Prasanna

Students can Download Maths Chapter 4 Geometry Intext Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 Geometry Intext Questions

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
The sum of the three angles of a triangle is ______
Solution:
1800

Question 2.
The exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the _______ angles opposite to it.
Solution:
interior

Question 3.
In a triangle, the sum of any two sides is ____ than the third side.
Solution:
greater

Question 4.
The difference between any two sides of a triangle is _______ than the third side.
Solution:
Smaller

Question 5.
Angles opposite to equal sides are ______ and vice-versa.
Solution:
Equal

Question 6.
The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6
(i) Is it an acute, right or obtuse triangle?
(ii) Is it scalene, isosceles or equilateral?
Solution:
(i) Given the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6 Sum of three angles of a
triangle = 180°.
Let the three angles 4x, 5x and 6x
4x + 5x + 6x = 180°
15x = 180° [∵ Vertically opposite angles are equal]

∴ x = 12°
∴ The angles are 4x ⇒ 4 × 12 = 48°
5x ⇒ 5 × 12 = 60°
6x ⇒ 6 × 12 = 72°
∴ The angle of the triangle are 48°, 60°, 72°
∴ It is an acute angles triangle.

(ii) We know that the sides opposite to equal angles are equal.
Here all the three angles are different.
∴ The sides also different.
∴ The triangle is a scalene triangle.

Question 7.
What is ∠A in the triangle ABC?

Solution:
The exterior angle = sum of interior opposite angles.
∴ ∠A + ∠C = 150° in ∆ABC
But ∠C = 40° [∵ Vertically opposite angles are equal]

Question 8.
Can a triangle have two supplementary angles? Why?
Solution:
Sum of three angles of a triangle is 180°.
∴ Sum of any two angles in a triangle will be less than 180°.
∴ A triangle cannot have two supplimentary angles.

Question 9.
________ shapes have the same shapes but different sizes.
Solution:
Similar

Question 10.
shapes are exactly the same in shape and size.
Solution:
Congruent

Exercise 4.1

Try these Page No. 99

Identify the pairs of shapes which are similar and congruent.

Similar shapes:
(i) W and L
(ii) B and J
(iii) A and G
(iv) B and J
(v) B and Y
Congruent shapes:
(i) Z and I
(ii) J and Y
(iii) C and P You can find more.
(iv) B and K
(v) R and S
(vi) I and Z

Try these Page No. 108

Question 1.
Match the following by their congruence

Solution:
1 – (iv)
2 – (iii)
3 – (i)
4 – (ii)

Try this Page No. 108

Question 1.
In the figure, DA = DC and BA = BC. Are the triangles DBA and DBC congruent? Why?
Solution:

Here AD = CD
AB = CB
DB = DB (common)
∆DBA ≅ ∆DBC [∵ By SSS Congruency]
Also RHS rule also bind here to say their congruency.

Exercise 4.3

Try this Page No. 114

Question 1.
Is it possible to construct a quadrilateral PQRS with PQ = 5 cm, QR = 3 cm, RS = 6 cm, PS = 7 cm and PR = 10 cm. If not, why?
Solution:
The lower triangle cannot be constructed as the sum of two sides 5 + 3 = 8 < 10 cm. So this quadrilateral cannot be constructed.

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Rational Numbers Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Rational Numbers Ex 1.2

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The multiplicative inverse of \(2 \frac{3}{5}\) is _____.
(ii) If -3 × \(\frac{6}{-11}=\frac{6}{-11}\) × x, then x is _______.
(iii) If distributive property is true for \(\left(\frac{3}{5} \times \frac{-4}{9}\right)+\left(x \times \frac{15}{17}\right)=\frac{3}{5} \times(y+z)\), then x, y, z are _____, _____ and ____.
(iv) If x × \(\frac{-55}{63}=\frac{-55}{63}\) × x = 1, then x is called the _____ of \(\frac{55}{63}\).
(v) The multiplicative inverse of -1 is ______.
Solution:
(i) \(\frac{5}{13}\)
(ii) -3
(iii) \(\frac{3}{5}, \frac{-4}{9}\) and \(\frac{15}{13}\)
(iv) Mulitplicative inverse
(v) -1

Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) \(\frac{-7}{8} \times \frac{-23}{27}=\frac{-23}{27} \times \frac{-7}{8}\) illustrates the closure property of rational number.
(ii) Associative property is not true for subtraction of rational numbers.
(iii) The additive inverse of \(\frac{-11}{-17}\) is \(\frac{11}{17}\).
(iv) The product of two negative rational numbers is a positive rational number.
(v) The multiplicative inverse exists for all rational numbers.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) False
(iv) True
(v) False

Question 3.
Verify the closure property for addition and multiplication of the rational numbers \(\frac{-5}{7}\) and \(\frac{8}{9}\)
Solution:
Closure property for addition.
Let a = \(\frac{-5}{7}\) and b = \(\frac{8}{9}\) be the given rational numbers.

∴ Closure property is true for addition of rational numbers.
Closure property for multiplication

∴ Closure property is true for multiplication of rational numbers.

Question 4.
Verify the associative property for addition and multiplication of the rational numbers \(\frac{-10}{11}, \frac{5}{6}, \frac{-4}{3}\).
Solution:


a × (b × c) = \(\frac{100}{99}\)
From (1) and (2) a × (b × c) = (a × b) × c is true for rational numbers.
Thus associative property is true for addition and multiplication of rational numbers.

Question 5.
Check the commutative property for addition and multiplication of the rational numbers \(\frac{-10}{11}\) and \(\frac{-8}{33}\).
Solution:
Let a = \(\frac{-10}{11}\) and b = \(\frac{-8}{33}\) be the given rational numbers.

From (1) and (2)
a + b = b + a and hence addition is commutative for rational numbers.

From (3) and (4) a × b = b × a
Hence multiplication is commutative for rational numbers.

Question 6.
Verify the distributive property a × (b + c) = (a × b) + (a × c) for the rational numbers a = \(\frac{-1}{2}\) ,b = \(\frac{2}{3}\) and c = \(\frac{-5}{6}\).
Solution:
Given the rational number a = \(\frac{-1}{2}\) ,b = \(\frac{2}{3}\) and c = \(\frac{-5}{6}\).

From (1) and (2) we have a × (b + c) = (a × b) + (a × c) is true.
Hence multiplication is distributive over addition for rational numbers Q.

Question 7.
Evaluate:

Solution:

Question 8.
Evaluate using appropriate properties.

Solution:

Question 9.
Use commutative and distributive properties to simplify \(\frac{4}{5} \times \frac{-3}{8}-\frac{3}{8} \times \frac{1}{4}+\frac{19}{20}\)
Solution:
Since multiplication is commutative

Objective Type Questions

Question 10.
Mulitplicative inverse of 0 (is)
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) -1
(D) does not exist
Solution:
(D) does not exist

Question 11.
Which of the following illustrates the inverse property for addition?

Solution:
(A) \(\frac{1}{8}-\frac{1}{8}\) = 0

Question 12.
Closure property is not true for division of rational numbers because of the number
(A) 1
(B) -1
(C) 0
(D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Solution:
(C) 0

Question 13.
\(\frac{1}{2}-\left(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{5}{6}\right) \neq\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{3}{4}\right)-\frac{5}{6}\) illustrates that subtraction does not satisfy the ____ law of rational numbers.
(A) commutative
(B) closure
(C) distributive
(D) associative
Solution:
(D) associative

Question 14.
\(\left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right) \times\left(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}\right) \div\left(\frac{3}{4}-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) = ______________

Solution:
(A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions

Additional Questions And Answers

Question 1.
A fast food restaurant has a meal special ?50 for a drink, sandwich, side item and dessert. The choices are Sandwich : Grilled chicken, All beef patty, Vegeburger and Fill filet.
Side : Regular fries, cheese fries, potato fries
Dessert: Chocolate chip cookie or Apple pie.
Drink: Fanta, Dr. Pepper, Coke, Diet coke and sprite.
How may meal combos are possible?
Solution:
There are 4 stages
1. Choosing a Sandwich
2. Choosing a side
3. Choosing a dessert
4. Choosing a drink
There are 4 different types of sandwich, 3 different types of side two different type of desserts and five different types of drink.
∴ The number of meal combos possible is = 4 × 3 × 2 × 5 = 120

Question 2.
A company puts a code on each different product they sell. The code is made up of 3 numbers and 2 letters. How many different codes are possible?
Solution:
There are 5 stages, Number – 1
Number – 2
Number – 3
Letter – 1
Letter – 2
There are 10 possible numbers 0 to 9
There are 26 possible letters A to Z.
We have 10 × 10 × 10 × 26 × 26 = 6,76, 000 possible codes.

