Laxmi

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Air Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Air Lesson Question 1.
Which of the following is true about oxygen?
(a) Completely burning gas
(b) Partially burning gas
(c) Doesn’t support burning
(d) Supports burning
Answer:
(d) Supports burning

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 2.
Aerated water contains –
(a) air
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
(c) carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Solvay process is a method to manufacture –
(a) lime water
(b) aerated water
(c) distilled water
(d) sodium carbonate
Answer:
(d) sodium carbonate

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide with water changes –
(a) blue litmus to red
(b) red litmus to blue
(c) blue litmus to yellow
(d) doesn’t react with litmus
Answer:
(a) blue litmus to red

Question 5.
Which of the following is known as azote?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ……………. is called as vital life.
2. Nitrogen is ……………. than air.
3. ……………. is used as a fertilizer.
4. Dry ice is used as a …………….
5. The process of conversion of iron into hydrated form of oxides is called …………….

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. lighter
3. Nitrogen
4. refrigerant
5. rusting

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Nitrogen – Respiration in living animals
2. Oxygen – Fertilizer
3. Carbon dioxide – Refrigerator
4. Dry ice – Fire extinguisher

Answer:

1. Nitrogen – Fertilizer
2. Oxygen – Respiration in living animals
3. Carbon dioxide – Fire extinguisher
4. Dry ice – Refrigerator

IV. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What are the sources of oxygen?
Answer:

1. Atmospheric air, water.
2. Plants and animals.
3. Minerals in the form of silicates, carbonates, oxides.

Question 2.
Mention the physical properties of oxygen.
Answer:
Physical properties of oxygen:

1. Oxygen is a colorless, odorless and tasteless gas.
2. It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity
3. Oxygen dissolves readily in cold water.
4. It is denser than air.
5. It can be made into liquid (liquefied) at high pressure and low temperature.
6. It supports combustion.

Question 3.
List out the uses of nitrogen.
Answer:
Uses of nitrogen:

1. Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
2. It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
3. It is used to prepare ammonia (by Haber’s process) which is then converted into fertilizers and nitric acid.
4. It is used for inflating tyres of vehicles.

Question 4.
Write about the reaction of nitrogen with non metals.
Answer:
Nitrogen reacts with non-metals like hydrogen, oxygen etc., at high temperature to form their corresponding nitrogen compounds.
Non-metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Nitrogen compound
Example:

Question 5.
What is global warming?
Answer:
The increased green house effect is caused due to increase in the air pollutants and it results in the average increase of temperature of the atmosphere. This is called as Global warming.

Question 6.
What is dry ice? What are its uses?
Answer:

1. Solid carbon dioxide, called as dry ice is used as a refrigerant.
2. The gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog which is used in stage shows and movie effects.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water? Write the equation for this reaction.
Answer:
When a limited amount of CO₂ is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
When an excess amount of CO₂ is passed through lime water, it first turns milky and the milkyness disappears due to the formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate, Ca(HCO₃)₂.

Question 2.
Name the compounds produced when the following substances burn in oxygen:

1. Carbon
2. Sulphur
3. Phosphorous
4. Magnesium
5. Iron
6. Sodium

Answer:

1. Carbon dioxide (CO₂)
2. Sulphur dioxide (SO₂)
3. Phosphorus trioxide (P₂O₃) (or) Phosphorus pentoxide (P₂O₅)
4. Magnesium Oxide (MgO)
5. Iron Oxide (Fe₂O₃)
6. Sodium Oxide (Na₂O)

Question 3.
How does carbon dioxide react with the following?

1. Potassium
2. Lime water
3. Sodium hydroxide

Answer:
1. Potassium combine with CO₂ to form potassium carbonate.
4K + 3CO₂ → 2K₂CO₃ + C

2. When a limited amount of CO₂ is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
(Calcium carbonate)
Sodium hydroxide (base) is neutralized by carbon dioxide (acidic) to form sodium carbonate (salt) and water.

Question 4.
What are the effects of acid rain? How can we prevent them?
Answer:
Acid rain affects us in many ways. Some of the consequences are given below.

1. It irritates eyes and skin of human beings.
2. It inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
3. It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
4. It causes corrosion of many buildings, bridges, etc.

Preventive measures:
Acid rain and its effects can be controlled by the following ways.

1. Minimizing the usage of fossil fuel such as petrol, diesel etc.
2. Using CNG (Compressed Natural Gas).
3. Using non – conventional source of energy.
4. Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.

VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Soda bottle bursts sometimes when it is opened during summer. Why?
Answer:

1. In soda bottle carbon dioxide gas is dissolved in water under pressure.
2. The gas in the bottle expands.
3. Hence, the pressure inside the bottle increases.
4. Thus the bottle may burst in hot summer.

Question 2.
It is said that sleeping beneath the tree during night is bad for health. What is the reason?
Answer:
During night trees absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide. Therefore, anyone who sleeps under tree, will not get oxygen, which can cause breathing problems, suffocation etc.

Question 3.
Why does the fish die when it is taken out of water?
Answer:

1. Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb the oxygen dissolved in water.
2. When fishes are taken out of water, the supply of oxygen to the fishes is cut as the fishes cannot absorb and breathe using the oxygen present in the atmosphere.
3. Hence they die, when it is taken out of water.

Question 4.
How do astronauts breathe when they go beyond earth’s atmosphere?
Answer:

1. Astronauts cannot breathe in space unless they carry their own oxygen with them.
2. They can make their own oxygen by using energy from the solar arrays to split hydrogen and oxygen from water.

Do you know?

Question 1.
Nowadays nitrogen is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres. Have you noticed it? Why do people prefer nitrogen instead of compressed air in tyres?
Answer:
It is because nitrogen tyres hold pressure longer as compared to compressed air. Nitrogen gas in the tyre escapes more slowly than compressed air does.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Air Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Question 1.
…………… is necessary for all acids.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) CO₂
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Question 2.
Tri oxygen molecule is known as ……………
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) nitrogen
(d) ozone
Answer:
(d) ozone

Question 3.
About 78% by volume of air is ……………
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) nitrogen

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide gas is ……………
(a) heavier than air
(b) lighter than air
(c) as heavy as air
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) heavier than air

Question 5.
A gas which neither burns nor supports burning is …………….
(a) Oxygen
(b) Helium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(d) Carbon dioxide

Question 6.
A gas which is used to remove carbon impurities from steel.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(b) Oxygen

Question 7.
Venus atmosphere consists of roughly 96 – 97% of …………….
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide

Question 8.
Carbon dioxide gas is …………… in nature.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) sweet
(d) none
Answer:
(b) acidic

Question 9.
…………… gas is essential for the proper growth of all plants.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) CO₂
(c) Oxygen
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 10.
Lighter metals like Na, K combine with CO₂ to form corresponding …………….
(a) Nitrates
(b) Carbonates
(c) Oxide
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Carbonates

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. …………… exists in nature as silicates, carbonates, oxides and water.
2. Metals like magnesium, iron and sodium bum with oxygen and give basic …………….
3. …………… has pH less than 5.6.
4. CO₂ is along with …………… in the manufacture of fertilizers like urea.
5. CO₂, N₂O, CH₄ and CFC are known as …………….
6. ……………. is used to prepare soft drinks or aerated drinks.
7. ……………. is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres.
8. Liquid nitrogen is used as a ……………..
9. Oxygen is used to oxidize …………….
10. Phosphorous bums with suffocating smell and gives ……………..

Answer:

1. Oxygen
2. Oxides
3. Acid rain
4. ammonia
5. Greenhouse gases
6. CO₂
7. Nitrogen
8. refrigerant
9. rocket fuel
10. Phosphorous pentaoxide

III. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

Question 2.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a

IV. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Oxygen is the poor conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Nitrogen is about two times more soluble in water then oxygen.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Oxygen is about two times more soluble in water than Nitrogen.

Question 3.
Nitrogen is an essential element present in proteins and nucleic acids which are the building blocks of living things.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Non-metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Nitrogen compound.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Solid form of CO₂ is called as dry ice which undergoes condensation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Solid form of CO₂ is called as dry ice which undergoes sublimation.

Question 6.
Acid rain inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
An average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is called as acid rain.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
An average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is called as global warming.

Question 8.
Rain water is actually the purest form of water.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The increase in the levels of greenhouse gases results in the gradual increase of temperature of the earth’s surface.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Nitrogen gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Solid CO₂ gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog.

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : Green house gases maintain the temperature.
Reason : Green house gases absorb the infra red rays.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Carbon dioxide occurs as carbonates in nature.
Reason : Carbon dioxide can exist as a liquid at atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Rain mixed with sulphuric acid is called acid rain.

Question 2.
Name some green house gases.
Answer:
CO₂, N₂O, CH₄, CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon) etc.

Question 3.
Name the microbe which converts atmospheric nitrogen directly into soluble nitrogen compounds.
Answer:
Bacteria.

Question 4.
Write the reaction of oxygen with hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Hydrocarbon + O₂ > CO₂ + Water vapour + Heat energy + Light.

Question 5.
Write the reaction of carbon dioxide with lime water.
Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O.

Question 6.
Write any two preventive measures for acid rain.
Answer:

1. Using CNG
2. Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.

Question 7.
Write about the combustible property of Oxygen.
Answer:
Oxygen is a non – combustible gas as it does not bum on its own. It supports the combustion of other substances.

Question 8.
Write any two effects of global warming.
Answer:

1. Increase in frequency of floods, soil erosion and unseasonal rains.
2. Loss of biodiversity due to the extinction of coral reefs and other key species.

Question 9.
What do you mean by aerated water?
Answer:
Aerated water is nothing but carbon dioxide dissolved in water under pressure. This is also called soda water.

Question 10.
Write any two preventive measures of global warming.
Answer:

1. Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
2. Restricting the use of CFC’s.

Question 11.
Write the reaction of oxygen with non – metals.
Answer:
Oxygen reacts with various non – metals like hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon, sulphur, phosphorus etc., to give corresponding non – metallic oxides which are generally acidic in nature.
Non – metal + Oxygen → Non – metallic oxide
Example:
C + O₂ → CO₂

Question 12.
Write a note on rusting process.
Answer:
The process of conversion of iron into its hydrated form of oxide in the presence of air and moisture (humid atmosphere) is called rusting. Rust is hydrated ferric oxide.
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
Fe₂O₃ + X H₂O → 2Fe₂O₃ . X H₂O
(X = Number of water molecules which is variable).

Question 13.
Write the reaction of nitrogen with metals.
Answer:
Nitrogen reacts with metals like lithium, calcium, magnesium etc., at high temperature to form their corresponding metal nitrides.
Metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Metal nitride
Example:

Question 14.
Write about occurrence of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is present in air to the extent of about 0.03% in volume. It is evolved by the plants and animals during respiration and is produced during fermentation reactions. Much of the naturally occurring CO₂ is emitted from the magma through volcanoes. CO₂ may also originate from the bio – degradation of oil and gases. Human CO₂ emissions upset the natural balance of the carbon cycle.

Question 15.
Write the reaction of carbon dioxide with metals.
Answer:
Lighter metals like sodium, potassium and calcium, combine with CO₂ to form corresponding carbonates whereas magnesium gives its oxide and carbon.
Example :

Question 16.
What are the effects of global warming?
Answer:

1. Melting of ice cap and glaciers.
2. Increase in frequency of floods, soil erosion and un – seasonal rains.
3. Loss of biodiversity due to the extinction of coral reefs and other key species.
4. Spreading of waterborne and insectborne diseases.

Question 17.
Complete the following:

Answer:

1. Natural fixation
2. From leguminous plants
3. From ammonia and ammonium salts
4. From nitric acid and nitrate salts

Question 18.
What is green house effect?
Answer:

1. Certain gaseous molecules present in the atmosphere absorb the infra red rays and reradiate the heat in all directions.
2. Hence, these gases maintain the temperature of earth’s surface.
3. The gases which absorb these radiations are called green house gases and this effect is called green house effect.

Question 19.
Complete the table:

Answer:

1. Potassium oxide (K₂O)
2. Heating slightly
3. Au or Pt
4. Iron Oxide (Fe₃O₄)

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the uses of oxygen.
Answer:
Uses of oxygen:

1. It is used as oxy – acetylene light for cutting and welding metals.
2. It is used to remove carbon impurities from steel.
3. Plants and animals use oxygen from the air for respiration.
4. It is used to oxidize rocket fuel.
5. It is used for artificial respiration by scuba divers, mountaineers, astronauts, patients etc.
6. Mixed with powdered charcoal it is used as explosives.
7. It is used in the synthesis of methanol and ammonia.

Question 2.
Write the physical properties of nitrogen.
Answer:

1. Physical properties of nitrogen
2. It is a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas.
3. It is slightly lighter than air.
4. It is slightly soluble in water.
5. Nitrogen becomes a liquid at low temperature and looks like water. When it freezes, it becomes a white solid.
6. It is neutral to litmus like oxygen.

Question 3.
Write the uses of nitrogen.
Answer:
Uses of Nitrogen:

1. Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
2. It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
3. It is used to prepare ammonia (by Haber’s process) which is then converted into fertilizers and nitric acid.
4. It is used for inflating tyres of vehicles.
5. It is used for filling the space above mercury in high temperature thermometer to reduce the evaporation of mercury.
6. Many explosives such as TNT (Trinitrotoluene), nitroglycerin and gun powder contain nitrogen.
7. It is used for the preservation of fresh foods, manufacturing of stainless steel, reducing fire hazards and as part of the gas in incandescent light bulbs.

Question 4.

1. Explain the physical properties of carbon dioxide.
2. Write the preventive measures to control the effect of global warming.

Answer:
1. Physical properties of carbon dioxide:

• Carbon dioxide is a colorless and odorless gas.
• It is heavier than air.
• It does not support combustion.
• It is fairly soluble in water and turns blue litmus slightly red. So it is acidic in nature.
• It can easily be liquefied under high pressure and can also be solidified. This
• solid form of CO₂ is called dry ice which undergoes sublimation.

2. Preventive measures:

• Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
• Controlling deforestation.
• Restricting the use of CFCs.
• Planting more trees.
• Reducing, reusing and recycling resources.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
What will happen if oxygen has the capacity to burn itself?
Answer:
If oxygen has the capacity to bum itself, striking a match stick will be enough to bum all the oxygen in our planet’s atmosphere.

IX. Solve the crossword Puzzle by using the clues given below.

Question 1.
Across:
1. A gas that supports combustion.
4. The compound that turns lime water milky.
5. The Gaseous jacket that surrounds the Earth.
6. It is used as a refrigerant.
7. Solid form of carbon dioxide.
Down:
2. The process by which atmospheri&oitrogen is converted into nitrates.
3. The common name of the compound formed when nails are exposed to moist air.
8. It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
Answer:

Students can Download English Lesson 2 The Apple Tree and The Farmer Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 2 The Apple Tree and The Farmer

A. Read the following statements. Say True or False.

1. The farmer had spent his childhood playing under the tree.
2. The farmer felt the space could be used to build a house.
3. The apple tree requested the farmer not to cut it.
4. All the little animals were happy about the farmer’s decision.
5. The apple tree was home for all the little animals.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. False
5. True

B. Identify the speaker / character

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Questions And Answers Question 1.
Please don’t cut the tree.
Answer:
Farmer’s daughter and her friends.

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Question 2.
You can enjoy the shade when you become old.
Answer:
Farmer’s daughter and her friends.

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Summary Question 3.
I promise that I will never cut this tree.
Answer:
Farmer to his daughter.

Identify The Character/Speaker:Additional

1. ‘We play here just like you did’. – The farmer’s daughter and her friends.
2. He wanted his little girl to have the childhood that he had had. – The farmer.
3. ‘You and your friends will have your tree and your playground’. – The farmer to his daughter.
4. He lived in a village, up in the hills, beside a forest’. The farmer.
5. They climbed the tree and swung on it. – The farmer and his friends.

C. Choose the right option.

1. The animals became worried because
(a) there was heavy rain.
(b) the farmer began to chop the tree.
(c) the farmer chased them away.
(d) the tree became old.
Answer:
(b) the farmer began to chop the tree.

2. The farmer’s daughter and her friends came out because
(a) they wanted to play under the tree.
(b) they heard the commotion of the creatures.
(c) the farmer called them.
(d) they heard the farmer’s voice.
Answer:
(b) they heard the commotion of the creatures.

3. The farmer promised that he would
(a) grow more trees.
(b) provide shelter to all the little animals.
(c) not cut the tree.
(d) be thankful to the children.
Answer:
(c) not cut the tree.

Apple Tree And The Farmer MCQ; Additional

6th Standard The Apple Tree And The Farmer Questions 1.
For many years, the farmer and his family
(a) enjoyed living in the village
(b) enjoyed the tastiest apples from the tree
(c) enjoyed farming and cultivation
Answer:
(b) enjoyed the tastiest apples from the tree

The Apple Tree Was Home For All The Little Animals Question 2.
The farmer felt he could use the wood from the tree
(a) to build a new room in his house
(b) to build a new boat
(c) to sell it in the market
Answer:
(a) to build a new room in his house

The Apple Tree Questions And Answers Questions 3.
The farmer decided to cut the tree because
(a) the tree was big and its branches were entering the house
(b) the tree was dying
(c) the tree bear fewer and fewer fruits
Answer:
(c) the tree bear fewer and fewer fruits

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Book Back Answers Questions 4.
When the farmer began chopping the tree , the farmer’s daughter and her friends
(a) pleaded him not to cut the tree
(b) helped the farmer to cut the tree
(c) collected the woods from the chopped tree.
Answer:
(a) pleaded him not to cut the tree

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Lesson Plan Question 5.
When the farmer bit into the juicy fruit from the tree,
(a) he felt it was bitter in taste
(b) memories of the fun he had as a boy came rushing back
(c) he fainted and fell on the floor.
Answer:
(b) memories of the fun he had as a boy came rushing back

D. Read the passage and answer the following.

All of a sudden, the farmer noticed a small fruit hanging from a branch. It was an apple and looked as delicious as the ones he ate as a boy. He plucked it and bit into the juicy fruit. The memories of the fun he had had as a boy came rushing back. When his daughter saw the changed expression in her father’s face, she started pleading harder.

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Short Summary Questions 1.
What did the farmer notice?
Answer:
The farmer noticed a small fruit hanging from a branch.

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Story Questions 2.
What made him recall his childhood?
Answer:.
The delicious apple made him recall his childhood.

The Apple Tree Complex Class 6 Questions And Answers Question 3.
Why did his daughter start pleading?
Answer:.
When his daughter saw the changed expression in her father’s face, she started pleading harder.

Read The Passage And Answer the Questions; Additional

1. For many years the farmer and his family had enjoyed the tastiest apples from the tree. As a boy the farmer and his friends played hide and seek around the apple tree. In mean time many small animals and birds started living in the tree.

The Apple Tree Complex Questions And Answers Question a.
What did the the farmer and his family enjoy?
Answer:
The farmer and his family had enjoyed the tastiest apples from the tree.

The Apple Tree And The Farmer Story In English Question b.
What is the game mentioned in the passage?
Answer:
The game mentioned in the passage is hide and seek.

Question c.
Who lived in the tree?
Answer:
Many small animals and birds lived in the tree.

2. Once upon a time there was a farmer. He lived in a village, up in the hills, beside a forest. In his farm where he grew many kinds of vegetables, he also had an apple tree. For many years the farmer and his family had enjoyed the tastiest apples from the tree. As a boy, the farmer and his friends played under the apple tree. They played hide and seek around the tree. They climbed the tree and swung on it and in season they plucked and ate the apples.

Question a.
Where did the farmer live?
Answer:
Farmer lived in a village, up in the hills, beside a forest.

Question b.
What did the farmer grow in his farm ?
Answer:
The farmer grew many kinds of vegetables and also had an apple tree in his farm.

Question c.
How did the farmer as a boy and his friends enjoy the apple tree ?
Answer:
As a boy, the farmer and his friends played hide and seek around the tree. They climbed the tree and swung on it and in season they plucked and ate the apples.

3. As the years passed the boy grew into a man. He took over the farm and continued to enjoy ’> the fruits from the tree. In the meantime many small animals and birds started living in the tree. The man’s children and their friends started playing under it. The large and shady apple tree now grew old and was bearing fewer and fewer fruits. It was nice to sit under its shade in the summer but nothing grew under it. The farmer felt the space could be used to grow some vegetables. He also felt he could use the wood to build a new room in his house. Therefore, he decided to cut the tree.

Question a.
What did animals and birds do ?
Answer:
The small animals and birds started living in the tree.

Question b.
What happened to the apple tree?
Answer:
The apple tree grew old and was bearing fewer and fewer fruits.

Question c.
What did the farmer decide to do?
Answer:
The Farmer felt he could use the wood of the apple tree to build a new room in his house. So decided to cut the tree.

4. When the farmer took his axe and began chopping the tree, all the little animals, birds and insects that lived in the tree came rushing down. They started running around in alarm, chirping and squeaking all over the place. The farmer was adamant. He raised his axe and the uproar grew.

Question a.
What did the animals and birds do?
Answer:
When the farmer took the axe and began to cut the tree, the animals, birds and insects that lived in the tree came rushing down.

Question b.
How did the animals and birds react when the farmer chopped the tree ?
Answer:
The animals ,birds and insects started running around in alarm, chirping and squeaking all over the place.

Question c.
What did the farmer do then ?
Answer:
As the farmer was adamant, he raised his axe and the uproar grew.

5. All of a sudden, the farmer noticed a small fruit hanging from a branch. It was an apple and looked as delicious as the ones he ate as a boy. He plucked it and bit into the juicy fruit. The memories of the fun he had had as a boy came rushing back. When his daughter saw the changed expression in her father’s face, she started pleading harder.

Question a.
What did the former notice?
Answer:
Suddenly, the farmer noticed a small fruit hanging from a branch.

Question b.
How did the apple look like ?
Answer:
The apple looked delicious like the ones the farmer had eaten when he was a boy.

Question c.
What came to Farmer’s mind when he ate the apple ?
Answer:
The farmer plucked the apple and bit into the juicy fruit; The memories of the fun he had had as a boy came rushing back.

6. The farmer put down his axe. He understood that the tree was home to many lovely animals and provided them with so many things. He wanted his little girl to have the childhood that he had had. He threw away the axe and said to his daughter, “I promise that I will never cut this tree. You and your friends will have your tree and your playground.”

Question a.
What did the Farmer do ?
Answer:
The farmer put down the axe.

Question b.
What did the former promise his daughter ?
Answer:
The farmer promised his daughter that he will never cut the tree.

Question c.
What is the moral of the story ?
Answer:
The moral of the story is we should not cut down the tree. We should try to grow more trees and preserve the trees for future generations to come.

E. Rearrange the jumbled sentences.

1. He did not listen to their cries.
2. The farmer continued cutting the tree.
3. His childhood memories made him realize his mistake.
4 He decided to cut the tree thinking that it was useless.
5. The taste of the apple brought back his childhood memories.
6. The farmer had an old apple tree in his garden.
7. All the little animals in the tree pleaded with him.
8. He spent all his childhood playing under the apple tree.
Answer:
(6, 8, 4, 7, 1, 2, 5, 3)
6. The farmer had an old apple tree in his garden.
8. He spent all his childhood playing under the apple tree.
4. He decided to cut the tree thinking that it was useless.
7. All the little animals in the tree pleaded with him.
1. He did not listen to their cries.
2. The farmer continued cutting the tree.
5. The taste of the apple brought back his childhood memories.
3. His childhood memories made him realize his mistake.

Rearrange The Following Jumbled Sentences : Additional

A. 1. We play here just like you did. These small animals live here.
2. If you cut the tree, where will they go? You can enjoy the shade when you become old.
3. The farmer’s daughter and her friends began to plead with him.
4. It is a beautiful tree.”
5. They gathered around the farmer and said, “Please don’t cut the tree.
Answer:
(3, 5,1, 2, 4)
3. The farmer’s daughter and her friends began to plead with him.
5. They gathered around the farmer and said, “Please don’t cut the tree.
1. We play here just like you did. These small animals live here.
2. If you cut the tree, where will they go? You can enjoy the shade when you become old.
4. It is a beautiful tree.”

B. 1. Rather he felt the tree had outlived its usefulness and should be cut down.
2. He did not think about the wonderful times he and his friends had playing around the tree or the delicious apples they ate.
3. Therefore, he decided to cut the tree.
4. He also felt he could use the wood to build a new room in his house.
5. The farmer felt the space could be used to grow some vegetables.
Answer:
(5. 4, 3, 2,1)
5. The farmer felt the space could be used to grow some vegetables.
4. He also felt he could use the wood to build a new room in his house.
3. Therefore, he decided to cut the tree.
2. He did not think about the wonderful times he and his friends had playing around the tree or the delicious apples they ate.
1. Rather he felt the tree had outlived its usefulness and should be cut down.

F. Think and answer :

Question 1.
Which part of the story do you like? why?
Answer:
I like the last part of the story because the farmer realizes his mistake and puts down his axe. He understands that the tree was a home to many lovely animals and provided them so many things.

Question 2.
If the little animals become homeless, what will happen?
Answer:
They will become desperate, suffer and sometimes die.

Question 3.
What made the farmer realise his mistakes?
Answer:
The memories of the fun, he had had as a boy came rushing back, when the farmer ate a juicy apple, which was hanging from a branch. This made the farmer realise his mistakes.

Project

G. Look at the table. Read any story. Then fill the table

Connecting To Self

H. Lilly was on a trip to the beach with her friends. Some of her friends carelessly threw plastic bags on the road after eating their snacks. She wants to convince them that what they were doing was not correct and they should be good citizens.

Discuss in your group. What could Lilly say? Role play die conversation with one person being Lilly and the other a friend.
(To be done by the students)

Steps To Success

I. For each item write the word that has the same relationship as the pair on the left.

Example: desert : dry :: valley : fertile

Question 1.
creeper : tendril :: tree : ?
(a) leaf
(b) bough
(c) flower
(d) fruit
Answer:
(b) bough

Question 2.
river : flow :: mountain : ?
(a) beautiful
(b) high
(c) trees
(d) still
Answer:
(d) still

Question 3.
breeze : gentle :: storm: ?
(a) violent
(b) wind
(c) sea
(d) rain
Answer:
(a) violent

Question 4.
mango : sweet :: lime: ? ‘
(a) fruit
(b) sour
(c) tree
(d) juice
Answer:
(b) sour

Question 5.
hark : timber :: flower : ?
(a) branch
(b) plant
(c) fruit
(d) stem
Answer:
(c) fruit

The Apple Tree and The Farmer Additional Questions

I. What is the logical sequence for these words? Tick the right option

Questions 1.
1. leaves, 2. fruit , 3. seed, 4. flowers, 5. root
(a) 2,4,5,1,3, (b) 3,5,1,4,2, (c) 1,2,3,4,5, (d) 5,3,1,2,4
Answer:.
(b) 3,5,1,4,21

Questions 2.
1. Timber, 2. Furniture, 3. Sapling, 4. Tree, 5. wood
(a) 2,1,4,5,3, (b) 5,2,3,1,4, (c) 3,4,5,1,2, (d) 5,3,1,4,2
Answer:
(c) 3,4,5,1,21

Question 3.
1. Sow, 2. Weed, 3. Water, 4. Harvest, 5. Plough
(a) 1,3,5,2,4, (b) 5,1,3,2,4, (c) 3,5,4,2,1, (d) 2,3,4,1,5
Answer:
(b) 5,1,3,2,4

Question 4.
1. Plant, 2. Butterfly, 3. Flower, 4. Honey, 5. Seed
(a) 5,1,3,4,2, (b) 3,4,5,2,1, (c) 5,4,2,3,1, (d) 2,3,4,5,1
Answer:
(a) 5,1,3,4,21

Question 5.
1. Paper, 2. Bamboo, 3. Book, 4. Bulb, 5. Sapling
(a) 2,4,5,1,3, (b) 3,4,5,2,1, (c) 5,2,4,1,3, (d) 4,5,2,3,1
Answer:
(c) 5,2,4,1,3

II. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
How did the farmer enjoy his childhood days ?
Answer:
The farmer lived in a village, up in the hills, beside a forest. In his farm, he grew many kinds of vegetables and an apple tree. For many years, the farmer his family had enjoyed the tastiest apples from the tree. As a boy, he played under the apple tree with his friends. They played hide and seek, climbed the tree, swung on it and ate the tasty apples.

Question 2.
Why did the’ farmer decided to- cut, the apple tree?
Answer:
The large and the shady apple tree grew old and w’as bearing fewer and fewer fruits. It gave them shade but nothing grew under it. The farmer felt that the space could be used to grow some vegetables. He also felt that he could use the wood to build a new room in his house. Therefore, he decided to cut the tree. He did not think about the wonderful times, he and his friends had, playing around the tree or the delicious apples, they ate. Rather, he felt that the tree had outlived its usefulness and should be cut down.

Question 3.
What happened, as soon as the farmer took his axe and began to chop the tree?
Answer:
When the farmer took his axe and began chopping the tree, all the little animals, birds and insects that lived in the tree came rushing down. They started running around in alarm, chirping and squeaking all over the place. The farmer was adamant. He raised his axe and the uproar grew. He began to chop the tree harder. All the little animals became desperate and wanted to protect the apple tree at any cost. They ran around in circles making a huge commotion.

Question 4.
Write a paragraph op “Uses of trees”.
Answer:
Trees provide food, notably fruit trees such as apple, pear, apricot, peach, cherry, lemon, orange and grapefruit. They also provide shade and protect us from solar radiation. They offer habitation and food for birds, insects, lichen, etc. They help to prevent flooding and soil erosion. They absorb carbon dioxide and help to slow the rate of global warming.

The Apple Tree and The Farmer Summary

A farmer had an apple tree is his farm. Many small animals and birds lived in that tree. The apple tree grew old and bore less fruits. It gave shade, so his daughter and her friends played under it. The farmer decided to cut the tree for timber and more space to grow vegetables. He took his axe and began chopping. The little animals, birds and insects created commotion and brought his daughter out. The daughter pleaded in vain. The farmer saw a small fruit. He plucked it & tasted and recollected his childhood. The farmer put the axe down and promised his daughter that he would never cut the apple tree.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hazards Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Define Hazard Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
……………. percentage of nitrogen is present in the air.
(a) 78.09%
(b) 74.08%
(c) 80.07%
(d) 76.63%
Answer:
(a) 78.09%

Hazards May Lead To Answer Question 2.
Tsunami in Indian Ocean took place in the s ear …………….
(a) 1990
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2008
Answer:
(b) 2004

Mention The Types Of Drought Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The word tsunami is derived from ……………. language.
(a) Hindi
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) German
Answer:
(c) Japanese

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Question 4.
The example of surface water is –
(a) Artesian well
(b) Groundwater
(c) Subsurface water
(d) Lake
Answer:
(d) Lake

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 5.
Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.
(a) Condensation
(b) Drought
(c) Evaporation
(d) Precipitation
Answer:
(b) Drought

II. Fill in the anks

1. Hazards may lead to ……………..
2. Landslide is an example of …………….. hazard.
3. On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into …………….. categories.
4. Terrorism is an example of …………….. hazard.
5. Oxides of Nitrogen are …………….. pollutants which affects the human beings.
6. Chernobyl nuclear accident took place in ……………..

Answer:

1. disaster
2. Geologic (or) Seismic
3. Eight
4. Human – induced
5. Primary
6. 26th April 1986

III. Match the following

Answer:

IV Answer in brief

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Define‘hazard’.
Answer:
‘Hazards are defined as a thing, person, event or factor that poses a threat to people, structures or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.’

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.
What are the major types of hazards?
Answer:

1. Atmospheric hazard
2. Geologic 7 Seismic hazard
3. Hydrologic hazard
4. Volcanic hazard
5. Environmental hazard
6. Biological hazard
7. Human – induced hazard
8. Technological hazard

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Question 3.
Write a brief note on hazardous wastes.
Answer:
The wastes that may or tend to cause adverse health effects on the ecosystem and human beings are called hazardous wastes.

8th Social Solution Question 4.
List out the major flood prone areas of our country.
Answer:

1. The major flood prone areas in north and northeast India are, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, North Bihar, West Bengal and Brahmaputra valley.
2. Coastal Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Southern Gujarat are the other regions which are also prone to flood often.

Question 5.
Mention the types of drought.
Answer:
Drought could be classified into three types. They are:

1. Meteorological drought
2. Hydrological drought
3. Agricultural drought

Question 6.
Why should not we construct houses at foothill areas?
Answer:
We should not construct houses at foothill areas because it has rapid downward movement of rocks and soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity which leads to landslides.

V. Distinguish the following :

Question 1.
Hazards and disasters.
Answer:
1. Hazard:
A natural hazard is a natural process and event that is a potential threat to human life and property.

2. Disasters:
A disaster is a hazardous event that occurs over a limited time span in a defined area and causes great damage to property / loss of life, also needs assistance from others.

Question 2.
Natural hazard and human-made hazard.
Answer:
Natural Hazards:

1. These are the results of natural processes and man has no role to play in such hazards.
2. For example: Earthquakes, Floods, Cyclonic storms and volcanic eruption etc.

Human – made – Hazards:

1. These are caused by undesirable activities of human. It can be the result of an accident such as an industrial chemical leak or oil spill.
2. For example: Hazardous wastes, pollution of air, water and land etc.

Question 3.
Flood and drought.
Answer:
Flood:

1. Flood is an event in which a part of the earth’s surface gets inundated.
2. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are the common causes of flood.

Drought:

1. Any lack of water to satisfy the normal needs of agriculture, livestock, industry or human population may be termed as a drought.
2. Droughts in India occur in the event of a failure of monsoon.

Question 4.
Earthquake and tsunami.
Answer:
1. Earthquake:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of stock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

2. Tsunami:
Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide or volcanic eruption. It is generally noticed in the coastal regions and travel between 640 and 960 Km/h.

VI. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Pollution of Air :

1. Air is a mixture of several gases.

2. The main gases are nitrogen (78.09%) for forming products such as fertilizers for plants and for making the air inert, oxygen (20.95%) for breathing and carbon dioxide (0.03%) for photosynthesis.

3. Some other gases like argon, neon, helium, krypton, hydrogen, zenon and methane are also present.

4. Air pollution is the contamination of the indoor or outdoor air by a range of gases. Air pollution can be categorized into primary and secondary pollutants.

5. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.

6. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted.

7. Primary pollutants are as follows:

• Oxides of Sulphur
• Oxides of Nitrogen
• Oxides of Carbon
• Particulate Matter and
• Other primary pollutants

8. Secondary pollutants are as follows:

• Ground Level Ozone
• Smog

Question 2.
Define earthquake and list out its effects.
Answer:
Earthquakes:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

Effects of Earthquakes:

1. The Primary effects of earthquakes are ground shaking, ground rupture, landslides, Tsunamis and soil liquefaction.
2. The Secondary effects of earthquakes are fires.
3. The effects of earthquakes are terrible and devasting. Thus leads to distraction of buildings, loss of money, property and lines of people. This affects the mental and emotional health of people.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation on the causes of landslides.
Answer:

1. Landslide is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.

2. The causes of landslides are wide ranging, They have two aspects in common.

3. Force of gravity and

4. Failure of Soil

5. Landslides are considered of two types. They are:

• Naturally occuring disaster.
• Human induced changes in the environment.

6. Natural causes of landslides are:

• Climatic changes
• Seismic activities
• Weathering
• Soil erosion
• Forest fires
• Gravity and
• Volcanic eruption

7. Human causes of landslides includes deforestation mining, construction of roads and railways over the mountain.

Question 4.
Elaborately discuss the effects water pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution:

1. Water pollution may be defined as alteration in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.
2. In India, water pollution has been taking place on a large scale.
3. Some of these waterborne diseases are Typhoid, Cholera, Paratyphoid fever, Dysentery, Jaundice and Malaria.
4. Chemicals in the water also have negative effects on our health.
5. Pesticides – can damage the nervous system and cause cancer because of the Carbonates and organophosphere that they may contain.
6. Both surface and groundwater bodies are polluted to a great extent.

VII. Activities

Question 1.
Name the hazards which you have identified.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 2.
List out the hazards that occur frequently and occasionally in your place.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
On the map of Tamilnadu shade the 13 coastal districts in different colors.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hazards Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………. is an example of human induced pollutants hazard.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Evaporation
(c) Nuclear accident
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Terrorism

Question 2.
…………. in Indian ocean took place in the year 2004.
(a) Earthquake
(b) Droughts
(c) Landslide
(d) Tsunami
Answer:
(d) Tsunami

Question 3.
A …………. hazard ¡s a natural process.
(a) Socio natural hazard
(b) Human – made
(c) Natural
(d) All the bove
Answer:
(C) Naturall

Question 4.
…………. can be broadly classified Into three types.
(a) Economics
(b) Hazards
(c) Environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hazards

Question 5.
The main examples of natural hazards are ………….
(a) earthquakes
(b) floods
(c) cyclonic
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
…………. hazards are caused by undesirable activities of human.
(a) Human – made
(b) Natural
(c) Socio – natural
(d) Atmospheric
Answer:
(a) Human – made

Question 7.
…………. are caused by natural forces in mountainous areas.
(a) Over populations
(b) Landslides
(c) Socio – natural
(d) Hydrologic hazard
Answer:
(b) Landslides

Question 8.
…………. Is a serious problem In most big Urban.
(a) Storm
(b) Landslides
(c) Smog
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(c) Smog

Question 9.
…………. surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of mangroves.
(a) Storm
(b) Smog
(c) Flood
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(a) Stormi

Question 10.
Heavy rainfall and large waves In seas are the common causes of …………..
(a) Droughts
(b) Smog
(c) Tsunami
(d) Flood
Answer:
(d) Flood

Question 11.
…………. storm is a strong wind circulating around a low pressure area in the atmosphere.
(a) Tropical cyclone
(b) Cyclonic
(c) Heavy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cyclonic

Question 12.
The west coast of India is …………. vulnerable to storm surges than the east coast.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) great
(d) high
Answer:
(a) less

Question 13.
…………. drought is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below a specific level.
(a) Agricultural
(b) Hydro – logical
(c) Landslides
(d) Meteorological
Answer:
(d) Meteorological

Question 14.
…………. droughts associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs.
(a) Hydro – logical
(b) Agricultural
(c) Meteorological
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Answer:
(a) Hydro – logical

Question 15.
…………. droughts refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to lack of rainfall.
(a) Meteorological
(b) Agricultural
(c) Hydro – logical
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(b) Agricultural

Question 16.
…………. in India occur in the event of a failure of monsoon.
(a) Floods
(b) Landslides
(c) Droughts
(d) Earthquakes
Answer:
(c) Droughts

Question 17.
The dry region lying in the leeward side of the …………..
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Western Ghats

Question 18.
…………. is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.
(a) Drought
(b) Flood
(c) Landslide
(d) Earthquake
Answer:
(c) Landslide

Question 19.
…………. is a mixture of several gases.
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Soil
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Air

Question 20.
…………. pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Primary

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Hazards can be broadly classified into …………. types
2. Smog is a serious problem in most …………. areas.
3. The beginning of …………. century, the earth supported a human population.
4. The meaning of old french “Hazards” ………….
5. A catastrophe was recover …………. time.
6. …………. can disturb the safety health, welfare of people.
7. …………. is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust.
8. …………. percentage of carbon di oxide present in the air.
9. …………. percentage of oxygen present in the air.
10. …………. nuclear accident took place in 26th April 1986.
11. …………. hazards are caused by the combined effect forces and misdeeds of human.
12. Storm surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of …………..
13. A sudden rise of seawater due to tropical cyclone is called ……………
14. In Tamil Nadu coast …………… and …………… districts are frequently affected.
15. The drought could be classified into …………… major types.
16. Presence of steep slope and heavy rainfall are the major causes of …………….
17. The word ‘tsu’ meaning ……………..
18. The word ‘nami’ meaning ……………..
19. The atomic bomb dropped on Hiroshima (Japan) in ………………
20. ……………… the wastes resulting from ordnance manufacturing and some industrial gases.
21. ……………… refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide (or) volcanic eruption.

Answer:

1. Three
2. big urban
3. Twenty first
4. a game of dice
5. long
6. Hazards
7. Earthquake
8. 0.03%
9. 20.95%
10. Chernobyl
11. Socio – natural
12. mangroves
13. storm surge
14. Cuddalore, Nagapattinam
15. three
16. Landslides
17. harbour
18. ‘wave’
19. 1945
20. Explosives
21. Tsunami

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. c
2. e
3. d
4. b
5. a

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. a

IV. State True or False

1. Hazards are classified into natural, human – made and socio – natural hazards
2. Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.
3. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are not the common causes of flood.
4. The West coast of India is more vulnerable to storm surge than the east coast.
5. The coastal belt around the Gulf of Kutch.
6. The droughts could be classified into six types.
7. Hydro – logical droughts is associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs.
8. Agricultural drought refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to more of rainfall.
9. Weak ground structure, mining, construction of roads and railways over the mountains are the causes of landslides.
10. The word ‘Tsunami’ is derived from latin world ‘tsu’ meaning harbour.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. False
7. True
8. False
9. True
10. False

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct:
(i) Oxides of Nitrogen are primary pollutants which affects the human beings.
(ii) On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into eight categories.
(iii) Delayed actions may increase the economic losses.
(iv) The major causes of water pollution in India are sewages and soil wastes,

(a) (i) & (ii) are Correct
(b) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer
Statement (A) : Water pollution may be defined as alteration in which the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water.
Reason (R) : Water pollution cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and Rare wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of rthe following is correctly matched?
(a) Secondary Pollutant – Smog
(b)Primary Pollutant – Ground Level Ozone
(c) Water Pollution – Earthquake
(d) 2016 – Tsunami in India
Answer:
(a) Secondary Pollutant – Smog

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Ecosystem – Hazardous waste
(b) Chemic1als – Explosives
(c) Carbon di oxide – 0.05%
(d) Oxygen – 20.95%
Answer:
(C) Carbon di oxide – 0.05%

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
List out any four major causes of water pollution in India.
Answer:

1. Urbanization
2. Industrial effluents
3. Se-wages
4. Solid wastes

Question 2.
Define prevention.
Answer:
Prevention is defined as the activities taken to prevent a natural calamity or potential hazard from having harmful effects on either people or economic assets.

Question 3.
Define Water Pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution may be defined as alteration in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water, which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.

Question 4.
List out any four major hazardous wastes.
Answer:

1. Chemicals
2. Biomedical wastes
3. Flammable wastes
4. Explosives

Question 5.
What do you mean by Tsunami?
Answer:

1. Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide or volcanic eruption.
2. It is generally noticed in the coastal regions and travel between 640 and 960 Km/h.

Question 6.
List out the major drought prone areas of our country.
Answer:

1. The arid and semi arid region from Ahmadabad to Kanpur on one side and from Kanpur to Jalandhar on the other.
2. The dry region lying in the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

Question 7.
What is earthquake?
Answer:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

Question 8.
List out the Atmospheric hazards.
Answer:
Tropical storms, Thunderstorms, Lightning, Tornadoes, Avalanches, Heat waves, fog and forest fire.

Question 9.
What do you meant by hazard?
Answer:
The word ‘hazard’ owes its origin to the word ‘hazart’ in old French meaning a game of dice (in Arabic-az-zahr; in Spanish – azar).

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1
What is flood? What are the Major causes of flood?
Answer:
Meaning of flood :

1. Flood is an event in which a part of the earth’s surface gets inundated.
2. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are the common causes of flood.

Major causes of floods: The Major causes of floods are,
1. Meteorological Factors:

• Heavy rainfall
• Tropical cyclones
• Cloud burst

2. Physical Factors:

• Large catchment area.
• Inadequate drainage arrangement

3. Human Factors:

• Deforestation
• Siltation
• Faulty agricultural practices
• Faulty irrigation practices
• Collapse of dams
• Accelerated urbanization

Question 2.
What is cyclonic storms? Explain about the cyclonic storms.
Answer:
Cyclonic Storms:

1. A Cyclonic storm is a strong wind circulating around a low pressure area in the atmosphere.
2. It rotates in anti – clockwise direction in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the southern Hemisphere.
3. Tropical Cyclones are characterized by destructive winds, storms surges and exceptional levels of rainfall, which may cause flooding.
4. Wind speed may reach upto 200 Km/h and rainfall may record upto 50 cm/ day for several consecutive days.
5. A sudden rise of seawater due to tropical cyclone is called storm surge.
6. It is more common in the regions of shallow coastal water.

East Coastal areas vulnerable to storm surges:

1. North Odisha and West Bengal coasts. ,
2. Andhra Pradesh coast between Ongole and Machilipatnam.
3. Tamil Nadu coast (among 13 coastal districts, Nagapattinam and Cuddalore districts are frequently affected).

West Coastal areas vulnerable to storm surges:

1. The west coast of India is less vulnerable to storm surges than the east coast.
2. Maharashtra coast, North of Hamai and adjoining South Gujarat coast and the coastal belt around the Gulf of Cambay.
3. The coastal belt around the Gulf of Kutch.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation about droughts.
Answer:
Droughts:
Any lack of water to satisfy the normal needs of agriculture, livestock, industry or human population may be termed as a drought.

Classifications of drought:
The drought could be classified into three major types. They are:

1. Meteorological drought:
ft is a situation where there is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below ‘ a specific level.

2. Hydrological drought:
It is associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs. It is of two types.

• Surface water and
• Ground water drought

3. Agricultural drought:

• It refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to lack of rainfall.
• Droughts in India occur in the event of failure monsoon.

The Major areas highly prone to drought are:

• The arid and semi arid region from Ahmadabad to Kanpur on one side and from Kanpur to Jalandhar on the other.
• The dry region lying in the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

Looking to improve English skills and gain more subject knowledge then the best resources that you can use here is Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions for Poem Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign Questions and Answers.

In the Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Guide for Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign textbook solutions, subject experts covered all types of questions and answers related to the topics, quick notes, summary, solved & unsolved exercises, etc. If you are planning to prepare Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign via textbook, then you’re suggested to go with this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Solutions Questions and Answers PDF for better understanding and preparation.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Poem Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign

English Subject experts who are having max years of experience prepared this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 10th English Poem Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign Questions and Answers. They have explained all the topics covered in the board prescribed latest syllabus in a simple way to understand easily. So, students can prepare Chapter 6 English from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Book Questions and Answers PDF. Download the Tamilnadu State Board 10th English Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign Workbook Solutions PDF by accessing the below links and learn properly for the final exams to score well.

No Men Are Foreign Textual Questions

A. Based on the understanding of the poem, read the following lines and answer the questions given below.

(i) Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes
Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon
Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.
(a) What is found beneath all uniforms?
Answer:
Though the outward appearance of people may change because of the difference in their attire, there is an inherent similarity between all human beings. All people live and breathe in a similar fashion. Militaries in the world may don different uniforms but they comprise of human beings who essentially are the same anywhere in the world.

(b) What is same for every one of us?
Answer:
When we die, we all shall meet this same earth in the end where we shall be buried in it the same way.

(c) Where are we all going to lie finally?
Answer:
The poet says that at the end of our respective lives, we all shall lie buried in the same earth. He means to draw our attention to the common fate that awaits us regardless of our nationality.

Additional:
(a) What makes men strange and countries foreign?
(b) Who is referred to as ‘our brothers’ in this stanza?
(c) What lesson can we learn from these lines?
(d) What should we remember?
(e) What uniforms is the poet talking about?
(f) Where do our brothers walk?
(g) Name the poem and the poet.
(h) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(i) Explain the metaphor in the first line.
(j) What breathes beneath all uniforms?
Answer:
(a) Geographical boundaries segregate countries. We consider countries other than ours to be ‘foreign’ and the people living in these countries to be ‘strange’.
(b) The people who live in countries other than ours have been referred to as our brothers.
(c) These lines teach us the lesson of peace, universal brotherhood and harmony.
(d) We should remember that no men are strange and no country is foreign.
(e) The poet is talking about the different uniforms worn by different people in different countries.
(f) Our brothers walk on this earth which is the same for all.
(g) The name of the poem is ‘No Men Are Foreign’ and the name of the poet is ‘James Kirkup’.
(h) Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes – Metaphor is the figure of speech employed here. Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes.
(i) ‘Uniforms’ here basically stand for militaries that different countries in the world have. These uniforms may be different in colour, design, shape and culture, but people donning them are the same anywhere in the world. So the word uniform is indirectly compared to the militaries of different countries.
(j) A single type of body breathes beneath all uniforms.

(ii) They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
(c) Mention the season referred here?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.
(c) The season mentioned here is winter.

Additional:
(a) Who does ‘they’ refer to in the first line?
(b) What are they aware of?
(c) What are all men fed by?
(d) What do you mean by peaceful harvest?
(e) What do you mean by ‘wars’ long winter?
(f) What are they starved by?
(g) Which poetic device has been used in “war’s long winter starv’d”?
(h) Why has war’s winter been called long?
(i) What is the figure of speech in the line, war’s long winter starv’d?
(j) Explain war’s long winter starv’d?
Answer:
(a) ‘They’ refers to the people of countries other than ours, whom we consider as strangers.
(b) They are aware of the benefits of sun, air and water drawing sustenance from these elements of nature.
(c) All men are fed by peaceful harvests.
(d) By peaceful harvests, we mean the crops grown during the period of peace.
(e) It means the painful days of the war when we are kept indoors.
(f) They are starved by long winter.
(g) The poetic device used in “war’s long winter starv’d” is a ‘metaphor’.
(h) The winter of war has been called ‘long’ because unlike the naturalness it is self – inflicted trouble that not only robs the warmth of peace but also never ending.
(i) The starvation caused by the harsh winter has been compared indirectly to the wartime destruction. So it is Metaphor. The poetic device can also be Alliteration where the initial consonants in war and winter are repeated.
(j) Here the starvation experienced during unproductive and harsh winter describes the want and hunger faced during war-time. Both these conditions lead to ultimate destruction.

(iii) Their hands are ours, and in their lines we read
A labour not different from our own. –
(a) Who does ‘their’ refer to?
(b) What does the poet mean by ‘lines we read’?
(c) What does not differ?
Answer:
(a) ‘Their’ refers to the other people of the world whom we consider as strange and foreign.’
(b) The poet by the words, Tines we read’ means that their destiny is similar to ours.The lines of their hands also show their capacity of doing hard work or labour.
(c) Labour does not differ.

Additional:
(а) Explain the expression: ‘Their hands are ours’.
(b) Explain: ‘A labour not different from our own’.
Answer:
(a) ‘Their hands are ours’ means that they too work hard like us with their hands to earn their livelihood.
(b) This expression means that the hard work done by the people who live in other countries is not different in any way from the one that we do. All of us have to toil and work hard in a similar way for survival.

(iv) Let us remember, whenever we are told To hate our brothers, it is ourselves That we shall dispossess, betray, condemn
(а) Who tells us to hate our brothers?
(b) What happens when we hate our brothers?
(c) What do we do to ourselves?
Answer:
(a) The opportunist and leaders and politicians craving for power and authority, in short the selfish people, who control all wartime affairs, tell us to hate our brothers.
(b) When we hate our brothers, we hate ourselves unknowingly.
(c) We dispose and be disloyal to ourselves expressing complete disapproval to our deeds.

Additional:
(a) What are we doing to our fellow beings?
(b) Why do we sometimes hate our brothers?
(c) How shall we dispossess ourselves?
(d) Whom do we harm by going to war?
(e) What are the aftermaths of hatred?
(f) Why does the poet call all strangers and foreigners ‘brothers’?
Answer:
(a) We are disposing of; betraying and criticising our fellow beings.
(b) We sometimes hate our brothers because we allow vested and unscrupulous politicians and religious leaders to instigate us. We are taken in by their lies about our differences and begin to consider our brothers as strange and foreign.
(c) We shall dispossess ourselves by disliking our brothers in other parts of the world when we are told by the politically driven people to do so. These brothers cannot become foreign or strange just because they belong to different countries, races and cultures.
(d) By going to war, we harm ourselves as much as we harm the enemy. The environmental pollution makes this earth an equally unhealthy place to live in for both sides that go to war.
(e) The aftermaths of hatred are violence, communal disharmony and inhuman behaviour.
(f) All of them are bound by the common bond of humanity. Hence the poet calls all the , strangers and foreigners as brothers.

(v) Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange.
(a) What outrages the innocence?
(b) Who are not foreign?
(c) What is not strange?
Answer:
(a) War, which is futile spoiling the very earth with hells of fire and dust outrages the innocence.
(b) Any human being who breathe the same air are not foreign.
(c) The world which becomes more difficult place to live in and any country in this world is not strange.

Additional:
(a) Explain: ‘hells of fire and dust’.
(b) Explain: ‘the innocence of air’.
Answer:
(a) ‘Hells of fire and dust’ stands for the devastation created and caused by the arms and ammunition used in wars. The dust and smoke thus caused pollute the very air we breathe.
(b) ‘Innocence of air’ means the freshness and purity of air that nature has blessed us with. It also indicates the innocence of the human mind.

Additional Questions

(i) Remember they have eyes like ours that wake
Or sleep, and strength that can be won
By love. In every land is common life
That all can recognise and understand.”
(a) What do all people have in common?
(b) Who does the word, ‘they’ refer to?
(c) Who does the words, ‘ours’ refer to?
(d) What do the eyes do?
(e) How can strength be won ?
(f) What is common in every land?
(g) What can all recognise and understand?
(h) Explain: ‘they have eyes like ours that wake or sleep’.
(i) According to the poet, how can we win other people?
(j) What do you understand by ‘common life’?
(k) What should we remember about men?
(l) What should we remember about countries?
(m) What advice does the poet give us in these lines?
Answer:
(a) All people have eyes, sleep and strength in common.
(b) ‘They’ refers to people whom we discriminate and all the people of different countries whom we consider to be strange.
(c) ‘Ours’ refers to the people living in our own country whom we consider to be like us.
(d) The eyes wake and sleep.
(e) Strength can be won by love.
(f) Life is common in every land.
(g) All can recognise and understand that life is common in every land.
(h) The poet is trying to bring home the idea that those people whom we consider strange m or foreign are similar to us in every way. They sleep and wake up each new day just ’ like us. Even though the colour and shape of their eyes is different from ours, they perform a similar function.
(i) The poet says that the strength of other people can be won by love and kindness, not by force or war.
(j) ‘Common life’ means life anywhere in the world that has similar patterns and features – birth and death, joys and sorrows, youth and old age, and so on and so forth. This commonness of ‘common life’ is experienced by all the people of the world regardless of the country in which they live.
(k) We should remember that no men are strange.
(l) We should remember that no countries are foreign.
(m) The poet advises us to ignore the orders of those who incite us to hate and abuse others because by doing so we harm ourselves.

(ii) “It is the human earth that we defile
Our hells of fire and dust outrage the innocence
Of air that is everywhere our own,
Remember, no men are foreign, and no countries strange”
(a) What are we doing to the earth?
(b) What is outraging this earth?
(c) How do we outrage the innocence of air?
(d) What do you mean by ‘hells of fire and dust’?
(e) What can we call our own?
(f) Is there any strange country?
(g) What is ‘human earth’?
(h) What does the poet want to convey by telling us that “It is the human earth that we defile”?
(i) How do we defile human earth?
(j) How do we humiliate the mother earth?
(k) What should a man remember?
Answer:
(a) We are polluting this earth.
(b) Hells of fire and dust are outraging this earth.
(c) We outrage the innocence of air by our poisonous ideas and deeds.
(d) ‘Hells of fire and dust’ means the wars that cause a lot of destruction.
(e) We can call the air our own.
(f) No, there isn’t any strange country.
(g) ‘Human earth’ is the human world that is comprised of all countries, races, cultures and creeds.
(h) The poet wants to convey that wars cause enormous destruction of life and possessions. They ruin the clean and green surroundings of the earth and breed disgust and hostility. Hence, no one profits from war because the damage caused to earth is to be tolerated similarly, for we all share the same earth.
(i) We defile or pollute the human earth by using arms and ammunition to cause extensive , death and destruction. Contemporary weapons cause irreparable damage to the environment. So, we defile the earth by our polluted ideas and hellish deeds.
(j) We humiliate the mother earth by fighting and killing one another.
(k) A man should remember that no men are foreign and no countries are strange.

B. Based on your understanding of the poem, complete the summary using the phrases given below.

This poem is about the ……………… (a) ……………… of all men. The subj ect of the poem is the …………… (b) …………. race, despite of the difference in colour, caste, creed, religion, country etc. All human beings are same. We walk on the …………….. (c) ………….. and we will be buried under it. Each and everyone of us are related to the other. We all are bom same and die in the same way. We may wear different uniforms like ………………… (d) ………….. during wars the opposing side will also have the same …………… (e) …………….. like ours. We as human do they same labour with ……………. (f) …………… and look at the world with the …………… (g) ……………… Waging war against others as they belong to a different country is like attacking our own selves. It is the ………………(h) ……………. we impair. We all share the same ……………… (i) ……………We are similar to each other. So the poet concludes that we shouldn’t have wars as it is ……………. (j) ……………… to fight against us.
(unity of human, dreams and aspirations, same land, our hands, unnatural, breathing body, same eyes, brotherhood, language, human earth)
Answers:
(a) brotherhood
(b) unity of human
(c) same land
(d) language
(e) breathing body
(f) our hands
(g) same eyes
(h) dreams and aspirations
(i) human earth
(j) unnatural

C. Based on your understanding of the poem answer the following questions in a ‘paragraph of about 100-150 words.

Question 1.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’.

That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way as ours. Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power.

In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. Hatred leads us astray and when we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Therefore, fundamentally we all are the same.

We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people. Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people.

Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising our arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.

‘Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone known.’

Question 2.
The poem ‘No men are foreign ’ has a greater relevance in today’s world. Elucidate. The poet, James Kirkup, quotes various instances to prove that no men are foreign. The very title of the poem is thought-provoking and forces the reader to think about the issue of people living in other countries as foreigners and strangers.

As the poem advances, the poet recurrently emphasises that all human beings are indistinguishable in their nature and tactics. All live on the same earth; enjoy air, sun and water; love peace and are opposed to war. They all have mutual experiences and toil in a similar manner to earn the living. The realistic reasoning put forth by the poet and the numerous reminders fully satisfy the reader that no men are foreign. He gets the message that alienation from fellow brethren is equally damaging to himself.

He also understands that by treating other men as foreign, the world stands exposed to the risk of war which can lead to permanent destruction and pollution of mother earth. It is true that many people have been telling us to live harmoniously since long. We never follow their message. We also know that our greed to get more wealth and power cannot give us peaceful life.

But some deep-rooted evils in our society make us draw a distinction between people. We know that all customs and conventions have been made by people. We start to hate even our family members due to our ego to be more powerful. By doing so, we at last harm ourselves. In society, people dislike selfish people. So before going to hurt other’s feeling, first of all we should think whether doing such act with others are justified by other people or society.

‘Smile at strangers and you just might change a life. ’

Additional Questions

Question 1.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning. When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender.

We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self- centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

‘Acceptance for one another is the key to living.’

Question 2.
‘ The land our brothers walk upon
Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.’
What does the poet mean to say in the above lines? Explain.
Answer:
The poet means to say in these lines that it is the same land on which we walk and tread. After our death, we would be buried in the same earth. Through these lines the poet tells us that we do all our activities on this same land. We get food for our survival from this same land. We make our houses on this land and we get many other things from the same land. Therefore, why should we consider some as strangers? No one is foreign or strange. We live in the same house or universe as a family.

Then why do we create discrimination against some people? Why do we fight with our brothers? It is all because of our greed to get more wealth and power. We want to have more wealth and power than others. In our quest to fulfil this desire, we fight with others and hurt them. The poet also tells us that one day all of us will die. Nothing would remain ours. We cannot take any of our possessions with us. We will have to leave all things on this same earth. Finally when we die, all of us will be buried in this same earth.

‘All are alike. ’

Question 3.
In what way do we dispossess, betray and condemn ourselves by hating our brothers and taking up arms against them?
Answer:
By hating our brothers and taking up arms against them, we ‘dispossess’ ourselves as we rob ourselves of their love. When we hate them, they too react destructively and stop loving us. Mutually, we deprive each other of the noble emotion of love. We deceive ourselves as our hatred leads to wars, and wars cause widespread death and devastation. This leads to the piling up of waste that pollutes our own mother earth. The dust and smoke from war obstruct the air that we breathe.

So, hatred of fellow beings, in fact, leads to betrayal of our own selves. Further, this earns us condemnation as we disrupt the purity of the elements of nature. We threaten our own existence by ruining the systems that sustain us. Hence, hating our brothers and taking up arms against them does more damage to us.

‘The universal brotherhood of man is our most precious possession. ‘

No Men Are Foreign (James Falconer Kirkup)
Literary Devices At A Glance (Figures of Speech)

No Men Are Foreign by James Falconer Kirkup about poet:
James Falconer Kirkup was bom on April 23, 1918 in South Shields, Durham, England to James Harold Joseph and Mary Virginia. He attended Westoe Secondary School before studying Modem Languages at Armstrong College where he co-produced the poetry magazines Dint and Fulcrum, which featured his earliest verse. James Kirkup, who died on Sunday 10 May, aged 91, at his Andorran home, was an internationally celebrated English poet, travel writer, memoirist, novelist, playwright and translator. Dining the Second World War, Kirkup secured conscientious objector status, working as a farm labourer and for the Forestry Commission.

No Men Are Foreign summary:

Introduction:
In the poem ‘No men are foreign’ the poet stresses the fact that all human beings are equal. He is requesting his countrymen to not treat people unequally. Moreiver, the poet conveys that we are scarring the earth by shedding blood of our brethren in wars. Therefore the poet is putting forth a request to people to live their lives in harmony on this beautiful earth that God has given us.

World fraternity:
Emphasising the value of universal brotherhood, the poet draws our attention to the absence of any differences amongst the people of different countries. He asks us never to forget that people living in other countries are not strange or unfamiliar. The uniforms worn by people in different parts of the world may be different, but the bodies beneath them are the same. All human bodies live and breathe in a similar fashion. We are all brothers because we walk upon the same earth that we have divided into countries. Also, we shall all meet this same earth when we die and be buried in it.

All men are our friends:
All the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water. We are all human beings. We have a common soul. Everyone is united by the sameness of spirit. Therefore wars and the bloodshed that takes place in the name of caste, class, creed and country are futile and must be condemned. They too prosper during peace but have to suffer poverty, hunger and even dread starvation caused by long-drawn wars. They too toil to earn the livelihood and their destiny is similar to ours.

We should remember that our eyes that wake, sleep and love are similar to eyes all over the world. The poet asks us to remember that the so-called ‘strange’ and ‘foreign’ people experience sleep and wakefulness like us. It is a fact that wherever we may be, we can win powerful strength with love. Their experiences of life are similar to that of ours. Hence, we all find something familiar in each other’s life and realise a common identify with one another.

Hate others and hate yourself:
The poet says whenever we are asked by our leaders or rulers to hate and exploit the people of other countries, we must remember that this hatred would have a negative effect on us. We should keep in mind that if we hate others it means that we hate ourselves. We would find ourselves cheated as it would deprive us of the bliss of universal brotherhood. We would condemn ourselves to a life of enmity and strangeness.

Mother Earth’s mercy:
The poet again retells us in the end that people are contaminating this earth by their deeds. The fatal weapons emit fire and ashes that spread all over and pollute the environment. War is futile as it spoils the very earth for which we take up arms against each other. We should protect our atmosphere and keep in mind that this universe is the creation of God and we all are one. All will one day or the other die and return to earth only. This robs the air of its pureness and the world becomes a more difficult place to live in. The earth that one walks upon is the same for all people from diverse countries. People in every part of the world get the sunshine, air and water in equal methods. It is, therefore, imperative not to consider any human being as foreign and any country as strange. We must build common respect and trust.

Conclusion:
The poet tries to convey that one must shed the difference of opinion and be united and make this earth a haven. To treat anybody as a foreigner is an insult to the one who cultivates.

No Men Are Foreign Glossary:
Textual:

We hope the data given here will benefit you to the fullest extent at the time of preparation. For better understanding of English subject this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions for Class 10th English Poem Chapter 6 No Men Are Foreign PDF is the best resource. Download & ace up your preparation. Keep in touch with us and get the latest information on Tamilnadu State board Textbook Solutions PDF.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World of Plants

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer

The World Of Plants Class 6 Question 1.
Pond is an example of ______ ecosystem.
(a) Marine
(b) Freshwater
(c) Deserts
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(b) Freshwater

Mention Few Desert Plants Answer Question 2.
The important function of stomata is ……….
(a) conduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Absorption
Answer:
(c) Photosynthesis

The Living World Of Plants Question 3.
Organ of absorption is ______
(a) Root
(b) Stem
(c) Leaf
(d) Flower
Answer:
(a) Root

The Living World Of Plants Class 6 Question 4.
The habitat of water hyacinth is
(a) Aquatic
(b) Terrestrial
(c) Desert
(d) Mountain
Answer:
(a) Aquatic

II. True or False

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 1.
Plants can live without water.
Answer:
False. Plants cannot live without water.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 2.
All plants have chlorophyll.
Answer:
True.

The Living World Class 6 Question Answers Question 3.
Plants have three parts: the root, the stem and leaves.
Answer:
False. Plants have several parts: Such as the root, the stem, leaves, flowers, fruits and seeds.

The World Of Plants Question 4.
Mountain is an example for freshwater habitat.
Answer:
False. Rivers, ponds, lakes and pools are the example for freshwater habitat. (OR) Mountain is an example for Terrestrial habitat.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 5.
Root is modified into spines.
Answer:
False. Leaves are modified into spines.

Question 6.
Green plants need sunlight.
Answer:
True.

III. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Earth’s surface is covered by __________ % of water.
2. The driest places on Earth are __________
3. Fixation and absorption are the main functions of __________
4. Primary organs of photosynthesis are __________
5. Tap root system is present in __________ plants.

Answers:

1. More than 70%
2. deserts
3. root
4. leaves
5. dicotyledonous

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

V. Arrange in correct sequence.

Question 1.
Leaves – Stem Root – Flower.
Answer:
Root, Stem, Leaves, Flower.

Question 2.
Transpiration-Conduction-Absorption-Fixation
Answer:
Fixation-Absorptiori-Conduction-Transpiration

VI. Very short answer.

Question 1.
Classify the plants on the basis of their habitats.
Answer:
The two major habitats.
(a) Aquatic habitat
(b) Terrestrial habitat

(a) Aquatic habitat classified into two. They are

1. Fresh water habitat
2. Marine water habitat

(b) Terrestrial habitat classified into three.

1. Forest habitat
2. Grassland habitat
3. Desert habitat.

Question 2.
Identify the Desert plants from the following-
Cactus, Hydrilla, Mango and Rose
Answer:
Cactus plants – grow in deserts, and are able to store water in their stem.

Question 3.
Define the term habitat.
Answer:
A dwelling place of an animal, plant or other organism, to live and reproduce is called habitat.

Question 4.
Relate the terms leaves and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Leaves are green in colour, they have chlorophyll and do photosynthesis.

VII. Short Answer.

Question 1.
Why do you call jasmine plant, a twiner?
Answer:
Jasmine plant has weak stem. It cannot stand straight on its own. It must climb on any support to survive. So jasmine plant is called as twiner.

Question 2.
Compare the tap root and fibrous root systems.
Answer:
Tap root :
Single root-grow straight with smaller roots arise from the tap root.
eg. Dicot plants- Bean, mango

Fibrous root :
Cluster of roots arising from base of the stem, tin and uniform in size.
eg. Monocots, grass, paddy

Question 3.
Distinguish between terrestrial and aquatic habitats.
Answer:
Terrestrial habitats:

1. They are found on land
2. They include desert, grassland, forest, farms, towns and cities
3. They are classified into 3 types, such as Desert habitat, Grassland habitat & Forest habitat.
4. Eg. Rubber tree, teak tree, neem tree

Aquatic habitats:

1. They are found in water.
2. They include the areas, permanently as well as occasionally covered by water.
3. They are classified into 2 types, such as Fresh water habitat, & Marine water habitat.
4. Eg. Lily, lotus, marine algae, sea grasses.

Question 4.
List out the plants present in your school garden.
Answer:
Shoe Flower, Ferns, Crotons, Roses, Lilies, Cactus, Coconut Trees, Royal Palm, Clitoria, Cycas, Agave, Allamanda, Tomato, Brinjal, Lady’s Finger etc in Terrace garden.

VIII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Make a list of the functions of root and stem.
Answer:
Functions of root:
The root,

• Fixes the plant to the soil.
• Absorbs water and minerals from the soil.
• Stores food in some plants like carrot and beet root.

Functions of stem:
The stem,

• Supports the branches, leaves, flowers and fruits.
• Transports water and minerals from roots to upper aerial plant parts.
• Transports the prepared food from leaves to other parts.
• Stores food as in the case of sugarcane.

Question 2.
Study the given concept map. Connect them correcting by drawing arrow marks. Complete the map by filling the blanks.

Answer:

Guess it :
Ginger: Is it a Root or stem?

Answer:
Ginger is often mistaken as a root. In fact it is actually an underground stem from a tropical herb plant Zingiber Officinale.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Intext Activities

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World Of Plants Activity – 1

Water absorption by Root
Aim:- To observe absorption of water by root

The Living World Class 6 Question Answers Term 1 Chapter 4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
What you need?
Answer:
A carrot, a glass of water and blue ink.

The World Of Plants Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living Question 2.
What to do?
Answer:
Place a carrot in a glass of water with a few drops of blue ink. Leave the carrot in water for two to three days. Then cut the carrot into half length wise and observe.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 4 The Living World Of Plants Question 3.
What do you learn?
Answer:
Blue colour appears in carrot which indicates the upward movement of water in the carrot showing that root conducts water.

Activity – 2

Conduction of water
Aim:- To observe conduction of water by stem.

Question 1.
What you need?
Answer:
A small twig of balsam plant, a glass of water and a few drops of red ink.

Question 2.
What to do?
Answer:
Place the small twig in the water with red ink.

Question 3.
What do you see?
Answer:
The stem becomes reddish.

Question 4.
What do you learn?
Answer:
This is because red coloured water is being absorbed by the stem upwards.

Activity – 3

Question:
The teacher will divide students into four groups. Each group leader will pull a plant part from a “hat” (roots, stems, leaves, and flower). The teacher will take students around campus to search for their assigned plant parts. They have to locate different types of plants discussed in the class room. The learner will return to the class, follow a process sheet given to create a poster with their group and identify correctly each type of root, stem, or leaf observed. The flower group will create a poster by identifying correctly each part of the flower. Each group will share their posters within the class.
Answer:
Activity to done by the students themselves

Activity – 4

Question 1.
Read the following story along with your friend
Once, I was a happy monkey. I lived in a beautiful thick forest with my mother and two brothers. We ran and played in the lush grass. On one hot day, I fell fast asleep in the cool shade of a tree. Suddenly the bright sun woke me up. I opened my eyes and could not believe what I saw everything has changed. Everything had been destroyed. I stood and looked at the stumps that used to be trees. Nothing was left apart from hard dry ground and only streets and building. I saw a deer that looked very sad, “where have all the trees gone and where are all the other animals?” I asked her.

She explained how humans had chopped down all the trees, but had not planted new ones to replace them. After a while, I said good bye to deer. My home had gone. I didn’t know where my family was, and I was hungry and thirsty, day and night. I walked in search of water, food and safe place to sleep. Whenever I stopped, to rest humans drove me away with sticks and angry voices. I could feel my body getting weak and tired. One day when I had almost given all the hope, I came across a cool and dark forest. As I walked through it, I found plenty of food and water. The forest was safe for me. There were no signs of human visiting it.

• Why did the deer feel sad?
• Who chopped the trees?
• Which is the safest place for monkey to live?
• What is a habitat?

Answer:

• The deer felt sad because humans had chopped down all the trees and there was no place to live.
• People had chopped the trees.
• A forest is the safest place for monkey to live.
• The dwelling place of an animal, plant or other organism is called habitat.

Activity – 5
Visit a nearby nursery. Choose any ten varieties of plants and place them under the appropriate habitats.
Answer:

Activity – 6
Field Investigation

Name of the student :
Date :
Location :
Plant types to be observed
1. A tendril climber
2. A twiner
3. A plant with thorn
Tabulate the modification that you have observed in these plants.
Answer:
Field Investigation
Name of the student : Ramesh
Date : 28 – 07 – 2018
Location : Thekkady

Hots
Cactus plant is green in colour and performs photosynthesis. Which part of the plant does photosynthesis?
Answer:
The stem part of the cactus plant performs photosynthesis.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science The Living World of Plants Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
______ is a natural science concerned with study of life and living organisms.
(a) Chemistry
(b) Biology
(c) Zoology
(d) Physics
Answer:
(b) Biolog

Question 2.
The part of a stem from where a leaf arises is
(a) node
(b) internode
(c) terminal bud
(d) lateral bud
Answer:
(a) node

Question 3.
Main axis of the shoot system Is called ______
(a) stem
(b) root
(c) Leaf
(d) buds
Answer:
(a) stem

Question 4.
The green colour of the leaf is due to the presence of
(a) chloronchyma
(b) chlorophyll
(c) lamina
(d) stomata
Answer:
(b) chlorophyll

Question 5.
World habitat day is observed on first Monday of ______
(a) October
(b) November
(c) September
(d) December
Answer:
(a) October

Question 6.
______ is one of the fast growing plant during active growth phase.
(a) Mango
(b) Neem
(c) Hibiscus
(d) Bamboo
Answer:
(d) Bamboo

Question 7.
______ is the longest river in the world.
(a) Sutlej
(b) Yellow
(c) Nile
(d) Congo
Answer:
(c) Nile

Question 8.
Length of Nile river is ______
(a) 6560 km
(b) 6650 km
(c) 6506 km
(d) 5606 km
Answer:
(b) 6650 km

Question 9.
Air spaces in stems and petioles of ______ plant are useful for floating In water.
(a) lotus
(b) waterlily
(c) water hyacinth
(d) agave
Answer:
(a) lotus

Question 10.
The first land plants are ______
(a) neem and pine
(b) hibiscus and lotus
(c) banyan and peepal
(d) mosses and liverworts
Answer:
(d) mosses and liverworts

Question 11.
The ______ forest in South America produces half of the world’s oxygen supply.
(a) Taiga
(b) Congo rain
(c) Amazon rain
(d) Dry deciduous
Answer:
(c) Amazon rain

II. True or False – If False give the correct answer.

Question 1.
The living world comprises of plants and animals.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Root has nodes and internodes.
Answer:
False. Stem has nodes and intemodes.

Question 3.
Tap root consists of a cluster of roots arising from the base of the stem.
Answer:
False. Fibrous root consists of a cluster of roots arising from the base of the stem.

Question 4.
The buds at the axils of the leaves are called terminal buds.
Answer:
False. The buds at the axils of the leaves are called auxiliary buds.

Question 5.
In case of sugarcane, food is stored in the stem region.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The longest river in India is the Ganges river.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
The Amazon rain forest in Canada produces half of the world’s oxygen supply.
Answer:
False. The Amazon rain forest in South America produces has of the world’s oxygen supply.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Plants can prepare _______
2. _______ are positively geotropic in nature.
3. Mango plant is a _______ plant.
4. _______ plants store food in their roots.
5. The aerial part of the plant body above the ground is known as _______
6. The part of the stem between two successive nodes is called _______
7. The flat portion of the leaf is called _______
8. The green colour of the leaf is due to the presence of green coloured pigment called _______
9. _______ plant’s leaves grow up to 3 metres across.
10. _______ are free floating Algae.
11. _______ desert is called as Great Indian desert.
12. River Ganges is _______ km long.
13. Marine plants perform about _______ of all photosynthesis that occurs on the planet.

Answers:

1. food
2. Roots
3. dicotyledonous
4. Carrot and beet root
5. shoot system
6. internode
7. Leaf Lamina
8. Chlorophyll
9. Victoria amazonica
10. Phytoplanktons
11. Thar
12. 2525
13. 40%

IV. Complete the given analogy.

Question 1.
Aerial part above the ground : Shoot system
Underground part of the axis of a plant : _______
Answer:
Root system

Question 2.
Dicotyledonous plants : Bean, Mango
Monocotyledonous plants : _______
Answer:
Grass, paddy

Question 3.
Carrot, beet root : store food in roots.
Sugarcane : _______
Answer:
Stores food in shoot

Question 4.
Photosynthesis : _______
Transpiration : Stomata.
Answer:
chiorophyll

Question 5.
Flowering plant : Sun flower
Non-flowering plant : _______
Answer:
Riccial

Question 6.
Mango : Angiosperm
Cycas : _______
Answer:
Gymnosperm

Question 7.
Water lily : Fresh water habitat
Marine Algae : _______
Answer:
Marine water habitat

Question 8.
Rainfall 25 – 200 cm : Forest habitat
Rainfall below 25 cm : _______
Answer:
Desert habitat

Question 9.
Sweet Peas : Tendril Climber
Clitoria : _______
Answer:
Twiners

Question 10.
Leaves are modified into spines : Opuntia
Stem has sharp thorns : _______
Answer:
Bougainvillea

V. Match the following.

1. Tap root – (a) Grass
2. Aquatic plant – (b) Teak tree
3. Desert plant – (c) Neem
4. Grassland – (d) Opuntia
5. Terrestrial plant – (e) Water lily

Answer:

1. – (c)
2. – (e)
3. – (d)
4. – (a)
5. – (b)

VI. Short Answers.

Question 1.
What are the uses of plants?
Answer:
Plants are used as food, medicine, wood and shelter.

Question 2.
Classify plants on the basis of flowers.
Answer:
Plants can be classified into 2 on the basis of flowers

1. Non-flowering plants – Eg. Riccia
2. Flowering plants – Eg. Mango

Question 3.
What are the properties of root?
Answer:

1. Root lies below the surface of the soil.
2. It does not have nodes and intemodes.
3. It has a root cap at the tip.
4. Roots are positively geotropic in nature.

Question 4.
Notes on cactus.
Answer:

1. Cactus – desert plant ( where there is less or no rain fall)
2. Stem – store water
3. Leaves – modified to spines
4. Roots – well developed, go deep down into soil to get water.

Question 5.
Answer:

1. Shoot system is the aerial part of the plant body above the ground.
2. It consists of stem, leaves, flowers and fruits. .
3. It grows towards the sunlight.
4. It has nodes and intemodes.

Question 6.
List the functions of leaves.
Answer:

1. The green leaves prepare food by the process of photosynthesis.
2. They help in respiration
3. They carryout transpiration.

Question 7.
Classify the plants on the basis of (i) flower and (ii) position of seed.
Answer:
Based on flower:
They are classified into

1. Flowering plants
2. Non-flowering plants

Based on the position of seed :
They are classified into

1. Gymnosperms
2. Angiosperms

Question 8.
List the characters of aquatic plant.
Answer:
In aquatic plants, roots are very much reduced in size. Stem and leaves have air chambers that allow to float in the water.

Question 9.
Give some examples of fresh water habitat and marine water habitat plants.
Answer:
Fresh water habitat: Water hyacinth, water lily, lotus.
Marine water habitat: Marine Algae, Sea grasses, Marsh grass, Phytoplanktons.

Question 10.
Name the part which is modified into tendril in Sweet Peas and Bitter Gourd?
Answer:
In Sweet Peas : Leaflets are modified.
In Bitter Gourd : Axiliary buds are modified.

Question 11.
Define Thorns.
Answer:
Leaves of some plants become wholly or partially modified into sharp pointed structures called thorns or spines.

Question 12.
Name the part which is modified into Thorns or Spines in Agave, Opuntia and Bougainvillea.
Answer:
In Agave : The leaf apex and margins are modified into thorns.
In Opuntia : The leaves are modified into spines.
In Bougainvillea : The stem has sharp thorns.

VII. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Describe the Structure of Leaf.
Answer:

1. The leaf is a green, flat expanded structure.
2. It has a stalk called petiole.
3. The flat portion of the leaf is called leaf lamina or leaf blade.
4. On the lamina, there is a main vein called midrib.
   
5. The portion of the leaf connected in the nodal region of the stem is known as the leaf base.
6. The green colour is due to the presence of green coloured pigment called chlorophyll.
7. On the lower side of the leaf there are tiny pores or openings known as stomata.

Question 2.
Draw a diagram of a plant and label its parts.
Answer:

Students can Download English Poem 1 Indian Seasons Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 1 Indian Seasons

6th Standard Indian Season Poem Overview

B. Which season am I? Read the poem, understand and solve the riddle.

1. I make the feet dusty.
2. Frogs and toads will visit when I am there.
3. I am pretty short and sweet.
4. I make your garden smell sweet.
5. Leaves will wither because of me.

Answers:

1. Summer
2. Rainy
3. Spring
4. Spring
5. Autumn

6th Standard English Poem Indian Season Read and Understand

C. Read the tines and answer the questions given below.

1. Summer comes
in a blaze of heat with
sunny smiles
and dusty feet

Indian Seasons Poem Summary Question a.
Dots the poet welcome the summer? How do you know?
Answer:
Yes, the poet welcomes the summer because she says that summer comes with sunny smiles, making people cheerful.

Indian Seasons Poem Question b.
Which lines tells you that there is no rain in summer?
Answer:
‘Sunny smiles and dusty feet’ tells us that there is no rain in summer.

2. Spring is pretty
but short and sweet
when you can smell the grass
from your garden seat

Indian Seasons Poem Lines Question a.
How does the poet describe the spring season?
Answer:
The poet describes the spring season as pretty, short and sweet.

Indian Season Poem 6th Standard Question b.
Which line tells you that the garden is fresh?
Answer:
The line ‘when you can smell the grass from your garden seat’ tells us that the garden is fresh.

Indian Season Poem Question c.
Who does ‘you’ refer to?
Answer:
‘You’ refers to ‘the person who owns the garden’.

3. Autumn is English
in red, yellow and brown
Autumn is Indian
Whenever leaves fell down

Indian Season 6th Standard Poem Question a.
How Is autumn in India?
Answer:
Whenever the leaves fall down, it is autumn in India.

Indian Seasons Poem In English Question b.
Compare the English autumn with the Indian autumn.
Answer:
The leaves are beautiful with red, yellow and brown colours and the poet considers this to be English autumn. Whenever the leaves fall down, it is Indian autumn.

D. Pick out the rhyming words from the poem and write them In the table.

E. Find examples of alliteration and write them in the blanks.

1. In a blaze of heat
with sunny smiles
Answer:
sunny – smiles

2. to muddy roads
monsoons and mangoes
Answer:
monsoons – mangoes

3. Spring Is pretty
but short and sweet
Answer:
short – sweet

F. Work In pairs, find answers for the questions and share In the class.

Indian Seasons Book Back Answers Question 1.
Name the seasons mentioned In the poem?
Answer:
The seasons mentioned in the poem are summer, rainy, spring and autumn.

Indian Seasons Poem Questions And Answers Question 2.
What does the summer bring?
Answer:
The summer brings sunny smiles and dusty feet.

Poem Indian Seasons Question 3.
Which word refers to ‘rain’?
Answer:
The word ‘Monsoon’ refers to ‘rain’.

6th Standard Indian Season Poem Question 4.
Why does the poet say the ‘Spring Is pretty’?
Answer:
The spring is pretty because we can smell the freshness of grass from our garden.

Indian Seasons Poem By Nisha Dyrene Question 5.
When Is it autumn in India? Why does the poet say this? Is there an autumn season in India?
Answer:
When the leaves fall down, it is autumn in India. The poet says this because in India, leaves rarely change colours. Only when the trees shed their leaves, we know that it is autumn in India. Yes, there is an autumn season in India during the months of September, October and November.

G. How does the poet describe the Indian seasons? Write in your own words in about 50 words.
Answer:
The poet describes the Indian seasons vividly in a simple form. The sumer season starts with intense heat. It is like a bright flame or fire. It brings cheerfulness to people and makes their feet dusty. Then, the seasons change. Monsoons come in bringing muddy roads, ripe mangoes, leaping frogs and toads everywhere. Spring is pretty but short. It is also sweet because we can smell the freshness of green grass from our garden. The poet compares the autumn season in the West to India. Leaves change their colours into red, yellow and brown in the West, whereas the trees shed their leaves in India.

Indian Seasons Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension and Poetic Devices.

1. Then seasons change
to muddy roads
monsoons and mangoes
leapfrogs and toads

6th English Poem Indian Season Question a.
What Is the season mentioned here?
Answer:
Rainy season is mentioned here.

6th Standard English Poem Indian Season Question b.
Why are roads muddy?
Answer:
The roads become muddy because of heavy rains.

Question c.
What do you mean by the word ‘leap’?
Answer:
‘Leap’ means ‘jump’.

Question d.
Pick out the alliterated words in third line.
Answer:
‘monsoons and mangoes’are the alliterated words.

Indian Seasons Poem 6th Standard Paragraph Question.

Question 1.
What do you know about spring season? What does it symbolize? Write in your own words.
Answer:
Trees and bushes that lose their leaves over the winter, begin to grow new leaves again and also flower in spring. This happens because the temperature of the air and soil starts to warm up and the hours of daylight increase, as the days get longer with the coming of spring. Spring symbolizes new life. So plants start to grow again and flowers appear.

Indian Seasons Poem Summary By Nisha Dyrene

The poet Nisha Dyrene in this poem ‘Indian seasons’ describes the four seasons prevalent in India. The poem begins with the summer season starting with intense heat. It comes like a bright flame or fire. It brings cheerfulness to people and makes their feet dusty. Then the seasons change, after a certain period of time. The roads become muddy at the onset of monsoons, which is a rainy season. We can see ripe mangoes everywhere. The frogs play in the water and jump high, where as the toads hop happily.

Next comes the spring season which is pretty, but its duration is short. It is also sweet because you can smell fresh grass from your garden. The poet compares autumn in the West to autumn in India. She says when the leaves are red, yellow and brown, then it signifies autumn in the West. But when the leaves shed, it is autumn in India

Immediately get Chapter Wise Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Economics to gain more marks and start Quick Revision of all Chapters. All Chapters Pdf is provided along with the Questions and Answers. You Can Dowload Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Solutions Questions and Answers for Chapter wise are given with a clear explanation. Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Economics Chapter 1 Introduction To Micro-Economics Questions and Answers is for free of cost.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction To Micro-Economics

Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Economics Chapter 1 Introduction To Micro-Economics Questions and Answers PDF has all given in Chapter Wise Section. Check Out daily basis with Tamilnadu State Board Solutions 11th Economics PDF will help to improve your score. Improve your level of accuracy to answer a question by reading with Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Solutions Questions and Answers PDF.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Introduction To Micro-Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solution Chapter 1 Question 1.
‘Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life’ -It is the statement of
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Lionel Robbins
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(c) Alfred Marshall

11th Economics Chapter 1 Book Back Answers Question 2.
The basic problem studied in Economics is ……………………….
(a) Unlimited wants
(b) Unlimited means
(c) Scarcity
(d) Strategy to meet all our wants
Answer:
(c) Scarcity

11th Economics 1st Lesson Questions And Answers Question 3.
Microeconomics is concerned with
(a) The economy as a whole
(b) Different sectors of an economy
(c) The study of individual economic units behaviour
(d) The interactions within the entir e economy
Answer:
(c) The study of individual economic units behaviour

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Guide Question 4.
Which of the following is a microeconomics statement?
(a) The real domestic output increased by 2.5 percent last year
(b) Unemployment was 9.8 percent of the labor force last year
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand
(d) The general price level increased by 4 percent last year
Answer:
(c) The price of wheat determines its demand

11th Economics 1st Lesson Question 5.
Find the odd one out:
(a) “An inquiry into the nature and the causes of the Wealth of Nations”
(b) “Principles of Economics”
(c) “Nature and Significance of Economic Science”
(d) “Ceteris paribus”
Answer:
(d) “Ceteris paribus”

11th Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The equilibrium price is the price at which ……………………….
(a) Everything is sold
(b) Buyers spend their money
(c) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied
(d) Excess demand is zero
Answer:
(c) Quantity demanded equals quantity supplied

11th Economics Chapter 1 Question 7.
Author of “An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations”
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Lionel Robbins
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(d) Paul A Samuelson

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Economics Question 8.
“Economics studies human behavior as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses” is the definition of the economics of …………………………
(a) Lionel Robbins
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Alfred Marshall
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(a) Lionel Robbins

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Question 9.
Who is the Father of Economics?
(a) Max Muller
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

11th Economics Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
“Economics is a science” The basis of this statement is …………………………
(a) Relation between cause and effect
(b) Use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of laws
(c) Experiments
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

11th Economics 1st Chapter Question Answer Question 11.
Utility means
(a) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are equal
(b) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services
(c) Total value of commodity
(d) Desire for goods and services
Answer:
(b) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services

11th Economics Samacheer Kalvi Guide Question 12.
A market is ………………………
(a) Only a place to buy things
(b) Only a place to sell things
(c) Only a place where prices adjust
(d) A system where persons buy and sell goods directly or indirectly
Answer:
(d) A system where persons buy and sell goods directly or indirectly

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Back Answers Question 13.
Which one of the following is not a point in the Welfare Definition of Economics?
(a) Study of an ordinary man
(b) Economics does not focus on wealth alone
(c) Economics is the study of material welfare
(d) Economics deals with unlimited wants and limited means
Answer:
(d) Economics deals with unlimited wants and limited means

11 Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 14.
Growth definition takes into account ……………………….
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic framework of Economics
(b) The problem of unlimited means in relation to wants
(c) The production and distribution of wealth
(d) The material welfare of human beings
Answer:
(a) The problem of choice in the dynamic framework of Economics

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Question 15.
Which theory is generally included under microeconomics?
(a) Price Theory
(b) Income Theory
(c) Employment Theory
(d) Trade Theory
Answer:
(a) Price Theory

11th Economics 1st Chapter Question 16.
……………………….. have exchange value and their ownership rights can be established and exchanged.
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Markets
(d) Revenue
Answer:
(a) Goods

11th Economics Chapter 1 Answers Question 17.
Identify the correct characteristics of utility
(a) It is equivalent to ‘usefulness’
(b) It has moral significance
(c) It is same as pleasure
(d) It depends upon consumer’s mental attitude
Answer:
(d) It depends upon consumer’s mental attitude

11 Th Samacheer Kalvi Economics Question 18.
Who has given a scarcity definition of economics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Robertson
Answer:
(c) Robbins

Economics Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 19.
The process of reasoning from particular to general is
(a) Deductive method
(b) Inductive method
(c) Positive economics
(d) Normative economics
Answer:
(b) Inductive method

Question 20.
Total revenue is equal to total output sold multiplied by ………………………….
(a) Price
(b) Total cost
(c) Marginal revenue
(d) Marginal cost
Answer:
(a) Price

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 21.
What is meant by Economics?
Answer:
The term ‘Economics’ comes from oikonomikos which means ‘Management of households’. ‘Political Economy’ is renamed as ‘Economics’ by Alfred Marshall.

Economics Book Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 22.
Define microeconomics?
Answer:

1. Microeconomics is the study of the economic actions of individual units say households, firms, or industries.
2. It studies how business firms operate under different market conditions.
3. The combined actions of buyers and sellers determine prices.
   • Microeconomics covers:
   • Value theory [product pricing and factor pricing]
   • Theory of economic welfare.

Economics Class 11 Chapter 1 Questions And Answers Question 23.
What are the goods?
Answer:
The materialistic things and services which satisfy human wants are called as goods in economics.

Samacheer Kalvi Economics Question 24.
Distinguish goods from services.
Answer:

Question 25.
Name any two types of utility?
Answer:

1. Time Utility: A sick man derives time utility from blood not at the time of its donation. but only at the operation – time, i.e., when it is used.
2. Place Utility: A student derives place utility from a book not at the place of its publication (production centre) but only at the place of his education (consumption centre).

Question 26.
Define positive economics.
Answer:
Positive economics deals with what it is, its means, it analyses a problem on the basis of facts and examines its causes.

Question 27.
Give the meaning of the deductive method?
Answer:

1. The deductive method is also named as an analytical or abstract method.
2. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths.
3. It takes a few general principles and applies them to draw conclusions.
4. The classical and neoclassical school of economists notably, Ricardo, JS Mill, Malthus Marshall, Pigou applied the deductive method in their economic investigations.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
Explain the scarcity definition of Economics and assess it.
Answer:
Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science”. In it, he defined “Economics is a science which studies human behavior as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.
Assessment:

1. Robbins does not make any distinction between goods conducive to human welfare and goods that are not.
2. Economics deals not only with the microeconomic aspects but also with the macroeconomic aspects like how national income is generated. Robbins reduces economics merely to the theory of resource allocation.
3. Robbin’s definition does not cover the theory of economic growth and development.

Question 29.
What are the crucial decisions involved in ‘what to produce’?
Answer:
Every society much decides on what goods it will produce and how much of these it will produce.
In this process, the crucial decisions include:

1. Whether to produce more of food, clothing and housing or to have more luxury goods.
2. Whether to have more agricultural goods or to have industrial goods and services.
3. Whether to use more resources in education and health or to use more resources in military services.
4. Whether to have more consumption goods or to have investment goods.
5. Whether to spend more on basic education or higher education.

Question 30.
Explain different types of economic activities.
Answer:

1. Economics focuses on the behavior and interactions among economic agents, individuals, and groups in the economic system.
2. It deals with the consumption and production of goods and services and distribution of income among the factors of production.
3. It includes the activities of the rational human beings under the existing social, legal, and institutional arrangement.
4. It studies the way in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.

Question 31.
Elucidate different features of services?
Answer:
Along with goods, services are produced and consumed. They are generally, possess the following:

1. Intangible:

• Intangible things are not physical objects but exist in connection to other things for example, brand image, goodwill etc.
• The intangible things are converted and stored into tangible items such as recording a music piece into a pen – drive.

2. Heterogeneous:

• Services vary across regions or cultural backgrounds.
• A single type service yields multiple experiences, e.g., music, consulting physicians etc.

3. Inseparable from their makers:

• Services are inextricably connected to their makes. For example, labour and labourers are inseparable.

4. Perishable:

• Services cannot be stored as inventories like assets.
• For example, it is useless to possess a ticket for a cricket-match once the match is over.
• It cannot be stored and it has no value-in-exchange.

Question 32.
What are the important features of utility?
Answer:
Utility : Utility is the want satisfying power of a commodity or a service. Features of utility :

1. Utility is psychological.
2. Utility is not equivalent to usefulness.
3. Utility is not the same as pleasure.
4. Utility is personal and relative.
5. Utility is the function of the intensity of human want.
6. Utility is a subjective concept.
7. Utility has no ethical or moral significance.

Question 33.
Distinguish between microeconomics and macroeconomics
Answer:

Question 34.
Compare positive economics and normative economics.
Answer:
Positive economics deals with what it means, it analyses a problem on the basis of facts and examines its causes whereas, Normative economics responds to a question like what ought to be.

Positive Economics:

1. An increase in the money supply implies a price rise in an economy.
2. As the irrigation facilities and application of chemical fertilizers expand, the production of food – grains increases.
3. An increase in birth rate and a decrease in the death rate reflect the rate of growth of the population.

Normative Economics:

1. Inflation is better than deflation.
2. More production of luxury goods in not good for a less developed country.
3. Inequalities in the distribution of wealth and incomes should be reduced.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Compare and contrast various definitions of Economics?
Answer:
1. Adam Smith – Wealth definition:

1. Adam Smith [1723 – 1790], in his book “An Inquiry into Nature and Cause of Wealth of Nations” [1776] defines “Economics as the science of wealth”
2. He explains how a nation’s wealth is created and increased.
3. He considers that the individual in the society wants to promote his own gain and in this process, he is guided and led by an “invisible hand”
4. Adam Smith favours the introduction of “division of labour” to increase the quantum of output.
5. Severe competition in factories and society helps in bettering the product.
6. Supply force is very active and a commodity is made available to the consumers at the lowest price.

2. Alfred Marshall – Welfare definition:

1. Alfred Marshall [1842 – 1924] in his book “Principles of Economics” [1890] defines Economics thus “Political Economy” or Economics is a study of mankind in the ordinary business of life.
2. It examines that part of individual and social action which is most closely connected with the attainment and with the use of the material requisites of well being.
3. Thus, it is on one side a study of wealth and on the other and more important side, a part of the study of man”.

The important features of Marshall’s definition are:

1. Economics does not treat wealth as the be all and end all of economic activities.
2. Man promotes primarily welfare and not wealth. ‘
3. The science of economics contains the concerns of ordinary people who are moved by love and not merely guided or directed by the desire to get maximum monetary benefit.
4. Economics is a social science. It studies people in the society who influence one another.

3. Lionel Robbins – Scarcity definition:

1. Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
2. According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which have alternative uses”.

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

1. Ends refer to human wants. Human beings have unlimited number of wants.
2. On the other hand, resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
3. The scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
4. An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
5. Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice.

4. Samuelson’s – growth definition:
Paul Samuelson defines Economics as “the study of how men and society choose, with or without the use of money, to employ scarce productive resources which could have alternative uses to produce various commodities over time, and distribute them for consumption, now and in the future among various people and groups of society”.

The major implications of this definition are as follows:

• Samuelson makes his definition dynamic by including the element of time in it.
• Samuelson’s definition is applicable also in a barter economy.
• His definition covers various aspects like production, distribution and consumption.
• Samuelson treats Economics as a social science.
• Samuelson appears to be the most satisfactory.

Question 36.
Explain various steps of deductive and inductive methods.
Answer:
Steps of deductive method :

1. Should have clear and precise idea of the problem.
2. Definition of technical terms and assumptions.
3. Deducing hypothesis.
4. Verification of hypotheses

Steps of inductive method :

1. Data collection and arrangement.
2. By observing the data conclusions are drawn easily.
3. Generalization of data and hypothesis formulation.
4. Verification of hypothesis.

Question 37.
Elaborate the nature and scope of Economics.
Answer:
Explanation :
Nature of Economics :
The nature of a subject refers to its contents and how and why they find a place in the subject. This nature is understood by studying the various definitions given by Economists.
The nature of Economics can be clearly understood from the following definitions :

1. Adam Smith (classical Era) who considered Economics is a science of wealth gave wealth definition.
2. Alfred Marshall (Neo-classical era) considered Economics as a social science which studies wealth on one side and the material welfare of human beings on the other side.
3. Robbin’s Scarcity Definition (new age) He defined Economics is a science of choice.
4. Samuelson gave growth definition which represents the modern age.
5. The scope of economics refers to the subject matter of economics. It throws light on whether it is an art or a science and science, whether positive or normative science.

Economics: It’s the subject matter :

Related to socity:

1. Economics focuses on the behaviour and interactions among economic agents, individuals and groups belonging to an economic system.
2. It deals with the consumption and production of goods and services and the distribution of income among the factors of production.

Related to scarce resources :

1. Economics studies the ways in which people use the available resources to satisfy their multiplicity of wants.

Human science or Social science :

1. Economics is concerned with activities of human beings.
2. The action of one member affect those of the others in the society. Hence, economics is called a human science or social science.

Related to wealth :

1. Economics constitute all human activities related to wealth.
2. Human activities not related to wealth are not included in Economics.

Economics as an art:

1. Art is the practical application of knowledge for achieving particular goals.
2. Economics provides guidance to the solutions to all the economic problems.

Economics as a science :

1. Science is a systematic study of knowledge. Science develops the co-relation between cause and effect based on facts.
2. Economics examines the relationship between the cause and effect of the problems. Hence, it is rightly considered as both an art and a science.

Economics : Positive and Normative science:

1. Positive- Economics is concerned with how ? and why ? and normative Economics with ‘What ought to be’. Economics is both a positive and normative science.

Question 38.
Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of production possibility curve. Production possibility curve :
Answer:
The Problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited resources can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, is known as production possibility curve

Basic problems of the Economy :

(i) The problem of choice :

1. The problem of choice arise because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants.
2. It may be related to the allocation of resources between people of different standards.
3. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arise.

(ii) The Notion of scarcity :

1. We can explain the notion of scarcity with the help of PPC.
2. Every society possesses only a specific amount of resources, which can produce only limited amount of output even with the help of best technology.
3. The PPC reflects the constraints imposed by the element of economic scarcity.

(iii) Solution of central problems :

1. The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC.
2. The solution for what to produce involves the decisionregarding the choice oflocation on the production possibility curves.
3. A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and combination of resources.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Introduction To Micro-Economics Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A

Choose the best options

Question 1.
In Economics, we make use of ………………………
(a) Deductive Method
(b) Inductive Method
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both

Question 2.
Adam Smith wrote “Wealth of Nations” in
(a) 1723
(b) 1890
(c) 1776
(d) 1932
Answer:
(c) 1776

Question 3.
Who wrote the book “Principles of Economics” in 1890?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) Lionel Robbins
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Alfred Marshall

Question 4.
Lionell Robbins book, “An essay on the nature and significance of economic science” was published in
(a) 1932
(b) 1776
(c) 1723
(d) 1890
Answer:
(a) 1932

Question 5.
Production refers to the creation of ……………………….
(a) Price
(b) Market
(c) Cost
(d) Utilities
Answer:
(d) Utilities

Question 6.
is the unit of measurement of utility.
(a) Price
(b) Utils
(c) Consumption
(d) Human wants
Answer:
(b) Utils

Question 7.
Perishable goods are ………………………..
(a) Long Term Lived
(b) Short Term Lived
(c) Medium Term Lived
(d) Longer Life Time Lived
Answer:
(b) Short Term Lived

Question 8.
“The proportion of total expenditure incurred on food items declines as total expenditure goes on increasing” is
(a) Marshall’s law
(b) Adam Smith’s law
(c) Engel’s law
(d) Samuelson’s law
Answer:
(c) Engel’s law

Question 9.
……………………… The economy is the other name for economics.
(a) Wealth
(b) Welfare
(c) Scarcity
(d) Political
Answer:
(d) Political

Question 10.
Utility can be measured indirectly using the ‘Measuring rod of money’ is the statement of
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Samuelson
(c) Marshall
(d) Lionel Robbins
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Question 11.
……………………. goods don’t directly satisfy the consumer.
(a) Capital
(b) Consumer
(c) Free
(d) Economic
Answer:
(a) Capital

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 1.

(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 2 4 3 1
Answer:
(a) 3 4 2 1

Question 2.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 2 4
Answer:
(c) 4 3 2 1

Choose the correct statement

Question 3.
(a) Utility is equal to usefulness
(b) Utility is same as pleasure
(c) Utility is a objective concept
(d) Utility has no ethical or moral significance
Answer:
(d) Utility has no ethical or moral significance

Question 4.
(a) Consumption is the result of co-orindation of factors of production
(b) Macro Economics is the obverse of micro Economics
(c) Macro Economics is called as price theory
(d) production studies about the pricing of factors of production
Answer:
(b) Macro Economics is the obverse of micro Economics

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 5.

Answer:
(c) International Economics – Happiness index

Question 6.

Answer:
(d) Samuelson iv Old age

Choose the odd one out

Question 7.
(a) Form unity
(b) Place untility
(c) Time untility
(d) Total untility
Answer:
(d) Total untility

Question 8.
(a) Net economic
(b) Wealth defination
(c) welfare defination
(d) scarcity defination
Answer:
(a) Net economic

Choose the correct pair

Question 9.

Answer:
(b) Health economics (ii) Drug price control

Question 10.

Answer:
(b) Utils (ii) Marshall

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 11.
(a) Macro economics is concerned with the economy as a whole
(b) Micro economics is the study of economic actions of individual units
(c) Health economics is an area of applied economics
(d) International economics analyse the inter relationship between economy and environment.
Answer:
(d) International economics analyse the inter relationship between economy and environment.

Question 12.
(a) Economics is an art – A.C. Pigou, Marshall
(b) Economics is a science – Robbins, Jordan
(c) Economic laws are statement of tendencies – Adam Smith
(d) Political economy is said to have strangled itself with definitions – Keynes
Answer:
(c) Economic laws are statement of tendencies – Adam Smith

Analyse the reason for the following

Question 13.
Assertion (A) : Deductive method derives conclusions from general truth.
Reason (R) : Hypotheses can be verified through direct observation and statistical methods
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true , (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 14.
Assertion (A) : In every society certain choices have to be made.
Reason (R) : Resources are always scarce but wants are numerous.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true , (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false (R) is true.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 15.
The value of goods expressed in money terms is
(a) Revenue
(b) Market
(c) Price
(d) Cost
Answer:
(c) Price

Question 16.
Alfred Marshall wrote “Principles of Economics” in
(a) 1776
(b) 1932
(c) 1723
(d) 1890
Answer:
(d) 1890

Question 17.
______ is the assumption in economics that makes the economic laws hypothetical
(a) Other things remaining the same
(b) Time remaining the same
(c) Money remaining the same
(d) Wants to remain the same
Answer:
(a) Other things remaining the same

Choose the best option

Question 18.
Examples for perishable goods
(a) Television, furniture
(b) Table, chair
(c) Fish, fruits, flowers
(d) Vehicles, capital goods
Answer:
(c) Fish, fruits, flowers

Question 19.
The proportion of total expenditure incurred food items declines as total expenditure goes on increasing is
(a) Marshall’s law
(b) Samuelson’s law
(c) Adam smith’s law
(d) Engel’s law
Answer:
(d) Engel’s law

Question 20.
Utility can be measured indirectly using the ‘Measuring rod of money’ is the statement of
(a) Marshall
(b) Samuelson
(c) Robbins
(d) Frisch
Answer:
(a) Marshall

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is scarcity?
Answer:
Scarcity is the gap between what people want and what they are able to get.

Question 2.
Define normative economics?
Answer:

1. Inflation is better than deflation.
2. More production of luxury goods is not good for a less-developed country.
3. Inequalities in the distribution of wealth and incomes should be reduced.

Question 3.
Explain Value.
Answer:
Value is the power of a commodity to command other commodities in exchange.

Question 4.
What is Income?
Answer:
Income is the amount of monetary or other returns, either earned or unearned, accruing over a period of time.

Question 5.
Give the meaning of the Inductive method.
Answer:
Induction is a process in logic facilitative or arriving at an inference, moving from particular to the general.

Question 6.
What are the kinds of goods?
Answer:

1. Consumer goods
2. Capital goods
3. Perishable goods
4. Durable goods

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 1.
What are the four definitions of economics?
Answer:
Based on the particular stage of the growth of the subject of economics, the four definitions are presented here.

1. Smith’s wealth definition, representing the classical era.
2. Marshall’s welfare definition, representing the Neo-classical era.
3. Robbin’s scarcity definition representing the new age.
4. Samuelson’s growth definition representing the modern age.

Question 2.
Explain the steps of the deductive method?
Answer:
Steps of deductive method:

• Step 1: The analyst must have a clear and precise idea of the problem to be inquired into.
• Step 2: The analyst clearly defines the technical terms used in the analysis. Further, assumptions of the theory are to be precise.
• Step 3: Deduce hypothesis from the assumptions taken.
• Step 4: Hypotheses should be verified through direct observation of events in the real world and through statistical methods. [e.g.] There exists an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded of a good.

Question 3.
Whether economics is an art or science ? Explain.
Answer:
1. Economics as an art:
Art is the practical application of knowledge for achieving particular goals. Economics provides guidance to the solutions to all the economic problems.
A.C. Pigou, Alfred Marshall and others regard economics as an art.

2. Economics as a science :
Science is a systematic study of knowledge. Science develops the co-relation between cause and effect based on facts.
Economics examines the relationship between the cause and effect of the problems. Hence, it is rightly considered as both an art and a science.

Question 4.
State the importance of microeconomics.
Answer:

1. To understand the operation of an economy.
2. To provide tools for economic policies.
3. To examine the condition of economic welfare.
4. Efficient utilization of resources.
5. Useful in international trade.
6. Useful in decision making.
7. Optimal resource allocation.
8. The basis for prediction.
9. Price determination.

Question 5.
What are the methods of economic analysis ?
Answer:
There are two types of methods used in economics.
i. Deductive Method :

1. It is also named as analytical or abstract method.
2. It is a process in logic facilitating or arriving at an inference, moving from general to particular.
3. It consists in deriving conclusions from general truths.

ii. Inductive method :
Inductive method is also called as empirical method. It involves the process of reasoning from particular facts to general principle. In this method, economic generalizations are derived based on

1. Experimentations
2. Observations
3. Statistical methods

Alfred Marshall has rightly remarked “Inductive and Deductive methods are both needed for scientific thought as the right and left foot are both needed for walking”

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 1.
Explain the production possibility curve with a diagram.
The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities can be illustrated with a help of a geometric device known as the production possibility curve.
Assumptions :
The analysis of the production possibility curve is based on certain assumptions :

1. The time period remains constant.
2. Techniques of production are fixed.
3. Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
4. There is full employment in the economy.
5. Resources of production are fully mobile.
6. The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
7. The law of diminishing returns operates in production.

Production possibility schedule :

Explanation :
The above schedule suggests that if all resources are used for food production a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology. Instead, if all resources are used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist, if we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

Diagram Explanation :

• The quantity of food is shown on the x-axis and the number of cars on the y-axis.
• Six different production possibilities P₁, P₂, P₃, P₄, P₅, P₆ are shown.
• Point outside the curve P cannot be attained due to limited resources.
• A point inside the curve P₇ can be attained but at these points, resources are not fully employed

Question 2.
What are the basic economic problems?
Answer:
Basic economics problems:

1. If resources are abundant and wants are so few, then there would be no economic problem.
2. But this situation can never exist.
3. Resources are always scarce and our wants are numerous.

Hence in every society certain choices have to be made.

The Economic Problem:

1. Wants, desires; unlimited
2. Resources: Scarce – Not freely available
3. Economic choice
4. Economics – How people use scarce resources to satisfy unlimited wants.

What and how much to produce?

1. Every society must decide on what goods it will produce and how much of these it will produce.

In this process, the crucial decisions include:

1. Whether to produce more of food, clothing and housing or to have more luxury goods.
2. Whether to have more agricultural goods or to have industrial goods and services.
3. Whether to use more resources in education and health or to use more resources in military services.
4. Whether to have more consumption goods or to have investment goods.
5. Whether to spend more on basic education or higher education.

How to produce?

1. Every society has to decide whether it will use labor-intensive technology on capital intensive technology; that is whether to use more labour and less more machines and vice versa.

For whom to produce?

1. Every society must also decide how its produce be distributed among the different sections of the society.
2. It must also decide who gets more and who gets less.
3. It should also decide whether or not a minimum amount of consumption be ensured for everyone in the society.
4. Due to the scarcity of resources, a society faces the compulsion of making choice among alternatives.
5. It face the problem of allocating the scare resources to the production of different possible goods and services and of distributing the produced goods and services among individuals within the economy.

If you need some more information about Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for 11th Economics Chapter 1 Introduction To Micro-Economics Questions and Answers then visit our site frequently and get all the resources that you look for. Also, share this page with your friends and make them learn all the concepts thoroughly before the exams.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 The Mughal Empire

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science The Mughal Empire Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who introduced the Persian style of architecture in India?
(a) Humayun
(b) Babur
(c) Jahangir
(d) Akbar
Answer:
(b) Babur

Question 2.
In which battle did Akbar defeat Rana Pratap?
(a) Panipat
(b) Chausa
(c) Haldighati
(d) Kanauj
Answer:
(c) Haldighati

Question 3.
Whose palace in Delhi was destroyed by Sher Shah?
(a) Babur
(b) Humayun
(c) Ibrahim Lodi
(d) Alam Khan
Answer:
(b) Humayun

Question 4.
Who introduced Mansabdari system?
(a) Sher Sha
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan
Answer:
(b) Akbar

Question 5.
Who was the revenue minister of Akbar?
(a) Birbal
(b) Raja Bhagwan Das
(c) RajaTodarmal
(d) Raja Man Singh
Answer:
(b)Raja Todarmal

II. Fill In the Blanks

1. _______ was the name of the horse of Rana Pratap.
2. _______ was a hall at FatehpurSikri where scholars of all religions met for a discourse.
3. The Sufi saint who received Akbar’s utmost respect was _______
4. During the reign of _______ the Zabti system was extended to the Deccan provinces.
5. _______ were tax-free lands given to scholars and religious institutions.

Answers:

1. Chetak
2. Ibadatkhana
3. Salim Chishti
4. Shah Jahan
5. Suyurghal

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Babur – Ahmednagar
2. Durgavati – Jaipur
3. Rani Chand Bibi – Akbar
4. Din Ilahi – Chanderi
5. Raja Man Singh – Central Province

Answer:

1. Babur – Chanderi
2. Durgavati – Central Province
3. Rani Chand Bibi – Ahmednagar
4. Din Ilahi – Akbar
5. Raja Man Singh – Jaipur

IV. True or False

1. Babur inherited Farghana, a small kingdom in Central Asia.
2. Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1565.
3. Aurangzeb married a girl of a notable Rajput family.
4. Jahangir ordered execution of Sikh leader Guru Arjun for helping his son Khusrau.
5. During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture received much patronage.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Consider the following statements. Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The British established their first factory at Surat.
Reason (R): Jahangir granted trading rights to the English.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Aurangzeb’s intolerance towards other religions made him unpopular among people.
Reason (R): Aurangzeb re-imposed the jizya and pilgrim tax on the Hindus.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Find out the correct statements
(i) Kamran was the son of Afghan noble, Hasan Suri, ruler of Sasaram in Bihar.
(ii) Akbar abolished the jizya poll tax on non-Muslims and the tax on Hindu pilgrims.
(iii) Aurangzeb acceded the throne after killing his three brothers.
(iv) Prince Akbar entered into a pact with Shivaji’s son Shambuji in the Deccan.
(a) (I), (II) and (III) are correct
(b) (II), (III) and (IV) are correct
(c) (I), (III) and (IV) are correct
(d) (II), (III), (IV) and (I) are correct
Answer:
(b) (II), (III) and (IV) are correct

Question 4.
Arrange the battles in chronological order

1. Battle of Khan wa
2. Battle of Chausa
3. Battle of Kanauj
4. Battle of Chanderi

Answer:

1. Battle of Khanwa (1527)
2. Battle of Chanderi (1528)
3. Battle of Chausa (1539)
4. Battle of Kanauj (1540)

Question 5.
Arrange the following administrative divisions in descending order

1. Sarkars
2. Parganas
3. Subhas

Answer:

1. Subhas
2. Sarkars
3. Parganas

Match the lather and son

Answer:

VI. Give short answer

Question 1.
Write the circumstance that led to the Battle of Panipat in 1526.
Answer:
Babur did not have any ambition beyond Punjab till 1524. Then a greater opportunity came knocking. Dilawar Khan, who was Daulat Khan Lodi’s son, and Alam Khan, who was the uncle of Sultan of Delhi, arrived in Kabul to seek Babur’s help in removing Ibrahim Lodi from power. Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the famous Battle of Panipat in 1526.

Question 2.
Mention the Humayun recapture the Delhi throne in 1555.
Answer:
Sher Shah defeated Humayun at Chausa (1539) and again at Kanauj (1540). Humayun, defeated and overthrown, had to flee to Iran. With the help of the Persian ruler Shah Tahmasp of the Safavid dynasty, Humayun succeeded in recapturing Delhi in 1555.

Question 3.
Write a note on Mansabdari system.
Answer:
Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system. According to this system, the nobles, civil and military officials were combined to form one single service. Everyone in the service was given a mansab, meaning a position or rank. A Mansabdar was a holder of such a rank. Mansabdar rank was dependent on Zat and Sawar.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Describe the land revenue administration of the Mughals.
Answer:
Land Revenue Administration:
(i) Land revenue administration was toned up during the reign of Akbar. Raja Todar Mai, Revenue Minister of Akbar, adopted and refined the system introduced by Sher Shah.

(ii) According to Zabt system, after a survey, lands were classified according to the nature and fertility of the soil. The share of the state was fixed at one-third of

(iii) the average produce for 10 years.

(iv) The Mughal emperors enforced the old iqta system, renaming it jagir. It is a land tenure system developed during the period of Delhi Sultanate. Under the . system, the collection of the revenue of an area and the power of governing

(v) it were bestowed upon a military or civil official now named Jagirdar.

(vi) Every Mansabdar was a Jagirdar if he was not paid in cash. The Jagirdar collected the revenue through his own officials.

(vii) Those appointed to collect the revenue from the landholders were called zamindars. Zamindars collected taxes and maintained law and order with the help of Mughal officials and soldiers.

(viii) The local chieftains and little kings were also called zamindars.

Question 2.
Estimate Akbar as a patron of learning.
Answer:
(i) Akbar was a great patron of learning. His personal library had more than four thousand manuscripts.

(ii) He patronised scholars of all beliefs and all shades of opinions.

(iii) He extended his benevolence to authors such as Abul Fazl, Abul Faizi and Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khanan, the great storyteller Birbal, competent officials like Raja Todar Mai, Raja Bhagwan Das and Raja Man Singh.

(iv) The great composer and musician Tansen and artist Daswant adorned Akbar’s court as well.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Shah Jahairs time witnessed the climax of Mughal splendour. Support this statement in comparison with the times of other Mughal rulers.
Answer:
(i) The famous peacock throne, covered with expensive jewels, was made during Shah Jahan’s time for the emperor to sit on. The world famous Taj Mahal, the Moti Masjid, the pearl mosque at Agra, the Jama Masjid of Delhi, the Diwan-i- Khas and Diwan – i Am in his palace exhibit his taste for Art and Architecture.

(ii) Babur built many structures at Agra, Biana, Dholpur, Gwalior and Kiul in Persian style of Architecture.

(iii) Sher shah built a mausoleum at Sasaram. Diwan-i-khas, Diwan-i-Am, Panch Mahal Rang Mahal, Salim Chishti’s tomb and Buland Darwaza were built during Akbar’s time.

(iv) Jahangir completed Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara and the beautiful building containing the tomb of Itmad-ud-daula, at Agra.

(v) During Aurangzeb’s reign, architecture did not receive much patronage.

Map

Mark the extent of Mughal Empire during the reign of Akbar and Aurangzeb with special focus on important battle fields.
Answer:

IX. Activity
Collect information about the scholars in Akbar’s court and conduct a mock llxiikitfi khana in the class.
Answer:
Scholars of Akbar’s court:

Tansen – Renowned Singer
Fakir Aziao Din – Religious Advisor and Minister
Faizi – Minister of education
Mulla – Do – Piyaza – Minister of affairs
Raja Birbal – Minister of foreign affairs
Raja Todar Mai – Finance Minister
Abu’l Fazl ibn Mubarak – Grand Vizier

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science The Mughal Empire Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
______ was the founder of the Mughal Empire in India.
(a) Humayun
(b) Babur
(c) Akbar
(d) Sher Shah
Answer:
(b) Baburl

Question 2.
Babur inherited ______ a small kingdom in central Asia.
(a) Farghana
(b) Chanderi
(c) Agra
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(a) FarghanaI

Question 3.
Babur led his first expedition towards ______
(a) Kabul
(b) China
(c) India
(d) Turkey
Answer:
(c) India

Question 4.
Babur chose his eldest son, ______ as his heir.
(a) Akbar
(b) Sher Shah
(c) Jahangir
(d) Humayun
Answer:
(d) Humayun

Question 5.
______ started the rule of Sur dynasty at Agra.
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Muhammad Shah
(c) Akbar
(d) Slier Shah
Answer:
(d) Sher Shah

Question 6.
The memory of the gallant Rajput, ______ is treasured in Rajputara.
(a) Rana Pratap
(b) Rana Uday Singh
(c) Prithiviraj Chauhan
(d) Rana Sanga
Answer:
(a) Rana Pratap

Question 7.
Akbar sent ______ of Jaipur as governor of Kabul once.
(a) Rana Pratap
(c) Raja Man Singh
(c) Raja Todarmal
(d) Rana Sanga
Answer:
(b) Raja Man Singh

Question 8.
______ after as struggle for power, succeeded Jahangir.
(a) Akbar
(b) Aurangazeb
(c) Humayun
(d) Shah Jahan
Answer:
(d) Shah Jahan

Question 9.
______ assumed the title Alamgir (the conqueror of the world).
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Aurangazeb
(d) Humayun
Answer:
(c) Aurangazeb

Question 10.
Shivaii proclaimed himself the ‘Emperor of Maratha’ state in ______
(a) 1674
(b) 1754
(c) 1685
(d) 1690
Answer:
(a) 1674

Question 11.
The towns and cities were administered by ______ during the Mughal administration.
(a) Subedar
(b) Kotwal
(c) Sarkar
(d) Wakil
Answer::
(b) Kotwal

Question 12.
______ were conferred hereditary rights over Zamin.
(a) Kotwals
(b) Subedars
(c) Zamindars
(d) Sarkars
Answer:
(c) Zamindars

Question 13.
The famous monument of Sher Shah’s reign was his mausoleum built at ______ in Bihar.
(a) Gaya
(b) Patna
(c) Nalanda
(d) Sasaram
Answer:
(d) Sasaram

Question 14.
The world famous Taj Mahal is by the side of the river .
(a) Ganga
(b) Jumna
(c) Brahmaputra
(d) Indus
Answer:
(b) Jumna

Question 15.
The Bibi Ka Maqbara in Aurangabad was built by Prince
(a) Akbar
(b) Humayun
(c) Babur
(d) Azam Shah
Answer:
(d) Azam Shah

II. fill in the blanks

1. Babur was the great grandson of ______.
2. Zahir-ud-din means ______
3. Mughal dynasty came to be established in India with ______ as its capital.
4. Humayun’s trusted general ______ became the regent and ruled on behalf of Akbar.
5. ______ a general of sur dynasty, captured Agra and Delhi in 1556.
6. Bairam Khan killed Hemu in the ______.
7. Jahangir’s wife Mehr-un-nisa known as ______ was the real power behind the throne.
8. ______, a representative of Kind James I of England, visited Jahangir’s court.
9. ______ maintained law and order in the Mughal Administration.
10. ______ was the number of horses and horsemen, a Mansabdar had to maintain.
11. In Akbar’s court, the ______ missionaries were great favourites.

Answers:

1. Timur
2. Defender of faith
3. Agra
4. Bairam Khan
5. Hemu
6. Second battle of Panipat
7. Nur Jahan
8. Thomas Roe
9. Kotwalsi
10. Sawar
11. Portuguese

III. Match the following

1. Wakil – (a) In-charge of the army
2. Wazir – (b) Chief judge
3. Mir Bhakshi – (c) Prime Minister
4. Mir Saman – (d) In-charge of revenue
5. Qazi – (e) Royal house hoed

Answers:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

IV. State true or false

1. Babur was driven out form Farghana by Uzbeks.
2. Kamran, Hindal and Askari were the brothers of Akbar.
3. The fight Rani chand Bibi put up impressed Mughal Army.
4. The Sikh shrine Haramandir Sahib was built in Amritsar.
5. The Mansabdars were paid low salary by the Emperor.

Answers:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. False

V. Considerthe following statements Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Bairam khan was murdered in Gujarat, allegedly at the instance of Hemu.
Reason (R) : Akbar could not tolerate his dominance in day-to-day governance of the kingdom.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(b) A is wrong and R is correct

Question 2.
Find out the correct statements.
i. Akbar was succeeded by Prince Salim, his son through a Rajput wife.
ii. The toleration of religious of Akbar’s time continued in Shah Jahan’s time.
iii. Aurangazeb suppressed the revolt of Bundelas Jats, Satnamis and sikhs.
iv. In the Mughal administration, Sadr-us-Sudr was the minister of Finance.
(a) i, ii and iv are correct
(b) i and iii are correct
(c) ii and iv are correct
(d) i and ii are correct
Answer:
(b) i and iii are correct

Question 3.
Match the pairs (Akbar’s invasion).
(a) Fort of Chittoor – i. 1576
(b) Ranthambore – ii. 1568
(c) Battle of Haldighati – iii. 1569
Answer::
a – ii, b – iii, c – i

VI. Give short Answers

Question 1.
Where did Babur record his impressions about Hindustan?
Answer:
Babur recorded his impressions about Hindustan, its animals, plants and trees, flowers and fruits in his autobiography Tuzuk-i-Baburi.

Question 2.
Write a few sentences about the reign of Sher Shah.
Answer:
Sher Shah introduced an efficient land revenue system. He built many roads, and standardised coins, weights and measures.

Question 3.
Why was Akbar’s defeat of Rani Durgavati hot appreciated?
Answer:

1. Akbars defeat of Rani Durgavati, a ruler in the Central Province, is not appreciated, since the brave Rani did him no harm.
2. Yet larged by his ambition to build an empire, Akbar had no consideration for the good nature of the ruler.

Question 4.
How did Akbar establish commercial access to Arabia, Southeast Asia and China?
Answer:

1. Akbar’s conquest of Gujarat helped him to establish control over Gujarat’s overseas trade with the Arabs and the Europeans.
2. Akbar’s military campaigns in East Bihar and Odisha and victory over Bengal facilitated access to Southeast Asia and China.

Question 5
Write a brief account of Akbar’s military campaigns in the Northwest.
Answer:

1. Akbar added Kandahar, Kashmir and Kabul to the Mughal Empire. His battles in the Deccan led to the annexation of Berar, Khandesh and parts of Ahmednagar.
2. Under Akbar, the Mughal Empire extended from Kashmir in the north to Godavari in the south, and from Kandahar in the west to Bengal in the east.

Question 6.
Why did the Mughals had to lost control over the trade routes to Afghanistan? Persia and Central Asia?
Answer:

1. Jahangir ordered the execution of Sikh leader Guru Aijun (or Arjan) for helping his rebellious son Khusrau, who contested for the throne.
2. This resulted in a prolonged fight between the Sikhs and the Mughals.
3. As a result of this confrontation, the Mughals had to lose control over the trade routes to Afghanistan, Persia and Central Asia.

Question 7.
Why was there a sustained resistance from Marathas in the Deccan to the Mughal?
Answer:
Some Maratha warriors, notably Shahji Bhonsle (Shivaji’s father), entered the services of the Deccan kingdoms and trained bands of Maratha soldiers to fight against the Mughals. So there was a sustained resistance in the Deccan to the Mughals from the Marathas too.

Question 8.
Narrate the circumstances under with Aurangzeb become the ruler.
Answer:

1. Aurangzeb, the last of the Great Mughals, started off his reign by imprisoning his old father.
2. He assumed the title Alamgir (the Conqueror of the World). He reigned for 48 years.
3. He was no lover of art like his grandfather Jahangir and architecture like his father Shah Jahan.

Question 9.
Why did Aurangzeb march to the Deccan in 1689?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s rebellious son, Prince Akbar, joined the forces of Rajputs and created troubles to him. Prince Akbar entered into a pact with Shivaji’s son Shambuji in the Deccan. So Aurangzeb had to march to the Deccan in 1689.

Question 10.
Name the places where the British established their trade centres.
Answer:
The British established their trade centres at Madras (Chennai), Calcutta (Kolkata) and Bombay (Mumbai).

Question 11.
Describe the local administration of the Mughals.
Answer:
The towns and cities were administered by kotwals. Kotwals maintained law and order. The administration of villages was left in the hands of local village panchayats (informal institution of justice in villages). The Panchayatdars (jury) dispensed justice.

Question 12.
Write a short note on Mansabdars.
Answer:
(i) A mansabdar was a holder of a rank. Mansabdar rank was dependent on Zat and Sawar. Mansabdar’s salary was fixed on the basis of the number of soldiers each Mansabdar received ranging from 10 to 10,000.

(ii) The Mansabdars were paid high salary by the Emperor. Before receiving the salary, a Mansabdar has to present his horsemen for inspection. Their horses were branded to prevent theft.

Question 13.
Name the famous buildings of Akbar’s time.
Answer:
The Diwan-i-Khas, Diwan-i-Am, Panch Mahal (pyramidal structure in five stories), Rang Mahal, Salim Chishti’s Tomb and Buland Darwaza were built during Akbar’s time.

Question 14.
Write a short note on Red Fort.
Answer:
Red Fort, also called Lai Qila, in Delhi was the residence of the Mughal emperors. Constructed in 1639 by Emperor Shah Jahan as the palace of his fortified capital Shajahanabad. The Red Fort is named for its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
Given an account of the Religious policy of Akbar.
Answer:

1. The Mughal emperors were the followers of islam. Akbar was very liberal in his religious policy.
2. In Akbar’s court, the Portuguese missionaries were great favourites.
3. Akbar tried to include the good principles in all religions and formulated them into one single faith caftxl Din-I-Ilahi (divine faith).
4. Ja.hpgir and Shah Jahan also followed the policy ofAkbar. Aurangzeb rejected the liberal views of his predecessors.
5. As we pointed out earlier, he re-imposed the jizya and pilgrim tax on the Hindus. His intolerance towards other religions made him unpopular among the people.

VIII. HOTS

Question 1.
Name a few famous monuments built during Mughal rule in Delhi.
Answer:
Alai Darwaza, Red Fort, Qutub Minar, Safdarjung tomb, Humayun’s tomb, Isa Khan’s tomb.

Students can Download Lesson 3 When Instinct Works Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 3 helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3 When Instinct Works

A. Comprehension.

When Instinct Works Summary Question 1.
Choose the best option

When Instinct Works Question 1.
The season mentioned in the lesson is _________
(a) spring
(b) autumn
(c) summer
(d) winter
Answer:
(b) autumn

When Instinct Works Book Back Answers Question 2.
In one low part of the road the _________was halfway up to black beauty’s knees.
(a) the river
(b) dust
(c) water
(d) leaves
Answer:
(c) water

When Instinct Works Question Answer Question 3.
The bridge was broken in the _________
(a) front
(b) rear
(c) middle
(d) up
Answer:
(c) middle

8th English When Instinct Works Question 4.
The instinct in _________had often saved the lives of men.
(a) girls
(b) animals
(c) birds
(d) boys
Answer:
(b) animals

When Instinct Works 8th Std Question 5.
Black beauty dared not move even to the sharp snap of the _________
(a) stick
(b) thread
(c) whip
(d) kick
Answer:
(c) whip

When Instinct Works Summary In Tamil Question 2.
Match the following.

Answer:

1. d
2. e
3. a
4. b
5. c

When Instinct Works Theme Question 3.
Fill in the blanks.

1. Just then, the man at the ______ on the other side ran out, ______ a torch.
2. Even when John tried to ______ him forward Beauty did not move.
3. We were saved because Beauty had known that something was ______ with the bridge.
4. Suddenly an ______ tree came crashing down and fell right in front of us.
5. He told that the bridge had just broken due to the ______
6. As we went through the wood, the ______ of the trees were swaying and making a rushing sound.
7. A little later, when we reached the bridge Beauty came to a ______
8. When we started back from the town, it was late in the ______ The wind was much ______
9. John said we must go back to the ______ find another way to the wooden
10. Oh! What a good ______ he gave me that night. And then a really thick

Answer:

1. toll gate; flashing
2. lean
3. wrong
4. oak
5. flood
6. branches; terrible
7. sudden stop
8. afternoon; stronger
9. cross ways; bridge
10. Supper; bed of straw

When Instinct Works Mind Map Question 4.
Based on your understanding of the story write the answers for the following questions in a sentence or two. .

When Instinct Works Lesson Plan Question 1.
Did Black Beauty like to pull the cart?
Answer:
Yes, Black Beauty liked to pull the cart, as it was very light and the high wheels rolled along so smoothly.

When Instinct Works Summary In English Question 2.
How was the weather?
Answer:
The weather was very windy and the dry leaves blew across the road. There had been a great deal of rain.

When Instinct Works In Tamil Question 3.
Describe the bridge.
Answer:
The low wooden bridge had sturdy rails on both sides. As the river banks were fairly high, the bridge went across just level.

When Instinct Works Story In Tamil Question 4.
What was the alternate plan suggested by John to reach the wooden bridge?
Answer:
The alternate plan suggested by John to reach the wooden bridge was to go back to four cross ways.

When Instinct Works Theme Question 5.
Why was Black Beauty reluctant to cross the bridge?
Answer:
The moment Black Beauty’s feet touched the ground which was the first part of the bridge, the horse sensed something was wrong. So it was reluctant to cross the

When Instinct Works Mind Map Question 5.
Write the answers for the following questions in 100 words.

When Instinct Works Lesson Plan Question 1.
What did the man at the toll gate on the other side tell them?
Answer:
The man told them that the bridge was broken in the middle. Part of it had been carried away by the flood. If they proceed, they will be drowned in the river.

When Instinct Works Summary In English Question 2.
Was Black Beauty afraid to cross the bridge?
Answer:
No, Black Beauty was not afraid to cross the bridge. But it knew that there was some problem and the bridge was not safe to cross.

When Instinct Works In Tamil Question 3.
What did John think about human’s attitude on animals?
Answer:
John thought many people did not take very good care of their animals or make friends with them as they should do. According to John, such attitude of human should be changed. Master told John that God had given animals a special knowledge and quicker to respond to danger. This instinct in animals, the Master continued, had often saved the lives of men. John had many stories to tell of dogs and horses, and the wonderful ways the animals had saved the lives of people.

When Instinct Works Story In Tamil Questions 4.
What would have happened to all the three if Black Beauty had not been wiser?
Answer:
It Black beauty had not been wiser, all the three would have been drowned at the wooden bridge.

Question 5.
Where did John take Black Beauty and what did he give her?
Answer:
John took black beauty to the stable. He gave her a good supper and a thick bed of straw to relax.

Question 6.
How will you take care of your pet? Write about in fifty words.
Answer:
I will take care of my pet dog by providing it with a protected and clean living environment. I always keep fresh water and quality food for my pet. I will also communicate with it and develop a relationship with it. I will take my pet for a walk, every morning and evening.

Step To Success

Coding – Decoding verbal reasoning.

Question 1.
In a certain code language, if Violet is called as Green, Green is called as Red, Red is called as Brown, Brown is called as Orange, Orange is called as Yellow, Yellow is called as Blue and Blue is called as Indigo, then what is the colour of human blood in that language?
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Violet.
(e) Brown
Answer:
(e) Brown

Question 2.
In a certain code language, if Pen means Eraser, Eraser means Book, Book means Scale, Scale means Sharpener, Sharpener means Duster and Duster means Table, then what is the name of the object that is used to clean the black board in that language?
(a) Duster
(b) Sharpener
(c) Table
(d) Scale
(e) Book
Answer:
(b) Sharpener

Question 3.
In a certain code language, if Bread is called Butter, Butter is called Milk, Milk is called Shirt, Shirt is called Shoe, Shoe is called Bicycle, Bicycle is called Watch, Watch is called Aeroplane and Aeroplane is called Ship, then which of the following indicates time in that language?
(a) Watch
(b) Bicycle
(c) Milk
(d) Ship
(e) Aeroplane
Answer:
(e) Aeroplane

Connecting To Self

Put a ✓for the do’s and put a✗ for dont’s

Answer:

When Instinct Works Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
John harnessed black beauty to the ______ cart
(a) old
(b) broken
(c) new
(d) damaged
Answer:
(c) new

Question 2.
But the cart was so good and master drove
(a) strongly
(b) gently
(c) roughly
(d) harshly
Answer:
(b) gently

Question 3.
There were good sturdy on both sides.
(a) slabs
(b) pipes
(c) rails
(d) bamboos

Question 4.
He held my and calmed my nerves.
(a) bridle
(b) ears
(c) girdle
(d) band
Answer:
(a) bridle

Question 5.
The man at the toll gate was flashing a torch like a .
(a) foolish man
(b) mad man
(c) horrified man
(d) beggar man
Answer:
(b) mad man

Question 6.
Then an tree fell right across the road in front of them.
(a) Pine
(b) Cypress
(c) Ebony
(d) Oak
Answer:
(d) Oak

II. Identify the Character / Speaker.

1. One morning in the autumn, my master had to go on a long journey”.
2. I hope no branches fall down on us”.
3. “I wish we were out of this wood”.
4. “That was close! What shall we do now?”
5. “Hoy, Hoy, Hoy, Stop!”.
6. “You really are a beauty!”.
7. “Go on, Beauty”.
8. “There is something wrong sir”.
9. “Are you safe, my dear?”.
10. .I was grateful for everything for I was tired”.

Answer:

1. Black beauty horse
2. John
3. Master
4. Master
5. The man at the toll gate
6. John
7. Master
8. John
9. Mistress
10. Black Beauty (horse)

III. Write True or False against each statement.

1. Many of the houses were under water.
2. In one low part of the road, the water was halfway up to the knees.
3. The river was rising slowly.
4. Black Beauty had to wait for a long time in the town.
5. John praised Black Beauty.
Answer:
False
True
False
True
True

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Very Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
How did the high wheels roll?
Answer:
The high wheels rolled along so smoothly.

Question 2.
What were there on both sides of the bridge?
Answer:
There were good sturdy rails on both sides of the bridge.

Question 3.
What did the man at the toll gate say?
Answer:
The man at the toll gate said that the river was rising fast.

Question 4.
What did the master say to John?
Answer:
The master said that he had never been out in such a bad storm.

Question 5.
How were the branches swaying?
Answer:
The branches were swaying like twigs.

V.Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What did John do to calm Black Beauty?
Answer:
John jumped out and in a moment was standing by the horse’s head. He held its bridle and calmed its nerves.

Question 2.
What did Black Beauty see in it’s master’s house after their return?
Answer:
Black Beauty saw that all the lights were on. As they came up to the door, the mistress ran out to greet the master.

VI. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What happened when John, Black beauty and the master were returning home?
Answer:
When they were returning home late in the afternoon, the wind was much stronger and the great branches were swaying. The wind made a terrible rushing sound. Suddenly an oak tree fell in front of them. When Black Beauty came to the bridge, it sensed some danger. So it did not move forward. The man on the other side told them that the bridge was broken in the middle. All the three were saved by the wisdom of Black Beauty.

VIII. Rearrange the Jumbled Sentences.

A
1.Come on!, Beauty. Whats’the matter?’
2. Of course, I could not tell what the problem was, but I knew very well that the bridge was not safe.
3. He got down from the cart and came to my head.
4. He took hold of my bridle and tried to lead me forward.
5.”There is something wrong sir” said John.
Answer:
5, 3,4,1, 2
5. “There is something wrong sir” said John.
3. He got down from the cart and came to my head.
4. He took hold of my bridle and tried to lead me forward.
1. ‘Come on!, Beauty. Whats’ the matter?’
2. Of course, I could not tell what the problem was, but I knew very well that the bridge was not safe.

IX. Read the passage and answer the questions.

A.
One morning in the autumn, my master had to go on a long journey, John harnessed me to the new cart. I liked too pull as it was very light and the
high wheels rolled along so smoothly.

Question 1.
When did they go on a long journey?
Answer:
One morning in the autumn they went on a long journey.

Question 2.
Who harnessed Black Beauty to the new cart?
Answer:
John harnessed Black Beauty to the new Cart.

Question 3.
Was the cart light?
Answer:
Yes, the cart was light to pull.

B.
They went into the house and I heard no more. John took me to the stable. Oh! What a good supper he gave me that night. And then a really thick bed of straw. I was grateful for everything for I was tired.

Question 1.
Where did John take Black Beauty?
Answer:
John took Black Beauty to the stable.

Question 2.
What did he give him that night?
Answer:
He gave him a good supper and a thick bed of straw that night.

Question 3.
Why was Black Beauty grateful for everything?
Answer:
Black Beauty was grateful for everything because it was tired.

When Instinct Works Adapted From ‘Black Beauty” By Anna Sewell Summary

This lesson is about the special knowledge given to animals by God. The instinct in animals had saved the lives of men. One morning late in the autumn, John harnessed Black Beauty, the horse to the new cart. The Master, John and Black Beauty proceeded on a long journey. It was very windy and there was a great deal of rain. When they came to the entrance of the toll gate, the man at the toll gate warned them that the river was rising fast. Suddenly an oak tree came crashing down in front of them. The river was flooding and it grew darker. Black Beauty sensed danger, the moment its feet touched the bridge. It made a dead stop. The man at the other end of the toll gate flashed a torch and said that the bridge was broken in the middle. John praised Black Beauty for saving their lives. If the horse had not been wiser, they would have drowned. John gave a good supper and a thick bed of straw to the horse. Black Beauty was grateful for everything, as it was tired

You can Download Mother’s Voice Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 6 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 6 Mother’s Voice

Mother’s Voice Supplementary In English

Mother’s Voice Warm Up:

If you are given an opportunity to go on a one-way trip to Mars, will you accept it? Discuss.
If given an opportunity to go on a one-way trip to Mars, I will not take it up since I am basically a timid person. When I am so frightened to travel by airplane, how will I travel to outer space!

Mother’s Voice Textual Questions

A. Choose the correct answer.

Mother’s Voice Summary Question 1.
Mother was excited because __________.
(a) her son would be home in the spring
(b) her son was coming back to earth
(c) it was her first visit to the moon
(d) her son was going to another galaxy
Answer:
(c) it was her first visit to the moon

Mother’s Voice Supplementary Paragraph Question 2.
On weekdays, as Mother went about the chores __________.
(a) she constantly thought of her son
(b) she was always tired
(c) her singing would be soft and almost inaudible
(d) her singing was muted and a little sad
Answer:
(d) her singing was muted and a little sad

Mother’s Voice Questions And Answers Question 3.
__________ occupies more than a hundred square kilometers on the moon.
(a) Selenopolis
(b) Metropolis
(c) Astrodrome
(d) Orchards
Answer:
(a) Selenopolis

Mother’s Voice Question 4.
The Community of Nations Square is where people __________.
(a) live on the moon
(b) work on the moon.
(c) walk on the moon
(d) of different nationalities come after work
Answer:
(d) of different nationalities come after work

Mother’s Voice Supplementary Summary Question 5.
They are planning an expedition to a neighbouring __________.
(a) galaxy
(b) country
(c) planet
(d) star
Answer:
(a) galaxy

Mother Voice Summary Question 6.
The mother was not able to understand why people wanted to leave the moon because __________.
(a) it was better to remain as a part of solar-system
(b) it was better to remain on the earth
(c) it was not possible to come back
(d) it was a place to enjoy life
Answer:
(a) it was better to remain as a part of the solar system.

Summary Of Mother’s Voice Additional Questions

Mothers Voice Question 1.
The mother wanted to know if her son would come during ………………. .
(a) Summer
(b) Autumn
(c) Winter
(d) Spring
Answer:
(b) Autumn

Mother’s Voice Supplementary Question 2.
His mother looked at the enormous lily-shaped tent over a ……………….. .
(a) Plate
(b) crater
(c) sheet of ice
(d) galaxy
Answer:
(b) crater

Mother’s Voice Lesson Plan Question 3.
His mom preferred River ……………………… than Selenopolis.
(a) Dnieper
(b) Pluto
(c) Ganges
(d) Miami
Answer:
(a) Dnieper

Mother’s Voice Book Back Answers Question 4.
Since the pond is deepend, there will be a lot of …………….. .
(a) fresh water
(b) moss
(c) mosquitoes
(d) fish
Answer:
(d) fish

Mother’s Voice By Vasil Summary Question 5.
The spaceships on the moon were readied for ……………….. .
(a) the scientists to travel.
(b) an expedition to the nearby galaxy
(c) the school students to explore
(d) a voyage around’ the moon.
Answer:
(b) an expedition to the nearby galaxy

B. Identify the character or speaker of the following lines.

1. It’s so easy to walk here, son!
2. They’re planning an expedition to a neighboring galaxy.
3. Why should people go off into the unknown?
4. I don’t know when we’ll see each other again.
5. Operator on duty, ………. report to the office.

Answers:

1. Mother
2. Son
3. Mother
4. Son
5. A voice from the loud Speaker

Mother’s Voice Summary By Vasil Berezhnoy Additional Questions:

Identify the character or speaker of the following lines.

Astronaut’s Mom to Son:

1. I never realized it was such a beautiful place.
2. Back home the orchards are in bloom.
3. Will you come for a holiday in the summer?
4. I’m sure it’s better in the river Dnieper.
5. What are these?
6. Of course, you will walk on the dewy grass.
7. Why should people go off into the unknown?
8. Do you know why people settle down on the Moon so easily?
9. There will be a lot of fruits this year if only the frosts don’t strike.
10. Why ask for trouble?
11. These are very reliable spaceships.
12. At least try to come in the autumn.
13. They have deepened the pond.
14. You could visit your friends and relatives.
15. It’s full of fish now, you like fishing.

The young astronaut to his mother:

1. That’s why I asked you to come.
2. It’s easy to walk here but the distances are long.
3. People of different nationalities who work in Selenopolis come here after work.
4. Let’s ride for a bit.
5. The Community of Nations Square.
6. It’s quite an exotic experience to have a swim on the moon.
7. Long-range spaceships They’re planning an expedition to a neighboring galaxy.
8. You may be right, but
9. How do I know?
10. You think I don’t want to walk barefoot on the dewy grass?
11. Coming
12. These are very reliable spaceships.
13. There are some tourists.
14. Selenopolis occupies more than a hundred square kilometers.
15. They are walking towards the lake.

C. Answer the following questions in about 100 -120 words.

Mother’s Voice Supplementary Story In Tamil Question 1.
Write a paragraph listing all the sentimental and the scientific reasons given by the mother against the expedition to the neighbouring galaxy.
Answer:
The mother’s sentimental and scientific reasons against the expedition to the neighboring galaxies are that the moon is a beautiful place, easy to walk on. There are lots of fruits on earth. The river Dnieper is better to swim. She asked her son why people should go off into the unknown and ask for trouble. She also suggested that it is advisable for people to settle on the moon first and then on the planets in the solar system.

She philosophized that the moon has the same gravitational field of their native earth, under the native sun. She sentimentally invited her son to come in the autumn for the apples, pears and the watermelons. She persuaded him to come to their deepened pond to fish and indicated that the pond was now full of fish.

Mother’s Voice Supplementary Theme Additional Questions:

Mother’s Voice 9th Supplementary Question 1.
Describe Selenopolis.
Answer:
Selenopolis is much easier to walk through though the distances are long. It occupies more than a hundred square kilometers. It’s a moving pavement covered with green plastic strips. These are rushed through echoing tunnels and spacious caves with walls sparkling in the light of the quartz lamps. There is a large lily-shaped tent over a crater, at least a kilometer in diameter. This was called, ‘The community of Nations Square.’ ‘People of different nationalities who work in Selenopolis and tourists go there to relax.

D. Think and answer.

“The explorer in this story is traveling to another galaxy. The final destination is an unknown ‘ planet in another galaxy. The travel will take many years”. What qualities and life skills do you think an explorer-like him must possess? Why? Do you have any of these skills and qualities? Explain.
Answer:
Space explorers work either as pilots who fly spacecraft or as mission specialists who conduct experiments. Regardless of their position, they need certain qualities to survive both NASA’s selection process and space travel itself. The qualities and life- skills needed are intelligence, adaptability, good physique, mental endurance and good ‘ knowledge. I have all these skills except the educational level which I would study as I grow up. ‘

Intelligence:
Astronauts need above-average intelligence and need quick thinking to A handle unexpected problems. They also need the intellectual creativity to dream up new avenues of space-based research into medicine, materials and processes for use N on Earth and in space. Curiosity is key, as are people skills and communication skills.

Adaptability:
Astronauts have many responsibilities in space. They need the flexibility to move from one task to another, different task. They also work on teams with astronauts from other countries and cultures, so they must be open-minded to diversity. They must be willing to change routines to accommodate new procedures.

Physical Condition:
The rigors of space travel are just about as intense as the rigors of space training. Astronauts need eyesight of20/100 or better uncorrected, correctable to 20/20 in each eye. Their blood pressure can’t be above 140/90. Candidates also must meet military water survival standards, which test for the ability to swim without stopping and to swim and tread water clothed in flight gear.

Astronauts also must be SCUBA-qualified to prepare for spacewalk training. Their bodies must respond well to high and low atmospheric pressures. They also must be prepared for the physical effects of zero gravity training up to 40 times a day. Space travel can last for months, during which the human body must function amid physical stress.

Mental Endurance:
Astronauts who make it through the physical demands of space travel must also grapple with isolation, fear and separation from loved ones. It’s not easy to live in close quarters with virtual strangers for three to six months or more. Astronauts must begin to cope with those long periods away from home during training, which takes two to three years and requires heavy travel to practice with international mission partners.

Education:
Astronauts need a bachelor’s degree from an accredited university in engineering, biological science, physical science and maths.

E. Based on the understanding of the story, discuss in groups and make a note of the following.

Mother’s Voice by Vasil Berezhnoy About The Author:

In 1972, a group of authors were awarded the Rudaki Prize of the Tajik SSR, which shows the importance of Soviet Literature and the role played by Science fiction. Vasil Berezhnoy was surely one among the group of authors.

Mother’s Voice Supplementary Summary:

This story revolves around the feeling of a young astronaut who has volunteered to explore the 1 galaxy beyond the one he lived in. The entire conversation between the mother and son is the recording that he hears now and then. The beginning of the story sees him taking his mother to the moon. He shows her around. They walk through the Selenopolis, seeing tall structures that have propped up the star-studded sky. The son listens to his mother’s voice that is so dear to him. She talks to her son about the orchards, the river Dnieper where he used to go for fishing, the apples, pears and melons, the walk on the dewy grasses, their relatives whom he may never meet if he goes for this expedition.

Yet she hopes that he will come and visit her during his vacation. She tells how the planet earth is so rich and beautiful with snow-covered peaks, that there can never be a place like the planet earth. This makes the son look at the earth with a newer vision and he understands that his mother is right. It is never going to be the same in another galaxy far away from home and his mother.

But, now he is helpless and cannot change his decision of coming back to earth. He goes on explaining the things happening on the moon; how people come to the ‘Community of Nations Square’ after work for relaxation. He tells about the spaceships which is fully equipped for this major expedition. The mother watches the rockets with people assembling for a take off, and asks her son why someone yearns to leave their home and go to another galaxy instead of being happy with their own.

She tries to pursue her son to quit from this mission even though she knew she may never see her son again. Just then a voice from the loudspeaker asks the astronaut to report to duty and he turns off the button and the screen becomes blank. He often plays this recording to be in that moment with his mother. This kind of expedition is the result of young curious minds and humanity.

Mother’s Voice Glossary: