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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 5

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The mother seagull swooped upwards.
(a) leap
(b) rush
(c) move very quickly
(d) ascend
Answer:
(a) leap

Question 2.
The attic has always been favourite with children.
(a) loft
(b) terrace
(c) apartment
(d) Strong Room
Answer:
(a) loft

Question 3.
It is a 55-foot sailing vessel built indigenously in India.
(a) fully
(b) collectively
(c) innately
(d) specially
Answer:
(c) innately

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
She screamed back mockingly.
(a) disrespectfully
(b) ridiculously
(c) jeeringly
(d) respectfully
Answer:
(d) respectfully

Question 5.
We don’t have to use any means of repulsion.
(a) attraction
(b) distaste
(c) hate
(d) horror
Answer:
(a) attraction

Question 6.
I indulged in banking.
(a) took part
(b) participated
(c) abstained
(d) yielded
Answer:
(c) abstained

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of alga from the following:
(a) algum
(b) algi
(c) algae
(d) algas
Answer:
(c) algae

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – document.
(a) -ory
(b) -ise
(c) -ation
(d) -ly
Answer:
(c) -ation

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation SIM.
(a) Subscriber Information Module
(b) Subscriber Identification Module
(c) Student Identification Module
(d) School Identification Module
Answer:
(b) Subscriber Identification Module

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The crew …………………….. of water and food before they could complete their expedition.
(a) ran on
(b) ran about
(c) ran in
(d) ran out
Answer:
(d) ran out

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ watch ’ to form a compound word.
(a) hall
(b) house
(c) man
(d) clock
Answer:
(c) man

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
Mulan heard this ………….. her tent.
(a) by
(b) from
(c) at
(d) for
Answer:
(b) from

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
After he ………………. his lunch, he went across to the window.
(a) will finish
(b) finish
(c) was finishing
(d) had finished
Answer:
(d) had finished

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.he is ninety years old, he is in the pink of health.
(a) When
(b) Since
(c) Even though
(d) yet
Answer:
(c) Even though

PART – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two, [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Mention the special features of INSV Tarini.
Answer:
Indian Naval Ship Vessel Tarini commissioned to the Indian Navy service on 18th February, 2017, is the second sailboat of the Indian Navy. It is a 55-foot sailing vessel built indigenously in India by M/s Aquarius Shipyard Pvt. Ltd, located in Goa. After undergoing extensive sea trials, she was commissioned to the Indian Navy service.

Question 16.
What prompted the seagull to fly finally?
Answer:
The seagull was quite hungry and yearned for food. When he saw a piece of fish in the beak of his mother, the sight was quite tempting for him. He was maddened at the sight of the food and suddenly dived at the fish forgetting that he didn’t know how to fly. Thus the young seagull was prompted to fly finally into space.

Question 17.
What was the daily routine of Mr. Sanyal?
Answer:
Sanyal would come every day to Nagen’s Tea Shop, sit at a comer table, have tea and biscuits, pay for the same and leave before it got dark. This was his regular duty after his wife and only son passed away a year ago.

Question 18.
What were the various things that tempted Franz to spend his day outdoors?
Answer
Franz found the warm and bright day to be a temptation to spend his day outdoors. The birds were chirping at the edge of woods. The Pmssian soldiers were drilling in the open field at the back of sawmill. He felt he could gladl> spend life outdoors. Above all, Franz was not prepared for the test on participles.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;”
(a) What does the poet want everyone to learn?
(b) What should we do when things go wrong?
Answer:
(a) The poetess expects everyone to learn to walk with a smile and a song even when things go wrong.
(b) Even when things go wrong, we need to feel happy and be cheerful.

Question 20.
“She’s a lioness; don’t mess with her.
She ’ll not spare you if you ’re a prankster. ”
(a) How is a woman described here?
(b) Who is a prankster?
Answer:
(a) A woman is described as lionesses whom others should be afraid to play with.
(b) A prankster is a mischievous or malicious person who plays tricks on others.

Question 21.
“Not a flower could he see,
Not a leaf on a tree.”
(a) Who does ‘he’ refer to?
(b) Mention the season when he could not see a flower or a leaf on a tree.
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the Cricket.
(b) The season was winter. So he could not see a flower or a leaf on the tree.

Question 22.
“Beside the house sits a tree It never grows leaves.”
(а) What is found near the house?
(b) Why does it never grow leaves?
Answer:
(a) Near the house is found a tree with no leaves.
(b) It never grows leaves because it is eerie.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
Please assemble in the ground.
You are requested to assemble in the ground.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
“Where are we going, sir?” asked the aero-coachman.
The aero-coachman asked the passenger where they were going.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Wherefore said miranda did they not that hour destroy us
“Wherefore,” said Miranda, “did they not that hour destroy us?”

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
As Catherin is a voracious reader, she buys a lot of books.
Being a voracious reader. Catherin buys a lot of books.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences:
(a) he saw / When / in the / platform/ the train / he rushed.
(b) as /I/ healthy / are you / am / as.
(a) He rushed, when he saw the train in the platform.
Or
(a) When he saw the train in the platform he rushed.
(b) I am as healthy as you are.

Section – IV

Answer the following question:

Question 28.
A stranger wants to visit the library. Write the steps to guide him to reach him destination.
Answer

• Go straight and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the second left after the bank on Big street.
• You will find the Library on the left after you take the right turn.

Section -I
Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Describe the struggles undergone by the young seagull to overcome its fear of flying.
Answer:
The Young Seagull was afraid to fly and was alone on his ledge. He was more frightened than his siblings. His attempts failed. He had taken a little run forward and tried to flap his wings. But that was all he could do. He felt that his wings would not support him. He failed to muster up the courage and fly. His parents taunted, scolded and threatened him to leave him starving at the ledge unless he flew away. But nothing could make him fly.

The seagull helplessly watched his parents flying with his brothers and sisters. The whole family went on taunting him for his cowardice. Only his mother was looking at him. She had picked a piece of fish and was flying across to him with it. He leaned out eagerly. The mother was very near to him with the fish in her beak. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream, he fell outwards and downwards into space. A terror seized him.

His heart stood still. His mother swooped past him. He answered her with another scream. He saw his two brothers and sister flying around him. The seagull completely forgot that he was not able to fly. He let himself free to dive, soar and curve at will. He was shrieking shrilly. He saw a green sea beneath him. He was tired and weak with hunger. His feet sank into the green sea and his belly touched it. He sank no farther. Now, his family was praising him and their beaks were offering him scraps of fish. He had made his first flight.

“Flying is learning how to throw yourself to the ground and miss.”

Question 30.
‘Technology is a boon to the disabled’. Justify.
Answer:
The differently abled, Alisha and David’s life has been transformed because of Technology. It is a boon to the disabled. Assistive technology is designed to help people with disabilities. Typing was impossible, but now Dragon Dictate helps the disabled to speak for words to be printed on screen. Technology can control a computer screen even with Eye Gaze.

Technology is vital to be free and independent. For verbal communication, Liberator Communication Device, with eye movements to communicate verbally is used. It has a Bluetooth adaptor and took a couple of weeks to learn using it. Communicating with people was very difficult before. An ACTIV controller also in the headrest of a mobility chair is used to control TV, Blu-Ray and music players.

Augmentative and Alternative Communication is also the product of technological advancements and a boon to the disabled. EC02 linked to an interactive whiteboard is used to teach PE lessons. Technology also helps control the Play Station, MP3, electric wheelchair and ECO point Eye Gaze to communicate, access the computer. Thus/Technology is a boon to the disabled’.
“Technology’ is not just a tool. It can give learners a voice
that they may not have had before.”

Question 31.
How did Watson help his friend to arrest the criminal?
Answer:
Dr. Watson is called by Mrs. Hudson to tend Holmes, who is apparently dying of a rare tropical disease, Tarpaunli fever, contracted while he was on a case at Rotherhithe. Holmes forbids Watson to go near him because the illness is highly infectious. Although Watson wishes to examine Holmes himself or send for a specialist, Holmes demands that Watson wait several hours before seeking help.

While Watson waits, he examines several objects in Holmes’s room. Holmes is angered when Watson touches things on his table stating his dislike for people fidgeting his things. At six o’clock, Holmes asks Watson to turn the gaslight on, but only half-full. He then instructs Watson to bring Mr. Culverton Smith from 13 Lower Burke Street to see Holmes but to make sure that Watson returns to Baker Street before Smith arrives. Watson goes to Smith’s address. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. Once Watson explains his duty on behalf of Sherlock Holmes, Smith’s assertiveness changes significantly. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment, and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. It soon appears, to the hiding Watson’s horror, that Holmes has been sickened by the same illness that killed Smith’s nephew Victor. At the fend, Holmes calls for Watson to come out from behind the screen, to present himself as another witness to the conversation. Holmes explains his illness was feigned as a trick to induce Smith to confess to his nephew’s murder. Starving himself for three days and claiming to be suffering from a deadly infectious disease was to keep Watson from examining him and discovering the ruse, since, as he clarifies, he has every respect for his friend’s medical skills.
‘A detectives perspective traps the criminal.’

Question 32.
‘Man does change with time’-What were the various changes that came about in Aditya?
Answer:
Man does change with time. According to Sanyal, Aditya was a boy who could never compete him in scholastic or non-scholastic activities. He was a liar and an envious personality. But, years later Aditya no longer is the same personality. He is more matured and responsible. His childish nature makes him feel guilty for stealing the medal that belonged to Sanyal. Aditya now wanted to restore Sanyal, his lost happiness. Knowing about his financial constraints, he decides to give him the cost of the silver medal. He drives with a firm determination to his ancestral house. When he reaches, he rushes to the attic. Aditya gets on top of a packing case

and pushes his hand inside the ventilator, upsetting a sparrow’s nest. However, he heaves a sigh of relief when he gets what he had been looking for. He goes straight to the Jeweller to determine the current rate of the medal in the market. All these surely show a remarkable change in him. Even when Sanyal behaves rudely, Aditya is courteous and friendly. His only intention is penitence. He is so mature that he even understands and justifies the grievances Sanyal had in his heart. When Sanyal prefers the medal, without second thoughts he restores it to Sanyal whole-heartedly.
“Change is universal.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
How is mystery depicted in the poem ‘The House on Elm Street’.
Answer:
Nadia Bush the poetess talks about a house that stood alone in an isolated place on Elm Street. No one knows what happens inside that house and it is very mysterious. Even by looking from outside, one can easily say that it has a vast space but at the same time it is bare to the bone meaning there is no one living inside the mysterious house or no basic necessities inside the house on Elm Street.

Generally at night, the house looks like it is alive with people in if Lights are switched on and off. It gives a feel that someone is inside the house. When Nadia sees such a situation, she is tempted to go inside the house to just take a look and see what is actually happening inside the house. However, Nadia the poetess is frightened and never dares to do so. Every day the poetess, drives past the house. The house seems to look a bit brighter.

The very thought of this mysterious house plays with your mind since it is just one house of this kind in the area around. Next to the house, is also a tree with no leaves the whole year round. It doesn’t grow tall nor does it shrink in size. The tree too is mysterious like the house since it has no leaves in any of the seasons to make wonder how a tree could survive without any leaves or without any growth. Every day, the house also begins to fade making it all the more mysterious.
“The best secrets are the most twisted.”

Question 34.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand, the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger.

He found that his cupboard was empty with no piece of bread to eat. He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant. Becoming bold by nature, he begged for food and shelter. But the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend.

So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality. Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and the Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away by the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.
“Accept responsibility for your life. Know that it is
you who will get you where you want to go, no one else”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“The weather is always too hot or cold;
Summer and winter alike they scold.
Nothing goes right with the folks you meet Down on the gloomy Complaining street.’’
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme of the given stanza.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the fourth line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterating words.
Answer:
(i) The rhyming words are cold-scold and meet-street.
(ii) The rhyme scheme of the poem is aabb.
(iii) The figure of speech employed in the fourth line of the given stanza is Personification.
(iv) There aren’t any consonant sounds repeated in the words in a line. However the vowel ‘ sounds in and alike are repeated in the second line.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
We can pull and haul and push and lift and drive,
We can print and plough and weave and heat and light,
We can run and race and swim and fly and dive,
We can see and hear and count and read and write!
Answer:
In this stanza, the machines elucidate how they can serve human race by doing all the possible human activities mastered by them. They say they can do various tasks such as pulling, carrying, pushing, lifting, driving, printing, ploughing, weaving, heating, lighting, running, racing, swimming, flying, diving, seeing, hearing, counting, reading and writing.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following: [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
(ii) Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
(iii) He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
(iv) The king of Naples and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.
(v) He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (i), (iii), (v), (iv)
(ii) Prospero and Miranda came to an island and lived in a cave.
(i) Using his powers, Prospero released the good spirits from large bodies of trees.
(iii) He raised a violent storm in the sea to wreck the ship of his enemies.
(v) He ordered Ariel to torment the inmates of the ship.
(iv) The king of Naples and Antonio the false brother, repented the injustice they had done to Prospero.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer
The country Shining was governed by a despotic leader who though a warrior, had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive of failing health and strength. This caused him to send out a cruel proclamation. The entire province was given strict orders to immediately put to death all aged people. Those were barbarous days, and the custom of abandoning old people to die was not uncommon.

The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence, and the order filled his heart with sorrow. But no one ever thought twice about obeying the mandate of the governor, so with many deep and hopeless sighs, the youth prepared for what at that time was considered the kindest mode of death.

(i) Who governed Shining?
(ii) What was the cowardly act of the governor?
(iii) What proclamation did the governor send out?
(iv) How did the poor farmer treat his mother?
(v) Did the people obey the governor’s order?
Answer:
(i) Shining was governed by a despotic leader.
(ii) The governor had a great and cowardly shrinking from anything suggestive of failing health and strength.
(iii) The governor sent out a cruel proclamation in the entire province giving strict orders to immediately put to death all aged people.
(iv) The poor farmer loved his aged mother with tender reverence.
(v) Yes, the people obeyed the governor’s order.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Home appliances – Aadi Sale – 20-50% – Special Combo Offers – Aadhi & Co., Raja Street, Chennai, Chennai.
Answer:

Question 40.
Write a letter to the manager of a famous daily, ordering subscription for your school library.
Answer:
From
The Librarian
Indira Gandhi Hr. Sec. School,
Rajajipuram Chennai – 600 087
12.11.2020
To
The Higgin Bothams,
Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002 Respected Sir,
Sub: Annual subscription for daily.
I would like to place an order for the annual subscription of three English dailies and one Tamil daily to our School from the 1st of January 2020.

Please find enclosed the Annual subscription amount for all the four dailies which amount to Rs. 3780/- (Rupees Three Thousand Seven Hundred and Eighty Only) after deducting the usual 10% discount that you give us.
Thank you very much for your continued support to our institution.
Yours sincerely,
Mrs. Anand – Librarian

Address on the envelope:
The Higgin Bothams,
Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002

Question 41.
You are Adhira / Athiran, school pupil leader of GHSS, Trichy. Prepare a notice on behalf of your school inviting the grandparents of the students to celebrate World Elders’ Day in your school auditorium on the 20^th of next month.
Answer:

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views an it in about five sentences
Answer:

Though we pray for rain, it’s such a sad state to see people stranded when an area gets flooded. There is about three feet water and people are moving out to safer places. Fathers carry their sons and daughters over the shoulders in order to keep them safe. If there is proper drainage system and proper maintenance by the Corporation, we can surely avoid such disasters. In certain states, natural disaster such as flooding is a frequently witnessed problem.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
There are many different kinds of books that are published each year. These are the new’ titles available for us to read. Besides these, there are books that have been published through the years. Together, there are millions of books available throughout the world in as many languages as are spoken by people. There are different genres in which books are published. There are fiction and non-fiction categories in books, and each of these categories has many different genres of books.

The academic books we study at school belong to the text book category. We smdy them to complete our syllabus and pass the examinations at the end of each academic session. There are other books that we read for our pleasure and enrichment. We read story books of different types. There are comedy, horror, detective and thriller stories in prose, plays and poetry forms. Books are our best friends.
Notes
Title: Books Galore
Dif. Kinds A Books
(i) New Titles;
(ii) Publd Every Yr;
(iii) Publd Thru’ The Yrs;
(iv) Publd Thru’out the World;
(v) Publd In Many Langs
Dif. Genres Of Books
(i) Fiction;
(ii) Non-Fiction Categs

Academic Books – Text Book Categy.
For Study – Pres. Syl.
Pass Exams – End A Academic Session.
Books For Pleasure &Enrichment
Books Of Different Types
Comedy, Horror, Detective & Thriller Stories
Various Forms
(i) Prose
(ii) Plays; &
(iii) Poetry Forms Conclusion: Books are our best friends.
Abbreviations used: Dif. – different; A -of; publd.- published; yr=year; thru’- through; langs.- languages; pres. – prscribed; syl-syllabus; & – and

Summary

Title: Books Galore
Rough Draft
There are different kinds of books published every year for us to read. Together, there are millions of books-avaiable throughout the world in many languages. There are different genres such as fiction and non friction categories. The academic books we study at school belong to the text book category. We study them to be tested at the end of each academic session. We read story books for pleasure and enrichment/Here-areaymiedy, horror, detective and thriller stories in prose, plays and poetry forms. Books are our best friends .

Fair Draft:
Title: Books Galore

Millions of books are published every year in different languages. There are different genres such as fiction and non-fiction. The academic books, belong to the text book category. We study them to be tested at the end of the academic year. We read various types of story books for pleasure. Books are our best friends.
No. of words written in the summary: 55

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) You may speak politely to the elders.
(b) This is the boy whom won the race
(c) He come late to school every day.
(d) Though he was hungry hut he did not eat.
(e) Is this a book that you wanted to buy.
Answer
(a) You must speak politely to the elders.
(b) This is the boy who won the race
(c) He comes late to school every day.
(d) Though he was hungry he did not eat.
(e) Is this the book that you wanted to buy.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question  45.
Let me but live ……………. back in fear.
Answer:
Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul;
Not hurrying to, nor turning from the goal; .
Not mourning for the things that disappear
In the dim past, nor holding back in fear

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question  46.
(а) Many years ago – China – the emperor ordered – one man from -family – join army
– Mulan heard -told father – she join army – father objected – she is a girl – Mulan – fathers robes cuts her hair – convinced father – she has learnt – Kung Fu – no one will find – she is a girl. – Mulan left – village – fought bravely – war – given top position – very soon – fever swept – the army -Mulan – sick – doctor examines – finds the truth – spreads the news in the army – everyone objects – to follow a girl leader – Mulan stood tall – gave command – soldiers – followed her – attacked enemies – won the battle- emperor glad – offered Mulan positions – court – Mulan refused – went back – village – royal – gifts.
Answer:
The Story of Mulan portrays the legendary Chinese warrior Hua Mulan. This old Chinese folktale is about the story of the young Chinese maiden who leams that her wizened, old and frail father is to be called up into the army in order to fight the invading Huns by the Chinese Emperor. When the Huns invade China, one man from every family is called to arms. She hears of the order that every family must send one man to the army while washing clothes.

Mulan’s father, who is frail and aged decides to fight for his country though it is clear that he will not survive an enemy encounter. He decides to go to war but is prevented by her daughter with her outrageous decision. Knowing her father’s frail state, she decides to disguise herself and join in his place without second thoughts. In the army, Mulan proves to be a brave soldier who is later put in charge of other soldiers. Her battles goes so well that more soldiers are added. After a few years, Mulan becomes the General of the entire army. Suddenly, bad fever swept through the army. Many soldiers including Mulan become a prey. The arrival of the doctor brings to light the hidden truth.

Many soldiers disapprove such a thought, though some soldiers see the winning chances. Just then a soldier announces the surprise attack by the enemies. With no time to debate, the soldiers spring to action at the command of the General who hears this from inside her tent. She gets dressed and though not strong, she stands tall. She instructs the soldiers to attack knowing very well her strategic planning that all her soldiers acknowledge and win the battle. It was such a big victory that the enemy gave up, at last. The war was over, and China was saved! The Emperor forgives Mulan and was glad that Mulan had ended the long war. He wanted Mulan to stay with him in the palace and be an advisor but as she chose to go to her family, the emperor gave her six horses and six fine swords so that her people will know that he thinks of her.

[OR]

(b) Holland – land – below sea level – dikes protected the country – everyone did best to -protect – Holland – Years ago – boy Peter – lived Holland – His father – attended – dykes gates – opened- closed dikes – one day – Peter Mother – gave cakes to Peter – to be given – old blind friend of Peter – across the dike Peter happily left home – Peter visited – old man – returned near by the dike – heard water trickling – stopped to see – small hole – dike – called for help – in vain -he put his little finger – throughout the
night – slept near the dike – morning – found by passer by – alerted the people – Peter and Holland -saved.
Answer:
Peter is a little boy who lived in Holland. His father took care of the dikes called sluices so that ships could pass out of Holland’s canals into the sea. On a beautiful day in Autumn, Peter was asked to go and give cakes to his blind friend who lived on the other side of the dike by his mother. After about an hour he returned home, but the climate had changed. It was raining and the water in the channel was rising. All of a sudden he heard the sound of dribbling water and he wondered from where the sound came. He then saw a small hole in the dike.

He knew what that meant and due to the pressure of the water the hole would not stay the same. He feared danger. He climbed onto the dike and put his finger in the hole and hoped for someone to come to his help and cried out aloud. His mother mistook him to have stayed back with his blind friend and retired to bed. The boy was sure that he had to stay awake the entire night and keep his finger in the hole to arrest the water from flooding Holland.

The water in the canal was rising and if he would remove his finger from the hole in the sluice, the water would gush through and make the hole bigger and bigger. The town would obviously flood. When dawn broke, a man going to work heard the sound of Peter groaning and wondered what the little boy was up to. He was shocked at his reply but understood the danger and called for help. People came in with shovel and mended the hole. Peter was carried home and they all hailed him as the brave boy who saved Holland from drowning.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Kung Fu – ‘kung’ meaning ‘energy’ and ‘fu’ meaning ‘time’ – is a Chinese martial art whose recorded history dates back to around 525 CE, during the Liang dynasty. The man credited with introducing martial arts to China is said to be an Indian monk known as Bodhidarma.

Many people have a misconception that Chinese Kung Fu is about fighting and killing. It is actually based on Chinese philosophy and is about improving wisdom and intelligence. Taoist philosophy is deeply rooted in and had a profound influence on the culture of Chinese martial arts.

The five traditional animal styles of Shaolin Kung Fu are the dragon, the snake, the tiger, the leopard and the crane. The union of the five animal forms clearly displayed the efficacy of both hard and soft movements, of both internal and external energy – this form of Chinese martial arts was known as Shaolin Kung Fu, named after the temple in which it was developed.

Questions.
(a) Which country does the martial art Kung Fu belong to?
(b) What is the meaning of the term “Kung Fu”?
(c) Write any two martial arts of India?
(d) What are the five animal styles followed in Shaolin Kung Fu?
Answer:
(a) The martial art Kung Fu belongs to the country China.
(b) The term ‘kung’ means ‘energy’ and ‘fu’ means ‘time’.
(c) Kalari and Silambam are two martial arts in India.
(d) The five traditional animal styles of Shaolin Kung Fu are the dragon, the snake, the tiger, the leopard and the crane.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:

If you can’t be a pine on the top of the hill,
Be a scrub in the valley – but be
The best little scrub by the side of the rill;
Be a bush, if you can’t be a tree.
If you can’t be a bush, be a bit of the grass,
And some highway happier make;
If you can’t be a muskie, then just be a bass- But the liveliest bass in the lake!
We can’t all be captains, we’ve got to be crew,
There’s something for all of us here.
There’s big work to do and there’s lesser to do
And the task we must do is the near.
If you can’t be a highway, then just be a trail,
If you can’t be the sun, be a star;
It isn’t by size that you win or you fail- Be the best of whatever you are!

Questions.
(a) Where does the best scrub grow?
(b) What makes a highway traveller happy?
(c) Does size matter? Give reason.
(d) What is the underlying theme of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The best scrub grows by the side of a rill.
(b) The green grass on the sides of a highway makes a highway traveller happy.
(c) No, size doesn’t matter because its winning and being the best in whatever you do that matters.
(d) Be your best in all that you try to do and accomplish in life.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 3 Introduction to Database Management System Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 3 Introduction to Database Management System

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Introduction to Database Management System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which language is used to request information from a Database?
(a) Relational
(b) Structural
(c) Query
(d) Compiler
Answer:
(c) Query

Question 2.
The ………………………. diagram gives a logical structure of the database graphically?
(a) Entity-Relationship
(b) Entity
(c) Architectural Representation
(d) Database
Answer:
(a) Entity-Relationship

Question 3.
An entity set that does not have enough attributes to form primary key is known as
(a) Strong entity set
(b) Weak entity set
(c) Identity set
(d) Owner set
Answer:
(b) Weak entity set

Question 4.
…………………………. Command is used to delete a database.
(a) Delete database databasename
(b) Delete database_name
(c) drop database database name
(d) drop database name
Answer:
(c) drop database database_name

Question 5.
Which type of below DBMS is MySQL?
(a) Object Oriented
(b) Hierarchical
(c) Relational
(d) Network
Answer:
(c) Relational

Question 6.
MySQL is freely available and is open source.
(a) True
(b) False
Answer:
(a) True

Question 7.
……………………….. represents a “tuple” in a relational database?
(a) Table
(b) Row
(c) Column
(d) Object
Answer:
(b) Row

Question 8.
Communication is established with MySQL using
(a) SQL
(b) Network calls
(c) Java
(d) API’s
Answer:
(a) SQL

Question 9.
Which is the MySQL instance responsible for data processing?
(a) MySQL Client
(b) MySQL Server
(c) SQL
(d) Server Daemon Program
Answer:
(b) MySQL Server

Question 10.
The structure representing the organizational view of entire database is known as in MySQL database.
(a) Schema
(b) View
(c) Instance
(d) Table
Answer:
(a) Schema

PART – II
II. Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define Data Model and list the types of data model used?
Answer:
Data models define how the logical structure of a database is modeled.
Data models define how data is connected to each other and how they are processed and stored inside the system. The various data models are;

1. Hierarchical Database Model,
2. Network Model,
3. Relational Model and
4. Object-oriented Database Model.

Question 2.
List few disadvantages of file processing system?
Answer:
Data Duplication – Same data is used by multiple resources for processing, thus created multiple copies of same data wasting the spaces.
High Maintenance – Access control and verifying data consistency needs high maintenance cost.
Security – less security provided to the data.

Question 3.
Define Single and multi valued attributes?
Answer:
A single valued attribute contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values. For Example:Age-
Amulti valued attribute has more than one value for that particular attribute. F or Example :Degree

Question 4.
List any two DDL and DML commands with its Syntax?
Answer:
Commands:

1. CREATE
2. DROP

Syntax:

1. CREATE database databasename
2. DROP database databasename

DML COMMANDS List:
Commands:

1. INSERT
2. DELETE

Syntax:

1. Syntax 1: INSERT INTO tablename (column1, column2, column3) VALUES (value 1, value2, value3);
2. Syntax 2: INSERT INTO tablename VALUES (value1, value2, value3);
3. DELETE from tablename WHERE columnname=”value”;

Question 5.
What are the ACID properties?
Answer:
ACID Properties – The acronym stands for Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation and Durability. Atomicity follows the thumb rule “All or Nothing”, while updating the data in database for the user performing the update operation. Consistency ensures that the changes in data value to be constant at any given instance. Isolation property is needed during concurrent action. Durability is defied as the system’s ability to recover all committed actions during the failure of storage or the system.

Question 6.
Which command is used to make permanent changes done by a trAnswer:action?
Answer:
COMMIT

Question 7.
What is view in SQL?
Answer:
Views – A set of stored queries.

Question 8.
Write the difference between SQL and MySQL?
Answer:
SQL:

1. SQL is a query language
2. SQL is used to query and operate database system.

MySQL:

1. MySQL is DBMS software.
2. MySQL allows data handling, storing, modifying, deleting, etc.

Question 9.
What is Relationship and List its types?
Answer:
In ER Model, relationship exists between two entities.

1. One-to-One relationship,
2. One-to-Many relationship and
3. Many-to-Many relationship.

Question 10.
State few advantages of Relational databases?
Answer:

1. High Availability
2. High Performance
3. Robust TrAnswer:actions and support
4. Ease of management
5. Less cost

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Explain on Evolution of DBMS?
Answer:

1. The concept of storing the data started before 40 years in various formats.
2. In earlier days they have used punched card technology to store the data.
3. Then files were used. The file systems were known as predecessor of database system.
4. Various access methods in file system were indexed, random and sequential access.
5. The file systems has limitations like duplication, less security. To overcome this, DBMS was introduced.

Question 2.
What is relationship in databases? List its types?
Answer:
In ER Model, relationship exists between two entities. The various types of relationships are;

1. One-to-One relationship.
2. One-to-Many relationship.
3. Many-to-Many relationship.

Question 3.
Discuss on Cardinality in DBMS?
Answer:
Cardinality is defined as the number of items that must be included in a relationship, i.e. number of entities in one set mapped with the number of entities of another set via the relationship. Three classifications in Cardinality are one-to-one, one-to-many and Many-to-Many.

In the above example we have two entities Person and Vehicle. If we consider the current vehicle, the driver is operating, then we have one-to-one relationship between Person and Vehicle.
In the above example, Customer places the Order is a one-to-many relationship. Here the customer can place multiple orders and the order is related to only one customer. The example of many-to-many relationship is Students registering the Courses. A student can register more than one courses and A course can be registered by many students. Hence it is many-to-many.

Question 4.
List .any 5 privileges available in MySQL for the User?
List of privileges available in MySQL?
Answer:
Privileges:

1. Select_priv
2. Insert_priv
3. Update_priv
4. Delete_priv
5. Create_priv
6. Alter_priv

Action Performed (If Granted):

1. User can select rows from database tables.
2. User can insert rows into database tables.
3. User can update rows of database tables.
4. User can delete rows of database tables.
5. User can create new tables in database.
6. User can make changes to the database structure.

Question 5.
Write few commands used by DBA to control the entire database.
USE Database – This command is used to select the database in MySQL for working.
Syntax:
mysql > use test;
Database changed
mysql>
SHOW Databases – Lists all the databases available in the database server.
Syntax:
mysql > show databases;

SHOW Tables – Lists all the tables available in the current database we are working in.
mysql > show tables;

SHOW COLUMNS FROM tablename – Lists all the attributes, attribute type, Is Null value
permitted, key information, default value and other information for the given table.
Syntax:
mysql > show columns from sports;

SHOW INDEX FROM tablename – The query shows all the indexes for the given table.
Syntax:
mysql > show indexes from sports;

SHOW TABLE STATUS LIKE tablename\G – This command provides with detailed report on the performance of the table.

PART – IV
IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Discuss on various database models available in DBMS?
Answer:
DBMS Database Models:
The database technology came into existence in terms of models with relational and object- relational behavior. The major database models are listed below:

(i) Hierarchical Database Model The famous Hierarchical database model was IMS (Information Management System), IBM’s first DBMS. In this model each record has information in parent/child relationship like a tree structure. The collection of records was called as record types, which are equivalent to tables in relational model. The individual records are equal to rows.

In the above model we have many advantages like less redundant data, efficient search, data integrity and security. This model also has few limitations like complex to implement and difficulty in handling many to many relationships.

(ii) Network model:
The first developed network data model was IDS (Integrated Data Store) at Honeywell. Network model is similar to Hierarchical model except that in this model each member can have more than one owner. The many to many relationships are handled in a better way. This model identified the three database components Network schema, Sub schema and Language for data management. Network schema – schema defines all about the structure of the database.
Sub schema – controls on views of the database for the user.
Language – basic procedural for accessing the database.
The major advantage of this model is the ability to handle more relationship types, easy data access, data integrity and independence. The limitation of network model is difficulty in design and maintenance.

(iii) Relational model:
Oracle and DB2 are few commercial relational models in use. Relational model is defined with two terminologies Instance and Schema.
Instance – A table consisting of rows and columns
Schema – Specifies the structure including name and type of each column.
A relation (table) consists of unique attributes (columns) and tuples (rows).

(iv) Object-oriented database model:
This model incorporates the combination of Object Oriented Programming (OOP’s) concepts and database technologies.
Practically, this model serves as the base of Relational model. Object oriented model uses small, reusable software known as Objects.
These are stored in object oriented database.
This model efficiently manages large number of different data types. Moreover complex behaviors are handled efficiently using OOP’s concepts.

Question 2.
List the basic concepts of ER Model with suitable example?
Answer:
ER Modeling basic concepts
The basic concepts of ER model consists of

1. Entity or Entity type
2. Attributes
3. Relationship

These are the general concepts which help to create an ER diagram and produce an ER model. With the help of these any database design can be created and viewed to know the concept in that database design.

(i) Entity or Entity type
An Entity can be anything a real-world object or animation which is easily identifiable by anyone even by a common man. Eg: In a company’s database Employee, HR, Manager are considered as entities, where each of these entity will be having their own attributes . An entity is represented by a rectangular box.

Types of Entity:

1. Strong Entity
2. Weak Entity
3. Entity Instance

1. Strong Entity:
A Strong entity is the one which doesn’t depend on any other entity on the schema or database and a strong entity will have a primary key with it (i.e. a unique id which other entities will not have in their attributes).It is represented by one rectangle. In the above example it is a strong entity because it has a primary key(a unique id) as the roll no because for every one roll no varies and it will not be same.

2. Weak Entity:
A weak entity is dependent on other entities and it doesn’t have any primary key like the Strong entity. It is represented by double rectangle. For Example: Here the marks is the weak entity and there are no unique id or primary – key for that entity. So they are dependent on the existence of the other entity.

(ii) Attributes
An attribute is the information about that entity and it will describe, quantify, qualify, classify, and specify an entity. An attribute will always have a single value, that value can be a number or character or string.
Types of attributes:

1. Key Attribute
2. Simple Attributes
3. Composite Attributes
4. Single Valued Attribute
5. Multi Valued Attribute

1. Key Attribute:
Generally a key attribute describes a unique characteristic of an entity.

2. Simple Attribute:
The simple attributes cannot be separated it will be having a single value for their entity. For Example: Let us consider the name as the attribute for the entity employee and here the value for that attribute is a single value.

3. Composite Attributes:
The composite attributes can be sub-divided into simple attributes without change in the meaning of that attribute. For Example: In the above diagram the employee is the entity with the composite attribute Name which are sub-divided into two simple attributes first and last name.

4. Single Valued Attributes:
A single valued attribute contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values. For Example: Age- It is a single value for a person as we cannot given number of ages for a single person,therefore it is a single valued attribute.

Arrtibute:

1. Age
2. Roll no

Values:

1. 3
2. 85

In the above table are the some examples for single valued attributes.

5. Multi Valued Attributes:
A multi valued attribute has more than one value for that particular attribute. For Example:
Degree – A person can hold n number of degrees so it is a multi-valued attribute.

Attributes and Values:

Attributes:

1. Degree
2. BankAccount

Values:

1. B. Tech, MBA
2. SBI, HDFC

(iii) Relationship Type:
In ER Model, relationship exists between two entities. Three types of relationships are – available and the Entity-Relationship(ER) diagram is based on the three types listed below.

(iv) One-to-One relationship:
Consider two entities A and B. one-to-one (1:1) relationship is said to exist in a relational database design, if 0 or 1 instance of entity A is associated with 0 or 1 instance of entity B, and 0 or 1 instance of entity B is associated with 0 or 1 instance of entity A.

(v) One-to-Many relationship:
Consider two entities A and B. one-to-many (1:N) relationship is said to exist in a relational database design, for 1 instance of entity A there exists 0 or 1 or many instances of entity B, but for 1 instance of entity B there exists 0 or 1 instance of entity A.

(vi) Many-to-Many relationship:
Consider two entities A and B. many-to-many (M:N) relationship is said to exist in a relational database design, for 1 instance of entity A there exists 0 or 1 or many instances of entity B, and for 1 instance of entity B there exists 0 or 1 or many instance of entity A.
In reality one-to-one are in less usage, where as one-to-many and many-to-many are commonly used. However in relational databases, many-to-many are converted into one-to- many relationships.

Question 3.
Discuss in detail on various types of attributes in DBMS?
Answer:
Types of attributes:

1. Key Attribute
2. Simple Attributes
3. Composite Attributes
4. Single Valued Attribute
5. Multi Valued Attribute

1. Key Attribute:
Generally a key attribute describes a unique characteristic of an entity.

2. Simple Attribute:
The simple attributes cannot be separated it will be having a single value for their entity. For Example: Let us consider the name as the attribute for the entity employee and here the value for that attribute is a single value.

3. Composite Attributes:
The composite attributes can be sub-divided into simple attributes without change in the meaning of that attribute. For Example: In the above diagram the employee is the entity with the composite attribute Name which are sub-divided into two simple attributes first and last name.

4. Single Valued Attributes:
A single valued attribute contains only one value for the attribute and they don’t have multiple numbers of values. For Example: Age- It is a single value for a person as we cannot given number of ages for a single verson, therefore it is a single valued attribute.

Attribute:

1. Degree
2. Bank_Account

Values:

1. 3
2. 85

5. Multi Valued Attributes:
A multi valued attribute has more than one value for that particular attribute. For example:
Degree – A person can hold n number of degrees so it is a multi-valued attribute.
In the below table are some examples for multi valued attributes.

Attribute:

1. Degree
2. Bank_Account

Values:

1. B.TEch, MBA
2. SBI, HDFC

Question 4.
Write a note on open source software tools available in MySQL Administration?
MYSQL Administration open source software tools:
Answer:
Types of software tools:
Many open source tools are available in the market to design the database in a better and efficient manner. PhpMyAdmin is most popular for Web Administration. The popular Desktop Application tools are MySQL Workbench and HeidiSQL.

PHPMYADMIN (Web Admin):

1. This administrative tool of MySQL is a web application written in PHP.
2. They are used predominantly in web hosting.
3. The main feature is providing web interface, importing data from CSV and exporting data to various formats.
4. It generates live charts for monitoring MySQL server activities like connections, processes and memory usage.
5. It also helps in making the complex queries easier.

MySQL Workbench (Desktop Application):

1. It is a database tool used by developers and DBA’s mainly for visualization.
2. This tool helps in data modeling, development of SQL, server configuration and backup for MySQL in a better way.
3. Its basic release version is 5.0 and is now in 8.0 supporting all Operating Systems.
4. The SQL editor of this tool is very flexible and comfortable in dealing multiple results set.

HeidiSQL (Desktop Application):

1. This open source tools helps in the administration of better database systems.
2. It supports GUI (Graphical User Interface) features for monitoring server host, server connection, Databases, Tables, Views, Triggers and Events.

Question 5.
Explain in detail on Sub Queries with suitable examples?
Answer:
Sub queries:
The SQL query is written within a main Query. This is called as Nested Inner/SubQuery.The sub query is executed first and the results of sub query are used as the condition for main query.
The sub query must follow the below rules:

• Subqueries are always written within the parentheses.
• Always place the Subquery on the right side of the comparison operator.
• ORDER BY clause is not used in sub query, since Subqueries cannot manipulate the results internally.

Consider the Employee table with the fields EmpID, Name, Age and Salary.

In the below Query, we use sub query in an SELECT statement.
SELECT * from Employee
where EmpID IN (SELECT EmpID from Employee WHERE Salary < 20000);
First, the inner query is executed. As a result EmpID 101 and 103 are retrieved. Now the external or outer query is executed. Internally the query is SELECT * from Employee where EmpID IN(101,103) and the output is drawn below.
Select Record List

Similarly the subqueries are used with INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Introduction to Database Management System Additional Question and Answer:wers

I. Choose the Best Answer

Question 1.
Expand DBMS?
(a) DataBase Management System
(b) Data Manipulation Schema
(c) Data Base Management Schema
(d) Data Base Manipulation Schema
Answer:
(a) DataBase Management System

Question 2.
Expand RDBMS.
(a) Relational Data Base Manipulation System
(b) Relational Data Base Management Schema
(c) Relational Data Base Management System
(d) Record Data Base Managing Schema
Answer:
(c) Relational Data Base Management System

Question 3.
Expand ODBMS.
(a) Object Data Base Management System
(b) Objective Data Base Management System
(c) Object Oriented Data Base Management System
(d) Objective Data Manipulation System
Answer:
(a) Object Data Base Management System

Question 4.
Update operation is otherwise called as …………………………
Answer:
transaction

Question 5.
Two types of trAnswer:action operations are ……………………… and ………………………
Answer:
commits and aborts

Question 6.
To prevent the conflict in database update, the trAnswer:actions are isolated from other user and serialized. This is called as ……………………….
(a) Atomicity
(b) Consistency
(c) Isolation
(d) Degree of Consistency
Answer:
(d) Degree of Consistency

Question 7.
ensures that the changes in data value to be constant at any given instance.
(a) Atomicity
(b) Consistency
(c) Isolation
(d) Durability
Answer:
(b) Consistency

Question 8.
Match the following:
1. Atomicity – (i) commit / aborts
2. TrAnswer:action – (ii) constant data
3. Consistency – (iii) recover all committed trAnswer:actions
4. Durability – (iv) All or Nothing
(a) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
(b) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
(c) 1 -(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii),4-(i)
(d) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
Answer:
(a) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

Question 9.
Concurrency control and locking are needed
(a) Consistency
(b) data sharing
(c) data hiding
(d) TrAnswer:action
Answer:
(b) data sharing

Question 10.
How many Database models are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 11.
The famous Hierarchical database model was ……………………
Answer:
IMS

Question 12.
IMS stands for ……………………..
Answer:
Information Data Store

Question 13.
IBM’s first DBMS is ……………………..
(a) IMS
(b) IVS
(c) BMS
(d) VMS
Answer:
(a) IMS

Question 14.
Hierarchical database model uses …………………….. structure.
(a) star
(b) tree
(c) HoneyComb
(d) Hair like
Answer:
(b) tree

Question 15.
Parent child relationship is established in …………………….. database Models.
(a) Hierarchical
(b) Network
(c) Relational
(d) Object
Answer:
(a) Hierarchical

Question 16.
The collection of records in Hierarchical models are called as ……………………..
(a) field types
(b) tuples
(c) record types
(d) ACID
Answer:
(c) record types

Question 17.
In ACID properties I indicates
(a) Inverter
(b) Interface
(c) Isolation
(d) Identification
Answer:
(c) Isolation

Question 18.
The first Network Model was developed at ……………………..
Answer:
Honey well

Question 19.
…………………….. is the first developed Network Data Model.
(a) IMS
(b) IDS
(c) DB2
(d) OOP’s
Answer:
(b) IDS

Question 20.
IDS stands for ……………………..
Answer:
Integrated Data Store

Question 21.
Which of the two databases models are similar?
(a) Hierarchical, Network
(b) Network, relational
(c) Relational, Object oreinted
(d) Network, Object oreinted
Answer:
(a) Hierarchical, Network

Question 22.
Network database model is identified by ………………………..
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 23.
Find the Statement which is wrong?
(a) Network Schema deals with locking
(b) Subschema controls on view of the database
Answer:
(a) Network Schema deals with locking

Question 24.
Which one of the following is the basic procedural for accessing the database in Network model?
Answer:
(a) Network schema
(b) Sub schema
(c) Language
(d) Super schema
Answer:
(c) Language

Question 25.
……………….. and …………………… are the commercial relational database models.
(a) Oracle, DB2
(b) DB2, IDS
(c) IDS, IMS
(d) Oracle, IBME
Answer:
(a) Oracle, DB2

Question 26.
Find which of the following statements are true with respect to Relational model
(i) Instance – A table with rows and columns
(ii) Schema – Specifies the sjtructure
(a) (i) is true
(b) (ii) is true
(c) both are true
(d) both are false
Answer:
(c) both are true

Question 27.
Columns are otherwise called as …………………….
Answer:
attributes

Question 28.
OOP’s stands for …………………….
Answer:
Object Oriented Language.

Question 29.
Object oriented model uses small, reusable software known as ………………………
(a) objects
(b) software
(c) class
(d) private
Answer:
(a) objects

Question 30.
The vertical entity of a table is known as ………………………. or ……………………….
Answer:
Attribute, Column

Question 31.
A primary key which is a combination of more than one attribute is called a ………………………..
Answer:
composite primary key

Question 32.
Each super key is called as ……………………… key.
(a) Sub
(b) Candidate
(c) Schema
(d) Constraint
Answer:
(b) Candidate

Question 33.
What is the another name for Candidate Key?
(a) Super key
(b) Sub key
(c) Minimal super key
(d) Maximal super key
Answer:
(c) Minimal super key

Question 34.
Composite key is otherwise called as ………………………
(a) compound key
(b) super key
(c) sub key
(d) foreign key
Answer:
(a) compound key

Question 35.
How many basic concepts are there in ER model?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 36.
How many types of entities are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 37.
What is the symbol for weak Entity?
(a) square
(b) double square
(c) rectangle
(d) double rectangle
Answer:
(d) double rectangle

Question 38.
………………………. denotes the category values for the given entity.
(a) Schema
(b) Structure
(c) Entity Instance
(d) Existence
Answer:
(c) Entity Instance

Question 39.
……………………. describes a unique characteristic of an entity.
Answer:
Key Attribute.

Question 40.
How many types of attributes are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 41.
How many relationship types are there in ER model?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 42.
The number of entity types involved is known as …………………….
Answer:
degree of relationship

Question 43.
Customer places the order is an example of ……………………. relationship.
(a) one to one
(b) one to many
(c) many to many
(d) two to many
Answer:
(b) one to many

Question 44.
MySQL is founded by ……………………….
(a) My Widenius
(b) Monty Widenius
(c) Marley Minto
(d) My Minto
Answer:
(b) Monty Widenius

Question 45.
SQL meAnswer: ……………………….
Answer:
Structured Query Language.

Question 46.
The structured collection of data is ……………………..
(a) data
(b) table
(c) row
(d) database
Answer:
(d) database

Question 47.
The databases are broadly classified into …………………….. and …………………….. databases.
Answer:
Heavy, light

Question 48.
The light databases that supports the web applications are also known as ……………………. databases.
(a) web
(b) Heavy
(c) Application
(d) Super
Answer:
(a) web

Question 49.
DBA stands for ……………………..
Answer:
DataBase Administrators.

Question 50.
All the query will terminate with ……………………
(a) colon
(b) semicolon
(c) bracket
(d) dot
Answer:
(b) semicolon

Question 51.
…………………. reboots the server.
Answer:
Flush privileges

Question 52.
…………………… is the most popular web administration tool.
Answer:
Phpmyadmin

Question 53.
The popular Desktop Application tools are
(a) MySQL workbench
(b) HeidiSQL
(c) PlSQL
(d) both a and b
Answer:
(d) both a and b

Question 54.
The process of creating, implementing and maintaining the enterprise data in the system is known as ……………………… of databases.
Answer:
desingning

Question 55.
Expand Answer:
(a) American National Standards Institute
(b) African National Standard Institute
(c) American North Sound Institute
(d) All-National Standard Institute
Answer:
(a) American National Standards Institute

Question 56.
…………………… is used to temporarily save a trAnswer:action.
(a) Commit
(b) Rollback
(c) TrAnswer:action
(d) SavePoint
Answer:
(d) SavePoint

Question 57.
When we want to select data from more than 2 tables ……………………. clause is used.
(a) group
(b) merge
(c) combine
(d) sql join
Answer:
(d) sql join

Question 58.
Multiple numbers of values are not allowed in ………………………. attributes.
(a) single valued
(b) composite
(c) multi valued
(d) key
Answer:
(a) single valued

Question 59.
Match the following attributes with their values.
1. simple – (i) Degree
2. composite – (ii) Name
3. Single valued – (iii) First Name, Last Name
4. Multi valued – (iv) Age
(a) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)
(b) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
(c) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
(d) 1-(iv), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)
Answer:
(a) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(i)

Question 60.
…………………….. is the symbol for Relationship in ER Model.
Answer:
Rhombus

Question 61.
M : N relationship is said to be ………………………. relationship.
Answer:
many to many

Question 62.
The most popular DBMS is ……………………….
Answer:
MySQL

Question 63.
The least popular DBMS as per the statistical data is ……………………….
Answer:
cassandra

Question 64.
………………… lists all the databases available in the databases.
Answer:
Show databases

Question 65.
shows all the indexes for the given table.
Answer:
Show index from tablename

Question 66.
Match the following
1. DDL – (a) commit
2. DML – (b) alter
3. DQL – (c) insert
4. TCL – (d) select
(a) 1-(b) 2 (c) 3-(d) 4-(a)
(b) 1-(a) 2-(d) 3-(b) 4-(c)
(c) 1-(c)2-(b)3-(a)4-(d)
(d) 1-(d) 2-(b) 5-(a) 4-(c)
Answer:
(a) 1-(b) 2 (c) 3-(d) 4-(a)

Question 67.
Find the wrong one.
(a) DDL – create command
(b) DML – update
(c) TCL – solve point
(d) DCL – select
Answer:
(d) DCL – select

Question 68.
DDL stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Data Definition Language

Question 69.
DML stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Data Manipulation Language

Question 70.
DQL stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Data Query Language

Question 71.
TCL stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Transaction Control Structure

Question 72.
DCL stands for ……………………….
Answer:
Data Control Language

Question 73.
………………………. clause is used in select and update query statement for the condition.
Answer:
where

Question 74.
The existing record in a table is removed from the table using ………………………. command.
Answer:
DELETE

Question 75.
………………………. is not a logical operator.
(a) And
(b) Between
(c) Plus
(d) Unique
Answer:
(c) Plus

Question 76.
IN is ………………………. operator.
Answer:
logical

Question 77.
<>is a ………………………. operator.
Answer:
comparision

Question 78.
………………………. is used to take out permission from the specific users.
Answer:
Revoke

Question 79.
………………………. is used to delete all table records.
Answer:
Truncate

Question 80.
………………………. deletes database or table.
Answer:
drop

II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define database?
Answer:
“A database management system (DBMS) is system software for creating and managing databases. The DBMS provides users and programmers with a systematic way to create, retrieve, update and manage data”.

Question 2.
Name the various access methods in file system?
Answer:
Various access methods in file system were indexed, random and sequential access.

Question 3.
Define degree of consistency?
Answer:
To prevent the conflict in database update, the trAnswer:actions are isolated from other user and serialized. This is also known as Degree of Consistency.

Question 4.
Give advantages of Hierarchical database models?
Answer:

1. Less redundant data
2. data integrity
3. efficient search
4. security

Question 5.
Give limitations of Hierarchical db model?
Answer:

1. complex to implement
2. difficult to handle many to many relationships.

Question 6.
Define relational database?
Answer:
Any database whose logical organization is based on relational data model is known as Relational Database.

Question 7.
Define Table?
Answer:
In relational database model, table is defined as the collection of data organized in terms of rows and columns. Table is the simple representation of relations.

Question 8.
Define row in a table?
Answer:
A single entry in a table is called as Row or Record or Tuple. Set of related data’s are represented in a row or tuple. The horizontal entity in a table is known as Record or row.

Question 9.
Define Primary key?
Answer:

1. The candidate key that is chosen to perform the identification task is called the primary key and any others are Alternate keys.
2. Every tuple must have, a unique value for its primary key.

Question 10.
Define Foreign key?
Answer:

1. A foreign key is a “copy” of a primary key that has been exported from one relation into another to represent the existence of a relationship between them.
2. Foreign keys can also be null.

Question 11.
Define Composite key?
Answer:
A key with more than one attribute to identify rows uniquely in a table is called Composite key. This is also known as Compound Key.

Question 12.
Name the different types of entity?
Answer:
Types of Entity:

1. Strong Entity
2. Weak Entity
3. Entity Instance

Question 13.
Name the different types of attributes?
Answer:
Types of attributes:

1. Key Attribute
2. Simple Attributes
3. Composite Attributes
4. Single Valued Attribute
5. Multi Valued Attribute

Question 14.
Define degree of relationship?
Answer:
The number of entity types involved is known as Degree of relationship. .

1. One-Unary,
2. Two-Binary,
3. Three -Ternary.

Question 15.
Classify databases (or) Compare heavy database with light database?
Answer:
The databases are broadly divided into Heavy and Light databases. Heavy databases support all the desktop applications whereas the web applications are supported by Light databases.

Question 16.
List some commonly used databases?
Answer:
The lists of commonly used databases.

1. DB2
2. MySQL
3. Oracle
4. PostgreSQL
5. SQLite
6. SQL Server
7. Sybase

Question 17.
Give the syntax for inserting record?
Answer:
The Syntax for inserting record is
INSERT INTO table name (Parameterl,Parameter2, Parameter3..) VALUES (Value!, Value2, Value3..).

Question 18.
Give the syntax for USE database?
Answer:
Syntax:
mysql > use database name test;
Database changed
mysql>

Question 19.
Define designing of databases?
Answer:
The process of creating, implementing and maintaining the enterprise data in a system is known as Designing of databases.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Explain three database components of the network model?
Answer:
The three database components of Network models are: Network schema, Sub schema and Language.
Network schema – schema defines all about the structure of the database.
Sub schema – controls on views of the database for the user.
Language – basic procedural for accessing the database.