Question 3.
Rani take a survey with five ‘yes’ or ‘No’ answers. How many different ways could she complete the survey?
Solution:
There are 5 stages
Question – 1
Question – 2
Question – 3
Question – 4
Question – 5
There are 2 choices for each question (Yes/No)
∴ Total number of possible ways to answer
= 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 32 ways.

Question 4.
There are 2 vegetarian entry options and 5 meat entry options on a dinner menu. What number of ways one can opt a dinner for any one of it?
Solution:
Number of veg options = 2
Number of meat option = 5
One can opt for any one dinner
∴ Total number of ways = 2 + 5 = 7 ways

Additional Questions And Answers

Question 1.
Colour the graph with minimum number of colours and no two adjacent vertices should have the same colour.
Solution:

Test Yourself

Question 1.
You have three dice, How many possible out comes are there on a toss?
Solution:
8

Question 2.
Your school offers tow English classes three maths classes and 3 history classes, you want to take one of each class. How many different ways are there to organize your schedule?
Solution:
18

Question 3.
A wedding caterer gives 3 choices for main dish, sin starters, five dessert. How many different meals (made up of starter, dinner and dessert and are there?
Solution:
90

Question 4.
In a company ID cards have 5 digit numbers.
(a) How many ID cards can he formed if repetition of the digits allowed?
(b) How many ID cards can be formed if repetition of digits is not allowed?
Solution:
(i) 10,000
(ii) 30,240

Question 5.
A student is shopping for a new computer. He is deciding among 3 desktop and 4 laptop computer. How many ways she can buy a computer?
Solution:
7

Question 6.
Colour the vertices bear the same colour using minimum number of colours.

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Information Processing Ex 5.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Information Processing Ex 5.3

MISCELLANEOUS QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Shanthi has 5 chudithar sets and 4 Frocks. In how many possible ways, can she wear either a chudithar or a frock ?
Solution:
Shanthi his 5 chudidhar sets and 4 frocks.
She wear either chudidhar or a frock.
∴ Total possible ways = 5 + 4 = 9 ways

Question 2.
In a Higher Secondary School, the following types of groups are available in XI standard
I. Science Group:
(i) Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Mathematics
(ii) Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and Computer Science
(iii) Physics, Chemistry, Biology and Home Science
II. Arts Group:
(i) 1. Accountancy, Commerce, Economics and Business Maths
(ii) 2. Accountancy, Commerce, Economics and Computer Science
(iii) 3. History, Geography, Economics and Commerce
III. Vocational Group:
(i) Nursing – Biology, Theory, Practical I and Practical II
(ii) Textiles and Dress Designing – Home Science, Theory, Practical I and Practical II
In how many possible ways, can a student choose the group?
Solution:
The student either select any one of science group in 3 ways or any of the arts group in 3 ways or any of the vocational group in 2 ways.
∴ Total possible ways = 3 + 3 + 2 = 8 ways

Question 3.
An examination paper has 3 sections, each with five instructed to answer one question from each section. In can the questions be answered?
Solution:
The tree diagram for this may be

∴ Number of possible ways to select one questions from each of 3 sections is 3 × 5 = 15 ways.

Question 4.
On a sports day, students must take also part in one of the one track events 100m Running and 4 × 100 m Relay. He must take part of any of the field events Long Jump, High Jump and Javelin Throw. In how many different ways can the student take part in the given events?
Solution:
Number of track events ⇒ (100m running, 4 × 100 m Relay) 2.
Number of field events ⇒ (Long jump, High jump, Javelin Throw) 3.
Students can take part in the given events in 2 × 3 = 6 ways.

Question 5.
The given spinner is spun twice and the two numbers got are used to form a 2 digit number. How many different 2 digits numbers are possible?

Solution:
On the first spin we get any of the five numbers to form ones place then insecond spin the number got will fill 10’s place.
∴ Number of ways = 5 × 5 = 25 ways.
Removing the repetitions (11, 22, 33, 44, 55) once we get 25 – 5 = 20 ways.
20 different two digit numbers are possbile

Question 6.
Colour the following pattern with as few colours as possible but make sure that no two adjacent sections are of the same colour.

Solution:

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Information Processing Ex 5.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 5 Information Processing Ex 5.2

Question 1.
Colour the following patterns with as few colours as possible but make sure that no two adjacent sections are of the same colour.
Solution:

Question 2.
Ramya wants to paint a pattern in her living room wall with a minimum budget. Help her to colour the pattern with 2 colours but make sure that no two adjacent boxes are the same colour. The pattern is shown in the picture.

Solution:

Question 3.
Colour the countries in the following maps with as few colours as possible but make
sure that no two adjacent countries are of the same colour.

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.3

Solve the following problems by using factor theorem

Question 1.
Show that < = (x – a)² (x + 2a)
Solution:

⇒ (x + 2d) is a factor of A.
Now degree of Δ is 3 (x × x × x = x³) and we have 3 factors for A
∴ There can be a constant as a factor for A.
(i.e.,) Δ = k(x – a)² (x + 2d)
equating coefficient of x³ on either sides we get k = 1

∴ Δ = (x – a)² (x + 2a)

Question 2.
Show that
Solution:

Similarly b and c are factors of Δ.
The product of the leading diagonal elements is (b + c) (c + a) (a + b)
The degree is 3. And we got 3 factors for Δ ∴ m = 3 – 3 = 0
∴ there can be a constant k as a factor for Δ.
>

Question 3.

Solution:

⇒ x = 0, 0 are roots.
Now the degree of the leading diagonal elements is 3.
∴ the equation is of degree 3, so the roots are 0, 0, – (a + b + c)

Question 4.
Show that = (a + b + c) (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)
Solution:

⇒ (a – b) is a factor of Δ.
Similarly (b – c) and (c – a) are factors of Δ.
The degree of the product of elements along leading diagonal is 1 + 1 + 2 = 4 and we got 3 factors for Δ. m = 4 – 3 = 1
∴ There can be one more factor symmetric with a, b, c which is of the form k (a + b + c).

Question 5.
Solve
Solution:

Question 6.
Show that = (x – y) (y – z) (z – x)
Solution:

⇒ (x – y) is a factor of Δ.
Similarly (y – z) and (z – x) are factors of Δ.
Now degree of Δ = 0 + 1 + 2 = 3 and we have 3 factors of Δ.
and so there can be a constant k as a factor of Δ.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.3 Additional Problems

Question 1.
Prove that = (a – b) (b – c) (c – a) (a + b + c).
Solution:

∴ (a – b) is a factor of Δ.
Similarly we observe that Δ is symmetric in a, b, c by putting b = c, c = a, we get Δ = 0. Hence (b – c) and (c – a) are also factors of Δ.
∴ The product (a – b) (b – c) (c – a) is a factor of Δ. The degree of this product is 3. The product of leading diagonal elements is 1. bc³. The degree of this product is 4.
∴ By cyclic and symmetric properties, the remaining symmetric factor of first degree must be k (a + b + c), where k is any non-zero constant.

Question 2.
Using factor method show that = (a – b) (b – c) (c – a)
Solution:

⇒ (a – b) is a factor of Δ.
similarly (b – c) and (c – a) are factors of Δ.
The product of leading diagonal elements is bc². The degree of the product is 1 + 2 = 3.
∴ there will be three factors for Δ. We got 3 factors for Δ as (a – b), (b – c) and (c – a). Its degree = 3. ∴ m = 3 – 3 = 0
∴ there can be a constant k as a factor of Δ.

Question 3.

Solution:

⇒ (a – b) is a factor of A.
Similarly (b – c) and (c – a) are factors of Δ.
The degree of Δ = 5 and degree of product of factors = 3.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 8 Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Textual Exercise

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
One among the following is not the first responder in case of a disaster.
(a) police officers
(b) firefighters
(c) Insurance agents
(d) emergency medical technicians
Answer:
(c) Insurance agents

Question 2.
‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is a mock drill a vowal for …….
(a) Fire
(b) Earthquake
(c) Tsunami
(d) Riot
Answer:
(b) Earthquake

Question 3.
When you happen to see fire break out you will make a call to ……
(a) 114
(b) 112
(c) 115
(d) 118
Answer:
(b) 112

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is untrue?
(a) ‘Stop, Drop, Roll’ is for fire.
(b) ‘Drop, Cover, Hold’ is for an earthquake.
(c) ‘If sea water recedes back, run to higher places’ is for flood.
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.
Answer:
(d) ‘If gunshots are heard, drop to the ground and cover the head with hand’ is for riot.

