Laxmi

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 How the State Government Works

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science How the State Government Works

I. Choose the correct answer

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 1.
The Governor of a state is appointed by –
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Social Answers Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
The State Council Minsters is headed by –
(a) The Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(b) Chief Minister

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 3.
Who can summon and prorogue the sessions of the State legislature?
(a) Home Minister
(b) President
(c) Speaker
(d) The Governor
Answer:
(d) The Governor

How The State Government Works Question 4.
Who does not participate in the appointment of the High Court Judge?
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President of India
Answer:
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Standard Social Science Question 5.
The age of retirement of the Judges of the High Court is –
(a) 62
(b) 64
(c) 65
(d) 58
Answer:
(a) 62

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… States are there in India at present.
2. The tenure of the Governor is normally ……………. years.
3. The District Judges are appointed by ……………..
4. The Governor is the ……………. Head of the State.
5. Minimum age for elections as MLA ……………. years.

Answer:

1. 29
2. Five
3. The Governor
4. Constitutional
5. 25

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. ii
3. i
4. iii

IV. State true or false

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Question 1.
Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State.
Answer:
True

Social Samacheer Kalvi 8th Question 2.
The Governor nominates two members of the Anglo – Indian Community to Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Governor nominates one members of the Anglo- Indian Community to Legislative Assembly.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 3.
The number of judges in the High Courts is not uniform and fixed.
Answer:
True

V. Choose the correct statement

State Government Lesson Questions And Answers Question 1.
The State Legislative Assembly participates in the election of
(i) President
(ii) Vice – President
(iii) Rajya Sabha members
(iv) Members of the Legislative Council of the State

(a) i, ii & iii are Correct
(b) i & iii are Correct
(c) i, iii & iv are correct
(d) i, ii, iii & iv are correct
Answer:
(c) i, iii & iv are correct

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Name the two houses of the State legislature.
Answer:
The State Legislature consists of the Governor and one or two houses. The upper house is called the Legislative Council while the lower house is called the Legislative Assembly.

How State Government Works Question 2.
Write the qualifications of the members of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:

1. The candidate must be a citizen of India.
2. He/she must be 25 years and above.
3. The candidate must be of sound mind.
4. He/she must be an elector for any constituency in the state he is representing from.

8th Class Civics Chapter 1 Question 3.
How is the Chief Minister appointed?
Answer:
The Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislative Assembly as the Chief Minister. He is the head of the State Council of Ministers.

How The State Government Works Class 7 Notes Question 4.
How is the Council of Ministers formed?
Answer:

1. The party which gets majority seats in the election forms the government.
2. The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as Chief Minister.
3. The Chief Minister chooses his ministers from the MLAs of his party.
4. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other ministers.
5. Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister form the State Government.

VII. Answer the following in detail

How The State Government Works Class 7 Question 1.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Chief Minister.
Answer:
Powers and functions:

1. The Chief Minister is the chief administrator of the State. All major decisions of the State Government are taken under his leadership.

2. The Chief Minister plays an important role in the formation of the Council of Ministers. On the advice of the Chief Minister, the Governor appoints the other Ministers.

3. The Chief Minister supervises the activities of different ministries and advises them accordingly. He also coordinates the activities of different ministries.

4. The Chief Minister plays an important role in making policies of the State Government ensuring public interest. His voice is final in policy decisions of the State Government.

5. The Governor appoints different higher officials of the State Government on the advice of the Chief Minister and his Council of Ministers.

The State Government Class 8 Question 2.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The main duty of the Legislative Assembly is to make laws for the state. It can make law on the subjects mentioned in the state list and the concurrent list. However, during state emergency, it cannot exercise its legislative power.

1. The assembly has control over the State council of Ministers. The State council of ministers are responsible or answerable to the Assembly for its activities. The Assembly may pass a no confidence motion against the council of Ministers if it is not satisfied with the performance of the council of Ministers.

2. The legislative Assembly has control over the finances of the state. A money bill can be introduced only in the Assembly. The government cannot impose, increase, lower or withdraw any tax without the approval of the Assembly.

3. The elected members of the Legislative Assembly can take part in the election of the president of India and all members can take part in the election of the members of the Rajya Sabha from the state.

4. The Assembly also takes part in the amendment of the Constitution on certain matters.

5. So the government has three basic functions: making laws, executing laws and ensuring justice.

Question 3.
Write about the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
1. The High Court has been empowered to issue writs of Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo Warranto for the enforcement of the fundamental rights and for other purposes.

2. Every High Court has a general power of superintendence over all the lower courts and tribunals within its jurisdiction.

3. If a case is pending before a sub – ordinate court and the High Court is satisfied that it involves a substantial question of the constitutional law, it can take up the case and decide it itself.

4. The High Court controls all the subordinate courts in the State.

5. Like the Supreme Court, the High Court also acts as a Court of Record.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics How the State Government Works Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ……………. is an integral part of the state Legislature.
(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) Vice – President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(a) Governor

Question 2.
Before the expiry of the full term of the Governor, the …………….. can dismiss him.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Vice – president
(c) President
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(c) Presiden

Question 3.
To be the Governor, a person must have completed …………….. years of age.
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 21
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 35

Question 4.
The position of the Governor of a state is compared to the ……………. of India.
(a) Chief Justice
(b) Lok Sabha speaker
(c) Attorney General
(d) President
Answer:
(d) President

Question 5.
The president declares emergency in a state on the basis of the report of the ………………
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Speaker
(d) Opposition party leader
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 6.
As per our constitution, the strength of the Legislative council must not be less than …………..
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 35
Answer:
(c) 40

Question 7.
The members of the legislative council are elected for a term of ………….. years.
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 6

Question 8.
One legislative constituency may have ………….. or even more people.
(a) 1 lakh
(b) 10 thousand
(c) 20 thousand
(d) 50 thousand
Answer:
(a) 1 lakh

Question 9.
The Governor can nominate …………… member from the Anglo – Indian community to the Legislative Assembly.
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 10.
The Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu located at …………….
(a) Madurai
(b) Salem
(c) Chennai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Chennai

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The states have their own executive, …………… and ……………
2. A Person is not appointed …………… in his own state.
3. The …………… acts as an agent of the Central Government in a state.
4. The …………… remains in office so long as he gets support of the majority members of the Legislative Assembly.
5. The members of the …………… are elected indirectly.
6. At present, only …………… states in India have Legislative Council in their legislative.
7. …………… of the members of the Legislative Council retire every two years.
8. The …………… is the presiding officer of the Legislative Council.
9. The people who make the laws of a state Government are called ……………
10. Different …………… compete in the elections to the legislative Assembly.

Answer:

1. Legislative, Judiciary
2. Governor
3. Governor
4. Chief Minister
5. Legislative council
6. Seven
7. One – third
8. Chairman
9. Members of the Legislative Assembly
10. Political parties

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

IV. True or False

Question 1.
The Governor must give his assent to all the bills passed in the legislature
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The Chief Minister is responsible for maintaining relationship between the central Government and the state Government.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Governor is responsible for maintaining relationship between the central Government and the state Government.

Question 3.
For the election of MLAs the entire state is divided into different constituencies.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
There may be a common High Court only for 2 states.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
There may be a common High Court for two or more states and Union Territories.

V. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(i) A Legislative Assembly cannot have more than 500 members.
(ii) Some seats in the Legislative Assembly are reserved for scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes.
(iii) The meetings of the Assembly are presided by the chief minister.
(iv) People who have completed 21 years of age can cast their vote in the elections.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii, iii and iv are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i, ii and iv are correct
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iv are correct

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
How is the Governor appointed?
Answer:
While appointing the Governor, the President acts as per the advice of the Union Cabinet. The State Government is also consulted when the appointment is to be made. Generally, a person is not appointed Governor in his own State.

Question 2.
What does the state executive consist of?
Answer:
The state executive consists of the Governor and the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the Governor of a state.
Answer:
The Governor as the Head of a State in India. He is appointed by the President of India. He is the constitutional Head of a State. The Governor is appointed for a term of five years.

Question 4.
How long can the Chief Minister remain in office?
Answer:
The Chief Minister has no fixed term of office. He remains in office so long as he gets support of the majority members of the Legislative Assembly. When he loses support in the legislature, he has to resign.

Question 5.
How are the members of the legislative council elected?
Answer:

1. The members of the Legislative Council are elected indirectly.
2. One third of its members are elected by the local government bodies like the District Panchayat and Municipalities.
3. Another one third is elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly.
4. One twelfth is elected by the graduates of the constituency and another one twelfth by the teachers of secondary schools, colleges and universities.
5. One sixth of the members of the Legislative Council are nominated by the Governor of the State.

Question 6.
Name the states in India which have Legislative council.
Answer:
Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Jammu & Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh and Telengana.

Question 7.
How is the capital of a state determined?
Answer:
The place where a state’s legislative assembly is located and where its council of ministers function is called the capital of that state.

Question 8.
How are the laws of the state Government executed?
Answer:
The state government has several lakhs of government employees to execute the laws made by the legislative assembly- Collectors, Tahsildars, Block Development Officers, Revenue officers, Village Administrative Officers, Policemen, Teachers and Doctors, etc.

VII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Discuss the powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
Powers and functions
1. The Governor is the Chief Executive in a State. All the executive powers of the State are vested upon him and decisions are taken in his name. He appoints the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers.

2. He makes some important appointments such as, the Advocate general, Chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission and others.

3. The Governor also acts as the Chancellor of State Universities.

4. He summons and prorogues the sessions of the State legislature and he can dissolve the Legislative Assembly.

5. Money bills can be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly only with the approval of the Governor.

6. The annual budget of the State Government is laid before the legislature with approval of the Governor. The Contingency fund of the State is also placed at the disposal of the Governor.

Question 2.
How are laws made in the state Government?
Answer:
In the legislative assembly meetings, MLAs discuss a number of topics like public works, education, law and order and various problems faced by the state. The MLAs can ask questions to know the activities of ministries, which the concerned ministers have to answer. The legislative assembly makes laws on certain issues. The process of law making as follows:

1. A Bill is presented in the Legislative Assembly.
2. Debates and discussions take place on it. Changes can be made in the Bill.
3. If more that half of the MLA’s vote in favour of the Bill, it is said to be passed.
4. The Bill needs to get assent of the Governor to become an Act.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 From Trade to Territory

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science From Trade to Territory Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

8th Social From Trade To Territory Question 1.
The ruler of Bengal in 1757 was ……………
(a) Shuja – ud – daulah
(b) Siraj – ud – daulah
(c) Mirkasim
(d) Tippu Sultan
Answer:
(b) Siraj – ud – daulah

From Trade To Territory Class 8 Questions And Answers Pdf Question 2.
The Battle of Plassey was fought in ………………
(a) 1757
(b) 1764
(c) 1765
(d) 1775
Answer:
(a) 1757

From Trade To Territory Meaning In Tamil Question 3.
Which among the following treaty was signed after Battle of Buxar?
(a) Treaty of Allahabad
(b) Treaty of Carnatic
(c) Treaty of Alinagar
(d) Treaty of Paris
Answer:
(a) Treaty of Allahabad]

From Trade To Territory In Tamil Question 4.
The Treaty of Pondichery brought the …………….. Carnatic war to an end .
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Second

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Solutions Question 5.
When did Hyder Ali crown on the throne of Mysore?
(a) 1756
(b) 1761
(c) 1763
(d) 1764
Answer:
(b) 1761

Class 8 Social Science From Trade To Territory Question 6.
Treaty of Mangalore was signed between ……………..
(a) The French and Tippu Sultan
(b) Hyder Ali and Zamorin of Calicut
(c) The British and Tippu Sultan
(d) Tippu Sultan andMarathas
Answer:
(c) The British and Tippu Sultan]

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 7.
Who was the British Governor General during Third Anglo – Mysore War?
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) Lord Cornwallis
(d) Lord Wellesley
Answer:
(c) Lord Cornwallis]

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Solutions Question 8.
Who signed the Treaty of Bassein with the British?
(a) Bajirao II
(b) DaulatraoScindia
(c) SambhajiBhonsle
(d) SayyajiraoGaekwad
Answer:
(a) Bajirao II

Question 9.
Who was the last Peshwa of Maratha empire?
(a) BalajiVishwanath
(b) BajiRao II
(c) BalajiBajiRao
(d) BajiRao
Answer:
(d) BajiRao

Question 10.
Who was the first Indian state to join the subsidiary Alliance?
(a) Oudh
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Udaipur
(d) Gwalior
Answer:
(b) Hyderabad

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The Treaty of Alinagar was signed in ……………..
2. The commander in Chief of Sirajuddaula was ……………….
3. The main cause for the Second Carnatic war was ……………….
4. ………………. adopted the policy of Doctrine of Lapse to extend the British Empire in India.
5. Tippu Sultan was finally defeated at the hands of ……………….
6. After the death of Tippu Sultan Mysore was handed over to ……………….
7. In 1800, ………………… established a college at Fort William in Calcutta.

Answer:

1. 1757
2. Mir Jafar
3. The issue of succession
4. Lord Dalhousie
5. Arthur Wellesely
6. Krishna Raja Odayar
7. Lord Wellesley]

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. ii
2. iv
3. iii
4. V
5. i.

IV. State true or false

Question 1.
After the death of Alivardi Khan, Siraj – ud – daula ascended the throne of Bengal.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Hector Munro, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Robert Clive, led the British forces in the battle of Plassey.

Question 3.
The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to Second Carnatic War in India.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The outbreak of the Austrian war of succession in Europe was led to First Carnatic War in India.

Question 4.
Sir Elijalmpey was the first Chief Justice of the Supreme Court at Fort William in Bengal.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The Police system was created by Lord Cornwallis.
Answer:
True

V. Which one of the following is correctly matched?

1. Battle of Adayar – 1748
2. Battle of Ambur – 1754
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760
4. Battle of Arcot – 1749

Answer:
3. Battle of Wandiwash – 1760

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on Black Hole Tragedy.
Answer:
There was a small dungeon room in the Fort William in Calcutta, where troops of the Nawab of Bengal Siraj – ud – daula, held 146 British Prisoners of war for one night. Next day morning, when the door was opened 123 of the prisoners found dead because of suffocation.

Question 2.
What were the benefits derived by the English after the Battle of Plassey?
Answer:
After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the company was granted undisputed right to have free trade in Bengal, Bihar and Orissa. It received the place of 24 parganas in Bengal.

Question 3.
Mention the causes for the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Mir Qasim the son in law of the Nawab of Bengal revolted as he was angry with the British for misusing the destakes (free duty passes).

Question 4.
What were the causes for the First Mysore War?
Causes:

1. Haider Ali’s growing power and his friendly relations with the French became a matter of concern for the English East India Company.
2. The Marathas, the Nizam and the English entered into a triple alliance against Haider Ali.

Question 5.
Bring out the results of the Third Maratha War.

1. The Maratha confederacy was dissolved and Peshwaship was abolished.
2. Most of the territory of Peshwa BajiRao II was annexed and became part of the Bombay Presidency
3. The defeat of the Bhonsle and Holkar also resulted in the acquisition of the Maratha kingdoms of Nagpur and Indore by the British.
4. The BajiRao II, the last Peshwa of Maratha was given an annual pension of 8 lakh rupees.

Question 6.
Name the states signed into Subsidiary Alliance.
Answer:
Hyderabad (1798). It was followed by Tanjore (1799), Auadh (1801), Peshwa (1802), Bhonsle (1803), Gwalior (1804), Indore (1817), Jaipur, Udaipur and Jodhpur (1818).

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Write an essay on second Carnatic war.
Answer:
In the 18th century, three Carnatic wars were fought between various Indian rulers, British and French East Indian Company on either side.

Second Carnatic War:

1. The main cause of this war was the issue of succession in Carnatic and Hyderabad. Anwaruddin Khan and Chanda Sahib were the two claimants to the throne of Carnatic, whereas Nasir Jang and Muzaffar Jang were claimants to the throne of Hyderabad.

2. The French supported Chanda sahib and Muzaffar Jang, while the British supported the other claimants with the objective of keeping their interest and influence in the entire Deccan region.

Battle of Ambur (1749):

1. Finally Dupleix, Chanda Sahib and Muzaffar Jang formed a grand alliance and defeated and killed Anwar-ud-din Khan, the Nawab of Carnatic, in the Battle of Ambur.

2. Muhammad Ali, the son of Anwar – ud – din, fled to Trichinopoly.

3. Chanda Sahib became the Nawab of Carnatic and rewarded the French with the grant of 80 villages around Pondicherry.

4. In the Deccan, the French defeated and killed Nasir Jang and made Muzaffar Jang as the Nizam.

5. The new Nizam gave ample rewards to the French.

6. He appointed Dupleix as the governor of all the territories in south of the river Krishna. Muzaffar Jang was assassinated by his own people.

7. Salabat Jang, brother of Nasir Jang was raised to the throne by Bussy.

8. Salabat Jang granted the Northern Circars to the French.

9. Dupleix’s power was at its zenith by that time.

Battle of Arcot (1751):

1. In the meantime, Dupleix sent forces to besiege the fort of Trichy

2. Chanda Sahib also joined with the French in their efforts to besiege Trichy. Robert Clive’s proposal was accepted by the British governor, Saunders, and with only 200 English and 300 Indian soldiers, Clive was entrusted the task of capturing Arcot. His attack proved successful.

3. Robert Clive defeated the French at Ami and Kaveripak. With the assistance of Lawrence, Chanda Sahib was killed in Trichy. Muhammad Ali was made the Nawab of Arcot under British protection. The French Government recalled Dupleix to Paris.

Treaty of Pondicherry (1755):

1. Dupleix was succeeded by Godeheu who agreed the treaty of Pondicherry. According to it, both the powers agreed not to interfere in the internal affairs of the native states. They were to retain their old positions. New forts should not be built by either power. The treaty made the British stronger.

2. The second Carnatic war also proved inconclusive. The English proved their superiority on land by appointing Mohammad Ali as the Nawab of Carnatic. The French were still very powerful in Hyderabad. However, the predominant position of the French in the Deccan peninsula was definitely undermined in this war.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Fourth Anglo Mysore war.
Answer:
The Fourth Anglo – Mysore War:
Tipu Sultan did not forget the humiliating treaty of Srirangapatnam imposed upon him by Cornwallis in 1790.
Causes:

1. Tipu sought alliance with foreign powers against the English and sent ambassadors to Arabia, Turkey, Afghanistan and the French.
2. Tipu was in correspondence with Napoleon who invaded Egypt at that time.
3. The French officers came to Srirangapatnam where they founded a Jacobin Club and planted the Tree of Liberty.

Course:

1. Wellesley declared war against Tipu in 1799. The war was short and decisive. As planned, the Bombay army under General Stuart invaded Mysore from the west.

2. The Madras army, which was led by the Governor – General’s brother, Arthur Wellesley, forced Tipu to retreat to his capital Srirangapatnam.

3. On 4th May 1799 Srirangapatnam was captured. Tipu fought bravely and was killed finally. Thus ended the fourth Mysore War and the whole of Mysore lay prostrate before the British.

Mysore after the War:

1. The English occupied Kanara, Wynad. Coimbatore. Darapuram and Srirangapattinam.
2. Krishna Raja Odayar of the former Hindu royal family was brought to the throne.
3. Tipu’s family was sent to the fort of Vellore.

Question 3.
Describe the policy adopted by Lord Dalhousie to expand the British empire in India.
Answer:
Doctrine of Lapse:
1. Lord Dalhousie was one of the chief architects of the British Empire in India. He was an imperialist. He adopted a new policy known as Doctrine of Lapse to extend British Empire.

2. He made use of this precedent and declared in 1848 that if the native rulers adopted children without the prior permission of the Company, only the personal properties of the rulers would go to the adopted sons and the kingdoms would go to the British paramount power. This principle was called the Doctrine of Lapse.

3. It was bitterly opposed by the Indians and it was one of the root causes for the great revolt of 1857.

Question 4.
How did Lord Wellesley expand the British
Answer:
The Subsidiary Alliance:

1. Lord Wellesley introduced the system of Subsidiary Alliance to bring the princely states under the control of the British.
2. It was the most effective instrument for the expansion of the British territory and political influence in India.
3. The princely state was called ‘the protected state’ and the British came to be referred as ‘the paramount power’.
4. It was the duty of the British to safeguard the state from external aggression and to help its ruler in maintaining internal peace.

Main Features of Subsidiary Alliance:

1. An Indian ruler entering into this alliance with the British had to dissolve his own armed forces and accept British Forces.
2. A British Resident would stay in his capital.
3. Towards the maintenance charges of the army, he should make annual payments or cede some territory permanently to the Company.
4. All the non – English European officials should be turned out of his state.
5. The native ruler should deal with foreign states only through the English Company.
6. The British would undertake to defend the state from internal trouble as well as external attack.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Explain the causes for the success of the English in India.
Answer:
1. Lack of unity among Indian Stats:
Even though there were powerful kings and who ruled Punjab, Mysore and Maratha region, they lacked unity and fought with each other for various reasons. They failed to perceive the danger arising from the East India Company.

2. Greater Naval Power:
The British came through the sea and established a strong naval power in the Indian Ocean before coming to the Indian main land. There was no strong naval power in India to challenge the Brititsh.

3. Development of textile:
By the beginning of the 19th century English made cotton textiles successfully ousted Indian goods from their traditional markets.

4. Scientific division of labour:
The production and growth of modem science in India was encouraged by the British with a view to further colonial interests.

5. Economic prospertiy:
The British had enough funds to pay its share holders that compelled them to finance the English wars in India.

IX. Mark the following on the River map of India

Question 1.

1. Plassy
2. Buxar
3. Purandhar
4. Arcot
5. Wandiwash

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History  From Trade to Territory Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The rule of …………… in India became effective after the conquest of Bengal.
(a) Mughals
(b) East India Company
(c) Portuguese
(d) French
Answer:
(b) East India Company

Question 2.
Siraj – ud – daula captured the British factory at …………….
(a) Kasim bazar
(b) Delhi
(c) Alinagar
(d) Chandranagore
Answer:
(a) Kasim bazar]

Question 3.
Buxar was a small fortified town in the territory of ……………….
(a) West Bengal
(b) Karnataka
(c) Bihar
(d) Rajasthan

Answer:
(c) Bihar

Question 4.
In the battle of Adayar, the French army fought under captain ……………..
(a) Hector Munro
(b) Robert Clive
(c) Eyre Coote
(d) Paradise
Answer:
(d) Paradise

Question 5.
Under the terms of the Treaty of Aix – la – Chapelle, ……………. was returned back to the English.
(a) Madras
(b) Trichinopoly
(c) Hyderabad
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(a) Madras

Question 6.
The out break of the seven years’ was in Europe led to the ……………. war in India.
(a) I Carnatic
(b) II Carnatic
(c) III Carnatic
(d) Wandiwash
Answer:
(c) III Carnatic

Question 7.
In the III Carnatic war, France captured Fort ……………
(a) Gwalior
(b) St. David
(c) William
(d) Vellore
Answer:
(b) St. David

Question 8.
The Battle of Wandiwash was fought by the English army under General …………….
(a) Forde
(b) Dupleix
(c) Hector Munro
(d) Eyre Coote
Answer:
(d) Eyre Coote

Question 9.
The Seven year’s war was concluded …………… by the treaty of.
(a) Paris
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Madras
(d) Mangalore
Answer:
(a) Paris

Question 10.
The state of Mysore rose to prominence uder the leadership of …………….
(a) Chanda sahib
(b) Salabat Jang
(c) Haider Ali
(d) MirJafar
Answer:
(c) Haider Ali

Question 11.
In 1781, the British General Sir Eyre Coote defeated Haider Ali at ………………
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Porto Novo
(c) Mysore
(d) Mangalore
Answer:
(b) Porto Novo

Question 12.
………….. Saved the British Dominion from the wrath of powerful enemies.
(a) Wellesley
(b) Cornwallis
(c) Warren Hastings
(d) Dalhousie
Answer:
(c) Warren Hastings

Question 13.
Tipu attacked in ……………. 1789.
(a) Madras
(b) Mangalore
(c) Mahe
(d) Travancore
Answer:
(d) Travancore

Question 14.
During the course of the third Anglo – Mysore war …………… took the command of the British Armyi
(a) Cornwallis
(b) Dalhousie
(c) Robert Clive
(d) Curzon
Answer:
(a) Cornwallis

Question 15.
The internal conflict among the ……………. was best utilised by the British.
(a) Nizams
(b) Marathas
(c) Nawabs
(d) Chauhans
Answer:
(b) Marathas

Question 16.
Colonel Upton concluded the treaty of ……………. in 1776.
(a) Mangalore
(b) Mysore
(c) Purandhar
(d) Pondicherry
Answer:
(c) Purandhar

Question 17.
The death of …………….. in 1800 gave the British an added advantage.
(a) Mahadaji Scindia
(b) Daulat Rao Scindia
(c) Madhav Rao
(d) Nana Phadnavis
Answer:
(d) Nana Phadnavis]

Question 18.
In the III Anglo Maratha war, Hastings was supported by a force under General ……………
(a) Thomas Hislop
(b) Mathews
(c) Medows
(d) Upton
Answer:
(a) Thomas Hislop]

Question 19.
……………… the Governor General of India in 1786, enforced the ruler against private trade.
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) Wellesley
(c) Cornwallis
(d) Robert Clive
Answer:
(c) Cornwallis

Question 20.
As per the Government of India Act of 1858, the maximum age for competitors of civil services examination was fixed at ……………
(a) 20
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 21
Answer:
(b) 23

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………………. of Portugal discovered a new sea route from Europe to India.
2. ………………. ascended the throne of Bengal in 1756.
3. British captured …………….. the French settlement in 1757.
4.  ………………. concluded two treaties with Siraj – Ud – daula and Shah Alam II.
5. ………………. and ……………… were rival countries in Europe.
6. The battle of ………………… was fought between the French forces and forces of Anwar – ud – din.
7. ……………. was deputed from France to conduct the third Carnatic war.
8. Robert Clive sent ………….. from Bengal to occupy the Norhem Circars.
9. Haider Ali and his son …………. played a prominent role against the expansion of British empire in India.
10. The Nizam, with the help of British troops led by General invaded Mysore in 1767.
11. Tipu captutred Brigadier …………. the supreme commander of the forces in 1783.
12. After the death of Narayan Rao, ……………. became the Peshwa.
13. Raghunath Rao’s authority was challenged by a strong party at poona under ……………..
14. ……………. made an attempt to form a coalition of Indian rulers to fight against the British.
15. The Royal Commission on Public Service was Chaired by Lord ……………. in 1912.
16. In 1918 ………….. and ……………. recommended that 33% of Indians should be recruited in Indian civil services.
17. The …………….. was the second important pillar of the British administration in India.
18. The highest rank in the army that an Indian could ever reach was that of a ……………..
19. Circles or Thanas were headed by a …………….
20. The heriditary village police became ……………

Answer:

1. Vasco da Gama
2. Siraj – Ud – daula
3. Chandra nagore
4. Robert Clive
5. Britain and France
6. San Thome (Madras)
7. Count de Lally
8. Colonel Forde
9. Tipu Sultan
10. Joseph Smith
11. Mathews
12. Raghunath Rao
13. Nana Phadnavis
14. Yashwant Rao Holkas
15. Islington
16. Montague, Chelmsford
17. Army
18. Subedar
19. Daroga
20. Chowkidars

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. v
5. ii

IV. State true or false

Question 1.
Within a year after the Battle of Wandiwash the English army totally routed the French Army.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
In 1761, Tipu Sultan became the de facto ruler of Hyderabad.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
In 1761, Tipu Sultan became the de facto ruler of Mysore.

Question 3.
Warren Hastings consolidated the British power in India. [Ans : True]
The Treaty of Salbai was signed between Cornwallis and Mahadaji Scindia.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Treaty of Salbai was signed between Warren Hastings and Mahadaji Scindia.

Question 4.
The idea of competition for recruitment was introduced first by the Charter Act, 1833.
Answer:
True

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What was the motive behind the discovery of sea routes to India?
Answer:
The main motive behind those discoveries was to maximize profit through trade and to establish political supremacy.

Question 2.
What were the causes of the Second Anglo Mysore war?
Answer:
1. The English did not fulfill the terms of the treaty of 1769, when Haider’s territories were attacked in 1771 by Marathas, Haider did not get help from the British.

2. British captured Mahe, a French settlement within Haider’s Jurisdiction. It led to the formation of an alliance by Haider with the Nizam and Marathas against the English in 1779.

Question 3.
Prepare flow chart to explain the period of the three Carnatic wars.
Answer:

Question 4.
What were the results of the First Anglo Maratha War?
Answer:

1. RaghunathRao was pensioned off and MadhavRao II was accepted as the Peshwa.
2. Salsette was given to the British.
3. The Treaty of Salbai established the British influence in Indian politics. It provided the British twenty years of peace with the Marathas.

Question 5.
Explain with a flow chart the period of the Anglo Mysore wars.
Answer:

Question 6.
Prepare a flow chart mentioning the period in which the Anglo Maratha wars were fought.
Answer:

Question 7.
What did the Indian Civil Service Act of 1861 state?
Answer:
The Indian Civil Service Act of 1861 passed by the British Parliament exclusively reserved certain categories of high executive and judicial posts for the covenanted civil service which was later designated as the Indian Civil Service.

Question 8.
Name the three Indians who became successful in the I.C.S. examination in 1869.
Answer:
In 1869, three Indians – Surendra Nath Banerje, Ramesh Chandra Dutt and Bihari Lai Gupta became successful in the I.C.S. examination.

Question 9.
What did the Royal Commission of Public Service or the Lee Commission recommend in 1923?
Answer:
In 1923, a Royal Commission on Public Services was appointed with Lord Lee of Fareham as chairman. This commission recommended that recruitment to all-Indian services like the Indian Civil Service, the Indian Police Service and the Indian Forest Service should be made and controlled by the Secretary of State for India. The Lee Commission recommended the immediate establishment of a Public Service Commission.

Question 10.
Write a short note on the Act of 1935.
Answer:
The Act of 1935 also made provisions for the establishment of a Federal Public Service Commission at the Centre and the Provincial Public Service Commissions in the various provinces. Provision was also made for a Joint Public Service Commission in two or more Provinces. Although, the main aim of this measure was to serve the British interests, it became the base of the civil service system in independent India.

Question 11.
Name the provinces in which separates armies were organised during the British rule.
Answer:
During the early stage of British rule, three separate armies had been organised in three Presidencies of Bengal, Bombay and Madras.

Question 12.
Name the places where high courts were setup according to the Act of 1861.
Answer:
According to the Indian High Courts Act, 1861, three High Courts were set up in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

Question 13.
Brief the merits of the subsidiary Alliance for the British.
Answer:
Merits for the British:

1. The British Company maintained a large army at the expense of the Indian rulers.
2. All Frenchmen in the service of native rulers were dismissed, and the danger of French revival was completely eliminated.
3. The British Company began to control the foreign policy of the Princely States,
4. Wellesley’s diplomacy made the British the paramount power in India. He transformed the British Empire in India into the British empire of India.

Question 14.
What were the factors for the success of the British?
Answer:
Factors for the success of the British

1. Greater naval power.
2. Development of textile.
3. Scientific division of labour.
4. Economic prosperity and skilful diplomacy of the British.
5. Feelings of insecurity among the Indian merchants.
6. The inequality and ignorance of the Indian kings.

Question 15.
What was the impact of the policies of Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse in India?
Answer:
This policy led to a South Indian rebellion (1800 – 01), Vellore Rebellion (1806) and the Great Rebellion (1857).

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 9 Introduction to C++ Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 9 Introduction to C++

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to C++ Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

11th Computer Science Chapter 9 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Who developed C++?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Bjame Stroustrup
(c) Bill Gates
(d) Sundar Pichi
Answer:
(b) Bjame Stroustrup

11th Computer Science Evaluate Yourself Answers Question 2.
What was the original name given to C++?
(a) CPP
(b) Advanced C
(c) C with Classes
(d) Class with C
Answer:
(c) C with Classes

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Computer Science Question 3.
Who coined C++?
(a) Rick Mascitti
(b) Rick Bjame
(c) Bill Gates
(d) Dennis Ritchie
Answer:
(a) Rick Mascitti

Samacheer Kalvi Computer Science Question 4.
The smallest individual unit in a program is:
(a) Program
(b) Algorithm
(c) Flowchart
(d) Tokens
Answer:
(d) Tokens

Computer Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Which of the following operator is extraction operator of C++?
(a) >>
(b) <<
(c) <>
(d) ^^
Answer:
(a) >>

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Question 6.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Keywords are the reserved words convey specific meaning to the C++ compiler.
(b) Reserved words or keywords can be used as an identifier name.
(c) An integer constant must have at least one digit without a decimal point.
(d) Exponent form of real constants consists of two parts
Answer:
(b) Reserved words or keywords can be used as an identifier name.

11th Samacheer Kalvi Computer Science Question 7.
Which of the following is a valid string literal?
(a) ‘A’
(b) ‘Welcome’
(c) 1232
(d) “1232”
Answer:
(d) “1232”

11th Computer Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 8.
A program written in high level language is called as ……………….
(a) Object code
(b) Source code
(c) Executable code
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Source code

Samacheer Kalvi Computer Science Book Question 9.
Assume a = 5, b = 6; what will be result of a & b?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:
(a) 4

11 Computer Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
Which of the following is called as compile time operators?
(a) sizeof
(b) pointer
(c) virtual
(d) this
Answer:
(a) sizeof

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 11th Computer Science Question 1.
What is meant by a token? Name the token available in C++.
Answer:
C++ program statements are constructed by many different small elelments such as commands, variables, constants and many more symbols called as operators and punctuators. Individual elements are collectively called as Lexical units or Lexical elements or Tokens. C++ has the following tokens:

1. Keywords
2. Identifiers
3. Literals
4. Operators
5. Punctuators

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Back Answers Question 2.
What are keywords? Can keywords be used as identifiers?
Answer:
Keywords are the reserved words which convey specific meaning to the C++ compiler. They are the essential elements to construct C++ programs. Most of the keywords are common to C, C++ and Java. Keywords are reserved and cannot be used as identifiers.

Question 3.
The following constants are of which type?

1. 39
2. 032
3. OXCAFE
4. 04.14

Answer:

1. 39 – Decimal
2. 032 – Octal
3. OXCAFE – Hexadecimal
4. 04.14 – Decimal

Question 4.
Write the following real constants into the exponent form:

1. 23.197 00
2. 7.214
3. 0.00005
4. 0.319

Answer:

1. 23.197 = 0.23197 x 10² = 0.23197E2
2. 00 7.214 = 0.7214 x 10¹ = 0.7214E1
3. 0.00005 = 0.5 x 10^-4 = 0.5E – 4
4. 0.319 = 3.19 x 10^-1 = 3.19E – 1

Question 5.
Assume n = 10; what will be result of n>>2;?
Answer:

Question 6.
Match the following:

Answer:

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Describe the differences between keywords and identifiers?
Answer:
Keywords:

• Keywords are the reserved words which convey specific meaning to the C++ compiler.
• They are essential elements to construct C++ programs.
• Most of the keywords are common to C, C++ and Java.

Identifiers:

• Identifiers are the user-defined names given to different parts of the C++ program.
• They are the fundamental building blocks of a program.
• Every language has specific rules for naming the identifiers.

Question 2.
Is C++ case sensitive? What is meant by the term “case sensitive”?
Answer:
C++ is a case sensitive programming language so, all the keywords must be in lowercase. Case sensitive means that the uppercase and lowercase letters are considered differently.

Question 3.
Differentiate “=” and “==”.
Answer:

Question 4.
Assume a = 10, b = 15; What will be the value of a^b?
Answer:

Question 5.
What is the difference between “Run time error” and “Syntax error”?
Answer:
Run – time Error:

• A run time error occurs during the execution of a program. It occurs because of some illegal operation that takes place.
• For example, if a program tries to open a file which does not exist, it results in a run – time error.

Syntax Error:

• Syntax errors occur when grammatical rules of C++ are violated.
• Example: if you type as follows, C++ will throw an error.
  cout << “Welcome to Programming in C++”

Question 6.
What are the differences between “Logical error” and “Syntax error”?
Answer:
Logical Error : Logical errors occur when there is an incorrect usage of variable / operator / order of execution etc. It is also called as Semantic Error.

Syntax Error : Syntax errors occur when grammatical rules of C++ are violated.

Question 7.
What is the use of a header file?
Answer:
Header files contain definitions of Functions and Variables, which is imported or used into any C++ program by using the pre – processor #include statement. Header files have an extension “.h” which contains C++ function declaration and macro definition.
Example: #include

Question 8.
Why is main function special?
Answer:
C++ program is a collection of functions. Every C++ program must have a main function. The main() function is the starting point where all C++ programs begin their execution. Therefore, the executable statements should be inside the main() function.

Question 9.
Write two advantages of using include compiler directive.
Answer:

1. The program is broken down into modules, thus making it more simplified.
2. More library functions can be used, at the same time size of the program is retained.

Question 10.
Write the following in real constants.

1. 15.223
2. 211.05
3. 0.00025

Answer:

1. 15.223 = 0.15223E2
2. 211.05 = 0.21105E3
3. 0.00025 = 0.25E – 3

PART – 4
IV. Answer all the questions

Question 1.
Write about Binary operators used in C++.
Answer:
Binary Operators require two operands:
Arithmetic operators that perform simple arithmetic operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, division (+, -, *, %, /) etc. are binary operators which requires minimum of two operands.

Relational operators are used to determine the relationship between its operands. The relational operators (<, >, >=, <=, ==, !=) are applied on two operands, hence they are binary operators. AND, OR (logical operator) both are binary operators. Assignment operator is also a binary operator (+=, – =, *=, /=, %=).

Question 2.
What are the types of Errors?
Answer:

Question 3.
Assume a = 15, b = 20; What will be the result of the following operations?
(a) a&b
(b) a|b
(c) a^b
(d) a>>3
(e) (~b)
Answer:

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
How many categories of data types available in C++?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 2.
Which of the following data types is not a fundamental type?
(a) signed
(b) int
(c) float
(d) char
Answer:
(a) signed

Question 3.
What will be the result of following statement?
char ch= ‘B’;
cout<< (int) ch;
(a) B
(b) b
(c) 65
(d) 66
Answer:
(d) 66

Question 4.
Which of the character is used as suffix to indicate a floating point value?
(a) F
(b) C
(c) L
(d) D
Answer:
(a) F

Question 5.
How many bytes of memory allocates for the following variable declaration if you are using
Dev C++? short int x;
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 6.
What is the output of the following snippet?
charch =‘A’;
ch = ch + 1;
(a) B
(b) A1
(c) F
(d) 1A
Answer:
(a) B

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a data type modifier?
(a) signed
(b) int
(c) long
(d) short
Answer:
(b) int

Question 8.
Which of the following operator returns the size of the data type?
(a) sizeof()
(b) int ()
(c) long ()
(d) double ()
Answer:
(a) sizeof()

Question 9.
Which operator is used to access reference of a variable?
(a) $
(b) #
(c) &
(d) !
Answer:
(c) &

Question 10.
This can be used as alternate to endl command:
(a) \t
(b) \b
(a) \0
(d) \n
Answer:
(d) \n

PART – 2
II. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
Write a short note const keyword with an example.
Answer:
const is the keyword used to declare a constant, const keyword modifies / restricts the accessibility of a variable. So, it is known as Access modifier.

Question 2.
What is the use of setw( ) format manipulator?
Answer:
setw manipulator sets the width of the field assigned for the output. The field width determines the minimum number of characters to be written in output.
Syntax:
setw(number of characters)

Question 3.
Why is char often treated as integer data type?
Answer:
Character data type accepts and returns all valid ASCII characters. Character data type is often said to be an integer type, since all the characters are represented in memory by their associated ASCII Codes. If a variable is declared as char, C++ allows storing either a character or an integer value.

Question 4.
What is a reference variable? What is its use?
Answer:
Reference variable in C++ is alias for existing variable. They store nothing but the address of the variable used at the time of its declaration. It is important to assign the reference variable at the time of declaration, else it will show an error.

Question 5.
Consider the following C++ statement. Are they equivalent?
char ch = 67;
charch = ‘C’;
Answer:
Both the statements are equivalent as they declare ‘ch’ to be char and initialize it with the value of 67. Since this is the ASCII code for ‘C’, the character constant also can be used to initialize ‘ch’ to 67.

Question 6.
What is the difference between 56L and 56?
Answer:
56L – The suffix L forces the constant to be represented as long, which occupies 4 bytes.

56 – This will be represented as int type constant which occupies 2 bytes as per Turbo C++.

Question 7.
Determine which of the following are valid constant? And specify their type.

1. 0 0.5
2. ‘Name’
3. ‘\t’
4. 27,822

Answer:

1. 0.5 – is a valid constant. It is a decimal.
2. ‘Name’ – Invalid constant as single quote is not allowed.
3. ‘\t’ – Escape sequence (or) non – graphical character (horizontal tab).
4. 27,822 – Invalid constant. Comma is not allowed.

Question 8.
Suppose x and y are two double type variable that you want add as integer and assign to an integer variable. Construct a C++ statement for the doing so.
Answer:
double x = 10.5, y = 4.5; int a;
a = int (x) + int (y);

Question 9.
What will be the result of following if num=6 initially.
(a) cout << num;
(b) cout << (num==5);
Answer:
(a) 6 (b) False

Question 10.
Which of the following two statements are valid? Why? Also w rite their result, int a; a = 3,014; a=(3,014);
Answer:
It is invalid as comma is not allowed in an integer constant. It is valid. Comma in bracket is allowed.

PART – 3
III. Answer to all the questions

Question 1.
What are arithmetic operators in C++? Differentiate unary and binary arithmetic operators. Give example for each of them.
Answer:
Arithmetic operators : perform simple arithmetic operations like addition, subtraction, multiplication, division etc.
Unary Operators : Require only one operand . Example: +, -, *, /, %, >, <, <=, AND, OR

Binary Operators:

1. Require two operands
2. Example: ++ (Plus, Plus) Increment operator, – – (Minus, Minus) Decrement operator, NOT, ~,

Question 2.
Evaluate x + = x + + + x; Let x = 5;
Answer:
x + = x + + + x (x = 5) x + = x + + + 5 (x becomes 6)
x + = 6 + 6
x + = 12
x = 6 + 12
x = 18

Question 3.
How relational operators and logical operators are related to one another?
Answer:
Relational operators are used to determine the relationship between its operands. When the relational operators are applied on two operands, the result will be a boolean value 1 or 0 which represents True or False respectively which represents logical operator.

Question 4.
Evaluate the following C++ expressions where x, y, z are integers and m, n are floating point numbers. The value of x = 5, y = 4 and m = 2.5;
Answer:

1. n = x + y / x;
2. z = m * x + y;
3. z = (x++) * m + x;

Answer:
1. n = x + y / x;
= 5 + 4/5
= 5 + 0 (both x and y are int type. Therefore only integer part of quotient is considered)
=5

2. z = m * x + y;
= 2.5 * 5 + 4 (m is float type, so x value is promoted to float [implicit conversion])
= 12.5 + 4 ‘
= 16 (2 is int type. So ‘.2’, the fractional part is discarded)

3. z = (x++) * m + x;
= 5*2.5 + x
= 12.5 + 5
= 18 (z is int type, therefore the fractional part is removed, x is incremented after the addition)

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Introduction to C++ Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The latest standard version published in December 2017 as ISO/IEC …………….. which is informally known as C++ 17.
(a) 14882 : 1998
(b) 14883 : 2017
(c) 14882 : 2017
(d) 14882 : 2000
Answer:
(c) 14882 : 2017

Question 2.
The smallest individual unit in a program is known as ……………..
(a) token
(b) lexical unit
(c) lexical element
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Integer constant is also called as ……………..
(a) fixed point constant
(b) floating point constant
(c) real constants
(d) boolean literals
Answer:
(a) fixed point constant

Question 4.
Exponent form of real constants consists of parts.
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 5.
…………….. relational operators are binary operators.
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 6

Question 6.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (iv) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (i)
(c) 1 – (i) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (iv)
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iv) 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (iv) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (i)

Question 7
…………….. used to label a statement.
(a) colon
(b) comma
(c) semi – colon
(d) parenthesis
Answer:
(a) colon

Question 8.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii) 2 – (iv) 3 – (i) 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (i) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (iv)
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iv) 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(d) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iv) 4 – (iii)

Question 9.
IDE stands for ……………..
(a) Integrated Development Environment
(b) International Development Environment
(c) Integrated Digital Environment
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Integrated Development Environment

Question 10.
In programming language …………….. are referred as variables and the values are referred to as data.
(a) constant
(b) integer
(c) fields
(d) files
Answer:
(c) fields

Question 11.
…………….. data type signed more precision fractional value.
(a) char
(b) short
(c) long double
(d) signed doubles
Answer:
(c) long double

Question 12.
Syntax for reference is ……………..
(a) =
(b) = <& reference>
(c) <&reference_variable>=
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) <&reference_variable>=

Question 13.
…………….. manipulator is the member of iomanip header file.
(a) setw
(b) setfill
(c) setf
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 14.
…………….. is used to set the number of decimal places to be displayed.
(a) Set precision
(b) Garbage
(c) Constant
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Set precision

Question 15.
Match the following

(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (i)
(b) 1 – (i) 2 – (ii) 3 – (iii) 4 – (iv)
(c) 1 – (iv) 2 – (i) 3 – (i) 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (i) 4 – (ii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (iii) 3 – (ii) 4 – (i)

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Mention any two benefits of C++.
Answer:

1. C++ is a highly portable language and is often the language of choice for multi – device, multi – platform app development.
2. C++ is an object – oriented programming language and includes classes, inheritance, polymorphism, data abstraction and encapsulation.

Question 2.
What is the use of Boolean literals?
Answer:
Boolean literals are used to represent one of the Boolean values (True or false). Internally true has value 1 and false has value 0.

Question 3.
What are the types of C++ operators based on the number of operands?
Answer:
The types of C++ operators based on the number of operands are:

1. Unary Operators – Require only one operand
2. Binary Operators – Require two operands
3. Ternary Operators – Require three operands

Question 4.
What are the types of bitwise operators?
Answer:
In C++, there are three kinds of bitwise operators, which are:

1. Logical bitwise operators
2. Bitwise shift operators
3. One’s compliment operators

Question 5.
What is stream extraction operator?
Answer:
C++ provides the operator >> to get input. It extracts the value through the keyboard and assigns it to the variable on its right; hence, it is called as “Stream extraction” or “get from” operator.

Question 6.
Expand IDE and GNU.
Answer:
IDE stands for Integrated Development Environment and GNU stands for General Public License.

Question 7.
What are the main types of C++ datatypes?
Answer:
In C++, the data types are classified as three main categories

1. Fundamental data types
2. User – defined data types and
3. Derived data types.

Question 8.
Write C++ program to accept any character and display its next character.
Answer:
C++ Program to accept any character and display its next character

The output produced by the program will be
Enter a character: A
The Next character: B

Question 9.
Write C++ program to find the area of circle.
Answer:
C++Program to find the area of circle

Output:
Enter Radius: 6.5
The Area of the circle is 132.665

Question 10.
What is Junk (or) Garbage values?
Answer:
If you declare a variable without any initial value, the memory space allocated to that variable will be occupied with some unknown value. These unknown values are called as “Junk” or “Garbage” values.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the uses of Set precision?
Answer:
setprecision () prints the values from left to right. For the above code, first, it will take 4 digits and then prints one digit from fractional portion. setprecision can also be used to set the number of decimal places to be displayed. In order to do this task, you will have to set an ios flag within setf() manipulator. This may be used in two forms: fixed and (i) fixed (ii) scientific These two forms are used when the keywords fixed or scientific are appropriately used before the setprecision manipulator.

Question 2.
Define – Expression?
Answer:
An expression is a combination of operators, constants and variables arranged as per the rules of C++. It may also include function calls which return values.

Question 3.
What is Automatic conversion and Type promotion?
Answer:
An Implicit type conversion is a conversion performed by the compiler automatically. So, implicit conversion is also called as “Automatic conversion”. This type of conversion is applied usually whenever different data types are intermixed in an expression. If the type of the operands differ, the compiler converts one of them to match with the other, using the rule that the “smaller” type is converted to the “wider” type, which is called as “Type Promotion”.

Question 4.
What is type casting. Write its syntax?
Answer:
C++ allows explicit conversion of variables or expressions from one data type to another specific data type by the programmer. It is called as “type casting”.
Syntax:
(type – name) expression;
Where type – name is a valid C++ data type to which the conversion is to be performed.

Question 5.
What kind of constants are the following?

1. 0X568
2. – 27
3. – 27

Answer:

1. Hexadecimal
2. Decimal
3. Octal

Question 6.
What are the types of C++operators?
Answer:
C++ Operators are classified as:

1. Arithmetic Operators
2. Relational Operators
3. Logical Operators
4. Bitwise Operators
5. Assignment Operators
6. Conditional Operator
7. Other Operators

Question 7.
Convert the following real constants into exponent form:

1. 12.0005
2. 0.00000009
3. 7.9283

Answer:
0 12.0005 = 0.120005 x 10² = 0.120005E2
0.00000009 = 0.9 x 10^-7 = 0.9E-7
7.9283 = 0.79283 x 10¹ = 0.79283E1

Question 8.
If a = 15; what is the result of a<<3 and a >> 2?
If a = 15; equivalent binary value of a is 00001111
Answer:

Question 9.
If b = 15 what is the result of ~b?
If b = 15; equivalent binary value of b is 00001111
Answer:

Question 10.
If a = 65, b = 15, what is the result of a|b?
Equivalent Binary values of 65 = 01000001; 15 = 00001111
Answer:

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain steps involved in creating and execution of C++ program.
Answer:
For creating and executing a C++ program, one must follow four important steps.
1. Creating Source code : Creating includes typing and editing the valid C++ code as per the rules followed by the C++ Compiler.

2. Saving source code with extension .cpp
After typing, the source code should be saved with the extension .cpp

3. Compilation
This is an important step in constructing a program. In compilation, compiler links the library files with the source code and verifies each and every line of code. If any mistake or error is found, it will inform you to make corrections. If there are no errors, it translates the source code into machine readable object file with an extension .obj

4. Execution
Execution is the final step of construction of a C++ Program. In this stage, the object file becomes an executable file with extension .exe. Once the program becomes an executable file, the program has an independent existence. This means, you can run your application without the help of any compiler or IDE.

Question 2.
Explain working with Dev C++.
Answer:
Dev C++ is an open source, cross platform (alpha version available for Linux), full featured Integrated Development Environment (IDE) distributed with the GNU General Public License for programming in C and C++. It is written in Delphi. It can be downloaded from
http://www.bloodshed.net/dev/devcpp.html

After installation Dev C++ icon is available on the desktop. Double click to open IDE. Dev C++ IDE appears.
To create a source file, Select File → New → Source file or Press Ctrl + N.
On the screen that appears, type your C++ program, and save the file by clicking File → Save or Pressing Ctrl + S. It will add .cpp by default at the end of your source code file. No need to type .cpp along with your file name.

After save, Click Execute → Compile and Run or press F11 key.
After successful compilation, output will appear in output console, as follows

Question 3.
Draw memory allocation of a variable and int type variable.
Answer:

Question 4.
Write the C++ program to find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
C++ Program to find the Curved Surface Area of a cylinder (CSA) (CSA = 2 nr * h)
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
int main()
{

float pi = 3.14, radius, height, CSA;
cout << “\n Curved Surface Area of a cylinder”;
cout << “\n Enter Radius (in cm):”; cin >> radius;
cout << “\n Enter Height (in cm):”; cin >> height;
CSA = (2*pi*radius)*height; system (“els”);
cout << “\n Radius:” << radius « “cm”;
cout << “\n Height:” << height« “cm”;
cout << “\n Curved Surface Area of a Cylinder is” << CSA «“sq. cm.”;

}

Output:
Curved Surface Area of a cylinder
Enter Radius (in cm) : 7
Enter Height (in cm) : 20
Radius : 7cm
Height : 20cm
Curved Surface Area of a Cylinder is 879.2 sq. cm.

Question 5.
Write the C++ program to calculate Net salary.
Program to Calculate Net Salary
Answer:
#include
#include using namespace std;
int main()
{

float basic, da, hra, gpf, tax, gross, np; char name[30];
cout << “\n Enter Basic Pay:”; cin >> basic;
cout<< “\n Enter D.A cin >> da;
cout << “\n Enter H.R.A:”; cin >> hra;
gross = basic+da+hra; // sum of basic, da nad hra
gpf = (basic+da) * 0.10; //10% of basic and da
tax = gross * 0.10; //10% of gross pay
np = gross – (gpf+tax); //netpay = earnings – deductions
cout << setw(25) << “Basic Pay:” << setw(10) << basic << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Dearness Allowance:”<< setw(10) << da << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “House Rent Allowance:” << setw(10) << hra << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Gross Pay:” << setw(10) << gross << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “G.P.F:” << setw(10) << gpf << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Income Tax:” << setw(10) << tax << endl;
cout << setw(25) << “Net Pay:” << setw(10) << np << endl;

}
The output will be,
Enter Basic Pay : 12000
Enter D.A : 1250
Enter H.R.A : 1450
Basic Pay : 12000
Dearness Allowance : 1250
House Rent Allowance : 1450
Gross Pay : 14700
G.P.F : 1325
Income Tax : 1470
Net Pay : 11905

Question 6.
If a = 17, b = 24, what is the result of the following?

1. a & b
2. a|b
3. a^b
4. a>>3
5. ~ b

Answer:

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Some examples of clipped words

1.	aeroplane	plane
2.	agriculture	Agri
3.	alchemist	chemist
4.	alumni/alumna	alum
5.	amend	mend
6.	apollinaris	Polly
7.	automobile	auto
8.	beautiful	beauty
9.	biology	bio
10.	botany	bot
11.	brassiere	bra
12.	brother	bro
13.	burst	bust
14.	buttocks	butt
15.	cablegram	cable
16.	cafeteria	cafe
17.	calculus	calc
18.	cellphone	cell
19.	centum	cent
20.	champion	champ
21.	chemistry	chem
22.	chimpanzee	chimp
23.	cleric	clerk
24.	coattails	tails
25/	coca-cola / cocaine	coke
26.	coeducational	coed
27.	comprehensive	comp
28.	condominium	condo
29.	co-operative	co-op
30.	cousin	cous
31.	cucumber	cuke
32.	daddy	dad
33.	daily paper	daily
34.	delicatessen / delicacy	deli
35.	dental / dentistry	dent
36t,	detective	tec
37.	differential	diff
38.	disport	sport
39.	distill	still
40.	doctor	doc
41.	dormitory	dorm
42.	drapery	drape
43.	earthquake	quake
44.	ecology	eco
45.	electronic mail	e-mail
46.	enthusiasm	enthu
47.	examination	exam
48.	fabulous	fab
49.	faggot	fag
50.	fraternity	frat
51.	gabble	gab
52.	gasoline	gas
53.	gentleman	gent
54.	graduate	grad
55.	Gypsy	gyp
56.	hackney	hack
57.	head-shrinker	shrink
58.	hippopotamus	hippo
59.	homosexual	homo
60.	information	info
61.	internet	net
62.	jet aircraft	jet
63.	laboratory	lab
64.	lavatory	lav
65.	limousine	limo
66.	literature	lit
67.	lubricate	lube
68.	luncheon	lunch
69.	mathematics	maths
70.	maximum	max
71.	medical	medic
72.	memorandum	memo
73.	mistress	miss
74.	mobile vulgus	mob
75.	modem	mod
76.	mommy	mom
77.	motorcar	car
78.	moving picture	movie
79.	non-vegetarian	non-veg
80.	oleomargarine	margarine
81.	parachute	chute
82.	parole d’honneur	parole
83.	penitentiary	pen
88.	photograph	photo
89.	pianoforte	piano
90.	popular	pop
91.	president	pres
92.	professional	pro
93.	professor	prof
94.	promenade	prom
95.	psychology	psych
96.	public house	pub
97.	pugnacious	pug
98.	pyjamas	jams / jammies
99.	quadrangle / quadraphonic	quad
100.	raccoon	coon
101.	referee/reference	ref
102.	refrigerator	fridge
103.	representative	rep
104.	revolution / reverend	rev
105.	rhinoceros	rhino
106.	robot	bot
107.	saxophone	sax
108.	schizophrenic	schizo
109.	scramble	scram
110.	squadron	squad
111..	specifications	specs
112.	statistics	stats
113.	sweat suit	sweats
114.	synchronise	sync
115.	teacher	teach
116.	technical	tech
117.	teenager	teen
118.	telephone	phone
119.	television	tele
120.	trigonometry	trig
121.	triumph	trump
122.	trombone	bone
123.	turnpike	pike
124.	tuxedo	tux
125.	tympani	tymps
126.	universal joint	U joint
127.	university	varsity
128.	vegetarian	veg
129.	veteran / veterinarian	vet
130.	website	web
131.	zoological garden	zoo

Unclipped Words

1.	vet	veterinarian
2.	typo	typographical error
3.	taxi	taxicab
4.	sub	submarine
5.	sopho	sophomore
6.	pop music	popular music
7.	mike	microphone
8.	perm	permanent wave
9.	sci-fi	science fiction
10.	car	carriage
11.	mum	chrysanthemum
12.	croc	crocodile
13.	deb	debutante
14.	curio	curiosity
15.	fax	facsimile
16.	iron	flatiron
17.	pant	pantaloon
18.	burger	hamburger
19.	ID	identification
20.	recap	recapitulate
21.	mart	market
22.	gym	gymnasium
23.	mini	minimum
24.	stereo	stereophonic

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Tight Corners Summary Warm Up

Many of us have unused, old but valuable items at home. If we wish to get rid of them, we can sell them at an auction. Items like paintings, jewels, household articles, vehicles, even houses can be auctioned.

The flowchart below will help you understand how an auction is conducted.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Tight Corners Textual Questions

Tight Corner Questions And Answers Question (a)
Describe the activity that was going on in the sale – room at King Street.
Answer:
Christie Auction house was full. The auction house was selling Barbizon pictures and getting tremendous sums for each. Some were sold for two thousand and some for three thousand pounds. It was surprising to observe that all the sold items were little bit of things like forest scenes, pools at evening, shepherdesses and the regular subjects.

Tight Corners Pdf Question (b)
What can you say about the author’s attitude when he high-handedly participated in the auction?
Answer:
The author behaved like a gambler. He risked high banking on serendipity alone. In reality, he should have a minimum balance of 500 pounds in his bank account to be eligible to be a bidder in the auction. But he had only sixty three pounds. He didn’t have rich acquaintances or relatives who could bail him out-of a financial crisis of such a serious nature at a short notice. So, the author’s participation in the auction in a high handed manner demonstrates his audacity combined with absurdity.

Tight Corners Question (c)
Why was the author sure he would not be caught?
Answer:
The author decided to bid safely by just raising the stake a little bit and leave it for real millionaires to go ahead. Thus he was sure that he would not be caught.

Tight Corners Paragraph Question (d)
What made the author ignore his friend’s warning?
Answer:
The author was confident that he couldn’t run any risks by a playful participation in the auction. So, he ignored his friend’s warning.

Tight Corners Lesson Question (e)
How had the author managed the auction without getting involved in the deal?
Answer:
Although many bids ended up in four figures, they were started with a modest price of fifty to hundred guineas only. He ventured till the figures reached.only upto three digits. Thus he managed the auction without getting involved in the deal.

Summary Of The Lesson Tight Corners Question (f)
What came as a shock to the author?
Answer:
Unlike previous lots, one painting’s launch price was four thousand pounds. When, the millionaires were too stunned to react, the author had sheepishly said “and fifty”. The auctioneer clinched the deal in the author’s favour. This was a rude shock to the author because he did not wish to buy any painting.” .

Tight Corners Book Back Answers Question (g)
What did the falling of the hammer indicate?
Answer:
The falling of the hammer indicated “closure of the bid” and it mandated the highest bidder to pay and collect his purchase.

Tight Corners Theme Question (h)
What made the friend laugh heartily?
Answer:
The author’s friend realized that he had got into a pickle and there was no possible escape. Looking.at the crisis from outside made him laugh heartily.

Tight Corners Summary In English Question (i)
What kind of excuses did the narrator think he could make?
Answer:
The author speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to one of Christie ’s staff and request to put up the picture for sale once again.

Tight Corners Summary In Tamil Question (j)
Why did the friend desert the narrator, a second time?
Answer:
The author’s friend was so much tickled by the comedy of the situation that he deserted the author for a second time to have a hearty laugh alone.

Tight Corners Moral Question (k)
How does the narrator describe the man who approached him?
Answer:
The man who approached the author wore a green baize apron and spoke in a husky cockney tones. He had come to find out if he would accept the offer of fifty guineas for his expression of interest for Daubigny.

Question (l)
How does the Narrator show presence of mind in the sudden turn of events?
Answer:
The author should have been grateful for the stranger’s offer to bail him out of potential insolvency. He could have embraced him and even accepted fifty farthings for restoring him from a mental agony. But he asked the mediator if that was the most he could offer. This was . nothing but wordly guile. The man offered to find out saying there was no harm trying for a bit more. The author gave his ultimatum that he would take a hundred. He got a cheque for hundred guineas.

Question (m)
The narrator would not forget two things about his friend. What are they?
Answer:
The author’s friend only persuaded him to go to Christie’s auction. Secondly, he was the only witness to the author ’s mental agony in trying to get out of the crisis.

1. Choose the most appropriate answer for the following questions:

Question (a)
‘Tight Comer’ means a
(i) difficult situation
(ii) crowded comer
(iii) tragic incident
(iv) fierce fight
Answer:
(i) difficult situation

Question (b)
Barbizon refers to a
(i) kind of paint
(ii) type of architecture
(iii) a region in Britain
(iv) a French school of painting
Answer:
(iv) a French school of painting

Question (c)
The narrator visited the sale-room as he
(i) wished to see an auction
(ii) had a painting to sell
(iii) was persuaded by his friend
(iv) wanted to buy a painting
Answer:
(iii) was persuaded by his friend

Question (d)
The narrator had been a safe contributor at the auction, as
(i) there were bidders quoting higher prices
(ii) he had a sound financial background
(iii) his friend had lent him money
(iv) he did not make any bidding
Answer:
(i) there were bidders quoting higher prices

Question (e)
‘And I got it.’ Here‘it’refers to the’
(i) the picture
(ii) the price
(iii) an award
(iv) the card
Answer:
(iv) the card

2. Answer the following questions:

Question (a)
What is a tight corner? What happens when one finds oneself in a tight corner?
Answer:
Tight comer is a difficult situation. When one finds oneself in a tight comer, one worries and thinks seriously about the ways of getting out of it.

Question (b)
What is the difference between a physical and mental tight corner?
Answer:
Physical tight comers are those situations which threaten the lives of an individual. Mental tight comers are worries for which no solution is in sight. It upsets the individuals and confounds them. .

Question (c)
Why did the narrator visit Christie’s?
Answer:
The narrator visited Christie’s to watch the process of auctioning.

Question (d)
The narrator heard his own voice saying, ‘and fifty’. What does this suggest?
Answer:
The narrator heard his voice saying “and fifty”. This suggested that he offered to buy the painting by paying four thousand fifty guineas.

Question (e)
What was the narrator’s financial condition?
Answer:
The narrator had just sixty three pounds in his bank account. The tragic fact was that he did not even have 500 pounds which was the security deposit to be eligible to bid for the paintings.

Question (h)
The narrator could not pretend to have made a mistake in bidding. Why?
Answer:
The narrator had made bids for many paintings. Now he could not confess his poverty. So, he could not pretend tahave made a genuine mistake.

Question (g)
What could have been the best way for the narrator, to get himself out of the tight corner?
Answer:
The author could have confessed his poverty and
requested the auctioned picture to be put up again for “sale” again to get himself freed from the auction.

Question (h)
Why did the narrator feel he could have welcomed a firing party?
Answer:
The author had made many bids in a low margin and got escaped. But he got trapped by saying “and fifty” when a picture was put up for sale with a starting price of 4000 guineas. No one else raised the stake. The auctioner rang the bell and the author realized with alarm how on earth he could ever raise that much money. He thought he could find a firing party to shoot him down. Death is better than public disgrace.

Question (i)
What was the bidder’s offer to the narrator?
Answer:
The bidder offered 50 guineas to the narrator to give up his claim of the painting.

Question (j)
How did the narrator take advantage of the situation?
Answer:
The author asked the mediator of the bidder if that was the most he could offer. The mediator said that there was no harm in asking for a little more. Then the narrator gave his ultimatum that he would take hundred. This showed how guile the narrator was though the stranger was inadvertently rescuing him from a tight comer.

3. Form a meaningful summary of the lesson by rewriting the numbers in the correct sequence:

(a) The narrator had only 63 pounds with him and did not know how to manage the situation. [ ]
(b) The narrator thought of ail his relations from whom he could borrow. [ ]
(c) Unfortunately he had made the highest bid. [ ]
(d) The narrator entered Christie’s as his friend persuaded him to visit the sale room. [ ]
(e) Every time someone else made a higher bid and hence the narrator was not caught. [ ]
(f) The narrator on a sudden impulse added 50 more guineas, to the amount offered. [ ]
(g) His friend joined him then but left immediately unable to control his laughter. [ ]
(h) He even thought of borrowing from money lenders and considered the possibility of confessing the truth to the staff at Christie’s. [ ]
(i) The picture was declared sold to the narrator. [ ]
(j) After sometime a picture was put up and a bid for 4000 guineas was raised. [ ]
(k) A sudden stroke of luck befell the narrator when he heard that the gentleman who had made the bid of 4000 guineas would offer him the additional 50 guineas and buy the picture. [ ]
(l) The narrator kept bidding just for fun. [ ]
(m) The picture was given away to the other bidder and the narrator was saved from humiliation. [ ]
(n) His friend had left the place roaring with laughter at the narrator’s predicament. [ ]
(o) The narrator was too happy at the offer but demanded 100 guineas instead of the 50. Now there was no need for him to make any payment. [ ]

Answer:

1. The narrator entered Christie’s as his friend persuaded him to visit the sale room.
2. The narrator kept bidding just for fun.
3. Every time someone else made a higher bid and hence the narrator was not caught.
4. After sometime a picture was put up and a bid for 4000 guineas was raised.
5. The narrator on a sudden impulse added 50 more guineas, to the amount offered.
6. Unfortunately he had made the highest bid.
7. The picture was declared sold to the narrator.
8. The narrator had only 63 pounds with him and did not know how to manage the situation.
9. The narrator thought of all his relations from whom he could borrow.
10. He even thought of borrowing from moneylenders and considered the possibility of confessing the truth to the staff at Christie’s,
11. His friend had left the place roaring with laughter at the narrator’s predicament. .
12. A sudden stroke of luck befell the narrator when he heard that the gent who had made the bid of 4000 guineas would offer him the additional 50 guineas and buy the picture.
13. The narrator was too happy at the offer but demanded 100 guineas instead of the 50. Now there was no need for him to make any payment.
14. The picture was given away to the other bidder and the narrator was saved from humiliation.
15. His friend joined him then but left immediately unable to control his laughter.

4. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 – 150 words.

Question (a)
Narrate the circumstances that led to the narrator getting into a tight corner, by his own folly.
Answer:
Lucas learnt that an auction was in progress. His friend suggested that they peeped in, to watch the fun. Despite the caution from his friend, he started bidding at moderate rates. He had only 63 pounds in his account. A bidder was supposed to have a minimum of 500 pounds to take part in the bid. As bidding for most of the paintings were started with two or three digits in guineas, the author sailed through raising the stakes of many paintings and staying behind watching millionaires bid with higher prices. But one painting viz big Daubigny was launched at an offer price of 4000 Guineas.

Only one bidder showed interest. The rest were in silence. The author heard himself say “and fifty”. After seconds of uncomfortable silence, the dealer banged the hammer indicating the acceptance of the narrator’s offer of 4050 guineas for the painting. It was only then the narrator realized that he was in a tight comer. He wished a firing squad would be welcomed to eliminate him and put an end to his mental agony. He had no friend or relative or even money lenders who could extend him a loan to raise the money. He had got into a mess of his own choice.

“Auction houses run a rigged game. They know exactly how many people will be bidding on a work and exactly who they are. In a gallery, works of art just needs on to pay. ”

Question (b)
Trace the thoughts that went on in the mind of the narrator when picture after picture was put up and sold at the auction.
Answer:
The author was enthusiastically participating in the bid at Christie with very little money on him. He sailed smooth for a long time raising the stakes on many paintings and carefully staying behind other competitors. It was fun watching till he got trapped in a net, set by his own tongue. When one particular painting was offered for 4000 guineas, the bidders maintained an uncomfortable silence when the author heard himself foolishly saying “and fifty”. The auctioner banged the hammer finalizing the deal in the narrator’s favour.

It was then the narrator realized with alarm that he had no money on him. Suddenly he lost interest in fun bidding. He started thinking fast for a way out of the tight comer he had created for himself. Many small and big paintings were offered and sold out fast. The Barbizon pictures were selling fast like hot cakes for 2000 to 3000 guineas. The author was running over the names of friends, relatives and even money lenders who might bail him out of the tight comer. He even speculated on the possibility of confessing his poverty to the staff of Christie and request them to put up the picture again for sale. Such a genuine mistake could have been rectified at the early stages of auction. As he had enthusiastically participated in the bid for many paintings,

the auctioners wouldn’t buy his justification for the “genuine mistake”. As bidders stood in a queue to hand in their cheques/cash to collect their paintings, the narrator stood deliberately at the end. He never felt such a fool or had colder feet all his life.

“People do not wish to appear foolish; to avoid the appearance of foolishness, they are will to
remain actually fools but wait in patience for the right time

Question (c)
Explain how the narrator got out of the tight corner that he was in.
Answer:
When the author was perplexed beyond measure and was even ready to welcome a firing squad to bail him out of the current crisis, a divine chance presented itself to the narrator. The narrator had stupidly given an open bid to buy “big Daubigny” for 4050 guineas when he had only 63 pounds in his bank account. However hard he tried, he could not recall a name of an “uncle” or a friend who could extend him a loan to cover the price of the painting. To delay disgrace, he was standing at the end of the queue of the successful bidders. Like a providential intervention, a mediator from the starting bidder who was ready to take the same painting for 4000 guineas enquired the narrator in a husky cockney tone if he was the gentleman who had bought, “big Daubigny”.

The narrator admitted it. To the narrator’s great relief, the mediator said the first bidder wanted to know if he would take 50 guineas for his interest. The author should have embraced him and wept for joy for bailing him out of a potential disgrace. But he made the best use of the opportunity exhibiting his guile, by asking him if that was the most he could offer. The mediator said that there was no harm in asking for some more. The narrator said he would take hundred guineas. When the man left to find out the possibility both the author and his friend laughed.

But when the author saw the cheque for hundred guineas, he became serious. He said with joy and shock, “of all the luck! well, I’m hanged”. Thus the narrator had a narrow escape from a tight comer. One could even say that the narrator escaped by the skin of his teeth.

“Call it a narrow escape, maybe it’s your lucky day. ”

Question (d)
As the narrator, make a diary entry about the tight corner you faced at Christie’s and how you were saved from the dire situation.
Answer:
Thursday, 17th Nov. 20xx
I was lunching at a club in King James’s street. While passing along Kingstreet later, my friend suggested that we peeped in at Christie’s where an auction of Barbizon pictures was going on. The prices of the paintings were pertaining to forest scenes, pools at evening, shepherdesses, and the regular subjects were tremendous for each ranging from two to three thousand guineas each. The remarkable thing was that nothing was sold at three figures. After watching the auction for fun for a while I found myself bidding.

I had exactly sixty three pounds in my account in the bank. I knew that any bidder must have a minimum of five hundred pounds in the bank to stand as security to bid for the artistic works. I enthusiastically participated in many bids as the starting price for each paining was a modest fifty to hundred guineas. Things went on well for me for quite sometime. But a cruel fate awaited me. A short red-faced man electrified the room by fixing the starting price at 4000 guineas. There was a rustle of excitement followed by terrible silence. But I found myself saying “and fifty”. The dealer looked at the opener and at the company. To my surprise and horror, the dealer shot his bolt.

My heart stopped and my blood congealed. I was in possession of the picture I did not want to buy. I was the top purchaser in the auction with just 63 pounds in the bank account. I turned to my friend for some moral support but he had deserted me to have a hearty laugh at a distance. With great alarm, I saw many other Barbizon pictures being put up and sold. The auction came to an end. The bidders stood in a queue to pay the price and collect the pictures. I stayed behind at the end of the queue as I could not recall the name of any uncle, aunt or even a relative who could offer me 4050 guineas to buy the painting. I wished that a firing squad could give me a welcome relief by shooting me down. I preferred death to public disgrace. But something divine turned my tragedy into a comedy.

Just then one gentleman enquired if I was the gentlemen who bought “big Daubigny”. I admitted. The mediator asked if 1 could take 50 guineas for my interest and give up my claim. I would have hugged him and wept for joy of relief from the tight comer. But I had the guile/presence of mind to ask, “Is that the most he would offer?” The mediator said that there was no harm in trying for a bit more. I said, “Tell him I will take hundred” myself and my friend started laughing. But when I saw the cheque for hundred guineas, I became grave, My friend said to me that it was he who brought me to Christie. I admitted, “I shall never forget it. It is indelibly branded in letters of fire on my heart”

Additional Questions

Question (e)
Describe the activity that was going on in the sale-room at King street. What can you say about the author’s attitude when he high handedly participated in the auction?
Answer:
The sale-room at Christie’s was full. Billionaire’s and millionaires who wished to showcase their taste in art had assembled there. The dealer was offering Barbizon pictures on sale. The paintings had mainly forest scenes, pools at evening, shepherdesses and the regular subjects. But each of the little paintings was sold at tremendous prices ranging from two to three thousand guineas. Nothing was sold at three digits. The narrator had just 63 pounds in his bank. The auctioneer had made it mandatory that each bidder should have a minimum of 500 pounds in the bank to stand as security for the bid.

Being aware of this condition, the narrator’s friend cautioned him against participating in the auction for fun. But the narrator ignored his friend’s caution and started bidding for many paintings. He promised his friend that he was not going to run any risk. As most of the paintings were offered with the initial modest price of either 50 or 100 guineas, he carefully hiked the price a little and derived great pleasure in the hot bidding that ensued among millionaires. His over confidence and high handed participation did land him in trouble.

“Life is not a competition. Each one is on their own journey. Live according to your choices,capacity, values and principles. ”

Vocabulary

(i) Auction House Puzzler
You have come across many terms associated with auction, in the lesson. Now solve the crossword puzzle with words from the lesson. Make use of the clues given

Across
1. conducts
2. a protective garment
3. strip with numbers
4. offer

1. painter
2. school of painting
3. auction houses
4. painting Answers

Answers:

Across
1. Auctioneer
2. Apron
3. Card
4. Bid

Down
1. Daubigny
2. Barbizon
3. Christie
4. Art

A. Here are some more idioms taken from the lesson. Find out their meanings and use them in sentences of your own.

Question 1.
Tight corners – difficult situations.
Answer:
Those who act on impulse find themselves in tight comers.

Question 2.
Shoot one’s bolt – exhaust one’s effort
Answer:
Mithali Raj had shot her bolt and made 54 runs to help India win the World Cup Cricket title.

Question 3.
In a nice pickle – in a mess
Answer:
Boney Kapoor is in a nice pickle unable to explain Sridevi’s sudden death to media personal and to film Industry friends.

Question 4.
Have a cold feet – be frightened
The hotel staff had a cold feet when Dubai police enquired him about Sridevi’s death.

B. Match the following idioms related to difficult situations with their meanings.

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (e)
5. (a)

C. We use a variety of idioms in our daily life to describe various situations. Describethe narrator’s situation in your own words, making use of some of the new idiomsyou have just learnt.

Question 1.
Saved by the bell – saved from being counted out by the ringing of bell at the end of a round of boxing.
Answer:
The batsman was tired and was saved by the bell otherwise he would have lost his wicket.

Question 2.
Hang out to dry – leave some one in a difficult situation.
Answer:
When Lucas was in dire straits after bidding the highest price, he found that his friend had hung him out to dry. ‘

Question 3.
Grasp/clutch at straw’s try any method to overcome a crisis.
Answer:
The man who got suspended from his job like a drowning man clutching at straw, sought the advice of his door peon to come out of the crisis.

Question 4.
Back to the wall – in a serious difficulty.
Answer:
The narrator had little money to buy the painting and was back to the wall.

Question 5.
Alarm bells ringing – sign of something going wrong.
Answer:
Seeing the policeman round the comer, the chain snatcher heard alarm bells ringing in his head.

Question 6.
Run the risk – exposure to injury or loss
Answer:
If you tell her the truth, you may run the risk of hurting.

Question 7.
Escape by the skin of one’s teeth – have a narrow escape
Answer:
Lucas escaped by the skin of his teeth when a gentleman offered him 100 guineas to buy the painting for which he had made the highest bid.

Question 8.
At one’s wit’s end – desperate
Answer:
I am unable to send a mail due to poor connectivity all day long. I am at my wit’s end.

Question 9.
Catch 22 situation – a situation in which it’s impossible to succeed because of conflicting conditions or rules.
Answer:
Getting one’s first job is a catch-22 because companies want to hire experienced candidates. But how could one get experience before being hired?

Question 10.
Dodge a bullet – barely escaped from a disastrous situation
Answer:
Jaswanth’s girl friend told the press that she was glad she broke up with him. She had infact dodged a bullet.

Question 11.
In dire straits – in a serious, bad situation
Answer:
Sunitha’s husband abandoned her. She is really in dire straits as she had stupidly resigned her job soon after marriage.

Question 12.
You’ve got your work cut out for you – you have a large and difficult job to perform
Answer:
If you wish to complete a degree course in a single sitting, you’ve got your work cut out for you.

Question 13.
Last resort – last option
Answer:
Politics is the last resort of the scoundrels.

Question 14.
The tip of the iceberg – the biggest part of the problem is hidden
Answer:
Common men are apprehensive that Nirav Modi’s scam and Rotomac pen owner’s scam which are just a tip of the ice berg. Many scams may still be untraced or untraceable.

Question 15.
Vicious cycle – chain like issues
Answer:
Poverty causes a vicious cycle as it prevents education and thus it perpetuates poverty.

Question 16.
To be in double bind – to choose between two unsatisfactory alternatives
Answer:
Kamala was in a double bind as she had to choose a low paying job or an early marriage with a rogue neither of which she liked.

Phrasal Verbs

(iii) Use the following phrasal verbs in sentences of your own. The first one has been done for you: stand

(i) up – Your statement will not stand up as proof in the court of law.
(ii) for – My father always stands for truth and honesty.
(iii) by – Come what may, I will stand by you.

Question 1.
look
(i) into : __________
(ii) at : __________
(iii) through : __________
Answer:
(i) The principal promised to look into his application.
(ii) She was looking at the painting for a long time.
(iii) Don’t look through your poor relatives.

Question 2.
run
(i) over : __________
(ii) away : __________
(iii) into : __________
Answer:
(i) The tortoise was run over by a speeding lorry.
(ii) The run away slave was caught
(iii) She’ advised her son not to fall into bad company.

Question 3.
put
(i) on : __________
(ii) up : __________
(iii) off : __________
Answer:
(i) Do not put on airs
(ii) She had to put up with her rude husband.
(iii) The match was put off due to rains.

Additional Questions

Question 1.

Question (a)
back down – with draw one’s position in a fight
Answer:
It’s too late to backed down now.

Question (b)
back up – help or support
Answer:
You can back up the contacts stored on your device or SIM card.

Question (c)
back off – retreat / withdraw
Answer:
He refused to back off from his earlier statement.

Question 2.
(a) Ask for – demand/request for something
Answer:
Oliver should ask for a hike in salary.

Question (b)
Ask after – enquire some one’s health
Answer:
Did she ask after me in her letter?

Question (c)
Ask out – invite some one to begin a relationship
Answer:
I heard Murugesh ask out Sonia.

Question 3.

Question (a)
Blow up – destroy something
Answer:
They used 10 tonnes of dynamite to blow up the rock.

Question (b)
Blow out – extinguish
Answer:
Blow out the candles before they bum out.

Question (c)
Blow off – decide not do what is expected of someone
Answer:
Moorthy bunked the classes when the last exam was scheduled. He deliberately blew it off.

Question 4.

Question (a)
break down – divide something in small units
Answer:
It is easier to leam a big lesson if you break it down into many small segments. [OR] The car broke down on the way to Chennai.

Question (b)
break into – to get into a building stealthily by force
Answer:
Generally, the burglars break into a bank and rob in the nights.

Question (c)
break off – suddenly stop speaking .
Answer:
Nayanthara, while sharing her grief over, the death of Sridevi, had to break off in the middle of her speech.

Question (d)
break out – some unpleasant beginning
Answer:
The civil war broke out in China.

Question (e)
break through – force one’s way through barriers
Answer:
The protesters will break through the barriers and storm into the office.

Question (f)
break up – to get separated
Answer:
Money problem often result in a marital break up.

Question 5.

Question (a)
bring over – bring someone to a place
Answer:
I should bring over Mala for dinner.

Question (b)
bring up – raise some one.
Answer:
The aged couple will bring up the children with values.

Question (c)
bring back – to return something
Answer:
He asked Ramesh to bring back his pony.

Question 6.

Question (a)
burn down – destroy something with fire
Answer:
Hate not only bums down buildings but also the relationship between countries.

Question (b)
burn out – nothing left to bum
Answer:
As she did not get her promotion for long, she became a bum out.

Question (c)
burn up – destroy with fire .
Answer:
The lab burnt up and got reduced to ashes due to the negligence of the watchman.

Question 7.

Question (a)
call in – request some one to help
Answer:
Dr. Amar was called in to revive the dying lady.

Question (b)
call off – cancel a planned programme
Answer:
The strike was called off as the boss agreed to most of their demands.

Question (c)
call up – chosen to be a part of military service
Answer:
Young ones waste away their adult life jobless as they are not called up in military.

Question 8.

Question (a)
carry away – do something out of the ordinary due to strong feelings
Answer:
She was carried away by his flattery and regretted her decision to marry him.

Question (b)
carry on – continue to do something
Answer:
You must carry on your work

Question (c)
carry out – do
Answer:
The workers carried out their duties without grumbling.

Question 9.

Question (a)
come about – when something occurs
Answer:
Ram was happy to see that things came about as expected.

Question (b)
come across – meet
Answer:
I came across a strange bird in the jungle.

Question (c)
come down – move from higher to lower position
Answer:
He came down because of his arrogance.

Question (d)
come down with – experience symptoms of illness
Answer:
Chitra came down with flu

Question 10.

Question (a)
cut back – spendless
Answer:
If young ones don’t learn to cutback their expenses now, they will regret later.

Question (b)
cut down – reduced expense
Answer:
Mother cut down domestic expenses to support her child’s education.

Question (c)
cut off – completely remove
Answer:
The village was cut off from electricity and water due to Tsunami

Question 11.

Question (a)
drop in – visit
Answer:
I dropped into Hari’s home last evening.

Question (b)
drop off – decline
Answer:
The price of gold has dropped off a little

Question (c)
dropout – quit school
Answer:
She dropped out of school for her teacher was very rude.

Question 12.

Question (a)
fall for – get attracted to
Answer:
He fell for her beauty.

Question (b)
fall behind – move slower
Answer:
Ram has fallen behind others in studies because he stayed away for a month.

Question (c)
face through – collapse of a plan
Answer:
The project of converting sea water into drinking water fell through as the money got
diverted to freebies.

Question 13.

Question (a)
Get over – move past an obstacle
Answer:
You must learn to get over small problems to achieve great things in life.

Question (b)
get behind – progress slowly
Answer:
The minister’s car got behind due to a traffic jam.

Question (c)
get through – pass
Answer:
Priya will get through NEET because she is preparing smartly for it.

Question 14.

Question (a)
give away – distribute freely .
Answer:
Give away your surplus wealth to poor relatives.

Question (b)
give in – surrender
Answer:
The terrorists gavein when they could not fight Indian jawans any more.

Question (c)
give up – stop doing something
Answer:
Never give up hope.

Question 15.

Question (a)
go through – read
Answer:
I went through the book “Three cups of tea”.

Question (b)
go up – extend to a higher level
Answer:
The price of rice, is going up everyday but the farmers are starving.

Question (c)
go over – visit a place
Answer:
I went over Agra last week with my school teacher.

listening Activity

(A) Listen to the announcement made by your teacher and answer the questions that follow.

(For listening to the passage refer to our website www.fullcircleeducation.iri)
The Department of School Education has organized a one-day seminar on ‘Career Guidance and Counselling’ for the students appearing for the oncoming Public Examination. The programme is scheduled at 3 p.m. today, at Dr. A P J Abdul Kalam Auditorium, in our School campus. You are to assemble at the venue at 2.45 p.m. sharp, with a notebook and a pen. The main purpose of the programme is to create awareness among students on the numerous career options available and the various institutions that offer relevant courses.

The other objective is to boost their self-confidence and prepare them to face the challenges they encounter from time to time with courage. You are expected to be attentive throughout the programme, actively participate in discussions and get all your doubts clarified without any hesitation. The second session will be conducted in the first week of next month. Those who are interested in attending the next session can register your names with the School Pupil Leader within two days.

Complete the following sentences based on your listening.

1. The programme is organized by the Department of ______
2. The topic of the seminar is ______
3. The programme is to be held at ______ p.m. at .
4. Students are instructed to carry and a to the programme hall.
5. Students who wish to attend the second session should register within
6. The main purpose of the programme is to provide information on options and the that offer relevant courses.

Answer:

1. School Education
2. Career Guidance and Counselling
3. 2.45, Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam Auditorium
4. notebook, pen
5. two days
6. career, institutions

Speaking Activity

Question (a)
Work with a partner: Your friend has lost his books just before the annual examination and he/she is depressed. How will you help him / her? Share it with the class and enact.
Answer:
Vinod, why are you upset?
I have lost my books
In a couple of days, we have the Board examination.
Yes, that is why I am upset.
Don’t worry. I shall mail you the pdf version of the books. You can just open them in your laptop. Read them at your own pace.
Thank you for the excellent idea.
You are most welcome.

Question (b)
You have recently shifted to a new locality. You cannot find your way home. Your uncle spots you and takes you home. Narrate the incident to the class.
Answer:
My dear friends we shifted our home from Gandhi Nagar to Ambedkar Nagar last week. My I mom asked me to buy something in the grocery shop. There was no grocery shop in my street. I just wandered into the third street. After purchasing the items I realized with alarm that It had forgotten the road I had taken to reach the market. When I had wasted half on hour trying to find my way back home. I met my uncle Dr. Sukumar. He took me back home in just five minutes. I can never forget the helplessness I felt last week.

Question (c)
As a friend of the narrator, describe how you would have behaved at the auction.
Answer:
As an author’s friend, I would have dissuaded him from continuing the risk he was taking by idding. I would have reasoned with him that bidding without even the security deposit of 500 pounds in the bank had the potential threat of facing public-disgrace. If I insisted, he would
definitely give up bidding. Friendship is a heavy responsibility. One can’t permit a friend to go towards a tight comer unthinkingly.

Reading

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

The Stationmaster’s supreme sacrifice by Sanchari Pal (Adapted)

1. Thirty-three years ago, on the night of December 2,1984, Bhopal was hit by a catastrophe that had no parallel in the world’s industrial history. An accident at the Union Carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal had released almost 30 tons of a highly toxic gas called methyl isocyanate, turning the city into a vast gas chamber. The result was a nightmare; more than 600,000 people were exposed to the, deadly gas cloud that left thousands dead and many more breathless, blind and in agonizing pain. Few people know that during the Bhopal gas tragedy a heroic stationmaster risked his own life to save others.

2. On the evening of December 3, 1984,Ghulam Dastagir was settling down in his office to
complete some pending paper work. This work kept him in his office till 1 am in the night, when he emerged to check the arrival of the Gorakhpur Mumbai Express. As he stepped on to the platform, the deputy station master felt his eyes bum and a queer itching sensation in his throat. He did not know that poisonous fumes leaking from Union Carbide’s pesticide factory were stealthily enveloping the railway station. .

3. Beginning to choke, Dastagir did not know then, that twenty-three of his railway colleagues, including his boss, station superintendent Harish Dhurve, had already died. It was later reported that Dhurve had heard about the deadly gas and had immediately tried stopping the movement of trains passing through Bhopal before collapsing in his office chamber. His suddenly worsening health and years of experience told Dastagir that something was very wrong.

Though he did not fully comprehend what was happening, he decided to act immediately when he did not get any response from the station master. He alerted the senior staff at nearby stations, like Vidisha and Itarsi, to suspend all train traffic to Bhopal.

4. However, the jam-packed Gorakhpur-Kanpur Express was already standing at the platform . and its departure time was 20 minutes away. Listening to his gut instinct, Dastagir summoned his staff and told them to immediately clear the train for departure. When they asked if they should wait until the order to do so came from the head office, Dastagir replied that he would take complete responsibility for the train’s early departure. He wanted to ensure that the train left immediately,without any delay. His colleagues later recalled that Dastagir could barely stand and breathe as he spoke to them. Breaking all rules and without taking permission from anyone, he and his brave staff personally flagged off the train.

5. But Dastagir’s work was not done. The railway station was filling up with people, desperate to flee the fumes. Some were gasping, others were vomiting,and most were weeping. Dastagir chose to remain on duty, running from one platform to another, attending, helping and consoling victims. He also sent an SOS to all the nearby’railway offices,asking for immediate medical help. As a result, four ambulances with paramedics and railway doctors arrived at the station.

It was winter and the gas was staying low to the ground, a thick haze poisoning everything in its path. Besieged by hordes of suffering people, the station soon resembled the emergency room of a large hospital. Dastagir stayed at the station, steadfastly doing his duty, knowing that his family was out there in the ill-fated city. That day all he had for his protection was a wet handkerchief on his mouth.

6. Ghulatti Dastagir’s devotion to duty saved the lives of hundreds of people. However, the catastrophe didn’t leave him unscathed. One of his sons died on the night of the tragedy and another developed a lifelong skin infection. Dastagir himself spent his last 19 years shuttling n and out of hospitals; he developed a painful growth in the throat due to prolonged exposure to toxic fumes. When he passed away in 2003, his death certificate mentioned that he was suffering from diseases caused as a direct result of exposure to MIC (Methyl Isocyanate) gas.

A memorial has been built at platform No. 1 to pay tribute to those who sacrificed their lives in the line of duty on the fateful night of December 3, 1984. However, Ghulam Dastagir, who died later, is not one of them. A forgotten hero whose sense of duty and commitment saved countless lives, Dastagir’s story deserves to be recognized and remembered by our fellow countrymen.

Question (i)
Why was the accident at Union Carbide unparalleled in the world’s industrial history?
Answer:
The union carbide pesticide plant in Bhopal had released almost 30 tons of a highly toxic gas called methyl isocyanate. It had turned the city into a gas chamber. It left thousands dead. Six lakh persons suffered due to exposure to the toxic gas. So, the Bhopal tragedy was unparalleled in the world’s industrial history.

Question (ii)
How was Dastagir affected by the poisonous gas?
Answer:
One of his sons died. Another developed a life long infection. Ghulam Dastagir himself spent his last 19 years in and out of hospitals. He developed a painful growth in his throat. He was suffering from diseases caused by direct exposure to toxic fumes.

Question (iii)
What was the action taken by the station superintendent?
Answer:
Dastagir alerted senior staff members at the nearby railways station like vidhisha and Itarsi to suspend all train traffic to Bhopal. Against rule he alerted his staff to clear the train immediately for departure. He got medical help. Four ambulances with para medics arrived to attend the suffering people at the station.

Question (iv)
How did Dastagir and his staff break rules?
Answer:
A train can’t be flagged off before its stipulated time without getting permission from top level officers. Dastagir gives orders to release the train
immediately after it reached the station. They flagged off the train even before it stopped. Traffic to Bhopal from other stations was blocked by his timely orders. Thus Dastagir and his staff broke the rules.

Question (v)
What was the cause of Dastagir’s death?
Answer:
Dastagir died after 19 years of suffering of diseases caused by direct result of exposure to MIC (methyl ISO cyanate) gas.

Question (vi)
Find words from the passage which mean the opposite of the following.
(a) safeguard x risk
(b) common x queer
(c) prompt x delay
(d) cause x result

Grammar

(i) Complete the following with appropriate conditional clauses.

(a) We will miss our train, ______
(b) Jayashree would travel to France, ______
(c) People get sun-burnt, ______
(d) Vicky would have passed, ______
(e) I wouldn’t refuse, ______
(f) Sundar would have waited, ______
(g) Vijayshree will be busy, ______
(h) Adhvika will not go to play, ______

Answer:

(a) if we don’t go fast
(b) if she had money
(c) if they move about in hot sunlight
(d) if he had worked hard
(e) if I were you
(f) if he had been informed
(g) if you go to meet her after 10 a.m.
(h) if it rains

Grammar

(i) Complete the following with appropriate conditional clauses.

(a) We will miss our train, _____
(b) Jayashree would travel to France, _____
(c) People get sun-burnt, _____
(d) Vicky would have passed, _____
(e) I wouldn’t refuse, _____
(f) Sundar would have waited, _____
(g) Vijayshree will be busy, _____
(h) Adhvika will not go to play, _____

Answer:

(a) if we don’t go fast
(b) if she had money
(c) if they move about in hot sunlight
(d) if he had worked hard
(e) if I were you
(f) if he had been informed
(g) if you go to meet her after 10 a.m.
(h) if it rains

(ii) Complete the following paragraph.

Did you hear about that boy who won one crore in a game show? If I (1) ________ (win) that much money, I (2) ________ (quit) my job the next day. I ……(3) ________ (travel) round the world and (4) (stay) in the most luxurious hotels. If I (5) (want) anything, I (6) ________ (buy) it. If I (7) ________ (see) a Mercedes that I wanted, I (8) ________ (buy) it. I (9) ________ (can) do anything in the world if I had one crore rupees, I am starting to sound a little materialistic. Well, I (10) ________ (do) good things with the money as well. If anybody (11) ________ (need) help, I (12) (take) care of their needs. I (13) ________ (donate) money to charities. I (14) ________ (give) money to help support the arts. If I (15) ________ (win) that much money, I wouldn’t keep it all for myself. I (16) ________ (help) as many people as possible.
Answers:

1. won
2. would quit
3. will travel
4. stay
5. wanted
6. would buy
7. saw
8. would buy
9. can
10.  will do
11. needs
12. will take
13. will donate
14. will give
15. won
16. will help

(iii) Fill in the blanks in the following dialogue.

Gopal : What’s wrong, Muthu? You look terrible!
Muthu : Well, you (1) ______ (look) terrible today, too, if you (2) ______ (have) a day like mine yesterday. My car slid into a tree, because the roads were slippery.
Gopal : Oh! I was driving on the slippery roads yesterday, and I didn’t have such trouble. What happened?
Muthu : Well, I think if I (3) ______ (drive not) so fast, I . (4) ______ (slide, not) into the tree.
Gopal : Slippery roads and speed don’t mix. If drivers (5) ______ (speed) on wet roads, they’re likely to spin their car in circles.
Muthu : I know. But I have one more problem. I didn’t have my driver’s license with me. If I (6) ______ (have) it, I (7) ______ (have to, not) pay an extra fine in the court next week.
Gopal : Why were you driving without your license?
Muthu : Well, I lost my wallet some days ago. It slipped out of my pocket, while I was riding the bus to work.
Gopal : Oh, Muthu! If you (8) ______ (take, not) that bus, you ,(9) ______ (lose, not) your wallet. If you (10) ______ (lose, not) your wallet, you (11) ______ (have) your driver’s license with you when you hit the tree. If you (12) ______ (have) your. driver’s license with you, you ;(13) ______ (have to pay, not) a big fine when you go to court next week. And of course, if you .(14) ______ (drive, not) too fast, you.(15) ______ (run into, not) a tree, and you (16) ______ (be, not) in this mess now. If I (17) ______ (be) you, I (18) ______ (take) it easy for a while and just .(19) ______ (stay) home where you are safe.
Muthu : Enough about me! How about you?
Gopal : Well, things are really looking up for me. I’m planning to take off for Goa as soon as I finish my finals. I’m sick of all this old, rainy weather we’ve been having.
Muthu : I wish I (20) ______ (go) with you. How are you planning on getting there?
Gopal : If I! (21) ______ (have) enough money, I (22) ______ (fly). Otherwise, I (23) ______ (take) the bus. I wish (24) ______ (drive) my own car because it (25) ______ . (be)
nice to drive there, but it’s such a long trip. I’ve been looking for a friend to go with me and share the driving.
Muthu : I have a super idea! Why don’t I go with you? I can share the driving. I’m a great driver!
Gopal : Oh, Muthu! I can’t believe it.
Answer:

1. would look
2. had
3. had not driven
4. would not have slid
5. speed
6. had
7. would not have had to
8. had not taken the bus
9. would not have lost
10. had not lost
11. you would have had
12. had
13. would not have had to pay
14. had not driven
15. would not have run into
16. would not be
17. were
18. would take
19. stay
20. go/went
21. had
22. would fly
23. would take
24. i could drive
25. would be

A. Seema goes to a hotel for lunch. The waiter explains to her the different items available at that time. Here is the conversation between them. Complete the dialogue. You may use modals to frame questions.

Seema: Could I get something to eat immediately?
Waiter: Yes Ma’am. We have , (1) ______
Seema: (2) ______
Waiter: Yes Ma’am. It is available.
Seema: (3) _______
Waiter: It should not take long (4) _______
Seema: Yes bring that too (5) _______
Waiter: (6) _______
Seema: I prefer it cold, (7) ________
Waiter: Sorry Ma’am we don’t have ice creams served here. But you can get it in the outlet next door.
Seema: Oh that’s fine. Okay, please get these quickly.
Waiter: Sure Ma’am.
Answer:

1. Mini meals
2. Is Veg fried rice available?
3. Can you give it to me quickly?
4. We do have Kushbu Idli too.
5. Do you give ginger oil and spicy chilli powder for Idly?
6. We have filter coffee mam.
7. or else can you give me Gulfi Ice cream?

B. Read the following story and do the exercises that follow.

Last night somebody broke into our neighbour’s house. He stole everything he found. The neighbours, Mr. and Mrs. Umar saw him while he was running away but they couldn’t catch him. This morning an inspector arrived to make an inquiry.

The Inspector posed certain questions to Mr. Umar.
The Inspector: The thief broke into the house at around IQ p.m. What were you doing then?
Mr. Umar: I was watching a movie with my wife. Then I went to the kitchen to prepare tea. .
The Inspector: How many minutes did you spend in the kitchen?
Mr. Umar: I think 10 or 15 minutes… I’m not sure….
The Inspector: Did you prepare only tea?
Mr. Umar: Yes.
The Inspector: Okay. Thanks.

The Inspector also asked Mi’s. Umar some questions:

The Inspector: What were you doing at around 10 p.m. yesterday?
Mrs. Umar: I was watching a movie while drinking my coffee.
The Inspector: Coffee? But your husband has prepared tea.
Mrs. Umar: Tea? No… We didn’t drink tea last night.
The Inspector: Okay. What was he doing in the kitchen?
Mrs. Umar: He was thirsty. He wanted to drink water. ‘
The Inspector: Hmmm. What happened then?
Mrs.Umar: A friend of his called him and he went out to help him.
The Inspector: So, you were alone at home, weren’t you?
Mrs.Umar: Yes, I was. I called him immediately but he didn’t answer.

The inspector was suspicious about Mr.Umar and so he asked him to Come to the station for further questioning.

The Inspector: You weren’t at home when the thief broke into your neighbour’s house. Where were you?
Mr.Umar: I went out to help a friend of mine.
The Inspector: Who is that friend?
Mr.Umar: Ehhhh… he is just a friend. ’
The Inspector: Hmmm. Who is that friend?
Mr.Umar: I told you already. He is just a friend.
If you cannot prove that you were with a friend, we can arrest you.
At the end of the questioning session, Mr.Umar told the inspector the truth.
“Last night, somebody called me, but he wasn’t my friend. I had borrowed some money from him and he had given me time till last night to return it. But I did not do so. So, he called home asking me to meet him outside the house. That’s why I went out. I did not tell my wife as I did not want her to know about it. When I went out, I saw a stranger entering my neighbour’s house but I did not stop as I was in a hurry to meet the moneylender.

Answer the questions after reading the story.

Question 1.
Did Mrs. Umar see the thief?
Answer:
No, Mrs. Umar did not see the thief.

Question 2.
What was Mrs. Umar doing when the thief broke into the house?
Answer:
Mrs. Umar was drinking coffee and watching TV.

Question 3.
Was Mr. Umar watching movie with his wife when the thief broke into the house?
Answer:
No, Mr. Umar had gone out of the house to meet a friend when the thief broke into a neighbour’s house.

Question 4.
What was Mr. Umar doing in the kitchen?
Answer:
He was drinking water in the kitchen.

Frame Questions:

Question 1.
Mr. Umar was at home when the event occurred.
Answer:
Where was Mr. Umar when the event occurred?

Question 2.
Yes, Mr. Umar saw the thief entering the neighbour’s house.
Answer:
Did Mr. Umar see the thief entering the neighbour’s house?

Question 3.
Mrs. Umar was watching the movie while her husband was drinking water.
Answer:
What was Mrs. Umar doing when her husband was drinking water?

Question 4.
The thief broke into the house while they were watching a movie.
Answer:
When did the thief break into the house?

A. Add appropriate question tags to the following sentences.

1. Cities are increasingly becoming urbanised.
2. They experiment with ways to improve air quality.
3. The aim should be to reduce congestion.
4. There is an urgent need to provide clean, reliable and affordable energy to their growing populations.
5. Automation and shared mobility will play a key role in this transformation.
6. It changes the way people commute in cities.
7. Before long, a fleet of electric autonomous vehicles (AVs) could drive people to their destinations.
8. These shared AVs will run at higher utilization rates.
9. They can substantially reduce the cost of mobility and congestion.
10. These should not be thought of as luxury but as necessity. .

Answers :

1. aren’t they?
2. don’t they?
3. shouldn’t it be?
4. isn’t it?
5. won’t they?
6. doesn’t it?
7. couldn’t they?
8. won’t they?
9. can’t they?
10. should they?

B. Add appropriate question tags and role play the dialogue with your friend.

Jeyanth : Hello, Anish! It’s your Physics exam today, isn’t it?
Anish : Yes. They have set a very long paper. Yet, I managed to finish the paper 1 ______
Jeyanth True. My maths paper too was very long. I couldn’t finish it, 2 ______
Anish : I could not solve my paper properly, 3 ______
Jeyanth : Ok. Actually, my question paper was very easy, 4 ______
Anish : Mine wasn’t easy. I made a silly mistake, 5 ______
Jeyanth : Tell me about your English paper, 6 ______
Anish : The story comprehension was very easy. I am sure to score more than ten marks
on fifteen. I wrote it very well. There wouldn’t be any mistake, 7 ______
Jeyanth : For me, my letter- writing was the best. I didn’t make a single mistake, 8 ______
Anish : Ok. I’ve got lots to study for tomorrow’s exam, 9 ______
Jeyanth : Me too. So, see you later. All the best, bye. .
Anish : Thank you. Wish you the same, bye.
Answers:

1. didn’t?
2. could I?
3. could I?
4. wasn’t it?
5. didn’t I?
6. won’t you?
7. will there be?
8. did I?
9. haven’t I?

Writting

A. Read the information in the table below and answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What kinds of natural disasters have occurred before 2005?
Answer:
Earth quake and Tsunami have occured before 2005.

Question 2.
Name the disasters that are common in India.
Answer:
Floods and cyclones are common in India.

Question 3.
Mention the states often affected by disasters.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu and Andhra are often affected by disasters.

Question 4.
List out the disasters that are common in North India.
Answer:
Earth quake, floods and flash floods are common in North India.

Question 5.
Write three sentences on your inference about the data given.
Answer:
Coastal towns in Tamil Nadu, Andhra and Orissa are often plagued with cyclone and floods. Kashmir and Gujarat were affected by earthquake about 15 years ago. Cyclones and floods happen often in the South India in the coastal belt.

(B) Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Percentage of people who speak each language as their first language.

Use expressions such as…
Generally….
A majority….
Most of the….
Some of the….
Minority of….
In conclusion….

Question 1.
Which language is spoken by most people?
Answer:
Mandarin is spoken by most people.

Question 2.
What are the Indian languages that rank among the top five spoken languages?
Answer:
Hindi and Bengali rank among the top five languages spoken in the world.

Question 3.
Which are the languages that are spoken by less than three percent of people?
Answer:
Hindi, Bengali, Portuguese, Russian, Japanese, German and Javanese are the languages spoken by less than 3% people of the world.

Question 4.
With the help of the questions and answers, draw your own conclusions from the pie chart. Then, write a paragraph on the popular.spoken languages.
Answer:
A majority of people in China speak Mandarin. It constitutes 12.44$ of the world population. Spanish is spoken more than English (i.e) 0.2% more people in the world speak Sopanish (i.e) (4.85%). Hindi, Bengali and Portuguese are spoken by a minority of around 2.7% of world population. A minority of just 1.25% of world population speaks Javanese, Russian language is spoken only by a minority of 2.12% people, in the world. As low as 1.8% of people speak Japanese language. Many other languages are little known in the world or spoken by other people in the world for which exact statistics is not available. There are many fast disappearing languages which have no writter script. Along with a language, a culture also disappears.

Write conversations on the following situations.

(i) Between two friends about uses and abuses of mobile phone

A : Mobile phone has made our lives comfortable.
B : How?
A : Well, for any project related queries, I just google. I get a variety of solved projects, I get an opportunity to refer to any information in Science.
B : Well deosn’t it have its abuses too?
A : Of course yes, any technology has its own advantages or disadvantages.
B : Most of the elders are really worried about facebook and what’s app addiction and squandering of time in social websites.
A : I agree with you absolutely. Moderation is necessary in the use of mobile phones,

(ii) Between two friends about planting trees

A : A country without trees has a hopeless future
B : What a strong statement? Who said it?
A : Theodore Roosevelt said it.
B : Can you tell me about living legends who plant trees and protect them?
A : Have you heard of Jamuna Tudu? What has she done? Where is she?
B : She is in Jharkhand. She has fought against timber mafia and saved fifty hectare of forests with the help of women volunteers.
A : How did she achieve such a feat?
B : In 1998, she formed “Vana Suraksha Smitit” (i.e) Forest safety committee.
A : Didn’t she get opposition from villagers and Timber mafia?
B : Yes of course the villagers protested because they needed fire wood. She persuaded them to use small twigs and leave the main tree. The timber mafia looted their home and pelted stones at her husband who was critically wounded.
A : How strong is her committee now?
B : She has created 300 groups of women volunteers who roam the forest with bow and, arrows to protect the trees.

(iii) Between two friends about the importance of reading newspapers

A : Do we need newspapers? We have different sources of news. Even an android phone gives one access different kinds of news.
B : Well, the question is how important is reading of news papers?
A : My contention was that one can read the e.version.
B : Read any version, brother. Newspapers must be read.
A : Why do you advise it so strongly?
B : I advocate reading of newspaper strongly because, most of the students focus only on their Board exam or class tests. If they cultivate the habit of reading newspapers, , their knowledge of the world will expand. In future, they will be in a comfortable position to prepare for any competitive examination including IAS examination.
A : We will tell all our friends about this.
B : That’s nice.

(iv) Between two friends about the uses of the internet

A : Where are you going?
B : To Sakthi Browsing Centre.
A : Why?
B : To browse internet for my school project.
A : Why don’t you visit the district library?
B : Well, the internet section in the library is always crowded.
A : Well, I meant why don’t you refer to books? How is internet useful?
B : Everyday knowledge is being added on. Continuous updation of data is done in internet. I have an easy access to e.profiles and projects of children. Besides, I can select video lectures of eminent personalities. When I feel low, I listen to the inspirational lectures of Suki Sivam and Jayantha Sree Balakrishnan. All subject references are available at a click of a button. Last week, I read prize winning essays on various topics. If you don’t wander into toxic Face book or What’s app, you could always use internet to your own maximum advantage. Through skype, we can talk to people around the world, share ideas and strengthen cultural bondages too.

(v) Between a father and a son on choice of a career

Father : Why don’t you take up B.E Information Technology.
Son ; Dad I am interested in music.
Father : It is good for entertainment. Will it give you a steady income?
Sun : Dad, let me master music. I passionately love people. I may become a good musician.
Father : All can’t become like A.R. Rehman or Ilayara Raja.
Son : Dad, let me be myself.
Father : You are my only son. Will I suggest something bad for you.
Sun : Dad, please suggest the dress in which I will look better. Suggest the food item which would suit me better. But, career option, please leave it to me.
Father : Do you really believe you can shine in the field of music?
Son : Dad, faith is life. Music is just not an entertainment.
Father : OK. It is your life. Go to music college.
Son : Thanks Dad.

(vi) Between you and a bookseller on buying books

Bookseller : What do you want sir?
Boy : I want a dictionary.
Bookseller : Hindi – English, Tamil – English, English -English which brand?
Boy : I want a good dictionary to last till I do my Graduation.
Bookseller : Then please take Oxford Advanced learners dictionary by A.S. Hornby and Daniel Jones.
Boy : How much is it?
Bookseller : After discount it is Rs. 640/
Boy : Take the money sir, thank you.

(vii) Between two friends on the benefits of early rising

A : Why are you late today?
B : Yesterday I had been to movies. I overslept.
A : You must practise early rising.
B : Why?
A : Early to bed and early to rise makes you a healthy person.
B : Tell me why I should get up early?
A : If you get up early, you will be brisk. The morning walk will provide you extra energy, you will bathe in time and be celebrated for being punctual. An early bird catches its prey. Similarly early risers achieve a lot in life.
B : Thank you. I will rise early from tomorrow.

(viii) Between two friends on an exciting cricket match

A : Did you watch T20 cricket between India and Bangladesh last night?
B : No, I slept when the Bangladesh was making inroads into our bowling attack.
A : Bangladesh was chasing 177 runs.
B : Who bowled well?
A : Washington Sundar did a wonderful job. He bowled and took wickets giving minimum runs.
B : Shikar Dhawan and Rohit Sharma did excellently well.
A : Who scored high?
B : Skipper Rohit Sharma scored 89 runs leading the team from the front.
A : Who else did well?
B : Suresh Raina scored 47 and Shikar Dhawans 35. They both contributed handsomely to India’s victory over Bangladesh.
A : We shall see another sensational game soon.
B : Yes.

(ix) Between two friends on the importance of punctuality

Varun : Karun, you are alwasy ahead of us. How?
Kanin : Varun, my dad insists that I must be always punctual.
Varun : Are they going to reward you?
Karun : No, virtue can’t ask for a reward because it is a reward by itself.
Varun : How does punctuality help us?
Karun : Punctuality makes others believe that you value their time.
Varun : What can I do to be punctual?
Karun : It is simple. Have a calendar for your daily activities. Fix time for everything. You will reap the fruits soon.
Vanin : Thank you

(x) Between two friends on a picnic they enjoyed recently

A : Wasn’t our picnic-to Mahabalipuram wonderful?
B : Yes, I enjoyed the stroll on the beach.
A : I liked the monolithic structures. How beautifully they have frozen beauty on stones!
B : The five Rathas reminded me of Pandavas.
A : I like the games we played as a team sitting in a circle.
B : The Anthakshari we played was very interesting.
A : The riddles were also challenging.
B : I liked the Kabaddi game played by our friends on the beach.
A : Infact, I can’t forget the picnic we ha

Tight Corners About the author

Edward Vcrral Lucas (1868-1938) was an English humorist, essayist, play wright. biographer, publisher, poet novelist and short story writer. His contribution to the humorous magazine Punch started in 1904 and lasted till his death.

Tight Corners Summary

In this humorous prose piece, the writer confesses how he was bailed out of a humiliating experience by a sudden stroke of luck and thus got relieved from a tight comer he had foolishly walked into.

The author’s friends quoted incidents such as

1. a man caught by the tide in Brittany and escaped by the skin of his teeth
2. a man was on an elephant when a wounded tiger attacked it
3. a man was on the top storey of a burning house
4. a man was torpedoed in a war. All these incidents talk of physical problems which are claimed to be tight comers. But the author cites from his personal experience an example of a mental tight comer which almost took him to the brink of public disgrace at an auction house at Christie’s.

An auction was in progress at Christie’s. The author and his friend were passing along King Street after having lunch at a club. He persuaded the author to peep into the auction room where Barbizon pictures were on sale. Each picture was sold at two to three thousand pounds.

The author had only sixty-three pounds in the bank. He realized that it was not enough to borrow securities to the tune of five hundred pounds, which is the minimum required deposit to be eligible to bid. Yet, the author found himself bidding just for fun.

The author’s friend cautioned him that he may get caught. But he was overconfident and asserted that he was not going to run any risks. Things moved on well till some well-known dealer put up a picture for a price a little higher than any picture had reached in that auction so far. All the previous bids had been started with the most moderate sum of fifty guineas or a hundred guineas. One particular picture was started with an astounding sum of4000 pounds.

There was an uncomfortable silence in the auction hall. There was a hushed excitement expressing surprise at the sudden hike in the opening bid amount. But foolishly the author had his own voice saying “and fifty”. He expected competitors to hike the price and save him from trouble. But there was a stunned silence. The auctioner after waiting for a few minutes of silence clinched the deal with a hammer saying “four thousand and fifty guineas offered”. The author ’s blood congealed in obvious horror. The auctioner asked for an advance for the bid.

The author, despite the warning of his friend, had foolishly got into a mess. He had to pay four thousand and fifty guineas, the top price of that day. His friend had deserted him to have a hearty laugh.

Not exhibiting the inner turmoil and alarm, the author non-chalantly gave his visiting card. Whoever had bid came and paid for the picture and collected the painting. The author stayed behind at the end of the queue feverishly thinking of the next steps. He was trying to recall uncles and aunts who might lend him the required money. But deep within he realized that his contacts and relatives would not give him money but promises future support. The only open course of action was to confess his poor financial status. But he was scared of the reaction of the auctioning agents, about the credibility he had established by bidding for many ‘prized’ collections. He had created such an impression that anyone would ever treat his behaviour as a “genuine mistake”.

Someone came and politely asked the author if he was the gentleman who had made a bid for big Daubigny. The author confirmed it. He asked the author if he would take fifty guineas from the man who had made a bid for four thousand guineas.

Instead of weeping for joy for getting such an opportunity to be relieved from a predicament or a tight comer with a bonus of fifty guineas, the author asked, “Is that the most he would offer?”. The mediator said that there was no harm in asking for a little bit more. Cashing in on the opportunity the author said, “Tell him I will take a hundred”.

The author and his friend started laughing at the sudden turn of the events like O. Henry twist. But when the author saw the cheque for 100 guineas, he became suddenly serious and said that of all the luck, he was hanged. The author ’s friend reminded him that he would not have been at Christie had it not been for him. The author agreed that it was indelibly written on his heart with letters of fire and promised that he would never forget it.

People who take calculated risks may get away. But those who take high risks usually find themselves in tight comers. The author was lucky but every one may not have similar luck.

Tight Corners Glossary

Textual:
baize – coarse woollen material
bloatocrat – bloated + aristocrat (a term coined by E.V. Lucas to mean a bloated (fat) and wealthy person) y
Brittany – a region in the coast of North – West France
congealed – thickened as if frozen (through fear etc.)
cresendo – progress towards a climax
electrified – shocked by something unexpected
farthing – as low as paise
glibly – smoothly but not sincerely
guile – cunning, deceit
indelible – cannot be rubbed out or removed
nonchalantly – unconcernedly, coolly
note of hand – promissory note,
rectitude – honesty, good behaviour
smothered – suppressed
St. James – Street, King
Street – well-known commercial streets in London

Additional:
auction – a public event of selling things to the highest bidder
cautioned – warned
enough – adequate
excitement – thrill
inquiringly – inquisitively
modestly – moderately
persuaded – induced
purchaser – buyer
remote – isolated
torpedoed – bombed

Tight Corners Synonyms

Choose the most appropriate synonyms for the underlined words.

Question 1.
The talk was running on critical situations.
(a) electrical
(b) extremely ill
(c) serious
(d) ready for chain reaction
Answer:
(c) serious

Question 2.
A wounded tiger charged at it.
(a) complained
(b) attacked
(c) gave power
(d) reported
Answer:
(b) attacked

Question 3.
A fourth was torpedoed in the war.
(a) rescued
(b) bombed
(c) lifted
(d) arrested
Answer:
(b) bombed

Question 4.
He persuaded me to look in at the sale-room.
(a) discouraged
(b) criticised
(c) induced
(d) dissuaded
Answer:
(c) induced

Question 5.
I found myself bidding just for fun.
(a) offering
(b) with drawing
(c) neglecting
(d) accepting
Answer:
(a) offering

Question 6.
And not enough securities to borrow five hundred on
(a) surplus
(b) efficient
(c) adequate
(d) excess
Answer:
(c) adequate

Question 7.
I was nodding away to the auctioneer like a bloated aristocrat.
(a) bloated autocrat
(b) bloatocrat
(c) bloated artist
(d) bloated
Answer:
(b) bloatocrat

Question 8.
A dealer electrified the room by starting the bid with a huge figure.
(a) pleased
(b) shocked
(c) electrocuted
(d) provoked
Answer:
(b) shocked

Question 9.
The previous lots had run into four figures but they had all been modestly started at fifty or a hundred guineas.
(a) immodestly
(b) politely
(c) moderately
(d) exorbitantly
Answer:
(c) moderately

Question 10.
The dealer made his sensational bid.
(a) dull
(b) insipid
(c) exciting
(d) timid
Answer:
(c) exciting

Question 11.
The narrator was contributing safely to the gradual crescendo.
(a) climax
(b) anti-climax
(c) denouement
(d) excitement
Answer:
(a) climax

Question 12.
There was a rustle of excitement.
(a) sensation/thrill
(b) reason
(c) argument
(d) appeasement
Answer:
(a) sensation/thrill

Question 13.
The auctioneer looked inquiringly first at the opener and then at the company.
(a) ignorantly
(b) innocently
(c) inquisitively
(d) incessantly
Answer:
(c) inquisitively

Question 14.
Mv blood congealed arround the cut.
(a) thawed
(b) thickened
(c) boiled
(d) showed down
Answer:
(b) thickened

Question 15.
There was a curious smothered noise from my friend.
(a) expressed
(b) articulated
(c) hidden
(d) suppressed
Answer:
(d) suppressed

Question 16.
That was a nice pickle to be in.
(a) comfort
(b) mess
(c) canteen
(d) cafeterial
Answer:
(b) mess

Question 17.
I had become a purchaser of a picture I didn’t want to own.
(a) seller
(b) auctioneer
(c) buyer
(d) antic-dealer
Answer:
(c) buyer

Question 18.
He had left me not out of baseness as I discovered later.
(a) foundation
(b) meanness
(c) sanctity
(d) holiness
Answer:
(b) meanness

Question 19.
He deserted me to find a remote place to laugh.
(a) nearby
(b) neighbouring
(c) isolated
(d) irritated
Answer:
(c) isolated

Question 20.
The narrator wondered if money lenders who talk so glibly about “note of hand” really mean it.
(a) rudely
(b) sincerely
(c) honestly
(d) insincerely
Answer:
(d) insincerely

Question 21.
He started speculating on the possibility of confessing his poverty.
(a) believing
(b) hypothesize
(c) distrusts
(d) doubting
Answer:
(b) hypothesize

Question 22.
I pulled myself together sufficiently to hand my card nonchalantly.
(a) devotedly
(b) enthusiastically
(c) coolly / unconcernedly
(d) with concern
Answer:
(c) coolly / unconcernedly

Question 23.
The stafflooked prosperous.
(a) poor
(b) dirty
(c) rich
(d) stingly
Answer:
(c) rich

Question 24.
A genuine mistake could have been rectified.
(a) fake
(b) false
(c) real
(d) feigned
Answer:
(c) real

Question 25.
A career of rectitude has rewards.
(a) disloyalty
(b) dishonesty
(c) contentment
(d) honesty
Answer:
(d) honesty

Question 26.
The rewards are beyond the consciousness of virtue.
(a) sin
(b) crime
(c) vice
(d) morality
Answer:
(d) morality

Question 27.
Even among the best of us there is wordly guile.
(a) wisdom
(b) cunningness
(c) virtue
(d) morality
Answer:
(d) morality

Question 28.
He became suddenly grave.
(a) light hearted
(b) humorous
(c) serious
(d) critical
Answer:
(c) serious

Question 29.
It is indelibly branded on letters of fire on my heart.
(a) unforgettable
(b) inerasable
(c) misunderstood
(d) ineligible
Answer:
(b) inerasable

Tight Corners Antonyms

Choose the most appropriate antonyms for the underlined words.

Question 1.
The talk was on critical situations.
(a) important
(b) precious
(c) unimportant / trivial
(d) furious
Answer:
(c) unimportant / trivial

Question 2.
Someone talked as if tight comers were always physical affairs.
(a) fiscal
(b) bodily
(c) concrete
(d) mental
Answer:
(d) mental

Question 3.
He persuaded me to look in at the sale.
(a) led
(b) followed
(c) dissuaded
(d) made
Answer:
(c) dissuaded

Question 4.
Each picture was getting tremendous sums.
(a) poor / meagre
(b) impressive
(c) excellent
(d) huge
Answer:
(a) poor / meagre

Question 5.
I had not enough money for securities.
(a) adequate
(b) sufficient
(c) surplus
(d) limited
Answer:
(c) surplus

Question 6.
The.place was full.
(a) crowded
(b) empty
(c) overflowing
(d) congested
Answer:
(b) empty

Question 7.
I had to borrow five hundred pounds.
(a) receive.
(b) raise
(c) lend
(d) land
Answer:
(c) lend

Question 8.
Then I found myself.
(a) gained
(b) discovered
(c) established
(d) lost
Answer:
(d) lost

Question 9.
I had often been safely contributing to the hike in auction.
(a) calmly
(b) harmlessly
(c) innocently
(d) dangerously
Answer:
(d) dangerously

Question 10.
The dealer made his sensational bid.
(a) exciting
(b) remarkable
(c) extraordinary
(d) ordinary
Answer:
(d) ordinary

Question 11.
The auctioneer built up the crescendo gradually.
(a) climax
(b) bottom
(c) peak
(d) zenith
Answer:
(b) bottom

Question 12.
There was a rustle of excitement.
(a) sensation
(b) calmness
(c) fun
(d) activity
Answer:
(b) calmness

Question 13.
To my horror, the red faced dealer gave no sign of life. .
(a) antipathy
(b) hate
(c) dread
(d) delight
Answer:
(d) delight

Question 14.
Four thousand and fifty guineas offered.
(a) presented
(b) withdrew
(c) provided
(d) tendered
Answer:
(b) withdrew

Question 15.
There was no sound but a curious smothered noise from my friend.
(a) suffocated
(b) stifled
(c) expressed
(d) suppressed
Answer:
(c) expressed

Question 16.
I was the purchaser of a picture.
(a) consumer
(b) client
(c) seller
(d) bidder
Answer:
(c) seller

Question 17.
My blood congealed.
(a) froze
(b) solidified
(c) thickened
(d) thinned
Answer:
(d) thinned

Question 18.
My friend had left me not because of baseness.
(a) depravity
(b) mobility
(c) vileness
(d) wickdenss
Answer:
(b) mobility

Question 19.
He had left to find a remote place to laugh.
(a) distant
(b) aloof
(c) isolated
(d) nearby
Answer:
(d) nearby

Question 20.
I was stunned and dazed.
(a) astounded
(b) astonised
(c) amazed
(d) cool hedede
Answer:
(d) cool hedede

Question 21.
I handed in my card non-chalantlv.
(a) indifferently
(b) eagerly/mindfull
(c) coolly
(d) careless
Answer:
(b) eagerly/mindfull

Question 22.
I set to pondering oil the problem.
(a) ignoring
(b) reflecting
(c) consider
(d) contemplating
Answer:
(a) ignoring

Question 23.
They talk so glibly.
(a) smoothly
(b) effortlessly
(c) dismissively
(d) rudely
Answer:
(d) rudely

Question 24.
A career of rectitude has its rewards.
(a) honesty
(b) good behaviour
(c) depravity
(d) uprightness
Answer:
(c) depravity

Question 25.
The rewards are beyond the mere consciousness of virtue.
(a) nobility
(b) dignity
(c) morality
(d) vice
Answer:
(d) vice

Question 26.
I admitted it.
(a) confessed
(b) acknowledged
(c) denied
(d) accepted
Answer:
(c) denied

Question 27.
The staff looked prosperous
(a) affluent
(b) rich
(c) proud
(d) poor
Answer:
(d) poor

Question 28.
A genuine mistake could have been rectified.
(a) Teal
(b) sincere
(c) loyal
(d) false
Answer:
(d) false

Question 29.
Will you take fifty guineas for your bid?
(a) order
(b) offer
(c) tender
(d) rejection
Answer:
(d) rejection

Question 30.
In the best of us, there is worldly guile.
(a) artistic
(b) clever
(c) cunning
(d) honesty
Answer:
(d) honesty

Question 31.
He became grave.
(a) cheerful
(b) serious
(c) severe
(d) solemn
Answer:
(c) severe

Question 32.
It is indelibly branded in letters of fire on my heart.
(a) permanently
(b) unerasably
(c) erasable
(d) fixed
Answer:
(c) erasable

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Prose Chapter 4 Tight Corners Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 The Universal And Solar System

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universal And Solar System Textual Evaluation

A. Fill in the blank

1. The Universe was formed after _______ explosion.
2. _______ is the unit used to measure the distance between two celestial bodies.
3. _______ is the centre of the solar system.
4. The word planet means _______
5. _______ planet has many natural satellites.
6. India’s first ever mission to the moon is _______
7. Earth is inclined by _______ degrees.
8. The Equator faces the Sun directly _______ on and _______
9. the time of Perihelion, the Earth is _______ to the sun
10. The line which divides day and night on the Earth’s surface is _______

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Light year
3. Sun
4. Wanderer
5. Jupiter
6. Chandrayaan – I
7. 231/2
8. 21st March and 23rd September
9. Closest
10. Terminator Line

B. Choose the bent answer

The Universe And Solar System 6th Standard Question 1.
The movement of the Earth on its axis is called
(a) Revolution
(b) Seasons
(c) Rotation
(d) Circulation
Answer:
(c) Rotation

The Universe And Solar System Book Back Answers Question 2.
The Tropic of Capricorn faces the Sun directly on _______
(a) March 21
(b) June 21
(c) September 23
(d) December 22
Answer:
(d) December 22

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Geography Book Question 3.
The galaxy in which our solar system is found is
(a) Andromeda
(b) Magellanic clouds
(c) Milky Way
(d) Starburst
Answer:
(c) Milky Way

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 4.
The only celestial body where man has successfully landed _______
(a) Mars
(b) Moon
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(b) Moon

The Universe 6th Standard Question 5.
Which of the following planets can float on water?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Saturn
(c) Uranus
(d) Neptune
Answer:
(b) Saturn

C. Circle the odd one out

1. Venus, Jupiter, Neptune,
2. Saturn Sirius, Andromeda, Milky way, Magellanic clouds
3. Pluto, Eris, Ceres, Io
4. Comet, Asteroids, Meteorites, Dwarf planets
5. Rover, Orbiter, Aeroplane, Space shuttle

Answer:

1. Venus
2. Sirius
3. Io
4. Dwarf planets
5. Aeroptane

D. Match the following

1. Hottest Planet – a. Mars
2. Ringed Planet – b. Neptune
3. Red Planet – c. Venus
4. Somersaulting Planet – d. Saturn
5. Coldest Planet – e. Uranus

Answer:

1. – c
2. – d
3. – a
4. – e
5. – b

(I) Consider the following statement

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 1.

1. Venus rotates from east to west.
2. The Tropic of Cancer faces the Sun on June 21.
3. Mars has rings around it.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1 and 2
(c) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 2

(II) Consider the following statements.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Question 1.
Statement Is Earth is called a watery planet,
Statement II: The rotation of the Earth causes seasons.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(a) I is true; II is wrong

F. Name the following

1. Cluster of stars. – Galaxy
2. The nearest galaxy to the solar system. – Magellanic clouds/Andromeda
3. The brightest planet. – Venus
4. The living sphere – Earth
5. The year which has 366 days. – Leap year

G. Answer in brief.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Social Science Question 1.
Name the inner planets.
Answer:
The inner planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 2.
Pluto is no longer a planet. Reason out.
Answer:
Unlike planets Pluto share its orbit with other planets.

Question 3.
What is perihelion?
Answer:
Perihelion is the Earth’s closest position to the Sun.

Question 4.
How many times in a year would you find the Sun overhead if you lived on 20°N Latitude?
Answer:
2 times.

Question 5.
Which celestial body shares its orbit with others? Give an example,
Answer:

1. The dwarf planets share their orbits with others.
2. The five dwarf planets of the solar system are Pluto, Ceres, Eris, Makemake and Haumea.

H. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Why is Uranus called the somersaulting planet?
Answer:
The axis of Uranus is tilted so much that, it appears to orbit the sun on its sides like a rolling ball. So uranus called the somersaulting planet.

Question 2.
The surface of the moon has many craters.
Answer:
The craters are formed due to the meteorites which fall on the moon’s surface.

Question 3.
The velocity of Earth’s rotation is zero at poles,
Answer:

1. The Earth is a sphere.
2. It is widest at the equator, becoming increasingly narrow further toward to top and bottom.
3. The velocity of earth’s rotation varies from 1670 km/hr at equator and to 845 km/ hr at 60°N and S and zero at the poles.

I. Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between inner and outer planets,
Answer:

Inner or Terrestrial Planets

1. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars.
2. They are comparatively smaller in size.
3. They are composed of rocks. The surface of the inner planets has mountains, volcanoes and craters.
4. None of the inner planets have rings orbiting them

Outer Planets or Jovian Planets , or Gaseous Giants

1. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
2. They are huge in size.
3. Most of them are made of gas.
4. All of the outer plants have rings orbiting them.

Question 2.
What are the effects of rotation and revolution?
Answer:
Rotation:

• The rotation of the earth causes day and night.
• As the earth is spherical in shape, only one half of it is illuminated by the sun at a time. The other half remains dark.
• The illuminated portion of the earth experiences day and the other part of the earth experiences night.

Revolution:

• The movement of the earth around the sun is called revolution.
• The revolution of the earth causes seasons.
• The revolution of the earth gives the impression that the sun is moving north and south of the equator.
• The equator faces the Sun directly on March 21 and September 23.
• During these two days the day and night are equal throughout the earth. These two days are called Equinoxes.
• On June 21, the Tropic of Cancer faces the sun. This is known as summer solstice. It is the longest day in the
• Northern Hemisphere and longest night in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 3.
Explain the characteristic! of the various spheres of the Earth.
Answer:
Earth is the most suitable planet to support life. It has three major components that we call as the realms of the Earth lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

(i) Lithosphere : The word lithosphere is derived from the Greek word Lithos, which means rocky. The Lithosphere is the land on which we live.

(ii) Hydrosphere : The word Hydro means water in Greek. The hydrosphere consists of water bodies such as oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, ice caps on mountains and water vapour in the atmosphere.

(iii) Atmosphere : The word Atmo means air in Greek. Atmosphere is the envelope of air that surrounds the Earth. Different types of gases make up the atmosphere. The major gases are Nitrogen (78%) and Oxygen (21%).

(iv) Biosphere : The narrow belt of interaction among the lithosphere, the hydrosphere and the atmosphere, where life exists is known as Biosphere. Bio means life in Greek. It consists of distinct zones.

J. Picture Study,

Question 1.

Study the picture and answer the given questions,
a. Which is the closest planet to the Sun?
b. Which is the largest planet?
c. Which is the farthest planet from the Sun?
d. Which is the second smallest planet?
Answer:
a. Mercury
b, Jupiter
c, Neptune
d. Mars

Question 2.
Look at the picture and answer the questions given below,

(a) Identify the planet
Answer:
Uranus

(b) What is the colour of the planet?
Answer:
Green

(c) Why is it of this colour?
Answer:
It appears green due to the presence of methane

Student Activity

K. Solve the Puzzle Across

2. A dwarf planet.
3. Equal days and nights.
7. I am a gas found in the Sun.
8. I appear once in 76 years.

Down

1. I am the morning star.
2. India’s first moon mission.
3. I have two natural satellites.
4. I am the farthest planet.
5. An imaginary line passing through
6. the centre of the Earth.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universal And Solar System In-Text Question

HOTS:
Question 1.
Even though Mercury Is the nearest planet to the Sun, Venus Is the hottest one, Guess why?
Answer:

1. Venus is the hottest planet even though Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun.
2. The reason that Venus is hotter than Mercury is because it has an atmosphere made of Carbon dioxide.
3. It also has clouds of acid inside its atmosphere.
4. This is called Green House effect.

Question 2.
If you could put Saturn In a large enough ocean It would float. Guess why?
Answer:

1. Being less dense than water means that it would float on an ocean big enough to contain it.
2. Saturn is the only planet in the Solar System that is less dense than water.
3. Since Saturn is lighter that water, it can float on water.

Question 3.
Imagine you were on a space craft travelling at the speed of light from Earth, how long would It take to reach the Sun?
Answer:

1. Sunlight travels at the speed of light.
2. Photons emitted from the surface of the Sun need to travel across the vacuum of space to reach our eyes.
3. It takes sunlight to an average time of 8 minutes and 20 seconds to travel from the Sun to Earth.

Question 4.
We see only one side of the Moon always. Why?
Answer:

1. We can see only one side of the moon.
2. It is because the moon revolves around the Earth at the exact same speed as it rotates around its own axis.
3. So that the same side of the moon is constantly facing the surface of the Earth.
4. It takes 27 days and 8 hours for its one rotation.
5. If the moon did not rotate at all, we would see all of its sides.

Question 5.
Priya Is 12 years old. How many limes she would have revolved around the Sun?
Answer:

1. It takes the earth 365 1/4 days to complete one orbit around the sun.
2. It is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.
3. priya is 12 years old. She would have revolved around the Sun 12 times.

Question 6.
If the Earth is not Inclined at 231/2° angle, what would happen to the Earth ?
Answer:

1. If the Earth weren’t tilted on its axis, there would be no seasons and humanity would suffer.
2. An Earth without a tilt would get colder as you move away from the equator.
3. Humans would never survive the continuous winter of the high latitudes.
4. Fortunately, as things are, Earth ‘s tropical zones tend to have minimal temperature, day- length variability over the course of the year.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Universal And Solar System In-Text Question

Question 1.
Watch a show In the nearest planetarium,
(a) Share your experience In the class room,
(b) Make an album of Interesting facts about the Solar System.
(c) In the Solar System
Answer:

1. The hottest planet is not closest of the Sun.
2. The dwarf planet Pluto is smaller in diameter than the United States of America.
3. The edge of the Solar System is 1000 times farther away than Pluto.
4. Jupiter has the biggest Ocean of any planet.

Solar system profile:

Question 2.
Circle the leap years? 2000,2005, 2012,2014,2017, and 2020
Answer:
2000,2012,2020

A. Fill In the blanks :

1. Universe is also referred to as the _______
2. The study of the Universe is called _______
3. The sound travels at a speed of _______
4. In a galaxy, a huge cluster of stars are held by _______
5. The nearest galaxy to the Earth is _______
6. The Roman word ‘sol’ means _______
7. The Sun is made up of extremely hot gases like _______and _______
8. There are _______ planets in the solar system.
9. The curved path in which the planets move around the Sun is known as _______
10. The four planets nearer to the Sun are called _______ Planets
11. Outer Planets are also called _______
12. The smallest planet is _______
13. The planet _______ is called Earth’s twin.
14. The living planet is _______
15. The distance between the Sun and the Earth is about _______
16. The _______ is named after the Roman God of war.
17. ISRO has now become the _______ space agency to reach
18. The fastest spinning planet in the solar system is _______
19. Saturn has _______ natural satellites around it.
20. The specific gravity of Saturn is _______
21. The astronomer William Herschel discovered _______ in 1781
22. The Planet _______ has striking blue and white features
23. The _______ planets are extremely cold and dark.
24. The Earth’s satellite is _______
25. Asteroids are _______ the Planets.
26. The celestial object made up of a head and a tail is called a _______
27. Shooting stars are nothing but _______
28. The earth is _______ in shape
29. The earth is _______ on its axis.
30. The rotation of the Earth _______ causes _______
31. In a leap year, there are _______ days in the month of February.
32. When day and night are equal throughout the Earth, it is known as _______
33. farthest position ofthe Earth from the Sun is known as ________
34. Summer Solstice is the longest day in _______ Hemisphere
35. The longest day in _______Hemisphere is called as Winter Solstice
36. The Greek word ‘Lithos’ means _______
37. The Greek word ‘hydro’ means _______
38. The _______ is made up of different types of gases.
39. In Biosphere, there are zones called _______
40. Our solar system is a part of the _______ Galaxy.

Answer:

1. Cosmos
2. Cosmology
3. 330 m/sl
4. gravitational forcesl
5. Andromedal
6. Sun God
7. hydrogen and helium
8. eight
9. Orbit
10. Inner or Terrestriall
11. Jovian Planets or Gaseous Giantsl
12. Mercury
13. Venus
14. Earth
15. 150 million kilometer’
16. Mars
17. Fourth
18. Jupiter
19. 62
20. less than
21. Uranus
22. Neptune
23. Dwarf
24. Moon
25. Minor
26. Comet
27. Meteors
28. Spherical
29. rotates
30. Day,night
31. 29
32. Equinox
33. Aphelion
34. Northern
35. Southern
36. Rocky
37. Water
38. atmosphere
39. Eco system
40. Milky Way

B. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Galaxy means having a huge cluster of _______
(a) Planets
(b) Asteroids
(c) Stars
(d) Meteors
Answer:
(e) Stars

Question 2.
The somersaulting planet is _______
(a) Venus
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Uranus
Answer:
(d) Uranus

Question 3.
_______Is self-luminous and gives light on its own
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Star
(d) Earth
Answer:
(a) Sun

Question 4.
Halley comet will next appear in _______
(a) 2051
(b) 2041
(c) 2061
(d) 2031
Answer:
(c) 2061

Question 5.
The nearest planet is _______
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Neptune
(d) Jupiter
Answer:
(a) Mercury

Question 6.
The fifth-largest planet in the Solar system is _______
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Earth
Answer:
(d) Earth

Question 7.
lo, Europa, Ganymede, Callisto are a few large satellites of _______
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Mercury
(d) Venus
Answer:
(a) Jupiter

Question 8.
The second-largest planet in the solar system is _______
(a) Mars
(b) Star
(c) Earth
(d) Saturn
Answer:
(d) Saturn

Question 9.
Saturn’s largest moon is _______
(a) Europa
(b) Callisto
(c) Titan
(d) Titania
Answer:
(c) Titan

Question 10.
Triton is the satellite of _______
(a) Earth
(b) Juipeter
(c) Neptune
(d) Uranus
Answer:
(c) Neptune

Question 11.
Halley’s comet is expected to appear in _______
(a) 2020
(b) 2014
(c) 2035
(d) 2020

Question 12.
Pick owt the leap year from the following:
(a) 2001
(b) 2014
(c) 2018
(d) 2020

Question 13.
Solid layer of rocks and soil is found in:
(a) Biosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Atmosphere

C. Find the odd one out

Question 1.
Mercury, Earth, Mars, Uranus
Answer:
Uranus, the other three rotate anti-clockwise.

Question 2.
Pluto, Ceres, Makemake, Titan.
Answer:
Titan,Titan is a moon. Other three are Dwarf planets.

Question 3.
Sol, Bio, Atmo, Hydro
Answer:
Sol, it a Roman word. Other three are Greek words.

Question 4.
Mars, Saturn, Mercury, Jupiter.
Answer:
Mercury, R doesn’t have any moon. Other three have moons.

Question 5.
Europa, Ganymede, Pluto, Callisto.
Answer:
Pluto, R is a dwarf planet. Other three are satellites of Jupiter.

D. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Planets – (a) Jovian planet
2. Mercury – (b) Earth’s Twin
3. Neptune – (c) Living planet
4. Venus – (d) Wanderer
5. Earth – (e) Innner planet

Answer:

1. (1 – d)
2. (2 – e)
3. (3 – a)
4. (4 – b)
5. (5 – c)

Question 2.

1. Cosmos – (a) Self-luminous
2. Sun – (b) Axis tilted
3. Orbit – (c) Universe
4. Mercury – (d) Curved path
5. Uranus – (e) No natural satellite

Answer:

1. (1- c)
2. (2 – a)
3. (3 – d)
4. (4 – e)
5. (5 – b)

Question 3.

1. Summer Solstice – (a) 22nd December
2. Equinox – (b) Rocky
3. Winter Solstice – (c) 21st June
4. Lithos – (d) Water
5. Hydro – (e) 21st March

Answer:

1. (1 – c)
2. (2 – e)
3. (3 – a)
4. (4 – b)
5. (5 – d)

E. Consider the following statement:

Question 1.

1. Universe is referred to Cosmos.
2. The Sun is at the centre of the solar system.
3. Pluto is a dwarf planet.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 only.
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 3

Question 2.

1. Biosphere consists of Ecosystems.
2. Atmosphere consists of water bodies.
3. Lithosphere is the solid outer layer of the! Earth.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only.
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3

Question 3.
Statement I : Jupiter is the eighth planet from the Sun.
Statement II : Jupiter is the Gaseous Giant planet.
Which of the following statements is/are time?
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(b) 1 is wrong, II is true

Question 4.
Statement I : Summer Solstice is the longest day with Southern Hemisphere.
Statement II : Winter Solstice is the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere.
(a) I is true, II is wrong
(b) I is wrong, II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(d) Both the statements are wrong!

F. Name the following

Question 1.

1. A massive explosion to bring the celestial bodies into existence.
2. The somersaulting plant.
3. The study of the Universe.
4. Outer Planets or Jovian Planets .
5. Morning Star.
6. Red Planet.
7. Fastest spinning Planet.
8. Its specific gravity in less than water.
9. This planet appears green.
10. It comesdose to the Earth every 76 years.
11. Shooting Star.
12. It is in spherical shape.
13. The spinning movement of the Earth.
14. 21st March and 23rd September.
15. This layer is made up of different types of gases.

Answer:

1. Big Bang
2. Uranus
3. Cosmology
4. Gaseous giants
5. Verms
6. Viars
7. Jupiter
8. Saturn
9. Uranus
10. Halley’s Comet
11. Meteors
12. Earth
13. Rotation
14. Equinoxes
15. Atmosphere

G. Answer in a sentence or two

Question 1.
W hat does the universe consist of?
Answer:
The universe consists of billions of galaxies, stars, planets, comets, asteroids, meteors

Question 2.
Did the ancient Tamils know that the planets went around the Sun? It yes, then give example.
Answer:
Yes. In Tamil literature, Sirupanatruppadai, it is mentioned that the Sun is surrounded by planets.

Question 3.
What is a solar system?
Answer:

1. The solar system is gravitationally bound system.
2. It comprises of the Sun, the eight planets, dwarf planets, satellites, comets, asteroids and meteors.

Question 4.
Name the eight planets.
Answer:

1. Mercury
2. Venus
3. Earth
4. Mars
5. Jupiter
6. Saturn
7. Uranus and
8. Neptune are the planets.

Question 5.
Write a note on the venus.
Answer:

1. Venus rotates in the opposite direction to all other planets except Uranus.
2. It has no natural satellites.
3. It is often visible in the mornings and the evenings. So it is also known as Morning Star and the Evening Star.

Question 6.
Name the tw o natural satellites of Mars.
Answer:
Phobos and Deimos are the two natural satellites of Mars.

Question 7.
Name the four largest satellites of Jupiter.
Answer:
Io, Europa, Ganymede and Callisto are the four largest satellites of Jupiter.

Question 8.
Define satellites
Answer:
Satellites are celestial objects, which revolve around the planets.

Question 9.
Where do we find the Asteroids?
Answer:

1. Asteroids are small solid objects that move around the Sun.
2. They are found as a belt between the Mars and Jupiter.
3. They are too small to be called as planets

Question 10.
What is the Rotation?
Answer:
Rotation is the spinning movement of the Earth on its axis.

Question 11.
What is Revolution?
Answer:
Revolution is the movement of the Earth around the Sun on its elliptical path.

H. Give reasons.

Question 1.
The eight planets revolve in their respective orbits.
Answer:
The eight planets revolve in their respective orbits because of the gravitational pull of the Sun.

Question 2.
Planet Mercury experiences extremes of temperature.
Answer:
Mercury does not have an atmosphere and so experiences extremes of temperature. Life is possible on the Earth.

Question 3.
Life is possible on Earth because of the presence of land, air and water.
Answer:
Mars appears red in colour.

Question 4.
Mars appears red in colour
Answer:
Mars appears red in colour due to presence of iron oxide on its surface.

Question 5.
Seasons are caused.
Answer:
The inclination of the Earth on its axis and its revolution around the Sun cause different seasons.

Question 6.
We think the sun is continuously moving north and south of the equator.
Answer:
The changing position of the Earth in its orbit during revolution gives this impression.

I. Answer In detail.

Question 1.
Distinguish between Mercury and Venus.

Mercury

1. Smallest and closest planet to the Sun.
2. Experiences extremes of temperature.
3. Airless and waterless planet.

Venus

1. Second planet from the Sun.
2. Rotates in opposite direction. Hottest planet.
3. Brightest planet.

Question 2.
Distinguish between Asteroids and Comets.
Answer:
Asteroids

1. Small solid objects moving around the Sun.
2. Found as a belt between Mars and Jupiter.
3. They are too small to be called planets.
4. They are also known as Minor Planets or Planetoids

Comets

1. A celestial object made up of a head and tail.
2. The head of a comet consists of solid particles held together by ice and the tail is made of gases.
3. Halley’s comet comes Close to earth every 76 years.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Free Download Question 1.
Pattini cult in Tamil Nadu was introduced by
(a) Pandyan Neducheliyan
(b) Cheran Senguttuvan
(c) Ilango Adigal
(d) Mudathirumaran
Answer:
(b) Cheran Senguttovanj

6th Standard Social Science Guide Pdf Question 2.
Which dynasty was not in power during the Sangam Age?
(a) Pandyas
(b) Cholas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cheras
Answer:
(c) Pallavas

6th Social Guide Term 3 Question 3.
The rule of Pandyas was followed by
(a) Satavahanas
(b) Cholas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Pallavas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

6th Standard Social Science Guide In English Medium Pdf Download Question 4.
The lowest unit of administration during the Sangam Age was ……………..
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Ur
(d) Pattinam
Answer:
(c) Ur

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 5.
What was the occupation of the inhabitants of the Kurinji region?
(a) Plundering
(b) Cattle rearing
(c) Hunting and gathering
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Hunting and gathering

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 1.
Assertion (A) :The assembly of the poets was known as Sangam.
Reason (R) :Tamil was the language of Sangam literature,
a. Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
A is true but R is false.
Both A and R is not true.
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A

6th Social Science Guide Question 2.
Which of the following statements are not true?
(b) The Pathitrupathu provides information about Chera Kings.
(c) The earliest literature of the Sangam age was written mostly in the form of prose,
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 only

6th Std Social Science Guide Question 3.
The ascending order of the administrative division in the ancient Tamizhagam was
a. Ur < Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam
b. Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam
c. Ur < Mandalam < Kurram < Nadu
d. Nadu < Kurram < Mandalam < Ur
Answer:
b Ur < Kurram < Nadu < Mandalam

6th Standard Social Guide Question 4.
Match the following dynasties with the Royal Insignia
Chera – 1. Fish
Chola – 2. Tiger
Pandya – 3. Bow and arrow
A. 3 2 1
B. 1 2 3
C. 3 1 2
D. 2 1 3
Answer:
A. 3 2 1

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. The battle of Venni was won by ___________
2. The earliest Tamil grammar work of the Sangam period was ___________
3. ___________ built Kallanai across the river Kaveri.
4. The chief of the army was known as ___________
5. Land revenue was called ___________

Answer:

1. Karikalana
2. Tholkappriya
3. Karikalana
4. Thanithalaivan
5. Irai

IV. True or False :

1. The singing bards of the Sangam age were called Irular.
2. Caste system developed during the Sangam period.
3. Kizhar was the village chief.
4. Puhar was the general term for city.
5. Coastal region was called Marudham

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. False

V. Match :

1. Thennar – i Cheras
2. Vanavar – ii Cholas
3. Senni – iii Velir
4. Adiyaman – iv Pandyas

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – ii
4. – iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentence

Question 1.
Name any two literacy sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.
Answer:
Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai and Patthupattu are some of the literary sources to reconstruct the history of ancient Tamizhagam.

Question 2.
What was Natukkal or Virakkal?
Answer:
In anciant Tamizhagam, the stones erected to commemorate the heroes who died in the battle field are called Natukal (Veerakkal)

Question 3.
Name five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature.
The five thinais mentioned in the Sangam literature are
Answer:

1. Kurinji.
2. Mullai.
3. Marutham.
4. Neithal.
5. Palai.

Question 4.
Name any two archaeological sites related to the Sangam period.
Answer:

1. Adichanallur
2. Arikamedu

Question 5.
Name the seven patrons (KadaiyeluVallalgal).
The seven patrons were

1. Pari
2. Kari
3. Ori
4. Pegan
5. Ay
6. Adiyaman
7. Nalli

Question 6.
Name any three Tamil poetic works of Kalabhra period.
Answer:

1. Tamil Navalar Charithai
2. Yaperunkalam
3. Periapuranam

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Discuss the status of women in the Sangam Society.
Answer:

1. There was no restriction for women in social life.
2. There were learned and wise women.
3. Forty women poets had lived and left behind their valuable works.
4. Marriage was a matter of self-choice.
5. However, Chastity (Karpu) was considered the highest virtue of women.
6. Sons and daughters had equal shares in their parent’s property.
7. Women poets of Sangam Age were Arraiyar, Velliveethiyar, Kakkaipadiniyar, AathiManthiyar, Ponmudiyar.

VIII. Hots

Question 1.
KarikalValavan Is regarded as the greatest Chela king. Justify.
Answer:

1. KarikalValavan or Karikalan was the most famous of the Chola kings.
2. He defeated the combined army of the Cheras, Pandyas and the eleven Velir Chieftains who supported them at Venni, a small village in the Thanjavur region.
3. He converted forests into cultivable lands.
4. He built Kallanai across the river Kaveri to develop agriculture.
5. Their port Puhar attracted merchants from various regions of the Indian Ocean.
6. The Pattinapaalai a poetic work in the pathinenkeezhkanakku gives elaborate information of the trading activity during the rule of Karikalan.

Question 2.
The period of Kalabhra is not a dark age. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. The literary sources include Tamil Navalar Charithai, Yapernkalam and Periapuranam for the period of Kalabhra.
2. Seevaka Chinthamani and Kundalakesi were aslo written during this period. Many works under pathinenkeezh kanakku were composed.
3. During this period Jainism and Buddhism became prominent.
4. The – introduction of Sanskrit and Prakrit developed Vattezhuththu script.
5. Trade and commerce flourished.

So the Kalabhra Period is not a dark age.

IX. Map Work :
Question 1.
Mark and colour the extent of Chera, Chola and Pandya empires on the river map of South India.

Question 2.
Mark the following places,
a. Kerkil
b. Kaveripoompattinam
c. Mwsiri
d. Uratyur
e. Madurai

XI. Answer Grid

Society And Culture In Ancient Tamizhagam :The Sangam Age Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Cheran Senguttuvan’s younger brother was .
(a) IlangoAdigal
(b) Udayan Cheralathan
(c) Cheran Irumporai
(d) Imayavaramban
Answer:
(a) Ilango Adigal

Question 2.
The epic character from Silappathikaram
(a) Kannagi
(b) Manimegalai
(c) Sita
(d) Panjali
Answer:
(a) Kannagi

Question 3.
The Pandyas ruled the present day Tamilnadu.
(a) Eastern
(b) Western
(c) Southern
(d) Northern
Answer:
(c) Southern

Question 4.
The first emporium of India is …………….
(a) Muziri
(b) Madurai
(c) Vanchi
(d) Puhar
Answer:
(a) Muziri

Question 5.
One of the Seven patrons were
(a) Nalli
(b) Vendan
(c) Valavan
(d) Vanaran
Answer:
(a) Nalli

Question 6.
The place served as the court of .Justice was .
(a) Padai
(b) Mandram
(c) Avai
(d) Ariyanai
Answer:
(b) Mandram

Question 7.
Mudur means
(a) big village
(b) small village
(c) old village
(d) developing village
Answer:
(c) old village

Question 8.
Paddy and Sugarcane were produced in .
(a) Marutham
(b) Neithal
(c) Palai
(d) Mullai
Answer:
(a) Marutham

Question 9.
Yapernkalam was one of the liter a sources of the
(a) Pandyas
(b) Pallavas
(c) Kalabhras
(d) Cholas
Answer:
(c) Kalabhras

II. Read the Statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Marutham w as called fertile land.
Reason (R) :Marutham produced Paddy and Sugarcane.
a. A is true but R is false.
b. Both A and R is not true.
c. Both A and R are true ; But R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are true ; R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are true. R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement is / are not true.
a. Tholkappiam is a work on Tamil grammar.
b. Perunarkilli was a prominent Chera ruler.
c. Sembiyan was a title assumed by the Cholas.
d. Madurai was the capital of the Cholas.

1. a and b only
2. b and d only
3. c only iv. c and d only

Answer:

1. b and d only

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is / are true?.
a. Nanmaran was praised as the lord of Korkai.
b. Paddaikottil was a place where weapons were kept.
c. Women had many restrictions in social life during Sangam age.
d. Koothu means folk drama.

1. a and b are true
2. b is true
3. c and d are true
4. b and d are true

Answer:

1. b and d are true

Question 4
Match the following dynasties with the garlands they signified.
a. Chera – i. Margosa.
b. Chola – ii. Fig
c. Pandya – iii. Palmyra

1. iii, ii, i
2. ii, iii, i
3. i, ii, iii

Answer:

1. iii, ii, ii

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. Sangam age belonged to ______ age.
2. Cheran Irumporai issued ______ in his name.
3. The ______ region remained the central part of the Kingdom.
4. Kallanai means a dam ______
5. MudukudimiPeruvazhuthi issued coins to commemorate his performance of many ______
6. The crown prince was known as ______
7. Veera kazhal means ______
8. Pattinam was the name for a ______

Answer:

1. Iron
2. Coins
3. Kaveri delta
4. Made of stone
5. vedic rituals
6. Komahan
7. coin
8. Kaveri deltas
9. made of stone
10. Vedic rituals
11. Komahan
12. Heroic anklet
13. coastal town

IV. True or False :

1. The King’s court was called Arasavai.
2. The King’s army consisted of eight divisions.
3. The entire kingdom was called Nadu.
4. The eco-regions were five thinais.
5. Varuna system existed in the Sangam age.
6. Sangam age developed the concept of Muthamizh.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False
6. True

V. Match:

1. Kurinji – i. Herding
2. Mullai – ii. Fishing
3. Marutham – iii. Heroic Deeds
4. Neithal – iv. Agriculture
5. Palai – v. Hunting

Answer:

1. v
2. i
3. iv
4. ii
5. iii

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the boundary of Tamizhagam.
Answer:
Tamizhagam started from Vengadam (Tirupathi hill) in the north to Kanyakumari (Cape comorin) in the south, bounded by sea on the east and the west.

Question 2.
What were the Festivals and Entertainments in the sangam period?
Answer:
Festivals:

1. People celebrated sveral festivals.
2. Some of them were the harvest festival (Pontal), the festival of spring and Karthigai.
3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the capital.

Entertainments:

1. There were many amusements and games.
2. Dances, festivals, bull fights, cork fights, dice, hunting, wrestling and playing in swings were some of them.
3. Children played with toy cart and with the sand houses made by them.

Question 3.
Where did the Cheras rule?
Answer:
The Cheras ruled over the central and north Travancore, Cochin, South Malabar and Kongu region of TamilNadu.

Question 4.
Mention about the Chera king Senguttuvan.
Answer:

1. Cheran Senguttuvan went on a military expedition to North India.
2. He brought stones from the Himalayas for making the idol of Kannagi, an epic character from Silappathikaram. He introduced Pattini cult.

Question 5.
Why was Kallanai built?
Answer:

1. Kallanai was a dyke (thick wall), built with stones.
2. It was constructed across the Kaveri to divert water throughout the delta region for irrigation.
3. When it was built, Kallanai irrigated an area of about 69,000 acres.

Question 6.
Why is Nedunchezhian hailed on the most popular warrior?
Answer:

1. Nedunchezhiyan is hailed as the most popular warrior.
2. He defeated the combined army of the Chera, Chola and five Velir Chieftains at Talayalanganam.
3. He is praised as the lord of Korkai.

Question 7.
What were the Symbols of royal used during the Sangam period?
Answer:
Kol, Murasu and Venkudai were used as the symbols of the royal authority.

Question 8.
What were the prominent weapons used during the Sangam period?
Answer:

1. The prominent weapons used during this period were sword, kedayam (shield), tomaram (lance) spears, bows and arrows.
2. Tomaram is mentioned as a missile to be thrown at the enemy from a distance.
3. The place where the weapons were kept was known as Paddaikottil.

Question 9.
Mention the important towns of the Sangam period.
Answer:
Puhar, Uraiyur, Korkai, Madurai, Musiri, Vanji or Karur and Kanchi were the important towns of the Sangam period.

Question 10.
What were the festivals celebrated by the people of the Sangam Age?
Answer:

1. People celebrate several festivals.
2. The harvest festival, (Pongal) and the festival of spring, Kaarthigai, were some of them.
3. Indira vizha was celebrated in the Capital.

Question 11.
What were the two kinds of markets or bazaars in Puhar and Madurai ?
Answer:

1. There were two kinds of markets or bazaars in the leading cities like Puhar and Madurai.
2. In Madurai, they were Nalangadi (the morning bazaar) and Allanga (the evening bazaar).
3. In these markets, large varieties as well as large quantities of goods were sold and purchased.

Question 12.
Mention the major exports and imports of Musiri, Tondi, Korkai.
Answer:

1. Main exports : Salt, pepper, Ivory, Silk, Spices, Diamonds, Saffron, Precious stones, Muslin, Sandal wood.
2. Main imports : Topaz, tin, wine, glass, horses.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.

Write about the sources of the Sangam Age.
Answer:
(i) Inscriptions – Hathigumpha Inscription of King Karavela ofKalinga, Pugalur (near Karur) Inscription, Ashokan Edicts II and XIII, and
inscriptions found at Mangulam, Alagarmalai and Ki lavalavu (all near Madurai).

(ii) Copper plates – Velvikudi and Chinnamanur copper plates.

(iii) Coins – Issued by the Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas and the chieftains of Sangam Age as well as the Roman coins.

(iv) Megalithic
Monuments – Burials and Hero stones.

(v) Excavated
Materials from – Adichanallur, Arikamedu, Kodumanal, Puhar, Korkai, Alagankulan, Uraiyur.

(vi) Literary Sources – Tholkappiyam, Ettuthogai,Pathupattu, Pathinankeezhkanakku, Pattinapalai and Maduraikanji. Epics Silapathikaram and Manimegalai.

(vii) Foreign Notices – The Periplus of the Erythrean Sea, Pliny’s Natural History, Ptolemy’s Geography, Megasthenes’s Indica, Rajavali, Mahavamsa and Dipavamsa.

Question 2.
Write about the Kingship under the Sangam polity.
Answer:

1. The kingship was hereditary.
2. The eldest son of the reigning king generally succeeded to the throne.
3. The coronation ceremony was known as Arasukattilerudhal or Mudisoottuvila.
4. The crown prince was known as Komahan.
5. King held a daily durbar (naalavai) at which he heard and resolved all the disputes.
6. The income to the state was through taxation.
7. The kings and soldiers wore the heroic anklet (Veera kazhal).
8. Spies were used.
9. A wound in the back was considered a disgrace.

Question 3.
Write a note on a) Arts and b) Occupation during Sangam age.
Answer:
Arts:

1. There are many references to variety of musical instruments such as drum, flute and yazh.
2. Karikalan was master of seven notes of music.
3. Singing bards were called panar and vraliyar.
4. Dancing was performed by kanigaiyar. Koothu was the most important cultural practice of the people of Sangam Age.
5. They developed the concept of Muthamizh (Iyal, Isai, Naatakam).

Occupation :

1. The major occupations of the people were : agriculture, cattle rearing, fishing and hunting.
2. Other craftsmen like carpenter, blacksmith, goldsmith, and potters were also part of the population.
3. Weaving was the most common part-time occupation of the farmers and a regular full time job for many others.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
a. Write a note on Ornamental Gateway.
Answer:
Omainental gateway (Pailou) built during Han dynasty (202 BCE – 220 CE) across street lined with small shobs, Hanzhong, Shaanxi Province China in 1875.
b. Write a note on Pyramid Mayan civilisation

1. Mayan pyramid : The Maya are a people of Southern Mexico and northern central America with some 3000 years of history.
2. Archaeological evidence shows the Mayan started to build ceremonial architecture approximately 3000 yrs ago.
3. Mesoamerican pyramids or pyramid shaped structures form a prominent part of ancient Mesoamerican architecture resemblance to Egyptian pyramids.

Students can Download English Poem 3 Your Space Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Activity, Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 3 Your Space

Read And Understand

A. Answer the following questions in a sentence or two.

Your Space Poem Question 1.
Why should we speak gently?
Answer:
We should speak gently because soft and kind words leave a deep and lasting impression. We can win people’s hearts by love and God too likes it and rewards us for eternity.

Your Space Poem Questions And Answers Question 2.
What do you infer about speaking with others from this poem?
Answer:
From this poem we understand that at all levels there is problems and sadness to everyone but with kind and gentle words they can be overcome.

Your Space Poem Summary Question 3.
What are the disadvantages of speaking harshly?
Answer:
Speaking harshly to people will deprive us of all the good we do here. It is far better to rule by love than fear. Harsh speakers will have more enemies than friends.

Your Space Poem 7th Standard Question 4.
Why does the poet tell us to speak gently to young children?
Answer:
When we speak gently to young children they too will learn to speak gently. Childhood period does not remain long, so we should teach children softly and mildly. We can get their love and trust only with kind words.

Your Space Poem Mind Map Question 5.
How should you speak with old people?
Answer:
We should use kind, gentle, loving and caring words with the old people because their days are numbered. Harsh words will make them sad but gentle words will keep them happy and they will die in peace.

B. Read the poem and fill in the blanks with the correct option.

(Soft,Vain,fear,joy,love,heard,toiled,mild,good,sand,life,harsh)

1. It is better far to rule by ______ , then _____.
2. Teach it in accents ______ and ______
3. Let no tone be ______ and _____
4. They may have ______ in ______
5. The _____, the _____,Which it may bring
6. The _____ of _____ are nearly run

Answer:

1. love; fear
2. soft; mild
3. harsh; heard
4. toiled; vain.
5. good; joy
6. sands; life

C. Pick out the words which rhyme with the given words and write similar rhyming words on your own.
Answer:

D. Take a stanza from the poem. Write it in the blanks and find the rhyme scheme.
Answer:

Your space Additional Questions

I. Read these lines and answer the questions given below.

Your Space Poem In Tamil Question 1.
Speak gently! -Love doth whisper low
The vows that true hearts bind;
And gently Friendship’s accents flow
Affections voice is kind.

(a) How does love speak?
Answer:
Love speaks as a low whisper.

(b) What does vows of love do?
Answer:
Vows of love binds true hearts.

7th Std English Poem Your Space Question 3.
What flows gently?
Answer:
Friendship.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th English Memory Poem Question 4.
How is the voice of affection?
Answer:
Kindness.

Your Space Poem Explanation Question 2.
Speak gently! – ’tis a little thing
Dropped in the hearts deep well;
The good, the joy, which it may bring,
Eternity shall tell.

Speak Gently Question 1.
What is a‘little thing?
Answer:
Speaking gently is a little thing.

Speak Gently Poem Question 2.
Where should we drop the gentle words?
Answer:
We drop them deep in the hearts.

Speak Gently Poem Summary Question 3.
What does gentle words in our deep hearts bring?
Answer:
The gentle words bring goodness and joy to our hearts.

Speak Gently Summary Question 4.
Till when will the goodness and joy last?
Answer:
Goodness and joy would last forever till eternity.

II. Short Questions and Answers.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th English Question 1.
Why do the youth require gentle words?
Answer:
The foundation for living a good life is made during the youth days. Youth have to build a family, career, earn for the future. Hence during this period of hard work, stress and anxieties, we should speak gentle motivating words so that they may pass through this phase of life in the best way.

Question 2.
“They have enough they must endure”. Who are ‘they’? What do they endure?
Answer:
‘They’ refers to the poor people. They have a lot to endure like want of money, ill health, lack of food, big family, illiteracy, oppression by the rich, etc.

Question 3.
Why do people err according to the poet? How do gentle words help them?
Answer:
According to the poet people err when man treat them harsh and unkindly. When we love them and treat them gently and kindly, it will heal their soul and we can win them back.

III. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
Poet David Bates mentions about speaking gently to six categories of people. Who are they? Why should we speak gently to them?
Answer:
The six categories of people to whom we should speak gently are children, youngsters, aged, poor, the erring and to God.

1. Childhood days move fast so the gentle and kind words we speak and teach them will make them to love and trust us and also train them to speak so.

2. The youth pass through a period of stress, anxiety and carry burdens. To make them cross this phase happily and successfully, we must talk to them understandingly, gentle and patiently.

3. The old people are tired, weak and worried. They have only a brief time left to live, so help them live happily and peacefully. We must talk to them softly, caring and kind words.

4. The poor are already burdened and undergone sufferings, so we must not use rough, unkind words but only gentle kind words.

5. Speaking gently to the erring people will make them realize their mistakes and to reconcile, repent and come back.

6. Finally we should speak gently and with reverence to God who controls the fierce elements of the earth. God gave his life to give us peace, happiness and to forgive our sins.

Question 2.
What does the poet tell about gentle words and love in our hearts in stanza 1,2 and 9?
Answer:
Gentle words help to rule over people by love and not fear. This love exists long. Promises given in a low soft voice with love, help tie hearts together. Gentle words make friendship root deeper and kind words establish affection. Soft words are not difficult to speak. If gentle words are planted deeply in hearts , it will bring goodness and joy forever.

Question 3.
Compare the effect of gentle and harsh words in life.
Answer:

Speaking Gently

1. Gentle words rule our hearts by love.
2. Soft loving promises, whispered lowly, bind the hearts.
3. Gentle words bring friendship and affection.
4. Gentle words help children to love and trust us. It trains them to speak gently.
5. Speaking gently to youngsters relieves their stress and anxiety and makes them happy.
6. By speaking gently , the worn out old people will be happy and peaceful the rest of their life.
7. Kind caring words, to the burden enduring poor people, make their life happy.
8. Speaking gently to the erring people makes them repent and reconcile
9. Speaking gently and with reverence to God helps us get his favour.
10. Gentle words go deep in our hearts and bring goodness and joy forever.

Speaking Harshly

1. Harsh words bring fear and remove all good deeds.
2. Harsh words do not bring hearts closer.
3. Unkind words bring hatred and enmity.
4. Children who hear harsh words do not love and they too speak harshly later.
5. Unkind words to youngsters increase anxiety and burdens. They cannot be successful.
6. Harsh words on old people make them sad and unhappy. It reduces their life time.
7. Rude and unkind words make life horrible for the poor.
8. Harsh words on erring people make them worser and they would never come back.
9. Harsh words put God on the cross again
10. Harsh words, planted in the hearts, bring unhappiness forever

Warm Up

Look at the pictures given below. Fill in the blanks according to the clues given.
Answer:

Your Space Summary

The poet David Bates says that we should speak gently as it is easy to control people by love rather than by fear. The good deeds we do are spoilt by the rough words we speak.

When promises of love are expressed in a low voice, it ties the truly loving hearts. Friendship grows deeper through the kind words that flow. The language of affection is kindness. We must speak gently to gain the love of little children. Childhood period does not extend for a long time, hence we must speak caring, soft and mild words that they may remember always.

The youth and adolescents need gentle words as they already have burdens, worry and anxieties to undergo. We must help the youth pass their springtime in life in the best way happily and successfully by handling them with care, patiently and gently.

Next the poet asks us to speak gently to the seiner citizens. Our words and actions must not make their tired and worn out hearts more sorrowful. They have almost lived their life-time, so we must help them live the little time left, happily and peacefully.

The poor people must not hear rough and unkind words, says the poet. They already undergo hardships due to lack of money, food, health, oppression, etc.

We must use kind words to the criminals, prisoners and those who have committed mistakes in their lives to win them back and make them good. They could have become bad due to the unkindness shown towards them.

Finally the poet speaks about God. When God travelled on a fierce stormy sea, he commanded it to be calm and still and controlled the elements of nature. The same God gave his life on the cross to mend man’s sinful stubborn mind. So we should speak to him gently in prayer.

To conclude, the poet compares our hearts to a deep well. To conquer hearts we must put kind and gentle words into it. Those words would bring joy and goodness that lasts till the world ends.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 7 Computer – An Introduction

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the Correct answer.

6th Computer Science Guide Question 1.
Who is the father of Computer?
(a) Martin Luther King
(b) Graham Bell
(c) Charlie Chaplin
(d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
(d) Charles Babbage

6th Standard Computer Science Guide Question 2.
Which of the following is another form of computer?
a. Blackboard
b. Mobile
c. Radio
d. Book
Answer:
b. Mobile

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Book Question 3.
When was the first computer introduced?
(a) 1980
(b) 1947
(c) 1946
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1946

6th Computer Guide Question 4.
Who is the computer’s first programmer?
a. Lady Wellington
b. Augusta ado Lovelace
c. Mary Curie
d. Mary Comb
Answer:
b. Augusta ado Lovelace

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Science Guide Question 5.
Pick out the odd one.
(a) Calculator
(b) Abacus
(c) Flash card
(d) Laptop
Answer:
(c) Flash card

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Data is ______ information.
2. World’s first general purpose computer is ______
3. Information is ______ data.
4. Fifth generation computer had ______ intelligence.
5. ______ is the device that uses Index number.

Answers:

1. unprocessed
2. Abacus
3. Processed
4. artificial
5. Analog Computer

III. State True or False.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Guide Question 1.
Computer is an Electronic device.
Answer:
True

6th Standard Computer Guide Question 2.
Sir Isaac Newton invented Computer.
Answer:
False. Charles Babbage invented Computer.

6th Computer Guide Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Computer can do calculations fast.
Answer:
True

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. e
5. a

V. Answer the following.

6th Std Computer Science Guide Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
Computer is an electronic device that process the data and information according to our needs.

Computer Science 6th Guide Question 2.
Who are the pioneers/forerunners of a computer?
Answer:
Charles Babbage and Augusta Ada Lovelace are the pioneers/forerunners of the computer.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Science Book Question 3.
Write a short note on Data.
Answer:

1. Data is the information that has to be processed.
2. They are in the form of numbers, alphabets and images.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Computer Science Question 4.
Name any four input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner and Web camera, etc.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Computer Book Back Answers Question 5.
Differentiate Hardware and Software
Answer:
Hardware :
The parts that are available in the computer that helps the software to work.

Software :
The commands or programs that are used in a computer.

VI. Answer in detail.

6th Computer Book Answers Question 1.
Explain in detail the Applications of computer.
Answer:

1. Computer is used in textile shops for billing purpose.
2. It is used in railway station for issuing tickets.
3. It is used in the banks for multi purpose.
4. It is used in the ATMs.
5. It is used in Post office.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Computer – An Introduction Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks.

1. ______ is also a computer.
2. Computers are available in ______
3. ______ and ______ are different types of computers.

Answers:

1. Smart phone
2. different shapes
3. Laptops and tablets

II. Short Answers.

6th Computer Science Guide Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Mention the two types of softwares.
Answer:

1. Operating software
2. Application software

6th Standard Computer Book Back Answers Question 2.
Give any two examples of operating software.
Answer:
Windows and Linux are operating software.

6 Std Computer Science Guide Question 3.
Mention any two output devices.
Answer:
Printers and Monitors are output devices.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Development Of Industries In India 8th Standard Question 1.
Which of the following activities of the people will not come under handy craft?
(a) Carving statues out of stone
(b) Making bangles with glass
(c) Weaving silk sarees
(d) Smelting of iron
Answer:
(d) Smelting of Iron

Question 2.
The oldest industry in India was ……….. industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Steel
(c) Electrical
(d) Fertilizers
Answer:
(a) Textile

Question 3.
The woolen and leather factories became prominent in …………
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmadabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Decca
Answer:
(c) Kanpur

Question 4.
What was the aim of first Three Five year Plans of India?
(a) To control population growth
(b) To reduce illiteracy rate
(c) To built a strong industrial base
(d) To empower the women
Answer:
(c) To built a strong industrial base

Question 5.
What was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
(a) Loss of royal patronage
(b) Competition of machine made goods
(c) Industrial policy of India
(d) Trading policy of British
Answer:
(c) Industrial policy of India

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……….. was the integral part in the life of the people.
2. Industrial revolution took place in …………
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in ………………
4. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly Valley at ………. near Calcutta.
5. ………… shortened the distance between Europe and India.

Answer:

1. Craft
2. 1948
3. 1939
4. Rishra
5. Suez Canal

III. Match the following

1. Tavernier – Drain Theory
2. Dacca – Paper mill
3. Dadabai Naoroji – Artisan
4. Ballygunj – Muslin
5. Smiths – French traveller

Answer:

1. Tavernier – French traveller
2. Dacca – Muslin
3. Dadabai Naoroji – Drain Theory
4. Ballygunj – Paper mill
5. Smiths – Artisan

IV. State True or False

1. India was famous for cotton and silk cloths.
2. The railway was introduced in India by the British.
3. Steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Jamshedpur.
4. The industrial policy of 1948, brought mixed economy in industrial sector.
5. The tenth and eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of Agricultural production.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) According to Edward Baines, ‘The birth place of cotton manufacture is in England’.
(ii) Before mechanised industry handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in rural India.
(iii) Saurashtra was known for tin industry.
(iv) Construction of Suez Canal made the British goods cheaper in India.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(b) ii and iv are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian handicrafts collapsed under the colonial rule.
Reason (R) : British made India as the producer of raw materials and markets for their finished products.
(a) A is correct R is correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R is correct
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R is correct

Question 3.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Bernier – Shajahan
(b) Cotton mill – Ahmedabad
(c) TISCO – Jamshedpur
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980
Answer:
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the traditional handicrafts industries of India?
Answer:

1. The traditional handicrafts industries of India are textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
2. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils.

Question 2.
Write about the Drain theory.
Answer:
The Drain theory of Dadabai Naoroji was the first to acknowledge that the poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to Britain.

Question 3.
Name the inventions which made the production of textiles on large scale?
Answer:
The invention of cotton gin, flying shuttle, spinning jenny and steam engine in England, which made the production of textiles on large scale.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Confederation of Indian Industry.
Answer:

1. The Confederation of Indian Industry is a business association in India.
2. CIT is a non – Govemment, not – for – profit, industry – led and industry – managed organisation.
3. It was founded in 1985.

Question 5.
What is de – industrialisation?
Answer:
The process of disruption of traditional Indian crafts and decline in national income has been referred to as de – industrialisation.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was the trading policy of British caused for the decline of the Indian Industries?
Answer:

1. All the policies implemented by the British government in India had a deep impact on India’s indigenous industries.
2. Free trade policy followed by the East India Company compelled the Indian traders to sell their goods below the market prices.
3. This forced many craftsmen to abandon their ancestral handicraft talents.
4. East India company’s aim was to buy the maximum quantity of Indian manufactured goods at the cheapest price and sell them to other European countries for a huge profit.
5. This affected the traditional Indian industry.
6. The British followed the policy of protective tariffs that was much against the trading interests of India.
7. Heavy duties were charged on Indian goods in Britain, but at the same time, the English goods entering India were charged only nominal duties.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the plantation industries.
Answer:
Plantation industries :

1. The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans. This provide jobs on large scale.
2. In reality, it could meet the increasing demands for tea, coffee and indigo by the British Society.
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1839.
4. Coffee plantation also started simultaneously.
5. As the tea plantation was the most important industry of Eastern India, coffee plantation became the center of activities in South India.
6. The Third important plantation, which gave birth to factory was jute.
7. All these Industries were controlled by many former employees of the British East India Company.

Question 3.
Explain Industrial development after 1991 reforms.
Answer:

1. The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
2. India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
3. The Tenth and Eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
4. The abolition of Industrial licensing, dismantling of price controls, dilution of reservation of small scale industries.
5. Virtual abolition of monopoly law enabled Indian industry to flourish,
6. The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

VII. HOTs

Question 1.
How do handicraft products differ from machine made products?
Answer:
Handicraft:
Something you make with your own hands, especially an ornament or decoration, is a handicraft. Instead, items made by artisans like pottery, handwoven blankets, handmade jewellery and quilts stitched by hand are all examples of handicrafts.

Machine made Products:
Machine made Products are produced faster and all are exactly the same. Machine manufacturing is faster and more economical. Also machine made goods are cheaper than hand made goods.

IX. Mark the following places on the outline map of India

1. Bombay
2. Calcutta
3. Dacca
4. Jamshedpur
5. Rishra
6. Ahmedabad
7. Kanpur
8. Kulti
9. New Delhi
10. Assam
Answer:

X. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Name the industries in your state and divide them into Agro based metal based and forest based.
Answer:

Question 2.
Prepare a project on air, water, and land pollution due to the industrial development in India.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
Make a power point presentation on the industrial development of India and highlight the main features of those developments.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The ………….. in India has a rich history.
(a) Craft
(b) Steel
(c) Agricultural
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Craft

Question 2.
Saurashtra was known for ………………
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Bell Metal
(c) Muslin Clothes
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bell Metal

Question 3.
Dacca was identified with ………….
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Muslin Clothes
(c) Bell Metal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Muslin Clothes

Question 4.
The Tradition Indian Industry was known in the fields of …………..
(a) textiles
(b) woodwork
(c) ivory
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Mummies in …………. tombs dating from 2000 BC were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
(a) Egyptian
(b) British
(c) Spanish
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Egyptian

Question 6.
A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a …………..
(a) dress
(b) matchbox
(c) tin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) match box

Question 7.
………… industry was the oldest industry in India.
(a) Steel
(b) Jute
(c) Textile
(d) Sugar
Answer:
(c) Textile

Question 8.
Poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to …………
(a) England
(b) Britain
(c) Egyptian
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Britain

Question 9.
Free trade policy followed by the ………….
(a) India
(b) England
(c) East India Company
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(c) East India Company

Question 10.
The process of Industrialization started in India from the mid ………..
(a) 18th Century
(b) 19th Century
(c) 20th Century
(d) 21st Century
Answer:
(c) 20th Century

Question 11.
The beginning of modern industry is associated with the development in mainly plantation like …………
(a) jute
(b) cotton
(c) steel
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
The ……….. was the first to attract the Europeans.
(a) Machine based Industries
(b) Plantation Industries
(c) Heavy Industries
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Plantation Industries

Question 13.
The Assam Tea Company was founded in ……………
(a) 1839
(b) 1939
(c) 1739
(d) 1840
Answer:
(a) 1839

Question 14.
The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was setup in …………..
(a) 1905
(b) 1906
(c) 1907
(d) 1908
Answer:
(c) 1907

Question 15.
In India, Modern Industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry at ……….. in 1854.
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(d) Bombay

Question 16.
The First Paper Mill was started in …………. near Calcutta in 1870.
(a) Ballygunj
(b) Rishra
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jamshedji
Answer:
(a) Ballygunj

Question 17.
Steel was First manufactured by modern methods at Kulti in ………….
(a) 1843
(b) 1874
(c) 1865
(d) 1878
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 18.
The year 1991 undered a new era of the ……………..
(a) Modernisation
(b) Industrialization
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

Question 9.
The New Policy welcomes ……………
(a) Craft
(b) Foreign Investment
(c) Agriculture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Foreign Investment

Question 20.
………….. is an important component of economic growth.
(a) Modernisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:
(d) Industrialisation

II. Fill in the blanks

1. ………….. industry was started in Hoogly valley at Rishra near Culcutta
2. The …………. and ………… factories become prominent in Kanpur.
3. The ………… tea company was founded in 1939.
4. The steel was first manufactured by modern methods at ………..
5. ………… for tin industry.
6. The Second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture is ……….
7. The British conquest transformed Indian economy (self-reliant) into ………economy.
8. The accelerated industrialization began with the development of ……….. and ……………
9. The length of ………….. increased from 2,573 Km in 1861 to 55,773 Km in 1914.
10. ………….. mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
11. The heavy industries included the ……….. and ……….. industry.
12. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of ………. century.
13. Industrial Policy Resolution 1956, industries were classified into ………. categories.
14. ………….. skills were short in supply.
15. Very important aim of the first three five year plans were ……………. India.
16. A new era of the economic liberalization in …………..
17. The …………. policy welcomes foreign investments.
18. …………. has now a large verity of industries producing goods of varied nature
19. Give example for primary sector ……….
20. There was a limited development of mining, especially …………

Answer:

1. Jutej
2. Wollen and leather
3. Assam
4. Jamshedpui
5. Vanga
6. Handicrafts
7. colonial
8. roadways and railways
9. railways
10. Cotton
11. Iron and Steel
12. 20th Century
13. Three
14. Technical
15. Strong Industrial
16. 1991
17. New
18. India
19. agriculture
20. coal

III. Match the following:

1. b
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. f
6. c

IV. State True or False:

1. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly ally at Rishra near Punjab.
2. Suez canal shortened the distance between Europe and India.
3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1939.
4. The expand form of TISCO – True Iron and Steel Company.
5. Cotton Mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
6. India was famous for its quality of cotton and silk clothes.
7. Saurashtra was known for Dacca.
8. Vanga was known for tin industry.
9. India become the market for the finished products of Britain.
10. During the first half of 19th Century western countries were industrialization.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
(ii) Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.
(iii) The process of industrialization started In India from the mid-18’ century.
(iv) The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans.

(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(b) (i), (iii) & (iv) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian became the market for the finished products of Britain.
Reason (R) : The British conquest transformed Indian Economy (self-reliant) into colonial economy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Shajahan – Jamshedpur
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry
(c) TISCO – Bernier
(D) 1991 – New Agricultural Policy
Answer:
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry

Question 4.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
a) Paper Mill – Muslin
(b) Smiths – Artisan
(c) Drain Theory – The British exploitation of India’s resources
(d) De – industrialisation – 19th Century
Answer:
(a) Paper Mill – Muslin

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on industrial development during 1965 – 1980.
Answer:

1. As the first three five year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
2. The consumer goods sector is the backbone of rural economy.
3. As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

Question 2.
Classify the Industries on the basis of raw material.
Solution:
On the basis of raw material used, industries can be classified into –

1. Agro – based Industries
2. Mineral – based Industries

Question 3.
When and where was the first paper mill started?
Answer:
The first paper mill was started in Ballygunj near Calcutta in 1870.

Question 4.
Write any two machine based industries started in India.
Answer:

1. In India modern industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry in Bombay in 1854.
2. In 1855, Jute industry was started in the hooghly valley at Rishra near Calcutta.

Question 5.
Write about the Muslin of Dacca.
Answer:

1. Mummies in Egyptian tombs dating from 2000 BC (BCE) were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
2. A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a match box.

Question 6.
What happen to Indian handicrafts under the colonical rule?
Answer:
Indian handicrafts that had made the country famous collapsed under the colonical rule.

Question 7.
Which is an important component of economic growth?
Answer:

1. Industrialization is an important component of economic growth.
2. India’s industrial expansion over the plan period presents a mixed picture.

Question 8.
Write about Indian road network.
Answer:

1. The Indian road network has become one of the largest in the world.
2. Government efforts led to the expansion of the network of National Highways, State highways and major district roads, which in turn has directly contributed to industrial growth.

Question 9.
Classify the Industries oh the basis of ownership?
Answer:
On the basis of ownership it can be classified into –

1. Public Sector
2. Private Sector
3. Joint Sector and
4. Co – operative Sector

Question 10.
What are the specialized goods produced by the Traditional Crafts?
Answer:
Some specialized goods produced by the traditional crafts are:

1. Cotton textiles
2. Muslin
3. Wool
4. Silk and
5. Metal articles

VII Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain the phases of Industrial development in India.
Answer:
1. Industrial development during 1950’s to 1965:

• During this phase, a majority of consumer goods were produced in India.
• The Industrial sector was underdeveloped with weak infrastructure.
• The first three Five-Year plans were very important because their aim was to build a strong industrial base in independent India.

2. Industrial development during 1965’s – 1980:

• As the first three Five-year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
• The consumer goods sector is the beck bone of rural economy.
• As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

3. Industrial development during 1980’s till 1991:

• The period of the 1980’s can be considered as the period of the industrial recovery.
• This period witnessed quite a healthy industrial growth.

4. Industrial development post 1991 Reforms:

• The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
• India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
• The Tenth and Eleventh Five-year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
• The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

Question 2.
Discuss about the Traditional Crafts of India.
Answer:

1. The Crafts in India has a rich history. Crafts were an integral part in the life of the people.
2. Before arrival mechanized industry, the production of Indian handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture.
3. The traditional Indian industry was known in the fields of textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
4. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
5. Some specialized goods were produced for cotton textiles, muslin, wool, silk and metal articles.
6. India was famous for its fine quality of cotton and silk clothes.
7. There are references made in many scholarly works to the professions of the weaver, the tailor and the dyer.
8. Certain centers of metal industry well quite well known.
9. For example, Saurashtra was known for bell metal, Vanga for tin industry and Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the Heavy Industries.
Answer:

1. The heavy industries included the iron and steel industry, steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Kulti in 1874.
2. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of 20th century.
3. However, the credit for the development of large-scale manufacture of steel in India goes to Jamshedji Tata.
4. The Tata Iron and steel company (TISCO) was setup in 1907 at Jamshedpur,
5. It started producing pig iron in 1911 and steel ingots in 1912.