Laxmi

Students can Download English Poem 2 A Tragic Story A Memoir Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 3 Poem Chapter 2 A Tragic Story

A Tragic Story Poem Summary Poem Overview

A. Answer the following.

A Tragic Story Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
What made the sage upset?
Answer:
The sage was upset, as his pigtail hung behind him.

The Tragic Story Questions And Answers Question 2.
Why did the sage spin all day?
Answer:
He spinned continually all day to change the position of his pigtail.

A Tragic Story Question 3.
What solution did he arrive at for the mystery that he found?
Answer:
He thought that if turned him round, he can change the position of his pigtail.

The Tragic Story Poem Summary In English Question 4.
Was he finally successful in changing his pigtail’s position? Support your answer with a line from the poem.
Answer:
No, he was not successful in changing his pigtail’s position. The line ‘Still faithful to his back, the pigtail hangs behind him’ supports this answer.

The Tragic Story Class 4 Question Answer Question 5.
Did something dreadful happen? How would you describe the events in the poem- comedy or tragedy?
Answer:
No, nothing dreadful happened. The events in the poem are humorous. The illogical behaviour of the sage creates humour throughout the poem.

B. Read the poem lines and answer the questions given below.

1. But wondered much and sorrowed more
Because it hung behind him.

Tragic Story Poem Summary Question a.
What was he wondering about?
Answer:
He was wondering about why his pigtail is behind him and how to change its position.

The Tragic Story Question b.
What does the word ‘it’ refer to here?
Answer:
It refers to the pigtail.

2. And though his efforts never slack
And though he twist, and twirl, and tack,
Alas! Still faithful to his back
The pigtail hangs behind him.

A Tragic Story Poem Lesson Plan Question a.
Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines and give the rhyme scheme for the same.
Answer:
The rhyming words are slack – tack – back. The rhyming scheme for this stanza is ‘a a a b’.

A Tragic Story Poem Pdf Question b.
Did he quit his trying? How can you say?
Answer:
No, he did not quit his trying. The lines ‘Though his efforts never slack and though he twist and twirl and tack’ indicate that he kept on trying.

3. ‘He mused upon this curious case ’

A Tragic Story Poem Question a.
What is the figure of speech used in this line?
Answer:
The figure of speech used here is hyperbole, as it exaggerates a simple foolish thing of changing the position of his pigtail to a curious case.

4. Irony is a figure of speech in which words are used in such a way that their intended meaning is different from the actual meaning. It may also be a situation that ends up in quite a different way than what is generally anticipated. In simple words, it is a difference between appearance and reality.

Can this poem be called an ironic poem? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, this poem is an ironic poem because the word ‘sage’ is used in an ironic sense to refer to a person who is dull witted. It insists on how learned men lack practical common sense.

C. Fill in the table with the appropriate poem lines. A few lines may be used more than one time.

D. The summary of the poem is given. But there are some words missing. Fill in the blanks with the help of the box given below.

faithfully, change, pigtail, round, sage, down, slack, out, hung, place, behind, wain, face

Once upon a time there lived a sage. He had a handsome pigtail. He was worried and pondered over his pigtail’s place. He wanted to change its place. He wanted it hanging at his face. He didn’t like it hanging there behind him. So he turned right and left and round about, up and down, and in and out but it still hung behind him. However he tried, his efforts were in vain. But he didn’t slack in his efforts. Nevertheless his pigtail hung faithfully behind him.

E. Role Play.

Work with a partner. Let one student read the poem and the other to pantomime (communication by means of gesture and -facial expression) the poem as he or she reads.
(To be done by the students)

A Tragic Story Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension and Poetic Devices.

1. ‘There lived a sage in days of yore,
And he a handsome pigtail wore ’.

The Tragic Story Poem Summary In Hindi Question a.
Who lived long ago?
Answer:
A sage lived long ago.

Tragic Story Poem Question b.
What did he have?
Answer:
He had a beautiful pigtail.

The Tragic Story Poem Question c.
Pick out the rhyming words in these lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words are ‘yore – wore’.

2. ‘And swore he’d change the pigtail s place,
And have it hanging at his face
Not dangling there behind him.

Question a.
What did the sage swear?
Answer:
He swore that he would change his pigtail’s place.

Question b.
Where did he wants to have it?
Answer:
He wanted to have it hanging at his face.

Question c.
Pick out the alliterated words in these lines.
Answer:
The alliterated words are:
(1) pigtail’s – place
(2) have – hanging – his

3. ‘Then round and round, and out and in
All day the puzzled sage did spin;
In vain – it mattered not a pin
The pigtail hung behind him.

Question a.
What did the sage do?
Answer:
He turned round and round, out and in all day.

Question b.
Why was the sage puzzled?
Answer:
He was puzzled because he could not change the position of his pigtail, even though he turned round and round all day.

Question c.
What Is the rhyme scheme of the poem?
Answer:
The rhyme scheme is ‘a a a b’.

4. ‘Alas! Still faithful to his back’.

Question a.
Who Is faithful?
Answer:
The pigtail is faithful.

Question b.
Why did the poet use the word Alas’?
Answer:
He criticizes the sage’s ignorance and pities him in a serious tone, using the word ‘Alas’.

Question c.
Whose bag is referred to here?
Answer:
The back of the sage is referred to here.

II. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What makes the poem humorous?
Answer:
The antics of the sage, usage of mock serious tone, absurdity of the sage’s ‘curious case’ and his solution, the way the poet organizes his materials and arranges the sentence structures makes the poem humorous. The repetition of the last line of each stanza add humour to the poem because it always brings to focus how the pigtail mocks at the sage’s efforts by stubbornly remaining behind him. The ending of the poem indicates the readers that the sage didn’t stop his rotation, although it is useless. This also gives a humorous touch to the poem.

Question 2.
What is the theme of the poem and what message does the poet convey?
Answer:
The theme of the poem is ‘when men are too learned or too wise, they lose the sight of reality. Sages are considered more wise. The irony of the poem is that the sage shows total foolishness. The poet uses the words in old English such as ‘sage’, ‘yore’, ‘mused’ to emphasize that right from the olden days, the highly learned people are too foolish and irrational. He attacks them as people, who do not have practical common sense. He also conveys a message to the readers to be alert and thoughtful and always act in a meaningful manner.

A Tragic Story Summary

The poem ‘A tragic story’ written by William Makepeace Thackeray is a humorous poem which revolves around a foolish act done by a sage. Throughout the poem, the poet laughs at this wise man, who does not have any practical knowledge, but uses his theatrical knowledge and does foolish things.

The poet narrates us about a sage, who lived in the past with a beautiful pigtail. He was worried about his pigtail, being hung behind him. He thought about this for a long time and swore that he would change the pigtail’s place, which is apparently impossible and funny.

He would like to have it at his face and not dangling there behind him. This small thing is a serious problem for this wise man. He said that he had found a solution to change the position of his pigtail. So he turned him round continuously without stopping, throughout the day. He turned in different directions – he turned right and left, out and in, up and down. But the pigtail didn’t change a bit. Though his efforts were not slackened, and though he twisted, twirled and tacked, his pigtail hung faithfully and steadily behind him. Thus, this poem is amusing and the poet brings out the theme

“How learned man lack practical common sense.”

Students can Download English Lesson 2 Gulliver’s Travel Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf  helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th English Solutions Term 2 Supplementary Chapter 2 Gulliver’s Travel

Read and Understand

A. Read the following statements. Say True or False.

1. Gulliver was the captain of the ship.
2. One of the Lilliputians gave a ten minutes talk in Gulliver’s language.
3. Gulliver took the small creatures in his hand and crushed them.
4. The horses were four-and-a-half-inches tall.
5. The war between the two kingdoms ended in peace.

Answers:

1. False
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True

State True or False : Additional

1. Four of the crew members, including Gulliver got into a small boat.
2. His hair, which was long and thick, was similarly tied down.
3. To his surprise, he saw a human being not three inches high.
4. Gulliver took up fifty of the small creatures in his hand and crushed them.
5. Then they set about transporting Gulliver to the capital.
6. Two or three curious young Lilliputians wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep.
7. Gulliver was not set free at all.
8. The Lilliputians ran to Blefuscu for help.
9. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water.
10. Gulliver was hailed as a Hero.

Answers:

1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True
6. True
7. False
8. False
9. True
10. True

B. Identify the speaker / character.

1. He felt something moving along his body almost up to his chin.
2. They somehow managed to put him on the platform.
3. “Don’t let us down now, Gulliver; we need your help.”

Answers:

1. Gulliver
2. Lilliputians
3. The Emperor of Lilliputians to Gulliver

Identify the Character / Speaker : Additional

1. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender strings – Gulliver
2. They soon brought baskets of meat and several loaves of bread – The Lilliputians
3. ‘Don’t let us down now, Gulliver’. – The Emperor to Gulliver
4. His leg was chained and he could only move about a little bit. – Gulliver
5. ‘We need your help ’ – The Emperor to Gulliver

C. Choose the right option.

Gulliver’s Travels 6th Standard Question 1.
Gulliver managed to reach the land as he was _______
(a) A doctor
(b) One of the crews
(c) A swimmer
(d) the captain
Answer:
(c) A swimmer

Gulliver’s Travels Class 6 Question Answer Question 2.
Gulliver was set free because the emperor _______
(a) was afraid of him
(b) confirmed that he was not harmful
(c) was a kind hearted person
(d) wanted to get something from.him
Answer:
(b) confirmed that he was not harmful

Gulliver Was The Captain Of The Ship True Or False Question 3.
Gulliver was hailed as a hero because he _______
(a) made the army of Blefuscu giddy.
(b) fought with the army of Blefuscu
(c) drowned the army of Blefuscu in the water
(d) defeated the emperor of Blefuscu.
Answer:
(a) made the army of Blefuscu giddy

MCQ: Additional

Gulliver Was The Captain Of The Ship Question 1.
Gulliver, a ship’s doctor, took a job on the ship that was going on a long _______
(a) tour
(b) journey
(c) voyage
(d) trip
Answer:
(c) voyage

Gulliver’s Travels Book Back Answers Question 2.
The coast appeared strange and _______
(a) lonely
(b) vast
(c) simple
(d) new
Answer:
(a) lonely

Gulliver’s Travels 6th Class Question 3.
When Gulliver woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his _______
(a) body
(b) hands
(c) head
(d) face
Answer:
(d) face

Gulliver’s Travels Class 6 Question 4.
With _______ he signalled to the little people that he wanted food and drink.
(a) gestures
(b) symbols
(c) signs
(d) signals
Answer:
(a) gestures

Gulliver’s Travels Summary Question 5.
This tickled Gulliver’s nose like a straw, and made him _______
(a) cough
(b) laugh
(c) sneeze
(d) burp
Answer:
(c) sneeze

Question 6.
Finally, they arrived at the _______ palace.
(a) King’s
(b) Lord’s
(c) Sultan’s
(d) Emperor’s
Answer:
(d) Emperor’s

Question 7.
The king brought a _______ ships to mount an attack.
(a) fifty
(b) hundred
(c) thousand
(d) five thousand
Answer:
(c) thousand

Question 8.
The neighbouring _______ of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput.
(a) place
(b) area
(c) country
(d) kingdom
Answer:
(d) kingdom

Question 9.
The Littiputians ran to Gulliver for _______
(a) help
(b) money
(c) ships
(d) weapons
Answer:
(a) help

Question 10.
Gulliver was _______ as a hero.
(a) called
(b) praised
(c) hailed
(d) herald
Answer:
(c) hailed

D. Discuss in groups. Retell the story in your own words. Each one should say one sentence.

You can begin like this:
Gulliver was travelling in a ship. One stormy night, the ship was wrecked…
Answer:
Gulliver was travelling in a ship. One stormy night, the ship was wrecked. Six of the crew„ members including Gulliver got into a boat and rowed. They were overturned by a big wave but Gulliver managed to reach an island, as he was a swimmer. He felt hungry and tired. So he slept on a patch of grass. When he woke up, he was unable to move his hands, legs, head and body. He was tied up with slender strings on each side and attached to pegs fixed on the ground. Later Gulliver understood that they were Lilliputians who were not six inches high. When Gulliver tried to free himself, the Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body, until he was calm.

Gulliver asked for food and drink by signalling to-them with gestures. Gulliver slept ’’again and then he was transported to the capital on a large platform with twenty- two wheels pulled by dozens of four-and-half-inch horses. More than one hundred thousand Lilliputians came to see him. The Emperor received him and lodged him in an old and unused temple. After a few weeks, they decided that Gulliver meant them no harm. So they freed him. Gulliver stayed with them by helping them in many ways.

The neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput. The king brought hundred ships to mount an attack. Gulliver helped them. He walked into the sea, tied all the hundred ships and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The king of Blefuscu begged for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was the hero for them. After that Gulliver lived peacefully in Lilliput for many years.

E. Think and Answer.

Question 1.
How did Gulliver overcome the adversity?
Answer:
Gulliver landed into a strange city called Lilliput after the ship wreck. The people of Lilliput were not six inches tall. They thought he was a strange giant and tied him. Though Gulliver was upset at first, he managed to adapt to their environment and helped them in many ways, as they freed him, after some weeks. He also helpful them to make peace with their neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu. He lived there peacefully for many years.

Question 2.
How should one react to adversity?
Answer:
The diversity of religion, race, gender, culture etc are things that are bound to be different from person to person that you meet. Now is the time to embrace this diversity. The message to spread love and understanding are more important than ever in our day and time. Diversity fosters more creative and innovative workforce.

Question 3.
Describe Gulliver’s encounter with the army of Blefuscu.
Answer:
Gulliver walked into the sea. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

Project

F. Look at the traffic signals and write down the traffic rule against each signal.

Answer:

Connecting to Self

G. Look at these pictures. Think of how you must behave when you visit these places. Discuss with your partner and complete the table.

Use Dust bins:

1. Handle all the things with care.
2. Use the rest rooms allotted for you.
3. Keep your belongings carefully.
4. Always be with your elders.
5. Maintain discipline and give due respect to people.

Do not throw rubbish in public places:

1. Do not handle rough or break any object.
2. Don’t spit every where or pure water anywhere.
3. Don’t throw your belongings here and there.
4. Don’t go any where alone.
5. Don’t shout and run about disturbing others.

Steps to Success

H. What is the logical sequence for these words? Tick the right option.

eg. 1.Leaves, 2. Fruit, 3.Seed, 4. Flowers, 5. root
(a) 2,4,5,1,3 (b) 3,5,1,4,2 (c) 1,2,3,4,5 (d) 5,3,1,2,4
Answer:
(b) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

Question 1.
1. Drive, 2. Get in, 3. Arrive, 4. Park, 5. Open door
(a) 2,1,3,5,4 (b) 5,2,1,3,4 (c) 3,4,5,1,2 (d) 3,5,1,2,4
Answer:
(b) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

Question 2.
1. Travel, 2. Book, 3. Plan, 4. Confirm, 5. Enjoy
(a) 3,2,4,1,5 (b) 4,5,3,2,1 (c) 1,2,3,4,5 (d) 5,4,2,3,1
Answer:
(a) 3,2,4,1,5

Question 3.
1. Rest, 2. Return, 3.Supper, 4. Go out, 5. Visit
(a) 1,2,3,4,5 (b) 4,5,1,2,3 (c) 4,5,2,3,1 (d) 5,4,3,2,1
Answer:
(c) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1

Question 4.
1. Check out, 2. Pack, 3. Pay bill, 4. Vacate, 5. Drive
(a) 3,4,5,2,1 (b) 1,2,3,4,5 (c) 5,4,3,2,1 (d) 2,4,3,1,5
Answer:
(d) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5

Question 5.
1. Wait, 2. Slow, 3. Go, 4. Stop, 5. Get ready
(a) 2,4,1,5,3 (b) 1,2,3,4,5 (c) 5,4,3,2,1 (d) 3,4,2,1,5
Answer:
(a) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

Gulliver’s Travel Additional Questions

I. Rearrange The Following Jumbled Sentences in the correct Order.

A.
1. Hungry and exhausted,fee fell on a patch of grass and fell into a deep sleep.
2. The coast appeared strange and lonely.
3. But there was no sign of life.
4. Gulliyer dragged himself along the shore.
5. He looked for some people or houses.
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 3, 1
2. The coast appeared strange and lonely.
4. Gulliver dragged himself along the shore!
5. He looked for some people or houses.
3. But there was no sign of life.
1. Hungry and exhausted, he fell on a patch of grass and fell into a! deep sleep.

B.
1. Terrified and puzzled, he tried to turn his head.
2. He found his arms and legs were securely tied wife slender strings on each side.
3. When Gulliver woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his face.
4. His hair, which was long and thick was similarly tied down.
5. When he tried to get up, he found himself unable to sit up or move at all.
Answer:
3, 5, 1, 2, 4
3. When Gulliver woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his face.
5. When he tried to get up, he found himself unable to sit up or move at all.
1. Terrified and puzzled, he tried to turn his head.
2. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender strings on each side.
4. His hair, which was long and thick was similarly tied down.

C.
1. Startled by this sight, Gulliver cried out and soon managed to free his left arm.
2. He felt something moving along his body almost up to his chin.
3. The frightened Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body, until he once again lay down calmly.
4. To his surprise, he saw a human being not six inches high, with a bow and arrow in his hands.
5. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians.
Answer:
2, 4, 5, 1, 3
2. He felt something moving along his body almost up to his chin.
4. To his surprise, he saw a human being not six inches high, with a bow and arrow in his hands.
5. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians.
1. Startled by this sight, Gulliver cried out and soon managed to free his left arm.
3. The frightened Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body, until he once again lay down calmly.

D.
1. Gulliver pulled the ships, the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight.
2. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water.
3. Gulliver walked into the sea.
4. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was hailed as a hero.
5. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms.
Answer:
3, 2, 1, 5, 4
3. Gulliver walked into the sea.
2. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water.
1. Gulliver pulled the ships, the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight.
5. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms.
4. The Emperor agreed and Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

II. Read The Passage and Answer the Questions.

1. Gulliver, a ship’s doctor, took a job on a ship that was going on a long voyage. The voyage started well but soon things changed dramatically. The ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course. Then it hit a rock and broke up completely. Six of the crew members, including Gulliver, got into a small boat and rowed until they were overturned by a big wave which came up suddenly. Gulliver was a good swimmer and he managed to swim till he reached land.

Question a.
Who was Gulliver?
Answer:
Gulliver was a ship’s doctor.

Question b.
What happanad to tha ship?
Answer:
The ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course.

Question c.
How many of tha member* got Into a boat?
Answer:
Six crew members including Gulliver got into a small boat.

Question d.
Why ware they overturned?
Answer:
They were overturned by a big wave which came up suddenly.

Question e.
How did Gulliver managed to reach the land?
Answer:
As he was a good swimmer, he managed to reach the land.

2. After he had eaten, Gulliver promptly fell asleep because his drink had a sleeping draught in it. They then set about transporting Gulliver to the capital. They used a large platform with twenty-two wheels pulled by dozens of four-and-a-half-inch horses. They somehow managed to put him on the platform and dragged Gulliver down the road to the city. Suddenly Gulliver woke-up when the vehicle stopped. Two or three curious, young Lilliputians wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep. They climbed up into the engine, and advancing very softly to his face, put the sharp end of their half-pike into his left nostril. This tickled Gulliver’s nose like a straw, and made him sneeze.

Question a.
Why did Gulliver promptly fell asleep, after he had eaten?
Answer:
He fell asleep because his drink had a sleeping draught in it.

Question b.
How many horse pulled the platform on which Gulliver was laid?
Answer:
Dozens of four-and-a-half-inch horses pulled and dragged Gulliver to the capital.

Question c.
What happened when the vehicle stopped?
Answer:
When the vehicle stopped, Gulliver woke up suddenly.

Question d.
Who wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep?
Answer:
Two or three curious young Lilliputians wanted to see how Gulliver looked when asleep.

Question e.
What did Lilliputians do to Gulliver?
Answer:
They put the sharp end of their half pike into his left nostril.

3. The Emperor was there to receive Gulliver. Gulliver was lodged in an old and disused temple. His leg was chained and he could only move about a little bit. After a few weeks, the Lilliputians and their Emperor decided that he meant them no harm. So Gulliver was set free to roam around Lilliput on condition that he would not harm them and would help them in whatever way he could. Gulliver agreed and was freed. He was provided with food and water, a house was built for him. Gulliver stayed with Lilliputians helping them in many ways. Once, it so happened, that the neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput. The king brought a hundred ships to mount an attack. The Lilliputians ran to Gulliver for help. The Emperor said, “Don’t let us down now, Gulliver; we need your help.”

Question a.
Who was there to receive Gulliver?
Answer:
The Emperor was there to receive Gulliver.

Question b.
Where was Gulliver lodged?
Answer:
He was lodged in an old and disused temple.

Question c.
On what condition was Gulliver set free?
Answer:
He was set free on condition that he would not harm them and would help them in whatever way he could.

Question d.
What did the Emperor do for Gulliver?
Answer:
He built him a house and provided him with food and water.

Question e.
Who declared war on Lilliput?
Answer:
The king of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput.

4. Gulliver walked into the sea. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The King of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed. Gulliver was hailed as a hero and lived peacefully in Lilliput for many years.

Question a.
How many ships did the king of Blefuscu bring?
Answer:
He brought hundred ships to mount an attack.

Question b.
Why did Gulliver take a long rope?
Answer:
Gulliver took a long rope to tie all the hundred ships together and drag them in the water.

Question c.
What did he do the whole day?
Answer:
Gulliver pulled the hundred ships, the whole day, going round and round, until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight.

Question d.
What did the king of Blefuscu beg for?
Answer:
He begged for peace between the two kingdoms.

Question e.
Who was hailed as a hero?
Answer:
Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

III. Paragraph Questions.

Question 1.
What happened to the ship, when Gulliver was going on a long voyage? How did Gulliver escape?
Answer:
Gulliver was a ship’s doctor. He was going on a long voyage. The voyage started well but soon things changed dramatically. The ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course. Then it hit a rock and broke up completely. Six of the crew members including Gulliver, got into a small boat and rowed until they were overturned by a big wave which came up suddenly. Gulliver was a good summer and so he managed to swim till he reached land.

Question 2.
Where did Gulliver land after the shipwreck and how was he treated by the inhabitants?
Answer:
After reaching the land, Gulliver fell asleep. When he woke up, he was lying on his back and the sun was in his face. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender strings on each side and attached to pegs fixed on the ground. He felt something moving along his body. To his surprise, he saw a human being not six inches high with a bow and an arrow. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians. When Gulliver signalled them that he was hungry, they brought food and drink for him. Then they set about transporting Gulliver to the capital. There, the Emperor received him and set him free as they thought that Gulliver was harmless.

Question 3.
Who declared war on Lilllput and how did Gulliver help them?
Answer:
The neighbouring kingdom of Blefuscu declared war on Lilliput. The king brought a hundred ships to mount an attack. The lilliputians ran to Gulliver for help. The Emperor said, ‘Don’t let us down now, Gulliver; we need your help”. So Gulliver helped them. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. Gulliver pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to flight. The king of Blefuscu begged for peace between the two kingdoms. Gulliver was hailed as a hero.

Gulliver’s Travel Summary

Gulliver, a ship’s doctor was on a long journey. Suddenly, the ship got caught in a violent storm and was thrown off course. It hit a rock and broke up completely. Six of the crew members, including Gulliver got into a boat, but unfortunately they were overturned by a big wave. As Gulliver was a good swimmer, he managed to reach a land. Hungry and exhausted, Gulliver fell into a deep sleep. When he woke up, he was unable to move. He found his arms and legs were securely tied with slender string on each side and attached to pegs fixed on the .ground. He saw a human being not six inches high, with a bow and arrow in his hands. Gulliver later learnt that these creatures were Lilliputians. When Gulliver tried to free himself, the frightened Lilliputians fired dozens of tiny arrows into his hand, face and body.

As Gulliver was hungry, he made gestures to the little people. They asked him to promise to behave himself and then gave him food and drink. After eating, Gulliver slept. The Lilliputians set about transporting Gulliver to the capital. They used a large platform with twenty-two wheels pulled by dozens of four-and-a-half-inch horses. They somehow managed to put him on the platform and dragged Gulliver down the road to the city. One hundred thousand Lilliputians came out to see the strange giant. The Emperor of the city received Gulliver.

Gulliver was lodged in an old and disused temple. After a few weeks, they found that he would do them no harm. So Gulliver was set free to roam around and he also helped the little people in many ways. One day, the neighbouring kingdom declared war on Lilliput. The king brought a hundred ships to mount an attack. The Lilliputians ran to Gulliver for help.

Gulliver walked into the sea. He took a long rope, tied all the hundred ships together and dragged them in the water. He pulled the ships the whole day, going round and round until the army of Blefuscu was giddy and in no position to fight. The king of Blefuscu came begging for peace between the two kingdoms. The Emperor agreed. Gulliver was hailed as a hero and lived peacefully in Lilliput for many years.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

 Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Hydrologic Cycle

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Hydrologic Cycle Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Hydrological Cycle Questions And Answers Question 1.
The process in which the water moves between the oceans, atmosphere and land is called –
(a) River Cycle
(b) Hydrologic Cycle
(c) Rock Cycle
(d) Life Cycle
Answer:
(b) Hydrologic Cycle

Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
The percentage of fresh water on the earth is –
(a) 71
(b) 97
(c) 2.8
(d) 0.6
Answer:
(c) 2.8

Short Note On Hydrological Cycle Question 3.
The process of changing of water from gaseous to liquid form is known
as –
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(a) Condensation

Question 4.
Water that flows in the sub – soil or through the ground into the streams, rivers, lakes and oceans is termed as –
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Transpiration
(d) Runoff
Answer:
(d) Runoff

Question 5.
The evaporation of water from the leaves of plants is called –
(a) Transpiration
(b) Condensation
(c) Water vapour
(d) Precipitation
Answer:
(a) Transpiration

Question 6.
Water that is good enough to drink is called –
(a) Groundwater
(b) Surface water
(c) Potable water
(d) Artesian water
Answer:
(c) Potable water

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere is known as ………………
2. There are ……………… phases in the water cycle.
3. The falling of water towards the earth surface from atmosphere in any form is known as ………………
4. The precipitation with the rain drop size of 0.5mm in diameter is known as ………………
5. Mist is lesser denser than ………………

Answer:

1. Humidity
2. Three
3. Precipitation
4. Drizzle
5. Fog

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. i
3. ii
4. iii

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Evaporation refers to
I. The process in which the gaseous form of water changes in to liquid form.
II. It refers to the process in which the liquid form of water changes into gaseous form.
III. Water boils at 100°C temperature but, it actually begins to evaporate at 0°C.
IV. It is responsible for the formation of clouds.

(a) I, IV and V are correct
(b) II only correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) II and III are correct

V. State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
Water boils at 212°F temperature but, it begins to evaporate at 32°F.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Mist is not the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.

Question 3.
The sub – surface runoff is usually referred as interflow.
Answer:
True

VI. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on aquifer.
Answer:
An aquifer is an underground layer of water – bearing rock.

Question 2.
Define “hydrological cycle”.
Answer:
Hydrologic cycle is a global sun – driven process where water is transported from oceans to atmosphere, from atmosphere to land and from land back to oceans.

Question 3.
How is the dew formation takes place?
Answer:
Dew is a water droplet formed by the condensation of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object. It forms when the temperature of an object drops below the dew point temperature.

Question 4.
Write a short note on surface run – off.
Answer:
Surface Runoff is the portion of rainfall, which enters the stream immediately after the rainfall. It occurs, when the rainfall is longer, heavier and exceeds the rate of infiltration. In this condition the excess water makes a head over the ground surface, which tends to move from one place to another following land gradient and is known as overland flow. When the overland flow joins the streams, channels or oceans, it is termed as surface runoff or surface flow.

VII. Give reasons

Question 1.
Infiltration of water is low in the region of non – porous soil.
Answer:
Water entering the soil at the surface of the ground is termed as infiltration. Infiltration allows the soil temporarily to store water, the rate of infiltration is influenced by the physical characteristics of the soil, vegetative cover, moisture content of the soil, soil temperature and rainfall intensity.

Question 2.
Fresh water is less on the earth.
Answer:
Most of the water on the earth is saline and is found in seas and oceans, which constitutes about 97.2%.

Question 3.
Snowfall is common in the polar region and mountainous regions.
Answer:

1. The precipitation in the form of powdery mass of ice is known as snowfall.
2. Often water vapour in a cloud is converted directly into snow pieces due to lowering of temperature.
3. It is common in the polar and high mountainous regions.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the different stages involved in the hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three important phases of the hydrologic cycle are:

• Evapotranspiration,
• Precipitation and
• Runoff.

1. Evapotranspiration:
It is defined as the total loss of water from the earth through evaporation from the surface water bodies and the transpiration from vegetation. In cropped area, it is difficult to determine the evaporation and transpiration separately. Therefore it is collectively called as evapotranspiration.

2. Precipitation:
It refers to all forms of water that fall from clouds and reaches the earth’s surface. For the occurrence of precipitation, cloud droplets or ice crystals must grow heavy enough to fall through the air. When the droplets grow large in size, they tend to all. While moving down, by collecting some small droplets, they become heavy enough to fall out of the cloud as raindrops.

3. Runoff:
Runoff is the water that is pulled by gravity across land’s surface. It replenishes groundwater and surface water as it percolates into an aquifer (it is an underground layer of water – bearing rock) or moves into a river, stream or watershed. It comes from unabsorbed water from rain, snowmelt, irrigation or other sources, comprising a significant element in the water cycle as well as the water supply when it drains into a watershed. Runoff is also a major contributor to the erosion which carves out canyons, gorges and related landforms.

Question 2.
Distinguish between evaporation and transpiration.
Answer:
Evaporation:

• Process in which the liquid form of water changes into gaseous form.
• Rate of evaporation is affected by temperature, Areal extent of surface water, wind and the atmospheric humidity.
• 90% moisture in the atmosphere is contributed through evaporation.

Transpiration:

• Process by which the water content in the plant is released into the atmosphere in the form of water vapour.
• Rate of Transpiration is affected temperature, wind and humidity.
• 10% moisture is contributed through Transpiration.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation on different forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Forms of Precipitation:
The form of precipitation in a region depends on the kind of weather or the climate of the region. Common types of precipitation include rain, sleet, freezing rain, hail and snow.

Rain:
The precipitation in the form of water droplets is called rain. The precipitation in which the size of rain drops are <0.5 mm in diameter is known as drizzle and the . rain drops with >0.5 mm in diameter is known as rain. Generally drizzle takes place from stratus clouds.

Sleet:
The precipitation which takes place in the form of mixture of water droplets and tiny particles of ice(5mm in diameter) is known as sleet. Sometimes raindrops fall through a layer of air below 0°C. As they fall, the raindrops freeze into solid particles of ice. So, the mixture of water droplets and ice particles would fall on the earth surface.

Freezing Rain:
At other times raindrops falling through cold air near the ground do not freeze in the air. Instead, the raindrops freeze when they touch a cold surface. This is called freezing rain.

Hail:
The precipitation which consists of round pellets of ice which are larger than 5 mm in diameter is called hail or hailstones. A hailstone starts as an ice pellet inside a cold region of a cloud.

Snow:
Often water vapour in a cloud is converted directly into snow pieces due to lowering of temperature. The precipitation in the form of powdery mass of ice is known as snowfall. It is common in the polar and high mountainous regions.

Question 4.
Explain the run – off and its types.
Answer:
Runoff is the water that is pulled by gravity across land’s surface. It replenishes groundwater and surface water as it percolates into an aquifer (it is an underground layer of water-bearing rock) or moves into a river, stream or watershed.

Types of Runoff:
Based on the time interval between the instance of rainfall and generation of runoff, the runoff may be classified into following three types

1. Surface Runoff:
It is the portion of rainfall, which enters the stream immediately after the rainfall. It occurs, when the rainfall is longer, heavier and exceeds the rate of infiltration. In this condition the excess water makes a head over the ground surface, which tends to move from one place to another following land gradient and is known as overland flow. When the overland flow joins the streams, channels or oceans, it is termed as surface runoff or surface flow.

2. Sub – Surface Runoff:
The water that has entered the subsoil and moves laterally without joining the water-table to the streams, rivers or oceans is known as sub- surface runoff. The sub – surface runoff is usually referred as interflow.

3. Base Flow:
It is a flow of underground water from a saturated ground water zone to a water channel. It usually appears at a downstream location where the channel elevation is lower than the groundwater table. Groundwater provides the stream flow during dry periods of small or no precipitation.

Activity
Find out the missing components of hydrologic cycle in the given diagram and fill it up appropriately.

Answer:

1. Evaporation
2. Condensation
3. Precipitation
4. Transpiration
5. Runoff
6. Infiltration
7. Ground water recharge (Percolation)

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hydrologic Cycle Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
About …………….. of the earth’s surface is covered by water.
(a) 28%
(b) 71%
(c) 19%
(d) 50%
Answer:
(b) 71 %

Question 2.
……………. takes place from the surface water.
(a) Evaporation
(b) Transpiration
(c) Condensation
(d) Precipitation
Answer:
(a) Evaporation

Question 3.
The clouds melt and sometimes burst resulting in …………….
(a) Transpiration
(b) Evaporation
(c) Precipitation
(d) Condensation
Answer:
(c) Precipitation

Question 4.
Oceans, seas, lakes and rivers provide nearly ……………… of the moisture in the atmosphere.
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 90%
Answer:
(d) 90%

Question 5.
Over the oceans ……………. is more prevalent than precipitation.
(a) Transpiration
(b) Evaporation
(c) Condensation
(d) Run – off
Answer:
(b) evaporation

Question 6.
The rate of evaporation is ……………… during the periods of calm winds.
(a) High
(b) Twice
(c) Low
(d) Three times
Answer:
(c) low

Question 7.
For aviation purpose, the criterion for fog is …………….. or less.
(a) 10 km
(b) 20 km
(c) 30 km
(d) 25 km
Answer:
(a) 10 km

Question 8.
……………… is formed by microscopic drops of water or by small ice crystals.
(a) Frost
(b) Cloud
(c) Fog
(d) Dew
Answer:
(b) Cloud

Question 9.
Generally drizzle takes place from ………….. clouds.
(a) Cirrus
(b) Cirrocumulus
(c) Cumulus
(d) Stratus
Answer:
(d) Stratus

Question 10.
………………. is the downward movement of infiltrated water through soil and rock layers.
(a) Transpiration
(b) Percolation
(c) Runoff
(d) Infiltration
Answer:
(b) Percolation

II. Fill in the blanks

1. Only 0.25% of the available ground water can be economically extracted with ………………. technology.
2. Transpiration takes place from ……………….
3. When the air is ………………. evaporated water tends to stay close to the water body.
4. ………………. is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air.
5. In freezing rain, the drops of water are usually greater than ………………. in diameter.
6. Hail forms only in clouds during thunderstorms.
7. ………………. appears like a powdery mass of ice.
8. The percolation process represents the flow of water from ………………. zone to the ………………. zone.
9. The sub – surface runoff is usually referred as ……………….
10. Unit for measuring run off rate is ……………….

Answer:

1. Drilling
2. Plants
3. calm
4. Mist
5. 0.5mm
6. Cumulonimbus
7. Snow
8. Unsaturated, saturated
9. Interflow
10. Cubic feet per second

III. Match the following

Answer:

a. ii
b. iii
c. iv
d. i

IV. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
Condensation is the in which
(1) The gaseous form of water changes into liquid form
(2) Excess water vapour condenses to form snow.
(3) Condensation is responsible for the formation of clouds.
(4) Evaporation is the route for water to return to the earth’s surface.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct.
(b) 1 and 3 are correct.
(c) 1,2 and 4 are correct.
(d) 2 and 4 are correct.
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
Mention some of the uses of water.
Answer:
All plants and animals need water for survival. Apart from drinking, water is required for domestic, agriculture, industrial purposes etc. Water is very essential for carrying out almost all economic activities.

Question 2.
What is Hydrology?
Answer:
1. Hydrology is the science which deals with the various aspects of water such as its occurrence, distribution, movement and properties on the planet earth. Availability of water on the earth is not uniform. Some places are very rich in water resources while some other places are poor in water resources.

2. Hydrologic cycle is a global sun-driven process where water is transported from oceans to atmosphere, from atmosphere to land and from land back to oceans.

Question 3.
Name the six main components in hydrological cycle.
Answer:

1. Evapotranspiration
2. Condensation
3. Precipitation
4. Infiltration
5. Percolation
6. Runoff.

Question 4.
When does the rate of evaporation increase?
Answer:
The rate of evaporation increases with

1. Increase in wind speed
2. Increase in temperature
3. Decrease in humidity and
4. Increase in areal extent of surface water bodies.

Question 5.
Define transpiration.
Answer:
Transpiration refers to the process by which the water content in the plants are released into the atmosphere in the form of water vapour.

Question 6.
What are the factors affecting the rate of transpiration?
Answer:
The rate of transpiration is also affected by the temperature, wind and humidity. The soil water content and the ability of the soil to conduct water to the roots, the nature of the plant parts including barks and leaves also determine the transpiration rate.

Question 7.
Where do condensation and saturation occur?
Answer:
Condensation occurs when the air get saturated.

1. Warm air can hold more water vapour than the cool air.
2. Saturation occurs when the temperature drops down.

Question 8.
How does the infiltrated water return to the surface?
Answer:
Some of the infiltrated water ultimately returns to the surface through springs or low spots down hills. Some of the water remains underground and is called groundwater.

Question 9.
Define Percolation.
Answer:
Percolation is the downward movement of infiltrated water through soil and rock layers.

Question 10.
How does percolation move the infiltrated water?
Answer:
Percolation moves the infiltrated water through the soil profile and rock layers which leads to the formation of ground water or become a part of sub – surface run – off – process.

VI. Give Reason for the following

Question 1.
The water cycle can be considered as a closed system for the earths.
Answer:
The water cycle can be considered as a closed system for the earth, as the quantity of water involved in the cycle is invariable, though its distribution varies over space and time.

VIII. Answer in Detail

Question 1.
Explain the three major forms of condensation.
Answer:
Dew, Fog and Clouds are the three major forms of condensation
(a) Dew:
It is a water droplet formed by the condensation of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object. It forms when the temperature of an object drops below the dew point temperature.

Frost:
The ice crystals formed by deposition of water vapour on a relatively cold surface of an object is known as frost.

(b) Fog:
Fog is the suspended tiny water droplets or ice crystals in an air layer next to the earth’s surface that reduces the visibility to 1,000 m or lower.

Mist:
Mist is the tiny droplets of water hanging in the air. These droplets form when the water vapour in the air is rapidly cooled, causing it to change from invisible gas to tiny visible water droplets.

(c) Clouds:
Clouds consist of tiny water droplets/ice particles which are so small and light in weight. Clouds are formed by microscopic drops of water or by small ice crystals.

Students can Download Social Science Civics Chapter 1 Equality Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Equality

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Equality Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Science Question 1.
Which one of the following does not come under Equality?
(a) Non discrimination on the basis of birth, caste, religion, race, colour, gender.
(b) Right to contest in the election.
(c) All are treated equal in the eyes of law.
(d) Showing inequality between rich and poor.
Answer:
(d) Showing inequality between rich and poor.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 7 Social Science Solutions Question 2.
Which one of the following is comes under political Equality?
(a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy.
(b) Removal of inequality based on race, colour, sex and caste.
(c) All are equal before the law.
(d) Prevention of concentration of wealth in the hands of law.
Answer:
(a) Right to petition the government and criticize public policy.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Answers Question 3.
In India, right to vote is given to all the citizens at the age of ________
(a) 21
(b) 18
(c) 25
(d) 31
Answer:
(b) 18

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Solutions Question 4.
Inequality created by man on the basis of caste, money, religion etc is called as
(a) Natural inequality
(b) Manmade inequality
(c) Economic inequality
(d) Gender inequality
Answer:
(b) Manmade inequality

7th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
In Switzerland, the right to vote is given to women in the year
(a) 1981
(b) 1971
(c) 1991
(d) 1961
Answer:
(b) 1971

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. Civil equality implies equality of all before _______
2. The Indian constitution deals about the Right to equality from Article _______ to _______
3. Right to contest in the election is a ________ Right.
4. Equality means, absence of __________ privileges.

Answer:

1. Law
2. 14,18
3. Political
4. Social

III. Give short answer

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Question 1.
What is Equality?
Answer:

1. Equality is ensuring individuals or groups that are not treated differently or less favourably on the basis of specific protected characteristic, including areas of race, gender, disability, religion or belief, sexual orientation and age.
2. Gender Equality is the equal right of both men and women to have access to opportunities and resources.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Standard Social Question 2.
Why is gender Equality needed?
Answer:
All human beings, both men and women, are free to develop their personal abilities and make choices without any limitations. Women were not given equal rights

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 7th Social Question 3.
What is civil Equality?
Answer:
Civil equality is enjoyment of civil rights by all citizen. Without any discrimination of superior or inferior, the rich or the poor, caste or creed.

IV. Answer in detail

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Social 7th Question 1.
Write about the importance of Equality.
Answer:

1. Equality is a powerful moral and political ideal that has inspired and guided human society for many centuries.
2. The concept of equality invokes the idea that all human beings have equal worth regardless of their caste, colour, gender, race or nationality.
3. The democratic ideals such as liberty, equality etc are meaningful and effective only when they are implemented with justice.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 7th Social Question 2.
What is political Equality?
Answer:
Political Equality includes

• Right to vote
• Right to hold public Office
• Right to criticise the government

1. Citizens should have equal opportunity to actively participate in the political life.
2. In India the voting right is given to all the citizens who has attained 18years of age ’ without any discriminations.
3. Any person who has completed the age of 25 years can contest in the election. Right to criticise the government is also very important right and the people can express their resentment through demonstrations.
4. The value of the vote of the Prime Minister and value of vote of common man in general
   election is same which denotes political equality.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Question 3.
How does the Constitution of India protect the Right to Equality?
Answer:

(i) The constitution of India has also guaranteed equality to all citizens by providing Articles form 14-18.
Article 14 – guarantees to all the people equality before law.
Article 15 – deals with the prohibition of discrimination.
Article 16 – provides equality of opportunity in matters relating to employment.
Article 17 – abolishes the practice of untouchability .
Article 18 – abolishes the titles conferred to citizen.
(ii) Equality before law and equal protection of law have been further strengthened in the Indian constitution under Article 21.

HOTs:
Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Science Guide Question 1.
How can we eliminate inequality at school level?
Answer:

1. Students should be given admission in school without any discrimination of superior or inferior. The rich or the poor, caste or creed.
2. The Government has taken several measures to ensure that students from different state of the society get an opportunity to study in private schools too through RTE (Right to Education) Act.
3. Wearing uniform helps to nip off the social and economical discrimination that may arise among students. Students should be encouraged to develop feeling of oneness among themselves.

I. Life skills :
Write the correct answer.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Equality Additional Question

I. Choose the correct answer:

On Equality Question 1.
in equalities can never be rectified.
(a) Social
(b) Civil
(c) Natural
(d) Political
Answer:
(c) Natural

Samacheer Guru 7th Social Question 2.
is the first country to give right to vote to moment from the very first general election.
(a) China
(b) Pakistan
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. Rule of law was advocated by ________ the British Legal luminary.
2. The very first general election in India was held in the year ________
3. As of 2017, ________ is the fifth of seventeen sustainable development goals of the United Nations.
4. ________ and ________ are the pillars of democracy.

Answer:

1. A.V. Dicey
2. 1952
3. gender equality
4. Equality & Justice

III. Answer the following :

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Book Back Answers Question 1.
What is Social Equality?
Answer:

1. Social equality means that all citizen are entitled to enjoy equal status in society.
2. Without any discrimination of caste, creed, colour and race.

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Book Solutions Question 2.
What does UNICEF say about Gender Equality?
Answer:
UNICEF says Gender Equality “means that women and men, and girls and boys, enjoy the same rights, resources, opportunities and prolictions.

IV. Answer in Detail :

Social 7th Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
How can we promote equality?
Answer:

1. Treating all fairly
2. Creating an inclusive culture
3. Ensuring equal access to opportunities
4. Enabling to develop full potential
5. Making laws and policies
6. Education.

Students can Download Accountancy Chapter 7 Company Accounts Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 7 Company Accounts

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Company Accounts Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose the Correct Answer

12th Accountancy Chapter 7 Solutions Question 1.
A preference share is one ……………..
(i) which carries preferential right with respect to payment of dividend at fixed rate
(ii) which carries preferential right with respect to repayment of capital on winding up
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Class 12 Accountancy Chapter 7 Solutions Question 2.
That part of share capital which can be called up only on the winding up of a company is called ……………..
(a) Authorised capital
(b) Called up capital
(c) Capital reserve
(d) Reserve capital
Answer:
(d) Reserve capital

12th Accountancy 7th Chapter Question 3.
At the time of forfeiture, share capital account is debited with ……………..
(a) Face value
(b) Nominal value
(c) Paid up amount
(d) Called up amount
Answer:
(d) Called up amount

12th Accountancy Chapter 7 Question 4.
After the forfeited shares are reissued, the balance in the forfeited shares account should be transferred to ……………..
(a) General reserve account
(b) Capital reserve account
(c) Securities premium account
(d) Surplus account
Answer:
(b) Capital reserve account

Class 12 Accounts Chapter 7 Solutions Question 5.
The amount received over and above the par value is credited to ……………..
(a) Securities premium account
(b) Calls in advance account
(c) Share capital account
(d) Forfeited shares account
Answer:
(a) Securities premium account

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Accountancy Question 6.
Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Issued capital can never be more than the authorised capital
(b) In case of under subscription, issued capital will be less than the subscribed capital
(c) Reserve capital can be called at the time of winding up
(d) Paid up capital is part of called up capital
Answer:
(b) In case of under subscription, issued capital will be less than the subscribed capital

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Question 7.
When shares are issued for purchase of assets, the amount should be credited to ……………..
(a) Vendor’s A/c
(b) Sundry assets A/c
(c) Share capital A/c
(d) Bank A/c
Answer:
(c) Share capital A/c

12th Accountancy Answer Pdf Question 8.
Match the pair and identify the correct option:

Answer:
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

12th Accountancy Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
If a share of ₹ 10 on which ₹ 8 has been paid up is forfeited. Minimum reissue price is ……………..
(a) ₹ 10 per share
(b) ₹ 8 per share
(c) ₹ 5 per share
(d) ₹ 2 per share
Answer:
(d) ₹ 2 per share

Samacheer Kalvi Accountancy 12th Question 10.
Supreme Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each for non – payment of final call of ₹ per share. All these shares were re-issued at ₹ 9 per share. What amount will be transferred to capital reserve account?
(a) ₹ 700
(b) ₹ 800
(c) ₹ 900
(d) ₹ 1,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 700

II. Very short answer questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Question 1.
What is a share?
Answer:
The capital of a company is divided into small units of fixed amount. These units are called shares. There are two types

1. Preference shares and
2. Equity shares.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Chapter 2 Question 2.
What is over – subscription?
Answer:
When the number of shares applied for is more than the number of shares offered for subscription it is said to be over subscription.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Solutions Question 3.
What is meant by calls – in – arrear?
Answer:
When a share holder fails to pay the amount due on allotment or on calls, the amount remaining unpaid is known as calls – in – arrears.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Book Pdf Question 4.
Write a short note on securities premium account.
Answer:
When a company issues shares at a price more than face value, the shares are said to be issued at premium. The excess is called as premium amount and is transferred to securities premium account. It is shown under “reserves and surplus” as a separate head in the note to accounts to the balance sheet.

12th Accounts Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Why are the shares forfeited?
Answer:
When a shareholder defaults in making payment of allotment/call money, the shares may be forfeited. On forfeiture the share allotment is cancelled and to that extent, paid up share capital reduced.

III. Short answer questions

12th Accountancy Question 1.
State the different between preference shares and equity shares?
Answer:

Chapter 7 Accounts Class 12 Question 2.
Write a brief note on calls – in – advance.
Answer:
The excess amount paid over the called up value of a share is known as calls – in – advance. It is the excess money paid on application or allotment or calls. Such excess amount can be returned or adjusted towards future payment. If the company decides to adjust such amount towards future payment, the excess amount is transferred to a separate account called calls-in advance account.

12th Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
What is reissue of forfeited shares?
Answer:
The directors of a company have an authority of reissue of shares once forfeited by them due to non – payment of calls. They can reissue the forfeited shares at par, at premium or at discount. When forfeited shares are reissued at a premium, the amount of such premium will be credited to securities premium. If the reissue price is more than the amount unpaid of forfeited shares it results in profit and is transferred to capital reserve account

Ch 7 Accounts Class 12 Question 4.
Write a short note as:

1. Authorised Capital
2. Reserve Capital

Answer:
1. Authorised Capital : According Sec 2(8) of the Companies Act, “It means such capital as is authorised by the memorandum of a company to be the maximum amount of share capital of the company”.

2. Reserve Capital : Sec 65 of Companies Act 2013, only an unlimited company having share capital while converting into a limited company, may have a reserve capital. The company reserve a part of its subscribed capital to be called up only at the time of winding up. It is called reserve capital.

Accounts Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
What is meant by issue of shares for consideration other than cash?
Answer:
A company may issue shares for consideration other than cash when the company acquires fixed assets such as land, building and machinery, etc. A company may also issue shares as consideration for the purchase of business, to promotors for their services and to brokers and underwriters for their commission.

IV. Exercises

12 Accountancy Book Back Answers Question 1.
Progress Ltd. issued 50,000 ordinary shares of ₹ 10 each, payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 4 on allotment, ₹ 2 on first call and ₹ 2 on final call. All the shares are subscribed and amount was duly received. Pass journal entries.
Answer:

12th Accounts Book Back Answers Question 2.
Sampath company issued 25,000 shares at ₹ 10 per share payable ₹ 3 on application, ₹ 4 on allotment, ₹ 3 on first and final call. The public subscribed for 24,000 shares. The directors allotted all the 24,000 shares and received the money duly. Pass necessary journal entries.
Answer:

Question 3.
Saranya Ltd. issued 20,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each to the public at par. The details of the amount payable on the shares are as follows:
On application ₹ 3 per share
On allotment ₹ 4 per share
On first and final call ₹ 3 per share
Application money was received on 30,000 shares. Excess application money was refunded immediately. Pass journal entries to record the above.
Answer:

Question 4.
Gaja Ltd issued 40,000 shares of ₹ 10 each to the public payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 5 on allotment and ₹ 3 on first and final call. Applications were received for 50,000 shares. The Directors decided to allot 40,000 shares on pro rata basis and surplus of application money was utilised for allotment. Pass journal entries assuming that the amounts due were received.
Journal Emtries

Question 5.
Lalitha Ltd. offered 30,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each to the public payable ₹ 2 per share on application, ₹ 3 on share allotment and the balance when required. Applications for 50,000 shares were received on which the directors allotted as:
Applicants for 10,000 shares – Full
Applicants for 35,000 shares – 20,000 shares (excess money will be utilised for allotment)
Applicants for 5,000 shares – Nil
All the money due was received. Pass journal entries upto the receipt of allotment.
Journal Entries

Working Notes:

Question 6.
Das Ltd. offered 50,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each to the public payable as follows:
On application ₹ 4; on allotment ₹ 3; on first call ₹ 1 and on second and final call ₹ 2. Applications were received for 1,00,000 shares. All the applicants were allotted 1 share for every two shares applied. Excess application money was used for amount due on allotment and call. Pass necessary journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 7.
Anjali Flour Ltd. with a registered capital of ₹ 4,00,000 in equity shares of ₹ 10 each, issued 30,000 of such shares; payable ₹ 2 per share on application, ₹ 5 per share on allotment and ₹ 3 per share on first call. The issue was duly subscribed.
All the money payable was duly received but on allotment, one shareholder paid the entire balance on his holding of 500 shares. Give journal entries to record the transactions.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 8.
Muthu Ltd. issued 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable as follows:
₹ 2 on application; ₹ 4 on allotment; ₹ 4 on first and final call.
All money were duly received except one shareholder holding 1,000 shares failed to pay the call money. Pass the necessary journal entries for calls by using calls in arrear account.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 9.
Arjun was holding 1,000 shares of ₹ 10 each of Vanavil Electronics Ltd, issued at par. He paid ₹ 3 on application, ₹ 4 on allotment but could not pay the first and final call of ₹ 3. The directors forfeited the shares for non – payment of call money. Give Journal entry for forfeiture of shares.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 10.
Lakshith was holding 50 shares of ₹ 10 each on which he paid ₹ 2 on application but could not pay ₹ 4 on allotment and ₹ 2 on first call. Directors forfeited the shares after the first call. Give journal entry for recording the forfeiture of shares.
Answer:

Question 11.
Goutham Ltd. forfeited 500 equity shares of ₹ 10 each issued at par held by Ragav for non – payment of the final call of ₹ 2 per share. The shares were forfeited and reissued to Madhan at ₹ 8 per share. Show the journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 12.
Nivetha Ltd. forfeited 1,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each for non payment of call of ₹ 4 per share. Of these 800 shares were reissued @ ₹ 7 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 13.
Nathiya Textiles Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 8 called up, on which Mayuri had paid application and allotment money of ₹ 6 per share. Of these 75 shares were re-issued to Soundarya by receiving ₹ 7 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:

Question 14.
Simon Ltd issued 50,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each at par payable on application ₹ 1 per share, on allotment ₹ 5 per share, on first call ₹ 2 per share and on second and final call ₹ 2 per share. The issue was fully subscribed and all the amounts were duly received with the exception of 2,000 shares held by Chezhian, who failed to pay the second and final call. His shares were forfeited and reissued to Elango at ₹ 8 per share. Journalise the above transactions.
Journal Entries

Question 15.
Kanchana Ltd. issued 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable as under.
On application – ₹ 1
On allotment – ₹ 5
On first call – ₹ 2
On final call – ₹ 2
Applications were received for 70,000 shares. Applications for 8,000 shares were rejected and allotment was made proportionately towards remaining applications. The directors made both the calls and the all the amount were received except the final call on 1,500 shares which were subsequently forfeited. Later 1,200 forfeited shares were reissued by receiving ₹ 8 per share. Give journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 16.
Viswanath Furniture Ltd. invited applications for 20,000 shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2 per share payable.
₹ 2 on application
₹ 5 (including premium) on allotment
₹ 5 on first and final call
There was over subscription and applications were received for 30,000 shares and the excess applications were rejected by the directors. Pass the journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 17.
United Industries Ltd. issued shares of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium payable ₹ 3 on application, ₹ 4 on allotment (including premium), ₹ 2 on first call and ₹ 2 on final call.

Journalise the transactions relating to forfeiture of shares for the following situations: Manoj who holds 250 shares failed to pay the second and final call and his shares were forfeited. Manoj who holds 250 shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call and second and final call and his shares were forfeited. Manoj who holds 250 shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call money and his shares were forfeited after the first call.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 18.
Kasthuri Ltd. had allotted 20,000 shares to applicants of 30,000 shares on a pro – rata basis. The amount payable was ₹ 1 on application, ₹ 5 on allotment (including premium of ₹ 2 each), and ₹ 2 on first call and ₹ 2 on final calls. Subin, a shareholder failed to pay the first call and final call on his 500 shares. All the shares were forfeited and out of them 400 shares were re-issued @ ₹ 8 per share. Pass necessary journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 19.
Vairam Ltd. issued 60,000 shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2 per share payable as follows:
On application ₹ 6
On allotment ₹ 4 (including premium)
On first and final call ₹ 2
Issue was fully subscribed and the amounts due were received except Saritha to whom 1,000 shares were allotted who failed to pay the allotment money and first and final call money. Her shares were forfeited. All the forfeited shares were reissued to Parimala at ₹ 7 per share. Pass journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 20.
Abdul Ltd. issues 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2 per share. Pass journal entry if the amount is fully received along with premium amount of ₹ 2 per share.

Question 21.
Paradise Ltd. purchased assets of ₹ 4,40,000 from Suguna Furniture Ltd. It issued equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid in satisfaction of their claim. What entries will be made if such issue is: (a) at par and (b) at premium of 10%.
Answer:

Total Amount = ₹ 4,40,000 Face value of shares is 10.
Premium @ 10% = Premium amt Rs. 1.
Issue Price = Face Value + Securities Premium 10 + 1 = 11
No. of Equity Shares = \(\frac{\text { Total amount }}{\text { Issue price }}\) = \(\frac { 440000 }{ 11 }\)
= 40,000 Shares

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Company Accounts Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Equity Share holders are ………………
(a) Creditors
(b) Owners
(c) Directors
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Owners

Question 2.
Money received in advance from share holders before it is actually called – up by the director is
(a) debited to calls – in – advance A/c
(b) Cr to Calls – in – advance A/c
(c) Dr to calls A/c
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Cr to Calls – in – advance A/c

Question 3.
Securities Premium Reserve can be used for ………………
(a) Paying interest on debentures
(b) meeting the cost of issue of shares
(c) Paying tax liability
(d) Paying dividend as shares
Answer:
(b) meeting the cost of issue of shares

Question 4.
When share are alloted which of the following account is credited?
(a) Share capital A/c
(b) Share Allotment A/c
(c) Share Application Ac
(d) Shareholders Ac
Answer:
(a) Share capital Ac

Question 5.
Right issue of shares is issued to ………………
(a) Directors
(b) Employees
(c) Existing Shareholders
(d) Shareholder A/c
Answer:
(c) Existing Shareholders

Question 6.
At what rate a company is required to change interest on calls – in – arrears?
(a) 12% p.a.
(b) 10% p.a.
(c) 5% p.a.
(d) 6% p.a.
Answer:
(b) 10% p.a.

Question 7.
At what rate a company is required to pay interest on calls – in – arrears?
(a) 6% p.a.
(b) 12% p.a.
(c) 10% p.a.
(d) 5% p.a.
Answer:
(b) 12% p.a.

Question 8.
According to Companies Act 2000, a company limited by share can issue ……………… kinds of shares.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 9.
The maximum calls that a company can make is ………………
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
Answer:
(c) three

Question 10.
Capital Reserve is shown on the side of balance sheets ………………
(a) Assets
(b) Liability
(c) Both
Answer:
(b) Liability

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 11.
When excess application money is adjusted towards allotment it is called as ……………… allotment.
Answer:
Pro – rata

Question 12.
There should be a time gap of between two calls.
Answer:
One month

Question 13.
Capital Reserve represent ……………… profit.
Answer:
Capital

Question 14.
Reserve Capital can be issued at the time of ………………
Answer:
Winding up

Question 15.
A Company may also issue shares as consideration for business, to ……………… for their services ……………… for their commission.
Answer:
Promotors, Brokers

III. Assertion and Reason

Question 16.
(i) Assertion : When a shareholder default in making payment of allotment/call money share may be forfeited.
(ii) Reason : Share forfeited can be reissued at par, discount or premium.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (i) is correct (ii) is incorrect
(c) (i) and (iii) are incorrect
(d) (i) is incorrect (ii) is correct
Answer:
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct

IV. Match the following

Question 17.

Answer:
(3) (d) (c) (a) (b)

V. Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name different types of share capital.
Answer:

1. Authorised share capital.
2. Issued share capital.
3. Subscribed share capital.
4. Called – up – share capital.
5. Paid – up – share capital and.
6. Reserve capital.

Question 2.
What is meant by Authorised Capital?
Answer:
This is the amount stated in the capital clause of the memorandum of association with which the company was registered. It is the maximum amount a company can raise during the life time.

Question 3.
What do you mean by Capital Reserve?
Answer:
It is that reserve which is created out of capital profits such as profit on sale of fixed assets, profit on revaluation of assets, premium on issue of shares and debentures, etc.

Question 4.
What is meant by Pro – rata Allotment of shares?
Answer:
Pro – rata allotment is that allotment of shares when applications may be allotted in less number of shares than they have applied for.

Question 5.
Define Equity shares.
Answer:
Equity shares are those shares which are not entitled to a fixed rate of dividend. Dividend is paid on these shares after it is paid on preference shares. Equity share capital is returned only when preference shares is returned.

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
In what purpose Securities Premium Reserve Amount is used?
Answer:
According to Section 52(2) of Companies Act 2013. Securities Premium Reserve can be used.

1. To issue fully paid-up bonus shares to the shareholders.
2. To write off preliminary expenses of the companies.
3. To write off the commission paid or discount/exp on issue of shares/debentures.
4. To pay premium on the redemption of preference shares or debentures of the company.

Question 2.
What are the difference between under subscription and over subscription?
Answer:

VII. Exercise

Question 1.
A company forfeited 200 shares of ₹ 20 each, ₹ 15 per share called up on which ₹ 10 per . share had been paid. Directors reissued all the forfeited shares. @ ₹ 15 per share paid up for the payment of ₹ 10 each. Give the journal entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 2.
A company forfeited 200 shares of ₹ 10 each fully called up for non – payment of first call of ₹ 2/- per share and final call of ₹ 3 per share. 120 of these shares were reissued at ₹ 6/- per share fully paid up. Give the necessary entries.
Answer:

Calculation of Amount Transfer to Capital Reserve:
No of shares x (Reissue price – paid up amount)
120 x (6 – 5)
= 120 x 1 = ₹ 120.

Question 3.
Global Ltd issued 6000 shares of ₹ 100/- each at premium of ₹ 20 per share payable as follow
₹ 30 on Application
₹ 50 on Allotment (including premium)
₹ 30 on First call and
₹ 10 on final call
All shares were duly subscribed and money due were received. Pass Journal Entries.
Answer:
Journal Entries

Question 4.
Sun Ltd offered for subscription 20,000 shares of ₹ 10/- each payable
₹ 2.50 in Application
₹ 5 on Allotment
₹ 3 on First call
₹ 2 on Final call
Applications were received for 30,000 shares.
Application for 5,000 shares were rejected. Application money for other 5,000 shares was applied towards the amount due on allotment. Pass Journal Entries.
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Question 27.
Anbu and Shankar are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 7 : 5. The balance sheet of the partners on 31.03.2018 is as follows:

Rajesh is admitted for 1/5 share on the following terms:

1. Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 80,000 and Rajesh brought cash ₹ 6,000 for his share of goodwill.
2. Rajesh is to bring ₹ 1,50,000 as his capital.
3. Motor car is valued at ₹ 2,00,000; stock at ₹ 3,80,000 and debtors at ₹ 3,50,000.
4. Anticipated claim on workmen compensation fund is ₹ 10,000
5. Unrecorded investment of ₹ 5,000 has to be brought into account.

Prepare revaluation account, capital accounts and balance sheet after Rajesh’s admission.
Revaluation Account

Capital Account

Balance Sheet as on 31.03.2018

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Accountancy Admission of a Partner Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
At the time of admission of a partner calculation of new profit ratio is ………………
(a) not necessary
(b) necessary
(c) optional
Answer:
(b) necessary

Question 2.
In admission, undistributed profit or loss transferred to ………………
(a) New Partners only
(b) Old Partners only
(c) All the Partners
Answer:
(b) Old Partners only

Question 3.
To get sacrificing ratio should be deducted from old share ………………
(a) Gaining share
(b) New share
(c) Neither of the two
Answer:
(b) new share

Question 4.
A person who is admitted to the firm is known as ………………
(a) Outgoing partners
(b) Incoming partner
(c) Both
Answer:
(b) incoming partner

Question 5.
At the time of admission of a new partner the following are revalued ………………
(a) Assets
(b) Liabilities
(c) Both
Answer:
(c) Both

Question 6.
New profit ratio is calculated at the time of admission, by deducting ………………
(a) Sacrifice from the old ratio
(b) Old ratio from the sacrifice
(c) Sacrifice from the new ratio
Answer:
(a) Sacrifice from the old ratio

Question 7.
On the admission of a new partner ………………
(a) Old firm has to be dissolved
(b) Old partnership has to be dissolved
(c) Both old firm and partnership have to be dissolved
(d) Neither partnership nor firm has to be dissolved
Answer:
(b) Old partnership has to be dissolved

Question 8.
When a new partner brings his share of goodwill in cash, the amount is debited to ………………
(a) Premium A/c
(b) Cash A/c
(c) Capital A/c of old partner
(d) Capital A/c of new partner
Answer:
(b) Cash A/c

Question 9.
Goodwill already appearing in the Balance sheet at the time of admission of a partner is transferred to ………………
(a) New Partners’ Capital A/c
(b) Old Partners’ Capital A/c
(c) Revaluation A/c
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Old Partners’ Capital A/c

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Understanding Secularism

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Understanding Secularism Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Understanding Secularism Meaning In Tamil Question 1.
Secularism means
(a) State is against to all religions
(b) State accepts only one religion
(c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any religion
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) An attitude of tolerance and peaceful co-existence on the part of citizen belonging any religion

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Social Science Question 2.
India is a land of ………..
(a) multi – religious faith
(b) multi – cultural beliefs
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 3.
The Preamble of the Constitution was amended in …………..
(a) 1951
(b) 1976
(c) 1974
(d) 1967
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 4.
Which one of the following describes India as a secular state?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duty
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Preamble of the Constitution
Answer:
(d) Preamble of the Constitution

Question 5.
Right to freedom of religion is related to –
(a) Judiciary
(b) Parliament
(c) Directive principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental rights
Answer:
(d) Fundamental rights

Question 6.
According to Article 28, which type of education is restricted in state aided educational institutions?
(a) Religious instruction
(b) Moral education
(c) Physical education
(d) None above these
Answer:
(a) Religious instruction

Question 7.
The country will be considered as a secular country, if it ………….
(a) gives importance to a particular religion
(b) bans religious instructions in the state – aided educational institutions.
(c) does not give importance to a particular religion
(d) bans the propagation of any religious belief.
Answer:
(b) bans religious instructions in the state – aided educational institutions.

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. Religion does not teach us……..
2. Secularism is a part of democracy which grants ………..
3. …………….. is a lack of belief in god and gods.
4. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote and ……………..
5. Article 15 prohibits …………….. on the grounds of religion, caste, sex or place of birth.

Answer:

1. animosity
2. equal rights to people
3. Atheism
4. unity and integrity of the nation
5. discrimination

III. Match the following

1. Atheism – coined the word secularism
2. Children – social reformer
3. Din-i-Illahi – lack of belief in god
4. Constitution – future citizen
5. Holvoake – Divine faith
6. Raiaram Mohan Rov – 1950

Answer:

1. Atheism – lack of belief in god
2. Children – future citizen
3. Din-i-Illahi – Divine faith
4. Constitution – 1950
5. Holvoake – coined the word .secularism
6. Raiaram Mohan Rov – social reformer

IV. State true or false:

1. There is state religion in India
2. The term secularism has been derived from the Greek word.
3. The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration.
4. Jainism originated in China.
5. Government of India declares holidays for all religious festivals.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) Secularism is invaluable for a society like India which is characterized by religious diversity.
(ii) The word secularism was not mentioned in the Constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
(iii) Article 26 deals with payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
(iv) Akbar’s tomb situated at Sikandara near Agra.

(a) i, ii only
(b) ii, iii only
(c) iv only
(d) i, ii and iv only
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iv only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): A foreigner can practice his own religious faith in India.
Reason (R): The freedom of religion is guaranteed by the constitution not only for Indians but also for the aliens also.
(a) A is true but R is false.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the cdrrect explanation of A.
(c) A is false but R is true.
(d) Both A and R are true. R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answewr:
(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Secularism is invaluable in India.
Reason (R): India is a multi – religious and multi – cultural country.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is wrong and R is correct.
(d) Both are wrong.
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 4.
Find out the wrong pair.
(a) Din-i-Illahi – A book
(b) Khajuraho – Hindu temple
(c) Ashoka – Rock Edict
(d) Iqbal – Poet
Answer:
(a) Din-i-Illahi – A book

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Name some of the Indians who contributed to spread of secularism.
Answer:

1. Rajaram Mohan Roy
2. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
3. Rabindranath Tagoje
4. Mahatma Gandhi and
5. B.R. Ambedkar

Question 2.
What does secularism mean?
Answer:

1. Secularism means an attitude of tolerance towards other religions and peaceful co – existence of citizens belonging to different faiths.
2. It is a policy of neutrality and equality by the states towards all religious communities

Question 3.
State the objectives of secularism.
Answer:
Objectives of Secularism:

1. One religious group does not dominate another.
2. Some members don’t dominate other members of the same religious community.
3. The state does not enforce any specific religion nor take away the religious freedom of individuals.

Question 4.
Why is it important to separate religion from the state?
Answer:’
It is important to separate religion from state because, a secular state is one in which the state does not officially promote any one religion as state religion.

Question 5.
What are the characteristic features of a secular state?
Answer:

1. Principle of Liberty – The state permits the practice of any religion
2. Principle of Equality – The state does not give preference to any religion over another.
3. Principle of Neutrality – The state remains neutral in religious matter.

Question 6.
Mention any three Constitutional provisions related to secularism.
Answer:

1. Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, sex, or place of birth etc.
2. Article 16 – Equality, of opportunity in public employment.
3. Article 29(2) – A ban on discrimination in state-aided educational institution.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Why we need secular education?
Answer:

1. To remove narrow mindedness and makes dynamic and enlightened view.
2. To develop moral and humanistic outlook.
3. To train the youth to be good citizen.
4. To strengthen democratic values like liberty, equality and fraternity and co-operative living.
5. To give wider vision towards life.
6. To develop an attitude of appreciation and understanding of others point of view.
7. To develop the spirit of love, tolerance, co – operation, equality and sympathy.
8. To synthesis materialism and spiritualism.

Question 2.
Secularism is necessary for a country like India. Justify.
Answer:
India is a secular country because:

1. The word secular has been included into the preamble to the constitution (through 42nd Amendment).
2. It has no state religion.
3. It remains neutral in religious matters.
4. Freedom to religion is offered to all citizens.
5. There is no discrimination on the basis of religion.

VIII. HOTs

Question 1.
Will the Government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice human sacrifice?
Answer:
The government will definitely intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practice in infanticide, Ample reason can be given in support of the answer. No religion teaches us to kill any living being, kindness is the root of all religions. Even the law of our country also declares that killing a human being is illegal. It is also against human rights.

IX. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Look at the holidays of your school calendar. How many of them pertain to different religions? List them based on religions. What does it indicate?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 2.
How can you develop religious tolerance?
Answer:

1. At home – In your locality
2. At school – National level

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Understanding Secularism Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
…………….. is a land of multi religious faith.
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) India
(d) England
Answer:
(c) India

Question 2.
…………….. of religion is related to fundamental rights.
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right to equality
(c) Right to liberty
(d) Right to ideology
Answer:
(a) Right to freedom

Question 3.
In Article 26, which type of freedom is discussed?
(a) religions instructions
(b) moral education
(c) freedom to manage religious affairs
(d) freedom of secularism
Answer:
(c) freedom to manage religious affairs]

Question 4.
…………….. is a part of democracy which grants equal rights to people.
(a) Socialism
(b) Freedom
(c) Constitution
(d) Secularism
Answer:
(d) Secularism

Question 5.
Secularism is ……………. in India.
(a) Valuable
(b) Invaluable
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Invaluable

Question 6.
The Mughal emperor ……………. followed the policy of religious toleration.
(a) Babar
(b) Shah Alam
(c) Akbar
(d) ShahJahan
Answer:
(c) Akbar

Question 7.
Government of India declares ……………. for all religious festivals.
(a) Money
(b) Gifts
(c) Bonus
(d) Holidays
Answer:
(d) Holidays

Question 8.
The term secularism has been drived from the ……………. word.
(a) Greek
(b) British
(c) Tamil
(d) Latin
Answer:
(d) Latin

Question 9.
British newspaper editor coined the term ‘secularism’.
(a) George Jacob Holyoake
(b) Gandhi
(c) Nethaji
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) George Jacob Holyoake

Question 10.
The word‘saeculum’meaning ……………..
(a) ‘an age’
(b) the spirit of an age
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’

Question 11.
……………. is the principle of separation-of state and religion.
(a) Secularism
(b) Socialism
(c) Liberalisation
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Secularism

Question 12.
“Religion does not teach us animosity; we are Indians and India is our home”, who quoted this statement?
(a) Akbar
(b) Iqbal
(c) Babar
(d) George Jacob Holyoake
Answer:
(b) Iqbal

Question 13.
Akbar’s tomb is situated at Sikandara near ……………. in India.
(a) Delhi
(b) Jaipur
(c) Agra
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(c) Agra

Question 14.
Secularism is the part of Indian …………….
(a) constitution
(b) equal rights
(c) principle of liberty
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) constitution

Question 15.
Principle of ……………. the state remains neutral in religious matter.
(a) equality
(b) liberty
(c) neutrality
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) neutrality

Question 16.
Principle of ……………. the state permits the practice of any religion.
(a) equality
(b) liberty
(c) neutrality
(d) both‘a’and‘b’
Answer:
(b) liberty

Question 17.
The word secularism was not mentioned in our constitution when it was adopted in ……………..
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
Answer:
(d) 1950

Question 18.
The word secular was incorporated in the preamble through the ……………. Amendment of the Indian Constitution.
(a) 21st
(b) 26th
(c) 42nd
(d) 29th
Answer:
(c) 42 nd

Question 19.
Secularism in education means making public education ……………. religious dominance.
(a) Free
(b) Liberty
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Faith

Question 20.
Separation of religion from the state means ……………..
(a) Socialism
(b) Democracy
(c) Secularism
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Secularism

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. India is a land of …………… faith and multi – cultural beliefs.
2. Secularism is invaluable for a …………
3. …………. a British newspaper editor coined a term secularism.
4. Secularism is a part of …………. which grants equal rights.
5. ………… and ………… were advocated for religious toleration.
6. Din-i-illahi means ……………
7. Sulh-e-Kul means …………….
8. ……………instructed for his mausoleum.
9. The Indian state works in various ways to prevent ……………
10. ……………the state permits the practice of any religion.
11. According to Article ………….. freedom to manage religious affairs.
12. Children as future …………… must get education which should aim at their development of character and moral behavior.
13. Secular education develop …………… and …………… outlook.
14. The basic aim of our ……………is to promote unity and integrity of the nation along with individual dignity.
15. According to Article 16 equality of opportunity in public ……………
16. ……………allows us to live in civility.
17. Secularism grants equal rights to the people in respect of their …………
18. The Indian constitution guarantees fundamental rights that are based on ……….. principles.
19. Secular education need to train the youth to be good ………..
20. …………….. give wider vision towards life.
21. Secular education need to synthesis ……….. and …………..

Answer:

1. Niulti religious
2. Socict
3. George Jacob Holyoake
4. democrac
5. Din-i-illahi and Suih-c-Kul
6. Divine faith
7. Peace and harmonvi
8. Akbar
9. religious
10. Principle of Liberty
11. 26
12. citizens
13. moral and humanistic
14. constitution
15. employment
16. Secularism
17. religious faith
18. Secular
19. Citizen
20. Secular education
21. materialism and spiritualism

III Match the following:

Answer:

1. e
2. d
3. b
4. a
5. c

Answer:

1. c
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. d

IV. State True or False

1. Akbar’s tomb is situated at Sikandara near Agra, India.
2. Secularism is the principle of-separation of state and country.
3. Atheism is a lack of belief in men and women.
4. Article 26 defines freedom to manage religious affairs.
5. Secularism is non-interference of the state in religious affairs and vice-versa.
6. “India will be a land of many faith, equally honored and respected, but of one national outlook” was said by Mahatma Gandhi.
7. The State will identify itself with or controlled by any religion.
8. Secularism was accepted as one of the fundamental tenets for the development of democracy in India.
9. Secular education is need to develop moral and humanistic outlook.
10. Secularism compels people to respect other religion.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. True
6. False
7. False
8. True
9. True
10. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
(i) The Indian state works in various ways to prevent religious domination.
(ii) Secularism is the belief that no one should be discriminated on the basis of religion.
(iii) Article 26 equality of opportunity in public employment.
(iv) Secular education is need to give wider vision towards life.

(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(b) (i), (ii) & (iv) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
(d) (iv) and (ii) are Correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : India is a land of Multi-religions faith and Multi-cultural beliefs.
Reason (R) : India is the birth place of four major religions, Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism and Sikhism.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation A

Question 3.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) The Mughal Emperor – Ashoka
(b) 12th Rock Edict – Akbar
(c) Atheism – Lack of belief in god and gods
(d) Secularism – Divine faith
Answer:
(c) Atheism – Lack of belief in god and gods.

Question 4.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Poet labal – “Religion does not teach us animosity; we are Indians and India is our home”.
(b) Principle of Equality – Give preference to any religion over another
(c) Secularism – Tolerance towards other religious and peaceful
(d) Article – 25(1) – Neutral in religious matters
Answer:
(d) Article – 25(1) – Neutral in religious matters

VI. Answer in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we need secular education?
Answer:

1. Secularism in education means making public education free from any religious dominance.
2. Children as future citizens must get education which should aim at their development of character and moral behavior irrespective of religious affiliation.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Article 27.
Answer:
The state shall not compel any citizen to pay any taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.

Question 3.
Write about the Akbar’s instruction for mausoleum.
Answer:
Akbar’s instruction for his mausoleum was that it would incorporate elements from different religions including Islam and Hinduism.

Question 4.
What is the basic aim of our Indian constitution?
Answer:
The basic aim of our constitution is to promote unity and integrity of the nation along with individual dignity.

Question 5.
What is the religious toleration of Akbar?
Answer:
The Mughal emperor Akbar followed the policy of religious toleration. His propagation of Din-i-Illahi (Divine Faith) and Sulh-e-Kul (Peace and harmony among religions) were advocated for religious toleration.

Question 6.
Write a short note on King Ashoka’s 12th Rock Edict.
Answer:
In his 12th Rock Edict, Ashoka made an appeal not only for the tolerance of all religious sects but also to develop a spirit of great respect towards them.

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Distinguish between constitution and secularism.
Answer:
Secularism :

1. Secularism is the part of Indian constitution.
2. Secularism was accepted as one of the fundamental tenets for the development of democracy in India.
3. The word secularism was not mentioned in our constitution when it was adopted in 1950.
4. Later on in 1976, the word secular was incorporated in the Preamble through the 42nd Amendment of the Indian Constitution.

Constitution :

1. The makers of the Indian constitution were aware that a strong and united nation could be built only when all sections of people had the freedom to practice their religion.
2. The basic aim of our constitution is to promote unity and integrity of the nation along with individual dignity.
3. The freedom of religion guaranteed under the Indian constitution is not confined to its citizen alone but extends to aliens also.

Question 2.
Bring out the features of the constitution of India.
Answer:

1. The state will not identify itself with or be controlled by any religion.
2. The state guarantees to everyone the right to profess any religion of their own.
3. The state will not accord any preferential treatment any of them.
4. No discrimination will be shown by the state against any person on account of his religious faith.
5. It creates fraternity of the Indian people and gives assurance the dignity of the individual and unity of the nation.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Land And Oceans

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Textual Evaluation

A. Choose the correct answer

Land And Oceans 6th Standard Question 1.
Which of the following is the smallest ocean on Earth?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Indian Ocean
(c) The Atlantic Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(d) The Arctic Oceans

6th Standard Geography Guide Question 2.
The Malacca Strait connects
(a) The Pacific and Atlantic Oceans
(b) The Pacific and Southern Oceans
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(d) The Pacific and Arctic Oceans
Answer:
(c) The Pacific and Indian Oceans

Land And Oceans Question 3.
A Which of the following oceans is the busiest ocean?
(a) The Pacific Ocean
(b) The Atlantic Ocean
(c) The Indian Ocean
(d) The Arctic Ocean
Answer:
(b) The Atlantic Ocean

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Science Question 4.
The frozen continent is ……………
(a) North America
(b) Australia
(c)Antarctica
(d) Asia
Answer:
(c) Antarctica

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Social Question 5.
A narrow strip of water that connects two large water bodies
(a) A Strait
(b) An Isthmus
(c) An Island
(d) A Trench
Answer:
(a) A Strait

B. Fill in the blanks :

1. The world’s largest continent is ___________.
2.  ___________ is the mineral rich plateau in India
3. The largest ocean is ___________.
4. Deltas are ___________ order landforms.
5. The Island continent is ___________.

Answer:

1. Asia
2. Chotanagpur Pkateau
3. The Pacific Ocean
4. third
5. Australia

C. Circle the odd one out

1. Africa, Europe, Australia, Sri Lanka.
2. The Arctic Ocean, the Mediterranean Sea, the Indian Ocean, the Atlantic Ocean
3. Plateau, Valley, Plain, Mountain
4. The Bay of Bengal, the Bering Sea, the China Sea, the Tasman Sea.
5. The Andes, the Rockies, the Everest, the Himalayas

Answer:

1. Sri Lanka
2. the Mediterranean Sea
3. Valley
4. The Bay of Bengal
5. the Everest

D. Match the following

Answer:

1. – b
2. – a
3. – d
4. – e
5. – c

E.

I. Consider the following statements.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Question 1.
1. Plains are formed by rivers.
2. The ‘South Sandwich Trench’ is found in the Indian Ocean.
3. Plateaus have steep slopes.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 2 only
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

II. Consider the following statements.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Back Answers Question 1.
Statement I : Mountains are second order land forms.
Statement II : The Mariana Trench is the deepest trench in the world.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong (b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true (d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 6th Social Question 1.
Which is the highest plateau in the world?
Answer:
Tibetan Plateau

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Social Science Question 2.
Name a second-order landform.
Answer:
Mountains, plateaus and plains

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Question 3.
Which ocean is named after a country?
Answer:
Indian Ocean

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Question 4.
Name the islands located in the Arabian Sea.
Answer:
Lakshadweep islands and Minicoy islands

Samacheer Kalvi Social 6th Standard Question 5.
What is the deepest part of the ocean called as?
Answer:
Trench

G. Answer in brief.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Geography Book Question 1.
What is a continent?
Answer:
The vast landmasses on Earth are called Continents.

6th Social Guide Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Name the continents which surround the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:

1. North America and South America in the west.
2. Europe and Africa in the east.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Books Social Question 3.
What are oceans?
Answer:
Oceans are vast expanse of water.

Samacheer Kalvi 6 Social Science Question 4.
List out the names of continents according to their size
Answer:

1. Asia
2. Africa
3. North America
4. South America
5. Antarctica
6. Europe and Australia.

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 6th Question 5.
Name the oceans which surround North America and South America.
Answer:
North America : On the west by Pacific ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean and on the north by Arctic ocean
South America : On the west by Pacific Ocean, on the east by Atlantic ocean.

H. Distinguish between.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 6th Question 1.
A Mountain and a Plateau
Answer:
Mountains

1. A landform that rises over 600 metre above its surroundings and has steep slopes is called a mountain.
2. Example: Himalayas

Plateaus

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes. The elevation of plateaus may be a few hundred metre or several thousand metre.
2. Example: Chotanagpur Plateau

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Book Back Answers Question 2.
An ocean and a sea?
Answer:
Ocean:

• An ocean is a vast expanse of water.
• Oceans are very deep.
• Example: The Pacific Ocean

Sea:

• A sea is a water body partially or fully enclosed by land.
• Seas are not so deep as oceans
• Example: The Arabian sea

I. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Mention the classification of iandforms.
Answer:
First order Iandforms:

(i) Continents and oceans are grouped as first order and forms. the vast land masses on Earth are called Continents and huge water bodies are called Oceans.

(ii) Asia is the largest continent, whereas Australia is the smallest one.

Second order and forms:
The second order  and forms are categorised as mountains, plateaus and plains.

Third order and forms:
Third order and forms are formed on mountains, plateaus and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds and waves. Valleys, beaches and sand dunes are some examples of third order and forms.

Question 2.
Write a note on plateaus
Answer:

1. Plateaus are the elevated portions of the Earth that have flat surfaces bounded by steep slopes.
2. The elevation of plateaus may be a few hundred metre or several thousand metre.
3. Tibetan Plateau is the highest plateau in the world.
4. Generally plateaus are rich in minerals.
5. Chotanagpur Plateau is one of the mineral rich plateaus in India.
6. Deccan Plateau in peninsular India is of volcanic origin.

Question 3.
Plains are highly populated. Give reasons
Answer:

1. Plains are a flat and relatively low-lying lands. Plains are usually less than 200 metre above sea level.
2. Most plains are formed by rivers, their tributaries and distributaries.
3. These plains are used extensively for agriculture due to the availability of water and fertile soil
4. They are most suitable for human habitation.
5. Hence, they are the highly populated regions of the world.

Question 4.
Give the important features of the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean on Earth.
2. It covers about one-third of the Earth’s total area.
3. It is bounded by Asia and Australia in its west and North America and South America in its east.
4. On its apex is the Bering Strait. It connects the Pacific Ocean with the Arctic Ocean.
5. The deepest point Mariana Trench is located in the Pacific Ocean.
6. A chain of volcanoes is located around the Pacific Ocean.

Question 5.
Write down the importance of oceans.
Answer:

1. Oceans are the life blood of planet Earth and human kind.
2. They flow over nearly three quarters of our planet.
3. They hold 97% of the planet’s water.
4. They produce more than half of the oxygen in the atmosphere.
5. Absorb the most carbon from it.
6. The oceans along with the atmosphere, keep temperatures fairly constant world wide.

J. Picture Study.

Question 1.

1. Name the landform.
2. What order of a landform is this?
3. By which activity of river is this landform formed?

Answer:

1. Valley
2. Third Order
3. Erosion

K. (ii) ACTIVITY

Question 1.
Give examples for the following using an Atlas.

a. Bay:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Tokyo Bay, Korea Bay

b. Gulf:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Aden

c. Island:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Sri Lanka, Maldives, Japan

d. Strait:_______,________,_______
Answer:
Strait of Gibraltar, Strait of Magellan, Palk strait

Question 2.
Map reading (with the help of atlas)

a. A sea in the east of India
b. Continents in the westof Atlantic Ocean
c. Continents in the south of Arctic Ocean
d. A strait betweenlndia and Sri Lanka
e. Oceans which surround Australia if.
f. Find out thedsthumusses
(Create more questions)
Answer:
a. Bay of Bengal
b. North America and South America
c. Almost completely surrounded by Eurasia and North America.
d. Palk Strait.
e. Indian Ocean to the west, the South Pacific Ocean to the East and the Southern Ocean to the South.
f. Isthumusses – A Narrow piece of land connecting two larger areas across an expanse of water. Isthumus of Panama – Central America.

Question 3.
On the given outline map of the world, label the continents and mountain ranges.
Answer:

Question 4.
On the given outline map of the world, label oceans, seas, isthumus and straits.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Intext Question

HOTS

Question 1.
December 11 International Mountain Day.
Prepare slogans, posters and placards to celebrate International Mountain Day.
Answer:

1. “Mountains are among the most beautiful land masses in the world.”
2. “Mountains are beautiful as they rise up above the clouds and show just how grand the world can be.”
3. “Great things are done when men and mountains meet. ”
4. “How glorious a greeting the Sun gives the mountains.”
5. “Mountains are earth’s undecaying monuments.”
6. ‘The mountains, forests and seas render men savage, they develop fierce, but yet do not destroy the human.”
7. “Men stumble over pebbles, never over mountains.”
8. “Each fresh peak ascended teaches something.”
9. “Mountains are the beginning and end of all natural scenery.”
10. “He who climbs upon the highest mountains laughs at all tragedies, real or imaginary.”

Question 2.
You know the importance of conservation of forests. Do you think conservation of mountains is also equally important?
Answer:

1. Mountains make up more than a quarter of the planet’s land mass. These surfaces provide resources for nearly 700 million people through out the world.
2. Mountains provide energy resources, food and water to people all around the world.
3. But climate change could cause mountains to shrink.
4. Deforestation has also been a threat while natural disasters often damage many mountains.
5. Mountains are among the most beautiful land masses in the world. So like conservation of forests, conservation of mountains also equally important

Question 3.
When you are walking on the Marina beach in Chennai, which order of landform are you on?
Answer:
Third order of land form.

Question 4.
Why are the Red Sea, Dead Sea and Black Sea named so?
Answer:

(i) Red Sea – It is named Red sea because it contains a Cyanobacteria which turns the normally blue – green water a reddish one. It gets connected to the ocean without even one river meeting the sea.

(ii) Black Sea – The Black Sea was first named by the ancient greeks as in hospitable sea. The sea got this reputation because it was different to navigate and hostile tribes inhabited its shores. After the successful development of the coast by the Greek colonists, the sea was named hospitable sea.

(iii) Dead Sea – The Dead Sea is roughly 8.6 times saltier than the ocean. This salinity makes for a harsh environment in which animals cannot flourish.

Question 5.
When you travel from Japan to California, which ocean would you travel across?
Answer:
Pacific Ocean.

Question 6.
When you arrange the continents in ascending order according to their size, which ranks third?
Answer:
Antarctica.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Intext Activities

Question 1.
Complete the given table with the help of an atlas. Follow the example

Answer:

Question 2.

Answer:

Question 3.

Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Land And Oceans Additional Questions

A. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The largest continent is
(a) Europe
(b) Australia
(c) North America
(d) Asia
Answer:
(d) Asia

Question 2.
Mount Everest is located in …………….
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Bhutan
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(b) Nepal

Question 3.
The longest mountain range in the world is
(a) Himalayas
(b) Rocky
(c) Andes
(d) Alps
Answer:
(c) Andes

Question 4.
Which of the following is not grouped under second-order landform?
(a) Plains
(b) Plateaus
(c) Valleys
(d) Mountains
Answer:
(c) Valleys

Question 5.
‘Roof of the world’ denotes to
(a) Tibetan Plateau
(b) Chotanagpur Plateau
(c) Deccan Plateau
(d) Malwa Plateau
Answer:
(a) Tibetan .Plaleauj

Question 6.
Bering sea is the marginal sea of the Ocean.
(a) Pacific
(b) Indian
(c) Atlantic
(d) Arctic
Answer:
(a) Pacific

Question 7.
The Reunion islands are present in Ocean.
(a) Arctic
(b) Antartic
(c) Indian
(d) Pacific
Answer:
(c) Indian

Question 8.
The land surrounded by water on three sides is called
(a) Bay
(b) Strait
(c) Peninsula
(d) Trench
Answer:
(c) Peninsula

B. Fill in the blanks :

1. The highest peak in the world is ___________.
2. In Sangam period, Mountain and its environs are classified as ___________ land.
3. The flat topped part of the plateau is called ___________.
4. The plains have been the ___________ from the earliest times.
5. Plain in North India is one of the ___________largest plains in the world.
6.  Sand dunes form the ___________ order landforms.
7. The process of removal of surface material from the Earth’s crust is called ___________.
8. Chain of volcanoes present around the Pacific Ocean are called the Pacific ___________.
9. The shape of the atlantic ocean resembles the letter ___________.
10. .Bay of Bengal and Palk Bay are connected by ___________.

Answer:

1. Mt.Aeresti
2. Kurinji
3. Table land
4. cradle of civilisations
5. Indo-Gangetif
6. Third
7. Erosion
8. Ring of fire
9. S
10. Palk Strait

C. Circle the odd one out

1. Rivers, Glaciers, Winds, Plains
2. Mariana Trench, Tasman Sea, Philippine Sea, Strait of Gibraltar
3. The Ross Sea, The Weddell Sea, The Davis Sea, The Red Sea
4. Palk Strait, The Arctic Ocean, Greenland, Eurasian Basin
5. Dharmapuri Plateau, Coimbatore Plateau, Madurai Plateau, Malwa Plateau

Answer:

1. Plains
2. Strait of Gibraltar
3. The Red Sea
4. Palk strait
5. Malwa plateau

D. Match the following

1. Kurinji – (a) Forest
2. Mullai – (b) Coastal Region
3. Marutham – (c) Deserts
4. Neithal – (d) Agricultural land
5. Palai – (e) Mountains

Answer:

1. – e
2. – a
3. – d
4. – b
5. – c

E. Consider the following statements.

Question 1.
1.Andes mountains are the longest mountain range in the world.
2.Mountains come under the second order landforms.
3.The highest point of the mountain is known as peak.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) land 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 and 3

Question 2.
Consider the following statements.
Statement I : Ferdinand Magellan named the ocean Pacific, meaning calm. Statement II : Ferdinand Magellan was a Spanish navigator.
Which of the statement(s) is/are true?
(a) I is true; II is wrong
(b) I is wrong; II is true
(c) Both the statements are true
(d) Statements I and II are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are true

F. Answer in a word

Question 1.
A broad inlet of the sea where the land curves inwards.
Answer:
Bay

Question 2.
A relatively levelled area of the earth’s surface with gentle slope.
Answer:
plain

Question 3.
The Plains of river Cauvery and Vaigai are found in the State of
Answer:
Tamil nadu

Question 4.
The eroded materials getting deposited on the low lying areas.
Answer:
Deposition

Question 5.
The Strait which connects the Atlantic ocean-to the Mediterranean Sea
Answer:
Strait of Gibraltar

G. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
Why do we see the most part of the globe in blue colour?
Answer:
We see the most part of the globe in blue colour is because of a large part of the Earth is covered by water which occupies 71 percent and land which occupies only 29 percent of the Earth’s surface.

Question 2.
Mention some of the hill stations in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Udhagamandalam
2. Kodaikanal
3. Kolli hills
4. Yercaud and Yelagiri

Question 3.
Mention some of the hill stations found in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Udaga mangalam, Kodaikanal, Kolli hills, Yercard and Yelagiri are some of the hill stations found in Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Third order landforms.
Answer:

1. Third order landforms are formed on mountains, plateaus and plains by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds and waves.
2. Valleys, beaches and sand dunes are examples of third order land forms.

Question 5.
What is Oceanography ?
Answer:
The study of oceans is called Oceanography.

Question 6.
Mention the islands located in the Pacific Ocean?
Answer:
Indonesia, Philippines, Japan, Hawaii, New Zealand, are some of the islands located in the Pacific Ocean.

H. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
A continent and ocean
Answer:

Continent

1. The vast land masses are called continents.
2. Example: Asia, Africa, Europe.

Ocean

1. Oceans are vast expanse of water.
2. Example: Pacific Ocean, Atlantic Ocean.

Question 2.
An Pacific Ocean and a Atlantic Ocean Ans
Answer:

Pacific

1. The largest and deepest ocean.
2. It spreads out 168.72 million sq.km
3. The Bering Sea, The China sea, the Sea of Japan, Tasman Sea, Philippines Sea are some of the marginal seas.

Atlantic

1. Second largest ocean
2. It spreads about 85.13 million sq.km
3. Mediterranean Sea, The Caribbean Sea, the Gulf of Mexico, the North Sea, the Gulf of Guinea are important marginal seas.

I. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Write a note on the Third order of landforms.

1. The Third order landforms are formed on the mountains, plateaus and plains mainly by erosional and depositional activities of rivers, glaciers, winds and waves.
2. Valleys, beaches and sand dimes are some examples of Third order landforms.
3. Erosion is the process of removal of surface material from the Earth’s crust.
4. The eroded materials are transported and deposited on the low lying areas.
5. This process is called as deposition.

Question 2.
Bring out the features of the Indian Ocean.
Answer:

1. The Indian ocean in the third largest ocean on the Earth’s surface.
2. It covers an area of 70.56 million sq. km.
3. It is triangular in shape.
4. It is bounded by Africa in the west, Asia in the North and Australia in the East.
5. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Maldives, Sri Lanka, Mauritus and the Reunion Islands are some of the islands present in the Indian Ocean.
6. The Java trench is the deepest point in the Indian Ocean

Students can Download Social Science Geography Chapter 2 LandForms Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 LandForms

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science LandForms Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

A Cirque Is Known As In Germany Question 1.
is a deposition of river sediments along the foot-hills.
(a) Plunge pool
(b) Alluvial fan
(c) Floodplain
(d) Delta
Answer:
(b) Alluvial fan

A Cirque Is Known As In Germany Answer Question 2.
Courtallam falls is located across the river.
(a) Cauvery
(b) Pennar
(c) Chittar
(d) Vaigai
Answer:
(c) Chittar

5 Landforms Of Tamil Nadu In Tamil Question 3.
The landform created by glacial deposition is
(a) Cirque
(b) Arete
(c) Moraine
(d) Tam lake
Answer:
(c) Moraine

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Science Question 4.
Large deposits of loess are found in
(a) USA
(b) India
(c) China
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(c) China

A Cirque Is Known As Dash In Germany Question 5.
are not associated with wave erosion
(a) Cliff
(b) Sea arch
(c) Stack
(d) Beaches
Answer:
(d) Beaches

II. Fill in the Blanks

1. The process of breaking and crumbling of rocks is ______
2. The place where the river joins a lake or a sea is known as ______
3. Inselbergs are found in the ______ desert in South Africa.
4. A cirque is known as ______ in Germany.
5. The first longest beach in the world is ______

Answer:

1. weathering
2. river mouth
3. Kalahari
4. Kar
5. Miami

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iv
2. v
3. i
4. ii
5. iii

IV. Consider the following statement and (✓) Tick the appropriate answer.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Question 1.
Assertion (A) : The deltas are formed near the mouth of the river.
Reason (R) : The velocity of the river becomes slow when it approaches the sea.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct and R is wrong
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct

The Cirque Is Known As In Germany Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Sea arches in turn become Sea Stacks.
Reason (R) : Sea Stacks are the results of wave deposition.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) A is correct and R is wrong
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct and R is wrong

V. Answer the following.

Cirque Is Known As In Germany Question 1.
Define erosion.
Answer:
Erosion is the wearing away of the landscape by different agents like water, wind, ice and sea waves.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 7th Social Question 2.
What is a plunge pool?
Answer:
Plunge pool is a hollow feature at the base of a waterfall which is formed by cavitation.

7th Standard Question 3.
How are Ox – bow lakes formed?
Answer:
Due to continuous erosion and deposition along the sides of the meander, the ends of the meander loop comes closer and closer. In due course of time the meander loop cuts off from the river and forms a cutoff lake, also called an Ox-bow lake.

Question 4.
Name the major landforms formed by glacial erosion.
Answer:
Cirque, Aretes, U’ Shaped Valley

Question 5.
Give a note on Mushroom rocks.
Answer:
In deserts rocks in the shape of a mushroom, commonly called mushroom rocks.

Question 6.
What is a lagoon? Give an example.
Answer:
Lagoon is a shallow stretch of water partially or completely separated from the sea. E.g. Chilka lake in Odisha, Pulicat lake in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh and Vembanad lake in Kerala are the famous lagoons in India.

VI. Distinguish between

Question 1.
Tributary and Distributary
Answer:

Question 2.
‘V’ shaped valley and ‘U’ shaped valley
Answer:

Question 3.
Continental glacier and Mountain glacier
Answer:

VII. Give reason

Question 1.
The ends of the meander loops come closer and closer.
Answer:
Due to continuous erosion and deposition of rivers along the sides of the meander, the ends of the meander loop comes closer and closer.

Question 2.
Flood plains are very fertile.
Answer:
At times the river overflows its banks. This leads to the flooding of the neighbouring areas. As the river floods, it deposits layers of fine soil and other material called sediments along its banks. This leads to the formation of a flat fertile floodplain.

Question 3.
Sea caves are turn into stacks.
Answer:
As the cavities of sea caves become bigger, only the roof of the caves remain to form sea Arches. When erosion further breaks the roof, only walls are left, thus forming stacks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Explain different landforms produced by river erosion.
Answer:

1. The running water in the river erodes the landscape, which creates a steep-sided valley like the letter ‘V’ known as ‘V’ shaped valley.
2. Falling of river water over a vertical step in the river bed is called waterfall. It is formed when the soft rocks are removed by erosion. E.g. Coutrallam falls across the river Chittar in Tamil Nadu.
3. Plunge pool is a hollow feature at the base of a waterfall which is formed by cavitation. Alluvial fan is a deposition of sediment occurs at which the river enters a plain or the foot-hills.
4. As the river enters the plain it twists and turns forming large bends known as Meanders.
   Eg. Meanders along the River Vellar near Sethiyathope in Cuddalore District, Tamil Nadu.
5. Due to continuous erosion and deposition along the sides of the meander, the ends of the meander loop comes closer and closer. In due course of time the meander loop cuts off from the river and forms a cutoff lake, also called an Ox-bow lake.

Question 2.
Describe the landforms associated with wind.
Answer:

1. Winds erode the lower section of the rock more than the upper part.
2. An isolated residual hill, standing like a pillar with rounded tops are called Inselbergs.
   E.g. Inselberg in the Kalahari Desert of South Africa.
3. When the wind blows, it lifts and transports sand from one place to another. When it stops blowing the sand falls and gets deposited in low hill – like structures. These are called sand dunes. The crescent shaped sand dunes are called Barchans.
4. When the grains of sand are very fine and light, the wind can carry it over very long distances. When such sand is deposited in large areas, it is called Loess. Large deposits of loess are found in China.

Question 3.
How are aretes formed?
Answer:

1. Glaciers erode the landscape by levelling soil and stones to expose the solid rock below.
2. Cirque is a glacially eroded rock basin, with a steep side wall and steep head wall, surrounding an armchair-shaped depression.
3. As the ice melts, they get filled up the cirque with water and become beautiful lakes in the mountains called as Tam Lake. When two adjacent cirques erode towards each other, the previously rounded landscape is transformed into a narrow rocky, steep – sided ridge called Aretes.

Activity

Question 1.
Fill in the corresponding columns with reference to the landform features given below
Answer:
Barchan, ‘V’ Shaped valley, Cliff, Arete, Inselberg, Moraine, Alluvial fan, Lagoon

Question 2.
Crossword Puzzle

Across
1. Place of origin of the river.
3. Arm chair shaped glacial landform
6. Glacial Depositional feature
7. Vertical drop of water

Down
2. Lagoon in Tamil Nadu
4. Loops along the river course
5. Wave depositional feature
Answer:

Question 3.
Identify any one of the following features near your home town and write a note on them.

1. Hill
2. Waterfall
3. River(or)Stream
4. Beach

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science LandForms Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The term ‘meander’ has been named on the basis of Meander River of ______
(a) India
(b) Russia
(c) China
(d) Turkey
Answer:
(d) Turkey

Question 2.
The material carried by the glacier such as rock, sand and silt get deposited to form ______
(a) Cirque
(b) Glacial moraines
(c) Aretes
(d) Tam Lake
Answer:
(b) Glacial moraines

Question 3.
Northern China loess deposits are brought from the ______ desert.
(a) Gobi
(b) Sahara
(c) Thar
(d) Atacama
Answer:
(a) Gobi

Question 4.
Steep rock faces formed due to dashing of sea waves are ______
(a) Sea caves
(b) Sea Cliffs
(c) Sea Arches
(d) Stacks
Answer:
(b) Sea Cliffs

Question 5.
Chilka lake is Odisha is an example of ______
(a) Stack
(b) Sea Arch
(c) Lagoon
(d) Sand bar
Answer:
(c) Lagoon

II. Circle the odd one

Question 1.
Angel, Niagra, Victoria, Ganges
Hint: Ganges are river, other three are water falls.
Answer:
Ganges

Question 2.
Colva, Miami, Chilka, Marina.
“Hint: Chilka is a lake, other three are Beaches.
Answer:
Chilka

Question 3.
Water, Sun, ice, Sea waves.
Hint: Sun is a natural resource, other three are agents of erosion.
Answer:
Sun

III. Match the following

Answer:

1. iii
2. i
3. iv
4. ii

IV. Consider the following statements.

Question 1.

1. The highest water fall is Angel falls of Venezuela in South America.
2. The first longest beach in the world is the Marina beach in Chennai.
3. Deltas are excellent productive lands.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) only 3.
Answer:
(a) 1 and 3

Question 2.

1. A part of the land adjoining or near the sea is called the sea coast.
2. The boundary of a coast where land meets water is called the coast line.
3. Moraines are glacial deposition.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2.
Answer:
(c) 1, 2 and 3

V. Answer in a word

Question 1.
Name the waterfall located on the borders of Zambia and Zimbabwe in Africa
Answer:
Victoria falls

Question 2.
How is the deposition of sediment that occurs when the river enters a plain or the foothills called?
Answer:
Alluvial fan

Question 3.
What are hollow like caves formed on rock due to dashing of sea waves called?
Answer:
Sea caves.

VI. Answer in a sentence or two.

Question 1.
What is endogenic process?
Answer:
The endogenic process (internal process) leads to the upliftment and sinking of the earth’s surface at several places.

Question 2.
What is exogenic process?
Answer:
The exogenic process (external process) is the continuous wearing down and rebuilding of the land surface.

Question 3.
What is gradation?
Answer:
Gradation is the process of levelling of highlands through erosion and filling up of lowlands through deposition.

Question 4.
Name the processes by which the landscape gets continuously worn away?
Answer:
The landscape is being continuously worn away by two processes – weathering and erosion.

Question 5.
Define weathering.
Answer:
Weathering is the breaking and falling apart into small pieces of the rocks on the earth’s surface.

Question 6.
What is a river?
Answer:
The water flowing from its source to river mouth, along a definite course is called a River.

Question 7.
How is a delta formed? Give example of deltas.
Answer:
The collection of sediments from all the mouths form Delta. Deltas are excellent productive lands. They have more minerals which favour cultivation. E.g. Cauvery delta, Ganges delta, Mississippi delta.

Question 8.
What is a glacier?
Answer:
A large body of ice moving slowly down a slope or valley due to gravity is called a glacier.

VII. Answer in a Paragaraph.

Question 1.
Write a note on

1. Sea Coast
2. Coast line

Answer:

1. Sea Coast: A part of the land adjoining or near the sea is called the Sea coast.
2. Coast line: The boundary of a coast, where land meets water is called the Coast line. The coastal areas are subject to change due to wave erosion and wave deposition

Question 2.
Write a note on

1. Sea Arches
2. Stacks

Answer:

1. Sea Arches: As the cavities of sea caves become bigger and bigger only the roof of the caves remains, thus forming Sea Arches.
2. Stacks: Further, erosion breaks the roof and only walls are left. These wall like features are called Stacks.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Consumption Analysis

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Consumption Analysis Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A

11th Economics Chapter 2 Book Back Answers Multiple Choice Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solution Chapter 2 Question 1.
Pick the odd one out
(a) Luxuries
(b) Comforts
(c) Necessaries
(d) Agricultural
Answer:
(d) Agricultural

11th Economics Chapter 2 Question 2.
Choice is always constrained or limited by the …………………… of our resources.
(a) Scarcity
(b) Supply
(c) Demand
(d) Abundance
Answer:
(a) Scarcity

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Back Answers Question 3.
The chief exponent of the Cardinal utility approach was
(a) J.R.Hicks
(b) R.G.D.Allen
(c) Marshall
(d) Stigler
Answer:
(c) Marshall

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Economics Question 4.
Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of ……………………..
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1
(b) TU_n – TU_n+1
(c) TU_n + TU_n+1
(d) TU_n – TU_n+1
Answer:
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1

11th Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility will be
(a) Minimum
(b) Maximum
(c) Zero
(d) Negative
Answer:
(b) Maximum

11th Economics Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Gossen’s first law is known as ……………………..
(a) Law of equi-marginal utility
(b) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(c) Law of demand
(d) Law of Diminishing returns.
Answer:
(b) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Question 7.
The basis for the law of demand is related to
(a) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(b) Law of supply
(c) Law of Equi-marginal utility.
(d) Gossen’s Law.
Answer:
(a) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Book Question 8.
The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated with ……………………….
(a) Adam smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(b) Marshall

11 Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
Given the potential price is Rs.250 and the actual price is Rs.200. Find the consumer surplus,
(a) 375
(b) 175
(c) 200
(d) 50
Answer:
(d) 50

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Economics Question 10.
Indifference curve approach is based on ………………………..
(a) Ordinal approach
(b) Cardinal approach
(c) Subjective approach
(d) Psychological approach
Answer:
(a) Ordinal approach

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Solutions Question 11.
The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced by
(a) Ferguson
(b) Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Economics Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 12.
Increase in demand is caused by ……………………..
(a) Increase in tax
(b) Higher subsidy
(c) Increase in interest rate
(d) decline in population
Answer:
(b) Higher subsidy

Samacheer Kalvi Economics Question 13.
The movement on or along the given demand curve is known as _______.
(a) Extension and contraction of demand.
(b) Shifts in the demand,
(c) Increase and decrease in demand.
(d) All the above
Answer:
(a) Extension and contraction of demand.

Chapter 2 Of Economics Class 11 Question 14.
In case of relatively more elastic demand, the shape of the curve is ……………………..
(a) Horizontal
(b) Vertical
(c) Steeper
(d) Flatter
Answer:
(d) Flatter

Economics Chapter 2 Question 15.
A consumer is in equilibrium when marginal utilities from two goods are
(a) Minimum
(b) Inverse
(c) Equal
(d) Increasing
Answer:
(c) Equal

Samacheer Kalvi Economics 11th Question 16.
Indifference curve was first introduced by ………………………..
(a) Hicks
(b) Allen
(c) Keynes
(d) Edgeworth
Answer:
(d) Edgeworth

Economics Chapter 2 Class 11 Question 17.
The elasticity of demand is equal to one indicates
(a) Unitary Elastic Demand
(b) Perfectly Elastic Demand
(c) Perfectly Inelastic Demand
(d) Relatively Elastic Demand
Answer:
(a) Unitary Elastic Demand

Economics Class 11 Chapter 2 Question 18.
The locus of the points which gives the same level of satisfaction is associated with ……………………….
(a) Indifference Curves
(b) Cardinal Analysis
(c) Law of Demand
(d) Law of Supply
Answer:
(a) Indifference Curves

Question 19.
Ordinal Utility can be measured by
(a) Ranking
(b) Numbering
(c) Wording
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Ranking

Question 20.
The indifference curve are ………………………..
(a) Vertical
(b) Horizontal
(c) Positive sloped
(d) Negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) Negatively sloped

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 21.
Define Utility.
Answer:
Utility is the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wants.

Question 22.
Mention the classifications of wants.
Answer:
(a) Necessaries
(b) Comforts
(c) Luxuries.

Question 23.
There are two basic approaches, namely:
1. Utility approach

• The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
• Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or Marginal utility analysis or Marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach

• The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 24.
What are the degrees of price elasticity of Demand?
Answer:
The Degrees of Price Elasticity of Demand:

1. Perfectly Elastic Demand (Ep = α)
2. Perfectly Inelastic Demand (Ep = 0)
3. Relatively Elastic Demand (Ep >1)
4. Relatively Inelastic Demand (Ep < 1)
5. Unitary Elastic Demand (Ep =1).

Question 25.
State the meaning of indifference curves?
Answer:

1. The Consumer is rational and his aim is to derive maximum satisfaction.
2. The utility cannot be cardinally measured but can be ranked or compared or ordered by an ordinal number such as I, II, III, and so on.
3. The indifference curve approach is based on the concept “Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution”.
4. The consumer is consistent. This assumption is called the assumption of transitivity.

Question 26.
Write the formula of consumer surplus.
Answer:
Consumer’s surplus = Potential price – Actual price.
Consumer’s surplus = TU-(P × Q)
TU – Total Utility,
P – Price,
Q – Quantity.

Question 27.
What are Giffen goods? Why it is called that?
Answer:
Giffen Paradox: The Giffen good or inferior good is an exception to the law of demand. When the price of inferior goods, falls, the poor will buy less and vice versa.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in One Paragraph

Question 28.
Describe the feature of human wants.
Answer:
The Feature of Human:

1. Wants are unlimited
2. Wants become habits
3. Wants are satiable
4. Wants are alternative
5. Wants are competitive
6. Wants are complementary
7. Wants are recurring.

Question 29.
Mention the relationship between marginal utility and total utility.
Answer:
Total Utility:

1. If Total utility increases
2. If Total utility reaches maximum.
3. If Total utility diminishes

Marginal Utility:

1. Marginal utility declines
2. Marginal utility reaches zero
3. Marginal utility becomes negative

MU_n = TU_n – TU_n-1.

Question 30.
Explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium with a diagram.
Answer:
Consumer’s surplus is the difference between the potential price and actual price. Consumer’s surplus = Potential price – Actual price.
(or)
Consumer’s surplus = TU – (P × Q)
TU – Total Utility, P – Price, Q – Quantity

In the diagram X – axis shows the amount demanded and Y – axis represents the price. DD shows the consumer’s utility from the purchase of different amounts of commodity.
Hence Actual price OPCQ
Potential price ODCQ
Consumer’ surplus = ODCQ – OPCQ
= PCD.

Question 31.
Explain the theory of “ Consumer’s Surplus ”?
Answer:
Alfred Marshall defines consumer’s surplus as “the excess of price which a person would be willing to pay a thing rather than go without the thing, over that which he actually does pay is the economic measure of this surplus satisfaction. This may be called consumer’s surplus”.

Question 32.
Distinguish between extension and contraction of demand.
Answer:
If the changes in the quantity demanded is due to the change in price alone then it is called extension and contraction of demand. Buying more at lower price is extension of demand and less at higher price is contraction of demand.

Question 33.
What are the properties of indifference curves?
Answer:

1. Indifference curve must have negative slope.
2. Indifference curves are convex to the origin.
3. Indifference curve cannot intersect.
4. Indifference curves do not touch the horizontal or vertical axis.

Question 34.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium.
Answer:
Consumer’s equilibrium refers to a situation under which a consumer spends his entire income on purchase of a goods, in such a manner that it gives him maximum satisfaction.
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve

T is the point of Equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃, the upper IC implies maximum level of satisfaction.

Part – D

Answer the following questions in about a page

Question 35.
Explain the law of demand and its exceptions.
Answer:
The law of demand was first stated by Augustin Cournot in 1838. Later it was refined and elaborated by Alfred Marshall.
Definition:
The law of demand says as “The quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price” -Marshall.

Assumptions of the law:

1. The income, taste, habit, and preference of the consumer remain the same.
2. No change in the prices of related goods.
3. No substitutes for the commodity.
4. The demand for the commodity must be continuous.
5. No change in the quality of the commodity.

If there is change even in one of these assumptions, the law will not operate.
Demand schedule:

From the above schedule if the price of the good is 5 then the quantity demanded is 1 unit and if the price decrease to 1 quantity demanded raises to 5 which shows the inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.

Diagram:

In the above diagram, X axis represents the quantity demanded and Y axis represents the price. DD is the demand curve which has a negative slope. It indicates that when price falls, the demand expands and when price rises, the demand contracts.

Market demand for a commodity:

The market demand curve for a commodity is derived by adding the quantum demanded of the commodity by all the individuals in the market.
Exceptions to the law of demand:

1. There are some unusual demand curves which slopes upwards from left to right. It is known as exceptional demand curve.
2. In the case of exceptional demand curve a fall in price brings about contraction and a rise in price brings about extension of demand.

Reasons for exceptional demand curve:

1. Giffen paradox
2. Veblen or demonstration
3. Ignorance
4. Speculative effect
5. Fear of shortage

Question 36.
Elucidate the law of diminishing marginal utility with diagram.
Answer:
H.H. Gosen, an Austrain Economist first formulated this law in 1854. Hence Jevons called this law as “Gossen’s first law of consumption”. Marshall perfected this law on the basis of cardinal analysis and it is based on the characteristics of human wants, it wants are satiable.

Definition:
Marshall states that “The additional benefit which a person derives from a given increase of his stock of a thing diminishes with every increase in the stock that he already has”
Assumptions:

1. Utility can be measured cardinally.
2. The marginal utility of money remains constant.
3. Consumer is a rational economic man.
4. The units of the commodity consumed must be reasonable in size.
5. The commodity consumed should be homogenous in all aspects.
6. Consumption takes place continuously at a given period of time.
7. No change in the taste, habits, preferences, fashions, income and character of the consumer during the process of consumption.

Explanation:
The law states that if a consumer continues to consume more of more units of the same commodity, its marginal utility diminishes.

Illustration:
This law can be explained with a simple illustration. Suppose a consumer wants to consume apples one after another the utility from the first apple is 20. But the utility from the second apple will be less than the first (say 15), the third less than the second (say 10) and so on. Finally, the utility from the fifth apple becomes zero.

The utilities from sixth and seventh apples are negative. This tendency is called “The . law of diminishing marginal utility’”.

From the above table and diagram. We find that the total utility goes on increasing but at a diminishing rate. Whereas marginal utility goes on diminishing. When marginal utility becomes zero, the total utility is maximum, when marginal utility becomes negative, the total utility diminishes.

Criticisms:

1. As utility is subjective,it cannot be measured numerically.
2. This law is based on the unrealistic assumptions.
3. This law is not applicable to indivisible commodities.

Question 37.
Explain the law of Equi-marginal utility.
Answer:
To satisfy unlimited wants a consumer need more than one commodity. So, the law of diminishing marginal utility is extended and is called “Law of equi-marginal utility”. It is also called the “Law of substitution” “The law of consumer’s equilibrium”, “Gossen second law” and “The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definitio :
Marshall states the law as, “If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.
Assumptions:

1. The rational consumer wants to maximize his satisfaction.
2. Utility is measurable cardinally.
3. The marginal utility of money remains constant.
4. The income of the consumer is given.
5. There is perfect competition in the market.
6. The prices of the commodities are given.
7. The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Explanation:
The law can be explained with the help of an example. Suppose a consumer wants to spend his limited income on Apple and Orange. He is said to be in equilibrium, only when he gets maximum satisfaction with his limited income. Therefore, he will be in equilibrium, when

K – Constant marginal unity of money

Table:

Let us assume that the consumer wants to spend his entire income (Rs.11) on Apple add Orange. The price of an Apple and Orange is Rs. 1 each.
If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility he should buy 6 units of Apples and 5 units or Oranges so that he can get 150 units.

Diagram:

In the diagram X – axis represent amount of money spent and Y – axis marginal utilities of Apple and Orange. If the consumer spends Rs. 6 on Apple and Rs. 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal (ie) AA, = BB,. Hence he gets maximum utility.

Question 38.
What are the methods of measuring Elasticity of demand?
Answer:
There are three methods of measuring elasticity of demand.

1. The percentage method:

It is also known as ratio method, when we measure the ratio as

% ∆Q = perCentage change in demand, %∆P = Percentage change in price.

2. Total outlay method:
Marshall suggested that the simplest way to decide whether demand is elastic or inelastic is to examine the change in total outlay of the consumer or total revenue of the firm.
Total revenue = Price × Quantity sold
TR = P × Q
Total outlay method:

Demand is elastic, if there is inverse relation between price and total outlay and direct relation means inelastic. Elasticity is unity when total outlay is constant.

Question 3.
Point or geometrical elasticity:
Answer:
The point elasticity of a linear demand curve is shown by the ratio of the segments of the line to the right and to the left of the particular point.

EP – Point Elasticity, L – Lower Segment,U – Upper Segment.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Economics Consumption Analysis Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A

Choose the best options

Question 1.
The utility cannot be measured, because the utility is ………………………. concept.
(a) Social
(b) Subjective
(c) Political
(d) Scientific
Answer:
(b) Subjective

Question 2.
_________ law is helpful in attaining social justice.
(a) Law of equi-margional utility
(b) Law of demand
(c) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(d) Law of marginal utility
Answer:
(c) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Question 3.
Consumer surplus is …………………….
(a) Potential price – Actual price
(b) MV = TV – TV
(c) Demand = Supply
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Potential price – Actual price

Question 4.
Income elasticity of demand is degree of responsiveness of change in demand to
(a) Change is price
(b) Elasticity of demand
(c) Change in substitutes
(d) Change in income
Answer:
(d) Change in income

Question 5.
Marshallian utility approach is …………………….. analysis.
(a) Subjective
(b) Psychological
(c) Ordinal
(d) Cardinal
Answer:
(d) Cardinal

Question 6.
_________ is the major determinant of demand.
(a) Consumption
(b) Price
(c) Supply
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Price

Question 7.
Principle of Economics” was defined by ………………….
(a) Marshall
(b) Hicks
(c) Allen
(d) Keynes
Answer:
(a) Marshall

Question 8.
The formula for point method
(a) Upper segment / Lower segment
(b) Middle segment / Upper segment
(c) Lower segment / Upper segment
(d) Upper segment / Left segment
Answer:
(c) Lower segment / Upper segment

Question 9.
What is the other name of the budget line?
(a) Price ratio line
(b) Quantity ratio line
(c) Equilibrium ratio line
(d) Compulsory ratio line
Answer:
(a) Price ratio line

Question 10.
_________ is the basis of all the laws of consumption.
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of consumerism
(c) Law of elasticity
(d) Law of diminishing marginal utility
Answer:
(d) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Question 11.
Give the consumer’s surplus is 75 and the actual price 372, Find the potential price
(a) 447
(b) 50
(c) 375
(d) 474
Answer:
(a) 447

Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
(a) Consumption is the beginning of economic science
(b) Production is the beginning of economic science
(c) Distribution is the beginning of economic science
(d) Exchange is the beginning of economic science
Answer:
(a) Consumption is the beginning of economic science

Question 2.
(a) The law of diminishing marginal utility is called as Gresham’s law.
(b) The law Equi marginal utility is called as Marshall’s law.
(c) The law of diminishing marginal utility is called as Gossen’s first law of consumption.
(d) The law of demand is called as Gossen’s second law of consumption.
Answer:
(c) The law of diminishing marginal utility is called as Gossen’s first law of consumption.

Match the following and choose the answer using the codes given below

Question 3.

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(b) 3 4 2 1

Question 4.

(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer:
(d) 3 1 4 2

Choose the odd one out

Question 5.
(a) Giffen paradox
(b) Demonstration effect
(c) Speculative effect
(d) Edge worth approach
Answer:
(d) Edge worth approach

Question 6.
(a) F.W. Edge worth
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) Vilfredo Pareto
(d) J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen
Answer:
(b) Alfred Marshall

Question 7.
(a) Percentage method
(b) Point method
(c) Total outlay method
(d) Income elasticity method
Answer:
(d) Income elasticity method

Choose the incorrect pair

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) Point (i) Upper segment/Lower segment.

Question 9.

Answer:
(b) Unptary elastic demand (i) e_p= 0.

Question 10.

Answer:
(c) e_p < 1 (iii) Rectangular hyperbola

Analyze the reason for the following

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Savings and demand are inversely related.
Reason (R): Increased savings leads to a decrease in consumption.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but, (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 12.
Assertion (A) : When the price of an inferior goods fall, the poor will buy less.
Reason (R) : Poor consume less amount of inferior goods.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true
(b) Both (A) and (R) are false
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer:
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

Choose the incorrect statement

Question 13.
(a) The exceptional demand curve slopes upwards,
(b) The good salt is price inelastic
(c) Elasticity is unity when total outlay is constant
(d) Demand is more elastic in the short run than is long run
Answer:
(a) The exceptional demand curve slopes upwards

Question 14.
(a) The law of DMU is based on the characteristics of human wants.
(b) The law of consumer surplus is based on the law of DMU
(c) The indifference curve approach is based on scale of preference.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(d) None of the above.

Fill in the blanks with the suitable option given below

Question 15.
Diamond – water paradox was given by
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Samuelson
Answer:
(a) Adam Smith

Question 16.
_________ law is helpful in attaining social justice.
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of diminishing marginal utility
(c) Law of equi-marginal utility
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Question 17.
_________ is the basis of all the laws of consumption.
(a) Law of demand
(b) Law of consumerism
(c) Law of elasticity
(d) Law of diminishing marginal utility
Answer:
(d) Law of diminishing marginal utility

Choose the best option

Question 18.
_________ is the major determinant of demand.
(a) Consumption
(b) Price
(c) Supply
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Price

Question 19.
If the total utility is maximum then marginal utility is _________
(a) Zero
(b) Negative
(c) Positive
(d) Maximum
Answer:
(a) Zero

Question 20.
Mathematically consumer’s surplus is
(a) TU – TU_n-1
(b) TR – (P×Q)
(c) TU – (P×Q)
(d) TC – (Q×P)
Answer:
(c) TU-(P×Q)

Part – B

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Define “Consumption”?
Answer:
Consumption plays an important role in Economics. “ Consumption is the sole end and object of economic activity” – J.M. Keynes. Consumption is the beginning of economic science. In the absence of consumption, there can be no production; exchange, or distribution. Consumption is also an end of production. Producers produce goods to satisfy the wants of the people.

Question 2.
What is the law of demand?
Answer:
“The quantity demanded increases with a fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price” – Marshall.

Question 3.
Write the characteristics of demand?
Answer:
Characteristics of demand:

1. Price: Demand is always related to price.
2. Time: Demand always means demand per unit of time, per day, per week, per month on per year.
3. Market: Demand is always related to the market, buyer and sellers.
4. Amount: Demand is always a specific quantity that a consumer is willing to purchase.

Question 4.
What is marginal utility?
Answer:
Marginal utility is the utility derived from the last or marginal unit of consumption.

Question 5.
What is demand ?
Answer:
Demand is the desire backed by the ability to pay and the willingness to buy it.

Question 6.
What is elasticity of demand?
Answer:
Elasticity of demand is the degree of responsiveness of the quantity demand for a commodity to a change in its price.

Question 7.
What are the determinants of elasticity of demand?
Answer:

1. Availability of substitutes
2. Proportion of consumer’s income
3. Number of uses of commodity
4. Complementarity between goods.

Part – C

Answer the following questions in one Paragraph

Question 1.
What is an indifference map?
Answer:
An indifference map is a family or collection or set of indifference curves corresponding to different levels of satisfaction. In the diagram, the indifference curves IC₁, IC₂ and IC₃ represent the indifference map, upper IC representing a higher level of satisfaction compared to lower IC.

Question 2.
Write the importance of the law of diminishing marginal utility?
Answer:

1. This law of DMU is one of the fundamental laws of consumption. It has applications in several fields of study.
2. The law of DMU is the basis for other consumption laws such as the law of Demand, Elasticity of Demand, Consumer Surplus, and the Law of Substitution, etc.
3. The law emphasizes the equitable distribution of wealth. The MU of money to the more -moneyed is low. Hence redistribution of income from rich to poor is justified.

Question 3.
What are the determinants of demand?
Answer:

1. Changes in tastes and fashions
2. Change in weather
3. Taxation and subsidy
4. Change in expections
5. Changes in savings
6. State of trade activity
7. Advertisement
8. Change in income
9. Change in population.

Question 4.
What is a scale of preference?
Answer:

1. A rational consumer usually prefers the combination of goods which gives him a maximum level of satisfaction.
2. Thus the consumer can arrange goods and their combination in order of their satisfaction.
3. Such an arrangement of a combination of goods in the order of level of satisfaction is called the “Scale of preference”.

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