Question 5.
Which of the following statements belongs to responding to earthquake?
(a) Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.
(b) Know the height of your street above sea level and the distance of your street from the coast.
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.
(d) Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand.
Answer:
(c) Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall.

II. Very short answer:

Question 1.
Who are the community’s first responders to disaster?
Answer:
On a daily basis, police officers, firefighters, and emergency medical technicians are our community’s first responders, whether during fire, flood or acts of terrorism.

Question 2.
What are the four phases of the Disaster Management Cycle?
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 3.
Though Japan has the densest seismic network Indonesia has the most earthquakes. Why?
Answer:
Japan is in a very active seismic area and it has the densest seismic network in the world.
Indonesia is in a very active seismic zone, but because it is larger than Japan, it has more earthquakes.

Question 4.
How many males and females die per day due to fire in India?
Answer:
It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

Question 5.
What should you do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

III. Short answer:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Tsunami.
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700-800 km per hour, with waves 10-30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

Question 2.
What do you do if you are indoors during an earthquake?
Answer:
If indoors-

1. DROP to the ground; take COVER by getting under a sturdy table or other piece of furniture and HOLD ON until the shaking stops. If there is no table or desk near you, cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
2. Protect yourself by staying under the lintel of an inner door, in the comer of a room, under a table or even under a bed.
3. Stay away from glass windows, outside doors and walls and anything that could fall (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Stay inside until the shaking stops and afterwards it is safe to go outside.

Question 3.
How do you respond to Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should find out if your home, school, workplace or other frequently visited locations are in tsunami hazard areas along the sea-shore.
2. Plan evacuation routes from your home, school, workplace, or any other place you could be, where tsunamis poses a risk.
3. Use a weather radio or stay tuned to a local radio or television station to keep informed of local watches and warnings.
4. Discuss tsunamis with your family. Everyone should be aware of what to do when tsunami strikes. Discussing tsunamis ahead of time will help reduce fear and save precious time in an emergency. Review flood safety and precautionary measures with your family.

Question 4.
What should you do if you are trapped in a car during a civil unrest?
Answer:
If trapped in a car;

1. Keep abreast of the current news if you are in a volatile area.
2. If you come across a demonstration, don’t become inquisitive, just leave the area and find another route to your intended destination.
3. Avoid any place where police or security forces action is in progress.

Question 5.
Write three sentences about what to do during fire.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.

HOTs

Question 1.
Why should you cut off all the branches of trees below 3 metres of height standing near your house?
Answer:

1. Old and overgrown branches might fall and injure people.
2. They may cause damage to electricity and telephone lines, houses, cars and other belongings.
3. Broken branches and leaves may create gutter.
4. Large root systems can cause damage to the foundation of your house.
5. Constant shade from the Sun will cause dampness on the roof.

To prevent all these problems you should trim and prune all trees and vegetation within 3 metres height standing near your house.

Disaster Management: Responding to Disasters Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is measured using seismograph.
(a) Earthquake
(b) heat
(c) Pressure
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Earthquake

Question 2.
This country is in a very active seismic area.
(a) Russia
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Britain
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 3.
…….. tops in riot in the world.
(a) India
(b) Iraq
(c) Nigeria
(d) Syria
Answer:
(d) Syria

Question 4.
Tsunamis can travel 700-800 kms per hour with waves …….. metres high.
(a) 10 – 30
(b) 10 – 40
(c) 10 – 60
(d) 10 – 50
Answer:
(a) 10 – 30

Question 5.
This is not the cause for fire.
(a) Lightning strikes
(b) Sparks during arid conditions
(c) The eruptions of volcanoes
(d) Ocean waves
Answer:
(d) Ocean waves

II. Very short answers:

Question 1.
What does Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Disaster Management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery.

Question 2.
What does Modern Disaster Management include?
Answer:
Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Earth Quake”.
Answer:
An earthquake is a sudden vibration of the part of the earth caused by plate movements. It occurs along the plate boundaries. The place inside the earth where an earthquake originates is focus. The point on the earth’s surface above the called a focus is called an epicentre. The damage caused by the earthquake is the highest near the epicentre.

Question 4.
If you are in a vehicle, what will you do during an earthquake? If in a moving vehicle
Answer:

1. Stop as quickly as safety permits. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses and utility wires.
2. Proceed cautiously once the earthquake has stopped. Avoid roads, bridges or ramps that might have been damaged by the earthquake.

Question 5.
Give an account of Tsunami?
Answer:
A tsunami can kill or injure people and damage or destroy buildings and infrastructure as waves come forth and recede. A tsunami is a series of enormous ocean waves caused by earthquakes, underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Tsunamis can travel 700 – 800 km per hour, with waves 10 – 30 meter high. It causes flooding and disrupts transportation, power, communications, and water supply.

III. Short Answers:

Question 1.
What do you mean by Disaster Response?
Answer:
Disaster response entails restoring physical facilities, rehabilitation of affected population, restoration of lost livelihoods and reconstruction efforts to restore the infrastructure lost or damaged. The Response Phase focuses primarily on emergency relief: saving lives, providing first aid, restoring damaged systems (communications and transportation), meeting the basic life requirements of those impacted by disaster (food, water and shelter) and providing mental health and spiritual support and care.

Question 2.
What to do after a Tsunami?
Answer:

1. You should continue using a weather radio or staying tuned to a Coast Guard emergency frequency station or a local radio or television station for updated emergency information.
2. Check yourself for injuries and get first aid if necessary, before helping injured or trapped persons.
3. If someone needs to be rescued, call professionals with the right equipment to help.
4. Help people who require special assistance, like Infants, elderly people, those without transportation, large families who may need additional help in an emergency situation, people with disabilities, and the people who care for them.
5. Stay out of a building if water remains around it. Tsunami water, like floodwater, can undermine foundations, causing buildings to sink, floors to crack, or walls to collapse.
6. Check for gas leaks. If you smell gas or hear a blowing or hissing noise, open a window and get everyone outside quickly.

Question 3.
What to do if you are caught in a riot?
Answer:

1. If you find yourself caught up in a demonstration, keep to the edge of the crowd where it is safer. At the first opportunity, break away and seek refuge in a nearby building or find a suitable doorway or alley and stay there until the crowd passes.
2. When leaving the fringe of the demonstration, just walk away – don’t run as this will draw attention to you.
3. In the event that you are arrested by the police/military, do not resist. Go along peacefully and contact your law advisor to help you resolve your predicament.
4. If you are caught up in the crowd, stay clear of glass shop fronts, moreover, move with the flow.
5. If shooting breaks out, drop to the ground and cover your head and neck, and lie as flat as you can.

Question 4.
Write aboutthe Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts.
Answer:
Fire Safety Do’s and Don’ts

1. Know your building’s evacuation plan.
2. Evacuate calmly and quickly, whenever a fire alarm or carbon monoxide alarm sounds.
3. Before opening a door, feel it with the back of your hand. If the door is hot, do not open it.
4. If you encounter smoke during your evacuation, stay low to the floor.
5. Know the outside rally point for your building.
6. Know the locations of fire extinguishers, fire alarm pull stations and exits.

IV. Answer in Detail:

Question 1.
Explain the Disaster Management cycle with Diagram.
Answer:
Disaster management includes Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness, Response and Recovery. Disaster management involves all levels of government. Non-governmental and community based organizations play a vital role in the process.

Modern disaster management goes beyond post-disaster assistance. It now includes pre-disaster planning and preparedness activities, organizational planning, training, information management, public relations and many other fields. Crisis management is important, but is only a part of the responsibility of a disaster manager.

The traditional approach to disaster management has a number of phased sequences of action or a continuum. These can be represented as a disaster management cycle. We mainly focus on the way how the community should respond to disasters.

Question 2.
Explain “Fire”.
Answer:
Wildfires occur when vegetated areas are set alight and are particularly common during hot and dry periods. They can occur in forests, grasslands, bush and deserts, and with blowing wind, can spread rapidly.
Fires can lead to the destruction of buildings, wooden bridges and poles, power, transmission and telecommunication lines, warehouses containing oil products and other fuel. It causes injury to people and animals.

The most common causes of fires are lightning strikes, sparks during arid conditions, eruption of volcanoes and man-made fires arising from deliberate arson or accidents.

A side-effect of wildfires which also threatens inhabited areas is smoke. Fires create large quantities of smoke, which can be spread far by wind and poses a respiratory hazard.

On an average, in India, every year, about 25,000 persons die due to fires and related causes. Female accounts for about 66% of those killed in fire accidents. It is estimated that about 42 females and 21 males die every day in India due to fire.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 11 Colonialism in Asia and Africa

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. was brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(a) Spice islands
(b) Java island
(c) Penang island
(d) Malacca
Answer:
(c) Penang island

Question 2.
In 1896 ………….. states were formed into the Federated Malay States.
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 3.
…………… was the only part of Indo-China which was directly under French Control.
(a) Annam
(b) Tong king
(c) Cambodia
(d) Cochin-China
Answer:
(d) Cochin-China

Question 4.
The Discovery of gold in the ………….. led to a large number of British miners settled in and around Johannesburg.
(a) Transvaal
(b) Orange Free State
(c) Cape Colony
(d) Rhodesia
Answer:
(a) Transvaal

Question 5.
…………… became the first European power to establish trade with India.
(a) Portuguese
(b) French
(c) Danes
(d) Dutch
Answer:
(a) Portuguese

Question 6.
Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………………
(a) Adowa
(b) Dahomey
(c) Tonking
(d) Transvaal
Answer:
(a) Adowa

Question 7.
Indentured labour system was a form of …………….
(a) contract labour system
(b) slavery
(c) debt bondage
(d) serfdom
Answer:
(c) debt bondage

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. Conference resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European Powers.
2. Ethiopia defeated Italy at the battle of ………….. in 1896.
3. The settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is ……………
4. …………… was the author of a book called “Notebook from Prison”.
5. …………. were money lenders in the Tamil speaking areas.
Answers:
1. Berlin Colonial
2. Adowa
3. the Permanent Settlement
4. Antonio Gramsci
5. Nattukottai Chettiyars

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Until the last quarter of the 19th century, Africa south of Sahara was unknown to the world.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold Coast became a British colony in 1864.
(iii) Spain ruled the Philippines for over 500 years.
(iv) The famine of 1876-78 occurred in Odhisha.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 2.
(i) The French had occupied Java and Sumatra in 1640.
(ii) The Dutch began their conquest of the English Settlements by capturing Malacca.
(iii) Berlin Conference met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin.
(iv) The possessions of Sultan of Zanzibar were divided into French and German spheres of influence.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (i) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): (A) In the Madras Presidency, the famine of 1876-78 was preceded by droughts.
Reason (R): Because of the colonial government’s policy of Laissez Faire in the trade of food- grains.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
(d) A is correct, R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) A is correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Berlin Conference agreed to the rule of Leopold II in Congo Free State.
Reason (R): Leopold II, King of Belgium, showed interest in Congo.
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

V. Answer all questions given under each heading

Question 1.
Colonialism in India
(i) When did the East India Company acquire the Diwani Right?
Answer:
The Company acquired the Diwani right in 1765.

(ii) When were the Gurkhas conquered by the British?
Answer:
The British conquered the Gurkhas in 1816.

(iii) When was slavery abolished in British India?
Answer:
Slavery was abolished in India in 1843.

(iv) When did Burma become a part of the Madras Presidency?
Answer:
There was British rule in Burma from 1824 to 1948.

Question 2.
South Africa
(i) Name the states possessed by the British in South Africa.
Answer:
The British possessed Natal, Cape Colony of South Africa.

(ii) What were the territories held by the Dutch?
Answer:
The Dutch held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State.

(iii) Who was the Prime Minister of Cape colony?
Answer:
Cecil Rhodes was the Prime Minister of Cape Colony..

(iv) How long did Boer Wars last?
Answer:
Boer War lasted for three years from 1899 to 1902.

VI. Answer the following briefly

Question 1.
Distinguish between Colonialism and Imperialism.
Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on Zulu tribe.
Answer:
The Zulu tribe was known for its strong fighting spirit, represented by renowned warriors like Shaka Zulu who played a prominent role in building the largest Zulu nation in south-eastern Africa.

Question 3.
State the three phases in the colonialisation of Indian economy.
Answer:
The process of the colonialisation of India can be divided into three phases:
(a) Phase I Mercantilist Capitalism
(b) Phase II Industrial Capitalism
(c) Phase III Financial Capitalism

Question 4.
Colonel Pennycuiek.
Answer:
Colonel Pennycuiek was an army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river.

Question 5.
Explain Home Charges.
Answer:
The East India Company remitted to England what was called Home Charges – the dividends on East India’s stock, interest on debt, savings from salaries and the pensions of officers and establishments and buildings in the India Office, London, transporting cost of British troops to and from India.

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Discuss the economic impact of British Rule in India.
Answer:
Governor General Cornwallis, himself a big landlord in England, wanted to create landlords in India on the English model. There were already revenue farmers under the Mughals. Cornwallis came to a settlement with them, treating them as landlords. The outcome was that for the first time in India there was a class of zamindars or landlords with a right to own, bequeath and inherit land. The cultivators, on the other hand, were reduced to the position of mere tenants. The British dealt with the landlords or zamindars directly, and gave them total freedom to do what they liked with their tenants. This settlement made with the zamindars of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa is called the Permanent Settlement (1793). The Ryotwari System was a different revenue system introduced in south India.

Under the system, the peasant was the proprietor and paid tax on the land. The government dealt with him directly, without the intervention of a middleman or a tax-farmer. He was entitled to remain in possession of land acquired by him so long as he paid the land revenue. In case of default, apart from eviction and attachment of livestock, even household property or .personal belongings could be attached. The Ryotwari System introduced the concept of private property in land. The individual holders were registered and permitted to sell, lease out, mortgageor transfer their right over the land.

Question 2.
Explain the process of colonisation in Africa.
Answer:
Until the last quarter of nineteenth century, Africa south of the Sahara (Sub- Saharan Africa) was almost unknown to the outside world. The interior of Africa was unexplored. After 1875, European penetration and colonisation began on a large scale. The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 resolved to divide Africa into spheres of influence of the various European powers. European colonisation of Africa was thus accomplished smoothly, without any outbreak of war amongst major European powers. The invasion, occupation, colonisation and annexation of African territories by European powers between 1881 and 1914, the era of Imperialism, is called the Scramble for Africa or the Partition of Africa.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Prepare an album with pictures and images of famines that affected different parts of India during the British colonial rule.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Attempt an account of the cultural relations between India and Southeast Asia.
Answer:
(i) Southeast Asia was under Indian influence starting around 200 BC until around the 15th century, when Hindu-Buddhist influence was absorbed by local politics.

(ii) Kingdoms in the southeast coast of the Indian subcontinent had established trade, cultural and Political relations with Southeast Asian Kingdoms in Burma, Thailand, Indonesia, Malay Peninsula, Cambodia and Vietnam.

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the merits and demerits of the British rule in India.
Answer:
The merits of British Rule in India
In the cause of humanity:

1. Abolition of Sati
2. Destruction of Dacoits, Thugs and infanticide
3. Elimination of Pindarees and other such pests of Indian Society
4. Allowing remarriage of Hindu widows and Charitable aid in the time of famine

Demerits of British Rule in India

1. Divide and Rule Policy
2. Exploitation of resources
3. Impalement of Tax Structure
4. Loss of lives

Question 2.
Explore the impact of colonialism in British Burma.
Answer:
British rule in Burma, also known as British Burma lasted from 1824 to 1948 from the Anglo Burmese wars through the creation of Burma as province of British India to the establishment of an independently administered colony and finally independence.

Colonialism in Asia and Africa Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The term colony comes from the ………….. word colonus, meaning farmer.
(a) Latin
(b) Roman
(c) Arabic
(d) Greek
Answer:
(a) Latin

Question 2.
………….. area in South East Asia was independent.
(a) Burma
(b) Siam (Thailand)
(c) Malaya
(d) Phillipines
Answer:
(b) Siam (Thailand)

Question 3.
The Portuguese conquered the great international emporium of …………. for the king of Portugal.
(a) Dutch East Indies
(b) French Indo-China
(c) Malacca
(d) Phillipines
Answer:
(c) Malacca

Question 4.
The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in …………….
(a) 1941
(b) 1641
(c) 1741
(d) 1841
Answer:
(b) 1641

Question 5.
In 1819 …………… established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch.
(a) Albuquerque
(b) Rudyard Kipling
(c) Stamford Raffles
(d) Cecil Rhodes
Answer:
(c) Stamford Raffles

Question 6.
The …………… had occupied Java and Sumatra (Indonesia) as early as 1640.
(a) The Dutch
(b) The English
(c) The French
(d) The Spanish
Answer:
(a) The Dutch

Question 7.
During World War II …………….. fell to the Japanese.
(a) Malaya
(b) Thailand
(c) Burma
(d) Phillipines
Answer:
(c) Burma

Question 8.
The ………….. troops invaded Zulu territory and divided it into thirteen chiefdoms
(a) The French
(b) The Japanese
(c) The British
(d) The Dutch
Answer:
(c) The British

Question 9.
This country in Africa managed to evade European Colonialism ……………
(a) Nigeria
(b) Ethiopia
(c) Uganda
(d) Kenya.
Answer:
(b) Ethiopia

Question 10.
The Mullai Periyar Dam Construction was completed in 1895 by an army Engineer and civil servant …………..
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Arthur Cotton
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Governor General Cornwallis
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The term “South East Asia” has only been used since the …………
2. By 1826 …………… and had been linked with Penang to form the Strait Settlements.
3. ………….. was the capital of Indo-China under the French Government.
4. Spain ruled the Phillipines for over ……………. years.
5. Most Indonesians were ………….. and …………… and worked in plantations.
6. In 1890 ………… the Prime Minister of Cape Colony encouraged British expansion to the North of the Transvaal.
7. The ………….. tribe was known for its string fighting spirit, in South-eastern Africa.
8. …………….. was used for slave trading posts on the coast.
9. Ethiopia, with its traditional polity, was ruled by the ……………..
10. The Portuguese Sailor …………… arrived in Calicut in 1498.
Answers:
1. Second World War
2. Singapore, Malacca
3. Hanoi
4. 300
5. Fishermen, Peasants
6. Cecil Rhodes
7. Zulu
8. Nigeria
9. Emperor Menelik
10. Vasco da Gama

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) When European traders crossed the Indian Ocean at the close of the 15th century, they came for the spices of south-east Asia.
(ii) Penang Island had been brought to the attention of the East India Company by Francis Light.
(iii) The Dutch were interested in politics but focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.
(iv) Spain ruled the Phillipines for over 200 years.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) The interior of Africa was unexplored.
(ii) The coastal states of Gold coast became a British colony in 1854.
(iii) Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world.
(iv) The British encouraged irrigation in the first half of nineteenth century.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The Dutch began their conquest of the Portuguese settlements by capturing Malacca in 1641.
Reason (R): After establishing a base at Batavia in 1619, they interfered in succession disputes among the neighbouring Sultans.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Money lending had been practised since time immemorial. Earlier the lenders lent at their own risk.
Reason (R): But the British enacted a law allowing them to attach land or property in default of repayment.
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation for A
(b) Both A and R is correct and R is not the correct explanation for A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong .
(d) A is wrong and R is correct
Answer:
(a) Both A and R is correct and R is the correct explanation for A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Colonialism in Indonesia
(a) Who had occupied Java and Sumatra?
Answer:
The Dutch had occupied Java and Sumatra.

(b) Were the Dutch interested in politics?
Answer:
No, they weren’t interested in politics.

(c) What was the focus of the Dutch on Indonesia?
Answer:
They focussed on exploiting Indonesia ruthlessly.

(d) How did they improve Indonesia from the beginning of 19th century?
Answer:
They adopted measures for the social and economic advancement of the people

Question 2.
Indentured Labour
(a) What was Indentured labour system?
Answer:
It was a form of debt bondage, a penal contract system.

(b) How many Indians were transported under this system?
Answer:
3.5 million Indians were transported to various British colonies to provide labour for the plantations.

(c) In which year was it started?
Answer:
It was started in 1843.

(d) What was its result?
Answer:
It resulted in the development of a large Indian diaspora, which spread from the Indian Ocean to Pacific Ocean, as well as contributing to the growth of Indo-Caribbean and Indo-African population.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
How did Europe justify their colonisation?
Answer:
In world history, no continent possessed so many colonies and justified their access to the world by means of a civilising mission as did modem Europe. Practically the whole non- Westem world was under one European power or the other for about four centuries until decolonisation happened after World War II.

Question 2.
Comment on Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier.
Answer:
Albuquerque, the Portuguese soldier who conquered Goa and Malacca, and his successors’ were interested in the spice trade. Towards this end they built a chain of fortified trading stations linked by naval power. Initially, they did not interfere with the native rulers.

Question 3.
Write a short note on “Malay Settlements”.
Answer:
Between 1874 and 1895 there was a civil war between the remaining five Malay States. The British intervened and signed an agreement with each of the sultans. British Residents were appointed to the courts of sultans, who had to act in accordance with the advice given by the Residents. In 1896 four of the states were formed into the Federated Malay States. In 1900 there were the Straits Settlements, the four Federated Malay States and Johore. The population was about a million, of whom, half were Malay and the remainder were Chinese. Most of the merchants, planters and workers in the ports and big plantations were Chinese. Economically Malaya was prosperous.

Question 4.
Give a short account of Burma.
Answer:
The British conquered Burma after fighting three wars. Burma remained part of India from 1886 to 1937. Burma was administered by a Lieutenant Governor with the assistance of a nominated Legislative Council. Burma teak was shipped overseas. In addition, Burma with its rich soil became a big exporter of rice and most of south India was dependent on Burmese rice. During World War II when Burma fell to the Japanese, south India experienced acute scarcity of rice leading to a famine.

Question 5.
Who ruled the Phillippines?
Answer:
Spain ruled the Philippines for over 300 years, imposing its language, culture and religion. Consequently the population became predominantly Roman Catholic. Nationalism developed among the Filipinos during the latter part of the nineteenth century. There were two serious revolts in 1872 and 1896, which were crushed by the Spanish colonial government. In 1898, however, Spain was defeated by the United States in a war over Cuba, and as a result Philippines became an American colony.

Question 6.
What do you know about the Congo River basin?
Answer:
The Berlin Conference of 1884 – 85, also known as the Congo Conference or West Africa Conference, met to decide all issues connected with the Congo River basin in Central Africa. The conference proposed by Portugal to discuss its claim to control the Congo river basin was rejected. The general act of the Conference of Berlin declared the Congo River basin to be neutral and guaranteed freedom for trade and shipping for all states in the basin.

Question 7.
How did the Europeans colonise Rhodesia?
Answer:
The British South African Company founded in 1889 conducted an expedition with 600 men- each of them were promised a 3,000 acre farm. The African king was tricked into believing that all that the Europeans wanted was gold. But they had come with a definite plan of colonising the Bechuanaland. During the next ten years African opposition was crushed. White immigrants were provided with farm lands and railways, and a telegraph system developed. The colony came to be called Rhodesia, after Cecil Rhodes.

Question 8.
How did the British emerge as a territorial power in India?
Answer:
The British conquered all the regional powers, in particular the most potential challengers, the Mysore Sultans and the Marathas, by defeating, them in three Anglo-Mysore and three Anglo- Maratha Wars. The conquest of the Gurkhas (1816), the Sindhis (1843) and the Sikhs (1849) enabled them to emerge as a territorial power in India. .

Question 9.
What does Mercantalism refer to?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a number of prevailing economic theories applied by the state in its effort to attain wealth and power. Spain in the sixteenth century was the richest and most powerful in the world. Spain’s power and wealth were found in the treasure pouring into Spain from its colonies. The more colonies a country had, the richer it would be. In sum, European countries pursued Mercantilism as a kind of national economic policy designed to maximize their trade, especially to maximize the accumulation of gold and silver.

Question 10.
What do you mean by “The Indenture system”?
Answer:
The Indenture system was a penal contract system. The contract made punishable the refusal of an indentured labourer to work or his abstention from work, or his defiance of the orders of his master or absconding, by forfeiture of wages or imprisonment with or without hard labour.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the British colonise South Africa? Explain the Boer War.
Answer:
In South Africa the British possessed Natal, Cape Colony, while the Dutch (locally known as the Boers) held the states of the Transvaal and Orange Free State. In 1886 the discovery of gold in the Transvaal led to a large number of British miners settling in and around Johannesburg. The Boers feared and hated the miners whom they called Uitlanders (foreigners). In 1890, Cecil Rhodes, the Prime Minister of Cape Colony, encouraged British expansion to the north of the Transvaal. This worsened the relations between the Boers and the British. Denied of their political rights the British miners revolted. This led to the Boer War which lasted three years (1899-1902).

In the end the Boer army was defeated and Pretoria was occupied. The Boers suffered greatly in the war. Their farms and crops were destroyed and Boer women and children were confined to internment camps. The shortage of food, beds, medical and sanitary facilities caused the death of 26,000 people. The British annexed the two Boer states but promised self government in due course. Boer states were given full responsible government in 1907. After discussions over the years the four states finally decided to form a.union and South Africa as a state was bom in 1909.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
(b) Famine in British India
Answer:
(a) Colonel Pennycuick
Colonel Pennycuick was an army Engineer and Civil Servant who also served as a member of the Madras Legislative Council. He decided to divert the west-flowing Periyar river draining into the Arabian Sea to the east so that it could irrigate lakhs of acres of dry land dependent on the Vaigai river. Though Pennycuick and other British engineers went ahead with the construction, braving nature’s fury and the dangers of poisonous insects and wild animals, the constmction was disrupted by relentless rain. Since he could not get adequate funds from the British government, Pennycuick went to England and sold his family property to mobilise money to fund the project, which was completed in 1895. The Mullai Periyar Dam continues to irrigate agricultural lands in Theni, Dindigul, Madurai, Sivaganga and Ramanathapuram districts.

(b) Famine in British India.
The Bengal famine of 1770, took a heavy toll of about 10 million people or nearly one- third of the population in Bengal. This is how British mle commenced in India. Similarly the British mle ended with a terrible Bengal famine of 1943 that claimed the lives of nearly three millions. Amartya Sen, awarded the Nobel Prize in 1998, who as a young boy saw people dying on the streets of Kolkata wrote a path-breaking study of it.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 6 Road Safety

Road Safety In-Text Exercise

I. Look at the diagram given and answer the following.

Question 1.
Which road use category causes the highest number of deaths? Could you give any three possible reasons? What would you suggest as the related safety rules?
Answer:

1. Two-wheelers, Cars, Taxis, Vans & LMV’s and Trucks.
2. Carelessness, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side.
3. Insufficient headlights.

Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design
   • Road infrastructure

Question 2.
How could pedestrians save themselves from road accidents?
Answer:

1. Never use cell phones while crossing the roads.
2. Follow the road rules.
3. See both sides while crossing.
4. Never take short cuts.
5. Avoid distractions.

II. Look at the diagram carefully and answer the following.

Source: WHO Global Burden of Disease Project, Version 1 (2002)

Question 1.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide? Why?
Answer:
Age group 15-29 tops the number of road traffic deaths worldwide. This is due to carelessly projecting their body parts outside vehicles, travelling on footboards, and catching a running bus or train.

Question 2.
Give some inference on the striking difference between the number of road accident deaths of males and females.
Answer:

1. The number of road accident deaths of females are less compared to males.
2. The reasons are: they follow road rules, they are cautious and responsible.

Road Safety Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
…… is the main cause of death in roads.
(a) Drink and drive
(b) Use of helmet
(c) Vehicle design
(d) Road conditions
Answer:
(a) Drink and drive

Question 2.
Every minute a child is killed in an accident worldwide.
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 3.
Which age group tops the number of road traffic deaths world wide?
(a) 60+
(b) 15 – 29
(c) 30 – 44
(d) 45 – 59
Answer:
(b) 15 – 29

Question 4.
Road accidents are the leading cause of
(a) sales of helmet
(b) increased traffic signals
(c) more number of speed breakers
(d) death by injury
Answer:
(d) death by injury

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Each year an estimate of ……. million people are killed in road crashes.
2. …….. in the pedestrians contribute to road accidents.
3. ……. and ……. are excluded from road accidents.
4. India has the worst road accident rate world wide with ……. deaths annually.
Answers:
1. 1.2
2. Carelessness
3. Internationa acts, natural disasters
4. 1,30,000

III. Answer the following.

Question 1.
Write short notes on ‘road accidents’.
Answer:
Road accident refers to any accident involving at least a vehicle, occurring on a road open to public transport, and in which at least one person is injured or killed. Intentional acts (murder, suicide) and natural disasters are excluded from road accidents.

Road accidents are the leading cause of death by injury and the tenth-leading cause of all deaths globally. An estimated 1.2 million people are killed in road crashes each year, and as many as 50 million people are injured.

Question 2.
Mention the different factors that contribute to road accidents.
Answer:
Drivers: Over-speeding, rash driving, violation of rules, failure to understand signs, fatigue, alcohol
Pedestrians: Carelessness, illiteracy, crossing at wrong places, jaywalkers Passengers: Projecting their body parts outside vehicles, talking to drivers, alighting and boarding vehicles from the wrong side, travelling on footboards, catching a running bus etc.
Vehicles: Failure of brakes or steering, tyre burst, insufficient headlights, overloading Road Conditions: Potholes, damaged roads, eroded roads merging of rural roads with highways and illegal speed breakers.
Weather conditions: Fog, snow, heavy rainfall, wind storms, hail storms.

Question 3.
Which are the top 10 cities of India contributing to maximum road accidents?
Answer:
The top ten cities are: Chennai, Delhi, Bangaluru, Indore, Kolkata, Bhopal, Mumbai, Jabalpur, Jaipur and Hyderabad.

Question 4.
What are the preventive measures for accidents?
Answer:
Preventive measures for accidents:

1. Education and awareness about road safety
2. Strict enforcement of law
3. Engineering:
   • Vehicle design,
   • Road infrastructure

Question 5.
State the rules to Ensure safety for children.
Answer:
It is important for children to know about road safety rules and regulations. Here are a few basic road safety rules for children:

1. Know Your Signals
2. Stop, Look and Cross
3. Pay Attention – Listen
4. Don’t Run On Roads
5. Always Use Sidewalks
6. Never Stick Hands outside the Vehicle
7. Never Cross Road at Bends
8. Don’t Rush.

Question 6.
What are the direct consequences of accidents?
Answer:
Direct Consequences of Accidents are:

1. Fatality (Death)
2. Injury
3. Damage to Property

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 10 Industrial Revolution

Industrial Revolution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who established the first steamboat service?
(a) Arkwright
(b) Samuel Crompton
(c) Robert Fulton
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(c) Robert Fulton

Question 2.
Why was Manchester considered ideal for textile production?
(a) availability of land
(b) rich human resources
(c) better living condition
(d) cool climate
Answer:
(d) cool climate

Question 3.
Who invented the sewing machine?
(a) Elias Howe
(b) Eli-Whitney
(c) Samuel Crompton
(d) Humphrey Davy
Answer:
(a) Elias Howe

Question 4.
Which family introduced steam engine in France?
(a) de Wendel
(b) de Hindal
(c) de Arman
(d) de Renault
Answer:
(a) de Wendel

Question 5.
Who called Slater, the father of American Industrial Revolution? .
(a) F.D. Roosevelt
(b) Andrew Jackson
(c) Winston Churchill
(d) Woodrow Wilson
Answer:
(b) Andrew Jackson

Question 6.
Which of the following is observed to commemorate the Hay Market Massacre?
(a) Independence Day
(b) Farmers Day
(c) Labour Day
(d) Martyrs Day
Answer:
(c) Labour Day

Question 7.
Where was Zollverein Customs Union formed?
(a) England
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Germany

Question 8.
Who produced the first batch of automobiles in France?
(a) Louis Renault
(b) Armand Peugeot
(c) Thomas Alva Edison
(d) McAdam
Answer:
(b) Armand Peugeot

Question 9.
What was the invention that removed seeds from cotton?
(a) Rolling Mill
(b) Cotton Gin
(c) Spinning Mule
(d) Spinning Jenny
Answer:
(b) Cotton Gin

Question 10.
Which of the following was used as fuel in olden days to smelt iron?
(a) Coke
(b) Charcoal
(c) Firewood
(d) Paper
Answer:
(b) Charcoal

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. called for voting rights to men in England.
2. …………… changed the way roads were built around the world.
3. ………….. discovered a faster and cheaper method of production of steel.
4. …………. advocated scientific socialism.
5. The first railroad line started in Germany was in the year ………….
Answers:
1. The Chartist
2. John Loudon McAdam
3. Henry Bessemer
4. Karl Marx
5. 1835

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) British mine owners were faced with the problem of water seeping into their mines
(ii) Employing human labour was cheap for this work
(iii) Newton invented a steam engine to pump water out of mines
(iv) Water had to be removed to get coal in mines
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Trade Unions were formed by labourers to get their rights
(ii) Germany’s political setup was the most significant challenge for the industrial revolution
(iii) To protect capitalists Karl Marx advocated socialism
(iv) There were no natural resources in Germany.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Workers had rights to get holidays.
Reason (R): There were laws to protect the workers.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A & R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is not correct explanation of A
Answer:
(b) Both A & R are wrong

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Slater was called the Father of the American Industrial Revolution.
Reason (R): His spinning textile mill was duplicated and his techniques became popular.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both. A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Labour Movement
(a) Which Act prohibited the formation of associations of workers?
Answer:
Combination Laws of 1799 prohibited the formation of associations of workers.

(b) Name the Bill which granted voting rights to propertied middle class?
Answer:
The Reform Bill of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.

(c) When were the Combination Laws repealed?
Answer:
The Combination Laws were repealed in 1824.

(d) What were the demands of the Chartists?
Answer:
The Chartists called for voting rights to every man over twenty-one years of age, secret ballot (voting), abolition of property qualification for members of the parliament, annual parliamentary elections and equal representation.

Question 2.
Transportation and Communication
(a) Which was the first railway line opened in England?
Answer:
The first railway line in England was opened between Stockton and Darlington in 1825.

(b) How were the produced goods transported to markets?
Answer:
The goods were transported through new networks of canals, roads and railroads.

(c) How was the steamboat invented in the US called?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807.

(d) Who sailed from New York to Albany?
Answer:
Robert Fulton of the US invented the steamboat called Clermont in 1807 that sailed from New York to Albany.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What was the condition of labourers houses during Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to, leading to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

Question 2.
Account for urbanisation in England.
Answer:
With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world. This resulted in the flow of population from villages to industrial towns. Population growth, migration and urbanisation were the major social changes taking place during this period. In pre-industrial society, over 80% of people lived in rural areas. As the migration from the countryside began to intensify, small towns became large cities. The city of London grew from a population of two million in 1840 to five million in forty years. –

Question 3.
Attempt a note on Haymarket Massacre.
Answer:
Haymarket Massacre
A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair 1 May 1887 is observed as the Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.

Question 4.
What do you know of Louis Renault?
Answer:
In 1898, Louis Renault built the quadricycle, from which he began to produce in large quantities under his company, the Societe Renault Freres (Company Renault Brothers).

Question 5.
Highlight any two important results of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving. Because of loss of market for hand-woven cotton goods, India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material. Weavers who were eking out an independent livelihood were thrown out of employment because of flooding of British factory-made cheap cotton fabrics in Indian markets.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Enumerate the causes for the Second Industrialization in the USA.
Answer:
A shift from manual labour-based to more technical and machine-based manufacturing industry marked the Industrial Revolution in the United States. Samuel Slater, a citizen of England, having worked at a cotton mill from age 10, had gained enough experience to operate a mill. On learning that Americans were interested in the hew techniques, Slater departed for New York in 1789 illegally. Slater offered his services to Moses Brown, a leading Rhode Island industrialist, who had earlier made an unsuccessful attempt to operate a mill.

Brown agreed and in consequence the mill became operational in 1793, being the first water-powered roller spinning textile mill in the Americas. By 1800, Slater’s mill had been duplicated by many other entrepreneurs as Slater grew wealthier and his techniques more and more popular. Andrew Jackson, the U.S. President hailed him as “Father of the American Industrial Revolution.”

The United States in the nineteenth century began to show technological innovation. Robert Fulton established the steamboat service on the Hudson River. Samuel F.B. Morse’s invention of the telegraph and Elias Howe’s invention of the sewing machine came before the Civil war (1860-1865).

After the Civil War, industrialisation went on at a frantic pace. In 1869, the first transcontinental railroad was completed to transport people, raw materials and products. There was unprecedented urbanisation and territorial expansion in the US. As a result, between 1860 and 1900, fourteen million immigrants came to the country, providing workers for a variety of industries. The invention of electric bulb by Thomas Alva Edison (1879) and telephone by Alexander Graham Bell (1885) changed the world beyond recognition.

Andrew Carnegie established the first steel mills in the U.S for mass production. He acquired business interests in the mines that produced the raw materials for steel, the mills and ovens that created the final product and the railroad and shipping lines that transported goods, thus controlling every aspect of the steelmaking process. John D. Rockefeller merged the operation of many large companies to form a trust. His Standard Oil Trust came to monopolise 90% of the industry and reduced competition. These monopolies affected the smaller companies and even threatened them.

The U.S. government supported the industrial growth by providing land for construction of railroads and protected the American industry from-foreign competition. The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of the transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society. Young people raised on farms saw greater opportunities in the cities and moved there, as did millions of immigrants from Europe. Providing housing for all the new residents of cities was a problem, and many workers found themselves living in urban slums; open sewers ran alongside the streets, and the water supply was often contaminated, causing disease.

Question 2.
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution of England on India?
Answer:
Until the middle of eighteenth century, England was an agricultural country and India was known for its excellence in manufactures as well as in agriculture. In the first quarter of eighteenth century, in the context of Indian cotton manufactures flooding in England, a law was enacted prohibiting the use of Indian calicoes and silks. The invention of flying shuttle by John Kay and the inventions of Hargreaves, Arkwright and Crompton within thirty years accelerated the process of spinning and weaving. When the British established their foothold in Bengal as a territorial power, the look from Bengal and the Carnatic provided the required capital, and helped accomplish Industrial Revolution in England.

The weavers of Bengal suffered at the hands of the Company’s officials and their agents, who first insisted on payment of a transit duty for the commodities they carried from one place to another and later for cultivation of commercial crops required for British industries in England. The English deliberately destroyed Indian industry by dumping the Indian markets with their machine- made cheap cotton piece goods. Because of loss of market for hand-woven cotton goods, India lost her old industrial position and became an exporter of raw material.

By the first quarter of nineteenth century the export of Dacca muslin to England stopped. Even the export of raw cotton from India had steadily dwindled owing to the competition from -USA. Weavers who were eking out an independent livelihood were thrown out of employment because of flooding of British factory-made cheap cotton fabrics in Indian markets.

The Collector of Madurai reported that families of about 5000 weavers did not have the means to take more than one meal of fice a day. The Collector of Tirunelveli observed that the weaving population has ‘outrun its means of. subsistence and trammels of caste prevent them from taking to other work.’ Millions died of starvation in famines. To escape starvation deaths, peasants and artisans had to move out of the country opting to working on plantations in British Empire colonies as indentured (penal contract) labourers under wretched service and living conditions.

VIII. Activity 

Question 1.
Organize a debate on the positive and negative aspects of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Points for debate Positive Aspects:

1. It provides more job opportunities
2. More quicker and efficient production
3. Cheaper prices
4. Spectacular motivation
5. Improved quality of life
6. Urbanization

Negative Aspects:

1. Pollution
2. Unsafe
3. Dirty
4. Long working hours
5. Reduced life expectancy
6. Overpopulated cities.

Question 2.
Prepare a list of fabrics and designs and the places of production in India.
Answer:
Some of the many types of cotton fabrics are:
Broad cloth: A tightly woven lustrous cotton cloth with fine embedded cresswise ribs.
Canvas: Rugged, woven cloth made with coarse yam.
Chenille: A fuzzy cotton yam of fabric that has pile protruding around its weave, named after the French word for caterpillar.
Common types of fabric:
Silk, Cotton, Linen, Wool, Leather, Jute, Georgette, Chiffon, etc.
Top 10 textile companies in India:

1. Bombay Dyeing and Manufacturing Company Ltd. (Wadala)
2. Bombay Rayon Fashion Ltd.
3. Fab India Overseas Pvt. Ltd.
4. Grasim Industries Ltd.
5. JCT Ltd.
6. Karnataka Silk Industries
7. Raymond Ltd.
8. The Lakshmi Mills Company Ltd.
9. Vardhman Textiles
10. Arvind Mills

IX. Assignment

Question 1.
Collect the pictures of the inventions made at the time of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Write an assignment on the modern plastic road being made by used plastics.
Answer:
You can prepare the assignment using internet, under the guidance of your teacher.
Hint- The common plastics used are:
(i) polyethylene, terephthalate
(ii) polyvinyl chloride
(iii) high and low density polyethylene

Industrial Revolution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
What were the new basic materials used?
(a) Iron and Steel
(b) Copper
(c) Lead
(d) Zinc
Answer:
(a) Iron and Steel

Question 2.
Where did the Industrial Revolution begin?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) England

Question 3.
Who invented the flying shuttle?
(a) John Kay
(b) James Hargreaves
(c) James Watt
(d) Richard Arkwright
Answer:
(a) John Kay

Question 4.
Who discovered a faster and cheaper method of producing Steel?
(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) John Kay
(c) Eli Whitney
(d) Henry Bessemer
Answer:
(d) Henry Bessemer

Question 5.
Who improved the Railway transport system in the country?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Sir Humphrey Davy
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(b) George Stephenson

Question 6.
Whose road pattern came to be adopted world over?
(a) John Loudon McAdam
(b) George Stephenson
(c) Henry Bessemer
(d) James Watt
Answer:
(a) John Loudon McAdam

Question 7.
Who became the workshop of the world?
(a) America
(b) England
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(b) England

Question 8.
The textile capital of the world is …………….
(a) Liverpool
(b) Lancashire
(c) Manchester
(d) London
Answer:
(c) Manchester

Question 9.
Which town brought British technology of refining cast iron?
(a) Mulhouse
(b) Saint-Chamond
(c) Lorraine
(d) Paris
Answer:
(a) Mulhouse

Question 10.
Who invented the sewing machine? .
(a) Samuel F.B. Morse
(b) Thomas Alva Edison
(c) Elias Howe
(d) Alexander Graham Bell
Answer:
(c) Elias Howe

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The ………….. manufacture was at the heart of the Industrial Revolution.
2. Iron and steel helped quicken the process of ……………
3. ……………. road came to be adpoted world over.
4. The first railway line in England was opened between ……………. and …………… in 1825,
5. The Industrial Revolution helped create opportunities for ……………. for all members of the family.
6. ……………. was very poor in early industrial factories and mines.
7. The …………. of 1832 granted voting rights only to the propertied middle class.
8. …………. had the natural resources required for an industrial revolution.
9. …………. merged the operation of many large companies to form a trust.
10. To commemorate the Hay Market Massacre …………….. is observed as labour day.
Answers:
1. Textile
2. Industrialization
3. Macadamised
4. Stockton and Darlington
5. employment
6. Safety
7. Reform Bill
8. Germany
9. John D. Rockfeller
10. 1^st May

III. (a) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)

(b) Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Society transformed from an agrarian economy to machine-production.
(ii) Industrial Revolution started first in England and spread to other parts of the world.
(iii) The term Industrial Revolution was popularized by the French economic historians.
(iv) There is no impact on Society and Politics by Industrial Revolution.
(a) (i) is incorrect
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) By the first quarter of 19^th century the export of Dacca muslin to England was encouraged.
(ii) India became an exporter of raw materials.
(iii) British factory-made cheap Cotton fabrics in Indian markets.
(iv) The English deliberately destroyed the Indian Industry.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, England became the workshop of the world.
Reason (R): There was however a general decline in agriculture.
(a) A is correct R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A
Answer:
(d) A is correct R is irrelevant to A

Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Industrial Revolution quickened the process of transition of the United States from a rural to an urban society.
Reason (R): Young people raised on farms saw greater opportunities in the cities and moved there as did millions of immigrants from Europe.
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is wrong and R is the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) Both A and R are correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct; R is the correct explanation of A

V. Answer all questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Invention of Steam Power
(а) What problems did the mine owners face?
Answer:
In the 18^th century the British mine owners faced with the problem of water seeping into the mines.

(b) What did they do?
Answer:
They employed labourers to pump the water out.

(c) What did the British Engineer do at this juncture?
Answer:
The British Engineer Thomas Newcomen invented a contrive to pump the water out of mines.

(d) Was it successful?
Answer:
No, it consumed too much fuel.

Question 2.
Impact of Industrial Revolution on Labour Class
(a) What was the result of Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
It resulted in increased air and water pollution.

(b) How did it help the people?
Answer:
It helped the people by creating opportunities of employment for all the members of the family.

(c) Was there safety in the mines?
Answer:
No, safety was very poor.

(d) How was the living condition for the labour class?
Answer:
The housing was tiny, dirty, and sickly for the labouring class. Workers had no time to clean or change their own atmosphere even if they wished to, leading to the outbreak of typhoid, cholera, and smallpox.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What is Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
In the latter half of the 18th Century major changes occurred in the method of production that changed the history of humankind. This profound transformation is described as the Industrial Revolution. Goods began to be produced not by hand but by machines. This increased the volume of goods produced exponentially.

Question 2.
Mention any three attributes of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:

1. Use of new basic material: iron and steel.
2. Use of new energy sources: coal, electricity, petroleum.
3. Development in transportation and communication.

Question 3.
Why did Industrial Revolution begin in England first? Give three reasons.
Answer:

1. England had abundant resources and possessed colonies, with India being “the brightest jewel in the British Crown”.
2. Access to coal, iron and raw cotton from the colonies.
3. England possessed the required infrastructure for textiles, developed by immigrant artisans from the Netherlands. ‘

Question 4.
How was Iron produced in olden days?
Answer:
In olden days iron ore was smelted in brick furnaces. Charcoal was used as fuel. The iron produced was not sturdy and strong. It had to be smelted again. Finally, coke (produced from coal) was used to produce iron. But this was a costly method.

Question 5.
How was the death of the miners reduced?
Answer:
As miners used oil lamps in the mines the risk of explosion was high leading to the death of miners. This was reduced by the invention of a safety lamp by Sir Humphrey Davy in 1815.

Question 6.
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. Comment.
Answer:
Industrial Revolution was dependent on good transportation. As production increased raw materials had to be brought from afar to the factories. After the goods were produced they had to be transported to the markets. As a result new networks of canals, roads and railroads were built. Macadamised roads and George Stephenson’s steam locomotive helped to improve road and railway transport system in the country.

Question 7.
What were the effects of Industrial Revolution in England in general?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution led to the expansion of trade, the production of more food, emergence of factory workers as a new class. The rise and growth of cities resulting in rapid urbanisation and organised workingclass movements, seeking voting rights and regulation of their service conditions brought about a new dynamics in politics.

Question 8.
Mention the socio-economic consequences of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
While the peasants were pauperized and the working class suffered, the middle class became wealthy by investing capital in trade and industry. The governments of the day were influenced by them. All legislations safeguarded their interests. Labourers were not permitted to form trade unions. It was under these circumstances that Socialism as a new ideology was bom in Europe Karl Marx advocated scientific socialism for the protection of the working class from the exploitative policies of the capitalist class. By the latter half of the nineteenth century there were strong working class movements all over western. Europe which demanded economic as well as political rights.

Question 9.
Give an account of the entry of Industrial Revolution in France.
Answer:
France did not possess as much natural resources as England. The political instability caused by the French Revolution and the prolonged Napoleonic Wars wrecked the country. Many of those French businessmen who had sought refuge in Britain during the Revolution, on their return to France after Napoleonic Wars, used British technology. This helped to accomplish industrial revolution in their country.

Question 10.
Highlight the Industrial Revolution in Germany.
Answer:
Germany surpassed the home of the industrial revolution, Great Britain, and proved a competitor to the United States. In electrics, Germany offered companies like Siemens. In chemicals, Germany excelled in the production of potassium salt, dyes, pharmaceutical products, and synthetics. Companies like Bayer and Hoechst led the chemical industry of Germany. Germany became a leader in the automobile industry. Daimler and Benz became the most popular brands of automobiles in Germany and the world.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the working class strikes with special reference to Hay Market Massacre.
Answer:
The difficult working conditions in the factories, long hours of work, low wages, exploitation of women and children contributed to the growth of labour unions. After the Civil War, workers organized strikes. One major strike was the Great Railroad Strike of 1877. Wage cuts in the railroad industry, in the context of a prolonged economic depression, led to the strike, which began in West Virginia and spread to three additional states over a period of 45 days before being crushed by a combination of vigilantes, National Guardsmen, and Federal Army.

Haymarket Massacre
A labour protest took place on 4 May 1886, at Haymarket Square in Chicago. What began as a peaceful rally in support of workers striking for an eight-hour day resulted in the killing of several workers by the police. To commemorate the Haymarket Affair 1 May 1887 is observed as the Labour Day or May Day or International Worker’s Day.