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TN State Board 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 in English Medium

Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the questions. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
If π = 3.14, then the value of π² is _________
(a) 9.8596
(b) 9.860
(c) 9.86
(d) 9.9
Answer:
(c) 9.86
π = 3.14
π² = (3.14)² = 9.8596
Rounding off, we get π² = 9.86

Question 2.
If an object is thrown vertically upward with initial speed ‘u ’ from the ground, then the time
taken by the object to return to the ground is ________
(a) \(\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}\)
(b) \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\)
(c) \(\frac{u}{2 g}\)
(d) \(\frac{2 u}{g}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2 u}{g}\)
When body moves upward, v = 0; s = h
v = u + at

Question 3.
If the position vector of a particle is given by \(\vec{r}=5 t^{2} \hat{i}+7 t \hat{j}+4 \hat{k}\), then its velocity lies in:
(a) X-Z plane
(b) X-Y plane
(c) along Y-direction
(d) along X- direction
Answer:
(b) X-Y plane

Question 4.
Force acting on a particle moving at constant speed:
(a) always zero
(b) need not be zero
(c) always non-zero
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(a) always zero

Question 5.
What of the following force is pseudo force?
(a) viscous force
(b) surface tension
(c) centrifugal force
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(c) centrifugal force

Question 6.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass ‘m’ must enter a vertical loop of radius R, so that it can complete the loop?
(a) \(\sqrt{2 g R}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{3 g R}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{g R}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)

Question 7.
A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum ‘L’. If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum will be:
(a) L
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\)
(c) 2L
(d) \(\frac{\mathbf{L}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathbf{L}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 8.
A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane. The fractional force:
(a) decreases the rotational and translational motion
(b) dissipates kinetic energy as heat
(c) converts transnational energy into rotational energy
(d) decreases the rotational motion
Answer:
(c) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

Question 9.
If the radius of Earth is ‘R’, at what height acceleration due to gravity becomes zero?
(a) R
(b) \(\frac{R}{4}\)
(c) 2R
(d) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{R}{2}\)

Question 10.
If two wires have the same dimension but of different materials, the graph between load and extension is as follow, then which of the following is true:

(a) Y_B = Y_A
(b) Y_A < Y_B (c) Y_A > Y_B
(d) Y_A = Y_B = 0
Answer:
(c) Y_A > Y_B

Question 11.
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on __________
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) the angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
Answer:
(d) the angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

Question 12.
The efficiency of a heat engine working between 27°C and 127°C is:
(a) 50 %
(b) 25 %
(c) 12.5 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 25 %
T₁ = 127°C = 400 K
T₂ = 27°C = 300 K

Question 13.
The ratio \(\gamma=\frac{C_{P}}{C_{V}}\) for a gas mixture consisting of 8 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen is :
(a) \(\frac{23}{15}\)
(b) \(\frac{15}{23}\)
(c) \(\frac{27}{11}\)
(d) \(\frac{17}{27}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{27}{11}\)
Helium is a mono atomic gas and oxygen is diatomic gas.

Question 14.
In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against displacement for one complete oscillation will be __________
(a) an ellipse
(b) a circle
(c) a parabola
(d) a straight line
Answer:
(d) a straight line

Question 15.
A person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and hears the first echo after ‘t₁’ sec, and the second echo after ‘t₂’ sec. The distance between the hills is _______
(a) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}-t_{2}\right)}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1} t_{2}\right)}{2\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}\)
(c) \(v\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
(d) \(\frac{v}{2}\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{v}{2}\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
Distance b/w man and hill 1, d₁ = \(\frac{v t_{1}}{2}\)
Distance b/w man and hill 2, d₂ = \(\frac{v t_{2}}{2}\)
Distance b/w the two hills, d = d₁ + d₂
\(\mathrm{d}=\frac{\mathrm{v}\left(\mathrm{t}_{1}+\mathrm{t}_{2}\right)}{2}\)

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No. 23 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Check the following equation by dimensional method: E = mc²
Answer:
Let us assume that the Energy E depends on mass m and velocity of light c.
E ∝ m^a c^b
E = km^ac^b where K a constant
Dimensions of E = [ML²T^-2]
Dimensions of m = [M]
Dimensions of c = [LT^-1]
Substituting the values in the above equation [ML²T^-2] = K [M]^a[LT^-1]^b
By equating the dimensions,
a = 1; b = 2; -b = -2
E = k.mc²
The value of constant k = 1
E = mc²
This is Einstein’s mass energy relation.

Question 17.
What is the difference between scalar and vector? Give examples.
Answer:

Question 18.
State Lami’s theorem.
Answer:
If a system of three concurrent and coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then Lami’s theorem states that the magnitude of each force of the system is proportional to sine of the angle between the other two forces.
\(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}\right| \propto \sin \alpha,\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\right| \propto \sin \beta,\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{3}\right| \alpha \sin \gamma\)

Question 19.
Define the centre of gravity.
Answer:
The centre of gravity of a body is the point at which the entire weight of the body acts, irrespective of the position and orientation of the body.

Question 20.
An electron moving with velocity 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s, revolving in a circular orbit of radius 0.53 Å. Calculate its angular velocity.
Answer:
v = 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s
r = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10^-10 m
Angular velocity, \(\omega=\frac{v}{r}=\frac{2.2 \times 10^{6}}{0.53 \times 10^{-10}}\)
ω = 4.15 × 10¹⁶ rads^-1

Question 21.
What is Reynold’s number? Give its significance.
Answer:
It is a dimensionless number which determines the nature of the flow of fluid through a pipe. Reynold’s number is given by,
\(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{c}}=\frac{\rho v \mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{n}}\)
If, R_c < 1000 – streamline
R_c > 2000 – turbulent
1000 < R_c < 2000 – unsteady

Question 22.
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 Kelvin or 1°C
∆Q = ms∆T
Therefore, \(s=\frac{1}{m}\left(\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\right)\)
The SI unit for specific heat capacity is J kg^-1 K^-1

Question 23.
Define the root mean square speed.
Answer:
Root mean square speed is defined as the square root of the mean of the square of speeds of all molecules.

Question 24.
A particle executing SHM covers a displacement of half of the amplitude in one second. Calculate its time period.
Answer:
Displacement, X = A sin(ωt)

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q. No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What are the limitations of dimensional analysis?
Answer:
Limitations of Dimensional analysis

1. This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula like 1, 2, ……… π, e, etc.
2. This method is not suitable to derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.
3. It can only check on whether a physical relation is dimensionally correct but not the correctness of the relation. For example, using dimensional analysis, \(s=u t+\frac{1}{3} a t^{2}\) is dimensionally correct whereas the correct relation is \(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\)

Question 26.
Find the maximum speed at which a car turn round a curve of 36 m radius on a level road. Given the co-eff. of friction between the tyre and road is 0.53.
Answer:
Radius of the curve r = 36 m
Coefficient of friction µ = 0.53
Acceleration due to. gravity g = 10 ms^-2
\(v_{\max }=\sqrt{\mu r g}=\sqrt{0.53 \times 36 \times 10}=13.81 \mathrm{ms}^{-1}\)

Question 27.
Give the difference between elastic and inelastic collision.
Answer:

Question 28.
The position vector of the particle has a length of 1 m makes an angle of 30° with X-axis. What are the lengths of x and y components of the position vector?
Answer:
Given:
Length of position vector = 1 m
Angle made with x-axis = 30

Length of X component (OB) = OA cos θ = 1 × cos 30°
\(l_{x}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \mathrm{m}\) (or) 0.87 m
Length of Y component (AB) = OA sin θ = 1 × sin 30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 m.
ly = 0.5 m

Question 29.
State Kepler’s laws.
Answer:

1. Law of Orbits: Each planet revolves moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci of the ellipse.
2. Law of the area: The radial vector line joining the Sun to a planet sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
3. Law of the period: The square of the time period of revolution of a planet around the Sun in its elliptical orbit is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse.
   T² ∝ a³
   \(\frac{T^{2}}{a^{3}}\) = constant

Question 30.
Explain any three factors affecting the surface tension of a liquid.
Answer:

1. The presence of any contamination or impurities considerably affects the force of surface tension depending upon the degree of contamination.
2. The presence of dissolved substances can also affect the value of surface tension. For example, a highly soluble substance like sodium chloride (NaCl) when dissolved in water (H₂O) increases the surface tension of water. But the sparingly soluble substance like phenol or soap solution when mixed in water decreases the surface tension of water.
3. Electrification effects surface tension. When a liquid is electrified, surface tension decreases. Since external force acts on the liquid surface due to electrification, the area of the liquid surface increases which acts against the contraction phenomenon of the system.

Question 31.
Define degrees of freedom. Give an example.
Answer:
The minimum number of independent coordinates needed to specify the position and configuration of a thermo-dynamical system in space is called the degree of freedom of the So its degree of freedom is one.
Example:

1. A free particle moving along x-axis needs only one coordinate to specify it completely. So its degree of freedom is one.
2. Similarly, a particle moving over a plane has two degrees of freedom.
3. A particle moving in space has three degrees of freedom.

Question 32.
Explain any three applications of reflection of a sound wave.
Answer:
(a) Stethoscope: It works on the principle of multiple reflections. It consists of three main parts:

• Chest piece
• Earpiece
• Rubber tube

(b) Echo: An echo is a repetition of sound produced by the reflection of sound waves from a wall, mountain or other obstructing surfaces. The speed of sound in air at 20°C is 344 ms^-1. If we shout at a wall which is at 344 m away, then the sound will take 1 second to reach the wall. After reflection, the sound will take one more second to reach us. Therefore, we hear the echo after two seconds.

(c) SONAR: Sound Navigation and Ranging. Sonar systems make use of reflections of sound waves in the water to locate the position or motion of an object. Similarly, dolphins and bats use the sonar principle to find their way in the darkness.

Question 33.
A child is playing on a sliding board. If he is sliding down:
(a) Mention the forces acting on the child.
(b) Draw FBD (Free Body Diagram).
(c) Write the force equation.
Answer:
(a) ma = mg sin θ – f_k

(c) F = mg sin θ

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Explain in detail the triangle law of addition.
Answer:
Let us consider two vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) as shown in figure. To find the resultant of the two vectors we apply the triangular law of addition as follows:

Represent the vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) by the two adjacent sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Then the resultant is given by the third side of the triangle as shown in figure. To explain further, the head of the first vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) is connected to the tail of the second vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). Let θ be the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). Then \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) is the resultant vector connecting the tail of the first vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) to the head of the second vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). The magnitude of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\)(resultant) is given geometrically by the length of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) (OQ) and the direction of the resultant vector is the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). Thus we write \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OQ}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PQ}}\)

1. Magnitude of resultant vector: The magnitude and angle of the resultant vector are determined by using triangle law of vectors as follows.
From the figure, consider the triangle ABN, which is obtained by extending the side OA to ON. ABN is a right-angled triangle.



[OR]
Question 34(b).
Discuss the four types of oscillation.
Answer:
(i) Free oscillations: When the oscillator is allowed to oscillate by displacing its position from the equilibrium position, it oscillates with a frequency which is equal to the natural frequency of the oscillator. Such an oscillation or vibration is known as free oscillation or free vibration. In this case, the amplitude, frequency and the energy of the vibrating object remain constant.
Examples:

• The vibration of a tuning fork.
• Vibration in a stretched string.
• Oscillation of a simple pendulum.
• Oscillations of a spring-mass system.

(ii) Damped oscillations: During the oscillation of a simple pendulum (in the previous case), we have assumed that the amplitude of the oscillation is constant and also the total energy of the oscillator is constant. But in reality, in a medium, due to the presence of friction and air drag, the amplitude of oscillation decreases as time progresses. It implies that the oscillation is not sustained and the energy of the SHM decreases gradually indicating the loss of energy. The energy lost is absorbed by the surrounding medium. This type of oscillatory motion is known as damped oscillation. In other words, if an oscillator moves in a resistive medium, its amplitude goes on decreasing and the energy of the oscillator is used to do work against the resistive medium. The motion of the oscillator is said to be damped and in this case, the resistive force (or damping force) is proportional to the velocity of the oscillator.
Examples:

• The oscillations of a pendulum (including air friction) or pendulum oscillating inside an oil-filled container.
• Electromagnetic oscillations in a tank circuit.
• Oscillations in a dead beat and ballistic galvanometers.

(iii) Maintained oscillations: While playing in swing, the oscillations will stop after a few cycles, this is due to damping. To avoid damping we have to supply a push to sustain oscillations. By supplying energy from an external source, the amplitude of the oscillation can be made constant. Such vibrations are known as maintained vibrations.
Example:
The vibration of a tuning fork getting energy from a battery or from the external power supply.

(iv) Forced oscillations: Any oscillator driven by an external periodic agency to overcome the damping is known as a forced oscillator or driven oscillator. In this type of vibration, the body executing vibration initially vibrates with its natural frequency and due to the presence of external periodic force, the body later vibrates with the frequency of the applied periodic force. Such vibrations are known as forced vibrations.
Example: Soundboards of stringed instruments.

Question 35.
(a) Explain the vertical motion of blocks connected by a string.
Answer:
Vertical motion: Consider two blocks of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) connected by light and inextensible string that passes over a pulley as shown in Figure.

Let the tension in the string be T and acceleration a.
When the system is released, both the blocks start moving, m₂ vertically upward and m₁ downward with same acceleration a. The gravitational force m₁g on mass m₁ is used in lifting the mass m₂.
The upward direction is chosen as y-direction. The free-body diagrams of both masses are shown in Figure.

Applying Newton’s second law for mass m₂
\(\mathrm{T} \hat{j}-m_{2} g \hat{j}=m_{2} a \hat{j}\)
The left-hand side of the above equation is the total force that acts on m₂ and the right-hand side is the product of mass and acceleration of m₂ in the y-direction.
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T – m₂g = m₂a …… (1)
Similarly, applying Newton’s second law for mass m₁
\(\mathbf{T} \hat{j}-m_{1} g \hat{j}=-m_{1} a \hat{j}\)
As mass mx moves downward (\(-\hat{j}\)), its acceleration is along (\(-\hat{j}\)) By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T – m₁g = -m₁a
m₁g – T = m₁a ……. (2)
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
m₁g – m₂g = m₁a + m₂a
(m₁ – m₂)g = (m₁ + m₂)a …….. (3)
From equation (3), the acceleration of both the masses is
\(a=\left(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right) g\) …… (4)
If both the masses are equal (m₁ = m₂), from equation (4)
a = 0
This shows that if the masses are equal, there is no acceleration and the system as a whole will be at rest.
To find the tension acting on the string, substitute the acceleration from the equation (4) into the equation (1).

[OR]
Question 35(b).
What are stationary waves? Write the characteristics of stationary waves.
Answer:
Explanation of stationary waves: When the wave hits the rigid boundary it bounces back to the original medium and can interfere with the original waves. A pattern is formed, which are known as standing waves or stationary waves.
Characteristics of stationary waves:

1. Stationary waves are characterised by the confinement of a wave disturbance between two rigid boundaries. This means, the wave does not move forward or backwards in a medium (does not advance), it remains steady at its place. Therefore, they are called “stationary waves or standing waves”.
2. Certain points in the region in which the wave exists have maximum amplitude, called as anti-nodes and at certain points, the amplitude is minimum or zero, called as nodes.
3. The distance between two consecutive nodes (or) anti-nodes is \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
4. The distance between a node and its neighbouring anti-node is \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)
5. The transfer of energy along the standing wave is zero.

Question 36(a).
Derive the expression of a moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the rod.
Answer:
Let us consider a uniform rod of mass (M) and length (l) as shown in the figure. Let us find an expression for moment of inertia of this rod about an axis that passes through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the rod. First, an origin is to be fixed for the coordinate system so that it coincides with the centre of mass, which is also the geometric centre of the rod. The rod is now along the x-axis. We take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) at a distance (x) from the origin. The moment of inertia (dl) of this mass (dm) about the axis is, dl = (dm)x²
As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) of the rod is, \(\lambda=\frac{\mathbf{M}}{l}\)
The (dm) mass of the infinitesimally small length as, dm = λdx = \(\frac{M}{l}\) dx
The moment of inertia (i) of the entire rod can be found by integrating dI,
\(\begin{aligned}
&\mathrm{I}=\int d \mathrm{I}=\int(d m) x^{2}=\int\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{l} d x\right) x^{2}\\
&\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{M}}{l} \int x^{2} d x
\end{aligned}\)
As the mass is distributed on either side of the origin, the limits for integration are taken from to -l/2 to l/2


[OR]
Question 36(b).
State ideal gas laws. Derive the equation of state for an ideal gas.
Answer:
Boyle’s law: For a given gas at low pressure (density) kept in a container of volume V, experiments revealed the following information.
When the gas is kept at a constant temperature, the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)
Charles’ law: When the gas is kept at constant pressure, the volume of the gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature V ∝ T.
By combining these two equations we have
PV = CT. Here C is a positive constant.
We can infer that C is proportional to the number of particles in the gas container by considering the following argument. If we take two containers of the same type of gas with the same volume V, same pressure P and same temperature T, then the gas in each container obeys the above equation. PV = CT. If the two containers of gas are considered as a single system, then the pressure and temperature of this combined system will be same but volume will be twice and a number of particles will also be double.

For this combined system, V becomes 2V, so C should also double to match with the ideal gas equation \(\frac{P(2 V)}{T}=2 C\). It implies that C must depend on the number of particles in the gas and also should have the dimension of \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\right]=\mathrm{JK}^{-1}\). So we can write the constant C as k times the number of particles N.
Here k is the Boltzmann constant (1.381 × 10^-23 JK^-1) and it is found to be a universal constant. So the ideal gas law can be stated as follows
PV = NkT ……..(1)
The equation (1) can also be expressed in terms of mole.
Suppose if the gas contains µ mole of particles then the total number of particles can be written as N = µN_A …(2)
where NA is Avogadro number (6.023 × 10²³ mol^-1)
Substituting for N from equation (2), the equation (1) becomes PV = µN_AkT. Here N_Ak = R called universal gas constant and its value is 8.314 J /mol. K
So the ideal gas law can be written for µ mole of gas as
PV = µRT ……..(3)
This is called the equation of state for an ideal gas. It relates the pressure, volume and temperature of the thermodynamic system at equilibrium.

Question 37(a).
Derive the expression of escape speed.
Answer:
Consider an object of mass M on the surface of the Earth. When it is thrown up with an initial speed v_i, the initial total energy of the object is
\(\mathrm{E}_{i}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) ……. (1)
where M_E is the mass of the Earth and R_E the radius of the Earth. The term \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) is the potential energy of the mass M.
When the object reaches a height far away from Earth and hence treated as approaching infinity, the gravitational potential energy becomes zero [U(∞) = 0] and the kinetic energy becomes zero as well. Therefore the final total energy of the object becomes zero. This is for minimum energy and for minimum speed to escape. Otherwise, kinetic energy can be nonzero.
E_f = 0
According to the law of energy conservation,
E_i = E_f ……. (2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get,
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}=0\)
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}=\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) …….(3)
Consider the escape speed, the minimum speed required by an object to escape Earth’s gravitational field, hence replace v_i with v_e i.e.,
\(\frac{1}{2} M v_{e}^{2}=\frac{G M M_{E}}{R_{E}}\)

From equation (4) the escape speed depends on two factors acceleration due to gravity and radius of the Earth. It is completely independent of the mass of the object. By substituting the values of g (9.8 ms^-2) and R, = 6400 km, the escape speed of the Earth is v_g = 11.2 kms^-1. The escape speed is independent of the direction in which the object is thrown. Irrespective of whether the object is thrown vertically up, radially outwards or tangentially it requires the same initial speed to escape Earth’s gravity.
[OR]
Question 37(b).
Explain the different types of moduli of elasticity.
Answer:
From Hooke’s law, the stress in a body is proportional to the corresponding strain, provided the deformation is very small. Here we shall define the elastic modulus of a given material. There are three types of elastic modulus.
(a) Young’s modulus (b) Rigidity modulus (or Shear modulus) (c) Bulk modulus
Young’s Modulus: When a wire is stretched or compressed, then the ratio between tensile stress (or compressive stress) and tensile strain (or compressive strain) is defined as Young’s modules.

The negative sign indicates when pressure is applied on the body, its volume decreases. Further, the equation implies that a material can be easily compressed if it has a small value of bulk modulus. In other words, bulk modulus measures the resistance of solids to change in their volume. For example, we know that gases can be easily compressed than solids, which means, gas has a small value of bulk modulus compared to solids. The S.I. unit of K is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm^-2 or Pa (pascal).
The rigidity modulus or shear modulus: The rigidity modulus is defined as the ratio of the shearing stress to shearing strain,

Further, the above implies, that a material can be easily twisted if it has a small value of rigidity modulus. For example, consider a wire, when it is twisted through an angle 0, a restoring torque is developed, that is
τ ∝ θ
This means that for a larger torque, the wire will twist by a larger amount (angle of shear θ is large). Since rigidity modulus is inversely proportional to the angle of shear, the modulus of rigidity is small. The S.I. unit of ηR is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm^-2 or pascal.

Question 38.
(a) Two objects of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with the same momentum of 30 kgms^-1.
(i) Will they have the same kinetic energy?
(ii) Will they have the same speed? Prove it.
Answer:
m₁ = 3 kg and m₂ = 6 kg
P = 30 kg ms^-1

[OR]
Question 38(b).
In a series of successive measurements in an experiment, the readings of a period of rotation of a wheel were found out to be 2.15s, 2.25s, 2.28s and 2.32s. Calculate:
(i) mean value of the period of rotation
(ii) absolute error in each measurement
(iii) mean absolute error
(iv) relative error and
(v) percentage error. Express the result in proper form.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the Questions. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
Which graph represents uniform acceleration?


Answer:

Question 2.
A body of mass 5 kg is thrown up vertically with a kinetic energy of 1000 J. If acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms^-2, find the height at which the kinetic energy becomes half of the original value.
(a) 10 m
(b) 20 m
(c) 50 m
(d) 100 m
Answer:
(a) 10 m
Half KE is converted into potential energy.
Then PE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) KE
mgh = \(\frac{1000}{2}\) = 500
\(\mathrm{h}=\frac{500}{\mathrm{mg}}=\frac{500}{5 \times 10}=10 \mathrm{m}\)

Question 3.
The process in which heat transfer is by actual movement of molecules in fluids such as liquids and gases is called ________
(a) Thermal conductivity
(b) Convection
(c) Conduction
(d) Radiation
Answer:
(b) Convection

Question 4.
If the temperature of the wire is increased, then Young’s Modules will
(a) increase rapidly
(b) increase by a very small amount
(c) remain the same
(d) decrease
Answer:
(d) decrease

Question 5.
The amplitude and time period of a simple pendulum bob are 0.05 m and 2s respectively. Then the maximum velocity of the bob is :
(a) 0.157 ms^-1
(b) 0.257 ms^-1
(c) 0.10 ms^-1
(d) 0.025 ms^-1
Answer:
(a) 0.157 ms^-1

Question 6.
There is a small bubble at one end and a bigger bubble at another end of a pipe. Which among the following will happen?

(a) remains in equilibrium
(b) smaller will grow until they collapse
(c) bigger will grow until they collapse
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) smaller will grow until they collapse
Excess pressure is \(\Delta P=P_{2}-P_{1}=\frac{4 T}{R}\)

Question 7.
A closed cylindrical container is partially filled with water. As the container rotates in a horizontal plane above a perpendicular bisector, its moment of inertia :
(a) remains constant
(b) depends on the direction of rotation
(c) increases
(d) decreases
Answer:
(c) increases

Question 8.
Which of the following represents a wave?
(a) \(\frac{1}{(x+v t)}\)
(b) sin (x + vt)
(c) (x – vt)³
(d) x(x + vt)
Answer:
(b) sin (x + vt)

Question 9.
Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have the same dimension?
(a) Torque and Power
(b) Force and Torque
(c) Force and Power
(d) Torque and Energy
Answer:
(d) Torque and Energy

Question 10.
If the internal energy of an ideal gas U and volume V are doubled then the pressure of the gas _______
(a) halves
(b) quadruples
(c) doubles
(d) remains the same
Answer:
(d) remains the same

Question 11.
For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is:
(a) 2
(b) √2
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)

Question 12.
A refrigerator has a COP of 3. How much work must be supplied to a refrigerator in order to remove 200 J of heat from its interior?
(a) 33.33 J
(b) 44.44 J
(c) 66.67 J
(d) 50 J
Answer:
(c) 66.67 J

Question 13.
If the linear momentum of the object is increased by 0.1 % then the kinetic energy is increased by:
(a) 0.4 %
(b) 0.01 %
(c) 0.1 %
(d) 0.2 %
Answer:
(d) 0.2 %

Question 14.
What is the angular displacement made by a particle after 5s, when it starts from rest with an angular acceleration of 0.2 rads^-2?
(a) 4 rad
(b) 1 rad
(c) 2.5 rad
(d) 5 rad
Answer:
(c) 2.5 rad
From the equation of circular motion, ω = 0

Question 15.
In an isochoric process, find which is relevant among the following :
(a) ΔU = 0
(b) ΔT = 0
(c) W = 0
(d) Q = 0
Answer:
(c) W = 0

PART – II

Answer any six of the following questions. Q. No. 24 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Write any two errors of systematic errors. Explain them.
Answer:
Systematic errors: Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction. These occur often due to a problem that persists throughout the experiment. Systematic errors can be classified as follows.

1. Instrumental errors: When an instrument is not calibrated properly at the time of manufacture, instrumental errors may arise. If a measurement is made with a meter scale whose end is worn out, the result obtained will have errors. These errors can be corrected by choosing the instrument carefully.
2. Personal errors: These errors are due to individuals performing the experiment, maybe due to incorrect initial setting up of the experiment or carelessness of the individual making the observation due to improper precautions.

Question 17.
What is a projectile? Give two examples.
Answer:
Projectile: When an object is thrown in the air with some initial velocity and then allowed to move under the action of gravity alone, the object is known as a projectile.
Example:

• A bullet fired from a rifle.
• A ball is thrown in any direction

Question 18.
State Newton’s Second Law of Motion.
Answer:
The force acting on an object is equal to the rate of change of its momentum
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}=\frac{d \vec{p}}{d t}\)

Question 19.
A car takes a turn with the velocity 50 ms^-1 on a circular road of the radius of curvature
10 m. Calculate the centrifugal force experienced by a person of mass 60 kg inside the car.
Answer:
Given: Mass of a person = 60 kg
Velocity of the car = 50 ms^-1
Radius of curvature = 10 m
Centrifugal force
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{m \mathrm{V}^{2}}{r}=\frac{60 \times(50)^{2}}{10}=15,000 \mathrm{N}\)

Question 20.
Why is it more difficult to revolve a stone tied it to a longer string than a stone tied to a shorter string?
Answer:
MI of stone I = ml² (l = length of string) l is large, α is very small
\(\begin{array}{l}
\tau=I \alpha \\
\alpha=\frac{\tau}{I}=\frac{\tau}{m l^{2}}
\end{array}\)
if l is large α is very small.
∴ more difficult to revolve.

Question 21.
State Stefan-Boltzmann law and write its expression.
Answer:
Stefan Boltzmann law states that the total amount of heat radiated per second per unit area of a black body is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.
E ∝ T⁴ (or) E = σT⁴

Question 22.
List the factors affecting Brownian motion.
Answer:

1. Brownian motion increases with increasing temperature.
2. Brownian motion decreases with bigger particle size, high viscosity and density of the liquid (or) gas.

Question 23.
“Soldiers are not allowed to march on a bridge.” Give reason.
Answer:
While crossing a bridge, if the period of stepping on the ground by marching soldiers be equal to the natural frequency of the bridge, it may be thrown into resonance vibration and the vibrations may be so large that the bridge may collapse. Thus to avoid resonant vibration of the bridge. Soldiers are ordered to break steps.

Question 24.
The surface tension of a soap solution is 0.03 Nm^-1. How much work is done in producing soap bubble of radius 0.05 m?
Answer:
Surface area (∆s) = 4πr² = 4 × 3.14 × (0.05)²
∆s = 0.0314 m
No. of surface area of a soap bubble = 2 (outer and inner area)
Total surface energy (E) = 2T∆S = 2 × 0.03 × 0.0314
E = 0.0018 J

PART – III

Answer any six of the following questions. Q. No. 33 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What is the torque of the force \(\overrightarrow{\mathbf{F}}=3 \hat{i}-2 \hat{j}+4 \hat{k}\) acting at a point \(\vec{r}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+5 \hat{k}\) about the origin?
Answer:

Question 26.
What are the various types of friction? Suggest a few methods to reduce friction.
Answer:
There are two types of Friction:
(i) Static Friction: Static friction is the force which opposes the initiation of motion of an object on the surface. The magnitude of static frictional force fs lies between \(0 \leq f_{s} \leq \mu_{s} N\)
where, µ_s — coefficient of static friction
N — Normal force
(ii) Kinetic friction: The frictional force exerted by the surface when an object slides is called kinetic friction. Also called as sliding friction or dynamic friction,
f_k = µ_kN
where µ_k — the coefficient of kinetic friction
N — Normal force exerted by the surface on the object
Methods to reduce friction: Friction can be reduced

1. By using lubricants
2. By using Ball bearings
3. By polishing
4. By streamlining

Question 27.
A heavy body and a light body have the same momentum. Which one of them has more kinetic energy and why?
Answer:
Lighter body has more K.E. as K.E. = \(\frac{p^{2}}{2 m}\) and for constant p, K.E. ∝ \(\frac{1}{m}\).
The lighter body has more kinetic energy.

Question 28.
Find the rotational kinetic energy of a ring of mass 9 kg and radius 3 m rotating with 240 rpm about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane.
Answer:
The rotational kinetic energy is, KE = \frac{1}{2} \mathrm{I} \omega^{2}
The moment of inertia of the ring is, I = MR²
I = 9 × 3² = 9 × 9 = 81 kg m²
The angular speed of the ring is,

Question 29.
What do you mean by the term weightlessness? Explain the state of weightlessness of a freely falling body.
Answer:
When a man is standing in the elevator, there are two forces acting on him.
1. The gravitational force acts downward. If we take the vertical direction as positive y-direction, the gravitational force acting on the man is \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{\mathrm{G}}=-m g \hat{j}\)
2. The normal force exerted by the floor on the man which acts vertically upward, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{N}}=\mathrm{N} \hat{j}\)
The weightlessness of freely falling bodies: Freely falling objects experience only gravitational force. As they fall freely, they are not in contact with any surface (by neglecting air friction). The normal force acting on the object is zero. The downward acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to the gravity of the Earth, i.e., (a = g)
Newton’s 2nd law acting on the man N = m(g – a)
a = g
∴ N = w(g – g) = 0

Question 30.
Derive the expression for the terminal velocity of a sphere falling through a viscous liquid.
Answer:
The expression for terminal velocity: Consider a sphere of radius r which falls freely through a highly viscous liquid of coefficient of viscosity η. Let the density of the material of the sphere be ρ and the density of the fluid be σ.
The gravitational force acting on the sphere,



Here, it should be noted that the terminal speed of the sphere is directly proportional to the square of its radius. If σ is greater than ρ, then the term (ρ – σ) becomes negative leading to a negative terminal velocity.

Question 31.
Explain the linear expansion of solid.
Answer:
Linear Expansion: In solids, for a small change in temperature
ΔT, the fractional change in length to \(\left(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\right)\) is directly proportional to ΔT.

\(\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0}}=\alpha_{\mathrm{L}} \Delta \mathrm{T}\)
Therefore, \(\alpha_{\mathrm{L}}=\frac{\Delta \mathrm{L}}{\mathrm{L}_{0} \Delta \mathrm{T}}\)
Where, αL = coefficient of linear expansion, ΔL = Change in length, L = Original length, ΔT = Change in temperature.

Question 32.
Write down any six postulates of the kinetic theory of gases.
Answer:

1. All the molecules of a gas are identical, elastic spheres.
2. The molecules of different gases are different.
3. The number of molecules in a gas is very large and the average separation between them is larger than size of the gas molecules.
4. The molecules of a gas are in a state of continuous random motion.
5. The molecules collide with one another and also with the walls of the container.
6. These collisions are perfectly elastic so. that there is no loss of kinetic energy during .collisions.
7. Between two successive collisions, a molecule moves with uniform velocity.
8. The molecules do not exert any force of attraction or repulsion on each other except during collision. The molecules do not possess any potential energy and the energy is wholly kinetic.
9. The collisions are instantaneous. The time spent by a molecule in each collision is very small compared to the time elapsed between two consecutive collisions.
10. These molecules obey Newton’s laws of motion even though they move randomly.

Question 33.
Two waves of wavelength 99 cm and 100 cm both travelling with the velocity of 396 ms^-1 are made to interfere. Calculate the number of beats produced by them per sec.
Answer:
λ₁ = 99 cm = 0.99 m
λ₂ = 100 cm = 1 m
Velocity of sound waves in a gas is v = 396 ms^-1
Relation between wavelength and velocity, v = λ_f

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34(a).
Explain the principle of homogeneity of dimensions and derive an expression for the force F acting on a body moving in a circular path depending on the mass of the body (m), velocity (v) and radius (r) of the circular path. Obtain the expression for the force by the dimensional analysis method (take the value k = 1)
Answer:
The principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that the dimensions of all the terms in a physical expression should be the same. For example, in the physical expression v² = u² + 2as, the dimensions of v², u² and 2as are the same and equal to [L²T^-2].
F ∝ m^a v^b r^c
F = K m^a v^b r^c
Here K = 1
∴ F = m^a v^b r^c
Dimensionally, [MLT^-2] = [M]^a [LT^-1]^b [L]^c
Compare the power of M, L and T
a = 1 ….. (1)
b + c = 1 ….. (2)
-b = -2
b = 2 …… (3)
Sub (3) in (2) we get
b + c = 1
2 + c = 1
c = -1 …… (4)
Substitute a, b and c value in force equation
F = m^a v^b r^c = m v² r^-1
\(F=\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\)
This equation is known as centripetal force.
[OR]
Question 34(b).
State and prove Bernoulli’s theorem for a flow of incompressible, non-viscous, and streamlined flow of liquid.
Answer:
Bernoulli’s theorem: According to Bernoulli’s theorem, the sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy per unit mass of an incompressible, non-viscous fluid in a streamlined flow remains a constant.
Mathematically, \(\frac{P}{\rho}+\frac{1}{2} v^{2}+g h=\text { constant }\)
This is known as Bernoulli’s equation.

Proof: Let us consider a flow of liquid through a pipe AB. Let V be the volume of the liquid when it enters A in a time t which is equal to the volume of the liquid leaving B at the same time. Let aA, v_A and PA be the area of cross-section of the tube, the velocity of the liquid and pressure exerted by the liquid at A respectively.
Let the force exerted by the liquid at A is F_A = P_Aa_A
Distance travelled by the liquid in time t is d = v_At
Therefore, the work done is W = F_Ad = P_Aa_Av_At
But a_Av_At = a_Ad = V, the volume of the liquid entering at A.
Thus, the work done is the pressure energy (at A), W = F_Ad = P_AV
Pressure energy per unit volume at A = \(\frac{\rho_{\mathrm{A}}}{\rho_{\mathrm{B}}}=\frac{4}{3}\)
Pressure energy per unit mass at A = \(\frac{\text { Pressure energy }}{\text { Mass }}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{V}}{m}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\frac{m}{\mathrm{V}}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\rho}\)
Since m is the mass of the liquid entering at A in a given time, therefore, pressure energy of the liquid at A is \(\mathrm{E}_{\mathrm{PA}}=\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{V}=\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{V} \times\left(\frac{m}{m}\right)=m \frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{A}}}{\rho}\)
Potential energy of the liquid at A,
PE_A = mgh_A
Due to the flow of liquid, the kinetic energy of the liquid at A,
\(\mathrm{KE}_{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{1}{2} m v_{\mathrm{A}}^{2}\)
Therefore, the total energy due to the flow of liquid at A,
E_A = EP_A + KE_A + PE_A
\(E_{A}=m \frac{P_{A}}{\rho}+\frac{1}{2} m v_{A}^{2}+m g h_{A}\)
Similarly, let a_B, v_B and P_B be the area of cross section of the tube, velocity of the liquid and pressure exerted by the liquid at B. Calculating the total energy at E_B, we get

The above equation is the consequence of the conservation of energy which is true until there is no loss of energy due to friction. But in practice, some energy is lost due to friction. This arises due to the fact that in a fluid flow, the layers flowing with different velocities exert frictional forces on each other. This loss of energy is generally converted into heat energy. Therefore, Bernoulli’s relation is strictly valid for fluids with zero viscosity or non-viscous liquids. Notice that when the liquid flows through a horizontal ‘ pipe, then
\(h=0 \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{P}}{\rho g}+\frac{1}{2} \frac{v^{2}}{g}=\text { constant }\)

Question 35.
(a) Prove the law of conservation of momentum. Use it to find the recoil velocity of a gun when a bullet is fired from it.
Answer:
In nature, conservation laws play a very important role. The dynamics of motion of bodies can be analysed very effectively using conservation laws. There are three conservation laws in mechanics. Conservation of total energy, conservation of total linear momentum, and conservation of angular momentum. By combining Newton’s second and third laws, we can derive the law of conservation of total linear momentum.
When two particles interact with each other, they exert equal and opposite forces on each other. The particle 1 exerts force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) on particle 2 and particle 2 exerts an exactly equal and opposite force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) on particle 1 according to Newton’s third law.
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}=-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}\) ….. (1)
In terms of momentum of particles, the force on each particle (Newton’s second law) can be written as
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{p_{1}}}{d t} \text { and } \overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}=\frac{d \overrightarrow{p_{2}}}{d t}\)
Here \(\vec{p}_{1}\) is the momentum of particle 1 which changes due to the force \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{12}}\) exerted by particle 2. Further \(\vec{p}_{2}\) is the momentum of particle 2. This changes due to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}_{21}}\) exerted by particle 1.
Substitute equation (2) in equation (1)

It implies that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) = constant vector (always).
\(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) is the total linear momentum of the two particles (\(\overrightarrow{p_{\text {tot}}}=\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\)). It is also called as total linear momentum of the system. Here, the two particles constitute the system. From this result, the law of conservation of linear momentum can be stated as follows.
If there are no external forces acting on the system, then the total linear momentum of the system (\(\vec{P}_{t o t}\)) is always a constant vector. In otherwords, the total linear momentum of the system is conserved in time. Here the word ‘conserve’ means that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) can vary, in such a way that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}}+\overrightarrow{p_{2}}\) is a constant vector.
The forces \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{12}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{21}\) are called the internal forces of the system, because they act only between the two particles. There is no external force acting on the two particles from outside. In such a case the total linear momentum of the system is a constant vector or is conserved.
Meaning of law of conservation of momentum:
1. The Law of conservation of linear momentum is a vector; law. It implies that both the magnitude and direction of total linear momentum are constant. In some cases, this total momentum can also be zero.
2. To analyse the motion of a particle, we can either use Newton’s second law or the law of conservation of linear momentum. Newton’s second law requires us to specify the forces involved in the process. This is difficult to specify in real situations. But conservation of linear momentum does not require any force involved in the process. It is convenient and hence important.
For example, when two particles collide, the forces exerted by these two particles on each other is difficult to specify. But it is easier to apply conservation of linear momentum during the collision process.
Examples:
Consider the firing of a gun. Here the system is Gun+bullet. Initially, the gun and bullet are at rest, hence the total linear momentum of the system is zero. Let \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}_{1}\) be the momentum of the bullet and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{P}}_{2}\) be the momentum of the gun before firing. Since initially both are at rest,

Total momentum before firing the gun is zero, \(\vec{p}_{1}+\vec{p}_{2}=0\)
According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, total linear momentum has to be zero after the firing also.
When the gun is fired, a force is exerted by the gun on the bulletin forward direction. Now the momentum of the bullet changes from \(\vec{p}_{1}+\vec{p}_{1}^{\prime}\). To conserve the total linear momentum of the system, the momentum of the gun must also change from \(\vec{p}_{2}\) to \(\vec{p}_{2}\)‘ Due to the conservation of linear momentum, \(\vec{p}_{1}^{\prime}+\vec{p}_{2}^{\prime}=0\). It implies that \(\overrightarrow{p_{1}^{\prime}}=-\vec{p}_{2}\) the momentum of the gun is exactly equal, but in the opposite direction to the momentum of the bullet. This is the reason after firing, the gun suddenly moves backwards with the momentum (-\vec{p}_{2}). It is called ‘recoil momentum’. This is an example of conservation of total linear momentum.
[OR]
Question 35(b).
State and prove parallel axis theorem.
Answer:
Parallel axis theorem: Parallel axis theorem states that the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of its. moment of inertia about a parallel axis through its centre of mass and the product of the mass of the body and the square of the perpendicular distance between the two axes.
If I_C is the moment of inertia of the body of mass M about an axis passing through the centre of mass, then the moment of inertia I about a parallel axis at a distance d from it is given by the relation,
I = I_C + Md²
Let us consider a rigid body as shown in the figure. Its moment of inertia about an axis AB passing through the center of mass is IC. DE is another axis parallel to AB at a perpendicular distance d from AB. The moment of inertia of the body about DE is I. We attempt to get an expression for I in terms of I_C. For this, let us consider a point mass m on the body at position x from its centre of mass.
The moment of inertia of the point mass about the axis DE is, m (x + d)². The moment of inertia I of the whole body about DE is the summation of the above expression.

Question 36(a).
What is an elastic collision? Derive an expression for final velocities of two bodies which undergo elastic collision in one dimension.
Answer:
Elastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before the collision) is not equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as inelastic collision, i.e.,
Consider two elastic bodies of masses m₁ and m₂ moving in a straight line (along positive x-direction) on a frictionless horizontal surface as shown in the figure.

In order to have a collision, we assume that the mass m1 moves faster than mass m2 i.e., u1 > u2. For elastic collision, the total linear momentum and kinetic energies of the two bodies before and after a collision must remain the same.
From the law of conservation of linear momentum,
Total momentum before collision (p_i) = Total momentum after collision (p_f)

This means that for any elastic head-on collision, the relative speed of the two elastic bodies after the collision has the same magnitude as before collision but in opposite direction. Further note that this result is independent of mass.
Rewriting the above equation for v1 and v2,
v₁ = v₁₂ + u₂ – u₁ ……… (6)
(or) v₂ = u₁ + v₁ – u₂ ……. (7)
To find the final velocities v₁ and v₂:
Substituting equation (7) in equation (2) gives the velocity of m₁ as

The equations (10) and (11) show that in a one-dimensional elastic collision when two bodies of equal mass collide after the collision their velocities are exchanged.
Case 2: When bodies have the same mass i.e., m₁ = m₂ and second body (usually called target) is at rest (u₂ = 0),
By substituting m₁m₂ = 0 and u₂ = 0 in equations (8) and equations (9) we get,
from equation (8) ⇒ v₁ = 0 ………(12)
from equation (9) ⇒ v₂ = u₁ ………(13)
Equations (12) and (13) show that when the first body comes to rest the second body moves with the initial velocity of the first body.
Case 3: The first body is very much lighter than the second body \(\left(m_{1}<<m_{2}, \frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}}<<1\right)\) then the ratio \(\frac{m_{1}}{m_{2}} \approx 0\) and also if the target is at rest (u₂ = 0)
Dividing numerator and denominator of equation (8) by m₂, we get

[OR]
Question 36(b).
How will you determine the velocity of sound using resonance air column apparatus?
Answer:
Resonance air column apparatus: The resonance air column apparatus and first, second and third resonance The resonance air column apparatus is one of the simplest techniques to measure the speed of sound in air at room temperature. It consists of a cylindrical glass tube of one-meter length whose one end A is open and another end B is connected to the water reservoir R through a rubber tube as shown in the figure. This cylindrical glass tube is mounted on a vertical stand with a scale attached to it. The tube is partially filled with water and the water level can be adjusted by raising or lowering the water in the reservoir R. The surface of the water will act as a closed-end and other as the open end. Therefore, it behaves like a closed organ pipe, forming nodes at the surface of water and antinodes at the closed end. When a vibrating tuning fork is brought near the open end of the tube, longitudinal waves are formed inside the air column. These waves move downward as shown in Figure, and reach the surfaces of water and get reflected and produce standing waves.

The length of the air column is varied by changing the water level until a loud sound is produced in the air column. At this particular length, the frequency of waves in the air column resonates with the frequency of the tuning fork (natural frequency of the tuning fork). At resonance, the frequency of sound waves produced is equal to the frequency of the tuning fork. This will occur only when the length of the air column is \(\left(\frac{1}{4}\right)^{t h}\) of the wavelength of the sound waves produced. Let the first resonance occur at length L1, then \(\frac{1}{4} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{1}\) ……… (1)
But since the antinodes are not exactly formed at the open end, we have to include a correction, called end correction e, by assuming that the antinode is formed at some small distance above the open end. Including this end correction, the first resonance is
\(\frac{1}{4} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{1}+e\) …….. (2)

Now the length of the air column is increased to get the second resonance. Let L₂ be the length at which the second resonance occurs. Again taking end correction into account, we have
\(\frac{3}{4} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{2}+e\) ……(3)
In order to avoid end correction, let us take the difference of equation (3) and equation (2)
\(\frac{3}{4} \lambda-\frac{1}{4} \lambda=\left(\mathrm{L}_{2}+e\right)-\left(\mathrm{L}_{1}+e\right) \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2} \lambda=\mathrm{L}_{2}-\mathrm{L}_{1}=\Delta \mathrm{L} \Rightarrow \lambda=2 \Delta \mathrm{L}\)
The speed of the sound in air at room temperature can be computed by using the formula
v = fλ = 2f∆L
Further, to compute the end correction, we use equation (2) and equation (3), we get
\(e=\frac{L_{2}-3 L_{1}}{2}\)

Question 37(a).
Derive Mayer’s relation for an ideal gas.
Answer:
Mayer’s relation: Consider µ mole of an ideal gas in a container with volume V, pressure P and temperature T.
When the gas is heated at the constant volume the temperature increases by dT. As no work is done by the gas, the heat that flows into the system will increase only the internal energy. Let the change in internal energy be dU.
If Cv is the molar specific heat capacity at constant volume, from the equation.
\(C_{V}=\frac{1}{\mu} \frac{d U}{d T}\) ………. (1)
dU = µC_VdT ……. (2)
Suppose the gas is heated at constant pressure so that the temperature increases by dT. If ‘Q’ is the heat supplied in this process and ‘dV’ the change in volume of the gas.
Q = µC_PdT …….(3)
If W is the workdone by the gas in this process, then
W = PdV …….. (4)
But from the first law of thermodynamics,
Q = dU + W ……….(5)
Substituting equations (2), (3) and (4) in (5), we get,
µC_PdT = µC_VdT + PdV
For mole of ideal gas, the equation of state is given by .
PV = µRT ⇒ PdV + VdP = µR_dT
Since the pressure is constant, dP = 0
C_PdT = C_VdT +R_dT
C_P = C_V + R (or) CP – CV = R ……(6)
This relation is called Mayer’s relation It implies that the molar specific heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant pressure is greater than molar specific heat capacity at constant volume. The relation shows that specific heat at constant pressure (s_P) is always greater than specific heat at constant volume (s_V).
[OR]
Question 37(b).
Explain the horizontal oscillations of a spring.
Answer:
Horizontal oscillations of a spring-mass system: Consider a system containing a block of mass m attached to a massless spring with stiffness constant or force constant or spring constant it placed on a smooth horizontal surface (frictionless surface) as shown in the figure. Let x0 be the equilibrium position or mean position of mass m when it is left undisturbed. Suppose the mass is displaced through a small displacement x towards right from its equilibrium position and then released, it will oscillate back and forth about its mean position x⁰. Let F be the restoring force (due to stretching of the spring) which is proportional to the amount of displacement of the block. For one dimensional motion, mathematically, we have
F ∝ x
F = -kx ….. (1)
where negative sign implies that the restoring force will always act opposite to the direction of the displacement. This equation is called Hooke’s law. Notice that, the restoring force is linear with the displacement (i.e., the exponent of force and displacement are unity). This is not always true; in case if we apply a very large stretching force, then the amplitude of oscillations becomes very large (which means, force is proportional to displacement containing higher powers of x) and therefore, the oscillation of the system is not linear and hence, it is called non-linear oscillation. We restrict ourselves only to linear oscillations throughout our discussions, which means Hooke’s law is valid (force and displacement have a linear relationship).
From Newton’s second law, we can write the equation for the particle executing simple harmonic motion
\(m \frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}=-k x\) …….. (1)
\(\frac{d^{2} x}{d t^{2}}=-\frac{k}{m} x\) ……. (2)
Comparing the equation with simple harmonic motion equation, we get
\(\omega^{2}=\frac{k}{m}\) ……. (3)
which means the angular frequency or natural frequency of the oscillator is
\(\omega=\sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} \mathrm{rad} \mathrm{s}^{-1}\) ……. (4)
The frequency of the oscillation is
\(f=\frac{\omega}{2 \pi}=\frac{1}{2 \pi} \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} \text { Hertz }\) …… (5)
and the time period of the oscillation is
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{1}{f}=2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m}{k}} \text { seconds }\) ……. (6)

Question 38.
(a) (i) Write down the equation of a freely falling body under gravity.
(ii) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with the speed of 19.6 ms-1 from the top of a building and reaches the earth in 6s. Find the height of the building.
Answer:
(i) Distance d traveled by an object falling for time ‘t’, u = 0; s = d; a = g
\(\begin{array}{l}
s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2} \\
d=\frac{1}{2} g t^{2}
\end{array}\)
Time ‘t’ taken for an object to fall distance ‘d’
\(t=\sqrt{\frac{2 d}{g}}\)
Instantaneous velocity v_i of a falling object after elapsed time ‘t’
v_i = gt
Instantaneous velocity v_i of a falling object that has traveled distance ‘d’
\(v_{i}=\sqrt{2 g d}\)
(ii) u = -19.6 ms^-1
a = 9.8 ms^-2
t = 6 sec
height of the building,
\(\begin{aligned}
s &=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2} \\
&=(-19.6 \times 6)+\frac{1}{2}(9.8)(6)^{2}=-117.6+176.4 \\
s &=58.8 \mathrm{m}
\end{aligned}\)
[OR]
Question 38(b).
(i) Define orbital velocity and establish an expression for it.
(ii) Calculate the value of orbital velocity for an artificial satellite of earth orbiting at a height of 1000 km (Mass of the earth = 6 × 10²⁴ kg, radius of the earth = 64000 km).
Answer:
(i) Orbital velocity:
Orbital velocity is the velocity given to artificial satellite so that it may start revolving around the earth.
Expression for orbital velocity:
Consider a satellite of mass ‘m’ is revolving around the earth in a circular orbit of radius ‘r’, at a height ‘h’ from the surface of the earth.
Let ‘M’ be the mass of the earth and ‘R’ be the radius of the earth.
Therefore, r = R + h
The centripetal force that is required to revolve the satellite = \(\frac{m v_{0}^{2}}{r}\)
where, V0 is orbital velocity
Orbital velocity is produced by the gravitational force b/w the earth and the satellite = \(\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}}\)


