Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.16

10th Maths Exercise 3.16 Solution Question 1.
In the matrix A = \(\left[\begin{array}{cccc}{8} & {9} & {4} & {3} \\ {-1} & {\sqrt{7}} & {\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}} & {5} \\ {1} & {4} & {3} & {0} \\ {6} & {8} & {-11} & {1}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) The number of elements
(ii) The order of the matrix
(iii) Write the elements a₂₂, a₂₃, a₂₄, a₃₄, a₄₃, a₄₄
Solution:
(i) 16
(ii) 4 × 4
(iii) \(\sqrt{7}, \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\), 5, 0, -11, 1

10th Maths Exercise 3.16 Solutions Question 2.
If a matrix has 18 elements, what are the possible orders it can have? What if it has 6 elements?
Solution:
1 × 18, 2 × 9, 3 × 6, 6 × 3, 9 × 2, 18 × 1 and 1 × 6, 2 × 3, 3 × 2, 6 × 1

10th Maths Exercise 3.16 Answers Question 3.
Construct a 3 × 3 matrix whose elements are given by then find the transpose of A.
(i) a_ij = |i – 2j|
(ii) a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Solution:
(i) a_ij = |i – 2j|
a₁₁ = |1 – 2 × 1| = |1 – 2| = |-1| = 1
a₁₂ = |1 – 2 × 2| = |1 – 4| = |-3| = 3
a₁₃ = |1 – 2 × 3| = |1 – 6| = |-5| = 5
a₂₁ = |2 – 2 × 1| = |2 – 2| = 0
a₂₂ = |2 – 2 × 2| = |2 – 4| = |-2| = 2
a₂₃ = |2 – 2 × 3| = |2 – 6| = |-4| = 4
a₃₁ = |3 – 2 × 1| = |3 – 2| = |1| = 1
a₃₂ = |3 – 2 × 2| = |3 – 4| = |-1| = 1
a₃₃ = |3 – 2 × 3| = |3 – 6| = |-3| = 3
∴ \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {3} & {5} \\ {0} & {2} & {4} \\ {1} & {1} & {3}\end{array}\right]\) is the required 3 × 3 matrix

Ex 3.16 Class 10 Samacheer Question 4.

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.16 Question 5.

Solution:

10th Maths 3.16 Question 6.

Solution:

Exercise 3.16 Class 10 Question 7.
Find the values of x,y and z from the following equations

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.1

11th Maths Exercise 7.1 Answers Question 1.
Construct an m × n matrix A = [a_ij], where a_ij is given by

Solution:
(i) a_ij = \(\frac{(i-2 j)^{2}}{2}\)
Here m = 2, n = 3
So we have to construct a matrix of order 2 × 3

(ii) Here m = 3 and n = 4
So we have to construct a matrix order 3 × 4
The general form of a matrix of order 3 × 4 will be

11th Maths Exercise 7.1 Question 2.
Find the values of p, q, r and s if

Solution:
When two matrices (of same order) are equal then their corresponding entries are equal.

⇒ p² – 1 = 1
⇒ p² = 1 + 1 = 2
p = ± \(\sqrt{2}\)
-31 – q³ = -4
-q³ = -4 + 31 = 27
q³ = -27 = (-3)³
⇒ q = -3
r + 1 = \(\frac{3}{2}\)
⇒ r = \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 1 = \(\frac{3-2}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
s – 1 = π
⇒ s = – π + 1 (i.e.,) s = 1 – π
So, p = ± \(\sqrt{2}\), q = -3, r = 1/2 and s = 1 – π

11th Maths Matrices And Determinants Solutions Question 3.
Determine the value of x + y if
Solution:
\(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{2 x+y} & {4 x} \\ {5 x-7} & {4 x}\end{array}\right]=\left[\begin{array}{cc}{7} & {7 y-13} \\ {y} & {x+6}\end{array}\right]\)
⇒ 2x + y = 7 ………….. (1)
4x = 7y – 13 ………….. (2)
5x – 7 = y …………… (3)
4x = x + 6 ……………. (4)
from (4) 4x – x = 6
3x = 6 ⇒ x = \(\frac{6}{3}\) = 2
Substituting x = 2 in (1), we get
2(2) + y = 7 ⇒ 4 + y = 7 ⇒ y = 7 – 4 = 3
So x = 2 and y = 3
∴ x + y = 2 + 3 = 5

11th Maths 7.1 Exercise Question 4.
Determine the matrices A and B if they satisfy

Solution:

11th Maths Volume 2 Exercise 7.1 Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{\mathbf{1}} & {\boldsymbol{a}} \\ {\mathbf{0}} & {\mathbf{1}}\end{array}\right]\), then compute A⁴
Solution:

11th Maths Matrix Solutions Question 6.
Consider the matrix A_α = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{\cos \alpha} & {-\sin \alpha} \\ {\sin \alpha} & {\cos \alpha}\end{array}\right]\)
(i) Show that A_αA_β = A_{α + β}.
(ii) Find all possible real values of satisfying the condition A_α + A^T_α = 1.
Solution:

General solution is α = 2nπ + \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), n ∈ Z

11th Maths Exercise 7.1 Tamil Medium Question 7.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}{4} & {2} \\ {-1} & {x}\end{array}\right]\) such that (A – 2I) (A – 3I) = 0, find the value of x.
Solution:

11th Maths Matrices And Determinants Pdf Question 8.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}{\mathbf{1}} & {\mathbf{0}} & {\mathbf{0}} \\ {\mathbf{0}} & {\mathbf{1}} & {\mathbf{0}} \\ {\boldsymbol{a}} & {\boldsymbol{b}} & {-\mathbf{1}}\end{array}\right]\), show that A² is a unit matrix.
Solution:

Exercise 7.1 Class 11 Maths State Board Question 9.
If A = and A³ – 6A² + 7A + KI = 0, find the value of k.
Solution:

11th Maths 7.1 Question 10.
Give your own examples of matrices satisfying the following conditions in each case:
(i) A and B such that AB ≠ BA.
(ii) A and B such that AB = 0 = BA, A ≠ 0 and B ≠ 0.
(iii) A and B such that AB = 0 and BA ≠ 0.
Solution:

11th Maths Matrix And Determinants Question 11.
Show that f(x) f(y) = f(x + y), where f(x) =
Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 7.1 In Tamil Question 12.
If A is a square matrix such that A² = A, find the value of 7A – (I + A)³.
Solution:
Given A² = A
So 7A – (I + A)³ = 7A – (I + 3A + 3A² + A³]
= 7A – I – 3A – 3 A² – A³
Given A² = A
7A – I – 3A – 3A – A³ = -I + A – A³
= -I + A – (A² × A)
= -I + A – (A × A) = -I + A – A²
= -I + A – A = -I
So the value of 7A – (I + A)³ = -I.

Question 13.
Verify the property A (B + C) = AB + AC, when the matrices A, B and C are given by

Solution:

11th Maths Volume 2 Exercise 7.1 Answers Question 14.
Find the matrix A which satisfies the matrix relation
Solution:

11 Maths Exercise 7.1 Question 15.

(i) (A + B)^T = A^T + B^T = B^T + A^T
(ii) (A – B)^T = A^T – B^T
(iii) (B^T)^T = B.
Solution:

11th Maths 7th Chapter Question 16.
If A is a 3 × 4 matrix and B is a matrix such that both ATB and BAT are defined, what is the order of the matrix B?
Sol.
A is a matrix of order 3 × 4
So AT will be a matrix of order 4 × 3
AT B will be defined when B is a matrix of order 3 × n
BA^T will be defirted when B is of order m × 4
from (1) and (2) we see that B should be a matrix of order 3 × 4

Question 17.
Express the following matrices as the sum of a symmetric matrix and a skew-symmetric matrix:

Solution:

Matrices And Determinants Class 11 State Board Solutions Question 18.
Find the matrix A such that
Solution:

11th Maths Determinants Solutions Question 19.
If A = is a matrix such that AA^T = 9I, find the values of x and y.
Solution:

Question 20.

Solution:

Class 11th Maths Exercise 7.1 Question 21.
Construct the matrix A = [a_ij]_3×3, where a_ij = i- j. State whether A is symmetric or skew- symmetric.
Solution:
Given A is a matrix of order 3 × 3

Here A^T = -A
⇒ A is skew symmetric

Matrices And Determinants Class 11 Solutions Pdf Question 22.
Let A and B be two symmetric matrices. Prove that AB = BA if and only if AB is a symmetric matrix.
Solution:
Let A and B be two symmetric matrices
⇒ A^T = A and B^T = B …………….. (1)
Given that AB = BA (2)
To prove AB is symmetric:
Now (AB)^T = B^TA^T = BA
(from(1)) But (AB)^T = AB by ………….. (2)
⇒ AB is symmetric.
Conversely let AB be a symmetric matrix.
⇒ (AB)^T = AB
i.e. B^TA^T = AB
i.e. BA = AB (from (1))
⇒ AB is symmetric

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Question 23.
If A and B are symmetric matrices of same order, prove that
(i) AB + BA is a symmetric matrix.
(li) AB – BA is a skew-symmetric matrix.
Solution:
Given A and B are symmetric matrices
⇒ – A^T = A and B^T = B
(i) To prove AB + BA is a symmetric matrix.
Proof: Now (AB + BA)^T = (AB)^T + (BA)^T = B^TA^T + A^TB^T
= BA + AB = AB + BA
i.e. (AB + BA)^T = AB + BA
⇒ (AB + BA) is a symmetric matrix.
(ii) To prove AB – BA is a skew symmetric matrix.
Proof: (AB – BA)^T = (AB)^T – (BA)^T = B^TA^T – A^TB^T = BA – AB
i.e. (AB – BA)^T = – (AB – BA)
⇒ AB – BA is a skew symmetric matrix.

11th Maths 7th Lesson Question 24.
A shopkeeper in a Nuts and Spices shop makes gift packs of cashew nuts, raisins and almonds.
Pack I contains 100 gm of cashew nuts, 100 gm of raisins and 50 gm of almonds. Pack-II contains 200 gm of cashew nuts, 100 gm of raisins and 100 gm of almonds. Pack-III contains 250 gm of cashew nuts, 250 gm of raisins and 150 gm of almonds. The cost of 50 gm of cashew nuts is ₹ 50, 50 gm of raisins is ₹ 10, and 50 gm of almonds is₹ 60. What is the cost of each gift pack?
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Matrices and Determinants Ex 7.1 Additional Problems

Class 11 Maths Ex 7.1 Solutions Question 1.

Prove that (i) AB ≠ BA
(ii) A(BC) = (AB) C
(iii) A(B + C) = AB + AC
(iv) AI = IA = A
Solution:

Class 11th Maths Chapter 7 Exercise 7.1 Question 2.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {3} \\ {4} & {5}\end{array}\right]\) find A² – 7A – 2I.
Solution:

11th Maths Guide Question 3.

Solution:

11th Maths Guide Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}{3} & {-5} \\ {-4} & {2}\end{array}\right]\), show that A² – 5A – 14I = 0 where I is the unit matrix of order 2.
Solution:

Question 6.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}{3} & {-2} \\ {4} & {-2}\end{array}\right]\), find k so that A² = kA – 2I
Solution:

Question 7.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{lll}{1} & {2} & {2} \\ {2} & {1} & {2} \\ {2} & {2} & {1}\end{array}\right]\), show that A² – 4A – 5I = 0
Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 1 Forms of Government and Democracy

Forms of Government and Democracy Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Forms Of Government And Democracy Class 9 Question 1.
A system of government in which one person reigns supreme, usually a king or queen, is called ……..
(a) autocracy
(b) monarchy
(c) democracy
(d) republic
Answer:
(b) monarchy

Mention The Forms Of Democracy Class 9 Question 2.
A system of government by one person with absolute power.
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Theocracy
(c) Democracy
(d) Autocracy
Answer:
(d) Autocracy

Forms Of Government And Democracy Book Back Answers Question 3.
When a country is governed by a few privileged, the form of government is called ……
(a) Aristocracy
(b) Parliamentary
(c) Democracy
(d) Republic
Answer:
(a) Aristocracy

9th Social Civics Guide Question 4.
Former Soviet Union is an example for ……
(a) aristocracy
(b) theocracy
(c) oligarchy
(d) republic
Answer:
(c) oligarchy

Forms Of Government Class 9 Question 5.
Select the odd one ……
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Vatican
Answer:
(d) Vatican

9th Social Guide Civics Question 6.
Abraham Lincoln was the President of the
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) USSR
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Forms Of Government And Democracy Question 7.
Kudavolai system was followed by ……….
(a) Gheras
(b) Pandyas
(c) Cholas
(d) Kalabhras
Answer:
(c) Cholas

Give Abraham Lincoln’s Definition For Democracy Question 8.
Direct Democracy in olden times existed ………
(a) In the republics of ancient India
(b) Among the USA
(c) In the city-state of ancient Athens
(d) Among the UK
Answer:
(c) In the city-state of ancient Athens

9th Social Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
In which country has democracy originated? .
(a) India
(b) Switzerland
(c) USA
(d) Athens
Answer:
(d) Athens

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Civics Book Solutions Question 10.
From which language was the term “Democracy” derived?
(a) Greek
(b) Latin
(c) Persian
(d) Arabic
Answer:
(a) Greek

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 11.
In democracy the final authority rests with ………
(a) The Parliament
(b) The People
(c) The council of Ministers
(d) The President
Answer:
(b) The People

Question 12.
Which one of the country has Presidential form of government?
(a) India
(b) Britain
(c) Canada
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Question 13.
The largest democratic country in the world is ……..
(a) Canada
(b) India
(c) USA
(d) China
Answer:
(b) India

Question 14.
Assertion (A): Direct democracy is practised in Switzerland.
Reason (R): People directly participates in decision making.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 15.
Assertion (A): India has parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R): Indian parliament comprises two houses.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 16.
The meaning of Franchise is ………
(a) Right to elect
(b) Right to vote for the poor
(c) Right to vote
(d) Right to vote for the rich
Answer:
(c) Right to vote

Question 17.
The grant of universal franchise creates ………….
(a) Social equality
(b) Economic equality
(c) Political equality
(d) Legal equality
Answer:
(c) Political equality

Question 18.
Prime Minister of India is appointed by …….
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Speaker
(d) President
Answer:
(d) President

Question 19.
The President of India can nominate ……….
(a) 12 members to Lok Sabha
(b) 2 members of Rajya Sabha
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
(d) 14 members of Rajya Sabha
Answer:
(c) 12 members to Rajya Sabha

Question 20.
The First general elections after independence in India were held in …………
(a) 1948
(b) 1952
(c) 1957
(d) 1947
Answer:
(b) 1952

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The Constitution of India was finally adopted on ………
2. The two types of democracy are …….. and ……….
3. An example for direct democracy is ………
4. India has a …….. form of democracy.
5. …….. was the first Prime Minister of independent India.
6. The first general elections were held in British India in the year …….
7. The Parliament House in India was designed by …… and ……….
Answers:
1. 26th November 1949
2. Direct and Indirect
3. Switzerland
4. Parliamentary
5. Jawaharlal Nehru
6. 1920
7. Edwin Lutyens and Herbert Baker

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
Give Abraham Lincoln’s definition for democracy.
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln defines democracy as a government of the people, by the people and for the people.

Question 2.
Mention the forms of democracy.
Answer:

Question 3.
Distinguish between direct and indirect democracy.
Answer:

Direct democracy	Indirect democracy
When the people themselves directly express their will on public affairs, the type of government is called pure or direct democracy. e.g., Ancient Greek city-states, Switzerland	When the people express their will on public affairs, through their elected representatives, the type of government is called indirect or representative democracy. e.g., The prevailing system of democracy in India, USA and UK

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What are the challenges to democracy? Explain.
Answer:
Democracy is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world. It has not faced a serious challenge or a rival so far. In the last hundred years, there has been an expansion of democracy all over the world. The various aspects of democracy and its challenges are:

1. Illiteracy
2. Poverty
3. Gender discrimination
4. Regionalism
5. Casteism, communalism and religious fundamentalism
6. Corruption
7. Criminalisation of politics.
8. Political violence

Question 2.
Explain the conditions necessary for the success of democracy in India.
Answer:

1. Empowerment of the poor and illiterates to enjoy the goodness of democracy.
2. Willingness among the elected people not to misuse their powerful position and public wealth.
3. Eradication of social evils and dangers from which democracy suffers.
4. An impartial and efficient press to form public opinion.
5. Presence of strong public opinion.
6. Feeling of tolerance and communal harmony among the people.
7. Awareness among the people of the fundamental rights that they are entitled to enjoy.
8. Conscious check and vigilance on the working of the elected representatives.
9. Powerful and responsible opposition.

Question 3.
What is your opinion about democracy in India?
Answer:
India has a parliamentary form of democracy. The Indian Parliament comprises the elected representatives of people and makes the laws for the Country. The participation of people in the decision making and the consent of citizens are the two important elements of the parliamentary form of government in India.

India is the largest democratic country in the world. Democracy in India works on five basic principles. These are sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic, republic.

Every person who is a citizen of India and who is not less than 18 years of age can exercise their right to vote in India, based on universal adult suffrage. There is no discrimination based on a person’s caste, creed, religion, region, gender and education when it comes to providing the right to vote.

VI. Project and Activity.

Question 1.
Discuss in the class what is universal adult franchise? Why is it important?
Answer:

1. The teacher arranges a discussion session.
2. The students will be divided into two groups to discuss on the above content.

Universal Adult Franchise: The Article 326 of the Indian Constitution grants universal adult suffrage, according to which every adult citizen is entitled to cast his/her vote in all state elections unless that citizen is convicted of certain criminal offences (or) deemed unsound of mind.

Why is it important?

1. It has nothing to do with economic growth, or staying ahead, of the competition. Under this system a government is elected that is accountable to the people it governs.
2. Because every vote counts, issues in a society receive their appropriate weight in terms of importance and urgency. ,

Question 2.
“Democracy is the power of majority which respects minority.” Discuss.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires, minority rights equally as it does majority rule.
2. Indeed, as democracy is understood today the minority’s rights must be protected no matter how alienated a minority is from the majority society. Otherwise the minority rights lose their meaning.

Question 3.
Conduct a mock election in your class.
Answer:
Election activities in the class room

1. Campaigning
2. Voting Booth
3. Voter Registration form
4. Campaign posters
5. Cast your Ballot
6. Reward your voters
7. Tally up the votes
8. Graph the votes.

• Before beginning, think of issues, students enjoy voting on, make up copies of a short voter registration form for each student.
• Have a ballot box.
• After the election issue is chosen you will need to make up a ballot for each student.

Question 4.
A group discussion on the merits and demerits of democracy of India in the classroom.
Answer:
Merits and Demerits of Democracy:
Merits

1. Responsible and accountable government.
2. Equality and fraternity.
3. Sense of responsibility among common people.
4. Local self-government.
5. Development and prosperity for all.
6. Popular sovereignty.
7. Sense of cooperation and fraternal feeling

Demerits

1. Indirect or representative nature of democracy.
2. Lack of interest in democratic process and hence lower turnout in elections.
3. Instability in governance due to fractured mandate.
4. Delay in decision – making process.

VII. HOTS

Question 1.
Will you have the right to equality under dictatorship? What would be the attitude regarding public opinion in such a country?
Answer:
No; well, a dictatorship is when a country is run by a minority of people and the citizens of that country don’t have a choice of who runs it. If one person has to make all the decisions for a country, they might use their power badly because they have too much responsibility.

Question 2.
How does democracy lead to a peaceful and a harmonious life among the citizens? Explain.
Answer:
Democracy safeguards the fundamental rights which are defined as basic human freedoms which every Indian citizen has the right to enjoy for a proper and harmonious development of personality.

The students can refer and download from the Internet.

VIII. Life Skills

Select a group of countries, Research each country and tell what type of government it has: Aristoracy, Monarchy, Autocracy, Oligarchy, Theocracy, Democracy, Republic. Then, provide characteristics of this country that helped you determine the type of government.

Country name	Type of Government	Characterstics of the country’s government

The teacher can assign this as a Project & Group Activity for the students.

Forms of Government and Democracy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
A system of government by one person with absolute power is ……
(a) Autocracy
(b) Aristocracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) Oligarchy
Answer:
(a) Autocracy

Question 2.
Democracy as a government of the people, by the people and for the people defined by ……..
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Abraham Lincoln
(d) Herbert Baker
Answer:
(c) Abraham Lincoln

Question 3.
Democracy began ………. years ago.
(a) 2000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 3200
Answer:
(b) 2500

Question 4.
Kudavolai system was a very notable and unique feature of the village administration of …….
(a) Cheras
(b) Cholas
(c) Pandyas
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(b) Cholas

Question 5.
This is the dominant form of government in the contemporary world.
(a) Oligarchy
(b) Monarchy
(c) Theocracy
(d) Democracy
Answer:
(d) Democracy

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The term ‘democracy’ is derived from two Greek words demos meaning people and cratia meaning power.
Reason (R): Literally democracy means “the power of the people”.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (A) explains (R)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 7.
Assertion (A): India has a parliamentary form of democracy.
Reason (R): The Indian Parliament comprises the elected representatives of people.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true (A) explains (R)
(c) (A) is correct and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

Question 8.
Indian citizen above years of age can exercise the right to vote in India.
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
Answer:
(c) 18

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The modern world prefers ……….
2. The democratic institutions existed in India as early as the …….. period.
3. An example for Indirect Democracy is ……….
4. India has a …….. government with elected representatives at the federal, state and local
levels.
5. The two houses of our Parliament are ………. and ………
6. A group of people living in the same place of having particular characteristics in common is ………
Answers:
1. Democracy
2. Vedic
3. India
4. Democracy Quasi Federal
5. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
6. Community

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

IV. Give short answers.

Question 1.
What do you mean by “Republic”?
Answer:
A state in which supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives and which has an elected (or) nominated President rather than a Monarch. e.g., India, Australia.

Question 2.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.
2. Only leaders elected by people should rule the country.
3. People have freedom to express views, freedom to organise and freedom to protest.

Question 3.
Mention the salient features of Democracy.
Answer:

1. Elected representatives of people and final decision-making power to the representatives.
2. Free and fair elections.
3. Universal adult franchise with each vote having equal value.
4. Fundamental rights and protection of individual freedom.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Though democracy in India has been appreciated worldwide for its working there is still a lot of scope for improvement – Discuss.
Answer:
Though democracy in India has been appreciated worldwide for its working, there is still a lot of scope for improvement. The above-mentioned steps must be taken to ensure smooth functioning of democracy in the country.

Indian democracy can be successful and vibrant only when its citizens imbibe and reflect in their behavior the basic democratic values like equality, freedom, social justice, accountability and respect for all. Their mindset, thinking and behavior are expected to be in tune with the essential conditions of democracy. They have to appreciate the opportunities for their desired roles like participation, making the system accountable, fulfilling obligations, and playing proactive roles to actualize the goals of democracy.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 1 Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath

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Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Questions And Answers Question 1.
What were the three major empires shattered by the end of First World War?
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans
(b) Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Russia
(c) Spain, Portugal and Italy
(d) Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy
Answer:
(a) Germany, Austria Hungary, and the Ottomans

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Question 2.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

10th Social History 1st Lesson Question 3.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

10th Social History 1st Lesson Question Answer Question 4.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun Yat-sen
(d) Mao Tsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

10th Social Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Question 5.
What is the Battle of Marne remembered for?
(a) air warfare
(b) trench warfare
(c) submarine warfare
(d) ship warfare
Answer:
(b) trench warfare

Outbreak Of World War I And Its Aftermath Question 6.
Which country after World War I took to a policy of isolation?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Germany
(d) USA
Answer:
(d) USA

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath In Tamil Question 7.
To which country did the first Secretary-General of League of Nations belong?
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Dutch
(d) USA
Answer:
(a) Britain

10th History Timeline Chart In English Question 8.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Japan forced a war on China in the year …….
2. The new state of Albania was created according to the Treaty of ……. signed in May 1913.
3. Japan entered into an alliance with England in the year ……….
4. In the Balkans ……… had mixed population.
5. In the battle of Tannenberg …….. suffered heavy losses.
6. ……… as Prime Minister represented France in Paris Peace Conference.
7. ……… became Prime Minister leading a new coalition of liberals and moderate Socialists before Lenin established the Bolshevik government.
8. Locarno Treaty was signed in the year ……….
Answers:
1. 1894
2. London
3. 1902
4. Macedonia
5. Russia
6. Clemenceau
7. Kerensky
8. 1925

III. Choose the correct statement

10th Social 1st Lesson Question Answer Question 1.
(i) Italy remained a neutral country when the World War broke out.
(ii) Italy was much disappointed over the peace settlement at Versailles.
(iii) The Treaty of Sevres was signed with Italy.
(iv) Italy was denied even small places such as Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (iii) is correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Pdf Question 2.
(i) The Turkish Empire contained many non-Turkish people in the Balkans
(ii) Turkey fought on the side of the central powers
(iii) Britain attacked Turkey and captured Constantinople
(iv) Turkey’s attempt to attack Suez Canal but were repulsed.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iv) is correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

10th Social History Question 3.
Assertion: Germany and the United States were producing cheaper manufactured goods and capturing England’s markets.
Reason: Both the countries produced required raw material for their industries.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are wrong

10th Social Science 1st Lesson Question 4.
Assertion: The first European attempts to carve out colonies in Africa resulted in bloody battles.
Reason: There was stiff resistance from the native population.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason
(c) Both A and R are wrong
(d) R is right but it has no relevance to A.
Answer:
(b) A is right but R is not the correct reason

IV. Match the following.

Answers
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a)

V. Answer briefly.

Outbreak Of World War 1 And Its Aftermath Class 10 Question 1.
How do you assess the importance of the Sino-Japanese War?
Answer:
The Sino-Japanese War proved that Japan was the strongest nation of the East Asia.

Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 2.
Name the countries in the Triple Entente.
Answer:
The countries of Triple-Entente were Britain, France and Russia.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Question 3.
What were the three militant forms of nationalism in Europe?
Answer:
England’s jingoism, France’s chauvinism and Germany’s Kultur were militant forms of nationalism in Europe.

Question 4.
What do you know of trench warfare?
Answer:
Trenches or ditches dug by troops enabled soldiers to safely stand and protect themselves from enemy fire. During the first world war the battle of Mame (between French and Germans) is a memorable one for trench warfare.

Question 5.
What was the role of Mustafa Kemal Pasha?
Answer:
It was Mustafa Kemal Pasha whose efforts caused Turkey’s rebirth as a nation. Not only did Kemal Pasha win freedom for the country but he modernised it and changed it out of all recognition. He put an end to the Sultanate and the Caliphate.

Question 6.
Highlight the global influence of Russian Revolution?
Answer:
In many countries, communist government were formed. Debates over issues like land reforms, social welfare, workers rights and gender equality started taking place in the global context.

Question 7.
List out any two causes for the failure of the League of Nations.
Answer:
Here are the two causes for the failure of the League of Nations:
a. The League appeared to be an organisation of those who were victorious in the First World War. Though it had a world-wide membership. It became very much the centre of European diplomacy.
b. The unanimity of members was required for all its decisions on political issues. Since it lacked the military power of its own, it could not enforce its decisions

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
Imperialism

(а) What do you know of monopoly capitalism?
Answer:
Monopoly capitalism is a capitalist system typified by tread monopolies in the hands of a few people. After 1870, the capitalism of free competition (based on the principle of free trade without any control or regulation by the state) became the capitalism of monopolies.

(b) How did Japan emerge as an imperial power?
Answer:
Japan took to Western education and machinery with a modem army and navy had emerged as an advanced industrialised power. It also followed the imperialistic aggression policy of the European powers faithfully. It surprised the world by giving a crashing defeat to China in the Sino-Japanese War during the period of 1894-95. Japan also defeated Russia in Russo-Japanese War in 1904 and got back Port Arthur from it. In this way it emerged as an imperial power.

(c) Why did the industrial countries need colonies in the nineteenth century?
Answer:
An ever-growing demand for markets and raw materials made the industrial countries hungry for colonies in the nineteenth century.

(d) What were the contrasts capitalism produced?
Answer:
Capitalism produced huge contrasts. Those contrasts were: extreme poverty and extreme wealth, slum and skyscraper, empire-state and dependent exploited colony.

Question 2.
German Emperor
(a) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
(b) What was the violent form of Germany called?
(c) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
(d) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
(a) He was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
(b) The violent form of Germany is called Kultur.
(c) The British agreement with France to occupy Morocco was not consented by Germany.
(d) The colonies of Germany in Africa were attacked by the allies and therefore had to surrender to them.

Question 3.
Balkan Wars

(а) Why was Balkan League formed?
Answer:
Balkan League was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan War in 1912-13.

(b) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
Answer:
The new state of Albania was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia , between them. Turkey was reduced the area around Constantinople.

(c) Who were defeated in this war?
Answer:
The Turkish forces were defeated in the first Balkan War.

(d) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
The name of the Treaty signed at the end of the second Balkan War was the Treaty of Bucharest

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the main causes of the First World War.
Answer:

1. European great powers were divided into two armed camps.
2. One camp consisted of central powers namely Germany, Austria-Hungary Bulgaria and Turkey which was called Triple Alliance formed in 1882.
3. Another camp consisted of Ally powers namely Britain, France, and . Russia which was called Entente cordiale formed in 1904.
4. The aggressive nature of German Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II who proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.
5. The emergence of militant forms of nationalism like England’s Jingoism, France’s Chauvinism and Germany’s Kulthur contributed to the outbreak of the war.
6. Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany wanted declare Morocco an International ‘ colony instead of France occupying it with the support of Britain. Thus France was hostile under German.
7. Balkan countries like Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and Montenegro was succeeding each other in occupying Balkan regions from Turks. So, to control them Balkan League was formed.
8. The Balkan League defeated the Turks in the first Balkan war in 1912.
9. When dispute arose in sharing the spoils of the war with Bulgaria, the second Balkan war broke out in 1913 against it and Bulgaria was defeated. Turks and Bulgaria approached Germany for help.
10. Austrian crown prince Ferdinand was killed by Princip a Serbian lad of Bosnia.
11. Austria could get support from Germany while Serbia from Russia.
12. Germany therefore declared war on Russia on 1 August 1914.
13. The Franco – Russian Alliance forced Germany to wage war against France when Britain also Supported them.
14. Thus, the first world war broke out between central powers and Allies in 1914.

Question 2.
Highlight the provisions of the Treaty of Versailles relating to Germany.
Answer:

1. Germany was found guilty of starting the War and therefore was to pay reparations for the losses suffered. The Reparation Commission set up for deciding the compensation decided on 6,600 million pounds to be paid in installments. All Central Powers were directed to pay war indemnity.
2. The German army was to be limited to 100,000 men. A small navy was allowed, but there were to be no submarines and no air force.
3. The union of Austria and Germany was forbidden and Germany was to acknowledge and respect the Independence of Austria.
4. Germany was forced to give up all the rights and titles over her overseas possessions to the allies. All German colonies became mandated territories under the League of Nations.
5. Germany was forced to revoke the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk (with Russia) and Bucharest (Bulgaria).

Question 3.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

1. Lenin gained the support of a small majority known as Bolsheviks which became the Bolshevik party. His opponents were called as Mensheviks.
2. In October, Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik central committee to decide on immediate revolution.
3. The revolutionary troops and armed factory workers seized the government buildings including the winter palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters on 7th November 1917.
4. The next day, 8th November, the new communist government was formed headed by Lenin.
5. He renamed, the Bolshevik party into Russian communist party.
6. The Russian communist party developed agriculture and Industry, and eliminated Illiteracy and poverty within a record time.
7. Women were given equal rights and right to vote.
8. Land was distributed to poor peasants.
9. Lenin appealed for peace and opted for withdrawing from the war and concentrated on the formation of new government.
10. Therefore, In March 1918, the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed.
11. The communist government encouraged the colonies to fight for their freedom.
12. It led to debates over key issues, land reforms, social welfare, worker’s rights and gender equality started taking place in a global context.

Question 4.
Estimate the work done by the League of Nations, pointing out the reasons for its failure?
Answer:
Reasons for the failure of the League of Nations:

1. The League had been successful until signing of the Locarno Treaty in 1925. It was the year when European powers were confronted with a problem—how to achieve disarmament. The Council of the League set up a commission to hold a Disarmament Conference to sort out the problem.
2. The proposed conference materialised only in February 1932. In this conference, Germany’s demand of equality of arms with France was rejected. In October Hitler withdrew Germany from the conference and the League.
3. In September 1931, Japan attacked Manchuria and the League condemned its action. So Japan resigned from the League.
4.  Italy also resigned from the League in 1937. Thereafter the League was a passive witness to events, taking no part in the crises over the Rhineland. Austria, Czechoslovakia and Poland.
5. The last decisive action it took was in December 1939 when Russia was expelled for her attack on Finland. The Assembly did not meet again and the League of Nations was finally dissolved in 1946.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Students can be taught to mark the places of battles and the capital cities of the countries that were engaged in the War.

Question 2.
An assignment or a project work on the role of Indian soldiers in different battle fields across the globe and the casualties they suffered during the War be attempted by the students.
Answer:
British Indian Army: A Military department was created within the government of the East India company at Kolkata in the year 1776.
The British Indian Army was a critical force for the primacy of the British empire both in India and across the world.

Participation:

1. Maintaining the internal security of the British Raj
2. Anglo-Burmese war
3. First and second Anglo-Sikh war
4. First, Second and Third Anglo Afghan war
5. First and Second Opium wars in China
6. Boxer Rebellion in China

World War I (1914-1918): Indian soldiers 1.3 million Indian soldiers served with Allies in which, 74,187 Indian troops were killed. Indian Army fought against German empire in western front.

World War II (1939-1945): Indian soldiers 1,30,000 men along with 44,000 men in British units in India . Some 87,000 Indian soldiers died in the war.

First Kashmir war (1947): Tensions between Indian and Pakistan largely over Kashmir have never been entirely eliminated.

Indo-Pakistani war (1965): India lost a total of 150-190 tanks during the conflict. Over 3,000 soldiers were killed.

Sino-Indian conflict (1967): Conflict between Indian troops and members of the Chinese People’s Liberation Army on 1st Oct 1967. Indian losses were 88 killed and 163 wounded.

Indo-Pakistani war (1971): The war began with aerial strikes on eleven Indian air stations. Indian forces captured around 5,795 sq.miles land in the west but returned in 1972 Simla agreement.

Kargil war (1999): The war broke out at the Himalayan heights in the Kargil district of India. There was heavy casualties in India.

UN peace keeping mission: In 2014, India is the third largest troop contributor with 7,860 personnel deployed. Nearly 157 Indians have been killed during such operations. The Indian army provided paramedical units to help the sick and the wounded.

IX. Map Work

Mark the following countries on the world map.

1. Great Britain
2. Germany
3. France
4. Italy
5. Morocco
6. Turkey
7. Serbia
8. Bosnia
9. Greece
10. Austria-Hungary
11. Bulgaria
12. Rumania

Outbreak of World War I and Its Aftermath Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……. was in competition with Germany and United States.
(a) Japan
(b) England
(c) Africa
Answer:
(b) England

Question 2.
The outcome of the first world war is the:
(a) French
(b) Russian
(c) American
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Russian

Question 3.
China was politically independent under the ……..
(a) Chin rule
(b) Chou rule
(c) Manchu rule
Answer:
(c) Manchu rule

Question 4.
Chauvinism means:
(a) extreme patriotism
(b) thinking high
(c) blind patriotism
(d) quality of the state
Answer:
(a) extreme patriotism

Question 5.
In 1876, barely 10% of Africa was under rule.
(a) Austria
(b) European
(c) China
Answer:
(b) European

Question 6.
The International court of Justice was set up at ……………. with ……………. judges.
(a) Greece, 10
(b) Hague, 15
(c) Austria,20
(d) America
Answer:
(b) Hague, 15

Question 7.
The term ………. denotes control or rule by a country over the Political and Economical life of another country.
(a) Imperialism
(b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism
Answer:
(a) Imperialism

Question 8.
The event of police and soldiers fired on th peaceful processions against Tsar in Russia was called:
(a) Bloody Sunday
(b) Petrograd problem
(c) Worst incident
(d) Militant action
Answer:
(a) Bloody Sunday

Question 9.
The industrial revolution created a need for …….
(a) Peace
(b) War
(c) Raw materials
Answer:
(c) Raw materials

Question 10.
The years of the first world war is:
(a) 1914-1918
(b) 1914-1916
(c) 1914-1917
(d) 1914-1920
Answer:
(a) 1914-1918

Question 11.
“Germany alone was competent to rule the whole world”, was said by
(a) Bismark
(b) Kaiser Wilhelm II
(c) Hitler
Answer:
(b) Kaiser Wilhelm II

Question 12.
France wanted to get back
(a) Alsace and Lorraine
(b) Bosnia and Herzegovina
(c) Estonia and Latvia
Answer:
(a) Alsace and Lorraine

Question 13.
Austria declared war on Serbia on
(a) 28^th July 1914
(6) 28^th June 1914
(c) 28^th August 1914
Answer:
(a) 28^th July 1914

Question 14.
Germany invaded France by crossing
(a) Luxemburg
(b) Rhineland
(c) Belgium
Answer:
(c) Belgium

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The First World War started in ……….
2. Turkey extended her support to the ……….
3. ……… expedition was an utter failure for the British.
4. …….. an American ship was torpedoed by a German submarine.
5. In Russia, the Tsarist government was overthrown by ……..
6. Germany was sued for peace on November ………
7. The League of Nations was officially founded in January ……..
8. Japan captured Manchuria in …………
9. The turning point of the First World War was the ……….
10. The Bolshevik Party was renamed as ……….
11. The Treaty of Versailles abolished ……… in Germany, Austria and Russia.
12. The League had its headquarters in ……….
13. In March 1918, the …… was signed.
Answers:
1. 1914
2. Central Powers
3. Dardanelles
4. Lusitania
5. Lenin
6. 11,1918
7. 20,1920
8. 1931
9. entry of America
10. Russian Communist Party
11. Monarchy
12. Geneva
13. Treaty of Brest- Litovsk

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (c)
4. (a)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (d)
5. (b)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Define Imperialism.
Answer:
The word‘imperialism’is defined in three ways:

1. The term imperialism refers to the policy of extending a country’s rule over the others.
2. It is a policy of aggressive behaviour of one state against another.
3. It also refers to a country’s domination over the political and economic interest of another nation to exploit its natural resources.

Question 2.
Name the countries of Triple Alliance? When was it formed?
Answer:
Germany, Austria-Hungary and Bulgaria and Turkey were the countries of Triple Alliance. It was formed under the guidance of Bismarck in 1882.

Question 3.
Industrial Revolution is an important cause for the rise of Imperialism – Explain it.
Answer:

1. Industrial Revolution in European countries resulted in a great increase in production. So there was a need for raw materials and new markets.
2. It also instructed a great progress in the means of transport and communication.
3. Due to the “Protective trade policy” of Europe, they could not sell their finished goods in their local markets.
4. These causes forced the Europeans to find new markets in Asian and African continents which led to the rise of Imperialism.

Question 4.
Write a note on Balkan League.
Answer:
Balkan is a region in South-eastern Europe between the Mediterranean sea and the Black sea.

Turkey extended her empire over the Balkans. Taking advantage of the political instability of the Turkish empire, Greece, Serbia, Bulgaria and later Montenegro tried control over it and formed the Balkan League in March 1912.

Question 5.
Why did Germany needed colonies?
Answer:

1. Germany needed colonies as a sign of her world importance.
2. She needed colonies for her growing population.
3. To get raw materials and markets for its finished products.

Question 6.
What do you mean by Pravada.
Answer:
Pravada is a Russian word meaning ‘Truth’. It was the official newspaper of the communist party of the soviet union from 1918 to 1991.

Question 7.
Why did America enter into First World War?
Answer:

1. In 1917, Germany drowned four merchant ships of America including Lusitania with her submarines.
2. More than hundred Americans died in this incident.
3. This incident made the American President Woodrow Wilson angry and he declared war on Germany on the 6^th April of 1917.

Question 8.
What is the significance of the Treaty of Portsmouth?
Answer:
In the Russo-Japanese war, of 1904, Japan defeated Russia. By the Treaty of Portsmouth, got back Port Arthur, also entered the circle of great powers.

Question 9.
What are the organs of the League of Nations?
Answer:
The League of Nations consisted of: The General Assembly, The Council, The Secretariat, The International Court of Justice, and The International Labour Organisation.

Question 10.
Write any two incidents of violations by the member countries of the League.
Answer:

1. Japan attacked Manchuria in September 1931 and when the League condemned Japan, it resigned from the League.
2. Russia attacked Finland in 1939.

Question 11.
Name the prominent industrial areas in the Russian Empire?
Answer:
St. Petersburg and Moscow.

Question 12.
Who led the procession of workers to the event “Bloody Sunday” in Russia?
Answer:
Father Gapon

Question 13.
Write a note on Trusts and Cartels.
Answer:

1. A Trust is an Industrial organization in USA engaged in production, distribution of a commodity and control over its supply and price.
2. A Cartel was an association in Germany which was based upon a contractual agreement between people doing same type of business.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Causes for the rise of Imperialism

(a) What became the fashion of the later part of the 19^th century?
Answer:
Imperialism became the fashion of the later part of the 19^th century.

(b) What was the “White man’s burden”?
Answer:
To civilise the backward and uncivilised native people of Africa and Asia.

(c) Why were the European nations forced to acquire new colonies?
Answer:
The European nations were forced to acquire new colonies to get the Balance of power with their neighbours and competitors.

(d) What promoted the spirit of imperialism?
Answer:
The discovery of new routes to African and Asian continents.

Question 2.
Rise of Japan

(a) Which incident of Japan surprised the whole world?
Answer:
The crushing defeat of China by little Japan in the Sino-Japanese war of (1894-95) surprised the world.

(b) Why did Japan entered an alliance with England?
Answer:
Japan developed hostile towards Russia because Franch was the ally of Russia. Therefore, it entered into an alliance with Britain.

(c) What was the result of the Russo-Japanese war?
Answer:
In the Russo-Japanese war of 1904, Japan defeated Russia and the Treaty of Portsmouth was signed thereby got back Port Arthur.

(d) What was the position of Japan after this war?
Answer:
Japan after this war, entered the charmed circle of the great powers.

Question 3.
Balkan Problem

(a) Name the Balkan countries.
Answer:
Serbia, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece and Montenegro.

(b) How did the First Balkan War come to an end?
Answer:
The First Balkan War came to an end by the “Treaty of London”.

(c) Why did the other Balkan countries declare war on Bulgaria?
Answer:
Dispute arose between Serbia and Bulgaria in sharing the spoils of the war.

(d) What was the result of the Second Balkan war?
Answer:
Bulgaria was defeated and Serbia gained more territories.

Question 4.
Violent Form Of Nationalism

(a) What was the attitude developed with the growth of Nationalism?
Answer:
The attitude of “ My country right or wrong, I support it” developed.

(b) What is meant by Jingoism, Chauvinism, Kulthur.
Answer:
Jingoism – England – Blind patriotism.
Chauvinism – France – Extreme Patriotism.
Kulthur – Germany – Thinking high.

(c) Why did hatred developed towards other countries?
Answer:
The love for one country demanded hatred for another country.

(d) What did the newspapers do?
Answer:
Newspapers whipped up nationalist feelings by twisting the situation obtained in other countries.

Question 5.
War in the Near East front

(a) When did Turkey enter the war?
Answer:
In October 1914.

(b) Why was it considered a terrible blow?
Answer:
Because communications between Russia and the Allies were cut off.

(c) Why did Britain wanted to capture Gallipoli Peninsula?
Answer:
To control the Dardanelles and to capture Constantinople.

(d) What was the result of Dardanelles expedition?
Answer:
It was an utter failure to Britain.

Question 6.
League of nations

(a) When was the covenant of the League of nations formed?
Answer:
The Covenant of the League was formed at the Paris peace conference in 1919.

(b) Who helped in its formation?
Answer:
President ofU.S.A Woodrow Wilson.

(c) What was the structure of the League?
Answer:
The League consisted of Assembly,, the council, the Secretariat, Court of Justice and the International Labour organization.

(d) What were the privileges Enjoyed by the member countries?
Answer:
Each member had one vote and even the small nations possessed the right of Veto (The vote that blocks a decision).

Question 7.
League of Nations:

(a) Name the organisations which were found before the League of Nation.
Answer:

1. The League of Nations society 1915.
2. The World League for Peace 1917
3. The League of Free Nations Association 1918.

(b) Where was the League of Nation’s headquarters situated?
Answer:
The League of Nation’s headquarters was situated at Geneva in Switzerland.

(c) How should the member nations solve the problems?
Answer:
The member nations should solve the problems only through the League of Nations.

(d) When did Japan capture Manchuria?
Answer:
Japan captured Manchuria in 1931.

VI. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What were the effects of Imperialism?
Answer:
Positive effects:

1. The powerful nations developed the transport and communication facilities in the weaker nations.
2. The formers gave the latter education, medical care and better methods of sanitation.
3. They introduced new farming methods to get increased food production.
4. These changes meant less death in the colonies and overall improvement in the standard of living.
5. It promoted order, discipline and unity in countries.
6. Clemenceau of trance, Orlando of Italy, Lloyd George of Britain and Woodrow Wilson of America were the main personalities of the conference.

The Treaty of Versailles:

1. The peace treaty with Germany was signed and it was called the Treaty of Versailles.
2. A huge war indemnity was imposed or Germany and German army was reduced.
3. The overseas possessions of Germany were divided among the victorious nations.
4. Germany surrendered Alsace and Lorraine to France.
5. The saar coal field was to be occupied by France for 15 years.

Other important treaties:

1. The Treaty of Germaine was concluded in Austria.
2. The Treaty of Trianon was concluded with Hungary.
3. The Treaty of Nevilly was concluded with Bulgaria.
4. The Treaty of Severes was concluded with Turkey.

New Nations created:

1. In many countries, monarchies gave place to Democracies.
2. New Republics of Czechoslovakia and Poland were born.
3. The Republic of Austria and Hungary was recognized.

Negative effects:

1. The colonies had no freedom. They were exploited and treated as slaves.
2. Imperialism led to the exploitation of the natural resources of the colonies.
3. The colonies were used as the suppliers of raw materials and markets for finished products.
4. The colonies plunged into poverty and unemployment due to the disappearance of indigenous industries.
5. The traditional pattern of agriculture was completely changed as the natives were forced to cultivate raw materials rather than food crops.
6. The introduction of western culture and education led to the loss of traditional culture, of the colonies.
7. It also led to the extinction of some native races of Africa due to slave trade.
8. The policy of racial discrimination was practiced in some colonies.

Question 2.
What were the criticisms raised against the peace settlement?
Answer:

1. The defeated powers were absent from the negotiations.
2. Self-determination was the principle for restoring peace among nations, but Germany alone did not follow it.
3. Austria was not allowed to unite with Germany.
4. Germany was thus left with total injustice.
5. Germany had to pay 6,600 million pounds for reparation which was beyond her capacity.
6. Germany was newly bordered by small weak states.
7. In 1920, the United States took a policy of Isolation.
8. Italy was given merely small places like Trieste, Istria and the south Tyrol.
9. The peace settlement created many national minorities and countries gave promises to respect the rights of minorities.
10. Separate treaties were drawn up and signed by the allies with Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria and Turkey.
11. Though, it was largely due to the pressure from President of USA, Woodrow Wilson, League was formed but could not become the member of the League.

Question 3.
What were the achievements of League of Nations?
Answer:
The League of Nations succeeded in solving many problems during its existence for about 20 years.

1. It settled the dispute between Sweden and Finland regarding the ownership of Aaland island.
2. It solved a boundary dispute in Silesia between Poland and Germany.
3. It solved a dispute between Greece and Italy over the Island of Corfu.
4. It avoided a war between Greece and Bulgaria over the border disputes.
5. In 1926, Germany was admitted as a member of the League of Nations. In 1934, Russia was also admitted in the League.
6. It solved a border issue between Peru and Columbia.
7. Through its other organs, the League prevented the spread of many diseases.
8. It extended its helping hand in solving the problems of refugees and lepers.
9. It whole heartedly promoted cultural co-operation among the nations.
10. It attempted to raise the standard of education in various states.
11. The International Court of Justice handled more than thirty cases. It delivered judgement in some cases and in some others gave advisory opinions.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Geometry Ex 4.4

10th Maths Exercise 4.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The length of the tangent to a circle from a point P, which is 25 cm away from the centre is 24 cm. What is the radius of the circle?
Solution:
24² + r² = 25²
576 + r² = 625
r² = 625 – 576
= 49

Ex 4.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
∆LMN is a right angled triangle with ∠L = 90°. A circle is inscribed in it. The lengths of the sides containing the right angle are 6 cm and 8 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Solution:
∆LMN,
By Pythagoras theorem,

Exercise 4.4 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
A circle is inscribed in ∆ABC having sides 8 cm, 10 cm and 12 cm as shown in figure, Find AD, BE and CF.

Solution:
We know that the tangents drawn from are external point to a circle are equal.
Therefore AD = AF = x say.
BD = BE = y say and
CE = CF = z say
Now, AB = 12 cm, BC = 8 cm, and CA= 10 cm.
x + y = 12, y + z = 8 and z + x = 10
(x + y) + (y + z) + (z + x) = 12 + 8 + 10
2(x + y + z) = 30
x + y + z = 15
Now, x + y = 12 and x + y + z = 15
12 + z = 15 ⇒ z = 3
y + z = 8 and x + y + z = 15
x + 8 = 15 ⇒ x = 7
and z + x = 10 and x + y + z = 15
10 + y = 15 ⇒ y = 5
Hence, AD = x = 7 cm, BE = y = 5 cm
and CF = z = 3 cm.

10th Maths Exercise 4.4 Question 4.
PQ is a tangent drawn from a point P to a circle with centre O and QOR is a diameter of the circle such that ∠POR = 120° . Find ∠OPQ.
Solution:
∠POR + ∠POQ = 180° (straight angle = 180°)
∴ 120 +∠POQ = 180°
∠POQ = 60°
∠OQP = 90° (∵ radius is ⊥^r to the tangent at the point of contact)

∴ ∠POQ + ∠PQO + ∠OPQ = 180° (∵ sum of the 3 angles of a triangle is 180°)
∴ 60 + 90 + ∠OPQ = 80°
∠OPQ = 180° – 150° = 30°

10th Maths Geometry Question 5.
A tangent ST to a circle touches it at B. AB is a chord such that ∠ABT = 65°. Find ∠AOB , where “O” is the centre of the circle.
Solution:
In the figure,
∠OBT = 90° (∵OB-radius, BT – Tangent)
= 115°
∴ ∠OBA = 90° – 65°
∠OAB = 25° (OA = OB)
∴ ∠AOB = 180° – 50°
= 130°

10th Maths Practical Geometry Guide Pdf Question 6.
In figure, O is the centre of the circle with radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects the circle E, if AB is the tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB.

Solution:
In ∆OPT, OP = r = 5 cm
OT = 13 cm
PT = 12 cm
In ∆OPA, OA² = OP² + AP² ………….. (1)
In ∆OAE, OA² = OE² + AE² …………. (2)
Equating (1) and (2),
OP² + AP² = OE² + AE² (∵ OP = OE = r)
∴ AP = AE
Parallel BQ = EB
In ∆AET, AT² = AE² + ET²
∴ ET² = AT² – AE² = (AT + AE) (AT – AE)
∴ ET² = (AT + AP) (AT – AE) (∵ AE = AP)
∴ 8 × 8 = 12 × (AT – AE)

10th Geometry Question 7.
In two concentric circles, a chord of length 16 cm of larger circle becomes a tangent to the smaller circle whose radius is 6 cm. Find the radius of the larger circle.
Solution:
AB = 16 cm given
CA = CB(∵ OC ⊥^r AB)

OB² = OC² + BC²
= 6² + 8²
= 36 + 64 = 100
OB = Radius of the larger circle = \(\sqrt{100}\) = 10 cm.

10th Geometry Exercise 4.4 Question 8.
Two circles with centres O and O’ of radii 3 cm and 4 cm respectively intersect at two points P and Q, such that OP and O’P are tangents to the two circles. Find the length of the common chord PQ.
Solution:
Given: OP = OQ = 4
O’P = O’Q = 3

OO’ is the perpendicular bisector of chord PQ.
Let R be the point of intersection of PQ and OO’.
Assume PR = QR = x and OR = y
In OPO’, OP² + O’P² = (OO’)² ⇒ OO’
= \(\sqrt{4^{2}+3^{2}}\) = 5
OR = y ⇒ OR = 5 – y
In ∆OPR, PR² + OR² = OP² ⇒ x² + y = 4² ……….. (1)
In ∆O’PR, PR² + O’R² = O’P² ⇒ x² + (5 – y)² = 9 ………….(2)
(1) – (2)=> y² – (25 + y² – 10y) = 16 – 9
⇒ y² – 25 – y² + 10y = 7 .
⇒ 10y = 25 + 7 ⇒ 10y =32
⇒ y =3.2
Substituting y = 3.2 in (1), we get x = \(\sqrt{4^{2}-3.2^{2}}\)
x = 2.4
PQ = 2x ⇒ PQ = 4.8 cm

10th Maths Geometry Exercise 4.4 Question 9.
Show that the angle bisectors of a triangle are concurrent.
Solution:

In ∆ABC, let AD, BE are two angle bisectors.
They meet at the point ‘O’
We have to prove that = \(\frac{A C}{C D}=\frac{A O}{O D}\)
Construct CO to meet the interesecting point O from C.

Hence proved.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Practical Geometry Question 10.
In ∆ABC , with ∠B = 90° , BC = 6 cm and AB = 8 cm, D is a point on AC such that AD = 2 cm and E is the midpoint of AB. Join D to E and extend it to meet at F. Find BF.
In the figure ∆ABC, ∆EBF are similar triangles.
Solution:
Consider DABC, Then D, E, F are respective points on the sides CA, AB and BC. By constrution D, E, F are collinear.

10th Maths Guide Geometry Question 11.
An artist has created a triangular stained glass window and has one strip of small length left before completing the window. She needs to figure out the length of left out portion based on the lengths of the other sides as shown in the figure.

Solution:
In the figure, let O be the concurrent point of the angle bisectors of the three angles.

10th Maths Practical Geometry Question 12.
Draw a tangent at any point R on the circle of radius 3.4 cm and centre at P ?
Solution:
Radius = 3.4 cm
Centre = P
Tangent at any point R.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) Draw a circle with centre P of radius 3.4 cm.
(2) Take a point R on the circle. Join PR.
(3) Draw ⊥^r line TT¹ to PR. Which passes through R.
(4) TT1 is the required tangent.

10th Maths Geometry Guide Question 13.
Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem.
Solution:
Construction:
Steps:
(1) With O as the centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
(2) Take a point R on the circle. Through R draw any chord PR.
(3) Take a point Q distinct from P and R on the circle, so that P, Q, R are in anti-clockwise direction. Join PQ and QR.
(4) Through R drawn a tangent TT¹ such that ∠TRP = ∠PQR.
(5) TT¹ is the required tangent.

Maths Geometry 10th Question 14.
Draw the two tangents from a point which is 10 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Solution:
Radius = 5 cm
The distance between the point from the centre is 10 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 5 cm.
(2) Draw a line OP =10 cm.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP which cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA and PB = 8.7 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle ∠POA;

10th Maths New Syllabus Exercise 4.4 Question 15.
Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Solution:
Radius = 4 cm
The distance of a point from the center =11 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With centre O, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
(2) Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
(3) Draw a ⊥^r bisector of OP, which cuts atM.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 10.2 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle

10th Maths 4.4 Question 16.
Draw the two tangents from a point which is 5 cm away from the centre of a circle of diameter 6 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Solution:
Diameter = 6 cm
Radius = \(\frac{6}{2}\) = 3 cm.
The distance between the centre and the point is 5 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) With centre O, draw a circle of radius , 3cm.
(2) Draw a line OP = 5 cm.
(3) Draw a bisector of OP, which cuts OP and M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 4 cm
Verification:
In the right triangle ∆OPA,

10th Maths Book Geometry Question 17.
Draw a tangent to the circle from the point P having radius 3.6 cm, and centre at O. Point P is at a distance 7.2 cm from the centre.
Radius 3.6 cm.
Solution:
Distance from the centre to the point is 7.2 cm.

Construction:
Steps:
(1) Draw a circle of radius 3.6 cm with centre O.
(2) Draw a line OP = 7.2 cm.
(3) Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
(4) With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle at A and B.
(5) Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents. Thus length of the tangents are PA = PB = 6.2 cm.
Verification:
In the right triangle.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Mensuration Ex 7.1

10th Maths Exercise 7.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 5:7 and its curved surface area is 5500 sq.cm. Find its radius and height.
Solution:
r = 5x
h = 7x
CSA of a cylinder = 2πrh

∴ Radius = 5 × 5 = 25 cm
height = 7 × 5 = 35 cm

Ex 7.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A solid iron cylinder has total surface area of 1848 sq.m. Its curved surface area is five – sixth of its total surface area. Find the radius and height of the iron cylinder.
The external radius and the length of a hollow
Solution:

Exercise 7.1 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The external radius and the length of a hollow wooden log are 16 cm and 13 cm respectively. If its thickness is 4 cm then find its T.S.A.
Solution:
R = 16 cm
r = R – thickness
r = 12 cm
= 16 – 4 = 12 cm
h = 13 cm
Total surface area of hollow cylinder = 2π(R + r) (R – r + h) sq. units.

∴ T.S.A = 2992 cm²

10th Maths Mensuration Exercise 7.1 Question 4.
A right angled triangle PQR where ∠Q = 90° is rotated about QR and PQ. If QR = 16 cm and PR = 20 cm, compare the curved surface areas of the right circular cones so formed by the triangle.
Solution:
When it is rotated about PQ the C.S.A of the cone formed = πrl.


1005.71 > 754.28
∴ CSA of the cone rotated about its PQ is larger than the CSA of the cone rotated about QR.

10th Maths Exercise 7.1 Question 5.
4 persons live in a conical tent whose slant height is 19 cm. If each person require 22 cm² of the floor area, then find the height of the tent.
Solution:
Base area of the cone = πr² = sq units.

10th Maths Exercise 7.1 In Tamil Question 6.
A girl wishes to prepare birthday caps in the form of right circular cones for her birthday party, using a sheet of paper whose area is 5720 cm², how many caps can be made with radius 5 cm and height 12 cm.
Solution:

10th Maths 7.1 Question 7.
The ratio of the radii of two right circular cones of same height is 1 : 3. Find the ratio of their curved surface area when the height of each cone is 3 times the radius of the smaller cone.
Solution:

10th Mensuration Solutions Question 8.
The radius of a sphere increases by 25%. Find the percentage increase in its surface area.
Solution:
Surface area of sphere A = 4πr²
New radius = r’ = 1.25r,
[∵ r + 0.25r] (25% = 0.25)
New surface area = A’ = 4π(r’)²
= 4π(1.25 r)²

10th Maths Ex 7.1 Question 9.
The internal and external diameters of a hollow hemispherical vessel are 20 cm and 28 cm respectively. Find the cost to paint the vessel all over at ₹ 0.14 per cm².
Solution:
External diameter D = 28 cm
Internal diameter d = 20 cm

10th Maths 7.1 Exercise Question 10.
The frustum shaped outer portion of the table lamp has to be painted including the top part. Find the total cost of painting the lamp if the cost of painting 1 sq.cm is ₹ 2.

Solution:
Here given that R = 12 m
r = 6 m
h = 8 m

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.1

Exercise 2.1 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 1.
Find all positive integers which when divided by 3 leaves remainder 2.
Answer:
The positive integers when divided by 3 leaves remainder 2.
By Euclid’s division lemma a = bq + r, 0 ≤ r < b.
Here a = 3q + 2, where 0 ≤ q < 3, a leaves remainder 2 when divided by 3.
∴ 2, 5, 8, 11 ……………..

10th Maths Exercise 2.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
A man has 532 flower pots. He wants to arrange them in rows such that each row contains 21 flower pots. Find the number of completed rows and how many flower pots are left over?
Answer:
Here a = 532, b = 21
Using Euclid’s division algorithm
a = bq + r
532 = 21 × 25 + 7
Number of completed rows = 21
Number of flower pots left over = 7

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Ex 2.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Prove that the product of two consecutive positive integers is divisible by 2.
Solution:
Let n – 1 and n be two consecutive positive integers. Then their product is (n – 1)n.
(n – 1)(n) = n² – n.
We know that any positive integer is of the form 2q or 2q + 1 for some integer q. So, following cases arise.
Case I. When n = 2q.
In this case, we have
n² – n = (2q)² – 2q = 4q² – 2q = 2q(2q – 1)
⇒ n² – n = 2r, where r = q(2q – 1)
⇒ n² – n is divisible by 2.

Case II. When n = 2q + 1
In this case, we have
n² – n = (2q + 1)² – (2q + 1)
= (2q + 1)(2q + 1 – 1) = 2q(2q + 1)
⇒ n² – n = 2r, where r = q (2q + 1).
⇒ n² – n is divisible by 2.
Hence, n² – n is divisible by 2 for every positive integer n.
Hence it is Proved

10th Maths Exercise 2.1 Question 4.
When the positive integers a, b and c are divided by 13, the respective remainders are 9,7 and 10. Show that a + b + c is divisible by 13.
Answer:
Let the positive integer be a, b, and c
We know that by Euclid’s division lemma
a = bq + r
a = 13q + 9 ….(1)
b = 13q + 7 ….(2)
c = 13q + 10 ….(3)
Add (1) (2) and (3)
a + b + c = 13q + 9 + 13q + 7 + 13q + 10
= 39q + 26
a + b + c = 13 (3q + 2)
This expansion will be divisible by 13
∴ a + b + c is divisible by 13

10th Maths 2.1 Exercise Question 5.
Prove that square of any integer leaves the remainder either 0 or 1 when divided by 4.
Solution:
Let x be any integer.
The square of x is x².
Let x be an even integer.
x = 2q + 0
then x² = 4q² + 0
When x be an odd integer
When x = 2k + 1 for some interger k.
x² = (2k + 1 )²
= 4k² + 4k + 1
= 4k (k + 1) + 1
= 4q + 1
where q = k(k + 1) is some integer.
Hence it is proved.

10th Maths Exercise 2.1 In Tamil Question 6.
Use Euclid’s Division Algorithm to find the Highest Common Factor (H.C.F) of
(i) 340 and 412
Answer:
To find the HCF of 340 and 412 using Euclid’s division algorithm. We get
412 = 340 × 1 + 72
The remainder 72 ≠ 0
Again applying Euclid’s division algorithm to the division of 340
340 = 72 × 4 + 52
The remainder 52 ≠ 0
Again applying Euclid’s division algorithm to the division 72 and remainder 52 we get
72 = 52 × 1 + 20
The remainder 20 ≠ 0
Again applying Euclid’s division algorithm
52 = 20 × 2 + 12
The remainder 12 ≠ 0
Again applying Euclid’s division algorithm
20 = 12 × 1 + 8
The remainder 8 ≠ 0
Again applying Euclid’s division algorithm
12 = 8 × 1 + 4
The remainder 4 ≠ 0
Again applying Euclid’s division algorithm
8 = 4 × 2 + 0
The remainder is zero
∴ HCF of 340 and 412 is 4

(ii) 867 and 255
Answer:
To find the HCF of 867 and 255 using
Euclid’s division algorithm. We get
867 = 255 × 3 + 102
The remainder 102 ≠ 0
Using Euclid’s division algorithm
255 = 102 × 2 + 51
The remainder 51 ≠ 0
Again using Euclid’s division algorithm
102 = 51 × 2 + 0
The remainder is zero
∴ HCF = 51
∴ HCF of 867 and 255 is 51

(iii) 10224 and 9648
Answer:
Find the HCF of 10224 and 9648 using Euclid’s division algorithm. We get
10224 = 9648 × 1 + 576
The remainder 576 ≠ 0
Again using Euclid’s division algorithm
9648 = 576 × 16 + 432
The remainder 432 ≠ 0
Using Euclid’s division algorithm
576 = 432 × 1 + 144
The remainder 144 ≠ 0
Again using Euclid’s division algorithm
432 = 144 × 3 + 0
The remainder is 0
∴ HCF = 144
The HCF of 10224 and 9648 is 144

(iv) 84,90 and 120
Answer:
Find the HCF of 84, 90 and 120 using Euclid’s division algorithm
90 = 84 × 1 + 6
The remainder 6 ≠ 0
Using Euclid’s division algorithm
4 = 14 × 6 + 0
The remainder is 0
∴ HCF = 6
The HCF of 84 and 90 is 6
Find the HCF of 6 and 120
120 = 6 × 20 + 0
The remainder is 0
∴ HCF of 120 and 6 is 6
∴ HCF of 84, 90 and 120 is 6

Numbers And Sequences 10th Class Question 7.
Find the largest number which divides 1230 and 1926 leaving remainder 12 in each case.
Solution:
The required number is the H.C.F. of the numbers.
1230 – 12 = 1218,
1926 – 12 = 1914
First we find the H.C.F. of 1218 & 1914 by Euclid’s division algorithm.
1914 = 1218 × 1 + 696
The remainder 696 ≠ 0.
Again using Euclid’s algorithm
1218 = 696 × 1 + 522
The remainder 522 ≠ 0.
Again using Euclid’s algorithm.
696 = 522 × 1 + 174
The remainder 174 ≠ 0.
Again by Euclid’s algorithm
522 = 174 × 3 + 0
The remainder is zero.
∴ The H.C.F. of 1218 and 1914 is 174.
∴ The required number is 174.

10th Maths Ex 2.1 Question 8.
If d is the Highest Common Factor of 32 and 60, find x and y satisfying d = 32x + 60y.
Answer:
Find the HCF of 32 and 60
60 = 32 × 1 + 28 ….(1)
The remainder 28 ≠ 0
By applying Euclid’s division lemma
32 = 28 × 1 + 4 ….(2)
The remainder 4 ≠ 0
Again by applying Euclid’s division lemma
28 = 4 × 7 + 0….(3)
The remainder is 0
HCF of 32 and 60 is 4
From (2) we get
32 = 28 × 1 + 4
4 = 32 – 28
= 32 – (60 – 32)
4 = 32 – 60 + 32
4 = 32 × 2 -60
4 = 32 x 2 + (-1) 60
When compare with d = 32x + 60 y
x = 2 and y = -1
The value of x = 2 and y = -1

10th Samacheer Maths Exercise 2.1 Question 9.
A positive integer when divided by 88 gives the remainder 61. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 11?
Solution:
Let a (+ve) integer be x.
x = 88 × y + 61
61 = 11 × 5 + 6 (∵ 88 is multiple of 11)
∴ 6 is the remainder. (When the number is divided by 88 giving the remainder 61 and when divided by 11 giving the remainder 6).

10th Maths 2.1 Question 10.
Prove that two consecutive positive integers are always coprime.
Answer:

1. Let the consecutive positive integers be x and x + 1.
2. The two number are co – prime both the numbers are divided by 1.
3. If the two terms are x and x + 1 one is odd and the other one is even.
4. HCF of two consecutive number is always 1.
5. Two consecutive positive integer are always coprime.

Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic
Every composite number can be written uniquely as the product of power of prime is called fundamental theorem of Arithmetic.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1.5 இலக்கியவகைச் சொற்கள்

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
எல்லார்க்கும் எளிதில் பொருள் விளங்கும் சொல் ……………..
அ) இயற்சொல்
ஆ) திரிசொல்
இ) திசைச்சொல்
ஈ) வடசொல்
Answer:
அ) இயற்சொல்

Question 2.
பலபொருள் தரும் ஒரு சொல் என்பது ……………………..
அ) இயற்சொல்
ஆ) திரிசொல்
இ) திசைச்சொல்
ஈ) வடசொல்
Answer:
ஆ) திரிசொல்

Question 3.
வடமொழி என்று அழைக்கப்படும் மொழி …………………………..
அ) மலையாளம்
ஆ) கன்ன டம்
இ) சமஸ்கிருதம்
ஈ) தெலுங்கு
Answer:
இ) சமஸ்கிருதம்

பொருத்துக

1. இயற்சொல் – பெற்றம்
2. திரிசொல் – இரத்தம்
3. திசைச்சொல் – அழுவம்
4. வடசொல் – சோறு
Answer:
1. இயற்சொல் – சோறு
2. திரிசொல் – அழுவம்
3. திசைச்சொல் – பெற்றம்
4. வடசொல் – இரத்தம்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
மண், பொன் என்பன எவ்வகைச் சொற்கள்?
Answer:

• எளிதில் பொருள் விளங்கும் வகையில் அமைந்த சொற்கள் இயற்சொற்கள் எனப்படும்.
• இயற்சொல் பெயர், வினை, இடை, உரி ஆகிய நான்கு வகையிலும் வரும்.
• மண், பொன் – பெயர் இயற்சொல்

Question 2.
இயற்சொல்லின் நான்கு வகைகள் யாவை?
Answer:
இயற்சொல்லின் நான்கு வகைகள்.
இயற்சொல் பெயர், வினை, இடை, உரி ஆகியன நான்கு வகைகளாகும்.

எடுத்துக்காட்டு :
மண், பொன் – பெயர் இயற்சொல்
நடந்தான், வந்தான் – வினை இயற்சொல் அவனை,
அவனால் – இடை இயற்சொல்
மாநகர் – உரி இயற்சொல்

Question 3.
குங்குமம், கமலம் என்பன எவ்வகை வடசொற்கள்?
Answer:
கமலம், குங்குமம் என வடமொழியில் இருப்பது போன்றே தமிழில் எழுதுவதைத் தற்சமம் என்பர்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
இலக்கிய வகைச் சொற்கள் எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
இலக்கிய வகைச் சொற்கள் நான்கு வகைப்படும்

1. இயற்சொல்,
2. திரிசொல்,
3. திசைச்சொல்,
4. வடசொல்

(i) இயற்சொல் : எளிதில் பொருள் விளங்கும் வகையில் அமைந்த சொற்கள் இயற்சொற்கள் எனப்படும். எடுத்துக்காட்டு : கடல், கப்பல்

(ii) திரிசொல் : கற்றோருக்கு மட்டுமே விளங்குவதாகவும் இலக்கியங்களில் மட்டுமே பயின்று வருபவையாகவும் அமையும் சொற்கள் திரிசொற்கள் எனப்படும். எடுத்துக்காட்டு : வங்கூழ், அழுவம்.

(iii) திசைச்சொல் : வடமொழி தவிர, பிறமொழிகளில் இருந்து வந்து தமிழில் இடம்பெறும் சொற்கள் திசைச்சொற்கள் எனப்படும். எடுத்துக்காட்டு: சாவி, சன்னல்.

(iv) வடசொல் : வடமொழியிலிருந்து வந்து தமிழில் இடம் பெறும் சொற்கள் வடசொற்கள் எனப்படும். எடுத்துக்காட்டு: வருடம், மாதம்.

Question 2.
திரிசொல்லின் வகைகள் குறித்து விளக்குக.
Answer:
திரிசொல்லின் வகைகள் :
திரிசொற்களை ஒரு பொருள் குறித்த பல திரிசொற்கள் எனவும். பல பொருள் குறித்த ஒரு திரிசொல் எனவும் இருவகைப்படுத்தலாம்.

ஒரு பொருள் குறித்த பல திரிசொற்கள்
எடுத்துக்காட்டு :
வங்கம், அம்பி, நாவாய் – என்பன கப்பல் என்னும் ஒரே பொருளைத் தருவதால் ஒரு பொருள் குறித்த பல திரிசொற்கள் என்பர்.

பல பொருள் குறித்த ஒரு திரிசொல் :
எடுத்துக்காட்டு :
இதழ் என்னும் சொல் பூவின் இதழ், உதடு, கண்ணிமை, பனையேடு, நாளிதழ் ஆகிய பல பொருள்களைத் தருவதால் பலபொருள் குறித்த ஒரு திரிசொல் என்பர்.

Question 3.
பண்டிகை, கேணி என்பன எவ்வகைச் சொற்கள்? விளக்குக.
Answer:

• பண்டிகை, கேணி என்பன திசைச் சொற்களாகும்.
• வடமொழி தவிர, பிற மொழிகளில் இருந்து வந்து தமிழில் இடம்பெறும் சொற்கள் திசைச் சொற்கள் எனப்படும்.
• முற்காலத்தில் பாண்டி நாட்டைத் தவிர, தமிழ்நாட்டின் பிற பகுதிகளில் வழங்கிய கேணி (கிணறு, பெற்றம் (பசு) போன்ற சொற்களையும் திசைச்சொற்கள் என்றே வழங்கினர்.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
நாளிதழ் செய்தியொன்றை எடுத்துக் கொண்டு அதில் உள்ள நால்வகைச் சொற்களையும் வகைப்படுத்திப் பட்டியல் உருவாக்குக.
Answer:
(i) வீடுகளிலே நடைபெறும் விஷேசங்களின் போது, வெளியூர்கள் சென்று திரும்பும் போது, பரிசளிப்புகள் நடத்தும் போதும் புத்தகங்கள் வாங்குவது என்று ஒரு – பழக்கத்தைக் கொஞ்சம் வசதியுள்ள வீட்டார் சில காலத்துக்காவது ஏற்படுத்திக் கொண்டால் சுலபத்தில் ஒரு சில புத்தகசாலையை அமைத்து விடலாம்.
விசேஷம் – சிறப்பு
விசேஷம் – வடமொழி

(ii) சன்னல் வழியாக இராமு போவதை கோபு பார்த்துக் கொண்டிருந்தான்.
சன்னல் – சாளரம்
சன்னல் – திசைச் சொல்

(iii) நாவாய் கரையோரம் ஒதுங்கியது
நாவாய் – திரிசொல்
நாவாய் – கப்பல்

(iv) கபிலன் கதை எழுதினான்
எழுதினான் – வினை இயற்சொல்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

நிரப்புக.

Question 1.
ஓர் எழுத்து தனித்தும் ஒன்றிற்கும் மேற்பட்ட எழுத்துகள் தொடர்ந்தும் வந்து பொருள் தருவது ………………. எனப்ப டும்.
Answer:
சொல்

Question 2.
சொல் என்னும் பொருள் தரும் வேறு சொற்கள் ……….
Answer:
பதம், மொழி, கிளவி

Question 3.
இலக்கண முறைப்படி …………….. எனச் சொற்கள் நான்கு வகைப்படும்.
Answer:
பெயர்ச்சொல், வினைச்சொல், இடைச்சொல், உரிச்சொல்

Question 4.
இலக்கிய வகைச் சொற்களை …………….. என நான்கு வகையாகப் பிரிக்கலாம்.
Answer:
இயற்சொல், திரிசொல், திசைச்சொல், வடசொல்

Question 5.
எளிதில் பொருள் விளங்கும் வகையில் அமைந்த சொற்கள் …………… எனப்படும்.
Answer:
இயற்சொற்கள்

Question 6.
இயற்சொல் ……………………… ஆகிய நான்கு வகையிலும் வரும்.
Answer:
பெயர், வினை, இடை, உரி

Question 7.
கற்றோர்க்கு மட்டுமே விளங்கும் சொற்கள் …………… எனப்படும்.
Answer:
திரிசொற்கள்

Question 8.
லக்ஷ்மி என்பதை இலக்குமி என்றும், விஷம் என்பதை விடம் என்றும் தமிழ் எழுத்துகளால் மாற்றி எழுதுவதை ………….. என்பர்.
Answer:
தற்பவம்

Question 9.
வடசொற்களை ………………… என இருவகையாகப் பிரிப்பர்.
Answer:
தற்சமம், தற்பவம்

Question 10.
திரிசொல் …………………………………………………. ஆகிய நான்கு வகையிலும் வரும்.
Answer:
பெயர், வினை, இடை, உரி

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

கேட்க

Question 1.
கடற்பயணம் தொடர்பான கதைகளைப் பெற்றோரிடம் கேட்டு மகிழ்க.
Answer:
சாகச கடல் பயணம்
மாலை வேளை வானம் மேகம் சூழ்ந்தது. நள்ளிரவைப் போல் வானம் இருண்டு காணப்பட்டது. ஆனால் இன்னும் சூரியன் மறையவில்லை. புயல் மழை கொட்டுவதற்கான அறிகுறிகள் தெரிந்தன. கடல் அலைகள் ஆர்ப்பாட்டம் இல்லாமல் ஒரு பனை மர அளவிற்கு ஏறி இறங்கின. அதில் பனை மலர்’ என்ற கப்பல் ராட்டினம் போல மேலே ஏறி கீழே இறங்கியது.

பனை மலர் கப்பல் தமிழ்நாட்டின் தரங்கம்பாடி துறைமுகத்திலிருந்து கிளம்பி ஒரு மாதத்துக்கும் மேலாகிறது. இங்கிருந்து கப்பல் நிறைய ஏலம், கிராம்பு, மிளகு, பட்டை, சோம்பு, ஜாதி, பத்திரி போன்ற உணவுக்கு நல்ல வாசனை தரும் ஏராளமான பொருட்கள், தூத்துக்குடி முத்துக்கள், பவளங்கள், மாணிக்கக் கற்கள், பட்டுச் சேலைகள், பருத்தி துணிகள், சிற்பங்கள், கைவினைப் பொருட்கள் போன்ற பலவகையான பொருட்களை ஏராளமாக ஏற்றிச் சென்றனர்.

கப்பலில் ஆறு மாதங்களுக்குத் தேவையான தண்ணீர், உப்பு, அரிசி, மிளகாய், எண்ணெய் போன்றவற்றை சேமித்துக் கொண்டு போயிருந்தனர். இப்போது, இலங்கையைத் தாண்டி 300 ஆவது கடல் மைல் தொலைவில் பெரும் புயல் ஒன்றை எதிர்கொண்டுள்ளனர். முதலில் சாதாரணமாக நினைத்தாலும், காற்று சுழற்றும், சுழற்றலில், கப்பல் உடைந்து தூள்தூளாகப் போகிறது எனப் பயந்தார்கள். ஆனால் கப்பல் மேலும் கீழும் குதித்தது. கிறுகிறுவென சுற்றிச் சுழன்றது.

கடல் நீர் அருவி கொட்டுவதைப் போல கப்பலுக்குள் புகுந்தது. சில நிமிடங்களில் புயல் நின்று விட்டது. ஊழியர்கள் நூறு பேரும் கப்பலில் புகுந்த தண்ணீரை வாரி வாரி இறைத்து கடலில் ஊற்றினர்.

இரவில் வானத்திலிருந்து சில சமயங்களில் சின்னச் சின்ன எரிகற்கள் விழும். கடலுக்கு மேலே வரும் திமிலங்கள் மிகப்பெரியவை. அவை மேலே வரும் போது அவற்றின் உடல் ஒரு பெரிய விளையாட்டு மைதானம் கடலில் இருப்பதைப் போல தெரியும். அதைப் பார்த்ததும் கப்பல் ஊழியர்கள் அதை நிலம் என நினைத்துக்கொண்டு கடலில் பாய பரபரப்பார்கள். ஆனால் மாலுமி அவர்களை அதட்டி நிறுத்துவார்.

கடலுக்குள் மின்னலைப் போல தெரியும் அபூர்வ உயிரினங்கள், கண்ணைப் பறிக்கும் வண்ணங்களில் படர்ந்திருக்கும் கடற்கொடிகள், வலையை வீசினால் இரண்டு கப்பல்கள் நிறையும் அளவுக்கு வரும் மீன் கூட்டங்கள் என்றெல்லாம் பார்த்தாலும் அவர்களுக்கு சலிப்பாய் இருந்தது. எப்போது நிலத்தைப் பார்ப்போம் என ஏங்கிப் போனார்கள்.

இப்படியாக பயணம் செய்து ஒரு வழியாக அவர்கள் ஏதென்ஸ் நகரத்தின் 9 துறைமுகத்துக்கு வந்து சேர்ந்தார்கள். கொண்டு வந்த பொருட்கள் எல்லாவற்றையும் கிடங்கில் இறக்கி வைத்தார்கள். அப்போதே நூற்றுக்கணக்கானவர்கள் அவர்களை .8 மொய்த்துக் கொண்டார்கள். ஒவ்வொரு பொருளையையும் பார்த்து வாயைத் திறந்து 3 ஆச்சரியத்தில் மூழ்கினர் அங்குள்ளோர்.

முறைப்படி மன்னரைச் சந்தித்த பின்தான் வியாபாரத்தைத் தொடங்க வேண்டும் என்பதில் மாலுமி உறுதியாக இருந்தார். ஏதென்சின் ராணி பாட்ரியா அவர்களை வரவேற்றார் மாலுமி: அவர்கள் கொண்டு வந்த பொருட்களில் பாதியை ராணி பாட்ரியா வாங்கிக் கொண்டார். அரண்மனையை ஏராளமான தமிழக கலைப் பொருட்களைக் கொண்டு தமிழ்நாட்டின் அரண்மனையைப் போன்று மாலுமி அலங்கரித்தார்.

ராணி மிகவும் மகிழ்ச்சி அடைந்து ஆப்பிரிக்க வைரங்கள் பதித்த பெரிய வைர் மாலையை மாலுமிக்கு பரிசளித்தார். மீண்டும் விரைவிலேயே அதிக பொருட்களோடு வர வேண்டும் எனக் கேட்டுக் கொண்டார்.

அதன் பிறகு மாலுமி மற்றும் கப்பல் ஊழியர்கள் துறைமுகத்திலேயே ஒரு மாதம் 3 தங்கியிருந்து மீதமிருந்த பொருட்களை விற்றனர். கப்பல் ஊழியர்கள் கலைநயத்துடன் 3 இருந்த ஏதென்ஸ் வீதிகளில் மகிழ்ச்சியுடன் தினமும் சுற்றி வந்தனர். கடற்கரையில் இ விளையாடி மகிழ்ந்தனர். ஒரு மாதம் கழித்து இந்தியாவுக்கு திரும்ப மாலுமி முடிவு செய்தார்.

ராணி மினு… மினு…. என சில முறை குரல் கொடுத்தார். மினு நான் வளர்க்கும் டால்பின் உங்களுடன் உங்கள் நாடு வரை துணைக்கு வரும் என்றார். டால்பின் இவர்களின் கடற்பயணத்திற்கு உறுதுணையாக இருந்தது.

பின்வரும் தலைப்பில் இரண்டு நிமிடம் பேசுக

கப்பல்களின் வகைகளும் பயன்களும்.
Answer:
வணக்கம்!
நீர்வழிப்பயணத்தை இரண்டு வகையாகப் பிரிக்கலாம்.

1. உள்நாட்டு நீர்வழிப் பயணம், 2. கடல்வழிப் பயணம்

கப்பல் பயணம் : காற்றின் துணை கொண்டு கப்பலைச் செலுத்திய நம் முன்னோரின் திறமையைச் சங்கப்பாடல்கள் மூலம் தெரிந்து கொள்ள முடிகிறது. கப்பல்கள் மூலம் பொருள்கள் பூம்புகார் துறைமுகத்தின் வாயிலாக ஏற்றுமதி இறக்குமதி செய்யப்பட்டன என்பதற்கு ஆதாரமாக பட்டினப்பாலை என்னும் நூலின் மூலம் தெரிந்து கொள்ளலாம். கப்பல் வகைகள் : ‘உலகு கிளர்ந்தன்ன உருகெழு வங்கம்’ என்று பெரிய கப்பலை அகநானூறு குறிப்பிடுகிறது. ‘அருங்கலம் தரீஇயர் நீர்மிசைநிவக்கும் பெருங்கலி வங்கம் என்று பதிற்றுப்பத்து குறிப்பிடுகிறது. சேந்தன் திவாகரம் என்னும் நிகண்டு நூலில் பலவகையான கப்பலின் பெயர்கள் குறிப்பிடப்பட்டுள்ளன.

சிறிய நீர் நிலைகளைக் கடக்க தோணி, ஓடம், படகு, புணை, மிதவை, தெப்பம் ஆகியவற்றை தமிழர்கள் பயன்படுத்தினர். கலம், வங்கம். நாவாய் முதலியவை அளவில் பெரியவை. இவற்றைக் கொண்டு தமிழர்கள் கடல்பயணம் மேற்கொண்டனர். கப்பலின் பயன்கள் : முற்காலத்தில் மக்கள் பயணம் செய்வதற்கும் மட்டும் அன்றிப் போர் புரியவும் கப்பல் பெரிதும் பயன்பட்டது. இக்காலத்தில் பெரும்பாலும் பொருள்களை ஏற்றிச் செல்லவே கப்பல்கள் பயன்படுத்தப்படுகின்றன. அவற்றைச் சரக்குக் கப்பல்கள் என்பர். போருக்குப் பயன்படும் பெரிய கப்பல்களும் இன்று உள்ளன.

சொல்லக் கேட்டு எழுதுக

1. பெருந்திரளான மக்களையும் பொருள்களையும் கப்பல்கள் ஏற்றிச் செல்லும்.
2. காற்றின் உதவியால் செலுத்தப்படுபவை பாய்மரக் கப்பல்கள்
3. வானில் தோன்றும் விண்மீன்களின் நிலையை வைத்துத் திசையை அறிவர்.
4. ஆழ்கடல் விந்தைகளைப் பற்றி ஆய்வுகள் செய்தார்.
5. நார்வே நாட்டின் கடற்கரையில் கண்விழித்தோம்.

அறிந்து பயன்படுத்துவோம்

காலம் மூன்று வகைப்படும்.
அவை: 1. இறந்தகாலம், 2. நிகழ்காலம், 3. எதிர்காலம்.
இறந்தகாலம் : நடந்த செயலைக் குறிப்பது இறந்தகாலம்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு: பார்த்தான். ஆடினாள், பறந்தது.

• கபிலன் திரைப்படத்தைப் பார்த்தான்.
• கோதை நடனம் ஆடினாள்
• கிளி பறந்தது.

நிகழ்காலம் : நடக்கும் செயலைக் குறிப்பது நிகழ்காலம்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு : பார்க்கிறான், ஆடுகின்றாள், பறக்கின்றது.

• கலிவரதன் நாடகத்தைப் பார்க்கிறான்.
• பூங்குழலி நாட்டியம் ஆடுகின்றாள்.
• பறவை வானில் பறக்கின்றது.

எதிர்காலம் : நடக்கவிருக்கும் செயலைக் குறிப்பது எதிர்காலம்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு : காண்பான், ஆடுவாள், பறக்கும்.

• திருவண்ணாமலை தீபத்தை மணிமாறன் கண்களால் காண்பான்.
• வண்டார்குழிலி ஆட்டம் ஆடுவாள்.
• வண்டு பறக்கும்.

கட்டங்களை நிரப்புக

Answer:

பொருத்தமான காலம் அமையுமாறு திருத்தி எழுதுக

Question 1.
அமுதன் நேற்று வீட்டுக்கு வருவான்.
Answer:
அமுதன் நேற்று வீட்டுக்கு வந்தான்

Question 2.
கண்மணி நாளை பாடம் படித்தாள்.
Answer:
கண்மணி நாளை பாடம் படிப்பாள்

Question 3.
மாடுகள் இப்பொழுது புல் மேயும்
Answer:
மாடுகள் இப்பொழுது புல் மேய்கின்றன.

Question 4.
ஆசிரியர் நாளை சிறுதேர்வு நடத்தினார்.
Answer:
ஆசிரியர் நாளை சிறுதேர்வு நடத்துவார்.

Question 5.
நாங்கள் நேற்றுக் கடற்கரைக்குச் செல்கிறோம்.
Answer:
நாங்கள் நேற்றுக் கடற்கரைக்குச் சென்றோம்.

கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு கட்டுரை எழுதுக

பயணங்கள் பலவகை

முன்னுரை – பயணத்தின் தேவை – தரைவழிப்பயணம் – கடல்வழிப்
பயணம் – வான்வழிப்
பயணம் – முடிவுரை

முன்னுரை:
பயணம் செய்வதில் இளஞ்சிறார்கள் முதல் முதியவர்கள் வரை பெருவிருப்பம் கொள்வார்கள். பயணம் தரைவழிப் பயணம், நீர்வழிப் பயணம், வான்வழிப் பயணம் என மூன்று வகையாகப் பிரிக்கலாம். இவற்றைப் பற்றி இங்கு ஆய்வு செய்வதே இக்கட்டுரையின் நோக்கமாகும்.

பயணத்தின் தேவை :
திரைகடல் ஓடியும் திரவியம் தேடு . இது ஔவை சொன்ன அமுதமொழி. சுற்றுப்பயணம் மேற்கொண்டால் பல நாடுகளைப் பார்க்கலாம். அங்குள்ள கலைநயம் மிக்க சிற்பங்கள், கோயில்கள், இயற்கைக் காட்சிகள், கவின்மிகு கலைப்பொருட்கள் இவற்றினைக் கண்டு ரசிக்கலாம்.

தொழில் நிமித்தமாக பயணம் மேற்கொள்வதும் அங்குள்ள மக்களின் பழக்க வழக்கங்களையும் கலாச்சாரங்களையும் பற்றியும் அறிவுப்பூர்வமாக தெரிந்து கொள்ளலாம்.

தரைவழிப் பயணம்:
ஓரிடத்திலிருந்து மற்றோர் இடத்திற்கு பயணிப்பது பயணம் ஆகும். பேருந்து, சிற்றுந்து, மகிழுந்து, இரு சக்கர வாகனம் இவற்றின் மூலம் பயணம் செய்வது தரைவழிப் பயணம் ஆகும். தரைவழிப் பயணம் ஏழை எளியவர், நடுத்தர வகுப்பினர், உயர் தர வகுப்பினர் யாவரும் பயன்படுத்தும் பயணம் ஆகும். போக்குவரத்து நெரிசல் அதிகம் ஏற்படுவதால் இப்பயணத்தில் நேரம் விரயமாகிறது. மன உளைச்சல்களுக்கு ஆளாக வேண்டிய சூழல் ஏற்படுகிறது.

கடல்வழிப் பயணம்:
வானூர்திகள் கண்டுபிடிக்கப்படாத காலத்தில் வெளிநாட்டுப் பயணத்திற்கு உதவியவை கப்பல்களே. கப்பல்கள் மூலம் பொருட்கள் துறைமுகத்திலிருந்து ஏற்றுமதி இறக்குமதி செய்யப்பட்டன. இதற்கான ஆதாரங்கள் பட்டினப்பாலையில் தரப்பட்டுள்ளன. தோணி, ஓடம், படகு, புணை, மிதவை, தெப்பம் போன்றவற்றை சிறிய நீர்நிலைகளைக் கடக்கப் பயன்படுத்தினர். கலம், வங்கம், நாவாய் முதலியவை அளவில் பெரியவை. இவற்றைக் கொண்டு தமிழர்கள் கடல்பயணம் மேற்கொண்டனர். கடலில் செல்லும் கப்பல்களுக்குத் துறைமுகம் இருக்கும் இடத்தைக் காட்டுவதற்காக அமைக்கப்படுவது கலங்கரை விளக்கம் ஆகும்.

வான்வழிப் பயணம்:
மிக துரிதமாக ஓரிடத்திலிருந்து மற்றோர் இடத்திற்குக் கொண்டு சேர்ப்பது வான்வழிப்பயணமே. வான்வழிப் பயணம் வந்த பிறகு கடல் வழிப்பயணம் குறைந்தது. கடல் வழிப் பயணத்தில் போக வேண்டிய இடத்திற்கு சில நாட்கள் ஆகும். வான்வழிப் பயணம் மூலமாக சில மணி நேரங்களில் போக வேண்டிய இடத்திற்கு போய் சேரலாம். மிக முக்கியமான அரசியல் பிரமுகர்கள், அரசுத் துறையில் இருப்பவர்கள், வியாபாரிகள்; தொழிலதிபர்கள் போன்றோர் வேலை நிமித்தமாக இந்த வான்வழிப் பயணத்தை மேற்கொள்கின்றனர்.

முடிவுரை:
பயணம் மனிதர்கள் வாழ்க்கையில் அன்றாடம் வந்து போகும் முக்கிய நிகழ்வு ஆகும். தரைவழிப் பயணத்தை யாவரும் பயன்படுத்துவர். கடல்வழிப்பயணத்தில் கனரகப் பொருள்களை ஏற்றிச் செல்ல கப்பல்கள் பயன்படுகின்றன. தொழில் ரீதியாக வான்வழிப் பயணத்தைச் சிலர் பயன்படுத்துகின்றனர்.

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

குறுக்கெழுத்துப் புதிர்.

பிறமொழிச் சொற்களுக்கு இணையான தமிழ்ச் சொற்களை அறிவோம்.

Answers:

இடமிருந்து வலம் 1. தந்தை , 2. அறிவியல், 4. தேர்வு, 19. குறிக்கோள்
மேலிருந்து கீழ் 1. தலைவர், 3. வியப்பு, 7. தொடக்கம், 12. நூறு
வலமிருந்து இடம் : 6. இடர், 8. உடல், 13. வரலாறு, 14. ஓசை
கீழிருந்து மேல் 5. முதல், 9. கட்டளை , 11. நாள், 15. மகிழ்ச்சி

கட்டங்களை நிரப்புக

குறிப்புகளை கொண்டு ‘மா’ என்னும் எழுத்தில் தொடங்கும் சொற்களைக் கண்டறிந்து கட்டங்களை நிரப்புக.

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக

என் பொறுப்புகள்

1. கடல் மற்றும் கடற்கரையின் தூய்மை காப்பேன்.
2. சுற்றுச்சூழலுக்குத் தீங்கு தராத பொருள்களையே பயன்டுத்துவேன்.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 1 Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes

Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Lithosphere 1 Endogenic Processes Question 1.
The ………….. is the rigid outer layer of the Earth.
(a) core
(b) mantle
(c) Crust
(d) inner core
Answer:
(c) Crust

Lithosphere Endogenic Process Question 2.
…………… layer is made up of liquid iron.
(a) Inner core
(b) Outer core
(c) Mantle
(d) Crust
Answer:
(b) Outer core

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 3.
Magma is found in the ……………
(a) crust
(b) mantle
(c) core
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) mantle

9th Social Guide Question 4.
Diastrophism is connected to ……………
(a) volcanism
(b) earthquakes
(c) tectonics
(d) fold/fault
Answer:
(c) tectonics

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Answers Question 5.
The movement of tectonic plates is induced by ………….. energy.
(a) hydel
(b) thermal
(c) wave
(d) tidal
Answer:
(b) thermal

Lithosphere 1 Endogenic Processes Answers Question 6.
In the ancient period, Gondwana land moved towards ………….. direction.
(a) north
(b) south
(c) east
(d) west
Answer:
(a) north

9th Social Science Guide Question 7.
Many million years ago, India was a part of the super continent ………….
(a) Gondwana
(b) Laurasia
(c) Panthalasa
(d) Pangea
Answer:
(a) Gondwana

Endogenetic Processes Match Question 8.
The movement of plates that creates stress and tension in the rocks causing them to stretch and cracks result in ………….
(a) fold
(b) fault
(c) mountain
(d) earthquake
Answer:
(b) fault

Social 9th Guide Question 9.
……………… refers to a bowl-shaped depression found at the top of the volcano.
(a) crater
(b) vent
(c) chamber
(d) volcanic cone
Answer:
(a) crater

9th Standard Social Guide Question 10.
The point of origin of an Earthquake is called the …………..
(a) epicentre
(b) focus
(c) seismic wave
(d) magnitude
Answer:
(a) epicentre

II. Match the following.

Answer:

III. Consider the given statements.

9 Social Guide Question 1.
(i) Mt. Fuji is a dormant Volcano.
(ii) Mt. Kilimanjaro is a dormant Volcano.
(iii) Mt. Tanzania is a dormant Volcano.
Which of the statement(s) is are true?
(a) (i) is true
(b) (ii) is true .
(c) (iii) is true
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) are true
Answer:
(a) (i) is true

9th Std Social Science Guide Pdf Question 2.
Statement: Magma gushes out when it finds vents.
Reason: Interior of the Earth contains compressed hot magma.
Which of the statement(s) is are true?
(a) Statement & reason are true
(b) Statement is true, reason is false
(c) Statement is false reason is true
(d) Statement & reason are false
Answer:
(a) is true

9std Social Guide Question 3.
Statement I: Mountain ranges are formed by the collision of tectonic plates.
Statement II: The movement of tectonic plates is due to the thermal energy from the mantle.
(a) Statement I is false II is true
(b) Statement I and II are false
(c) Statement I is true II is false
(d) Statement I and II are true
Answer:
(d) is true

IV. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

9th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 1.
Write a brief note on the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
(i) The Earth is divided into Biotic and ABiotic Spheres.

(ii) Biotic sphere is the Biosphere
A Biotic sphere is further divided into Lithosphere, Atmosphere and Hydrosphere.

Social Guide For Class 9 Question 2.
Mention the layers of the interior of the Earth.
Answer:
The structure of the Earth’s interior is divided into three layers namely the crust, the mantle and the core.

Social Guide Question 3.
What is pedosphere?
Answer:
The ‘Pedosphere’ is part of the lithosphere made up of soil and dirt. It exists at the interface of lithosphere, atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere.

9th Social Book Back Answers Question 4.
Define Plate tectonics.
Answer:

1. The tectonic plates float independently.
2. Collisions of the tectonic plates produce mountain ranges and other irregular surface features both on land and the ocean floor. This phenomenon is called ‘Plate tectonics.’

9th Std Social Guide Question 5.
Write a note on Fold and fault?
Answer:
Folding: Due to lateral compressional forces, the plates are forced to move upwards and downwards. This is called‘Folding’.
Faulting: The movement of plates also create stress and tension in the rocks, causing them to stretch and crack. This called ‘faulting’.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 6.
What is Tsunami?
Answer:

• The word Tsunami is a Japanese term meaning harbour waves.
• It is adopted to describe large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes Submarine explosions and landslides.

Social Science 9th Guide Question 7.
What is a Volcano? Mention its major components.
Answer:
A volcano is a vent or an opening on the surface of the Earth’s crust through which hot solid, liquid and gaseous materials (Magma) erupt out to the surface from the Earth’s interior.

9th Guide Social Question 8.
What is an Earthquake and how it occurs?
Answer:
Earthquakes are generally caused by the sudden vibrations in the Earth’s crust which spreads outward in all directions as waves from the source of disturbance.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 9.
What are seismic waves and mention its types?
Answer:
Earthquakes generate seismic waves. The nature force and speed of these seismic waves depend on the nature of the medium through which it passes.
The major types are
(a) Primary (or) P waves
(b) Secondary (or) S waves
(c) Surface waves (or) L waves.

Question 10.
Write about the Pacific Ring of fire.
Answer:

• The Pacific Ring of fire is an arc around the Pacific Ocean where many volcanoes are found.
• The Pacific Ring of fire is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

V. Give Reasons for the following.

Question 1.
SIAL floats over SIMA.
Answer:

1. SIAL consists of Silica and Aluminium.
2. SIMA contains Silica and Magnesium.
3. SIAL is lighter than SIMA.
   Therefore SIAL floats over SIMA.

Question 2.
Igneous rocks are also called Primary Rocks or Mother rocks.
Answer:
Igneous rocks are also called Primary Rocks (or) Mother rocks because all other rocks are directly or indirectly formed from them.

VI. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Core and crust.
Answer:

S.No.	Core	Crust
(i)	The core is the innermost hottest layer of the earth and the true centre.	The crust is the outer layer of the earth.
(ii)	It is composed mainly of Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). So it is termed as NIFE.	It is composed of Silica and Aluminium. So it is termed as SIAL.
(iii)	Denser materials exist within Earth’s core.	Lighter materials exist on the surface.

Question 2.
Epicentre and Hypocentre.
Answer:

S.No.	Epicentre	Hypocentre
(i)	Epicentre is a point on the Earth’s surface that lies directly above the focus.	It is a point within the earth where an earthquake rupture starts.
(ii)	The impact of the Earthquake is felt, the most at the centre.	It generates series of elastic waves.

Question 3.
Divergent and convergent boundaries.
Answer:

Divergent Boundary	Convergent Boundary
The plates pull away from each other as magma pushes up from the mantle.	The plate moves towards each other and sometimes a plate sinks under another.

Question 4.
Primary waves and Secondary waves.
Answer:

S.No.	Primary waves	Secondary waves
(i)	These waves are the fastest of all the Earthquake waves and the first to reach the epicentre.	Secondary waves travel less faster than the primary waves.
(ii)	These waves pass through solids, liquids and gases.	These waves travel only through solids.
(iii)	The average velocity of these waves is -5.3 k.m/sec to 10.6 k.m/second.	The average velocity of these waves is 1 k.m/sec to 8 k.m/second.

Question 5.
Shield Volcano and Volcanic Dome.
Answer:

S.No.	Shield Volcano	Volcanic Dome
(i)	Shield volcanoes are formed by intense viscous lava.	A lava dome (or) Volcanic dome is roughly circular mound formed due to the slow ejection of viscous lava from a volcano.
(ii)	As the lava is rich in silica with intense viscosity, it is prevented from flowing far from its vent, e.g., Paricutin, Mexico.	These are shallow depositions with gently sloping sides. Hence the lava flows out in all directions to create a shield, e.g., Mauna Loa, Hawai.

VII. Write answers in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Describe the structure of the Earth.
Answer:
The outer surface and inner core of the Earth are totally different in their nature and structure. The structure of the Earth’s interior is divided into three layers namely the crust, the mantle and the core.

Crust: Crust is the outer layer of the Earth, where we live. It is the skin of our Earth, which ranges between 5 to 30 km. It is the solid and rigid layer of the Earth. The thickness of the crust is greater below the continents than the ocean floor. The crust is classified as continental crust and oceanic crust. The major elements of crust are Silica (Si) and Aluminium (Al) and thus, it is termed as SIAL.

Mantle: The interior part beneath the crust is called mantle, which is about 2,900 km thick. The major elements of the mantle are Silica (Si) and Magnesium (Mg) and hence it is also termed as SIMA. In the upper part of the mantle, the rock remains solid, whereas in the lower part of the mantle, rocks are in molten form. This molten rock inside the Earth is called ‘magma’.

Core: The core is the innermost and hottest layer of the Earth which lies below the mantle.
It is composed mainly of Nickel (Ni) and Iron (Fe). Hence it is called NIFE. The core is divided into Solid inner core and Liquid outer core. The presence of large quantities of iron in the core is responsible for the Earth’s gravitational force. As the Earth rotates on its axis, the liquid outer core spins over the solid inner core and generates the Earth’s magnetic field.
This is responsible for the functioning of the magnetic compass. Due to high pressure, the materials in the inner core are unable to move and hence remain solid.

Question 2.
Write a note on the internal and external processes of Earth.
Answer:
The formation and deformation of landforms on the surface of the Earth is a continuous activity of two broad processes i.e. internal and external. These processes cause stress and deformation on Earth materials and finally bring changes on the surface of the Earth. These are referred as Geomorphic Processes.

The forces that act from the Earth’s interior towards the Earth’s surface are called Internal processes or Endogenetic processes. These forces build the landscape and create topographic relief.

The forces that act on the surface of the Earth due to natural agents like running water, glacier, wind, waves etc. are called External processes or Exogenetic processes. These external processes tear the landscape down into relatively low elevated plains.

Question 3.
How are volcanoes classified based on the periodicity of their eruptions?
Answer:
Based on the periodicity of eruptions, volcanoes are classified into
(i) Active volcano,
(ii) Dormant volcano
(iii) Extinct volcano.
(i) Active Volcano: Active volcanoes are those which constantly eject volcanic lava, gases and fragmented materials. (e.g.) Mount St. Helens in the United States.

(ii) Dormant Volcano: Volcanoes that do not show any sign of volcanic activity for a long period of time are known as dormant volcanoes. Sometimes there may be a sudden explosion. which may cause unimaginable loss to life and property (e.g. ) Mt. Fuji, Japan.

(iii) Extinct or Dead Volcano: When a volcano permanently stops its volcanic activity, then it is called as extinct or dead volcano (e.g.) Mt. Kilimanjaro, Tanzania.
Volcanoes can also be classified based on their structure and composition as composite volcano, shield volcano and dome volcano.

Question 4.
Explain the effects of Volcanoes.
Answer:
Constructive Effects: Volcanic materials enrich the soil fertility that promotes agricultural activities. The hot volcanic region helps in generating geothermal energy. Many dormant and active volcanoes are the most attractive tourist spots of the world. Most of the volcanic materials are used as building materials.

Destructive Effects: Volcanic eruption causes Earthquakes, fast floods, mud slide and rock fall. Lava can travel very far and bum, bury, or damage anything in its path. The large amount of dust and ash makes breathing hard and irritable. Volcanic emptions can alter the weather conditions and disrupt transport (Iceland volcanic eruption) in and around the volcanic region.

VIII. Map Skill.

On the given outline map of the world, mark the following:
(a) Pacific Ring of fire
(b) Earthquake-prone zones (any two)
(c) Locate any two active volcanoes of the world
(d) Himalayas and Alps ranges
(e) Rift valley of East Africa
Answer:
(a) Pacific Ring of fire: It is a major area and an arc in the basin of the Pacific ocean where many earthquakes and volcanic emptions occur.

(b) Earthquake prone zones (any two): Turkey, Indonesia

(c) Locate any two active volcanoes of the world: Hawaii, Mount Fujji

(d) Himalayas and Alps ranges

(e) Rift valley of East Africa

IX. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTs) Questions.

Question 1.
Consider the various sources of information related to the Earth’s Interior. Classify the above as DIRECT & INDIRECT sources of information. Give reasons.
Answer:
• Seismic activity
• Earth’s magnetism
• Volcanoes
• Mined rocks
• Gravitational force
• Meteors

• Seismic Activity: Frequency and size of earthquake.
• Earth’s magnetism: Due to the movement of molten material under the earth’s crust.
• Volcanoes: A rupture in the crust of a planetary mass object such as Earth, that allows hot lava, volcanic ash & gases to escape.
• Mined Rocks: Excavating hard minerals:
• Gravitational force: A natural phenomenon.
• Meteors: A bright streak of light.

Question 2.
Scientists use GPS to measure the rate of Tectonic Plate movements. Discuss.
Answer:
GPS works by sending radio signals from satellites to ground stations. The distance between the satellites and station is recorded. Over time, these distances change slightly. Scientists can measure the rate of Tectonic Plate movements by recording the time it takes for ground stations to move a given distance.

In-text HOTs Question

Question 1.
Pacific Ring of Fire — Most seismically and volcanically active. Why?
Answer:
The Pacific Ring of fire is an arc around the Pacific Ocean. It is associated with a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and volcanic belts and plate movements. It has 452 volcanoes (more than 75% of the world’s active and dormant volcanoes). The Ring of Fire is a direct result of plate tectonics: the movement and collisions of lithospheric plates. That is why it is the most seismically and volcanically active zone in the world.

X. Life Skills

Imagine that you feel tremors or shocks in your locality. What will be your role in saving • lives from destruction? List out the Do’s and Don’ts.
Dos and don’ts during an earthquake
Do’s

1. Be aware that some earthquakes are actually foreshocks and a larger earthquake might occur.
2. If indoors, drop to the ground; cover your face and head with your arms and crouch in an inside comer of the building.
3. Stay away from glass, windows, outside doors and walls, and anything that could fall, (such as lighting fixtures or furniture).
4. Be aware that the electricity may go out or the sprinkler systems or fire alarms may turn on.
5. If outdoors, avoid moving. However, move away from buildings, trees, streetlights, and utility wires.
6. If you are in open space, stay there until the shaking stops.
7. If in a moving vehicle, stop as quickly as safety permits and stay in the vehicle. Avoid stopping near or under buildings, trees, overpasses, and utility wires.
8. If caught under debris, tap on a pipe or wall so rescuers can locate you. Shout if needed.

Don’ts

1. Do not light a match.
2. Do not move about or kick up dust.
3. Cover your mouth with a handkerchief or clothing.
4. Do not touch electrical switches.
5. Do not operate electrical appliances.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Collect a few rock samples from your area and classify them on the basis of what you have learnt.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 2.
Narrate the processes involved in the given rock cycle diagram in your own words.
Answer:

Rocks are continually changing from one type to another and back again. Rock Cycle is the geologic process that describes the transition of rocks between the three rock types: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic. The forces inside the earth bring the rocks closer to the surface. Here the rocks are weathered, eroded and compacted. Then the forces on the earth sink the rocks. Back down, the rocks are heated, pressed and melted. So the elements that create rocks are constantly being recycled.

Question 3.
Here is a list of a few mountains.
• Ural Mountains, Andes Mountains, Vindhya Range, Alps mountains
• Satpura range, Rocky Mountains, Sierra Nevada.
• Identify and Locate with help of atlas
Answer:
You can identify and locate the above mentioned mountains with the help of an atlas or Internet.

Question 4.
(a) Arrange a few books one above the other on a table. Just shake the table and observe what happens.
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

(b) Ask two students to hold two ends of a rope. Instruct one of them to shake the rope, while the other holds it lightly and then firmly. What do you observe?
Answer:
You can do this activity under the guidance of your teacher.

Question 5.
Take a bottle filled with soda. Give it a few shakes. Now twist the cap open. What do you observe?
Answer:
A capped bottle is under a uniform pressure. The molecules of carbon dioxide gas and liquid are at an equilibrium (due to a uniform pressure). When we shake the bottle, the contents are pressurized. So when the cap is opened, the liquid comes out with a force and fizz.

Lithosphere – I Endogenetic Processes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is the solid outer part of the Earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(a) Lithosphere

Question 2.
The presence of large quantities of …………… in the core is responsible for the Earth’s Gravitational force.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Magnesium
(c) Iron
(d) Silica
Answer:
(c) Iron

Question 3.
This is the store house of rocks.
(a) crust
(b) core
(c) mantle
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) crust

Question 4.
The word ‘Igneous’ is derived from the …………… word.
(a) Arabic
(b) Roman
(c) Latin
(d) Sanskrit
Answer:
(c) Latin

Question 5.
The movement of tectonic plates is due to …………… energy from the mantle.
(a) Atomic energy
(b) Hydro energy
(c) Wind energy
(d) Thermal energy
Answer:
(d) Thermal energy

Question 6.
These waves are the fastest of all the Earthquake waves.
(a) P – waves
(b) S – waves
(c) L- waves
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) P – waves

Question 7.
The sixth deadliest natural disaster due to Tsunami caused in the year …………..
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 2004
Answer:
(d) 2004

Question 8.
…………… is a vent (or) and opening on the surface of the Earth crust.
(a) Volcano
(b) Tsunami
(c) Earthquake
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Volcano

Question 9.
This is a dead volcano.
(a) Mt. St. Helens
(b) Mt. Kilimanjaro
(c) Mt. Fuji
(d) Paricutin
Answer:
(b) Mt. Kilimanjaro

Question 10.
Composite volcanoes are commonly found in the ………….. ocean.
(a) Pacific
(b) Southern
(c) Indian
(d) Atlantic
Answer:
(a) Pacific

II. Match the following.
(a)

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (d)

b.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

III. Consider the given statements

Question 1.
(i) When magnia reaches this Earth’s surface, it is referred to as ‘Lava’. (True)
(ii) The interior of the earth contains very hot molten material called ‘Magma’. (True)
(iii) Sedimentary are also called Primary (or) Mother rocks. (False)
(a) (i) is true
(b) (i) & (ii) are true (iii) false
(c) (iii) is true
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) are true
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are true (iii) false

Question 2.
(i) The plates move vertically in convergent Boundary. (False)
(ii) The plates pull away from each other in Transform boundary. (False)
(iii) The plates slide horizontally past each other in Transform Boundary. (True)
(a) (i) is false
(b) (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (ii) false (i) and (iii) are true
(d) (i) (ii) are false (iii) true
Answer:
(i) (ii) are false (iii) true

IV. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is Hydrosphere?
Answer:
The Hydrosphere is the watery part of the Earth’s surface including oceans, rivers, lakes and water vapour.

Question 2.
What are fossils?
Answer:
The bodies of plants and animals that fall on the sedimentary rock deposits get embedded in the layers and form fossils.

Question 3.
What do you know about the Active Volcano?
Answer:
Active volcanoes are those which constantly eject volcanic lava, gases and fragmented materials, e g., Mount St. Helens in the United states.

Question 4.
What is Geology?
Answer:
The science that deals with the physical structure and substances of the earth their history and the processes which act on them.

Question 5.
What do the internal processes generate?
Answer:

• The internal processes generate heat and eject materials from deep below the Earth’s crust.
• Internal radio activity in the principal source of power for this process.

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
Why did Tsunami occur on 26th December 2004?
Answer:

• It was the result of the Indo-Australian plate subducting below the Eurasian plate.
• It was caused by an Earthquake measuring a magnitude of above 9 in the Richter scale.
  Hence the sea floor was uplifted, displacing the sea water above.

Question 2.
Why does the lava flow out in all directions in shield volcano?
Answer:

• Shield volcanoes are formed by intense viscous, lava.
• These are shallow depositions with gently sloping sides.
• Hence the lava flows out in all directions to create a shield.

VI. Distinguish between:

Question 1.
Internal Processes and External processes.
Answer:

S.No.	Internal Processes	External processes
(i)	The forces that act from the Earth’s interior toward the Earth’s surface are called Internal processes.	The forces that act on the surface of the Earth due to natural agents like running water, glacier, wind, waves etc., are called External processes.
(ii)	These forces build the landscape and create topographic relief.	These external processes tear the landscape down into relatively low elevated plains.

Question 2.
Seismology and Geology.
Answer:

Seismology	Geology
The science that deals with Earthquakes is called‘Seismology’	The science that deals with the physical structure and substance of the earth their history and the processes which act on them.

Question 3.
Atmosphere and Biosphere.
Answer:

Atmosphere	Biosphere
The atmosphere is a thin layer of gases that surround the Earth.	The Biosphere is the layer of Earth where life exists.

VII. Write answers in a Paragraph.

Question 1.
Give an account of‘Tsunami’
Answer:
The word ‘Tsunami’ is a Japanese term, meaning harbour waves. It is adopted to describe large seismically generated sea waves caused by Earthquakes, submarine explosions and landslides. These waves travel at a great speed (more than 500 km per hour) and the length of the waves exceeds 600 km. These waves reach to a height of more than 15 m near the sea shore and are capable of causing destruction along the coastal area.

The 2004 Indian Ocean Earthquake that caused tsunami is the sixth-deadliest natural disaster which travelled at a speed of 600 km per hour with an estimated death toll of 2,80,000. The Earthquake which occurred near Indonesia at 00.58 hours took nearly 7 hours to reach Chennai.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2

9th Maths Coordinate Geometry Exercise 5.2 Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points.
(i) (1, 2) and (4, 3)
(ii) (3, 4) and (- 7, 2)
(ii) (a, b) and (c, b)
(iv) (3, -9) and (-2, 3)
Solution:
We know that distance,

9th Samacheer Maths Solution Ex 5.2 Question 2.
Determine whether the given set of points in each case are collinear or not.
(i) (7, -2), (5, 1), (3, 4)
(ii) (a, -2), (a, 3), (a, 0)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (7, -2), B (5, 1) and C (3, 4). By the distance formula.

∴ Hence the points are collinear.

(ii) Let the points be A (a, -2), B (a, 3) and C (a, 0).

∴ Hence the points are collinear.

Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Answers Question 3.
Show that the following points taken in order form an isosceles triangle.
(i) A (5, 4), B(2, 0), C (-2, 3)
(ii) A (6, -4),B (-2, -4), C (2, 10)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (5, 4), B (2, 0) and C (-2, 3)


Here AB + BC > CA and AB = BC. ∴ ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle.

(ii) Let the points be A (6, -4), B (-2, -4) and C (2, 10).

Here BC + BA > CA and BC = CA. Two sides are equal, so ∆ ABC is an isosceles triangle

Coordinate Geometry Solutions Ex 5.2 Question 4.
Show that the following points taken in order form an equilateral triangle in each case.
(i) A(2, 2), B(-2, -2), C(\(-2 \sqrt{3}\), \(2 \sqrt{3}\))
(ii) A(\(\sqrt{3}\) ,2), B (0, 1), C(0, 3)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A (2, 2) B (-2, -2) and C(\(-2 \sqrt{3}\), \(2 \sqrt{3}\))

All the 3 sides of ∆ABC are equal, Hence ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.

(ii) Let the points be A (\(\sqrt{3}\), 2), B (0, 1) and C (0, 3).
All the 3 sides of ∆ABC are equal. Hence ∆ABC is an equilateral triangle.

Question 5.
Show that the following points taken in order form the vertices of a parallelogram.
(i) A(-3, 1), B(-6, -7), C (3, -9) and D(6, -1)
(ii) A (-7, -3), B(5, 10), C(15, 8) and D(3, -5)
Solution:
(i) Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-3, 1), (-6, -7) (3, -9) and (6, -1) respectively.

The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

(ii) Let A, B, C and D represent the points (-7, -3), (5, 10) (15, 8) and (3, -5)

The opposite sides are equal. Hence ABCD is a parallelogram.

Form 3 Maths Exercise Question 6.
Verify that the following points taken in order form the vertices of a rhombus.
(i) A(3, -2), B (7, 6),C (-1, 2) and D (-5, -6)
(ii) A (1, 1), B(2, 1),C (2, 2) and D(1, 2)
Solution:
(i) Let the points be A(3, -2), B (7, 6), C (-1, 2) and D (-5, -6)

∴ All the four sides of quadrilateral ABCD are equal. Hence ABCD is a rhombus.

Question 7.
If A(-1, 1), B(1, 3) and C(3, a) are points and if AB = BC, then find ‘a’
Solution:

Maths Solutions For Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Ex 5.2 Question 8.
The abscissa of a point A is equal to its ordinate, and its distance from the point B(1, 3) is 10 units, what are the coordinates of A?
Solution:


Co-ordinates of A are (-5, -5) or (9, 9)

9th Maths Book Ex 5.2 Question 9.
The point (x, y) is equidistant from the points (3, 4) and (-5, 6). Find a relation between x and y.
Solution:
P(x, y) is equidistant from the points A(3, 4) and B(-5, 6)

Geometry 5.2  9th Maths Ex 5.2 Question 10.
Let A(2, 3) and B(2, -4) be two points. If P lies on the x-axis, such that AP = \(\frac{3}{7}\)AB, find the coordinates of P.
Solution:

9th Maths Guide Ex 5.2 Question 11.
Show that the point (11, 2) is the centre of the circle passing through the points (1, 2), (3, -4) and (5, -6)
Solution:


Therefore S is the centre of the circle, passing through A, B and C.

5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.2 Question 12.
The radius of a circle with centre at origin is 30 units. Write the coordinates of the points where the circle intersects the axes. Find the distance between any two such points.
Solution: