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Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 4 Theoretical Concepts of Operating System

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Operating system is a:
(a) application software
(b) hardware
(c) system software
(d) component
Answer:
(c) system software

Question 2.
Identify the usage of operating systems:
(a) easy interaction between the human and computer
(b) controlling input & output Devices
(c) managing use of main memory
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of an Operating System?
(a) Process Management
(b) Memory Management
(c) Security management
(d) Complier Environment
Answer:
(d) Complier Environment

Question 4.
Which of the following OS is a Commercially licensed Operating system?
(a) Windows
(b) UBUNTU
(c) FEDORA
(d) REDHAT
Answer:
(a) Windows

Question 5.
Which of the following Operating systems support Mobile Devices?
(a) Windows 7
(b) Linux
(c) BOSS
(d) iOS
Answer:
(d) iOS

Question 6.
File Management manages:
(a) files
(b) folders
(c) directory systems
(d) All the Above
Answer:
(d) All the Above

Question 7.
Interactive Operating System provides:
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)
(b) Data Distribution
(c) Security Management
(d) Real Time Processing
Answer:
(a) Graphics User Interface (GUI)

Question 8.
Android is a:
(a) Mobile Operating
(b) Open Source
(c) Developed by Google
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
Which of the following refers to Android operating system’s version?
(a) JELLY BEAN
(b) UBUNTU
(c) OS/2
(d) MITTIKA
Answer:
(a) JELLY BEAN

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the advantages of memory management in Operating System?
Answer:
Memory Management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory and assigning memory block (space) to various running programs to optimize overall computer performance. The Memory management involves the allocation of specific memory blocks to individual programs based on user demands. At the application level, memory management ensures the availability of adequate memory for each running program at all times.

Question 2.
What is the multi-user Operating system?
Answer:
Multi-user operating system is used in computers and laptops that allow same data and applications to be accessed by multiple users at the same time. The users can also communicate with each other. Eg: Windows, Linux and UNIX.

Question 3.
What is a GUI?
Answer:
The Graphical User Interface is a type of user interface that allows users to interact with electronic devices through graphical icons and visual indicators such as secondary notation, instead of text-based user interfaces, typed command labels or text navigation.

Question 4.
List out different distributions of Linux operating system?
Answer:
Different distributions of Linux are Linux Mint, Fedora, Ubuntu, BOSS, RedHat.

Question 5.
What are the security management features available ip Operating System?
Answer:
The Operating System provides three levels of securities to the user end. They are

1. File access level
2. System level
3. Network level.

Question 6.
What is multi-processing?
Answer:
This is a one of the features of Operating System. It has two or more processors for a single running process (job). Processing takes place in parallel is known as parallel processing. Each processor works on different parts of the same task or on two or more different tasks.

Question 7.
What are the different Operating Systems used in computer?
Answer:
Some of the popular Operating Systems used in personal computers and laptops are Windows, UNIX and Linux. The mobile devices mostly use Android and iOS as mobile OS.

III. Explain In Brief.

Question 1.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of Time-sharing features?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. Provides the advantage of quick response.
2. Avoids duplication of software
3. Reduces CPU idle time.

Disadvantages:

1. Problem of data communication and security.
2. Problem of reliability.

Question 2.
Explain and List out examples of mobile operating system?
Answer:
Mobile devices such as phones, tablets and MP3 players are different from desktop and laptop computers and hence they need special Operating Systems. Examples of mobile Operating Systems are Apple iOS and Google Android. Operating systems for mobile devices generally are not as fully featured as those made for desktop and laptop computers and they are not able to run all software.

Android:
It is a mobile operating system developed by Google, based on Linux and designed primarily for touch screen mobile devices such as smart phones and tablets. Google has further developed Android TV for televisions, Android Auto for cars and Android Wear for wrist watches, each with a specialized PCs and other electronic gadgets.

Question 3.
What are the differences between Windows and Linux Operating system?
Answer:
Windows:

1. Microsoft Windows is a family of proprietary operating system.
2. It is a user interface.
3. Windows can only be modified by the company that owns it.

Linux:

1. Linux is a family of open-source operating system.
2. It is a command line access.
3. It can be modified and distributed by anyone around the world.

Question 4.
Explain the process manangement algorithms in Operating System?
Answer:
The following algorithms are mainly used to allocate the job (process) to the processor.

1. FIFO
2. SJF
3. Round Robin
4. Based on Priority.

1. FIFO (First In First Out) Scheduling:
This algorithm is based on queuing technique. Assume that a student is standing in a queue (Row) to get grade sheet from his/her teacher. The other student who stands first in the queue gets his/her grade sheet first and leaves from the queue (Row). Followed by the next student in the-queue gets it corrected and so on.

This is the basic logic of the FIFO algorithm.
Technically, the process that enters the queue first is executed first by the CPU, followed by the next and so on. The processes are executed in the order of the queue (row).

2. SJF (Shortest Job First) Scheduling:
This algorithm works based on the size of the job being executed by the CPU.
Consider two jobs A and B.
(a) A = 6 kilo bytes
(b) B = 9 kilo bytes
First the job “A” will be assigned and then job “B” gets its turn.

3. Round Robin Scheduling:
The Round Robin (RR) scheduling algorithm is designed especially for time sharing systems. Jobs (processes) are assigned and processor time in a circular method. For example take three jobs A, B, C. First the job A is assigned to CPU then job B and job C and then again A, B and C and so on.

4. Based On Priority:
The given job (process) is assigned based on a Priority. The/job which has higher priority is more important than other jobs. Take two jobs A and B. Let the priority of A be 5 and priority B be 7.
Job B is assigned to the processor before job A.

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
Explain the concept of a Distributed Operating System?
Answer:
This feature takes care of the data and application that are stored and processed on multiple physical locations across the world over the digital network (internet/intranet).

The Distributed Operating System is used to access shared data and files that reside in any machine around the world. The user can handle the data from different locations. The users can access as if it is available on their own computer. The advantages of distributed Operating System are as follows:

1. A user at one location can make use of all the resources available at another location over the network.
2. Many computer resources can be added easily in the network
3. Improves the interaction with the customers and clients.
4. Reduces the load on the host computer.

Question 2.
Explain the main purpose of an operating system?
Answer:
In earlier day’s user had to design the application to die internal structure of the hardware. Operating system was needed to enable the user to design the application without the knowledge of the computer’s internal structure and hardware system.
Nowadays, user needs an interface to interact with the computer and controls the execution of all kinds of programs without knowing the intemals-of the hardware.
Usage of Operating system:

1. Easy interaction between the human and computer.
2. Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on.
3. Loading and scheduling users program.
4. Controlling input and output devices.
5. Managing use of main memory.
6. Providing security to users program.

Question 3.
Explain advantages and disadvantages of open source operating systems?
Answer:
Advantages:

1. It’s cheaper.
2. It is high quality.
3. Open source operating system is very reliable.
4. Help us become more flexible.
5. Creativity.

Disadvantages:

1. Vulnerable to malicious users.
2. It is not always user-friendly.
3. Personalized support is rarely available.
4. institutional and organizational procurement process affecting the decision making process.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Theoretical Concepts of Operating System Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
…………………….. is set of instructions that perform specific test.
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Instruction
(d) Data
Answer:
(a) Software

Question 2.
There are types of software.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(a) 2

Question 3.
…………………… is a set of programs to perform specific task.
(a) Software
(b) System software
(c) Application software
(d) Hardware
Answer:
(c) Application software

Question 4.
………………….. is an application software.
(a) Linux
(b) Unix
(c) MS-Word
(d) Windows
Answer:
(c) MS-Word

Question 5.
………………….. is an system software:
(a) Windows
(b) MS-Word
(c) MS-Excell
(d) Lotus
Answer:
(a) Windows

Question 6.
An operating system allows only a single user to perform a task at a time is called as a:
(a) single user operating system
(b) multi-user operating system
(c) time sharing
(d) distributed operating system
Answer:
(a) single user operating system

Question 7.
The operating system provides ……………………… levels of securities to the end user.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) six
(d) three
Answer:
(d) three

Question 8.
The expansion of FIFO is ……………………….
(a) First In First Out
(b) Fast in Fast Out
(c) Fast In First Out
(d) First in Fast Out
Answer:
(a) First In First Out

Question 9.
The expansion of SJF is ……………………..
(a) Slower Job First
(b) Slower Job Front
(c) Shortest Job First
(d) Shortest Job Front
Answer:
(a) Slower Job First

Question 10.
………………… Security is offered by the password in a multi-user environment:
(a) System level
(b) File level
(c) Network level
(d) Software level
Answer:
(a) System level

Question 11.
The Linux operating system was originated in the year:
(a) 1991
(b) 1997
(c) 1980
(d) 1993
Answer:
(a) 1991

Question 12.
………………….. is an example for a single user operating system:
(a) Windows
(b) Linux
(c) Unix
(d) MS-Dos
Answer:
(d) MS-Dos

Question 13.
………………….. management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory:
(a) Memory
(b) Process
(c) Security
(d) Fault tolerance
Answer:
(a) Memory

Question 14.
The …………………… operating system is used to access shared data and files that residue in any machine around the world:
(a) multi user
(b) single user
(c) distributed
(d) time sharing
Answer:
(c) distributed

Question 15.
The scheduling algorithm is desinged especially for time sharing system:
(a) FIFO
(b) SJF
(c) Round Robin
(d) Based on priority
Answer:
(c) Round Robin

Question 16.
iOS was created and developed by:
(a) Apple Inc
(b) IBM
(c) Apple iOS
(d) Microsoft
Answer:
(a) Apple Inc

Question 17.
…………………. is a computer related mistake:
(a) Data
(b) Program
(c) File
(d) Error
Answer:
(d) Error

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a software?
Answer:
A software is set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.

Question 2.
Mention the types of software?
Answer:
Software is classified into two types:

1. Application Software
2. System Software.

Question 3.
Define application software?
Answer:
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-Word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more.

Question 4.
Define system software?
Answer:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 5.
Define OS?
Answer:
An Operating System (OS) is a system software which serves as an interface between a user and a computer.

Question 6.
Write the key features of the operating system?
Answer:
The key features of the operating system are:

1. User Interface
2. Memory Management
3. Process Management
4. Security Management
5. Fault Tolerance
6. File Management.

Question 7.
What is the main objective of memory management?
Answer:
The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.

Question 8.
What is Garbage collection?
Answer:
Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory is called Garbage collection.

Question 9.
How the processes are classified?
Answer:
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code
2. User Processes which is execute by user code

Question 10.
Write the resources of a process?
Answer:
A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a software?
Answer:
A software is set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.

Question 2.
Mention the types of software?
Answer:
Software is classified into two types:

1. Application Software
2. System Software.

Question 3.
Define application software?
Answer:
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-Word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more.

Question 4.
Define system software?
Answer:
System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 5.
Define OS?
Answer:
An Operating System (OS) is a system software which serves as an interface between a user and a computer.

Question 6.
Write the key features of the operating system?
Answer:
The key features of the operating system are:

1. User Interface
2. Memory Management
3. Process Management
4. Security Management
5. Fault Tolerance
6. File Management.

Question 7.
What is the main objective of memory management?
Answer:
The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.

Question 8.
What is Garbage collection?
Answer:
Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory is called Garbage collection.

Question 9.
How the processes are classified?
Answer:
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code
2. User Processes which is execute by user code

Question 10.
Write the resources of a process?
Answer:
A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.

Question 11.
What is Round Robin Scheduling?
Answer:
The Round Robin (RR) scheduling algorithm is designed especially for time sharing systems. Jobs (processes) are assigned and processor time in a circular method. For example take three jobs A, B, C. First the job A is assigned to CPU then job B and job C and then again A, B and C and so on.

Question 12.
What is meant by fault tolerance?
Answer:
The Operating Systems should be robust. When there is a fault, the Operating System should not crash, instead the Operating System have fault tolerance capabilities and retain the existing state of system.

Question 13.
List the prominent operating system/
Answer:
Prominent OS are as follows:

1. UNIX
2. Microsoft Windows
3. Linux
4. iOS
5. Android

Question 14.
What is Unix?
Answer:
UNIX is a family of multitasking, multi-user operating systems that derive originally from AT&T Bell Labs, where the development began in the 1970s by Ken Thompson and Dennis Ritchie.

Question 15.
What is iOS?
Answer:
iOS (formerly iPhone OS) is a mobile Operating System created and developed by Apple Inc., exclusively for its hardware. It is the Operating System that presently powers many of the company’s mobile devices, including the iPhone, iPad and iPod Touch. It is the second most popular mobile Operating System globally after Android.

Question 16.
What is meant by Error Log File?
Answer:
The user interface should reduce number of errors committed by the user with little practice the user should be in a position to avoid errors (Error Log File).

Question 17.
What is process?
Answer:
A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer. A word-processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process. A system task, such as sending output to a printer or screen, can also be called as a Process.

Question 18.
Expand the following FAT and NTFS?
Answer:
FAT – File Allocation Table.
NTFS – NeXT generation File System.

III. Explain in Brief.

Question 1.
Write the uses of operating system?
Answer:
The main use of Operating System is –

1. To ensure that a computer can be used do to exact if what the user wants it do.
2. Easy interaction between the users and computers.
3. Starting computer operation automatically when power is turned on (Booting).
4. Controlling Input and Output Devices.
5. Manage the utilization of main memory.
6. Providing security to user programs.

Question 2.
Mention the types of operating system?
Answer:

1. Single user operating system
2. Multi-user operating system
3. Multi processing operating system
4. Time sharing operating system
5. Real time operating system
6. Distributed operating system
7. Interactive operating system.

Question 3.
How the operating system provides securities to the end user?
The Operating System provides three levels of securities to the user end.
They are

1. File access level
2. System level
3. Network level.

(i) In order to access the files created by other people, you should have the access permission. Permissions can either be granted by the creator of the file or bythe administrator of the system.

(ii) System level security is offered by the password in a multi-user environment.
Both windows and Linux offer the password facility.

(iii) Network security is an indefinable one. So people from all over the world try to provide such a security.

Question 4.
Write short notes on time-sharing?
Answer:
This is a one of the features of Operating Systems. It allows execution of multiple tasks or processes concurrently. For each task a fixed time is allocated. This division of time is called Time- sharing. The processor switches rapidly between various processes after a time is elapsed or the process is completed.

For example assume that there are three processes called PI, P2, P3 and time allocated for each process 30, 40, 50 minutes respectively. If the process PI completes within 20 minutes then processor takes the next process P2 for the execution. If the process P2 could not complete within 40 minutes, then the current process P2 will be paused and switch over to the next process P3.

Question 5.
Write the responsibilities of operating system in connection with memory management?
Answer:
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities in connection with memory management:

1. Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
2. Determining which processes (or parts of processes) and data to move in and out of memory.
3. Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage Collection)

Question 6.
Write the responsibilities of operating system associated with the process management?
Answer:
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities associated with the process management:

1. Scheduling processes and threads on the CPUs.
2. Creating and deleting both user and system processes.
3. Suspending and resuming processes.
4. Providing mechanisms for process synchronization.
5. Providing mechanisms for process communication.

Question 7.
Write short note on file management?
Answer:
File management is an important function of OS which handles the data storage techniques. The operating System manages the files, folders and directory systems on a computer. Any type of data in a computer is stored in the form of files and directories/folders through File Allocation Table (FAT). The FAT stores general information about files like filename, type (text or binary), size, starting address and access mode (sequential/indexed/indexed-sequential/direct/relative).

The file manager of the operating system helps to create, edit, copy, allocate memory to the files and also updates the FAT. The OS also takes care of the files that are opened with proper access rights to read or edit them. There are few other file management techniques available like Next Generation File System (NTFS) and ext2 (Linux).

Question 8.
What are the advantages of distributed operating system?
Answer:
The advantages of distributed Operatirfg System are as follows:

1. A user at one location can make use of all the resources available at another location over the network.
2. Many computer resources can be added easily in the network
3. Improves the interaction with the customers and clients.
4. Reduces the load on the host computer.

Question 9.
Write short note on Linux?
Answer:
Linux is a family of open-source operating systems. It can be modified and distributed by anyone around the world. This is different from proprietary software like Windows, which can only be modified by the company that owns it. The main advantage of Linux operating system is that it is open source. There are many versions and their updates. Most of the servers run on Linux because it is easy to customize.

There are a few different distributions of Linux, like Ubuntu, Mint, Fedora, RedHat, Debian, Google’s Android, Chrome OS, and Chromium OS which are popular among users.

The Linux operating system was originated in 1991, as a project of “Linus Torvalds” from a university student of Finland. He posted information about his project on a news group for computer students and programmers. He received support and assistance from a large pool of volunteers who succeeded in creating a complete and functional Operating System. Linux is similar to the UNIX operating system.

Linux distributions:
Linux mint, Fedora, Ubuntu, BOSS, Redhat.

Question 10.
Write in detail about memory management?
Answer:
Memory Management is the process of controlling and coordinating computer’s main memory and assigning memory block (space) to various running programs to optimize overall computer performance. The Memory management involves the allocation of specific memory blocks to individual programs based on user demands. At the application level, memory management ensures the availability of adequate memory for each running program at all times.

The objective of Memory Management process is to improve both the utilization of the CPU and the speed of the computer’s response to its users via main memory. For these reasons the computers must keep several programs in main memory that associates with many different Memory Management schemes.
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities in connection with memory management:

• Keeping track of which portion of memory are currently being used and who is using them.
• Determining which processes (or parts of processes) and data to move in and out of memory.
• Allocation and de-allocation of memory blocks as needed by the program in main memory. (Garbage Collection)

Question 11.
How will you classify the operating system?
Answer:

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
What is a software? Explain the types of software?
Answer:
A software is set of instructions that perform specific task. It interacts basically with the hardware to generate the desired output.

Types of Software:
Software is classified into two types:
(i) Application Software
(ii) System Software.
Application software is a set of programs to perform specific task. For example MS-word is an application software to create text document and VLC player is familiar application software to play audio, video files and many more. System software is a type of computer program that is designed to run the computer’s hardware and application programs. For example Operating System and Language Processor.

Question 2.
Explain in detail the User Interface (Ul) in operating system?
Answer:
User interface is one of the significant feature in Operating System. The only way that user can make interaction with a computer. If the computer interface is not user-friendly, the user slowly reduces the computer usage from their normal life. This is a main reason for key success of GUI (Graphical User Interface) based Operating System. The GUI is a window based system with a pointing device to direct I/O, choose from menus, make selections and a keyboard to enter text.Its vibrant colours attract the user very easily. Beginners are impressed by the help and pop up window message boxes. Icons are playing vital role of the particular application.

Now Linux distribution is also available as GUI based Operating System. The following points are considered when User Interface is designed for an application.

1. The user interface should enable the user to retain this expertise for a longer time.
2. The user interface should also satisfy the customer based on their needs.
3. The user interface should save user’s precious time. Create graphical elements like Menus,Window,Tabs, Icons and reduce typing work will be an added advantage of the Operating System.
4. The ultimate aim of any product is to satisfy the customer. The User Interface is also to satisfy the customer.
5. The user interface should reduce number of errors committed by the user with little practice the user should be in a position to avoid errors (Error Log File).

Question 3.
Explain the process management?
Answer:
Process management is function that includes creating and deleting processes and providing mechanisms for processes to communicate and synchronize with each other.
A process is the unit of work (program) in a computer. A word-processing program being run by an individual user on a computer is a process. A system task, such as sending output to a printer or screen, can also be called as a Process.
A computer consists of a collection of processes, they are classified as two categories:

1. Operating System processes which is executed by system code
2. User Processes which is execute by user code

All these processes can potentially execute concurrently on a single CPU.
A process needs certain resources including CPU time, memory, files and I/O devices to finish its task.
The Operating System is responsible for the following activities associated with the process management:

1. Scheduling processes and threads on the CPUs
2. Creating and deleting both user and system processes
3. Suspending and resuming processes
4. Providing mechanisms for process synchronization
5. Providing mechanisms for process communication.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Computers

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Computers Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
First generation computers used:
(a) vacuum tubes
(b) transistors
(c) integrated circuits
(d) microprocessors
Answer:
(a) vacuum tubes

Question 2.
Name the volatile memory:
(a) ROM
(b) PROM
(c) RAM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(c) RAM

Question 3.
Identify the output device:
(a) keyboard
(b) memory
(c) monitor
(d) mouse
Answer:
(c) monitor

Question 4.
Identify the input device:
(a) printer
(b) mouse
(c) plotter
(d) projector
Answer:
(b) mouse

Question 5.
……………………… output device is used for printing building plan, flex board, etc.
(a) Thermal printer
(b) Plotter
(c) Dot matrix
(d) Inkjet printer
Answer:
(b) Plotter

Question 6.
In ATM machines, which one of the following is used to:
(a) touch screen
(b) speaker
(c) monitor
(d) printer
Answer:
(a) touch screen

Question 7.
When a system restarts ………………………. which type of booting is used?
(a) Warm booting
(b) Cold booting
(c) Touch boot
(d) Real boot
Answer:
(a) Warm booting

Question 8.
Expand POST:
(a) Post on self Test
(b) Power on Software Test
(c) Power on Self Test
(d) Power on Self Text
Answer:
(c) Power on Self Test

Question 9.
Which one of the following is the main memory?
(a) ROM
(b) RAM
(c) Flash drive
(d) Hard disk
Answer:
(b) RAM

Question 10.
Which generation of computer used IC’s?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(d) Fourth

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a computer?
Answer:
“A Computer is an electronic device that takes raw data (unprocessed) as an input from the user and processes it under the control of a set of instructions (called program), produces a result (output), and saves it for future use.”

Question 2.
Distinguish between data and information?
Answer:
Data:
Data is defined as an unprocessed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation or processing.
Eg: 134, 16, ‘Kavitha’ ‘C’ are data. This will not give any meaningful message.

Information:
Information is a collection of facts from which conclusions may be drawn.
Eg: Kavitha is 16 years old.

Question 3.
What are the components of a CPU?
Answer:
The CPU has three components which are Control Unit, Arithmetic and Logic Unit (ALU) and Memory Unit.

Question 4.
What is the function of an ALU?
Answer:
The ALU is a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations. The result of an operation is stored in internal memory of CPU. The logical operations of ALU promote the decision-making ability of a computer.

Question 5.
Write the functions of control unit?
Answer:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

Question 6.
What is the function of memory?
Answer:
The memory unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory. The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

Question 7.
Differentiate Input and output unit?
Answer:
Input unit:
Input unit is used to feed data to the computer, initially which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing.
Eg: Keyboard, Mouse, etc.

Output unit:
An output unit is any hardware component that conveys information in users understandable form.
Eg: Printer, Plotter etc.

Question 8.
Distinguish Primary and Secondary memory?
Answer:
Primary memory:

1. It is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
2. It is a volatile memory that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off.
3. Eg: Random Access Memory (RAM)

Secondary memory:

1. It is used to store the data permanently.
2. It is a non-volatile memory that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off.
3. Eg: Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of a computer?
Answer:
The general characteristics of computers are speed, memory capacity, accuracy, diligence, representativeness, reliability, endurance and versatility.

Question 2.
Write the applications of computer?
Answer:
The applications of computers are business, education, marketing, banking, insurance, communication, health care, military, engineering design.

Question 3.
What is an input device? Give two examples?
Answer:
The input device is the component through which data and instructions are provided to the computer. Eg: Keyboard and mouse.

Question 4.
Name any three output devices?
Answer:
The output device is the component which delivers the data and informtion proceed by the CPU. Eg: Monitor, plotter, printers.

Question 5.
Differentiate optical and Laser mouse?
Answer:
Optical Mouse:

1. It uses Red, Blue or Green led.
2. It has three buttons.
3. It is less sensitive and sensitive towards surface.

Laser Mouse:

1. It use only infrared led.
2. It has as many as 12 buttons and can be programmed by user.
3. It is highly sensitive and able to. work on any hard surface.

Question 6.
Write short note on impact printer?
Answer:
These printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on miflti-part (using carbon papers) by using mechanical pressure. Eg: Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers.

A Dot matrix printer that prints using a fixed number of pins or wires. Each dot is produced by a tiny metal rod, also called a “wire” or “pin”, which works by the power of a tiny electromagnet or solenoid, either directly or through a set of small levers. It generally prints one line of text at a time. The printing speed of these printers varies from 30 to 1550 CPS (Character Per Second).

Line matrix printers use a fixed print head for printing. Basically, it prints a page-wide line of dots. But it builds up a line of text by printing lines of dots. Line printers are capable of printing much more than 1000 Lines Per Minute, resulting in thousands of pages per hour. These printers also uses mechanical pressure to print on multi-part (using carbon papers).

Question 7.
Write the characteristics of sixth generation?
Answer:

1. Parallel and Distributed computing.
2. Computers have become smarter, faster and smaller.
3. Development of robotics.
4. Natural Language Processing.
5. Development of Voice Recognition Software.

Question 8.
Write the significant features of monitor?
Answer:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. It looks like a TV, Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels. Monitors may either be Monochrome which display text or images in Black and White or can be color, which display results in multiple colors.

There are many types of monitors available such as CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light Emitting Diodes). The monitor works with the VGA (Video Graphics Array) card. The video graphics card helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen. It acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor. Usually the recent motherboards incorporate built-in video card.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the basic components of a computer with a neat diagram?
Answer:
The computer is the combination of hardware and software. Hardware is the physical component of a computer like motherboard, memory devices, monitor, keyboard etc., while software is the set of programs or instructions. Both hardware and software together make the computer system function.

Input device:
Input unit is used to feed any form of data to the computer, which can be stored in the memory unit for further processing. Eg: Keyboard, mouse, etc.

Central processing unit (CPU):
CPU is the major component which interprets and executes software instructions. It also control the operation of all other components such as memory, input and output units. It accepts binary data as input, process the data according to the instructions and provide the result as output. The CPU has three components which are Control unit, Arithmetic and logic unit (ALU) and Memory unit.

(i) Arithmetic and Logic Unit:
The ALU is a part of the CPU where various computing functions are performed on data. The ALU performs arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division and logical operations. The result of an operation is stored in internal memory of CPU. The logical operations of ALU promote the decision making ability of a computer.

(ii) Control Unit:
The control unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices. It also controls the entire operation of a computer.

Output Unit:
An Output Unit is any hardware component that conveys information to users in an understandable form. Example: Monitor, Printer etc.

Memory Unit:
The Memory Unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

(i) The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory.

(ii) The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

Question 2.
Discuss the various generations of computers?
Answer:
Growth in the computer industry is determined by the development in technology. Based on various stages of development, computers can be divided into different generations.

Question 3.
Explain the following:

1. Inkjet Printer
2. Multimedia projector
3. Bar code
4. QR code Reader.

1. Inkjet Printer:
inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

2. Multimedia projector:
Multimedia projectors are used to produce computer output on a big screen. These are used to display presentations in meeting halls or in classrooms.

3. Bar code / QR code Reader:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

4. QR (Quick response) Code:
The QR code is the two dimension bar code which can be read by a camera and processed to interpert the image.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Introduction to Computers Additional Important Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
………………….. is the father of computer.
(a) John Napier
(b) William Oughtred
(c) Blaise Pascal
(d) Charles Babbage
Answer:
(d) Charles Babbage

Question 2.
The expansion of ALU is:
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit
(b) Arithmetic Long Unit
(c) Arithmetic Law Unit
(d) Arithmetic Logo Unit
Answer:
(a) Arithmetic Logic Unit

Question 3.
The first generation was in the year:
(a) 1942-1955
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1964-1975
(d) 1975-present
Answer:
(a) 1942-1955

Question 4.
The first generation computers used:
(a) assembly language
(b) machine language
(c) high level language
(d) word processor language
Answer:
(b) machine language

Question 5.
……………………. used in second generation computers.
(a) Punched cards
(b) Plotter
(c) Printers
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(a) Punched cards

Question 6.
Second generation computers used:
(a) vaccum tube
(b) transistor
(c) integrated circuit
(d) micro processor
Answer:
(b) transistor

Question 7.
Batch processing and multi programming operating system were used in:
(a) first generation
(b) second generation
(c) third generation
(d) fourth generation
Answer:
(b) second generation

Question 8.
The second generation was in the year:
(a) 1942-1955
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1964-1975
(d) 1975-1980
Answer:
(b) 1955-1964

Question 9.
Third generation computers used:
(a) vaccum tube
(b) transistor
(c) integrated circuit
(d) microprocessor
Answer:
(c) integrated circuit

Question 10.
The third generation was in the year:
(a) 1955 – 1964
(b) 1964 – 1975
(c) 1975 – 1980
(d) 1942 – 1955
Answer:
(b) 1964- 1975

Question 11.
High level language appeared in:
(a) first generation
(b) second generation
(c) third generation
(d) fourth generation
Answer:
(c) third generation

Question 12.
Fourth generation computers used:
(a) vaccum tube
(b) transistor
(c) integrated circuit
(d) microprocessor
Answer:
(d) microprocessor

Question 13.
Portable computers are introduced in generation.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 14.
Fourth generation computers was in the year:
(a) 1942-1955
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1964-1975
(d) 1975-1980
Answer:
(d) 1975-1980

Question 15.
Microcomputer series such as IBM and APPLE developed in ………………………. generation.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(d) fourth

Question 16.
Fifth generation was in the year:
(a) 1980-1990
(b) 1955-1964
(c) 1980 – present
(d) 1942-1955
Answer:
(c) 1980 – present

Question 17.
Computers can recognize images and graphs in:
(a) first generation
(b) second generation
(c) fourth generation
(d) fifth generation
Answer:
(d) fifth generation

Question 18.
Introduction of Artificial intelligence is in ………………….. generation.
(a) sixth
(b) third
(c) fourth
(d) fifth
Answer:
(d) fifth

Question 19.
…………………….. is in the sixth generation.
(a) Introduction of portable computers
(b) Introduction of artificial intelligence
(c) Development of robotics
(d) Introduction of word processors
Answer:
(c) Development of robotics

Question 20.
Sixth generation computers are:
(a) batch processing
(b) parallel processing
(c) natural language processing
(d) natural networks
Answer:
(c) natural language processing

Question 21.
Voice Recognition is in the generation.
(a) sixth
(b) fourth
(c) fifth
(d) third
Answer:
(a) sixth

Question 22.
……………………….. is the ability of a computer program to understand human language.
(a) NLP
(b) CPU
(c) ANN
(d) AI
Answer:
(a) NLP

Question 23.
……………………. is a component of artificial intelligence.
(a) CPU
(b) ANN
(C) NLP
(d) ALU
Answer:
(C) NLP

Question 24.
……………………. deals with the design, construction, operation and use of robots.
(a) NLP
(b) Robotics
(c) AI
(d) ANN
Answer:
(b) Robotics

Question 25.
…………………… is the study and application of extremely small things.
(a) Nanotechnology
(b) ANN
(c) Natural language processing
(d) Bio Engineering
Answer:
(a) Nanotechnology

Question 26.
…………………… involves the ability to see and to control individual atoms and molecules.
(a) Robotics
(b) Artificial neural networks
(c) Nanotechnology
(d) NLP
Answer:
(c) Nanotechnology

Question 27.
……………………. that applies engineering principles of design and analysis to biological systems and biomedical technologies.
(a) Nanotechnology
(b) Robotics
(c) Bio-engineering
(d) NLP
Answer:
(c) Bio-engineering

Question 28.
……………………… is the term used for rawfacts and figures.
(a) Data
(b) Information
(c) Mother board
(d) Data processing
Answer:
(a) Data

Question 29.
Data represented in useful and meaningful form is:
(a) data processing
(b) information
(c) data
(d) information set
Answer:
(b) information

Question 30.
The conversion of data to information is called:
(a) computer
(b) information
(c) data processing
(d) software
Answer:
(c) data processing

Question 31.
The computer is the combination of:
(a) hardware and software
(b) mother board and memory devices
(c) monitor and keyboard
(d) monitor and CPU
Answer:
(a) hardware and software

Question 32.
…………………. is the physical components of a computer.
(a) Software
(b) Hardware
(c) Mouse
(d) CPU
Answer:
(b) Hardware

Question 33.
……………………. is the set of programs or instructions.
(a) Hard ware
(b) Soft ware
(c) Input – Process – Output
(d) Data
Answer:
(b) Soft ware

Question 34.
Every task given to a computer follows an:
(a) instruction
(b) input – process – output cycle
(c) data
(d) process cycle
Answer:
(b) input – process – output cycle

Question 35.
holds the data and instructions during the processing.
(a) Input unit
(b) Memory unit
(c) Output unit
(d) Storage imit
Answer:
(b) Memory unit

Question 36.
…………………….. is the component through which data and instructions are provided to the computer.
(a) Input device
(b) Output device
(c) Memory xmit
(d) Storage device
Answer:
(a) Input device

Question 37.
…………………. is the heart of the computer.
(a) Memory
(b) Software
(c) Storage devices
(d) CPU
Answer:
(d) CPU

Question 38.
The …………………. is the component which delivers the data and inffomation processed by the CPU.
(a) memory storage device
(b) input device
(c) CPU
(d) output device
Answer:
(d) output device

Question 39.
The expansion of CPU is:
(a) Central Processing Unit
(b) Central Prefix Unit
(c) Central Power Unit
(d) Central Printer Unit
Answer:
(a) Central Processing Unit

Question 40.
…………………….. is the logical machine which interprets and executes software instructions.
(a) CPU
(b) Mother Board
(c) Input Device
(d) Storage Device
Answer:
(a) CPU

Question 41.
The CPU has ………………….. units.
(a) four
(b) five
(c) two
(d) three
Answer:
(d) three

Question 42.
The ……………………… performs arithmetic operations.
(a) ALU
(b) CPU
(c) control unit
(d) memory unit
Answer:
(a) ALU

Question 43.
The ……………………. operations of ALU promote the decision making ability of a computer.
(a) arithmetic
(b) logical
(c) comparison
(d) text
Answer:
(b) logical

Question 44.
The unit controls the flow of data between the CPU, memory and I/O devices.
(a) memory
(b) ALU
(c) CPU
(d) control
Answer:
(d) control

Question 45.
The memory unit is of ………………………. kinds.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) two
Answer:
(d) two

Question 46.
……………………… memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) PROM
(d) EPROM
Answer:
(a) Primary

Question 47.
…………………….. is the most common input device used today.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Scanner
(d) Light Pen
Answer:
(a) Keyboard

Question 48.
……………………….. is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen.
(a) Keyboard
(b) Scanner
(c) Trackball
(d) Mouse
Answer:
(d) Mouse

Question 49.
……………………… are used to enter information directly into the computer’s memory.
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Scanner
(d) Trackball
Answer:
(c) Scanner

Question 50.
…………………… used for computer security equipped with the fingerprint recognition.
(a) Fingerprint scanner
(b) Retinal scanner
(c) Optical character – Reader
(d) Touch Screen
Answer:
(a) Fingerprint scanner

Question 51.
……………………. uses the unique patterns on a person’s retina blood vessels.
(a) Scanners
(b) Finger print scanner
(c) Barcode reader
(d) Retinal scanner
Answer:
(d) Retinal scanner

Question 52.
……………………. is an input device which is used to draw lines or figures on a computer screen.
(a) OCR
(b) Light pen
(c) Mouse
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(b) Light pen

Question 53.
……………………. is a device which detects alpha numeric characters printed or written on a paper.
(a) Optical Character Reader
(b) Light Pen
(c) Scanner
(d) Bar code Reader
Answer:
(a) Optical Character Reader

Question 54.
………………….. reads bar codes and converts them into electric pulses to be processed by a computer.
(a) Scanner
(b) Track Ball
(c) Mouse
(d) Bar Code Reader
Answer:
(d) Bar Code Reader

Question 55.
A ……………………. convert human speech into electrical signals.
(a) digital camera
(b) touch screen
(c) microphone
(d) keyboard
Answer:
(c) microphone

Question 56.
…………………….. converts graphics directly into the digital form.
(a) Microphone
(b) Light pen
(c) Touch screen
(d) Digital Camera
Answer:
(d) Digital Camera

Question 57.
……………………. is a display device that allows the uses to interact with a computer by using the finger.
(a) Microphone
(b) Light pen
(c) Touch screen
(d) Digital Camera
Answer:
(c) Touch screen

Question 58.
…………………….. is a device for signalling by hand.
(a) Keyer
(b) Microphone
(c) Touchscreen
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Touchscreen

Question 59.
…………………… is the most commonly used output device to display the information.
(a) Printer
(b) Monitor
(c) Plotter
(d) Keyer
Answer:
(b) Monitor

Question 60.
……………………. is used to produce graphical output on papers.
(a) Printers
(b) Plotters
(c) Monitor
(d) Scanners
Answer:
(b) Plotters

Question 61.
……………………. are used to print the information on papers.
(a) Plotters
(b) Monitor
(c) Printers
(d) Scanners
Answer:
(c) Printers

Question 62.
Printers are divided into ……………………… main categories.
(a) three
(b) two
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(b) two

Question 63.
The printing speed.of serial dot matrix printers varies from:
(a) 50 to 1000 cps
(b) 100 to 1000 cps
(c) 40 to 1550 cps
(d) 30 to 1550 cps
Answer:
(d) 30 to 1550 cps

Question 64.
Line printers are capable of printing much ……………………… lines per minute.
(a) more than 500
(b) more than 800
(c) more than 100
(d) more than 1000
Answer:
(d) more than 1000

Question 65.
……………………. produces voice output.
(a) Printer
(b) Projector
(c) Speakers
(d) Plotters
Answer:
(c) Speakers

Question 66.
…………………….. is used to produce computer output on a big screen.
(a) Monitor
(b) Multimedia projector
(c) Speakers
(d) Plotters
Answer:
(b) Multimedia projector

Question 67.
Booting process is of types.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) five
Answer:
(a) two

Question 68.
Cold Booting is also called as:
(a) hard booting
(b) soft booting
(c) rough booting
(d) fast booting
Answer:
(a) hard booting

Question 69.
……………………. transfers from hard disk into main memory.
(a) Assembler
(b) Complier
(c) Bootstrap loader
(d) Loader
Answer:
(c) Bootstrap loader

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is a Registers?
Answer:
Registers are the high speed temporary storage locations in the CPU. Although the number of registers varies from computer to computer, there are some registers which are common to all computers.

Question 2.
What type of challenges in natural language processing (NLP) frequently involved?
Answer:
Speech Recognition, Natural Language Understanding and Natural Language Generation.

Question 3.
What is a function of Robotics?
Answer:
Robotics deals with the design, construction, operation and use of robots, as well as computer systems for their control, sensory feedback and processing.

Question 4.
What is Data?
Answer:
Data is defined as an unprocessed collection of raw facts, suitable for communication, interpretation or processing.
Eg: 134, 16 ‘Kavitha’, ‘C’ are data. This will not give any meaningful message.

Question 5.
What is Information?
Answer:
Information is a collection of facts from which conclusions may be drawn. In simple words we can say that data is the raw facts that is proqessed to give meaningful, ordered or structured information. Eg: Kavitha is 16 years old. This information is about Kavitha and conveys some meaning. This conversion of data into information is called data processing.

Question 6.
Write the different types of mouse?
Answer:
Different types of mouse available are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical, Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse,firgonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse.

Question 7.
What is Track Ball?
Answer:
Track ball is similar to the upside- down design of the mouse. The user moves the ball directly, while the device itself remains stationary. The user spins the ball in various directions to navigate the screen movements.

Question 8.
Mention the uses of scanner?
Answer:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

Question 9.
What is the use of plotters?
Answer:
Plotter is an output device that is used to produce graphical output’ on papers. It uses single color or multi color pens to draw pictures.

Question 10.
How the printers are categorized?
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on papers. Printers are divided into two main categories:

1. Impact Printers.
2. Non Impact Printers.

Question 11.
Name the types of Booting process?
Answer:
Booting process is of two types.

1. Cold Booting
2. Warm Booting.

Question 12.
What is meant by Cold Booting?
Answer:
When the system starts from initial state i.e. it is switched on, we call it cold booting or Hard Booting. When the user presses the Power button, the instructions are read from the ROM to initiate the booting process.

Question 13.
What is meant by Warm Booting?
Answer:
When the system restarts or when Reset button is pressed, we call it Warm Booting or Soft Booting. The system does not start from initial state and so all diagnostic tests need not be carried out in this case. There are chances of data loss and system damage as the data might not have been stored properly.

Question 14.
Write the performance of a Retinal Scanner?
Answer:
This performs a retinal scan which is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retinal blood vessels.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is a mouse?
Answer:
Mouse (wired/wireless) is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen. It can be used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer. Some mouse actions are move, click, double click, right click, drag and drop.

Question 2.
What are the variety of mouse available?
Answer:
Variety of mouse available, they are: Mechanical Mouse, Optical and Laser Mouse, Air Mouse, 3D Mouse, Tactile Mouse, Pucks, Ergonomic Mouse and Gaming Mouse. Among all the types, Mechanical and Optical and Laser mouse is very familiar.

Question 3.
What are the two main type of printers? Give example?
Answer:
Printers are used to print the information on papers. Printers are divided into two main categories: (i) Impact Printers and (ii) Non Impact printers
(i) Impact Printers:
These printers print with striking of hammers or pins on ribbon. These printers can print on multi-part (using carbon papers) by using mechanical pressure. Eg: Dot Matrix printers and Line matrix printers are impact printers.

(ii) Non-Impact Printers:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic and laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers is better than Impact printers. Eg: Laser printers and Inkjet printers are non-impact printers.

Question 4.
What is the classification of memory?
Answer:
The Memory Unit is of two kinds which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute.
Eg: RAM The secondary memory is used to permanently store the data. Eg: Hard disk, CD-ROM

Question 5.
What is boot sequence? (or) Write the process of Booting?
Answer:
An Opertaing System (OS) is a basic software that makes the computer to work. When a computer is switched on, there is no information in its RAM.At the same time, in ROM, the pre-written program called POST (Power on Self Test) will be executed first. This program checks if the devices like RAM, keyboard, etc., are connected properly and ready to operate.

If these devices are ready, then the BIOS (Basic Input Output System) gets executed. This process is called Booting. Thereafter, a program called “Bootstrap Loader” transfers OS from hard disk into main memory. Now the OS gets loaded (Windows/Linux, etc.,) and will get executed. Booting process is of two types.(i) Cold Booting, (ii) Warm Booting.

Question 6.
Write short notes on sixth generation computing?
Answer:
In the Sixth Generation, computers could be defined as the era of intelligent computers, based on Artificial Neural Networks. One of the most dramatic changes in the sixth generation will be the explosive growth of Wide Area Networking. Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a component of Artificial Intelligence (AI). It provides the ability to develop the computer program to understand human language.

Question 7.
Write the mechanism for mechanical mouse?
Answer:

1. A small ball is kept inside and touches the pad through a hole at the bottom of the mouse.
2. When the mouse is moved, the ball rolls.
3. This movement of the ball is converted into signals and sent to the computer.

Question 8.
Write the function of keyboard?
Answer:
Keyboard (wired / wireless, virtual) is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

The data and instructions are given as input to the computer by typing on the keyboard. Apart from alphabet and numeric keys, it also has Function keys for performing different functions. There are different set of keys available in the keyboard such as character keys, modifier keys, system and GUI keys, enter and editing keys, function keys, navigation keys, numeric keypad and lock keys.

Question 9.
Write short notes on
(i) Optical character reader
(ii) Voice input system.

(i) Optical Character Reader:
It is a device which detects characters printed or written on a paper with OCR, a user can scan a page from a book. The Computer will recognize the characters in the page as letters and punctuation marks and stores. The Scanned document can be edited using a wordprocessor.

(ii) Voice Input System:
Microphone serves as a voice Input device. It captures the voice data and send it to the Computer. Using the microphone along with speech recognition software can offer a completely new approach to input information into the Computer.

Question 10.
Expand the following:
(i) POST
(ii) BIOS
(iii) NLP
Answer:
(i) POST:
Power on Self Test.

(ii) BIOS:
Basic Input Output System.

(iii) NLP:
Natural Language Processing.

Question 11.
How the touch screen allows the user to interact with computer?
Answer:
A touch screen is a display device that allows the user to interact with a computer by using the . finger. It can be quite useful as an alternative to a mouse or keyboard for navigating a Graphical User Interface (GUI). Touch screens are used on a wide variety of devices such as computers, laptops, monitors, smart phones, tablets, cash registers and information kiosks. Some touch screens use a grid of infrared beams to sense the presence of a finger instead of utilizing touch- sensitive input.

Question 12.
What is the use of Fingerprint Scanner?
Answer:
Fingerprint Scanner is a fingerprint recognition device used for computer security equipped with the fingerprint recognition feature that uses biometric technology. Fingerprint Reader / Scanner is a very safe and convenient device for security instead of using passwords, which is vulnerable to fraud and is hard to remember.

Question 13.
Write about the light pen?
Answer:
A light pen is a pointing device shaped like a pen and is connected to a monitor. The tip of the light pen contains a light-sensitive element which detects the light from the screen enabling the computer to identify the location of the pen on the screen. Light pens have the advantage ofedrawing’ directly onto the screen, but this becomes hard to use, and is also not accurate.

Question 14.
What is hardware and software?
Answer:
Hardware is the physical component of a computer like motherboard, memoiy devices, monitor, keyboard etc. while software is the set of programs or instructions.

Question 15.
Give the use of speakers?
Answer:
Speakers produce voice output (audio). Using speaker along with speech synthesize software, the computer can provide voice output. This has become very common in places like airlines, schools, banks, railway stations, etc.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
List a few commonly used Input devices and explain them briefly?
Answer:
The most commonly used Input devices are:
(i) Keyboard:
Keyboard (wired / wireless, virtual) is the most common input device used today. The individual keys for letters, numbers and special characters are collectively known as character keys. This keyboard layout is derived from the keyboard of original typewriter.

The data and instructions are given as input to the computer by typing on the keyboard. Apart from alphabet and numeric keys, it also has Function keys for performing different functions. There are different set of keys available in the keyboard such as character keys, modifier keys, system and GUI keys, enter and editing keys, function keys, navigation keys, numeric keypad and lock keys.

(ii) Mouse:
Mouse (wired/wireless) is a pointing device used to control the movement of the cursor on the display screen. It can be used to select icons, menus, command buttons or activate something on a computer. Some mouse actions are move, click, double click, right click, drag and drop.

(iii) Scanner:
Scanners are used to enter the information directly into the computer’s memory. This device works like a Xerox machine. The scanner converts any type of printed or written information including photographs into a digital format, which can be manipulated by the computer.

(iv) Barcode Readers:
A Bar code is a pattern printed in lines of different thickness. The Bar code reader scans the information on the bar codes transmits to the Computer for further processing. The system gives fast and error free entry of information into the computer.

(v) Digital camera:
It captures images J videos directly in the digital form. It uses a CCD (Charge Coupled Device) electronic chip. When light falls on the chip through the lens, it converts light rays into digital format.

Question 2.
Write the commonly used output devices and explain them briefly?
Answer:
The most commonly used output devices are
(i) Monitor
(ii) Printers.

(i) Monitor:
Monitor is the most commonly used output device to display the information. It looks like a TV, Pictures on a monitor are formed with picture elements called Pixels. Monitors may either be Monochrome which display text or images in Black and White or can be color, which display results in multiple colors. There are many types of monitors available such as CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), LCD (Liquid Crystal Display) and LED (Light Emitting Diodes). The monitor works with the VGA (Video Graphics Array) card. The video graphics card helps the keyboard to communicate with the screen. It acts as an interface between the computer and display monitor. Usually the recent motherboards incorporate built-in video card.

(ii) Printers:
Printers are used to print the information of papers. Printers are divided into two main categories.

(a) Impact Printers:

The memory unit is of two types which are primary memory and secondary memory. The primary memory is used to temporarily store the programs and data when the instructions are ready to execute. The secondary memory is used to store the data permanently.

The Primary Memory is volatile, that is, the content is lost when the power supply is switched off. The Random Access Memory (RAM) is an example of a main memory. The Secondary memory is non volatile, that is, the content is available even after the power supply is switched off. Hard disk, CD-ROM and DVD ROM are examples of secondary memory.

(b) Non-Impact Printers:
These printers do not use striking mechanism for printing. They use electrostatic or laser technology. Quality and speed of these printers are better than Impact printers. Eg: Laser printers and Inkjet printers are non-impact printers.

Thermal Printers:
It is a digital printing process which produces a printed image by selectively heating coated thermochromic paper, or thermal paper as it is commonly known, when the paper passes over the thermal print head. The coating turns black in the areas where it is heated, producing an image. Two colour direct thermal printers can print both black and an additional colour (often red) by applying heat at two different temperature.

Laser Printers:
Laser printers mostly work with similar technology used by photocopiers. It makes a laser beam scan back and forth across a drum inside the printer, building up a pattern. It can produce very good quality of graphic images. One of the chief characteristics of laser printer is their resolution – how many Dots per inch(DPI). The available resolution range around 1200 dpi. Approximately it can print 100 pages per minute(PPM).

Inkjet Printers:
inkjet Printers use colour cartridges which combined Magenta, Yellow and Cyan inks to create color tones. A black cartridge is also used for monochrome output. Inkjet printers work by spraying ionised ink at a sheet of paper. The speed of Inkjet printers generaly range from 1-20 PPM (Page Per Minute).

They use the technology of firing ink by heating it so that it explodes towards the paper in bubbles or by using piezoelectricity in which tiny electric currents controlled by electronic circuits are used inside the printer to spread ink in jet speed. An Inkjet printer can spread millions of dots of ink at the paper every single second.

Question 3.
Explain the types of mouse?
Answer:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 2 Number Systems

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Number Systems Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which refers to the number of bits processed by a computer’s CPU?
(a) Byte
(b) Nibble
(c) Word length
(d) Bit
Answer:
(c) Word length

Question 2.
How many bytes does 1 KiloByte contain?
(a) 1000
(b) 8
(c) 4
(d) 1024
Answer:
(d) 1024

Question 3.
Expansion for ASCII:
(a) American School Code for Information Interchange
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) All Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Society Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Question 4.
2^50 is referred as:
(a) kilo
(b) tera
(c) peta
(d) zetta
Answer:
(c) peta

Question 5.
How many characters can be handled in Binary Coded Decimal System?
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(a) 64

Question 6.
For 11012 what is the Hexadecimal equivalent?
(a) F
(b) E
(c) D
(d) B
Answer:
(c) D

Question 7.
What is the 1 ’s complement of 00100110?
(a) 00100110
(b) 11011001
(c) 11010001
(d) 00101001
Answer:
(b) 11011001

Question 8.
Which amongst this is not an Octal number?
(a) 645
(b) 234
(c) 876
(d) 123
Answer:
(c) 876

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is data?
Answer:
The term data comes from the word datum, which means a raw fact. The data is a fact about people, places or some objects.
Eg: Let ‘Name’, ‘Age’, ‘Class’, ‘Marks’ and ‘Subject’ be some defined variables. Now, let us assign a value to each of these variables.
Name = Rajesh
Age = 16
Class = XI
Mark – 65
Subject = Computer Science
In the above example, the values assigned to the five different variables are called data.

Question 2.
Write the l’s complement procedure?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Convert given Decimal number into Binary
2. Step 2: Check if the binary number contains 8 bits, if less add 0 at the left most bit, to make it as 8 bits.
3. Step 3: Invert all bits (i.e. Change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)

Question 3.
Convert (46)₁₀ into Binary number?

Question 4.
We cannot find 1’s complement for (28)10. State reason?
Answer:
1’s complement representation is an easier approach to represent signed numbers. This is for negative numbers only. This (28)10 this whole numbers cannot be determined by negative number because the number whose MSB is 1.

Question 5.
List the encoding systems for characters immemory?
Answer:
There are several encoding systems used for computer. They are

1. BCD: Binary Coded Decimal.
2. EBCDIC: Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code.
3. ASCII: American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
4. Unicode
5. ISCII: Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What is radix of a number system? Give example?
Answer:
A numbering system is a way of representing numbers. The most commonly used numbering system in real life is Decimal number system. Other number systems are Binary, Octal, Hexadecimal number system. Each number system is uniquely identified by its base value or radix. Radix or base is the count of number of digits in each number system. Radix or base is the general idea behind positional numbering system.
Eg: (123)₁₀, (547)_g, (1001)₂, (25)₁₆.

Question 2.
Write note on binary number system?
Answer:
There are only two digits in the Binary system, namely, 0 and 1. The numbers in the binary system are represented to the base 2 and the positional multipliers are the powers of 2. The left most bit in the binary number is called as the Most Significant Bit (MSB) and it has the largest positional weight. The right most bit is the Least Significant Bit (LSB) and has the smallest positional weight.

Eg: The binary sequence (1101)₂ has the decimal equivalent:
(1101)₂ = 1 × 2³+ 1 × 2² + 0 × 2¹ + 1 × 2⁰
= 8 + 4 + 0+ 1 = (13)₁₀

Question 3.
Convert (150)₁₀ into Binary, then convert that Binary number to Octal?
Binary number:

Binary number to octal:

Question 4.
Write short note on ISCII?
Answer:
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This as a 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (2s) characters. This system is formulated by the department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

Question 5.
Add:
(i)-22₁₀+15₁₀
(ii) 20₁₀+ 25₁₀
Answer:
(i) -22 +15
The binary equivalent of 22 is 00010110

The binary equivalent of 15 is 1111.
Binary addition of -22 and +15

(ii) 20 + 25
Binary number for 20 = 00010100
Binary number or 25 = 00011001

IV. Explain in detail.

Question 1.
(a) Write the procedure to convert fractional Decimal to Binary.
(b) Convert (98.46)10 to Binary.
Answer:
(a) The method of repeated multiplication by 2 has to be used to convert such kind of decimal fractions.
The steps involved in the method of repeated multiplication by 2:

Step 1: Multiply the decimal fraction by 2 and note the integer part. The integer part is either 0 or 1.
Step 2: Discard, the integer part of the previous product. Multiply the fractional part of the previous product by 2 Repeat Step 1 until the same fraction repeats or terminates (0).
Step 3: The resulting integer part forms a sequence of Os and Is that become the binary equivalent of decimal fraction.
Step 4: The final answer is to be written from first integer part obtained till the last integer part obtained.


(98.46)₁₀ = (1100010.011101011…..)₂

Question 2.
Find 1’s Complement and 2’s Complement for the following Decimal number:
(a) – 98
(b) -135
(a) – 98
First convert given decimal number into binary:

Binary number = 1100010
Binary number = 1100010
Second, check binary number as 8 bits, If less add 0 as the left most bit, 01100010
Third, Invert all bits (change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)
1’s complement for 10011101.

2’s complement:

(b) – 135
First convert gives decimal number into Binary.

Binary number = 10000111
Second, check binary number as 8 bits, If less add 0 at the left most bit. It has 8 bits, 10000111.
Third, Invert all bits (change 1 as 0 and 0 as 1)
1 ’s complement for 01111000.
2’s complement:

2’s complement of – 135 – 01111001

Question 3.
(a) Add 1101010₂+ 101101₂
(b) Subtract 1101011₂ – 1110102₂
Answer:
(a) 1101010₂ + 101101₂

1101010₂ + 101101₂ = 10010111₂

(b) 1101011₂ – 111010₂

1101011₂ – 111010₂ = 110001₂

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Number Systems Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
A bit is the short form of:
(a) binary data
(b) binary digit
(c) binary decimal
(d) big digit
Answer:
(b) binary digit

Question 2.
A ……………………… is a collection of 4 bits.
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) nibble
(d) word length
Answer:
(c) nibble

Question 3.
A collection of 8 bits is called:
(a) bit
(b) byte
(c) word length
(d) nibble
Answer:
(b) byte

Question 4.
2^40 is referred as:
(a) mega
(b) giga
(c) peta
(d) tera
Answer:
(d) tera

Question 5.
2^70 is referred as:
(a) peta
(b) exa
(c) zetta
(d) yotta
Answer:
(c) zetta

Question 6.
1024 GB is referred as:
(a) kilo byte
(b) mega byte
(c) giga byte
(d) tera byte
Answer:
(d) tera byte

Question 7.
……………………. are used to represent characters in a text.
(a) Bits
(b) Bytes
(c) Nibble
(d) Wordlength
Answer:
(b) Bytes

Question 8.
The ASCII value for blank space is:
(a) 32
(b) 91
(c) 48
(d) 65
Answer:
(a) 32

Question 9.
The ASCII value for numeric 0 is:
(a) 32
(b) 91
(c) 48
(d) 65
Answer:
(c) 48

Question 10.
Each number system is uniquely identified by its:
(a) decimal value
(b) binary value
(c) base value or radix
(d) octal value
Answer:
(c) base value or radix

Question 11.
The range of ASCII values for lower case alphabets is from:
(a) 97 to 122
(b) 65 to 90
(c) 98 to 122
(d) 97 to 123
Answer:
(a) 97 to 122

Question 12.
The range of ASCII values for upper case alphabets is from:
(a) 97 to 122
(b) 65 to 90
(c) 66 to 90
(d) 65 to 97
Answer:
(b) 65 to 90

Question 13.
The expansion of MSB is:
(a) most significant bit
(b) most signed bit
(c) must significant bit
(d) must signed bit
Answer:
(a) most significant bit

Question 14.
The expansion of LSB is:
(a) lower significant bit
(b) least significant bit
(c) lower signed bit
(d) least signed bit
Answer:
(b) least significant bit

Question 15.
Radix of octal number is:
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 16
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 16.
The binary sequence (1101 )2 has the decimal equivalent:
(a) (25)₁₀
(b) ( 15)₁₀
(c) (17)₁₀
(d) (13)₁₀
Answer:
(d) (13)₁₀

Question 17.
In hexadecimal C represents:
(a) 11
(b) 0
(c) 12
(d) 15
Answer:
(c) 12

Question 18.
The simplest method to represent negative binary numbers is called:
(a) signed magnitude
(b) unsigned magnitude
(c) magnitude bit
(d) unmagnitude bit
Answer:
(a) signed magnitude

Question 19.
EBDIC coding system can handle …………………….. characters.
(a) 64
(b) 255
(c) 256
(d) 128
Answer:
(c) 256

Question 20.
The most commonly used coding scheme is the:
(a) Binary Coded Decimal
(b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
(c) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
Answer:
(d) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Define word length?
Answer:
Word length refers to the number of bits processed by a Computer’s CPU. For example, a word length can have 8 bits, 16 bits, 32 bits and 64 bits (Present day Computers use 32 bits or 64 bits).

Question 2.
Define byte?
Answer:
A collection of 8 bits is called Byte. A byte is considered as the basic unit of measuring the memory size in the computer.

Question 3.
What is a bit?
Answer:
A bit is the short form of Binary digit which can be ‘0’ or ‘1’. It is the basic unit of data in computers.

Question 4.
What is Decimal Number System?
Answer:
It consists of 0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9 (10 digits). It is the oldest and most popular number system used in our day-to-day life. In the positional number system, each decimal digit is weighted relative to its position in the number. This means that each digit in the number is multiplied by 10 raised to a power corresponding to that digit’s position.

Question 5.
What is meant by Octal Number System?
Answer:
Octal number system uses digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (8 digits). Each octal digit has its own positional value or weight as a power of 8.

Question 6.
Convert (547)₈ to its decimal equivalent?
Answer:
The Octal sequence (547)g has the decimal equivalent:
(547)₈ = 5 × 8² + 4 × 8¹ + 7 × 8⁰
= 5 × 64 + 4 × 8 + 7 × 1
= 320 + 32 + 7 – (359)₁₀

Question 7.
Convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent binary number?
Answer:

Question 8.
How will you convert decimal to octal? Give example?
Answer:
To convert Decimal to Octal, “Repeated Division by 8” method can be used. In this method, we have to divide the given number by 8.
Eg: Convert (65)₁₀ into its equivalent Octal Number.

Question 9.
Write octal numbers and their binary equivalent?
Answer:

Question 10.
Convert (11010110)₂ into octal equivalent?
Answer:

Question 11.
Convert the following binary numbers to decimal
(i) 11101
(ii) 1011010
Answer:

(11101)₂ = (29)₁₀

(ii) 1011010

(1011010)₂ = (90)₁₀

Question 12.
Convert (3EF)₁₆ to decimal?
Answer:

(3EF)₁₆ = (1007)₁₀

Question 13.
Convert (111011)₂ into its equivalent decimal number?
Answer:

(111011)₂ = (59)₁₀

Question 14.
In what ways the numbers are represented in computers?
Answer:
The numbers are represented in computers in different ways:

1. Signed Magnitude representation.
2. 1 ’s Complement.
3. 2’s Complement

Question 15.
What is a character set?
Answer:
In general, 26 uppercase letters, 26 lowercase letters, 0 to 9 digits and special characters are used in a computer is called character set. All these character set are denoted through numbers only.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write the hierarchy of data representation?
Answer:

Question 2.
Write short note on hexadecimal number system?
Answer:
A hexadecimal number is represented using base 16. Hexadecimal or Hex numbers are used as a shorthand form of binary sequence. This system is used to represent data in a more compact manner. Since 16 symbols are used, 0 to F, the notation is called hexadecimal. The first 10 symbols are the same as in the decimal system, 0 to 9 and the remaining 6 symbols are taken from the first 6 letters of the alphabet sequence, A to F, where A represents 10, B is 11, C is 12, D is 13, E is 14 and F is 15.
Eg: The hexadecimal sequence (25)₁₆ has the decimal equivalent:
(25)₁₆ = 2 × 16¹ + 5 × 16⁰
= 32 + 5 = (37)₁₀

Question 3.
Write the steps for binary to decimal conversion?
Answer:
To convert Binary to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Step 1: Write down the Binary digits and list the powers of 2 from right to left (Positional Notation)
2. Step 2: For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Step 3: Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Step 4: Add all the values.

Question 4.
How will you convert binary to octal?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Group the given binary number into 3 bits from right to left.
2. Step 2: You can add preceding 0 to make a group of 3 bits if the left most group has less than 3 bits.
3. Step 3: Convert equivalent octal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Eg: Convert (11010110)₂ to its Octal equivalent.

(11010110)₂ = (326)₈

Question 5.
Write the steps for converting binary to hexadecimal?
Answer:

1. Step 1: Group the given number into 4 bits from right to left.
2. Step 2: You can add preceding 0’s to make a group of 4 bits if the left most group has less than 4 bits.
3. Step 3: Convert equivalent Hexadecimal value using “2’s power positional weight method”.

Eg: Convert (1111010110)₂ to Hexadecimal.

[Note: 0’s are added to the left most group to make it a group of 4 bits]
(1111010110)₂ = (3D6)₁₆

Question 6.
Write the steps for octal to decimal conversion?
Answer:
To convert octal to decimal, we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the octal digits and list the powers of 8 from right to left(Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation of the digit write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight
4. Add all the values

Eg: Convert (1265)₈ to equivalent Decimal number.

(1265)₈ = 512 × 1 + 64 × 2 + 8 × 6 + 1 × 5
= 512 + 128 + 48 + 5
(1265)₈ = (693)₁₀

Question 7.
Write the steps for converting hexadecimal to decimal?
Answer:
To convert Hexadecimal to Decimal we can use positional notation method.

1. Write down the Hexadecimal digits and list the powers of 16 from right to left (Positional Notation).
2. For each positional notation written for the digit, now write the equivalent weight.
3. Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
4. Add all the values to get one final value.

Eg: Convert (25F)₁₆ into its equivalent Decimal number.

(25F)₁₆ = 2 × 256 + 5 × 16 + 15 × 1
= 512 + 80 + 15
(25F)₁₆ = (607)₁₀

Question 8.
Write short note on signed magnitude representation?
Answer:
The value of the whole numbers can be determined by the sign used before it. If the number has ‘+’ sign or no sign it will be considered as positive. If the number has ‘-‘ sign it will be considered as negative.
Eg: + 43 or 43 is a positive number,
– 43 is a negative number.
In signed binary representation, the left most bit is considered as sign bit. If this bit is 0, it is a positive number and if it 1, it is a negative number. Therefore a signed binary number has 8 bits, only 7 bits used for storing values (magnitude) and the 1 bit is used for sign.
+ 43 is represented in memory as follows:

– 43 can be represented in memory as follows:

Question 9.
Write 2’s complement procedure with example?
Answer:
The 2’s-complement method for negative number is as follows:

1. Invert all the bits in the binary sequence (i.e., change every 0 tol and every 1 to 0 i.e., 1’s complement)
2. Add 1 to the result to the Least Significant Bit (LSB).

Eg: 2’s Complement represent of (-24)₁₀

Question 10.
Write short note Unicode?
Answer:
This coding system is, used in most of the modem computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation, when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII. Hence, the Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is 16 bit code and can handle 65536 characters.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Give the steps to convert fractional binary to decimal equivalent with example?
Answer:
Step 1: Convert integral part of Binary to Decimal equivalent using positional notation method.
Step 2: To convert the fractional part of binary to its decimal equivalent.
Step 2.1: Write down the Binary digits in the fractional part.
Step 2.2: For all the digits write powers of 2 from left to right starting from 2^-1,2^-22, 2^-3………………… 2^-n, now write the equivalent weight.
Step 2.3: Multiply each digit with its corresponding weight.
Step 2.4: Add all the values which you obtained in Step 2.3.

Step 3: To get final answer write the integral part (after conversion), followed by a decimal point(.) and the answer arrived at Step 2.4.
Eg: Convert the given Binary number (11.011)₂ into its decimal equivalent Integer part (11)₂ = 3.

3 + (0 × 0.5 + 1 × 0.25 + 1 × 0.125) = 3. 375
(11.011)₂ = (3.375)₁₀

Question 2.
Explain in detail the different encoding systems used for computer?
Answer:
There are several encoding systems used for computer. They are –
(i) Binary Coded Decimal (BCD):
This encoding system is not in the practice right now. This is 26 bit encoding system. This can handle 26 = 64 characters only.

(ii) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII):
This is the most popular encoding system recognized by United States. Most of the computers use this system. Remember this encoding system can handle English characters only. This can handle 27 bit which means 128 characters.

In this system, each character has individual number. The new edition (version) ASCII – 8, has 2⁸ bits and can handle 256 characters are represented from 0 to 255 unique numbers.

The ASCII code equivalent to the uppercase letter ‘ A’ is 65. The binary representation of ASCII (7 bit) value is 1000001. Also 01000001 in ASCII-8 bit.

(iii) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code (EBCDIC):
This is similar to ASCII Code with 8 bit representation. This coding system is formulated by International Business Machine(IBM). The coding system can handle 256 characters. The input code in ASCII can be converted to EBCDIC system and vice – versa.

(iv) Indian Standard Code for Information Interchange (ISCII):
ISCII is the system of handling the character of Indian local languages. This as a 8-bit coding system. Therefore it can handle 256 (28) characters. This system is formulated by the department of Electronics in India in the year 1986-88 and recognized by Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). Now this coding system is integrated with Unicode.

(v) Unicode:
This coding system is used in most of the modem computers. The popular coding scheme after ASCII is Unicode. ASCII can represent only 256 characters. Therefore English and European Languages alone can be handled by ASCII. Particularly there was a situation, when the languages like Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu could not be represented by ASCII. Hence, the Unicode was generated to handle all the coding system of Universal languages. This is 16 bit code and can handle 65536 characters.

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TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The shape of the indifference curve is …………..
(a) Price line
(b) Budget line
(c) ISO – cost line
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
The basic problem studied in Economics is ……………
(a) Unlimited wants
(b) Unlimited means
(c) Scarcity
(d) Strategy to meet all our wants
Answer:
(c) Scarcity

Question 3.
The man – made physical goods used to produce other goods and services are referred to as …………….
(a) Land
(b) Labour
(c) Capital
(d) Organisation
Answer:
(c) Capital

Question 4.
Identify the advantages of rural roads
(a) rural marketing
(b) rural employment
(c) rural development
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 5.
In monopoly, MR curve lies below ……………
(a) TR
(b) MC
(c) AR
(d) AC
Answer:
(c) AR

Question 6.
The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced by……………..
(a) Ferguson
(b) Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 7.
The Secondary factors are……………..
(a) Capital
(b) Organisation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Labour
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 8.
When marginal utility reaches zero, the total utility will be ………….
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) zero
(d) negative
Answer:
(b) maximum

Question 9.
Author of “An inquiry into the Nature and causes of wealth of Nations”.
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Lionel Robbins
(d) Paul A Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 10.
In investment proposals filed by MSMEs, TN ranks ………………
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(a) I

Question 11.
Identify the formula of estimating average cost.
(a) AVC/Q
(b) TC/Q
(c) TVC/Q
(d) AFC/Q
Answer:
(b) TC/Q

Question 12.
The Goods and Services Tax came into effect on
(a) 1st July 2017
(b) 1st July 2016
(c) 1st January 2017
(d) 1st January 2016
Answer:
(a) 1st July 2017

Question 13.
Pick the odd one out:
(a) Luxuries
(b) Comforts
(c) Necessaries
(d) Agriculture goods
Answer:
(d) Agriculture goods

Question 14.
The concept of consumer’s surplus is associated with ………..
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Ricardo
Answer:
(b) Marshall

Question 15.
Who has given scarcity definition of economics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Alfred Marshall
(c) Robbins
(d) Robertson
Answer:
(c) Robbins

Question 16.
Saved amount is called …………..
(a) Capital
(b) Income
(c) Production
(d) Output
Answer:
(a) Capital

Question 17.
Which theory is generally included under micro economics?
(a) Price theory
(b) Income theory
(c) Employment theory
(d) Trade theory
Answer:
(a) Price theory

Question 18.
Expansion of FDI
(a) Foreign Private Investment
(b) Foreign Port folio Investment
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) Forex Private Investment
Answer:
(c) Foreign Direct Investment

Question 19.
Marginal Utility is measured by using the formula of
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1
(b) TU_n – TU_n+1
(c) TU_n + TU_n+1
(d) TU_n – TU_n+1
Answer:
(a) TU_n – TU_n-1

Question 20.
The indifference curve are
(a) vertical
(b) horizontal
(c) positive sloped
(d) Negatively sloped
Answer:
(d) Negatively sloped

Part-II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any two types of price discrimination?
Answer:

1. Personal: Different prices are charged for different individuals. For example, the railways give tickets at concessional rate to the ‘Senior citizens’ for the same journey.
2. Geographical: Different prices are charged at different places for the same product. For example, a book sold within India at a price is sold in a foreign country at lower price.

Question 22.
Distinguish between real and money wages.
Answer:
Money Wages :

1. Money wages are referred to the wages paid in terms of money.
2. Depend upon the standard of living workers in a country.

Real Wages :

1. Real wages are the wages paid in terms of goods and services.
2. Depend upon the purchasing power of money.

Question 23.
Mention the classification of wants.
Answer:
Wants are broadly classified into three categories.

• Necessaries: Goods which are indispensable for the human beings to exist in the world are called “Necessaries”. For example, food, clothing and shelter.
• Comforts: Goods which are not indispensable for life but to make our life easy, convenient and comfortable are called “Comforts”. Ex: TV, Fan, Refrigerator and Air conditioner.
• Luxuries: Goods which are not very essential but are very costly are known as “Luxuries”. ( Ex: Jewellery, Diamonds and Cars. However, for people with higher income they may look necessaries or comforts.

Question 24.
What are the degrees of price elasticity of demand?
Answer:
The price elasticity of demand, commonly known as the elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness and sensitiveness of demand for a product to the changes in its price. In other words, the price elasticity of demand is equal to

Question 25.
State any two features of developed economy.
Answer:

1. High National Income
2. High Per Capita Income

Question 26.
Define Utility.
Answer:

• Utility is the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human wants.
• Utility cannot be cardinally measured, but can be ranked or compared or ordered by ordinal number such as I, II, III and so on.

Question 27.
Name the basic approaches to consumer behaviour.
Answer:
There are two basic approaches, namely:
1. Utility approach

• The utility approach involves the use of measurable (cardinal) utility to study consumer behaviour.
• Marshall is the chief exponent of the utility approach to the theory of demand. It is known cardinal utility analysis or Marginal utility analysis or marshallian utility analysis.

2. Indifference curve approach

The indifference curve approach was the idea of comparable utility [ordinal utility] J.R. Hicks and R.G.D. Allen introduced the indifference curve approach.

Question 28.
What are the conditions for produces’s equilibrium?
Answer:

• Producer equilibrium implies the situation where producer maximizes his output.
• It is also known as optimum combination of the factors of production.
• In short, the producer manufactures a given amount of output with ‘ least cost combination of factors’, with his given budget.

Question 29.
State the meaning of liquidity preference.
Answer:

• Liquidity preference means the preference of the people to hold wealth in the form of liquid cash rather than in other non – liquid assets like bonds, securities, bills of exchange, land, building, gold etc.
• “Liquidity Preference is the preference to have an equal amount of cash rather than of claims against other”.

Question 30.
Explicit Cost- Define.
Answer:
Payment made to other for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium with a diagram.
Answer:
Consumer Equilibrium: The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.

‘T’ is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the upper most IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_xy and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of x to price of y.

i.e., \(\frac{P_{x}}{P_{y}}\) Therefore \(\mathrm{MRS}_{\mathrm{xy}}=\frac{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{x}}}{\mathrm{P}_{\mathrm{y}}} \)

Question 32.
Explain social infrastructure.
Answer:

• Social infrastructure refers to those structures which are improving the quality of manpower and contribute indirectly towards the growth of an economy.
• These structures are outside the system of production and distribution.
• The development of these social structures help in increasing the efficiency and productivity of manpower.
• For example, schools, colleges, hospitals and other civic amenities.
• It is a fact that one of the reasons for the low productivity of Indian workers is the lack of development of social infrastructure.

The status and developments in the social infrastructure in India are discussed below:

Education in India:
The India education system has flourished and developed with the growing needs of the economy.

Health in India:

• Health in India is a state government responsibility.
• The Central Council of Health and Welfare formulates the various health care projects and health department reform policies.

Question 33.
Write a short note on welfare economics given by Amartya Sen.
Answer:

• Amartya Kumar Sen has included the concept of entitlement items like nutrition, food, medical and health care, employment, security of food supply in times of famine etc.
• He considered famine as arising out of the failure of establishing a system of entitlements.

Question 34.
What are the characteristics of land?
Answer:

• Land is a primary factor of production
• Land is a passive factor of production
• Land is the free gift of nature
• Land has no cost of production
• Land is fixed in supply. It is inelastic in supply
• Land is permanent
• Land is immovable
• Land is heterogeneous as it differs in fertility
• Land has alternative uses
• Land is subject to Law of Diminishing Returns.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the concept of consumer’s equilibrium.
Answer:
The consumer reaches equilibrium at the point where the budget line is tangent on the indifference curve.
T is the point of equilibrium as budget line AB is tangent on indifference curve IC₃ the upper IC which implies maximum possible level of satisfaction’.

At equilibrium point, the slope of IC refers to MRS_XY and the slope of BL (Budget Line) refers to ratio of price of X to price of Y z.e. P _x/ P_y . Therefore MRS_xy = P_x / P_y

Question 36.
The Handicrafts were declined in India in British period. Why?
Answer:

• The Indian handicrafts products had a worldwide market.
• Indian exports consisted chiefly of hand weaved cotton and silk fabrics, calicoes, artistic
  wares, wood carving etc. ,
• Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the
  handicrafts.
• With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings. There was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
•  Indian handicraft products could not complete with machine – made products.
• The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for the British goods.

Question 37.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure system in colonial India.
Answer:
Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management. The features that distinguish a land tenure system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land.
• Who cultivates the land.
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were:

• Zamindari System or the Landlord – Tenant System.
• Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming.
• Ryotwari System or the Owner Cultivator System.

Zamindari System or the Land lord Tenant System:

• Under this system the land lord or the Zamindars were declared as the owners of the land and they were responsible to pay the land revenue to the government.
• The share of the government in total rent collected was fixed as 10/11th the balance going to the
  Zamindars as remuneration.

Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming:

• After introduction of this system, it was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
• The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body usually the villagers which served as a unit of management.

Ryotwari System (or) the Owner Cultivator System:

• This system was initially introduced in Tamil Nadu and later extended to Maharashtra,
• Gujarat, Assam, Coorg, East Punjab and Madhya Pradesh.
• Under this system the ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.\

Question 38.
State and explain the elasticity of supply.
Answer:

• • Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
  • It is Mathematically expressed as,
    Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
    

Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price , A denotes a change.

Question 39.
Write the strategy of Jawaharlal Nehru in India’s planning.
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• To Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Initiating the debate on the Second Plan in the Lok Sabha in May 1956, Nehru spoke on the theme of planning.
• Nehru Said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basic strategy of planned development.

Question 40.
What are the reasons for upward sloping supply curve?
Answer:
A supply curve represents the data given in the supply schedule. As the price of the commodity increases, the quantum supplied of the commodity also increases. Thus the supply curve has a positive slope from left to right.

The quantum supplied of commodity x is represented on X axis. And the price of the commodity is represented on the Y axis. The points such as e, d, c, b and a on the supply curve SS’, represent various quantities at different prices.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Discuss the short run cost curves with suitable diagram.
Short run Cost Curves:
Total Fixed Cost (TFC):
Answer:
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total Fixed Cost. A hypothetical TFC is shown in below table and diagram .

For instance if TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12, the fixed cost here is 12. That means, if Q is zero, the Total cost will be 12, hence fixed cost.
It could be observed that TFC does not change with output. Even when the output is zero, the fixed cost is ₹ 1000. TFC is a horizontal straight line, parallel to X axis.

Total Variable Cost (TVC):
All payments to the variable factors of production is called as Total Variable Cost. Hypothetical TVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

In the diagram the TVC is zero when nothing is produced. As output increases TVC also increases. TVC curve slopes upward from left to right.
For instance in TC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q + 12, variable cost, TVC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q

Total Cost Curves:
Total Cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is also called as Total Cost of Production.
Total cost is the summation of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC). It is written symbolically as
TC = TFC + TVC. For example, when the total fixed cost is ₹ 1000 and the total variable cost is ₹ 200 then the Total cost is = ₹ 1200 (₹1000 + ₹ 200).
If TFC = 12 and
TVC = Q³– 18 Q² + 91 Q
TC = 12 + Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q

Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output. AFC = TFC / Q where, AFC denotes average fixed cost, TFC denotes total fixed cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, if TFC is 1000 and the quantity of output is 10, the AFC is ₹ 100, obtained by dividing ₹ 1000 by 10. TVC is shown in below table and diagram.

It is to be noted that

• AFC declines as output increases, as fixed cost remains constant.
• AFC cuiwe is a downward sloping throughout its length, never touching X and Y axis. It is asymptotic to both the axes.
• The shape of the AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

Average Variable Cost (AVC):
Average Variable Cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output (Q). AVC = TVC / Q where, AVC denotes Average Variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, When the TVC is ₹ 300 and the quantity produced is 2, the AVC is ₹ 150,
(AVC = 300/2 = 150) AVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Average Total Cost (ATC) or Average Cost (AC):
Average Total Cost refers to the total cost per unit of output.

It can be obtained in two ways.

1. By dividing the firm’s total cost (TC).by the quantity of output (Q). ATC = TC / Q.
For example, if TC is ₹ 1600 and quantity of output is Q = 4, the Average Total Cost is ₹ 400. (ATC = 1600/4 = 400)
If ATC is Q³ – 18 Q³ + 91 Q + 12, then AC = Q² – 18 Q +91 + 12/Q

2. By ATC is derived by adding together Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC) at each level of output. ATC = AFC + AVC:
For example, when Q = 2, TFC = 1000, TVC = 300; AFC = 500; AVC =150; ATC=650. ATC or AC is shown in the below table and diagram

Marginal Cost (MC):
Marginal Cost is the cost of the last single unit produced. It is defined as the change in total costs resulting from producing one extra unit of output. In other words, it is the addition made to the total cost by producing one extra unit of output. Marginal cost is important for deciding whether any additional output can be produced or not. MC = ATC / AQ where MC denotes Marginal Cost, ATC denotes change in total cost and AQ denotes change in total quantity. For example, a firm produces 4 units of output and the Total cost is ₹ 1600. When the firm produces one more unit (4+1 = 5 units) of output at the total cost of ₹ 1900, the marginal cost is ₹ 300.

[OR]

(b) Bring out the features of perfect competition.
Answer:
(i) Large Number of Buyers and sellers

• “A large number of buyers” implies that each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market.
• This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product.
• He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker
• Large number of sellers” implies that share of each individual seller is a very very small quantum of a product.
• No power to fix the price of the product.

(ii) Homogeneous Product and Uniform Price

• The product sold and bought is homogeneous in nature, in the sense that the units of the product are perfectly substitutable.
• All the units of the product are identical i.e., of the same size, shape, colour, quality etc.
• Therefore, a uniform price prevails in the market.

(iii) Free Entry and Exit

• In the short run, it is possible for the very efficient producer, producing the product at a very low cost, to earn super normal profits.
• An inefficient producer, who is unable to bring down the cost incurs loss.

(iv) Absence of Transport Cost :
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost.

(v) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production

• The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the perfect mobility of the factors of production.
• As they enjoy perfect freedom to move from one place to another and from one occupation to another, the price gets adjusted.

(vi) Perfect Knowledge of the Market
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price etc.

(vii) No Government Intervention
There is no government regulation on supply of raw materials, and in the determination of price etc.

Question 42.
(a) Describe the features of oligopoly.
Answer:
Features of oligopoly:

• Few large firms: Veiy few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.
• Interdependence among firms: The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.
• Group behaviour: The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual . co-operation.
• Advertisement cost: The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.
• Nature of product: Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogeneous products.
• Price rigidity: It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolistic firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

[OR]

(b) Discuss about the Indian Economy during British period.
Answer:
Indian Economy during the British period:

• India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
• The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
• In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
• In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
• Hundred years after Battle of Plassey, the rule of the East India Company finally did come
  to an end.
• In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
• Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
• Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.

On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:

1. The period of merchant Capital
2. The period of Industrial Capital
3. The period of Finance Capital

Question 43.
(a) What is GST? Write its advantages.
Answer:

• GST – Goods and Services Tax. GST is defined as the tax levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
• Removing cascading tax effect
• Single point tax
• Higher threshold for registration
• Composition scheme for small business
• Online simpler procedure under GST
• Defined treatment for e-commerce
• Increased efficiency in logistics
• Regulating the unorganized sector

[OR]

(b) What are the remedial measures for Rural unemployment?
Answer:
Remedial measures for Rural unemployment:
In order to reduce rural unemployment in the country there is a need to take integrated and coordinated efforts from various levels. A few remedial measures are listed below:

Subsidiary Occupation: To reduce the seasonal unemployment rural people should be encouraged to adopt subsidiary occupations. Loans should be granted and proper arrangements should be made for marketing their products.

Rural Works Programme: Rural Works Programme such as construction and maintenance of roads, digging of drains, canals etc., should be planned during off season to provide gainful employment to the unemployed.

Irrigation Facilities: Since rainfall is uncertain irrigation facilities should be expanded to enable the farmers to adopt multiple cropping.

Rural Industrialization: To provide employment new industries should be set up in rural areas. Technical Education: Employment oriented courses should be introduced in schools and colleges to enable the literate youth to start their own units.

Question 44.
(a) The demand function is given by x = 20 – 2p – p² where p and x are the price and the quantity respectively. Find the elasticity of demand for p = 2.5.
Answer:

[OR]
(b) Solve for x quantity demanded if 16x – 4 = 68 + 7x.
Answer:
16x – 4 = 68 + 7x
16x – 7x = 68 + 4
9x = 72
x = 72/9
∴ x = 8

Question 45.
(a) Bring out Jawaharlal Nehru’s contribution to the idea of economic development.
Answer:

• Jawaharlal Nehru, one of the chief builders of Modem India, was the first Prime Minister of Independent India.
• He was a great patriot, thinker and statesman.

(i) Democracy and Secularism:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was a firm believer in democracy.
• He believed in free speech civil liberty, adult franchise and the Rule of Law and Parliamentary democracy.
• Secularism, is another signal contribution of Nehru to India.

(ii) Planning:

• Jawaharlal Nehru was responsible for the introduction of planning in our country.
• Jawaharlal Nehru, the Plan was essentially an integrated approach for development.
• Nehru Spoke on the theme of planning.
• He said “the essence of planning is to find the best way to utilize all resources of manpower, of money and so on”.
• “Planning for Nehru was essentially linked up with Industrialization and eventual self-reliance for the country’s economic growth on a self-accelerating growth.
• Nehru carried through this basis strategy of planned development.
• Nehru’s contribution to the advancement of science, research, technology and industrial development cannot be forgotten.
• It was during is period, many IITs and Research Institutions were established.
• Nehru always in insisted on “ scientific temper”.

[OR]

(b) – Describe the performance of 12 five year plans in India.
Answer:
Performance of Five Year Plans:
First Five Year Plan – [1951 -1956]

• It was based on the Harrod – Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country. ,
• This plan was successful and achieved the GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan – [1956 – 1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved growth rate of 4.1%

Third Five Year Plan- [1961-1966].

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self propelled position or take off.
• Due to Indo – China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%.

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 -1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self reliance.
• This plan failed and could achieve growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan – [1974 1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved the growth of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan-[1980-1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self reliance.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan establishment of the self sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0%

Eighth Five Year Plan – [1992-1997]

• In this plan the top priority was given to development of the human resources (i.e) employment, education and public health.
• This plan was successful and got annual growth rate of 6.8%.

Ninth Five Year Plan-[1997-2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio of 15%
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence the five year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

Question 46.
(a) If TC = 2.5q³ – 13q² + 50q + 12 derive the MC function and AC function.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of information and communication technology used in Economics?
Answer:
Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computiftg faster and accurate.
The following table given an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:

They are evaluation in: (a) Computer (b) PC – Personal Computer (c) Micro Processor ‘ (d) Internet (e) Wireless links
In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for: (a) Data Compiling (b) Editing (c) Manipulating (d) Presenting the results

Question 47.
(a) Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
Relationship between AR and MR Curves: If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.
Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price): When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price)
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR
will be more steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

[OR]

(b) Define Market.
Answer:

• Market refers to a physical place, where commodities and services are bought and sold. In Economics, The term “market” refers to a system of exchange between the buyers and the sellers of a commodity.
• Besides direct exchanges, there are exchanges that are carried out through correspondence, telephones, online, e-mail etc.

A market has the following characteristic features:

1. Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service
2. A commodity to be bought and sold
3. Price agreeable to buyer and seller
4. Direct or indirect exchange.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 18 Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 18 Electronic Data Interchange – EDI

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – I
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
EDI stands for ……………………
(a) Electronic Details Information
(b) Electronic Data Information
(c) Electronic Data Interchange
(d) Electronic Details Interchange
Answer:
(c) Electronic Data Interchange

Question 2.
Which of the following is an internationally recognized standard format for trade, transportation, insurance, banking and customs?
(a) TSLFACT
(b) SETFACT
(c) FTPFACT
(d) EDIFACT
Answer:
(d) EDIFACT

Question 3.
Which is the first industry-sjpecific EDI standard?
(a) TDCC
(b) VISA
(c) Master
(d) ANSI
Answer:
(a) TDCC

Question 4.
UNSM stands for:
(a) Universal Natural Standard message
(b) Universal Notations for Simple message
(c) United Nations Standard message
(d) United Nations Service message
Answer:
(c) United Nations Standard message

Question 5.
Which of the following is a type of EDI?
(a) Direct EDI
(b) Indirect EDI
(c) Collective EDI
(d) Unique EDI
Answer:
(a) Direct EDI

Question 6.
Who is called as the father of EDI?
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Ed Guilbert
(c) Pascal
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Ed Guilbert

Question 7.
EDI interchanges starts with ……………………. and ends with ……………………..
(a) UNA, UNZ
(b) UNB, UNZ
(c) UNA, UNT
(d) UNB, UNT
Answer:
(b) UNB, UNZ

Question 8.
EDIFACT stands for ………………………
(a) EDI for Admissible Commercial Transport
(b) EDI for Advisory Committee and Transport
(c) EDI for Administration, Commerce and Transport
(d) EDI for Admissible Commerce and Trade
Answer:
(c) EDI for Administration, Commerce and Transport

Question 9.
The versions of EDIFACT are also called as ……………………….
(a) Message types
(b) Subsets
(c) Directories
(d) Folders
Answer:
(c) Directories

Question 10.
Number of characters in an single EDIFACT messages ……………………..
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 3
Answer:
(b) 6

PART – II
II. Short Answer

Question 1.
Define EDI?
Answer:
The Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically. It is transferred through a dedicated channel or – through the Internet in a predefined format without much human intervention.

Question 2.
List few types of business documents that are transmitted through EDI?
Answer:

1. Direct EDI EDIviaVAN
2. EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS
3. Web EDI
4. Mobile EDI

Question 3.
What are the 4 major components of EDI?
Answer:
There are four major components of EDI. They are:

1. Standard document format
2. Translator and Mapper
3. Communication software
4. Communication network

Question 4.
What is meant by directories in EDIFACT?
Answer:
The versions of EDIFACT are also called as directories. These EDIFACT directories will be revised twice a year; on 1 st April and 1 st October to include new or update, existing EDIFACT messages. EDIFACT directories have names like D. 18B (D stands for Directory, 18 is the year and A/B indicates the month of release)

Question 5.
Write a note on EDIFACT subsets?
Answer:
Due to the complexity, branch-specific subsets of EDIFACT have developed. These subsets of EDIFACT include only the functions relevant to specific user groups.
Example:

• CEFIC – Chemical industry
• EDIFURN – furniture industry
• EDIGAS – gas business

PART – III
III. Explain in Brief Answer

Question 1.
Write a short note on EDI?
Answer:

1. The Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically.
2. It is transferred through a dedicated channel or through the Internet in a predefined format without much human intervention.
3. It is used to transfer documents such as delivery notes, invoices, purchase orders, advance ship notice, functional acknowledgements etc.
4. These documents are transferred directly from the computer of the issuing company to that of the receiving company, with great time saving and avoiding many errors of traditional “on paper” communications.

Question 2.
List the various layers of EDI?
Answer:
Electronic data interchange architecture specifies four different layers namely –

1. Semantic layer
2. Standards translation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Physical layer

These EDI layers describes how data flows from one computer to another.

Question 3.
Write a note on UN/EDIFACT?
Answer:

• United Nations / Electronic Data Interchange for Administration, Commerce and Transport
• (UN / EDIFACT) is an international EDI – standard developed under the supervision of the United Nations.
• In 1987, the UN / EDIFACT syntax rules were approved as ISO: IS09735 standard by the International Organization for Standardization.
• EDIFACT includes a set of internationally agreed standards, catalogs and guidelines for electronic exchange of structured data between independent computer systems.

Question 4.
Write a note on EDIFACT message?
Answer:
The basic standardization concept of EDIFACT is that there are uniform message types called United Nations Standard Message (UNSM). In so-called subsets, the message types can be specified deeper in their, characteristics depending on the sector. The message types, all of which always have exactly one nickname consisting of six uppercase English alphabets. The message begins with UNH and ends with UNT.
Service messages
To confirm / reject a message, CONTRL and APERAK messages are sent.

1. CONTRL – Syntax Check and Confirmation of Arrival of Message
2. APERAK – Technical error messages and acknowledgment
3. Data exchange
4. CREMUL – multiple credit advice
5. DELFOR-Delivery forecast
6. IFTMBC – Booking confirmation

Question 5.
Write about EDIFACT separators?
EDI Separators:
Answer:
EDIFACT has the following punctuation marks that are used as standard separators.
Character:

1. Apostrophe
2. Plus sign +
3. Colon:
4. Question mark ?
5. Period

Uses:

1. Segment terminator
2. Segment tag and data element separator
3. Component data element separator
4. Release character
5. Decimal point

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Briefly explain various types of EDI?
Answer:
The types of EDI were constructed based on how EDI communication connections and the conversion were organized. Thus based on the medium used for transmitting EDI documents the following are the major EDI types.

1. Direct EDI
2. EDI via VAN
3. EDI via-FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS
4. Web EDI
5. Mobile EDI
6. Direct EDI/Point-to-Point

It is also called as Point-to-Point EDI. It establishes a direct connection between various business stakeholders and partners individually. This type of EDI suits to larger businesses with a lot of day to day business transactions.

EDI via VAN:
EDI via VAN (Value Added Network) is where EDI documents are transferred with the support of third party network service providers. Many businesses prefer this network model to protect them from the updating ongoing complexities of network technologies.

EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS:
When protocols like FTP/VPN, SFTP and FTPS are used for exchange of EDI based documents through the Internet or Intranet it is called as EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS.

Web EDI:
Web based EDI conducts EDI using an web browser via the Internet. Here the businesses are allowed to use any browser to transfer data to their business partners. Web based EDI is easy and convenient for small and medium organizations.

Mobile EDI:
When smartphones or other such handheld devices are used to transfer EDI documents it is called as mobile EDI. Mobile EDI applications considerably increase the speed of EDI transactions.

Question 2.
What are the advantages of EDI?
Answer:
Advantages of EDI:
EDI was developed to solve the problems inherent in paper-based transaction processing and in other forms of electronic communication. Implementing EDI system offers a company greater control over its supply chain and allow it to trade more effectively. It also increases productivity and promotes operational efficiency. The following are the other advantages of EDI.

1. Improving service to end users
2. Increasing productivity
3. Minimizing errors
4. Slashing response times
5. Automation of operations
6. Cutting costs
7. Integrating all business and trading partners
8. Providing information on process Status
9. Optimizing financial ratios

EDI Layers:
Electronic data interchange architecture specifies four different layers namely;

1. Semantic layer
2. Standards translation layer
3. Transport layer
4. Physical layer

These EDI layers describes how data flows from one computer to another.

Question 3.
Write about structure of EDIFACT?
Answer:
EDIFACT Structure:
EDIFACT is a hierarchical structure where the top level is referred to as an interchange, and lower levels contain multiple messages. The messages consist of segments, which in turn consist of composites. The final iteration is a data element.

Segment Tables:
Segment table lists the message tags. It contains the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetition field. The requirement designator may be mandatory (M) or conditional (C). The (M) denotes that the segment must appear at least once. The (C) denotes that the segment may be used if needed. e.g. C10 indicates repetitions of a segment or group between 0 and 10.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Computer Applications Solutions Electronic Data Interchange – EDI Additional Questions and Answers

1. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………. is the exchange of business documents between one trade partner and another electronically.
(a) EDI
(b) UDI
(c) FDI
(d) DDI
Answer:
(a) EDI

Question 2.
Identify which one of the following is not a EDI standard?
(a) EDIFACT
(b) XML
(c) ANSI ASC X12
(d) HTML
Answer:
(d) HTML

Question 3.
……………………. is a paperless trade.
(a) EDI
(b) XML
(c) EDIF
(d) EFT
Answer:
(a) EDI

Question 4.
…………………… is a paperless payment.
(a) EDI
(b) EFT
(c) XML
(d) EDIFAC
Answer:
(b) EFT

Question 5.
TDCC stands for ………………………
Answer:
Transportation Data Coordinating Committee

Question 6.
TDCC was formed in the year …………………….
(a) 1964
(b) 1966
(c) 1968
(d) 1970
Answer:
(c) 1968

Question 7.
The first EDI standard was released by TDCC in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(b) 1975

Question 8.
Expand EDIA
(a) Electronic Data Interchange Authorigy
(b) Electronic Data Information Association
(c) Electronic Data Interchange Association
(d) Electronic Device Interface Amplifier
Answer:
(c) Electronic Data Interchange Association

Question 9.
The TDCC is renamed as EDIA in the year ……………………….
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1976
(d) 1978
Answer:
(d) 1978

Question 10.
ANSI stands for …………………….
Answer:
American National Standards Institute

Question 11.
EDIA has become …………………….. committee.
(a) ANSIXI2
(b) ANSIXI3
(c) ANSIXI4
(d) ANSIX15
Answer:
(a) ANSIXI2

Question 12.
EDIFACT is created by …………………..
(a) UN
(b) WHO
(c) UNESCO
(d) UNICEF
Answer:
(a) UN

Question 13.
EDIFACT was created in ……………………..
(a) 1982
(b) 1978
(c) 1981
(d) 1985
Answer:
(d) 1985

Question 14.
Identify the statement which is not true?
(a) The first EDI message was sent from the Holland – American Streamship line to Trans-Atlantic Shipping Company
(b) It is send usign telex
(c) It took 2 minutes to send a full page
(d) These messages were written on the CD to load into another computer
Answer:
(d) These messages were written on the CD to load into another computer.

Question 15.
The first EDI message was sent in ………………………
(a) 1955
(b) 1965
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Answer:
(b) 1965

Question 16.
How many major classifications of EDI are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 17.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Direct EDI
(b) Web EDI
(c) Android EDI
(d) Mobile EDI
Answer:
(c) Android EDI

Question 18.
…………………… is also called as point-to-point EDI.
Answer:
Direct EDI

Question 19.
Which EDI is better for day to day business transactions?
(a) Direct EDI
(b) EDI via VAN
(c) Web EDI
(d) Mobile EDI
Answer:
(a) Direct EDI

Question 20.
Expand VAN?
(a) Value Added Network
(b) Voice Added Network
(c) Vast Area Network
(d) Value Area Network
Answer:
(a) Value Added Network

Question 21.
A …………………….. acts as an intermediary between trading partners.
(a) VAN
(b) Web
(c) Mobile
(d) FTPs
Answer:
(a) VAN

Question 22.
……………………… is convenient for small and medium organizations.
Answer:
web based EDI

Question 23.
Match the following
(i) point to point EDI – 1. easy for small and medium organizations.
(ii) EDI via VAN – 2. Speed Transactions.
(iii) EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS – 3. Large day to day business transactions
(iv) Web EDI – 4. Third party Network service providers.
(v) Mobile EDI – 5. Uses protocols
(a) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-5 (iv)-1 (v) 2
(b) (i)-1 (ii)-2 (iii)-3 (iv)-4 (v)-5
(c) (i)-5 (ii)-4 (iii)-3 (iv)-2 (v)-1
(d) (i)-4 (ii)-3 (iii)-2 (iv)-1 (v)-5
Answer:
(a) (i)-3 (ii)-4 (iii)-5 (iv)-1 (v) 2

Question 24.
How many layers are there in EDI?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 25.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Semantic layer
(b) Transport layer
(c) Session layer
(d) Physical layer
Answer:
(c) Session layer

Question 26.
Identify the wrongly matched pair.
(a) Semantic layer – application level services
(b) Standard layer – ANSI XI2
(c) Transport layer – FTP, TELNET
(d) Physical layer – Electronic mail
Answer:
(d) Physical layer – Electronic mail

Question 27.
MIME, HTTP, FTP comes under …………………….. layer.
(a) Semantic
(b) Standard
(c) Transport
(d) Physical
Answer:
(c) Transport

Question 28.
How many major components of EDI are there?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 4

Question 29.
Which one of the following is not a major component of EDI?
(a) Standard document
(b) Standard translation
(c) Translator and Mapper
(d) Communication Software
Answer:
(b) Standard translation

Question 30.
………………………. is the EDI standard for warehousing Industry.
Answer:
WINS

Question 31.
GTDI means …………………………
Answer:
Guideline for Trade Data Interchange

Question 32.
ECE stands for
(a) Economic Commission for Europe
(b) Electronic and Communication Engineering
(c) Electrical and Communication Engineering
(d) Easy control Edges
Answer:
(a) Economic Commission for Europe

Question 33.
UN/EDIFACT is officially proposed in the year ………………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1987
(c) 1988
(d) 1989
Answer:
(a) 1986

Question 34.
The EDIFACT directories will be revised …………………….
(a) twice a year
(b) once in a year
(c) thrice a year
(d) cannot be revised
Answer:
(a) twice a year

Question 35.
In EDIFACT directories A/B indicates the ……………………… of release.
Answer:
month

Question 36.
Find the wrongly matched pair.
(a) EDICHEM – Chemical Industry
(b) EDIFURN – Furniture Industry
(c) EDIGAS – Gas Business
Answer:
(a) EDICHEM – Chemical Industry

Question 37.
Which one of the following is a hierarchical structure with multiple messages?
(a) CEFIC
(b) EDIFACT
(c) EDIFURN
(d) EDIGAS
Answer:
(b) EDIFACT

Question 38.
The top level in EDIFACT is referred to as ………………………..
(a) Subsets
(b) Segment
(c) interchange
(d) data
Answer:
(c) interchange

Question 39.
In EDIFACT, the messages consist of which in turn consist of …………………….. which in turn consist of ……………………….
Answer:
segments and composites

Question 40.
The final iteration in EDIFACT is
(a) data element
(b) control variable
(c) interchange
(d) subset
Answer:
(a) data element

Question 41.
………………………. indicates the repetitions of a segment or group between 0 and 10.
(a) A10
(b) BIO
(c) C1O
(d) D1O
Answer:
(c) C1O

Question 42.
……………………. lists the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetitation fields.
Answer:
Segment Table

Question 43.
The interchange is also called as …………………..
Answer:
envelope

Question 44.
The EDIFACT message begins and ends with …………………….
(a) UNH, UNT
(b) UNB, UNZ
(c) UNH, UNZ
(d) UNB, UNT
Answer:
(a) UNH, UNT

Question 45.
………………….. show technical error messages in EDIFACT.
Answer:
APERAK

Question 46.
A segment is a …………………….. character alphanumeric code.
Answer:
3

Question 47.
In EDIFACT message ………………………… is the format for century, year, month, date, hour, minute.
Answer:
CCYYMMDDHHMM

Question 48.
……………………. is date/time information in the segment.
Answer:
DTM

Question 49.
Which is the release character?
(a) :
(b) ?
(c) .
(d) +
Answer:
(b) ?

Question 50.
Which punctuator is segment tag?
(a) ,
(b) +
(c) :
(d) !
Answer:
(b) +

Question 51.
Which is used for component data element separator?
(a) :
(b) +
(c) ?
(d) ?
Answer:
(a) :

Question 52.
…………………… is the segment terminator.
(a) :
(b) +
(c) ‘
(d) ?
Answer:
(c) ‘

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is VAN?
Answer:
A value-added network is a company, that is based on its own network, offering EDI services to other businesses. A value-added network acts as an intermediary between trading partners. The principle operations of value- added networks are the allocation of access rights and providing high data security.

Question 2.
Write note on EDI Via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS?
Answer:
EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS:
When protocols like FTP/VPN, SFTP and FTPS are used for exchange of EDI based documents through the Internet or Intranet it is called as EDI via FTP/VPN, SFTP, FTPS. .

Question 3.
Write a short note on Segment Table?
Answer:
Segment Tables:
Segment table lists the message tags. It contains the tags, tag names, requirements designator and repetitation field. The requirement designator may be mandatory (M) or conditional (C). The (M) denotes that the segment must appear atleast once. The (C) denotes that the segment may be used if needed.

Question 4.
Mention Some examples for FDIFACT subset?
Answer:

1. GEFIC – Chemical industry
2. EDIFURN – furniture industry
3. EDIGAS – gas business

Question 5.
Write note on EDIFACT Segment?
Answer:
EDIFACT Segment
It is the subset of message. A segment is a three-character alphanumeric code. These segments are listed in segment tables. Segments may contain one, or several related user data elements.

Question 6.
Mention service messages in EDIFACT?
Answer:

1. CONTRL- Syntax Check and Confirmation of Arrival of Message
2. APERAK – Technical error

Question 7.
Mention data exchange in EDIFACT message?
Answer:
Data exchange:
CREMUL – multiple credit advice DELFOR-Delivery forecast IFTMBC – Booking confirmation.

Question 8.
Write note on EDI Interchange?
Answer:
EDI Interchange:
Interchange is also called as envelope. The top level of EDIFACT structure is Interchange. An interchange may contain multiple messages. It starts with UNB and ends with UNZ.

III. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain EDI standards?
Answer:
EDI Standards:

• The standard is the most critical part of the entire EDI. Since EDI is the data transmission and information exchange in the form of an agreed message format, it is important to develop a unified EDI standard.
• The EDI standard is mainly divided into the following aspects: basic standards, code-standards, message standards, document standards, management standards, application standards, communication standards and security standards.
• The first industry-specific EDI standard was the TDCC published by the Transportation Data coordinating Committee in 1975.
• Then other industries started developing unique standards based on their individual needs. E.g. WINS in the warehousing industry.
• Since the application of EDI has become more mature, the target of trading operations is often not limited to a single industry.
• In 1979, the American National Standards Institute Accredited Standard Committee (ANSI ASC) developed a wider range of EDI standard called ANSI XI2.
• On the other hand, the European region has also developed an integrated EDI standard. Known as GTDI (Guideline for Trade Data Interchange).
• ANSI X12 and GTDI have become the two regional EDI standards in North America and Europe respectively.
• After the development of the two major regional EDI standards and a few years after trial, the two standards began to integrate and conduct research and development of common EDI standards.
• Subsequently, the United Nations Economic Commission for Europe (UN/ECE/WP.4) hosted the task of the development of international EDI standards. In 1986, UN/EDIFACT is officially proposed. The most widely used EDI message standards are the United Nations EDIFACT and the ANSI X12.

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Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Which country emerged as the strongest in East Asia towards the close of nineteenth century?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) Mongolia
Answer:
(b) Japan

Question 2.
Who made peru as part of their dominions?
(a) English
(b) Spaniards
(c) Russian
(d) French
Answer:
(b) Spaniards

Question 3.
What was the name of the Samaj founded by Dayanand Saraswati?
(a) Arya Samaj
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Prathana Samaj
(d) Adi Brahmo Samaj
Answer:
(a) Arya Samaj

Question 4.
Who had borrowed money from the East India Company to meet the expenses he had incurred during the Carnatic war?
(a) Velunachiyar
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) NawabofArcot
(d) Raja of Travancore
Answer:
(c) NawabofArcot

Question 5.
……………………..was the official newspaper of the Self-Respect Movement.
(c) Kudi Arasu
(b) Puratchi
(c) Viduthalai
(d) Paguththarivu
Answer:
(c) Kudi Arasu

Question 6.
The Southern most point of India is ……………..
(a) Andaman
(b) Kanyakumari
(c) Indira Point
(d) Kavaratti
Answer:
(c) Indira Point

Question 7
……………………is the highest gravity in India.
(a) Hirakud dam
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam
(c) Mettur dam
(d) Nagarjuna Sagar dam
Answer:
(b) Bhakra Nangal dam

Question 8.
The first Jute mill of India was established at ………………
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer:
(c) Maharashtra

Question 9.
Which of the following passes is not located in the Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu?
(a) Palghat
(b) Shencottah
(c) Bhorghat
(d) Achankoil
Answer:
(c) Bhorghat

Question 10.
Second staple food of the people of Tamil Nadu is…………………..
(a) Pulses
(b) Millets
(c) Oil seeds
(d) Rice
Answer:
(b) Millets

Question 11.
The Indian constitution gives to its citizens………………………
(a) Double citizenship
(b) Single citizenship
(c) Single citizenship in some states and double in others .
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Single citizenship

Question 12.
The Agreement signed by India and China in 1954 related …………..
(a) Trade and Commerce
(b) Restoration of normal relations
(c) Cultural exchange programmes
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence
Answer:
(d) The Five Principles of Co-existence

Question 13.
Which one sector is highest employment in the GDP?
are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agricultural Sector
(b) Industrial Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Service Sector

Question 14.
………………are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Agriculture

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
Point out the essence of the Berlin Colonial Conference 1884-1885.
Answer:

• The Berlin Colonial Conference of 1884-85 had that Africa should be divided into spheres of influence of various colonial powers.
• The war between the British and Boers in South Africa, however, was in defiance of this
  resolution.

Question 16.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:

• The capitalist countries led by the US were politically designated as the First Worlds, while the communist states led by the Soviet Union came to be known as the Second World states, outside these two were called third World.
• During the Cold War, third World consisted of the developing world the former colonies of Africa, Asia, and Latin America.
• With the break up of the Soviet Union in 1991, and the process of globalisation, the term Third World has lost its relevance.

Question 17.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
The colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is called the drain to wealth.

Question 18.
Discuss the importance of Hindu Religious Endowment Act passed by the Justicite ministry ?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu has a large number of temples. These temples commanded huge resources which were monopolised and exploited by the dominant caste in the society and led to mismanagement of public resources.
• The Justice Party introduced the Hindu Religious Endowment Act in 1926 and enabled any individual, irrespective of their caste affiliation, to become member of the temple committee and govern the resources of the religious institutions.

Question 19.
State the west flowing rivers of India.
Answer:

• The Narmada and the Tapi are the west flowing rivers of the Peninsular India:
• These rivers drain into the Arabian Sea.
• These rivers form estuaries on the west coast.
• These rivers are devoid of an large tributary system.
• Narmada river is the largest among the west flowing rivers of peninsular India. Its principal tributaries are Bushner, Halon, Heran, Banjar, Dudhi, Shakkar, Tawa, Bama and Kolar.
• Tapti river is one of only the three rivers in peninsular India that run from east to west. The others being the Narmada and the Mahi.
• The major tributaries are Vaki, Gomai, Arunavati, Aner, Nesu, Buray Panjhra and Bori. It outfall into the Arabian sea through the Gulf of Cambay.

Question 20.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:

• Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural products and natural gas from oil fields to the refineries, factories and big thermal power plants.
• Pipelines are more reliable and considerably safer mode of transportation.
• The possibility of pilferage or product less on pipelines is almost negligible. The basic limitations of pipelines is that they are capital intensive mode of transportation.

Question 21.
How is coastal plain formed?
Answer:
It is formed by the rivers that flow towards east and drain in the Bay of Bengal.

Question 22.
What is MRTS?
Answer:
MRTS means mass Rapid Transport System and currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch in operation since May 2017.

Question 23.
What is a Writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order or command issued by a Court in writing under its seal.

Question 24.
Write about India’s foreign policy.
Answer:
Nehru, India’s first Prime Minister, was opposed to the rivalry of the two superpowers (America and Russia). The aim of India’s foreign policy of that time was ‘world co-operation, world peace, end of colonial imperialism, racial equality and non-alignment’.

Question 25.
What is meant by Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
The GDP is the market value of all the final goods and services produced in the country during a time period.

Question 26.
Write the types of globalization.
Answer:
There are three types of globalization –

• Archaic globalization
• Proto globalization and
• Modem globalization.

Question 27.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
The levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governance or to alter prices in order to affect demand. States and their functional equivalents throughout history have used money provided by taxation to carry out many functions.

Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure (transportation, sanitation, public safety, education, healthcare cur systems, to name a few), military, scientific research, culture and the arts, public works and public insurance and the operation of government itself. A government’s ability to raise taxes is called its fiscal capacity.

Question 28.
Name the states that lead in the production of iron ore in India.
Answer:
Jharkhand, Odisha, Chattisgarh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) Japan forced a war on China in the year ………………
(ii) The major tribal revolt took place in chota nagpur region was ……………
(iii) The Cauvery rises in hills of …………………. district in Karnataka.
(iv) Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to
(v) A better economy introduce rapid development of the ……………….
Answers
(i) 1894
(ii) Kolrevolt
(iii) Coorg
(iv) President
(v) Capital market

Question 30.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 31.
Match the following:

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers.
(ii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands.
Answer:
(a) (i) Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers

Himalayan Rivers:

• Originate from Himalayas.
• Long and wide Perennial in nature.
• Perennial in nature.
• Unsuitable for hydropower generation.
• Middle and lower courses are navigable.

Peninsular Rivers:

• Originate from Western Ghats.
• Short and arrow.
• Non Perennial in nature.
• Suitable for hydropower generation.
• Not useful for navigation.

(ii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep Islands
Andaman and Nicobar Islands :

• They are located in the Bay of Bengal.
• They are far off from India.
• Port Blair is the capital.
• They are about 572 islands.
• Only 38 are inhabited.

Lakshadweep Islands:

• They are located in the Arabian Sea.
• They are of coral origin
• Kavaratti is the administration headquaters.
• They are 27 islands here.
• Only 11 islands are inhabited.

(b) Give reason: The great Indian desert is called Marusthali.
Answer:
The Thar desert, also known as the Great Indian desert is a large arid region in the north western part of the Indian Subcontinent that covers an area of 2,00,000 Km2 and forms a natural boundary between India and Pakistan.

Marusthali means sand-dune. It covered eastern portion of the Great Indian Thar Desert in western Rajasthan. It extends over about 24,000 square miles north of the Luni River.

Question 33.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-Israeli wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:
(i) The formation of Palestinian Liberation Organisation (PLO) was never friendly to Israel. It came to be attached frequently by Palestinian guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan. Israel also made violent retaliation.

(ii) In November 1966, Israel attacked the village of Al-Sami in the Jordanian West Bank. The death toll in this attack was 18. In April 1967 Israel started air battle with Syria which resulted in the shooting down of six Syrian Mig fighter jet.

(iii) In his bid to show Egypt’s support for Syria, Nasser mobilised Egyptian forces in the Sinai, seeking the removal of UN emergency forces stationed there on May 18. On May 22, he closed the Gulf Aqaba to Israeli shifting.

(iv) On June 5, Israel stopped a sudden pre-emptive air strike that destroyed more than 90 percent of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac. A similar air assault was in capacitated the Syria air force. Within three ways, Israel captured the Gaza Strip and all the Senai Peninsula up to the East Bank of the Suez Canal.

(v) On June 7, the Israeli forces drove Jordanian forces out of East Jerusalem and most the West Bank. The War ended when the UN Security Council called for a ceasefire. Arab-Israel War of 1973: Egypt and Syria made a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command.

(vi) Hafez al-Assad, the President of Syria was keen on retrieving Golan Heights. As Assad was aware that his country’s weapons were dated, he offered the Israelis a peace deal of they would withdraw from Sinai. Israel rejected the offer.

(vii) Egypt and Syria then launched a sudden attack on the Yom Kippur religions holiday on 6 October 1973. Though Israel suffered heavy casualties, it could finally push back the Arab forces. But this time, due to UN intervention, Israel was forced to return to 1967 position. Arabs gained nothing out of this war too.

Question 34.
Estimate Periyar E.V.R’s decisive contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Periyar was a great social reformer. His contribution to the social transformation of Tamil Nadu is really praise worthy.

• He launched ‘Temple entry’ movement to provide the lower caste people easy access to the temples.
• He also started the Self-Respect movement in 1925, with the determination that there ought to be ‘no God; no religion; no Gandhi; no Congress; and no Brahmins’.
• Periyar was critical of patriarchy. He condemned child marriage and the Devadasi system. Right from 1929, when the Self-Respect conference began to voice its concern over the plight of women, Periyar had been emphasising on women’s right to divorce and property.
• He advocated atheism as a mode of critique to deconstruct the established practices of faith, culture and custom. Periyar wanted religion to be replaced by rationalism.
• He welcomed equal rights for males and females in property, guardianship and adoption. He was strong champion of birth control and contraception.

Question 35.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization. The level of urbanization of a place is assessed based on the size of population of the towns and cities and the proportion of population engaged in non agricultural sectors. These two are closely linked to the process of industrialization and expansion of the secondary and tertiary sectors of economy.

Impacts of urbanization:

• Urbanization and population concentration go hand – in – hand and are closely related to each other. A rapid rate of urbanization in a society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.
• Urbanization is increasing rapidly in the developing countries including India.
• Rural to urban migration leads to population explosion in urban areas. Metropolitan cities like Mumbai, Kolkatta and Delhi have more population than that can accommodate.

The following are the major problem of urbanization in India:

• It creates urban sprawl.
• It makes overcrowding in urban centres.
• It leads to shortage of houses in urban areas.
• It leads to the formation of slums.
• It increases traffic congestion in cities.
• It creates water scarcity in cities.
• It creates drainage problems.
• It poses the problem of solid waste management.
• It increases the rate of crime.

Question 36.
Write about Road Safety Rules.
Answer:

• Aware of the road signals
• Stop, look and cross
• Listen and ensure whether a vehicle is approaching
• Don’t rush on roads
• Cross roads in pedestrian crossings
• Don’t stretch hands while driving vehicles
• Never cross road at bends and stay safe in a moving vehicle

Question 37.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the Chief Minister are:

• The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. He recommends the persons who can be appointed as ministers by the Governor. He allocates the portfolio among the ministers.
• He presides over the meetings of the council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
• The Chief Minister is the principal channel of communication between Governor and the Council of Ministers.
• He announces the Government policies on the floor of the House. He can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
• For smooth functioning of the State and for good Centre – State relations, he has to develop a rapport with the Union Government.

Question 38.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
The role of taxation in developing economics is as follows.

1. Resource mobilisation: Taxation enables the government to mobilise a substantial amount of revenue. The tax revenue is generated by imposing direct taxes such as personal income tax and corporate tax and indirect taxes such as customs duty, excise duty, etc.

2 Reduction in equalities of income: Taxation follows the principle of equity. The direct
taxes are progressive in nature. Also certain indirect taxes, such as taxes on luxury goods, is also progressive in nature.

3. Social welfare: Taxation generates social welfare. Social welfare is generated due to higher taxes on certain undesirable products like alcoholic products.

4. Foreign exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports, Generally developing countries and even the developed countries do not impose taxes on export items.

5. Regional development: Taxation plays an important role in regional development, Tax incentives such as tax holidays for setting up industries in backward regions, which induces business firms to set up industries in such regions.

6. Control of inflation: Taxation can be used as an instrument for controlling inflation. Through taxation the government can control inflation by reducing the tax on the commodities.

Question 39.
Write briefly the history of globalization.
Answer:
The historical background of globalization can be discussed in three steps –
(i) Archaic Globalization – It is an early form of globalization. It existed during the Hellenistic Age. It established a trade link between the Roman Empire, Parthian Empire and the Han Dynasty. The commercial links between these powers inspired the development of the Silk Road. The Islamic Golden Age was also an important early stage of globalization.

(ii) Proto Globalization – It was characterised by the rise of maritime European empires in the 16th and 17th centuries. In the 17th century, globalization became private business phenomenon like British East India Company founded in 1600, described as the first multinational company.

(iii) Modern Globalization – The 19th and 20th centuries witnessed the advent of modem globalization. Global trade and capital investment increased. Several multinational firms came into being.

Question 40.
What are the contributions of Industrialization to development?
Answer:

(i) As stated earlier, it is essential to produce inputs to other producers in an economy. Even agriculture requires inputs from industry such as fertilisers and tractors to increase productivity.

(ii) Second, a market exists for both producers and consumer goods. Even services like banking, transport and trade are dependent on production of industrial goods.

(iii) Third, by using modem methods of production, industries contribute to better productivity and hence lower cost of production of all goods produced. It therefore helps people to buy goods at a cheaper rate and help create demand for more products.

(iv) Fourth, through such expansion of production, industrialisation helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture. Employment generation is therefore an important objective of industrialisation.

(v) Fifth, a related advantage of industrialisation is therefore technological change. Through use of modem techniques, industrialisation contributes to learning of such methods and their improvement. As a result labour productivity, ie, output per unit of labour input increases, which can help workers earn higher wages.

(vi) Sixth, expanding incomes lead to more demand for goods and services. If an economy is not able to produce enough to meet such demand, it has to rely on imports and therefore spend a lot of foreign exchange. If the economy does not earn enough from exporting, it will be difficult to meet the growing demand. Industrialisation therefore helps an economy to save and also generate foreign exchange through exports. .

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
five important events between 1889-1935.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium – 5

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Russia
(iii) Hawai Island
(iv) Germany
(v) Norway
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia
(i) Name the South-east Asian countries which fell to the Japanese.
(ii) Account for the setback of Allies in the Pacific region?
(iii) What is the significance of Battle of Midway?
(iv) What happened to the Indians living in Burma?
Answer:
(a) Japanese Aggression in South-east Asia:

(i) Guam, the Philippines, Hong Kong, Singapore, Malaya, the Dutch East Indies (Indonesia) and Burma.
(ii) The Allies faced many reverses in the Pacific region because of their inadequate preparations. The colonial rulers, especially the British, withdrew from their territories, leaving the local people to face the atrocities of the Japanese.
(iii) The US navy defeated the Japanese navy in the Battle of Midway.
(iv) Many Indians walked all the way from Burma to the Indian border, facing hardships. Many died of disease and exhaustion. Those who remained suffered under the Japanese.

(b) Aligarh Movement
(i) What is the main aim of this movement? ‘
(ii) Who is considered the soul of this movement?
(iii) Why were English books translated into Urudu?
(iv) Name the college which was later raised to the status of a University?
Answer:
(b) Aligarh Movement:

(i) The main aim of the Aligarh Movement was to persuade the Muslims to acquire modem knowledge and English language.
(ii) Sir Sayed Ahmed Khan is considered the soul of the Aligarh Movement.
(iii) Many English Books were translated into Urdu in order to enable the Muslims to accept the western science and take up government services.
(iv) Aligarh Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) Factors leading to the rise of National Movement.
(i) How did the national leaders inspire the people?
(ii) When was the Vernacular Press Act passed?
(iii) What was the policy of the British?
(iv) How did the British consider the Indians?
Answer:
(c) Factors leading to the rise of National Movement:

(i) They inspired the people with the ideas of self-respect and self-confidence.
(ii) The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878.
(iii) The British followed the policy of “Divide and Rule”.
(iv) The British considered the Indians as inferior and uncivilized.

(d) Maraimalai Adigal
(i) Name the Sangam texts for which Maraimalai Adigal wrote commentaries.
(ii) Name the journal where he worked as a young man.
(iii) Why did he oppose imposition of Hindi?
(iv) Who were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life?
Answer:
(d) Maraimalai Adigal

(i) Pattinappalai and Mullaipattu.
(ii) Siddhanta Deepika
(iii) Adigal promoted the use of pure Tamil words and removal of the Sanskrit influences from Tamil language. He painted out that Tamil language would suffer with the introduction of Hindi.
(iv) His teachers P. Sundaram Pillai and Somasundara Nayagar were the key influences in Maraimalai Adigal’s life.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Zaskar range
(ii) River Ganga
(iii) Baghelkhand Plateau
(iv) Coffee growing area
(v) Any one Iron ore production area
(vi) Bombay high
(vii) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Mangrove forest
(iii) Villupuram
(iv) One oil seeds area
(v) Udagamandalam
(vi) Kancheepuram
(vii) Gomukhi dam
(viii) River Tamirabarani
Answer:

Map for Q. 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Russia
(iii) Hawai Island
(iv) Germany
(v) Norway
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Zaskar range
(ii) River Ganga
(iii) Baghelkhand Plateau
(iv) Coffee growing area
(v) Any one Iron ore production area
(vi) Bombay high
(vii) Andaman & Nicobar Island
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Red soil area
(ii) Mangrove forest
(iii) Villupuram
(iv) One oil seeds area
(v) Udagamandalam
(vi) Kancheepuram
(vii) Gomukhi dam
(viii) River Tamirabarani
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Quèstions of one-mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and.writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II àre two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are eight-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 100

PART-I

I. Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions. [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Let f and g be two functions given by f = {(0,1),(2,0),(3,-4),(4,2),(5,7)} g = {(0,2),(1, 0),(2,4),(-4,2),(7, 0)} then the range of fog is …………. .
(1) {0,2,3,4,5}
(2) {-4,1,0,2,7}
(3) {1,2,3,4,5}
(4) {0,1,2}
Answer:
(4) {0,1,2}

Question 2.
An A.P consists of 31 terms. If its 16^th term is m, then the sum of all the terms of this A.P. is …………. .
(1) 16m
(2) 62 m
(3) 31m
(4) \(\frac{31}{2}\)m
Answer:
(3) 31m

Question 3.
The value of (1³ + 2³ + 3³ +….+ 15³) – (1 + 2 + 3 +….+ 15) is …………. .
(1) 14400
(2) 14200
(3) 14280
(4) 14520
Answer:
(3) 14280

Question 4.
Which of the following should be added to make x⁴ + 64 a perfect square …………. .
(1) 4x²
(2) 16x²
(3) 8x²
(4) -8x²
Answer:
(2) 16x²

Question 5.
The number of points of intersection of the quadratic polynomial x² + 4x + 4 with the X axis is …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 0 or 1
(4) 2
Answer:
(2) 1

Question 6.
In the adjacent figure ∠BAC = 90° and AD ⊥BC then …………. .

(1) BDCD = BC²
(2) AB.AC = BC²
(3) BD.CD = AD²
(4) AB.AC = AD²
Answer:
(3) BDCD = AD²

Question 7.
If (5, 7), (3, p) and (6, 6) are collinear, then the value of p is …………. .
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12
Answer:
(3) 9

Question 8.
(1 + tan θ + sec θ) (1 + cot θ – cosec θ) is equal to …………. .
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) -1
Answer:
(3) 2

Question 9.
The total surface area of a cylinder whose radius is \(\frac{1}{3}\) of its height is
(1) \(\frac{9 \pi h^{2}}{8}\) sq. units
(2) 24πh² sq. units
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
(4) \(\frac{56 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units
Answer:
(3) \(\frac{8 \pi h^{2}}{9}\) sq. units

Question 10.
The mean of 100 observations is 40 and their standard deviation is 3. The sum of squares of all deviations is …………. .
(1) 40000
(2) 160900
(3) 160000
(4) 30000
Answer:
(2) 160900

Question 11.
The probability a red marble selected at random from a jar containing p red, q blue and r green marbles is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)
(2) \(\frac{p}{p+q+r}\)
(3) \(\frac{p+q}{p+q+r}\)
(4) \(\frac{p+r}{p+q+r}\)
Answer:
(1) \(\frac{q}{p+q+r}\)

Question 12.
If there are 28 relation from a set A = {2,4, 6, 8} to a set B, then the number of elements in B is …………. .
(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 5
(4) 4
Answer:
(1) 7

Question 13.
If a₁ ,a₂, a₃ ……….. are in A.P. such that \(\frac{a_{4}}{a_{7}}=\frac{3}{2}\), then the 13th term of the AP is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(2) 0
(3) 12a₁
(4) 14a₁
Answer:
(2) 0

Question 14.
The X-intercept of the line 2x – 3y + 5 = 0 is …………. .
(1) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)
(3) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
(4) \(\frac{-2}{5}\)
Answer:
(2) \(\frac{-5}{2}\)

PART-II

II. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
A function f is defined by f(x) = 3 – 2x. Find x such that f(x²) = (f (x))².
Answer:
f(x) = 3 – 2x
f(x²) = 3 – 2 (x²)
= 3 – 2x²
(f(x)² = (3 – 2x)²
= 9 + 4x² – 12x
But f(x²) = (f(x))²
3 – 2x² = 9 + 4x² – 12x
– 2x² – 4x² + 12x + 3 – 9 = 0
– 6x² + 12x – 6 = 0
(÷ by – 6) ⇒ x² – 2x + 1 = 0
(x – 1)(x – 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0 or x – 1 = 0
x = 1
The value of x = 1

Question 16.
If f(x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 find a, if gof (a) = 1.
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 1 ; g(x) = x – 2
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(x² – 1)
= x² – 1 – 2
= x² – 3
given gof (a) = 1
a² – 3 = 1 [But gof(x) = x² – 3]
a² = 4
a = √4 = ± 2
The value of a = ± 2

Question 17.
Find the number of integer solutions of = 1 (mod 15).
Answer:
3x ≡ 1 (mod 15) can be written as
3x – 1 = 15k for some integer k
3x = 15k + 1
x = \(\frac{15 k+1}{3}\) = 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Since 5k is an integer, 5k + \(\frac{1}{3}\) cannot be an integer. So there is no integer solution.

Question 18.
Find the rational form of the number \(0 . \overline{123}\)
Answer:
Let x = \(0 . \overline{123}\)
= 0.123123123 ….
= 0.123 + 0.000123 + 000000123 + ….
This is an infinite G.P
Here a = 0.123, r = \(\frac{0.000123}{0.123}\) = 0.001
S_n = \(\frac{a}{1-r}=\frac{0.123}{1-0.001}=\frac{0.123}{0.999}\)
S_n = \(\frac{41}{333}\)

Question 19.
Find the GCD of 12(x⁴ – x³), 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²) whose LCM is 24x³ (x – 1)(x – 2)
Answer:

p(x) = 12(x⁴ – x³)
= 12x³(x – 1)
g(x) = 8(x⁴ – 3x³ + 2x²)
= 8x²(x² – 3x + 2)
= 8x²(x – 2) (x – 1)
L.C.M = 24x³(x – 1) (x – 2)
G.C.D = \(\frac{p(x) \times g(x)}{\text { L.C.M. }}\)
= \(\frac{12 x^{3}(x-1) \times 8 x^{2}(x-2)(x-1)}{24 x^{3}(x-1)(x-2)}\)
G.C.D = 4x²(x – 1)

Question 20.
Find the square root of the polynomial x⁴ – 12x³ + 42x² – 36x + 9 by division method
Answer:

\(\sqrt{x^{4}-12 x^{3}+42 x^{2}-36 x+9}\) = |x² – 6x + 3|

Question 21.
Write expression \(\frac{\alpha+3}{\beta}+\frac{\beta+3}{\alpha}\) interms of α + β and αβ.
Answer:

Question 22.
In the given diagram show that ∆PST ~ ∆PQR
Answer:

In ∆PST and ∆PQR,
\(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{2}{2+1}=\frac{2}{3}\) , \(\frac{P T}{P R}=\frac{4}{4+2}=\frac{2}{3}\)
Thus, \(\frac{P S}{P Q}=\frac{P T}{P R}\) and ∠P is common
Therefore, by SAS similarity,
∆PST ~ ∆PQR

Question 23.
Find the value of for which the given points (2,3), (4, a) and (6, -3) are collinear.
Answer:
Let the points be A (2, 3), B(4, a) and C(6, -3).
Since the given points are collinear.
Area of a triangle =0

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₁ + x₂y₂ + x₃y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₁y₃)] = 0
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(2a – 12 + 18) – (12 + 6a – 6)] = 0
2a + 6 – (6 + 6a) = 0
2a + 6 – 6 – 6a = 0
-4 a = 0 ⇒ a = \(\frac { 0 }{ 4 }\) = 0
The value of a = 0

Question 24.
The horizontal distance between two buildings is 70 m. The angle of depression of the top of the first building when seen from the top of the second building is 45°. If the height of the second building is 120 m, find the height of the first building.
Answer:

Let the height of the first building AD be “x” m
∴ EC = 120 – x
In the right ∆ CDE,
tan 45° = \(\frac{C E}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{120-x}{70}\) ⇒ 70 = 120 – x
x = 50m
∴ The height of the first building is 50 m

Question 25.
If the coefficient of variation of a collection of data is 57 and its standard deviation is 6,84, then find the mean.
Answer:
Given coefficient of variation =57
Standard deviation (σ) = 6.84
C.V = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}}\)
57 = \(\frac{6.84}{\bar{x}} \times 100\)
x̄ = \(\frac{6.84}{57} \times 100=\frac{684}{57}=12\)
∴ Arithmetic mean x̄ = 12

Question 26.
The radius and height of a cylinder are in the ratio 2:7. If the curved surface area of the cylinder is 352 sq.cm. Find its radius.
Answer:
Let the radius be “2x” and the height be “7x”
Curved surface area = 352cm²
2πrh = 352
2 × \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2x × 7x = 352
44 × 2x² = 352
x² = \(\frac{352}{44 \times 2}=\frac{176}{44}=4\)
x = √4 = 2
Radius of the cylinder (2 × 2) = 4 cm

Question 27.
A number is selected at random from integers 1 to 100. Find the probability that it is not a perfect cube.
Answer:
Sample space = {1, 2, 3,…. 100}
n(S) = 100
Let A be the event of getting a perfect cube.
A = (1, 8, 27, 64)
n(A) = 4
p(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
p(A) = \(\frac{4}{100}=\frac{1}{25}\)
The Probability that the selected number is not a perfect cube is
P(Ā) = 1 – P(A)
= 1 – \(\frac{1}{25}\)
= \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 28.
Find the value of k if 1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
Answer:
1³ + 2³ + 3³ + ……… + k³ = 2025
\(\left[\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\right]^{2}\) = 2025
\(\frac{k(k+1)}{2}\) = \(\sqrt{2025}\) = 45
k² + k = 90
K² + k – 90 = 0
(k + 10) (k + 9) = 0
k = -10 or k = 9 k = 9 (k = -10) is not possible
∴ The value of k = 9

Part – III

III. Answer any ten questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Let A = The set of all natural numbers less than 8, B = The set of all prime numbers less than 8, C = The set of even prime number. Verify that A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)
Answer:
A= {1,2, 3, 4, 5,6, 7}; B = {2, 3, 5,7} and C= {2}
B – C = {2, 3, 5, 7} – {2}
= {3,5,7}
A × (B – C) = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {3, 5,7}
= {(1,3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3,3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5,3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} …. (1)

A × B = {1,2, 3,4, 5,6,7} × {2, 3, 5,7}
= {(1,2) (1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 2) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 2) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4,2) . (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 2) (5, 3) (5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 2) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 2) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)}

A × C = {1,2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} × {2}
= {(1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) (4, 2) (5, 2) (6, 2) (7, 2)}

(A × B) – (A × C) = {(1, 3) (1, 5) (1, 7) (2, 3) (2, 5) (2, 7) (3, 3) (3, 5) (3, 7) (4, 3) (4, 5) (4, 7) (5, 3) 5, 5) (5, 7) (6, 3) (6, 5) (6, 7) (7, 3) (7, 5) (7, 7)} ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
A × (B – C) = (A × B) – (A × C)

Question 30.
If f(x) = x – 4, g(x) = x² and h(x) = 3x – 5 prove that fo(goh) = (fog)oh
Answer:
f(x) = x – 4; g(x) = x²; h(x) = 3x – 5
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog) oh(x) = fog[h(x)]
= fog (3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 …. (1)
goh(x) = g[h(x)]
= g(3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² + 25 – 30x
fo(goh) x = f[goh(x)]
= f [9x² – 30x + 25]
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(2)
Fróm (1) and (2) we get (fog)oh = fo(goh)

Question 31.
In an A.P., sum of four consecutive terms is 28 and their sum of their squares is 276. Find the four numbers.
Answer:
Let us take the four terms in the form (a – 3d), (a – d), (a + d) and (a + 3d).
Since sum of the four terms is 28,
a – 3d + a – d + a + d + a + 3d = 2%
4a = 28 gives a = 7
Similarly, since sum of their squares is 276,
(a – 3d)² + (a – d)² + (a + d)²+ (a + 3d)² = 276.
a² – 6ad + 9d² + a² – 2ad + d² + a² + 2ad + d² + a² + 6ad + 9d² = 276
4a² + 20d² = 276 ⇒ 4(7)² + 20d² = 276.
d² = 4 gives d = ± 2
If d = 2 then the four numbers are 7 – 3(2), 7 – 2, 7 + 2, 7 + 3(2)
That is the four numbers are 1, 5, 9 and 13.
If a = 7, d = -2 then the four numbers are 13, 9, 5 and 1
Therefore, the four consecutive terms of the A.P. are 1, 5, 9 and 13.

Question 32.
If a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P. and x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P. then prove that x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b} = 1.
Answer:
a, b, c are three consecutive terms of an A.P
∴ a = a, b = a + d and c = a + 2d respectively ……. (1)
x, y, z are three consecutive terms of a G.P
∴ x = x, y = xr, z = xr² respectively ….(2)
L.H.S = x^{b – c} × y^{c – a} × z ^{a – b}
( Substitute the values from 1 and 2 we get)

L.H.S = R.H.S
Hence it is proved

Question 33.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. But when first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.
Answer:
Let the number of ₹5 currencies be “x”
Let the number of ₹10 currencies be “y”
and the number of ₹20 currencies be “z”
By the given first condition
x + y + z = 12 …….. (1)
By the given second condition
5x + 10y + 20z = 105
x + 2y + 4z = 21 (÷5) …….. (2)
By the given third condition
10x + 5y + 20z = 105 + 20
10x + 5y + 20z = 125
2x + y + 4z = 25 ………. (3)


Substituting the value of x = 7 in (5)
7 – y = 4 ⇒ – y = 4 – 7
-y = -3 ⇒ y = 3
Substituting the value of x = 7, y = 3 in …. (1)
7 + 3 + z = 12
z = 12 – 10 = 2
x = 7,y = 3,z = 2
Number of currencies in ₹ 5 = 7
Number of currencies in ₹ 10 = 3
Number of currencies in ₹ 20 = 2

Question 34.
Find the square root of the expression \(\frac{4 x^{2}}{y^{2}}+\frac{20 x}{y}+13-\frac{30 y}{x}+\frac{9 y^{2}}{x^{2}}\)
Answer:

Question 35.
If A = \(\left[ \begin{matrix} 3 & 1 \\ -1 & 2 \end{matrix} \right]\) show that A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0
Answer:

L.H.S = R.H.S
∴ A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0

Question 36.
State and prove Thales theorem
Answer:
A straight line drawn parallel to a side of triangle intersecting the other two sides, divides the sides in the same ratio.

Proof
Given : In ∆ABC, D is a point on AB and E is a point on AC.
To prove : \(\frac{A D}{D B}=\frac{A E}{E C}\)
Construction : Draw a line DE || BC

Question 37.
Find the value of k, if the area of a quadrilateral is 28 sq. units, whose vertices are (-4, -2), (-3, k), (3,-2) and (2,3)
Answer:
Let the vertices A (-4, -2), B (-3, k), C (3, -2) and D (2, 3)
Area of the Quadrilateral = 28 sq. units
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(x₁y₂ + x₂y₃ + x₃y₄ + x₄y₁) – (x₂y₁ + x₃y₂ + x₄y₃ + x₁y₄)] = 28

\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 6 + 9 – 4)-(6 + 3k – 4 – 12)] = 28
\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) [(-4k + 11) – (3k – 10)] = 28
-4k + 11 – 3k + 10 = 56
-7k + 21 = 56
-7k = 56 – 21
-7k = 35 ⇒ 7k = -35
k = \(-\frac{35}{7}\) = -5
∴ The value of k = -5

Question 38.
A bird is sitting on the top of a 80 m high tree. From a point on the ground, the angle of elevation of the bird is 45° . The bird flies away horizontally in such away that it remained at a constant height from the ground. After 2 seconds, the angle of elevation of the bird from the same point is 30° . Determine the speed at which the bird flies. (√3 = 1.732)
Answer:
A is the initial position of the bird
B is the final position of the bird
Let the speed of the bird be “s”
Distance = speed × time

∴ AB = 2 s
Let CD be x
∴ CE = x + 2s
In the ∆ CDA, tan 45° = \(\frac{A D}{C D}\)
1 = \(\frac{80}{x}\)
x = 80 …(1)
In the ∆ BCE
tan 30° = \(\frac{\mathrm{BE}}{\mathrm{CE}}\)
\(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}=\frac{80}{x+2 s}\)
x + 2 s = 80 √3
x = 80 √3 – 2 s …(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
80 √3 – 2 s = 80
80 √3 – 80 = 2s ⇒ 80(√3 – 1) = 2 s
s = \(\frac{80(\sqrt{3}-1)}{2}\) = 40 (1.732 – 1) = 40 × 0. 732 = 29. 28
Speed of the flying bird = 29. 28 m / sec

Question 39.
The total marks scored by two students Sathya and Vidhya in 5 subjects are 460 and 480 with standard deviation 4.6 and 2.4 respectively. Who is more consistent in performance?
Answer:
Total marks scored by Sathya = 460
Total marks scored by Vidhya = 480
Number of subjects = 5
x̄ = 92%
Mean marks of Sathya = \(\frac{460}{5}\)
Given standard deviation, (σ) = 4.6
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{\sigma}{\bar{x}} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{4.6}{92} \times 100 \%\)
= \(\frac{460}{92}=5 \%\)
Mean marks of vidhya = \(\frac{480}{5}\)
Given standard deviation (σ) = 2.4
Coefficient of variation = \(\frac{2.4}{96} \times 100=\frac{240}{96}=2.5 \%\)
CV₁ > CV₂
Vidhya coefficient of variation is less than Sathya
∴ Vidhya is more consistent.

Question 40.
The perimeters of the ends of frustum of a cone are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm. If the height of the frustum be 8 cm, find the whole surface area of the frustum. [Use π = 3.14]
Answer:

Let the radii of circular ends be R and r [R > r]
Perimeter of circular ends are 207.24 cm and 169.56 cm
∴ 2πR = 207.24 cm
⇒ R = \(\frac{207.24}{2 \pi}=\frac{207.24}{2 \times 3.14}=33\)
⇒ R = 33m and 2 πr = 169.56
⇒ r = \(\frac{169.56}{2 \pi}=\frac{169.56}{2 \times 3.14}=27\)
Slant-height of the frustum
l = \(\sqrt{h^{2}+(\mathrm{R}-r)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{8^{2}+(33-27)^{2}}\)
\(=\sqrt{64+36}\) = 10 cm
The whole surface area of the frustum = π [(R² + r2²) + (R + r) l]
∴ Required whole surface area of the frustum
= 3.14 [33² + 27² + (33 + 27) × 10] cm²
= 3.14 [1089 + 729 + 600] cm²
= 3.14 [2418] cm²
= 7592.52 cm²

Question 41.
A jar contains 54 marbles each of which is blue, green or white. The probability of selecting a blue marbles at random from the jar is \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) and the probability of selecting a green marble at random is \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 }\) . How many white marbles does the jar contain?
Answer:
n(S) =54
Let the number of blue marble, be ‘x’
Let A be the event of getting blue marbles
n(A) = x
P(A) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{A})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{1}{3}=\frac{x}{54}\)
3x = 54
x = \(\frac{54}{3}\) = 18
Number of blue marble is 18. Let the number of green marble be “y”. Let B be the event of getting green marbles.

P(B) = \(\frac{n(\mathrm{B})}{n(\mathrm{S})}\)
\(\frac{4}{9}=\frac{y}{54}\)
9y = 54 × 4
y = \(\frac{54 \times 4}{9}\) = 24
Blue marbles + green marbles + white marbles = 54
18 + 24 + white marbles = 54
∴ Number of white marbles = 54 – 42 = 12
The jar contain 12 white marbles.

Question 42.
One – fourth of a herd of camels was seen in the forest. Twice the square root of the herd had gone to mountain and the remaining 15 camels were seen on the bank of a river. Find the total number of camels.
Answer:
Le the total number of camels be ‘x’
Number of camels seen in the forest = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\)
Number of camels gone to the mountain = 2√x
Number of camels on the bank of river = 15
Total number of camels = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
x = \(\frac { x }{ 4 }\) + 2√x + 15
4x = x + 8√x + 60 (muliply by 4)
3x – 8√x – 60 = 0
Let x = a²
3a² – 8√a² – 60 = 0
3a² – 8a – 6 = 0
3a (a – 6) + 10(a – 6) = 0
(3a + 10) (a – 6) = 0
3a + 10 = 0 or a – 6 = 0
a = \(\frac{-10}{3}\) or a = 6
x = \(\left(\frac{-10}{3}\right)^{2}\) or 6²(x = a²)
x = \(\frac{100}{9}\) (or) 36
Number of camels can-not be a fraction
∴ Number of camels = 36

PART – IV

IV. Answer all the questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) Construct a triangle similar to a given triangle PQR with its sides equal to \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR
Answer:
Given a triangle PQR, we are required to construct another triangle whose sides are \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\) of the corresponding sides of the triangle PQR.

Steps of construction
1. Construct a ∆PQR with any measurement.
2. Draw a ray QX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to vertex P.
3. Locate 7 points (the greater of 7 and 4 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\))
Q₁, Q₂, Q₃, Q₄, Q₅, Q₆ and Q₇ on QX so that
QQ₁ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃ = Q₃Q₄= Q₄Q₅ = Q₅Q₆ = Q₆Q₇
4. Join Q₄ (the 4^th point, 4 being smaller of 4 and 7 in \(\frac { 7 }{ 4 }\)) to R and draw a line through Q₇ parallel to Q₄ R, intersecting the extended line segment QR at R’.
5. Draw a line through R’ parallel to RP intersecting the extended line segment QP at P’ Then ∆P’QR’ is the required triangle each of whose sides is seven-fourths of the corresponding sides of ∆PQR.

[OR]

(b) Take a point which is 11 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 4 cm and draw the two tangents to the circle from that point.
Answer:
Radius = 4 cm; Distance 11 cm


Steps of construction:

1. With O as centre, draw a circle of radius 4 cm.
2. Draw a line OP = 11 cm.
3. Draw a perpendicular bisector of OP, which cuts OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MO as radius, draw a circle which cuts previous circle A and B.
5. Join AP and BP. AP and BP are the required tangents.
   This the length of the tangents PA = PB = 10.2 cm

Verification: In the right angle triangle OAP
PA² = OP² – OA²
= 11² – 4² = 121 – 16= 105
PA = √105 = 10.2 cm
Length of the tangents = 10.2 cm

Question 44.
(a) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0.
Answer:
(i) Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 preparing the table of values as below.

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 6), (-3, 2), (-2, 0), (-1, 0), (0, 2), (1, 6), (2, 12), (3, 20) (4, 30).
(iii) To solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0 subtract x² + 2x + 1 = 0 from y = x² + 3x + 2

(iv) Draw the graph of y = x +1 from the table

The equation y = x + 1 represents straight line.
This line intersect the curve at only one point (-1, 0). The solution set is (-1).

[OR]

(b) (2x – 3) (x + 2) = 0
y = (2x – 3) (x + 2)
= 2x² + 4x – 3x – 6
= 2x² + x – 6
(i) Prepare a table of values for y from x – 4 to 4

(ii) Plot the points (-4, 22) (-3, 9) (-2, 0) (-1, -5) (0, -6) (1,-3), (2, 4), (3, 15) and (4, 30).
(iii) Join the points by a free hand smooth curve.
The curve intersect the X – axis at (-2, 0) and \(\left(1 \frac{1}{2}, 0\right)\)
∴ The solution set is \(\left(-2,1 \frac{1}{2}\right)\)
(iv) Since there are two points of intersection with X – axis, the quadratic equation has real and un – equal roots.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 12 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code.
5. Question numbers 13 to 22 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 23 to 32 in Part III are of four marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 33 to 35 in Part IV are of seven marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 75

Part – I

(i) Answer all the questions. [12 × 1 = 12]
(ii) Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Inertia of a body depends on ______.
(a) weight of the object
(b) acceleration due to gravity of the planet
(c) mass of the object
(d) Both a & b
Answer:
(c) mass of the object

Question 2.
Magnification of a convex lens is _______.
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) either positive or negative
(d) zero
Answer:
(b) Negative

Question 3.
When a sound wave travels through air, the air particles _______.
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion
(b) vibrate but not in any fixed direction
(c) vibrate perpendicular to the direction of the wave motion
(d) do not vibrate
Answer:
(a) vibrate along the direction of the wave motion

Question 4.
The number of neutrons is ₈O¹⁶ is _______.
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 24
Answer:
(a) 8

Question 5.
Which of the following is a triatomic molecule?
(a) Glucose
(b) Helium
(c) Carbon-di-oxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Carbon-di-oxide

Question 6.
Photolysis is a decomposition reaction caused by ______.
(a) heat
(b) electricity
(c) light
(d) mechanical energy
Answer:
(c) light

Question 7.
Water which is absorbed by roots is transported to aerial parts of the plant through ________.
(a) phloem
(b) epidermis
(c) cortex
(d) xylem
Answer:
(d) xylem

Question 8.
World ‘No Tobacco Day’ is observed on _______.
(a) May 31^st
(b) April 22^nd
(c) June 6^th
(d) October 2^nd
Answer:
(a) May 31^st

Question 9.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

Question 10.
The phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidised to release ethyl alcohol is
(a) Glycolysis
(b) Kreb’s cycle
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Fermentation
Answer:
(d) Fermentation

Question 11.
Biogenetic law states that ______.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny

Question 12.
Where you will create category of blocks?
(a) Block palette
(b) Block menu
(c) Script area
(d) Sprite
Answer:
(b) Block menu

Part – II

Answer any seven questions. (Q.No: 22 is compulsory) [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 13.
State Boyle’s law.
Answer:
When the temperature of a gas is kept constant, the volume of a fixed mass of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)

Question 14.
Differentiate mass and weight.
Answer:

Question 15.
Why are traffic signals red in colour?
Answer:

• Red light has the highest wavelength.
• It is scattered by atmospheric particles.
• So red light is able to travel the longest distance through fog, rain etc.

Question 16.
Define volume percentage.
Answer:
Volume percentage is defined as the percentage by volume of solute (in ml) present in the given volume of the solution.

Question 17.
Give any two examples for heterodiatomic molecules.
Answer:
Heterodiatomic molecules -E.g: HCl, NaCl.

Question 18.
Match the following:

Answer:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i)

Question 19.
Write the differences between endocrine and exocrine gland.
Answer:

Question 20.
Identify the parts A,B,C and D.
Answer:

A – Exine, B – Intine, C – Generative cell, D – Vegetative nucleus

Question 21.
Define Cancer.
Answer:
Cancer is an abnormal and uncontrolled division of cells that invade and destroy surrounding tissue forming a tumor or neoplasm: It is a heterogenous group of cells that do not respond to the normal cell division.

Question 22.
The potential difference between two conductor is 110 V. How much work moving 5C charge from one conductor to the other?
Answer:
Given, V = 110 V , Charge q = 5C
V = \(\frac{W}{q}\)
W = V × q
W = 110 × 5 = 550 J
∴ Work done W = 550 J

Part – III

Answer any seven questions (Q.No: 32 is compulsory) [7 × 4 = 28]

Question 23.
Describe the rocket propulsion.
Answer:

• Propulsion of rockets is based on the law of conservation of linear momentum as well as Newton’s III law of motion.
• Rockets are filled with a fuel (either liquid or solid) in the propellant tank. When the rocket is fired, this fuel is burnt and a hot gas is ejected with a high speed from the nozzle of the rocket, producing a huge momentum.
• To balance this momentum, an equal and opposite reaction force is produced in the combustion chamber, which makes the rocket project forward.
• While in motion, the mass of the rocket gradually decreases, until the fuel is completely burnt out.
• Since, there is no net external force acting on it, the linear momentum of the system is conserved.
• The mass of the rocket decreases with altitude, which results in the gradual increase in velocity of the rocket.
• At one stage, it reaches a velocity, which is sufficient to just escape from the gravitational pull of the Earth. This velocity is called escape velocity.

Question 24.
Explain the types of Scattering.
Answer:
Types of Scattering.
When a beam of light, interacts with a constituent particle of the medium, it undergoes many kinds of scattering.
Based on initial and final energy of the light beam, scattering can be classified as,

1. Elastic scattering
2. Inelastic scattering

1. Elastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are same, then it is called as ‘elastic scattering’.

2. Inelastic scattering:
If the energy of the incident beam of light and the scattered beam of light are not same, then it is called as ‘inelastic scattering’.
The nature and size of the scattered results in different types of scattering. They are

• Raylight scattering
• Mie scattering
• Tyndall scattering
• Raman scattering

Question 25.
(a) Calculate the current and the resistance of a 100 W, 200 V electric bulb in an electric circuit.
Answer:
Given, P = 100 W, V = 200 V
Power P = VI

(b) What is the role of the earth wire in domestic circuits?
Answer:

• The earth wire provides a low resistance path to the electric current.
• The earth wire sends the current from the body of the appliance to the Earth, whenever a live wire accidentally touches the body of the metallic electric appliance.
• Thus, the earth wire serves as a protective conductor, which saves us from electric shocks.

Question 26.
Explain the mechanism of cleansing action of soap.
Answer:
A soap molecule contains two chemically distinct parts that interact differently with water. It has one polar end, which is a short head with a carboxylate group (-COONa) and one nonpolar end having the long tail made of the hydrocarbon chain.

The polar end is hydrophilic (Water loving) in nature and this end is attracted towards water. The non-polar end is hydrophobic (Water hating) in nature and it is attracted towards dirt or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water. Thus, the hydrophobic part of the soap molecule traps the dirt and the hydrophilic part makes the entire molecule soluble in water.

When a soap or detergent is dissolved in water, the molecules join together as clusters called ‘micelles’. Their long hydrocarbon chains attach themselves to the oil and dirt. The dirt is thus surrounded by the non-polar end of the soap molecules. The charged carboxylate end of the soap molecules makes the micelles soluble in water. Thus, the dirt is washed away with the soap.

Question 27.
(a) Explain the various types of binary solutions based on the physical states of solute and solvent table.
Answer:

(b) State Henry’s law?
Answer:
Henry’s law states that, the solubility of a gas in a liquid, is directly proportional to the pressure of the gas over the solution at a definite temperature.

Question 28.
(a) Give an example for conditioned reflexes.
Answer:
Playing harmonium by striking a particular key, on seeing a music note is an example of conditioned reflexes which required conscious training effort.

(b) How many cranial nerves and spinal nerves are present in man?
Answer:
12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs of spinal nerves are present in man.

Question 29.
(a) What are Allosomes?
Answer:
Allosomes are chromosomes which are responsible for determining the sex of an individual. There are two types of sex chromosomes. X and Y chromosomes. Human male have one X chromosome and one Y chromosomes and the human female have two X chromosomes.

(b) What causes the opening and closing of guard cells of stomata during transpiration?
Answer:
The opening and closing of stomata is due to the change in turgidity of the guard cells. When the water enters into the guard cells, they become turgid and the stomata open. When guard cells lose water, it becomes flaccid and the stomata closes.

Question 30.
(a) Draw and label the structure of oxysomes
Answer:

(b) What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)

Question 31.
(a) Why is a dietary restriction recommended for an obese individual?
Answer:
Obesity is a positive risk factor in development of hypertension, diabetes, gall bladder disease, coronary heart disease and arthritis. Hence dietary restriction is recommended for an obese individual.

(b) Give the name of wheat variety having higher dietary fibre and protein.
Answer:
Triticale (6n) is a hybrid of wheat and rye. It has higher dietary fibre and protein.

Question 32.
(a) State Newton’s third law of motion and explain with examples:
Answer:
Law: ‘For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
They always act on two different bodies’.
F_B = – F_A

Examples:
(i) When birds fly:
Push the air downwards with their wings – Action
Air push the bird upwards – Reaction

(ii) When firing bullet:
Gun recoils backward and the bullet is moving forward – Action
Gun equals this forward action by moving backward – Reaction.

(b) How will you identify saturated and unsaturated compounds?
Answer:

• Take the given sample solution in a test tube.
• Add a few drops of bromine water
• If the given compound is unsaturated, it will decolourise bromine water.
• If the given compound is saturated it will not decolourise bromine water.

Part – IV

(1) Answer all the questions. [3 × 7 = 21]
(2) Each question carries seven marks.
(3) Draw diagram wherever necessary.

Question 33.
(a) (i) State Rayleigh’s law of scattering.
Answer:
Rayleigh’s scattering law states that “The amount of scattering of light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength”.
Amount of scattering, S ∝ \(\frac{1}{\lambda^{4}}\)

(ii) Explain the construction and working of a ‘compound microscope’.
Answer:
Construction
A compound microscope consists of two convex lenses. The lens with the shorter focal length is placed near the object, and is called as ‘objective lens’ or ‘objective piece’. The lens with larger focal length and larger aperture placed near the observer’s eye is called as ‘eye lens’ or ‘eye piece’. Both the lenses are fixed in a narrow tube with adjustable provision.

Working:
(i) The object (AB) is placed at a distance slightly greater than the focal length of objective lens (u >fo).
(ii) A real, inverted and magnified image (A’B’) is formed at the other side of the objective lens.
(iii) This image behaves as the object for the eye lens. The position of the eye lens is adjusted in such a way, that the image (A’B’) falls within the principal focus of the eye piece.
(iv) This eye piece forms a virtual, enlarged and erect image (A” B”) on the same side of the object.
(v) Compound microscope has 50 to 200 times more magnification power than simple microscope.

[OR]

(b) (i) A heavy truck and bike are moving with the same kinetic energy. If the mass of the truck is four times that of the bike, then calculate the ratio of their momenta. (Ratio of momenta = 1:2)
Answer:
Given: Let m_b , m_t are the masses of truck and bike.
mt = 4m_b ………(1)

(ii) Air temperature in the Rajasthan desert can reach 46°C. What is the velocity of sound in air at that temperature? (v₀ = 331 ms^-1)
Answer:
V_T = (V₀ + 0.16 T)
T = 46°C, v₀ =331 ms^-1
_VT = 331 +(0.61 × 46)
= 331 +28.06
V_T = 359.06 ms^-1

Question 34.
(a) (i) A solution is prepared by dissolving 15 g of NaCl in 85 g of water. Calculate the mass percentage of solute.
Answer:
Mass of solute = 15 g
Mass of solvent = 85 g

(ii) Calculate the pH of 0.001 M NaOH.
Answer:
[OH^–] = Normality = Molarity × acidity
= 0.001 × 1 = 1 × 10^-3
pOH = -log₁₀ [OH^–]
= -log₁₀ ¹× [10^-3]
= -log ¹– log₁₀ 10^-3
= 0 – (-3 log₁₀ ¹⁰)
pOH = 3
pH + pOH = 14 .
pH = 14 – pOH= 14 – 3
pH = 11

(iii) Calculate the mass of 0.01 mole of H₂O.
Answer:
n = 0.01 mole; μ = 18 g mol^-1; W = ?
W = n × M
= 0.01 × 18 = 0.18 g

[OR]

(b) (i) In what way hygroscopic substances differ from deliquescent substances.
Answer:
Difference between hygroscopic and deliquescent substances is in the extent to which each material can absorb moisture. This is because both of these terms are very much related to each other and they refer to the property of observing and the retention of moisture from the air. However, they differ in the extent of absorption of moisture where hygroscopic materials absorb moisture but not the extent the original substance dissolves in it, which is the casewith deliquescence. Therefore deliquescence can be regarded as an extreme condition of hygroscopic activity.

(ii) Define solubility.
Answer:
It is defined as the number of grams of a solute that can be dissolved in 100 g of a solvent to form its saturated solution at a given temperature and pressure.

Question 35.
(a) (i) Which hormone is known as stress hormone in plants ? Why?
Answer:
Abscisic acid (ABA) is a growth, inhibitor which regulates abscission and dormancy. It increases tolerance of plants to various kinds of stress. So, it is also called as stress hormone. It is found in the chloroplast of plants.

(ii) How does binary fission differ from multiple fission?
Answer:

(iii) What are the sources of solid wastes? How are solid wastes managed?
Answer:
Solid wastes mainly include municipal wastes, hospital wastes, industrial wastes and e-wastes, etc.

Methods of solid wastes disposal:
(1) Segregation: It is the separation of different type of waste materials like biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes.

(2) Sanitary landfill: Solid wastes are dumped into low lying areas. The layers are compacted by trucks to allow settlement. The waste materials get stabilised in about 2-12 months. The organic matter undergoes decomposition.

(3) Incineration: It is the burning of non-biodegradable solid wastes (medical wastes) in properly constructed furnace at high temperature.

(4) Composting: Biodegradable matter of solid wastes is digested by microbial action or earthworms and converted into humus.

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the male reproductive system of rabbit?
Answer:

The male reproductive system of rabbit consists of a pair of testes which are ovoid in shape. Testes are enclosed by scrotal sacs in the abdominal cavity. Each testis consists of numerous fine tubules called seminiferous tubules.
This network of tubules lead into Cowper s glands a coiled tubule called epididymis, Perineal glands which lead into the sperm duct called vas deferens.

The vas deferens join in the urethra just below the urinary bladder. The urethra runs backward and passes into the penis. There are three accessory glands namely prostate gland, cowper’s gland and perineal gland. Their secretions are involved in reproduction.

(ii) What are vestigeal organs?
Answer:
The degenerated and non functional organs of animals are called Vestigeal organs. Eg. Vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra, coccyx.

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts
2. You are to attempt all the questions in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 15 to 28 in Part II are of two marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
6. Question numbers 29 to 42 in Part III are of five marks each. Any one question should be answered compulsorily.
7. Question numbers 43 to 44 in Part IV are of Eight marks each. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer [14 × 1 = 14]

Question 1.
Where did the Ethiopian army defeat the Italian army?
(a) Delville
(b) Orange State
(c) Adowa
(d) Algiers
Answer:
(c) Adowa

Question 2.
With whose conquest did the Mexican civilization collapse?
(a) Hernan Cortes
(b) Francisco Pizarro
(c) Toussaint Louverture
(d) Pedro I
Answer:
(a) Hernan Cortes

Question 3.
In which year was Sati abolished?
(a) 1827
(b) 1829
(c) 1826
(d) 1927
Answer:
(b) 1829

Question 4.
Who was the first Palayakkarar to resist the East India Company’s policy of territorial aggrandizement?
(a) Marudhu brothers
(b) Puli Thevar
(c) Velunachiyar
(d) Veera Pandya Kattabomman
Answer:
(b) Puli Thevar

Question 5.
established a full-fledged printing press in 1709, at Tranquebar.
(a) Caldwell
(b) F.W.Ellis
(c) Ziegenbalg
(d) Meenakshisundaram
Answer:
(c) Ziegenbalg

Question 6.
The North-South extent of India is
(a) 2,500 km
(b) 2,933 km
(c) 3,214 km
(d) 2,814 km
Answer:
(c) 3,214 km

Question 7.
Pick the odd one out.
(a) Cotton
(b) rice
(c) Wheat
(d) Maize
Answer:
(a) Cotton

Question 8.
The city which is called as the Manchester of South India is
(a) Chennai
(b) Salem
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(d) Coimbatore

Question 9.
The highest peak in Tamil Nadu is
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Servarayar
Answer:
(b) Doddabetta

Question 10.
The delta which is known as Granary of South India is
(a) Cauvery delta
(b) Mahanadi delta
(c) Godavari delta
(d) Krishna delta
Answer:
(a) Cauvery delta

Question 11.
How many times has the preamble to the constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never
Answer:
(a) Once

Question 12.
Which is not related to our foreign policy?
(a) World co-operation
(b) World peace
(c) Racial equality
(d) Colonialism
Answer:
(d) Colonialism

Question 13.
Which one is a trade policy?
(a) irrigation policy
(b) import and export policy
(c) land-reform policy
(d) Wage policy
Answer:
(b) import and export policy

Question 14.
Tiruppur is known for ………………
(a) Leather tanning
(b) lock making
(c) knit wear
(d) Agro – Processing
Answer:
(c) knit wear

Part – II

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 28 is compulsory. [10 × 2 = 20]

Question 15.
How did Great Depression impact on the Indian agriculture?
Answer:

• The Great Depression had a deep impact on the Indian agriculture. The value of farm produce, declined by half, while the land rent to be paid by the peasant, remained unchanged.
• In terms of prices of agricultural commodities, the obligation of the farmers to the state doubled.

Question 16.
How was the Cuban Missile crisis defused?
Answer:

• The Cuban Missile crisis was a confrontation between the United States and the Soviet Union which initiated by the American discovery of Soviet Ballistic missile deployment in Cuba.
• Finally, the Soviet President Nikita Khrushchev agreed to withdraw the missiles and thus the missile crisis was defused.

Question 17.
Explain the concept of constructive swadeshi?
Answer:
Under Constructive Swadeshi the self-defeating modest approach of moderates was rejected and self-help was focused on through swadeshi industries, national schools, arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the village. It was totally non-political in nature.

Question 18.
What do you know of the Cheranmahadevi Gurukulam incident?
Answer:
A Gurukulam was established in Cheranmahadevi by V. V. S. Iyer with the financial support of the Tamil Nadu Congress Committee. However, students were discriminated on the basis of caste. Brahmin and non-Brahmin students were made to dine separately.

Periyar was disturbed to see the discrimination. He questioned the practice, and severely criticised it. Despite his objections the Congress continued to support the iniquitous practice in the Gurukulam. This disappointed Periyar.

Question 19.
Write a brief note on the island group of Lakshaweep.
Answer:

• It lies close to the Malabar coast of Kerala.
• This group of islands is composed of small coral islands.
• Earlier they were known as Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindive. In 1973, these were named as Lakshadweep.
• It covers small area of 32 sq.km. Kavaratti island is the administrative headquarters of Lakshadweep.
• This island group has great diversity of flora and fauna. The Pitti island which is uninhabited, has a bird sanctuary.

Question 20.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:
The major inland water ways of India are:

• National Waterway 1: It extends between Haldia and Allahabad, measures 1620 km and includes the stretches of the Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hooghly river system.
• National Waterway 2: This waterway includes the stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya a distance of 891 km.
• National Waterway 3: This waterway extends between Kollam and Kottappuram in the state of Kerala. It is the first national waterway in the country with 24 hour navigation facilities along its entire stretch of 205 km.

Question 21.
Name the major Islands of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Pamban, Hare, Krusadai, Nallathanni Theevu, Pullivasal, Srirangam, Upputanni, Island Grounds, Kattupalli Island, Quibble Island and Vivekananda Rock Memorial are some major islands of Tamil Nadu.

Question 22.
List out the air ports and sea ports of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Airports:

• Chennai International Airport
• Coimbatore International Airport
• Madurai International Airport
• Tiruchirapalli International Airport

Domestic Airports:

• Tuticorin and Salem

Sea Port: Major Sea Ports are:

• Chennai
• Ennore
• Tuticorin

Intermediate port at Nagapattinam and 15 minor ports.

Question 23.
What are the classical languages in India?
Answer:
There are six classical languages namely – Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia.

Question 24.
List any four guiding principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:
Guiding principles of Panchsheel are:

1. Mutual Respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
2. Mutual non-interference
3. Equality and co-operation for mutual benefit
4. Peaceful co-existence.

Question 25.
Define National Income.
Answer:
National Income is a measure of the total value of goods and services produced by an economy over a period of time, normally a year. National Income is also known as Gross National Product or GNP or National Dividend.

Question 26.
What is globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world without creating any barriers in the free flow of goods and services, technology, capital and even labour or human capital.

Question 27.
Define tax.
Answer:
Tax is levied by government for the development of the state’s economy. The revenue of the government depends upon direct and indirect taxes.

Question 28.
Define the resource and state its types.
Answer:
Any matter or energy derived from the environment that is used by living things including humans is called a natural resource.
Types of Natural Resources are:

1. Renewable and
2. Non – renewable resources.

Part – III

Answer any 10 questions. Question No. 42 is compulsory. [10 × 5 = 50]

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks
(i) …………..was humiliated by the Treaty of Versailles.
(ii) …………………..makes our toothpaste white.
(iii) The Dutch captured pondicherry in ………………..
(iv) ………………are very important in the modem economic activities of man.
(v) Sathanur dam is constructed across the river………….
Answers
(i) Germany
(ii) Titanium Oxide
(iii) 1693
(iv) Industries
(v)Thenpennai

Question 30.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 31.
Match the following

Answer:

Question 32.
(a) Distinguish between
(i) GMT and 1ST.
(ii) Weather and Climate,
Answer:
(a) (i) GMT and IST:
GMT :

• It means Greenwich Mean Time.
• GMT is calculated at 0° longitude.
• It passes through Greenwich.
• It is the World Standard Time.

IST:

• It means Indian Standard Time.
• India’s central meridian is 82° 30’ E longitude.
• It passes through Mirzapur.
• It is the Indian Standard Time.

(ii) Weather and Climate:
Answer:
Weather:

• Weather is a day to day conditions of the atmosphere of any place in regard to temperature, pressure, wind, humidity and rainfall.
• It is calculated for a day or a short period of time.

Climate:

• Climate is the average state of weather for a longer period of time at any place.
• To get reliable average of climate, a minimum of 35 years records of weather are necessary.

(b) Give reason: The river Godavari is often referred as Vridha Ganga.
Answer:

• The Godavari is India’s second longest river after Ganga.
• It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in the Nasik district of Maharashtra.
• It covers a large number of states as the Ganga does. Because of its large size and extend among the peninsular rivers, the river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga.

Question 33.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:
(i) After World War II, it was decided to integrate the states of western Europe. One of the chief objectives was to prevent further European wars by ending the rivalry between France and Germany. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed a form called Council of Europe.

(ii) Since the Council of Europe had no real power, a proposal to set up two European organisations were made. Accordingly, the European Defence Community (EDC) and the European Coal and Steel Community (ECSC) were established. Six countries belonging to ECSC signed the treaty of Rome which established the European Economic Community (EEC) or the European Common Market, with headquarters at Brussels.

(iii) The EEC facilitated the elimination of barriers to the movement of goods and services, capital, and labour. It also prohibited public policies or private agreements that restricted market comptetion. Throughout the 1970s and 80s the EEC kept expanding its membership.

(iv) The single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis. It also called for more intensive coordination of foreign policy among member countries. According to the SEA each member was given multiple votes, depending on the countries population.

(v) The Maastricht (Netherlands) Treaty signed on February 7, 1992, created the European Union (EU). Today the European Union has 28 member states, and is functioning from its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.

Question 34.
Eumerate the cause for the failure of the great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Administrative changes:

• Disunity among the Indians was the first and the foremost cause.
• A large number of rulers of the Indian states and the big zamindars did not j oin the movement.
• The rulers of the Indian states, who did not support the movement, remained neutral.
• The educated Indians did not support the movement.
• The telegraph and postal communication proved very helpful to the British for proper military actions and sending their reinforcements at the earliest time.
• The rebellious soldiers were short of modem weapons and other materials of war.
• The rebellious soldiers had to fight with traditional weapons which were no match to modem weapons possessed by the British forces.
• The revolt was not extended beyond North.
• The Indian leaders like Nana Saheb, Tantia Tope, Rani Lakshmi Bai where no match to the British generals.
• The revolt broke out prematurely and the preparations for the revolt remained incomplete.
• The organization and the planning of the rebels was very poor.
• The Indian leaders were brave and selfless but they lacked unity of command and discipline.
• The revolutionaries had no common idea.
• The Muslims wanted to revive Mughal rule and the Hindus wanted to receive the Peshwa Raj.
• The British diplomacy of Divide and Rule prevented most of the Indian rulers to j oin together for a common cause.

Question 35.
Write about any two multipurpose projects of India.
Answer:
A comprehensive river valley project which serves a number of purposes simultaneously is called a “Multi purposes project”.
1. The Bhakra Nangal Project: India’s biggest multipurpose river valley project is ‘Bhakra Nangal Project’. It has been built at a strategic point where two hills on either side of the Sutlej are very close to each other. It is the highest gravity dam in the world. Its length is 226 metres from the riverbed. The canals taken out are 1100 kilometres long. The ‘Nangal Power Plant’ on the Sutlej produces electricity, and serves the states of Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and New Delhi. The distributaries are 8400 km in length. It irrigates an area of 1.4 million hectares.

2. Indira Gandhi Project: This project is an ambitious scheme to bring new areas under irrigation so that more areas could be cultivated. The waters of the River Beas and the Ravi are diverted to the River Sutlej. The ‘Pong’ Dam on the River Beas has been constructed to divert the Beas water into the Sutlej in a regulated manner. So that ‘Rajasthan canal’, the longest irrigation canal in the world can irrigate Gandhi Nagar, Bikaner and Jaisalmer districts of North West Rajasthan, (i.e) a part of Thar desert. The main canal now called ‘Indira Gandhi Canal’ is 468 km long runs entirely in Rajasthan, Western of Sutlej, Beas and Ravi are now being fully utilised for irrigating thirsty lands of South Western parts of our country.

Question 36.
Write about the plantation farming of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tea, coffee, cashew, rubber and cinchona are the major plantation crops of the state.
• Tamil Nadu ranks second in area and production of tea in India next to Assam.
• Tea plantations are found in the hills of the Nilgiris and Coimbatore.
• Coffee plants are grown in the hills of Western Ghats as well as Eastern Ghats.
• The Nilgiris and Yercaud in Salem are the notable regions for tea plantations.
• It is also found in the hilly slopes of Dindigul, Madurai, Theni and Dharmapuri districts.
• Tamil Nadu stands second in area and in production of coffee next to Karnataka.
• Rubber plantations are significant in Kanyakumari.
• Pepper is confined to the warm and wet slopes of Eastern and Western Ghats of Tamil Nadu. .
• Cashew is extensively cultivated in Cuddalore district.
• Cinchona is planted at heights varying from 1060 to 1280 metres in Anaimalai hills.
• Cardamom estates are located at few places in the hills of Madurai region at an elevation of 915 to 1525 metres.

Question 37.
Explain the salient features of the constitution of India.
Answer:
Here are the salient features of the Indian Constitution.

• It is the lengthiest of all the written Constitutions of the world.
• It is partly rigid and partly flexible.
• It establishes a federal system of Government.
• It establishes the Parliamentary systems not only at the Centre but also in the States.
• It provides an independent judiciary.
• It makes India as a secular state.
• It introduces Universal Adult Franchise and accords the right to vote to all citizens above 18 years of age without any discrimination.
• It provides single citizenship.
• It makes special provisions for minorities, SCs, STs, etc.

Question 38.
Write a short note on SAARC.
Answer:
SAARC:
SAARC means, The South Asian Association for regional co-operation.

• India took the initiative to form SAARC to maintain peace in the regional level.
• SAARC’s first meeting was held at Dacca in Bangladesh in Dec 7, 1985.
• Ashan of Bangladesh was the first secretary general of SAARC.
• The member countries are Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, Afghanistan and Sri Lanka.
• On April 3, 2007 the SAARC’s annual summit was held in New Delhi. Afghan president Hamid Karzai attended this meeting. Afghanistan became its 8th member.
• 18th SAARC summit took place on 26* and 27* of November 2014 at Kathmandu the capital of Nepal.
• The SAARC countries identified mutual co-operation in the following areas transportation postal service, tourism, shipping meteorology, health, agriculture rural reconstruction and telecommunication.

Question 39.
What are the methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Methods of calculating Gross Domestic Product or GDP:

• Expenditure Approach – In this method, the GDP is measured by adding the expenditure on all the final goods and services produced in the country during a specified period.
• Income Approach – This method looks at GDP from the perspective of the earnings of the men and women who are involved in producing the goods and services.
• Value-added Approach – In the value – added approach the value added by each intermediate good is summed to estimate the value of the fiscal good. The sum of the value added by all the intermediate goods used in productions gives us the total value of the final goods produced in the economy.

Question 40.
Briefly explain the nutritional and health status of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Status of Nutrition:

• We noted earlier that food security includes nutrition security too. Though our country has reached self-sufficiency in food production, the nutrition status of the population has not seen corresponding levels of improvement.
• In 2015-16, 27% of the rural women and 16% of the urban women (in the age group of 15-49 years) were counted as undernourished or chronically energy deficient by the National Family Health Survey.
• More than half of the women in the reproductive age group (15-49 years) in both rural and urban India were anaemic in 2015-16. As regards children, about 60% of the rural and 56% of the urban children (in the age group of 6-59 months) are counted to be anaemic, in 2015-16.
• About 41 % of the rural and 31 % of urban children are stunted, that is, they are not of the required height in correspondence to their age. Another indicator of nutrition deficiency . among children is “underweight”, which is weight in relation to age.
• In India, in 2015-16, about 20% of children (in the age group of 6-59 months) in rural and urban India are estimated to be underweight.

Question 41.
Draw a time line for the following:
Write any five important events between 1934-1961
Answer:

Question 42.
Mark the following places on the world map.
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) France
(iv) Italy
(v) Greece
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer both questions. [2 × 8 = 16]

Question 43.
(a) German Emperor
(i) What was the nature of Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany?
(ii) What was the violent form of Germany called?
(iii) Why did Kaiser Wilhelm intervene in the Morocco affair?
(iv) What happened to Germany’s colonies in Africa?
Answer:
(a) German Emperor

(i) The Emperor Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany was ruthlessly assertive and aggressive. He proclaimed that Germany would be the leader of the world.

(ii) It was called Germany’s Kultur.

(iii) The British agreement with France over the latter’s interest in Morocco was consented by Germany. So Kaiser Wilhelm II of Germany intentionally recognised the independence of the Sultan and demanded an international conference to decide on the future of Morocco.

(iv) The German colonies in western and eastern Africa were attacked by the Allies. As these
colonies were quite far off from Germany they could not receive any immediate help, and therefore had to surrender to the Allies.

(b) Korean War
(i) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
(ii) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
(iii) How long did the Korean War last?
(iv) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
(b) Korean War
(i) Kim II was the President of North Korea during the Korean War.
(ii) Syngman Rhee
(iii) The Korean War lasted three years
(iv) The human cost was enormous, there were 500,000 western casualties and three times that number on the other side. Approximately two million Korean civilian died.

[OR]

Question 43.
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(i) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
(ii) Who was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi?
(iii) Who was the correspondent of London Times to report on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
(iv) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
(c) The Revolt of 1857
(i) Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer.
(ii) The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was proclaimed the Shahenshah-e-Hindustan in Delhi.
(iii) The correspondent’s name was William Howard Russell.
(iv) The Queen proclaimed to the Indian people that the British government would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters. ‘

(d) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(i) What is constructive programme?
(ii) What did Gandhi exhort the Congressmen to do?
(iii) How did Gandhi try to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity?
(iv) What is the contribution of Gandhi towards abolition of untouchability?
Answer:
(d) Constructive Programme of Gandhi
(i) Programmes that aimed at Khadi promotion, Hindu-Muslim unity and the abolition of untouchability are called constructive programmes.
(ii) He exhorted the Congressmen to go throughout their districts and spread the message of Khaddar, the message of Hindu-Muslim unity, the message of anti-untouchability and take up in hand the youth of the country and make them the real soldiers of Swaraj.
(iii) Gandhi tried to bring about Hindu-Muslim unity to strengthen the cause of Swaraj.
(iv) Gandhiji wanted to abolish untouchability from the country. He undertook an all-India tour called the Harijan Tour. He started the Harijan Sevak Sangh to work for the removal of discriminations. He worked to promote education, cleanliness and hygiene and giving up of liquor among the depressed class. He also launched the Temple Entry Movement.

Question 44.
Mark the following places on the given outline map of India.
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mumbai
(iii) Rice cultivation area
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Air route from Chennai to Delhi
(vi) Mountain forests
(vii) Direction of South West monsoon
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

[OR]

Mark the following places on the given outline map of Tamil Nadu:
Answer:
(i) Gulf of Mannar .
(ii) Manimutharu dam
(iii) Pamban
(iv) Chennai port
(v) Any one international airport
(vi) Graphite ore production centre
(vii) Rubber growing area
(viii) Magnesite ore production centre .

Map for Q 42
(i) Great Britain
(ii) Germany
(iii) France
(iv) Italy
(v) Greece
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Western Ghats
(ii) Mumbai
(Hi) Rice cultivation area
(iv) Panna biosphere reserve
(v) Air route from Chennai to Delhi
(vi) Mountain forests
(vii) Direction of South West monsoon
(viii) Cotton growing area
Answer:

Map for Q. 44
(i) Gulf of Mannar
(ii) Manimutharu dam
(iii) Pamban
(iv) Chennai port
(v) Any one international airport
(vi) Graphite ore production centre
(vii) Rubber growing area
(viii) Magnesite ore production centre
Answer:

Students can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamil Nadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Model Question Paper 2

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the sections in each part. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers I to 14 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by writing the correct answer along with the corresponding – option code.
5. Part II has got four sections. The questions are of two marks each. Question numbers 15 to 18 in Section I and Question numbers 19 to 22 in Section II are to be answered in about one or two sentences each. Question numbers 23 to 28 in Section III and IV are to be answered as directed.
6. Question numbers 29 to 45 in Part III are of five marks each and have been divided in five sections. These are to be answered as directed.
7.  Question numbers 46 and 47 in Part IV are of eight marks each. Question number 47 has four questions of two marks each. These are to be answered as directed.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [14 x 1= 14]
Choose the most suitable answer and write the code with the corresponding answer.
Choose the appropriate synonyms for the italicised words.

Question 1.
He felt certain that his wings would never support him.
(a) curtain
(b) screen
(c) sure
(d) unsure
Answer:
(c) sure

Question 2.
‘Nothing,’ he said, gruffly.
(a) sadly
(b) angrily
(c) carefully
(d) grievously
Answer:
(b) angrily

Question 3.
‘We left our ancestral house, twenty- nine years ago.
(a) inherited
(b) anterior
(c) interior
(d) palatial
Answer:
(a) inherited

Choose the appropriate antonym for the italicised words.

Question 4.
It covered the expedition in five legs with stop-overs at four ports.
(a) exposed
(b) shielded
(c) protected
(d) hid
Answer:
(a) exposed

Question 5.
Technology determines if its impacts are positive.
(a) confident
(b) affirmative
(c) promotional
(d) negative
Answer:
(d) negative

Question 6.
The oppressors dominated over the language and culture of the Germans.
(a) released
(b) conquered
(c) liberated
(d) controlled
Answer:
(c) liberated

Question 7.
Choose the correct plural form of Chinese from the following.
(a) Chinese
(b) Chineses
(c) Chinesies
(d) Chinesses
Answer:
(a) Chinese

Question 8.
Form a derivative by adding the right prefix to the word – ‘legal’.
(a) en-
(b) mis-
(c) il-
(d) dis-
Answer:
(c) il-

Question 9.
Choose the correct expansion of the abbreviation PSU.
(a) Public Sector University
(b) Public Sector Unit
(c) Public Service Unit
(d) Public Sector Unit
Answer:
(d) Public Sector Unit

Question 10.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrasal verb given below:
The air hostess instructed the passengers to wear the seat belts during the
(a) take off.
(b) take out
(c) take after
(d) take in
Answer:
(a) take off.

Question 11.
Choose the suitable option to pair it with the word ‘ wash’ to form a compound word.
(a) clean
(b) gentle
(c) room
(d) out
Answer:
(c) room

Question 12.
Fill in the blank with the most appropriate preposition given below:
He was wearing a dhoti and a blue striped shirt that could be seen from a green
shawl.
(a) across
(b) under
(c) into
(d) inside
Answer:
(b) under

Question 13.
Complete the following sentence using the most appropriate tense form of the verb given below:
The sun in ………… the west.
(a) sets
(b) is setting
(c) was set
(d) will set
Answer:
(a) sets

Question 14.
Choose the most appropriate linker from the given four alternatives.
He believed Maede’s men were beginning to retreat.
(a) for
(b) and
(c) but
(d) that
Answer:
(d) that

Part – II [10 x 2 = 20]
Section -1

Answer any three of the following questions in a sentence or two. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 15.
How does Mr. Bodwell react to the shoe thrown by Mrs. Thurber?
Answer:
When the narrator’s mother throws a shoe through the Bodwells’ window and says there are burglars in the house, Bodwell is momentarily contused, thinking that the burglars are in his house, before understanding the truth and alerting the police.

Question 16.
Which skill was considered important in the selection process? How long were they trained to undertake this voyage?
Answer:
Little survival skills they showcased was considered important in the selection process. They were trained for almost three years to undertake this voyage.

Question 17.
What was the condition of the attic?
Answer:
A portion of a wall of the attic had crumbled down. In the whole house, the attic had probably been the worst hit by wind and weather. The floor was strewn with twigs and straw and pigeon droppings.

Question 18.
What can be the matter now?” says Franz. Why, do you think he commented?
Answer:
When Franz passed by the bulletin board near the town-hall, he noticed a crowd there. He did not stop there nor wondered what could be the matter then. For the last two years they had received all the bad news from the bulletin-board—the lost battle, the draft and the orders of the commanding officer.

Section – II

Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any THREE of the following.
[3 x 2 = 6]

Question 19.
“In the dim past, nor holding back in fear From what the future veils; but with a whole And happy heart, that pays its toll
To Youth and Age, and travels on with cheer.’’
(a) What does the poet mean by the phrase ‘in the dim past’?
(b) How can one travel on with cheer?
Answer:
(a) The poet means that the past was very dull and glum.
(b) One can travel cheerfully with a happy heart.

Question 20.
“Despite the sighs and groans and moans,
She’s strong in her faith, firm in her belief!.”
(a) Is she complaining about the problems of life?
(b) Pick out the words that show her grit.
Answer:
(a) No she is not complaining about the problems of life.
(b) The words that show her grit are strong and firm.

Question 21.
“We were taken from the ore-bed and the mine,
We were melted in the furnace and the pit ”
(a) Who does ‘we’ refer to in first stanza?
(b) Who are the speakers and listeners of this poem?
Answer:
(a) ‘We’ refers to the Machines in the first stanza.
(.b) The speakers are the Machines which are the brain children of man and the listeners are the readers of this poem.

Question 22.
“ What happened there is still today unknown.
It is a very mysterious place,
And inside you can tell it has a ton of space,
But at the same time it is bare to the bone.”
(a) You know what happened inside that house?
(A) What is meant by ‘bare to the bone’?
Answer:
(a) No one knows what happened inside the house.
(b) ‘Bare to the bone’means there isn’t anything in the house.

Section – III

Answer any THREE of the following. [3 x 2 = 6]

Question 23.
Rewrite the following sentence to the other voice.
Are you disturbed by listening to hard rock music?
Answer:
Does listening to hard rock music disturb you?

Question 24.
Rewrite using indirect speech.
Shalini said to Mr. Shamrock, “Have you decided to give me the job?”
Answer:
Shalini asked Mr. Shamrock if he had decided to give her the job.

Question 25.
Punctuate the following.
Psst I hissed, in the dark shaking him.
Answer
‘Psst!’ I hissed, in the dark, shaking him.

Question 26.
Transform the following sentence into a simple sentence.
As there was a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.
Answer:
Due to a heavy downpour, the match was cancelled.

Question 27.
Rearrange the words in the correct order to make meaningful sentences.
(а) advertise/ use/ convenient/ telephone/ you/ as/ to/ banking/ your/ service/ and/ easy
(b) afraid/ not/ of/ evidence/ have/1 /features/ seen/ am/1/ either/ yet/ these/ of
Answer:
(a) You advertise your telephone banking service as easy to use and convenient.
(b) I am afraid I have not yet seen evidence of either of these features.

Section – IV

Answer the following question. [1 x 2 = 2]

Question 28.
Your neighbour wants to meet his friend in MM Hospital. Write in about 50 words / 5 sentences guiding him with your directions.
Answer:

• Go straight on Rajaji Street and take the first right on Shanthi Colony Main Road.
•  Proceed further and go past the 1st main road on the left and 2nd main road on the right.
  Take the road on the left after the 2nd main road. You will find MM Hospital on the right side.

Part – III [10 x 5 = 50]
Section -1

Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2×5 = 10]

Question 29.
‘Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish,’ says the narrator about the young seagull. Do you feel hunger was the main motivating force that made the young seagull take the plunge that taught him how to fly in the air?
Answer:
Food is the most essential ingredient that sustains all life – of humans, animals as well as birds. Hunger motivates many of their actions. The young seagull used to sit all alone on his ledge. Whenever he tried to flap his wings to fly, he was seized with fear. He felt certain that his wings would never support him.

He had seen his older brother catch his first herring and devour it. It compounded his helplessness even more. He uttered a joyful scream when he saw his mother holding a piece of fish in her beak and flying quite near him. He wondered why she didn’t come to him and offer that piece of fish to him. Maddened by hunger, he dived at the fish. With a loud scream he fell outwards and downwards into space.

Then a monstrous terror seized him but only for a minute. The next moment he felt his wings spread outwards. He began to soar downwards towards the sea. The fear left him. He began to float on the sea. His admiring family offered him pieces of fish flying around him.

‘’Your hunger must be absolutely compelling
in order to overcome the obstacles that will
invariably come your way. ”

Question 30.
What makes Culverton Smith fall a prey to Holmes’s trap?
Answer:
Watson goes to Mr. Culverton Smith at 13 Lower Burke Street. He finds it difficult to see his friend dying. Although Smith refuses to see anyone, Watson forces his way in. As soon as Watson explains his errand, Smith’s attitude changes drastically. He persuades him to see Holmes as he is in a dying state. Smith agrees to come to Baker Street within half an hour.

Watson excuses himself, saying that he has another appointment and returns to Baker Street before Smith’s arrival as instructed by Holmes. Believing that they are alone, Smith is frank with Holmes. Holmes tells Smith that he will forget the happenings of Victor Savage and pleads with him to cure him.

Smith denies and tells Holmes that he should have never crossed his path. Smith sees the little ivory box, which he had sent to Holmes by post containing a sharp spring infected with the illness. Smith pockets it thinking to have removed the only evidence of his crime. He then resolves to stay there and watch Holmes die. However, Holmes asks Smith to turn the gas up full, which Smith does. Inspector Morton enters and Holmes tells Morton to arrest Culverton Smith for the murder of his nephew and also for the attempted murder of Sherlock Holmes.

“You cannot escape from a detective s eye.”

Question 31.
Narrate the extensive search operation made by the policemen in the house.
Answer:
The arrival of the police blows the whole event out of proportion. The cops call out for the front door to be opened, and when no one in the house goes downstairs, they break it in. They go upstairs to find the narrator, still walking around with a towel over him after his bath. The mother insists there were burglars though the police confirms that all doors and windows are bolted from inside. The police set about probing the house, moving furniture and emptying closets.

At one point, a policeman’s inquisitiveness makes him point out an unusual old musical instrument, a zither, to another officer. The police are suspicious of the family members’ strange behaviour. When the narrator’s grandfather, sleeping in the attic, makes a slight noise, the policemen spring into action. They race upstairs to investigate. The narrator fears trouble because his grandfather feels that the Civil War is in progress.

When the policemen arrive at his door, he is convinced that they are Meade’s army and calls them deserters. He slaps a policeman sending him to the floor and takes the man’s gun from his holster and shoots at him, hitting him in the shoulder.He fires twice more and then goes back to bed. Back downstairs, the police feel defeated. They bandage the wounded officer and search the house again.

“Wisdom requires not only the investigation of many things but contemplation of the mystery.”

Question 32.
Highlight the factors responsible for the all-women Indian Navy crew to carry out their expedition.
Answer:
The support the crew members received was a major factor. When they knew that they were doing well and looked after themselves well, in spite of all apprehensions they were supportive. The crew members’ personal aim and target mattered a lot. Mostly they wanted to make sure that they complete the journey with ultimate honesty without the use of engines.

Then the destination, the journey was important. So their contention was to make sure that they go by the rules of circumnavigation without any means of repulsion and anybody else’s assistance. The presence of mind and common sense to make decisions and act quickly was an added factor. They had to quickly do an analysis of problem solving techniques.

Ego should never come amidst them. Team work helped them to collaborate and work together. Mutual understanding was important too. One would heat the water while the other would heat the gloves or even rested. Over air the confidence you had in each other than the trust and acceptance as every member of the crew to be a family was a must to carry out the expedition.

“Its about women helping women and women doing things together and supporting each other”

Section – II
Answer any TWO of the following in utmost 10 lines. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 33.
Compare and contrast the attitude of the ant and the cricket.
Answer:
The poem, ‘The Ant and the Cricket’ is about a careless cricket and a hardworking ant. We all know that ants are hardworking creatures but on the other hand the Cricket is portrayed as a lazy being. He made no efforts to plan for the future. Thus, the cricket is shown as a young and silly creature because he sang all through summer and spring with no worries in the world for winter that was to come. But when winter arrived, he began to complain that he would die of starvation and hunger. He found that his cupboard was empty and not a piece of bread to eat.

He neither found a leaf, nor a flower. Everything was covered with snow. Therefore, the cricket cried and moaned as he perceived his bad future. Finally, deprived of hunger and starvation, being all wet and cold, the cricket journeyed to the house of the stingy ant becoming bold by nature. He begged for food and shelter but the Ant is wise, foresees its needs for winter and prudently turned down the foolish Cricket. The Ant clearly stated that Ants neither borrow nor lend. So the Ant is shown as a straightforward and outspoken personality.

Perhaps the cricket here is portrayed as a person who makes false promises and Ant is portrayed to be a strong personality not carried away be the false promises of one. Therefore the Ant could never be exploited though it was humble enough to admit it to be a servant and friend of the Cricket. The Cricket was surely careless and reckless against the Ant who was judicious, discrete and level-headed.

“Accept responsibility for your life.
Know that it is you who will get you where you want to go, no one else.”

Question 34.
How are we alike? Explain in context with the poem, ‘No Men Are Foreign’.
Answer:
All human-beings are the same. We have a similar body structure. All of us need air to breathe, sunlight and warmth to live and water for our survival. Our daily routine is also similar. We wake up in the morning, bathe and have breakfast before going on with our daily chores. All of us long for love and affection. We all sleep at night and wake up in the morning.

When our needs and feelings are the same, then isn’t it right to treat all men alike? We should not look down upon anybody on the basis of his/her colour, caste, region or gender. We should treat everyone as our brother and sister. Unfortunately, some self-centred people fight with others and hurt them. They think that others have harmed them. We should not think that other people are ‘others’. They are also our brothers. If they make one mistake, we should forgive them or compromise with them.

“Acceptance for one another is the key to living.”

Question 35.
Read the following stanza and answer the questions given below.
“So let the way wind up the hill or down,
O’er rough or smooth, the journey will be joy:
Still seeking what I sought when but a boy,
New friendship, high adventure, and a crown, ”
(i) Pick out the rhyming words from the above lines.
(ii) Write the rhyme scheme.
(iii) Identify the figure of speech employed in the third line of the given stanza.
(iv) Pick out the alliterated words in the first line.
Answer:
(i) Down and crown; joy and boy
(ii) abba is the rhyme scheme of the above stanza.
(iii) The figure of speech is alliteration.
(iv) The alliterated words are ‘way wind’.

Question 36.
Paraphrase the following stanza.
There’s a family nobody likes to meet;
They live, it is said, on Complaining Street In the city of Never-Are-Satisfied,
The River of Discontent beside.
Answer:
There is a family that no one ever wants to meet on Complaining Street in ‘Never-are- Satisfied’ city where River Discontent runs by the side of their house.

Section – III

Answer any ONE of the following. [1 x 5 = 5]

Question 37.
Rearrange the following sentences in coherent order.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(iv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
Answer:
Rearranged number sequence: (iii), (v), (i), (tv), (ii)
(iii) Dr. Ashok’s clinic sounded more a torture chamber than a child specialist clinic.
(v) Maya felt that the giant green-and -gold fighting beetle was Zigzag.
(i) Arvind corrected Maya and said that the beetle is called Spitfire.
(tv) He felt it could be Uncle Somu’s pet snake.
(ii) But their father said that Zigzag is the most harmless, unusual and lovable bird.

Question 38.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.

The trembling mother’s voice was full of unselfish love as she gave her last injunction. “Let not thine eyes be blinded, my son.” She said. “The mountain road is full of dangers. LOOK carefully and follow the path which holds the piles of twigs. They will guide you to the familiar path farther down”.

The son’s surprised eyes looked back over the path, then at the poor old, shriveled hands all scratched and soiled by their work of love. His heart broke within and bowing to the ground, he cried aloud: “Oh, honorable mother, your kindness breaks my heart! I will not leave you.

Together we will follow the path of twigs, and together we will die!’’Once more he shouldered his burden (how light it seemed now) and hastened down the path, through the shadows and the moonlight, to the little hut in the valley. Beneath the kitchen floor was a walled closet for food, which was covered and hidden from view. There the son hid his mother, supplying her with everything she needed, continually watching and fearing she would be discovered.
(i) What was the last injunction given by the mother?
(ii) What did the aged mother do for her son’s safe return?
(iii) Why was the aged mother’s hands shriveled?
(iv) What does the poor mother’s kindness do to the poor farmer’s heart?
(v) Where did the son hide his mother in his little hut in the valley?
Answer:
(i) The last injunction given by the mother was that her son’s eyes should not be blinded to the mountain road filled with dangers.
(ii) The aged mother dropped piles of twigs as her son carried her up the mountain so that they would guide him while returning.
(iii) The aged mother’s hands were shriveled, scratched and soiled because of the work of love.
(iv) The poor mother’s kindness broke the poor farmer’s heart.
(v) The son hid his mother beneath the kitchen floor in the walled closet for food which was hidden from view.

Section – IV

Answer any FOUR of the following. [4 x 5 = 20]

Question 39.
Prepare an attractive advertisement using the hints given below.
Milton Electronic Ltd – 30% discount sale – all electronic appliances – additional warranty – gifts with every purchase.
Answer:

Question 40.
You are Catherine/ Shilogaran. You want to share your thoughts to Angeline who was your classmate five years ago when you were in Class V. You have not met after leaving school. Write a letter explaining your life.
Answer:

40, West Street,
10th August, 2020

Dear Angeline,
By the grace of God, we are doing well and I hope the same from you and your family. It’s been five long years since we have met or had the opportunity to write to each other. I recently came to Chennai and happened to see your neighbour during my visit. I asked for your address and here I am wanting to share my days at Salem with a friend whom my miss a lot. My father was transferred to Salem during our summer vacation after our Terminal exams for Std V. Hence I could not inform you in person.

I am now studying in Reva Public School at Srimangalam Colony. The teachers are very cordial and good coaching. I miss the Sports activities here since we do not have a playground. We do have a P.T. period but we just do exercises and running. I miss playing Khokho and Football at Vellore Voorhees school.

This year, being in tenth, we went on an excursion to Hyderabad. It was my first trip out of Tamil Nadu and also my trip without my family. Though I enjoyed the trip with my friends, I did miss my family.

Angelene I hope to receive a letter from you and I am so excited penning a few words to you. Looking forward to hearing from you at the earliest and do convey my regards to uncle and aunty.

Loads of love,
Catherine/Shilogaran

Question 41.
As student Editor, draft a notice in not more than 50 words for your school notice board inviting articles from the students for your school magazine. You are Caleb/Christabel of Daniel Matriculation School, Chennai.

Question 42.
Look at the following picture and express your views on it in about five sentences.
Answer:

Family time is very important for family ties to be strengthened. This picture portrays a family where the father relaxes under a beach umbrella and hopes to enjoy the suntan effect. Under another umbrella you can see the mother relaxing with a book in hand. A small little girl enjoys making a sand castle while her brother runs to plunge into the water. You can also see a boy swimming in the water. Birds are hoping to find some food as people are in the seashore.

Question 43.
Make notes or write a summary of the following passage.
Answer:
The term earthquake is applied to any tremor or shaking of the ground. Many earthquakes are so gentle as to pass almost unrecognised, others are sufficiently pronounced to excite general alarm, while some spread enormous destruction. Destructive earthquakes are usually confined to limited regions. The usual phenomena recorded in well-known earthquakes are first a trembling, next one or more severe shocks, and then a trembling which gradually dies away. In most cases, each shock lasts only a few seconds, but the tremblings that follow may continue for days, weeks, or even months.

Noises of various kinds usually accompany an earthquake. They have been likened to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains, or the rumbling of heavy wagons along a road. Such noises are conducted through the ground, or they may travel through the sea or air, and are often heard at great distances from the place where the shock is felt. Some earthquakes, however, are not accompanied by these noises.

At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riobamba in Ecuador on February 4, 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modem times may be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Notes
Title: Earthquake
1. Definition, -tremor/shaking of ground
2. Types of Earthquake
(a) Gentle – unrecognized
(b) Sufficiently pronounced – gentle alarm
(c) Severe – enormous destruction

3. Signs of Occurrence
(a) Trembling – 1 or more severe shocks – trembling
(b) Various Noises
(c) howling of storm

• growling of thunder
• clanking / clashing of iron chains
• rumbling of heavy wagon on road

(c) Range – through ground, sea, air – heard at distance
(d) Some earthquakes silent

Title: Earthquake
Rough draft
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earthquakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also Causedand slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country. In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. At the time of the terrible shock which destroyed Riehqmba in Ecuador in 1797, a complete silence reigned. Among destructive earthquakes in modenTtimesogay be mentioned the one that destroyed coastal towns in Tamil Nadu in 2004.

Fair draft
Title : Earthquake
Earthquake takes place due to tremor or shaking of the ground. Some earthquakes are so gentle that these are known unrecognised while some spread destruction. Destructive earth¬quakes are noisy, linked to the howling of storm, the growling of thunder, the clanking and clashing of iron chains. Many earthquakes also cause land slips and cracks in the earth that sometimes affect the drainage system of the country.

In volcanic and mountainous regions, earthquakes are common. Some can be silent like the one which occurred in Ecuador on Feb 4, 1797. Tsunami of 2004 was devastating in Tamil Nadu.
No. of words written in the summary: 87

Question 44.
Identify and correct the errors in the following sentences.
(a) Which dress is the best of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I have got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park are coming up near our house.
(d) It is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends until they quarrelled.
Answer:
(a) Which dress is the better of the two that I have shown you?
(b) I got my M. Sc. degree in 1988.
(c) A new park is coming up near our house.
(d) There is no doubt that my dad is in bad mood today.
(e) They have been very close friends before they quarrelled.

Section – V

Question 45.
Quote from memory. [1×5 = 5]
From : My heart was …………… Sir, you say?
Answer:
My heart was so light
That I sang day and night,
For all nature looked gay. ”
“For all nature looked gay ”.
“ You sang, Sir, you say?

Part – IV

Write a paragraph of about 150 words by developing the following hints. [2 x 8 = 16]

Question 46.
(а) The plot – Prospero’s revenge – the spirit of Ariel – dirty work – shipwreck – Antonio- a sea storm – shipwreck the crew – A delicious banquet – King of Naples – the lost son – meticulous planning – rivals state of regret – re-establish the legal command – dukedom of Milan – Prospero all-powerful – past conspirators face-to-face the sins of their past, repent and plead forgiveness.
Answer:
The plot in the play, The Tempest, by William Shakespeare revolves around Prospero enacting his revenge on various characters who have wronged him in different ways. Interestingly, he uses the spirit of Ariel to deliver the punishments while Prospero delegates the action. Prospero sends Ariel to do his dirty work while hiding his involvement in shipwrecking his brother, Antonio, from his daughter, Miranda.

He creates a sea storm and makes the vessel to toss and shipwreck the crew. Every member thinks that he is the only one saved. A delicious banquet is placed before the King of Naples that vanishes before they could relish its taste.

At another stage, those who were thought dead were discovered alive. The lost son, Ferdinand is resorted to a joyous father making those who have committed offenses repent. Prospero meticulously plans to bring his rivals to a state of regret so that he can pardon them and re-establish the legal command of things to his dukedom of Milan. Prospero being all¬powerful over the island, can easily destroy or punish his enemies as he wishes. However, he chooses not to and brings the past conspirators face-to- face with the sins of their past, which causes them to repent and plead his forgiveness.

[OR]
(b) Futuristic story written in 1889, – 25th July, 2889 – Earth Herald – the world’s largest newspaper – spoken and not written – reporters’ room – four quarters of the earth – telephone – commutators – visual sights – ten astronomical reporters – recent discoveries – Phototelegrams – nothing from Jupiter – can’t blame optical science – scientists worked on satellite – new planet Gandini – pass on to subscribers immediately.

This Futuristic story, written in 1889 speaks about the people of the 29th century who live in fairyland, foreseeing 25th July, 2889 @ the office block of the Managing Editor of the Earth Herald, the world’s largest newspaper where news is not printed but spoken. The day’s work started at the reporters’ room.

His fifteen hundred reporters, with their telephones, were speaking the news received from the four quarters of the earth to subscribers. Besides telephone, all reporters have commutators, which allow communication on telephotic line with visual sights. Bennett questioned one of the ten astronomical reporters Cash about the recent discoveries in the stellar world.

Cash replied that it was Phototelegrams from Mercury, Venus and Mars, and nothing from Jupiter since the Jovians signal could not be understood. He added that even results from the Moon wasn’t possible and one can’t blame optical science though moon was six hundred times nearer than Mars. Corley another reporter said it was the inhabitants which was refuted by Bennett who said the simplest way was to turn the moon round and find out.

From then on, the scientists of the Bennett factory started working on turning satellite. One of the Earth Herald’s astronomers had just determined the elements of the new planet Gandini and Bennett was delighted at his accuracy. He wanted the reporters to pass on the news to the subscribers immediately. The broad gallery for such a journal as the Earth Herald brought in an average of three million dollars daily.

Question 47.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below:
India celebrates Slumdog Millionaire’s sweeping success at the Academy Award ceremony last year. In addition to the movie by Director Danny Boyle, which took home eight Oscars, Smile Pinki won for the Best Documentary short subject, telling the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P who becomes a social outcast because of a cleft lip. Despite this achievement, few Indians received an award from the victories of British Director Boyle and US.

Documentary maker Megan Mylan; they were composer A.R. Rahman, singer Sampooran Singh Gulzar and sound designer Resul Pookutty. Slumdog Millionaire producers have also been dogged by controversy. They have been accused of underpaying the two child actors who worked in the film, Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie went back to live in their slums. Still for ordinary people success in Los Angeles has been the cause for celebration in the streets. Even schools stayed close.

What the movie celebrates is not India’s cinema which produces hundreds of movies each year drawing an average 23 million spectators per day, but the country and its stories, placed under the limelight of Hollywood for once. The stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, that of muslim boy Jamal and Pinki from Dabai, are but two of the many faces of today’s India, faces always ignored until Slumdog Millionaire’s triumph put the spotlight on them.

Questions.
(a) Who is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire?
(b) Which film was given the Oscar Award for the best documentary short subject and state the reason?
(c) What is the controversy about the producers of Slumdog Millionaire?
(id) On whom is the story of Slumdog Millionaire centered?
(a) Danny Boyle is the director of the movie Slumdog Millionaire.
(b) Smile Pinki was given the Oscar Award for the Best Documentary short subject because
it brought out the story of a six-year-old girl from the village of Dabai in U.P. who became a social outcast because of a cleft lip.
(c) The controversy is that the producers have been accused of underpaying the two child actors Rubina Ali and Mohammed Azharuddin Ismail, who after the completion of the movie still live in their slums.
(d) The story of Slumdog Millionaire centered on the stories of Mumbai’s slum kids, whose faces are always ignored.

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions given below:
BREAK, BREAK, BREAK
Break, break, break,
On thy cold grey stones, O Sea!
And I would that my tongue could utter
The thoughts that arise in me.

O well for the fisherman’s boy,
That he shouts with his sister at play!
O well for the sailor lad,
That he sings in his boat on the bay!

And the stately ships go on To their haven under the hill;
But O for the touch of a vanished hand,
And the sound of a voice that is still.

Break, break, break,
At the foot of thy crags, O Sea!
But the tender grace of a day that is dead Will never come back to me.

Questions.
(a) What does the poet ask the sea to break?
(b) What are the fisherman’s children doing on the shore?
(c) What does sailor lad singing and children of fishermen playing indicate?
(d) What is the moral of the poem?
Answer:
(a) The poet asks the sea to break the cold grey stones.
(b) The fisherman’s children are shouting and playing without any worries on the seashore.
(c) It indicates that the children are not bothered about the happenings around nor bothered about the poet’s grief.
(d) The moral of the poem is that life goes on despite the human loss, suffering and tragedies.