This is the expression for the orbital velocity.
(ii) Mass of the earth M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg
The radius of the earth R = 64000 km
The height of the artificial satellite from the earth (h) = 1000 km
Gravitational constant, (G) = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm^-2 kg^-2

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The process of reasoning from particular to general is ………………….
(a) Deductive method
(b) Inductive method
(c) Positive Economics
(d) Normative Economics
Answer:
(b) Inductive method

Question 2.
The relationship between the price of a commodity and the supply of commodity is ………………….
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) zero
(d) increase
Answer:
(b) positive

Question 3.
Growth definition takes into account:
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic frame work of Economics
(b) The problem of unlimited means in relation to wants
(c) The production and distribution of wealth
(d) The material welfare of human beings.
Answer:
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic frame work of Economics

Question 4.
Primary Institution is ………………….
(a) village
(b) cities
(c) both a & b
(d) urban
Answer:
(a) village

Question 5.
Density of population = ………………….
(a) Land area / Total Population
(b) Land area / Employment
(c) Total Population / Land area of the region
(d) Total Population / Employment
Answer:
(c) Total Population / Land area of the region

Question 6.
The Planning Commission was setup in the year ………………….
(a)1950
(b)1955
(c)1960
(d) 1952
Answer:
(a)1950

Question 7.
The arrival of Vasco-da Gama in Calicut, India ………………….
(a) 1498
(b) 1948
(c) 1689
(d) 1849
Answer:
(a) 1498

Question 8.
If x + y = 5, x – y = 3 then value of x = ………………….
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 16
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 9.
The first known writer to apply mathematical method to economic problems was ………………….
(a) Cramer
(b) William Petty
(c) Giovanni Ceva
(d) Italian
Answer:
(c) Giovanni Ceva

Question 10.
Another name of price is ………………….
(a) Average Revenue
(b) Marginal Revenue
(c) Total Revenue
(d) Average cost
Answer:
(a) Average Revenue

Question 11.
Micro Economics is concerned with ………………….
(a) the economy as a whole
(b) different sectors of an economy
(c) the study of individual economic units behaviour
(d) the interactions with in the entire economy
Answer:
(c) the study of individual economic units behaviour

Question 12.
“ An Indian farmer is bom in debt, lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt”-who said this?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Gandhi
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling
Answer:
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling

Question 13.
Formula for calculating AP is ………………….
(a) ∆TP/N
(b) ∆TP/AN
(c) TP/MP
(d) TP/N
Answer:
(d) TP/N

Question 14.
Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank?
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c)2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 15.
Identify the cause for rural indebtedness in India.
(a) Poverty
(b) High population
(c) High productivity
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Poverty

Question 16.
The indifference are ………………….
(a) vertical
(b) horizontal
(c) positive sloped
(d) negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) negatively sloped

Question 17.
The functional relationship between “inputs” and “outputs” is called as ………………….
(a) Consumption Function
(b) Production Function
(c) Savings Function
(d) Investment Function
Answer:
(b) Production Function

Question 18.
Identify the agriculture related problem of rural economy.
(a) Poor communication
(b) Small size of landholding
(c) Rural poverty
(d) Poor banking network
Answer:
(b) Small size of landholding

Question 19.
The primary factors of production are ………………….
(a) labour and organisation
(b) labour and capital
(c) Land and capital
(d) land and labour
Answer:
(d) land and labour

Question 20.
Profit is the reward for ………………….
(a) land
(b) organization
(c) capital
(d) labour
Answer:
(b) organization

Part – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Name any two types of utility.
Answer:

1. Time Utility: A sick man derives time utility from blood not at the time of its donation, but only at the operation-time, i.e., when it is used.
2. Place Utility: A student derives place utility from a book not at the place of its publication (production centre) but only at the place of his education (consumption centre).

Question 22.
State the meaning of Special Economic Zones.
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] policy was announced in April 2000.
• As per the Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.
• The SEZ deprives the farmers of their land and livelihood, it is harmful to agriculture.
• To promote export and Industrial growth in line with globalization the SEZ was introduced in many countries.

Question 23.
Distinguish between real and money wages.
Answer:

Money Wages :

1. Money wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Depend upon the standard of living workers in a country.

Real Wages :

1. Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services.
2. Depend upon the purchasing power of money.

Question 24.
Define GSDP.
Answer:

• The Gross State Domestic Product refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
• Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in India with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016-2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.

Question 25.
What is the heritage tourism?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has since ancient past been a hub for tourism.
• In recent years, the state has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
• Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
• The State currently ranks the highest among Indian States with about 25 crore arrivals (in 2013). Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the state.

Question 26.
Classify the factors of production.
(a) Land (b) Labour (c) Capital and (d) Organisation
Answer:
(a) Land: In Economics, land means all gifts of Nature owned and controlled by human beings which yield an income.
(b) Labour: Labour means manual labour or unskilled work.
(c) Capital: “Capital consists of all kinds of wealth other than free gifts of nature, which yield income”. Bohm-Bawerk defines it as ‘a produced means of production’.
(d) Organisation: The man behind organizing the business is called as ‘Organizer’ or ‘Entrepreneur’.

Question 27.
What do you mean by Micro Finance?
Answer:

• Micro Finance also known as Micro credit is a financial service that offers loans, savings and insurance to entrepreneurs and small business owners who do not have access to traditional sources of capital like banks or investors.
• The goal of micro financing is to provide individuals with money to invest in themselves or their business.
• Micro finance is available through micro finance institutions, which range from small non-profit organisations to larger banks.

Question 28.
Define Cost.
Answer:
Cost refers to the total expenses incurred in the production of a commodity. Cost analysis refers to the study of beheriour of cost in relation to one or more production criteria namely size of output, scale of production prices of factors and other economic variables.

Question 29.
What are the major ports in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore, and Thoothkudi as well as one intermediate port in Nagpattinam, and 23 minor ports.
• All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
• Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 30.
Define Micro Industry.
Answer:

• Micro, small and medium Enterprises are MSMEs produce a wide variety of products in almost all sectors.
• The prominent among them are the engineering, electrical, chemicals, plastics, steel, paper, matches, textiles, hosiery and garments sector.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What is GST advantages?
Answer:

• GST – Goods and Services Tax. GST is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
• Removing cascading tax effect
• Single point tax
• Higher threshold for registration
• Composition scheme for small business
• Online simpler procedure under GST
• Defined treatment for e-commerce .
• Increased efficiency in logistics .
• Regulating the unorganized sector

Question 32.
Mention the Functions of APMC.
Answer:
The Agriculture Produce Market Committee [APMC] Act 2003, the Agricultural Produce Market Committee [AMPC] is a statutory body constituted by State Government in order to trade in agricultural or horticultural or livestock products.

Functions of APMC:

• To promote public private partnership in the ambit of agricultural markets.
• To provide market led extension services to farmer.
• To bring transparency in pricing system and transactions taking place in market in a transparent manner.
• To ensure payments to the farmers for the sale of agricultural produce on the same day.
• To promote agricultural activities. ‘
• To display data on arrivals and rates of agricultural produce from time to time into the market.

Question 33.
Define Economic Development.
Answer:

• The economic development is indicated not just by GDP, but by an increase in citizen’s quality of life or well being.
• The quality of life is being assessed by several indices such as Human Developments Index [HDI]
• On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.
• Developed economies are those countries which are industrialized.
• Developments economics are also termed as advanced countries.
• On the other hand, countries which have not fully utilized their resources like land, mines, workers, etc. and have low per capita income are termed as under developed economics.

Question 34.
Explain the prospect for development of tourism.
Answer:

• Tourism in Tamil Nadu is promoted by Tamil Nadu Tourism Development Corporation (TTDC), a Government of Tamil Nadu undertaking.
• Tamil Nadu has since ancient past been a hub for tourism. In recent years, the state has emerged as one of the leading tourist destinations for both domestic and foreign tourists.
• The state currently ranks the highest among Indian states with about 25 crore arrivals in 2013.
• Approximately 28 lakh foreign and 11 crore domestic tourists visit the State.

Tourist arrival in India 2016

Question 35.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility.
Answer:
Marginal utility :

1. Marginal utility goes-on diminishing.
2. Marginal utility becomes zero.
3. Marginal utility becomes negative.

Total utility:

1. Total utility goes on Increasing.
2. Total utility maximum.
3. Total utility diminishes.

Question 36.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics.
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

• Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
• Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
• Mathematical Methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
• Mathematical Methods help to quantity the impact dr effect of any economic activity implemented by Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 37.
State the features of Duopoly.
Answer:

• Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
• Both sellers may collude, (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
• They may enter into cut-throat competition.
• There is no perfect differentiation.
• They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

Question 38.
State Ambedkar’s Economic ideas on agricultural economics.
Answer:
In the 1918, Ambedkar published a paper “Small Holding in India and their Remedies”. Citing Adam Smith’s “Wealth of Nations”, he made a fine distinction between “Consolidation of Holdings” and Enlargement of Holdings”.

Question 39.
Write the VKRV Rao’s contribution on multiplier concept.
Answer:

• VKRV Rao’s examination of the “Interrelation between investment, income and multiplier is an under developed economy” [1952] was his major contribution to macroeconofnic theory.
• Asa thinker, teacher, economic adviser and direct policy maker, VKRV Rao followed the footstep of his great teacher, John Maynard Keynes.

Question 40.
Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = 72/9
.’. x = 8

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs.
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
• The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business) ‘
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• Geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

[OR]

(b) The features of Rural Economy are peculiar – Argue.
Answer:
Features of Rural Economy:

• Village is an Institution: The village is a Primary Institution and it satisfies almost all the needs of the rural community. The rural people have a feeling of belongingness and a sense of unity towards each other.
• Dependence on Agriculture: The rural economy depends much on nature and agricultural
  activities. Agriculture and allied activities are the main occupation in rural areas.
• Life of Rural people: Lifestyles in villages are very simple. Public services like education, housing, health and sanitation, transport and communication, banking, roads and markets are limited and unavailable. The standards of living of majority of rural people are poor and pitiable. In terms of methods of production, social organization and political mobilization, rural sector is extremely backward and weak.
•  Population Density: Population density, measured by number of persons living per sq.km is very low and houses are scattered in the entire villages.
• Employment: There exists unemployment, seasonal unemployment and under employment in rural areas.
• Poverty: Poverty is a condition where the basic needs of the people like food, clothing and shelter are not being met.
• Indebtedness: People in rural areas are highly indebted owing to poverty and underemployment, lack of farm and non – farm employment opportunities, low wage employment, seasonality in production, poor marketing network etc.
• Rural Income: The Income of the rural people is constrained as the rural economy is not sufficiently vibrant to provide them.
• Dependency: Rural households are largely dependent on social grants and remittances from family members working in urban areas and cities.
• Dualism: Dualism means the co-existence of two extremely different features like developed and under developed. These characteristics are very common in rural areas.
• Inequality: The distributions of income, wealth and assets are highly skewed among rural people. Land, livestock and other assets are owned by a few people.
• Migration: Rural people are forced to migrate from villages to urban areas in order to seek gainful employment for their livelihood.

Question 42.
(a) What are the characteristics of labour?
Answer:

• Labour is the animate factor of production.
• Labour is an active factor of production.
• Labour implies several types. It may be manual [farmer] or intellectual [teacher, lawyer etc]
• Labour is perishable.
• Labour is inseparable from the labourer.
• Labour is less mobile between places and occupations.
• Labour is a means as well as an end. It is both the cause of production and consumer of the product.
• Labour units are heterogeneous.
• Labour differs in ability.
• Labour – supply determines its reward [wage]
• Labour has weak bargaining power.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Keynesian theory of Interest.
Answer:

• Keynes’ Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest or The monetary Theory of Interest
• Keynes propounded the Liquidity Preference Theory of Interest in his famous book,
  “ The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money “in 1936.
• According to Keynes, interest is purely a monetary phenomenon because the rate of interest is calculated in terms of money.
• “Interest is the reward for parting with liquidity for a specified period of time”.

Meaning of Liquidity Preference:

• Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
• “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an amount of cash rather than of claims against others”. – Meyer.

Motives of Demand for Money:
According to Keynes, there are three motives for liquidity preferences. They are:

1. The Transaction Motive: –

The transaction motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash for the current transactions [or-day-to-day expenses] M( = f(y)

2. The Precautionary Motive :

• The precautionary motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash to meet unexpected or unforeseen expenditures such as sickness, accidents, fire and theft.
• The amount saved for this motive also depends on the level of Income M_p = f(y).

3. The Speculative Motive:

• The speculative motive relates to the desire of the people to hold cash in order to take advantage of market movements regarding the future changes in the price of bonds and securities in the capital market. M = f(i)
• There is inverse relation between liquidity preference and rate of interest.

Question 43.
(a) Write a short note on Total Revenue.
Answer:
Total revenue is the amount of income received by the firm from the sale of its products. It is obtained by multiplying the price of the commodity by the number of units sold.

TR = P x Q
where, TR denotes Total Revenue, P denotes Price and Q denotes Quantity sold.

For example, a cell-phone company sold 100 cell-phones at the price of ₹ 500 each.
TR is ₹ 50,000.
(TR = 500 × 100 = 50,000).

When price is constant, the behaviour of TR is shown in the above table and diagram, assuming P = 5.
When P = 5; TR = PQ
When price is declining with increase in quantity sold. (e.g. Imperfect Competition on the goods market) the behaviour of TR is shown in the following table and diagram. TR can be
obtained from Demand function : If Q = 11 – p, when P = 1 Q = 10

TR = PQ = 1 x 10= 10
When P = 3, Q = 8, TR = 24
When P = 0, Q = 1, TR = 10

[OR]

(b) Explain price and output determined under monopolistic competition with help of diagram.
Answer:
Price and output Determination under Monopolistic competition:
The firm under monopolistic competition achieves its equilibrium when it’s MC = MR, and when its MC curve cuts its MR curve from below. If MC is less than MR, the sellers will find it profitable to expand their output.

Under Monopolistic Competition:

1. The demand curve is downwards sloping.
2. There are close substitutes.
3. The demand curve is fairly elastic.

Under monopolistic competition, different firms produce different varieties of the product and sell them at different prices.
Each firm under monopolistic competition seeks to achieve equilibrium as regards.

1. Price and output
2. Product adjustment
3. Selling cost adjustment.

Short-run equilibrium:
The profit maximisation is achieved when MC = MR.
‘OM’ is the equilibrium output. ‘OP’ is the equilibrium price. The total revenue is ‘OMQP’. And the total cost is ‘OMRS’.
Therefore, total profit is ‘PQRS’. This is super normal profit under short-run. But under differing revenue and cost conditions, the monopolistically competitive firms many incur loss.

As shown in the diagram, the AR and MR curves are fairly elastic. The equilibrium situation occurs at point ‘E’,
where MC = MR
and MC cuts MR from below.

The equilibrium output is OM and the equilibrium price is OR The total revenue of the firm is ‘OMQP’ and the total cost of the firm is ‘OMLK’ and thus the total loss is ‘PQLK’. This firm incurs loss in the short run.

Long-Run Equilibrium of the Firm and the Group Equilibrium.
In the short run a firm under monopolistic competition may earn super normal profit or incur loss. But in the long run, the entry of the new firms in the industry will wipe out the super normal profit earned by the existing firms. The entry of new firms and exit of loss making firms will result in normal profit for the firms in the industry.

In the long run AR curve is more elastic or flatter, because plenty’ of substitutes are available.
Hence, the firms will earn only normal profit.

Question 44.
(a) State the Cobb – Douglas production function.
Answer:
The Cobb-Douglas Production Function was developed by Charles W. Cobb and Paul H. Douglas, based on their empirical study of American manufacturing industry’. It is a linear homogeneous production function which implies that the factors of production can be substituted for one another up to a certain extent only.
The Cobb-Douglas production function can be expressed as follows.
Q = AL^αK^β

Where, Q = output; A = positive constant; K = capital; L = Labor a and (3 are positive fractions showing, the elasticity coefficients of outputs for the inputs labor and capital, respectively.
β = (1 – α) since α + β = 1. denoting constant returns to scale.

Factor intensity can be measured by the ratio β / α.
The sum of α + β shows the returns to scale.
(i) (α + β) = 1, constant returns to scale. ‘
(ii) (α + β) < 1, diminishing returns to scale. (iii) (α + β) > 1, increasing returns to scale.

• The production function explains that with the proportionate increase in the factors, the output also increases in the same proportion.
• Cobb-Douglas production function implies constant returns to scale.
• Cobb-Douglas Production Function is a specific standard equation applied to describe how much output can be made with capital and labour inputs.

[OR]

(b) Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development.
Answer:
Assumptions of Simple Income Determination:

• Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
• He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(i) Democracy and Secularism:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
• He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
• Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(ii) Planning:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
• He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on an self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
• Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
• It was during is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
• Nehru always in insited on “ scientific temper”.

Question 45.
(a) Discuss about the Indian economy during British Period.
Answer:
Indian Economy during the British period:

• India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vascoda Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
• The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
• In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
• In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
• Hundred years after Battle of Plassey, the rule ofthe East India Company finally did come to an end.
• In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
• Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
• Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.
• On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:

1. The period of merchant Capital
2. The period of Industrial Capital
3. The period of Finance Capital

[OR]

(b) Describe the Achievement of the Green Revolution.
Answer:
Achievement of the Green Revolution:

• The major achievement of the new strategy was to boost the production of major cereals viz., wheat and rice.
• The Green Revolution was confined only to High Yielding Varieties [HYV] cereals, mainly rice, wheat, maize and jowar.
• This strategy was mainly directed to increase the production of commercial crops or cash crops such as sugarcane, cotton, jute oilseeds and potatoes.
• Per hectare productivity of all crops had increased due to better seeds.
• Green Revolution had positive effect on development of Industries, which manufactured agricultural tools like tractors, engines, threshers and pumping sets.
• Green Revolution had bought prosperity to rural people.
• Increased production had generated employment opportunities for rural masses.
• Due to multiple cropping and more use of chemical fertilizers, the demand for labour increased.
• Financial resources were provided by banks and co-operative societies.
• These banks provided loans to farmer on easy terms.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the “Abolition of MRTP Act”.
Answer:

• The New Industrial policy of 1991 has abolished the Monopoly and Restrictive Trade Practices Act 1969.
• In 2010, the competition commission has emerged as the watchdog in monitoring competitive practices in the economy.
• The policy caused big changes including emergence of a strong and competitive private sector and a sizable number of foreign companies in India.

[OR]

(b) What are the limitations of “LPG”.
Answer:

Liberalization measures, when effectively enforced, favour an unrestricted entry offoreign companies in the domestic economy. Such an entry prevents the growth of the local manufacturers.

Privatization measures favour the continuance of the monopoly power. Only the powerful people can sustain in business markets. Social justice cannot be easily established and maintained. As a result, the disparities tend to widen among people and among regions.

As globalization measures tend to integrate all economies of the world and bringing them all under one umbrella; they pave the way for redistribution of economic power at the world level. Only the already well developed countries are favoured in this process and the welfare of the less developed countries will be neglected. The economic crisis of the developed countries are easily spread to the developing economies through trade.

Question 47.
(a) Compare and contrast various definitions of economics.
Answer:
1. Adam Smith’s wealth definition:

• Adam Smith [1723-1790] in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of ‘ Nations” [ 1776] \ defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
• He-explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
• He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
• Adam Smith favours the introduction of “division of labour” to increase the quantum of output.
• Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
• Supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the •lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall welfare definition:

• Alfred Marshall [1842-1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
• It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well being.
• Thus , it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

• Economics does not treat wealth as the be-all and end-all of economic activities.
• Man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth.
• The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get maximum monetary benefit.
• Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

• Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
• According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

• Ends refer to human wants, human beings have unlimited number of wants.
• On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are
  limited or scarce in supply.
• The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
• An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
• Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice.

4. Samuelson’s -growth definition:

Paul Samuelson defines economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.

The major implications of this definition are as follows:

• Samuelson’s makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution and consumption.
• Samuelson treats economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

[OR]

(b) Explain the law of Equi-marginal utility.
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

• The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
• The law of equi – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumer more than one commodity.
• Wants are unlimited but the income which is available are limited.
• This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
• Law of Equi – Marginal Utility is also known as the law of substitution.
• “The law of consumer’s equilibrium ”
• “Gossen’s second law ” and “ The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definition:
Marshall states the law as ,“ If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumption:

• The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
• The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
• The marginal utility of money remains constant. . .
• The income of the consumer is given.
• There is perfect competition in the market.
• The prices of the commodities are given.
• The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This law can be illustrated with the help of table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹ 11. He wants to spend this entire income i.e. ₹ 11] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an orange is ₹ 1 each.

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities.

Diagrammatic Illustration:

• In the diagram, X – axis represents the amount of money spent and Y axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.
• If the consumer spends ₹ 6 on Apple and ₹ 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ = BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility.

Criticisms:

• In practice, utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
• This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Who defined “Economics as the Science of Wealth”?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Paul A. Samuelson
(c) Max Muller
(d) Adam Smith
Answer:
(d) Adam Smith

Question 2.
Utility means ________.
(a) Total value of commodity
(b) Desire for goods and services
(c) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are equal
(d) Want satisfying capacity of goods and services
Answer:
(d) Want satisfying capacity of goods and services

Question 3.
Given the consumer’s surplus is ₹ 75 and the actual price is ₹ 372, find the potential price.
(a) 447
(b) 50
(c) 375
(d) 474
Answer:
(a) 447

Question 4.
Which factor is called the changing agent of the society?
(a) Organizer
(b) Capital
(c) Labour
(d) Land
Answer:
(a) Organizer

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of land?
(a) Heterogeneous
(b) Gift of Nature
(c) Its limited supply
(d) It is mobile
Answer:
(d) It is mobile

Question 6.
α + β = 1 refers _______.
(a) Increasing returns to scale
(b) Constant returns to scale
(c) Diminishing returns to scale
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Constant returns to scale

Question 7.
Formula for estimating average variable cost.
(a) TFC/Q
(b) TAC/Q
(c) TC/Q
(d) TVC/Q
Answer:
(d) TVC/Q

Question 8.
Match the following:

Answer:
(b) (1) – (iv), (2) – (1), (3) – (ii), (4) – (iii)

Question 9.
The concept of imperfect competition was propounded by _________.
(a) J.M. Keynes
(b) Irving Fisher
(c) Marshall
(d) Joan Robinson
Answer:
(d) Joan Robinson

Question 10.
Identify the wrong statement about the features of Duopoly.
(a) There is product differentiation.
(b) They fix the price for their product to maximise their profit.
(c) Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
(d) Both sellers may collude regarding the sale of commodity.
Answer:
(a) There is product differentiation.

Question 11.
“Wages is a sum of money paid under contract by an employer to a worker for the services rendered.” – Who said this statement?
(a) Walker
(b) Marshall
(c) Ricardo
(d) Benham
Answer:
(d) Benham

Question 12.
The first Wi-Fi facility was provided by Indian Railways in
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai
Answer:
(a) Bengaluru

Question 13.
Density of population =
(a) Total population / land area of the region
(b) Total population / Employment
(c) Land area / Total population
(d) Land area / Employment
Answer:
(a) Total population / land area of the region

Question 14.
The oldest large scale industry in India is _______.
(a) Steel
(b) Cement
(c) Cotton
(d) Jute
Answer:
(c) Cotton

Question 15.
Twelfth Five Year Plan period ________.
(a) 2007-2012
(b) 1997-2002
(c) 2012-2017
(d) 2002-2007
Answer:
(c) 2012-2017

Question 16.
India is the largest producer of ______ in the world
(a) petrol
(b) diesel
(c) fruits
(d) gold
Answer:
(c) fruits

Question 17.
‘India lives in villages’, said by ________.
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) J.C. Kumarappa
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Question 18.
______ are set up with a view to develop rural economy by providing credit and other facilities to small and marginal farmers.
(a) MUDRA Bank
(b) RRB
(c) SHG
(d) NABARD
Answer:
(b) RRB

Question 19.
Which of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) SAIL – Salem
(b) The Pump City – Coimbatore tax
(c) BHEL – Trichy
(d) Knitting City – Karur
Answer:
(d) Knitting City – Karur

Question 20.
The first person to apply mathematical method to economic problem was ________.
(a) G. Crammer
(b) Paul Samuelson
(c) Sir William Petty
(d) Giovanni Ceva
Answer:
(d) Giovanni Ceva

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define Consumer’s Surplus according to Alfred Marshall.
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines Consumer’s Surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumers surplus”.

