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Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

Question 2.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 3.
Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
…………………….founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M. C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
……………………. River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is …………………….
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in …………………….
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………….
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 10.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………………….
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Thungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 11.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 12.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 13.
Primary sector consist of …………………….
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 14.
Pump sets and motors are produced mostly in…………………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:

• Bilateral trade treaties between Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932.
• In this summit the participants (including India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British) over non-imperial goods.

Question 16.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:

• In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Pakistan and Iran signed a pact known as Baghdad Pact.
• In 1958, the United States joined the organisation and therefore it came to be known as the Central Treaty Organisation. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.

Question 17.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

• The Siege of Cawnpur was a key episode in the Indian rebellion of 1857.
• The besieged Company forces and civilians in Cawnpur (now Kanpur) were unprepared for an extended siege and surrendered to rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
• However under ambiguous circumstances, their evacuation from Cawnpur turned into a massacre, and most of the men were killed.

Question 18.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:

• In 1816, F.W. Ellis formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo-Aryan family of languages.
• Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages, in 1856.
• He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 19.
Give the importance of IST.
Answer:

• To avoid the confusion of time in different states of India. One meridian is taken to have a uniform time for a whole country.
• Therefore 80° 30’ E has been chosen as the Standard Meridian of India which is almost passing from the centre of India.

Question 20.
What is Migration? State its types.
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

1. Internal migration and
2. international migration.

Question 21.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and
Western Ghats separately.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats:
Parangimalai, Chennai, Javadhu hills, Vellore, Salem, Sirumalai, Dindigul, Thiruvannamalai,
Bhubaneswar, Namakkal, Perambalur.
Western Ghats:
Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Theni, Coimbatore, Nilgiri.

Question 22.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”.
• It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:
Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes. The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are

• No first use
• Credible minimum deterrence

It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would never use against any non-nuclear state.

Question 25.
What is per capita income.
Answer:

• Per capita income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
• It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 26.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:

• The Dutch undertook several voyages from 1596 and formed the Dutch East India Company in 1602.
• In 1605, Admiral Van der Hagen established Dutch factory at Masulipatnam and Pettapoli, Devanampatinam.
• In 1610, upon negotiating with the king of Chandragiri, found another factory at Pulicut. Pulicut was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.

Question 27.
What are the types of tax? Give example.
Answer:
(i) J.S. Mili defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

(ii) If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Question 28.
State the uses of Magnesium.
Answer:

• It is an important minerals used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material
  for alloying.
• It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The first woman legislator in India was …………………….
(ii) is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in …………………….
(iii) India conducted its first nuclear test at…………………….
(iv) …………………….is fondly called as “Little Japan”.
(v) Sathya Gnana Sabai was established by …………………….
Answers
(i) Mutthu Lakshmi Reddy
(ii) Nilgiri Tahr, Nilgiri hills
(iii) Pokhrah
(iv) Sivakasi
(v) Vallalar

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Himadri and Himachal.
(ii) Alluvial Soil and Black Soil.
Answer:
(a) (i) Himadri and Himachal :

1. The Northern most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri.
2. It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
3. It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks Mt. Everest (8,848 m) and Kanchenjunga (8,586 m).
4. The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite.
5. It is perennially snow bound and a number of glaciers descend from this range.

Himadri Himachal :

1. Below Himadri is the most rugged mountain system and is known as Himachal or Lesser Himalayas.
2. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
3. Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range. The Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent ones.
4. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu valley in Himachal Pradesh.
5. This region is well Known for its hill stations.

(ii) Alluvial Soil and Black Soil.
Alluvial Soil :

1. It is formed from sediments deposited by rivers.
2. It is rich in potash.
3. It has moisture retention capacity.
4. It is formed along the river course, food, plains, delta and coastal plains.
5. It is suitable for the cultivation of paddy, wheat and sugarcane.
6. It is found in punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar and west bengal. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri rivers deposit alluvial soil along their courses.

Black Soil :

1. It is formed from the weathering of igneous rocks.
2. It is rich in lime, iron, potash, alumina calcium and magnesium carbonates.
3. It has high moisture retention capacity.
4. It is found in the valleys of the Godavari, Krishna, Narmada and Tapti.
5. It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton, jowar and millets.
6. It is largely found in the Deccan trap

(b) Give reason: North Indian Rivers are Perennial.
Answer:
Most of the North Indian Rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains.

Question 33.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

• Lenin was in Switzerland when the revolution broke out in Russia. He wanted to continue revolution.
• His slogan of “All power to the Soviets” soon won over the workers’ leaders. Devastated by war time shortages, the people were attracted by the slogan of‘Bread, Peace and Land’.
• In October Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik Central Committee to decide on immediate revolution. Trotsky prepared a detailed plan.
• On 7 November the key government buildings, including the Winter Palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters, were seized by armed factory workers and revolutionary troops
• On 8 November 1917a new Communist government was in office in Russia. Its head this time was Lenin. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 34.
Write an account on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the course of women.
Answer:
Several social reformers emerged during the 19th century India who played a big role towards the cause of women:
(i) Raja Rammohun Roy was deeply concerned with the preventing customs of sati, child marriage and polygamy. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry. He wanted polygamy to end. He raised voice against Sati system and forced the Governor-General William Bentinck to abolish this social evil in 1829. He condemned the subjugation of women and opposed the prevailing ideas that women were inferior to men. He strongly advocated education for women.

(ii) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was lead against the burning of widows. He supported the idea of widow remarriage. He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting up a number of schools. He dedicated his entire life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society. He led a movement that resulted in the widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856.

(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the cause of women. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage, which was prohibited particularly for the uplift of the depressed classes and women. Jyotiba opened orphanages and homes for widows.

(iv) Swami Dayanand Saraswati said that the prohibition of widow remarriage had no scriptural sanction.

(v) Reformers like R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade devoted themselves to activities such as widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes. M.G. Ranade founded the widow Remarriage Association in 1861.

Question 35.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:
1. Mineral based industries:

• The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
• It is a key or basic industry and lays the foundation for other industries.
• These industries form the economic backbone of a country.

2. Location of Iron and Steel Industries:
Most of our country’s major iron and steel industries are located in the Chotanagpur plateau region.

3. Distribution of Iron and Steel Industries:
India has 11 integrated steel plant and 150 mini steel plants and a large number of rolling and re-rolling mills.

(i) Tata Iron and Steel Company [TISCO]: In 1911, Tata Iron and Steel Company was set up at Jamshedpur. Its major products are Pig Iron and Crude steel.

(ii) Indian Iron and Steel Company [IISCO]: The Steel plant at Kulti, Bumpur and Hirapur were integrated and the Indian iron and steel company was set up at Bumpur in 1972.

(iii) Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Ltd(VISL): Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Limited was set up in 1923 at Bhadravati in Karnataka. Its major products are alloy and sponge steel.

(iv) (a) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bhilai: It is located in Durg district of Chattisgarh. It started its production in 1957. Its major products are Railway Equipment and shipbuilding.
(b) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Rourkela: It was established in 1965 in Odisha. Its major products include hot and cold rolled sheets, Galvanized sheets and electrical plates.
(c) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Durgapur: It was established in 1959 in Durgapur of West Bengal. Its major products are alloy,steel, constmction materials and railway equipments.
(d) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bokaro: It is situated in the Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It started its operation in 1972. Its major products are sludge and slog.

(v) Salem Steel Ltd: It is located at salem in Tamil Nadu. It started its production in 1982. The major products are stainless steel.

(vi) Vijayanagar Steel Plant: The Vijayanagar Steel Plant has been set up at Tomagal in Karnataka. It started its production in 1994. The major products are flat steel and long steel.

(vii) The Visakhapatnam Steel Plant(VSP): It started its operation in 1981 at Visakhapatnam in Andhra pradesh. Its major products are Hot metal.

4. Mini Steel Plants:

• Mini steel plants are decentralized secondary units with capacity ranging from 10,000 tonnes to 5 lakh tonnes per year.
• They produce mild steel, alloy steel and stainless steel.
• Most of the mini steel plants are located in areas far away from the major steel plants so that they can meet the local demands.

Question 36.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Roadways:
The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, In which 60,628km are maintained by state Highways Department. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered at Chennai.
• The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s southern peninsula, covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km with 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most of the major cities in India.
• Main rail junctions in the state include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirappalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:
Tamil Nadu has four major international airports. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

Water ways:
Tamil Nadu has 3 major ports. They are Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin. It has an intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports. Ennore intermediate port was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and ore traffics in Tamil Nadu.

Question 37.
Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries .
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

• Southern Indian trade guilds were formed by merchants in order to organise and expand their trading activities. Trade guilds became channels through which Indian culture was exported to other lands.
• South Indian trade was dominated by the Cholas and it replaced the Pallavas.
• In the year 1053 AD (CE) the Kalinga Traders brought red coloured stone for trade and also cotton textile to Southeast Asia.
• Several trade guilds operated in medieval Southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Ayyavole, Gavaras etc. The Nakaras and Gavaras met only in the temple premises.
• Several European traders also arrived in South India such as the Portuguese, Dutch, Danes, French and the British. These traders established their companies / factories and strengthened their root in the Indian soil.

Question 40.
Write are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters?
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

• geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• sectoral specialisation
• close inter-firm collaboration
• inter-firm competition based on innovation
• a socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust .
• multi-skilled workforce
• active self-help organisations, and
• supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1855-1905
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) San Francisco
(ii) Hawai Island
(iii) Moscow
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Nagasaki
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Cold War
(i) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
(ii) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
(iii) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
(iv) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
(a) Cold War:
(i) (1) The United States (2) The Soviet Union
(ii) The term ‘Cold War’was first coined by the English Writer George Orwell in 1945. Bernard Baruch, the US presidental adviser, was the first to use it in a speech.
(iii) The Soviet Russia did not welcome the formation of the NATO. To counter it, Soviet Union organised the Soviet-bloc countries for a united military actions under the Warsaw Pact in 1955.
(iv) The Warsaw Pact was dissolved in 1991 following the fall of the Berlin Wall and the reunification of Germany.

(b) Periyar E. V. R
(i) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
(ii) What were the newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
(iii) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
(iv) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
(b) Periyar E. V. R:
(i) Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

(ii) The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi,
Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.

(iii) In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrest’d Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.

(iv) Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved?

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Causes of the Second World War.
(i) Name the treaty signed by Japan, Italy and Germany.
(ii) Mention some of the ideologies that emerged after the First World War.
(iii) What was the policy followed by the statesmen of the major world powers?
(iv) What did Hitler violate?
Answer:
(c) Causes of the Second World War:
(i) Italy – Germany – Japan signed the Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis treaty.
(ii) Democracy, Communism, Fascism and Nazism.
(iii) The statesmen of the major world powers followed the policy of appeasement.
(,iv) He violated the Munich Pact.

(d) Language agitation before Indian Independence
(i) Name the movements that helped to galvanise the Tamil language.
(ii) Highlight the contribution of Abraham Pandithar for the cause of Tamil music.
(iii) What was seen as a threat to Tamil language and music?
(iv) Who introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools?
Answer:
(d) Language agitation before Indian Independence:
(i) Maraimalai Adigal’s Pure Tamil Movement, the language reforms of Periyar and Tamil Isai Movement.
(ii) Abraham Pandithar systematically studied the history of Tamil music and attempted to reconstruct ancient Tamil musical system. He founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912 which became the kernel of the Tamil Isai Movement or Tamil Music Movement.
(iii) The implementation of Hindi as a compulsory language in Tamil Nadu, at various points of time, was seen as a threat to Tamil language and culture.
(iv) C. Rajagopalachari introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Deccan Plateau
(ii) Western Ghats
(iii) South west monsoon
(iv) Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
(v) Jute growing area
(vi) Damodar dam
(vii) Anyone iron ore producing region .
(viii) Tuticorin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) River Vaigai
(ii) Laterite soil region
(iii) Tropical Evergreen forest region
(iv) Chennai
(v) Cotton growing area
(vi) Vellore
(vii) Karaikal seaport
(viii) Amaravathi dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Deccan Plateau
(ii) Western Ghats
(iii) South west monsoon
(iv) Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
(v) Jute growing area
(vi) Damodar dam
(vii) Anyone iron ore producing region
(viii) Tuticorin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) River Vaigai
(ii) Laterite soil region
(iii) Tropical Evergreen forest region
(v) Chennai
(v) Cotton growing area
(vi) Vellore
(vii) Karaikal seaport
(viii) Amaravathi dam
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The great expanse of sea stretched down a long way down.
(a) express
(b) expense
(c) stretch
(d) vision
Answer:
(c) stretch

Question 2.
‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

Question 3.
We had reached a point where the road bifurcated.
(a) separated
(b) converged
(c) joined
(d) ended
Answer:
(a) separated

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed
(b) cancelled
(c) lost
(d) remained
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 5.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) entire
(b) partial
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘military’.
(a) military
(b) militaries
(c) militares
(d) militarys
Answer:
(a) military

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘relation’.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ic
(d) ship
Answer:
(d) ship

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation RLWL is ………………….
(a) Remote Location Wait List
(b) Remote Location Waitress List
(c) Remote Locomotive Wait List
(d) Research Location Wait List
Answer:
(a) Remote Location Wait List

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
He will surely ……………. the examination with flying colours.
(a) get out
(b) get in
(c) get through
(d) get into
Answer:
(c) get through

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘earth’ to form a compound word.
(a) worm
(b) fire
(c) land
(d) green
Answer:
(a) worm

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
We come ………………. new words everyday.
(a) between
(b) of
(c) along
(d) across
Answer:
(d) across

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Shruthi always ……………….. loud music.
(a) plays
(b) was playing
(c) play
(d) had played
Answer:
(c) play

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
…………………… he passed beneath her, he heard the swish of her wings.
(a) Though
(b) If
(c) As
(d) Although
Answer:
(c) As

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes had opened an ivory box. A sharp spring from inside the box drew his blood. This caused Holmes the illness.

Question 16.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering the grandfather’s room?
Answer:
Five or six cops sprang for the attic door when they heard a noise from the grandfather’s room. They were prevented since it would be bad if they burst in on grandfather unannounced, or even announced as he was going through a phase in which he believed that General Meade’s men, under steady hammering by Stonewall Jackson, were beginning to retreat and even desert.

Question 17.
Where did the crew undergo their basic training?
Answer:
The crew underwent their basic sail training courses in Mumbai at the Indian Naval Waterman ship Training Centre (INWTC), and at various schools in the southern naval base in Kochi. They even sailed on INSV Mhadei up and down to Mauritius in 2016 and 2017 and also to Cape Town in December 2016.

Question 18.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day today life easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes, Blee Watch and iGEST are a few Indian Innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life easier.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) Who does he refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

Question 20.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.

Question 21.
“They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.”
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.

Question 22.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) What does ‘It’ refer to?
(b) Pick out the line that indicates the size of the house?
Answer:
(a) ‘It’ refers to the mysterious house.
(b) And inside you can tell it has a ton of space, this line indicates the size of the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The organizers will exhibit the paintings till the end of the month.
The paintings will be exhibited by the organizers till the end of the month.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:

• Shanthi said to the manager, “I live in Thiruvallur and I commute to the city of Chennai everyday.”
• Shanthi told the manager that she live’d in Thiruvallur and that she commuted to the city of Chennai everyday.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Heaven thank you my dear father, said miranda “Heaven thank you, my dear father,” said Miranda.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Though Raghu was old, he walked fast.
Despite his old age, Raghu walked fast.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) in / we / of / modern science / the era / live
(b) inventions / armed / which are / has / miracles / science / man with / not less than
Answer:
(a) We live in the era of modem science.
(b) Science, has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Observe the map given below and write three instructions to give directions to your brother to reach the City Hospital.
Answer:

• Go straight on Mount Road and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the last left after the temple adjoining Saiigan Main Road.
• You will find City Hospital on the left side at the end of the main road.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year.

When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house. Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago.
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.’’

Question 30.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Question 31.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected to have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 32.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.

It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space. Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute.

The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.
“Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on ‘The Grumble Family’ and their attitude towards other folks.
Answer:
The Grumble family by L.M. Montogornery, a prolific writer depicts a family whom everyone despises to meet. They live on Complaining street in the city called’ Never-are-Satisfied’ where River Discontent runs beside it. They growl at anything and everything and whatever happens, there is something that goes wrong. They scold at each other at all seasons be it winter or summer.

They never stop growling at any weather conditions be it during monsoon or summer. Anyone who is associated with them even as an acquaintance get adapted to their ways easily. They are moaning, grumbling and never satisfied. A feeling of pessimism is strongly embedded in them and they are so contagious that they pass on the nature of grumbling and complaining to all who converse with them.
“To do nothing but grumble and not to act — that is throwing away one s life.”

Question 34.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’. That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way.

Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power. In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. When we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Thus, fundamentally we all are the same. We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people.

Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people. Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.
“Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone unknown.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“A woman is beauty innate,
A symbol of power and strength.
She puts her life at stake,
She’s real, she’s not fake!”
(i) What is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza?
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the stanza.
(iv) Give a rhyming word for ‘ strength’.
Answer:
(i) ‘abcc’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(ii) The rhyming words are stake and fake.
(iii) Metaphor is employed in the above stanza.
(iv) ‘length’ is a rhyming word for ‘strength’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;
And then, be our station high or humble,
We’ll never belong to the family of Grumble!
Answer:
Therefore the poet tells us that we should learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. Even if our position is high or humble, we will never belong to the family of Grumble.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Prospero had commanded Ferdinand to pile up some heavy logs of wood. Kings’ sons not being much used to laborious work, Miranda soon after found him almost dying with fatigue. “Alas!” said she, “do not work so hard; my father is at his studies, he is safe for these three hours; pray rest yourself.”
“O my dear lady,” said Ferdinand, “I dare not. I must finish my task before I take my rest.” “If you will sit down,” said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while.” But this Ferdinand would by no means agree to. Prospero, who had enjoined Ferdinand this task merely as a trial of his love, was not at his books, as his daughter supposed, but was standing by them invisible, to overhear what they said. Ferdinand inquired her name, which she told, saying it was against her father’s express command she did so. And then Ferdinand, in a fine long speech, told the innocent Miranda he was heir to the crown of Naples, and that she should be his queen. Prospero then appeared before them.
(i) Why wasn’t Ferdinand used to laborious work?
(ii) What was the work given to Ferdinand by Prospero?
(iii) Why did Miranda ask Ferdinand to rest for some time?
(iv) Who was Ferdinand?
(v) What was Prospero doing when Ferdinand was at work?
Answer:
(i) Ferdinand wasn’t used to laborious work as he was from a royal family of Kings.
(ii) The work given to Ferdinand was to pile up some heavy logs of wood.
(iii) Miranda asked Ferdinand to rest for some time because he was tired and she thought that her father would be at his study for the next three hours.
(iv) Ferdinand was the heir to the crown of Naples.
(v) Prospero was invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda and was overhearing their conversation as he wanted to test Ferdinand’s love for Miranda.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following.

Question 39.
Write slogans for the following products:
(a) Air-conditioner
(b) Air – Conditioner
(c) Shampoo
(d) Detergent
(e) Computer
Answer:
(a) Tooth Paste – Use for a while and get a sparkling smile.
(b) Air-conditioner – Bring Switzerland into your room.
(c) Shampoo – Leaves your hair smooth and silky.
(d) Detergent – Less foam easy to clean.
(e) Computer – Doorstep to knowledge and information.

Question 40.
Ramesh, The School Pupil Leader wanted to write to Dr. Nagaraj confirming his presence to be the Chief Guest for the Literary Association inauguration function at school. Write a formal letter of invitation.
Answer:
From
K. Ramesh
School Pupil Leader
XYZ Higher Secondary School
Chennai
28th July, 2020
To
Dr C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Invitation to preside over the inauguration of Literary Association In continuation to the telephonic conversation we had this morning, it is immense pleasure that we thank you for accepting our oral invitation to inaugurate the Literary Association in our school for the current academic year.

I would like to confirm that the Inaugural function is scheduled for the 12th of August, 2020. at 10 a.m. in the School Auditorium. We request you to accept our invitation and inaugurate the function.
Your presence is much solicited and thanking you in advance for your valuable presence.
Thank you
Yours sincerely,
K. Ramesh (SPL)

Address on the envelope

Question 41.
You are the Principal of Sunshine Public School, Elagiri. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing that the admissions for the next academic year are likely to begin in January 2020.
Answer:

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Reading Maketh a Man
Reading is a wonderful hobby. The habit of reading is rarely seen among children, nowadays. Most of the schools, have one period a week as Library time to inculcate the habit of reading. The children are found talking with the Librarians to borrow books. Some children are found reading books. Silence must be maintained in the library

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
Tennis is a sport played between two players (singles) or between two teams of two players (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the United Kingdom in the late 19^th century.

At first, people played tennis on courts made of grass! These were called “lawn courts”. Now, tennis is played by millions of people all over the world. The rules of tennis have changed very little since it was created in the 1890s. Most tennis players play tennis because it is fun. It also is a good way to get exercise.

While playing tennis, you do a lot of running. You move your arms and legs in many ways that they do not normally move.
Title: Tennis – A Good Sport

1. Tns as a sport:
(i) Play⁴ betⁿ two players or two teams A two players
(ii) Play⁴ Single or Double
(iii) Millions A people – worldwide

2. Accessories req^d to play Tns:
(i) Tns racket
(ii) Hollow rubber ball covered with felt

3. Winning strategy
(i) ball in opponents court shd not b hit by player

4. Origin ∧ Tns
(i) In UK – late 19^thCen^y
(ii) Played in courts ∧ grass – Lawn Courts
(iii) Slight changes in rules
(iv) Play^d for Fun, Exercise

Abbreviations used: Tns – tennis; Play^d -played, betⁿ– between, A – of, req^d– required, shd – should, b-be, Cen^y-century

Rough draft
Tennis-sport played as singles or doubles uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win , you make hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the oppo­nent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the late 19th century in UK. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, tennis is played is played all over the world. the rules have not changed much. Mostly it is played for fun and a good way to get exercise! ”

Fair draft
Title : Tennis, A Good Sport
Nineteenth Century Tennis, originated in UK, is played as singles or doubles with a tennis racket and a ball. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent hitting it back. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, it’s played worldwide without much change for fun and exercise.
No. of words written in the summary: 53

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) Sita is now free of danger.
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late so we apologised.
(d) Many students has turned up for the seminar.

(e) If I had known this yesterday I will have helped him.
(a) Sita is now free from danger.                                                                    ‘
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise sank in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late we apologised.
(d) Many students have turned up for the seminar.
(e) If I had known this yesterday I would have helped him.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]
Question 45.
So let…………………….. of the quest,
Answer:
So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O ’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,

Part-IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
Question 46.
(a) Visu left, Zigzag – Zigzag fell asleep – began to snore – soft grumbly sort of rumble – mildly hungry dinosaur – herd of elephants – pounded the eardrums – Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, mistakes the snore – Maya complains – Arvind confesses – Maya squirts water- cotton wool-maid Lakshmi’s shriek- unfinished masterpiece – Zigzag slept unconcerned.
Answer:
As soon as the cook, Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep. The moment he fell asleep, he began to snore and the commotion began. His snoring was a soft grumbly sort of rumble like that of the stomach of a mildly hungry dinosaur. Then it grew louder until it sounded like a herd of elephants.

Zigzag’s snore pounded the eardrums till their heads ached. Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, who lived upstairs heard Zigzag snoring and asked Mrs. Krishnan to sing a little softly when she took her singing lessons. Maya complained that she heard a permanent rumbling sound in her ears even when she was miles away. Arvind confessed that he was actually looking forward to going to school than being at home. Maya tried to squirt water from a small water pistol at Zigzag to wake him and wetted most of the curtains, the walls and the sofa. In vain to wake up the bird, they shut themselves in the bedroom that was farthest away from Mrs. Krishnan’s workspace where Zigzag was creating the terrible noise.

Mrs. Krishnan untied a roll of cotton wool to stuff in her ears. Just then, their maid Lakshmi’s shrieked. They froze in fear as she had switched on the fan on which Zigzag had left some fruit and nuts. Half-pecked fruit streamed of the fan, dampening even Lakshmi’s eagerness as a guava landed on her cheek with a soft splash and one walnut hit her forehead with a loud smack.

One slice of over-ripe papaya came whizzing off the fan and as they watched it helplessly, it splattered all over Mrs. Krishnan’s unfinished masterpiece, sunset at Marina. However, through all this commotion, Zigzag slept unconcerned and snored on.

[OR]

(b) The little boy – cakes – The blind man – dikes – light heart – stayed a little while – walk talk – mother’s wish – rains and swollen waters – father’s gates – pretty fields – angry waters – pretty blue flowers – rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass – the poor blind man – few pleasures – setting sun – growing dark – feared his mother – sound of trickling water – the hero of Holland!
Answer:
The little boy, Peter was glad to take cakes to his blind friend. The blind man who stayed across the dikes was his friend. So he started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.

On remembering his mother’s wish that he should return before dark he bid his friend goodbye and set out for home. As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. He admired the pretty fields. He recalled his father’s words about the sea waters as angry waters.

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road or to listen to the rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit t the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him.

Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. He feared his mother searching for him and began to run towards home. Just then he heard the sound of trickling water and had to become the hero of Holland!

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Many students aspiring to get a Visa for higher education in the United States are misled by blogs or unofficial sources. The US Consulate clarified that there was no fee for contacting the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications. The students need to give them all true details.

The Consulate processes 25 % of the world’s H1B visas and 30% of L Visa’s. Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day. The consulate had introduced many user friendly measures and interviews for candidates could be fixed within two days.

The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels. About 1300 interviews are conducted in a day. Everyone is given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit. Only a few applications are rejected. The call Centres could be contacted over the phone through online chats and e-mails.

Questions.
(a) What is the fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas?
(b) How did the Consulate deal with the applications received last year?
(c) How long does the process last, before the application fee could be paid?
(d) If you wish to go to the US in how much time, could you cite the reason at the interview?
Answer:
(a) There is no fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas from the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications.
(b) Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day.
(c) The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels.
(d) You are given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit at the interview, if.you wish to go to the US.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
SEPTEMBER 11
Once there were two magnificent towers,
Where lived and worked so many of ours.
It took seven long years to build them straight
They stood near the Empire State.
This event happened on the eleventh of September,
It’s an occurrence that generations will remember.
Because thousands of people have died,
Not only of the US but the world’s pride.
Everyone saw with awe and fright,
Twin towers crash in broad daylight.
None quite knows what will happen now,
When? Where? And how?
May God give wisdom to those,
Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose?
Now let us all remove hatred and vice,
And let the world be happy and nice.

Questions.
(a) What does the title of the poem indicate?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose’
(c) How many years did it take to rebuild the twin towers?
(d) What does the poet want to remove in this world and does he hope to see?
Answer:
(a) The title of the poem indicates that the poem is about the twin towers that was attacked on 11^th September, 2001.
(b) This line talks about the devilish act done by the men who pretended to be gentlemen. In other words, they are wolves in lambs’ clothing.
(c) It took seven years to rebuild the twin towers.
(d) The poet wants to remove hatred and evil thoughts so that the world can be a happy place with nice memories.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun-Yat-Sen
(d) MaoTsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ……………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 6.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about ………………….
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 7.
Black Soil is also called as ………………….
(a) Arid soil
(b) Saline soil
(c) Regur soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Regur soil

Question 8.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in ………………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 10.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ………………….
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 11.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through ………………….
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 12.
Apartheid is ………………….
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination

Question 13
…………………. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate
the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value added approach

Question 14.
Tuticorin is known as ………………….
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:

• In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome.
• Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Question 16.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests -Elaborate.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, Nasser, the President of Egypt, nationalised Suez Canal. This measure undermined British interests with the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force.

(ii) Israel saw this as an opportunity to open the Gulf of Aqaba to Israeli shipping and put a stop to Egyptian border roads.

(iii) On 29 October Israels forces invaded Egypt, Britain used this opportunity to demand that its troops be allowed to occupy the canal zone to protect the canal. When Egypt refused British demand, it was bombed. Britain and France also attached Suez Canal area.

Question 17.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 18.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaravelar, Pandithar Iyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillai and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
• This is the largest physiographic division of our country.
• It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km (about half of the total area of the country)
• It is an old rocky plateau region. –
• The topography consists of a series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan plateau respectively.
• Aravalli hills mark the north-western boundary of the plateau region.
• Its northern and north-eastern boundaries are marked by the Bundelkhand upland, Kaimur and Rajmahal hills.

Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed
through passes only like Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. It is higher then the Eastern Ghats. It cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peak include the Anaimudi (2,695 metres) and the DodaBetta (2,637 metres). …

The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of Udagamandalam, popularly Known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here.

One of the distinct features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of volcanic region hence the rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil.

Question 20.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sight seeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as they accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 21.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 22.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry’ of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
Write the importance of gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 26.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:

• Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNC) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE).
• Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries – USA, UK, France and Germany.

Question 27.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:

• Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes.
• There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed
  while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 28.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and Physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) ………………. known as the “Father of modem china.
(ii) Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……………….
(iii) Fundamental duties have been gives to the citizen of India under Article ……………….
(iv) ……………….  is an innovator of new ideas and business process.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….
Answers:
(i) Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
(ii) Railways
(iii) 51 A
(iv) Entrepreneur
(v) Balance of trade.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains,
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Nar-mada and Tapi forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. They are wide and level plains with an aver¬age width of 80-100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern
5. part is known as the Coromandal coast. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.

Tropical Evergreen forest:

• These forests are located in regions of heavy rainfall more than 200 cm of rainfall.
• The trees in these forests are evergreen.
• These forest are very dense and composed of tall trees reaching up to the height of above 60 metres.
• The important trees of these forests are Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany, and Chinchona, Bamboo and Lianas.

Deciduous forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of rainfall between 70-200 cm.
2. The trees in the deciduous forests shed their leaves due to dryness during the spring and early summer.
3. The tropical deciduous forests are commercially important as they yield valuable timber and other forest products.
4. The main trees of these forests are Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood, Wattle and Neem.

(b) Give reason: Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Chottanagpur Plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal.

Question 33.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:
(i) The nineteenth century India was plagued with a number of social evils such as sati, child marriage, female infanticide, polygamy and so on.

(ii) Women were subjugated by men and were not allowed to get education. They were restricted to home and hearth. They were considered inferior to men.

(iii) The condition of the depressed classes was miserable. They were subj ect to untouchability. Their entry to schools, temples and other public places, meant for upper castes, was banned. Hence, there was no education among the people belonging to lower castes.

(iv) There were other evil practices prevalent in the Indian society such as excessive superstitious religious beliefs, animal sacrifice, which needed attention of the social reformers for the benefit of the common people of the society.

(v) There was total absence of reason in the society. The system of child marriage was prevalent which resulted to child widows. These widows were never accepted in the family and were destined to lead a pathetic life. These were the circumstances that led to the Reform movements in the nineteenth century.

Question 34.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th century.
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.
• In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.
• C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.
• The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.
• Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 35.
Give a detailed account on the Great Northern Plains.
Formation:

• • The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – The Indus, The Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• • This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basis lying on the foothills of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain.

Extension:
It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.

Importance:
With a rich soil caves combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate it is agriculturally a very production past of India.

Important Features:

• In the lower course, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases which results in the formation of riverine islands. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
• The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as tributaries.
• The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. Punjab plains, Ganga plains and Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions – Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.

Punjab Plains:

• The Western part of the Northern plain is referred to as the Punjab plains formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
• The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan Indus and its tributaries – The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

Ganga Plains:
They extend between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of North India like
Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, Partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Brahmaputra plains:

• In the east of Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plains. They cover the areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions.

Bhabar:
The rivers after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shivaliks. It is known as Bhabar. All the streams disappear in this Bhabar belt.

Terai:

• South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet swampy and marshy region known as ‘Terai’. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife.
• The Terai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great plains, especially in Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall. In many states, the Terai forest have been cleaned for cultivation.

Khadar:

• The newer younger deposits of the flood plains are called Khadar. They are renamed almost every year and so are fertile. Thus ideal for intensive agriculture.
• The Khadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons. The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

Delta Plains:

• The deitaic plains is an extension of the Khadar land. It covers about 1.9 sq.km in the lower reaches of the Ganga River. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly.
• The deltaic plain consists mainly of old mud, new mud and marsh. In the delta region, the uplands are called “chars”. While the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun.
• So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers.
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 38.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

Question 39.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air, which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970’s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens – because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 40.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

• They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
• They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
• They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
• They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
• Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
• They enable the people to avail better quality goods, at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1905-1920
1905 – Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906  – Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916 – Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917 – Champaran Satyagraha
1918 – Kheda Satyagraha
1919 – Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920 – Khilafat Movement / Non Co-operation Movement

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(i) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
(ii) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
(iii) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
(iv) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Ho Chi Minh:
(i) Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.
(ii) Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
(iii) In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.
(iv) The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(if) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU:
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA.
(i) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA:
(i) First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.
(ii) Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.
(iii) Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.
(iv) He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’. ‘

(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu.
(i) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Why did Subramania Bharathi moved to Pondicherry?
(tii) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
(iv) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu:
(i) Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.
(ii) Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.
(iii) Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.
(iv) Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D ’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
……………. system gives full scope to the Individual strength and Responsibility.
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBM
(d) MBA
Answer:
(a) MBO

Question 2.
Capital market do not provide ……………..
(a) Short term funds
(b) Debenture funds
(c) Equity funds
(d) Long term funds
Answer:
(a) Short term funds

Question 3.
……………….. is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
a) London stock exchange
(b) Bombay stock exchange
(c) National stock exchange
(d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange
Answer:
(b) Bombay stock exchange

Question 4.
Human resource is a ……………. asset.
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Fixed
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Intangible

Question 5.
Off the Job training is given ………….
(a) In the class room
(b) On off days
(c) Outside the factory
(d) In the playground
Answer:
(c) Outside the factory

Question 6.
…………………….. is the result of New Industrial Policy which abolished the ‘License system’.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Liberalization

Question 7.
The initiative was launched to modernize the Indian economy to make all government services available electronically.
(a) Stand up India
(b) Start up India
(c) Digital India
(d) Make in India
Answer:
(c) Digital India

Question 8.
A person shall hold office as a director …………….. in companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 9.
Management is an …………….
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art and science
(d) Art or science
Answer:
(c) Art and science

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a main function?
(a) Decision – making
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) Staffing
Answer:
(a) Decision – making

Question 11.
Which is the first step in process of MBO?
(a) Fixing key result area
(b) Appraisal of activities
(c) Matching resources with activities
(d) Defining organizational objectives
Answer:
(d) Defining organizational objectives

Question 12.
Capital market is a market for ……………
(a) Short term finance
(b) Medium term finance
(c) Long term finance
(d) Both short term and medium term finance
Answer:
(c) Long term finance

Question 13.
When the NSEI was established …………..
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1998
(d) 1997
Answer:
(b) 1992

Question 14.
The headquarters of SEBI is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 15.
Who is supreme in the market?
(a) Customer
(b) Seller
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
Answer:
(a) Customer

Question 16.
Who is the father of Consumer Movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mr. John F. Kennedy
(c) Ralph Nader
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Ralph Nader

Question 17.
Which of the below constitutes the essential element of contract of sale?
(a) Two parties
(b) Transfer of property
(c) Price
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 18.
Negotiable Instrument is freely transferable by delivery if it is a …………. instrument.
(a) order
(b) bearer
(c) Both A & B
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) bearer

Question 19.
How does a person who envisages the idea to form a company called…………. ?
Answer:
(a) Director
(b) Company secretary
(c) Registrar
(d) Promoter
Answer:
(d) Promoter

Question 20.
Who can become a secretary for a company?
(a) Individual person
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Co-operative societies
(d) Trade unions
Answer:
(a) Individual person

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
List out the management tools.
Answer:
Tools of management have been developed such as, accounting, business law, psychology, statistics, econometrics, data processing, etc.

Question 22.
Define – MBO
Answer:
MBO is popularised in the USA by George Odiome. According to him, “MBO is a system wherein the superior and the sub-ordinate managers of an organisation jointly identify its common goals, define each individual’s major area of responsibility in terms of the result expected of him and use these measures as guides for operating the unit and assessing the contribution of each of its members”.

Question 23.
What are the components of organized sectors?
Answer:

• Regulators
• Financial Institutions
• Financial Markets
• Financial Services

Question 24.
Define the term “Money Market”.
Answer:
According to Crowther, “The money market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money”.

Question 25.
What is meant by Stock Exchange?
Answer:
Stock Exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of industrial and financial security, ft is also called stock market or share market.

Question 26.
What is Market?
Answer:
The word market is derived from the Latin word ‘Marcatus’ which means trade, commerce, merchandise, a place where business is transacted.

Question 27.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A consumer is one who consumes goods manufactured and sold by others or created (air, water, natural resources) by nature and sold by others.

Question 28.
Define Business environment.
Answer:
According to Bayard O Wheeler, Business environment is “The total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operations”.

Question 29.
Mention any two features of entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Features of Entrepreneurs:

• Spirit of Enterprise: Entrepreneur should be bold enough to encounter risk arising from the venture undertaken.
• Self Confidence: Entrepreneur should have a self confidence in order to achieve high goals in the business.

Question 30.
Who is called as Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a ‘promoter’.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 31 is compulsory. (7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Define the term management.
Answer:
“To manage is to forecast, to plan, to organise, to command, to co-ordinate and to control.” -Henry Fayol. It attempts to describe management in terms of what a manager does, and not what management is.

Question 32.
Write the features of MBO.
Answer:

• An attempt is made by the management to integrate the goals of an organisation and individuals. This will lead to effective management.
• MBO tries to combine the long run goals of organisation with short run goals.
• Management tries to relate the organisation goals with society goals.

Question 33.
What are the limitations of Stock exchange?
Answer:

• Lack of uniformity and control of stock exchanges.
• Absence of restriction on the membership of stock exchanges.
• Failure to control unhealthy speculation.

Question 34.
Define the term Recruitment.
Answer:
According to Edwin B. Flippo, “It is a process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging them to apply for jobs in an organisation.”

Question 35.
What are the objectives of marketing?
Answer:
Baker and Anshen say,“The end of all the marketing activities is the satisfaction of human wants”.The following are the objectives of marketing:

• Intelligent and capable application of modem marketing policies.
• To develop the marketing field.
• To develop guiding policies and their implementation for a good result.

Question 36.
What is B2B and B2C type of E-Commerce?
Answer:
B2B is an online business model that facilitates online sales transactions between two businesses. E-tailing is a business to consumer (B2C) transaction model. E-tailing is also called online retailing.

Question 37.
Explain the natural environment of business.
Answer:
Geo-physical environment – The natural, geographical and ecological factors have a bearing on the business. These are as follows:

• The availability of natural resources like minerals oil .etc, since setting up of industries requires availability of raw materials.
• The weather and climatic conditions and availability of water and other natural resources is essential for the agricultural sector.
• Topographical factors like the terrain impacts type of business since the demand and consumption pattern may vary in these regions.
• Location of certain industries is influenced by the geographical conditions.
• Availability of natural harbours and port facilities for transporting goods.

Question 38.
Explain the meaning of Agreement to sell.
Answer:
The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions specified in the contract.

Question 39.
What is political environment?
Answer:
To commence business, various factors are needed. Apart from all other factors, political environment is also essential. It means that the concessions, incentives provided by the government drive them to enter into venture. The government also provides support in the form of loans, subsidies and other taxes.

Question 40.
What is Special Resolution?
Answer:
A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority. The number of votes, cast in favour of the resolution should be three times the number of votes cast against it.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Explain the features of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:
There are various features of a stock exchange. They are given below:

• Market for Securities: Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government companies are bought and sold.
• Deals in Second Hand Securities: It deals with shares, debentures bonds and securities already issued by the companies.
• Regulates Trade in Securities: Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account. It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
• Allows Dealings only in Listed Securities: In the stock exchange only listed securities are purchased and sold. Unlisted securities cannot be traded in the stock exchange.
• Association of Persons: A stock exchange is an association of persons or- body of individuals which may be registered or unregistered.

[OR]

(A) Explain the different methods of recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment means selecting the right person for the right job. There are basically two ways by which an organisation can recruit its employees – Internal and External sources. External sources can further be classified into Direct and Indirect sources.
Internal Sources – Transfer, Upgrading, Promotion, Demotion, Recommendation by existing Employees, Job rotation, Retired employees, Dependants, Previous applicants, Acquisitions and Mergers.

External Sources:

• Direct – Advertisements, Unsolicited applicants, Walk-ins, Campus Recruitment, Recruitment at Factory gate, Rival firms, e-Recruitment.
• Indirect – Employee referral, Govemment/Public Employment Exchanges, Employment Agencies, Employment Consultancies, Professional Associations, Deputation, Word of mouth, Labour Contractors, Job Portals, Outsourcing, Poaching.

Question 42(a).
Explain the management process in detail.
Answer:
The substance of management should be identified as a process. A process is something that what a person does in the context of his individual duties and responsibilities assigned by his or her immediate higher authority.
There are twin purposes of the management process:

• Maximum productivity or profitability
• Maximum human welfare and satisfaction.

There are five parts of management as a process:

• Co-ordination of resources: The manager of an enterprise must effectively coordinate all activities and resources of the organisation, namely, men, machines, materials and money, the four M’s of management.
• Management is a Process: The manager achieves proper coordination of resources by means of the managerial functions of planning, organising, staffing, directing (or leading and motivating) and controlling.
• Management is a Purposive Process: It is directed toward the achievement of predetermined goals or objectives. Without an objective, we have no destination to reach or a path to follow to arrive at our destination, i.e. a goal, both management and organisation must be purposive or goal-oriented.
• Management is a Social Process: It is the art of getting things done through other people.
• Management is a Cyclical Process: It represents planning-action-control-replanning cycle, i.e., an ongoing process to attain the planned goals.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.

Question 43(a).
Discuss about the evolution of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing is one of the business functions. The development of marketing is evolutionary rather than revolutionary.
Evolution of Marketing:

• Barter System: The goods are exchanged against goods, without money.
• Production Orientation: This was a stage where producers, instead of being concerned with the consumer preferences, concentrated on the mass production of goods.
• Sales Orientation: The selling became the dominant factor, without any efforts for the satisfaction of the consumer needs.
• Marketing Orientation: Customers’ importance was realised but only as a means of disposing of goods produced.
• Consumer Orientation: Under this stage only such products are brought forward to the markets which are capable of satisfying the tastes and preferences of consumers.

[OR]

(b) Explain advantages and disadvantages of E-tailing.
E-tailing or electronic retailing refers to selling of goods and services through a shopping website:
Advantages:

• Customer can buy the product at anytime from anywhere.
• Direct contact of end consumer by the manufacturer cuts down the cost.
• Customer can buy whatever they want by browsing the various sites.

Disadvantages:

• E-tailing needs a strong advertisement and for which it has to spend large amount.
• It is not suitable for small size business.

Question 44(a).
What are the rights of consumers?
Answer:
As a consumer, everyone should know the basic rights as well as about the counts and procedures to be followed.
The rights of consumers as per Consumer Protection Act are given below:
(1) Right to Protection of Health and Right of Safety: There may be products that cause physical danger to consumers’ health, lives and property. The health hazards which are likely to arise have to be eradicated or reduced altogether.

(ii) Right to be Informed: Consumers should be given all the relevant facts about the products. The manufacturer and the dealer should disclose all the material facts relating to the product.

(iii) Right to choose: Consumer satisfaction can be increased by giving the consumer the widest choice. From the widest range of products in quality and brand as well as price, the consumer can choose the goods.

(iv) Right to be Heard: Consumers have every right to ventilate and register the dissatisfaction, disagreements and get the complaint heard and aired.

(v) Right to Seek Redressal: The aggrieved party is to be granted compensation within a reasonable time.

(vi) Right to Consumer Education: The consumer has a right to acquire knowledge and stay well-informed all through his life.

[OR]

(b) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of liberalization.
Liberalization means relaxation of various government restrictions in the areas of social and economic policies of the country.
Advantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in foreign investment: If a country liberalizes its trade, it will make the country more attractive for inward investment.
• Increase the foreign exchange reserve: Relaxation in the regulations covering foreign investment and foreign exchange has paved way for easy access to foreign capital.
• Increase in consumption: Liberalization increases the number of goods available for consumption within a country

Disadvantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in unemployment: Due to liberalization some industries grow, some decline. Therefore, there may be unemployment from certain industries closing.
• Increased dependence on foreign nations: Trade liberalization means firms will face greater competition from abroad.
• Unbalanced development: Trade liberalization may be damaging for developing economies which cannot compete against free trade.

Question 45(a).
Mention the presumptions of Negotiable Instruments.
Answer:
Presumptions of Negotiable Instrument:

• Every negotiable instrument is presumed to have been drawn and accepted for consideration.
• Every negotiable instrument bearing, a date is presumed to have been made or drawn on such a date.
• It is presumed to have been accepted within a reasonable time after the date and before its maturity.
• The transfer of a negotiable instrument is presumed to have been made before maturity,
• When a negotiable instrument has been lost, it is presumed to have been duly stamped
• The holder of a negotiable instrument is presumed to be a holder in due course.

[OR]
(b) Explain in detail on classification according to the type of business.
Classification of Entrepreneur according to the type of business:

• Business Entrepreneur: He is called solo entrepreneur. He is the one who finds out an idea for a new product or service and establish a business enterprise.
• Trading Entrepreneur: Trading entrepreneurs are those who restrict themselves to buying and selling finished goods.
• Industrial Entrepreneur: These are entrepreneurs who manufacture products to cater to the needs of the consumers.
• Corporate Entrepreneur: He is called as promoter. He takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format.
• Agricultural Entrepreneur: These entrepreneurs are those who raise farm products and market them.

Question 46(a).
Explain any five Government Entrepreneurial schemes.
Answer:
To support and strengthen the Start-up culture in India, the Government has launched various schemes. They are as follows:
(i) The Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme (M-SIPS): The M-SIPS scheme provides capital subsidy of 20% in SEZ and 25% subsidy in non-SEZ for business units engaged in manufacturing of electronic goods.

(ii) New Gen Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre (New Gen IEDC):
It provides a limited one time non-recurring financial assistance to entrepreneurship up to Rs.25 lakhs in the fields of chemicals, technology, health care, defence, etc.

(iii) Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme: Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme aims at helping entrepreneurs in the fields of agriculture, pets and animals and dairy farms.

(iv) Single Point Registration Scheme: A great scheme for micro and small enterprises which provides an exemption from payment of Earnest Money Deposit.

(v) Atal Incubation Centres (AIC): The Government of India has set up the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) at NITI Aayog in 2016 with the overarching purpose of promoting a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country.

[OR]
(b) Who are the KMP?
Answer:
Companies Act, 2013 has introduced many new concepts and Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) is one of them. KMP covers the traditional roles of managing director and whole time director and also includes some functional heads.

Key Managerial Personnel: The definition of the term Key Managerial Personnel is contained in Section 2(51) of the Companies Act, 2013. This Section states:

• The Chief Executive Officer
• The Managing Director or Manager
• The Company Secretary
• The Whole-time Director
• The Chief Financial Officer
• Such other officer as may be prescribed

Question 47(a).
Discuss the liabilities of Company Secretary.
Answer:
As an officer, a company secretary has extensive duties and liabilities. The success of the company depends upon his efficient functions and capacity to perform.
Liabilities:

• It is duty of the secretary to arrange for Board meetings and shareholders annual general meeting.
• The secretary controls and supervises the day-to-day activities of the company.
• Also he should prepare details for issue of allotment letters, share certificates and dividend warrants.
• To arrange for filing statement in lieu of prospectus.
• The secretary should send notice of general meeting to every member of the company.
• Being a principal officer, a company secretary can sign contracts and proceedings of company meetings.
• He is liable to maintain share registers and register of directors and contracts.
• To prepare minutes of every general meeting and Board meetings within 30 days.

[OR]
(b) Explain the role of business in consumer protection.
Business enterprises should do the following towards protecting consumers.

• Avoidance of Price Hike: Business enterprises should desist from hiking the price in the context of acute shortage of goods.
• Avoidance of Hoarding: Business enterprises should not indulge in hoarding and black marketing to earn maximum profit.
• Guarantees for Good Quality: Business enterprises should not give false warranty for the products.
• Product Information: Business enterprises should disclose correct, complete and accurate information about the product viz. size, quality, quantity, weight etc.
• Truth in advertising: Business enterprises should not convey false, untrue, bogus information relating to the product through the advertisement.
• Money Refund Guarantee: Where the product becomes defective, business enterprises should replace it with new one or refund the purchase price.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively ……………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6) .
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is ……………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
The next term ol the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is …………… .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……………… .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
Find the matrix x if 2x + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right] \) ……………. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 6.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand vertically on a plane ground if the distance between their feet is 12m, what is the distance between their tops?
(1) 13 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 12.8 m
Answer:
(1) 13 m

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3,p) and (6, 6) are collinear then the value of p is ……………… .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 9.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ……………… .
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times

Question 10.
Standard deviation of a collection of data is 2√2. If each value is multiplied by 3, then the standard deviation of the new data is
……………… .
(1) √l2
(2) 4√2
(3) 6√2
(4) 9√2
Answer:
(3) 6√2

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at unit place of the page number chosen’ is less than 7 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3), (8, 9), (5, 3), (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are ……………… .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If a and p are the zeros 6f the polynomial P(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)

Question 14.
The probability that a-leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(3) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A relation “f” is defined by f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2, -1, 0, 3}
(i) List the elements of f
(ii) If f a function?
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2,-1, 0, 3}
(i) f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2 ; f(-1) = (-1)² – 2 = -1
f(0) = (0)² – 2 = -2 ; f(3) = (3)² – 2 = 7
Therefore, f = {(-2,2), (-1,-1), (0,-2), (3,7)}

(ii) We note that each element in the domain of f has a unique image.
Therefore f is a function.

Question 16.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find fofof
Answer:
fofof = fof [(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f (x² – 1)² – 1
= f (x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

Question 17.
What is the smallest number that when divided by three numbers such as 35, 56 and 91 leaves remainder 7 in each case?
Answer:
Find the L.C.M of 35, 56, and 91
35 = 5 × 7
56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
91 = 7 × 13
L.C.M = 2³ × 5 × 7 × 13
= 3640
Since it leaves remainder 7
The required number = 3640 + 7 = 3647
∴ The smallest number is 3647

Question 18.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Answer:
The G.P. is 729,243,81, …………..
a = 729; r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{243}{729}=\frac{81}{243}=\frac{27}{81}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
t_n = a r^{n – 1}
t₇ = 729 \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{7-1}\)
= \(729\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{6}=729 \times \frac{1}{729}=1\)
∴ The 7^th term is 1

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\)
Answer:

The expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined
when t² – 5t + 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t – 3 = 0 or t – 2 = 0
t = 3 or t = 2
The excluded values are 2 and 3

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² -2ab -2bc + 2ac]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
construct a 3 x 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)

Question 22.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Answer:
Given ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF

\(\frac{9}{16}=\frac{(2.1)^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
\(\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\right)^{2}\)
\(\frac{3}{4}=\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\)
EF = \(\frac{4 \times 2.1}{3}\) = 2.8 cm
Length of EF = 2.8 cm

Question 23.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices (p,p), (5,6), (5, -2) is 32 sq.units. Find the value of ‘p’.
Answer:
Let the vertices be A (p,p), B (5, 6) and C (5, -2)
Area of a triangle = 32 sq. units
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃] = 32

\(\frac{1}{2}\)[(6p – 10 + 5p) – (5p + 30 – 2p)] = 32
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[11p – 10 – 3p – 30] = 32
11p – 10 – 3p – 30 = 64
8p – 40 = 64
8p = 64 + 40 ⇒ 8p = 104
p = \(\frac{104}{8}\) = 13
The value of p = 13

Question 24.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 √3 m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 √3 m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ

In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac{A C}{A B}\)
\(=\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 25.
Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154m².
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere.
Given that, surface area of sphere = 154 m²
4πr² = 154
4 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
gives r² = \(154 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
hence, r² = \(\frac{49}{4}\) we get r = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Therefore, diameter is 7m

Question 26.
Find the standard deviation and the variance of first 23 natural numbers.
Answer:
Standard deviation of first “n” natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
Standard deviation of first 23 natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{23^{2}-1}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{529 – 1}{12}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{528}{12}}\)
= √44 (variance)
Variance = 44 and standard deviation = 6.63

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots = (3 + √7)(3 – √7)
= 9 – 7 = 2 .
The required equation is
x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6) x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
Answer:
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atmost one head A = {HT, TH, TT}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
The probability is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.

Answer:
f(x) = 6x + 1 ; x = {-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}
f(x) = 5x² – 1 ; x = {2,3,4,5}
f(x) = 3x – 4; x = {6,7,8,9}

(i) f(-3) + f(2)
f(x) = 6x+1
f(3) = 6(-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(2) = 5(2)² – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2

(ii) f(7) – f(1)
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(7) = 3(7) – 4= 21 – 4 = 17
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(1) = 6(1)+ 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
f(7) – f(1) = 17 – 7
= 10

(iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 15(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(8) = 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20
2f(4) + f(8) = 2(79) + 20
= 158 + 20 .
= 178

(iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(6) = 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 5(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 6x+1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
\(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\) = \(\frac{2(-11)-14}{79-11}\)
= \(\frac{-22-14}{68}=\frac{-36}{68}=\frac{-9}{17}\)

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x, h(x) = 3x
Now, (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 – 2x) = 2(1 – 2x) + 3 = 5 – 4x
Then, (fog)oh(x) = (fog) (h(x)) = (fog)(3x) = 5 – 4(3x) = 5 – 12x ….(1)
(goh)(x) = g(h(x)) = g(3x) = 1 – 2(3x) = 1 – 6x
So, fo (goh)(x) = f(1 – 6x) = 2(1 – 6x) + 3 = 5 – 12x …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
If S₁ , S₂ , S₃, ……. S_mare the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, …….. m and whose common differences are 1,3,5,….(2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …….. + Sm) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mn(mn + 1)
Answer:
First terms of an A.P and 2, 3 ……….. m
The common difference are 1, 3, 5 , ………….. (2m – 1)
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a+(n – 1)d]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2+(n – 1)(1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2 + n – 1]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1] …….. (1)
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(2) + (n – 1)3]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[4 + 3n – 3]
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n – 2) ……. (2)
S₃ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(3) + (n – 1)5]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[6 + 5n – 5}
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[5n + 1] …….. (3)
S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + (n – 1)(2m – 1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + 2mn – n – m – 2m + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
By adding (1) (2) (3) we get
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……….. + S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(5n + 1)+ …………+ \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1 + 3n + 1 + 5n + 1 …………… + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 3n + 5n + ………….. + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n\((\frac { m }{ 2 })\)(2m) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[nm² + m]
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……… + S_m = \(\frac { mn }{ 2 }\)[nm + 1]

Hint:
1 + 3 + 5 + …….. + 2m – 1
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(a + 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (1 + 2m – 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (2m)

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ………. to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years .
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159 ….(1)
By the given 2^nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y + 3x = 780 .
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
– 4x + z = – 16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
– z = 12 – 96
z = 84

Substitute the value of x = 24 and
z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51

Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
Find the values of a and b if the following polynomials are perfect squares. ax⁴ + bx³ + 361x² + 220.x + 100
Answer:
Re-arrange the order we get .
100 + 220x + 361x² + by³ + ax⁴

Since it is a perfect square
b – 264 = 0
b = 264

a – 144 = 0
a = 144

∴ The value of a = 144 and b = 264

Question 35.
State and prove Pythagoras Theorem
Answer:
Statement
In a right angle triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠A = 90°.
To prove : AB² + AC² = BC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC

Adding (1) and (2) we get
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × DC
= BC (BD + DC) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
Hence the theorem is proved.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the median and altitude of AABC through A where the vertices are A(6, 2), B(-5, -1) and C(1,9).
Answer:
(i) To find median

Mid point of BC(D) = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-5+1}{2}, \frac{-1+9}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-4}{2}, \frac{8}{2}\right)\) = (-2, 4)
Equation of the median AD is
\(\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{4-2}=\frac{x-6}{-2-6}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{x-6}{-8}\)
= 2(x – 6) = 8(y – 2)
2x – 12 = -8y + 16
2x + 8y – 28 = 0
(÷by 2) x + 4y – 14 = 0

(ii) To find the equation of the altitude

Slope of BC = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(=\frac{9+1}{1+5}\)
\(=\frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{3}\)
Slope of the altitude = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
Equation of the altitude AD is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)(x – 6)
-3 (x – 6) = 5 (y – 2)
-3x + 18 = 5y – 10
-3x – 5y + 18 + 10 = 0
-3x – 5y + 28 =0
3x + 5y – 28 = 0
∴ Equation of the median is x + 4y – 14 = 0
Equation of the altitude is 3x + 57 – 28 = 0

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 200 m high, find the distance between the two ships. (√3 = 1.732 )
Answer:
Let AB be the lighthouse. Let C and D be the positions of the two ships.
Then, AB = 200 m
∠ACB = 30°, ∠ADB = 45°
In right triangle BAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{A C}\)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{200}{\mathrm{AC}}\) gives AC = 200√3
In right triangle BAD, tan 45° = \(\frac{A B}{A D}[latex]
1 = [latex]\frac{200}{\mathrm{AD}}\) gives AD = 200
Now, CD = AC + AD = 200√3 + 200 [by (1) and (2)]
CD = 200 (√3 + 1) = 200 × 2.732 = 546.4
Distance between two ships is 546.4 m

Question 38.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = π r² h cu. units

Radius of the coin (r) .= \(\frac{1.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Thickness of the coin (h) = 2 mm = \(\frac{2}{10} \mathrm{cm}\)
Volume of one coin = π r² h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9, … 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Answer:
Sample space = {3, 5, 7,9 ,… ,35, 37} \(\left[\frac{37-1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}=18\right]\)
n (S) = 18
Let A be the event of getting a multiple of 7
A = {7,21,35}
n(A) = 3
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{18}\)
‘ Let B be the event of getting a prime number
B = {3,5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.29,31.37}
n (B) = 11
p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{18}\)
A∩B = {7}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{18}\)
p(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{3}{18}+\frac{11}{18}-\frac{1}{18}=\frac{3+11-1}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
Probability of getting a muliple of 7 or a priime number = \(\frac{13}{18}\)

Question 40.
Find X and Y if X – Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 \\ 0 & 6 \end{matrix} \right]\) and X + Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 12 & 13 \\ 6 & 5 \\ 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:

Question 41.
A lead pencil is in the shape of a right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 in. If the led is of radius one mm (1 mm) then find the volume of the wood used in the pencil.
Answer:
Length of a pencil (h) = 28 cm
Radius of a pencil (R) = 3mm \(\left(\frac{3}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Radius of a led (r) = 1 mm \(\left(\frac{1}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Volume of the wood used = Volume of the pencil – Volume of the led
= πh(R² – r²cu. unit

Volume of the wood used in the pencil = 7.04 cm³

Question 42.
The following table shows the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in Mathematics. Calculate the variance and standard deviation.

Answer:
Let us form the following table using the given data.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem. Rough Diagram
Answer:
Radius of the circle = 4.5 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
2. Take a point L on the circle. Through L draw any chord LM.
3. Take a point M distinct from L and N on the circle, so that L, M, N are in anti-clockwise direction. Join LN and NM.
4. Through “L” draw tangent TT’ such that ∠TLM = ∠MNL.
5. TT’ is the required tangent.

[OR]

(b)
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment RQ = 5 cm.
2. At R draw RE such that ∠QRE = 40°.
3. At R. draw RF such that ∠ERF = 90°.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector to RQ, which intersects RF at O and RQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and S.
7. Join PR and PQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
8. From P draw’ a line PN which is perpendicular to RQ it meets at N.
9. Measure the altitude PN.
   PN = 2.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 and use it to solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Step 1: Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 by preparing the table of values as below.

Step 2: To solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0, subtract x² – 6x + 9 = 0 from y = – x² – 4x + 3

The equation y = 2x – 6 represent a straight line. Draw the graph of y = 2x – 6 form in the table of values as below.

The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the Graph of y = x² – 4x + 4
Answer:
Let y = x² – 4x + 4
(i) Prepare the table of values for y = x² – 4x + 4

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 25) (-2, 16) (-1, 9) (0, 4) (1, 1) (2, 0), (3, 1) and (4, 4)
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
(iv) The roots of the equation are the X-coordinates of the intersecting points of the curve with X-axis (2, 0) which is 2.
(v) Since there is only one point of intersection with X-axis (2, 0).
The solution set is 2.
∴ The Quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots. 1 English Medium – 33″ width=”573″ height=”72″ />
The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. 1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
   2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
   4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
   5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) B = adj A and C = 3A, then |Adjb| / |C| =  ……………….
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/9
(c) 1/4
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 1/9

Question 2.
If the inverse of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\) is \(\frac{1}{11}\left[\begin{array}{ll}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}\right]\) , then the ascending order of a, b, c, d, is
(a) a, b, c, d
(b) d, b, c, a
(c) c, a, b, d
(d) b, a, c, d
Answer:
(b) d, b, c, a

Question 3.
The least value of n satisfying \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}+\frac{i}{2}\right)^{n}\) = 1 is
(a) 30
(b) 24
(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 4.
The principal argument of \(\frac{3}{-1+i}\) is

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{-3 \pi}{4}\)

Question 5.
The polynomial equation x³ + 2x + 3 = 0 has
(a) one negative and two imaginary
(b) one positive and two imaginary roots
(c) three real roots
(d) no solution
Answer:
(a) one negative and two imaginary

Question 6.
The domain of the function defined by \(f(x)=\sin ^{-1}(\sqrt{x-1})\) is
(a) [1, 2]
(b) [-1,1]
(c) [0, 1]
(d) [-1, 0]
Answer:
(a) [1, 2]

Question 7.
If x+y = A:isa normal to the parabola y² = 12x, then the value of k is
(a) 3
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 9
Answer:
(d) 9

Question 8.
The circle passing through (1, -2) and touching the x-axis (3,0), again passing through the point is
(a)(-5,2)
(b) (2,-5)
(c) (5, -2)
(d) (-2,5)
Answer:
(c) (5, -2)

Question 9.
The volume of the parallelepiped with its edges represented by the vectors \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}, \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}, \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\pi \hat{k}\) is
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(c) π
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:

Question 10.
If the line \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-1}{-5}=\frac{z+2}{2}\) lies in the plane x + 3y – αz + β = 0 then (α, β) is ………………
(a) (-5, 5)
(b) (-6, 7)
(c) (5, -5)
(d) (6, -7)
Answer:
(b) (-6, 7)

Question 11.
The function sin⁴ + cos⁴x is increasing in the interval

Answer:
(c) \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\)

Question 12.
The curve y = ax⁴ + bx² with ab> 0
(a) has no horizontal tangent
(b) is concave up
(c) is concave down
(d) has no points of inflection
Answer:
(d) has no points of inflection

Question 13.
If u = (x-y)², then \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\) is …………….
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 14.
The value of \(\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{d x}{1+5 \cos x}\) is …………….
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) π
(c) \(3\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) 2π
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 15.
The volume of solid of revolution of the region bounded by y² = x(a – x) about x – axis is …….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\pi a^{3}}{6}\)

Question 16.
If m, n are the order and degree of the differential equation \(\left[\frac{d^{4} y}{d x^{4}}+\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}=a \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) respectively, then the value of 4m – n is
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 13
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 17.
The solution of differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{y}{x}+\frac{\varphi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}{\varphi^{\prime}\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}\) is

Answer:
(b) \(\varphi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)=k x\)

Question 18.
A random variable X has the following distribution.

then the value of c is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.4
Answer:
(a) 0.1

Question 19.
If P(X = 0) = 1 – P {X = 1} and E[X] = 3 Var (X), then P{X = 0} is
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 20.
Which one is the contrapositive of the statement (p v q) → r?

Answer:
(a) \(\neg r \rightarrow(\neg p \wedge \neg q)\)

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Solve the following system of linear equations by Cramer’s rule: 2x – y = 3,x + 2y = -1.
Answer:
2x – y = 3, x + 2y 2 -1 = -1

Question 22.
If z₁ z₂ and z₃ are complex numbers such that |z₁| = |z₂| = |z₃| = |z₁+ z₂ + z₃| = 1 find the value of \(\left|\frac{1}{z_{1}}+\frac{1}{z_{2}}+\frac{1}{z_{3}}\right|\)
Answer:

Question 23.
Find the value of \(\sin \left(\frac{\pi}{3}+\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{-1}{2}\right)\right)\)
Answer:

Question 24.
Find the equation of the parabola with vertex (-1,-2), axis parallel to x-axis and passing through (3, 6).
Answer:
Since axis is parallel to y-axis the required equation of the parabola is (x + 1)² = 4a (y + 2)
Since this passes through (3,6)
(3 + 1)² = 4a (6 + 2)
a = 1/2
Then the equation of parabola is (x + 1)² = 2 (y + 2) which on simplifying yields,
x² + 2x – 2y – 3 = 0.

Question 25.
If â, b̂, ĉ are three unit vectors such that b̂ and ĉ are non-parallel and â, x (b̂ x ĉ) = \(\frac{1}{2} \hat{b}\), find the angle between â and ĉ.
Answer:

Since b and c are non collinear vectors. So, equating corresponding coefficients on both sides.

Question 26.
If the mass m(x) (in kilograms) of a thin rod of length x (in meters) is given by, m(x) = \(m(x)=\sqrt{3 x}\) then what is the rate of change of mass with respect to the length when it is x = 27 metres?
Answer:

Question 27.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-a x} x^{n} d x\) where a > 0.
Answer:
Making the substitution t = ax, we get dt = adx and x = 0 ⇒ t = 0 and x = ∞ ⇒ t = ∞. Hence, we get

Question 28.
Show that y = ax + b/x, x ≠ 0 is a solution of the differential equation x²y” + xy’ – y = 0.
Answer:
Given solution : y = ax + \(\frac{b}{x}\)  …………..(1)
y = ax + \(\frac{b}{x}\)
xy = ax²+b
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
xy’ + y.1 = a(2x) = 2ax …(2)
Differentiate again with respect to ‘x’
xy” + y’ . 1 + y’ = 2a ⇒ xy” + 2y’ = 2a …(3)
Substitute (3) in (2)
xy’ + y = (xy” + 2y’) x
xy’+ y = x²y” + 2xy’ ⇒ x²y” + xy’- y = 0
Hence proved.

Question 29.
Find the mean of a random variable X, whose probability density function is
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:

Question 30.
Let * be a binary operation on set Q of rational numbers defined as a * b = \(\frac{a b}{8}\) Write the identity for * if any.
Answer:
Let S = {Q}
a * b = \(\frac{a b}{8}\)
∀ a∈S, e∈S such that
a * e = a
\(\frac{a e}{8}=a\) ⇒ ae = 8a
e = 8 ∈ S .
Identity element exist.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find the inverse of \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
5 & -2
\end{array}\right]\) by Gauss-Jordan method.
Answer:

Question 32.
If w ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that the roots of the equation (z – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are -1,1- 2w, 1- 2 w²
Answer:

Question 33.
Find all real numbers satisfying 4^x – 3(2^x+2) + 2⁵ = 0
Answer:
4^x – 3 (2^x+2) + 25 = 0
⇒ (2²)^x – 3 (2^x ,2²) + 25 = 0
(2²)^x – 12 .2^x + 32 = 0
Let y = 2^x
y² – 12y + 32 = 0
(y – 4) (y – 8) = 0 .
y = 4,8
Case (i) 2^x = 4
2^x= (2)² ⇒ x = 2
Case (ii) 2^x = 8
2^x = (2)³ ⇒x = 3
∴ The roots are 2, 3

Question 34.
Find the centre, foci, and eccentricity of the hyperbola 12x² – 4y² – 24x + 32y – 127 = 0.
Answer:
12x² – 4y²– 24x + 32y – 127 = 0
12[x² – 2x] – 4[y² – 8y] = 127
12[(x – 1)² – 1] – 4[(y – 4)² – 16] = 127
12(x – 1)²– 4(y – 4)² = 127 +12 – 64
12(x- 1)² – 4(y-4)² = 75

Let X = x – 1; Y = y – 4

(i) Centre : c[0,0]
X = o
x – 1 = 0
x = 1

Y = o
y – 4 = 0
y = 4

Centre (1,4)

(iii) Foci F(± ae, 0) (i.e.,) F (± 5, 0)
X = 5
x- 1 = 5
x = 6
X = -5
x – 1 = -5
x = -4
Y = 0
y – 4 = 0
y = 4
Foci (6, 4) and (-4, 4)

Question 35.
Find the image of the point whose position vector is \(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k}\) in the plane \(\vec{r} \cdot(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+4 \hat{k})=38\)
Answer:

Question 36.
Evaluate:  \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} x \log x\)
Answer:
This is an indeterminate of the form (0 x ∞). To evaluate this limit, we first simplify and bring it to the form (∞/∞) and apply 1’Hopital Rule

Question 37.
Find a linear approximation for the function given below at the indicate points f(x) = x³ -5x + 12, x₀ = 2.
Answer:
f(x) = x³ – 5x + 12 .
f'(x) = 3x² – 5
f(x₀) = f(2) = (2)³– 5(2) + 12 = 8 – 10 + 12 = 10
f'(x₀) = f'(2) = 3(2)² – 5 = 12 – 5 = 7
The required linear approximation L(x) = f(x₀) + f’ (x₀) (x – x₀)
= 10 + 7 (x – 2)
= 10 + 7x – 14
= 7x – 4

Question 38.
By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate \(\int_{0}^{3}|x-1| d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
Solve: \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2v cot x = 3x²cosec²x.
Answer:
This is in the form of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
P = 2 cot x ; Q = 3x²cosec²x.
∫ Pdx = ∫2 cot x dx = 2 log sin x = log (sin x)²
Integrating factor: e ^∫pdxe ^log(sinx)2 = (sinx)²

Question 40.
A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting seven heads is
equal to that of getting nine heads, find the probability of getting exactly two heads.
Answer:
p = \(\frac{1}{2}\) q = \(\frac{1}{2}g\)
In binomial distribution
P(X = x) = nC_xp^x q^n-x x = 0, 1, 2,.. . n
By the given data P (X = 7) = P(X = 9)

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) By using Gaussian elimination method, balance the chemical reaction equation:
C₂H₆ → H₂ + CO₂
Answer:
We are searching for positive integers x₁ x₂, x₃ and x₄ such that
x₁ C₂H₆ + x₂O₂ = x₃H₂O + x₄CO₂ …(1)
The number of carbon atoms on LHS of (1) should be equal to number of carbon atoms on the RHS of (1). So we get a linear homogeneous equation.
2x₁ = x₄ ⇒ 2x₁ – x₄ = 0………(2)
Similarly considering hydrogen and oxygen atoms we get respectively.
2x₂ = x₃ + 2x₄
⇒ 2x₂ – x₃ – 2x₄ = 0 ……… (3)
and -2x₃ + 3x₄ = 0 …(4)
Equations (2), (3) and (4) constitute a homogeneous system of linear equations in four unknowns.
The augmented matrix (A,B) is (A,B)

Now p(A, B) = ρ(A) = 3 < number of unknowns. So the system is consistent and has infinite number of solutions. Writing the equations using the echelon form we get
2₁ – x₄ = 0 …(5)
2x₂ – x₃ – 2x₄ = 0 …..(6)
-2x₃ + 3x₄ = 0…..(7)
Taking x₄ = t,(t ≠ 0) in (7) we get
2x₃ – 3t = 0
2x₃ = 3t
\(x_{3}=\frac{3}{2} t\)
Taking x₄ = t, in (5) we get
2₁ – t = 0
2x₁ = t
\(x_{1}=\frac{t}{2}\)

Since x₁ x₂, x₃ and x₄ are positive integers. Let us choose t = 4t.
Then we get x₁ = 2, x₂ = 7, x₃ = 6, and x₄ = 4
So the balanced equation is 2C₂H₆+7O₂
→ 6H₂O + 4CO₂

(b) If z = x + iy and arg \(\left(\frac{z-i}{z+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\), then show that x² + y² + 3x – 3y + 2 = 0.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Solve the equation: 3x⁴ – 16x⁴ + 26x⁴ – 16x + 3 = 0.
Answer:
It is an even degree reciprocal equations
Dividing (1) by x²

3(y² – 2) – 16y + 26 = 0
3y² – 6 – 16y + 26 = 0
3y² – 16y + 20 = 0
(3y- 10) (y-2) = 0
3y- 10 = 0
3y = 10
3(x + \(\frac{1}{x}\)) = 10
3(x² + 1) = 10x
3x² – 10x + 3=0
(3x- 1) (x- 3) = 0
x = \(\frac{1}{x}\) and x = 3
The roots are 1, 1, \(\frac{1}{3}\), 3
y – 2 = 0
y = 2.
x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 2
x² + 1 = 2x
x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)² = 0
x = 1,1

OR

(b) Solve: \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x-1}{x-2}\right)+\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium – 32

Question 43.
(a) A rod of length 1.2m moves with its ends always touching the coordinates axes. The locus of a point P on the rod, which is 0.3 m from the end in contact with x-axis is an ellipse. Find the eccentricity.
Answer:
From the diagram,
(i)∆^le OAB be a right angle triangle.

are corresponding angles, so corresponding angles are equal.

(b) Find the non-parametric and Cartesian equation of the plane passing through the point (4, 2, 4), and is perpendicular to the planes 2jt + 5y + 4z+l = 0 and 4JC + ly T 6z + 2 = 0.
Answer:
The required plane passing through the point (4, 2, 4) and parallel to the vectors

Question 44.
(a) A steel plant is capable of producing JC tonnes per day of a low-grade steel andy tonnes per day of a high-grade steel, where y = \(\frac{40-5 x}{10-x}\) If the fixed market price of low-grade steel is half that of high-grade steel, then what should be optimal productions in low-grade steel and high-grade steel in order to have maximum receipts.
Answer:
Let the price of low-grade steel be ₹p per tonne. Then the price of high-grade steel is ₹2p per tonne.

The total receipt per day is given by R = px + 2py = px + 2p \(\frac{40-5 x}{10-x}\) .
Hence the problem is to maximise R . Now, simplifying and differentiating R with respect to x, we get

and hence R will be maximum. If x = 10 – 2√5 then y = 5 – √5 Therefore the steel plant must produce low-grade and high-grade steels respectively in tonnes per day are 10 -2√5 and 5 – √5 .

[OR]

(b) Let z(x,y) xe^y+ye^x,x = ts²,y = st²,s,t ∈ R.Find \(\frac{\partial z}{\partial s}\) and \(\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded between the parabola x2 = y and the curve
y = |x|.
Answer:
Both the curves are symmetrical about y-axis.
The curve \(y=|x| \text { is } y=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
x \text { if } x \geq 0 \\
-x \text { if } x \leq 0
\end{array}\right.\)
It intersects the parabola x2 = y at (1, 1) and (-1, 1). The area of the region bounded by the curves is sketched in Fig. It lies in the first quadrant as well as in the second quadrant. By symmetry, the required area is twice the area in the first quadrant.
In the first quadrant, the upper curve is y = x,0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and the lower curve is y = x², 0 ≤ x ≤ 1.
Hence, the required area is given by

(b) Water at temperature 100°C cools in 10 minutes to 80°C in a room temperature
of 25°C. Find (i) The temperature of water after 20 minutes (ii) The time when the
temperature is 40°C. [log_e\(\frac{11}{5}\) = -0.3101; log_e5 = 1.6094]
Answer:
Let’T’ be the temperature in time ‘f

Question 46.
(a) Suppose a discrete random variable can only take the values 0,1, and 2.
The probability mass function is defined by \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{x^{2}+1}{k}, & \text { for } x=0,1,2 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Find (i) the value of k (ii) cumulative distribution function (m) P(X ≥ 1).
Answer:

(b) Using truth table check whether the statements \(\neg(\boldsymbol{p} \vee \boldsymbol{q}) \vee \neg(\boldsymbol{p} \wedge \boldsymbol{q}) \text { and } \neg \boldsymbol{p}\) are logically equivalent.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Prove by vector method that sin(α + β) = sin α cos β + cos α sin β.
Answer:
Take two points A and B on the unit circle with centre as origin ‘O’, so \(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}|=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}|=1\)

• Let \(\vec{i}\) and \(\vec{j}\) be the unit vectors along the x, y direction respectively.
• The co-ordinates of A and B be (cos α, sin α) and (cos β, -sin β) respectively.


From (1) & (2), we get
sin (α + β) = sin α cos β + cos α sin β

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of tangent and normal to the curve y² – 4x + 2y + 5 = 0 at the point where it cuts the x-axis.
Answer:
y² – 4x + 2y + 5 = 0; given curve cuts the axis, so y = 0
.’. x = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
The required point ( \(\frac{5}{4}\) ,0)

(i) Equation of the tangent

(ii) Equation of the Normal

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Management is an …………….
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art and Science
(d) Art or Science
Answer:
(c) Art and Science

Question 2.
Which of the following is verification function ……………?
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

Question 3.
Capital market is a market for …………..
(a) Short Term Finance
(b) Medium Term Finance
(c) Long Term Finance
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Long Term Finance

Question 4.
Government Securities are issued by agencies such as ………….
(a) Central Government
(b) State Governments
(c) Semi-government Authorities
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
Stock exchanges deal in …………….
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial Securities
(d) Country’s Currency
Answer:
(c) Financial Securities

Question 6.
The headquarters of SEBI is ……………
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 7.
Human resource is an asset…………..
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Fixed
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Intangible

Question 8.
Advertisement is a …………….. source of recruitment.
(a) internal
(b) external
(c) agent
(d) outsourcing
Answer:
(b) external

Question 9.
In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix?
(a) Place Variable
(b) Product Variable
(c) Program Variable
(d) Price Variable
Answer:
(c) Program Variable

Question 10.
Selling goods/services through internet is ……………..
(a) Green marketing
(b) E-business
(c) Social marketing
(d) Niche marketing
(b) E-business

Question 11.
Who is the father of Consumer Movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) John F. Kennedy
(c) Ralph Nader
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Ralph Nader

Question 12.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than ……………..
(a) ₹ 10,00,000
(b) ₹ 20,00,000
(c) ₹ 40,00,000
(d) ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 20,00,000

Question 13.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 14.
Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year
(a) 1940
(b) 1997
(c) 1930
(d) 1960
Answer:
(c) 1930

Question 15.
A cheque will become stale after months of its date.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 16.
Which of the below is not a characteristic of a Fabian Entrepreneur?
(a) Conservative
(b) Risk averse
(c) Sceptical
(d) Adaptive
Answer:
(d) Adaptive

Question 17.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity Shares
(b) Rights Shares
(c) Preference Shares
(d) Bonus Shares
Answer:
(b) Rights Shares

Question 18.
A person shall hold office as a director in companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 19.
Board meetings to be conducted minimum times in a year.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 20.
A special resolution is required to ………………
(a) redeem the debentures
(b) declare dividend
(c) appoint directors
(d) appoint auditor
Answer:
(d) appoint auditor

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Bring out the meaning of Management By Exception.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 22.
Write any two instruments of money market.
Answer:

• Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
• Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market

Question 23.
Define Stock Exchange.
Answer:
According to Husband and Dockerary, “Stock exchanges are privately organized markets which are used to facilitate trading in securities.”

Question 24.
Mention features of campus recruitment.
Answer:
Campus recruitment is one of the external sources of recruitment. Its features are:

• The organisations visit the educational institutions to identify and recruit suitable candidates.
• They have to conduct the test and other interview methods to find out the suitable persons.

Question 25.
Who is called Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a.‘promoter’.

Question 26.
Give two examples of adulteration.
Answer:

• Powdered rice/wheat is adulterated with starch.
• Coffee powder is adulterated with tamarind seed.

Question 27.
Define Business environment.
Answer:
According to Bayard O ‘Wheeler, Business environment is “the total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operations”.

Question 28.
List down any two essential elements of the contract of sale.
Answer:
Following essential elements are necessary for a contract of sale:

• Two Parties: A contract of sale involves two parties – the seller and the buyer.
• Transfer of Property: To constitute sale, the seller must transfer or agree to transfer the ownership in the good to the buyer.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Differentiate Management and Administration.
Answer:

Question 32.
What are the features and types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short- term financial requirements of the Central Government.
Features of Treasury Bills:

• Issuer
• Finance Bills
• Liquidity
• Vital Source
• Monetary Management

Types of Treasury Bills:

• 91 days Treasury Bills
• 182 days Treasury Bills and
• 364 days Treasury Bills

Question 33.
Explain Bull and Bear Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animals behaviour. They are:

• Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future. He purchases the securities expecting price of rise in future.
• Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 34.
What are the features of Human Resources? (Any 3)
Answer:

• Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
• Human resource alone can think, act, analyse and interpret.
• Human resources are emotional beings.

Question 35.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

• Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
• Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
• Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages.

Question 36.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority; i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.

Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures

Question 37.
Explain the meaning of Agreement to sell.
Answer:
The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions specified in the contract. Where the goods under the agreement to sell are destroyed, the loss falls squarely on the seller as the ownership is still vested with the seller even though the possession of the goods is with the buyer.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of crossing.
Answer:
Crossing may be General crossing and Special crossing.
1. General crossing- The lines should be drawn across the face of a cheque and not on the reverse thereof. Further, they must by parallel and transverse. Cross marks such as ‘X’ does not constitute crossing.

2. Special crossing- may be of not negotiable crossing and Account payee crossing. But the A name of banker to whom the payment should be made is to be necessarily written on the face of the cheque.

Question 39.
Distinguish between shares and stocks.
Answer:

Question 40.
Write any three factors of political and legal environment.
Answer:
The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment.

• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like the election system, the law and order situation.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international arena.
• The constitution of the nation.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Explain the modern Principles of Management. (Any 5)
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr. Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organization.

• Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.
• Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
• Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc. It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.
• Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.
• Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market. (Any 5)

Question 42(a) Explain the features of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:
There are various features of a stock exchange. They are given below:

• Market for Securities: Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government companies are bought and sold.
• Deals in Second Hand Securities: It deals with shares, debentures bonds and securities already issued by the companies.
• Regulates Trade in Securities: Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account. It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
• Allows Dealings only in Listed Securities: In the stock exchange only listed securities are purchased and sold. Unlisted securities cannot be traded in the stock exchange.
• Association of Persons: A stock exchange is an association of persons or body of individuals which may be registered or unregistered.

[OR]
(b) Explain the principles of placement.
The following are the principles of placement:

• Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements of the job.
• Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
• Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
• Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
• Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43(a).
What are the differences between on the job training and off the job training?

[OR]
(b) Narrate the elements of marketing mix.
Answer:
Marketing mix means a marketing programme that is offered by a firm for the satisfaction of human wants. There are four Elements of Marketing mix:

• Product: A Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
• Price: Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount charged for the product.
• Place (Physical Distribution): An excellent quality product, with a good price, will be waste, if it is not transferred from the production place to consumption place.
• Promotion: An excellent product with competitive price cannot achieve a desired success and acceptance in market, with special features are conveyed to the consumers.

Question 44(a).
How consumers are exploited? (Any 5)
Answer:
Consumer is one who consumes the goods manufactured or created. Consumers are exploited in many ways in the business. They are as follows:

• Selling at Higher Price: The price charged by the seller for a product or service may not be higher compared to the quality.
• Adulteration: It refers to mixing or substituting undesirable material in food. This leads to heavy loss to the consumer, (e.g. ) Mixing of stones with grains.
• Duplicate or Spurious goods: Duplicate products of popular products are illegally produced and sold.
• Artificial Scarcity: There are certain situations where the shop-keepers put up the board ‘No Stock” in front of their shops, even though there is plenty of stock in the store.
• Sub-standard: On opening a packet or sealed container one may find the content to be of poor quality.

[OR]

(b) Explain the advantages of liberalization. (Any 5)
Answer:
Liberalization means relaxation of various government restrictions in the areas of social and economic policies of the country.

Advantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in foreign investment: If a country liberalizes its trade, it will make the country more attractive for inward investment.
• Increase the foreign exchange reserve: Relaxation in the regulations covering foreign investment and foreign exchange has paved way for easy access to foreign capital.
• Increase in consumption: Liberalization increases the number of goods available for consumption within a country.

Question 45(a).
Distinguish between Condition and Warranty.

Question 46(a)
Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs.
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows:-
(1) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.

(2) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations.

(3) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.

(4) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.

(5) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Write the difference between Shares and Debentures. (Any 5)

Question 47(a).
What are the collective duties of directors?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as a trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors: Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as a part of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

• Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
• Appointment of First Auditors
• Passing of resolutions at board meetings
• Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

[OR]
(b) Elaborate the functions of the Company Secretary.
The functions of the Company Secretary may be divided into two types. They are:

• Statutory functions
• Non-Statutory functions

Statutory Functions: As the principal officer of the company, the secretary must observe all the legal formalities in respect of the provisions of the Companies Act and other laws, for the activities of the company.

According to Companies Act 2013:

• To sign document and proceedings requiring authentication by the company
• To maintain share registers and register of directors and of contracts.
• To give notice to register for increase in the share capital
• To send notice of general meeting to every member of the company
• To prepare minutes of every general meeting and board meeting within 30 days

Non-Statutory Functions: The secretary has to discharge non-statutory functions in relation to directors, shareholders and office and staff.

Functions in Relation to Directors:
A company secretary acts under the full control of the board of directors and carry out the instructions of the directors. The secretary will arrange board meetings issuing notice, and preparing agenda of meetings, recording the attendance and minutes of meetings.

Functions in Relation to Shareholders:
The company secretary must serve in the best interests of the shareholders.
He has to arrange the issue of allotment letters, call letters, letters of regret, share certificates, and share warrants to Shareholders.

Functions in Relation to Office and Staff:
The secretary is responsible for smooth functioning of the office work. He exercises an overall supervision, control and co-ordination of all clerical activities in the office.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.5

Evaluate the following limits, if necessary use l’Hopital Rule.

Question 1.

Solution:

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.

Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.

Solution:

Question 12.
If an initial amount A₀ of money is invested at an interest rate r compounded n times a year, the value of the investment after t years is . If the interest is compounded continuously, (that is as n ➝ ∞), show that the amount after t years is A = A₀e^rt.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.5 Additional Problems

Question 1.

Solution:

Note that here l’Hopital’s rule, applied yields the result

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Try More:

Gift Nifty Futures

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The rank of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{rrrr}
1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\
2 & 4 & 6 & 8 \\
-1 & -2 & -3 & -4
\end{array}\right]\) is ………….
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 2.
If \(\left|z-\frac{3}{z}\right|\) , then the least value of | z | is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 3.
The product of all four values of ‘\(\left(\cos \frac{\pi}{3}+i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}\) is ………….
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 1

Question 4.
The value of cos^-1(-1) + tan^-1(∞) + sin^-1 1 = ………….
(a) 3π/2
(b) -π
(c) 2π
(d) 3π
Answer:
(c) 2π

Question 5.
The value of sin ^-1(1) + sin^-1(0) is
(a) π/2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) π
Answer:
(a) π/2

Question 6.
The length of the diameter of the circle which touches the x -axis at the point (1,0) and passes through the point (2, 3)
(a) 6/5
(b) 5/3
(c) 10/3
(d) 3/5
Answer:
(c) 10/3

Question 7.
Area of the greatest rectangle inscribed in the ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\) is ………….
(a) 2ab
(b) ab
(c) \(\sqrt{a b}\)
(d) a/b
Answer:
(a) 2ab

Question 8.
The angle between two vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) if \(|\vec{a} \times \vec{b}|=\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}\) is ………….
(a) π/4
(b) π/3
(c) π/6
(d) π/2
Answer:
(a) π/4

Question 9.
The distance between the planes x + 2y + 3z + 7 = 0 and 2x + 4y + 6z + 7 = 0 is ………….

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)

Question 10.
The tangent to the curve y² – xy + 9 = 0 is vertical when
(a) y = 0
(b) y = ± √3
(c) y = 1/2
(d) y = ± 3

Question 11.
The curve y² = (x – a) (x – b)², a, b> 0 and a > b does not exist for
(a) x ≥ a
(b) x = b
(c) b < x < a
(d) x = a

Question 12.
The percentage error of fifth root of 31 is approximately how many times the percentage error in 31 ?
(a) 1/31
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 31
Answer:
(b) 1/5

Question 13.
The differential of y if y =\(\frac{x-2}{2 x+3}\) is ………….

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{7}{(2 x+3)^{2}} d x\)

Question 14.
If \(\int_{0}^{a} \frac{1}{4+x^{2}} d x=\frac{\pi}{8}\) then a is ………….
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 15.
If n is off then \(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos ^{n} x d x\) is

Answer:

Question 16.
The solution of \(\frac{d y}{d x}+p(x) y=0\) is
(a) y = ce^∫pdx
(b) y = ce^-∫pdx
(c) x = ce^-∫pdx
(d) x = ce^∫pdx
Answer:
(b) y = ce^-∫pdx

Question 17.
The order and degree of the differential equation are \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-y+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}=0\) ………….
(a) 2, 3
(b) 3,3
(c) 3, 2
(d) 2, 2
Answer:
(b) 3,3

Question 18.
The random variable X has the probability density function \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
a x+b, & 0<x<1 \\
0, & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\) and E(X) = —, then a and b are respectively ………….
(a) 1 and 1/2
(b) 1/2 and 1
(c) 2 and 1
(d) 1 and 2
Answer:
(a) 1 and 1/2

Question 19.
If the function f(x) = 1/12 for a < x < b represents a probability density function of a continuous random variable X, then which of the following cannot be the value of a and b?
(a) 0 and 12
(b) 5 and 17
(c) 7 and 19
(d) 16 and 24
Answer:
(d) 16 and 24

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not true?
(a) Negation of a negation of a statement is the statement itself.
(b) If the last column of the truth table contains only T then it is a tautology.
(c) If the last column of its truth table contains only F then it is a contradiction
(d) If p and q are any two statements then p ↔ q is a tautology.
Answer:
(d) If p and q are any two statements then p ↔ q is a tautology.

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No.30 is compulsory [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
If adj [A] = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & -2 & 0 \\
6 & 2 & -6 \\
-3 & 0 & 6
\end{array}\right]\) then find A^-1
Answer:

Question 22.
Obtain the condition that the roots of x³ + px² + qx + r = 0 are in A.P.
Answer:
Let the roots be in A.R Then, we can assume them in the form α – d, α, α + d. Applying the Vietas formula (α – d) + α + (α + d) = -y = \(-\frac{p}{1}\) => 3α = -p => α = \(-\frac{p}{3}\)
But, we note that a is a root of the given equation. Therefore, we get

Question 23.
Show that \(\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}\right)=\sec ^{-1} x\) |x| > 1
Answer:

We construct a right triangle with the given data.
From the triangle, sec α = \(\frac{x}{1}\) = x. Thus, α = sec^-1 x.


Question 24.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} x^{\frac{1}{x-1}}\)
Answer:

Question 25.
The radius of a circular disc is given as 24 cm with a maximum error in measurement of 0.02 cm. (i) Use differentials to estimate the maximum error in the calculated area of the disc, (ii) Compute the relative error.
Answer:
r = 24 cm, dr = 0;02 cm

Question 26.
Evaluate \(\int_{-\log 2}^{\log 2} e^{-|x|} d x\)
Answer:

Question 27.
Show that the following expressions is a solution of the corresponding given differential equation.
y = ae^x + be^-x ; y” – y = 0
Answer:
y = ae^x + be^-x …(1) Differential equation: y”- y = 0
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y’ = ae^x – be^-x
Again differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y”= ae^x + be^-x
y” = y ⇒ y” – y = 0
∴ (1) is the solution of the given differential equation.

Question 28.
Suppose X is the number of tails occurred when three fair coins are tossed once simultaneously. Find the values of the random variable X and number of points in its inverse images.
Answer:
Let X is the random variable denotes the number of tails when three coins are tossed simultaneously.
Sample space S = {HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT}
∴ ‘X’ takes the values 0, 1, 2, 3
i.e., X (HHH) = 0 ; X (HHT, HTH, THH) = 1 ; X (HTT, THT, TTH) = 2 ; X (TTT) = 3

Question 29.
Verify the (i) closure property (it) commutative property (iii) associative property ‘ (iv) existence of identity and (v) existence of inverse for the arithmetic operation + on Z_o = the set of all odd integers.
Answer:
Consider the set Z₀ of all odd integers Z₀ = {2k + 1 : k ∈ Z} = 5,—3,-1, 1 ,3 ,5, …}. + is not a binary operation on Z₀ because when x = 2m + 1, y = 2n + 1,
x + y = 2(m + n) + 2 is even for all m and n. For instance, consider the two odd numbers 3,7 ∈ Z₀. Their sum 3 + 7 = 10 is an even number. In general, if x, y ∈ Z 0, then (x + y)∉ Z ₀
Other properties need not be checked as it is not a binary operation.

Question 30.
Simplify i¹⁹⁴⁸ – i¹⁸⁶⁹
Answer:

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find the inverse of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & -1 & 3 \\
-5 & 3 & 1 \\
-3 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:

Question 32.
Find the value of \(\left(\frac{1+\sin \frac{\pi}{10}+i \cos \frac{\pi}{10}}{1+\sin \frac{\pi}{10}-i \cos \frac{\pi}{10}}\right)^{10}\)
Answer:

Question 33.
Foci (0, ± 4) and end points of major axis are(0, ± 5). Find the equation of the ellipse.
Answer:
From the diagram we see that major axis is along y-axis.
Also a = 5 and ae = 4
⇒ 5e = 4 ⇒e = 4/5
Now a = 5 ⇒ a² = 25
ae = 4 ⇒ ae² =16
So b²= a²(1 – e²) = a²– a²e² = 25 – 16 = 9

Question 34.
Show that the two lines \(\vec{r}=(\vec{i}-\vec{j})+t(2 \vec{i}+\vec{k}) \text { and } \vec{r}=(2 \vec{i}-\vec{j})+s(\vec{i}+\vec{j}-\vec{k})\) lines and find the distance between them.
Answer:

Question 35.
Find the local maximum and minimum of the function x² y² on the line x+y = 10.
Answer:
Let the given function be written as f(x) = x²(10 – x)². Now,
f(x) = x² (100 – 20x + x²) = x⁴ – 20x³ + 100x²
Therefore, f’ (x) = 4x³ – 60x² + 200x = 4x (x² – 15x + 50)
f'(x) = 4x(x² – 15x + 50) = 0 ⇒ x = 0, 5, 10
and f ” (x) = 12x² – 120x + 200

The stationary points of /(x) are x = 0, 5, 10 at these points the values of f” (x) are respectively 200, -100 and 200. At x = 0, it has local minimum and its value is f(0) = 0. At x = 5, it has local maximum and its value is f(5) = 625. At x =10, it has local minimum and its value is f(10) = 0.

Question 36.
Let U(x, y, z) = x² – xy + 3sin z, x, y, z ∈ R. Find the linear approximation for U at (2,-1,0).
Answer:
Linear approximation is given by

Now U_x = 2x – y, U_y = – x and U_z = 3cos z.
Here (x₀,y₀,z₀) = (2, -1,0), hence U_x(2, -1,0) = 5, U_y(2, -1,0) = -2 and U_z (2, -1,0) = 3.
Thus L(x, y, z) = 6 + 5(x – 2) – 2(y + 1) + 3(z – 0) = 5x – 2y + 3z – 6 is the required linear approximation for U at (2,-1,0).

Question 37.
Find the volume of a sphere of radius a.
Answer:
By revolving the upper semicircular region enclosed between the circle x² + y² = a² and the x-axis, we get a sphere of radius a.
The boundaries of the region are y = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-x^{2}}\) x-axis x = -a and x= a Hence, the volume of the sphere is given by

Question 38.
Solve the following differential equations: ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy = 0
Answer:
ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy =0
(1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy= -y dx
Separating the variables

log y = – log (tan^-1x) + log c
log y + log (tan^-1 x) = log c
log (y tan^-1 x) = log c
y tan^-1 x = c

Question 39.
Prove that \(\boldsymbol{q} \rightarrow \boldsymbol{p} \equiv \neg \boldsymbol{p} \rightarrow \neg \boldsymbol{q}\)
Answer:
Truth table for q → p

Truth table for \(\neg p \rightarrow \neg q\)

The entries in the column corresponding to q → p and \(\neg p \rightarrow \neg q\) are identical and hence they are equivalent.

Question 40.
If on an average 1 ship out of 10 do not arrive safely to ports. Find the mean and the standard deviation of the ships returning safely out of a total of 500 ships.
Answer:
Probability of a ship arriving safely

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) If F(α) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\cos \alpha & 0 & \sin \alpha \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
-\sin \alpha & 0 & \cos \alpha
\end{array}\right]\) show that F[(α)]^-1 = F(-α)
Answer:
Let A = F(α)
So F[(α)]^-1 = F(-α)

Expanding the determinant – along R2 We get
-0() + 1 [cos²α + sin²α] – 0() = 1 ≠ 0
So A^-1 exists

[OR]

(b) If ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that the roots of the equation (z – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are -1,1- 2ω , 1- 2ω²
Answer:
(z- 1)³ + 8 = 0 ⇒ (z – 1)³ = -8

Question 42.
(a) Solve: \((\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2})^{x}+(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})^{x}=10\)
Answer:

[OR]

(b) If a₁ a₂, a₃,… a_n is an arithmetic progression with common difference d. Prove that

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Show that the linex-y + 4 = 0isa tangent to the ellipse x² + 3y² = 12. Also find the coordinates of the point of contact.
Answer:
The given ellipse is x² + 3y² =12

(ie.,) Here a² = 12 and b² = 4
The given line is x – y + 4 = 0
(ie.,) y = x + 4
Comparing this line with y = mx + c
We get m = 1 and c = 4
The condition for the line y = mx + c

LHS = c² = 4² = 16
RHS: a²m² + b² = 12(1)² + 4=16
LHS = RHS ⇒ The given line is a tangent to the ellipse. Also the point of contact is

(b) Using vector method, prove that cos(α – β) = cos α cos β + sin α sin β
Answer:
Take two points A and B on the unit circle with centre
as origin ‘O’. so \(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}|=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}|=1\)
\(\mathrm{AO} x=\alpha ; \quad \mathrm{BO} x=\beta \Rightarrow \mathrm{LAOB}=\alpha-\beta\)
Let \(\vec{i}\) and \(\vec{j}\) be the unit vectors along the x, y respectively.
The co-ordinates of A and B be (cos α, sin α) and (cos β, sin β) respectively.

Question 44.
(a) A farmer plans to fence a rectangular pasture adjacent to a river. The pasture must contain 1,80,000 sq. mtrs in order to provide enough grass for herds. No fencing is needed along the river. What is the length of the minimum needed fencing material?
Answer:
Given Area = 180000 sqm
Let length be x and breadth be y
Now xy = 180000
⇒ y = \( \frac{180000}{x}\)
Now perimeter = 2x + y(∵one side is along ther river)

at x = 300 m, p is positive ⇒ x = 300 is a minimum point
180000
when x = 300 m, y = \( \frac{180000}{300}\) = 600 m
So minimum perimeter = 2x + y
= 2(300) + 600 = 1200 m

[OR]

(b) If u = log (tan x + tan y + tan z), prove that \(\Sigma \sin 2 x \frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=2\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Evaluate as the limit of sums: \(\int_{1}^{2}\left(x^{2}-1\right) d x\)
Answer:
Let f(x) = x² – 1 for 1≤ x ≤ 2
We divide the interval [1,2] into n equal sub-intervals each of length h. We have a = 1, b = 2

Here,f(a) = f(1) = (1)² – 1 = 0
f(a + h) = f(1 + h) = (1 + h)² – 1 = 1 + h² + 2h – 1 = h² + 2h
f(a + 2h) = f(1 + 2h) = (1 +2h)² = 1 + 4h² + 4h – 1 = 4h² + 4h
f[a + (n -1) h] = f[1 + (n -1) A] = [1 + (n -1) h]² – 1
= 1 + (n – 1)² h² + 2(n – 1) h – 1 = (n – 1)² h² + 2(n – 1) h²

(b) Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x-y+5}{2(x-y)+7}\)
Answer:


Integrating both sides, we get
2z + 3 log |z + 2| =x + c
That is, 2(x – y) + 3 log |x – y + 2| = x + c

Question 46.
(a) For the random variable X with the given probability mass function as below, find the mean and variance.
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
2(x-1), & 1<x<<2 \\
0 & , \quad \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:

(b) Show that the set { [1], [3], [4], [5], [9]} under multiplication modulo 11 satisfies closure, associative, identity and inverse properties.
Answer:
G = {[1], [3], [4], [5], [9]}
* is defined by multiplication modulo 11.
To prove G is an abelian group with respect to *
Since we are given a finite number of elements i.e., since the given set is finite, we can frame the multiplication table called Cayley’s table.
The Cayley’s table is as follows:

G₁: The elements in the above table are [1], [3], [4], [5] and [9] which are elements of G.
.’. closure axiom is verified.
G₂ : Consider [3], [4], [5] which are elements of G.
{[3]*[4]}*[5] = [1]*[5] = [5] ……….(1)
[3] *{[4]*[5]} = [3]*[9] = [5] ……….(2)
(1) = (2) ⇒ (a * b) * c = a * (b * c) i.e., associative axiom is verified.
G₃ : The first row elements are the same as that of the given elements in the same order.
i.e., from the table, the identity element is [1] ∈ G. So identity axiom is verified.

inverse axiom is verified.
G₅ : From the table * is commutative i.e., the entries equidistant from the leading diagonal on either sides are equal ⇒ a * b = b * a

Question 47.
(a) For the ellipse 4x² + y² + 24x – 2y + 21 = 0, find the centre, vertices, and the foci. Also prove that the length of latus rectum is 2.
Answer:
Rearranging the terms, the equation of ellipse is ,
4x² + 24x + y² – 2y + 21 = 0
That is, 4(x² + 6x + 9 – 9) + (y² – 2y + 1 – 1) + 21 =0
4 (x +3)² – 36 + (y-1)² – 1 + 21 = 0
4 (0+ 3)² + (y – 1)² = 16


Centre is (-3,1) a = 4, b = 2, and the major axis is parallel to y -axis
c² = 16 – 4 = 12
c = ± 2 √3
Therefore, the foci are (-3, 2√ +1) and (-3, -2√3 + 1).
Vertices are (1,± 4 +1). That is the vertices are (1, 5) and (1, -3), and
The length of Latus rectum = \(\frac{2 b^{2}}{a}\) = 2 units

[OR]

(b) If \(\vec{a}=-2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}-2 \hat{k}, \vec{b}=3 \hat{i}-\hat{j}+3 \hat{k}, \vec{c}=2 \hat{i}-5 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\) find \((\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times \vec{c}\) and \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b} \times \vec{c})\)
State whether they are equal.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Scientific management is developed by ……………….
(a) Fayol
(b) Taylor
(c) Mayo
(d) Jacob
Answer:
(b) Taylor

Question 2
keeps Management Alert to Opportunities and Threats by Identifying Critical Problems.
(a) MBA
(b) MBE
(c) MBM
(d) MBO
Answer:
(b) MBE

Question 3.
Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the …………..
(a) First time
(b) second time
(c) Three time
(d) Several time
Answer:
(a) First time

Question 4.
There are stock exchange in the country.
(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 21

Question 5.
Human Resource management is both and ……………
(a) science and art
(b) theory and practice
(c) history and geography
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) science and art

Question 6.
A poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on ………… and supervision.
(a) training
(b) recruitment
(c) work quality
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) training

Question 7.
The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is ………..
(a) qualification of the customers
(b) quality of the product
(c) background of the customers
(d) needs of the customers
Answer:
(d) needs of the customers

Question 8.
Which is gateway to internet?
(a) portal
(b) CPU
(c) modem
(d) webnaire
Answer:
(c) modem

Question 9.
Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year?
(a) 1962
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1982

Question 10.
The chairman of the state consumer protection council is ……………
(a) Judge of a High Court
(b) Chief minister
(c) Finance minister
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Judge of a High Court

Question 11
………… means permitting the private sector to set up industries which were previously
reserved for public sector.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Public enterprise
Answer:
(b) privatisation

Question 12.
Which of the below is not a good?
(a) stocks
(b) dividend due
(c) crops
(d) water
Answer:
(b) dividend due

Question 13.
The transferee of a Negotiable Instrument is the one
(a) Who transfer the instrument
(b) On whose name it is transferred
(c) Who enchases it
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) On whose name it is transferred

Question 14.
Entrepreneur is not classified as …………
(a) Risk bearer
(b) Innovator
(c) Employee
(d) Organizer
Answer:
(b) Innovator

Question 15.
Which of the following is the activity of a business entrepreneur?
(a) production
(b) marketing
(c) operation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 16.
…………… is designed to transform India to a global design and manufacturing hub.
(a) Digital India
(b) Make in India
(c) Startup India
(d) Design India
Answer:
(b) Make in India

Question 17.
For which type of capital a company pays the prescribed fees at the time of registration?
(a) Subscribed capital
(b) Authorised capital
(c) Paid-up capital
(d) Issued capital
Answer:
(b) Authorised capital

Question 18.
Which ………….. Director is appointed by a Financial institution?
(a) Nominee
(b) Additional
(c) Women
(d) Shadow
Answer:
(a) Nominee

Question 19.
Which meeting will be held only once in the life time of the company?
(a) Statutory
(b) Annual general
(c) Extra ordinary
(d) Class general
Answer:
(a) Statutory

Question 20.
Distribution of work in groupwise or section-wise is called as
(a) co-ordinating
(b) controlling
(c) staffing
(d) organising
Answer:
(d) organising

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Who is a manager?
Answer:
A manager is a dynamic and life giving element in every business. Without efficient management it cannot be possible to secure the best allocation and utilisation of human, material and financial resources.

Question 22.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader.

Question 23.
Write a note on financial market.
Answer:
A financial market is an institution or arrangement that facilitates the exchange of financial instruments such as equity shares, preference shares, debentures, deposits and loans, corporate stocks and bonds, government bonds, and more exotic instruments such as options and futures contracts.

Question 24.
What is commercial bill market?
Answer:
The Commercial Bill is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods. A bill of exchange issued by a commercial organization to raise money for short-term needs. These bills are of 30 days, 60 days and 90 days maturity.

Question 25.
Write any two objectives of SEBI.
Answer:
The first objective of SEBI is to regulate, stock exchanges so that efficient services may be provided to all the parties operating there. Another objective is to supervise/check the activities of the brokers and other middlemen in order to control the capital market.

Question 26.
What is an interview?
Answer:
According to Scott and others “an interview is a purpose full exchange of ideas, the answering of questions and communication between two or more persons.”

Question 27.
What is green marketing?
Answer:
Green marketing involves developing and promoting products and services which satisfy customers’ wants and needs for quality, performance, affordable pricing and convenience – all without causing a detrimental impact on the environment.

Question 28.
Define Consumerism.
Answer:
“Consumerism is an attempt to enhance the rights and powers by buyers in relation to sellers”.

Question 29.
What is internal environment?
Answer:
Internal environment refers to those factors within an organisation e.g. Policies and programmes, organisational structure, employees, financial and physical resources.

Question 30.
Define Bill of Exchange.
Answer:
According to section 5 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, “a bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No.40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Is management an Art or Science?
Answer:
Management is neither a science nor an art, but a combination of both requiring people holding managerial positions to apply the scientific management principles and displaying popular managerial skills to accomplish the organizational goals as efficiently and as quickly as possible so as to be competitive in the globalised environment of business.

Question 32.
Give the meaning and definition of financial market.
Answer:

• Meaning: A market wherein financial instruments such as financial claims, assets and securities are traded is known as a ‘financial market’.
• Definition: According to Brigham, Eugene F, “The place where people and organizations wanting to borrow money are brought together with those having surplus funds is called a financial market.”

Question 33.
Explain Bull and Bear.
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animals behaviour. They are:

• Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future.He purchases the securities expecting price of rise in future.
• Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 34.
What is stress interview?
Answer:
This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional balance of the candidate interviewed. Interviewer deliberately creates stressful situation and tries to assess the suitability of the candidate by observing his reaction and response to the stressful situations.

Question 35.
Explain the importance of social marketing.
Answer:
The primary aim of social marketing is ‘social good’ such as anti-tobacco, anti-drug, anti¬pollution, anti-dowry, road safety, protection of girl child, against the use of plastic bags. Social marketing promotes the consumption of socially desirable products and develops health consciousness. It helps to eradicate social evils that affect the society and quality of life.

Question 36.
Is Consumer Protection necessary?
Answer:
Consumer is supposed to be the king in the business. Consumer satisfaction is compulsorily necessary. Because the business depends upon the consumer. If there is no consumer, no need of production or sales. So the consumer is to be fully satisfied and respected in the market.

Question 37.
Discuss in detail about existing goods.
Answer:
Existing goods are those owned or possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale. Goods possessed even refer to sale by agents or by pledgers. Existing goods may be either:

• Specific Goods
• Ascertained Goods
• Generic or Unascertained Goods

Question 38.
Explain the nature of a Negotiable Instrument.
Answer:
A negotiable instrument is transferable from one person to another without any formality, such as affixing stamp, registration, etc. When the instrument is held by holder in due course in the process of negotiation, it is cured of all defects in the instrument with respect to ownership. Though a bill, a promissory note or a cheque represents a debt, the transferee is entitled to sue on the instrument in his own name in case of dishonour, without giving notice to the debtor that he has become its holder.

Question 39.
What is ‘Startup India’?
Answer:
Through the Startup India initiative, Government of India promotes entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and facilitating startups throughout their life cycle.

Question 40.
What do you mean by Statutory Meeting?
Answer:
According to Companies Act, every public company, should hold a meeting of the shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from the date of commencement of business of the company. This is the first general meeting of the public company, which is called the Statutory Meeting. This meeting is conducted only once in the lifetime of the company.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Describe the principles of scientific management.
Principles of scientific management propounded by Taylor are:

(i) Science, Not Rule of Thumb: Rule of Thumb means decisions taken by manager as per their personal judgments. According to Taylor, even a small production activity like loading iron sheets into box cars can be scientifically planned. This will help in saving time as well as human energy. Decisions should be based on scientific enquiry with cause and effect relationships.

(ii) Harmony, Not Discord: Taylor emphasized that there should be complete harmony between the workers and the management since if there is any conflict between the two,it will not be beneficial either for the workers or the management. Both the management and the workers should realize the importance of each other.

(iii) Mental Revolution: The technique of Mental Revolution involves a change in the attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both should realize the importance of each other and should work with full cooperation. Management as well as the workers should aim to increase the profits of the organisation.

(iv) Cooperation, Not Individualism: This principle is an extension of principle of Harmony, not discord’ and lays stress on mutual cooperation between workers and the management. Cooperation, mutual confidence, sense of goodwill should prevail among both, managers as well as workers. The intention is to replace internal competition with cooperation. Both ‘Management’ and ‘Workers’ should realize the importance of each other.

(v) Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity: Efficiency of any organisation also depends on the skills and capabilities of its employees to a great extent. Thus, providing training to the workers was considered essential in order to learn the best method developed through the use of scientific approach.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of MBE?
Answer:
Management by exception provides the following advantages:

•  It saves the time of managers because they deal only with exceptional matters. Routine problems are left to subordinates.
• It focuses managerial attention on major problems. As a result, there is better utilisation of managerial talents and energy.
• It facilitates delegation of authority. Top management concentrates on strategic decisions and operational decisions are left to the lower levels. There is increase in span of control. This leads to motivation and development of subordinates.
• It is a technique of separating important information from unimportant one. It forces managers to review past history and study related business data for identifying deviations. There is better use of knowledge of trends, history and available business data.MBE keeps management alert to opportunities and threats by identifying critical problems. It can avoid uninformed and impulsive action.
• Management by exception provides better yardsticks for judging results. It is helpful in objective performance appraisal.

Question 42(a).
Define Money Market and Capital Market. Explain the difference between the Money Market and Capital Market.
Answer:

• Money Market Definition: According to Crowther, “the money market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money.”
• Capital Market Definition: According to Arun K. Datta, capital market may be defined as “a complex of institutions investment and practices with established links between the demand for and supply of different types of capital gains”.

Question 43.
Differences between the Money Market and Capital Market
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Describe the significance of Human Resource Management.
The role of human resource management is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees. The significance of human resource management is given below:

(i) To identify manpower needs: Determination of manpower needs in an organisation is very important as it is a form of investment.

(ii) To ensure the correct requirement of manpower: At any time the organisation should not suffer from shortage or surplus manpower which is made possible through human resource management.

(iii) To select right man for right job: Human resource management ensures the right talent to select the right employee for the right job.

(iv) To update the skill and knowledge: Human resource management enables employees to remain up-to-date through training and development programmes.

(v) To appraise the performance of employees: Periodical appraisal of performance of employees through human resource management activities boosts up good performers and motivates slow performers.

Question 43.
(a) Define training. Discuss various types of training.
Answer:
According to Edwin B. Flippo “Training is the act of increasing the Knowledge and skills of an employee for doing particular jobs”. Training may be mainly divided into

• On the job training
• Off the job training

On the Job Training: On the job training refers to the training which is given to the employee at the workplace. The following are the on the job training methods.

• Coaching Method: In this method of training, the superior teaches or guides the new employee about the knowledge and skills.
• Mentoring Method: Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee.
• Internship Training Method: A superior gives training to a subordinates or understudy like an assistant to a manager.

(b) Off the Job Training: It is the training method wherein the workers leam the job role away from the actual work place. The following are types of off the job training:

• Lecture Method: Under this method trainees are educated about concepts, theories, principles in any particular area.
• E-learning Method: E-leaming is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office.

[OR]

(b) What are the needs for consumer protection?
Answer:
Consumer is to be protected from the cheating business people. Though the consumer is said to be the king, his interests are neglected. Consumer protection is applicable to public sector, financial and co-operative enterprises. Recently even medical services have been brought under consumer movement. Satisfaction and wellbeing of the consumer should be the main objective of business. But in real practice consumer is not protected and safeguarded. Thus there is a need for consumer protection or movement.

Question 44(a).
Describe the economic and socio-cultural environment of business.
Answer:
Economic Environment: The multiple variables in the. macro environment system which has a bearing on a business include:

• The nature of economy is based on the stage of development. The countries across the globe can be categorised on the basis of growth and per capita income as developed nations, developing nations and under developed nations.
• The economic systems can be classified as Capitalistic, Socialistic and Mixed economy.
• The economic policies of a nation are: Monetary policy, Fiscal policy, Industrial policy, Foreign exchange policy and Export-import policy.

Socio-Cultural environment: Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located. It is dynamic and includes the behaviour of individuals, the role and importance of family, customs, religion and languages, the ethical values.
[OR]

b. Distinguish between sale and agreement to sell.

Question 45.
(a) Distinguish a cheque and a bill of exchange.
Answer:

[OR]
(b) What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Characteristics of an Entrepreneur:
(i) Spirit of Enterprise: Entrepreneur should be bold enough to encounter risk arising from the venture undertaken.

(ii) Self-confidence: Entrepreneur should have self-confidence in order to achieve high goals ‘ in the business.

(iii) Flexibility: Entrepreneur should not doggedly stick to decisions in a rigid fashion.

(iv) Innovation: Entrepreneur should contribute something new or something unique to meet the changing requirements of customers namely new product, new method of production or distribution, adding new features to the existing product, uncovering a new territory for business, innovating new raw material, etc.

(v) Resource Mobilisation: Entrepreneur should have the capability to mobilise both tangible inputs like manpower, money materials, technology, market, method etc., which are scattered over a wide area and certain intangible inputs like motivation, morale and innovativeness.

Question 46.
(a) Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Nature of functional entrepreneurs:

• Innovative Entrepreneur: He is a person who introduces new project. They observe the environment regarding information to the new venture.
• Imitative Entrepreneur: He refers to the person who simply imitates existing knowledge or technology already in advance countries. Redesigning of products suited to the local conditions.
• Fabian Entrepreneur: These are said to be conservatives and sceptical about any changes in their organisation. They are of risk-averse.
• Drone Entrepreneur: Drone entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes in the environment. They used to operate in the niche market.

[OR]
(b) Brief different stages in Formation of a Company.
Section 3(1) of the Act states that a company may be formed for any lawful purpose by – (a) seven or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a public company;
(b) two or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a private company; or
(c) one person, where the company to be formed is to be One Person Company.

The process of formation of company consists of different stages:

1. Promotion: Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person.

2. Registration: The second stage in the formation of the company is incorporation or registration. In this stage, the promoter has to fix name of the company, prepare the necessary documents (Memorandum and Articles of Association), fix the registered
office, and name of the directors. After this, certificate of incorporation is issued.

3. Capital Subscription: A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two stages. One of them is capital subscription.

The steps for this is:

• Formalities for raising capital.00 Issuing prospectus
• Appointing official banker
• Pass resolution to make allotment

4. Commencement of Business: As per section 11 of the Act, a company having share capital should file with the Registrar, declaration stating that

• Every subscriber has paid the value of shares.
• Paid-up capital is not less than Rs.5 lakhs for a public limited company and Rs.l lakh in case of a private limited company.
• It has filed the Registrar, regarding the verification of registered office.
  After fulfilling these details, the Registrar will issue certificate of commencement of business.

Question 47.
(a) Explain composition of the board of directors.
Answer:
Composition of the Board off Directors:
(i) General Optimum Combination: Board of Directors shall have an optimum combination of executive and non-executive directors with at least one woman director.

(ii) When the non-executive Director is the Chairperson: In this case, at least one-third of the board of directors shall comprise of independent directors.

(iii) When the non-executive chairperson is a promoter or is related to any promoter or person occupying management positions at the level of board of director or at one level below the Board of Directors: In this case, at least one half of the board of directors of the company shall consist of Independent Directors.

[OR]

(b) Briefly state different types of company meetings.
A Company can convene meetings to discuss the performance of the company and also to take decisions. Under the companies Act 2013, company meetings may be classified as follows:

(i) Meetings of Shareholders: The meeting held for the shareholders of the company is shareholders meeting. This may be divided as follows:

• Statutory Meeting: Every public company should hold a meeting of the shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from the commencement of the business.
• Annual General Meeting: Every year a meeting is held to transact the ordinary business of the company. It is called annual general meeting.
• Extra-Ordinary General Meeting: If any meeting conducted in between two annual general meetings to deal with some urgent or special or extraordinary nature of business is called as extra-ordinary general meeting.

(ii) Meeting of the Board of Directors: To decide policy matters of the company, the board of directors meet frequently, which is known as meeting of the board of directors.

• Board Meetings: Meetings of the directors are called board meetings. It may be convened to discuss the business and take formal decisions.
• Committee Meetings: Every listed company and every other public company having a capital of? 10 crore is required to have audit committee. The meeting held by this committee is known as committee meetings.

(iii) Special Meeting:

• Class Meeting: Meetings held by a particular class of share or debenture holders is known as Special or Class meeting, e.g. preference shareholders or debenture holders meeting.
• Meetings of the Creditors: These are not meetings of a company. Meetings held with the creditors to discuss any crisis about the financial matters.