Prasanna

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statement about virus is correct?
(a) Possess their own metabolic system
(b) They are facultative parasites
(c) They contain DNA or RNA
(d) Enzymes are present
Answer:
(c) They contain DNA or RNA

Question 2.
An example of colonial algae is…………………….
(a) Chlorella
(b) Volvox
(c) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Volvox

Question 3.
In Artabotrys, ……………………….is modified into hook.
(a) leaflets
(b) inflorescence axis
(c) petiole
(d) axillary buds
Answer:
(b) inflorescence axis

Question 4.
In china rose the flower are……………………….
(a) Actinomorphic. Epigynous with valvate aestivation
(b) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
(c) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
(d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
Answer:
(d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

Question 5.
Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs at ……………..
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(c) Diakinesis

Question 6.
The study of tissues is called as………………..
(a) Anatomy
(b) Cytology
(c) Histology
(d) Embryology
Answer:
(c) Histology

Question 7.
Identify the wrong statement(s).
(i) Molybdenum is a micronutrient.
(ii) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen are skeletal elements.
(iii) Manganese is the activator for RUBP carboxylase.
(iv) Potassium maintains osmotic potential of the cell.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (if)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 8.
Foolish seedling disease affects ………………….
(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Sorghum
(d) Wheat
Answer:
(b) Rice

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Deuteromycetes are imperfect fungi – Justify.
Answer:
The fungi belonging to Deuteromycetes lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi.

Question 10.
Why bryophytes are called as Non-vascular cryptogam?
Answer:
Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent in bryophytes, hence called as ‘Non-vascular cryptogams’.

Question 11.
What are root stocks? What are its function?
Answer:
Perennial and some biennial herbs have underground stems, which are generally known as root stocks. Root stock functions as a storage and protective organ.

Question 12.
Define Cladogram.
Answer:
The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladogram, a tree-shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships.

Question 13.
Mention the drawbacks of diffusion.
Answer:
In diffusion, there is a lack of control over the transport of selective molecules. There is a possibility of harmful substances entering the cell by a concentration gradient.

Question 14.
What is Phytol tail? Mention its role.
Answer:
a. Phytol tail is the lipophilic tail of chlorophyll molecule.
b. It helps in anchoring the chlorophyll to lamellae.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
State the 3 types of viral symmetry.
Answer:

1. Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus and Herpes virus.
2. Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus and TMV.
3. Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage and Vaccinia virus.

Question 16.
What is the importance of inflorescence.
Answer:
Function of inflorescence is to display the flowers for effective pollination and facilitate seed dispersal. The grouping of flowers in one place gives a better attraction to the visiting pollinators and maximize the energy of the plant.

Question 17.
Write a brief note on Manganese toxicity.
Answer:
Increased Concentration of Manganese will prevent the uptake of Fe and Mg, prevent translocation of Ca to the shoot apex and cause their deficiency. The symptoms of manganese toxicity are appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins.

Question 18.
Draw the ultra structure of Plant Cell.
Answer:

Question 19.
Mention the role of ethylene in agriculture field.
Answer:

• Ethylene normally reduces flowering in plants except in Pine apple and Mango.
• It increases the number of female flowers and decreases the number of male flowers.
• Ethylene spray in cucumber crop produces female flowers and increases the yield.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the various phases in Cell Cycle.
Answer:
The different phases of cell cycle are as follows:
Interphase: Longest part of the cell cycle, but it is of extremely variable length. At first glance the nucleus appears to be resting but this is not the case at all. The chromosomes previously visible as thread like structure, have dispersed. Now they are actively involved in protein synthesis, at least for most of the interphase.
C-Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

G₁ Phase: The first gap phase – 2C amount of DNA in cells of G₁ The cells become metabolically active and grows by producing proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and cell organelles including mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. Many checkpoints control the cell cycle. The checkpoint called the restriction point at the end of G₁ it determines a cells fate whether it will continue in the cell cycle and divide or enter a stage called G₀ as a quiescent stage and probably as specified cell or die. Cells are arrested in G₁ due to:

Nutrient deprivation: Lack of growth factors or density dependant inhibition.
Undergo metabolic changes and enter into G₀ state.

Biochemicals inside cells activates the cell division. The proteins called kinases and cyclins activate genes and their proteins to perform cell division. Cyclins act as major checkpoint which operates in G₀ to determine whether or not a cell divides.

G₀ Phase: Some cells exit G₁ and enters a quiescent stage called G₀ , where the cells remain metabolically active without proliferation. Cells can exist for long periods in G₀ phase. In G0 cells cease growth with reduced rate of RNA and protein synthesis. The G₀ phase is not permanent. Mature neuron and skeletal muscle cell remain permanently in G₀. Many cells in animals remains in G₀ unless called on to proliferate by appropriate growth factors or other extracellular signals. G₀ cells are not dormant.

S phase – Synthesis phase – cells with intermediate amounts of DNA.
Growth of the cell continues as replication of DNA occur, protein molecules called histones are synthesised and attached to the DNA. The centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm. DNA content increases from 2C to 4C.

G₂ – The second Gap phase – 4C amount of DNA in cells of G₂ and mitosis Cell growth continues by protein and cell organelle synthesis, mitochondria and chloroplasts divide. DNA content remains as 4C. Tubulin is synthesised and microtubules are formed. Microtubles organise to form spindle fibre. The spindle begins to form and nuclear division follows.

One of the proteins synthesized only in the G₂ period is known as Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF). It brings about condensation of interphase chromosomes into the mitotic form.

DNA damage checkpoints operates in G₁ S and G₂ phases of the cell cycle.

[OR]

Explain in detail about the various life cycle patterns in plants.
Answer:
Life cycle patterns in plants
Alternation of Generation: Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation. Following type of life cycles are found in plants.

a. Haplontic life cycle:
Gametophytic phase is dominant, photosynthetic and independent, whereas sporophytic phase is represented by the zygote. Zygote undergoes meiosis to restore haploid condition. Example: Volvox and Spirogyra.

b. Diplontic life cycle:
Sporophytic phase (2n) is dominant, photosynthetic and independent. The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to few celled gametophyte. The gametes fuse to form zygote which develops into sporophyte. e.g., Fucus, gymnosperms and angiosperms.

c. Haplodiplontic life cycle:
This type of life cycle is found in Bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. Both the phases are multicellular, but they differ in their dominant phase. In Bryophytes dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte.

Life cycle patterns in plants (a) Haplontic, (b) Diplontic, (c) Haplo-diplontic
In Pteridophytes sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte (n).

Question 21.
Describe Lundegardh’s Cytochrome Pump Theory.
Answer:
Lundegardh’s Cytochrome Pump Theory:
Lundegardh and Burstrom (1933) observed a correlation between respiration and anion absorption. When a plant is transferred from water to a salt solution the rate of respiration increases which is called as anion respiration or salt respiration. Based on this observation Lundegardh (1950 and 1954) proposed cytochrome pump theory which is based on the following assumptions:

• The mechanism of anion and cation absorption are different.
• Anions are absorbed through cytochrome chain by an active process, cations are absorbed passively.
• An oxygen gradient responsible for oxidation at the outer surface of the membrane and reduction at the inner surface.

According to this theory, the enzyme dehydrogenase on inner surface is responsible for the fonnation of protons (H⁺) and electrons (e^– ). As electrons pass outward through electron transport chain there is a corresponding inward passage of anions. Anions are picked up by oxidized cytochrome oxidase and are transferred to other members of chain as they transfer the electron to the next component.

The theory assumes that cations (C⁺) move passively along the electrical gradient created by the accumulation of anions (A^–) at the inner surface of the membrane.

Main defects of the above theory are:

1. Cations also induce respiration.
2. Fails to explain the selective uptake of ions.
3. It explains absorption of anions only.

[OR]

State the differences between photorespiration and dark respiration.
Answer:

Photorespiration

1. It takes place in photosynthetic green cells.
2. It takes place only in the presence of light.
3. It involves chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
4. It does not involve Glycolysis, Kreb’s Cycle, and ETS.
5. Substrate is glycolic acid.
6. It is not essential for survival.
7. No phosphorylation and yield of ATP.
8. NADH₂ is oxidised to NAD⁺.
9. Hydrogen peroxide is produced.
10. End products are CO₂ and PGA.

Dark respiration :

1. It takes place in all living cells.
2. It takes place all the time.
3. It involves only mitochondria.
4. It involves glycolysis, Kreb’s Cycle and ETS.
5. Substrate is carbohydrates, protein or fats.
6. Essential for survival.
7. Phosphorylation produces ATP energy.
8. NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH₂.
9. Hydrogen peroxide is not produced.
10. End products are CO₂ and water.

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [Answers are in bold] [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Turbellarians are free living……………
(a) Flatworms
(b) Trematodes
(c) Nematodes
(d) cesrtodes
Answer:
(a) Flatworms

Question 2.
Renal portal system is absent in …………..
(a) Reptiles
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles and amphibians
(d) Birds
Answer:
(d) Birds

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (in), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iii), 2 – (/), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (in), 4 – (i)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (in), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)

Question 4.
PNS stands for …………………..
(a) Peripheral neural system
(b) Primary neural system
(c) Pitutiary nephron system
(d) Peripheral nephron system
Answer:
(a) Peripheral neural system

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) Large intestine completes digestion and absorbs nutrients.
(b) Anus expels wastes.
(c) Rectum is the openifig for waste elimination.
(d) Esophagus helps in the conduction of the food to stomach.
Answer:
(d) Esophagus helps in the conduction of the food to stomach.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Hind brain comprises of cerebellum, pons varolii and medulla oblongata.
(ft) The mid brain is located between the diencephalon and the pons.
(c) Hypothalamus forms the floor of the diencephalon.
(d) The superficial region of the cerebrum is called gyri.
Answer:
(d) The superficial region of the cerebrum is called gyri.

Question 7.
There is no DNA in ………………….
(a) Mature RBC’s
(b) Mature spermatozoa
(c) Hair root
(d) Ovum
Answer:
(a) Mature RBC’s

Question 8.
Centres for sense of smell are located in ……………………. .
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Mid brain
(c) Olfactory lobes
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Olfactory lobes

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is radial symmetry?
Answer:
When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides an organism into two identical parts, it is called radial symmetry, e.g., Cnidarian.

Question 10.
Why do you call cockroach a pest?
Answer:
Cockroach destroy food and contaminates it with their offensive odour. They are carriers of a number of bacterial diseases. The cockroach allergen can cause asthma to sensitive people.

Question 11.
Why do plants not require a digestive system?
Answer:
Plants are autotrophs. They prepare their own food using C02, H20 in the pressure of sunlight trapped by the chlorophyll pigment present in the leaves. There is no need of digestive system for plants as they use the starch as such.

Question 12.
Draw the the structure of Blood Vessel – Large Vein.
Answer:

Question 13.
What are Nodes of Rannier?
Answer:
The Schwann cells covering the axen are not Continuous. There are gaps in the myelin sheath
between adjacent schwann cells. These gaps are called Nodes of Ranvier.

Question 14.
Define outbreeding.
Answer:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is Vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworms in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.

Question 16.
What is the difference between a zoo and wild life sanctuary?
Answer:

Zoo :

1. Zoo is a place where animals and birds are in captivity of artificially created habitat.
2. Public can have easy access to the zoo.
3. Zoo is based on commercial aspects.
4. Animals are caged and hence they are not free to roam about.

Wild Life Sanctuary :

1. Wild life sanctuary is the natural habitat of wild animals and birds.
2. Public does not have easy access to the wild life sanctuaries.
3. Sanctuaries are non-commercial.
4. In a sanctuary, animals can roam about freely.

Question 17.
What is lymph? Write its function.
Answer:
About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries eventually seeps back into the capillaries and the remaining 10% is collected and returned to blood system by means of a series of tubules known as lymph vessels or lymphatics. The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph.

The lymph nodes successfully prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the blood stream. Cells found in the lymphatics are the lymphocytes. Lymphocytes collected in the lymphatic fluid are carried via the arterial blood and are recycled back to the lymph. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of LS of the human eye and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the main duties of a worker bee?
Each worker has to perform different types of work in her life time. During the first half of her life, she becomes a nurse bee attending to indoor duties such as secretion of royal jelly, prepares beebread to feed the larvae, feeds the queen, takes care of the queen and drones, secretes bees wax, builds combs, cleans and fans the bee hive. Then she becomes a soldier and guards the bee hive. In the second half her life lasting for three weeks, she searches and gathers the pollen, nectar, propolis and water. –

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Draw the flowchart of classification of phylum chordata.

[OR]

Describe the life cycle of Lampito mauritii.
Answer:
Lampito mauritii begins its life cycle, from the fertilized eggs. The eggs are held in a protective cocoon. These cocoons have an incubation period of about 14-18 days after which they hatch to release juveniles The juveniles undergo changes into non-clitellate forms in Phase -1 after about 15 days, which then cocoon develops a clitellum, called the clitellate at the end of the growth phase – II taking 15¬17 days to complete. During the reproductive stage, earthworms copulate, and later shed their cocoons in the soil after about 10 days.
The life cycle of Lampito mauritii takes about 60 days to complete.

Question 21.
Explain the structure of Nephron.
Answer:
Each kidney has nearly one million complex tubular structures called nephron. Each nephron consists of a filtering corpuscle called renal corpuscle (malpighian body) and a renal tubule. The renal tubule opens into a longer tubule called the collecting duct. The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup shaped structure called the Bowman’s capsule, which encloses a ball of capillaries that delivers fluid to the tubules, called the glomerulus. The Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together constitute the renal corpuscle.

The endothelium of glomerulus has many pores (fenestrae). The external parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of simple squamous epithelium and the visceral layer is made of epithelial cells called podocytes. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits.

The renal tubule continues further to form the proximal convoluted tubule [PCT] followed by a U-shaped loop of Henle (Henle’s loop) that has a thin descending and a thick ascending limb. The ascending limb continues as a highly coiled tubular region called the distal convoluted tubule [DCT], The DCT of many nephrons open into a straight tube called collecting duct.

The collecting duct runs through the medullary pyramids in the region of the pelvis. Several collecting ducts fuse to form papillary duct that delivers urine into the calyces, which opens into the renal pelvis.

In the renal tubules, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney whereas the loop of Henle is in the medullary region. In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the medulla and are called cortical nephrons. Some nephrons have very long loop of Henle that run deep into the medulla and are called juxta medullary nephrons (JMN).

The capillary bed of the nephrons- First capillary bed of the nephron is the glomerulus and the other is the peritubular capillaries. The glomerular capillary bed is different from other capillary beds in that it is supplied by the afferent and drained by the efferent arteriole. The efferent arteriole that comes out of the glomerulus forms a fine capillary network around the renal tubule called the peritubular capillaries.

The efferent arteriole serving the juxta medullary nephron forms bundles of long straight vessel called vasa recta and runs parallel to the loop of Henle. Vasa recta is absent or reduced in cortical nephrons.

[OR]

Explain the endoerenal function of gonads.
Answer:
Testis: A pair of testis is present in the scrotal sac of males. The testis functions as a sex organ and also as an endocrine gland. The testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells or Leydig cells. The Leydig cells secrete several male sex hormones, collectively called androgens, mainly testosterone.

Functions of testosterone: Under the influence of FSH and LH, testosterone initiates maturation of male reproductive organs, and the appearance of secondary sexual characters, muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, masculine voice and male sexual behaviour. It enhances the total bone matrix and plays a stimulating role in the process of . spermatogenesis.

Ovary: Females have a pair of ovaries located in the pelvic region of the abdomen. The ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues.lt produces the eggs or ova. The ovaries secrete the steroid hormones oestrogen and progesterone. Oestrogen is responsible for the maturation of reproductive organs and the development of secondary sexual characters at puberty. Along with progesterone, oestrogens promotes breast development and initiate the cyclic changes during menstrual cycle.

Progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum.lt decreases the uterine contraction during pregnancy and stimulates the development of mammary glands and milk secretion. It is responsible for premenstrual changes in the uteris and is essential for the formation of placenta.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 8 Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 8 Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is used to move quickly from one slide to another?
(a) Compass Navigator
(b) Navigator
(c) Fill color
(d) Page border
Answer:
(b) Navigator

Question 2.
Which is the shortcut key to view the slideshow?
(a) F6
(b) F9
(c) F5
(d) F10
Answer:
(c) F5

Question 3.
In Impress, which views shows thumbnail versions of all your slides arranged in horizontal rows?
(a) Notes
(b) Outline
(c) Handout
(d) Slide Sorter
Answer:
(d) Slide Sorter

Question 4.
Identify the default view in Irhpress.
(a) normal
(b) slide sorter
(c) handout
(d) notes
Answer:
(a) normal

Question 5.
Which menu contains the Slide Transition option?
(a) Slide Show
(b) View
(c) Tools
(d) Format
Answer:
(b) View

Question 6.
Identify the extension of the Impress presentation.
(a) ,odp
(b) .ppt
(c) .odb
(d) ,ood
Answer:
(a) ,odp

Question 7.
In presentation tools, the entry effect as one slide replaces another slide in a slide show. Identify the option that suits after reading the statement.
(a) animation
(b) slide transition
(c) custom animation
(d) rehearse timing
Answer:
(b) slide transition

Question 8.
Vanya has made a presentation on “Global Warming”. She wants to progress her slide show automatically while speaks on the topic in the class. Which features of Impress would she use?
(a) Custom Animation
(b) Rehearse Timing
(c) Slide Transition
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (b)

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between a slide and a slide show?
Answer:
Slide:
A slide is a single page of a presentation. Collectively, a group of slides may be known as a slide deck.

Slideshow:
A slide show is an exhibition of a series of slides or images in an electronic device or in a projection screen. It is a collection of pages arranged in sequence that contains text and images for presenting to an audience.

Question 2.
How many in-built slide layouts does impress consists of?
Answer:
Twelve.

Question 3.
What do you understand by a presentation?
Answer:
A presentation software is a computer software package used to show information, in the form of a slide show.
It includes three major functions:

1. An editor that allows the text to be inserted and formatted,
2. A method for inserting and manipulating graphic images and
3. A slide-show system to display the content.

Question 4.
Define a template in Impress?
Answer:
A impress design template is a premade design you can use to lend cohesiveness, visual organization and appeal to your presentation. It you choose the option from template, it uses a template design already created as the basis for a new presentation.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the slide layout?
Answer:
Pre-packaged layouts are shown in impress properties. You can choose the one that you want, use it as it is or modify it to suit your own requirements. At present, it is not possible to create custom layouts.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
How many types of views are provided by Impress to its users?
Answer:
The view is designed to ease the completion of certain tasks.
Normal view:
Is the main view for creating individual slides. Use this view to format and design slides and to add text, graphics, and animation effects.

