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All these concepts of Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 1 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 12 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 12th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology solutions of Class 12th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Pdf Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in the ______ of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis.
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of:
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) stem

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ______.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Notes Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate.
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in:
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

II. Fill in the blanks

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Physiology Question 1.
Cortex lies between ______.
Answer:
Epidermis and endodermis.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 One Mark Questions Question 2.
Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ______.
Answer:
Conjoint.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 3.
Glycolysis takes place in ______.
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the cell.

10th Science 12th Chapter 12 Question 4.
The source of O₂ liberated in photosynthesis is ______.
Answer:
Byproduct.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 In Tamil Question 5.
________ is ATP factory of the cells.
Answer:
Mitochondria.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Meaning In Tamil Question 1.
Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in a plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 2.
The waxy protective covering of a plant is called cuticle.
Answer:
True.

Plants Anatomy And Physiology Question 3.
In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In monocot stem, the cambium is absent in between xylem and phloem.

Plant Anatomy And Physiology Question 4.
Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot root.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot leaf.

Plant Anatomy And Physiology Class 10 Pdf Question 5.
Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Amphicribal	(a) Dracaena
2. Cambium	(b) Translocation of food
3. Amphivasal	(c) Fern
4. Xylem	(d) Secondary growth
5. Phloem	(e) Conduction of water

Answer:
1. (c) Fem
2. (d) Secondary growth
3. (a) Dracaena
4. (e) Conduction of water
5. (b) Translocation of food.

V. Answer in a Sentence

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
When xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery, it is called the collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
Carbondioxide present in atmosphere.

Question 3.
What is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Fermentation (Anaerobic respiration)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give an account on a vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem are:

• Conjoint: Xylem and phloem lie on the same radius.
• Collateral: Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
• Endarch: Protoxylem lies towards the centre and metaxylem lies towards the periphery.
• Open: The cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.

The vascular bundles are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis in leaf is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
2. Ground tissue system
3. Vascular tissue system

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and wherein a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process in which the green plants use sunlight and the green pigment chlorophyll, to synthesize, nutrients from carbon dioxide from air and water. The photosynthesis occurs in green parts of the plant such as leaves, stems and floral buds.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)
\(\mathrm{R} . \mathrm{Q} .=\frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{CO}_{2} \text { liberated }}{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{O}_{2} \mathrm{consumed}}\)

Question 7.
Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
Answer:
During light dependent reaction photosynthesis pigment absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂.
During light independent CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of ATP and NADPH₂ produced during light dependent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the following
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root

Dicot Root	Monocot Root
1. The Xylem is Tetrarch	1. The Xylem is Polyarch.
2. The conjunctive tissue is made up of parenchyma cells.	2. The conjunctive tissue is made up of sclerenchyma cells.
3. The young root contains a path, but in the old root, pith is absent.	3. Pith cells are made of parenchyma cells with intercellular spaces and contain abundant starch grains.
4. Cambium is present during secondary growth.	4. Cambium is absent.
5. Secondary growth is present.	5. Secondary growth is absent.

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration

Aerobic	Anaerobic
1. Occur in the presence of oxygen.	1. Occurs, when oxygen is absent.
2. Carbon dioxide, water and ATP are produced.	2. Lactic acid, Ethanol and ATP are produced.
3. It consists of 3 steps: Glycolysis Kreb’s cycle Electron transport chain	3. It consists of 2 steps: Glycolysis Fermentation (Ethyl alcohol or Lactic acid are produced)

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The three stages of Aerobic respiration are:
(i) Glycolysis (Glucose splitting): It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

(ii) Krebs Cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO₂ and water takes place through this cycle. It is also called the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA).

(iii) Electron Transport Chain: This is accomplished through a system of electron carrier complex called electron transport chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ to release the energy via electrons. As they move, the electron release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesis ATP. This is called oxidative phosphorylation. In this O₂ gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light – dependent reaction differ from the light – independent reaction? What are the end products and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light – dependent photosynthesis is called Hill reaction or Light reaction. The Light independent reactions are called Biosynthetic phase.

Light-dependent reaction	Light independent reaction
1. It is called Hill reaction or Light reaction.	1. It is called Dark reaction or Biosynthetic pathway or the Calvin cycle.
2. The reaction is carried out in Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast.	2. This reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.
3. Photosynthetic pigments absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH2.	3. CO2 is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH2.
4. It is carried out in the presence of light.	4. It is carried out in the absence of light.

In the light – dependent reaction, the chlorophyll absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂. In the light – independent reaction, CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂. The light – dependent reaction is carried out in the Grana of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(A) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions?
(B) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
(a) Light reactions are carried out in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast which use water and energy from the Sun to produce NADPH, ATP and Oxygen. The Dark reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast. It uses NADPH, ATP and CO₂ and produces NADP + ADP + P and high energy sugars.

(b) The Light reactions use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH. The dark reaction or Calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from additional CO₂ molecule. This cycle then produces NAP + ADP + P; (inorganic phosphate) which is used in the light reactions, with water molecules to produce ATP and NADPH again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light-dependent reaction takes place in the presence of light energy in thylakoid membranes (grana) of the chloroplast Calvin cycle occurs at the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The father of Plant Anatomy is _____.
(a) Melvin Calvin
(b) C.N.R. Rao
(c) Robin Hill
(d) Nehemiah Grew.
Answer:
(d) Nehemiah Grew.

Question 2.
The passage cells are found in endodermis of:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot stem
(c) dicot root
(d) dicot leaf
Answer:
(c) dicot root

Question 3.
The vascular bundle consists of _____.
(a) Xylem and Phloem
(b) Hypodermis and Endodermis
(c) Cortex and Pericycle
(d) Pith and Stele.
Answer:
(a) Xylem and Phloem

Question 4.
The vascular bundles are skull shaped in:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 5.
The protoxylem lacuna is present in the vascular bundles of:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The epidermis has many minute pores called _____.
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 2.
Epiblema, the outermost layer of the root is called ____ or _____ layer.
Answer:
Rhizodermis or Piliferous.

Question 3.
All the tissues, inner to Endodermis constitute _____.
Answer:
Stele.

Question 4.
______ provides mechanical support to plants.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma.

Question 5.
The barrel-shaped innermost layer of Dicot stem Endodermis is also called _____.
Answer:
Starch Sheath.

Question 6.
Each vascular bundle of monocot stem is surrounded by a few-layer of sclerenchyma cells called _____.
Answer:
Bundle Sheath

Question 7.
______ consists of sieve tubes and elements of companion cells.
Answer:
Phloem.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
Pith is differentiated in monocot stems.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Pith is not differentiated in monocot stems.

Question 2.
In monocot leaves, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Dicot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Monocot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.

Question 4.
The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the stele.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the pericycle.

Question 5.
Cuticle and Stomata are absent in Epiblema of Dicot root.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Leukoplast	(a) Photosystems
2. Accessory pigments	(b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
3. Chlorophyll	(c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
4. Cristae	(d) Colourless plastids
5. Chl.a and Accessory pigments	(e) Green pigment

Answer:
1. (d) Colourless plastids
2. (c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
3. (e) Green pigment
4. (b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
5. (a) Photosystems.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Where does the break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide, water and energy takes place?
Answer:
The break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide. water and energy takes place in Mitochondria.

Question 2.
Draw the overview of Hill and Calvin Cycle.
Answer:

Question 3.
Name the energy currency in the living organism. When and where it is produced?
Answer:
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is called the energy currency in the living organism. It is produced in mitochondria during the process of respiration.

Question 4.
What are Bulliform cells?
Answer:
Some of the upper epidermal cells of monocot leaves are large and thin-walled. So they are called Bulliform cells.

Question 5.
Label the parts of the transverse section of Dicot Root.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define conjuctive tissue.
Answer:
The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called conjuctive tissue. In monocot the conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue and in dicot it is parenchymatous tissue.

Question 7.
List out the two important factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Internal Factors:
   • Pigments
   • Leafage
   • Accumulation of carbohydrates
   • Hormones
2. External Factors:
   • Light
   • Carbon dioxide
   • Temperature
   • Water
   • Mineral elements

Question 8.
Mention the components and functions of different Tissue Systems.
Answer:

Tissue System	Components	Functions
Dermal Tissue System	Epidermis and Periderm (in older stems and roots)	Protection Prevention of water loss
Ground Tissue System	Parenchyma tissue Collenchyma tissue Sclerenchyma tissue	Photosynthesis Food storage Regeneration Support Protection
Vascular Tissue System	Vascular tissues Phloem tissue Xylem tissue	Transport of water and minerals Transport of food

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) Label the parts of the Transverse section of a monocot stem.
(b) Mention the differences between Dicot and Monocot stem.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Tissues	Dicot Stem	Monocot stem
1. Hypodermis	collenchymatous	Sclerenchymatous
2. Ground tissue	Differentiated into cortex, endodermis, pericycle and pith	Undifferentiated
3. Vascular bundles	Less in number Uniform in size Arranged in a ring Open Bundle sheath absent	Numerous Smaller near periphery, bigger in the centre Scattered Closed Bundle sheath present
4. Secondary growth	Present	Mostly absent
5. Pith	Present	Absent
6. Medullary rays	Present	Absent

Question 2.
With a labelled diagram, explain the structure and function of mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondrial Membranes: It consists of two membranes called inner and outer membrane. Each membrane is 60 – 70 A° thick. The outer mitochondrial membrane is smooth and freely permeable to most small molecules. It contains enzymes, proteins and lipids. It has porin molecules (proteins) which form channels for passage of molecules through it.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is semi – permeable membrane and regulates the passage of materials into and out of the mitochondria. It is rich in enzymes and carrier proteins. It consists of 80% of proteins and lipids.

Cristae: The inner mitochondrial membrane gives rise to finger-like projections called cristae. These cristae increase the inner surface area (fold in the inner membrane) of the mitochondria to hold a variety of enzymes.

Oxysomes: The inner mitochondrial membrane bear minute regularly spaced tennis racket shaped particles known as oxysomes (F₁ particle). They involve in ATP synthesis.

Mitochondrial matrix: It is a complex mixture of proteins and lipids. The matrix contains enzymes for Krebs cycle, mitochondrial ribosomes(70 S), tRNAs and mitochondrial DNA.

Question 3.
(a) Draw and label the ultrastructure of a chloroplast.
(b) Write the structure and function of the chloroplast.
Answer:
(a) Ultra Structure of a Chloroplast.

(b) Structure and function of Chloroplast.
Chloroplasts are green plastids, containing the green pigment called Chlorophyll. It has the following structures:

1. Envelope: It has outer and inner membranes, which are separated by intermembrane space.
2. Stroma: Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma, which contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules needed for protein synthesis.
3. Thylakoids: It consists of thylakoid membrane that encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoid forms a stack of disc – like structures called granum.
4. Grana: Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs, stacked one above the other called grana. These stacks are termed as grana, they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Functions:

• Photosynthesis
• Storage of starch
• Synthesis of fatty acids
• Storage of lipids
• Formation of chloroplasts.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What are non – green plants? Give an example.
Answer:
The plants, which do not have the green pigment, Chlorophyll and so they cannot prepare their food independently are called non-green plants. Eg. Orchids lack Chlorophyll.

Question 2.
Protophloem is the first formed phloem. If the protophloem surrounds by xylem, what kind of arrangement of phloem would you call it Give example.
Answer:
If the protophloem is surrounded by xylem the vascular bundle is said to be Concentric Amphivasal Vascular bundles. Eg: Dracaena

Question 3.
How does photosynthesis take place on plants that have, red, brown and yellow leaves, and are not green? How do they prepare food?
Answer:
These leaves have a much larger concentration of chromoplasts, which synthesize and store pigments such as orange carotenes, yellow xanthophylls and other red pigments. But these leaves, still possess chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ and can synthesize food. But these leaves have more chromoplasts and so the leaves do not appear green. Yet they can prepare food.

Question 4.
The cross-section of a plant material shown the following features on viewing under the microscope.
(a) Radially arranged Vascular bundles
(b) Xylem is exarch and polyarch
(c) Metaxylem is polygonal in shape.
Identify the slide.
Answer:
The given features are characters of dicot root.

Believing that the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers learning resource will definitely guide you at the time of preparation. For more details about Tamilnadu State Board Class 12th Science Chapter 12 textbook solutions, ask us in the below comments and we’ll revert back to you asap.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.6

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Simplify


Solution:

Ex 3.6 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Simplify


Solution:

Exercise 3.6 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Subtract \(\frac{1}{x^{2}+2}\) from \(\frac{2 x^{3}+x^{2}+3}{\left(x^{2}+2\right)^{2}}\)
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 Question 4.
Which rational expression should be subtracted from \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{3}+8}\) to get \(\frac{3}{x^{2}-2 x+4}\)
Solution:

Exercise 3.6 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 5.

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 In Tamil Question 6.
If A = \(\frac{x}{x+1}\), B = \(\frac{1}{x+1}\), prove that

Solution:

10th Maths 3.6 Question 7.
Pari needs 4 hours to complete a work. His friend Yuvan needs 6 hours to complete the same work. How long will be take to complete if they work together?
Answer:
Let the work done by Pari and Yuvan together be x
Work done by part = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
Work done by Yuvan = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
By the given condition
\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \) ⇒ \(\frac { 3+2 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \)
\(\frac { 5 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \)
5x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 } \)
x = 2 \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 } \) hours (or) 2 hours 24 minutes

10th Maths Algebra Question 8.
Iniya bought 50 kg of fruits consisting of apples and bananas. She paid twice as much per kg for the apple as she did for the banana. If Iniya bought Rs. 1800 worth of apples and Rs. 600 worth bananas, then how many kgs of each fruit did she buy?
Answer:
Let the quantity of apples and bananas purchased be ‘x’ and ‘y’
By the given condition
x + y = 50 ………(1)
Cost of one kg of apple = \(\frac { 1800 }{ x } \)
Cost of one kg of banana = \(\frac { 600 }{ y } \)
By the given condition
One kg of apple = \(2 \frac{(600)}{y}\)
Total cost of fruits purchased = 1800 + 600
x × 2 \(\frac{(600)}{y}\) + y \(\frac{(600)}{y}\) = 2400
\(\frac { 1200x }{ y } \) = 2400 – 600
\(\frac { 1200x }{ y } \) = 1800
1200 x = 1800 × y
x = \(\frac { 1800x }{ 1200 } \) = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \)
Substitute the value of x in (1)
\(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) + y = 50
\(\frac { 5y }{ 2 } \) = 50
5y = 100 ⇒ y = \(\frac { 100 }{ 5 } \) = 20
x = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{3 \times 20}{2}\)
= 30
The quantity of apples = 30 kg
The quantity of bananas = 20 kg

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

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Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Climate And Natural Vegetation Of India Class 10 Question 1.
Meteorology is the science of ………
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Climate And Natural Vegetation Of India Question 2.
We wear cotton during:
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Question 3.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in ………..
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Answer Question 4.
……………. helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Dash Question 5.
…….. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

The Climate Of India Is Labelled As Question 6.
Climate of India is labelled as:
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
Answer:
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate

Question 7.
The monsoon forests are otherwise called as ………
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Mountain forest
Answer:
(b) Deciduous forest

Question 8.
……………. forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tidal forests
Answer:
(b) Alpine forests

Question 9.
Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in …….
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(b) Andhra Pradesh

Question 10.
……………. is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(a), (b) and (c)

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (c)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon.
Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Subcontinent warm. (Give option for this questions).
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer.

Question 1.
Tidal forests are found in and around:
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Desert

Question 2.
Climate of India is affected by ……
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:

1. The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere.
2. It is a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called normal lapse rate.

Question 3.
What are ‘jet streams’?
Answer:

1. ‘Jet Streams’ are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper layer of the atmosphere.
2. They play a vital role in the onset of South West monsoon and cause Tropical depressions both during South West monsoon and Retreating monsoon.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 5.
Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Answer:
On the basis of the monsoon variations, the meteorologists recognize four distinct seasons of India. They are

1. Winter or Cold weather season (January-February).
2. Summer or Hot weather season (March-May).
3. Southwest monsoon or Rainy season (June-September).
4. Northeast monsoon season (October-November).

Question 6.
What is ‘burst of monsoon’?
Answer:

1. The Southwest monsoon winds are moisture laden winds because they originate from the Indian Ocean.
2. When they approach the southern part of Kerala they give rain with violent thunderstrom including the onset of monsoon and lightening. This is known as the ‘brust of the Monsoon’.

Question 7.
Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Answer:

1. The areas that receive 200cm and above rainfall annually comes under heavy rainfall regions.
2. The Western coast, Assam, South Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
State places of mangrove forest in India.
Answer:

• The deltas of Ganga,
• The Mahanadi,
• The Krishna,
• The Godavari and
• The Kaveri is covered by mangrove forest in India.

Question 9.
Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
Answer:

1. Tropical evergreen forests are found in the areas where the annual rainfall is 200cm and more.
2. The most important trees of these forests are Ebony, Mahogany, Rubber, Rose wood, Iron wood, Cedar, Bamboo, Coconut, Cinchona and Candes.

Question 10.
Write any five biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Agasthyamalai
2. Dibru Saikhowa
3. Dihang Dibang
4. Great Nicobar
5. Gulf of Mannar
6. The Nilgiris
7. Sundarbans

Question 11.
What is ‘Project Tiger’?
Answer:

1. ‘Project Tiger” is a Project launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India:
2. This project is benefited tremendously with an increase of over 60%. The 1979 consensus put the population at 3,015.

VI. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Weather and Climate
Answer:

S.No.	Weather	Climate
1.	Weather is a day to day conditions of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.	Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
2.	It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.	To get reliable average of climate, a minimum of 35 years records of weather are necessary.

Question 2.
Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:

Question 3.
North Fast Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
Answer:

VII. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is narrowly located in between the Arabian sea coast and the Western Ghats in a gap having 50 km width only.

Question 2.
India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Answer:
India has a monsoon type of climate because it lies between the latitudes 20° N to 20° S where monsoons are experienced. In this the wind charges direction with the change in season.The monsoon winds prevail mainly in Indian Ocean. The conditions are made in such a way that the winds blows from the South-West from April to October and from opposite direction, the north-east from October to April.

Question 3.
Mountains are cooler than the plains.
Answer:
As per the Normal Lapse rate phenomena temperature decreases with increasing altitudes at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 mts of ascent. Thus mountains are cooler than the plains.

VIII. Write in detail.

Question 1.
Write about South West Monsoon.
Answer:

1. The southwest monsoon is the most significant feature of the Indian climate.
2. The onset of the southwest monsoon takes place normally over the southern tip of the country by the first week of June, advances along the Konkan coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
3. The monsoon is influenced by global phenomenon like ElNino.
4. Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in the north India reaches upto 46°C.
5. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with lightning and thunder is termed as the ‘break’ or ‘burst of monsoon’.
6. It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent.
7. The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided into two branches.
8. One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
9. The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of India as it is located in the windward side of the Western Ghats.
10. The other part which advances towards north is obstructed by Himalayan Mountains and results in heavy rainfall in north.
11. As Aravalli Mountain is located parallel to the wind direction, Rajasthan and western part do not get much rainfall from this branch.
12. The wind from Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar.
13. This wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely Garo, Khasi and Jaintia are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at Mawsynram located in Meghalaya.
14. Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in decrease in rainfall from east to west.
15. Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon.
16. Tamilnadu which is located in the leeward side receives only a meagre rainfall.

Question 2.
Describe the forests of India.
Answer:
On the basis of climate , soil and land forms the natural vegetation of India

is divided into the following types:

Tropical Evergreen Forest:

1. These forests are found in areas with 200cm or more annual rainfall.
2. Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala , Andaman & Nicobar islands Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur and Meghalaya states have this type of forests.
3. Important trees: Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Cedar etc not fully exploited due to dense foliage and lack of transport.

Tropical Deciduous Forest or Monsoon Forest:

1. They are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall.
2. Areas: Region from Punjab, Assam, Great Plains, Punjab Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Central India, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh . In South India, Andhra Pradesh Telangana, Karnataka, TamilNadu and Kerala.
3. Important Trees: Teak, Sal, Bamboo, Sandal wood, Rose wood, Padauk etc. shed their leaves during spring and early summer. These forests are economically valuable as they provide timber wood and essential raw materials for industries.

Tropical Dry forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas with 50 to 100 cm rainfall.
2. These are found in East Rajasthan, western Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, West Karnataka and East TamilNadu.
3. Important trees: Bamboo, Kirkar, Khair, Babool.

Desert and Semi desert Vegetation:

1. They are also called Tropical thorn forests.
2. These are found in areas of less than 50cm annual rainfall.
3. They are found in the states of North west India., West Rajasthan, South west Haryana, North Gujarat and dry parts of Deccan plateau.
4. Babul, Khair and wild palms are common trees.

Mountain or Himalayan forests:
These forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of rainfall.

(a) Eastern Himalayan forests:

• These are found on the slopes of mountains in north east states.
• As they receive more than 200 cm rainfall the vegetation is of evergreen type.
• In the altitude between I200-2400m main trees like Sal, Oak, Laurel, Cinnamon, Chestnut are seen.
• From 2400 – 3600m altitude – Oak, Silver fir, pine, Spruce and Juniper are the major trees.

(b) Western Himalayan Forest:

• The rainfall of this region is moderate.
• These forests are found in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarkhand.
• Up to 900m altitude semi desert vegetation.
• From 900 m to 1800 m chirtree.
• From 1800m to 3000m altitude covered with semi temperatem coniferous forest.
• Deodar, Poplar and birch are the main trees.

Alpine Forests:

1. It occurs all along the Himalayas above 2400 m altitude.
2. These forest have mainly coniferous trees. Oak, Silver fir, Pine and Juniper are the main trees.

Tidal Forest:

1. These forests are also known as Mangrove forests.
2. These forests are found in and around the deltas estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influence.
3. They are Swampy in nature.
4. The delta of Ganga – Brahmaputra, Deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna have this type of forests.

Coastal forests:

1. These are littoral forests generally found in coastal areas.
2. Casuarina, Palm and Coconut are the main trees.
3. The Eastern and Western coasts especially Kerala and Goa coasts are known for these forests.

Riverine Forests:

1. These forests are found along the rivers on Khader areas.
2. The riverines of Great plains have this type of vegetation.
3. These forests are known for tamarisk and tamarind trees.

Question 3.
Write the names of biosphere reserves and their location in India.
Answer:
Biosphere reserves are protected areas of land coastal environments wherein people are an integral component of the system.

IX. Map.

Mark the following in the outline map of India
1. Direction of South West Monsoon wind
2. Direction of North East Monsoon wind
3. Areas of heavy rainfall
4. Mountain forests
5. Panna biosphere reserve
6. Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
Map is given on the next page

In-Text Hots Questions:

Question 1.
Why is Mawsynram, the wettest place in the world.
Answer:
Mawsynram is the wettest place in the world because climate with an extraordinary showers and long monsoonal season and a short dry season.

Find Out:

Question 1.
Find out the temperature of Ooty (2240 m) if it is 35°C in Chennai (6.7 m).
Answer:
Due to the presence of trees and abundant flora, Ooty never experiences a hot day even in the peak of summer. Ooty’s weather is characterised by abundant sunshine, rains, chill and fresh air ushered by the spring season.

The temperature of Ooty is 22°C when the temperature of Chennai is 35°C.

Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The place that get rainfall from the western disturbance is
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
Answer:
(a) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Western Disturbances causes snowfall in:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Punjab
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 3.
The Coastal areas enjoy climate.
(a) Continental
(b) Equable
(c) humid
Answer:
(b) Equable

Question 4.
The average rainfall of India is about:
(a) 118 cm
(b) 300 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 400 cm
Answer:
(a) 118 cm

Question 5.
The Predominant soil in the coastal plains and north Indian Plains is ………..
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Arid
Answer:
(a) Alluvial

Question 6.
……………. trees are the most prominent of the Alpine forest.
(a) Mangrove
(b) Coniferous
(c) Coconut
(d) Teak
Answer:
(b) Coniferous

Question 7.
Thunderstorms are called Kalbaisakhis in ……….
(a) Chennai
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 8.
These forests are found along the rivers on Khadar areas:
(a) Coastal
(b) Evergreen
(c) Riverine
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(c) Riverine

Question 9.
Frequent cyclones are formed in the ………
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 10.
Cold desert Biosphere Reserve is in:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Himachal Pradesh

Question 11.
The variation on …….. elements give rise to variety of vegetation.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) monsoon
Answer:
(a) climate

Question 12.
…………….. is net a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(d) Kachch

Question 13.
In the coastal areas ……… plateau act as a barrier.
(a) Malwa
(b) Deccan
(c) Shillong
Answer:
(c) Shillong

Question 14.
Chennai enjoys ……. climate.
(a) equable
(b) continental
(c) moderate
Answer:
(a) equable

Question 15.
Continental climate is experienced by ………..
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkatta
Answer:
(b) Delhi

Question 16.
The south-east trade winds originate in the ……..
(a) land
(b) ocean
(c) river bed
Answer:
(b) ocean

Question 17.
In the upper layers of the troposphere ……… are found.
(a) Jet streams
(b) hot streams
(c) Wet streams
Answer:
(a) Jet streams

Question 18.
The unifying factor of the climate of India is …….. winds.
(a) westerly
(b) northern
(c) monsoon
Answer:
(c) monsoon

Question 19.
Retreating monsoon winds flow from ………….
(a) land to sea
(b) Sea to land
(c) over land
Answer:
(a) land to sea

Question 20.
Kalbaisakhi are the thunder storms caused in ……..
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 21.
Southwest monsoon get deflected when they cross the ………
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) equator
(c) Artie circle
Answer:
(b) equator

Question 22.
The Arabian sea branch of monsoon wind first strikes against the …………
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Deccan plateau
(c) Western Ghats
Answer:
(c) Western Ghats

Question 23.
The amount of rainfall received by ………. is 100 to 200 cm of rainfall.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) punjab
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh

Question 24.
The Old alluvium is called ……….
(a) Bhangar
(b) Khader
(c) Regur soil
Answer:
(a) Bhangar

Question 25.
The red soil is …….. of moisture.
(a) retentive
(b) high retentive
(c) non-retentive
Answer:
(c) non-retentive

Question 26.
The ……… soil is rich in humus and organic matter.
(a) Arid & Desert
(b) Laterite
(c) forest & mountain
Answer:
(c) forest & mountain

Question 27.
Palmyra is found in ………. forests.
(a) Tropical Evergreen
(b) Thorn and Scrub
(c) Tropical Deciduous Monsoon
Answer:
(b) Thorn and Scrub

Question 28.
In Tamil Nadu ………… forests are found in Vedaranyam.
(a) Thom & Scrub
(b) Tropical Evergreen
(c) Mangrove
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 29.
Shrub vegetation is found in ……….
(a) Himadri
(b) Shiwalik Range
(c) Himachal
Answer:
(a) Himadri

Question 30.
Gir National Park is found in ………
(a) Gujarat
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttaranchal
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. The cold polar winds from Central Asia is prevented by the ………..
2. The low pressure depressions originate over the Mediterranean sea is called ……….
3. Thunder showers in Kerala during May are called ………….
4. The occurrence of sudden rainfall with violent thunder and lightening is termed as ………..
5. The crop that grow well in black soil is ………..
6. The mighty ……… in the north play a vital role in influencing the climate of India.
7. The Himalayas act not only as physical barrier but also as ………
8. The diversion of the monsoon winds are responsible for ……. rainfall over the entire coastal area.
9. Since the northern plains are far away from the influence of the seas, they have ……….
10. The pressure belts and the wind systems follow the apparent movements of the ……….
11. The Velocity of winds depends upon the ……….. gradient.
12. The South-east trade wind blow from over ……… land in summer.
13. Jet streams cause rainfall in ……… India.
14. Mausim is an ………. word.
15. Mausim means ……… winds.
16. During the winter, the sun is overhead in the Tropic of ………
17. Tamil Nadu gets its winter rainfall from the …….. winds.
18. The snowfall in the hills of Jammu and Kashmir is caused by the ………..
19. The resins caused by the Western disturbances is useful for the cultivation of ………..
20. In Summer season, the Sun’s rays are vertical over ………
21. Equable climate is also called as the ……….
22. Mawsynram receives highest rainfall ……. in the world.
23. Project Tiger was launched in ……….
24. India has more than ……… of animal species.
25. India has a rich and diversified ……….
26. The Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL) was constituted in …………
27. Wet forest of Assam is the natural habitat of …………
28. ……….. is the only habitat remaining for Lion.
29 ……… and …….. Island has the minimum area under forest cover.
30. The species of animals are referred to as ……..
Answers:
1. Himalayas
2. Western disturbances
3. Mango showers
4. Monsoon Burst
5. Wheat
6. Himalayas
7. climatic
8. orographic
9. continental
10. Sun
11. pressure
12. hot
13. North-west
14. Arabic
15. reversal
16. capricorn
17. retreating monsoon
18. Western Disturbance
19. wheat
20. Tropic of cancer
21. British climate
22. 1141 cm
23. April 1973
24. 89,000
25. wildlife
26. 1952
27. elephant
28. Gir forest
29. Andaman, Nicobar
30. fauna

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
Which place has the lowest recorded temperature in India?
Answer:
Drass in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
Which part of India experiences the highest range of temperature in a day?
Answer:
Desert of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Where is monsoon experienced mainly?
Answer:
Monsoon are experienced mainly in 20° N to 20° S latitude.

Question 4.
What is meant by EL Nino?
Answer:
EL Nino is a Spanish word meaning ‘the child’ and refers to the baby christ.

Question 5.
When does winter season occur in India?
Answer:
The cold weather season begins from mid November in northern India and stay till February.

Question 6.
Which winds prevail during winter season?
Answer:
The north-east trade winds prevail over the country during winter season.

Question 7.
What is the duration of retreating monsoon in India?
Answer:
October – November

Question 8.
What are the effects of tropical cyclones?
Answer:
The effect of tropical cyclones is that it is often very destructive and cause great damage to life and properly.

Question 9.
Which are the regions that receive heavy rainfall and flood prone in India?
Answer:
The Western Coast and North-Eastern India

Question 10.
Which regions of India still has natural vegetation in real sense?
Answer:
In accessible regions of Himalayas, Hilly regions of Central India, Marusthali.

Question 11.
What kind of Vegetation is supported by the sandy soil of the desert?
Answer:
Cactus or thorny busters.

Question 12.
What does the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude in Himalayas result in?
Answer:
Succession of natural vegetation belt.

Question 13.
Name the most widespread forest of India.
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forest.

Question 14.
To what height does the trees of evergreen forests achieve?
Answer:
The trees reach great height up to 60 metres or even above.

Question 15.
Which important endangered animal is found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal?
Answer:
The one-horned rhinoceros are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal.

Question 16.
Name the important trees of Alpine Vegetation.
Answer:
Silver for, junipers, pines and birches.

Question 17.
Name two evergreen broad leaf trees.
Answer:
Oaks and Chestnut.

Question 18.
The undulating and rough terrains are areas of which kind of natural vegetation.
Answer:
Grassland and Woodland.

Question 19.
What is the important characteristic features of dense mangrove forest?
Answer:
In mangrove trees, roots of the plants are submerged under water.

Question 20.
Name the important varieties of trees found in Mangrove forests.
Answer:
In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber. Palm, coconut, keora, agar, abo grow in some parts of the delta.

Question 21.
How are Tropical Deciduous forests divided on the basis of availability of water?
Answer:

• They are divided into two types: Moist and dry deciduous forests.

Question 22.
To which type of vegetation does rubber belong to?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests

Question 23.
What is the natural habitat of elephant?
Answer:
Wet forest of Assam.

Question 24.
What is the natural habitat for wild ass and camels?
Answer:
Arid area of Rann of Kutch and the Thar desert.

Question 25.
Name the biosphere reserves of India which is included in the world network of bio reserve?
Answer:
Sundarbans, Nilgiris, Gulf of Manner, Nanda Devi.

Question 26.
Which biosphere reserve is located at the trijunction of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Nilgiris

Question 27.
Which are the most majestic animals among the mammals? Where are they found?
Answer:
Elephants. They are found in the hot wet forests of Assam, Karnataka and Kerala.

Question 28.
When was Wildlife Protection Act implemented?
Answer:
Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in 1972 in India.

Question 29.
Where are tigers mostly found in India?
Answer:
Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region.

Question 30.
Name the migrating birds that come to India during winter.
Answer:
Siberian Crane and Flamingo.

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
What is the weather?
Answer:
Weather refers to the state of atmosphere of a place at a given point of time.

Question 2.
Name the factors determining the climate of India.
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from the seas
4. Monsoon winds
5. Position of Mountains; and
6. Jet Streams

Question 3.
Write a note on Norwesters:
Answer:

1. Northwestern or Kalbaisakhis are the local severe storms or violent thunderstorms with strong winds and rain lasting for short durations.
2. It occurs over the eastern and Northeastern parts of Bihar, West Bengal ‘ and Assam during April and May.

Question 4.
What is the effect of latitude on the climate of India?
Answer:

• The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country.
• Almost half of the country lying south of the Tropic of cancer, belongs to the tropical area and areas of north of the Tropic lies in the sub-tropics.

Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates.

Question 5.
How do western disturbances helpful to agriculture?
Answer:
Western disturbances occur during cold weather season. These winds cause rainfall in Punjab-Haryana and Himachal Pradesh and is very useful for the cultivation of winter wheat.

Question 6.
How do the north east trade winds of India get reversed into south west monsoon winds?
Answer:

• By early June, the low pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies It attracts the trade winds of the southern hemisphere.
• These south-east trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans.
• They cross the equator and blow in a southwesterly direction entering the Indian Peninsular as the south west monsoon.

Question 7.
Write a note on the uneven distribution of rainfall in India.
Answer:

1. The distribution of rainfall in India is highly uneven.
2. About 11% area receives over 200 cm of annual, rainfall, 21% area receives 125-200 cm. 37% area receives 75-125 cm, 24% area gets 35 to 75 cm and 7% area gets less than 35 cm.

Question 8.
What are the steps taken by government to protect flora and fauna?
Answer:

• Financial and technical assistance to Botanical Garden.
• Eco development projects have been introduced.
• National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Biosphere reserves have been set up.

Question 9.
What were the objectives of Wild life (protection) Act of 1972?
Answer:
The Government of India enacted wild life protection Act in 1972.
The objectives of this Act.

1. Protecting the wild life of the country.
2. To control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wild life and its diversities.

Question 10.
Describe about Norwesters.
Answer:
When the winds blow from south-west to north-east directions in Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal, they cause local storms called “Norwesters” in the north eastern part of India during the summer season. Thus thunder storms are also called Kalbaisakhi (of the month of Baisakh) in Punjab.

Question 11.
Name the state animal of Tamil Nadu. Why its population is continuously decreasing?
Answer:

1. The Nilgiri Tahr is the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
2. In the Western Ghats continuous poaching and Eucalyptus cultivation hamper its habitat causing its depletion.

Question 12.
Name the biosphere reserve that have been included in the world network of biosphere reserve.
Answer:

1. The Sundarbans in the West Bengal
2. Nanda Devi in Uttarkhand
3. The Gulf of Manner in Tamil Nadu
4. The Nilgiris (Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu)

Question 13.
Name some Bird sanctuaries in India.
Answer:
Pulicat, Vedanthangal, Point Calimer-TamilNadu.
Chilka lake – Odhisha
Bharathpur – Rajasthan
Ranganthittu – Karnataka.

Question 14.
Describe the climatic conditions of Tropical Deciduous forests.
Answer:
Climate of tropical deciduous forests is influenced by the monsoons. These forests are found in regions receiving them. Forests shed their leaves for 6 – 8 weeks in dry summer, to conserve moisture.

Question 15.
Where are migrating birds found in India?
Answer:
During winter, birds auch as Siberian cranes come in large numbers. One such place favourable with birds is the Rann of Kutch. At a place where the desert merges with the sea, flamingo with their brilliant pink plumage come in thousands to build nest mounds from the salty mud and raise their young ones.

Question 16.
What are the main causes that have created major threat to the natural environment?
Answer:

• Hunting by greedy hunters for commercial purposes.
• Pollution due to chemical and industrial waste.
• Acid deposits.
• Introduction of alien species
• reckless cutting of the forests to bring land under cultivation and inhabitation, are also responsible for the imbalance.

Question 17.
Give the importance of biodiversity.
Answer:

• Crops are being selected from a biodiverse environment, i.e., from the reserve of edible plants.
• Many medicinal plants are being experimented and selected
• The animal were selected from large stock provided by nature as milch animal.

Question 18.
How are forests useful to us? Give examples.
Answer:
Forests provide to man food, fibre, fodder, timber, fuel, wood and act as a host of other essential items.

• It provides raw materials to industry and transport.
• Forest is a renewable resource and is widely used as domestic fuel in third world countries.
• Forest also influences the environment by modifying local climate, controlling soil erosion and deposits humans in the soil regulating stream flows.
• Minor forest products provide livelihood to many forests dwellers. Besides, forest is the home of various wild animals and birds. It offers recreation to man and also boosts the tourism industry.

Question 19.
How can we save our ecosystem and preserve it?
Answer:

• Checking growth of population otherwise population explosion will result in imbalance.
• Checking the land pollution and air pollution.
• Waste from houses and industries should be treated properly.
• Avoiding deforestation indiscriminately.

Question 20.
Describe the need for the conservation of natural resources.
Answer:
If we go on exploiting the natural resources, there will be no more resources available in future. So, there is an urgent needs to conserve the nature.

Some of the needs are,

• To maintain ecological balance for supporting life.
• To preserve different kinds of species (biodiversity)
• To make the resources available for present and future generation.
• To ensure the survival of human race.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account on ” Wildlife” in India.
Answer:

1. The term wildlife includes animals of any habitat in nature.
2. India has a rich and diversified wildlife.
3. The India fauna consists of about 81,251 species of animals out of the world’s total of about 1.5 million species.
4. The faunal diversity of the country consists of about 6500 invertebrates, 5000 molluses, 2546 fishes, 1228 birds, 458 mammals, 446 reptiles, 204 amphibians, 4 Panthers and about 60,000 species of insects.
5. Our country is the home to tigers, leopards, snow leopards, pythons, foxes, crocodiles, rhinoceroses, camels, monkeys, elephants, antelopes, deer, bison etc.
6. At present situation deforestation and other anthropogenic interferences in the natural habitats have caused extinction of some species and many are facing the danger of extinction.
7. Wild life maintain ecological balance, so, conservation and management of biodiversity of India is necessary.

Question 2.
Mention any five facts that are important to understand the mechanism of the monsoon.
Answer:
To understand the mechanism of the monsoons the following facts are important.

1. The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
2. The shift of the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial through normally positioned about 5° N of the equator also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.
3. The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20° S over the high-pressure area affects the Indian monsoon.
4. The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
5. The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.

Question 3.
Describe the commonly used medicinal plants in India.
Answer:

1. Sarpagandha: Used to treat blood pressure is found only in India.
2. Jamun: The juice from ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic and has digestive properties. The powder of the seed is used for controlling diabetes.
3. Arjun: The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
4. Babool: Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
5. Neem: has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties.
6. Tulsi Plant: Used to cure cough and cold.

Question 4.
What are the major important steps taken by the government to protect flora and fauna of the country?
Answer:

1. Now 18 biosphere reserves have been set up in the country to protect flora and fauna. Four out of these, the Sunderbans in the west Bengal, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, the Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu and the been included in the world network of biosphere reserves.
2. Financial and technical assistance is provided to many Botanical Gardens by the government since 1992.
3. Project Tiger, Proj ect Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many other ecodevelopmental project have been introduced.
4. Over 102 national parks, 514 wildlife sanctuaries and zoological gardens are set up to take care of natural heritage.
5. The killing of Wildlife has been banned by the government special forest officers have been appointed to catch greedy hunters.
6. Periodic census is being taken to find out the latest position of some rare species so that they can be preserved for our future generations.

Question 5.
Write the importance of forests.
Answer:

• Forests provides valuable timber for domestic and commercial use. They supply new
  materials for industries.
• It supplies a number of products such as Lac, Gum, Resins, Tanning materials, medicines, Herbs, Honey and spices.
• Export of forest products earns valuable foreign exchange.
• Grazing cattle in the forests helps in dairy farming.
• Many forest reserves have been developed into tourist centres.
• Forests absorb atmospheric carbon-dioxides and help in controlling air pollution.
• They help in water percolation and thus maintain underground water table.
• They provide natural habitats to primitive tribes animals and birds.
• They are the moderators of climate and affect temperature, humidity and rainfall.
• Forests meet nearly 40% of the energy needs of the country.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2.2 அழியாச் செல்வம்

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
ஒருவர் தம் குழந்தைகளுக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்க வேண்டிய செல்வம்
அ) வீடு
ஆ) கல்வி
இ) பொருள்
ஈ) அணிகலன்
Answer:
ஆ) கல்வி

Question 2.
கல்வியைப் போல் , ……………….. செல்லாத செல்வம் வேறில்லை .
அ) விலையில்லாத
ஆ) கேடில்லாத
இ) உயர்வில்லாத
ஈ) தவறில்லாத
Answer:
ஆ) கேடில்லாத

Question 3.
‘வாய்த்தியின்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………………..
அ) வாய்த்து + ஈயீன்
ஆ) வாய் + தீயின்
இ) வாய்த்து + தீயின்
ஈ) வாய் + ஈயீன்
Answer:
ஆ) வாய் + தீயின்

Question 4.
கேடில்லை’ என்னும் கொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ……..
அ) கேடி + இல்லை
ஆ) கே + இல்லை
இ) கேள்வி + இல்லை
ஈ) கேடு + இல்லை
Answer:
ஈ) கேடு = இல்லை

Question 5.
எவன் + ஒருவன் என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் …………..
அ) எவன் ஒருவன்
ஆ) எவன்னொருவன்
இ) எவனொருவன்
ஈ) ஏன்னொருவன்
Answer:
இ) எவனொருவன்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
கல்விச் செல்வத்தின் இயல்புகளாக நாலடியார் கூறும் செய்திகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
கல்வியைப் பொருள் போல் வைத்திருப்பினும் அது பிறரால் கொள்ளப்படாது. ஒருவற்கு வாய்க்கும் படி கொடுத்தாலும் குறைவுபடாது : மிக்கச் சிறப்பினை உடைய அரசராலும் கவா முடியாது போன்ற இயல்புகளைக் கொண்டது.

சிறுவினா

கல்விச் செல்வம் குறித்து நாலடியார் கூறும் கருத்துகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• கல்வியைப் பொருள் போல் வைத்திருப்பினும் அது பிறரால் கொள்ளப்படாது. ஒருவற்கு வாய்க்கும்படி கொடுத்தாலும் குறைவுபடாது. மிக்கச் சிறப்பினை உடைய அரசராலும் கவர முடியாது.
• ஆதலால் ஒருவர் தம் குழந்தைகளுக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்க வேண்டிய செல்வம் கல்வியே ஆகும்.
• மற்றவை செல்வம் ஆகாது என்பன நாலடியார் கூறும் கருத்துகளாகும்.

சிந்தனை வினா

கல்விச் செல்வம் அழியாதக் செல்வம் எனப்படுவது ஏன்? சிந்தித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
i) ஒரு மனிதன் தம்முடன் அனைத்துச் செல்வங்களையும் வைத்திருந்தாலும் அவனுக்கு கல்வியில்லையேல் அனைத்துச் செல்வங்களும் அழிந்து விடும். ஆனால் அழியாத ஒரு செல்வம் கல்விச் செல்வம் மட்டுமே

(ii) கற்றவன் எந்த இடத்திற்குச் சென்றாலும் அவன் பிற சமூகத்தால் மதிக்கப்படுகின்றான். இதற்குக் காரணம் அவன் கற்ற கல்வியே. கற்றவனுக்கு தனது நாடும் ஊருமே அல்லாமல் எந்த நாடும் ஊரும் தன்னுடைய ஊராகும்.

(iii) கல்வி, தொழிலுக்கு வழிகாட்டுகிறது. கல்வி என்பது வாழ்க்கை வாழ்வதற்காக உதவும் கருவியாகும். அறிவியலும் சமூகமும் வாழ்நாள் முழுவதும் தொடரும் கருவியாகும். கல்வி கற்றவரிடம் ஒழுக்கம், பண்பு, நேர்மை, நீதி இவைகள் அனைத்தும் ஒருங்கே அமைந்து காணப்படும். எனவே கல்வியானது ஒரு மனிதனின் முக்கியத் தேவையாக இருக்கிறது. எந்தவொரு சமூகமும் கல்வி இல்லாமல் இவ்வுலகில்லை.

(iv) கல்வி கற்றவன் ஒழுக்கமாகவும், திறமையாகவும், அறிவாளியாகவும் சமுதாயத்தால் மதிக்கப்படுவனாக இருப்பான். எனவே என்றுமே அழியாத செல்வம் கல்வி மட்டுமே.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
கல்வியின் சிறப்பை விளக்கும் பிற பாடல்களைத் திரட்டி எழுதுக.
Answer:

• வேற்றுமை தெரிந்து நாற்பாலுள்ளும் – கீழ்ப்பால்
  ஒருவன் கற்பின் மேற்பாலொருவனும் அவன்கட் படுமே. ………….- புறநானூறு )
• கடைநிலத்திற் பிறந்தவர் எனினும்
  கற்றறிந்தவரைத் தலைநிலத்து வைப்பர். ………………………………- நாலடியார்
• கற்றோர்க்குக் கல்வி நலனே கலன் அல்லால்
  மற்றோர் அணிகலம் வேண்டாவாம்: …………………….- நீதிநெறி விளக்கம்
• நெஞ்சத்து நல்லம் யாம் என்னும்
  கல்வியழகே அழகு : …………………….- நாலடியார்
• கற்கக் கசடறக் கற்பவை கற்றபின்
  நிற்க அதற்குத் தக. …………….- திருக்குறள்

Question 2.
கல்வியின் சிறப்பை விளக்கும் கதை ஒன்றனை அறிந்து வந்து வகுப்பறையில் கூறுக.
Answer:
கல்வி தந்த உயர்வு : சிறுவர் கல்வி சிறுகதைகள்
ஒரு குக்கிராமத்தில் அன்னம்மாள் என்னும் பெண்மணி வாழ்ந்து வந்தாள். அப்பெண்மணி ஓர் அந்தணனின் மனைவி : அன்னம்மாளின் நல்வினைப் பயனால், அவளுக்கு முதலில் ஓர் ஆண் குழந்தை பிறந்தது. பெற்றோர் அக்குழந்தைக்கு, கபிலன் – என்னும் பெயர் சூட்டி, அருமைமிகு வளர்ந்து வந்தனர். அதன் பின்னர் பிறந்த ஓர் ஆண் குழந்தைக்குக் கோவிந்தா என்னும் பெயரையும், பெண் குழந்தைக்குக் அம்பிகை என்னும் ! பெயரையும் சூட்டி மகிழ்ந்தாள்.

கபிலன், கோவிந்தா, அம்பிகை ஆகிய மூவரும் சிறுவர்களாக இருந்தபோதே, அவர்களுடைய பெற்றோர் இறந்து விட்டனர்: தாய்ப் பறவையை இழந்த, சிறகு முளைக்காத குஞ்சுகள் போலப் பிள்ளைகள் மூவரும் அல்லலுற்றனர்.

அவர்களுக்கு உண்ண உணவில்லை உடுத்த உடை இல்லை : அவர்கள் மிகவும் வறுமையில் வாடினர். உடன்பிறந்தாரைப் பாதுகாக்கும் பொறுப்பு கபிலனுக்கு உரியதாயிற்று. அவன் என்ன செய்வான் பாவம் !
கபிலன் வீடுதோறும் சென்று பிச்சை வாங்கி வந்து; தம்முடன் பிறந்தவர்களுக்குக் கொடுத்து, தாமும் உண்டு ஒருவாறு காலத்தைக் கழித்து வந்தான். கபிலன் பிச்சை வாங்க செல்லும் போது, அவனது உள்ளம் உருகும்; உடல் நடுங்கும், மென்மையான முகத்தில் துன்பம் தோன்றும் கண்களில் நீர் நிறைந்து வழியும் பிச்சை இடாதவரின் கடுஞ்சொல்லும் சுடுமுகமும், அவனது துன்பத்தை மேலும் மேலும் வளர்த்த வண்ணம் இருந்தன.

அந்நிலையில், கபிலனின் பிஞ்சு உள்ளத்தில் ஓர் எண்ணம் தோன்றி; அவனை மிகவும் வருத்திக் கொண்டிருந்தது. “எப்படியாவது நாம் படித்துவிட்டால் இத்தொழிலை விட்டு விடலாம்!” என்று நினைத்தான்.

அந்த வருத்தத்தினிடையே கபிலன், ”படித்தேயாக வேண்டும்’ என்னும் முடிவைக் கொண்டான். உடனே அந்த ஊரில் இருந்த ஆசிரியரை அடைந்து, வணங்கி நின்று, “ஐயா! படிக்க வேண்டும் என்னும் விருப்பம் உண்டாகிறது. நான் எடுப்பதோ பிச்சை, உடுப்பதோ கந்தல் ஆடை நீங்கள் அருள்கூர்ந்து அடியேனுக்குக் கல்விச் செல்வத்தைக் கொடுங்கள். உங்கள் பிள்ளைகளில் அடியேனும் ஒருவன்!” என்று கூறினான்.

அதைக் கேட்ட ஆசிரியர், தம் கையில் இருந்த பிரம்பைக் கீழே வைத்தார்; சிறுவனாகிய கபிலனை நோக்கினார். “சிறுவனே! உன் குறிக்கோள் மிகவும் உயர்ந்தது. அது எல்லாருடைய உள்ளத்திலும் உண்டாகிற அழுக்கில்லாத ஆசை. இங்குக் கிடக்கும் பனையோலைகளே உனக்குப் பெருவாழ்வளிக்கும் பொன்னேடுகள். இப்பனையோலையில் எழுதி தருகிறேன். நீ படித்துக்கொள்!” என்று கூறினார். கபிலனின் உள்ளம் குளிர்ந்தது; முகம் மலர்ந்தது.

அன்றே கபிலன் படிக்கத் தொடங்கினான். “இன்ன நேரத்தில் இன்ன வேலை செய்ய வேண்டும்” என்று ஒரு திட்டம் வகுத்துக் கொண்டான்; முறைப்படி கடமை புரிந்தான். கபிலன் தெலுங்கில் ஓரளவு அறிவு பெற்ற பின், வடமொழியையும் பயின்றான்.

Question 3.
பின்வரும் பாடலைப் படித்து மகிழ்க.
Answer:
வெள்ளத்தால் அழியாது வெந்தணலால்
வேகாது வேந்த ராலும்
கொள்ளத்தான் முடியாது கொடுத்தாலும்
நிறைவன்றிக் குறைவு றாது
கள்ளர்க்கோ பயமில்லை காவலுக்கு
மிக எளிது கல்வி யென்னும்
உள்ளபொருள் உள்ளிருக்கப் புறத்தேயோர்
பொருள்தேடி உழல்கின் றீரே. -தனிப்பாடல் திரட்டு

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சொல்லும் பொருளும் :

1. வைப்புழி – பொருள் சேமித்து வைக்கும் இடம்
2. கோட்படா – ஒருவரால் கொள்ளப்படாது
3. வாய்த்து ஈயில் – வாய்க்கும்படி கொடுத்தலும்
4. விச்சை – கல்வி

நிரப்புக.

Question 1.
வைப்புழி என்பதன் பொருள் …………
Answer:
பொருள் சேமித்து வைக்கும் இடம்

Question 2.
விச்சை என்பதன் பொருள் ….
Answer:
கல்வி

Question 3.
…………….. சமண முனிவர்கள் பலரால் எழுதப்பட்ட நூலாகும்.
Answer:
நாலடியார்

பாடலின் பொருள்

கல்வியைப் பொருள் போல வைத்திருப்பினும் அது பிறரால் கொள்ளப்படாது. ஒருவற்கு வாய்க்கும்படி கொடுத்தாலும் குறைவுபடாது. மிக்க சிறப்பினை உடைய அரசராலும் கவர முடியாது. ஆதலால் ஒருவர் தம் குழந்தைகளுக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்க வேண்டிய செல்வம் கல்வியே ஆகும். மற்றவை செல்வம் ஆகாது.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement TextBook Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Multiple Choice Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Chapter 1 Question 1.
One of the combinations from the fundamental physical constants is \(\frac{h c}{\mathrm{G}}\). The unit of this expression is
(a) Kg²
(b) m³
(c) S^-1
(d) m
Answer:
(a) Kg²

Nature Of Physical World And Measurement Question 2.
If the error in the measurement of radius is 2%, then the error in the determination of volume of the sphere will be …….
(a) 8%
(b) 2%
(c) 4%
(d) 6%
Answer:
(d) 6%

Nature Of Physical World And Measurement Questions And Answers Question 3.
If the length and time period of an oscillating pendulum have errors of 1 % and 3% respectively
then the error in measurement of acceleration due to gravity is …… [Related to AMPMT 2008]
(a) 4%
(b) 5%
(c) 6%
(d) 7%
Answer:
(d) 7%

11th Physics Nature Of Physical World And Measurement Question 4.
The length of a body is measured as 3.51 m, if the accuracy is 0.01mm, then the percentage error in the measurement is ……
(a) 351%
(b) 1%
(c) 0.28%
(d) 0.035%
Answer:
(c) 0.28%

Nature Of Physical World And Measurement Class 11 Question 5.
Which of the following has the highest number of significant figures?
(a) 0.007 m²
(b) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(c) 0.0006032 m²
(d) 6.3200 J
Answer:
(d) 6.3200 J

Nature Of Physical World And Measurement Class 11 Notes Question 6.
If π = 3.14, then the value of π² is …..
(a) 9.8596
(b) 9.860
(c) 9.86
(d) 9.9
Answer:
(c) 9.86

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Physics Question 7.
Which of the following pairs of physical quantities have same dimension?
(a) force and power
(b) torque and energy
(c) torque and power
(d) force and torque
Answer:
(b) torque and energy

11th Physics Unit 1 Question 8.
The dimensional formula of Planck’s constant h is [AMU, Main, JEE, NEET]
(a) [ML²T^-1]
(b) [ML²T^-3]
(c) [MLTT^-1]
(d) [MLTT^3-3]
Answer:
(a) [ML²T^-1]

Physics Class 11 Chapter 1 Question 9.
The velocity of a particle v at an instant t is given by v = at + bt². The dimensions of b is ……
(a) [L]
(b) [LT^-1]
(c) [LT^-2]
(d) [LT^-3]
Answer:
(d) [LT^-3]

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 11th Physics Question 10.
The dimensional formula for gravitational constant G is [Related to AIPMT 2004]
(a) [ML^-3T^-2]
(b) [M^-1L³T^-2]
(c) [M^-1L^-3T^-2]
(d) [ML^-3T²]
Answer:
(b) [M^-1L³T^-2]

Nature Of Physical World And Measurement In Tamil Question 11.
The density of a material in CGS system of units is 4 g cm^-3. In a system of units in which unit of length is 10 cm and unit of mass is 100 g, then the value of density of material will be ……
(a) 0.04
(b) 0.4
(c) 40
(d) 400
Answer:
(c) 40

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Question 12.
If the force is proportional to square of velocity, then the dimension of proportionality constant
is [JEE-2000] ……
(a) [MLT⁰]
(b) [MLT^-1]
(c) [ML^-2T]
(d) [ML^-1T⁰]
Answer:
(d) [ML^-1T⁰]

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Solution Book Question 13.
[MainAIPMT2011]
(a) length
(b) time
(c) velocity
(d) force
Answer:
(c) velocity

11 Th Physics Samacheer Kalvi Guide Question 14.
Planck’s constant (h), speed of light in vaccum (c) and Newton’s gravitational constant (G) are taken as three fundamental constants. Which of the following combinations of these has the dimension of length? [NEET 2016 (Phase II)]

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Guide Question 15.
A length-scale (l) depends on the permittivity (ε) of a dielectric material, Boltzmann constant (k_B), the absolute temperature (T), the number per unit volume (n) of certain charged particles, and the charge (q) carried by each of the particles. Which of the following expression for l is dimensionally correct?. [JEE (advanced) 2016]

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Short Answer Questions

11th Physics Chapter 1 Numerical Problems Question 1.
Briefly explain the types of physical quantities.
Answer:
Physical quantities are classified into two types. There are fundamental and derived quantities. Fundamental or base quantities are quantities which cannot be expressed in terms of any other physical quantities. These are length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminous intensity and amount of substance.
Quantities that can be expressed in terms of fundamental quantities are called derived quantities. For example, area, volume, velocity, acceleration, force.

11th Physics Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
How will you measure the diameter of the Moon using parallax method?
Answer:
Let θ is the angular diameter of moon
d – is the distance of moon from earth, from figure, θ = \(\frac{\mathrm{D}}{d}\)

Diameter of moon D = d.θ
by knowing θ, d, diameter of moon can be calculated

Samacheer Kalvi Physics 11th Question 3.
Write the rules for determining significant figures.
Answer:
Rules for counting significant figures:

Note: 1 Multiplying or dividing factors, which are neither rounded numbers nor numbers representing measured values, are exact and they have infinite numbers of significant figures as per the situation.
For example, circumference of circle S = 2πr, Here the factor 2 is exact number. It can be written as 2.0, 2.00 or 2.000 as required.
Note: 2 The power of 10 is irrelevant to the determination of significant figures.
For example x = 5.70 m = 5.70 × 10² cm = 5.70 × 10³ mm = 5.70 × 10^-3 km.
In each case the number of significant figures is three.

Physics Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
What are the limitations of dimensional analysis?
Answer:
Limitations of Dimensional analysis
1. This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula like 1, 2, ……… π, e, etc.
This method cannot decide whether the given quantity is a vector or a scalar.
This method is not suitable to derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.
It cannot be applied to an equation involving more than three physical quantities.
It can only check on whether a physical relation is dimensionally correct but not the correctness of the relation. For example, using dimensional analysis, is dimensionally correct whereas the correct relation is

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Physics Question 5.
Define precision and accuracy. Explain with one example.
Answer:
The accuracy of a measurement is a measure of how close the measured value is to the true value of the quantity. Precision of a measurement is a closeness of two or more measured values to each other.
The true value of a certain length is near 5.678 cm. In one experiment, using a measuring instrument of resolution 0.1 cm, the measured value is found to be 5.5 cm. In another experiment using a measuring instrument of greater resolution, say 0.01 cm, the length is found to be 5.38 cm. We find that the first measurement is more accurate as it is closer to the true value, but it has lesser precision. On the contrary, the second measurement is less accurate, but it is more precise.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(i) Explain the use of screw gauge and vernier caliper in measuring smaller distances.
Answer:
(i) Measurement of small distances: screw gauge and vernier caliper Screw gauge:
The screw gauge is an instrument used for measuring accurately the dimensions of objects up to a maximum of about 50 mm. The principle of the instrument is the magnification of linear motion using the circular motion of a screw. The least count of the screw gauge is 0.01 mm. Vernier caliper: A vernier caliper is a versatile instrument for measuring the dimensions of an object namely diameter of a hole, or a depth of a hole. The least count of the vernier caliper is 0.1 mm.

(ii) Write a note on triangulation method and radar method to measure larger distances. Triangulation method for the height of an accessible object;
Let AB = h be the height of the tree or tower to be measured. Let C be the point of observation at distance x from B. Place a range finder at C and measure the angle of elevation, ACB =
θ as shown in figure.
From right angled triangle ABC,


(or) height h = x tan θ
Knowing the distance x, the height h can be determined.
RADAR method
The word RADAR stands for radio detection and ranging. A radar can be used to measure accurately the distance of a nearby planet such as Mars. In this method, radio waves are sent from transmitters which, after reflection from the planet, are detected by the receiver. By measuring, the time interval (t) between the instants the radio waves are sent and received, the distance of the planet can be determined as where v is the speed of the radio wave. As the time taken (t) is for the distance covered during the forward and backward path of the radio waves, it is divided by 2 to get the actual distance of the object. This method can also be used to determine the height, at which an aeroplane flies from the ground.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the various types of errors.
Answer:
The uncertainty in a measurement is called an error. Random error, systematic error and gross error are the three possible errors.
(i) Systematic errors: Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently *, in the same direction. These occur often due to a problem that persists throughout the experiment. Systematic errors can be classified as follows
(1) Instrumental errors: When an instrument is not calibrated properly at the time of manufacture, instrumental errors may arise. If a measurement is made with a meter scale whose end is worn out, the result obtained will have errors. These errors can be corrected by choosing the instrument carefully.
(2) Imperfections in experimental technique or procedure: These errors arise due to the limitations in the experimental arrangement. As an example, while performing experiments with a calorimeter, if there is no proper insulation, there will be radiation losses. This results in errors and to overcome these, necessary correction has to be applied
(3) Personal errors: These errors are due to individuals performing the experiment, may be due to incorrect initial setting up of the experiment or carelessness of the individual making the observation due to improper precautions.
(4) Errors due to external causes: The change in the external conditions during an experiment can cause error in measurement. For example, changes in temperature, humidity, or pressure during measurements may affect the result of the measurement.
(5) Least count error: Least count is the smallest value that can be measured by the measuring instrument, and the error due to this measurement is least count error. The instrument’s
resolution hence is the cause of this error. Least count error can be reduced by using a high precision instrument for the measurement.
(ii) Random errors: Random errors may arise due to random and unpredictable variations in
experimental conditions like pressure, temperature, voltage supply etc. Errors may also be due to personal errors by the observer who performs the experiment. Random errors are sometimes called “chance error”. When different readings are obtained by a person every time he repeats the experiment, personal error occurs. For example, consider the case of the thickness of a wire measured using a screw gauge. The readings taken may be different for different trials. In this case, a large number of measurements are made and then the arithmetic mean is taken.

Question 3.
What do you mean by propagation of errors? Explain the propagation of errors in addition and multiplication.
Answer:
A number of measured quantities may be involved in the final calculation of an experiment. Different types of instruments might have been used for taking readings. Then we may have to look at the errors in measuring various quantities, collectively.
The error in the final result depends on
(i) The errors in the individual measurements
(ii) On the nature of mathematical operations performed to get the final result. So we should know the rules to combine the errors.
The various possibilities of the propagation or combination of errors in different mathematical operations are discussed below:
(i) Error in the sum of two quantities
Let ∆A and ∆B be the absolute errors in the two quantities A and B respectively. Then, Measured value of A = A ± ∆A
Measured value of B = B ± ∆B
Consider the sum, Z = A + B
The error ∆Z in Z is then given by

The maximum possible error in the sum of two quantities is equal to the sum of the absolute errors in the individual quantities.
Error in the product of two quantities: Let ∆A and ∆B be the absolute errors in the two quantities A, and B, respectively. Consider the product Z = AB
The error ∆Z in Z is given by Z ± ∆Z = (A ± ∆A) (B ± ∆B)
= (AB) ± (A ∆ B) ± (B ∆ A) ± (∆A • ∆B)
Dividing L.H.S by Z and R.H.S by AB, we get,

As ∆A/A, ∆B/B are both small quantities, their product term can be neglected.
The maximum fractional error in Z is

Question 4.
Write short note on the following:
(a) Unit
(b) Rounding – off
(c) Dimensionless quantities
Answer:
(a) Unit: An arbitrarily chosen standard of measurement of a quantity, which is accepted internationally is called unit of the quantity.
The units in which the fundamental quantities are measured are called fundamental or base units and the units of measurement of all other physical quantities, which can be obtained by a suitable multiplication or division of powers of fundamental units, are called derived units.
(b) Rounding – off: In no case should the result have more significant figures than die figures involved in the data used for calculation. The result of calculation with numbers containing more than one uncertain digit should be rounded off. The rules for rounding off are given below.

(c) Dimensionless quantities: On the basis of dimension, dimensionless quantities are classified into two categories.
(i) Dimensionless variables:
Physical quantities which have no dimensions, but have variable values are called dimensionless variables. Examples are specific gravity, strain, refractive index etc.
(ii) Dimensionless Constant:
Quantities which have constant values and also have no dimensions are called dimensionless constants. Examples are π, e, numbers etc.

Question 5.
Explain the principle of homogeniety of dimensions. What are its uses? Give example.
Answer:
The principle of homogeneity of dimensions states that the dimensions of all the terms in a physical expression should be the same. For example, in the physical expression v² = u² + 2as, the dimensions of v², u² and 2 as are the same and equal to [L²T^-2].
(i) To convert a physical quantity from one system of units to another: This is based on the fact that the product of the numerical values (n) and its corresponding unit (u) is a constant, i.e, = constant n₁[u₁] = constant (or) n₁[u₁] = n₂[u₂].
Consider a physical quantity which has dimension ‘a’ in mass, ‘b’ in length and ‘c’ in time. If the fundamental units in one system are M₁, L₁ and T₁ and the other system are M₂, L₂ and T₂ respectively, then we can write,
We have thus converted the numerical value of physical quantity from one system of units into the other system.
Example: Convert 76 cm of mercury pressure into Nm^-2 using the method of dimensions. Solution: In cgs system 76 cm of mercury pressure = 76 × 13.6 × 980 dyne cm^-2
The dimensional formula of pressure P is [ML^-1T^-2]

(ii) To check the dimensional correctness of a given physical equation:
Example: The equation \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\) = mgh can be checked by using this method as follows.
Solution: Dimensional formula for

Dimensional formula for

Both sides are dimensionally the same, hence the equations is dimensionally correct.
(iii) To establish the relation among various physical quantities:
Example: An expression for the time period T of a simple pendulum can be obtained by using this method as follows.
Let true period T depend upon
(i) mass m of the bob
(ii) length l of the pendulum and
(iii) acceleration due to gravity g at the place where the pendulum is suspended. Let the constant involved is K = 2π.
Solution:

Here k is the dimensionless constant. Rewriting the above equation with dimensions.

Comparing the powers of M, L and T on both sides, a – 0, b + c = 0, -2c = 1
Solving for a, b and c a = 0, b = 1/2, and c = -1/2
From the above equation

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Numerical Problems

Question 1.
In a submarine equipped with sonar, the time delay between the generation of a pulse and its echo after reflection from an enemy submarine is observed to be 80 sec. If the speed of sound in water is 1460 ms^-1. What is the distance of enemy submarine?
Answer:
Given:
Speed of sound in water = 1460 ms^-1
Time delay = 80s
Distance of enemy ship = ?
Solution:
Total distance covered = speed × time
= 1460 ms^-1 × 80s = 116800 m
Time taken is for forward and backward path of sound waves.

= 58400 m (or) 58.4 km

Question 2.
The radius of the circle is 3.12 m. Calculate the area of the circle with regard to significant figures.
Answer:
Given: radius : 3.12 m (Three significant figures)
Solution:
Area of the circle = πr² = 3.14 × (3.12 m)² = 30.566
If the result is rounded off into three significant figure, area of the circle = 30.6 m²

Question 3.
Assuming that the frequency v of a vibrating string may depend upon
(i) applied force (F)
(ii) length (l)
(iii) mass per unit length (m), prove that using dimensional analysis. [Related to JIPMER 2001]
Answer:
Given: The frequency v of a vibrating string depends
(i) applied force (F)
(ii) length (l)
(iii) mass per unit length (m)
Solution:

Substitute the dimensional formulae of the above quantities

Comparing the powers of M, L, T on both sides,
x + z = 0, x + y – z = 0, -2x = -1
Solving for x, y, z, we get

Substitute x, y, z values in equ(1)

Question 4.
Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million km from the Earth. Its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72″. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.
Answer:
Given,
Given Distance of Jupiter = 824.7 × 10⁶ km = 8.247 × 10¹¹ m
angular diameter = 35.72 × 4.85 × 10^-6rad = 173.242 × 10^-6 rad
= 1.73 × 10^-4 rad
∴ Diameter of Jupiter D = D × d = 1.73 × 10^-4 rad × 8.247 × 10¹¹ m
= 14.267 × 1o⁷ m = 1.427 × 10⁸ m (or) 1.427 × 10^{5</sup km}

Question 5.
The measurement value of length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm known with 2 mm accuracy. The time for 50 oscillations was measured to be 40 s within 1 s resolution. Calculate the percentage of accuracy in the determination of acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ from the above measurement.
Answer:
Given,
Length of simple pendulum (l) = 20 cm
absolute error in length (∆l) = 2 mm = 0.2 cm
Time taken for 50 oscillation (t) = 40 s
error in time ∆T = 1 s
Solution: Time period for one oscillation (T)

Hence, the percentage error in g is

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Conceptual Questions

Question 1.
Why is it convenient to express the distance of stars in terms of light year (or) parsec rather than in km?
Answer:
A parsec is 206, 265 AU and is roughly the distance to the nearest stars. If we were to view a giant star with a diameter of 1 AU at a distance of one parsec, it would appear to be just 1/3600^th of a degree in angular size. For comparison, the sun and moon are both half a degree in angular size when viewed from Earth.

Question 2.
Show that a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions is more precise than a vernier caliper with 20 divisions on the sliding scale.
Answer:

As shown, the least count of screw gauge is lesser then vernier caliper, hence screw gauge is more precise.

Question 4.
Having all units in atomic standards is more useful. Explain.
Answer:
An atomic mass unit (symbolized AMU or amu) is defined as precisely 1/12 the mass of an atom of carbon-12. The carbon-12 (C-12) atom has six protons and six neutrons in its nucleus.
In imprecise terms, one AMU is the average of the proton rest mass and the neutron rest mass. This is approximately 1.67377 × 10^-27 kilogram (kg), or 1.67377 × 10^-24 gram (g). The mass of an atom in AMU is roughly equal to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.
The AMU is used to express the relative masses of, and thereby differentiate between, various isotopes of elements. Thus, for example, uranium-235 (U-235) has an AMU of approximately 235, while uranium-238 (U-238) is slightly more massive. The difference results from the fact that U-238, the most abundant naturally occurring isotope of uranium, has three more neutrons than U-235, an isotope that has been used in nuclear reactors and atomic bombs.

Question 5.
Why dimensional methods are applicable only up to three quantities?
Answer:
Understanding dimensions is of utmost importance as it helps us in studying the nature of physical quantities mathematically. The basic concept of dimensions is that we can add or subtract only those quantities which have same dimensions. Also, two physical quantities are equal if they have same dimensions. these basic ideas help us in deriving the new relation between physical quantities, it is just like units.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Additional Questions Solved

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Multiple Choose Questions

Question 1.
The unit of surface tension ……
(a) MT^-2
(b) Nm^-2
(c) Nm
(d) Nm^-1
Answer:
(d) Nm^-1

Question 2.
One atomus equal to ……

Answer:
(c) 160 ms

Question 3.
One light year is ……
(a) 3.153 × 10⁷ m
(b) 1.496 × 10⁷ m
(c) 9.46 × 10¹² km
(d) 3.26 × 10¹⁵ km
Answer:
(c) 9.46 × 10¹² km

Question 4.
One Astronomical unit is
(a) 3.153 × 10⁷ m
(b) 1.496 × 10⁷ m
(c) 9.46 × 10¹² m
(d) 3.26 × 10¹⁵ m
Answer:
(b) 1.496 × 10⁷ m

Question 5.
One parsec is …..
(a) 3.153 × 10⁷ m
(b) 3.26 × 10¹⁵ m
(c) 30.84 × 10¹⁵ m
(d) 9.46 × 10¹⁵ m
Answer:
(c) 30.84 × 10¹⁵ m

Question 6.
One Fermi is …..
(a) 10^-9 m
(b) 10^-10 m
(c) 10^-12 m
(d) 10^-15 m
Answer:
(d) 10^-15 m

Question 7.
One Angstrom is ………
(a) 10^-9 m
(b) 10^-10m
(c) 10^-12 m
(d) 10^-15 m
Answer:
(b) 10^-10 m

Question 8.
One solar mass is ….
(a) 2 × 10³⁰ kg
(b) 2 × 10³⁰ g
(c) 2 × 10³⁰ mg
(d) 2 × 10³⁰ tonne
Answer:
(d) 2 × 10³⁰ tonne

Question 9.
\(\frac{1}{12}\) of the mass of carbon 12 atom is …..
(a) 1 TMC
(b) mass of neutron
(c) 1 amu
(d) mass of hydrogen
Answer:
(d) mass of hydrogen

Question 10.
The word physics is derived from the word …..
(a) scientist
(b) fusis
(c) fission
(d) fusion
Answer:
(b) fusis

Question 11.
The study of forces acting on bodies whether at rest or in motion is …..
(a) classical mechanics
(b) quantum mechanics
(c) thermodynamics
(d) condensed matter physics
Answer:
(a) classical mechanics

Question 12.
Mass of observable universe …..
(a) 10³¹ kg
(b) 10⁴¹ kg
(c) 10⁵⁵ kg
(d) 9.11 × 10³¹ kg
Answer:
(c) 10⁵⁵ kg

Question 13.
Mass of an electron …….

Answer:
(b) 9.11 × 10^-31 kg

Question 14.
The study of production and propagation of sound waves …..
(a) Astrophysics
(b) Acoustics
(c) Relativity
(d) Atomic physics
Answer:
(b) Acoustics

Question 15.
The study of the discrete nature of phenomena at the atomic and subatomic levels.
(a) Quantum mechanics
(b) High energy physics
(c) Acoustics
(d) Classical mechanics
Answer:
(a) Quantum mechanics

Question 16.
The techniQuestion used to study the crystal structure of various rocks are …….
(a) diffraction
(b) interference
(c) total internal reflection
(d) refraction
Answer:
(a) diffraction

Question 17.
The astronomers used to observe distant points of the universe by …….
(a) Electron telescope
(b) Astronomical telescope
(c) Radio telescope
(d) Radar
Answer:
(c) Radio telescope

Question 18.
The comparison of any physical quantity with its standard unit is known as ……..
(a) fundamental quantities
(b) measurement
(c) dualism
(d) derived quantities
Answer:
(b) measurement

Question 19.
Fundamental quantities can also be known as …… quantities.
(a) original
(b) physical
(c) negative
(d) base
Answer:
(d) base

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not a fundamental quantity?
(a) length
(b) luminous intensity
(c) temperature
(d) water current
Answer:
(d) water current

Question 21.
The system of unit not only based on length, mass, and time is
(a) FPS
(b) CGS
(c) MKS
(d) SI
Answer:
(d) SI

Question 22.
The coherent system of units …..
(a) CGS
(b) SI
(c) FPS
(d) MKS
Answer
(b) SI

Question 23.
The triple point temperature of water is ……
(a) -273.16 K
(b) 0K
(c) 273.16 K
(d) 100 K
Answer:
(d) 100 K

Question 24.
Which of the following is a unit of distance?
(a) Light year
(b) Leap year
(c) Dyne-sec
(d) Pauli
Answer:
(a) Light year

Question 25.
The unit of moment of force ……
(a) Nm²
(b) Nm
(c) N
(d) NJ rad
Answer:
(b) Nm

Question 26.
1 radian is ……
(a) 2.91 × 10^-4 m
(b) 57.27°
(c) 180°
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{180}\)
Answer:
(b) 57.27°

Question 27.
One degree of arc is …….
(a) 1″
(b) 60″
(c) 60′
(d) 60°
Answer:
(c) 60′

Question 28.
One degree of arc is equal to …….
(a) 1.457 × 10² rad
(b) 1.457 × 10^-2 rad
(c) 1.745 × 10² rad
(d) 1.745 × 10^-2 rad
Answer:
(b) 1.457 × 10^-2 rad

Question 29.
1 minute of arc is equal to …….
(a) 1.745 × 10^-2 rad
(b) 2.91 × 10^-4 rad
(c) 2.91 × 10⁴ rad
(d) 4.85 × 10^-6 rad
Answer:
(b) 2.91 × 10^-4 rad

Question 30.
1 second of arc is equal to ………

Answer:

Question 31.
1 second of arc is equal to ….
(a) 0.00027°
(b) 1.745 × 10^-2 rad
(c) 2.91 × 10^-4 rad
(d) 4.85 × 10^-6 rad
Answer:
(a) 0.00027°

Question 32.
Unit of impulse ….
(a) NS²
(b) NS
(c) Nm
(d) Kgms^-2
Answer:
(b) NS

Question 33.
The ratio of energy and temperature is known as ……
(a) Stefen’s constant
(b) Boltzmann constant
(c) Plank’s constant
(d) Kinetic constant
Answer:
(b) Boltzmann constant

Question 34.
The range of distance can be measured by using direct methods is …..
(a) 10^-2 to 10^-5 m
(b) 10^-2 to 10² m
(c) 10² to 1(T5 m {d) 10″2 to 105 m
Answer:
(b) 10^-2 to 10² m

Question 35.
Which of the following is in increased order?
(a) exa, tera, hecto
(b) tera, exa, hecto
(c) giga, tera, exa
(d) hecto, exa, giga
Answer:
(c) giga, tera, exa

Question 36.
10^-18 is called as ……
(a) nano
(b) pico
(c) femto
(d) atto
Answer:
(d) atto

Question 37.
A radio signal sent towards the distant planet, returns after “t” s. If “c” is the speed of radio
waves then the distance of the planet and from the earth is …….

Answer:

Question 38.
Find odd one out ….
(a) Newton
(b) metre
(c) candela
(d) Kelvin
Answer:
(a) Newton

Question 39.
The shift in the position of an object when viewed with two eyes, keeping one eye closed at a
time is known as …
(a) basis
(b) fundamental
(c) parallax
(d) pendulum
Answer:
(c) parallax

Question 40.
Chandrasekar limit is ….. times the mass of the sun.
(a) 1.2
(b) 1.4
(c) 1.6
(d) 1.8
Answer:
(b) 1.4

Question 41.
The smallest physical unit of time is
(a) second
(b) minute
(c) microsecond
(d) shake
Answer:
(d) shake

Question 42.
Size of atomic nucleus is …..
(a) 10^-10 m
(b) 10^-12 m
(c) 10^-14 m
(d) 10^-18 m
Answer:
(c) 10^-14 m

Question 43.
Time interval between two successive heart beat is in the order of …….
(a) 10° s
(b) 10 s
(c) 10² s
(d) 10^-3 s
Answer:
(a) 10° s

Question 44.
Half life time of a free neutron is in the order of ……
(a) 10°
(b) 10¹ s
(c) 10² s
(d) 10³ s
Answer:
(d) 10³ s

Question 45.
The uncertainty contained in any measurement is ……
(a) rounding off
(b) error
(c) parallax
(d) gross
Answer:
(b) error

Question 46.
Zero error of an instrument is a ……
(a) Systematic error
(b) Random error
(c) Gross error
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Systematic error

Question 47.
Error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%. Then error in the measurement of surface
area is ….
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
Answer:
(d) 4%

Question 48.
Imperfections in experimental procedure gives ….. error.
(a) random
(b) gross
(c) systematic
(d) personal
Answer:
(c) Systematic

Question 49.
Random error can also be called as ….
(a) personal error
(b) chance error
(c) gross error
(d) system error
Answer:
(b) chance error

Question 50.
To get the best possible true value of the quantity has to be taken.
(a) rms value
(b) net value
(c) arithmetic mean
(d) mode
Answer:
(c) arithmetic mean

Question 51.
The error caused due to the shear carelessness of an observer is called as …… error.
(a) Systematise
(b) Gross
(c) Random
(d) Personal
Answer:
(b) Gross

Question 52.
The uncertainty in a measurement is called as ….
(a) error
(b) systematic
(c) random error
(d) gross error
Answer:
(a) error

Question 53.
The difference between the true value and the measured value of a quantity is known as …..
(a) Absolute error
(b) Relative error
(c) Percentage error
(d) Systemmatic error
Answer:
(a) Absolute error

Question 54.
If a₁, a₂, a₃ …. a_n are the measured value of a physical quantity “a” and a_m is the true value then absolute error …..

Answer:
(d) \(\Delta a_{n}=a_{m}-a_{n}\)

Question 55.
If ‘a_m‘ and ‘∆a_m ‘ are true value and mean absolute error respectively, then the magnitude of the quantity may lie between …..

Answer:
(b) \(a_{m}-\Delta a_{m} \text { to } a_{m}+\Delta a_{m}\)

Question 56.
The ratio of the mean absolute error to the mean value is called as ……
(a) absolute error
(b) random error
(c) relative error
(d) percentage error
Answer:
(c) Relative error

Question 57.
Relative error can also be called as ……
(a) fractional error
(b) absolute error
(c) percentage error
(d) systematic error
Answer:
(a) fractional error

Question 58.
A measured value to be close to targeted value, percentage error must be close to
(a) 0
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) ∝
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 59.
The maximum possible error in the sum of two quantities is equal to …….
(a) Z = A + B
(b) ∆Z = ∆A + ∆B
(c) ∆Z = ∆A/∆B
(d) ∆Z = ∆A – ∆B
Answer:
(b) ∆Z = ∆A + ∆B

Question 60.
The maximum possible error in the difference of two quantities is ……

Answer:

Question 61.
The maximum fractional error in the division of two quantities is ….

Answer:

Question 62.
The fractional error in the n^th power of a quantity is …..

Answer:

Question 63.
A physical quantity is given as y = \(\frac{a b^{3}}{c^{2}}\). If ∆a, ∆b, ∆c are absolute errors, the possible fractional error in y is …..

Answer:

Question 64.
Number of significant digits in 3256 …
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 65.
Number of significant digits in 32005 ……
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 5

Question 66.
Number of significant digits in 2030 …
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 67.
Number of significant digits in 2030N …..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 68.
Number of significant digits in 0.0342 …..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c)3

Question 69.
Number of significant digit in 20.00 …..
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 70.
Number of significant digit in 0.030400
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 5

Question 71.
The force acting on a body is measured as 4.25 N. Round it off with two significant figure ..
(a) 4.3
(b) 4.2
(c) both
(a) or (b)
(d) 4.25
Answer:
(b) 4.2

Question 72.
The quantities a, b, c are measured as 3.21, 4.253, 7.2346. The sum (a + b + c) with proper
significant digits is ……
(a) 14.6976
(b) 14.697
(c) 14.69
(d) 14.6
Answer:
(c) 14.69

Question 73.
The dimensions of gravitational constant G are …

Answer:
(b) \(\mathbf{M}^{-1} \mathbf{L}^{3} \mathbf{T}^{-2}\)

Question 74.
The ratio of one nanometer to one micron is
(a) 10^-3
(b) 10³
(c) 10^-9
(d) 10^-6
Answer:
(b) 10³

Question 75.
Which of the following pairs does not have same dimension?
(a) Moment of inertia and moment of force
(b) Work and torque
(c) Impulse and momentum
(d) Angular momentum and Plank’s constant
Answer:
(a) Moment of inertia and moment of force

Question 76.
Two quantities A and B have different dimensions. Which of the following is physically meaningful?
(a) A + B
(b) A – B
(c) A /B
(d) None
Answer:
(c) A /B

Question 77.
The dimensional formula for moment of inertia ……

Answer:
(d) \(\mathbf{M} \mathbf{L}^{2} \mathbf{T}^{\mathbf{0}}\)

Question 78.
Which of the following is having same dimensional formula?
(a) Work and power
(b) Radius of gyration and displacement
(c) Impulse and force
(d) Frequencies and wavelength
Answer:
(b) Radius of gyration and displacement

Question 79.
Which of the following quantities is expressed as force per unit area?
(a) Pressure
(b) Stress
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 80.
In equation of motion the dimensional formula for K is …..

Answer:
(b) \(\left[\mathbf{L} \mathbf{T}^{-2}\right]\)

Question 81.
The dimensional formula for heat capacity ……

Answer:
(d) \(\left[\mathbf{M} \mathbf{L}^{2} \mathbf{T}^{2} \mathbf{K}^{-1}\right]\)

Question 82.
The product of Avogadro constant and elementary charge is known as …… constant.
(a) Planck’s
(b) Avagadro
(c) Boltzmann
(d) Faraday
Answer:
(d) Faraday

Question 83.
The force F is given by F = at + bt² where t is time. The dimensions of ‘a’ and ‘b’ respectively are

Answer:
(d) \(\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-2}\right]\) and \(\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-0}\right]\)

Question 84.
Dimensions of impulse are …..

Answer:
(c) \(\left[\mathrm{MLT}^{-1}\right]\)

Question 85.
If speed of light (c), acceleration due to gravity (g) and pressure (P) are taken as fundamental
units, the possible relation to gravitational constant (G) is ….

Answer:
(c) \(c^{0} g^{2} p^{-1}\)

Question 86.
Equivalent of one joule is ……
(a) Nm²
(b) kg m² s^-2
(c) kg m s^-1
(d) N kg m²
Answer:
(b) kg m² s^-2

Question 87.
Pick out the dimensionless quantity …..
(a) force
(b) specific gravity
(c) planck’s constant
(d) velocity
Answer:
(b) specific gravity

Question 88.
Odd one out ………
(a) strain
(b) refractive index
(c) numbers
(d) stress
Answer:
(d) stress

Question 89.
A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 6 + 0.06 cm. The maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density is …….
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 3%
(d) 4%
Answer:
(d) 4%

Question 90.
The dimensions of planck constant equals to that of …..
(a) energy
(b) momentum
(c) angular momentum
(d) power
Answer:
(c) angular momentum

Question 91

(a) The unit of λ is same as that of x and A
(b) The unit of λ is same as that of x but not of A
(c) The unit of c is same as that of 2π/λ
(d) The unit of (ct – x)is same as that 2π/λ
Answer:
(a) The unit of λ is same as that of x and A

Question 92.
The number of significant figures in 0.06900 is …….
(a) 2
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 93.
The numbers 3.665 and 3.635 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give
(a) 3.66 and 3.63
(b) 3.66 and 3.64
(c) 3.67 and 3.63
(d) 3.67 and 3.64
Answer:
(b) 3.66 and 3.64

Question 94.
Which of the following measurements is most precise?
(a) 4.00 mm
(b) 4.00 cm
(c) 4.00 m
(d) 4.00 km
Answer:
(a) 4.00 mm

Question 95.
The mean radius of a wire is 2 mm. Which of the following measurements is most accurate? (a) 1.9 mm
(b) 2.25 mm
(c) 2.3 mm
(d) 1.83 mm
Answer:
(a) 1.9 mm

Question 96.
If error in measurement of radius of sphere is 1%. What will be the error in measurement of volume?
(a) 1%
(b) \(\frac{1}{3}\)%
(c) 3%
(d) 10%
Answer:
(c) 3%

Question 97.
Dimensions [M L^-1 T^-1] are related to …….
(a) torque
(b) work
(c) energy
(d) Coefficient of viscosity
Answer:
(d) Coefficient of viscosity

Question 98.
Heat produced by a current is obtained a relation H = I²RT. If the errors in measuring these quantities current, resistance, time are 1%, 2%, 1% respectively then total error in calculating the energy produced is
(a) 2%
(b) 4%
(c) 5%
(d) 6%
Answer:
(c) 5%

Question 99.
Length cannot be measured by ….
(a) fermi
(b) angstrom
(c) parsec
(d) debye
Answer:
(d) debye

Question 100.
The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the sides of the plate by using the formula p = \([/late\frac{\mathrm{F}}{l^{2}}x]. If the maximum errors in the measurement
of force and length are 4% and 2% respectively, then the maximum error in the measurement of pressure is ……..
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%
Aswer:
(c) 8%

Question 101.
Which of the following cannot be verified by using dimensional analysis?
1 mv²

Answer:
(b) y = a sin wt

Question 102.
Percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 3% and 2% respectively. The error in the calculation of kinetic energy is …….
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 5%
(d) 7%
Answer:
(d) 7%

Question 103.
More number of readings will reduce …….
(a) random error
(b) systematic error
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) random error

Question 104.
If the percentage error in the measurement of mass and momentum of a body are 3% and
2%respectively, then maximum possible error in kinetic energy is
(a) 2%
(b) 3%
(c) 5%
(d) 7%
Answer:
(d) 7%

Question 105.
In a vernier caliper, n divisions of vernier scale coincides with (n – 1) divisions of main scale. The least count of the instrument is ………

Answer:

Question 106.
The period of a simple pendulum is recorded as 2.56s, 2.42s, 2.71s and 2.80s respectively.
The average absolute error is
(a) 0.1s
(b) 0.2s
(c) 1.0s
(d) 0.11s
Answer:
(d) 0.11s

Question 107.
In a system of units, if force (F), acceleration (A) and time (T) are taken as fundamental units
then the dimensional formula of energy is
(a) [FA²T]
(b) [FAT²]
(c) [F²AT]
(d) [FAT]
Answer:
(b) [FAT²]

Question 108.
The random error in the arithmetic mean of 50 observations is ‘a’, then the random error in the
arithmetic mean of 200 observations a would be

Answer:
(c) [latex]\frac{a}{4}\)

Question 109.
Which of the following is not dimensionless?
(a) Relative permittivity
(b) Refractive index
(c) Relative density
(d) Relative velocity
Answer:
(d) Relative velocity

Question 110.
If V-velocity, K – kinetic energy and T – time are chosen as the fundamental units, then what is the dimensional formula for surface tension?

Answer:
(a) [K V^-2 T^-2]

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)

Question 1.
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vaccum is unity. What is the distance between the sun and the earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance.
Answer:
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 1 new unit of length s^-1
t = 8 min. 20 sec, = 500 s
x = ct= 1 new unit of length s^-1 × 500s
x = 500 new unit of length

Question 2.
If x = a + bt + ct², where x is in metre and t in seconds, what is the unit of c ?
Answer:
The unit of left hand side is metre so the units of ct² should also be metre.
Since t² has unit of s², so the unit of c is m/s².

Question 3.
What is the difference between mN, Nm and nm ?
Answer:
mN means milli newton, 1 mN = 10^-3 N, Nm means Newton meter, nm means nano meter.

Question 4.
The radius of atom is of the order of 1 A° & radius of nucleus is of the order of fermi. How many magnitudes higher is the volume of the atom as compared to the volume of nucleus ?
Answer:

Question 5.
How many kg make 1 unified atomic mass unit ?
Answer:
1u = 1.66 × 10^-27 kg

Question 6.
Name some physical quantities that have same dimension.
Answer:
Work, energy and torque.

Question 7.
Name the physical quantities that have dimensional formula [ML ^-1T^-2].
Answer:
Stress, pressure, modulus of elasticity.

Question 8.
Give two examples of dimensionless variables.
Answer:
Strain, refractive index.

Question 9.
State the number of significant figures in
(i) 0.007 m²
(ii) 2.64 × 1024 kg
(iii) 0.2370 g cm^-3
(iv) 0.2300m
(v) 86400
(vi) 86400 m
Answer:
(i) 1,
(ii) 3,
(iii) 4,
(iv) 4,
(v) 3,
(vi) 5 since it comes from a measurement the last two zeros become significant.

Question 10.
Given relative error in the measurement of length is 0.02, what is the percentage error ?
Answer:
2%.

Question 11.
A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows :

The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2% respectively. What is the percentage error in the quantity P?
Answer:
Relative error in P is given by

Question 12.
A boy recalls the relation for relativistic mass (m) in terms of rest mass (m₀) velocity of particle V, but forgets to put the constant c (velocity of light). He writes correct the equation by putting the missing ‘c’.
Answer:
Since quantities of similar nature can only be added or subtracted, v² cannot be subtracted from 1 but v²/c² can be subtracted from 1.

Question 13.
Name the technique used in locating.
(a) an under water obstacle
(b) position of an aeroplane in space.
Answer:
(a) SONAR ➝ Sound Navigation and Ranging.
(b) RADAR ➝ Radio Detection and Ranging.

Question 14.
Deduce dimensional formulae of—
(i) Boltzmann’s constant
(ii) mechanical equivalent of heat.
Answer:
(i) Boltzmann Constant:

Question 15.
Give examples of dimensional constants and dimensionless constants.
Answer:
Dimensional Constants : Gravitational constant, Plank’s constant. Dimensionless Constants : it, e.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)

Question 16.
The vernier scale of a travelling microscope has 50 divisions which coincide with 49 main scale divisions. If each main scale division is 0.5 mm. Calculate the minimum inaccuracy in the measurement of distance.
Answer:
Minimum inaccuracy = Vernier constant

Question 17.
If the unit of force is 100N, unit of length is 10m and unit of time is 100s. What is the unit of Mass in this system of units ?
Answer:

Question 18.
State the principle of homogeneity. Test the dimensional homogeneity of equations

Answer:

as Dimensions of L.H.S. = Dimensions of R.H.S.
∴ The equation to dimensionally homogeneous.

(ii) S_n = Distance travelled in n^th sec that is (S_n – S_{n – 1})

Hence this is dimensionally correct.

Question 19.

Answer:
Since dimensionally similar quantities can only be added

Question 20.
Magnitude of force experienced by an object moving with speed v is given by F = kv². Find dimensions of k.
Answer:

Question 21.
A book with printing error contains four different formulae for displacement. Choose the
correct formula/formulae

Answer:
The arguments of sine and cosine function must be dimensionless so (a) is the probable correct formulae. Since

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Physics Nature of Physical World and Measurement Numericals Questions

Question 22.
Determine the number of light years in one metre.
Answer:

Question 23.
The mass of a box measured by a grocer’s balance is 2.3 kg. Two gold pieces 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box.
(i) What is the total mass of the box ?
(ii) The difference in masses of the pieces to correct significant figures.
Answer:
(i) Mass of box = 2.3 kg
Mass of gold pieces = 20.15 + 20.17 = 40.32 g = 0.04032 kg.
Total mass = 2.3 + 0.04032 = 2.34032 kg
In correct significant figure mass = 2.3 kg (as least decimal)
(ii) Difference in mass of gold pieces = 0.02 g
In correct significant figure (2 significant fig. minimum decimal) will be 0.02 g.

Question 24.
5.74 g of a substance occupies 1.2 cm³. Express its density to correct significant figures.
Answer:

Here least significant figure is 2, so density = 4.8 g/cm³.

Question 25.
If displacement of a body s = (200 ± 5) m and time taken by it t = (20 + 0.2) s, then find the percentage error in the calculation of velocity.
Answer:

Question 26.
If the error in measurement of mass of a body be 3% and in the measurement of velocity be 2%. What will be maximum possible error in calculation of kinetic energy.
Answer:

Question 27.
The length of a rod as measured in an experiment was found to be 2.48 m, 2.46 m, 2.49 m, 2.50 m and 2.48 m. Find the average length, absolute error and percentage error. Express the result with error limit.
Answer:

Question 28.
A physical quantity is measured as Q = (2.1 ± 0.5) units. Calculate the percentage error in (1) Q² (2) 2Q.
Answer:

Question 29.
When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million km from the earth, its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72″ of arc. Calculate diameter of Jupiter.
Answer:

Question 30.
A laser light beamed at the moon takes 2.56s and to return after reflection at the moon’s surface. What will be the radius of lunar orbit?
Answer:
t = 2.54 s

Question 31.
Convert
(i) 3 m.s^-2 to km h^-2
(ii) G = 6.67 × 10^-11 N m² kg^-2 to cm³ g^-1 s^-2
Answer:

Question 32.
A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals 4.2 J where 1J = 1 kg m²s^-2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which unit of mass is α kg, unit of length is β m, unit of time γs. What will be magnitude of calorie in terms of this new system.
Answer:

Question 33.
The escape velocity v of a body depends on—
(i) the acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ of the planet,
(ii) the radius R of the planet. Establish dimensionally the relation for the escape velocity.
Solution:

Question 34.
The frequency of vibration of a string depends of on,
(i) tension in the string
(ii) mass per unit length of string,
(iii) vibrating length of the string. Establish dimensionally the relation for frequency.
Answer:

Question 35.
One mole of an ideal gas at STP occupies 22.4 L. What is the ratio of molar volume to atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen? Why is the ratio so large? Take radius of hydrogen molecule to be 1°A.
Answer:

This ratio is large because actual size of gas molecule is negligible in comparison to the inter molecular separation.

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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 8 Statistics and Probability Ex 8.4

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
If P(A) = \(\frac{2}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\), P(A∪B) = 13 then find P(A∩B).
Solution:
P(A) = \(\frac{2}{3}\), P(B) = \(\frac{2}{5}\), P(A∪B) = \(\frac{1}{3}\)
P(A ∩ B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A∪B)

Ex 8.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A and B are two events such that, P(A) = 0.42, P(B) = 0.48, and P(A ∩ B) = 0.16. Find
(i) P(not A)
(it) P(not B)
(iii) P(A or B)
Answer:
(i) P(not A) = 1 – P (A) = 1 – 0.42 = 0.58
(ii) P(not B) = 1 – P(B) = 1 – 0.48 = 0.52
(iii) P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B) = 0.42 + 0.48 – 0.16 = 0.90 – 0.16 = 0.74

Exercise 8.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
If A and B are two mutually exclusive events of a random experiment and P(not A) = 0.45, P(A∪B) = 0.65, then find P(B).
Solution:
A and B are two mutually exclusive events of a random experiment.
P(not A) = 0.45,
P(A) = 1 – P(not A)
P(A∪B) = 0.65 = 1 – 0.45 = 0.55
P(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) = 0.65
0.55 + P(B) = 0.65
P(B) = 0.65 – 0.55
= 0.10

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 Question 4.
The probability that atleast one of A and B occur is 0.6. If A and B occur simultaneously with probability 0.2, then find P(\(\bar{A}\)) + P(\(\bar{B}\)).
Answer:
Here P (A ∪ B) = 0.6, P (A ∩ B) = 0.2
P (A ∪ B) = P (A) + P (B) – P (A ∩ B)
0.6 = P (A) + P (B) – 0.2
P(A) + P(B) = 0.8
P(\(\bar{A}\)) + P(\(\bar{B}\)) = 1 – P(A) + 1 – P(B)
= 2 – [P(A) + P(B)]
= 2 – 0.8
= 1.2

10th Maths 8.4 Solutions Question 5.
The probability of happening of an event A is 0.5 and that of B is 0.3. If A and B are mutually exclusive events, then find the probability that neither A nor B happen.
Solution:
P(A) = 0.5 Since A and B are mutually inclusive events
P(B) = 0.3 events.
P(\(\overline{\mathbf{A}}\))∪P(\(\overline{\mathbf{B}}\)) = 1 – [P(A) + P(B)]
= 1 – [0.5 + 0.3] = 0.2

10th Maths Probability Exercise 8.4 Question 6.
Two dice are rolled once. Find the probability of getting an even number on the first die or a total of face sum 8.
Solution:
Two dice rolled once.

10th Maths Ex 8.4 Question 7.
From a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards, a card is drawn at random. Find the probability of it being either a red king or a black queen.
Solution:
n(S) = 52
No. of Red cards = 26,
Red king cards = 2
No. of Black cards = 26,
Black queen cards = 2
No. of red king cards = n(K) = 2

∴ The probability of being either a red king or a black queen = \(\frac{1}{13}\).

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 Solution Question 8.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9,… 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card has either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Solution:
S = {3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37}
n(S) = 18
Multiplies of seven cards (A) = {7, 21, 35}
= n(A) = 3

Let the prime number cards B
B = {3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, 37}
n(B) = 11

10th Maths Exercise 8.4 In Tamil Question 9.
Three unbiased coins are tossed once. Find the probability of getting at most 2 tails or at least 2 heads.
Solution:
When we toss three coins, the sample space S = {HHH, TTT, HTT, THH, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT}
n(S) = 8
Event of getting at most 2 tails be A.
∴ A = { HHH, HTT, THH, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT}

10th Maths Statistics And Probability Question 10.
The probability that a person will get an electrification contract is the probability that he will not get plumbing contract is \(\frac{3}{5}\). The probability of getting at least one contract is \(\frac{5}{8}\). What is the probability that he will get both?
Solution:

10th Maths 8.4 Question 11.
In a town of 8000 people, 1300 are over 50 years and 3000 are females. It is known that 30% of the females are over 50 years. What is the probability that a chosen individual from the town is either a female or over 50 years ?
Solution:

10th Exercise 8.4 Question 12.
A coin is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting exactly two heads or at least one tail or two consecutive heads.
Solution:
Three coins tossed simultaneously.
S = { HHH, TTT, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT, HTT, THH}
n(S) = 8
Happening of getting exactly two heads be A.
A= {HHT, HTH, THH}
n(A) = 3

Event of getting at least one tail be B.
∴ B = {TTT, HHT, TTH, HTH, THT, HTT, THH}

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 13.
If A, B, C are any three events such that probability of B is twice as that of probability of A and probability of C is thrice as that of probability of A and if P(A∩B) = \(\frac{1}{6}\), P(B∩C) = \(\frac{1}{4}\), P(A∩C) = \(\frac{1}{8}\), \(\mathbf{P}(\mathbf{A} \cup \mathbf{B} \cup \mathbf{C})=\frac{9}{10}, \mathbf{P}(\mathbf{A} \cap \mathbf{B} \cap \mathbf{C})=\frac{1}{15}\), then find P(A), P(B) and P(C)?
Solution:
P(B) = 2P(A)
P(C) = 3P(A)

10th Maths Chapter 8 Exercise 8.4 Question 14.
In a class of 35, students are numbered from 1 to 35. The ratio of boys to girls is 4:3. The roll numbers of students begin with boys and end with girls. Find the probability that a student selected is either a boy with a prime roll number or a girl with a composite roll number or an even roll number.
Solution:
n(S) = 35

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu

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Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Physical Geography Of Tamil Nadu Question 1.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is …………..
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0′ to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°4’N to 13°35’N

State The Boundaries Of Tamil Nadu Class 10 Question 2.
The longitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 76° 18’E to 80°20’E
(b) 76° 18’W to 80°20’W
(c) 86°18’E to 10°20’E
(d) 86°18’W to 10°20’W
Answer:
(a) 76° 18’E to 80°20’E

Question 3.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is ……………..
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayan
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 4.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 5.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian Sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Chittar
(d) Bhavani
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 6.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 7.
The forest cover of Tamil Nadu as per 2017 Indian Forest Report is ………………
(a) 20.21%
(b) 20.31%
(c) 21.20%
(d) 21.30%
Answer:
(a) 20.21%

Question 8.
Retreating monsoon wind picks up moisture from:
(a) Arabian sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) Timor sea
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 9.
Which of the following district is affected by sand dunes to a large extent?
(a) Theni
(b) Madurai
(c) Thanjavur
(d) Ramanathapuram
Answer:
(d) Ramanathapuram

Question 10.
The district which has the largest forest cover in Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Dharmapuri
(b) Vellore
(c) Dindigul
(d) Erode
Answer:
(a) Dharmapuri

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The plateau which lies between the Nilgiris and Dharmapuri districts is ……………..
2. ……………. is the highest peak in the southernmost part of the Eastern Ghats.
3. The riverine Island of Srirangam is located between …………… and ………….. branches of cauvery.
4. ……………… soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
5. ……………. is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in
Answers:
1. Bharamahal
2. Solaikaradu
3. Northern, Southern
4. Laterite
5. Nilgiri Tahr, Nilgiri Hills

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a)

IV. Assertion type Question.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall from the southwest monsoon. Reasoning (R): It is situated in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Red soil is rich in iron oxides Reasoning (R): It is formed by leaching
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but, (R) does not explain (A).

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
State the boundaries of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu is bounded by Bay of Bengal in the East, Kerala in the West, Andhra Pradesh in the North Karnataka in the North West and Indian Ocean in the South.

Question 2.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and Western Ghats separately.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats:
Parangimalai, Chennai, Javadhu hills, Vellore, Salem, Sirumalai, Dindigul, Thiruvannamalai, Bhubaneswar, Namakkal, Perambalur.

Western Ghats:
Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Theni, Coimbatore, Nilgiri.

Question 3.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called “Teri”.

Question 4.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 5.
Name the major islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Kurusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble island and Vivekananda rock memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
Name the tributaries of river Thamirabarani.
Answer:
Karaiyar, Servalar, Manimuthar, Gadananathi, Pachaiyar, Chittar and Ramanathi are its main tributaries.

Question 7.
Define Disaster Risk Reduction.
Answer:
Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) According to United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction is “the concept and practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyses and reduce the causal factors of disasters”. This includes reducing exposure to hazards, lessening the vulnerability of people and property, wise management of land and environment and early warning for adverse events.

Question 8.
During cyclone, how does the Meterological department warn the fishermen?
Answer:
During disturbed weather over the seas, the ports likely to be affected are warned by concerned ACWCs / CWCs by advising the port authorities through port warnings to hoist appropriate Storm Warning Signals. The Department also issues “Fleet forecast” for Indian Navy. Coastal Bulletins for Indian coastal areas covering up to 75 km from the coastline and sea area bulletins for the sea areas beyond 75 km. The special warnings are issued for fishermen four times a day in normal weather and every three hourly in accordance with the four-stage warning in case of disturbed weather.

The general public, the coastal residents and fishermen are warned through state government officials and broadcast of warnings through All India Radio and National Television telecast programmes in national and regional hook up. A sytem of warning dissemination for fishermen through World Space Digital Based radio receiver is being planned.

VI. Distinguish between the following.

Question 1.
Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats.
Answer:
Western Ghats Eastern Ghats

Western Ghats	Eastern Ghats
Western Ghats is a continuous one. Its average height is form 2,000 to 3000 m.	Eastern Ghats are not continuous and irregular. Its average height from is 1,100 to 1,600 metres
The Western Ghats enters the state through the Nilgiri District and runs upto KanyaKumari District	They extend from Northeast to Southwest through the districts of Vellore Dharmapuri and Erode
The highest hills of Western Ghats is Anaimalai (2700 m)	The highest hills of Eastern Ghats is Shervaryan hills (1500-1600 m)

Question 2.
Southwest Monsoon and Northeast Monsoon.
Answer:
Southwest Monsoon Northeast Monsoon

Southwest Monsoon	Northeast Monsoon
Southwest Monsoon occurs between June to September.	North east monsoon occurs between Octobar and December.
It is Summer Monsoon.	It is Winter Monsoon.
The districts of Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, Salem, Coimbatore and Erode get rainfall.	The coromandal coast of Tamil Nadu gets heavy rainfall from north east monsoon.

Question 3.
Tropical evergreen and Tropical deciduous forests.
Answer:
Tropical evergreen forest Tropical deciduous forests

Tropical evergreen forest	Tropical deciduous forests
They are called Evergreen forest since the leaves are present always	They are called Tropical Deciduous forests
They never shed their leaves	They shed their leaves to avoid loss of moisture during dry season
They are located in places which receive more than 200 cms of rainfall	They are located in areas which receive rainfall between 100 and 200 cms.

VII. Give reasons for the following:

Question 1.
Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range.
Answer:
The Eastern Ghats are not a continuous range because it is dissected at many places by the rivers flowing towards the east that drain into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu receives low rainfall during southwest monsoon.
Answer:
During southwest monsoon, Tamil Nadu is located in the rain shadow region for the wind, which blows from the Arabian sea. As a result, Tamil Nadu receives only a meagre rainfall from this monsoon. Rainfall during this season decreases from west to east.

Question 3.
Alluvial soil is fertile.
Answer:
Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of rivers and are rich in minerals like lime, potassium magnesium, nitrogen and phosphoric acid. Hence it is fertile in nature.

Question 4.
Cuddalore is a multiprone disaster zone.
Answer:
Cuddalore districts is prone to natural calamities having experienced landfalls of major cyclones formed in the Bay of Bengal region. Apart from the cyclones, 2004 Tsunami caused massive damages to life and property in Cuddalore and its adjacent Nagapattinam district. Cyclone Thane which made landfall here caused major loss to life and property.

VIII. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the nature of the plateau region of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Location: Plateaus of Tamil Nadu are located between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
2. Area and Shape: It covers an area of about 60,000 sq. km and is roughly triangular in shape.
3. Slope and height: It is broader in the North and very narrow in the South. It’s height increases from East to West ranging between 150 and 600 metres.
4. Sub-divisions: Baramahal plateau, Coimbatore plateau and Madurai plateau.

Question 2.
Write an account on river Cauvery.
Answer:
The main river of Tamil Nadu is cauvery which originates at Talacauvery in the Brahmragiri hills of Kodagu (coorg) district of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.

About 416 km of its course falls in Tamil Nadu. It serves as the boundary between Karnataka and Tamil Nadu for a distance of 64 km. A tributary called Bhavani joins Cauvery on the right bank about 45 km from the Mettur Reservoir.

Thereafter, it takes easterly course to enter into the plains of Tamil Nadu. Cauvery and its distributaries in its lower course drain the districts of Nagapattinam, Thanjavur, Thivarur and Thiruchirapalli. The cauvery, kollidam and the vellar jointly drain central part of the Tamil . Nadu. The head of the cauvery delta is near the islands of Srirangam. Kollidam branches off from cauvery at Grand Anaicut, also called as kallanai was built across the river cauvery.

After kallanai, the river breaks into a large number of distributaries and forms a network all over the delta. The network of tributaries within the delta of cauvery in the coast is called as the ‘Garden of Southern India’. It merges into Bay of Bengal to the south of cuddalore. Cauvery along with its tributaries Bhavani, Noyyal, Mayar and Amaravathi is the most important source of canal irrigation.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. The State of Tamil Nadu lies to the South of Tropic of cancer, which is near the Equator.
2. As it receives vertical Sunrays, the temperature the State is relatively high throughout the year.
3. But the climate of the coastal regions are influenced by the surrounding seas Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean enjoys tropical maritime climate.

Characteristic features of Summer Season:

1. There is a steady rise in temperature from South to North.
2. Generally the temperature various from 30°C to more than 40°C.
3. Summer falls in the months of March, April and May. Hottest month is the month of May.
4. In this season particularly in the month of May Southern , part of the. State receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Season:

1. During January and February Tamil Nadu receives the slanting rays of the sun.
2. So the weather is slightly cooler. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high.
3. Winter temperature in the State varies from 15°C to 25°C. However in hill stations it ranges from 5°C to 0°C forming thick mist and frost.
4. The season is generally dry.

Question 4.
What is desertification and write about the areas affected by it in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Desertification is a type of land degradation in which a relatively dry areas of land becomes a desert, typically losing its bodies of water as well as vegetation and wild life. Theni, the Nilgiris and Kanniyakumari are the worst affected districts. About 12,000 hectares (120 Sq.km) were affected by sand deposition in Theni and Rajapalayam.

Question 5.
Bring out the types and distribution of soils in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

Types of Soils	Distribution of Soil in Tamil Nadu
Alluvial Soil	It is found in river valley regions and coastal plains. Thanjavur, Tiruvarur, Nagapattinam, Villupuram, Cuddalore, Tirunelveli and kanniyakumari
Black Soil	Coimbatore, Madurai, Virudhunagar, Tirunelveli and Thoothukudi
Red Soil	Sivagangai and Ramanathapuram
Laterite Soil	Kancheepuram, Tiruvallur and Thanjavur districts and source patches over the mountain region in the Nilgiris
Saline Soil	Saline soils in Tamil Nadu are confined to the Coromandel coast and vedaranyam

Question 6.
Name the areas which are affected by landslides. What will you do before, during and after landslides?
Answer:

1. A collapse of a mass of Earth or rock from a mountain or cliff is called landslide.
2. One of the most vulnerable district affected by landslides is Nilgiris.
3. The other regions which are prone to landslides are Coimbatore and Palani hill of Dindigul district.

Risk Reduction Measures:
Before:

1. Create awareness
2. Stay alert and awake
3. Monitor the News update
4. Make evacuation plan
5. Listen for any unusual sounds indication such as.
6. Moving debris – trees cracking, boulders knocking.
7. Consider leaving the place of landslides if it is safe to do so.

During:

(a) If Indoors:

• Find cover in the section of the building that is farthest away from the approaching landslide.
• Take shelter under a strong table or bench.
• Hold on firmly and stay until all movement has ceased.

(b) If outdoors:

• Move quickly away from its likely path.
• Keeping clear of embankments, trees, power lines and poles.
• Avoid crossing roads and bridges and stay away from landslides.
• The slope may experience additional failures for hours todays afterwards.

(c) After:

• Stay away from the slide area.
• Listen to local radio or television for the latest emergency information.
• Watch for flooding which may occur after a landslide or debris flow.
• Check for injured and trapped persons near the slide, without entering the direct slide area.

IX. Map study

Question 1.
Mark important rivers, distribution of soil and forest types on different Tamil Nadu maps.
Answer:

In-text Activity

Question 1.
Find out the coastal districts of Tamil Nadu with the help of a map.
Answer:

Question 2.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with the states of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka and Kerala separately.
Answer:

S. No	States	Districts of Tamil Nadu which share their boundary with other states
1.	Andhra Pradesh	Vellore, Tiruvallur
2.	Karnataka	Krishnagiri, Erode
3.	Kerala	Nilgiris, Coimbatore, Teni, Tirunelveli, Kanyakumari

In-Text Find Out

Question 1.
Name the first state of India created on linguistic basis.
Answer:
Andhra State on October 1st, 1953.

Question 2.
Why was the capital of Tamil Nadu renamed?
Answer:
The then local people called the capital of Tamil Nadu as Chennapattinam after the Vassal Chennapa Naicker who ruled this region and in the Sale Deed it was mentioned in the name after the Chenna Kesava temple which was the face of the city during that time. In 1996 Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in Tamil.

Question 3.
What is the meaning of the word ‘Chennai’?
Answer:
According to a suggestion, the city was named after the Chennakesava Perumal temple in the 1600s. The word Chennai in Tamil means ‘face’, with the temple regarded as the face of the city. The city was called Chennapatnam, which became to be abbreviated as Chennai.

Question 4.
Between in which latitude and longitude, is your school located?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 5.
Why are mountain heights measured from mean sea level and not from ground level?
Answer:
Sea level is the base level for measuring elevation and depth on Earth. Because the ocean is one continuous body of water, its surface tends to seek the same level throughout the world.

Question 6.
Name the hill resorts of Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Western Ghats: Annaimalai, Cardamon Hills, Palani Hills.
Eastern Ghats: Shevaroy Hills, Kalrayan Hills.

Question 7.
Is Ooty located on Western Ghats?
Answer:
Ooty is located on the Nilgiri hills which is a range of the Western Ghats.

Question 8.
Name the hill station located in Western Ghats and Eastern Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Western Ghats: Nilgiris, Kodaikanal, Annaimalai, Palani, Andipati and Agasthiyar Hills.
Eastern Ghats: Javadhu, Servarayan, Kalrayan, Kollimalai, Pachaimalai.

Question 9.
Why is the Nilgiri hills called as Blue Mountains?
Answer:
From all the directions and point of view these hills appear bluish hue in their natural settings. Hence the Nilgiri hills are called as Blue Mountains.

Question 10.
What is the kind of landform on which you live and what is its height?
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 11.
What is Agni Nakshatram?
Answer:

• Temperature of the states increases in the second week of February.
• Gradually it increases in the months of March, May and June.
• The hottest part of the summer season is known as “Agni Nakshatram” or Katthiriveyyil.

Question 12.
Group the districts of Tamil Nadu into low, moderate and heavy rainfall regions.
Answer:

S. No	Distribution of Rainfall	Regions
1.	Low Rainfall	Nammakkal, karur, Erode, Thuthukudi, Dharmapuri, Madurai, Thiruchirappalli, perambalur, Krishnagiri.
2.	Moderate Rainfall	Puddukottai, Virudhunagar, Sivagangai, Thanjavur, Salem, Ramanathapuram, Dindigal, Theni, Vellore.
3.	Heavy Rainfall	Kancheepuram, chennai, Villupuram, Thiruvallur, Thiruvarur, Cuddalore, Nagapattinam, Nilgiri.

Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
There are ……………… districts in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 32
(b) 35
(c) 30
Answer:
(b) 35

Question 2.
Tamil Nadu is the ………………. largest State in India regarding its area.
(a) 10th
(b) 12th
(c) 11th
(d) 20th
Answer:
(c) 11th

Question 3.
The state lying on the …………… tip of the Indian Peninsula is Tamil Nadu.
(a) Southern
(b) Western
(c) Eastern
Answer:
(a) Southern

Question 4.
At present there are districts in Tamil Nadu.
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 14
(d) 29
Answer:
(b) 35

Question 5.
Geographically Tamil Nadu is divided into five ……………..
(a) Plain region
(b) Hilly region
(c) Physical division
Answer:
(c) Physical division

Question 6.
The topography of the Tamil Nadu State slopes towards:
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South
Answer:
(a) East

Question 7.
………….. is located in the border of Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
(a) Nilgiri Hills
(b) Anaimalai
(c) Cardamom Hills
Answer:
(b) Anaimalai

Question 8.
Cardamom hills are also known as :
(a) Pachaimalai
(b) Servarayan
(c) Yelamalai
(d) Kalvarayan
Answer:
(c) Yelamalai

Question 9.
The trees of ……………. forest shed their leaves during dry season.
(a) Tidel
(b) Deciduous
(c) Evergreen
Answer:
(b) Deciduous

Question 10.
Kolli hills is a small mountain range located in district.
(a) Madurai
(b) Dindigal
(c) Namakkal
(d) Salem
Answer:
(c) Namakkal

Question 11.
…………… determines thickness of soil profile.
(a) Climate
(b) Time
(c) Wind
Answer:
(b) Time

Question 12.
The rivers of Tamil Nadu originates from :
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Western Ghats
(c) River plains
(d) Plateaus
Answer:
(b) Western Ghats

Question 13.
………….. is the most common trigger of a landslide.
(a) Air
(b) Fire
(c) Water
Answer:
(c) Water

Question 14.
………………. is also known as retreating monsoon.
(a) South west monsoon
(b) Tropical cyclones
(c) North east monsoon
(d) Pre-monsoon shower
Answer:
(c) North east monsoon

Question 15.
…………. dams are located at the foothills of Anaimalai.
(a) Aliyar and Tirumurthy
(b) Vaigai
(c) Mettur
Answer:
(a) Aliyar and Tirumurthy

II. Match the following.

a.

1.	State Bird	(a)	226
2.	State Animal	(b)	Emerald Dove
3.	State Tree	(c)	234
4.	Assembly Constituencies	(d)	Palm tree
5.	Taluks	(e)	Nilgiri Tahr

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a)

b.

1.	Tamil	(a)	South
2.	35	(b)	Madurai
3.	Indian Ocean	(c)	State Language
4.	Vaigai	(d)	Queen of hills station
5.	Ooty	(e)	Districts

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

III. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Name the local bodies of Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
Tamil Nadu consists of:

• 35 – Districts
• 39 – Lok Sabha Constituencies
• 234 – Assembly Constituencies
• 76 – Revenue Division
• 125 – Municipalities
• 561 – Town Panchayats
• 12,618 – Village Panchayats

Question 2.
Name the passes that are found in the Western Ghats.
Answer:
The passes in the Western Ghats are Palghat, Shencottah, Aralvoimozhi and Achankoil.

Question 3.
Name the water bodies bordering Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Bay of Bengal on the east.
• Indian Ocean on the south.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Anaimalai.
Answer:
Anaimalai is located in the border of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It is located in the South of Palghat gap. Valparai hill station and Kadamparai hydroelectric Power Plant are located on this hill. Anaimalai Tiger Reserve and Aliyar Reserve Forest is here. The dams Aliyar and Tirumurthy are located at the foothills of this range.

Question 5.
What are called Cholamandalam Plains?
Answer:
The coastal plains of Tiruvallur, Kanchipuram, Cuddalore and Villupuram are together known as the Cholamandalam Plains.

Question 6.
Name the districts that one located in the plains of Cauvery.
Answer:
The fertile plains of Cauvery is found in Salem, Erode, Karur, Tiruchirappalli, Pudukottai, Thanjavur, Thiruvarur and Nagapattinam.

Question 7.
Name the types of forests found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tropical Evergreen Forests
2. Montane Temperate Forests
3. Tropical Deciduous Forests
4. Mangrove Forests and
5. Tropical Thom Forests

Question 8.
Name the Wettest place in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Chinnakallar near Valparai is the Wettest place in Tamil Nadu. It is the third Wettest place in India.

Question 9.
What are the factors that determine the formation of soil?
Answer:

• Parent Rock
• Climate
• Relief
• Time factor
• Flora, fauna and micro organisms

Question 10.
Name of factors that are responsible for soil erosion.
Answer:
Soil erosion occurs due to deforestation, overgrazing, urbanisation and heavy rainfall.

IV. Distinguish Between:

Question 1.
Marina Beach and Rameshwaram Beach
Answer:

Marina Beach	Rameshwaram Beach
It is located in the city of Chennai.	It is located near the Gulf of Mannar.
It is one of the major tourist attraction of the city.	Pilgirms and tourists come here.
It extends to a distance of 13 kms.	The sea waves rise to a maximum height of 3 cm only.

Question 2.
River Cauvery and River Vaigai
Answer:

River Cauvery	River Vaigai
It originates at Tala Cauvery in the Brahmagiri hills of Kodagu districts of Karnataka in the Western Ghats.	It rises from the eastern slopes of the Vamsanadu hills of Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu.
The main tributaries are Bhavani, Noyyal, Moyar and Amaravathi.	Its tributaries are Suruliyaur, Tayalaru and Mullaru.
Mettur dam has been constructed across Cauvery	Vaigai dam has been constructed across Vagai.

Question 3.
Thorn forests and Mangrove forests
Answer:

Thorn forests	Mangrove forests
These forest are found in dry areas with low rainfall.	They are found in the tropical and subtropical tidal areas with high degree of salinity.
The vegetation is widely scattered to trees and bushes.	Mangrove trees grow along the estuaries and back waters.
They are highly adaptive to dry conditions with deep roots, thick items and fleshy leaves.	The trees belong to the genus Rhizophora.
They are found in the districts of Dharmapuri, Ramanathapuram, Viruthunagar districts in Tamil Nadu.	Pichavaram, Vedaranyam, Muthupet, Chatram and Thoothukudi in Tamil Nadu.

V. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
Does Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover?
Answer:

• Thanjavur has alluvial soil
• It is suitable for agriculture
• So there is less then 1% of forest cover.

Question 2.
Why do Nilgiris and Kanyakumari get more rainfall during the southwest Monsoon season?
Answer:

1. The south west monsoon occurs between June and September.
2. Nilgiris, Kanyakumari, the western part of Coimbatore, Dharmapuri and Salem get benefitted during southwest monsoon season.
3. As the southwest monsoon starts its downpour of rain in the western ghats, the western parts of Tamil Nadu receive about 150 cm of rain fall, on an average.

Question 3.
East Coast of Tamil Nadu does not receive much rainfall during Southwest Monsoon
Answer:

• This occurs due to the southwesterly direction of Monsoon winds.
• Most of the eastern and central parts of Tamil Nadu become rain shadow regions for this season.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the geographical location of TamilNadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu, a state in Southern India, is bordered by the states of Kerala, Karnataka and Andra pradesh.
• Bay of Bengal on the east, Indian ocean on the South, Kerala and Karnataka on the West and Andra Pradesh on the North.
• Gulf of Mannar and Palk strait separate Tamil Nadu from the Island of Srilanka, which lies to the South east of India.
• It is the 11th largest state in India.
• The state extends from 8° 4’N to 13° 35’N latitudes and from 76° 18’Eto 80° 20’E longitudes.
• Its Eastern and Western extremities are defined by the point Calimere and the hills of Anaimalai respectively.
• The Northern extremity of the state is marked by Pulicat lake and the Southern most point is Cape Comorin.
• The state of Tamil Nadu is a triangular land mass at the south eastern end of the continent.
• It has 1,076 km long coast line, the second longest in India.

Question 2.
Write about the rainfall regions of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Rainfall regions of Tamil Nadu Distribution of rain fall.

Question 3.
Write a paragraph on the Nilgiris hills.
Answer:

1. The Nilgiri hills is located in the Northwestern part of Tamil Nadu.
2. It consists of 24 peaks with more than 2000 metres height.
3. Doddabetta is the highest peak (2,637 metres) followed by Mukkuruthi (2,554 metres).
4. Ooty and Coonoor are the major hill stations.
5. It has more than 2,700 species of flowering plants.
6. The state animal Nilgiri Tahr is found in this hill.
7. By extensive tea plantations and cattle grazing destroyed and disturbed much of the Nilgiris montane grasslands and shrublands.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 6 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Physical Geography of Tamil Nadu Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.1

9th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 1.
From the given figure find all the trigonometric ratios of angle B.
Solution:

9th maths trigonometry exercise 6.1 Question 2.
From the given figure, find the values of
(i) sin B
(ii) sec B
(iii) cot B
(iv) cos C
(v) tan C
(vi) cosec C
Solution:

trigonometry exercise 6.1 Question 3.
If 2 cos θ = \(\sqrt{3}\), then find all the trigonometric ratios of angle θ.
Solution:

Trigonometry solutions exercise 6.1 Question 4.
If cos A = \(\frac{3}{5}\), then find the value of \(\frac{\sin A-\cos A}{2 \tan A}\)
Solution:

trignometry solution of 9th class Question 5.
If cos A = \(\frac{2 x}{1+x^{2}}\) then find the values of sin A and tan A in terms of x.
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 6.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.

Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 6.1 Question 7.
If 3 cot A = 2, then find the value of \(\frac{4 \sin A-3 \cos A}{2 \sin A+3 \cos A}\)
Solution:

9th Std Maths Trigonometry Question 8.
If cos θ : sin θ = 1 : 2, then find the value of \(\frac{8 \cos \theta-2 \sin \theta}{4 \cos \theta+2 \sin \theta}\)
Solution:

9th Maths Exercise 6.1 Solution Question 9.
From the given figure, prove that θ + ϕ = 90°. Also prove that there are two other right angled triangles. Find sin α, cos β and tan ϕ
Solution:


(∴ By Pythagoras theorem, in a right angled triangle square of hypotenuse is equal to sum of the squares of other two side)
And also in the figure, ∆ADC, ∆DBC are two other triangles.
As per the data given,
9²+ 12² = 81 + 144 = 225 = 15²
∴ ∆ ADC is a right angled triangle, then 12² + 16² = 144 + 256 = 400 = 20²
∴ ∆ DBC is also a right angled triangle

9th Maths Trigonometry Question 10.
A boy standing at point O finds his kite flying at a point P with distance OP = 25 m. It is at a height of 5 m from the ground. When the thread is extended by 10 m from P, it reaches a point Q. What will be the height QN of the kite from the ground? (use trigonometric ratios)
Solution:
In the figure,
∆OPM, ∆OQN are similar triangles. In similar triangles the sides are in the same proportional.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.1

10th Maths Exercise 6.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Prove the following identities.
(i) cot θ + tan θ = sec θ cosec θ
(ii) tan⁴θ + tan²θ = sec⁴θ – sec²θ
Solution:

10th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 2.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

Exercise 6.1 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

10th Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 4.
Prove the following identities
(i) sec⁶θ = tan⁶θ + 3tan²θ sec²θ + 1
(ii) (sinθ + secθ)² + (cosθ + cosecθ)²
= 1 + (secθ + cosecθ)²
(i) L.H.S = sec⁶θ = (sec²θ)³ = (1 + tan²θ )³ = (tan²θ + 1)³
(a + b)³ = a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³
= (tan²θ)³ + 3(tan²θ)² × 1 + 3 × tan²θ × 1² + 1
= tan⁶θ + 3tan²θ × (sec²θ – 1) + 3tan²θ + 1
= tan⁶θ + 3tan²θsec²θ – 3tan²θ + 3tan²θ +1
= tan⁶θ + 3tan²θ sec²θ + 1 = R.H.S

(ii) L.H.S = (sinθ + secθ )² + (cosθ + cosecθ)²
= sin²θ + 2sinθ secθ + sec²θ + cos²θ + 2cosθ cosecθ+ cosec²θ

Ex 6.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 5.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 6.1 Question 6.
Prove the following identities

Solution:

Trigonometry Exercise 6.1 Question 7.

Solution:

10th Maths 6.1 Question 8.

Solution:
(i) LHS:

10th Maths Exercise 6.1 In Tamil Question 9.
(i) If sinθ + cosθ = p and secθ + cosecθ = q then prove that q(p² – 1) = 2p
(ii) If sinθ(1 + sin²θ) = cos²θ, then prove that cos⁶θ – 4cos⁴θ + 8cos²θ = 4
Solution:

(ii) Given sinθ(1 + sin²θ) = cos²θ
Sustitute sin²θ = 1 – co²θ and take cos θ = c
squaring (1) on bothsides we get
sin²θ(1 + sin²θ)² = cos⁴θ
(1 – c²)(1 + 1 – c²) = c⁴
(1 – c²)(2 – c²)² = c⁴
(1 – c²)(4 + c⁴– 4c²) = c⁴
4 + c⁴– 4c² – 4c² – c⁶ + 4c⁴ = c⁴
 -c^{6 +} 4c⁴ – 8c² = -4
c⁶ – 4c⁴ + 8c² = -4
ie cos 6θ – 4cos 4θ + 8cos²θ = 4 = RHS
∴ Hence proved

10th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Trigonometry Question 10.

Solution:

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Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Textual Solved Problems

10th Science Optics Book Back Answers Question 1.
Light rays travel from vacuum into a glass whose refractive index is 1.5. If the angle of incidence is 30°, calculate the angle of refraction inside the glass.
Solution:
According to Snell’s law,

Optics Lesson Book Back Answers Question 2.
A beam of light passing through a diverging lens of focal length 0.3 m appears to be focused at a distance 0.2 m behind the lens. Find the position of the object.
Solution:
f = -0.3 m, v = -0.2 m

10th Science Optics Lesson Question 3.
A person with myopia can see objects placed at a distance of 4 m. If he wants to see objects at a distance of 20 m, what should be the focal length and power of the concave lens he must wear?
Solution:
Given that x = 4 m and y = 20 m.
Focal length of the correction lens is, \(f=\frac{x y}{x-y}\)
\(\begin{aligned} f &=\frac{4 \times 20}{4-20} \\ &=\frac{80}{-16}=-5 \mathrm{m} \end{aligned}\)
Power of the correction lens \(=\frac{1}{f}=-\frac{1}{5}=-0.2 \mathrm{D}\).

Optics 10th Class Question 4.
For a person with hypermetropia, the near point has moved to 1.5 m. Calculate the focal length of the correction lens in order to make his eyes normal.
Solution:
Given that, d = 1.5 m; D = 25 cm = 0.25 m (For a normal eye).
The focal length of the correction lens is,

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

10th Standard Optics Lesson Question 1.
The refractive index of four substances A, B, C and D are 1.31, 1.43, 1.33, 2.4 respectively. The speed of light is maximum in ____.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D.
Answer:
(a) A

10th Optics Lesson Question 2.
A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce:
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a coloured beam of light
Answer:
(a) a convergent beam of light

Class 10 Science Optics Question 3.
A small bulb is placed at the principal focus of a convex lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens will produce ____.
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a coloured beam of light.
Answer:
(c) a parallel beam of light

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Question 4.
Magnification of a convex lens is:
(a) Positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(a) Positive

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Question 5.
A convex lens forms a real, diminished point sized image at the focus. Then the position of the object is at _____.
(a) focus
(b) infinity
(c) at 2f
(d) between f and 2f.
Answer:
(b) infinity

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Question 6.
Power of a lens is -4D, then its focal length is _____.
(a) 4m
(b) -40m
(c) -0.25 m
(d) -2.5 m.
Answer:
(c) -0.25m

10th Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
In a myopic eye, the image of the object is formed:
(a) behind the retina
(b) on the retina
(c) in front of the retina
(d) on the blind spot
Answer:
(c) in front of the retina

Science Solution Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
The eye defect ‘presbyopia’ can be corrected by ______.
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) convex mirror
(d) bifocal lenses.
Answer:
(d) bifocal lenses.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Question 9.
Which of the following lens would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm
(b) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm
(d) A concave lens of focal length 10 cm.
Answer:
(c) A convex lens of focal length 10 cm

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
If V_B, V_G, V_R be the velocity of blue, green and red light respectively in a glass prism, then which of the following statement gives the correct relation?
(a) V_B = V_G = V_R
(b) V_B > V_G > V_R
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R
(d) V_B < V_G > V_R
Answer:
(c) V_B < V_G < V_R

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
The path of the light is called as ______.
Answer:
ray of light.

Samacheer Kalvi 10 Science Question 2.
The refractive index of a transparent medium is always greater than _____.
Answer:
one.

10th Samacheer Kalvi Science Question 3.
If the energy of the incident beam and the scattered beam are the same, then the scattering of light is called _____ scattering.
Answer:
elastic.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solution Book Question 4.
According to Rayleigh’s scattering law, the amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its ____.
Answer:
wavelength.

Question 5.
Amount of light entering into the eye is controlled by ______.
Answer:
Iris.

III. True or False. If False Correct it.

Question 1.
The velocity of light is greater in a denser medium than in a rarer medium?
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Velocity of light is lesser in a denser medium than in rarer medium

Question 2.
The power of the lens depends on the focal length of the lens?
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Increase in the converging power of eye lens cause ‘hypermetropia’.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
The convex lens always gives a small virtual image.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The convex lens give enlarged. Virtual image when it is placed between pole and principal focus.

IV. Match the Following.

Question 1.

1. Retina	(a) Pathway of light
2. Pupil	(b) Far point comes closer
3. Ciliary muscles	(c) Near point moves away
4. Myopia	(d) Screen of the eye
5. Hypermetropia	(e) Power of accommodation

Answer:
1. (d) Screen of the eye
2. (a) Pathway of light
3. (e) Power of accommodation
4. (b) Far point comes closer
5. (c) Near point moves away

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: If the refractive index of the medium is high (denser medium) the velocity of the light in that medium will be small
Reason: Refractive index of the medium is inversely proportional to the velocity of the light
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: Myopia is due to the increase in the converging power of the eye lens.
Reason: Myopia can be corrected with the help of the concave lens.
Answer:
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
What is refractive index?
Answer:
The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is defined as the refractive index ‘µ’ of that medium.

Question 2.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)

Question 3.
Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed by a convex lens when the object is placed between F and 2F.
Answer:
Ray diagram for an object placed between F and 2F

Question 4.
Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as ‘dispersion of light’.

Question 5.
State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering \(\mathrm{s} \propto \frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

Question 6.
Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

Convex Lens	Concave Lens
1. The lens which is thicker at the centre than at the edges.	1. The lens is thinner at the centre than at the edges.
2. Abeam of light passing through it, is converged to a point.	2. A beam of light passing through it is diverged or spread out.
3. It is called a converging lens.	3. It is called a diverging lens.

Question 7.
What is power of accommodation of eye?
Answer:
The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called power of accommodation of the eye.

Question 8.
What are the causes of ‘Myopia’?
Answer:
Myopia, also known as short-sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of the eyeball. With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.

Question 9.
Why does the sky appear in blue colour?
Answer:
When sunlight passes through the atmosphere, the blue colour (shorter wavelength) is scattered to a greater extent than the red colour (longer wavelength). This scattering causes the sky to appear in blue colour.

Question 10.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

1. The wavelength of red colour is more than other colours.
2. Red colour will travel longer distance without scattering.
3. Red colour gets least scattered and reaches people.

VII. Give the Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
List any five properties of light.
Answer:

1. Light is a form of energy.
2. Light always travels along a straight line.
3. Light does not need any medium for its propagation. It can even travel through vacuum.
4. The speed of light in vacuum or air is, c = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1.
5. Since, light is in the form of waves, it is characterized by a wavelength (k) and a frequency (v), which are related by the following equation: c = v λ (c – velocity of light).
6. Different coloured light has different wavelength and frequency.
7. Among the visible light, violet light has the lowest wavelength and red light has the highest wavelength.
8. When light is incident on the interface between two media, it is partly reflected and partly refracted.

Question 2.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed In a convex lens with the help of a ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule 1: When a ray of light strikes the convex or concave lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation.

Rule 2: When rays parallel to the principal axis strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted rays are converged to (convex lens) or appear to diverge from (concave lens) the principal focus.

Rule 3: When a ray passing through (convex lens) or directed towards (concave lens) the principal focus strikes a convex or concave lens, the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis.

Question 3.
Differentiate the eye defects: Myopia and Hypermetropia?
Answer:

Myopia	Hypermetropia
(i) Myopia, also known as short-sightedness, occurs due to the lengthening of the eyeball.	(i) Hypermetropia, also known as long-sightedness, occurs due to the shortening of the eyeball.
(ii) With this defect, nearby objects can be seen clearly but distant objects cannot be seen clearly.	(ii) With this defect, distant objects can be seen clearly but nearby objects cannot be seen clearly.
(iii) The focal length of the eye lens is reduced or the distance between the eye lens and retina increases.	(iv) The focal length of the eye lens is increased or the distance between the eye lens and retina decreases.
(iv) The far point will not be infinity for such eyes and the far point has come closer.	(iv) Hence, the near point will not be at 25 cm for such eyes and the near point has moved farther.
(v) Due to this, the image of distant objects is formed before the retina.	(v) Due to this, the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina.
(vi) This defect can be corrected using a concave lens	(vi) This defect can be corrected using a convex lens.

Question 4.
Explain the construction and working of a ‘Compound Microscope’.
Answer:
Construction:

• A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called an ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’.
• The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the ‘observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eyepiece’.
• Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:

• The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of the objective lens (u > f₀).
• A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
• This image behaves like the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eyepiece.
• This eyepiece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
• A compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than the simple microscope.

VIII. Numerical Problems:

Question 1.
An object is placed at a distance 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the image distance and nature of the image.
Solution:


Nature of the image real enlarged and inverted image.

Question 2.
An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Solution:
u = -10 cm [left side of lens]
f = -15 cm [left side of lens]
h = 3 cm


Nature of image: When an object is placed at 10 cm from the left side of the lens, a virtual image is formed between the optical centre and focus of a concave lens. The size of the image is smaller than that of the object.

IX. Higher-Order Thinking (HOT) Questions:

Question 1.
While doing an experiment for the determination of the focal length of a convex lens, Raja Suddenly dropped the lens. It got broken into two halves along the axis. If he continues his experiment with the same lens,

1. Can he get the image?
2. Is there any change in the focal length?

Answer:

1. Yes, he can get the image, because the lens is broken into two halves along the axis.
2. No, focal length remains the same for the lens if it’s broken (or) not broken.

Question 2.
The eyes of the nocturnal birds like owl are having a large cornea and a large pupil. How does it help them?
Answer:

1. Owl has large pupil so that it provides a larger pathway for light to flow towards the retina.
2. In addition it has large comer so that a bigger image of the insects would be formed on the retina.
3. In this way the eyes of the nocturnal birds help them to identify the elements in the surroundings.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Optics Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The speed of light in vacuum or air is _____.
(a) 3 × 10^-8 ms^-1
(b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
(c) 3 × 10⁸ m^-1s
(d) 3 × 10^-18 ms^-1.
Answer:
(b) 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1

Question 2.
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is known as:
(a) Inelastic scattering
(b) Elastic scattering
(c) Raman scattering
(d) Mie scattering
Answer:
(b) Elastic scattering

Question 3.
Which is the following is not an example of colloid _____.
(a) milk
(b) ice – cream
(c) pure water
(d) smoke.
Answer:
(c) pure water

Question 4.
The band of colours is termed as _____.
(a) monochromatic source
(b) composite light
(c) spectrum
(d) dispersion of light.
Answer:
(c) spectrum

Question 5.
Water droplets, pollen and dust cause scattering.
(a) Elastic
(b) Inelastic
(c) Mie
(d) Rayleigh
Answer:
(c) Mie

Question 6.
_____ scattering takes place when the diameter of the Scatterer is similar to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light.
(a) Rayleigh
(b) Tyndall
(c) Mie
(d) Raman.
Answer:
(c) Mie

Question 7.
The colour of the sun is red at sunrise and sunset. This occurs due to _____ scattering.
(a) Rayleigh
(b) Mie
(c) Tyndall
(d) Raman.
Answer:
(a) Rayleigh

Question 8.
A lens may be considered to be made up of:
(a) lenses
(b) prisms
(c) mirrors
(d) transparent medium
Answer:
(b) prisms

Question 9.
If one of the faces of a bi-convex lens is plane, it is known as a ______.
(a) convex lens
(b) Plano-convex lens
(c) concave lens
(d) Plano concave lens.
Answer:
(b) Plano-convex lens

Question 10.
The spectral lines having a frequency equal to the incident ray frequency is called ______.
(a) Spectral lines
(b) Raman lines
(c) Colour lines
(d) Rayleigh lines.
Answer:
(d) Rayleigh lines.

Question 11.
The lens that is thinner in the middle than at the edges is called:
(a) concave lens
(b) bifocal lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) convex lens
Answer:
(a) concave lens

Question 12.
Magnification of a concave lens is ______.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero.
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 13.
Where should an object be placed so that a real image is formed at infinity is obtained by a convex lens _____.
(a) 2F
(b) 0
(c) F
(d) >2F.
Answer:
(c) F

Question 14.
The focal length of a lens is the distance between:
(a) optic centre and principal focus
(b) optic centre and centre of curvature
(c) principal focus and centre of curvature
(d) none
Answer:
(a) optic centre and principal focus

Question 15.
Lens Maker’s formula is _____.

Answer:

Question 16.
The power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its _____.
(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) focal length
(d) refractive index.
Answer:
(c) focal length

Question 17.
When the object is placed at the principal focus of concave lens, the image will be formed at:
(a) 2F
(b) F
(c) infinity
(d) between F and 2F
Answer:
(c) infinity

Question 18.
Astigmatism can be corrected by using _____ lens.
(a) convex
(b) concave
(c) cylindrical
(d) bifocal.
Answer:
(c) cylindrical

Question 19.
The least distance of distinct vision for the normal human eye is ______.
(a) 30 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 35 cm
(d) infinity.
Answer:
(b) 25 cm

Question 20
To get a real and diminished image using convex lens, the object must be placed:
(a) at F
(b) beyond 2F
(c) at 2F
(d) beyond F
Answer:
(b) beyond 2F

II. Fill in the Blanks.

Question 1.
The interacting particle of the medium is called ______.
Answer:
Scatterer.

Question 2.
When a beam of light is refracted through any transparent media, it split into its component colours. This is called as _____.
Answer:
dispersion of light.

Question 3.
The speed of light in a medium is high if the refractive index of the medium is _____?
Answer:
low.

Question 4.
The spectral lines which are having frequencies other than the incident ray frequency are called _____?
Answer:
Raman lines.

Question 5.
_____ lenses are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.
Answer:
Convex.

Question 6.
______ lenses are used as the eye lens of the Galilean Telescope.
Answer:
Concave.

Question 7.
By convention, the power of a convex lens is taken as _____ whereas the power of a concave lens is taken as _____
Answer:
positive, negative.

Question 8.
The diameter of a human eye is _____?
Answer:
2.3 cm.

Question 9.
_____ is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.
Answer:
Power of accommodation.

Question 10.
_____ is the coloured part of an eye.
Answer:
Iris.

Question 11.
______ is used to observe parts of flower, insects and fingerprints in the field of forensic science.
Answer:
Simple microscope.

Question 12.
A _____ works based on the principle of the vernier.
Answer:
travelling microscope.

Question 13.
A _____ telescope is used to view heavenly bodies like stars, planets galaxies and satellites.
Answer:
astronomical.

Question 14.
_______ is an optical instrument used to see distant objects clearly.
Answer:
Telescope.

Question 15.
_______ is the most sensitive part of the human eye.
Answer:
Retina.

Question 16.
A convex lens is ______ in the middle than at edges.
Answer:
Thicker.

Question 17.
_____ lens produces mostly real images.
Answer:
Convex.

Question 18.
The SI unit of power of a lens is _____.
Answer:
dioptre.

Question 19.
The amount of scattering of light is _____ proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength.
Answer:
inversely.

Question 20.
Refractive index of the medium is dependent on the ______ of the light.
Answer:
wavelength.

III. True or False. If False Correct it.

Question 1.
Light always travels along a straight line.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the different plane.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The incident ray, the refracted ray of light and the normal to the refracting surface all lie in the same plane.

Question 3.
The angle of refraction is the same for different colours.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The angle of refraction is different for different colours.

Question 4.
The scattering of light rays by the colloidal particles in the colloidal solution is called the Tyndall effect.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The convex lens is also called a diverging lens.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Concave lens is also called the diverging lens.

Question 6.
Convex lenses are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
Converging lenses are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Diverging lenses or concave lenses are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.

Question 9.
If the magnification is less than 1, then we get a diminished image.
Answer:
True.

Question 10.
A compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than the simple microscope.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following.

Question 1.

1. Snell’s law	(a) 25 cm
2. Rayleigh scattering	(b) Diverging lens
3. Mie scattering	(c) converging lens
4. Bi-Convex lens	(d) Front surface of an eyeball
5. Bi-concave lens	(f) Infinity
6. Cornea	(g) The sky to appear in blue colour
7. Near point of eye	(h) \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
8. Far point of the eye	(i) White appearance of the clouds
9. Presbyopia	(j) Torrid lenses
10. Astigmatism	(k) Bifocal lenses

Answer:
1. (h) \(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)
2. (g) The sky to appear in blue colour
3. (i) White appearance of the clouds
4. (c) converging lens
5. (b) Diverging lens
6. (d) Front surface of an eyeball
7. (a) 25 cm
8. (f) Infinity
9. (k) Bifocal lenses
10. (j) Torrid lenses

V. Assertion and Reasoning Type Questions

Mark the correct choice as?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion: The refractive index of the medium is different for different coloured lights.
Reason: The refractive index of a medium is dependent on the wavelength of the light.
Answer:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 2.
Assertion: A parallel beam of light passing through the concave lens, is diverged or spread out.
Reason: A convex lens is also called a diverging lens.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but the reason is false.

Question 3.
Assertion: Magnification power of microscopes can be decreased by increasing the focal length of the lens used.
Reason: Due to constructional limitations, the focal length of the lens cannot be decreased beyond certain unit.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false but the reason is true.

VI. Answer Briefly.

Question 1.
Why does the cloud appear in white colour?
Answer:

• Mie scattering is responsible for the white appearance of the clouds.
• When white light falls on the water drop, all the colours are equally scattered which together form the white light.

Question 2.
Define Raman Scattering.
Answer:
Raman Scattering is defined as “The interaction of light ray with the particles of pure liquids or transparent solids, which leads to a change in wavelength or frequency.”

Question 3.
Differentiate stokes line and anti-stokes lines.
Answer:

1. Stokes lines: The lines having frequencies lower than the incident frequency is called stokes lines.
2. Antistokes lines: The lines having frequencies higher than the incident frequency are called Antistokes lines.

Question 4.
What is meant by colloid?
Answer:
A colloid is a microscopically small substance that is equally dispersed throughout another material.
Example: Milk, Ice cream, muddy water, smoke.

Question 5.
What are the applications of the convex lens?
Answer:

1. Convex lenses are used as camera lenses.
2. They are used as magnifying lenses.
3. They are used in making microscope, telescope and slide projectors.
4. They are used to correct the defect of vision called hypermetropia.

Question 6.
Give the lens formula.
Answer:
The lens formula gives the relationship among distance of the object (u), the distance of the image (v) and the focal length (f) of the lens. It is expressed as
\(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
It is applicable to both convex and concave lenses.

Question 7.
What are the applications of a concave lens?
Answer:

1. Concave lenses are used as eye lens of ‘Galilean Telescope’
2. They are used in wide-angle spy hole indoors.
3. They are being used to correct the defect of vision called ‘myopia’

Question 8.
What are the uses of a simple microscope?
Answer:
Simple microscopes are used

1. By watch repairers and jewellers.
2. To read small letters clearly.
3. To observe parts of flower, insects etc.
4. To observe Anger prints in the field of forensic science.

Question 9.
Define power of a lens.
Answer:

1. The ability of a lens to converge (convex lens) or diverge (concave lens) is called its power.
2. The power of a lens can be defined as the deep of convergence or divergence of light rays.
3. Power of a lens is numerically defined as the reciprocal of its focal length.
   \(\mathrm{P}=\frac{1}{f}\)
   The SI unit of power of a lens is dioptre.

Question 10.
Define magnification of a lens.
Answer:
It is defined as the ratio of the height of the image to the height of an object. Magnification is denoted by the letter ‘m’.If the height of the object is ‘h’ and the height of the image is h’, the magnification produced by a lens is,
\(m=\frac{\text { height of the image }}{\text { height of the object }}=\frac{h^{\prime}}{h}\)
Also, it is related to the distance of the object (w) and the distance of the image (v) as follows:
\(m=\frac{\text { distance of the image }}{\text { distance of the object }}=\frac{v}{u}\)

Question 11.
Give the lens maker’s formula.
Answer:
The lens maker’s formula is one such equation. It is given as
\(\frac{1}{f}=(\mu-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)
where µ is the refractive index of the material of the lens; R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of the two faces of the lens; f is the focal length of the lens.

Question 12.
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, classify the scattering.
Answer:
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as

• Elastic scattering
• Inelastic scattering

Question 13.
Based on the nature and size of the scatter. Classify the scattering.
Answer:
The nature and size of the scatterer result in different types of scattering. They are

• Rayleigh scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 14.
Why does the sky appear in red colour at sunrise and sunset?
Answer:

1. At sunrise and sunset, the light rays from the Sun have to travel a larger distance in the atmosphere than at noon.
2. Most of the blue lights are scattered away and only the red light which gets least scattered reaches us. Therefore, the colour of the Sun is red at sunrise and sunset.

Question 15.
Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of the telescope.
Answer:
Advantages:

• Elaborate view of the Galaxies, Planets, stars and other heavenly bodies is possible.
• The camera can be attached for taking photographs for the celestial objects.
• The telescope can be viewed even with the low intensity of light.

Disadvantages:

• Frequent maintenances needed.
• It is not easily portable one.

VII. Give the Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What is scattering? Explain two types of scattering.
Answer:
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering. Based on initial and final energy of the light beam,scattering can be classified as,
(i) Elastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.
(ii) Inelastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

Question 2.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on the initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as

1. Elastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.
2. Inelastic scattering: If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.

The nature and size of the Scatterer result in different types of scattering. They are

• Rayleigh scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 3.
Explain the Cartesian sign convention.
Answer:
According to Cartesian sign convention,

1. The object is always placed on the left side of the lens.
2. All the distances are measured from the optical centre of the lens.
3. The distances measured in the same direction as that of incident light are taken as positive.
4. The distances measured against the direction of incident light are taken as negative.
5. The distances measured upward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as positive.
6. The distances measured downward and perpendicular to the principal axis is taken as negative.

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