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TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
2 & 0 \\
1 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) and B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
1 & 4 \\
2 & 0
\end{array}\right]\)
then adj (AB)| = ……….
(a) – 40
(b) -80
(c) -60
(b) -20
Answer:
(b) -80

Question 2.
iⁿ + 1ⁿ⁺¹ + i^{n + 2} + i^{n +3} is ……….
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c)- 1
(d) i
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 3.
If ω = \(\text { cis } \frac{2 \pi}{3}\) , then the number of distinct roots of
\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
z+1 & \omega & \omega^{2} \\
\omega & z+\omega^{2} & 1 \\
\omega^{2} & 1 & z+\omega
\end{array}\right|=0\)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 4.
sin^-1(cos x) = \(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\) is valid for ……….
(a) -π ≤ x ≤0
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π
(c) \(-\frac{\pi}{2} \leq x \leq \frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{4} \leq x \leq \frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
Answer:
(b) 0 ≤ x ≤ π

Question 5.
tan^-1 x + cot^-1 = …….
(a) 1
(b) -π
(c) π/2
(d) π
Answer:
(c) π/2

Question 6.
The equation of the normal to the circle x² + y² – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 which is parallel to the line 2x + 4y = 3 is …………..
(a) x + 2y = 3.
(b) x + 2y + 3 = 3
(c) 2x + 4y + 3 = 0
(d) x – 2y + 3 = 0
Answer:
(a) x + 2y = 3.

Question 7.
The axis of the parabola x² = 20y is ……….
(a) y = 5
(b) x = 5
(c) x = 0
(d) y = 0
Answer:
(c) x = 0

Question 8.
If \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b} \times \vec{c})=(\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times \vec{c}\) for non-coplanar vectors \(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) then…….
(a) \(\vec{a}\) parallel to \(\vec{b}\)
(b) \(\vec{b}\) parallel to \(\vec{c}\)
(c) \(\vec{c}\) parallel to \(\vec{a}\)
(d) \(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}=\overrightarrow{0}\)

Question 9.
The vector equation of a plane whose distance from the origin is p and perpendicular to a unit vector n̂ is ….
(a) \(\vec{r} \cdot \vec{n}=p\)
(b) \(\begin{aligned}
&-n\\
&r \cdot n=q
\end{aligned}\)
(c) \(\vec{r} \times \vec{n}=p\)
(d) \(\vec{r} \cdot \hat{n}=p\)

Question 10.
The point of inflection of the curve y=(x – 1)³ is …………..
(a) (0,0)
(b) (0,1)
(c) (1,0)
(d) (1,1)
Answer:
(c) (1,0)

Question 11.
The asymptote to the curve y²(1 + x) = x² (1 – x) is …………..
(a) x = 1
(b) y = 1
(c) y = -1
(d) x = -1
Answer:
(d) x = -1

Question 12.
The solution of a linear differential equation ax + Px = Q where P and Q are function of y, is ……….
(a) y (I.F) = ∫(I.F) Q dx + c
(b) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c
(c) y (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dy + c .
(d) x (I.F) = ∫(1.F) Q dx + c

Question 13.
A circular template has a radius of 10 cm. The measurement of radius has an approximate error of 0.02 cm. Then the percentage error in calculating area of this template is ……..
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.04%
(d) 0.08%
Answer:
(b) 0.4%

Question 14.
For any value of n∈z, \(\int_{0}^{\pi} e^{\cos ^{2} x} \cos ^{3}[(2 n+1) x] d x \) is……….
(a) π/2
(b) π
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 15.
If n is odd then \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \sin ^{n} x d x\) is …. ….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{n-1}{n} \cdot \frac{n-3}{n-2} \cdot \frac{n-5}{n-4} \dots \frac{2}{3} \cdot 1\)

Question 16.
The solution of \(\frac{d y}{d x}=2^{y-x}\)is ……….
(a) 2^x + 2^y = c
(b) 2^x – 2^y = c
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)
(d) x + y = c
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{2^{x}}-\frac{1}{2^{y}}=c\)

Question 17.
If p and q are the order and degree of the differential equation \(y \frac{d y}{d x}+x^{3}\left(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right)+x y=\cos x\) when…..
(a) p < q
(b) p = q
(c) p > q
(d) p exists and q does not exist
Answer:
(c) p > q

Question 18.
A pair of dice numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 of a six-sided die and 1, 2, 3, 4 of a four-sided die is rolled and the sum is determined. Let the random variable X denote this sum. Then the number of elements in the inverse image of 7 is ……….
(a) 1
(6) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 19.
If in 6 trials, X is a binomial variate which follows the relation 9P(X = 4) = P(X = 2),
then the probability of success is …….
(a) 0.125 .
(b) 0.25
(c) 0.375
(d) 0.75
Answer:
(b) 0.25

Question 20.
Which one of the following statements has truth value F ?
(a) Chennai is in India or √2 is an integer
(b) Chennai is in India or √2 is an irrational number
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer
(d) Chennai is in China or √2 is an irrational number
Answer:
(c) Chennai is in China or √2 is an integer

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14)

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{rr}
8 & -4 \\
-5 & 3
\end{array}\right]\), verify that A(adj A) = (adj A)A = |A|I₂,

Question 22.
Find the value of \(\sum_{k=1}^{8}\left(\cos \frac{2 k \pi}{9}+i \sin \frac{2 k \pi}{9}\right)\)
Answer:
We know that the 9th roots of unity are 1, 6, 62, …, 08 Sum of the roots:
1 + ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = 0
⇒ ω + ω² + … + ω⁸ = -1

Question 23.
Solve the equation 😡⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0.
Answer:
The given equation is x⁴ – 14x² + 45 = 0
Let x² = y
y² – 14y + 45 = 0 ⇒ (y – 9)(y – 5) = 0
y = 9,5
∴ x² = 9, x²= 5
x = ±3, x = ±√5
∴ The roots are ±3, ±√5

Question 24.
Find the principal value of sin \(\sin ^{-1}\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) (in radians and degrees).
Answer:

Question 25.
Show that the points (2,3,4),(-1,4,5) and (8,1,2) are collinear.
Answer:
Given points are (2, 3, 4), (-1,4,5) and (8,1,2). Equation of the line joining of the first and
second point is
\(\frac{x-2}{-3}=\frac{y-3}{1}=\frac{z-4}{1}=m(\text { say })\)
(-3m + 2, m + 3, m + 4)
On putting m = -2, we get the third point is (8, 1, 2)
∴ Given points are collinear.

Question 26.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Answer:
I = \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \frac{\cos x}{\sqrt{4+3 \sin x}} d x\)
Put 4 + 3 sin x = t, so that 3 cos x dx = dt = cosx dx = \(\frac{1}{3} dt\) When x = 0, t = 4 + 3(0) = 4 and when x = 2π, t = 4+ 3(0) = 4

Question 27.
Find the order and degre of the diferential equation center equation \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-y+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}=0\)
Answer:

Question 28.
Suppose the amount of milk sold daily at a milk booth is distributed with a minimum
of 200 litres and a maximum of 600 litres with probability density function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{lr}
k & 200 \leq x \leq 600 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\) Find the probability that daily sales will fall between 300 otherwise litres and 500 litres?
Answer:
The probability that daily sales will fall between 300 litres and 500 litres is

Question 29.
Let A = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) ,B = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 0 & 0 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) , C = \(\left(\begin{array}{llll}
1 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\
0 & 1 & 1 & 0 \\
1 & 1 & 1 & 1
\end{array}\right)\) be any three boolean matrices of the same type. Find A V B
Answer:

Question 30.
Find the general equation of a circle with centre (-3,- 4) and radius 3 units.
Answer:
Equation of the circle in standard form is (x – h)² + (y – k)² = p²
(x-(-3))² + (y-(-4))² = 3² .
(x + 3)² + (y + 4)² = 3²
x² + y² + 6x + 8y + 16 = 0.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
If A = \(-\left[\begin{array}{lll}
8 & 1 & 4 \\
4 & 4 & 7 \\
1 & 8 & 4
\end{array}\right]\) prove that A^-1 = A^T.
Answer:

Question 32.
If z₁ = 2 + 5i, z₂ = -3 – 4i, and z₃ = 1 + i, find the additive and multiplicative inverse of z₁, z₂, and z₃.
Answer:

Question 33.
Solve the equation 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0 if its roots form a geometric progression
Answer:
The given equation is 3x³ – 26x² + 52x – 24 = 0

Given that the root are GP
∴ The roots are \(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) , α, αr
\(\frac{\alpha}{r}\) x α x αr = (-8)
α³ = 8
α = 2

Question 34.
Find the value of \(\cot \left(\sin ^{-1} \frac{3}{5}+\sin ^{-1} \frac{4}{5}\right)\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If the normal at the point“ t₁‘ on the parabola y² = 4ax meets the parabola again at the point ‘t₂’, then prove that \(t_{2}=-\left(t_{1}+\frac{2}{t_{1}}\right)\)
Answer:
Equation of normal to y² = 4ax at ‘t’ is y + xt = 2at + at³.
So equation of normal at ‘t₁,’ is y + xt₁, = 2at₁ + at₁³ ……….(1)
The normal meets the parabola y² = 4ax at “t₂‘ (ie.,) at (at₂², 2at₂)

Question 36.
Find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point (-1, 2, 3) to the straight line \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\). Also, find the shortest distance from the given point to the straight line.
Answer:

Comparing the given equation \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k})\) with \(\vec{r}=\vec{a}+t \vec{b}\) we get \(\vec{a}=\hat{i}-4 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k} \hat{k}\) and \(\vec{b}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\). We denote the given point (-1,2,3) by D, and the point (1,-4,3) on the straight line by A . If F is the foot of the perpendicular from D to the straight line, then F is of the form (2t+1, 3t – 4, t + 3) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OF}}-\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OD}}=(2 t+2) \hat{i}+(3 t-6) \hat{j}+t \hat{k}\) .
Since \(\vec{b}\) is perpendicular to \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\), we have
Line \(\vec{b} \cdot \overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}\) = 0 = 2(2t + 2) + 3(3-6) +1(t) = 0 = t=1
Therefore, the coordinate of F is (3,-1, 4).
Now, the perpendicular distance from the given point to the given line is
\(\mathrm{DF}=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{DF}}|=\sqrt{4^{2}+(-3)^{2}+1^{2}}=\sqrt{26}\) units.

Question 37.
Find the asymptotes of the curve f(x) = \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x-4}{3 x-6}\)
Answer:
Since the numerator is of highest degree than the denominator. We have a slant
asymptote to find it we have to divide the numerator by the denominator.

So the equation of asymptote is \(y=\frac{x}{3}+\frac{8}{3}\) and 3x – 6 = 0
x = 2

Question 38.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{1} x(1-x)^{n} d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
For the distribution function given by \(\mathbf{F}(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
0 & x<0 \\ x^{2} & 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\ 1 & x>1
\end{array}\right.\), find the density function. Also evaluate
(i) P(0.5<x<0.75), (ii) P(X ≤ 50.5) (iii) P(x > 0.75)
Answer:

Question 40.
Let w (x, y) = \(x y+\frac{e^{y}}{y^{2}+1}\) for all (x, y) ∈ R². Calculate \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial y \partial x}\) and \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial x \partial y}\)
Answer:

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) An amount of ₹ 65,000 is invested in three bonds at the rates of 6%, 8% and 10% per annum respectively. The total annual income is ₹ 5,000. The income from the third bond is ₹ 800 more than that from the second bond. Determine the price of each bond. (Use Gaussian elimination method.)
Answer:
Let the amount invested in 6% bond be ₹ x
and the amount invested in 8% bond be ₹y
and the amount invested in 10% bond be ₹z
Now x + y + z = 65000

(i.e) 6x + 8y + 10z = 500000
(÷by 2) 3x + 4y + 5z = 250000
Also given that
\frac{10}{100} z-\frac{8}{100} y = 800 (i.e) -8y + 10z = 80000
(÷ by 2) -4y + 5z = 40000

(i.e,) x + y + z  = 65000…..(1)
y + 2z = 55000…..(2)
13z = 260000 …..(3)
Form (3) z = \(\frac{260000}{13}\)
Substituting z = ₹ 20000 in (2) we get
y + 40000 = 55000 = y ⇒ 55000 – 40000 = ₹ 15000
Substituting z = ₹ 20000, y = ₹ 15000 in (1) we get
x + 15000 + 20000 = 65000
x = 65000 – 35000 = ₹ 30000
So the amount invested in
6% bond x = ₹ 30000
8% bond y = ₹ 15000
and 10% bond z = ₹ 20000

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of the curve whose slope is \(\frac{y-1}{x^{2}+x}\) and which passes through the point (1, 0).
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) If arg (z – 1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) and arg (z + 1) = 2\(\frac{\pi}{3}\) , then prove that |z| = 1.
Answer:
Given arg (z-1) = \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) = 30° and arg (z + 1) = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) = 120°
So, arg (z + 1) – arg (z – 1) = 120° – 30° = 90°
ie, ang \(\frac{z+1}{z-1}=90^{\circ}=\frac{\pi}{2}\)
\(\operatorname{Re} \frac{z+1}{z-1}=0\) [∴arg = \(\tan \theta=\frac{I P}{R P}\)

Therefore x= -1 and x=1 are vertical asymptotes.
The rough sketch of the curve is shown on the right side.

Question 43.
(a) Solve the equation x³ – 9x² + 14x + 24 = 0 if it is given that two of its roots are in the ratio 3:2.
Answer:
The given equation is x³ – 9x² +14x + 24 = 0…
Since, the two roots are in the ratio 3:2.
The roots are α , 3λ, 2λ
α + 3λ + 2λ = -b = 9
= a + 5λ = 9 (a) ….. (1)
α (3λ) (2λ) = -24
6λ²a = -24 => λ²α = -4 …….(2)
α = 9 – 5λ
λ² (9 – 52) = -4
9λ² – 5λ³ + 4 = 0
5λ³ – 9λ² – 4 = 0
(λ – 2) (5λ² + λ + 2) = 0
λ = 2,5λ² + λ+ 2 = 0 has only Imaginary roots ∆ < 0
∴ when λ = 2, α = 9-5 (2) = 9 – 10 = -1
∴ The roots are α, 3λ, 2λ i.e., -1, 6, 4

[OR]

(b) Show that the lines \(\frac{x+3}{-3}=\frac{y-1}{1}=\frac{z-5}{5}\) and \(\frac{x+1}{-1}=\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{z-5}{5}\)
are coplanar. Also -3 .. 1 5 -1 2 find the equation of the plane containing these two lines.
Answer:
From the lines we have,
(x₁, y₁, z₁) = (-3, 1, 5); (b₁, b₂, b₃) = (-3, 1, 5)
(x₂, y₂, z₂) = (-1, 2, 5); (d₁, d₂, d₃) = (-1, 2,5)
Conditions for coplanar

\(\left|\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & 1 & 0 \\
-3 & 1 & 5 \\
-1 & 2 & 5
\end{array}\right|\) = 2(5 – 10) – 1(-15 + 5) + ((-6 + 1) = -10 + 10 = 0
Given two lines are coplanar

(x + 3)(5 – 10) – (y – 1)[-15 + 5) + (2 – 5)(-6 + 1] = 0
5(x + 3) + 10(y – 1) – 5(z – 5) = 0
(÷ by -5) ⇒ (x + 3) – 2 (y – 1) + (z – 5) = 0
x + 3 – 2y + 2 + 2 – 5 = 0 .
or x – 2y + z = 0

(x + 1)(5 – 10) – (y – 2)(-15 + 5) + (z – 5)(-6 + 1) = 0
-5(x + 1) + 10(y – 2) – 5(2 – 5) = 0
(x + 1) – 2(y – 2) + (2 – 5) = 0
x + 1 – 2y + 4 + 2 – 5 = 0
x – 2y + z = 0

Question 44.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded by the parabola y² = x and the line y = x -2.
Answer:
To find the points of intersection solve the two equations y² = x and y=x-2

(b) Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x \log x}=\frac{\sin 2 x}{\log x}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Solve \(\cos \left(\sin ^{-1}\left(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^{2}}}\right)\right)=\sin \left\{\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)\right\}\)
Answer:

(b) Find the mean and variance of a random variable X, whose probability density x for x 20 function is \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} & \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:
Observe that the given distribution is continuous

Question 46.
(a) Show that the equation of the normal to the curve x= a cos³θ, y = a sin³ θ at ‘θ’ is
x cos θ – y sin θ= a cos 2 θ.
Answer:
x = a cos³θ
\(\frac{d x}{d \theta}\) = a[ 3cos²θ](-sin θ) = -3acos²θ sin θ
y= a sin³θ

Slope of the normal = \(\frac{-1}{m}=\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)Point = (x1, yy) = (a cos³ θ , a sin³ θ ) sin θ
So, equation of the normal is
Y-a sin³ θ = \(\frac{\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\)(x- a cos³ θ)
i.e. y sin θ – a sin⁴ θ = x cos θ – a cos⁴ θ
x cos θ – sin θ = a cos⁴ θ – a sin⁴ θ
i.e x cos θ – y sin θ = a [cos²θ+ sin²θ] [cos²θ – sin²θ]
= a [cos 2 θ]
So, the equation of the normal is x cos θ – y sin θ = a cos 2θ

[OR]

(b) Verify (i) closure property (ii) commutative property (iii) associative property (iv) existence of identity and (v) existence of inverse for the operation +₅ on Z₅ using table corresponding to addition modulo 5.
Answer:
It is known that Z₅ = {[O], [1], [2], [3], [4]} . The table corresponding to addition modulo 5 is as follows: We take reminders {0,1,2,3,4} to represent the classes {[0],[1],[2],[3],[4]}.

(i) Since each box in the table is filled by exactly one element of Z₅, the output a +₅b is unique
and hence +₅ is a binary operation.

(ii) The entries are symmetrically placed with respect to the main diagonal. So +₅ has commutative
property.

(iii) The table cannot be used directly for the verification of the associative property. So it is to be verified as usual.
For instance, (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 0 +₅ 4 = 4 (mod 5)
and 2 +₅ (3 +₅ 4) = 2 +₅ 2 = 4 (mod 5). Hence (2 +₅3) +₅ 4 = 2 +₅ (3 +₅4).
Proceeding like this one can verify this for all possible triples and ultimately it can be shown that +₅ is associative.

(iv) The row headed by 0 and the column headed by 0 are identical. Hence the identity element is 0.

(v) The existence of inverse is guaranteed provided the identity O exists in each row and each column. From Table-A, it is clear that this property is true in this case. The method of finding the inverse of any one of the elements of Z₅ , say 2 is outlined below.

First find the position of the identity element 0 in the III row headed by 2. Move horizonta along the III row and after reaching 0, move vertically above 0 in the IV column, because 0 is in the III row and IV column. The element reached at the topmost position of IV column is 3. This element 3 is nothing but the inverse of 2, because, 2 +₅ 3 = 0 (mod 5). In this way, the inverse of each and every element of Z₅ can be obtained. Note that the inverse of 0 is 0, that of 1 is 4, that of 2 is 3, that of 3 is 2 , and that of 4 is 1.

Question 47.
(a) Identify the type of conic and find centre, foci, vertices, and directrices the following:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
Answer:
18x² + 12y² – 144x + 48y + 120 = 0
(18x² – 144x) + (12y² + 48y) = -120
18(x² – 8x) + 12 ( 12 + 4y) = -120
18(x² – 8x + 16 – 16) + 12 (12+ 4y + 4 – 4) = -120
18(x – 4)² – 288 + 12(y + 2)² – 48 = -120
18(x – 4)² + 12(y + 2)² = -120 + 288 + 48 = 216

[OR]

(b) Prove that g(x, y) = x log \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\) is homogeneous; what is the degree? Verify Euler’s Theorem for g.
Answer:
g (x, y) = x log(y/x)
8 (tx, ty) = (tx) log \(\left(\frac{t y}{t x}\right)\)
= txlog \(\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)\)
g(tx, ty) = t g(x, y)
∴ ‘g’is a homogeneous function of degree 1. By Euler’s theorem, we have

∴ Euler’s theorem verified.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 1

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
His brothers and his little sister ran to the brink.
(a) bark
(b) sea
(c) water
(d) edge
Answer:
(d) edge

Question 2.
‘Open up! ’ cried a hoarse voice.
(a) rough
(b) sharp
(c) haughty
(d) soft
Answer:
(a) rough

Question 3.
Trying to revive old childhood memories may prove disappointing! ’
(a) reveal
(b) resuscitate
(c) cancel
(d) cover
Answer:
(b) resuscitate

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
I wanted to make sure that I complete this journey with ultimate honesty.
(a) honourable
(b) dishonesty
(c) rectitude
(d) scrupulousness
Answer:
(b) dishonesty

Question 5.
Well, anything which is a certain threshold, can be self-ordered.
(a) unsure
(b) sure
(c) convinced
(d) ascertain
Answer:
(a) unsure

Question 6.
M. Hamel would question us on participles.
(a) clarify
(b) beautify
(c) answer
(d) demonstrate
Answer:
(c) answer

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘sister-in-law‘.
(a) sister-in-laws
(b) sisters-in-law
(c) sisters-in-laws
(d) sisters-n-law
Answer:
(b) sisters-in-law

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘help’.
(a) ful
(b) less
(c) ly
(d) graphy
Answer:
(b) less

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation DSLR.
(a) Digital Single Lens Refraction
(b) Digital Single Light Reflex
(c) Digital Service Lens Reflex
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex
Answer:
(d) Digital Single Lens Reflex

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
I will not ……………. to pressure. I shall face the challenge bravely.
(a) give away
(b) give in
(c) give out
(d) give off
Answer:
(b) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘rain‘ to form a compound word,
(a) well
(b) dance
(c) wet
(d) coat
Answer:
(d) coat

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
None of you bothered to leave a bottle of water …………. my bed.
(a) within
(b) outside
(c) beside
(d) for
Answer:
(c) beside

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The dog never liked to be left alone and kept on ………… the entire night.
(a) whined
(b) whining
(c) whine
(d) will whine
Answer:
(b) whining

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
It was a great feeling ………. I learnt to use it.
(a) that
(b) whether
(c) but
(d) when
Answer:
(d) when

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section – I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the young bird utter a joyful scream?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly and uttered a joyful scream falling outwards and downwards into space.

Question 16.
Why does Joe mock the policeman who wants to retrieve his gun from the grandfather?
Answer:
When the policeman talks bravely about going to retrieve his gun from the grandfather, Joe mocks him because he feels it’s dangerous to approach an armed and unstable suspect.

Question 17.
What was the information given by Mrs. Hudson to Dr. Watson?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson said that Holmes was working on a case down at Rotherhithe, near the river and had brought an illness back with him since Wednesday afternoon. He had neither taken food nor water for the past three days.

Question 18.
What did Aditya do when he went to the attic?
Answer:
When Aditya went up the attic, he got on top of the packing case and pushed his hand inside the ventilator. He upset a sparrow’s nest, a part of which fell to the ground. It looked as if he was in search of something that he had left there 29 years ago.

Section – II

Read the following poetic lines and answer any THREE questions given below.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“They growl at that and they growl at this;
Whatever comes, there is something amiss;”
(a) What does the word ‘growl’ mean here?
(b) Why do they find everything amiss?
Answer:
(a) The word growl here means ‘grumbling’.
(b) They find everything amiss, since they are not satisfied or contented with anything.

Question 20.
“My heart was so light
that I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ” “For all nature looked gay”
“You sang, Sir, you say?
Go then ”, says the ant, “and dance the winter away ”. ”
(a) Whose heart was light?
(b) What did he do out of joy?
Answer:
(a) The cricket’s heart was light.
(b) Out of joy, the cricket danced the winter away.

Question 21.
“Remember; we who take arms against each other”
(a) What should we remember?
(b) What advice does the poet give us in these lines?
(a) We should remember that no men are foreign and no country is strange.
Answer:
(b) The poet advises us to ignore the orders of those who incite us to hate and abuse others because by doing so we harm ourselves.

Question 22.
“I drive past the house almost every day.
The house seems to be a bit brighter.
On this warm summer day in May.
It plays with your mind.”
(а) To whom does ‘I’ refer to?
(b) How does the house appear in May?
Answer:
(a) ‘I’ refers to the poetess, Nadia Bush.
(b) The house appears a bit brighter in May.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The burglars had cut a huge hole in the wooden door.
A huge hole had been cut in the wooden door by the burglars.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
“Do they live here?” asked Manohar
Answer:
Manohar asked me if they lived here.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
‘what was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin round the house last night’ he demanded
‘What was the idee of all them cops tarryhootin’ round the house last night?’ he demanded.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
It is not known what is the purpose of his visit to this place.
Answer:
The purpose of his visit to this place is not known.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) writing/ system/ telephone/ am/ to/I/ about/ banking/ your/ complain
(b) crashed/ on/I/ the/ system/ been/ that/ each/ informed/ computer/ has/ have/ occasion
Answer:
(a) I am writing to complain about your telephone banking system.
(b) On each occasion, I have been informed that the computer system has crashed.

Section – IV

Answer the following. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
A stranger approaches you and asks you to guide her/him the way to S.S. Market. Help the stranger to reach his/her destination with the help of the given road-map and write down the Steps.
Answer:

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the left immediately after the school in the comer of Anna Road and Flower Street
• After the school, take the right and walk further till you find S.S. Market on the left.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received is a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines. Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance.

The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do analyse problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you have in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family is a must to carry out the expedition.

“It s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other. ”

Question 30.
Discuss the role played by Kim and Stephen Hawking to utilize technology for the disabled?
Answer:
Technology plays a vital role in transforming the lives of a disabled. Kim made them realize life isn’t tough because you are differently-abled. Kim made them realize that you can keep in touch with your family, you can talk to and even see relatives who live far away. Well, Kim has shown them that technology can do even more for young disabled people like me. It can make friends communicate and control the environment. It can help them study, get qualifications and find opportunities for work.

It can make them confident and independent. World renowned physicist Stephen Hawking is probably the best example of how assistive Technology has helped a talented mind overcome physical impairments and contribute productively to the world. So we can now look forward to a more inclusive way of learning, instead of the cloistered existence that most differently-abled learners had to face in the past. Newer technology allows differently-abled learners to learn with their peers as well as contribute fruitfully to the collaborative process of learning. This is indeed the new era of learning – truly a learning for all.

“Technology is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
We appreciate the value of something only when we are about to lose it. Explain this with reference to the French language and M. Hamel.
Answer:
The Last Lesson’, written by Alphonse Daudet describes the year 1870 when the Prussian forces under Bismarck attacked and captured France. Alsace and Lorraine, districts of France went into Prussian hands. The new Prussian rulers issued an order that only German should be taught in all schools.

The French teachers were asked to leave with immediate effect. The story describes the last day of one such French class under M. Hamel. M. Hamel had taught French for forty years. Most of them never knew the value of the teacher’s devotion and dedicated service.

We do not always get an opportunity to learn, and this is never understood till the end. Luck doesn’t favour always. Likewise, opportunity knocks ones. Time should be valued. Procrastination is a sin. Most of us end up delaying things. Unless we are constant and regular in our efforts, we cannot achieve our goals. When things come easy, we do not realise its value.

Time and tide wait for no man. The entire village knew the value of Mr. Hamel and his teaching only when he was asked to leave. There was no use in their regrets. It was all too late. Therefore, let’s remember that we should make hay when the sun shines and not weep in vain.

“ Understand your worth; Value your life; Appreciate your blessings. ”

Question 32.
Give a brief character sketch of Sasanka Sanyal.
Answer:
Sasanka Sanyal was a wise and intelligent student. Perhaps luck never favoured him. He may have been a book-worm. However, he was overpowered by his friends because of his innocence. Hence, Aditya Narayan Chowdhury exploits him and takes away his Silver medal that he had received for Poetry Recitation. He had a wonderful memory power and could recall every single incident of his past.

He remembered Aditya when he saw him in Nagen’s Tea Cabin and confirmed his memory seeing his mole on the right cheek. He was rude in his behaviour towards Aditya as he did not want to suppress his feelings and vented out his anger on him. He was remorse after the death of his family members.

He whiled away his time at Nagen’s shop yet never gave up his self-respect and paid for the cup of coffee and biscuits if in case he had. Financially, he wasn’t comfortable since he couldn’t afford even a spectacle because of his partial deformity in his eye-sight.

“ Self-respect permeates every’ aspect of your life.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How are today’s women portrayed by the poet in, ‘I Am Every Woman’?
Answer:
Rakhi Nariani Shirke is an academician with a passion for writing poems as a medium of self-expression. This poem talks about the multifaceted nature of women. A woman is born beautiful and beauty is an inborn trait. She is a symbol of supremacy and strength. She takes risks in life for she is real and always genuine. Today’s women are empowered, brave, strong and resolute.

They are always ready to take up new ventures. They are persistent and work tirelessly to prove what they are capable of. Women have to be treated respectfully for the growth of a nation. As stated earlier, she is the symbol of strength as she is strong in her faith and beliefs. In spite of all the out breaths and cries and laments, she is strong in her hope and firm in her trust. She is a lioness, brave and daring. She is a disciplinarian and will not tolerate your pranks with her. She is a woman of today to beware of.

“Each time a woman stands up for herself, she stands up for all women.”

Question 34.
Comment on the house located on Elm street.
Answer:
Nadia Bush brings out the eerie nature while reading her poem. The House On Elm Street.” There aren’t any houses around this house located on Elm Street. It stood all alone in an isolated place. Next to the house, is a tree. The tree too is mysterious like the house since no leaves sprout in any of the seasons. It is said to be a mysterious place since no one knows who lives there or what is inside. No one knows what happens inside that house and hence it is very mysterious. It is for sure a big house with vast space inside the house. Generally, at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in it.

Lights are switched on and off. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter on a fine warm summer day in the month of May. The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the areas known around. Likewise, the tree too is barren during winter, spring, summer and autumn. The poetess says that the tree just stays there and never grows tall nor becomes short. She wonders how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth and hence feels it is a mysterious place.

“The mystery’ of existence will always remain a mystery and secret.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,
And hope the road’s last turn will be the best.”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Quest and best are the rhyming words.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the above stanza is abcc.
(iii) Couplet is the figure of speech in the last two lines of the given stanza.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘Still seeking’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
But remember, please, the Law by which we live,
We are not built to comprehend a lie,
We can neither love nor pity nor forgive,
If you make a slip in handling us you die!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines caution the readers with an unshakeable moral imperative – the Law by which it lives! The machines represent a form of absolute truth that is particularly difficult for mankind to understand. Here machines tell us that they don’t emote nor understand different feelings such as love, pity or apology. It reiterates its dangerous nature by simply stating that a slip while handling it means instant death.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (ii), (i), (iv)
(iii) This box contains a large number of very fine rubies, diamonds and pearls.
(v) I wish you to continue to have expectations and remember your dear uncle.
(ii) I would have left them to some charity, but I hate the poor.
(i) The box contains an interesting mechanism that will explode on opening.
(iv) Doubt me, and open it, and you will be blown to atoms.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
‘Come in, Zigzag, come in, dear! ’coazed Visu, and in tottered the strangest, weirdest-looking bird the Krishnan family had ever seen. About a foot and a half tall, its bald head was fringed with a crown of shocking pink feathers while the rest of its plumage was in various shades of the muddiest sludgiest brown. Its curved beak was sunflower-yellow and its eyes were the colour of cola held to sunlight. ‘This is Zigzag! Announced Visu with a flourish. ‘His’ full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of- the-Tonga. How I’m going to miss him! So beautifully he talks! He can even recite French Poetry!’

The object of all this praise was standing cool and unmoved, with an expression of almost- human grumpiness in his cola-coloured eyes.
(i) Describe Zigzag’s plumage.
(ii) What is the full name of Zigzag?
(iii) What can Zigzag do according to Visu?
(iv) What was the colour of Zigzag’s eyes?
(v) Who brought home Zigzag?
Answer:
(i) Zigzag’s plumage was a crown of pink feathers and the rest of the feathers were muddiest and sludgiest brown.
(ii) Zigzag’s full name is Ziggy-Zagga-king-of-the-Tonga.
(iii) Zigzag can recite French Poetry, according to Visu.
(iv) Zigzag’s eyes were cola-coloured.
(v) Visu brought home Zigzag.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Fly India – Fly five star – sky is the best place on earth.
Answer:

Question 40.
Vivek has been asked to deliver a speech on ‘The Brain Drain Problem’. Use your own ideas, and write the speech in about 150-200 words.
Answer:
Respected Principal, teachers and dear friends!
Good morning to one and all present here. I, Vivek of Std. X, am thankful to the teachers for giving me this opportunity.

The problem of brain-drain has assumed serious proportion in the last thirty years or so. The nation spends its hard-earned meagre resources on the education and training of its doctors, engineers, scientists, etc. But these highly talented and trained men and women of genius migrate to developed countries.

They desert the ranks for the lure of money, better facilities and living conditions. Some of them get opportunities for fulfilment of their ambitions and development of personality as there is full scope for it. They enjoy unlimited freedom for experiments and research and fear no resources crunch.

The parent countries become poorer by the depletion of resources as a result of migration of trained and talented persons. The migrants too feel maladjusted in the new country where they are considered second grade citizens. Living and working in an alien culture among foreigners, they find themselves cut off from their own social modes and customs. They do suffer emotional vacuum as the memories of friends and relatives in their country haunt their minds.

India too has been facing this problem. We must take steps to ensure them better facilities, improved living conditions, freedom for experimentation and research. In addition to this, their talents must be utilised for proper work and their work must be given due recognition. These measures, if adopted seriously, can check the problem effectively.
Thank you.

Question 41.
You are Dhinesh/Malu. You have been invited to attend the wedding of your friend’s sister during summer vacation. Write an e-mail to him/her regretting your inability to attend it.
Answer:

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:
An evening at the Park
Corporation has constructed and maintains quite a few parks in the city. Young and old throng these parks in the morning or in the evening to relax and stay fit. Now-a-days, people are conscious about their health and hence keep themselves fit by walking or doing aerobic exercises in the park.

They also help keeping the park clean and tidy. An ice-cream vendor makes use of the opportunity to make his living.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
When we survey our lives and efforts we soon observe that almost the whole of our actions and desires are bound up with the existence of other human beings. We notice that whole nature resembles that of the social animals. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.

The greater part of our knowledge and beliefs has been passed on to us by other people though the medium of a language which others have created. Without language and mental capacities, we would have been poor indeed comparable to higher animals. We have, therefore, to admit that we owe our principal knowledge over the least to the fact of living in human society.

The individual if left alone from birth would remain primitive and beast like in his thoughts and feelings to a degree that we can hardly imagine. The individual is what he is and has the significance that he has, not much in virtue of the individuality, but rather as a member of a great human community, which directs his material and spiritual existence from the cradle to grave.

Notes
Title: Man is a Social Animal
Survey: (i) lives & efforts; (ii) our actions & desires – bound up Practices: Eat food – wear clothes – live in houses – made by others Lang. – learnt 4m others – for mental power
Status: (i) Indiv. if left alone – be primitive; (ii) The individual – much in virtue member A human community – directs mat. & spiritual existence.
Abbreviations used: & – and; A – of; lang. – language;indiv.-individual; 4m- from;
mat. – material

Title: Man is a Social Animal
Rough draft
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes knowledge and belief they are interdependent with one another. We eat food that others have produced clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built. They use language created by others without language their mental power would not grow.

We have to admit that we owe our principal knowledge-over the least to the fact of living in human society. The individual if left alone from birth would remamplmfitiyeThey are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from but birth would grow utterly beast-like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.

Fair draft
Title : Man is a Social Animal
Being social animals, human beings have their actions and desires bound up with society. In matter of food, clothes, knowledge and belief they are interdependent. We eat food that others have produced, wear clothes that others have made, live in houses that others have built.They use language created by others. Without language their mental power would not grow. They are superior to beast, because they live in human society. An individual life left alone from birth would grow utterly beast like. So human society and not individuality guides man’s material and spiritual existence.
No. of words written in the summary: 48

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Two-thirds of the content were rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar is not attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house in Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me when you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well but we might have to fail you.
Answer:
(a) Two-thirds of the content was rubbish.
(b) Mr. Bhaskar has not been attending his office for the last one month.
(c) I must get to the house on Lake View Road by twelve o’ clock.
(d) Will you please buy some honey for me if you go to the market?
(e) It is mandatory that you study well or we might have to fail you.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
We will serve ………… and read and write!
Answer:
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!

Part – IV

Question 46.
Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
(a) Prospero a sympathetic character – uses magic to control – learns sorcery – protects Miranda – control Ariel and others – alter weather – raise the dead – demands attention – an insensitive character to compassionate character – rightful duke of Milan – humanity in his treatment of Antonio – extremely forgiving – helpless against his enemies – white magic and not black magic – complex personality – refuses to free Ariel – subjugates Caliban – ruler appears insensitive and harsh – tyrannical – understanding – protective just and fair, intelligent.
Answer:
In ‘The Tempest’ by William Shakespeare, Prospero is the main character yet a sympathetic character. You could also say he isn’t very sympathetic because he uses magic to control other people. He has learned sorcery from books, and uses it while on the island to protect Miranda and control the other characters. Prospero’s sorcery is sufficiently powerful to control Ariel and other spirits, as well as to alter weather and even raise the dead.

Prospero insists that others listen to him even when they do not want to. His character grows from being an insensitive character to a much more compassionate and likable character with positive characteristics. Prospero is the rightful duke of Milan who is usurped by his brother. Prospero’s humanity is clearly obvious in his treatment of Antonio.

In spite of him being a traitor, he is extremely forgiving in nature. He is helpless against his enemies and wait for them to come close to his island so that he can use his magic to create a storm and bring them under his control. Prospero’s magic is the white magic of nature and not the black magic of evil nature. He is surely a complex personality.

Although he refuses to free Ariel and subjugates Caliban, Prospero is really a generous ruler, never intending to harm even his enemies. At first, Prospero appears insensitive and harsh, especially in his treatment of Ariel and Caliban. He is seen as tyrannical in his treatment of Ferdinand, but Prospero realizes that Ferdinand and
Miranda will value one another more if there are a few obstacles to their wooing. Prospero is protective of those who are close to him especially Miranda. Throughout, Prospero makes sure Ferdinand’s and Miranda’s love stays strong. Ultimately, we see Prospero to be just and fair besides being intelligent.

[OR]

(b) Describe the farmer’s painful journey up the mountain by developing the given hints. A mother’s affection – insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain – eternal and unconditional love is invaluable – the law – tyrant ruler – changes decision – a kind mode of death – summit of Obatsayuma – Her heart is concerned.
Answer:
The story of the Aged Mother, a folklore from Japan, tells a story about the care and wisdom of a mother to his son, their condition and the son’s love and gentle respect. This story talks about the conflict in the poor farmer’s mind.
A mother’s affection is something that none can describe. It is composed of insightful sustenance of sacrifice and pain which is eternal and unconditional.

The thought that “A mother’s love is invaluable and can never be equated to further belongings that a child might own’ perturbs the narrator. The law pronounced by the tyrant ruler fills the heart of the poor farmer with deep remorse. Instead of putting his mother to death in the hand of the cruel law he decides to give his mother a kind mode of death. He takes his mother to the bare summit of Obatsayuma and plans to abandon her there.

The mother too is pained on the way to the summit of the mountain. Her heart grows concerned because she knows that her son will be in danger on his way back because he is not familiar to the paths and hence she breaks the twigs and drops it quietly on the road to serve as a guide for her son’s return journey.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Answer:
In Titanic the ‘older’ Rose throws the Heart of the Ocean diamond over the side of the ship. While the Heart of the Ocean is only a fairy tale, it is based on the Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire. It was bought in India by a French jeweller in the 1660s and brought back to France.

The Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV where it began to attract a reputation as a cursed creature. Things did not end well with Louis XIV who was flat broke at the end of his life and who was eaten by a pack of wild dogs. It then passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded. The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

The last owner’s brother died early, her son was run over by a car when he was nine years old, she got divorced, her husband perished in a mental institution, her daughter died of an overdose and she herself died of pneumonia.
The Hope Diamond is now housed in the Smithsonian Institution in Washington.

Questions.
(a) Where did The Blue Fire originate?
(b) To whom was the Blue Beauty passed on after Louis XIV was dead?
(c) How did the diamond affect Louis XIV?
(d) Under what circumstances did the Hope Diamond resurface after two decades?
Ans.
(a) The Hope Diamond or The Blue Fire was bought in India originally by a French jeweller in the 1660s and taken back to France.
(b) The Blue Beauty was passed on to Queen Marie Antoinette who was eventually beheaded.
(c) When the diamond, Blue Beauty was sold to Louis XIV, things did not end well with him as he was flat broke at the end of his life and was eaten by a pack of wild dogs.
(d) The diamond disappeared for two decades and eventually resurfaced amidst a story of suicides.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
PIPING DOWN THE VALLEYS

Piping down the valleys wild,
Piping songs of pleasant glee,
On a cloud, I saw a child,
And he laughing said to me :

“Pipe a song about a Lamb !”
So I piped with merry cheer.
“Piper, a pipe that song again;”
So I piped: he wept to hear.

Drop thy pipe, thy happy pipe;
“Sing thy songs of happy cheer.”
So I sang the same again,
While he wept with joy to hear.

“Piper, sit thee down and write
In a book, that all may read.”
So he vanish’d from my sight,
And I pluck’d a hollow reed,

And I made a rural pen,
And I stain’d the water clear,
And I wrote my happy songs
Every child may joy to hear.

Questions.
(a) Whom did the piper see in a cloud?
(b) What did the child ask the piper to do?
(c) When did the piper pluck a hollow reed?
(d) What did the child do after singing?
Answer:
(a) The piper saw a child in a cloud.
(b) The child asked the piper to sing a song about a Lamb.
(c) The piper plucked a hollow reed after the boy had vanished.
(d) After singing, the child disappeared from the Piper’s sight.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.6

Question 1.
Find the absolute extrema of the following functions on the given closed interval.
(i) f(x) = x³ – 12x + 10; [1, 2]
(ii) f(x) = 3x⁴ – 4x³ ; [-1, 2]

Solution:

∴ Absolute maximum is – 1 and absolute minimum is – 6

(ii) f(x) = 3x⁴ – 4x³
f'(x) = 12x³ – 12x²
f'(x) = 0 ⇒ 12x²(x – 1) = 0
⇒ x = 0 or x = 1
[Here x = 0, 1 ∈ [-1, 2]]
Now f (-1) = 4
f(0) = 0
f(1) = -1
f(2) = 16
so absolute maximum = 16 and absolute minimum = -1

(iii)

(iv) f(x) = 2 cos x + sin 2x
f'(x) = -2 sin x + 2 cos 2x
f'(x) = 0 ⇒ cos 2x = sin x

Question 2.
Find the intervals of monotonicities and hence find the local extremum for the following functions

Solution:
(i) f(x) = 2x³ + 3x² – 12x
f'(x) = 6x² + 6x – 12
f'(x) = 0 ⇒ 6(x² + x – 2) = 0
(i.e.,) 6(x + 2)(x – 1) = 0
⇒ x = -2 or 1
Taking the points in the number line

The intervals are (-∞, -2), (-2, 1), (1, ∞)
when x ∈ (-∞, -2), f'(x) = 6 (-1) (-4) = +ve
say x = – 3
⇒ f(x) is strictly increasing in the interval (-∞, -2) when x ∈ (-2, 1), f’ (x) = 6 (2) (-1) = -ve
say x = 0
⇒ f(x) is strictly decreasing in the interval (-2, 1)
when x ∈ (1, ∞), f'(x) = 6 (4) (+1) = + ve say x = 2
⇒ f(x) is strictly increasing in (1, ∞)
Since f(x) changes from +ve to – ve when passing through -2, the first derivative, test tells us there is a local maximum at x = -2 and the local maximum value is f(-2) = 20.
Again f'(x) changes from – ve to +ve when passing through 1 ⇒ there is a local minimum at x = 1 and the local minimum value is f( 1) = -7. So (1 )f(x) is strictly increasing on (-∞, -2) and (1, ∞). And (2)f(x) is strictly decreasing on (-2, 1)
The local maximum = 20 and the local minimum = -7

f(x) is strictly decreasing on (-∞, 5) and (5, ∞)
And there is no local extremum
(iii)

For all x values, so f(x) is strictly increasing in (-∞, ∞) and there is no local extremum.

⇒ f(x) is strictly decreasing in (0, 1)

say x = 2
⇒ f(x) is strictly increasing in (1, ∞)
since f'(x) changes from -ve to +ve at x = 1, there is a local minimum at x = 1 and the local minimum values is f(1) = \(\frac{1}{3}-0=\frac{1}{3}\)
So the function is strictly decreasing on (0, 1) and strictly increasing on (1, ∞) and the local minimum value is \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(v)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.6 Additional Problems

Find the absolute maximum and absolute minimum values of f on the given interval.

Question 1.
f(x) = 1 – 2x – x², [-4, 1]
Solution:
f(x) = 1 – 2x – x²
f'(x) = -2 – 2x
f'(x) = 0 ⇒ 2x = -2 ⇒ x = -1; The points are -4, -1, 1
At x = -4, f(x) = 1 – 2(-4) – (-4)² = 1 + 8 – 16 = -7
At x = -1, f(x) = 1 – 2 (-1) – (-1)² = 1 + 2 – 1 = 2
At x = 1, f(x) = 1 – 2 (1) – (1)² = 1 – 2 – 1 = – 2
Therefore, the absolute minimum is -7 and the absolute maximum is 2.

Question 2.
f(x) = x³ – 12x + 1, [-3, 5]
Solution:
f(x) = x³ – 12x + 1
f'(x) = 3x² – 12
f'(x) = 0 ⇒ 3x² – 12 = 0
3x² = 12 ⇒ x² = 4 ⇒ x = ±2
The x values are -3, -2, 2, 5
f(x) (at x = -3) = (-3)³ – 12 (-3) + 1 = -27 + 36 + 1 = 10
f(x) (at x = -2) = (-2)³ – (12)(-2) + 1 = -8 + 24 + 1 = 17
f(x) (at x = 2) = 2³ – 12 (2) + 1 = 8 – 24 + 1 = -15
f(x) (at x = 5) = 53 – 12 (5) + 1 = 125 – 60 + 1 = 66
From the above four values 10,17,-15 and 66, we see that absolute maximum is 66 and the absolute minimum is -15.

Question 3.

Solution:

So, the absolute maximum is \(\frac{2}{3}\) and the absolute minimum is \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 4.
f(x) = sin x + cos x, [0, π/3]
f'(x) = sin x + cos x
f'(x) = cos x – sin x
f’ (x) = 0 ⇒ cos x – sin x = 0

Question 5.
f(x) = x – 2 cos x, [-π, π]
Solution:
f(x) = x – 2 cos x
f'(x) = 1 + 2 sin x
f'(x) = 0 ⇒ 1 + 2 sin x = 0

From the above values, absolute maximum is π + 2 and the absolute minimum is \(\frac{-\pi}{6}-\sqrt{3}\)

From the local maximum and minimum values of the following functions.

Question 6.
2x³ + 5 x² – 4x
Solution:

Local maximum = 12

Question 7.
t + cos t
Solution:

t = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is neither a maximum point nor a minimum point. So there is no maximum or minimum.

Read More:

Gift Nifty Time

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 2 An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 2 An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer:

Question 1.
DTP stands for ………………………..
(a) Desktop Publishing
(b) Desktop Publication
(c) Doctor To Patient
(d) Desktop Printer
Answer:
(a) Desktop Publishing

Question 2.
……………………….. is a DTP software.
(a) Lotus 1-2-3
(b) PageMaker
(c) Doctor To Patient
(d) Lotus 1-2-3
Answer:
(b) PageMaker

Question 3.
Which menu contains the New option?
Answer:
(a) File menu
(b) Edit menu
(c) Layout menu
(d) Type menu
Answer:
(a) File menu

Question 4.
In PageMaker Window, the area outside of the dark border is referred to as ……………………………
(a) page
(b) pasteboard
(c) blackboard
(d) dashboard
Answer:
(b) pasteboard

Question 5.
Shortcut to close a document in PageMaker is ……………………………
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + W
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + W

Question 6.
A …………………………… tool is used for magnifying the particular portion of the area.
(a) Text tool
(b) Line tool
(c) Zoom tool
(d) Hand tool
Answer:
(c) Zoom tool

Question 7.
…………………………… tool is used for drawing boxes.
(a) Line
(b) Ellipse
(c) Rectangle
(d) Text
Answer:
(c) Rectangle

Question 8.
Place option is present in …………………………… menu.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Layout
(d) Window
Answer:
(a) File

Question 9.
To select an entire document using the keyboard, press ……………………………
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + D
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + A

Question 10.
Character formatting consists of which of the following text properties?
(a) Bold
(b) Italic
(c) Underline
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 11.
Which tool lets you edit text?
(a) Text tool
(b) Type tool
(c) Crop tool
(d) Hand tool
Answer:
(a) Text tool

Question 12.
Shortcut to print a document in Pagemaker is ……………………………
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + P
(c) Ctrl + C
(d) Ctrl + V
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + P

Question 13.
Adobe PageMaker is a …………………………… software.
Answer:
Page layout

Question 14.
…………………………… Bar is the topmost part of the PageMaker window.
Answer:
TItle

Question 15.
…………………………… is the process of moving up and down or left: and right through the document window.
Answer:
Scrolling

Question 16.
…………………………… tool is used to draw a circle.
Answer:
Ellipse

Question 17.
The Insert pages option is available on clicking the …………………………… menu.
Answer:
Layout

Question 18.
Match the following.
(a) Cut – (i) Ctrl + Z
(b) Copy – (ii) Ctrl + V
(c) Paste – (iii) Ctrl + X
(d) Undo – (iv) Ctrl + C
Answer:
(iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

Question 19.
Choose the odd man out.
(i) Adobe PageMaker, QuarkXPress, Adobe InDesign, Audacity
(ii) File, Edit, Layout, Type, Zip
(iii) Pointer Tool, Line tool, Hide Tool, Hand Tool
(iv) Bold, Italic, Portrait, Underline
Answer:
(i) Audacity, (ii) Zip, (iii) Hide Tool, (iv) Potrait

Question 20.
Choose the correct statement.
(i) (a) Text can be selected using mouse only.
(b) Text can be selected using mouse or the keyboard.
(ii) (a) DTP is an abbreviation for Desktop publishing.
(b) DTP is an abbreviation for Desktop publication.
Answer:
(i) (b) & (ii) (a)

Question 21.
Choose the correct pair.
Answer:
(a) Edit and Cut
(b) Edit and New
(c) Undo and Copy
(d) Undo and Redo
Answer:
(d) Undo and Redo

PART – II
II. Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is desktop publishing?
Answer:
Desktop publishing (abbreviated DTP) is the creation of page layouts for documents using DTP software.

Question 2.
Give some examples of DTP software?
Answer:
Some of the popular DTP software are Adobe PageMaker, Adobe InDesign, QuarkXPress, etc.

Question 3.
Write the steps to open PageMaker?
Answer:
In the Windows 7 operating system, we can open Adobe PageMaker using the command sequence Start →All Programs → Adobe → Pagemaker 7.0 → Adobe PageMaker 7.0.

Question 4.
How do you create a New document in PageMaker?
Answer:
To create a new document

1. Choose File > New in the menu bar. (or) Press Ctrl + N in the keyboard. Now Document Setup dialog box appears.
2. Enter the appropriate settings for your new document in the Document Setup dialog box.
3. Click on OK.

Question 5.
What is a Pasteboard in PageMaker?
Answer:
A document page is displayed within a dark border. The area outside of the dark border is referred to as the pasteboard. Anything that is placed completely in the pasteboard is not visible when you print the document.

Question 6.
Write about the Menu bar of PageMaker?
Answer:
Below the title bar is the Menu bar. It contains the following menus File, Edit, Layout, Type, Element, Utilities, View, Window, Help. When you click on a menu item, a pulldown menu appears.

Question 7.
Differentiate Ellipse tool from Ellipse frame tool?
Answer:
Ellipse tool:
Used to draw circles and ellipses.
Ellipse frame tool:
Used to create elliptical placeholders for text and graphics.

Question 8.
What is text editing?
Answer:
Editing meAnswer:Answer:Answer:Answer:making changes to the text. Editing encompasses many tasks, such as inserting and deleting words and phrases, correcting errors, and moving and copying text to different pfaces in the document.

Question 9.
What is text block?
Answer:
A text block contains text you type, paste, or import. You can’t see the borders of a text block until you select it with the pointer tool.

Question 10.
What is threading text blocks?
Answer:
All text in PageMaker resides inside containers called text blocks. A Text block can be connected to other text block so that the text in one text block can flow into another text block. Text blocks that are connected in this way are threaded.

Question 11.
What is threading text?
Answer:
A Text block can be connected to other text block so that the text in one text block can flow into another text block. Text blocks that are connected in this way are threaded. The process of connecting text among Text blocks is called threading text.

Question 12.
How do you insert a page in PageMaker?
Answer:

1. Go to the page immediately before the page you want to insert.
2. Choose Layout > Insert Pages in the menu bar. The Insert Pages dialog box appears.
3. Type the number of pages you want to insert.
4. To insert pages after the current page, choose ‘after’ from the pop-up menu.
5. Click on Insert.
6. The new pages are inserted in your publication.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer:

Question 1.
What is PageMaker? Explain its uses?
Answer:
Adobe PageMaker is a page layout software. It is used to design and produce documents that can be printed. You can create anything from a simple business card to a large book.
Page layout software includes tools that allow you to easily position text and graphics on document pages. For example, using PageMaker, you could create a newsletter that includes articles and pictures on each page. You can place pictures and text next to each other, on top of each other, or beside each other wherever you want them to go.

Question 2.
Mention three tools in PageMaker and write their keyboard shortcuts?
Answer:
Tools:

1. Printer Tool
2. Rotating Tool
3. Line Tool

Keyboard Short Cut:

1. F9
2. Shift + F2
3. Shift + F3

Question 3.
Write the use of any three tools in PageMaker along with symbols?
Answer:

Question 4.
How do you rejoin split blocks?
Answer:
Rbjoining split blocks
To rejoin the two text blocks

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle of the second text.block, click and drag the bottom handle up to the top.
2. Then place the cursor on the bottom handle of the first text block, and click and drag the bottom handle down if necessary.

Question 5.
How do you link frames containing text?
Answer:
Linking Frames containing Text
A single frame may not be large enough to hold an entire story when you are using a large amount of text, you can link frames together so that an entire story is visible.
To link Frames containing text

1. Draw a second frame With the Frame tool of your choice.
2. Click the first frame to select it.
3. Click on the red triangle to load the text icon.
4. Click the second frame. PageMaker flows the text into the second frame.

Question 6.
What is the use of Master Page?
Answer:
Any text or object that you place on the master page will appear on the entire document pages to which the master is applied. It shortens the amount of time because you don’t have to create the same objects repeatedly on subsequent pages. Master Pages commonly contain repeating logos, page numbers, headers, and footers. They also contain non printing layout guides, such as column guides, ruler guides, and margin guides.

Question 7.
How to you insert page numbers in Master pages?
Answer:
Inserting Page Numbers in Master Pages
To make page numbers appear on every page

1. Click on Master Pages icon.
2. Then click on Text Tool. Now the cursor changes to I – beam.
3. Then Click on the left Master page where you want to put the page number.
4. Press Ctrl + Alt + P.
5. The page number displays as ‘LM’ on the left master page.
6. Similarly click on the right Master page where you want to put the page number.
7. O Press Ctrl + Alt + P.
8. The page number displays as ‘RM’ on the right master page, but will appear correctly on the actual pages.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the tools in PageMaker toolbox?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write the steps to place the text in a frame?
Answer:
Placing Text in a Frame
You can also use frames to hold text in place of using text blocks.
To place text in a Frame

1. Click on one of a Frame tool from the Toolbox.
2. Draw a frame with one of PageMaker’s Frame tools (Rectangle frame tool or Ellipse Frame Tool or Polygon frame Tool). Make sure the object remains selected.
3. Click on File. The File menu will appear.
4. Click on Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
5. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place, select it.
6. Click on Open.
7. Click in a frame to place the text in it. The text will be placed in the frame.

Question 3.
How can you convert text in a text block to a frame?
Answer:
Converting text in a Text block to a Frame
After created text in a text block, if you want to convert it to a frame. You can do this by using these steps.

1. Draw the frame of your choice using one of the PageMaker’s Frame tool.
2. Select the text block you want to insert in the frame.
3. Click the frame while pressing the Shift key. Now both elements will be selected.
4. Choose Element > Frame > Attach Content on the Menu bar.
5. Now the text appears in the frame.

Question 4.
Write the steps to draw a star using polygon tool?
Answer:
Drawing a Star using Polygon tool
To draw a Star
(i) Click on the Polygon tool from the toolbox.
The cursor changes to a crosshair.

(ii) Click and drag anywhere on the screen. As you drag, a Polygon appears.

(iii) Release the mouse button when the Polygon is of the desired size.

(iv) Choose Element > Polygon Settings in the menu bar.
Now Polygon Settings dialogue box appears.

(v) Type 5 in the Number of sides text box.

(vi) Type 50% in Star inset textbox.

(vii) Click OK. Now the required star appears on the screen.

Drawing a star with given number of sides and required inset
1. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 50%. The number of sides is 15.

2. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 25%. The number of sides is 25.

3. The value of ‘Star inset’ is 35%. The number of sides is 70.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications An Introduction to Adobe Pagemaker Additional Question and Answers

I. Choose the Best Answer:

Question 1.
How will you get Document setup dialog box?
(a) Document → setup
(b) File → New
(c) File → Document
(d) File → setup
Answer:
(b) File → New

Question 2.
…………………………. is the shortcut key to create a new document.
Answer:
Ctrl + N

Question 3.
………………………… is used to temporarily hold elements while designing.
Answer:
Pasteboard

Question 4.
How many control buttons are present in the title bar?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 5.
The default name of the new document created is …………………………..
(a) untitled 1
(b) doc 1
(c) default 1
(d) untitled
Answer:
(a) untitled 1

Question 6.
When you move the mouse pointer on a button in the toolbar, a short text that appears is called ……………………………..
(a) Tool tip
(b) Text
(c) Show text
(d) Short text
Answer:
(a) Tool tip

Question 7.
Match the following.
(i) polygon – (a) Shift + alt + F4
(ii) cropping – (b) Shift + F6
(iii) constrained line – (c) Shift + alt + F2
(iv) Rectangle Frame – (d) Shift + alt + F4
(a) (i)-(a) (ii)-(b) (iii)-(c) (iv)-(d)
(b) (i)-(d) (;ii)-(b) (iii)-(c) (z’v)-(a)
(c) (z’)-(c) (ii)-(b) (iii)-(d) (iv)-(a)
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)
Answer:
(d) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

Question 8.
……………………. is the shortcut for the pointer tool.
Answer:
F9

Question 9.
Choose the correct pair.
(a) Zoom tool

(b) Polygon

(c) Ellipse

(d) line

Answer:
(a) Zoom tool

Question 10.
……………………….. tool is used to trim imported graphics.
(a) Text
(b) Rotating
(c) Trim
(d) Crop
Answer:
(d) Crop

Question 11.
How many scroll bars are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 12.
How many ruler bars are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 13.
The rulers are present at the ………………….. and …………………
(a) top, right
(b) right, left
(c) top, left
(d) bottom, top
Answer:
(c) top, left

Question 14.
…………………………. tool is used for creating text blocks.
(a) Block
(b) Text
(c) Footer
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(b) Text

Question 15.
The flashing verticle bar is called ……………………………
(a) sroll bar
(b) ruler
(c) Footer
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(d) Insertion point

Question 16.
Which key should be pressed at the end of the paragraph or when a blank line is to be inserted?
(a) Enter
(b) Tab
(c) Spacebar
(d) esc
Answer:
(a) Enter

Question 17.
Choose the correct statement.
(i) double click with I-beam to select a word.
(ii) double click with I beam to select a paragraph
Answer:
(i) double click with I-beam to select a word.

Question 18.
Which key is used to select the text with keyboard?
(a) Ctrl
(b) alt
(c) shift
(d) ctrl+tab
Answer:
(c) shift

Question 19.
Identify the statement which is wrong?
(a) One line down – alt + ↓
(b) Beginning of current line – shift + home
(c) One character to the left – shift + ←
Answer:
(a) One line down – alt + ↓

Question 20.
Which key deletes the character to the left?
(a) Delete
(b) Backspace
(c) Remove
(d) Escape
Answer:
(a) Delete

Question 21.
To delete the characters to the right of the insertion point, key is used.
(a) delete
(b) backspace
(c) alt
(d) ctrl
Answer:
(b) backspace

Question 22.
To delete a block of text, press
(a) delete
(b) Backspace
(c) Edit → clear
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 23.
Undo option is present in ………………………….. menu.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Help
(d) Insert
Answer:
(b) Edit

Question 24.
Which command is not present in the Edit menu?
(a) Cut
(b) Paste
(c) Copy
(d) place
Answer:
(d) place

Question 25.
How many methods of creating text blocks are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 26.
While selecting a text block with the pointer tool, there will be a dark ……………………….. on both ends of the handle.
(a) rectangle
(b) circle
(c) square
(d) polygon
Answer:
(c) square

Question 27.
A red triangle in the bottom window shade meAnswer:Answer:Answer:Answer:…………………………..
(a) there is more text in the text block
(b) there is no text in the text block
(c) text block is deleted
(d) new text block appears
Answer:
(a) there is more text in the text block

Question 28.
Rearrange the sentences
(i) It has squiggly arrow
(ii) place the loaded text icon, click then page will automatically flow
(iii) Select Layout → Autoflow
(iv) Import the text
(a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
(d) (iv), (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)

Question 29.
Text that flows through one or more threaded blocks is
(a) blocks
(b) story
(c) thread
(d) unthread
Answer:
(b) story

Question 30.
A threaded block is identified by …………………….. sign in the handles.
(a) +
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer:
(a) +

Question 31.
In page maker, text and graphics that you draw or import are called ……………………………
(a) event
(b) handle
(c) tool
(d) objects
Answer:
(d) objects

Question 32.
Choose the wrong statement.
(a) An object can be on a page
(b) An object can be on the pasteboard
(c) An object cannot be on the pasteboard
(d) An object can be on a page or pasteboard
Answer:
(c) An object cannot be on the pasteboard

Question 33.
Which command is used to convert text into frame?
(a) Element → Frame → Attach Content
(b) Element → Frame → add content
(c) Add → Frame
(d) Add → content
Answer:
(a) Element → Frame → Attach Content

Question 34.
Which dialog box appears when File → Save command is given?
(a) Save
(b) Save as
(c) Save page
(d) Save publication
Answer:
(d) Save publication

Question 35.
Instead of File → Save as, we can use the shortcut key
(a) Ctrl + S
(b) alt + S
(c) shift + alt + S
(d) Ctrl + shift + S
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + shift + S

Question 36.
How will you get open publication dialog box?
(a) Ctrl + O
(b) Alt + O
(c) Shift + 0
(d) Shift + O + P
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + O

Question 37.
Find the wrong pair?
(a) Beginning of line – Home
(b) End of line – end
(c) One character to left-left arrow
(d) Up one line – Ctrl + up arrow
Answer:
(d) Up one line – Ctrl + up arrow

Question 38.
To toggle between magnification and reduction, press …………………………………. key.
(a) alt
(b) Ctrl
(c) shift
(d) esc
Answer:
(b) Ctrl

Question 39.
Find the wrong statement.
(a) Press Ctrl + spacebar to zoom in
(b) Press alt + spacebar to zoom out
(c) Press alt + Ctrl + spacebar to zoom out
Answer:
(b) Press alt + spacebar to zoom out

Question 40.
………………………… is the process of changing the general arrangement of text
(a) Text
(b) Alignment
(c) Formatting
(d) Editing
Answer:
(c) Formatting

Question 41.
To apply character formatting
(i) choose type → character
(ii) choose format → character
(iii) press Ctrl → T
(iv) Open character specification dialog box
(a) (i), (iv) are wrong
(b) (i), (iii) are wrong
(c) (ii) is wrong
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) (ii) is wrong

Question 42.
How will you get control palette?
(a) alt + ’
(b) shift + ’
(c) esc
(d) Ctrl + ’
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + ’

Question 43.
How many line tools are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 44.
When a line tool is selected to draw a line, cursor becomes …………………………..
(a) +
(b) –
(c) double arrow
(d) cross hair
Answer:
(d) cross hair

Question 45.
Find the false statement.
(a) Custom Stroke dialog box is used to draw dotted line.
(b) Rounded comers dialog box is used to draw rounded comer rectangle.
(c) Both are correct.
Answer:
(c) Both are correct.

Question 46.
The constrained line tool draws line only at the increments of ………………………. degrees.
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 60
(d) 90
Answer:
(b) 45

Question 47.
Press the ………………………….. key while you are drawing to constrain the shape to a square or circle.
(a) alt
(b) shift
(c) del
(d) Ctrl
Answer:
(b) shift

Question 48.
Which menu has polygon settings options?
(a) Tools
(b) Layout
(c) Element
(d) Place
Answer:
(c) Element

Question 49.
To get color palette, press
(a) shift + J
(b) alt + J
(c) del + J
(d) Ctrl + J
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + J

Question 50.
Press alt + Ctrl + G to open go to page dialog box.
(a) true
(b) false
Answer:
(a) true

Question 51.
What are the two letters associated with master page option?
(a) L and R
(b) S R
(c) RT
(d) TB
Answer:
(a) L and R

Question 52.
By default, all the page maker document have a master page already created
(a) Master page
(b) Document Master
(c) Document Page
(d) Page Master
Answer:
(b) Document Master

Question 53.
Find the correct statement. .
(а) A master item can be selected on a document page.
(b) A master item cannot be selected on a document page.
Answer:
(b) A master item cannot be selected on a document page.

Question 54.
A sign or special character that can be inserted in the page maker document is on ………………………
(a) Symbol
(b) Menu
(c) Formula
(d) Sign
Answer:
(a) Symbol

Question 55.
…………………………. is the text that is repeated at the top of each page.
Answer:
Header

Question 56.
A ……………………………. is a set of letters, numbers or symbols in a certain style.
Answer:
Font

Question 57.
When the publication has reached its maximum magnification or reduction level, center becomes …………………………………
Answer:
Blank

Question 58.
To Scroll a relative distance …………………………… is used.
Answer:
Scroll box

Question 59.
To down one paragraph, …………………………. is used.
Answer:
ctrl+down arrow

Question 60.
……………………….. can be contained in text blocks or text frames.
Answer:
Text

Question 61.
Press ………………………….. for rotating tool.
Answer:
Shift+F2

II. Short Answer:

Question 1.
When will you get the cursor like this Find the name of the tool & write its uses.?
Answer:
It is hand tool which is used to scroll the page (an alternative to the scroll bar).

Question 2.
Write note on scroll bars?
Answer:
Scrolling is the process of moving up and down or left and right through the document window. There are two scroll bars namely Vertical and Horizontal scroll bars for scrolling the document vertically or horizontally.

Question 3.
What is meant by wrapping the text?
Answer:
When the text being typed reaches the end of the text block, PageMaker will automatically wrap the text to the next line.

Question 4.
What is the use of enter key?
Answer:
The Enter key should be pressed only at the end of a paragraph or when a blank line is to be inserted.

Question 5.
How will you select the word and a paragraph?
Answer:
To select:

1. A word
2. A paragraph

Press:

1. Double click with I – beam
2. Triple click with I – beam

Question 6.
Name the tools where you get cursor with *+’ symbol?
Answer:
Line tool, Constrained line tool, Rectangle tool, Rectangle frame tool, Ellipse tool, Ellipse frame tool, Polygon tool, and Polygon frame tool.
A Paragraph Triple-click with I-beam

Question 7.
What are the two ways of creating text blocks?
Answer:

1. Click or drag the text tool on the page or pasteboard, and then type
2. Click a loaded text icon in an empty column or page.

Question 8.
Define Windowshades?
Answer:
When you select a text block with the Pointer tool, the block’s boundaries become visible. Two handles are seen above and below the text block. These handles are called Windowshades.

Question 9.
How will you separate the text from the frame?
Answer:
To separate text from a frame

1. Click the frame with the Pointer tool.
2. Choose Element > Frame > Delete Content in the menu bar. The text will not appear in the frame.

Question 10.
Define font?
Answer:
A font is a set of letters, numbers or symbols in a certain style. Each font looks different from other fonts.

Question 11.
What are the two line tools in page maker?
Answer:
PageMaker has two Line tools. The first one creates a straight line at any orientation. The second is a constrained Line tool that draws only at increments of 45 degrees.

Question 12.
How will you change text colors in page maker?
Answer:
To color characters

1. Select the text you want to colour.
2. Choose Window > Show Colors in Menu bar. The Colors palette appears. Click the color you want to apply to the selected text.

Question 13.
Name any 4 options from the layout menu?
Answer:

1. Go to pages
2. Insert pages
3. Remove pages
4. Sort pages

Question 3.
How wOl you Show / hide the rulers?
Answer:
To show the ruler

1. Click on View. The View menu will appear.
2. Click on Show Rulers. Rulers appear along the top and left sides of the document window. To hide the ruler
3. Click on View. The View menu will appear.
4. Click on Hide Rulers to hide the rulers.

Question 4.
Differentiate moving and copying text?
Answer:
The Copy and Paste commands of PageMaker can be used to copy text from one location in a document and paste it at another location. The Copy command creates a duplicate of the selected text, leaving the original text unchanged. The Paste command pastes the copied text at the position where the insertion point is placed. The Cut and Paste commands can be used to move text from one position in a document to the other. The Cut command deletes the selected text from its original position. The Paste command then places this text at the position where the insertion point is placed.

Question 5.
How will you create a text block with text tool?
Answer:
To create a text block with the text tool:
(i) Select the text tool (T) from the toolbox. The pointer turns into an I-beam.

(ii) On an empty area of the page or pasteboard, do one of the following:
Click the I-beam where you want to insert text. This creates a text block the width of the column or page. By default, the insertion point jumps to the left side of the text block.

(iii) Type the text you want.
Unlike with a text frame, you do not see the borders of a text block until you click the text with the pointer tool.

Question 6.
How will you Split a text block into two?
Answer:
To split a text block into two

1. Place the cursor on the bottom handle, click and drag upwards. When you release the bottom handle will contain a red triangle.
2. Click once on this, and the cursor changes to a loaded text icon.

Question 7.
How will you save a document with a new name or in a different location?
Answer:
To save a document with a new name or in a different location:

1. Choose File > Save As in the menu bar.
2. Press Shift + Ctrl + S in the keyboard.

Now Save Publication dialog box will appear:

1. Type a new name or specify a new location.
2. Click the Save button.

Question 8.
Give the functions of those keys give below?
Answer:

1. Left arrow
2. right arrow
3. Ctrl + left arrow
4. Ctrl + right arrow
5. up arrow
6. down arrow

Press:

1. Left Arrow
2. Right Arrow
3. Ctrl + Left Arrow
4. Ctrl + Right Arrow
5. Up Arrow
6. Down Arrow

Move:

1. One character to the left
2. One character to the right
3. One word to the left
4. One word to the right
5. Up one line
6. Down one line

Question 9.
How will you go to a specific page? (or) what are the 3 methods to go to a particular page?
Answer:
Pagemaker provides several methods for navigating the pages in your publication.
Method 1:
You can move from one page to another by using the Page up and Page down keys on your keyboard.

Method 2:
You can move from one page to another by using the page icons at the left bottom of the screen.

Method 3:
Using the Go to Page dialog box.

IV. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the different ways of selecting the text?
Answer:
Selecting Text:
Text can be selected using the mouse or the keyboard.
Selecting Text using the mouse:
To select text using a mouse, follow these steps :

1. Place the Insertion point to the left of the first character to be selected.
2. Press the left mouse button and drag the mouse to a position where you want to stop selecting.
3. Release the mouse button.
4. The selected text gets highlighted.

To Select Press:

1. A Word Double-click with I-beam
2. A Paragraph Triple-click with I-beam

Selecting Text using the Keyboard:
To select text using a keyboard, follow these steps :

1. Place the Insertion point to the left of the first character you wish to select.
2. The Shift key is pressed down and the movement keys are used to highlight the required text.
3. When the Shift key is released, the text is selected.

To Select – Press
One character to the left – Shift + ←
One character to the right – Shift + →
One line up – Shift + ↑
One line down – Shift + ↓
To the end of the current line – Shift +End
To the beginning of the current line – Shift + Home,
Entire Document – Ctrl + A

Question 2.
How will import (place) the text from other software programs in the page maker?
Answer:
You can insert text from other software program like MS-Word in the PageMaker documents.

1. Choose File > Place. The Place dialog box will appear.
2. Locate the document that contains the text you want to place and select it.
3. Click on Open in the Place dialog box. The pointer changes to the loaded text icon ( )
4. Make a text block to place the text. (Or) Click in the page to place the text.

The text will be placed in the page.
If the text to be placed is too big to fit on one page, PageMaker allows you to place it on several pages. This can be done manually or automatically.

Manual text flow:

1. Position the loaded text icon at a comer of the area where you want to place text, hold down the mouse button, and drag to define the text block. Release the mouse button.

2. Text flows into the defined area. If there is more text than fits in the text block you defined, a red triangle appears in the bottom windowshade handle.

3. Click once on this and the loaded text icon reappears. Now generate a new text block and # click. Repeat this process until there is no more text to place.

Question 3.
Explain how will you draw a rounded corner rectangle?
Answer:
Drawing a Rounded Corner Rectangle
To draw a rounded-comer rectangle:

1. Double-click the Rectangle tool in the toolbox.
2. The Rounded Comers dialog box appears.
3. Choose a comer setting from the preset shapes.
4. Click on OK. The cursor changes to a cross hair.
5. Click and drag anywhere on the screen.
6. Release the mouse button when the rectangle is the desired size.
7. Press the Shift key as you draw to constrain the shape to a rounded-comer square.

Question 4.
Explain how will you draw a dotted line?
Answer:
To draw a Dotted line:

1. Double click the Line tool from the toolbox. A Custom Stroke dialogue box appears.
2. Select the required Stroke style in the drop-down list box.
3. Then click OK button. Now the cursor changes to a cross hair.
4. Click and drag on the screen to draw your dotted line. As you drag, the line appears.
5. Release the mouse button and the line will be drawn and selected, with sizing handles on either end.
   Resize the line by clicking and dragging the handles, if necessary.

Question 5.
Explain how will you print a document in the page maker?
Answer:
Print a document:

(i) Choose File > Print in the menu bar (or) Press Ctrl + P in the keyboard. The Print Document dialog box appears
(ii) Choose the settings in the Print Document dialog box as

• Select the printer from the Printer drop-down list box.
• Choose the pages to be printed in the Pages group box by selecting one of the following available options:

All:
This option prints the whole document.

Ranges:
This option prints individual pages by the page number or a range of pages.
You can use commas to separate the page numbers (e.g., 5,7,19).
Use a hyphen to print page ranges(e.g., 10-17; this will print all pages from page numbers 10 . to 17).
To print from a particular page to the end of the document, enter the starting page number followed by a hyphen (e.g., 5 -).
You may also combine individual page numbers and a range of pages (e.g., 5, 9, 15-26).
Print: You can also print only odd-numbered or even-numbered pages. Select the Odd pages or Even pages Option from the Print drop-down list box.

• Type the number of copies you want in the Copies text box.
• You can choose whether to collate the pages or not. Suppose you want to print 4 copies of a 5 pages document

If the Collate option is not selected. PageMaker will first print 4 copies of page 1, then 4 copies of page 2, and so on.
If the Collate option is selected, PageMaker will print a complete set of pages 1 to 5, then a second set, and so on.

(iii) After choosing from the options in the Print Document dialog box, click Print button to print the document. Make sure the printer is switched on.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 14 Open Source Concepts Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 14 Open Source Concepts

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Open Source Concepts Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
If the source code of a software is freely accessible by the public, then it is known as
(a) freeware
(b) Firmware
(c) Open source
(d) Public source
Answer:
(c) Open source

Question 2.
Which of the following is a software program that replicates the functioning of a computer network?
(a) Network software
(b) Network simulation
(c) Network testing
(d) Network calculator
Answer:
(b) Network simulation

Question 3.
Which of the following can document every incident that happened in the simulation and are used for examination?
(a) Net Exam
(b) Network hardware
(c) Trace file
(d) Net document
Answer:
(c) Trace file

Question 4.
Which is an example of network simulator?
(a) simulator
(b) TCL
(c) Ns2
(d) C++
Answer:
(c) Ns2

Question 5.
Fill in the blanks : NS2 comprises of ………………………… key languages?
(a) 13
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 2

Question 6.
Choose the Correct Pair from the following to build NS2
(a) UNIX & TCL
(b) UNIX & a. C++
(c) C++ & OTcl
(d) C++ & NS2
Answer:
(c) C++ & OTcl

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a network simulation software?
(a) Ns2
(b) OPNET
(c) SSFNet
(d) C++
Answer:
(b) OPNET

Question 8.
Which of the following is a open source network monitoring software?
(a) C++
(b) OPNET
(c) OpenNMS
(d) OMNet++
Answer:
(c) OpenNMS

Question 9.
Upen NMS was released in
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2003
(d) 2004
Answer:
(a) 1999

Question 10.
OpenNMS Group was created by ……………………….
(a) Balog
(b) Matt Brozowski
(c) David Hustace
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Explain the History of open source software?
History of open source software:
Answer:

1. In the early day of computing, programmers and developers shared software in order to learn from each other
2. Eventually, it moved to the way side of commercialization of software in 1970-1980
3. The Netscape communication corporation released their popular Netscape Communicator Internet Suite as free software. This made others to look into how to bring the free software ideas.
4. The Open Source Initiative was founded in Feb 1998 to encourage use of the new term open- source.

Question 2.
What is meant by network simulator?
Answer:
A network simulator is a software program that replicates the functioning of a computer network. In simulators, the computer network is typically demonstrated with devices, traffic etc.

Question 3.
What is trace file?
Answer:
A significant output of simulation is the trace files. Trace files can document every incident that happened in the simulation and are used for examination.
C++ and Object-oriented Tool Command Language (OTCL) and network monitoring.

Question 4.
Write short notes on NS2?
Answer:
NS2 is the abbreviation of NETWORK SIMULATOR version 2. It was considered explicitly for exploration in network communication and event-driven open-source simulator in computer.

Question 5.
Explain NRCFOSS?
Answer:
NRCFOSS:
National Resource Centre for Free and Open Source Software an Institution of Government of India. To help in development of FOSS in India.

Question 6.
Write short note on Open NMS?
Answer:
There are two types in this Meridian and Horizon.
Meridian:
When we need stability and long term support choose Meridian which is best for Enterprises as well as businesses.

Horizon:
Horizon used where innovation occurs frequently. It is Best for IT-ecosystem, new technologies monitoring.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
What are the uses of Open source Network Software?
Answer:

1. Software can be used without any cost and restrictions.
2. Sharing of ideas with the team.
3. User friendly.
4. We can add the most required features in the software.
5. We can learn many ideas.
6. We can make our program writing skills more efficient
7. We can use any software that suits our needs.

Question 2.
Explain Free software?
Answer:
Free software a concept developed in the 1980s by an MIT computer science researcher, Richard Stallman is defined by four conditions, as outlined by the nonprofit Free Software Foundation.

Question 3.
List out the Popular open source software?
Answer:
Application software:
NS2 , OPEN NMS, Ubuntu, MySQL, PDF Creator, Open Office, 7zip GNUCASH, GIMP, BLENDER, AUDACITY, VLC, MOZILA FIREFOX, MAGENTO, ANDROID, PHP.

Question 4.
Write note on open source hardware?
Answer:
Open source hardware technology helps in spy hardware threats. In this technique we get the components of the hardware and its circuit diagram, so that we can remove suspicious spyware if found.

Question 5.
What are the main functional areas of Open NMS?
Answer:

1. Service monitoring, where a number of monitor modules can govern if network-based services (ICMP, HTTP, DNS, etc.) are accessible.
2. Data Gathering by using SNMP and JMX.
3. Event management and notifications, which comprises of alarm reduction and a robust announcement system with accelerations and duty schedules.

Question 6.
Explain Types of Organisations related to Open Source?
Answer:
Organizations related to Open Source

1. Apache Software Foundation
2. The Document Foundation
3. The Eclipse Foundation
4. Free Software Foundation
5. Linux Foundation
6. Open Course Ware Consortium
7. Open Source Initiative

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Differentiate Proprietary and open source software?
Answer:
Proprietary Software:

1. It refers to the software that is solely owned by the individual or the organization that developed it.
2. Only the owner or publisher who holds the legal property rights of the source code can access it.
3. The project is managed by a closed group of individuals or team that developed it.
4. They are focused on a limited market of both skilled and unskilled end users.
5. There is a very limited scope of innovation with the restrictions and all.
6. Ex: Windows, MacOs, Google Earth

Open Source Software:

1. It refers to the software that is developed and tested through open collaboration.
2. Anyone with the academic knowledge can access, inspect, modify and redistribute the source code
3. The project is managed by an open source community of developers and programmers.
4. They are not aimed at unskilled users outside of the programming community.
5.  It provides flexibility Ex. Android, Firefox, Ubuntu
6. Ex: Android, Firefox, Ubuntu

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Open Source Concepts Additional Questions and Answers

1. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
……………………. is usually created and updated by many programmers around the world and made finely accessible
Answer:
Open Source Software

Question 2.
Proprietary Software is owned by an …………………………
(a) Organization
(b) Individual
(c) both a and b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 3.
……………………. helps the user and administrator easily find working status of network systems and hardware.
Answer:
Notification

Question 4.
NRCFOSS stands for …………………………
Answer:
National Resource CEnter Free and Center Free and Open Source Software

Question 5.
Pick the odd one out
(a) Apache Software Foundation
(b) The document Foundation
(c) The Eclipse Foundation
(d) The round Foundation
Answer:
(d) The round Foundation

Question 6.
BOSS stands for ………………………..
(a) Basic Output System Service
(b) Bharat Operating System Solution
(c) Basic Operating System Solutions
(d) Bug Operating System Server
Answer:
(b) Bharat Operating System Solution

Question 7.
BOSS developed by ……………………..
(a) A-DAC
(b) M-DAC
(c) D-MAC
(d) C-DAC
Answer:
(d) C-DAC

Question 8.
C-DAC is abbreviated as ………………………..
Answer:
Center for Development of Advanced Computing

Question 9.
How many Indian Languages are supported by BOSS?
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 10.
GPL means ……………………..
Answer:
General Public Licence

Question 11.
LGPL stands for ……………………..
Answer:
Lesser General Public License

Question 12.
The free software was developed in the year …………………….
(a) 1972
(b) 1978
(c) 1980
(d) 2003
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 13.
Who developed Free Software?
(a) Richard Stallman
(b) Robert John
(c) both a and b
(d) DanBricklin
Answer:
(a) Richard Stallman

Question 14.
How many freedoms or conditions are defined by Richard Stallman for free software foundation?
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 15.
Find the statement which is wrong about Freeware?
(a) proprietary software
(b) pay to download
(c) source code cannot be changed
Answer:
(b) pay to download

Question 16.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) communication tools
(b) Bug trackers
(c) task list
(d) MIT license
Answer:
(d) MIT license

Question 17.
Which one of the following is not a open source application software?
(a) Ns2
(b) MySQL
(c) Google Earth
(d) GIMP
Answer:
(c) Google Earth

Question 18.
Identify the Proprietary software from the following.
(a) ubuntu
(b) MacOs
(c) Android
(d) Open office
Answer:
(b) MacOs

Question 19.
Pick the odd one.
(a) routers
(b) nodes
(c) access points
(d) distributors
Answer:
(d) distributors

Question 20.
Match the following
(i) objects (network) – 1. Output of simulation
(ii) State of the network – 2. links
(iii) events – 3. node placement
(iv) Trace files – 4. link failures
(a) (i)-2 (ii)-3 (iii)-4 (iv)-1
(b) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-1 (iv)-2
(d) (i)-4 (ii)-2 (iii)-1 (iv)-3
Answer:
(a) (i)-2 (ii)-3 (iii)-4 (iv)-1

Question 21.
……………………… is a pure event base software tool with super simulation design.
Answer:
API

Question 22.
NMS stands for
(a) National Management Server
(b) Network Management Server
(c) Node Management Server
(d) Net Managing Simulator
Answer:
(b) Network Management Server

Question 23.
FCAPS means
(a) Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance, Security
(b) Foreign, Country, Access, Personal, Security .
(c) Future, Chennai, Access, Performance, Server
(d) Fault, Controlled, Audit, Poor, Source
Answer:
(a) Fault, Configuration, Accounting, Performance, Security

Question 24.
Open NMS is written in
(a) Html
(b) Java
(c) C++
(d) Oracle
Answer:
(b) Java

Question 25.
……………………….. is the world’s first software for Network Monitor and Management with Open Source options.
Answer:
Open NMS

Question 26.
How many types of Open NMS are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 27.
(I) Horizon is the Best fo IT-ecosystem
(II) Meridian gives long term support
(III) Meridian is used for new technology monitoring
(a) I is true, II-False
(b) II, III are true
(c) I, II are true
(d) I, II, III all are true
Answer:
(c) I, II are true

Question 28.
In 1999, Open NMS was released by
(a) Steve Giles
(b) Brian Weaver
(c) Luke Rindfuss
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 29.
In Open NMS, data Gathering is by using …………………… and ………………………
Answer:
SNMP, JMX

Question 30.
Which one of the following is not a enterprise management product.
(a) Open office
(b) HP open view
(c) IBM Micro Muse
(d) IBM Tivoli
Answer:
(a) Open office

Question 31.
OTcl means …………………….
Answer:
Object-oreinted Tool Commercial Language

Question 32.
NS2 means ……………………….
Answer:
Network Simulation 2

Question 33.
SSF Net means ……………………
Answer:
Scalable Simulation Framework Net Models.

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Give the advantages of proprietary software?
Answer:
The advantage of the proprietary software is that it gives more control, support, training, security and stability for user making the software reliable to the users.

Question 2.
Write note on BOSS?
Answer:
BOSS (Bharat Operating System Solutions) Operating System Developed in India by C-DAC (Centre for Development of Advanced Computing) Help to prompt the use of open source software in India. It Supports many India Language.

Question 3.
Mention some large enterprise management products?
Answer:
HP Open View, IBM Micro muse or IBM Tivoli.

Question 4.
What is the use of Network Software?
Answer:
To Control, Analysis the Server, System, protocol, Network, Traffic flow and reports about ups and downs of network parts.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write short note on open source software and developers?
Answer:
Open-Source Software and Developers:
OSS projects are collaboration opportunities that improve skills and build connections in the field. Domains that developers can contribute to the open source community include:

1. Communication tools.
2. Distributed revision control systems.
3. Bug trackers and task lists.
4. Testing and debugging tools.

Question 2.
What are the Demerits of Open Source Software?
Answer:
Difficult to work for beginners, Exchange of files to other software, Some time Lack of Responsibility, service and problems with hardware compatible.

Question 3.
Mention the features of Open Source Hardware?
Open Source Hardware
Answer:

1. Remix
2. Remake
3. Remanufacture
4. Redistribute
5. Resell
6. Study and Learn

Question 4.
List the various types of open NMS?
Answer:
There are two types in this Meridian and Horizon.
Meridian:
When we need stability and long term support choose Meridian which is best for Enterprises as well as businesses.

Horizon:
Horizon used where innovation occurs frequently. It is Best for IT-ecosystem, new technologies monitoring.

Question 5.
What is the goal of open NMS?
Answer:
The goal is for Open NMS to be an actually distributed, scalable management application platform for all features of the FCAPS (Fault, configuration, accounting, performance, security) network management model. Presently the emphasis is on Fault and Performance Management.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Differentiate Open Source Software with free software?
Answer:
Open-Source Software vs. Free Software:
Although the terms are often used interchangeably, OSS is slightly different from free software. Both deal with the ability to download and modify software without restriction or charge.

However, free software a concept developed in the 1980s by an MIT computer science researcher, Richard Stallman is defined by four conditions, as outlined by the nonprofit Free Software Foundation. These “four freedoms” emphasize the ability of users to use and enjoy software as they see fit.

In contrast, the OSS criteria, which the Open Source Initiative developed a decade later, place more emphasis on the modification of software, and the consequences of altering source code, licensing, and distribution.

Obviously, the two overlap; some would say the differences between OSS and free software are more philosophical than practical. However, neither should be confused with freeware. Freeware usually refers to proprietary software that users can download at no cost, but whose source code cannot be changed.

Question 2.
Explain Network Simulation Tool – NS2 in detail?
Answer:
Network simulation tool – NS2:

• In computer network, network simulation is a method whereby a software program , models the activities of a network by calculating the communication between the different
  network objects such as(routers, nodes, switches, access points, links etc.).
• A network simulator is a software program that replicates the functioning of a computer network.
• In simulators, the computer network is typically demonstrated with devices, traffic etc. and the performance are evaluated.
• Normally, users can then adapt the simulator to accomplish their precise analysis needs. The network parameters define the state of the network (node placement, existing links) and the events (data transmissions, link failures, etc.).
• A significant output of simulation is the trace files. Trace files can document every incident that happened in the simulation and are used for examination.
• NS2 is the abbreviation of NETWORK SIMULATOR version 2. It was considered explicitly for exploration in network communication and event-driven open-source simulator in computer.
• OTCL and C++ used to create and run NS2. NS2 works on Windows and Linux platforms, that supports wired or wireless network and also use the command line interface as a user interface, API a pure event base software tool with super simulation design, it has more models which help the user to get desired output easily.

Question 3.
Explain in Detail Open NMS?
Answer:
Open NMS

• Open NMS (Network Management System)is a free and open-source initiative grade network monitoring and management platform.
• It is established and maintained by a community of users,developers and by the Open NMS
  Group, it offering services, training and support.
• The goal is for Open NMS to be an actually distributed, scalable management application platform for all features of the FCAPS (Fault, configuration,accounting, performance,
  security) network management model.
• Presently the emphasis is on Fault and Performance Management.
  It was intended to cope tens of thousands of devices from a single server as well as achieve unlimited devices using a cluster of servers.
• Open NMS comprises a discovery engine to routinely configure and manage network devices without operator intervention.
• It is written in Java and is issued under the GNU (General Public License.)
• Open NMS is the Worlds first software for Network monitor and management with open source options. There are two types in this Meridian and Horizon.
• When we need stability and long term support choose Meridian which is best for Enterprises as well as businesses, for Horizon used where innovation occurs frequently. It is Best for IT-ecosystem,new
  technologies monitoring.

Open Source Hardware:

1. Remix
2. Remake
3. Remanufacture
4. Redistribute
5. Resell
6. Study and Learn

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 11 Network Examples and Protocols Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 11 Network Examples and Protocols

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Network Examples and Protocols Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The ……………………… “the Net,” is a worldwide system of computer networks
(a) Internet
(b) mobile
(c) communication
(d) protocol
Answer:
(a) Internet

Question 2.
Which one of the following will be easy the way to uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share business’s information with suppliers, vendors, partners and customers.
(a) Extranet
(b) Intranet
(c) arpanet
(d) arcnet
Answer:
(a) Extranet

Question 3.
Match the following and choose the correct Answer:wer
(i) HTTP -The core protocol of the World Wide Web.
(ii) FTP- enables a client to send and receive complete files from a server.
(iii) SMTP – Provide e-mail services.
(iv) DNS- Refer to other host computers by using names rather than numbers.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(c) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(d) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)

Question 4.
Communication over …………………………… is be made up of voice, data, images and text messages.
(a) Social media
(b) mobile network
(c) whatsapp
(d) software
Answer:
(b) mobile network

Question 5.
Wi-Fi stands for ……………………………
(a) Wireless Fidelity
(b) wired fidelity
(c) wired optic fibre
(d) wireless optic fibre
Answer:
(a) Wireless Fidelity

Question 6.
A TCP/IP network with access restricted to members of an organization
(a) LAN
(b) MAN
(c) WAN
(d) Intranet
Answer:
(d) Intranet

Question 7.
RFID stands for …………………………
(a) Radio Free identification
(b) real Frequency identity
(c) Radio Frequency indicators
(d) Radio Frequency Identification.
Answer:
(d) Radio Frequency Identification.

Question 8.
It guarantees the sending of data is successful and which checks error on operation at OSI layer is ………………………………
(a) Application layer
(b) Network layer
(c) Transport Layer
(d) Physical layer
Answer:
(c) Transport Layer

Question 9.
Which one of the following will secure data on trAnswer:missions?
(a) HTTPS
(b) HTTP
(c) FTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(a) HTTPS

Question 10.
………………………… provides e-mail service.
(a) DNS
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(d) SMTP

Question 11.
………………………… refer to other host computers by using names rather than numbers.
(a) DNS
(b) TCP
(c) FTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(a) DNS

Question 12.
TCP/IP is a combination of two protocols:
(i) TrAnswer:mission Control Protocol (TCP)
(ii) Internet Protocol (IP)
(iii) Selection Protocol (SP)
(iv) Captial Protocol (CP)
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (i), (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii)

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define Intranet?
Answer:
INTRANET:

1. It is a private network within an enterprise to share company data and computing resources between the employees.
2. It may consist of many interlinked local area networks.

Question 2.
What is the uses of mobile networks?
Answer:
The common application of mobile networks is mobile phones, tablets, etc.. In past, wireless communications largely used circuit switching to carry only voice over a network, but now currently both data and voice are being trAnswer:mitted over both circuit via switched networks and packet-switched networks.

Question 3.
List out the benefits of WiFi/
Answer:

1. It provides mobility.
2. It provides connection to Internet.
3. Flexibility of LAN.
4. Ensures connectivity.
5. It allows places that are remote to benefit from connectivity.
6. Low cost, high benefit.

Question 4.
How many types of RFID System available and what are they?
Answer:
Two types of RFID Systems:
1. Active RFID system:
the tag has its own power source. These systems used for larger distances and to track high value goods like vehicles.

2. Passive RFID system:
the tag gets power through power from a reader antenna to the tag „ antenna. They are used for shorter range trAnswer:mission.

Question 5.
Expand HTTP, HTTPS, FTP?
Answer:

1. HTTP – Hypertext Transfer Protocol
2. HTTPS – Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
3. FTP – File Transfer Protocol

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Compare Internet, Intranet and Extranet?
Answer:

Question 2.
List out the components of a RFID enabled system?
Answer:
Main Components of a RFID System

1. A RFID tag: It has silicon microchip attached to a small antenna and mounted on a substrate.
2. A reader: It has a scanner with antennas to trAnswer:mit and receive signals, used for communication.
3. A Controller: It is the host computer with a Microprocessor which receives the reader input and process the data.

Question 3.
Write short notes on HTTP, HTTPS, FTP?
Answer:

1. HTTP – A protocol used between a web client and a web server protects non-secure data trAnswer:missions. The core protocol of the World Wide Web.
2. HTTPS – A protocol used between a web client and a web server permits secure data trAnswer:missions.
3. FTP – Used between computers for sending and receiving data. Enables a client to send and receive complete files from a server.

Question 4.
What are the layers available in TCP/IP Reference Model?
Answer:
There are four total layers of TCP/IP protocol, each of which is listed below with a brief description.

1. Network Access Layer – concerned with building packets.
2. Internet Layer – describes how packets are to be delivered.
3. Transport Layer – ensure the proper transfer mission of data.
4. Application Layer – application network processes. These processes include File Transfer Protocol (FTP), Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Question 5.
Expand ARP, ICMP, SMTP and DNS?
Answer:

1. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
2. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
3. Transfer mission Control Protocol (TCP)
4. Simple Mail TrAnswer:fer Protocol (SMTP)
5. Domain Name System (DNS).

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain about Internet, Intranet and Extranet?
Internet/Intranet/Extranet
INTERNET:
Answer:

1. The Internet, “the Net,” is a worldwide system of computer networks.
2. A network of networks where the users at any one computer can, if they have permission, get information from any other computer.
3. The Internet is a network of global connections – comprising private, public, business, academic and government networks – linked by guided, wireless and fiber-optic technologies.
4. It was perceived by the Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA) of the U.S. government in 1969 and was first recognized as the ARPANet.
5. The unique aim was to generate a network that would permit users of a research computer from one university to “talk to” research computers on other universities.
6. The Internet denotes to the global communication system, including infrastructure and hardware, whereas the web is one of the services interconnected over the Internet.

INTRANET:

1. It is a private network within an enterprise to share company data and computing resources between the employees.
2. It may consist of many interlinked local area networks.
3. It includes connections through one or more gateway (connects two networks using different protocols together known as protocol convertor) computers to outside Internet.

EXTRANET:
It is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public – telecommunication system to securely share business’s information with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.

Question 2.
Discuss about OSI model with its layers?
Answer:
OSI Model:
Open System Interconnection (OSI) model was found in the year 1934, general framework that enables network protocols along with software and systems to be developed based on general set of guidelines. It describes the standards for the inter-computer communication.

OSI Layers:
(i) Physical Layer:
This is the 1st layer, it defines the electrical and physical specifications for devices.

(ii) Data Link Layer:
It is the 2nd layer and it guarantees that the data trAnswer:mitted are free of errors. This layer has simple protocols like “802.3 for Ethernet” and “802.11 for Wi-Fi”.

(iii) Network Layer:
It is the 3rd layer determining the path of the data packets. At this layer, routing of data packets is found using IP Addressing.

(iv) Transport Layer:
It is the 4th layer that guarantees the trAnswer:portation/sending of data is successful. It includes the error checking operation.

(v) Session Layer:
It is the 5th layer, identifies the established system session between different network entities. It controls dialogues between computers. For instance, while accessing a system remotely, session is created between your computer and the remote system.

(vi) Presentation Layer:
It is the 6th layer that does the trAnswer:lation of data to the next layer (Prepare the data to the Application Layer). Encryption and decryption protocols occur in this layer such as, Secure Socket Layer (SSL).

(vii) Application Layer:
It is the 7th layer, which acts as the user interface platform comprising of software within the system.

Question 3.
Difference between TCP/IP and OSI Reference Model?
Answer:

TCP/Ip:

1. TCP/IP stands for Transmission control protocol/Intemet protocol
2. TCP/IP has 4 layers
3. TCP/IP are set of rulers/protocols defined for communication over the network
4. TCP/IP is a client-server model
5. It follows top to bottom approach

OSI:

1. OSI means open system interconnect
2. OSI has 7 layers
3. OSI is a model based on the concept of layering
4. OSI is a conceptual model
5. It follows bottom-up approach

Question 4.
Explain about the development, merits and demerits in Mobile networks?
Merits of Mobile Networks:

1. Higher efficiency.
2. Increased ability to communicate in and out of the workspace.
3. Greater access to modem apps and services.
4. Improved networking capabilities.
5. Quality and flexibility of services.
6. Rapid developments in cloud technologies.

Demerits of Mobile Networks:

1. Cost
2. Vulnerable to security risks.
3. Additional training is needed to use new technology.
4. Cyber crime

Development:
The generations of mobile networks are as follows.

1. First Generation(lG) 1981- NMT launch
2. Second Generation(2G) 1991-GSM Launch
3. Second to Third Generation Bridge (2.5)2000 – GPRS launch
4. Third Generation! 3G) 2003- first UK 3G launch
5. Fourth Generation (4G) 2007
6. Fifth Generation (5G) 2019+

1. First Generation (1G) 1981 – NMT launch:

1. During the initial periods the mobile systems were based on analog trAnswer:mission.
2. NMT stands for Nordic Mobile Telephone communication.
3. And a very poor voice quality.

2. Second Generation(2G) 1991-GSM Launch:

1. Later the second generation of mobile systems were placed on digital trAnswer:mission with GSM.
2. GSM stands for (Global System for Mobile communication) was most popular standard which is used in second generation, using 900MHz and 1800MHz for the frequency bands.
3. The transfer mission used as TMDA stands for (Time Division Multiple Access) and CDMA One stands for (Code Division Multiple’Access) method to increase the amount of information trAnswer:ported on the network

3. Second to Third Generation Bridge (2.5)2000 – GPRS launch:

1. GPRS was introduced here GPRS stands for (General Packet Radio Service). GPRS is a data service which enables mobile devices to send and receive messages, picture messages and e-mails.
2. GSM data transfer mission rates typically reached 9.6kbit/s.

4. Third Generation( 3G) 2003- first UK 3G launch:
1. This generation of mobile systems merges different mobile technology standards, and uses higher frequency bands for transfer mission and Code Division Multiple Access to delivery data rates of up to 2Mbit/s supports multimedia services (MMS: voice, video and data).

2. Data transfer mission used a WCDMA. WCDMA stands for (Wideband Code Division Multiple Access).

3. Few 3G suppliers use ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) for their ‘over the air’ network with in MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) or IP for theirs backbone network.

5. Fourth Generation (4G) 2007:

1. 4G is at the research stage. 4G was based on an adhoc networking model where there was no need for a fixed infrastructure operation.

2. Adhoc networking requires global mobility features (e.g. Mobile IP) and connectivity to a global IPv6 network to support an IP address for each mobile device.

3. Logically roaming in assorted IP networks (for example: 802.11 WLAN, GPRS and UMTS) were be possible with higher data rates, from 2Mbit/s to 10-100Mbit/s, offering reduced delays and newly services.

6. Fifth Generation (5G) 2019+:

1. 5G is the stage succeeds the 4G (LTE/ WiMAx), 3G(umts) and 2G(GSM) syetems.

2. 5G targets to performance the high data rate, reduced latency, energy saving, cost reduction, higher system, capacity, and massive device connectivity.

3. The ITU IMT – 2020 provides speeds up to 20 gigabits per second it has been demonstrated with millimeter waves of 15 gigahertz and higher frequency.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Network Examples and Protocols Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
Internet Protocol delivers packets from source to destination through
(a) TCP
(b) datagram
(c) packets header
(d) http
Answer:
(c) packets header

Question 2.
IP connectionless datagram service was developed in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1974
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1974

Question 3.
IP connectionless datagram service was developed by
(i) Vint cerf
(ii) Bob FrAnswer:ton
(iii) Bob Kahnin
(iv) Dan Bricklin
(a) i, ii
(b) ii, iii
(c) ii, iv
(d) i, iii
Answer:
(d) i, iii

Question 4.
TCP/IP stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol

Question 5.
Which protocols have to do end-to-end process of secure on time and manage data or communication.
(a) Physical
(b) TCP
(c) Network
(d) ARPC
Answer:
(c) Network

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) HTTP
(b) SFTL
(c) SSL
(d) SNMP
Answer:
(d) SNMP

Question 7.
Find the Network management protocol from the following
(a) ICMP
(b) HTTP
(c) TCP/IP
(d) SFTP
Answer:
(a) ICMP

Question 8.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Network Communication Protocol – HTTP, TCP/IP
(b) Network Security Protocol – ICMP
(c) Network Management Protocol – SNMP
Answer:
(b) Network Security Protocol – ICMP

Question 9.
ARPANET was first recognized in the year
(a) 1964
(b) 1956
(c) 1972
(d) 1969
Answer:
(d) 1969

Question 10.
The ……………………….. is one of the services interconnected over the Internet.
Answer:
web

Question 11.
Gateway connects two networks using different protocols together known as …………………………..
Answer:
Protocol Converter

Question 12.
Find the correct statement from the following.
I. Internet or things refers to the digital interconnection of everyday objects with the Internet
II. Extranet is a private network within an enterprise to share company data and computing resources between the employees.
(a) I-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) I, II-True
(d) I, II-False
Answer:
(a) I-True, II-False

Question 13.
Sending e-mail to a friend is an example for ………………………..
(a) Internet
(b) Intranet
(c) Extranet
(d) IP address
Answer:
(a) Internet

Question 14.
A …………………………. as it is made up of a large number of signal areas called cells.
(a) Mobile Network
(b) Cellular Network
(c) Both a & b
(d) Chatting
Answer:
(c) Both a & b

Question 15.
The NMT launch comes ………………………….. generation of mobile networks
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(a) 1G

Question 16.
Expand NMT.
(a) North Mobile Telephone
(b) Nordic Mobile Telephone
(c) Nordic Movement Telephone
(d) Nurture Mobile Telephone
Answer:
(b) Nordic Mobile Telephone

Question 17.
Match the following:
(i) 1G – (I) GSM
(ii) 2G – (II) UMTS
(iii) 3G – (III) GPRS
(iv) 2-3G Bridge – (IV) NMT
(a) IV I II III
(b) I II III IV
(c) IV III II I
(d) II I IV III
Answer:
(a) IV I II III

Question 18.
GSM means ……………………………… communication.
Answer:
Global System for Mobile

Question 19.
SIM means …………………………. technology.
Answer:
Subscriber Identity Module

Question 20.
TMDA means …………………………
Answer:
Time Division Multiple Access

Question 21.
CMDA stands for
(a) Code Divide Multiple Access
(b) Code Divide Mobile Access
(c) Code Division Multiple Access
(d) Code Division Mobile Access
Answer:
(c) Code Division Multiple Access

Question 22.
GPRS stands for ………………………
Answer:
General Packet Radio Service

Question 23.
Expand EDGE
(a) Extra Data rates for Global Evolution
(b) Enhanced Data rates for Global Evolution
(c) Entry Data rates for Global Evolution
(d) Extra Dual rate for Global Evolution
Answer:
(b) Enhanced Data rates for Global Evolution

Question 24.
UMTS stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Universal Mobile Telecommunication Systems

Question 25.
WCDMA stands for …………………………
Answer:
Wideband Code Division Multiple Access

Question 26.
ATM stands for ………………………….
Answer:
Asynchronous Transfer Mode

Question 27.
First Generation (1G) was developed in the year …………………………
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1982
(d) 1981
Answer:
(d) 1981

Question 28.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) First Generation – 1981
(b) Second Generation – 1991
(c) Third Generation – 2004
(d) Fourth Generation – 2007
Answer:
(c) Third Generation – 2004

Question 29.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 2.5G
(d) 3.5G
Answer:
(d) 3.5G

Question 30.
Analog trAnswer:mission have taken place in …………………………
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(a) 1G

Question 31.
Which technology is used to authenticate a user for identification and billing purposes and to encrypt the data to prevent listen without permission.
(a) GSM
(b) NMT
(c) CDMA
(d) SIM
Answer:
(d) SIM

Question 32.
Which method increased the amount of information trAnswer:ported on the network?
(I) SIM
(II) NMT
(III) TDMA
(IV) CDMA
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) III, IV
(d) IV, I
Answer:
(c) III, IV

Question 33.
General Packet Radio Service was introduced in
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 2.5G
(d) 3G
Answer:
(c) 2.5G

Question 34.
……………………………… is a data service which enables mobile devices to send and receive messages, picture messages and e-mails.
(a) GPS
(b) GPRS
(c) CDMA
(d) SIM
Answer:
(b) GPRS

Question 35.
What is the data trAnswer:mission rate of GSM?
(a) 9.6 kb/s
(b) 11.2 kb/s
(c) 12.3 kb/s
(d) 8.5 kb/s
Answer:
(a) 9.6 kb/s

Question 36.
MMS is the combination of …………………………
(I) Image, Voice, Video
(II) Voice, Video, Speed
(III) Voice, Video, Data
(IV) Speed, Data, Image
(a) III
(b) II
(c) I
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) III

Question 37.
The data trAnswer:mission used by 3G is ……………………………
(a) TDMA
(b) CDMA
(c) EDGE
(d) WCDMA
Answer:
(d) WCDMA

Question 38.
MPLS means ……………………….
Answer:
Multiprotocol Label Switching

Question 39.
Few 3G suppliers use ATM for their ……………………………. network with in MPLS or IP for their network.
Answer:
Over the Air

Question 40.
Which generation of mobile network is considered as a research stage?
(a) 1G
(b) 2G
(c) 3G
(d) 4G
Answer:
(d) 4G

Question 41.
Li-Fi is the short form of …………………………..
(a) Light Fidelity
(b) LAN Fidelity
(c) Light Fix
(d) Low Frequency
Answer:
(a) Light Fidelity

Question 42.
The term Li-Fi was first used by …………………………..
Answer:
Harald Haas

Question 43.
How many phases of 5G are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 44.
The two phases of 5G are ………………………….
(I) Release-14
(II) Release-15
(III) Release-16
(IV) Release-17
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) III, IV
Answer:
(b) II, III

Question 45.
ITU stands for ……………………………..
Answer:
International Telecommunication Union

Question 46.
Which is used for radio wares to read and capture information stored on a tag attached to an object?
(a) RF
(b) RFID
(c) Li-Fi
(d) Wi-Fi
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 47.
How many parts are there in RFID tags are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 48.
RFID has a ……………………… and a ……………………….. or a ……………………………..
Answer:
reader, tag and label

Question 49.
Ffow many types of RFID tags are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 50.
How many components of a RFID system are there?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 51.
………………………… is a scanner with antennas to trAnswer:mit and receive signals used for communication
(a) RFID tag
(b) Reader
(c) Controller
(d) Em-ware
Answer:
(b) Reader

Question 52.
Find the statement which is true.
(а) Active RFID System – larger distances
(b) Active RFID System – shorter range transfer mission
Answer:
(а) Active RFID System – larger distances

Question 53.
Which method is used in passive RFID system?
(a) TCP
(b) UDP
(c) Induction coupling
(d) Direct coupling
Answer:
(c) Induction coupling

Question 54.
OSI model means ……………………………..
Answer:
Open System Interconnection

Question 55.
OSI model was found in the year
(a) 1927
(b) 1932
(c) 1935
(d) 1934
Answer:
(d) 1934

Question 56.
Which one describes the standards for the inter-computer communication?
(a) OSI
(b) BSI
(c) DSI
(d) LSI
Answer:
(a) OSI

Question 57.
How many OSI layers are there?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 58.
The protocols for Ethernet in datalink layer is ………………………….
(a) 8.023
(b) 80.23
(c) 802.3
(d) 8023
Answer:
(c) 802.3

Question 59.
Which is the third layer in the OSI model?
(a) Datalink
(b) Physical
(c) port
(d) Network
Answer:
(d) Network

Question 60.
In which layer, routing of data packets is found using IP addressing?
(a) Data link
(b) Network
(c) port
(d) Physical
Answer:
(b) Network

Question 61.
SSL stands for ………………………
Answer:
Secure Socket Layer

Question 62.
Match the following
(i) Physical Layer – (I) controls dialogues between computer
(ii) Network Layer – (II) Specifications for devices
(iii) TrAnswer:port Layer – (III) data packets
(iv) Session Layer – (IV) error checking
(v) Application Layer – (V) Encryption, Decryption
(a) II, III, IV, I, V, VI
(b) I, II, III, IV, VI, VI
(c) VI, V, IV, III, II, I
(d) III, IV, V, VI, II, I
Answer:
(a) II, III, IV, I, V, VI

Question 63.
Which protocol is accountable for guaranteeing the trustworthy trAnswer:mission of data?
(a) TCP
(b) IP
(c) HTTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(a) TCP

Question 64.
google.com is the ………………………. for Google.
Answer:
domian name

Question 65.
How many different layers of TCP/IP are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 66.
FTP stands for …………………………
(a) File Transfer Protocol
(b) File Transmission Protocol
(c) File Transport Protocol
(d) File Type Protocol
Answer:
(a) File Transfer Protocol

Question 67.
HTTP stands for …………………………..
(a) High Text Transmission Protocol
(b) Hyper Text Transmission Protocol
(c) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
(d) Height Typed Transfer Protocol
Answer:
(c) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol

Question 68.
SMTP stands for …………………………………
(a) Single Mail Transfer Protocol
(b) Single Message Transfer Protocol
(c) Simple Mail Text Protocol
(d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
Answer:
(d) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Question 69.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) FTP
(b) RFID
(c) HTTP
(d) SMTP
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 70.
Which one of the following is not a network protocol.
(a) SSL
(b) ARP
(c) TCPI
(d) FTP
Answer:
(c) TCPI

Question 71.
HTTPs stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure

Question 72.
ARP stands for ………………………….
Answer:
Address Resoloution Protocol

Question 73.
Expand MAC
(a) Mega Access Code
(b) Multiple Access Code
(c) Medium Access Code
(d) Medium Access Control
Answer:
MEdium Access Control

Question 74.
Which one of the following is a hardware identification number that uniquely identifies each device on a network?
(a) MIC
(b) MAC
(c) MOC
(d) MUC
Answer:
(b) MAC

Question 75.
ICMP stands for ………………………….
Answer:
Internet Control Message Protocol

Question 76.
IGMP stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Internet Group Management Protocol

Question 77.
Which is used to send group communication messages to multiple IP addresses?
(a) ICMP
(b) IGMP
(c) IDMP
(d) IKMP
Answer:
(b) IGMP

Question 78.
The two main protocols mainly used in the trAnswer:port layers are
(I) TCP
(II) UDP
(III) UTP
(IV) ATP
(V) STP
(a) I, II
(b) III, IV
(c) II, V
(d) IV, V
Answer:
(a) I, II

Question 79.
UDP stands for …………………………….
Answer:
User Daragram Protocol

Question 80.
DNS meAnswer: ………………………..
Answer:
Domian Name System.

I. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write note on Extranet?
Answer:
EXTRANET:
It is a private network that uses Internet technology and the public telecommunication system to securely share business’s information with suppliers, vendors, partners, customers, or other businesses.

Question 2.
Mention the various generations of Mobile networks?
Answer:
The generations of mobile networks are as follows.

1. First Generation(lG) 1981- NMT launch
2. Second Generation(2G) 1991-GSM Launch
3. Second to Third Generation Bridge (2.5)2000 – GPRS launch ,
4. Third Generation( 3G) 2003- UK 3G launch
5. Fourth Generation (4G) 2007
6. Fifth Generation (5G) 2019+

Question 3.
What is meant by Li-Fi?
Answer:
Li-Fi is a wireless technology which uses light-emitting diodes (LEDs) for data transmission Li-Fi is the short form of Light Fidelity.

Question 4.
Define Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless network technology that permits computers and alternative devices to be connected to every alternative into a local area network and to the net without wires and cables.

Question 5.
Write note on Network protocols?
Answer:
Network protocols is that the usual procedures, rules, formal standards and policies comprised of formats which allocates communication between more than one device Which connected to the network.

II. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the types of Networking protocols?
Answer:
The broad types of networking protocols, including:

1. Network communication protocols is that the Basic data communication protocols which specific as HTTP and TCP/IP.
2. Network security protocols is that which implement security over network communications and include HTTP, SFTP and SSL.
3. Network management protocols will Provide network governance and maintenance and include ICMP and SNMP.

Question 2.
Define Internet of things?
Answer:
Internet of Things refers to the digital interconnection of everyday objects (home applicances, wearable devices or automobiles) with the Internet. The ‘thing’ in refers to an objects that have been assigned an IP address and have the ability to collect and transfer data over a network without manual assistance or intervention.

Question 3.
Write about Mobile Networks?
Answer:
Mobile Networks:
A mobile network or cellular network as it is made up of a large number of signal areas called cells. These cells join to form a large coverage area. Communication over mobile network is be made up of voice, data, images and text messages.

Question 4.
Differentiate Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It is a wireless network technology that permits computers and alternative devices to be connected to every alternative into a local area network and to the net without wires and cables.

Question 5.
Write note on Network protocols?
Answer:
Network protocols is that the usual procedures, rules, formal standards and policies comprised of formats which allocates communication between more than one device Which connected to the network.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the types of Networking protocols?
Answer:
The broad types of networking protocols, including:

1. Network communication protocols is that the Basic data communication protocols which specific as HTTP and TCP/IP.
2. Network security protocols is that which implement security over network communications and include HTTP, SFTP and SSL.
3. Network management protocols will Provide network governance and maintenance and include ICMP and SNMP.

Question 2.
Define Internet of things?
Answer:
Internet of Things refers to the digital interconnection of everyday objects (home applicances, wearable devices or automobiles) with the Internet. The ‘thing’ in IoT refers to an objects that have been assigned an IP address and have the ability to collect and trAnswer:fer data over a network without manual assistance or intervention.

Question 3.
Write about Mobile Networks?
Answer:
Mobile Networks:
A mobile network or cellular network as it is made up of a large number of signal areas called cells. These cells join to form a large coverage area. Communication over mobile network is be made up of voice, data, images and text messages.

Question 4.
Differentiate Wi-Fi and Li-Fi?
Answer:
Wi-Fi:

1. Wireless Fidelity
2. Wi-Fi uses radio frequencies for data transmission.

Li-Fi:

1. Li-Fi is a wireless technology which uses light-emitting diodes (LEDs) for data transmission.
2. Li-Fi is the short form of Light Fidelity.

Question 5.
What is RFID?
Answer:

1. RFID stands for Radio -Frequency Identification (RFID).
2. RFID used for radio waves to read and capture information stored on a tag attached to an object. Tag can be read from several feet away and does not need to be in direct-line-of-sight of the reader to be tracked.
3. RFID has been made up of two parts a reader and a tag or a label.
4. RFID tags are installed with a transmitter and receiver.

Question 6.
List out the two types of RFID tags?
Answer:
Two types of RFID tags were Active RFID and Passive RFID systems.

1. Passive RFID tag will be used the reader radio wave energy to really its stored information back to the reader.
2. Battery powered RFID tag is installed with small battery that powers the broadcast of information

Question 7.
Write note on Network Interface Layer?
Answer:
Network Interface Layer:

1. It is the bottom most level layer.
2. It is comparable to that of the Open System Interconnection Physical and Data Link layers.
3. Different TCP/IP protocols are being used at this layer, Ethernet and Token Ring for local area networks and protocols such as X.25, Frame Relay, and ATM for wide area networks.
4. It is assumed to be an unreliable layer.

Question 8.
Write note on Application Layer?
Answer:
The Application layer of the TCP/IP model is similar to the Session, Presentation, and Application layers of the OSI Reference Model. The most popular Application layer protocols are:
(i) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP):
The core protocol of the World Wide Web.

(ii) File Transfer Protocol (FTP):
enables a client to send and receive complete files from a server.

(iii) Telnet:
connect to another computer on the Internet.

(iv) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP):
Provide e-mail services.

(v) Domain Name System (DNS):
Refer to other host computers by using names rather than numbers

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain any 5 applications of Internet Intranet and Extranet?
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain the working of Passive and Active RFID systems with diagram?
Working of Passive RFID System
A Passive RFID system using Induction coupling method:
Answer:
The RFID tag gets power from the reader through the inductive coupling method.

A Passive RFID system using EM wave propagation method:
The reader antenna trAnswer:mits the electromagnetic waves that are received by the antenna.

Working Of Active RFID System
The reader sends signal to the tag using an antenna.

Question 3.
Discuss in detail about TCP/IP protocols?
Answer:
TCP/IP:
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol, TCP/IP is a set of protocols which governs communications among all computers on the Internet. TCP/IP protocol tells how information should be packaged, sent, and received, as well as how to get to its destination.

TCP WORKING: TCP/IP is a combination of two protocols: TrAnswer:mission Control Protocol (TCP) and Internet Protocol (IP). The Internet Protocol typically specifies he logistics of the packets that are sent out over networks; it specifies the packets which have to go, where to go and how to get there. The TrAnswer:mission Control Protocol is accountable for guaranteeing the trustworthy trAnswer:mission of data. It sees that the packets for errors and submits the requests for re-trAnswer:missions incase any of them are missing’.

Frequent TCP/IP Protocols

• HTTP – It is used between a web client and a web server and it guarantees non-secure data trAnswer:missions.
• HTTPS – It is used between a web client and a web server ensures secure data trAnswer:missions.
• FTP – It is used between computers for sending and receiving file.

Domain Names and TCP/IP Addresses
The address for any website is not as easy as to remember, domain name are used instead. For example, 216.58.216.164 is one of the IP address for Google and google.com is the domain name.

The Different Layers of TCP/IP
There are four total layers of TCP/IP protocol, each of which is listed below with a brief description.

1. Network Access Layer – concerned with building packets.
2. Internet Layer – describes how packets are to be delivered.
3. Transport Layer – ensure the proper transmission of data.
4. Application Layer – application network processes. These processes include File Transfer Protocol (FTP), Hypertext TrAnswer:fer Protocol (HTTP), and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

Question 4.
Explain the important protocols present in

1. Network layer
2. Transport Layer

Answer:
1. Network Layer:
It is the layer where data is addressed, packaged, and routed among networks. The important Internet protocols that operate at the Network layer are:

2. Internet Protocol (IP):
Routable protocol which uses IP addresses to deliver packets. It is an unreliable protocol, does not guarantee delivery of information.

3. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP):
Resolves IP addresses to MAC (Medium Access Control) addresses. (A MAC address is a hardware identification number that uniquely identifies each device on a network.)i.e., to map IP network addresses to the hardware addresses.

4. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP):
Used by network devices to send error messages and operational information. Example: A host or router might not be reached or a requested service is not presented.

5. Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP):
It is a communication protocol used by hosts and routers to send Multicast (group Communication) messages to multiple IP addresses at once.

6. port Layer:
The sessions are recognized and data packets are swapped between hosts in this layer. Two main protocols established at this layer are:

7. Mission Control Protocol (TCP):
Provides reliable connection oriented trAnswer:mission between two hosts. It ensures delivery of packets between the hosts.

8. User Datagram Protocol (UDP):
Provides connectionless, unreliable, one-to-one or one- to-many delivery.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 13 Network Cabling Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 13 Network Cabling

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Network Cabling Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
ARPANET stands for
(a) American Research Project Agency Network
(b) Advanced Research Project Area Network
(c) Advanced Research Project Agency Network
(d) American Research Programs And Network
Answer:
(c) Advanced Research Project Agency Network

Question 2.
WWW was invented by …………………………..
(a) Tim Berners Lee
(b) Charles Babbage
(c) Blaise Pascal
(d) John Napier
Answer:
(a) Tim Berners Lee

Question 3.
Which cable is used in cable TV to connect with setup box?
(a) UTP cable
(b) Fibre optics
(c) Coaxial cable
(d) USB cable
Answer:
(c) Coaxial cable

Question 4.
Expansion of UTP is …………………………
(a) Uninterrupted Twisted Pair
(b) Uninterrupted Twisted Protocol
(c) Unshielded Twisted Pair
(d) Universal Twisted Protocol
Answer:
(c) Unshielded Twisted Pair

Question 5.
Which medium is used in the optical fibre cables to transmit data?
(a) Microwave
(b) infra red
(c) light
(d) sound
Answer:
(c) light

Question 6.
Which of the following is a small peripheral device with a sim slot to connect the computers to Internet?
(a) USB
(b) Dongles
(c) Memory card
(d) Mobiles
Answer:
(b) Dongles

Question 7.
Which connector is used in the Ethernet cables?
(a)RJll
(b) RJ21
(c) RJ61
(d) RJ45
Answer:
(d) RJ45

Question 8.
Which of the following connector is called as champ connector?
(a) RJll
(b) RJ21
(c) RJ61
(d) RJ45
Answer:
(b) RJ21

Question 9.
How many pins are used in RJ45 cables?
(a) 8
(b) 6
(c) 50
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 10.
Which wiring standard is used for connecting two computers directly?
(a) straight Through wiring
(b) Cross Over wiring
(c) Rollover wiring
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Cross Over wiring

Question 11.
pick the odd one out from the following cables
(a) roll over
(b) cross over
(c) null modem
(d) straight through
Answer:
(c) null modem

Question 12.
Match the following
(i) Ethernet – Port
(ii) RJ45 connector – Ethernet
(iii) RJ45 jack – Plug
(iv) RJ45 cable – 802.3
(a) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
(b) (i)-4, (ii)-1, (iii)-3, (iv)-2
(c) (i)-4, (ii)3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2
(d) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
Answer:
(c) (i)-4, (ii)3, (iii)-1, (iv)-2

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write a note on twisted pair cable?
Answer:

1. Twisted cable has 13 wires which are twisted to ignore electromagnetic interferefice
2. Two types of twisted pair cables are Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted pair (STP).

Question 2.
What are the uses of USB cables?
Answer:
Uses of USB Cables:

1. The Universal Serial Bus are used to connect keyboard, mouse and other peripheral devices.
2. But there are some special network devices used to connect the Internet through the USB called dongles.
3. The dongle is a small peripheral device which has a compatible of mobile broadband with a sim slot in it and connects the Internet and acts as a modem to the computer.

Question 3.
Write a note on the types of RJ45 connector?
Answer:
Cat5, Cat6, Cat7, Cat3, Cat6e.

Question 4.
What is an Ethernet port?
Answer:
Ethernet port is an opening which is a part of an Ethernet card. It accepts RJ45 connector with Ethernet cable. It is also called as RJ45 jack. It is found on personal computers, laptops, routers, switches, hubs and modems.

Question 5.
What is the use of Crimping tool?
Answer:
The crimping tool is a physical tool which is used to connect the patch wire and the Ethernet connector. The tool will puncture the connector and makes the wire set in the connector.

Question 6.
What are the types of twisted pair cables?
Answer:
There are two types of twisted pair cables, Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted pair (STP). The UTP is used nowadays as modem cables for Internet and they are lower in cost and installation and maintenance is easy compared to the coaxial cables.

Question 7.
What is meant by champ connector?
Answer:
The RJ-21 connector has 50 pins with 25 pins at one end and 25 pins at the other end. It is also called as champ connector or Amphenol connector. The Amphenol is a connector manufacturer. The RJ-21 interface is typically used for data communication trucking applications.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a note on crossover cables?
Answer:

1. If you require a cable to connect two computers or Ethernet devices directly together without a hub, then you will need to use a Crossover cable instead.
2. The easiest way to make a crossover cable is to make one end to T568A colour coding and the other end to T568B.
3. Another way to make the cable is to remember the colour coding used in this type. Here Green set of wires at one end are connected with the Orange set of wires at another end and vice versa.

Question 2.
Write a short note on RJ45 connector?
Answer:
RJ45 Connector:

1. The RJ45 connector is a small plastic cup which will be used to connect the wire inside the connector and ready to connect the Internet.
2. The RJ45 connector looks similar like a telephone jack but it looks a slightly wider. The Ethernet cables are sometime called as RJ45 cables.
3. In RJ45 the “RJ” stands for the Registered Jack and the “45” simply refers to the number of interface standard in the cable.

Question 3.
What are the differences between serial and parallel ports?
Answer:
Serial Ports:

1. Serial port transmits data one but after another.
2. Data transmisison is slow
3. 9 pin or 25 pin male connectors.
4. Eg. COM, COM2, RS232
5. It can be connected to monitor, scanners, models

Parallel Ports:

1. It transmits all 8 bits of a byte is parallel.
2. It is fast
3. 25 pin female connector
4. Eg. LPTI Port
5. It is used to connect printer, joysticks
6. external hard drives

Question 4.
What is meant by null modem cable?
Answer:
RS-232 cable is also used for interconnecting two computers without modem. So it is also a null modem cable. A cable interconnecting two devices directly is known as a null modem cable.

Question 5.
What are the components involved in Ethernet cabling?
Answer:

1. Patch Cable (Twisted pair)
2. RJ45 Connector
3. Ethernet Ports
4. Crimping Tool

Patch Cable (Twisted Pair):
These Cables are generally made up of 8 wires in different colors. Four of them are solid colours, and the others are striped. The eight colors are white green, green, white orange, blue, white blue, orange, white brown and brown.

The RJ45 connector has eight small pins inside to connect eight small wires in the patch ’cable. The eight cables has eight different colours
The Ethernet port is the jack where the Ethernet cable is to be connected. This port will be there in both the computers and the LAN port.
The crimping tool is a physical tool which is used to connect the patch wire and the Ethernet connector(RJ45).

Question 6.
What are the types of Fibre optic cables?
Answer:
There are two types of fiber optic cables available, One is single-mode (100BaseBx) another one is Multimode (100BaseSX). Single-mode cables are used for long distance transmission and at a high cost whereas the multimode cables are used for short distance transmission at a very low cost.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
What is meant by Registered Jack? Explain briefly the types of Jacks?
Answer:
Types of JacksRegistered Jacks:
A Registered Jack commonly known as RJ is a network interface used for network cabling, wiring and jack construction. The primary function of the registered jack is to connect different data equipment and telecommunication devices.

The commonly known registered jacks are RJ-11, RJ-45, RJ-21, and RJ-28. The registered jack refers to the male physical connector (Plug), a female physical connector (Jack) and it’s wiring. We will talk some of the variety of registered jack below with some defintions.

It is the most popular modem form of registered j ack. It is found in home and office. This registered jack is mainly used in telephone and landlines. When we look the pin details of the RJ-11, there are 6 pin where the two pins give the transmission configuration, the two pins give the receiver configuration and the other two pins will be kept for reserved. The two pin will have the positive terminal and the negative terminal.

RJ-14 and RJ-61:
The RJ-14 is the same as RJ-11 which will be used for telephone lines where same it as 6 pins whereas the RJ-61 will have 8 pins. This RJ-61 will use the twisted pair cable with a modular 8 connection.

RJ-21:
The RJ-21 connector has 50 pins with 25 pins at one end and 25 pins at the other end. It is also called as champ connector or Amphenol connector. The Amphenol is a connector manufacturer. The RJ-21 interface is typically used for data communication trucking applications.

Question 2.
Explain wiring techniques used in Ethernet cabling?
Answer:
There are three types of wiring techniques to construct the Ethernet cable. It is also known as color coding techniques. They are:

1. Straight-Through Wiring
2. Cross-over Wiring
3. Roll-over Wiring Straight-Through Wiring

In general, the Ethernet cables used for Ethernet connections are “straight-through cables”. These cable wires are in the same sequence at both ends of the cable, which means that pin 1 of the plug on one end is connected to pin 1 of the plug on the other end (for both standard – T568A & T568B). the straight through wiring cables are mostly used for connecting PC / NIC card to a hub. This is a simple physical connection used in printers, computers and other network interfaces.

Cross-over Wiring:
If you require a cable to connect two computers or Ethernet devices directly together without a hub, then you will need to use a Crossover cable instead. Then the pairs(Tx and Rx lines) will be crossed which means pin 1 & 2 of the plug on one end are connected with pin 3 & 6 of the plug on other end, and vice versa (3 & 6 to pin 1 & 2).

The easiest way to make a crossover cable is to make one end to T568A colour coding and the other end to T568B. Another way to make the cable is to remember the colour coding used in this type. Here Green set of wires at one end are connected with the Orange set of wires at another end and vice versa. Specifically, connect the solid Green (G) with the solid Orange, and connect the green/white with the orange/white.

Roll-over WiringRollover cable is a type of null-modem cable that is often used to connect a device console port to make programming changes to the device. The roll over wiring have opposite pin arrangements, all the cables are rolled over to different arrangements.

In the rollover cable, The coloured wires are reversed on other end i.e. The pins on one end are connected with other end in reverse order (i.e. pin 1 to 8, 2 to 7, 3 to 6, 4 to 5, 5 to 4, 6 to 3, 7 to 2, 8 to 1). Rollover cable is also known as Yost cable or Console cable. It is typically flat (and light blue color) to distinguish it from other types of network cabling.

These all the three arrangements are used to perform an interface change. But, all the three arrangements transmits the data at the same speed only.

Question 3.
Explain about RJ45 connector?
Answer:

1. The RJ45 connector is a small plastic cup which will be used to connect the wire inside the connector and ready to connect the Internet.
2. The RJ45 connector looks similar like a telephone jack but it looks a slightly wider.
3. The Ethernet cables are sometime called as RJ45 cables.
4. In RJ45 the “RJ” stands for the Registered Jack and the “45” simply refers to the number of interface standard in the cable.
5. Each RJ45 connector has eight pins and connected to each end of the Ethernet cable.
6. Since it has 8-position, 8-contact (8P8C) modular plug, It is also known as 8P8C connector.

The two main signals of the pins: the one is the TX which is transmission of data and RX
which is Receiver of data.
“In the Figure the position of pin no. 1 describes the transmit data or bidirectional, the bidirectional means it can be sent to both connection with the TX (positive). The TX+ has positive terminal and the color is used in this position is white green.

• In the position of pin no. 2 describes the transmit data or bidirectional with the TX (negative). The TX- has negative terminal and the color is used in this position is Green.
• In the position of pin no.
• Describes the receive data or bidirectional with the RX (positive). The RX is compatible to receive the data which has positive terminal and the color is used in this position is white orange.
• In this position of pin no. 4 describes that it is not connected or bidirectional. It means there will be no transmitting or receiving will exist. But it can be used later for some other connection. The color used in this pin is blue.

• In this position of pin no. 5 describes that it is not connected or bidirectional and the color is white blue.
• In this position of pin no. 6 describes the receive data or bidirectional with the RX (Negative) which has a negative terminal and the color used in this position is orange.
• In this position of pin no. 7 describes that it is not connected or bidirectional and the color is white brown.
  In this position of pin no. 8 describes that it is not connected or bidirectional and the color is brown.

Question 4.
Explain the components used in Ethernet cabling?
Answer:
The main components are used in the Ethernet cabling are

1. Patch Cable (Twisted pair)
2. RJ45 Connector
3. Ethernet Ports
4. Crimping Tool

1. Patch Cable (Twisted Pair):
1. These Cables are generally made up of 8 wires in different colors.

2. Four of them are solid colours, and the others are striped.
3. The eight colors are white green, green, white orange, blue, white blue, orange, white brown and brown. The following figure 13.8 shows the patch cable.
Ethernet cables are normally manufactured in several industrial standards such as Cat 3, Cat 5, Cat 6, Cat 6e and cat 7. “Cat” simply stands for “Category,”. Increasing the size of the cable also lead to slower transmission speed.

4. The cables together with male connectors (RJ45) on each end are commonly referred as Ethernet cables. It is also called as RJ45 cables, since Ethernet cable uses RJ45 connectors.

2. RJ45 Connector:

• The RJ45 connector is a small plastic cup which will be used to connect the wire inside the connector and ready to connect the Internet.
• The RJ45 connector looks similar like a telephone jack but it looks a slightly wider.
• The Ethernet cables are sometime called as RJ45 cables.
• In RJ45 the “RJ” stands for the Registered Jack and the “45” simply refers to the number of interface standard in the cable.
• Each RJ45 connector has eight pins and connected to each end of the Ethernet cable.
• Since it has 8-position, 8-contact (8P8C) modular plug, It is also known as 8P8C connector. Th£se plugs (connector) are then inserted into Ethernet port of the network card.

3. Ethernet card and Port:

• Ethernet card is a Network Interface Card (NIC) that allows computers to connect and transmit data to the devices on the network. It may be an expansion card or built-in type.
• Expansion card is a separate circuit board also called as PCI Ethernet card which is inserted into PCI slot on motherboard of a computer.
• Now a days most of the computers come with built-in Ethernet cards which resides on motherboard.
• Wireless Ethernet cards are also available, which uses radio waves to transmit data.
• Ethernet port is an opening which is a part of an Ethernet card. It accepts RJ45 connector with Ethernet cable. It is also called as RJ45 jack. It is found on personal computers, laptops, routers, switches, hubs and modems.
• In these days, most of the computers and laptops have a built-in Ethernet port for connecting the device to a wired network.

4. Crimping Tool:

• Crimping is the process of joining two or more pieces of metal or wire by deforming one or both of them to hold each other.
• The crimping tool is a physical tool which is used to connect the patch wire and the Ethernet connector.
• The tool will puncture the connector and makes the wire set in the connector.

Question 5.
Explain the types of network cables?
Answer:
There are many types of cables available in the networking.

1. Coaxial Cables:
Ths cable was invented at late 1880’s, which is used to connect the television sets to home antennas. Ths cable is used to transfer the information in 10 mbps. The cable is divided into thin.net and thicknet cables. These cables have a copper wire inside and insulation is covered on the top of the copper wire to provide protection to the cable.

These cables are very difficult to install and maintain, because they are too big to carry and replace. The coaxial cable got its name by the word “coax”. Nowadays coaxial cables are also used for dish TV where the setup box and the television is connected using the coaxial cable only. Some of the cable names are Media Bridge 50-feet Coaxial cable, Amazon basics CL2-Rated Coaxial cables, etc.

2. Twisted Pair Cables:
It is type of cable with two or more insulated wires twisted together. It started with the speed of 10 mbps (10BASE-T cable is used). Then the cable is improved ” and the speed was higher and went to 100 mbps and the cable-was renamed as 100BASE-TX. Then finally the cable improved more made to 10 gbps and named as 10GBASE-T. Ths twisted cable has 8 wires which are twisted to ignore electromagnetic interference.

Also the eight wires cannot be placed in a single unit there could be a difficult in spacious, so it is twisted to make as one wire. There are two types of twisted pair cables, Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted pair (STP). The UTP is used nowadays as modem cables for Internet and they are lower in cost and installation and maintenance is easy compared to the coaxial cables. STP is similar to UTP, but it is covered by an additional jackets to protect the wires from External interference.

3. Fiber Optics:
This cable is different from the other two cables. The other two cables had an insulating material at the outside and the conducting material like copper inside. But in this cable it is of strands of glass and pulse of light is used to send the information. They are mainly used in Wide Area Network (WAN). The WAN is a network that extends to very large distance to connect the computers. One example of WAN is Internet.

These cables are placed in deep underground to avoid any damage to the cables. The optic cable uses light to transmit the information from one place to another. There are two types of fiber optic cables available, One is single-mode (lOOBaseBx) another one is Multimode (lOOBaseSX). Single-mode cables are used for long distance transmission and at a high cost whereas the multimode cables are used for short distance transmission at a very low cost. The optic cables are easy to maintain and install.

4. USB Cables:
The Universal Serial Bus are used to connect keyboard, mouse and other peripheral devices. But there are some special network devices used to connect the Internet through the USB called dongles. The dongle is a small peripheral device which has a compatible of mobile broadband with a sim slot in it and connects the Internet and acts as a modem to the computer.

5. Serial and Parallel cables:
Before In the year of 1980s to 1990s the Ethernet and the USB were not developed. Then the Serial and Parallel interface cables are used to connect the Internet to the system. They were sometime used for PC to PC networking. Before the USB emerged, the system will have both serial port and parallel port.

The serial port will send 1 bit at one time whereas the parallel port will send 8 bit at one time. The parallel cables are used to connect to the printer and other disk drivers. RS232 is one type of serial cable, also known as Null modem cable.

6. Ethernet Cables:
Ethernet cable is the most common type of network cable mainly used for connecting the computers or devices at home or office. This cable connects wired devices within the local area network (LAN) for sharing the resources and accessing Internet.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Network Cabling Additional Question and Answers

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
Which year was the co-axial cables invented?
(a) 1880
(b) 1890
(c) 1990
(d) 2000
Answer:
(a) 1880

Question 2.
Which cable connects television stes to home Antenna’s?
(a) fiber optics
(b) Twistedpair
(c) USB
(d) co-axial
Answer:
(d) co-axial

Question 3.
Co-axial cables transfer the information in …………………………
(a) 10 kbps
(b) 10 mbps
(c) 10 GBPS
(d) 10 TBPS
Answer:
(b) 10 mbps

Question 4.
Co-axial cables are divided into
(I) Thin net
(II) Soft net
(III) Hard net
(IV) Thick net
(a) I, II
(b) II, II
(c) I, IV
(d) II, III, IV
Answer:
(c) I, IV

Question 5.
Co-axial cables are made up of ……………………..
(a) Steel
(b) Iron
(c) Copper
(d) Aluminium
Answer:
(c) Copper

Question 6.
The co-axial cable got its name by the word ………………………
(a) copper axial
(b) combined axial
(c) coaxis
(d) coax
Answer:
(d) coax

Question 7.
…………………….. is a type of cable with two or more insulated wires twisted together.
Answer:
Twisted pair cables

Question 8.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) 10 BASE-T – 10 mbps
(b) 100 BASE-X – 100 MBPS
(c) 10 GBASE-T – 10 gbps
Answer:
(b) 100 BASE-X – 100 MBPS

Question 9.
Assertion (A): 8 wires of twisted cable are twisted
Reason (R): To ignore electromagnetic interference.
(a) A is true R is the reason
(b) A, R both false
(c) A is false R is true
(d) A is true, R is not the reason
Answer:
(a) A is true R is the reason

Question 11.
STP stands for ………………………
(a) Shielded Turn paper
(b) Shielded Twisted pair
(c) Soft Turn Photo
(d) Short Time processing
Answer:
(b) Shielded Twisted pair

Question 12.
Find which is true about UTP?
(i) UTP is low in coast
(ii) easy Installation and maintainance
(iii) covered by Jackets
(a) (i), (iii)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)
(d) All are false
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii)

Question 13.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) coaxial cables – TV
(b) Twisted pair cables – ATP, UTP
(c) Fiber optic cables – Single-mode, Multimode
Answer:
(b) Twisted pair cables – ATP, UTP

Question 14.
How many types of fibre optic cables are available?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 15.
The two types of fibre optic cables are ……………………… and ………………………..
Answer:
Single-mode, Multi-mode

Question 16.
USB stands for …………………………..
Answer:
Universal Serial Bus

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used for connecting keyboard, mouse and other peripheral devices?
(a) USB
(b) coaxial cables
(c) Twisted pair cables
(d) Fiber optic
Answer:
(a) USB

Question 18.
Find the correct statement.
(I) Single mode cables used for long distance
(II) Single mode cables used for short distance
(III) Multimode cables used for long distances .
(IV) Multimode cables used for short distances
(a) I, IV
(b) II, III
(c) II, IV
(d) I, III
Answer:
(a) I, IV

Question 19.
Which is the special network device used to connect the Internet through the USB?
(a) NIC
(b) Ethernet
(c) Dongles
(d) LAN
Answer:
(c) Dongles

Question 20.
What is the data transfer rate of USB 3.0?
(a) 480 Mbps
(b) 320 Mbps
(c) 4.89 Mbps
(d) 4.85Gbps
Answer:
(d) 4.85Gbps

Question 21
…………………… is a miniaturized version of the USB used for connecting mobile devices.
Answer:
Micro USB

Question 22.
The latest version of USB is
(a) USB 2.0
(b) USB 2.5
(c) USB 3.0
(d) USB 3.5
Answer:
(c) USB 3.0

Question 23.
…………………… are used for PC to PC networking.
(a) Serial interface cables
(b) Fibre optic cables
(c) Parallel Interface cables
(d) a and c
Answer:
(d) a and c

Question 24.
The Serial port will send ……………………… bit at one time.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 25.
The parallel port will send …………………………… bit at one time.
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Answer:
(d) 8

Question 26.
Which one of the following is Null modem cable?
(a) CL2
(b) RS 232
(c) RS 322
(d) RS 323
Answer:
(b) RS 232

Question 27.
Which cables are used for connecting printer and other disk drivers?
(a) Serial port
(b) Parallel port
(c) USB
(d) UTP
Answer:
(b) Parallel port

Question 28.
Two PC’s or two network devices of some type are connected bty using cables?
(a) UTP
(b) STP
(c) Fibre optics
(d) Cross over Ethernet
Answer:
(d) Cross over Ethernet

Question 29.
The speed of crossover Ethernet cable is
(a) 100 gbps
(b) 100 mbps
(c) 10 gbps
(d) 10 mbps
Answer:
(c) 10 gbps

Question 30.
A cable interconnecting two devices directly is known as a ……………………….
Answer:
null modem cable

Question 31.
Which one of the following has faster Internet speed?
(a) Wireless Network
(b) Wired Network
(c) both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Wired Network

Question 32.
The number of systems to be introconnected depends on
(a) switches
(b) routers
(c) both a and b
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) both a and b

Question 33.
How many small wires are present inside the patch cables?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 34.
…………………….. is the most popular Ethernet cable.
Answer:
RJ45

Question 35.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Patch cable
(b) rotating tool
(c) crimping tool
(d) RJ45
Answer:
(b) rotating tool

Question 36.
The patch cable has …………………… solid color cables.
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 4

Question 37.
What is the another name of patch cable?
(a) RJ45
(b) crimping
(c) Twisted pair
(d) LAN cable
Answer:
(c) Twisted pair

Question 38.
“cat” stands for
(a) animal
(b) linux commands
(c) catalogue
(d) category
Answer:
(d) category

Question 39.
RJ45 is a ………………………. connector.
Answer:
male

Question 40.
In RJ45, “RJ” stands for ……………………. and 45 indicates ………………………
Answer:
Register Jack, number of interfaces

Question 41.
The Ethernet cables are also called as ……………………. cables.
Answer:
RJ45

Question 42.
RJ45 connector is also called as connector.
(a) 48PC
(b) 8P8C
(c) P8C
(d) 88PC
Answer:
(b) 8P8C

Question 43.
How many pins are there in RJ45 connectors?
(a) 12
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 8

Question 44.
How many wiring schemes are available in RJ45?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 45.
Identify the wiring schemes available in RJ45.
(i) T-568A
(ii) T-568B
(iii) T-568C
(iv) T-568D
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii)

Question 46.
Identify the color which is not present in T-568A?
(a) green
(b) blue
(c) orange
(d) red
Answer:
(d) red

Question 47.
Match the following colour codings.
T- 568A:

1. green (Tx-1)
2. blue
3. orange (Rx-1)
4. brown

T-568B

1. orange (Tx-1)
2. blue
3. green (Rx-1)
4. brown

(a) (i)- 1(ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4
(b) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-2 (iv)-1
(c) (i)-2 (ii)-1 (iii)-4 (iv)-3
(d) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-1 (iv)-2
Answer:
(a) (i)- 1(ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4

Question 48.
(Rx-) in T-568A is ……………………..
Answer:
receiver negative

Question 49.
…………………….. is Transmission negative.
Answer:
(Tx -)

Question 50.
NIC stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Network Interface card

Question 51.
Wireless Ethernet cards uses ……………………… waves to transmit data.
(a) radio
(b) micro
(c) UV
(d) Infrared
Answer:
(a) radio

Question 52.
……………………… is the process of joining two or more pieces of metal or wire by deforming one or both of them to hold each other
Answer:
crimping

Question 53.
The ……………………. tool is used to connect the patch wire and the Ethernet connector.
Answer:
crimping

Question 54.
Who invented Ethernet?
(a) Bob Frankston
(b) Bob Metcalfe
(c) Dan Bricklin
(d) Robert
Answer:
(b) Bob Metcalfe

Question 55.
Ethernet was invented in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1973

Question 56.
PARC stands for ………………………
Answer:
Palo Alto Research Center

Question 57.
The IEEE standard was first published in
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1986
Answer:
(c) 1985

Question 58.
………………………. CSMA/CD means
Answer:
Carrrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection

Question 59.
RJ stands for ………………………..
Answer:
Registered Jacks

Question 60.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) RJ-11
(b) RJ-45
(c) RJ-27
(d) RJ-28
Answer:
(c) RJ-27

Question 61.
The most popular modem form of registered Jack is
(a) RJ-11
(b) RJ-45
(c) RJ-28
(d) RJ-45
Answer:
(a) RJ-11

Question 62.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) RJ-11 – 6 pins
(b) RJ-14 – 18 pins
(c) RJ-61 – 8 pins
(d) RJ-21-50 pins
Answer:
(b) RJ-14 – 18 pins

Question 63.
RJ-21 is otherwise called as ………………………
(i) champ connector
(ii) Amphenol connector
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii)
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii)

Question 64.
Which interface is typically used for data communication trucking applications?
(a) RJ-11
(b) RJ-21
(c) RJ-28
(d) RJ-45
Answer:
(b) RJ-21

Question 65.
How many types of wiring techniques to construct the ethernet cable?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 66.
Match the following
(i) Straight-through wiring – 1. 1 to 1, 2 to 2, 3 to 3
(ii) Cross-over wiring – 2. 1 to 3, 3 to 1, 6 to 2
(iii) Roll-over wiring – 3. 1 to 8, 2 to 7, 3 to 6
(a) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3
(b) (i)-3 (ii)-2 (iii)-1
(c) (i)-2 (ii)-1 (iii)-3
(d) (i)-1 (ii)-3 (iii)-2
Answer:
(a) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3

Question 67.
Roll over cable is also known as
(a) yost cable
(b) console cable
(c) a and b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) a and b

Question 68.
In connectors, TX/RX denotes …………………………
Answer:
Transmit/Receive

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write note on coaxial cables?
Answer:
Coaxial Cables:
This cable was invented at late 1880’s, which is used to connect the television sets to home antennas. This cable is used to transfer the information in 10 mbps.

Question 2.
What is meant by Twisted pair cables?
Answer:
Twisted Pair Cables: It is type of cable with two or more insulated wires twisted together. It started with the speed of 10 mbps (1 OBASE-T cable is used).

Question 3.
Mention the different types of cables used to connect computer on Network?
Answer:
Computers can be connected on the network with the help of wired media (Unshielded Twisted pair, shielded Twisted pair, Co-axial cables and Optical fibre) or wireless media (Infra Red, Bluetooth, WiFi)

Question 4.
Define crimping?
Answer:
Crimping is the process of joining two or more pieces of metal or wire by deforming one or both of them to hold each other.

Question 5.
Give the Pin details of RJ-11?
Answer:
Pin details of the RJ-11, there are 6 pin where the two pins give the transmission configuration, the two pins give the receiver configuration and the other two pins will be kept for reserved. The two pin will have the positive terminal and the negative terminal.

Question 6.
Give some examples for coaxial cables?
Answer:
Some of the cable names are Media Bridge 50-feet Coaxial cable, Amazon basics CL2-Rated Coaxial cables.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Compare UTP and STP?
Answer:
UTP:
The UTP is used nowadays as modem cables for Internet and they are lower in cost and installation and maintenance is easy compared to the coaxial cables.

STP:
STP is similar to UTP, but it is covered by an additional jackets to protect the wires from External interference.

Question 2.
Write note on Fibre optics?
Answer:
IT is of strands of glass and pulse of light is used to send the information. They are mainly used in Wide Area Network (WAN).

Question 3.
What are the uses of serial and parallel cables?
Answer:
Serial and Parallel interface cables are used to connect the Internet to the system. They were sometime used for PC to PC networking. Before the USB emerged, the system will have both serial port and parallel port.

Question 4.
Write about crossover Ethernet cable?
Answer:
The Crossover Ethernet cable is an example of the Null modem Cables. This cable is used to join two PCs or two network devices of the same type. This cable is the sophisticated Ethernet cable used to connect the Internet to the system. This cable works at a speed of 10 gbps and more. The Ethernet crossover cable is identical on both the ends. Nowadays Routers are being connected through the crossover cables to provide wireless network from the local network.

Question 5.
Differentiate Wireless and Wired Networks?
Answer:
Wireless:
Wireless networks enable more devices including mobiles sharing the resources and Internet connections remotely. But Compared to wireless networks, wired networks maintain a faster Internet speed and more secure.

Wired Networks:
Wired networks for larger area are more expensive. Wired networks are still used widely in the offices where need increased speed and secure connections.

Question 6.
What is NIC?
Answer:
Ethernet card is a Network Interface Card (NIC) that allows computers to connect and transmit data to the devices on the network. It may be an expansion card or built-in type.

Question 7.
List the alternative Names given to the following devices, a) Ethernet Technology b) RJ45 connector 4) RJ45 socket d) RJ45 cable?
Answer:
Devices/Technology:

1. Ethernet Technology
2. RJ45 Connector (male)
3. RJ45 socket (female)
4. RJ45 Cable

Alternative Names:

1. RJ45, 802.3 (according to IEEE)
2. RJ45 plug, Ethernet connector, 8P8C connector
3. RJ45 jack, Ethernet Port
4. Ethernet cable

Question 8.
What is RJ?
Answer:
Registered Jacks: A Registered Jack commonly known as RJ is a network interface used for network cabling, wiring and jack construction. The primary function of the registered jack is to connect different data equipment and telecommunication devices. The commonly known registered jacks are RJ-11, RJ-45, RJ-21, andRJ-28.

Question 9.
Write note on Roll-over wiring?
Answer:
Rollover cable is a type of null-modem cable that is often used to connect a device console port to make programming changes to the device. The roll over wiring have opposite pin arrangements, all the cables are rolled over to different arrangements. In the rollover cable, The coloured wires are reversed on other end i.e. The pins on one end are connected with other end in reverse order (i.e. pin 1 to 8, 2 to 7, 3 to 6, 4 to 5, 5 to 4, 6 to 3, 7 to 2, 8 to 1).

Question 10.
How will you determine the type of Ethernet cable?
Answer:
Straight-through:
The coloured wires are in the same sequence at both ends of the cable. Cross-over: The first coloured wire at one end of the cable is the third coloured wire at the other end of the cable.

Question 11.
Write note on straight-through wiring?
Answer:
In general, the Ethernet cables used for Ethernet connections are “straight-through cables”. These cable wires are in the same sequence at both ends of the cable, which means that pin 1 of the plug on one end is connected to pin 1 of the plug on the other end (for both standard – T568A & T568B). the straight through wiring cables are mostly used for connecting PC / NIC card to a hub.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the Crimping process to make Ethernet cables?
Answer:
Crimping process for making Ethernet cables

1. Cut the cable with desired length
2. Strip the insulation sheath about 1 inch from both end of the cable and expose the Twisted pair wires
3. After stripping the wire, untwist the smaller wires and arrange them into the proper wiring scheme, T568B preferred generally.
4. Bring the wires tighter together and cut them down so that they all have the same length ( Vi inch).
5. Insert the all 8 coloured wires into the eight grooves in the connector. The wires should be, inserted until the plastic sheath is also inside the connector.
6. Use the crimping tool to lock the RJ45 connector on the cable. It should be strong enough to handle manual traction. Now it is ready for data transmission.
7. Use a cable tester to verify the proper connectivity of the cable, if need.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 16 Electronic Payment Systems Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 16 Electronic Payment Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Payment Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Based on the monetary value e payment system can be classified into
(a) Mirco and Macro
(b) Micro and Nano
(c) Maximum and Minimum
(d) Maximum and Macro
Answer:
(a) Mirco and Macro

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a category of micro payment?
(a) Buying a movie ticket
(b) Subscription to e journals
(c) Buying a laptop
(d) Paying for smart phone app
Answer:
(c) Buying a laptop

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Micro electronic payment systems support higher value payments.
Reason (R): Expensive cryptographic operations are included in macro payments
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true

Question 4.
Which of the following is correctly matched
(a) Credit Cards – pay before
(b) Debit Cards – pay now
(c) Stored Value Card – pay later
(d) Smart card – pay anytime
Answer:
(b) Debit Cards – pay now

Question 5.
ECS stands for
(a) Electronic Clearing Services
(b) Electronic Cloning Serivces
(c) Electronic Clearing Station
(d) Electornic Cloning Station
Answer:
(a) Electronic Clearing Services

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a Altcoin
(a) Litecoin
(b) Namecoin
(c) Ethereum
(d) Bitcoin
Answer:
(c) Ethereum

Question 7.
Which of the following is true about Virtual payment address (VPA)
(a) Customers can use their e-mail id as VPA
(b) VPA does not includes numbers
(c) VPA is a unique ID
(d) Multiple bank accounts cannot have single VPA
Answer:
(d) Multiple bank accounts cannot have single VPA

Question 8.
Pick the odd one in the credit card transaction
(a) card holder
(b) merchant
(c) marketing manager
(d) acquirer
Answer:
(c) marketing manager

Question 9.
Which of the following is true about debit card
(i) debit cards cannot be used in ATMs
(ii) debit cards cannot be used in online transactions
(iii) debit cards do not need bank accounts
(iv) debit cards and credit cards are identical in physical properties
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii) alone
(d) (iv) alone
Answer:
(d) (iv) alone

Question 10.
Match the following

Answer:
(b) A1-B2, A2-B1, A3-B3, A4-B4

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define electronic payment system?
Answer:
The term electronic payment refers to a payment made from one bank account to another bank account using electronic methods forgoing the direct intervention of bank employees.

Question 2.
Distinguish micro electronic payment and macro electronic payment?
Answer:
Micro Electronic Payment System:

1. Payments of small system amount
2. Less Security
3. Eg. Subscriptions of online games

Macro Electronic Payment System:

1. Payments of higher value
2. Highly Secured
3. Electronic account transfer

Question 3.
List the types of micro electronic payments based on its algorithm?
Answer:

1. Hash chain based micro electronic payment systems.
2. Hash collisions and hash sequences based micro electronic payment systems.
3. Shared secrete keys based micro electronic payment systems.
4. Probability based micro electronic payment systems.

Question 4.
Explain the concept of e-wallet?
Answer:
Electronic wallets (e-wallets) or electronic purses allow users to make electronic transactions quickly and securely over the Internet through smartphones or computers.

Question 5.
What is a fork in cryptocurrency?
Answer:
Many cryptocurrencies operate on the basis of the same source code, in which the authors make only a few minor changes in parameters like time, date, distribution of blocks, number of coins, etc. These currencies are called as fork. In fork, both cryptocurrencies can share a common transaction history in block chain until the split.

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answers

Question 1.
Define micro electronic payment and its role in E-Commerce?
Answer:

1. It is an on-line payment system designed to allow efficient and frequent payments of small amounts.
2. In order to keep transaction costs very low, the communication and computational costs are minimized here.
3. The security of micro electronic payment systems is comparatively low
4. The majority of micro electronic payment systems were designed to pay for simple goods on the Internet, e.g., subscriptions of online games, read journals, listen to a song or watch a movie online etc.

Question 2.
Compare and contrast the credit card and debit card?
Answer:
Credit Card:
A credit card is different from a debit card where the credit card issuer lends money to customer instead of deducting it from customer’s bank account instantly.

Debit Card:
Credit card is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions. A credit card enables the bearer to buy goods or services from a vendor, based on the cardholder’s promise to the card issuer to payback the value later with an agreed interest.

Question 3.
Explain briefly Anatomy of a credit card?
Answer:
Publisher:
Emblem of the issuing bank

Credit card number:
The modem credit card number has 16-digit unique identification number.

Question 4.
Briefly explain the stored value card and its types?
Answer:
(i) Closed loop (single purpose):
In closed loop cards, money is metaphorically stored on the card in the form of binary- coded data. e.g. chennai metro rail travel card.

(ii) Open loop (multipurpose):
It is also called as prepaid-debit cards, e.g. Visa gift cards.

Question 5.
Write a note on mining in cryptocurrency?
Answer:
Mining:
The cryptocurrency units are created by the solution of cryptographic tasks called mining. The miners not only generate new monetary units, but also initiate new transactions to the blockchain. As a reward, they will receive new Bitcoins.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
What is credit card? Explain the key players of a credit card payment system and bring out the merits of it?
Answer:
Credit Card:
Credit card is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions. A credit card enables the bearer to buy goods or services from a vendor, based on the cardholder’s promise to the card issuer to payback the value later with an agreed interest. Every credit card account has a purchase limit set by the issuing bank or the firm. A credit card is different from a debit card where the credit card issuer lends money to customer instead of deducting it from customer’s bank account instantly.

The term credit card was first mentioned in 1887 in the sci-fi novel “Looking Backward” by Edward Bellamy. The modem credit cards concept was bom in the U.S.A, in the 1920s, when private companies began to issue cards to enable their customers to purchase goods on credit within their own premises.

Advantages of credit card:

1. Most credit cards are accepted worldwide.
2. It is not necessary to pay physical money at the time of purchase. The customer gets an extra period to pay the purchase.
3. Depending on the card, there is no need to pay annuity.
4. Allows purchases over the Internet in installments.
5. Some issuers allows “round up” the purchase price and pay the difference in cash to make the transactions easy.

Key players in operations of credit card:
1. Bearer:
The holder of the credit card account who is responsible for payment of invoices in full (transactor) or a portion of the balance (revolver) the rest accrues interest and carried forward.

2. Merchant:
Storekeeper or vendor who sell or providing service, receiving payment made by its customers through the credit card.

3. Acquirer:
Merchant’s bank that is responsible for receiving payment on behalf of merchant send authorization requests to the issuing bank through the appropriate channels.

4. Credit Card Network:
It acts as the intermediate between the banks. The Company responsible for communicating the transaction between the acquirer and the credit card issuer. These entities operate
the networks that process credit card payments worldwide and levy interchange fees. E.g. Visa, MasterCard, Rupay

5. Issuer:
Bearer’s bank, that issue the credit card, set limit of purchases, decides the approval – of transactions, issue invoices for payment, charges the holders in case of default and offer card-linked products such as insurance, additional cards and rewards plan.

Question 2.
Briefly explain Electronic Account transfer and its types?
Answer:
With the advent of computers, network technologies and electronic communications a large number of alternative electronic payment systems have emerged. These include ECS (Electronic Clearing Services), EFT (Electronic funds transfers), Real Time Gross Settlement system (RTGS) etc.

1. Electronic Clearing Services (ECS):
Electronic Clearing Service can be defined as repeated transfer of funds from one bank account to multiple bank accounts or vice versa using computer and Internet technology. Advantages of this system are bulk payments, guaranteed payments and no need to remember payment dates. ECS can be used for both credit and debit purposes i.e. for making bulk payments or bulk collection of amounts.

2. ECS credit:
ECS credit is used for making bulk payment of amounts. In this mode, a single account is debited and multiple accounts are credited. This type of transactions are Push transactions. Example: if a company has to pay salary to its 100 employees it can use ECS credit system than crediting every employees’ account separately.

3. ECS debit:
ECS debit is an inverse of ECS credit. It is used for bulk collection of amounts. In this mode, multiple accounts are debited and then a single account is credited. This type of transactions are Pull transactions. Example: The insurance premium of bulk number of customers

4. Electronic Funds Transfer:
Electronic Funds Transfer (EFT) is the “electronic transfer” of money over an online network. The amount sent from the sender’s bank branch is credited to the receiver’s bank branch on the same day in batches.

5. Real Time Gross Settlement:
Real Time Gross Settlement system (RTGS) is a payment system particularly used for the settlement of transactions between financial institutions, especially banks.

Real-time gross settlement transactions are:

1. Unconditional – the beneficiary will receive funds regardless of whether he 242 fulfills his obligations to the buyer or whether he would deliver the goods or perform a service of a quality consistent with the order.

2. Irrevocable – a correctly processed transaction cannot be reversed and its money cannot get refunded (the so-called settlement finality).

Question 3.
Write a note on
(a) Internet banking
(b) Mobile banking

(a) Internet banking:
Internet banking is a collective term for E-banking, online banking, virtual banking (operates only on the Internet with no physical branches), direct banks, web banking and remote banking. Internet banking allows customers of a financial institution to conduct various financial transactions on a secure website operated by the banking institutions. This is a very fast and convenient way of performing any banking transactions.

It enables customers of a bank to conduct a wide range of financial transactions through its website. In fact, it is like a branch exclusively operating of an individual customer. The online banking system will typically connect to the core banking system operated by customers themselves (Self-service banking).

Advantages:

1. The advantages of Internet banking are that the payments are made at the convenience of the account holder and are secured by user name and password, i.e. with Internet access it can be used from anywhere in the world and at any time.
2. Any standard browser (e.g. Google Chrome) is adequate. Internet banking does not need .installing any additional software.

(b) Mobile banking:
Mobile banking is another form of net banking. The term mobile banking (also called m-banking) refers to the services provided by the bank to the customer to conduct banking transactions with the aid of mobile phones. These transactions include balance checking, account transfers, payments, purchases, etc.

Transactions can be done at any time and anywhere. The WAP protocol installed on a mobile phone qualifies the device through an appropriate application for mobile session establishment with the bank’s website. In this way, the user has the option of permanent control over the account and remote management of his own finances. Mobile Banking operations can be implemented in the following ways:

• Contacting the call center.
• Automatic IVR telephone service.
• Using a mobile phone via SMS.
• WAP technology.
• Using smartphone applications.

Question 4.
What is cryptocurrency? Explain the same?
Answer:
Cryptocurrency:

• People have always valued unique and irreplaceable things. A unique thing always has a demand and acclaims a price.
• A cryptocurrency is a unique virtual (digital) asset designed to work as a medium of exchange using cryptographic algorithm.
• This algorithm secures the transactions by recording it in blockchain and controls the creation of additional units of the currency.
• Cryptocurrency is also called as cryptocoins, e-cash, alternative currencies or virtual currencies and are classified as a subset of digital currencies.
• Cryptocurrency can be defined as distributed accounting system based on cryptography, storing information about the state of ownership in conventional units.
• The state of ownership of a cryptocurrency is related to individual system blocks called “portfolios”.
• Only the holder of the corresponding private key would have control over a given portfolio and it is impossible to issue the same unit twice.
• The function of cryptocurrency is based on technologies such as Mining, Blockchain, Directed Acyclic Graph, Distributed register (ledger), etc. The information about the . transaction is usually not encrypted and is available in clear text.

Bitcoin:
Bitcoin is the most popular and the first decentralized cryptocurrency. Bitcoin is the most popular cryptocurrency, but there are many other cryptocurrencies, which are referred to as “altcoins”.

Altcoins:

1. Altcoins is the collective name for all cryptocurrencies that appeared after Bitcoin. The early Altcoins Litecoin and Namecoin appeared in 2011.
2. From 2014, the 2nd generation of cryptocurrency appeared, such as Monero, Ethereum and Nxt. These crypto-coins have advanced features such as hidden addresses and smart contracts.
3. In terms of trade, the creation of cryptocurrencies may be related to the ICO (Initial Coin Offer) procedure.

Block chain:

• Block chains are an open distributed book that records transactions of cryptocurrencies between any two parties in an efficient and verifiable manner.
• It is a continuously growing list of records, called blocks, which are linked to each other and protected using encryption algorithm.
  Each block typically contains a hash pointer as a link to a previous block. It records data about every transaction with its date and time.
• Once recorded, the data in any given block cannot be altered without the alteration of all subsequent blocks.

Question 5.
Explain in detail: Unified payments interface?
Answer:
(i) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NCPI) to facilitate inter-bank transactions.

(ii) It is simple, secure and instant payment facility. This interface is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India and used for transferring funds instantly between two bank accounts through mobile (platform) devices. http://www. npci.org.in/

(iii) Unlike traditional e-wallets, which take a specified amount of money from user and store it in its own account, UPI withdraws and deposits funds directly from the bank account whenever a transaction is requested.

(iv) It also provides the “peer to peer” collect request which can be scheduled and paid as per requirement and convenience.

(v) UPI is developed on the basis of Immediate Payment Service (IMPS). To initiate a transaction, UPI applications use two types of address – global and local.

• Global address includes bank account numbers and IFSC.
• Local address is a virtual payment address.

(vi) Virtual payment address (VPA) also called as UPI-ID, is a unique ID similar to email id
(e.g. name@bankname) enable us to send and receive money from multiple banks and prepaid payment issuers.

(vii) Bank or the financial institution allows the customer to generate VPA using phone number associated with Aadhaar number and bank account number. VPA replaces bank account details thereby completely hides critical information.

(Viii) The MPIN (Mobile banking Personal Identification number) is required to confirm each payment. UPI allows operating multiple bank accounts in a single mobile application.

(ix) Some UPI application also allows customers to initiate the transaction using only Aadhaar number in absence VPA.

Advantages:

1. Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24 × 7.
2. Can use single mobile application for accessing multiple bank accounts.
3. Single Click Authentication for transferring of fund.
4. It is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number, IFSC etc. for every transaction.
5. Electronic payments will become much easier without requiring a digital wallet or credit or debit card.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Payment Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
An electronic payment system is also called as …………………….
(a) liquidation
(b) clearing system
(c) clearing services
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 2.
The electronic payment systems are classified into …………………….. types
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 3.
I: Micro Electronic payments are expensive public key cryptography.
II: Security of Micro Electronic Payment is low
(a) t-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) Both I, II are true
(d) Both I, II-False
Answer:
(b) I-False, II-True

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out
(a) read journals
(b) listen to a song
(c) watch a movie online
(d) Internet payment systems
Answer:
(d) Internet payment systems

Question 5.
…………………….. are plastic cards that enable cashless payments.
Answer:
Payment Cards

Question 6.
How many card based payment systems are available (based on the transaction settlement method)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 7.
How many micro electronic payments systems are there based on simple cryptographic algorithms?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 8.
……………………… is an electronic payment system normally used for retail transactions.
Answer:
Credit Card

Question 9.
The term credit card was first mentioned in the novel by ……………………..
Answer:
Edward Beltamy

Question 10.
The term credit card was first mentioned in the sci-fi novel ………………………
(a) Looking Backward
(b) Arrival
(c) Interstellar
(d) Altered States
Answer:
(a) Looking Backward

Question 11.
The term credit cad was first mentioned in the sci-fi normal in the year ………………………
(a) 1997
(b) 1887
(c) 1987
(d) 1897
Answer:
(b) 1887

Question 12.
The plastic cards was introduced in the year ……………………..
(a) 1957
(b) 1597
(c) 1955
(d) 1855
Answer:
(c) 1955

Question 13.
Who created Diners Club Card?
(i) Frank McNamara
(ii) Ralph Schneider
(iii) Edward Bellamy
(a) (i), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii)

Question 14.
The Diners Club Card was created in the year …………………………
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
(d) 1965
Answer:
(a) 1950

Question 15.
Initially the Diners Club Card was made of ……………………..
(a) paper-cardboard
(b) plastic
(c) wood
(d) metal
Answer:
(a) paper-cardboard

Question 16.
(I) The Diners Club Card was accepted only in 25 restaurants (initially).
(II) From 1965, the card was made of plastic.
(a) I-True, II-False
(b) I-False, II-True
(c) I, II-both True
(d) I, II-both are false
Answer:
(d) I, II-both are false

Question 17.
How many key players are there in the operation of credit card?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 18.
The ……………………. is the holder of the credit card account.
Answer:
Bearer

Question 19.
……………………. Network acts as the Intermediate between the banks.
Answer:
Credit Card

Question 20.
The credit card limit, approval of transactions, default charges are issued by
(a) issuer
(b) Merchant
(c) Acquirer
(d) Bearer
Answer:
(a) issuer

Question 21.
Match the following (description of payment cards)
(i) width – 1.2.88 mm – 3.48 mm
(ii) height – 2. 53.98 mm
(iii) radius – 3. 85.60 mm
(iv) thickness – 4.0.76 mm
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4
(b) (i)-1, (ii)-2, (iii)-3, (iv)-4
(c) (i)-4, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-3
(d) (i)-2, (ii)- 1, (iii)-4, (iv)-3
Answer:
(a) (i)-3, (ii)-2, (iii)-1, (iv)-4

Question 22.
The credit card number has ……………………. digit unique identification number
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 15
(d) 20
Answer:
(b) 16

Question 27.
EMV means ………………………
Answer:
europay, Mastercard, Visa

Question 28.
EMV is categorized into ………………………
Answer:
chip and signature, chip and PIN

Question 29.
How many curved lines are there in RFID symbol?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 12
(d) 16
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 30.
……………………. is Ipdian domestic open loop card.
Answer:
Rupay

Question 31.
Rupay was launched in the year
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2009
(d) 2012
Answer:
(d) 2012

Question 32.
Which is a credit card security feature to prevent duplication?
(a) logo
(b) Hologram
(c) signature
(d) CW
Answer:
(b) Hologram

Question 33.
CVC/CW means ………………….
Answer:
Card Verification Code/ Value

Question 34.
Which is used in contact less transactions.
(a) CVC2
(b) EMV
(c) RFID
(d) PIN
Answer:
(a) CVC2

Question 35.
……………………… is a 3 digit code printed to the left of signature pane to validate the card.
Answer:
CVC/CVV

Question 36.
How many ways of processing debit card transactions are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 37.
Which card is an electronic payment card where the transaction amount is deducted from the card holders Bank account?
(a) Credit card
(b) Debit card
(c) Smart card
(d) Paytm card
Answer:
(b) Debit card

Question 38.
Which is also known as online debit or PIN debit?
(a) EFTPOS
(b) POSEFT
(c) FETPOS
(d) FETSOP
Answer:
(a) EFTPOS

Question 39.
……………………. is a type of debit card that is preloaded with certain amount.
Answer:
Stored value card

Question 40.
Which is true regarding stored value cards?
(i) It has default monetary value onto it.
(ii) The card may be disposed when the value is used.
(iii) It is used to make offline purchases
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (i), (ii)
(d) (iii) alone
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)

Question 41.
How many varieties of stored value card are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 42.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) closed loop cards
(b) open loop cards
(c) prepaid-debit cards
(d) visa gift cards
Answer:
(a) closed loop cards

Question 43.
In which of the following cards in binary coded metaphorically stored on the card in binary coded data form?
(a) open loop cards
(b) prepaid-debit cards
(c) closed loop cards
(d) visa gift cards
Answer:
(c) closed loop cards

Question 44.
Which of the following is not the advantage of smart cards?
(a) Identification
(b) RFID
(c) datastorage
(d) application processing
Answer:
(b) RFID

Question 45.
Smart cards are classified into ……………………. types.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 46.
The two classifications of smart cards are ……………………… and ………………….. smart cards.
Answer:
contact and contactless

Question 47.
POS stands for ………………………
Answer:
Point of Sale

Question 48.
Contact smart cards have a contact area of approximately ……………………….
(a) 1 cms²
(b) 10 cms²
(c) 1 mm²
(d) 1 hectares
Answer:
(a) 1 cms²

Question 49.
Find the statements which is not true?
(I) contact smart cards uses RF induction Technology
(II) smarts have Internal power Source
(III) Inductor is used to capture radio-frequency signal
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, II
(d) III
Answer:
(c) I, II

Question 50.
Which technology is used in contactless smart cards.
(a) UV Induction
(b) RF Induction
(c) RFID
(d) IRID
Answer:
(b) RF Induction

Question 51.
EFT means ………………………
Answer:
Electronic Funds Transfers

Question 52.
RTGS means …………………….
Answer:
Real Time Gross Settlement System

Question 53.
ECS ………………….. is used for making bulk payment of amounts.
Answer:
credit

Question 54.
ECS ………………….. is used for bulk collection of amounts.
Answer:
debit

Question 55.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) EFPOS – PIN debit
(b) Offline debit – Signature debit
(c) ECS credit – Push transactions
(d) ECS debit – Pull transactions
Answer:
(a) EFPOS – PIN debit

Question 56.
EFT means
(a) National Electronic Fund Transactions
(b) National Electronic Fund Transfer
(c) National Electronic Finance Technology
(d) National Electronic Financial Transactions
Answer:
(b) National Electronic Fund Transfer

Question 57.
RBI means ……………………..
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India

Question 58.
IDRBT stands for ……………………
Answer:
Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology

Question 59.
NEFT initiated in the year ……………………..
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2005
(d) 2009
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 60.
Which one of the following enables bank customer to transfer funds between any two banks?
(a) EFT
(b) NEFT
(c) EMI
(d) ECS
Answer:
(b) NEFT

Question 61.
…………………… payments are generally large-value payments
Answer:
RTGS

Question 62.
…………………… is the electronic transfer of money over an online network
Answer:
EFT

Question 63.
Which one of the following is the currency that flows in the form of data?
(a) RTGS
(b) EFT
(c) ECS
(d) E-cash
Answer:
(d) E-cash

Question 64.
Cryptocurrency is also called as …………………..
(a) Cryptocoins
(b) e-cahs
(c) virtual currencies
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 65.
The state of ownership of a cryptocurrency is related to individual system blocks called ………………………
(a) portfolios
(b) virtual asset
(c) erytography
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) portfolios

Question 66.
What are the technologies used in cryptocurrency?
(a) Mining
(b) block chain
(c) Directed Acyclic Graph
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 67.
The first form of cryptocurrency is ……………………….
(a) Digicash
(b) D-cash
(c) E-cash
(d) Crypto cash
Answer:
(a) Digicash

Question 68.
“Digicash” was invented by …………………….
Answer:
David Chaum

Question 69.
Digicash was invented in the year ………………………
(a) 1978
(b) 1980
(c) 1985
(d) 1989
Answer:
(d) 1989

Question 70.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Digicash- 1989
(b) Bitcoin- 2009
(c) SHA-254-crytographic Hash function
(d) Altcoin – 2011
Answer:
(c) SHA-254-crytographic Hash function

Question 71.
Which is the most popular and the first decentralized cryptocurrency?
(a) Digicash
(b) Bitcoin
(c) Altcoins
(d) block chain
Answer:
(b) Bitcoin

Question 72.
Bitcoin payment system was developed under the pseudonym ……………………….
Answer:
Satosi Nakamoto

Question 73.
………………….. was developed to build alternative root DNS servers.
Answer:
Namecoin

Question 74.
Which cryptocurrency has a higher transaction rate?
(a) Altcoin
(b) Litecoin
(c) Bitcoin
(d) Namecoin
Answer:
(b) Litecoin

Question 75.
Making few minor changes in the parameters of cryptocurrency is called ………………………..
(a) altoin
(b) Block
(c) Blockchain
(d) Fork
Answer:
(d) Fork

Question 76.
As the value of altcoins becomes ………………….. it is considered as dead.
(a) Null
(b) 0
(c) infinity
(d) negative
Answer:
(b) 0

Question 77.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Bitshares
(b) Mastercoin
(c) Ripple
(d) Nxt
Answer:
(c) Ripple

Question 78.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Monera
(b) Nxt
(c) Ethereum
(d) Mastercoin
Answer:
(d) Mastercoin

Question 79.
The Cryptocurrency units are created by the solution of cryptographic tasks called ………………………..
(a) mining
(b) Block chain
(c) Hash
(d) Brick and Mortar
Answer:
(a) mining

Question 80.
Find the statements which are not true.
(i) The miners generate new monetary units
(ii) Miners doesh’t initiate new transactions
(iii) Miners receive new Bitcoins
(a) (i)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) All are true
Answer:
(c) (ii)

Question 81.
ICO means ……………………….
Answer:
Intial coin offer

Question 82.
Which one of the following are an open distributed book that records transactions of crypto currencies?
(a) mining
(b) e-wallets
(c) ICO
(d) Block chains
Answer:
(d) Block chains

Question 83.
Each block in the block chain contains ………………….. pointer
(a) dash
(b) hash
(c) memory
(d) link
Answer:
(b) hash

Question 84.
Which one of the following is an electronic wallet services?
(a) paypal
(b) block chain
(c) mining
(d) hash
Answer:
(a) paypal

Question 85.
The term mobile banking is also called ………………………
Answer:
m-banking

Question 86.
……………………. operates only on the Internet with no physical branches.
Answer:
virtual banking

Question 87.
OTP means ……………………….
Answer:
One-Time Password

Question 88.
PJN means ……………………
Answer:
Personal Identification Number

Question 89.
ACHmeans …………………….
Answer:
Automated Clearing Home

Question 90.
IFSC stands for ……………………
Answer:
Indian Financial System Code

Question 91.
……………………… is an 11 digit alpha-numeric code issued Reserve Bank of India
(a) IIT
(b) IIM
(c) IFSC
(d) IFCS
Answer:
(c) IFSC

Question 92.
UPI means ………………………
Answer:
Unified Payments

Question 93.
NCPI means …………………..
Answer:
National Payments Corporation of India

Question 94.
Unified Payments Interface is a real time payment system developed by NCPI to facilitate inter-bank transactions.
Answer:
Unified Payments Interface

Question 95.
IMPS stands for ………………………
Answer:
Immediate Payment Service

Question 96.
UPI applications …………………………. types of address.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 97.
UPI applications are classified into two types of addresses like …………………….. and ……………………
Answer:
global and local

Question 98.
Which address in UPI is a virtual payment address?
(a) Global
(b) local
(c) private
(d) public
Answer:
(b) local

Question 99.
………………… also called as UPI-ID.
Answer:
Virtual Payment Address(VPA)

Question 100.
MPIN means ……………………..
Answer:
Mobile Banking Personal Identification Number

Question 101.
USSD means …………………..
Answer:
Unstructured Supplementary Service Data

Question 102.
COD means …………………..
Answer:
Cash on Delivery

Question 103.
BHIM stands for …………………….
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money

Question 104.
NPCI means …………………….
Answer:
National Payments Corporation of India

Question 105.
BHIM is an exclusive mobile app for UPI developed by ……………………..
(a) 2014
(b) 2015
(c) 2016
(d) 2017
Answer:
(c) 2016

Question 106.
……………………. is a type of fraud where same cryptocurrency is spent in more than one transactions.
Answer:
Double Spend

Question 107.
RThs are …………………. and ……………………
Answer:
Unconditional, Irrevocable

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Write note on payment cards?
Answer:
Payment cards are plastic cards that enable cashless payments. They are simple embossed plastic card that authenticates the card holder on behalf of card issuing company, which allows the user to make use of various financial services.

Question 2.
Give some examples for macro online payment systems?
Answer:
Some of the popular macro on-line payment systems are mentioned below:

1. Card based payment systems
2. Electronic account transfer
3. Electronic cash payment systems
4. Mobile payment systems and internet payment systems

Question 3.
Write note on E-cash?
Answer:
Electronic cash is (E-Cash) is a currency that flows in the form of data. It converts the cash value into a series of encrypted sequence numbers, and uses these serial numbers to represent the market value of various currencies in reality.

Question 4.
Mention the advantages of UPI?
Answer:

1. Immediate money transfers through mobile device round the clock 24 × 7.
2. Can use single mobile application for accessing multiple bank accounts,
3. Single Click Authentication for transferring of fund.
4. It is not required to enter the details such as Card no, Account number, IFSC etc. for every transaction.
5. Electronic payments will become much easier without requiring a digital wallet or credit or debit card.

Question 5.
Define COD?
Answer:
Cash on delivery (COD) also called as collection on delivery, describes a mode of payment in which the payment is made only on receipt of goods rather in advance.

Question 6.
Define BHIM?
Answer:
Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is an exclusive mobile app for UPI developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) and launched on 30 December 2016. It is intended to facilitate e-payments directly through banks and drive towards cashless transactions.

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
How will you do the Micro electronic payment transactions?
Answer:
In general, the parties involved in the micro on-line payments are Customer, Service Provider and Payment processor. The Micro electronic payment transactions can be explained in the following way.

Step 1:
Customer proves his authentication and the payment processor issues micro payments.

Step 2:
Customer pays the micro payments to the online service provider and gets the requested goods or services form them.

Step 3:
Service provider deposits micro payments received from the customer to the payment processor and gets the money.

Question 2.
Mention the three types of card based payment systems?
Answer:
Based on the transaction settlement method there are three widely used card based payment systems. They are:

1. Credit card based payment systems (pay later)
2. Debit card based payment systems (pay now)
3. Stored value card based payment systems (pay before)

Question 3.
Mention the advantages of credit card?
Answer:
Advantages of credit card:

1. Most credit cards are accepted worldwide.
2. It is not necessary to pay physical money at the time of purchase. The customer gets an extra period to pay the purchase.
3. Depending on the card, there is no need to pay annuity.
4. Allows purchases over the Internet in installments.
5. Some issuers allows “round up” the purchase price and pay the difference in cash to make the transactions easy.

Question 4.
Write note on ‘The Diner Club Card’?
Answer:
In February 1950, Frank McNamara and Ralph Schneider created The Diners Club card which was made of paper-cardboard. Initially The card was accepted in only 27 restaurants From 1955, the card was made of plastic. The Diners Club still exists today under the name Diners Club International.

Question 5.
Write note on Anatomy of a Credit Card?
Answer:
All Payment cards (including debit card) are usually plastic cards of size 85.60 mm width x 53.98 mm height, rounded comers with a radius of 2.88 mm to 3.48 mm and thickness of 0.76 mm.

Question 6.
Write note on Credit Card number?
Answer:
Credit card number:
The modem credit card number has 16-digit unique identification number.

Question 7.
Mention the three ways of processing debit card transactions?
Answer:
There are three ways of processing debit card transactions:

1. EFTPOS (also known as online debit or PIN debit)
2. Offline debit (also known as signature debit)
3. Electronic Purse Card System

Question 8.
Mention the major advantage of stored value card?
Answer:
The major advantage of stored value card is that customers don’t need to have a bank account to get prepaid cards.

Question 9.
Write note on Smart Card?
Answer:
Smart cards along with the regular features of any card based payment system holds a EMV chip. This chip is similar to well-known sim card in appearance.

Question 10.
Mention the advantages of Smart Cards?
Answer:
The advantage of Smart cards is that it can provide identification, authentication, data storage and application processing.

Question 11.
Write note on ECS debit?
Answer:
ECS debit:
ECS debit is an inverse of ECS credit. It is used for bulk collection of amounts. In this mode, multiple accounts are debited and then a single account is credited. This type of transactions are Pull transactions. Example: The insurance premium of bulk number of customers.

Question 12.
Write note on NEFT?
Answer:
(NEFT) is an electronic funds transfer system initiated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in – November 2005. NEFT enables a bank customer to transfer funds between any two NEFT- enabled bank accounts on a one-to-one basis. It is done via electronic messages.

Question 13.
Give the two types of Real-time gross settlement transactions?
Answer:
Real-time gross settlement transactions are:
Unconditional – the beneficiary will receive funds regardless of whether he fulfills his obligations to the buyer or whether he would deliver the goods or perform a service of a quality consistent with the order.

Irrevocable – a correctly processed transaction cannot be reversed and its money cannot get refunded (the so-called settlement finality).

Question 14.
How are the Mobile Banking operations implemented?
Answer:
Mobile Banking operations can be implemented in the following ways:

1. Contacting the call center.
2. Automatic IVR telephone service.
3. Using a mobile phone via SMS.
4. WAP technology
5. Using smartphone applications.

Question 15.
Mention advantages of Internet Banking?
Answer:
1. The advantages of Internet banking are that the payments are made at the convenience of the account holder and are secured by user name and password, i.e. with Internet access it can be used from anywhere in the world and at any time.

2. Any standard browser (e.g. Google Chrome) is adequate. Internet banking does not need installing any additional software.

Question 16.
Explain the two types of addresses in UPI applications?
Answer:
UPI applications use two types of address – global and local.

1. Global address includes bank account numbers and IFSC.
2. Local address is a virtual payment address.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain Debit Card?
Answer:
Debit Card:
Debit Card is an electronic payment card where the transaction amount is deducted directly from the card holder’s bank account upon authorization.

Generally, debit cards function as ATM cards and act as a substitute for cash The way of using debit cards and credit cards is generally the same but unlike credit cards, payments using a debit card are immediately transferred from the cardholder’s designated bank account, instead of them paying the money back at a later with added interest. In modem era the use of debit cards has become so widespread’.

The debit card and credit card are identical in their physical properties. It is difficult to differentiate two by their appearance unless they have the term credit or debit imprinted. Currently there are three ways of processing debit card transactions:

1. EFTPOS (also known as online debit or PIN debit)
2. Offline debit (also known as signature debit)
3. Electronic Purse Card System 2. Explain Smart

Question 2.
Explain Smart Card?
Answer:
Smart card:
The modem version of card based payment is smart cards. Smart cards along with the regular features of any card based payment system holds a EMV chip.

This chip is similar to well-known sim card in appearance but differ in its functionalities. The advantage of Smart cards is that it can provide identification, authentication, data storage and application processing. Smart cards can be classified into Contact smart cards and Contactless smart, Contact Smart card & POS cards.

(i) Contact smart cards:
Contact smart cards have a contact area of approximately 1 square centimeter, comprising several gold – plated contact pads. These pads provide electrical connectivity only when inserted into a reader, which is also used as a communications medium between the smart card and a host. e.g. a point of sale terminal(POS).

(ii) Contactless smart cards:
Contactless smart card is empowered by RF induction technology. Unlike contact smart cards, these cards require only near proximity to an antenna to communicate. Smart cards, whether they are contact or contactless cards do not have an internal power source. Instead, they use an inductor to capture some of the interrupting radio-frequency signal, rectify it and power the card’s processes.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 15 E-Commerce Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 15 E-Commerce

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications E-Commerce Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A company can be called E-Business if
(a) it has many branches across the world.
(b) it conduct business electronically over the Internet.
(c) it sells commodities to a foreign country.
(d) it has many employees.
Answer:
(b) it conduct business electronically over the Internet.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not a tangible good?
(a) Mobile
(b) Mobile Apps
(c) Medicine
(d) Flower bouquet
Answer:
(b) Mobile Apps

Question 3.
SME stands for
(a) Small and medium sized enterprises
(b) Simple and medium enterprises .
(c) Sound messaging enterprises
(d) Short messaging enterprises
Answer:
(a) Small and medium sized enterprises

Question 4.
The dotcom phenomenon deals with
(a) Textile industries
(b) Mobile phone companies
(c) Internet based companies
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Internet based companies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not correctly matched.
(a) The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1985-1990
(b) The Second Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2004 – 2009
(c) The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present
(d) Dotcom burst: 2000 – 2002
Answer:
(a) The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1985-1990

Question 6.
Assertion (A): The websites of first wave dotcom companies were only in English
Reason (R): The dotcom companies of first wave are mostly American companies.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true and (R) is false
(d) (A) is false and (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Question 7.
Off-shoring means
(a) Work outsourced to a branch of its own company
(b) Work outsourced to new employees
(c) Work outsourced to a third party locally
(d) Work outsourced to a third party outside its own country
Answer:
(b) Work outsourced to new employees

Question 8.
G2G systems are classified into
(a) International facing and external facing
(b) Internet facing and Extranet facing
(c) Internal flag and external flag
(d) Internet flag and Extranet flag
Answer:
(a) International facing and external facing

Question 9.
……………………. host the e-books on their websites.
(a) Bulk-buying sites
(b) Community sites
(c) Digital publishing sites
(d) Licensing sites
Answer:
(c) Digital publishing sites

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a characteristics of E-Commerce?
(a) Products cannot be inspected physically before purchase.
(b) Goods are delivered instantly.
(c) Resource focus supply side
(d) Scope of business is global.
Answer:
(c) Resource focus supply side

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define E-Commerce?
Answer:
E-Commerce can be described as the process of buying or selling products, services or information via computer networks.

Question 2.
Distinguish between E-Business and E-Commerce?
Answer:
E-Business:
E-Business is grounded on technologies such as Network Infrastructures (like Internet, Intranet, Extranet), Multimedia content & network publishing infrastructures (like HTML), Messaging & information distribution infrastructures (e-mail), and other Common business service infrastructures (Online Transaction Processing).

E-Commerce:
E-Commerce is commercial transaction through Internet, but E-Business entirely depends on the Internet for its every intra-company and inter-company activities such as marketing, fiance, manufacturing, selling.

Question 3.
Differentiate tangible goods and electronic goods with example of your own?
Answer:
Tangible goods:
Tangible form – e.g. a digital camera purchased by a consumer from an online. shopping website which might be delivered at the requested address.

Electronic goods:
Electronic form – e.g. a music album or a software downloaded from a site which might be delivered in electronic form.

Question 4.
What is dotcom bubble and dotcom burst?
Answer:
Dotcom Bubble:
1. The Dotcom Bubble was a historic excessive growth (excessive assumption) of economy that occurred roughly between 1995 and 2000.

2. During the dotcom bubble, the value of equity markets grew exponentially with the NASDAQ composite index of US stock market rising from under 1000 points to more than 5000 points.
Dotcom Burst

3. The Nasdaq-Composite stock market index, fell from 5046.86 to 1114.11. This is infamously, known as the Dotcom Crash or Dotcom Burst.

4. This began on March 11,2000 and lasted until October 9,2002. During the crash, thousands of online shopping companies, like as Pets.com failed and shut down.

Question 5.
Write a short note on out-sourcing?
Answer:
Out-sourcing are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.

PART – III
Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Describe how E-Commerce is related to socio-technological changes?
Answer:
Growth of E-Commerce is also related to the socio-technological changes. The more, the medium becomes deep-rooted, the more, are the users drawn towards it. Increase of users, increases the markets. As the markets expand, more business organizations are attracted. The more businesses accumulate it create competition. The competition leads to innovation; innovation in turn drives the development of technology; technology facilitates E-Commerce’s growth.

Question 2.
Write a short note on the third wave of E-Commerce?
Answer:
The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present
1. The third wave is brought on by the mobile technologies. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions, mobile technologies.

2. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions.

3. Not only the information is filtered by time, but also the geographic coordinates are used to screen the specific location-tailored information properly.

4. The term Web 3.0, summarize the various characteristics of the future Internet which include Artificial Intelligence, Semantic Web, Generic Database etc.

Question 3.
Explain B2B module in E-Commerce?
Business to Business (B2B)
Answer:
In B2B E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between different business organizations, through the Internet. For example, a cycle company may buy tyres from another company for their cycles. When compared to other models, the value per transaction in B2B transaction is high, because of bulk purchases. The company also might get the advantage of discounts on bulk purchases.
Out-sourcing and Off-shoring are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce.

1. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.
2. If the work is outsourced to a company, which is outside of its own country, is termed as off-shoring.

Question 4.
Write a note on name-your-price websites?
Answer:
Name-your-price sites are just like normal retail sites. In contrast, the buyer negotiates with the retailer for a particular product or service, https://in.hotels.com/

Question 5.
Write a note on physical product dispute of E-Commerce?
Answer:
Physical product disputes are a major disadvantage in E-Commerce. E-Commerce purchases are often made on trust. This is because, we do not have physical access to the product. Through Internet is an effective channel for visual and auditory information it does not allow full scope for our senses.

We can see pictures of the perfumes, but could not smell their fragrance; we can see pictures of a cloth, but not its quality. If we want to inspect something, we choose what we look at and how we look at it. But in online shopping, we would see only the pictures the seller had chosen for us. People are often much more comfortable in buying the generic goods (that they have seen or experienced before and in which there is little ambiguity) rather than unique or complex things via the Internet.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Write about the development and growth of Electronic Commerce?
Answer:
The Development and Growth of Electronic Commerce:
Economists describe four distinct waves (or phases) that occurred in the Industrial Revolution. In each wave, different business strategies were successful. Electronic commerce and the information revolution brought about by the Internet likely go through such series of waves.

The First Wave of Electronic Commerce: 1995 -2003
(i) The Dotcom companies of first wave are mostly American companies. Thereby their websites were only in English. The Dotcom bubble had attracted huge investments to first wave companies.

(ii)As the Internet was mere read-only web (web 1.0) and network technology was in its beginning stage, the bandwidth and network security was very low.

(iii) Only EDI and unstructured E-mail remained as a mode of information exchange between businesses.

(iv) But the first wave companies enjoyed the first-move advantage and customers had left with no options.

The Second Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2004 – 2009

(i) The second wave is the rebirth of E-Commerce after the dotcom burst. The second wave is considered as the global wave, with sellers doing business in many countries and in many languages.

(ii) Language translation and currency conversion were focused in the second wave websites.
(iii) The second wave companies used their own internal funds and gradually expanded their E-Commerce opportunities.

(iv) As a result E-Commerce grows more steadily, though more slowly. The rapid development of network technologies and interactive web (web 2.0, a period of social media) offered the consumers more choices of buying. The increased web users nourished E-Commerce companies (mostly B2C companies) during the second wave.

The Third Wave of Electronic Commerce: 2010 – Present

(i) The third wave is brought on by the mobile technologies. It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions, mobile technologies.

(ii) It connects users via mobile devices for real-time and on-demand transactions. Not only the information is filtered by time, but also the geographic coordinates are used to screen the specific location-tailored information properly.

(iii) The term Web 3.0, summarize the various characteristics of the future Internet which include Artificial Intelligence, Semantic Web. Generic Database etc.

Question 2.
List all the E-Commerce business models and explain any four briefly?
Answer:
Classification of E-Commerce Business models:
Business organizations, Consumers and Government (also called as Administrations) are the major parties in the E-Commerce. Sometimes Employees (Informal workers) also indulge in this system. Based upon the entities involved in transaction, E-Commerce has been classified into the following typical categories. The model in which the government plays as an entity is termed as e- Governance.

1. Business to Business (B2B)
2. Business to Consumer (B2C)
3. Business to Government (B2G)
4. Consumer to Business (C2B)
5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)
6. Consumer to Government (C2G)
7. Government to Business (G2B)
8. Government to Consumer (G2C)
9. Government to Government (G2G)

1. Business to Business (B2B):
In B2B E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between different business organizations, through the Internet. For example, a cycle company may buy tyres from another company for their cycles. When compared to other models, the value per transaction in B2B transaction is high, because of bulk purchases. The company also might get the advantage of discounts on bulk purchases.

Out-sourcing and Off-shoring are generally associated with B2B E-Commerce.

1. If a company’s work is hired to another company, it would be termed as out-sourcing.
2. If the work is outsourced to a company, which is outside of its own country, is termed as off-shoring.

2. Business to Consumer (B2C):
In B2C E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between business firms and their consumers. It is the direct trade between companies and end-consumers via the Internet. B2C companies sell goods, information or services to customers through online in a more personalized dynamic environment and is considered as real competitor for a traditional storekeeper. An example of B2C transaction is a book company selling books to customers. This mode is intended to benefit the consumer and can say B2C E-Commerce works as ’retail store’ over Internet.

3. Business to Government (B2G):
B2G is a business model that refers to business organizations sells products, services or information to Governments or to its administrations. In other words, when a company get paid for its goods, services by the Government through Internet it is called as B2G model. B2G networks models provide a way for businesses to bid on Government projects or products those Governments might need for their organizations, e.g. A Government or its administration buys laptops for students from a business.

4. Consumer to Business (C2B):
C2B can be described as a form of E-Commerce where, the transaction is originated by the consumers. The consumers will fix a set of requirements or specific price for a service or a commodity. C2B model, is also called as reverse auction model. Here, customer bid his price for a service or a product. Then E-Commerce business entity will match the requirements of the consumers to the best possible extent.

For instance, in a travel website (eg. yatra.com) a consumer may specify his dates of trayel, his source and destination, number of tickets required and range of hotel etc. The website then finds out the various options for him which best meets his requirements. These websites generate revenue through affiliate links, sponsored advertisement or even a small commission in every booking, e.g. Name-your-price websites.

5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C):
C2C in E-Commerce provides opportunity for trading of products or services among consumers who are connected through the Internet. In brief when something is bought and sold between two consumers using Internet it is called C2C E-Commerce. Here the websites act as a platform to facilitate the transaction. The electronic tools and Internet infrastructure are employed to support transactions between individuals. Typically, this type of E-Commerce works as Consumer to Business to Consumer (C2B2C).

It means that a consumer would contact a business in search for a suitable customer. Most of the auction websites and matrimonial websites are working on this methodology. For example, a consumer who wants to sell his property can post an advertisement on the website (eg: timesclassifieds.com). Another person who is interested in buying a property can browse the property, advertisement posted on this site. Thus, the two consumers can get in touch with each other for sale/purchase of property through another business’ website.

6. Consumer to Government (C2G):
Citizens as Consumers and Government engage in C2G E-Commerce. Here an individual consumer interacts with the Government. C2G models usually include income tax or house tax payments, fees for issuance of certificates or other documents. People paying for renewal of license online may also fall under this category.

7. Government to Business (G2B):
G2B is closely related to B2G. G2B in E-Commerce refers to a business model where Government providing services or information to business organization. It may be a formal offer such as a takeover bid for a road project.

G2B is a part of e-govemance. The Government provides information about business rules, requirement and permission needed for starting a new business, and other specifications in its portal. The objective of G2B is to reduce burdens on business, provide one-stop access to information thereby boost the economy.

8. Government to Consumer (G2C):
G2C in E-Commerce is very similar to C2G. Here the Government provides platform for its citizens to avail its services and information through th Internet. The services may be issuance of ceriticates through online. e.g. https://csc.gov.in/governmenttocitizen.

9. Government to Government (G2G):
G2G is the online (usually non-commercial) interaction between Government organizations or departments. G2G’s principle objective is to implement e-govemance rather commerce. G2G model in e-govemance involves distributing data or information between its agencies/ departments. G2G systems can be classified into two types

Internal facing or local level – joining up a single Government’s bureaucracies, e.g. https:// www.nic.in/
External facing or international level – joining up multiple Governments’ bureaucracy.

Question 3.
Explain any five E-Commerce revenue models?
Answer:
(i) Auction site is a kind of website, that auctions items on the Internet and levies some commission from the sales, e.g. https://www.ebay.com/

(ii) Banner advertisement site displays advertisements of other companies in its websites and thereby earns revenue.

(iii) Bulk-buying sites collect a number of users together all of who want to buy similar items; the site negotiates a discount with the supplier and takes a commission, e.g. https://www.alibaba.com/

(iv) Digital publishing sites effectively host the e-books or magazines on the web. They make profits in a number of ways such as advertising, selling etc., https://wordpress.org/

(v) Licensing sites allow other websites to make use of their software. For example, the search engines which allow a visitor of the site to search within the website more easily.

Question 4.
How would you differentiate a traditional commerce and E-Commerce?
Answer:
Traditional vs E-Commerce:
Traditional Commerce:

1. Traditional commerce is buying or selling of products and services physically.
2. Customer can easily identify, authenticate and talk to the merchant.
3. Physical stores are not feasible to be open all the time.
4. Products can be inspected physically before purchase.
5. Scope of business is limited to particular area.
6. Resource focus Supply side.
7. Business Relationship is Linear.
8. Marketing is one way marketing.
9. Payment is made by cash, cheque, cards etc.
10. Most goods are delivered instantly.

E-Commerce:

1. E-Commerce carries out commercial transactions electronically on the Internet.
2. Neither customer nor merchant see the other.
3. It is always available on all time and all days of the year.
4. Products can’t be inspected physically before purchase. .
5. Scope of business is global. Vendors can expand their business Worldwide.
6. Resource focus Demand side.
7. Business Relationship is End-to-end.
8. One-to-one marketing.
9. Payment system is mostly credit card and through fund transfer.
10. It takes time to transport goods.

Question 5.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce to a consumer?
Advantages and Disadvantages of E-Commerce:
Answer:
The pros and cons of E-Commerce affect three major stakeholders: consumers business organisations, and society.
The following are the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce for a consumer.

Advantages:
1. E-Commerce system is operated on all days and all the day. It is able to conduct business 24 × 7. Neither consumer nor suppliers need physical store to be opened to do business electronically. People can interact with businesses at the time of their convenience.

2. Speed is a major advantage in E-Commerce. Advanced Electronic communications systems allow messages to reach across the world instantaneously. There is no need to wait days for a catalogue to arrive by post. Communication delay is not a part of the Internet or E-Commerce world.

3. The Internet is too easy to ‘shop around’ for products and services that may be more cheaper and effective than left o buy only in a Brick and Mortar shop. It provides an opportunity to buy at reduced costs. It is possible to, explore the Internet, identify original manufacturers, thereby bypass wholesalers and achieve a cheaper price.

4. The whole world becomes a shop for today’s customers. They can have wide choice by comparing and evaluating the same product at different websites before making a purchase decision.

5. Customers can shop from home or anywhere at their convenience. They don’t need a long wait to talk to a salesman. They can read the details regarding model numbers, prices, features etc. of the product from the website and buy at their own convenience. Payments can also be made through online.

Disadvantages:
1. E-Commerce is often used to buy goods that are not available locally but from businesses all over the world. Physical goods need to be transported, which takes time and costs money. In traditional commerce, when we walk out of a shop with an item, it’s ours; we have it; we know what it is, where it is and how it looks. But in E-Commerce we should wait between placing the order and having the product in hand. Some E-Commerce companies handle this by engaging their customer updating status of their shipments.

2. Unlike returning goods to a traditional shop returning goods through online is believed to be an area of difficulty. The doubts about the period of returning, will the returned goods reach source in time, refunds, exchange and postage make one tiresome.

3. Privacy issues are serious in E-Commerce. In E-Commerce generating consumer information is inevitable. Not all the companies use the personal information they obtained to improve services to consumers. Many companies misuse the information and make money out of it. It is true that privacy concerns are a critical reason why people get cold feet about online shopping.

4. Physical product disputes are a major disadvantage in E-Commerce. E-Commerce purchases are often made on trust. This is because, we do not have physical access to the product. Though Internet is an effective channel for visual and auditory information it does not allow full scope for our senses. We can see pictures of the perfumes, but could not smell their fragrance; we can see pictures of a cloth, but not its quality.

If we want to inspect something, we choose what we look at and how we look at it. But in online shopping, we would see only the pictures the seller had chosen for us. People are Often much more comfortable in buying the generic goods (that they have seen or experienced before and in which there is little ambiguity) rather than unique or complex things via the Internet.

5. We couldn’t think of ordering a single ice cream or a coffee from a shop in Paris. Though specialized and refrigerated transport can be used, goods bought and sold via the Internet need to survive the trip from the supplier to the consumer. This makes the customers turn back towards traditional supply chain arrangements for perishable and non-durable goods.

6. Delivery ambiguity. Since supplying businesses can be conducted across the world, it can be uncertain whether they are indeed genuine businesses or just going to take our money. It is pretty hard to knock on their door to complain or seek legal recourse. Further, even if the item is sent, it is easy to start bothering whether or not it will ever arrive on time.
The following are some of the advantages and disadvantages of E-Commerce for a Business organisation.

Benefit of E-Commerce to a business organisation –
Access to Global Market:
The Internet spans the world of E-Commerce, and it is possible to trade with any business or a person who is connected with the Internet. It helps to access the global marketplace. Simple local businesses such as herbal product stores are able to market and sell their products internationally using E-Commerce. Thus, the whole world becomes a potential market for an E-Commerce company.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Chapter 15 E-Commerce Additional Question and Answer

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
The term E-Business was coined by ……………………….
(a) Apple
(b) IBM
(c) Microsoft
(d) Sun Microsystems
Answer:
(b) IBM

Question 2.
The, term E-Business was coined in the year
(a) 1996
(b) 2001
(c) 2003
(d) 2005
Answer:
(a) 1996

Question 3.
Find the wrong statement from the following.
(a) E-commerce is a subset of E-Business
(b) E-Business is a subset of E-Commerce
Answer:
(b) E-Business is a subset of E-Commerce

Question 4.
SCM means
(a) Supply Chain Management
(b) Small Company Management
(c) Short Chain Management
(d) Surplus Charge Management
Answer:
(a) Supply Chain Management

Question 5.
…………………… can be described as the process of buying or selling products, services or information via computer networks.
Answer:
E-Commerce

Question 6.
E-Commerce first emerged on private networks in ……………………….
(a) 1965
(b) 1967
(c) 1970
(d) 1972
Answer:
1970

Question 7.
…………………… paved the way for the E-commerce.
(a) Electronic Data Interchanges
(b) teleshopping
(c) both a & b
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) both a & b

Question 8.
SME mean ……………………….
Answer:
Small and Medium-Sized Enterprises

Question 9.
Who invented Teleputer?
(a) Michael Aldrich
(b) Sting’s
(c) Bob Frankston
(d) Dan Bricklin
Answer:
(a) Michael Aldrich

Question 10.
Teleputer was invented in the year
(a) 1974
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1980
Answer:
(d) 1980

Question 11.
Online Transaction Processing was developed in the year ………………………
(a) 1976
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1981
Answer:
(c) 1979

Question 12.
Fusion of Television, Computer and Telecom network is called ………………………
Answer:
Teleputer

Question 13.
Joe Mccambley ran the first ever online banner ad in the year
(a) Oct 1994
(b) Nov 1996
(c) Oct 1996
(d) Nov 1994
Answer:
(a) Oct 1994

Question 14.
Match the following.
1. e Bay sold its first item – (i) July 1995
2. Amazon sold its first item – (ii) Aug 1994
3. The first business to business transactions – (iii) Sep 1995
4. First secure retail transaction on web – (iv) 1981
(a) 1-(iii)2-(i) 3-(iv) A-(ii)
(b) 1-(i) 2-(ii) 3-(iii) 4-(iv)
(c) 1 -(iv) 2-(iii) 3-(i) 4-(ii)
(d) 1-(ii) 2-(i) 3-(iv) 4-(iii)
Answer:
(a) 1-(iii)2-(i) 3-(iv) A-(ii)

Question 15.
Group on launched in the year ……………………..
(a) 2001
(b) 2003
(c) 2008
(d) 2007
Answer:
(c) 2008

Question 16.
The first online-only shop is ……………………….
Answer:
Zappo’s

Question 17.
…………………….. means shopping at a distance.
Answer:
Teleshopping

Question 18.
eBay sold its first item-a broken ………………………
(a) laser printer
(b) laser pointer
(c) science textbook
(d) album
Answer:
(b) laser pointer

Question 19.
Amazon sold its first item ………………………..
(a) science textbook
(b) Maths textbook
(c) Tamil textbook
(d) English textbook
Answer:
(a) science textbook

Question 20.
The dotcom Bubble was a historic excessive growth of economy that occured roughly between …………………… and …………………….
(a) 1990-95
(b) 1995-2000
(c) 2005-2010
(d) 2015-20
Answer:
(b) 1995-2000

Question 21.
The another name for Dotcom Burst is …………………………
Answer:
Doctom Crash

Question 22.
How many types of E-commerce Business models are there?
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 23.
Outsourcing and Off shoring comes under …………………….. Business models?
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(a) B2B

Question 24.
The commercial transactions that takes place between business firms and their consumers are ………………………
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(a) B2B

Question 25.
When a company get paid for its goods, services by the Government through Internet it is called as ………………………. model.
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(c) B2G

Question 26.
Which model is also called as reverse auction model?
(a) B2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2G
(d) C2B
Answer:
(d) C2B

Question 27.
C2C can be termed as ………………………..
(a) C2B2C
(b) CCB22
(c) 22CCB
(d) B2C2B
Answer:
(a) C2B2C

Question 28.
Find the Wrongly matched pair.
(i) yatra.com – C2B
(ii) Income tax – C2G
(iii) Income tax – C2G
(iv) ebiz.gov.in – G2B
(a) (i), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Answer:
(d) (iv)

Question 30.
Matrimonial websites come under ……………………… models.
(a) C2B
(b) B2C
(c) B2B
(d) C2C
Answer:
(d) C2C

Question 31.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) house tax payments
(b) Income tax payments
(c) auction payments
(d) fess for issuance of certificates
Answer:
(c) auction payments

Question 32.
Which model is a part of e-govemance?
(a) G2B
(b) B2C
(c) C2G
(d) G2G
Answer:
(a) G2B

Question 33.
How many types of classifications of G2G systems are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 34.
Affiliate site is also called as …………………….
Answer:
price comparision website

Question 35.
…………………… collect a number of users together all of who want to buy similar items.
Answer:
Bulk-Buying Sites

Question 36.
Identify the statement which is wrong about E-commerce
(а) Resource focus demand sick
(b) Business Relationship is linear
(c) one to one marketing
(d) products can’t be inspected physically before purchase
Answer:
(b) Business Relationship is linear

Question 37.
Which among the following is not the benefits of E-commerce?
(a) Access to global market
(b) lower Transaction cost
(c) High cost of entry
(d) computer platform-independent
Answer:
(c) High cost of entry

Question 38.
ARmeans ………………………
Answer:
Augument reality

Question 39.
VR means ……………………..
Answer:
Virtual Reality

Question 40.
……………………….. is a 3-dimensional experience of witnessing the virtual items by augmenting the real objects with the virtual ones.
Answer:
Augument Reality

Question 41.
………………….. an online platform for writing articles about a topic.
Answer:
Blog

Question 42.
……………………. is the term that refers to a business that has a physical store; opposite of online store.
Answer:
Brick and Mortar

Question 43.
……………………… a free, open source online blogging platform.
Answer:
Word press

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
When a company is called as E-Business?
Answer:
A company can be called E-Business if and only if –

1. It has the ability to conduct business electronically over Internet.
2. It manages payment transaction through Internet.
3. It has a platform for selling products & services via Internet.

Question 2.
What is a teleputer?
Answer:
Teleputer, which was a fusion of Television, Computer and Telecom networking technologies.

Question 3.
Classify of E-commerce Business Models?
Answer:

1. Business to Business (B2B)
2. Business to Consumer (B2C)
3. Business to Government (B2G)
4. Consumer to Business (C2B)
5. Consumer to Consumer (C2C)
6. Consumer to Government (C2G)
7. Government to Business (G2B)
8. Government to Consumer (G2C)
9. Government to Government (G2G)

Question 4.
Write note on Business to Consumer?
Answer:
Business to Consumer (B2C):
In B2C E-Commerce, commercial transactions take place between business firms and their consumers. It is the direct trade between companies and end-consumers via the Internet. B2C companies sell goods, information or services to customers through online in a more personalized dynamic environment and is considered as real competitor for a traditional storekeeper. An example of B2C transaction is a book company selling books to customers. This mode is intended to benefit the consumer and can say B2C E-Commerce works as ’retail store’ over Internet.

Question 5.
Classify G2G models?
Answer:
G2G systems can be classified into two types:

1. Internal facing or local level-joining up a single Government’s bureaucracies, e.g. https:// www.nic.in/
2. External facing or international level – joining up multiple Governments’ bureaucracy

III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain the Benefits of E-commerce to a business organisation?
Answer:
Benefit of E-Commerce to a business organisation.

1. Access to Global Market:
The Internet spans the world of E-Commerce, and it is possible to trade with any business or a person who is connected with the Internet. It helps to access the global marketplace. Simple local businesses such as herbal product stores are able to market and sell their products internationally using E-Commerce. Thus, the whole world becomes a potential market for an E-Commerce company.

2. Lower Transaction Cost:
E-Commerce reduces the cost of business transactions substantially. For instance, significant number of customer service representatives in a bank can be reduced by using net banking. Since these interactions are initiated by customers, the customers provide a lot of data for the transactions that may otherwise need to be entered by employees. This means that some of the work and costs are effectively shifted to customers; this is referred as‘customer outsourcing’.

3. 24×7 working:
A website is open all 24 hours, 7 days in a week. As E-Commerce firm can provide information about its products and services to customers around the clock, it can thus, take
orders, keep an eye on delivery of goods and receive payments at any time.

4. Low cost of entry:
Though E-Commerce was fist emerged in private networks it did not remain the same. Internet has changed the face of E-Commerce. The Internet is all about democratization. Internet is a place where the small guy can effectively fight against the giants and hope to win. Days when E-Commerce was only for affordable large national chains are gone.
Today, it is common for retailers to move their traditional store to online with very less add-on only for building a good website.

5. Computer platform-independent:
Most computers have the ability to communicate via the Internet, irrespective of operating systems and hardware. Consumers need not have to upgrade their computer or network to participate in E-Commerce. They are not limited by existing hardware or software.

Also the E-Commerce company need not worry about fast changes in computer network technology. E-Commerce applications can be more efficiently developed and distributed because they are platform independent. Internet’s altruism helps E-Commerce.

6. Snapping middleman:
E-Commerce enjoys the benefit of bypassing middlemen and reaching the end customer directly through Internet. In B2C E-Commerce business firms establish a direct contact with their customers by eliminating middlemen. It helps to increase the sales of the organization without any interventions. This results in cheaper price for consumers and higher
profit margins for the companies.

Question 2.
Explain various limitations of Ecommerce for a business organisation?
Answer:
1. People won’t buy all products online:
There are certain products like high price jewels, clothes or furnishings which people might not like to buy online. They might want to, inspect it, feel the texture of the fabric etc. which are not possible in E-Commerce. As the online shopping does not allow physical inspection, customers have to rely on electronic images of the products.

E-Commerce is an effective means for buying known and established services, that is, things that are being used every day. Example booking tickets, buying books, music CDs and software. It is not suitable for dealing with the new or unexpected. Traditional commerce always takes advantage when it is perishables and touch and feel products.

2. Competition and Corporate vulnerability:
Access to Global Market is an beneficial on one hand but it also come with a competition. Open Internet has paved way to all business firms to operate in the global market. Many businesses have been already facing international competition from web-enabled business opponents.

The competitors may access product details, catalogs, and other information about a business through its website and makes it vulnerable. They might then indulge in web harvesting. Web harvesting is the illegal activity of extracting business intelligence from competitor’s web pages.

3. Security:
Security remains to be a problem for E-Commerce. Customers might be reluctant to give their credit card number to the website. As lot of cyber frauds takes place in E-Commerce transactions, people generally afraid to provide their personal information. Legal issues arise when the customer’s data falls in the hands of strangers. Fraudulent activities in traditional commerce is comparatively less as there is personal interaction between the buyer and the seller.

4. Customer loyalty:
Business cannot survive long without loyal customers. The customers would like to buy from a website where they are able to get the best deal. They cannot be loyal to a particular seller. In traditional commerce, shopkeeper would interact with the consumer “face-to-face” and gain their loyalty too.

In E-Commerce, the interaction between the business and the consumer is “screen-to-face”. The customers would feel that they do not have received sufficient personal attention. Since there is no personal touch in E-Business, companies could not win over their loyalty easily.

5. Shortage of skilled employees:
Though most of the process in E-Commerce is automated, some sectors like packaging and delivery, needs manual interventions. There could be problems related to shipping delays which would need technically qualified staff with an aptitude to resolve.

E-Commerce has difficulty in recruiting, training and retaining talented people. There is a great shortage of skilled employees. Traditional organizational structures and poor work cultures in some places inhibit the growth of E-Commerce.

6. Size and value of transactions:
The delivery cost of a pen surpasses the cost of pen itself. E-Commerce is most often conducted using credit card for payments, and as a result very small and very large transactions tend not to be conducted online.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 12 DNS (Domain Name System) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 12 DNS (Domain Name System)

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications DNS (Domain Name System) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is used to maintain all the directory of domain names?
(a) Domain name system
(b) Domain name space
(c) Name space
(d) IP address
Answer:
(a) Domain name system

Question 2.
Which of the following notation is used to denote IPv4 addresses?
(a) Binary
(b) Dotted-decimal
(c) Hexadecimal
(d) a and b
Answer:
(d) a and b

Question 3.
How many bits are used in the IPv6 addresses?
(a) 32
(b) 64
(c) 128
(d) 16
Answer:
(c) 128

Question 4.
Expression ion of URL is
(a) Uniform Resource Location
(b) Universal Resource Location
(c) Uniform Resource Locator
(d) Universal Resource Locator
Answer:
(c) Uniform Resource Locator

Question 5.
How many types are available in Relative URL?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 6.
Maximum characters used in the label of a node?
(a) 255
(b) 128
(c) 63
(d) 32
Answer:
(c) 63

Question 7.
In domain name, sequence of labels are separated by
(a) ;
(b) .(dot)
(c) :
(d) NULL
Answer:
(b) .(dot)

Question 8.
Pick the odd one out from the following.
(a) node
(b) label
(c) domain
(d) server
Answer:
(d) server

Question 9.
Which of the following initiates the mapping of domain name to IP address?
(a) Zone
(b) Domain
(c) Resolver
(d) Name servers
Answer:
(c) Resolver

Question 10.
Which is the contiguous area up to which the server has access?
(a) Zone
(b) Domain
(c) Resolver
(d) Name servers
Answer:
(a) Zone

Question 11.
ISP stands for
(a) International Service provider
(b) Internet Service Provider
(c) Internet service Protocol
(d) Index service provider
Answer:
(b) Internet Service Provider

Question 12.
TLD stands for
(a) Top Level Data
(b) Top Logical Domain
(c) Term Level Data
(d) Top Level Domain
Answer:
(d) Top Level Domain

Question 13.
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Domains name is a part of URL.
(ii) URL made up of four parts
(iii) The relative URL is a part of Absolute URL
(iv) URL doesn’t contain any protocol
(a) (i) & (ii)
(b) (ii)
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(d) i, (ii) & (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) & (iii)

Question 14.
Assertion(A) :The number of addresses used in IPv6 addressing method is 128.
Reason (R): IPv6 address is a 128 bit unique address.
(a) A is true and R is false.
(b) A is false and R is true.
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(b) A is false and R is true.

Question 15.
Match the following
(i) domian – 1. progress that initiates trAnswer:lation
(ii) Zone – 2. contains database of domain names
(iii) name server – 3. single node
(iv) resolver – 4. contiguous nodes
(a) (i)-1 (ii)-4 (iii)-3 (iv)-2
(b) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-2 (iv)-1
(c) (i)-3 (ii)-2 (iii)-1 (iv)-4
(d) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-1 (iv)-2
Answer:
(b) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-2 (iv)-1

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
List any four domain names?
Answer:
Domain Name:

1. com
2. edu
3. gov
4. mil

Meaning:

1. Commercial Organisation
2. Educational Institution
3. Government (US)
4. Military groups

Question 2.
What is an IP address?
Answer:
Internet Protocol (IP) address is simply the logical address in the network layer. Like how the door number/flat number is used to differentiate individual house from others in the same apartment IP address is also used to find the host system in the whole network.

Question 3.
What are the types of IP address?
Answer:

1. IPv4 Address and
2. IPv6 Address

Question 4.
What is an URL?
Answer:

1. URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the address of a document on the Internet.
2. URL is made up four parts-protocols, hostname, folder name and file name.
3. Each part has its own specific functions.

Question 5.
List out four URLs you know?
Answer:
URL:

1. http: //www. example.com/index, html
2. http://www.computer.com
3. http://www.ibm.com
4. https://www.hellotravel.com

Question 6.
What are the types of URL?
Answer:

1. URL (Uniform Resource Locator) is the address of a document on the Internet.
2. URL is divided into two types: Absolute URL and Relative URL

Question 7.
What is a domain?
Answer:

1. A domain is a single node of the Domain Namespace.
2. In the domain name space (DNS) tree structure domain is a sub structure tree. The domain can be further divided into sub domains.

Question 8.
What is a zone?
Answer:

1. It is the area up to which the server has access.
2. Zone is defined as a group of contiguous domains and sub domains. If the zone has a single domain, then zone and domain are the same.

Question 9.
What is a resolver?
Answer:

1. The resolver is a program which is responsible for initiating the trAnswer:lation of a domain name into an IP address.
2. Since a resolver is stored in the host, there is no need of any protocol to form a connection between the resolver and the user program.

Question 10.
What are the categories available in domain name space?
Answer:
There are 3 important components in the Domain Name System. They are Namespace, Name server and Zone.

Question 11.
Write any four generic Top Level Domain?
Answer:
Domain Name:

1. com
2. edu
3. gov
4. mil

Meaning:

1. Commercial Organisation
2. Educational Institution
3. Government (US)
4. Military groups

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a note on DNS?
Answer:
Domain Name System (DNS) maintains all the directory of domain names/host names and help us to access the websites using the domain/host names. To enable the use of domain names in a network, the Domain Name System (DNS) is used.

Question 2.
Differentiate IPv4 and IPv6?
Answer:
IPv4:

1. IPv4 address is a 32 bit unique address given to a computer system
2. The number of address that can be formed is 232
3. It is represented by Binary notation Dotted-decimal notation

IPv6:

1. IPv6 address is a 128 bit unique address given to a computer system
2. The number of addresses formed in IPv6 is 2128
3. It is represented by 4 digit Hexadecimal numbers.

Question 3.
Differentiate Domain name and URL?
Answer:
Domain name:

1. Domain name is the trAnswer:lated and simpler form of IP address
2. Part of URL
3. It is subdivided into subdomains eg, .in, .uk

URL:

1. URL is the full web address used to locate a webpage
2. Complete web address including domain names.
3. It is divided into method domain name, port, path www.ibm.com

Question 4.
What are the differences between Absolute URL and Relative URL?
Answer:
Absolute URL:

1. Absolute URL is the complete address of a document on the Internet.
2. Absolute URL contains all the information that are required to find the files on the . Internet.
3. If any of the four parts is missing then the browser would not able to link to the specific file. So, all the four parts is very important in absolute URL.

Relative URL:

1. Relative URL is the partial address of a document on the Internet.
2. Relative URL contains only file name or file name with folder name.
3. We can use this type of URL when the file is on the same server related to original document.

Question 5.
Write a note on domain name?
Answer:

1. Domain name is the sequence of labels. In domain name the sequence of labels are separated ‘ by dot (.).
2. The domain name is always read from the lower level to higher level i.e., from the leaf node to root node.
3. Since the root node always represent NULL string, all the domain name ending with dot.

Question 6.
Differentiate web address and URL?
Answer:
Web Address:

1. A Web Address more commonly defines a unique name that helps people remember a URL
2. It is usually in simpler form such as Amazon.com
3. Generally your browser will recognize the proper URL when you type in a web address

URL:

1. URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator. A is the address of a particular website, audio stream or document available on the web
2. URL’s consist of the Internet protocol needed to access the item you wish to locate on the host computer.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain briefly the components of DNS?
Answer:
DNS Components:
There are three important components in the Domain Name System. They are:

1. Namespace
2. Name server
3. Zone

1. Name Space:

• The domain names must be very unique and appropriate. The names should be selected from a namespace.
• The name space can be organized in two ways
• Flat name space
• Hierarchical name space
• Flat name space is where the name is assigned to the IP address. They do not have any specific structure.
• Hierarchical name space is where the name is made up of several parts. The first part may represent the nature of organization, the second part may represent the name of organization, and third part may represent the department of the organization.
• Domain name space was designed to achieve hierarchical name space.

2. Name Servers:

• The information which needs to be stored in Domain name space is quite large. Single system would be inefficient to store such a huge amount as responding to requests from all over the world. It also becomes unreliable because in case of any failure the data becomes inaccessible.
• Name Server is a main part in the Domain Name System (DNS). It trAnswer:late the domain names to IP addresses.
• Name server contains the DNS database which consists of domain names and their corresponding IP addresses.
• There is a need to store large number of domain names for the world wide usage, so plenty of servers are used in the hierarchical manner.
• Name servers do the important task of searching the domain names. While you searching a website, Local Name server (provided by ISP) ask the different name servers until one of them find out your Answer:wer. At last it returns IP address for that domain name.

3. Zone:

• The entire name space is divided into many different zones. It is the area up to which the server has access.
• Zone is defined as a group of contiguous domains and sub domains. If the zone has a single domain, then zone and domain are the same.
• Every zone has the server which contains a database called zone file. Using the zone file, the DNS server replies the queries about hosts in its zone. There are two copies of zone files available, Master file and slave file.

Question 2.
Classify and Explain the IP address?
Answer:
IP Address:
Internet Protocol (IP) address is simply the logical address in the network layer. Like how the door number/flat number is used to differentiate individual house from others in the same apartment IP address is also used to find the host system in the whole network. Due to increase in the number of system in a network there is a need of more addresses which lead to two addressing methods i.e., IPv4 and IPv6.

IPv4 Address:
1. IPv4 address is a 32-bit unique address given to a computer system. No two systems can have same IP address.

2. If the network has p connections then ‘ p’ addresses should be there.

3. An address space is the total number of addresses that can be made by that protocol. It is determined by the number of bits that the protocol use.

4. If the protocol uses ‘n’ bits then the address space of that protocol would be ‘2n’ addresses can be formed. So, the number of addresses that can be formed in IPv4 is 232.

5. There are two ways to represent the IP address – Binary notation

Dotted-decimal notation:
In binary notation the address is expressed as 32-bit binary values.
For E.g. 00111001 10001001 00111000 00000111
In dotted-decimal notation the address is written in decimal format separated by dots(.). For e.g. 128.143.137.144

IPv6 Address:
1. IPv6 address is a 128-bit unique address given to a computer system. The number of addresses that can be formed in IPv6 is 2128.

2. In IPv6 address, the 128 bits are divided into eight 16-bits blocks.

3. Each block is then changed into 4-digit Hexadecimal numbers separated by colon symbols. E.g. 2001:0000:32313:DFE1:0063:0000:0000:FEFB.

Question 3.
Explain about the name server?
Answer:
Name Servers:
1. The information which needs to be stored in Domain name space is quite large. Single system would be inefficient and insufficient to store such a huge amount as responding to requests from all over the world. It also becomes unreliable because in case of any failure the data becomes inaccessible.

2. The solution to this problem is to distribute the information among many computers. The best way to do that is to divide the entire space into many domains and sub domains

3. DNS also allows domains to be further divided into sub domains. By this, the solution to the problem is obtained and hierarchy of servers is also maintained.

4. Name servers store the data and provide it to clients when queried by them. Name Servers are programs that run on a physical system and store all the zone data.

5. Name Server is a main part in the Domain Name System (DNS). It translate the domain names to IP addresses.

6. Name server contains the DNS database which consists of domain names and their corresponding IP addresses.

7. There is a need to store large number of domain names for the world wide usage, so plenty of servers are used in the hierarchical manner.

8. Name servers do the important task of searching the domain names. While you searching a website, Local Name server (provided by ISP) ask the different name servers until one of them find out your Answer:wer. At last it returns IP address for that domain name.

Types of Name Servers
There are three types of Name Servers which control the entire Domain Name System:
(i) Root Name Server – top level server which contains entire DNS tree, maintained by ICANN.
There are 13 servers.

(ii) Primary/Master Name Server – contains a zone resource records. These records are updatable by domain name holders such as organizations.

(iii) Secondary/Slave Name Server – contains a copy of primary server files. This server has no authority to update, but reduce the workload of master server by sharing the queries.

Question 4.
What is domain name space? Explain?
Answer:
Domain Name Space:
Domain name space was designed to achieve hierarchical name space. In this, the names are represented as a tree like structure with root element on the top and this tree can have a maximum of 128 levels starting from root element taking the level 0 to level 127.

This diagram represent the domain name space where the root element is present at the top most level i.e., level 0. The root element always represents the NULL string (empty, string). The next level to the root element is node (children of root element). Each node in the tree has a label and a domain name.

Label:

1. It is a string which can have maximum of 63 characters.
2. Each node in that level should have different labels thereby assuring the individuality of the domain name.
3. In other words, Labels are the names given to domains.
4. Domain is a sub tree in domain name space tree structure. The domain can be further divided into sub domains.

Domain name:
It is the sequence of labels. In domain name the sequence of labels are separated by dot (.).

Question 5.
Explain how the DNS is working?
Answer:
1. When the user enters the URL (consists of protocol, domain name, folder name, file name) in the browser, the system fist checks its DNS cache for the corresponding IP address.

2. If the IP address is found in the cache then the information is retrieved from cache.

3. If not, then the system needs to perform DNS query i.e., the system needs to query the resolver about the IP address from Internet Service Provider (ISP).

4. Each resolver has its own cache and if it is found in that then that information is retrieved.

5. If not, then the query is passed to next domain server i.e., TLD (Top Level Domain) which reviews the request and direct the query to name servers associated with that specific domain.