterranean forest

1. They are found along the borders of the Mediterranean sea
2. Cypress, cork, oak, olive and cedar are found here.

Question 3.
Hardwood and Softwood.

Hardwood:

1. Hardwood comes from a deciduous tree.
2. The deciduous trees lose their leaves annually.
3. They tend to be slower growing and therefore they are more dense.
4. Eg. Eucalyptus, beech, teak.

Softwood:

1. Softwood comes from a conifer.
2. This conifer remains evergreen.
3. They are less dense.
4. Eg. Pine, Red wood, cedar

Question 4.
Climate in Asia and Europe.
Answer:

Climate in Asia:

1. All kinds of climatic conditions are found here.
2. It also enjoys the distinctive monsoon type of climate.
3. Southern Asia receives summer rainfall.

Climate in Europe:

1. It lies largely in the temperate zone.
2. It enjoys the distinctive Mediterranean type of climate.
3. Southern Europe receives winter rainfall.

VII. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
People of Asia get involved in diverse economic activity.
Answer:

1. Asia is the land of long mountain ranges, snow capped high mountains, vast plateaus, extensive plains, river valleys and sea coasts.
2. These diverse physical features encourage the people of this continent to involve in diverse economic activities

Question 2.
Tibet is known as the third pole.
Answer:
Tibet is called the ‘Roof of the world’ and it is also known as the third pole because of its cold weather, largest reserve of freshwater and inhospitable environment.

Question 3.
Why is sugarcane cultivation important in India, Indonesia and Philippines.
Answer:

1. The tropical wet and dry climate is suitable for sugarcane cultivaiton.
2. India, Indonesia and Philippines are the major producers of sugarcane.

Question 4.
Asia is the Land of contrasts.
Answer:

1. Asia, the biggest continent, is featured with different types of land and climatic conditions.
2. Many races, languages, religions and cultures are followed by people. So, Asia is called ‘the land of contrasts’.

Question 5.
Europe is called peninsula of peninsulas.
Answer:

1. A peninsula is an extension of land surrounded by waterbodies on three sides.
2. Europe is an extension of the continent Eurasia and is surrounded by the mediterranean sea to the south, the Baltic sea and North sea to the north and the Atlantic ocean to the west.
3. On the peninsula of Europe, there are five large peninsulas. The Iberian (Spain and , Portugal), the Italic (Italy), The peloponnesian (Greece), Scandinavian (Norway ’ and Sweden) and Finland (Denmark).

Question 6.
The Stromboli is called the ‘light house of the Mediterranean’.
Answer:

1. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system. Mt. Etna,Vesuvius and Mt. Stromboli are the important volcanoes.
2. Earthquakes are common in this region. The Stromboli is called the ‘light house of the Mediterranean’.

Question 7.
The North European plain is densely populated.
Answer:

1. Major European rivers criss – cross this region and deposit their alluvium.
2. It has rich deposits of coal and iron ore.
3. Cities like Paris, Moscow and Berlin are located here.
4. Hence this region is densely populated.

Question 8.
European rivers suitable for inland navigation.
Answer:

1. Inland waterway transport plays an important role in Europe.
2. It has 45,000 kms of navigable waterways.
3. A waterway is navigable only if the water is deep, slow and wide enough for certain types of ships pass through.
4. The North European plain and the East European plain are the main flat regions. These rivers do not have sudden breaks and connect various towns and cites.

Question 9.
Europe, a modern economically developed continent in the world.
Answer:
Availability of resources, efficient educated work force, research, contact with other nations and innovations have transformed Europe into a modem and economically developed continent in the world.

VIII. Answer in Paragraph

Question 1.
Write a note on the Central Highlands of Asia.
Answer:

1. The central highlands stretches from Turkey to the Bering Strait.
2. There are two knots found in Asia. They are
   • The Pamir Knot and
   • The Armenian Knot.
3. Knot’ refers to the convergence of mountain ranges.
4. The Hindukush range, the Sulaiman range, the Himalayan range and the Tian Shan range radiate from the Pamir knot.
5. The Hindukush range continues westward as the Elburz, whereas the Sulaiman range continues south west as the Zagros range.
6. The Elburz and the Zagros converge at the Armenian knot.
7. The Taurus and the Pontine ranges radiate from the Armenian knot.
8. The Himalayan mountain range is the highest mountain range in the world Mt. Everest (S848 m) is the highest peak in Asia, as well as the world.
9. The lowest point in the world is located in Dead Sea in Asia. Intermontane plateaus are found in these mountain ranges.

Question 2.
Mention the Island group of Asia.
Answer:

1. Numerous islands are found in the Pacific coast of Southeast Asia.
2. Kuril, Taiwan, Singapore and Borneo are the important island groups.
3. The Philippines, Japan islands and Indonesia are the major archipelagos in Asia.
4. Smaller archipelagos are also located in the Indian Ocean such as the islands of Maldives and Lakshadweep in the Arabian Sea.
5. Bahrain is in the Persian Gulf.
6. Sri Lanka is an island, which is located in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 3.
Write about the waterways in Asia.
Answer:

1. The Cape of Good Hope route connects Europe to South Asia.
2. The Trans Pacific route connects the ports of eastern Asia to the ports of western American countries.
3. The Suez Canal route passes through the heart of the world trade route and connects Europe with South and Southeast Asia.
4. Tokyo, Shanghai, Singapore, Hong Kong, Chennai, Mumbai, Karachi and Dubai are the important seaports in Asia.

Question 4.
Explain the Alpine mountains system.
Answer:

1. The alpine mountain system consists of a chain of young fold mountains found in the southern part of Europe.
2. The important mountain ranges are the Sierra Nevada, the Pyrenees, the Alps, the Apennines, the Dinaric Alps, the Caucasus and the Carpathian.
3. The Pyrenees forms a natural boundary between Spain and France.
4. The highest peak in Europe is Mt. Elburz (5645 m) in the Caucasus range.
5. The Mont Blanc (4,807 m) found in the Alps is the second highest peak in the Alpine System.
6. There are several active volcanoes found in the Alpine mountain system.
7. Mt. Etna, Mt. Vesuvius and Mt. Stromboli are the important volcanoes found in Europe.
8. Earthquakes are common in this region.
9. The Stromboli is called the Tight house of the Mediterranean’.
10. The pyramid-shaped Matterhorn mountain is located in the Swiss Alps a height of 4478 m. It is popular for its shape.

Question 5.
Mention the importance of rivers in Europe.
Answer:

1. The rivers play an important role in the development of Europe.
2. These rivers are used to irrigate farmland and also help to produce electricity.
3. Most of the rivers originate in the Alps and the central plateau of Europe.
4. These rivers are useful for inland navigation in central and Eastern Europe.
5. The Volga is the longest river in Europe.
6. The river Danube passes through nine countries in Europe.

Question 6.
Compare the contrast the continents of Asia and Europe by giving six point
Answer: