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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 3 Early Tamil Society and Culture

Early Tamil Society and Culture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Early Tamil Society And Culture Question 1.
The name of the script used in the Sangam Age ………….
(a) English
(b) Devanagari
(c) Tamil-Brahmi
(d) Granta
Answer:
(c) Tamil-Brahmi

Early Tamil Society And Culture Class 9 Question 2.
The Sri Lankan chronicle composed in the Pali language mentioning about merchants and horse traders from Tamil Nadu
(a) Deepa vamsa
(b) Arthasastra
(c) Mahavamsa
(d) Indica
Answer:
(c) Mahavamsa

Early Tamil Society And Culture Book Back Answers Question 3.
The notable Chola king credited with bringing forest lands under the plough and developing irrigational facilities.
(a) Karikalan
(b) Rajarajari I
(c) Kulothungan
(d) Rajendran I
Answer:
(a) Karikalan

Early Tamil Society And Culture Pdf Question 4.
Inscription that mentions the Cheras …………..
(a) Pugalur
(b) Gimar
(c) Pulimankombai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Pugalur

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 5.
The famous Venetian traveller who described Kayal as a great and noble city.
(a) Vasco da gama
(b) Alberuni
(c) Marco Polo
(d) Megasthenes
Answer:
(c) Marco Polo

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 6.
(i) Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
(ii) Prakrit was the language used by the common people in Northern India during the Mauryan period.
(iii) Vienna Papyrus, a Roman document, mentions trade related to Muziri.
(iv) The concept of Thinai is presented in the Tamil grammar work of Pathupaattu.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (i) and (ii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i) is correct
(ii) is correct
(iii) is correct
(iv) incorrect

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Solutions Question 7.
(i) Pathitrupathu speaks about the Pandya kings and their territory.
(ii) The Akanaanuru describes the trading activities at Kaveripoompattinum.
(iii) The Chola Emblem was the tiger and they issued square copper coins with images of a tiger.
(iv) Neythal is a sandy desert region.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(i) incorrect
(ii) incorrect
(iii) is correct
(iv) incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. are documents scripted on stones, copper plates, coins and rings.
2. ………….. refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring societies of the past.
3. ……………. the classic work on economy and statecraft authored by Kautilya during the Mauryan period.
4. …………… is a poetic theme which means a class or category and refers to a habitat or ecozone with specific physiographical characteristics.
5. ………….referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people.
Answers:
1. Epigraphy
2. Archeological excavations
3. Arthasastra
4. Sangam poems
5. Yavanar

III. Find out the correct statement.

9th Social Early Tamil Society And Culture Question 1.
(a) Evidence of iron smelting has been found in Kodumanal and Guttur.
(b) Periplus of Erythren Sea mentions about the pepper trade with India.
(c) Punch marked coins are the earliest coins used in India mostly made of gold.
(d) The Sangam Age has its roots in the Bronze Age.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) The Cheras ruled over Kaveri delta and their capital was Uraiyur.
(b) The Maangulam Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions mention the King Karikalan.
(c) The terms Vanikan and Nigama appear in Tamil-Brahmi inscriptions were different types of merchants.
(d) Salt merchants were called Vanikars and they travelled in bullock carts along with their family.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Archaeological sites provide evidence of past history – Discuss.
Answer:

• Archaeological sites have mounds which are an accumulation of soil, pottery, building and organic remains and objects.
• Archaeological excavation refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring and interpreting societies of the past.

Question 2.
How important are coins as a source of evidence for the study of Sangam Age?
Answer:

• Coins as a medium of exchange were introduced for the first time in the Sangam Age.
• The coins of.the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas, punch-marked coins, and Roman coins form another important source of evidence from the Sangam Age.
• They were used as bullion for their metal value and as ornaments.

Question 3.
The Tamil rulers were independent of Mauryan authority. What explanation would you offer.
Answer:

1. The Tamil rulers were independent of Mauryan authority because Ashokan inscriptions found in present day Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh are not seen in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
2. So we can conclude the status of Tamil rulers.

Question 4.
Agriculture was one of the main sources of subsistence in Sangam Age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Crops like paddy, sugarcane, millets were cultivated. Both wet and dry land farming were practiced.
2. In the riverine and tank irrigated areas paddy was cultivated.
3. Millets were cultivated in the dry lands.
   So Agriculture was one of the main sources of subsistence in Sangam Age.

Question 5.
Overseas interactions brought glory to ancient Tamilagam. Give examples in support.
Answer:

• Tamil country had connections with countries overseas both in the east and west.
• Roman ships used monsoon winds to cross the Western Sea or the Arabian Sea to connect Tamilagam with the Western world.
• Spices including pepper, ivory, and precious stones were exported. Metal including gold, silver and copper and precious stones were imported.
• Yavanar referred to the Westerners, including the Greeks, Romans and West Asian people. Yavana derives from the Greek region of Ionia.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Hero Stones:
(a) What was the common practice in a pastoral society?
Answer:
As cattle were considered an important source of wealth, raiding cattle owned by adjoining tribes and clans was common practice in a pastoral society.

(b) Who plundered the cattle wealth of enemies?
Answer:
Tribal chieftains plundered the cattle wealth of enemies whose warriors fought to protect their cattle.

(c) How were the dead warriors remembered?
Answer:

1. Many warriors died in such battles and were remembered as martyrs.
2. Memorial stones were erected in their honour.

(d) Which Tamil text describes the procedures for erecting hero stones?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam describes the procedures for erecting hero stones.

Question 2.
Non-Tamil Sources (Foreign Accounts):
(a) What does the presence of the non-Tamil sources reveal?
Answer:
The presence of the non-Tamil sources reveals the extensive contacts and interactions of the early Tamil society with the outside world.

(b) Name the classic work of the Mauryan period that makes a mention that the pearl and shells came from Pandya country.
Answer:
Arthasastra the classic work of the Mauryan period makes a mention that the pearl and shells came from the Pandya country.

(c) What is a chronicle?
Answer:
Chronicle is a narrative text presenting the important historical events in chronological order.

(d) Who speaks about the pepper trade between Roman empire and India?
Answer:
Pliny speaks about the pepper trade with India and he states that it took 40 days to reach India.

Question 3.
Industries and Crafts of the Sangam Age:
(a) What were the important aspects of urbanisation?
Answer:
Craft production and craft specialization were important aspects of urbanisation.

(b) What is the Tamil name for a potter?
Answer:
“Kuyavar” is the Tamil name for potter.

(c) What were the different types of pottery used by the peopla?
Answer:
Black ware, russet-coated painted ware, black and red ware potteries were the different types of pottery used.

(d) Identify the Iron implements required for agriculture and warfare.
Answer:
Swords, daggers and spears were the iron implements required for agriculture and warfare.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
To what extent do you think the political powers of Tamilagam influenced Sangam Age polity?
Answer:

• Sangam Age has its roots in the Iron Age.
• In the Iron Age people were organised into chiefdoms.
• From such communities of Iron-Age emerged the Vendhars of the early historic period and the Velirs of the Sangam Age were chieftains.
• Tamil rulers were independent of the Mauryan authority.
• Among the political powers of the Sangam Age, the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas occupied pre-eminent positions. They were known as Muvendhar (the three kings).
• The Muvendhar controlled the major towns and ports of the Sangam period.
• The Cheras controlled the region of present-day Kerala and also the Western parts of TamilNadu.
• Vanci was the capital, Muciri and Thondi were their Port towns.
• The Cholas ruled over the Kaveri delta and Northern parts of TamilNadu. Uraiyur was their capital, Kaveripoompattinam was the Port town.
• The Pandyas who ruled the Southern part of TamilNadu are referred to the Ashokan inscriptions.
  Madurai was the capital.
  Apart from the Vendhars, there were Velirs and numerous chieftains who occupied territories on the margins of the muvendhar.
• The Sangam Age society was a society in transition from a tribal community ruled by a chief to a larger kingdom ruled by a king.
  Social stratification had begun to take root in Tamil society by the Sangam times.
  Thus the political powers of Tamilagam influenced Sangam society.

Question 2.
Indicate how the industries and crafts of the Sangam Age contribute to their economy.
Answer:
Craft production and craft specialization were important aspects of urbanization.

• In the Sangam Age there were professional groups that produced various commodities.
  The system of production of commodities is called industry.
• Pottery was practised in many settlements.
• Iron manufacturing was an important artisanal activity. Iron implements were required for agriculture and Warfare.
• The Sangam Age people had the knowledge of Stone ornaments, Gold jewellery, Glass beads, etc.
• The Pamban coast is famous for pearl fishery. Sangam literature describes women wearing shell bangles.
• Textile production was another important occupation. Periplus mentions the fine variety of textiles produced in the Tamil region.
• Trade and exchange was important for people to have access to different commodities. Specialised groups called Vanikars travelled in groups trading goods and commodities between regions.
• Akanaanuru poem 149 describes the trading at the port of Muciri as follows: “the well crafted ships of the Yavana came with gold returned with pepper at the wealthy port of Muciri”
• Barter was the primary mode of exchange. For instance, rice was exchanged for fish.
• Salt was precious and a handful of it would fetch an equal amount of rice.
  Thus the industries and crafts of Sangam Age contributed to their economy.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark on the map of south India, the ancient Tamilagam and the territories of Tamil kingdoms.
Answer:
You can take guidance from your teacher and reference from the internet to mark the ancient Tamilagam and the territories of Tamil Kingdoms on the map of South India.

Question 2.
Visit a museum and collect information about inscriptions, coins and instruments used by the ancient people.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a visit to the museum for the students. The students can collect information about inscriptions, coins, and instruments used by the ancient people.

Question 3.
Visit the early historic sites of Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, Keezhadi etc.
Answer:
The teacher can arrange a visit to the early historic sites of Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, Keezhadi, etc.

Question 4.
Conduct a study on materials excavated from prehistoric sites and on Tamil-Brahmi script.
Answer:
You can do this activity with the help of your teacher.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance
1. A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
Refer the Books, Internet to collect the points.

Early Tamil Society and Culture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The earliest written work on Tamil Grammar is ………………..
(a) Thirukural
(b) Tholkappiam
(c) Pathinen Melkanakku
(d) Pathinen Kilkanakku
Answer:
(b) Tholkappiam

Question 2.
This is an Epic …………..
(a) Silappathikaaram
(b) Pattinapallai
(c) Mullai pathu
(d) Madurai Kanchi
Answer:
(a) Silappathikaaram

Question 3.
During the Sangam Age …………… landscape followed the pastoral way of life.
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Mullai
(d) Palai
Answer:
(c) Mullai

Question 4.
……………… is an ornament made in precious stone where images are carved on the surface.
(a) Cameo
(b) Intagliol
(c) Chronicle
(d) Papyrus
Answer:
(a) Cameo

Question 5.
The roots of the Sangam Age is in ……………
(a) Bronze Age
(b) Mesolithic Age
(c) Iron Age
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Iron Age

Question 6.
(i) Bullion means precious metal available in the form of ingots, (correct)
(ii) Punch-marked coins are the earliest coins used in India, (correct)
(iii) Non-Tamil literary sources also offer information on early Tamil society, (correct)
(iv) Millets were cultivated in the wet lands, (incorrect)
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) & (ii) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii) are correct

Question 7.
(i) Barter was the primary mode of exchange.
(ii) Spices including pepper and precious stones were exported.
(iii) The Sangam Age saw the first urbanization in Tamilagam.
(iv) People in the Sangam Age had no faith in religion.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) is correct (ii) incorrect
(c) (i) is correct (iv) incorrect
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) correct (iv) incorrect
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) correct (iv) incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ………….. collection includes ten long songs.
2. Act of destruction of heritage property (or) property belonging to others are called ……………..
3. …………… is the study of the past by interpretation of the material cultural remains.
4. ………….. Geography is a gazetteer and atlas of Roman times.
5. ………… table is an illustrated map of the Roman Roads.
6. A paper produced out of the papyrus plant used extensively for writing purposes in ancient …………..
7. The Silappathikaram speaks about ………………. who built a temple for Kannagi.
8. ………….. is a long poem about Kaveripoompattinam.
9. The Pamban coast is famous for ……………..
10. Spices including …………. …………. and ………. were exported.
Answers:
1. Pathupattu
2. Vandalism
3. Archaeology
4. Ptolemy’s
5. Pentingerian
6. Egypt
7. Gheran Senguttuvan
8. Pattinappalai
9. Pearl fishery
10. pepper, ivory, precious stones

III. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss about the Tamil Traders and Sailors.
Answer:
As seafaring people, Tamil traders and sailors established commercial and cultural links across the seas and merchants from foreign territories also visited the Tamil region.

Question 2.
What does the third section of the Tholkappiyam describe?
Answer:
The third section of Tholkappiyam describes poetic conventions that provide information on Tamil social life.

Question 3.
What does the development of Script mark?
Answer:

1. The development of script marks the beginning of the historical period.
2. The period before the use of written script is called prehistoric period.

Question 4.
What do you know about the Hero stones of the Post-Sangam Age?
Answer:

1. Hero stones of the Post-Sangam Age and the Pallava period occur in large numbers in pastoral regions especially around the Chengam region near Thiruvannamalai district.
2. These hero stones have inscriptions and the images of warriors and names of heroes.

Question 5.
What does Erythrean sea refer to?
Answer:

1. Erythrean sea refers to the waters around the red sea.
2. It makes references to the Sangam Age, Ports of Muciri, Thondi, Korkai and Kumari as well as the Gheras and the Pandyas.

Question 6.
What is Ptolemy’s Geography?
Answer:
Ptolemy’s Geography is a Gazetteer and atlas of Roman times providing geographical details of the Roman Empire in the Second Century CE.

Question 7.
What do you know about Muvendhar?
Answer:
Among the political powers of the Sangam Age, the Cheras, the Cholas and the Pandyas occupied pre-eminent positions. They were known as Muvendhar (the three kings). The muvendhar controlled the major towns and ports of the Sangam period.

Question 8.
What is the Urban centre?
Answer:
A planned town with brick architecture and a proper layout. Urban centres have a larger population involved in non-agrarian, commercial and political occuptations. Various industrial activities are seen in these towns.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.
Question 1.
Tholkappiam.
(i) What is the earliest written work on Tamil grammar?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam.

(ii) To whom did it attribute?
Answer:
Tholkappiyam attributed to Tholkappiyar.

(iii) What does the third section of Tholkappiam describe?
Answer:
The third section describes the poetic conventions that provide information on Tamil social life.

(iv) Mention the oldest among the Tamil Texts.
Answer:
Pathupattu and Ettuthogai.

Question 2.
Pearl fishery and shell bangle.
(i) Which place is famous for pearl fishery?
Answer:
The Parpban coast is famous for pearl fishery.

(ii) What were very common in the Sangam Age?
Answer:
Shell bangles were very common in the Sangam Age.

(iii) Who collected conch shells from the Pamban Island?
Answer:
The Parathavers collected conch shells from the Pamban Island.

(iv) What does Sangam literature describe?
Answer:
Sangam literature describes women wearing shell bangles.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the “Archaeological sites”.
Answer:
(i) Archaeological excavation refers to systematically digging a site to recover material evidence for exploring and interpreting societies of the past.

(ii) Archaeological excavations at the early historic sites are the source of evidence of the activities of the Sangam Age people.

(iii) Excavations at Arikkamedu, Azhagankulam, Uraiyur, Kanchipuram, Kaveripoom pattinam, Korkai, Vasavasamudram, Keezhadi, Kodumanal in Tamil Nadu, and Pattanam in Kerala provide the evidence we have of this period.

(iv) Arikkamedu, near Puducherry, is a Sangam Age port, excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). British archaeologist, Robert Eric Mortimer Wheeler, French Archaeologist, J.M. Casal, and Indian archaeologists, A. Ghosh and Krishna Deva, excavated this site. They found evidence of a planned town, warehouse, streets, tanks and ring wells.

Question 2.
Give an account of “Emergence of towns and ports”.
Answer:

1. The Sangam Age saw the first urbanization in Tamilagam.
2. Cities developed and they had brick buildings, roof tiles, ring wells and planned towns, streets, and store houses.
3. The towns worked as ports and artisanal centres. Arikkamedu, Kaveripoompattinam, , Azhagankulam and Korkai on the east coast and Pattanam in Kerala were port centres. Kanchipuram, Uraiyur, Karur, Madurai and Kodumanal were inland trade centres.
4. Many goods and commodities were produced in these centres and were exported to various regions.
5. Though few in number, large towns appeared in the Sangam Age.
6. Small villages however were found in many areas. Bronze vessels, beads, shell bangles, glass beads, pottery with names of people written in Tamil-Brahmi script were found at these sites.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.2

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively such that DE || BC
(i) If \(\frac{\mathbf{A D}}{\mathbf{D B}}=\frac{3}{4}\) and AC = 15 cm find AE.
(ii) If AD = 8x – 7, DB = 5x – 3, AE = 4x – 3 and EC = 3x – 1, find the value of x.
Solution:

x = 1, \(\frac{-1}{2}\) ⇒ x = 1

Ex 4.2 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || DC and P,Q are points on AD and BC respectively, such that PQ || DC if PD = 18 cm, BQ = 35 cm and QC = 15 cm, find AD.
Solution:
Any line parallel to the parallel sides of a trapezium dives the non-parallel sides proportionally.
∴ By thales theorem, In ΔACD, we have

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 Question 3.
In ΔABC, D and E are points on the sides AB and AC respectively. For each of the following cases show that DE || BC
(i) AB = 12 cm, AD = 8 cm, AE = 12 cm and AC = 18 cm.
(ii) AB = 5.6 cm, AD = 1.4 cm, AC = 7.2 cm and AE = 1.8cm.
Solution:

∴ It is satisfied
∴ DE||BC

(ii) AB = 5.6 cm,
AD = 1.4 cm,
AC = 7.2 cm,
AE = 1.8 cm.
If \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{AD}}=\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{AE}}\) is satisfied then BC || DE
\(\frac{5.6}{1.4}=\frac{7.2}{1.8}\)
5.6 × 1.8 = 1.4 × 7.2
10.08 = 10.08
L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ It is satisfied
∴ DE||BC

Exercise 4.2 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
In fig. if PQ || BC and PR ||CD prove that

Solution:
In the figure PQ || BC, PR ||CD.

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 Question 5.
Rhombus PQRB is inscribed in ∆ABC such that ∠B is one of its angle. P, Q and R lie on AB, AC and BC respectively. If AB = 12 cm and BC = 6 cm, find the sides PQ, RB of the rhombus.
Solution:
In ∆CRQ and ∆CBA
∠CRQ = ∠CBA (as RQ || AB)
∠CQR = ∠CAB (as RQ || AB)

⇒ 72 – 12a = 6a
⇒ 18a = 72
a = 4
Side of rhombus PQ, RB = 4 cm, 4 cm.

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 12th Sum Question 6.
In trapezium ABCD, AB || DC, E and F are points on non-parallel sides AD and BC respectively, such that EF || AB . Show that \(\frac{{A E}}{{E D}}=\frac{{B F}}{{F C}}\)
Solution:

10th Geometry Exercise 4.2 Question 7.
In figure DE || BC and CD || EF . Prove that AD² = AB × AF.

Solution:

10th Geometry 4.2 Question 8.
In a ∆ABC, AD is the bisector of ∠A meeting side BC at D, if AB = 10 cm, AC = 14 cm and BC = 6 cm, find BD and DC.
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 13th Sum Question 9.
Check whether AD is bisector of ∠A of ∆ABC in each of the following
(i) AB = 5 cm, AC = 10 cm, BD = 1.5 cm and CD = 3.5 cm.
(ii) AB = 4 cm, AC = 6 cm, BD = 1.6 cm and CD = 2.4 cm.
Solution:
AB = 5 cm,
AC = 10 cm,
BD = 1.5 cm,
CD = 3.5 cm,

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 11th Sum Question 10.
In figure ∠QPC = 90°, PS is its bisector. If ST⊥PR, prove that ST × (PQ + PR) = PQ × PR.

Solution:

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 14th Sum Question 11.
ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB = AD, the bisector of ∠BAC and ∠CAD intersect the sides BC and CD at the points E and F respectively. Prove that EF || BD.
Solution:
By angle bisector theorem in ∆ABC,

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.2 Solutions Question 12.
Construct a ∆PQR which the base PQ = 4.5 cm, ∠R=35° and the median from R to RG is 6 cm.
Solution:
Construction:
Step (1) Draw a line segment PQ = 4.5 cm
Step (2) At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 35°.
Step (3) At P, draw PF such that ∠EPF = 90°.
Step (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to PQ which intersects PF at O.
Step (5) With O centre OP as raidus draw a circle.
Step (6) From G mark arcs of 6 cm on the circle.
Mark them as R and S.
Step (7) Join PR and RQ.
Step (8) PQR is the required triangle.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Practical Geometry Question 13.
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Solution:
Construction:
Step (1) Draw a line segment QR = 5 cm.
Step (2) At Q, draw QE such that ∠RQE = 40°.
Step (3) At Q, draw QF such that ∠EQF = 90°.
Step (4) Draw perpendicular bisector to QR, which intersects QF at O.
Step (5) With O as centre and OQ as raidus, draw a circle.
Step (6) From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and P’.
Step (7) Join PQ and PR.
Step (8) PQR is the required triangle.
Step(9) From P draw a line PN which is ⊥^r to LR. LR meets PN at M.
Step (10) The length of the altitude is PM = 2.2 cm.

10th Geometry Question 14.
Construct a ∆PQR such that QR = 6.5 cm, ∠P = 60° and the altitude from P to QR is of length 4.5 cm.
Solution:

Construction:
Steps (1) Draw QR = 6.5 cm.
Steps (2) Draw ∠RQE = 60°.
Steps (3) Draw ∠FQE = 90°.
Steps (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to QR.
Steps (5) The ⊥^r bisector meets QF at O.
Steps (6) Draw a circle with O as centre and OQ as raidus.
Steps (7) Mark an arc of 4.5 cm from G on the ⊥^r bisector. Such that it meets LM at N.
Steps (8) Draw PP’ || QR through N.
Steps (9) It meets the circle at P, P’.
Steps (10) Join PQ and PR.
Steps (11) ∆PQR is the required triangle.

10th Maths Ex 4.2 Question 15.
Construct a ∆ABC such that AB = 5.5 cm, C = 25° and the altitude from C to AB is 4 cm.
Solution:

Construction:
Step (1) Draw \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) = 5.5 cm
Step (2) Draw ∠BAE = 25°
Step (3) Draw ∠FAE = 90°
Step (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to AB.
Step (5) The ⊥^r bisector meets AF at O.
Step (6) Draw a circle with O as centre and OA as radius.
Step (7) Mark an arc of length 4 cm from G on the ⊥^r bisector and name as N.
Step (8) Draw CC¹ || AB through N.
Step (9) Join AC & BC.
Step (10) ∆ABC is the required triangle.

10th Maths Exercise 4.2 11th Sum Question 16.
Draw a triangle ABC of base BC = 5.6 cm, ∠A=40° and the bisector of ∠A meets BC at D such that CD = 4 cm.
Solution:
Construction:
Steps (1) Draw a line segment BC = 5.6 cm.
Steps (2) At B, draw BE such that ∠CBE = 60°.
Steps (3) At B draw BF such that ∠EBF = 90°.

Steps (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to BC, which intersects BF at 0.
Steps (5) With O as centre and OB as radius draw a circle.
Steps (6) From C, mark an arc of 4 cm on BC at D.
Steps (7) The ⊥^r bisector intersects the circle at I. Join ID.
Steps (8) ID produced meets the circle at A.
Now join AB and AC. ∆ABC is the required triangle.

10 Maths Exercise 4.2 Question 1 7.
Draw ∆PQR such that PQ = 6.8 cm, vertical angle is 50° and the bisector of the vertical angle meets the base at D where PD = 5.2 cm.
Solution:

Steps (1) Draw a line segment PQ = 6.8 cm
Steps (2) At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 50°.
Steps (3) At P, draw PF such that ∠FPE = 90°.
Step (4) Draw ⊥^r bisector to PQ, which intersects PF at 0.
Step (5) With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
Step (6) From P mark an arc of 5.2 cm on PQ at D.
Step (7) The ⊥^r bisector intersects the circle at I. Join ID.
Step (8) ID produced meets the circle at R. Now join PR & QR. ∆PQR is the required triangle.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.1

10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find A × B, A × A and B × A
(i) A = {2,-2,3} and B = {1,-4}
(ii) A = B = {p,q]
(iii) A= {m,n} ; B = (Φ)
Solution:
(i) A = {2,-2,3}, B = {1,-4}
A × B = {(2, 1), (2, -4), (-2, 1), (-2, -4), (3,1) , (3,-4)}
A × A = {(2, 2), (2,-2), (2, 3), (-2, 2), (-2, -2), (-2, 3), (3, 2), (3, -2), (3,3) }
B × A = {(1, 2), (1, -2), (1, 3), (-4, 2), (-4, -2), (-4,3)}

(ii) A = B = {(p,q)]
A × B = {(p, p), {p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}
A × A = {(p, p), (p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}
B × A = {(p,p), {p, q), (q, p), (q, q)}

(iii) A = {m,n} × Φ
A × B = { }
A × A = {(m, m), (m, n), (n, m), (n, n)}
B × A = { }

10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 2.
Let A= {1,2,3} and B = {× | x is a prime number less than 10}. Find A × B and B × A.
Answer:
A = {1,2,3}, B = {2, 3, 5, 7}
A × B = {1,2,3} × {2, 3, 5, 7}
= {(1, 2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2)
(2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7)(3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7)}
B × A = {2, 3, 5, 7} × {1,2,3}
= {(2, 1)(2, 2)(2, 3)(3, 1)(3, 2)(3, 3) (5, 1)(5, 2)(5, 3) (7, 1) (7,2)(7, 3)}

10th Maths Exercise 1.1 In Tamil Question 3.
If B × A = {(-2, 3),(-2, 4),(0, 3),(0, 4),(3, 3), (3, 4)} find A and B.
Solution:
B × A ={(-2, 3), (-2, 4), (0, 3), (0, 4), (3, 3), (3, 4)}
A = {3, 4), B = { -2, 0, 3}

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 4.
If A= {5, 6}, B = {4, 5 ,6}, C = {5, 6, 7}, Show that A × A = (B × B) ∩ (C × C)
Answer:
A ={5,6}, B = {4,5,6}, C = {5, 6,7}
A × A = {5, 6} × {5,6}
= {(5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 5) (6, 6)} ….(1)
B × B = {4, 5, 6} × {4, 5, 6}
= {(4, 4)(4, 5)(4, 6)(5, 4)(5, 5) (5, 6) (6, 4)(6, 5) (6, 6)}
C × C = {5,6,7} × {5,6,7}
= {(5, 5)(5, 6)(5, 7)(6, 5)(6, 6) (6, 7)(7, 5)(7, 6) (7, 7)}
(B × B) ∩ (C × C) = {(5, 5)(5, 6)(6, 5)(6, 6)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × A = (B × B) ∩ (C × C)

Ex 1.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 5.
Given A ={1, 2, 3}, B = {2, 3, 5}, C = {3, 4} and D = {1, 3, 5}, check if (A ∩ C) x (B ∩ D) = (A × B) ∩ (C × D) is true?
Solution:
LHS = {(A∩C) × (B∩D)
A ∩C = {3}
B ∩D = {3, 5}
(A ∩ C) × (B ∩ D) = {(3, 3) (3, 5)} ………….. (1)
RHS = (A × B) ∩ (C × D)
A × B = {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 5), (3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 5)}
C × D = {(3, 1), (3, 3), (3, 5), (4, 1), (4, 3), (4, 5)}
(A × B) ∩ (C × D) = {(3, 3), (3, 5)} …(2)
∴ (1) = (2) ∴ It is true.

10th Maths Book Exercise 1.1 Question 6.
Let A = {x ∈ W | x < 2},
B = {x ∈ N | 1 < 1 < × < 4} and
C = {3,5}. Verify that
(i) A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∪ (A × C)
(ii) A × (B ∩ C) = (A × B) ∩ (A × C)
(iii) (A ∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
Answer:
(i) A = {0, 1}
B = {2,3,4}
C = {3,5}
(i) A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∪ (A × c)
B ∪ C = {2, 3,4} ∪ {3,5}
= {2, 3, 4, 5}
A × (B ∪ C) = {0, 1} × {2, 3, 4, 5}
= {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (0, 5) (1, 2) (1, 3)(1, 4)(1, 5)} ….(1)
A × B = {0, 1} × {2,3,4}
= {(0,2) (0,3) (0,4) (1,2) (1,3) (1,4) }
A × C = {0, 1} × {3, 5}
{(0, 3) (0, 5) (1,3) (1,5)}
(A × B) ∪ (A × C) = {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (0, 5) (1, 2)(1, 3)(1, 4)(1, 5)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × (B ∪ C) = (A × B) ∪ (A × C)

(ii) A × (B n C) = (A × B) n (A × C)
B ∩ C = {2,3,4} ∩ {3,5}
= {3}
A × (B ∩ C) = {0, 1} × {3}
= {(0,3) (1,3)} ….(1)
A × B = {0,1} × {2,3,4}
= {(0, 2) (0, 3) (0, 4) (1,2) (1,3) (1,4)}
A × C = {0,1} × {3,5}
{(0, 3) (0, 5) (1,3) (1,5)}
(A × B) n (A × C) = {(0, 3) (1, 3)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × ( B n C) = (A × B) n (A × C)

(iii) (A ∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)
A ∪ B = {0, 1} ∪ {2,3,4}
= {0,1, 2, 3, 4}
(A ∪ B) × C = {0, 1,2, 3,4} × {3,5}
= {(0, 3) (0, 5) (1, 3) (1, 5)(2, 3) (2, 5) (3, 3)(3, 5) (4, 3)(4, 5)} ….(1)
A × C = {0, 1} × {3,5}
= {(0,3) (0,5) (1,3) (1,5)}
B × C = {2,3,4} × {3,5}
= {(2,3) (2,5) (3,3) (3,5)(4,3)(4,5)}
(A × C) ∪ (B × C) = {(0, 3) (0, 5) (1, 3) (1, 5) (2, 3)(2, 5) (3, 3) (3, 5) (4, 3) (4, 5)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(A ∪ B) × C = (A × C) ∪ (B × C)

Maths Exercise 1.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 7.
Let A = The set of all natural numbers less than 8, B = The set of all prime numbers less than 8, C = The set of even prime number. Verify that
(i) (A ∩ B) × c = (A × C) ∩ (B × C)
(ii) A × (B – C ) = (A × B) – (A × C)
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
B = {2, 3, 5, 7}
C = {2}
Solution:
(i)(A ∩ B) × C = (A × c) ∩ (B × C)
LHS = (A ∩ B) × C
A ∩ B = {2, 3, 5, 7}
(A ∩ B) × C = {(2, 2), (3, 2), (5, 2), (7, 2)} ………… (1)
RHS = (A × C) ∩ (B × C)
(A × C) = {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 2), (4, 2), (5, 2), (6, 2), (7, 2)}
(B × C) = {2, 2), (3, 2), (5, 2), (7, 2)}
(A × C) ∩ (B × C) = {(2, 2), (3, 2), (5, 2), (7, 2)} ……….. (2)
(1) = (2)
∴ LHS = RHS. Hence it is verified.

(ii) A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)
LHS = A × (B – C)
(B – C) = {3,5,7}
A × (B – C) = {(1, 3), (1, 5), (1, 7), (2, 3), (2, 5), (2, 7) , (3, 3), (3, 5), (3, 7), (4, 3), (4, 5), (4, 7), (5, 3), (5, 5), (5, 7), (6, 3) , (6, 5), (6, 7), (7, 3), (7, 5), (7, 7)} …………. (1)
RHS = (A × B) – (A × C)
(A × B) = {(1,2), (1,3), (1,5), (1,7),
(2, 2), (2, 3), (2, 5), (2, 7),
(3, 2), (3, 3), (3, 5), (3, 7),
(4, 2), (4, 3), (4, 5), (4, 7),
(5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 5), (5, 7),
(6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 5), (6, 7),
(7, 2), (7, 3), (7, 5), (7,7)}
(A × C) = {(1, 2), (2, 2),(3, 2),(4, 2), (5, 2), (6, 2), (7, 2)}
(A × B) – (A × C) = {(1, 3), (1, 5), (1, 7), (2, 3), (2, 5), (2, 7), (3, 3), (3, 5), (3, 7), (4, 3), (4, 5), (4, 7), (5, 3), (5, 5), (5, 7), (6, 3), (6, 5), (6, 7), (7, 3), (7, 5), (7,7) } ………….. (2)
(1) = (2) ⇒ LHS = RHS.
Hence it is verified.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1

9th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.1 Question 1.
Which of the following expressions are polynomials. If not give reason:
(i) \(\frac{1}{x^{2}}\) + 3x – 4
(ii) x² (x – 1)
(iii) \(\frac{1}{x}\) (x + 5)
(iv) \(\frac{1}{x^{-2}}+\frac{1}{x^{-1}}\) + 7
(v) \(\sqrt{5} x^{2}+\sqrt{3} x+\sqrt{2}\)
(vi) \(m^{2}-\sqrt[3]{m}+7 m-10\)
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 Question 2.
Write the coefficient of x² and x in each of the following polynomials,
(i) 4 + \(\frac{2}{5} x^{2}\) – 3x
(ii) 6 – 2x² + 3x³ – \(\sqrt{7} x\)
(iii) πx² – x + 2
(iv) \(\sqrt{3} x^{2}+\sqrt{2} x\) + 0.5
(v) x² – \(\frac{7}{2} x\) + 8
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 3.
Find the degree of the following polynomials.

Solution:

9th Maths 3.1 Question 4.
Rewrite the following polynomial in standard form.

Solution:

9th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 5.
Add the following polynomials and find the degree of the resultant polynomial.
(i) p(x) = 6x² – 7x+ 2 q(x) = 6x³ – 7x + 15
(ii) h(x) = 7x³ – 6x + 1 f(x) = 7x² + 17x – 9
(iii) f(x) = 16x⁴ – 5x² + 9 g(x) = -6x³ + 7x – 15
Solution:

9th Maths Algebra Question 6.
Subtract the second polynomial from the first polynomial and find the degree of the resultant polynomial.
(i) p(x) = 7x² + 6x – 1 q(x) = 6x – 9
(ii) f(y) = 6y² – 7y + 2 g(y) = 7y + y³
(iii) h(z) = z⁵ – 6z⁴ + z f(z) = 6z² + 10z – 7
Solution:

9th Standard Maths Exercise 3.1 Question 7.
What should be added to 2x³ + 6x² – 5x + 8 to get 3x³ – 2x² + 6x + 15?
Solution:
(2x³ + 6x² – 5x + 8) + Q(x) = 3x³ – 2x² + 6x + 15
∴ Q(x) = (3x³ – 2x² + 6x + 15) – (2x³ + 6x² – 5x + 8)

The required polynomial is x³ – 8x² + 11x + 7

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
What must be subtracted from 2x²⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7 to get 3x³ – x² + 2x + 1 ?
Solution:
(2x⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7) – Q(x) = 3x³ – x² + 2x + 1
Q(x) = (2x⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7) – 3x³ – x² + 2x + 1
The required polynomial = 2x⁴ + 4x² – 3x + 7 – 3x³ + x² – 2x – 1
= 2x⁴ – 3x³ + 5x² – 5x + 6

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Chapter 3 Question 9.
Multiply the following polynomials and find the degree of the resultant polynomial:
(i) p(x) = x² – 9 q(x) = 6x² + 7x – 2
(ii) f(x) = 7x + 2 g(x) = 15x – 9
(iii) h(x) = 6x² – 7x + 1 f(x) = 5x – 7
Solution:
(i) p(x) = x² – 9 q(x) = 6x² + 7x – 2
p(x) × q(x) = (x² – 9) (6x² + 7x – 2)

The required polynomial is 6x⁴ + 7x³ – 56x² – 63x + 18, degree 4.

(ii) f(x) = 7x + 2 g(x) = 15x – 9
f(x) × g(x) = (7x + 2) (15x – 9)

The required polynomial is 105x² – 33x – 18, degree 2.

(iii) h(x) = 6x² – 7x + 1 f(x) = 5x – 7
h(x) × f(x) = (6x² – 7x + 1) (5x – 7)

The required polynomial is 30x³ – 77x² + 54x – 7, degree 3.

Class 9 Maths Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 10.
The cost of chocolate is Rs. (x + y) and Amir bought (x + y) chocolates. Find the total amount paid by him in terms of x andy. If x = 10, y = 5 find the amount paid by him.
Solution:
Amount paid = Number of chocolates × Cost of a chocolate
= (x + y) (x + y) = (x + y)² = x² + 2xy + y²
If x = 10, y = 5
The total amount paid by him
= 10² + 2 × 10 × 5 + 5² = 100 + 100 + 25 = Rs. 225

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Maths Question 11.
The length of a rectangle is (3x + 2) units and it’s breadth is (3x – 2) units. Find its area in terms of x. What will be the area if x = 20 units.
Solution:
Area of a rectangle = length × breadth
= (3x + 2) × (3x – 2) = (3x)² – 2² = [9x² – 4] Sq. units
If x = 20, Area = 9 × 20² – 4 = 9 × 400 – 4
= 3600 – 4 = 3596 Sq. units

9th Maths Exercise 3.1 In Tamil Question 12.
p(x) is a polynomial of degree 1 and q(x) is a polynomial of degree 2. What kind of the polynomial p(x) × q(x) is ?
Solution:
p(x) is a polynomial of degree 1. q(x) is a polynomial of degree 2.
Then the p(x) × q(x) will be the polynomial of degree (1 + 2) = 3 (or)
Cubic polynomial

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.1

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.1 Solutions Question 1.
Check whether the which triangles are similar and find the value of x.

Solution:

x = \(\frac{15}{6}\) = 2.5

10th Maths Exercise 4.1 Question 2.
A girl looks the reflection of the top of the lamp post on the mirror which is 6.6 m away from the foot of the lamppost. The girl whose height is 1.25 m is standing 2.5 m away from the mirror. Assuming the mirror is placed on the ground facing the sky and the girl, mirror and the lamppost are in a same line, find the height of the lamp post?
Solution:
In the picture ∆MLN, ∆MGRare similar triangles.

∴ Height of the lamp post is 3.3 m.

10th Maths Exercise 4.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
A vertical stick of length 6 m casts a shadow 400 cm long on the ground and at the same time a tower casts a shadow 28 m long. Using similarity, find the height of the tower.
Solution:
In the picture ∆ABC, ∆DEC are similar triangles.

Height of a tower = 42 m

Ex 4.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 4.
Two triangles QPR and QSR, right angled at P and S respectively are drawn on the same base QR and on the same side of QR. If PR and SQ intersect at T, prove that PT × TR = ST × TQ.
Solution:
In ∆RPQ,
RP² + PQ² = QR²
∴ PQ² = QR² – RP² ………… (1)
In ∆TPQ,
TP² + PQ² = QT²
∴ PQ2² = QT² – TP² ………….. (2)
Equating (1) and (2) we get,
QR² – RP² = QT² – TP²
RP = RT + TP
∴ QR² – (RT + TP)² = QT² – TP²
∴ QR² – RT² – TP² – 2RT.TP = QT² – TP²
QR² = QT² + RT² + 2RT.TP …………. (5)

In ∆QSR,
QS² + SR² = QR²
SR² = QR² – SR² ………..(3)
In ∆TSR,
ST² + SR² = TR²
∴ SR² = TR² – TS² ………… (4)
Equating (3) and (4) we get
QR² – SQ² = TR² – TS²
SQ = QT + TS
∴ QR² – (2T + TS)² = TR² – TS²
QR² – 2T² – TS² – 2QT.TS = TR² – TS²
∴ 2R² = TR² + QT² + 2QT.TS ………… (6)
Now equating (5) – (6), we get
QT² +RT² + 2RT. TP = QT² + RT² + 2QT.TS
∴ PT.TR = ST.TQ
Hence proved.

Exercise 4.1 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
In the adjacent figure, ∆ABC is right angled at C and DE⊥AB. Prove that ∆ABC ~ ∆ADE and hence find the lengths of AE and DE?

Solution:
In ∆ABC & ∆ADE
∠A is common & ∠C = ∠E = 90°
∴ by similarity
∆ABC ~ ∆ADE


Substituting the values of DE and AE in (1)
we can prove that

10th Geometry Exercise 4.1 Question 6.
In the adjacent figure, ∆ACB ~ ∆APQ . If BC = 8 cm, PQ = 4 cm, BA = 6.5 cm and AP = 2.8 cm, find CA and AQ.

Solution:
∆ACB ~ ∆APQ

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.1 Question 7.
In figure OPRQ is a square and MLN = 90°. Prove that
(i) ∆LOP ~ ∆QMO
(ii) ∆LOP ~ ∆RPN
(iii) ∆QMO ~ ∆RPN
(iv) QR² = MQ × RN.

Solution:
(i) In ∆LOP & ∆QMO, we have
∠OLP = ∠MQO (each equal to 90°)
and ∠LOP = ∠OMQ (corresponding angles)
∆LOP ~ ∆QMO (by AA criterion of similarity)

(ii) In ∆LOP & ∆PRN, we have
∠PLO = ∠NRP (each equal to 90°)
∠LPO = ∠PNR (corresponding angles)
∆LOP ~ ∆RPN

(iii) In ∆QMO & ∆RPN .
Since ∆LOP ~ ∆QMO and ∆LOP ~ ∆RPN
∠QMO ~ ∆RPN

(iv) We have
∆QMO ~ ∆RPN (using (iii))
\(\frac{\mathrm{MQ}}{\mathrm{RP}}=\frac{\mathrm{QO}}{\mathrm{RN}}\) (∵ PROQ is a square)
QR² = MQ × RN. [RP = QO, QO = QR]

10th Maths Geometry Question 8.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9 cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Solution:
Since the area of two similar triangles is equal to the ratio of the squares of any two corresponding sides.

10th Maths Exercise 4.1 10th Sum Question 9.
Two vertical poles of heights 6 m and 3 m are erected above a horizontal ground AC. Find the value of y.

Solution:
∆PAC, ∆QBC are similar 6 triangles

⇒ AC = AB + BC
= 2BC + BC
AC = 3BC
Substituting AC = 3BC in (1), we get
(AC)y = 6BC
3(BC)y = 6(BC)
y = \(\frac{6}{3}\) = 2m

10th Maths Exercise 4.1 In Tamil Question 10.
Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR (scale factor \(\frac{2}{3}\)).
Solution:
Given a triangle PQR, we are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{3}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR.

Steps of construction:
(1) Draw any ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to the vertex P.
(2) Locate 3 (the greater of 2 and 3 in \(\frac{2}{3}\) ) points. Q₁ Q₂, Q₂ on QX so that QQ₁ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃
(3) Join Q₃R and draw a line through Q₂ (the second point, 2 being smaller of 2 and 3 in \(\frac{2}{3}\)) parallel to Q₃R to intersect QR at R’.
(4) Draw line through R’ parallel to the line RP to intersect QP at P’.
The ΔP’QR’ is the required triangle each of the whose sides is \(\frac{2}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of 3 ΔPQR.

10th Maths 4.1 Question 11.
Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle LMN with its sides equal to \(\frac{4}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle LMN
(scale factor \(\frac{4}{5}\)).
Solution:
Given a triangle LMN, we are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{4}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the ΔLMN.

Steps of construction:
(1) Draw any ray making an acute angle to the vertex L.
(2) Locate 5 points (greater of 4 and 5 in \(\frac{4}{5}\) ) M₁, M₂, M₃, M₄, and M₅ and MX so that MM₁ = M₁M₂ = M₂M₃ = M₃M₄ = M₄M₅
(3) Join M₅N and draw a line parallel to M₅N through M₄ (the fourth point, 4 being the smaller of 4 and 5 in \(\frac{4}{5}\)) to intersect MN atN’.
(4) Draw a line through N¹ parallel to the line NL to intersect ML and L’. Then ΔL’MN’ is the required triangle each of the whose sides is \(\frac{4}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of ΔLMN.

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.1 10th Sum Question 12.
Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle ABC with its sides equal to \(\frac{6}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle ABC
(scale factor \(\frac{6}{4}\) ).
Solution:
ΔABC is the given triangle. We are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{6}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the given triangle ABC
Steps of construction:

(1) Draw any ray BX making an acute angle with BC on the opposite side to the vertex A.
(2) Locate 6 points (the greater of 6 and 5 in \(\frac{6}{5}\) ) B₁, B₂, B₃, B₄, B₅, B₆ so that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃ = B₄B₅ = B₅B₆.
(3) Join B₅ (the fifth point, 5 being smaller of 5 and 6 in \(\frac{6}{5}\)) to C and draw a live through B₆ parallel to B₅C intersecting the extended line segment BC at C¹.
(4) Draw a line through C’ parallel to CA intersecting the extended line segment BA at A’.
Then ΔA’BC’ is the required triangle each of whose sides is \(\frac{6}{5}\) of the corresponding sides of the given triangle ABC.

10th Maths 4.1 Exercise Question 13.
Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac{7}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR (scale factor \(\frac{7}{3}\)).
Solution:
Given a triangle ΔPQR. We have to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac{7}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the given ΔPQR.

Steps of construction:
(1) Draw any ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the opposite side to the vertex P.
(2) Locate 7 points (the greater of 7 and 3 in \(\frac{7}{3}\)) Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, Q₄, Q₅, Q₆, and Q₇ so that QQ₂ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃ = Q₃Q₄ = Q₄Q₅ = Q₅Q₆
= Q₆Q₇
(3) Join Q₃ to R and draw a line segment through Q₇ parallel to Q₃R intersecting the extended line segment QR at R’.
(4) Draw a line segment through R’ parallel to PR intersecting the extended line segment QP at P’.
Then ΔP’QR’ is the required triangle each of whose sides is \(\frac{7}{3}\) of the corresponding sides of the given triangle.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 3 Atmosphere

Atmosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the Best Answer.

9th Class Social Atmosphere Lesson Question 1.
…………… is the most important gas for the survival of living
(a) Helium
(b) carbon-di-oxide
(c) oxygen
(d) methane
Answer:
(c) oxygen

Atmosphere 9th Class Lesson Question 2.
The lowest layer of the atmosphere is ……………
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

Atmosphere Lesson For 9th Class Question 3.
…………. reflects radio waves.
(a) Exosphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer:
(c) Mesosphere

Define Atmosphere Class 9 Question 4.
The average global surface temperature is …………….
(a) 12°c
(b) 13°c
(c) 14°c
(d) 15°c
Answer:
(b) 13°c

Chapter 3 Atmosphere Question 5.
The process of change of state of water from gaseous to liquid state is called ……………..
(a) Precipitation
(b) evaporation
(c) transpiration
(d) condensation
Answer:
(d) condensation

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 6.
The …………… is the chief energy source of the Earth.
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Stars
(d) clouds
Answer:
(a) Sun

9th Social Guide Geography Question 7.
All types of clouds are found in the ……………….
(a) Troposphere
(b) Ionosphere
(c) Mesosphere.
(d) Exosphere
Answer:
(a) Troposphere

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Atmosphere Question 8.
…………….. clouds are called ‘Sheep clouds’.
(a) Alto-cumulus
(b) Alto-Stratus
(c) Nimbo-stratus
(d) Cirro-cumulus
Answer:
(a) Alto-cumulus

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 9.
The Monsoons are ……………
(a) Prevailing winds
(b) Periodic winds
(c) local winds
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Periodic winds

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 10.
Dew in the form of ice crystals is called ………….
(a) frost
(b) fog
(c) mist
(d) sleet
Answer:
(d) sleet

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Geography Book Question 11.
………………. is called the eye of the storm.
(a) Pressure
(b) wind
(c) cyclones
(d) snow
Answer:
(c) cyclones

9th Social Geography Question 12.
The vertical movement of air is called ……………
(a) Wind
(b) storm
(c) Air current
(d) drift
Answer:
(c) Air current

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (g)
7. (f)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 1.
Define the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 2.
Name the different atmospheric layers.
Answer:
The different atmospheric layers are Troposphere* Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Question 3.
Mention the factors that affect the climate.
Answer:
The factors that affect the climate are

• Distance from the equator
• Altitude
• Nearness to the sea
• Nature of the prevailing winds
• Mountain barrier
• Cloud cover
• Ocean currents
• Natural vegetation

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 4.
What is insulation?
Answer:
The amount of heat received from the sun in the form of short waves is called insulation (or) incoming Solar Radiation.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 9th Std Question 5.
What are isotherms?
Answer:

• Isotherms are imaginary lines drawn on maps, connecting points that have equal temperatures. .
• Temperature varies from place to place, season to season and continent to continent.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Books Social Science Question 6.
Write short note on ‘Lapse rate’.
Answer:

• Altitude refers to the height above sea level.
• The temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C far every 165 mts of height. This is called “Normal Lapse rate”.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 9th Social Question 7.
What are the processes responsible for heating the atmosphere?
Answer:
The processes responsible for heating the atmosphere are Radiation, Conduction, Convection and Advection.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 8.
Mention the planetary wind system of the earth.
Answer:
The winds which constantly blow in the same direction throughout the year are called the planetary winds. They are also called as permanent winds (or) the prevailing winds.

Question 9.
Write short note on:
(a) Trade winds (b) Roaring Forties
Answer:
(a) Trade winds:

1. Trade winds blow from the subtropical high pressure belt to the Equatorial low pressure belt in both the hemispheres.
2. They blow with great regularity, force and in a constant direction throughout the year. They are very helpful to the traders.

(b) Roaring forties:

1. Westerlies are the permanent winds.
2. They blow from South West to North East in the Northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the Southern hemisphere.
3. The velocity of westerlies become so vigourous and fast to be called Roaring forties at 40°.

Question 10.
How are clouds formed?
Answer:

1. Large amount of water evaporates each day from the surface of the Sea.
2. This is the principal source of atmospheric moisture.
3. Cool moisture laden air, gets collected around particles like dust, salt content from the sea, smoke, etc, and forms clouds.
4. Sometimes mixing warmer and cooler air also produces clouds.

Question 11.
What are the different types of rainfall?
Answer:
Based on the mechanisms of raising the air, there are three types of rainfall.

1. Convectional rainfall
2. Frontal (or) cyclonic rainfall
3. Orographic rainfall

Question 12.
What is Precipitation? What are the different forms of precipitation?
Answer:

1. Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation.
2. The main forms of precipitation are Drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.

Question 13.
Write short notes on:
a. Drizzle b. rain c. sleet d. snow e. heat
Answer:
a. Drizzle:

1. Falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with diameter of less than 0.5 is called a drizzle mm from low clouds.
2. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

b. Rain:

1. Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperatures above the freezing point.
2. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a rain drop is more than 5 mm.

c. Sleet:

1. Sleet refers to precipitation in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice.
2. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

d. Snow:

1. Snow is formed when condensation occurs below freezing point.
2. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi opaque ice crystals.
3. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes. ‘

e. Heat:

1. Is the energy which makes objects hot, while temperature measures the intensity of heat.

Question 14.
How are Cyclones classified?
Answer:
Cyclones Can be classified into

1. Tropical cyclones
2. Temperate cyclones
3. Extra Tropical cyclones.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:

S.No.	Weather	Climate
(i)	Weather is the study of atmospheric conditions for short duration over small areas.	It is the study of the average weather condition observed over a long period of time for a larger area.
(ii)	The weather changes very often; hour to hour and day to day.	Climate is more (or) less permanent and remains the same always.
(iii)	Study of weather is called meteorology.	Study of climate is called climatology.

Question 2.
Land breeze and sea breeze.
Answer:

S.No.	Land Breeze	Sea Breeze
(i)	During the night the land cools more rapidly than the ocean. Cool air sinks and forms high pressure.	During the day the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
(ii)	The wind blows from land to sea during the night is called land breeze.	Heated air ascends and this causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean, therefore the wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon. This is called sea breeze.

Question 3.
Windward side and Leeward side.
Answer:

S.No.	Windward side	Leeward side
(i)	The windward side of a mountain which faces the prevailing wind.	The Leeward side of the mountain is the side sheltered from the wind.
(ii)	It receives heavy rainfall.	It receives very less rainfall.

Question 4.
Tropical cyclone and Temperate cyclones
Answer:

S.No.	Tropical cyclones	Temperate cyclones
(i)	Tropical cyclone develop in the Inter tropical convergent zone. They are formed due to the differential heating of land & Sea.	Temperate cyclones are formed along a front, where hot and cold air masses meet.
(ii)	They often cause heavy loss of life and properly on the coasts and become weak after reaching the land masses.	Temperate cyclones do not become weak like the Tropical cyclones on reaching the land.
(iii)	Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in Indian ocean.	Temperate cyclones are called western disturbances in India.

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Cyclones cause huge loss of life and property.
Answer:

• Because they are formed due to the diffetential heating of land and sea.
• Due to heavy rain, strong wind & large storm.
• The destruction depends mainly on its intensity, its size and its location,
• After the cyclone the devastation continues.

Question 2.
Cloudy days are warmer than cloudless days.
Answer:
On a cloudy day some energy from the sun gets into the atmosphere through the clouds but can’t get out again, when this happens the heat builds up during the day, so it gets warmer outside.

Question 3.
Fog is dangerous for traffic.
Answer:

1. Fog is a cloud form at the surface of the earth made of tiny water droplets suspended in the air.
2. Visibility is the greatest problem with fog.
3. Fog creates dangerous driving conditions and so it is dangerous for traffic.

Question 4.
Convectional rainfall is also called 4 O’ clock rain.
Answer:

1. The convectional rainfall occurs regularly in the equatorial region in the evenings.
2. The ascending moist air cools, condenses and results in convectional rainfall. So it is called 4 O’ clock rainfall.

Question 5.
Polar Easterlies are cold and dry. Why it is so?
Answer:

• Polar Easterlies blow form the high pressure areas of the Polar highs at the North and South Poles towards low pressure areas within westerlies at high altitudes.
• When air moves near the poles, cold temperatures shrink the air. So Polar Easterlies are cold and dry.

VI. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
Write a paragraph about the structure of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The blanket of air that surrounds the Earth is called the atmosphere. The five atmospheric layers are Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere and Exosphere.
Troposphere: The lowest layer of the atmosphere is the troposphere. The Greek word ‘tropos’ means ‘turn’ or change. The layer extends up to 8 kms at the poles and up to 18 kms at the Equator. The temperature decreases with increasing height. Almost all weather phenomenon take place in this layer. Hence it is called weather making layer. The upper limit of the troposphere is called as tropopause.

Stratosphere: Stratosphere lies above the troposphere. It extends to a height of about 50 km above earth surface. Since this layer is a concentration of ozone molecules, it is also referred as ozonosphere. The temperature increases with increase in height in this layer. Large jet planes normally fly here. The upper limit of the stratosphere is called as stratopause. Mesosphere: Mesosphere extends between 50km and 80km. The temperature increases with increasing height. Radio waves transmitted from earth are reflected back to earth from this layer. Most of the meteors nearing the earth, get burned here. The uppermost limit of the mesosphere is the mesopause.

Thermosphere: Thermosphere exists above the mesosphere. It extends to about 600 km. The composition of gases in the lower thermosphere is more or less uniform, hence it is called ‘‘Homosphere”. The upper portion of the thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”. Here the temperature increases with increasing height. Ionosphere is a layer of the thermosphere that contains Ions and free electrons.

Exosphere: The uppermost layer of the atmosphere is called exosphere. This layer is extremely rarefied with gases and gradually merges with the outer space. This zone is characterized by aurora Australis and aurora borealis.

Question 2.
Explain the different types of permanent winds.
Answer:
Westerlies are the permanent Winds that blow from the tropical high pressure belt to the sub polar low pressure belt in both the hemispheres. They blow from South West to North East . in the northern hemisphere and North West to South East in the southern hemisphere. The velocity of westerlies become so vigorous and fast to be called Roaring Forties at 40°, Furious Fifties at 50° and Screaming Sixties at 60° latitudes.

Question 3.
How are clouds classified? Explain them.
Answer:
According to their height, clouds are classified into the following types
• High clouds (6 – 20 km Height)
• Middle clouds (2.5 km – 6 km Height)
• Low clouds (ground surface to 25 km height)
These major types of clouds are further divided into different types on the basis of shape and structure.

1. High clouds
   • Cirrus: Detached clouds in the form of white delicate fibrous silky filaments formed at the high sky (8000 meters to 12000 meters) are called Cirrus clouds. These clouds are dry and do not give rainfall.
   • Cirro-cumulus: White patched, sheet or layer like clouds composed of ice crystals. Cirro-stratus: Smooth milky transparent whitish clouds composed of tiny ice crystals.
2. Middle clouds
   • Alto-stratus: Thin sheets of grey or blue coloured clouds in uniform appearance, consisting of frozen water droplets.
   • Alto-cumulus: clouds fitted closely together in parallel bands, called as ‘Sheep clouds’ or wool pack clouds.
   • Nimbo stratus: These are clouds of dark colour very close to the ground surface associated with rain, snow or sleet.
3. Low clouds
   • Strato-cumulus: Grey or whitish layer of non-fibrous low clouds found in rounded patches at an height of 2500 to 3000 metres, associated with fair or clear weather.
   • Stratus: Dense, low lying fog-like clouds associated with rain or snow.
   • Cumulus: Dome-shaped with a flat base often resembling a cauliflower, associated with fair weather.
   • Cumulo-nimbus: Fluffy thick towering thunderstorm cloud capable of producing heavy rain, snow, hailstorm or tornadoes.

Question 4.
How are cyclones formed? How are they classified?
Answer:
The term cyclone is a Greek word meaning “coil of a snake”. Cyclones are centres of low pressure where, winds from the surrounding high pressure area converge towards the centre in a spiral form. Due to the rotation of the earth, the cyclonic winds in the northern hemisphere move in anti clock wise direction, where as they move in clockwise direction in the southern hemisphere.
Cyclones can be classified into

Tropical cyclones, Temperate cyclones and Extra tropical cyclones . Tropical cyclones: Tropical cyclones develop in the Inter tropical convergence zone [ITCZ], They are formed due to the differential heating of land and sea.
Tropical cyclones are known as ‘cyclones’ in Indian ocean, ‘typhoons’ in the western pacific ocean, ‘hurricanes’ in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific ocean, ‘baguios’ in Phillipines and ‘willy willy’ in Australia. Tropical cyclones often cause heavy .loss of life and property on the coasts and become weak after reaching the landmasses.

Temperate cyclones: Temperate cyclones are formed along a front where hot and cold air masses meet in mid-latitudes between 35° and 65°N and S. Temperate cyclones do not become weak like the tropical cyclones on reaching the land. Temperate cyclone commonly occurs over the North Atlantic Ocean, North West Europe, Mediterranean basin. Mediterranean basin’s temperate cyclones extend up to Russia and India in winter. In India it is as called western disturbances.

Extra tropical cyclones: Extra tropical cyclones occur in the latitudes between 30° and 60° in both the.hemispheres. They are also called as mid-latitude cyclones. They collect energy from temperature differences which are found in higher latitudes. Extra tropical cyclones produce mild showers to heavy gales, thunderstorms, blizzards, and tornadoes.

Question 5.
Explain the different forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Precipitation
Falling down of condensed water vapour in different forms is called Precipitation. When the dew point is reached in the cloud water droplets become saturated and start to fall. Hence, they fall on the earth as precipitation.
The climatic conditions/ factors influencing the forms of precipitation mainly are:
• Temperature.
• Altitude
• Cloud type
• Atmospheric conditions.
• Precipitation process.
The main forms of precipitation include drizzle, rain, sleet, snow, hail, etc.
Drizzle: Falling of numerous uniform minute droplets of water with diameter of less than 0. 5 is called a drizzle.mm from low clouds. Sometimes drizzles are combined with fog and hence reduce visibility.

Rain: Rain is the most widespread and important form of precipitation in places having temperature above the freezing point. It occurs only when there is abundant moisture in the air. The diameter of a rain drop is more than 5 mm.

Sleet: Sleet refers to a precipitation, in the form of pellets made up of transparent and translucent ice. This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.

Snow: Snow is formed when condensation occurs below freezing point. It is the precipitation of opaque and semi opaque ice crystals. When these ice crystals collide and stick together, it becomes snowflakes.

Hails: Hails are chunks of ice (greater than 2 cm in diameter) falling from the sky, during a rainstorm or thunderstorm.
Hailstones are a form of solid precipitation where small pieces of ice fall downwards. These . are destructive and dreaded forms of solid precipitation because they destroy agricultural crops and human lives.

VII. Activity:

1. Preparing chart of clouds at various atmospheric levels. – Individual Activity.
2. Collecting proverbs clouds and rain related proverbs. – Individual Activity.
3. Poem on ‘clouds’ and ‘rain’. – Individual Activity.
4. Report writing observe the clouds for a week. Write your report about the shape and colours of the clouds. – Group Activity.
5. Working models (a) Rain Gauge (b) Wind vane – Group Activity.
   • The teacher takes initiative to complete the following activities.
   • The students get the assistance of the teacher to complete the given task.
6. Preparing bar diagram:
   (a) Collect the data of temperature of Kanyakumari, Delhi, Allahabad, and Itanagar for a day.
   (b) Also collect the data of rainfall received by Jaisalmer (Rajasthan), Mawsynram (Meghalaya), Nagapattinam, Coimbatore for a day. – Group Activity.
7. Become a budding Meteorologist:
   Record the local weather condition of your place for a week. – Group Activity.
   

Answer:
You can do this activity in groups under the guidance of your teacher.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere. It is also known as the weather-making zone because all physical processes of weather, like wind, clouds, storms, rainfall, mist, fog and hail, occur here.

Atmosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is a permanent gas of the atmosphere.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Argon
(c) Methane
(d) Helium
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 2.
This gas helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) CO₂
Answer:
(c) Ozone

Question 3.
The upper most layer of the atmosphere is …………….
(a) Statrosphere
(b) Mesosphere
(c) Exosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer:
(c) Exosphere

Question 4.
This precipitation is a mixture of snow and rain.
(a) Sleet
(b) Snow
(c) Hail
(d) Hailstones
Answer:
(a) Sleet

Question 5.
Humidity of the atmosphere is measured by the wet and dry bulb thermometer called ………….
(a) Anemometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Barometer
Answer:
(c) Hygrometer

Question 6.
This is one of the most feared weather phenomenon.
(a) Snow
(b) Hailstones
(c) Sleet
(d) Hails
Answer:
(b) Hailstones

Question 7.
Tropical cyclones in India is known as ……………
(a) baguios
(b) willy willy
(c) hurricanes
(d) Cyclones
Answer:
(d) Cyclones

Question 8.
The wind blowing from the east is ……………
(a) Planetary winds
(b) Easterly winds
(c) Variable winds
(d) Local winds
Answer:
(b) Easterly winds

Question 9.
This is the wettest place of India.
(a) Mawsynram
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Shillong
(d) Pune
Answer:
(a) Mawsynram

Question 10.
This is the earth’s magnetic belt ………………
(a) Thermosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Magnetosphere
Answer:
(d) Magnetosphere

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
(a)
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (d)
5. (c)

(b)

Answer:
(b)
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Who discovered Nitrogen in Atmosphere? When?
Answer:
In 1772 CE Daniel Rutherford discovered Nitrogen in atmosphere.

Question 2.
What are Auroras?
Answer:
Auroras are cosmic glowing lights produced by a stream of electrons discharged from the Sun’s surface due to magnetic storms that are seen as unique multicolored fire works hanging in the polar sky during mid night.

Question 3.
What are mountain barriers?
Answer:

• The location of the mountains influence the climate of a place.
• The mountain chains act as natural barrier for the wind.
• Sometimes they prevent the entry of cold winds into the country (or) the’escape of monsoon winds, thus having a great influence over the climate.

Question 4.
What happens to atmospheric pressure with altitude?
Answer:

• Air pressure decreases with altitude.
• The air molecules became scattered and more widely spaced at higher altitudes.
• The air pressure develops by 34 millibars per 300 metres increase in height.

Question 5.
What do you call the winds of a particular area?
Answer:

• The winds that are blown in a particular locality for a short period of time are called the local winds.
• The effects of these local winds are experienced only in that particular area.

Question 6.
Define the terms (a) Absolute humidity (b) Relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity: The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is called Absolute Humidity.
Relative Humidity: The ratio between the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere and the amount of water vapour it can hold is Relative humidity.

IV. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Conduction and Convection.
Answer:

Conduction	Convection
Conduction is the transfer of heat from hot body to a cold body through contact.	Convection is transfer of heat by movement or circulation of air in a mass.

Question 2.
Isobar and Isotherm.
Answer:

Isobar	Isotherm
An Isobar is an imaginary line drawn through places having equal atmospheric pressure reduced to sea level.	An imaginary line on a map connecting points having the same temperature

V. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Thermosphere is also referred as “Heterosphere”.
Answer:
The upper portion of the Thermosphere has uneven composition of gases and hence it is referred as “Heterosphere”.

Question 2.
The wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon. Why?
Answer:

1. During the day the land masses get heated more rapidly than the oceans.
2. Heated air ascends and causes low pressure on the adjoining ocean.
3. Therefore the wind blows from ocean to land in the afternoon.

Question 3.
The sub-tropical high pressure are called “horse latitudes”. Why?
Answer:

1. With little Water and food left for humans, sailors used to throw the horses into the sea in order to make the vessels lighter.
2. Henceforth these belts (or) latitudes are called as “horse latitudes”.

Question 4.
“Water droplets fall on the earth as precipitation”. Why?
Answer:

1. When the dew point is reached in the cloud, water droplets become saturated and start to fall.
2. Hence they fall on the earth as precipitation.

VI. Paragraph questions.

Question 1.
Describe the “composition of the atniosphere”.
Answer:
(i) Atmosphere is a mixture of gases, water vapour and dust particles in different proportions.

(ii) Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%) are permanent gases of the atmosphere. They constitute 99% of the total composition and their percentages always remain the same without any change.

(iii) The remaining one percentage is occupied by Argon (0.93%), Carbon-di-oxide, (0.03%), Neon (0.0018%), Helium (0.0005%), Ozone (0.00006%) and Hydrogen (0.00005%). Krypton, Xenon and Methane are also present in trace. Water vapour (0 – 0.4%) is also found in the atmosphere, which plays an important role in predicting weather phenomenon.

(iv) The other solid particles present in the atmosphere includes dust particles, salt particles, pollen grains, smoke, soot, volcanic ashes etc.,
(v) Oxygen is most important for living organisms.
(vi) CO₂ absorbs heat and keeps the atmosphere warm by insulation and radiation.
(vii) Nitrogen acts as a diluent and is chemically inactive.
(viii) Ozone helps in protecting the earth from radiation.
(ix) The solid particles in the atmosphere acts as nuclei on which water vapour condense to form precipitation.

Question 2.
How is the Orographic rainfall caused?
Answer:
Orographic rainfall, also called relief rainfall, is caused when air is forced to rise against a high mountain. The mountain barriers lying across the direction of air flow, force the moisture laden air rise along the mountain slope. This results in the cooling of the air, which leads to the formation of clouds and rain. This rainfall is called Orographic rainfall. The side of the ‘ mountain facing the wind is called the windward side and receives heavy rainfall. It is called the rainfed region. The other side of the mountain that does not face the wind is called the leeward side and receives less rainfall becomes rain shadow region.

VII. HOTs (Higher Order Thinking skills) Questions

Question 1.
Why is Troposphere called as weather making layer?
Answer:
‘Tropos’ means ‘turn’ (or) change. Almost all weather phenomenon takes place in this layer. Hence Troposphere is called as weather making layer.

Question 2.
Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are always affected by cyclones. Why?
Answer:

1. Coastal zone is exposed to natural forces including cyclones and Tsunamis.
2. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are situated on the Sea-Shore.
3. Cuddalore and Nagapattinam are vulnerable to storms.
4. During Summer Bay of Bengal subject to intense heat cause to raise the humid and unstable air masses that produce cyclone.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.5

9th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Question 1.
Construct the ∆LMN such that LM = 7.5 cm, MN = 5 cm and LN = 8 cm. Locate its centroid.
Solution:
In ∆LMN
LM = 7.5 cm,
MN = 5 cm,
LN = 8 cm

Construction :
Step 1 : Draw ∆LMN with LNM = 8 cm, MN = 5 cm, LM = 7.5 cm
Step 2 : Construct perpendicular bisectors for any two sides (LN and MN) to find the mid points of LM and MN.
Step 3 : Draw the medians LD, ME. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the triangle LMN.

9th Maths Geometry Question 2.
Draw and locate the centroid of the triangle ABC where right angle at A, AB = 4 cm and AC = 3 cm.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
AB = 4 cm,
AC = 3 cm,
∠A = 90°

Construction:
Step 1 : Draw ∆ABC with AB = 4 cm, AC = 3 cm, ∠A = 90°
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (AB and AC) to find the mid points of AB and AC.
Step 3 : Draw the medians CD and BE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given triangle.

9th Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 3.
Draw the ∆ABC , where AB = 6 cm, ∠B = 110° and AC = 9 cm and construct the centroid.
Solution:
In ∆ABC,
AB = 6 cm,
∠B = 110°
AC = 9 cm

Construction:
Step 1 : Draw ∆ABC with AB = 6 cm, ∠B =110°, AC = 9 cm
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (BC and AB) to find the mid points of BC and AB.
Step 3 : Construct medians AD and CE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given ∆ABC.

9th Geometry 4.5 Question 4.
Construct the ∆PQR such that PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm and ∠QPR = 60° and locate its centroid.
Solution:
In ∆PQR, PQ = 5 cm, PR = 6 cm, ∠QPR = 60°

Construction :
Step 1 : Draw ∆PQR with the given measurement
Step 2 : Draw perpendicular bisectors of any two sides (PQ and QR) to find the mid points of PQ and QR.
Step 3 : Draw medians PD and RE. Let them meet at G.
Step 4 : G is the centroid of the given ∆PQR.

9th Standard Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 5.
Draw ∆PQR with sides PQ = 7 cm, QR = 8 cm and PR = 5 cm and construct its Orthocentre.
Solution:
∆PQR with sides PQ = 7 cm,
QR = 8 cm,
PR = 5 cm.

Construction:
(i) Draw the ∆PQR with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices (R and P) to their opposite sides (PQ and QR) respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection of the altitude H is the Orthocentre at the given ∆PQR.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Exercise 4.5 Question 6.
Draw an equilateral triangle of sides 6.5 cm and locate its Orthocentre.

Solution:
Equilateral triangle at sides 6.5 cm.

Construction :
(i) Draw the ∆ABC with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices A and B, to their opposite sides BC and AC respectively.
(iii) The point intersection of the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆ABC.

9th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Solutions Question 7.
Draw ∆ABC, where AB = 6 cm, ∠B = 110° and BC = 5 cm and construct its Orthocentre.
Solution:
∆ABC, where AB = 6 cm,
B = 110° and
BC = 5 cm.

(i) Draw the ∆ABC with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices (A and B), to their opposite sides (BC and AC) respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆ABC.

9th Standard Maths Geometry Exercise 4.5 Question 8.
Draw and locate the Orthocentre of a right triangle PQR where PQ = 4.5 cm, QR = 6 cm and PR = 7.5 cm.
Solution:
Right triangle PQR where PQ = 4.5 cm, QR = 6 cm and PR = 7.5 cm.

Construction:
(i) Draw the ∆PQR with the given measurements.
(ii) Construct altitudes from any two vertices R and Q, to their opposite sides PQ and PR respectively.
(iii) The point of intersection of the altitude H is the orthocentre of the given ∆PQR.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.5

10th Maths Exercise 2.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Check whether the following sequences are in A.P.
(i) a – 3, a – 5, a – 7, ………
(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ………..
(iii) 9, 13, 17, 21, 25, ………
(iv) \(\frac { -1 }{ 3 } \),0,\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 2 }{ 3 } \),………..
(v) 1,-1, 1,-1, 1,-1,…
Solution:
To prove it is an A.P, we have to show d = t₂ – t₁ = t₃ – t₂.
(i) a – 3, a – 5, a – 7………
t₁,t₂,t₃
d = t₂ – t₁ = a – 5 – (a – 3) = a – 5 – a + 3 = -2
∴ d = -2    ∴ It is an A.P.
d = t₃ – t₂ = a – 7 – (a – 5) = a – 7 – a + 5 = -2

(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \),\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \), ………..

(v) 1,-1, 1,-1, 1,-1,…
d = t₂ – t₁ = -1 -1 = -2
d = t₃ – t₂ = 1 – (-1) = 2
-2 ≠ 2 ∴ It is not an A.P.

Ex 2.5 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
First term a and common difference d are given below. Find the corresponding A.P.
(i) a = 5, d = 6
(ii) a = 7, d = 5
(iii) a = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
Solution:
(i) a = 5, d = 6
A.P a, a + d, a + 2d, ………
= 5, 5 + 6, 5 + 2 × 6, ………
= 5, 11, 17,…
(ii) a = 7,d = -5
A.P. = a,a + d,a + 2d,…
= 7,7 + (-5), 7 + 2(-5), ……….
= 7, 2, -3, …….,…
(iii) a = \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 } \), d = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)

Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Maths Solution Question 3.
Find the first term and common difference of the Arithmetic Progressions whose nthterms are given below

(i) t_n = -3 + 2n
Answer:
t_n = -3 + 2 n
t₁ = -3 + 2(1) = -3 + 2
= -1
t₂ = -3 + 2(2) = -3 + 4
= 1
First term (a) = -1 and
Common difference
(d) = 1 – (-1) = 1 + 1 = 2

(ii) t_n = 4 – 7n
Answer:
t_n = 4 – 7n
t₁ = 4 – 7(1)
= 4 – 7 = -3
t₂ = 4 – 7(2)
= 4 – 14 = -10
First term (a) = – 3 and
Common difference (d) = 10 – (-3)
= – 10 + 3
= – 7

10th Maths Exercise 2.5 Question 4.
Find the 19th term of an A.P. -11, -15, -19, ………..
Solution:
A.P = -11, -15, -19, ……..
a = -11
d = t₂ – t₁ =-15-(-11)
= -15 + 11
= -4
n = 19
∴ t_n = a + (n – 1)d
t₁₉ = -11 + (19 – 1)(-4)
= -11 + 18 × -4
= -11 – 72
= -83

Class 10 Maths Exercise 2.5 Solution Question 5.
Which term of an A.P. 16, 11, 6, 1,… is -54?
Answer:
First term (a) = 16
Common difference (d) = 11 – 16 = -5
t_n = – 54
a + (n – 1) d = -54
16 + (n – 1) (-5) = -54
54 + 21 = -54
54 + 21 = 5n
75 = 5n
n = \(\frac { 75 }{ 5 } \) = 15
The 15^th term is – 54

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 2.5 Question 6.
Find the middle term(s) of an A.P. 9, 15, 21, 27, ……. ,183.
Solution:
A.P = 9, 15, 21, 27,…, 183
No. of terms in an A.P. is
n = \(\frac { l-a }{ d } \) + 1
a = 9, l = 183, d = 15 – 9 = 6
∴ n = \(\frac { 183-9 }{ 6 } \) + 1
= \(\frac { 174 }{ 6 } \) + 1
= 29 + 1 = 30
∴ No. of terms = 30. The middle must be 15th term and 16th term.
∴ t₁₅ = a + (n – 1)d
= 9 + 14 × 6
=9 + 84
= 93
t₁₆ = a + 15 d
= 9 + 15 × 6
= 9 + 90 = 99
∴ The middle terms are 93, 99.

10th Maths Exercise 2.5 In Tamil Question 7.
If nine times the ninth term is equal to the fifteen times fifteenth term, Show that six times twenty fourth term is zero.
Answer:
t_n = a + (n – 1)d
9 times 9^th term = 15 times 15^th term
9t₉ = 15 t₁₅
9[a + 8d] = 15[a + 14d]
9a + 72d = 15a + 210d
9a – 15a + 72 d – 210 d = 0
-6a – 138 d = 0
6a + 138 d = 0
6 [a + 23 d] = 0
6 [a + (24 – 1)d] = 0
6 t₂₄ = 0
∴ Six times 24th terms is 0.

Ex 2.5 Class 10 Question 8.
If 3 + k, 18 – k, 5k + 1 are in A.P. then find k.
Solution:
3 + k, 18 – k, 5k + 1 are in A.P
⇒ 2b = a + c if a, b, c are in A.P

10th Maths 2.5 Exercise Question 9.
Find x,y and z gave that the numbers x,
10, y, 24, z are in A.P.
Answer:
x, 10, y, 24, z are in A.P
t₂ – t₁ = 10 – x
d = 10 – x …..(1)
t₃ – t₂ = y – 10
d = y – 10 ……(2)
t₄ – t₃ = 24 – y
d = 24 – y …..(3)
t₅ – t₄ = z – 24
d = z – 24 …..(4)
From (2) and (3) we get
y – 10 = 24 – y
2y = 24 + 10
2y = 34
y = 17
From (1) and (2) we get
10 – x = y – 10
– x – y = -10 -10
-x -y = -20
x + y = 20
x + 17 = 20(y = 17)
x = 20 – 17 = 3
From (1) and (4) we get
z – 24 = 10 – x
z – 24 = 10 – 3 (x = 3)
z – 24 = 7
z = 7 + 24
z = 31
The value of x = 3, y = 17 and z = 31

10th Maths 2.5 Question 10.
In a theatre, there are 20 seats in the front row and 30 rows were allotted. Each successive row contains two additional seats than its front row. How many seats are there in the last row?
Solution:
t₁ = a = 20
t₂ = a + 2 = 22
t₃ = a + 2 + 2 = 24 ⇒ d = 2
∴ There are 30 rows.
t₃₀ = a + 29d
= 20 + 29 × 2
= 20 + 58
= 78
∴ There will be 78 seats in the last row.

Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Question 11.
The Sum of three consecutive terms that are in A.P. is 27 and their product is 288. Find the three terms.
Answer:
Let the three consecutive terms be a – d, a and a + d
By the given first condition
a – d + a + a + d = 27
3a = 27
a = \(\frac { 27 }{ 3 } \) = 9
Again by the second condition
(a – d) (a) (a + d) = 288
a (a² – d²) = 288
9(81 – d²) = 288 (a = 9)
81 – d² = \(\frac { 288 }{ 9 } \)
81 – d² = 32
∴ d² = 81 – 32
= 49
d = \(\sqrt { 49 }\) = ± 7
When a = 9, d = 7
a + d = 9 + 7 = 16
a = 9
a – d = 9 – 7 = 2
When a = 9, d = -7
a + d = 9 – 7 = 2
a = 9
a – d = 9 – (-7) = 9 + 7 = 16
The three terms are 2, 9, 16 (or) 16, 9, 2

Maths Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Question 12.
The ratio of 6th and 8^th term of an A.P is 7:9. Find the ratio of 9^th term to 13^th term.
Solution:
\(\frac{t_{6}}{t_{8}}=\frac{7}{9}\)
\(\frac { a+5d }{ a+7d } \) = \(\frac { 7 }{ 9 } \)
9a + 45d = 7a + 49d
9 a + 45 – 7d = 7a + 49 d
9a + 45d – 7a – 49d = 0
2a – 4d = 0 ⇒ 2a = 4d
a = 2d
Substitue a = 2d in

Exercise 2.5 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 13.
In a winter season let us take the temperature of Ooty from Monday to Friday to be in A.P. The sum of temperatures from Monday to Wednesday is 0° C and the sum of the temperatures from Wednesday to Friday is 18° C. Find the temperature on each of the five days.
Solution:
Let the five days temperature be (a – d), a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d.
The three days sum = a – d + a + a + d = 0
⇒ 3a = 0 ⇒ a = 0. (given)
a + d + a + 2d + a + 3d = 18
3a + 6d = 18
3(0) + 6 d = 18
6d = 18
d = \(\frac { 18 }{ 6 } \) = 3
∴ The temperature of each five days is a – d, a, a + d, a + 2d, a + 3d
0 – 3, 0, 0 + 3, 0 + 2(3), 0 + 3(3) = -3°C, 0°C, 3°C, 6°C, 9°C

2.5 Exercise Class 10 Question 14.
Priya earned ₹ 15,000 in the first month. Thereafter her salary increased by ₹1500 per year. Her expenses are ₹13,000 during the first year and the expenses increases by ₹900 per year. How long will it take for her to save ₹20,000 per month.
Solution:

We find that the yearly savings is in A.P with a₁ = 2000 and d = 600.
We are required to find how many years are required to save 20,000 a year …………..
a_n = 20,000
a_n = a + (n – 1)d
20000 = 2000 + (n – 1)600
(n – 1)600 = 18000
n – 1 = \(\frac { 18000 }{ 600 } \) = 30
n = 31 years

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Question 1.
………….. is genetically closest to humans.
(a) Gorilla
(b) Chimpanzee
(c) Orang-utan
(d) Great Apes
Answer:
(b) Chimpanzee

Evolution Of Human And Society Prehistoric Period Question 2.
The period called ……………. marks the beginning of agriculture and animal domestication.
(a) Palaeolithic
(b) Mesolithic
(c) Neolithic
(d) Megalithic
Answer:
(c) Neolithic

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Question Answer Question 3.
Direct ancestor of modem man was ……………..
(a) Homo habilis
(b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo sapiens
(d) Neanderthal man
Answer:
(c) Homo sapiens

9th Social Guide Question 4.
………….. refers to the area covering Egypt, Israel-Palestine and Iraq.
(a) Great Rift Valley
(b) Fertile Crescent
(c) Solo river
(d) Neander Valley
Answer:
(b) Fertile Crescent

Evolution Of Human And Society-Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 5.
Sir Robert Bruce Foote, a geologist from England first discovered the …………. tools at Pallavaram near Chennai.
(a) Stone Age
(b) Palaeolithic
(c) Mesolithic
(d) Neolithic
Answer:
(b) Palaeolithic

9th Social History 1st Lesson Question 6.
(i) The period before the introduction of writing is called pre-history.
(ii) The pre-historic people developed language, made beautiful paintings and artefacts.
(iii) The pre-historic societies are treated as literate.
(iv) The pre-historic period is called ancient. .
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv) are correct

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 7.
(i) The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called Celts.
(ii) Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Chennai district.
(iii) The cultural period that succeeded the Neolithic is called the Bronze Age.
(iv) The period that witnessed domestication .of animals and cultivation of crops is called Mesolithic.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 8.
Assertion (A): Many of the Mesolithic sites are found nearby rivers and tanks.
Reason (R): Irrigation management developed during Mesolithic period.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but R doesn’t explain A
(c) A is correct but R is incorrect
(d) A and R both are incorrect
Answer:
(d) A and R both are incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The primitive multi-cellular life first appeared in the age of ……………..
2. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the …………. culture.
3. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called ………………… technology.
4. ………………… is known as the Middle Stone Age, as it is placed between the Palaeolithic and Neolithic.
Answers:
1. Proterozoic
2. Low Palaeolithic
3. lithic
4. Mesolithic period

III. Find out the correct statement.

Evolution Of Human And Society Prehistoric Period Book Back Answers Question 1.
(a) The concept ‘survival of the fittest’ contributed to the scientific understanding of human origins.
(b) The book “On the Origin of Species” was published by Herbert Spencer.
(c) Darwin’s theory of biological evolution connects with the process of natural selection.
(d) Geology is the study of lithic technology.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Answers Question 2.
(a) Among the great Apes Orangutan is genetically the closest to humans.
(b) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(c) Flake is a small chip that has flaking on both sides.
(d) Acheulian is the main block of stone from which small1 chips are flaked by using a hammer stone.
Answer:
(a) incorrect
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (d)

V. Answer the following briefly.

9th Social Book Back Answers Question 1.
Discuss how the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.
Answer:

1. Humans are the only species on earth concerned with understanding as well as explaining the World and Universe.
2. Humans became knowledgeable and conscious in the coarse of evolution.
3. They became curious and began to think and ask questions about nature, organisms and the world around them.
   e.g., At first they worshipped nature as God.
   Later on they developed their own understanding some of which is not scientific. Thus the age of speculation made humans become conscious and knowledgeable.

9th New Social Book Back Answers Question 2.
Write a note on the impact of pastoralism on the prehistoric people in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The people in the Age practiced agriculture, domesticated cattle and sheep.
2. Some of the groups were still hunting and gathering.
3. Millets & rice were cultivated.
4. Irrigation management developed in this period. In the deltaic regions irrigation as a technology had developed.
5. Evidences of rice is seen in Megalithic sites like Adidchanallur in Thoothukudi district and Porunthal near Palani.

Evolution Of Humans And Society Prehistoric Period Meaning In Tamil Question 3.
List out the features of Megalithic Burial types.
Answer:

1. The Iron Age is also known as Megalithic since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
2. Within these burials, the skeletons (or) a few bones of the dead persons were placed along with grave goods including iron objects, carnelian beads and bronze objects.
3. Some of the burials do not have human bones and they have only the grave goods.
4. They may be called memorial burials.

9th Social Science Guide Question 4.
Examine the tool making technical skills of lower Palaeolithic people.
Answer:

1. Hand axes and cleavers are the important tool types of the Lower palaeolithic period.
2. These tools were fitted with a wooden and bone handle. They were used for cutting, piercing and digging.
3. The people also used hammer stones and spheroids.
4. The quartzite pebbles and cobbles were chosen as raw materials.
   The tools are found in the soil deposits and also in the exposed river side.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Evolution Of Humans And Society – Prehistoric Period Notes Question 1.
Hominid and Hominins.
(a) Who are Hominids?
Answer:
Hominids refers to all the species of the modem and extinct great apes, which also includes humans.

(b) Who was the earliest human ancestor to make tools in Africa?
Answer:
Homo habilis (handy human) was the earliest known human ancestors to make tools in Africa about 2.6 million years ago.

(c) How are the modern humans known?
Answer:
Modem-humans are known as Homo sapiens.

(d) Name any one species of this tribe.
Answer:
Homo erectus – extinct Humans are the only living species.

9 Social Guide Question 2.
Earliest Lithic Assemblages of Human ancestors.
(a) Where are Acheulian tools reported to have been found in Karnataka and in Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Acheulian tools are reported to have been found in Isampur in Karnataka and Bhimbetka in Madhya Pradesh.

(b) What is meant by Lithic Technology?
Answer:
‘Lith’ means stone. The methods and techniques involved in the production of stone tools are called lithic technology.

(c) What are Biface tools?
Answer:
Bifaces are tools that have flaking on both sides (bi = two, face = side).

(d) Name a few stone tools used by the human ancestors.
Answer:
Core is the main block of stone. Flake is a small chip removed from a large stone block. Levalloisian tools includes long blades and burins. Burin is a stone-made chisel with a sharp cutting edge.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Social Science Class 9 Guide Question 1.
The developments in the fields of agriculture, pottery and metal tools are considered a landmark in the life of Megalithic period- Substantiate.
Answer:

• As the name suggests, people used iron technology.
• An exchange relationship developed among the people.
• The people of this age had knowledge of metallurgy and pottery making.
• The Iron Age is also known as Megalithic period since people created burials with large stones for the dead people.
• Weapons such as swords and daggers, axes, chiesels, lamps and tripod stands are also found.
• The Iron tools were used for agriculture, hunting, gathering and in battles.
• Bronze bowls, vessels with stylish finials decorated with animals and birds, bronze mirrors and bells have also been found. So these developments are considered a landmark in the life of Megalithic period.

Question 2.
The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth. Elucidate.
Answer:

• The history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.
• The earth contains geological, archaeological and biological records of historical times in its upper layers.
• They are important for reconstructing the history of the earth and various living organisms.
• The fossil bones of the human ancestors are embedded in the earth’s layers.
• Palaeoanthropologists and archaeologists excavate the soil and rock layers on the earth and extract evidence about human ancestors.
• These layers and the fossils are scientifically dated to study the various stages in human evolution and prehistory.
• Through the gathered evidence they attempt to understand the evolution of human history and developments in a chronological order.
• The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
• Gradually conditions emerged for the growth of organisms. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras, periods and epochs by the Geologists. Thus the history of humans is closely related to the history of the earth.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark the prehistoric sites on the world map.
Answer:
(i) The ancestors to humans were called Hominins and their origins have been traced to Africa.
(ii) You can draw the Prehistoric sites of human ancestors in Africa with the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance.
Answer:
A power-point presentation on the origin of human life.
A power-point presentation on the pre-historic tools.
A power-point presentation on the scripts of the ancient.

Evolution of Humans and Society – Prehistoric Period Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

1. …………….. is the study of the human past through the analysis and interpretation of material remains.
(a) Geology
(b) Archaeology
(c) History
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Archaeology

Question 2.
The beginning of history writing can be traced to the ancient ……………..
(a) Greeks
(b) Egyptians
(c) Romans
(d) Africans
Answer:
(a) Greeks

Question 3.
The DNA of a Chimpanzee is ……………. identical to that of a human being.
(a) 95%
(b) 96%
(c) 97%
(d) 98%
Answer:
(d) 98%

Question 4.
………….. are stone artefacts of small size.
(a) Microliths
(b) Bifaces
(c) Acheulian
(d) core
Answer:
(a) Microliths

Question 5.
Evidence of Neolithic village is found at …………… in Vellore district.
(a) Gudiam
(b) Athirampakkam
(c) Payyampalli
(d) Salem
Answer:
(c) Payyampalli

Question 6.
The ……………. was a formative period and the foundation for the Sangam Age.
(a) Iron Age
(b) Bronze Age
(c) Stone Age
(d) Age of Information Technology
Answer:
(a) Iron Age

Question 7.
(i) We live in the age of Information Technology.
(ii) The internet has literally put the world on our finger tips.
(iii) The Prehistoric people were the pioneers of literacy.
(iv) Powerful Technology developed all of a sudden.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (ii) & (iv) are correct
(d) (i) & (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct

Question 8.
(i) The chimpanzee is genetically the closest to humans.
(ii) Hominins & their origin have been traced to Asia.
(iii) The Hominins emerged around 6 to 5 million years ago.
(iv) The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites for the Prehistoric period.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) & (iii) are correct
(c) (i) & (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) is correct and (c) (i) & (iv) are correct

Question 9.
……………… are tools used for scraping the surfaces.
(a) Lunates
(b) Triangles
(c) Scrapers
(d) Cists
Answer:
(c) Scrapers

Question 10.
…………… are pottery jars and were used for burying the dead.
(a) Urns
(b) Cists
(c) Dolmens
(d) Menheirs
Answer:
(a) Urns

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Prehistoric people were the pioneers of ……………..
2. …………… were the apes from which modem humans evolved.
3. Prehistoric animal (or) plant that turns to stone over a period of time …………….
4. The earliest tools made by human ancestors are found in ……………. in Kenya.
5. …………….. people buried the dead people systematically.
6. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around …………… (or) even earlier.
7. Oxen were used in ………….. civilisation for tilling the land.
8. ……………. discovered the first Palaeolithic tools in India at Pallavaram.
9. ………….. people perhaps devised the first pottery.
10. The black and Red colour pottery were used by ……………. and people.
Answers:
1. Creative Knowledge
2. Australopithecines
3. Fossil
4. Lomekwi
5. Neanderthals
6. 7000 BCE
7. Sumerian
8. Sir Robert Bruce Foote
9. Neolithic
10. Iron Age & Sangam Age

III. Match the following

a.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

b.

1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
Discuss when the earth was formed.
Answer:

1. The earth was formed approximately 4.54 billion years ago.
2. Gradually, conditions emerged for the growth of organisms.
3. Then plants and animals came into being and thereby foundation was laid for the evolution of humans.
4. The long span of time in earth’s history is divided into eras periods and epochs by the geologists.

Question 2.
Who proposed the idea of the Three Age system?
Answer:

1. The idea of the Three Age system proposed by CJ. Thomsen became the basis for understanding early human history.
2. He classified the artefacts in the Danish National Museum, Copenhagen, into Stone Age, Bronze Age and Iron Age.

Question 3.
The Great Rift valley in Africa has evidence for the Prehistoric period. Discuss.
Answer:

• The Great Rift valley in Africa has many sites that have evidence for the prehistoric period.
• The Great Rift valley is a valley – like formation that run for about 6,400 km from the Northern part of Syria to Central Mozambique in East Africa.
• This geographical feature is visible even from the space, and many prehistoric sites are found in Africa.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Prehistoric cultures”.
Answer:
While the fossil bones are classified as various species such as Homo habilis, Homo erectus and Neanderthalensis, based on the lithic tools, cultures are assigned names such as Earliest Lithic, Assemblages, Oldowan Technology, Lower, Middle and Upper Palaeolithic and Mesolithic cultures.

Question 5.
Why were the Levalloisian tools called so?
Answer:

1. The lithic tool – making tradition of the Levalloisian belonged to this period.
2. Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core.
3. These tools are found in Europe and Central and Western Asia.
4. The Levalloisian tools are the implements made after preparing the core. It was named after the town of Levallois in France.

Question 6.
What was the main factor for the development of early civilisations?
Answer:

1. As a result of domestication and cultivating plants, there was an excess food production.
2. The surplus food production was a main factor for the development of early civilizations.

Question 7.
Describe the burials in the Sangam Age.
Answer:

1. The Sangam literature mentions the various burial practices of the people.
2. The Megalithic burials are classified as dolmens, cists, menheirs, rock-cut caves, um burials and sarcophagus.
3. The burial types of Kodakkal (umbrella stone), Toppikkal (hatstone) and Paththikal (hood stone) are found in Kerala.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

(A) Oldest Museum.
Question 1.
Name the oldest museum, in the world.
Answer:
The museum of Ennigaldi Nanna in Mesopotamia.

Question 2.
When was it established?
Answer:
It was established in 530 BCE.

Question 3.
Which is the oldest surviving museum at present?
Answer:
The Capitoline museum in Italy is perhaps the oldest surviving museum at present (1471 CE).

Question 4.
Name the bldest university museum in the world.
Answer:
Ashmolean Museum at Oxford University is the oldest University Museum in the world.

(B) Mesolithic culture.
Question 1.
Mention the evidence for the existence of Mesolithic hunt-gatherers.
Answers:
They are found at Chennai, North Arcot, Dharmapuri, Salem, Coimbatore, Ariyalur, Trichi, Pudukottai, Madurai, Sivagangai, Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari.

Question 2.
What type of artefacts were used by the people of this period?
Answer:
The people of this period used small artefacts made of Chert and Quartz. .

Question 3.
What are the tool types used by them?
Answer:
The tool types are scrapers, lunates and triangles.

Question 4.
What did they do for their subsistence?
Answer:
These people hunted wild animals and gathered fruits, nuts and roots for their subsistence.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the Neolithic culture in Tamilnadu.
Answer:

• The culture that domesticated animals and cultivated crops is called Neolithic.
• It is known as the New Stone Age. The Neolithic people used polished stone axes called celts.
• Cattle rearing was their main occupation. They lived in small villages with houses made of thatched roof and walls plastered with clay.
• Evidence of Neolithic village is found at Payyampalli in Vellore district and a few sites in the Dharmapuri region.
• Payyampalli is a village in Vellore district of Tamil Nadu. The earliest evidence for the domestication of animals and the cultivation of plants is found at this site, which was excavated by the Archaeological Survey of India.
• Evidence for pottery making and cultivation of horse gram and green gram has been found in this village.
• These Neolithic sites were part of the Southern Neolithic Culture of India. They are mainly concentrated in the Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka regions.
• The Neolithic people used stone axes fitted on a wooden handle.
• These polished stone axes are worshipped in many village temples of Tamil Nadu even today.

Question 2.
Domestication of Animals and plants. A milestone in Human History. Explain.
Answer:

1. Rice was probably cultivated in India and China around 7000 BCE or even earlier.
2. Wheat and barley were cultivated at Mehrgarh in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent (Pakistan) before 6000 BCE.
3. Animal domestication developed as part of symbiotic life.
4. Dogs may have been domesticated first. Friendly animals were gradually domesticated. Sheep and goat were domesticated around 10,000 BCE in Southwest Asia.
5. Oxen were used in Sumerian civilization for tilling the land. Mehrgarh in Pakistan has evidence of sheep, goat and cattle domestication in the Neolithic period.

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.3 பல்துறைக் கல்வி Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.3 பல்துறைக் கல்வி

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பத்துப்பாட்டு, எட்டுத்தொகை, பதினெண்கீழ்க்கணக்கு நூல்கள் ஆகிய தொகுப்புகளில் இடம்பெறும் நூல்களின் பெயர்களைத் திரட்டி எழுதுக.
Answer:

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
அறியாமையை நீக்கி அறிவை விளக்குவது ………………………..
அ) விளக்கு
ஆ) கல்வி
இ) விளையாட்டு
ஈ) பாட்டு
Answer:
ஆ) கல்வி

Question 2.
கல்விப் பயிற்சிக்குரிய பருவம் ……………………
அ) இளமை
ஆ) முதுமை
இ) நேர்மை
ஈ) வாய்மை
Answer:
அ) இளமை

Question 3.
இன்றைய கல்வி ……………………… நுழைவதற்குக் கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது.
அ) வீட்டில்
ஆ) நாட்டில்
இ) பள்ளியில்
ஈ) தொழிலில்
Answer:
ஈ) தொழிலில்

நிரப்புக

1. கலப்பில் …………………………. உண்டென்பது இயற்கை நுட்பம்
2. புற உலக ஆராய்ச்சிக்கு ………………… கொழுகொம்பு போன்றது.
3. வாழ்விற்குரிய இன்பத் துறைகளில் தலையாயது ………………………. இன்பம் ஆகும்.
Answer:
1. வளர்ச்சி
2. அறிவியல்
3. காவிய

பொருத்துக

1. இயற்கை ஓவியம் – அ) சிந்தாமணி
2. இயற்கை தவம் – ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
3. இயற்கைப் பரிணாமம் – இ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
4. இயற்கை அன்பு – ஈ) கம்பராமாயணம்
Answer:
1. இ
2. அ
3. ஈ
4. ஆ

குறுவினா

Question 1.
இன்றைய கல்வியின் நிலை பற்றித் திரு.வி.க கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• இன்றைய கல்வி குறிப்பிட்ட பாடங்களை நெட்டுற (மனப்பாடம்) செய்து தேர்வில் தேறி, பட்டம் பெற்று, ஒரு தொழிலில் நுழைவதற்கு ஒரு கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது.
• நாளடைவில் அக்கல்விக்கும் வாழ்விற்கும் தொடர்பு இல்லாமல் போகிறது என்று திரு.வி.க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 2.
தாய்நாடு என்னும் பெயர் எவ்வாறு பிறக்கிறது?
Answer:
தாய்நாடு என்னும் பெயர் தாய்மொழியைக் கொண்டே பிறக்கிறது.

Question 3.
திரு. வி. க., சங்கப் புலவர்களாகக் குறிப்பிடுபவர்களின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• இளங்கோவடிகள்
• சேக்கிழார்
• திருத்தக்கத்தேவர்
• கம்பர்
• திருஞானசம்பந்தர்
• பரஞ்சோதி
• ஆண்டாள்

சிறு வினா

Question 1.
தமிழ்வழிக் கல்வி பற்றித் திரு. வி. க. கூறுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• கலப்பில் வளர்ச்சி உண்டு என்பது இயற்கை நுட்பம்.
• தமிழை வளர்க்கும் முறையிலும் அளவிலும் கலப்பைக் கொள்வது சிறப்பு.
• ஆகவே, தமிழ்மொழியில் அறிவுக்கலைகள் இல்லை என்னும் பழம் பாட்டை நிறுத்தி, அக்கலைகளைத் தமிழில் பெயர்த்து எழுதித் தாய்மொழிக்கு ஆக்கம் தேடுவோம் தமிழ்
• கலைகள் யாவும் தாய்மொழி வழி மாணாக்கர்களுக்கு அறிவுறுத்தப்படும் காலமே தமிழ்த்தாய் மீண்டும் அரியாசனம் ஏறும் காலமாகும் என்று திரு.வி.க. கூறுகின்றார்.

Question 2.
அறிவியல் கல்வி பற்றித் திரு. வி. க. கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

• உலக வாழ்விற்கு மிக இன்றியமையாதது அறிவியல்.
• உடற்கூறு, உடலோம்பு முறை, பூதபௌதிகம், மின்சாரம், நம்மைச் சூழ்ந்துள்ள செடி, கொடி, பறவை, விலங்கு முதலியவற்றைப் பற்றிய அறிவும், கோள் இயக்கம், கணிதம், அகத்திணை முதலிய அறிவும் நமக்கு வேண்டும்.
• இந்நாளில் அத்தகைய அறிவு தேவை. புற உலகு ஆராய்ச்சிக்கு அறிவியல் கொழுகொம்பு போன்றது.
• நம் முன்னோர் கண்ட பல உண்மைகள் அறிவியல் அரணின்றி, இந்நாளில் உறுதி பெறலரிது.
• இக்கால உலகத்தோடு உறவு கொள்வதற்கும் அறிவியல் தேவை.
• ஆகவே, அறிவியல் என்னும் அறிவுக்கலை இளைஞர்கள் உலகில் பரவ வேண்டும் என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகின்றார்.

நெடுவினா

Question 1.
காப்பியக் கல்வி குறித்துத் திரு. வி. க. கூறும் செய்திகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
(i) வாழ்விற்கு உரிய இன்பத் துறைகளில் காவிய இன்பமும் ஒன்று. அதுவே முதன்மையானது என்றும் கூறலாம்.

(ii) நாம் தமிழர்கள், நாம் பாட்டு இன்பத்தை நுகர வேண்டும். அதற்காகத் தமிழ் இலக்கியங்களுக்கு இடையே செல்ல வேண்டும். தமிழில் இலக்கியங்கள் பலப்பல இருக்கின்றன.

(iii) இயற்கை ஓவியம் பத்துப்பாட்டு, இயற்கை இன்பக்கலம் கலித்தொகை, இயற்கை வாழ்வில்லம் திருக்குறள், இயற்கை இன்பவாழ்வு நிலையங்கள் சிலப்பதிகாரமும் மணிமேகலையும், இயற்கைத் தவம் சிந்தாமணி, இயற்கைப் பரிணாமம் கம்பராமாயணம், இயற்கை அன்பு பெரிய புராணம், இயற்கை இறையுறையுள் தேவார திருவாசக திருவாய் மொழிகள்.

(iv) இத்தமிழ்க் கருவூலங்களை உன்ன உன்ன உள்ளத்திலும் வரும் இன்ப அன்பைச் சொல்லால் சொல்ல இயலாது.

(v) இளைஞர்களே! தமிழ் இளைஞர்களே! பெறற்கரிய இன்ப நாட்டில் பிறக்கும் பேறு பெற்றிருக்கிறீர்கள். தமிழ் இன்பத்தில் சிறந்த இன்பம் இவ்வுலகில் உண்டோ ? தமிழ்க் காவியங்களைப் படியுங்கள். இன்பம் நுகருங்கள் என்று திரு. வி. க. காப்பியக் கல்வி பற்றிக் கூறுகிறார்.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
திரு. வி. க குறிப்பிடும் பல்துறைக் கல்வியில் நீங்கள் எதனைக் கற்க விரும்புகிறீர்கள்?
Answer:
(i) திரு. வி. க. குறிப்பிடும் பல்துறைக் கல்வியில் நான் அறிவியல் கல்வியைக் கற்க விரும்புகிறேன்.

(ii) காரணம் என்னவென்றால், தமிழ் மொழி அறிந்த எனக்கு அறிவியல் பற்றிய செய்திகளை மேலும் தெரிந்து கொள்ளவும், அறிவியலில் உள்ள பல புதுமையான செய்திகளைத் தமிழ்ப்படுத்தவும் அறிவியல் கல்வி கற்க விரும்புகிறேன்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
இளமையில் கல் என்பது ………………….
அ) முதுமொழி
இ) அறிவு மொழி
ஆ) புதுமொழி
ஈ) தமிழ்மொழி
Answer:
அ) முதுமொழி

Question 2.
இயற்கை ஓவியம் …………………..
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
இ) திருக்குறள்
ஆ) கலித்தொகை
ஈ) சிலப்பதிகாரம்
Answer:
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு

Question 3.
இயற்கை இன்பக்கலம் ……………………….
அ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
இ) திருக்குறள்
ஆ) கலித்தொகை
ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
ஆ) கலித்தொகை

Question 4.
இயற்கை வாழ்வில்லம் ……………………
அ) பெரிய புராணம்
இ) திருக்குறள்
ஆ) சிந்தாமணி
ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
இ) திருக்குறள்

Question 5.
இயற்கைத் தவம் ……………….
அ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி
ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
இ) கம்பராமாயணம்
ஈ) மணிமேகலை
Answer:
அ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி

Question 6.
இயற்கைப் பரிணாமம் …………….
அ) கம்பராமாயணம்
இ) திருவாசகம்
ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
ஈ) திருக்குறள்
Answer:
அ) கம்பராமாயணம்

Question 7.
இயற்கை அன்பு ……………………
அ) கம்பராமாயணம்
இ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி
ஆ) பெரிய புராணம்
ஈ) பத்துப்பாட்டு
Answer:
ஈ) பெரிய புராணம்

நிரப்புக

1. அறியாமையை நீக்கி அறிவை விளக்குவது …………………….
2. ………………………. கல்வி முதலியனவும் கல்வியின் பாற்பட்டனவே.
3. கல்வி என்பது ……………….. தேடும் வழிமுறை அன்று.
4. …………….. வாயிலாகவே கல்வி பயிலுதல் வேண்டும்.
5. கலப்பில் வளர்ச்சி உண்டு என்பது ………………….. நுட்பம்.
6. இயற்கை இன்ப வாழ்வு நிலையங்கள் …………………….. மற்றும் ………………..
7. இயற்கை இறையுறையுள் ………….., …………………., …………………
8. உலக வாழ்விற்கு மிக மிக இன்றியமையாதது …………………… என்னும் அறிவுக்கலை.
Answer:
1. கல்வி
2. தொழில்
3. வருவாய்
4. தாய்மொழி
5. இயற்கை
6. சிலப்பதிகாரம், மணிமேகலை
7. தேவாரம், திருவாசகம், திருவாய்மொழி
8. அறிவியல்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
திரு. வி. க வின் படைப்புகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• மனித வாழ்க்கையும்
• தமிழ்த்தென்றல்.
• காந்தியடிகளும்.
• பொதுமை வேட்டல்.
• பெண்ணின் பெருமை.
• முருகன் அல்லது அழகு.

Question 2.
இயற்கை அன்னையின் எச்சரிக்கை என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:
தொழில் நோக்குடன் கல்வி பயிலுதல் வேண்டாம் என்றும், அறிவுலகின் பொருட்டுக் கல்விபயிலுதல் வேண்டும் என்றும், இயற்கை அன்னை எச்சரிக்கை செய்தவண்ணமாய்
இருக்கிறாள் என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 3.
இயற்கை முறையாகத் திரு. வி. க எடுத்துரைப்பது யாது?
Answer:

• நாம் தமிழ் மக்கள்! நாம் நமது தாய்மொழி வாயிலாக கல்வி பெறுதலே சிறப்பு.
• அதுவே, இயற்கை முறை என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 4.
கல்வி குறித்து விஜயலட்சுமி பண்டிட் கூறும் கருத்துகள் யாவை?
Answer:
“கல்வி என்பது வருவாய் தேடும் வழிமுறை அன்று. அது மெய்ம்மையைத் தேடவும், அறநெறியைப் பயிலவும் மனித ஆன்மாவுக்குப் பயிற்சி அளிக்கும் ஒரு நெறிமுறை ஆகும்” என்று கல்வி குறித்து விஜயலட்சுமி பண்டிட் கூறுகிறார்.

Question 5.
எது தமிழுக்கு இழுக்காகாது என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்?
Answer:
குறியீடுகளுக்குப் பல மொழிகளில் இருந்து கடன் வாங்குவது தமிழுக்கு இழுக்காகாது என்று திரு. வி. க. கூறுகிறார்.

Question 6.
இளைஞர்களுக்குத் திரு. வி. க. விடுக்கும் வேண்டுகோள் யாது?
Answer:
(i) இளைஞர்களே! தமிழ் இளைஞர்களே! பெறற்கரிய இன்ப நாட்டில் பிறக்கும் பேறு பெற்று இருக்கிறீர்கள். தமிழ் இன்பத்தில் சிறந்த இன்பம் இவ்வுலகில் உண்டோ ?

(ii) தமிழ்க் காவியங்களைப் படியுங்கள், இன்பம் நுகருங்கள் என்று திரு. வி. க. இளைஞர்களுக்கு வேண்டுகோள் விடுக்கிறார்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
ஏட்டுக்கல்வி குறித்துத் திரு. வி. க. கூறும் கருத்துகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• ஏட்டுக்கல்வியே கல்வி என்னும் ஒரு கொள்கை எங்கும் நிலவி வருகிறது.
• ஏட்டுக்கல்வி மட்டும் கல்வி ஆகாது.
• இந்நாளில் கல்வி என்பது பொருள் அற்றுக் கிடைக்கிறது. குறிப்பிட்ட பாடங்களை மனப்பாடம் செய்து தேர்வில் தேறி, பட்டம் பெற்று, ஒரு தொழிலில் நுழைவதற்குக் கல்வி ஒரு கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது.
• நாளடைவில், அக்கல்விக்கும் வாழ்விற்கும் தொடர்பு இல்லாமல் போகிறது என்கிறார் திரு. வி. க.

Question 2.
திரு. வி. க. குறிப்பிடும் கல்வி குறித்த தலைப்புகளைப் பட்டியலிடுக.
Answer:

• ஏட்டுக் கல்வி
• இயற்கைக் கல்வி
• தொழிற் கல்வி
• இசைக் கல்வி
• தாய்மொழிவழிக் கல்வி
• நாடகக் கல்வி
• தமிழ்வழிக் கல்வி
• அறிவியல் கல்வி
• காப்பியக் கல்வி

Question 3.
தாய்மொழிவழிக் கல்வி குறித்து திரு. வி. க. கூறுவன யாவை?
Answer:

•  நாம் தமிழர், நம் தாய்மொழி வாயிலாகவே கல்வி பெறுவது சிறப்பு. அதுவே தான் இயற்கை முறை.
• போதிய ஓய்வு நேரமும் வாய்ப்பும் இருப்பின் வேறு பல மொழிகளையும் பயிலலாம்.
• ஆனால் தாய்மொழி வாயிலாகவே கல்வி பயிலுதல் வேண்டும்.
• தாய்நாடு என்னும் பெயர் தாய்மொழியைக் கொண்டு பிறப்பது ஆகும்
  – என்று தாய்மொழிவழிக் கல்வி குறித்து திரு. வி. க. கூறுகின்றார்.