Question 2.
What are the advantages and limitations of the network model?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. The ability to handle more relationship types,
2. Easy data access,
3. Data integrity and independence.

Disadvantages:
The limitation of network model is difficulty in design and maintenance.

Question 3.
What are the two terminologies related With relational model?
Answer:
Relational model is defined with two terminologies Instance and Schema.

1. Instance – A table consisting of rows and columns
2. Schema – Specifies the structure including name arid type of each column.

Question 4.
Define Super key?
Answer:

1. An attribute or group of attributes, which is sufficient to distinguish every tuple in the relation from every other one is known as Super Key.
2. Each super key is called a candidate key.
3. A candidate key is selected from the set of Super Key.

Question 5.
Define Strong Entity?
Answer:
A Strong entity is the one which doesn’t depend on any other entity on the schema or database and a strong entity will have a primary key with it (i;e. a unique id which other entities will not have in their attributes). It is represented by one rectangle.

Question 6.
Define relationship instance with example?
Answer:
Each instance of the relationship between members of these entity types is called a relationship instance.
E.g if ‘B’ is the relationship between the Employee entity and the department entity, then Ram works for Comp. Sc department, Shyam works for Electrical department etc. are relationship instances of the relationship, works for.

Question 7.
Give the roles and responsibilities of DBA?
Answer:
Database Administrators (DBA’s) takes care of configuration, installation, performance, security and data backup.
DBA’s posses the skills on database design, database queries, RDMS, SQL and networking.
The primary task is the creation of new user and providing them with access rights.

Question 8.
List the components that make up a database (or) parts of the database?
Answer:
The three major parts that forms a database are Tables, Queries and Views.

1. Tables – similar to an excel sheet, containing multiple rows and columns. Where each row is a record and each column is an attribute.
2. Queries – It is a question with multiple conditions posted to the database. The records in the database that satisfies the passed conditions are retrieved.
3. Views -A set of stored queries.

Question 9.
List the functions of SQL?
Answer:
Functions performed using SQL are listed below:

1. Executes queries against a database.
2. Retrieves data from database.
3. Inserts and updates records in a database
4. Delete records from database.
5. Creates new databases and new tables in a database.

Question 10.
List the types of SQL commands?
Answer:
Data Definition Language (DDL),
Data Manipulation Language (DML),
Data Query Language (DQL),
Action Control Language (TCL),
Data Control Language (DCL).

Question 11.
Give the SQL DCL commands?
Answer:
SQL DCL COMMANDS List

Commands:

1. Grant
2. Revoke

Description:

1. Used to give permission to specific users on specific database objects like table, view etc
2. Used to take out permission from specific users on specific database objects like table, view etc.

Question 12.
How will you modify the records in the table?
Answer:
Modifying Record:
SQL provides us with modifying and updating the existing records in a table using UPDATE command. The age of Krishna in Biodata table is changed using the below Syntax.
Syntax:
UPDATE tablename
SET column1= “new value”
Where column2=“value2”;
Example: mysql>UPDATE Biodata SET age=13 WHERE firstname=“Krishna”;

Question 13.
Write note on operators in SQL?
MySQL Operators
Answer:

Question 14.
How will you arrange the records in ascending or descending order in a table?
Answer:
The Query results are listed in Ascending or Descending order using the command ORDER ‘ BY. In some databases the results are sorted by default in Ascending order.

Question 15.
How will you delete the record in the table?
Answer:
Deleting Record:
The existing record in a table is removed from the table using DELETE , command. Entire record or specified columns in the table can be deleted. If we want to perform delete operation on specific columns, then that condition is given in the WHERE condition. If the condition is not specified, then the entire data will be deleted.
Syntax: DELETE from tablename WHERE columnname= “value”;

Question 16.
What are the rules to be followed by sub query?
Answer:
The sub query must follow the below rules:

1. Subqueries are always written within the parentheses.
2. Always place the Subquery on the right side of the comparison operator.
3. ORDER BY clause is not used in sub query, since Subqueries cannot manipulate the results internally.

IV. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain RDBMS Jargons in detail?
Answer:
RDBMS Jargons
Database:
The most popular Relational Database is MySQL. It is an open source SQL database supporting different platforms like Windows, Linux and MAC Operating Systems. The other relational databases available are Oracle, MS SQL Server and MS Access. The features of RDBMS are

1. High Availability
2. High Performance
3. Robust TrAnswer:actions and support
4. Ease of management
5. Less cost

Table:
In relational database model, table is defined as the collection of data organized in terms of rows and columns. Table is the simple representation of relations. The true relations cannot have duplicate rows where as the table can have. The example of Employee table is shown below in Table.

Table Structure :

Column:
The table consists of several rows and columns. Table can be divided into smaller parts, in ‘ terms of columns. Each column is known as attributes. In the Employee table four attributes are available namely Id, Name, Age and Salary. The attribute is defined in a table to hold values of same type. This is known as Attribute Domain. In the Employee table, the Name field will hold only characters not the numbers in it. The vertical entity in a table is known as Attribute or Column.

Row:
A single entry in a table is called as Row or Record or Tuple. Set of related data’s are represented in a row or tuple. The horizontal entity in a table is known as Record or row.
Row Structure

Primary key:
The candidate key that is chosen to perform the identification task is called the primary key and any others are Alternate keys. Every tuple must have, by definition, a unique value for its primary key. A primary key which is a combination of more than one attribute is called a composite primary key.

Foreign Key:
A foreign key is a “copy” of a primary key that has been exported from one relation into another to represent the existence of a relationship between them. A foreign key is a copy of the whole of its parent primary key he if the primary key is composite, then so is the foreign key. Foreign key values do not (usually) have to be unique. Foreign keys can also
be null. A composite foreign key cannot have some attribute(s) null and others non-null.

Super Key:
An attribute or group of attributes, which is sufficient to distinguish every tuple in the relation from every other oiie is known as Super Key. Each super key is called a candidate key. A candidate key is selected from the set of Super Key. While selecting candidate key, redundant attributes should not be taken. The candidate key is also known as minimal super keys.

Composite Key:
A key with more than one attribute to identify rows uniquely in a table is called Composite key. This is also known as Compound Key.

Question 2.
Explain ER – Modeling diagram Notations?
Answer:
Entities, Attributes and Relationship forms the components of ER Diagram and the defined symbols and shapes are summarized below in Table.
ER diagram Notations.

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Impulse is equal to _________.
(a) rate of change of momentum
(b) rate of force and time
(c) change of momentum
(d) rate of change of mass
Answer:
(c) change of momentum

Question 2.
The value of universal gas constant ________.
(a) 3.81 mol^-1 KJ^-1
(b) 8.03 J mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 1.38 mol^-1 KJ^-1
(d) 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(d) 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1

Question 3.
The safe limit of receiving the radiation is about _______.
(a) 1R
(b) 0.1 R
(c)100 R
(d) 10 R
Answer:
(b) 0.1 R

Question 4.
The gram molecular mass of oxygen molecule is ________.
(a) 16 g
(b) 18 g
(c) 32 g
(d) 17 g
Answer:
(c) 32 g

Question 5.
The basis of modem periodic law is _________.
(a) atomic number
(b) atomic mass
(c) Isotopic mass
(d) number of neutrons
Answer:
(a) atomic number

Question 6.
A solution is a ______ mixture.
(a) homogeneous
(b) heterogeneous
(c) homogeneous and heterogeneous
(d) non-homogeneous
Answer:
(a) homogeneous

Question 7.
Which is the sequence of correct blood flow _______.
(a) ventricle – atrium – vein – arteries
(b) atrium – ventricle – veins – arteries
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein
(d) ventricles – vein – atrium – arteries
Answer:
(c) atrium – ventricle – arteries – vein

Question 8.
Polyphagia is a condition seen in ______.
(a) Diabetes insipidus
(b) Diabetes mellitus
(c) Obesity
(d) AIDS
Answer:
(b) Diabetes mellitus

Question 9.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called _______.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Question 10.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Question 11.
Which is used to build scripts?
(a) Script area
(b) Block palette
(c) stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(a) Script area

Question 12.
Rice normally grows well in alluvial soil, but _______ is a rice variety produced by mutation breeding that grows well in saline soil.
(a) Atlas 66
(b) Triticale
(c) Protina
(d) Atomita-2-rice
Answer:
(d) Atomita-2-rice

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Why a spanner with a long handle is preferred to tighten screws in heavy vehicles?
Answer:
This is because turning effect to tighten the screws depends upon the perpendicular distance of the applied force from the axis of rotation in power arm. Larger the power arm less is the force required to turn the screws. So spanner is provided with a long handle.

Question 14.
State Snell’s law.
Answer:
The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence and sine of the angle of refraction is equal to the ratio of refractive indices of the two media. This law is also known as Snell’s law.
\(\frac{\sin i}{\sin r}=\frac{\mu_{2}}{\mu_{1}}\)

Question 15.
What is co-efficient of cubical expansion?
Answer:
The ratio of increase in volume of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit volume is called as coefficient of cubical expansion.

Question 16.
Define Relative atomic mass.
Answer:
Relative atomic mass of an element is the ratio between the average mass of its isotopes to
l/12th part of the mass of a carbon-12 atom. It is denoted as Ar.

Question 17.
Differentiate aqueous and non-aqueous solution:
Answer:
Aqueous solution:

• Water acts as a solvent
• E.g. Common salt in water

Non -Aqueous solution:

• Any liquid, other than water, acts as a solvent.
• E.g. Sulphur dissolved in carbon disulphide

Question 18.
How is diastema formed in rabbit?
Answer:
Diastema is a gap between the incisors and premolar. It is formed due to the absence of canine. It helps in mastication and chewing of food in herbivorous animals.

Question 19.
What is the role of parathormone?
Answer:
The parathormone regulate calcium and phosphorus metabolism in the body. They act on bone, kidney and intestine to maintain blood calcium levels.

Question 20.
Identify the parts A, B, C and D?
Answer:

A – Head
B – Acrosome
C – Nucleus
D – Mitochondria

Question 21.
Write any two importance of Ethnobotany.
Answer:

1. It provides traditional uses of plant.
2. It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.

Question 22.
The focal length of the concave lens is 7 m. Calculate the power of lens.
Answer:
Given f = -7 m
Power of lens = \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{-7}\) =
= -0.14 dioptre or -0.14 D

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Write the applications of universal law of gravitation.
Answer:

• Dimensions of the heavenly bodies can be measured using the gravitation law. Mass of the Earth, radius of the Earth, acceleration due to gravity, etc. can be calculated with a higher accuracy. .
• Helps in discovering new stars and planets.
• One of the irregularities in the motion of stars is called ‘Wobble’ that lead to the disturbance in the motion of a planet nearby. In this condition the mass of the star can be calculated using the law of gravitation.
• Helps to explain germination of roots is due to the property of geotropism, which is the property of a root responding to the gravity.
• Helps to predict the path of the astronomical bodies.

Question 24.
(i) Differentiate convex lens and concave lens.
Answer:

(ii) Define dispersion of light.
Answer:
When a beam of white light or composite light is refracted through any transparent media such as glass or water, it is split into its component colours. This phenomenon is called as‘dispersion of light’.

Question 25.
(i) Three resistors of resistance 5 ohm, 3 ohm and 2 ohm are connected in series with 10 V battery. Calculate their effective resistance and the current flowing through the circuit.
Answer:
R₁ = 5 Ω, R₂ = 3 Ω, R₃ = 2 Ω, V = 10 V
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃
= 5 + 3 + 2= 10 Ω
Hence Rs = 10 Ω
The current, I = \(\frac{V}{R_{s}}=\frac{10}{10}\) = IA

(ii) An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Why?
Answer:
An alloy of nickel and chromium is used as the heating element. Because:

• It has high resistivity
• It has a high melting point
• It is not easily oxidized.

Question 26.
State and explain the applications of Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Avogadro’s law : Equal volumes of all gases under the same conditions of temperature and pressure contain an equal number of molecules.
Applications of Avogadro’s law:

• It is used to determine the atomicity of gases.
• It is helpful in determining the molecular formula of gaseous compounds.
• It establishes the relationship between the vapour density and molecular mass of a gas.
• It gives the value of molar volume of gases at STP.
  Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 litres.
• It explains Gay lussac’s law effectively.

Question 27.
Explain the types of double displacement reactions with examples.
Answer:
There are two major classes of double displacement reactions. They are,
(i) Precipitation Reactions:
When aqueous solutions of two compounds are mixed, if they react to form an insoluble compound and a soluble compound, then it is called precipitation reaction.
pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s) ↓+ 2KNO_3(aq)

(ii) Neutralisation Reactions:
Another type of displacement reaction in which the acid reacts with the base to form a salt and water. It is called ‘neutralisation reaction’ as both acid and base neutralize each other.
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_1(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 28.
(i) Explain the structure of an atom bomb.
Answer:
Principle:

• Uncontrolled chain reaction
• Release large amount of energy in short time

Structure:

• Fissile material whose mass is sub – critical.
• Cylindrical fissile material is fit into void.
• Cylinder is injected into the void, using conventional explosive
• Two pieces together to form super – critical mass, leads to explosion.
• Tremendous amount of energy is released in the form of heat, light and radiation.
• γ radiation, affects the living creatures
• This type of atom bombs were exploded at Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan during Second World War.

(ii) Calculate the pH of 1.0 × 10^-4 molar solution of HNO3.
Answer:
[H⁺] = 1.0 × 10^-4 m, pH = ?
pH = – log₁₀ [H⁺]
= – log₁₀ 1 × 10^-4
[M⁺] = – log₁₀ ¹– log₁₀ 10^-4
= 0 – (-4) log₁₀ ¹⁰   ∴ log₁₀ ¹⁰ = 1
= 4 × 1
pH =4

Question 29.
With a neat labelled diagram explain the structure of a neuron.
Answer:

A neuron or nerve cell is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. It consists of Cyton, Dendrites and Axon.

(a) Cyton: Cyton has a central nucleus with the abundant – cytoplasm called neuroplasm. The cytoplasm has large granular body called Nissel’s granules and the other cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, lysosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum.

(b) Dendrites: These are the numerous branched cytoplasmic processes, that project from the surface of the cell body. They conduct nerve impulses, towards the cyton.

(c) Axon: The axon is a single, elongated, slender projection. The end of axon terminates as fine branches, which terminate into knob like swellings called synaptic knob. The plasma membrane of axon is called axolemma, while the cytoplasm is called axoplasm. It carries impulses away from the cyton.

The axon may be covered by a protein sheath called myelin sheath, which is further covered by a layer of Schwann cells called Neurilemma. Myelin sheath breaks at intervals, by depressions called Nodes of Ranvier. The region between the nodes is called as internode.

Question 30.
(i) What are the various routes by which transmission of human immuno deficiency virus takes place?
Answer:
AIDS is not transmitted by touch or any physical contact. HIV is generally transmitted by

• Sexual contact with infected person.
• Use of contaminated or infected blood or blood products, needles or syringes.
• By the use of contaminated needles or syringes.
• From infected mother to her child through placenta.

(ii) Name three improved characteristics of wheat that helped India to achieve high productivity.
Answer:

• High yielding
• Semi-dwarf
• Fertilizer responsive

Question 31.
(i) Kavitha gave birth to a female baby. Her family members say that she can give birth to only female babies because of her family history. Is the statement given by her family members true. Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, the statement is not true. Sex determination is a chance of probability as to which category of sperm fuses with egg.
If the egg [X] is fused by the X-bearing sperm, an XX individual (female) is produced.

If the egg [X] is fused by the Y-bearing sperm an XY individual (male) is produced.

The sperm, produced by the father, determines the sex of the child. The mother is not responsible in determining the sex of the child.

(ii) Who discovered Rh factor? Why was it named so?
Answer:
The Rh factor was discovered by Landsteiner and Wiener in 1940 in Rhesus monkey. Hence the name Rh factor.

Question 32.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy?
Answer:
Stages of cellular respiration
(i) Glycolysis: It takes place in cytoplasm of the cell. It is the break down of one molecule of Glucose (6 Carbon) into two molecules of Pyruvic acid (3 Carbon).

(ii) Kreb’s cycle: This occurs in mitochondria matrix. During this cycle, oxidation of pyruvic acid result into CO₂ and water.

(iii) Electron transport chain(ETC):
ETC is located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.

(a) NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during Glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle are oxidised to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ to release the energy via electrons.

(b) The electrons, as they move through the system, release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesize ATP. This is called Oxidative Phosphorylation. During this process, oxygen which is the acceptor of electrons get reduced to water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Newton’s third law of motion.
Answer:
‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. They always act on two different bodies’.

(ii) Deduce the equation of a force using Newton’s second law of motion.
Answer:
“The force acting on a body is directly proportional to the rate of change of linear momentum of the body and the change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force”.
Let, ‘m’ be the mass of a moving body, moving along a straight line with an initial speed ‘u’. After a time interval of ‘t’ the velocity of the body changes to ‘v’ due to the impact of an unbalanced external force F.

Initial momentum of the body P_i = mu
Final momentum of the body P_f = mv
Change in momentum Δp = P_f – P_i
= mv – mu

By Newton’s second law of motion,
Force, F ∝ rate of change of momentum
F ∝ change in momentum / time
F ∝ \(\frac{m v-m u}{t}\)
F = \(\frac{k m(v-u)}{t}\)

Here, k is the proportionality constant, k = 1 in all systems of units. Hence,
F = \(\frac{m(v-u)}{t}\)
Since, acceleration = change in velocity / time, a = (v – u)/t. Hence, we have
F = m × a
Force = mass × acceleration

• No external force is required to maintain the motion of a body moving with uniform velocity.
• When the net force acting on a body is not equal to zero, then definitely the velocity of the body will change.
• Thus, change in momentum takes place in the direction of the force. The change may take place either in magnitude or in direction or in both.

[OR]

(b) A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Specific resistance (ρ) = \(\frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}\)
R = \(\frac{\rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
When the length is increased by three and then the area of cross section is reduced by three
Resistance of wire R = 10 Ω
New resistance R’ = \(\frac{\rho(3 l)}{(A / 3)}\)
= ρ (3l) x \(\frac{3}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = \(\frac{9 \rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = 9 x R = 9 x 10
R’ = 90 Ω

Question 34.
(a) (i) Calculate the mass of the 0.023 x 10²⁰ molecules of H₂O.
Answer:
Molecular mass of H₂O = H × 2 + 0 × 1
= 1 × 2 + 16 × 1
= 2 + 16 = 18

= 10 × 18
Mass of an atom = 0.018 g

(ii) Calculate the moles of 12 g of magnesium.
Answer:
Number of moles = \(\frac{\text { Given mass }}{\text { molecular mass }}\)
= \(\frac{12}{24}=\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5
∴ 12 g magnesium makes 0.5 moles.

(iii) Calculate the number of molecules present in 50 g of Fe.
Answer:

= 5.387 × 1023
∴ 50 g Fe contain 5.387 × 10²³ atoms/molecules

[OR]

(b) Explain smelting process..
Answer:
Smelting: The charge consisting of roasted ore, coke and limestone in the ratio 8 : 4 : 1 is smelted in a blast furnace by introducing it through the cup and cone arrangement at the top.
There are three important regions in the furnace.

(a) The Lower Region (Combustion Zone): The temperature is at 1500°C. In this region, coke bums
with oxygen to form CO₂ when the charge comes in contact with a hot blast of air.

It is an exothermic reaction since heat is liberated.

(b) The middle region (Fusion Zone): The temparature prevails at 1000° C. In this region, CO₂ is reduced to CO.

Limestone decomposes to calcium oxide and CO₂

These two reactions are endothermic due to absorption of heat. Calcium oxide combines with silica to form calcium silicate slag.
CaO + SiO₂ → CaSiO₃

(c) The Upper Region (Reduction Zone): The temperature prevails at 400°C . In this region carbon monoxide reduces ferric oxide to form a fairly pure spongy iron.

The molten iron is collected at the bottom of the furnace after removing the slag.
The iron thus formed is called pig iron. It is remelted and cast into different moulds. This iron is called cast iron.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Write any two physiological effects of ethylene.
Answer:
Physiological effects of ethylene:

• It promotes the ripening of fruits. E.g., Tomato, Apple, Mango, Banana, etc.
• It breaks the dormancy of buds,seeds and storage organs.

(ii) What is Autogamy?
Answer:
Autogamy or self pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of same flower or another flower borne on the same plant. Eg. Hibiscus.

(iii) How will you prevent soil erosion?
Answer:
Prevention of soil erosion:

• Retain vegetation cover, so that soil is not exposed.
• Cattle grazing should be controlled.
• Crop rotation and soil management improve soil organic matter.
• Run off water should be stored in the catchment.
• Reforestation, terracing and contour ploughing.
• Wind speed can be controlled by planting trees in the form of a shelter belt.

[OR]

(b) (i) How do you differentiate Homologous organs from Analogous organs.
Answer:

(ii) Why are the rings of cartilage found in trachea of rabbit?
Answer:
The tracheal walls of rabbit are supported by rings of cartilage which help in the free passage of air.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART – I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
A = {a, b, p}, B = {2, 3}, C = {p, q, r, 5} then n[(A ∪ C) × B] is ……………. .
(1) 8
(2) 20
(3) 12
(4) 16
Answer:
(3) 12

Question 2.
If a, b, c are in G.P., then \(\frac{a-b}{b-c}\) is equal to ……………. .
(1) \(\frac{a}{b}\)
(2) \(\frac{b}{a}\)
(3) \(\frac{a}{c}\)
(4) \(\frac{c}{b}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{a}{b}\)

Question 3.
If k + 2, 4k – 6, 3k – 2 are the 3 consecutive terms of an A.P, then the value of k is ……………. .
(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
Answer:
(2) 3

Question 4.
If (x – 6) is the HCF of x² – 2x – 24 and x² – kx – 6 then the value of k is ……………. .
(1) 3
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 8
Answer:
(2) 5

Question 5.
If A is a 2 × 3 matrix and B is a 3 × 4 matrix, how many columns does AB have ……………. .
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 5
Answer:
(2) 4

Question 6.
In a ∆ABC, AD is the bisector of ∠BAC. If AB = 8 cm, BD = 6 cm and DC = 3 cm. The length of the side AC is ……………. .
(1) 6 cm
(2) 4 cm
(3) 3 cm
(4) 8 cm
Answer:
(2) 4 cm

Question 7.
(2, 1) is the point of intersection of two lines.
(1) x – y – 3 = 0; 3x – y – 7 = 0
(2) x + y = 3; 3x + y = 7
(3) 3x + y = 3; x + y = 7
(4) x + 3y – 3 = 0; x – y – 1 = 0
Answer:
(2) x + y = 3; 3x + y = 7

Question 8.
If the ratio of the height of a tower and the length of its shadow is √3 : 1 , then the angle of elevation of the sun has measure ……………. .
(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 90°
(4) 60°
Answer:
(4) 60°

Question 9.
A spherical ball of radius r₁ units is melted to make 8 new identical balls each of radius r₂ units. Then r₁ : r₂ is ……………. .
(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 4:1
(4) 1:4
Answer:
(1) 2:1

Question 10.
The standard deviation of a data is 3. If each value is multiplied by 5 then the new variance is ……………. .
(1) 3
(2) 15
(3) 5
(4) 225
Answer:
(4) 225

Question 11.
A page is selected at random from a book. The probability that the digit at units place of the page number chosen is less than 7 is ……………. .
(1) \(\frac { 3 }{ 10 }\)
(2) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\)
(3) \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 }\)
(4) \(\frac { 7 }{ 9 }\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac { 7 }{ 10 }\)

Question 12.
The range of the relation R = {(x, x³)/x} is a prime number less than 13} is ……………. .
(1) {2,3,5,7,11}
(2) {4,9,25,49, 121}
(3) {8, 27,125, 343,1331}
(4) {1, 8, 27, 125, 343, 1331}
Answer:
(3) {8, 27,125, 343,1331}

Question 13.
If 1 + 2 + 3 + …. + n = k then 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… n³ is equal to ……………. .
(1) K²
(2) K³
(3) \(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\)
(4) (k + 1)K³
Answer:
(1) K²

Question 14.
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting a doublet is ……………. .
(1) \(\frac { 1 }{ 36 }\)
(2) \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\)
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)
(4) \(\frac { 2 }{ 3 }\)
Answer:
(3) \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
ARelation R is given by the set {{x,y)/y = x + 3, x ∈ {0,1,2,3,4,5}}. Determine its domain and range.
Answer:
x = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} and y = x + 3
when x = 0 ⇒ y = 0 + 3 = 3
when x = 1 ⇒ y = 1 + 3 = 4 .
when x = 2 ⇒ y = 2 + 3 = 5
when x = 3 ⇒ y = 3 + 3 = 6
whenx = 4 ⇒ y = 4 + 3 = 7
when x = 5 ⇒ y = 5 + 3 = 8
R = {(0, 3) (1, 4) (2, 5) (3, 6) (4, 7) (5, 8)}
Domain = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

Question 16.
Let f = {(-1,3), (0, -1), (2, – 9)} be a linear function from Z to Z. Find f(x).
Answer:
The linear equation is f(x) = ax + b
f(-1) = 3
a(-1) + b = 3
-a + b = 3 ….(1)
f(0) = -1
a(0) + b = -1
0 + b = -1
b = -1
Substitute the value of b = -1 in (1)
– a – 1 = 3
– a = 3 + 1 ⇒ – a = 4
a = -4
∴ The linear equation is -4(x) -1 = -4x – 1 (or) – (4x + 1)

Question 17.
Solve 8x = 1 (mod 11)
Answer:
8x ≡ 1 (mod 11) can be written as 8x – 1 = 11k, for some integer k.
x = \(\frac{11 k+1}{8}\)
When we put k = 5, 13, 21, 29,… . then 11 k + 1 is divisible by 8.
x = \(\frac{11 \times 5+1}{8}\) = 7
x = \(\frac{11 \times 13+1}{8}\) = 18
Therefore, the solutions are 7,18,29,40, …….

Question 18.
How many terms of the series 1³ + 2³ + 3³ +………..  should be taken to get the sum 14400?
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ +. . . + n³ = 14400
\(\left[\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 14400
\(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = √14400
\(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\) = 120 ⇒ n² + n = 240
n² + n – 240 =0

(n + 16) (n – 15) =0
(n + 16) = 0 or (n – 15) = 0
n = -16 or n = 15 (Negative will be omitted)
∴ The number of terms taken is 15

Question 19.
Given the L.C.M and G.C.D of the two polynomials are a³ – 10a² + 11a + 70 and a – 7, the polynomial p(x) is a² – 12a + 35 then find q(x).
Answer:

L.C.M. = a³ – 10a² + 11a + 70
= (a – 7) (a² – 3a – 10)

= (a – 7) (a – 5) (a + 2)
G.C.D. = (a – 7)

p(x) = a² – 12a + 35
= (a – 5) (a – 7)
q(x) = \(\frac{\mathrm{LCM} \times \mathrm{GCD}}{p(x)}\)
= \(\frac{(a-7)(a-5)(a+2) \times(a-7)}{(a-5)(a-7)}\)
q(x) = (a + 2) (a – 7)

Question 20.
Find the square root of 9x² – 24xy + 30xz – 40yz + 25z² + 16y²
Answer:
\(\sqrt{9 x^{2}-24 x y+30 x z-40 y z+25 z^{2}+16 y^{2}}\)
= \(\sqrt{(3 x)^{2}+(4 y)^{2}+(5 z)^{2}-2(3 x)(4 y)-2(4 y)(5 z)+2(3 x)(5 z)}\)
= \(\sqrt{(3 x-4 y+5 z)^{2}}\) [using (a – b + c)² = a² + b² + c² – 2ab – 2bc + 2ca]
= |3x – 4y + 5z|

Question 21.
Construct a 3 × 3 matrix whose elements are a_ij = i² j²
Answer:
The general 3 × 3 matrix is given by A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} { a }_{ 11 } & { a }_{ 12 } & { a }_{ 13 } \\ { a }_{ 21 } & { a }_{ 22 } & { a }_{ 23 } \\ { a }_{ 31 } & { a }_{ 32 } & { a }_{ 33 } \end{matrix} \right]\) a_ij = i² j²

a₁₁ = 1² × 1² = 1 × 1 = 1;
a₁₂ = 1² × 2² = 1 × 4 = 4;
a₁₃ = 1² × 3² = 1 × 9 = 9;

a₂₁ = 2² × 1² = 4 × 1 = 4;
a₂₂ = 2² × 2² = 4 × 4 = 16;
a₂₃ = 2² × 3² = 4 × 9 = 36;

a₃₁ = 3² × 1² = 9 × 1 = 1;
a₃₂ = 3² × 2² = 9 × 4 = 36;
a₃₃ = 3² × 3² = 9 × 9 = 81;
Hence the required matrix is A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 1 & 4 & 9 \\ 4 & 16 & 36 \\ 9 & 36 & 81 \end{matrix} \right] \)

Question 22.
An artist has created a triangular stained glass window and has one strip of small length left before completing the window. She needs to figure out the length of left out portion based on the lengths of the other sides as shown in the figure.
Answer:
Given that AE = 3 cm, EC = 4 cm, CD = 10 cm, DB = 3 cm, AF = 5 cm.
Let FB be x
Using Ceva’s theorem we have

\(\frac{A E}{E C} \times \frac{C D}{D B} \times \frac{B F}{A F}=1\)
\(\frac{3}{4} \times \frac{10}{3} \times \frac{x}{5}=1\) \(\Rightarrow \frac{2 x}{4}=1\)
2x = 4 ⇒ x = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2
The value of BF = 2

Question 23.
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-3, 5), (5, 6) and (5, -2)
Answer:
Plot the points in a rough diagram and take them in counter-clockwise order. Let the vertices be A(-3,5), B(5,-2), C(5,6)
The area of ∆ABC is

= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) {(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁ y₃)}
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) {(6 + 30 + 25) – (25 – 10 – 18)}
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) {(61 + 3)}
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (64) = 32 sq. units

Question 24.
From the top of a rock 50 √3 m high, the angle of depression of a car on the ground is observed to be 30°. Find the distance of the car from the rock.
Answer:

Let the distance of the car from the rock is “x” m
In the right ∆ ABC, tan 30° = \(\frac{A B}{B C}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{50 \sqrt{3}}{x}\)
X = 50 √3 × √3 = 50 × 3
= 150 m
∴ Distance of the car from the rock =150 m

Question 25.
If n = 5, x̄ = 6, Σx² = 765, then calculate the coefficient of variation.
Answer:
Standard deviation (σ) = \(\sqrt{\frac{\Sigma x^{2}}{n}-\left(\frac{\Sigma x}{n}\right)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{\frac{765}{5}-(6)^{2}}=\sqrt{153-36}=\sqrt{117}\)
σ = 10.816
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{10.816}{6} \times 100 \%\) = 180.266%
Coefficient of variation = 180. 27%

Question 26.
The roots of the equation x² + 6x – 4 = 0 are α, β. Find the quadratic equation whose roots are \(\frac{2}{\alpha}\) and \(\frac{2}{\beta}\).
Answer:
α and β are the roots of x² + 6x – 4 = 0
α + β = -6 ; αβ = -4
Sum of the roots = \(\frac{2}{\alpha}+\frac{2}{\beta}\)
\(\frac{2 \beta+2 \alpha}{\alpha \beta}=\frac{2(\alpha+\beta)}{\alpha \beta}=\frac{2(-6)}{-4}\)
= 3
Product of the roots = \(\frac{2}{\alpha} \times \frac{2}{\beta}=\frac{4}{\alpha \beta}\)
= \(\frac{4}{-4}=-1\)
The quadratic equation is x² – (sum of the roots) x + product of the roots = 0
∴ x² – 3x – 1 = 0 .

Question 27.
If the points A(2, 5), B(4, 6) and C(8, a) are collinear, find the value of “a” using slope concept.
Answer:
Since the three points are collinear
Slope of line = \(\frac{y_{2}-y_{1}}{x_{2}-x_{1}}\)
Slope of AB = Slope of BC
\(\frac{6-5}{4-2}=\frac{a-6}{8-4}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}=\frac{a-6}{4}\)
2a – 12 = 4 ⇒ 2a = 16
a = \(\frac{16}{2}\) = 8
The value of a = 8

Question 28.
The king, Queen and Jack of clubs are removed from a deck of 52 playing cards and the remaining cards are shuffled. A card is drawn from the remaining cards, find the probability of getting (i) a card of clubs (ii) a queen of diamond
Answer:
Sample space (S) = (52 – 3) = 49
n (S) = 49
(i) Let A be the event of getting a card of clubs.
n(A) = (13 – 3) = 10
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{10}{49}\)
(ii) Let B be the event of getting a queen of diamond
n (B) = 1
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{1}{49}\)

PART-III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Find x if gff (x) = fgg (x), given f(x) = 3x + 1 and g(x) = x + 3.
Answer:
gff(x) = g [f {f{x)}} (This means “g of f of f of x”)
= g[f(3x + 1)] = g[3(3x + 1) + 1] = g(9x + 4)
g (9x + 4) = [ (9x + 4) + 3] = 9x + 7
fgg (x) = f[g{g (x)}] (This means “f of g of g of x”)
= f[g(x + 3)] = f[(x + 3) + 3] = f(x + 6)
f(x + 6) = [3(x + 6) + 1] = 3x + 19
These two quantities being equal, we get 9x + 7 = 3x + 19. Solving this equation we obtain x = 2.

Question 30.
Let A = {-l,l}and B = {0,2}. If the function f : A → B defined by f(x) = ax + b is an onto function? Find a and b.
Answer:
A = {-1, 1}; B = {0,2}
f(x) = ax + b
0 = -a + b
a – b = 0 …….. (1)
f(1) = a(1) + b
2 = a + b
a + b = 2 ………. (2)
Solving (1) and (2) we get

Substitute a = 1 in (1)
1 – b = 0 ⇒ -b = -1 ⇒ 6 = 1
The value of a = 1 and b = 1

Question 31.
Priya earned ₹15,000 in the first month. Thereafter her salary increases by ₹1500 per year. Her expenses are ₹13,000 during the first year and the expenses increases by ₹900 per year. How long will it take her to save ₹20,000 per month.
Answer:

Monthly savings form an A.P.
2000, 2600, 3200 ….
a = 2000 ; d = 2600 – 2000 = 600
Given t_n = 20,000
t_n = a + (n – 1) d
20000 = 2000 + (n – 1) 600
20000 = 2000 + 600n – 600
= 1400 + 600n
20000 – 1400 = 600n
1860o = 600n
n = \(\frac{18600}{600}\) = 31
He will take 31 years to save ₹20,000 per month

Question 32.
Find the sum to n terms of the series 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + ……… to n terms
Answer:

Question 33.
Find the GCD of 6x³ – 30x² + 60x – 48 and 3x³ – 12x² + 21x – 18.
Answer:
Let, f(x) = 6x³ – 30x² + 60x – 48 = 6(x³ – 5x² + 10x – 8) and
g(x) = 3x³ – 12x² + 21x – 18 = 3(x³ – 4x² + 7x – 6)
Now, we shall find the GCD of x³ – 5x² + 10x – 8 and x³ – 4x² + 7x – 6

Here, we get zero as remainder.
GCD of leading coeffients 3 and 6 is 3
Thus GCD
[(6x³ – 30x² + 60x – 48, 3x³ – 12x² + 21x – 18)] = 3(x – 2)

Question 34.
If the roots of the equation (c² – ab)x² – 2(a² – bc)x + b² – ac = 0 are real and equal prove that either a = 0 (or) a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc
Answer:
(c² – ab)x² – 2(a² – bc)x + b² – ac = 0
Here a = c² – ab ; b = -2 (a² – bc) ; c = b² – ac
Since the roots are real and equal
Δ = b² – 4ac
[-2 (a² – bc)]² – 4(c² – ab) (b² – ac) = 0
4(a² – bc)² – 4[c ²b² – ac³ – ab³+ a²bc] = 0
Divided by 4 we get
(a² – bc)² [c²b² – ac³ – ab² + a²bc] = 0
a⁴ + b²c² – 2a²bc – c²b² + ac³ + ab³ – a²bc = 0
a⁴ + ab³ + ac³ – 3a²bc = 0
a(a³ +b³ + c³) = 3a²bc
a³ + b³ + c³ = \(\frac{3 a^{2} b c}{a}\)
a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc
Hence it is proved

Question 35.
ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AB = AD, the bisector of ∠BAC and ∠CAD intersect the sides BC and CD at the points E and F respectively. Prove that EF || BD.
Answer:

ABCD is a quadrilateral. AB = AD.
AE and AF are the internal bisector of ∠BAC and ∠DAC.
To prove: EF || BD.
Construction: Join EF and BD
Proof: In ∆ ABC, AE is the internal bisector of ∠BAC.
By Angle bisector theorem, we have,
∴ \(\frac{A B}{A C}=\frac{B E}{E C}\) …….. (1)
In ∆ ADC, AF is the internal bisector of ∠DAC
By Angle bisector theorem, we have,
\(\frac{A D}{A C}=\frac{D F}{F C}\)
∴ \(\frac{A B}{A C}=\frac{D F}{F C}\) (AB = AD given) …….. (2)
From (1) and (2), we get
\(\frac{B E}{E C}=\frac{D F}{F C}\)
Hence In ∆ BCD,
BD || EF (By converse of BPT)

Question 36.
Find the equation of a straight line passing through (1,-4) and has intercepts which are in the ratio 2:5
Answer:
Let the x-intercept be 2a and the y intercept 5a .
The equation of a line is \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{a}=1 \Rightarrow \frac{x}{2 a}+\frac{y}{5 a}=1\)
The line passes through the point (1, -A)
\(\frac{1}{2 a}+\frac{(-4)}{5 a}=1 \Rightarrow \frac{1}{2 a}-\frac{4}{5 a}=1\)
Multiply by 10a
(L.C.M of 2a and 5a is 10a)
5 – 8 = 10a ⇒ -3 = 10a .
a = \(\frac{-3}{10}\)
The equation of the line is \(\frac{x}{2(-3 / 10)}+\frac{y}{5(-3 / 10)}=1\)
\(\frac{x}{-3 / 5}+\frac{y}{-3 / 2}=1 \Rightarrow \frac{5 x}{-3}+\frac{2 y}{-3}=1\)
\(\frac{-5 x}{3}-\frac{2 y}{3}=1\)
Multiply by 3
-5x – 2y = 3 ⇒ -5x – 2y – 3 = 0
5x + 2y + 3 = 0
The equation of a line is 5x + 2y + 3 = 0

Question 37.
If \(\frac{\cos \theta}{1+\sin \theta}=\frac{1}{a}\), then prove that \(\frac{a^{2}-1}{a^{2}+1}\) = sin θ
Answer:

Question 38.
A toy is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a hemisphere. The height of the toy is 25 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy if its common diameter is 12 cm.
Answer:

Let r and h be the radius and height of the cylinder respectively.
Given that, diameter d = 12 cm, radius r = 6 cm
Total height of the toy is 25 cm
Therefore, height of the cylindrical portion = 25 – 6 = 19 cm
T.S.A. of the toy = C.S.A. of the cylinder + C.S.A. of the hemisphere + Base Area of the cylinder
= 2πrh + 2πr² + πr²
= πr(2h + 3r) sq.unis
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 6(38 + 18)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 6 × 56 = 1056
Therefore, T.S.A. of the toy is 1056 cm²

Question 39.
A coin is tossed thrice. Find the probability of getting exactly two heads or atleast one tail or two consecutive heads.
Answer:
Sample space = {HHH, HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT}
n (S) = 8
Let A be the event of getting exactly two heads.
A = {HHT, HTH, THH}
n(A) = 3
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{8}\)
Let B be the event of getting atleast one tail
B = {HHT, HTH, HTT, THH, THT, TTH, TTT}
n(B) = 7
P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{7}{8}\)
Let C be the event of getting consecutively
C = {HHH, HHT, THH}
n(C) = 3
P(C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{8}\)
A ∩ B = { HHT, HTH, THH}
n(A ∩ B) = 3
p(A ∩ B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{3}{8}\)
B ∩ C = {HHT, THH}
n(B ∩ C) = 2
p(B ∩ C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B} \cap \mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{2}{8}\)
A ∩ C = {HHT, THH}
n(A ∩ C) = 2
P(A ∩ C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{2}{8}\)
(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 2
P(A ∩ B ∩ C) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A} \cap \mathrm{B} \cap \mathrm{C})}{n(\mathrm{S})}=\frac{2}{8}\)
P(A∪B∪C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) -P(A ∩ B) – p(B ∩ C) – P(A ∩ C) + P(A∩B∩C)
\(=\frac{3}{8}+\frac{7}{8}+\frac{3}{8}-\frac{3}{8}-\frac{2}{8}-\frac{2}{8}+\frac{2}{8}\)
\(=\frac{3}{8}+\frac{7}{8}-\frac{2}{8}\)
\(=\frac{10-2}{8}=\frac{8}{8}\) = 1
The probability is 1

Question 40.
The following table show the marks obtained by 48 students in a quiz competition in mathematics calculate the standard deviation.
Answer:

Ans.
Let us form the following table using given data

Question 41.
A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4m, and slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area of the canvas used for making the tent. Also find the cost of canvas of the tent at the rate of ₹500 per m².
Answer:

For conical portion
Radius (r) = 2m
Slant height (l) = 2.8 m
For cylindrical portion
Radius (R) = 2m
Height (H) = 2.1 m
Area of canvas used for the tent = Curved surface area of a cone + curved area of the cylinder
= πrl + 2πRH
= π(2 × 2.8 + 2 × 2 × 2.1)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) (5.6+ 8.4)
= \(\frac { 22 }{ 7 }\) × 14 sq.m
= 44 sq. m
Cost of the canvas at the rate of ₹500 per m² = ₹ 500 × 44
= ₹ 22000

Question 42.
Seven years ago Ramkumar’s age was five time the square of Daniel’s age. Three years hence Daniel age will be two fifth of Ramkumar’s age. Find their present ages.
Answer:
Seven years ago, let Daniel’s age be x years
Seven years ago, Ramkumar age was 5x² years
Daniel’s present age = (x + 7) year
Ramkumar’s present age = 5x² + 7 years
Three years hence
Daniel’s age = (x + 7 + 3) year = (x + 10) years
Ramkumar’s age = (5x² + 7 + 3) year = (5x² + 10) years
By the given condition
x + 10 = \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 }\) (5x² +10)
5x + 50 = 10x² + 20
10x² – 5x – 30 = 0
2x² – x – 6 = 0
2x² – 4x + 3x – 6 = 0
2x (x – 2) + 3(x – 2) = 0
(x – 2) (2x + 3) = 0
x – 2 = 0 or 2x + 3 = 0
x = 2 or x = \(\frac { -3 }{ 2 }\)
∴ x = 2 (age will not be negative)
Hence Daniel age = 9 years (2 + 7)
Ramkumar’s age = 27 years [5(2)² + 7]

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a ∆PQR in which PQ = 8 cm, ∠R = 60° and the median RG from R to PQ is 5.8 cm. Find the length of the altitude from R to PQ.
Answer:


Step 1 : Draw a line segment PQ = 8 cm.
Step 2 : At P, draw PE such that ∠QPE = 60°.
Step 3 : At P, draw PF such that ∠EPF = 90°.
Step 4 : Draw the perpendicular bisector to PQ, which intersects PF at O and PQ at G.
Step 5 : With O as centre and OP as radius draw a circle.
Step 6 : From G mark arcs of radius 5.8 cm on the circle. Mark them as R and S.
Step 7 : Join PR and RQ. Then ∆PQR is the required triangle.
Step 8 : From R draw a line RN perpendicular to LQ.
LQ meets RN at M
Step 9: The length of the altitude is RM = 3.5 cm.

[OR]

(b) Draw the two tangents from a point which is 5 cm away from the centre of a circle of diameter 6 cm. Also, measure the lengths of the tangents.
Answer:
Radius = 3cm, Distance = 5 cm.


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 3 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 5 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius draw a circle which cuts previous circles at A and B.
5. Join AP and BP, AP and BP are the required tangents.
   The length of the tangent PA = PB = 4 cm

Verification: In the right angle triangle OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 5² – 3² .
= 25 – 9 = 16
PA = √l6 = 4 cm
Length of the tangent = 4 cm

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = (x – 1) (x + 3) and hence solve x² – x – 6 = 0
Answer:
y = (x – 1) (x + 3)
y = x² + 2x – 3
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 2x – 3 by preparing the table of values given below.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 5), (-3, 0), (-2, -3), (-1, -4), (0, -3), (1, 0), (2, 5), (3, 12) and (4, 21) on the graph sheet using suitable scale.
(iii) To solve x² – x – 6 = 0 subtract x² – x – 6 = 0 from y = x² + 2x – 3

(iv) Draw the graph of y = 3x + 3 by preparing the table.

(v) The straight line cuts the curve at (-2, -3) and (3, 12). Draw perpendicular lines from the point to X – axis.
The line cut the X – axis at -2 and 3.
The solution set is (-2, 3)

[OR]

(b) Draw the graph of y = x² +x and hence solve x² + 1=0
Answer:
Let y = x² + x
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + x by preparing the table.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 12), (-3, 6), (-2, 2), (-1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 2), (2, 6), (3, 12) and (4, 20).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand to get smooth curve.
(iv) To solve x² + 1 = 0, subtract x² + 1 = 0 from x² + x we get.

The equation represent a straight line. Draw a line y = x – 1

Observe the graph of y = x² + 1 does not interset the parabola y = x² + x This x² + 1 has no real roots.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 4

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The young seagull was alone on his ledge.
(a) sill
(b) window
(c) nest
(d) lift
Answer:
(a) sill

Question 2.
‘Burglars!’ she shouted, intuitively.
(a) intentionally
(b) thoughtfully
(c) knowingly
(d) instinctively
Answer:
(d) instinctively

Question 3.
When we realise our mistakes, we should try to rectify them.
(a) read
(b) recover
(c) recognize
(d) electrically
Answer:
(d) electrically

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
The real power of women though realised earlier, is currently being projected to the world.
(a) presently
(b) formerly
(c) carefully
(d) electrically
Answer:
(b) formerly

Question 5.
Technology helps one to live in comfort.
(a) comfy
(b) discomfort
(c) misuse
(d) easiness
Answer:
(b) discomfort

Question 6.
This lesson is set in the days of France-Prussian war.
(a) avarice
(b) battle
(c) combat
(d) peace
Answer:
(d) peace

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of “moose“.
(a) mooses
(b) moose
(c) mooses’s
(d) moosies
Answer:
(b) moose

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – sad.
(a) ly
(b) ness
(c) fill
(d) ment
Answer:
(a) ly

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation IREP is ……………
(a) The Integrated Rural Energy Programmer
(b) The Integral Railway Energy Programme
(c) The Integrated Rural Energy Programme
(d) The Integral Rural Exercise President
Answer:
(c) The Integrated Rural Energy Programme

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
Do not ……….. to temptation.
(a) give in
(b) give out
(c) give up
(d) give into
Answer:
(a) give in

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word “mouth” to form a compound word.
(a) dry
(b) wash
(c) clean
(d) brush
Answer:
(b) wash

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
The people stood ……………… the road to watch the procession go by.
(a) across
(b) along
(c) on
(d) into
Answer:
(b) along

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Her teacher ………….. her the reason for her restlessness.
(a) asked
(b) will ask
(c) asking
(d) had asked
Answer:
(a) asked

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He completely forgot …………. he had not always been a sprightly child.
(a) that
(b) when
(c) though
(d) and
Answer:
(a) that

PART – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -I

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
Why did the seagull fail to fly?
Answer:
The young seagull hesitated and feared to fly. He thought that his wings would not support him. Hence the sea gull failed to fly.

Question 16.
Who was Mrs. Hudson? Why was she worried?
Answer:
Mrs. Hudson was the landlady of Mr. Holmes. She was worried because Holmes was ill and had not taken food or drink for three days continuously.

Question 17.
Who is Tara-Tarini? After whom was the sailboat named?
Answer:
Tara-Tarini is the patron deity for sailors. The sailboat was named after the famous ‘Tara- Tarini’ temple in Ganjam district of Odisha.

Question 18.
Write a few lines about the owner of the shop.
Answer:
The owner of the tea shop was over sixty, a little rustic in appearance, with his white neatly- combed hair. He looked clean. He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from under a green shawl.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Let me but live my life from year to year,
With forward face and unreluctant soul’”
(a) Whom does the word ‘me’ refer to?
(b) What kind of life does the poet want to lead?
Answer:
(a) ‘me’ refers to the poet, Hemy Van Dyke.
(b) The poet wants to lead a life facing every year with courage and willingness to do anything.

Question 20.
“There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street”
(a) Where does the family live?
(b) Why do you think the street is named as ‘Complaining Street’?
Answer:
(a) The family lives on Complaining street.
(b) I think the street is named as ‘Complaining Street’ because a family there is always complaining and no one likes to meet them.

Question 21.
“The summer of life she’s ready to see in spring.
She says, “Spring will come again, my dear
Let me care for the ones who ’re near. ”
(а) What does the word summer mean here?
(b) How does she take life?
Answer:
(a) Summer here means development.
(b) She takes life optimistically.

Question 22.
“A silly young cricket accustomed to sing .
Through the warm, sunny months of gay summer and spring.”
(а) What was the routine of the cricket?
(b) Name the seasons mentioned here.
Answer:
(a) The routine of the cricket was to sing and while away the time enjoying the spring.
(b) The seasons mentioned are summer and spring.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following.

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
When we first met, they had already offered her a job at the bank.
She had already been offered a job by them at the bank, when we first met.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:
“Miranda,” said Prospero, “tell me what you are looking at yonder.”
Prospero asked Miranda what she was looking at yonder.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
the great expanse of sea stretched down beneath and it was such a long way down miles down
Answer:
The great expanse of sea stretched down beneath, and it was such a long way down – miles down.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
The old man is very rich but he is a miser.
Answer:
In spite of the old man being rich, he is a miser.
[OR]
Despite being rich, the old man is a miser.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences:
(a) love / of others / good etiquette / and / wins the / respect
(b) when / best / they can / one is / be learnt / young
Answer:
(a) Good etiquette wins the love and respect of others.
(b) They can be learnt best when one is young.

Section – IV

Answer the following question.

Question 28.
Guide Shankar from the Railway Station to the Head Post Office. Write three instructions by way of helping him.

Answer:

• Go straight from the Railway Station on the main road.
• Take right from the Pandian Sweets.
• The Head Post Office will be on your left on the same road.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section-I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Describe the funny incident that caused the confusion in the house.
Answer:
“The Night the Ghost Got In” is a major example of the storytelling technique of James Thurber, who is far and wide considered one of the greatest comical writers that America ever produced. The story combines events that are likely to be a comic hyperbole.

The characters’ bizarre understanding of their world serves the dual purposes of entertaining readers. The story centres on a common situation where James Thurber hears a strange sound downstairs in the middle of the night when he comes out of the bath tub at 1 a.m. with a towel wrapped around him.

He assumes that it is a ghost and his mother assuming the footsteps to be of burglars, goes to the extent of throwing a shoe through a window to alert the neighbours about the burglars. The mother thinking it fancy to throw the second shoe through the neighbour’s window causes more fun and frolic. The Bodwell’s inform the police who in turn are thoroughly confused by the odd characters of the Thurber household and their way of life when they reach the suspected house.

The grandfather who is awakened by the chaos, deliberately mistakes the policemen for Meade’s men, who are deserters, illustrates the unusual characteristics of the Thurbers. By the time, it is over, one of the policemen is shot in the shoulder by the household’s disorientated grandfather, and a local news reporter is left speechless when he is told that a ghost is the cause of all the disorder, by the narrator.
“You can’t follow your heart when it is more confused than your head.”

Question 30.
Give a character sketch of M. Hamel.
Answer:
M. Hamel is a strict disciplinarian at a school in a village in the French districts of Alsace and Lorraine. M. Hamel is an experienced teacher who has been teaching in that village school for forty years. He imparts primary education in all subjects. He is a hard task master and students like Franz, who are not good learners, are in great dread of being scolded by him. He loves his profession from the bottom of his heart and holds a deep sense of respect for the mother tongue. The latest order of the Prussian conquerors upset him. He has to leave the place for ever and feels heart broken. He feels sad but exercises self-control. He has the courage to hear every lesson to the last.

This thought completely shatters a calm and composed man like M. Hamel. He tries his level best to remain calm and unruffled but breaks down at the end. His performance during the last lesson is exemplary. He is kind even to a late comer like Franz. He uses a solemn and gentle tone while addressing the students. He has a logical mind and can analyse problems and deduce the reasons responsible for it. He feels grief-stricken at the fact that people became indifferent to learning French.

He charms them to keep their language alive. Hamel is a patriot in the real sense. He regards the mother tongue to be a means of holding one’s identity and self-respect. He knows the emotional hold of a language over its users. He is a good communicator and explains everything patiently. Partings are painful and being human, M. Hamel too is no exception. He fails to say goodbye as his throat is choked.

“Good teachers are rarity. M. Hamel is an exception to rarity!”

Question 31.
What are the various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life?
Answer:
There are various innovations made in India to help the differently abled lead a normal life.Lechal Shoes by Krispian Lawrence is an innovation for the disabled to use GPS & Blutooth. This enabled shoes to help the disabled navigate streets, based on instructions from map software on a smartphone. The App also records the route and also counts steps.

Blee Watch by industrial designers Nupura Kirloskar and Janhavi Joshi of Mumbai invented the Smart watch for the hearing impaired. It converts sound waves into vibrations and colour codes to alert users to emergency sounds and ringing doorbells. It even helps them feel the rhythm of music.

iGEST by Anil Prabhakar, IIT-M professor and cofounder of enability technologies innovated a wearable device which tracks gestures of speech-impaired people and speaks for them. I guess technology makes a differently abled person’s life easier.
“Exploration is the engine that drives Innovation.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Than the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques. Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together.

Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over all the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“It’s about women helping women and women doing things
together and supporting each other ”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Describe the journey of life as depicted in the poem by Henry Van Dyke.
Answer:
Henry Van Dyke, one of the greatest American short story writers and poets, has surpassed the act of writing skillfully. ‘Life’ is no doubt one of his priced literary pieces. This poem is a pinnacle of expressive embarkment on the quest of self-revival from the glum beats of monotony. It has a very deep and farsighted meaning held within it and this is evident from the very beginning of the poem. The poem is the poet’s own reflection on his life and tells his point of view on the more important things in life. The poet advises the readers from his life experiences.

We feel that he is now an older man reflecting on his younger days. Through his words he is explaining to us what he is taking away as most important to live is the best life possible. Life is too short to get caught up in the moment or worry about the past. On the other hand, it suggests that we look forward to what the future holds. We sometimes find ourselves brooding on the bad times and we forget about how much good there is in the future. The poet is making us understand this concept and be more aware of reality.
“Life is short and if we enjoy every moment of everyday
We will be happy no matter what happens or changes our way]”

Question 34.
Elucidate – We are nothing more than children of your brain.
Answer:
“The Secret of the Machines” looks back to the poems rejoicing modem technology which had pre-occupied Kipling during the mid-1990s. This poem by Rudyard Kipling, a famous British poet, is about the great status of machines in the age of the industrial progress. The poet qualifies machines to define the situation from their point of view! In many of those poems it is the machines themselves who speak, taking on human characteristics and feelings.

In “The Secret of the Machines” the anthropomorphism is choral, with the machines conveying their message in a collective chant, informing the reader, posing rhetorical questions, offering a stem warning about their potential strength and finally submitting to their masters – the human brain. This is yet another example of Kipling’s constant, though often tilted is the denial of religion. The machines have the ability to change the environment of all created things except

The Gods, the creator of human-beings. The machines assert that they have produced a kind of smoke-screen which is momentarily covering the fact that it is you, the human beings, who are the true gods, with the machines nothing more than children of your brain! If the machines are to function to their full capacity they must be dutifully controlled by the Gods who have created them. That is why it is so important for man to understand the Law that machines ‘are not built to comprehend a lie.’
“ Your beliefs become your thoughts,
Your thoughts-your words

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(i) Which adjective is used to describe the house?
(ii) Give the rhyming word for place and bone.
(iii) Write the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iv) Identify the figure of speech employed in the fifth line of the given stanza.
Answer:
(i) The adjective ‘mysterious’ is used to describe the house.
(ii) The rhyming word for place is space and for bone, it is unknown and alone.
(iii) The rhyme scheme is aabba.
(iv) The figure of speech is alliteration in the last line.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Answer:
Remember, no men are strange, no countries foreign Beneath all uniforms, a single body breathes Like ours: the land our brothers walk upon Is earth like this, in which we all shall lie.Emphasising the value of universal brotherhood, the poet draws our attention to the absence of any differences amongst the people of different countries.

He asks us never to forget that people living in other countries are not strange or unfamiliar. The uniforms worn by people in different parts of the world may be different, but the bodies beneath them are the same. All human bodies live and breathe in a similar fashion. We are all brothers because we walk upon the same earth that we have divided into countries. Also, we shall all meet this same earth when we die and be buried in it.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) In the army, Mulan proved to be a brave soldier.
(ii) With Mulan, they won every battle and so some soldiers accepted her as the General.
(iii) She went to her father and said that she would go in his place.
(iv) Mulan, a teenage girl of China, heard the news when she was washing clothes.
(v) After a few years Mulan was given the top job – General of the entire army.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence :(iv), (iii), (i) ,(v),(ii)
(iv) Mulan, a teenage girl of China, heard the news when she was washing clothes.
(iii) She went to her father and said that she would go in his place.
(iv) In the army, Mulan proved to be a brave soldier.
(v) After a few years Mulan was given the top job – General of the entire army.
(ii) With Mulan, they won every battle and so some soldiers accepted her as the General.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
Francis Bennett went on into the reporters’ room. His fifteen hundred reporters, placed before an equal number of telephones, were passing on to subscribers the news which had come in during the night from the four quarters of the earth. In addition to his telephone, each reporter has in front of him a series of commutators, which allow him to get into communication with this or that telephotic line.

Thus the subscribers have not only the story but the sight of these events. Francis Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters – a service which was growing because of the recent discoveries in the stellar world. ‘Well, Cash, what have you got?’ ‘Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, Sir.’ ‘Interesting! And Jupiter?’ ‘Nothing so far! We haven’t been able to understand the signals the Jovians make. Perhaps ours haven’t reached them? ….’ ‘Aren’t you getting some result from the moon, at any rate?’ ‘Not yet, Mr Bennett.’

‘Well, this time, you can’t blame optical science! The moon is six hundred times nearer than Mars, and yet our correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars. It can’t be telescopes we need…’ ‘No, it’s the inhabitants,’ Corley replied. ‘You dare tell me that the moon is uninhabited?’ ‘On the face it turns towards us, at any rate, Mr Bennett. Who knows whether on the other side…’ ‘Well, there’s a very simple method of finding out.’

(i) Who is Cash?
(ii) What were the fifteen hundred reporters doing in the room?
(iii) Why can’t we blame optical science to get some result from the moon?
(iv) How do the spectators enjoy the visual effect of the story told by the reporters?
(v) From where did Cash get Phototelegrams?
Answer:
(i) Cash is one of the ten astronomical reporters who was questioned by Francis Bennett.
(ii) The fifteen hundred reporters were passing on to subscribers the news which had come in during the night from the four quarters of the earth from the reporters room.
(iii) We can’t blame optical science because the moon is six hundred times nearer than mars and their correspondence service is in regular operation with Mars.
(iv) When Francis Bennett’s fifteen hundred reporters, placed before an equal number of telephones, were passing on to subscribers the news, each reporter has in front of him a series of commutators, which help the spectators to enjoy the visual effect of the story told by the reporters.
(v) Cash got Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Crispy and Tasty – to tingle the taste buds – Good variety of non-vegetarian food items.

Question 40.
Write a letter to the Collector of your District expressing your desire to contribute to the welfare of the flood affected victims in your area.
Answer:
16th December, 2020
From
XXX
YYY
To
The District Collector YYY
Respected Sir,
Sub : Contribution for Flood Affected Victims I am extremely devastated to see Thiruvannamalai district submerged in water. The plight of the flood victims pains my heart. I remember the days I did my schooling at St. Paul’s Matriculation Higher Secondary School. The Principal and teachers imbibed the true service to mankind among us during the Community Development Period that we had once a week.

The seeds sown by my mentors now urges me to contribute towards the welfare of the flood victims affected in our area. Now that I am placed well in my career as a the CEO of a private company, I wish to contribute a meagre sum of one lakh towards the same. I believe it will reach the flood victims at the earliest and help them in a small way to brave the storms and overcome the situation.
Thank you,
Yours sincerely,
XXX
Address on the envelope
The District Collector,
YYY

Question 41.
You are Priyaraj/Priya, the cultural secretary of St. Joseph’s Matriculation Higher Secondary School Coonoor. You have been asked to inform students of class IX and XI about the auditions for an inter-school Dramatics Competition. Draft a notice in not more than 50 words for the students’ Notice board. Invent all the necessary details.
Answer:

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences

A Happy Family

This picture denotes a real life situation on a weekend. This picture could depict a joint family too as we see five children in the hall. The father is seen reading the newspaper while the mother brings him a cup of coffee. The children are reading books. One boy is trying to fix a picture on the wall. A baby is sleeping in the cradle and near it we can see a woman folding clothes.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
We all know what we mean by a “good” man. The ideal good man does not drink or smoke, avoids bad language, converses in the presence of men exactly as he would if there were ladies present, attends church services regularly and holds the correct opinion on all subjects.

He has a wholesome horror of wrong-doing and realizes that it is our painful duty to reprimand sin. He has a still greater horror of wrong thinking, and considers it the business of the authorities to safeguard the young against those who question the wisdom of the views generally accepted by middle-aged successful citizens.

Apart from his professional duties, at which he is diligent, he spends much time in good works: he may encourage patriotism and military training; he may promote industry, seriousness and virtue among wage earners and their children by seeing to it that failures in these respects receive due punishment; he may be a trustee of a university and prevent an ill-judged respect for learning from allowing the employment of professors with rebellious ideas. Above all, of course, his “morals” in the narrow sense must be blameless.
Notes
Title: Characteristics of a Good Person
Good man – intensely religious, avoid bad habits.
Decent language, correct opinion on all subjects Diligent in professional duties Encourages patriotism and military training
Promotes industry, seriousness and virtue among wage earners and their children Prevents the employment of professors with rebellious ideas Morals – blameless
Title: Characteristics of a Good Person

Rough Draft
The author opines that an ideally good man is intensely religious and avoids unacceptable behavioural habit? such as moking and drinking. He does not use obscene or indecent language and has a fear to do wrongThings and think negatively. He is professionally dutiful and takes active interest in promoting virtues such as patriotism, industry and seriousness amidst workers and their children. Whenever possible he even prevehts the-ertigloyment of professors with rebellious ideas.

Fair draft
Title: Characteristics Of A Good Person
The author opines a good man to be intensely religious avoiding bad habits viz. smoking and drinking. He does not use obscene or indecent language and has a fear of wrong doing and wrong thinking. He is professionally dutiful and takes active interest in promoting virtues such as patriotism, industry and seriousness among workers and their children. Whenever possible he prevents the employment of professors with rebellious ideas. No. of words written in the summary: 68

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Divide these mangoes among Reema and Seema.
(b) I do not know who of the new trainees should be confirmed.
(c) She has not completed her course, isn’t it?
(d) The manager visits the office regularly, isn’t it?
(e) David and me are like brothers but from different mothers.
Answer:
(a) Divide these mangoes between Reema and Seema.
(b) I do not know which of the new trainees should be confirmed.
(c) She has not completed her course, hasn’t she?
(d) The manager visits the office regularly, doesn’t he?
(e) David and I are like brothers but from different mothers.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 45.
The summer of life ………….. faith and beliefs.
Answer:
The summer of life she s ready to see in spring.
She says, “Spring will come again, my dear.
Let me care for the ones who ’re near. ”
She’s The Woman – she has no fear!
Strong is she in her faith and beliefs.

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(a) Foot of the mountain – poor farmer – Shining – aged mother – tyrannical leader – rare announcement – farmer filled with remorse – unwhitened rice – gourd filled – mother on his back – summit of Obatsayuma – helpless mother noticed perilous path – unconditional love – face the verdict together.
Answer:
“The Story of the Aged Mother” by Matsuo Basho is a story in which a son and his mother’s pain in their battle against the decree of putting aged people to death is portrayed. The story happened at the foot of the mountain where a poor farmer lived in a country called Shining with his aged mother whom he loved. Their place was governed by a tyrannical leader who sent the announcement of killing all aged people which was not common then.

When the poor farmer heard the decree he felt sorrow in his heart for his aged mother. Just as his labour ended, he prepared food from a portion of unwhitened rice, covered it in a square cloth and knotted it in his neck along with a gourd filled with cool, sweet water. He then carried his mother on his back and started walking towards the summit of Obatsayuma, the mountain of the“abandoning of aged”.

On their way to the top, the helpless mother noticed the perilous path and thought that her son didn’t know the paths and might pass through danger. So she reached for twigs, snapped them to pieces and quietly dropped them until they reached the summit.

The poor farmer freed his mother and made a comfortable cushion with pine needles and bid farewell. Before he left her, she told him about the trail she made with the piles of twigs. His mother’s words clearly portrayed the unconditional love that the mother had for her son, an unselfish love that thumped the heart of the poor child and made him cry. Now, the farmer realized that they need to face the verdict together. So, he again carried his mother on his back and started to walk back to their humble hut in the valley.

[OR]

(b) Uncle Philip – leaves a letter – the message – precious stones – have expectations – remember uncle – charity – interesting mechanism – explosion – never doubt me – blown to atoms – believe never fulfilled.
Answer:
A Dilemma by Silas Weir Mitchell is indeed a story with a twist. The letter was addressed to Tom. It said that the box contained a large number of very fine pigeon-blood rubies and a fair lot of diamonds. One was blue and a beauty indeed. There were hundreds of pearls—one the famous green pearl and a necklace of blue pearls, for which any woman would sell her soul— or her affections.

He wanted his nephew to continue to have expectations and continuously remember his dear uncle. He had stated that he would have left those stones to some charity, but he hated the poor. It stated that the box contained an interesting mechanism, which would act with certainty as he unlocked it, and explode ten ounces of an improved, supersensitive dynamite. He then made it clear that to be accurate, there were only nine and a half ounces.

He said that if he doubted his uncle, on opening it, he would be blown to atoms. On the contrary if he believed him, he would continue to nourish expectations which would never be fulfilled. He also added at the end that since he was a considerate man, he counselled extreme care in handling the box and never forget his affectionate uncle.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
The little boy of twelve will remember this day forever. It is not every day you get to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency on November 19,2013. The visit of the Children was the result of an initiative by the organizers of the tournament and the School education Department to get school children be a part of the world championship.

Many children from schools gathered to witness the ongoing world Championship and there was an overwhelming response. The entry being free, children found it a rare and unforgettable opportunity’. Student visitors were given a chance to spend an hour in the chess puzzles contest. No wonder the visitors would be hailed heroes in their schools after their visit to the spot.

Children enthusiastically tried to move the big chess pieces at the hotel lobby, thereby founding that the city of Chennai would produce many masters of chess dazzling with intelligence and talent.

Questions:
(a) What made the day memorable for children?
(b) Mention the purpose for which the visit of the children had been organized.
(c) Which places were the student visitors permitted into?
(d) Who were responsible for such an exciting initiative?
Answer:
(a) The day was made memorable for the children because they got to see a world championship at Hyatt Regency.
(b) The purpose for which the visit of the Children had been organised was to get school children be a part of the world championship thereby making way for many masters of chess to be produced in the future.
(c) The student visitors were permitted into the Hotel’s lobby.
(d) The Organisers of the tournament and the school education department were responsible for such an exciting initiative.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
The Leader
Patient and steady with all he must bear,
Ready to meet every challenge with care,
Easy in manner, yet solid as steel,
Strong in his faith, refreshingly real,
Isn’t afraid to propose what is bold,
Doesn’t conform to the usual mould,
Eyes that have foresight, for hindsight won’t do,
Never backs down when he sees what is true,
Tells it all straight, and means it all too.
Going forward and knowing he’s right,
Even when doubted for why he would fight,
Again and again, he makes the case far clear
Wants to reach those who don’t hear
Growing in strength, he won’t be unnerved,
Ever assuring he’ll stand by his word.
Wanting the world to join his firm stand,
Bracing for war, but praying for peace,
Using his power so evil will cease:
A trustworthy person is a leader so far,
He is a person who knows what he must act upon.

Questions:
(a) What is the poem about?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Doesn’t conform to the usual mould’.
(c) Mention any two qualities of a true leader portrayed in this poem.
(d) What does a real leader stand for according to the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poem is about a leader and the leadership qualities one needs to possess.
(b) ‘Doesn’t conform to the usual mould’, suggests that the leader who is described has qualities that are totally different.
(c) Intelligence, courageous, strong in faith, Patience, steadfast (any two)
(d) According to the poem, a real leader stands for truth.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
With whom of the following was Lateran Treaty signed by Italy?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Pope
(d) Spain
Answer:
(c) Pope

Question 2.
Where was the third session of the Indian National Congress held?
(a) Marina
(b) Mylapore
(c) Fort St.Gerorge
(d) Thousand Lights
Answer:
(d) Thousand Lights

Question 3.
Who was the first Indian Judge of the Madras High Court?
(a) T. Muthuswamy
(b) P.S. Sivasamy
(c) V.S. Srinivasa Sastri
(d) G.A. Natesan
Answer:
(a) T. Muthuswamy

Question 4.
India’s first organised trade union, the Madras Labour Union was formed in
(a) 1918
(b) 1917
(c) 1916
(d) 1914
Answer:
(a) 1918

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 6.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) Khadar
(b) Bhangar
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Black soil
Answer:
(d) Black soil

Question 7.
A line joining the places of equal rainfall is
(a) Isohyet
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitude
Answer:
(a) Isohyet

Question 8.
The first paper industry was started in
(a) Raniganj
(b) Durgapur
(c) Hoogly
(d) Baliganj
Answer:
(d) Baliganj

Question 9.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Question 10.
The latitudinal extent of Tamil Nadu is
(a) 8°5’N to 13°35’N
(b) 8°5’S to 13°35’S
(c) 8°0’N to 13°5’N
(d) 8°0’S to 13°05’S
Answer:
(a) 8°5’N to 13°35’N

Question 11.
Arrange the following in the correct chronological order and choose the correct answer from the code given below
(i) Panchsheel
(ii) Nuclear test at Pokhran
(iii) Twenty-year Treaty
(iv) First Nuclear test
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
(d) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
Answer:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 12.
The Chief Justice of Supreme Court can hold the office up to the age of (in year).
(a) 58
(b) 60
(c) 62
(d) 65
Answer:
(d) 65

Question 13.
Choose the incorrect statement(s):
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major source of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iv)

Question 14.
Basic Component(s) of food and nutrition security is / are
(a) availability
(b) access
(c) absorption
(d) all
Answer:
(d) all

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Explain the Monroe Doctrine.
Answer:

• The famous Monroe doctrine was brought by Monroe, the president Of the USA.
• This doctrine declared that if Europeans interfered anywhere in America, north or south, it would amount to waging a war against the United States.
• This threat frightened the European powers and kept them away from South America.

Question 16.
What was Marshall plan?
Answer:

• The Marshall plan was an American initiative passed in 1948 to Western Europe, in which the United States gave over $ 12 Billion in economic assistance to help rebuild Western European economics after the end of World War II.
• It operated for four years beginning in April, 1948.
• The goal of the United States were to rebuild war tom regions, modernise industry and improve European prosperity.

Question 17.
Write the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:

• To attain self-government within British Empire by using constitutional means.
• To obtain the status of dominion, a political position accorded later to Australia, Canada, South Africa and New Zealand.
• To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve their goals.

Question 18.
Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
Answer:
Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu

Question 19.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:

• India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
• China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
• Bangladesh to the east Our
• Myanmar to the far east
• Sri Lanka (from south-east) and Maldives (from south-west) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian Ocean.

Question 20.
State the types of agriculture practices in India.
Answer:

• Subsistence fanning
• Shifting Agriculture
• Intensive farming
• Dry farming
• Mixed farming agriculture
• Terrace cultivation

Question 21.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
When trade takes place between two countries it is known as International trade.

Question 22.
Write a short note on Mangrove forest in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• The mangrove tidal forests are found in the areas of coasts influenced by tides. Hence,
  mangroves are the common varieties with root of the plants submerged under water.
• The delta of Cauvery are covered by such vegetation. Pichavaram is the important notable example of mangrove forests.

Question 23.
What is Money Bill?
Answer:
Money Bill refers to a bill (draft law) introduced in the Lok Sabha which generally covers the issue of receipt and spreading of money such as taxes, laws, prevention of black money etc.

Question 24.
Mention the names of the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:
Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question 25.
What is Per Capita Income?
Answer:
Per’ Capita Income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country. It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 26.
Define: Food Security according to FAO.
Answer:
According to FAO (2009), “food security exists when all people, at all times, have physical, social and economic access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food which meets their dietary needs and food preference for an active and healthy life”.

Question 27.
Define: Tax.
Answer:
Tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the government to defray the expenses incurred in the common interest of all without reference to special benefits conferred.

Question 28.
What do you know about Renewable resources?
Answer:

• It can be renewed in a short period of time.
• The time taken to renew the resources may be different from one resource to another.
  Example: Solar, wind, water, forest and wild life.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) ……………………… was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
(ii) ……………………… Soil is suitable for the cultivation of tea and coffee plants.
(iii) ……………………… is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
(iv) The term globalization invented by………………………
(v) ……………………… is the highest peak of South India.
Answers :
(i) Strasbourg
(ii) Laterite
(iii) M. Fathima Beevi
(iv) Prof. Theodore Levitt
(v) Anaimudi

Question 30.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between:
(i) Weather and Climate
(ii) Agro based industries and Mineral based industries
Answer:
(a) (i) Weather and Climate
Weather :

1. Weather is a day to day condition of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.
2. It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.

Climate :

1. Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
2. To get reliable average of climate a minimum of 35 year records of weather are necessary.

(ii) Agro based Industries and Mineral based Industries

Agro Rased Industries :

1. Agro based industries use agricultural products as their raw materials.
2. The major agro based industries of our country are cotton textile industry, jute industry, sugar industry etc.
3. These industries are located near the areas of cultivation.

Mineral Based Industries

1. Mineral based industries use both metallic and non metallic minerals as their raw materials.
2. The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
3. These industries are located either near the coal field or iron ore mines.

(b) Give Reason: Rain water harvesting is necessary.
Answer:

1. India experiences tropical monsoon type of climate. It gives a seasonal rainfall. .
2. Most of the time the rainfall is scanty hence it is necessary to save available rain water. We must allow the water to penetrate in the deep water table and tap this water when it is necessary.
3. In order to prevent surface run-off we must harvest the rain water for further domestic related and other activities.

Question 33.
Assess the structure and activities of the UN.
Answer:

• The United Nations came into existence in the year 1945 to achieve lasting peace among all nation which were inter dependent. It functions like any government, through its principal organs which are similar to the legislative, executive and judicial wings of a state.
• The General Assembly is the body in which each member state is represented. It meets once a year and issues of interest and points of conflict are discussed in the Assembly.
• The Security Council has fifteen members, five of them (the USA, Britain, France, Russia and China) are permanent members. The other ten temporary members are elected in rotation from different parts of the world. Each of the permanent member has the right to vote any decision by the other members of the Security Council.
• The UN Secretariat is headed by the Secretary General, who is elected by the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
• The International Court of Justice is the judicial wing of the United Nations. Its headquarters is at the Hague.
• The fifth organ of the UN is the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC). It is responsible for coordinating ail the economic and social work of the United Nations.

Activities of the United Nations:
Human rights, the problems of refugees, climate change, gender equality are all within the ambit of the activities of the United Nations. The UN Peace Keeping Force has acted in many areas of conflict all over the world.

Question 34.
What do you know about ‘Salt March to Vedaranyam’?
Answer:
(i) The Viceroy did not accept the demands put forward by Gandhi, he launched the civil Disobedience Movement by setting out on a Salt Satyagraha with a march to Dandi on 12,h March, 1930.

(ii) Tamil Nadu was in the forefront of the Civil Disobedience Movement. In the city of Madras, shops were picketed and foreign goods boycotted. Rajaji organised and led a Salt Satyagraha march to Vedaranyam. The march started from Tiruchirappalli on 13 April, 1930 and reached Vedaranyam in Thanjavur district on April 28th. On reaching Vedaranyam 12 volunteers under the leadership of Rajaji broke the salt law by picking up salt. Rajaji was arrested.

Question 35.
Write about southwest monsoon.
Answer:

• The southwest monsoon is the most significant feature of the Indian climate.
• The onset of the southwest monsoon takes place normally over the southern tip of the country by the first week of June, advances along the Konkan coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
• The monsoon is influenced by global phenomenon like El Nino.
• Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in the north India reaches upto 46° C.
• The sudden approach of monsoon wind over South India with lightning and thunder is termed as ‘break’ or ‘burst of monsoon’.
• It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent.
• The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided into two branches.
• One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
• The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of
  India as it is located in windward side of the Western Ghats.
• The other part which advances towards north is obstructed by Himalayan Mountain and results in heavy rainfall in north.
• As Aravalli mountain is located parallel to the wind direction, Rajasthan and Western part do not get much rainfall from this branch.
• The wind from Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar.
• This wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely, Garo, Khasi and Jaintia are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at Mawsynram located in Meghalaya.
• Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in decrease in rainfall from east to west.
• Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon.
• Tamil Nadu which is located in the leeward side receives only a meagre rainfall.

Question 36.
Give an account of water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Surface Water Resources:

• The total surface water potential of the state is about 24,864 mcm. There are 17 major river basin in the state with 81 reservoirs and about 41,262 tanks.
• Most of the surface water has already been tapped primarily for irrigation, where water use is largest.
• An area of 24 lakh hectares of the land are irrigated by surface water through major, medium and minor schemes.

Ground Water Resources:

• The utilizable ground water resources of the state is 22,423 mcm.
• The current level of utilization of water is about 13,558 mcm which is about 60% of the available recharge, while about 8875 mcm is the balance available for use.

Water Resource Management:

• Water Resource Management is the activity of planning, developing, distributing and managing the optimum use of water resources.
• The demand for water in TN is, increasing at a fast rate both due to increasing population and also due to larger per capita needs triggered by economic growth. ’
• Agriculture is the largest consumer of water in the state using 75% of the state’s water resources.
• The state is heavily dependent on monsoon rain since the state is entirely dependent on rain for recharging its water resources, monsoon failure leads to acute water scarcity and severe droughts. So it is important to save water for us and the future generation.

Question 37.
Point out the Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
There are six Fundamental Rights.

• Right to Equality:- It provides equality before law. It prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. It abolishes untouchability.
• Right to Freedom:- It provides freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession.
• Right against Exploitation: It prohibits trafficking in human beings and forced labour.
  It also prohibits employment of children in factories etc.
• Right to Religion:- It gives freedom of conscience and free profession practice and propagations of religion.
• Cultural and Educational Rights:- It gives protection of language, script and culture of minorities. It also gives minorities the right to establish and administer educational institutions.
• Right to Constitutional Remedies:- It allows individual to seek redressal for the violations of their Fundamental Rights.

Question 38.
Explain about Panchsheel principles.
Answer:

• Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
• Mutual non-aggression.
• Mutual non-interference.
• Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
• Peaceful co-existence.

Question 39.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters.
Answer:

• Geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• Sectoral specialisation
• Close inter-firm collaboration
• Inter firm competition based on innovation.
• A socio cultural identity which facilitates trust.
• Multi skilled work force.
• Active self-help organisation and
• Supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 40.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product? And explain.
Answer:

• Expenditure Approach: In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
• Income Approach:- This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
• Value-added Approach: In the value added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the country.

Question 41.
Draw a timeline for the following:
Write any five important events between 1920 -1940
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) Russia
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Hawai Island
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Balkan Wars
(i) Why was Balkan League Formed?
(ii) What was the outcome of the first Balkan War?
(iii) Who were defeated in this war?
(iv) What was the name of the Treaty signed at the end of this second Balkan War?
Answer:
(a) Balkan Wars:
(i) It was formed to attack and defeat Turkish forces in the first Balkan war in 1912-13.
(ii) The new state of Albanic was created and the other Balkan states divided up Macedonia between them. Turkey was reduced the area around Constantinople.
(iii) The Turkish Forces.
(iv) Treaty of Bucharest.

(b) Subash Chandra Bose and INA
(i) How did Subash Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(b) Subhas Chandra Bose and INA:
(i)He made his way to Japan on a submarine on February 1943.
(ii) Captain Lakshmi Sahgal
(iii) (1) Gandhi Brigade (2) Nehru Brigade (3) Rani of Jhansi Brigade
(iv) He gave the slogan‘Dilli Chalo’.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Ramalinga Adigal ‘
(i) What is Jeevakarunya?
(ii) What are the Songs of Grace?
(iii) Point out the major contribution of Samarasa Veda Sanmarga Sathya Sangam.
(iv) Where did he establish his free feeding house?
Answer:
(c) Ramalinga Adigal
(i) It is showing comparison and mercy on all living beings including plants.
(ii) His volumious songs that were compiled and published under the title Thiruvanrupta are called songs of Grace.
(iii) “Samarasa Vedha Sanmarga Sathya Sangam” means society for pure Truth in Universal selfhood.
(iv) He established a free feeding house for everyone irrespective of caste at Vadalur.

(d) Vellore Revolt:
(i) When did Vellore Revolt break out?
(ii) Who introduced new military regulation?
(iii) Who was the first victim of the revolt?
(iv) Who was proclaimed by the rebels as their new rules?
Answer:
(d) Vellore Revolt:
(i) 10th July 1806
(ii) Commander in Chief Sir John Cradock.
(iii) Colonel Fancourt
(iv) Fateh Hyder

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Aravalli range
(ii) River Cauvery .
(iii) Direction of South-West Monsoon winds
(iv) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve .
(v) The main region of black soil
(vi) Any one International Airport .
(vii) Atomic power station in Tamil Nadu
(viii) Railway route from Mumbai to Kolkata
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Nilgiri hills
(ii) Coromandel Coast
(iii) A paddy growing area
(iv) Bavani Sagar Dam
(v) Thoothukudi Port
(vi) Any one International Airport
(vii) Pulicat lake
(viii) Kanyakumari
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) Russia
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Hawai Island
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Aravalli range
(ii) River Cauvery
(iii) Direction of South-West Monsoon winds
(iv) Agasthiyamalai bio-sphere reserve
(v) The main region of black soil
(vi) Any one International Airport
(vii) Atomic power station in Tamil Nadu
(viii) Railway route from Mumbai to Kolkata
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Nilgiri hills
(ii) Coromandel Coast
(iii) A paddy growing area
(iv) Bavani Sagar Dam
(v) Thoothukudi Port
(vi) Any one International Airport
(vii) Pulicatlake
(viii) Kanyakumari
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
One kilogram force equal to _______.
(a) 9.8 dyne
(b) 9.8 × 10⁴N
(c) 98 × 10⁴ dyne
(d) 980 dyne
Answer:
(c) 98 × 10⁴ dyne

Question 2.
Temperature is the average ______ of the molecules of a substance.
(a) difference in K.E and P.E
(b) sum of P.E and K.E
(c) difference in T.E and P.E
(d) difference in K.E and T.E
Answer:
(c) difference in T.E and P.E

Question 3.
In nuclear reactor _____ is used as a control rod.
(a) barium
(b) carbon
(c) cadmium
(d) Na
Answer:
(c) cadmium

Question 4.
Mass of 1 mole of Nitrogen atom is ______.
(a)28 amu
(b) 14 amu
(c) 28 g
(d) 14 g
Answer:
(b) 14 amu

Question 5.
Which of the following law inert gases 2 electrons in the outermost shell?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Kr
Answer:
(a) He

Question 6.
The number of components in a binary solution is ________.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 7.
In an healthy adult during normal resting condition the blood pressure is ______.
(a) 160 mm/80 mm Hg
(b) 140 mm/80 mm Hg
(c) 120 mm/80 mm Hg
(d) 140 mm/60 mm Hg
Answer:
(c) 120 mm/80 mm Hg

Question 8.
Coronary heart disease is due to ______.
(a) Streptococci bacteria
(b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) Weakening of heart valves
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
Answer:
(d) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles

Question 9.
Glycolysis takes place in _______.
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Cytoplasm

Question 10.
________ is the ATP factory of the cell.
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Nucleus
Answer:
(a) Mitochondria

Question 11.
The “use and disuse theory” was proposed by ________.
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Hacc Kel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamark
(d) Gregor Mendel
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamark

Question 12.
Which is used to edit programs?
(a) Inkscape
(b) Script editor
(c) Stage
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Script editor

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
Define moment of a couple.
Answer:
When two equal and unlike parallel forces applied simultaneously at two distinct points constitute couple. A couple results in causes the rotation of the body. This rotating effect of a couple is known as moment of a couple.

Question 14.
What is power of accommodation of eye?
Answer:

• The ability of the eye lens to focus nearby as well as the distant objects is called power of accommodation of the eye.
• This is achieved by changing the focal length of the eye lens with the help of ciliary muscles.

Question 15.
What are the advantages of LED TV over the normal TV?
Answer:

• It has bright picture quality
• It is thinner in size
• It uses less power and consumes very less energy.
• Its life span is more
• It is more reliable

Question 16.
State Ohm’s law.
Answer:
According to Ohm’s law, at a constant temperature, the steady current ‘I’ flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference ‘V’ between the two ends of the conductor. V = IR

Question 17.
Distinguish between the saturated and unsaturated solution.
Answer:

Question 18.
Why is the teeth of rabbit called heterodont?
Answer:
In Rabbit, the teeth are of different types, i.e., Incisors, (I) Canines (C), Premolar (PM) and molar (M). Hence the dentition is called heterodont.

Question 19.
What is the function of Oxytocin?
Answer:
Oxytocin helps in the contraction of the smooth muscles of uterus at the time of child birth and milk ejection from the mammary gland after child birth.

Question 20.
What will happen if you cut planaria into small fragments?
Answer:
If you cut planaria into small fragments, each fragment will develop into new individual by a specialised mass of cell. It is called regeneration.

Question 21.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) ii
(b) iii
(c) iv
(d) i

Question 22.
How much current will an electric heater coil draw from 220 V source, if the resistance of heater coil is 110Ω.
Answer:
Given,V = 220 V, R = 110 Ω; I = ?
I = \(\frac{V}{R}=\frac{220}{110}\) = 2A

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
What are the types of inertia? Give an example for each type.
Answer:

• Inertia of rest: The resistance of a body to change its state of rest is called inertia of rest. E.g: When you vigorously shake the branches of a tree, some of the leaves and fruits are detached and they fall down.
• Inertia of motion: The resistance of a body to change its state of motion is called inertia of motion. E.g: An athlete runs some distance before jumping. Because, this will help him jump longer and higher.
• Inertia of direction: The resistance of a body to change its state of direction is called inertia of direction.
  E.g: When you make a sharp turn while driving a car, you tend to lean sideways.

Question 24.
Explain the rules for obtaining images formed by a convex lens with the help of ray diagram.
Answer:
Rule-1: When a ray of light strikes the convex lens obliquely at its optical centre, it continues to follow its path without any deviation

Rule-2: When a ray of light passes parallel to the principal axis of convex lens, the refracted rays is converged to the principal focus

Rule-3: When a ray passing through the principal focus the refracted ray will be parallel to the principal axis

Question 25.
A piece of wire of resistance 10 ohm is drawn out so that its length is increased to three times its original length. Calculate the new resistance.
Answer:
Specific resistance (ρ) = \(\frac{\mathrm{RA}}{l}\)
R = \(\frac{\rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
When the length is increased by three and then the area of cross section is reduced by threeResistance of wire R = 10 Ω
New resistance R’ = \(\frac{\rho(3 l)}{(A / 3)}\)
= ρ (3l) x \(\frac{3}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = \(\frac{9 \rho l}{\mathrm{A}}\)
R’ = 9 × R = 9 × 10
R’ = 90 Ω

Question 26.
Write briefly about the characteristics of hydrocarbons.
Answer:

• Lower hydrocarbons are gases at room temperature E.g. methane, ethane.
• They are colourless and odourless.
• The boiling point of hydrocarbons increases with an increase in the number of carbon atoms.
• They undergo combustion reaction with oxygen to form CO₂ and water.
• Alkanes are least reactive when compared to other classes of hydrocarbons.
• Alkynes are the most reactive due to the presence of the triple bond.
• Alkanes are saturated whereas alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated.
• They are insoluble in water.

Question 27.
(i) What is Hydrated salt?
Answer:

• When ionic substances are dissolved in water to make their saturated aqueous solution, their ions attract water molecules and attached chemically in certain ratio. This process is called hydration.
• These ionic substances crystallize out from their saturated aqueous solution with a definite number of molecules of water.
• The number of water molecules found in the crystalline substance is called water of crystallization.
• Such salts are called hydrated salts
• Eg. Blue vitriol – CuSO₄.5H₂O

(ii) How is ethanoic acid prepared from ethanol? Give the chemical equation?
Answer:
Ethanoic acid is prepared by the oxidation of ethanol in the presence of alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate.

Question 28.
Differentiate voluntary and involuntary action.
Answer:
Voluntary Action:

Question 29.
(a) Lable the parts of DNA in the diagram below. Explain the structure briefly.
Answer:

DNA is a Polynucleotide. Each nucleotide contains
(i) A sugar molecule – Deoxyribose sugar

(ii) A nitrogenous base. They are two types of nitrogeneouS bases. They are

1. Purines (Adenine and Guanine)
2. Pyrimidines (Cytosine and Thymine)

(iii) A phosphate group
Nucleoside = Nitrogen base + sugar
Nucleotide – Nucleoside + Phosphate
Purines and pyrimidines are linked by hydrogen bonds.
Adenine (A) links thymine (T) with two hydrogen bonds (A = T)
Cytosine (C) links Guanine (G) with three hydrogen bonds (C ≡ G)

(b) Enumerate any 4 functions of blood.
Answer:
Functions of blood:

1. Transport of respiratory gases (Oxygen and CO₂).
2. Transport of hormones.
3. It maintains proper water balance in the body.
4. It acts as buffer and also helps in regulation of pH and body temperature

Question 30.
(a) What is photosynthesis? Where does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process by which autotrophic organism like green plants algae and chlorophyll containing bacteria utilize the energy from sunlight to synthesize their own food. Photosynthesis occur in green parts of the plant such as leaves, stems and floral buds.

(b) Write the reaction for photosynthesis?
Answer:

Question 31.
(a) What are the contributing factors for obesity?
Answer:
The contributing factors for obesity.

• Genetic factors
• physical inactivity
• Eating habits(Over eating)
• endocrine factors

(b) What is genetic engineering?
Answer:
Genetic engineering is the manipulation and transfer of genes from one organisms to another organisms to create a new DNA is called as recombinant DNA (rDNA). The Genetic engineering is also called as recombinant DNA technology.

Question 32.
(a) Explain linear expansion with equation.
Answer:
When a body is heated or cooled, the length of the body changes due to the change in its temperature. Then the expansion is said to be linear or longitudinal expansion. The ratio of increase in length of the body per degree rise in temperature to its unit length is called as the coefficient of linear expansion.

The value of coefficient of linear expansion is different for different materials. The equation relating the change in length and the change in temperature of a body is

\(\frac{\Delta L}{L_{0}}\) = α_LΔT
Δ L-Change in length a
L₀ – Original length
ΔT – Change in temperature
α_L – Coefficient of linear expansion.

(b) State Avogadro’s law.
Answer:
Equal volumes of all gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure contain equal number of molecules.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) With the help of a circuit diagram derive the formula for the resultant resistance of three resistances connected in series.
Answer:

Let, three resistances R₁, R₂ and R₃ be connected in series. Let the current flowing through them be I. According to Ohm’s Law, the potential differences V₁, V₂ and V₃ across R₁, R₂ and R₃ respectively, are given by:
V₁ = IR₁ …….. (1)
V₂ = IR₂ …….. (2)
V₃ = IR₃ ……. (3)
The sum of the potential differences across the ends of each resistor is given by
V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃
Using equations (1), (2) and (3), we get
V = IR₁ + IR₂ + IR₃ …… (4)
The effective resistor is a single resistor, which can replace the resistors effectively, so as to allow the same current through the electric circuit. Let, the effective resistance of the series-combination of the resistors, be R_s.
Then,
V = IR_s …….. (5)
Combining equations (4) and (5) we get,
IR_s = IR₁ +IR₂ + IR₃
R_s = R₁ + R₂ + R₃ …… (6)
Thus, When a number of resistors are connected in series, their effective resistance is equal to the sum of the individual resistances.
When ‘n’ resistors of equal resistance R are connected in series, the equivalent resistance is ‘n R’ i.e., R_s = n R
The equivalent resistance in a series combination is greater than the highest of the individual resistances.

[OR]

(b) (i) An object of height 3 cm is placed at 10 cm from a concave lens of focal length 15 cm. Find the size of the image.
Answer:

Given, \(\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{v}-\frac{1}{u}\)
f = -15 cm [left side of lens]
u =-10 cm [left side of lens]

(ii) The thunder of cloud is heard 9.8 seconds later than the flash of lightning. If the speed of sound in air is 330 ms-1. What will be the height of the cloud?
Answer:
Given, Time, t = 9.8 s
Speed of sound,v = 330 ms^-1
Height of cloud, d = ?
v = d/t,
d = vt
= 330 × 9.8
d = 3234 m

Question 34.
(i) What is the mass of 1 mole of nitrogen atom?
(ii) How many moles of SO₂ have same mass as 3 moles of oxygen?
(iii) How many molecules are present in 1 ml of water?
Answer:
(i) 1 × gram atomic mass of nitrogen atom
1 × 14 = 14 g

(ii) Mass of 3 moles of oxygen = 3 × 16 = 48 g
Now, mas of SO₂ = 32 + [2 × 16]
= 32 + 32 = 64 g
∴ 64 g of SO₂ = 1 mole
48 g SO₂ = (\(\frac{1}{64}\)) × 48 = 0.75 mole

(iii) We know that density of water is 1 g /ml
Hence, 1 g water = 1 ml water
Now, We have molecular mass of water
H₂O = (1 × 2) + 16 = 18 g
18 g of water contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules
1 g of water will contains = \(\frac{6.023 \times 10^{23}}{18}\) = 0.33 × 10²³ molecules
So the number of molecules of water in 1 ml = 3.3 × 10²²

[OR]

(b) Explain the factors influencing the rate of a reaction.
Answer:
The factors influencing the rate of a reaction are,
(i) Nature of the reactants: The reaction of sodium with hydrochloric acid is faster than that with acetic acid. Do you know why? Hydrochloric acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid and thus more reactive. So, the nature of the reactants influence the reaction rate.
2Na_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → 2NaCl_(aq) + H_2(g) (fast)
2Na_(s) + 2CH₃COOH_(aq) → 2CH₃COONa_(aq) + H_2(g) (slow)

(ii) Concentration of the reactants: Changing the amount of the reactants also increases the reaction rate. The amount of the substance present in a certain volume of the solution is called ‘concentration’. More particles per volume exist in it and hence faster the reaction. Granulated zinc reacts faster with 2M hydrochloric acid than 1M hydrochloric acid.

(iii) Temperature: Most of the reactions go faster at higher temperature. Because adding heat to the reactants provides energy to break more bonds and thus speed up the reaction. Calcium carbonate reacts slowly with hydrochloric acid at room temperature. When the reaction mixture is heated the reaction rate increases.

(iv) Pressure: If the reactants are gases, increasing their pressure increases the reaction rate. This is because, on increasing the pressure the reacting particles come closer and collide frequently.

(v) Catalyst: A catalyst is a substance which increases the reaction rate without being consumed in the reaction. In certain reactions, adding a substance as catalyst speeds up the reaction. For example, on heating potassium chlorate, it decomposes into potassium chloride and oxygen gas, but at a slower rate. If manganese dioxide is added, it increases the reaction rate.

(vi) Surface area of the reactants: When solid reactants are involve in a reaction, their powdered form reacts more readily. For example, powdered calcium carbonate reacts more readily with hydrochloric acid than marble chips. Because, powdering of the reactants increases the surface area and more energy is available on collision of the reactant particles. Thus, the reaction rate is increased.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Write any 4 physiological effects of gibberellins.
(ii) Name the enzyme present in acrosome of sperm? What is its function.
(iii) What are the consequences of deforestation.
Answer:
(i) Physiological effects of gibberellins

1. Gibberellins promote the production of male flowers in monoecious plants (Cucurbits).
2. Gibberellins break dormancy of potato tubers.
3. Gibberellins are efficient in inducing the formation of seedless fruit (Parthenocarpic fruits).
4. Gibberellins stimulate extraordinary elongation of internode Eg.Corn and pea.

(ii) An enzyme, Hyaluronidase present in the acrosome help the sperm to enter the ovum during fertilization.

(iii) Deforestation is the destruction of large area of forests. It gives rise to ecological problems like floods, drought, soil erosion, loss of wild life, extinction of species, imbalance of biogeochemical cycles, alteration of climatic conditions and desertification. Therefore it is a threat to the economy, quality of life and future of the environment.

[OR]

(b) (i) List out any 3 parasitic adaptation of leech.
(ii) Explain the importance of Fossils.
Answer:
(i) Parasitic adaptation of Leech:

1. Blood is sucked by pharynx
2. The salivary glands produce hirudin which does not allow the blood to coagulate.
3. Anterior and posterior ends of the body are provided with suckers by which the animal attaches itself to the body of the host.

(ii) Importance of Fossils:

• Fossils are useful in classification of plants.
• Fossils throw light on phytogeny and evolution of plants
• Fossil plants give a historical approach to plant kingdom
• Fossil plants can be used in the field of descriptive and comparative anatomy

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country was expelled from the League of Nations for attacking Finland?
(a) Germany
(b) Russia
(c) Italy
(d) France
Answer:
(b) Russia

Question 2.
Which part of the world disliked dollar imperialism?
(a) Europe
(b) Latin America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) Latin America

Question 3.
Whose voice was Rast Goftar?
(a) Parsi Movement
(b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Ramakrishna Mission
(d) Dravida Mahajana Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parsi Movement

Question 4.
Where was Sivasubramanianar executed?
(a) Kayathar
(b) Nagalapuram
(c) Virupachi
(d) Panchalamkurichi
Answer:
(b) Nagalapuram

Question 5.
…………………….founded Adi Dravida Mahajana Sabha in 1893.
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Rajaji
(d) M. C. Rajah
Answer:
(a) Rettaimalai Srinivasan

Question 6.
……………………. River is known as “Sorrow of Bihar”.
(a) Narmada
(b) Godavari
(c) Kosi
(d) Damodar
Answer:
(c) Kosi

Question 7.
The longest dam in the world is …………………….
(a) Mettur dam
(b) Kosi dam
(c) Hirakud dam
(d) Bhakra-Nangal dam
Answer:
(c) Hirakud dam

Question 8.
The famous Sindri Fertilizer Plant is located in …………………….
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
(a) Jharkhand

Question 9.
The district with largest mangrove forest cover in Tamil Nadu is …………………….
(a) Ramanathapuram
(b) Nagapattinam
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(c) Cuddalore

Question 10.
A major hydro-electric power project of Tamil Nadu is …………………….
(a) Mettur
(b) Papanasam
(c) Sathanur
(d) Thungabhadra
Answer:
(a) Mettur

Question 11.
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Property
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer:
(c) Right to Property

Question 12.
Which article of Indian constitution directs to adopt foreign policy?
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53
Answer:
(b) Article 51

Question 13.
Primary sector consist of …………………….
(a) Agriculture
(b) Automobiles
(c) Trade
(d) Banking
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Question 14.
Pump sets and motors are produced mostly in…………………….
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharmapuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Discuss the importance of Ottawa Economic Summit.
Answer:

• Bilateral trade treaties between Britain and the member states of the British Empire were signed at an economic summit in Ottawa in 1932.
• In this summit the participants (including India) agreed to give preference to imperial (British) over non-imperial goods.

Question 16.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:

• In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Pakistan and Iran signed a pact known as Baghdad Pact.
• In 1958, the United States joined the organisation and therefore it came to be known as the Central Treaty Organisation. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.

Question 17.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:

• The Siege of Cawnpur was a key episode in the Indian rebellion of 1857.
• The besieged Company forces and civilians in Cawnpur (now Kanpur) were unprepared for an extended siege and surrendered to rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad.
• However under ambiguous circumstances, their evacuation from Cawnpur turned into a massacre, and most of the men were killed.

Question 18.
Highlight the contribution of Caldwell for the cause of South Indian languages.
Answer:

• In 1816, F.W. Ellis formulated the theory that the South Indian languages belonged to a separate family which was unrelated to the Indo-Aryan family of languages.
• Robert Caldwell expanded this argument in a book titled, A comparative Grammar of the Dravidian or South Indian Family of languages, in 1856.
• He established a close affinity between the Dravidian languages in contrast with Sanskrit and also established the antiquity of Tamil.

Question 19.
Give the importance of IST.
Answer:

• To avoid the confusion of time in different states of India. One meridian is taken to have a uniform time for a whole country.
• Therefore 80° 30’ E has been chosen as the Standard Meridian of India which is almost passing from the centre of India.

Question 20.
What is Migration? State its types.
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

1. Internal migration and
2. international migration.

Question 21.
List out the districts of Tamil Nadu which are partly/fully located on Eastern and
Western Ghats separately.
Answer:
Eastern Ghats:
Parangimalai, Chennai, Javadhu hills, Vellore, Salem, Sirumalai, Dindigul, Thiruvannamalai,
Bhubaneswar, Namakkal, Perambalur.
Western Ghats:
Kanyakumari, Tirunelveli, Theni, Coimbatore, Nilgiri.

Question 22.
Why is Coimbatore called the Manchester of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Maximum units are concentrated in and around Coimbatore region. For this region it is known as the “Manchester of South India”.
• It is known as such because of presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large scale industries and textile mills.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Explain India’s nuclear policy.
Answer:
Indian nuclear programme in 1974 and 1998 is only done for strategic purposes. The two themes of India’s nuclear doctrine are

• No first use
• Credible minimum deterrence

It has decided not to use nuclear power for ‘offensive purposes’ and would never use against any non-nuclear state.

Question 25.
What is per capita income.
Answer:

• Per capita income or PCI is an indicator to show the living standard of people in a country.
• It is obtained by dividing the National Income by the population of a country.

Question 26.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:

• The Dutch undertook several voyages from 1596 and formed the Dutch East India Company in 1602.
• In 1605, Admiral Van der Hagen established Dutch factory at Masulipatnam and Pettapoli, Devanampatinam.
• In 1610, upon negotiating with the king of Chandragiri, found another factory at Pulicut. Pulicut was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.

Question 27.
What are the types of tax? Give example.
Answer:
(i) J.S. Mili defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

(ii) If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Question 28.
State the uses of Magnesium.
Answer:

• It is an important minerals used for making iron and steel and serves as basic raw material
  for alloying.
• It is also used in manufacturing bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) The first woman legislator in India was …………………….
(ii) is the Tamil Nadu state animal which is found in …………………….
(iii) India conducted its first nuclear test at…………………….
(iv) …………………….is fondly called as “Little Japan”.
(v) Sathya Gnana Sabai was established by …………………….
Answers
(i) Mutthu Lakshmi Reddy
(ii) Nilgiri Tahr, Nilgiri hills
(iii) Pokhrah
(iv) Sivakasi
(v) Vallalar

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Himadri and Himachal.
(ii) Alluvial Soil and Black Soil.
Answer:
(a) (i) Himadri and Himachal :

1. The Northern most range is known as the Great or Inner Himalayas or the Himadri.
2. It is the most continuous range consisting of the loftiest peaks with an average height of 6,000 metres.
3. It contains all the prominent Himalayan peaks Mt. Everest (8,848 m) and Kanchenjunga (8,586 m).
4. The core of this part of Himalayas is composed of granite.
5. It is perennially snow bound and a number of glaciers descend from this range.

Himadri Himachal :

1. Below Himadri is the most rugged mountain system and is known as Himachal or Lesser Himalayas.
2. The ranges are mainly composed of highly compressed and altered rocks.
3. Pir Panjal range forms the longest and the most important range. The Dhaula Dhar and the Mahabharat ranges are also prominent ones.
4. This range consists of the famous valley of Kashmir, the Kangra and Kullu valley in Himachal Pradesh.
5. This region is well Known for its hill stations.

(ii) Alluvial Soil and Black Soil.
Alluvial Soil :

1. It is formed from sediments deposited by rivers.
2. It is rich in potash.
3. It has moisture retention capacity.
4. It is formed along the river course, food, plains, delta and coastal plains.
5. It is suitable for the cultivation of paddy, wheat and sugarcane.
6. It is found in punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar and west bengal. Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri rivers deposit alluvial soil along their courses.

Black Soil :

1. It is formed from the weathering of igneous rocks.
2. It is rich in lime, iron, potash, alumina calcium and magnesium carbonates.
3. It has high moisture retention capacity.
4. It is found in the valleys of the Godavari, Krishna, Narmada and Tapti.
5. It is suitable for the cultivation of cotton, jowar and millets.
6. It is largely found in the Deccan trap

(b) Give reason: North Indian Rivers are Perennial.
Answer:
Most of the North Indian Rivers are perennial. It means that they have water throughout the year. These rivers receive water from rain as well as from melted snow from the lofty mountains.

Question 33.
Explain the course of the Russian Revolution under the leadership of Lenin.
Answer:

• Lenin was in Switzerland when the revolution broke out in Russia. He wanted to continue revolution.
• His slogan of “All power to the Soviets” soon won over the workers’ leaders. Devastated by war time shortages, the people were attracted by the slogan of‘Bread, Peace and Land’.
• In October Lenin persuaded the Bolshevik Central Committee to decide on immediate revolution. Trotsky prepared a detailed plan.
• On 7 November the key government buildings, including the Winter Palace, the Prime Minister’s headquarters, were seized by armed factory workers and revolutionary troops
• On 8 November 1917a new Communist government was in office in Russia. Its head this time was Lenin. The Bolshevik Party was renamed the Russian Communist Party.

Question 34.
Write an account on the role played by the 19th century reformers towards the course of women.
Answer:
Several social reformers emerged during the 19th century India who played a big role towards the cause of women:
(i) Raja Rammohun Roy was deeply concerned with the preventing customs of sati, child marriage and polygamy. He advocated the rights of widows to remarry. He wanted polygamy to end. He raised voice against Sati system and forced the Governor-General William Bentinck to abolish this social evil in 1829. He condemned the subjugation of women and opposed the prevailing ideas that women were inferior to men. He strongly advocated education for women.

(ii) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was lead against the burning of widows. He supported the idea of widow remarriage. He played a leading role in promoting education of girls and helped them in setting up a number of schools. He dedicated his entire life for the betterment of the child widows of the Hindu society. He led a movement that resulted in the widows’ Remarriage Reform Act of 1856.

(iii) Jyotiba Phule worked for the cause of women. He opposed child marriage and supported widow remarriage, which was prohibited particularly for the uplift of the depressed classes and women. Jyotiba opened orphanages and homes for widows.

(iv) Swami Dayanand Saraswati said that the prohibition of widow remarriage had no scriptural sanction.

(v) Reformers like R.C. Bhandarkar and Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade devoted themselves to activities such as widow remarriage and improvement of women and depressed classes. M.G. Ranade founded the widow Remarriage Association in 1861.

Question 35.
Write an account on the major iron and steel industries of India.
Answer:
1. Mineral based industries:

• The major minerals based industry of our country is the iron and steel industry.
• It is a key or basic industry and lays the foundation for other industries.
• These industries form the economic backbone of a country.

2. Location of Iron and Steel Industries:
Most of our country’s major iron and steel industries are located in the Chotanagpur plateau region.

3. Distribution of Iron and Steel Industries:
India has 11 integrated steel plant and 150 mini steel plants and a large number of rolling and re-rolling mills.

(i) Tata Iron and Steel Company [TISCO]: In 1911, Tata Iron and Steel Company was set up at Jamshedpur. Its major products are Pig Iron and Crude steel.

(ii) Indian Iron and Steel Company [IISCO]: The Steel plant at Kulti, Bumpur and Hirapur were integrated and the Indian iron and steel company was set up at Bumpur in 1972.

(iii) Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Ltd(VISL): Visweshwaraya Iron Steel Limited was set up in 1923 at Bhadravati in Karnataka. Its major products are alloy and sponge steel.

(iv) (a) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bhilai: It is located in Durg district of Chattisgarh. It started its production in 1957. Its major products are Railway Equipment and shipbuilding.
(b) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Rourkela: It was established in 1965 in Odisha. Its major products include hot and cold rolled sheets, Galvanized sheets and electrical plates.
(c) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Durgapur: It was established in 1959 in Durgapur of West Bengal. Its major products are alloy,steel, constmction materials and railway equipments.
(d) Hindustan Steel Limited (HSL) – Bokaro: It is situated in the Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It started its operation in 1972. Its major products are sludge and slog.

(v) Salem Steel Ltd: It is located at salem in Tamil Nadu. It started its production in 1982. The major products are stainless steel.

(vi) Vijayanagar Steel Plant: The Vijayanagar Steel Plant has been set up at Tomagal in Karnataka. It started its production in 1994. The major products are flat steel and long steel.

(vii) The Visakhapatnam Steel Plant(VSP): It started its operation in 1981 at Visakhapatnam in Andhra pradesh. Its major products are Hot metal.

4. Mini Steel Plants:

• Mini steel plants are decentralized secondary units with capacity ranging from 10,000 tonnes to 5 lakh tonnes per year.
• They produce mild steel, alloy steel and stainless steel.
• Most of the mini steel plants are located in areas far away from the major steel plants so that they can meet the local demands.

Question 36.
Explain the different modes of transport available in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Roadways:
The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, In which 60,628km are maintained by state Highways Department. It ranks second in India with a share of over 20% in total road projects under operation in the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model.

Railways:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, headquartered at Chennai.
• The present Southern Railway network extends over a large area of India’s southern peninsula, covering Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry, minor portions of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km with 690 railway stations in the state.
• The system connects it with most of the major cities in India.
• Main rail junctions in the state include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirappalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport System (MRTS) and is currently developing a Metro system, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Airways:
Tamil Nadu has four major international airports. Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India after Mumbai and Delhi.

Water ways:
Tamil Nadu has 3 major ports. They are Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin. It has an intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports. Ennore intermediate port was recently converted as a major port and handles the major coal and ore traffics in Tamil Nadu.

Question 37.
Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 38.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives.
Answer:
Reason for the formation of BRICS To be an alternative to World Bank and IMF to challenge U.S. supremacy.
To provide self-owned and self-managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS :

• To achieve regional development
• It acts as a bridge between developed and developing countries .
• To contribute extensively to development of humanity
• To establish a more equitable and fair world
• Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade cooperation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
• To promote the technological information exchange among the member states
• To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 39.
Explain the trade and traders in South India.
Answer:

• Southern Indian trade guilds were formed by merchants in order to organise and expand their trading activities. Trade guilds became channels through which Indian culture was exported to other lands.
• South Indian trade was dominated by the Cholas and it replaced the Pallavas.
• In the year 1053 AD (CE) the Kalinga Traders brought red coloured stone for trade and also cotton textile to Southeast Asia.
• Several trade guilds operated in medieval Southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Ayyavole, Gavaras etc. The Nakaras and Gavaras met only in the temple premises.
• Several European traders also arrived in South India such as the Portuguese, Dutch, Danes, French and the British. These traders established their companies / factories and strengthened their root in the Indian soil.

Question 40.
Write are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters?
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

• geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• sectoral specialisation
• close inter-firm collaboration
• inter-firm competition based on innovation
• a socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust .
• multi-skilled workforce
• active self-help organisations, and
• supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1855-1905
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) San Francisco
(ii) Hawai Island
(iii) Moscow
(iv) Hiroshima
(v) Nagasaki
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Cold War
(i) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
(ii) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
(iii) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
(iv) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
(a) Cold War:
(i) (1) The United States (2) The Soviet Union
(ii) The term ‘Cold War’was first coined by the English Writer George Orwell in 1945. Bernard Baruch, the US presidental adviser, was the first to use it in a speech.
(iii) The Soviet Russia did not welcome the formation of the NATO. To counter it, Soviet Union organised the Soviet-bloc countries for a united military actions under the Warsaw Pact in 1955.
(iv) The Warsaw Pact was dissolved in 1991 following the fall of the Berlin Wall and the reunification of Germany.

(b) Periyar E. V. R
(i) When did Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam?
(ii) What were the newspapers and Journals run by Periyar?
(iii) Why was Periyar known as Vaikom hero?
(iv) Which was the most important work of Periyar?
Answer:
(b) Periyar E. V. R:
(i) Periyar found Dravidar Kazhagam in 1944.

(ii) The newspapers and journals started by Periyar were – Kudi Arasu, Revolt, Puratchi,
Paguththarivu and Viduthalai.

(iii) In Vaikom, people protested against the practice of no access to the temples by the lower caste people. After the local leaders were arrest’d Periyar led the Temple Entry Movement and was imprisoned. So, people hailed him as Vaikom Virar or hero of Vaikom.

(iv) Right from 1929, when the Self-respect Conferences began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising women’s right to divorce and property. Periyar’s most important work on this subject is Why the Woman is Enslaved?

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Causes of the Second World War.
(i) Name the treaty signed by Japan, Italy and Germany.
(ii) Mention some of the ideologies that emerged after the First World War.
(iii) What was the policy followed by the statesmen of the major world powers?
(iv) What did Hitler violate?
Answer:
(c) Causes of the Second World War:
(i) Italy – Germany – Japan signed the Rome – Berlin – Tokyo Axis treaty.
(ii) Democracy, Communism, Fascism and Nazism.
(iii) The statesmen of the major world powers followed the policy of appeasement.
(,iv) He violated the Munich Pact.

(d) Language agitation before Indian Independence
(i) Name the movements that helped to galvanise the Tamil language.
(ii) Highlight the contribution of Abraham Pandithar for the cause of Tamil music.
(iii) What was seen as a threat to Tamil language and music?
(iv) Who introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools?
Answer:
(d) Language agitation before Indian Independence:
(i) Maraimalai Adigal’s Pure Tamil Movement, the language reforms of Periyar and Tamil Isai Movement.
(ii) Abraham Pandithar systematically studied the history of Tamil music and attempted to reconstruct ancient Tamil musical system. He founded the Tanjore Sangitha Vidya Mahajana Sangam in 1912 which became the kernel of the Tamil Isai Movement or Tamil Music Movement.
(iii) The implementation of Hindi as a compulsory language in Tamil Nadu, at various points of time, was seen as a threat to Tamil language and culture.
(iv) C. Rajagopalachari introduced Hindi as a compulsory subject in schools.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Deccan Plateau
(ii) Western Ghats
(iii) South west monsoon
(iv) Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
(v) Jute growing area
(vi) Damodar dam
(vii) Anyone iron ore producing region .
(viii) Tuticorin
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) River Vaigai
(ii) Laterite soil region
(iii) Tropical Evergreen forest region
(iv) Chennai
(v) Cotton growing area
(vi) Vellore
(vii) Karaikal seaport
(viii) Amaravathi dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Deccan Plateau
(ii) Western Ghats
(iii) South west monsoon
(iv) Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
(v) Jute growing area
(vi) Damodar dam
(vii) Anyone iron ore producing region
(viii) Tuticorin
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) River Vaigai
(ii) Laterite soil region
(iii) Tropical Evergreen forest region
(v) Chennai
(v) Cotton growing area
(vi) Vellore
(vii) Karaikal seaport
(viii) Amaravathi dam
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 3

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
The great expanse of sea stretched down a long way down.
(a) express
(b) expense
(c) stretch
(d) vision
Answer:
(c) stretch

Question 2.
‘He thinks you’re deserter.’
(a) absconder
(b) camel
(c) convict
(d) dessert-monger
Answer:
(a) absconder

Question 3.
We had reached a point where the road bifurcated.
(a) separated
(b) converged
(c) joined
(d) ended
Answer:
(a) separated

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
India Meteorological Department collected data for monitoring marine pollution.
(a) distributed
(b) cancelled
(c) lost
(d) remained
Answer:
(a) distributed

Question 5.
Technology impacts the environment, people and the society as a whole.
(a) entire
(b) partial
(c) unabridged
(d) hollow
Answer:
(b) partial

Question 6.
The Prussians defeated the French.
(a) aimed
(b) brought
(c) triumphed
(d) drained
Answer:
(c) triumphed

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of ‘military’.
(a) military
(b) militaries
(c) militares
(d) militarys
Answer:
(a) military

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right suffix to the word – ‘relation’.
(a) ment
(b) al
(c) ic
(d) ship
Answer:
(d) ship

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation RLWL is ………………….
(a) Remote Location Wait List
(b) Remote Location Waitress List
(c) Remote Locomotive Wait List
(d) Research Location Wait List
Answer:
(a) Remote Location Wait List

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
He will surely ……………. the examination with flying colours.
(a) get out
(b) get in
(c) get through
(d) get into
Answer:
(c) get through

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘earth’ to form a compound word.
(a) worm
(b) fire
(c) land
(d) green
Answer:
(a) worm

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
We come ………………. new words everyday.
(a) between
(b) of
(c) along
(d) across
Answer:
(d) across

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
Shruthi always ……………….. loud music.
(a) plays
(b) was playing
(c) play
(d) had played
Answer:
(c) play

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
…………………… he passed beneath her, he heard the swish of her wings.
(a) Though
(b) If
(c) As
(d) Although
Answer:
(c) As

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any THREE of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
According to Smith how did Holmes get the disease?
Answer:
According to Smith, Holmes had opened an ivory box. A sharp spring from inside the box drew his blood. This caused Holmes the illness.

Question 16.
Why were the policeman prevented from entering the grandfather’s room?
Answer:
Five or six cops sprang for the attic door when they heard a noise from the grandfather’s room. They were prevented since it would be bad if they burst in on grandfather unannounced, or even announced as he was going through a phase in which he believed that General Meade’s men, under steady hammering by Stonewall Jackson, were beginning to retreat and even desert.

Question 17.
Where did the crew undergo their basic training?
Answer:
The crew underwent their basic sail training courses in Mumbai at the Indian Naval Waterman ship Training Centre (INWTC), and at various schools in the southern naval base in Kochi. They even sailed on INSV Mhadei up and down to Mauritius in 2016 and 2017 and also to Cape Town in December 2016.

Question 18.
Name a few Indian innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day today life easier.
Answer:
Lechal Shoes, Blee Watch and iGEST are a few Indian Innovations which are helpful to the disabled and make their day to day life easier.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“Began to complain when he found that, at home,
His cupboard was empty, and winter was come.”
(а) Who does he refer to?
(b) Why was his cupboard empty?
Answer:
(a) ‘He’ refers to the foolish cricket.
(b) His cupboard was empty because he had not stored any food during summer.

Question 20.
“And now, if you will set us to our task,
We will serve you four and twenty hours a day!”
(a) Who does the pronoun ‘you’ refer to here?
(b) Whose task is referred to as ‘our task’ here?
Answer:
(a) ‘You’ refers to the industrialists and the people using the machines.
(b) The task to be performed for the industrialists by the machines is referred to as ‘our task’.

Question 21.
“They, too, aware of sun and air and water,
Are fed by peaceful harvests, by war’s long winter starv’d.”
(a) What is common for all of us?
(b) How are we fed?
Answer:
(a) Sun, air and water is common for all of us.
(b) We the people of the world are nourished and nurtured equally by the elements of Nature like sun, air and water, enjoying the harvests in peaceful times and dreading starvation caused by long-drawn wars.

Question 22.
“It sat alone.
What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) What does ‘It’ refer to?
(b) Pick out the line that indicates the size of the house?
Answer:
(a) ‘It’ refers to the mysterious house.
(b) And inside you can tell it has a ton of space, this line indicates the size of the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Answer:
The organizers will exhibit the paintings till the end of the month.
The paintings will be exhibited by the organizers till the end of the month.

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Answer:

• Shanthi said to the manager, “I live in Thiruvallur and I commute to the city of Chennai everyday.”
• Shanthi told the manager that she live’d in Thiruvallur and that she commuted to the city of Chennai everyday.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following sentence.
Answer:
Heaven thank you my dear father, said miranda “Heaven thank you, my dear father,” said Miranda.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
Answer:
Though Raghu was old, he walked fast.
Despite his old age, Raghu walked fast.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(a) in / we / of / modern science / the era / live
(b) inventions / armed / which are / has / miracles / science / man with / not less than
Answer:
(a) We live in the era of modem science.
(b) Science, has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Observe the map given below and write three instructions to give directions to your brother to reach the City Hospital.
Answer:

• Go straight on Mount Road and take the first right on Anna Road.
• Proceed further and take the last left after the temple adjoining Saiigan Main Road.
• You will find City Hospital on the left side at the end of the main road.

PART – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section – I

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 29.
Give a detailed account of all thoughts and questions in the narrator’s mind while accompanying Aditya from the tea shop to Sanyal’s house?
Answer:
The narrator had noticed the keen interest of Aditya in seeing the tea shop at Bramhapur if it still existed. They saw Sasanka Sanyal another customer seated in one comer of the Nagen’s Tea Cabin. When that customer was asked to leave by Nagen the owner, he behaved in a strange manner and reacted sharply. Before leaving the place, he stretched himself, raised his lean arm and with diluted eyes recited a poem by Tagore.

On hearing this poem and seeing the customer’s strange gesture of Namaste, Aditya’s expression changed. The narrator noticed the eagerness in Aditya to know who the gentlemen was and what he was doing. The information he had received from Nagen uncle perturbed Aditya. He was distressed perhaps to know that the man lost his wife and only son last year.

When he left, Aditya was bent on knowing where the gentleman stayed and drove straight to his ancestral house with firm determination. His nerves seemed overwrought for some reason and he felt a strong necessity to visit his house. Aditya was totally a different person now and he expressed keen interest to visit his house where he lived twenty nine years ago.
“Memories are sometimes pleasant yet disturbing.’’

Question 30.
How was the last lesson different from earlier lessons?
Answer:
The last lesson was different from earlier lessons in numerous ways. It revealed the love and respect of the teacher and students for their mother tongue. Even the teacher was unusually kind and did not scold children. M. Hamel taught very patiently, with utmost dedication and sincerity. It seemed as if he wanted to give all that he knew before going away. He was dressed at his best and his ‘iron ruler’ was not used even to rap it on the desk.

The last lesson was attended by villagers with deep remorse to show their love and respect for their mother tongue and also to M. Hamel. The students listened very carefully and everybody was absolutely quiet. Franz regretted for not learning his lesson. The last lesson was indeed emotional. It stirred patriotic feelings and awakened the villagers to the importance of their mother tongue.
“The bird of love flies on two wings
Faith and Dedicated Service.”

Question 31.
What is the theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber?
Answer:
The theme of the story, ‘The Night the Ghost got in’ by James Thurber is surely of a supernatural kind. This story asks readers to accept the existence of the ghost mentioned in the title as a believable one. Many a time, ghost stories offer readers a sign for a common explanation for the events that the characters themselves trust are triggered by the bizarre scenario.

Although it seems very unlikely that a real ghost would have generated a commotion in the house, Thurber gives readers distressing indication that the sounds that he heard were undeniably supernatural. For example, the police thoroughly investigate the house and say that all the doors and windows are locked from inside and nothing in the house is said to have been taken by burglars. The father and brother Roy, who are at first expected to have come home from Indianapolis early, do not feature in the play and are just characters mentioned during conversations.
“The human mind delights in grand conceptions of supernatural beings.”

Question 32.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him. He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it.

It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space. Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute.

The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.
“Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way.”

Section – II

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Write a paragraph on ‘The Grumble Family’ and their attitude towards other folks.
Answer:
The Grumble family by L.M. Montogornery, a prolific writer depicts a family whom everyone despises to meet. They live on Complaining street in the city called’ Never-are-Satisfied’ where River Discontent runs beside it. They growl at anything and everything and whatever happens, there is something that goes wrong. They scold at each other at all seasons be it winter or summer.

They never stop growling at any weather conditions be it during monsoon or summer. Anyone who is associated with them even as an acquaintance get adapted to their ways easily. They are moaning, grumbling and never satisfied. A feeling of pessimism is strongly embedded in them and they are so contagious that they pass on the nature of grumbling and complaining to all who converse with them.
“To do nothing but grumble and not to act — that is throwing away one s life.”

Question 34.
‘What is the central theme of the poem ‘No men are foreign’?
Answer:
James Kirkup gives a positive message of hope to mankind. In spite of obvious divisions and variances, all are united together by the common bond of civilization and mankind. For their entrusted interests, some selfish people divide lands and people. They collaborate to create hatred and divisions among people. The poet validates the statement that people living in different countries are essentially the same by proclaiming that ‘no men are strange and no men are foreign’. That is the part of the title of the poem and it is the central theme too. Every single body breathes and functions in the same way.

Each one of us equally needs the sun, air and water. Human hands too are used for the similar purpose of labouring for livelihood. Even eyes perform similar purpose of sleeping and waking up. Love wins us all and we all identify its power. In peace times, we all flourish and wars starve us. When we take up arms against each other, the entire earth is defiled and destroyed. Therefore, we all like peace which showers abundance and prosperity on us. Thus, fundamentally we all are the same. We should understand and try to recognise that the same soul runs through all the people.

Let us work for the unity and affluence of all lands and all people. Let us not pollute and taint the earth which is ours. Hatred and narrow ideas pollute the minds of the people. Conflicts and wars bring destruction and violence. We should remember that raising arms against anyone means fighting against ourselves. The poet reminds us to remember, recognise and strengthen the common bond that unites mankind and humanity which is the main theme of this poem.
“Sometimes one feels better speaking to a stranger than someone unknown.”

Question 35.
Read the following poetic lines and answer the questions given below.
“A woman is beauty innate,
A symbol of power and strength.
She puts her life at stake,
She’s real, she’s not fake!”
(i) What is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza?
(ii) Pick out the rhyming words.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the stanza.
(iv) Give a rhyming word for ‘ strength’.
Answer:
(i) ‘abcc’ is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(ii) The rhyming words are stake and fake.
(iii) Metaphor is employed in the above stanza.
(iv) ‘length’ is a rhyming word for ‘strength’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
Let us learn to walk with a smile and a song,
No matter if things do sometimes go wrong;
And then, be our station high or humble,
We’ll never belong to the family of Grumble!
Answer:
Therefore the poet tells us that we should learn to walk with a smile on our lips and a song in our mouth even when things go against our desires. Even if our position is high or humble, we will never belong to the family of Grumble.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (ii), (v), (i), (iv), (iii)
(ii) Shining was governed by a despotic leader who sent out a cruel proclamation.
(v) The poor farmer loved his aged mother and the order filled his heart with sorrow.
(i) He lifted his helpless old mother and went up the mountain.
(iv) On he went towards the high bare summit, Obatsuyama.
(iii) Obatsuyama is the mountain of the “abandoning of the aged”.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
Prospero had commanded Ferdinand to pile up some heavy logs of wood. Kings’ sons not being much used to laborious work, Miranda soon after found him almost dying with fatigue. “Alas!” said she, “do not work so hard; my father is at his studies, he is safe for these three hours; pray rest yourself.”
“O my dear lady,” said Ferdinand, “I dare not. I must finish my task before I take my rest.” “If you will sit down,” said Miranda, “I will carry your logs the while.” But this Ferdinand would by no means agree to. Prospero, who had enjoined Ferdinand this task merely as a trial of his love, was not at his books, as his daughter supposed, but was standing by them invisible, to overhear what they said. Ferdinand inquired her name, which she told, saying it was against her father’s express command she did so. And then Ferdinand, in a fine long speech, told the innocent Miranda he was heir to the crown of Naples, and that she should be his queen. Prospero then appeared before them.
(i) Why wasn’t Ferdinand used to laborious work?
(ii) What was the work given to Ferdinand by Prospero?
(iii) Why did Miranda ask Ferdinand to rest for some time?
(iv) Who was Ferdinand?
(v) What was Prospero doing when Ferdinand was at work?
Answer:
(i) Ferdinand wasn’t used to laborious work as he was from a royal family of Kings.
(ii) The work given to Ferdinand was to pile up some heavy logs of wood.
(iii) Miranda asked Ferdinand to rest for some time because he was tired and she thought that her father would be at his study for the next three hours.
(iv) Ferdinand was the heir to the crown of Naples.
(v) Prospero was invisible to Ferdinand and Miranda and was overhearing their conversation as he wanted to test Ferdinand’s love for Miranda.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following.

Question 39.
Write slogans for the following products:
(a) Air-conditioner
(b) Air – Conditioner
(c) Shampoo
(d) Detergent
(e) Computer
Answer:
(a) Tooth Paste – Use for a while and get a sparkling smile.
(b) Air-conditioner – Bring Switzerland into your room.
(c) Shampoo – Leaves your hair smooth and silky.
(d) Detergent – Less foam easy to clean.
(e) Computer – Doorstep to knowledge and information.

Question 40.
Ramesh, The School Pupil Leader wanted to write to Dr. Nagaraj confirming his presence to be the Chief Guest for the Literary Association inauguration function at school. Write a formal letter of invitation.
Answer:
From
K. Ramesh
School Pupil Leader
XYZ Higher Secondary School
Chennai
28th July, 2020
To
Dr C. Nagaraj Professor of English ABC Arts College Chennai
Dear Sir,
Sub: Invitation to preside over the inauguration of Literary Association In continuation to the telephonic conversation we had this morning, it is immense pleasure that we thank you for accepting our oral invitation to inaugurate the Literary Association in our school for the current academic year.

I would like to confirm that the Inaugural function is scheduled for the 12th of August, 2020. at 10 a.m. in the School Auditorium. We request you to accept our invitation and inaugurate the function.
Your presence is much solicited and thanking you in advance for your valuable presence.
Thank you
Yours sincerely,
K. Ramesh (SPL)

Address on the envelope

Question 41.
You are the Principal of Sunshine Public School, Elagiri. Write a notice in not more than 50 words informing that the admissions for the next academic year are likely to begin in January 2020.
Answer:

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.

Answer:
Reading Maketh a Man
Reading is a wonderful hobby. The habit of reading is rarely seen among children, nowadays. Most of the schools, have one period a week as Library time to inculcate the habit of reading. The children are found talking with the Librarians to borrow books. Some children are found reading books. Silence must be maintained in the library

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
Tennis is a sport played between two players (singles) or between two teams of two players (doubles). Each player uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the United Kingdom in the late 19^th century.

At first, people played tennis on courts made of grass! These were called “lawn courts”. Now, tennis is played by millions of people all over the world. The rules of tennis have changed very little since it was created in the 1890s. Most tennis players play tennis because it is fun. It also is a good way to get exercise.

While playing tennis, you do a lot of running. You move your arms and legs in many ways that they do not normally move.
Title: Tennis – A Good Sport

1. Tns as a sport:
(i) Play⁴ betⁿ two players or two teams A two players
(ii) Play⁴ Single or Double
(iii) Millions A people – worldwide

2. Accessories req^d to play Tns:
(i) Tns racket
(ii) Hollow rubber ball covered with felt

3. Winning strategy
(i) ball in opponents court shd not b hit by player

4. Origin ∧ Tns
(i) In UK – late 19^thCen^y
(ii) Played in courts ∧ grass – Lawn Courts
(iii) Slight changes in rules
(iv) Play^d for Fun, Exercise

Abbreviations used: Tns – tennis; Play^d -played, betⁿ– between, A – of, req^d– required, shd – should, b-be, Cen^y-century

Rough draft
Tennis-sport played as singles or doubles uses a tennis racket to strike a hollow rubber ball covered with felt. To win , you make hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the oppo­nent being able to hit the ball back. Tennis originated in the late 19th century in UK. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, tennis is played is played all over the world. the rules have not changed much. Mostly it is played for fun and a good way to get exercise! ”

Fair draft
Title : Tennis, A Good Sport
Nineteenth Century Tennis, originated in UK, is played as singles or doubles with a tennis racket and a ball. To win, you must hit the ball into the opponent’s court without the opponent hitting it back. Initially, people played on Lawn courts! Now, it’s played worldwide without much change for fun and exercise.
No. of words written in the summary: 53

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(а) Sita is now free of danger.
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late so we apologised.
(d) Many students has turned up for the seminar.

(e) If I had known this yesterday I will have helped him.
(a) Sita is now free from danger.                                                                    ‘
(b) An Indian ship laden with merchandise sank in the Pacific Ocean.
(c) As we were late we apologised.
(d) Many students have turned up for the seminar.
(e) If I had known this yesterday I would have helped him.

Section – V

Quote from memory. [1 x 5 = 5]
Question 45.
So let…………………….. of the quest,
Answer:
So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O ’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown,
My heart will keep the courage of the quest,

Part-IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]
Question 46.
(a) Visu left, Zigzag – Zigzag fell asleep – began to snore – soft grumbly sort of rumble – mildly hungry dinosaur – herd of elephants – pounded the eardrums – Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, mistakes the snore – Maya complains – Arvind confesses – Maya squirts water- cotton wool-maid Lakshmi’s shriek- unfinished masterpiece – Zigzag slept unconcerned.
Answer:
As soon as the cook, Visu left, Zigzag, still perched on the curtain rod, went off to sleep. The moment he fell asleep, he began to snore and the commotion began. His snoring was a soft grumbly sort of rumble like that of the stomach of a mildly hungry dinosaur. Then it grew louder until it sounded like a herd of elephants.

Zigzag’s snore pounded the eardrums till their heads ached. Mrs. Jhunjhunwala, who lived upstairs heard Zigzag snoring and asked Mrs. Krishnan to sing a little softly when she took her singing lessons. Maya complained that she heard a permanent rumbling sound in her ears even when she was miles away. Arvind confessed that he was actually looking forward to going to school than being at home. Maya tried to squirt water from a small water pistol at Zigzag to wake him and wetted most of the curtains, the walls and the sofa. In vain to wake up the bird, they shut themselves in the bedroom that was farthest away from Mrs. Krishnan’s workspace where Zigzag was creating the terrible noise.

Mrs. Krishnan untied a roll of cotton wool to stuff in her ears. Just then, their maid Lakshmi’s shrieked. They froze in fear as she had switched on the fan on which Zigzag had left some fruit and nuts. Half-pecked fruit streamed of the fan, dampening even Lakshmi’s eagerness as a guava landed on her cheek with a soft splash and one walnut hit her forehead with a loud smack.

One slice of over-ripe papaya came whizzing off the fan and as they watched it helplessly, it splattered all over Mrs. Krishnan’s unfinished masterpiece, sunset at Marina. However, through all this commotion, Zigzag slept unconcerned and snored on.

[OR]

(b) The little boy – cakes – The blind man – dikes – light heart – stayed a little while – walk talk – mother’s wish – rains and swollen waters – father’s gates – pretty fields – angry waters – pretty blue flowers – rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass – the poor blind man – few pleasures – setting sun – growing dark – feared his mother – sound of trickling water – the hero of Holland!
Answer:
The little boy, Peter was glad to take cakes to his blind friend. The blind man who stayed across the dikes was his friend. So he started off with a light heart. He stayed with the poor blind man a little while to tell him about his walk along the dike and about the sun and the flowers and the ships far out at sea.

On remembering his mother’s wish that he should return before dark he bid his friend goodbye and set out for home. As he walked beside the canal, he noticed how the rains had swollen the waters, and how they beat against the side of the dike, and he thought of his father’s gates. He admired the pretty fields. He recalled his father’s words about the sea waters as angry waters.

As he walked along he sometimes stopped to pick the pretty blue flowers that grew beside the road or to listen to the rabbits’soft tread as they rustled through the grass. But oftener he smiled as he thought of his visit t the poor blind man who had so few pleasures and was always so glad to see him.

Suddenly he noticed that the sun was setting, and that it was growing dark. He feared his mother searching for him and began to run towards home. Just then he heard the sound of trickling water and had to become the hero of Holland!

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
Many students aspiring to get a Visa for higher education in the United States are misled by blogs or unofficial sources. The US Consulate clarified that there was no fee for contacting the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications. The students need to give them all true details.

The Consulate processes 25 % of the world’s H1B visas and 30% of L Visa’s. Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day. The consulate had introduced many user friendly measures and interviews for candidates could be fixed within two days.

The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels. About 1300 interviews are conducted in a day. Everyone is given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit. Only a few applications are rejected. The call Centres could be contacted over the phone through online chats and e-mails.

Questions.
(a) What is the fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas?
(b) How did the Consulate deal with the applications received last year?
(c) How long does the process last, before the application fee could be paid?
(d) If you wish to go to the US in how much time, could you cite the reason at the interview?
Answer:
(a) There is no fee levied by the US Consulate for imparting information on the procedure to get Visas from the call centre which had ample channels to give clarifications.
(b) Last year the Consulate conducted Visa interviews for 2.37 lakh persons and 97% of the applications were processed within a day, and the rest were cleared the following day.
(c) The process would be over within 42 minutes of the allotted time and the application fee could be paid easily through different channels.
(d) You are given three minutes to explain the purpose of the visit at the interview, if.you wish to go to the US.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
SEPTEMBER 11
Once there were two magnificent towers,
Where lived and worked so many of ours.
It took seven long years to build them straight
They stood near the Empire State.
This event happened on the eleventh of September,
It’s an occurrence that generations will remember.
Because thousands of people have died,
Not only of the US but the world’s pride.
Everyone saw with awe and fright,
Twin towers crash in broad daylight.
None quite knows what will happen now,
When? Where? And how?
May God give wisdom to those,
Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose?
Now let us all remove hatred and vice,
And let the world be happy and nice.

Questions.
(a) What does the title of the poem indicate?
(b) Explain the line, ‘Who are devils in gentlemen’s pose’
(c) How many years did it take to rebuild the twin towers?
(d) What does the poet want to remove in this world and does he hope to see?
Answer:
(a) The title of the poem indicates that the poem is about the twin towers that was attacked on 11^th September, 2001.
(b) This line talks about the devilish act done by the men who pretended to be gentlemen. In other words, they are wolves in lambs’ clothing.
(c) It took seven years to rebuild the twin towers.
(d) The poet wants to remove hatred and evil thoughts so that the world can be a happy place with nice memories.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Who said “imperialism is the highest stage of capitalism”?
(a) Lenin
(b) Marx
(c) Sun-Yat-Sen
(d) MaoTsetung
Answer:
(a) Lenin

Question 2.
Which President of the USA pursued “Good Neighbour” policy towards Latin America?
(a) Roosevelt
(b) Truman
(c) Woodrow Wilson
(d) Eisenhower
Answer:
(a) Roosevelt

Question 3.
Whose campaign and work led to the enactment of Widow Remarriage Reform Act of 1856?
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Rammohan Roy
(c) Annie Besant
(d) Jyotiba Phule
Answer:
(a) Iswarchandra Vidyasagar

Question 4.
Who had established close relationship with the three agents of Chanda Sahib?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Kattabomman
(c) Puli Thevar
(d) Oomai thurai
Answer:
(c) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by ……………..
(a) Nationalism
(b) Iconoclasm
(c) Rationalism
(d) Spiritualism
Answer:
(c) Rationalism

Question 6.
The extent of Himalayas in the east-west is about ………………….
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,400 km
(c) 800 km
(d) 2,200 km
Answer:
(a) 2,500 km

Question 7.
Black Soil is also called as ………………….
(a) Arid soil
(b) Saline soil
(c) Regur soil
(d) Mountain soil
Answer:
(c) Regur soil

Question 8.
The first Nuclear Power station was commissioned in ………………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which one of the following river flows into the Arabian sea?
(a) Periyar
(b) Cauvery
(c) Cuddalore
(d) Theni
Answer:
(a) Periyar

Question 10.
Literacy rate of Tamil Nadu as per 2011 census is ………………….
(a) 80.32%
(b) 62.33%
(c) 73.45%
(d) 80.33%
Answer:
(d) 80.33%

Question 11.
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through ………………….
(a) Descent
(b) Registration
(c) Naturalisation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Naturalisation

Question 12.
Apartheid is ………………….
(a) An international association
(b) Energy diplomacy
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) A Policy of racial discrimination

Question 13
…………………. approach is the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate
the value of the final good.
(a) Expenditure approach
(b) Value added approach
(c) Income approach
(d) National Income
Answer:
(b) Value added approach

Question 14.
Tuticorin is known as ………………….
(a) Gateway of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 x 2 = 20]

Question 15.
What was the result of Mussolini’s march on Rome?
Answer:

• In October 1923, in the context of a long ministerial crisis, Mussolini organised the fascist March on Rome.
• Impressed by the show of force, the king invited Mussolini to form a government.

Question 16.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests -Elaborate.
Answer:
(i) In 1956, Nasser, the President of Egypt, nationalised Suez Canal. This measure undermined British interests with the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force.

(ii) Israel saw this as an opportunity to open the Gulf of Aqaba to Israeli shipping and put a stop to Egyptian border roads.

(iii) On 29 October Israels forces invaded Egypt, Britain used this opportunity to demand that its troops be allowed to occupy the canal zone to protect the canal. When Egypt refused British demand, it was bombed. Britain and France also attached Suez Canal area.

Question 17.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi and Nagpur.

Question 18.
List out the personalities who contributed to the revival of Tamil literature through their writings.
Answer:
C.W. Damotharanar, U.V. Swaminathar, F.W. Ellis, Robert Caldwell, Subramania Bharati, Thiru Vi. Kalyanasundaram, Singaravelar, Pandithar Iyotheethassar, Sundaram Pillai and Maraimalai Adigal.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Deccan Plateau.
Answer:

• The Deccan Plateau is a triangular landmass that lies to the south of the river Narmada.
• This is the largest physiographic division of our country.
• It covers an area of about 16 lakh sq.km (about half of the total area of the country)
• It is an old rocky plateau region. –
• The topography consists of a series of plateaus and hill ranges interspersed with river valleys.
• It is higher in the west and slopes gently eastwards.
• The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of the Deccan plateau respectively.
• Aravalli hills mark the north-western boundary of the plateau region.
• Its northern and north-eastern boundaries are marked by the Bundelkhand upland, Kaimur and Rajmahal hills.

Western Ghats lie parallel to the Western coast. They are continuous and can be crossed
through passes only like Thai, Bhor and the Pal Ghats. It is higher then the Eastern Ghats. It cause orographic rain by facing the rain-bearing moist winds to rise along the western slopes of the Ghats. The height of the Western Ghats progressively increases from north to south. The highest peak include the Anaimudi (2,695 metres) and the DodaBetta (2,637 metres). …

The Eastern Ghats stretch from the Mahanadi valley to the Nilgiris in the south. The Eastern Ghats are discontinuous and irregular and dissected by rivers draining into the Bay of Bengal. Mahendragiri (1,501 metres) is the highest peak in the Eastern Ghats. Shevroy Hills and the Javadi Hills are located to the southeast of the Eastern Ghats. The famous hill stations of Udagamandalam, popularly Known as Ooty and the Kodaikanal are located here.

One of the distinct features of the peninsular plateau is the black soil area known as Deccan Trap. This is of volcanic region hence the rocks are igneous. These rocks have denuded over time and are responsible for the formation of black soil.

Question 20.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:

1. Railways are the price mode of transport for goods and passengers in India.
2. They make it possible to conduct varied activities like business, sight seeing and pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
3. They are suitable for long distance travel and play an important role in national integration.
4. They bind the economic life of the country as well as they accelerate the development of the industry and agriculture.

Question 21.
What is ‘Teri’?
Answer:
The sand dunes formed along the coast of Ramanathapuram and Thoothukudi districts are called Teri.

Question 22.
Name the important multipurpose projects of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Mettur Dam, Amaravathi Dam, Papanasam Dam, Bhavani Sagar Dam.

Question 23.
What is meant by Citizenship?
Answer:
Citizenship is the status of a person recognized under the custom or law as being a legal member of a sovereign state or belonging to a nation.

Question 24.
Highlight the contribution by Nehru to India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry’ of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
Write the importance of gross domestic product.
Answer:
The GDP is one of primary indicators used to measure the health of a country’s economy. It represents the total dollar value of all goods and services produced over a specific time period, often referred to as the size of the economy.

Question 26.
Write short note on Multinational corporation.
Answer:

• Multinational corporation is a corporate organisation which owns or controls production of goods or services in at least one country other than its home country. MNCs are also called Transnational corporation (TNC) or Multinational Enterprise (MNE).
• Most of the MNCs at present belong to the four major exporting countries – USA, UK, France and Germany.

Question 27.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:

• Every type of tax has some advantages and some disadvantages. So we have a tax system, that is, a collection of variety of taxes. All countries use a variety of taxes.
• There are some characteristics of tax system that economists think should be followed
  while designing a tax system. These characteristics are called as canons of taxation.

Question 28.
What are the minerals and its types?
Answer:
Mineral is a natural substance of organic or inorganic origin with definite chemical and Physical properties.
Types of Minerals are:

1. Metallic minerals
2. Non – metallic minerals.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 x 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) ………………. known as the “Father of modem china.
(ii) Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……………….
(iii) Fundamental duties have been gives to the citizen of India under Article ……………….
(iv) ……………….  is an innovator of new ideas and business process.
(v) The difference between the value of exports and imports is called ……………….
Answers:
(i) Dr. Sun-Yat-Sen
(ii) Railways
(iii) 51 A
(iv) Entrepreneur
(v) Balance of trade.

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answers:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains,
(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.
Answer:
(a) (i) Western Coastal Plains and Eastern Coastal Plains
Western Coastal Plains :

1. It lies between the Western Ghats and Arabian Sea
2. It is a narrow plain, which stretches from Gujarat to Kerala with an average width of 50 – 80 Km.
3. This plain is drained by less rivers like Nar-mada and Tapi forming estuaries.
4. It consists of three sections. The northern part of the coast is called the Konkan (Mumbai – Goa), the Central stretch is called the Kannad plain while the southern stretch is referred to as the Malabar coast.

Eastern Coastal Plains:

1. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and Bay of Bengal.
2. They are wide and level plains with an aver¬age width of 80-100 Km.
3. This plain is drained by more rivers forming deltas like Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
4. It consists of two sections. In the northern part, it is referred to as the Northern Circar, while the southern
5. part is known as the Coromandal coast. Lake Chilka is an important feature along the eastern coast.

(ii) Tropical Evergreen forest and Deciduous forest.

Tropical Evergreen forest:

• These forests are located in regions of heavy rainfall more than 200 cm of rainfall.
• The trees in these forests are evergreen.
• These forest are very dense and composed of tall trees reaching up to the height of above 60 metres.
• The important trees of these forests are Rosewood, Ebony, Mahogany, and Chinchona, Bamboo and Lianas.

Deciduous forest :

1. These forests are located in regions of rainfall between 70-200 cm.
2. The trees in the deciduous forests shed their leaves due to dryness during the spring and early summer.
3. The tropical deciduous forests are commercially important as they yield valuable timber and other forest products.
4. The main trees of these forests are Teak, Sal, Sisam, Sandalwood, Wattle and Neem.

(b) Give reason: Chottanagpur Plateau is rich in mineral resources.
Chottanagpur Plateau is a store house of mineral resources such as mica, bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal.

Question 33.
Discuss the circumstances that led to the Reform movements of 19th century.
Answer:
(i) The nineteenth century India was plagued with a number of social evils such as sati, child marriage, female infanticide, polygamy and so on.

(ii) Women were subjugated by men and were not allowed to get education. They were restricted to home and hearth. They were considered inferior to men.

(iii) The condition of the depressed classes was miserable. They were subj ect to untouchability. Their entry to schools, temples and other public places, meant for upper castes, was banned. Hence, there was no education among the people belonging to lower castes.

(iv) There were other evil practices prevalent in the Indian society such as excessive superstitious religious beliefs, animal sacrifice, which needed attention of the social reformers for the benefit of the common people of the society.

(v) There was total absence of reason in the society. The system of child marriage was prevalent which resulted to child widows. These widows were never accepted in the family and were destined to lead a pathetic life. These were the circumstances that led to the Reform movements in the nineteenth century.

Question 34.
Attempt an essay on foundation and development of Tamil Renaissance in the 19th century.
Answer:

• In Tamil Nadu, the proliferation of the printing press acted as a catalyst for the publication and spread of secular ancient Tamil literature.
• In the nineteenth century, Tamil scholars like C.W. Damotharanar, and U.V. Swaminathar spent their lifetime in the rediscovery of the Tamil classics.
• C.W. Damotharanar collected and edited different palm leaf manuscripts of the Tamil grammars and literature. U.V. Swaminathar took efforts to publish the classical texts. These triggered an intellectual revolution and it was popularly known as Tamil Renaissance.
• The transformation not only revived Tamil language and literature but also Tamil culture. It challenged the prevailed caste hierarchy and influenced the rise of Dravidian consciousness and established Tamil as a language of the Dravidian people.
• Tamil renaissance questioned the cultural hegemony of Brahminism. These developments were reflected in art, literature, religion, etc.

Question 35.
Give a detailed account on the Great Northern Plains.
Formation:

• • The Northern Plain has been formed by the interplay of the three major river systems namely – The Indus, The Ganga, and The Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
• • This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The deposition of alluvium in a vast basis lying on the foothills of the Himalayas over millions of years formed this fertile plain.

Extension:
It spread over an area of 7 lakh sq.km. The plain being about 2400 km long and 240 to 320 km broad, is a densely populated physiographic division.

Importance:
With a rich soil caves combined with adequate water supply and favourable climate it is agriculturally a very production past of India.

Important Features:

• In the lower course, due to gentle slope, the velocity of the river decreases which results in the formation of riverine islands. Majuli, in the Brahmaputra River is the largest inhabited riverine island in the world.
• The rivers in their lower course split into numerous channels due to the deposition of silt. These channels are known as tributaries.
• The Northern Plain is broadly divided into three sections. Punjab plains, Ganga plains and Brahmaputra plains.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions – Bhabar, Terai, Bhangar and Khadar.

Punjab Plains:

• The Western part of the Northern plain is referred to as the Punjab plains formed by the Indus and its tributaries.
• The larger part of this plain lies in Pakistan Indus and its tributaries – The Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas and the Sutlej originate in the Himalayas. This section of the plain is dominated by the doabs.

Ganga Plains:
They extend between Ghagger and Teesta rivers. It is spread over the states of North India like
Haryana, Delhi, U.P., Bihar, Partly Jharkhand and West Bengal.

Brahmaputra plains:

• In the east of Ganga plains lies the Brahmaputra plains. They cover the areas of Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
• According to the variations in relief features, the Northern plains can be divided into four regions.

Bhabar:
The rivers after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the Shivaliks. It is known as Bhabar. All the streams disappear in this Bhabar belt.

Terai:

• South of this belt, the streams and rivers re-emerge and create a wet swampy and marshy region known as ‘Terai’. This was a thickly forested region full of wildlife.
• The Terai is wider in the eastern parts of the Great plains, especially in Brahmaputra valley due to heavy rainfall. In many states, the Terai forest have been cleaned for cultivation.

Khadar:

• The newer younger deposits of the flood plains are called Khadar. They are renamed almost every year and so are fertile. Thus ideal for intensive agriculture.
• The Khadar tracts are enriched by fresh deposits of silt every year during rainy seasons. The Khadar land consists of sand, silt, clay and mud. It is highly fertile soil.

Delta Plains:

• The deitaic plains is an extension of the Khadar land. It covers about 1.9 sq.km in the lower reaches of the Ganga River. It is an area of deposition as the river flows in this tract sluggishly.
• The deltaic plain consists mainly of old mud, new mud and marsh. In the delta region, the uplands are called “chars”. While the marshy areas are called ‘Bils’.

Question 36.
Explain the characteristic features of summer and winter seasons of Tamil Nadu.
Summer Seasons:

• The apparent migration of the sun towards north during March, April and May results in the reception of vertical sun’s rays by South India. Thus there is a steady rise in temperature from the equator.
• Hence, Tamil Nadu located to the south of Tropic of Cancer, experiences high temperature. Generally the temperature varies from 30°C to more than 40°C.
• During this season particularly in the month of May, southern part of the state receives some rainfall from pre-monsoon showers (Mango/Blossom showers) and some parts experience convectional rainfall.

Winter Seasons:

• During January and February, the vertical rays of the sun fall between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Equator. Hence, Tamil Nadu and India on the whole receive slanting rays from the sun.
• So, the weather is slightly cooler during these months. The difference between summer and winter temperature is not very high. Winter temperature in Tamil Nadu varies from 15°C to 25°C. However, in the hill stations, the winter temperature drops below 5°C occasionally.
• Some valleys in the Nilgiris record even 0°C. This drop in temperature leads to the formation of thick mist and frost. This season is practically dry.

Question 37.
What are the Duties and functions of Prime Minister of India.
Answer:
Duties and functions of the Prime Minister are given below

• The Prime Minister decides the rank of his ministers and distributes various departments among them.
• He decides the dates and the agenda of the meeting of the Cabinet which he presides.
• He supervises the work of various ministers.
• The Prime Minister acts as a link between the President and the Council of Ministers.
• He is the leader of the nation and the chief spokesperson of the country.
• He is the head of the Cabinet and other Ministers are his colleagues.
• As the leader of the nation, the Prime Minister represents our nation at all international conferences like the commonwealth etc.

Question 38.
Point out the basic concepts of India’s foreign policy.
Answer:

• Preservation of national interest.
• Achievement of world peace.
• Disarmament
• Fostering cordial relationship with other countries.
• Solving conflicts by peaceful means.
• Independence of thought and action as per the principle of NAM.
• Equality in conducting international relations.
• Anti-Colonialism, anti-imperialism anti- racism.

Question 39.
What are the limitations of the Gross Domestic Product?
The GDP is the most widely used measure of the state of the economy. While appreciating its usefulness, we should be aware of some of its limitations –
(i) Several important goods and services are left out of the GDP – The GDP includes only the goods and services sold in the market. Clean air, which is vital for a healthy life, has no market value and is left out of the GDP.

(ii) GDP measures only quantity but not quality – In the 1970’s schools and banks were not allowed to use ball point pens – because of their poor quality. Since then, not only has these been a substantial increase in the quantity of ballpoint pens produced in India but their quality has also improved a lot. The improvement in quality of goods is very important but it is not captured by the GDP.

(iii) GDP does not tell us about the way income is distributed in the country – The GDP of a country may be growing rapidly but income may be distributed unequally that only a small percentage of people may be benefiting from it.

(iv) GDP does not tell us about the kind of life people are living – A high level of per capita real GDP can go hand – in – hand with very low health condition of people, an undemocratic political system, high pollution and high suicide rate.

Question 40.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Role of an Entrepreneur:
Entrepreneurs play a most important role in the economic growth and development of a country’s economy.

• They promote development of industries and help to remove regional disparities by industrialising rural and backward areas.
• They help the country to increase the GDP and Per Capita Income.
• They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of income and wealth.
• They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle savings of the citizens and country’s export trade.
• Entrepreneurs provide large-scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and professionals and work in an environment of changing technology and try to maximise profits by innovations.
• They enable the people to avail better quality goods, at lower prices, which results in the improvement of their standard of living.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1905-1920
1905 – Partition of Bengal / Swadeshi Movement
1906  – Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company was started
1916 – Home Rule League / Lucknow Pact
1917 – Champaran Satyagraha
1918 – Kheda Satyagraha
1919 – Rowlatt Act, Jalianwala Bagh Massacre
1920 – Khilafat Movement / Non Co-operation Movement

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Ho Chi Minh
(i) Where was Ho Chi Minh born?
(ii) How did Ho Chi Minh become a popular Vietnam Nationalist?
(iii) What do you know of Ho Chi Minh’s Revolutionary Youth Movement?
(iv) How was the League for Independence called in Indo-China?
Answer:
(a) Ho Chi Minh:
(i) Ho Chi Minh was bom in Tongking in 1890.
(ii) Ho Chi Minh went to Europe at the age of twenty one. From London he went to Paris and in the Paris Peace conference, he lobbied for the independence of Vietnam. He wrote several articles in newspapers. His pamphlet, French Colonialism on Trial, made him well known as a Vietnam nationalist.
(iii) In 1925, when Ho Chi Minh was in canton, he founded the Revolutionary Youth Movement. It was an organisation for the training of Vietnamese nationalists.
(iv) The League for Independence in Vietnam was called Viet Minh.

(b) Organs of the EU
(i) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
(if) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
(iii) What is the function of the European commission?
(iv) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
(b) Organs of the EU:
(i) The European Parliament
(ii) Luxemburg
(iii) It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.
(iv) The European central bank.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA.
(i) How did Subhas Chandra Bose reach Japan?
(ii) Who headed the women wing of Indian National Army?
(iii) How did Subash Chandra Bose reorganize the INA?
(iv) Name the slogan provided by Subash Chandra Bose.
Answer:
(c) Subash Chandra Bose and INA:
(i) First he went to Germany, from there he made his way to Japan on a submarine and took control of the Indian National Army.
(ii) Lakshmi Sahgal headed the women wing of the Indian National Army.
(iii) Bose reorganised the INA into three brigade: Gandhi Brigade, Nehru Brigade and a women’s brigade named after Rani Lakshmi Bai.
(iv) He gave the slogan ‘Dilli Chalo’. ‘

(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu.
(i) List a few revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Why did Subramania Bharathi moved to Pondicherry?
(tii) Name a few of the revolutionary literature?
(iv) What did Vanchinathan do?
Answer:
(d) Revolutionary Movement in Tamil Nadu:
(i) Some revolutionaries in Tamil Nadu were M.P.T. Acharya, V.V.S. Iyer and T.S.S. Rajan.
(ii) Subramania Bharati went to Pondicherry to escape imprisonment after the Tirunelveli uprising in 1908. Pondicherry was under French rule.
(iii) Some revolutionary literature includes India, Vijaya, and Suryodayam, which came out of Pondicherry.
(iv) Vanchinathan shot dead by Robert W.D ’E. Ashe, the collector of Tirunelveli, at Maniyachi junction on 17th June 1911. He shot himself after that.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Egypt
(ii) Finland
(iii) Hungary
(iv) Syria
(v) Great Britain
Answer:

Map for Q.44
(i) Ladakh range
(ii) Eastern Ghats
(iii) River Narmada
(iv) Chotanagpur Plateau
(v) South west Monsoon Winds
(vi) Coffee growing area
(vii) Desert Soil
(viii) Damodar dam
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Deciduous forest
(iii) Thanjavur
(iv) Sugarcane growing area
(v) Bauxite area
(vi) Lime stone area
(vii) Rameshwaram
(viii) Coimbatore airport
Answer: