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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part -I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
……………. system gives full scope to the Individual strength and Responsibility.
(a) MBO
(b) MBE
(c) MBM
(d) MBA
Answer:
(a) MBO

Question 2.
Capital market do not provide ……………..
(a) Short term funds
(b) Debenture funds
(c) Equity funds
(d) Long term funds
Answer:
(a) Short term funds

Question 3.
……………….. is the oldest stock exchange in the world.
a) London stock exchange
(b) Bombay stock exchange
(c) National stock exchange
(d) Amsterdam Stock Exchange
Answer:
(b) Bombay stock exchange

Question 4.
Human resource is a ……………. asset.
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Fixed
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Intangible

Question 5.
Off the Job training is given ………….
(a) In the class room
(b) On off days
(c) Outside the factory
(d) In the playground
Answer:
(c) Outside the factory

Question 6.
…………………….. is the result of New Industrial Policy which abolished the ‘License system’.
(a) Globalisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalization
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Liberalization

Question 7.
The initiative was launched to modernize the Indian economy to make all government services available electronically.
(a) Stand up India
(b) Start up India
(c) Digital India
(d) Make in India
Answer:
(c) Digital India

Question 8.
A person shall hold office as a director …………….. in companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 9.
Management is an …………….
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art and science
(d) Art or science
Answer:
(c) Art and science

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a main function?
(a) Decision – making
(b) Planning
(c) Organising
(d) Staffing
Answer:
(a) Decision – making

Question 11.
Which is the first step in process of MBO?
(a) Fixing key result area
(b) Appraisal of activities
(c) Matching resources with activities
(d) Defining organizational objectives
Answer:
(d) Defining organizational objectives

Question 12.
Capital market is a market for ……………
(a) Short term finance
(b) Medium term finance
(c) Long term finance
(d) Both short term and medium term finance
Answer:
(c) Long term finance

Question 13.
When the NSEI was established …………..
(a) 1990
(b) 1992
(c) 1998
(d) 1997
Answer:
(b) 1992

Question 14.
The headquarters of SEBI is
(a) Calcutta
(b) Bombay
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Bombay

Question 15.
Who is supreme in the market?
(a) Customer
(b) Seller
(c) Wholesaler
(d) Retailer
Answer:
(a) Customer

Question 16.
Who is the father of Consumer Movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Mr. John F. Kennedy
(c) Ralph Nader
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Ralph Nader

Question 17.
Which of the below constitutes the essential element of contract of sale?
(a) Two parties
(b) Transfer of property
(c) Price
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 18.
Negotiable Instrument is freely transferable by delivery if it is a …………. instrument.
(a) order
(b) bearer
(c) Both A & B
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) bearer

Question 19.
How does a person who envisages the idea to form a company called…………. ?
Answer:
(a) Director
(b) Company secretary
(c) Registrar
(d) Promoter
Answer:
(d) Promoter

Question 20.
Who can become a secretary for a company?
(a) Individual person
(b) Partnership firm
(c) Co-operative societies
(d) Trade unions
Answer:
(a) Individual person

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
List out the management tools.
Answer:
Tools of management have been developed such as, accounting, business law, psychology, statistics, econometrics, data processing, etc.

Question 22.
Define – MBO
Answer:
MBO is popularised in the USA by George Odiome. According to him, “MBO is a system wherein the superior and the sub-ordinate managers of an organisation jointly identify its common goals, define each individual’s major area of responsibility in terms of the result expected of him and use these measures as guides for operating the unit and assessing the contribution of each of its members”.

Question 23.
What are the components of organized sectors?
Answer:

• Regulators
• Financial Institutions
• Financial Markets
• Financial Services

Question 24.
Define the term “Money Market”.
Answer:
According to Crowther, “The money market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money”.

Question 25.
What is meant by Stock Exchange?
Answer:
Stock Exchange is an organized market for the purchase and sale of industrial and financial security, ft is also called stock market or share market.

Question 26.
What is Market?
Answer:
The word market is derived from the Latin word ‘Marcatus’ which means trade, commerce, merchandise, a place where business is transacted.

Question 27.
Who is a consumer?
Answer:
A consumer is one who consumes goods manufactured and sold by others or created (air, water, natural resources) by nature and sold by others.

Question 28.
Define Business environment.
Answer:
According to Bayard O Wheeler, Business environment is “The total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operations”.

Question 29.
Mention any two features of entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Features of Entrepreneurs:

• Spirit of Enterprise: Entrepreneur should be bold enough to encounter risk arising from the venture undertaken.
• Self Confidence: Entrepreneur should have a self confidence in order to achieve high goals in the business.

Question 30.
Who is called as Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a ‘promoter’.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 31 is compulsory. (7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Define the term management.
Answer:
“To manage is to forecast, to plan, to organise, to command, to co-ordinate and to control.” -Henry Fayol. It attempts to describe management in terms of what a manager does, and not what management is.

Question 32.
Write the features of MBO.
Answer:

• An attempt is made by the management to integrate the goals of an organisation and individuals. This will lead to effective management.
• MBO tries to combine the long run goals of organisation with short run goals.
• Management tries to relate the organisation goals with society goals.

Question 33.
What are the limitations of Stock exchange?
Answer:

• Lack of uniformity and control of stock exchanges.
• Absence of restriction on the membership of stock exchanges.
• Failure to control unhealthy speculation.

Question 34.
Define the term Recruitment.
Answer:
According to Edwin B. Flippo, “It is a process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging them to apply for jobs in an organisation.”

Question 35.
What are the objectives of marketing?
Answer:
Baker and Anshen say,“The end of all the marketing activities is the satisfaction of human wants”.The following are the objectives of marketing:

• Intelligent and capable application of modem marketing policies.
• To develop the marketing field.
• To develop guiding policies and their implementation for a good result.

Question 36.
What is B2B and B2C type of E-Commerce?
Answer:
B2B is an online business model that facilitates online sales transactions between two businesses. E-tailing is a business to consumer (B2C) transaction model. E-tailing is also called online retailing.

Question 37.
Explain the natural environment of business.
Answer:
Geo-physical environment – The natural, geographical and ecological factors have a bearing on the business. These are as follows:

• The availability of natural resources like minerals oil .etc, since setting up of industries requires availability of raw materials.
• The weather and climatic conditions and availability of water and other natural resources is essential for the agricultural sector.
• Topographical factors like the terrain impacts type of business since the demand and consumption pattern may vary in these regions.
• Location of certain industries is influenced by the geographical conditions.
• Availability of natural harbours and port facilities for transporting goods.

Question 38.
Explain the meaning of Agreement to sell.
Answer:
The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions specified in the contract.

Question 39.
What is political environment?
Answer:
To commence business, various factors are needed. Apart from all other factors, political environment is also essential. It means that the concessions, incentives provided by the government drive them to enter into venture. The government also provides support in the form of loans, subsidies and other taxes.

Question 40.
What is Special Resolution?
Answer:
A special resolution is the one which is passed by not less than 75% of majority. The number of votes, cast in favour of the resolution should be three times the number of votes cast against it.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Explain the features of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:
There are various features of a stock exchange. They are given below:

• Market for Securities: Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government companies are bought and sold.
• Deals in Second Hand Securities: It deals with shares, debentures bonds and securities already issued by the companies.
• Regulates Trade in Securities: Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account. It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
• Allows Dealings only in Listed Securities: In the stock exchange only listed securities are purchased and sold. Unlisted securities cannot be traded in the stock exchange.
• Association of Persons: A stock exchange is an association of persons or- body of individuals which may be registered or unregistered.

[OR]

(A) Explain the different methods of recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment means selecting the right person for the right job. There are basically two ways by which an organisation can recruit its employees – Internal and External sources. External sources can further be classified into Direct and Indirect sources.
Internal Sources – Transfer, Upgrading, Promotion, Demotion, Recommendation by existing Employees, Job rotation, Retired employees, Dependants, Previous applicants, Acquisitions and Mergers.

External Sources:

• Direct – Advertisements, Unsolicited applicants, Walk-ins, Campus Recruitment, Recruitment at Factory gate, Rival firms, e-Recruitment.
• Indirect – Employee referral, Govemment/Public Employment Exchanges, Employment Agencies, Employment Consultancies, Professional Associations, Deputation, Word of mouth, Labour Contractors, Job Portals, Outsourcing, Poaching.

Question 42(a).
Explain the management process in detail.
Answer:
The substance of management should be identified as a process. A process is something that what a person does in the context of his individual duties and responsibilities assigned by his or her immediate higher authority.
There are twin purposes of the management process:

• Maximum productivity or profitability
• Maximum human welfare and satisfaction.

There are five parts of management as a process:

• Co-ordination of resources: The manager of an enterprise must effectively coordinate all activities and resources of the organisation, namely, men, machines, materials and money, the four M’s of management.
• Management is a Process: The manager achieves proper coordination of resources by means of the managerial functions of planning, organising, staffing, directing (or leading and motivating) and controlling.
• Management is a Purposive Process: It is directed toward the achievement of predetermined goals or objectives. Without an objective, we have no destination to reach or a path to follow to arrive at our destination, i.e. a goal, both management and organisation must be purposive or goal-oriented.
• Management is a Social Process: It is the art of getting things done through other people.
• Management is a Cyclical Process: It represents planning-action-control-replanning cycle, i.e., an ongoing process to attain the planned goals.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market.

Question 43(a).
Discuss about the evolution of marketing.
Answer:
Marketing is one of the business functions. The development of marketing is evolutionary rather than revolutionary.
Evolution of Marketing:

• Barter System: The goods are exchanged against goods, without money.
• Production Orientation: This was a stage where producers, instead of being concerned with the consumer preferences, concentrated on the mass production of goods.
• Sales Orientation: The selling became the dominant factor, without any efforts for the satisfaction of the consumer needs.
• Marketing Orientation: Customers’ importance was realised but only as a means of disposing of goods produced.
• Consumer Orientation: Under this stage only such products are brought forward to the markets which are capable of satisfying the tastes and preferences of consumers.

[OR]

(b) Explain advantages and disadvantages of E-tailing.
E-tailing or electronic retailing refers to selling of goods and services through a shopping website:
Advantages:

• Customer can buy the product at anytime from anywhere.
• Direct contact of end consumer by the manufacturer cuts down the cost.
• Customer can buy whatever they want by browsing the various sites.

Disadvantages:

• E-tailing needs a strong advertisement and for which it has to spend large amount.
• It is not suitable for small size business.

Question 44(a).
What are the rights of consumers?
Answer:
As a consumer, everyone should know the basic rights as well as about the counts and procedures to be followed.
The rights of consumers as per Consumer Protection Act are given below:
(1) Right to Protection of Health and Right of Safety: There may be products that cause physical danger to consumers’ health, lives and property. The health hazards which are likely to arise have to be eradicated or reduced altogether.

(ii) Right to be Informed: Consumers should be given all the relevant facts about the products. The manufacturer and the dealer should disclose all the material facts relating to the product.

(iii) Right to choose: Consumer satisfaction can be increased by giving the consumer the widest choice. From the widest range of products in quality and brand as well as price, the consumer can choose the goods.

(iv) Right to be Heard: Consumers have every right to ventilate and register the dissatisfaction, disagreements and get the complaint heard and aired.

(v) Right to Seek Redressal: The aggrieved party is to be granted compensation within a reasonable time.

(vi) Right to Consumer Education: The consumer has a right to acquire knowledge and stay well-informed all through his life.

[OR]

(b) Explain the advantages and disadvantages of liberalization.
Liberalization means relaxation of various government restrictions in the areas of social and economic policies of the country.
Advantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in foreign investment: If a country liberalizes its trade, it will make the country more attractive for inward investment.
• Increase the foreign exchange reserve: Relaxation in the regulations covering foreign investment and foreign exchange has paved way for easy access to foreign capital.
• Increase in consumption: Liberalization increases the number of goods available for consumption within a country

Disadvantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in unemployment: Due to liberalization some industries grow, some decline. Therefore, there may be unemployment from certain industries closing.
• Increased dependence on foreign nations: Trade liberalization means firms will face greater competition from abroad.
• Unbalanced development: Trade liberalization may be damaging for developing economies which cannot compete against free trade.

Question 45(a).
Mention the presumptions of Negotiable Instruments.
Answer:
Presumptions of Negotiable Instrument:

• Every negotiable instrument is presumed to have been drawn and accepted for consideration.
• Every negotiable instrument bearing, a date is presumed to have been made or drawn on such a date.
• It is presumed to have been accepted within a reasonable time after the date and before its maturity.
• The transfer of a negotiable instrument is presumed to have been made before maturity,
• When a negotiable instrument has been lost, it is presumed to have been duly stamped
• The holder of a negotiable instrument is presumed to be a holder in due course.

[OR]
(b) Explain in detail on classification according to the type of business.
Classification of Entrepreneur according to the type of business:

• Business Entrepreneur: He is called solo entrepreneur. He is the one who finds out an idea for a new product or service and establish a business enterprise.
• Trading Entrepreneur: Trading entrepreneurs are those who restrict themselves to buying and selling finished goods.
• Industrial Entrepreneur: These are entrepreneurs who manufacture products to cater to the needs of the consumers.
• Corporate Entrepreneur: He is called as promoter. He takes initiative necessary to start an entity under corporate format.
• Agricultural Entrepreneur: These entrepreneurs are those who raise farm products and market them.

Question 46(a).
Explain any five Government Entrepreneurial schemes.
Answer:
To support and strengthen the Start-up culture in India, the Government has launched various schemes. They are as follows:
(i) The Modified Special Incentive Package Scheme (M-SIPS): The M-SIPS scheme provides capital subsidy of 20% in SEZ and 25% subsidy in non-SEZ for business units engaged in manufacturing of electronic goods.

(ii) New Gen Innovation and Entrepreneurship Development Centre (New Gen IEDC):
It provides a limited one time non-recurring financial assistance to entrepreneurship up to Rs.25 lakhs in the fields of chemicals, technology, health care, defence, etc.

(iii) Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme: Dairy Entrepreneurship Development Scheme aims at helping entrepreneurs in the fields of agriculture, pets and animals and dairy farms.

(iv) Single Point Registration Scheme: A great scheme for micro and small enterprises which provides an exemption from payment of Earnest Money Deposit.

(v) Atal Incubation Centres (AIC): The Government of India has set up the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) at NITI Aayog in 2016 with the overarching purpose of promoting a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country.

[OR]
(b) Who are the KMP?
Answer:
Companies Act, 2013 has introduced many new concepts and Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) is one of them. KMP covers the traditional roles of managing director and whole time director and also includes some functional heads.

Key Managerial Personnel: The definition of the term Key Managerial Personnel is contained in Section 2(51) of the Companies Act, 2013. This Section states:

• The Chief Executive Officer
• The Managing Director or Manager
• The Company Secretary
• The Whole-time Director
• The Chief Financial Officer
• Such other officer as may be prescribed

Question 47(a).
Discuss the liabilities of Company Secretary.
Answer:
As an officer, a company secretary has extensive duties and liabilities. The success of the company depends upon his efficient functions and capacity to perform.
Liabilities:

• It is duty of the secretary to arrange for Board meetings and shareholders annual general meeting.
• The secretary controls and supervises the day-to-day activities of the company.
• Also he should prepare details for issue of allotment letters, share certificates and dividend warrants.
• To arrange for filing statement in lieu of prospectus.
• The secretary should send notice of general meeting to every member of the company.
• Being a principal officer, a company secretary can sign contracts and proceedings of company meetings.
• He is liable to maintain share registers and register of directors and contracts.
• To prepare minutes of every general meeting and Board meetings within 30 days.

[OR]
(b) Explain the role of business in consumer protection.
Business enterprises should do the following towards protecting consumers.

• Avoidance of Price Hike: Business enterprises should desist from hiking the price in the context of acute shortage of goods.
• Avoidance of Hoarding: Business enterprises should not indulge in hoarding and black marketing to earn maximum profit.
• Guarantees for Good Quality: Business enterprises should not give false warranty for the products.
• Product Information: Business enterprises should disclose correct, complete and accurate information about the product viz. size, quality, quantity, weight etc.
• Truth in advertising: Business enterprises should not convey false, untrue, bogus information relating to the product through the advertisement.
• Money Refund Guarantee: Where the product becomes defective, business enterprises should replace it with new one or refund the purchase price.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
If {(a, 8),(6, b)} represents an identity function, then the value of a and b are respectively ……………. .
(1) (8,6)
(2) (8,8)
(3) (6,8)
(4) (6,6) .
Answer:
(1) (8,6)

Question 2.
If the H.C.F of 65 and 117 is expressible in the form of 65m -117, then the value of m is ……………. .
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3
Answer:
(2) 2

Question 3.
The next term ol the sequence \(\frac{3}{16}, \frac{1}{8}, \frac{1}{12}, \frac{1}{18}\) is …………… .
(1) \(\frac{1}{24}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(4) \(\frac{1}{81}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{1}{27}\)

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square ……………… .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
Find the matrix x if 2x + \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 7 \end{matrix} \right] =\left[ \begin{matrix} 5 & 7 \\ 9 & 5 \end{matrix} \right] \) ……………. .
(1) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} -2 & -2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(3) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
(4) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 2 & 2 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:
(2) \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 2 \\ 2 & -1 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 6.
Two poles of heights 6 m and 11 m stand vertically on a plane ground if the distance between their feet is 12m, what is the distance between their tops?
(1) 13 m
(2) 14 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 12.8 m
Answer:
(1) 13 m

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3,p) and (6, 6) are collinear then the value of p is ……………… .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
The value of sin²θ + \(\frac{1}{1+\tan ^{2} \theta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) tan²θ
(2) 1
(3) cot²θ
(4) 0
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 9.
If the radius of the base of a cone is tripled and the height is doubled then the volume is ……………… .
(1) made 6 times
(2) made 18 times
(3) made 12 times
(4) unchanged
Answer:
(2) made 18 times

Question 10.
Standard deviation of a collection of data is 2√2. If each value is multiplied by 3, then the standard deviation of the new data is
……………… .
(1) √l2
(2) 4√2
(3) 6√2
(4) 9√2
Answer:
(3) 6√2

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at unit place of the page number chosen’ is less than 7 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{9}\)
(4) \(\frac{7}{9}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{7}{10}\)

Question 12.
If f = {(6, 3), (8, 9), (5, 3), (-1, 6)} then the pre-images of 3 are ……………… .
(1) 5 and -1
(2) 6 and 8
(3) 8 and -1
(4) 6 and 5
Answer:
(4) 6 and 5

Question 13.
If a and p are the zeros 6f the polynomial P(x) = 4x² + 3x + 7 then \(\frac{1}{\alpha}+\frac{1}{\beta}\) is equal to …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{7}{3}\)
(2) \(\frac{-7}{3}\)
(3) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{-3}{7}\)

Question 14.
The probability that a-leap year will have 53 Fridays or 53 Saturdays is …………….. .
(1) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
(2) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(3) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
Answer:
(4) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

PART – II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A relation “f” is defined by f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2, -1, 0, 3}
(i) List the elements of f
(ii) If f a function?
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 2 where x ∈ {-2,-1, 0, 3}
(i) f(-2) = (-2)² – 2 = 2 ; f(-1) = (-1)² – 2 = -1
f(0) = (0)² – 2 = -2 ; f(3) = (3)² – 2 = 7
Therefore, f = {(-2,2), (-1,-1), (0,-2), (3,7)}

(ii) We note that each element in the domain of f has a unique image.
Therefore f is a function.

Question 16.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find fofof
Answer:
fofof = fof [(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f (x² – 1)² – 1
= f (x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

Question 17.
What is the smallest number that when divided by three numbers such as 35, 56 and 91 leaves remainder 7 in each case?
Answer:
Find the L.C.M of 35, 56, and 91
35 = 5 × 7
56 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 7
91 = 7 × 13
L.C.M = 2³ × 5 × 7 × 13
= 3640
Since it leaves remainder 7
The required number = 3640 + 7 = 3647
∴ The smallest number is 3647

Question 18.
In a G.P. 729, 243, 81,… find t₇.
Answer:
The G.P. is 729,243,81, …………..
a = 729; r = \(\frac{t_{2}}{t_{1}}=\frac{243}{729}=\frac{81}{243}=\frac{27}{81}=\frac{3}{9}=\frac{1}{3}\)
t_n = a r^{n – 1}
t₇ = 729 \(\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{7-1}\)
= \(729\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)^{6}=729 \times \frac{1}{729}=1\)
∴ The 7^th term is 1

Question 19.
Find the excluded values of the expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\)
Answer:

The expression \(\frac{t}{t^{2}-5 t+6}\) is undefined
when t² – 5t + 6 = 0
(t – 3) (t – 2) = 0
t – 3 = 0 or t – 2 = 0
t = 3 or t = 2
The excluded values are 2 and 3

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
\(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² -2ab -2bc + 2ac]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
construct a 3 x 3 matrix whose elements are given by a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)
Answer:
a_ij = \(\frac{(i+j)^{3}}{3}\)

Question 22.
If ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF such that area of ∆ABC is 9cm² and the area of ∆DEF is 16 cm² and BC = 2.1 cm. Find the length of EF.
Answer:
Given ∆ABC ~ ∆DEF

\(\frac{9}{16}=\frac{(2.1)^{2}}{\mathrm{EF}^{2}}\)
\(\left(\frac{3}{4}\right)^{2}=\left(\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\right)^{2}\)
\(\frac{3}{4}=\frac{2.1}{\mathrm{EF}}\)
EF = \(\frac{4 \times 2.1}{3}\) = 2.8 cm
Length of EF = 2.8 cm

Question 23.
If the area of the triangle formed by the vertices (p,p), (5,6), (5, -2) is 32 sq.units. Find the value of ‘p’.
Answer:
Let the vertices be A (p,p), B (5, 6) and C (5, -2)
Area of a triangle = 32 sq. units
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃] = 32

\(\frac{1}{2}\)[(6p – 10 + 5p) – (5p + 30 – 2p)] = 32
\(\frac{1}{2}\)[11p – 10 – 3p – 30] = 32
11p – 10 – 3p – 30 = 64
8p – 40 = 64
8p = 64 + 40 ⇒ 8p = 104
p = \(\frac{104}{8}\) = 13
The value of p = 13

Question 24.
Find the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a tower of height 10 √3 m.
Answer:
Height of the tower (AC) = 10 √3 m
Distance between the base of the tower and point of observation (AB) = 30 m
Let the angle of elevation ∠ABC be θ

In the right ∆ ABC, tan θ = \(\frac{A C}{A B}\)
\(=\frac{10 \sqrt{3}}{30}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}\)
tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) = tan 30°
∴ Angle of inclination is 30°

Question 25.
Find the diameter of a sphere whose surface area is 154m².
Answer:
Let r be the radius of the sphere.
Given that, surface area of sphere = 154 m²
4πr² = 154
4 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × r² = 154
gives r² = \(154 \times \frac{1}{4} \times \frac{7}{22}\)
hence, r² = \(\frac{49}{4}\) we get r = \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Therefore, diameter is 7m

Question 26.
Find the standard deviation and the variance of first 23 natural numbers.
Answer:
Standard deviation of first “n” natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{n^{2}-1}{12}}\)
Standard deviation of first 23 natural numbers = \(\sqrt{\frac{23^{2}-1}{12}}\)
= \(\sqrt{\frac{529 – 1}{12}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{528}{12}}\)
= √44 (variance)
Variance = 44 and standard deviation = 6.63

Question 27.
Form the quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + √7 ; 3 – √7
Answer:
Sum of the roots = 3 + √7 + 3 – √7
= 6
Product of the roots = (3 + √7)(3 – √7)
= 9 – 7 = 2 .
The required equation is
x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
x² – (6) x + 2 = 0
x² – 6x + 2 = 0

Question 28.
Two coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting at most one head?
Answer:
Sample space = {HH, HT, TH, TT}
n(S) = 4
Let A be the event of getting atmost one head A = {HT, TH, TT}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{4}\)
The probability is \(\frac{3}{4}\)

PART – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.

Answer:
f(x) = 6x + 1 ; x = {-5, -4, -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}
f(x) = 5x² – 1 ; x = {2,3,4,5}
f(x) = 3x – 4; x = {6,7,8,9}

(i) f(-3) + f(2)
f(x) = 6x+1
f(3) = 6(-3) + 1 = -18 + 1 = -17
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(2) = 5(2)² – 1 = 20 – 1 = 19
f(-3) + f(2) = -17 + 19 = 2

(ii) f(7) – f(1)
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(7) = 3(7) – 4= 21 – 4 = 17
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(1) = 6(1)+ 1 = 6 + 1 = 7
f(7) – f(1) = 17 – 7
= 10

(iii) 2f(4) + f(8)
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 15(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(8) = 3(8) – 4 = 24 – 4 = 20
2f(4) + f(8) = 2(79) + 20
= 158 + 20 .
= 178

(iv) \(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\)
f(x) = 6x + 1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
f(x) = 3x – 4
f(6) = 3(6) – 4 = 18 – 4 = 14
f(x) = 5x² – 1
f(4) = 5(4)² – 1 = 5(16) – 1
= 80 – 1 = 79
f(x) = 6x+1
f(-2) = 6(-2) + 1 = -12 + 1 = -11
\(\frac{2 f(-2)-f(6)}{f(4)+f(-2)}\) = \(\frac{2(-11)-14}{79-11}\)
= \(\frac{-22-14}{68}=\frac{-36}{68}=\frac{-9}{17}\)

Question 30.
If f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x and h(x) = 3x Prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = 2x + 3, g(x) = 1 – 2x, h(x) = 3x
Now, (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 – 2x) = 2(1 – 2x) + 3 = 5 – 4x
Then, (fog)oh(x) = (fog) (h(x)) = (fog)(3x) = 5 – 4(3x) = 5 – 12x ….(1)
(goh)(x) = g(h(x)) = g(3x) = 1 – 2(3x) = 1 – 6x
So, fo (goh)(x) = f(1 – 6x) = 2(1 – 6x) + 3 = 5 – 12x …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
If S₁ , S₂ , S₃, ……. S_mare the sums of n terms of m A.P.,s whose first terms are 1,2, 3, …….. m and whose common differences are 1,3,5,….(2m – 1) respectively, then show that (S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + …….. + Sm) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mn(mn + 1)
Answer:
First terms of an A.P and 2, 3 ……….. m
The common difference are 1, 3, 5 , ………….. (2m – 1)
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2a+(n – 1)d]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2+(n – 1)(1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2 + n – 1]
S₁ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1] …….. (1)
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(2) + (n – 1)3]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[4 + 3n – 3]
S₂ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n – 2) ……. (2)
S₃ = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2(3) + (n – 1)5]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[6 + 5n – 5}
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[5n + 1] …….. (3)
S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + (n – 1)(2m – 1)]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[2m + 2mn – n – m – 2m + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
By adding (1) (2) (3) we get
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……….. + S_m = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(3n + 1) + \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(5n + 1)+ …………+ \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n(2m – 1) + 1]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 1 + 3n + 1 + 5n + 1 …………… + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n + 3n + 5n + ………….. + n(2m – 1) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[n\((\frac { m }{ 2 })\)(2m) + m]
= \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)[nm² + m]
S₁ + S₂ + S₃ + ……… + S_m = \(\frac { mn }{ 2 }\)[nm + 1]

Hint:
1 + 3 + 5 + …….. + 2m – 1
S_n = \(\frac { n }{ 2 }\)(a + 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (1 + 2m – 1)
= \(\frac { m }{ 2 }\) (2m)

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ………. to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. If 4 years ago Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Answer:
Let the age of Vani be”x” years
Vani father age = “y” years
Vani grand father = “z” years .
By the given first condition.
\(\frac{x+y+z}{3}=53\)
x + y + z = 159 ….(1)
By the given 2^nd condition.
\(\frac{1}{2} z+\frac{1}{3} y+\frac{1}{4} x=65\)
Multiply by 12
6z + 4y + 3x = 780 .
3x + 4y + 6z = 780 ….(2)
By the given 3rd condition
z – 4 = 4 (x – 4) ⇒ z – 4 = 4x – 16
– 4x + z = – 16 + 4
4x – z = 12 ….(3)

Substitute the value of x = 24 in (3)
4 (24) – z = 12
96 – z = 12
– z = 12 – 96
z = 84

Substitute the value of x = 24 and
z = 84 in (1)
24 + y + 84 = 159
y + 108 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51

Vani age = 24 years
Vani’s father age = 51 years
Vani grand father age = 84 years

Question 34.
Find the values of a and b if the following polynomials are perfect squares. ax⁴ + bx³ + 361x² + 220.x + 100
Answer:
Re-arrange the order we get .
100 + 220x + 361x² + by³ + ax⁴

Since it is a perfect square
b – 264 = 0
b = 264

a – 144 = 0
a = 144

∴ The value of a = 144 and b = 264

Question 35.
State and prove Pythagoras Theorem
Answer:
Statement
In a right angle triangle, the square on the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares on the other two sides.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, ∠A = 90°.
To prove : AB² + AC² = BC²
Construction : Draw AD ⊥ BC

Adding (1) and (2) we get
AB² + AC² = BC × BD + BC × DC
= BC (BD + DC) = BC × BC
AB² + AC² = BC²
Hence the theorem is proved.

Question 36.
Find the equation of the median and altitude of AABC through A where the vertices are A(6, 2), B(-5, -1) and C(1,9).
Answer:
(i) To find median

Mid point of BC(D) = \(\left(\frac{x_{1}+x_{2}}{2}, \frac{y_{1}+y_{2}}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-5+1}{2}, \frac{-1+9}{2}\right)\)
\(=\left(\frac{-4}{2}, \frac{8}{2}\right)\) = (-2, 4)
Equation of the median AD is
\(\frac{y-y_{1}}{y_{2}-y_{1}}=\frac{x-x_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{4-2}=\frac{x-6}{-2-6}\)
\(\frac{y-2}{2}=\frac{x-6}{-8}\)
= 2(x – 6) = 8(y – 2)
2x – 12 = -8y + 16
2x + 8y – 28 = 0
(÷by 2) x + 4y – 14 = 0

(ii) To find the equation of the altitude

Slope of BC = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
\(=\frac{9+1}{1+5}\)
\(=\frac{10}{6}=\frac{5}{3}\)
Slope of the altitude = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
Equation of the altitude AD is
y – y₁ = m(x – x₁)
y – 2 = \(-\frac{3}{5}\)(x – 6)
-3 (x – 6) = 5 (y – 2)
-3x + 18 = 5y – 10
-3x – 5y + 18 + 10 = 0
-3x – 5y + 28 =0
3x + 5y – 28 = 0
∴ Equation of the median is x + 4y – 14 = 0
Equation of the altitude is 3x + 57 – 28 = 0

Question 37.
Two ships are sailing in the sea on either sides of a lighthouse. The angle of elevation of the top of the lighthouse as observed from the ships are 30° and 45° respectively. If the lighthouse is 200 m high, find the distance between the two ships. (√3 = 1.732 )
Answer:
Let AB be the lighthouse. Let C and D be the positions of the two ships.
Then, AB = 200 m
∠ACB = 30°, ∠ADB = 45°
In right triangle BAC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{A C}\)

\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{200}{\mathrm{AC}}\) gives AC = 200√3
In right triangle BAD, tan 45° = \(\frac{A B}{A D}[latex]
1 = [latex]\frac{200}{\mathrm{AD}}\) gives AD = 200
Now, CD = AC + AD = 200√3 + 200 [by (1) and (2)]
CD = 200 (√3 + 1) = 200 × 2.732 = 546.4
Distance between two ships is 546.4 m

Question 38.
Find the number of coins, 1.5 cm in diameter and 2 mm thick, to be melted to form a right circular cylinder of height 10 cm and diameter 4.5 cm.
Answer:
Radius of the cylinder = \(\frac{4.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Height of the cylinder = 10 cm
Volume of the cylinder = π r² h cu. units

Radius of the coin (r) .= \(\frac{1.5}{2} \mathrm{cm}\)
Thickness of the coin (h) = 2 mm = \(\frac{2}{10} \mathrm{cm}\)
Volume of one coin = π r² h cu. units


Number of coins = 450

Question 39.
A box contains cards numbered 3, 5, 7, 9, … 35, 37. A card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the drawn card have either multiples of 7 or a prime number.
Answer:
Sample space = {3, 5, 7,9 ,… ,35, 37} \(\left[\frac{37-1}{2}=\frac{36}{2}=18\right]\)
n (S) = 18
Let A be the event of getting a multiple of 7
A = {7,21,35}
n(A) = 3
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{18}\)
‘ Let B be the event of getting a prime number
B = {3,5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23.29,31.37}
n (B) = 11
p(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{11}{18}\)
A∩B = {7}
n(A ∩ B) = 1
P(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{18}\)
p(A∪B) = P(A) + P(B) – P(A ∩ B)
\(=\frac{3}{18}+\frac{11}{18}-\frac{1}{18}=\frac{3+11-1}{18}=\frac{13}{18}\)
Probability of getting a muliple of 7 or a priime number = \(\frac{13}{18}\)

Question 40.
Find X and Y if X – Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 2 & 1 \\ 4 & 3 \\ 0 & 6 \end{matrix} \right]\) and X + Y = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 12 & 13 \\ 6 & 5 \\ 4 & 8 \end{matrix} \right] \)
Answer:

Question 41.
A lead pencil is in the shape of a right circular cylinder. The pencil is 28 cm long and its radius is 3 in. If the led is of radius one mm (1 mm) then find the volume of the wood used in the pencil.
Answer:
Length of a pencil (h) = 28 cm
Radius of a pencil (R) = 3mm \(\left(\frac{3}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Radius of a led (r) = 1 mm \(\left(\frac{1}{10} \mathrm{cm}\right)\)
Volume of the wood used = Volume of the pencil – Volume of the led
= πh(R² – r²cu. unit

Volume of the wood used in the pencil = 7.04 cm³

Question 42.
The following table shows the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in Mathematics. Calculate the variance and standard deviation.

Answer:
Let us form the following table using the given data.

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm. Take a point on the circle. Draw the tangent at that point using the alternate segment theorem. Rough Diagram
Answer:
Radius of the circle = 4.5 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4.5 cm.
2. Take a point L on the circle. Through L draw any chord LM.
3. Take a point M distinct from L and N on the circle, so that L, M, N are in anti-clockwise direction. Join LN and NM.
4. Through “L” draw tangent TT’ such that ∠TLM = ∠MNL.
5. TT’ is the required tangent.

[OR]

(b)
Construct a ∆PQR in which QR = 5 cm, ∠P = 40° and the median PG from P to QR is 4.4 cm. Find the length of the altitude from P to QR.
Answer:


Steps of construction

1. Draw a line segment RQ = 5 cm.
2. At R draw RE such that ∠QRE = 40°.
3. At R. draw RF such that ∠ERF = 90°.
4. Draw the perpendicular bisector to RQ, which intersects RF at O and RQ at G.
5. With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
6. From G mark arcs of radius 4.4 cm on the circle. Mark them as P and S.
7. Join PR and PQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
8. From P draw’ a line PN which is perpendicular to RQ it meets at N.
9. Measure the altitude PN.
   PN = 2.2 cm.

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 and use it to solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0.
Answer:
Step 1: Draw the graph of y = x² – 4x + 3 by preparing the table of values as below.

Step 2: To solve x² – 6x + 9 = 0, subtract x² – 6x + 9 = 0 from y = – x² – 4x + 3

The equation y = 2x – 6 represent a straight line. Draw the graph of y = 2x – 6 form in the table of values as below.

The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

[OR]

(b) Draw the Graph of y = x² – 4x + 4
Answer:
Let y = x² – 4x + 4
(i) Prepare the table of values for y = x² – 4x + 4

(ii) Plot the points (-3, 25) (-2, 16) (-1, 9) (0, 4) (1, 1) (2, 0), (3, 1) and (4, 4)
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
(iv) The roots of the equation are the X-coordinates of the intersecting points of the curve with X-axis (2, 0) which is 2.
(v) Since there is only one point of intersection with X-axis (2, 0).
The solution set is 2.
∴ The Quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots. 1 English Medium – 33″ width=”573″ height=”72″ />
The line y = 2x – 6 intersect y = x² – 4x + 3 only at one point.

Step 3: Mark the point of intersection of the curve y = x² – 4.r 3 and y = 2x – 6 that is (3,0).
Therefore, the x coordinate 3 is the only solution for the equation x² – 6x + 9 = 0.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. 1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
   2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
   3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
   4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
   5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
   6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
   7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
3 & 5 \\
1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) B = adj A and C = 3A, then |Adjb| / |C| =  ……………….
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/9
(c) 1/4
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 1/9

Question 2.
If the inverse of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & 2 \\
3 & -5
\end{array}\right]\) is \(\frac{1}{11}\left[\begin{array}{ll}
a & b \\
c & d
\end{array}\right]\) , then the ascending order of a, b, c, d, is
(a) a, b, c, d
(b) d, b, c, a
(c) c, a, b, d
(d) b, a, c, d
Answer:
(b) d, b, c, a

Question 3.
The least value of n satisfying \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}+\frac{i}{2}\right)^{n}\) = 1 is
(a) 30
(b) 24
(c) 12
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 4.
The principal argument of \(\frac{3}{-1+i}\) is

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{-3 \pi}{4}\)

Question 5.
The polynomial equation x³ + 2x + 3 = 0 has
(a) one negative and two imaginary
(b) one positive and two imaginary roots
(c) three real roots
(d) no solution
Answer:
(a) one negative and two imaginary

Question 6.
The domain of the function defined by \(f(x)=\sin ^{-1}(\sqrt{x-1})\) is
(a) [1, 2]
(b) [-1,1]
(c) [0, 1]
(d) [-1, 0]
Answer:
(a) [1, 2]

Question 7.
If x+y = A:isa normal to the parabola y² = 12x, then the value of k is
(a) 3
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 9
Answer:
(d) 9

Question 8.
The circle passing through (1, -2) and touching the x-axis (3,0), again passing through the point is
(a)(-5,2)
(b) (2,-5)
(c) (5, -2)
(d) (-2,5)
Answer:
(c) (5, -2)

Question 9.
The volume of the parallelepiped with its edges represented by the vectors \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}, \hat{i}+2 \hat{j}, \hat{i}+\hat{j}+\pi \hat{k}\) is
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(c) π
(d) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:

Question 10.
If the line \(\frac{x-2}{3}=\frac{y-1}{-5}=\frac{z+2}{2}\) lies in the plane x + 3y – αz + β = 0 then (α, β) is ………………
(a) (-5, 5)
(b) (-6, 7)
(c) (5, -5)
(d) (6, -7)
Answer:
(b) (-6, 7)

Question 11.
The function sin⁴ + cos⁴x is increasing in the interval

Answer:
(c) \(\left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\)

Question 12.
The curve y = ax⁴ + bx² with ab> 0
(a) has no horizontal tangent
(b) is concave up
(c) is concave down
(d) has no points of inflection
Answer:
(d) has no points of inflection

Question 13.
If u = (x-y)², then \(\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}\) is …………….
(a) 1
(b) -1
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 14.
The value of \(\int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{d x}{1+5 \cos x}\) is …………….
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(b) π
(c) \(3\frac{\pi}{2}\)
(d) 2π
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 15.
The volume of solid of revolution of the region bounded by y² = x(a – x) about x – axis is …….

Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\pi a^{3}}{6}\)

Question 16.
If m, n are the order and degree of the differential equation \(\left[\frac{d^{4} y}{d x^{4}}+\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\right]^{\frac{1}{2}}=a \frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}\) respectively, then the value of 4m – n is
(a) 15
(b) 12
(c) 14
(d) 13
Answer:
(a) 15

Question 17.
The solution of differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{y}{x}+\frac{\varphi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}{\varphi^{\prime}\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)}\) is

Answer:
(b) \(\varphi\left(\frac{y}{x}\right)=k x\)

Question 18.
A random variable X has the following distribution.

then the value of c is
(a) 0.1
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.3
(d) 0.4
Answer:
(a) 0.1

Question 19.
If P(X = 0) = 1 – P {X = 1} and E[X] = 3 Var (X), then P{X = 0} is
(a) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 20.
Which one is the contrapositive of the statement (p v q) → r?

Answer:
(a) \(\neg r \rightarrow(\neg p \wedge \neg q)\)

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Solve the following system of linear equations by Cramer’s rule: 2x – y = 3,x + 2y = -1.
Answer:
2x – y = 3, x + 2y 2 -1 = -1

Question 22.
If z₁ z₂ and z₃ are complex numbers such that |z₁| = |z₂| = |z₃| = |z₁+ z₂ + z₃| = 1 find the value of \(\left|\frac{1}{z_{1}}+\frac{1}{z_{2}}+\frac{1}{z_{3}}\right|\)
Answer:

Question 23.
Find the value of \(\sin \left(\frac{\pi}{3}+\cos ^{-1}\left(\frac{-1}{2}\right)\right)\)
Answer:

Question 24.
Find the equation of the parabola with vertex (-1,-2), axis parallel to x-axis and passing through (3, 6).
Answer:
Since axis is parallel to y-axis the required equation of the parabola is (x + 1)² = 4a (y + 2)
Since this passes through (3,6)
(3 + 1)² = 4a (6 + 2)
a = 1/2
Then the equation of parabola is (x + 1)² = 2 (y + 2) which on simplifying yields,
x² + 2x – 2y – 3 = 0.

Question 25.
If â, b̂, ĉ are three unit vectors such that b̂ and ĉ are non-parallel and â, x (b̂ x ĉ) = \(\frac{1}{2} \hat{b}\), find the angle between â and ĉ.
Answer:

Since b and c are non collinear vectors. So, equating corresponding coefficients on both sides.

Question 26.
If the mass m(x) (in kilograms) of a thin rod of length x (in meters) is given by, m(x) = \(m(x)=\sqrt{3 x}\) then what is the rate of change of mass with respect to the length when it is x = 27 metres?
Answer:

Question 27.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-a x} x^{n} d x\) where a > 0.
Answer:
Making the substitution t = ax, we get dt = adx and x = 0 ⇒ t = 0 and x = ∞ ⇒ t = ∞. Hence, we get

Question 28.
Show that y = ax + b/x, x ≠ 0 is a solution of the differential equation x²y” + xy’ – y = 0.
Answer:
Given solution : y = ax + \(\frac{b}{x}\)  …………..(1)
y = ax + \(\frac{b}{x}\)
xy = ax²+b
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
xy’ + y.1 = a(2x) = 2ax …(2)
Differentiate again with respect to ‘x’
xy” + y’ . 1 + y’ = 2a ⇒ xy” + 2y’ = 2a …(3)
Substitute (3) in (2)
xy’ + y = (xy” + 2y’) x
xy’+ y = x²y” + 2xy’ ⇒ x²y” + xy’- y = 0
Hence proved.

Question 29.
Find the mean of a random variable X, whose probability density function is
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\lambda e^{-\lambda x} \text { for } x \geq 0 \\
0 \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:

Question 30.
Let * be a binary operation on set Q of rational numbers defined as a * b = \(\frac{a b}{8}\) Write the identity for * if any.
Answer:
Let S = {Q}
a * b = \(\frac{a b}{8}\)
∀ a∈S, e∈S such that
a * e = a
\(\frac{a e}{8}=a\) ⇒ ae = 8a
e = 8 ∈ S .
Identity element exist.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find the inverse of \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -1 \\
5 & -2
\end{array}\right]\) by Gauss-Jordan method.
Answer:

Question 32.
If w ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that the roots of the equation (z – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are -1,1- 2w, 1- 2 w²
Answer:

Question 33.
Find all real numbers satisfying 4^x – 3(2^x+2) + 2⁵ = 0
Answer:
4^x – 3 (2^x+2) + 25 = 0
⇒ (2²)^x – 3 (2^x ,2²) + 25 = 0
(2²)^x – 12 .2^x + 32 = 0
Let y = 2^x
y² – 12y + 32 = 0
(y – 4) (y – 8) = 0 .
y = 4,8
Case (i) 2^x = 4
2^x= (2)² ⇒ x = 2
Case (ii) 2^x = 8
2^x = (2)³ ⇒x = 3
∴ The roots are 2, 3

Question 34.
Find the centre, foci, and eccentricity of the hyperbola 12x² – 4y² – 24x + 32y – 127 = 0.
Answer:
12x² – 4y²– 24x + 32y – 127 = 0
12[x² – 2x] – 4[y² – 8y] = 127
12[(x – 1)² – 1] – 4[(y – 4)² – 16] = 127
12(x – 1)²– 4(y – 4)² = 127 +12 – 64
12(x- 1)² – 4(y-4)² = 75

Let X = x – 1; Y = y – 4

(i) Centre : c[0,0]
X = o
x – 1 = 0
x = 1

Y = o
y – 4 = 0
y = 4

Centre (1,4)

(iii) Foci F(± ae, 0) (i.e.,) F (± 5, 0)
X = 5
x- 1 = 5
x = 6
X = -5
x – 1 = -5
x = -4
Y = 0
y – 4 = 0
y = 4
Foci (6, 4) and (-4, 4)

Question 35.
Find the image of the point whose position vector is \(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+3 \hat{k}\) in the plane \(\vec{r} \cdot(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+4 \hat{k})=38\)
Answer:

Question 36.
Evaluate:  \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^{+}} x \log x\)
Answer:
This is an indeterminate of the form (0 x ∞). To evaluate this limit, we first simplify and bring it to the form (∞/∞) and apply 1’Hopital Rule

Question 37.
Find a linear approximation for the function given below at the indicate points f(x) = x³ -5x + 12, x₀ = 2.
Answer:
f(x) = x³ – 5x + 12 .
f'(x) = 3x² – 5
f(x₀) = f(2) = (2)³– 5(2) + 12 = 8 – 10 + 12 = 10
f'(x₀) = f'(2) = 3(2)² – 5 = 12 – 5 = 7
The required linear approximation L(x) = f(x₀) + f’ (x₀) (x – x₀)
= 10 + 7 (x – 2)
= 10 + 7x – 14
= 7x – 4

Question 38.
By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate \(\int_{0}^{3}|x-1| d x\)
Answer:

Question 39.
Solve: \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2v cot x = 3x²cosec²x.
Answer:
This is in the form of \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
P = 2 cot x ; Q = 3x²cosec²x.
∫ Pdx = ∫2 cot x dx = 2 log sin x = log (sin x)²
Integrating factor: e ^∫pdxe ^log(sinx)2 = (sinx)²

Question 40.
A fair coin is tossed a fixed number of times. If the probability of getting seven heads is
equal to that of getting nine heads, find the probability of getting exactly two heads.
Answer:
p = \(\frac{1}{2}\) q = \(\frac{1}{2}g\)
In binomial distribution
P(X = x) = nC_xp^x q^n-x x = 0, 1, 2,.. . n
By the given data P (X = 7) = P(X = 9)

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) By using Gaussian elimination method, balance the chemical reaction equation:
C₂H₆ → H₂ + CO₂
Answer:
We are searching for positive integers x₁ x₂, x₃ and x₄ such that
x₁ C₂H₆ + x₂O₂ = x₃H₂O + x₄CO₂ …(1)
The number of carbon atoms on LHS of (1) should be equal to number of carbon atoms on the RHS of (1). So we get a linear homogeneous equation.
2x₁ = x₄ ⇒ 2x₁ – x₄ = 0………(2)
Similarly considering hydrogen and oxygen atoms we get respectively.
2x₂ = x₃ + 2x₄
⇒ 2x₂ – x₃ – 2x₄ = 0 ……… (3)
and -2x₃ + 3x₄ = 0 …(4)
Equations (2), (3) and (4) constitute a homogeneous system of linear equations in four unknowns.
The augmented matrix (A,B) is (A,B)

Now p(A, B) = ρ(A) = 3 < number of unknowns. So the system is consistent and has infinite number of solutions. Writing the equations using the echelon form we get
2₁ – x₄ = 0 …(5)
2x₂ – x₃ – 2x₄ = 0 …..(6)
-2x₃ + 3x₄ = 0…..(7)
Taking x₄ = t,(t ≠ 0) in (7) we get
2x₃ – 3t = 0
2x₃ = 3t
\(x_{3}=\frac{3}{2} t\)
Taking x₄ = t, in (5) we get
2₁ – t = 0
2x₁ = t
\(x_{1}=\frac{t}{2}\)

Since x₁ x₂, x₃ and x₄ are positive integers. Let us choose t = 4t.
Then we get x₁ = 2, x₂ = 7, x₃ = 6, and x₄ = 4
So the balanced equation is 2C₂H₆+7O₂
→ 6H₂O + 4CO₂

(b) If z = x + iy and arg \(\left(\frac{z-i}{z+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\), then show that x² + y² + 3x – 3y + 2 = 0.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Solve the equation: 3x⁴ – 16x⁴ + 26x⁴ – 16x + 3 = 0.
Answer:
It is an even degree reciprocal equations
Dividing (1) by x²

3(y² – 2) – 16y + 26 = 0
3y² – 6 – 16y + 26 = 0
3y² – 16y + 20 = 0
(3y- 10) (y-2) = 0
3y- 10 = 0
3y = 10
3(x + \(\frac{1}{x}\)) = 10
3(x² + 1) = 10x
3x² – 10x + 3=0
(3x- 1) (x- 3) = 0
x = \(\frac{1}{x}\) and x = 3
The roots are 1, 1, \(\frac{1}{3}\), 3
y – 2 = 0
y = 2.
x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 2
x² + 1 = 2x
x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)² = 0
x = 1,1

OR

(b) Solve: \(\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x-1}{x-2}\right)+\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\right)=\frac{\pi}{4}\)
Answer:
Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 5 English Medium – 32

Question 43.
(a) A rod of length 1.2m moves with its ends always touching the coordinates axes. The locus of a point P on the rod, which is 0.3 m from the end in contact with x-axis is an ellipse. Find the eccentricity.
Answer:
From the diagram,
(i)∆^le OAB be a right angle triangle.

are corresponding angles, so corresponding angles are equal.

(b) Find the non-parametric and Cartesian equation of the plane passing through the point (4, 2, 4), and is perpendicular to the planes 2jt + 5y + 4z+l = 0 and 4JC + ly T 6z + 2 = 0.
Answer:
The required plane passing through the point (4, 2, 4) and parallel to the vectors

Question 44.
(a) A steel plant is capable of producing JC tonnes per day of a low-grade steel andy tonnes per day of a high-grade steel, where y = \(\frac{40-5 x}{10-x}\) If the fixed market price of low-grade steel is half that of high-grade steel, then what should be optimal productions in low-grade steel and high-grade steel in order to have maximum receipts.
Answer:
Let the price of low-grade steel be ₹p per tonne. Then the price of high-grade steel is ₹2p per tonne.

The total receipt per day is given by R = px + 2py = px + 2p \(\frac{40-5 x}{10-x}\) .
Hence the problem is to maximise R . Now, simplifying and differentiating R with respect to x, we get

and hence R will be maximum. If x = 10 – 2√5 then y = 5 – √5 Therefore the steel plant must produce low-grade and high-grade steels respectively in tonnes per day are 10 -2√5 and 5 – √5 .

[OR]

(b) Let z(x,y) xe^y+ye^x,x = ts²,y = st²,s,t ∈ R.Find \(\frac{\partial z}{\partial s}\) and \(\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Find the area of the region bounded between the parabola x2 = y and the curve
y = |x|.
Answer:
Both the curves are symmetrical about y-axis.
The curve \(y=|x| \text { is } y=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
x \text { if } x \geq 0 \\
-x \text { if } x \leq 0
\end{array}\right.\)
It intersects the parabola x2 = y at (1, 1) and (-1, 1). The area of the region bounded by the curves is sketched in Fig. It lies in the first quadrant as well as in the second quadrant. By symmetry, the required area is twice the area in the first quadrant.
In the first quadrant, the upper curve is y = x,0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and the lower curve is y = x², 0 ≤ x ≤ 1.
Hence, the required area is given by

(b) Water at temperature 100°C cools in 10 minutes to 80°C in a room temperature
of 25°C. Find (i) The temperature of water after 20 minutes (ii) The time when the
temperature is 40°C. [log_e\(\frac{11}{5}\) = -0.3101; log_e5 = 1.6094]
Answer:
Let’T’ be the temperature in time ‘f

Question 46.
(a) Suppose a discrete random variable can only take the values 0,1, and 2.
The probability mass function is defined by \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
\frac{x^{2}+1}{k}, & \text { for } x=0,1,2 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Find (i) the value of k (ii) cumulative distribution function (m) P(X ≥ 1).
Answer:

(b) Using truth table check whether the statements \(\neg(\boldsymbol{p} \vee \boldsymbol{q}) \vee \neg(\boldsymbol{p} \wedge \boldsymbol{q}) \text { and } \neg \boldsymbol{p}\) are logically equivalent.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Prove by vector method that sin(α + β) = sin α cos β + cos α sin β.
Answer:
Take two points A and B on the unit circle with centre as origin ‘O’, so \(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}|=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}|=1\)

• Let \(\vec{i}\) and \(\vec{j}\) be the unit vectors along the x, y direction respectively.
• The co-ordinates of A and B be (cos α, sin α) and (cos β, -sin β) respectively.


From (1) & (2), we get
sin (α + β) = sin α cos β + cos α sin β

[OR]

(b) Find the equation of tangent and normal to the curve y² – 4x + 2y + 5 = 0 at the point where it cuts the x-axis.
Answer:
y² – 4x + 2y + 5 = 0; given curve cuts the axis, so y = 0
.’. x = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
The required point ( \(\frac{5}{4}\) ,0)

(i) Equation of the tangent

(ii) Equation of the Normal

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Management is an …………….
(a) Art
(b) Science
(c) Art and Science
(d) Art or Science
Answer:
(c) Art and Science

Question 2.
Which of the following is verification function ……………?
(a) Planning
(b) Organising
(c) Staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

Question 3.
Capital market is a market for …………..
(a) Short Term Finance
(b) Medium Term Finance
(c) Long Term Finance
(d) All of these
Answer:
(c) Long Term Finance

Question 4.
Government Securities are issued by agencies such as ………….
(a) Central Government
(b) State Governments
(c) Semi-government Authorities
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
Stock exchanges deal in …………….
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial Securities
(d) Country’s Currency
Answer:
(c) Financial Securities

Question 6.
The headquarters of SEBI is ……………
(a) Kolkata
(b) Mumbai
(c) Chennai
(d) Delhi
Answer:
(b) Mumbai

Question 7.
Human resource is an asset…………..
(a) Tangible
(b) Intangible
(c) Fixed
(d) Current
Answer:
(b) Intangible

Question 8.
Advertisement is a …………….. source of recruitment.
(a) internal
(b) external
(c) agent
(d) outsourcing
Answer:
(b) external

Question 9.
In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix?
(a) Place Variable
(b) Product Variable
(c) Program Variable
(d) Price Variable
Answer:
(c) Program Variable

Question 10.
Selling goods/services through internet is ……………..
(a) Green marketing
(b) E-business
(c) Social marketing
(d) Niche marketing
(b) E-business

Question 11.
Who is the father of Consumer Movement?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) John F. Kennedy
(c) Ralph Nader
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
(c) Ralph Nader

Question 12.
The District Forum can entertain complaints where the value of goods or services and the compensation if any claimed is less than ……………..
(a) ₹ 10,00,000
(b) ₹ 20,00,000
(c) ₹ 40,00,000
(d) ₹ 50,00,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 20,00,000

Question 13.
New Economic Policy was introduced in the year
(a) 1980
(b) 1991
(c) 2013
(d) 2015
Answer:
(b) 1991

Question 14.
Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year
(a) 1940
(b) 1997
(c) 1930
(d) 1960
Answer:
(c) 1930

Question 15.
A cheque will become stale after months of its date.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 16.
Which of the below is not a characteristic of a Fabian Entrepreneur?
(a) Conservative
(b) Risk averse
(c) Sceptical
(d) Adaptive
Answer:
(d) Adaptive

Question 17.
Which of the following types of shares are issued by a company to raise capital from the existing shareholders?
(a) Equity Shares
(b) Rights Shares
(c) Preference Shares
(d) Bonus Shares
Answer:
(b) Rights Shares

Question 18.
A person shall hold office as a director in companies as per the Companies Act, 2013.
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 20
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 20

Question 19.
Board meetings to be conducted minimum times in a year.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 20.
A special resolution is required to ………………
(a) redeem the debentures
(b) declare dividend
(c) appoint directors
(d) appoint auditor
Answer:
(d) appoint auditor

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Bring out the meaning of Management By Exception.
Answer:
Management By Exception is an important principle of managerial control suggested by the classical writers on management. It is based on the belief that an attempt to control everything results in controlling nothing. Management by exception is a style of business management that focuses on identifying and handling cases that deviate from the norm.

Question 22.
Write any two instruments of money market.
Answer:

• Treasury Bills in the Treasury Market
• Money at Call and Short Notice in the Call Loan Market

Question 23.
Define Stock Exchange.
Answer:
According to Husband and Dockerary, “Stock exchanges are privately organized markets which are used to facilitate trading in securities.”

Question 24.
Mention features of campus recruitment.
Answer:
Campus recruitment is one of the external sources of recruitment. Its features are:

• The organisations visit the educational institutions to identify and recruit suitable candidates.
• They have to conduct the test and other interview methods to find out the suitable persons.

Question 25.
Who is called Promoters?
Answer:
Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person. The person who envisage the idea is called a.‘promoter’.

Question 26.
Give two examples of adulteration.
Answer:

• Powdered rice/wheat is adulterated with starch.
• Coffee powder is adulterated with tamarind seed.

Question 27.
Define Business environment.
Answer:
According to Bayard O ‘Wheeler, Business environment is “the total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operations”.

Question 28.
List down any two essential elements of the contract of sale.
Answer:
Following essential elements are necessary for a contract of sale:

• Two Parties: A contract of sale involves two parties – the seller and the buyer.
• Transfer of Property: To constitute sale, the seller must transfer or agree to transfer the ownership in the good to the buyer.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Differentiate Management and Administration.
Answer:

Question 32.
What are the features and types of Treasury Bills?
Answer:
Treasury Bills are issued to the public and other financial institutions for meeting the short- term financial requirements of the Central Government.
Features of Treasury Bills:

• Issuer
• Finance Bills
• Liquidity
• Vital Source
• Monetary Management

Types of Treasury Bills:

• 91 days Treasury Bills
• 182 days Treasury Bills and
• 364 days Treasury Bills

Question 33.
Explain Bull and Bear Speculators?
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animals behaviour. They are:

• Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future. He purchases the securities expecting price of rise in future.
• Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 34.
What are the features of Human Resources? (Any 3)
Answer:

• Human resource exhibits innovation and creativity.
• Human resource alone can think, act, analyse and interpret.
• Human resources are emotional beings.

Question 35.
Explain the types of market on the basis of time.
Answer:

• Very Short Period Market: Markets which deal in perishable goods like, fruits, milk, vegetables, etc., are called as very short period market. There is no change in the supply of goods.
• Short Period Market: In certain goods, supply is adjusted to meet the demand. The demand is greater than supply. Such markets are known as Short Period Market.
• Long Period Market: This type of market deals in durable goods, where the goods and services are dealt for longer period usages.

Question 36.
Give any three cases in which an ordinary resolution need to be passed.
Answer:
An ordinary resolution is one which can be passed by a simple majority; i.e. if the members of votes cast by members, entitled to vote in favour of the resolution is more than the votes cast against the resolution.

Ordinary Resolution is required for the following matters:

• To change or rectify the name of the company
• To alter the share capital of the company
• To redeem the debentures

Question 37.
Explain the meaning of Agreement to sell.
Answer:
The property (ownership or title) in the goods has to pass at a future time or after the fulfilment of certain conditions specified in the contract. Where the goods under the agreement to sell are destroyed, the loss falls squarely on the seller as the ownership is still vested with the seller even though the possession of the goods is with the buyer.

Question 38.
Discuss the two different types of crossing.
Answer:
Crossing may be General crossing and Special crossing.
1. General crossing- The lines should be drawn across the face of a cheque and not on the reverse thereof. Further, they must by parallel and transverse. Cross marks such as ‘X’ does not constitute crossing.

2. Special crossing- may be of not negotiable crossing and Account payee crossing. But the A name of banker to whom the payment should be made is to be necessarily written on the face of the cheque.

Question 39.
Distinguish between shares and stocks.
Answer:

Question 40.
Write any three factors of political and legal environment.
Answer:
The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment.

• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like the election system, the law and order situation.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international arena.
• The constitution of the nation.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Explain the modern Principles of Management. (Any 5)
Answer:
The Father of Modem Management is Mr. Henry Fayol, and according to him there are 14 major principles of management which every manager has to practice for the success of the organization.

• Division of Work: According to this principle the whole work is divided into small tasks. This leads to specialization which increases the efficiency of labour.
• Authority and Responsibility: This is the issue of commands followed by responsibility for their consequences.
• Discipline: It is obedience, proper conduct in relation to others, respect of authority, etc. It is essential for the smooth functioning of all organizations.
• Unity of Command: This principle states that each subordinate should receive orders and be accountable to one and only one superior.
• Unity of Direction: All related activities should be put under one group, there should be one plan of action for them, and they should be under the control of one manager.

[OR]

(b) Distinguish between new issue market and secondary market. (Any 5)

Question 42(a) Explain the features of Stock Exchange. (Any 5)
Answer:
There are various features of a stock exchange. They are given below:

• Market for Securities: Stock exchange is a market, where securities of corporate bodies, government companies are bought and sold.
• Deals in Second Hand Securities: It deals with shares, debentures bonds and securities already issued by the companies.
• Regulates Trade in Securities: Stock exchange does not buy or sell any securities on its own account. It regulates the trade activities so as to ensure free and fair trade.
• Allows Dealings only in Listed Securities: In the stock exchange only listed securities are purchased and sold. Unlisted securities cannot be traded in the stock exchange.
• Association of Persons: A stock exchange is an association of persons or body of individuals which may be registered or unregistered.

[OR]
(b) Explain the principles of placement.
The following are the principles of placement:

• Job First, Man Next: Man should be placed on the job according to the requirements of the job.
• Job Offer: The job should be offered to the man based on his qualification.
• Terms and conditions: The employee should be informed about the terms and conditions of the organisation.
• Aware about the Penalties: The employee should also be made aware of the penalties if he / she commits a mistake.
• Loyalty and Co-operation: When placing a person in a new job, an effort should be made to develop a sense of loyalty and co-operation in him.

Question 43(a).
What are the differences between on the job training and off the job training?

[OR]
(b) Narrate the elements of marketing mix.
Answer:
Marketing mix means a marketing programme that is offered by a firm for the satisfaction of human wants. There are four Elements of Marketing mix:

• Product: A Product is the main element of marketing. Without a product, there can be no marketing.
• Price: Price is the value of a product expressed in monetary terms. It is the amount charged for the product.
• Place (Physical Distribution): An excellent quality product, with a good price, will be waste, if it is not transferred from the production place to consumption place.
• Promotion: An excellent product with competitive price cannot achieve a desired success and acceptance in market, with special features are conveyed to the consumers.

Question 44(a).
How consumers are exploited? (Any 5)
Answer:
Consumer is one who consumes the goods manufactured or created. Consumers are exploited in many ways in the business. They are as follows:

• Selling at Higher Price: The price charged by the seller for a product or service may not be higher compared to the quality.
• Adulteration: It refers to mixing or substituting undesirable material in food. This leads to heavy loss to the consumer, (e.g. ) Mixing of stones with grains.
• Duplicate or Spurious goods: Duplicate products of popular products are illegally produced and sold.
• Artificial Scarcity: There are certain situations where the shop-keepers put up the board ‘No Stock” in front of their shops, even though there is plenty of stock in the store.
• Sub-standard: On opening a packet or sealed container one may find the content to be of poor quality.

[OR]

(b) Explain the advantages of liberalization. (Any 5)
Answer:
Liberalization means relaxation of various government restrictions in the areas of social and economic policies of the country.

Advantages of Liberalization:

• Increase in foreign investment: If a country liberalizes its trade, it will make the country more attractive for inward investment.
• Increase the foreign exchange reserve: Relaxation in the regulations covering foreign investment and foreign exchange has paved way for easy access to foreign capital.
• Increase in consumption: Liberalization increases the number of goods available for consumption within a country.

Question 45(a).
Distinguish between Condition and Warranty.

Question 46(a)
Discuss the problems faced by Women Entrepreneurs.
Answer:
There is a tremendous growth in the women entrepreneurship in India. But there are certain problems met by women entrepreneurs. They are as follows:-
(1) Problem of Finance: The external sources of funds for the women is limited because they do not generally own properties in their own name. They are depending on their own savings and loan from friends and relatives.

(2) Lack of Education: Illiterate and semi-literate women entrepreneurs face difficulties in respect of accounts, money matters, marketing and day-to-day operations.

(3) Lack of Network Support: The success of business depends on the support of family members, friends and relatives. But it is reported that the women entrepreneurs get very limited support in times of crisis.

(4) Stiff Competition: They have to face acute competition for their goods from organised sector and from their male counterparts.

(5) Lack of Information: The lack of knowledge or limited knowledge about subsidies, concessions and incentives given by Government will affect the business.

[OR]

(b) Write the difference between Shares and Debentures. (Any 5)

Question 47(a).
What are the collective duties of directors?
Answer:
Directors act as agents of the shareholders and act as a trustees of shareholders. The following are the duties of directors: Collective Duties of Directors: Directors as a part of Board perform certain duties collectively. The duties are as follows:

• Approval of annual accounts and authentication of annual accounts
• Appointment of First Auditors
• Passing of resolutions at board meetings
• Directors report to shareholders highlighting the performance of the company.

[OR]
(b) Elaborate the functions of the Company Secretary.
The functions of the Company Secretary may be divided into two types. They are:

• Statutory functions
• Non-Statutory functions

Statutory Functions: As the principal officer of the company, the secretary must observe all the legal formalities in respect of the provisions of the Companies Act and other laws, for the activities of the company.

According to Companies Act 2013:

• To sign document and proceedings requiring authentication by the company
• To maintain share registers and register of directors and of contracts.
• To give notice to register for increase in the share capital
• To send notice of general meeting to every member of the company
• To prepare minutes of every general meeting and board meeting within 30 days

Non-Statutory Functions: The secretary has to discharge non-statutory functions in relation to directors, shareholders and office and staff.

Functions in Relation to Directors:
A company secretary acts under the full control of the board of directors and carry out the instructions of the directors. The secretary will arrange board meetings issuing notice, and preparing agenda of meetings, recording the attendance and minutes of meetings.

Functions in Relation to Shareholders:
The company secretary must serve in the best interests of the shareholders.
He has to arrange the issue of allotment letters, call letters, letters of regret, share certificates, and share warrants to Shareholders.

Functions in Relation to Office and Staff:
The secretary is responsible for smooth functioning of the office work. He exercises an overall supervision, control and co-ordination of all clerical activities in the office.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.5

Evaluate the following limits, if necessary use l’Hopital Rule.

Question 1.

Solution:

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Question 7.

Solution:

Question 8.

Solution:

Question 9.

Solution:

Question 10.

Solution:

Question 11.

Solution:

Question 12.
If an initial amount A₀ of money is invested at an interest rate r compounded n times a year, the value of the investment after t years is . If the interest is compounded continuously, (that is as n ➝ ∞), show that the amount after t years is A = A₀e^rt.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 7 Applications of Differential Calculus Ex 7.5 Additional Problems

Question 1.

Solution:

Note that here l’Hopital’s rule, applied yields the result

Question 2.

Solution:

Question 3.

Solution:

Question 4.

Solution:

Question 5.

Solution:

Question 6.

Solution:

Try More:

Gift Nifty Futures

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The rank of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{rrrr}
1 & 2 & 3 & 4 \\
2 & 4 & 6 & 8 \\
-1 & -2 & -3 & -4
\end{array}\right]\) is ………….
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 2.
If \(\left|z-\frac{3}{z}\right|\) , then the least value of | z | is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 3.
The product of all four values of ‘\(\left(\cos \frac{\pi}{3}+i \sin \frac{\pi}{3}\right)^{\frac{3}{4}}\) is ………….
(a) -2
(b) -1
(c) 1
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 1

Question 4.
The value of cos^-1(-1) + tan^-1(∞) + sin^-1 1 = ………….
(a) 3π/2
(b) -π
(c) 2π
(d) 3π
Answer:
(c) 2π

Question 5.
The value of sin ^-1(1) + sin^-1(0) is
(a) π/2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) π
Answer:
(a) π/2

Question 6.
The length of the diameter of the circle which touches the x -axis at the point (1,0) and passes through the point (2, 3)
(a) 6/5
(b) 5/3
(c) 10/3
(d) 3/5
Answer:
(c) 10/3

Question 7.
Area of the greatest rectangle inscribed in the ellipse \(\frac{x^{2}}{a^{2}}+\frac{y^{2}}{b^{2}}=1\) is ………….
(a) 2ab
(b) ab
(c) \(\sqrt{a b}\)
(d) a/b
Answer:
(a) 2ab

Question 8.
The angle between two vectors \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{b}\) if \(|\vec{a} \times \vec{b}|=\vec{a} \cdot \vec{b}\) is ………….
(a) π/4
(b) π/3
(c) π/6
(d) π/2
Answer:
(a) π/4

Question 9.
The distance between the planes x + 2y + 3z + 7 = 0 and 2x + 4y + 6z + 7 = 0 is ………….

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)

Question 10.
The tangent to the curve y² – xy + 9 = 0 is vertical when
(a) y = 0
(b) y = ± √3
(c) y = 1/2
(d) y = ± 3

Question 11.
The curve y² = (x – a) (x – b)², a, b> 0 and a > b does not exist for
(a) x ≥ a
(b) x = b
(c) b < x < a
(d) x = a

Question 12.
The percentage error of fifth root of 31 is approximately how many times the percentage error in 31 ?
(a) 1/31
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 31
Answer:
(b) 1/5

Question 13.
The differential of y if y =\(\frac{x-2}{2 x+3}\) is ………….

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{7}{(2 x+3)^{2}} d x\)

Question 14.
If \(\int_{0}^{a} \frac{1}{4+x^{2}} d x=\frac{\pi}{8}\) then a is ………….
(a) 4
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 2
Answer:
(d) 2

Question 15.
If n is off then \(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos ^{n} x d x\) is

Answer:

Question 16.
The solution of \(\frac{d y}{d x}+p(x) y=0\) is
(a) y = ce^∫pdx
(b) y = ce^-∫pdx
(c) x = ce^-∫pdx
(d) x = ce^∫pdx
Answer:
(b) y = ce^-∫pdx

Question 17.
The order and degree of the differential equation are \(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}-y+\left(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{d^{3} y}{d x^{3}}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}=0\) ………….
(a) 2, 3
(b) 3,3
(c) 3, 2
(d) 2, 2
Answer:
(b) 3,3

Question 18.
The random variable X has the probability density function \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
a x+b, & 0<x<1 \\
0, & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\) and E(X) = —, then a and b are respectively ………….
(a) 1 and 1/2
(b) 1/2 and 1
(c) 2 and 1
(d) 1 and 2
Answer:
(a) 1 and 1/2

Question 19.
If the function f(x) = 1/12 for a < x < b represents a probability density function of a continuous random variable X, then which of the following cannot be the value of a and b?
(a) 0 and 12
(b) 5 and 17
(c) 7 and 19
(d) 16 and 24
Answer:
(d) 16 and 24

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not true?
(a) Negation of a negation of a statement is the statement itself.
(b) If the last column of the truth table contains only T then it is a tautology.
(c) If the last column of its truth table contains only F then it is a contradiction
(d) If p and q are any two statements then p ↔ q is a tautology.
Answer:
(d) If p and q are any two statements then p ↔ q is a tautology.

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No.30 is compulsory [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
If adj [A] = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
0 & -2 & 0 \\
6 & 2 & -6 \\
-3 & 0 & 6
\end{array}\right]\) then find A^-1
Answer:

Question 22.
Obtain the condition that the roots of x³ + px² + qx + r = 0 are in A.P.
Answer:
Let the roots be in A.R Then, we can assume them in the form α – d, α, α + d. Applying the Vietas formula (α – d) + α + (α + d) = -y = \(-\frac{p}{1}\) => 3α = -p => α = \(-\frac{p}{3}\)
But, we note that a is a root of the given equation. Therefore, we get

Question 23.
Show that \(\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}-1}}\right)=\sec ^{-1} x\) |x| > 1
Answer:

We construct a right triangle with the given data.
From the triangle, sec α = \(\frac{x}{1}\) = x. Thus, α = sec^-1 x.


Question 24.
Evaluate \(\lim _{x \rightarrow 1} x^{\frac{1}{x-1}}\)
Answer:

Question 25.
The radius of a circular disc is given as 24 cm with a maximum error in measurement of 0.02 cm. (i) Use differentials to estimate the maximum error in the calculated area of the disc, (ii) Compute the relative error.
Answer:
r = 24 cm, dr = 0;02 cm

Question 26.
Evaluate \(\int_{-\log 2}^{\log 2} e^{-|x|} d x\)
Answer:

Question 27.
Show that the following expressions is a solution of the corresponding given differential equation.
y = ae^x + be^-x ; y” – y = 0
Answer:
y = ae^x + be^-x …(1) Differential equation: y”- y = 0
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y’ = ae^x – be^-x
Again differentiate with respect to ‘x’
y”= ae^x + be^-x
y” = y ⇒ y” – y = 0
∴ (1) is the solution of the given differential equation.

Question 28.
Suppose X is the number of tails occurred when three fair coins are tossed once simultaneously. Find the values of the random variable X and number of points in its inverse images.
Answer:
Let X is the random variable denotes the number of tails when three coins are tossed simultaneously.
Sample space S = {HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT}
∴ ‘X’ takes the values 0, 1, 2, 3
i.e., X (HHH) = 0 ; X (HHT, HTH, THH) = 1 ; X (HTT, THT, TTH) = 2 ; X (TTT) = 3

Question 29.
Verify the (i) closure property (it) commutative property (iii) associative property ‘ (iv) existence of identity and (v) existence of inverse for the arithmetic operation + on Z_o = the set of all odd integers.
Answer:
Consider the set Z₀ of all odd integers Z₀ = {2k + 1 : k ∈ Z} = 5,—3,-1, 1 ,3 ,5, …}. + is not a binary operation on Z₀ because when x = 2m + 1, y = 2n + 1,
x + y = 2(m + n) + 2 is even for all m and n. For instance, consider the two odd numbers 3,7 ∈ Z₀. Their sum 3 + 7 = 10 is an even number. In general, if x, y ∈ Z 0, then (x + y)∉ Z ₀
Other properties need not be checked as it is not a binary operation.

Question 30.
Simplify i¹⁹⁴⁸ – i¹⁸⁶⁹
Answer:

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Find the inverse of the matrix \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
2 & -1 & 3 \\
-5 & 3 & 1 \\
-3 & 2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\)
Answer:

Question 32.
Find the value of \(\left(\frac{1+\sin \frac{\pi}{10}+i \cos \frac{\pi}{10}}{1+\sin \frac{\pi}{10}-i \cos \frac{\pi}{10}}\right)^{10}\)
Answer:

Question 33.
Foci (0, ± 4) and end points of major axis are(0, ± 5). Find the equation of the ellipse.
Answer:
From the diagram we see that major axis is along y-axis.
Also a = 5 and ae = 4
⇒ 5e = 4 ⇒e = 4/5
Now a = 5 ⇒ a² = 25
ae = 4 ⇒ ae² =16
So b²= a²(1 – e²) = a²– a²e² = 25 – 16 = 9

Question 34.
Show that the two lines \(\vec{r}=(\vec{i}-\vec{j})+t(2 \vec{i}+\vec{k}) \text { and } \vec{r}=(2 \vec{i}-\vec{j})+s(\vec{i}+\vec{j}-\vec{k})\) lines and find the distance between them.
Answer:

Question 35.
Find the local maximum and minimum of the function x² y² on the line x+y = 10.
Answer:
Let the given function be written as f(x) = x²(10 – x)². Now,
f(x) = x² (100 – 20x + x²) = x⁴ – 20x³ + 100x²
Therefore, f’ (x) = 4x³ – 60x² + 200x = 4x (x² – 15x + 50)
f'(x) = 4x(x² – 15x + 50) = 0 ⇒ x = 0, 5, 10
and f ” (x) = 12x² – 120x + 200

The stationary points of /(x) are x = 0, 5, 10 at these points the values of f” (x) are respectively 200, -100 and 200. At x = 0, it has local minimum and its value is f(0) = 0. At x = 5, it has local maximum and its value is f(5) = 625. At x =10, it has local minimum and its value is f(10) = 0.

Question 36.
Let U(x, y, z) = x² – xy + 3sin z, x, y, z ∈ R. Find the linear approximation for U at (2,-1,0).
Answer:
Linear approximation is given by

Now U_x = 2x – y, U_y = – x and U_z = 3cos z.
Here (x₀,y₀,z₀) = (2, -1,0), hence U_x(2, -1,0) = 5, U_y(2, -1,0) = -2 and U_z (2, -1,0) = 3.
Thus L(x, y, z) = 6 + 5(x – 2) – 2(y + 1) + 3(z – 0) = 5x – 2y + 3z – 6 is the required linear approximation for U at (2,-1,0).

Question 37.
Find the volume of a sphere of radius a.
Answer:
By revolving the upper semicircular region enclosed between the circle x² + y² = a² and the x-axis, we get a sphere of radius a.
The boundaries of the region are y = \(\sqrt{a^{2}-x^{2}}\) x-axis x = -a and x= a Hence, the volume of the sphere is given by

Question 38.
Solve the following differential equations: ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy = 0
Answer:
ydx + (1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy =0
(1 + x²) tan^-1 x dy= -y dx
Separating the variables

log y = – log (tan^-1x) + log c
log y + log (tan^-1 x) = log c
log (y tan^-1 x) = log c
y tan^-1 x = c

Question 39.
Prove that \(\boldsymbol{q} \rightarrow \boldsymbol{p} \equiv \neg \boldsymbol{p} \rightarrow \neg \boldsymbol{q}\)
Answer:
Truth table for q → p

Truth table for \(\neg p \rightarrow \neg q\)

The entries in the column corresponding to q → p and \(\neg p \rightarrow \neg q\) are identical and hence they are equivalent.

Question 40.
If on an average 1 ship out of 10 do not arrive safely to ports. Find the mean and the standard deviation of the ships returning safely out of a total of 500 ships.
Answer:
Probability of a ship arriving safely

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) If F(α) = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
\cos \alpha & 0 & \sin \alpha \\
0 & 1 & 0 \\
-\sin \alpha & 0 & \cos \alpha
\end{array}\right]\) show that F[(α)]^-1 = F(-α)
Answer:
Let A = F(α)
So F[(α)]^-1 = F(-α)

Expanding the determinant – along R2 We get
-0() + 1 [cos²α + sin²α] – 0() = 1 ≠ 0
So A^-1 exists

[OR]

(b) If ω ≠ 1 is a cube root of unity, show that the roots of the equation (z – 1)³ + 8 = 0 are -1,1- 2ω , 1- 2ω²
Answer:
(z- 1)³ + 8 = 0 ⇒ (z – 1)³ = -8

Question 42.
(a) Solve: \((\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2})^{x}+(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})^{x}=10\)
Answer:

[OR]

(b) If a₁ a₂, a₃,… a_n is an arithmetic progression with common difference d. Prove that

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Show that the linex-y + 4 = 0isa tangent to the ellipse x² + 3y² = 12. Also find the coordinates of the point of contact.
Answer:
The given ellipse is x² + 3y² =12

(ie.,) Here a² = 12 and b² = 4
The given line is x – y + 4 = 0
(ie.,) y = x + 4
Comparing this line with y = mx + c
We get m = 1 and c = 4
The condition for the line y = mx + c

LHS = c² = 4² = 16
RHS: a²m² + b² = 12(1)² + 4=16
LHS = RHS ⇒ The given line is a tangent to the ellipse. Also the point of contact is

(b) Using vector method, prove that cos(α – β) = cos α cos β + sin α sin β
Answer:
Take two points A and B on the unit circle with centre
as origin ‘O’. so \(|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OA}}|=|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OB}}|=1\)
\(\mathrm{AO} x=\alpha ; \quad \mathrm{BO} x=\beta \Rightarrow \mathrm{LAOB}=\alpha-\beta\)
Let \(\vec{i}\) and \(\vec{j}\) be the unit vectors along the x, y respectively.
The co-ordinates of A and B be (cos α, sin α) and (cos β, sin β) respectively.

Question 44.
(a) A farmer plans to fence a rectangular pasture adjacent to a river. The pasture must contain 1,80,000 sq. mtrs in order to provide enough grass for herds. No fencing is needed along the river. What is the length of the minimum needed fencing material?
Answer:
Given Area = 180000 sqm
Let length be x and breadth be y
Now xy = 180000
⇒ y = \( \frac{180000}{x}\)
Now perimeter = 2x + y(∵one side is along ther river)

at x = 300 m, p is positive ⇒ x = 300 is a minimum point
180000
when x = 300 m, y = \( \frac{180000}{300}\) = 600 m
So minimum perimeter = 2x + y
= 2(300) + 600 = 1200 m

[OR]

(b) If u = log (tan x + tan y + tan z), prove that \(\Sigma \sin 2 x \frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=2\)
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Evaluate as the limit of sums: \(\int_{1}^{2}\left(x^{2}-1\right) d x\)
Answer:
Let f(x) = x² – 1 for 1≤ x ≤ 2
We divide the interval [1,2] into n equal sub-intervals each of length h. We have a = 1, b = 2

Here,f(a) = f(1) = (1)² – 1 = 0
f(a + h) = f(1 + h) = (1 + h)² – 1 = 1 + h² + 2h – 1 = h² + 2h
f(a + 2h) = f(1 + 2h) = (1 +2h)² = 1 + 4h² + 4h – 1 = 4h² + 4h
f[a + (n -1) h] = f[1 + (n -1) A] = [1 + (n -1) h]² – 1
= 1 + (n – 1)² h² + 2(n – 1) h – 1 = (n – 1)² h² + 2(n – 1) h²

(b) Solve \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x-y+5}{2(x-y)+7}\)
Answer:


Integrating both sides, we get
2z + 3 log |z + 2| =x + c
That is, 2(x – y) + 3 log |x – y + 2| = x + c

Question 46.
(a) For the random variable X with the given probability mass function as below, find the mean and variance.
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
2(x-1), & 1<x<<2 \\
0 & , \quad \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Answer:

(b) Show that the set { [1], [3], [4], [5], [9]} under multiplication modulo 11 satisfies closure, associative, identity and inverse properties.
Answer:
G = {[1], [3], [4], [5], [9]}
* is defined by multiplication modulo 11.
To prove G is an abelian group with respect to *
Since we are given a finite number of elements i.e., since the given set is finite, we can frame the multiplication table called Cayley’s table.
The Cayley’s table is as follows:

G₁: The elements in the above table are [1], [3], [4], [5] and [9] which are elements of G.
.’. closure axiom is verified.
G₂ : Consider [3], [4], [5] which are elements of G.
{[3]*[4]}*[5] = [1]*[5] = [5] ……….(1)
[3] *{[4]*[5]} = [3]*[9] = [5] ……….(2)
(1) = (2) ⇒ (a * b) * c = a * (b * c) i.e., associative axiom is verified.
G₃ : The first row elements are the same as that of the given elements in the same order.
i.e., from the table, the identity element is [1] ∈ G. So identity axiom is verified.

inverse axiom is verified.
G₅ : From the table * is commutative i.e., the entries equidistant from the leading diagonal on either sides are equal ⇒ a * b = b * a

Question 47.
(a) For the ellipse 4x² + y² + 24x – 2y + 21 = 0, find the centre, vertices, and the foci. Also prove that the length of latus rectum is 2.
Answer:
Rearranging the terms, the equation of ellipse is ,
4x² + 24x + y² – 2y + 21 = 0
That is, 4(x² + 6x + 9 – 9) + (y² – 2y + 1 – 1) + 21 =0
4 (x +3)² – 36 + (y-1)² – 1 + 21 = 0
4 (0+ 3)² + (y – 1)² = 16


Centre is (-3,1) a = 4, b = 2, and the major axis is parallel to y -axis
c² = 16 – 4 = 12
c = ± 2 √3
Therefore, the foci are (-3, 2√ +1) and (-3, -2√3 + 1).
Vertices are (1,± 4 +1). That is the vertices are (1, 5) and (1, -3), and
The length of Latus rectum = \(\frac{2 b^{2}}{a}\) = 2 units

[OR]

(b) If \(\vec{a}=-2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}-2 \hat{k}, \vec{b}=3 \hat{i}-\hat{j}+3 \hat{k}, \vec{c}=2 \hat{i}-5 \hat{j}+\hat{k}\) find \((\vec{a} \times \vec{b}) \times \vec{c}\) and \(\vec{a} \times(\vec{b} \times \vec{c})\)
State whether they are equal.
Answer:

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TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Scientific management is developed by ……………….
(a) Fayol
(b) Taylor
(c) Mayo
(d) Jacob
Answer:
(b) Taylor

Question 2
keeps Management Alert to Opportunities and Threats by Identifying Critical Problems.
(a) MBA
(b) MBE
(c) MBM
(d) MBO
Answer:
(b) MBE

Question 3.
Primary market is a Market where securities are traded in the …………..
(a) First time
(b) second time
(c) Three time
(d) Several time
Answer:
(a) First time

Question 4.
There are stock exchange in the country.
(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 21

Question 5.
Human Resource management is both and ……………
(a) science and art
(b) theory and practice
(c) history and geography
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) science and art

Question 6.
A poor quality of selection will mean extra cost on ………… and supervision.
(a) training
(b) recruitment
(c) work quality
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) training

Question 7.
The marketer initially wants to know in the marketing is ………..
(a) qualification of the customers
(b) quality of the product
(c) background of the customers
(d) needs of the customers
Answer:
(d) needs of the customers

Question 8.
Which is gateway to internet?
(a) portal
(b) CPU
(c) modem
(d) webnaire
Answer:
(c) modem

Question 9.
Sale of Goods Act was passed in the year?
(a) 1962
(b) 1972
(c) 1982
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1982

Question 10.
The chairman of the state consumer protection council is ……………
(a) Judge of a High Court
(b) Chief minister
(c) Finance minister
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Judge of a High Court

Question 11
………… means permitting the private sector to set up industries which were previously
reserved for public sector.
(a) Liberalisation
(b) privatisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Public enterprise
Answer:
(b) privatisation

Question 12.
Which of the below is not a good?
(a) stocks
(b) dividend due
(c) crops
(d) water
Answer:
(b) dividend due

Question 13.
The transferee of a Negotiable Instrument is the one
(a) Who transfer the instrument
(b) On whose name it is transferred
(c) Who enchases it
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) On whose name it is transferred

Question 14.
Entrepreneur is not classified as …………
(a) Risk bearer
(b) Innovator
(c) Employee
(d) Organizer
Answer:
(b) Innovator

Question 15.
Which of the following is the activity of a business entrepreneur?
(a) production
(b) marketing
(c) operation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 16.
…………… is designed to transform India to a global design and manufacturing hub.
(a) Digital India
(b) Make in India
(c) Startup India
(d) Design India
Answer:
(b) Make in India

Question 17.
For which type of capital a company pays the prescribed fees at the time of registration?
(a) Subscribed capital
(b) Authorised capital
(c) Paid-up capital
(d) Issued capital
Answer:
(b) Authorised capital

Question 18.
Which ………….. Director is appointed by a Financial institution?
(a) Nominee
(b) Additional
(c) Women
(d) Shadow
Answer:
(a) Nominee

Question 19.
Which meeting will be held only once in the life time of the company?
(a) Statutory
(b) Annual general
(c) Extra ordinary
(d) Class general
Answer:
(a) Statutory

Question 20.
Distribution of work in groupwise or section-wise is called as
(a) co-ordinating
(b) controlling
(c) staffing
(d) organising
Answer:
(d) organising

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Who is a manager?
Answer:
A manager is a dynamic and life giving element in every business. Without efficient management it cannot be possible to secure the best allocation and utilisation of human, material and financial resources.

Question 22.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader.

Question 23.
Write a note on financial market.
Answer:
A financial market is an institution or arrangement that facilitates the exchange of financial instruments such as equity shares, preference shares, debentures, deposits and loans, corporate stocks and bonds, government bonds, and more exotic instruments such as options and futures contracts.

Question 24.
What is commercial bill market?
Answer:
The Commercial Bill is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods. A bill of exchange issued by a commercial organization to raise money for short-term needs. These bills are of 30 days, 60 days and 90 days maturity.

Question 25.
Write any two objectives of SEBI.
Answer:
The first objective of SEBI is to regulate, stock exchanges so that efficient services may be provided to all the parties operating there. Another objective is to supervise/check the activities of the brokers and other middlemen in order to control the capital market.

Question 26.
What is an interview?
Answer:
According to Scott and others “an interview is a purpose full exchange of ideas, the answering of questions and communication between two or more persons.”

Question 27.
What is green marketing?
Answer:
Green marketing involves developing and promoting products and services which satisfy customers’ wants and needs for quality, performance, affordable pricing and convenience – all without causing a detrimental impact on the environment.

Question 28.
Define Consumerism.
Answer:
“Consumerism is an attempt to enhance the rights and powers by buyers in relation to sellers”.

Question 29.
What is internal environment?
Answer:
Internal environment refers to those factors within an organisation e.g. Policies and programmes, organisational structure, employees, financial and physical resources.

Question 30.
Define Bill of Exchange.
Answer:
According to section 5 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, “a bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No.40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Is management an Art or Science?
Answer:
Management is neither a science nor an art, but a combination of both requiring people holding managerial positions to apply the scientific management principles and displaying popular managerial skills to accomplish the organizational goals as efficiently and as quickly as possible so as to be competitive in the globalised environment of business.

Question 32.
Give the meaning and definition of financial market.
Answer:

• Meaning: A market wherein financial instruments such as financial claims, assets and securities are traded is known as a ‘financial market’.
• Definition: According to Brigham, Eugene F, “The place where people and organizations wanting to borrow money are brought together with those having surplus funds is called a financial market.”

Question 33.
Explain Bull and Bear.
Answer:
Speculators in a stock market are of different types based on animals behaviour. They are:

• Bull: A Bull or Tejiwala is an operator who expects a rise in prices of securities in the future.He purchases the securities expecting price of rise in future.
• Bear: A bear or Mandiwala speculator expects prices to fall in future and sells securities at present with a view to purchase them at lower price.

Question 34.
What is stress interview?
Answer:
This type of interview is conducted to test the temperament and emotional balance of the candidate interviewed. Interviewer deliberately creates stressful situation and tries to assess the suitability of the candidate by observing his reaction and response to the stressful situations.

Question 35.
Explain the importance of social marketing.
Answer:
The primary aim of social marketing is ‘social good’ such as anti-tobacco, anti-drug, anti¬pollution, anti-dowry, road safety, protection of girl child, against the use of plastic bags. Social marketing promotes the consumption of socially desirable products and develops health consciousness. It helps to eradicate social evils that affect the society and quality of life.

Question 36.
Is Consumer Protection necessary?
Answer:
Consumer is supposed to be the king in the business. Consumer satisfaction is compulsorily necessary. Because the business depends upon the consumer. If there is no consumer, no need of production or sales. So the consumer is to be fully satisfied and respected in the market.

Question 37.
Discuss in detail about existing goods.
Answer:
Existing goods are those owned or possessed by the seller at the time of contract of sale. Goods possessed even refer to sale by agents or by pledgers. Existing goods may be either:

• Specific Goods
• Ascertained Goods
• Generic or Unascertained Goods

Question 38.
Explain the nature of a Negotiable Instrument.
Answer:
A negotiable instrument is transferable from one person to another without any formality, such as affixing stamp, registration, etc. When the instrument is held by holder in due course in the process of negotiation, it is cured of all defects in the instrument with respect to ownership. Though a bill, a promissory note or a cheque represents a debt, the transferee is entitled to sue on the instrument in his own name in case of dishonour, without giving notice to the debtor that he has become its holder.

Question 39.
What is ‘Startup India’?
Answer:
Through the Startup India initiative, Government of India promotes entrepreneurship by mentoring, nurturing and facilitating startups throughout their life cycle.

Question 40.
What do you mean by Statutory Meeting?
Answer:
According to Companies Act, every public company, should hold a meeting of the shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from the date of commencement of business of the company. This is the first general meeting of the public company, which is called the Statutory Meeting. This meeting is conducted only once in the lifetime of the company.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Describe the principles of scientific management.
Principles of scientific management propounded by Taylor are:

(i) Science, Not Rule of Thumb: Rule of Thumb means decisions taken by manager as per their personal judgments. According to Taylor, even a small production activity like loading iron sheets into box cars can be scientifically planned. This will help in saving time as well as human energy. Decisions should be based on scientific enquiry with cause and effect relationships.

(ii) Harmony, Not Discord: Taylor emphasized that there should be complete harmony between the workers and the management since if there is any conflict between the two,it will not be beneficial either for the workers or the management. Both the management and the workers should realize the importance of each other.

(iii) Mental Revolution: The technique of Mental Revolution involves a change in the attitude of workers and management towards each other. Both should realize the importance of each other and should work with full cooperation. Management as well as the workers should aim to increase the profits of the organisation.

(iv) Cooperation, Not Individualism: This principle is an extension of principle of Harmony, not discord’ and lays stress on mutual cooperation between workers and the management. Cooperation, mutual confidence, sense of goodwill should prevail among both, managers as well as workers. The intention is to replace internal competition with cooperation. Both ‘Management’ and ‘Workers’ should realize the importance of each other.

(v) Development of each and every person to his or her greatest efficiency and prosperity: Efficiency of any organisation also depends on the skills and capabilities of its employees to a great extent. Thus, providing training to the workers was considered essential in order to learn the best method developed through the use of scientific approach.

[OR]

(b) What are the advantages of MBE?
Answer:
Management by exception provides the following advantages:

•  It saves the time of managers because they deal only with exceptional matters. Routine problems are left to subordinates.
• It focuses managerial attention on major problems. As a result, there is better utilisation of managerial talents and energy.
• It facilitates delegation of authority. Top management concentrates on strategic decisions and operational decisions are left to the lower levels. There is increase in span of control. This leads to motivation and development of subordinates.
• It is a technique of separating important information from unimportant one. It forces managers to review past history and study related business data for identifying deviations. There is better use of knowledge of trends, history and available business data.MBE keeps management alert to opportunities and threats by identifying critical problems. It can avoid uninformed and impulsive action.
• Management by exception provides better yardsticks for judging results. It is helpful in objective performance appraisal.

Question 42(a).
Define Money Market and Capital Market. Explain the difference between the Money Market and Capital Market.
Answer:

• Money Market Definition: According to Crowther, “the money market is the collective name given to the various firms and institutions that deal in the various grades of near money.”
• Capital Market Definition: According to Arun K. Datta, capital market may be defined as “a complex of institutions investment and practices with established links between the demand for and supply of different types of capital gains”.

Question 43.
Differences between the Money Market and Capital Market
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Describe the significance of Human Resource Management.
The role of human resource management is the process of acquiring, training, appraising, and compensating employees. The significance of human resource management is given below:

(i) To identify manpower needs: Determination of manpower needs in an organisation is very important as it is a form of investment.

(ii) To ensure the correct requirement of manpower: At any time the organisation should not suffer from shortage or surplus manpower which is made possible through human resource management.

(iii) To select right man for right job: Human resource management ensures the right talent to select the right employee for the right job.

(iv) To update the skill and knowledge: Human resource management enables employees to remain up-to-date through training and development programmes.

(v) To appraise the performance of employees: Periodical appraisal of performance of employees through human resource management activities boosts up good performers and motivates slow performers.

Question 43.
(a) Define training. Discuss various types of training.
Answer:
According to Edwin B. Flippo “Training is the act of increasing the Knowledge and skills of an employee for doing particular jobs”. Training may be mainly divided into

• On the job training
• Off the job training

On the Job Training: On the job training refers to the training which is given to the employee at the workplace. The following are the on the job training methods.

• Coaching Method: In this method of training, the superior teaches or guides the new employee about the knowledge and skills.
• Mentoring Method: Mentoring is the process of sharing knowledge and experience of an employee.
• Internship Training Method: A superior gives training to a subordinates or understudy like an assistant to a manager.

(b) Off the Job Training: It is the training method wherein the workers leam the job role away from the actual work place. The following are types of off the job training:

• Lecture Method: Under this method trainees are educated about concepts, theories, principles in any particular area.
• E-learning Method: E-leaming is the use of technological process to access of a traditional classroom or office.

[OR]

(b) What are the needs for consumer protection?
Answer:
Consumer is to be protected from the cheating business people. Though the consumer is said to be the king, his interests are neglected. Consumer protection is applicable to public sector, financial and co-operative enterprises. Recently even medical services have been brought under consumer movement. Satisfaction and wellbeing of the consumer should be the main objective of business. But in real practice consumer is not protected and safeguarded. Thus there is a need for consumer protection or movement.

Question 44(a).
Describe the economic and socio-cultural environment of business.
Answer:
Economic Environment: The multiple variables in the. macro environment system which has a bearing on a business include:

• The nature of economy is based on the stage of development. The countries across the globe can be categorised on the basis of growth and per capita income as developed nations, developing nations and under developed nations.
• The economic systems can be classified as Capitalistic, Socialistic and Mixed economy.
• The economic policies of a nation are: Monetary policy, Fiscal policy, Industrial policy, Foreign exchange policy and Export-import policy.

Socio-Cultural environment: Social environment refers to the sum total of factors of the society in which the business is located. It is dynamic and includes the behaviour of individuals, the role and importance of family, customs, religion and languages, the ethical values.
[OR]

b. Distinguish between sale and agreement to sell.

Question 45.
(a) Distinguish a cheque and a bill of exchange.
Answer:

[OR]
(b) What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
Characteristics of an Entrepreneur:
(i) Spirit of Enterprise: Entrepreneur should be bold enough to encounter risk arising from the venture undertaken.

(ii) Self-confidence: Entrepreneur should have self-confidence in order to achieve high goals ‘ in the business.

(iii) Flexibility: Entrepreneur should not doggedly stick to decisions in a rigid fashion.

(iv) Innovation: Entrepreneur should contribute something new or something unique to meet the changing requirements of customers namely new product, new method of production or distribution, adding new features to the existing product, uncovering a new territory for business, innovating new raw material, etc.

(v) Resource Mobilisation: Entrepreneur should have the capability to mobilise both tangible inputs like manpower, money materials, technology, market, method etc., which are scattered over a wide area and certain intangible inputs like motivation, morale and innovativeness.

Question 46.
(a) Discuss the nature of functional entrepreneurs.
Answer:
Nature of functional entrepreneurs:

• Innovative Entrepreneur: He is a person who introduces new project. They observe the environment regarding information to the new venture.
• Imitative Entrepreneur: He refers to the person who simply imitates existing knowledge or technology already in advance countries. Redesigning of products suited to the local conditions.
• Fabian Entrepreneur: These are said to be conservatives and sceptical about any changes in their organisation. They are of risk-averse.
• Drone Entrepreneur: Drone entrepreneurs are those who are totally opposed to changes in the environment. They used to operate in the niche market.

[OR]
(b) Brief different stages in Formation of a Company.
Section 3(1) of the Act states that a company may be formed for any lawful purpose by – (a) seven or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a public company;
(b) two or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a private company; or
(c) one person, where the company to be formed is to be One Person Company.

The process of formation of company consists of different stages:

1. Promotion: Promotion stage begins when the idea to form a company comes in the mind of a person.

2. Registration: The second stage in the formation of the company is incorporation or registration. In this stage, the promoter has to fix name of the company, prepare the necessary documents (Memorandum and Articles of Association), fix the registered
office, and name of the directors. After this, certificate of incorporation is issued.

3. Capital Subscription: A public limited company having its share capital has to pass through two stages. One of them is capital subscription.

The steps for this is:

• Formalities for raising capital.00 Issuing prospectus
• Appointing official banker
• Pass resolution to make allotment

4. Commencement of Business: As per section 11 of the Act, a company having share capital should file with the Registrar, declaration stating that

• Every subscriber has paid the value of shares.
• Paid-up capital is not less than Rs.5 lakhs for a public limited company and Rs.l lakh in case of a private limited company.
• It has filed the Registrar, regarding the verification of registered office.
  After fulfilling these details, the Registrar will issue certificate of commencement of business.

Question 47.
(a) Explain composition of the board of directors.
Answer:
Composition of the Board off Directors:
(i) General Optimum Combination: Board of Directors shall have an optimum combination of executive and non-executive directors with at least one woman director.

(ii) When the non-executive Director is the Chairperson: In this case, at least one-third of the board of directors shall comprise of independent directors.

(iii) When the non-executive chairperson is a promoter or is related to any promoter or person occupying management positions at the level of board of director or at one level below the Board of Directors: In this case, at least one half of the board of directors of the company shall consist of Independent Directors.

[OR]

(b) Briefly state different types of company meetings.
A Company can convene meetings to discuss the performance of the company and also to take decisions. Under the companies Act 2013, company meetings may be classified as follows:

(i) Meetings of Shareholders: The meeting held for the shareholders of the company is shareholders meeting. This may be divided as follows:

• Statutory Meeting: Every public company should hold a meeting of the shareholders within 6 months but not earlier than one month from the commencement of the business.
• Annual General Meeting: Every year a meeting is held to transact the ordinary business of the company. It is called annual general meeting.
• Extra-Ordinary General Meeting: If any meeting conducted in between two annual general meetings to deal with some urgent or special or extraordinary nature of business is called as extra-ordinary general meeting.

(ii) Meeting of the Board of Directors: To decide policy matters of the company, the board of directors meet frequently, which is known as meeting of the board of directors.

• Board Meetings: Meetings of the directors are called board meetings. It may be convened to discuss the business and take formal decisions.
• Committee Meetings: Every listed company and every other public company having a capital of? 10 crore is required to have audit committee. The meeting held by this committee is known as committee meetings.

(iii) Special Meeting:

• Class Meeting: Meetings held by a particular class of share or debenture holders is known as Special or Class meeting, e.g. preference shareholders or debenture holders meeting.
• Meetings of the Creditors: These are not meetings of a company. Meetings held with the creditors to discuss any crisis about the financial matters.

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TN State Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 × 1 = 8]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and write the option code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Size of pollen grain in Myosotis is _______ micrometer.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 200
(d) 2000
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 2.
How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Nine
(d) Two
Answer:
(d) Two

Question 3.
EcoRI cleaves DNA at ________.
(a) AGGGTT
(b) GTATAC
(c) GAATTC
(d) TATAGC
Answer:
(c) GAATTC

Question 4.
Choose the correct match from the following.


Answer:
1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B

Question 5.
Photo synthetically active radiation wave length between the range of ________.
(a) 200-700nm
(b) 300-700nm
(c) 400-700 nm
(d) 500-700nm
Answer:
(c) 400-700 nm

Question 6.
For the given statements with respect to Eichhomia select the suitable answer.
Statement A: It drains of oxygen from water and is seen growing in standing water.
Statement B: It is an indogeneous species of our country.
(a) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.
(b) Both the statement A and B are correct.
(c) Statement A is wrong and statement B is correct.
(d) Both the statement A and Bare wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both the statement A and Bare wrong.

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(a) Wheat – Himgiri
(b) Milch breed – Sahiwal
(c) Rice – Ratna
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica
Answer:
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica

Question 8.
Find out the correctly matched pair:
(a) Rubber – Shora robusta
(b) Dye – Lawsonia inermis
(c) Timber – Cypress papyrus
(d) Pulp – Hevea brasiliensis
Answer:
(b) Dye – Lawsonia inermis

Part – II

Answer any four from the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
The endosperm of Angiosperm is different from Gymnosperm. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, the endosperm of Angiosperm is different from Gymnosperm because in Angiosperm, the endosperm develops from primary endosperm nucleus which is formed after double fertilization whereas in Gymnosperms the endosperm is developed before the fertilization process.

Question 10.
Who are rediscovered Mendel’s experimental works?
Answer:
Hugo de Vries of Holland, Carl Corren’s of Germany, Erich von Tschermak of Austria.

Question 11.
Multiple Alleles-Define.
Answer:
Two or more alternate forms of single gene occupying the same locus in a chromosome are called as Multiple Alleles.

Question 12.
Differentiate Somaclonal variation, Gametoclonal variation.
Answer:

Question 13.
What is called Phytoremediation?
Answer:
The process in which the plants can be used to remove toxic substances like cadmium from contaminated soils is known as Phytoremediation.

Soya bean and tomato tolerate cadmium poisoning by isolating cadmium and storing in few group of cells and prevent from affecting other cells.

Question 14.
What is ozone hole?
Answer:
The decline in the thickness of the ozone layer over restricted area is called ozone hole.

Part – III

Answer three from the following questions. Question No. 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Differentiate continuous variation with discontinuous variations.
Answer:
1. Discontinuous Variation: Within a population there are some characteristics which show a limited form of variation. Example: Style length in Primula, plant height of garden pea. In discontinuous variation, the characteristics are controlled by one or two major genes which may have two or more allelic forms. These variations are genetically determined by inheritance factors.

Individuals produced by this variation show differences without any intermediate form between them and there is no overlapping between the two phenotypes. The phenotypic expression is unaffected by environmental conditions. This is also called as qualitative inheritance.

2. Continuous Variation: This variation may be due to the combining effects of environmental and genetic factors. In a population most of the characteristics exhibit a complete gradation, from one extreme to the other without any break.

Inheritance of phenotype is determined by the combined effects of many genes, (polygenes) and environmental factors. This is also known as quantitative inheritance. Example: Human height and skin color.

Question 16.
What is gene mapping? Mention its uses.
Answer:
Genetic Map: The diagrammatic representation of the portion of genes and related distance between the adjacent genes in called Genetic mapping.
Use: Gene map provides clues about the where the genes lies on that chromosome.

Question 17.
Lichen is considered as a good example of an obligate mutualism. Explain.
Answer:
Lichen is considered as a good example of obligate mutualism, because in Lichen, the algae (cyano bacteria) and fungi lives in a mutual relationship i.e., the algae being a autotroph synthesizes its food and provides the fungus and in turn the fungus helps the algae in absorption of water and nutrients and also protects form bacterial or other fungal infections.

Question 18.
Draw a pyramid from following details and explain. The quantities of organisms are given: Hawks 25 and plants-500 rabbit and mouse-125+125 snake and lizard- 50+25 respectively.
Answer:

The pyramid represents pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystem.
The pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystem is always upright because there is a gradual decrease in the number of organisms in each trophic level form producers to consumers and then to secondary consumers and finally to tertiary consumers.

Question 19.
What do you know about the objectives of plant breeding?
Answer:

• To increase yield, vigour and fertility of the crop.
• To increase tolerance to environmental condition, salinity, temperature and drought.
• To prevent the premature falling of buds and fruits, etc.
• To improve synchronous maturity.
• To develop resistance to pathogens and pests.
• To develop photosensitive and thermos-sensitive varieties.

Part – IV

Answer all questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) With a suitable diagram explain the structure of an ovule.
Answer:

Ovule is also called megasporangium and is protected by one or two covering called integuments.

• A mature ovule consists of a stalk and a body.
• The stalk or the funiculus is present at the base and it attaches the ovule to the placenta.
• The point of attachment of fiinicle to the body of the ovule is known as hilum. It is a junction between ovule and fiinicle.
• In an inverted ovule, the funicle is adnate to the body of the ovule forming a ridge called raphe.
• The body of the ovule has a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called nucellus which has large reserve food materials.
• The nucellus is covered by integuments completely except at the top and forms a pore called micropyle.
• The ovule with one or two integuments are called unitegmic or bitegmic ovules respectively.
• The basal of the ovule where the nucellus, the integument and the funicle meet is called chalaza.
• Inside the nucellus, toward micropylar end there is a large, oval sack like structure called embryo sac or female gametophyte.
• The embryo sac develops from the functional megaspore.
• In some species, the inner integument perform the nutritive function for the embryo sac and is called as endothelium or integumentary tapetum (Example : Asteraceae).
• Group of cells found at the base of the ovule between chalaza and embryo sac is called Hypostase.
• The thick walled cells found above micropylar end and embryo sac is called epistase.
• There are two types of ovules based on the position of sporogenous.
  (a) Tenuinucellate ovule: Ovules with hypodermal sporogerous cell with single layer of nucellus around it is called tenuinucellate. They have very small nucellus
  (b) Crassinucellate ovule: Ovule with subhypodermal sporogenous cell is called crassinucellate ovule. They have large nucellus.
• The thick walled cells found above micropylar end and embryo sac is called epistase.

[OR]

(b) What is single cell protein. Mention its application.
Answer:
Single Cell Protein (SCP) are dried cells of microorganisms that are used as protein supplement in foods or animal feeds.

Organism used in SCP production:
Bacteria – Methylophilus methylotrophus, Cellulomonas, Alcaligenes
Fungi – Agaricus campestris , Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Candida utilis
Algae – Spirulina, Chlorella and Chlamydomonas

Substrates for SCP production: Straw, molasses, animal manure, sewage, waste water from potato processing plants with starch.

Uses:

• SCP offers an unconventional but possible solution to protein deficiency faced buy human beings.
• SCP forms an important food source because of their protein content, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals.
• It is used by Astronauts and Antarctica expedition scientists.
• Since SCP can be grown even in sewage water, it also reduces environmental pollution.
• 250 gms of Methylophilus methylotrophus as its high rate of biomass production and growth can yield 25 tonnes of proteins.

Disadvantage of SCP: Although SCP has high nutritive value due to high content of protein, vitamin, lipid and amino acids, there are doubts on whether it could replace conventional protein source due to high nucleic acid content and slower in digestibility.

Question 21.
(a) Suggest a solution to water crises and explain its advantages.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is the accumulation and storage of rain water for reuse in-site rather than allowing it to run off. Rainwater can be collected from rivers, roof tops and the water collected is directed to a deep pit. The water percolates and gets stored in the pit. RWH is a sustainable water management practice implemented not only in urban area but also in agricultural fields, which is an important economical cost effective method for the future.

Environmental benefits of Rain Water Harvesting:

• Promotes adequacy of underground water and water conservation.
• Mitigates the effect of drought.
• Reduces soil erosion as surface run-off is reduced.
• Reduces flood hazards.
• Improves groundwater quality and water table / decreases salinity.
• No land is wasted for storage purpose and no population displacement is involved.
• Storing water underground is an eco-friendly measure and a part of sustainable water storage strategy for local communities.

[OR]

(b) What are millets? What are its types? Give example for each type.
Answer:
Millets: (Siru Thaniyangal)

• Millets is the term applied to a variety of very small seeds originally cultivated by ancient Africans and Asians.
• They are gulten free and have less glycemic index.

Types of Millets:

1. Major millets
2. Minor millets.

Example for Major millets:

• Finger millets – Ragi (Eleusine coracana)
• Sorghum – Sorghum vulgare

Example for Minor millets:

• Foxtail millet – (Setaria italica)
• Kodo millet – Paspalum scrobiculatum

Bio-Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 × 1 = 8]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and write the option code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Which among the following animals exhibit ovoviviparity?
(a) frog
(b) shark
(c) sheep
(d) hen
Answer:
(b) shark

Question 2.
21^st trisomy is observed in ________.
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Patau’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Answer:
(a) Down’s syndrome

Question 3.
Which among the codon codes for methionine?
(a) AUG
(b) UAA
(c) UUU
(d) AUC
Answer:
(a) AUG

Question 4.
The disease caused by Wuchereria bancrofti is ________.
(a) Malaria
(b) Filariasis
(c) Kala-azar
(d) Sleeping sickness
Answer:
(b) Filariasis

Question 5.
Which of the following pair is correctly matched? [Wrong question]
(a) Trichoderma polysporum – clot buster
(b) Aspergillus niger – butric acid
(c) Clostridium butyricum – cyclosporine A
(d) Streptococcus – citric acid

Question 6.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of _______.
(a) SCID
(b) cancer
(c) AIDS
(d) cystic fibrosis
Answer:
(a) SCID

Question 7.
Given below are some examples for population interactions. Which among the following shows mutualism?
(a) Lion and deer
(b) Man and tape worm
(c) Hermit crab and sea-anemone
(d) Sucker fish and shark
Answer:
(c) Hermit crab and sea-anemone

Question 8.
The most abundant green house gas is ______.
(a) Carbon-dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Sulphur-dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide
Answer:
(a) Carbon-dioxide

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Describe the structure of the head of a human sperm.
Answer:
The head comprises of two parts namely acrosome and nucleus. Acrosome is a small cap like pointed structure present at the tip of the nucleus and made of Golgi body of the spermatid. It contains hyaluronidase (sperm cysin) a proteolytic enzyme which helps to penetrate the ovum during fertilisation. The nucleus is flat and oval.

Question 10.
Mention any four salient features of Human Genome Project.
Answer:
The main goals of Human Genome Project are as follows:

• Identify all the genes (approximately 30000) in human DNA.
• Determine the sequence of the three billion chemical base pairs that makeup the human DNA.
• To store this information in databases.
• Improve tools for data analysis.

Question 11.
Name an opioid drug and its plant source. How does the drug affect Human body?
Answer:
Morphine is an opioid drug obtained from flowers of the poppy plants.
It is used as a strong pain killer during surgery.

Question 12.
How does the transgenic cow Rosie’s milk differ from normal cow’s Milk?
Answer:
Rosie was the first transgenic cow. It produced human protein enriched milk, which contained the human alpha lactalbumin (2.4 gm/litre). This milk was a nutritionally balanced food for infants than the normal milk of cows.

Question 13.
Differentiate natality from mortality.
Answer:

Question 14.
What is ozone depletion? How is it caused?
Answer:
Thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer is known as ozone depletion. Such depletion causes the ‘ozone hole’, resulting in poor screening of the harmful UV rays and increase in incidences of skin cancer. Ozone depression is due to certain gases like CFC’s.

Part – III

Write any three of the following in which question No.19 is compulsory. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Explain multiple fission in Plasmodium with a diagram.
Answer:
In Multiple fission of plasmodium, the oocyte or schizont divides into many similar daughter cells simultaneously. Nucleus undergoes repeated mitosis producing many nuclei without the division of cytoplasm. Later the cytoplasm divides and encircles each nucleus forming many daughter cells oocyte undergoes sporogony forming sporozoites. Schizont undergoes schizogony forming merozoites.

Question 16.
Write the causes and the differences between Haemophilia and Thalassemia.
Answer:
Causes for Haemophilia: Haemophilia is also called bleeder’s disease is caused by a recessive X-linked gene. A person with a recessive gene for haemophilia lacks a normal clotting substance in blood, hence minor injuries cause continuous bleeding, leading to death.

Causes for Thalassemia: Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by.gene mutation resulting in excessive destruction of RBC’s due to the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecules.

Question 17.
Explain the secondary treatment of waste water.
Answer:
Secondary treatment or biological treatment: The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into floe (masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures). While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand or Biological oxygen demand).

BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed, if all the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidized by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced. The greater the BOD of the waste water more is its polluting potential. Once the BOD of sewage water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial “floes” are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge. A small part of activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum.

The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, the bacteria which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2.
These gases form biogas and can be used as a source of energy.

Question 18.
Explain the steps involved in the preparation of human insulin artificially.
Answer:
Production of insulin by recombinant DNA technology started in the late 1970s. This technique involved the insertion of human insulin gene on the plasmids of E.coli. The polypeptide chains are synthesized as a precursor called pre-pro insulin, which contains A and B segments linked by a third chain (C) and preceded by a leader sequence. The leader sequence is removed after translation and the C chain is excised, leaving the A and B polypeptide chains.

Question 19.
Differentiate in-situ and ex-situ conservation by sighting examples for each.
Answer:
In-situ conservation:
Conservation of plants and animals in theimatural habitat.
Eg., Sacred Groves
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world.

Ex-situ conservation:
Conservation of selected or rare plants or animals in place outside their natural habitat.
E.g., Gene banks
Gene banks are a type of biorepository which preserve genetic materials. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be stored for long periods in seed banks, gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using ervopreservation techniques.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Explain any five techniques of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).
Answer:
Intra-uterine insemination (IUI): This is a procedure to treat infertile men with low sperm count. The semen is collected either from the husband or from a healthy donor and is introduced into the uterus through the vagina by a catheter after stimulating the ovaries to produce more ova. The sperms swim towards the fallopian tubes to fertilize the egg, resulting in normal pregnancy.

Zygote intra-failopian transfer (ZIFT): As in IVF, the zygote upto 8 blastomere stage is transferred to the fallopian tube by laparoscopy. The zygote continues its natural divisions and migrates towards the uterus where it gets implanted.

Intra uterine transfer (IUT): Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is inserted into uterus to complete its further development.

Gamete intra-failopian transfer (GIFT): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube. In this the eggs are collected from the ovaries and placed with the sperms in one of the fallopian tubes. The zygote travels toward the uterus and gets implanted in the inner lining of the uterus.

Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI): In this method only one sperm is injected into the focal point of the egg to fertilize. The sperm is carefully injected into the cytoplasm of the egg. Fertilization occurs in 75 – 85% of eggs injected with the sperms. The zygote is allowed to divide to form an 8 celled blastomere and then transferred to the uterus to develop a protective pregnancy.

[OR]

(b) (i) Differentiate divergent and convergent evolution with examples.
(ii) What are the various objections to Darwinism?
Answer:
(i) Divergent Evolution:
Divergent evolution is a result of homology. E.g: The wings of bird and the forelimbs of human both are homologous structures modified according to functions. In birds, it is used for flight and in humans used for writing and other purposes.

Convergent Evolution:
Convergent evolution is a result of analogy. E.g: Root modification in sweet potato, and stem modification in potato are analogous structures both performing same function i.e., storage.

(ii) Some objections raised against Darwinism were,

• Darwin failed to explain the mechanism of variation.
• Darwinism explains the survival of the fittest but not the arrival of the fittest.
• He focused on small fluctuating variations that are mostly non-heritable.
• He did not distinguish between somatic and germinal variations.
• He could not explain the occurrence of vestigial organs, over specialization of some organs like large tusks in extinct mammoths and oversized antlers in the extinct Irish deer, etc.

Question 21.
(a) Explain the life cycle of Plasmodium.
Answer:
Plasmodium vivax is a digenic parasite, involving two hosts, man as the secondary host and female Anopheles mosquito as the primary host. The life cycle of Plasmodium involves three phases namely schizogony, gamogony and sporogony.

The parasite first enters the human blood stream through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. As it feeds, the mosquito injects the saliva containing the sporozoites. The sporozoite within the blood stream immediately enters the hepatic cells of the liver. Further in the liver they undergo multiple asexual fission (schizogony) and produce merozoites. After being released from liver cells, the merozoites penetrate the RBC’s.

Inside the RBC, the merozoite begins to develop as unicellular trophozoites. The trophozoite grows in size and a central vacuole develops pushing them to one side of cytoplasm and becomes the signet ring stage. The trophozoite nucleus then divides asexually to produce the schizont. The large schizont shows yellowish – brown pigmented granules called Schuffners granules. The schizont divides and produces mononucleated merozoites.

Eventually the erythrocyte lyses, releasing the merozoites and haemozoin toxin into the blood stream to infect other erythrocytes. Lysis of red blood cells results in cycles of fever and other symptoms. This erythrocytic stage is cyclic and repeats itself approximately every 48 to 72 hours or longer depending on the species of Plasmodium involved. The sudden release of merozoites triggers an attack on the RBCs.

Occasionally, merozoites differentiate into macro gametocytes and micro gametocytes. When these are ingested by a mosquito, they develop into male and female gametes, respectively. In the mosquito’s gut, the infected erythrocytes lyse and male and female gametes fertilize to form a diploid zygote called ookinete. The ookinete migrates to the mosquito’s gut wall and develop into an oocyte.

The oocyte undergoes meiosis by a process called sporogony to form sporozoites. These sporozoites migrate to the salivary glands of the mosquito. The cycle is now completed and when the mosquito bites another human host, the sporozoites are injected and the cycle begins a new.

The pathological changes caused by malaria, affects not only the erythrocytes but also the spleen and other visceral organs. Incubation period of malaria is about 12 days. The early symptoms of malaria are headache, nausea and muscular pain. The classic symptoms first develop with the synchronized release of merozoites, haemozoin toxin and erythrocyte debris into the blood stream resulting in malarial paroxysms – shivering chills, high fever followed by sweating. Fever and chills are caused partly by malarial toxins that induce macrophages to release tumour-necrosis factor (TNF-α) and interleukin.

[OR]

(b) Mention the reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the tropics.
Answer:
The reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the Tropics are,

• Warm tropical regions between the tropic of Cancer and Capricorn on either side of equator possess congenial habitats for living organisms.
• Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable not only for speciation but also for supporting both variety and number of organisms.
• The temperatures vary between 25°C to 35°C, a range in which most metabolic activities of living organisms occur with ease and efficiency.
• The average rainfall is often more than 200 mm per year.
• Climate, seasons, temperature, humidity, photo periods are more or less stable and encourage both variety and numbers.
• Rich resource and nutrient availability.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 16 Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar Chart Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 16 Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar Chart

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar ChartText Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which is a python package used for 2D graphics?
(a) matplotlib.pyplot
(b) matplotlib.pip
(c) matplotlib.numpy
(d) matplotlib.plt
Answer:
(a) matplotlib.pyplot

Question 2.
Identify the package manager for Python packages, or modules.
(a) Matplotlib
(b) PIP
(c) plt.show( )
(d) python package
Answer:
(b) PIP

Question 3.
Read the following code: Identify the purpose of this code and choose the right option from the following.
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip -version
(a) Check if PIP is Installed
(b) Install PIP
(c) Download a Package
(d) Check PIP version
Answer:
(d) Check PIP version

Question 4.
Read the following code: Identify the purpose of this code and choose the right option from the following.
C:\Users\Your Name\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip list
(a) List installed packages
(b) list command
(c) Install PIP
(d) packages installed
Answer:
(a) List installed packages

Question 5.
To install matplotlib, the following function will be typed in your command prompt. Python -m pip install -U pip What does “-U”represents?
(a) downloading pip to the latest version
(b) upgrading pip to the latest version
(c) removing pip
(d) upgrading matplotlib to the latest version
Answer:
(b) upgrading pip to the latest version

Question 6.
Observe the output figure. Identify the coding for obtaining this output.

(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot( [1,2,3], [4,5,1 ])
plt.show( )

(b) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit plt.plot([l,2],[4,5])
plt.show( )

(c) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot([2,3],[5,l])
plt.show( )

(d) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot([l,3],[4,l])
plt.show( )
Answer:
(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot( [1,2,3], [4,5,1 ])
plt.show( )

Question 7.
Read the code:
(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
(b) plt.plot(3,2)
(c) plt.show( )
Identify the output for the above coding
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer:
(c)

Question 8.
Which key is used to run the module?
(a) F6
(b) F4
(c) F3
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 9.
Identify the right type of chart using the following hints.
Hint 1: This chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time.
Hint 2: The line in this type of chart is often drawn chronologically.
(a) Line chart
(b) Bar chart
(c) Pie chart
(d) Scatter plot
Answer:
(a) Line chart

Question 10.
Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following for pie chart.
Statement A: To make a pie chart with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.pie( ) function.
Statement B: The autopct parameter allows us to display the percentage value using the Python string formatting.
(a) Statement A is correct
(b) Statement B is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define: Data Visualization?
Answer:
Data Visualization is the graphical representation of information and data. The objective of Data Visualization is to communicate information visually to users. For this, data visualization uses statistical graphics. Numerical data may be encoded using dots, lines, or bars, to visually communicate a quantitative message.

Question 2.
List the general types of data visualization?
Answer:

1. Charts
2. Tables
3. Graphs
4. Maps
5. Infographics
6. Dashboards

Question 3.
List the types of Visualizations in Matplotlib?
Answer:
There are many types of Visualizations under Matplotlib. Some of them are:

1. Line plot
2. Scatter plot
3. Histogram
4. Box plot
5. Bar chart and
6. Pie chart

Question 4.
How will you install Matplotlib?
Answer:
We can install matplotlib using pip. Pip is a management software for installing python packages.
After installing Matplotlib, we will begin coding by importing Matplotlib using the command: import matplotlib.pyplot as plt

Question 5.
Write the difference between the following functions: plt.plot([1,2,3,4]), plt.plot([1,2,3,4]), [1.4.9.16] ).
Draw line plt.plot(l,2,3,4] generate x values and given values are y values.
[1.4.9.16]) to plot x verses y

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Draw the output for the following data visualization plot?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.bar([l ,3,5,7,9],[5,2,7,8,2],
label=”Example one”)
plt.bar([2,4,6,8,10],[8,6,2,5,6], label=”Example two”, color=’g’)
pit. legend))
plt.xlabel(‘bar number’)
plt.ylabel(‘bar height’)
pit.title(‘Epic Graph\nAnother Line! Whoa’)
pit. show( )

Question 2.
Write any three uses of data visualization?
Answer:

1. Data Visualization help users to analyze and interpret the data easily.
2. It makes complex data understandable and usable.
3. Various Charts in Data Visualization helps to show relationship in the data for one or more variables.

Question 3.
Write the coding for the following:
a. To check if PIP is Installed in your PC.
b. To Check the version of PIP installed in your PC.
c. To list the packages in matplotlib.
Answer:
In command prompt type pip — version. If it is installed already, you will get version. Python -m pip install – U pip
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip – version
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip list

Question 4.
Write the plot for the following pie chart output?
Answer:

‘import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
slices = [7,2,2,13]
activities = [‘sleeping’, ‘eating’, ‘working’, ‘playing’]
plt.pie(slices, labels = activities, autopct = ‘y.1.1 f % % ‘)
plt.title(‘Interesting Graph check it out’)
plt.show( )

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the types of pyplots using Matplotlib?
Answer:
Line Chart:
A Line Chart or Line Graph is a type of chart which displays information as a series of data points called ‘markers’ connected by straight line segments. A Line Chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time – a time series – thus the line is often drawn chronologically.
Example: Line plot
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
years= [2014,2015,2016,2017,2018]
totaljopulations = [8939007, 8954518,8960387,8956741, 8943721]
plt.plot (years, total_populations)
plt.title (“Year vs Population in India”)
plt.xlabel (“Year”)
plt.ylabel (“Total Population”)
plt.legend( )
pit. show( )
In this program,
Plt.title( ) → specifies title to the graph
Plt.xlabel( ) → specifies label for X-axis
Plt.ylabel( ) → specifies label for Y-axis
Output 4

Bar Chart
A BarPlot (or BarChart) is one of the most common type of plot. It shows the relationship between a numerical variable and a categorical variable.
Bar chart represents categorical data with rectangular bars. Each bar has a height corresponds to the value it represents. The bars can be plotted vertically or horizontally. It’s useful when we want to compare a given numeric value on different categories. To make a bar chart with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.bar( ) function.
The above code represents the following:
Labels → Specifies labels for the bars.
Usage → Assign values to the labels specified.
Xticks → Display the tick marks along the x-axis at the values represented. Then specify the label for each tick mark.
Range → Create sequence of numbers.

Pie Chart:
Pie Chart is probably one of the most common type of chart. It is a circular graphic which is divided into slices to illustrate numerical proportion. The point of a pie chart is to show the relationship of parts out of a whole.
To make a Pie Chart with Matplotlib, we can use theplt.pie( ) function. The autopct parameter allows us to display the percentage value using the Python string formatting.

Question 2.
Explain the various buttons in a matplotlib window?
Answer:

Home Button → The Home Button will help once you have begun navigating your chart. If you ever want to return back to the original view, you can click on this.
Forward/Back buttons → These buttons can be used like the Forward and Back buttons in your browser. You can click these to move back to the previous point you were at, or forward again.
Pan Axis → This cross-looking button allows you to click it, and then click and drag your graph around.
Zoom → The Zoom button lets you click on it, then click and drag a square that you would like to zoom into specifically. Zooming in will require a left click and drag. You can alternatively zoom out with a right click and drag.
Configure Subplots → This button allows you to configure various spacing options with your figure and plot.
Save Figure → This button will allow you to save your figure in various forms.

Question 3.
Explain the purpose of the following functions:
Answer:
a. plt.xlabel
b. plt.ylabel
c. plt.title
d. plt.legend( )
e. plt.show( )
After installing Matplotlib, we will begin coding by importing Matplotlib using the command: import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
Now you have imported Matplotlib in your workspace. You need to display the plots. Using Matplotlib from within a Python script, you have to add plt.show( ) method inside the file to display your plot.
With plt.xlabel and plt.ylabel, you can assign labels to those respective axis. Next, you can assign the plot’s title with plt.title, and then you can invoke the default legend with plt
legend( ).
plt.plot (years, total_populations)
plt.title → (“Year vs Population in India”)
plt.xlabel → (“Year”)
plt.ylabel (“Total Population”)
plt.legend( )
plt.show( )
Plt.title( ) → specifies title to the graph
Plt.xlabel( ) → specifies label for X-axis
Plt.ylabel( ) → specifies label for Y-axis

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Create a plot. Set the title, the x and y labels for both axes?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
x = [1, 2, 3]
y = [5, 7, 4]
plt.plot(x,y)
plt.xlabel(‘x-axis’)
plt.ylabel(‘y-axis’)
plt.title(‘LINE GRAPH’)
plt.show( )

Question 2.
Plot a pie chart for your marks in the recent examination?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
sizes= [89, 80, 90, 100, 75]
labels= [“Tamil”, “English”, “Maths”, “Science”, “Social”]
plt.pie (sizes, labels Mabels, autopct = “%.2f”)
plt.axes( ).set_aspect (“equal”) plt.sbow( )
Output:

Question 3.
Plot a line chart on the academic performance of Class 12 students in Computer Science for the past 10 years?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
years = [2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018]
cs = [65, 70, 75, 76, 78, 80, 82, 85, 87, 92]
plt.plot(years,cs)
plt.title(“COMPUTER SCIENCE ACADEMIC PERFORMANCE”)
plt.xlabel(“cs”)
plt.ylabel(“years”)
plt.show( )

Question 4.
Plot a bar chart for the number of computer science periods in a week?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
labels = [“MON”, “TUE”, “WED”, “THUR”, “FRI”, “SAT”, ]
usage = [3, 2, 1,3,2, 2]
y_positions = range(len(labels))
plt.bar(y_positions,usage)
plt.xticks(y_positions, labels)
plt.ylabel(“PERIODS”)
plt.ylabel(“years”)
plt.title(“NO. OF CS PERIODS”)
plt.show( )

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Additional Questions and Answers

PART – I
1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………….. is the graphical representation of information and data.
Answer:
Data Visualization

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out.
Tables, databases, Maps, Infographics, Dashboards
Answer:
Databases

Question 3.
The representation of information in a graphic format is called …………………………
(a) chart
(b) graphics
(c) Infographics
(d) graphs
Answer:
Infographics

Question 4.
Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following.
Statement A: Dashboards are used to detect patterns and relationships easily.
Statement B: Dashboard is a type of game.
(a) A is correct
(b) B is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct

Question 5.
Various types of visualizations are available in
(a) stdlib
(b) graphics
(c) library
(d) matplotlib
Answer:
(d) matplotlib

Question 6.
Find the Incorrect match from the following.
(a) Scatter plot – collection of points
(b) line charts – markers
(c) Box plot – Boxes
Answer:
(c) Box plot – Boxes

Question 7.
The terms minimum, first quartile, median, third quartile maximum are related to ……………………… type of plot.
(a) Box
(b) scatter
(c) pie
(d) Bar
Answer:
(a) Box

Question 8.
The position of a point in scatter plot is ……………………. value
(a) ID
(b) 2D
(c) 3D
(d) U shaped
Answer:
(b) 2D

Question 9.
Which method is used to display the plot?
(a) disp( )
(b) display( )
(c) print( )
(d) show( )
Answer:
(d) show( )

Question 10.
Find the wrong statement
If single list is given to the plot( ) command, matplotlib assumes
(a) it is as a sequence of x values
(b) sequence of y values
Answer:
(a) it is as a sequence of x values

Question 11.
……………………….. is a versatile command, which takes an arbitrary number of arguments
Answer:
plot( )

Question 12.
The name to the x axis in the plot is given by ………………………….
(a) label
(b) x
(c) x label
(d) x axis
Answer:
(c) x label

Question 13.
Which one of the following is the cross-looking button that allows you to click it, and drag the . graph around?
(a) x axis
(b) y axis
(c) pan axis
(d) plot axis
Answer:
(c) pan axis

Question 14.
……………………. plot shows the relationship between a numerical variable and a categorical variable.
(a) line
(b) Bar
(c) Scatter
(d) Box
Answer:
(b) Bar

Question 15.
…………………….. assign values to the labels specified in the bar chart.
(a) usage
(b) label
(c) values
(d) =
Answer:
(a) usage

Question 16.
……………………… displays the tick marks along the x axis at the values represented in bar chart.
Answer:
x ticks

Question 17.
A ……………………….. represents the frequency distribution of continuous variables.
Answer:
histogram

Question 18.
Find the Incorrect statement
(a) Histogram is drawn in such a way that there is gap between the bars.
(b) Histogram represents numerical data
(c) Bar graph shows categorical data
Answer:
(a) Histogram is drawn in such a way that there is gap between the bars.

Question 19.
Which function shows the percentage value in pie chart?
(a) percent
(b) percentage
(c) slice
(d) auto pet
Answer:
(d) auto pet

Question 20.
Match the following
1. pie chart – (i) Series of data point
2. Histogram – (ii) Parts out of a whole
3. line chart – (iii) Quartile
4. Box plot – (iv) Freqency distribution
(a) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(b) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(c) 1 -ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
Answer:
(c) 1 -ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Infographics?
Answer:
Infographics → An infographic (information graphic) is the representation of information in a graphic format.

Question 2.
Define Scatter plot?
Answer:
Scatter plot: A scatter plot is a type of plot that shows the data as a collection of points. The position of a point depends on its two-dimensional value, where each value is a position on either the horizontal or vertical dimension.

Question 3.
What is Box Plot?
Answer:
Box plot: The box plot is a standardized way of displaying the distribution of data based on the five number summary: minimum, first quartile, median, third quartile, and maximum.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define Dashboard?
Answer:
Dashboard → A dashboard is a collection of resources assembled to create a single unified visual display. Data visualizations and dashboards translate complex ideas and concepts into a simple visual format. Patterns and relationships that are undetectable in text are detectable at a glance using dashboard.

Question 2.
Write a program to create pie chart?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
sizes= [89, 80, 90, 100, 75]
labels= [“Tamil”, “English”, “Maths”, “Science”, “Social”]
plt.pie (sizes, labels Mabels, autopet = “%.2f’)
plt.axes( ).set_aspect (“equal”)
plt.show( )
Output:

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a program for Bar chart?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
#Our data
labels= [“TAMIL”, “ENGLISH”, “MATHS”, “PHYSICS”, “CHEMISTRY”, “CS”]
usage= [79.8, 67.3, 77.8, 68.4, 70.2, 88.5]
# Generating they positions. Later, we’ll use them to replace them with labels.
y_positions =range (len(labels))
#Creating our bar plot plt.bar (y_positions, usage)
plt.xticks (y_positions, labels)
plt.ylabel (“RANGE”)
pit.title (“MARKS”)

Question 2.
Explain the key differences between Histogram and Bar Graph?
Answer:
Key Differences Between Histogram and Bar Graph:
The differences between Histogram and bar graph are as follows:
1. Histogram refers to a graphical representation; that displays data by way of bars to show the frequency of numerical data. A bar graph is a pictorial representation of data that uses bars to compare different categories of data.

2. A histogram represents the frequency distribution of continuous variables. Conversely, a bar graph is a diagrammatic comparison of discrete variables.

3. Histogram presents numerical data whereas bar graph shows categorical data.

4. The histogram is drawn in such a way that there is no gap between the bars. On the other hand, there is proper spacing between bars in a bar graph that indicates discontinuity, (v) Items of the histogram are numbers, which are categorised together, to represent ranges of data. As opposed to the bar graph, items are considered as individual entities.

5. In the case of a bar graph, it is quite common to rearrange the blocks, from highest to lowest. But with histogram, this cannot be done, as they are shown in the sequence of classes.

6. The width of rectangular blocks in a histogram may or may not be same while the width of the bars in a bar graph is always same.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Dividing the work into small tasks is known as …………..
(a) discipline
(b) unity
(c) division of work
(d) equity
Answer:
(c) division of work

Question 2.
Delegation of Authority is easily done with the help of ………..
(a) MBM
(b) MBE
(c) MBO
(d) MBA
Answer:
(c) MBO

Question 3.
Participants is the capital market includes ……………
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporate
(c) Financial institutions
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Stock exchanges deal in ……………
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial securities
(d) Country’s currency
Answer:
(c) Financial securities

Question 5.
Planning is a …………….. function.
(a) selective
(b) pervasive
(c) both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) pervasive

Question 6
…………… refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.
(a) selection
(b) training
(c) recruitment
(d) Induction
Answer:
(c) recruitment

Question 7.
The spot market is classified on the basis of …………….
(a) commodity
(b) transaction
(c) regulation
(d) time
Answer:
(b) transaction

Question 8.
Which one represents a cluster of manufacturers, content providers and online retailers organized around an activity?
(a) Virtual mall
(b) Association
(c) Metomediary
(d) Portal
Answer:

Question 9.
………….. is the king of modem marketing.
(a) consumer
(b) wholesales
(c) producer
(d) retailer
Answer:
(a) consumer

Question 10.
GST stands for ……………..
(a) Goods, Sales and Tax
(b) Goods and Services Tax
(c) Global Services and Tax
(d) Government Services and Tax
Answer:
(b) Goods and Services Tax

Question 11.
In case of the sale, the has the right to sell.
(a) buyer
(b) seller
(c) hirer
(d) consignee
Answer:
(b) seller

Question 12.
What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
(a) spirit of enterprise
(b) flexibility
(c) self confidence
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 13.
………… is the government of India’s endeavour to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.
(a) AIM
(b) STEP
(c) SEED
(d) AIC
Answer:
(a) AIM

Question 14.
A private company shall have a minimum of ………………
(a) seven directors
(b) five directors
(c) three directors
(d) two directors
Answer:
(d) two directors

Question 15.
Which of the following is verification function?
(a) planning
(b) Organisation
(c) staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

Question 16.
Primary market is also called as ………………
(a) secondary market
(b) Money Market
(c) new issue market
(d) indirect market
Answer:
(c) new issue market

Question 17.
A major player in the money market is the
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Central Bank
Answer:
(a) Commercial Bank

Question 18.
In which year SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India?
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 2014
(d) 2013
Answer:
(a) 1988

Question 19.
Recruitment bridges gap between and
(a) Job seeker and Job provider
(b) Job seeker and agent
(c) Job provider and owner
(d) Owner and servant
Answer:
(a) Job seeker and Job provider

Question 20.
Vestibule training is provided
(a) On the job
(b) In the class room
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment
(d) By the committee
Answer:
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader.

Question 22.
What is equity market?
Answer:
Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

Question 23.
What is a CD market?
Answer:
Certificate of Deposits are short-term deposit instruments issued by banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money. The Certificate of Deposit is transferable from one party to another. Due to their negotiable feature, they are also known as negotiable certificate of deposit.

Question 24.
What is Demat account?
Answer:
A demat account holds all the shares that are purchased in electronic or dematerialized form.

Question 25.
Give the meaning of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in an organisation

Question 26.
What is meant by training?
Answer:
Training is the act of increasing / enhancing the new skill of problem solving activity and technical knowledge of an employee for doing the jobs themselves.

Question 27.
Define Marketing Mix.
Answer:
“Marketing mix is a pack of four sets of variables namely product variable, price variable, promotion variable, and place variable”.

Question 28.
What do you know about National Commission?
Answer:

• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is also called as National Commission.

Question 29.
What is Share?
Answer:
The term Share is viewed by a layman as a fraction or portion of total capital of the company which have equal denomination.

Question 30.
Define Meeting.
Answer:
A company meeting must be convened and held in perfect compliance with the various provisions of the Act and the rules framed thereunder

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Differentiate Management from Administration.
Answer:

Question 32.
State the importance of staffing.
Answer:
Staffing refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs. Staffing includes selection of right persons, training to those needy persons, promotion of best persons, retirement of old persons, performance appraisal of all the personnel, and adequate remuneration of personnel. The success of any enterprise depends upon the successful performance of staffing function.

Question 33.
What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain.
Answer:
The capital market is divided into two i.e., primary market and secondary market.

• Primary Market: Primary market is a market for new issues or new financial claims.
• Secondary Market: Secondary Market may be defined as the market for old securities, in the sense that securities which are previously issued in the primary market are traded here.

Question 34.
Explain Stag and Lame Duck.
Answer:

• Stag: A stag is a cautious speculator in the stock exchange. He applies for shares in new companies and expects to sell them at a premium.
• Lame Duck: When a bear finds it difficult to fulfill his commitment, he is said to be struggling like a lame duck.

Question 35.
What is structured interview?
Answer:
Under this method, a series of questions to be asked by the interviewer are pre-prepared by the interviewer and only these questions are asked in the interview.

Question 36.
What is need for market and explain the concept of marketing?
Answer:
Market is needed for the producers and consumers. For this there are various concepts:

• The products produced are to be marketed in the market for sales.
• First create a consumer and then create products.
• Keep respect and love customers than the products.
• Customer is the king of the business.

Question  37.
What are the important legislations related to consumerism in India?
Answer:
Consumer Legislation:

• The Indian Contract Act, 1982
• The Sale of Goods Act, 1982
• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
• The Agricultural Products Grading and Marketing Act, 1937
• The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
• Weights and Measures Act, 1958
• The Trademark Act, 1999

Question 38.
What are the political environment factors?
Answer:
Political and Legal environment – The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment.

• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like the election system, the law and order situation.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international arena.
• The constitution of the nation.

Question 39.
Distinguish between Negotiability and Assignability.
Answer:

Question 40.
What do you understand by Issue of Securities at Premium?
Answer:
When shares are issued at a price above the face or nominal value, they are said to be issued at a premium. For example, a share having the face value of Rs.10 is issued at Rs.12. Here, Rs.2 is the premium. The amount of share premium has to be transferred to an account called the ‘Securities Premium Account’.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Briefly explain different types of Directors.
Answer:
Types of Directors as per Companies Act 2013:

• Residential Director: According to Section 149(3) ofCompaniesAct2013, every company should appoint a director who has stayed in India for a total period of 182 days.
• Independent Director: An independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director who is known as Whole-time director or Nominee director.
• Small shareholder’s Director: Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
• Nominee Director: A director nominated by any financial institution in pursuance of the provisions of law.
• Additional Directors: Any Individual can be appointed as Additional Directors by a company.
• Alternate Directors: Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute who may be absent from India, for a period of 3 months.

[OR]

(b) Describe the steps for promoting Entrepreneurial venture.
Steps for promoting entrepreneurial venture:

• Selection of the product: An entrepreneur may select a product according to his capacity and motivation after a thorough scrutiny of micro and macro environment of business.
• Selection of form of ownership: Entrepreneur has to choose the form of organisation suitable and appropriate for his venture namely family ownership, partnership and private company.
• Selection of site: Entrepreneur has to choose suitable plot for starting his venture. The plot may be industrial site, land by the private people or housing board plot allotted.
• Designing capital structure: The entrepreneurs has to determine the source of finance for funding the venture. It may be own savings, loan from friends, relatives or loan from banks.
• Acquisition of Manufacturing know-how: Entrepreneur can acquire manufacturing know-how from government research laboratories and industrial consultants.
• Preparation of project report: Project reports needs to be prepared according to the format prescribed in the loan application forms.

Question 42.
(a) Distinguish between an Entrepreneur and an Intrapreneur.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the micro environmental factors of business.
Answer:
Micro environmental factors are those, which are in the immediate environment of a business affecting its performance. These include the following:

1. Suppliers: In any organisation the suppliers of raw materials and other inputs play a vital role. Timely procurement of materials from suppliers enables continuity in production and reduces the cost of production.
2. Customers: The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its customers. The customer is the king of the business.
3. Competitors: All organisations face competition at all levels local, national and global. Competitors maybe for the same product or for similar products.
4. Financiers: The financiers of a business includes the debenture holders and financial institutions.
5. Marketing Channel members: The marketing intermediaries serve as a connecting link between the business and its customers. The middlemen like dealers, wholesalers and retailers ensure transfer of product to customers.

Question 43.
(a) Describe the various strategies pursued in recent day’s marketers.
Answer
The market scenario in the world today is changing very rapidly.
Strategies of Recent Marketers:

• Due to the development in information technology, transportation, liberalisation, their buying habits are varying.
• In the globalised business environment, the marketer must move goods faster and quicker to satisfy the needs of the customer.
• It is possible to carryout all the business transactions over an electronic network.
• They use a variety of tools like computers, laptops, tablet or android phone devices to access different websites.

[OR]

(b) How the market can be classified on the basis of Economics?
The Market can be classified on the basis of Economics as follows:
(a) Perfect Market: A market is said to be a perfect market, if it satisfies the following conditions:

• Large number of buyers and sellers are there.
• Prices should be uniform throughout the market.
• Buyers and sellers have a perfect knowledge of market.
• Goods can be moved from one place to another without restrictions.

(b) Imperfect Market: A market is said to be imperfect when

• Products are similar but not identical.
• Prices are not uniform.
• There is lack of communication.

Question 44.
(a) Briefly explain the various types of tests.
Answer:
(1) Prospectus:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualifications.

(2) Ability Test: Ability test may be divided into:

• Aptitude Test
• Achievement Test
• Intelligence Test
• Judgment Test.

(3) Aptitude Test: Aptitude test is a test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post.

(4) Achievement Test: This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field.

(5) Intelligence Test: Intelligence test is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.

(6) Judgment Test: This test is conducted to test the presence of mind and reasoning capacity of the candidates.

(7) Personality Test: It refers to the test conducted to find out the non-intellectual traits of a candidate. It can be further divided into:

(8) Interest Test: Interest test measures a candidate’s extent of interest in a particular area. Projective

(9) Test: This test measures the candidate’s values, personality of the candidate.

(10) Attitude Test: measures candidate’s tendencies towards the people, situation, action and related things.

[OR]

(b) Elaborate on the Managerial functions of Human Resource Management.
Managerial Functions of Human Resource Management:

• Planning: Planning is deciding in advance what to do, how to do and who is to do it.
• Organising: It includes division of work among employees by assigning each employee their duties, delegation of authority required.
• Directing: It involves issue of orders and instructions along with guidance and motivation to get the best employees.
• Controlling: The control process includes fixing of standards, measuring actual
  performance, comparing actual with standard laid down, measuring deviations and taking corrective actions.

Question 45.
(a) What are the functions of SEBI?
Answer:
SEBI performs three key functions: quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi-executive.

• Safeguarding the interests of investors by means of adequate education and guidance.
• Regulating and controlling the business on stock markets.
• Conduct inspection and inquiries of stock exchanges, intermediaries and self-regulating organizations.
• Barring insider trading in securities.
• Prohibiting deceptive and unfair methods used by financial intermediaries operating in securities market.
• Registering and controlling the functioning of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, bankers, trustees, underwriters who are linked to securities market.
• SEBI issues Guidelines and Instructions to businesses orgnisations for issue of shares.
• Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes such as mutual funds.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Benefits of Stock Exchange.

• Economic Development: It increases the economic development by ensuring steady flow of savings for production.
• Fund Raising Platform: It enables the well-managed companies to raise funds by issue of shares.

Benefits to the Company:

• Enhances Goodwill or Reputation: Companies whose shares are quoted on a stock exchange enjoy greater goodwill and credit standing.
• Raises huge funds: Stock exchange helps the companies to raise huge funds by issue of shares and debentures.

Benefits to Investors:

• Liquidity: Stock exchange helps to convert his shares into cash quickly.
• Investor protection: The stock exchange safeguards, investor’s interest by following strict rules and regulations.

Question 46.
(A) Explain the characteristics of Money Market.

1. Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.

2. Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.

3. Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.

4. No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.

5. Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets each specialising in a particular type of financing.

6. Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.

7. Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

8. Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments.

9. Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.

8. Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.

9. Flexibility:  Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.

10. Presence of a Central Bank:  The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]
(b) Briefly explain the functions of capital market.
(i) Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt. etc.) The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.

(ii) Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.

(iii) Industrial Growth: The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to the industrial sector of the economy.

(iv) Ready and Continuous Market: The stock exchange provides a central convenient place where buyers and sellers can easily purchase and sell securities.

(v) Reliable Guide to Performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.

(vi) Proper Channelization of Funds: The prevailing market price of a security and relative yield are the guiding factors for the people to channelize their funds in a particular company.

(vii) Provision of Variety of Services: The financial institutions functioning in the capital market provide a variety of services such as grant of long term and medium term loans to entrepreneurs.

(viii) Development of Backward Areas: Capital Markets provide funds for projects in backward areas. This facilitates economic development of backward areas.

(ix) Foreign Capital: Capital markets make possible to generate foreign capital. Indian firms are able to generate capital funds from overseas markets by way of bonds and other securities.

(x) Easy Liquidity: With the help of secondary market investors can sell off their holdings and convert them into liquid cash.

Question 47.
(a) Enumerate the different kinds of financial markets.
Financial Markets can be classified in different ways.
On the Basis of Type of Financial Claim

• Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt Instrument (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).
• Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

On the Basis of Maturity of Financial Claim

• Money Market is the market for short term financial claim (usually one year or less) E.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.
• Capital Market is the market for long term financial claim more than a year; E.g. Shares, Debentures.

On the Basis of Time of Issue of Financial Claim

• Primary Market is a term used to include all the institutions that are involved in the sale of securities for the first time by the issuers (companies). Here the money from investors goes directly to the issuers.
• Secondary Market is the market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

On the Basis of Timing of Delivery of Financial Claim

• Cash/Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately, i.e. settlement is completed immediately.
• Forward or Futures Market is a market where the delivery of asset and payment of cash takes place at a pre-determined time frame in future.

On the Basis of the Organizational Structure of the Financial Market

• Exchange-Traded Market is a centralized organization (stock exchange) with standardized procedures.
• Over-the-Counter Market is a decentralized market (outside the stock exchange) with customized procedures.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various functions of management.
Main Functions:
(i) Planning:- Planning is the primary function of management. Planning is a constructive reviewing of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.

(ii) Organising:- Organising is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members of an organisation and the creation of network of relationship among them.

(iii) Staffing:- Staffing function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.

(iv) Directing:- Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding and communicating with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(v) Controlling:- Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions.

(vi) Co-ordination:- Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities.

(vii) Motivating:- The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.

Subsidiary Functions:

• Innovation:- Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.
• Representation:- A manager has to act as representative of a company. It is the duty of every manager to have good relation with others.
• Decision-making:- Every employee of an organisation has to take a number of decisions every day. Decision-making helps in the smooth functioning of an organisation.
• Communication:- Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Communication helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.