Outline view:
Shows topic titles, bulleted lists, and numbered lists for each slide in outline format. Use this view to rearrange the order of slides, edit titles and headings, rearrange the order of items in a list, and add new slides.

Notes view:
lets you add notes to each slide that are not seen when the presentation is shown.

Slide Sorter view:
Shows a thumbnail of each slide in order. Use this view to rearrange the order of slides, produce a timed slide show, or add transitions between selected slides.

Handout view:
Lets you print your slides for a handout. You can choose one, two, three, four, or six slides per page from Tasks pane → Layouts. Thumbnails can be re-arranged in this view by dragging and dropping them.

Question 2.
Who uses the presentation software and why?
Answer:

• Presentation software are being used in a variety of different fields. Some fields that are commonly used as education, research, business communication, entertainment etc.,
• A presentation is used while speaking to a group with a presentation to support and organize your information.
• The presentation is to communicate an audience that the most powerful and effective ones.

Question 3.
Define the Slide Sorter view and its significance?
Answer:
Slide sorter view is to rearranged the sliders. A thumbnail of each slide in order, use this view to rearrange the order of slides, produce a timed slide show, or add transitions between selected slides. The tasks pane on the right displays four pages that allow you to specify the master slide, layout, transitions, and animation effects for the object on your slides.

Question 4.
What is a Normal view? Explain?
Answer:
There are two ways to place a slide in the Slide Design area of the Normal view: clicking the slide thumbnail in the Slides pane or using the Navigator. To open the Navigator, click the Navigator button in the Standard Toolbar or press Ctrl + Shift + F5 and select a slide by scrolling down the Navigator list until you find the one that you want and then double-click it.

Question 5.
How are transition effects helpful in creating an effective presentation in Impress?
Answer:
Slide transitions are the animation like effects that occur when you move from one slide to the next during a presentation, you can control the speed, add sound and customize the properties of transition effects.
Using this transition effects will keep the audience visually interested by using movements.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Valarmathi’s teacher asks her to create a presentation in OpenOffice Impress. As Valarmathi has never worked in Impress before, help her to perform the following tasks:
(i) She wants that except for the first slide, all the slides should have the same design. For this, what does she need to do?
After completing the presentation with same design for all slides, she needed for.
(a) Select Format → Page from the Menu bar on the page setup, dialog box, choose background tab.

(b) Select the type of fill you want for your background from the fine choices, None, color, gradient, hatching or bitmap. A list of choices for the selected fill type will appear → select it. Select one of the items on the list and click OK. The fill you have choosen is added to slide master then go normal view.

(c) Select the first slide then right click → select slide design then select the design in slide master, then right click, a popup menu will appear, it display ‘back ground settings for
all’ you can choose ‘No’ option. The only first slide would not appear the background design.

(ii) To easily communicate with her audience, she wants to provide them with a hard copy of the slides of the presentation. What should she create for it?
To print the presentation slides the one of the way click – “print file” icon directly in the menu bar, to sent the entire document to default pointer defined for your computer. In the print dialog box include the number of hard copies option, she needed more copies, then type that you want needed and then click ‘ok’ button.

(iii) She wants to insert some pictures and movie files in some slides. How can she do that? She has to select the slide where she want to insert picture. Once the picture has been inserted it can be formatted extensively.
Select from the menu bar: Insert → Picture → file / picture in computer.

(iv) Suggest her the view that would be the most suitable for showing the presentation to the audience.
Normal view.

(v) To make her presentation more attractive, she wants to add some effects in it. How can she do it? Suggest.
Adding special effect meAnswer:custom animation and slide transition.

• To apply special effects to fonts. Use the font effect page. A sample of the text is displaying in the lower part of dialog box, then you can select designed font effect.
• She can apply various graphic filters and effects to the pictures by graphic filters.
• Slide transitions are the effects take place when one slide gives way to the next one in presentation. Click slide transition page on the task pane.
• She can use slide animation effects.

Question 2.
Explain how a presentation can help a salesperson to promote his/her products?
Answer:

1. Presentation is help a sales person to promote his / her products, explain the short presentation.
2. Presentation will give visual video, pictures to understand a better of products.
3. Presentation help sales person to present prospect challenges is easier.
4. By using presentation, sales person can make audience understand easier and he can get more feedback.
5. Sales person can explain with physical demonstration by shocking animations. It makes the audience to concentrate.

Question 3.
Sivabalan created a presentation to be shown at his school’s Annual Function. Just 5 minutes before the presentation, he noticed that he has Miss-pelt the name of the school, which is appearing in all the 30 slides of the presentation. How can he rectify this mistake in all the slides in one-shot?
Answer:
Open the presentation,

1. On the ‘Home’ Tab → Editing → Choose → Replace option.
   Top left of the screen, then click Find → Replace option.
2. New window pops-out. Find what box.
3. In the find what box, you can enter the word ‘Miss-pelt school name’.
4. Then in the replace with box enter the correct ‘school name word’ and then click ‘Replace All’ option.
5. Now, the correct school Name will be changed in all slides.

Question 4.
List some advantages of using templates?
Answer:

1. The standard templates, it is easily create colour, attractive designs for slides.
2. Easy to modify the templates are available even we can download from Internet.
3. Attractive designs of templates are available, it will be the audience to look up of the presentation.
4. It creates attentive of audience.
5. Quick customization of templates, text, fonts, pictures were available. –
6. It have professional computer design.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress) Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the following software package used to show information in the form of a slide show?
(a) Presentation
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Database
(d) Application
Answer:
(a) Presentation

Question 2.
The most commonly known presentation program are OpenOffice.org:
(a) powerpoint
(b) impress
(c) keynote
(d) none
Answer:
(b) impress

Question 3.
Which of the following is one of the way to start Impress?
(a) All programs → Openoffice → Impress
(b) All programs → Staroffice → Impress
(c) All programs → Office → Powerpoint
(d) All programs → Office → Presentation
Answer:
(a) All programs → Openoffice → Impress

Question 4.
How many types of presentation backgrounds that you provided by Impress?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 30
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
Which is you can select to start with a blank presentation?
(a) <ORIGINAL>
(b) <NEXT>
(c) <NEW>
(d) <OUTPUT>
Answer:
(a) <ORIGINAL>

Question 6.
Generally, presentations are created for computer screen display, that you would select the option:
(a) <ORIGINAL>
(b) <SCREEN>
(c) <NEW>
(d) <OUTPUT>
Answer:
(b) <SCREEN>

Question 7.
Which is good choice for the transition between the different slides speed?
(a) Normal
(b) Medium
(c) Fast
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Medium

Question 8.
How many parts are there main Impress Window?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 9.
How many sections are there tasks pane?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 10.
The name that you see at the top of your Impress window?
(a) Title bar
(b) Tool Bars
(c) Menu bar
(d) Scroll bar
Answer:
(a) Title bar

Question 11.
Which is used to hides the window from view but it remains as a button on the task bar?
(a) Minimize button
(b) Maximize button
(c) Restore button
(d) Close button
Answer:
(a) Minimize button

Question 12.
Which is a measurement tool in the software programs that allow the user to align on a page?
(a) view
(b) ruler
(c) menu
(d) format
Answer:
(b) ruler

Question 13.
The bar which is at the bottom of the window is called:
(a) horizontal toolbar
(b) vertical toolbar
(c) standard toolbar
(d) formatting toolbar
Answer:
(a) horizontal toolbar

Question 14.
The bar which is at the side of the window is called:
(a) horizontal toolbar
(b) vertical toolbar
(c) standard toolbar
(d) formatting toolbar
Answer:
(b) vertical toolbar

Question 15.
How many tabs are available in the workspace view buttons?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 16.
The shortcut keys are used to display the navigator?
(a) Ctrl + Shift + F5
(b) Ctrl + Shift + F2
(c) Ctrl + Shift + F3
(d) Ctrl + Shift + F4
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + Shift + F5

Question 17.
Which is the mainview for creating individual slides?
(a) Normal view
(b) Outline view
(c) Notes view
(d) Handout view
Answer:
(a) Normal view

Question 18.
Use this view to rearrange the order of slides and produce a timed slide show:
(a) normal view
(b) slide sorter view
(c) outline view
(d) notes view
Answer:
(b) slide sorter view

Question 19.
Which view contains all the slides of the presentation in their numbered sequence?
(a) Normal view
(b) Slide sorter view
(c) Outline view
(d) Notes view
Answer:
(c) Outline view

Question 20.
Which view is used for setting up the layout of your slides?
(a) Normal view
(b) Outline view
(c) Notes view
(d) Handout view
Answer:
(d) Handout view

Question 21.
The normally a title slide is:
(a) first slide
(b) last slide
(c) second slide
(d) none
Answer:
(a) first slide

Question 22.
Which function key is used to adjustments for the formatting of the title?
(a) F9
(b) F10
(c) F11
(d) F12
Answer:
(c) F11

Question 23.
Which slide is used as the starting point for other slides?
(a) Master slide
(b) Slide show
(c) Notes master
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Master slide

Question 24.
All of the characteristics of slide masters are controlled by:
(a) Slide master
(b) Styles
(c) Slide show
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Styles

Question 25.
You can create new slide, that inherited from the slide is known as:
(a) Slide master
(b) Slide show
(c) Styles
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Slide master

Question 26.
To start creating a custom animated image, open the Animator dialog box from:
(a) apply
(b) insert
(c) move
(d) create
Answer:
(b) insert

Question 27.
During the slide show that allowed displays all frames of animated GIF files:
(a) animation
(b) slide sorter
(c) slide show
(d) none
Answer:
(a) animation

Question 28.
Slide animation are similar to:
(a) transitions
(b) slide sorter
(c) slide show
(d) none
Answer:
(a) transitions

Question 29.
Which view is used that Animation effects need to applied that can you select individual object on a single slide?
(a) Normal view
(b) Outline view
(c) Notes view
(d) Handout view
Answer:
(a) Normal view

Question 30.
The Edit points toolbar should be displayed. If not select it from:
(a) Edit → Toolbars → Edit points
(b) View → Toolbars → Edit points
(c) Edit → Toolbars → View points
(d) View → Toolbars
Answer:
(b) View → Toolbars → Edit points

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write the uses of presentation?
Answer:

1. Presentation software is used to create presentations, quizzes, e-leaming packages, and multimedia products.
2. Most presentation software packages will create your multimedia product using a series of slides.
3. Text, images, video, animations, links and sound can be combined on each slide to create a final product.

Question 2.
Write any three commonly used presentation program?
Answer:
The most commonly known presentation programs are OpenOffice.org Impress, Microsoft PowerPoint and Apple’s Keynote.

Question 3.
What are parts have Main Impress Window?
Answer:
The main Impress window has three parts: the Slides pane, the Workspace, and the Tasks pane.

Question 4.
What is the function of slide pane?
Answer:

1. The Slides pane contains thumbnail pictures of the slides in your presentation, in the order of our insertion of slides.
2. Clicking a slide in this pane selects it and places it in the Workspace. While it is there, you can apply any changes that are desired to that particular slide.

Question 5.
What is custom Animation?
Answer:
A variety of animations for selected elements of a slide are listed here. Animation can be added to selected elements of a slide, and it can also be changed or removed later.

Question 6.
What is the use of Ruler bar?
Answer:
The ruler is a measurement tool in the software programs that allow the user to align graphics, text, tables, or other elements on a page.

Question 7.
What is the two types of rulers?
Answer:
The horizontal ruler appears at the top of the document, and the vertical ruler is on the left-side of the document. To enable ruler, click on the View tab, then click on the Ruler to show the horizontal and vertical ruler.

Question 8.
What is the scroll bar and its type?
Answer:
Scroll bar is a bar on the bottom or side of the window to scroll through a page. Two scroll bars are present. The bar which is at the bottom of the Window is called Horizontal Tool bar. The bar which is at the side of the Window is Vertical Tool bar.

Question 9.
How many view buttons are available in the workspace?
Answer:
The Workspace has five tabs: Normal, Outline, Notes, Handout, and Slide Sorter. These five tabs are called View Buttons.

Question 10.
What is the uses of status bar?
Answer:
Status Bar is present at the bottom of your window, which gives you some statistics about the file that you are viewing. It is a good practice to check the information shown there. In case you do not need the information in the Status Bar, you can hide it by selecting View → Status Bar from the main menu.

Question 11.
What is the uses of Master slide?
Answer:
A slide master is a slide that is used as the starting point for other slides. It is similar to a page style in Writer: it controls the basic formatting of all slides based on it. A slide show can have more than one slide master.

Question 12.
Define slide master or master slide?
Answer:
A slide master has a defined set of characteristics, including the background color, graphic, or gradient; objects (such as logos, decorative lines, and other graphics) in the background; headers and footers; placement and size of text frames; and the formatting of text.

Question 13.
How can you create a New Master Slide?
Answer:
A New Master slide can be created either by using the Master View dialog box or by using right click the slides in the Slides pane.

Question 14.
What are the drawing free from shapes available in the tool bar?
Answer:
Basic Shapes, Symbol Shapes, Block Arrows, Flowcharts, Call outs, Stars.

Question 15.
What is the use of play button?
Answer:
You can review the animation at any time by clicking the Play buttons well as navigate the various frames using the other controls available.

Question 16.
What is a meant by Interactions?
Answer:
Interactions what happens when you click a button or link Most tasks associated with putting together a show from your slides are best done in Slide Sorter view.

Question 17.
Explain the usage of Rehearse Time in option of presentation software?
Answer:
OpenOffice Impress assists you in defining the right rehearse time in for automatic slide changes. Impress records the display time for each slide, so the next time you play the show with automatic slide changes, the timing will be as recorded.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the types for creating a new presentation?
Answer:
You can create a presentation by any one of the following types.

1. By selecting an Empty presentation.
2. By selecting From template.
3. By selecting from Open existing presentation.

Question 2.
What are the various ways to start Impress?
Answer:
You can start Impress in several ways:

1. In order to open Impress using Start button, click Start button and select All Programs → Open Office → OpenOffice Impress.
2. If it is already pinned in the Start menu, just click and open it.

Question 3.
What are the more efficient method than using the slide pane?
Answer:

1. Change the slide transition following the selected slide or after each slide in a group of slides.
2. Change the sequence of slides in the presentation.
3. Change the slide design. (A window opens allowing you to load your own design.
4. Change slide layout for a group of slides simultaneously. (This requires using the Layouts section of the Tasks pane.)

Question 4.
What is the function of Navigator?
Answer:
The Navigator displays all objects contained in a document. It provides another convenient way to move around a document and find items in it. The Navigator button is located on the Standard toolbar. You can also display the Navigator by choosing Edit → Navigator on the menu bar or pressing Ctrl + Shift + F5.

Question 5.
Write the outline view purposes?
Answer:
Outline view serves two purposes.
Making changes in the text of a slide:

• Add or delete text in a slide just as in the Normal view.
• Move the paragraphs of text in the selected slide up or down by using the up and down arrow buttons (Move Up or Move Down) on the Text Formatting toolbar.

Comparing the slides with your outline (if you have prepared one in advance). If you notice from your outline that another slide is needed, you can create it directly in the Outline view or you can return to the Normal view to create it, then return to review all the slides against your outline in the Outline view.

Question 6.
How can you add notes to a slide in notes view?
Answer:
Click the Notes tab in the Workspace.
Select the slide to which you will add notes.

1. Double-click the slide in the Slide pane, or
2. Double-click the slide’s name in the Navigator.

In the text box below the slide, click on the words Click to add notes and begin typing.

Question 7.
How can you change the number of slides per row in slide sorter view?
Answer:
Change the number of slides per row, if desired:

1. Check View → Toolbars → Slide View to show the Slide view toolbar.
2. Adjust the number of slides (up to a maximum of 15).
3. After you have adjusted the number of slides per row, View → Toolbars → Slide View will remove this toolbar from view.

Question 8.
How can you move a slide in a presentation using the slide sorter?
Answer:
Click the slide. A thick black border is drawn around it. Drag and drop it to the location you want.

1. As you move the slidg, a black vertical line appears to one side of the slide.
2. Drag the slide until this black vertical line is located where you want the slide to be moved.

Question 9.
How can you select a group of slides?
Answer:
To select a group of slides, use one of these methods:
(i) Use the Control (Ctrl) key:
Click on the first slide and, while pressing Control, select the other desired slides.

(ii) Use the Shift key:
Click on the first slide, and while pressing the Shift key, select the final slide in the group. This selects all of the other slides in between the first and the last.

(iii) Use the cursor:
Click on the first slide to be selected. Hold down the left mouse button.

(iv) Drag the cursor to the last slide thumbnail.

Question 10.
How can you create the first slide?
Answer:
The first slide is normally a title slide. Decide the layout as per its purpose of presentation. You can use the pre-packaged layouts available in the Layout section of the Tasks pane. Suitable layouts are Title Slide (which also contains a section for a subtitle) or Title Only, Title and Content, Title and two content and so on.

Question 11.
How can you Insert a new slide?
Answer:
Insert a new slide. This can be done in a variety of ways take your pick.

1. Insert → Slide.
2. Right-click on the present slide, and select Slide → New Slide from the pop-up menu.
3. Click the empty space after the last slide also to create a new slide by right clicking New Slide.
4. Click the Slide icon in the Presentation toolbar.

Question 12.
What is the function of styles in master slides and its types?
Answer:
All of the characteristics of slide masters are controlled by styles. The styles of any new slide you create are inherited from the slide master from which it was created. In other words, the styles of the slide master are available and applied to all slides created from that slide master.

Changing a style in a slide master result in changes to all the slides based on that slide master; it is, however, possible to modify each individual slide without affecting the slide master.

Click View → Master → Slide Master
It is possible to view the Master slides in two styles:

1. Slide Master
2. Notes Master

IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write the steps to change the layout of slide?
Answer:
Steps to change the layout of slide.

1. Apply slide layout in normal view on view tab → normal.
2. In Normal view, click Thumbnail Pane on the left. Then click the slide that you want to apply a layout to.
3. On the ‘home’ Tab, click ‘layout’ and then select the layout that you want to change the slide layout in slide master view.
4. On view tab click → slide master. In the slide master view, in the Thumbnail pane on the left, click a slide layout that you want be changed.

Question 2.
Write the steps to change the background of a presentation?
Answer:
(i) In the ‘Design’ tab, click the arrow of the background icon and choose background in the drop-down list. The background dialog box will appear.

(ii) In the background dialog box click the arrow under the backdrop fill and you will be presented with the following options.

(iii) Choose one of eight colours displayed to select colour outside of the colour scheme, click more colours choose a colour from either the standard tab or the custom tab and click ok.

(iv) To change the gradient, texture, pattern or picture, click fill effects.

(v) To apply gradient to the back drop, go to the ‘gradient’ tab and select colour style, transparency and shading style. Click ok to apply the changes.

(vi) To apply a textures to the backdrop, go to the ‘Texture’ tab and select a texture. Custom textures can be applied by selecting a file with ‘other texture’ button, click OK to apply changes.

(vii) To apply pattern to the backdrop, go to the ‘pattern’ Tab and select pattern, Foreground and background colour. Click ok to apply changes.

(viii) To use a picture for the backdrop, go to the ‘picture’ tab and select the picture button. Click ok to apply changes.

(ix) Then finally, you can click ‘Apply’ or ‘Apply to All’ to either apply the background to the current slide or all the slides.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Slide Transition and Slide Animation?
Answer:
Slide Transition:

1. These are the animation effects that are applied to whole slide.
2. For a slide can have only one transition effect.
3. Transition effects appear slide show view, when slides change from one to the next. We can control the speed of each slide transition.
4. Transition effect provide visual impact.
5. Transitions are available, including no transition.

Slide Animation:

1. These are the animation effects that are applied to object on a slide.
2. Each object on the slide can have multiple animation effects.
3. Flip, flash, checkboard, push and zoom are transitition effects in animation. These effects can be applied to slides. When one slide moving to other slide is animation.
4. Animation effect provide grab the audience is attention.
5. Removing animation effects on the custom animation page of the task pane.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
……………is the amount incurred in order to produce and sell the goods and services. ‘
(a) Creditor
(b) Debtor
(c) Stock
(d) Expense
Answer:
(d) Expense

Question 2.
…………..is the incapability of a person or an enterprises to pay the debts.
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Insolvency
(d) Sales
Answer:
(c) Insolvency

Question 3
……………….requires analytical skill.
(a) Accounting
(b) Single entry
(c) Book-keeping
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 4.
The word ‘convention’ refers …………………
(a) Traditions
(b) Trade
(c) Business
(d) Accounting
Answer:
(a) Traditions

Question 5.
Goodwill is an example of …………….. accounts.
(a) Real
(b) Nominal
(c) Tangible real
(d) Intangible real
Answer:
(d) Intangible real

Question 6.
Journal means…………….
(a) Daily
(b) Monthly
(c) Yearly
(d) Weekly
Answer:
(a) Daily

Question 7.
Net position of an account cannot be ascertained from…………….
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(a) Journal

Question 8.
Total of debit > total of credit =…………….
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(a) Debit balance

Question 9.
Two methods of preparing a trial balance are…………….
(a) Financial method and total method
(b) Total method and normal method
(c) Balance method and financial method
(d) Balance method and total method
Answer:
(d) Balance method and total method

Question 10.
The accounts you would find in a sales ledger are those of ……………….
(a) Income and expenses
(b) Trade payables
(c) Trade receivables
(d) Assets
Answer:
(c) Trade receivables

Question 11.
The balance in the petty cash book is ……………
(a) An asset
(b) A liability
(c) An income
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) An asset

Question 12.
The bank statement shows an overdrawn balance of ₹ 2,000. A cheque for ₹ 500 drawn in favour of a creditor has not yet been presented for payment. When the creditor prevents the cheque for payment, the bank balance will be…………….
(a) ₹ 1,500
(b) ₹ 2,500 (overdrawn)
(c) ₹ 2,500
(d) ₹ 3,500
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,500 (overdrawn)

Question 13.
Suspense account will remain in the books until the location and ……………….
(a) Errors of principle
(b) Errors of omission
(c) Compensating errors
(d) Rectification of errors
Answer:
(d) Rectification of errors

Question 14.
Two-sided errors are not revealed by ……………..
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(d) Trial balance

Question 15.
The amount of depreciation goes on decreasing year after year in proportion to the unexpired ………….
life of the
(a) Time
(b) Assets
(c) Maintenance
(d) Factors
Answer:
(b) Assets

Question 16.
The period for which an asset can be used in the enterprise is known as estimated useful…………….
(a) Life of an asset
(b) Actual cost of asset
(c) Other factors
(d) Scrap value of an asset
Answer:
(a) Life of an asset

Question 17.
The net loss which arises in a business is an example of…………….
(a) Revenue loss
(b) Capital loss
(c) Neither of the two
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Revenue loss

Question 18.
Sales account has credit balance and sales returns has ………………..
(a) Debit balance
(b) Journal
(c) Credit balance
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Debit balance

Question 19.
Capital contributed by proprietor is a liability to the ……………..
(a) Expense
(b) Income
(c) Debit
(d) Business
Answer:
(d) Business

Question 20.
Software are used by those enterprises where ……………. are somewhat peculiar in nature.
(a) Financial transactions
(b) Software
(c) Debit
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) Financial transactions

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What are the steps involved in the process of accounting?
Answer:

1. Identifying
2. Measuring
3. Recording
4. Classifying
5. Summarising
6. Interpreting and
7. Communicating financial information

Question 22.
What is accounting equation?
Answer:
The relationship of assets with that of liabilities to outsiders and to owners in the equation form is.known as accounting equation.

Question 23.
What is meant by Posting?
Answer:
The process of transferring the debit and credit items from the journal to the ledger accounts is called posting.

Question 24.
State whether the balance of the following accounts should be placed in the debit or the credit column of the trial balance:
(i) Carriage outwards (ii) Carriage inwards (iii) Sales (iv) Purchases
Answer:
(i) Carriage outwards – Debit balance
(ii) Carriage inwards – Debit balance
(iii) Sales – Credit balance
(iv) Purchases – Debit balance

Question 25.
Define Bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, “Bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Question 26.
What is bank reconciliation statement?
Answer:
The bank reconciliation statement is a statement that reconciles the balance as per the bank column of cash book with the balance as per the bank statement by giving the reasons for such difference along with the amount.

Question 27.
What is Error of principle?
Answer:
It means the mistake committed in the application of fundamental accounting principles in recording a transaction in the books of accounts.

Question 28.
What is Annuity method?
Answer:
Under this method, not only the original cost of the asset but also the amount of interest on ‘ the investment is taken into account while computing depreciation. The idea of considering interest is that if the investment is made in any other asset instead of the relevant fixed asset, it would have earned certain rate of interest.

Question 29.
What is meant by deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure, which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefit of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure.

Question 30.
What is meant by software?
Answer:
A set of programs that form an interface between the hardware and the user of a computer system are referred to as software.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write any three objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.
3. To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise.

Question 32.
Write any three principles of double entry system.
Answer:

1. In every business transaction, there are two aspects.
2. The two aspects involved are the benefit or value receiving aspect and benefit or value . giving aspect.
3. These two aspects involve minimum two accounts, atleast one debit and atleast one credit.

Question 33.
Dinesh, a customer is declared insolvent and 40 paise in a rupee is received from the estate for his due ₹ 10,000.
Answer:

Question 34.
What are the limitations of trial balance? (any three)
Answer:

1. It is possible to prepare trial balance of an organisation, only if the double entry system . is followed.
2. Even if some transactions are omitted, the trial balance will tally.
3. Trial balance may be even though errors arc committed in the books of account.

Question 35.
Enter the following transactions in returns inward book of Magesh a textile dealer:

Answer:

Question 36.
From the following particulars prepare a bank reconciliation statement of Jayakumar as on 31st December, 2016.
a. Balance as per cash book ₹ 7,130.
b. Cheques deposited but not cleared ₹ 1,000.
c. A customer has deposited ₹ 800 into the bank directly.
Answer:

Question 37.
Rectify the following errors:
1. Sales book is undercast by ₹ 200.
2. Purchases book is overcast by ₹ 300.
3. The total of salary account is carried forward ₹ 2,000 excess.
Answer:
1. Sales account should be credited with ₹ 200.
2. Purchases account shoftld be credited with ₹ 300.
3. Salary account is to be credited with ₹ 2,000.

Question 38.
On 01.01.2017 a firm purchased a machine at a cost of ₹ 1,00,000. Its life was estimated to be 10 years with a scrap value of ₹ 10,000. Compute the amount of depreciation to be charged at the end of each year.
Answer:

Question 39.
Ascertain gross profit or gross loss from the following:

Answer:

Note: Carriage on sales and office rent are indirect expenses, so they should be shown in profit and loss account.

Question 40.
List out the various reports generated by computerised accounting system.
Answer:
Day books/Joumals, Ledgers, Trial balance, Trading account, Profit and loss account, Balance sheet, etc.
In accounting, computer is commonly used in the following areas:

1. Recording of business transactions.
2. Payroll accounting.
3. Stores accounting and
4. Generation of accounting reports.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) From the data given below (concatenate).
(i) Fill the address in B3 using CONCATENATE FUNCTION.
(ii) Change KAMARAJAR SALAI given in C2 as lower case in C3.
(iii) Change Chennai given in D2 as upper case in D3.

Answer
Procedure:
(i) To fill the address

• Open a new spread sheet in MS – Excel
• Enter all given values as given in the question
• Enter the formula in the cell B3 as = CONCATENATE (“A2”, “B2”, “C2”, “D2”, “H2”)
  Answer: ANAND 123 KAMARAJAR SALAI Chennai 600018

(ii) To change KAMARAJAR SALAI given in C2 as lower case in C3
Enter the formula in the cell C3 as = LOWER (C2)
Answer: Kamarajar Salai

(iii) To change Chennai given in D2 as UPPER case in D3.
Enter the formula in the cell D3 as = UPPER (D2).
Answer: CHENNAI

[OR]

(b) What are the differences between book-keeping and accounting?
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Complete the missing items.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Complete and rewrite the missing.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Prepare ledger accounts from the following transactions.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following Journal Entries.


Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Prepare Trial balance of Chitra as on 31st March, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) A company purchased machinery costing X 90,000 on January 1, 2015 and spent X 10,000 on its erection. On July 1, 2017, the machinery was sold for X 58,000. The company written off depreciation at 20% p.a. under written down value method. Prepare machinery account. The books are closed on 31st December every year.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Record the following transactions of Vijay Electrical & Co., in the purchase book, purchase returns book, sales book and sales return book.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Identify the following items into capital or revenue.
1. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000
2. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000
3. ₹ 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
4. Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
5. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
1. Revenue
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital
5. Revenue

Question 46.
(a) From the following balances of Niruban, prepare balance sheet as on 31st December, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Give necessary entries to adjust the following on 31st December, 2017.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December, 2017 to find out the balance as per bank statement.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare three column cash book in the books of Thiru Durairaj.

Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in the above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

Question 2.
GAAPs are:
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
(d) None of these .
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions

Question 3.
The rule of stock valuation ‘cost price or realisable value’ whichever is lower is based on the accounting principle of:
(a) Materiality
(b) Money measurement
(c) Conservation
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Conservation

Question 4.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by …………………..
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(&) The Cost and Management Accountants of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
Answer:
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 5.
Accounting equation is formed based on the accounting principle of ………………..
(a) Dual aspect
(b) Consistency
(c) Going Concern
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect

Question 6.
Real account deals with …………………
(a) Individual persons
(b) Expenses and losses
(c) Assets
(d) Incomes and gains
Answer:
(c) Assets

Question 7.
If the total of the debit side of an account exceeds the total of its credit side, it means:
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) NIL balance
(d) Debit and credit balance
Answer:
(b) Debit balance

Question 8.
The amount brought into the business by the proprietor should be credited to ……………..
(a) Cash account
(b) Drawings account
(c) Capital account
(d) Suspense account
Answer:
(c) Capital account

Question 9.
While preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of the credit column is short by ₹ 200. This difference will be…………
(a) Debited to suspense account
(b) Credited to suspense account
(c) Adjusted to any of the debit balance
(d) Adjusted to any of the credit balance
Answer:
(b) Credited to suspense account

Question 10.
Purchase returns book is used to record …………….
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(b) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(c) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is received immediately
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately

Question 11.
A cash book with discount, cash and bank column is called …………….
(a) Simple cash book
(b) Double column cash book
(c) Three column cash book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(c) Three column cash book

Question 12.
In Triple column cash book, the balance of bank overdraft brought forward will appear in ……………….
(a) Cash column debit side
(b) Cash column credit side
(c) Bank column debit side
(d) Bank column credit side
Answer:
(d) Bank column credit side

Question 13.
A bank statement is a copy of ……………..
(a) Cash column of the cash book
(b) Bank column of the cash book
(c) A customer’s account in the bank’s book
(d) Cheques issued by the business
Answer:
(c) A customer’s account in the bank’s book

Question 14.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared to know the causes for the difference between:
(a) The balance as per the cash column of the cash book and bank column of the cash book
(b) The balance as per the cash column of the cash book and bank statement
(c) The balance as per the bank column of the cash book and the bank statement
(d) The balance as per petty cash book and the cash book
Answer:
(c) The balance as per the bank column of the cash book and the bank statement

Question 15.
Wages paid for installation of machinery wrongly debited to wages account is an error of ……………..
(a) Partial omission
(b) Principle
(c) Complete omission
(d) Duplication
Answer:
(b) Principle

Question 16.
Depreciation provided on machinery is debited to ……………..
(a) Depreciation account
(b) Machinery account
(c) Trading account
(d) Provision for depreciation account
Answer:
(a) Depreciation account

Question 17.
Amount received from IDBI as a medium term loan for augmenting working capital:
(a) Capital expenditures
(b) Revenue expenditures
(c) Revenue receipts
(d) Capital receipts
Answer:
(d) Capital receipts

Question 18.
Carriage inwards will be shown ………….
(a) In the trading account
(b) In the profit and loss account
(c) On the liabilities side
(d) On the assets side
Answer:
(a) In the trading account

Question 19.
Accrued interest on investment will be shown
(a) On the credit side of profit and loss account
(b) On the assets side of balance sheet
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
An example of output device is ………………..
(a) Mouse
(b) Printer
(c) Scanner
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(b) Printer

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is hardware?
Answer:
The physical components of a computer constitute its hardware. Hardware consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system.

Question 22.
What is outstanding expense?
Answer:
Expenses which have been incurred in the accounting period but not paid till the end of the accounting period are called outstanding expenses.

Question 23.
Write a short note on revenue receipts.
Answer:
Receipts which are obtained in the normal course of business are called revenue receipts. It is recurring in nature. The amount received is generally small.

Question 24.
Mention any two methods of depreciation.
Answer:

1. Straight line method
2. Written down value method.

Question 25.
Give rectifying journals for the following:
1. Goods sold to Anand for Answer: 1,000 on credit was not entered in the sales book.
2. An amount of Answer: 400 paid for repairs to the machinery stands wrongly posted to machinery account.
Answer:

Question 26.
What is “Full Disclosure Principle” of accounting?
Answer:
Accounts must disclose Ml and fair information. It implies that the accounts must be prepared honestly and all material information should be disclosed in the accounting statement.

Question 27.
Classify the following into personal, real and nominal accounts.
1. Capital 2. Building 3. Outstanding wages 4. Salaries.
Answer:
1. Capital – Personal account.
2. Building – Real account.
3. Outstanding wages – Representation personal account.
4. Salaries – Nominal account.

Question 28.
Mention any two utilities of ledger.
Answer:

1. Quick information about a particular account.
2. Control over business transactions.

Question 29.
What is a ‘Debit note’?
Answer:
A ‘debit note’ is a document, bill or statement sent to the person to whom goods are returned. This statement informs that the supplier’s account is debited to the extent of the value of goods returned.

Question 30.
What is “Imprest Money”?
Answer:
The amount given to the petty cashier in advance is known as “Imprest Money”. The word
imprest means payment in advance.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 ¡s compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Fill in the missing information in the following journal entries:

Answer:

Question 32.
Give journal entries and post them to cash account.

Answer:

Question 33.
Prepare a trial balance with the following information:

Answer:

Question 34.
From the following transactions of Ram Home Appliances for July, 2017 prepare purchases book.

Answer:

Question 35.
From the following particulars of Simon traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st March, 2018.
(a) Debit balance as per bank statement ₹ 2,500.
(b) Cheques deposited amounting to ₹ 10,000, not yet credited by bank.
(c) Payment through net banking for ₹ 2,000, omitted in the cash book.
Answer:

Question 36.
Rectify the following errors before the preparation of trial balance:
(a) Returns outward book was undercast by ₹ 2,000.
(b) Returns inward book total was taken as ₹ 15,000 instead of ₹ 14,000.
(c) The total of the purchases account was carried forward ₹ 100 less.
Answer:
(a) Returns outward account should be credited with ₹ 2,000.
(b) Returns inward account should be credited with ₹ 1,000.
(c) Purchases account should be debited with ₹ 100.

Question 37.
From the following information, calculate the amount of depreciation and rate of depreciation under straight line method.
Purchase price of machine ₹ 2,00,000.
Expenses to be capitalized ₹ 50,000.
Estimated residual value ₹ 15,000.
Expected useful life 5 years
Answer:

Question 38.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information.

Answer:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock ‘ ‘ =20,000 + 70,000 + 10,000 – 30,000 = 70,000
Let the sales be = 100
Less: Gross profit (20% on sales, i:e., 100) = 20
Cost of goods sold = 80
Therefore, percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is \(\frac{20}{80} \times 100\) = 25%
Gross profit = 25% on ₹ 70,000 i.e., \(\frac{25}{1000} \times 100\) x 70,000 = ₹ 17,500
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit
= 70,000+ 17,500 = 87,500 Sales = 87,500

Question 39.
Ascertain net profit or net loss from the following.

Answer:
`

Question 40.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Ramalingam for the month of July, 2017.

Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) A trader received his bank statement on 31st December, 2017 which showed an overdraft balance ₹ 12,000. On the same day, his cash book showed a debit balance of ₹ 2,000. Analyse the following transactions. Choose the possible causes and prepare a bank reconciliation statement to show the causes of differences.
a. Cheque deposited for ₹ 2,000 on 21st December, 2017. Bank credited the same on 26th December, 2017.
b. Cheque issued for payment on 26th December, 2017 amounting to ₹ 2,500, not yet presented until 31st December, 2017.
c. Bank charges amounting to?₹ 200 not yet entered in the cash book.
d. Online payment for ₹ 1,500 entered twice in the cash book.
e. Cheque deposited amounting ₹ 1,000, but omitted in the cash book. The same cheque was dishonoured by bank, but not yet entered in cash book.
f. Cheque deposited, not yet entered by bank amounting ₹ 17,800.
Answer:

Note: Transactions (a) and (e) have been entered in both cash book and bank statement so it will not be entered.

[OR]

(b) From the following trial balance of Sharan, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ending 31st December, 2017 and Balance sheet as on that date. The Closing stock on 31st December, 2017 was valued at ₹ 2,50,000.


Answer:

Question 42.
(a) The following errors were located after the preparation of trial balance. The difference in trial balance has been taken to suspense account. Rectify them.
a. The total of purchases book was carried forward ₹ 70 less.
b. The total of sales book was carried forward ₹ 340 more.
c. The total of purchases book was carried forward ₹ 150 more.
d. The total of sales book was carried forward ₹ 200 less.
e. The total of purchases returns book was carried ₹ 350 less.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare analytical Petty cash book from the following particulars under imprest system:

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Calculate the amount of depreciation and rate of depreciation from the following by using ‘straight line method’. Also give journal entries for the first two years. The books are closed on 31st December every year.
January 1, 2016 payment to vendor for purchase of machinery ₹ 1,00,000.
January 1, 2016 transport cost ₹ 1,000.
January 1, 2016 installation cost ₹ 9,000.
Estimated scrap value at the end of the life ₹ 5,000.
Estimated life 10 years.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Write out a cash book with discount, cash and bank columns in the books of Mahendran.

Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Enter the following transactions in the proper subsidiary books of Suman who is dealing in electronic goods for the month of January, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following balances obtained from the books of Siva, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account.
Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium – 28
Adjustments:
a. Closing stock on 31.12.2016 was ₹ 4,500.
b. Manager is entitled to receive commission @ 5 % net profit after providing such commission.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) From the following balances extracted from the books of Rajeshwari as on 31st March, 2017, prepare the trial balance.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Identify the following items into capital or revenue:
1. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000.
2. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000.
3. ? 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
4. Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
5. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
1. Revenue
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital
5. Revenue

Question 46.
(a) Show the direct ledger posting for the following transactions:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Complete the missing informations:

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Complete the missing informations:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Give examples for,the followings:
1. Increase in capital and increase in asset.
2. Decrease in liability and decrease in asset.
3. Increase in one asset and decrease in another asset.
4. Decrease in one liability and increase in another liability.
5. Decrease in one asset and increase in another asset.
Answer:
1. Commenced business with cash ₹ 1,00,000.
2. Paid to creditors ₹ 10,000.
3. Bought furniture for cash ₹ 5,000.
4. Accepted a bill drawn by creditors for ₹ 20,000.
5. Sold goods for cash ₹ 10,000.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in the above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not a main objective of accounting?
(a) Systematic recording of transactions
(b) Ascertainment of the profitability of the business
(c) Ascertainment of the financial position of the business
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities
Answer:
(d) Solving tax disputes with tax authorities

Question 2.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to……………..
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Business entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Business entity concept

Question 3.
‘Cash withdrawn by the proprietor from the business for his personal use’ causes……………..
(a) Decrease in assets and decrease in owner’s capital
(b) Increase in one asset and decrease in another asset
(c) Increase in one asset and increase in liabilities
(d) Increase in asset and decrease in capital
Answer:
(a) Decrease in assets and decrease in owner’s capital

Question 4.
The process of transferring the debit and credit items from journal to the ledger accounts is called……………..
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(b) Posting

Question 5.
After the preparation of ledger, the next step is the preparation of……………..
(a) Trading account
(b) Trial balance
(c) Journal
(d) Profit and Loss account
Answer:
(b) Trial balance

Question 6.
A periodic total of the purchases book is posted to the……………..
(a) Debit side of the purchases account
(b) Debit side of the sales account
(c) Credit side of the purchases account
(d) Credit side of the sales account
Answer:
(a) Debit side of the purchases account

Question 7.
The cash book records……………..
(a) All cash receipts
(b) All cash payments
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All credit transactions
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
A Bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the help of……………..
(a) Bank statement
(b) Cash book
(c) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(c) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book

Question 9.
Small payments are recorded in a book called……………..
(a) Cash book
(b) Purchase book
(c) Bills payable book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(d) Petty cash book

Question 10.
Which one is matched correctly?
(a) Imprest system – Petty cash book
(b) Credit transactions – Cash book
(c) Cash transactions – Sales book
(d) Assets Purchased for cash – Purchase book
Answer:
(a) Imprest system – Petty cash book

Question 11.
Errors not affecting the agreement of trial balance are……………..
(a) Errors of principle
(b) Errors of overcasting
(c) Errors of undercasting
(d) Errors of partial omission
Answer:
(a) Errors of principle

Question 12.
If the total charge of depreciation and maintenance cost are considered, the method that provides a uniform change is……………..
(a) Straight line method
(b) Diminishing balance method
(c) Annuity method
(d) Insurance policy method
Answer:
(b) Diminishing balance method

Question 13.
Expenditure incurred ₹ 20,000 for trial run of a newly installed machinery will be:
(a) Preliminary expense
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Capital expenditure
(d) Deferred revenue expenditure
Answer:
(c) Capital expenditure

Question 14.
Balance sheet is……………..
(a) An account
(b) A statement
(c) Neither a statement nor an account
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) A statement

Question 15.
Net profit is……………..
(a) Debited to capital account
(b) Credited to captial account
(d) Credited to drawings account
(c) Debited to drawings account
Answer:
(b) Credited to captial account

Question 16.
Customised accounting software is suitable for……………..
(a) Small, conventional business
(b) Large, medium business
(c) Large, typical business
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Large, medium business

Question 17.
The errors can be classified into ……………..types.
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six
Answer:
(a) Four

Question 18.
“Depreciation is the gradual and permanent decrease in the value of an asset from any cause.” – defined by……………..
(a) R.N. Carter
(b) Spicer & Pegler
(c) Wheeler
(d) Walker
Answer:
(a) R.N. Carter

Question 19.
Cost of acquisition of land and building is an example of……………..
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Capital receipt
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Revenue receipts
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 20.
……………..expenses do not form part of cost of goods.
(a) Indirect
(b) Direct
(c) Asset
(d) Liabilities
Answer:
(a) Indirect

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is drawings?
Answer:
It is the amount of cash or value of goods, assets, etc., withdrawn from the business by the owner for the personal use of the owner.

Question 22.
Give examples of the followings:
a. Increase in capital and increase in asset.
b. Decrease in liability and decrease in asset.
Answer:
a. Commenced business with cash ₹ 1,00,000.
b. Paid creditors ₹ 10,000.

Question 23.
Give the transactions from the ledger:

Answer:

Question 24.
Write any two limitations of trial balance.
Answer:

1. It is possible to prepare trial balance of an organisation, only if the double entry system is maintained.
2. Even if some transactions are omitted, the trial balance will tally.

Question 25.
Write any four features of bills of exchange.
Answer:

1. It is a written document.
2. It is an unconditional order.
3. It is an order to pay a certain sum of money.
4. It is signed by the drawer.

Question 26.
What is three column cash book?
Answer:
A three column cash book includes three amount columns on both sides, i.e., cash, bank and discount. This cash book is prepared in the same way as simple and double column cash books are prepared.

Question 27.
State the account/s affected in each of the following errors:
1. Goods purchased on credit from Saranya for ₹ 150 was posted to the debit side of her account.
2. The total of purchases book ₹ 4,500 was posted twice.
Answer:

1. Saranya account should be credited with ₹ 150.
2. Purchases account should be credited with ₹ 4500.

Question 28.
What is deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure, which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure.

Question 29.
What is closing stock?
Answer:
The goods remaining unsold at the end of the accounting period are known as closing stock. They are valued at cost price or net realisable value (market price) whichever is lower as per accounting standard 2 (revised).

Question 30.
What is Mnemonic codes?
Answer:
A mnemonic code consists of alphabets or abbreviations as symbols to codify a piece of informations.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the various types of accounting software?
Answer:

1. Readymade software
2. Customised software
3. Tailor-made software.

Question 32.
The trial balance of a trader on 31st December, 2016 shows sundry debtors as ? 50,000:
(a) Write off ₹ 1,000 as bad debts.
(b) Provide 5% for doubtful debts.
(c) Provide 2% for discount on debtors.
Show how these items will appear in the Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet of the trader.
Answer:

Question 33.
Prepare Trading account in the books of Mr. Sanjay for the year ended 31st December 2017.

Answer:

Question 34.
Classify the following expenditures and receipts:
1. Amount received from trade receivable during the year.
2. Amount spent on demolition of buildings to construct a large building on the same site.
3. Insurance claim received on account of a machinery damaged by fire.
Answer:
1. Revenue receipt
2. Capital expenditure
3. Capital receipts

Question 35.
Calculate the rate of depreciation under straight line method.
Purchase price of a machine ₹ 80,000.
Expenses to be capitalised ₹ 20,000.
Estimated realised value ₹ 4,000.
Expected useful life 4 years.
Answer:

Question 36.
From the following particulars of Veera traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December, 2017.
(a) Credit balance as per bank statement ₹ 6,000.
(b) Amount received by bank through NEFT for ₹ 3,500, entered twice in the cash book.
(c) Cheque dishonoured amounting to ₹ 2,500, not entered in cash book.
Answer:

Question 37.
Prepare furniture account from the following transactions.

Answer:

Question 38.
Journalise the following transactions:

Answer:

Question 39.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Seshadri for May, 2017

Answer:

Question 40.
Prepare the trial balance from the following balance of Mr. Chandramohan as on 31st March, 2017.

Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) What are the need for accounting standards?
Answer:
The need for accounting standards is as follows:

1. To promote better understanding of financial statements.
2. To help accountants to follow uniform procedures and practices.
3. To facilitate meaningful comparison of financial statements of two or more statements.
4. To enhance reliability of financial statements.
5. To meet the legal requirements effectively.

[OR]

(b) Valluvar is a sole trader dealing in textiles. From the following transactions, pass journal entries for the month of March, 2018.

Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Journalise the following transactions and prepare ledger accounts:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Correct the following trial balance:

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Electric Co., which deals in electric goods.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in a cash book with cash, bank and discount column of Sundari.


Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Pandeeswari for the month of June, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in Iyyappan’s Petty cash book with analytical ‘ columns under imprest system.

Answer:

Question 45.
(a) On 31st March, 2017 Anand’s cash book showed a balance of ₹ 1,12,500. Prepare Bank Reconciliation Statement.
a. He had issued cheques amounting to ₹ 23,000 on 28.03.2017, of which cheques amounting to ₹ 9,000 have so far been presented for payment.
b. A cheque for ₹ 6,300 deposited into bank on 27.03.2017, but the bank credited the same only on 5th April 2017.
c. He had also received a cheque for ₹ 12,000 which, although entered by him in the cash book, was not deposited in the bank.
d. Wrong credit given by the bank on 30th March, 2017 for ₹ 2,000.
e. On 30th March, 2017, a bill already discounted with the bank for ₹ 3,000 was dishonoured, but no entry was made in the cash book.
f. Interest on debentures of ₹ 700 was received by the bank directly.
g. Cash sales of ₹ 4,000 wrongly entered in the bank column of the cash book.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following errors were located at the time of preparation of the trial balance. Rectify them.
a. Sale of goods to Akila on credit for ₹ 1,520 posted to her account as ₹ 1,250.
b. Bought goods from Narendran on credit for ₹ 5,500, credited to his account as ? 5,050.
c. Purchase of furniture from Ravivarman for ₹ 404 on credit were debited to furniture account as ₹ 440.
d. Purchased machinery for cash ₹ 2,000 was not posted to machinery account.
e. The total of purchase book ₹ 899 was carried forward as ₹ 989.
Answer:
a. Akila account should be debited with ₹ 270.
b. Narendran account should be credited with ₹ 450.
c. Furniture account should be credited with ₹ 36.
d. Machinery account should be debited with ₹ 2,000.
e. Purchases account should be credited with ₹ 90.

Question 46.
(a) Raj & Co., purchased a machine on 1st January 2014 for 90,000. On 1st July 2014, they purchased another machine for ₹ 60,000. On 1st January 2015, they sold the machine purchased on 1st January 2014 for ₹ 40, 000. It was decided that the machine be depreciated at 10% per annum on diminishing balance method. Accounts are closed on 31st December every year. Show the machinery account for the years 2014 and 2015.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Identify the following items into capital or revenue.
i. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000.
ii. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000.
iii. ₹ 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
iv. Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
v. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
i.Revenue
ii.Revenue
iii.Revenue
iv. Capital
v. Revenue

Question 47.
(a) From the following information, prepare trading account for the year ending 31st December, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars presented by Thilak for the year ended 31st March,
2017, prepare Profit and Loss account.

Adjustments:
a. Outstanding salaries amounted to ₹ 4,000.
b. Rent paid for 11 months.
c. Interest due but not received amounted to ₹ 2,000.
d. Prepaid insurance amounted to ₹ 2,000.
e. Depreciate buildings by 10%.
f. Further bad debts amounted to ₹ 3,000 and make a provision for bad debts @ 5% on sundry debtors.
g. Commission received in advance amounted to ₹ 2,000.
Answer:
Working note:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in the above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The root of financial accounting system is ……………………….
(a) Social accounting
(b) Stewardship accounting
(c) Management accounting
(d) Responsibility accounting
Answer:
(b) Stewardship accounting

Question 2.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to ……………………….
(a) Money measurement concept
(b) Cost concept
(c) Business entity concept
(d) Dual aspect concept
Answer:
(c) Business entity concept

Question 3.
Accounting equation signifies ……………………….
(a) Capital of a business is equal to assets
(b) Liabilities of a business are equal to assets
(c) Capital of a business is equal to liabilities
(d) Assets of a business are equal to the total of capital and liabilities
Answer:
(d) Assets of a business are equal to the total of capital and liabilities

Question 4.
Main objective of preparing ledger account is to ……………………….
(a) Ascertain the financial position
(b) Ascertain the profit or loss
(c) Ascertain the profit or loss and the financial position
(d) Know the balance of each ledger account
Answer:
(d) Know the balance of each ledger account

Question 5.
Trial balance is a ……………………….
(a) Statement
(b) Account
(c) Ledger
(d) Journal
Answer:
(a) Statement

Question 6.
Purchases book is used to record ……………………….
(a) All purchases of goods
(b) All credit purchases of assets
(c) All credit purchases of goods
(d) All purchases of assets
Answer:
(c) All credit purchases of goods

Question 7.
Cash book is a ……………………….
(a) Subsidiary book
(b) Principal book
(c) Journal proper
(d) Both subsidiary book and principal book
Answer:
(d) Both subsidiary book and principal book

Question 8.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared by ……………………….
(a) Bank
(b) Business
(c) Debtor to the business
(d) Creditor to the business
Answer:
(b) Business

Question 9.
Error of principle arises when ……………………….
(a) There is complete omission of a transaction
(b) There is partial omission of a transaction
(c) Distinction is not made between capital and revenue items
(d) There are wrong postings and wrong castings
Answer:
(c) Distinction is not made between capital and revenue items

Question 10.
Under straight line method, the amount of depreciation is ……………………….
(a) Increasing every year
(b) Decreasing every year
(c) Constant for all the year
(d) Fluctuating every year
Answer:
(c) Constant for all the year

Question 11.
Amount spent on increasing the seating capacity in a cinema hall is………
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Capital expenditure

Question 12.
Closing stock is an item of ……………………….
(a) Fixed asset
(b) Current asset
(c) Fictitious asset
(d) Intangible asset
Answer:
(b) Current asset

Question 13.
A prepayment of insurance premium will appear in
(a) The trading account on the debit side
(b) The profit and loss account on the credit side
(c) The balance sheet on the assets side
(d) The balance sheet on the liabilities side
Answer:
(c) The balance sheet on the assets side

Question 14.
In accounting, computer is commonly used in the following areas:
(a) Recording of business transactions
(b) Payroll accounting
(c) Stores accounting
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 15.
Accounting software is an example of ……………………….
(a) System software
(b) Application software
(c) Utility software
(d) Operating software
Answer:
(b) Application software

Question 16.
If there is no existing provision for doubtful debts, provision created for doubtful debts is ……………………….
(a) Debited to bad debts account
(b) Debited to sundry debtors account
(c) Credited to bad debts account
(d) Debited to profit and loss account
Answer:
(d) Debited to profit and loss account

Question 17.
Pre-operative expenses are ……………………….
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Prepaid revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
Answer:
(d) Capital expenditure

Question 18.
Which of the following errors will be rectified using suspense account?
(a) Purchases returns book was undercast by ₹ 100
(b) Goods returned by Narendran was not recorded in the books
(c) Goods returned by Akila ? 900 was recorded in the sales returns book as ₹ 90
(d) A credit sales of goods to Ravivarman was not entered in the sales book
Answer:
(d) A credit sales of goods to Ravivarman was not entered in the sales book

Question 19.
Which one of the following is not a timing difference?
(a) Cheque deposited but not yet credited .
(b) Cheque issued but not yet presented for payment
(c) Amount directly paid into the bank
(d) Wrong debit in the cash book
Answer:
(d) Wrong debit in the cash book

Question 20.
Small payments are recorded in a book called ……………………….
(a) Cash book
(b) Purchase book
(c) Bills payable book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(d) Petty cash book

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any two steps involved in the accounting process?
Answer:

1. Identifying the transactions and journalising
2. Posting and balancing

Question 22.
What is opening entry?
Answer:
Through opening entry the balances of assets and liabilities at the end of the previous accounting year are brought forward to the current accounting year.

Question 23.
Mention any two utilities of ledger.
Answer:

1. Quick information about a particular account.
2. Control over business transactions.

Question 24.
Mention any two objectives of preparing trial balance.
Answer:

1. Test of arithmetical accuracy.
2. Basis for preparing final accounts.

Question 25.
What is Purchases book?
Answer:
Purchases book is a subsidiary book in which only credit purchases of goods are recorded. When business wants to know the information about the credit purchases of goods at a glance, the information can be made available if purchases of goods on credit are separately recorded.

Question 26.
What is retiring of bill?
Answer:
An acceptor may make the payment of a bill before its due date and may discharge the liability on the bill. It is called as retirement of a bill.

Question 27.
What is suspense account?
Answer:
When the trial balance does not tally, the amount of difference is placed to the debit (when the total of the credit column is higher than the debit column) or credit (when the total of the debit column is higher than the credit column, to a temporary account known as ‘suspense account’.

Question 28.
What is obsolescence?
Answer:
It is a reduction in the value of assets as a result of the availability of updated alternative assets. This happens due to new inventions and innovations. Though the original asset is in a usable condition, it is not preferred by the users and it loses its value.

Question 29.
What is prepaid expenses?
Answer:
Prepaid expenses refer to any expense or portion of expense paid in the current accounting year but the benefit or services of which will be received in the next accounting period. They are also called as unexpired expense.

Question 30.
What is operating system?
Answer:
A set of tools and programs to manage the overall working of a computer using a defined set of hardware components is called as operating system. It is the interface between the user and the computer system.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the three different types of personal accounts?
Answer:

1. Natural person’s account
2. Artificial person’s account
3. Representative personal account

Question 32.
Give journal entries and post them to cash account.

Answer:

Question 33.
From the following transactions write up the sales day book of M/s; Ram and Co., a stationery merchant.

Answer:

Question 34.
From the following particulars prepare a bank reconciliation statement of Jayakumar as on 31st March, 2016.
1. Balance as per cash book ₹ 7,130.
2. Cheque deposited but not cleared ₹ 1,000.
3. A customer has deposited ₹ 800 into the bank directly.
Answer:

Question 35.
Rectify the following errors.
1. Sales book was undercast by ₹ 100.
2. Purchases book was undercast by ₹ 600.
3. Sales return book was overcast by ₹ 500.
4. Purchases return book was overcast by ₹ 700.
Answer:
1. Sales account should be credited with ₹ 100.
2. Purchases account should be debited with ₹ 600.
3. Sales returns account should be credited with ₹ 500.
4. Purchases return account should be debited with ₹ 700.

Question 36.
Find out the rate of depreciation under straight line method from the following details:
(a) Original cost of the assets = ₹ 10,000.
(b) Estimated life of the asset = 10 years.
(c) Estimated scrap value at the end = ₹ 2,000.
Answer:

Question 37.
Classify the following items into capital and revenue.
1. ₹ 50,000 spent for railways siding
2. Loss on sale of old furniture
3. Carriage paid on goods sold .
Answer:
1. Capital
2. Revenue and
3. Revenue

Question 38.
Prepare Trading account in the books of Siva Shankar from the following figures: Opening Stock ₹ 1,500; Purchases ₹ 3,500; Sales ₹ 4,600; Closing Stock ₹ 1,300.
Answer:

Question 39.
Mention any three limitations of computerised accounting systems.
Answer:

1. Heavy cost of installation.
2. Cost of training.
3. Fear of unemployment.

Question 40.
For the following adjustments, pass adjusting entries.
(a) Outstanding wages ₹ 5,000.
(b) Depreciation on machinery ₹ 1,000.
(c) Write off bad debts ₹ 500.
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Rectify the following errors:
1. Purchases returns book is undercast by ₹ 500.
2. Sales returns book is undercast by ₹ 700.
3. The total of rent received account is carried forward ₹ 900 short.
4. The total of salary account is carried forward ₹ 1,200 short.
5. Purchases book is overcast by ₹ 400.
Answer:
1. Purchases returns account should be credited with ₹ 500.
2. Sales returns account should be debited with ₹ 700.
3. Rent received account is to be credited with ₹ 900.
4. Salary account is to be debited with ₹ 1,200.
5. Purchases account should be credited with ₹ 400.

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars, give journal entries for 2 years and prepare machinery account under straight line method of providing depreciation:
Machinery was purchased on 01.01.2016, Price of machine ₹ 36,000 Freight charges ₹ 2,500, Installation charges ₹ 1,500, Life of the machine 5 years.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Veena is a dealer in textiles. On January 1, 2018 her business showed the following balances:
Cash in hand ₹ 20,000; Bank balance ₹ 70,000; Stock ₹ 15,000. The following are the transactions made during January 2018. Show the effect of the transactions on accounting equation.
a. Purchased goods (readymade shirts) on credit from Subbu ₹ 20,000.
b. Goods returned to Subbu and no cash is received ₹ 5,000.
c. Goods (shirts) costing ₹ 1,600 was sold to Janani on credit ₹ 2,000.
d. Janani returned 1 shirt of sales value ₹ 500.
e. Janani deposited the money due in cash deposit machine in a bank ₹ 1,500.
f. Insurance on buildings paid through net banking ₹ 1,000.
g. Of the insurance paid, prepaid during the year is ₹ 100.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Complete the missing informations:


Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Prepare direct ledger from the followings:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Trial balance as on 31st March 2017.
Cash in hand ₹ 5,500; Discount received ₹ 300; Creditors ₹ 15,000; Buildings ₹ 50,000; Opening stock ₹ 6,000; Direct expenses ₹ 5,000; Carriage outwards ₹ 3,500; Capital ₹ 45,000; Purchases ₹ 49,700; Sales ₹ 59,400.
Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Enter the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Guhan & Sons, who is a textile dealer.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Record the following transactions in three column cash book of Gunasekaran.

Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Enter the following transactions in cash book with discount and cash column of Anand.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Bank reconciliation statement from the following data:
1. Credit balance as per cash book ₹ 5,000.
2. Cheques issued, but not yet presented for payment ₹ 3,000.
3. Cheques deposited but not yet credited ₹ 4,000.
4. Interest on overdraft charged by the bank, not yet entered in the cash book ₹ 120.
5. Dividend collected by the bank not shown in the cash book ₹ 760.
6. Interest charged by bank recorded twice in the cash book ₹ 300.
7. Bills of exchange discounted with the bank, dishonoured ₹ 520.
8. Bank charges debited by the bank on dishonoured of the bill ₹ 55.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) Prepare Trading account for the year ended 31stDecember 2017, from the following balances:

Answer:

Note: Selling expenses, Carriage on sales, Advertisement and office rent will not appear in trading account, as they are indirect expenses.

[OR]

(b) Identify the following items into capital or revenue.
1. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000.
2. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000.
3. ₹ 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
4. Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
5. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
1. Revenue
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital
5. Revenue

Question 47.
(a) From the following information, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss A/c and Balance Sheet in the books of Sangeetha for the year ended 31st March, 2018.

Adjustments:
1. Stock on 31st March, 2018 ₹ 14,200.
2. Income tax of Sangeetha paid ₹ 800.
3. Charge interest on drawings @ 12% p.a.
4. Provide managerial remuneration @ 10% of net profit before charging such commission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare Petty Cash book on the imprest system.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and period accounts
(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations
(d) Tax authorities do not accept
Answer:
(c) It is suitable for all types of organisations

Question 2.
What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are ₹ 85,000 and liabilities are ₹ 21,000?
(a) ₹ 85,000
(b) ₹ 1,06,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 64,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 64,000

Question 3.
Subscription due but not received for the current year is ________.
(a) An asset
(b) A liability
(c) An expense
(d) An item to be ignored
Answer:
(a) An asset

Question 4.
Legacy is a ________.
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Capital expenditure
(c) Revenue receipt
(d) Capital receipt
Answer:
(d) Capital receipt

Question 5.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?

Answer:
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital A/c

Question 6.
In the absence of an agreement, partners are entitled to ________.
(a) Salary
(b) Commission
(c) Interest on loan
(d) Interest on capital
Answer:
(c) Interest on loan

Question 7.
Book profit of 2017 is ₹ 35000; non-recuring income included in the profit is ₹ 1000 and abnormal loss charged in the year was ₹ 2000 then the adjusted profit is ________.
(a) ₹ 36,000
(b) ₹ 35,000
(c) ₹ 38,000
(d) ₹ 34,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 36,000

Question 8.
The total capitalised value of business is ₹ 1,00,000 assets are ₹ 1,50,000; and the liabilities are ₹ 80,000; the value of goodwill as per the capitalisation method will be ________.
(a) ₹ 40,000
(b) ₹ 90,000
(c) ₹ 1,00,000
(d) ₹ 30,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 30,000

Question 9.
Select the odd one out:
(a) Revaluation profit
(b) Accumulated loss
(c) Goodwill brought by new partner
(d) Investment fluctuation fund
Answer:
(c) Goodwill brought by new partner

Question 10.
Match list I with list II and select the correct answer:

Answer:
(b) i – 3, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 1

Question 11.
‘A’ was a partner in a partnership firm. He died on 31.3.2019. The final amount due to him ₹ 25,000, which is not paid immediately. It will be transferred to ________.
(a) A’s capital A/c
(b) A’s current A/c
(c) A’s executors A/c
(d) A’s executors loan A/c
Answer:
(d) A’s executors loan A/c

Question 12.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit in the ratio of 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill of the firm was valued as ₹ 30,000. Find the contribution of A and C to compensate B __________.
(a) ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 1,50,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000

Question 13.
When shares are issued for purchase of assets, the amount should be credited to _________.
(a) Vendor’s A/c
(b) Sundry assets A/c
(c) Share capital A/c
(d) Bank A/c
Answer:
(c) Share capital A/c

Question 14.
Match the pair and identify the correct option:

Answer:
(a) 1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv

Question 15.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) All the limitations of financial statements are applicable to financial statement analysis also
(b) Financial statement analysis is only the means and not an end
(c) Expert knowledge is not required in analysing the financial statements
(d) Interpretation of the analysed data involves personal judgements
Answer:
(c) Expert knowledge is not required in analysing the financial statements

Question 16.
A limited company’s sales has increased from ₹ 1,25,000 to ₹ 1,50,000. How does this appear in comparative income statement?
(a) + 20%
(b) + 120%
(c) – 120%
(d) – 20%
Answer:
(a) + 20%

Question 17.
Proportion of share holders funds to total assets is called __________.
(a) Propbrietary ratio
(b) Capital gearing ratio
(c) Deb equity ratio
(d) Current ratio
Answer:
(a) Propbrietary ratio

Question 18.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

Answer:
(c) Fixed assets turnover ratio – Percentage

Question 19.
Salary account comes under which of the following head?
(a) Direct incomes
(b) Direct expenses
(c) Indirect incomes
(d) Indirect expenses
Answer:
(d) Indirect expenses

Question 20.
₹ 25,000 withdrawn from bank for office use. In which voucher type, this transactions will be recorded ________.
(a) Contra voucher
(b) Receipt voucher
(c) Payment voucher
(d) Sales voucher
Answer:
(a) Contra voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any two features of incomplete records:
Answer:
(i) Nature:
It is an unscientific and unsystematic way of recording transactions. Accounting principles and accounting standards are not followed properly.

(ii) Lack of uniformity:
There is no uniformity in recording the transactions among different organisations. Different organisations record their transactions according to their needs and conveniences.

Question 22.
Show the calculation of subscription account how to write?
Answer:
Subscription received during the year.

Question 23.
A and B were partners sharing ratio of 3:2. Balance in their capital account on. 1^st January 2018 was ‘A’ ₹ 1,20,000 and ‘B’ ₹ 80,000 on 1^st April 2018. ‘A’ introduced additional capital of ₹ 20,000. ‘B’ introduced additional capital of ₹ 10,000 during the year. Calculate interest on capital at 6% p.a. year ending 31^st Dec 2018.
Answer:

Question 24.
The Profits and losses of a firm for the last four years:
2015 = ₹ 30,000
2016 = ₹ 34,000
2017 = ₹ 12,000 (Loss)
2018 = ₹ 28,000
you are required to calculate the amount of goodwill on the basis of 5 years purchase of average profits of last 4 year.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase .
= ₹ 20,000 × 5
= ₹ 1,00,000

Question 25.
Anbu and Raju are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2. Akshai is admitted as a partner. The new profit sharing ratio among Anbu, Raju and Akshai is 5:3:2. Find out the sacrificing ratio.
Answer:
Old ratio of Anbu and Raju 3:2 that is \(\frac{3}{5}: \frac{2}{5}\)
New ratio of Anbu, Raju and Akshai 5:3:2

Question 26.
Kiran, Vinoth and Vimal are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3:2. Kiran retires and the new profit sharing ratio between Vinoth and Vimal is 2:1. Calculate the gaining ratio.
Share gained = New share – Old Share


∴ The gaining ratio of Vinoth and Vimal is 11 : 4

Question 27.
Sridhar Ltd issued 20,000 shares of? 100 each at discount of 10%. Give journal entry.
Answer:

Question 28.
List the tools of financial statement analysis.
Answer:
Following are the commonly used tools of financial statement analysis.

• Comparative statement
• Common size statement
• Trend – analysis
• Funds flow analysis
• Cash flow analysis

Question 29.
Calculate inventory turnover ratio:
Opening stock = ₹ 30,000; Closing stock = ₹ 50,000; Purchases = ₹ 1,20,000
Answer:

Question 30.
What are the steps involved in designing accounting reports?
Answer:

• Define the objective of generating report
• Specify the structure of the report
• Creating data base queries to interact with the database to retrieve, modify, add or delete data from the records.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
On 1^st April 2018, Subha started her business with a capital ₹ 1,20,000; she did not maintain proper books of accounts.
Following particulars are available from her books as on 31.3.2019.

Answer:

Question 32.
Compute capital fund of Karu social club on 31.3.2018.

Answer:

Question 33.
From the following information prepare capital accounts of partners, Shanthi and Sumathi when their capitals are fixed.

Answer:

Question 34.
For the purpose of admitting a new partner a firm has decided to value goodwill at 3 years purchase of average profits of the last 4 years using weighted average method. Profits of the past 4 years and the respective weight.

Answer:

Goodwill = Weighted average profit × No. of years of purchase
= ₹ 24,800 × 3 = ₹ 74,400

Question 35.
Sri Ram and Raj are partners sharing ratio 2:1. Nelson joins as a partner on 1^st April 2017. The following adjustments are to made
(i) Increase the value of stock by ₹ 5,000
(ii) Bring into record investment of ₹ 7,000 which had not been recorded in the books of the firm
(iii) Reduce the value of office equipment by ₹ 10,000
(iv) A provision would also be made for outstanding wages for ₹ 9,500. Give journal entries and prepare revaluation A/c.
Answer:

Question 36.
A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2 on 31^st March 2018. ‘C’ retires from the firm. Goodwill appeared in the books of a firm ₹ 1,20,000 by assuming fluctuating capital account. Pass the journal entries.
(a) Write off the entire amount of existing goodwill
(b) Write off half of the existing goodwill
Answer:

(b) Write off half of the existing goodwill

Question 37.
Maruthi Ltd forfeited 150 shares of ₹ 10/- each for non-payment of final call of ₹ 4/- of these 100 shares were reissued @ 9 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:


Question 38.
From the following particulars of Mani Ltd and Kani Ltd, prepare a common size income statement for the year ended 31^st March 2019.
Answer:

Answer:

Question 39.
Calculate gross profit ratio, net profit ratio, stock turnover ratio, opening stock ₹ 1,00,000; Purchases ₹ 3,50,000; Gross profit ₹ 1,50,000; Net profit 90,000; Revenue from operations ₹ 4,50,000; closing stock ₹ 1,50,000.
Answer:

Cost of revenue from operations = Revenue from operations – gross profit
= 45,00,000 – 1,50,000
= ₹ 3,00,000

Question 40.
What is meant by voucher and what are its types?
Answer:
Voucher is a document which contains details of transactions. Transactions are to be recorded through voucher entries. Tally has a set of predefined vouchers such as purchase, sales, payment, receipts and contra to view the list of voucher type. Gateway of tally → Masters → Accounts info → voucher type → display.
Following are some of major accounting voucher:

• Receipt voucher
• Payment voucher
• Contra voucher
• Purchase voucher
• Sales voucher
• Journal voucher

As per the requirement of users, additional voucher type can be created.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) From the following details, you are required to calculate credit sales and credit purchases by preparing total debtors account, total creditors account, bills receivable account and bills payable account.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Find out total purchases and total sales from the following details by preparing accounts.
Answer:


Answer:


Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 50,000 + ₹ 5,71,000
= ₹ 6,21,000
Cash purchases + credit purchases
= ₹ 25,000 + ₹ 38,000
= ₹ 63,000

Question 42.
(a) From the following Receipts and Payments account and from the information given below of Ramanathapuram Sports Club, prepare Income and Expenditure account for the year ended 31^st December, 2018 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:


Additional information:
(i) Capital fund as on 1^st January 2018. ₹ 30,000
Opening stock of sports materials ₹ 3,000 and closing stock of sports material ₹ 5,000
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following receipt and payment account of Coimbatore cricket club for the year ending 31^st March 2016. Prepare income and expenditure account for the year ending 31^st March 2016 and a balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:


Additional Information:
On 1^st April 2015 the club had stock of balls and bats ₹ 3,000 and an advance subscription of ₹ 500. Surplus an account of tournament should be kept in reserve for permanent pavilian. subscription due on 31^st March 2016 was ₹ 2,000. Stock of bats and balls 31.3.2016 ₹ 1,000.
Answer:

Question 43.
(a) A and B were partners sharing ratio of 7:3. Their capitals ₹ 80,000 and ₹ 60,000 respectively. Their partnership deed.
(i) Interest on capital @ 10% P.a.
(ii) Interest on drawing @ 12% P.a.
(iii) A and B to get a salary of ₹ 10,000 each. Per annum
(iv) A to get a commission of 10% on the net profit before changing such commission.
The profit of the firm for 2018 before making the above adjustments was drawing of the partners during the year were A ₹ 12,000; B ₹ 8,000
Show the profit and loss appropriation account of firm.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Nirmala and shanthi were partners in a firm ratio 2:1. Their capital ₹ 1,60,000 and ₹ 80,000 respectively. Their partnership deed provides for the following.
(i) Interest on capital @8%
(ii) Interest on drawings @ 6%
(iii) Shanthi to get a salary of ₹ 1,000 P.m.
(iv) Shanthi to get a commission of 10% an the net profit after changing such commission. The profit of the firm for the year ended 31.03.2005 before making the above adjustments was ₹ 75,000.
Drawings of the partners during the year were Nirmala ₹ 15,000 and shanthi ₹ 10,000.
Show the profit and loss appropriation Account of firm.
Answer:

Question 44.
(a) From the following information relating to Arul enterprises calculate value of goodwill as the basis of 2 year purchase of the average profit of 3 year.
(0 Profit for the year ending 31^st December 2016, 2017, 2018 were ₹ 92,000; ₹ 88,000; and ₹ 1,00,000 respectively.
(ii) A non – recurring income of ₹ 10,000 is included in the profit of 2016.
(iii) The closing stock of the year 2017 was over valued by 20,000.
Answer:


Goodwill = Average profit × Number of years of purchase
= ₹ 90,000 × 2 = ₹ 1,80,000

[OR]

(b) A and B are partners profit & losses ratio of 3:1. Their balance sheet of 31^st March 2017 as under.

On 1.4.2017 they admit ‘C’ as a new partner of the following arrangements.
(i) ‘C’ brings ₹ 20000 as capital for 1/5 share of profit
(ii) Stock and furniture is to be reduced by 10% a reserve of 5% on debtors for doubtful debtor.
(iii) Appreciate building by 20%
Prepare revaluation a/c & partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm admission.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are partners profit and losses are equally. Their balance sheet as on 31.3.2018 is balance sheet.
Answer:

‘C’ died on 1^st April 2018. The following agreement was to be put into effect.
(i) Goodwill was valued at 60000; ‘C’ was to be credited with his share.
(ii) Assets were revalued; Machinery ₹ 1,17,000; computer to ₹ 46,000; Stock to ₹ 15,000.
(iii) ₹ 21,000 was to be paid away to the ‘C’s executor on 1^st April.
Prepare the revaluation, capital A/c & Balance sheet of new firm.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Anjali Flour Ltd with a registered capital ₹ 4,00,000 in equity share of ₹ 10 each issued 30,000 of such shares payable 2/- per share an application. ₹ 5/- per share an allotment and ₹ 3/- per share on first call. The issue was duly subscribed.
All the money payable was duly received but on allotment share holder paid the entire balance on his holding of 500 shares. Give journal entries to record the transactions.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) Simon Ltd issued 50,000 equity shares of ₹ 10/- each at per payable an application ₹ 1 per share on, allotment ₹ 5/- per share on first call ₹ 2/- per share and on second & final calls ₹ 2/- per share. The issue was fully subscribed and all the amount were duty received with the exception of 2,000 shares held by Chezhian. who failed to pay the second & final call. Journalise the above transaction.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars of vijay Ltd prepare common size income statement for the year ended 31^st march 2017 and 31^st march 2018.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) From the following information calculate trend percentage for Malar Ltd.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following balance sheet has been prepared from the books of bright on 1.4.2018

During the year the following transaction took place,

• Wages paid by cash ₹ 2,000
• Rent paid by cheque ₹ 5,000
• Cash purchases made for ₹ 3,000
• Good purchased on credit from Senthamarai ₹ 15,000
• Good sold in credit to Pushparaj ₹ 25,000
• Payment made to Santhamarai by cheque ₹ 5,000
• Cash received from Shankar ₹ 30,000
• Cash sales made for ₹ 6,000
• Depreciate machinery at 10%
• Closing stock on 31.03.2019 ₹ 15,000

You are required to prepare trading and profit and loss A/c for the year ended 31.03.2019 and balance sheet using Tally.
Answer:
Following steps are to be followed to outer the transaction in tally ERP.9
1. To create company Company info > Create company
Type the name as briget and keep all other fields as they are and choose “yes” to accept.
2. To maintain accounts only
Gateway of Tally > F11 Accounting features > General > maintain accounts only: yes > accept yes
3. To create ledger accounts with opening balances
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts info > Ledgers > single ledger > create

Note:
Cash account need not be created as it is default ledger only the opening balance has to be recorded by altering the cash account.
To record the opening balance of cash
Gateway of Tally > Masters > Accounts info > Ledger > single Ledger > Alter.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in the above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
In …………, Luca Pacioli an Italian developed double-entry book-keeping system.
(a) 1494
(b) 1944
(c) 1894
(d) 1794
Answer:
(a) 1494

Question 2.
Which of the following does not follow dual aspect concept?
(a) Increase in one asset and decrease in other asset
(b) Increase in both asset and liability
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset
(d) Increase in one asset and increase in capital
Answer:
(c) Decrease in one asset and decrease in other asset

Question 3.
Which one of the following is representative personal account?
(a) Buildings A/c
(b) Outstanding salary A/c
(c) Mahesh A/c
(d) Balan & Co.
Answer:
(b) Outstanding salary A/c

Question 4.
Prepaid rent is a ……………………….
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Personal A/c
(c) Real A/c
(d) Representative personal A/c
Answer:
(d) Representative personal A/c

Question 5.
The amount brought into the business by the proprietor should be credited to ……………..
(a) Cash A/c
(b) Drawings A/c
(d) Representative personal A/c
(d) Suspense A/c
Answer:
(d) Representative personal A/c

Question 6.
A list which contains balances of accounts to know whether the debit and credit balances are
matched is …………
(a) Journal
(b) Day book
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(c) Trial balance

Question 7.
Which of the following method(s) can be used for preparing trial balance?
(a) Balance method
(b) Total method
(c) Total and balance method
(d) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 8.
Sales return book is used to record …………….
(a) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(c) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately
(d) Returns of assets by the customer for which cash is paid immediately
Answer:
(b) Returns of goods by the customer for which cash is not paid immediately

Question 9.
Purchase of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in
(a) Purchases book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases returns book
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(d) Journal proper

Question 10.
The balance in the petty cash book is ……….
(a) An expense
(b) A profit
(c) An asset
(d) A liability
Answer:
(c) An asset

Question 11.
When money is withdrawn from bank, the bank ………………..
(a) Credits customer’s account
(b) Debits customer’s account
(c) Debits and credits customer’s account
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Debits customer’s account

Question 12.
Which of the following errors will not affect the trial balance?
(a) Wrong balancing of an account
(b) Posting an amount in the wrong account but on the correct side
(c) Wrong totalling of an account
(d) Carried forward wrong amount in a ledger account
Answer:
(b) Posting an amount in the wrong account but on the correct side

Question 13.
Goods returned by Senguttuvan were taken into stock, but no entry was passed in the books, while rectifying this error, which of the following accounts should be debited?
(a) Senguttuvan account
(b) Sales returns account
(c) Returns outward account
(d) Purchases returns account
Answer:
(b) Sales returns account

Question 14.
Cash received from sale of fixed assets is credited to ………..
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) Fixed asset account
(e) Depreciation account
(d) Bank account
Answer:
(b) Fixed asset account

Question 15.
Depreciation is caused by ……………..
(a) Lapse of time
(b) Usage
(c) Obsolescence
(d) (a), (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 16.
Revenue expenditure is intended to benefit ………………
(a) Past period
(b) Future period
(c) Current period
(d) Any period
Answer:
(c) Current period

Question 17.
Pre-operative expenses are ………………….
(a) Revenue expenditure
(b) Prepaid revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
Answer:
(d) Capital expenditure

Question 18.
Bank overdraft should be shown………………….
(a) In the trading account
(b) Profit and loss account
(c) On the liabilities side
(d) On the assets side
Answer:
(c) On the liabilities side

Question 19.
If there is no existing provision for doubtful debts, provision created for doubtful debts is………………….
(a) Debited to bad debts account
(b) Debited to sundry debtors account
(c) Credited to bad debts account
(d) Debited to profit and loss account
Answer:
(d) Debited to profit and loss account

Question 20.
One of the limitations of computerized accounting system is ……………….
(a) System software
(b) Accuracy
(c) Versatility
(d) Storage
Answer:
(a) System software

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Who are External users?
Answer:
External users are the persons who are outside the organisation but piake use of accounting information for their purposes.

Question 22.
What is Real account?
Answer:
All accounts relating to tangible and intangible properties and possessions are called real accounts. .

Question 23.
Write any two procedure for balancing an account.
Answer:

• The debit and credit columns of an account are to be totalled separately.
• The difference between the two totals is to be ascertained.

Question 24.
Mention any two features of trial balance.
Answer:

• Trial balance contains the balances of all ledger accounts.
• It is prepared on a specific date, that is why, the word, “as on ” is used at the top.

Question 25.
What is Purchases book?
Answer:
Purchases book is a subsidiary book in which only credit purchases of goods are recorded.

Question 26.
What is Contra entry?
Answer:
When the two accounts involved in a transactions are cash account and bank account, then both the aspects are entered in the cash book itself. As both the debit and credit aspects of a transaction are recorded in the cash book, such entries are called contra entries.

Question 27.
What is bank overdraft?
Answer:
It is not possible to have unfavourable cash balance in the cash book. But, it is possible to have unfavourable balance in the bank account. When the business is not having sufficient money in its bank account, it can borrow money from the bank. As a result of this, amount is overdrawn from bank.

Question 28.
What is compensating errors?
Answer:
The errors that make up for each other or neutralise each other are known as compensating errors.

Question 29.
Define Depreciation.
Answer:
According to R.N. Carter, “Depreciation is the gradual and permanent decrease in the value of an asset from any cause”.

Question 30.
What is opening entry?
Answer:
The balances of various accounts which are not closed at the end of the accounting period are carried forward to the next accounting period.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
From the following balances taken from the books of Saravanan, calculate gross profit for the year ended December 31, 2017.

Answer:

Question 32.
Mention any three limitations of computerised accounting system.
Answer:

1. Heavy cost of installation
2. Cost of trading and
3. Fear of unemployment.

Question 33.
Complete the accounting equation.

Answer:

Question 34.
Give journal entries for the following transactions.

Answer:

Question 35.
Journalise the following transactions and post them to ledger. On May 20, 2018, Ram paid salaries ₹ 15,000; electricity charges ₹ 8,000 and wages ₹ 2,000.
Answer:

Question 36.
State whether the balance of each of the following accounts should be placed in the debit or the credit column of the trial balance.
1. Sundry debtors 2. Sundry creditors 3. Cash in hand 4. Bank overdraft 5. Salary 6. Discount allowed
Answer:

Question 37.
The preparation of the bills receivable and bills payable books is explained through the following examples:
Answer:

Answer:

Question 38.
What are the advantages of petty cash book (any three)?
Answer:

1. There can be better control over petty payments.
2. There is saving of time of the main cashier.
3. Cash book is not loaded with many petty payments.

Question 39.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December, 2017 from the following informations.
(a) Balance as per bank statement (pass book) is ₹ 25,000.
(b) No record has been made in the cash book for a dishonour of a cheque for ₹ 250.
(c) Cheques deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 3,500twere not yet collected.
(d) Bank charges of ₹ 300 have not been entered in the cash books.
(e) Cheques issued amounting for ₹ 9,000 have been presented for payment.
Answer:

Question 40.
Prepare an analytical petty cash book from the following information on the imprest systems:

Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Pass journal entries for the following:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) On 1st April 2008, Sudha and Company purchased machinery for ₹ 64,000. To instal the machinery expenses incurred was ₹ 28,000. Depreciate machinery 10% p.a. under straight line method. On 30th June, 2010 the worn out machinery was sold for ₹ 52,000. The books are closed on 31st December every year. Show machinery account.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Rectify the following errors which were located at the time of preparing the trial balance.
1. The total of the discount column on the debit side of the cash book of ₹ 225 was posted twice.
2. Goods of the value of ₹ 75 returned by Ponnalagu was not posted to her account.
3. Cash received from Herosini ₹ 1,000 was not posted.
4. Interest received ₹ 300 has not been posted.
5. Rent paid ₹ 100 was posted to rent account as ₹ 10.
Answer:
1. Discount account should be debited with ₹ 225.
2. Sales return account should be credited with ₹ 75.
3. Cash account should be debited with ₹ 1,000.
4. Interest account should be debited with ₹ 300.
5. Rent account should be credited with ₹ 90.

[OR]

(b) Show the accounting equation on the basis of the following:

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Show the direct ledger postings for the following transactions.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) State whether the following are capital or revenue.
1. ₹ 5,000 spent towards additions to buildings.
2. Second-hand motor car purchased for ₹ 30,000 and paid ₹ 2,000 as repairs immediately.
3. ₹ 10,000 was spent on painting the new factory.
4. Freight and cartage on the new machine ₹ 150, erection charges ? 200.
5. ₹ 150 spent on repairs before using a second hand car purchased recently.
Answer:
1. Capital expenditure
2. Capital expenditure
3. Capital expenditure
4. Capital expenditure
5. Capital expenditure

Question 44.
(a) Prepare trial balance as on 31st March, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the trial balances given by Saif, prepare final accounts for the year ended 31st March, 2018 in his books.

Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Prepare Sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Ponni and Co.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Seshadri for May, 2017.

Answer:

Question 46.
(a) From the following particulars of Kamakshi traders, prepare a bank reconciliation
statement as on 31st March, 2018.
a. Debit balance as per cash book ₹ 10,500.
b. Cheques deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 5,500 credited by bank, but entered twice in the cash book.
c. Cheques issued and presented for payment amounting to ₹ 7,000 omitted in the cash book.
d. Cheque book charges debited by the bank ₹ 200 not recorded in the cash book.
e. Cash of ₹ 1,000 deposited by a customer of the business in cash deposit machine not recorded in the cash book.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare a Triple Column Cash book of Rahim from the following transactions.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Sharmili & Co. incurred the following expenses during the year 2018. Classify the following items under capital or revenue.
1. Purchase of furniture of ₹ 1,000,
2. Purchase of second hand machinery ₹ 4,000.
3. ₹ 50 paid for carriage on goods purchased.
4. ₹ 175 paid for repairs on second hand machinery as soon as it was purchased.
5. ₹ 600 wages paid for installation of plant.
Answer:
1. Capital expenditure
2. Capital expenditure
3. Revenue expenditure
4. Capital expenditure
5. Capital expenditure

[OR]

(b) Pass adjusting entries for the following:
a. The closing stock was valued at ₹ 5,000.
b. Outstanding salaries ₹ 150.
c. Insurance prepaid ₹ 450.
d. Interest on drawings ₹ 50.
e. Write off bad debts ₹ 500.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which of the following items relating to bills payable is transferred to total creditors account?
(a) Opening balance of bills payable
(b) Closing balance of bills payable
(c) Bills payable accepted during the year
(d) Cash paid for bills payable
Answer:
(c) Bills payable accepted during the year

Question 2.
The amount of credit sales can be computed from _______.
(a) Total debtors A/c
(b) Total creditors A/c
(c) Bills receivable A/c
(d) Bills payable A/c
Answer:
(a) Total debtors A/c

Question 3.
Income and expenditure account is prepared to find out ________.
(a) Profit or loss
(b) Cash and bank balance
(c) Surplus or deficit
(d) Financial position
Answer:
(c) Surplus or deficit

Question 4.
Which of the following should not be recorded in the income and expenditure account?
(a) Sale of old newspaper
(b) Loss on sale of assets
(c) Honorarium paid to the secretary
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture
Answer:
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture

Question 5.
When fixed capital method is adopted by a partnership firm, which of the following items will appear in capital account?
(a) Additional capital introduced
(b) Interest on capital
(c) Interest on drawings
(d) Share of profit
Answer:
(a) Additional capital introduced

Question 6.
When a partner withdraws regularly a fixed sum of money at the middle of every month, period for which interest is to be calculated on the drawings as on average is _______.
(a) 5.5 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 6.5 months
Answer:
(b) 6 months

Question 7.
When the average profit is ₹ 25,000 and the normal profit is ₹ 15,000, super profit is
(a) ₹ 25,000
(b) ₹ 5,000
(c) ₹ 10,000
(d) ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 10,000

Question 8.
Book profit of 2017 is ₹ 35,000; Non-recurring income included in the profit is ₹ 1,000; and abnormal loss was ₹ 2,000 then the he adjusted profit is _______.
(a) ₹ 36,000
(b) ₹ 35,000
(c) ₹ 38,000
(d) ₹ 34,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 36,000

Question 9.
At the time of admission, the goodwill brought by the new partner may be credited to the capital accounts of _______.
(a) all the partners
(b) the old partners
(c) the new partners
(d) the sacrificing partners
Answer:
(d) the sacrificing partners

Question 10.
Which of the following statements is not true in relation to admission of a partner?
(a) Generally mutual rights of the partners change
(b) The profits and losses of the previous years distributed to the old partners
(c) The firm is reconstituted under a new agreement
(d) The existing agreement does not come to an end
Answer:
(d) The existing agreement does not come to an end

Question 11.
At the time of retirement of a partner, determination of gaining ratio is required ______.
(a) To transfer revaluation profit or loss
(b) To distribute accumulated profits and losses
(c) To adjust goodwill
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) To adjust goodwill

Question 12.
If the final amount due to a retiring partner is not paid immediately, it is transferred to ________.
(a) Bank A/c
(b) Retiring partner’s capital A/c
(c) Retiring partner’s loan A/c
(d) Other partner’s capital A/c
Answer:
(c) Retiring partner’s loan A/c

Question 13.
The amount received over and above the par value is credited to ________.
(a) Securities premium A/c
(b) Calls-in-advance A/c
(c) Share capital A/c
(d) Forfeited shares A/c
Answer:
(a) Securities premium A/c

Question 14.
Which of the following is false?
(a) Issued capital can never be more than the authorized capital
(b) In the case of under subscription, issued capital will be less than the subscribed capital
(c) Reserve capital can be called at the time of winding up
(d) Paid up capital is part of called up capital
Answer:
(b) In the case of under subscription, issued capital will be less than the subscribed capital

Question 15.
Which of the following statement is not a tool of financial statement analysis?
(a) Trend analysis
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Standard costing
Answer:
(d) Standard costing

Question 16.
The term “fund” refers to ______.
(a) Current liabilities
(b) Working capital
(c) Fixed assets
(d) Non – current assets
Answer:
(b) Working capital

Question 17.
Match list I with list II and select the correct answer:

Answer:
(a) i – 1
(b) ii – 4
(c) iii – 3
(d) iv – 2

Question 18.
To test the liquidity of a concern, which of the following ratios are useful?
(i) Quick ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio
(iii) Debt-equity ratio
(iv) Current ratio.
Select the correct answer using codes
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 19.
Contra voucher is used for ______.
(a) Master entry
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use
(c) Reports
(d) Credit purchase of assets
Answer:
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use

Question 20.
Which is not the default group in Tally?
(a) Suspense Account
(b) Outstanding expenses
(c) Sales account
(d) Investment
Answer:
(b) Outstanding expenses

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is a statement of affairs?
Answer:
A statement of affairs is a statement showing the balances of assets and liabilities on a particular date. This method of ascertaining profit is also called as statement of affairs method or networth method or capital comparison method.

Question 22.
From the following information, calculate the amount of stationery to be shown in income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March 2016.

Answer:

Question 23.
Sundar drew regularly ₹ 2,000 at end of the every month during the year. Calculate interest on drawings @ 10 % p.a.
Answer:

Question 24.
The following are the profits of a firm in the last 5 year :
2014 – ₹ 10,000, 2015 – ₹ 11,000; 2016 – ₹ 12,000; 2017 – ₹ 13,000; and 2018 – ₹ 14,000.
Calculate the value of goodwill at 2 years purchase of average profit of 5 years.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= ₹ 12,000 × 2 = ₹ 24,000
= ₹ 24,000

Question 25.
What is meant by revaluation of assets and liabilities?
Answer:
When a partner is admitted into the partnership, the assets and liabilities are revalued as the current value may differ from the book value. Determination of current values of assets and liabilities is called revaluation of assets and liabilities.

Question 26.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit ratio 5:3:2 on 31.3.2018. A retries on the date of retirement, the books of the firm showed a reserve fund of ₹ 1,50,000. Pass the journal entry to transfer reserve fund.
Answer:

Question 27.
Vinod company Ltd issued ₹ 40000 preference share ₹ 100 each premium of ₹ 30.
Answer:

Question 28.
What is trend analysis?
Answer:
Trend analysis refers to the study of movement of figures over a period. The trend may be increasing trend or decreasing trend or irregular.

Question 29.
Calculate Debt-equity ratio.

Answer:
Deb-equity ratio = \(\frac{\text { Total long term debts }}{\text { Shareholders fund }}\)
Total long term deb = Debentures + Long term ratio
= 2,00,000 + 1,00,000
= ₹ 3,00,000
Share holders funds = Equity share capital + General Reserve
= 4,00,000 + 3,00,000
= ₹ 7,00,000
∴ Deb equity ratio = \(\frac{3,00,000}{7,00,000}\) = 0.43 : 1

Question 30.
What are accounting reports?
Answer:
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the . accounting records of a business concern. Accounting reports may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
From the following details, calculate the missing figure.

Answer:

Question 32.
How will the following items appear in the final accounts of the club for the year ending 31^st March 2017. Received subscription of ₹ 80,000 during the year 2016-17. This includes ₹ 10,000 for 2015-16, and ₹ 6,000 for the year 2017-18. Subscription of ₹ 2,000 is still outstanding for the year 2016-17.
Answer:

Question 33.
From the following information, prepare the capital account of partners Rooban and Devi when their capitals are fluctuating.

Answer:

Question 34.
From the following information relating to Sridevi enterprises, calculate the value of goodwill on the basis of 4 years purchase of the average profits of 3 year.
a) Profits for the year ending 31^st Dec 2016, 2017 and 2018 were ₹ 1,75,000, ₹ 1,50,001; raid ₹ 2,00,000 respectively.
b) A non-recurring income of ₹ 45,000 is included in the profit of the year 2016.
c) The closing stock of the year 2017 was overvalued by ₹ 30.000.
Answer:


Goodwill = Average profit × Number of years of purchase
= 1,60,000 × 4
= ₹ 6,40,000

Question 35.
Seenu and Siva are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 5:3. In the view of Kowsalya admission, they decided,
a) To increase the value of building by ₹ 80,000.
b) To bring into record investment @ ₹ 20,000; so far not recorded.
c) To decrease the value of machinery by ₹ 28,000; and furniture by ₹ 24,000.
d) To write off sundry creditors by ₹ 32,000. Pass entries and prepare revaluation account.
Answer:

Question 36.
Kevin, Madhan and Ranjith are partners sharing of profit ratio 4:3:3. Kevin retires from the firm on 31^st Dec 2018. On the date of retirement his capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 1,50,000. pass the journal entries of,
(a) The amount due is paid of immediately
(b) The amount due is not paid immediately
(c) ₹ 1,00,000 is paid balance in future
Answer:

Question 37.
Sara company issues 10,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each payable fully on application.
Pass journal entry if the shares are issued.
(i) At par,
(ii) At a premium of 2/- per share
Answer:

Question 38.
From the following particulars, Prepare comparative income statement of A Ltd.

Answer:

Question 39.
Calculate operating profit ratio under the following cases
Case 1: Revenue from operations ₹ 16,00,000 operation profit ₹ 4,00,000
Case 2: Revenue from operations ₹ 40,00,000 operating cost ₹ 28,00,000
Case 3: Revenue from operations ₹ 20,00,000 Gross profit 25% on revenue from operations; operating expenses ₹ 2,00,000.
Answer:

Operating profit = Gross profit – Operating expenses
Gross profit = 25% of 20,00,000 = ₹ 5,00,000
Operating profit = 5,00,000 – 2,00,000 = ₹ 3,00,000
∴ Operating profit ratio = \(\frac{3,00,000}{20,00,000}\) x 100 = 15%

Question 40.
Mention the commonly used voucher types in Tally ERP. 9.
Answer:
The following are some of the major accounting voucher used in an organisation.

• Receipt voucher
• Payment voucher
• Contra voucher
• Purchase voucher
• Sales voucher
• Journal voucher

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Ananth does not keep his books under system. Find the profit or loss made by him for the year ending 31^st March 2019.

Ananth had withdrawn ₹ 60,000 for his personal use. He had introduced ₹ 1,70,000 as capital for expansion of his business. Create a provision of 5% on debtor. Plant and machinery is to be depreciated at 10%.
Answer:
Calculation of opening capital:

Calculation of closing capital:

[OR]

(b) From the following Receipts and payments account of Coimbatore cricket club for the year ending 31^st March 2016. Prepare income and expenditure account for the year ending 31^st March 2016 and a balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:

Additional information:
On 1st April 2015, the club had stock of balls and bats of ₹ 3,000 and an advance subscription of ₹ 500 surplus on account of tournaments should be kept in reserve for permanent pavilion. Subscription due on 31.3.2016 was ₹ 2,000; stock of bats and balls on 31.3.2016 was ₹ 1,000.
Answer:
Calculation of capital fund:

Question 42.
(a) A and B are partners in a firm sharing ratio at 4:1. On 1^st January 2018, their capitals were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000, respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following
(a) Interest capital is to be allowed at 5% p. a.
(b) Interest on drawings charged to A and B are ₹ 200 : 300
(c) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted ₹ 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare profit and loss appropriation account for the year ended 31.12.2018. Assume that capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following receipts and payments A/c of defence club and from the information, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March 2016 and balance sheet.


(i) The club has 50 members each paying annual subscription of ₹ 2,500, subscription outstanding on 31^st March 2015 were to extent ₹ 30,000.
(ii) On 31^st March 2016, salaries outstanding amounted to ₹ 10,000; salaries paid in 2015-16 included ₹ 30,000 for the year 2014-15.
(iii) On 1^st April 2015, the club owned buildings valued at ₹ 10,00,000. Furniture ₹ 1,00,000 and books ₹ 1,00,000.
Answer:




Working note:

Question 43.
(a) Antony and Ranjith started a business on 1.4.2018 with capitals of ₹ 4,00,000 and ₹ 3,00,000. According to the deed, Antony is to get salary of ₹ 90,000 p. a. Ranjith is to get 25% commission on profit after allowing salary to Antony and interest on capital @ 5% p. a. but after charging such commission. Partners are equal. Profit earned by firm is ₹ 3,65,000. Prepare profit and loss Appropriation account.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Durga and Preethi entered into a partnership agreement on 1^st April 2018. Durga contributing ₹ 1,00,000 and preethi ₹ 1,20,000.
(a) Profit and losses to be shared in the ratio 3:2 as between Durga and Preethi
(b) Partners to be entitled to interest on capital @ 5% p.a.
(c) Interest on drawings to be charged for Durga ₹ 1200. Preethi ₹ 1800
(d) Durga to receive salary of ₹ 20,000 for the year and
(e) Preethi to receive a commission of ₹ 8,000.
During the year, the firm made a profit of ₹ 80,000 before adjustment of interest, salary and commission, prepare Profit and Loss Appropriation A/c.
Answer:

Question 44.
(a) From the following information, calculate the value of goodwill of the firm of Chander and Gupta.
(a) At least 3 years purchase of average profits
(b) At least 3 years purchase of super profits
(c) On the basis of capitalisation of super profits
(d) On the basis of capitalisation of average profits
(i) Average capital employed in the business ₹ 7,00,000
(ii) Net trading results of past year, 2014 – 147600 (profit) loss 2015 – ₹ 148100; profit 2016 – ₹ 4,48,700
(iii) Rate of interest expected from capital having regard risk 18% remuneration to each partner his service Rs 500 per month.
Answer:
(i) Calculation of average maintainable profits and super profits

(ii) Calculation of value of goodwill:
(a) At 3 years purchase of average profit:
Average maintainable profits × No. of years purchase
= 1,37,400 × 3 = ₹ 4,12,200
(b) At 3 years purchase of super profits
Super profits × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 11,400 × 3 = ₹ 34,000
(c) On the basis of capitalisation of super profits

(d) On the basis of capitalisation of average profits:

[OR]

(b) The following is the balance sheet of A and B sharing profits 3:2 as on 31.3.2018

On 1.4.2018 they decided to admit ‘C’ into the partnership
(a) ‘C’ Shall bring in a capital of ₹ 30,000.
(b) Goodwill of the firm being valued at ₹ 20,000.
(c) Buildings be appreciated by 10%.
(d) Stock be depreciated by ₹ 3,000 and provision for outstanding liability be created at ₹ 2,000.
Prepare Revaluation, capital A/c and balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Shankar, Saleem and Pandian are partners with ratio of 3:2:1. Their balance as follows 31.12. 2018.
Answer:

On 1.1.2019, Pandian died and on his death following arrangements were made
(i) Stock to be depreciated by 10%.
(ii) Land is to appreciated by Rs 11,000.
(iii) To provide ₹ 3,000 for bad debtors.
(iv) The final amount due to Pandian was not paid.
Prepare revaluation A/c partner’s capital A/c and Balance sheet of the firm after death.

[OR]

(b) P, Q and R are partners sharing losses 2:3:1. Their balance sheet on 31st Dec 2018 was as follows.

R retires on 31^st Dec 2018. Subject to following canditions,
(а) A goodwill account is created in the books at ₹ 24,000.
(b) Machinery to be depreciated by 10%
(c) Furniture to be depreciated by 5%
(d) Stock to be appreciated by 15% and factory building by 10%
(e) Reserve for doubtful debtors to be raised to ₹ 2,000.
Prepare necessary ledger accounts and show the balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) Vairam Ltd. issued 60,000 shares @ 10% each premium of Rs 3/- per share payable as follows: On application ₹ 6/- on Allotment ₹ 5/- (including premium) on first and final call ₹ 2. Issue was fully subscribed and the amounts due were received except Saritha to whom 1,000 shares were allotted who failed to pay the allotment money and first and final call money. Here shares were forfeited. All the forfeited shares were reissued to Parimala @ ₹ 7/- per share. Pass journal entries.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the followings balance sheet of Universe Ltd as on 31^st March 2016 and 2017 Prepare comparative balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Following is the trading and profit and loss Account of a company. Calculate profitability ratio for the year ended 31.3.2018
Answer:


(d) Operating cost ratio = \(\frac{\text { Operation cost }}{\text { Revenue from operation }}\) × 100
Operating Cost = Cost of revenue from Operation + Operating expenses
Cost of revenue from operation = Revenue from Operation – Gross profit
= ₹ 5,60,000 -2,01,000
= ₹ 3,59,000
Operating expenses = Selling and distribution expenses + administrative expenses
= 20,000 + 89,000 = ₹ 1,09,000

Note:
Operating Cost Ratio = 100% – Operating Profit Ratio
= 100% – 16.43
= 83.57%

[OR]

(b) What are the applications of computerised accounting system?
Answer:
Computerised accounting system refers to the system of maintaining accounts using computer. It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of computer in order to maintain and produce accounting records and reports.

The applications of computerised accounting system are as follows:
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In computerised accounting system, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It does not require a large amount of physical space. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
Computerised accounting system facilitates efficient management of inventory, fast moving, slow moving and obsolete inventory can be identified. Updated information about availability of inventory, Level of inventory etc, can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Payroll Preparation:
Payroll involves the calculation of amount due to an employee. Pay of an employee may be calculated based on hours/days worked or units produced.

(iv) Report generation:
Computerised accounting system helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

(v) Data import/export:
Accounting data and information can be imported from or exported to other users within the organisation as well as outside the organisation.

(vi) Taxation:
Computerised accounting system helps to compute various taxes and to deduct these and deposit the same to the Government account.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Cost functions are derived from ………………. function.
(a) production
(b) investment
(c) demand
(d) consumption
Answer:
(a) production

Question 2.
Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point where: …………….
(a) Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution [MRTS] is greater than the price ratio
(b) MRTS is lesser than the price ratio
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other
(d) The slopes of isoquant and isocost lines are different
Answer:
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other

Question 3.
Utility means
(a) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are equal
(b) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services
(c) Total value of commodity
(d) Desire for goods and services
Answer:
(b) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services

Question 4.
Which one of the following is a developed nation?
(a) Mexico
(b) Ghana
(c) France
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(c) France

Question 5.
The weakness of Indian Economy is
(a) Economic disparities
(b) Mixed economy
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Adequate employment opportunities
Answer:
(a) Economic disparities

Question 6.
Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote cost.
(a) social
(b) economic
(c) money
(d) fixed
Answer:
(b) economic

Question 7.
“Economics is a science” The basis of this statement is
(a) Relation between cause and effect
(b) Use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of laws
(c) Experiments
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
The world fastest growing economy is
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Germany
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 9.
Find the odd one out:
(a) “An inquiry into the nature and the causes of the wealth of nations”
(b) “ Principles of Economics”
(cj “Nature of significance of Economic Science”
(d) “ Ceteris paribus”
Answer:
(b) “ Principles of Economics”

Question 10.
Choice is always constrained or limited by the ………………. of our resources.
(a) scarcity
(b) supply
(c) demand
(d) abundance
Answer:
(a) scarcity

Question 11.
Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank.
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 12.
The highest rate of tax under GST is [as on July 1st 2017]
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

Question 13.
The concept of meeting unexpected expenditure according to Keynes is
(a) Transaction motive
(b) Precautionary motive
(c) Speculative motive
(d) Personal motive
Answer:
(b) Precautionary motive

Question 14.
The cost that remains constant at all levels of output is…………….cost.
(a) fixed
(b) variable
(c) real
(d) social
Answer:
(a) fixed

Question 15.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is termed as revenue.
(a) profit
(b) average
(c) marginal
(d) total
Answer:
(c) marginal

Question 16.
Function with single independent variable is ………………….
(a) Multivariate function
(b) Bivariate function
(c) Univariate function
(d) Polynomial function
Answer:
(c) Univariate function

Question 17.
The new economic policy is concerned with the following:
(a) foreign investment
(b) foreign technology
(c) foreign trade
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 18.
Utility is a ………………… concept.
(a) objective
(b) subjective
(c) mathematical
(d) derivative
Answer:
(b) subjective

Question 19.
The head quarters of southern Railway is
(a) Tiruchirapalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 20.
Which feature is identified with rural areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Part – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Explicit cost – define
Answer:
Payment made to other for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs.

Question 22.
What is meant by distribution?
Answer:
Distribution means division of income among the four factors of production in terms of rent to landlords, wage to labourer, interest to capital and profit to entrepreneurs. The theory of functional distribution deals with how the relative prices of these factors of production are determined. The theory of factor prices is popularly known as the theory of distribution.

Question 23.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example.
Answer:

• Opportunity cost refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
• For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land. –
• If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
• Opportunity Cost is also called as “ Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 24.
Write the short note on natural resources.
Answer:

• Any stock or reserve that can be drawn from nature is a Natural Resources.
• The major natural resources are – land, forest, water, mineral and energy.
• India is rich in natural resources, but majority of the Indians are poor.
• Nature has provided with diverse climate, several rivers for irrigation and power generation, rich minerals, rich forest and diverse soil.

Question 25.
What do you mean by interest?
Answer:

• Interest is the reward paid by the borrower to the lender for the use of capital.
• Interest is the price paid for the use of capital in any market.
• Generally speaking, interest is a payment made by a borrower to the lender for the money borrowed.

Question 26.
List out the reasons for low per capita income as given by V.K.R.V. Rao.
Answer:
Rao ga c the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India:

• Uneconomic holdings with sub-divisions and fragmentation.
• Low levels of water availability for crops.
• Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
• Absence of capital.
• Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.

Question 27.
What is meant by Economics?
Answer:

• The term or word ‘Economics’ comes from the Ancient Greek “oikonomikos” [oikos means “households” and nomos means “management” “custom” or “law”].
• Thus, the term “Economics” means “management of households”.
• The subject was earlier known as “Political Economy” is renamed as Economics.

Question 28.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + lOx + 15x²
Answer:

Question 29.
Give the meaning of non- renewable energy.
Answer:
Non-renewable energy sources :

• The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re-used are called non-renewable energy sources.
• Basically these are the energy sources which will get exhausted over a period of time.
• Some of the examples of this kind of resources are coal, oil, gas etc.

Question 30.
Point out any one feature of Indian Economy.
Answer:
India has a mixed economy:

• Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy.
• This means both private and public sector co-exist and function smoothly.
• The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector, while, due to the liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
• This markets it a perfect model for public-private partnership.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Define Economic Development.
Answer:

• The economic development is indicated not just by GDP, but by an increase in citizen’s quality of life or well being. .
• The quality of life is being assessed by several indices such as Human Developments Index [HDI]
• On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.
• Developed economies are those countries which are industrialized.
• Developments economics are also termed as advanced countries.
• On the other hand, countries which have not fully utilized their resources like land, mines, workers, etc. and have low per capita income are termed as under developed economics.

Question 32.
Specify the nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition and monopoly?
Answer:
Nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition:

• Large number of Buyers and sellers.
• Homogeneous product and uniform price.
• Free entry and exit.
• Absence of Transport cost.
• Perfect Mobility of factors of production.
• Perfect knowledge of the Market.
• No Government Intervention.

Nature of entry of competitors in Monopoly:

• There is a single producer / seller of a product.
• The product of a monopolist is unique and has no close substitute.
• There is strict barrier for entry of any new firm.
• The monopolist is a price-maker.
• The monopolist earns maximum profit / abnormal profit.

Question 33.
What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel Sheet?
Answer:

• MS – excel is used in data analysis by using formula.
• A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
• The intersection of rows and columns is termed as cell.
• MS – Excel 2007 version supports up to 1 million rows and 16 thousand columns per work sheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

• Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
• Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel work sheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data
and formula

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area chart, line chart etc.

Question 34.
Differentiate between firm and Industry.
Firm
A firm refers to a single production unit in an industry, producing a large or a small quantum of a commodity or service, and selling it at a price in the market.
Its main objective is to earn a profit. There may be other objectives as described by managerial and behavioral theories of the firm.

Industry :
An industry refers to a group of firms producing the same product or service in an economy. For example: A group of firms producing cement is called a cement industry.

Question 35.
What are the measures taken towards Globalization?
Answer:

• As globalization measures tend to integrate all economies of the world and bringing them all under one umbrella.
• They pave the way for redistribution of economic power at the world level.
• Well-developed countries are favoured in this process and the welfare of the less- developed countries will be neglected.
• Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world.
• Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 36.
Describe the development of textile Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Ncidu is the largest textile hub of India.
• Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
• The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35.million people, and thereby coiitributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
• The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
• From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
• About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is. in Tamil Nadu.
• The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the  majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
• Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
• Tirupur known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
• Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
• Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 37.
The Handicrafts declined in India in British Period. Why?
Answer:

• The Indian handicrafts products had a worldwide market. ,
• Indian exports consisted chiefly of hand weaved cotton and silk fabrics, calicoes, artistic wares, wood carving etc.
• Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the handicrafts.
• With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings. There was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
• Indian handicraft products could not complete with machine – made products.
• The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for the British goods.

Question 38.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern States as seen in following table.
• Installed capacity of power utilities in States in southern region.
• Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
• Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

• Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai.
• These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Thermal Power:

• In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu [North Chennai] Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:
Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in following table:

Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 39.
State any two causes of housing problem in rural areas.
Answer:

• House is one of the basic needs of every family. Provision of better housing facilities increases the productivity of labour. The housing problem is getting aggravated due to rapid adaptation of nuclear families.
• Housing does not mean provision of house alone but also proper water supply, good sanitation, proper disposal of sewage etc.

Question 40.
Describe the features of human wants.
Answer:

• Wants are unlimited: Human wants are countless in number and various in kinds. When one want is satisfied another want crops up. Human wants multiply with the growth of civilization and development.
• Wants become habits: Wants become habits; for example, when a man starts .reading news paper in the morning, it becomes a habit. Same is the case with drinking tea or chewing pans.
• Wants are Satiable: Though we cannot satisfy all our wants, at the same time we can
  satisfy particular wants at a given time. When one feels hungry, he takes food and that want is satisfied. .
• Wants are Alternative: There are alternative ways to satisfy a particular want eg. Idly, dosa or chappathi.
• Wants are Competitive: All our wants are not equally important. So, there is competition among wants. Hence, we have to choose more urgent wants than less urgent wants.
• Wants are Complementary: Sometimes, satisfaction of a particular want requires the use of more than one commodity. Example: Car and Petrol, Ink and Pen.
• Wants are Recurring: Some wants occur again and again. For example, if we feel hungry, we take food and satisfy our want. But after sometime, we again feel hungry and want food.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Illustrate the Ricardian Theory of Rent.
Answer:

• The Classical theory of Rent is called “Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
• “Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil” – David Ricardo

Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

• Land differs in fertility.
• The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
• Rent depends upon fertility and location of land .
• Theory assumes perfect competition.
• It is based on the assumption of long period.
• There is existence of marginal land or no – rent land.
• Land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
• Land is used for cultivation only.
• Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Statement of the Theory:
There are three grades of land, namely A, B and C in that island. ‘A’ being most fertile ‘B’ less fertile and ‘C’ the least fertile. They will first cultivate all the most fertile land. The yield per acre on ‘A’ grade land is 40 bags of paddy. The same amount labour and capital employed in ‘A’ grade land. The yield per acre on ‘B’ grade land is 30 bags of paddy.

The Surplus of 10 bags [ 40-30] per acre appears on ‘A’ grade land. This is “ Economic Rent” land of ‘A’ grade land.

The yield per acre on ‘C’ grade land is 20 bags of paddy. This surplus of ‘A’ grade land is now raised to 20 bags [40-20] and it is the “ Economic Rent” of ‘A’ grade land.
The ‘C’ grade land cost of production is just equal to the price of its produce and therefore does not yield any rent [20-20]. Hence ‘C’ grade land is called ‘No – Rent land or marginal . land ’. The land which yields rent is called Ricardian Theory of Rent “intra-marginal land”.

Diagrammatic Explahation:

• In diagram, X- axis represents various grades of land and Y axis represents yield per acre [in bags].
• OA, AB and BC are the ‘A’ grade ‘B’ grade and ‘C’ grade lands respectively.
• The ‘C’ grade land is the no – rent land.”
• ‘A’ land ‘B’ grade lands are “intra – marginal lands”.
• The economic rent yielded by ‘A’ and ‘B’ grade lands is equal to the shaded area of their respective rectangles.

[OR]

(b) Write the important mineral resources in India.
Answer:
Important Mineral Resources:
(i) Iron -ore:

• India possesses high quality iron -ore in abundance.
• The total reserves of iron-ore in the country are about 14.630 million tonnes of haematite and 10,619 million tonnes of magnetite.
• Hematite iron is mainly found is Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha , Goa and Karnataka.
• Some deposits of iron ore are also found in Kerala, Tamilnadu and Andra Pradesh.

(ii) Coal and Lignite:

• Coal is the largest available mineral resource.
• India ranks third in the world after China and USA in coal production
• The main centres of coal in India are the West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya. Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
• Bulk of the coal production comes from Bengal-Jharkhand coalfields.

(iii) Bauxite:

• Bauxite is a main source of metal like aluminium.
• Major reserves are concentrated in the East Coast bauxite deposits of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) Mica:

• Mica is a heat resisting mineral which is also a bad conductor of electricity.
• It is used in electrical equipments as an insulator. ‘
• India stands first in sheet mica production and contributes 60% of mica trade in the world.
• The important mica bearing pegmatite is found in Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and Rajasthan.

(v) Curde Oil:

• Oil is being explored in India at many place of Assam and Gujarat.
• Digboi, Badarpur, Naharkatia, Kasimpur, Palliaria, Rudrapur, Shivsagar, Mourn [All in Assam] and Hay of Khambhat, Ankaleshwar and Kalor [All in Gujarat] are the important places of oil exploration in India.

(vi) Gold:

• India possesses only a limited gold reserve.
• There are only three main gold mine regions Kolar Goldfield, Kolar district and Hutti goldfield in Raichur district [both in Karnataka] and Ramgiri Goldfield in Anantpur district [Andhra Pradesh]

(vii) Diamond:

• The total reserves of diamond is estimated at around 4582, thousand carats which are mostly available in Panna [Madhya Pradesh], Rammallakota of Kumur district of Andhra Pradesh and also in the basin of Krishna River.
• The new Kimberlile fields have been discovered in Raipur and Pastar districts of Chhattisgarh, Nuapada and Bargarh districts of Odisha, Narayanpet-Maddur Krishna areas of Andhra Pradesh and Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka.

Question 42.
(a) What are basic economics problems?
Answer:
Basic economics problems:

• If resources are abundant and wants are so few, then there would be no economic problem.
• But this situation can never exist.
• Resources are always scarce and our wants are numerous.
  Hence in every society certain choices have to be made.

The Economic Problem :

• Wants, desires; unlimited
• Resources: Scarce – Not freely available
• Economic choice
• Economics – How people use scarce resources to satisfy unlimited wants.

What and how much to produce?
Every society must decide on what goods it will produce and how much of these it will produce.

In this process, the crucial decisions include:

• Whether to produce more of food, clothing and housing or to have more luxury goods.
• Whether to have more agricultural goods or to have industrial goods and services.
• Whether to use more resources in military services.
• Whether to have more consumption goods or to have investment goods.
• Whether to spend more on basic education or higher education.

How to produce?
Every society has to decide whether it will use labour – intensive technology on capital intensive technology; that is whether to use more labour and less more machines and vice versa.

For whom to produce?

• Every society must also decide how its produce be distributed among the different sections of the society.
• It must also decide who gets more and who gets less?
• It should also decide whether or not a minimum amount of consumption be ensured for everyone in the society.
• Due to the scarcity of resources, a society faces the compulsion of making choice among alternatives.
• It face the problem of allocating the scare resources to the production of different possible goods and services and of distributing the produced goods and services among individuals within the economy.

[OR]

(b) List out the properties of iso-quants with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Properties of Iso-quant Curve:

1. The iso-quant curve has negative slope.
It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output. In the diagram combination A refers to more of capital K5 and less of labour L2. As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin.
This explains the concept of diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTSlk). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of iso-quant curve.

This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the iso-quant is convex to the origin.

3. Non inter-section of Iso-quant curves.
For instance, point A lie on the isoquants IQ₁ and IQ₂ But the point C shows a higher output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁ If C = A, B = A, then C = B. But C > B which is illogical.

4. An upper iso-quant curve represents a higher level of output.
Higher IQS show higher outputs and lower IQ_s show lower outputs, for upper iso-quant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve. ‘
The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an iso-quant curve.

5. Iso-quant curve does not touch either X axis or Y axis.
No iso-quant curve touches the X axis or Y axis because in IQ₁ only capital is used, and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

Question 43.
(a) Bring out features of perfect competition.
Answer:
Features of the perfect competition:
(0 Large Number of Buyers and sellers

• “A large number of buyers” implies that each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market.
• This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product.
• He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker ‘
• Large number of sellers” implies that share of each individual seller is a very very small quantum of a product.
• No power to fix the price of the product.

(ii) Homogeneous Product and Uniform Price

• The product sold and bought is homogeneous in nature, in the sense that the units of the product are perfectly substitutable.
• All the units of the product are identical i.e., of the same size, shape, colour, quality etc.
• Therefore, a uniform price prevails in the market.

(iii) Free Entry and Exit

• In the short run, it is possible for the very efficient producer, producing the product at a very low cost, to earn super normal profits.
• An inefficient producer, who is unable to bring down the cost incurs loss.

(iv) Absence of Transport Cost
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost.

(v) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production

• The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the perfect mobility of the factors of production.
• As they enjoy perfect freedom to move from one place to another and from one occupation to another, the price gets adjusted.

(vi) Perfect Knowledge of the Market
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price etc.

(vii) No Government Intervention
There is no government regulation on supply of raw materials, and in the determination of price etc.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Marginal productivity theory of distribution.
Answer:
Introduction:

• This theory was developed by Clark, Wickseed and Walras . The Marginal productivity theory of Distribution explains how the prices of various factors of production are determined.
• This theory explains how rent, wages, Interest and profit are determined.
• This theory is also known as “ General Theory of Distribution ” or “ National Dividend Theory of Distribution”.

Assumptions:

• All the factors of production are homogenous.
• Factors of production can be substituted for each other.
• There is perfect competition both in the factor market and product market.
• There is perfect mobility of factors of production.
• There is full employment of factors.
• This theory is applicable only in the long – run.
• The entrepreneurs aim at profit maximization!
• There is no government intervention in fixing the price of a factor.
• There is no technological change. ,

Explanation of the theory:
According to the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution, the price or the reward for any factor of production is equal to the marginal productivity of that factor. Each factor is rewarded according to its marginal productivity.

Marginal Product:
The Marginal Product is also known as “ Marginal Physical Product “ [MPP]. The Marginal Product of a factor of production means the addition made to total product by employment of an additional unit of that factor. The Marginal Product may be expressed as MPP, VMP and MRP.

• Marginal Physical product [MPP]: The Marginal Physical Product of a factor is the increment in the total product obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
• Value of a marginal product [VMP]: The Value of Marginal Product is obtained by multiplying the marginal physical product of the factor by the price of product. Symbolically VMP = MPP x Price
• Marginal Revenue product : [MRP]: The Marginal Revenue Product of a factor is the increment in the total revenue which is obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
  MRP = MPP x MR

The Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution states that

• The price of a factor of production depends upon its productivity.
• The price of a factor is determined by and will be equal to marginal revenue product of that factor.
• Under certain conditions the price of a factor will be equal to both the average and marginal products of that factor.

Question 44.
(a) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness.
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
(i) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(ii) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts. ‘

(iii) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(iv) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding
of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

[OR]

(b) Explain shift in the demand curve.
Answer:
A shift in the demand curve occurs with a change in the value of a variable other than its price in the general demand function. An increase or decrease in demand due to changes in conditions of demand is shown by way of shifts in the demand curve.

On the left hand side of the diagram, the original demand curve is dd, the price is OP, and the quantity demanded is P₃. Due to change in the conditions of demand (change in income, taste or change in prices of substitutes and /or complements) the quantity . demanded decreases from OQ₁ to OQ₂. This is shown in the demand curve to the left side new demand curve is d₁d₁,. This is called decrease in demand.

On the right hand side of the diagram, the original price is OP₁ and the quantity demanded is OQ₁ . Due to changes in other conditions, the quantity purchased has increased to OQ₂ Thus the demand curve shifts to the right d₁d₁. This is called increase in demand.

‘Extension’ and ‘Contraction’ of demand follow a change in price. Increases and decreases in demand take place when price remains the same and the other factors bring about demand changes.

Question 45.
(a) What is Duopoly and characteristics of Duopoly?
Answer:
Duopoly is a special case of the theory of oligopoly in which there are only two sellers. Both the sellers are completely independent and no agreement exists between them. Even though they are independent, a change in the price and output of one will affect the other, and may set a chain of reactions. A seller may, however, assume that his rival is unaffected by what he does, in that case he takes only his own direct influence on the price.

Characteristics of Duopoly:

• Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
• Both sellers may collude (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
• They may enter into cut-throat competition.
• There is no product differentiation. .
• They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution.
Answer:
Introduction:

• This theory was developed by Clark, Wickseed and Walras. The Marginal productivity theory of Distribution explains how the prices of various factors of production are determined.
• This theory explains how rent, wages, Interest and profit are determined.
• This theory is also known as “General Theory of Distribution” or “National Dividend Theory of Distribution”.

Assumptions:

• All the factors of production are homogenous.
• Factors of production can be substituted for each other.
• There is perfect competition both in the factor market and product market.
• There is perfect mobility of factors of production.
• There is full employment of factors.
• This theory is applicable only in the long – run.
• The entrepreneurs aim at profit maximization.
• There is no government intervention in fixing the price of a factor.
• There is no technological change.

Explanation of the theory:
According to the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution, the price or the reward for any factor of production is equal to the marginal productivity of that factor. Each factor is rewarded according to its marginal productivity.

Marginal Product:
The Marginal Product is also known as “ Marginal Physical Product “ [MPPJ. The Marginal Product of a factor Of production means the addition made to total product by employment of an additional unit of that factor. The Marginal Product may be expressed as MPP, VMP and MRP.

• Marginal Physical Product [MPP]: The Marginal Physical Product of a factor is the increment in the total product obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
• Value of a Marginal Product [VMP]: The Value of Marginal Product is obtained by multiplying the marginal physical product of the factor by the price of product. Symbolically VMP = MPP x Price
• Marginal Revenue Product: [MRP]: The Marginal Revenue Product of a factor is the increment in the total revenue which is obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
  MRP = MPP x MR

The Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution states that

• The price of a factor of production depends upon its productivity.
• The price of a factor is determined by and will be equal to marginal revenue product of that factor.
• Under certain conditions the price of a factor will be equal to both the average and marginal products of that factor.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs.
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
• The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• Geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

[OR]

(b) Describe the qualitative aspects of population.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore against India’s 121 crore as per 2011 censes. Tamil Nadu’s population is higher than that of several countries according to UN report. Tamil Nadu population 7.2 [crores] in 2017.

Density:

• The density of population which measures population per sq.km is 555 [2011] against 480 [2001],
• Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density among the Indian States and overall it is 382 for India.

Urbanisation:

• Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of urban population against 31.5% for • India as a whole.
• The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites irt India against 6% share of total population.
• Sex Ratio [Numbers of female per 1000 males],
• Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in quality of life of female population.
• The sex ratio in Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which is far better compared to most of the states and all India level.
• Tamil Nadu stands third next only to Kerala State and Puducherry Union Territory in sex ratio.

Question 47.
(a) Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of production possibility curve.
Answer:
The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, is known as production possibility curve. Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice
along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another, assuming a given state of technology and given total resources.

The explanation arid analysis of production possibility curve is based upon certain assumptions, some of them are following:

• The time period does not change. It remains the same throughout the curve.
• Techniques of production are fixed.
• There is full employment in the economy.
• Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
• Resources of production are fully mobile.
• The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
• The low of diminishing returns operates in production.

Every production possibility curve is based upon these assumptions. If some of these assumptions changes or negelected, then it affects the nature of production possibility curve.

To draw this curve we take the help of production possibilities schedule, as shown below.
Production possibilities schedule

The schedule suggests that if all resources are thrown into the production of food, a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

We can obtain a production possibility curve by drawing production possibilities schedule graphically. The quantity of food is shown on x-axis and the number of cars is shown on y-axis, the different six production possibilities are being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆

Problems of the economy

1. The problem of choice:
The problem of choice arise because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants, may relate to the allocation of resources between the goods for the higher income group and the lower income group and the goods for the defense and the civilians. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arises when we choose any point on PPC.

2. Solution of central problems:
The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC. The solution of problem of what to produce involves the decision regarding the choice of location on the production possibility carves. A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and inefficient combination of resources.

[OR]

(b) What are the properties of indifference curve?
Answer:
Indifference curves are subjective and unique to each person nevertheless they have in common the following properties:

1. Indifference curve must have negative slope:
An indifference curve has a negative slope, which denotes that if the quantity of ‘ commodity (y) decreases, the quantity of the other (x) must increase, if the consumer is to stay on the same level of satisfaction.

2. Indifference curves are convex to the origin:
Indifference curves are not only negatively sloped, but are also convex to the origin.
The convexity of the indifference curves implies that not only two commodities are substitutes for each other but also the fact that the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) between the goods decreases as a consumer moves along an indifference curve.

3. Indifference curve cannot intersect:
IC₁ is lower indifference curve denoting lesser satisfaction. Combination C and B fall on IC₁
IC₂ is upper indifference curve denoting higher satisfaction. C and A combinations are on IC₂
At the point of intersection, C = B on IC₁ and C = A on IC₂. So A = B whereas, A is in upper IC and B is on lower IC.
This is not possible.

4. Indifference curves do not touch the horizontal or vertical axis.
If they touch the axis, it violates the basic assumption that the consumer purchases two commodities in a combination.