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Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 3 Emergence Of New Kingdoms In South India: Later Cholas And Pandyas Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science History Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Emergence of New Kingdoms In South India: Later Cholas And Pandyas

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Emergence of New Kingdoms In South India: Later Cholas And Pandyas Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Highlight Any Five Aspects Of Cholas Legacy Question 1.
Who revived the later Chola dynasty?
(a) Vijayalaya
(b) Rajaraja I
(c) Rajendral
(d) Athirajendra
Answer:
(a) Vijayalaya

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In South India Question 2.
Who among the following Pandya rulers is known for ending the Kalabhra rule?
(a) Kadunkon
(b) ViraPandyan
(c) Kun Pandyan
(d) Varaguna
Answer:
(a) Kadunkon

Emergence Of New Kingdoms In South India Later Cholas And Pandyas Question 3.
Which of the following was the lowest unit of Chola administration?
(a) Mandalam
(b) Nadu
(c) Kurram
(d) Ur
Answer:
(d) Ur

Highlight Any Five Aspects Of Chola Legacy Question 4.
Who was the last ruler Vijayalaya line of Chola dyanasty?
(a) VeeraRajendra
(b) Rajadhiraja
(c) AthiRajendra
(d) Rajaraja II
Answer:
(c) AthiRajendra

The Royal Secretariat Of Pandya Kingdom Was Known As Question 5.
An example of Chola architecture can be seen at ______
(a) Kannayiram
(b) Uraiyur
(c) Kanchipuram
(d) Thanjavur
Answer:
(d) Thanjavurj

The Elder Son Of The Chola King Was Called Yuvaraja Question 6.
To which of the following, Marco Polo went in the last decade of 13th century in India?
(a) Chola mandalam
(b) Pandya country
(c) Kongu region
(d) Malainadu
Answer:
(b) Pandya country

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. built the famous Brihadeshwara Temple at Thanjavur.
2. established a Vedic college at Ennayiram.
3. was the donor of Velvikudi copper plates.
4. The royal sectretariat of Pandya kingdom was known as

Answer:

1. Rajaraja I
2. Rajaraja I
3. Jatila Parantaka Nedunjadayan
4. eluttu-mandapam

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. iii
4. i

IV. True or False :

1. A Muslim state subordinate to Delhi Sultan was in Madurai.
2. Koodal – nagar Kavalan was the title of a Pandya king.
3. Chola kingdom was situated in Vaigai delta.
4. Correct statement: Chola kingdom was situated in Kaveri delta.
5. Kulothunga I belonged to Chalukya – Chola dynasty.
6. The elder son of the Chola king was called Yuvaraja.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. True

V. Consider the following statements.
Tick (✓) the appropriate answer.

Chola Kingdom Was Situated In Vaigai Delta True Or False Question 1.
Which of the following statements about Later Cholas are correct?

1. They had a system of Local self government.
2. They maintained a strong navy.
3. They were the followers of Buddhism.
4. They built big temples.

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1,2 and 4

Established A Vedic College At Ennayiram Question 2.
Which of the following statements are true with regard to Rajendra Chola?

1. He assumed the title Gangaikonda Chola.
2. He conquered Southern Sumatra.
3. He is credited with consolidating the Chola power.
4. His naval power enabled him to conquer Srivijaya.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Donor Of Velvikudi Copper Plates Question 3.
Assertion:- The Yuvarajas were appointed Governors in the provinces.
Reason:- This was done for their training in administration.
(a) R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(a) R is the correct explanation of A

Question 4.
Arrange the following administration divisions in descending order.

1. Nadu
2. Mandalam
3. Ur
4. Kurram

Answer:

1. Madalam
2. Nadu
3. Kurram
4. Ur

Question 5.
Arrange the events in chronological order.

1. Maravarman appointed Virapandyan as co – regent.
2. Civil war broke out.
3. A Muslim State was established in Madurai.
4. MaravarmanKulasekaran had two sons – Virapandyan and Sundrapandyan
5. SundraPandyan sought help from Ala – ud-din Khalji.
6. Malik Kafur invaded Madurai.

Answer:

1. MaravarmanKulasekaran had two sons – Virapandyan and Sundrapandyan
2. Maravarman appointed Virapandyan as co – regent.
3. Civil war broke out.
4. SundraPandyan sought help from Ala – ud-din Khalji.
5. Malik Kafur invaded Madurai.
6. A Muslim State was established in Madurai.

Question 6.
Find out

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What were the items exported during the later Chola period?
Answer:
During the later Cholah period, the items exported were sandalwood, ebony, condiments, precious gems, pepper, oil, paddy, grains and salt.

Question 2.
What was called Chatur-vedi-mangalam?
Answer:
Kings Pandya and local chiefs created Brahmin settlements called Mangalam or Chatur-vedi- mangalam with irrigation facilities.

Question 3.
Write about Kanikadan.
Answer:
The revenue of the Chola state came mainly from the land. The land tax was known as Kanikadan. The Chola rulers carried out an elaborate survey of land in order to fix the government’s share of »the land revenue. One-third of produce was collected as land tax. It was collected mostly in kind.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Highlight any five aspects of Cholas’ legacy.
Answer:

1. The chola rulers established a well organized system of administration in which the empire was divided into mandalans, naadu, Kurrams and gramam.
2. A very efficient local administration was another important feature of the Chola rule.
3. Chola gave importance to irrigation – vati-vaykkal, ur-vaykkal and nadu-vaykkal ensured proper distribution of water.
4. The Chola rulers built the famous temples in Thanjavur, Gangaikonda Cholapuram and Darasuram. Chola Kings were great patrons of learning. Trade flourished during their period.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Chola kings were great patrons of learning: Support the statement with details.
Answer:

1. Rajendra I estabished Vedic college at Ennayiram where Vedas, grammar and Upanishad were taught.
2. This was later followed by his successors and two more such colleges had been founded.
3. The Great literary works like Periyapuranam and Kamba Ramayanam belong to this period.

IX. Student Activity :
Who am I?

1. I was responsible for Malik Kafur invasion.
2. I built 16-mile embankment-lake in Gangaikonda Cholapuram.
3. I am a water supply channel.
4. I codified Thirumurai.
5. I was a great port. Marco Polo visited me twice.

Answer:

1. Sundara Pandyan
2. Rajendra Chola
3. Vaykkal
4. Nambiy andar Nambi
5. Kayal

X. Answer Grid

XI. Field trip :

Question 1.
Visit any one temple built during Chola or Pandya period and see its magnificence.
Answer:
Students to be taken for a field trip to a built temple during Chola or Pandya period.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Emergence of New Kingdoms In South India: Later Cholas And Pandyas Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The ancient Chola kingdom reigned with ______ as its capital
(a) Thanjavur
(b) Uraiyur
(c) Kayal
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(b) Uraiyur

Question 2.
Rajaraja chola’s daughter was married to ______ Prince Vimaladitya
(a) Chera
(b) Chola
(c) Chalukya
(d) Pallava
Answer:
(c) Chalukya

Question 3.
______ presently in Kanchipuram district was as Brahmadeya village
(a) Darasuram
(b) Thoothukudi
(c) Tiruchirapalli
(d) Uttiramerur
Answer:
(d) Uttiramerur

Question 4.
Saivite saint ______ converted Arikesari from Jainism to Saivism. .
(a) Thirugnanasambandar
(b) Sundarar
(c) Kambar
(d) Sekkizhar
Answer:
(a) Thirugnanasambandar

Question 5.
Marcopolo recorded the incident of _____ and poiigamy practised by the sings in his travel account
(a) Child Marriage
(b) Sati
(c) Untouchability
(d) Chaild Labour
Answer:
(b) Sati

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ were landlords who acted as spokesmen in the Ur.
2. Arikesari Maravarman is identified with the ______ ,the persecutor of Jain.
3. Parantaka I defeated the Pandya king ______ who feld the country in 920.
4. Madurai has been popularly venerated as ______

Answer

1. The Urai
2. Kun pandian
3. Rajasimha
4. Kooda

III. Match the following :

Answer:

1. iii
2. iv
3. i
4. ii

IV. True or False :

Question 1.
Vati-vaykkal is a traditional type of harnessing rain in the Cauvery delta.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
During the Pandya period trade was carried out by two guild like groups anju-vannattar and manigramattar.
Answer:
(False) Correct statement: During the Chola period trade was carried out by two guild like groups anju-vannattar and manigramattar.

Question 3.
The Chera ruler, the chief of Malanadu, accepted his feudatory position and paid tribute to Sundarapandyan.
Answer:
True

V. Match the statement with the reason. Tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Statement : Rajendra chola I matched his father in his ability to expand the empire.
Reason : The Chola empire remained a powerful force in South India during his reign,
(a) Statement and Reason are correct.
(b) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(c) Statement is wrong, Reason is correct.
(d) Both statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Statement and Reason are correct.

Question 2.
Statement : Arikesari is alleged to have impale 8000 Saivites on stakes.
Reason : Arikesari had an anti-Jain attitude.
(a) Statement is correct, Reason is wrong.
(b) Statement is wrong, Reason is correct.
(c) Statement and Reason are correct.
(d) Both Statement and Reason are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement is wrong. Reason is correct

Question 3.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. During the Pandya rule, horse trade became brisk
2. Those who were trading in horses were called Kudirai chetties
3. Horses were needed only for trading purpose.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii)

Question 4.
Pick out the odd one.
(a) Vijayalaya
(b) Sundarapandyan
(c) Rajaraja I
(d) Rajendra
Answer:
(b) Sundarapandyan

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
(a) Provinces – mandalams
(b) Kurrams – groups of village
(c) Ur – town
(d) gramam – village
Answer:
(c) Ur – town

VI. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
How were the landowning groups called during the Pandya rule?
Answer:
Bumiputtirar or Vellalar

Question 2.
What was the average cost of a horse used for trading in Pandya Kingdom?
Answer:
220 dinars of red gold.

Question 3.
Name the place where Sundarapandyan defeated Someswara.
Answer:
Kannanur.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
For what purposes were horses used during Pandya rule?
Answer:
Horses were used for trading, ceremonial purposes and also to fight wars.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the administrative system of the chola period.

1. The Chola rulers established a well organised system of administration.
2. The empire, was divided into provinces or mandalams. Each mandalam was sub-divided into naadus.Within each naadu, there were many kurrams (groups of villages). The lowest unit was the gramam (village).

Question 3.
What were the responsibilities of the Local Governannce committees in the chola period?
Answer:
The committees took care of irrigation, roads, temples, gardens, collection of revenue and conduct of religious festivals.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
What was the impact of attitude of Pandya kings towards different sects of religions?
Answer:

1. The Pandya rulers were impartial towards Saivism and Vaishnavism. Temples of both sects were patronised through grants, tax-exemption and renovation.
2. The great Saiva and Vaishnava saints (Nayanmars and Alwars) contributed to the growth of Tamil literature.

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The Secret of the Machines Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions briefly.

The Secret Of The Machines Question 1.
Who does ‘we’ refer to in the first stanza?
(a) Human beings
(b) Machines
Answer:
(b) Machines

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Questions And Answers Question 2.
Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
The speakers are the Machines which is the brain child of man. The listeners are the readers of this poem.

10th English Poem The Secret Of Machines Question 3.
What metals are obtained from ores and mines?
Answer:
The metals obtained from ores are iron ores and minerals from mines.

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Summary Question 4.
Mention a few machines which are hammered to design
Answer:
Pulley – Power lift, The Cutting Wedge, The Wheel and Axle are a few machines which are hammered to design.

The Secret Of Machines Figure Of Speech Question 5.
Mention the names of a few machines that run on water, coal or oil.
Answer:
Power Station, Pipeline transport, Water Heaters, Train, Car, Plane, Ship are a few machines that run on water, coal or oil.

10th English Poem The Secret Of The Machines Question 6.
Mention a few machines used for pulling, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, reading, and writing etc.
Answer:
Pulling – Pulley, Winch, Elevator, Windlass, Pushing – Motor Engines, Lifting – Crane, „ Hoist, Driving – Car, Omnibus, Caravan, Printing – Typewriter, Computer printer, Fax machine, Ploughing – Tractor, Reading and Writing – Computer, Cellular Phones The above are a few machines used for pulling, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, reading, and writing.

The Secret Of The Machines Memory Poem Question 7.
Are machines humble to accept the evolution of human brain? Why?
Answer:
The machines humble themselves only before God and not humble to accept the evolution, of human brain since they warn us to be humble and tell us about their power to wipe out mankind. (The poetic lines related with the answer to this question is not given in the textbook.)

10th Poem The Secret Of Machines Question 8.
What feelings are evoked in us by the machines in this poem?
Answer:
Pride and superiority are the feelings evoked in us by the machines in this poem. There is also the feeling of fear and perusal that no error in handling the machinery should take place.

10th English Unit 5 Poem Question 9.
‘And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:’
Which of the following do the machines want to prove from this line?
(a) Once Machines are fed with fuel, they take a very long time to start.
(b) Once Machines are fed with fuel, they start quickly.
Answer:
(b) Once Machines are fed with fuel, they start quickly.

The Secret Of Machines Questions And Answers Question 10.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
(c) Open conditional clause is used in the given line. Why is the future tense ‘will set’ and ‘will serve’ used both in the ‘if clause’ and in the ‘main clause?’
(d) Do the machines serve us twenty four hours a day?
(e) Rewrite the given lines with the ending ‘365 days a year.’
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.
(c) The future tense ‘will set’ and ‘will serve’ is used both in the ‘if clause’ and in the ‘main clause’ to indicate surety and futurity.
(d) Yes, the machines serve us round the clock and non-stop the entire day.
(e) Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play, lend us your ear:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We ’ll serve you three hundred and twenty four hours a year!

Additional Questions

The Secret Of Machines Poem Question 1.
Which stanza shows us that the machines have mastered almost all the common ”
human activities?
Answer:
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Question 2.
Is there anything that the machines are incapable of doing?
Answer:
Machines cannot detect a lie. Besides, machines cannot emote nor comprehend feelings. Therefore, machines are incapable of loving, pitying or forgiving.

Secret Of Machines Poem Question 3.
What is the warning issued by the machines?
Answer:
We must accept the fact that our dependency on machines are increasing day by day. A . time will come when people will depend on a machine to wake them from sleep and then to put them back to sleep, walk and eat. If this really happens, life will be different, similar to a robotic life – without feelings, sympathy, pity, forgiveness and love.

Secret Of The Machines Question 4.
Which lines tell us that for every little input, the machines are able to provide constant, daily service to humans?
Answer:
Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
‘And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Pdf Question 5.
How did machines come to life?
Answer:
Machines had taken a long way before they came to life. First their basic raw building materials were dug out as iron ores from ore-beds and minerals from mines. After processing ores in the hot furnaces, metals were formed and every machine was given a specific shape by casting and hammering. This then followed a more accurate process which includes cutting and measuring and tooling.

The Secret Of The Machines Poem Figures Of Speech Question 6.
Can we really rely upon machines?
Answer:
No, we cannot always rely on machines as with people. Suddenly some simple apparatus will fail. If the machine is faulty, it can even go to the extent of killing us.

The Secret Of The Machines Questions And Answers Question 7.
Should we depend on machines?
Answer:
To an extent, we should depend on machines in transport, communication and education, which mostly get complicated. This is inevitable as we move further into a technological age of computers and increasing automation. We must accept the fact that our lives depend on machines day by day.

The Secret Of Machines Poem Summary Question 8.
What do machines symbolise?
Answer:
Machines symbolise man’s progress.

B. Write your favourite stanza from the poem and find the rhyming scheme.

Though our smoke may hide the Heavens from your eyes, a
It will vanish and the stars will shine again, b
Because, for all our power and weight and size, a
We are nothing more than children of your brain! a

C. Read the poem and find the Sines for the following poetic devices or write your own example.

Alliteration:
filed to fit; pull and push; print and plough; run and race; hide the heavens;

Own Example:

1. The cat, clawing the couch is creating chaos.
2. Michael made mellow music on the mike.
3. Rudolph the red-nosed reindeer raced rapidly from the room.

Assonance:
Oil is all; pull and push; weave and heat; fly and dive

Own Example:

1. mellow wedding bells
2. crumbling thunder
3. she bleats when she speaks

Personification:
Some water, coal and oil is all we ask We can pull and push and lift and drive Bui remember, please, the Law by which we live We are nothing more than children of your brain!

Own Example:

1. Two Sunflowers Move into the Yellow Room.
2. The popcorn leapt out of the bowl.
3. The sun glared at me from the sky.
4. The fire ran wild.

Simile:
Nil

Own Example:

1. The flowers were as soft as thoughts of budding love.
2. You are soft as the nesting dove.
3. She hung her head like a dying flower.
4. Her eyes are like the eyes of statues.

Additional Questions

Anaphora: Anaphora is the technique of repeating a specific word or phrase at the beginning of a line or passage. The repetition of a word can intensify the overall meaning of the piece. We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit.
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race (jump) and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!
Own Example

1. Charles Dickens – It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it was the season of Light, it was the season of Darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was the winter of despair.
2. Winston Churchill – We shall fight in France, we shall fight on the seas and oceans, we shall fight with growing confidence.
3. Martin Luther King Jr’s – “I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: I have a dream that one day on the red hills of Georgia the sons of former slaves and the sons of former slave owners will be able to sit down together.

Answer each of the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 – 150 words.

Question 1.
Describe in your own words how the poem, The Secret of the Machines’ by Rudyard Kipling has an importance to current life.
Answer:
This poem written at the beginning of the twentieth century is about Industrialization. The poet starts by describing how the machines are created, wrought and taken from the ore-bed and mines. The only requirement for the machines is water, coal and oil. Further, Kipling enumerates the various skills of machines, such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, running, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing. Machines do. exactly as it is programmed.

These machines have no feelings and any wrong handling can be dangerous for they are just machines with power invented by humans. The first intention of the poem reveals the progress of machines which is indeed a good thing for mankind. They make many things easier and facilitate the work of the humans. The second purpose is to express that a machine can never replace a human-being, because a machine is devoid of feelings being the child of human brain.

Hence man has full control over it, dependent on humans. By choosing the headline, “The secret of the machines” the poet wants to simplify that machines also have secret flaws where they don’t possess feelings nor identify a lie. Any slip in handling it means instant death.

At the time of mechanization, people gave importance to machines. So Rudyard Kipling wanted to make known the advantages and disadvantages of machines. I have come to the conclusion that the poem by Rudyard Kipling still has a current importance today and that for all advantages there are also disadvantages while using machines.

‘Industrialisation based on machinery, is a revolution wrought by technology’.

Question 2.
What is the theme of the poem?
Answer:
The theme of the poem is a period when man gives more importance to industrialization. To live a life man will depend on machines for Machines will make many things easier and facilitate the work of the human beings. The most important fact is that any wrong handling of the machines can be extremely dangerous for it cannot understand a lie. This poem brings out the greatness of modem technology. The ability to change the nature of all things is also vividly explained.

However Machines cannot replace human-beings for they do know how to emote or understand feelings. After all, machines are just the brain child . of a man and not the creation of God Almighty. Therefore there will be fatal disasters, if man doesn’t know to handle it. An important concept in Kipling is ‘the Law by which we live’. It is an unshakeable moral imperative. In this case, the machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for human beings to understand.

‘The country that is more developed industrially shows the underdeveloped it’s own future.’

Question 3.
Elucidate – We are nothing more than children of your brain.
Answer:
“The Secret of the Machines” looks back to the poems rejoicing modem technology which had pre-occupied Kipling during the mid-1990s. This poem by Rudyard Kipling, a famous British poet, is about the status of machines in the age of the industrial progress. I The poet qualifies machines to define the situation from their point of view! In many of those poems it is the machines themselves who speak, taking on human characteristics and feelings.

In “The Secret of the Machines” the anthropomorphism is choral, with the machines conveying their message in a collective chant, informing the reader, posing rhetorical questions, offering a stem warning about their potential strength and finally submitting to their masters – the human brain. This is yet another example of Kipling’s constant, though often tilted is the denial of religion. The machines have the ability to change the environment of all created things except The Gods, the creator of human- beings.

The machines assert that they have produced a kind of smoke-screen which is momentarily covering the fact that it is you, the human beings, who are the true gods, with the machines nothing more than children of your brain! If the machines are to function to j *, their full capacity they must be dutifully controlled by the Gods who have created them. That is why it is so important for man to understand the Law that machines ‘are not built to comprehend a lie.’

‘ Your beliefs become your thoughts
Your thoughts-your words
Technology is your Destiny. ’

Read the following excerpts from the poem and answer the questions that follow:
(i) “We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit—
We were cast and wrought and hammered to design,
We were cut and filed and tooled and gauged to fit.”
(a) What is a furnace?
(b) What is ‘wrought’?
(c) What is hammered?
(d) Why is it hammered?
(e) Give the meaning of the word, ‘gauged’.
(f) What was taken from the ore-bed and the mine?
(g) What is a pit?
(h) All the four lines begin with the words, ‘We were’. Which poetic device does it indicate?
Answer:
(a) A furnace is a highly heated oven to melt ores in large quantity.
(b) Wrought is the third form of the verb, ‘work’.
(c) The molten metal is hammered.
(d The molted metal is hammered to shape it.
(e) The meaning of the word, ‘gauged’ is measured.
(f) Raw materials for machines such as the iron ore from ore-bed and minerals from mines are taken.
(g) A pit is a mine.
(h) It indicates the poetic device, ‘Anaphora’.

(ii) “Some water, coal, and oil is all we ask,
And a thousandth of an inch to give us play:
And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) What is the requirement of the machines?
(b) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(c) What does the second line indicate?
(d) What is the rhyme scheme of the above lines?
(e) Explain the poetic device in the last line.
(f) And a thousandth of an inch to give us play – Explain
(g) Give the rhyming word for play and task.
Answer:
(a) The requirement of the machines is water, coal and oil.
(b) Assonance is the figure of speech. The initial vowel sound in oil and all makes it an assonance.
(c) The second line indicates the close arrangement of the nuts, screws and bolts.
(d) ‘abab’ is the rhyme scheme in the above lines.
(e) The poetic device is hyperbole which is the exaggeration of the machine working round the clock without any rest.
(f) Parts are closely arranged with bolts, nuts, leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels.
(g) The rhyming word for play is day and for task is ask.

(iii) “We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race (jump) and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write”
(a) What is meant by ‘haul’?
(b) What is the figure of speech in the last line?
(c) Pick out the alliterated words on the third line.
(d) Give the example of Anaphora in the above stanza.
(e) What is the rhyme scheme of the above four lines?
(f) Mention the figure of speech in the first line.
(g) What is personified?
(h) Write the alliterated words in the second line.
(i) Give the rhyming word for drive and light.
Answer:
(a) ‘Haul’ means ‘carry’.
(b) The figure of speech in the last line is Imagery.
(c) The alliterated words are ‘run and race’.
(d) The words ‘we can’ is the example of Anaphora in the above stanza.
(e) The rhyme scheme is ‘abab’ in the above four lines.
(f) Personification is the figure of speech in the first line.
(g) The Machines are personified since they talk about the various tasks it performs.
(h) The alliterated words are print and plough.
(i) The rhyming words are dive and write respectively for drive and light.

(iv) “But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!”
(a) What can a machine not understand?
(b) What can a machine not do?
(c) What will happen if a mistake is done by man?
(d) What do you understand by the word, ‘slip’?
(e) What is the Law by which a machine lives?
(f) What is the warning given in the above lines?
(g) What is the reminder given by the machines?
Answer:
(a) The machine cannot understand if the command is a lie.
(b) A machine cannot love, show pity or forgive.
(c) If a mistake is done by man, they will be destroyed and put to death.
(d) A slip is nothing but a mistake.
(e) The Law is the way in which the machine is designed and programmed to work when the command is given.
(f) The caution is the perils and hazards of mechanization.
(g) The reminder given by the machines is the law by which a machine lives to do the work of a man.

(v) “Though our smoke may hide the Heavens from your eyes,
It will vanish and the stars will shine again,
Because, for all our power and weight and size,
We are nothing more than children of your brain!”
(a) What is the brain child of man?
(b) What is the figure of speech in the first line?
(c) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
(d) From where does the smoke come?
(e) What does the smoke hide?
(f) What is of no use in front of God?
Answer:
(a) The brain child of man is the machines made by man.
(b) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(c) The alliterated words are hide the Heavens.
(d) The smoke comes from the factories.
(e) The smoke hides the sight of the heavens in the sky where the stars shine bright.
(f) The power, weight and size is of no use in front of God.

The Secret of the Machines (Rudyard Kipling)
Literary Devices At A Glance (Figures of Speech)

The Secret Of The Machines by Rudyard Kipling About the Poet:
A noble prize winner at 42, Rudyard Kipling was born on December 30, 1865, in Mumbai, India. He was educated in England but returned to India in 1882. He was fascinated by the advance made in science and technology and mechanisation through the Historical Revolution. A decade later, Kipling married Caroline Baluster and settled in Brattle boro, Vermont, where he wrote The Jungle Book (1894), among a host of other works that made him successful. Kipling was the recipient of the 1907 Nobel Prize in I Literature. He died in 1936.

The Secret of the Machines Summary:

Introduction:
The poem by Rudyard Kipling deals with problems of technology and automation. The unquestioned utility of man-made inventions is highlighted.

Process of making machines
In the first stanza, the poet highlights the way machines are shaped and how they are managed. The raw material, iron- ore and minerals for machines are taken from the ores and mines accordingly. They were further melted in the blast furnace and in the mine. Metals were melted and turned into various designs using the hammer to be fashioned. They were also cut into different sizes and measured fit according to the required weight.

Machines:
Second stanza states that the only requirement for the machine is water, coal and oil. The moving parts may have a clearance of a thousandth of an inch which may be the permissible variation from the required dimensions. These parts are closely arranged with bolts and nuts leaving only less than an inch for the movement of wheels. With such a setup, the machines are willing to work round the clock, non-stop without any rest.

Machines reduce manual jobs:
In the third stanza, the machines elucidate how they can serve human race by doing all the possible human activities mastered by machines. They say they can do various tasks such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, mining, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing.

Friend indeed!
The machines in the fourth stanza caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it Jives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Man-made wonder:
In the last stanza the design of the machine just changes. The dream of the “perfect machinery” suddenly seems to fade out. Machines aren’t perfect. Nature always wins over. Machines aren’t miraculous creations but just a creation of the human brain. Therefore, machines although capable of great deeds, are still nothing more then creations of the human brain

Conclusion:
The use of machines in everyday life has clearly established the fact that without them life comes to a standstill. Such is our dependence on machines which carry the instructions given by us. The perpetual use of machines in all fields shows the scalable heights it has reached.

The Secret Of The Machines Glossary:
Textual:

Additional:

We hope the data given here will benefit you to the fullest extent at the time of preparation. For better understanding of English subject this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions for Class 10th English Poem Chapter 5 The Secret of the Machines PDF is the best resource. Download & ace up your preparation. Keep in touch with us and get the latest information on Tamilnadu State board Textbook Solutions PDF.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

11th Computer Science Chapter 4 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Operating system is a ……………….
(a) Application Software
(b) Hardware
(c) System Software
(d) Component
Answer:
(c) System Software

Theoretical Concepts Of Operating System Question 2.
Identify the usage of Operating Systems ……………….
(a) Easy interaction between the human and computer
(b) Controlling input & output Devices
(c) Managing use of main memory
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Computer Operating System In Tamil Pdf Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of an Operating System?
(a) Process Management
(b) Memory Management
(c) Security management
(d) Compiler Environment
Answer:
(d) Compiler Environment

Samacheer Kalvi Advantages And Disadvantages Question 4.
Which of the following OS is a Commercially licensed Operating system?
(a) Windows
(b) UBUNTU
(c) FEDORA
(d) REDHAT
Answer:
(a) Windows

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Computer Science Question 5.
Which of the following Operating systems support Mobile Devices?
(a) Windows 7
(b) Linux
(c) BOSS
(d) iOS
Answer:
(d) iOS

Question 6.
File Management manages ……………….
(a) Files
(b) Folders
(c) Directory systems
(d) All the Above
Answer:
(d) All the Above

Question 7.
Interactive Operating System provides ……………….
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)
(b) Data Distribution
(c) Security Management
(d) Real Time Processing
Answer:
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)

Question 8.
Android is a ……………….
(a) Mobile Operating system
(b) open Source
(c) Developed by Google
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
Which of the following refers to Android operating system’s version?
(a) JELLY BEAN
(b) UBUNTU
(c) OS/2
(d) MITTIKA
Answer:
(a) JELLY BEAN

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of memory management in Operating System?
Answer:

1. Allocating memory is easy and cheap
2. Any free page is ok, OS can take first one out of.list it keeps
3. Eliminates external fragmentation
4. Data (page frames) can be scattered all over PM
5. Pages are mapped appropriately anyway
6. Allows demand paging and pre – paging
7. More efficient swapping
8. No need for considerations about fragmentation
9. Just swap out page least likely to be used

Question 2.
What is the multi – user Operating system?
Answer:
A Multi – user Operating system is a computer operating system (OS) that allows multiple users on different computers or terminals to access a single system with one OS on it.

Question 3.
What is a GUI?
Answer:
GUI – Graphical User Interface – It allows the use of icons or other visual indicators to interact with electronic devices, rather than using only text via the command line. For example, all versions of Microsoft Windows utilize a GUI, whereas MS – DOS does not.

Question 4.
List out different distributions of Linux operating system.
Answer:
Different server distributions in Linux OS:

1. Ubuntu
2. Linux Mint
3. Debian
4. Fedora
5. RedHa.

Question 5.
What are the security management features available in Operating System?
Answer:
Security Management features:

1. File access level security
2. System level security
3. Network level securny.

Question 6.
What is multi – processing?
Answer:
Multiprocessing is one of the features of operating system. It has two or more processors for a single running process. Each processor works on different parts of the same task or two or more different tasks.

Question 7.
What are the different Operating Systems used in computer?
Answer:
Different operating system used:

1. Single user, single Task Operating system
2. Multi user operating system
3. Multiprocessing operating system
4. Distributed Operating system

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Time – sharing features?
Answer:
Advantages and disadvantages of Time Sharing Option (TSO)
Advantages:

• Each task and each user get its time.
• Systems have to give time to these application individual tasks and other applications also, so that all system behave correctly.
• Reduces the CPU ideal time

Disadvantages:

• Problem in Reliability
• It consumes many resources so it need special operating systems.
• Need High specification hardware

Question 2.
Explain and List out examples of mobile operating system.
Answer:
A Mobile Operating System (or mobile OS) is an operating system that is specifically designed to run on mobile devices such as phones, tablets, smart watches, etc.
Example: Apple IOS

Google android : Android is a mobile OS developed by Google, based on Linux and designed for smart phones and tabs. iOS was developed by Apple.
Example : Android, ColorOS, LGUX, MIUI.

Question 3.
What are the differences between Windows and Linux Operating system?
Answer:
Windows:

• Microsoft windows is a proprietary OS which is commercial.
• Windows can be modified only by the company that owns it.
• Difficult to customize.
• Vulnerable to virus and malware attacks.

Linux:

• Linux is open source, i.e., free licensed.
• Linux can be modified by anyone.
• Easy to customize.
• More secure.

Question 4.
Explain the process management algorithms in Operating System.
Answer:
The following algorithms are mainly used to allocate the job (process) to the processor: FIFO, SJF, Round Robin, Based on priority.

1. First In First Out (FIFO) Scheduling – This algorithm is based on queuing technique. Technically, the process that enters the queue first is executed first by the CPU, followed by the next and so on. The processes are executed in the order of the queue.
2. Shortest Job First (SJF) Scheduling – This algorithm works based on the size of the job being executed by the CPU.
3. Round Robin Scheduling – Round Robin (RR) Scheduling algorithm is designed especially -for time sharing systems, jobs are assigned and processor time in a circular method.
4. Based on priority – The given job (process) is assigned on a priority. The job which has higher priority is more important than ether jobs.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the concept of a Distributed Operating System.
Answer:
The data and application that are stored and processed on multiple physical locations across the world over the digital network (intemet/intranet). The Distributed Operating System is used to access shared data and files that reside in any machine around the world. The user can handle the data from different locations. The users can access as if it is available on their own computer.

The advantages of distributed Operating System are as follows:

1. A user at one location can make use of all the resources available at another location over the network.
2. Many computer resources can be added easily in the network
3. Improves the interaction with the customers and clients.
4. Reduces the load on the host computer.

Question 2.
Explain the main purpose of an operating system.
Operating system has become essential to enable the users to design applications without the knowledge of the computer’s internal structure of hardware.
Operating system manages all the software and hardware. Most of the time there are many different computer programmes running at the same time, they all need to access the computers, CPU, memory and storage. The need of operating system is basically – an interface between the user and the hardware.

Operating System works as translator, while it translates the user request into machine language(Binary language), processes it and then sends it back to Operating System. Operating System converts processed information into user readable form.

Uses of Operating Systems:

1. to ensure that a computer can be used to extract what the user wants it do.
2. Easy interaction between the users and computers.
3. Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on (Booting).
4. Controlling Input and Output Devices
5. Manage the utilisation of main memory.
6. Providing security to user programs.

Question 3.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of open source operating systems.
Answer:
The benefits of open source are tremendous and have gained huge popularity in the IT field in recent years. They are as follows:

1. Open source (OS) is free to use, distribute and modify.
2. Open source is independent of the company as author who originally created it.
3. It is accessible to everyone. Anyone can debug the coding.
4. It doesn’t have the problem of incompatible formats that exits in proprietary software.
5. It is easy to customize as per our needs.
6. Excellent support will be provided by programmers who will assist in making solutions.

Some of the disadvantages are:

1. Latest hardware are incompatible, i.e. lack of device drivers.
2. It is less user friendly and not as easy to use.
3. There may be some indirect costs involved such as paying for external support.
4. Malicious users can potentially view it and exploit any vulnerability.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Software is classified into ………………. types.
(a) five
(b) two
(c) four
(d) six
Answer:
(b) two

Question 2.
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as ………………. categories.
(a) 7
(b) 3
(c) 8
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not an algorithm?
(a) NTFS
(b) FIFO
(c) SJE
(d) Round Robin
Answer:
(a) NTFS

Question 4.
The operating system provides ………………. levels of securities to the user end.
(a) three
(b) five
(c) seven
(d) ten
Answer:
(a) three

Question 5.
Which one of the following is not a prominent operating system?
(a) UNIX
(b) IOS
(c) GUI
(d) Android
Answer:
(c) GUI

Question 6.
………………. is a family of multitasking.
(a) LINUX
(b) Microsoft Windows
(c) UNIX
(d) iOS
Answer:
(a) LINUX

Question 7.
Which one of the following comes under proprietary licence?
(a) Apple Mac OS
(b) Google’s Android
(c) UNIX
(d) LINUX
Answer:
(a) Apple Mac OS

Question 8.
The LINUX operating system was originated in ……………….
(a) 1996
(b) 1998
(c) 2000
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

Question 9.
………………. is the second most popular mobile operating system globally after Android.
(a) Microsoft Windows
(b) iOS
(c) UNIX
(d) LINUX
Answer:
(b) iOS

Question 10.
Which one of the following is an application software to play audio and video files?
(a) Audio Player
(b) Media Player
(c) VLC Player
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) VLC Player

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a System software?
(a) Operating System
(b) Language Processor
(c) Both a & b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 12.
Which one of the following is a set of instructions that perform specific tasks?
(a) Hardware
(b) Software
(c) Processor
(d) I/O devices
Answer:
(b) Software

Question 13.
Hardware and software are managed by ……………….
(a) GUI
(b) OS
(c) Bootstrap
(d) keyboard
Answer:
(b) OS

Question 14.
The process of starting computer operation automatically when the power is turned on is called ……………….
(a) Booting
(b) Compiling
(c) executing
(d) Storing
Answer:
(a) Booting

Question 15.
An OS that allows only a single user to perform a task at a time is called as ……………….
(a) Single user os
(b) Single task os
(c) Both a & b
(d) Multi tasking os
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 16.
Identify the single user and single task OS?
(a) MS – DOS
(b) UNIX
(c) LINUX
(d) iOS
Answer:
(a) MS – DOS

Question 17.
Identify the multi-user OS?
(a) Windows
(b) Linux
(c) UNIX
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 18.
To build a cheap computer, ………………. os is used.
(a) Windows
(b) Raspbion OS
(c) iOS
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Raspbion OS

Question 19.
GUI stands for ……………….
(a) Geo User Interact
(b) Global User Inter Change
(c) Graphical User Interface
(d) Global User Interface
Answer:
(c) Graphical User Interface

Question 20.
A ………………. is the unit of work or program in a computer.
(a) Process
(b) Code
(c) Concept
(d) Log file
Answer:
(a) Process

Question 21.
The operating system processes are executed by ……………….
(a) User code
(b) System code
(c) Task
(d) Program
Answer:
(b) System code

Question 22.
System level security is provided by ………………. in a multi user environment.
(a) Permission
(b) execute
(c) Password
(d) Security code
Answer:
(c) Password

Question 23.
NTFS is a ……………….
(a) game
(b) file management technique
(c) os
(d) System level security
Answer:
(b) file management technique

Question 24
………………. os is used to access shared data that resides in any machine around the world.
(a) Time sharing
(b) fixed
(c) MS – Dos
(d) distributed
Answer:
(d) distributed

Question 25.
Unix was developed in the year ……………….
(a) 1970
(b) 1980
(c) 1990
(d) 1960
Answer:
(a) 1970

Question 26.
Unix was developed by?
(a) Ken Thompson
(b) Dennis Ritchie
(c) Both a & b
(d) Ricki Mascitti
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 27.
………………. is a windows alternative open source operating system.
(a) React OS
(b) Boss
(c) Redhat
(d) Fedora
Answer:
(a) React OS

Question 28.
Google has developed ………………. for wrist watches.
(a) Android wear
(b) Android wrist
(c) Android wrist watches
(d) Android watches
Answer:
(a) Android wear

Question 29.
Which among the following is not an android moblie open source versions?
(a) Dotnut
(b) Froyo
(c) Nougat
(d) Alpha
Answer:
(a) Dotnut

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is an operating system?
Answer:
An operating system is a software which serves as the interface between a user and a computer.

Question 2.
What are the different types of Operating System?
Answer:
Single user and single task operating system, Multi user operating system, Multi – Processing Operating system, Time sharing Operating system.

Question 3.
What is Real Time operating system?
Answer:
It is a multi – tasking and multi user operating system designed for real time based applications such as robotics, weather and climate prediction software etc.,

Question 4.
What is meant by Distributed Operating system?
Answer:
The data and applications are stored and processed on multiple locations in an around world over the digital network.

Question 5.
What are the advantages of Distributed Operating system?
Answer:
Resources can be used in different locations. Improves interaction with customers and clients. Reduces load on host computers. The data can be exchanged via email and chat.

Question 6.
What is an Interactive Operating system?
Answer:
This is the operating system that provides a GUI through which the user can navigate and interact.

Question 7.
Explain Round Robin Scheduling.
Answer:
This type of scheduling is also known as Time sharing scheduling process. In this, each program is given a fixed amount of time to execute.

Question 8.
What is Memory Management?
Answer:
It is the main functionality of an operating system which handles or manages primary memory and moves processes back and forth between main memory and disk during execution.

Question 9.
Mention different management techniques?
Answer:
Single continuous allocation, Partitioned allocation, Paged memory management, Segmented memory management.

Question 10.
What is Linux?
Answer:
Linux is a family of open-source operating systems.

Question 11.
What is an Android?
Answer:
Android is a mobile operating system developed by Google, based on the Linux and designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets.

Question 12.
What are the types of software?
Answer:
Application software and System software

Question 13.
What is Process Management?
Answer:
Process management is a function that includes creating and deleting processes and providing mechanisms for processes to communicate and synchronize with each other.

Question 14.
What is Round Robin Scheduling?
Answer:
This algorithm is designed especially for time sharing systems.

Question 15.
What are the 3 levels of security?
Answer:

1. File Access Level
2. System Level
3. Network Level.

Question 16.
Name an OS which is Multitasking and Multi – user operating system.
Answer:
UNIX.

PART – 3
III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on Android.
Answer:
Android:
Android is a mobile operating system developed by Google, based on Linux and designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. Google has further developed Android TV for televisions, Android Auto for cars and Android Wear for wrist watches, each with a specialized user interface. Variants of Android are also used on game consoles, digital cameras, PCs and other electronic gadgets.

Question 2.
Why the operating system is needed?
Answer:
Need for operating system:
Operating System has become essential to enable the users to design applications without the knowledge of the computer’s internal structure of hardware. Operating System manages all the Software and Hardware. Most of the time there are many different computer programmes running at the same time, they all need to access the Computers, CPU, Memory and Storage. The need of Operating System is basically – an interface between the user and hardware.

Operating System works as translator, while it translates the user request into machine language(Binary language), processes it and then sends it back to Operating System. Operating System converts processed information into user readable form.

Question 3.
Write a note on OS for mobile devices.
Answer:
Operating systems for mobile devices:
Mobile devices such as phones, tablets and MP3 players are different from desktop and laptop computers and hence they need special Operating Systems. Examples of mobile Operating Systems are Apple iOS and Google Android. The iOS running on an iPad is Operating systems for mobile devices generally are not as fully featured as those made for desktop and laptop computers and they are not able to run all software.

Question 4.
Write a note on iOS – iphone OS.
Answer:
iOS (formerly iPhone OS) is a mobile Operating System created and developed by Apple Inc., exclusively for its hardware. It is the Operating System that presently powers many of the company’s mobile devices, including the iPhone, iPad and iPod Touch. It is the second most popular mobile Operating System globally after Android.

Question 5.
What is a software? Explain its types in detail.
Answer:
A software is a set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.
Types of Software:
Software is classified into two types:

1. Application Software
2. System Software

Application Software:
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more.

System Software:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 6.
Write note on single user OS?
Answer:
An os allows only a single user to perform a task at a time. It is called as a single user and single task os.
Example : MS – DOS.

Question 7.
Write note on Raspbion os?
Answer:
Raspbion os is a platform that is designed to teach how to build a computer, working principle of every part of a circuit board, write code apps or games. The platform is available in pre – designed kits.

Question 8.
Explain the memory management activities done by os?
Answer:

1. Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
2. Determining which processes and data to more in and out of memory.
3. Allocation and de – allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage collection).

Question 9.
Define Process?
Answer:

1. A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer.
2. A word processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process.
3. A system task, such as sending output to printer or screen can also be called as a process.

Question 10.
How are the processes classified on process management?
Answer:
A computer consists of a collection of process they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating system process which is executed by system code.
2. User processes which is executed by user code.

Question 11.
Name the activities done by os related with the process management?
Answer:

1. Scheduling processes and threads on the cpu.
2. Creating and deleting both user and system processes.
3. Suspending and resuming processes.
4. Providing mechanisms for process synchronization.
5. Providing mechanisms for process communication.

Question 12.
Write note an Fault Tolerance?
Answer:

1. The operating systems should be robust.
2. When there is a fault, the operating system should not crash, instead the os have fault tolerance capabilities and retain the existing state of system.

Question 13.
Write note on File Allocations Table (FAT).
Answer:

1. Any type of data in a computer is stored in the form of flies and directories / folders through File Allocation Table (FAT).
2. The FAT stores general information about files like file name, type (text or binary), size, starting address and access mode (sequential / indexed / indexed – sequential / direct / relative).

Question 14.
Give an example for Time – Sharing concept?
Answer:
Let us assume that there are three processes called P_1, P_2, P₃ and time allocated for each process 30,40, 50 minutes. If the process P₁ completes with in 20 minutes then processor takes the next Process P₁ for the execution. If the process P₂ could not complete within 40 minutes, then the current process P₂ will be paused and switch over to the next process P₃.

Question 15.
Write note on React OS.
React os is a windows – alternative open source os which is being developed on the principles of windows – without using any of the microsoft code.

Question 16.
List any 6 Android Mobile Open Source OS.
Answer:

1. Honey comb
2. Jelly Bean
3. Kitkat
4. Lollipop
5. Marshmallow
6. Nougat

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write six uses of operating system.
Answer:
The main use of Operating System is

1. to ensure that a computer can be used to extract what the user wants it do.
2. Easy interaction between the users and computers.
3. Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on (Booting).
4. Controlling Input and Output Devices
5. Manage the utilization of main memory.
6. Providing security to user programs.

Question 2.
Draw the diagram for the key features of the operating system.
Answer:

Question 3.
Explain User Interface?
Answer:
User Interface:
User interface is one of the significant feature in Operating System. The only way that user can make interaction with a computer. If the computer interface is not user – friendly, the user slowly reduces the computer usage from their normal life. This is the main reason for the key success of GUI (Graphical User Interface) based Operating System. The GUI is a window based system with a pointing device to direct I/O, choose from menus, make selections and a keyboard to enter text. Its vibrant colours attract the user very easily. Beginners are impressed by the help and pop up window message boxes. Icons are playing vital role of the particular application.

Now Linux distribution is also available as GUI based Operating System. The following points are considered when User Interface is designed for an application.

1. The user interface should enable the user to retain this expertise for a longer time.
2. The user interface should also satisfy the customer based on their needs.
3. The user interface should save user’s precious time. Create graphical elements like Menus,Window,Tabs, Icons and reduce typing work will be an added advantage of the Operating System.
4. The ultimate aim of any product is to satisfy the customer. The User Interface is also designed to satisfy the customer.
5. The user interface should reduce number of errors committed by the user with a little practice the user should be in a position to avoid errors (Error Log File)

Question 4.
Explain Memory Management?
Answer:
Memory Management:
Memory Management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory and assigning memory block (space) to various running programs to optimize overall computer performance. The Memory management involves the allocation of specific memory blocks to individual programs based on user demands. At the application level, memory management ensures the availability of adequate memory for each running program at all times.

The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.

The Operating System is responsible for the following activities in connection with memory management:

1. Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
2. Determining which processes (or parts of processes) and data to move in and out of memory.
3. Allocation and de – allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage Collection)

Question 5.
Explain process Management.
Answer:
Process Management:
Process management is function that includes creating and deleting processes and providing mechanisms for processes to communicate and synchronize with each other. A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer. A word processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process. A system task, such as sending output to a printer or screen, can also be called as a Process.

A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code.
2. User Processes which is execute by user code.

All these processes can potentially execute concurrently on a single CPU. A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.

The Operating System is responsible for the following activities associated with the process management:

1. Scheduling processes and threads on the CPUs.
2. Creating and deleting both user and system processes.
3. Suspending and resuming processes.
4. Providing mechanisms for process synchronization.
5. Providing mechanisms for process communication.

The following algorithms are mainly used to allocate the job (process) to the processor.

1. FIFO
2. SJF
3. Round Robin
4. Based on Priority

Students can Download English Poem 1 My Hobby: Reading Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 1 My Hobby: Reading

My Hobby Reading Poem Explanation of poetic lines

My Hobby Reading Poem Summary GLOSSARY

ajar – slightly open
breeding – procreation
cackle – informal laugh
constructing – establish / create
hobby – leisure time activity
rational – intelligence
read – educated
vigorous – powerful
without wings – without limits

1. Comprehension Questions.

My Hobby Reading Question 1.
What is the hobby of the poet?
Answer:
Reading is the hobby of the poet.

My Hobby Reading Question Answer Question 2.
What does ‘ajar’ mean ?
Answer:
‘Ajar’ means slightly open door.

My Hobby Reading Poem Question Answer Question 3.
Can the poet fly without wings ?
Answer:
No, the poet cannot fly without wings, but- his thoughts and imaginations can fly everywhere without wings.

My Hobby Poem 8th Standard Question 4.
What can children do to society if they read ?
Answer:
If all the children could read, they could construct a dynamic society.

My Hobby 8th Class Question 5.
What is theme of the poem?
Answer:
The theme of the poem is, ‘Reading hobby’.

2. On the basis of your understanding of the poem, tick the most suitable option to complete the statements.

3.Complete the table given below in order to understand the poem better.
Answer:

Figure Of Speech

a. Rhyming words :

A Tiny Little Plant
Deep in the heart of a little seed,
Lay buried so, so deep,
A tiny little plant fast asleep.
Out came the bright Sunshine,
Down crept its light,
Into the seed, too bright.
A little plant woke up to see,
How bright the world might be.

Answer the following:

My Hobby Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
List the rhyming words in the first three lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words – deep – asleep.

My Hobby Poem Question 2.
Which line in the poem rhymes with ‘Down crept its light’?
Answer:
Into the seed, too bright.

b. Rhyme Scheme:
Answer the following:

a. Identify the rhyme scheme of the given short poem.
My dog likes bones,
He eats them up,
He’s very sweet,
He’s just a pup.
Answer:
a b c b.

b. Complete this rhyme on your own with a abab rhyme scheme.
Peas porridge hot,
Peas porridge cold,
Answer:
Peas porridge in the pot Nine days old.

My Hobby: Reading Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension – Additional

My Hobby Reading Summary Question 1.
My hobby is reading
It helps me
In thought breeding.
It takes me to places
Near and far,
It keeps my rational
Doors ajar.

(a) What does the word ‘rational’ mean?
Answer:
‘Rational’ means intelligence.

(b) Pick out the rhyming words in these lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words : Reading – breeding; far – ajar.

(c) How does reading help the poet?
Answer:
Reading helps the poet to grow and cultivate good thoughts.

(d) Whose hobby was reading in the poem ‘My Hobby’ ?
Answer:
Reading was the hobby of the poet Arunachalam Chandrashekaran.

(e) What does the term ‘thought breeding1 mean?
Answer:
The term ‘thought breeding’ means cultivating many good thoughts in a person whose hobby is reading.

(f) How does reading take the poet near and far?
Answer:
When the poet reads about a content related to something near him and when he reads a content of something far, it takes him near and far.

(g) What are ‘rational doors’?
Answer:
The poet compares his mind to a room and reading habit are the doors of his mind.

2. It teaches me
To cackle and cry
Without wings
It lets me fly.

(a) Why should reading teach us both to laugh and cry?
Answer:
Life is made of both joy and sorrow. Reading helps us to take both equally.

b. How does the poet fly?
Answer:
The poet does not fly physically in the air. His thoughts expand and fly in all directions.

3. I wish
If all the children could read,
In constructing a vigorous society,
Then we shall succeed.

(a) Who can build a vigorous society?
Answer:
The children can build a vigorous society.

(b) How can we succeed?
Answer:
We can succeed, if we can build a dynamic, strong and powerful society.

(c) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
‘shall – succeed’ are the alliterated words.

II. Short Questions and Answers.

My Hobby Question Answer Question 1.
How does his hobby help him ?
Answer:
His hobby helps him to cultivate many good thoughts.

My Hobby Reading Poem Book Back Answers Question 2.
Where does the reading take him ?
Answer:
Reading takes him to the nearby as well as to the far and remote places.

Poem On My Hobby In English Question 3.
What does reading teach him ?
Answer:
Reading teaches him to laugh loudly and at the same time even to cry.

III. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Poem On My Hobby Question 1.
What are the five ways in which reading helps us?
Answer:
Reading hobby helps us to grow and cultivate many good thoughts. The content we read not only takes to nearby places but also to the remote and far areas according to what we read.
Reading habit enables to keep the doors of our mind unlocked and half open to permit intelligent and logical reasoning at the same time to prevent unwanted entry of bad and wrong things. Reading practices us to take in both happiness and sorrow in the same spirit. It teaches us to laugh loudly during happy times and to cry and let out sorrow during painful times.
Reading does not restrict or control our thoughts. Without wings it allows our thoughts to soar high and fly.

Question 2.
How can we form a ‘vigorous society’ according to the poet Arunachalam?
Answer:
According to the poet Arunachalam we can form a vigorous – active, strong, healthy and a dynamic society if all the children cultivate a reading habit, go to school, study and are educated. In such a society the people will be successful, prosper and flourish.

Poetic Devices in this poem.

The poet uses the following poetic devices in his poem, ‘My Hobby: Reading

1. Imagery: The poet weaves the advantages of reading hobby in his imagination.
a) The poet does not physically travel ‘near and far’, only his thoughts travel.
b) There is no literal door, the poet imagines his mind’s entrance as ‘door’,
c) The poet does not fly in the air. His thoughts, imaginations and ideas only made to ‘fly’ by his ‘ reading hobby.

2. Rhyme : This short poem has rhyming ending at every alternate line.
Reading and breeding; far and ajar; cry and fly; read and succeed.

3. Couplet: It is a fifteen-line poem. Each couplet .after the first line presents a different thought concept.
Example: Line 2, 3 tells about thought breeding, line 4,5 speaks of ‘rational door’.
Line 6, 7 about joy and sorrow, lines 8,9 flying without wings.

Pick out the rhyming words from the poem and write them in the table.

Warm up

Question 1.
What are your leisure time activities? Why do you do them?
Answer:
My leisure activities are watching television and singing. I do them because they relax my soul and body.

Question 2.
Do you read books? What types of books do you read?
Answer:
Yes, I read books. I read books of Enid Blyton, Ruskin Bond and Comic books.

My Hobby: Reading Summary

The poem is written in 2010 by Arunachalam Chandrashekharan, a professional in library and information sciences. His long term deep association with the books in his library has made him to script this poem on reading as a great hobby.

The poet declares in the first line itself that reading is his hobby. He says his reading hobby helps him to grow and cultivate many good thoughts. Those thoughts take the poet not only to the nearby places but also to the remote and far areas.

The poet compares his mind to a room and expresses that reading habit enables him to keep the doors of his mind unlocked and half open to permit intelligent and logical reasoning. At the same time, it prevents the unwanted entry of bad and wrong things. Reading practises the poet to take in both happiness and sorrow in the same spirit. It teaches him to laugh loudly during happy times and to cry and let out sorrow during painful times.

Reading does not restrict or control the thoughts of the poet. Without wings it allows his thoughts to soar high and fly.

The poet aspires that all the children should go to school and study, there should be no illiterates. He believes that if all the children are well educated, then they can build a dynamic, strong and powerful society. If such a society is created, we shall succeed and reach the pinnacle in our lives.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions Prose Chapter 5 Tech Bloomers

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Tech Bloomers Warm up:

1. What do you infer from the above pictures?
Answer:
Technology is dominating our lives.

2. Look at the above electronic gadgets. If you were given a chance to remodel a device, in which device you would bring in changes and what would be those changes?
Answer:
I will redesign the smartwatch. The look of the watch would be conventional orb. Only on pressing a button, a screen will appear and offer valuable services.

Tech Bloomers InText Questions

Tech Bloomers Questions And Answers Question a.
What is the future of technology?
Answer:
The future of technology is beyond our imagination but certainly possible with modern gadgets.

Tech Bloomers Summary Question b.
How many people in India suffer with disability?
Answer:
2.7 Crore people in India suffer with disability.

Tech Bloomers Question c.
Who is Kim?
Answer:
Kim is the Assistive Technologist at Alisha’s School.

10th English Tech Bloomers Question d.
How does Kim help Alisha?
Answer:
Kim introduced Alisha to Dragon Dictate, which had opened up the world to Alisha. It has made her more independent and she is able to study on her own.

Tech Bloomers Paragraph Question e.
Why is technology important according to David?
Answer:
Technology is important to David because it enables him to communicate and be independent.

Tech Bloomers Summary Pdf Question f.
Which instrument does David control with his eye movements?
Answer:
David uses a Liberator Communication Device, which he controls with his eye movements for his verbal communication.

Tech Bloomers Author Question g.
What devices help David to move from one place to other?
Answer:
David moves from one place to another in his electric chair with head switches. He uses ECO point Eye Gaze system to communicate and access the computer. He also checks Chelsea football team’s performance.

Tech Bloomers Textual Questions

A. Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Tech Bloomers Author Name Question 1.
What are the benefits of the internet to the common man?
Answer:
Technology impacts the environment, people and society as a whole. The Internet benefits a common man to travel, to communicate, to learn, to do business and to live in comfort.

Tech Bloomers Pdf Question 2.
Do you think technology has improved communication? How?
Answer:
Yes, technology has improved communication. Through a piece of technology called Dragon Dictate, Alisha who suffers from Cerebral palsy can speak now and the words appear on her screen. Then she can print them out. It made her achieve things which she had dream it.

Tech Bloomers 10th Lesson Question 3.
How does David operate computers with the Liberator Communication Device?
Answer:
David operates computers with the Liberator Communication Device by controlling it with his eye movements. It has a Bluetooth adapter. So it lets him use any PC or Mac by sending commands.

Tech Bloomers Short Summary Question 4.
Which devices are controlled using ACTIV controller?
Answer:
TV, Blu-ray and music players are controlled using ACTIV controller.

Tech Bloomers Theme Question 5.
Who says these words: “I want everyone to know the difference technology has made in my life”?
Answer:
Alisha says these words to make the world know the difference that technology has made in her life.

Tech Bloomers Meaning In Tamil Question 6.
Which software helps Alisha to overcome her difficulty in typing?
Answer:
Dragon Dictate is a software which helped Alisha to overcome her difficulty in typing.

Tech Bloomers Meaning In English Question 7.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life
easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence, Blee watch by Industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai and IGEST by Anil Prabhakar.

Tech Bloomers Meaning Question 8.
Is it possible to control the computer screen with eye gaze?
Answer:
Yes, it is possible to control the computer screen with Eye Gaze. That means, when we are reading, we can move from page to page using the pupils of our eyes.

Tech Bloomers Summary In Tamil Question 9.
Suggest ways of making our society inclusive.
Answer:
Keeping in touch with our family, talking to them, seeing relatives, who live far away, making , friends, communicating and controlling our environment, finding opportunities, getting qualified and being independent are the ways of making our society inclusive.

Tech Bloomers Moral Question 10.
How would you help the people with disabilities in your neighborhood?
Answer:
I would introduce them to the Latest and modern Technology, so that it can make them more confident and independent. This technology allows the differently abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully.

B. Answer in a paragraph of about 100-150 words.

Question 1.
How do we use technology in our day to day lives?
Answer:
Technology is growing day after day and we all depend on technology. Today we have various developing technologies that impact our lives in different ways. As the world keeps on developing, technology will change. Keeping oneself updated is very important in this modem world.

It has totally transformed the life of an individual. A Refrigerator is programmed to replenish food when the vegetables or milk or eggs are over. Ink cartridges too self-order replacements when it is empty. Technology helps one to manage entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger.

When you are bored watching a programme on TV, you can just inform your smart TV your desire to view your social feed. Technology helps you to watch programmes understanding your mood swings. When caught‘ in traffic, technology permits your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. Technology also automates all water and energy management systems. Therefore, accepting it and learning how to use technology in whatever we do is highly important and recommended.
‘We are changing the world with Technology’

Question 2.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze. Technology is vital to be free and independent.

For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to learn using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before.

An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players. Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled.

ECO2 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate and access the computer. Thus, Technology is a boon to the disabled.
‘Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice that they may not have had before.’

Additional Questions

Question 1.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life. Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Bluetooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smartwatch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music.

iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
‘Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation,’

Question 2.
“Technology is a boon to the disabled”. Justify.
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realise life isn’t tough because you are differently abled. Kim made them realise that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people. It can make friends communicate and control the environment.

It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work. It can make them confident and independent. World-renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how Assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world.

So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently- abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently- abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.
‘The Science of today is the Technology! of tomorrow.’

Vocabulary:

C. Pick out the contractions from the lesson and expand them.
Answer:

D. Expand the following abbreviations or acronyms

SIM: Subscriber Identity Module
ISRO: Indian Space Research Organisation
WHO: World Health Organisation
CCTV: Closed Circuit Television
HDMI: High-Definition Multimedia Interface
LASER: Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
MRI: Magnetic Resonance Imaging
CRY: Child Relief and You
RAM: Random Access Memory
ROM: Read Only Memory
CPU: Central Processing Unit
ALU: Arithmetic-Logic Unit

E. Given below are some idiomatic phrases. Find the meaning of it using the dictionary:

1. My dad wakes up very early in the morning because he has to be at work at 6.00 ……………………… .
2. Socrates, the famous Classical Greek Athenian philosopher, died in 399 ……………………… .
3. Leonardo Da Vinci was a famous Italian polymath, a painter, a sculptor, an architect, a musician, a scientist ……………. .
4. I usually return home from work at 10.30 ……………………. .
5. John downloaded a clip from YouTube in ………………… quality.
6. There are many irregular verbs in the English language, …………………. break, do, make.
7. I’m watching a great football match, Barcelona ………………………. Real Madrid.
8. Humans who dive without protection can survive 300 ……………………….. under water.
9. A 11-year-old girl just beat Einstein on an …………………………… test.
10. We used the ……………………… facility to track the location.

Listening Activity:

F. Listen to the passage and state whether the statements are true (T), false (F) or no information (N)?

Hello! I’m Santhiya. I want to write about my mobile phone. I got it from my parents for my birthday two years back. I like it very much and I think it’s sometimes good to have it in my bag.

I always keep it in my bag or in my pocket so my parents and my friends can always call me. It’s got a calculator in it so I use it frequently to calculate. It’s also a kind of information file. I can use my mobile phone to connect to the Internet and look through the news or read emails. Isn’t it fantastic?

Last year I was cycling with my friend on a holiday with my friend. We went cycling but the weather wasn’t good. It was cold and windy. It started to rain and it got dark. Suddenly my friend fell off her bike and broke her leg. At first I didn’t know what to do but then I thought about my phone.

It was in my backpack so I telephoned for help. After fifteen minutes a doctor arrived. Sometimes people are not keen on mobile phones. They are a real problem because they always ring at the wrong moment. I’m not crazy about my mobile phone but I feel safe when I have it with me.

1. Santhiya can’t live without her mobile phone. (False)
2. She got her mobile in January. (False)
3. Her parents bought her the mobile phone one year ago. (False)
4. There’s a calculator in her mobile. (True)
5. She can connect to the Internet on her mobile. (True)
6. She usually listens to music on her mobile. (False)
7. She can’t read emails on her mobile. (True)
8. There are often a lot of problems with mobile phones. (False)
9. Santhiya always talks on her mobile to her friends. (False)
10. She doesn’t like mobile phones. (False)

G. Listen to the passage again and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Where does Santhiya keep her mobile?
Answer:
Santhiya keeps her mobile in her bag or in her pocket.

Question 2.
What can she use it for?
Answer:
She can use it for Internet connections and emails.

Question 3.
When was she cycling?
Answer:
She was cycling last year.

Question 4.
What happened there?
Answer:
Santhiya’s friend fell off her bike and broke her leg.

Question 5.
How did Santhiya solve the problem?
Answer:
Santhiya called a doctor through her mobile phone. He came to the spot in 15 minutes and helped the girl out.

H. Complete the sentences after reading the passage.

1. Santhiya’s parents and friends can always …………. her.
2. Her mobile phone is also a kind of …………………
3. On the cycling holiday after the accident Santhiya phoned for ………………
4. Mobile phones often ………………. at the wrong moment.
5. Children can feel ……………… when they have their mobile phones with them.

Answers:

1. contact
2. an information file
3. a doctor
4. ring
5. safe

Speaking Activity:

I. Prepare on any one of the topics given below and present before your English teacher.

→ Prepare a welcome address on the occasion of Republic day celebration.
A festival is an occasion of enjoyment and celebration. It brings joy and laughter thereby strengthening our bond of relationship and friendship. Every nation celebrates January 26th with pomp and grandeur. The significance of this day is that a pledge was taken on 26th January 1930 on the bank of river Ravi to attain ‘Swaraj’ was fulfilled on this day in the year 1950. India thus became sovereign, democratic and republic. Warm Greetings to everyone present here with special mention to our Honorable principal, vice principal and teachers.

I, Apurva Calvin, the School Pupil Leader, would like to extend my regards and express my gratitude towards my teachers, for giving me the opportunity to felicitate the Chief Guest Capt. Clement David on this auspicious occasion of Republic Day. Who else can be the best choice to be the chief guest on this auspicious occasion than a man who has served the military? Yes, I am proud to stand before our chief guest to welcome a stalwart, a dynamite who helped us to enjoy the freedom we are experiencing.

A man who fought against the British and got us freedom. It is indeed our honour to have you sir with us and we wholeheartedly thank you for gracing this occasion with your august presence. We have gathered today, as you all know, to celebrate the 73rd Republic Day which is celebrated nationwide.

Any Indian festival attracts the world due to their harmony, variety, colour and excitement. Being a multi-lingual and multi-racial country, we bring to you a colourful programme on this day. Sit back and enjoy a patriotic Friday.

→ Prepare a Vote of thanks on the occasion of Independence day celebration.
The honorable chief guest, Capt. Clement David, Principal Mrs. Lydia Devasagayaam, my dear teachers, non-teaching staff, parents and my dear fellow-mates – a very good morning to you all. I feel honoured and privileged to stand before you to propose the vote of thanks on this year’s Independence day celebration of our beloved country, India.

Our Principal Mrs. Devasahayam has always been the backbone to our success. Thank you, ma’am, for being our motivation and inspiration. Thank you dear students for your beautiful performances highlighting the need to be patriotic to our country. I thank the teachers who have guided and tutored young children to perform and showcase their innate talents.

Thank you teachers, this day would have never been successful without you. I take a moment to thank the annans and akkas who laboured behind all the arrangements for this event. I am proud to be a citizen of India and feel responsible to celebrate such glorious days.

I thank every one of you for making this celebration a success. Thank you dear parents for your presence to make our school ground sparkle in bright vibrant colours. Last but not the least I would like to extend my gratitude to our Chief Guest, Capt. Clement David for being here.

To hear those words of your personal experiences fighting against the British was nerve-racking. We are truly honoured by your presence. On behalf of the management staff and students I thank you from the bottom of my heart for your valuable presence that we would cherish forever. Thank you. Jai Hind!

→ Mock anchoring for annual day celebration
(Instrumental Music is played)
This is the day that the Lord has made, let us rejoice and be glad in it, for these children who will be on stage are indeed the gifts God bestowed on you dear Parents’. One of the most anxiously awaited occasions in any school is the Annual Day dedicated to the Parents of the institution. Great preparations and busy activities are visible all around.
A very Good evening Ladies and Gentlemen. A warm welcome to each one of you.
On behalf of the management, staff and students, we are very happy to welcome our chief guest, Dr. Gopinath – the regional director Angel Group of institutions, dear parents and other distinguished guest for this great occasion.
Today our students, the shining stars, are here to bring out their hidden talents by their spectacular performance and on this day dear parents you’re here to witness the bountiful talents exhibited by your children.
The theme for today’s Programme is Make A Choice To Take A Chance And Bring A Change.
The magic of the 3c’s of life The Choice, The Chance and The Change Our School Pupil Leader Karuna Vijayakumar will formally welcome the gathering. Welcome Address Thank you Karuna.
Dear Friends, kindly switch off all the gadgets that would connect you to the busy world outside.
We will now have the Lighting of the Lamp.
I request our Chief Guest Dr. Gopinath, Our correspondent Mr. Azariah, PTA President Mr. Jerald Benjamin, Staff representative Mrs. Latha Ram, and Student representative Parimala Mahesh of Std. XIIB, to kindly Light the Lamp.
Thank you Dignitaries.
We shall now have the Invocation Dance to invoke God’s blessing.
Thank you Children for the blissful prayer dance.
We will now have the Annual Report in the form of a Presentation highlighting on academics, social, emotional and cultural events to develop individuality of each child and make them well balanced to face the better tomorrow.
Cellphones, cellphones everywhere, isn’t it time to reduce the usage? The overuse of it is shrinking our minds and misusing it is ruining our lives.
Now we have our students of Std.VI to VIII who are going to perform a serious issue.
The Evil Effects of Cell Phone in a comical way through a mime.
Thank you Students for the fabulous performance. Let us make a choice To use the cell phones in a right way and bring a change in our lives.
We will now have a Dance Drama brought alive to our eyes by the students of Std. IX and X. This dance drama portrays the life of a young boy who is entangled by the evil forces of the society.
Thank you Dear Students for bringing a change in your attitude to face the future.
I now request our Chief Guest Dr.Gopinath, Our correspondent Mrs. Marian, Principal Mrs. Leela Raja, to kindly come up to the Dias.
I now request Miss. Luveena to welcome and Felicitate Our Chief Guest.
Thank you Miss. Luveena.
I request our Chief Guest Dr. Gopinath to Address the gathering.
Thank you Sir, for your inspiring and thought provoking message.
Every exam or test in our life makes us better or bitter. This is apt for our students who have achieved great success in the public exam by making the right choice.
We shall now have the Prize Distribution for the meritorious performance of our students in the Board examination. I request our Chief Guest to distribute the prizes.
Mrs.Tinavet Joy will now read the list of prize winners.
Thank you Sir, for honouring our students.
Students of Std IX-XII are here to perform the Bengali Folk Dance depicting the celebration of the fish culture harvest. Sit back relax and enjoy the dance.
Thank you students for the wonderful performance.
Both light and shadow combine to bring life to this dance. Yes! we are going to watch Shadow Dance portraying the importance of mother’s love and how a mother’s choice brings out a difference in the lives of children.
Actions speak louder than words are very well proved in this. Thank you Students for the awesome performance.
If music be the language of the soul, then play on. So, we have Std. XII students who will entertain us with their Choral singing in different languages.
Thank you Students.
I now call upon S. Aruna Dorai ASPL to propose the Vote of Thanks.
Let us carry this thought today. Take a chance by making a difference in the lives of others. Henceforth, we will notice that a great change will take place within us and around us
Kindly stand for the School Song followed by the National Anthem.

→ Collect images of some electronic gadgets and play a JAM (just a minute) game by picking one image and talking for a minute about it in your classroom.

I very well remember the time when this gadget – cell phone that became the most important companion for human beings, came into existence. I have seen situations to be so absurd with a person talking all alone on the road. With hands free options, I remember them to be found crazy. They weren’t so sleek like the ones we see today. Cameras too weren’t there. That was just the beginning.Very soon they were all over the place.

They shrunk in size and became pocket sized wonders! The mobiles of today do multiple functions. They are used to text messages, send and receive video messages, talk on face time, do conferencing calls and so on. With time passing by, the cost reduced and reached the market wherein it became the friend of the rich and the poor.

Now, almost every one, everywhere, seems to have one. The vegetable vendor, the bus conductor, a ragged wanderer, students, office goers, home maker or a business magnet, irrespective of economic status possess a cell phone. Hasn’t this little midget taken the world by storm? I am sure you will unanimously agree to my opinion.

Reading:

J. Read the comic strip and ans’ e following questions.

Question 1.
What do you mean by cyber safety?
Answer:
Cyber safety is the safe and responsible use of information and communication technologies.

Question 2.
How do you behave in a virtual platform?
Answer:
In a virtual platform, one has to respect the values, sentiments, tradition and history of people expressed in the global network.

Question 3.
Can we read and access the information free of cost?
Answer:
Yes, we can.

Question 4.
Do you think that all the information online can be used without any permission?
Answer:
No, there are some information which are owned by someone. One has to take necessary permissions in order to use their content.

Question 5.
Which website do you often access? Why?
Answer:
I mostly access www.google.co.in for browsing information related to my projects and home assignments. I use it often because it saves my time.

Writing:

e-mail

K. Fill in the missing words in this email.

Answers:

1. response
2. model
3. attached.
4. same
5. forward
6. K. Sankar

L. Write an email to your teacher about the interesting English model that you have prepared for the literary fest.

M. Practice Exercise

You are the receptionist of your school. Your Head master instructs you to send a message to all the parents of class ten to attend a PTA (Parent Teacher Association) meet which is to be held on 22.12.2019.

Answer:

N. Write about Your Favourite Sports person/ Famous personality/Hobby/ Recipe by starting your own blog.

Favourite Sportsman:

Famous personality

Hobby

Grammar:

A. Write the words that can replace Ravi, Rani, woman, luggage and the dog when we use them for the second and subsequent times in the passage ……………….., ………………., and ………………. .
Answer:
He, she, it and it.
These words are called ?
Answer:
Pronouns

B. Fill in the gaps with personal pronouns.

Kumaravel lives in Thiruvannamalai. (1) ………………… is a doctor. All the people like (2) ………………… because of (3) …………….. helping nature. (4) ……………. hospital is located at Car street and most of (5) ………………. patients are poor so (6) ………………………. does not charge much money. (7) ………………… daughter goes to school. (8) ………………….. studies in 5th Standard. (9) …………………… teachers love (10) …………………… very much. (11) ………………………. friends are also very good. (12) ……………… always encourage (13) ………………… (14) ……………… have given (15) ………… good advice. (16) ………….. mother is also a teacher. (17) …………… always encourages (18) ……………… to keep studying. I also like her as (19) ……………….. often comes to (20) ………………… house. One day (21) …………………… told my mother that (22) …………….wants to learn cooking. (23) …………… mother taught (24) ……………… cooking. Now, (25) ……………. cooks well.
Answers:
1. He, 2. him, 3. his, 4. His, 5. us, 6. he, 7. His, 8. She, 9. Her, 10. her, 11. Her, 12. They, 13. her, 14. They, 15. her, 16. Her, 17. She, 18. her, 19. she, 20. my, 21. she, 22.she, 23. My, 24. her, 25. She.

C. Fill in the gaps with appropriate Pronouns.

1. ……………….. is an excellent opportunity.
2. ………………. of these two students can solve this question.
3. ………………… books have been written by a great Indian writer.
4. …………………. have come to know the truth.
5. ………………….. of the students have passed the exam.
6. ………………….. of your friends can guide you.
7. …………………. is your story based on your real life.
8. All your friends will guide ……………………… .
9. …………………….. of his family members would come to visit you.
10. ……………………. of those books will be helpful to you.
11. …………………….. is your bag, you can take it anytime.
12. He ………………….. is responsible for the downfall of his life.

Answers:

1. It
2. One
3. These
4. They
5. Some
6. Few
7. This
8. you
9. Many
10. Some
11. It
12. himself

D. Join the sentences using ‘Relative Pronouns’.

1. I have book. It is written by Rabindranath Tagore.
I have a book which is written by Rabindranath Tagore.

2. Kavita is my teacher. She teaches us English.
Kavita is my teacher who teaches us English.

3. This is Varun. His father is an architect.
This is Varun whose father is an architect.

4. She invited most of her friends. They attended the party.
Most of her friends whom she invited attended the party.

5. Give me a pen to write a letter. It was gifted to you on your birthday.
Give me a pen which was gifted to you on your birthday to write a letter.

6. I have sold the house. It was located at the bank of a river.
I have sold the house which was located at the bank of a river.

7. Here is your watch. It has been found in the garden.
Here is your watch which has been found in the garden.

E. Read the different verb forms where they remain the same in the direct and indirect speech in the following cases. Fill in the blanks with missing indirect speech.

1. If the reporting verb is in the present tense.

2. When we report a universal truth (something that is always true)

3. With modal verbs would, might, could, should, ought to, used to.

4. With would rather, had better I would rather fly.

5. In if-clauses and time-clauses.

6. We do not usually change the modal verbs must and needn’t. But must can become had to or would have to and needn’t can become didn’t have to or wouldn’t have to if we want to express an obligation. Would/wouldn’t have to are used to talk about future obligations.

Answers:

1. (a) she will never go to work.
2. (a) people in Africa are starving.
3. (a) he would try to come.
4. (a) they had better go.
5. (a) when he was staying in Madurai he had met his best friend.
6. (a) they must do that in June.

F. Read the following dialogue and report it.

Johnson : “What are you doing here, Suganthi? I haven’t seen you since June.”
Suganthi : “I’ve just come back from my holiday in Ooty.”
Johnson : “Did you enjoy it?”
Suganthi : “I love Ooty. And the people were so friendly.”
Johnson : “Did you go to Coakers Walk?”
Suganthi : “It was my first trip. I can show you some pictures. Are you doing anything tomorrow?”
Johnson : “I must arrange a couple of things. But I am free tonight.”
Suganthi : “You might come to my place. At what time shall we meet?”
Johnson : “I’ll be there at eight. Is it all right?”

Johnson asked Suganthi (1) ……………….. And he said (2) ………………… since June. Suganthi explained that (3) ……………………. back from her holiday in Ooty. Johnson wondered if (4) …………………….. it. Suganthi told him that she (5) Ooty and that the people (6) so friendly. Johnson wanted to know (7) ………………. to the Coakers Walk. Suganthi said that it (8) ………………….. first trip and that she (9) ………………………. some pictures. And then she asked him if he (10) …………………………. Johnson explained that he (11) …………………… a couple of things. But he added that he (12) …………………. free at night. Suganthi suggested that he (13) ………………….. place and asked him at what time . Johnson said he (14) ……………….. there at eight. And finally he asked (15) …………………….. all right.
Answers:

1. what she was doing there
2. that he hadn’t seen her since June
3. she had just come
4. she had enjoyed
5. loved
6. were
7. if she had been
8. was her
9. could show him
10. was doing anything the next day
11. must arrange
12. would be
13. might come to her place
14. would be
15. if it was

G. Tick the right choice (Indirect Speech).

Answer:

Tech Bloomers Summary:

Introduction:
The lesson elaborates on the advance technology and its benefits to the differently abled. It is interesting to read how technology has made life comfortable and easy for the differently abled people.

Uses of technology
Refrigerator replenishes food directly linking to the e-commerce site. Ink cartridges self-order replacements. Managing entertainment and home appliances by voice commands or swapping the finger is a reality. Inform smart TV your desire to view your social feed when you are bored. When caught in traffic, permit your kettle to prepare tea for you to sip it hot the moment you reach home. All water and energy management can be automated.

A boon to differently abled Technology makes a normal person’s life easier, but it’s a boon to citizens with special needs. According to the 2011 Census, 2.21 percent of lndians are disabled. Unlike the developed world, disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers as they face challenges of inclusion.

Kim transformed Alisha’s life Alisha, cerebral palsied wanted everyone to know the difference technology has made in her life. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps her to speak for words on the screen for printing. She had a teacher, now no more who wanted her to do GCSE maths. It sounded silly because she needed help to type, but now it’s possible. Kim, Assistive Technologist, introduced Dragon Dictate to her. Now, she’s doing Maths GCSE. Kim gives them the motivation needed for them to aspire the impossible. One can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze. Kim works with all 42 students and helps them use technology in different ways. Kim has opened up the world to many.

Kim transformed David’s life To David bom with Athetoid Cerebral Palsy,1 Technology was vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, David used a Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally. It had a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to learn using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. He has an ACTIV controller also in the headrest of his chair in his bedroom to control his TV, Blu-Ray and music players. He has been interested in Augmentative and Alternative Communication. David is also a keen sportsman playing football, boccia, hockey and baseball. He is a sports leader and uses his EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard to teach PE lessons.

David has 144 icons on the screen and uses them with Eye Gaze. Now David accesses the curriculum, studies for his GCSE, orders food and has become a confident and competent communicator. David is an advocate for those who wish to communicate. He controls his Play Station, plays MP3, drives his electric wheelchair and uses the ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate, access the computer to check on the progress of Chelsea football team. David will travel to Brazil to work with the Olympic opening ceremony team as part of the Remix Drama Group.

Indian Innovations

• Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is a GPS and Bluetooth which enables the challenged to navigate streets with instructions from map software on smartphones.
• Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai is useful for the hearing impaired converting sound waves into vibrations and colour codes.
• iGest by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and co-founder of enability technologies created a wearable device tracks for speech-impaired who speak now.

Conclusion:
Technology makes life easier. Kim has shown a new world for the differently abled. World-renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how Assistive Technology can transform lives. So inclusion is possible. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn collaborative learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly learning for all.

Tech Bloomers Glossary:

Textual:

Additional:

Synonyms:

Choose the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word.

1. Technology empowers the disabled to do their day to day chores.
(a) errands
(b) chaffs
(c) studies
(d) chances
Answer:
(a) errands

2. Technology has empowered the disabled.
(a) brightened
(b) endowed
(c) triggered
(d) emancipates
Answer:
(b) endowed

3. David’s life has changed with the use of technology.
(a) taxology
(b) devastation
(c) environment
(d) machinery
Answer:
(d) machinery

4. Technology impacts the environment.
(a) influences
(b) imparts
(c) impedes
(d) participates
Answer:
(a) influences

5. Technology determines its impacts to the society.
(a) begins
(b) differs
(c) consumes
(d) controls
Answer:
(d) controls

6. Anything which is below a certain threshold can be self-ordered.
(a) floor
(b) edge
(c) thrift
(d) beam
Answer:
(b) edge

7. Energy management can be taken care by automating all the activities.
(a) mechanizing
(b) automobile
(c) channelling
(d) managing
Answer:
(a) mechanizing

8. The disabled continue to grapple with the challenges of access.
(a) adhere
(b) gaze
(c) grope
(d) cope
Answer:
(d) cope

9. It would have been frustrating and difficult.
(a) happy
(b) feeble
(c) infuriating
(d) easy
Answer:
(c) infuriating

10. I have cerebral palsy.
(a) language
(b) intellectual
(c) callous
(d) callous
Answer:
(b) intellectual

11. Studying was difficult because I had to rely on someone to type.
(a) hope
(b) relieve
(c) change
(d) depend
Answer:
(d) depend

12. He accessed his AAC device which took lots of navigation.
(a) scope
(b) naval
(c) neutral
(d) steering
Answer:
(d) steering

13. He has fixed his gaze on the icon that is required.
(a) stare
(b) geek
(c) eyes
(d) face
Answer:
(a) stare

14. It has been mounted on his walker.
(a) riding
(b) fixed
(c) managed
(d) designed
Answer:
(b) fixed

15. Dqyid is also a keen sportsman.
(a) strong
(b) feeble
(c) creative
(d) ghastly
Answer:
(a) strong

16. ECO2 is linked to an interactive white board to teach PE lessons.
(a) connected
(b) loosened
(c) chained
(d) levitate
Answer:
(a) connected

17. David uses ECO2 to speak in complete sentences with correct syntax.
(a) symmetry
(b) centrifugal
(c) synecdoche
(d) grammar
Answer:
(d) grammar

18. He now comments socially using the language of his peers.
(a) formally
(b) informally
(c) scientifically
(d) historically
Answer:
(b) informally

19. He has now become a confident and competent communicator.
(a) capable
(b) poised
(c) callous
(d) daring
Answer:
(a) capable

20. David advocates to other students.
(a) administrates
(b) opposes
(c) comforts
(d) supports
Answer:
(d) supports

21. He controls his PlayStation with a bespoke switch system.
(a) spoken
(b) personalized
(c) metered
(d) monitored
Answer:
(b) personalized

22. Consumable products can be self-ordered.
(a) disposable
(b) durable
(c) challenged
(d) controlled
Answer:
(a) disposable

23. Managing entertainment by voice commands is a reality now.
(a) actuality
(b) brutality
(c) clarity
(d) daring
Answer:
(a) actuality

24. Technology is also a boon to citizens with special needs.
(a) art
(b) blessing
(c) comfort
(d) danger
Answer:
(b) blessing

25. India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) deviated
(b) decomposed
(c) rundown
(d) ransacked
Answer:
(c) rundown

Antonyms:

Choose the most appropriate antonym of the underlined word.

1. Technology helps one to live in comfort.
(a) comfy
(b) discomfort
(c) misuse
(d) easiness
Answer:
(b) discomfort

2. Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) partial
(b) entire
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(a) partial

3. Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) negative
(d) promotioi
Answer:
(c) negative

4. Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

5. Your refrigerator can directly link to the ecommerce site.
(a) unswervingly
(b) openly
(c) indirectly
(d) straightly
Answer:
(c) indirectly

6. Consumable products self-order replacements.
(a) throwaway
(b) durable
(c) expendable
(d) perishable
Answer:
(b) durable

7. Your entire energy management can be taken care by automating.
(a) complete
(b) perfect
(c) partial
(d) whole
Answer:
(c) partial

8. Unlike the developed world, India’s disabled are deprived by attitudinal barriers.
(a) developing
(b) industrialized
(c) established
(d) settled
Answer:
(a) developing

9. They continue to grapple with the challenges of inclusion.
(a) seclusion
(b) enclosure
(c) addition
(d) exclusion
Answer:
(d) exclusion

10. It would have been frustrating and difficult.
(a) easy
(b) challenging
(c) intimidating
(d) changeable
Answer:
(a) easy

We hope the data given here will benefit you to the fullest extent at the time of preparation. For better understanding of English subject this Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Solutions for Class 10th English Prose Chapter 5 Tech Bloomers PDF is the best resource. Download & ace up your preparation. Keep in touch with us and get the latest information on Tamilnadu State board Textbook Solutions PDF.

You can Download The Cat and the Pain-killer Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 4 help you to revise complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th English Solutions Supplementary Chapter 4 The Cat and the Pain-killer

The Cat and the Pain-killer Warm Up:

There has always been a close bonding between children and animals. Studies have revealed that living with pet animals increases empathy, compassion and self-esteem among children.

The Cat And The Painkiller Summary Question 1.
Do you have a pet at home?
Answer:
Yes.

The Cat And The Painkiller Question 2.
If yes, what animal is it and what is its name?
Answer:
I have a puppy, and its name is Tommy.

The Cat And The Painkiller Book Back Answers Question 3.
Did you have any humourous moments with it? If yes, what was it?
Answer:
After work, my mum bought our dad a kebab for his tea-time. Hungry, dad just put the fork to his mouth when the doorbell went. The plate went down. By the time, my dad answered the doorbell and came back through the hall, Tommy had wiped off the plate and looked innocent. It was even funnier because of the way Tommy’s legs were moving faster than ever but they just slipped on the carpet in cartoon fashion.

The Cat And The Painkiller Pdf Question 4.
How do you care for your pets?
Answer:
I take my pet for a walk, give it food on time, play with it, and give it bath every weekend.

The Cat and the Pain-killer Textual Questions

A. Choose the most suitable option.

The Cat And The Painkiller Questions And Answers Question 1.
Tom was disturbed because __________________.
(a) he didn’t sleep well
(b) his scores were low at school
(c) his friend Becky Thatcher stopped coming to school
(d) he had picked up a fight with Becky Thatcher
Answer:
(c) his friend Becky Thatcher stopped coming to school

The Cat And The Painkiller 9th Standard Question 2.
Aunt was an experimenter in __________________.
(a) trying new recipes
(b) designing fashionable frocks
(c) modem gardening techniques
(d) trying out new medicines
Answer:
(d) trying out new medicines

The Cat And The Painkiller Paragraph Question 3.
Tom used the pain-killer to __________________.
(a)take care of his health
(b) mend the crack on the sitting room floor
(c) cure Becky Thatcher
(d) help his aunt
Answer:
(b) mend the crack on the sitting room floor

9th English Unit 4 Supplementary Question 4.
Peter sprang a couple of yards in the air as __________________.
(a) he had a teaspoon of the pain-killer
(b) his tail was caught in the mouse trap
(c) Tom threw him out of the window
(d) Aunt gave him a push
Answer:
(a) he had a teaspoon of the pain-killer

The Cat And The Painkiller Summary In English Question 5.
Finally Aunt Polly said to Tom that he__________________  .
(a) need not take any more medicine
(b) has to go to school regularly
(c) should not meet any of his friends
(d) must take medicines every day
Answer:
(a) need not take any more medicine

Cat And The Painkiller Summary Additional Questions

1. Tom put his hoop away, ………………………… .
(a) and his belt
(b) and his scarf
(c) and his shoes
(d) and his bat
Answer:
(d) and his bat

2. Tom became fed up and …………………….. .
(a) planned various relief ideas
(b) became a nuisance
(c) started bothering his aunt
(d) pretended to be fond of pain-killer
Answer:
(d) pretended to be fond of pain-killer

3. One day Tom was ………………………….. .
(a) dreaming of Becky
(b) dosing the crack
(c) begging for a pain killer
(d) caressing Peter
Answer:
(b) dosing the crack

4. So Tom opened his mouth and poured ………………………… .
(a) a war-whoop
(b) the pain killer
(c) water all over
(d) out his frenzied enjoyment
Answer:
(b) the pain killer

5. Tom’s tone was ……………………. .
(a) apprehensive
(b) stand for his rights
(c) feel positive
(d) excited
Answer:
(a) apprehensive

B. Identify the character or speaker of the following lines.

1. He banged against furniture
2. She stood petrified with astonishment peering over her glasses.
3. ‘That is, I believe they do.’
4. ‘What has that got to do that with it?’
5. ‘I done it out of pity for him.’

Answers:

1. Peter, the cat
2. Aunt Polly Arts
3. Tom Sawyer
4. Aunt Polly
5. Tom Sawyer

The Cat And The Pain Killer Additional Questions:

1. Aunt Polly entered in time to see him throw summersets.
2. Next he rose on his hind feet and danced around.
3. He lay on the floor expiring with laughter.
4. She began to try all manners of remedies on Tom.
5. He banged against furniture, upsetting flower-pots.
6. ‘Don’t ask for it unless you want it, Peter.’
7. She added hot baths, sitz baths, shower baths, and plunges.
8. He looked up with just a twinkle peeping through his gravity.
9. He put his hoop away, and his bat.
10. He sprang a couple of yards in the air.
11. ‘Hadn’t any aunt! – you numbskull.’
12. ‘Cats always act so when they’re having good time.’

Answers:

1. Aunt Polly
2. Peter
3. Tom
4. Aunt Polly
5. Peter
6. Tom
7. Aunt Polly
8. Tom
9. Tom
10. Peter
11. Aunt Polly
12. Tom

C. Based on your reading, rearrange the following sentences in the correct sequence.

1. Since all her methods failed, finally she gave him a pain-killer.
2. He told his aunt that Peter had no aunt, so he gave him the medicine.
3. The pain-killer triggered adverse reactions on Peter.
4. It jumped out of the open window.
5. Tom was dull and depressed.
6. This incident upset Aunt Polly and she questioned him.
7. But, Tom gave that pain-killer to the cat Peter.
8. So, Aunt Polly tried different types of remedies on him.
Answers:
3, 8, 5, 6,1, 7, 4, 2

3. The pain-killer triggered adverse reactions on Peter.
8. So, Aunt Polly tried different types of remedies on him.
5. Tom was dull and depressed.
6. This incident upset Aunt Polly and she questioned him.
1. Since all her methods failed, finally she gave him a pain-killer.
7. But, Tom gave that pain-killer to the cat Peter.
4. It jumped out of the open window.
2. He told his aunt that Peter had no aunt, so he gave him the medicine.

D. Based on your understanding of the story, write the answers for the following questions in a sentence or two.

The Cat And The Painkiller Short Summary Question 1.
Why did Tom lose the charm of his life?
Answer:
Tom’s friend Becky Thatcher stopped coming to school. So he lost the charm of his life.

The Cat And The Painkiller Characters Question 2.
Why did Aunt Polly try different remedies on Tom?
Answer:
Tom’s aunt wanted to try new medicines of producing health. She was infatuated with patent medicines and an incurable experimenter. So, she tried different remedies on Tom.

The Cat And The Painkiller Moral Of The Story Question 3.
How did the medicine diminish
Answer:
Tom professed to be fond of pain-killer. So he asked for it often. He used to pour it into a crack in the sitting room floor. Thus the medicine diminished

The Cat And The Painkiller Moral Question 4.
Did Tom compel Peter to have the pain-killer?
Answer:
No. Tom did not compel Peter to have the pain-killer.

The Cat And The Painkiller Story Question 5.
Why did Peter wish to taste the pain-killer?
Answer:
Peter wished to taste the pain-killer because he wanted it.

The Cat And The Painkiller Mind Map Question 6.
How did Aunt Polly discover the reason for Peter’s absurd behaviour?
Answer:
Aunt found the teaspoon and held it out. Thus she discovered the reason for Peter’s absurd behaviour.

Question 7.
What was the reason given by Tom for giving the pain-killer to the cat?
Answer:
Tom said that the cat had no aunt. So he gave it the medicine.

Question 8.
Why did Aunt Polly’s eyes water?
Answer:
Aunt realized that the cruelty to the cat is cruelty to the little boy too. So her eyes watered.

E. Answer the following questions in about 80-100 words.

Question 1.
Describe the different types of remedies tried by Aunt Polly on Tom.
Answer:
Tom’s aunt was the type of person who was infatuated with patent medicines and new ways of producing health or mending it. The first remedy aunt Polly tried on Tom was the water treatment. She stood him up in the woodshed and drowned him with a deluge of cold water; then she scrubbed him down with a towel like a file; then she rolled him up in a wet sheet and put him under blankets till he sweated his soul clean.

The boy remained as dismal as a hearse. Aunt Polly began to assist the water with a slim oatmeal diet and blister plasters. When she heard of Pain-killer, she ordered a lot at once. She tasted it and it was simply fire in a liquid form. She gave Tom a teaspoonful pain-killer and watched with anxiety for the result.

Question 2.
Narrate the funny sequence between Tom Sawyer and Peter, the cat.
Answer:
The “Pain-killer” became a regular treatment, and to Tom Sawyer, it tasted like liquid fire. Tired of the daily doses, one day Tom feeds a spoonful to the cat Peter, which upon receiving the medicine begins to do somersaults in the air while “spreading chaos and destruction in his path.” When Aunt Polly leams that Tom has fed the cat the pain-killer, Tom explains for his actions by saying that he “done it out of pity for the cat because he (the cat) hadn’t any aunt” to “bum him out” and “roast his bowels.”

Additional Question:

Question 1.
Describe Peter’s reaction after having the medicine.
Answer:
Peter sprang a couple of yards in the air, and then delivered a war-whoop and set off round and round the room, banging against furniture, upsetting flower-pots, and making general confusion. Next he rose on his hind feet and danced around, in a frenzy of enjoyment, with his head over his shoulder and his voice proclaiming his happiness. Then he went tearing around the house again spreading chaos and destruction in his path.

F. Complete the summary of the extract using the appropriate words from the box below.

Tom Sawyer felt (1) ……………… as Becky Thatcher had stopped coming to (2) ……………… His Aunt Polly was very concerned about his (3) …………….. condition. So, she began to try various (4) …………….. on him. Tom became fed up with his Aunt’s brand of remedies and (5) to like the pain-killer. He started to ask for it very often. But, Tom used the medicine to mend the (6) ……………….. on the floor. One day, Tom gave the pain-killer to his Aunt’s cat, (7) …………… The (8) …………………. had an adverse effect on the cat and it started to jump around the room. Aunt Polly entered the room in time to see the cat throw a few (9) …………….. and sail through the open window. She found the (10) ……………… with a little pain-killer sticking to it and knew that Tom had treated the cat with it. She realised that, what was (11) ……………. to the cat should be the same to the boy too and (12) ………….. giving medicines to him.
Answers:

1. dejected
2. school
3. health
4. remedies
5. pretended
6. crack
7. Peter
8. pain-killer
9. summersets
10. teaspoon
11. cruelty
12. stopped.

G. In the story we find a lot of American slang usage of English. Complete the tabular column with standard English. One has been done for you.

Answer:

H. Complete the mind map based on the inputs from the extract.

Answer:

1. stopped
2. unhappy
3. was concerned
4. all manners of remedies on Tom
5. the pain-killer
6. Peter
7. petrified

Additional Question:

Answers:

1. hot baths, sitz baths, shower baths and plunges.
2. with a slim oatmeal diet and blister-plasters
3. She calculated his capacity
4. so he thought over
5. the idea of liking pain-killer

The Cat and the Pain-killer by Samuel Langhome Clemens About The Author:

Samuel Langhome Clemens (1835-1910), better known by his pen name Mark Twain, was an American writer, humourist, entrepreneur, publisher and lecturer. Twain grew up in Hannibal, Missouri, the influence of which can be seen in his novels. His wit and satire, in prose and in speech, earned praise from critics and peers, and he was a friend to presidents, artists, industrialists, and European royalty. His first success as a writer came when his humourous tall tale The Celebrated Jumping Frog of Calaveras County was published on November 18, 1865, in the New York weekly The Saturday Press, bringing him national attention. His famous works were The Adventures of Tom Sawyer and The Adventures of Huckleberry Finn.

The Cat and the Pain-killer Summary:

“The Cat and the Pain-killer” is one of the episodes from the novel “The Adventures of Tom Sawyer”. Tom Sawyer is a mischievous young boy growing up along the Mississippi river with his aunt Polly and brother Sid. He is up to all sorts of mischief, but somehow manages to escape from the punishments. Though he finds the school life miserable, the arrival of Becky Thatcher makes him happy. That happiness does not last long as Becky falls ill and stops coming to school.

At home, his Aunt notices that Tom is disturbed and uninterested in doing anything. So Aunt Polly, who is infatuated with patent medicines, tries them on Tom. She tries all kinds of treatments on Tom to make him cheerful again, but to no avail. Tom being fed up with Aunt Polly’s treatment says that he wants pain-killers. Aunt Polly notices that the medicines are diminishing, though she is not aware that Tom is using them to mend the crack in the sitting room floor.

One day while Tom is mending the crack with the pain-killer, the cat Peter arrives and almost begs to taste the medicine. Tom feeling pity towards the cat gives him a spoonful to taste, on which Peter springs up in the air and keeps jumping and dancing, disturbing the furniture and flower pots. Aunt Polly hearing weird noises enters just in time to see the cat perform summersets and carry some flower pots out the window. The old lady is petrified seeing all the mess and Tom’s uncontrollable laughter. Aunt Polly questions Tom regarding the cat’s behaviour. Tom replies that the cats act like this when they’re having a good time.

Aunt Polly finds the teaspoon and understands that Tom has fed the cat with the medicine. She scolds him for being so cruel to the cat, for which he answers that the cat doesn’t have an aunt like her to take care of it and that he has given the cat the medicine out of pity. Aunt Polly suddenly realizes that if the cat would feel so miserable after taking a small sip of the medicine, how the boy must be feeling. Then she puts her hand on Tom’s head saying that she was only trying to do the best for him. Tom replies that he too was only trying to do the best for the cat. Aunt Polly finally says that she wouldn’t try any more medicines on him.

The Cat and the Pain-killer Glossary:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Matter Around Us

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the appropriate answer.

Matter Around Us Class 6 Question 1.
_____ is not made of matter.
(a) gold ring
(b) iron nail
(c) light ray
(d) oil drop
Answer:
(c) light ray

Matter Around Us Class 6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
200 ml of water is poured into a bowl of 400 ml capacity. The volume of water now will be
(a) 400 ml
(b) 600 ml
(c) 200 ml
(d) 800 ml
Answer:
(c) 200 ml

6th Standard Science Matter Around Us Question Answer Question 3.
Seeds from water-melon can be removed by _____ method.
(a) hand-picking
(b) filtration
(c) magnetic separation
(d) decantation
Answer:
(a) hand-picking

6th Standard Science Matter Around Us Question 4.
Lighter impurities like dust when mixed with rice or pulses can be removed by
(a) filtration
(b) sedimentation
(c) decantation
(d) winnowing
Answer:
(d) winnowing

Matter Around Us Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
_____ is essential to perform winnowing activity.
(a) Rain
(b) Soil
(c) Water
(d) Air
Answer:
(d) Air

Matter Around Us Tamil Meaning Question 6.
Filtration method is effective in separating mixture
(a) Solid-solid
(b) Solid-liquid
(c) liquid-liquid
(d) liquid-gas
Answer:
(b) Solid-Liquid

6th Science Matter Around Us Question 7.
From the following _____ is not a mixture.
(a) coffee with milk
(b) lemon juice
(c) water
(d) ice cream embedded with nuts
Answer:
(c) water

II. True or False. If False, give the correct statement.

For 6th Standard Question 1.
Air is not compressible.
Answer:
False. Air is highly compressible.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Liquids have no fixed volume but have fixed shape.
Answer:
False. Liquids have fixed volume but have no fixed shape.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Question 3.
Particles in solids are free to move.
Answer:
False. Particles of solid can not move freely (or) Particles of liquid are free to move.

Question 4.
When pulses are washed with water before cooking, the water is separated from them by the process of filtration.
Answer:
False. When pulses are washed with water before cooking the water is separated from them by the process of decantation.

Question 5.
Strainer is a kind of sieve which is used to separate a liquid from solid.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Grain and husk can be separated by winnowing.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Air is a pure substance.
Answer:
False. Air is a mixture of gases.

Question 8.
Butter from curds is separated by sedimentation.
Answer:
False. Butter from curd is separated by Churning.

III. Match the following.

(a)

Answer:

(b)

Answer:

IV. Fill In the blanks.

1. Matter is made up of ______
2. In solids, the space between the particles is less than in ______
3. Grains can be separated from their stalks by ______
4. Chillies are removed from ‘upma’ by ______ method.
5. The method employed to separate clay particles from water is ______
6. Among the following items: safety pins, pencil and rubber band, ______ will get attracted to a magnet.
7. Water obtained from tube wells is usually ______ water.

Answers:

1. atoms
2. liquids and gases
3. Threshing
4. handpicking
5. Filtration
6. Safety pins
7. Impure

V. Complete the given analogy.

1. Solid: rigidit :: gas: ______
2. Large Inter-particle space: gas:: ______ :solid
3. Solid: definite shape :: ______ : shape of the vessel.
4. Husk-grains: winnowing:: Sawdust-Chalk piece : ______
5. Murukku from hot oil: ______ : coffee powder residue from decoction: ______
6. Iron – sulphur mixture : ______ :: Mustard seeds from Urad-dhal: rolling

Answers:

1. Flexibility.
2. Little inter-particle space.
3. Liquid.
4. Filtration
5. Filtration
6. Magnetic separation.

VI. Give a very short answer.

Question 1.
Define the term matter?
Answer:
Matter is defined as anything that has mass and takes up space. Matter is found in solid, liquid and gas.

Question 2.
How can husk or fine dust particles be separated from rice before cooking?

1. The husk or fine dust particles can be separated from rice by washing the rice with water before cooking.
2. The lighter impurities float while heavier rice grains sink to the bottom. (It is sedimentation).
3. Then the water with the impurities is carefully poured away by decantation, leaving clean rice at the bottom.

Question 3.
Why do we separate mixtures?
Answer:
A mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles. So, we have to separate mixtures.

Question 4.
Give an example for mixture and justify your answer with reason.
Answer:
Milk is an example for mixture.
It contains water, fat, protein etc. Since two or more compounds are mixed in a physical combination, milk is a mixture.

Question 5.
Define sedimentation?
Answer:
Sedimentation is the deposition process of setting down of heavy solids in a mixture of liquid and an insoluble solid.

Question 6.
Give the main difference between a pure substance and an impure substance.
Answer:
Pure substance:

1. It is made up of only one kind of particles
2. Unadulterated

Impure substance:

1. It is made up of two or more toxic particles
2. Adulterated

VII. Give a short answer :

Question 1.
A rubber ball changes its shape on pressing. Can it be called a solid?
Answer:
Yes. A solid has a certain shape and size. The shape of a rubber ball changes only if we squeeze it.

Question 2.
Why do gases not have fixed shape?
Answer:

1. Gases possess more intermolecular space and less forces of attraction.
2. They can move freely at any direction.
3. They have the property of filling the entire part of a container by taking the shape of the container.

So, gases do not have fixed shape.

Question 3.
What method will you employ to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk? Explain.
Answer:
“Churning followed by Coagulation” is employed to separate cheese (Paneer) from milk. There are six important steps in making cheese (Paneer) from milk:

1. Acidification
2. coagulation
3. separating curds and whey
4. Salting
5. shaping
6. ripening

Question 4.
Look at the picture given below and explain the method of separation illustrated.

Answer:
The method is called as Sieving. It is used to separate solid particles of different sizes. Ex. bran from flour.

Question 5.
How can you separate a mixture of a large quantity of tiny bits of paper mixed with pulses/dal?
Answer:
We can separate the mixture of a large quantity of tiny bits of paper and pulses/dal by “Winnowing”. The lighter papers will be carried by wind and heavier pulses/dais will fall closer and form a separate heap.

Question 6.
What is meant by food adulteration?
Answer:
Food adulteration is the process in which the quality of food is lowered either by the addition of inferior quality material or by extraction of valuable ingredient.

Question 7.
Mr. Raghu returns home on a hot summer day and wants to have buttermilk. Mrs. Raghu has only curds. What can she do to get buttermilk? Explain
Answer:
Mrs. Raghu has to take half a cup of curd, add half a cup of water to it and mix well. Now, she can serve buttermilk.

VIII. Question based on Higher Order Thinking Skills.

Question 1.
Distinguish between properties of Solid, liquid, gas. Draw suitable diagram.
Answer:

Question 2.
Using suitable apparatus from your laboratory separate the mixture of chalk powder, mustard oil, water and coins. Draw a flow chart to show the separation process.
Answer:

Question 1.
Malar’s mother was preparing to cook dinner. She accidentally mixed ground nuts with urad-dhal. Suggest a suitable method to separate the two substances so that Malar can have ground nuts to eat.
Answer:
The groundnuts shall be separated by hand picking method, because they are in different size, When compared with urad-dhal.

Question 2.
In a glass containing some water, tamarind juice and sugar is added and stirred well. Is this a mixture can you tell why? Will this solution be sweet? or sour? or both sweet and sour?
Answer:
Yes. It is a mixture. It has more than one kind of particle, i.e. Tamarind, Water and Sugar are mixed together. This solution will be sweet and sour.

Question 3.
Justify your answer.

Arrangement of particles in three different phases of matter is shown above.
(a) Which state is represented by fig. 1?
(b) In which will be the inter particle attraction maximum?
(c) Which one of them cannot be contained in an open vessel?
(d) Which one can take the shape of its container?
Answer:
(a) Liquid state, is represented by Fig 1.
(b) In Fig. 3 the inter particle attraction will be maximum, because it is in solid state.
(c) Fig. 2 cannot be contained in an open vessel, as it is in gaseous state.
(d) Fig. 1 can take the shape of its container, as it is in liquid state.

IX. Life Skills-Debate

Question 1.
Debate on “Food adulteration and detection”.
Answer:
Food is the basic requirement for life. It should be pure, nutritious and free from any type of adulteration.

Adulteration :
Sometimes, things that we buy in the market are mixed with harmful and unwanted substances. Food can also get adulterated due to carelessness or lack of proper handling. It will not possible to check for adulteration on visual examination. Following tests will help even a layman or non-technical person to detect adulterants in the some of the products.

Detection:
Milk: Adulterants used can be water, starch, urea, sucrose, detergents, neutralizer, formalin etc. These adulterants are used to increase thickness, viscosity and shelf life of milk.

Test: Put a drop of milk on polished vertical surface. The drop of pure milk either stops or flows slowly leaving a white trail behind it. Whereas milk adulterated with water will flow immediately without leaving a mark. We can also use Lactometer for measuring specific density of milk.

Sugar: Adulterant: Chalk

Test: Dissolve sugar in a glass of water,chalk will settle down at the bottom

Ice Cream: Adulterant: washing Powder

Test: Put some lemon juice on ice-cream, bubbles come out in the presence of washing powder

Test: Take one teaspoonful of melted ghee or butter with equal quantity of cone. Hydrochloric acid in a test tube and add to it a pinch of cane sugar. Shake well for one minute and let it stand for five minutes. Appearance of crimson colour in lower layer shows the presence of vanaspathi.

We must be careful about the common adulterants in our food. We might be eating a dangerous dye, sawdust, industrial starch or other contaminated foods which are a major source of diseases. And thus, we invite diseases rather than good health. Food adulteration is basically lowering the quality of food. So, we must be aware of such adulteration.

XI. Sequence Type

Question 1.
Write the sequence of steps you would use for making tea.
Use the words : mixture, dissolve, filtrate and residue.
Answer:

1. Take Tea powder and Milk
2. Heat the milk, then add tea powder.
3. Add sugar to taste and, Stirr well.
4. The sugar will be dissolved in the mixture.
5. Filter the mixture. Tea (filtrate) flows down through filter paper.
6. Tea leaves settle as residue on the filter paper.

XII. Topic enrichment – Project.

Question 1.
Make a fruit or vegetable salad. Give reasons why you think it is a mixture.
Answer:
Fruit Salad:
Discard the skin of banana, papaya, orange, apple, pine apple, guava and make small slices. Add pomegranate and grapes. Then mix with cream milk and honey. Now the fruit salad is ready. As this Fruit Salad is a physical combination of two or more substances, it is a mixture.

Vegetable Salad:
It is prepared with the primary ingredients of tomato, cucumber, onion, carrot, mint, lemon juice and dried chili peppers. As this Vegetable Salad is a physical combination of two or more substances, it is a mixture.

Question 2.
Connect with sports
Air is not a pure substance. It helps us in many ways from breathing to playing. Balloon sports are a very popular sport. The basis of how the balloon works is that, hot air is lighter than cool air. which makes balloon rise up Find out more about Hot Air balloons.

Answer:
The hot air balloon consists of three parts: an envelope- which contains heated air, basket, and burner system which creates an open flame by burning a mix of liquid propane and air.

The basic principle behind hot air balloon is the use of hot air to create buoyancy, which generates lift.

Hot air weighs less than the same volume of cold air, because it is less dense. It means that hot air will rise up and float when there is cold air around it.

Nowadays, most hot air balloons are made of nylon. The melting point of this material is approximately 230° C. The temperature inside a hot air balloon is usually kept below 120° C.

Hot air balloon festivals are held annually in many places throughout the year, allowing hot air balloons operators to gather- as well as for the general public to participate in various activities.

Hot air balloon flights are not possible in the rain. This is because the heat inside of the balloon can bring rain to boiling temperatures on top of the balloon, thereby destroying hot air balloon fabric.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Intext Activities

Activity 1

Take a few crystals of sugar. Observe them carefully with the help of a magnifying lens.

Which of the shapes given above resembles a sugar crystal?
A B C D E F
Answer:
D
Now place a few sugar crystals in a teaspoon full of water. What happens to the sugar crystals?

A sugar crystal is also made up of molecules. When sugar dissolves in water, the sugar crystals break down and the molecules of sugar get distributed in water. This makes water sweet to taste. The sugar molecules are extremely small, that is why we are not able to see them. Small amount of matter has nfany millions of molecules in it. (1 million =10 lakhs).

Activity 2
Sit together in groups of three. Look at objects given below. Are they familiar to you? Are they same or different? On what basis did you group them? Is there only one way of doing it or more ways? Discuss with your group members and note it down.

Answer:
There are various objects. There are many ways to group them. For example,
Pencil & books – Used for Studying
Bucket and comb – Made of Plastic
Table and ladle – Made of Wood
Glass of water and spectacles – Light can pass through
Apple and iron box – Light cannot pass through
Cow and bird – Living things
Feathers and paper cup – Will float in water
Apple or piece of stone – Will sink in water
Scrub brush and broom – Rough

Try to fill in the following table.
Answer:
Things that float:

1. Feathers
2. Plastic Comb
3. Paper cups

Things that sink:

1. Glass
2. Piece of stone
3. Apple

Activity 3

Work in a group of two. Malar was asked to group some items based on their physical states. This was the table she made. Do you agree with her? Correct the table if you do not agree and submit it to your teacher.

Answer:

Activity 4

Question 1.
Lift an uninflated cycle tube. Inflate it and lift it again. Is there a change in the weight? Can we see that air has mass?
Answer:
The weight of the inflated cycle tube is more than the weight of the uninflated cycle tube. So we can say that air is also matter though we cannot see, it occupies and also has mass.

Test Yourself

1. Name an object which is brittle and transparent ______
2. Name an object which can be stretched ______
3. Name two objects which can be bent ______

Answer:

1. Glass
2. Rubber band
3. Feather, Paper cup

Activity 5

Let us take two sachets of juice. In both the sachets, it is written 100ml. Let us empty two sachets and pour the juice into the following glasses.

Question 1.
Does its shape also change? Yes / No

Answer:
Yes.

Question 2.
Does its volume change? when it is poured into a big glass or a small one? Yes / No.
Answer:
No.

Question 3.
How will you find out whether the volume has changed or not?
Answer:
With the help of graduated beaker, we can find put whether the volume has changed or not.

A liquid needs a container and takes the shape of a container because the particles slide past one another and keep moving. The amount of juice is the same in both glasses. The volume of a liquid remains the same whether it is kept in a large container or a small one but its shape changes.

Try it yourself.

Identify the mixture the table given below. Write “yes” for mixture and no if it is not a mixture. You may also write “I do not know” and later discuss with your teacher.

Answer:

Activity 6

Think and find out, is it a good idea to separate bran from flour?
Answer:
No. It is not a good idea to separate bran from flour. Because, Bran is rich in dietary fiber, and essential fatty acids. It contains significant quantities of starch, protein, vitamins. It is also source of phytic acid. In foreign countries it is used as a nutrients and production of oils.

Activity 7

Group Activity – Students are divided into 4 groups

Each group should suggest a method to separate mixtures and also give reasons why they used a particular method and what property of the components forms the basis for separation. Examples should be drawn from day-to-day life. After the group presents its method to the rest of the class, the whole class will discuss and analyse if the suggested method will work and then make a note of it in the form given below:

Answer:

Activity 8
Collect and share information on common adulterants and their detection in food stuff in the class. Watch the youtube video: 10 simple tricks to find adulterated food, https://www.youtube.com/watch? v=_XLi WunnudY
Answer:
(i) Argemone seed in mustard seed.
Argemone seed is crushed with hammer its cotyledon is white in colour.
Mustard seed is crushed with hammer its cotyledon is yellow in colour.

(iv) Tea Powder
Adultered tea powder – add water : The water is changed in red colour
Original tea powder – add water : The water colour will be yellow

(v) Chill Powder
Adultered Chilli povder – add water : The colour of water is changed to red colour
Good quality chilli powder – add water : The colour of water will be yellow.

(vi) Adulterated Turmeric powder is added with HCl. The mixture is red in colour then add water. No change.

Original Turmeric power is added with HCl. The mixture is red in colour then add water. The red colour is changed into colourless.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Matter Around Us Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
All the matter made of ______
(a) Particles
(b) Atoms
(c) Elements
(d) Mixture
Answer:
(b) Atoms

Question 2.
Intermolecular forces of attractions is maximum in
(a) liquids
(b) plasma particles
(c) solids
(d) gases
Answer:
(c) solids

Question 3.
A drop of water contains about ______ water particles.
(a) 1021
(b) 1012
(c) 1022
(d) 1020
Answer:
(a) 1021

Question 4.
The method of separating substances based on size, color and shape is called
(a) Hand-picking
(b) Winnowing
(c) Threshing
(d) sieving.
Answer:
(a) Hand-picking

Question 5.
has definite shape and volume.
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Solid

Question 6.
The space between _______ particles is the greatest one.
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) cold
Answer:
(c) gas

Question 7.
For removing grains from stalks, _______ method is used.
(a) Winnowing
(b) Sieving
(c) Churning
(d) Threshing
Answer:
(d) Threshing

Question 8.
Very tiny insoluble solid separated from a liquid is _______
(a) Winnowing
(b) Churning
(c) Sieving
(d) Filtration
Answer:
(b) Churning

Question 9.
_______ is a smallest particle.
(a) Molecule
(b) Element
(c) Atom
(d) Substance
Answer:
(c) Atom

Question 10.
We mix rice, dal, salt, chillies, pepper, ghee and other ingredients to make pongal. So pongal is also a _____
(a) Mixture
(b) Compound
(c) Element
(d) Matter
Answer:
(a) Mixture

II. State whether the following statements are True or False. If false give the correct statement.

Question 1.
Gas like state of Matter that exists at extremely cold temperatures used in the field of cryogenics.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
The particles in matter are extremely small and can be seen even with a powerful microscope.
Answer:
False. The particles in matter are extremely small and cannot be seen even with a powerful microscope.

Question 3.
The Cow and Birds are nonliving things.
Answer:
False. The Cow and Birds are living things.

Question 4.
The feather and paper cup can float on the water.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
The force of attraction between liquid particles is more than solid particles.
Answer:
False. The force of attraction between liquid particles is less than solid particles.

Question 6.
Gases have neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
Water particles have no space between them.
Answer:
False. Water particles have space between them.

Question 8.
Liquid is affected by gravity less than anything.
Answer:
False. Liquid is effected by gravity more than anything.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. Stars including Sun are covered in _______
2. Tiny particles present in all matter are called as _______
3. A _______ substance is made up of only one kind of particles.
4. Purity of gold is expressed in terms of _______
5. _______ is used to separate gravel from sand at a construction site.
6. _______ process is done after sedimentation.
7. RO is a process for removing impurities from _______ to make it potable.
8. Turmeric powder is adulterated with a _______ chemical.
9. In most houses people use commercial water filter to remove impurities and also kill the harmful germ in water using _______
10. The principle used in washing machines to squeeze out dirt from cloth is called _______
11. _______ is not affected by gravity.
12. An example for a substance to be obtained in highly pure form is _______

Answers:

1. Plasma
2. atoms and molecules
3. pure
4. Carat
5. Wire mesh
6. Decantation
7. Water
8. bright yellow
9. UV-rays
10. centrifugation
11. Gas
12. Gold from gold mines

IV. Complete the Analogy.

1. Bucket: Plastic :: Table : _______
2. Water : Liquid :: Apple : _______
3. Made up of one kind of particles : Pure substance :: Chemical combination of two or more element: _______
4. Mixture containing iron: Magnetic separation:: Muddy water: _______
5. Removal of Harmful germs : UV rays :: Removal of Impurities from water : _______

Answers:

1. Wood
2. Solid
3. Compound
4. Filtration
5. RO process

V. Short Answers.

Question 1.
Mention any two characteristics of the particles of matter.
Answer:

1. Particles of matter have a lot of space in between them.
2. Particles of matter attract each other.

Question 2.
How matter is grouped on the basis of physical states?
Answer:
Matter can be grouped into three states : 1. Solid, 2. Liquid, 3. Gas.

Question 3.
What is meant by compound?
Answer:
Compound is the substance formed by the chemical combination of two or more elements.

Question 4.
Define the term ‘Diffusion’.
Answer:
Diffusion is the tendency of particles to spread out in order to occupy the available space.

Question 5.
What is Decantation?
Answer:
After sedimentation, the supernatant liquid is slowly poured out from the container without disturbing the sediment.

Question 6.
How the substance of gaseous particles change to liquid state?
Answer:
When Pressure on a gas is increased, its molecules comes closer together, and its temperature is reduced, which removes enough energy to make it change from the gaseous to the liquid state.

Question 7.
Give any two characters of a pure substance.
Answer:

1. A pure substance is made up of only one kind of particles.
2. It may be elements or compounds.

Question 8.
Air is a mixture. Justify.
Answer:
Air contains Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon di oxide, Water vapour, Noble gases etc. So it is a Mixture.

Question 9.
Give the characters of a mixture.
Answer:

1. Mixture is an impure substance and contains more than one kind of particles.
2. In the mixture, the components are mixed in any proportion.

Question 10.
What is meant by separation?
Answer:
The process by which the components of mixture are isolated and removed from each other to get pure substance is called separation.

Question 11.
What are the steps involved in separation of sand, salt and water?
Answer:
Sedimentation, decantation, filtration, evaporation, and condensation.

Question 12.
Give any two examples of adulterated food.
Answer:

1. Used tea leaves are used as adulterants in tea.
2. Small stones are mixed with rice.

VI. Long Answer.

Question 1.
Classify the following based on their physical states.
Stone, Air, Kerosene, LPG, Book, Eraser, Smoke, Coconut oil, Petrol, Cool drinks.
Answer:

Question 2.
Fill up the column B with the correct term, given in the options below: (Sedimentation, Churning, Sieving, Threshing, Filtration)

Answer:

1. Threshing
2. Sieving
3. Filtration
4. Churning
5. Sedimentation

Question 3.
What is Decantation? Explain with Diagram.
Answer:
The water with the impurities is carefully poured away leaving clean rice at the bottom. This is called decantation.

1. This process is done after sedimentation.
2. The supernatant liquid is slowly poured out from the container without disturbing the sediment.
3. The part that has settled down is called sediment.
4. The water that is obtained after decantation is called the decantate.
5. The process of removal of water above the sediment is called decantation.
6. But even after decantation the water is not completely free from fine soil particles.
7. By the process of filtration, we can remove soil particles.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Weather and Climate

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Weather And Climate Class 8 Question 1.
Earth’s atmosphere contains about …………… percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.
(a) 78% and 21%
(b) 22% and 1%
(c) 21% and 0.97%
(d) 10% and 20%
Answer:
(a) 78% and 2l%]

Define Weather Class 8 Question 2.
…………… is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a region.
(a) Earth
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Climate
(d) sun
Answer:
(c) climate

8th Social Weather And Climate Question 3.
The earth receives energy from …………….
(a) Current
(b) Electro magnetic radiation
(c) Waves
(d) Heat
Answer:
(b) Electro magnetic radiation

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 4.
Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall
(a) Isotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyets
Answer:
(d) Isohyets

Climate Match The Following Question 5.
………….. is used to measure the humidity.
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Thermometer
Answer:
(c) hygrometer

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. ……………… refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.
2. The scientific study of weather is called ………………
3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is …………….
4. ……………. is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold.
5. …………….. and ……………. are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
6. ………………. are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places.

Answer:

1. Weather
2. Meterology
3. 56.7°C
4. Relative humidity
5. Wind speed, Wind direction
6. Isotherms

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. iii
3. v
4. i
5. ii

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

Weather And Climate Answer Question 1.
The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet.
Answer:
True

Weather And Climate Question Answer Question 2.
The Scientific study of weather is called Climatology.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Scientific study of weather is called meterology.

Define Climate Class 8 Question 3.
Isohel refers equal sunshine.
Answer:
True

Weather Definition Geography Question 4.
Humidity is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Air pressure is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.

V. Answer in brief

Match The Following Climate Question 1.
Define‘weather’.
Answer:
Weather is the day today conditions(state) of the atmosphere at any place as regards sunshine, temperature, cloud cover. Wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and such other elements.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.
What is insolation?
Answer:
Insolation is the solar radiation that reaches the earth’s surface. The earth and its atmosphere get heated from the sun through insolation.

Question 3.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The weight of air above a given area on the earth’s surface is called atmospheric pressure or air pressure.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Planetary winds”
Answer:

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds.
2. Trade winds, Westerlies and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

Question 5.
What are “Isolines”?
Answer:
Distribution of weather elements are shown by means of Isolines on maps. Isolines are lines which join the places of equal values of weather elements.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:
Weather:

• Weather is the day to day condition of the atmosphere at any place
• Refers to short periods like a day, a week, a month etc.,
• Sunshine, temperature, cloud cover, wind, fog condition, air pressure, humidity precipitation are some weather elements.

Climate:

• Average condition of the weather of a place or a region.
• Determined by measuring weather elements for a long period of time usually for 35 years
• Latitude, Altitude, direction of winds, distance from the sun, Ocean currents are some of the factors determining climate.

Question 2.
Absolute and relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity:

• Mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.
• Expressed usually in grams per cubic metre of air.

Relative humidity:

• Ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature.
• Expressed as a percentage.

Question 3.
Permanent and seasonal winds.
Answer:
Permanent winds:

• The ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.
• Also called Planetary winds. Example Trade wings, Weather winds

Seasonal winds:

• Winds which change their direction according to season in a year. Blow from sea to land in summer and land to sea in winter.
• Also called Monsoon winds. Example North east monsoon winds, South west monsoon winds

VII. Give reasons.

Question 1.
The Weather and climate in different regions vary.
Answer:
Angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

Question 2.
Temperature decreases with increase in altitude.
Answer:
Temperature varies both horizontally and vertically. Temperature always decreases with increasing height is known as Lapse rate which is 6.5 degree Celsius per 1000 meters in troposphere.

Question 3.
Mountain climbers carry oxygen cylinders while ascending peaks.
Answer:
With decreasing air pressure,the availability of oxygen to breath also decreases. At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low that people can become sick and even die. Mountain climbers use bottled oxygen when they ascend very high peaks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
How is temperature measured?
Answer:
Measuring Temperature:
1. The temperature of a unit volume of air at a given time is measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin. Meteorologist measures the temperature by the Thermometer, Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum Thermometer.

2. The energy received by the earth through insolation is lost by outgoing radiation.

3. Atmosphere is mainly heated by outgoing radiation from 2 to 4pm .So the maximum temperature is recorded between 2 and 4 pm regularly and minimum temperature is recorded around 4 am before sunrise.

Mean Temperature:
1. The average of maximum and minimum temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature [(87°F + 73°F)/2=80°F].

2. Diurnal range of temperature is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day. Annual range of temperature is the difference between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures of a year.

Question 2.
Write about the wind and its types.
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air is called wind.
The wind systems are broadly categorized into three as follows.

• Planetary winds
• Seasonal winds
• Local winds

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds. Trade winds, Westerlies and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

2. Seasonal winds are those which change their direction according to season in a year. They are called as monsoon winds. These winds blow from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

3. Local winds are the winds blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or a short period of a year. Land and sea breezes are example of these winds.

Question 3.
List out the weather elements and associated measuring instruments.
Answer:
Temperature, rainfall, pressure, humidity and wind are the major elements of weather and climate.
1. Temperature:
Measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin. Meterorologists Measure the temperature by the Thermometer. Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum thermometer.

2. Rain:
Is a major component of the water cycle and is the source of most of the fresh water on the earth. Rainfall is measured by raingauge.

3. Air Pressure:
Meteorologist uses barometer/aneroid barometer to measure the air pressure. Barograms are used for recording continuous variation in atmospheric pressure.

4. Humidity:
Hygrometer is used to measure the humidity, (which comprises wet and dry bulbplate side by side in the Stevenson screen)

V. Wind

1. Meteorologist measures wind direction using wind vane or weather cock. Wind speed is measured by anemometer. Wind need rose is a diagram used to depict the direction and periods (No. of days) of prevailing winds on map.

2. Meteorograph or triple register is an instrument which records wind speed and direction, sunshine and precipitation. It also provides graphic representation.

IX. Give any three suggestions to reduce global warming.

1. …………………………..
2. ………………………….
3. ………………………….

Answer:

1. Switching over to renewable energy sources.
2. Reduce water wastage
3. Shrinking carbon profile.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Weather and Climate Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ……………. receive slanting sun’s rays.
(a) Polar regions
(b) Equator
(c) Torrid zone
(d) Indian Ocean
Answer:
(a) Polar regions

Question 2.
The degree of heat present in the air is termed as ……………..
(a) Pressure
(b) Humidity
(c) Temperature
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(c) temperature

Question 3.
Which of the following represents places of equal sunshine ……………..
(a) Iosotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyet
Answer:
(b) Isohel

Question 4.
The distribution of temperature is shown by means of ……………..
(a) Isocryme
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isotherm
Answer:
(d) Isotherm

Question 5.
Based on the heat received from the sun, the earth is divided into ………………. zones.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 6.
The standard air pressure at sea level is ………………
(a) 1014.25 mb
(b) 1016.25 mb
(c) 1013.25 mb
(d) 1020.25 mb
Answer:
(c) 1013.25 mb

Question 7.
The scale is a sacle for measuring wind speeds.
(a) Richter
(b) Vernier
(c) Ratio
(d) Beaufort
Answer:
(d) Beaufort

Question 8.
…………….. has a large area where the average wind speed is low.
(a) France
(b) India
(c) Brazil
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Brazil

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The word climate is derived from the word …………… which means inclination.
2. The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth was at …………… station in Antartica.
3. There is a close relationship between …………… and rainfall distribution.
4. Generally, rainfall is high in …………… region.
5. Rainfall is high in the equatorial region and …………… gradually towards poles.
6. Low pressure system are also called …………… and ……………
7. High pressure is called …………….
8. …………… is used to show the distribution of air pressure. [Ans : ]
9. The highest air pressure at sea level was recorded at …………… Russia.
10. The small variations in pressure that exist largely determine the …………… and …………… patterns of the earth.
11. The level of humidity …………… towards poles form equator.
12. ……………. air holds more water vapour.

Answer:

1. Klimo
2. Soviet Vostok
3. Temperature
4. Equatorial
5. Decreases
6. Depression, cyclones
7. Anti cyclones
8. Iso bar
9. Agata
10. wind, storm
11. Decreases
12. Warm

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
The climate does not often change like weather.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Soil does not affect the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Soil affect the distribution of temperature.

Question 3.
The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth is – 89.2°C.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Humans are sensitive even to small variation in pressure.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Humans are not sensitive even to small variation in pressure.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
State the composition of gases in atmosphere.
Answer:
Earth’s atmosphere contains about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.97% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide and 0.04% trace amounts of other gases and water vapour.

Question 2.
Define temperature.
answer:
Temperature is one of the key elements of weather and climate. The degree of heat present in the air is termed as temperature.

Question 3.
What does temperature influence?
Answer:
The temperature influences the level of humidity, the process of evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the three mechanisms through which the earth received heat from solar radiation.
Answer:
Radiation, Conduction and Convection.

Question 5.
Define Low pressure.
Answer:
Low pressure area is an area in the atmosphere where the pressure is lower than its surrounding areas. In this situation, the wind
from the surroundings blow towards the centre of low pressure.

Question 6.
Define High pressure.
Answer:
High pressure is an area of atmosphere where the barometric pressure is higher than its surrounding areas. In this case, the wind from the centre of high pressure blows towards the surrounding low pressure areas.

Question 7.
What do low pressure and high pressure lead to?
Answer:
Low pressure leads to cloudiness, wind, and precipitation. High pressure leads to fair and calm weather.

Question 8.
Define Humidity.
Answer:
Humidity refers to the degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere in gaseous form in particular time and place.

Question 9.
Mention the effects of relative humidity.
Answer:
Relative humidity affects human health and comfortness. Very high and very low humidity are injurious to health. It also affects the stability of different objects, buildings and electrical applications.

Question 10.
How do the passengers in aircraft remain comfortable while flying?
Answer:
Aircraft take time to get used to the altitude as the quick move from high pressure to low pressure can cause decompression sickness. Aircraft create artificial pressure in the cabin which makes the passengers remain comfortable while flying.

Question 11.
Mention a few least windy places on earth.
Answer:
Gabon, Congo and DR Congo in Africa, Sumatra, Indonesia and Malaysia are the least windy places on earth.

Question 12.
Write a note on Al – Balakhi.
Answer:
Al – Balakhi, an Arab Geographer collected climatic data from the Arab travellers and prepared the First climatic Atlas of the world

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Seasonal and Local winds.
Answer:
Seasonal winds:

• Winds which change their direction according to season in a year. Also called monsoon winds.
• Example North East and South west monsoon winds.

Local winds:

• Winds which blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or short period of a year.
• Example Land and Sea breezes.

VII. Give Reason for the following

Question 1.
The polar regions are extremely cold in winters.
Answer:
The earth is spherical in shape. So, the sun’s rays fall unevenly on the earth’s surface. The Polar regions receive slanting sun’s rays. Hence there is little or no sunlight, thus there is an extreme cold winters.

Question 2.
Temperature varies with time due to changes.
Answer:
Temperature varies with time due to changes in the level of radiation which reach the earth surface. This is due to motions of the earth (The rotation and revolution) and inclination of the earth’s axis.

Question 3.
Our ears pop in Airplanes.
Answer:
As you go up in an airplane, the atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the pressure of the air inside your ears. Your ears pop because they are trying to equalize or match the pressure.

VIII. Answer in a Paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the Heat Zones of the earth.
Answer:
Heat zones of the earth:
The fact that the earth is spherical in shape results in different parts of the earth getting heated differently. Based on the heat received from the sun, Earth is divided into three heat zones. They are

1. Torrid Zone:
It is a region between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn. This region receives the direct rays of the sun and gets the maximum heat from the sun. This zone known as the torrid or the tropical zone

2. Temperate zone:
This zone lies between the Tropic of cancer and the Arctic circle in the Northern Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antartic circle in the southern Hemisphere. This zone gets the slanting rays of the sun and the angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards as the poles. Thus this zone experiences moderate temperature.

3. Frigid Zone:
The frigid zone lies between the Arctic circle and the North Pole and between the Antartic circle and the South Pole. This region also known as Polar region. Since it receives the extremely low temperature throughout the year,these regions are covered with snow.

Question 2.
Explain the ways in which humidity is expressed.
Answer:
1. Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.

2. Absolute Humidity is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air. It is expressed usually in grams per cubic meter of air.

3. Relative humidity is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature. It is expressed as a percentage.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Force and Motion

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer.

Force And Motion Class 6 Book Back Questions And Answers Question 1.
Unit of speed is
(a) m
(b) s
(c) kg
(d) m/s
Answer:
(d) m/s

Unit 2 Force And Motion Question 2.
Oscillatory motion among the following is
a. Rotation of the earth about its axis
b. Revolution of the moon about the earth
c. To and fro movement of a vibrating string
d. All of these.
Answer:
c. To and fro movement of a vibrating string

Force And Motion Class 6 Question 3.
The correct relation among the following is
(a) Speed = distance × time
(b) speed = distance / time
(c) Speed = time / distance
(d) speed = 1/ (distance × time)
Answer:
(b) speed = distance / time

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Question 4.
Gita rides with her father’s bike to her uncle’s house which is 40 km away from her home. She takes 40 minutes to reach there.
Statement 1 : She travels with a speed of 1 km/minute
Statement 2: She travels with a speed of 1 km/hour
a. Statement 1 alone is correct.
b. Statement 2 alone is correct
c. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct.
d. Neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Answer:
a. Statement 1 alone is correct.

II. Find whether the following statements are true or false. – if false give the correct answer.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 1.
To and fro motion is called oscillatory motion.
Answer:
True.

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 6th Science Question 2.
Vibratory motion and rotatory motion are periodic motions.
Answer:
False. Vibratory motion and oscillatory motion are periodic motions.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6 Science Question 3.
Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in uniform motion.
Answer:
False. Vehicles moving with varying speeds are said to be in ton-uniform motion.
(OR)
Vehicles moving with uniform speeds are said to be in uniform motion.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Standard Science Question 4.
Robots will replace human in future.
Answer:
False. Robots wili not replace human in future.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. A bike moving on a straight road is an example of _______ motion.
2. Gravitational force is a _______ force.
3. Motion of a potter’s wheel is an example of _______ motion.
4. When an object covers equal distances in equal interval of time, it is said to be in _______ motion.

Answers:

1. Linear
2. Non Contact Force
3. rotatory
4. uniform

IV. Match the following


Answers:

1. c
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. e

V. Analogy

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Guide Question 1.
kicking a ball: contact force :: falling of leaf: ________?
Answer:
Non contact force.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Science Book Back Answers Question 2.
Distance : metre :: speed : _______ ?
Answer:
metre/second.

6th Standard Choose The Correct Answer Question 3.
circulatory motion :: a spinning top :: oscillatory motion : _______ ?
Answer:
Swinging of a pendulum.

VI. Given below Is the distance-travelled by an elephant across a forest with uniform speed. Complete the data of the table given below with the idea of uniform speed.

Answer:

(i) Distance/Time = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 } \) × 4 = \(\frac { 16 }{ 22 } \) = 8
(ii) Distance / Time = \(\frac { 4 }{ 2 } \) × 8 = \(\frac { 32 }{ 2 } \) = 16
(iii) Time/Distance = \(\frac{1 \emptyset}{2 \emptyset}\) × 12 = \(\frac { 12 }{ 2 } \) = 6

VII. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

VIII. Give one word for the following statements.

Question 1.
The force which acts on an object without physical contact with it.
Answer:
non-contact forces.

Question 2.
A change in the position of an object with time.
Answer:
Motion.

Question 3.
The motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion.

Question 4.
The motion of an object travels equal distances in equal intervals of time.
Answer:
Uniform motion.

Question 5.
A machine capable of carrying out a complex series of actions automatically.
Answer:
Artificial intelligence.

IX. Answer the following in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
Define force.
Answer:
Forces are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.

Question 2.
Name different types of motion based on the path.
Answer:

1. Linear motion;
2. Curvilinear;
3. Circular motion;
4. Rotatory motion;
5. Oscillatory motion
6. Irregular motion.

Question 3.
If you are sitting in a moving car, will you be at rest or motion with respect your friend sitting next to you?
Answer:
I am in rest with respect to my friend, sitting inside the car.

Question 4.
Rotation of the earth is a periodic motion. Justify
Answer:
Rotation of the earth is a periodic motion because it takes equal interval of time for all rotations.

Question 5.
Differentiate between rotational and curvilinear motion.
Answer:
Rotational motion:

1. A body moves along a circular path.
2. Without changing its position, about its own (fixed) axis.
3. Eg. Rotation of a spinning top.

Curvilinear motion:

1. A body moves along a curved path.
2. Changes its position with motion.
3. Eg. Throwing paper airplanes or paper darts.

X. Calculate

Question 1.
A vehicle covers a distance of 400 km in 5 hour. Calculate its average speed.
Answer:
Distance covered by the vehicle = 400 km
Time taken = 5 hour

XI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is motion? Classify different types of motion with examples.
Answer:
Motion :
Change of position of an object with respect to time is known as motion.

1. Based on Path :

1. Linear motion. – Ex.: Parade of the soldiers.
2. Curvilinear motion. – Ex.: Paper flight moving.
3. Circular motion. – Ex.: Swirling stone tied to the rope.
4. Rotatory motion. – Ex.: Rotating top.
5. Oscillatory motion. – Ex.: Clock pendulum.
6. Zigzag (irregular) motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bee.

2. Based on Duration :

1. Periodic motion. – Ex.: Motion of a bob of simple Pendulum.
2. Non periodic motion. – Ex.: Swaying of the branches of a tree.

3. Based on Speed:

1. Uniform motion. – Ex.: Elour hand of a clock.
2. Non – uniform motion. – Ex.: Motion of a train, as it leaves a station.

XII. Fill with examples.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Intext Activities

Activity – 1

Can you identify whether it is push or pull that results in motion in the following cases?

Event 2:
The girl on the swing is moving with respect to the seat of the swing.
She is at rest with respect to the garden.

Event 3:
Nisha is going to her grandmother’s house by bicycle The girl on the bicycle is moving with respect to the road.
She is at rest with respect to the bicycle.

Activity – 2

Moon or Cloud?
Observe the moon on a windy night with a fair bit of cloud cover in the sky. As a cloud passes in front of the moon you sometimes think it is the moon which is moving behind the cloud. What would you think if you were to observe a tree at the same time?

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity – 3

Fill in the empty spaces.

Answer:

Can you give example for contact and non-contact forces?

Answer:

Activity – 4
Play with pencil
Please do what Shanthi did…

1. Shanthi took a pencil and sharpened it with a sharpener.
2. Then she drew a circle using the pencil and a compass.
3. Later she took her ruler (scale) and drew a straight line in another paper.
4. Then she kept the pencil between her finger and moved it back and forth.

Now, look at the motion of the pencil in all these four cases. How was it?

1. In the first case, the pencil rotated in its axis.
2. In the second case, it went in a circle.
3. In the third case, the pencil travelled in a straight line.
4. Fourth case, the pencil tip moved back and forth, that is it oscillated like a swing.

Activity – 5

Activity – 6
Classify the following according to the path it takes.

Linear, Curvilinear, Circular, Rotatory, Oscillatory, Zigzag (irregular)

• A sprinter running a 100 m race – Linear Motion
• A coconut falling from a tree – Linear Motion
• striking a coin in a carom board game – Zigzag Motion
• Motion of flies and mosquitoes – Zigzag Motion
• Beating of heart – Oscillatory Motion
• Children playing in a swing – Oscillatory Motion
• The tip of hands of a clock – Rotatory Motion
• Flapping of elephant’s ears – Oscillatory Motion
• A stone thrown into the air at an angle – Curvilinear Motion
• Movement of people in a bazaar – Zigzag Motion
• Athlete running around a track – Circular Motion
• Revolution of the moon around the earth – Circular Motion
• The movement of a ball kicked in a football match – Curvilinear Motion
• Motion of a spinning top – Rotatory Motion
• Revolution of the earth around the sun – Circular Motion
• Swinging of a pendulum – Oscillatory Motion
• Children skidding on a sliding board – Linear Motion
• Skidding down a playground slide – Zigzag Motion
• Wagging tail of a dog – Oscillatory Motion
• Flapping of a flag in wind – Oscillatory Motion
• A car driving around a curve – Circular Motion
• Woodcutter cutting with a saw – Linear Motion
• Motion of water wave – Oscillatory Motion
• Motion of piston inside a syringe – Linear Motion
• Bouncing ball – Oscillatory Motion

add five motions you observe to this list :

• Falling fruits from the tree – Linear Motion
• Ceiling fan running – Rotatory Motion
• Car running on the straight road – Linear Motion
• Swirling stone tied to the rope – Circular Motion
• Motion of sewing machine needle – Oscillatory Motion

Activity

Answer:
The Taxi driver travelled with highest speed.

How do we say? Let us calculate how long they travelled in One Hour?
Distance travelled by the Car in One Hour = 80 km (160 ÷ 2)
Distance travelled by the Bus in One Hour = 50 km (200 ÷ 4)
Distance travelled by the Truck in One Hour = 60 km (300 ÷ 5)

Have you found out? say now.
Fastest Taxi, Slowest Bus.

Our speed…

Let us play a small game. Go to the playground with your friends. Mark 100 metre distance for a race. Conduct a friendly running race and calculate the time they taken to complete the distance by stopwatch. Now fill up the following table.

Compute the following Numerical Problems.

1. If you travel 10 kilometres in 2 hours, your speed is 5 km per hour. (10 km/2 hours)
2. If you travel 15 kilometres in 1/2 hour, you would travel 30 km in one hour, and your speed is 30 km per hour. (15 km × 2/1 hours)
3. If you run fast at 20 kilometres per hour for 2 hours, you will cover 40 km. (20 km × 2 hours)

Activity

Multiple Motion to a Sewing Machine

Motion of the needle
Periodic (or) Oscillatory motion

Motion of the wheel
Rotatory motion

Motion of footrest
Oscillatory motion

Activity – 7

Simple Spinner

Let us enjoy by making a simple spinner. Make it by the following instruction.

Cut a 2cm long piece from an old ball-pen refill and make a hole in its center with a divider point (Fig 1).

Take a thin wire of length 9cm and fold it into a U-shape (Fig 2).

Weave the refill spinner in the U-shaped wire (Fig 3).

Wrap the two ends of the wire on the plastic refill, leaving enough clearance for the spinner to rotate (Fig 4).

On blowing through the refill, the spinner rotates (Fig 5).

For obtaining maximum speed – adjust the wires so that air is directed towards the ends of the spinner.

Have you enjoyed with simple spinner. Do you observe the motions in the toy. Can you answer the following question?

1. Motion of the air in tube is _____________ motion.
2. Motion of the refill stick _____________ motion.
3. The toy converts _____________ motion into _____________ motion.

Answers:

1. Linear
2. Rotatory
3. Linear, Rotatory

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Force and Motion Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
_______ is an ancient Indian astronomer.
(a) C.V. Raman
(b) Aryabhata
(c) Usain Bolt
(d) Edison
Answer:
(b) Aryabhata

Question 2.
What is the path of the housefly buzzing around the room?
(a) Periodic motion
(b) Non- Periodic motion
(c) circular motion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Non- Periodic motion

Question 3.
Identify the Periodic motion among the following :
(a) a horse running in a race
(b) revolution of the moon around the earth
(c) a coconut falling from a tree
(d) paper flight moving
Answer:
(b) revolution of the moon around the earth

Question 4.
The cheetah the fastest animal among terrestrial animals run with the average speed of
(a) 100 km /hr
(b) 200 km/hr
(c) 112 km/hr
(d) 10 km /hr.
Answer:
(c) 112 km/hr

Question 5.
_______ are robots scaled down to microscopic size in order to put them into very small spaces to perform a function.
(a) Car robots
(b) Home robots
(c) Game robots
(d) Nanobots
Answer:
(d) Nanobots

Question 6.
A _______ is the fastest land animal.
(a) Horse
(b) Lion
(c) Cheetah
(d) Tiger
Answer:
(c) Cheetah

Question 7.
A cheetah can run with an average speed of _______
(a) 112 km/h
(b) 121 km/h
(c) 211 km/h
(d) 122 km/h
Answer:
(a) 112 km/h

II. Find whether the following sentences are true or false. If false Correct the statement.

Question 1.
Motion occurs when the object is pulled or pushed by an agency.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Force executed by touching the body is called non – contact force.
Answer:
False. Force executed by touching the body is called contact force.

Question 3.
Gravity pushes the ripen coconut from the tree to the ground.
Answer:
False. Gravity pulls the ripen coconut from the tree to the ground.

Question 4.
Throwing paper aeroplane is the best example of linear motion.
Answer:
False. Throwing paper aeroplane is the best example ofcurvilinear motion.

Question 5.
The movement of a body about its own axis like a rotating top is liner motion.
Answer:
False. The movement of a body about its own axis like a rotating top is Rotatory

Question 6.
Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called as periodic motion.
Answer:
True.

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. _________ are push or pull by an animate or inanimate agency.
2. Application of force in an object results in motion from a state of _________
3. Fast oscillations are referred to as _________
4. Motion repeated in equal intervals of time is called _________
5. _________ are automatic machines.
6. The term Robots comes from a czech word _________
7. _________ is die study of robots in science.

Answers:

1. Forces
2. rest
3. vibrations
4. periodic motion
5. Robots
6. robota
7. Robotics

IV. Complete the web chart.

Answer:

• A – In animate factors,
• B – Contact forces.

V. Answer the following in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What is meant by the State of Rest?
Answer:
When there is no change of position of an object with respect to time and if it remains stationary it is called rest.

Question 2.
What is a non-contact force?
Answer:
The force applied without touching the object is known as non-contact force.

Question 3.
What is the contact force?
Answer:
When the force is in contact with the object then it is known as contact force.

Question 4.
Give the properties of force.
Answer:

1. Forces can change the state of a body from rest to motion or motion to rest.
2. Forces can change the shape of the body.

Question 5.
A bus moves with a speed of 40 km and crosses 200 km and then how many hours has that bus taken to travel?
Answer:
Time (t) = \(\frac{distence}{AverageSpeed}\)
Time (t) = \(\frac{200 km}{400 km/h}\) = 5 hours

Question 6.
Define Average speed.
Answer:
The distance travelled by an object in unit time is called average speed.

Question 7.
List out the types of motion on the basis of speed.
Answer:
There are two types:

1. Uniform motion,
2. Non-uniform motion.

Question 8.
Define uniform motion.
Answer:
If an object covers uniform distances in uniform intervals, then the motion of the object is called uniform motion.

Question 9.
Why robots are used in many places?
Answer:
Robots can perform mechanical and repetitive jobs faster, more accurately than human beings. It can also handle dangerous materials and explore distant planets.

Question 10.
What are the important parts of a robot?
Answer:
Electronic sensors are a robot’s eyes and ears. These are the important parts.

Question 11.
What is nanobots?
Answer:
Nanobots are robots scaled down to microscopic size in order to put them into very small places to perform a function.

Question 12.
What are the uses of future robots?
Answer:

1. It could be placed in the bloodstream to perform surgical procedures.
2. It could target cancer cells and destroy them without touching healthy cells nearby.

VI. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Classify the following motions according to the path it takes.
(a) A coconut falling from a tree
(b) Heart beat
(c) A stone thrown into the air at an angle
(d) Movement of people in a bazzar
(e) Motion of a spinning top
Answers:
(a) A coconut falling from a tree – Linear Motion
(b) Heart beat – Oscillatory Motion
(c) A stone thrown into the air at an angle – Curvilinear Motion
(d) Movement of people in a bazar – Zigzag Motion
(e) Motion of a spinning top – Rotatory Motion

Question 2.
Classify the following motions based on duration and speed.
(a) Coconut falls to the ground
(b) A cart pulled by a bullock
(c) Train journey
(d) A bouncing ball
(e) Revolution of Moon around the earth
Answers:
(a) Non-periodic Motion
(b) Non-periodic Motion
(c) Non-uniform Motion
(d) Periodic Motion
(e) Uniform Motion

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Light Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

Mirrors having a curved reflecting surface are called as –
(a) Plane mirrors
(b) Spherical mirrors
(c) Simple mirrors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Spherical mirrors

Light Book Back Answers Question 2.
The spherical mirror with a reflecting surface curved inward is called –
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Curved mirror
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Concave mirror

8th Std Science Light Lesson Question 3.
The centre of a sphere of which the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is a part is called –
(a) Pole
(b) Centre of curvature
(c) Cradius of curvature
(d) Aperture
Answer:
(b) Centre of curvature

8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question 4.
The spherical mirror used as a rear view mirror in the vehicle is –
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Convex mirror

8th Standard Light Lesson Question Answer Question 5.
The imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called –
(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Pole
(c) principal axis
(d) Radius curvature
Answer:
(c) principal axis

Light Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The distance from the pole to the focus is called –
(a) Pole length
(b) Focal length
(c) principal axis
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Focal length

8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question Answer Question 7.
Focal length is equal to half of the –
(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Axis
(c) Radius of curvature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Radius of curvature

8th Science Light Lesson Question 8.
If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 10 cm, what is the value of its radius of curvature?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 15 cm
Answer:
(c) 20 cm

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 9.
If the image and object distance is same, then the object is placed at –
(a) Infinity
(b) At F
(c) Between f and P
(d) At C
Answer:
(d) At C

Light 8th Standard Question 10.
The refractive index of water is –
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.44
(d) 1.52
Answer:
(b) 1.33

II. Fill in the blanks

1. The spherical mirror used in a beauty parlour as make – up mirror is ………………
2. Geometric centre of the spherical mirror is ………………
3. Nature of the images formed by a convex mirror is ………………
4. The mirror used by the ophthalmologist to examine the eye is ………………
5. It the angle of incidence is 45°, then the angle of reflection is ………………..
6. Two mirrors are parallel to each other, then the number of images formed is ………………

Answer:

1. Concave mirror
2. pole
3. Smaller, virtual and erect
4. Concave mirror
5. 45°
6. Infinite

III. Match the following

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Science Question A.

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

Samcheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Question B.

Answer:

1. b
2. c
3. d
4. a

IV. Answer in brief

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Science Question 1.
What is called a spherical mirror?
Answer:
Spherical mirrors are one form of curved mirrors. If the curved mirror is a part of a sphere, then it is called a ‘spherical mirror’.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 2.
Define focal length.
Answer:
The distance between the pole and the principal focus is called focal length (f) of a spherical mirror.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 3.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 25 cm. Find its focal length.
Answer:
Given : Radius of curvature = 25 cm
To find: f = ?
Solution:
f = \(\frac { R }{ 2}\) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 2 }\)
f = 12.5 cm

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 4.
Give two applications of a concave and convex mirror.
Answer:
Concave mirrors:

1. Concave mirrors are used while applying make – up or shaving, as they provide a magnified image.
2. They are used in torches, search lights and head lights as they direct the light to a long distance.

Convex mirrors:

1. Convex mirrors are used in vehicles as rear view mirrors because they give an upright image and provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
2. They are found in the hallways of various buildings including hospitals, hotels, schools and stores. They are usually mounted on a wall or ceiling where hallways make sharp turns.

Samacheer Guru 8th Science Question 5.
State the laws of reflection.
Answer:

1. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
2. The angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are always equal.

8th Standard Light Lesson Question 6.
If two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle of 45°, find the number of images formed.
Answer:
Given :
Angle of inclination = 45°
To find : Number of images formed = \(\frac { 360° }{ angle }\) – 1
Solution:
= \(\frac { 360° }{ 45% }\) – 1
= 8 – 1
= 7 images

Question 7.
Define the refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The amount of refraction of light in a medium is denoted by a term known as refractive index of the medium, which is the ratio of the speed of light in the air to the speed of light in that particular medium.

Question 8.
State the Snell’s law of refraction.
Answer:
Refraction of light rays, as they travel from one medium to another medium, obeys two laws, which are known as Snell’s laws of refraction. They are:

1. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of intersection, all lie in the same plane.

2. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence (i) to the sine of the angle of refraction (r) is equal to the refractive index of the medium, which is a constant.
\(\frac { sin i }{ sin r}\) = µ

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the images formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:

Question 2.
What is reflection? Write short notes on regular and irregular reflection?
Answer:
A ray of light, falling on a body having a shiny polished and smooth surface alone is bounced back. This bouncing back of the light rays as they fall on the smooth, shiny and polished surface is called reflection.
Regular reflection:

1. When a beam of light (collection of parallel rays) falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected.
2. After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other. Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
3. Hence, the law of reflection is obeyed in this case and thus a clear image is formed. This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.

Irregular reflection:

1. In the case of a body having a rough or irregular surface, each region of the surface is inclined at different angles.
2. When light falls on such a surface, the light rays are reflected at different angles.
3. In this case, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
4. Hence, the law of reflection is not obeyed in this case and thus the image is not clear. Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.

Question 3.
Explain the working of a periscope.
Answer:
Periscope:

1. It is an instrument used for viewing bodies or ships, which are over and around another body or a submarine.
2. It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light.
3. It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end, inclined at an angle of 45°.
4. Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and gets reflected vertically downward.
5. This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
6. In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher resolution.
7. The distance between the mirrors also varies depending on the purpose of using

Question 4.
What is dispersion? Explain in detail.
Answer:

1. Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours (wavelength), on passing through a transparent medium is known as dispersion of light.
2. Dispersion occurs because, light of different colours present in white light have different wavelength and they travel at different speeds in a medium.
3. Refraction of a light ray in a medium depends on its speed.

Question 5.
Speed of light in air is 3 x 10⁸ m s^-1 and the refractive index of a medium is 1.5. Find the speed of light in the medium.
Answer:
Given :
Speed of light in air c = 3 x 10⁸ ms^-1
Refractive index of a medium µ = 1.5
To find : Speed of light in medium v = ?
Formula :
µ = \(\frac { c }{ v}\)
Solution:
1.5 = \(\frac{3×10^{8}}{v}\)
v =\(\frac{3×10^{8}}{1.5}\)
v = 2 x 10⁸ ms^-1
Speed of light in medium v = 2 x 10⁸ ms^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Light Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which object use the reflection of light?
(a) Kaleidoscope
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Which surface will not reflect most of the light falling on them?
(a) Rough surface
(b) Smooth surface
(c) Shining surface
(d) Opaque surface
Answer:
(a) Rough surface

Question 3.
Which of the following demonstrates the law of reflection?

Answer:

Question 4.
The ENT doctor uses a …………….
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) Convex lens
Answer:
(b) Concave mirror

Question 5.
In dispersion, the colour of light that will bend more is ……………..
(a) Red
(b) yellow
(c) Green
(d) Violet
Answer:
(d) violet

Question 6.
Reflection by a looking mirror is called …………….
(a) Regular reflection
(b) Irregular reflection
(c) Regular and irregular reflection
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Regular reflection

Question 7.
The velocity of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms^-1 and in glass is 2 x 108 ms^-1. The refractive index of glass is .
(a) 2
(b) 1.5
(c) 1.8
(d) 1.33
Answer:
(b) 1.5

Question 8.
Incident angle of a ray of light is 30°. The angle between the incidend ray and the reflected ray is …………….
(a) 50°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 15°
Answer:
(c) 60°

Question 9.
In the head lights of motor vehicles, ……………… mirrors are used as reflectors.
(a) Plane mirrors
(b) Concave lenses
(c) Convex mirrors
(d) Concave mirrors
Answer:
(d) Concave mirrors

Question 10.
The phenomenon of light passing through the object is called ……………..
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Dispersion
(d) Total internal reflection
Answer:
(b) Refraction

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The bouncing back of light from a surface is called …………….
2. ……………. mirrors make things look larger when objects are placed close to it
3. Convex mirror always forms ……………. and ……………. image.
4. The incident ray, ……………. ray and the ……………. at the point of incidence, all lie on the same plane.
5. A ray of light incident along normal to the mirror ……………. its path.
6. When light passes from one medium to another the ray gets bent. This property of light is called ……………..
7. Spherical mirrors are one form of …………… mirrors.
8. ……………… mirrors magnify the object placed close to them.
9. The image formed by convex mirrors is ……………… than the object
10. …………….. mirrors form the perfect image of an object.
11. The …………….. of a mirror determines the type of image it forms.
12. The ……………. is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Answer:

1. Reflection
2. Concave
3. Virtual and erect
4. Reflected, normal
5. Retraces
6. Refraction
7. Curved
8. Concave
9. Smaller
10. Plane
11. Shape
12. Mirror

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
We can see things around us only when the light reflected by them reaches our eyes.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Light is a form of energy and it travels in a straight line.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The periscope is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The mirror is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Question 4.
Curved mirrors have surfaces that are spherical, cylindrical, parabolic and ellipsoid.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Curved mirrors form the perfect image of an object.
Answer:
False. Correct statement: Plane mirrors form the perfect image of an object.

Question 6.
Curved mirrors produce images that are either enlarged or diminished.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
A thin layer of molten aluminium or silver is used for coating glass plates that will then become mirrors.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The most common example of a convex mirror is the make – up mirror.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The most common example of a concave mirror is the make – up mirror.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:

i. e
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
v. b

Question 2.

Answer:

i. e
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
v. b

Question 3.

Answer:

i. d
ii. c
iii. b
iv. e
v. a

V. Assertion and Reason

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path
Reason : In reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Convex mirrors are used as rear view mirror in vehicles for observing traffic at our back.
Reason : A convex mirror has a much larger field of view.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 3.
Assertion : The mirrors used in search lights are parabolic and not concave spherical.
Reason : In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false
Correct explanation:
In search lights, we need an intense parallel beam of light. If a source is placed at the focus of a concave spherical mirror only paraxial rays are rendered parallel. Due to large aperture of mirror, marginal rays give a divergent beam. But in case of parabolic mirror, when source is at the focus, beam of light produced over the entire cross – section of the mirror is a parallel beam.

Question 4.
Assertion : We can see the rainbow in the sky when the rain starts falling after a spell of bright sunlight.
Reason : The rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of light.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true
Correct explanation:
The rainbow is formed when the light passes through the water droplets in air after it rains and gets dispersed into seven colours.

VI. Very short Answers

Question 1.
How does the light travel?
Answer:
The light travels along straight lines.

Question 2.
What is reflection of light?
Answer:
The bouncing back of light when it falls on smooth surface is called reflection.

Question 3.
What is mirror?
Answer:
The mirror is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Question 4.
What type of image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
Real and inverted image. If the object is placed very close to the mirror then the image is virtual and erect.

Question 5.
What is rainbow?
Answer:
The rainbow is seen as a large area in the sky with many colours.

Question 6.
Name the triangular piece of glass that splits white light into different colours.
Answer:
Prism.

Question 7.
What is the composition of sunlight?
Answer:
Sunlight is a mixture of seven colours.

Question 8.
Light bends as it passes from one medium to another. What is this phenomenon called?
Answer:
Refraction of light.

Question 9.
Name the two types of spherical mirrors.
Answer:

1. Concave mirror
2. Convex mirror.

Question 10.
The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?
Answer:

since angle of incidence = angle of reflection.
So, angle of incidence = 30°.

VII. Short Answer

Question 1.
Light travels fastest in vacuum. Why?
Answer:
Light travels fastest in vacuum than any other medium because there is no obstruction to the passage of light in vacuum.

Question 2.
Distinguish between real and virtual images.
Answer:
Real image:
Type of image which can be obtained on a screen is called a real image

Virtual image:
An image which cannot be obtained on a screen is called a virtual image.

Question 3.
State any two uses of concave mirrors.
Answer:

1. It is used as a reflector in torches, light houses, head lights of vehicles, etc., as it diverges the rays of light.
2. A dentist uses a concave mirror to obtain a magnified image of the teeth of the patient.

Question 4.
A convex rear view mirror is preferred over a plane mirror in a car. Why?
Answer:
Since convex mirror forms a smaller and virtual image, it can be used to see a much larger area than the area visible by a plane mirror.

Question 5.
What type of image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
The image formed by a concave mirror is real and inverted. If the object is placed very rear to the mirror then the image formed is virtual and erect.

Question 6.
Why do we need a shiny surface for reflection?
Answer:
The extent of reflection depends upon the shine and smoothness of the surface. More is the shine and smoothness of the surface more will be the reflection.

Question 7.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 18 cm. What is the focal length of this mirror?
Answer:
f = \(\frac { R}{ 2 }\)
R = 18 cm
f = \(\frac { 18}{ 2 }\) = 9 cm.

Question 8.
What happens to light when it gets dispersed? Give an example.
Answer:
Light is splitted into its constituent colours, when it gets dispersed.
Example:
Rainbow formation is due to the dispersion of white light after passing through water droplets.

Question 9.
If two mirrors are placed at an inclination of 30° then how many images can be seen?
Answer:
Formula : Number of images N = \(\frac { 360°}{ 30° }\) – 1
Given: θ = 30°
Solution:
N = \(\frac { 360°}{ 30° }\) – 1
= 12 – 1 = 11 images.

Question 10.
What is the speed of light in diamond if its refractive index is 2.41?
Formula :
Refractive index µ =\(\frac {Speed of light in air (c) }{ Speed of light in the medium (v) }\)
Given : µ = 2.41
Solution:
c = 3 x 10⁸ms^-1
µ = \(\frac { c }{ v }\)
v =\(\frac{3×10^{8}}{2.41}\)
Speed of light in diamond v = 1.24 x 10⁸ ms^-1

Question 11.
A light ray moves from glass (V_glass = 2.0 x 10⁸ms^-1) to diamond (V_diamond = 1.25 x 10⁸ ms^-1). What is the refractive index of diamond with respect to glass?
Answer:
Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass

Solution:

= \(\frac { 200 }{ 125 }\)
= 1.60 (No unit).

Question 12.
Find the refractive index of water with respect to glass if the refractive index of water is \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) and the reiractive index of glass is \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:

Solution:
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x \(\frac { 2}{ 3 }\)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 9}\)
Thus, refractive index
of water with respect to glass = \(\frac { 8 }{ 9}\) (No unit).

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between regular and irregular reflection.
Answer:
Regular reflection:

1. When a beam of light (collection of parallel rays) falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected. After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other.
2. Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
3. Hence, the law of reflection is obeyed in this case and thus a clear image is formed.
4. This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.

Example : Reflection of light by a plane mirror and reflection of light from the surface of still water.

Irregular reflection:

1. In the case of a body having a rough or irregular surface, each region of the surface is inclined at different angles.
2. When light falls on such a surface, the light rays are reflected at different angles. In this case, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
3. Hence, the law of reflection is not obeyed in this case and thus the image is not clear. Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.

Example : Reflection of light from a wall.

Question 2.
Explain the construction and working of kaleidoscope.
Answer:
Construction:

1. Take three equal sized plane mirror strips and arrange them in such a way that they form an equilateral triangle.
2. Cover the sides of the mirrors with a chart paper. With the help of a chart paper cover the bottom of the mirrors also.
3. Put some coloured things such as pieces of bangles and beads inside it.
4. Now, cover the top portion with the chart paper and make a hole in it to see.
5. You can wrap the entire piece with coloured papers to make it attractive.
6. Now, rotate it and see through its opening. You can see the beautiful patterns.

Question 3.
Explain the construction, working of periscope with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. It is an instrument used for viewing bodies or ships, which are over and around another body or a submarine.
2. It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light. It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end, inclined L’9ht at an angle of 45°.
3. Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and gets reflected 450 vertically downward.
4. This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
5. In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher resolution.
6. The distance between the mirrors also varies depending on the purpose of using the periscope.

Question 4.
Explain the uses of periscope.
Answer:

1. It is used in warfare and navigation of the submarine.
2. In military it is used for pointing and firing guns from a ‘bunker’.
3. Photographs of important places can be taken through periscopes without trespassing restricted military regions.
4. Fibre optic periscopes are used by doctors as endoscopes to view internal organs of the body.

Question 5.
Explain the images formed by a convex mirror for different position of the object.
Answer:

Question 6.
Answer:
1. A pencil placed in water in a glass appear to be bent at the surface of separation.

2. The base of a swimming pool appears to be raised due to refraction of light.

3. We should look straight down into the river while catching fish. If observed obliquely, the fish appears to be closer to the surface of the water than it actually is.

4. Stars look like tiny dots when viewed from earth, because they are far away from us. The light from the stars has to travel a long distance through the atmosphere before it reaches us. The atmosphere has various layers of different refractive indices. Light is refracted through each of them. These layers are turbulent. Every time one of the layers shifts, the thickness and refractive indices of air change and the light is refracted differently, creating a twinkling effect.

IX. Complete the given table

Question 1.

Answer:

1. At F
2. Diminished
3. At C
4. Magnified
5. Virtual and erect

X. Draw the following

Question 1.
Concave mirror.
Answer:

Question 2.
Convex mirror.
Answer:

Question 3.
Draw the ray diagram and write the characteristics of the image formed when an object is placed

1. At infinity in front of a concave mirror.
2. At infinity in front of a convex mirror.

Answer:

Position of the image : At F
Image size : Highly diminished
Nature of the image : Real and inverted

Position of the image : At F
Image size : Highly diminished , point sized
Nature of the image : Virtual and erect

Question 4.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a periscope.
Answer:

Question 5.
Draw a ray diagram to show a light ray travels from denser medium (glass) to rarer medium (air).
Answer:

When a light ray travels from denser medium to rarer medium, it speeds up and refracts away from the normal.

Question 6.
Draw a ray diagram to show a light ray travels from rarer medium (air) to denser medium (water).
Answer:

When a light ray travels from rarer to denser medium, it bends towards the normal.

XI. Cross word puzzle

Across:
3. The geometrical centre of a spherical mirror.
6. Centre of the sphere from which the mirror is made.
7. An optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.
8. Image which can be formed on a screen.
9. Image which cannot be formed on a screen.
10. The bending of a light ray when it passes from one medium to another medium of different density.

Down:
1. Mirror which converges a parallel beam of light passing through it.
2. Imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature of the mirror.
4. Mirror which diverges a parallel beam of light passing through it.
5. The formation of rainbow is an example of ______.
Answer:

Across:
3. Pole
6. Centre Of Curvature
7. Mirror
8. Real
9. Virtual
10. Refraction

Down:
1. Concave
2. Principal Axis
4. Convex
5. Dispersion

XI. Creative questions : HOTS

Question 1.
Imagine that parallel rays are incident on an irregular surface. Are the rays reflected from the surface parallel to each other?
Answer:
No, the reflected rays from irregular surface are in different direction.

Question 2.
A safety vest helps to keep the workers who are working by the roadside safe. This especially so during the nights. Why?
Answer:
The reflectors on the safety vest reflect light into the motorists eyes.
This help to alert the motorists of the wearer’s presence on the road.

Question 3.
What is the difference between virtual images of an object formed by a concave mirror and a convex mirror?
Answer:
The virtual image of an object formed by a concave mirror is always magnified one but the image formed by a convex mirror is always diminished one.

Question 4.
What is a virtual image? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.
Answer:
The image formed by the plane mirror appears behind it. We cannot however touch it. Also, the image of the object cannot be obtained on a screen, whether it is held in front of the mirror or behind it. Such type of images are not real. They are virtual images.

Question 5.
If all objects around us were to reflect light in a regular way, what problem might we face?
Answer:

1. Irregular reflection is what makes us see all the objects and everything around us.
2. If light were to get regularly reflected then every object would act like a mirror and our surroundings would be illuminated.
3. This would have a blinding effect on eyes making it harder for us to see.

Question 6.
Car rear view mirrors carry a warning message that “objects in the rear view mirror are closer than they appear”. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

1. Convex mirrors used in vehicles as rear – view mirrors are labeled with the safety warning: ‘Objects in the mirror are closer than they appear’ to warn the drivers. This is because inside the mirrors, vehicles will appear to be coming at a long distance.
2. Convex mirrors form erect and smaller images of the objects.
3. This does not give us the exact idea how far the vehicle is from us.
4. Thus, to avoid accidents, car view mirrors carry a warning message.