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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 × 1 = 8]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and write the option code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Size of pollen grain in Myosotis is _______ micrometer.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 200
(d) 2000
Answer:
(a) 10

Question 2.
How many different kinds of gametes will be produced by a plant having the genotype AABbCC?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Nine
(d) Two
Answer:
(d) Two

Question 3.
EcoRI cleaves DNA at ________.
(a) AGGGTT
(b) GTATAC
(c) GAATTC
(d) TATAGC
Answer:
(c) GAATTC

Question 4.
Choose the correct match from the following.


Answer:
1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B

Question 5.
Photo synthetically active radiation wave length between the range of ________.
(a) 200-700nm
(b) 300-700nm
(c) 400-700 nm
(d) 500-700nm
Answer:
(c) 400-700 nm

Question 6.
For the given statements with respect to Eichhomia select the suitable answer.
Statement A: It drains of oxygen from water and is seen growing in standing water.
Statement B: It is an indogeneous species of our country.
(a) Statement A is correct and statement B is wrong.
(b) Both the statement A and B are correct.
(c) Statement A is wrong and statement B is correct.
(d) Both the statement A and Bare wrong.
Answer:
(d) Both the statement A and Bare wrong.

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrectly paired?
(a) Wheat – Himgiri
(b) Milch breed – Sahiwal
(c) Rice – Ratna
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica
Answer:
(d) Pusa Komal – Brassica

Question 8.
Find out the correctly matched pair:
(a) Rubber – Shora robusta
(b) Dye – Lawsonia inermis
(c) Timber – Cypress papyrus
(d) Pulp – Hevea brasiliensis
Answer:
(b) Dye – Lawsonia inermis

Part – II

Answer any four from the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
The endosperm of Angiosperm is different from Gymnosperm. Do you agree? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes, the endosperm of Angiosperm is different from Gymnosperm because in Angiosperm, the endosperm develops from primary endosperm nucleus which is formed after double fertilization whereas in Gymnosperms the endosperm is developed before the fertilization process.

Question 10.
Who are rediscovered Mendel’s experimental works?
Answer:
Hugo de Vries of Holland, Carl Corren’s of Germany, Erich von Tschermak of Austria.

Question 11.
Multiple Alleles-Define.
Answer:
Two or more alternate forms of single gene occupying the same locus in a chromosome are called as Multiple Alleles.

Question 12.
Differentiate Somaclonal variation, Gametoclonal variation.
Answer:

Question 13.
What is called Phytoremediation?
Answer:
The process in which the plants can be used to remove toxic substances like cadmium from contaminated soils is known as Phytoremediation.

Soya bean and tomato tolerate cadmium poisoning by isolating cadmium and storing in few group of cells and prevent from affecting other cells.

Question 14.
What is ozone hole?
Answer:
The decline in the thickness of the ozone layer over restricted area is called ozone hole.

Part – III

Answer three from the following questions. Question No. 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Differentiate continuous variation with discontinuous variations.
Answer:
1. Discontinuous Variation: Within a population there are some characteristics which show a limited form of variation. Example: Style length in Primula, plant height of garden pea. In discontinuous variation, the characteristics are controlled by one or two major genes which may have two or more allelic forms. These variations are genetically determined by inheritance factors.

Individuals produced by this variation show differences without any intermediate form between them and there is no overlapping between the two phenotypes. The phenotypic expression is unaffected by environmental conditions. This is also called as qualitative inheritance.

2. Continuous Variation: This variation may be due to the combining effects of environmental and genetic factors. In a population most of the characteristics exhibit a complete gradation, from one extreme to the other without any break.

Inheritance of phenotype is determined by the combined effects of many genes, (polygenes) and environmental factors. This is also known as quantitative inheritance. Example: Human height and skin color.

Question 16.
What is gene mapping? Mention its uses.
Answer:
Genetic Map: The diagrammatic representation of the portion of genes and related distance between the adjacent genes in called Genetic mapping.
Use: Gene map provides clues about the where the genes lies on that chromosome.

Question 17.
Lichen is considered as a good example of an obligate mutualism. Explain.
Answer:
Lichen is considered as a good example of obligate mutualism, because in Lichen, the algae (cyano bacteria) and fungi lives in a mutual relationship i.e., the algae being a autotroph synthesizes its food and provides the fungus and in turn the fungus helps the algae in absorption of water and nutrients and also protects form bacterial or other fungal infections.

Question 18.
Draw a pyramid from following details and explain. The quantities of organisms are given: Hawks 25 and plants-500 rabbit and mouse-125+125 snake and lizard- 50+25 respectively.
Answer:

The pyramid represents pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystem.
The pyramid of numbers in grassland ecosystem is always upright because there is a gradual decrease in the number of organisms in each trophic level form producers to consumers and then to secondary consumers and finally to tertiary consumers.

Question 19.
What do you know about the objectives of plant breeding?
Answer:

• To increase yield, vigour and fertility of the crop.
• To increase tolerance to environmental condition, salinity, temperature and drought.
• To prevent the premature falling of buds and fruits, etc.
• To improve synchronous maturity.
• To develop resistance to pathogens and pests.
• To develop photosensitive and thermos-sensitive varieties.

Part – IV

Answer all questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) With a suitable diagram explain the structure of an ovule.
Answer:

Ovule is also called megasporangium and is protected by one or two covering called integuments.

• A mature ovule consists of a stalk and a body.
• The stalk or the funiculus is present at the base and it attaches the ovule to the placenta.
• The point of attachment of fiinicle to the body of the ovule is known as hilum. It is a junction between ovule and fiinicle.
• In an inverted ovule, the funicle is adnate to the body of the ovule forming a ridge called raphe.
• The body of the ovule has a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called nucellus which has large reserve food materials.
• The nucellus is covered by integuments completely except at the top and forms a pore called micropyle.
• The ovule with one or two integuments are called unitegmic or bitegmic ovules respectively.
• The basal of the ovule where the nucellus, the integument and the funicle meet is called chalaza.
• Inside the nucellus, toward micropylar end there is a large, oval sack like structure called embryo sac or female gametophyte.
• The embryo sac develops from the functional megaspore.
• In some species, the inner integument perform the nutritive function for the embryo sac and is called as endothelium or integumentary tapetum (Example : Asteraceae).
• Group of cells found at the base of the ovule between chalaza and embryo sac is called Hypostase.
• The thick walled cells found above micropylar end and embryo sac is called epistase.
• There are two types of ovules based on the position of sporogenous.
  (a) Tenuinucellate ovule: Ovules with hypodermal sporogerous cell with single layer of nucellus around it is called tenuinucellate. They have very small nucellus
  (b) Crassinucellate ovule: Ovule with subhypodermal sporogenous cell is called crassinucellate ovule. They have large nucellus.
• The thick walled cells found above micropylar end and embryo sac is called epistase.

[OR]

(b) What is single cell protein. Mention its application.
Answer:
Single Cell Protein (SCP) are dried cells of microorganisms that are used as protein supplement in foods or animal feeds.

Organism used in SCP production:
Bacteria – Methylophilus methylotrophus, Cellulomonas, Alcaligenes
Fungi – Agaricus campestris , Saccharomyces cerevisiae, Candida utilis
Algae – Spirulina, Chlorella and Chlamydomonas

Substrates for SCP production: Straw, molasses, animal manure, sewage, waste water from potato processing plants with starch.

Uses:

• SCP offers an unconventional but possible solution to protein deficiency faced buy human beings.
• SCP forms an important food source because of their protein content, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins and minerals.
• It is used by Astronauts and Antarctica expedition scientists.
• Since SCP can be grown even in sewage water, it also reduces environmental pollution.
• 250 gms of Methylophilus methylotrophus as its high rate of biomass production and growth can yield 25 tonnes of proteins.

Disadvantage of SCP: Although SCP has high nutritive value due to high content of protein, vitamin, lipid and amino acids, there are doubts on whether it could replace conventional protein source due to high nucleic acid content and slower in digestibility.

Question 21.
(a) Suggest a solution to water crises and explain its advantages.
Answer:
Rainwater harvesting is the accumulation and storage of rain water for reuse in-site rather than allowing it to run off. Rainwater can be collected from rivers, roof tops and the water collected is directed to a deep pit. The water percolates and gets stored in the pit. RWH is a sustainable water management practice implemented not only in urban area but also in agricultural fields, which is an important economical cost effective method for the future.

Environmental benefits of Rain Water Harvesting:

• Promotes adequacy of underground water and water conservation.
• Mitigates the effect of drought.
• Reduces soil erosion as surface run-off is reduced.
• Reduces flood hazards.
• Improves groundwater quality and water table / decreases salinity.
• No land is wasted for storage purpose and no population displacement is involved.
• Storing water underground is an eco-friendly measure and a part of sustainable water storage strategy for local communities.

[OR]

(b) What are millets? What are its types? Give example for each type.
Answer:
Millets: (Siru Thaniyangal)

• Millets is the term applied to a variety of very small seeds originally cultivated by ancient Africans and Asians.
• They are gulten free and have less glycemic index.

Types of Millets:

1. Major millets
2. Minor millets.

Example for Major millets:

• Finger millets – Ragi (Eleusine coracana)
• Sorghum – Sorghum vulgare

Example for Minor millets:

• Foxtail millet – (Setaria italica)
• Kodo millet – Paspalum scrobiculatum

Bio-Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 × 1 = 8]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and write the option code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Which among the following animals exhibit ovoviviparity?
(a) frog
(b) shark
(c) sheep
(d) hen
Answer:
(b) shark

Question 2.
21^st trisomy is observed in ________.
(a) Down’s syndrome
(b) Patau’s syndrome
(c) Turner’s syndrome
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome
Answer:
(a) Down’s syndrome

Question 3.
Which among the codon codes for methionine?
(a) AUG
(b) UAA
(c) UUU
(d) AUC
Answer:
(a) AUG

Question 4.
The disease caused by Wuchereria bancrofti is ________.
(a) Malaria
(b) Filariasis
(c) Kala-azar
(d) Sleeping sickness
Answer:
(b) Filariasis

Question 5.
Which of the following pair is correctly matched? [Wrong question]
(a) Trichoderma polysporum – clot buster
(b) Aspergillus niger – butric acid
(c) Clostridium butyricum – cyclosporine A
(d) Streptococcus – citric acid

Question 6.
The first clinical gene therapy was done for the treatment of _______.
(a) SCID
(b) cancer
(c) AIDS
(d) cystic fibrosis
Answer:
(a) SCID

Question 7.
Given below are some examples for population interactions. Which among the following shows mutualism?
(a) Lion and deer
(b) Man and tape worm
(c) Hermit crab and sea-anemone
(d) Sucker fish and shark
Answer:
(c) Hermit crab and sea-anemone

Question 8.
The most abundant green house gas is ______.
(a) Carbon-dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Sulphur-dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide
Answer:
(a) Carbon-dioxide

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Describe the structure of the head of a human sperm.
Answer:
The head comprises of two parts namely acrosome and nucleus. Acrosome is a small cap like pointed structure present at the tip of the nucleus and made of Golgi body of the spermatid. It contains hyaluronidase (sperm cysin) a proteolytic enzyme which helps to penetrate the ovum during fertilisation. The nucleus is flat and oval.

Question 10.
Mention any four salient features of Human Genome Project.
Answer:
The main goals of Human Genome Project are as follows:

• Identify all the genes (approximately 30000) in human DNA.
• Determine the sequence of the three billion chemical base pairs that makeup the human DNA.
• To store this information in databases.
• Improve tools for data analysis.

Question 11.
Name an opioid drug and its plant source. How does the drug affect Human body?
Answer:
Morphine is an opioid drug obtained from flowers of the poppy plants.
It is used as a strong pain killer during surgery.

Question 12.
How does the transgenic cow Rosie’s milk differ from normal cow’s Milk?
Answer:
Rosie was the first transgenic cow. It produced human protein enriched milk, which contained the human alpha lactalbumin (2.4 gm/litre). This milk was a nutritionally balanced food for infants than the normal milk of cows.

Question 13.
Differentiate natality from mortality.
Answer:

Question 14.
What is ozone depletion? How is it caused?
Answer:
Thinning of the stratospheric ozone layer is known as ozone depletion. Such depletion causes the ‘ozone hole’, resulting in poor screening of the harmful UV rays and increase in incidences of skin cancer. Ozone depression is due to certain gases like CFC’s.

Part – III

Write any three of the following in which question No.19 is compulsory. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Explain multiple fission in Plasmodium with a diagram.
Answer:
In Multiple fission of plasmodium, the oocyte or schizont divides into many similar daughter cells simultaneously. Nucleus undergoes repeated mitosis producing many nuclei without the division of cytoplasm. Later the cytoplasm divides and encircles each nucleus forming many daughter cells oocyte undergoes sporogony forming sporozoites. Schizont undergoes schizogony forming merozoites.

Question 16.
Write the causes and the differences between Haemophilia and Thalassemia.
Answer:
Causes for Haemophilia: Haemophilia is also called bleeder’s disease is caused by a recessive X-linked gene. A person with a recessive gene for haemophilia lacks a normal clotting substance in blood, hence minor injuries cause continuous bleeding, leading to death.

Causes for Thalassemia: Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive disorder caused by.gene mutation resulting in excessive destruction of RBC’s due to the formation of abnormal haemoglobin molecules.

Question 17.
Explain the secondary treatment of waste water.
Answer:
Secondary treatment or biological treatment: The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks where it is constantly agitated mechanically and air is pumped into it. This allows vigorous growth of useful aerobic microbes into floe (masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures). While growing, these microbes consume the major part of the organic matter in the effluent. This significantly reduces the BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand or Biological oxygen demand).

BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed, if all the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidized by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced. The greater the BOD of the waste water more is its polluting potential. Once the BOD of sewage water is reduced significantly, the effluent is then passed into a settling tank where the bacterial “floes” are allowed to sediment. This sediment is called activated sludge. A small part of activated sludge is pumped back into the aeration tank to serve as the inoculum.

The remaining major part of the sludge is pumped into large tanks called anaerobic sludge digesters. Here, the bacteria which grow anaerobically, digest the bacteria and the fungi in the sludge. During this digestion, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2.
These gases form biogas and can be used as a source of energy.

Question 18.
Explain the steps involved in the preparation of human insulin artificially.
Answer:
Production of insulin by recombinant DNA technology started in the late 1970s. This technique involved the insertion of human insulin gene on the plasmids of E.coli. The polypeptide chains are synthesized as a precursor called pre-pro insulin, which contains A and B segments linked by a third chain (C) and preceded by a leader sequence. The leader sequence is removed after translation and the C chain is excised, leaving the A and B polypeptide chains.

Question 19.
Differentiate in-situ and ex-situ conservation by sighting examples for each.
Answer:
In-situ conservation:
Conservation of plants and animals in theimatural habitat.
Eg., Sacred Groves
A sacred grove or sacred woods are any grove of trees that are of special religious importance to a particular culture. Sacred groves feature in various cultures throughout the world.

Ex-situ conservation:
Conservation of selected or rare plants or animals in place outside their natural habitat.
E.g., Gene banks
Gene banks are a type of biorepository which preserve genetic materials. Seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants can be stored for long periods in seed banks, gametes of threatened species can be preserved in viable and fertile condition for long periods using ervopreservation techniques.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Explain any five techniques of Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).
Answer:
Intra-uterine insemination (IUI): This is a procedure to treat infertile men with low sperm count. The semen is collected either from the husband or from a healthy donor and is introduced into the uterus through the vagina by a catheter after stimulating the ovaries to produce more ova. The sperms swim towards the fallopian tubes to fertilize the egg, resulting in normal pregnancy.

Zygote intra-failopian transfer (ZIFT): As in IVF, the zygote upto 8 blastomere stage is transferred to the fallopian tube by laparoscopy. The zygote continues its natural divisions and migrates towards the uterus where it gets implanted.

Intra uterine transfer (IUT): Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is inserted into uterus to complete its further development.

Gamete intra-failopian transfer (GIFT): Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube. In this the eggs are collected from the ovaries and placed with the sperms in one of the fallopian tubes. The zygote travels toward the uterus and gets implanted in the inner lining of the uterus.

Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI): In this method only one sperm is injected into the focal point of the egg to fertilize. The sperm is carefully injected into the cytoplasm of the egg. Fertilization occurs in 75 – 85% of eggs injected with the sperms. The zygote is allowed to divide to form an 8 celled blastomere and then transferred to the uterus to develop a protective pregnancy.

[OR]

(b) (i) Differentiate divergent and convergent evolution with examples.
(ii) What are the various objections to Darwinism?
Answer:
(i) Divergent Evolution:
Divergent evolution is a result of homology. E.g: The wings of bird and the forelimbs of human both are homologous structures modified according to functions. In birds, it is used for flight and in humans used for writing and other purposes.

Convergent Evolution:
Convergent evolution is a result of analogy. E.g: Root modification in sweet potato, and stem modification in potato are analogous structures both performing same function i.e., storage.

(ii) Some objections raised against Darwinism were,

• Darwin failed to explain the mechanism of variation.
• Darwinism explains the survival of the fittest but not the arrival of the fittest.
• He focused on small fluctuating variations that are mostly non-heritable.
• He did not distinguish between somatic and germinal variations.
• He could not explain the occurrence of vestigial organs, over specialization of some organs like large tusks in extinct mammoths and oversized antlers in the extinct Irish deer, etc.

Question 21.
(a) Explain the life cycle of Plasmodium.
Answer:
Plasmodium vivax is a digenic parasite, involving two hosts, man as the secondary host and female Anopheles mosquito as the primary host. The life cycle of Plasmodium involves three phases namely schizogony, gamogony and sporogony.

The parasite first enters the human blood stream through the bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito. As it feeds, the mosquito injects the saliva containing the sporozoites. The sporozoite within the blood stream immediately enters the hepatic cells of the liver. Further in the liver they undergo multiple asexual fission (schizogony) and produce merozoites. After being released from liver cells, the merozoites penetrate the RBC’s.

Inside the RBC, the merozoite begins to develop as unicellular trophozoites. The trophozoite grows in size and a central vacuole develops pushing them to one side of cytoplasm and becomes the signet ring stage. The trophozoite nucleus then divides asexually to produce the schizont. The large schizont shows yellowish – brown pigmented granules called Schuffners granules. The schizont divides and produces mononucleated merozoites.

Eventually the erythrocyte lyses, releasing the merozoites and haemozoin toxin into the blood stream to infect other erythrocytes. Lysis of red blood cells results in cycles of fever and other symptoms. This erythrocytic stage is cyclic and repeats itself approximately every 48 to 72 hours or longer depending on the species of Plasmodium involved. The sudden release of merozoites triggers an attack on the RBCs.

Occasionally, merozoites differentiate into macro gametocytes and micro gametocytes. When these are ingested by a mosquito, they develop into male and female gametes, respectively. In the mosquito’s gut, the infected erythrocytes lyse and male and female gametes fertilize to form a diploid zygote called ookinete. The ookinete migrates to the mosquito’s gut wall and develop into an oocyte.

The oocyte undergoes meiosis by a process called sporogony to form sporozoites. These sporozoites migrate to the salivary glands of the mosquito. The cycle is now completed and when the mosquito bites another human host, the sporozoites are injected and the cycle begins a new.

The pathological changes caused by malaria, affects not only the erythrocytes but also the spleen and other visceral organs. Incubation period of malaria is about 12 days. The early symptoms of malaria are headache, nausea and muscular pain. The classic symptoms first develop with the synchronized release of merozoites, haemozoin toxin and erythrocyte debris into the blood stream resulting in malarial paroxysms – shivering chills, high fever followed by sweating. Fever and chills are caused partly by malarial toxins that induce macrophages to release tumour-necrosis factor (TNF-α) and interleukin.

[OR]

(b) Mention the reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the tropics.
Answer:
The reasons for the richness of biodiversity in the Tropics are,

• Warm tropical regions between the tropic of Cancer and Capricorn on either side of equator possess congenial habitats for living organisms.
• Environmental conditions of the tropics are favourable not only for speciation but also for supporting both variety and number of organisms.
• The temperatures vary between 25°C to 35°C, a range in which most metabolic activities of living organisms occur with ease and efficiency.
• The average rainfall is often more than 200 mm per year.
• Climate, seasons, temperature, humidity, photo periods are more or less stable and encourage both variety and numbers.
• Rich resource and nutrient availability.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 16 Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar Chart Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 16 Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar Chart

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Visualization Using Pyplot: Line Chart, Pie Chart and Bar ChartText Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which is a python package used for 2D graphics?
(a) matplotlib.pyplot
(b) matplotlib.pip
(c) matplotlib.numpy
(d) matplotlib.plt
Answer:
(a) matplotlib.pyplot

Question 2.
Identify the package manager for Python packages, or modules.
(a) Matplotlib
(b) PIP
(c) plt.show( )
(d) python package
Answer:
(b) PIP

Question 3.
Read the following code: Identify the purpose of this code and choose the right option from the following.
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip -version
(a) Check if PIP is Installed
(b) Install PIP
(c) Download a Package
(d) Check PIP version
Answer:
(d) Check PIP version

Question 4.
Read the following code: Identify the purpose of this code and choose the right option from the following.
C:\Users\Your Name\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip list
(a) List installed packages
(b) list command
(c) Install PIP
(d) packages installed
Answer:
(a) List installed packages

Question 5.
To install matplotlib, the following function will be typed in your command prompt. Python -m pip install -U pip What does “-U”represents?
(a) downloading pip to the latest version
(b) upgrading pip to the latest version
(c) removing pip
(d) upgrading matplotlib to the latest version
Answer:
(b) upgrading pip to the latest version

Question 6.
Observe the output figure. Identify the coding for obtaining this output.

(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot( [1,2,3], [4,5,1 ])
plt.show( )

(b) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit plt.plot([l,2],[4,5])
plt.show( )

(c) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot([2,3],[5,l])
plt.show( )

(d) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot([l,3],[4,l])
plt.show( )
Answer:
(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.plot( [1,2,3], [4,5,1 ])
plt.show( )

Question 7.
Read the code:
(a) import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
(b) plt.plot(3,2)
(c) plt.show( )
Identify the output for the above coding
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer:
(c)

Question 8.
Which key is used to run the module?
(a) F6
(b) F4
(c) F3
(d) F5
Answer:
(d) F5

Question 9.
Identify the right type of chart using the following hints.
Hint 1: This chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time.
Hint 2: The line in this type of chart is often drawn chronologically.
(a) Line chart
(b) Bar chart
(c) Pie chart
(d) Scatter plot
Answer:
(a) Line chart

Question 10.
Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following for pie chart.
Statement A: To make a pie chart with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.pie( ) function.
Statement B: The autopct parameter allows us to display the percentage value using the Python string formatting.
(a) Statement A is correct
(b) Statement B is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define: Data Visualization?
Answer:
Data Visualization is the graphical representation of information and data. The objective of Data Visualization is to communicate information visually to users. For this, data visualization uses statistical graphics. Numerical data may be encoded using dots, lines, or bars, to visually communicate a quantitative message.

Question 2.
List the general types of data visualization?
Answer:

1. Charts
2. Tables
3. Graphs
4. Maps
5. Infographics
6. Dashboards

Question 3.
List the types of Visualizations in Matplotlib?
Answer:
There are many types of Visualizations under Matplotlib. Some of them are:

1. Line plot
2. Scatter plot
3. Histogram
4. Box plot
5. Bar chart and
6. Pie chart

Question 4.
How will you install Matplotlib?
Answer:
We can install matplotlib using pip. Pip is a management software for installing python packages.
After installing Matplotlib, we will begin coding by importing Matplotlib using the command: import matplotlib.pyplot as plt

Question 5.
Write the difference between the following functions: plt.plot([1,2,3,4]), plt.plot([1,2,3,4]), [1.4.9.16] ).
Draw line plt.plot(l,2,3,4] generate x values and given values are y values.
[1.4.9.16]) to plot x verses y

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Draw the output for the following data visualization plot?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
plt.bar([l ,3,5,7,9],[5,2,7,8,2],
label=”Example one”)
plt.bar([2,4,6,8,10],[8,6,2,5,6], label=”Example two”, color=’g’)
pit. legend))
plt.xlabel(‘bar number’)
plt.ylabel(‘bar height’)
pit.title(‘Epic Graph\nAnother Line! Whoa’)
pit. show( )

Question 2.
Write any three uses of data visualization?
Answer:

1. Data Visualization help users to analyze and interpret the data easily.
2. It makes complex data understandable and usable.
3. Various Charts in Data Visualization helps to show relationship in the data for one or more variables.

Question 3.
Write the coding for the following:
a. To check if PIP is Installed in your PC.
b. To Check the version of PIP installed in your PC.
c. To list the packages in matplotlib.
Answer:
In command prompt type pip — version. If it is installed already, you will get version. Python -m pip install – U pip
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip – version
C:\Users\YourName\AppData\Local\Programs\Python\Python36-32\Scripts>pip list

Question 4.
Write the plot for the following pie chart output?
Answer:

‘import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
slices = [7,2,2,13]
activities = [‘sleeping’, ‘eating’, ‘working’, ‘playing’]
plt.pie(slices, labels = activities, autopct = ‘y.1.1 f % % ‘)
plt.title(‘Interesting Graph check it out’)
plt.show( )

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain in detail the types of pyplots using Matplotlib?
Answer:
Line Chart:
A Line Chart or Line Graph is a type of chart which displays information as a series of data points called ‘markers’ connected by straight line segments. A Line Chart is often used to visualize a trend in data over intervals of time – a time series – thus the line is often drawn chronologically.
Example: Line plot
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
years= [2014,2015,2016,2017,2018]
totaljopulations = [8939007, 8954518,8960387,8956741, 8943721]
plt.plot (years, total_populations)
plt.title (“Year vs Population in India”)
plt.xlabel (“Year”)
plt.ylabel (“Total Population”)
plt.legend( )
pit. show( )
In this program,
Plt.title( ) → specifies title to the graph
Plt.xlabel( ) → specifies label for X-axis
Plt.ylabel( ) → specifies label for Y-axis
Output 4

Bar Chart
A BarPlot (or BarChart) is one of the most common type of plot. It shows the relationship between a numerical variable and a categorical variable.
Bar chart represents categorical data with rectangular bars. Each bar has a height corresponds to the value it represents. The bars can be plotted vertically or horizontally. It’s useful when we want to compare a given numeric value on different categories. To make a bar chart with Matplotlib, we can use the plt.bar( ) function.
The above code represents the following:
Labels → Specifies labels for the bars.
Usage → Assign values to the labels specified.
Xticks → Display the tick marks along the x-axis at the values represented. Then specify the label for each tick mark.
Range → Create sequence of numbers.

Pie Chart:
Pie Chart is probably one of the most common type of chart. It is a circular graphic which is divided into slices to illustrate numerical proportion. The point of a pie chart is to show the relationship of parts out of a whole.
To make a Pie Chart with Matplotlib, we can use theplt.pie( ) function. The autopct parameter allows us to display the percentage value using the Python string formatting.

Question 2.
Explain the various buttons in a matplotlib window?
Answer:

Home Button → The Home Button will help once you have begun navigating your chart. If you ever want to return back to the original view, you can click on this.
Forward/Back buttons → These buttons can be used like the Forward and Back buttons in your browser. You can click these to move back to the previous point you were at, or forward again.
Pan Axis → This cross-looking button allows you to click it, and then click and drag your graph around.
Zoom → The Zoom button lets you click on it, then click and drag a square that you would like to zoom into specifically. Zooming in will require a left click and drag. You can alternatively zoom out with a right click and drag.
Configure Subplots → This button allows you to configure various spacing options with your figure and plot.
Save Figure → This button will allow you to save your figure in various forms.

Question 3.
Explain the purpose of the following functions:
Answer:
a. plt.xlabel
b. plt.ylabel
c. plt.title
d. plt.legend( )
e. plt.show( )
After installing Matplotlib, we will begin coding by importing Matplotlib using the command: import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
Now you have imported Matplotlib in your workspace. You need to display the plots. Using Matplotlib from within a Python script, you have to add plt.show( ) method inside the file to display your plot.
With plt.xlabel and plt.ylabel, you can assign labels to those respective axis. Next, you can assign the plot’s title with plt.title, and then you can invoke the default legend with plt
legend( ).
plt.plot (years, total_populations)
plt.title → (“Year vs Population in India”)
plt.xlabel → (“Year”)
plt.ylabel (“Total Population”)
plt.legend( )
plt.show( )
Plt.title( ) → specifies title to the graph
Plt.xlabel( ) → specifies label for X-axis
Plt.ylabel( ) → specifies label for Y-axis

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Create a plot. Set the title, the x and y labels for both axes?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
x = [1, 2, 3]
y = [5, 7, 4]
plt.plot(x,y)
plt.xlabel(‘x-axis’)
plt.ylabel(‘y-axis’)
plt.title(‘LINE GRAPH’)
plt.show( )

Question 2.
Plot a pie chart for your marks in the recent examination?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
sizes= [89, 80, 90, 100, 75]
labels= [“Tamil”, “English”, “Maths”, “Science”, “Social”]
plt.pie (sizes, labels Mabels, autopct = “%.2f”)
plt.axes( ).set_aspect (“equal”) plt.sbow( )
Output:

Question 3.
Plot a line chart on the academic performance of Class 12 students in Computer Science for the past 10 years?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
years = [2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018]
cs = [65, 70, 75, 76, 78, 80, 82, 85, 87, 92]
plt.plot(years,cs)
plt.title(“COMPUTER SCIENCE ACADEMIC PERFORMANCE”)
plt.xlabel(“cs”)
plt.ylabel(“years”)
plt.show( )

Question 4.
Plot a bar chart for the number of computer science periods in a week?
Answer:
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
labels = [“MON”, “TUE”, “WED”, “THUR”, “FRI”, “SAT”, ]
usage = [3, 2, 1,3,2, 2]
y_positions = range(len(labels))
plt.bar(y_positions,usage)
plt.xticks(y_positions, labels)
plt.ylabel(“PERIODS”)
plt.ylabel(“years”)
plt.title(“NO. OF CS PERIODS”)
plt.show( )

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Additional Questions and Answers

PART – I
1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………….. is the graphical representation of information and data.
Answer:
Data Visualization

Question 2.
Pick the odd one out.
Tables, databases, Maps, Infographics, Dashboards
Answer:
Databases

Question 3.
The representation of information in a graphic format is called …………………………
(a) chart
(b) graphics
(c) Infographics
(d) graphs
Answer:
Infographics

Question 4.
Read the statements given below. Identify the right option from the following.
Statement A: Dashboards are used to detect patterns and relationships easily.
Statement B: Dashboard is a type of game.
(a) A is correct
(b) B is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct

Question 5.
Various types of visualizations are available in
(a) stdlib
(b) graphics
(c) library
(d) matplotlib
Answer:
(d) matplotlib

Question 6.
Find the Incorrect match from the following.
(a) Scatter plot – collection of points
(b) line charts – markers
(c) Box plot – Boxes
Answer:
(c) Box plot – Boxes

Question 7.
The terms minimum, first quartile, median, third quartile maximum are related to ……………………… type of plot.
(a) Box
(b) scatter
(c) pie
(d) Bar
Answer:
(a) Box

Question 8.
The position of a point in scatter plot is ……………………. value
(a) ID
(b) 2D
(c) 3D
(d) U shaped
Answer:
(b) 2D

Question 9.
Which method is used to display the plot?
(a) disp( )
(b) display( )
(c) print( )
(d) show( )
Answer:
(d) show( )

Question 10.
Find the wrong statement
If single list is given to the plot( ) command, matplotlib assumes
(a) it is as a sequence of x values
(b) sequence of y values
Answer:
(a) it is as a sequence of x values

Question 11.
……………………….. is a versatile command, which takes an arbitrary number of arguments
Answer:
plot( )

Question 12.
The name to the x axis in the plot is given by ………………………….
(a) label
(b) x
(c) x label
(d) x axis
Answer:
(c) x label

Question 13.
Which one of the following is the cross-looking button that allows you to click it, and drag the . graph around?
(a) x axis
(b) y axis
(c) pan axis
(d) plot axis
Answer:
(c) pan axis

Question 14.
……………………. plot shows the relationship between a numerical variable and a categorical variable.
(a) line
(b) Bar
(c) Scatter
(d) Box
Answer:
(b) Bar

Question 15.
…………………….. assign values to the labels specified in the bar chart.
(a) usage
(b) label
(c) values
(d) =
Answer:
(a) usage

Question 16.
……………………… displays the tick marks along the x axis at the values represented in bar chart.
Answer:
x ticks

Question 17.
A ……………………….. represents the frequency distribution of continuous variables.
Answer:
histogram

Question 18.
Find the Incorrect statement
(a) Histogram is drawn in such a way that there is gap between the bars.
(b) Histogram represents numerical data
(c) Bar graph shows categorical data
Answer:
(a) Histogram is drawn in such a way that there is gap between the bars.

Question 19.
Which function shows the percentage value in pie chart?
(a) percent
(b) percentage
(c) slice
(d) auto pet
Answer:
(d) auto pet

Question 20.
Match the following
1. pie chart – (i) Series of data point
2. Histogram – (ii) Parts out of a whole
3. line chart – (iii) Quartile
4. Box plot – (iv) Freqency distribution
(a) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(b) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(c) 1 -ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iii
Answer:
(c) 1 -ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-iii

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by Infographics?
Answer:
Infographics → An infographic (information graphic) is the representation of information in a graphic format.

Question 2.
Define Scatter plot?
Answer:
Scatter plot: A scatter plot is a type of plot that shows the data as a collection of points. The position of a point depends on its two-dimensional value, where each value is a position on either the horizontal or vertical dimension.

Question 3.
What is Box Plot?
Answer:
Box plot: The box plot is a standardized way of displaying the distribution of data based on the five number summary: minimum, first quartile, median, third quartile, and maximum.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Define Dashboard?
Answer:
Dashboard → A dashboard is a collection of resources assembled to create a single unified visual display. Data visualizations and dashboards translate complex ideas and concepts into a simple visual format. Patterns and relationships that are undetectable in text are detectable at a glance using dashboard.

Question 2.
Write a program to create pie chart?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as plt
sizes= [89, 80, 90, 100, 75]
labels= [“Tamil”, “English”, “Maths”, “Science”, “Social”]
plt.pie (sizes, labels Mabels, autopet = “%.2f’)
plt.axes( ).set_aspect (“equal”)
plt.show( )
Output:

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write a program for Bar chart?
Answer:
Example
import matplotlib.pyplot as pit
#Our data
labels= [“TAMIL”, “ENGLISH”, “MATHS”, “PHYSICS”, “CHEMISTRY”, “CS”]
usage= [79.8, 67.3, 77.8, 68.4, 70.2, 88.5]
# Generating they positions. Later, we’ll use them to replace them with labels.
y_positions =range (len(labels))
#Creating our bar plot plt.bar (y_positions, usage)
plt.xticks (y_positions, labels)
plt.ylabel (“RANGE”)
pit.title (“MARKS”)

Question 2.
Explain the key differences between Histogram and Bar Graph?
Answer:
Key Differences Between Histogram and Bar Graph:
The differences between Histogram and bar graph are as follows:
1. Histogram refers to a graphical representation; that displays data by way of bars to show the frequency of numerical data. A bar graph is a pictorial representation of data that uses bars to compare different categories of data.

2. A histogram represents the frequency distribution of continuous variables. Conversely, a bar graph is a diagrammatic comparison of discrete variables.

3. Histogram presents numerical data whereas bar graph shows categorical data.

4. The histogram is drawn in such a way that there is no gap between the bars. On the other hand, there is proper spacing between bars in a bar graph that indicates discontinuity, (v) Items of the histogram are numbers, which are categorised together, to represent ranges of data. As opposed to the bar graph, items are considered as individual entities.

5. In the case of a bar graph, it is quite common to rearrange the blocks, from highest to lowest. But with histogram, this cannot be done, as they are shown in the sequence of classes.

6. The width of rectangular blocks in a histogram may or may not be same while the width of the bars in a bar graph is always same.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 x 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Dividing the work into small tasks is known as …………..
(a) discipline
(b) unity
(c) division of work
(d) equity
Answer:
(c) division of work

Question 2.
Delegation of Authority is easily done with the help of ………..
(a) MBM
(b) MBE
(c) MBO
(d) MBA
Answer:
(c) MBO

Question 3.
Participants is the capital market includes ……………
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporate
(c) Financial institutions
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Stock exchanges deal in ……………
(a) Goods
(b) Services
(c) Financial securities
(d) Country’s currency
Answer:
(c) Financial securities

Question 5.
Planning is a …………….. function.
(a) selective
(b) pervasive
(c) both a and b
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) pervasive

Question 6
…………… refers to the process of identifying and attracting job seekers so as to build a pool of qualified job applicants.
(a) selection
(b) training
(c) recruitment
(d) Induction
Answer:
(c) recruitment

Question 7.
The spot market is classified on the basis of …………….
(a) commodity
(b) transaction
(c) regulation
(d) time
Answer:
(b) transaction

Question 8.
Which one represents a cluster of manufacturers, content providers and online retailers organized around an activity?
(a) Virtual mall
(b) Association
(c) Metomediary
(d) Portal
Answer:

Question 9.
………….. is the king of modem marketing.
(a) consumer
(b) wholesales
(c) producer
(d) retailer
Answer:
(a) consumer

Question 10.
GST stands for ……………..
(a) Goods, Sales and Tax
(b) Goods and Services Tax
(c) Global Services and Tax
(d) Government Services and Tax
Answer:
(b) Goods and Services Tax

Question 11.
In case of the sale, the has the right to sell.
(a) buyer
(b) seller
(c) hirer
(d) consignee
Answer:
(b) seller

Question 12.
What are the characteristics of an entrepreneur?
(a) spirit of enterprise
(b) flexibility
(c) self confidence
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 13.
………… is the government of India’s endeavour to promote culture of innovation and entrepreneurship.
(a) AIM
(b) STEP
(c) SEED
(d) AIC
Answer:
(a) AIM

Question 14.
A private company shall have a minimum of ………………
(a) seven directors
(b) five directors
(c) three directors
(d) two directors
Answer:
(d) two directors

Question 15.
Which of the following is verification function?
(a) planning
(b) Organisation
(c) staffing
(d) Controlling
Answer:
(d) Controlling

Question 16.
Primary market is also called as ………………
(a) secondary market
(b) Money Market
(c) new issue market
(d) indirect market
Answer:
(c) new issue market

Question 17.
A major player in the money market is the
(a) Commercial Bank
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) Central Bank
Answer:
(a) Commercial Bank

Question 18.
In which year SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital markets in India?
(a) 1988
(b) 1992
(c) 2014
(d) 2013
Answer:
(a) 1988

Question 19.
Recruitment bridges gap between and
(a) Job seeker and Job provider
(b) Job seeker and agent
(c) Job provider and owner
(d) Owner and servant
Answer:
(a) Job seeker and Job provider

Question 20.
Vestibule training is provided
(a) On the job
(b) In the class room
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment
(d) By the committee
Answer:
(c) In a situation similar to actual working environment

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No.30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by Motivation?
Answer:
The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers. This is done by a resourceful leader.

Question 22.
What is equity market?
Answer:
Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

Question 23.
What is a CD market?
Answer:
Certificate of Deposits are short-term deposit instruments issued by banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money. The Certificate of Deposit is transferable from one party to another. Due to their negotiable feature, they are also known as negotiable certificate of deposit.

Question 24.
What is Demat account?
Answer:
A demat account holds all the shares that are purchased in electronic or dematerialized form.

Question 25.
Give the meaning of Recruitment.
Answer:
Recruitment is the process of finding suitable candidates for the various posts in an organisation

Question 26.
What is meant by training?
Answer:
Training is the act of increasing / enhancing the new skill of problem solving activity and technical knowledge of an employee for doing the jobs themselves.

Question 27.
Define Marketing Mix.
Answer:
“Marketing mix is a pack of four sets of variables namely product variable, price variable, promotion variable, and place variable”.

Question 28.
What do you know about National Commission?
Answer:

• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC), India is a quasi-judicial commission in India which was set up in 1988 under the Consumer Protection Act of 1986.
• The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) is also called as National Commission.

Question 29.
What is Share?
Answer:
The term Share is viewed by a layman as a fraction or portion of total capital of the company which have equal denomination.

Question 30.
Define Meeting.
Answer:
A company meeting must be convened and held in perfect compliance with the various provisions of the Act and the rules framed thereunder

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Differentiate Management from Administration.
Answer:

Question 32.
State the importance of staffing.
Answer:
Staffing refers to placement of right persons in the right jobs. Staffing includes selection of right persons, training to those needy persons, promotion of best persons, retirement of old persons, performance appraisal of all the personnel, and adequate remuneration of personnel. The success of any enterprise depends upon the successful performance of staffing function.

Question 33.
What are the various kinds of Capital Market? Explain.
Answer:
The capital market is divided into two i.e., primary market and secondary market.

• Primary Market: Primary market is a market for new issues or new financial claims.
• Secondary Market: Secondary Market may be defined as the market for old securities, in the sense that securities which are previously issued in the primary market are traded here.

Question 34.
Explain Stag and Lame Duck.
Answer:

• Stag: A stag is a cautious speculator in the stock exchange. He applies for shares in new companies and expects to sell them at a premium.
• Lame Duck: When a bear finds it difficult to fulfill his commitment, he is said to be struggling like a lame duck.

Question 35.
What is structured interview?
Answer:
Under this method, a series of questions to be asked by the interviewer are pre-prepared by the interviewer and only these questions are asked in the interview.

Question 36.
What is need for market and explain the concept of marketing?
Answer:
Market is needed for the producers and consumers. For this there are various concepts:

• The products produced are to be marketed in the market for sales.
• First create a consumer and then create products.
• Keep respect and love customers than the products.
• Customer is the king of the business.

Question  37.
What are the important legislations related to consumerism in India?
Answer:
Consumer Legislation:

• The Indian Contract Act, 1982
• The Sale of Goods Act, 1982
• The Essential Commodities Act, 1955
• The Agricultural Products Grading and Marketing Act, 1937
• The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954
• Weights and Measures Act, 1958
• The Trademark Act, 1999

Question 38.
What are the political environment factors?
Answer:
Political and Legal environment – The framework for running a business is given by the political and legal environment.

• Political stability is reflected by the following parameters like the election system, the law and order situation.
• The image of the leader and the country in the international arena.
• The constitution of the nation.

Question 39.
Distinguish between Negotiability and Assignability.
Answer:

Question 40.
What do you understand by Issue of Securities at Premium?
Answer:
When shares are issued at a price above the face or nominal value, they are said to be issued at a premium. For example, a share having the face value of Rs.10 is issued at Rs.12. Here, Rs.2 is the premium. The amount of share premium has to be transferred to an account called the ‘Securities Premium Account’.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Briefly explain different types of Directors.
Answer:
Types of Directors as per Companies Act 2013:

• Residential Director: According to Section 149(3) ofCompaniesAct2013, every company should appoint a director who has stayed in India for a total period of 182 days.
• Independent Director: An independent director is an alternate director other than a Managing Director who is known as Whole-time director or Nominee director.
• Small shareholder’s Director: Small shareholders can appoint a single director in a listed company.
• Nominee Director: A director nominated by any financial institution in pursuance of the provisions of law.
• Additional Directors: Any Individual can be appointed as Additional Directors by a company.
• Alternate Directors: Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute who may be absent from India, for a period of 3 months.

[OR]

(b) Describe the steps for promoting Entrepreneurial venture.
Steps for promoting entrepreneurial venture:

• Selection of the product: An entrepreneur may select a product according to his capacity and motivation after a thorough scrutiny of micro and macro environment of business.
• Selection of form of ownership: Entrepreneur has to choose the form of organisation suitable and appropriate for his venture namely family ownership, partnership and private company.
• Selection of site: Entrepreneur has to choose suitable plot for starting his venture. The plot may be industrial site, land by the private people or housing board plot allotted.
• Designing capital structure: The entrepreneurs has to determine the source of finance for funding the venture. It may be own savings, loan from friends, relatives or loan from banks.
• Acquisition of Manufacturing know-how: Entrepreneur can acquire manufacturing know-how from government research laboratories and industrial consultants.
• Preparation of project report: Project reports needs to be prepared according to the format prescribed in the loan application forms.

Question 42.
(a) Distinguish between an Entrepreneur and an Intrapreneur.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Explain the micro environmental factors of business.
Answer:
Micro environmental factors are those, which are in the immediate environment of a business affecting its performance. These include the following:

1. Suppliers: In any organisation the suppliers of raw materials and other inputs play a vital role. Timely procurement of materials from suppliers enables continuity in production and reduces the cost of production.
2. Customers: The aim of any business is to satisfy the needs of its customers. The customer is the king of the business.
3. Competitors: All organisations face competition at all levels local, national and global. Competitors maybe for the same product or for similar products.
4. Financiers: The financiers of a business includes the debenture holders and financial institutions.
5. Marketing Channel members: The marketing intermediaries serve as a connecting link between the business and its customers. The middlemen like dealers, wholesalers and retailers ensure transfer of product to customers.

Question 43.
(a) Describe the various strategies pursued in recent day’s marketers.
Answer
The market scenario in the world today is changing very rapidly.
Strategies of Recent Marketers:

• Due to the development in information technology, transportation, liberalisation, their buying habits are varying.
• In the globalised business environment, the marketer must move goods faster and quicker to satisfy the needs of the customer.
• It is possible to carryout all the business transactions over an electronic network.
• They use a variety of tools like computers, laptops, tablet or android phone devices to access different websites.

[OR]

(b) How the market can be classified on the basis of Economics?
The Market can be classified on the basis of Economics as follows:
(a) Perfect Market: A market is said to be a perfect market, if it satisfies the following conditions:

• Large number of buyers and sellers are there.
• Prices should be uniform throughout the market.
• Buyers and sellers have a perfect knowledge of market.
• Goods can be moved from one place to another without restrictions.

(b) Imperfect Market: A market is said to be imperfect when

• Products are similar but not identical.
• Prices are not uniform.
• There is lack of communication.

Question 44.
(a) Briefly explain the various types of tests.
Answer:
(1) Prospectus:
Several tests are conducted in the selection process to ensure whether the candidate possesses the necessary qualifications.

(2) Ability Test: Ability test may be divided into:

• Aptitude Test
• Achievement Test
• Intelligence Test
• Judgment Test.

(3) Aptitude Test: Aptitude test is a test to measure suitability of the candidates for the post.

(4) Achievement Test: This test measures a candidate’s capacity to achieve in a particular field.

(5) Intelligence Test: Intelligence test is designed to measure a variety of mental ability, individual capacity of a candidate.

(6) Judgment Test: This test is conducted to test the presence of mind and reasoning capacity of the candidates.

(7) Personality Test: It refers to the test conducted to find out the non-intellectual traits of a candidate. It can be further divided into:

(8) Interest Test: Interest test measures a candidate’s extent of interest in a particular area. Projective

(9) Test: This test measures the candidate’s values, personality of the candidate.

(10) Attitude Test: measures candidate’s tendencies towards the people, situation, action and related things.

[OR]

(b) Elaborate on the Managerial functions of Human Resource Management.
Managerial Functions of Human Resource Management:

• Planning: Planning is deciding in advance what to do, how to do and who is to do it.
• Organising: It includes division of work among employees by assigning each employee their duties, delegation of authority required.
• Directing: It involves issue of orders and instructions along with guidance and motivation to get the best employees.
• Controlling: The control process includes fixing of standards, measuring actual
  performance, comparing actual with standard laid down, measuring deviations and taking corrective actions.

Question 45.
(a) What are the functions of SEBI?
Answer:
SEBI performs three key functions: quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial and quasi-executive.

• Safeguarding the interests of investors by means of adequate education and guidance.
• Regulating and controlling the business on stock markets.
• Conduct inspection and inquiries of stock exchanges, intermediaries and self-regulating organizations.
• Barring insider trading in securities.
• Prohibiting deceptive and unfair methods used by financial intermediaries operating in securities market.
• Registering and controlling the functioning of stock brokers, sub-brokers, share transfer agents, bankers, trustees, underwriters who are linked to securities market.
• SEBI issues Guidelines and Instructions to businesses orgnisations for issue of shares.
• Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes such as mutual funds.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Benefits of Stock Exchange.

• Economic Development: It increases the economic development by ensuring steady flow of savings for production.
• Fund Raising Platform: It enables the well-managed companies to raise funds by issue of shares.

Benefits to the Company:

• Enhances Goodwill or Reputation: Companies whose shares are quoted on a stock exchange enjoy greater goodwill and credit standing.
• Raises huge funds: Stock exchange helps the companies to raise huge funds by issue of shares and debentures.

Benefits to Investors:

• Liquidity: Stock exchange helps to convert his shares into cash quickly.
• Investor protection: The stock exchange safeguards, investor’s interest by following strict rules and regulations.

Question 46.
(A) Explain the characteristics of Money Market.

1. Short-term Funds: It is a market purely for short-term funds or financial assets called near money.

2. Maturity Period: It deals with financial assets having a maturity period upto one year only.

3. Conversion of Cash: It deals with only those assets which can be converted into cash readily without loss and with minimum transaction cost.

4. No Formal Place: Generally, transactions take place through phone, i.e., oral communication. Relevant documents and written communications can be exchanged subsequently.

5. Sub-markets: It is not a single homogeneous market. It comprises of several sub-markets each specialising in a particular type of financing.

6. Role of Market: The components of a money market are the Central Bank, Commercial Banks. Commercial banks generally play a dominant role in this market.

7. Highly Organized Banking System: The Commercial Banks are the nerve centre of the whole money market. They are the principal suppliers of short-term funds.

8. Existence of Secondary Market: There should be an active secondary market for these instruments.

9. Demand and Supply of Funds: There should be a large demand and supply of short-term funds.

8. Wholesale Market: It is a wholesale market and the volume of funds or financial assets traded in the market is very large.

9. Flexibility:  Due to greater flexibility in the regulatory framework, there are constant endeavours for introducing new instruments.

10. Presence of a Central Bank:  The central bank keeps their cash reserves and provides them financial accommodation in difficulties by discounting their eligible securities.

[OR]
(b) Briefly explain the functions of capital market.
(i) Savings and Capital Formation: In capital market, various types of securities help to mobilize savings from various sectors of population (Individuals, Corporate, Govt. etc.) The twin features of reasonable return and liquidity in stock exchange are definite incentives to the people to invest in securities. This accelerates the capital formation in the country.

(ii) Permanent Capital: The existence of a capital market/stock exchange enables companies to raise permanent capital. The investors cannot commit their funds for a permanent period but companies require funds permanently.

(iii) Industrial Growth: The stock exchange is a central market through which resources are transferred to the industrial sector of the economy.

(iv) Ready and Continuous Market: The stock exchange provides a central convenient place where buyers and sellers can easily purchase and sell securities.

(v) Reliable Guide to Performance: The capital market serves as a reliable guide to the performance and financial position of corporate, and thereby promotes efficiency.

(vi) Proper Channelization of Funds: The prevailing market price of a security and relative yield are the guiding factors for the people to channelize their funds in a particular company.

(vii) Provision of Variety of Services: The financial institutions functioning in the capital market provide a variety of services such as grant of long term and medium term loans to entrepreneurs.

(viii) Development of Backward Areas: Capital Markets provide funds for projects in backward areas. This facilitates economic development of backward areas.

(ix) Foreign Capital: Capital markets make possible to generate foreign capital. Indian firms are able to generate capital funds from overseas markets by way of bonds and other securities.

(x) Easy Liquidity: With the help of secondary market investors can sell off their holdings and convert them into liquid cash.

Question 47.
(a) Enumerate the different kinds of financial markets.
Financial Markets can be classified in different ways.
On the Basis of Type of Financial Claim

• Debt Market is the financial market for trading in Debt Instrument (i.e. Government Bonds or Securities, Corporate Debentures or Bonds).
• Equity Market is the financial market for trading in Equity Shares of Companies.

On the Basis of Maturity of Financial Claim

• Money Market is the market for short term financial claim (usually one year or less) E.g. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, Certificates of Deposit.
• Capital Market is the market for long term financial claim more than a year; E.g. Shares, Debentures.

On the Basis of Time of Issue of Financial Claim

• Primary Market is a term used to include all the institutions that are involved in the sale of securities for the first time by the issuers (companies). Here the money from investors goes directly to the issuers.
• Secondary Market is the market for securities that are already issued. Stock Exchange is an important institution in the secondary market.

On the Basis of Timing of Delivery of Financial Claim

• Cash/Spot Market is a market where the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs immediately, i.e. settlement is completed immediately.
• Forward or Futures Market is a market where the delivery of asset and payment of cash takes place at a pre-determined time frame in future.

On the Basis of the Organizational Structure of the Financial Market

• Exchange-Traded Market is a centralized organization (stock exchange) with standardized procedures.
• Over-the-Counter Market is a decentralized market (outside the stock exchange) with customized procedures.

[OR]

(b) Explain the various functions of management.
Main Functions:
(i) Planning:- Planning is the primary function of management. Planning is a constructive reviewing of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.

(ii) Organising:- Organising is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members of an organisation and the creation of network of relationship among them.

(iii) Staffing:- Staffing function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.

(iv) Directing:- Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding and communicating with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.

(v) Controlling:- Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions.

(vi) Co-ordination:- Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities.

(vii) Motivating:- The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.

Subsidiary Functions:

• Innovation:- Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.
• Representation:- A manager has to act as representative of a company. It is the duty of every manager to have good relation with others.
• Decision-making:- Every employee of an organisation has to take a number of decisions every day. Decision-making helps in the smooth functioning of an organisation.
• Communication:- Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Communication helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Physics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever: applicable
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – 1

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
When the current changes from +2A to -2A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The co-efficient of self-induction of the coil is
(a) 0.2 H
(b) 0.4 H
(c) 0.8 H
(d) 0.1 H
Answer:
(d) 0.1 H

Question 2.
If λ_v , λ_x, λ_m, represent the wavelength of visible light, X-rays and microwaves, respectively, then
(a) λ_m > λ_v > λ_x
(b) λ_m > λ_x > λ_v
(c) λ_v > λ_m > λ_x
(d) λ_v > λ_x > λ_m
Answer:
(a) λ_m > λ_v > λ_x

Question 3.
The materials used in Robotics are:
(a) Aluminium and silver
(b) silver and gold
(c) Copper and gold
(d) Steel and aluminium
Answer:
(d) Steel and aluminium

Question 4.
Two wires of A and B with circular cross-section are made up of the same material with equal lengths. If R_A = 3R_B, then what is the ratio of radius of wire A to that of B?
(a) 3
(b) √3
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 5.
The frequency range of 3 MHz to 30 MHz is used for
(a) Ground wave propagation
(b) Space wave propagation
(c) Sky wave propagation
(d) Satellite communication
Answer:
(c) Sky wave propagation

Question 6.
A ray of light strikes a glass plate at an angle 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the glass is,
(a) √3
(b) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{2}}\)
(d) 2
Hint. Angle of refraction r = 60° ; Angle of incident i = 30°
sin i = n × sin r
n = \(\frac{\sin 30^{\circ}}{\sin 60^{\circ}}=\sqrt{3}\)
Answer:
(a) √3

Question 7.
If voltage applied on a capacitor is increased from V to 2V choose the correct conclusion
(a) Q remains the same, C is doubled
(b) Q is doubled, C doubled
(c) C remains same, Q doubled
(d) Both Q and C remain same
Answer:
(c) C remains same, Q doubled

Question 8.
The nucleus is approximately spherical in shape. Then the surface area of the nucleus having mass number A varies as
(a) A^2/3
(b) A^4/3
(c) A^1/3
(d) A^5/3
Hint. Volume of nucleus is proportional to mass number 4
\(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) π R³ ∝ A : R = R₀ A^1/3
So, 4 π R² = R₀ A^2/3 ⇒ 4 π R² ∝ A^2/3
Surface area is proportional to (mass number)23
Answer:
(a) A^2/3

Question 9.
The given electrical network is equivalent to

(a) AND gate
(b) OR gate
(c) NOR gate
(d) NOT gate
Answer:
(c) NOR gate

Question 10.
A wire of length / carries a current I along the Y direction and magnetic field is given by \(\vec{B}\) = \(\frac{\beta}{\sqrt{3}}\)(i +j +k)T- The magnitude of Lorentz force acting on the wire is
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}} \beta I l\)
(b) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}} \beta \mathrm{Il}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{2} \beta \mathrm{Il}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{2}} \beta \mathrm{Il}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}} \beta I l\)

Question 11.
When a point charge of 6 pC is moved between two points in an electric field, the work done is 1.8 × 10^-5 J. This potential difference between the two points is :
(a) 1.08 V
(b) 1.08 μV
(c) 3 V
(d) 30 V

\(=\frac{1.8 \times 10^{-5}}{6 \times 10^{-6}}=\frac{18}{6}\)
V = 3V
Answer:
(c) 3 V

Question 12.
The wavelength λ_e of an electron and λ_p of a photon of same energy E are related by
(a) λ_p ∝ λ_e
(b) λ_p ∝ \(\sqrt{\lambda_{e}}\)
(c) λ_p ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\lambda_{e}}}\)
(d) λ_p ∝ λ_e²
Hint:
de-Breglie wavelength of proton λ_e = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{E}}}\)
∴ ie λ_e ∝ \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\mathrm{E}}}\) ⇒ λ_e² ∝ \(\frac{1}{E}\) …….. (1)
de-Breglie wave length of proton
λ_p = \(\frac{h c}{E}\)
λ_p ∝ \(\frac{1}{E}\) …….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
λ_e² ∝ λ_p i.e., λ_p ∝ λ_e²
Answer:
(d) λ_p ∝ λ_e²

Question 13.
For a myopic eye, the defect is cured by using a:
(a) convex lens
(b) concave lens
(c) cylindrical lens
(d) plane glass
Answer:
(b) concave lens

Question 14.
In a tangent galvanometer experiment, for two different values of current if the deflection are 45° and 30° respectively, then the ratio of the current is:
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 3 : 2
(c) √3 : 1
(d) 1 : √3
Hint: I₁ = tan θ₁
I₂ = tan θ₂
\(\frac{I_{1}}{I_{2}}=\frac{\tan 45^{\circ}}{\tan 30^{\circ}}=\frac{1}{\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{1}\)
Answer:
(c) √3 : 1

Question 15.
If the current gain a of a transistor is 0.98, what is the value of p of the transistor?
(a) 0.49
(b) 49
(c) 4.9
(d) 5
Hint: \(\beta=\frac{\alpha}{1-\alpha}=\frac{0.98}{1-0.98}=49\)
Answer:
(b) 49

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No 24 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What is meant by Fraunhofer lines?
Answer:
When the spectrum obtained from the Sun is examined, it consists of large number of dark lines (line absorption spectrum). These dark lines in the solar spectrum are known as Fraunhofer lines.

Question 17.
Why steel is preferred in making Robots?
Answer:
Steel is several time stronger. In any case, because of the inherent strength of metal, robot bodies are made using sheet, bar, rod, channel, and other shapes.

Question 18.
State Lenz’s law.
Answer:
Lenz’s law states that the direction of the induced current is such that it always opposes the cause responsible for its production.

Question 19.
Why do clouds appear white?
Answer:
Clouds have large particles like dust and water droplets which scatter light of all colours almost equally. Hence clouds generally appear white.

Question 20.
Calculate the radius of ¹⁹⁷₇₉Au nucleus.
Answer:
According to the equation R = R₀A^1/3
R = 1.2 × 10^-15 × (197)^1/3 = 6.97 × 10^-15 m (or) R = 6.97 F

Question 21.
What is the need for a feedback circuit in a transistor oscillator?
Answer:
The circuit used to feedback a portion of the output to the input is called the feedback network. If the portion of the output fed to the input is in phase with the input, then the magnitude of the input signal increases. It is necessary for sustained oscillations.

Question 22.
Show graphically the variation of electric held £ (y-axis) due to a charged infinite plane sheet with distance r (x-axis) from the plate.
Answer:
It independent of the distance. It straight line parallel to x-axis.

Question 23.
Give any two applications of internet.
(i) Search engine: The search engine is basically a web-based service tool used to search for information on World Wide Web.

(ii) Communication: It helps millions of people to connect with the use of social networking: emails, instant messaging services and social networking tools.

(iii) E-Commerce: Buying and selling of goods and services, transfer of funds are done over an electronic network.

Question 24.
Calculate the magnetic field inside a solenoid when the number of turns is halved and the length of the solenoid and the area remain the same.
Answer:
Magnetic field inside a solenoid is B = \(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{NI}}{\mathrm{L}}\)
If the number of turns is havled B’ = \(\mathrm{B}^{\prime}=\frac{\mu_{0}\left(\frac{\mathrm{N}}{2}\right) \mathrm{I}}{\mathrm{L}} \Rightarrow \mathrm{B}^{\prime}=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\mu_{0} \mathrm{NI}}{\mathrm{L}}\right)\)

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q.No. 33 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Two cells each of 5V are connected in series across a 8 12 resistor and three parallel resistors of 4 12, 6 12 and 12 12. Draw a circuit diagram for the above arrangement calculate
(i) the current drawn from the cell
(ii) current through each resistor.
Answer:
V₁ = 5 V; V₂ = 5 v
R₁ = 8 Ω; R₂ = 4Ω; R₃ = 6Ω; R₄ = 12Ω
Three resistors R₂, R₃ and R₄ are connected parallel combination

\(\frac{1}{R_{p}}=\frac{1}{R_{2}}+\frac{1}{R_{3}}+\frac{1}{R_{4}}\)
\(=\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{6}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{3}{12}+\frac{2}{12}+\frac{1}{12}=\frac{6}{12}\)
R_p = 2Ω
Resistors R₁ and R_p are connected in series combination
R_s = R₁ + R_p = 8 + 2 = 10
R₂ = 10Ω
Total voltage connected series to the circuit
V = V₁ + V₂
= 5 + 5 =10
V = 10V

(i) Current through the circuit, I = \(\frac{V}{R_{s}}=\frac{10}{10}\)
I = IA
Potential drop across the parallel combination,
V’ = I R_p = 1 × 2 .
V’ = 2 V

(ii) Current in 4Ω resistor, I = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{R_{2}}=\frac{2}{4}\) = 0.5 A
Current in 6Ω resistor, I = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{R_{3}}=\frac{2}{6}\) = 0.33 A.
Current in 12Ω resistor, I = \(\frac{V^{\prime}}{R_{4}}=\frac{2}{12}\) = 0.17 A

Question 26.
Explain the various energy losses in a transformer.
Answer:
Energy losses in a’ transformer: Transformers do not have any moving parts so that its efficiency is much higher than that of rotating machines like generators and motors. But there are many factors which lead to energy loss in a transformer.

1. Core loss or Iron loss: This loss takes place in transformer core. Hysteresis loss and eddy current loss are known as core loss or Iron loss. When transformer core is magnetized and demagnetized repeatedly by the alternating voltage applied across primary coil, hysteresis takes place due to which some energy is lost in the form of heat. Hysteresis loss is minimized by using steel of high silicon content in making transformer core. Alternating magnetic flux in the core induces eddy currents in it. Therefore there is energy loss due to the flow of eddy current, called eddy current loss which is minimized by using very thin laminations of transformer core.

2. Copper loss: Transformer windings have electrical resistance. When an electric current flows through them, some amount of energy is dissipated due to Joule heating. This energy loss is called copper loss which is minimized by using wires of larger diameter.

3. Flux leakage: Flux leakage happens when the magnetic lines of primary coil are not completely linked with secondary coil. Energy loss due to this flux leakage is minimized by winding coils one over the other.

Question 27.
Discuss the alpha – decay process with example.
Answer:
When unstable nuclei decay by emitting an α-particle (⁴₂He nucleus), it loses two protons and two neutrons. As a result, its atomic number Z decreases by 2, the mass number decreases by 4. We write the alpha decay process symbolically in the following way

Here X is called the parent nucleus and Y is called the daughter nucleus.
Example: Decay of Uranium ²³⁸₉₂U to thorium ²³⁴₉₀Th with the emission of ⁴₂He nucleus (α-particle)
²³⁸₉₂U → ²³⁴₉₀Th + ⁴₂He
As already mentioned, the total mass of the daughter nucleus and 2 He nucleus is always less than that of the parent nucleus. The difference in mass ( Δm = m_x – m_y m_α) is released as energy called disintegration energy Q and is given by
Q = (m_x – m_y – m_α) c²
Note that for spontaneous decay (natural radioactivity) Q > 0. In alpha decay process, the disintegration energy is certainly positive (Q > 0). In fact, the disintegration energy Q is also the net kinetic energy gained in the decay process or if the parent nucleus is at rest, Q is the total kinetic energy of daughter nucleus and the ⁴₂He nucleus. Suppose Q < 0, then the decay process cannot occur spontaneously and energy must be supplied to induce the decay.

Question 28.
Obtain the expression for energy stored in the parallel plate capacitor.
Answer:
Energy stored in the capacitor: Capacitor not only stores the charge but also it stores energy. When a battery is connected to the capacitor, electrons of total charge -Q are transferred from one plate to the other plate. To transfer the charge, work is done by the battery. This work done is stored as electrostatic potential energy in the capacitor.
To transfer an infinitesimal charge dQ for a potential difference V, the work done is given by
dW = VdQ ….(1)
Where V = \(\frac{Q}{C}\)
The total work done to charge a capacitor is
W = \(\int_{0}^{0} \frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\mathrm{C}} d \mathrm{Q}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}\) ….. (2)
This work done is stored as electrostatic potential energy (U_E) in the capacitor.
U_E = \(\frac{\mathrm{Q}^{2}}{2 \mathrm{C}}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{CV}^{2}\) (∴Q = CV) …… (3)
where Q = CV is used. This stored energy is thus directly proportional to the capacitance of the capacitor and the square of the voltage between the plates of the capacitor. But where is this energy stored in the capacitor? To understand this question, the equation (3) is rewritten as follows using the results
C = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} A}{d}\) and V = Ed
U_E = \(\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{A}}{d}\right)(\mathrm{E} d)^{2}=\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{0}(\mathrm{A} d) \mathrm{E}^{2}\) …… (4)
where Ad = volume of the space between the capacitor plates. The energy stored per unit Volume of space is defined as energy density u_E = \(\frac{\mathrm{U}}{\text { Volume }}\) From equation (4) we get
U_E = \(\frac{1}{2} \varepsilon_{0} \mathrm{E}^{2}\) ……. (5)
From equation (5), we infer that the energy is stored in the electric field existing between the plates of the capacitor. Once the capacitor is allowed to discharge, the energy is retrieved.

Question 29.
Explain any three recent advancements in medical technology.
Answer:
1. Virtual reality:
Medical virtual reality is effectively used to stop the brain from processing pain and cure soreness in the hospitalized patients. Virtual reality has enhanced surgeries by the use of 3D models by surgeons to plan operations. It helps in the treatment of Autism, Memory loss, and Mental illness.

2. Precision medicine:
Precision medicine is an emerging approach for disease treatment and prevention that takes into account individual variability in genes, environment, and lifestyle for each person. In this medical model it is possible to customise healthcare, with medical decisions, treatments, practices, or products which are tailored to the individual patient.

3. Health wearables:
A health wearable is a device used for tracking a wearer’s vital signs or health and fitness related data, location, etc. Medical wearables with artificial intelligence and big data provide an added value to healthcare with a focus on diagnosis, treatment, patient monitoring and prevention.
Note: Big Data: Extremely large data sets that may be analysed computationally to reveal patterns, trends, and associations, especially relating to human behaviour and interactions.

Question 30.
Two light sources with amplitudes 5 units and 3 units respectively interfere with each other. Calculate the ratio of maximum and minimum intensities.
Answer:
Amplitudes, a₁ = 5, a₂ = 3
Resultant amplitude, A = \(\sqrt{a_{1}^{2}+a_{2}^{2}+2 a_{1} a_{2} \cos \phi}\)
Resultant amplitude is maximum when,
Φ = 0, cos 0 = 1, A_max = \(\sqrt{a_{1}^{2}+a_{2}^{2}+2 a_{1} a_{2}}\)
A_max = \(\sqrt{\left(a_{1}+a_{2}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{(5+3)^{2}}=\sqrt{(8)^{2}}\) = 8 units
Resultant amplitude is minimum when, Φ = π, cos π = -1, A_max = \(\sqrt{a_{1}^{2}+a_{2}^{2}-2 a_{1} a_{2}}\)
A_min = \(\sqrt{\left(a_{1}-a_{2}\right)^{2}}=\sqrt{(5-3)^{2}}=\sqrt{(2)^{2}}\) = 2 units
I ∝ A²
\(\frac{I_{\max }}{I_{\min }}=\frac{\left(A_{\max }\right)^{2}}{\left(A_{\min }\right)^{2}}\)
Substituting, \(\frac{I_{\max }}{I_{\min }}=\frac{(8)^{2}}{(2)^{2}}=\frac{64}{4}=16\) (or) I_max : I_min = 16 : 1

Question 31.
An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v it produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. Prove that the radius of the circle is proportional to \(\sqrt{\frac{v}{\mathbf{B}}}\)
Answer:
The magnetic field produce by moving electron in circular path.

Question 32.
Give the construction and working of photo emissive cell.
Answer:

Photo emissive cell:
Its working depends on the electron emission from a metal cathode due to irradiation of light or other radiations.
Construction:

• It consists of an evacuated glass or quartz bulb in which two metallic electrodes – that is, a cathode and an anode are fixed.
• The cathode C is semi-cylindrical in shape and is coated with a photo sensitive material. The anode A is a thin rod or wire kept along the axis of the semi-cylindrical cathode.
• A potential difference is applied between the anode and the cathode through a galvanometer G.

Working:

• When cathode is illuminated, electrons are emitted from it. These electrons are attracted by anode and hence a current is produced which is measured by the galvanometer.
• For a given cathode, the magnitude of the current depends on
  • the intensity to incident radiation and
  • the potential difference between anode and cathode.

Question 33.
In the circuit shown in the figure the input voltage V₁ = +5 V, V_BE = + 0.8 V and V_CE = + 0.12 V_CE. Find the values of I_B, I_C and β.
Answer:

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Obtain the expression for electric field due to an uniformly charged spherical shell at a distance its centre.
Answer:
Electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell: Consider a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius R and total charge Q. The electric field at points outside and inside the sphere is found using Gauss law.

Case (a) At a point outside the shell (r > R): Let us choose a point P outside the shell at a distance r from the center as shown in figure (a). The charge is uniformly distributed on the surface of the sphere (spherical symmetry). Hence the electric field must point radially outward if Q > 0 and point radially inward if Q < 0. So we choose a spherical Gaussian surface of radius r and the total charge enclosed by this Gaussian surface is Q. Applying Gauss law,
\(\oint \overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}} \cdot d \overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}=\frac{\mathrm{Q}}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) …(1)

The electric field \(\vec{E}\) and \(d \vec{A}\) point in the same direction (outward normal) at all the points on the Gaussian surface. The magnitude of \(\vec{E}\) is also the same at all points due to the spherical symmetry of the charge distribution.


Substituting this value in equation (2).
E.4πr² = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\)
E.4πr² = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) (or) E = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Q}{r^{2}}\)
In vector form \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{\mathrm{Q}}{r^{2}} \hat{r}\)

The electric field is radially outward if Q > 0 and radially inward if Q < 0. From equation (3), we infer that the electric field at a point outside the shell will be same as if the entire charge Q is concentrated at the center of the spherical shell. (A similar result is observed in gravitation, for gravitational force due to a spherical shell with mass M)

Case (b): At a point on the surface of the spherical shell (r = R): The electrical field at points on the spherical shell (r = R) is given by
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{E}}=\frac{Q}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0} R^{2}} \hat{r}\) …… (4)

Case (c) At a point inside the spherical shell (r < R): Consider a point P inside the shell at a distance r from the center. A Gaussian sphere of radius r is constructed as shown in the figure (b). Applying Gauss law

E.4πr² = \(\frac{Q}{\varepsilon_{0}}\) ….. (5)
Since Gaussian surface encloses no charge, So Q = 0. The equation (5) becomes
E = 0 (r < R) …….. (6)
The electric field due to the uniformly charged spherical shell is zero at all points inside the shell.

[OR]

Question 34.
(b) Write any five properties of electromagnetic waves.
Answer
Properties of electromagnetic waves:

1. Electromagnetic waves are produced by any accelerated charge.
2. Electromagnetic waves do not require any medium for propagation. So electromagnetic wave is a non-mechanical wave.
3. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature. This means that the oscillating electric field vector, oscillating magnetic field vector and propagation vector (gives direction of propagation) are mutually perpendicular to each other.
4. Electromagnetic waves travel with speed which is equal to the speed of light in vacuum, or freer space, c = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{\varepsilon_{0} \mu_{0}}}\) = 3 × 10⁸ ms^-1
5. The speed of electromagnetic wave is less than speed in free space or vacuum, that is, v < c. In a medium of refractive index,

Question 35.
(a) What is modulation? Explain the types of modulation with necessary diagrams.
Answer:
Modulation: For long distance transmission, the low frequency baseband signal (input signal) is superimposed onto a high frequency radio signal by a process called modulation.
There are 3 types of modulation based on which parameter is modified. They are
(i) Amplitude modulation,
(ii) Frequency modulation, and
(iii) Phase modulation.

(i) Amplitude Modulation (AM):
If the amplitude of the carrier signal is modified according to the instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal, then it is called amplitude modulation. Here the frequency and the phase of the carrier signal remain constant. Amplitude modulation is used in radio and TV broadcasting.

The signal shown in figure (a) is the message signal or baseband signal that carries information, figure (b) shows the high frequency carrier signal and figure (c) gives the amplitude modulated signal. We can see clearly that the carrier wave is modified in proportion to the amplitude of the baseband signal.
Amplitude Modulation

(ii) Frequency Modulation (FM):
The frequency of the camer signal is modified according to the instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal in frequency modulation. Here the amplitude and the phase of the carrier signal remain constant. Increase in the amplitude of the baseband signal increases the frequency of the carrier signal and vice versa. This leads to compressions and rarefactions in the frequency spectrum of the modulated wave. Louder signal leads to compressions and relatively weaker signals to rarefactions. When the amplitude of the baseband signal is zero in Figure (a), the frequency of the modulated signal is the same as the carrier signal. The frequency of the modulated wave increases when the amplitude of the baseband signal increases in the positive direction
(A, C). The increase in amplitude in the negative half cycle (B,D) reduces the frequency of the modulated wave (figure (c)).

(iii) Phase Modulation (PM):
The instantaneous amplitude of the baseband signal modifies the phase of the camer signal keeping the amplitude and frequency constant is called phase modulation. This modulation is used to generate frequency modulated signals. It is similar to frequency modulation except that the phase of the carrier is varied instead of varying frequency. The carrier phase changes according to increase or decrease in the amplitude of the baseband signal. When the modulating signal goes positive, the amount of phase
lead increases with the amplitude of the modulating signal. Due to this, the carrier signal is compressed or its frequency is increased.

On the other hand, the negative half cycle of the baseband signal produces a phase lag in the carrier signal. This appears to have stretched the frequency of the carrier wave. Hence similar to frequency modulated wave, phase modulated wave also comprises of
compressions and rarefactions. When the signal voltage is zero (A, C and E) the carrier frequency is unchanged.

[OR]

Question 35.
(b) Find the expression for the mutual inductance between a pair of coils and show that (M₁₂ = M₂₁).
Answer:
Mutual induction: When an electric current passing through a coil changes with time, an emf is induced in the neighbouring coil. This phenomenon is known as mutual induction and the emf is called mutually induced emf.

Consider two coils which are placed close to each other. If an electric current q is sent through coil i₁ the magnetic field produced by it is also linked with coil 2.
Let Φ₂₁ be the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the coil 2 of N₂ turns due to coil 1, then the total flux linked with coil 2 (N₂Φ₂₁) is proportional to the current i₁ in the coil 1.
N₂Φ₂₁ ∝ i₁
N₂Φ₂₁ = M₂₁i₁ or M₂₁ = \(\frac{N_{2} \Phi_{21}}{i_{1}}\)
The constant of proportionality M₂₁ is the mutual inductance of the coil 2 with respect to coil 1. It is also called as coefficient of mutual induction. If i₁ = 1 A, then M₂₁ = N₂Φ₂₁.
Therefore, the mutual inductance M₂₁ is defined as the flux linkage of the coil 2 when 1A current flows through coil 1.
When the current i₁ changes with time, an emf ξ₂ is induced in coil 2. From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction, this mutually induced emf ξ₂₁ is given by

The negative sign in the above equation shows that the mutually induced emf always opposes the change in current with respect to time. If \(\frac{d i_{1}}{d t}\) = 1 As^-1, then M₂₁ = -ξ₂.
Mutual inductance M₂₁ is also defined as the opposing emf induced in the coil 2 when the rate of change of current through the coil I is l As^-1.
Similarly, if an electric current i₂ through coil 2 changes with time, then emf ξ₁ is induced in coil 1. Therefore, N

where M₁₂ is the mutual inductance of the coil I with respect to coil 2. It can be shown that for a given pair of coils, the mutual inductance is same. i.e., M₂₁ = M₁₂ = M.
In general, the mutual induction between two coils depends on size, shape, the number of turns of the coils, their relative orientation and permeability of the medium.

Question 36.
(a) Derive the expression for the radius of the orbit of the electron and its velocity using Bohr atom model.
Answer:
Radius of the orbit of the electron and velocity of the electron:
Consider an atom which contains the nucleus at rest and an electron revolving around the nucleus in a circular orbit of radius rn as shown in figure. Nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons. Since proton is positively charged and neutron is electrically neutral, the charge of a nucleus is purely the total charge of protons.

Let Z be the atomic number of the atom, then +Ze is the charge of the nucleus. Let -e be the charge of the electron. From Coulomb’s law, the force of attraction between the nucleus and the electron is

\(\vec{F}\)_coloumb = \(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{(+\mathrm{Ze})(\mathrm{e})}{\mathrm{r}_{\mathrm{n}}^{2}} \hat{\mathrm{r}}\)
\(=-\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}} \hat{r}\)
This force provides necessary centripetal force
\(\vec{F}\)_centripetal = \(\frac{m v_{n}^{2}}{r_{n}} \hat{r}\)
where m be the mass of the electron that moves with a velocity DW in a circular orbit. Therefore,
|\(\vec{F}\)_coloumb| = |\(\vec{F}\)_centripetal|
\(\frac{1}{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}} \frac{Z e^{2}}{r_{n}^{2}}=\frac{m v_{n}^{2}}{r_{n}}\)
r_n = \(\frac{4 \pi \varepsilon_{0}\left(m \mathrm{v}_{n} r_{n}\right) 2}{Z m e^{2}}\) ……. (1)
From Bohr’s assumption, the angular momentum quantization condition mυ_nr_n = l_n = n_n


where n ∈ N . Since, ε₀, h, e and n are constants. Therefore, the radius of the orbit becomes
r_n = a₀\(\frac{n^{2}}{Z}\)
Where a₀ = \(\frac{\varepsilon_{0} h^{2}}{\pi m e^{2}}\) = 0.529Å. This is known as Bohr radius which is the smallest radius of the orbit in an atom. Bohr radius is also used as unit of length called Bohr. 1 Bohr = 0.53 Å. For hydrogen atom (Z = 1), the radius of n^th orbit is
r_n = a₀n²
For the first orbit (ground state),
r₁ = a₀ = 0.529 Å
For the second orbit (first excited state),
r₂ = 4a₀ = 2.116 Å
For the third orbit (second excited state),
r₃ = 9a₀ = 4.761 Å and so on.
Thus the radius of the orbit from centre increases with n, that is, r_n ∝ c n² as shown in figure. Further, Bohr’s angular momentum quantization condition leads to
mυ_nr_n = mυ_na₀n² = n\(\frac{h}{2 \pi}\)
υ_n = \(\frac{h}{2 \pi m a_{0}} \frac{Z}{n}\)
υ_n ∝ \(\frac{1}{n}\)
Note that the velocity of electron decreases as the principal quantum number increases as shown in figure. This curve is the rectangular hyperbola. This implies that the velocity of electron in ground state is maximum when compared to excited states.

[OR]

Question 36.
(b) Discuss the working and theory of cyclotron in detail.
Answer:

Cyclotron: Cyclotron is a device used to accelerate the charged particles to gain large kinetic energy. It is also called as high energy accelerator. It was invented by Lawrence and Livingston in 1934.

Principle: When a charged particle moves normal to the magnetic field, it experiences magnetic Lorentz force.

Construction:The particles are allowed to move in between two semicircular metal containers called Dees (hollow D – shaped objects). Dees are enclosed in an evacuated chamber and it is kept in a region with uniform magnetic field controlled by an electromagnet. The direction of magnetic field is normal to the plane of the Dees. The two Dees are kept separated with a gap and the source S (which ejects the particle to be accelerated) is placed at the center in the gap between the Dees. Dees are connected to high frequency alternating potential difference.

Working: Let us assume that the ion ejected from source S is positively charged. As soon as ion is ejected, it is accelerated towards a Dee (say, Dee – 1) which has negative potential at that time. Since the magnetic field is normal to the plane of the Dees, the ion undergoes circular path. After one semi-circular path in Dee-1, the ion reaches the gap between Dees. At this time, the polarities of the Dees are reversed so that the ion is now accelerated towards Dee-2 with a greater velocity. For this circular motion, the centripetal force of the charged particle q is provided by Lorentz force.
\(\frac{m v^{2}}{r}\) = qv B ⇒ r = \(\frac{m}{q \mathrm{B}} v\) ⇒ r ∝ v
From the equation, the increase in velocity increases the radius of circular path. This process continues and hence the particle undergoes spiral path of increasing radius. Once it reaches near the edge, it is taken out with the help of deflector plate and allowed to hit the target T. Very important condition in cyclotron operation is the resonance condition. It happens when the frequency f at which the positive ion circulates in the magnetic field must be equal to the constant frequency of the electrical oscillator f_osc From equation
f_osc = \(\frac{q \mathbf{B}}{2 \pi m} \Rightarrow \mathrm{T}=\frac{1}{f_{\mathrm{osc}}}\)
The time period of oscillation is T = \(\frac{2 \pi m}{q B}\)
The kinetic energy of the charged particle is K E = \(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}=\frac{q^{2} \mathbf{B}^{2} r^{2}}{2 m}\)
Limitations of cyclotron
(a) the speed of the ion is limited
(b) electron cannot be accelerated
(c) uncharged particles cannot be accelerated

Question 37.
(a) Obtain lens maker’s formula and mention its significance.
Answer:
Lens maker’s formula and lens equation: Let us consider a thin lens made up of a medium of refractive index n₂ is placed in a medium of refractive index n₁ . Let R₁ and R₂ be the radii of curvature of two spherical surfaces (1) and (2) respectively and P be the pole. Consider a point object O on the principal axis. The ray which falls very close to P, after refraction at the surface (1) forms image at I’. Before it does so, it is again refracted by the surface (2). Therefore the final image is formed at I. The general equation for the refraction at a spherical surface is given by

For the refracting surface (1), the light goes from to n₁ to n₂

If the object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus of the lens. Thus, for u = oo, v =/ Then the equation becomes.

If the refractive index of the lens is n₂ and it is placed in air, then n₂ = n and n₁ = 1. So the equation (4) becomes,
\(\frac{1}{f}=(n-1)\left(\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{1}}-\frac{1}{\mathrm{R}_{2}}\right)\)

The above equation is called the lens maker’s formula, because it tells the lens manufactures what curvature is needed to make a lens of desired focal length with a material of particular refractive index. This formula holds good also for a concave lens. By comparing the equations (3) and (4) we can write,
\(\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}=\frac{1}{f}\) ……… (6)
This equation is known as lens equation which relates the object distance it and image distance v with the focal length / of the lens. This formula holds good for a any type of lens.

Question 37.
(b) Explain the construction and working of a full wave rectifier.
Answer:
Full wave rectifier:
The positive and negative half cycles of the AC input signal pass through the full wave rectifier circuit and hence it is called the full wave rectifier. It consists of two p-n junction diodes, a center tapped transfonner, and a load resistor (RL). The centre is usually taken as the ground or zero voltage reference point. Due to the centre tap transformer, the output voltage rectified by each diode is only one half of the total secondary voltage.

During positive half cycle:
When the positive half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal M is positive, G’ is at zero potential and N is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D₁ and reverse biases diode D₂ Hence, being forward biased, diode D₁ conducts and current flows along the path MD₁ AGC . As a result, positive half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the direction G to C.

During negative half cycle:
When the negative half cycle of the ac input signal passes through the circuit, terminal N is positive, G is at zero potential and M is at negative potential. This forward biases diode D₂ and reverse biases diode D₁. Hence, being forward biased, diode D₂ conducts and current flows along the path ND₂ BGC . As a result, negative half cycle of the voltage appears across R_L in the same direction from G to C

Hence in a full wave rectifier both positive and negative half cycles of the input signal pass through the circuit in the same direction as shown in figure (b). Though both positive and negative half cycles of ac input are rectified, the output is still pulsating in nature.

The efficiency ( η) of full wave rectifier is twice that of a half wave rectifier and is found to be 81.2 %. It is because both the positive and negative half cycles of the ac input source are rectified.

Question 38.
(a) (i) Derive the expression for the de Broglie wavelength of an electron.
Answer:
An electron of mass m is accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron is given by
\(\frac{1}{2} m v^{2}\) = eV
Therefore, the speed v of the electron is v = \(\sqrt{\frac{2 e \mathrm{V}}{m}}\)
Hence, the de Broglie wavelength of the electron is λ = \(\frac{h}{m v}=\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 e m \mathrm{V}}}\)
Substituting the known values in the above equation, we get

For example, if an electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 100V, then its de Broglie wavelength is 1.227 Å . Since the kinetic energy of the electron, K = eV, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with electron can be also written as
λ = \(\frac{h}{\sqrt{2 m \mathrm{K}}}\)

(ii) An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 81V. What is the de Broglie wavelength associated with it? To which part of the electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength correspond?
de-Broglie wavelength of an electron beam accelerated through a potential difference of V volts is

X-ray is the part of electromagnetic spectrum does this wavelength corresponds. X-ray has the wavelengths ranging from about 10^-8 to 10^-12 m.

[OR]

Question 38.
(b) (i) How will you measure the internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer?
Answer:
Measurement of internal resistance of a cell by potentiometer:
To measure the internal resistance of a cell, the circuit connections are made as shown in figure. The end C of the potentiometer wire is connected to the positive terminal of the battery Bt and the negative terminal of the battery is connected to the end D through a key K₁ This forms the primary circuit.

The positive terminal of the cell ξ whose internal resistance is to be determined is also connected to the end C of the wire. The negative terminal of the cell ξ is connected to a jockey through a galvanometer and a high resistance. A resistance box R and key K₂ are connected across the cell ξ. With K₂ open, the balancing point J is obtained and the balancing length CJ = l₁ is measured. Since the cell is in open circuit, its emf is
ξ ∝ l₁ ….. (1)
A suitable resistance (say, 10 H) is included in the resistance box and key K₂ is closed.
Let r be the internal resistance of the cell. The current passing through the cell and the resistance R is given by
I = \(\frac{\xi}{R+r}\)
The potential difference across R is
V = \(\frac{\xi R}{R+r}\)
When this potential difference is balanced on the potentiometer wire, let /2 be the balancing length.
Then \(\frac{\xi R}{R+r} \propto l_{2}\) ….. (2)
From equations (1) and (2)

Substituting the values of the R, l₁ and l₂, the internal resistance of the cell is determined. The experiment can be repeated for different values of R. It is found that the internal resistance of the cell is not constant but increases with increase of external resistance connected across its terminals.

(ii) A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A through a 1Ω resistor and a current of 0.3 A through a 2 Ω resistor. Calculate the internal resistance of the cell.
Current from the cell 1,I₁, = 0.9 A and Resistor, R₁ = 1Ω
Current from the cell 2,I₂ = 0.3 A and Resistor, R₂ = 2Ω
Current in the circuit, I₁ = \(\frac{\xi}{r+R_{1}}\)
ξ = I₁r + I₁R₁ ….. (1)
Current in the circuit, I₂ = \(\frac{\xi}{r+R_{2}}\)
ξ = I₂r + I₂R₂ ….. (2)
From equation (1) and (2),

|r| = |-0.5| Ω
Magnitude of internal resistance r = 0.5 Ω

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts. Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to 14 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Inner most layer of anther wall is _________.
(a) Endothecium
(b) Endothelium
(c) Epithelium
(d) Tapetum
Answer:
(d) Tapetum

Question 2.
Test cross involves ______.
(a) Crossing between two genotypes with recessive trait
(b) Crossing between two F₁ hybrids
(c) Crossing between F₁ hybrid with double recessive genotype
(d) Crossing between two genotypes with dominant trait
Answer:
(c) Crossing between F₁ hybrid with double recessive genotype

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Gamma rays are generally used to induce mutation in wheat varieties.
Reason (R): Because they carry lower energy to non-ionize electrons from atom.
(a) A is correct. R is correct explanation of A.
(b) A is correct. R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct. R is wrong explanation of A
(d) A and R are wrong.
Answer:
(c) A is correct. R is wrong explanation of A

Question 4.
Self-ligation is prevented by ________.
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) Helicase
(c) Alkaline phosphate
(d) DNA lipase
Answer:
(c) Alkaline phosphate

Question 5.
Match the following:


Answer:
(a) 1- C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B

Question 6.
A Specific place in an ecosystem, where an organism lives and performs its functions is ______.
(a) habitat
(b) niche
(c) landscape
(d) biome
Answer:
(b) niche

Question 7.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Endemism – Species confined to a given region and not found anywhere else.
(b) Hotspots – Western ghats
(c) Ex-situ conservation – Zoological parks
(d) Sacred groves – Saintri hills of Rajasthan
(e) Alien species of India – Water hyacinth
Answer:
(d) Sacred groves – Saintri hills of Rajasthan

Question 8.
The plant source of Marijuana is ______.
(a) Andrographis paniculata
(b) Phyllanthus maderspatesis
(c) Cannabis sativa
(d) Papaver somniferum
Answer:
(c) Cannabis sativa

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
‘Pollination in Gymnosperms in different from Angiosperms’ – Give reasons.
Answer:
In gymnosperms, the ovules are exposed and the pollens are deposited directly on it. Hence the pollination is direct in gymnosperm. Whereas in angiosperms it is said to be indirect, as the pollens are deposited on stigma or the pistil.

Question 10.
A B C C B D E F G H I
From the above figure identify the type of mutation and explain it.
Answer:
In reverse tandem duplication, the duplicated segment is located immediately after the normal segment but the gene sequence other will be reversed.

Question 11.
Write the various steps involved in cell suspension culture.
Answer:
Step 1: Growing of cells/callus in medium (single or aggregates)
Step 2: Transfer of callus to a liquid medium
Step 3: Agitation of callus using rotary shaker
Step 4: Filtration and separation of cells.

Question 12.
Pyramid of energy is always upright. Give reasons.
Answer:
The energy pyramid represents a successive energy flow at each trophic level in an ecosystem. There is a gradual decrease in energy transfer at successive tropic levels from producers to higher levels, hence the pyramid of energy is always upright.

Question 13.
Write in brief about Atomic Garden.
Answer:
Atomic Garden: Is a form of mutation breeding where plants are exposed to radioactive sources typically cobalt-60 or caesium-137 in order to generate desirable mutation in crop plants.

Question 14.
Explain the law of dominance in monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Law of dominance states that the offsprings of an individual with contrasting (dissimilar) traits will only express the dominant trait in F₁ generation and both the characters are expressed in F₁ generation. This law also explains the proportion of 3 : 1 ratio in F₂ generation.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Give an account on cytoplasmic inheritance
Answer:
DNA is the universal genetic material. Genes located in nuclear chromosomes follow Mendelian inheritance. But certain traits are governed either by the chloroplast or mitochondrial genes. This phenomenon is known as extra nuclear inheritance. It is a kind of Non-Mendelian inheritance. Since it involves cytoplasmic organelles such as chloroplast and mitochondrion that act as inheritance vectors, it is also called Cytoplasmic inheritance.

Question 16.
How will you identify a vector?
Answer:

1. Vectors are able to replicate autonomously to produce multiple copies of them along with their DNA insert in the host cell.
2. It should be small in size and of low molecular weight, less than 10 Kb (kilo base pair) in size so that entry/transfer into host cell is easy.
3. Vector must contain an origin of replication so that it can independently replicate within the host.
4. It should contain a suitable marker such as antibiotic resistance, to permit its detection in transformed host cell.
5. Vector should have unique target sites for integration with DNA insert and should have the ability to integrate with DNA insert it carries into the genome of the host cell. Most of the commonly used cloning vectors have more than one restriction site. These are Multiple Cloning Site (MCS) or polylinker. Presence of MCS facilitates the use of restriction enzyme of choice.

Question 17.
What is Albedo effect? Write its effects.
Answer:
Gases let out to atmosphere causes climatic change. Emission of dust and aerosols from industries, automobiles, forest fire, SO₂ and DMS (dimethyl sulphur) play an important role in disturbing the temperature level of any region. Aerosols with small particles is reflecting the solar radiation entering the atmosphere. This is known as Albedo effect.

Question 18.
Ozone acts as a natural sun screen- Justify.
Answer:
Ozone depletion in the stratosphere results in more UV radiations especially UV B radiations (shortwaves). UV B radiation destroys biomolecules (skin ageing) and damages living tissues. UV – C is the most damaging type of UV radiation, but it is completely filtered by the atmosphere (ozone layer). UV – a contribute 95% of UV radiation which causes tanning burning of skin and enhancing skin cancer. Hence the uniform ozone layer is critical for the well being of life on earth.

Question 19.
Which is called as “The King of Bitters”? Mention their medicinal importance.
Answer:
Andrographis paniculata is called as King of Bitters. Andrographis is a potent hepatoprotective agent and is widely used to treat liver disorders. Concoction of Andrographis paniculata and eight other herbs (Nilavembu Kudineer) is effectively used to treat malaria and dengue.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) With a suitable diagram, explain the structure of an ovule.
Answer:
Structure of ovule(Megasporangium):

Ovule is also called megasporangium and is protected by one or two covering called integuments. Amature ovule consists of a stalk and a body. The stalk or the funiculus (also called funicle) is present at the base and it attaches the ovule to the placenta. The point of attachment of funicle to the body of the ovule is known as hilum. It represents the junction between ovule and funicle. In an inverted ovule, the funicle is adnate to the body of the ovule forming a ridge called raphe.

The body of the ovule is made up of a central mass of parenchymatous tissue called nucellus which has large reserve food materials. The nucellus is enveloped by one or two protective coverings called integuments. Integument encloses the nucellus completely except at the top where it is free and forms a pore called micropyle. The ovule with one or two integuments are said to be unitegmic or bitegmic ovules respectively.

The basal region of the body of the ovule where the nucellus, the integument and the funicle meet or merge is called as chalaza. There is a large, oval, sac-like structure in the nucellus toward the Raphe micropylar end called embryo sac or female \ gametophyte. It develops from the functional \ megaspore formed within the nucellus. In some species(unitegmic tenuinucellate) the inner layer of the integument may become specialized to perform the nutritive function for the embryo sac and is called as endothelium or integumentary tapetum (Example : Asteraceae).

[OR]

(b) List out the significance of ploidy.
Answer:

1. Many polyploids are more vigorous and more adaptable than diploids.
2. Many ornamental plants are autotetraploids and have larger flower and longer flowering duration than diploids.
3. Autopolyploids usually have increase in fresh weight due to more water content.
4. Aneuploids are useful to determine the phenotypic effects of loss or gain of different chromosomes.
5. Many angiosperms are allopolyploids and they play a role in an evolution of plants.

Question 21.
(a) Explain the basic concepts involved in plant tissue culture.
Answer:
Basic concepts of plant tissue culture are totipotency, differentiation, dedifferentiation and redifferentiation.

Totipotency: The property of live plant cells that they have the genetic potential when cultured in nutrient medium to give rise to a complete individual plant.

Differentiation: The process of biochemical and structural changes by which cells become specialized in form and function.

Redifferentiation: The further differentiation of already differentiated cell into another type of cell. For example, when the component cells of callus have the ability to form a whole plant in a nutrient medium, the phenomenon is called redifferentiation.

Dedifferentiation: The phenomenon of the reversion of mature cells to the meristematic state leading to the formation of callus is called dedifferentiation. These two phenomena of redifferentiation and dedifferentiation are the inherent capacities of living plant cells or tissue. This is described as totipotency.

[OR]

(b) Write a comparative note on Carbon Foot Print (CFP)
Answer:
Every human activity leaves a mark just like our footprint. This Carbon foot print is the total amount of green house gases produced by human activities such as agriculture, industries, deforestation, waste disposal, buring fossil fuels directly or indirectly. It can be measured for an individual, family, organisation like industries, state level or national level. It is usually estimated and expressed in equivalent tons of CO₂ per year.

The burning of fossil fuels releases CO₂ and other green house gases. In turn these emissions trap solar energy and thus increase the global temperature resulting in ice melting, submerging of low lying areas and inbalance in nature like cyclones, tsunamis and extreme weather conditions. To reduce the carbon foot print we can follow some practices like

• Eating indigenous fruits and products
• Reduce use of your electronic devices
• Reduce travelling
• Do not buy fast and preserved, processed, packed foods
• Plant a garden
• Less consumption of meat and sea food. Poultry requires little space, nutrients and less pollution comparing cattle farming
• reduce use of Laptops (when used for 8 hours, it releases nearly 2 kg. of CO₂ annually)
• Line dry your clothes.

(Example: If you buy imported fruit like kiwi, indirectly it increases CFP. How? The fruit has travelled a long distance in shipping or airliner thus emitting tons of CO₂)

Bio-Zoology [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Match the following:


Answer:
(a) 1 – C, 2 – D, 3 – B, 4 – A

Question 2.
The male sex hormone testosterone is secreted from ___________.
(a) Sertoli cells
(b) Leydig cells
(c) Epididymis
(d) Prostate gland
Answer:
(b) Leydig cells

Question 3.
Select the incorrect action of hormonal contraceptive pills from the following
(a) Inhibition of spermatogenesis
(b) Inhibition of ovulation
(c) Changes in cervical mucus impairing its ability to allow passage and transport of sperm
(d) Alteration in uterine endometrium to make it unsustainable for implantation
Answer:
(a) Inhibition of spermatogenesis

Question 4.
Father of a child is colour blind and mother is carrier for colour blindness, the possibility of the child being colour blind is ________.
(a) 25 %
(b) 50%
(c) 100 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 50%

Question 5.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events with reference to the central dogma?
(a) Transcription, Translation, Replication
(b) Transcription, Replication, Translation
(c) Duplication, Translation, Transcription
(d) Replication, Transcription, Translation
Answer:
(d) Replication, Transcription, Translation

Question 6.
Who proposed the Germplasm theory?
(a) August Weismann
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Alfred Wallace
Answer:
(a) August Weismann

Question 7.
AIDS virus has ________.
(a) Single stranded RNA
(b) Single stranded DNA
(c) Double stranded RNA
(d) Double stranded DNA
Answer:
(c) Double stranded RNA

Question 8.
Assertion (A): Streptomycin is an antibiotic
Reason (R): Antibiotics are microbial products inhibits the growth of pathogenic microbe.
(a) A is right, R is wrong
(b) R explain A
(c) A and R are wrong
(d) A and R are right. R does not explain A
Answer:
(b) R explain A

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is inhibin? State its functions.
Answer:
Inhibin is a hormone secreted by Sertoli cells of testes which is involved in the negative feedback control of sperm production.

Question 10.
Define criss-cross inheritance.
Answer:
Inheritance of genes from a male parent to female child and then to male grandchild or female parent to male child and then to female grandchild, eg., X-linked gene inheritance.

Question 11.
How does mutation theory of De vries differ from lamarck and Darwins view in the origin of new species.
Answer:
According to de Vries, sudden and large variations were responsible for the origin of new species, whereas Lamarck and Darwin believed in gradual accumulation of all variations as the causative factors in the origin of new species.

Question 12.
What is biological oxygen demand?
Answer:
The BOD (Biochemical oxygen demand or Biological oxygen demand). BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen that would be consumed, if all the organic matter in one litre of water were oxidized by bacteria. The sewage water is treated till the BOD is reduced. The greater the BOD of the waste water more is its polluting potential.

Question 13.
Differentiate between Eurytherms and Stenotherms.
Answer:

Question 14.
Name the secondary pollutant in photochemical smog. Mention the adverse effect.
Answer:
Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a secondary pollutant present in photochemical smog. It is thermally unstable and decomposes into peroxy ethanol radicals and nitrogen dioxide gas causing eye irritation.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is amniocentesis? Why a statutory ban is imposed on this technique?
Answer:
Amniocentesis is a prenatal technique used to detect any chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus and it is being often misused to determine the sex of the foetus. Once the sex of the foetus is known, there may be a chance of female foeticide. Hence, a statutory ban on amniocentesis is imposed.

Question 16.
DNA acts as genetic material for majority of living organisms and not the RNA. Give reasons to support the statement.
Answer:

1. RNA was reactive and hence highly unstable.
2. Some RNA molecules acts as gene regulators by binding to DNA and affect gene expression.
3. Uracil of RNA is less stable than thymine of DNA.

Question 17.
Draw and lable the structure of Immunoglobulin
Answer:

Question 18.
Explain how “Rosie” is different from a normal cow.
Answer:
Rosie was the first transgenic cow. It produced human protein enriched milk, which contained the human alpha lactalbumin (2.4 gm. /litre). This milk was a nutritionally balanced food for infants than the normal milk of cows.

Question 19.
Extinction of a keystone species led to loss of biodiversity – Justify.
Answer:
A keystone species is an organism that helps define an entire ecosystem. Without the keystone species a particular ecosystem would be dramatically disturbed or even ceased. Keystone species either directly or indirectly affects every species in a particular ecosystem. If a keystone species is lost or removed no other organism would compensate its ecological niche.

eg: Jaguar is a keystone species. As a top predator, it plays a crucial role in ecosystem. Without jaguar there is an exponential increase in herbivoral population that would decimate the plants of the ecosystem. At one point even the herbivore populations also get declined due to the lack of vegetation. Thus jaguar acts a keystone species.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) Define menstrual cycle. Explain its various phase.
Answer:
Menstrual cycle: The menstrual or ovarian cycle occurs approximately once in every 28/29 days during the reproductive life of the female from menarche (puberty) to menopause except during pregnancy. The cycle of events starting from one menstrual period till the next one is called the menstrual cycle during which cyclic changes occurs in the endometrium, every month. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase.

Menstrual cycle comprises of the following phases

1. Menstrual phase
2. Follicular or proliferative phase
3. Ovulatory phase
4. Luteal or secretory phase

1. Menstrual phase: The cycle starts with the menstrual phase when menstrual flow occurs and lasts for 3-5 days. Menstrual flow is due to the breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus, and its blood vessels due to decline in the level of progesterone and oestrogen. Menstruation occurs only if the released ovum is not fertilized. Absence of menstruation may be an indicator of pregnancy. However it could also be due to stress, hormonal disorder and anaemia.

2. Follicular or proliferative phase: The follicular phase extends from the 5th day of the cycle until the time of ovulation. During this phase, the primary follicle in the ovary grows to become a fully mature Graafian follicle and simultaneously, the endometrium regenerates through proliferation.

These changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by the secretion of gonadotropins like FSH and LH, which increase gradually during the follicular phase. It stimulates follicular development and secretion of oestrogen by the follicle cells.

3. Ovulatory phase: Both LH and FSH attain peak level in the middle of the cycle (about the 14^th day). Maximum secretion of LH during the mid cycle called LH surge induces the rupture of the Graafian follicle and the release of the ovum (secondary oocyte) from the ovary wall into the peritoneal cavity. This process is called as ovulation.

4. Luteal or secretory phase: During luteal phase, the remaining part of the Graafian follicle is transformed into a transitory endocrine gland called corpus luteum. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of the endometrium. If fertilization takes place, it paves way for the implantation of the fertilized ovum. The uterine wall secretes nutritious fluid in the uterus for the foetus. So, this phase is also called as secretory phase.

During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates completely and leaves a scar tissue called corpus albicans. It also initiates the disintegration of the endometrium leading to menstruation, marking the next cycle. ,

[OR]

(b) Write the salient features of genetic code.
Answer:
The salient features of genetic code are as follows:

1. The genetic codon is a triplet code and 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons do not code for any amino acid and function as stop codon (Termination).

2. The genetic code is universal. It means that all known living systems use nucleic acids and the same three base codons (triplet codon) direct the synthesis of protein from amino acids. For example, the mRNA (UUU) codon codes for phenylalanine in all cells of all organisms. Some exceptions are reported in prokaryotic, mitochondrial and chloroplast genomes. However similarities are more common than differences.

3. A non-overlapping codon means that the same letter is not used for two different codons. For instance, the nucleotide sequence GUU and GUC represents only two codons. .

4. It is comma less, which means that the message would be read directly from one end to the other i.e., no punctuation are needed between two codes. .

5. A degenerate code means that more than one triplet codon could code for a specific amino acid. For example, codons GUU, GUC, GUA and GUG code for valine.

6. Non-ambiguous code means that one codon will code for one amino acid.

7. The code is always read in a fixed direction i.e., from 5’ → 3’ direction called polarity.

8. AUG has dual functions. It acts as a initiator codon and also codes for the amino acid methionine.

9. UAA, UAG (tyrosine) and UGA (tryptophan) codons are designated as termination (stop) codons and also are known as “non-sense” codons.

Question 21.
(a) Suggest some of the ways to prevent drug and alcohol abuse.
Answer:
1. Effectively dealing with peer pressure:
The biggest reason for teens to start on drugs is due to their friends / peer groups imposing pressure on them. Hence, it is important to have a better group of friends to avoid such harmful drugs and alcohol.

2. Seeking help from parents and peers:
Help from parents and peer group should be sought immediately so that they can be guided appropriately. Help may even be sought from close and trusted friends. Getting proper advice to sort out their problems would help the young to vent their feelings of anxiety and guilt.

3. Education and counselling:
Education and counselling create positive attitude to deal with many problems and to accept disappointments in life.

4. Looking for danger signs:
Teachers and parents need to look for sign that indicate tendency to go in for addiction.

5. Seeking professional and medical assistance:
Assistance is available in the form of highly qualified psychologists, psychiatrists and de-addiction and rehabilitation programmes to help individuals to overcome their problems.

[OR]

(b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages of cloning.
Answer:

1. Offers benefits for clinical trials and medical research. It can help in the production of
   proteins and drugs in the field of medicine.
2. Aids stem cell research.
3. Animal cloning could help to save endangered species.
4. Animal and human activists see it as a threat to biodiversity saying that this alters evolution which will have an impact on populations and the ecosystem.
5. The process is tedious and very expensive.
6. It can cause animals to suffer.
7. Reports show that animal surrogates were manifesting adverse outcomes and cloned animals were affected with disease and have high mortality rate.
8. It might compromise human health through consumption of cloned animal meat.
9. Cloned animals age faster than normal animals and are less healthy than the parent organism as discovered in Dolly
10. Cloning can lead to occurrence of genetic disorders in animals.
11. More than 90% of cloning attempts fail to produce a viable offspring.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 15 Data Manipulation Through SQL Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 15 Data Manipulation Through SQL

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is an organized collection of data?
(a) Database
(b) DBMS
(c) Information
(d) Records
Answer:
(a) Database

Question 2.
SQLite falls under which database system?
(a) Flat file database system
(b) Relational Database system
(c) Hierarchical database system
(d) Object oriented Database system
Answer:
(b) Relational Database system

Question 3.
Which of the following is a control structure used to traverse and fetch the records of the database?
(a) Pointer
(b) Key
(c) Cursor
(d) Insertion point
Answer:
(c) Cursor

Question 4.
Any changes made in the values of the record should be saved by the command
(a) Save
(b) Save As
(c) Commit
(d) Oblige
Answer:
(c) Commit

Question 5.
Which of the following executes the SQL command to perform some action?
(a) Execute( )
(b) Key( )
(c) Cursor( )
(d) run( )
Answer:
(a) Execute( )

Question 6.
Which of the following function retrieves the average of a selected column of rows in a table?
(a) Add( )
(b) SUM( )
(c) AVG( )
(d) AVERAGE( )
Answer:
(c) AVG( )

Question 7.
The function that returns the largest value of the selected column is ……………………………
(a) MAX( )
(b) LARGE( )
(c) HIGH( )
(d) MAXIMUM( )
Answer:
(a) MAX( )

Question 8.
Which of the following is called the master table?
(a) sqlite master
(b) sqlmaster
(c) main_master
(d) master_main
Answer:
(a) sqlite master

Question 9.
The most commonly used statement in SQL is
(a) cursor
(b) select
(c) execute
(d) commit
Answer:
(b) select

Question 10.
Which of the following clause avoid the duplicate?
(a) Distinct
(b) Remove
(c) Where
(d) GroupBy
Answer:
(a) Distinct

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Mention the users who uses the Database?
Answer:
Users of database can be human users, other programs or applications.

Question 2.
Which method is used to connect a database? Give an example?
Answer:
Step 1: create a connection using connect () method and pass the name of the database File
Connecting to a database in step 2 means passing the name of the database to be accessed. If the database already exists the connection will open the same. Otherwise, Python will open a new database file with the specified name.
# connecting to the database
connection = sqlite3.connect (“Academy.db”)

Question 3.
What is the advantage of declaring a column as “INTEGER PRIMARY KEY”?
Answer:
If a column of a table is declared to be an INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, then whenever a NULL . will be used as an input for this column, the NULL will be automatically converted into an integer which will one larger than the highest value so far used in that column. If the table is empty, the value 1 will be used.

Question 4.
Write the command to populate record in a table. Give an example?
Answer:
To populate (add record) the table “INSERT” command is passed to SQLite. “execute” method executes the SQL command to perform some action. In most cases, you will not literally insert data into a SQL table. You will rather have a lot of data inside of some Python data type e.g. a dictionary or a list, which has to be used as the input of the insert statement.

Question 5.
Which method is used to fetch all rows from the database table?
Answer:
Displaying all records using fetchall( )
The fetchall( ) method is used to fetch all rows from the database table
result = cursor.fetchall( )

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is SQLite?What is it advantage?
Answer:

1. SQLite is a simple relational database system, which saves its data in regular data files or even in the internal memory of the computer.
2. It is designed to be embedded in applications, instead of using a separate database server program such as MySQLor Oracle.
3. SQLite is fast, rigorously tested, and flexible, making it easier to work. Python has a native library for SQLite.

Question 2.
Mention the difference between fetchone( ) and fetchmany( )
Displaying A record using fetchone( )
Answer:
The fetchone( ) method returns the next row of a query result set or None in case there is no row left.
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3 ,connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT * FROM student”)
print(“\nfetch one:”)
res = cursor. fetchone( )
print(res)
OUTPUT
fetch one:
(1, ‘Akshay’, ’B’, ’M’, 87.8, ‘2001-12-12’)
Displayingusing fetchmany( )
Displaying specified number of records is done by using fetchmany( ). This method returns the next number of rows (n) of the result set.
Example : Program to display the content of tuples using fetchmany( )
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(” Academy, db”)
cursor = connection. cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT * FROM student”)
print(“fetching first 3 records:”)
result= cursor. fetchmany(3)
print( result)
OUTPUT
fetching first 3 records:
[ (1, ‘Akshay’, ’B’, ‘M’, 87.8, ‘2001-12-12’), (2, ‘Aravind’, ‘A’, ’M’, 92.5, ‘2000-08-17’), (3, ‘BASKAR’, ‘C, TVT, 75.2, ‘1998-05-17’)]

Question 3.
What is the use of Where Clause.Give a python statement Using the where clause?
Answer:
The WHERE clause is used to extract only .those records that fulfill a specified condition. In this example we are going to display the different grades scored by male students from “student table” import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT DISTINCT (Grade) FROM student where gender=’M'”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(‘B’,)
(‘A’,)
(‘C’,)
(‘D’,)

Question 4.
Read the following details.Based on that write a python script to display department wise records
database name:- organization.db
Table name:- Employee
Columns in the table:- Eno, EmpName, Esal, Dept
Display departmentwise records: import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“organization.db”)
c = conn.execute(“select * from Employee group by dept”)
for row in c:
print(row)
conn.close( )
Output:
(1000, ‘Ram’, 5000, ’Mech’)
(2000, ‘Hari’, 6500, ‘Mech’)
(1127, ’Vijay’, 10,000, ’cs )
(1130,’Raja’, 11,000,’cs’)

Question 5.
Read the following details.Based on that write a python script to display records in
desending order of
Eno
database name:- organization.db
Table name:- Employee
Columns in the table:- Eno, EmpName, Esal, Dept
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“organizatoin.db”)
cursor = connection. cursor( )
cursor.execute(“select * from Employee order by Eno Desc”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(result).
Output:
(2000, ‘Hari’, 6500, ‘Mech’)
(1130, ‘Raja’, 11,000, ‘cs’)
(1127, ‘Vijay’, 10,000, ‘cs’)
(1000, ‘Ram’, 5000, ‘Mech’)

PART – IV
Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write in brief about SQLite and the steps used to use it?
Answer:
SQLite is a simple relational database system, which saves its data in regular data files or even in the internal memory of the computer. It is designed to be embedded in applications, instead of using a separate database server program such as MySQLor Oracle. SQLite is fast, rigorously tested, and flexible, making it easier to work. Python has a native library for SQLite. To use SQLite,
Step 1 import sqliteS
Step 2 create a connection using connect ( ) method and pass the name of the database File
Step 3 Set the cursor object cursor = connection.cursor( )

1. Connecting to a database in step2 means passing the name of the database to be accessed. If the database already exists the connection will open the same. Otherwise, Python will open a new database file with the specified name.
2. Cursor in step 3: is a control structure used to traverse and fetch the records of the database.
3. Cursor has a major role in working with Python. All the commands will be executed using cursor object only.

To create a table in the database, create an object and write the SQL command in it.
Example:- sql_comm = “SQL statement”
For executing the command use the cursor method and pass the required sql command as a parameter. Many number of commands can be stored in the sql comm and can be executed one after other. Any changes made in the values of the record should be saved by the command “Commit” before closing the “Table connection”.

Question 2.
Write the Python script to display all the records of the following table using fetchmany( )
Answer:

import sqlite3
connectoin = sqlite3.connect(“company.db”) cursor = connection.cursor() cursor.execute(“Select * from product”) print(“Displaying Records”) result = cursor.fetchmany(5) print(*result, Sep = “\n”)
Output:
Displaying records (1003, ‘Scanner’, 10500)
(1004, ’Speaker’, 3000)
(1005, ‘Printer’, 8000)
(1008,’Monitor’, 15000)
(1010, ‘Mouse’, 700)

Question 3.
What is the use of HAVING clause. Give an example python script?
Answer:
Having clause is used to filter data based on the group functions. This is similar to WHERE condition but can be used only with group functions. Group functions cannot be used in WHERE Clause but can be used in HAVING clause.
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection. cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT GENDER,COUNT(GENDER) FROM Student GROUP BY GENDER HAVING COUNT(GENDER)>3 “)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
co= [i[0] for i in cursor, description]
print(co)
print( result)
OUTPUT
[‘gender’, ‘COUNT(GENDER)’]
[(‘M’, 5)]

Question 4.
Write a Python script to create a table called ITEM with following specification?
Add one record to the table.
Name of the database:- ABC
Name of the table:- Item
Column name and speculation:-

import sqlite 3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“ABC.db”)
cursor = connectoin.cursor( )
sql_command -“””CREATE TABLE Item
(
Icode INTEGER PRIMARY KEY,
ItemName VARCHAR(25), Rate INTEGER);”””
cursor.execute(sql_command)
sql_command=””” INSERT INTO ITEM(lcode, ItemName, Rate) VALUES(1008, ‘Monitor’, 15000);”””
cursor.execute(sql_command)
connection.commit( )
connection.close( )
print(“Table created”)
Output:
Table created

Question 5.
Consider the following table Supplier and item .Write a python script for (i) to (ii)
Answer:

1. Display Name, City and Itemname of suppliers who do not reside in Delhi.
2. Increment the SuppQty of Akila by 40

Answer:
1. import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“ABC.db”)
cursor = connection,cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Supplier.Name, Supplier.city, Item.ItemName FROM Supplier, Item
where Supplier.Icode = Item.Icode AND Supplier.city NOT IN ‘Delhi'”)
co=[i[0] for i in cursor.description]
print(co)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
for r in result:
print(r).
Output:
[‘Name’, ‘City’, ‘ItemName’]
[‘Anu’, ‘Bangalore’, ‘Mouse’]
[‘Shahid’, ‘Bangalore’, ‘Monitor’]
[‘Akila’, ‘Hydrabad’, ‘Printer’]
[‘Girish’, ‘Hydrabad’, ‘Scanner’]
[‘Shylaja’, ‘Chennai’, ‘Monitor’]
[‘Lavanya’, ‘Mumbai’, ‘Printer’]

2. Increment the suppQty of Akila by 40 import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“ABC.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“UPDATE Supplier SET SuppQty = SuppQty + 40 where Name = ‘Akila'”)
cursor.commit( )
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(result)
connection.close( )
Output:
(S004, ‘Akila’, ‘Hydrabad’, 1005, 235)

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Create an interactive program to accept the details from user and store it in a csv file using Python for the following table?
Answer:
Database name;- DB1
Table name : Customer

import sqlite3 import io import csv
d = open(‘c:/pyprg/sql.csv’, ‘w’) c = csv.writer(d)
connection = sqlite3.connect(“dbl.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“create table customer(cust_Id, cust_Name, Address, Phone_no, City)”)
print(“Enter 3 customer details:”)
print(“Enter 3 customer Id :”)
cid = [int(input( )) for i in range (3)]
print(“Enter customer names :”)
cname = [input( ) for i in range (3)]
print(“Enter their Address:”)
add = [input( ) for i in range (3)]
int(“Enter their phone numbers:”)
ph = [int(input( )) for i in range (3)]
print(“Enter their cities:”)
city = [input( ) for i in range (3)]
n = len(cname)
for i in range (n):
cursor.execute(“insert into customer values (?,?,?,?,?)”, (cid[i], cname[i], add[i], ph[i], city[i]))
cursor.execute(“Select * from customer “)
co = [i[0] for i in cursor, description]
c.writerow(co)
data = cursor. fetchall( )
for item in data:
c.writerow(item)
– d.close( )
with open(‘c:/pyprg/sql.csv’, “r”, newline = None) as fd:
for line in fd:
line = line.replace(“\n”,” “)
print(line)
cursor. close( )
connection. close( )
OUTPUT:
Enter 3 customer details:
Enter 3 customer Id:
C008
C010
C012
Enter customer names:
Sandeep
Anurag Basu
Hrithik
Enter their Address:
14/1 Pritam Pura
15/A, Park Road
7/2 Vasant Nagar
Enter their Phone Numbers:
41206819
61281921
26121949
Enter their cities:
Delhi
Kolkata
Delhi
Displaying Data:
(‘cust_Id’, ‘cust_Name’, ‘Address’, ‘Phone_no’, ‘city’)
(C008, ‘Sandeep’, ’14/1 Pritampura’, ‘41206819’, ’Delhi’)
(C010, ‘Anurag Basu’, ’15A, Park Road’, ’61281921’, ’Kolkata’)
(C012, ’Hrithik’, ’7/2 Vasant Nagar’, ’26121949’, ’Delhi’)

Question 2.
Consider the following table GAMES. Write a python program to display the records for question (i) to (iv) and give outputs for SQL queries (v) to (viii)?
Table: GAMES

1. To display the name of all Games with their Geodes in descending order of their schedule date.
2. To display details of those games which are having Prize Money more than 7000.
3. To display the name and gamename of the Players in the ascending order of Gamename.
4. To display sum of PrizeMoney for each of the Numberof participation groupings (as shown in column Number 4)
5. Display all the records based on GameName

1. To display the name of all Games with their Geodes in descending order of their schedule date.
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“Select GameName, Geode from Games order by ScheduleDate Desc “)
result = cursor,fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(’Table Tennis’, 108)
(’Table Tennis’, 103)
(’Carom Board’, 101)
(’Carom Board’, 105)
(’Badminton1, 102)

2. To display details of those games which are having Prize Money more than 7000.
import sqlite3
conn = sqlit3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(” Select * from Games where prize money > 7000″)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(102, ‘Vidhya’, ‘Badminton’, 2, 12000, ’12-12-2013′)
(103, ‘Guru’, ’Table Tennis’, 4, 8000, ’02-14-2014’)
(105, ‘Keerthana’, ‘Carom Board’, 2, 9000, ’01-01-2014′)
(108, ’Krishna’, ’Table Tennis’, 4, 25000, ’03-19-2014′)

3. To display the name and gamename of the Players in the ascending order of Gamename.
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(” Select Name, GameName from games order by GameName “)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(‘Vidhya’, ‘Badminton’)
(‘Padmaja’, ‘Carom Board’)
(‘Keerthana’, ‘Carom Board’)
(‘Guru’, ‘Table Tennis’)
(‘Krishna’, ‘Table Tennis’)

4. To display sum of PrizeMoney for each of the Numberof participation groupings (as shown in column Number 4)
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“Select Sum(Number * Prizemoney) from games”)
result = cursor, fetchall( )
print(result)
conn.close( )
Output:
[(184000)]

5. Display all the records based on GameName
import sqlite3
conn = sqlite3.connect(“Games.db”)
cursor = conn.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“Select * from games group by gamename”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result, sep = “\n”)
conn.close( )
Output:
(‘Carom Board’, 101, ‘Padmaja’, 2, 5000, ’01-23-2014′)
(’Carom Board’, 105, ‘Keerthana’, 2, 9000, ’01-01-2014′)
(‘Badminton’, 102, ‘Vidhya’, 2, 12000, ’12-12-2013′)
(‘Table Tennis’, 103, ‘Guru’, 4, 8000, ’02-14-2014′)
(’Table Tennis’, 108, ‘Krishna’, 4, 25000, ’03-19-2014′)

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Data Manipulation Through SQL Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
The ………………………….. is a software application for the interaction between users and the databases.
Answer:
Database Management System

Question 2.
Which has a native library for sqlite?
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Java
(d) Python
Answer:
(d) Python

Question 3.
Which method is used to create a connection with database file?
(a) connect( )
(b) pass( )
(c) link( )
(d) create( )
Answer:
(a) connect( )

Question 4.
All the commands will be executed using ……………………………. object only.
Answer:
cursor

Question 5.
How many commands can be stored in the sql_comm?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Many
Answer:
(d) Many

Question 6.
What is the extension for database files?
(a) dot
(b) database
(c) .db
(d) .dot
Answer:
(c) .db

Question 7.
The SQL commands have to be defined with ……………………………. quotes.
(a) single
(b) double
(c) triple
(d) No quotes
Answer:
(c) triple

Question 8.
A column which is labelled like ………………………………. is automatically auto incremented in sqlite3.
Answer:
Integer primary key

Question 9.
What will be the value assigned to the empty table if it is given Integer Primary Key?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) -1
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 10.
Which command is used to populate the records in the table?
(a) populate
(b) create
(c) pop
(d) Insert
Answer:
(d) Insert

Question 11.
Which command in SQL is used to retrieve or fetch data from a table in the database?
(a) Select
(b) Fetch
(c) retrieve
(d) create
Answer:
(a) Select

Question 12.
Which method is used to fetch all rows from the database table?
(a) Fetch( )
(b) fetchall( )
(c) printall( )
(d) retrieveall( )
Answer:
(b) fetchall( )

Question 13.
Which method returns the next row of a query result set?
(a) Fetch ne( )
(b) fetch all( )
(c) fetch next( )
(d) fetch last( )
Answer:
(a) Fetch ne( )

Question 14.
What will be the result of fetchone( ) method if no row is left?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) none
Answer:
(d) none

Question 15.
Which one of the following methods displays the specified number of records?
(a) fetchone( )
(b) fetchmany( )
(c) fetchall( )
(d) fetchsome( )
Answer:
(b) fetchmany( )

Question 16.
Which one of the following is new line character?
(a) \n
(b) \r
(c) \t
(d) \nl
Answer:
(a) \n

Question 17.
Which one of the following is used to print all elements separated by space?
(a) ,
(b) .
(c) :
(d) ;
Answer:
(a) ,

Question 18.
SQL provides various clauses that can be used in the …………………………….. statements.
Answer:
SELECT

Question 19.
The clauses in SQL can be called through
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) Python script
(d) DOS
Answer:
(c) Python script

Question 20.
In SQL, the …………………………. clause is used to extract only those records that fulfill a specified condition.
(a) why
(b) what
(c) where
(d) how
Answer:
(c) where

Question 21.
Which clause returns are record for each group?
(a) Select
(b) group in
(c) group with
(d) group by
Answer:
(d) group by

Question 22.
Identify the statement which is wrong?
(a) Group by clause is used with aggregate functions
(b) group by clause groups records into summary rows
(c) group by clause is used to filter data
Answer:
(c) group by clause is used to filter data

Question 23.
Pick the odd one out.
(i) count, max, min, OR, SUM
(ii) AND, OR, MAX, NOT
(iii) COUNT, NULL, AVG, SUM
Answer:
(i) OR, (ii) MAX, (iii) NULL

Question 24.
How many types of sorting are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 25.
Which command is used to display the records in asscending or descending order.
(a) Group by
(b) order by
(c) group with
(d) order with
Answer:
(b) order by

Question 26.
Identify the Incorrect pair
(a) Group by – 1. Aggregate functions
(b) order by – 2. Sortind data
(c) Having – 3. filter data
(d) where – 4.Max, min
(a) 2
(b) (1)
(c) (4)
(d) (3)
Answer:
(c) d

Question 27.
Find the Incorrect statement?
(a) The WHERE clause can be combined with AND, OR, NOT
(b) Having clause is used to filter data based on the group function
(c) WHERE cannot be used with NOT
Answer:
(c) WHERE cannot be used with NOT

Question 28.
Which operators are used to filter records based on more than one condition?
(a) AND
(b) NOT
(c) OR
(d) a & c
Answer:
(d) a & c

Question 29.
How many values are returned from the aggregate functions?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(a) 1

Question 30.
Find the correct answer.
(i) count functions returns the number of rows in a table satisfying the criteria
(ii) count returns 0 if there were no matching rows
(iii) Null values are counted
(a) (i), (ii) – True
(b) (ii), (iii) – true
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) – True
(d) (i),.(ii), (iii) – False
Answer:
(a) (i), (ii) – True

Question 31.
Find the correct statement.
(a) A record can be deleted using sql command
(b) A record can be deleted with python
(c) both are true
Answer:
(c) both are true

Question 32.
Which command is used to accpet data during run time in python?
(a) Insert( )
(b) input( )
(c) create( )
(d) update( )
Answer:
(b) input( )

Question 33.
The two kinds Of placeholders in sqlite3 module are ………………………….. and ………………………….
Answer:
qmarkstyle, namedstyle

Question 34.
…………………………… is used to display the field names of the table
Answer:
cursor description

Question 35.
In cursor description o_index refers to the column name
Answer:
O

Question 36.
A) Query result can be stored in csv file.
R) To display the query output in a tabular form
(a) R is the reason for A
(b) R is wrong
(c) A is wrong
(d) both are not related
Answer:
(a) R is the reason for A

Question 37.
The path of a python file can be represented as ……………………….. and ………………………………
(a) /, //
(b) \, \\
(c) /, \\
(d) \, //
Answer:
(c) /, \\

Question 38.
Which table holds the key information about the database tables?
(a) page
(b) select
(c) primary
(d) Master
Answer:
(d) Master

Question 39.
………………………. functions are used to do operations from the values of the column and a single value is returned.
Answer:
Aggregate

Question 40.
Which function returns the smallest value of the selected columns?
(a) MIN( )
(b) MINIMUM( )
(c) SMALL( )
(d) LEAST( )
Answer:
(a) MIN( )

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on “Select” command?
Answer:
“Select” is the most commonly used statement in SQL. The SELECT Statement in SQL is used to retrieve or fetch data from a table in a database. The syntax for using this statement is “Select*from table_name” and all the table data can be fetched in an object in the form of list of lists.

Question 2.
Mention the frequently used clauses in SQL?
Answer:

1. DISTINCT
2. WHERE
3. GROUP BY
4. ORDER BY
5. HAVING

Question 3.
What is the use of distinct clause in SQL?
Answer:
The distinct clause is helpful when there is need of avoiding the duplicate values present in any specific columns/table. When we use distinct keyword only the unique values are fetched.

Question 4.
List some aggregate functions in SQL?
Answer:

1. COUNTO
2. SUM( )
3. MIN( )
4. AVG( )
5. MAX( )

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by cursor? How is it created?
Answer:
A cursor in SQL and databases is a control structure to traverse over the records in a database. So it’s used for the fetching of the results.
Cursor is used for performing all SQL commands.
The cursor object is created by calling the cursor( ) method of connection. The cursor is used to traverse the records from the result set.

Question 2.
Write a short note on fetchall( ), fetchone( ) and fetchmany( ) commands?
Answer:
cursor. fetchall( ) -fetchall ( )method is to fetch all rows from the database table
cursor. fetchone( ) – The fetchone ( ) method returns the next row of a query result set or None in case there is no row left.
cursor.fetchmany( ) method that returns the next number of rows (n) of the result set.

Question 3.
How will you use order by clause in SQL. Explain with sample program?
Answer:
The ORDER BY Clause can be used along with the SELECT statement to sort the data of specific fields in an ordered way. It is used to sort the result-set in ascending or descending order. In this example name and Rollno of the students are displayed in alphabetical order of names.
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student Order BY sname”)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=” \n”)
OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’)
(2, ‘Aravind’)
(3, ‘BASKAR’)
(6, ‘PRIYA’)
(4, ‘SAJINI’)
(7, ‘TARUN’)
(5, ‘VARUN’)

Question 4.
Write a program to count the number of male and female students from the student table
Example
Answer:
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT gender,count(gender) FROM student Group BY gender”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(‘F’, 2)
(‘M’, 5)

Question 5.
Write a program to count the number of records in a table?
Example 1 :In this example we are going to count the number of records( rows)
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT COUNT(*) FROM student”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print( result)
Output:
[(7,) ]

Question 6.
Write a program to display list of tables created in a database?
Example
Answer:
import sqlite3
con= sqlite3 .connect(‘Academy.db’)
cursor = con.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT name FROM sqlitemaster WHERE type-table’;”)
print(cursor. fetchall( ))
OUTPUT
[(‘Student’,), (‘Appointment’,), (‘Person’,)]

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain OR, AND and NOT operator in SQL?
Answer:
The WHERE clause can be combined with AND, OR, and NOT operators. The AND and OR operators are used to filter records based on more than one condition. In this example you are going to display the details of students who have scored other than ‘A’, or ‘B’ from the “student table”
Example for WHERE WITH NOT Operator
Example
import sqlite3
connection= sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT *FROM student where grade< >’A’ and Grade< >’B'”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(3, ‘BASKAR’, ’C, ’M’, 75.2, T998-05-17′)
(7, ‘TARUN’, ‘D’, ‘M’, 62.3, ‘1999-02-01’)
Example for WHERE WITH AND Operator
In this example we are going to display the name, Rollno and Average of students who have scored an average between 80 to 90% (both limits are inclusive)
Example
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno, Same, Average FROM student WHERE (Average>=80 AND Average<=90)”)
result = cursor.fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’, 87.8)
(5, ‘VARUN’, 80.6)
Example for WHERE WITH OR Operator
In this example we are going to display the name and Rollno of students who have not scored an average between 60 to 70%
Example import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT Rollno,sname FROM student WHERE (Average<60 OR Average> 70)”)
result = cursor. fetchall( )
print(*result,sep=”\n”)
OUTPUT
(1, ‘Akshay’)
(2, ‘Aravind’)
(3, ‘BASKAR’)
(4, ‘SAJINI’)
(5, ‘VARUN’)
(6, ‘PRIYA’)

Question 2.
Write python program to accept 5 students names, their ages and ids during run time and display all the records from the table?
Answer:
In this example we are going to accept data using Python input() command during runtime and then going to write in the Table called “Person”
Example
# code for executing query using input data
import sqlite3
#creates a database in RAM
con =sqlite3.connect(“Academy,db”)
cur =con.cursor( )
cur.execute(“DROP Table person”)
cur.execute(“create table person (name, age, id)”)
print(“Enter 5 students names:”)
who =[input( ) for i in range(5)]
print(“Enter their ages respectively:”)
age =[int(input()) for i in range(5)]
print(“Enter their ids respectively:”)
p_d =[int(input( ))for i in range(5)]
n =len(who)
for i in range(n):
#This is the q-mark style:
cur.execute(“insert into person values(?,?,?)”, (who[i], age[i], p_id[i]))
#And this is the named style:
cur.execute(“select *from person”)
#Fetches all entries from table
print(“Displaying All the Records From Person Table”)
print (*cur.fetchall(), sep=’\n’)
OUTPUT
Enter 5 students names:
RAM
KEERTHANA
KRISHNA
HARISH
GIRISH
Enter their ages respectively:
28
12
21
18
16
Enter their ids respectively:
1
2
3
4
5
Displaying All the Records From Person Table
(‘RAM’, 28, 1)
(‘KEERTHANA’, 12, 2)
(‘KRISHNA’, 21, 3)
(‘HARISH’, 18,4)
(‘GIRISH’, 16, 5)

Question 3.
Considers the following tables appointments and students and write the python script to display the following output?
Answer:
Given:
Student → Table Rollno, Sname, grade, gender, average, birth-date
Appointment → rollno, duty, age
Example
import sqlite3
connection = sqlite3.connect(“Academy.db”)
cursor = connection.cursor( )
cursor.execute(“””DROP TABLE Appointment;”””)
sql_command = “””
CREATE TABLE Appointment(rollnointprimarkey,Dutyvarchar(10),age int)”””
cursor.execute(sqlcommand)
sql command – ‘””INSERT INTO Appointment (Rollno,Duty ,age)
VALUES (“1”, “Prefect”, “17”);”””
cursor, execute(sql_command)
sql_command =”””INSERT INTO Appointment (Rollno, Duty, age)
VALUES (“2”, “Secretary”, “16”);”””
cursor.execute(sql_command)
# never forget this, if you want the changes to be saved:
connection.commit( )
cursor.execute(“SELECT student.rollno,student.sname,Appointment.
Duty,Appointment.Age FROM student,Appointment where student.
rollno= Appointment.rollno”)
#print (cursor.description) to display the field names of the table
co= [i[0] for i in cursor.description]
print(co)
# Field informations can be readfrom cursor.description.
result = cursor. fetchall( )
for r in result:
print(r)
OUTPUT
[‘Rollno’, ‘Sname’, ‘Duty’, ‘age’]
(1, ‘Akshay’, ‘Prefect’, 17)
(2,’Aravind’,’Secretary’, 16)

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If (QAB)^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
12 & -17 \\
-19 & 27
\end{array}\right]\) and A^-1 = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
1 & -1 \\
-2 & 3
\end{array}\right]\) then B^-1 = ……………

Answer:
(a) \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}
2 & -5 \\
-3 & 8
\end{array}\right]\)

Question 2.
If z is a complex number such that z ∈ C\R and \(z+\frac{1}{z}\) ∈ R, then |z| is ……………
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 1

Question 3.
Let A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
2 & -1 & 1 \\
-1 & 2 & -1 \\
1 & -1 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) and 4B = \(\left[\begin{array}{ccc}
3 & 1 & -1 \\
1 & 3 & x \\
-1 & 1 & 3
\end{array}\right]\). If B is the inverse of A, then the value of x is ……………
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 4.
If sin^-1x + sin^-1y = \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) then cos^-1x + cos^-1y is equal to ……………
(a) \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{6}\)
(d) π
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)

Question 5.
The eccentricity of the ellipse (x – 3)² + (y – 4)² = \(\frac{y^{2}}{9}\) is ……………
(a) √3/2
(b) 1/3
(c) 3√2
(d) 1/√3
Answer:
(b) 1/3

Question 6.
The directrix of the parabola y² = 4x is ……………
(a) y = -1
(b) x = -1
(c) y = 1
(d) x = 1
Answer:
(b) x = -1

Question 7.
The angle between the line \(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-3 \hat{k})+t(2 \hat{i}+\hat{j}-2 \hat{k})\) and the plane \(\vec{r} \cdot(\hat{i}+\hat{j})+4=0\) is ……………
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°
Answer:
(c) 45°

Question 8.
The d.c.s. of a vector whose direction ratios are 2, 3, -6 are

Answer:
(a) \(\left(\frac{2}{7}, \frac{3}{7}, \frac{6}{7}\right)\)

Question 9.
A balloon rises straight up at 10 m/s. An observer is 40 m away from the spot where the balloon left the ground. Find the rate of change of the balloon’s angle of elevation in radian per second when the balloon is 30 metres above the ground.
(a) 1/25 radians/sec
(b) 4/25 radians/sec
(c) 1/5 radians/sec
(d) 1/3 radians/sec
Answer:
(b) 4/25 radians/sec

Question 10.
The asymptote to the curve y²(2 +x) = x² (6 – x) is
(a) x = 2
(b) x = -2
(c) x = 6
(d) x = -6
Answer:
(b) x = -2

Question 11.
The change in the surface area S = 6x² of a cube when the edge length varies from x₀ to x₀ + dx is
(a) 12x₀ + dx
(b) 12x₀dx
(c) 6x₀dx
(d) 6x₀ + dx
Answer:
(b) 12x₀dx

Question 12.
The differential of y if y = sin 2x is
(a) 2 cos 2x
(b) 2 cos 2x.dx
(c) -2 cos lx.dx
(d) cos2x.dx
Answer:
(b) 2 cos 2x.dx

Question 13.
The value of \(\int_{-4}^{4}\left[\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x^{2}}{x^{4}+1}\right)+\tan ^{-1}\left(\frac{x^{4}+1}{x^{2}}\right)\right] d x\) is
(a) π
(b) 2π
(c) 3π
(d) 4π
Answer:
(d) 4π

Question 14.
\(\begin{aligned}
&\int^{b} f(x) d x=\\
&a
\end{aligned}\) ………

Answer:
(b) \(-\int_{b}^{a} f(x) d x\)

Question 15.
The integrating factor of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}+y=\frac{1+y}{x}\) is
(a) \(\frac{x}{e^{\lambda}}\)
(b) \(\frac{e^{x}}{x}\)
(c) λe^x
(d) e^x

Question 16.
The differential equation representing the family of curves y = A cos (x + B), where A and B are parameters, is

Answer:
(b)\(\frac{d^{2} y}{d x^{2}}+y=0\)

Question 17.
A rod of length 21 is broken into two pieces at random. The probability density function of
the shorter of the two pieces is \(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}
\frac{1}{l}, & 0< x, \mathrm{x}=0, & l \leq x<2 l
\end{array}\right.\)
The mean and variance of the shorter of the two pieces are respectively ,

Answer:

Question 18.
A computer salesperson knows from his past experience that he sells computers to one in every twenty customers who enter the showroom. What is the probability that he will sell a computer to exactly two of the next three customer?

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{57}{20^{3}}\)

Question 19.
The operation * defined by a * b = \(\frac{a b}{7}\) is not a binary operation on
(a) Q⁺
(b) Z
(c) R
(d) C

Question 20.
If X is a discrete random variable then P(X >a) =
(a) P(X < a)
(b) 1 – P(X < a)
(c) 1 – P(X < a)
(D) = 0

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory.[7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the reason for \(\cos ^{-1}\left[\cos \left(-\frac{\pi}{6}\right)\right] \neq-\frac{\pi}{6}\)
Answer:
We know cos(-θ) = cos θ

Question 22.
Find the equations of the tangent and normal to the circle x² + y² = 25 at P(-3, 4).
Answer:
Equation of tangent to the circle at P (x₁, y₁) is xx₁ +yy₁ = a².
That is, x(-3) + y(4) = 25
-3x + 4y = 25
Equation of normal is xy₁ – yx₁ = 0
That is, 4x + 3y = 0.

Question 23.
Determine whether the three vectors \(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+\hat{k}, \hat{i}-2 \hat{j}+2 \hat{k}\) and \(3 \hat{i}+\hat{j}+3 \hat{k}\) are coplanar.
Answer:

Question 24.
Find the intervals of monotonicities and hence find the local extremum for the following
functions f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x-5}\)
Answer:
f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x-5}\)


(when x ≠ 5)
f(x) is strictly decreasing on (-∞, 5) and (5, ∞)
And there is no local extremum

Question 25.
Find the linear approximation for f(x) = [altex]\sqrt{1+x}[/latex] , x ≥ -1, at x₀ = 3. Use the linear approximation to estimate f(3.2).
Answer:
We know from that L(x) = f(x₀) + f'(x₀)(x – x₀). We have x₀ = 3, ∆x = 0.2 and hence

Actually, if we use a calculator to calculate we get \(\sqrt{4.2}=2.04939\)

Question 26.
Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} \sin ^{4} x \cos ^{3} d x\)
Answer:
f(x) = sin⁴x cos³x
f(2π – x) = sin⁴(2π – x) cos³ (2π- x)
= sin⁴x cos³x = f(x)
\(2\int_{0}^{\pi} \sin ^{4} x \cos ^{3} d x\)
Again f(x) = sin⁴x cos³x
f(π – x) = sin⁴(π – x) cos³ (π – x)
f(π – x) = – sin⁴(π -x) cos³(π -x) = -f(x) = 0.

Question 27.
Solve the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}=\sqrt{\frac{1-y^{2}}{1-x^{2}}}\)
Answer:

Question 28.
Suppose the amount of milk sold daily at a milk booth is distributed with a minimum of 200 litres and a maximum of 600 litres with probability density function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{lr}
k & 200 \leq x \leq 600 \\
0 & \text { otherwise }
\end{array}\right.\)
Find the value of k.
Answer:

Question 29.
Let * be defined on R by (a*b) = a + b + ab – 7. Is * binary on R ? If so, find \(3*\left(\frac{-7}{15}\right)\)
Answer:
a*b = a + b + ab – 7
Now when a, b ∈ R, then ab ∈ R also a + b ∈ R.
So, a + b + ab ∈ R.
We know – 7 ∈ R.
So, a + b + ab – 7 ∈ R.
(i.e.) a * b ∈ R

Question 30.
Examine for the rational roots of x⁸ – 3x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
x⁸ – 3x + 1 = 0……..(1)
Here a_n = – 1, a₀ = 1
If p/q is a rational root of (1)
Then q is a factor a_n, p is a factor of aQ
The possible values of p and q are ±1. Among the possible values 1,-1, [(p,q) = 1]
None of them satisfy the equation (1)
.’. The above equation has no rational roots.

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Solve the following system of linear equations by matrix inversion method:
2x + 5y = -2, x + 2y = -3
Answer:

Question 32.
If (x₁ + iy₁)(x₂ + iy₂)(x₃ + iy₃)…………(x_n +iy_n) = a + ib , show that
(i) (x₁² + y₁²)(x₂² + y₂²)(x₃² + y₃²)…….(x_n² + y_n²) = a² + b²
(ii)

Answer:

Question 33.
Find the sum of squares of roots of the equation 2x⁴ – 5x³ + 6x² – 3 = 0.
Answer:
The given equation is 2x⁴ – 8x³ + 6x² – 3 = 0.

Let the roots be α β γ δ
α + β + γ + δ = -b = 4
α β + βγ + γδ + aδ + aγ + βδ ) = c = 3
α βγ + βγδ + γαδ = -d = 0
αβγδ? = -3/2
To Find α² + β² + γ² + δ ² = ( α + β + γ + δ)² – 2 (αβ + βγ + γδ + αδ + αγ +βδ)
= (4)² – 2(3) = 16 – 6 = 10

Question 34.
Find the non-parametric form of vector equation, and Cartesian equation of the plane
passing through the point (0, 1, -5) and parallel to the straight lines .
\(\vec{r}=(\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}-4 \hat{k})+s(2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+6 \hat{k})\) and \(\hat{r}=(\hat{i}-3 \hat{j}+5 \hat{k})+t(\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k})\)
Answer:
We observe that the required plane is parallel to the vectors \(\vec{b}=2 \hat{i}+3 \hat{j}+6 \hat{k}, \vec{c}=\hat{i}+\hat{j}-\hat{k}\) and passing through the point (0, 1, —5) with position vector \(\vec{a}\). We observe that \(\vec{b}\) is not parallel to \(\vec{c}\)
Then the vector equation of the plane in non-parametric form is given by

If \(\vec{r}=x \hat{i}+y \hat{j}+z \hat{k}\) is the position vector of an arbitrary point on the plane, then from the above equation, we get the Cartesian equation of the plane as -9x + 8y – z = 13 or 9x – 8y + z +13 = 0.

Question 35.
Find ‘C’ of Lagrange’s mean value theorem for the function f(x) = x³ – 5x² – 3x in [1,3]
Answer:
f(x) = x³ – 5x² – 3x
a = 1, b = 3
f(a) = f(1)= 1 – 5 – 3 = -7
f(b) = f (3) = 21 – 5(9) – 3(3)
= 27 – 45 – 9 = -27

f(x) = x³ – 5x²– 3x
f(x) = 3² – 10x – 3
f'(c) = 3c² – 10c – 3 ………(2)
From (1) and (2),
3c² – 10c – 3
3c² – 10c – 3 + 10 = 0
3c² – 10c + 7 =0
3c² – 3c – 7c + 7 = 0

So, Lagrange’s mean value theorem is true with c = 7/3

Question 36.
Using differentials, find the approximate value of each of the following upto 3 places of decimal. (255)^1/4
Answer:

Question 37.
Find the area of the region bounded by the line 6x + 5y = 30, x – axis and the lines x = – 1 and x = 3.
Answer:
The region is sketched in Fig. It lies above the x – axis.
Hence, the required area is given by

Question 38.
A six sided die is marked ‘2’ on one face, ‘3’ on two of its faces, and ‘4’ on remaining three faces. The die is thrown twice. If X denotes the total score in two throws, find the values of the random variable and number of points in its inverse images.
Answer:
Six sided die marked ‘2’ on one face, ‘3’ on two faces and ‘4’ on three faces.
When it is thrown twice, we get 36 sample points.
‘X’ denotes sum of the face numbers and the possible values of ‘X’ are 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8
For X = 4, the sample point is (2, 2)
For X = 5, the sample points are (2, 3), (3, 2)
For X = 6, the sample points are (3, 3), (2, 4), (4, 2)
For X = 7, the sample points are (3, 4), (4, 3)
For X = 8, the sample point is (4, 4)

Question 39.
Check whether the statement p —>• (q —► p) is a tautology or a contradiction without using the truth table.
Answer:

Question 40.
Solve: \(\left(1-x^{2}\right) \frac{d y}{d x}+2 x y=x \sqrt{1-x^{2}}\)
Answer:

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Solve the following system of homogeneous equation.
3x + 2y + 7z – 0, 4x – 3y – 2z – 0, 5x + 9y + 23z = 0,
Answer:
The matrix form of the above equations is

The above matrix is in echelon form. Here ρ(A, B) = ρ( A) < number of unknowns.
⇒ The system is consistent with infinite number of solutions. To find the solutions.
Writing the equivalent equations.
We get 3x + 2y + 7z = 0
-17y – 34z = 0
Taking z = t in (2) we get -17y – 34t = 0

Taking z = t; y = -2t in (1) we get
3x + 2 (-2t) + 7t= 0
3x – 4f + 7f = 0 ⇒ 3x = -3f ⇒ x = -t
So the solution is x = -t; y = -2t; and z=t, t∈R [OR]

(b) Two cards are drawn with replacement from a well shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the mean and variance for the number of aces.
Answer:
n (S) = 52
Number of aces = n (A) = 4

Let X denotes number of aces when two cards are drawn.

a) Show thatis purely imaginary.

Question 42.
(a) Show that \(\left(\frac{19+9 i}{5-3 i}\right)^{15}-\left(\frac{8+i}{1+2 i}\right)^{15}\) is purely imaginary.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) (i) Define an operation * on Q as follows: a*b = \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \) a,b ∈ Q . Examine the closure, commutative, and associative properties satisfied by * on Q
(ii) Define an operation * on Q as follows: a*b = \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \) a,b ∈ Q
existence of identity and the existence of inverse for the operation * on Q
Answer:
(i) 1. Closure property:
Let a, b ∈ Q.
a*b = \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \) ∈ Q (∵ a, b, 2 ∈ Q)
So, closure property is satisfied.

2. Commutative property:
Let a,b ∈ Q.
a*b = \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \) …..(1)
b*a = \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \) ……(2)
(1) = (2) ⇒ Now a * b = b * a
⇒ Commutative property is satisfied.

3. Associative property:
Let a, b,c ∈ Q.
To prove associative property we have to prove that a * (b * c) = (a * b) * c

So, associative property is not satisfied.

(ii) a* b = \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \)
Let e ∈ Q be the identity element. Then a * e = a
To find e : a * e = a
(i.e.) \(\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right) \) = a ⇒a + e = 2a ⇒ e = 2a- a
(i.e.) the identity element e = a which is not possible.
So, the identity element does not exist and so inverse does not exist.

Question 43.
(a) Solve (v – 3) (x – 6) (x – 1) (x + 2) + 54 = 0.
Answer:
(x – 3) (x – 1) (x – 6) (x + 2) + 54 = 0
(x²– 4x + 3) (x² – 4x – 12) + 54 = 0
Put x² – 4x = y
(y + 3)(y – 12) + 54 = 0
y²– 9y – 36 + 54 = 0
y² – 9y + 18 = 0
(y – 3) (y – 6) = 0
(y – 3) = 0
x² – 4x – 3 = 0


[OR]

(b) Find the local extrema of the function f(x) = 4x⁶ – 6x⁴
Answer:
Differentiating with respect to x, we get
f (x) = 24x⁵ – 24x³
= 24x³ (x² – 1)
= 24x³ (x + 1) (x – 1)
f’ (x) = 0 ⇒ x = -1, 0, 1. Hence the critical
numbers are x = -1, 0, 1
Now, f'”(x) = 120x⁴ – 72x² = 24x² (5x² – 3)
⇒ f” (-1)= 48, f” (0) = 0, f”(1) = 48.
As f” (-1) and f”(1) are positive by the second derivative test, the function f(x) has local minimum. But at x = 0, f ” (0) = 0. That is the second derivative test does not give any information about local extrema at x = 0 . Therefore, we need to go back to the first derivative test. The intervals of monotonicity is tabulated in the table.

Question 44.
(a) Prove that \(\tan ^{-1} \frac{2}{11}+\tan ^{-1} \frac{7}{24}=\tan ^{-1} \frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:

(b) If v(x, y) = \(\log \left(\frac{x^{2}+y^{2}}{x+y}\right)\), prove that \(x \frac{\partial v}{\partial x}+y \frac{\partial v}{\partial y}=1\)
Answer:

‘ f ‘ is a homogeneous function of degree 1. By Euler’s theorem, we have

Question 45.
(a) Find the equations of the two tangents that can be drawn from (5, 2) to the ellipse 2x² + 7y² = 14 .
Answer:
2x² + 7y² = 14

The equation of tangent to the above ellipse will be of the form

Here the tangents are drawn from the point (5, 2)

Squaring on both sides we get
(2 – 5m)² = 7m² + 2
25m² + 4 – 20m – 7m² – 2 = 0
18m² – 20m + 2 = 0
(= by 2) => 9m² – 10m + 1 = 0
(9m – 1) (m – 1) = 0
m = 1 (or) m = 1/9
When m = 1, the equation of tangent is
y = x + 3 or x-y + 3 = 0
When m = 1/9 the equation of tangent is 9

[OR]

(b) Find the coordinates of the foot of the perpendicular and length of the perpendicular from the point (4, 3, 2) to the plane x + 2y + 3z = 2.
Answer:

Direction of the normal plane (1, 2, 3) JP(4, 3,2)
d.c.s of the PQ is\(\frac{x_{1}-4}{1}=\frac{y_{1}-3}{2}=\frac{z_{1}-2}{3}=k\)
x₁k + 4, y₁ = 2k + 3, z₁ = 3k + 2
This passes through the plane x + 2y + 3z = 2
k + 4 + 2(2 k + 3) + 3(3 k + 2) = 2
k+ 4 + 4k + 6 + 9k + 6 = 2
14k = 2 – 16
14k = -14
k = -1
∴ The coordinate of the foot of the perpendicular is (3, 1, -1)
∴ Length of the perpendicular to the plane is

Question 46.
(a) Solve (x + y)²\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = a² dx
Answer:
Put x+y = z. Differentiating with respect to x we get

(b) A police jeep, approaching an orthogonal intersection from the northern direction, is chasing a speeding car that has turned and moving straight east. When the jeep is 0.6 km north of the intersection and the car is 0.8 km to the east. The police determine with a radar that the distance between them and the car is increasing at 20 km/hr. If the jeep is moving at 60 km/hr at the instant of measurement, what is the speed of the car?
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Let w(x, y’ z) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}(x, y, z)\) ≠ (0, 0, 0). Show that \(\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial x^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial y^{2}}+\frac{\partial^{2} w}{\partial z^{2}}=0\)
Answer:

(b) Evaluate \(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{e^{-\tan x}}{\cos ^{6} \pi x} d x\)
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 150 words.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in about 250 words. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
With a wider span, there will be ………… hierarchical levels.
(a) more
(b) less
(c) multiple
(d) additional
Answer:
(b) less

Question 2.
Spot market is a market when the delivery of the financial instrument and payment of cash occurs.
(a) Immediately
(b) In the future
(c) Uncertain
(d) After one mouth
Answer:
(a) Immediately

Question 3.
How many times a security can be sold in a secondary market?
(a) only one time
(b) two time
(c) three times
(d) multiple times
Answer:
(d) multiple times

Question 4.
Money market provides ……………
(a) medium term funds
(b) short term funds
(c) long term funds
(d) shares
Answer:
(b) short term funds

Question 5.
Jobbers transact in a stock exchange.
(a) For their Clients
(b) For their Own Transactions
(c) For other Brokers
(d) For other Members
Answer:
(b) For their Own Transactions

Question 6.
Registering and controlling the functioning of collective investment schemes as ………..
(a) Mutual funds
(b) Listing
(c) Rematerialisation
(d) Dematerialisation
Answer:
(d) Dematerialisation

Question 7.
Human resource management determines the …… relationship.
(a) internal, external
(b) employer, employee
(c) owner, servant
(d) principle, agent
Answer:
(b) employer, employee

Question 8.
Advertisement is a ………. source of recruitment.
(a) internal
(b) external
(c) agent
(d) outsourcing
Answer:
(b) external

Question 9.
Selection is usually considered as a,process.
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) natural
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 10.
Improves skill levels of employees to ensure better job performance.
(a) Training
(b) Selection
(c) Recruitment
(d) Performance appraisal
Answer:
(d) Performance appraisal

Question 11.
Which one of the market deals in the purchase and sale of shares and debentures?
(a) stock exchange market
(b) Manufactured goods market
(c) local market
(d) family market
Answer:
(a) stock exchange market

Question 12.
In the following variables which one is not the variable of marketing mix?
(a) place variable
(b) product variable
(c) program variable
(d) price variable
Answer:
(c) program variable

Question 13.
Social marketing deals with
(a) Society
(b) Social clan
(c) Social change
(d) Social evil
Answer:
(c) Social change

Question 14.
The main objective of all business enterprises is …………….
(a) Providing service
(b) Providing better standard of life
(c) Providing necessities to the society
(d) Earn profit
Answer:
(d) Earn profit

Question 15.
As the consumer is having the rights, they are also having
(a) measures
(b) Promotion
(c) responsibilities
(d) duties
Answer:
(c) responsibilities

Question 16.
Which of the following is not a consumer right summed up by John.F.Kennedy.
(a) Right to safety
(b) Right to choose
(c) Right to consume
(d) Right to be informed
Answer:
(a) Right to safety

Question 17.
The chairman of the District Forum is
(a) District Judge
(b) High court Judge
(c) Supreme court Judge
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) District Judge

Question 18
ownership makes bold management decisions due to their strong foundation in the intimation level.
(a) Private
(b) Public
(c) Corporate
(d) MNC’s
Answer:
(a) Private

Question 19.
The property in the goods means the
(a) Possession of goods
(b) Custody of goods
(c) Ownership of goods
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Ownership of goods

Question 20.
Number of parties is a bill of exchange are
(a) 2
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Part – II

Answer any seven in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What are the objectives of MBO?
Answer:
Management by objectives is intended primarily:

• To measure and judge performance.
• To relate individual performance to organisational goals.
• To clarify both the job to be done and the expectations of accomplishment.
• To foster the increasing competence and growth of the subordinates.

Question 22.
Write a note on OTCEI.
Answer:
The OTCEI was set up by a premier financial institution to allow the trading of securities across the electronic counters throughout the country.

Question 23.
Define Stock Exchange.
Answer:
According to Husband and Dockerary, “Stock exchanges are privately organized markets which are used to facilitate trading in securities.”

Question 24.
Give the meaning of Human Resource.
Answer:
In an organisation, the human resource are the employees who are inevitable for the survival t and success of the enterprise.

Question 25.
What is service marketing?
Answer:
Service marketing denotes the processing of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism, professional services, repairs etc.

Question 26.
Write short notes on: “Right to be informed.”
Answer:
Consumers should be given all the relevant facts about the product. This implies that the manufacturer and the dealer are expected to disclose all the material facts relevant and relating to the product.

Question 27.
What is GST?
Answer:
GST is the indirect tax levied on goods and services across the country. It is a comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based tax that is levied on every value addition.

Question 28.
What is a contract of sale of goods?
Answer:
Contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property (ownership) of the goods to the buyer for a price.

Question 29.
What is the other name of business entrepreneur?
Answer:
The term entrepreneur means the person who takes steps for commencing the business. So he is otherwise called as organiser or proprietor.

Question 30.
Define Director.
Answer:
The Companies Act 2013 section 2 (34) defines a director appointed to the board of a Company is “A Person who is appointed or elected member of the Board of Directors of a company and has the responsibility of determining and implementing policies along with others in the board”.

Part – III

Answer any seven in which question No. 31 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What are the process involved in MBO?
Answer:

• Defining Organisational Objectives
• Goals of Each Section
• Fixing Key Result Areas
• Setting subordinate objectives or targets
• Matching Resources with objective
• Periodical Review meetings
• Appraisal of Activities
• Reappraisal of objectives

Question 32.
Differentiate spot market from future market.
Answer:

Question 33.
What are the documents required for a Demat account?
Answer:
For opening a demat account, we submit proof of identity and address along with a passport size photo and the account opening form.

• Documents for Identity: Pan card, Voters ID, Passport, Driver’s License, IT Returns, Electricity and Telephone Bills are the Identity documents.
• Documents for Address: Ration card, Passport, Voter’s ID card, Driving License, Telephone Bills, Electricity bills are the address documents.

Question 34.
Mention any three Role of Marketer.
Answer:
(1) Instigator: As an instigator, marketer keenly watches the developments taking place in the market and identifies marketing opportunities emerging in the ever changing market.

(2) Integrator: Marketer plays a role of integrator in the sense that he collects feedback or vital inputs from channel members and consumers.

(3) Implemented Marketer plays a role of implementer when he/she actually converts marketing opportunities into marketable product.

Question 35.
Discuss the objectives E-Marketing.
Answer:
The following are the objectives of E-Marketing:

• Expansion of market share
• Reduction of distribution and promotional expenses
• Achieving higher brand awareness
• Strengthening database

Question 36.
What do you understand by “Right to redressal”?
Answer:
The complaints and protests are not just to be heard: but the aggrieved party is to be granted compensation within a reasonable time period . There should be prompt settlement of complaints and claims lodged by the aggrieved customers.

Question 37.
Explain the concept of Privatisation.
Answer:
Privatisation means permitting the private sector to set up industries which were previously reserved for the public, sector. Under this policy many Public Sector Units (PSUs) were sold to private sector. The main reason for privatisation was that PSUs were running in losses due to mismanagement and political interference.

Question 38.
What are the characteristics of a bill of exchange?
Answer:
Characteristics of a Bill of Exchange:

• A bill of exchange is a document in writing.
• The document must contain an order to pay.
• The order must be unconditional.
• The instrument must be signed by the person who draws it.
• The name of the person on whom the bill is drawn must be specified in the bill itself.

Question 39.
Distinguish between Entrepreneur and Manager.

Question 40.
When are alternative directors appointed?
Answer:
Alternate director is appointed by the Board of Directors, as a substitute to a director who may be absent from India, for a period which is not less than three months.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41
(a) Explain the various functions of management.
Answer:

• Planning:- Planning is the primary function of management. Planning is a constructive reviewing of future needs so that present actions can be adjusted in view of the established goal.
• Organising:- Organising is the process of establishing harmonious relationship among the members of an organisation and the creation of network of relationship among them.
• Staffing:- Staffing function comprises the activities of selection and placement of competent personnel.
• Directing:- Directing denotes motivating, leading, guiding and communicating with subordinates on an ongoing basis in order to accomplish pre-set goals.
• Controlling:- Controlling is performed to evaluate the performance of employees and deciding increments and promotion decisions.
• Co-ordination:- Co-ordination is the synchronization of the actions of all individuals, working in the enterprise in different capacities.
• Motivating:- The goals are achieved with the help of motivation. Motivation includes increasing the speed of performance of a work and developing a willingness on the part of workers.

Subsidiary Functions:

• Innovation:- Innovation includes developing new material, new products, new techniques in production, new package, new design of a product and cost reduction.
• Representation:- A manager has to act as representative of a company. It is the duty of every manager to have good relation with others.
• Decision-making:- Every employee of an organisation has to take a number of decisions every day. Decision-making helps in the smooth functioning of an organisation.
• Communication:- Communication is the transmission of human thoughts, views or opinions from one person to another person. Communication helps the regulation of job and co-ordinates the activities.

[OR]

(b) Compare the concept of social marketing with service marketing.
Answer:
Social marketing: Social marketing is a new marketing tool.
It is the systematic application of marketing philosophy to achieve social good.
The primary aim of social marketing is ‘social good’ such as anti-tobacco, anti-drug, anti-pollution, anti-dowry, road safety, protection of girl child.

• Service marketing: A service is any activity or benefit that one party can offer to another which is essentially intangible.
• Service marketing is a specialized branch of marketing.
• Service marketing denotes the process of selling service goods like telecommunication, banking, insurance, car rentals, healthcare, tourism and repairs.

Question 42
(a) Explain the various disadvantages of MBO.
Answer:

• MBO fails to explain the philosophy; most of the executives do not know how MBO works? what is MBO? and why is MBO necessary? and how participants can benefit by MBO.
• MBO is a time consuming process. Much time is needed by senior people for framing the MBO. Next, it leads to heavy expenditure and also requires heavy paper work.
• MBO emphasises only on short-term objectives and does not consider the long-term objectives.
• The status of subordinates is necessary for proper objectives setting. But, this is not possible in the process of MBO.
• MBO is rigid one. Objectives should be changed according to the changed circumstances, external or internal. If it is not done, the planned results cannot be obtained.

[OR]
(b) Explain the duties of consumers.
Answer:
Apart from rights, there are certain duties imposed on the consumer. The following are the duties of consumers.

• Buying Quality Products at Reasonable Price: It is the duty of a consumer to purchase a product after gaining a thorough knowledge of its price, quality and other terms and conditions.
• Ensure the Weights and Measurement before Purchase: The consumer should ensure that he/she is getting the product of exact weight and. measure.
• Reading the Label Carefully: It is the duty of the consumer to read the label of the product thoroughly.
• Beware of False and Attractive Advertisements: It is the prime duty of the consumer about the genuineness of the advertisement, before purchasing the product.
• Ensuring the Receipt of Cash Bill: It is a legitimate duty of consumers to get the cash receipt and warranty card supplied along with the bill.

Question 43.
(a) Explain the Instruments of Money Market.
Answer:
(i) Treasury Bills: Treasury bills are very popular and enjoy a higher degree of liquidity since they are issued by the Government. A Treasury bill is nothing but a promissory note issued for a specified period stated therein. The Government promises to pay the specified amount mentioned therein to the bearer of the instrument on the due date. The period does not exceed a period of one year.

(ii) Certificate of Deposits: Certificate of Deposits are short-term deposit instruments issued by banks and financial institutions to raise large sums of money. The Certificate of Deposit is transferable from one party to another. Due to their negotiable feature, they are also known as negotiable certificate of deposit.

(iii) Commercial Bills: The Commercial Bill is an instrument drawn by a seller of goods on a buyer of goods. It possesses the advantages like self-liquidating in nature, recourse to two parties, knowing exact date of transactions, transparency of transactions etc.

[OR]

(b) Explain the overall performance of State Commission.
The State Commission is to be appointed by the State Government. The person who is a judge or retired judge of high court is the president of the state commission.

Performances:

• The compensation of the value should not exceed Rs.20 lakhs and below Rs.1 crore.
• The state commission has the power to call for the records and pass orders in the district forum.
• To furnish the information which is required for the purpose of the Act to any officer.

Question 44.
(a) Explain the powers of SEBI.
Answer:
The various powers of a SEBI are explained below:

• Powers Relating to Stock Exchanges and Intermediaries: SEBI has wide powers to get the information from the stock exchange and intermediaries regarding their business transactions for inspection.
• Power to Impose Monetary Penalties: SEBI has power to impose monetary penalties on capital market intermediaries for violations.
• Power to Initiate Actions in Functions Assigned
• Power to Regulate Insider Trading: SEBI has power to regulate insider trading or can regulate the functions of merchant banker.
• Powers Under Securities Contracts Act: For the regulation of stock exchange, the Ministry of Finance issued a notification, for delegating several of its powers under the securities contract Act.

[OR]

(b) Explain the impact of LPG on Indian Economy.
Impact of Liberalization:

• Liberalization has opened up new business opportunities abroad and increased foreign direct investment.
• New market for various goods came into existence and resulted not only in urban but also in rural development.
• It became very easy to obtain loans from banks for business expansion.

Impact of Privatization:

• Privatization has a positive impact on the financial growth by decreasing the deficits and debts.
• Increase in the efficiency of government undertakings.
• Provide better goods and services to the consumers.

Impact of Globalization:

• Multinational corporations can manufacture, buy and sell goods worldwide.
• Globalization has led to a boom in consumer products market.
• The advent of foreign companies and growth in economy has led to job creation.

Question 45
(a) Describe the significance of External source of recruitment.
Answer:
External sources of recruitment include sources that lie outside the organisation. This provides a wider collection of potential employees with the necessary skillset, especially for managerial and technical positions. Existing employees can recommend suitable candidates, which may lead to a higher level of teamwork and synchronisation among employees. Hiring new employees can lead to the introduction of new blood and thus the introduction of a new set of skills and ideas. External sources of recruitment offer jobs to unskilled, semi-skilled and skilled workers.

[OR]

(b) Discuss in detail the features of a cheque.
Answer:
A cheque is a negotiable instrument drawn on a particular banker.
Features:
(i) Instrument in Writings
A cheque or a bill or a promissory note must be an instrument in writing. Though the law does not prohibit a cheque being written in pencil, bankers never accept it because of risks involved. Alternation is quite easy but detection is impossible in such cases.

(ii) Unconditional Orders
The instrument must contain an order to pay money. It is not necessary that the word ‘order’ or its equivalent must be used to make the document a cheque. It does not cease to be a cheque just because the world ‘please’ is used before the word pay. Further the order must be unconditional.

(iii) Drawn on a Specified Banker Only
The cheque is always drawn on a specified banker. A cheque vitally differs from a bill in this respect as latter can be drawn on any person including a banker. The customer of a banker can draw the cheque only on the particular branch of the bank where he has an account.

(iv) A Certain Sum of Money Only
The order must be for payment of only money. If the banker is asked to deliver securities, the document cannot be called a cheque. Further, the sum of money must be certain.

(v) Payee to be Certain
The cheque must be made payable to a certain person or to the order of a certain person . or to the bearer of the instrument. The word, person includes corporate bodies, local authorities, associations, holders of the office of an institution etc.

(vi) Signed by the Drawer
The cheque is to be signed by the drawer. Further, it should tally with specimen signature furnished to the bank at the time of opening the account

Question 46.
(a) What are the differences between on the job training and off the job training?
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the various kinds of Debentures?
Answer:
Debenture is a document issued by the company for acknowledging the loan from the public. Debentures are classified into different categories on the basis of:

• Convertibility of the Instrument
• Security of the Instrument;
• Redemption ability; and
• Registration of Instrument.

On the basis of convertibility:

• Non-Convertible Debentures: These instruments cannot be converted into equity shares.
• Partly Convertible Debentures: A part of these instruments are converted into equity shares.
• Fully Convertible Debentures: These are fully convertible into equity shares.
• Optionally Convertible Debentures: The investor can have the option to either convert the debentures at a price decided by the issuer or agreed upon at the time of issue.

On the basis of Security:

• Secured Debentures: These instruments are secured by a charge on the fixed assets of the issuer company.
• Unsecured Debentures: These instruments are unsecured against the assets.

On the basis of Redeemability:

• Redeemable Debentures: It refers to the debentures which will be redeemed in the future.
• Irredeemable Debentures: It is a debenture, in which no specific time is specified by the companies to pay back the money.

On the basis of Registration:

• Registered Debentures: These are issued in the name of a particular person, who is registered by the company.
• Bearer Debentures: These are issued to the bearer and are negotiable instruments, and are transferred by mere delivery.

Question 41.
(a) Why the marketing is important to the society and individual firm? Explain.
Answer:
Importance of Marketing:
To the Society:

• Marketing is a connecting link between the consumer and the producer.
• Marketing helps in increasing the living standard of people.
• Marketing helps to increase the nation’s income.
• Marketing process increases employment opportunities.
• Marketing helps to maintain economic stability and rapid development in various countries.

To the Individual Firms:

• Marketing generates revenue to firms.
• Marketing gives information to the top management for taking overall decisions on production.
• Marketing and innovation are the two basic functions of all businesses.

[OR]

(b) State the qualification of directors.
Qualifications of Director: As regards to the qualification of directors, there is no direct provision in the Companies Act, 2013. In general, a director shall possess appropriate skills, experience and knowledge in the fields of finance, law, management, sales, marketing, research and other disciplines related to the business.

The following are the qualifications:

• A director must be a person of sound mind.
• A director must hold share qualification if the article of association provides such.
• A director must be an individual.
• A director should be a solvent person.
• A director should not be convicted by the Court for any offence, etc.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 14 Importing C++ Programs in Python Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 14 Importing C++ Programs in Python

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Science Importing C++ Programs in Python Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Best Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a scripting language?
(a) JavaScript
(b) PHP
(c) Perl
(d) HTML
Answer:
(d) HTML

Question 2.
Importing C++ program in a Python program is called …………………………
(a) wrapping
(b) Downloading
(c) Interconnecting
(d) Parsing
Answer:
(a) wrapping

Question 3.
The expansion of API is ……………………….
(a) Application Programming Interpreter
(b) Application Programming Interface
(c) Application Performing Interface
(d) Application Programming Interlink
Answer:
(b) Application Programming Interface

Question 4.
A framework for interfacing Python and C++ is ………………………….
(a) Ctypes
(b) SWIG
(c) Cython
(d) Boost
Answer:
(d) Boost

Question 5.
Which of the following is a software design technique to split your code into separate parts?
(a) Object oriented Programming
(b) Modular programming
(c) Low Level Programming
(d) Procedure oriented Programming
Answer:
(b) Modular programming

Question 6.
The module which allows you to interface with the Windows operating system is ………………………….
(a) OS module
(b) sys module
(c) csv module
(d) getopt module
Answer:
(a) OS module

Question 7.
getopt( ) will return an empty array if there is no error in splitting strings to …………………………..
(a) argv variable
(b) opt variable
(c) args variable
(d) ifile variable
Answer:
(c) args variable

Question 8.
Identify the function call statement in the following snippet.
if_name ==’_main_’:
main(sys.argv[l:])
(a) main(sys.argvfl:])
(b) _name_
(c) _main_
(d) argv
Answer:
(b) _name_

Question 9.
Which of the following can be used for processing text, numbers, images, and scientific data?
(a) HTML
(b) C
(c) C++
(d) PYTHON
Answer:
(d) PYTHON

Question 10.
What does name contains?
(a) C++ filename
(b) main( ) name
(c) python filename
(d) os module name
Answer:
(c) python filename

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
What is the theoretical difference between Scripting language and other programming language?
Answer:
The theoretical difference between the two is that scripting languages do not require the 228 compilation step and are rather interpreted. For example, normally, a C++ program needs to be compiled before running whereas, a scripting language like JavaScript or Python need not be compiled. A scripting language requires an interpreter while a programming language requires a compiler.

Question 2.
Differentiate compiler and interpreter?
Answer:
Compiler:

1. It converts the whole program at a time
2. It is faster
3. Error detection is difficult. Eg. C++

Interpreter:

1. line by line execution of the source code.
2. It is slow
3. It is easy Eg. Python

Question 3.
Write the expansion of

1. SWIG
2. MinGW

Answer:
SWIG (Simplified Wrapper Interface Generator. Both C and C++)
MinGW (Minimalist GNU for Windows)

Question 4.
What is the use of modules?
Answer:
We use modules to break down large programs into small manageable and organized files. Furthermore, modules provide reusability of code. We can define our most used functions in a module and import it, instead of copying their definitions into different programs.

Question 5.
What is the use of cd command. Give an example?
Answer:
The syntax to change from c:\> to the folder where Python is located is
cd <absolute path>
where “cd” command refers to change directory and absolute path refers to the complete path where Python is installed.

In this Example to go to the folder where Python is located we should type the following command “cd C:\Program Files\OpenOffiice 4\Program”:

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate PYTHON and C++?
Answer:
PYTHON:

1. Python is typically an “interpreted” language
2. Python is a dynamic-typed language
3. Data type is not required while declaring variable
4. It can act both as scripting and general purpose language

C++:

1. C++ is typically a “compiled” language
2. C++ is compiled statically typed language
3. Data type is required while declaring variable
4. It is a general purpose language

Question 2.
What are the applications of scripting language?
Answer:
Applications of Scripting Languages

1. To automate certain tasks in a program
2. Extracting information from a data set
3. Less code intensive as compared to traditional programming language
4. can bring new functions to applications and glue complex systems together

Question 3.
What is MinGW? What is its use?
Answer:
MinGW refers to a set of runtime header files, used in compiling and linking the code of C, C++ and FORTRAN to be run on Windows Operating System.

MinGw-W64 (versionofMinGW) is the best compiler for C++ on Windows. To compile and execute the C++ program, you need ‘g++’ for Windows. MinGW allows to compile and execute C++ program dynamically through Python program using g++.

Python program that contains the C++ coding can be executed only through minGW-w64 project run terminal. The run terminal open the command-line window through which Python program should be executed.

Question 4.
Identify the module, operator, definition name for the following
welcome.display( )
Answer:
welcome – module name
– dot operator
display( ) – function name

Question 5.
What is sys.argv? What does it contain?
Answer:
sys.argv is the list of command-line arguments passed to the Python program, argv contains all the items that come along via the command-line input, it’s basically an array holding the command-line arguments of the program.
To use sys.argv, you will first have to import sys. The first argument, sys.argv[0], is always the name of the program as it was invoked, and sys.argv[l] is the first argument you pass to the program (here it is the C++ file).
For example:
main(sys.args[1]) Accepts the program file (Python program) and the input file (C++ file) as a list(array). argv[0] contains the Python program which is need not to be passed because by default _main_ contains source code reference and argv[l] contains the name of the C++ file which is to be processed.

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write any 5 features of Python?
Answer:

1. Python uses Automatic Garbage Collection
2. Python is a dynamically typed language.
3. Python runs through an interpreter.
4. Python code tends to be 5 to 10 times shorter than that written in C++.
5. In Python, there is no need to declare types explicitly
6. In Python, a function may accept an argument of any type, and return multiple values without any kind of declaration beforehand.

Question 2.
Explain each word of the following command?
Answer:
The syntax to execute the Python program is
Python <filename.py> -i <C++filename without cpp extension>
Where,

Question 3.
What is the purpose of sys,os,getopt module in Python. Explain?
Answer:
1. Python’s sys module
This module provides access to some variables used by the interpreter and to functions that interact strongly with the interpreter.

sys.argv:
sys.argv is the list of command-line arguments passed to the Python program, argv contains all the items that come along via the command-line input, it’s basically an array holding the command-line arguments of the program.

To use sys.argv, you will first have to import sys. The first argument, sys.argv[0], is always the name of the program as it was invoked, and sys.argv) 1] is the first argument you pass to the program (here it is the C++ file). For example

main(sys.argv[ 1 ]) Accepts the program file (Python program) and the input file (C++ file) as a list(array). argv[0] contains the Python program which is need not to be passed because by default main contains source code reference and argv[l] contains the name of the C++ file which is to be processed.

2. Python’s OS Module
The OS module in Python provides a way of using operating system dependent functionality. The functions that the OS module allows you to interface with the Windows operating system where Python is running on.
os.system( ): Execute the C++ compiling command (a string contains Unix, C command which also supports C++ command) in the shell (Here it is Command Window). For Example to compile C++ program g++ compiler should be invoked. To do so the following command is used.
os.system (g++’ + <varciiable_namel> ‘-<mode>’+ <variable_name2>
where,

os.system(‘g++ ‘+ cpp_file + ‘-o ‘+ exe_file) g++ compiler compiles the file_cpp_file and -o (output) send to exe file
Note
‘+’ in os.system( ) indicates that all strings are concatenated as a single string and send that as a List.

3. Python getopt module
The getopt module of Python helps you to parse (split) command-line options and arguments. This module provides two functions to enable command-line argument parsing, getopt.getopt method
This method parses command-line options and parameter list. Following is the syntax for this method
<opts>,<args>=getopt.getopt(argv, options, {long_options])
Here is the detail of the parameters –
argv – This is the argument list of values to be parsed (splited). In our program the complete command will be passed as a list.
options – This is string of option letters that the Python program recognize as, for input or for output, with options (like ‘i’ or ‘o’) that followed by a colon (:). Here colon is used to denote the mode.
long options – This parameter is passed with a list of strings. Argument of Long options should be followed by an equal sign (‘=’). In our program the C++ fde name will be passed as string and ‘i’ also will be passed along with to indicate it as the input file.
getopt( ) method returns value consisting of two elements. Each of these values are stored separately in two different list (arrays) opts and args. Opts contains list of splitted strings like mode, path and args contains any string if at all not splitted because of wrong path or mode, args will be an empty array if there is no error in splitting strings by getopt( ).
For example The Python code which is going to execute the C++ file p4 in command line will have the getopt( ) method like the following one. opts, args = getopt.getopt (argv, “i:”,[‘ifile=]) where opto contains [(‘-i’, ‘c:\ \pyprg\\p4’)]
-i: – option nothing but mode should be followed by:
‘c: \ \pyprg\\p4’ value nothing but the absolute path of C++ file.
In our examples since the entire command line commands are parsed and no leftover argument, the second argument args will be empty [ ]. If args is displayed using print( ) command it displays the output as [ ].
>>>print(args)
[ ]

Question 4.
Write the syntax for getopt( ) and explain its arguments and return values?
Answer:
Python getopt module
The getopt module of Python helps you to parse (split) command-line options and arguments. This module provides two functions to enable command-line argument parsing, getopt.getopt method
This method parses command-line options and parameter list. Following is the syntax for this method –
<opts>,<args>=getopt.getopt(argx>, options, {.long_options])
Here is the detail of the parameters –

getopt( ) method returns value consisting of two elements. Each of these values are storec separately in two different list (arrays) opts and args .Opts contains list of splitted strings like mode, path and args contains any string if at all not splitted because of wrong path or mode, args will be an empty array if there is no error in splitting strings by getopt( ).
For example The Python code which is going to execute the C++ file p4 in command line will have the getopt( ) method like the following one. opts, args = getopt.getopt (argv, “i:”,[‘ifile=’])

In our examples since the entire command line commands are parsed and no leftover argument, the second argument args will be empty [ ]. If args is displayed using print( ) command it display the output as [ ].
>>>print(args)
[ ]
Some more command for wrapping C++ code
if_name_==’_main_’
main(sys.argv[1:])
_name_(A Special variable) in Python
Since there is no main() function in Python, when the command to run a Python program is given to the interpreter, the code that is at level 0 indentation is to be executed. However, before doing that, interpreter will define a few special variables. _name_ is one such special variable which by default stores the name of the file. If the source file is executed as the main program, the interpreter sets the _name_ variable to have a value as “_main_” name is a built-in variable which evaluates to the name of the current module. Thus it can be used to check whether the current script is being run on its own.
For example consider the following
if_name_ ==’_ main_’
main(sys.argv[1:])
if the command line Python program itself is going to execute first, then _main_ contains the name of that Python program and the Python special variable _name_ also contain the Python program name. If the condition is true it calls the main which is passed with C++ file as argument.

Question 5.
Write a Python program to execute the following C++ coding?
Answer:
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{ cout«“WELCOME”;
return (0);
}
The above C++ program is saved in a file welcome.cpp
Python program
Type in notepad and save as welcome.cpp
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
int main( )
{
cout<<“WELCOME”;
retum(0);
}
Open Notepad and type python program and save as welcome.py
import sys,os,getopt
def main(argv):
cppfile =”
exefile = ”
opts, args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”, [ifile = ‘])
for o,a in opts:
if o in (“_i”,” ifile “):
cpp_file = a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a+ ‘.exe’
run(cpp_file, exe_file)
def run(cpp_file, exe_file):
print(“compiling” +cpp_file)
os.system(‘g++’ +cpp_file + ‘_o’ + exe_file)
print(“Running” + exe_file)
print(“………………………….”)
print
os.system(exe_file)
print
if — name — == ‘–main –‘;
main(sys.argv[1:])
Output:
——————-
WELCOME
——————-

Practice Programs

Question 1.
Write a C++ program to create a class called Student with the following details?
Answer:
Protected member
Rno integer
Public members
void Readno(int); to accept roll number and assign to Rno
void Writeno( ); To display Rno.
The class Test is derived Publically from the Student class contains the following details
Protected member
Mark1 float
Mark2 float
Public members
void Readmark(float, float); To accept mark1 and mark2
void Writemark( ); To display the marks
Create a class called Sports with the following detail
Protected members
score integer
Public members
void Readscore(int); To accept the score
void Writescore( ); To display the score
The class Result is derived Publically from Test and Sports class contains the following – details
Private member
Total float
Public member
void display( ) assign the sum of mark1, mark2, score in total
invokeWriteno( ), Writemark( ) and Writescore( ). Display the total also.
Save the C++ program in a file called hybrid. Write a python program to execute the hybrid.cpp
Answer:
In Notepad, type the C++ program
#include<iostream>
using namespace std;
class student
{
protected:
int mo;
public:
void readno(int rollno)
{
mo = rollno;
}
void writeno( )
{
cout<< “\n Roll no:” <<rno;
}};
class test: public student
{
protected:
float mark1,mark2;
public:
void readmark(float m1, float m2)
{
mark1 = m1;
mark2 = m2;
}
void writemark( )
{
cout<< “\n mark1 ” << mark1;
cout<< “\n mark2 ” <<mark2;
}};
class sports
{
protected:
int score;
public:
void readscore(int s)
{
score = s;
}
void writescore( )
{
cout<< “SCORE : ” <<score;
}};
class result: public test, public sports
{
private: float total; public:
void display( )
{
total = mark1 + mark2;
cout<< “TOTAL MARKS: ” <<total;
}};
int main( )
{
result r;
r.readno(5);
r.readmark(100,100);
r.readscore(200);
r.writeno( );
r.writemark( );
r.display( );
r.writescore( );
}
save this file as hybrid.cpp
Now type the python program in New Notepad file.
# python hybrid.py -i hybrid.cpp
import sys,os,getopt def main(argv): cpp Jile =” exe_file =”
opts, args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”,[‘ifile-])
for o, a in opts:
if o in(“-i”, “–file”):
cpp_file =”a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a+ ‘.exe’
run(cpp_file, exefile)
def run(cpp_file, exe_file):
print(“Compiling” + cpp_file)
os.system(‘g++ ‘+ cpp_file + ‘-o ‘+ exe_file)
print(“Running” + exefile)
print(“———————“)
print
os.system(excfile)
print
if name ==’ main
main(sys.argv[1:])
Output:
Rollno : 5
Mark1 : 100
Mark2 : 100
TOTAL MARKS : 200
SCORE : 200

Question 2.
Write a C++ program to print boundary elements of a matrix and name the file as Border.cpp. Write a python program to execute the Border.cpp?
Answer:
Select File → New in Notepad and type the C++ program.
#include<iostream>
#include<bits/stdc++.h>
using namespace std;
const int MAX =100;
void printBoundary(int a[][max], int m, int n)
{
for (int i=0; i < m; i++)
{
for(int j=0; j < n; j++)
{
if(i= =0 || j= =0 || i= =n-l ||j==n-l)
cout <<a[i][j]
<< ” else
cout <<“”
cout<<”
}
cout <<” \n”;
}}
int main( )
{
int a[4][MAX] = { {1,2,3,4}, {5,6,7,8}, {1,2,3,4}, {5,6,7,8}};
print Boundary(a,4,4);
return 0;
}
save it as Border.cpp
open a New notepad file and type the python program to execute border.cpp
#python border.py -i border.cpp
import sys,os,getopt
def main(argv):
cpp_file =”
exe_file =”
opts, args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”,[‘ifile=’])
for o, a in opts;
if o in(“-i”, “-ifile”):
cpp_file =a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a+ ‘.exe’
run(cpp_file, exe_file)
def run(cpp_file, exe_file):
print(“Compiling” + cpp_file)
os.system(‘g++ ‘+ cpp_file + ‘-o ‘+ exe_file)
print(“Running” + exe_file)
print(“———————“)
print
os.system(exe_file)
print
if_name_==’_main_’:
main(sys.argv[1:])
Output:

Samacheer kalvi 12th Computer Science Importing C++ Programs in Python Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which one of the following language act as both scripting and general purpose language?
(a) python
(b) c
(c) C++
(d) html
Answer:
(a) python

Question 2.
Find the correct statement.
(a) C++ is a dynamic typed language
(b) python is a dynamic typed language
Answer:
(b) python is a dynamic typed language

Question 3.
Identify the script language from the following.
(a) Html
(b) Java
(c) Ruby
(d) C++
Answer:
(c) Ruby

Question 4.
Pick the odd one out Perl, Ruby, ASP, Tel, Java
Answer:
Java

Question 5.
Read the statement given below and choose the correct option.
(I) All scripting languages are progamming languages.
(II) A scripting language requires an interpreter
(III) Programming language requires a compiler
(a) (I) – False, (II), (III) – True
(b) (I), (II) – False
(c) All are true
(d) All are false
Answer:
(c) All are true

Question 6.
How many values can be returned by a function in python?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) many
Answer:
(d) many

Question 7.
The process by which python periodically frees and reclaims block of memory that no longer are in use is called ……………………………..
Answer:
Garbage Collection

Question 8.
………………………. is a python like language for writing c extensions.
Answer:
cython

Question 9.
Which of the following language codes are linked by minGW on windows OS?
(a) C
(b) C++
(c) FORTRAN
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 10.
……………………. is the best compiler for C++ on windows.
(a) MinGW-w64
(b) MinGW-w63
(c) MinGW-w62
(d) MinGW-w60
Answer:
(a) MinGW-w64

Question 11.
MinGW allows to compile and execute C++ program dynamically through python program using ……………………….
(a) C++
(b) g++
(c) a++
(d) x++
Answer:
(b) g++

Question 12.
g++ is a program that calls GNU C compiler called …………………………….
(a) GCC
(b) CCC
(c) GGC
(d) GGG
Answer:
(a) GCC

Question 13.
The command to change directory is …………………………….
(a) cc
(b) cd
(c) dc
(d) changed
Answer:
(b) cd

Question 14.
………………………. keyword is used to execute the python program from command line
Answer:
Python

Question 15.
The input mode in python command is given by ………………………….
(a) -i
(b) o
(c) -p
Answer:
(a) -i

Question 16.
Which command is used to clear the screen?
(a) clear
(b) clean
(c) cls
(d) clrscr
Answer:
(c) cls

Question 17.
……………………… refer to a file containing python statements and definitions.
Answer:
Modules

Question 18.
pythons’ …………………………… provides access to same variables and functions that interact with the interpreter.
Answer:
sys module

Question 19.
Which is the list of command-line arguments passed to the python program.
(a) sys.ar
(b) sys.argv
(c) sys.sys
(d) sys.opt
Answer:
(b) sys.argv

Question 20.
Match the following related to OS module.
1. g++ – (i) Name of C++file
2. variable namel – (ii) General compiler
3. mode – (iii) input output mode
4. variable_name2 – (iv) Name of exe file
(a) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv
(b) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv
(c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-ii
Answer:
(b) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii, 4-iv

Question 21.
Which in os.system( ) indicates that all strings are concatenated?
(a) +
(b) –
(c) #
(d) *
Answer:
(a) +

Question 22.
Which module helps to parse(split) command line options and arguments?
(a) getopt
(b) argopt
(c) get
(d) putopt
Answer:
(a) getopt

Question 23.
How many functions are there in getopt module to enable command line argument parsing?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 24.
getopt mode is given by ………………………….
(a) ;
(b) =
(c) #
(d) :
Answer:
(d) :

Question 25.
Argument of long options in the getopt method is followed by ………………………….
(a) ‘
(b) =
(c) #
(d) :
Answer:
(b) =

Question 26.
When the command to run a python program is given to interpreter, code at …………………………. indentation is executed.
(a) level 0
(b) level 1
(c) level 2
(d) level 3
Answer:
(a) level 0

Question 27.
Which one is a special variable which by default stores the name of the file.
(a) main
(b) none
(c) _name_
(d) get
Answer:
(c) _name_

Question 28.
The line number starts from …………………………… script.
Answer:
python

Question 29.
The …………………………… definition invoke the g++ compiler and creates the exe file?
Answer:

Question 30.
Which command of os module executes the exe file?
(a) run
(b) system( )
(c) main
(d) name
Answer:
(a) run

Question 31.
Which opeator is used to access the functions of a imported value?
(a) +
(b) *
(c) .
(d) /
Answer:
(c) .

Question 32.
………………………….. refers to a set of runtime header files used in compiling and linking the code of c, C++, Fortran to run on window os
(a) MaxGW
(b) CountGW
(c) MinGW
(d) AvgGW
Answer:
(c) MinGW

PART – II
II. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Write note on scripting language?
Answer:
A scripting language is a programming language designed for integrating and communicating with other programming languages. Some of the most widely used scripting languages are JavaScript, VBScript, PHP, Perl, Python, Ruby, ASP and Tel.

Question 2.
Write note on Modular programming?
Answer:
Modular programming is a software design technique to split your code into separate parts. These parts are called modules.The focus for this separation should have modules with no or just few dependencies upon other modules.

PART – III
III. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Name some commonly used Interfaces for importing C++ files on python?
Answer:
Importing C++ Files in Pythona:
Importing C++ program in a Python program is called wrapping up of C++ in Python. Wrapping or creating Python interfaces for C++ programs are done in many ways. The commonly used interfaces are

1. Python-C-API (API-Application Programming Interface for interfacing with C programs)
2. Ctypes (for interfacing with c programs)
3. SWIG (Simplified Wrapper Interface Generator.Both C and C++)
4. Cython (Cython is both a Python-like language for writing C-extensions)
5. Boost. Python (a framework for interfacing Python and C++)
6. MinGW (Minimalist GNU for Windows)

Question 2.
How will you import modules in python?
Answer:
We can import the definitions inside a module to another module. We use the import keyword to do this. To import the module factorial we type the following in the Python prompt.
>>> import factorial
Using the module name we can access the functions defined inside the module. The dot(.)
operator is used to access the functions. The syntax for accessing the functions from the module is
<module name>.<function name>
For example:
>>> factorial.fact(5)
120

Question 3.
Give the syntax for getopt module?
Answer:
The syntax for this method
<opts> ,<args>=getopt.getopt(argv, options, [long_options])
Here is the detail of the parameters –

Question 4.
Write the steps for executing the C++ program to check whether a given number is palindrome or not?
Answer:

PART – IV
IV. Answer The Following Questions

Question 1.
Explain Pythons OS Module?
Answer:
Python’s OS Module:
The OS module in Python provides a way of using operating system dependent functionality. The functions that the OS module allows you to interface with the Windows operating system where Python is running on.
os.system( ): Execute the C++ compiling command (a string contains Unix, C command which also supports C++ command) in the shell (Here it is Command Window). For Example to – compile C++ program g++ compiler should be invoked. To do so the following command is used.
os.system (g++’ + <varaiable_namel> ‘-<mode>’+ <variable_name2>
where,

For example the command to compile and execute C++ program is given below
os.system(’g++ ’+ cpp_file + ‘-o ‘+ exe_file) g++ compiler compiles the file cpp_file and -0(output) send to exe_file

Question 2.
Write a C++ program to check whether the given number is palindrome or not. Write a program to execute it?
Answer:
Example:- Write a C++ program to enter any number and check whether the number is palindrome or not using while loop.
/*. To check whether the number is palindrome or not using while loop.*/
//Now select File-> New in Notepad and type the C++ program
#include <iostream>
using namespace std; intmain( )
{
int n, num, digit, rev = 0;
cout << “Enter a positive number:”;
cin>>num;
n = num;
while(num)
{ digit=num% 10;
rev= (rev* 10) +digit;
num = num/10;
cout << “The reverse of the number is:”<<rev <<end1;
if (n ==rev)
cout<< “The number is a palindrome”;
else
cout<< “The number is a palindrome”;
return 0;
}
//save this file as pali_cpp.cpp
#Now select File → New in Notepad and type the Python program
#Save the File as pali.py.Program that complies and executes a .cpp file
import sys, os, getopt
def main(argv);
cpp_file=”
exe_file=”
opts.args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”,[‘ifile-])
for o, a in opts:
if o in (“-i”, “—file”):
cpp_file =a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file =a+ ‘.exe’
run(cpp_file, exe_file)
def run(cpp_file, exe_file):
print(“Compiling” + eppfile)
os.system(‘g++’ + cpp_file +’ -o’ + exe file)
print(“Running” + exe_file)
print(“——————“)
print
os.system(exefile)
print
if_name_==’_main_’: #program starts executing from here
main(sys.argv[1:])
Output of the above program
C:\Program Files\OpenOffice 4\program>Python c:\pyprg\pali.py -i c:\pyprg\pali_cpp
Compiling c:\pyprg\pali_cpp.cpp
Running c:\pyprg\pali_cpp.exe
———————————–
Enter a positive number: 56765
The reverse of the number is: 56765
The number is a palindrome
C:\Program Files\OpenOffice 4\program>Python c:\pyprg\pali.py -i c:\pyprg\pali_cpp Compiling c:\pyprg\pali_cpp.cpp Running c:\pyprg\pali_cpp.exe
Enter a positive number: 56756
The reverse of the number is: 65765
The number is not a palindrome
————————

Question 3.
Write a C++ program to check whether the given number is palindrome or not. Write a program to execute it?
Write a C++ program to enter any number and check whether the number is palindrome or not using while loop?
Answer:
//Now select File-> New in Notepad and type the C++ program
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
intmain( )
{
int a[3][3], i, j;
for(i=o; j<3;i++)
{
for(j=0;j<3;j++)
{count<<“enter the value for array [”<<i+1<<“]<<”<<“[“<<j+1<<“]”;
cin>>a[i][j];
}
}
system(“cls”); .
cout<<“\n \nOriginal Array\n”;
for(i=0; i<3; i++)
{
for(j=0; j<3; j++)
cout<<a[i] [j]
cout<<end1;
}
cout<<end1;
}
return 0;
}
// Save this file as trans_cpp.cpp
// Now select File → New in Notepad and type the Python program
#Save the File as transpose.py.Program that compiles and executes a .cpp file
#Python tanspose.py -i trans_cpp
import sys, os, getopt
def main(argv):
cpp_file =”
exefile =”
opts, args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”,[‘ifile=’])
for o, a in opts:
if o in (“-i”,–ifile”):
cpp_file =a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a+ ‘.exe’
run(cpp_file, exe_file)
def run(cpp_file, exe file):
print(“Compiling” + cppfile)
os.system(‘g++’ + cpp_file + ‘-o ‘+ exe_file)
print(“Running” + exefile)
print(“———————-“)
print
os.system(exe_file)
print
if_name_==’_main_’:
main(sys.argv[1:])
Output of the above program
Original Array
1 2 3
4 5 6
7 8 9
The Transpose of Matrix
1 4 7
2 5 8
3 6 9

Question 4.
Write a C++ program to find cube of a number. Write a python program to execute it?
Answer:
/* Write a C++program using a user definedfunction to function cube of a number. */
//Now select File → New in Notepad and type the C++program
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
//Function declaration
int cube(int num); int main( )
{
int num; int c;
cout<<“Enter any number: “<<end1;
cin>>num;
c = cube(num);
cout<<“Cube of’ <<num<<” is “<<c;
return 0;
}
//Function to find cube of any number
int cube(int num)
{
return (num * num * num);
}
//Save this file as cube_file.cpp
#Now select File → New in Notepad and type the Python program
#Save the File as fun.py
#Program that compiles and executes a .cpp file
#Python fun.py -i c:\pyprg\cuheJile.cpp
import sys, os, getopt
def main(argv):
cpp_Jile =”
exe_file =”
opts, args = getopt.getopt(argv, “i:”,[‘ifile-])
for o, a in opts:
if o in(“-i”, —ifile”):
cpp_file =a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a+ ‘.exe’
run(cpp_file, exe_file)
def run(cpp_file, exe file):
print(“Compiling” + cppfile)
os.system(‘g++’+ cpp file + ‘-o ‘+ exe file)
print(“Running” + exe_file)
print(“——————–“)
print
os. sy stem(exe_file)
print
if_name_==’_main_’:
main(sys.argv[1:])
Output of the above program
Compiling c:\pyprg\cube_file.cpp
Running c:\pyprg\cube_file.exe
———————-
Enter any number:
5
Cube of 5 is 125

Question 5.
Write a C++ program to implement multilevel inheritance. Write a python program to execute it?
Answer:
// C++program to implement Multilevel Inheritance
//Now select File → New in Notepad and type the C++program
#include <iostream>
using namespace std;
// base class
class Vehicle
{
public:
Vehicle( )
{
cout<< “This is a Vehicle” <<end1;
}
};
class threeWheeler: public Vehicle
{public:
threeWheeler( )
{
cout<<“Objects with 3 wheels are vehicles”<<end1;
}
};
// sub class derivedfrom two base classes
class Auto: public threeWheeler
{
public:
Auto( )
{
cout<<“Auto has 3 Wheels”<<end1;
}
// main function
int main( )
{
//creating object of sub class will invoke the constructor of base classes
Auto obj;
return 0;
}
// Save this file as inheri_cpp.cpp
//Now select File —* New in Notepad and type the Python program
#Save the File as classpy.py
#Python classpy.py -i inheri_cpp command to execute C++ program
import sys, os, getopt
def main (argv):
cpp_file =”
exe file= 11
opts, args = getopt.getopt (argv, 11i: 11 ,[‘ifile=’])
for o, a in opts:
if o in (“-i”, —ifile”):
cpp_file =a+ ‘.cpp’
exe_file = a+ ‘.exe’
run (cpp file, exe_file)
def run(cpp_file, exe_file):
print (”Compiling 11 + cpp file)
os.system (‘g++’ + cpp_file +’ -o ‘+ exe_file)
print (“Running”+ exe file)
print(“———————“)
print
os.system (exefile) print
if_name_==’_main_’:
main (sys.argv[1:])
Output of the above program
Compiling c:\pyprg\class_file.cpp
Running c:\pyprg\class_file.exe
This is a Vehicle
Objects with 3 wheels are vehicles
Auto has 3 Wheels

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Pan I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions.  [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
7 & 3 \\
4 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) then 9I₂ – A =
(a) A^-1
(b) \(\frac{A^{-1}}{2}\)
(c) 3A^-1
(d) 2A^-1
Answer:
(d) 2A^-1

Question 2.
If (1+ i) (1+ 2i) (1+ 3i)…(1+ ni) = x + iy, then 2-5T0…(1 + n² ) is ..
(a) 1
(b) i
(c) x² + y²
(d) 1 + n²
Answer:
(c) x² + y²

Question 3.
If p + iq = (2 – 3i) (4 + 2i) then q is
(a) 14
(b) -14
(c) -8
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) -8

Question 4.
A zero of x³ + 64 is
(a) 0
(b) 4
(c) 4i
(d) -4
Answer:
(d) -4

Question 5.
sin^-1(2COS²A – 1) + cos^-1(1 – 2 sin²x) = .

(a) π/2
(b) π /3
(c) π/4
(d) π/6
Answer:
(a) π/2

Question 6.
If cot^-1 x = \(\frac{2 \pi}{5}\) for some x ∈ R, the value of tan^-1 x is
(a) \(-\frac{\pi}{10}\)
(b) \(\frac{\pi}{5}\)
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{10}\)
(d) \(-\frac{\pi}{5}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{\pi}{10}\)

Question 7.
An ellipse has OB as semi minor axes, F and F’ its foci and the angle FBF’ is a right angle. Then the eccentricity of the ellipse is

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 8.
The focus of the parabola x² = 20 y is
(a) (0, 0)
(b) (5, 0)
(c) (0, 5)
(d) (-5, 0)
Answer:
(c) (0, 5)

Question 9.
If the planes \(\vec{r} \cdot(2 \hat{i}-\lambda \hat{j}+\hat{k})=3\) and \((4 \hat{i}+\hat{j}-\mu \hat{k})=5\) are parallel, then the value of λ and μ are

Answer:
(c) \(-\frac{1}{2}\) , -2

Question 10.
The unit normal vectors to the plane 2x – y + 2z = 5 are

Question 11.
The slope of the line normal to the curve f(x) – 2cos 4x at x = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\) is ……………….
(a) -4√3
(b) -4
(c) √3/12
(d) 4√3
Answer:
(c) √3/12

Question 12.
The curve y² = x² ( 1 – x) has
(a) only one loop between x = -1 and x = 0
(b) only one loop between x = 0 and x = 1
(c) two loops between x = -1 and x = 1
(d) no loop
Answer:
(b) only one loop between x = 0 and x = 1

Question 13.
If w (x, y) = x^y, x > 0, then \(\frac{\partial w}{\partial x}\) is equal to
(a) x^y logx
(b) y logx
(c) yx^y-1
(d) xlogy
Answer:
(c) yx^y-1

Question 14.
If (x, y, z) = xy + yz + zx, then f_x – f_z is equal to
(a) z – x
(b) y – z
(c) x – z
(d) y – x
Answer:
(a) z – x

Question 15.
If \(\frac{\Gamma(n+2)}{\Gamma(n)}\) = 90 then n is
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer:
(d) 9

Question 16.
If n is even then \(\int_{0}^{\pi / 2} \sin ^{n} x d x\) is ………………

Answer:
(b)

Question 17.
The slope at any point of a curve y =/(x) is given by \(\frac{d y}{d x}=3 x^{2}\) and it passes through (-1,1).
Then the equation of the curve is
(a) y = x³ + 2
(b) y = 3x² + 4
(c) y = 3x³ + 4
(d) y = x³ + 5
Answer:
(a) y = x³ + 2

Question 18.
The solution of the differential equation \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}=0\) is
(a) y + sin^-1x = c
(b) x + sin^-1y = 0
(c) y² + 2sin^-1x = c
(d) x² + 2sin^-1y = 0

Question 19.
Suppose that x takes on one of the values 0, 1, and 2. If for some constant k,
P(X = i) = k P(x = i – 1) for i = 1, 2 P(x = 0) = 1/7. Then the value of k is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 20.
Determine the truth value of each of the following statements:
(a) 4 + 2 = 5 and 6 + 3 = 9
(b) 3 + 2 = 5 and 6 + 1 = 7
(c) 4 + 5 = 9 and 1 + 2 = 4
(d) 3 + 2 = 5 and4 + 7 = 11

Answer:
(1) (a) F
(b) T
(c) F
(d) T

Part – II

II. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
4 & 3 \\
2 & 5
\end{array}\right]\) , find x and y such that A² + xA + yI₂ = O₂. Hence , find A^-1
Answer:

So, we get 22 + 4x + y = 0, 31+ 5x + y – 0, 27 + 3x = 0 and 18 + 2x = 0.
Hence x = -9 and y = 14. Then, we get A² – 9A + 14I₂ = O₂
Post-multiplying this equation by A^-1, we get A – 9I + 14A^-1 – I₂ = O₂. Hence, we get

Question 22.
Find the principal argument arg z, when z = \(\frac{-2}{1+i \sqrt{3}}\)
Answer:

This implies that one of the values of arg z is \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)
Since \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\) lies between -π and π , the principal argument arg z is \(\frac{2 \pi}{3}\)

Question 23.
Verify whether the line \(\frac{x-3}{-4}=\frac{y-4}{-7}=\frac{z+3}{12}\) lies in the plane 5x – y + z = 8 .
Answer:
Here, (x₁, y₁, z₁) = (3,4, -3) and direction ratios of the given straight line are (a, b, c) – (-4, -7,12).
Direction ratios of the normal to the given plane are (A, B, C) = (5, -1,1).
We observe that, the given point (x₁, y₁, z₁) = (3,4, -3) satisfies the given plane 5x – y + z = 8
Next, aA+ bB + cC = (-4)(5) + (-7)(-l) + (12)( 1) = -1 ≠ 0. So, the normal to the plane is not perpendicular to the line. Hence, the given line does not lie in the plane.

Question 24.
Evaluate \(\begin{aligned}
&\lim\\
&x \rightarrow 0^{+} \quad x^{2} \log e^{x}
\end{aligned}\)
Answer:

Question 25.
Find a linear approximation for the function at the indicated points.
g(x) = \(\sqrt{x^{2}+9}\), x₀ = -4

The required linear approximation L(x) = g (x₀) + g’ (x₀) (x – x₀)

Question 26.
Evaluate: \(\int_{0}^{2 \pi} x^{2} \sin n x d x\) , Where n is a positive integer.
Answer:
Taking u = x² and v = sin nx, and applying the Bernoulli’s formula, we get

Question 27.
Form the differential equation from the equation y² = 4a (x – a)
Answer:
y²= 4 a(x-a) …(1)
Differentiating, 2yy’ = 4a …(2)
Eliminating a between (1) and (2) we get

(yy ‘)² – 2xyy’ + y² = 0

Question 28.
Compute P(X = k) for the binomial distribution, B(n,p) where n = 6, p = 1/3, k = 3
Answer:
Given n = 6, p = 1/3,k = 3
∴ q = 1 – p = \(1-\frac{1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}\)
P(X = x) = nC_xp^xq^n-x, x = 0, 1,2,…………n
P (X = k) = P (X = 3)

Question 29.
Let A = {a + √5b : a, b∈Z} . Check whether the usual multiplication is a binary operation on A.
Answer:
Let A = a + √5 b and B = c + √5 d, where a, b,c,d∈ R.
Now A * B = (a + √5 b) (c + √5 d)
= ac + √5 ad + √5 bc + √5 b √5 d
= (ac + 5 bd) + 45 (ad + bc) ∈ A .
Where a, b,c,d ∈ Z.
So * is a binary operation.

Question 30.
Find the value of \(\sin ^{-1}\left(\sin \frac{5 \pi}{9} \cos \frac{\pi}{9}+\cos \frac{5 \pi}{9} s \quad \frac{\pi}{9}\right)\)
Answer:

Part – III

III. Answer any seven questions. Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Solve the following system of linear equations, using matrix inversion method:
5x + 2y – 3, 3x + 2y – 5.
Answer:
The matrix form of the system is AX = B, where A :\(\left[\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 2 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right]\) , X = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
x \\
y
\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{l}
3 \\
5
\end{array}\right]\)

We find |A| = \(\left|\begin{array}{ll}
5 & 2 \\
3 & 2
\end{array}\right|\) = 10 – 6 = 4 ≠ 0
So A^-1 exists A^-1 = \(\frac{1}{4}\left[\begin{array}{rr}
2 & -2 \\
-3 & 5
\end{array}\right]\)
Then, applying the formula X = A 1B, we get

So the solution is (x = -1 ,y = 4).

Question 32.
If z₁ = 2 – i and z₂ = -4 + 3i, find the inverse of z₁ z₂ and \(\frac{z_{1}}{z_{2}}\)
Answer:
z₁ = 2 – i, z₂ = -4 + 3i

Question 33.
If k is real, discuss the nature of the roots of the polynomial equation 2x² + kx + k = 0, in terms of k.
Answer:
The given quadratic equation is 2x² + kx + k = 0
a = 2,b = k,c = k
∆ = b² – 4ac = k² – 4(2) k = k² – 8k
(i) If the roots are equal
k² – 8k = 0 ⇒ k(k -8) = 0
k = 0, k = 8
(it) If the roots are real
k² – 8k > 0
k (k – 8) > 0
k ∈ (-∞, 0) ∪ (8, ∞)
(iii) ‘If this roots are imaginary
k² – 8k < 0 ⇒ f ∈ (0, 8)

Question 34.
Find the number of solution of the equation tan^-1 (x – 1) + tan^-1 x + tan^-1 (x + 1) = tan^-1(3x).
Answer:
tan^-1(x – 1) + tan^-1x + tan^-1(x + 1) = tan^-1(3x)
tan^-1(x – 1) + tan^-1(x + 1) = tan^-1 3x – tan^-1 x

So, the equation has 2 solutions.

Question 35.
Find the non-parametric form of vector equation, and Cartesian equations of the plane \(\vec{r}=(6 \hat{i}-\hat{j}+\hat{k})+s(-\hat{i}+2 \hat{j}+\hat{k})+t(-5 \hat{i}-4 \hat{j}-5 \hat{k})\)
Answer:

Non-parametric form of vector equation

Question 36.
Find two positive numbers whose sum is 12 and their product is maximum.
Answer:
Let the two numbers be x, 12 – x.
Their product p = x (12 – x) – 12x – x²
To find the maximum product.
p’ (x) = 12 – 2x
p”(x) = -2
p’ (x) = 0 ⇒ 12 – 2x = 0 2x = 12 => x = 6
at x = 6, p”(x) = -2 = -ve
⇒ p is maximum at x = 6
when x = 6, 12-x = 12 – 6 = 6
So the two numbers are 6, 6

Question 37.
Find the differential equation that will represent family of all circles having centres on the x-axis and the radius is unity.
Answer:
Equation of a circle with centre on x-axis and radius 1 unit is
(x-a)² + y² = 1 …(1)
Differentiating with respect to x,
2 (x-a) + 2yy’ = 0
⇒ 2 (x – a) = – 2yy’
(or) x-a = -yy’ …(2)
Substituting (2) in (1), we get,
(-yy’)² + y² = 1
(i.e. y² (y’)² + y² = 1 ⇒ y² [1 + (y’)²] = 1

Question 38.
The probability that a certain kind of component will survive a electrical test is \(\frac{3}{4}\). Find
the probability that exactly 3 of the 5 components tested survive.
Answer:
Given n = 5
Probability that a component survive in a test =p = \(\frac{3}{4}\)
∴ q = 1 – p = \(1-\frac{3}{4}=\frac{1}{4}\)
Let ‘X’ be the random variable denotes the number of components survived in a test.
Probability of ‘x’ successes in V trials is
P (X = x) = nC_xp^xq^n-x, x = 0, 1,2,………n
Probability that exactly 3 components survive

Question 39.
Fill in the following table so that the binary operation * on A = {a,b,c} is commutative.

Answer:
Given that the binary operation * is Commutative.
To find a * b :
a * b = b * a (∵ * is a Commutative)
Here b * a = c. So a * b = c
To find a * c :
a * c = c * a (∵ * is a Commutative)
c * a = a. (Given)
So a * c = a
To find c * b :
c * b = b * c
Here b * c = a. So c * b = a

Question 40.
Find the area of the region enclosed by y² = x and y = x – 2.
Answer:
The points of intersection of the parabola y² = x and the line y = x – 2 are (1, – 1) and (4, 2)
To compute the region [shown in the figure] by integrating with respect to x, we would have to split the region into two parts, because the equation of the lower boundary changes at x = 1. However if we integrate with respect to y no splitting is necessary.

Part – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [ 7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Use product \(\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
1 & -1 & 2 \\
0 & 2 & -3 \\
3 & -2 & 4
\end{array}\right]\left[\begin{array}{rrr}
-2 & 0 & 1 \\
9 & 2 & -3 \\
6 & 1 & -2
\end{array}\right]\)
to solve the system of equations x – y + 2z = 1, 2y – 3z = 1, 3x – 2y + 4z = 2.
Answer:

The system of equations can be written in the form AX = C, where

Thus x = 0, y = 5 and z = 3

(b) Find, by integration, the volume of the container which is in the shape of a right circular conical frustum as shown in the Figure.
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Simplify (-√3 + 3i)³¹
Answer:
Let – √3 + 3i = r (cos θ + z sin θ). Then, we get

(b) Solve the following equation x⁴ – 10x³ + 26x² – 10x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
This equation is Type I even degree reciprocal equation. Hence it can be rewritten as


[(y² – 2) – 10y + 26] = 0 ⇒ (y² – 10y + 24) = 0 ⇒ (y – 6) {y – 4) = 0 ⇒ y = 6 (or) 4

Hence the roots are 3 ± 2 √2, 2 ± √3

Question 43.
(a) Solve

Answer:

(b) Suppose a person deposits 10,000 Indian rupees in a bank account at the rate of 5% per annum compounded continuously. How much money will be in his bank account 18 months later?
Answer:
Let P be the principal
Rate of interest 5 %

Given, when t = 0, P = 10000
⇒ c = 10000

Question 44.
(a) Find the equation of the circle through the points (1, 0), (-1, 0), and (0, 1).
Answer:
Let the required circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 ……(A)
The circle passes through (1, 0), (-1, 0) and (0, 1)
(1,0) ⇒ 1 +0 + 2g(1) + 2f(0) + c = 0 -(A)
2g + c = -1
(-1, 0) ⇒ 1 + 0 + 2g (-1) + 2/(0) + c = 0 …(1)
-2g + c = -1
(0,1)⇒ 0+ 1 +2g(0) + 2f(l) + c = 0 …(2)
2 + c = -1
Now solving (1), (2) and (3) …(3)
2g + c = -1 …(1)
-2g + c = -1 (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2c = -2 ⇒ c = -1
Substituting c = -1 in (1) we get
2g – 1 = -1 2g = -1 + 1= 0 ⇒ g = 0
Substituting c = -1 in (3) we get
2f – 1 = -1 ⇒ 2f = -1 + 1 = 0 ⇒ f = 0
So we get g = 0,f= 0 and c = -1
So the required circle will be
x² + y² + 2(0)x + 2(0)y – 1 = 0
(i.e) x² + y² – 1 = 0 ⇒ x² + y² = 1

[OR]

(b) Find the area of the loop of the curve 3ay² = x(x – a)².
Answer:
Put y = 0; we get x = 0, a
It meets the x – axis at x = 0 and x = a
∴ Here a loop is formed between the points (0, 0) and (a, 0) about x-axis. Since the curve is symmetrical about x-axis, the area of the loop is twice the area of the portion above the x – axis.

Question 45.
Show that the lines \(\frac{x-3}{3}=\frac{y-3}{-1}, z-1=0\) and \(\frac{x-6}{2}=\frac{z-1}{3}, y-2=0\) interest. Also find the point of intersection.
Answer:

(x₁, y₁, z₁) = (3, 3,1) and (x₂, y₂, z₂) = (6,2,1)
(b₁ b₂, b₃) = (3, -1, 0) and (d₁ d₂, d₃) = (2, 0, 3)
Condition for intersection of two lines

Given two lines are intersecting lines.
Any point on the first line

(3λ + 3, -λ + 3,1)
Any point on the Second line

(2µ + 6, 2, 3µ + 1)
∴ 3µ + 1 = 1
3µ = 0
µ = 0

-λ + 3 = 2
-λ = -1
λ = 1
∴ The required point of intersection is (6, 2, 1)

(b) Prove that \(p \rightarrow(\neg q \vee r) \equiv \neg p \vee(\neg q \vee r)\) using truth table.
Answer:

The entries in the column corresponding to \(p \rightarrow(\neg q \vee r) \text { and } \neg p \vee(\neg q \vee r)\) are identical.
Hence they are equivalent.

Question 46.
(a) A water tank has the shape of an inverted circular cone with base radius 2 metres and height 4 metres. If water is being pumped into the tank at a rate of 2m3/min, find the rate at which the water level is rising when the water is 3m deep.
Answer:
We first sketch the cone and label it as in diagram. Let V, r and h be respectively the volume of the water, the radius of the cone and the height at time t, where t is measured in minutes.
We are given that \(\frac{d \mathrm{V}}{d t}\) = 2m³/min and we are asked to find
\(\frac{d h}{d t}\) where h is 3m
The quantities V and h are related by the equation \(\mathrm{V}=\frac{1}{3} \pi r^{2} h\). But it is very useful to express V as function of h alone.
In order to eliminate r we use similar triangles in diagram to write \(\frac{r}{h}=\frac{2}{4} \Rightarrow r=\frac{h}{2}\) and the expression for V becomes \(\mathrm{V}=\frac{1}{3} \pi\left(\frac{h}{2}\right)^{2} h=\frac{\pi}{12} h^{3}\)
Now we can differentiate each side with respect to t and we have

(b) Let U (x, y) = e^x sin y, where x = st², y = s²t s, t e R. Find \(\frac{\partial \boldsymbol{U}}{\partial \boldsymbol{s}}, \frac{\partial \boldsymbol{U}}{\partial t}\) and evaluate them at s = t = 1.
Answer:

Question 47.
(a) The probability density function of X is given by f(x) = \(\begin{array}{c}
f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{cc}
k e^{-\frac{x}{3}} & \text { for } x>0 \\
0 & \text { for } x \leq 0
\end{array}\right.
\end{array}\)
Find (i) the value of k
(ii) the distribution function
(iii) P(X < 3)
(iv) P(5 ≤ X) (v) P(X ≤ 4) .
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Solve [y(1 – xtanx) + x²cosx]dx – xdy = 0.