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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Sets Ex 1.3

11th Maths Exercise 1.3 Answers Question 1.
Suppose that 120 students are studying in 4 sections of eleventh standard in a school. Let A denote the set of students and B denote the set of the sections. Define a relation from A to B as “x related toy if the student x belongs to the section y”. Is this relation a function? What can you say about the inverse relation? Explain your answer.
Solution:
(i) A = {set of students in 11^th standard}
B = {set of sections in 11sup>th standard}
R : A ➝ B ⇒ x related to y
⇒ Every students in eleventh Standard must in one section of the eleventh standard.
⇒ It is a function.
Inverse relation cannot be a function since every section of eleventh standard cannot be related to one student in eleventh standard.

Exercise 1.3 Class 11 Maths State Board Question 2.
Write the values of f at – 4, 1, -2, 7, 0 if

Solution:
f(-4) = -(-4) + 4 = 8
f(1) = 1 – 1² = 0
f(-2) = (-2)² – (-2) = 4 + 2 = 6
f(7) = 0
f(0) = 0

11th Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 3.
Write the values of f at -3, 5, 2, -1, 0 if

Solution:
f(-3) = (-3)² – 3 – 5 = 9 – 8 = 1
f(5) = (5)² + 3(5) – 2 = 25 + 15 – 2 = 38
f(2) = 4 – 3 = 1
f(-1) = (-1)² + (-1) – 5 = 1 – 6 = -5
f(0) = 0 – 3 = -3

11th Maths Exercise 1.3 Solutions Question 4.
State whether the following relations are functions or not. If it is a function check for one-to-oneness and ontoness. If it is not a function, state why?
(i) If A = {a, b, c] and/= {(a, c), (b, c), (c, b)};(f: A ➝ A).
(ii) If X = {x, y, z} and/= {(x, y), (x, z), (z, x)}; (f: X ➝ X).
Solution:
(i) f : A ➝ A

It is a function but it is not 1 – 1 and not onto function.

(ii) f : X ➝ X

x ∈ X (Domain) has two images in the co-domain x. It is not a function.

11th Maths Exercise 1.3 Answers Samacheer Question 5.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {a, b, c, d}. Give a function from A ➝ B for each of the following:
(i) neither one-to-one nor onto.
(ii) not one-to-one but onto.
(iii) one-to-one but not onto.
(iv) one-to-one and onto.
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4}
B = {a, b, c, d}.

R = {(1, b) (2, b) (3, c) (4, d)} is not 1-1 and not onto

(iii) Not possible

(iv)

11 Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 6.
Find the domain of \(\frac{1}{1-2 \sin x}\)
Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 1.3 In Tamil Question 7.
Find the largest possible domain of the real valued function f(x) = \(\frac{\sqrt{4-x^{2}}}{\sqrt{x^{2}-9}}\)
Solution:

∴ No largest possible domain
The domain is null set

Samacheer Kalvi 11 Maths Solutions Question 8.
Find the range of the function \(\frac{1}{2 \cos x-1}\)
Solution:
The range of cos x is – 1 to 1

Exercise 1.3 Class 11 Maths Question 9.
Show that the relation xy = -2 is a function for a suitable domain. Find the domain and the range of the function.
Solution:
xy = – 2 ⇒ y = -2/x
which is a function
The domain is (-∞, 0) ∪ (0, ∞) and range is R – {0}

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Question 10.
If f, g : R ➝ R are defined by f(x) = |x| + x and g(x) = |x| – x, find gof and fog.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Question 11.
If f, g, h are real valued functions defined on R, then prove that
(f + g)oh = foh + goh. What can you say about fo(g + h) ? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Let f + g = k

= (f + g((h(x))
= f[h(x)] + g [h(x)]
= foh + goh
(i.e.,)(f + g)(o)h = foh + goh
fo(g + h) is also a function

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Maths Question 12.
If f: R ➝ R is defined by f(x) = 3x – 5, prove that f is a bijection and find its inverse.
Solution:
P(x) = 3x – 5
Let y = 3x – 5 ⇒ 3x = y + 5

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Back Answers Question 13.
The weight of the muscles of a man is a function of his body weight x and can be expressed as W(x) = 0.35x. Determine the domain of this function.
Solution:
W(x) = 0.35x
Since body weight x is positive and if it increases then W(x) also increase.
Domain is (0, ∞) i.e.,x > 0

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 11th Maths Question 14.
The distance of an object falling is a function of time t and can be expressed as s(t) = -16t². Graph the function and determine if it is one-to-one.
Solution:
s(t) = -16t²
Suppose S(t₁) = S(t₂)

since time cannot be negative, we to take t₁ = t₂
Hence it is one-one.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 11th Maths Question 15.
The total cost of airfare on a given route is comprised of the base cost C and the fuel surcharge S in rupee. Both C and S are functions of the mileage m; C(m) = 0.4m + 50 and S(m) = 0.03m. Determine a function for the total cost of a ticket in terms of the mileage and find the airfare for flying 1600 miles.
Solution:
C – base cost,
S = fuel surcharge,
m = mileage
C(m) = 0.4 m + 50
S(m) = 0.03 m
Total cost = C(m) + S(m)
= 0.4 m + 50 + 0.03 m
= 0.43 m + 50
for 1600 miles
T(c) = 0.43 (1600) + 50 = 688 + 50 = ₹ 738

Samacheer Kalvi Class 11 Maths Question 16.
A salesperson whose annual earnings can be represented by the function A(x) = 30, 000 + 0.04x, where x is the rupee value of the merchandise he sells. His son is also in sales and his earnings are represented by the function S(x) = 25, 000 + 0.05x. Find (A + S)(x) and determine the total family income if they each sell Rupees 1,50,00,000 worth of merchandise.
Solution:
A(x) = 30, 000 + 0.04x, where x is merchandise rupee value
S(x) = 25000 + 0.05 x
(A + S) (x) = A(x) + S(x)
= 30000 + 0.04x + 25000 + 0.05 x
= 55000 + 0.09x
(A + S) (x) = 55000+ 0.09x
They each sell x = 1,50,00,000 worth of merchandise
(A + S) x = 55000 + 0.09 (1,50,00,000)
= 55000 + 13,50,000
∴ Total income of family = ₹ 14,05,000

Samacheer Kalvi Class 11 Maths Solutions Question 17.
The function for exchanging American dollars for Singapore Dollar on a given day is f(x) = 1.23x, where x represents the number of American dollars. On the same day the function for exchanging Singapore Dollar to Indian Rupee is g(y) = 50.50y, where y represents the number of Singapore dollars. Write a function which will give the exchange rate of American dollars in terms of Indian rupee.
Solution:
f(x) = 1. 23x where x is number of American dollars.
g(y) = 50.50y where y is number of Singapore dollars.
gof(x) = g(f(x))
= g(1. 23x)
= 50.50 (1.23x)
= 62.115 x

Question 18.
The owner of a small restaurant can prepare a particular meal at a cost of Rupees 100. He estimates that if the menu price of the meal is x rupees, then the number of customers who will order that meal at that price in an evening is given by the function D(x) = 200 – x. Express his day revenue, total cost and profit on this meal as functions of x.
Solution:
cost of one meal = ₹ 100
Total cost = ₹ 100 (200 – x)
Number of customers = 200 – x
Day revenue = ₹ (200 – x) x
Total profit = day revenue – total cost
= (200 – x) x – (100) (200 – x)

Question 19.
The formula for converting from Fahrenheit to Celsius temperatures is \(y=\frac{5 x}{9}-\frac{160}{9}\)
Find the inverse of this function and determine whether the inverse is also a function.
Solution:

Question 20.
A simple cipher takes a number and codes it, using the function f(x) = 3x – 4. Find the inverse of this function, determine whether the inverse is also a function and verify the symmetrical property about the line y = x (by drawing the lines).
Solution:
f(x) = 3x – 4
Let y = 3x – 4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Sets Ex 1.3 Additional Questions

Question 1.
Find the domain and range of the function \(f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-5}}\)
Solution:
Given that : f(x) \(f(x)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{x-5}}\)
Here, it is clear that / (x) is real when x – 5 > 0 ⇒ x > 5
Hence, the domain = (5, ∞)
Now to find the range put

For x ∈ (5, ∞), y ∈ R⁺.
Hence, the range of f = R⁺.

Question 2.
If \(f(x)=\frac{x-1}{x+1}\), then show that

Solution:

Question 3.
Find the domain of each of the following functions given by:
\(f(x)=\frac{x^{3}-x+3}{x^{2}-1}\)
Solution:

Here, f(x) is not defined if x² – 1 ≠ 0
(x – 1) (x + 1) ≠ 0
x ≠ 1, x ≠ -1
Hence, the domain of f = R – {-1, 1}

Question 4.
Find the range of the following functions given by
f(x) = 1 + 3 cos 2x
Solution:
Given that: f(x) = 1 + 3 cos 2x
We know that -1 ≤ cos 2x ≤ 1
⇒ -3 ≤ 3 cos 2x ≤ 3 ⇒ -3 + 1 ≤ 1 + 3 cos 2x ≤ 3 + 1
⇒ -2 ≤ 1 + 3 cos 2x ≤ 4 ⇒ -2 ≤ f(x) ≤ 4
Hence the range of f = [-2, 4]

Question 5.
Find the domain and range of the function \(f(x)=\frac{x^{2}-9}{x-3}\)
Solution:

Domain off: Clearly f(x) is not defined for x – 3 = 0 i.e. x = 3.
Therefore, Domain (f) = R – {3}
Range off: Let f(x) = y. Then,

It follows from the above relation that y takes all real values except 6 when x takes values in the set R – {3}. Therefore, Range (f) = R {6}.

Question 6.
Find the range of the following functions given by f(x) = \(\frac{1}{2-\sin 3 x}\)
Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Real Numbers Ex 2.2

9th Maths Exercise 2.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Express the following rational numbers into decimal and state the kind of decimal expansion.
(i) \(\frac { 2 }{ 7 }\)
(ii) \(-5 \frac{3}{11}\)
(iii) \(\frac { 22 }{ 3 }\)
(iv) \(\frac { 327 }{ 200 }\)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { 2 }{ 7 }\)

\(\frac{2}{7}=0 . \overline{285714}\)
Nen-terminating and recurring

(ii) \(-5 \frac{3}{11}\)

\(-5 \frac{3}{11}=-5 . \overline{27}\)
Nen-terminating and recurring

(iii) \(\frac { 22 }{ 3 }\)

\(\frac{22}{3}=7 . \overline{3}\)
Nen-terminating and recurring

(iv) \(\frac { 327 }{ 200 }\)

\(\frac { 327 }{ 200 }\) = 1.635, Terminating.

9th Maths Exercise 2.2 In Tamil Question 2.
Express \(\frac { 1 }{ 13 }\) in decimal form. Find the length of the period of decimals.
Solution:

\(\frac{1}{13}=0 . \overline{076923}\) has the length of the period of decimals = 6.

