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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Financial position of a business is ascertained on the basis of ________.
(a) Journal
(b) Trial balance
(c) Balance Sheet
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(c) Balance Sheet

Question 2.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

Question 3.
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books” is said by
(a) R.N.Carter
(b) Menhar
(c) J.R.Batlibai
(d) Kohler
Answer:
(c) J.R.Batlibai

Question 4.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by ______.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Accountant General of India
(c) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(d) The Cost and Management Accountant of India
Answer:
(d) The Cost and Management Accountant of India

Question 5.
Outstanding wages is a ________.
(a) Nominal account
(b) Personal account
(c) Real account
(d) Representative personal account
Answer:
(d) Representative personal account

Question 6.
The process of finding the net amount from the totals of debit and credit columns in a ledger is known as ______.
(a) Casting
(b) Posting
(c) Journalising
(d) Balancing
Answer:
(d) Balancing

Question 7.
The total of the debit column is short by ₹ 500 in the trial balance. This difference will be _____.
(a) Debited to suspense account
(b) Credited to suspense account
(c) Adjusted to any of the debit balance
(d) Adjusted to any of the credit balance
Answer:
(a) Debited to suspense account

Question 8.
Purchase of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in:
(a) Purchases book
(b) Sales book
(c) Purchases returns book
(d) Journal proper
Answer:
(d) Journal proper

Question 9.
In Triple column cash book, the balance of bank overdraft brought forward will appear in ______.
(a) Cash column credit side
(b) Cash column debit side
(c) Bank column debit side
(d) Bank column credit side
Answer:
(d) Bank column credit side

Question 10.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the help of ______.
(a) Bank statement
(b) Petty Cash book
(c) Cash book
(d) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book
Answer:
(d) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book

Question 11.
The total of purchases book was undercast. Which of the following accounts should be credited in the rectifying journal entry?
(a) Purchases account
(b) Creditors account
(c) Suspense account
(d) Debtors account
Answer:
(c) Suspense account

Question 12.
The difference in trial balance is taken to _______.
(a) The capital account
(b) The trading account
(c) The suspense account
(d) The profit and loss account
Answer:
(c) The suspense account

Question 13.
Under the written down value method of depreciation, the amount of depreciation is ________.
(a) Decreasing every year
(b) Uniform in all the years
(c) Increasing every year
(d) Fluctuating every year
Answer:
(a) Decreasing every year

Question 14.
Advertisement expenses amounted to ₹ 5 crores to introduce a new product is _______.
(a) Capital expenditure
(b) Revenue expenditure
(c) Deferred revenue expenditure
(d) Capital receipt
Answer:
(b) Revenue expenditure

Question 15.
Short term loan is ________.
(a) Liquid liability
(b) Current liability
(c) Fixed liability
(d) Contingent liability
Answer:
(b) Current liability

Question 16.
Bank overdraft should be shown ________.
(a) In the trading account
(b) On the assets side
(c) Profit and Loss account
(d) On the liabilities side
Answer:
(d) On the liabilities side

Question 17.
Closing stock is valued at _______.
(a) Cost price
(b) Market price
(c) Cost price or market price whichever is higher
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower
Answer:
(d) Cost price or net realisable value whichever is lower

Question 18.
Prepaid salary will be shown on _______.
(a) Debit side of trading account
(b) Assets side of Balance sheet
(c) Debit side of profit and loss account
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 19.
One of the limitations of computerised accounting system is ________.
(a) System failure
(b) Accuracy
(c) Versatility
(d) Storage
Answer:
(a) System failure

Question 20.
Accounting software is an example of _______.
(a) Utility software
(b) System software
(c) Application software
(d) Operating software
Answer:
(c) Application software

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Complete the accounting equation


Answer:

Question 22.
Prepare Furniture A/c from the following transactions.

Answer:

Question 23.
Prepare a trial balance with the following information:

Answer:

Question 24.
Enter the following transactions in the Purchases book of M/s. Subhashree Home Appliances.

Answer:

Question 25.
What is bank reconciliation statement?
Answer:
If every entry in the cash book matches with the bank statement, then bank balance will be the same in both the records. But, practically it may not be possible. When the balances do not agree with each other, the need for preparing a statement to explain the causes arises. This statement is called bank reconciliation statement (BRS).

Question 26.
Rectify the following errors discovered before the preparation of trial balance:
(a) Returns inward book was undercast by ₹ 1,000
(b) Returns outward book was overcash by ₹ 2,000
Answer:
(a) Returns inward book should be debited ₹ 1,000
(b) Returns outward book should be debited ₹ 2,000

Question 27.
What is annuity method of calculating depreciation?
Answer:
To calculate the amount of depreciation, annuity factor is used. Annuity factor can be found out from the annuity table or by using formula.
Amount of depreciation is computed as follows:
Amount of depreciation = Annuity factor × Original cost of the asset.

Question 28.
What is meant by deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefits of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure.

Question 29.
Write the components of Computerised Accounting System (CAS)?
Answer:
Components of CAS can be classified into six categories, namely,

• Hardware
• Software
• People
• Procedure
• Data
• Connectivity.

Question 30.
The Trial balance as on 31st December 2018 is given below:

Pass adjusting entry for interest on loan outstanding ₹ 10,000
Answer:

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write the objectives of Accounting.
Answer:
Following are the objectives of accounting:

• To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events
• To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise
• To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise
• To provide information to various stakeholders for their requirements
• To protect the properties of an enterprise and
• To ascertain the solvency and liquidity position of an enterprise

Question 32.
In a Business concern “Only monetary transactions are recorded in accounting”. Why?
Answer:
This concept implies that only those transactions, which can be expressed in terms of money, are recorded in the accounts. Since, money serves as the medium of exchange transactions expressed in money are recorded and the ruling currency of a country is the measuring unit for accounting.

Transactions which do not involve money will not be recorded in the books of accounts.
For example, working conditions in the work place, strike by employees, efficiency of the management, etc. will not be recorded in the books, as they cannot be expressed in terms of money.

Question 33.
Complete the missing information:

Answer:

Question 34.
Balan who has a car driving school gives you the following ledger balances. Prepare trial balance as on 31st December, 2016.

Answer:

Question 35.
Prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December, 2017 from the following information:
(a) Balance as per bank statement (pass book) is ₹ 25,000
(b) No record has been made in the cash book for a dishonour of a cheque for ₹ 250
(c) Cheques deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 3,500 were not yet collected
(d) Bank charges of ₹ 300 have not been entered in the cash book.
(e) Cheques issued amounting to ₹ 9,000 have not been presented for payment
Answer:

Question 36.
Calculate the amount of depreciation and depreciation rate from the following by using ‘straight line method’.

Answer:

Note:
Cost of the asset = Purchase price + Transportation cost + Installation cost
= 2,00,000 + 2,000 + 18,000 = ₹ 2,20,000

Question 37.
Write any three differences between capital, revenue and deferred revenue expenditure.
Answer:

Question 38.
From the following details for the year ended 31st March, 2018, prepare trading account:

Answer:

Question 39.
The Trial Balance of Mr.Aravind on 31.3.15 shows capital ₹ 15,00,000. During that year he withdrew ₹ 1,00,000 for his personal use.
Adjustment: Charge interest on drawings at 5%
Pass adjusting entry and transfer entry.
Answer:
Interest on drawings = ₹ 1,00,000 × 5/100 = ₹ 5000. The adjusting entry is:

Question 40.
Pass Adjusting Entries for the following adjustments in the books of Mr.MuraIi.
(a) Closing stock – ₹ 10,000
(b) Interest received in advance – ₹ 5,000
(c) Depreciation on Machinery – ₹ 8,500
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Mrs. Saraswathy is a sole trader dealing in sports items. From the following transactions, pass journal entries for the month of March, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following errors were located after the preparation of the trial balance. Assume that their exists a suspense account. Rectify them.
(i) Bought goods from Lakshmi on credit for ₹ 500. Credited to her account as ₹ 50.
(ii) Purchased machinery for cash ₹ 2,000 was posted to machinery account.
(iii) Salaries ₹ 2,800 were posted as ₹ 18,000
(iv) The total of sales book ₹ 890 was carried forward as ₹ 980
(v) The total of purchase book was undercast by ₹ 1,000
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Show the direct ledger postings for the following transactions:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Enter the following transactions in three column cash book of Mr. Raja.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Prepare accounting equation for the following transactions.

Answer:

(b) From the following information, prepare the necessary subsidiary books for Nalanda Book stores.

Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Ram and Co. purchased on 1st April 2014, a plant and machinery for ₹ 6,50,000 and spend ₹ 50,000 on its installation. After having used it for three years, it was sold for ₹ 4,00,000. Depreciation is to be provided every year at the rate of 15% per annum on the fixed instalment method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Prepare plant and machinery account and depreciation account for three years.
Answer:
Workings:

[OR]

(b) From the following balances obtained from the books of Mr. Ramesh, prepare trading and profit and loss account.

Closing stock on December 31.12.17 was ₹ 10,000/-
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Enter the following transactions in Rahim’s petty cash book with analytical columns under imprest system:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars of Meenakshi Traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st March 2018.
(i) Debit balance as per cash book ₹ 10,500.
(ii) Cheque deposited into bank amounting to ₹ 5,500 credited by bank, but entered twice in the Cash book.
(iiii) Cheques issued and presented for payment amounting to ₹ 7,000 omitted in the cash book.
(iv) Cheque book charges debited by the bank ₹ 200 not recorded in the cash book.
(v) Cash of ₹ 1,000 deposited by a customer of the business in cash deposit machine not recorded in the cash book.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) The following are the extracts from the trial balance:

Additional Information:
(i) Additional bad debts ₹ 5,000
(ii) Provision for bad and doubtful debts @ 5% on sundry debtors.
You are required to pass necessary adjusting entries and show how these items will appear in profit and loss account and balance sheet.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Record the following transactions in the sales book and sales returns book of M/s. Roobini and Co., and post them to ledger.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Consider the following balances, extracted from the books of Jain as on 31st December 2016. Prepare the final accounts.

Adjustments:
(i) Salaries outstanding for December, 2016 amounted to ₹ 600
(ii) Provide depreciation on furniture @ 10% p.a
(iii) Provide Interest on capital for the year @ 5 % p.a
(iv) Stock on 31st December, 2016 ₹ 14,000
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Write the advantages of Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
Advantages of Computerised Accounting System:
The main advantages of computerised accounting system are as follows:

Faster processing: Computers require far less time than human beings in performing a particular task. Therefore, accounting data are processed faster using a computerised accounting system.

Accurate information: There is less space for error because only one account entry is needed for each transaction unlike repeated posting of the same accounting data in manual system.

Reliability: Computer systems are immune to boredom, tiredness or fatigue. Therefore, these can perform repetitive functions effectively and are highly reliable.

Easy availability of information: The data are easily available and Can be communicated to different users at the same time.

Up-to-date information: Account balances will always be up to date since the records are automatically updated as and when accounting data are entered or stored.

Efficiency: The computer based accounting system ensures better use of time and resources.

Storage and retrieval: Computer based systems require a fractional amount of physical space as compared to the books of accounts in the form of journals, ledgers and accounting registers.

Works as a motivator to employees: Employees using computer systems feel more valued as they are trained and specialised for the job.

Automated document production: Accounting reports like trial balance and financial statements are generated automatically and are easily accessible just by a click of the mouse.

MIS Reports: It is easier to monitor and control the business using the real time management reports generated by the computerised information systems.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 10 HTML – Structural Tags Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 10 HTML – Structural Tags

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Structural Tags Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
HTML is acronym for:
(a) Hyper Transfer Markup Language
(b) Hyper Text Markup Language
(c) Hyper Transfer Makeup Language
(d) Hyper Text Makeup Language
Answer:
(b) Hyper Text Markup Language

Question 2.
The coded HTML keywords that indicates how web browser should format and display the content is called:
(a) tags
(b) attribues
(c) headings
(d) body
Answer:
(a) tags

Question 3.
Which of the following is a special word used inside tag to specify additional information to the tag?
(a) Tags
(b) Attributes
(c) Headings
(d) Body
Answer:
(a) Tags

Question 4.
HTML tags should be specified within:
(a) [ ]
(b) { }
(c) ( )
(d) <>
Answer:
(d) <>

Question 5.
An HTML document is bounded within a pair of …………………….. tags.
(a) <body> ……………… </body>
(b) <title> ………………. </title>
(c) <html> …………………. </html>
(d) <head> ……………….. </head>
Answer:
(c) <html> …………………. </html>

Question 6.
Which of the following symbol is used to define a closing tag?
(a) < >
(b) %
(c) !
(d) \
Answer:
(c) !

Question 7.
Which section of the browser window displays the main contents?
(a) Head
(b) Body
(c) Title
(d) Heading
Answer:
(b) Body

Question 8.
Which of the following tag is a structural tag?
(a) <html>
(b) <hl>
(c) <br>
(d) <p>
Answer:
(a) <html>

Question 9.
In HTML, colours are represented as:
(a) binary values
(b) octal values
(c) decimal values
(d) hexadecimal values
Answer:
(d) hexadecimal values

Question 10.
Which of the following symbol is used to prefix with hexadecimal value representing colour in HTML?
(a) %
(b) #
(c) @
(d) &
Answer:
(b) #

Question 11.
Which of the following attribute is used to change text colour within body tag?
(a) Bgcolor
(b) Background
(c) Text
(d) Color
Answer:
(c) Text

Question 12.
Within body section, which of the following attribute is used to set top margin?
(a) Margin
(b) Top
(c) Topmargin
(d) Leftmargin
Answer:
(c) Topmargin

Question 13.
How many levels of heading tags available in HTML?
(a) 6
(b) 4
(c) 8
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 14.
The tag used to insert a line break:
(a) <hl>
(b) <br>
(c) <html>
(d) <p>
Answer:
(b) <br>

Question 15.
The tag used to define a paragraph in HTML:
(a) <para>
(b) <p>
(c) <q>
(d) <br>
Answer:
(b) <p>

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Sandhiya is creating a webpage. She is entering HTML code on her computer. In between, she keeps pressing “Refresh” / “Reload” button on her browser. What is the purpose?
Answer:
Click ‘Refresh’ from Internet Explorer (or) ‘Reload’ from firefox on the address bar (or) Press Ctrl + R (or) F5 will be used to ‘Refresh’ / ‘Reload’ the modification of the source file and save the file.

Question 2.
Explain with the help of an example the difference between container and empty elements of HTML?
Answer:
Container Elements:
The tags which are required opening and closing is known as container elements or tags.
Eg: <html>, <body>, <title>, <p> etc…

Empty Elements:
The tags which are required only opening tag is known as empty elements or tags. Eg: <br>

Question 3.
What is the wrong in the following coding?
Answer:
<html>
<my web page>
<title>
Welcome to my web page
</head>
</title>
<html>
<head>
<title> My web page </title>
</head>
<body> Welcome to my web page
</body>
</html>

Question 4.
How do you define comments in HTML?
Answer:
Comments are used to describe the page or provide some kind of indication of the status of the page. The tag <!> is used to create comments. In HTML, the text what you type within this tag is considered as comments and it is ignored by the browser.

Comments never show up on screen. Comments can be placed anywhere in HTML document.
The general form of comments:
<! comments >

Question 5.
How do you include an image as your web page background?
Answer:
An image or picture can be applied as background to a webpage. When you insert an image as background, the text will be displayed on top of the image. Background images can be a texture or bitmap or even a photo.
The tag to apply an image as background:
<body background = “image_name_ with_extenstiori”>

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain the attributes available with <body> tag?
Answer:
The <body> tag defines the document’s body. The contents of an HTML page reside within the <body> tag. <body> tag contains several attributes background color of the browser can be changed by using bgcolor tag.

(ii) Body text Colour: text = color
The default text colour of body section is “black”, it is often called as automatic color. Text attribute within body tag is used to change the text colour.
The tag to change body text colour:
<body text = color_name/color_code>

(iii) Background image: background = image
An image or picture can be applied as background to a webpage. When you insert an image as background, the text will be displayed on top of the image. Background images can be a texture or bitmap or even a photo.

The tag to apply an image as background:
<body background = “image_name_ with_extenstion”>
Eg: If the image file is somewhere in a folder (say Images folder in E: drive), you must specify its full path within double quotes as given below.
<body background = “E:\Images.\flower01. gif “>

(iv) Setting Margins: margin = value
The margin refers the blank area from left or top edge of the browser window. Generally there is no default margin setting in any browser. If you want to leave some space as margin to left or top; left margin or top margin attributes will be used respectively.
The tag to specify the left and top margin:
<body left margin value top margin = value>
The Value is referred as pixels (72 pixels to an inch).

Question 2.
What are the attributes available in <html> tags?
Answer:
Attributes of <html> tag:
The <html> tag is used to specify the beginning and closing of an HTML document. This tag does not have any effect on appearance of document. This is only used to make browsers and other programs, known that this is an HTML document.
<html> tag has two attributes viz. dir and lang to specify the text direction and language setting respectively.

Question 3.
How do you view the source file?
Answer:
Source file is an HTML document, what you actually type in text editor (Notepad or getit). You can view your original source file in the browser. The following steps are to be followed to view a source file.

1. Right click on the browser
2. Select View Page Source (Firefox and Chrome)/ View Source (Internet Explorer) or Press Ctrl + U (all browser)
3. Source file will be displayed.
4. In Internet Explorer, View → Source is also used to open source file.

Question 4.
How do you save a file as HTML file?
Answer:

1. Click File → Save (or) Press Ctrl + S
2. Save as dialog box appears.
3. In “File Name” text box, type a file name with .htm or .html extension.
4. Select “All Files” from “Save as type” listbox.
5. Click “Save” button.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Structural Tags Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
HTML is a:
(a) word processing
(b) programming language
(c) markup language
(d) high level language
Answer:
(c) markup language

Question 2.
HTML made up of:
(a) tags
(b) comments
(c) modify
(d) symbols
Answer:
(a) tags

Question 3.
The <title> tag contains the:
(a) title of the document
(b) beginning document
(c) body of the document
(d) end of the document
Answer:
(a) title of the document

Question 4.
To write the HTML coding using text editor is:
(a) MS-Word
(b) Notepad
(c) StarWriter
(d) Open Source Editor
Answer:
(b) Notepad

Question 5.
What is the shortcut key used to save the HTML file?
(a) Ctrl + S
(b) Ctrl + A
(c) Ctrl + W
(d) Ctrl + Q
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + S

Question 6.
What is the extension of the HTML file name while saving the document?
(a) .htm or html
(b) .htm or.doc
(c) .html or .xls
(d) .html or .bar
Answer:
(a) .htm or html

Question 7.
How can you save the HTML file from the menu?
(a) Open → Save
(b) File → Save
(c) Edit → Save
(d) Tools → Save
Answer:
(b) File → Save

Question 8.
How can you open the text editor from Windows 7?
(a) Start → All programs → Accessories → Notepad
(b) Start → All programs → MSOffice → MS-Word
(c) Start → All programs → Application → Notepad
(d) Start → All programs → Accessories → Start Writer
Answer:
(a) Start → All programs → Accessories → Notepad

Question 9.
How can you open the text editor from the Linux?
(a) Applications → All programs → Text editor
(b) Applications → Accessories → Text editor
(c) Applications → Accessories → Notepad
(d) Applications → Accessories → MS-Word
Answer:
(b) Applications → Accessories → Text editor

Question 10.
What is the short cut key used to open the file?
(a) Ctrl + O
(b) Alt + O
(c) Ctrl + A
(d) Alt + A
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + O

Question 11.
How can you open the file name from the menu?
(a) File → Browse
(b) File → Open
(c) Edit → Browse
(d) Edit → Open
Answer:
(b) File → Open

Question 12.
Getitisa:
(a) software
(b) hardware
(c) text editor
(d) document
Answer:
(c) text editor

Question 13.
What is the shortcut key used to view the source file?
(a) Ctrl + V
(b) Ctrl + O
(c) Ctrl + R
(d) Ctrl + U
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + U

Question 14.
How can you open the source file from the Internet Explorer?
(a) File → source
(b) View → source
(c) Edit → source
(d) Tools → source
Answer:
(b) View → source

Question 15.
Which function key is used to refresh / reload the modification?
(a) F2
(b) F3
(c) F4
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 16.
What is the combination of shortcut key that is used to refresh/reload the modification?
(a) Ctrl + R
(b) Ctrl + M
(c) Ctrl + A
(d) Ctrl + V
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + R

Question 17.
How many attributes has <html> tag?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 18.
What is the default background colour of the browsers to display the text?
(a) Black
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Red
Answer:
(c) White

Question 19.
What is the Hexadecimal value for black colour?
(a) #000000
(b) #0000FF
(c) #008000
(d) #FFfiOOO
Answer:
(a) #000000

Question 20.
How many colours are supported for modem browsers?
(a) 150
(b) 140
(c) 130
(d) 120
Answer:
(b) 140

Question 21.
What is the default text colour of body section?
(a) White
(b) Black
(c) Blue
(d) Red
Answer:
(b) Black

Question 22.
What should be specified while including the image file name in the body background?
(a) within double quotes
(b) within single quotes
(c) within underlined
(d) within bolded
Answer:
(a) within double quotes

Question 23.
How many pixels to an inch?
(a) 62
(b) 12
(c) 64
(d) 74
Answer:
(b) 12

Question 24.
Which tag is included within the head tag?
(a) Body
(b) Head
(c) Title
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Title

Question 25.
What is the default alignment of the heading section?
(a) Left
(b) Right
(c) Centre
(d) Justify
Answer:
(a) Left

Question 26.
Which tag is used for line break?
(a) <br>
(b) <hl>
(c) <LI>
(d) <p>
Answer:
(a) <br>

Question 27.
Which tag is used to create comments in the HTML?
(a) <#>
(b) <!>
(c) <*>
(d) <@>
Answer:
(b) <!>

Question 28.
How many types are classified in the HTML elements?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 29.
An application to view web pages or websites:
(a) editor
(b) browser
(c) web page
(d) note pad
Answer:
(b) browser

Question 30.
Which is the default browser available with Linux?
(a) Chrome
(b) Internet explorer
(c) Getit
(d) Mozilla firefox
Answer:
(d) Mozilla firefox

II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is a HTML?
Answer:
HTML is a special markup language used to create web pages. This language tells the browsers, how to display the text, images, animations and other contents of a hypertext document on the screen. The language also tells how to make a document interactive through special hyper links.

Question 2.
How can you open the text editor?
Answer:
Open a text editor in,
Windows7:
Start → All Programs → Accessories → Notepad

Linux:
Applications → Accessories → Text Editor

Question 3.
What are attributes in HTML?
Answer:
Attributes are special words used inside a tag to specify additional information to a tag. Attributes should be placed within the opening tag. Most of the tags support specialized attributes and there are also a few global elements that can be used with any tag.

Question 4.
How can you identify the colour combination of Hexadecimal value?
Answer:
The six digit hexadecimal value is the combinations of three, two digit number sequence represent a color. First two digits represent Red, next two digits for Green and last two digits for Blue (RGB) in the range of 00 – FF. Eg: 000000 is black and FFFFFF is white. FF0000 is bright red. You can try out different combinations of these values to get variety of colors.

Question 5.
What is the use of Align attribute?
Answer:
Align is an attribute to set right; center and justify alignment to headings. Left is the default alignment, so that it is not supported in latest version of HTML. Justify alignment is not supported by older browsers. The tag is to specify the alignment to headings: <h# align = value>

Question 6.
What is meant by Browser application?
Answer:
Browser applications are having some special rules for displaying text. They do not recognize returns, tabs or even more than one space between words. If you create an HTML document with multiple lines of text, browser will display it as a single line.

Question 7.
What is the use of <br> tag?
Answer:
The <br> tag is used for line break. The <br> is an empty tag, does not have close tag and attribute. It should be placed at the end of a line.

Question 8.
How can you create paragraphs in HTML?
Answer:
In HTML, paragraphs are created using the <pl> tag. The content what you type between <p> and </p> is identified as a paragraph and display as a paragraph by the browser. Because, the browser does not recognize returns (Pressing “Enter” Key).

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
How can you open web page in a browser?
Answer:
Step 1:
Open a Browser (Internet Explorer / Mozilla Firefox or any)

Step 2:
Click File Open File (or) Press Ctrl + O

Step 3:
From the “Open” dialog box, browse the folder in which the HTML document is saved. Choose the File name and click “Open” button.

Question 2.
How can you change paragraph alignment?
Answer:
In HTML documents, there are four paragraph alignments viz. Left, Right, Center and Justify. The text that you type between <p> and </p> is by default aligned to left.

To change the alignment of a paragraph align attribute can be used with <p> tag. The tag to specify the alignment to paragraphs:
<p align = alignments>
Where alignment can either be Right, Center or Justify. Remember that, left is the default alignment.

IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the general structure of HTML document?
Answer:
All HTML documents should follow this general format:
<html>
<head>
<title> My First Web Page </title>
</head>
<body>
This is my First Web Page
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Write the HTML code to change background and textcolour?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Background Colour change </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor = #FFFF0Q>
This is my browser with different dolour
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
Write the HTML code to set left and top margin?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Setting Margins
</title>
</head>
<body leftmargin = 50
topmargin = 50>
This is my Web page with top and left margin
</body>
</html>

Question 4.
Create a web page to the following specifications?
Answer:
Title:
My first web page </title>
<html>
<head>
<body bgcolor = Lime text
= blue leftmargin
= 72 topmargin = 72>
Welcome to Computer Applications
</body>
</htnfL>

Question 5.
Write the HTML code with headings?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Heading </title>
</head>
<body>
<h1> Welcome to Computer
AppliCation</h1>
<h2> Welcome to Computer
Applicatioh</h2>
<h3> Welcome to Computer Application</h3>
<h4> Welcome to Computer Application</h4>
<h5> Welcome to Computer Application</h5>
<h6> Welcome to Computer Application</h6>
</body>
</html>

Question 6.
What are the basic elements to construct a web page?
Answer:
<html>, <head>, <title> and <body> these four tags are known as structural tags. These tags are basic essential elements to construct a web page.

Question 7.
How can you edit and reload the source file?
Answer:
The following steps are to be followed to open a source file.

1. Go to the folder in which your source files are located.
2. According to your default browser, your source file icon is displayed.
3. Right click on the source file that you want to edit.
4. From the pop-up menu, select Open With → Notepad
5. Source file will be opened in text editor
6. Make the changes and save the file using File → Save or Ctrl + S.

Reload/ Refresh the changes:

1. After modify and save the source file, minimize your source file.
2. Go to the browser.
3. Click Refresh (Internet Explorer) / Reload Current Page (Firefox)/Reload this page (Chrome) icons on the address bar.
4. Press Ctrl + R or F5 will toe used to refresh / reload the modifications.

Question 8.
Explain the two attributes of <html> tag?
Answer:
<html> tag has two attributes viz, dir and land to specify the text direction and language setting respectively.

Question 9.
Write any 10 some basic colour names with Hexadecimal code?
Answer:

Question 10.
Write the HTML code with heading and align attributes?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Heading </title>
</head>
<body>
<hl align=center> Welcome to Computer Application </h1>
<h2 align=right> Welcome to Computer Application </h2>
</body>
</html>

Question 11.
Write the HTML code to apply an image as background?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Image as background </title>
</head>
<body background = “flowerOl. gif”>
This is my browser with an image as background
</body>
</html>

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 9 Introduction to Internet and Email Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 9 Introduction to Internet and Email

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Internet and Email Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
What is the expansion of WLAN?
(a) Wireless Local Area Network
(b) Wired Local Area Network
(c) Wireless Local Area Netware
(d) Wireless Area Netbande
Answer:
(a) Wireless Local Area Network

Question 2.
Range of Campus Network is:
(a) 10 KM
(b) 5 KM
(c) 25 KM
(d) 20 KM
Answer:
(b) 5 KM

Question 3.
Each computer on net is called:
(a) host
(b) server
(c) workstation
(d) node
Answer:
(a) host

Question 4.
The Internet is governed by:
(a) ICANM
(b) ICANN
(c) ICMA
(d) ICNNA
Answer:
(b) ICANN

Question 5.
Expansion of W3C:
(a) World Wide Web Consortium
(b) Wide World Web Consortium
(c) World Web Wide Consortium
(d) World Wide Web Consortium
Answer:
(a) World Wide Web Consortium

Question 6.
W3C was established in 1994 by:
(a) Tim Berners-Lee
(b) Tim Bumard-Lee
(c) Kim Berners
(d) Kim Bernard-Lee
Answer:
(a) Tim Berners-Lee

Question 7.
Hotspot uses which type of network services?
(a) LAN
(b) PAN
(c) WLAN
(d) CAN
Answer:
(c) WLAN

Question 8.
USB WiFi adapters are often called as:
(a) data card
(b) pen drive
(c) dongles
(d) memory card
Answer:
(c) dongles

Question 9.
Looking for information on the Internet is called:
(a) surfing
(b) searching
(c) finding
(d) glancing
Answer:
(a) surfing

Question 10.
Safari web browser was developed by:
(a) Google
(b) Apple
(c) Microsoft
(d) Linux Corpn
Answer:
(b) Apple

Question 11.
How many types of websites are available?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 2

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
List any four types of available networks. Depending upon geographical area covered by a network, it is classified as:
Answer:

1. Local Area Network (LAN)
2. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
3. Wide Area Network (WAN)
4. Personal Area Network (PAN)
5. Campus Area Network (CAN)
6. Wireless Local Area Network (W-LAN)

Question 2.
Name the two important protocols for Internet?
Answer:
The Internet is a globally connected network system that uses TCP/IP (Transmission Control Protocol/Intemet Protocol) to transmit data via various types of media.

Question 3.
What is a network?
Answer:
A network is a collection of interconnected devices. (Eg: Computers, printers, etc…).

Question 4.
What is the role of ICANN ?
Answer:
Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN) administers the domain name registration. It helps to avoid a name which is already registered.

Question 5.
What is a search engine?
Answer:
A search engine is a software system that is designed to search for information on the World Wide Web.
Eg: Yahoo, Lycos, Altavista, Hotbot, Google and Askjeeves.

Question 6.
What is a browser?
Answer:
A web browser is a software application for accessing information on the World-Wide Web. Eg: Internet Explorer, Chrome, Firefox, etc…

Question 7.
What are the components of url addressing?
Answer:

1. Protocol
2. Sub-domain
3. Domain
4. Top level domain.

Eg:

Question 8.
What is a website?
Answer:
A website is a collection of webpages.
Eg: If there is a company that owns sricompany. com then this Website will have several Webpages like Home, About Us, Contact Us, Testimonials, Products, Services, FAQ’s and others.

Question 9.
What is CC and BCC in an email?
Answer:
The CC (Carbon Copy) field allows you to specify recipients who are not direct addressees (listed in the “To” field). This field is optional. The BCC (Blind Carbon Copy) field is similar to CC, except the recipients are secret. Each BCC recipient will receive the e-mail, but will not see who else received a copy.

Question 10.
What is a Static Web Page?
Answer:
Web pages are called Static websites as they remain the same whenever it is visited. Examples of static Websites are website owned by Small business organizations, School websites etc…

Question 11.
What is a Dynamic Web Page?
Answer:
Websites that displays marks of Public Examinations and Entrance Examinations changes when different register numbers are given. Such websites are called as Dynamic Websites.
Eg: Websites of Government and Entrance Exams.

Question 12.
What are the benefits of e-governance?
Answer:

1. Reduced corruption,
2. High transparency,
3. Increased convenience,
4. Reduction in overall cost,
5. Expanded reach of government.

Question 13.
What is Phishing?
Answer:
Phishing scams are fraudulent attempts by cyber criminals to obtain private information. Phishing scams often appear in the guise of email messages designed to appear as though they are from legitimate sources. For example, the message would try to lure you into giving your personal information by pretending that your bank.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate PAN and CAN network?
Answer:
PAN:

1. Personal Area Network, its ranges upto 100 meters.
2. Speed upto 250 Kbps.
3. Hotspot may connect upto 8 devices.

CAN:

1. Campus Area Network, its range upto 5 km.
2. Speed upto 40 Kb/s to 1 MB/s.
3. High Bandwdith Multi- departmental Network access.

Question 2.
What is TCP/IP?
Answer:
The Internet uses TCP/IP (Transmission Control) to transmit data via various types of media. TCP/IP is not a single networking protocol. It is a suite of protocols named after the two most important protocols or layers within it TCP and IP. As with any form of communication, two things are needed: a message to transmit and the me to reliably transmit the message.

Question 3.
Write a note on Hotspot Internet service?
Answer:
Hotspots are sites that offer Internet access over a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) by way of a router that then connects to an Internet service provider.

Hotspots utilize Wi-Fi technology, which allows electronic devices to connect to the Internet or exchange data wirelessly through radio waves. Hotspots can be phone-based or free-standing, commercial or free to the public.

Question 4.
Differentiate Data Card and Dongles?
Answer:
Data card:
It is a removable electronic card which is used for storing data. Types of datacard are –

1. Expansion Card
2. Memory Card or Flash Card
3. Identification Card

Dongle:
Refers to any removable component used for enabling extra security. USB Dongles can be divided into

1. Wi-Fi Dongles
2. BlueTooth Dongle
3. Memory Dongle

Question 5.
Write a note on two access methods of connecting to Internet?
Answer:
There are two access methods Direct and Indirect and these can be either fixed or mobile.

Indirect Access:
This is most common method used in home and office networks.

The device (Eg: Computer) connects to a network using Ethernet or Wi-Fi and the network connects to the Internet using Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line ADSL (cable or fibre.)

Direct Access:
This is most common method used when travelling. The device (Eg: smart phone) connects directly to the Internet using 3G/4G mobile networks or public Wi-Fi.

Question 6.
Differentiate browser and a search engine with suitable examples?
Answer:
Browser:

1. A browser is used to access website and web pages.
2. A browser is used to access the Internet.
3. Eg: Internet explorer, Chrome and Firefox.

Search Engine:

1. A search engine is used to search for particular information.
2. A search engine to search for information on the World Wide Web.
3. Eg: Yahoo, Lycos, Altavista and Google.

Question 7.
Differentiate Website and Webpage?
Answer:
Webpage:

1. Consists of a Single document displayed by a browser.
2. Shares a unique domain name.
3. Makes up a website.
4. Static web pages directly run on the browser and do not require any server side application program.
5. Static Web pages are easy to develop.

Website:

1. A collection of multiple documents displayable by a browser.
2. Has its own unique domain name .
3. Contains one or more webpages.
4. Dynamic web pages runs on the server side application programs and displays the results.
5. Dynamic web page development requires programming skills.

Question 9.
Write a note on W3C?
Answer:
W3C stands for “World Wide Web Consortium.” The W3C is an international community that includes a full-time staff, industry experts, and several member organizations. These groups work together to develop standards for the World Wide Web.

It is made up of several hundred member organizations from a variety of related IT industries. W3C sets standards for the World Wide Web (WWW) to facilitate better communication ability and cooperation among all web stakeholders.

Question 10.
What are Advantages of e-mail?
Answer:
(i) Free delivery:
Sending an e-mail is virtually free, outside the cost of Internet service. There is no need to buy a postage stamp to send a letter.

(ii) Global delivery:
E-mail can be sent to nearly anywhere around the world, to any country.

(iii) Instant delivery:
An e-mail can be instantly sent and received by the recipient over the Internet.

(iv) File attachment:
An e-mail can include one or more file attachments, allowing a person to send documents, pictures, or other files with an e-mail.

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Compare the different geographical types of Network?
Answer:
(I) LAN -Local Area Network:

1. Range:
Upto 10 Km.

2. Location:
Refers to same office, same building, same company and in same schools.

3. Speed:
Upto 10-100 Mbps.

4. Advantages:
Low Cost, Resource Sharing, Security.

5. Disadvantages:
Area Covered Limited. When number of nodes increases, performance decreases.

(II) MAN – Metropolitan Area Network:

1. Range:
10 to 15 Miles.

2. Location:
MAN is a network designed to extend over an entire city.

3. Speed:
Upto 5-10 Mbps.

4. Advantages:
Wider than LAN.

5. Disadvantages:
Data rate is slow compared to LAN and Cost is higher than LAN.

(III) WAN – Wide Area Network:
Range: Above 1000 Kms.

1. Location:
It Span entire countries and continents.

2. Speed:
Upto 256 Kbps to 2 Mbps. Advantages: Large geographical Area.

3. Disadvantages:
Complicated and Complex, High Cost, Requires high Performance Devices, Low security, Cost is higher than LAN.

(IV) PAN – Personal Area Network:

1. Range:
Upto 100 meters.

2. Location:
Used for shorter distance, controlled by a single person within a single building.

3. Speed:
Upto 250 Kbps.

4. Advantages:
Efficient, Cost effective and convenient. Controlled by a single person. Hotspot may connect upto 8 devices.

5. Disadvantages:
Shorter distance upto 10 meters only. Data rate is low compared to other network.

(V) CAN – Campus Area Network:

1. Range:
Upto 5 Kms.

2. Location:
Larger than LAN, but smaller than MAN. University, school or small business, enterprise.

3. Speed:
40 Kb/s to 1 MB/s

4. Advantages:
Cost effective,Wired or Wireless Network, High Bandwidth Multi-departmental Network access.

5. Disadvantages:
Difficult to manage

(VI) WLAN – Wireless Local Area Network:

1. Range:
Upto 50 Kms

2. Location:
Ranges from a single room to an entire campus: Uses Wi-Fi or Bluetooth, Radio waves.

3. Speed:
1 Mbps to 54 Mbps

4. Advantages:
Portable Installation is quick and easy.

5. Disadvantages:
Low Bandwidth due to interference.

Question 2.
Explain any five types of Internet services?
Answer:
(i) Wireless:
Radio frequency bands are used in place of telephone or cable networks. One of the greatest advantages of wireless Internet connections is the “always-on” connection that can be accessed from any location that falls within network coverage. Wireless connections are made possible through the use of a modem, which picks up Internet signals and sends them to other devices.

(ii) Mobile:
Many cell phone and smartphone providers offer voice plAnswer:w ith Internet access. Mobile Internet connections provide good speeds and allow you to access the Internet.

(iii) Hotspots:
Hotspots are sites that offer Internet access over a Wifeless Local Area Network (WLAN) by way of a router that then connects to an Internet service provider.

Hotspots utilize Wi-Fi technology, which allows electronic devices to connect to the Internet or exchange data wirelessly through radio waves. Hotspots can be phone-based or free-standing, commercial or free to the public.

(iv) Broadband:
This high-speed Internet connection is provided through either cable or telephone companies. One of the fastest options available, broadband Internet uses multiple data channels to send large quantities of information.

The term broadband is shorthand for broad bandwidth. Broadband Internet connections such as DSL and cable are considered high-bandwidth connections. Although many DSL connections can be considered broadband, not all broadband connections are DSL.

(v) DSL:
DSL, which stands for Digital Subscriber Line, uses existing 2-wire copper telephone line connected to one’s home. So service is delivered at the same time as landline telephone service. Customers can still place calls while surfing the Internet.

Question 3.
Explain any five Internet applications with suitable examples?
Answer:
(i) Internet telephony:
Internet telephony (Eg: Skype) is another common communications service made possible by the creation of the Internet. VoIP stands for Voice-over-Internet Protocol, referring to the protocol that underlies all Internet communication.

(ii) Job search:
Nowadays, many people search for their jobs online as it is quicker and there is a larger variety of job vacancies present. People can publish resume online for prospective job. Some of the web sites providing this service are naukri.com, monster.com, summer iob. com, recruitment india ofii etc…

(iii) Online Shopping:
The Internet has also facilitated the introduction of a new market concept consisting of virtual shops. They provide information about products or services for sale through www servers.

Using the Internet services customers can submit specific product queries and request specific sales quotes. For example amazon.com is a www based bookshop on the Internet where information on all types of international books can be found and books can be ordered online.

(iv) Stock market updates:
Selling or buying shares sitting on computer through Internet. Several websites like ndtvprofit.com, moneypore.com, provide information regarding investment.

(v) Travel:
One can use Internet to gather information about various tourist place. It can be used for booking Holiday tours, hotels, train, bus, flights and cabs. Some of the websites providing this service are goibibo.com, makemytrip.com, olacabs. com.

Question 4.
Write a note on any five Internet browsers other than that given in the book?
Answer:
(i) Microsoft Edge:
The faster, safer way to get things done on the web. Edge go from your mobile device or tablet.

(ii) Opera:
Opera browser for windows with a built-in ad blocker and VPN. Our free web browser for windows brings you more speed and privacy.

(iii) Vivaldi:
We use cookies to offer you a better browsing experience and analyze site traffic. If you continue to use this site, you consent to our use of cookies.

(iv) Comodo Dragon:
It helps you stay safe and secure. Provides unsurpassed speed. Friendly user interface, customized plug-ins and add-ons. No more crashes or frozen screens.

(v) Brave:
Brave is on a mission to fix the Web. Much more than a browser, Brave is a new way of thinking about how the Web works. No more data changes to download unwanted content.

Question 5.
Classify and explain any five e-commerce parties with suitable examples?
Answer:
(i) Business to Consumer (B2C):
Transactions happen between businesses and consumers. In B2C e-commerce, businesses are the ones selling products or services to end-users (i.e., consumers).

(ii) Business to Business (B2B):
As its name states, B2B e-commerce pertains to transactions conducted between two businesses. Any company whose customers are other businesses operate on a B2B model. .

(iii) Consumer to Business (C2B):
Consumer to business e-commerce happens when a consumer sells or contributes monetary value to a business. Many crowdsourcing campaigns fall under C2B e-commerce.

(iv) Consumer to Consumer (C2C):
As you might have guessed, C2C e-commerce happens when something is bought and sold between two consumers. C2C commonly takes place on online market places such as e-Bay, in which one individual sells a product or service to another.

(v) Government to Business (G2B):
G2C transactions take place when a company pays for government goods, services, or fees online. Examples could be a business paying for taxes using the Internet.

Question 6.
Explain the different types of interactions in e-governance?
Answer:
(i) G2G (Government to Government):
When the exchange of information and services is within the periphery of the government, is termed as G2G interaction. This Can be both horizontal, i.e., among vanous government entities and vertical, i.e., between national, state and local government entities and within different levels of the entity.

(ii) G2C (Government to Citizen):
The interaction amidst the government and general public is G2C interaction. Here an interface is set up between government and citizens, which enables citizens to get access to wide variety of public services. The citizens has the freedom to share their views and grievances on government policies anytime, anywhere.

(iii) G2B (Government to Business):
In this case, the e-govemance helps the business class to interact with the government seamlessly. It aims at eliminating red-tapism, saving time, cost and establish transparency in the business environment, while interacting with government.

(iv) G2E (Government to Employees):
The government of any country is the biggest employer and so it also deals with employees on a regular basis, as other employers do. ICT helps in making the interaction between government and employees fast and efficient, along with raising their level of satisfaction by providing perquisites and add-on benefits.

E-govemance has a great role to play, that improves and supports all tasks performed by the government department and agencies, because it simplifies the task on the one hand and increases the quality of work on the other.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Internet and Email Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which type of Network is covered within a building or company?
(a) LAN
(b) MAN
(c) WAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(a) LAN

Question 2.
Which Network is covered over entire city?
(a) LAN
(b) MAN
(c) WAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(b) MAN

Question 3.
The Network is span entire countries and continents:
(a) LAN
(b) MAN
(c) WAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(c) WAN

Question 4.
Which network is controlled by a single person within a single building?
(a) LAN
(b) MAN
(c) WAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(d) PAN

Question 5.
Which network is used for High Bandwidth Multi-departmental wired network?
(a) MAN
(b) CAN
(c) PAN
(d) WAN
Answer:
(b) CAN

Question 6.
Which network is used for wi-fi or Bluetooth?
(a) WLAN
(b) LAN
(c) MAN
(d) WAN
Answer:
(a) WLAN

Question 7.
The protocol by used Internet:
(a) TCP/IP
(b) http
(c) HTT
(d) TC/IP
Answer:
(a) TCP/IP

Question 8.
A private network that uses Internet Technologies:
(a) Internet
(b) Network
(c) Extranet
(d) LAN
Answer:
(c) Extranet

Question 9.
Who is called Father of the Internet?
(a) Vinton Gray Cerf
(b) Tim Berners-Lee
(c) Charless Babbage
(d) William Cerf
Answer:
(a) Vinton Gray Cerf

Question 10.
Who was also involved in the formation of ICANN?
(a) Vinton Gray Cerf
(b) Tim Berners-Lee
(c) Bob Kahn
(d) William Cerf
Answer:
(a) Vinton Gray Cerf

Question 11.
Which name is used to online identity and can be access by the web browser when connected the Internet?
(a) E-mail
(b) Domain name
(c) FTP
(d) Profocol
Answer:
(b) Domain name

Question 12.
The Generic domain name system of Government Institutions:
(a) .com
(b) .gov.
(c) -org
(d) .edu
Answer:
(b) .gov.

Question 13.
The Generic domain nam? system of Educational Institution:
(a) .com
(b) .gov
(c) .org
(d) .edu
Answer:
(d) .edu

Question 14.
The heart of intranets and the Internet is called as:
(a) DNS
(b) IP
(c) TCP
(d) FTP
Answer:
(a) DNS

Question 15.
Which is used as Internet address information?
(a) IP
(b) DNS
(c) TC
(d) FTP
Answer:
(a) IP

Question 16.
Which system is used to deliver mail and other information from computer to computer?
(a) IP
(b) DNS
(c) TC
(d) FTP
Answer:
(b) DNS

Question 17.
The country level domain name system in India is:
(a) . in
(b) .us
(c) -sg
(d) .ru
Answer:
(a) . in

Question 18.
TJie country level domain name system in USA is:
(a) .in
(b) .us
(c) sg
(d) .ru
Answer:
(b) .us

Question 19.
The country level domain name system in Singapore is:
(a) .in
(b) .us
(c) .sg
(d) .ru
Answer:
(c) .sg

Question 20.
How many parts are IP address?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 21.
IP address is separated by:
(a) dots
(b) comma
(c) ‘semi-colon’
(d) colon
Answer:
(a) dots

Question 22.
URL abbreviation is:
(a) Uniform Resource Locator
(b) Uniform Reserve Locator
(c) Uniform Resistance Locator
(d) Uniform Read Locator
Answer:
(a) Uniform Resource Locator

Question 23.
ICANN stands for:
(a) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(b) Intranet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers
(c) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Natives
(d) Internet Community for Assigned Names and Numbers
Answer:
(a) Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers

Question 24.
ICANN head quarters is:
(a) Los Angeles
(b) New York
(c) Playa Vista
(d) San Francisco
Answer:
(c) Playa Vista

Question 25.
W3C stands for:
(a) World Wide Work Consortium
(b) World Wide Web Consortium
(c) World Wide Web Connector
(d) World Wide Web Council
Answer:
(b) World Wide Web Consortium

Question 26.
What is the greatest advantage of Wireless Internet Connection?
(a) Fast
(b) Easy way
(c) Always-on
(d) Accessed
Answer:
(c) Always-on

Question 27.
Which device is used to pick up and send Internet signals?
(a) Modem
(b) Cable
(c) Telephone
(d) Wireless
Answer:
(a) Modem

Question 28.
Which device provides good speed and allow you to access the Internet anywhere?
(a) Cellphone
(b) Desktop computer
(c) Removable device
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Cellphone

Question 29.
Which technology allows to connect the Internet or exchanges data wirelessly through radio waves?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) LAN
(c) WAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 30.
The term broadband is shorthand for:
(a) broad bandwidth
(b) broad banding
(c) broad bandlength
(d) none
Answer:
(a) broad bandwidth

Question 31.
DSL stands for:
(a) Digital Subscriber Line
(b) Digital Super Line
(c) Digital Secondary Line
(d) Digital Source Line
Answer:
(a) Digital Subscriber Line

Question 32.
Which network allows user to send data, voice and video content?
(a) Wireless
(b) ISDN
(c) WLAN
(d) DSL
Answer:
(b) ISDN

Question 33.
ISDN stands for:
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network
(b) International Services Digital Network
(c) International Source Digital Network
(d) Integrated Services Digital Node
Answer:
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network

Question 34.
ADSL stands for:
(a) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(b) Assume Digital Subscriber Line
(c) Arrange Digital Subscriber Line
(d) Asymmetric Digital Secondary Line
Answer:
(a) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line

Question 35.
VoIP stands for:
(a) Value-over Internet Protocol
(b) Voiee-over Internet Protocol
(c) Volume-over Internet Protocol
(d) Visual-over Internet Protocol
Answer:
(b) Voiee-over Internet Protocol

Question 36.
Which system is sending message over the phone and they can listen to their message later?
(a) Video conferencing
(b) Voice mail
(c) Chatting
(d) e-Banking
Answer:
(b) Voice mail

Question 29.
Which technology allows to connect the Internet or exchanges data wirelessly through radio waves?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) LAN
(c) WAN
(d) PAN
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 30.
The term broadband is shorthand for:
(a) broad bandwidth
(b) broad banding
(c) broad bandlength
(d) none
Answer:
(a) broad bandwidth

Question 31.
DSL stands for:
(a) Digital Subscriber Line
(b) Digital Super Line
(c) Digital Secondary Line
(d) Digital Source Line
Answer:
(a) Digital Subscriber Line

Question 32.
Which network allows user to send data, voice and video content?
(a) Wireless
(b) ISDN
(c) WLAN
(d) DSL
Answer:
(b) ISDN

Question 33.
ISDN stands for:
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network
(b) International Services Digital Network
(c) International Source Digital Network
(d) Integrated Services Digital Node
Answer:
(a) Integrated Services Digital Network

Question 34.
ADSL stands for:
(a) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line
(b) Assume Digital Subscriber Line
(c) Arrange Digital Subscriber Line
(d) Asymmetric Digital Secondary Line
Answer:
(a) Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line

Question 35.
VoIP stands for:
(a) Value-over Internet Protocol
(b) Voiee-over Internet Protocol
(c) Volume-over Internet Protocol
(d) Visual-over Internet Protocol
Answer:
(b) Voiee-over Internet Protocol

Question 36.
Which system is sending message over the phone and they can listen to their message later?
(a) Video conferencing
(b) Voice mail
(c) Chatting
(d) e-Banking
Answer:
(b) Voice mail

Question 37.
Which system is taking in Internet can be on going or scheduled for a particular time or duration?
(a) Video conferencing
(b) Voice mail
(c) Chatting
(d) e-Banking
Answer:
(c) Chatting

Question 38.
Which system is known as Internet banking?
(a) Video conferencing
(b) Voice mail
(c) Chatting
(d) e-Banking
Answer:
(d) e-Banking

Question 39.
The system is utilizing electronic technologies to access educational curriculam outside of a traditional class room:
(a) video mail
(b) c-learning
(c) chatting
(d) e-banking
Answer:
(b) c-learning

Question 40.
Who was sent a first e-mail?
(a) Ray Tomlinson
(b) Bob Kahn
(c) Vinton Gray Cerf
(d) Tim Berners-Lee
Answer:
(a) Ray Tomlinson

Question 41.
What is the use of compose button in die mail window?
(a) Writting e-mail content
(b) Searching files
(c) Copy the file
(d) Modifing the file
Answer:
(a) Writting e-mail content

Question 42.
Which software is created by cyber criminals to spy on their victims?
(a) Virus
(b) Malicious spyware
(c) Spam
(d) Phishing
Answer:
(b) Malicious spyware

Question 43.
Which software program can copy itself from one computer to another without human Interaction?
(a) Malware
(b) Botnet
(c) Computer worm
(d) Spam
Answer:
(c) Computer worm

Question 44.
The group of computers connected to the Internet that have been compromised by a hacker using a computer virus:
(a) malware
(b) botnet
(c) computer worm
(d) spam
Answer:
(b) botnet

Question 45.
Which is described as unwanted messages in your e-mail box and is a nuisance as it can . clutter your mail box?
(a) Malware
(b) Botnet
(c) Computer worm
(d) Spam
Answer:
(b) Botnet

Question 46.
The scams are fraudulent attempts by cyber criminals to obtain private information:
(a) phishing
(b) malware
(c) botnet
(d) spam
Answer:
(a) phishing

Question 47.
Which tools are used to obtain administrator- level access to a computer or a network of computers?
(a) Phishing
(b) Malware
(c) Root kit
(d) Spam
Answer:
(c) Root kit

Question 48.
Browsing for information on the Internet is called:
(a) surfing
(b) phishing
(c) spam
(d) worm
Answer:
(a) surfing

Question 49.
To browse the Internet, a software is called:
(a) Botnet
(b) Spam
(c) Web browser
(d) Phishing
Answer:
(c) Web browser

Question 50.
Google Inc. was developed for familiar web browser is:
(a) chrome
(b) firefox
(c) safari
(d) vivaldi
Answer:
(a) chrome

Question 51.
Safari is a web browser, who was developed by:
(a) Google Inc.
(b) Mozilla foundation
(c) Apple Inc
(d) Microsoft Corp
Answer:
(c) Apple Inc

Question 52.
A collection of webpages is called:
(a) website
(b) e-mail
(c) web service
(d) home page
Answer:
(a) website

Question 53.
Every web page has a unique address called the:
(a) URL
(b) ICANN
(c) CC
(d) BCC
Answer:
(a) URL

Question 54.
Which type of websites remain the same whenever it is visited?
(a) Static
(b) Dynamic
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) URL
Answer:
(a) Static

Question 55.
Which website content and layout may change during run time?
(a) Static
(b) Dynamic
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) URL
Answer:
(b) Dynamic

Question 56.
The activity of buying or selling of products on online services or over the Internet:
(a) e-mail
(b) e-commerce:
(c) e-leaming
(d) e-govemance
Answer:
(b) e-commerce:

Question 57.
Which term is used by transactions happen between business and consumers?
(a) B2C
(b) B2B
(c) C2B
(d) C2C
Answer:
(a) B2C

Question 58.
Which term is used to pertain transactions conducted between two business?
(a) B2C
(b) B2B
(c) C2B
(d) C2C
Answer:
(b) B2B

Question 59.
The application of information and communication technology for delivering government services are:
(a) G2C
(b) e-govemance
(c) e-commerce
(d) e-leaming
Answer:
(b) e-govemance

Question 60.
A great role to play, that improves and supports all tasks performed by the government department and agencies are:
(a) e-commerce
(b) e-govemance
(c) e-leaming
(d) e-mail
Answer:
(b) e-governance

Question 61.
Which month can be celebrated ‘Safer Internet Day’of every year?
(a) January
(b) February
(c) March
(d) May
Answer:
(b) February

Question 62.
Which is a software managing technique through which programs that are suspected to be infected with a virus can be run?
(a) Sandboxing
(b) Spam
(c) Phishing
(d) Botnet
Answer:
(a) Sandboxing

Question 63.
IoT – means:
(a) Internet of Things
(b) International of Things
(c) Internet of Timings
(d) Internet of Teachings
Answer:
(a) Internet of Things

Question 64.
USB, Wi-Fi are removable component and it refers:
(a) device
(b) dongle
(c) electronic parts
(d) electronic governance
Answer:
(b) dongle

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Any two advantages for necessity of using Internet in commerce?
Answer:
The cost, time and effort involved in transferring data was much higher without , networks. So networks, decrease cost, time, and effort and thereby increase productivity. They also help in resource optimization by helping to share resources.

Question 2.
What are the disadvantages of using WAN?
Answer:

1. Complicated and complex.
2. High cost.
3. Requires high performance devices.
4. Low security.
5. Cost higher than LAN.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of using PAN network?
Answer:

1. Efficient.
2. Cost effective and convenient.
3. Controlled by a single person.
4. Hotspot may connect upto 8 devices.

Question 4.
Write any four popular social sharing tools.
Answer:

1. Facebook
2. Twitter
3. Linkedin
4. Whatsapp

Question 5.
What is a domain name?
Answer:
It is a name or an identity which become a online identity and can be accessed by the web browser when connected to Internet.

Question 6.
Write any four country level domain name?
Ans
Description:

1. India
2. Australia
3. United States of America
4. Japan

Country level Domain Name:

1. .in
2. .au
3. .us
4. .jp

Question 7.
what is an URL?
Answer:
A URL is an address that shows where a particular page can be found on the World Wide Web. URL is an abbreviation for ‘Uniform Resource Locator (URL)’.

Question 8.
Who governs the Internet?
Answer:
The Internet as a whole does not have a single controller. But the Internet. society, which is a voluntary membership organization, takes the responsibility to promote global information exchange through the Internet technology.

Question 9.
What is a ISDN?
Answer:
ISDN (Integrated Services Digital Network) allows users to send data, voice and video content over digital telephone lines or standard telephone wires. The installation of an ISDN adapter is required at both ends of the transmission – on the part of the user as well as the Internet access provider.

Question 10.
What is an Indirect Access in Internet?
Answer:
This is most common method used in home and office networks.
The device (Eg: Computer) connects to a network using Ethernet or Wi-Fi and the network connects to the Internet using Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line ADSL, (cable or fibre.)

Question 11.
What is an Direct Access in Internet?
Answer:
This is most common method used when travelling. The device (Eg: Smart phone) connects directly to the Internet using 3G/4G mobile networks or public Wi-Fi.

Question 12.
Give some most popular search engines?
Answer:
Yahoo, Lycos, Altavista, Hotbot, Google and Askjeeves are the most popular search engines.

Question 13.
What is the purpose of voicemail in Internet?
Answer:
Voicemail is a system of sending messages over the phone. Calls are answered by a machine which connects you to the person you want to leave a message for, and they can listen to their messages later.

Question 14.
What is sent in an e-mail?
Answer:
Text messages being sent over e-mail, it is also possible to attach a file or other data in , an e-mail. For example, an attachment could be a picture, PDF,word processor document, or any file stored on the computer.

Question 15.
What is a computer virus?
Answer:
A computer virus is a small piece of software that can spread from one infected computer to another. The virus could corrupt, steal, or delete data on your computer-even erasing everything on your hard drive. A virus could also use other programs like your e-mail program to spread itself to other computers.

Question 16.
What is a malicious software?
Answer:
Malware is short for “malicious software.” Malware is used to mean a “variety of forms of hostile, intrusive, or annoying software or program code.” Malware could be computer viruses, worms, Trojan horses, dishonest spyware, and malicious rootkits all of which are .defined below.

Question 17.
What is an Trojan horse software?
Answer:
Users can infect their computers with Trojan horse software simply by downloading an application they thought was legitimate but was in fact malicious.

Once it enters inside the computer, a Trojan horse can do anything from recording your passwords by logging its keystrokes, hijacking your webcam to watch and record every movement.

Question 18.
What is a Botnet?
Answer:
A botnet is a group of computers connected to the Internet that have been compromised by a hacker using a computer virus or Trojan horse. An individual computer in the group is known as a “zombie” computer.

Question 19.
What is a spam?
Answer:
Spam in the security context is primarily used to describe e-mail spam. Unwanted messages in your e-mail inbox. Spam, or electronic junk mail, is a nuisance as it can clutter your mailbox as well as potentially take up space on your mail server.

However, spam messages can contain links that when clicked on could go to a website that installs malicious software onto your computer.

Question 20.
What is a Rootkit?
Answer:
A root kit is a collection of tools that are used to obtain administrator-level access to a computer or a network of computers. A root kit could be installed on your computer by a cyber criminal exploiting a vulnerability or security hole in a legitimate application on your PC and may contain spyware that monitors and records keystrokes.

Question 21.
What is a web page?
Answer:
A webpage is a page of a Website. A web that page can be copied and or send to a friend for review whereas websites are collections of multiple page that must be navigated to view other content.

Question 22.
What is an commerce?
Answer:
e-commerce is the activity of buying or selling of products on online services or over the Internet. Electronic commerce draws on technologies such as mobile commerce, electronic funds transfer, supply chain management, Internet marketing, online transaction processing, electronic data interchange (EDI), inventory management systems, and automated data collection systems.

Question 23.
What is a purpose of sandboxing software?
Answer:
Sand boxing is a software managing technique through which programs that are suspected to be infected with a virus can be run. The programs are run in a separated memory area and therefore cannot damage the operating systems.

Question 24.
What is mean by Hotspots?
Answer:
Hotspots are sites that offer Internet access over Wireless Local Network (WLAN) by way of a router that then connects to an Internet service provider.

Question 25.
What is a Internet telephony?
Answer:
Internet telephony (Eg: Skype) is another common communications service made possible by the creation of the Internet. VoIP stands for Voice-over-Internet Protocol.

Question 26.
What is a Dongle?
Answer:
Dongle refers to removable component used for enabling software protection.
Eg: USB, Wi-Fi.

Question 27.
What are the ways to lookfor the information on the web?
Answer:
There are two ways to look for the information on the web.

1. If the URL of the website is known, enter it on the address bar.
2. If is the URL is not known, then ‘Search Engines’ will help us to get the information.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate an extranet and an intranet?
Answer:
Extranet:
An extranet is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share part of a business’s information or operations with Suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.

Intranet:
An Intranet is a website used by organizations to provide a place where employees can access company information (Eg: policies, procedures, staff, directory, department info), tools (quick links to common apps, forms etc…) and (collaborate to social sharing tools similar facebook).

Question 2.
What are the services available from Internet?
Answer:

1. Email.
2. Web-enabled audio/video conferencing services.
3. Online movies and gaming.
4. Data transfer/file-sharing, often through File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
5. Instant messaging.
6. Internet forums.
7. Social networking.
8. Online shopping.
9. Financial services.

Question 3.
What is the purpose of DNS?
Answer:
The heart of intranets and the Internet is called as the Domain Name System(DNS), the way computers can contact each other and do things such as exchange electronic mail or display Web pages. The Internet Protocol (IP) uses this Internet address information and the DNS to deliver mail and other information from computer to computer.

Question 4.
What is meant by Broadband?
Answer:
High-speed Internet connection is provided through either cable or telephone companies. One of the fastest options available, broadband Internet uses multiple data channels to send large quantities of information.

The term broadband is shorthand for broad bandwidth. Broadband Internet connections such as DSL and cable are considered high- bandwidth connections. Although many DSL connections can be considered broadband, not all broadband connections are DSL.

Question 5.
What is chatting on the Internet?
Answer:
On the Internet, chatting is talking to other people who are using the Internet at the same time you are. Usually, this “talking” is the exchange of typed-in messages and a group of users who take part from anywhere on the Internet. Chats can be ongoing or scheduled for a particular time and duration.

Most chats are focused on a particular topic of interest and some involve guest experts or famous people who “talk” to anyone joining the chat. Transcripts of a chat can be archived for later reference.

Question 6.
What is online banking services?
Answer:
e-banking (Online banking), also known as Internet banking, it is an electronic payment system that enables customers of a bank or other financial institution to conduct a range of financial transactions through the financial institution’s website.

The online banking system will typically connect to or be part of the core banking system operated by a bank and is in contrast to branch banking which was the traditional way customers accessed banking services.

Question 7.
What is a e-learning?
Answer:
e-Leaming are courses that are specifically delivered via the Internet to somewhere other than the classroom where the professor is teaching. It is not a course delivered via a DVD or CD-ROM, video tape or over a television channel. e-leaming is utilizing electronic technologies to access educational curriculum outside of a traditional classroom. It is a program delivered completely online.

E-leaming is interactive in that you can also communicate with teachers, professors or other students in a class. Sometimes it is delivered live, where you can “electronically” raise your hand and interact in real time and sometimes it is a lecture that is prerecorded. There is always a teacher/professor interacting/ communicating, grading participation, giving assignments and conducting tests.

Question 8.
What is a Malicious spyware software?
Answer:
Malicious spyware:
Malicious spyware is used to describe the Trojan application that was created by cyber criminals to on their victims. An example would be key logger software that records a victim’s every keystroke on his or her keyboard.

The recorded information is periodically sent back to the originating cyber criminal over the Internet. Key logging software is widely available and is marketed to parents or businesses that want to monitor their kid’s or employee’s Internet usage.

Question 9.
What is a computer worm software?
Answer:
A computer worm is a software program that can copy itself from one computer to another, without human interaction. Worms can replicate in great volume and with great speed. For example, a worm can send copies of itself to every contact in your email address book and then send itself to all the contacts in your contact’s address books.

Because of their speed of infection, worms often gain notoriety overnight infecting computers across the globe as quickly as victims around the world and switch them on to open their e-mail.

Question 10.
What are the familiar Internet Browsers?
Answer:
(i) Google-Chrome:
It is a freeware familiar web browser developed by Google Inc, It is best for its speed, simplicity, security, privacy and customization features. Google Chrome supports on Android 4.0 or higher, iOS 6.0 or higher, Mac OSX 10.6 or higher and Windows (XP sp2 or higher) and Linux system.

(ii) Mozila Firefox:
It is a free and open source web browser developed by Mozilla Foundation and Mozilla Corporation. Firefox is default browser in Ubuntu. It supports Windows, Mac OS X, Linux and Android system.

(iii) Internet Explorer:
It is commonly known as Microsoft Internet Explorer or Windows Internet Explorer is the first or default browser for a Windows PC. It is developed by Microsoft.

(iv) Safari:
It is a web browser developed by Apple Inc. and comes with OS X and iOS. Some version of safari browser also supports in Windows Operating System. Exclusively used in Apple Mac system.

Question 11.
What is the Internet of Things (loT)?
Answer:
The Internet of Things (IoT) is the network of physical devices, such as vehicles, home appliances, and other items embedded with electronics, software, sensors, actuators and connectivity which enables these things to connect and exchanges data creating opportunities for more direct integration of the physical world into computer – based systems, resulting in effficiency improvements, economic benefits, and reduced human exertions.

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write the any five Generic Domain Name?
Answer:
Generic Domain Name:

1. .com
2. .gov
3.  .org
4. .net
5. .edu

Description:

1. Commercial Organisation
2. Government institution
3. Non-profit Organisation
4. Network Support Group
5. Educational Institution

Question 2.
Write the steps of structure of e-mail?
Answer:
Click the Compose button and then writing an e-mail contents.
When sending an e-mail message, several fields are required to be filled:

• The To field is where you type the e-mail address of the person who is the recipient of your message.
• The From field should contain your e-mail address.
• If you are replying to a message, the To and From fields are automatically filled out; if it’s a new message, you’ll need to enter them manually.
• The Subject should consist of a few words describing the e-mail’s contents. The Subject lets the recipient see what the e-mail is about, without opening and reading the full e-mail. This field is optional.
• The CC (Carbon Copy) field allows you to specify recipients who are not direct addresses (listed in the “To” field). This field is optional.
• The BCC (Blind Carbon Copy) field is similar to CC, except the recipients are secret. Each BCC recipient will receive the e-mail, but will not see who else received a copy. The addresses (anyone listed in the “To” field) remain visible to all recipients. This field is optional.
• Finally, the Message Body is the location you type your main message. It often contains your signature at the bottom; similar to a hand-written letter.

Question 3.
Write the any five points do’s and don’t of safe surfing on Internet?
Answer:
(i) Don’tgiveoutyourpersonal information:
Don’t put personal details such as your home address, telephone numbers or parent’s work address online as cybercriminals can use this information to create a fake profile with your details.

(ii) What goes online, stays online:
Use privacy settings to make sure only your friends and family can see photos you post. Avoid posting holiday plAnswer:as criminals have been known to track your movements.

(iii) Check your security and privacy settings:
Make sure your social network privacy settings are secured so only your friends can see your personal information and use your privacy settings to restrict who can see your posts, videos and photos.

(iv) Password safety:
Sharing your password with your parents is a sensible idea, but avoid sharing your password with your friends, even if they promise they won’t tell anyone! Also, when setting your password, make sure it isn’t something people may guess such as your pet’s name. Use a mixture of letters, numbers and upper and lower case characters.

(v) Always protect your mobile device:
Make sure your mobile phone is pin-protected. So all your personal information stored on it is safe. Download a security app which allows you to remotely wipe any personal data, should your mobile be lost or stolen.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
When capital in the beginning is ₹ 10,000 drawings during the year ₹ 6,000 profit made during the year ₹ 2,000 and the additional capital introduced is ₹ 3,000 find the amount of capital at the end ________.
(a) ₹ 9,000
(b) ₹ 11,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 3,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 9,000

Question 2.
Opening balance of debtors ₹ 30,000 Cash received ₹ 1,00,000, credit sales ₹ 90,000; closing balance of debtors is _______.
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 1,30,000
(c) ₹ 40,000
(d) ₹ 20,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 20,000

Question 3.
Donations received for a specific purpose is ________.
(a) Revenue receipt
(b) Capital receipt
(c) Revenue expenditure
(d) Capital expenditure
Answer:
(b) Capital receipt

Question 4.
There are 500 members in a club paying ₹ 100 as annual subscription due but not received for the current year each is ₹ 200. Subscription received in advance ₹ 300. Find out the amount of subscription to be shown in income and expenditure account.
(a) ₹ 50,000
(b) ₹ 50,200
(c) ₹ 49,900
(d) ₹ 49,800
Answer:
(a) ₹ 50,000

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Partners share profits and losses equally
(b) Interest on partners capital is allowed at 7% P.a
(c) No salary or remuneration is allowed
(d) Interest an loan from partners is allowed at 6% P.a
Answer:
(b) Interest on partners capital is allowed at 7% P.a

Question 6.
Profit after interest on drawings interest on capital and remuneration is ₹ 10,500. Geetha a partner is entitled to receive commission @ 5% on profits after changing such commission find out commission ______.
(a) ₹ 50
(b) ₹ 150
(c) ₹ 550
(d) ₹ 500
Answer:
(d) ₹ 500

Question 7.
Which of these is an asset which is not fictitious but intangible in nature having realisable value.
(a) Furniture
(b) Machinery
(c) Building
(d) Goodwill
Answer:
(d) Goodwill

Question 8.
Goodwill is an asset that represents _______.
(a) Fictitious asset
(b) The market value of the company’s trade name
(c) The value of reputation of a firm
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) The value of reputation of a firm

Question 9.
James and Kamal are sharing profits and losses ratio 5:3. They admit Sunil as a partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. Find out the sacrificing ratio _________.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:5
Answer:
(c) 5:3

Question 10.
Balaji and Kamalesh are partners sharing profits and losses ratio 2:1. They admit Yogesh into partnership. The new profit sharing ratio between Balaji, Kamalesh and Yogesh is agreed to 3:1:1. Find the sacrificing ratio between Balaji and Kamalesh _______.
(a) 1:3
(6) 3:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(d) 1:2

Question 11.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 4:2:3 C retires. The new profit sharing ratio between A and B will be ________.
(a) 4:3
(6) 3:4
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(c) 2:1

Question 12.
X, Y and Z were partners, sharing profit and losses equally. X died on 1^st April 2019. Find out the share of X in the profit of 2019 based on the profit of 2018 which showed ₹ 36000 ________.
(a) ₹ 1,000
(b) ₹ 3,000
(c) ₹ 12,000
(d) ₹ 36,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,000

Question 13.
If a share of ₹ 10 on which ₹ 8 has been paid up is forfeited. Minimum reissue price is _________.
(a) ₹ 10 per share
(b) ₹ 8 per share
(c) ₹ 5 per share
(d) ₹ 2 per share
Answer:
(d) ₹ 2 per share

Question 14.
Supreme Ltd forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each for non – payment of final call of ₹ 2 per share. All these shares were reissued at ₹ 9 per share. What amount will be transferred to capital reserve account?
(a) ₹ 700
(b) ₹ 800
(c) ₹ 900
(d) ₹ 1000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 700

Question 15.
In a common size balance sheet, if the percentage of non-current assets is 75. What would be the percentage of current assets?
(a) 175
(b) 125
(c) 25
(d) 100
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 16.
Expenses of a business for the first year were ₹ 80,000. In the second year it was increased, to ₹ 88,000. What is the trend % in the second year?
(a) 10%
(b) 110%
(c) 90%
(d) 11%
Answer:
(b) 110%

Question 17.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; Current assets ₹ 1,00,000. Inventory ₹ 20,000. Quick ratio is ________.
(a) 1:1
(b) 2:5:1
(c) 2:1
(d) 1:2
Answer:
(c) 2:1

Question 18.
Cost of revenue from operations ₹ 3,00,000; Inventory in the beginning of the year ₹ 60,000; Inventory at the close of the year ₹ 40,000. Inventory turnover ratio is ________.
(a) 2 times
(b) 3 times
(c) 6 times
(d) 8 times
Answer:
(c) 6 times

Question 19.
₹ 50,000 withdrawn from bank for office use. In which voucher type, this transaction will be recorded ______.
(a) Contra voucher
(b) Receipt voucher
(c) Payment voucher
(d) Sales voucher
Answer:
(a) Contra voucher

Question 20.
In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally _________.
(a) Receipt voucher
(b) Journal voucher
(c) Purchase voucher
(d) Payment voucher
Answer:
(b) Journal voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is conversion method?
Answer:
It is one of the methods to find out profit or loss of a business when accounts are kept under single entry system. If it is desired to calculate the profit or loss by preparing trading and profit and loss account under single entry system. Then it is called conversion method. It is conversion of single entry into double entry.

Question 22.
Give four examples for capital receipts of not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:

• Life membership fees
• Legacies
• Sale of fixed assets
• Specific donations

Question 23.
Sundar drew regularly ₹ 4,000 at their end of every month. Calculate interest on drawings at 10 % P.a. interest on drawings of Sundar
Answer:
Interest on drawings of Sundar

Question 24.
From the following information, calculate the value of goodwill on the basis of 3 years purchase of average profits of last four years 2015 profit – ₹ 5,000; 2016 profit – ₹ 8,000; 2017 loss – ₹ 3,000; 2018 profit – ₹ 6,000.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Good will = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= ₹ 4,000 × 3
Goodwill = ₹ 12,000

Question 25.
A and B were partners of the firm ratio 7:5 on 1.4.2018 the firm’s book showed a reserve fund ₹ 1,20,000 on the above date they decided to admit C into the firm pass entry.
Answer:

Question 26.
Mani, Nagappan, Ulaganathan are partner Sharing profit with ratio of 4:3:3. Ulaganathan retires and share is taken by Mani and Nagappan in the ratio of 8:2. Calculate new ratio.
Answer:
Calculation of new ratio:

Question 27.
Abdul Ltd issues 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable fully on application pass the entry shares are issued at.
Answer:

Question 28.
What is meant by “Financial Analysis”?
Answer:
Financial Analysis is a systematic process of classifying the data into simple groups and making a comparison of various groups with one another to pin-point the strong points and weakness of the business.

Question 29.
Give any two differences between current ratio & Quick ratio.
Answer:
Current Ratio:

• It indicates whether the firm is in a position to pay its current liabilities with in a year.
• Ideal Standard Ratio is 2:1

Quick Ratio:

• It indicates whether the firm is in a position to pay its current liabilities immediately with in a month.
• Quick Ratio Standard is 1:1

Question 30.
What are accounting reports?
Answer:
Accounting report is a compilation of accounting information that are derived from the accounting records of a business concern. Accounting reports may be classified as routine reports and special purpose reports.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
On 1^st April Ganesh started his capital of ₹ 1,50,000. He did not main proper books of accounts. Following particulars are available from his books as on 31.03.2018.
Answer:

During the year he with drew ₹ 30,000 for his personal use. He introduced further capital of ₹ 40,000 during the year. Calculate his profit or loss.
Answer:

Question 32.
From the information given below, prepare receipts and payments account of Kurunji sports club for the year ended 31.12.2018.

Answer:

Question 33.
A, B and C are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses equally. As per the terms of the partnership deed B is allowed a monthly salary of ₹ 2,000 and ‘C’ is allowed a commission of ₹ 6,000 per annum for their contribution to the business of the firm. You are required to pass the necessary journal entry assume that their capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:
Salary of ‘B’ = ₹ 2,000 × 12 = ₹ 24,000
Commission of ‘C’ = 6,000

Question 34.
From the following information compute the value of goodwill be capitalising super profit.
(i) Capital employed ₹ 4,00,000
(ii) Normal Rate of return is 10%
(iii) Profit for 2016 – ₹ 62,000; 2017 – ₹ 61,000; 2018 – ₹ 63,000
Calculation of adjusted profit
Answer:

Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of return
= ₹ 4,00,000 × 10%
= ₹ 40,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 62,000 – ₹ 40,000
= ₹ 22,000

Question 35.
A and B are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 3:2 ‘C’ is admitted as a new partner and the new profit sharing ratio is decided as 5: 3: 2. The following revaluations are made. Pass journal entries.
(i) The value of building increased by ₹ 15,000
(ii) The value of the machinery is decreased by ₹ 4,000
(iii) Provision for doubtful debtors is made for ₹ 1,000
Answer:

Question 36.
Rathna, Basker and Ibrahim are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 2:3:4 respectively. Rathna died on 31^st December, 2018. Final amount due to her showed a credit balance of ₹ 1,00,000. Pass journal entries if,
(а) The amount due is paid off immediately by cheque
(b) The amount due is not paid immediately
(c) ₹ 60,000 is paid immediately by cheque.
Answer:

Question 37.
Maruthi Ltd forfeited 150 equity shares of ₹ 100 each for non payment of final call of ₹ 40 per share of these 100 shares were reissued at ₹ 90 per share pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:


Forfeited shares amount of 150 shares ₹ 9,000
Gain or loss = 100 × (90 – 40)
= 100 × 50
= ₹ 5,000

Question 38.
From the following information calculate (i) Debt equity ratio (ii) Working Capital Turnover Ratio.

Answer:
(i) Debt Equity Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Debt }}{\text { Equity }}\)
Debt = 6% debentures + 9% loan
= ₹ 3,00,000 + ₹ 1,00,000 = ₹ 4,00,000
Equity = Paid up share capital + Debenture Redemption Reserve
= 6,00,000 + 2,00,000 = 8,00,000
Debt Equity Ratio = \(\frac{4,00,000}{8,00,000}\) = 0.5 = 1
(ii)

Working Capital = Other Current Assets + Closing Inventors – Current Liabilities
= ₹ 11,00,000 + ₹ 1,00,000 – ₹ 4,00,000 = 8,00,000.
Working capital turnover ratio = \(\frac{60,00,000}{8,00,000}\) =7.5 times

Question 39.
Write a short note on (i) Horizontal Analysis (ii) Vertical Analysis
Answer:
(i) Horizontal Analysis:
Financial statements for a number of years are reviewed and analysed. Figures for two or more years are contained in such type of analysis and these figures are placed side – by – side to facilitate comparison. Such analysis indicates the increase or decrease in these items not only in absolute figures but also in percentage form.

(ii) Vertical Analysis:
Financial statements for a single year or on a particular date are reviewed and analysed with the help of proper devices like ratios. It involves a study of the quantitative relationship among various items of balance sheet or profit and loss account.

Question 40.
Write any three Applications of Computerised Accounting System.
Answer:
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In computerised accounting system, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It does not require a large amount of physical space. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
Computerised accounting system facilitates efficient management of inventory. Fast moving, slow moving and absolete inventory can be identified. Updated information about availability of inventory, level of inventory etc can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Report generation:
Computerised accounting system helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Ahmed does not keep proper books of accounts. Find the profit or loss made by him for the year ending 31^st march 2018.

Ahmed had withdrawn ₹ 40,000 for his personal use. He had introduced ₹ 16,000 as . capital for expansion of his business. A provision of 5% on debtors is to be made. Plant is to be depreciated at 10%.
Answer:
Calculation of opening capital:


Calculation of closing capital:

[OR]

(b) Arulappan and nallasamy are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio 4:1 on 1^st January 2018 their capitals were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000 respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following.
(i) Interest on capital is to be allowed 5%P.a
(ii) Interest on drawings charged to Arulappan and Nallasamy are ₹ 200 and ₹ 300 respectively.
(iii) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to ₹ 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31^st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments of friends football club for the year ending 31^st march 2017.
Prepare income and expenditure for the year ending 31^st March 2017 and the balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:


Additional information:
(i) The club had furniture of ₹ 12,000 on 1^st April 2016. Ignore depreciation on furniture.
(ii) Subscription outstanding for 2016-17 – ₹ 600
(iii) Stock of sports materials on 31.3.2017 – ₹ 100
(iv) Capital fund as on 1^st April 2016 was ₹ 23,000
Answer:

[OR]

(b) The following particulars are available in respect of the business carried on by a partnership firm.
(i) Profits earned 2016 – ₹ 25,000; 2017 – ₹ 23,000; 2018 – ₹ 26,000
(ii) Profit of 2016 includes a non – recurring income of ₹ 2,500.
(iii) Profit of 2017 is reduced by ₹ 3,500 due to stock destroyed by fire.
(iv) The stock was not insured. But it is decided to insure the stock in future. The insurance premium is estimated to be ₹ 250 per annum.
You are required to calculate the value of goodwill of the firm on the basis of 2 years purchase of average profits of the last three years.
Answer:


Goodwill = Average profit × Number of years of purchase
= 24,750 × 2
= ₹ 49,500

Question 43.
(a) The following particular calculate the goodwill on the
(i) Basis of two years purchase of super profits earned on average basis during the above mentioned three years by
(ii) Capitalisation method. The firm earned net profit for 3 years 2013 – ₹ 1,90,000; 2014 – ₹ 2,20,000; 2015 – ₹ 2,50,000. The capital employed in the firm ₹ 4,00,000, risk involved 15% is considered to be a fair return on the capital. The remuneration of the partners during the period ₹ 1,00,000 P.a.
Answer:
(i)

Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 2,20,000 – 1,60,000 = ₹ 60,000
Goodwill = Super profit × No. of. years purchase
= 60,000 × 2
= ₹ 1,20,000

(ii) Capitalisation method:
Goodwill = Capitalised Value of Average Profit – Actual capital employed
Average profit = 2,20,000 – 1,00,000
= ₹ 1,20,000
Capitalised value of average profit = Average profit × \(\frac{100}{\text { Rate of return }}\)
= 1,20,000 × \(\frac{100}{15}\) = ₹ 8,00,000
Good will = 8,00,000 – 4,00,000
= ₹ 4,00,000

[OR]

(b) Vetri and Ranjit are partners sharing profit in the ratio 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 31^st December 2017 is as under.

On 1.1.2018 they admit suriya into their firm as a partner on the following arrangements.
(i) Suriya brings ₹ 10,000 as capital for 1/4% share of profit
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by 10%
(iii) Debtors to be revalued at ₹ 7,500.
(iv) Furniture to be revalued at ₹ 40,000.
(v) There ia an outstanding wages ₹ 4,500 not yet recorded.Prepare revaluation account, partners capital account and the balance sheet of the firm after admission.
Answer:

Question 44.
(a)Mani, Rama, Devan are partners in a firm sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. Their balance sheet as on 31^st March 2019.

Mani retired from the partnership on 31.03.2019. subject to the following adjustment.
(i) Stock to be depreciated ₹ 5,000.
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Buildings to be appreciated by ₹ 16,000. The final amount due to Mani is not paid immediately prepare revaluation A/c, Capital Account.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Ramesh, Ravi, Akash are partners who share profits and losses in their capital ratio. Their balance sheet as on 31.12.17.

Akash died on 31.03.2018. On the death of Akash the following adjustment are made.
(i) Plant and machinery is to be valued at ₹ 54,000.
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 24,000.
(iv) Share of profit of akash is to be calculated from the closing of the last financial year to the date of death on the basis of the average of the three completed year profit before death Profit for 2015,2016, 2017 were ₹ 66,000; ₹ 60,000; ₹ 66,000 respectively. Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.
Answer:
(i) Profit sharing ratio = capital ratio = 30,000 : 30,000 : 20,000 i.e. 3:3:2
Gaining ratio between Ramesh and Ravi = Old profit sharing Ratio = 3:3 i.e. 1 : 1

(ii) Calculation of Akash’s share of current years profit

Current year’s profit upto the date of death = 64,000 × 3/12 = ₹ 16,000
Akash’s share of current year’s profit = 16,000 × 2/8 = ₹ 4,000

(iii) Akash’s share of goodwill = 24,000 × 2/8 = ₹ 6,000
It is to be borne by Ramesh and Ravi in the gaining ratio = 1:1

Question 45.
(a) Keerthiga company issued share of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium. Payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 3 on allotment (including premium), ₹ 3 on first call and ₹ 3 on second and final call. Journalise the transactions relating to forfeiture of shares for the following situations.
(i) Mohan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the second and final call and his shares were forfeited.
(it) Mohan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money first call and second and final call money and his shares were forfeited.
(iii) Mohan who holds 50-shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call and his shares were forfeited after the first call.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare comparative statement of profit and loss of Ahmed Ltd with the helps of following information.

Employees benefit expenses = Salaries wages, PF, staff welfare
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) From the following particulars of Neithal Ltd calculate trend percentage.

Answer:

(b) From the following information calculate the following ratio.
(i) Net Profit Ratio
(ii) Debtors Equity Ratio
(iii) Quick Ratio

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) What are the Sailent Feature of tally ERP.9?
Answer:
(i) A leading accounting package:
The first version of Tally was released in 1988 and through continuous development is now recognised as one of the leading accounting packages across the world with over a quarter million of customer Tally’s market share is more than 90%.

(ii) No accounting codes:
Unlike other computerised accounting packages which require numeric codes. Tally ERP 9 pioneered the “no accounting codes” concept.
Tally ERP 9 users have the freedom to allocate meaningful names in plain English to their data items in the system.

(iii) Compute business solution:
Tally ERP 9 provides a comprehensive solution to the accounting and inventory needs of a business. The packages comprises financial accounting book keeping and inventory accounting. It also has various tools to extract interpret and present data.

(iv) Speed:
It allows the user to maintain multiple companies and with unlimited levels of classification and grouping capabilities. It also allows dried down facility from report level to transaction level.

(v) Versatibility:
Tally ERP is suitable for a range of organisations from small grocery stores to large corporations with international locations and operations.

(vi) Online help:
The Tally ERP 9 online help (AH + H) provides instant assistance on basic and advanced feathers or any other relavent topics of Tally ERP. 9.

[OR]

(b) Find out total purchases and total sales from the following details by preparing necessary accounts.
Answer:



Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 1,00,000 + ₹ 11,42,000
= ₹ 12,42,000
Total purchases = Cash purchases + Credit purchases
= ₹ 50,000 + ₹ 76,000
= ₹ 1,26,000

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The root of financial accounting system is ______.
(a) Management accounting
(b) Responsibility accounting
(c) Social accounting
(d) Stewardship accounting
Answer:
(d) Stewardship accounting

Question 2.
The business is liable to the proprietor of the business in respect of capital introduced by the person according to _________.
(a) Business entity concept
(b) Dual aspect concept
(c) Money measurement concept
(d) Cost concept
Answer:
(a) Business entity concept

Question 3.
A firm has assets of ₹ 1,00,000 and the external liabilities of ₹ 60,000. Its capital would be _______.
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 1,60,000
(d) ₹ 60,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 40,000

Question 4.
The amount brought into the business by the proprietor should be credited to ________.
(a) Capital Account
(b) Suspense Account
(c) Cash Account
(d) Drawings Account
Answer:
(a) Capital Account

Question 5.
The difference of totals of both debit and credit side of trial balance is transferred to _______.
(a) Suspense Account
(b) Miscellaneous account
(c) Trading account
(d) Difference account
Answer:
(a) Suspense Account

Question 6.
The Cash book records _______.
(a) All cash payments
(b) All credit transactions
(c) All cash receipts and cash payments
(d) All cash receipts
Answer:
(c) All cash receipts and cash payments

Question 7.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared with the help of ________.
(a) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book
(b) Petty cash book
(c) Bank statement
(d) Cash book
Answer:
(a) Bank statement and bank column of the cash book

Question 8.
Errors of principle arises when:
(a) Distinction is not made between capital and revenue items
(b) There are wrong postings and wrong castings
(c) There is complete omission of a transaction
(d) There is partial omission of a transaction
Answer:
(a) Distinction is not made between capital and revenue items

Question 9.
The following error becomes unavoidable in computerised accounting:
(a) Error of partial omission
(b) Error in carrying forward
(c) Casting error
(d) Error of duplication
Answer:
(d) Error of duplication

Question 10.
Residual value of an asset means the amount that it can fetch on sale at the _______ of its useful life.
(a) Middle
(b) Beginning
(c) End
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) End

Question 11.
Expenditure incurred ₹ 20,000 for trial run of a newly installed machinery will be _________.
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(c) Preliminary Expenditure
(d) Revenue Expenditure
Answer:
(a) Capital Expenditure

Question 12.
Huge amount spent on advertisement by Mr.Ravi for his business promotion is ________.
(a) Revenue Receipts
(b) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(c) Capital Expenditure
(d) Revenue Expenditure
Answer:
(b) Deferred Revenue Expenditure

Question 13.
Choose the correct pair:
(i) Capital Expenditure – It increases the profit earning capacity of the business
(ii) Revenue Expenditure – To get benefit for certain years
(iii) Deferred revenue expenditure – It is recurring in nature
(a) (iii) correct
(b) (i),(ii),(iii) all are correct
(c) (i) correct
(d) (ii) correct
Answer:
(c) (i) correct

Question 14.
Balance sheet shows the _______ of the business.
(a) Financial position
(b) Purchases
(c) Profitability
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Financial position

Question 15.
Net profit is ________.
(a) Debited to Drawing A/c
(b) Credited to Drawing A/c
(c) Debited to Capital A/c
(d) Credited to Capital A/c
Answer:
(d) Credited to Capital A/c

Question 16.
Which one is not a component of computer system?
(a) Data
(b) Central processing unit
(c) Input unit
(d) Output unit
Answer:
(a) Data

Question 17.
An example of output device is ________.
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Optical scanner
(d) Printer
Answer:
(d) Printer

Question 18.
Tally is an example of:
(a) Inbuilt accounting system
(b) Readymade accounting software
(c) Tailor made accounting software
(d) Customised accounting software
Answer:
(b) Readymade accounting software

Question 19.
The source document or voucher used for recording entries in sales book is ________.
(a) Invoice
(b) Cash receipt
(c) Debit note
(d) Credit note
Answer:
(a) Invoice

Question 20.
Purchases of fixed assets on credit basis is recorded in ________.
(a) Purchase return book
(b) Journal proper
(c) Purchase book
(d) Sales book
Answer:
(b) Journal proper

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory: [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
List any two functions of accounting.
Answer:
The main functions of accounting:

1. Measurement
2. Forecasting

1. Measurement: The main function of accounting is to keep, systematic record of transactions, post them in the ledger and ultimately prepare the final accounts.
2. Forecasting: With the help of the various tools of accounting, future performance and financial position of the business enterprises can be forecasted.

Question 22.
Define book-keeping.
Answer:
“Book-keeping is an art of recording business dealings in a set of books”. – J.R.Batlibai. “Book-keeping is the science and art of recording correctly in the books of account all those business transactions of money or money’s worth”. – R.N.Carter.

Question 23.
Give the golden rules of double entry accounting system.
Answer:
The consistency convention implies that

Question 24.
Prepare a Sales account from the following transactions.

Answer:

Question 25.
From the following particulars prepare a bank Reconciliation Statement of Mr. Kumar as on 31.12.2016.
(a) Balance as per cash book ₹ 7,130
(b) Cheque deposited but not cleared ₹ 1,000
(c) A customer has deposited ₹ 800 into the hank directly
Answer:

Question 26.
What are compensating errors?
Answer:
The errors that make up for each other or neutralize each other are known as compensating errors. These errors may occur in related or unrelated accounts. Thus, excess debit or credit in one account may be compensated by excess credit or debit in some other account. These are also known as offsetting errors.

Question 27.
Calculate the amount of depreciation under Straight Line Method.
Cost of the Asset ₹ 1,00,000
Estimated Residual Value ₹ 5,000
Expected useful life 5 years.
Answer:

Question 28.
Name any two direct expenses.
Answer:
Direct expenses:

1. Carriage inwards or freight inwards
2. Wages

Question 29.
What are adjusting entries?
Answer:
Adjustment entries are the journal entries made at the end of the accounting period to account for items which are omitted in trial balance and to make adjustments for outstanding and prepaid expenses and revenues accrued and received in advance.

Question 30.
Mr. Babu, a sole proprietor whose Income Tax for the year 2017 – 2018 ₹ 40,000 is paid by the business. Give adjusting entry.
Answer:

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory: [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Enumerate the importance of accounting.
Answer:
The importance of accounting is:

• Systematic records: All the transactions of an enterprise which are financial in nature are recorded in a systematic way in the books of accounts.
• Preparation of financial statements: Results of business operations and the financial position of the concern can be ascertained from accounting periodically through the preparation of financial statements.
• Assessment of progress: Analysis and interpretation of financial data can be done to assess the progress made in different areas and to identify the areas of weaknesses.

Question 32.
Write short notes on:
(i) Business Entity Concept
(ii) Going Concern Concept
Answer:
(i) Business Entity Concept
This concept implies that a business unit is separate and distinct from the owner or owners, that is, the persons who supply capital to it. Based on this concept, accounts are prepared from the point of view of the business and not from the owner’s point of view. Hence, the business is liable to the owner for the capital contributed by him/her.

(ii) Going Concern Concept
It is the basic assumption that business is a going concern and will continue its operations for a foreseeable future. Going concern concept influences accounting practices in relation to valuation of assets and liabilities, depreciation of the fixed assets, treatment of outstanding and prepaid expenses and accrued and unearned revenues.

Question 33.
Complete the accounting equation

Answer:

Question 34.
Prepare necessary Ledger accounts in the books of Mr. Rose from the following opening entry.

Answer:

Question 35.
Enter the following transactions in the purchases and sales books of Mr. Suresh, an automobile dealer, for the month of December, 2017.

Answer:

Question 36.
Prepare an analytical petty cash book of Mr. Mohan from the following particulars under imprest system:

Answer:

Question 37.
The trial balance of a trader on 31st December, 2016 shows sundry debtors as ₹ 50,000. Adjustments:
(a) Write off ₹ 1,000 as bad debts
(b) Provide 5% for doubtful debts
(c) Provide 2% for discount on debtors
Show how these items will appear in the profit and loss A/c and balance sheet of the trader.
Answer:

Question 38.
The following are the extracts from the trial balance:

Answer:

Question 39.
Write short notes on:
(i) Hardware
(ii) Software
Answer:
(i) Hardware: The physical components of a computer constitute its hardware. Hardware . consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system.
(ii) Software: A set of programs that form an interface between the hardware and the user of a computer system are referred to as software.

Question 40.
A textile business unit sells some part of its unused land and received the amount.
(i) Can it be considered as normal sale?
(ii) State whether the transaction is of capital or revenue nature and explain.
Answer:
(i) No, it cannot be considered as normal sale because this is capital receipts for that business.
(ii) The transaction is capital receipt because he does a textile business. These some part of its unused land sold and he received the amount for that land. So this is not considered as normal sale.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) For the following transactions, show the effect on accounting equation.
(i) Raja started business with cash – ₹ 40,000
(ii) Opened bank account with a deposit of – ₹ 30,000
(iii) Bought goods from Hari on credit for – ₹ 12,000
(iv) Sold goods worth ₹ 5,500 to Murugan and cash received – ₹ 16,500
(v) Paid electricity charges through net banking – ₹ 500
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Record the following transactions of Vijay Electrical & Co, in its subsidiary books.

Answer:


Note: March 18, Cash transaction so it can not be taken into account.

Question 42.
(a) Pass Journal entries in the books of Brinda who is a dealer in sport materials.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following balances of Rohini, prepare the trial balance as on 31st March, 2018.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Enter the following transactions in a simple cash book of Kunal:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement to find out the bank statement balance as on 31st December, 2017.

Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Enter the following transactions in the three column cash book of Sundaram

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare trading and profit and loss account in the books of Smt. Ramasundari for the year ended 31st December, 2017 and balance sheet as on that date from the following information:

Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Pass journal entries to rectify the following errors located after the preparation of the trial balance. Assume that there exists a suspense account.
(a) The total of sales book was undercast by ₹ 2,000.
(b) The purchase of machinery for ₹ 3,000 was entered in the purchases book.
(c) A credit sale of goods for ₹ 450 to Mathi was posted in his account as ₹ 540.
(d) The purchases returns book was overcast by ₹ 200.
(e) The total of sales book ₹ 1,122 were wrongly posted in the ledger as ₹ 1,222.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following Trial balance of Mr. Raghu, prepare his trading and profit and loss A/c and the balance sheet as 31.12.2016.

Following adjustments are to be made:
(a) Outstanding salaries ₹ 3,000
(b) Closing stock; was valued at ₹ 48,000
(c) Provide, for 5% interest on Capital
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) Sudha manufacturing Company purchased on 1 April 2010, a plant for ₹ 4,50,000 and spent ₹ 50,000 on its installation. After having used it for three years, it was sold for ₹ 3,85,000. Depreciation is to provided every year at the rate of 10% per annum straight line method. Accounts are closed on 31st March every year. Show machinery account.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following details, prepare profit and loss account.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) From the following information, prepare Trading & Profit & Loss A/c and Balance sheet of Mr. Kumar for the year ending 31st December, 2017.

Adjustments:
(a) Closing stock was valued at ₹ 3,900
(b) Carriage inwards prepaid ₹ 250
(c) Rent received in advance ₹ 100
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the three methods of codification with examples.
Answer:
Methods of codification :
(a) Sequential codes:
In sequential code, numbers and/or letters are assigned in consecutive order. These codes are applied primarily to source documents such as cheques, invoices, etc. A sequential code can facilitate document search. For example:

(b) Block codes:
In a block code, a range of numbers is partitioned into a desired number of sub-ranges and each sub-range is allotted to a specific group. In most of the cases of block codes, numbers within a sub-range follow sequential coding scheme, i.e., the numbers increase consecutively. For example:

(c) Mnemonic codes
A mnemonic code consists of alphabets or abbreviations as symbols to codify a piece of information. For example:

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 11 HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 11 HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following tags are called as physical style tags?
(a) <html>, <b>, <br>
(h) <b>, <br>, <u>
(c) <A>, <b>, <i>
(d) <b>, <i>, <u>
Answer:
(d) <b>, <i>, <u>

Question 2.
Which feature is used to call attention to the reader?
(a) Highlight
(b) Bold
(c) Italics
(d) Underline
Answer:
(a) Highlight

Question 3.
The tags <sub> and <sup> used for:
(a) Subject and Super
(b) Subscript and Super
(c) Subject and Superscript
(d) Subscript and Superscript
Answer:
(d) Subscript and Superscript

Question 4.
A named set of certain style of character and number is:
(a) Style
(b) Character
(c) Font
(d) List
Answer:
(a) Style

Question 5.
Pick odd one from the list:
(a) <tr>
(b) <th>
(c) <dh>
(d)<td>
Answer:
(c) <dh>

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Question 7.
Definition list has how many parts?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 8.
A list block can be defined inside another – list Is:
(a) inner List
(b) nested List
(c) outer List
(d) listing List
Answer:
(b) nested List

Question 9.
Read the following statement and choose the correct statement(s):

1. Link in HTML is used to create hyperlinks to web content.
2. IL HREF is abbreviated as Hypertext Markup File.

(a) I is correct
(b) II is correct
(c) I and II is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) I is correct

Question 10.
To create internal link, which of the following attribute should be used?
(a) Link
(b) Name
(c) Local
(d) Inter
Answer:
(b) Name

II. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on

1. <strong>
2. <em>. <strong> Important text:

Answer:
The <strong> tag is a phrase tag. It is used to define important text. This tag displays the text as bold.

<em> – Emphasized text:
The <em> tag is used to emphasize the text. That means, when you use this tag, the text will be in italics.

Question 2.
What is the use of <mark> tag?
Answer:
The <mark> tag is used to highlight the text in HTML. This is also a container tag. Whatever the text given between <mark> and </mark> will be displayed as highlighting with default color (mostly yellow).

Question 3.
Write the following equation as HTML notation: Pd = 25 – Q₂
Answer:
Pd = 25 – Q₂
(or)
<html>
<head>
<title>
The HTML equation is
Pd = 25 – Q₂
<body>
</html>

Question 4.
Write about any two attributes of font tag?
Answer:

1. The face is an attribute to set different font style. The name of a font has multiple words it should be specified within double quote.
2. The size attribute is used to set size of the text. The size can have an absolute value from 1 to 7. These predefined sizes are known as virtual size. Each virtual size is successively 20% larger than the previous one.

Question 5.
What is thematic break?
Answer:
The <hr> (Horizontal Rules) tag, which is known as “Thematic Breaks” separate sections of an HTML document visually. It produces a horizontal line spread across the width of the browser. This is an empty tag, which me the tag has no closing tag.

Question 6.
What is pixel?
Answer:
A pixel is one of the tiny dots that make up the display on computer. Generally, 72 pixels equal to an inch. Pixel is usually referred as points. For example: The code <hr size = 72> display a horizontal line with 1 inch thickness. The default size is 3 pixels.

Question 7.
What are the types of list in HTML?
Answer:
HTML supports three types of lists viz., numbered, unnumbered and definition. These lists are called as Ordered List, Unordered List and Definition List respectively.

Question 8.
How will you define numbered list?
Answer:
Numbered list is created within the tag pair <OL> ….. </QL> tag. The tag <LI> is used to present the list item in the list. Ordered list displays items in a numerical or alphabetical order. Both <OL> and <LI> tags are container tags. But the usual the practice, closing tag </LI> never be used.

III. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write an HTML code to display the following text in exactly the same way as given below:
I am studying Computer Science Application.
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title>HTML CODE in, </Title>
</head>
<body bg color = Blue>
I am studying computer
Science Application
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Briefly explain the attributes of <hr> tag?
Answer:
The <hr> tag having four attributes viz. size, width, noshade and color. These attributes are used to set size, width, 3D appearance and color to the horizontal line respectively. The general syntax of <hr> tag with attributes: <hr size=value width=value noshade, color=color_name/code>

Size:
Thickness of the horizontal line can be changed with size attribute. The size is given in terms of pixels. A pixel is one of the tiny dots that make up the display on computer. Generally, 72 pixels equal to an inch. Pixel is usually referred as points.

Eg: The code <hr size = 72> display a horizontal line with 1 inch thickness. The default size is 3 pixels.

Width:
The width attribute specifies the horizontal width of the rule line. The default rule is drawn across the full width of the browser. The value of the width attribute may be the exact width of the rule in pixel or a certain percentage. Usually, the value of the width is specified as percentage. 100% is the default width.

Eg:
<hr width = 50%> display an half of a horizontal rule line on the browser window. Noshade: The default view of a horizontal rule line is 3D. So, no need to specify the term “noshade” as an attribute with <hr> tag. If you specify the attribute “noshade” turn off 3D view, turns on 2D view. Noshade is a Boolean type attribute.

Color:
The horizontal line is displayed in gray color by default. The color attribute is used to change is default color to desired color. As you learnt already, the value of color either is a color name or color code.

Question 3.
What are the core tags used to create table in HTML?
Answer:
There are five core tags are used to create a . table in HTML. They are,

1. <table> tag is used to create a table.
2. <tr> tag defines table rows
3. <th> tag defined table columns
4. <td> tag is used to specify the data in a cell
5. <caption> tag defines title for the table
6. Apart from these five core tags, <tbody>, <thead> and <tfoot> tags are also used to define and control whole sections of table. All the above tags are container tags.

Question 4.
Write an HTML code to provide hyperlink to https://www.w3schools.com?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> hyperlink </title>
</head>
<body>
<A href = “http://WWW.
W3schools.com”>W3school</A>
</body>
</html>

Question 5.
Difference between <UL> and <OL> tags?
Answer:
Unordered list/ Unordered List(UL):

1. Unordered list is surrounded within
   <UL>….</UL>tags.
2. Each element in the list is defined by <LI> tag.

Numbered List/Ordered List (OL)

1. Ordered list is created within tag pair <OL> …. <OL> tag.
2. The tag <LI> is used to present the list item in the list.

IV. Answer To The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write an HTML code the show the following text?
Answer:

</head>
<body>
<font face = “Arial Black” size = 5 color = “blue”>
<Center> MODERN ATOMIC THEORY </font> </center> <br>
<font face = “Copper plate Gothic Bold” size = 3 color = “blue”>
The findings of modern atomic theory are given as follows: </font> <UL>
<LI> An atom is the smallest particle which takes part in chemical reaction
<LI> An atom is considered to be a divisible particle.
<LI> The atoms of the same element may not be similar in all respects

Eg:
Isotopes (_17. CL³⁵, ₁₇ CL ³⁷)
<LI> The atoms of different elements may be similar in some respects

Eg:
Isobars (₁₈ Ar ⁴⁰, ₂₀ CA ⁴⁰)
</UL>
</body>
</html>

Question 2.
Explain the attributes used with <table> tag in HTML?
Answer:
Attributes of table:
The <table> is a container tag. There are several attributes to improve the layout of the table. They are listed below:

(i) Cellspacing:
It is used to set the space between cells in a table. The value should be in pixels

(ii) Cellpadding:
It is used to set the space between the contents of a cell and its border. The value should be in pixels.

(iii) Border:
Border attribute with <table> tag is used to specify the thickness of the border lines around the table. The value of the border attribute should be a non zero value in pixels. If its value is zero, HTML displays the table without border. The default value is Zero in most the browsers.

(iv) Bordercolor:
It is used to apply the colour to the border lines.

(v) Align:
It is used to set the position of the table within the browser window. Left is the default position. Right or center may be the value of align attribute.

(vi) BGcoter:
It is used to apply background colour to the table.

(vii) Height and Width:
These two attributes are used to specify the height and width of a table in terms of pixels or percentage.

Question 3.
Explain the types of list with suitable HTML code?
Answer:
(i) Numbered List / Ordered List:
Numbered list is created within the tag pair <OL> </OL> tag. The tag <LI> is used to present the list item in the list. Ordered list displays items in a numerical or alphabetical order. Both <OL> and <LI> tags are container tags. But the usual the practice, closing tag </LI> never be used.
An HTML code to demonstrate
Numbered List
<html>
<head>
<title> Number List </title>
</head>
<body>

Un-numbered List / Unordered List:
Unordered lists are often referred as bulleted lists. Instead of numbers, each element in the list has prefixed with a special bullet symbol. Unordered list is surrounded within <UL>……………..</UL> tags. As discussed above, each list element is defined by <LI> tag.

An HTML code to demonstrate Unordered list
<html>
<head>
<title> Unordered List </title>
</head>
<body>
<UL>
<LI> Chennai Govt. Hr. Sec,School,Rotler Street, Chennai 600112.
<LI> Karnakata Sanga Hr. Sec. School, T. Nagar,Chennai 600017. <LI> S.M.B. Jain Hr. Sec. School, T. Nagar,Chennai 600017. <LI> Chennai G Hr. Sec. School, Nungambakkam, Chennai 600034.
<LI> Chennai G Hr. Sec. School, Saidapet West, Chennai 600015
<LI> Santhome Hr. Sec. School, Mylapore, Chennai 600004.
</UL>
</body>
</html>

(iii) Definition List:
Definition list is different from other two types of list. No bullet or number is provided for the list items. In this list type, the list element has two parts.

(a) A definition term
(b) The definition description
Definition list is surrounded within <DL> </DL> tags.
Definition term is presented in between <DT> </DT> tag and
Definition description should be surrounded within <DD> </DD> tag.
<html>
<head>
<title> Definition List </title>
</head>
<body>
<DL>
<DT> HTML: </DT>
<DD> Hyper Text Markup Language </DD>
<DT> Webpage:
<DD> A web page is a document that is suitable for the World Wide Web and web browsers. A web browser displays a web page on a monitor or mobile device. </DD>
</DL>
</body>
</html>

Question 4.
What is Link and explain the types of links?
Answer:
Link in HTML is used to create hyperlinks to web content. Web content may be an HTML document or an external webpage or any multimedia content such as an image, video, audio, animation etc… or even a part of the current document.
(i) Internal Links:
Creating a link to a particular section of the same document is known as Internal Link. To create an internal like, the attribute Name is used along with <A> tag. The Name attribute of <A> tag establish the link to the content within the document.

(ii) External Link:
Establish link with an external web page in known as external linking. It is made possible by providing the URL of the external file in the HREF attribute of <A> tag of the current page.

Question 5.
Write HTML code to create the following table?
Answer:

<html>
<head>
<title> create a Table </title> </head>
<body>
ctable border align = center>
<tr align= center>
<th rowspan = 2>A</th>
<th> B</th>
</tr>
<tr>
<th> C </th>
<th> D </th>
<th> E </th>
</tr>
<tr>
<th rowspan = 2> F </th>
</tr>
<tr>
<th rowspan = 2> G </th>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications HTML – Formatting Text, Creating Tables, List and Links Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is one of the following tag is a phrase tag?
(a) <strong>
(b) <em>
(c) <small>
(d) <big>
Answer:
(a) <strong>

Question 2.
Which tag is used emphasized text?
(a) <strong>
(b) <em>
(c) <small>
(d) <big>
Answer:
(b) <em>

Question 3.
What is the similar tag of <b>?
(a) <strong>
(b) <em>
(c) <small>
(d) <big>
Answer:
(a) <strong>

Question 4.
What is the similar tag of <i>?
(a) <strong>
(b) <em>
(c) <small>
(d) <big>
Answer:
(b) <em>

Question 5.
What is the highlight-and a container tag?
(a) <strong>
(b) <em>
(c) <small>
(d) <mark>
Answer:
(d) <mark>

Question 6.
What is the default colour displayed using <mark>tag?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Green
Answer:
(c) Yellow

Question 7.
Which tag can be used to show the text as strike through style?
(a) <s>…. </s>
(b) <b>…. </b>
(c) <del>…. </del>
(d) <ins>…. </ins>
Answer:
(a) <s>…. </s>

Question 8.
Which tag is used to replaced or deleted text?
(a) <strong>
(b) <em>
(c) <ins>
(d) <del>
Answer:
(d) <del>

Question 9.
Which tag is used non-paragraph text contents can be centered?
(a) <p>
(b) <center>
(c) <em>
(d) <ins>
Answer:
(b) <center>

Question 10.
Which tag is used to change the style, size and colour of text?
(a) <colour>
(b) <size>
(c) <font>
(d) <style>
Answer:
(c) <font>

Question 11.
Which font is usually used for office documents?
(a) Arial
(b) Times New Roman
(c) Arial Black
(d) Bookman Old Style
Answer:
(b) Times New Roman

Question 12.
Which font is generally used for publishing work?
(a) Arial
(b) Times New Roman
(c) Arial Black
(d) Bookman Old Style
Answer:
(a) Arial

Question 13.
Which attribute is used to set different font style?
(a) Colour
(b) Style
(c) Face
(d) Size
Answer:
(c) Face

Question 14.
Which tag is used as thematic breaks?
(a) <font>
(b) <br>
(c) <hr>
(d) <p>
Answer:
(c) <hr>

Question 15.
How many pixel is equal to an inch?
(a) 62
(b) 72
(c) 82
(d) 92
Answer:
(b) 72

Question 16.
What is the default size of the pixel?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 17.
The default view of a horizontal rule line is:
(a) 2D
(b) 3D
(c) no shade
(d) normal
Answer:
(b) 3D

Question 18.
What is the default colour by horizontal line?
(a) Blue
(b) Yellow
(c) Gray
(d) Black
Answer:
(c) Gray

Question 19.
The grid of rows and columns are:
(a) row
(b) column
(c) table
(d) cell
Answer:
(c) table

Question 20.
Which tag is used to define table column?
(a) <tr>
(b) <th>
(c) <td>
(d) <br>
Answer:
(b) <th>

Question 21.
Which tag is used to specify the data in a cell?
(a) <tr>
(b) <th>
(c) <td>
(d) <br>
Answer:
(c) <td>

Question 22.
Which attribute is used to specify the horizontal alignment of content within a cell?
(a) Width
(b) Align
(c) VAlign
(d) Rowspan
Answer:
(b) Align

Question 23.
Which attribute is used to specify the vertical alignment of the contents within a cell?
(a) Width
(b) Align
(c) VAlign
(d) <Rowspan>
Answer:
(c) VAlign

Question 24.
Which attribute is used to specify the width of a cell in terms of pixels or percentage?
(a) Width
(b) Align
(c) VAlign
(d) <Rowspan>
Answer:
(a) Width

Question 25.
Which attribute is used to apply a particular colour to the background of a cell?
(a) Width
(b) VAlign
(c) BG Color
(d) Background
Answer:
(c) BG Color

Question 26.
Which attribute is used to apply an image or picture as background of a cell?
(a) Width
(b) BG Color
(c) Background
(d) Rowspan
Answer:
(c) Background

Question 27.
Which attribute is used to merge two or more cells in a row as a single cell?
(a) Rowspan
(b) Colspan
(c) VAlign
(d) Align
Answer:
(a) Rowspan

Question 28.
Which attribute is used to merge to two or more cells in a column as a single cell?
(a) Rowspan
(b) Colspan
(c) VAlign
(d) Align
Answer:
(b) Colspan

Question 29.
Which attribute is used to set the space between the contents of a cell and its border?
(a) Cellspacing
(b) Cellpading
(c) Align
(d) Height
Answer:
(b) Cellpading

Question 30.
Numbered list is created, the list item is:
(a) Numerical
(b) alphabetical
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) both (a) & (b)

Question 31.
Unordered lists are often referred as:
(a) numerical
(b) alphabetical
(c) bullet symbol
(d) images
Answer:
(c) bullet symbol

Question 32.
Default of bullet style unordered list of elements are:
(a) solid circle
(b) solid square
(c) solid symbol
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) solid circle

Question 33.
A list block can be defined inside another list is called:
(a) nested list
(b) bulleted list
(c) numerical list
(d) symbol list
Answer:
(a) nested list

Question 34.
Which tag is used to create links along with HREF attributes?
(a) <URL>
(b) <A>
(c) <BR>
(d)<L>
Answer:
(b) <A>

Question 35.
HREF is abbreviated as:
(a) Hypertext Reference
(b) Highertext Reference
(c) Hyper markable Reference
(d) Higher Structure Reference
Answer:
(a) Hypertext Reference

Question 36.
Creating a link to a particular section of the same document is known as:
(a) internal link
(b) external link
(c) URL
(d) HREF
Answer:
(a) internal link

II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define the <big> and <small> tags?
Answer:

1. The <big> tag is used to define the text bigger in size than the normal size. It is often used to call attention a text.
2. The <small> tag is used to define the text smaller than the current size.
3. These two tags are container tags.

Question 2.
Define the <dei> and <ins> tags?
Answer:
The text what you see on browser cannot delete or insert. But you can show a text as deleted or inserted. <del> and <ins> tags are used to markup a segment of text as deleted or inserted respectively. These two tags are container tags. The text what you specify between <del> and </del> will be displayed as strike through. The ‘text you specify between <ins> and </ins> will be shown as underlined.

Question 3.
Define strike through as wrong text?
Answer:
To display a text as wrong text, the <s> tag can be used to show the text as strike through style. The <s> and <del> tags are display the text in similar way. This is also a container tag. The text you specify between <s> and </s> will be display in strike through style.

Question 4.
What is the difference of the Rowspan and Colspan?
Answer:
Rowspan:
Rowspan attribute is used to merge two or more cells in a row as a single cell.

Colspan:
Colspan attribute is used to merge to two or more cells in a column as a single cell.

Question 5.
What is the purpose of center tag?
Answer:
Paragraphs can be centered with Align attribute with <p> tag. But for non-paragraph text contents can be centered with <center> tag. The <center> tag is used to centralize a segment of text. It is a container tag. That means, what you type between <center> and </cenfer> will be displayed in the center of the browser.

III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain subscript and superscript?
Answer:
Subscript:
A Subscript is a way to display a character or a number below the normal line of type. For example: The scientific notation for water is H₂O. It should be written as H₂O.
Here, 2 is appearing below the normal line. This is called subscript.

Superscript:
A Superscript is also a way to show a character or a number above the normal line of type. For example: The familiar algebra equation “a plus b the whole square” should be written as (a+b)². Here, the square value 2 is appearing above the normal line. This is called superscript. Usually, the subscript and the superscript character or number is smaller than the rest of the text.

In HTML, the <sub> and <sup> tags are used to create subscript and superscripts respectively. As like as other formatting tags, this is also a container tag.

Question 2.
Tabulate the usage of the following tags. <b>, <\>, <u>, <s>, <strong>, <em>, <ins> and <del>?
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the use of <font> tag? Explain?
Answer:
The <font> tag is used to change the style, size and color of text. It is also a container tag. It is generally used for changing the appearance of a short segment of text. Before using <font>, you should have the knowledge about fonts.

A font is a named set of certain style of character and number. Each font looks different from other fonts. Generally some fonts are used for specific purpose. For example, Times New Roman is a style of font usually used for preparing office documents.

Arial is another font style which is used for publishing work. Variety of fonts available in internet at free of cost. Generally, a browser shows the contents as default system font setting. Every system has different font setting with another system. The general form of <font> tag with attributes:
<font face= “font_name”
size=value col.or=color_ name / color_code>
Text to be displayed </font>

Question 4.
Write the attributes of ordered list?
Answer:
There are two attributes can be used to customize ordered list, they are

1. Type – changing numbering style
2. Start – changing numbering order.

Type is used to change the number style. The default number style is standard Arabic numerals (1,2,3, …..).

Type value:
1

Numbering style:
Standard Arabic Numerals 1, 2, 3, 4.

Question 6.
Write a html code using sub and sup for H₂O and (a + b)² = a² + 2ab + b²?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Subscript and Superscript </title>
</head>
<body>
The scientific notation of Water is H₂ 0 <br>
(a+b)²=a²+2ab+b²
</body>
</html>

Question 7.
Write a html program for center the text?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Center the text</title>
</head>
<body>
<hl align = center> Thiruvallur </hl>
<center> Thiruvallur was originally known as Thiruvallur which specifies the sleeping position of the holy lord <b> “Balaji” <b>, in the
<b> <u> Veeraragava swamy temple of Thiruvallur.
</b> </u> </center>
</body>
</html>

Question 8.
Write a html program code to change the different font properties?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Changing Font Properties </title>
</head>
<body>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=l color=red> Font Size l</font><br>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=2 color=blue> Font Size 2 </font><br>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=3 color=green> Font Size 3 </font> <br>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=4 color=yellow> Font Size 4 </font> <br>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=5 color=pink> Font Size 5 </font> <br>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=6 color=red> Font Size 6 </font> <br>
<font face=”Arial Black” size=7 color=blue> Font Size 7 </font> <br>
</body>
</html>

Question 9.
Write a html code using OL tag?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Attribute of OL tag </title>
</head>
<body>
<0L type=i start=5>
<LI> Physics
<LI> Chemistry
<LI> Biology
<LI> Botany
<LI> Zoology
</OL>
</body>
</html>

Question 10.
Write an html code using Linking with an external website?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Links </title>
</head>
<body>
<h1 align=center>
Welcome to <br>
<A href = “http://www.tnscert.org”>
State Council of Educational Research and Training;, Tamilnadu </A>
</h1>
</body>
</html>

IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a html program to creating a table?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Creating Table </title>
</head>
<body bgcolor=”PaleGoldenRod”>
<Table border=1>
<Caption> Books and Authors </Caption>

<TR>
<TH> Book </TH>
<TH> Author </TH>
<TH> Publisher </TH>

</TR>
<TR>
<TD> Foxpro 2.5 </TD>
<TD> R.K. Taxali </TD>
<TD> BPB Publications </TD>

</TR>
<TR>
<TD> Visual Basic .NET </TD>
<TD> Jeffrey R. Shapiro </TD>
<TD> Tata McGraw Hill </TD>

</TR>
<TR>
<TD> Core Java Vol 1 </TD>
<TD> Horstmann Cornell </TD>
<TD> Pearson </TD>
</TR>
</Table>
</body>
<html>

Question 2.
Write a html coding using table attributes?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Table with Attribute </title>
</head>
<body>
<table cellspacing=5 cellpadding=15 border=4 bordercolor=blue
align=center bgcolor=yellow>
<TR>
<TH> Class </TH>
<TH> Boys </TH>
<TH> Girls </TH></TR>

<TR>
<TD> VI </TD>
<TD> 150 </TD>
<TD> 165 </TD></TR>

<TR>
<TD> VII </TD>
<TD> 146 </TD>
<TD> 151 </TD></TR>

<TR>
<TD> VIII </TD>
<TD> 107 </TD>
<TD> 110 </TD></TR>
</table>
</body>
</html>
<th> Science </th>
<td> 75 </td>
<td> 82 </td>
<td> 65</td>
<td> 96 </td>

</tr>
<tr align=center>
<th> Commerce </th>
<td> 125 </td>
<td> 147 </td>
<td> 118 </td>
<td> 163 </td></tr>
<tr align=center>
<th rowspan=2> XII </th>
<th> Science </th>
<td> 86</td>
<td> 97 </td>
<td> 71</td>
<td> 106 </td></tr>
<tr align=center>
<th> Commerce </th>
<td> 145 </td>
<td> 186 </td>
<td> 130 </td>
<td> 198 </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 3.
What are the attributes of <TD>, <TH> and <TR> tags?
Answer:
(i) Align:
Used to specify the horizontal alignment of content within a cell. Left is the default alignment. Possible values are Right and Center.

(ii) VAlign:
Used to specify the vertical alignment of the contents within a cell. Bottom is the default alignment. Possible values are Top and Middle

(iii) width:
Used to specify the width of a cell in terms of pixels or percentage.

(iv) BGcolor and Background:
Bgcolor attribute is used to apply a particular colour to the background of a cell.Background attribute is used to apply an image or picture as background of a cell.

(v) Rowspan and Colspan:
Rowspan attribute is used to merge two or more cells in a row as a single cell. Colspan attribute is used to merge to two or more cells in a column as a single cell.

Question 4.
Write a suitable html code of the attributes <tr>, <th> and <td> tags?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Attributes of td, tr and th tags </title>
</,head>
<body>
<table border align=center>
<Caption> Govt. Hr. Sec. School, Mullai Nagar, Thiruvallur
<tr>
<th colspan=6> Boys and Girls Strength during 2016-17 and 2017-18 </th>
</tr>
<tr align=center>
<th rowspan=2> Class </th>
<th rowspan=2> Group </th>
<th colspan=2 bgcolor=silver> 2016 – 17 </th>
<th colspan=2 bgcolor=gray> 2017 – 18 </th>
</tr>
<tr>
<th bgcolor=yellow> Boys </th>
<th bgcolor=pink> Girls </th>
<th bgcolor=yellow> Boys </th>
<th bgcolor=pink> Girls </th>
</tr>
<tr align=center>
<th rowspan=2> XI </th>
<th> Science </th>
<td> 75 </td>
<td> 82 </td>
<td> 65</td>
<td> 96 </td>
</tr>
<tr align=center>
<th> Commerce </th>
<td> 125 </td>
<td> 147 </td>
<td> 118 </td>
<td> 163 </td>
</tr>
<tr align=center>
<th rowspan=2> XII </th>
<th> Science </th>
<td> 86</td>
<td> 97 </td>
<td> 71</td>
<td> 106 </td>
</tr>
<tr align=center>
<th> Commerce </th>
<td> 145 </td>
<td> 186 </td>
<td> 130 </td>
<td> 198 </td>
</tr>
</table>
</body>
</html>

Question 5.
Write an html code to nested lists?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Nested List </title>
</head>
<body>
<OL>
<LI> Districts of Tamilnadu <UL type=A>
<LI> Chennai <LI> Madurai <LI>
Coimbatore
</UL>
<LI> District of Kerala <UL type=A>
<LI> Thiruvananthapuram <LI> Palakkad <LI> Idukki
<UL>
</OL>
<body>
<html>

Question 6.
Write an html code to linking with multiple pages?
Answer:
<html>
<head>
<title> Linking two pages </ title>
</head>
<body>
<h2> Applications of OpenOffice </h2>
<ul>
<LI> <A href=writer. htm> OpenOffice Writer </A>
<LI> <A href=calc.htm> OpenOffice Calc </A>
<LI> <A href=impress. htm> OpenOffice Impress </A> </ul>
</body>
</html>

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

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TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer .
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Opening statement of affairs is usually prepared to find out the _________.
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year
(b) Capital at the end of the year
(c) Profit made during the year
(d) Loss occurred during the year
Answer:
(a) Capital in the beginning of the year

Question 2.
The excess of assets over liabilities is ________.
(a) Loss
(b) Cash
(c) Capital
(d) Profit
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 3.
Balance of Receipts and payments account indicates the ________.
(a) Loss incurred during the period
(b) Excess of income over expenditure of the period
(c) Total cash payments during the period
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date
Answer:
(d) Cash and bank balance as on the date

Question 4.
Income and expenditure account is a ________.
(a) Nominal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Personal A/c
(d) Representative personal account
Answer:
(a) Nominal A/c

Question 5.
As per the Indian Partnership Act 1932, the rate of interest allowed to an loan advanced by partners is ______.
(a) 8% p.a.
(b) 12%p.a.
(c) 5%p.a.
(d) 6% p.a.
Answer:
(d) 6% p.a.

Question 6.
Which of the following is shown in profit and loss appropriation account _______.
(a) Office expenses
(b) Salary of staff
(c) Partners salary
(d) Interest on bank loan
Answer:
(c) Partners salary

Question 7.
The average rate of return of similar concerns is considered as _______.
(a) Average profit
(b) Normal rate of return
(c) Expected rate of return
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Normal rate of return

Question 8.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Super profit = Total profit/Number of years
(b) Super profit = weighted profit/Number of years
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
(d) Super profit = Average profit x years of purchase
Answer:
(c) Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit.

Question 9.
The profit or loss on revaluation of assets and liabilities is transferred to capital account of ________.
(a) The old partners
(b) The new partners
(c) All the partners
(d) The sacrificing partners
Answer:
(a) The old partners

Question 10.
If the old profit sharing ratio is more than the new profit sharing ratio of a partner, the difference is called ______.
(a) Capital ratio
(b) Sacrificing ratio
(c) Gaining ratio
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sacrificing ratio

Question 11.
On retirement of a partner, general reserve is transferred to the _______.
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Revaluation A/c
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) Memorandum of revaluation account
Answer:
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 12.
On revaluation, the increase in liabilities leads to __________.
(a) Gain
(b) Loss
(c) profit
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Loss

Question 13.
At the time of forfeiture, share capital account is debited with ________.
(a) Face Value
(b) Nominal Value
(c) Paid up amount
(d) Called up amount
Answer:
(d) Called up amount

Question 14.
After the forfeited shares are reissued, the balance in the forfeited shares account should be transferred to ________.
(a) General reserve A/c
(b) Capital reserve A/c
(c) Securities premium A/c
(d) Surplus A/c
Answer:
(b) Capital reserve A/c

Question 15.
Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to several years are to be analyzed _______.
(a) Cash flow statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Trend analysis
Answer:
(d) Trend analysis

Question 16.
The financial statements do not exhibit _______.
(a) Non-monetary data
(b) Past-data
(c) Short term data
(d) Long-term data
Answer:
(a) Non-monetary data

Question 17.
Current assets excluding inventory and prepaid expenses is called ________.
(a) Reserves
(b) Tangible assets
(c) Funds
(d) Quick assets
Answer:
(d) Quick assets

Question 18.
Debt-equity ratio is a measure of ________.
(a) Short-term solvency
(b) Long-term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
Answer:
(b) Long-term solvency

Question 19.
Which sub-menu displays groups, ledgers and voucher types in tally?
(a) Inventory vouchers
(b) Accounting vouchers
(c) Company info
(d) Account info
Answer:
(d) Account info

Question 20.
What are the predefined ledgers in tally?
(i) cash (ii) Profit and loss A/c (iii) Capital A/c
(a) only (i)
(b) only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Define single entry system.
Answer:
According to Kolher, “Single entry system is a system of book-keeping in which as a rule, only records of cash and personal accounts are maintained. It is always incomplete double entry system varying with circumstances”.

Question 22.
From the following receipts and payments and the additional information given, Calculate amount of subscription to be shown in income and expenditure a/c for year ended 31.12.18.

Additional information :
Subscription outstanding for 2018 ₹ 8,000.
Answer:

Question 23.
Define partnership.
Answer:
According to section 4 of the Indian Partnership Act 1932, partnership is defined as, “the relation between persons who have agreed to share the profits of a business carried by all or any of them acting for all”.

Question 24.
The Profits and losses of a firm for the last four years were as follows:
2015 – ₹ 20,000
2016 – ₹ 25,000
2017 – ₹ 3,000 (Loss)
2018 – ₹ 18,000
you are required to calculate goodwill on the basis of 5 years purchase of average profit of last 4 years.
Answer:
Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase

Goodwill= Average profit × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 15,000 × 5
= ₹ 75,000

Question 25.
A and B are partners of a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio 5:3. They admit C on 1.1.2018. On that date, balance sheet showed accumulated profit of? 80,000 on the liabilities side. Give the journal entry.
Answer:

Question 26.
What is the journal entry to be passed to transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor of the deceased partner?
Answer:
To transfer the amount due to the deceased partner to the executor or legal representative of the deceased partner.

Question 27.
What is meant by calls-in-arrear?
Answer:
When a share holder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or on calls, the amount remaining unpaid is known as calls-in-arrear. In other words, the amount called up but not paid is calls-in-arrears.

Question 28.
Calculate gross profit ratio from the following: revenue from operations ₹ 5,00,000; cost of revenue from operations ₹ 4,20,000; and purchases ₹ 3,60,000.
Answer:
Gross profit Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Gross profit }}{\text { Revenue from operations }} \times 100\)
Gross profit Revenue from operation – cost of revenue from operation
₹ 5,00,000 – ₹ 4,20,000
= ₹ 80,000
Gross profit ratio = \(\frac{80000}{500000} \times 100\)
= 16%

Question 29.
Calculate Quick Ratio from the following information: Current assets – 8,00,000; Current liabilities- ₹ 4,00,000; Inventories ₹ 1,40,000; and prepaid expenses ₹ 60,000.
Answer:
Quick Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Quick Assets }}{\text { Current liabilities }}\)
Quick assets = Current assets – Inventories – Prepaid expenses
= ₹ 8,00,000 – (1,40,000 – 60,000)
= ₹ 6,00,000
∴ Quick ratio = \(\frac{600000}{400000}\) = 6:4 = 3:2 = 1.5:1

Question 30.
What is computerised accounting system?
Answer:

• Computerised accounting system refers to the system of accounting maintenance using computer.
• It involves the processing of accounting transactions through the use of computer in order to maintain and produce accounting records and reports.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
From the following particulars, ascertain profit or loss.
Capital at beginning – ₹ 5,00,000
Capital at end – ₹ 8,50,000
Additional capital – ₹ 1,20,000
Drawing during the year – ₹ 70,000
Answer:

Question 32.
From the following information of club, show the amount of match expenses in financial statements of the club for the year ended 31.03.2016.
Matches expenses 31.03.16 – ₹ 30,000
Match fund – ₹ 17,000
Donations for match fund (31.03.16) – ₹ 9,000
Proceeds from the sale of match tickets – ₹ 3,000
Answer:

Note:
Match expenses of ₹ 30,000 out of which ₹ 29,000 are met through match fund as per the availability of fund remaining. ₹ 1,000 is debited to income and expenditure A/c.

Question 33.
Prakash and Supriya were partners who share profit and losses in the ratio 5:3. Capital ₹ 3,00,000 for Prakash ₹ 2,00,000 for Supriya. On 1^st April 2018, Prakash introduced additional capital ₹ 60,000 on 1^st July 2018. Supriya introduced additional capital ₹ 30,000 during the year. Calculate the interest on capital at 6% p.a.
Answer:
Calculation of interest on capital

Note:
Date of additional capital introduced by Supriya is not given. Interest on additional capital is calculated for an average period of 6 months.

Question 34.
From the following information relating to a partnership firm, find out the value of its goodwill based on 3 years purchase of average profits of last 4 years.
a) Profits of the year 2015, 2016, 2017 and 2018 are ₹ 10,000, ₹ 12,500; ₹ 12,000 and ₹ 11,500, respectively.
b) The business was looked after by a partner and fair remuneration amount to ₹ 1,500 per year. This amount was not considered in the calculation of the above profit.
Answer:

Goodwill = Average profit × No. of years of purchase
= 10,000 × 3
Goodwill = ₹ 30,000

Question 35.
A, B and C are partners sharing profit and losses with ratio of 5:3:2. As from 1^st April 2017, D is admitted into the partnership and new profit sharing ratio of 4:3:2:1.
(i) Increase the value of premises by ₹ 60,000
(ii) Depreciate stock by ₹ 5,000; furniture by ₹ 2,000 and machinery by ₹ 2,500.
(iii) Provide an outstanding liability of ₹ 500. Pass journal entries.
Answer:

Question 36.
Kavitha, Kumudha and Lalitha are partners with profit shares ratio of 5:3:3. Kumudha retires from the firm on 31.12.18. On the date of retirement her capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 2,00,000. Pass journal entries.
(i) The amount due is paid off immediately
(ii) The amount due is not paid immediately
(iii) ₹ 70,000 is paid and balance in future
Answer:

Question 37.
The directors of a company forfeited 200 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully called up on which final call of ₹ 2/- has not been paid. The shares were reissued upon payment of ₹ 1,500. Journalise the above transaction.
Answer:

Question 38.
From the following particulars, prepare comparative income statement of Arul Ltd.

Answer:

Question 39.
From the following particulars, calculate current ratio, and liquid ratio.
Cash Rs – 18,000; Bills payable – 27,000; Bank O/D – 5,000; Debtors Rs – 1,42,000; creditors – 1,20,000; Stock Rs – 1,80,000; outstanding expenses – 15,000.
Answer:
(a) Current Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Current Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}\)
Current Assets = Cash + Debtor + Stock
= 18,000+ 1,42,000+ 1,80,000
= ₹ 3,40,000
Current liabilities = Bills payable + Creditors + Outstanding expenses
= 27,000+ 1,20,000+ 15,000+ 5,000
= ₹ 1,67,000
(b) Liquid ratio = \(\frac{\text { Liquid Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}\)
Liquid Assets = Current Assets – Closing stock
= 3,00,000 – 1,80,000 = ₹ 1,60,000
∴ Liquid ratio = \(\frac{160000}{167000}\) = 96 : 1

Question 40.
What are the pre-defined ledgers available in Tally ERP.9?
Answer:
In Tally, to record transactions, the transactions are to be identified with the related ledger accounts.
In tally ERP.9, there are two types of pre-defined ledgers.
(i) Cash:
Under the group cash in hand, this ledger is created. You can enter the opening balance as on the books beginning from.
(ii) Profit and loss account:
This ledger is created under the group primary. In this ledger, previous year’s profit or loss is entered as the opening balance of this ledger.
To create ledger,
Gateway of Tally → Masters → Accounts Info → Ledgers → Single Ledger → Create.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Raju does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.

He introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 withdrew ₹ 2500/- per month. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.
Answer:
Calculation of opening capital:

Calculation of closing capital:

[OR]

(b) From the following particulars, calculate total sales

Answer:


Total sales = Cash sales + Credit sales
= ₹ 3,15,000 + ₹ 9,85,000
= ₹ 13,00,000

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments account information given below of Madurai sports club, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31.12.18 and balance sheet.
Answer:

Additional informations:
(i) Capital fund as on 1st January 2018, ₹ 30,000
(ii) Opening stock of sports materials ₹ 3,000 and closing stock of sports material ₹ 5,000
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Following is the receipts and payments A/c of Salem recreation club for the year ended 31^st March 2019.


Additional Information:
(i) There are 450 members each paying annual subscription of ₹ 30
(ii) Stock of stationery on 31^st March 2018, ₹ 300 and 31^st March 2019, ₹ 500
(iii) Capital fund as on 1^st April 2018 was ₹ 9,300
Prepare income and expenditure A/c for the year ended 31^st March 2019 and balance sheet as on that date.
Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Santhosh is a partner in a partnership firm. As per deed, interest on drawing is charged at 6% p.a. During the year ended 31st Dec 2018, he withdrew as follows:

Calculate the amount of interest on drawing by using product method.
Answer:
Calculation of interest on drawings under product method.

Interest on drawings = Sum of product × Rate of interest x \(\frac{1}{12}\)
= ₹ 1,44,000 × \(\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{1}{12}\)
= ₹ 720

[OR]

(b) Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchase of super profits from the following information:
(a) Capital employed: ₹ 60,000
(b) Normal rate of profit: 20%
(c) Net profit for 5 years: 2014 – 1,00,000; 2015 – 50,000; 2016 – 70,000; 2017 – 54,000; 2018 – 10,000.
(d) Fair remuneration to the partners ₹ 3,600 p. a.
Answer:


Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of returns
= ₹ 60,000 × \(\frac{20}{100}\)
= ₹ 12,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 53,200 – 12,000
= ₹ 41,200
Goodwill = Super profit × Numbers of years of purchase
= ₹ 41,200 × 5
= ₹ 2,06,000

Question 44.
(a) Find out the value of goodwill by capitalizing super profit
a) Normal rate of return 10%
b) Profits for the last four years are ₹ 30,000; ₹ 40,000; ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 45,000
c) A non-recurring income of ₹ 3,000 is included in the above mentioned profit of ₹ 30,000
d) Average capital employed is ₹ 3,00,000.
Answer:

Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= ₹ 40,500 – ₹ 30,000
= ₹ 10,500

[OR]

(b) Sundar and Suresh are partners sharing profit ratio of 3:2. Their balance sheet as on 1^st January 2017 was as follows:

They decided to admit Sugumar into partnership for 1/4th share in the profit on the following terms:
(a) Sugumar has to bring in ₹ 30,000 as capital. His share of goodwill is valued at ₹ 5,000. He could not bring cash toward goodwill
(b) That the stock be valued at ₹ 20,000
(c) That the furniture be depreciated by ₹ 2,000.
(d) That the value of building be depreciated by 20%.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) The balance sheet of Rekha and Mary on 31^st March 2018.

Their profit sharing ratio is 3:1. They agreed to admit kavitha into the partnership firm for 1/4th share of profits which she entirely gets from Rekha.
(i) Kavitha has to bring ₹ 20,000 as capital. Her share of goodwill is valued at 4,000. She could not bring cash towards goodwill.
(ii) Depreciate building by 10%
(iii) Stock to be valued at ₹ 6,000
(iv) Create provision for doubtful debts @ 5% on debtors
Prepare necessary ledger accounts and balance sheet after admission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Charles, Muthu and Sekar are partners sharing profits in the ratio 3:4:2. Their balance sheet as on 31^st December 2018 is as under.

On 1.1.2019 Charles retired from the partnership firm on the following arrangements.
(i) Stock to be appreciated by 10%
(ii) Furniture to be depreciated by 5%
(iii) To provide ₹ 1,000 for bad debtors.
(iv) There is an outstanding repair of ₹ 11,000 not yet recorded
(v) The final amount due to Charles was paid.
Prepare revaluation account, capital account and the balance sheet of a firm after retirement.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a) Ramesh, Ravi and Akash are partners who share profits and losses in their capital ratio. Their balance sheet as on 31.12.2017 is as follows.

Akash died on 31. 03. 2018. On the death of Akash the following adjustments are made.
(i) Plant and machinery is to be valued at ₹ 54,000.
(ii) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 24,000.
(iv) Share of profit from the closing of the last financial years to the death of average of the three completed years profit before death. Profit for 2015, 2016 and 2017 were ₹ 66,000; ₹ 60,000 & ₹ 66,000 respectively.
Prepare the necessary ledger accounts and the balance sheet.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) A company issued 10,000 shares of ₹ 20 each a premium of ₹ 5 per share payable ₹ 10/- on application. ₹ 10 on Allotment (including premium) ₹ 5/- on first and final call. The company received 11,000 shares, excess application money was rejected. All money due were received except the final call money on 500 shares. Pass journal entries.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Prepare common size statement of financial position for the following particulars.


Answer:

(b) Calculate turnover ratios from the following information from ‘A’ Ltd.

Additional information:
Revenue from operation for the year 35,00,000
Purchases for the year 21,00,000
Cost of revenue from operations 16,00,000
Assume that sales and purchases are for credit.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which of the following is a coprophilous fungi?
(a) Albugo
(b) Entomophthora
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Pilobolus
Answer:
(d) Pilobolus

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
(b) Golden algae are also called desmids
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
Answer:
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria

Question 3.
After fertilization……………….. modifies into seed.
(a) ovary
(b) ovule
(c) carpel
(d) stigma
Answer:
(b) ovule

Question 4.
DNA bar coding was introduced by………………..
(a) Stebbins
(b) Hebert
(c) Camp & Gilly
(d) Darwin
Answer:
(b) Hebert

Question 5.
Which is the largest of the internal membranes?
(a) Golgi bodies
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Tonoplast
(d) Nuclear membrane
Answer:
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 6.
The chlorophyll pigment found in xanthophycean algae is………………..
(a) Chlorophyll b
(b) Chlorophyll c
(c) Chlorophyll d
(d) Chlorophyll e
Answer:
(d) Chlorophyll e

Question 7.
The term Auxin was first used by ………………..
(a) Kogl.Smith
(b) Darwin
(c) F.W. Went
(d) Kurosawa
Answer:
(c) F.W. Went

Question 8.
ABA stands for ………………..
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Acetyl Butyric Acid
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What do you understand by “pinning” of phage?
Answer:
Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phase and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

Question 10.
Which is responsible for pigmentation of Brown algae?
Answer:
A golden brown pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of Phaeophyceae.

Question 11.
Compare the stem nature of Corm and Rhizome.
Answer:
Corm

1. Stem is succulent underground.
2. Presence of erect growing tips.

Rhizome

1. Stem is horizontal underground.
2. Presence of lateral growing tips.

Question 12.
What are axial parenchyma & Ray parenchyma?
Answer:
Parenchyma arranged longitudinally along the long axis is called axial parenchyma. Ray parenchyma is arranged in radial rows.

Question 13.
State the “Law of minimum” proposed by Liebig.
Answer:
The “law of minimum” states that productivity of soil depends on amount of essential elements present in minimum quantity.

Question 14.
What is homoiomerous and heteromerous?
Answer:
In homoiomerous (algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present).

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Distinguish between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:
Prokaryotes :

1. Unicellular
2. Lack membrane bound nuclei
3. Membrane bound organelles are absent Ex: Bacteria Membrane bound organelles are present Ex: Amoeba

Eukaryotes :

1. Unicellular or multicellular
2. Possess well defined nucleus
3. Membrane bound organelles are present Ex: Amoeba

Question 16.
Which types of plants develop tendril? How does it helps the plant?
Answer:
In some plants Stem is very weak and hence they have some special organs for attachment to the support. So some leaves are partially or wholly modified into tendril. Tendril is a slender wiry coiled structure which helps in climbing the support.

Question 17.
Linnaeus classification is also called sexual system of classification. Why?
Answer:
Linnaeus classification is mostly based on sexual characters like number, union, length and distribution of stamens and also on carpel characters. Hence it is called sexual system of classification.

Question 18.
Draw a labeled diagram of T.S. of Dicot leaf.
Answer:

Question 19.
Why TCA cycle is called so?
Answer:
TCA cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate in the presence of water to yield citrate or citric acid. Therefore, it is also known as CitricAcid Cycle (CAC) or Tri Carboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Draw a flow chart depicting the classification of fruits.

[OR]

Draw & describe the structure of Nucleus
Answer:

Nucleus is an important unit of cell which control all activities of the cell. Nucleus holds the hereditary information. It is the largest among all cell organelles.lt may be spherical, cuboidal, ellipsoidal or discoidal. It is surrounded by a double membrane structure called nuclear envelope,which has the inner and outer membrane.

The inner membrane is smooth without ribosomes and the outer membrane is rough by the presence of ribosomes and is continues with irregular and infrequent intervals with the endoplasmic reticulum. The membrane is perforated by pores known as nuclear pores which allows materials such as mRNA, ribosomal units, proteins and other macromolecules to pass in and out of the nucleus.

The pores enclosed by circular structures called annuli. The pore and annuli forms the pore complex. The space between two membranes is called perinuclear space. Nuclear space is filled with nucleoplasm, a gelatinous, matrix has uncondensed chromatin network and a conspicuous nucleoli. The chromatin network is the uncoiled, indistinct and remain thread like during the interphase. It has little amount of RNA and DNA bound to histone proteins in eukaryotic cells.

Question 21.
Explain Ganong’s Potometer experiment and its purpose.
Answer:
Ganongs potometer is used to measure the rate of transpiration indirectly. In this, the amount of water absorbed is measured and assumed that this amount is equal to the amount of water transpired.

Apparatus consists of a horizontal graduated tube which is bent in opposite directions at the ends. One bent end is wide and the other is narrow. A reservoir is fixed to the horizontal tube near the wider end. The reservoir has a stopcock to regulate water flow. The apparatus is filled with water from reservoir. A twig or a small plant is fixed to the wider arm through a split cock.

The other bent end of the horizontal tube is dipped into a beaker containing coloured water. An air bubble is introduced into the graduated tube at the narrow end keep this apparatus in bright sunlight and observe. As transpiration takes place, the air bubble will move towards the twig. The loss is compensated by water absorption through the xylem portion of the twig. Thus, the rate of water absorption is equal to the rate of transpiration.

[OR]

Write in detail about functions, mode of absorption and deficiency symptoms of any five macronutrients.
Answer:

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – A

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic?
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Mastigophora
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sarcodina
Answer:
(a) Sporozoa

Question 2.
Linmulus belongs to class ………………
(a) Orychophora
(b) Insect
(c) Merostomata
(d) Crustacea
Answer:
(c) Merostomata

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
EDV stands for ……………………
(a) End digestion volume
(b) End diastolic volume
(c) End decrease volume
(d) End digestion valve
Answer:
(b) End diastolic volume

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) Vascular disease – A portion of the aortic wall weakens and balloons out, forming an areurysm.
(b) Arrhythmia is a condition in which the heart beats irregularly.
(c) Coronoray heart disease – An inflammation of one or more layers of the pericardium a thin membrane that lines the heart.
(d) Heart failure – blocked or clogged arteries linut blood flow to the heart.
Answer:
(b) Arrhythmia is a condition in which the heart beats irregularly.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) The excretory cells of platyhelminthes is solenocytes.
(b) Metanephridia are the tubular excretory structures in annelids and molluscs.
(c) Malphighian tubules are the excretory structures in most insects.
(d) Nematodes have rencttc cells.
Answer:
(a) The excretory cells of platyhelminthes is solenocytes.

Question 7.
What is formed by the bones of pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle and limbs?
(a) Body skeleton
(b) External skeleton
(c) Axial skeleton
(d) Appendicular skeleton
Answer:
(d) Appendicular skeleton

Question 8.
Ca⁺ metabolism is regulated by …………….
(a) ACTH
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Parathormone
(d) Epinephrine
Answer:
(c) Parathormone

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why are molecular tools used now to study taxonomy?
Answer:
Molecular tools are accurate and authentic. Hence they are used to study taxonomy.

Question 10.
What is bilateral symmetry?
Answer:
The symmetry in which the animals have to similar halves on either side of the central place in bilateral symmetry’, eg. Flatworms, annelids.

Question 11.
What are urochordates?
Answer:
The Chordates which have notochord only in the tail region of the larval stage are called urochordates. eg. Axidian.

Question 12.
Define Assimilation.
Answer:
The conversion of absorbed food materials into components of cells is called assimilation.

Question 13.
Draw the diagram of Acoelomate flatworms.
Answer:

Question 14.
What is amoeboid movement?
Answer:
The movement of cells by streaming movements of the cytoplasm forming pseudo-podia is known as amoeboid movement, e.g. Macrophages.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What are the characteristics of platyhelminthes?
Answer:
They have a dorsoventrally flattened body and hence called flatworms. These animals are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, acoelomate with organ system level of organisation. They show moderate cephalization and unidirectional movement. They are, mostly endoparasites of animals including human beings. Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms and serve as organs of attachment. Their body is not segmented, but some exhibit pseudosegmentation.

Question 16.
Distinguish between true ribs and false ribs.
Answer:
True ribs : The first seven pairs of ribs are called ‘true ribs’ or vertebro-stemal ribs. Dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilages.
False ribs: The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but joined with the cartilaginous (hyaline cartilage) part of the seventh rib. These are called ‘false ribs’ or vertebro-chondral ribs.

Question 17.
Explain palmaris muscle.
Answer:
Palmaris muscle is a long narrow muscle runs from the elbow to the wrist and is important for hanging and climbing in primates. It is a muscle visible as a small tendon between the ” flexor carpi radialis and the flexor carpi ulnaris, although it is not always present. It is one of five muscles that act at the wrist joint.

Question 18.
What are the types of cultivable fish.
Answer:
Cultivable fish are of 3 types

1. Indigenous or native fresh water fishes (Major carps, Catla, Labeo, Clarias).
2. Salt water fishes acclimatized for fresh water (Chanos, Mullet).
3. Exotic fishes are imported from other counties (Common carps).

Question 19.
Draw the diagram of metamorphosis of frog.
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the three domains of life.
Answer:
Three domain classification was proposed by Carl Woese (1977) and his co-workers.They classified organisms based on the difference in 16S rRNA genes. The three domain system adds the taxon ‘domain’ (ugher than the kingdom. This system emphasizes the separation of Prokaryotes into two domains, Bacteria and Arachaea, and all the eukaryotes are placed into the domain Eukarya.

Archaea appears to have more in common with the Eukarya than the Bacteria. Archaea differ from bacteria in cell wall composition and differs from bacteria and eukaryotes in membrane composition and rRNA types.

1. Domain Archaea
This domain includes single celled organisms, the prokaryotes which have the ability to grow in extreme conditions like volcano vents, hot springs and polar ice caps, hence are also called extremophiles. They are capable of synthesizing their food without sunlight and oxygen by utilizing hydrogen sulphide and other chemicals from the volcanic vents. Some of the them produced methane (methanogens), few live in salty environments (Halophiles) and are thermoacidophiles which thrive in acidic environments and at high temperatures.

2. Domain Bacteria
Bacteria are prokaryotic, their cells have no definite nucleus and DNA exists as a circular chromosomes and do not have histones associated with it. They do not possess membrane bound organelles except for ribosome (70S type). Their cell wall contains peptidoglycans. Many are decomposers, some are photo-synthesizers and few cause diseases.

There are beneficial probiotic bacteria and harmful pathogenic bacteria which are diversely populated. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic blue green algae which produce oxygen. These had played a key role in the changes of atmospheric oxygen levels from anaerobic to aerobic during the early geologic periods.

3. Domain Eukarya (Eukaryotes)
Eukaryotes are animals which have true nucleus and membrane bound organelles.DNA in the nucleus is arranged as a linear chromosome with histone proteins, ribosomes of 80S type in the cytosol and 70S type in the chloroplast and mitochondria.Animals in this domain are classified under kingdoms, namely, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

[OR]

Write an essay on Neural tissue. Draw the diagram and label the parts.
Answer:
Nervous tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions. Neurons, the unit of neural system are excitable cells.The neuroglial cells which constitute the rest of the neural system protect and support the neurons. Neuroglia makes up more than one-half of the volume of neural tissue in our body.

When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its plasma membrane. Arrival of the disturbance at the neuron’s endings, or output zone, triggers events that may cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons and other cells.

Question 21.
What are joints? Explain the types of joints.
Answer:
Joints are essential for all types of movements performed by the bony parts of the body. The joints are points of contact between bones.
Sometimes they are playing a protective role in the process. Force generated by the muscles are used to carry out the movement through joints which helps human functional activity of daily living and ambulation. The joint acts as a fulcrum of a lever.
(i) Fibrous joints or Synarthroses:
They are immovable fixed joints in which no movement between the bones is possible. Sutures of the flat skull bones are fibrous joints.

(ii) Cartilaginous joints or Amphiarthroses:
They are slightly movable joints in which the joint surfaces are separated by a cartilage and slight movement is only possible. E.g., Joints of adjacent vertebrae of the vertebral column.

(iii) Synovial joints or Diarthroses joints:
They are freely movable joints, the articulating bones are separated by a cavity which is filled with synovial fluid. Examples,
Pivot joint – between atlas and axis
Plane/gliding joint – between the carpals
Saddle joint – between the carpal and metacarpal
Ball and socket joint – between humerus and pectoral girdle
Hinge joint – knee joint
Condyloid or Angular or Ellipsoid -joint between radius and carpal.

[OR]

Tabulate the major hypothalamic hormones and their functions.
The major hypothalamic hormones and their functions:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Six kingdom classification was proposed by ………………………
(a) Haeckel
(b) Copeland
(c) Woese
(d) Cavalier-Smith
Answer:
(d) Cavalier-Smith

Question 2.
Clasping roots are also called as ………….
(a) pillar
(b) stilt
(c) clinging
(d) buttress
Answer:
(c) clinging

Question 3.
The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to ………………………
(a) endosperm
(b) endocarp
(c) mesocarp
(d) embryo
Answer:
(a) endosperm

Question 4.
The first botanical garden was established and maintained by………………………
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Babylonians
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Stebbins
Answer:
(c) Theophrastus

Question 5.
The DNA protein complex present in the centromere is………………………
(a) Cyclin
(b) Kinesis
(c) MPF
(d) Kinetochore
Answer:
(d) Kinetochore

Question 6.
In cucurbitaceae, the vascular bundles are………………………
(a) Bicollateral
(b) Collateral closed
(c) Concentric
(d) Radial
Answer:
(a) Bicollateral

Question 7.
Which of the following performs anaerobic photosynthesis?
(a) Green sulphur bacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Purple sulphur bacteria
(d) Green filamentous bacteria
Answer:
(b) Cyanobacteria

Question 8.
Identify the day neutral plants.
(a) Pea
(b) Wheat
(c) Tomato
(d) Soyabean
Answer:
(c) Tomato

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What are Archaebacteria?
Answer:
Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity and low pH. e.g., Thermoplasma.

Question 10.
What is root cap? Mention its role.
Answer:
Root tip is covered by a dome shaped parenchymatous cells called root cap. It protects the meristematic cells in the apex.

Question 11.
What do you understand by the term “Pomology”?
Answer:
The branch of horticulture that deals with the study of fruits and their cultivation is called pomology.
Classify plastids based on storage & mention their storage component.

Question 12.
Classify plastids based on storage & mention their storage component.
Answer:

Question 13.
Which meristem is responsible for secondary growth in dicots? Mention its types.
Answer:
Secondary growth in dicots is the responsibility of lateral meristems. They are vascular cambium and cork cambium.

Question 14.
Give an account of Xanthophylls.
Answer:
Yellow (C₄₀H₅₆O₂) pigments are like carotenes but contain oxygen. Lutein is responsible for yellow colour change of leaves during autumn season. Examples: Lutein, Violaxanthin and Fucoxanthin.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Point out the demerits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:

• The kingdom Monera and Protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous.
• Viruses were not included in the system.

Question 16.
How the leaf hooks helps the Bignonia plant?
Answer:
In cat’s nail (Bignonia unguiscati) an elegant climber, the terminal leaflets become modified into three, very sharp, stiff and curved hooks, very much like the nails of a cat. These hooks cling to the bark of a tree and act as organs of support for climbing.

Question 17.
List out the properties of Water.
Properties of Water :

• Adhesion and cohesion property
• High latent heat of vaporisation
• High melting and boiling point
• Universal solvent
• Specific heat capacity

Question 18.
Draw the stoma with dumb-bell shaped guard cell.
Answer:

Question 19.
Define the term “Translocation of organic solutes”.
Answer:
The phenomenon of food transportation from the site of synthesis to the site of utilization is known as translocation of organic solutes. The term solute denotes food material that moves in a solution.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Describe the salient features of Phaeophyceae members.
Answer:

1. Phaeophyceae commonly called as Brown algae.
2. Majority are marine habitats. Pleurocladia is a fresh water form.
3. Thallus may be filamentous, frond-like or giant kelps.
4. Thallus is differentiated into photosynthetic part-frond, stalk-like structure-stipe and a holdfast for attachment.
5. Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘c’, carotenoids and Xanthophylls are photosynthetic pigments.
6. A golden brown fucoxanthin pigment gives olive green to brown colour.
7. Mannitol and Laminarin starch is the storage material.
8. Motile spores with unequal flagella (one whiplash and one tinsel) are present.
9. Oogamous is the major type of sexual reproduction. Isogamy is also seen.
10.  Alternation of generation is seen. Example: Sargassum, Fucus, Laminaria and Dictyota.

[OR]

Compare Transmission Electron Microscope with Scanning Electron Microscope.
Answer:

Question 21.
Compare photosynthesis in plants & bacteria.
Answer:
Photosynthesis in Plants :

1. Cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylation takes place.
2. Photosystem I and II involved.
3. Electron donor is water.
4. Oxygen is evolved.
5. Reaction centres are P700 and P680.
6. Reducing agent is NADPH + H⁺.
7. PAR is 400 to 700 nm.
8. Chlorophyll, carotenoid and xanthophyll.
9. Photosynthetic apparatus – chloroplast.

Photosynthesis in Bacteria :

1. Only cyclic phosphorylation takes place.
2. Photosystem I only involved.
3. Electron donor is H₂S.
4. Oxygen is not evolved.
5. Reaction centre is P870.
6. Reducing agent is NADPH + H⁺.
7. PAR is above 700 nm.
8. Bacterio chlorophyll and bacterio viridin.
9. It is chlorosomes and chromatophores.

[OR]

Explain the physiological effect of Ethylene.
Answer:

• Ethylene stimulates respiration and ripening in fruits.
• It stimulates radial growth in stem and root and inhibits linear growth.
• It breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs.
• It stimulates formation of abscission zone in leaves, flowers and fruits. This makes the leaves to shed prematurely.
• Inhibition of stem elongation (shortening the intemode).
• In low concentration, ethylene helps in root initiation.
• Growth of lateral roots and root hairs. This increases the absorption surface of the plant roots.
• The growth of fruits is stimulated by ethylene in some plants. It is more marked in climacteric fruits.
• Ethylene causes epinasty.

Bio-Zoology

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Uricotelisum is found in ……….
(a) Mammals and birds
(b) Birds, reptiles and insects
(c) Fishes and fresh water protozons
(d) Frogs and toads
Answer:
(b) Birds, reptiles and insects

Question 2.
Bone cells are called as …………..
(a) Neurons
(b) Osteoblasts
(c) Epithelial cells
(d) Chondrocytes
Answer:
(b) Osteoblasts

Question 3.
SA-node stands for ………………
(a) Sinoatrial node
(b) Systolic atrial node
(c) Systemic atrial node
(d) Sino aorta node
Answer:
(a) Sinoatrial node

Question 4.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Polyp forms are free living
(b) Medusa forms are sessile
(c) Medusa produces gametes
(d) Polyp reproduces sexually
Answer:
(c) Medusa produces gametes

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is in incorrect with regard to ecosystem?
(a) It includes living and non-living things
(b) It shows interrelationship among living things
(c) It shows interrelationship among living and non-living things
(d) It has a large number of species
Answer:
(b) It shows interrelationship among living things

Question 7.
What is Nissl’s granule consist of ?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c ) Protein
(d) Lipid
Answer:
(c ) Protein

Question 8.
Ranikhet, coccidiosis and Fowl pox are ………………..
(a) Chicken breeds
(b) Types of poultry forming
(c) Poultry diseases
(d) Types of breeding methods
Answer:
(c) Poultry diseases

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What are diploblastic animals?
Answer:
The animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the ectoderm and endoderm are called diploblastic animals.

Question 10.
Define Hermaphrodite.
Answer:
Hermaphrodite are animals with both male and female reproductive organs.

Question 11.
Difference between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle.
Answer:
Skeletal muscle:

1. Skeletal muscle are voluntary muscles
2. Skeletal muscle are attached to the skeleton

Cardiac muscle :

1. Cardiac muscle are involuntary muscles
2. Cardiac muscles are attached to the heart.

Question 12.
How do we calculate BMI?
Answer:
Degree of obesity is assessed by body mass index (BMI). A normal BMI range for adult is 19-25; above 25 is considered as obese. BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg, divided by the square of body height in meters. For example, a 50 Kg person with a height of 160 cms would have a BMI of 19.5.
That is BMI = 50/1.6² = 19.5

Question 13.
Draw the diagram of Rana hexadactyla.
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the functions of frontal lobe?
Answer:
The frontal lobe governs the Behaviour, Intelligence, Memory and Movement.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Define five kingdom classification of Whittaker.
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed the five kingdom classification. They included Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. He classified organisms based on cell structure, nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Oviparous and Viviparous animals.
Question
Oviparous animals

1. The egg laying animals are known as Oviparous animals.
2. They make contain yolk for embryonic development, eg.

Viviparous animals

1. The animals which give birth to young ones are called Viviparous animals.
2. Birds The developing embryo derives nutrients from the parent, eg. Man

Question 17.
Label the given diagram.
Answer:

Question 18.
Define Isinglass.
Answer:
Isinglass is a high-grade collagen produced from dried air bladder or swim bladder of certain fishes. Viz. Catfish and carps. The processed bladder which is dissolved in hot water forms a gelatin having adhesive property. It is primarily used for classification of wine, beer and vinegar.

Question 19.
Write the symptoms of cretinism.
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyrodisim in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms:

1. Retarded skeletal growth
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Bloated face

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the classification of animal tissues.
Answer:

[OR]

What are the disorders of the respiratory system?
Answer:
Respiratory system is highly affected by environmental, occupational, personal and social factors. These factors may be responsible for a number of respiratory disorders. Some of the disorders are discussed here.

Asthma-It is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles and difficulty in breathing.Common allergens for asthma are dust, drugs, pollen grains, certain food items like fish, prawn and certain fruits etc.

Emphysema- Emphysema is chronic breathlessness caused by gradual breakdown of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of a gaseous exchange, i.e., widening of the alveoli is called emphysema. The major cause for this disease is cigarette smoking, which reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls.

Bronchitis-The branch? when it gets inflated due to pollution smoke and cigarette smoking, causes bronchitis. The symptoms are cough, shortness of breath and sputum in the lungs.

Pneumonia-Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or vims is called pneumonia. The common symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc.

Tuberculosis-Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculae. This infection mainly occurs in the lungs and bones.Collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the main complication of this disease.

Occupational respiratory disorders-The disorders due to one’s occupation of working in industries like grinding or stone breaking, construction sites, cotton industries, etc. Dust produced affects the respiratory tracts.

Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis. Silicosis and asbestosis are „ occupational respiratory diseases resulting from inhalation of particle of silica from sand grinding ‘ and asbestos into the respiratory tract. Workers, working in such industries must wear protective masks.

Question 21.
Explain the mechanism of muscle contraction.
Answer:
Mechanism of muscle contraction:
Sliding filament theory in 1954, Andrew F.Huxley and Rolf Niedergerke proposed the sliding- filament theory to explain muscle contraction. According to this theory, overlapping actin and myosin filaments of fixed length slide past one another in an energy requiring process, resulting in muscle contraction. The contraction of muscle fibre is a remarkable process that helps in creating a force to move or to resist a load.

The force which is created by the contracting muscle is called muscle tension. The load is a weight or force that opposes contraction of a muscle. Contraction is the creation of tension in the muscle which is an active process and relaxation is the release of tension created by contraction. Muscle contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse sents by the central nervous system (CNS) through a motor neuron.

The junction between the motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor end plate. When nerve impulse reaches a neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released. It initiates the opening of multiple gated channels in sarcolemma. The action potential travels along the T-tubules and triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

The released calcium ions bind to troponin on thin filaments. The tropomyosin uncovers the myosinbinding sites on thin filaments. Now the active sites are exposed to the heads of myosin to form a cross-bridge. During cross-bridge formation actin and myosin form a protein complex called actomyosin.

Utilizing the energy released from hydrolysis of ATP, the myosin head rotates until it forms a 90° angle with the long axis of the filament. In this position myosin binds to an actin and activates a contraction – relaxation cycle which is followed by a power stroke.

The power stroke (cross-bridge tilting) begins after the myosin head and hinge region tilt from a 90° angle to a 45° angle. The cross-bridge transforms into strong, high-force bond which allows the myosin head to swivel. When the myosin head swivels it pulls the attached actin filament towards the centre of the A-band.
The myosin returns back to its relaxed state and releases ADP and phosphate ion. A new ATP molecule then binds to the head of the myosin and the cross-bridge is broken.

At the end of each power stroke, each myosin head detaches from actin, then swivels back and binds to a new actin molecule to start another contraction cycle. This movement is similar to the motion of an oar on a boat. At the end of each power stroke, each myosin head detaches from actin, then swivels back and binds to a new actin molecule to start another contraction cycle. The power stroke repeats many times until a muscle fibre contracts. The myosin heads bind, push and release actin molecules over and over as the thin filaments move toward the centre of the sarcomere.

The repeatedly formation of cross-bridge cycles cause the sliding of the filaments only but there is no change in the lengths of either the thick or thin filaments. The Z- discs attached to the actin filaments are also pulled inwards from both the sides, causing the shortening of the sarcomere (i.e. contraction). This process continues as long as the muscle receives the stimuli and a steady flow of calcium ions.

When motor impulse stops, the calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, results in the masking of the active sites of the actin filaments. The myosin head fails to bind with the active sites of actin and these changes cause the return of Z – discs back to their original position, i.e. relaxation.

[OR]

Describe the central nervous system.
Answer:
Central neural system (CNS): The CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord, which are protected by the bones of the skull and vertebral column. During its embtyonic development, CNS develops from the ectoderm.

Brain: The brain acts as the command and control system. It is the site of information processing. It is located in the cranial cavity and is covered by three cranial meninges. The outer thick layer is Duramater which line? the inner surface of the cranial cavity; the median thin layer is Arachnoid mater which is separated from the duramater by a narrow subdural space.

The innermost layer is Piamater which is closely adhered to the brain but separated from the arachnoid mater by the subarachnoid space. The brain is divided into three major regions: Forebrain, Midbrain and Hindbrain.

Fore Brain: It comprises the following regions: Cerebrum and Diencephalon. Cerebrum is the ‘seat of intelligence and forms the major part of the brain. The cerebrum consists of an outer cortex, inner medulla and basal nuclei. The superficial region of the cerebrum is called cerebral cortex, which looks grey due to the presence of unmyelinated nerve cells. Cerebral cortex consists of neuronal cell body, dendrites, associated glial and blood vessels. The surface of the cerebrum shows many convolutions (folds) and grooves.

The folds are called gyri (singular gyrus); the shallow grooves between the gyri are called sulci (singular sulcus) and deep grooves are called fissures. These sulci and gyri increase the surface area of the cerebral cortex. Several sulci divide the cerebrum into eight lobes: a pair of frontals, parietals, temporals and occipital lobes.

Mid brain: The mid brain is located between the diencephalon and the pons. The lower portion of the midbrain consists of a pair of longitudinal bands of nervous tissue called cerebral peduncles which relay impulses back and forth between cerebrum, cerebellum, pons and medulla. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists of four rounded bodies called corpora quadrigemina which acts as a reflex centre for vision and hearing.

Hind brain: Rhombencephalon forms the hind brain. It comprises of cerebellum, pons varolii and medulla oblongata. Cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain. It consists of two cerebellar hemispheres and central worm shaped part, the vermis. The cerebellum controls and coordinates muscular movements and body equilibrium. Any damage to cerebellum often results in uncoordinated voluntary muscle movements.

Pons varoli: It lies infront of the cerebellum between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata. The nerve fibres in the pons varolii form a bridge between the two cerebellar hemispheres and connect the medulla oblongata with the other region of the brain. The respiratory nuclei found in the pons cooperate with the medulla to control respiration.
Medulla oblongata: It forms the posterior most part of the brain. It connects the spinal cord with various parts of the brain. It receives and integrates signals from spinal cord and sends it to the cerebellum and thalamuj. Medulla contains vital centres that control cardio vascular reflexes, respiration and gastric secretions.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer .
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and personal accounts
(c) Tax authorities do not accept
(d) It is suitable for all types of organisations
Answer:
(d) It is suitable for all types of organisations

Question 2.
What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are ₹ 85,000 and liabilities are ₹ 20,000?
(a) ₹ 65,000
(b) ₹ 1,06,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 85,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 65,000

Question 3.
Which of the following should not be recorded in the income and expenditure account?
(a) Sale of old newspapers
(b) Loss on sale of asset
(c) Honorarium paid to the secretary
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture
Answer:
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture

Question 4.
There are 100 members in a club each paying ₹ 500 as annual subscription. Subscription due but not received for the current year is ₹ 200; Subscription received in advance is ₹ 300. The amount of subscription to be shown in the income and expenditure account is __________.
(a) ₹ 50,000
(b) ₹ 50,200
(c) ₹ 49,900
(d) ₹ 49,800
Answer:
(a) ₹ 50,000

Question 5.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
(a) Interest on drawings – Debited to capital account
(b) Interest on capital – Credited to capital account
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account
(d) Share of profit – Credited to capital account
Answer:
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account

Question 6.
In the absence of an agreement among the partners, interest on capital is _________.
(a) Not allowed
(b) Allowed at bank rate
(c) Allowed @ 5% per annum
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum
Answer:
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Goodwill is an intangible asset
(b) Good will is a current asset
(c) Goodwill is a fictitious asset
(d) Good will cannot be acquired
Answer:
(a) Goodwill is an intangible asset

Question 8.
When the average profit is ₹ 50,000 and the normal profit is ₹ 30,000, super profit is ________.
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 20,000

Question 9.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Answer:
(b) i – 3, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 1

Question 10.
Bala and Keerthana are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admit Eshwar as a partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. The sacrificing ratio is ________.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:5
Answer:
(c) 5:3

Question 11.
On retirement of a partner, general reserve is transferred to the _______.
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Capital account of retiring partners only
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 12.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill of the firm was valued as ₹ 30,000. The contribution of A and C to compensate B is ______.
(a) ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000

Question 13.
A preference share is one _______.
(i) which carries preferential right with respect to payment of dividend at fixed rate
(ii) which carries preferential right with respect to repayment of capital on winding up
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 14.
Super Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each for non- payment of final call of ₹ 2 per share.
All these shares were re-issued at ₹ 9 per share. The amount will be transferred to capital reserve account is _______.
(a) ₹ 700
(b) ₹ 800
(c) ₹ 900
(d) ₹ 1,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 700

Question 15.
Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to several years are to be analysed?
(a) Cash flow statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Trend analysis
Answer:
(d) Trend analysis

Question 16.
Expenses for a business for the first year were ₹ 70,000. In the second year, it was increased to ₹ 77,000. The trend percentage in the second year is _______.
(a) 10%
(b) 110%
(c) 90%
(d) 11%
Answer:
(b) 110%

Question 17.
Debt equity ratio is a measure of _________.
(a) Short term solvency
(b) Long term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
Answer:
(b) Long term solvency

Question 18.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; current assets ₹ 1,00,000; Inventory ₹ 20,000. Quick ratio is _____.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(d) 2 : 1

Question 19.
Contra voucher used in Tally for ______.
(a) Master entry
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use
(c) Reports
(d) Credit purchase of assets
Answer:
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use

Question 20.
In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally _______.
(a) Receipt voucher
(b) Journal voucher
(c) Purchase voucher
(d) Payment voucher
Answer:
(b) Journal voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
From the following particulars ascertain profit or loss:

Answer:

Question 22.
Give four examples for capital receipts of not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:

• Life membership fees
• Legacies
• Special donations
• Sale of fixed assets

Question 23.
Balamurugan is a partner who withdrew ₹ 20,000 regularly in the middle of every month. Interest is charged on the drawings at 6% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings for the year ended 31^st December, 2019?
Answer:
Balamurugan’s interest on drawing calculation:
Interest on drawings = Amount of drawings × Rate of interest × Period of interest
= 20,000 × 12 × \(\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{6}{12}\) = ₹ 7,200

Question 24.
State any two circumstances under which goodwill of a partnership firm is valued.
Answer:

• When there is a change in the profit sharing ratio.
• When a new partner is admitted into a firm.
• When an existing partner retires from the firm or when partner dies
• When a partnership firm is dissolved.

Question 25.
Sanjana and Bhavya are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3. On 31.3.2018, Sanjeev was admitted as a partner. On the date of admission, the book of the firm showed a general reserve of ₹ 42,000; Pass the journal entry to distribute the general reserve. ,
Answer:

Question 26.
What is gaining ratio?
Answer:
Gaining ratio is the proportion of the profit which is gained by the continuing partner.
Gaining ratio = Ratio of share gained by the continuing partners
Share gained = New Share – Old Share

Question 27.
Manoharan Ltd. issues 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable fully on application. Pass journal entries if shares are issued at a premium of ₹ 2 per share.
Answer:

Question 28.
What are financial statements?
Answer:
Financial statements are the statements prepared by the business concern at the end of the accounting period to ascertain the operating results and the financial position. The basic financial statements prepared by business concern are income statement and balance sheet.

Question 29.
State any two accounting reports used in Tally.
Answer:

1. Day Book / Journal
2. Ledgers
3. Trial Balance
4. Income statement
5. Balance sheet

Question 30.
Calculate current ratio: Total current liabilities ₹ 2,40,000; Total current assets ₹ 4,80,000.
Answer:
Current Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Current Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}\)
Current Liabilities
Current assets = ₹ 4,80,000
Current liabilities = ₹ 2,40,000
∴ Current Ratio = \(\frac{4,80,000}{2,40,000}\) = 2 : 1

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State any three differences between double entry system and incomplete records.
Answer:

Question 32.
How the following items will appear in the final accounts of a club for the year ending 31^st March, 2020?
Answer:

Subscription received during the year: ₹ 45,000.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.2019

Question 33.
Ravi, Sibi and Kumar are partners in a firm. There is no partnership deed. How will you deal with the following?
(i) Ravi has contributed maximum capital. He demands interest on capital @ 10% per annum.
(ii) Sibi demands the profit to be shared in the capital ratio. But, others do not agree.
(iii) Loan advanced by kumar to the firm is ₹ 50,000. He demands interest on loan @ 12% per annum.
Answer:
Since there is no partnership deed provisions of the Indian partnership Act 1932 will apply.
(i) No interest on capital is payable to any partner. Therefore Ravi is entitled to the interest on capital
(ii) Profits should be distributed equally
(iii) Interest on loan is payable @ 6% p.a. of ₹ 50,000

Question 34.
Explain any three factors determining the value of goodwill in a partnership firm.
Answer:
Factors determining goodwill:

1. Profitability of the firm
2. Favourable location of the business enterprise
3. Good quality of good i and services offered
4. Tenure of business enterprise
5. Efficiency of management
6. Degree of competition
7. Other factors

Question 35.
Ajay and Devan are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. In the view of Gopal admission, they decided
(i) To increase the value of building by ₹ 40,000
(ii) To decrease the value of machinery by ₹ 14,000 and furniture ₹ 12,000
(iii) An unrecorded liability ₹ 6,000 has to be recorded now.
Answer:

Question 36.
Nandhini, Sandhiya and Rajesh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 3 respectively. Nandhini retires from the firm on 31^st December, 2019. On the date of retirement, her capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 1,00,000.
Pass journal entries if:
(i) The amount due is paid off immediately.
(ii) The amount due is not paid immediately.
(iii) ₹ 50,000 is paid immediately by cheque.
Answer:

Question 37.
Senthil Ltd. forfeited 20 equity shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 7 called up, on which Sandeep had paid application and allotment money of ₹ 5 per share. Of these 15 shares were reissued to Magesh by receiving ₹ 6 per share paid up as ₹ 7 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:


Note:
No. of share reissued × profit on issue
= 15 (7 – 6)= 15 × 1 = ₹ 15

Question 38.
What is inventory conversion period? How is it calculated?
Answer:
It is the time taken to sell the inventory. A shorter inventory conversion period indicates more efficiency in the management of inventory. It is computed as follows.

Question 39.
Explain any three applications of computerized accounting system.
The applications of CAS are as follows:
Answer:
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In CAS, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
CAS facilitates efficient management of inventory. Updated information about availability of inventory level of inventory etc. can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Report generation:
CAS helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

Question 40.
Complete the following comparative statement.
Answer:

Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Raj an does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.
Answer:

During the year he introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 and withdrew ₹ 2,500 per month from the business for his personal use. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following details you are required to calculate credit sales and credit purchases by preparing total debtors account, total creditors account, bills receivable account and bills payable account.
Answer:

Answer:

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments account of Tenkasi Thiruvalluvar Manram, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March, 2019.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the information given below, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Kurunji Sports Club for the year ended 31^st December, 2018.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) From the following information, prepare capital accounts of partners Raja and Rani, when their capitals are fixed.
Answer:


Answer:

[OR]

(b) Alagappan and Ulagappan are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 10:7. On 1^st January 2018, their capitals were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000, respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following:
(a) Interest on capital is to be allowed at 5% per annum.
(b) Interest on drawings charged to Alagappan and Ulagappan are ₹ 200 and ₹ 300 respectively.
(c) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to ₹ 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31^st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Find out the value of goodwill at three years purchase of weighted average profit of last four years.

Answer:
Calculation of weighted average



Goodwill = Weighted average profit × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 15,400 × 3 = ₹ 46,200

[OR]

(b) Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchase of super profit from the following information:
(а) Capital employed: ₹ 1,20,000
(b) Normal rate of profit: 20%
(c) Net profit for 5 years:
2014: ₹ 30,000; 2015: ₹ 32,000; 2016: ₹ 35,000; 2017: ₹ 37,000 and 2018: ₹ 40,000
(d) Fair remuneration to the partners ? 2,800 per annum.
Answer:


Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of return
= 1,20,000 × (20/100)
= ₹ 24,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 32,000 – 24,000
= ₹ 8,000
Goodwill = Super profit × Number of years of purchase
= 8,000 × 5
= ₹ 40,000

Question 45.
(a) Baskar and Shankar are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. The balance sheet of the partners on 31.03.2018 is as follows:

Sellathurai is admitted for 1/5 share on the following terms:
(i) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 75,000 and Sellathurai brought cash for his share of goodwill.
(ii) Sellathurai is to bring ₹ 1,50,000 as his capital.
(iii) Motor car is valued at ₹ 2,00,000; stock at ₹ 3,80,000 and debtors at ₹ 3,50,000.
(iv) Anticipated claim on workmen compensation fund is ₹ 10,000
(v) Unrecorded investment of ₹ 5,000 has to be brought into account.
(vi) Revaluation account shows the profit of 15,000 on the date of admission.
Prepare capital accounts and balance sheet after Sellathurai’s admission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Mani, Rama and Meena are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. Their balance sheet as on 31^st March, 2019 is as follows:

Mani retired from the partnership firm on 31.03.2019 subject to the following adjustments:
(i) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 5,000
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Buildings to be appreciated by ₹ 16,000
(iv) The final amount due to Mani is not paid immediately
Prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners after retirement.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a)Latha Ltd. offered 1,00,000 shares of ₹ 10 each to the public payable ₹ 3 on application, ₹ 4 on share allotment and the balance when required. Applications for 1,40,000 shares were received on which the directors allotted as:
Applicants for 60,000 shares – Full
Applicants for 75,000 shares – 40,000 shares (excess money will be utilised for allotment)
Applicants for 5,000 shares – Nil
All the money due was received. Pass journal entries upto the receipt of allotment money.
Also show the working notes, which is part of your answer.
Answer:


Working note:

[OR]

(b) Vikam Company issued shares of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium, payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 3 on allotment (including premium), ₹ 3 on first call and ₹ 3 on second and final call.
Journalise the transactions relating to forfeiture of shares for the following situations:
(i) Sasikumar who holds 50 shares failed to pay the second and final call and his shares were forfeited.
(ii) Vignesh who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money, first call and second and final call money and his shares were forfeited.
(iii) Madhavan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call and his shares were forfeited after the first call.
Answer:

Note: Since the premium amount is received by the company, premium should not be cancelled.

(ii) When allotment, first call money and second and final call money is not paid

(iii) When allotment and first call money is not paid

Question 47.
(a) Prepare common-size statement of financial position of Yasmin Ltd as on 31^st March 2019 and 31^st March 2020.


Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following trading activities of Praveen Ltd. calculate
(i) Gross profit ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio
(iii) Operating cost ratio
(iv) Operating profit ratio

Answer:

Calculation of interest on drawings of Praveen (using average period)
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchase of stock-in-trade + Changes in inventory + Direct expenses
= 17,000 – 1,000 + 0 = ₹ 16,000
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 20,000 – 16,000 = ₹ 4,000

Tutorial note:
It is assumed that there is no tax payable.

Operating cost = Cost of revenue from operations + Operating expenses
Operating expenses = Other expenses = ₹ 2,400
Operating cost = 16,000 + 2,400 = ₹ 18,400

Operating profit = Revenue from operations – Operating cost
= 20,000 – 18,400 = ₹ 1,600