Question 22.
What is meant by Sunk Cost?
Answer:
A cost incurred in the past and cannot be recovered in future is called as Sunk Cost. This is historical but irrelevant for future business decisions. It is called as sunk because, they are unalterable, unrecoverable and if once invested it should be treated as drowned or disappeared.

Question 23.
What are the kinds of profit? Explain them.
Answer:
There are three kinds of profit:

• Monopoly Profit: Profit earned by the firm because of its monopoly control.
  
• Windfall Profit: Sometimes, profit arises due to changes in price level. Profit is due to unforeseen factors.
  
• Profit as functional reward: Just like rent, wage and interest, profit is earned by the entrepreneur for his entrepreneurial function.

Question 24.
What is NITI Aayog? What are its functions?
Answer:

• The Planning Commission has been replaced by the NITI Aayog on 1 st January, 2015.
  
• NITI (National Institution for Transforming India) Aayog will monitor, coordinate and ensure implementation of the accepted sustainable development goals.
  
• NITI Aayog serves as a knowledge hub and monitors progress in the implementation of policies and programmes of the Government of India.
  
• It includes the matters of national and international importance on the economic front, dissemination of best practices from within the .country and from other nations, the infusion of new policy ideas and specific issue-based support.
  

Question 25.
State any four features of developed economy.
Answer:
Features of a Developed Economy:

1. High National Income
2. High Per Capita Income
3. High Standard of Living
4. Full Employment of Resources

Question 26.
Define disinvestment.
Answer:
Disinvestment means selling of government securities of Public Sector Undertakings [PSUs] to other PSUs or Private Sectors or banks. This process has not been fully implemented.

Question 27.
Define Cottage Industry. State any two characteristics of cottage industries.
Answer:
Cottage industries are generally associated with agriculture and provide both part-time and full-time jobs in rural areas. Some important characteristics of cottage industries are:

1. These industries are carried out by artisans in their own homes at their own risk and for their own benefit.
2. No or little outside labour is employed. Normally, the members of the household provide the necessary labour.

Question 28.
What is crop insurance?
Answer:}
Agriculture in India is highly prone to risks like droughts and floods. It is necessary to protect the farmers from natural calamities and ensure their credit eligibility for the next season.

For this purpose, the Government of India introduced many agricultural schemes throughout the country. The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (Prime Minister’s Crop Insurance Scheme) was launched on 18 February 2016.

Question 29.
Find the value of the determinant for the matrix A = \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 4 \\
10 & -2
\end{array}\right)\)
Answer:
Given matrix A = \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}
3 & 4 \\
10 & -2
\end{array}\right)\) then, the department
|A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 4 \\
10 & -2
\end{array}\right|\) = 3(-2) – 10(4)
= – 6 – 40 = -46 is the value of the determinant.

Question 30.
Write short notes on mineral resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite.
• The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with thermal power plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.
• Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai. Molybdenum is found in Karadikuttam in Madurai district.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the differences between micro-economics and macro-economics.
Answer:
Micro Economics:

1.  It is that branch of economics which deals with the economic decision making of individual economic agents such as the producer, the consumer etc.
2. It takes into account small components of the whole economy
3. It deals with the process of price determination in case of individual products and factors of production.
4. It is known as price theory.
5. It is concerned with the optimization goals of individual consumers and producers.

Macro Economics:

1. It is that branch of economics which deals with aggregates and averages of the entire economy. E.g., aggregate output, national income, aggregate savings and investment, etc.
2. It takes into consideration that economy of the country as a whole.
3. It deals with general price-level in any economy.
4. It is also known as the income theory.
5. It is concerned with the optimization of the growth process of the entire economy.

Question 32.
Describe the features of human wants.
Answer:
(a) Wants are unlimited:
Human wants are countless in number and various in kinds. When one want is satisfied another want crops up. Human wants multiply with the growth of civilization and development.

(b) Wants become habits:
Wants become habits; for example, when a man starts reading news paper in the morning, it becomes a habit. Same is the case with drinking tea or chewing pans.

(c) Wants are Satiable:
Though we cannot satisfy all our wants, at the same time we can satisfy particular wants at a given time. When one feels hungry, he takes food and that want is satisfied.

(d) Wants are Alternative:
There are alternative ways to satisfy a particular want. E.g., Idly, dosa or chappathi.

(e) Wants are Competitive:
All our wants are not equally important. So, there is competition among wants. Hence, we have to choose more urgent wants than less urgent wants.

(f) Wants are Complementary:
Sometimes, satisfaction of a particular want requires the use of more than one commodity. Example: Car and Petrol, Ink and Pen.

(g) Wants are Recurring:
Some wants occur again and again. For example, if we feel hungry, we take food and satisfy out want. But after sometime, we again feel hungry and want food.

Question 33.
Find out the missing Marginal Product and Average Product for the given table.

Answer:

Question 34.
Define opportunity cost with an example.
Answer:

• Opportunity refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
• For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land. If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up. Opportunity Cost is also called as ‘Alternative Cost’ or ‘Transfer Cost’.

Question 35.
What is Monopsony?
Answer:
Monopsony is a market structure in which there is only one buyer of a good or service. If there is only one customer for a certain good, that customer has monopsony power in the market for that good. Monopsony is analogous to monopoly, but monopsony has market power on the demand side rather than on the supply side.

Question 36.
What are the types of Natural resources?
Answer:
Water resources:
Tamil Nadu is not endowed with rich natural resources compared to other States. It accounts for three per cent of water sources, four per cent of land area against six per cent of population.

North East monsoon is the major source of rainfall followed by South West monsoon. There are 17 river basins in Tamil Nadu. The main rivers are Palar, Cheyyar, Ponnaiyar, Cauvery, Bhavani, Vaigai, Chittar, Tamiraparani, Vellar, Noyyal Siruvani, Gundar, Vaipar, Valparai, etc. Wells are the largest source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu (56%).

Mineral resources:
Tamil Nadu has a few mining projects based on Titanium, Lignite, Magnesite, Graphite, Limestone, Granite and Bauxite. The first one is the Neyveli Lignite Corporation that has led development of large industrial complex around Neyveli in Cuddalore district with thermal power plants, Fertilizer and Carbonisation plants.

Magnesite mining is at Salem from which mining of Bauxite ores are carried out at Yercaud and this region is also rich in Iron Ore at Kanjamalai. Molybdenum is found in Karadikuttam in Madurai district.

Question 37.
List out the objectives of MUDRA BANK.
Answer:

1. Regulate the lender and the borrower of micro-finance and bring stability to the
   micro-finance system. .
2. Extend finance and credit support to Micro-finance Institutions (MFI) and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals.
3. Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
4. Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses.
5. Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing and monitoring of distributed capital.

Question 38.
Describe the development of Textile industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu is the largest textile hub of India.
• Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
• The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35 million people, and thereby contributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
• The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
• From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
• About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is in Tamil Nadu.
• The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
• Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
• Tirupur known as “knifting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
• Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
• Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 39.
Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = \(\frac{72}{9}\)
x = 8

Question 40.
Differentiate between Rent and Quasi-Rent.
Answer:
Rent:

1. Rent accrues to land
2. The supply of land is fixed forever.
3. It enters into price

Quasi – Rent:

1. Quasi-Rent accrues to manmade appliances.
2. The supply of manmade appliances is fixed for a short period only.
3. It does not enter into price.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of Production Possibility Curve.
Answer:
Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another assuming a given state of technology and given total resources.

Assumptions:

• The time period does not change
• Techniques of production are fixed.
• There is full employment in the economy.
• Only two goods can be produced from the given resources
• Resources of production are fully mobile.

Explanation:

1. The quantity of food is shown on x-axis and the number of cars is shown on y-axis.
2. The different six production possibilities are being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆.
3. A maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology.
4. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced.
5. In between these two extremes, possibilities exist.
6. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

[OR]

(b) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State. Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

(a) Road Transport:

• There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

(b) Rail Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Headquartered at Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
• Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established, suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

(c) Air Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
• Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
• Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

(d) Ports:

• Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
• The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
• All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
• This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
• It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
• Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

Question 42.
(a) Explain the law of demand with a diagram.
Answer:
Definition:
According to Alfred Marshall, the Law of Demand said as “the quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price”.

Assumptions of Law of Demand:

1. The income of the consumer remain constant.
2. The taste, habit and preference of the consumer remain the same.
3. The prices of other related goods should not change.
4. There should be no substitutes for the commodity in study.

Explanation:

1. Quantity demanded and Y axis represents the price of the commodity.
2. DD is the demand curve, which has a negative slope.
3. Slope downward from left to right which indicates that when price falls, the demand expands and when price rises, the demand contracts.

Conclusion:
Therefore, the law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between the price and the quantity demanded of a commodity.

[OR]

(b) Illustrate the Ricardian theory of Rent.
Answer:
Definition:
According to Ricardo, “Rent is the that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil”.

Assumptions:

1. Land differs in fertility.
2. The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
3. Rent depends upon fertility and location of land.
4. Theory assumes perfect competition.

Schedule of Ricardian Theory of Rent:

Explanation:

1. In diagram, X axis represents various grades of land and Y axis represents yield per acre (in bags).
2. 0A, AB and BC are the ‘A’ Grade, ‘B’ grade and ‘C’ grade lands respectively.
3. The application of equal amount of labour and capital on each of them gives a yield represented by the rectangles standing just about the respective bases.
4. The ‘C’ grade land is the ‘no-rent land’ “A” and “B” grade lands are “intra – marginal lands”.

Question 43.
(a) Describe the properties of Iso – quants with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Properties of Iso-quant Curve:

1. The iso-quant curve has negative slope.
It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output. In the diagram combination A refers to more of capital K₅ and less of labour L₂. As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin.
This explains the concept of diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS_LK). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of iso-quant curve.

This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the iso-quant is convex to the origin.

Marginal Rate of technical substitution

3. Non inter-section of Iso-quant curves.
For instance, point A lie on the isoquants IQ₁ and IQ₂. But the point C shows a higher output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁.
If C = A, B = A, then C = B. But C > B which is illogical.

4. An upper iso-quant curve represents a higher level of output.
Higher IQ_s show higher outputs and lower IQ_s show lower outputs, for upper iso-quant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve.

The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an iso-quant curve.

5. Iso-quant curve does not touch either X axis or Y axis.
No iso-quant curve touches the X axis or Y axis because in IQ₁ only capital is used, and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

[OR]

(b) Explain about the Industry clusters in Tamil Nadu
Answer:

• Chennai is sometimes referred to as the Health Capital of India or the Banking Capital of India, having attracted investments from International Finance Corporations and the World Bank. It is also called as Detroit of Asia.
• Tamil Nadu has a network of about 110 industrial parks / estates that offer developed plots with supporting infrastructure.
• Also, the Government is promoting other industrial parks like Rubber Park, Apparel Park, Floriculture Park, TICEL Park for Biotechnology, Siruseri IT Park and Agro Export Zones.
• The heavy engineering manufacturing companies are Centred around the subrubs of Chennai. Chennai boasts of global car manufacturing giants as well as home grown companies.
  
• Karur is known for its bus body building which contributes 80% of South Indian bus body building.
• TNPL is the Asia’s largest ecofriendly paper mill. Salem is called as steel city and has many sago producing units and mineral wealth.
• Sivakasi is the leader in printing, fireworks, safety matches production in India. It contributes to 80% of India’s total safety matches production and 90% of India’s total fireworks production.
• Thoothukudi is the gateway of Tamil Nadu. It is a major chemical producer next only to Chennai.

Question 44.
(a) Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.

Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price):
When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price):
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR will be more steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

[OR]

(b) If the demand function is P = 35 – 2x – x² and the demand x₀ is 3, what will be the consumer’s surplus?
Answer:
Given demand function,
P = 35 – 2x – x² For x = 3
P = 35 – 2(3) – 3²
= 35 – 6 – 9.
P = 20 Therefore,
CS = (Area of the curve below the demand curve from 0 to 3) – Area of the rectangle (20 x – = 60)

= 105 – 9 – 9 – 60 = 27 Units

Question 45.
(a) Explain the features of Oligopoly.
Answer:

• Few large firms: Very few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.
• Interdependence among firms: The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.
• Group behaviour: The firms under oligopoly relalise the importance of mutual cooperation.
• Advertisment cost: The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.
• Nature of product: The oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with- heterogeneous products.
• Price rigidity: It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolistic firms do not-change their prices due to the fear of rivals’ reaction.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas.
Answer:
1. Village Republics:
To Gandhi, India lives in villages. He was interestred in developing the villages j as self sufficient units. He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

2. On Machinery:
Gandhi described machinery as “Great Sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate the evils it is necessary to realize that machinery is bad. Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil. It would ultimately crease.

3. Industrialism:
Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind. He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

4. Decentralization:
He advocated a decentralized economy, i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

5. Villge Sarvodaya:
According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities. So he suggested the development of self sufficient, self-dependent villages.

6. Bread Labour:
Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour. He believed that God created man to eat his bread by sweat of his brow. Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

7. The Dcotrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one. It gives no quarter to capitalism. However, now India experiences * S both casino capitalism and crony capitalsm.

8. On the Food Problem:
Gandhi was against any sort of food controls. He thought Such controls only created artificial scarcity. Once India was begging for food grain, but India tops the world with very large production of foodgrains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

9. On population:
Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives. He was, however, in favour of birth control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population.

10. On Prohibition:
Gandhi advocated cent per cent prohibition. He regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice. He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards. But, now many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the objectives of nationalization of commercial banks.
Answer:
The Government of India nationalized the commercial banks to achieve the following objectives:

• The main objective of nationalization was to attain Social Welfare. Sectors such as agriculture, small and village industries were in need of funds for their expansion and further economic development.
• Nationalisation of banks helped to curb private monopolies in order to ensure a smooth supply of credit to socially desirable sections.
• In India, nearly 70% of population lived in rural areas. Therefore it was needed to encourage the banking habit among the rural population.
• Nationalisation of banks was required to reduce the regional imbalances where the banking facilities were not available.
• Before Independence, the numbers of banks were certainly inadequate. After nationalization, new bank branches were opened in both rural and urban areas.
• Banks created credit facilities mainly to the agriculture sector and its allied activities after nationalization.

After New Economic Policy 1991, the Indian banking Industry has been facing the new horizons of competitions, efficiency and productivity.

[OR]

(b) How are the information and communication technologies (ICT) used in economics?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology (ICT) is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate. The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT.

THE EVALUATION OF ICT HAS FIVE PHASES.
They are evolution in

1. Computer
2. PC
3. Microprocessor
4. Internet and
5. Wireless links

In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for data compiling, editing, manipulating and presenting the results. In general, SPSS and Excel packages are often used by researchers in economics. Such Software is designed to do certain user tasks. Word process, spread sheet and web browser are some of the examples which are frequently used while undertaking analysis in the study of economics.

Question 47.
(a) Explain the objectives and characteristics of Special Economic Zones (SEZ).
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
• The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• Geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs. .

[OR]

(b) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness.
Answer:
The causes for rural indebtedness may be summarized as below:

• Poverty of Farmers: The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption, cultiviation and celebrations., Thus, poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.
• Failure of Monsoon: Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature. Therefore, farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts.
• Litigation: Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily. Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.
• Money Lenders and High Rates of Interest: The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.10

Choose the correct or the most suitable answer.

Question 1.
The volume of a sphere is increasing in volume at the rate of 3πcm³/sec. The rate of change of its radius when radius is \(\frac{1}{2}\) cm …….
(a) 3 cm/s
(b) 2 cm/s
(c) 1 cm/s
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\) cm/s
Solution:
(a) 3 cm/s
Hint:

Question 2.
A balloon rises straight up at 10 m/s. An observer is 40 m away from the spot where the balloon left the ground. Find the rate of change of the balloon’s angle of elevation in radian per second when the balloon is 30 metres above the ground.

Solution:
(b) \(\frac{4}{25}\) radian/sec
Hint:

Question 3.
The position of a particle moving along a horizontal line of any time t is given by s(t) = 80t – 16t². The time at which the particle is at rest is …….

Solution:
(2) t = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Hint:

Question 4.
A stone is thrown up vertically. The height it reaches at time t seconds is given by x = 80t – 16t². The stone reaches the maximum height in time t seconds is given by …..
(a) 2
(b) 2.5
(c) 3
(d) 3.5
Solution:
(b) 2.5
Hint:

Question 5.
Find the point on the curve 6y = x³ + 2 at which y-coordinate changes 8 times as fast as x-coordinate is …….
(a) (4, 11)
(b) (4, -11)
(c) (-4, 11)
(d) (-4, -11)
Solution:
(a) (4, 11)

Question 6.
The abscissa of the point on the curve f(x) = \(\sqrt{8-2 x}\) at which the slope of the tangent is -0.25?
(a) -8
(b) -4
(c) -2
(d) 0
Solution:
(b) -4

Question 7.
The slope of the line normal to the curve f(x) = 2cos 4x at x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is ……..

Solution:
(c) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{12}\)

Question 8.
The tangent to the curve y² – xy + 9 = 0 is vertical when

Solution:
(b) \(y=\pm \sqrt{3}\)
Hint:

Question 9.
Angle between y² = x and x² = y at the origin is ……


Solution:
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Hint:
The angle between the parabolas is the angle between the axes = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 10.

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) ≤
Solution:
(a) 0
Hint:

Question 11.
The function sin⁴ x + cos⁴ x is increasing in the interval

Solution:
(c) \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\)
Hint:

Question 12.
The number given by the Rolle’s theorem for the function x³ – 3x², x ∈ [0, 3] is ………
(a) 1
(b) \(\sqrt{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(d) 2
Solution:
(d) 2
Hint:

Question 13.
The number given by the Mean value theorem for the function \(\frac{1}{x}\), x ∈ [1, 9] is …..
(a) 2
(b) 2.5
(c) 3
(d) 3.5
Solution:
(c) 3
Hint:

Question 14.
The minimum value of the function |3 – x | + 9 is ………
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 6
(d) 9
Solution:
(d) 9
Hint:
f(x) = |3 – x| + 9
Minimum value of |3 – x| = 0
Minimum value of |3 – x| + 9 = 0 + 9 = 9

Question 15.
The maximum slope of the tangent to the curve y = e^x sin x, x ∈ [0, 2n] is at …………

Solution:
(b) \(x=\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Hint:

Question 16.
The maximum value of the function x²e^-2x, x > 0 is ……..

Solution:
(c) \(\frac{1}{e^{2}}\)
Hint:

Question 17.
One of the closest points on the curve x² – y² = 4 to the point (6, 0) is ……..

Solution:
(c) \((3, \sqrt{5})\)
Hint:

Substituting all the given options we get minimum distance point \((3, \sqrt{5})\)

Question 18.
The maximum product of two positive numbers, when their sum of the squares is 200, is ……..
(a) 100
(b) \(25 \sqrt{7}\)
(c) 28
(d) \(24 \sqrt{14}\)
Solution:
(a) 100

Question 19.
The curves = ax⁴ + bx² with ab > 0
(a) has no horizontal tangent
(b) is concave up
(c) is concave down
(d) has no points of inflection
Solution:
(d) has no points of inflection

Question 20.
The point of inflection of the curve y = (x – 1)³ is ……….
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (0, 1)
(c) (1, 0)
(d) (1, 1)
Solution:
(c) (1, 0)
Hint:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.10 Additional Questions Solved

Question 1.
The gradient of the curve y = – 2x³ + 3x + 5 at x = 2 is ………
(a) -20
(b) 27
(c) -16
(d) -21
Solution:
(d) -21
Hint:

Question 2.
The rate of change of area A of a circle of radius r is ……..

Solution:
(b) \(2 \pi r \frac{d r}{d t}\)

Question 3.
A spherical snowball is melting in such a way that its volume is decreasing at a rate of 1 cm³/min. The rate at which the diameter is decreasing when the diameter is 10 cms is …………….

Solution:
(a) \(\frac{-1}{50 \pi} \mathbf{c m} / \mathbf{m i n}\)

Question 4.


Solution:
(b) \(x=a \cos ^{3} \theta ; y=a \sin ^{3} \theta\)
Hint:

Question 5.
If the normal to the curve \(x^{2 / 3}+y^{2 / 3}=a^{2 / 3}\) makes an angle θ with the x – axis then the slope of the normal is ……..
(a) – cot θ
(b) tan θ
(c) – tan θ
(d) cot θ
Solution:
(b) tan θ
Hint:
Since the normal to the curve makes an angle θ with the x axis.
Slope of the normal = tan θ

Question 6.
What is the surface area of a sphere when the volume is increasing at the same rate as its radius?
(a) 1
(b) \(\frac{1}{2 \pi}\)
(c) 4π
(d) \(\frac{4 \pi}{3}\)
Solution:
(a) 1
Hint:

Question 7.
For what values of x is the rate of increase of x³ – 2x² + 3x + 8 is twice the rate of increase of x.

Solution:
(d) \(\left(\frac{1}{3}, 1\right)\)
Hint:

Question 8.
If the volume of an expanding cube is increasing at the rate of 4cm³/sec then the rate of change of surface area when the volume of the cube is 8 cubic cm is …….
(a) 8cm²/sec
(b) 16cm²/sec
(c) 2cm²/sec
(d) 4cm²/sec
Solution:
(a) 8cm²/sec
Hint:

Let surface area of the cube S = 6a²

Question 9.
If a normal makes an angle θ with positive x-axis then the slope of the curve at the point where the normal is drawn is ……..
(a) – cot θ
(b) tan θ
(c) – tan θ
(d) cot θ
Solution:
(a) – cot θ
Hint:

Question 10.
If the velocity of a particle moving along a straight line is directly proportional to the square of its distance from a fixed point on the line. Then its acceleration is proportional to …….
(a) s
(b) s²
(c) s³
(d) s⁴
Solution:
(c) s³
Hint:
Let s be the distance of the particle from fixed point on the line at time at t and V be the velocity. Then V ∝ s²

Question 11.
The Rolle’s constant for the function y = x² on [-2, 2] is …………..

Solution:
(b) 0
Hint:
Let f(x) = y = x²
f'(x) = 2x = 0
By Rolle’s theorem there exists a ‘c’ such that
f'(c) = 0 ⇒ 2c = 0 ⇒ c = 0 ∈ (-2, 2)

Question 12.
The value ‘c’ of Lagranges Mean Value Theorem for f(x) = \(\sqrt{x}\) when a = 1 and b = 4 is ………

Solution:
(a) \(\frac{9}{4}\)
Hint:

Question 13.
In a given semi circle of diameter 4 cm a rectangle is to be inscribed. The maximum area of the rectangle is ……..
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Solution:
(b) 4
Hint:
Let the side of the rectangle be ‘a’ cm
Maximum rectangle inscribed in a circle is a square.
The diagonal of the rectangle = 4 cm


2a² = 16
a² = 8 cm
The maximum area = 8
Half of the area of the square = 4 cm

Question 14.
The least possible perimeter of a rectangle of area 100 m² is ……..
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 60
Solution:
(c) 40
Hint:
Let the length of the rectangle = x m
Let the length of the breadth = y m

The least perimeter = 2(x + y) = 2(10 + 10) = 40 cm

Question 15.
Which of the following curves is concave down ?
(a) y = -x²
(b) y = x²
(c) y = e^x
(d) y = x² + 2x – 3
Solution:
(a) y = -x²

Question 16.
The point of inflection of the curve y = x⁴ is at …….
(a) x = 0
(b) x = 3
(c) x = 12
(c) no where
Solution:
(a) x = 0
Hint:

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Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 17 E-Commerce Security Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 17 E-Commerce Security Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications E-Commerce Security Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
In E-Commerce, when a stolen credit card is used to make a purchase it is termed as ………………………
(a) Friendly fraud
(b) Clean fraud
(c) Triangulation fraud
(d) Cyber squatting
Answer:
(b) Clean fraud

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a security element involved in E-Commerce?
(a) Authenticity
(b) Confidentiality
(c) Fishing
(d) Privacy
Answer:
(c) Fishing

Question 3.
Asymmetric encryption is also called as ……………………..
(a) Secure Electronic Transaction
(b) Certification Authority
(c) RSA algorithm
(d) Payment Information
Answer:
(c) RSA algorithm

Question 4.
The security authentication technology does not include
(i) Digital Signatures
(ii) Digital Time Stamps
(iii) Digital Technology
(iv) Digital Certificates
(a) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(b) (ii) & (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) (ii) & (iii)

Question 5.
PGP stands for
(a) Pretty Good Privacy
(b)Pretty Good Person
(c) Private Good Privacy
(d) Private Good Person
Answer:
(a) Pretty Good Privacy

Question 6.
…………………… protocol is used for securing credit cards transactions via the Internet
(a) Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)
(b) Credit Card Verification
(c) Symmetric Key Encryption
(d) Public Key Encryption
Answer:
(a) Secure Electronic Transaction (SET)

Question 7.
Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) was developed in
(a) 1999
(b) 1996
(c) 1969
(d) 1997
Answer:
(b) 1996

Question 8.
The websites secured by Secure Socket Layer protocols can be identified using
(a) html://
(b) http://
(c) htmls://
(d) https://
Answer:
(d) https://

Question 9.
3-D Secure, a protocol was developed by
(a) Visa
(b) Master
(c) Rupay
(d) PayTM
Answer:
(a) Visa

Question 10.
Which of the following is true about Ransomware
(a) Ransomware is not a subset of malware
(b) Ransomware deletes the file instantly
(c) Typopiracy is a form of ransomware
(d) Hackers demand ransom from the victim
Answer:
(d) Hackers demand ransom from the victim

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write about information leakage in E-Commerce?
(i) Information leakage:
The leakage of trade secrets in E-Commerce mainly includes two aspects:

1. The content of the transaction between the vendor and customer is stolen by the third party;
2. The documents provided by the merchant to the customer or vice versa are illegally used by the another. This intercepting and stealing of online documents is called information leakage.

Question 2.
Write a short note on typopiracy?
Answer:
Typopiracy:

• Typopiracy is a variant of Cyber Squatting. Some fake websites try to take advantage of users’ common typographical errors in typing a website address and direct users to a different website.
• Such people try to take advantage of some popular websites to generate accidental traffic for their websites, e.g. www.goggle.com,www.faceblook.com

Question 3.
Define non-repudiation?
Answer:
Non-repudiation: prevention against violation agreement after the deal.

Question 4.
List the different types of security technologies in E-Commerce?
Answer:

1. Encryption technology is an effective information security protection.
2. It is defined as converting a Plaintext into meaningless Ciphertext using encryption algorithm thus ensuring the confidentiality of the data.
3. The encryption or decryption process use a key to encrypt or decrypt the data.

Question 5.
Write about digital signature?
Answer:

1. A digital signature is a mechanism that is used to verify that a particular digital document, message or transaction is authentic.
2. Digital signatures are used to verify the trustworthiness of the data being sent.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a note on certification authorities (CA)?
Answer:
Digital certificates are issued by recognized Certification Authorities (CA). When someone requests a digital certificate, the authority verifies the identity of the requester, and if the requester fulfills all requirements, the authority issues it. When the sender uses a certificate to sign a document digitally, receiver can trust the digital signature because he trusts that CA has done their part verifying the sender’s identity.

Question 2.
List some E-Commerce Security Threats?
Answer:

1. Information leakage
2. Tampering
3. Payment frauds
4. Malicious code threats
5. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) Attacks
6. Cyber Squatting
7. Typopiracy

Question 3.
Differentiate asymmetric and symmetric algorithms?
Answer:
Symmetric Key Encryption:

1. Same key is used for both encryption and decryption
2. Speed of encryption or decryption is very fast
3. Plain text and cipher text are of same size
4. Algorithms like DES, AES, RC4 uses symmetric key encryption
5. Provides confidentiality
6. The number of key used grows exponentially with the number of users

Asymmetric Key Encryption:

1. Different keys are used for encryption and decryption
2. Speed of encryption or decryption is comparatively slow
3. The size of cipher text is always greater than plain text.
4. Algorithms like RSA, ECC, DSA use asymmetric key encryption
5. Provides confidentiality, authenticity and ‘ non-repudiation
6. The number of key used grows linearly with the number of users

Question 4.
Write a note on PGP?
Answer:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP): Phil Zimmermann developed PGP in 1991. It is a decentralized encryption program that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication for data communication. PGP encryption uses a serial combination of hashing, data compression, symmetric-key cryptography and asymmetric-key cryptography and works on the concept of “web of trust”.

Question 5.
Explain 3D secure payment protocols?
Answer:
3-D Secure is a secure payment protocol on the Internet. It was developed by Visa to increase the level of transaction security, and it has been adapted by MasterCard. It gives a better authentication of the holder of the payment card, during purchases made on websites. The basic concept of this (XML-based) protocol is to link the financial authorization process with an online authentication system. This authentication model comprise 3 domains (hence the name 3D) which are:

1. The Acquirer Domain
2. The Issuer Domain
3. The interoperability Domain.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Write about dimensions of E-Commerce Security?
Answer:
The following are some of the security elements involved in E-Commerce:

1. Authenticity: conforming genuineness of data shared.
2. Availability: prevention against data delay or removal.
3. Completeness: unification of all business information.
4. Confidentiality: protecting data against unauthorized disclosure.
5. Effectiveness: effective handling of hardware, software and data.
6. Integrity: prevention of the data being unaltered or modified.
7. Non-repudiation: prevention against violation agreement after the deal.
8. Privacy: prevention of customers’ personal data being used by others.
9. Reliability: providing a reliable identification of the individuals or businesses.
10. Review ability: capability of monitoring activities to audit and track the operations.

Question 2.
Explain encryption technology?
Answer:
Encryption technology:
Encryption technology is an effective information security protection. It is defined as converting a Plaintext into meaningless Ciphertext using encryption algorithm thus ensuring the confidentiality of the data. The encryption or decryption process use a key to encrypt or decrypt the data. At present, two encryption technologies are widely used. They are symmetric key encryption system and an asymmetric key encryption system.

Symmetric key encryption:
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a Symmetric key data encryption method. It was introduced in America in the year 1976, by Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS).

DES is the typical block algorithm that takes a string of bits of cleartext (plaintext) with a fixed length and, through a series of complicated operations, transforms it into another encrypted text of the same length. DES also uses a key to customize the transformation, so that, in theory, the algorithm can only be deciphered by people who know the exact key that has been used for encryption. The DES key is apparently 64 bits, but in fact the algorithm uses only 56. The other eight bits are only used to verify the parity and then it is discarded.

Today, it is considered that DES is not safe for many applications, mainly because of its relatively smaller key size (56-bit). But the key length can be easily increased by multiple use of the DES, described as Triple-DES, also known as TDES, 3DES or DESede.

Asymmetric or Public key encryption:
Asymmetric encryption also called as RSA (Rivest-Shamir-Adleman) algorithm. It uses public- key authentication and digital signatures. Until 1970s, there were only symmetric cryptosystems in which transmitter and receiver must have the same key. This raises the problem of key exchange andJcey management.

Unlike a symmetric encryption, the communicating parties need not know other’s private- key in asymmetric encryption. Each user generates their own key pair, which consists of a private key and a public key. A public-key encryption method is a method for converting a plaintext with a public key into a ciphertext from which the plaintext can be retrieved with a private key.

Question 3.
Differentiate digital signatures and digital certificates?
Answer:
Digital signature:

1. A digital signature is a mechanism that is used to verify that a particular digital document, message or transaction is authentic.
2. Digital signatures are used to verify the trustworthiness of the data being sent
3. Digital signature is to ensure that a data remain secure from the point it was issued and it was not modified by a third party.
4. It provides authentication, non-repudiation and integrity
5. A digital signature is created using a Digital Signature Standard (DSS). It uses a SHA- 1 or SHA-2 algorithm for encrypting and decrypting the message.
6. The document is encrypted at the sending end and decrypted at the receiving end using asymmetric keys.

Digital certificate:

1. A digital certificate is a computer file which officially approves the relation between the holder of the certificate and a particular public key.
2. Digital certificates are used to verify the trustworthiness of the sender.
3. Digital certificate binds a digital signature to an entity
4. It provides authentication and security.
5. A digital certificate works on the principles , of public key cryptography standards (PKCS). It creates certificate in the X.509 or PGP format.
6. A digital certificate consist of certificate’s owner name and public key, expiration date, a Certificate Authority ‘s name , a Certificate Authority’s digital signature.

Question 4.
Define Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) and its features?
Answer:
There are two kinds of security authentication protocols widely used in E-Commerce, namely Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) and Secure Sockets Layer (SSL).

Secure Electronic Transaction:
Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) is a security protocol for electronic payments with credit cards, in particular via the Internet. SET was developed in 1996 by VISA and MasterCard, with the participation of GTE, IBM, Microsoft and Netscape.

The implementation of SET is based on the use of digital signatures and the encryption of transmitted data with asymmetric and symmetric encryption algorithms. SET also use dual signatures to ensure the privacy.

The SET purchase involves three major participants: the customer, the seller and the payment gateway. Here the customer shares the order information with the seller but not with the payment gateway. Also the customer shares the payment information only with the payment gateway but not with the seller.

So, with the SET, the credit card number may not be known to the seller and will not be stored in seller’s files also could not be recovered by a hacker. The SET protocol guarantees the security of online shopping using credit cards on the open network. It has the advantages of ensuring the integrity of transaction data and the non-repudiation of transactions. Therefore, it has become the internationally recognized standard for credit card online transaction.

SET system incorporates the following key features:

• Using public key encryption and private key encryption ensure data confidentiality.
• Use information digest technology to ensure the integrity of information.
• Dual signature technology to ensure the identity of both parties in the transaction.

Question 5.
Briefly explain SSL?
Answer:
Secure Sockets Layers:
The most common Cryptographic protocol is Secure Sockets Layers (SSL). SSL is a hybrid encryption protocol for securing transactions over the Internet. The SSL standard was developed by Netscape in collaboration with MasterCard, Bank of America, MCI and Silicon Graphics.

It is based on a public key cryptography process to ensure the security of data transmission over the internet. Its principle is to establish a secure communication channel (encrypted) between a client and a server after an authentication step.

The SSL system acts as an additional layer, to ensure the security of data, located between the application layer and the transport layer in TCP.

For example, a user using an internet browser to connect to an SSL secured E-Commerce site will send encrypted data without any more necessary manipulations. Secure Sockets Layers (SSL) was renamed as Transport Layer Security (TLS) in 2001. But still it is popularly known under the name SSL. TLS differs from SSL in the generation of symmetric keys.

Today, all browsers in the market support SSL, and most of the secure communications are proceeded through this protocol. SSL works completely hidden for the user, who does not have to intervene in the protocol. The only thing the user has to do is make sure the URL starts with https:// instead of http:// where the “s” obviously means secured. It is also preceded by a green padlock.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications E-Commerce Security Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
…………………… has become the critical factor and core issue in any E-business.
Answer:
Security

Question 2.
…………………… cause harm to the computers.
Answer:
Viruses

Question 3.
The stealing of online documents is called …………………….
(a) phishing
(b) virus
(c) Frauds
(d) information leakage
Answer:
(d) information leakage

Question 4.
Destroying the authenticity and integrity of the business information is ……………………….
(a) Information leakage
(b) Tampering
(c) Squatting
(d) Phishing
Answer:
(b) Tampering

Question 5.
How many types of payment frauds are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 6.
When the customer demands free reclaim or refund then it is …………………….
(a) Friendly Fraud
(b) Clean Fraud
(c) Triangular Fraud
(d) Unclean Fraud
Answer:
(a) Friendly Fraud

Question 7.
Which is the fake online shops offering cheapest price and collecting credit card data?
(a) Friendly Fraud
(b) Clean Fraud
(c) Triangulation Fraud
(d) Square Fraud
Answer:
(c) Triangulation Fraud

Question 8.
The credit card information can be extracted using ……………………….
(a) malware
(b) cross site scripting
(c) SQL injection
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 9.
DDoS means ……………………..
Answer:
Distributed Denial of Service

Question 10.
What is the other name for DDoS attacks?
(a) Nature Flood
(b) Network Flood
(c) Cyber Flood
(d) Virus Flood
Answer:
(b) Network Flood

Question 11.
Which is true about information leakage?
Answer:
(I) The contents of the transaction between the vendor and customer is stolen by the third party
(II) The documents provided by the merchant to the customer or vice versa are illegally used by another.
(a) I, II-both True
(b) I, II-False
(c) I-True, II-False
(d) I-False, II-True
Answer:
(a) I, II-both True

Question 12.
…………………… is the illegal practice of registering an Intranet domain neames.
(a) Cyber squatting
(b) DDoS
(c) Malicious code
(d) Tampering
Answer:
(a) Cyber squatting

Question 13.
Directing users to a different website by taking advantage of user’s common type graphical errors in typing and direct users to different website is ………………………
(a) Cyber Squatting
(b) Typopiracy
(c) DDoS
(d) Tampering
Answer:
(b) Typopiracy

Question 14.
Identify the typography.
(a) google.com
(b) facebook.com
(c) goggle.com
(d) gmail.com
Answer:
(c) goggle.com

Question 15.
Which refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network?
(a) Cracking
(b) Hacking
(c) Tampering
(d) DDoS
Answer:
(b) Hacking

Question 16.
Unification of all business information is
(a) Authenticity
(b) Availability
(c) Completeness
(d) Integrity
Answer:
(c) Completeness

Question 17.
Match the following
(i) Authencity – 1. preventing data to be altered
(ii) Integrity – 2. Conforming genuineness of data shared
(iii) Reliability – 3. prevention against violation agreement after deal
(iv) Non Repudiation – 4. reliable identification of ‘individual’
(a) (i)-2 (ii)-1 (iii)-4 (iv)-3
(b) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-2 (iv)-1
(d) (i)-4 (ii)-2 (iii)-1 (iv)-3
Answer:
(a) (i)-2 (ii)-1 (iii)-4 (iv)-3

Question 18.
Review ability is the capability of …………………………
(a) monitoring activities to audit and track the operations
(b) prevention of customer data used by others
(c) effective handling of hardware, software
(d) preventing data delay or removal
Answer:
(a) monitoring activities to audit and track the operations

Question 19.
Identity which is not a security technology in E-commerce transaction.
(a) Encryption
(b) Authentication technology
(c) Authentication protocol
(d) Integrity
Answer:
(d) Integrity

Question 20.
How many types of encryption technologies are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 21.
The conversion of plaintext into meaningless ciphertext is done by ………………………..
Answer:
encryption algorithm

Question 22.
DES is ………………………
Answer:
Data Encryption Standard

Question 23.
Which one is the symmetric key data encryption method?
(a) DAS
(b) DES
(c) SED
(d) EDS
Answer:
(b) DES

Question 24.
FIPS means
(a) Finance Insurance Private Sector
(b) Finance Insurance Public Sector
(c) Federal Information Processing Standard
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Federal Information Processing Standard

Question 25.
Data Encryption standard was introduced in ………………………..
(a) America
(b) Africa
(c) India
(d) Russia
Answer:
(a) America

Question 26.
DES was introduced in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1976

Question 27.
DES was introduced by ………………………..
(a) FEPS
(b) FIPS
(c) FPS
(d) FPSE
Answer:
(b) FIPS

Question 28.
The DES key is apparently ……………………….. bits.
(a) 16
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 128
Answer:
(c) 64

Question 29.
How many bits are used for parity check?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 30.
How many bits are used by DES algorithm?
(a) 8
(b) 1
(c) 56
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 56

Question 31.
Triple – DES are also known as
(a) IDES
(b) 3DES
(c) DESede
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 32.
RSA means …………………….. algorithm.
Answer:
Rivest-Shamir-Adleman

Question 33.
What is the other name for Asymmetric key encryption?
(a) Symmetric
(b) DES
(c) Public
(d) Private
Answer:
(c) Public

Question 34.
A ……………………. method is used for converting a plain text with a public key into a cipher text.
Answer:
public-key encryption

Question 35.
Find the correct statement about symmetric key encryption.
(a) plain text and cipher text are of same size
(b) The size of cipher text is always greater than plain text.
Answer:
(a) plain text and cipher text are of same size

Question 36.
The number of key used grows lineraly with the number of users in ……………………….
Answer:
asymmetric key Encryption

Question 37.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) DES
(b) AES
(c) RC4
(d) DSA
Answer:
(d) DSA

Question 38.
Pick the odd on out.
(a) RSA
(b) RC4
(c) ECC
(d) DSA
Answer:
(b) RC4

Question 39.
Find the statement which is not true?
(a) Different keys are used for encryption and decryption
(b) Speed of encryption is Fast
(c) Speed of decryption is Slow
(d) The number of key used grows linearly
Answer:
(b) Speed of encryption is Fast

Question 40.
Public key encryption is devised by
(i) Whitfield Diffie
(ii) Mastin E. Heilman
(iii) Robert John
(a) (i)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (iii)
(d) (i),(ii)
Answer:
(d) (i),(ii)

Question 41.
Public key encryption was devised in the year ………………………
(a) 1972
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1976

Question 42.
A …………………….. is also known as public key certificate.
Answer:
digital certificate

Question 43.
Which one of the following is not present in the digital certificates?
(a) Sender’s identity
(b) digital signature
(c) Sender Name
(d) Public key
Answer:
(c) Sender Name

Question 44.
Digital certificates are issued by recognized
(a) CA
(b) MA
(c) DA
(d) DC
Answer:
(a) CA

Question 45.
CA stands for ……………………..
Answer:
Certification Authority

Question 46.
Common digital certificate systems are ……………………. and ………………………..
Answer:
X.509 and PGP

Question 47.
PGP was developed by ………………………
(a) Whitfield Diffie
(b) Martin E. Heilman
(c) Phil Zimmermann
(d) all the three
Answer:
(c) Phil Zimmermann

Question 48.
PGP was developed in the year …………………….
(a) 1988
(b) 1981
(c) 1973
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

Question 49.
PGP works on the concept of ………………………
Answer:
“Web of trust”

Question 50.
Which One of the following is the decentralised encryption program?
(a) PGP
(b) X.509
(c) MGP
(d) X.511
Answer:
(a) PGP

Question 51.
The X.509 system is a centralized system digital certificate.
Answer:
X.509

Question 52.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) TCS
(b) CTS
(c) MTNL
(d) e-mudhra
Answer:
(b) CTS

Question 53.
A …………………….. is a mechanism that is used to verify that the particular digital document, message or transaction is authentic
Answer:
digital signature

Question 54.
PKI means
(a) Public Key Instruction
(b) Public Key Infrastructure
(c) Public Key Interface
(d) Public Key Interrupt
Answer:
(b) Public Key Infrastructure

Question 55.
A …………………….. is a hardware component that are used to identify and authenticate users.
Answer:
Security token

Question 56.
DSS means ………………………
Answer:
Digital Signature Standard

Question 57.
PKCS means …………………………
Answer:
Public key cryptography standards

Question 58.
A digital signature is created using
(a) HSS
(b) DSS
(c) PKCS
(d) PGP
Answer:
(b) DSS

Question 59.
A digital signature has ……………………. algorithm for encrypting and decrypting the message.
(i) SHA-1
(ii) SHA-2
(iii) PGP
(iv) X.509
(a) (i),(ii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i),(ii)

Question 60.
Digital certificate binds a ……………………… to an entity.
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 61.
There are …………………… kinds of security authentication protocols widely used in E-commerce.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 62.
SET means
(a) Secure Electronic Transaction
(b) Safe Encryption Time
(c) Signature Ensure Transaction
(d) Socket Electronic Transaction
Answer:
(a) Secure Electronic Transaction

Question 63.
SSL means ……………………..
Answer:
Secure Sockets Layer

Question 64.
SET was developed with the participation of
(a) GTE
(b) IBM
(c) Microsoft
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 65.
Find the wrong statement.
(a) SET uses dual signatures to ensure privacy.
(b) The SET protocol guarantees the security of online shopping using credit cards.
(c) SET is a security protocol.
(d) It ensures non-integrity of information.
Answer:
(d) It ensures non-integrity of information.

Question 66.
SSL means ……………………
Answer:
Secure Socket Layers

Question 67.
Which is a hybrid encryption protocol for securing transactions over the Internet?
(a) DSL
(b) SSL
(c) IP
(d) HTTP
Answer:
(b) SSL

Question 68.
TLS means ……………………
Answer:
Transport Layer Security

Question 69.
SSL was renamed as TLS in the year ……………………..
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2001
(d) 2002
Answer:
(c) 2001

Question 70.
Where is SSL located?
(i) Transport layer
(ii) Application layer
(iii) Session layer
(iv) Physical layer
(v) Presenation layer
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iv) and (v)
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii)

Question 71.
The SSL standard was developed by ……………………..
(a) Mozilla
(b) google
(c) Netscape
(d) Internet
Answer:
(c) Netscape

Question 72.
The most common cryptographic protocol is …………………….
Answer:
Secure Socket Layer

Question 73.
In https://, ‘s’ stands for …………………….
(a) safe
(b) secure
(c) socket
(d) squatting
Answer:
(b) secure

Question 74.
…………………… is a secure payment protocol on the Internet.
Answer:
3D secure

Question 75.
3D secure is adapted by ……………………
(a) Visa
(b) Master card
(c) Smart card
(d) Gift cards
Answer:
(b) Master card

Question 76.
How many domains are there in the 3-D secure protocol?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 77.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) The Acquirer Domain
(b) The bearer domain
(c) The Issuer Domain
(d) The interoperability domain
Answer:
(b) The bearer domain

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is E-commerce Security?
Answer:
E-Commerce security is a set of protocols that safely guide E-Commerce transactions through the Internet.

Question 2.
What is virus?
Answer:
Viruses cause harm to the computers thereby harms the efficient and smooth functioning of E-Commerce. Some viruses destroy all the information stored in a computer and cause huge loss of revenue and time.

Question 3.
What is meant by cyber squatting?
Answer:
Cyber Squatting:
Cyber squatting is the illegal practice of registering an Internet domain . name that might be wanted by another person in an intention to sell it later for a profit.

Question 4.
What is security token?
Answer:
A security token is a hardware component that are used to identify and authenticate users.

Question 5.
Define Hacking?
Answer:
Hacking refers to unauthorized intrusion into a computer or a network. That is to say breaking security to gain access to a website illegally and intercept confidential information.

Question 6.
What is Ransomware?
Answer:
Ransomware:
Ransomware is a type of malware that usually encrypt all the files in a target’s computer and threatens to publish the critical data unless a ransom (money) is paid.

Question 7.
List some common digital certificate systems?
Answer:
Common digital certificate systems are X.509 and PGR

1. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP):
2. The X.509

Question 8.
WMt is SSL?
Answer:
The most common Cryptographic protocol is Secure Sockets Layers (SSL). SSL is a hybrid encryption protocol for securing transactions over the Internet. It is based on a public key cryptography process.

Question 9.
Define OTP?
Answer:
One-Time Password (OTP):
A dynamic password that is valid for one login session or transaction provides a potential security for a e-payment transaction.

Question 10.
Define Brute-Force attack?
Answer:
Brute-force attacks is the simplest attack method for breaking any encryption; that is, trying all the possible keys one by one.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Define Phishing?
Answer:
Phishing is also a E-Commerce threat in which a target is contacted by e-mail, telephone or text message by someone who pretend himself as a genuine authority. They try to trap individuals to provide sensitive data such as, banking and credit card details, OTP, PIN or passwords. Once they succeed, the results would lead to devastating acts such as identity theft and financial loss.

Question 2.
What is meant by Tampering?
Answer:
Tampering:
E-Commerce has the problem of the authenticity and integrity of business information. When hackers grasp the data transmitted on the network, it can be falsified in the middle through various technical means, and then sent to the destination, thereby destroying the authenticity and integrity of the data.

Question 3.
Explain various types of payment frauds?
Answer:
Payment frauds: Payment frauds have subsets like Friendly fraud (when customer demands- false reclaim or refund), Clean fraud (when a stolen credit card is used to make a purchase) Triangulation fraud (fake online shops offering cheapest price and collect credit card data) etc.

Question 4.
What is DDoS?
Answer:
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) Attacks: It is a process of taking down an E-Commerce site by sending continious overwhelming request to its server. This attack will be conducted from numerous unidentified computers using botnet. This attack will slow down and make the server inoperative. DDoS attacks is also called as network flooding.

Question 5.
What is DES?
Answer:
The Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a Symmetric key data encryption method. DES is the typical block algorithm that takes a string of bits of cleartext (plaintext) with a fixed length and, through a series of complicated operations, transforms it into another encrypted text of the same length.

Question 6.
Explain the key features of SET?
Answer:
SET system incorporates the following key features:

1. Using public key encryption and private key encryption ensure data confidentiality.
2. Use information digest technology to ensure the integrity of information.
3. Dual signature technology to ensure the identity of both parties in the transaction.

Question 7.
Name the 3 domains of 3D secure?
Answer:

1. The Acquirer Domain
2. The Issuer Domain
3. The interoperability Domain

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain various types of E-commerce threats?
Answer:
(i) Information leakage:
The leakage of trade secrets in E-Commerce mainly includes two aspects: (a) the content of the transaction between the vendor and customer is stolen by the third party; (b) the documents provided by the merchant to the customer or vice versa are illegally used by the another. This intercepting and stealing of online documents is called information leakage.

(ii) Tampering:
E-Commerce has the problem of the authenticity and integrity of business information. When hackers grasp the data transmitted on the network, it can be falsified in the middle through various technical means, and then sent to the destination, thereby destroying the authenticity and integrity of the data.

(iii) Payment frauds:
Payment frauds have subsets like Friendly fraud (when customer demands false reclaim or refund), Clean fraud (when a stolen credit card is used to make a purchase Triangulation fraud (fake online shops offering cheapest price and collect credit card data) etc.

(iv) Malicious code threats:
Within an E-Commerce site, there are multiple vulnerable areas that can serve as an intrusion point for a hacker to gain payment and user information. Using malware, Cross Site Scripting or SQL Injection, an attacker will extract the credit card information and sell the acquired data on black markets. Fraud is then committed to extract the greatest value possible through E-Commerce transactions or ATM withdrawals, etc.

(v) Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) Attacks:
It is a process of taking down an E-Commerce site by sending continious overwhelming request to its server. This attack will be conducted from numerous unidentified computers using botnet. This attack will slow down and make the server inoperative. DDoS attacks is also called as network flooding.

(vi) Cyber Squatting:
Cybers quatting is the illegal practice of registering an Internet domain name that might be wanted by another person in an intention to sell it later for a profit.

Question 2.
Explain common digital certificate systems?
Answer:
Common digital certificate systems are X.509 and PGP:
1. Pretty Good Privacy (PGP):
Phil Zimmermann developed PGP in 1991. It is a decentralized encryption program that provides cryptographic privacy and authentication for data communication. PGP encryption uses a serial combination of hashing, data compression, symmetric-key cryptography and asymmetric-key cryptography and works on the concept of “web of trust”.

2. The X.509 system is a centralized system in which the authenticity of the key is guaranteed by the hierarchy of certification authorities formally certifying the key relationship with the identity of its owner. Due to its clear responsibility, it is easier to implant in the law, X.509 is currently world wide accepted certification technology.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Operating system is a:
(a) application software
(b) hardware
(c) system software
(d) component
Answer:
(c) system software

Question 2.
Identify the usage of operating systems:
(a) easy interaction between the human and computer
(b) controlling input & output Devices
(c) managing use of main memory
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of an Operating System?
(a) Process Management
(b) Memory Management
(c) Security management
(d) Complier Environment
Answer:
(d) Complier Environment

Question 4.
Which of the following OS is a Commercially licensed Operating system?
(a) Windows
(b) UBUNTU
(c) FEDORA
(d) REDHAT
Answer:
(a) Windows

Question 5.
Which of the following Operating systems support Mobile Devices?
(a) Windows 7
(b) Linux
(c) BOSS
(d) iOS
Answer:
(d) iOS

Question 6.
File Management manages:
(a) files
(b) folders
(c) directory systems
(d) All the Above
Answer:
(d) All the Above

Question 7.
Interactive Operating System provides:
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)
(b) Data Distribution
(c) Security Management
(d) Real Time Processing
Answer:
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)

Question 8.
Android is a:
(a) Mobile Operating
(b) Open Source
(c) Developed by Google
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
Which of the following refers to Android operating system’s version?
(a) JELLY BEAN
(b) UBUNTU
(c) OS/2
(d) MITTIKA
Answer:
(a) JELLY BEAN

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of memory management in Operating System?
Answer:
Memory Management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory and assigning memory block (space) to various running programs to optimize overall computer performance. The Memory management involves the allocation of specific memory blocks to individual programs based on user demands. At the application level, memory management ensures the availability of adequate memory for each running program at all times.

Question 2.
What is the multi-user Operating system?
Answer:
Multi-user operating system is used in computers and laptops that allow same data and applications to be accessed by multiple users at the same time. The users can also communicate with each other. Eg: Windows, Linux and UNIX.

Question 3.
What is a GUI?
Answer:
The Graphical User Interface is a type of user interface that allows users to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons and visual indicators such as secondary notation, instead of text-based user interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation.

Question 4.
List out different distributions of Linux operating system?
Answer:
Different distributions of Linux are Linux Mint, Fedora, Ubuntu, BOSS, RedHat.

Question 5.
What are the security management features available ip Operating System?
Answer:
The Operating System provides three levels of securities to the user end. They are

1. File access level
2. System level
3. Network level.

Question 6.
What is multi-processing?
Answer:
This is a one of the features of Operating System. It has two or more processors for a single running process (job). Processing takes place in parallel is known as parallel processing. Each processor works on different parts of the same task or on two or more different tasks.

Question 7.
What are the different Operating Systems used in computer?
Answer:
Some of the popular Operating Systems used in personal computers and laptops are Windows, UNIX and Linux. The mobile devices mostly use Android and iOS as mobile OS.

III. Explain In Brief.

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Time-sharing features?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. Provides the advantage of quick response.
2. Avoids duplication of software
3. Reduces CPU idle time.

Disadvantages:

1. Problem of data communication and security.
2. Problem of reliability.

Question 2.
Explain and List out examples of mobile operating system?
Answer:
Mobile devices such as phones, tablets and MP3 players are different from desktop and laptop computers and hence they need special Operating Systems. Examples of mobile Operating Systems are Apple iOS and Google Android. Operating systems for mobile devices generally are not as fully featured as those made for desktop and laptop computers and they are not able to run all software.

Android:
It is a mobile operating system developed by Google, based on Linux and designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. Google has further developed Android TV for televisions, Android Auto for cars and Android Wear for wrist watches, each with a specialized PCs and other electronic gadgets.

Question 3.
What are the differences between Windows and Linux Operating system?
Answer:
Windows:

1. Microsoft Windows is a family of proprietary operating system.
2. It is a user interface.
3. Windows can only be modified by the company that owns it.

Linux:

1. Linux is a family of open-source operating system.
2. It is a command line access.
3. It can be modified and distributed by anyone around the world.

Question 4.
Explain the process manangement algorithms in Operating System?
Answer:
The following algorithms are mainly used to allocate the job (process) to the processor.

1. FIFO
2. SJF
3. Round Robin
4. Based on Priority.

1. FIFO (First In First Out) Scheduling:
This algorithm is based on queuing technique. Assume that a student is standing in a queue (Row) to get grade sheet from his/her teacher. The other student who stands first in the queue gets his/her grade sheet first and leaves from the queue (Row). Followed by the next student in the-queue gets it corrected and so on.

This is the basic logic of the FIFO algorithm.
Technically, the process that enters the queue first is executed first by the CPU, followed by the next and so on. The processes are executed in the order of the queue (row).

2. SJF (Shortest Job First) Scheduling:
This algorithm works based on the size of the job being executed by the CPU.
Consider two jobs A and B.
(a) A = 6 kilo bytes
(b) B = 9 kilo bytes
First the job “A” will be assigned and then job “B” gets its turn.

3. Round Robin Scheduling:
The Round Robin (RR) scheduling algorithm is designed especially for time sharing systems. Jobs (processes) are assigned and processor time in a circular method. For example take three jobs A, B, C. First the job A is assigned to CPU then job B and job C and then again A, B and C and so on.

4. Based On Priority:
The given job (process) is assigned based on a Priority. The/job which has higher priority is more important than other jobs. Take two jobs A and B. Let the priority of A be 5 and priority B be 7.
Job B is assigned to the processor before job A.

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the concept of a Distributed Operating System?
Answer:
This feature takes care of the data and application that are stored and processed on multiple physical locations across the world over the digital network (internet/intranet).

The Distributed Operating System is used to access shared data and files that reside in any machine around the world. The user can handle the data from different locations. The users can access as if it is available on their own computer. The advantages of distributed Operating System are as follows:

1. A user at one location can make use of all the resources available at another location over the network.
2. Many computer resources can be added easily in the network
3. Improves the interaction with the customers and clients.
4. Reduces the load on the host computer.

Question 2.
Explain the main purpose of an operating system?
Answer:
In earlier day’s user had to design the application to die internal structure of the hardware. Operating system was needed to enable the user to design the application without the knowledge of the computer’s internal structure and hardware system.
Nowadays, user needs an interface to interact with the computer and controls the execution of all kinds of programs without knowing the intemals-of the hardware.
Usage of Operating system:

1. Easy interaction between the human and computer.
2. Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on.
3. Loading and scheduling users program.
4. Controlling input and output devices.
5. Managing use of main memory.
6. Providing security to users program.

Question 3.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of open source operating systems?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. It’s cheaper.
2. It is high quality.
3. Open source operating system is very reliable.
4. Help us become more flexible.
5. Creativity.

Disadvantages:

1. Vulnerable to malicious users.
2. It is not always user-friendly.
3. Personalized support is rarely available.
4. institutional and organizational procurement process affecting the decision making process.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
…………………….. is set of instructions that perform specific test.
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Instruction
(d) Data
Answer:
(a) Software

Question 2.
There are types of software.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 3.
…………………… is a set of programs to perform specific task.
(a) Software
(b) System software
(c) Application software
(d) Hardware
Answer:
(c) Application software

Question 4.
………………….. is an application software.
(a) Linux
(b) Unix
(c) MS-Word
(d) Windows
Answer:
(c) MS-Word

Question 5.
………………….. is an system software:
(a) Windows
(b) MS-Word
(c) MS-Excell
(d) Lotus
Answer:
(a) Windows

Question 6.
An operating system allows only a single user to perform a task at a time is called as a:
(a) single user operating system
(b) multi-user operating system
(c) time sharing
(d) distributed operating system
Answer:
(a) single user operating system

Question 7.
The operating system provides ……………………… levels of securities to the end user.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) six
(d) three
Answer:
(d) three

Question 8.
The expansion of FIFO is ……………………….
(a) First In First Out
(b) Fast in Fast Out
(c) Fast In First Out
(d) First in Fast Out
Answer:
(a) First In First Out

Question 9.
The expansion of SJF is ……………………..
(a) Slower Job First
(b) Slower Job Front
(c) Shortest Job First
(d) Shortest Job Front
Answer:
(a) Slower Job First

Question 10.
………………… Security is offered by the password in a multi-user environment:
(a) System level
(b) File level
(c) Network level
(d) Software level
Answer:
(a) System level

Question 11.
The Linux operating system was originated in the year:
(a) 1991
(b) 1997
(c) 1980
(d) 1993
Answer:
(a) 1991

Question 12.
………………….. is an example for a single user operating system:
(a) Windows
(b) Linux
(c) Unix
(d) MS-Dos
Answer:
(d) MS-Dos

Question 13.
………………….. management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory:
(a) Memory
(b) Process
(c) Security
(d) Fault tolerance
Answer:
(a) Memory

Question 14.
The …………………… operating system is used to access shared data and files that residue in any machine around the world:
(a) multi user
(b) single user
(c) distributed
(d) time sharing
Answer:
(c) distributed

Question 15.
The scheduling algorithm is desinged especially for time sharing system:
(a) FIFO
(b) SJF
(c) Round Robin
(d) Based on priority
Answer:
(c) Round Robin

Question 16.
iOS was created and developed by:
(a) Apple Inc
(b) IBM
(c) Apple iOS
(d) Microsoft
Answer:
(a) Apple Inc

Question 17.
…………………. is a computer related mistake:
(a) Data
(b) Program
(c) File
(d) Error
Answer:
(d) Error

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a software?
Answer:
A software is set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.

Question 2.
Mention the types of software?
Answer:
Software is classified into two types:

1. Application Software
2. System Software.

Question 3.
Define application software?
Answer:
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-Word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more.

Question 4.
Define system software?
Answer:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 5.
Define OS?
Answer:
An Operating System (OS) is a system software which serves as an interface between a user and a computer.

Question 6.
Write the key features of the operating system?
Answer:
The key features of the operating system are:

1. User Interface
2. Memory Management
3. Process Management
4. Security Management
5. Fault Tolerance
6. File Management.

Question 7.
What is the main objective of memory management?
Answer:
The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.

Question 8.
What is Garbage collection?
Answer:
Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory is called Garbage collection.

Question 9.
How the processes are classified?
Answer:
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code
2. User Processes which is execute by user code

Question 10.
Write the resources of a process?
Answer:
A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a software?
Answer:
A software is set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.

Question 2.
Mention the types of software?
Answer:
Software is classified into two types:

1. Application Software
2. System Software.

Question 3.
Define application software?
Answer:
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-Word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more.

Question 4.
Define system software?
Answer:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 5.
Define OS?
Answer:
An Operating System (OS) is a system software which serves as an interface between a user and a computer.

Question 6.
Write the key features of the operating system?
Answer:
The key features of the operating system are:

1. User Interface
2. Memory Management
3. Process Management
4. Security Management
5. Fault Tolerance
6. File Management.

Question 7.
What is the main objective of memory management?
Answer:
The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.

Question 8.
What is Garbage collection?
Answer:
Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory is called Garbage collection.

Question 9.
How the processes are classified?
Answer:
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code
2. User Processes which is execute by user code

Question 10.
Write the resources of a process?
Answer:
A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.

Question 11.
What is Round Robin Scheduling?
Answer:
The Round Robin (RR) scheduling algorithm is designed especially for time sharing systems. Jobs (processes) are assigned and processor time in a circular method. For example take three jobs A, B, C. First the job A is assigned to CPU then job B and job C and then again A, B and C and so on.

Question 12.
What is meant by fault tolerance?
Answer:
The Operating Systems should be robust. When there is a fault, the Operating System should not crash, instead the Operating System have fault tolerance capabilities and retain the existing state of system.

Question 13.
List the prominent operating system/
Answer:
Prominent OS are as follows:

1. UNIX
2. Microsoft Windows
3. Linux
4. iOS
5. Android

Question 14.
What is Unix?
Answer:
UNIX is a family of multitasking, multi-user operating systems that derive originally from AT&T Bell Labs, where the development began in the 1970s by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie.

Question 15.
What is iOS?
Answer:
iOS (formerly iPhone OS) is a mobile Operating System created and developed by Apple Inc., exclusively for its hardware. It is the Operating System that presently powers many of the company’s mobile devices, including the iPhone, iPad and iPod Touch. It is the second most popular mobile Operating System globally after Android.

Question 16.
What is meant by Error Log File?
Answer:
The user interface should reduce number of errors committed by the user with little practice the user should be in a position to avoid errors (Error Log File).

Question 17.
What is process?
Answer:
A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer. A word-processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process. A system task, such as sending output to a printer or screen, can also be called as a Process.

Question 18.
Expand the following FAT and NTFS?
Answer:
FAT – File Allocation Table.
NTFS – NeXT generation File System.

III. Explain in Brief.

Question 1.
Write the uses of operating system?
Answer:
The main use of Operating System is –

1. To ensure that a computer can be used do to exact if what the user wants it do.
2. Easy interaction between the users and computers.
3. Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on (Booting).
4. Controlling Input and Output Devices.
5. Manage the utilization of main memory.
6. Providing security to user programs.

Question 2.
Mention the types of operating system?
Answer:

1. Single user operating system
2. Multi-user operating system
3. Multi processing operating system
4. Time sharing operating system
5. Real time operating system
6. Distributed operating system
7. Interactive operating system.

Question 3.
How the operating system provides securities to the end user?
The Operating System provides three levels of securities to the user end.
They are

1. File access level
2. System level
3. Network level.

(i) In order to access the files created by other people, you should have the access permission. Permissions can either be granted by the creator of the file or bythe administrator of the system.

(ii) System level security is offered by the password in a multi-user environment.
Both windows and Linux offer the password facility.

(iii) Network security is an indefinable one. So people from all over the world try to provide such a security.

Question 4.
Write short notes on time-sharing?
Answer:
This is a one of the features of Operating Systems. It allows execution of multiple tasks or processes concurrently. For each task a fixed time is allocated. This division of time is called Time- sharing. The processor switches rapidly between various processes after a time is elapsed or the process is completed.

For example assume that there are three processes called PI, P2, P3 and time allocated for each process 30, 40, 50 minutes respectively. If the process PI completes within 20 minutes then processor takes the next process P2 for the execution. If the process P2 could not complete within 40 minutes, then the current process P2 will be paused and switch over to the next process P3.

Question 5.
Write the responsibilities of operating system in connection with memory management?
Answer:
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities in connection with memory management:

1. Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
2. Determining which processes (or parts of processes) and data to move in and out of memory.
3. Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage Collection)

Question 6.
Write the responsibilities of operating system associated with the process management?
Answer:
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities associated with the process management:

1. Scheduling processes and threads on the CPUs.
2. Creating and deleting both user and system processes.
3. Suspending and resuming processes.
4. Providing mechanisms for process synchronization.
5. Providing mechanisms for process communication.

Question 7.
Write short note on file management?
Answer:
File management is an important function of OS which handles the data storage techniques. The operating System manages the files, folders and directory systems on a computer. Any type of data in a computer is stored in the form of files and directories/folders through File Allocation Table (FAT). The FAT stores general information about files like filename, type (text or binary), size, starting address and access mode (sequential/indexed/indexed-sequential/direct/relative).

The file manager of the operating system helps to create, edit, copy, allocate memory to the files and also updates the FAT. The OS also takes care of the files that are opened with proper access rights to read or edit them. There are few other file management techniques available like Next Generation File System (NTFS) and ext2 (Linux).

Question 8.
What are the advantages of distributed operating system?
Answer:
The advantages of distributed Operatirfg System are as follows:

1. A user at one location can make use of all the resources available at another location over the network.
2. Many computer resources can be added easily in the network
3. Improves the interaction with the customers and clients.
4. Reduces the load on the host computer.

Question 9.
Write short note on Linux?
Answer:
Linux is a family of open-source operating systems. It can be modified and distributed by anyone around the world. This is different from proprietary software like Windows, which can only be modified by the company that owns it. The main advantage of Linux operating system is that it is open source. There are many versions and their updates. Most of the servers run on Linux because it is easy to customize.

There are a few different distributions of Linux, like Ubuntu, Mint, Fedora, RedHat, Debian, Google’s Android, Chrome OS, and Chromium OS which are popular among users.

The Linux operating system was originated in 1991, as a project of “Linus Torvalds” from a university student of Finland. He posted information about his project on a news group for computer students and programmers. He received support and assistance from a large pool of volunteers who succeeded in creating a complete and functional Operating System. Linux is similar to the UNIX operating system.

Linux distributions:
Linux mint, Fedora, Ubuntu, BOSS, Redhat.

Question 10.
Write in detail about memory management?
Answer:
Memory Management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory and assigning memory block (space) to various running programs to optimize overall computer performance. The Memory management involves the allocation of specific memory blocks to individual programs based on user demands. At the application level, memory management ensures the availability of adequate memory for each running program at all times.

The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities in connection with memory management:

• Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
• Determining which processes (or parts of processes) and data to move in and out of memory.
• Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage Collection)

Question 11.
How will you classify the operating system?
Answer:

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
What is a software? Explain the types of software?
Answer:
A software is set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.

Types of Software:
Software is classified into two types:
(i) Application Software
(ii) System Software.
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more. System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the User Interface (Ul) in operating system?
Answer:
User interface is one of the significant feature in Operating System. The only way that user can make interaction with a computer. If the computer interface is not user-friendly, the user slowly reduces the computer usage from their normal life. This is a main reason for key success of GUI (Graphical User Interface) based Operating System. The GUI is a window based system with a pointing device to direct I/O, choose from menus, make selections and a keyboard to enter text.Its vibrant colours attract the user very easily. Beginners are impressed by the help and pop up window message boxes. Icons are playing vital role of the particular application.

Now Linux distribution is also available as GUI based Operating System. The following points are considered when User Interface is designed for an application.

1. The user interface should enable the user to retain this expertise for a longer time.
2. The user interface should also satisfy the customer based on their needs.
3. The user interface should save user’s precious time. Create graphical elements like Menus,Window,Tabs, Icons and reduce typing work will be an added advantage of the Operating System.
4. The ultimate aim of any product is to satisfy the customer. The User Interface is also to satisfy the customer.
5. The user interface should reduce number of errors committed by the user with little practice the user should be in a position to avoid errors (Error Log File).

Question 3.
Explain the process management?
Answer:
Process management is function that includes creating and deleting processes and providing mechanisms for processes to communicate and synchronize with each other.
A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer. A word-processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process. A system task, such as sending output to a printer or screen, can also be called as a Process.
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code
2. User Processes which is execute by user code

All these processes can potentially execute concurrently on a single CPU.
A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities associated with the process management:

1. Scheduling processes and threads on the CPUs
2. Creating and deleting both user and system processes
3. Suspending and resuming processes
4. Providing mechanisms for process synchronization
5. Providing mechanisms for process communication.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Computers Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
First generation computers used:
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) transistors
(c) integrated circuits
(d) microprocessors
Answer:
(a) vacuum tubes

Question 2.
Name the volatile memory:
(a) ROM
(b) PROM
(c) RAM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(c) RAM

Question 3.
Identify the output device:
(a) keyboard
(b) memory
(c) monitor
(d) mouse
Answer:
(c) monitor

Question 4.
Identify the input device:
(a) printer
(b) mouse
(c) plotter
(d) projector
Answer:
(b) mouse

Question 5.
……………………… output device is used for printing building plan, flex board, etc.
(a) Thermal printer
(b) Plotter
(c) Dot matrix
(d) Inkjet printer
Answer:
(b) Plotter

Question 6.
In ATM machines, which one of the following is used to:
(a) touch screen
(b) speaker
(c) monitor
(d) printer
Answer:
(a) touch screen

Question 7.
When a system restarts ………………………. which type of booting is used?
(a) Warm booting
(b) Cold booting
(c) Touch boot
(d) Real boot
Answer:
(a) Warm booting

Question 8.
Expand POST:
(a) Post on self Test
(b) Power on Software Test
(c) Power on Self Test
(d) Power on Self Text
Answer:
(c) Power on Self Test

Question 9.
Which one of the following is the main memory?
(a) ROM
(b) RAM
(c) Flash drive
(d) Hard disk
Answer:
(b) RAM

Question 10.
Which generation of computer used IC’s?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(d) Fourth

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
“A Computer is an electronic device that takes raw data (unprocessed) as an input from the user and processes it under the control of a set of instructions (called program), produces a result (output), and saves it for future use.”

Question 2.
Distinguish between data and information?
Answer:
Data:
Data is defined as an unprocessed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation or processing.
Eg: 134, 16, ‘Kavitha’ ‘C’ are data. This will not give any meaningful message.

Information:
Information is a collection of facts from which conclusions may be drawn.
Eg: Kavitha is 16 years old.

Question 3.
What are the components of a CPU?
Answer:
The CPU has three components which are Control Unit, Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) and Memory Unit.

Question 4.
What is the function of an ALU?
Answer:
The ALU is a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations. The result of an operation is stored in internal memory of CPU. The logical operations of ALU promote the decision-making ability of a computer.

Question 5.
Write the functions of control unit?
Answer:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

Question 6.
What is the function of memory?
Answer:
The memory unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory. The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

Question 7.
Differentiate Input and output unit?
Answer:
Input unit:
Input unit is used to feed data to the computer, initially which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing.
Eg: Keyboard, Mouse, etc.

Output unit:
An output unit is any hardware component that conveys information in users understandable form.
Eg: Printer, Plotter etc.

Question 8.
Distinguish Primary and Secondary memory?
Answer:
Primary memory:

1. It is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
2. It is a volatile memory that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off.
3. Eg: Random Access Memory (RAM)

Secondary memory:

1. It is used to store the data permanently.
2. It is a non-volatile memory that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off.
3. Eg: Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of a computer?
Answer:
The general characteristics of computers are speed, memory capacity, accuracy, diligence, representativeness, reliability, endurance and versatility.

Question 2.
Write the applications of computer?
Answer:
The applications of computers are business, education, marketing, banking, insurance, communication, health care, military, engineering design.

Question 3.
What is an input device? Give two examples?
Answer:
The input device is the component through which data and instructions are provided to the computer. Eg: Keyboard and mouse.

Question 4.
Name any three output devices?
Answer:
The output device is the component which delivers the data and informtion proceed by the CPU. Eg: Monitor, plotter, printers.

Question 5.
Differentiate optical and Laser mouse?
Answer:
Optical Mouse:

1. It uses Red, Blue or Green led.
2. It has three buttons.
3. It is less sensitive and sensitive towards surface.

Laser Mouse:

1. It use only infrared led.
2. It has as many as 12 buttons and can be programmed by user.
3. It is highly sensitive and able to. work on any hard surface.

Question 6.
Write short note on impact printer?
Answer:
These printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on miflti-part (using carbon papers) by using mechanical pressure. Eg: Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers.

A Dot matrix printer that prints using a fixed number of pins or wires. Each dot is produced by a tiny metal rod, also called a “wire” or “pin”, which works by the power of a tiny electromagnet or solenoid, either directly or through a set of small levers. It generally prints one line of text at a time. The printing speed of these printers varies from 30 to 1550 CPS (Character Per Second).

Line matrix printers use a fixed print head for printing. Basically, it prints a page-wide line of dots. But it builds up a line of text by printing lines of dots. Line printers are capable of printing much more than 1000 Lines Per Minute, resulting in thousands of pages per hour. These printers also uses mechanical pressure to print on multi-part (using carbon papers).

Question 7.
Write the characteristics of sixth generation?
Answer:

1. Parallel and Distributed computing.
2. Computers have become smarter, faster and smaller.
3. Development of robotics.
4. Natural Language Processing.
5. Development of Voice Recognition Software.

Question 8.
Write the significant features of monitor?
Answer:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. It looks like a TV, Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels. Monitors may either be Monochrome which display text or images in Black and White or can be color, which display results in multiple colors.

There are many types of monitors available such as CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light Emitting Diodes). The monitor works with the VGA (Video Graphics Array) card. The video graphics card helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen. It acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor. Usually the recent motherboards incorporate built-in video card.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the basic components of a computer with a neat diagram?
Answer:
The computer is the combination of hardware and software. Hardware is the physical component of a computer like motherboard, memory devices, monitor, keyboard etc., while software is the set of programs or instructions. Both hardware and software together make the computer system function.

Input device:
Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer, which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing. Eg: Keyboard, mouse, etc.

Central processing unit (CPU):
CPU is the major component which interprets and executes software instructions. It also control the operation of all other components such as memory, input and output units. It accepts binary data as input, process the data according to the instructions and provide the result as output. The CPU has three components which are Control unit, Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) and Memory unit.

(i) Arithmetic and Logic Unit:
The ALU is a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations. The result of an operation is stored in internal memory of CPU. The logical operations of ALU promote the decision making ability of a computer.

(ii) Control Unit:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

Output Unit:
An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor, Printer etc.

Memory Unit:
The Memory Unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

(i) The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory.

(ii) The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

Question 2.
Discuss the various generations of computers?
Answer:
Growth in the computer industry is determined by the development in technology. Based on various stages of development, computers can be divided into different generations.

Question 3.
Explain the following:

1. Inkjet Printer
2. Multimedia projector
3. Bar code
4. QR code Reader.

1. Inkjet Printer:
inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

2. Multimedia projector:
Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

3. Bar code / QR code Reader:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

4. QR (Quick response) Code:
The QR code is the two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpert the image.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Computers Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………….. is the father of computer.
(a) John Napier
(b) William Oughtred
(c) Blaise Pascal
(d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
(d) Charles Babbage

Question 2.
The expansion of ALU is:
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(b) Arithmetic Long Unit
(c) Arithmetic Law Unit
(d) Arithmetic Logo Unit
Answer:
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit

Question 3.
The first generation was in the year:
(a) 1942-1955
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1964-1975
(d) 1975-present
Answer:
(a) 1942-1955

Question 4.
The first generation computers used:
(a) assembly language
(b) machine language
(c) high level language
(d) word processor language
Answer:
(b) machine language

Question 5.
……………………. used in second generation computers.
(a) Punched cards
(b) Plotter
(c) Printers
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(a) Punched cards

Question 6.
Second generation computers used:
(a) vaccum tube
(b) transistor
(c) integrated circuit
(d) micro processor
Answer:
(b) transistor

Question 7.
Batch processing and multi programming operating system were used in:
(a) first generation
(b) second generation
(c) third generation
(d) fourth generation
Answer:
(b) second generation

Question 8.
The second generation was in the year:
(a) 1942-1955
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1964-1975
(d) 1975-1980
Answer:
(b) 1955-1964

Question 9.
Third generation computers used:
(a) vaccum tube
(b) transistor
(c) integrated circuit
(d) microprocessor
Answer:
(c) integrated circuit

Question 10.
The third generation was in the year:
(a) 1955 – 1964
(b) 1964 – 1975
(c) 1975 – 1980
(d) 1942 – 1955
Answer:
(b) 1964- 1975

Question 11.
High level language appeared in:
(a) first generation
(b) second generation
(c) third generation
(d) fourth generation
Answer:
(c) third generation

Question 12.
Fourth generation computers used:
(a) vaccum tube
(b) transistor
(c) integrated circuit
(d) microprocessor
Answer:
(d) microprocessor

Question 13.
Portable computers are introduced in generation.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 14.
Fourth generation computers was in the year:
(a) 1942-1955
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1964-1975
(d) 1975-1980
Answer:
(d) 1975-1980

Question 15.
Microcomputer series such as IBM and APPLE developed in ………………………. generation.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 16.
Fifth generation was in the year:
(a) 1980-1990
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1980 – present
(d) 1942-1955
Answer:
(c) 1980 – present

Question 17.
Computers can recognize images and graphs in:
(a) first generation
(b) second generation
(c) fourth generation
(d) fifth generation
Answer:
(d) fifth generation

Question 18.
Introduction of Artificial intelligence is in ………………….. generation.
(a) sixth
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(d) fifth

Question 19.
…………………….. is in the sixth generation.
(a) Introduction of portable computers
(b) Introduction of artificial intelligence
(c) Development of robotics
(d) Introduction of word processors
Answer:
(c) Development of robotics

Question 20.
Sixth generation computers are:
(a) batch processing
(b) parallel processing
(c) natural language processing
(d) natural networks
Answer:
(c) natural language processing

Question 21.
Voice Recognition is in the generation.
(a) sixth
(b) fourth
(c) fifth
(d) third
Answer:
(a) sixth

Question 22.
……………………….. is the ability of a computer program to understand human language.
(a) NLP
(b) CPU
(c) ANN
(d) AI
Answer:
(a) NLP

Question 23.
……………………. is a component of artificial intelligence.
(a) CPU
(b) ANN
(C) NLP
(d) ALU
Answer:
(C) NLP

Question 24.
……………………. deals with the design, construction, operation and use of robots.
(a) NLP
(b) Robotics
(c) AI
(d) ANN
Answer:
(b) Robotics

Question 25.
…………………… is the study and application of extremely small things.
(a) Nanotechnology
(b) ANN
(c) Natural language processing
(d) Bio Engineering
Answer:
(a) Nanotechnology

Question 26.
…………………… involves the ability to see and to control individual atoms and molecules.
(a) Robotics
(b) Artificial neural networks
(c) Nanotechnology
(d) NLP
Answer:
(c) Nanotechnology

Question 27.
……………………. that applies engineering principles of design and analysis to biological systems and biomedical technologies.
(a) Nanotechnology
(b) Robotics
(c) Bio-engineering
(d) NLP
Answer:
(c) Bio-engineering

Question 28.
……………………… is the term used for rawfacts and figures.
(a) Data
(b) Information
(c) Mother board
(d) Data processing
Answer:
(a) Data

Question 29.
Data represented in useful and meaningful form is:
(a) data processing
(b) information
(c) data
(d) information set
Answer:
(b) information

Question 30.
The conversion of data to information is called:
(a) computer
(b) information
(c) data processing
(d) software
Answer:
(c) data processing

Question 31.
The computer is the combination of:
(a) hardware and software
(b) mother board and memory devices
(c) monitor and keyboard
(d) monitor and CPU
Answer:
(a) hardware and software

Question 32.
…………………. is the physical components of a computer.
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Mouse
(d) CPU
Answer:
(b) Hardware

Question 33.
……………………. is the set of programs or instructions.
(a) Hard ware
(b) Soft ware
(c) Input – Process – Output
(d) Data
Answer:
(b) Soft ware

Question 34.
Every task given to a computer follows an:
(a) instruction
(b) input – process – output cycle
(c) data
(d) process cycle
Answer:
(b) input – process – output cycle

Question 35.
holds the data and instructions during the processing.
(a) Input unit
(b) Memory unit
(c) Output unit
(d) Storage imit
Answer:
(b) Memory unit

Question 36.
…………………….. is the component through which data and instructions are provided to the computer.
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Memory xmit
(d) Storage device
Answer:
(a) Input device

Question 37.
…………………. is the heart of the computer.
(a) Memory
(b) Software
(c) Storage devices
(d) CPU
Answer:
(d) CPU

Question 38.
The …………………. is the component which delivers the data and inffomation processed by the CPU.
(a) memory storage device
(b) input device
(c) CPU
(d) output device
Answer:
(d) output device

Question 39.
The expansion of CPU is:
(a) Central Processing Unit
(b) Central Prefix Unit
(c) Central Power Unit
(d) Central Printer Unit
Answer:
(a) Central Processing Unit

Question 40.
…………………….. is the logical machine which interprets and executes software instructions.
(a) CPU
(b) Mother Board
(c) Input Device
(d) Storage Device
Answer:
(a) CPU

Question 41.
The CPU has ………………….. units.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) two
(d) three
Answer:
(d) three

Question 42.
The ……………………… performs arithmetic operations.
(a) ALU
(b) CPU
(c) control unit
(d) memory unit
Answer:
(a) ALU

Question 43.
The ……………………. operations of ALU promote the decision making ability of a computer.
(a) arithmetic
(b) logical
(c) comparison
(d) text
Answer:
(b) logical

Question 44.
The unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices.
(a) memory
(b) ALU
(c) CPU
(d) control
Answer:
(d) control

Question 45.
The memory unit is of ………………………. kinds.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) two
Answer:
(d) two

Question 46.
……………………… memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) PROM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 47.
…………………….. is the most common input device used today.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Light Pen
Answer:
(a) Keyboard

Question 48.
……………………….. is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Scanner
(c) Trackball
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 49.
……………………… are used to enter information directly into the computer’s memory.
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Scanner
(d) Trackball
Answer:
(c) Scanner

Question 50.
…………………… used for computer security equipped with the fingerprint recognition.
(a) Fingerprint scanner
(b) Retinal scanner
(c) Optical character – Reader
(d) Touch Screen
Answer:
(a) Fingerprint scanner

Question 51.
……………………. uses the unique patterns on a person’s retina blood vessels.
(a) Scanners
(b) Finger print scanner
(c) Barcode reader
(d) Retinal scanner
Answer:
(d) Retinal scanner

Question 52.
……………………. is an input device which is used to draw lines or figures on a computer screen.
(a) OCR
(b) Light pen
(c) Mouse
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(b) Light pen

Question 53.
……………………. is a device which detects alpha numeric characters printed or written on a paper.
(a) Optical Character Reader
(b) Light Pen
(c) Scanner
(d) Bar code Reader
Answer:
(a) Optical Character Reader

Question 54.
………………….. reads bar codes and converts them into electric pulses to be processed by a computer.
(a) Scanner
(b) Track Ball
(c) Mouse
(d) Bar Code Reader
Answer:
(d) Bar Code Reader

Question 55.
A ……………………. convert human speech into electrical signals.
(a) digital camera
(b) touch screen
(c) microphone
(d) keyboard
Answer:
(c) microphone

Question 56.
…………………….. converts graphics directly into the digital form.
(a) Microphone
(b) Light pen
(c) Touch screen
(d) Digital Camera
Answer:
(d) Digital Camera

Question 57.
……………………. is a display device that allows the uses to interact with a computer by using the finger.
(a) Microphone
(b) Light pen
(c) Touch screen
(d) Digital Camera
Answer:
(c) Touch screen

Question 58.
…………………….. is a device for signalling by hand.
(a) Keyer
(b) Microphone
(c) Touchscreen
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Touchscreen

Question 59.
…………………… is the most commonly used output device to display the information.
(a) Printer
(b) Monitor
(c) Plotter
(d) Keyer
Answer:
(b) Monitor

Question 60.
……………………. is used to produce graphical output on papers.
(a) Printers
(b) Plotters
(c) Monitor
(d) Scanners
Answer:
(b) Plotters

Question 61.
……………………. are used to print the information on papers.
(a) Plotters
(b) Monitor
(c) Printers
(d) Scanners
Answer:
(c) Printers

Question 62.
Printers are divided into ……………………… main categories.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) two

Question 63.
The printing speed.of serial dot matrix printers varies from:
(a) 50 to 1000 cps
(b) 100 to 1000 cps
(c) 40 to 1550 cps
(d) 30 to 1550 cps
Answer:
(d) 30 to 1550 cps

Question 64.
Line printers are capable of printing much ……………………… lines per minute.
(a) more than 500
(b) more than 800
(c) more than 100
(d) more than 1000
Answer:
(d) more than 1000

Question 65.
……………………. produces voice output.
(a) Printer
(b) Projector
(c) Speakers
(d) Plotters
Answer:
(c) Speakers

Question 66.
…………………….. is used to produce computer output on a big screen.
(a) Monitor
(b) Multimedia projector
(c) Speakers
(d) Plotters
Answer:
(b) Multimedia projector

Question 67.
Booting process is of types.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 68.
Cold Booting is also called as:
(a) hard booting
(b) soft booting
(c) rough booting
(d) fast booting
Answer:
(a) hard booting

Question 69.
……………………. transfers from hard disk into main memory.
(a) Assembler
(b) Complier
(c) Bootstrap loader
(d) Loader
Answer:
(c) Bootstrap loader

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a Registers?
Answer:
Registers are the high speed temporary storage locations in the CPU. Although the number of registers varies from computer to computer, there are some registers which are common to all computers.

Question 2.
What type of challenges in natural language processing (NLP) frequently involved?
Answer:
Speech Recognition, Natural Language Understanding and Natural Language Generation.

Question 3.
What is a function of Robotics?
Answer:
Robotics deals with the design, construction, operation and use of robots, as well as computer systems for their control, sensory feedback and processing.

Question 4.
What is Data?
Answer:
Data is defined as an unprocessed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation or processing.
Eg: 134, 16 ‘Kavitha’, ‘C’ are data. This will not give any meaningful message.

Question 5.
What is Information?
Answer:
Information is a collection of facts from which conclusions may be drawn. In simple words we can say that data is the raw facts that is proqessed to give meaningful, ordered or structured information. Eg: Kavitha is 16 years old. This information is about Kavitha and conveys some meaning. This conversion of data into information is called data processing.

Question 6.
Write the different types of mouse?
Answer:
Different types of mouse available are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical, Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse,firgonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse.

Question 7.
What is Track Ball?
Answer:
Track ball is similar to the upside- down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the ball in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Question 8.
Mention the uses of scanner?
Answer:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Question 9.
What is the use of plotters?
Answer:
Plotter is an output device that is used to produce graphical output’ on papers. It uses single color or multi color pens to draw pictures.

Question 10.
How the printers are categorized?
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on papers. Printers are divided into two main categories:

1. Impact Printers.
2. Non Impact Printers.

Question 11.
Name the types of Booting process?
Answer:
Booting process is of two types.

1. Cold Booting
2. Warm Booting.

Question 12.
What is meant by Cold Booting?
Answer:
When the system starts from initial state i.e. it is switched on, we call it cold booting or Hard Booting. When the user presses the Power button, the instructions are read from the ROM to initiate the booting process.

Question 13.
What is meant by Warm Booting?
Answer:
When the system restarts or when Reset button is pressed, we call it Warm Booting or Soft Booting. The system does not start from initial state and so all diagnostic tests need not be carried out in this case. There are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.

Question 14.
Write the performance of a Retinal Scanner?
Answer:
This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retinal blood vessels.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is a mouse?
Answer:
Mouse (wired/wireless) is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen. It can be used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer. Some mouse actions are move, click, double click, right click, drag and drop.

Question 2.
What are the variety of mouse available?
Answer:
Variety of mouse available, they are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical and Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse, Pucks, Ergonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse. Among all the types, Mechanical and Optical and Laser mouse is very familiar.

Question 3.
What are the two main type of printers? Give example?
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on papers. Printers are divided into two main categories: (i) Impact Printers and (ii) Non Impact printers
(i) Impact Printers:
These printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on multi-part (using carbon papers) by using mechanical pressure. Eg: Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers are impact printers.

(ii) Non-Impact Printers:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic and laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers is better than Impact printers. Eg: Laser printers and Inkjet printers are non-impact printers.

Question 4.
What is the classification of memory?
Answer:
The Memory Unit is of two kinds which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
Eg: RAM The secondary memory is used to permanently store the data. Eg: Hard disk, CD-ROM

Question 5.
What is boot sequence? (or) Write the process of Booting?
Answer:
An Opertaing System (OS) is a basic software that makes the computer to work. When a computer is switched on, there is no information in its RAM.At the same time, in ROM, the pre-written program called POST (Power on Self Test) will be executed first. This program checks if the devices like RAM, keyboard, etc., are connected properly and ready to operate.

If these devices are ready, then the BIOS (Basic Input Output System) gets executed. This process is called Booting. Thereafter, a program called “Bootstrap Loader” transfers OS from hard disk into main memory. Now the OS gets loaded (Windows/Linux, etc.,) and will get executed. Booting process is of two types.(i) Cold Booting, (ii) Warm Booting.

Question 6.
Write short notes on sixth generation computing?
Answer:
In the Sixth Generation, computers could be defined as the era of intelligent computers, based on Artificial Neural Networks. One of the most dramatic changes in the sixth generation will be the explosive growth of Wide Area Networking. Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a component of Artificial Intelligence (AI). It provides the ability to develop the computer program to understand human language.

Question 7.
Write the mechanism for mechanical mouse?
Answer:

1. A small ball is kept inside and touches the pad through a hole at the bottom of the mouse.
2. When the mouse is moved, the ball rolls.
3. This movement of the ball is converted into signals and sent to the computer.

Question 8.
Write the function of keyboard?
Answer:
Keyboard (wired / wireless, virtual) is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

The data and instructions are given as input to the computer by typing on the keyboard. Apart from alphabet and numeric keys, it also has Function keys for performing different functions. There are different set of keys available in the keyboard such as character keys, modifier keys, system and GUI keys, enter and editing keys, function keys, navigation keys, numeric keypad and lock keys.

Question 9.
Write short notes on
(i) Optical character reader
(ii) Voice input system.

(i) Optical Character Reader:
It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters in the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores. The Scanned document can be edited using a wordprocessor.

(ii) Voice Input System:
Microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and send it to the Computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer.

Question 10.
Expand the following:
(i) POST
(ii) BIOS
(iii) NLP
Answer:
(i) POST:
Power on Self Test.

(ii) BIOS:
Basic Input Output System.

(iii) NLP:
Natural Language Processing.

Question 11.
How the touch screen allows the user to interact with computer?
Answer:
A touch screen is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the . finger. It can be quite useful as an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface (GUI). Touch screens are used on a wide variety of devices such as computers, laptops, monitors, smart phones, tablets, cash registers and information kiosks. Some touch screens use a grid of infrared beams to sense the presence of a finger instead of utilizing touch- sensitive input.

Question 12.
What is the use of Fingerprint Scanner?
Answer:
Fingerprint Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Question 13.
Write about the light pen?
Answer:
A light pen is a pointing device shaped like a pen and is connected to a monitor. The tip of the light pen contains a light-sensitive element which detects the light from the screen enabling the computer to identify the location of the pen on the screen. Light pens have the advantage ofedrawing’ directly onto the screen, but this becomes hard to use, and is also not accurate.

Question 14.
What is hardware and software?
Answer:
Hardware is the physical component of a computer like motherboard, memoiy devices, monitor, keyboard etc. while software is the set of programs or instructions.

Question 15.
Give the use of speakers?
Answer:
Speakers produce voice output (audio). Using speaker along with speech synthesize software, the computer can provide voice output. This has become very common in places like airlines, schools, banks, railway stations, etc.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
List a few commonly used Input devices and explain them briefly?
Answer:
The most commonly used Input devices are:
(i) Keyboard:
Keyboard (wired / wireless, virtual) is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

The data and instructions are given as input to the computer by typing on the keyboard. Apart from alphabet and numeric keys, it also has Function keys for performing different functions. There are different set of keys available in the keyboard such as character keys, modifier keys, system and GUI keys, enter and editing keys, function keys, navigation keys, numeric keypad and lock keys.

(ii) Mouse:
Mouse (wired/wireless) is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen. It can be used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer. Some mouse actions are move, click, double click, right click, drag and drop.

(iii) Scanner:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

(iv) Barcode Readers:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

(v) Digital camera:
It captures images J videos directly in the digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Question 2.
Write the commonly used output devices and explain them briefly?
Answer:
The most commonly used output devices are
(i) Monitor
(ii) Printers.

(i) Monitor:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. It looks like a TV, Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels. Monitors may either be Monochrome which display text or images in Black and White or can be color, which display results in multiple colors. There are many types of monitors available such as CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light Emitting Diodes). The monitor works with the VGA (Video Graphics Array) card. The video graphics card helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen. It acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor. Usually the recent motherboards incorporate built-in video card.

(ii) Printers:
Printers are used to print the information of papers. Printers are divided into two main categories.

(a) Impact Printers:

The memory unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory. The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

(b) Non-Impact Printers:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic or laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers are better than Impact printers. Eg: Laser printers and Inkjet printers are non-impact printers.

Thermal Printers:
It is a digital printing process which produces a printed image by selectively heating coated thermochromic paper, or thermal paper as it is commonly known, when the paper passes over the thermal print head. The coating turns black in the areas where it is heated, producing an image. Two colour direct thermal printers can print both black and an additional colour (often red) by applying heat at two different temperature.

Laser Printers:
Laser printers mostly work with similar technology used by photocopiers. It makes a laser beam scan back and forth across a drum inside the printer, building up a pattern. It can produce very good quality of graphic images. One of the chief characteristics of laser printer is their resolution – how many Dots per inch(DPI). The available resolution range around 1200 dpi. Approximately it can print 100 pages per minute(PPM).

Inkjet Printers:
inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

Question 3.
Explain the types of mouse?
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU?
(a) Byte
(b) Nibble
(c) Word length
(d) Bit
Answer:
(c) Word length

Question 2.
How many bytes does 1 KiloByte contain?
(a) 1000
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 1024
Answer:
(d) 1024

Question 3.
Expansion for ASCII:
(a) American School Code for Information Interchange
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) All Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Society Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 4.
2^50 is referred as:
(a) kilo
(b) tera
(c) peta
(d) zetta
Answer:
(c) peta

Question 5.
How many characters can be handled in Binary Coded Decimal System?
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(a) 64

Question 6.
For 11012 what is the Hexadecimal equivalent?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
Answer:
(c) D

Question 7.
What is the 1 ’s complement of 00100110?
(a) 00100110
(b) 11011001
(c) 11010001
(d) 00101001
Answer:
(b) 11011001

Question 8.
Which amongst this is not an Octal number?
(a) 645
(b) 234
(c) 876
(d) 123
Answer:
(c) 876

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is data?
Answer:
The term data comes from the word datum, which means a raw fact. The data is a fact about people, places or some objects.
Eg: Let ‘Name’, ‘Age’, ‘Class’, ‘Marks’ and ‘Subject’ be some defined variables. Now, let us assign a value to each of these variables.
Name = Rajesh
Age = 16
Class = XI
Mark – 65
Subject = Computer Science
In the above example, the values assigned to the five different variables are called data.

Question 2.
Write the l’s complement procedure?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Convert given Decimal number into Binary
2. Step 2: Check if the binary number contains 8 bits, if less add 0 at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
3. Step 3: Invert all bits (i.e. Change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)

Question 3.
Convert (46)₁₀ into Binary number?

Question 4.
We cannot find 1’s complement for (28)10. State reason?
Answer:
1’s complement representation is an easier approach to represent signed numbers. This is for negative numbers only. This (28)10 this whole numbers cannot be determined by negative number because the number whose MSB is 1.

Question 5.
List the encoding systems for characters immemory?
Answer:
There are several encoding systems used for computer. They are

1. BCD: Binary Coded Decimal.
2. EBCDIC: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code.
3. ASCII: American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
4. Unicode
5. ISCII: Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is radix of a number system? Give example?
Answer:
A numbering system is a way of representing numbers. The most commonly used numbering system in real life is Decimal number system. Other number systems are Binary, Octal, Hexadecimal number system. Each number system is uniquely identified by its base value or radix. Radix or base is the count of number of digits in each number system. Radix or base is the general idea behind positional numbering system.
Eg: (123)₁₀, (547)_g, (1001)₂, (25)₁₆.

Question 2.
Write note on binary number system?
Answer:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Eg: The binary sequence (1101)₂ has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)₂ = 1 × 2³+ 1 × 2² + 0 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
= 8 + 4 + 0+ 1 = (13)₁₀

Question 3.
Convert (150)₁₀ into Binary, then convert that Binary number to Octal?
Binary number:

Binary number to octal:

Question 4.
Write short note on ISCII?
Answer:
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This as a 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (2s) characters. This system is formulated by the department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

Question 5.
Add:
(i)-22₁₀+15₁₀
(ii) 20₁₀+ 25₁₀
Answer:
(i) -22 +15
The binary equivalent of 22 is 00010110

The binary equivalent of 15 is 1111.
Binary addition of -22 and +15

(ii) 20 + 25
Binary number for 20 = 00010100
Binary number or 25 = 00011001

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
(a) Write the procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
(b) Convert (98.46)10 to Binary.
Answer:
(a) The method of repeated multiplication by 2 has to be used to convert such kind of decimal fractions.
The steps involved in the method of repeated multiplication by 2:

Step 1: Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either 0 or 1.
Step 2: Discard, the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2 Repeat Step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3: The resulting integer part forms a sequence of Os and Is that become the binary equivalent of decimal fraction.
Step 4: The final answer is to be written from first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.


(98.46)₁₀ = (1100010.011101011…..)₂

Question 2.
Find 1’s Complement and 2’s Complement for the following Decimal number:
(a) – 98
(b) -135
(a) – 98
First convert given decimal number into binary:

Binary number = 1100010
Binary number = 1100010
Second, check binary number as 8 bits, If less add 0 as the left most bit, 01100010
Third, Invert all bits (change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)
1’s complement for 10011101.

2’s complement:

(b) – 135
First convert gives decimal number into Binary.

Binary number = 10000111
Second, check binary number as 8 bits, If less add 0 at the left most bit. It has 8 bits, 10000111.
Third, Invert all bits (change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)
1 ’s complement for 01111000.
2’s complement:

2’s complement of – 135 – 01111001

Question 3.
(a) Add 1101010₂+ 101101₂
(b) Subtract 1101011₂ – 1110102₂
Answer:
(a) 1101010₂ + 101101₂

1101010₂ + 101101₂ = 10010111₂

(b) 1101011₂ – 111010₂

1101011₂ – 111010₂ = 110001₂

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Number Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A bit is the short form of:
(a) binary data
(b) binary digit
(c) binary decimal
(d) big digit
Answer:
(b) binary digit

Question 2.
A ……………………… is a collection of 4 bits.
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) nibble
(d) word length
Answer:
(c) nibble

Question 3.
A collection of 8 bits is called:
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) word length
(d) nibble
Answer:
(b) byte

Question 4.
2^40 is referred as:
(a) mega
(b) giga
(c) peta
(d) tera
Answer:
(d) tera

Question 5.
2^70 is referred as:
(a) peta
(b) exa
(c) zetta
(d) yotta
Answer:
(c) zetta

Question 6.
1024 GB is referred as:
(a) kilo byte
(b) mega byte
(c) giga byte
(d) tera byte
Answer:
(d) tera byte

Question 7.
……………………. are used to represent characters in a text.
(a) Bits
(b) Bytes
(c) Nibble
(d) Wordlength
Answer:
(b) Bytes

Question 8.
The ASCII value for blank space is:
(a) 32
(b) 91
(c) 48
(d) 65
Answer:
(a) 32

Question 9.
The ASCII value for numeric 0 is:
(a) 32
(b) 91
(c) 48
(d) 65
Answer:
(c) 48

Question 10.
Each number system is uniquely identified by its:
(a) decimal value
(b) binary value
(c) base value or radix
(d) octal value
Answer:
(c) base value or radix

Question 11.
The range of ASCII values for lower case alphabets is from:
(a) 97 to 122
(b) 65 to 90
(c) 98 to 122
(d) 97 to 123
Answer:
(a) 97 to 122

Question 12.
The range of ASCII values for upper case alphabets is from:
(a) 97 to 122
(b) 65 to 90
(c) 66 to 90
(d) 65 to 97
Answer:
(b) 65 to 90

Question 13.
The expansion of MSB is:
(a) most significant bit
(b) most signed bit
(c) must significant bit
(d) must signed bit
Answer:
(a) most significant bit

Question 14.
The expansion of LSB is:
(a) lower significant bit
(b) least significant bit
(c) lower signed bit
(d) least signed bit
Answer:
(b) least significant bit

Question 15.
Radix of octal number is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 16.
The binary sequence (1101 )2 has the decimal equivalent:
(a) (25)₁₀
(b) ( 15)₁₀
(c) (17)₁₀
(d) (13)₁₀
Answer:
(d) (13)₁₀

Question 17.
In hexadecimal C represents:
(a) 11
(b) 0
(c) 12
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 18.
The simplest method to represent negative binary numbers is called:
(a) signed magnitude
(b) unsigned magnitude
(c) magnitude bit
(d) unmagnitude bit
Answer:
(a) signed magnitude

Question 19.
EBDIC coding system can handle …………………….. characters.
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(c) 256

Question 20.
The most commonly used coding scheme is the:
(a) Binary Coded Decimal
(b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(c) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(d) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define word length?
Answer:
Word length refers to the number of bits processed by a Computer’s CPU. For example, a word length can have 8 bits, 16 bits, 32 bits and 64 bits (Present day Computers use 32 bits or 64 bits).

Question 2.
Define byte?
Answer:
A collection of 8 bits is called Byte. A byte is considered as the basic unit of measuring the memory size in the computer.

Question 3.
What is a bit?
Answer:
A bit is the short form of Binary digit which can be ‘0’ or ‘1’. It is the basic unit of data in computers.

Question 4.
What is Decimal Number System?
Answer:
It consists of 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 (10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day-to-day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.

Question 5.
What is meant by Octal Number System?
Answer:
Octal number system uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (8 digits). Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.

Question 6.
Convert (547)₈ to its decimal equivalent?
Answer:
The Octal sequence (547)g has the decimal equivalent:
(547)₈ = 5 × 8² + 4 × 8¹ + 7 × 8⁰
= 5 × 64 + 4 × 8 + 7 × 1
= 320 + 32 + 7 – (359)₁₀

Question 7.
Convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent binary number?
Answer:

Question 8.
How will you convert decimal to octal? Give example?
Answer:
To convert Decimal to Octal, “Repeated Division by 8” method can be used. In this method, we have to divide the given number by 8.
Eg: Convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent Octal Number.

Question 9.
Write octal numbers and their binary equivalent?
Answer:

Question 10.
Convert (11010110)₂ into octal equivalent?
Answer:

Question 11.
Convert the following binary numbers to decimal
(i) 11101
(ii) 1011010
Answer:

(11101)₂ = (29)₁₀

(ii) 1011010

(1011010)₂ = (90)₁₀

Question 12.
Convert (3EF)₁₆ to decimal?
Answer:

(3EF)₁₆ = (1007)₁₀

Question 13.
Convert (111011)₂ into its equivalent decimal number?
Answer:

(111011)₂ = (59)₁₀

Question 14.
In what ways the numbers are represented in computers?
Answer:
The numbers are represented in computers in different ways:

1. Signed Magnitude representation.
2. 1 ’s Complement.
3. 2’s Complement

Question 15.
What is a character set?
Answer:
In general, 26 uppercase letters, 26 lowercase letters, 0 to 9 digits and special characters are used in a computer is called character set. All these character set are denoted through numbers only.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write the hierarchy of data representation?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write short note on hexadecimal number system?
Answer:
A hexadecimal number is represented using base 16. Hexadecimal or Hex numbers are used as a shorthand form of binary sequence. This system is used to represent data in a more compact manner. Since 16 symbols are used, 0 to F, the notation is called hexadecimal. The first 10 symbols are the same as in the decimal system, 0 to 9 and the remaining 6 symbols are taken from the first 6 letters of the alphabet sequence, A to F, where A represents 10, B is 11, C is 12, D is 13, E is 14 and F is 15.
Eg: The hexadecimal sequence (25)₁₆ has the decimal equivalent:
(25)₁₆ = 2 × 16¹ + 5 × 16⁰
= 32 + 5 = (37)₁₀

Question 3.
Write the steps for binary to decimal conversion?
Answer:
To convert Binary to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Step 1: Write down the Binary digits and list the powers of 2 from right to left (Positional Notation)
2. Step 2: For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Step 3: Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Step 4: Add all the values.

Question 4.
How will you convert binary to octal?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Group the given binary number into 3 bits from right to left.
2. Step 2: You can add preceding 0 to make a group of 3 bits if the left most group has less than 3 bits.
3. Step 3: Convert equivalent octal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Eg: Convert (11010110)₂ to its Octal equivalent.

(11010110)₂ = (326)₈

Question 5.
Write the steps for converting binary to hexadecimal?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Group the given number into 4 bits from right to left.
2. Step 2: You can add preceding 0’s to make a group of 4 bits if the left most group has less than 4 bits.
3. Step 3: Convert equivalent Hexadecimal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Eg: Convert (1111010110)₂ to Hexadecimal.

[Note: 0’s are added to the left most group to make it a group of 4 bits]
(1111010110)₂ = (3D6)₁₆

Question 6.
Write the steps for octal to decimal conversion?
Answer:
To convert octal to decimal, we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the octal digits and list the powers of 8 from right to left(Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation of the digit write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight
4. Add all the values

Eg: Convert (1265)₈ to equivalent Decimal number.

(1265)₈ = 512 × 1 + 64 × 2 + 8 × 6 + 1 × 5
= 512 + 128 + 48 + 5
(1265)₈ = (693)₁₀

Question 7.
Write the steps for converting hexadecimal to decimal?
Answer:
To convert Hexadecimal to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the Hexadecimal digits and list the powers of 16 from right to left (Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Add all the values to get one final value.

Eg: Convert (25F)₁₆ into its equivalent Decimal number.

(25F)₁₆ = 2 × 256 + 5 × 16 + 15 × 1
= 512 + 80 + 15
(25F)₁₆ = (607)₁₀

Question 8.
Write short note on signed magnitude representation?
Answer:
The value of the whole numbers can be determined by the sign used before it. If the number has ‘+’ sign or no sign it will be considered as positive. If the number has ‘-‘ sign it will be considered as negative.
Eg: + 43 or 43 is a positive number,
– 43 is a negative number.
In signed binary representation, the left most bit is considered as sign bit. If this bit is 0, it is a positive number and if it 1, it is a negative number. Therefore a signed binary number has 8 bits, only 7 bits used for storing values (magnitude) and the 1 bit is used for sign.
+ 43 is represented in memory as follows:

– 43 can be represented in memory as follows:

Question 9.
Write 2’s complement procedure with example?
Answer:
The 2’s-complement method for negative number is as follows:

1. Invert all the bits in the binary sequence (i.e., change every 0 tol and every 1 to 0 i.e., 1’s complement)
2. Add 1 to the result to the Least Significant Bit (LSB).

Eg: 2’s Complement represent of (-24)₁₀

Question 10.
Write short note Unicode?
Answer:
This coding system is, used in most of the modem computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation, when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII. Hence, the Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is 16 bit code and can handle 65536 characters.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Give the steps to convert fractional binary to decimal equivalent with example?
Answer:
Step 1: Convert integral part of Binary to Decimal equivalent using positional notation method.
Step 2: To convert the fractional part of binary to its decimal equivalent.
Step 2.1: Write down the Binary digits in the fractional part.
Step 2.2: For all the digits write powers of 2 from left to right starting from 2^-1,2^-22, 2^-3………………… 2^-n, now write the equivalent weight.
Step 2.3: Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
Step 2.4: Add all the values which you obtained in Step 2.3.

Step 3: To get final answer write the integral part (after conversion), followed by a decimal point(.) and the answer arrived at Step 2.4.
Eg: Convert the given Binary number (11.011)₂ into its decimal equivalent Integer part (11)₂ = 3.

3 + (0 × 0.5 + 1 × 0.25 + 1 × 0.125) = 3. 375
(11.011)₂ = (3.375)₁₀

Question 2.
Explain in detail the different encoding systems used for computer?
Answer:
There are several encoding systems used for computer. They are –
(i) Binary Coded Decimal (BCD):
This encoding system is not in the practice right now. This is 26 bit encoding system. This can handle 26 = 64 characters only.

(ii) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII):
This is the most popular encoding system recognized by United States. Most of the computers use this system. Remember this encoding system can handle English characters only. This can handle 27 bit which means 128 characters.

In this system, each character has individual number. The new edition (version) ASCII – 8, has 2⁸ bits and can handle 256 characters are represented from 0 to 255 unique numbers.

The ASCII code equivalent to the uppercase letter ‘ A’ is 65. The binary representation of ASCII (7 bit) value is 1000001. Also 01000001 in ASCII-8 bit.

(iii) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC):
This is similar to ASCII Code with 8 bit representation. This coding system is formulated by International Business Machine(IBM). The coding system can handle 256 characters. The input code in ASCII can be converted to EBCDIC system and vice – versa.

(iv) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange (ISCII):
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This as a 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (28) characters. This system is formulated by the department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

(v) Unicode:
This coding system is used in most of the modem computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation, when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII. Hence, the Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is 16 bit code and can handle 65536 characters.

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TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The shape of the indifference curve is …………..
(a) Price line
(b) Budget line
(c) ISO – cost line
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
The basic problem studied in Economics is ……………
(a) Unlimited wants
(b) Unlimited means
(c) Scarcity
(d) Strategy to meet all our wants
Answer:
(c) Scarcity

Question 3.
The man – made physical goods used to produce other goods and services are referred to as …………….
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 4.
Identify the advantages of rural roads
(a) rural marketing
(b) rural employment
(c) rural development
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 5.
In monopoly, MR curve lies below ……………
(a) TR
(b) MC
(c) AR
(d) AC
Answer:
(c) AR

Question 6.
The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced by……………..
(a) Ferguson
(b) Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 7.
The Secondary factors are……………..
(a) Capital
(b) Organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Labour
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 8.
When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility will be ………….
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative
Answer:
(b) maximum

Question 9.
Author of “An inquiry into the Nature and causes of wealth of Nations”.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Lionel Robbins
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 10.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks ………………
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 11.
Identify the formula of estimating average cost.
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 12.
The Goods and Services Tax came into effect on
(a) 1st July 2017
(b) 1st July 2016
(c) 1st January 2017
(d) 1st January 2016
Answer:
(a) 1st July 2017

Question 13.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) Luxuries
(b) Comforts
(c) Necessaries
(d) Agriculture goods
Answer:
(d) Agriculture goods

Question 14.
The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated with ………..
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Who has given scarcity definition of economics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Robertson
Answer:
(c) Robbins

Question 16.
Saved amount is called …………..
(a) Capital
(b) Income
(c) Production
(d) Output
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 17.
Which theory is generally included under micro economics?
(a) Price theory
(b) Income theory
(c) Employment theory
(d) Trade theory
Answer:
(a) Price theory

Question 18.
Expansion of FDI
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Port folio Investment
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 19.
Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1
(b) TU_n – TU_n+1
(c) TU_n + TU_n+1
(d) TU_n – TU_n+1
Answer:
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1

Question 20.
The indifference curve are
(a) vertical
(b) horizontal
(c) positive sloped
(d) Negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) Negatively sloped

Part-II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any two types of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at lower price.

Question 22.
Distinguish between real and money wages.
Answer:
Money Wages :

1. Money wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Depend upon the standard of living workers in a country.

Real Wages :

1. Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services.
2. Depend upon the purchasing power of money.

Question 23.
Mention the classification of wants.
Answer:
Wants are broadly classified into three categories.

• Necessaries: Goods which are indispensable for the human beings to exist in the world are called “Necessaries”. For example, food, clothing and shelter.
• Comforts: Goods which are not indispensable for life but to make our life easy, convenient and comfortable are called “Comforts”. Ex: TV, Fan, Refrigerator and Air conditioner.
• Luxuries: Goods which are not very essential but are very costly are known as “Luxuries”. ( Ex: Jewellery, Diamonds and Cars. However, for people with higher income they may look necessaries or comforts.

Question 24.
What are the degrees of price elasticity of demand?
Answer:
The price elasticity of demand, commonly known as the elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness and sensitiveness of demand for a product to the changes in its price. In other words, the price elasticity of demand is equal to

Question 25.
State any two features of developed economy.
Answer:

1. High National Income
2. High Per Capita Income

Question 26.
Define Utility.
Answer:

• Utility is the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wants.
• Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number such as I, II, III and so on.

Question 27.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behaviour.
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:
1. Utility approach

• The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
• Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or Marginal utility analysis or marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach

The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 28.
What are the conditions for produces’s equilibrium?
Answer:

• Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output.
• It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production.
• In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘ least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Question 29.
State the meaning of liquidity preference.
Answer:

• Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
• “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an equal amount of cash rather than of claims against other”.

Question 30.
Explicit Cost- Define.
Answer:
Payment made to other for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium with a diagram.
Answer:
Consumer Equilibrium: The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.

‘T’ is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the upper most IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_xy and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of x to price of y.

i.e., \(\frac{P_{x}}{P_{y}}\) Therefore \(\mathrm{MRS}_{\mathrm{xy}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{y}}} \)

Question 32.
Explain social infrastructure.
Answer:

• Social infrastructure refers to those structures which are improving the quality of manpower and contribute indirectly towards the growth of an economy.
• These structures are outside the system of production and distribution.
• The development of these social structures help in increasing the efficiency and productivity of manpower.
• For example, schools, colleges, hospitals and other civic amenities.
• It is a fact that one of the reasons for the low productivity of Indian workers is the lack of development of social infrastructure.

The status and developments in the social infrastructure in India are discussed below:

Education in India:
The India education system has flourished and developed with the growing needs of the economy.

Health in India:

• Health in India is a state government responsibility.
• The Central Council of Health and Welfare formulates the various health care projects and health department reform policies.

Question 33.
Write a short note on welfare economics given by Amartya Sen.
Answer:

• Amartya Kumar Sen has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
• He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

Question 34.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

• Land is a primary factor of production
• Land is a passive factor of production
• Land is the free gift of nature
• Land has no cost of production
• Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
• Land is permanent
• Land is immovable
• Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
• Land has alternative uses
• Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium.
Answer:
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.
T is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the upper IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction’.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_XY and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of X to price of Y z.e. P _x/ P_y . Therefore MRS_xy = P_x / P_y

Question 36.
The Handicrafts were declined in India in British period. Why?
Answer:

• The Indian handicrafts products had a worldwide market.
• Indian exports consisted chiefly of hand weaved cotton and silk fabrics, calicoes, artistic
  wares, wood carving etc. ,
• Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the
  handicrafts.
• With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings. There was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
•  Indian handicraft products could not complete with machine – made products.
• The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for the British goods.

Question 37.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure system in colonial India.
Answer:
Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management. The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land.
• Who cultivates the land.
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were:

• Zamindari System or the Landlord – Tenant System.
• Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming.
• Ryotwari System or the Owner Cultivator System.

Zamindari System or the Land lord Tenant System:

• Under this system the land lord or the Zamindars were declared as the owners of the land and they were responsible to pay the land revenue to the government.
• The share of the government in total rent collected was fixed as 10/11th the balance going to the
  Zamindars as remuneration.

Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming:

• After introduction of this system, it was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
• The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body usually the villagers which served as a unit of management.

Ryotwari System (or) the Owner Cultivator System:

• This system was initially introduced in Tamil Nadu and later extended to Maharashtra,
• Gujarat, Assam, Coorg, East Punjab and Madhya Pradesh.
• Under this system the ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.\

Question 38.
State and explain the elasticity of supply.
Answer:

• • Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
  • It is Mathematically expressed as,
    Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
    

Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price , A denotes a change.

Question 39.
Write the strategy of Jawaharlal Nehru in India’s planning.
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• To Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Initiating the debate on the Second Plan in the Lok Sabha in May 1956, Nehru spoke on the theme of planning.
• Nehru Said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basic strategy of planned development.

Question 40.
What are the reasons for upward sloping supply curve?
Answer:
A supply curve represents the data given in the supply schedule. As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope from left to right.

The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y axis. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the short run cost curves with suitable diagram.
Short run Cost Curves:
Total Fixed Cost (TFC):
Answer:
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost. A hypothetical TFC is shown in below table and diagram .

For instance if TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12, the fixed cost here is 12. That means, if Q is zero, the Total cost will be 12, hence fixed cost.
It could be observed that TFC does not change with output. Even when the output is zero, the fixed cost is ₹ 1000. TFC is a horizontal straight line, parallel to X axis.

Total Variable Cost (TVC):
All payments to the variable factors of production is called as Total Variable Cost. Hypothetical TVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

In the diagram the TVC is zero when nothing is produced. As output increases TVC also increases. TVC curve slopes upward from left to right.
For instance in TC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q + 12, variable cost, TVC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q

Total Cost Curves:
Total Cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is also called as Total Cost of Production.
Total cost is the summation of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC). It is written symbolically as
TC = TFC + TVC. For example, when the total fixed cost is ₹ 1000 and the total variable cost is ₹ 200 then the Total cost is = ₹ 1200 (₹1000 + ₹ 200).
If TFC = 12 and
TVC = Q³– 18 Q² + 91 Q
TC = 12 + Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q

Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output. AFC = TFC / Q where, AFC denotes average fixed cost, TFC denotes total fixed cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, if TFC is 1000 and the quantity of output is 10, the AFC is ₹ 100, obtained by dividing ₹ 1000 by 10. TVC is shown in below table and diagram.

It is to be noted that

• AFC declines as output increases, as fixed cost remains constant.
• AFC cuiwe is a downward sloping throughout its length, never touching X and Y axis. It is asymptotic to both the axes.
• The shape of the AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

Average Variable Cost (AVC):
Average Variable Cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output (Q). AVC = TVC / Q where, AVC denotes Average Variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, When the TVC is ₹ 300 and the quantity produced is 2, the AVC is ₹ 150,
(AVC = 300/2 = 150) AVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Average Total Cost (ATC) or Average Cost (AC):
Average Total Cost refers to the total cost per unit of output.

It can be obtained in two ways.

1. By dividing the firm’s total cost (TC).by the quantity of output (Q). ATC = TC / Q.
For example, if TC is ₹ 1600 and quantity of output is Q = 4, the Average Total Cost is ₹ 400. (ATC = 1600/4 = 400)
If ATC is Q³ – 18 Q³ + 91 Q + 12, then AC = Q² – 18 Q +91 + 12/Q

2. By ATC is derived by adding together Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC) at each level of output. ATC = AFC + AVC:
For example, when Q = 2, TFC = 1000, TVC = 300; AFC = 500; AVC =150; ATC=650. ATC or AC is shown in the below table and diagram

Marginal Cost (MC):
Marginal Cost is the cost of the last single unit produced. It is defined as the change in total costs resulting from producing one extra unit of output. In other words, it is the addition made to the total cost by producing one extra unit of output. Marginal cost is important for deciding whether any additional output can be produced or not. MC = ATC / AQ where MC denotes Marginal Cost, ATC denotes change in total cost and AQ denotes change in total quantity. For example, a firm produces 4 units of output and the Total cost is ₹ 1600. When the firm produces one more unit (4+1 = 5 units) of output at the total cost of ₹ 1900, the marginal cost is ₹ 300.

[OR]

(b) Bring out the features of perfect competition.
Answer:
(i) Large Number of Buyers and sellers

• “A large number of buyers” implies that each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market.
• This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product.
• He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker
• Large number of sellers” implies that share of each individual seller is a very very small quantum of a product.
• No power to fix the price of the product.

(ii) Homogeneous Product and Uniform Price

• The product sold and bought is homogeneous in nature, in the sense that the units of the product are perfectly substitutable.
• All the units of the product are identical i.e., of the same size, shape, colour, quality etc.
• Therefore, a uniform price prevails in the market.

(iii) Free Entry and Exit

• In the short run, it is possible for the very efficient producer, producing the product at a very low cost, to earn super normal profits.
• An inefficient producer, who is unable to bring down the cost incurs loss.

(iv) Absence of Transport Cost :
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost.

(v) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production

• The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the perfect mobility of the factors of production.
• As they enjoy perfect freedom to move from one place to another and from one occupation to another, the price gets adjusted.

(vi) Perfect Knowledge of the Market
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price etc.

(vii) No Government Intervention
There is no government regulation on supply of raw materials, and in the determination of price etc.

Question 42.
(a) Describe the features of oligopoly.
Answer:
Features of oligopoly:

• Few large firms: Veiy few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.
• Interdependence among firms: The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.
• Group behaviour: The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual . co-operation.
• Advertisement cost: The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.
• Nature of product: Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogeneous products.
• Price rigidity: It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolistic firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

[OR]

(b) Discuss about the Indian Economy during British period.
Answer:
Indian Economy during the British period:

• India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
• The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
• In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
• In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
• Hundred years after Battle of Plassey, the rule of the East India Company finally did come
  to an end.
• In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
• Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
• Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.

On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:

1. The period of merchant Capital
2. The period of Industrial Capital
3. The period of Finance Capital

Question 43.
(a) What is GST? Write its advantages.
Answer:

• GST – Goods and Services Tax. GST is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
• Removing cascading tax effect
• Single point tax
• Higher threshold for registration
• Composition scheme for small business
• Online simpler procedure under GST
• Defined treatment for e-commerce
• Increased efficiency in logistics
• Regulating the unorganized sector

[OR]

(b) What are the remedial measures for Rural unemployment?
Answer:
Remedial measures for Rural unemployment:
In order to reduce rural unemployment in the country there is a need to take integrated and coordinated efforts from various levels. A few remedial measures are listed below:

Subsidiary Occupation: To reduce the seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupations. Loans should be granted and proper arrangements should be made for marketing their products.

Rural Works Programme: Rural Works Programme such as construction and maintenance of roads, digging of drains, canals etc., should be planned during off season to provide gainful employment to the unemployed.

Irrigation Facilities: Since rainfall is uncertain irrigation facilities should be expanded to enable the farmers to adopt multiple cropping.

Rural Industrialization: To provide employment new industries should be set up in rural areas. Technical Education: Employment oriented courses should be introduced in schools and colleges to enable the literate youth to start their own units.

Question 44.
(a) The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p² where p and x are the price and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5.
Answer:

[OR]
(b) Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = 72/9
∴ x = 8

Question 45.
(a) Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development.
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
• He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(i) Democracy and Secularism:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
• He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
• Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(ii) Planning:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
• He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
• Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
• It was during is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
• Nehru always in insisted on “ scientific temper”.

[OR]

(b) – Describe the performance of 12 five year plans in India.
Answer:
Performance of Five Year Plans:
First Five Year Plan – [1951 -1956]

• It was based on the Harrod – Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country. ,
• This plan was successful and achieved the GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan – [1956 – 1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved growth rate of 4.1%

Third Five Year Plan- [1961-1966].

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self propelled position or take off.
• Due to Indo – China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%.

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 -1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self reliance.
• This plan failed and could achieve growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan – [1974 1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved the growth of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan-[1980-1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self reliance.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan establishment of the self sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%

Eighth Five Year Plan – [1992-1997]

• In this plan the top priority was given to development of the human resources (i.e) employment, education and public health.
• This plan was successful and got annual growth rate of 6.8%.

Ninth Five Year Plan-[1997-2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio of 15%
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence the five year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

Question 46.
(a) If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in Economics?
Answer:
Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computiftg faster and accurate.
The following table given an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:

They are evaluation in: (a) Computer (b) PC – Personal Computer (c) Micro Processor ‘ (d) Internet (e) Wireless links
In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for: (a) Data Compiling (b) Editing (c) Manipulating (d) Presenting the results

Question 47.
(a) Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
Relationship between AR and MR Curves: If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.
Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price): When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price)
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR
will be more steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

[OR]

(b) Define Market.
Answer:

• Market refers to a physical place, where commodities and services are bought and sold. In Economics, The term “market” refers to a system of exchange between the buyers and the sellers of a commodity.
• Besides direct exchanges, there are exchanges that are carried out through correspondence, telephones, online, e-mail etc.

A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service
2. A commodity to be bought and sold
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller
4. Direct or indirect exchange.