9th Standard Maths Exercise 2.2 Question 3.
Express the rational number \(\frac { 1 }{ 13 }\) in recurring decimal form by using the recurring decimal expansion of \(\frac { 1 }{ 11 }\) . Hence write \(\frac { 71 }{ 33 }\) in recurring decimal form.
Solution:
The recurring decimal expansion of \(\frac { 1 }{ 11 }\) = 0.09090909…. = \(0.\overline { 09 }\)

9th Maths Exercise 2.2 Question 4.
Express the following decimal expression into rational numbers.
(i) \(0.\overline { 24 }\)
(ii) \(2.\overline { 327 }\)
(iii) -5.132
(iv) \(3.1\overline { 7 }\)
(v) \(17.\overline { 215 }\)
(vi) \(-21.213\overline { 7 }\)
Solution:
(i) \(0.\overline { 24 }\)
Let x = \(0.\overline { 24 }\) = 0.24242424……… ….(1)
(Here period of decimal is 2, multiply equation (1) by 100)
100x = 24.242424 ………. ….(2)
(2) – (1)
100x – x = 24.242424…. – 0.242424….
99x = 24
x = \(\frac { 24 }{ 99 }\)

(ii) \(2.\overline { 327 }\)
Let x = 2.327327327…… …………. (1)
(Here period of decimal is 3, multiply equation (1) by 1000)
1000x = 2327.327… ……………. (2)
(2) – (1)
1000x – x = 2327.327327… – 2.327327….
999x = 2325
x = \(\frac { 2325 }{ 999 }\)

(iii) -5.132
\(x=-5.132=\frac{-5132}{1000}=\frac{-1283}{250}\)

(iv) \(3.1\overline { 7 }\)
Let x = 3.1777 ……. ………… (1)
(Here the repeating decimal digit is 7, which is the second digit after the decimal point, multiply equation (1) by 10)
10x = 31.7777 …….. …………. (2)
(Now period of decimal is 1, multiply equation (2) by 10)
100x = 317.7777…….. …………….. (3)
(3) – (2)
100x – 10x = 317.777…. – 31.777….
90x = 286
\(x=\frac{286}{90}=\frac{143}{45}\)

(v) \(17.\overline { 215 }\)
Let x = 17.215215 ……. ………. (1)
1000x = 17215.215215…… …………. (2)
(2) – (1)
1000x – x = 17215.215215… – 17.215…
999x = 17198
x = \(\frac { 17198 }{ 999 }\)

(vi) \(-21.213\overline { 7 }\)
Let x = -21.2137777… ……….. (1)
10x = -212.137777…… ……….. (2)
100x = -2121.37777…… ………… (3)
1000x = -21213.77777…. ……….. (4)
10000x = 212137.77777….. ………… (5)
(Now period of decimal is 1, multiply equation (4) it by 10)
(5) – (4)
10000x – 1000x = (-212137.7777…) – (-21213.7777…)
9000x = -190924
x = –\(\frac { 190924 }{ 9000 }\)

9th Maths 2.2 Question 5.
Without actual division, find which of the following rational numbers have terminating decimal expansion.
(i) \(\frac { 7 }{ 128 }\)
(ii) \(\frac { 21 }{ 15 }\)
(iii) 4\(\frac { 9 }{ 35 }\)
(iv) \(\frac { 219 }{ 2200 }\)
Solution:
(i) \(\frac { 7 }{ 128 }\)

So \(\frac{7}{128}=\frac{7}{2^{7} 5^{0}}\)
This of the form 4m, n ∈ W
So \(\frac { 7 }{ 128 }\) has a terminating decimal expansion.

(ii) \(\frac { 21 }{ 15 }\)

So \(\frac { 21 }{ 15 }\) has a terminating decimal expansion.

(iii) 4\(\frac { 9 }{ 35 }\) = \(\frac { 149 }{ 35 }\)

\(\frac{49}{35}=\frac{149}{5^{1} 7^{1}}\)
∴ This is not of the form \(\frac{p}{5^{1} 7^{1}}\)
So 4\(\frac { 9 }{ 35 }\) has a non-terminating recurring decimal expansion.

(iv) \(\frac { 219 }{ 2200 }\)

\(\frac{219}{2200}=\frac{219}{2^{3} 5^{2} 11^{1}}\)
∴ This is not of the form \(\frac{p}{2^{m} 5^{n}}\)
So \(\frac { 219 }{ 2200 }\) has a non-terminating recurring decimal expansion.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 5 The Classical World

The Classical World Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

The Classical World 9th Class Question 1.
…………….. is the Greek city-state which resisted the Persians to the end.
(a) Acropolis
(b) Sparta
(c) Athens
(d) Rome
Answer:
(c) Athens

Attempt An Account Of Slavery In Rome Question 2.
The other name for Greeks was …………….
(a) Hellenists
(b) Hellenes
(c) Phoenicians
(d) Spartans
Answer:
(b) Hellenes

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Books Social Science Question 3.
The founder of Han dynasty was …………..
(a) Wu Ti
(b) Hung Chao
(c) Liu Pang
(d) Mangu Khan
Answer:
(c) Liu Pang

Question 4.
…………… was the Roman Governor responsible for the crucifixion of Jesus.
(a) Innocent I
(b) Hildebrand
(c) Leo I
(d) Pontius Pilate
Answer:
(d) Pontius Pilate

Question 5.
The Peloponnesian War was fought between ……………… and ……………
(a) Greeks and Persians
(b) Plebeians and Patricians
(c) Spartans and Athenians
(d) Greeks and Romans
Answer:
(c) Spartans and Athenians

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) First Persian attack on Greece failed.
(ii) The downfall of Roman Empire is attributed to Julius Caesar.
(iii) The Barbarians who invaded Rome were considered to be culturally advanced.
(iv) Buddhism weakened the Roman Empire.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 2.
(i) Euclid developed a model for the motion of planets and stars.
(ii) Romans established a republic after overthrowing Etruscans.
(iii) Acropolis became a famous slave market.
(iv) Rome and Carthage united to drive out the Greeks.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) Silk road was closed during the Han dynasty.
(ii) Peasant uprisings posed threats to Athenian democracy.
(iii) Virgil’s Aeneid glorified Roman imperialism.
(iv) Spartacus killed Julius Caesar. f
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(d) (iii) is correct

Question 4.
(i) Roman Emperor Marcus Aurelius was a tyrant.
(ii) Romulus Aurelius was the most admired ruler in Roman History.
(iii) Fabius was a famous Carthaginian General.
(iv) Tacitus is respected more than Livy as a historian.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(d) (iv) is correct

Question 5.
(i) Buddhism went to China from Japan
(ii) After crucifixion of Jesus, St Thomas spread the Christian doctrine
(iii) St Sophia Cathedral was the most magnificent building in Europe
(iv) Trajan was one of the worst dictators Rome had.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. Greeks defeated the Persians at ………………
2. …………… stood in favour of poor peasants in Roman republic.
3. Buddhism came to China from India during the reign of …………… dynasty.
4. The most magnificent building in Europe was ……………
5. ……….. and …………… were Magistrates in Rome.
Answers:
1. Marathon in 490 B.C.
2. Tiberius Gracchus and Garius do Gracchus
3. Han
4. St. Sophia Cathedral
5. Marius and Sulla

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Emergence of Rome as an empire
(a) Who were the Gracchus brothers?
Answer:
Tiberius Gracchus and Garius do Gracchus were Patricians. They voiced their opinion in favour of the poor peasants.

(b) What role did they play?
Answer:
They voiced their opinion in favour of the poor peasants.

(c) What was the outcome of their martyrdom?
Answer:
The Martyrdom of the Gracchus brothers played a decisive role in the transformation of the Roman Republic into the Roman Empire.

(d) Who was the first Roman Emperor?
Answer:
Marus Aureillus was the first Roman Emperor.

Question 2.
Han Dynasty
(a) Who was the founder of Han Empire?
Answer:
Han Dynasty was founded by Liu Pang.

(b) What was the capital of Han Empire?
Answer:
The capital of Han Empire was Chang-an.

(c) Where did they have their new capital?
Answer:
They had their new capital at Xuchang.

(d) Who was the powerful ruler of the Han dynasty?
Answer:
The most popular and powerful ruler was Wu Ti.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Attempt an account of slavery in Rome.
Answer:

• A major source of revenue to the Roman state was slave trade.
• The island of Delos became a great slave market.
• There were more slave revolts in Rome than in Greece.
• The revolt of spartacus was the most famous.

Question 2.
Highlight the main contribution of Constantine.
Answer:
The main contribution of Constantine was, conversion to Christianity. He himself became a Christian and Christianity became the official religion of the Empire.

Question 3.
What do you know of the Carthaginian leader Hannibal?
Answer:

• Hannibal was a Carthaginian General who defeated the Roman Army and made a great part of Italy a desert in the Punic War.
• In the Second Punic War Hannibal was defeated in the Battle of Zama.
• Pursued by the Roman army, Hannibal ended his life by poisoning himself.

Question 4.
What were the reasons for the prosperity of Han Empire?
Answer:

1. The Han Empire threw open the silk road for trade.
2. A large export trade mainly in silk reached as far as the Roman Empire.
3. In the North artisans and herders of rival “barbarian” dynasties brought in new techniques like the methods harnessing horses, use of saddle and stirrup, techniques of building bridges and mountain roads and seafaring.
4. Such innovations made Han Empire prosperous.

Question 5.
Write about St. Sophia Cathedral.
Answer:

• St. Sophia Cathedral was built in mid-sixth century AD (CE) The most magnificent building in Europe at that time, it was known for its innovative architectural techniques.
• This Cathedral was turned into a mosque by the Ottoman Turks when they captured Constantinople.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Discuss the rise and growth of Athens, pointing out its glorious legacy.
Answer:
In Athens, the pressure from below resulted in the replacement of both oligarchy’and tyranny by “democracy”. The law-making power in Athens was vested in an assembly open to all freemen. Judges and lower officials were chosen by lots. This arrangement was resented by ‘ the upper classes who considered democracy to be the rule of the mob.

The Persian danger had united the Greeks. When this danger was removed, they started quarrelling again. The history of many Greek city-states was one of continual struggles by the rich landowners against “democracy”. The only exception was Athens, where “democracy’ survived for about 200 years.

Question 2.
Highlight the contributions of Rome to World Civilization.
Answer:
The Byzantine emperors, who ruled from the city of Constantinople for about 1,000 years,
called themselves Romans. But their language was Greek. The splendor of Constantinople with its luxurious royal palaces, its libraries, its scholars familiar with the writings of Greeks 1 and Romans and its fascinating St. Sophia Cathedral are the legacies they have left behind.

However, in terms of the development of science and technology, there was no progress during this I period. The economies of the Empire’s provinces were in the hands of large local landowners. The small peasants always lived on the edge of poverty. The fundamental weakness of
Byzantine Civilization stood exposed when the participants of Fourth Crusade pillaged it and I ruled it.

Student Activities

Question 1.
In an outline map of Europe, the students are to sketch the extent of Western and Eastern Roman Empire.
Answer:

The Classical World Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
………….. a fortified city of ancient Greeks on a hill in Athens is an illustrative example of their advancement.
(a) Acropolis
(b) Athens
(c) Sparta
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Acropolis

Question 2.
The word …………….. literally means “rule of the people”.
(a) Autocracy
(b) Communism
(c) Socialism
(d) Democracy
Answer:
(d) Democracy

Question 3.
Aristotle was the disciple of ……………
(a) Socrates
(b) Plato
(c) Pericles
(d) Augustus
Answer:
(b) Plato

Question 4.
“Natural History” was completed by ………….
(a) Pliny the Elder
(b) Antoninus Pius
(c) Marcus Aurelius
(d) Tacitus
Answer:
(a) Pliny the Elder

Question 5.
……………. came to China from India during the reign of Han Dynasty.
(a) Jainism
(b) Sikhism
(c) Buddhism
(d) Christianity
Answer:
(c) Buddhism

Question 6.
……………. started spreading the Christian doctrine after the Crucifixion of Jesus.
(a) St. Paul
(b) St. Thomas
(c) St. Antony
(d) St. John
Answer:
(a) St. Paul

II. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) Until 8th Century B.C. (BCE) Greece was different from the rest of the world.
(ii) Democracy literally means “rule of the people”.
(iii) The Greek city-states have an elaborate bureaucracy.
(iv) The entire period of Alexander’s reign was not spent on wars.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (ii) is correct

Question 2.
(i) Prisoners of war were enslaved in Rome.
(ii) Rome developed into a normal town.
(iii) In the beginning Rome was a society of Business men.
(iv) A major source of revenue to the Roman state was slave trade.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) The revolt of spartacus was the most famous.
(ii) The Island of Delos became a great slave market.
(iii) Catalina’s victory led to mob violence.
(iv) Livy was a Poetist.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 4.
(i) Han Empire once again threw open the silk road for trade.
(ii) Buddhism came to China from Indonesia.
(iii) With Buddhism came the influence of Indian art to Korea.
(iv) The period after Han rule witnessed political stability across the country.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 5.
(i) Jewish had no faith on Jesus.
(ii) They hoped Messiah would not arrive.
(iii) Jesus was against the rich and the hypocrites.
(iv) Christianity did not spread in Europe.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

III. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (f)
2. (g)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (d)
7. (e)

IV. Fill in the blanks.

1. Under ……….. the new rich exploited the smaller landholders.
2. The Persian danger had united the ……………..
3. Cultural development that took place rapidly after Alexander’s death. 323 BC is called ………….. civilization.
4. A major source of revenue to the Roman state was ……………
5. The most distinguished writers of the ……………… Age brought glory to the empire.
6. The most popular and powerful ruler of Han Dynasty was …………….
7. Some of the Buddhist art of the time show the impact of …………… styles.
8. One of the Roman emperors …………….. himself became a Christian.
9. Internal Crisis and invasion of Franks, Goths and Vandals ended the …………….
10. Christianity became a state religion of …………….. and began to spread in Europe.
Answers:
1. Oligarchy
2. Greeks
3. Hellenistic
4. Slave trade
5. Augustus
6. Wu Ti
7. Hellenistic
8. Constantine
9. Roman Empire
10. Byzantium

V. Answer all questions given under each heading.

Question 1.
Athenian Democracy.
(a) What replaced the oligarchy and tyranny in Athens?
Answer:
Democracy.

(b) With whom the law-making power was vested in Athens?
Answer:
The law making power in Athens was vested in an assembly open to all freemen.

(c) What united the Greeks?
Answer:
The Persian danger had united the Greeks.

(d) How many years were Democracy survived in Athens?
Answer:
Democracy survived in Athens for about 200 years.

Question 2.
Hellenistic Civilization.
(a) Who established the kingdom in Macedonia?
Answer:
Alexander the Great.

(b) How did this kingdom succeed?
Answer:
This kingdom succeeded in annexing two historic empires of Egypt and the Middle East.

(c) How did Alexander spend his life?
Answer:
The entire period of Alexander’s reign was spent on wars.

(d) When did the cultural development take place? What is it called?
Answer:
After the death of 323 B.C. and is called Hellenistic civilization.

VI. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
What do you know about the classical world?
Answer:

1. Greece, Rome and China represented the classical world which ended with the fall of Western Roman Empire.
2. Until the end of 5th Century AD (CE) Christianity was confined to the Roman Empire.

Question 2.
Why did the first Persian attack on Greece failed?
Answer:
The first Persian attack on Greece failed due to the fact that Persian army suffered from disease and lack of food during its March.

Question 3.
Comment on the ‘Age of Pericles’.
Answer:

1. Athens, despite hostility and disturbance from sparta, became a noble city with magnificent buildings.
2. There were great artists and great thinkers.
3. Historians therefore call this the Age of Pericles.

Question 4.
What do you know about the Socrates?
Answer:

1. Socrates was the greatest of the thinkers of the Pericles Era.
2. As a philosopher he discussed difficult problems with his friends to bring out the truth out of discussions.

Question 5.
Who were the capable rulers in Rome after the death of Augustus?
Answer:
Trajan (98-117), Antoninus Pius (138-161) and Marcus Aurelius (161-180) were the capable enlightened rulers.

Question 6.
Who were Barbarians?
Answer:
A group of people from a very different country (or) culture that is considered to be less culturally advanced and more violent than their own were Barbarians.

Question 7.
What is known as Silk Road (or) Silk Route?
Answer:
The trade route from China to Asia Minor and India, known as the Silk Road or Silk Route, linked China with the West. Goods and ideas between the two great civilizations of Rome and China were exchanged through this route. Silk went westward, and wools, gold, and silver went east. China received Buddhism from India via the Silk Road.

Question 8.
Who spreaded Christianity after Jesus’s crucifixion?
Answer:

1. St. Paul started spreading the Christian doctrine.
2. Paul succeeded in his effort and Christianity gradually spread.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the “Rise of Christianity”.
Answer:
(i) After a brief period of glory in the days of David and Solomon, the Jewish people had a great fall and experienced extreme hardship.

(ii) While spreading out all over the Roman Empire and elsewhere, they hoped that a Messiah would arrive to restore their pristine glory.

(iii) Initially they laid much hopes on Jesus. Jesus was against the rich and the hypocrites, and condemned certain observances and ceremonials.

(iv) This was not to the liking of the priests, who turned against Jesus and handed him over to the Roman Governor Pontius Pilate. Looked upon as a political rebel by the Roman authorities, Jesus was tried and crucified.

(v) After Jesus’s crucifixion, St Paul started spreading the Christian doctrine. Paul succeeded in his effort and Christianity gradually spread.

(vi) Romans were prepared to tolerate Christianity. But the refusal of the Christians to pay respect to the Emperor’s image was viewed as political treason.

(vii) It led to the persecution of Christians. Their property was confiscated and they were thrown to the lions.

(viii) Yet the Roman Empire did not succeed in suppressing Christianity. One of the Roman emperors Constantine himself became a Christian. Christianity thus became the official religion of the Empire.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.4

10th Maths Exercise 5.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the slope of the following straight lines
(i) 5y – 3 = 0
(ii) \(7 x-\frac{3}{17}\) = 0
Solution:

Exercise 5.4 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Find the slope of the line which is
(i) parallel to y = 0.7x -11
(ii) perpendicular to the line x = -11
Solution:
(i) y = 0.7x – 11
line parallel to y = 0.7x – 11 is y = 0.7x + C
If the lines are parallel, slopes are equal
∴ The slope of the required line is 0.7.
(ii) m = tan θ = tan 90°= ∞ undefined.

Ex 5.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Check whether the given lines are parallel or perpendicular

Solution:
(i) \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{4}+\frac{1}{7}\) = 0

10th Maths Exercise 5.4 Question 4.
If the straight lines 12y = -(p + 3)x + 12, 12x – 7y = 16 are perpendicular then find ‘p’.
Solution:

10th Maths Example 5.4 Question 5.
Find the equation of a straight line passing through the point P (-5, 2) and parallel to the line joining the points Q(3, -2) and R(-5, 4).
Solution:

Class 10 Maths Exercise 5.4 Solutions Question 6.
Find the equation of a line passing through ; (6, -2) and perpendicular to the line joining the points (6, 7) and (2, -3).
Solution:
Slope of line joining (6, 7) and (2,-3) is

5 Coordinate Geometry Question 7.
A(-3, 0) B(10, – 2) and C(12, 3) are the vertices of ∆ABC . Find the equation of the altitude through A and B.
Solution:
A(-3, 0), B(10, -2), C(12, 3)
Since AD ⊥ BC



(1), (2) are the required equations of the altitudes through A and B.

5.4 Geometry Question 8.
Find the equation of the perpendicular bisector of the line joining the points A(-4, 2) and B(6, -4).
Solution:
Mid Point AB is

Ex 5.4 Class 10 Question 9.
Find the equation of a straight line through the intersection of lines 7x + 3y = 10, 5x – 4y = 1
and parallel to the line 13x + 5y + 12 = O
Solution:

l₁ passes through the intersecting point.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Coordinate Geometry Question 10.
Find the equation of a straight line through the intersection of lines 5x – 6y = 2, 3x + 2y = 10 and perpendicular to the line 4x – 7y + 13 = 0
Solution:

12th Maths Exercise 5.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
Find the equation of a straight line joining the point of intersection of 3x + y + 2 = 0 and x – 2y – 4 = 0 to the point of intersection of 7x – 3y = -12 and 2y = x + 3
Solution:

Exercise 5.4 Class 10 Question 12.
Find the equation of a straight line through the point of intersection of the lines 8x + 3+ = 18, 4x + 5+ = 9 and bisecting the line segment joining the points (5, -4) and (-7, 6).
Solution:
The intersecting point of the lines

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 13 Structural Organisation of Animals

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Structural Organisation Of Animals Class 10 Question 1.
In leech, locomotion is performed by _____.
(a) Anterior sucker
(b) Posterior sucker
(c) Setae
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

10th Science Structural Organisation Of Animals Question 2.
The segments of leech are known as:
(a) Metameres (somites)
(b) Proglottids
(c) Strobila
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Metameres (somites)

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Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 3.
Pharyngeal ganglion in leech is a part of _____.
(a) Excretory system
(b) Nervous system
(c) Reproductive system
(d) Respiratory system.
Answer:
(b) Nervous system

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Question 4.
The brain of leech lies above the:
(a) Mouth
(b) Buccal Cavity
(c) Pharynx
(d) Crop
Answer:
(c) Pharynx

10th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
The body of leech has _____.
(a) 23 segments
(b) 33 segments
(c) 38 segments
(d) 30 segments.
Answer:
(b) 33 segments

Question 6.
Mammals are ______ animals.
(a) Cold – blooded
(b) Warm – blooded
(c) Poikilothermic
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(b) Warm – blooded

Question 7.
The animals which give birth to young ones are:
(a) Oviparous
(b) Viviparous
(c) Ovoviviparous
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Viviparous

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The posterior sucker is formed by the fusion of the _______ segments.
Answer:
Last seven.

Question 2.
The existence of two sets of teeth in the life of an animal is called ______ dentition.
Answer:
Diphyodont.

Question 3.
The anterior end of leech has a lobe-like structure called _____.
Answer:
Sucker.

Question 4.
The blood-sucking habit of a leech is known as _____.
Answer:
Sanguivorous.

Question 5.
______ separate nitrogenous waste from the blood in the rabbit.
Answer:
Nephrons.

Question 6.
_____ spinal nerves are present in the rabbit.
Answer:
37 pairs of.

III. Identify whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
An anticoagulant present in the saliva of the leech is called heparin.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The anticoagulant present in the saliva of the leech is called Hirudin.

Question 2.
The vas deferens serves to transport the ovum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The vas deferens serves to transport the sperm.

Question 3.
The rabbit has a third eyelid called tympanic membrane which is movable.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The rabbit has a third eyelid called Nictitating membrane, which is movable.

Question 4.
Diastema is a gap between premolar and molar teeth in rabbit.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The cerebral hemispheres of the rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called corpora quadrigemina.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The cerebral hemisphere of the rabbit are connected by a band of nerve tissue called Corpus callosum.

IV. Match the Columns I, II and III correctly.

Question 1.

Answer:

V. Answer in a sentence.

Question 1.
Give the common name of the Hirudinaria granulosa.
Answer:
Indian Cattle Leech.

Question 2.
How does leech respire?
Answer:
The leech respire through skin (diffusion).

Question 3.
Write the dental formula of the rabbit.
Answer:
Dental formula is \(\left(\mathrm{I} \frac{2}{1}, \mathrm{C} \frac{0}{0}, \mathrm{PM} \frac{3}{2}, \mathrm{M} \frac{3}{3}\right)\) in Rabbit, which is written as \(\frac{2033}{1023}\)

Question 4.
How many pairs of testes are present in leech?
Answer:
In leech, there are eleven pairs of testes. One pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments.

Question 5.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
The diastema is formed in Rabbit, as a gap between the incisors and premolars,

Question 6.
What organs are attached to the two bronchi?
Answer:
Lung, Bronchioles and Alveoli are the Organs, attached to Bronchi.

Question 7.
Which organ acts as suction pump in leech?
Answer:
The muscular pharynx found below the buccal cavity acts as suction pump in leech. It is surrounded by large masses, unicellular glands called salivary glands.

Question 8.
What does CNS stand for?
Answer:
CNS stands for Central Nervous System.

Question 9.
Why are the teeth of a rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
The teeth of Rabbit are of different types. So it is called heterodont.

Question 10.
How does leech suck blood from the host?
Answer:
In leech, blood is sucked by the muscular pharynx. The salivary secretion is poured in the wound. The saliva contains an active substance called hirudin which prevents the coagulation of the blood.

VI. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Why are the rings of cartilages found in the trachea of a rabbit?
Answer:
Tracheal walls are supported by rings of cartilage, which help in the free passage of air.

Question 2.
List out the parasitic adaptations in leech.
Answer:

1. The suckers are the primary organ of the blood sucking.
2. The blood is sucked by muscular pharynx.
3. Leeches attaches itself to the body of host by Anterior and Posterior ends of the body.
4. The three jaws inside the mouth, causes a painless triradiate or Y shaped incision in the skin of the host.
5. A protein called hirudin is produced in the salivary gland of leech to prevent blood coagulation. Thus, a continuous supply of the blood is maintained.
6. Parapodia and setae are completely absent.
7. Leeches also inject an anaesthetic substances that prevents the host from feeling their bite.
8. In the crop, blood is stored which gives nourishment to the leech for several months. Due to this reason there is no eloborate secretion of the digestive juices and enzymes.

VII. Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
How is the circulatory system designed in leech to compensate the heart structure?
Answer:
There are no true blood vessels in leeches. The blood vessels are replaced by canals called haemocoelic canals. These canals are filled with haemocoelic fluid. There are four longitudinal canals. One is dorsal lying above the alimentary canal, another is ventral lying below the alimentary canal. The remaining two are lateral lying on either side of the alimentary canal. These four canals are connected together at the posterior end. There is no heart, but the lateral channels serve as a heart by being contractile. They have values inside. The dorsal and ventral channels are non-contractile having no muscular walls.

Question 2.
How does locomotion take place in leech?
Answer:
Locomotion in leech takes place by:

• Looping or Crawling movement: This type of movement is brought about, by the contraction and relaxation of muscles. The two suckers, serve for attachment, during movement on a substratum.
• Swimming movement: Leeches swim very actively and perform undulating movements in the water.

Question 3.
Explain the male reproductive system of the rabbit with a labelled diagram.
Answer:
A pair of Testes, which are ovoid in shape, are enclosed by Scrotal Sac, in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called Seminiferous tubules. This network of tubules leads into a coiled tubule called Epididymis, which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens. The vas deferens join in the urethra, just below the Urinary Bladder. The Urethra runs backwards and passes into the penis.

The Prostate gland, Cowper’s gland and Perineal gland are the three accessory glands, whose secretions are involved in reproduction.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Arjun is studying in tenth standard. He was down with fever and went to meet the doctor. As he went to the clinic he saw a patient undergoing treatment for severe leech bite. Being curious, Arjun asked the doctor why leech bite was not felt as soon as it attaches to the skin ? What would have been the reply given by the doctor?
Answer:
The leech makes a wound with the jaws by making a rasping movement. The blood is sucked by the muscular pharynx. The salivary secretion is poured in the wound. They inject an anaesthetic substances that prevents the host from feeling their bite. The saliva contains an active substances called hirudin which prevents the coagulation of the blood.

Question 2.
Shylesh has some pet animals at his home. He has few rabbits too, one day while feeding them he observed something different with the teeth. He asked his grandfather, why is it so? What would have been the explanation of his grandfather?
Answer:
The explanation of the grandfather would have been as follows: Teeth are hard bone – like structures, used to cut, tear and grind the food. There are incisors, canines, premolars and molars teeth are seen. Canines are absent. Something different from the teeth is the gap between incisors and premolar, which is called Diastema. It helps in mastication and chewing the food.

IX. Value-Based Questions.

Question 1.
Leeches do not have an secretion of digestive juices and enzymes -Why?
Answer:
The blood sucked by the leech is stored up in the crop. The blood gets haemolysed in the crop. Then the blood is passed drop by drop into the stomach where it is digested slowly by the peptolytic enzyme. The digested blood is absorbed slowly by the intestine.

Question 2.
How is the digestive system of rabbit suited for a herbivorous mode of feeding?
Answer:
The caecum is a thin – walled sac present at the Junction of the small intestine and large intestine. It contains bacteria, that helps in digestion of cellulose. So the digestive system of Rabbit is suited for a herbivorous mode of feeding.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Structural Organisation of Animals Additional Questions Solved

I. Match the following.

Question 1.

Answer:
1. (c) Metamerism
2. (d) Move-in groups
3. (a) Hirudin
4. (e) Septum
5. (b) Vagina.

II. Choose the correct pair.

Question 1.
The digestion of cellulose in rabbit takes place in:
(a) vemiform appendix
(b) colon
(c) caecum
(d) ileum
Answer:
(c) caecum

Question 2.
(a) Ureter and Dermis
(b) Clitella and Mouth
(c) Vagina and Egg case
(d) Sucker and Small intestine.
Answer:
(c) Vagina and Egg case

Question 3.
Total number of incisors teeth in rabbit is:
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 10
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 6

Question 4.
(a) Mouth and Metamerism
(b) Ganglion and Colon
(c) Intestine and Integument
(d) Expiration and Inspiration.
Answer:
(d) Expiration and Inspiration

Question 5.
(a) Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands
(b) Triradiate and Thoracic
(c) Trachea and Tricuspid
(d) Seminiferous and Sansuivorous.
Answer:
(a) Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands

III. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
In leech, the ______ tissue lies beneath longitudinal muscles and fills the entire colon around the gut.
Answer:
Botryoidal.

Question 2.
_____ teeth are absent in Rabbit.
Answer:
Canine.

Question 3.
Digestion in leech takes place in the stomach by the action of ______ enzyme.
Answer:
Proteolytic.

Question 4.
The anterior part of the windpipe is enlarged to form ______ or _____.
Answer:
Larynx or Voicebox.

Question 5.
The opening of the pulmonary artery and Aorta are guarded by three ________ valves.
Answer:
Semilunar.

Question 6.
The coelomic fluid contains _____.
Answer:
Haemoglobin.

Question 7.
The Jaws of Leeches are provided with _____.
Answer:
Papillae.

Question 8.
The pain of testes is enclosed by a sac called _____.
Answer:
Scrotal Sac.

Question 9.
Central Nervous System consists of _______ and _____.
Answer:
Brain, Spinal Chord.

Question 10.
Autonomous nervous system comprises _______ and _____.
Answer:
Sympathetic, Parasympathetic.

Question 11.
Each kidney is made up of several _____.
Answer:
Nephrons.

Question 12.
In Rabbits, as male and female sexes are separate, _____ is exhibited.
Answer:
Sexual dimorphism.

Question 13.
The other name for the voice box is _____ and the other name for the windpipe is _____.
Answer:
Larynx, Trachea.

Question 14.
The right and left ventricles are separated by _____.
Answer:
Inter Ventricular Septum

Question 15.
The external ear or ______ is situated at the top of the head in Rabbits.
Answer:
Pinnae.

IV. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The largest portion of the Alimentary Canal in Leech is _____.
(a) Mouth
(b) Pharynx
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Crop.
Answer:
(d) Crop.

Question 2.
In Leech, the dense network of tiny blood vessels, containing Haemocoelic fluid is called _____.
(a) Artery
(b) Capillaries
(c) Vein
(d) Blood Vessel.
Answer:
(b) Capillaries

Question 3.
Body wall of Leech includes ______ layers.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 4.
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 4.
In female Rabbits, these four or five structures are present on the ventral surface between the thorax and abdomen _____.
(a) Nipples or Trets
(b) Limbs
(c) Vibrissae
(d) Diaphragm.
Answer:
(a) Nipples or Trets

Question 5.
In male rabbits, this structure is found in the ventral side of Anus _____.
(a) Claws
(b) Sweat glands
(c) Penis
(d) Abdomen.
Answer:
(c) Penis

V. Read the following statements and correct them, if it is not true.

Question 1.
Dorsal surface of Leech is Orange Yellow or Red in colour.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Dorsal surface of Leech is Olive green in colour.

Question 2.
The clitellum is formed on segments 9 to 11, which is meant to produce cocoon, during the breeding season.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The lower side of the thoracic cavity in Rabbit is the dome-shaped Sternum.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lower side of the thoracic cavity in Rabbit is the dome-shaped Diaphragm.

Question 4.
Mammary glands are the modified glands of the skin.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The supra pharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The sub pharyngeal ganglion lies below the Pharynx and is formed by the fusion of four pairs of Ganglia.

VI. Find the Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Cuticle, Epidermis, Sphincters, Muscular layer.
Answer:
Sphincters.

Question 2.
Undigested food, Genital pore, Rectum, Anus.
Answer:
Genital pore.

Question 3.
Gregarious, Thorax, Abdomen, Pinnae.
Answer:
Gregarious.

Question 4.
Nephrons, Nitrogenous waste, Scrotal Sac, Urea.
Answer:
Scrotal Sac.

Question 5.
Teats or Nipples, Hairs, Claws, Nails
Answer:
Teats or Nipples.

V. Answer the following in a word or sentence.

Question 1.
Where is mouth located in Leech?
Answer:
The mouth is located in the middle of the Anterior Sucker.

Question 2.
List out the structures derived from the skin of rabbit.
Answer:
The structures derived from the skin of rabbit are hair, claws, nails and glands like sweat glands, sebaceous glands and mammary glands.

Question 3.
What is Epiglottis?
Answer:
Epiglottis is a flap, in the neck, which prevents the entry of food into the trachea through the glottis.

Question 4.
The excretory system of rabbit is called a urinogenital system?
Answer:
The Urinogenital system of rabbit comprises the urinary system and genital or reproductive system. So they are called urinogenital system.

Question 5.
Where are Annular and Segmental receptors located?
Answer:
Annular receptors are located in each annulus and Segmental receptors are located on the first annulus of each segment.

Question 6.
What are Vibrissae?
Answer:
In Rabbit, from each side of upper lip tactile hairs or Whiskers present, which are called Vibrissae.

Question 7.
What is the scientific name of rabbit?
Answer:
The scientific name of rabbit is Oryctolagus cuniculus.

Question 8.
Which glands regulate the body temperature of Rabbits?
Answer:
The Sweat glands and Sebaceous glands embedded in the skin regulate the body temperature of Rabbits.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
Explain the Excretory System of Leech briefly.
Answer:
In Leech, excretion takes place by segmentally arranged paired tubules called Nephridia. There are 17 pairs of Nephridia, which open out by nephridiopores from 6th to 22nd segments.

Question 2.
Explain the types of coelom in leech.
Answer:
Leech contains special longitudinal canals called haemocoelic canals filled with a blood like fluid called haemocolic fluid. This type of coelom is called Haemocoel.

Question 3.
What are Receptors? Write a short note on Receptors.
Answer:
Sensory projections are called Receptors on the dorsal side, there are five pairs of eyes on the first five segments. Annular receptors are located in each Annulus and segmental receptors are located on the first annulus of each segment.

Question 4.
What is hermaphrodite?
Answer:
If the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same animals, ‘ then the organism is said to hermaphrodite.

Question 5.
Name three accessory glands, which involve in the male reproductive system of Rabbit.
Answer:

• Prostate gland
• Cowper’s gland
• Perineal gland.

Their secretion involved in Reproduction.

Question 6.
Name the following:
(a) Three membranes, which cover the Brain in Rabbit
(b) Division of brain
Answer:
(a) Three membranes, which cover the Brain in Rabbit

• Dura mater
• Inner Piameter
• Arachnoid membrane.

(b) Division of brain

1. Forebrain (Prosencephalon)
2. Midbrain (Mesencephalon)
3. Hindbrain (Rhombencephalon).

Question 7.
Write a note on Medicinal value of Leech.
Answer:

1. Leeches breaks up blood clots.
2. Increases blood circulation
3. Leeches are used to treat cardio vascular diseases.
4. Saliva of leeches are used in the preparation of drugs that can treat hypertension.

Question 8.
With the Tabular Column, mention the Divisions of the body of Leech.
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain the hermaphrodite structure of leech.
Answer:
Leech is hermaphrodite because it contain both male and female genital organ in same animal.
Male Reproductive system: It is formed of: (i) Testes, (ii) Vas efferens, (Hi) Epididymis, (iv) Ejaculatory ducts and atrium.

There are eleven pairs of testes, one pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments. They are in the form of spherical sacs called testes sacs. From each testes arises a short duct called vas efferens, which join with the vas deferens. The vas deferens becomes convoluted to form the epididymis or sperm vesicle, to store spermatozoa.

The epididymis leads to a short duct called ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory ducts on both sides join to form the genital atrium. The atrium consists of two regions, the coiled prostate glands and the penial sac consisting of penis that opens through the male genital pore.

Female Reproductive system : It consists of ovaries, oviducts and vagina. There is a single pair of ovary in the 11th segment on the ventral side. Each ovary is a coiled ribbon-shaped structure. The ova are budded off from the ovary. From each ovary runs a short oviduct. The oviducts of the two sides joins together, to form a common oviduct. The common oviduct opens into a pear-shaped vagina which lies mid-ventrally in the posterior part of the 11th segment.

VIII. Label the following diagrams.

Question 1.
Draw and label the female Reproductive System of Rabbit.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and label the Digestive System of Leech.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw and label the Brain of the rabbit.
Answer:

Question 4.
Draw and label the Lung of Rabbit.
Answer:

IX. Answer the following in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the Digestive System of Rabbit with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Teeth are hard, bone – like structures used to cut, tear and grind the food materials. The digestive system includes the Alimentary canal and the associated digestive glands. The alimentary canal consists of a mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine and anus. The mouth is a transverse slit, bounded by upper and lower lips.

It leads to a buccal cavity muscular tongue is at the floor of the buccal cavity. Jaws bear teeth. Buccal cavity leads into Oesophagus. Oesophagus opens into the stomach followed by the small intestine. The thin-walled Sac, called Caecum, present at the Junction of the small intestine and large intestine, contains bacteria, which helps in digestion of cellulose.

The digestive glands such as salivary glands, gastric glands, Liver, Pancreas and intestinal glands secrete digestive juices, which help in the digestion of food in the Alimentary canal. After digestion, from the small intestine, the undigested food and wastes enter into the large intestine, which has colon and rectum. The rectum opens outside by the Anus.

Question 2.
Explain the male and the female Reproductive system of Leech with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:
Leech is hermaphrodite, both the male and female reproductive organs are present in the same.
Male Reproductive system: There are eleven pairs of testes, one pair in each segment from 12 to 22 segments. They are in the form of Spherical Sacs called testes sacs. From each testis arises a short duct called Vas efferents, which join with the Vas deferens.

The Vas deferens becomes convoluted to form the epididymis or sperm vesicle, to store spermatozoa. The epididymis leads to a short duct called the ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct on both sides joins to form Genital Atrium. The Atrium consists of prostate glands and the Penial sac, with Penis, that opens through the genital pore.

Female Reproductive system: It consists of Ovaries, Oviducts and Vagina. Each ovary is coiled, ribbon-shaped, and the single pair of the ovary is in the 11th segment. The Ova are budded off from the ovary. From each ovary runs a short oviduct, and the oviducts of two sides join together, to form a common Oviduct, which opens into a pear-shaped Vagina. Vagina lies mid ventrally in the posterior part of 11th segment.

Internal fertilisation takes place. This is followed by cocoon formation. The cocoon or egg case is formed around 9th, 10th and 11th segments. Development directs, proceeds in a cocoon, which contain one to 24 embryos. The emerging young leech resembles the adult Leech.

Question 3.
Explain the Circulatory system of Rabbit with a neat labelled diagram of a Heart.
(i) Observe the external morphology of leech specimen in your biology laboratory.
(ii) Can you find leeches in your locality?
(iii) In which geographical areas are leeches found more predominantly in India?
Answer:
The Circulatory system consists of blood, blood vessels and Heart. The Heart is pear-shaped, lies in between the lungs, in the thoracic cavity. The heart is covered by a double-layered Pericardium. The Heart is four-chambered, with two Auricles and two ventricles. The right and the left ventricles are separated by inter auricular septum. The right and the left ventricles are separated by the interventricular septum. The right auricle opens into the right ventricle, by right Auriculoventricular aperture, guarded by a tricuspid valve. The left auricle opens into the left ventricle by left Auriculoventricular aperture, guarded by a bicuspid valve or Mitral valve. The opening of the Pulmonary Artery and Aorta are guarded by three semilunar valves.

The right Auricle receives deoxygenated blood through two Precaval (superior vena cava) and one postcaval (Inferior vena cava) veins from all parts of the body. The left auricle receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary veins from the lungs.
From the right ventricle arises Pulmonary trunk, which carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs and from the left ventricle arises the systemic arch (aorta) which supplies Oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.

(i) Observe the external morphology of Leech in the preserved bottle specimens in the Biology Laboratory.
(ii) No, Not in our areas. The Leeches are common in hilly areas
(iii) Most Leech species are found in shallow, slow-moving freshwater and moist soil on land.

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
How were Leeches used in Ancient times?
Answer:
Leeches were used in medicines from Ancient times. Until the 19th century, Leeches were used to draw blood from patients.

Question 2.
How are Leeches used in modern times?
Answer:
In modem times, Leeches find medical use in the treatment of Joint diseases such as Epicondylitis and Osteoarthritis, Extremity vein diseases and Microsurgery. Hirudin is a valuable dmg for some blood clotting disorders. There are doctors who will use Leeches to treat muscle cramps.

Question 3.
What is the benefit of Rabbit?
Answer:
Rabbit meat is white meat of high quality, easily digestible with low fat, low cholesterol and high protein compared to most other meats. It is an excellent source of vitamins B₃ and B₁₂, minerals, and trace elements (Phosphorus, Potassium and Selenium) Rabbit meat is an excellent balance of fatty acids, Omega 3 than chicken or pork.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.3

9th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.3 Question 1.
Check whether p(x) is a multiple of g(x) or not.
p(x) = x³ – 5x² + 4x – 3, g(x) = x – 2
Solution:
p(x) = x³ – 5x² + 4x – 3; g(x) = x – 2
Let g(x) = 0
x – 2 = 0
x = 2
p(2) = 2³ – 5(2²) + 4(2) – 3
= 8 – 5 × 4 + 8 – 3 = 8 – 20 + 5 = -7 ≠ 0
⇒ p(x) is not a multiple of g(x)

9th Maths Exercise 3.3 Question 2.
By remainder theorem, find the remainder when, p(x) is divided by g(x) where,
(i) p(x) = x³ – 2x² – 4x – 1; g(x) = x + 1
(ii) p(x) = 4x³ – 12x² + 14x – 3; g(x) = 2x – 1
(iii) p(x) = x³ – 3x² + 4x + 50; g(x) = x – 3
Solution:
(i) p(x) = x³ – 2x² – 4x – 1; g(x) = x + 1
Let g(x) = x + 1
x + 1 = 0
x = -1
P(-1) = (-1)³ – 2(-1)² – 4(-1) – 1
= -1 -2 × 1 + 4 – 1
= -4 + 4 = 0
∴ Remainder = 0.

(ii) p(x) = 4x³ – 12x² + 14x – 3; g(x) = 2x – 1

(iii) p(x) = x³ – 3x² + 4x + 50 ; g(x) = x – 3
Let g(x) = x – 3
x – 3 = 0
x = 3
p(3) = 3³ – 3(3²) + 4(3) + 50
= 27 – 27 + 12 + 50
= 62
∴ Remainder = 62.

9th Maths 3.3 Question 3.
Find the remainder when 3x³ – 4x² + 7x – 5 is divided by (x + 3)
Solution:
(3x³ – 4x² + 7x – 5) + (x + 3)

The remainder is -143.

9th Class Maths Exercise 3.3 Solution Question 4.
What is the remainder when x²⁰¹⁸ + 2018 is divided by x – 1.
Solution:
x²⁰¹⁸ + 2018 is divided by x – 1
Let g(x) = x – 1 = 0
x = 1
p(x) = x²⁰¹⁸ + 2018
p(1)= 1²⁰¹⁸ + 2018
= 1 + 2018 = 2019

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 3 Question 5.
For what value of k is the polynomial p(x) = 2x³ – kx² + 3x + 10 exactly divisible by (x – 2).
Solution:
Let g(x) = x – 2 = 0
x = 2
Since p(x) is exactly divisible by (x – 2)
p(2) = 2(2³) – k(2²) + 3(2)+ 10
= 16 – 4k + 6 + 10
= 32 – 4k = 0
= -k = -32
k= \(\frac{32}{4}\) = 8.

Ex 3.3 Class 9 Samacheer Question 6.
If two polynomials 2x³ + ax² + 4x – 12 and x³ + x² – 2x + a leave the same remainder when divided by (x – 3), find the value of a. and also find the remainder.
Solution:
Let f(x) = 2x³ + ax² + 4x – 12 and g(x) = x³ + x² – 2x + a
When f(x) is divided by x – 3, the remainder is f(3).
Now f(3) = 2(3)³ + a(3)² + 4(3) – 12 = 54 + 9a + 12 – 12
f(3) = 9a + 54 …………. (1)
When g(x) is divided by x – 3, the remainder is g(3).
Now g(3) = 3³ + 3² – 2(3) + a = 27 + 9 – 6 + a
g(3) = a + 30 ……….. (2)
Since, the remainder’s are same (1) = (2)
Given that f(3) = g(3)
That is 9a + 54 = a + 30
9a – a = 30 – 54 ⇒ 8a = -24 ∴ a = -3
Substituting a = -3 in f(3), we get
f(3) = 9(-3) + 54 = -27 + 54
f(3) = 27
∴ The remainder is 27.

9th Class Math 3.3 Exercise Solution Question 7.
Determine whether (x – 1) is a factor of the following polynomials:
(i) x³ + 5x² – 10x + 4
(ii) x⁴ + 5x² – 5x + 1
Solution:
(i) Let P(x) = x³ + 5x² – 10x + 4
By factor theorem (x – 1) is a factor of P(x), if P(1) = 0
P(1) = 1³ + 5(1²) – 10(1) + 4 = 1 + 5 – 10 + 4
P(1) = 0
∴ (x – 1) is a factor of x³ + 5x² – 10x + 4

(ii) Let P(x) = x⁴ + 5x² – 5x + 1
By/actor theorem, (x – 1) is a factor of P(x), if P( 1) = 0
P(1) = 1⁴ + 5 (1²) – 5(1) + 1 = 1 + 5 – 5 + 1 = 2 ≠ 0
∴ (x – 1) is not a factor of x⁴ + 5x² – 5x + 1

Class 9th Maths Exercise 3.3 Question 8.
Using factor theorem, show that (x – 5) is a factor of the polynomial 2x³ – 5x² – 28x + 15
Solution:
LetP(x) = 2x³ – 5x² – 28x + 15
By factor theorem, (x – 5) is a factor of P(x), if P(5) = 0
P(5) = 2 (5)² – 5 (5)² – 28 (5) + 15
= 2 × 125 – 5 × 25 – 140 + 15
= 250 – 125 – 140 + 15 = 265 – 265 = 0
∴ (x – 5) is a factor of 2x³ – 5x² – 28x + 15

Class 9 Maths Exercise 3.3 Solutions Question 9.
Determine the value of m, if (x + 3) is a factor of x³ – 3x² – mx + 24.
Solution:
Let P(x) = x³ – 3x² – mx + 24
By using factor theorem,
(x + 3) is a factor of P(x), then P (-3) = 0
P(-3) = (-3)³ -3 (-3)² – m (-3) + 24 = 0
⇒ -27 – 3 × 9 + 3m + 24 = 0 ⇒ 3m = 54 – 24
⇒ m = \(\frac{30}{3}\) = 10

Exercise 3.3 Class 9 Maths Question 10.
If both (x – 2) and (x – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) are the factors of ax² + 5x + b, then show that a = b.
Solution:
Let P(x) = ax² + 5x + b
(x – 2) is a factor of P(x), if P(2) = 0
P(2) = a(2)² + 5(2) + b = 0
4a + 10 + b = 0
4 a + b = – 10 …………….. (1)
(x – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) is a factor of P(x), P(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) = 0

2a + 8b = -20
a + 4b = – 10 ……………… (2)
From (1) and (2)
4a + b = – 10 …………. (1)
a + 4b = – 10 ………… (2)
(1) and (2) ⇒ 4a + b = a + 4b
3a = 3b
∴ a = b. Hence it is proved.

Ex 3.3 Class 9 Maths Solutions Question 11.
If (x – 1)divides the polynomial kx³ – 2x² + 25x – 26 without remainder, then find the value of k.
Solution:
Let P(x) = kx³ – 2x² + 25x – 26
By factor theorem, (x – 1) divides P(x) without remainder, P (1) = 0
P(1) = k(1)³ -2 (1)² + 25 (1) – 26 = 0
k – 2 + 25 – 26 = 0
k – 3 =0
k = 3

Class 9th Math Exercise 3.3 Question 12.
Check if (x + 2) and (x – 4) are the sides of a rectangle whose area is x² – 2x – 8 by using factor theorem.
Solution:
Let P(x) = x² – 2x² – 8
By using factor theorem,(x + 2) is a factor of P(x), if P (-2) = 0
P(-2) = (-2)² – 2 (-2) – 8 = 4 + 4 – 8 = 0
and also (x -4) is a factor of P (x), if P (4) = 0
p (4) = 4² – 2(4) – 8 = 16 – 8 – 8 = 0
∴ (x + 2), (x – 4) are the sides of a rectangle whose area is x² – 2x – 8.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 3 Money and Credit

Money and Credit Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Money And Credit Class 9 Question 1.
Certain metals like ….. (gold/iron) were used as a medium of exchange in ancient times.
2. The Head Quarters of the RBI is at ….. (Chennai / Mumbai).
3. International trade is carried on in terms of …… (US Dollars / Pounds).
4. The currency of Japan is ……. (Yen/Yuan)
Answers:
1. gold
2. Mumbai
3. US Dollars
4. Yen

II. Fill in the blanks.
1. …… System can be considered as the first form of trade.
2. Money supply is divided into ……
3. The first printing press of the RBI was started at ………
4. …… act as a regulator of the circulation of money.
5. The thesis about money by B.R. Ambedkar is ……..
Answers:
1. Barter
2. four
3. Nasik, Maharashtra
4. The Reserve Bank of India
5. The Problem of the Rupee

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Give short answers.

9th Economics Question 1.
Why was money invented?
Answer:

1. If there were no money, we would be reduced to a barter economy.
2. In the market we don’t barter for individual goods.
3. Instead we exchange for goods (or) services for a common medium of exchange that is money.

Money Supply Is Divided Into Dash Question 2.
What is ancient money?
Answer:

1. Measuring the quantity and value of the goods exchanged were found very difficult. To solve these issues they fixed a common item with a standard value for the effective exchange of goods.
2. Gold, silver and copper were called ancient money.

Money And Credit Notes Question 3.
What were the items used as barter during olden days?
Answer:
Leather beads, shells, tobacco, salt, com and even slaves were the items used as barter during olden days.

Question 4.
What is spice route? Why was it called so?
Answer:

1. Pepper, spices, pearls, gems, rubies and muslin clothes were exported from the eastern sea of TamilNadu.
2. Pepper and spices took a major share of the exports. Hence this route was called the spice route.

Question 5.
What is natural money?
Answer:
The metals such as silver and gold gained importance gradually all over the world. So, these metals were used as standard value in the exchange of goods. This was called as natural money.

Question 6.
Why were coins of low value printed in large quantities?
Answer:

1. Mines had a limited reserve of the metals.
2. An alternative was found and coins were made using metals with lesser value.
3. These were used to buy and sell goods of lesser value.
4. It was used as the money of the poor people,

Hence the coins of low value were printed in large quantities.

Question 7.
What is meant by foreign exchange?
Answer:

1. It is the conversion of one country’s currency into another. A country’s currency value may also be set by the country’s government.
2. It is a system of trading in and converting the currency of one country into that of another.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain how money is transacted in the digital world.
Answer:
Money has become an inseparable part of everyone’s life today. It has changed its form in the economic front. Money transactions are done through many ways in the electronic world. One has to visit the bank and fill in a challan or produce a cheque to withdraw money from his account.

Now this practice is gradually vanishing. Instead, one can easily withdraw the necessary amount from an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), with the help of an ATM debit card. One can easily withdraw the money needed at any time at ATMs located everywhere. A person can deposit money in their account without visiting the branch.

Similarly, credit cards are also available, through which things are bought on credit and the amount can be paid later.

Question 2.
Explain in detail about the role of RBI in the country.
Answer:
A government has the responsibility to regulate money supply and oversee the monetary policy. Hoarding of money must be avoided at all costs in a country’s economy. Only then money can be saved in banks.

A major portion of the savings in banks are used for the development of industries, economic growth and various development schemes for the welfare of the poor.
All the major and important banks were nationalised (1969) in India. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates the circulation of currency in India.

The Reserve Bank of India started its operations on 1st April 1935. It was permanently moved to Mumbai from the year 1937. RBI was nationalised in 1949. 85% of the printed currency is let for circulation. According to the statistics available as on August 2018, currency worth of 19 lakh crore are in circulation.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the various functions of money.
Answer:
When money replaced the barter system, a lot of practical issues were solved. Money acts a medium of exchange, a unit of measurement, a store of value and a standard of deferred payments. It plays an important role in transactions.

Medium of Exchange: Money should be accepted liberally in exchange of goods and services in a country.

Unit of Account: Money should be the common, standard unit of calculating a country’s total consumer goods, products, services etc. For example, if a book costs ₹ 50, it means that the price of the book is equale to 50 units of money. Money is used to measure and record financial transactions in a country.

A Store of Value: Money is used as a store of purchasing power. It can be used to finance future payments.

Question 4.
What are the divisions of money supply?
Answer:
Money supply is divided into four;
M₁ = Currency held with the public + cash Reserves in commercial and Co-operative banks + cash reserves in the RBI.
M₂ = M₁ + Money saved in Post office and bank savings Accounts
M₃ = M₁ + Time Deposits in Commercial and co-operative banks
M₄ = M₃ + Post office savings Money .

VI. Write the correct statement.

A.
1. The barter system flourished wherever civilizations thrived.
2. This was the initial form of trade.
(i) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(iii) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answer:
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are correct

B.
1. Most of the international trade transactions are carried out in US dollars.
2. No other country except the US carries out trade in the world.
(i) Both the statements are correct.
(ii) Both the statements are wrong.
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answer:
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong

VII. Project and activity.

Question 1.
Visit a local museum and collect information about the coins displayed there.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Imagine you are going abroad for a Post Graduation course in architecture. Write a letter to the Branch Manager regarding an education loan.
Answer:
18.04.2019
Chennai
From
Deepa
18, Meenakshi Nagar
Nerkundram
To
The Branch Manager
HDFC Bank
T. Nagar
Chennai-600 017
Respected Sir,
Sub: Request for Educational Loan
I am Deepa, a student of Architecture living in Chennai. I have completed my degree course with 85% marks. I have got an opportunity to pursue a Post Graduation course in Architecture at King’s College, London. As I belong to an economically weaker section, I need your help in funding my studies. I am applying for an educational loan at your esteemed bank. I herewith enclose the copies of my marksheet and admission letter. Could you please consider my request for the loan. I shall be obliged for the same.
Thank you,
Yours sincerely,
Deepa
Enclosures:
1. B.Arch. marksheet
2. Admission Letter for Post Graduation in Architecture

VIII. Life skills – Student Activity.
Question 1.
Observe a 20 rupee note. What is written on it?
Answer:
• RESERVE BANK OF INDIA
• GUARANTEED BY THE CENTRAL GOVERNMENT
• I PROMISE TO PAY THE BEARER THE SUM OF TWENTY RUPEES
Students can write other words written in different languages:
• …………………………………………….
• …………………………………………….

Question 2.
Prepare a family budget for a month.
Answer:

1. The class will be divided into 4 groups.
2. They will be asked to prepare a family budget with the help of parents.
3. The report will be presented in the class by each group.

Money and Credit Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.
1. ………….. (Ancient men/Modern men) hunted and gathered food.
2. …………. (Goods/Metals) be termed as the first form of money.
3. ……… (The later Cholas/The early Cholas) allowed the traders to have their own army.
4. All the major and important banks were nationalised in ……. (1969/1970) in India.
5. The currency of England is …………. (Pound/Dollar).
6. The currency of Saudi Arabia is ………. (Ringgit/Riyal).
Answers:
1. Ancient men
2. Metals
3. The later Cholas
4. 1969
5. Pound
6. Riyal

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The …….. system was the initial form of international trade.
2. ……. plays a predominant and inseparable role in all our lives.
3. The first form of money is ……….
4. ………. issued a coin of silver weighing 178 grams which was termed as the Rupiya.
5. A government has the responsibility to regulate money supply and oversee the ……… policy.
6. ……….. attempts to meet the educational aspirations of the society.
7. There is no security required for the loan amount upto ₹ ………. lakhs.
8. The …… regulates the circulation of currency in India.
9. The Indian currency is called the ………
10. Till 1947, the currency notes with the image of …….. were in circulation.
Answers:
1. Barter
2. Money
3. metals
4. Sher Shah Suri
5. Monetary
6. Educational loan
7. 4 lakhs
8. Reserve Bank of India
9. Indian Rupee INR
10. King George VI

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (f)
2. (g)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (c)
7. (e)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Give a short account of the life of ancient men.
Answer:
Ancient man hunted and gathered food. He lived in caves and forests. In later stages, he invented weapons for hunting and gathering food. Later, he invented fire and learnt to practise agriculture. He used mud to build houses and settle down in a place, and also to make earthenware. ”

Question 2.
How does money play a predominant and inseparable role in all our lives?
Answer:
The Government, as well as, private institutions and industries calculate their financial status through money. Thus, money plays a predominant and inseparable role in all our lives.

Question 3.
How were the later cholas treated the traders?
Answer:
The later Cholas allowed the traders to have their own army. Historical evidences state that during this period, small traders and producers gave credit to the Tamil traders to support their export needs.

Question 4.
Where were the barter system flourished?
Answer:
The barter system flourished wherever civilizations thrived. This system was active not only within a civilization, but also among civilizations. This was the initial form of international trade.

Question 5.
What is currency?
Answer:
Currency is the medium of exchange in a country. The Indian currency is called the Indian Rupee (INR). In a country the foreign currency is called foreign exchange.
Purchasing capacity of all currencies in the world are compared using the US dollar as the standard currency. This value differs from country to country.

Question 6.
What do the Government do with the savings in the banks?
Answer:
A major portion of the savings in banks are used for the development of industries, economic growth and various development schemes for the welfare of the poor.

Question 7.
What is Credit?
Answer:
Farmers avail credit during monsoons for buying seeds, agricultural input and other expenses. Traders and small entrepreneurs need credit for their needs. Even large industries receive credit to take up their new projects.

Question 8.
Give an account of Self Help Groups.
Answer:
People who live in a particular place or those who are involved in a certain work join together as a group and start saving. These are called as Self Help Groups. The nationalised banks provide help to these groups through micro-credit. Credit given though Self Help Groups for street vendors, fishermen, especially women and the poor really make a difference in their life.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
How is currency printed in India?
Answer:
In 1925, the British government established a government press at Nasik in Maharashtra. Currencies were printed three years later. In 1974, a press was started in Dewas, Madhya Pradesh. (Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd.) In the 1990s. two more presses were started in Mysuru, Karnataka and Salboni in West Bengal to print bank notes. The Reserve Bank of India has the authority to decide the value of currency to be printed and how the amount should reach its destination safely. Around ten thousand workers are employed here. Countries like Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Iraq and Africa have drawn contracts for printing their currencies and sent to the respective countries.

Though the RBI has the power to print up to ten thousand rupee notes, at present a maximum of upto rupees two thousand is printed.

Question 2.
Write in detail the Foreign Exchange rate equivalent to US Dollars.
Answer:

VI. Write the correct statement.

A.
1. Money is recognized as a standard record for the payment of a thing or service.
2. Using this currency, people can purchase things, pay taxes and repay debts.
(i) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong
(iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answer:
(i) Both 1 and 2 are correct

B.
1. Paper money was introduced because metal supply was limited.
2. All the major and important banks were nationalised in 1964, in India.
(i) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(ii) Both 1 and 2 are wrong
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong (iv) 1 is wrong; 2 is correct
Answer:
(iii) 1 is correct; 2 is wrong

HOTS

Question 1.
How important is foreign exchange to one’s country?
Answer:

1. During any Crisis Foreign exchange reserves come to the rescue of any country. It absorbs the distress related to such crisis.
2. It increases the confidence in the monetary and exchange rate policies of the government.
3. Foreign exchange reserves are the foreign currencies held by the Country’s Central Bank. They are also called Foreign currency reserves (or) Foreign reserves. They manage their currencies.

Thus foreign exchange is important to any country.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Indian Constitution

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science Civics Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science Civics Board solutions for Chapter 1 Indian Constitution Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 1 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Indian Constitution Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer

10th Social Civics 1st Lesson Question 1.
Which of the following sequences in right regarding the Preamble?
(a) Republic, democratic, secular, socialist, sovereign
(b) Sovereign, socialist, secular, republic, democratic
(c) Sovereign, republic, secular, socialist, democratic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 2.
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Social Solutions For Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The Indian Constitution gives to its citizens …………………
(a) Double Citizenship
(b) Single Citizenship
(c) Single Citizenship in some States and double in others
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single Citizenship

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Guide Question 4.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through:
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

10th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 5.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Social Question 6.
One of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right?
(a) Workers from Karnataka go to Kerala to work on the farms
(b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary
(d) Parents property is inherited by their children
Answer:
(c) Men and Women government employees got the same salary

10th Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 7.
If the fundamental rights of Indian citizen are violated, they possess the right to have an access to …………..
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The President of India
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer:
(d) The Supreme Court of India

10th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and soul of the Constitution?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies
(d) Right to property
Answer:
(c) Right to Constitutional remedies

Indian Constitution 10th Class Question 9.
How can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
(a) If the Supreme Court so desires
(b) If the Prime Minister orders to this effect
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) If the President orders it during the national emergency

Civics Class 10 Chapter 1 Question 10.
We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the:
(a) American Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution
Answer:
(c) Russian Constitution

Class 10 Civics Chapter 1 Question 11.
The Directive Principles can be classified into ………………
(а) Liberal and Communist principles
(b) Socialist and Communist principles
(c) Liberal, Gandhian and Communist principles
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles
Answer:
(d) Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal principles

Question 12.
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(c) Article 360

Question 13.
The procedure for the amendment of the Indian Constitution is given in …………….
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 368
Answer:
(d) Article 368

Question 14.
Which of the following committees/commissions made recommendations about the Centre-State Relations?
1. Sarkaria Commission
2. Rajamannar Committee
3. M.N.Venkatachaliah Commission Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1 and 2

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The concept of constitution first originated in ……………..
2. …………….. was elected as the temporary President of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
4. ………….. writs are mentioned in Article 32.
5. Fundamental duties have been given to the citizen of India under Article …………..
Answer:
1. USA
2. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
3. 26, November, 1949
4. Five
5. 51A

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (d)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is the Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution is the Fundamental law of a country which reflects the fundamental principles on which the government of that country’ is based.

Question 2.
What is meant by citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 3.
How many types of fundamental rights are listed by the Indian Constitution?
Answer:

1. Originally the Constitution provided for seven fundamental rights. At present there are only six fundamental rights.
2. Right to Equality, Right to freedom, Right to freedom of Religion, Right against exploitation, cultural and Educational Rights and Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 4.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 5.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
Classical languages have an independent tradition that arose mostly on its own. Have a large and rich body of ancient literature. Tamil is the oldest of, all the languages in the world. In 2004, the Government of India has created a new category of languages called ‘Classical languages’ Six languages are granted the classical status Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 6.
What is a national emergency?
Answer:
A national emergency is a situation beyond the ordinary. The President declares this emergency if he is satisfied that India’s security is threatened due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion or if there is an imminent danger or threat.

Question 7.
List out the three heads of the relations between the Centre and the States.
Answer:
The Centre-State relations can be studied under three heads.

1. Legislative Relations: Union list, State list and Concurrent list.
2. Administrative Relations: Executive power of the States and Union.
3. Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered to levy taxes.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain the salient features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 2.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are enshrined in part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
There are six Fundamental Rights guaranteed by our Constitution to all the citizens.
Right to Equality: (Article 14 to 18)
Art. 14: Everyone is equal before law.
Art .15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,race,caste, sex or place of birth.
Art. 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Art .17: Abolition of Untouchability.
Art. 18: Abolition of titles except military and academic.
Right to Freedom: (Art. 19 to Art. 22)
Art. 19 : Freedom of speech and expression. Assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
Art. 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Art. 21: Protection of life and personal liberty.
Art. 21 A: Right to Elementary education.
Art. 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Right against Exploitation: (Art 23 & 24)
Prohibition of trafficking in human being and forced labour.
Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
Right to Religion: (Art. 25 to Art. 28)
Art. 25: Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Art.26: Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Art. 27: Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Art. 28: Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Cultural and Educational Rights: (Art 29 to Art 30)
Art. 29: Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Art. 30: Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions. Right to Constitutional Remedies: (Art.32)
Art. 32: It allows individuals to seek redressal for the violation of their fundamental rights.

Question 3.
Write briefly on the Right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
Our Constitution guarantees six Fundamental Rights to its citizens. It safeguards all these rights by granting us the Right to Constitutional Remedies. It is possible that the Government or private bodies may violate one of our Fundamental Rights. Right to Constitutional Remedies protects us from such violations. It allows us to file a case against the Government or private bodies in the High Courts of the States and the Supreme Court of the India.

Both the Supreme Court and High Courts are empowered to issue five kinds of writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition two warrants and certiorari to protect the Fundamental Rights of the citizens. That is why the Supreme Court is called the “Guardian of the Constitutions”.

Question 4.
Mention the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Here are the differences between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.

In-text Activity:
List out the recognized languages in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
As per articles 344(1) and 351 of the Indian Constitution, the Eight Schedule includes the recognition of the following 22 languages: Assamese, Bengali, Bondo, Dogri, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Maithili, Malayalam, Meitei, Marathi, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santali, Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu.

Indian Constitution Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who was elected the President of the Constitutional Assembly after the death of Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) H. C. Mukherjee
Answer:
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 2.
A ………………. tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
(a) Assembly
(b) Central Government
(c) State Government
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(d) Constitution

Question 3.
The framers of Indian Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of ……………
(a) USA
(b) Ireland
(c) France
(d) England
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 4.
Our Constitution is ………………. in nature.
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible
(b) rigid and flexible
(c) purely flexible
(d) very rigid
Answer:
(a) partly rigid and partly flexible

Question 5.
How many languages are recognised in our Constitution?
(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 26
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 6.
Preamble clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the ……………….
(a) Parliament
(b) people
(c) President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) people

Question 7.
……………. Constitution established the rule of law in India.
(a) Indian
(b) British
(c) USA
Answer:
(a) Indian

Question 8.
Right to property Art 31 was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by ………………. Amendment Act.
(a) 42nd
(b) 44th
(c) 86th
(d) Act of 1955
Answer:
(b) 44th

Question 9.
………………. committees were formed for framing of the Constitution.
(a) 11
(b) 10
(c) 13
Answer:
(c) 13

Question 10.
In 1951 for the first time President’s rule was imposed in ………………. state.
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Rajasthan
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 11.
Constitution of India was adopted on ……………..
(a) 26^th January, 1950
(b) 26^th November, 1949
(c) 15^th August, 1947
Answer:
(b) 26^th November, 1949

Question 12.
The first meeting of Constituent Assembly was held in ………………
(a) 9^th December, 1947
(b) 9^th December, 1946
(c) 10^th December, 1946
Answer:
(b) 9^th December, 1946

Question 13.
Who was elected as interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) B.N, Rao
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer:
(c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Question 14.
Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) B.N. Rao
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Question 15.
Abolition of untouchability lies in which Article?
(a) Article 17
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 16
Answer:
(a) Article 17

Question 16.
Who was the Viceroy of India when India became free?
(a) Lord Wavell
(b) Lord Irwin
(c) Lord Mount Batten
Answer:
(c) Lord Mount Batten

Question 17.
Directive Principles of State Policy are taken from ……………..
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) Ireland
Answer:
(c) Ireland

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Citizenship Act of …………. prescribes five ways of acquiring citizenship.
2. While Fundamental Rights are available to all persons, certain Fundamental Rights are available only to ………….. citizens.
3. Habeas Corpus safeguards people from …………….. arrests.
4. In case of conflict between the law of the State and the Union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of …………… prevails.
5. The Constitution of India can be amended in ………….. ways.
6. …………….. was not the member of Drafting Committee.
7. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are ……………..
8. The Constitution of India recognises …………………
9. The Cabinet Mission of India was headed by ……………
10. Right to Constitutional remedies comes under ………….
11. ………….. of Indian Constitution is called ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’.
12. Right to freedom of religion includes ……………
13. …………….. of Indian Constitution is described as Magna Carte of India.
14. India became a Sovereign Democratic Republic on …………..
15. …………… is the single biggest source of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
1. 1955
2. Indian
3. Illegal
4. Parliament
5. Three
6. Jawahar Lai Nehru
7. Article 14 to 18
8. religious and linguistic minorities
9. Lord Pethick Lawrence
10. Fundamental Rights
11. Article 32
12. Article 25 to 28
13. PartIII
14. 26 January, 1950
15. Government of India Act 1935

III. Match the following

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)
6. (f)
7. (h)
8. (g)
9. (g)
10. (i)

IV. True or False.

1. A Secular State does not officially promote any one religion as the State religion,
2. Religious freedom is provided to all the citizens of the country.
3. The Directive Principles of State Policy are not a part of the Indian Constitution.
4. The Universal adult franchise was adopted much before the Independence of India.
5. Our Constitution guarantees rights of minorities against the majority.
Answer:
1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Why there is a need for Constitution?
Answer:

1. A Constitution lays down certain principles that form the basis to govern.
2. A Constitution tells us the fundamental nature of our society.
3. A Country is usually made of different communities of people having different beliefs.
4. It will be helpful in fulfilling the beliefs of different segment of citizens.
5. So the Constitution is necessary for a democratic country like India for the smooth functioning of the government for the welfare of the people.

Question 2.
Name five ways of acquiring citizenship.
Answer:
Birth, Descent, Registration, Naturalisation and Incorporation of territory.

Question 3.
What did our Constitution contain?
Answer:
Our Constitution contained a Preamble, 22 parts, 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 4.
How did Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’?
Answer:
He described these Principles as ‘novel features’ of Indian Constitution.

Question 5.
People of India are the source of our Constitution. Justify.
Answer:
The Preamble begins with the phrase “ We the people of India”. This clearly implies that the Constitution derives its authority from the people of India.

Question 6.
Freedom of Press implicit in which Article of the Constitution?
Answer:
Freedom of Press implicit in Article 19.

Question 7.
What are Directive principles of State Policy?
Answer:
Directive principles of State Policy are the directives issued by the Central Government to the State Government aiming at promoting the social welfare of the people enumerated in part IV of the Constitution.

Question 8.
How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?
Answer:
Constituent Assembly took about 3 years to pass the Constitution since 9 December, 1946.

Question 9.
By which amendment fundamental duties are included and by whom it was recommended?
Answer:
In 1976 the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations on fundamental duties. By the 42^nd amendment under part IVA of our Constitution. Article 51A deals with fundamental duties.

Question 10.
What is Right to Equality?
Answer:
Right to Equality means that all persons are equal before the law.

Question 11.
What is Right against Exploitation?
Answer:
Under this Right the Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced labour and children working under 14 years.

Question 12.
Who was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Prem Behari Narain Raizada was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution. The original Constitution was handwritten by him in a flowing italics style.

Question 13.
How has the section on Fundamental Rights often been referred to?
Answer:
It has often been referred to as the conscience of the Indian Constitution.

Question 14.
How are the Fundamental Rights important?
Answer:
It protect citizens against the arbitrary and absolute exercise of power by the state.

Question 15.
Which Articles deals with citizenship?
Answer:
Articles 5 to 11 under Part II of the Constitution deals with the citizenship.

Question 16.
What is known as mini Constitution?
Answer:
42^nd amendment of the Constitution is known as mini Constitution.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the writs issued by the Supreme Court or the High Courts.
Answer:
To safeguard the fundamental rights the Supreme Courts or the High Courts issue order or command which are known as Writs.

1. Habeas Corpus: This writ safeguard people from illegal arrest.
2. Mandamus: It protects the petitioner who requires legal help to get his work done by respective public authorities.
3. Prohibition: It prohibits a subordinate court from acting beyond its jurisdiction.
4. Certiorari: It quashes an order issued by a subordinate court by overstepping its jurisdiction.
5. Quo Warranto: It prevents unsurpation of public office through illegal manner.

Question 2.
Throw light on the Centre – State relations as described in our Constitution.
Answer:
The Constitution of India is federal in structure. It divides all powers between the Centre and the States. The Centre – State relationship can be studied under three heads.
(i) Legislative Relations: The Union Parliament has the power to legislate for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The -seventh schedule of the Constitution embodies these lists – the union list, state list and concurrent list consisting of 97, 66 and 47 items respectively. The Parliament has the power to legislate on subjects enumerated in the union list. The State Legislature has exclusive right to legislate on the State list. Both Parliament and State Legislature have power to legislate on subjects enlisted in the concurrent list. But in case of conflict between the law of the state and the union on a subject in the concurrent list, the law of Parliament prevails.

(ii) Administrative Relations: The administrative power of State extends only to its own territory and with respect to which it has legislative competence, whereas the Union has exclusive executive power over the matters with respect to which Parliament is empowered to make laws and the exercise of its powers conferred by any treaty or agreement.

(iii) Financial Relations: The Centre and the States are empowered by the Constitution to impose various kinds of taxes. Some of these taxes are imposed and collected by the Centre and divided between Centre and States based on the recommendation of the Finance Commission appointed by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.

Question 3.
How can a person lose his Citizenship?
Answer:
Loss of Citizenship: The Citizenship Act of 1955 prescribes three ways of losing Citizenship whether acquired under the Act or prior to it under the Constitution.
Renunciation: It can be voluntarily renounced by a person.
Termination: It can be terminated if a person acquires the Citizenship of some other country.
Deprivation: The Central Government can deprive a naturalized Citizen if it satisfied that the Citizenship was

1. acquired by fraud
2. false representation or concealment of material facts
3. indulges in trade with enemy countries and has been sentenced to imprisonment for a period of 2 years.

Question 4.
Write about the types of Amendments.
Answer:
Article 368 provides for three ways of amendments, that is, by a special majority of Parliament and also through the ratification of half of the states by a simple majority. But, some of the articles provide for the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution by a single majority of Parliament, that is a majority of the members of each House present and voting.
Notably, these amendments are not deemed to be amendments of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Therefore, the Constitution can be amended in three ways

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures

Question 5.
What do you mean by Amendment? And what are the three ways by which the Constitution can be amended?
Answer:
The term Amendment denotes change, improvement and modification. Usually this term is associated with one or more changes made in the Constitution of the country with one or more charges.

Article 368 of the Constitution in part XX deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure.

Constitution can be amended in three ways.

1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament.
2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament.
3. Amendment by a special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the State Legislatures.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.3

10th Maths Exercise 1.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Let f = {(x, y)|x, y ∈ N and y = 2x} be a relation on N. Find the domain, co-domain and range. Is this relation a function?
Solution:
F = {(x, y)|x, y ∈ N and y = 2x}
x = {1, 2, 3,…}
y = {1 × 2, 2 × 2, 3 × 2, 4 × 2, 5 × 2 …}
R = {(1, 2), (2, 4), (3, 6), (4, 8), (5, 10),…}
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4,…},
Co-domain = {1, 2, 3…..}
Range of R = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10,…}
Yes, this relation is a function.

Exercise 1.3 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 2.
Let X = {3, 4, 6, 8}. Determine whether the relation R = {(x, f(x))|x ∈ X, f(x) = x² + 1} is a function from X to N ?
Solution:
x = {3,4, 6, 8}
R = ((x, f(x))|x ∈ X, f(x) = X² + 1}
f(x) = x² + 1
f(3) = 3² + 1 = 10
f(4) = 4² + 1 = 17
f(6) = 6² + 1 = 37
f(8) = 8² + 1 = 65

R = {(3, 10), (4, 17), (6, 37), (8, 65)}
R = {(3, 10), (4, 17), (6, 37), (8, 65)}
Yes, R is a function from X to N.

Ex 1.3 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Given the function
f : x → x² – 5x + 6, evaluate
(i) f(-1)
(ii) f(2 a)
(iii) f(2)
(iv) f(x – 1)
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 5x + 6
(i) f (-1) = (-1)² – 5 (-1) + 6 = 1 + 5 + 6 = 12
(ii) f (2a) = (2a)² – 5 (2a) + 6 = 4a² – 10a + 6
(iii) f(2) = 2² – 5(2) + 6 = 4 – 10 + 6 = 0
(iv) f(x – 1) = (x – 1)² – 5 (x – 1) + 6
= x² – 2x + 1 – 5x + 5 + 6
= x² – 7x + 12

10th Maths Relation And Function Question 4.
A graph representing the function f(x) is given in figure it is clear that f(9) = 2.

(i) Find the following values of the function
(a) f(0)
(b) f(7)
(c) f(2)
(d) f(10)
(ii) For what value of x is f (x) = 1?
(iii) Describe the following
(i) Domain
(ii) Range.
(iv) What is the image of 6 under f?
Solution:
From the graph
(a) f(0) = 9
(b) f(7) = 6
(c) f(2) = 6
(d) f(10) = 0
(ii) At x = 9.5, f(x) = 1
(iii) Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}
= {x |0 < x < 10, x ∈ R}
Range = {x|0 < x < 9, x ∈ R}
= {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
(iv) The image of 6 under f is 5.

10th Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 5.
Let f(x) = 2x + 5. If x ≠ 0 then find \(\frac{f(x+2)-f(2)}{x}\)
Solution:
Given f(x) = 2x + 5, x ≠ 0.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 6.
A function fis defined by f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
(ii) find x such that f(x) = 0.
(iii) find x such that f(x) = x.
(iv) find x such that f(x) = f(1 – x).
Solution:
Given f(x) = 2x – 3
(i) find \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}\)
f(0) = 2(0) – 3 = -3
f(1) = 2(1) – 3 = -1
∴ \(\frac{f(0)+f(1)}{2}=\frac{-3-1}{2}=\frac{-4}{2}\) = -2

(ii) f(x) = 0
⇒ 2x – 3 = 0
2x = 3
x = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

(iii) f(x) = x
⇒ 2x – 3 = x ⇒ 2x – x = 3
x = 3

(iv) f(x) = f(1 – x)
2x – 3 = 2(1 – x) – 3
2x – 3 = 2x – 2x – 3
2x + 2x = 2 – 3 + 3
4x = 2
x = \(\frac{2}{4}\)
x = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

10 Std Maths Exercise 1.3 VQuestion 7.
An open box is to be made from a square piece of material, 24 cm on a side, by cutting equal squares from the corners and turning up the sides as shown in figure. Express the volume V of the box as a function of x.

Solution:
Volume of the box = Volume of the cuboid
= l × b × h cu. units
Here l = 24 – 2x
b = 24 – 2x
h = x
∴ V = (24 – 2x) (24 – 2x) × x
= (576 – 48x – 48x + 4x²)x
V = 4x³ – 96x² + 576x

10 Maths Exercise 1.3 Question 8.
A function f is defined bv f(x) = 3 – 2x . Find x such that f(x2) = (f(x))2.
Solution:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2x²

10th Maths Exercise 1.3 In Tamil Question 9.
A plane is flying at a speed of 500 km per hour. Express the distance d travelled by the plane as function of time r in hours.
Answer:
Speed of the plane = 500 km/hr
Distance travelled in “t” hours
= 500 × t (distance = speed × time)
= 500 t

10th Maths 1.3 Question 10.
The data in the adjacent table depicts the length of a woman’s forehand and her corresponding height. Based on this data, a student finds a relationship between the height (y) and the forehand length(x) as y = ax + b, where a, b are constants.

(i) Check if this relation is a function.
(ii) Find a and b.
(iii) Find the height of a woman whose forehand length is 40 cm.
(iv) Find the length of forehand of a woman if her height is 53.3 inches.
Solution:
(i) Given y = ax + b …………. (1)
The ordered pairs are R = {(35, 56) (45, 65) (50, 69.5) (55, 74)}
∴ Hence this relation is a function.

Substituting a = 0.9 in (2) we get
⇒ 65 = 45(.9) + b
⇒ 65 = 40.5 + b
⇒ b = 65 – 40.5
⇒ b = 24.5
∴ a = 0.9, b = 24.5
∴ y = 0.9x + 24.5
(iii) Given x = 40 , y = ?
∴ (4) → y = 0.9 (40) + 24.5
⇒ y = 36 + 24.5
⇒ y = 60.5 inches
(iv) Given y = 53.3 inches, x = ?
(4) → 53.3 = 0.9x + 24.5
⇒ 53.3 – 24.5 = 0.9x
⇒ 28.8 = 0.9x
⇒ x = \(\frac{28.8}{0.9}\) = 32 cm
∴ When y = 53.3 inches, x = 32 cm

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1

12th Maths Exercise 1.1 Answers Question 1.
Find the adjoint of the following:

Solution:

Exercise 1.1 Class 12 Maths State Board Question 2.
Find the inverse (if it exists) of the following:

Solution:
For a matrix A, \(\mathrm{A}^{-1}=\frac{1}{|\mathrm{A}|}(\mathrm{adj} \mathrm{A})\). Where |A| ≠ 0. If |A| = 0 then A is called a singular matrix and so \(\mathrm{A}^{-1}\) does not exist.

12th Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 3.
If F(α) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{\cos \alpha} & {0} & {\sin \alpha} \\ {0} & {1} & {0} \\ {-\sin \alpha} & {0} & {\cos \alpha}\end{array}\right]\) show that \([\mathrm{F}(\alpha)]^{-1}=\mathrm{F}(-\alpha)\)
Solution:
Let A = F (α)
So \([\mathrm{F}(\alpha)]^{-1}=\mathrm{A}^{-1}\)
Now

12th Maths Chapter 1 Exercise 1.1 Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {3} \\ {-1} & {-2}\end{array}\right]\) show that A² – 3A – 7I₂ = O₂. Hence find A^-1.
Solution:
A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {3} \\ {-1} & {-2}\end{array}\right]\)

To Find A-1
Now we have proved that A² – 3A – 7I₂ = O₂
Post multiply by A^-1 we get
A – 3I – 7A^-1 = O₂

12th Maths 1.1 Exercise Question 5.
If \(\mathbf{A}=\frac{1}{9}\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{-8} & {1} & {4} \\ {4} & {4} & {7} \\ {1} & {-8} & {4}\end{array}\right]\) prove that A^-1 = A^T
Solution:

12 Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 6.
If \(\mathbf{A}=\left[\begin{array}{rr}{8} & {-4} \\ {-5} & {3}\end{array}\right]\), verify that A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A| I₂
Solution:

12th Maths 1st Chapter Exercise 1.1 Question 7.
If \(\mathbf{A}=\left[\begin{array}{ll}{3} & {2} \\ {7} & {5}\end{array}\right]\), and \(\mathbf{B}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{-1} & {-3} \\ {5} & {2}\end{array}\right]\) verify that (AB)^-1 = B^-1 A^-1.
Solution:

12th Maths Application Of Matrices And Determinants Question 8.
If adj (A) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{2} & {-4} & {2} \\ {-3} & {12} & {-7} \\ {-2} & {0} & {2}\end{array}\right]\) find A
Solution:

12th Maths Ex 1.1 Question 9.
If adj(A) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{0} & {-2} & {0} \\ {6} & {2} & {-6} \\ {-3} & {0} & {6}\end{array}\right]\) find A^-1
Solution:

12th Exercise 1.1 Question 10.
Find adj(adj(A)) if adj A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{1} & {0} & {1} \\ {0} & {2} & {0} \\ {-1} & {0} & {1}\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:

12th Maths Exercise 1.1 Answers In Tamil Medium Question 11.

Solution:

12th Maths 1st Chapter Question 12.
Find the matrix A for which A \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {3} \\ {-1} & {-2}\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{14} & {7} \\ {7} & {7}\end{array}\right]\)
Solution:
Given A \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {3} \\ {-1} & {-2}\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{14} & {7} \\ {7} & {7}\end{array}\right]\)
Let \(\mathrm{B}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {3} \\ {-1} & {-2}\end{array}\right) \text { and } \mathrm{C}=\left(\begin{array}{cc}{14} & {7} \\ {7} & {7}\end{array}\right)\)
Given AB = C, To find A
Now AB = C
Post multiply by B^-1 on both sides
ABB^-1 = CB^-1 (i.e) A (BB^-1) = CB^-1
⇒ A(I) = CB^-1 (i.e) A = CB^-1
To find B^-1:

12th Maths 1.1 Question 13.
Given \(\mathbf{A}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-1} \\ {2} & {0}\end{array}\right], \mathbf{B}=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{3} & {-2} \\ {1} & {1}\end{array}\right] \text { and } \mathbf{C}\left[\begin{array}{ll}{1} & {1} \\ {2} & {2}\end{array}\right]\), find a matrix X such that AXB = C.
Solution:
A × B = C
Pre multiply by A^-1 and post multiply by B^-1 we get
A^-1 A × BB^-1 = A^-1CB^-1 (i.e) X = A^-1CB^-1

12 Maths Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Question 14.

Solution:

12th Maths Exercise 1.1 5th Sum Question 15.
Decrypt the received encoded message \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{2} & {-3}\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{ll}{20} & {4}\end{array}\right]\) with the encryption matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{-1} & {-1} \\ {2} & {1}\end{array}\right]\) and the decryption matrix as its inverse, where the system of codes are described by the numbers 1-26 to the letters A- Z respectively, and the number 0 to a blank space.
Solution:
Let the encoding matrix be \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{-1} & {-1} \\ {2} & {1}\end{array}\right]\)


So the sequence of decoded matrices is [8 5], [12 16].
Thus the receivers read this message as HELP.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Applications of Matrices and Determinants Ex 1.1 Additional Problems

12th Maths Chapter 1 Question 1.
Using elementary transformations find the inverse of the following matrix
Solution:

12th Maths Guide Question 2.
Using elementary transformations find the inverse of the matrix
Solution:

12th Maths Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Using elementary transformation find the inverse of the matrix
Solution:

12 Maths Chapter 1 Exercise 1.1 Question 4.
Using elementary transformations find the inverse of the matrix
Solution:

12th Maths Exercise 1.1 Solutions Question 5.
Using elementary transformation, find the inverse of the following matrix
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Question 6.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Maths Solutions Question 7.

Solution:

12 Maths Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.

Solution: