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Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which of the following is a coprophilous fungi?
(a) Albugo
(b) Entomophthora
(c) Rhizopus
(d) Pilobolus
Answer:
(d) Pilobolus

Question 2.
Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(a) Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae
(b) Golden algae are also called desmids
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria
(d) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi
Answer:
(c) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria

Question 3.
After fertilization……………….. modifies into seed.
(a) ovary
(b) ovule
(c) carpel
(d) stigma
Answer:
(b) ovule

Question 4.
DNA bar coding was introduced by………………..
(a) Stebbins
(b) Hebert
(c) Camp & Gilly
(d) Darwin
Answer:
(b) Hebert

Question 5.
Which is the largest of the internal membranes?
(a) Golgi bodies
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Tonoplast
(d) Nuclear membrane
Answer:
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum

Question 6.
The chlorophyll pigment found in xanthophycean algae is………………..
(a) Chlorophyll b
(b) Chlorophyll c
(c) Chlorophyll d
(d) Chlorophyll e
Answer:
(d) Chlorophyll e

Question 7.
The term Auxin was first used by ………………..
(a) Kogl.Smith
(b) Darwin
(c) F.W. Went
(d) Kurosawa
Answer:
(c) F.W. Went

Question 8.
ABA stands for ………………..
(a) Abscisic acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Acetyl Butyric Acid
(d) Acetic acid
Answer:
(a) Abscisic acid

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What do you understand by “pinning” of phage?
Answer:
Once the contact is established between tail fibres of phase and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

Question 10.
Which is responsible for pigmentation of Brown algae?
Answer:
A golden brown pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of Phaeophyceae.

Question 11.
Compare the stem nature of Corm and Rhizome.
Answer:
Corm

1. Stem is succulent underground.
2. Presence of erect growing tips.

Rhizome

1. Stem is horizontal underground.
2. Presence of lateral growing tips.

Question 12.
What are axial parenchyma & Ray parenchyma?
Answer:
Parenchyma arranged longitudinally along the long axis is called axial parenchyma. Ray parenchyma is arranged in radial rows.

Question 13.
State the “Law of minimum” proposed by Liebig.
Answer:
The “law of minimum” states that productivity of soil depends on amount of essential elements present in minimum quantity.

Question 14.
What is homoiomerous and heteromerous?
Answer:
In homoiomerous (algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present).

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Distinguish between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes.
Answer:
Prokaryotes :

1. Unicellular
2. Lack membrane bound nuclei
3. Membrane bound organelles are absent Ex: Bacteria Membrane bound organelles are present Ex: Amoeba

Eukaryotes :

1. Unicellular or multicellular
2. Possess well defined nucleus
3. Membrane bound organelles are present Ex: Amoeba

Question 16.
Which types of plants develop tendril? How does it helps the plant?
Answer:
In some plants Stem is very weak and hence they have some special organs for attachment to the support. So some leaves are partially or wholly modified into tendril. Tendril is a slender wiry coiled structure which helps in climbing the support.

Question 17.
Linnaeus classification is also called sexual system of classification. Why?
Answer:
Linnaeus classification is mostly based on sexual characters like number, union, length and distribution of stamens and also on carpel characters. Hence it is called sexual system of classification.

Question 18.
Draw a labeled diagram of T.S. of Dicot leaf.
Answer:

Question 19.
Why TCA cycle is called so?
Answer:
TCA cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA with oxaloacetate in the presence of water to yield citrate or citric acid. Therefore, it is also known as CitricAcid Cycle (CAC) or Tri Carboxylic Acid (TCA) cycle.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Draw a flow chart depicting the classification of fruits.

[OR]

Draw & describe the structure of Nucleus
Answer:

Nucleus is an important unit of cell which control all activities of the cell. Nucleus holds the hereditary information. It is the largest among all cell organelles.lt may be spherical, cuboidal, ellipsoidal or discoidal. It is surrounded by a double membrane structure called nuclear envelope,which has the inner and outer membrane.

The inner membrane is smooth without ribosomes and the outer membrane is rough by the presence of ribosomes and is continues with irregular and infrequent intervals with the endoplasmic reticulum. The membrane is perforated by pores known as nuclear pores which allows materials such as mRNA, ribosomal units, proteins and other macromolecules to pass in and out of the nucleus.

The pores enclosed by circular structures called annuli. The pore and annuli forms the pore complex. The space between two membranes is called perinuclear space. Nuclear space is filled with nucleoplasm, a gelatinous, matrix has uncondensed chromatin network and a conspicuous nucleoli. The chromatin network is the uncoiled, indistinct and remain thread like during the interphase. It has little amount of RNA and DNA bound to histone proteins in eukaryotic cells.

Question 21.
Explain Ganong’s Potometer experiment and its purpose.
Answer:
Ganongs potometer is used to measure the rate of transpiration indirectly. In this, the amount of water absorbed is measured and assumed that this amount is equal to the amount of water transpired.

Apparatus consists of a horizontal graduated tube which is bent in opposite directions at the ends. One bent end is wide and the other is narrow. A reservoir is fixed to the horizontal tube near the wider end. The reservoir has a stopcock to regulate water flow. The apparatus is filled with water from reservoir. A twig or a small plant is fixed to the wider arm through a split cock.

The other bent end of the horizontal tube is dipped into a beaker containing coloured water. An air bubble is introduced into the graduated tube at the narrow end keep this apparatus in bright sunlight and observe. As transpiration takes place, the air bubble will move towards the twig. The loss is compensated by water absorption through the xylem portion of the twig. Thus, the rate of water absorption is equal to the rate of transpiration.

[OR]

Write in detail about functions, mode of absorption and deficiency symptoms of any five macronutrients.
Answer:

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – A

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which class of protozoa is totally parasitic?
(a) Sporozoa
(b) Mastigophora
(c) Ciliate
(d) Sarcodina
Answer:
(a) Sporozoa

Question 2.
Linmulus belongs to class ………………
(a) Orychophora
(b) Insect
(c) Merostomata
(d) Crustacea
Answer:
(c) Merostomata

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
(b) 1 – (i), 2 – (iii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (i), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (iv), 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
EDV stands for ……………………
(a) End digestion volume
(b) End diastolic volume
(c) End decrease volume
(d) End digestion valve
Answer:
(b) End diastolic volume

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) Vascular disease – A portion of the aortic wall weakens and balloons out, forming an areurysm.
(b) Arrhythmia is a condition in which the heart beats irregularly.
(c) Coronoray heart disease – An inflammation of one or more layers of the pericardium a thin membrane that lines the heart.
(d) Heart failure – blocked or clogged arteries linut blood flow to the heart.
Answer:
(b) Arrhythmia is a condition in which the heart beats irregularly.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) The excretory cells of platyhelminthes is solenocytes.
(b) Metanephridia are the tubular excretory structures in annelids and molluscs.
(c) Malphighian tubules are the excretory structures in most insects.
(d) Nematodes have rencttc cells.
Answer:
(a) The excretory cells of platyhelminthes is solenocytes.

Question 7.
What is formed by the bones of pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle and limbs?
(a) Body skeleton
(b) External skeleton
(c) Axial skeleton
(d) Appendicular skeleton
Answer:
(d) Appendicular skeleton

Question 8.
Ca⁺ metabolism is regulated by …………….
(a) ACTH
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Parathormone
(d) Epinephrine
Answer:
(c) Parathormone

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Why are molecular tools used now to study taxonomy?
Answer:
Molecular tools are accurate and authentic. Hence they are used to study taxonomy.

Question 10.
What is bilateral symmetry?
Answer:
The symmetry in which the animals have to similar halves on either side of the central place in bilateral symmetry’, eg. Flatworms, annelids.

Question 11.
What are urochordates?
Answer:
The Chordates which have notochord only in the tail region of the larval stage are called urochordates. eg. Axidian.

Question 12.
Define Assimilation.
Answer:
The conversion of absorbed food materials into components of cells is called assimilation.

Question 13.
Draw the diagram of Acoelomate flatworms.
Answer:

Question 14.
What is amoeboid movement?
Answer:
The movement of cells by streaming movements of the cytoplasm forming pseudo-podia is known as amoeboid movement, e.g. Macrophages.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What are the characteristics of platyhelminthes?
Answer:
They have a dorsoventrally flattened body and hence called flatworms. These animals are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, acoelomate with organ system level of organisation. They show moderate cephalization and unidirectional movement. They are, mostly endoparasites of animals including human beings. Hooks and suckers are present in the parasitic forms and serve as organs of attachment. Their body is not segmented, but some exhibit pseudosegmentation.

Question 16.
Distinguish between true ribs and false ribs.
Answer:
True ribs : The first seven pairs of ribs are called ‘true ribs’ or vertebro-stemal ribs. Dorsally they are attached to the thoracic vertebrae and ventrally connected to the sternum with the help of hyaline cartilages.
False ribs: The 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the sternum but joined with the cartilaginous (hyaline cartilage) part of the seventh rib. These are called ‘false ribs’ or vertebro-chondral ribs.

Question 17.
Explain palmaris muscle.
Answer:
Palmaris muscle is a long narrow muscle runs from the elbow to the wrist and is important for hanging and climbing in primates. It is a muscle visible as a small tendon between the ” flexor carpi radialis and the flexor carpi ulnaris, although it is not always present. It is one of five muscles that act at the wrist joint.

Question 18.
What are the types of cultivable fish.
Answer:
Cultivable fish are of 3 types

1. Indigenous or native fresh water fishes (Major carps, Catla, Labeo, Clarias).
2. Salt water fishes acclimatized for fresh water (Chanos, Mullet).
3. Exotic fishes are imported from other counties (Common carps).

Question 19.
Draw the diagram of metamorphosis of frog.
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the three domains of life.
Answer:
Three domain classification was proposed by Carl Woese (1977) and his co-workers.They classified organisms based on the difference in 16S rRNA genes. The three domain system adds the taxon ‘domain’ (ugher than the kingdom. This system emphasizes the separation of Prokaryotes into two domains, Bacteria and Arachaea, and all the eukaryotes are placed into the domain Eukarya.

Archaea appears to have more in common with the Eukarya than the Bacteria. Archaea differ from bacteria in cell wall composition and differs from bacteria and eukaryotes in membrane composition and rRNA types.

1. Domain Archaea
This domain includes single celled organisms, the prokaryotes which have the ability to grow in extreme conditions like volcano vents, hot springs and polar ice caps, hence are also called extremophiles. They are capable of synthesizing their food without sunlight and oxygen by utilizing hydrogen sulphide and other chemicals from the volcanic vents. Some of the them produced methane (methanogens), few live in salty environments (Halophiles) and are thermoacidophiles which thrive in acidic environments and at high temperatures.

2. Domain Bacteria
Bacteria are prokaryotic, their cells have no definite nucleus and DNA exists as a circular chromosomes and do not have histones associated with it. They do not possess membrane bound organelles except for ribosome (70S type). Their cell wall contains peptidoglycans. Many are decomposers, some are photo-synthesizers and few cause diseases.

There are beneficial probiotic bacteria and harmful pathogenic bacteria which are diversely populated. Cyanobacteria are photosynthetic blue green algae which produce oxygen. These had played a key role in the changes of atmospheric oxygen levels from anaerobic to aerobic during the early geologic periods.

3. Domain Eukarya (Eukaryotes)
Eukaryotes are animals which have true nucleus and membrane bound organelles.DNA in the nucleus is arranged as a linear chromosome with histone proteins, ribosomes of 80S type in the cytosol and 70S type in the chloroplast and mitochondria.Animals in this domain are classified under kingdoms, namely, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

[OR]

Write an essay on Neural tissue. Draw the diagram and label the parts.
Answer:
Nervous tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions. Neurons, the unit of neural system are excitable cells.The neuroglial cells which constitute the rest of the neural system protect and support the neurons. Neuroglia makes up more than one-half of the volume of neural tissue in our body.

When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its plasma membrane. Arrival of the disturbance at the neuron’s endings, or output zone, triggers events that may cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons and other cells.

Question 21.
What are joints? Explain the types of joints.
Answer:
Joints are essential for all types of movements performed by the bony parts of the body. The joints are points of contact between bones.
Sometimes they are playing a protective role in the process. Force generated by the muscles are used to carry out the movement through joints which helps human functional activity of daily living and ambulation. The joint acts as a fulcrum of a lever.
(i) Fibrous joints or Synarthroses:
They are immovable fixed joints in which no movement between the bones is possible. Sutures of the flat skull bones are fibrous joints.

(ii) Cartilaginous joints or Amphiarthroses:
They are slightly movable joints in which the joint surfaces are separated by a cartilage and slight movement is only possible. E.g., Joints of adjacent vertebrae of the vertebral column.

(iii) Synovial joints or Diarthroses joints:
They are freely movable joints, the articulating bones are separated by a cavity which is filled with synovial fluid. Examples,
Pivot joint – between atlas and axis
Plane/gliding joint – between the carpals
Saddle joint – between the carpal and metacarpal
Ball and socket joint – between humerus and pectoral girdle
Hinge joint – knee joint
Condyloid or Angular or Ellipsoid -joint between radius and carpal.

[OR]

Tabulate the major hypothalamic hormones and their functions.
The major hypothalamic hormones and their functions:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Six kingdom classification was proposed by ………………………
(a) Haeckel
(b) Copeland
(c) Woese
(d) Cavalier-Smith
Answer:
(d) Cavalier-Smith

Question 2.
Clasping roots are also called as ………….
(a) pillar
(b) stilt
(c) clinging
(d) buttress
Answer:
(c) clinging

Question 3.
The coconut water and the edible part of coconut are equivalent to ………………………
(a) endosperm
(b) endocarp
(c) mesocarp
(d) embryo
Answer:
(a) endosperm

Question 4.
The first botanical garden was established and maintained by………………………
(a) Linnaeus
(b) Babylonians
(c) Theophrastus
(d) Stebbins
Answer:
(c) Theophrastus

Question 5.
The DNA protein complex present in the centromere is………………………
(a) Cyclin
(b) Kinesis
(c) MPF
(d) Kinetochore
Answer:
(d) Kinetochore

Question 6.
In cucurbitaceae, the vascular bundles are………………………
(a) Bicollateral
(b) Collateral closed
(c) Concentric
(d) Radial
Answer:
(a) Bicollateral

Question 7.
Which of the following performs anaerobic photosynthesis?
(a) Green sulphur bacteria
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Purple sulphur bacteria
(d) Green filamentous bacteria
Answer:
(b) Cyanobacteria

Question 8.
Identify the day neutral plants.
(a) Pea
(b) Wheat
(c) Tomato
(d) Soyabean
Answer:
(c) Tomato

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What are Archaebacteria?
Answer:
Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity and low pH. e.g., Thermoplasma.

Question 10.
What is root cap? Mention its role.
Answer:
Root tip is covered by a dome shaped parenchymatous cells called root cap. It protects the meristematic cells in the apex.

Question 11.
What do you understand by the term “Pomology”?
Answer:
The branch of horticulture that deals with the study of fruits and their cultivation is called pomology.
Classify plastids based on storage & mention their storage component.

Question 12.
Classify plastids based on storage & mention their storage component.
Answer:

Question 13.
Which meristem is responsible for secondary growth in dicots? Mention its types.
Answer:
Secondary growth in dicots is the responsibility of lateral meristems. They are vascular cambium and cork cambium.

Question 14.
Give an account of Xanthophylls.
Answer:
Yellow (C₄₀H₅₆O₂) pigments are like carotenes but contain oxygen. Lutein is responsible for yellow colour change of leaves during autumn season. Examples: Lutein, Violaxanthin and Fucoxanthin.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Point out the demerits of five kingdom classification.
Answer:

• The kingdom Monera and Protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous.
• Viruses were not included in the system.

Question 16.
How the leaf hooks helps the Bignonia plant?
Answer:
In cat’s nail (Bignonia unguiscati) an elegant climber, the terminal leaflets become modified into three, very sharp, stiff and curved hooks, very much like the nails of a cat. These hooks cling to the bark of a tree and act as organs of support for climbing.

Question 17.
List out the properties of Water.
Properties of Water :

• Adhesion and cohesion property
• High latent heat of vaporisation
• High melting and boiling point
• Universal solvent
• Specific heat capacity

Question 18.
Draw the stoma with dumb-bell shaped guard cell.
Answer:

Question 19.
Define the term “Translocation of organic solutes”.
Answer:
The phenomenon of food transportation from the site of synthesis to the site of utilization is known as translocation of organic solutes. The term solute denotes food material that moves in a solution.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Describe the salient features of Phaeophyceae members.
Answer:

1. Phaeophyceae commonly called as Brown algae.
2. Majority are marine habitats. Pleurocladia is a fresh water form.
3. Thallus may be filamentous, frond-like or giant kelps.
4. Thallus is differentiated into photosynthetic part-frond, stalk-like structure-stipe and a holdfast for attachment.
5. Chlorophyll ‘a’ and ‘c’, carotenoids and Xanthophylls are photosynthetic pigments.
6. A golden brown fucoxanthin pigment gives olive green to brown colour.
7. Mannitol and Laminarin starch is the storage material.
8. Motile spores with unequal flagella (one whiplash and one tinsel) are present.
9. Oogamous is the major type of sexual reproduction. Isogamy is also seen.
10.  Alternation of generation is seen. Example: Sargassum, Fucus, Laminaria and Dictyota.

[OR]

Compare Transmission Electron Microscope with Scanning Electron Microscope.
Answer:

Question 21.
Compare photosynthesis in plants & bacteria.
Answer:
Photosynthesis in Plants :

1. Cyclic and non-cyclic phosphorylation takes place.
2. Photosystem I and II involved.
3. Electron donor is water.
4. Oxygen is evolved.
5. Reaction centres are P700 and P680.
6. Reducing agent is NADPH + H⁺.
7. PAR is 400 to 700 nm.
8. Chlorophyll, carotenoid and xanthophyll.
9. Photosynthetic apparatus – chloroplast.

Photosynthesis in Bacteria :

1. Only cyclic phosphorylation takes place.
2. Photosystem I only involved.
3. Electron donor is H₂S.
4. Oxygen is not evolved.
5. Reaction centre is P870.
6. Reducing agent is NADPH + H⁺.
7. PAR is above 700 nm.
8. Bacterio chlorophyll and bacterio viridin.
9. It is chlorosomes and chromatophores.

[OR]

Explain the physiological effect of Ethylene.
Answer:

• Ethylene stimulates respiration and ripening in fruits.
• It stimulates radial growth in stem and root and inhibits linear growth.
• It breaks the dormancy of buds, seeds and storage organs.
• It stimulates formation of abscission zone in leaves, flowers and fruits. This makes the leaves to shed prematurely.
• Inhibition of stem elongation (shortening the intemode).
• In low concentration, ethylene helps in root initiation.
• Growth of lateral roots and root hairs. This increases the absorption surface of the plant roots.
• The growth of fruits is stimulated by ethylene in some plants. It is more marked in climacteric fruits.
• Ethylene causes epinasty.

Bio-Zoology

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Uricotelisum is found in ……….
(a) Mammals and birds
(b) Birds, reptiles and insects
(c) Fishes and fresh water protozons
(d) Frogs and toads
Answer:
(b) Birds, reptiles and insects

Question 2.
Bone cells are called as …………..
(a) Neurons
(b) Osteoblasts
(c) Epithelial cells
(d) Chondrocytes
Answer:
(b) Osteoblasts

Question 3.
SA-node stands for ………………
(a) Sinoatrial node
(b) Systolic atrial node
(c) Systemic atrial node
(d) Sino aorta node
Answer:
(a) Sinoatrial node

Question 4.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (i), 2 – (ii), 3 – (iii), 4 – (iv)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (iii), 3 – (ii), 4 – (iii)
Answer:
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Polyp forms are free living
(b) Medusa forms are sessile
(c) Medusa produces gametes
(d) Polyp reproduces sexually
Answer:
(c) Medusa produces gametes

Question 6.
Which of the following statement is in incorrect with regard to ecosystem?
(a) It includes living and non-living things
(b) It shows interrelationship among living things
(c) It shows interrelationship among living and non-living things
(d) It has a large number of species
Answer:
(b) It shows interrelationship among living things

Question 7.
What is Nissl’s granule consist of ?
(a) DNA
(b) RNA
(c ) Protein
(d) Lipid
Answer:
(c ) Protein

Question 8.
Ranikhet, coccidiosis and Fowl pox are ………………..
(a) Chicken breeds
(b) Types of poultry forming
(c) Poultry diseases
(d) Types of breeding methods
Answer:
(c) Poultry diseases

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What are diploblastic animals?
Answer:
The animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the ectoderm and endoderm are called diploblastic animals.

Question 10.
Define Hermaphrodite.
Answer:
Hermaphrodite are animals with both male and female reproductive organs.

Question 11.
Difference between skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle.
Answer:
Skeletal muscle:

1. Skeletal muscle are voluntary muscles
2. Skeletal muscle are attached to the skeleton

Cardiac muscle :

1. Cardiac muscle are involuntary muscles
2. Cardiac muscles are attached to the heart.

Question 12.
How do we calculate BMI?
Answer:
Degree of obesity is assessed by body mass index (BMI). A normal BMI range for adult is 19-25; above 25 is considered as obese. BMI is calculated as body weight in Kg, divided by the square of body height in meters. For example, a 50 Kg person with a height of 160 cms would have a BMI of 19.5.
That is BMI = 50/1.6² = 19.5

Question 13.
Draw the diagram of Rana hexadactyla.
Answer:

Question 14.
What are the functions of frontal lobe?
Answer:
The frontal lobe governs the Behaviour, Intelligence, Memory and Movement.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Define five kingdom classification of Whittaker.
Answer:
R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed the five kingdom classification. They included Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. He classified organisms based on cell structure, nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships.

Question 16.
Distinguish between Oviparous and Viviparous animals.
Question
Oviparous animals

1. The egg laying animals are known as Oviparous animals.
2. They make contain yolk for embryonic development, eg.

Viviparous animals

1. The animals which give birth to young ones are called Viviparous animals.
2. Birds The developing embryo derives nutrients from the parent, eg. Man

Question 17.
Label the given diagram.
Answer:

Question 18.
Define Isinglass.
Answer:
Isinglass is a high-grade collagen produced from dried air bladder or swim bladder of certain fishes. Viz. Catfish and carps. The processed bladder which is dissolved in hot water forms a gelatin having adhesive property. It is primarily used for classification of wine, beer and vinegar.

Question 19.
Write the symptoms of cretinism.
Answer:
Cretinism is caused due to hypothyrodisim in infants. A cretin child shows the following symptoms:

1. Retarded skeletal growth
2. Absence of sexual maturity
3. Retarded mental ability
4. Thick and short limbs
5. Bloated face

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the classification of animal tissues.
Answer:

[OR]

What are the disorders of the respiratory system?
Answer:
Respiratory system is highly affected by environmental, occupational, personal and social factors. These factors may be responsible for a number of respiratory disorders. Some of the disorders are discussed here.

Asthma-It is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles and difficulty in breathing.Common allergens for asthma are dust, drugs, pollen grains, certain food items like fish, prawn and certain fruits etc.

Emphysema- Emphysema is chronic breathlessness caused by gradual breakdown of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of a gaseous exchange, i.e., widening of the alveoli is called emphysema. The major cause for this disease is cigarette smoking, which reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls.

Bronchitis-The branch? when it gets inflated due to pollution smoke and cigarette smoking, causes bronchitis. The symptoms are cough, shortness of breath and sputum in the lungs.

Pneumonia-Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or vims is called pneumonia. The common symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc.

Tuberculosis-Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculae. This infection mainly occurs in the lungs and bones.Collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the main complication of this disease.

Occupational respiratory disorders-The disorders due to one’s occupation of working in industries like grinding or stone breaking, construction sites, cotton industries, etc. Dust produced affects the respiratory tracts.

Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis. Silicosis and asbestosis are „ occupational respiratory diseases resulting from inhalation of particle of silica from sand grinding ‘ and asbestos into the respiratory tract. Workers, working in such industries must wear protective masks.

Question 21.
Explain the mechanism of muscle contraction.
Answer:
Mechanism of muscle contraction:
Sliding filament theory in 1954, Andrew F.Huxley and Rolf Niedergerke proposed the sliding- filament theory to explain muscle contraction. According to this theory, overlapping actin and myosin filaments of fixed length slide past one another in an energy requiring process, resulting in muscle contraction. The contraction of muscle fibre is a remarkable process that helps in creating a force to move or to resist a load.

The force which is created by the contracting muscle is called muscle tension. The load is a weight or force that opposes contraction of a muscle. Contraction is the creation of tension in the muscle which is an active process and relaxation is the release of tension created by contraction. Muscle contraction is initiated by a nerve impulse sents by the central nervous system (CNS) through a motor neuron.

The junction between the motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular junction or motor end plate. When nerve impulse reaches a neuromuscular junction, acetylcholine is released. It initiates the opening of multiple gated channels in sarcolemma. The action potential travels along the T-tubules and triggers the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

The released calcium ions bind to troponin on thin filaments. The tropomyosin uncovers the myosinbinding sites on thin filaments. Now the active sites are exposed to the heads of myosin to form a cross-bridge. During cross-bridge formation actin and myosin form a protein complex called actomyosin.

Utilizing the energy released from hydrolysis of ATP, the myosin head rotates until it forms a 90° angle with the long axis of the filament. In this position myosin binds to an actin and activates a contraction – relaxation cycle which is followed by a power stroke.

The power stroke (cross-bridge tilting) begins after the myosin head and hinge region tilt from a 90° angle to a 45° angle. The cross-bridge transforms into strong, high-force bond which allows the myosin head to swivel. When the myosin head swivels it pulls the attached actin filament towards the centre of the A-band.
The myosin returns back to its relaxed state and releases ADP and phosphate ion. A new ATP molecule then binds to the head of the myosin and the cross-bridge is broken.

At the end of each power stroke, each myosin head detaches from actin, then swivels back and binds to a new actin molecule to start another contraction cycle. This movement is similar to the motion of an oar on a boat. At the end of each power stroke, each myosin head detaches from actin, then swivels back and binds to a new actin molecule to start another contraction cycle. The power stroke repeats many times until a muscle fibre contracts. The myosin heads bind, push and release actin molecules over and over as the thin filaments move toward the centre of the sarcomere.

The repeatedly formation of cross-bridge cycles cause the sliding of the filaments only but there is no change in the lengths of either the thick or thin filaments. The Z- discs attached to the actin filaments are also pulled inwards from both the sides, causing the shortening of the sarcomere (i.e. contraction). This process continues as long as the muscle receives the stimuli and a steady flow of calcium ions.

When motor impulse stops, the calcium ions are pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, results in the masking of the active sites of the actin filaments. The myosin head fails to bind with the active sites of actin and these changes cause the return of Z – discs back to their original position, i.e. relaxation.

[OR]

Describe the central nervous system.
Answer:
Central neural system (CNS): The CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord, which are protected by the bones of the skull and vertebral column. During its embtyonic development, CNS develops from the ectoderm.

Brain: The brain acts as the command and control system. It is the site of information processing. It is located in the cranial cavity and is covered by three cranial meninges. The outer thick layer is Duramater which line? the inner surface of the cranial cavity; the median thin layer is Arachnoid mater which is separated from the duramater by a narrow subdural space.

The innermost layer is Piamater which is closely adhered to the brain but separated from the arachnoid mater by the subarachnoid space. The brain is divided into three major regions: Forebrain, Midbrain and Hindbrain.

Fore Brain: It comprises the following regions: Cerebrum and Diencephalon. Cerebrum is the ‘seat of intelligence and forms the major part of the brain. The cerebrum consists of an outer cortex, inner medulla and basal nuclei. The superficial region of the cerebrum is called cerebral cortex, which looks grey due to the presence of unmyelinated nerve cells. Cerebral cortex consists of neuronal cell body, dendrites, associated glial and blood vessels. The surface of the cerebrum shows many convolutions (folds) and grooves.

The folds are called gyri (singular gyrus); the shallow grooves between the gyri are called sulci (singular sulcus) and deep grooves are called fissures. These sulci and gyri increase the surface area of the cerebral cortex. Several sulci divide the cerebrum into eight lobes: a pair of frontals, parietals, temporals and occipital lobes.

Mid brain: The mid brain is located between the diencephalon and the pons. The lower portion of the midbrain consists of a pair of longitudinal bands of nervous tissue called cerebral peduncles which relay impulses back and forth between cerebrum, cerebellum, pons and medulla. The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists of four rounded bodies called corpora quadrigemina which acts as a reflex centre for vision and hearing.

Hind brain: Rhombencephalon forms the hind brain. It comprises of cerebellum, pons varolii and medulla oblongata. Cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain. It consists of two cerebellar hemispheres and central worm shaped part, the vermis. The cerebellum controls and coordinates muscular movements and body equilibrium. Any damage to cerebellum often results in uncoordinated voluntary muscle movements.

Pons varoli: It lies infront of the cerebellum between the midbrain and the medulla oblongata. The nerve fibres in the pons varolii form a bridge between the two cerebellar hemispheres and connect the medulla oblongata with the other region of the brain. The respiratory nuclei found in the pons cooperate with the medulla to control respiration.
Medulla oblongata: It forms the posterior most part of the brain. It connects the spinal cord with various parts of the brain. It receives and integrates signals from spinal cord and sends it to the cerebellum and thalamuj. Medulla contains vital centres that control cardio vascular reflexes, respiration and gastric secretions.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 12th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 12th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer .
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2.30 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statements is not true in relation to incomplete records?
(a) It is an unscientific method of recording transactions
(b) Records are maintained only for cash and personal accounts
(c) Tax authorities do not accept
(d) It is suitable for all types of organisations
Answer:
(d) It is suitable for all types of organisations

Question 2.
What is the amount of capital of the proprietor, if his assets are ₹ 85,000 and liabilities are ₹ 20,000?
(a) ₹ 65,000
(b) ₹ 1,06,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 85,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 65,000

Question 3.
Which of the following should not be recorded in the income and expenditure account?
(a) Sale of old newspapers
(b) Loss on sale of asset
(c) Honorarium paid to the secretary
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture
Answer:
(d) Sale proceeds of furniture

Question 4.
There are 100 members in a club each paying ₹ 500 as annual subscription. Subscription due but not received for the current year is ₹ 200; Subscription received in advance is ₹ 300. The amount of subscription to be shown in the income and expenditure account is __________.
(a) ₹ 50,000
(b) ₹ 50,200
(c) ₹ 49,900
(d) ₹ 49,800
Answer:
(a) ₹ 50,000

Question 5.
Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
(a) Interest on drawings – Debited to capital account
(b) Interest on capital – Credited to capital account
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account
(d) Share of profit – Credited to capital account
Answer:
(c) Interest on loan – Debited to capital account

Question 6.
In the absence of an agreement among the partners, interest on capital is _________.
(a) Not allowed
(b) Allowed at bank rate
(c) Allowed @ 5% per annum
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum
Answer:
(d) Allowed @ 6% per annum

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Goodwill is an intangible asset
(b) Good will is a current asset
(c) Goodwill is a fictitious asset
(d) Good will cannot be acquired
Answer:
(a) Goodwill is an intangible asset

Question 8.
When the average profit is ₹ 50,000 and the normal profit is ₹ 30,000, super profit is ________.
(a) ₹ 80,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 20,000

Question 9.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:


Answer:
(b) i – 3, ii – 2, iii – 4, iv – 1

Question 10.
Bala and Keerthana are sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admit Eshwar as a partner giving him 1/5 share of profits. The sacrificing ratio is ________.
(a) 1:3
(b) 3:1
(c) 5:3
(d) 3:5
Answer:
(c) 5:3

Question 11.
On retirement of a partner, general reserve is transferred to the _______.
(a) Capital account of all the partners
(b) Capital account of retiring partners only
(c) Capital account of the continuing partners
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Capital account of all the partners

Question 12.
A, B and C are partners sharing profits in the ratio 2:2:1. On retirement of B, goodwill of the firm was valued as ₹ 30,000. The contribution of A and C to compensate B is ______.
(a) ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000
(c) ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 15,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 8,000 and ₹ 4,000

Question 13.
A preference share is one _______.
(i) which carries preferential right with respect to payment of dividend at fixed rate
(ii) which carries preferential right with respect to repayment of capital on winding up
(a) Only (i) is correct
(b) Only (ii) is correct
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(d) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 14.
Super Ltd. forfeited 100 shares of ₹ 10 each for non- payment of final call of ₹ 2 per share.
All these shares were re-issued at ₹ 9 per share. The amount will be transferred to capital reserve account is _______.
(a) ₹ 700
(b) ₹ 800
(c) ₹ 900
(d) ₹ 1,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 700

Question 15.
Which of the following tools of financial statement analysis is suitable when data relating to several years are to be analysed?
(a) Cash flow statement
(b) Common size statement
(c) Comparative statement
(d) Trend analysis
Answer:
(d) Trend analysis

Question 16.
Expenses for a business for the first year were ₹ 70,000. In the second year, it was increased to ₹ 77,000. The trend percentage in the second year is _______.
(a) 10%
(b) 110%
(c) 90%
(d) 11%
Answer:
(b) 110%

Question 17.
Debt equity ratio is a measure of _________.
(a) Short term solvency
(b) Long term solvency
(c) Profitability
(d) Efficiency
Answer:
(b) Long term solvency

Question 18.
Current liabilities ₹ 40,000; current assets ₹ 1,00,000; Inventory ₹ 20,000. Quick ratio is _____.
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 5 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
Answer:
(d) 2 : 1

Question 19.
Contra voucher used in Tally for ______.
(a) Master entry
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use
(c) Reports
(d) Credit purchase of assets
Answer:
(b) Withdrawal of cash from bank for office use

Question 20.
In which voucher type credit purchase of furniture is recorded in Tally _______.
(a) Receipt voucher
(b) Journal voucher
(c) Purchase voucher
(d) Payment voucher
Answer:
(b) Journal voucher

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
From the following particulars ascertain profit or loss:

Answer:

Question 22.
Give four examples for capital receipts of not-for-profit organisation.
Answer:

• Life membership fees
• Legacies
• Special donations
• Sale of fixed assets

Question 23.
Balamurugan is a partner who withdrew ₹ 20,000 regularly in the middle of every month. Interest is charged on the drawings at 6% per annum. Calculate interest on drawings for the year ended 31^st December, 2019?
Answer:
Balamurugan’s interest on drawing calculation:
Interest on drawings = Amount of drawings × Rate of interest × Period of interest
= 20,000 × 12 × \(\frac{6}{100} \times \frac{6}{12}\) = ₹ 7,200

Question 24.
State any two circumstances under which goodwill of a partnership firm is valued.
Answer:

• When there is a change in the profit sharing ratio.
• When a new partner is admitted into a firm.
• When an existing partner retires from the firm or when partner dies
• When a partnership firm is dissolved.

Question 25.
Sanjana and Bhavya are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3. On 31.3.2018, Sanjeev was admitted as a partner. On the date of admission, the book of the firm showed a general reserve of ₹ 42,000; Pass the journal entry to distribute the general reserve. ,
Answer:

Question 26.
What is gaining ratio?
Answer:
Gaining ratio is the proportion of the profit which is gained by the continuing partner.
Gaining ratio = Ratio of share gained by the continuing partners
Share gained = New Share – Old Share

Question 27.
Manoharan Ltd. issues 50,000 shares of ₹ 10 each payable fully on application. Pass journal entries if shares are issued at a premium of ₹ 2 per share.
Answer:

Question 28.
What are financial statements?
Answer:
Financial statements are the statements prepared by the business concern at the end of the accounting period to ascertain the operating results and the financial position. The basic financial statements prepared by business concern are income statement and balance sheet.

Question 29.
State any two accounting reports used in Tally.
Answer:

1. Day Book / Journal
2. Ledgers
3. Trial Balance
4. Income statement
5. Balance sheet

Question 30.
Calculate current ratio: Total current liabilities ₹ 2,40,000; Total current assets ₹ 4,80,000.
Answer:
Current Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Current Assets }}{\text { Current Liabilities }}\)
Current Liabilities
Current assets = ₹ 4,80,000
Current liabilities = ₹ 2,40,000
∴ Current Ratio = \(\frac{4,80,000}{2,40,000}\) = 2 : 1

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
State any three differences between double entry system and incomplete records.
Answer:

Question 32.
How the following items will appear in the final accounts of a club for the year ending 31^st March, 2020?
Answer:

Subscription received during the year: ₹ 45,000.
Answer:
Income and Expenditure Account for the year ended 31.03.2019

Question 33.
Ravi, Sibi and Kumar are partners in a firm. There is no partnership deed. How will you deal with the following?
(i) Ravi has contributed maximum capital. He demands interest on capital @ 10% per annum.
(ii) Sibi demands the profit to be shared in the capital ratio. But, others do not agree.
(iii) Loan advanced by kumar to the firm is ₹ 50,000. He demands interest on loan @ 12% per annum.
Answer:
Since there is no partnership deed provisions of the Indian partnership Act 1932 will apply.
(i) No interest on capital is payable to any partner. Therefore Ravi is entitled to the interest on capital
(ii) Profits should be distributed equally
(iii) Interest on loan is payable @ 6% p.a. of ₹ 50,000

Question 34.
Explain any three factors determining the value of goodwill in a partnership firm.
Answer:
Factors determining goodwill:

1. Profitability of the firm
2. Favourable location of the business enterprise
3. Good quality of good i and services offered
4. Tenure of business enterprise
5. Efficiency of management
6. Degree of competition
7. Other factors

Question 35.
Ajay and Devan are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. In the view of Gopal admission, they decided
(i) To increase the value of building by ₹ 40,000
(ii) To decrease the value of machinery by ₹ 14,000 and furniture ₹ 12,000
(iii) An unrecorded liability ₹ 6,000 has to be recorded now.
Answer:

Question 36.
Nandhini, Sandhiya and Rajesh are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 3 respectively. Nandhini retires from the firm on 31^st December, 2019. On the date of retirement, her capital account shows a credit balance of ₹ 1,00,000.
Pass journal entries if:
(i) The amount due is paid off immediately.
(ii) The amount due is not paid immediately.
(iii) ₹ 50,000 is paid immediately by cheque.
Answer:

Question 37.
Senthil Ltd. forfeited 20 equity shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 7 called up, on which Sandeep had paid application and allotment money of ₹ 5 per share. Of these 15 shares were reissued to Magesh by receiving ₹ 6 per share paid up as ₹ 7 per share. Pass journal entries for forfeiture and reissue.
Answer:


Note:
No. of share reissued × profit on issue
= 15 (7 – 6)= 15 × 1 = ₹ 15

Question 38.
What is inventory conversion period? How is it calculated?
Answer:
It is the time taken to sell the inventory. A shorter inventory conversion period indicates more efficiency in the management of inventory. It is computed as follows.

Question 39.
Explain any three applications of computerized accounting system.
The applications of CAS are as follows:
Answer:
(i) Maintaining accounting records:
In CAS, accounting records can be maintained easily and efficiently for long time period. It facilitates fast and accurate retrieval of data and information.

(ii) Inventory management:
CAS facilitates efficient management of inventory. Updated information about availability of inventory level of inventory etc. can be obtained instantly.

(iii) Report generation:
CAS helps to generate various routine and special purpose reports.

Question 40.
Complete the following comparative statement.
Answer:

Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Raj an does not keep proper books of accounts. Following details are taken from his records.
Answer:

During the year he introduced further capital of ₹ 50,000 and withdrew ₹ 2,500 per month from the business for his personal use. Prepare statement of profit or loss with the above information.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following details you are required to calculate credit sales and credit purchases by preparing total debtors account, total creditors account, bills receivable account and bills payable account.
Answer:

Answer:

Question 42.
(a) From the following receipts and payments account of Tenkasi Thiruvalluvar Manram, prepare income and expenditure account for the year ended 31^st March, 2019.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the information given below, prepare Receipts and Payments account of Kurunji Sports Club for the year ended 31^st December, 2018.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) From the following information, prepare capital accounts of partners Raja and Rani, when their capitals are fixed.
Answer:


Answer:

[OR]

(b) Alagappan and Ulagappan are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 10:7. On 1^st January 2018, their capitals were ₹ 20,000 and ₹ 10,000, respectively. The partnership deed specifies the following:
(a) Interest on capital is to be allowed at 5% per annum.
(b) Interest on drawings charged to Alagappan and Ulagappan are ₹ 200 and ₹ 300 respectively.
(c) The net profit of the firm before considering interest on capital and interest on drawings amounted to ₹ 18,000.
Give necessary journal entries and prepare Profit and loss appropriation account for the year ending 31^st December 2018. Assume that the capitals are fluctuating.
Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Find out the value of goodwill at three years purchase of weighted average profit of last four years.

Answer:
Calculation of weighted average



Goodwill = Weighted average profit × No. of years purchase
= ₹ 15,400 × 3 = ₹ 46,200

[OR]

(b) Calculate the value of goodwill at 5 years purchase of super profit from the following information:
(а) Capital employed: ₹ 1,20,000
(b) Normal rate of profit: 20%
(c) Net profit for 5 years:
2014: ₹ 30,000; 2015: ₹ 32,000; 2016: ₹ 35,000; 2017: ₹ 37,000 and 2018: ₹ 40,000
(d) Fair remuneration to the partners ? 2,800 per annum.
Answer:


Normal profit = Capital employed × Normal rate of return
= 1,20,000 × (20/100)
= ₹ 24,000
Super profit = Average profit – Normal profit
= 32,000 – 24,000
= ₹ 8,000
Goodwill = Super profit × Number of years of purchase
= 8,000 × 5
= ₹ 40,000

Question 45.
(a) Baskar and Shankar are partners in a business sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 3:2. The balance sheet of the partners on 31.03.2018 is as follows:

Sellathurai is admitted for 1/5 share on the following terms:
(i) Goodwill of the firm is valued at ₹ 75,000 and Sellathurai brought cash for his share of goodwill.
(ii) Sellathurai is to bring ₹ 1,50,000 as his capital.
(iii) Motor car is valued at ₹ 2,00,000; stock at ₹ 3,80,000 and debtors at ₹ 3,50,000.
(iv) Anticipated claim on workmen compensation fund is ₹ 10,000
(v) Unrecorded investment of ₹ 5,000 has to be brought into account.
(vi) Revaluation account shows the profit of 15,000 on the date of admission.
Prepare capital accounts and balance sheet after Sellathurai’s admission.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Mani, Rama and Meena are partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:3. Their balance sheet as on 31^st March, 2019 is as follows:

Mani retired from the partnership firm on 31.03.2019 subject to the following adjustments:
(i) Stock to be depreciated by ₹ 5,000
(ii) Provision for doubtful debts to be created for ₹ 1,000.
(iii) Buildings to be appreciated by ₹ 16,000
(iv) The final amount due to Mani is not paid immediately
Prepare revaluation account and capital account of partners after retirement.
Answer:

Question 46.
(a)Latha Ltd. offered 1,00,000 shares of ₹ 10 each to the public payable ₹ 3 on application, ₹ 4 on share allotment and the balance when required. Applications for 1,40,000 shares were received on which the directors allotted as:
Applicants for 60,000 shares – Full
Applicants for 75,000 shares – 40,000 shares (excess money will be utilised for allotment)
Applicants for 5,000 shares – Nil
All the money due was received. Pass journal entries upto the receipt of allotment money.
Also show the working notes, which is part of your answer.
Answer:


Working note:

[OR]

(b) Vikam Company issued shares of ₹ 10 each at 10% premium, payable ₹ 2 on application, ₹ 3 on allotment (including premium), ₹ 3 on first call and ₹ 3 on second and final call.
Journalise the transactions relating to forfeiture of shares for the following situations:
(i) Sasikumar who holds 50 shares failed to pay the second and final call and his shares were forfeited.
(ii) Vignesh who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money, first call and second and final call money and his shares were forfeited.
(iii) Madhavan who holds 50 shares failed to pay the allotment money and first call and his shares were forfeited after the first call.
Answer:

Note: Since the premium amount is received by the company, premium should not be cancelled.

(ii) When allotment, first call money and second and final call money is not paid

(iii) When allotment and first call money is not paid

Question 47.
(a) Prepare common-size statement of financial position of Yasmin Ltd as on 31^st March 2019 and 31^st March 2020.


Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following trading activities of Praveen Ltd. calculate
(i) Gross profit ratio
(ii) Net profit ratio
(iii) Operating cost ratio
(iv) Operating profit ratio

Answer:

Calculation of interest on drawings of Praveen (using average period)
Cost of revenue from operations = Purchase of stock-in-trade + Changes in inventory + Direct expenses
= 17,000 – 1,000 + 0 = ₹ 16,000
Gross profit = Revenue from operations – Cost of revenue from operations
= 20,000 – 16,000 = ₹ 4,000

Tutorial note:
It is assumed that there is no tax payable.

Operating cost = Cost of revenue from operations + Operating expenses
Operating expenses = Other expenses = ₹ 2,400
Operating cost = 16,000 + 2,400 = ₹ 18,400

Operating profit = Revenue from operations – Operating cost
= 20,000 – 18,400 = ₹ 1,600

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The book of “The structure and reproduction of the Algae” was published by …………………….
(a) F.E. Fritch
(b) F.E. Round
(c) R.E. Lee
(d) M.S. Randhawa
Answer:
(a) F.E. Fritch

Question 2.
More than one locule ovaries are called ………………………..
(a) Plurilocular
(b) Unilocular
(c) Bilocular
(d) Trilocular
Answer:
(a) Plurilocular

Question 3.
The two subunits of ribosomes remain united at critical ion level of ………………….
(a) Magnesium
(b) Calcium
(c) Sodium
(d) Ferrous
Answer:
(a) Magnesium

Question 4.
The structure of Glycine ammo acid is …………………………

Answer:

Question 5.
Polyderm is found in the roots and underground stems of family is ………………………
(a) Magnesium
(b) Fabaceae
(c) Solanaceae
(d) Lilliaceae
Answer:
(a) Magnesium

Question 6.
In a fully turgid cell: …………………
(a) DPD = 10 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm.
(b) DPD = 0 atm; OP = 10 atm; TP = 10 atm.
(c) DPD = 0 atm; OP = 5 atm; TP = 10 atm.
(d) DPD = 20 atm; OP = 20 atm; TP = 10 atm.
Answer:
(d) DPD = 20 atm; OP = 20 atm; TP = 10 atm.

Question 7.
Who proposed the “Theory of photosynthesis in guard cells” ?
(a) Von Mohl
(b) Sayre
(c) Levit
(d) Steward
Answer:
(a) Von Mohl

Question 8.
Which prevents flow of electrons from NADH + H+ /FADH2 to CoQ?
(a) Cyanide
(b) Oligomycin
(a) Von Mohl
(d) 2,4 DNP
Answer:
(a) Von Mohl

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
We are using perfume to our body. Write the name of the plant and their product.
Answer:
Name of the perfume yielding plant – Santalum album. Product – Sandal oil.

Question 10.
Write the floral formulafof Phyllanthus amarus.
Answer:
Floral formula:

Question 11.
Draw the diagram of conjoint, bicollateral and open of vascular system.
Answer:

Question 12.
How does the trees increase their girth ?
Answer:
In plants, the increase in the thickness (girth) of stem and root is by means of secondary growth or longitudinal growth.

Question 13.
Define the Theory of Electro Osmosis.
Answer:
Electro-Osmotic theory: The theory of electro osmosis was proposed by Fenson (1957) and Spanner (1958). According to this, an electricpotential across the sieve plate causes the movement of water along with solutes. This theory fails to explain several problems concerning translocation.

Question 14.
Respiratory Quotient is zero in succulent plants. Why?
Answer:
In some succulent plants like Opuntia, Bryophyllum carbohydrates are partially oxidised to organic acid, particularly malic acid without corresponding release of CO2 but O2 is consumed hence the RQ value will be zero.

Part – III

Answer any 3 questions. Question No. 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Do you agree that virus is living organism? If you say yes, justify your answer.
Answer:
Yes. Viruses have the characters of living organisms because

• They possess nucleic acid and protein
• Ability to multiply inside a. living cell
• Ability to inject and cause disease
• Capable of mutation
• Show irritability
• Hosts specific.

Question 16.
You are looking like your father or mother in externally. Why? Explain the reason.
Answer:
Externally, we resemble our father or mother upto a certain degree, because the characters of our parents are inherited to us through their genes present in the chromosome of egg (mother) and sperm (father).

Question 17.
Write any three significance of mitosis.
Answer:

1. Genetic stability – daughter cells are genetically identical to parent cells.
2. Growth – as multicellular organisms grow, the number of cells making up their tissue increases. The new cells must be identical to the existing ones.
3. Repair of tissues – damaged cells must be replaced by identical new cells by mitosis.

Question 18.
Which is determined you parental character? Describe about the structure.
Answer:
The parental characters are determined by the chromosome.
The four important features of the chromosome are:

• The shape of the chromosome is specific: The long, thin, lengthy structured chromosome contains a short, constricted region called centromere.
• The number of chromosomes per species is fixed: Example: Mouse has 40 chromosomes, Onion has 16 and Human have 46.
• Chromosomes occur in pairs: Chromosomes of a cell occur in pairs, called homologous pairs. Each of a pair come originally from each parent. Example, human has 46 chromosomes, 23 coming originally from each parent in the process of sexual reproduction.

Question 19.
Write the role of nitrogenase enzyme in nitrogen fixation.
Answer:
Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen: Nitrogen fixation process requires Nitrogenase enzyme . complex, Minerals (Mo, Fe and S), anaerobic condition, ATP, electron and glucose 6 phosphate as H+ donor. Nitrogenase enzyme is active only in anaerobic condition. To create this anaerobic condition a pigment known as leghaemoglobin is synthesized in the nodules which acts as oxygen scavenger and removes the oxygen. Nitrogen fixing bacteria in root nodules appears pinkish due to the presence of this leghaemoglobin pigment.
Overall equation: N₂ + 8e^– + 8H⁺ + 16 ATP → 2NH₃⁺ + H₂ + 16 ADP + 16 Pi

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the Aerial modification of stern with an example.
Answer:
Aerial modification of stem:
1. Creepers: These are plants growing closer (horizontally) to the ground and produces roots at each node. e.g., Cynodon dactylon, Oxalis, Centella

2. Trailers (Stragglers): It is a weak stem that spreads over the surface of the ground without rooting at nodes. They are divided into 3 types,

• Prostrate (Procumbent): A stem that grows flat on the ground, e.g., Evolvulus alsinoides, Indigofera prostrata.
• Decumbent: A stem that grows flat but becomes erect during reproductive stage. e.g., Portulaca, Tridax, Lindenbergia
• Diffuse: A trailing stem with spreading branches, e.g., Boerhaavia diffusa, Merremia
  tridentata

3. Climbers: These plants have long weak stem and produce special organs for attachment , for climbing over a support. Climbing helps to display the leaves towards sunlight and to
position the flower for effective pollination.

i. Root climbers: Plants climbing with the help of adventitious roots (arise from nodes) as in species of Piper betel, Piper nigrum, Hedera helix, Pothos, Hoy a.

ii. Stem climbers (twiners): These climbers lack specialised structure for climbing and the stem itself coils around the support, e.g., Ipomoea, Convolvulus, Dolichos, Clitoria, Quisqualis.
Stem climbers may coil around the support clockwise or anti-clockwise. Clockwise coiling climbers are called dextrose. Example: Dioscorea alata. Anti-clockwise coiling climbers are called sinistrose. e.g., Dioscorea bulbifera.

iii. Hook climbers: These plants produce specialized hook like structures which are the modification of various organs of the plant. In Artabotrys inflorescence axis is modified into hook. In calamus (curved hook) leaf tip is modified into hook. In Bignonia unguis- cati the leaflets are modified into curved hook. In Hugonia the axillary buds modified into hook.

iv. Thorn climbers: Climbing or reclining on the support with the help of thorns as in Bougainvillea and Carissa.

v. Lianas (woody stem climber): Woody perennial climbers found in tropical forests are lianas. They twine themselves around tall trees to get light, e.g., Hiptage benghalensis, Bauhinia vahlii, Entada pursaetha.

vi. Tendril climbers: Tendrils are thread-like coiling structures which help the plants in climbing. Tendrils may be modifications of Stem – as in Passiflora, Vitis and Cissus quadrangularis; Inflorescence axis – Antigonon; Leaf – Lathyrus, Leaflets – Pisum sativum; Petiole – Clematis; Leaftip – Gloriosa; Stipules – Smilax. In pitcher plant (Nepenthes) the midrib of the leaf often coils around a support like a tendril and holds the pitcher in a vertical position.

[OR]

The plants also having the hormones like human being. What are they? Explain the physiological effect of any one.
Answer:
The plants also having the hormones like human being. They are called Phylohormones.
Example: Giberillin, Auxin, Cytokinin, ethylene, Abscissic acid.
Physiological effect of of Cytokinins:

• Cytokinin promotes cell division in the presence of auxin (IAA).
• Induces cell enlargement associated with IAA and gibberellins.
• Cytokinin can break the dormancy of certain light-sensitive seeds like tobacco and induces seed germination.
• Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral bud in the presence of apical bud.
• Application of cytokinin delays the process of aging by nutrient mobilization. It is known as Richmond Lang effect.
• Cytokinin (i) increases rate protein synthesis (ii) induces the formation of inter-fascicular cambium, (iii) Overcomes apical dominance  (iv) induces formation of new leaves, chloroplast and lateral shoots.
• Plants accumulate solutes very actively with the help of cytokinins.

Question 21.
Explain the Calvin Cycle (Flow chart only).
Answer:

[OR]

Draw the outline of Bentham & Hooker classification.
Answer:

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 x 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Every unit of classification regardless of its rank is ………………
(a) Taxon
(b) Variety
(c) Species
(d) Strain
Answer:
(a) Taxon

Question 2.
The zoological name of National Bird is ……………..
(a) Pavo Cristatus
(b) Zoothera Salimalii
(c) Columba livia
(d) Chalcophaps indiva
Answer:
(a) Pavo Cristatus

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not true to simple epithelial tissue?
(a) It is composed of a single layer of cells.
(b) Squamous epithelium is a type of simple epithelium which has flattened cells.
(c) Simple epithelium covers dry surface of the skin.
(d) Pseudo-stratified is a type of simple epithelium which lines the epididymis.
Answer:
(d) Pseudo-stratified is a type of simple epithelium which lines the epididymis.

Question 4.
Which plasma protein is involved in the coagulation of blood ?
(a) Globulin
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Albumin
(d) Serum amylase
Answer:
(b) Fibrinogen

Question 5.
Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.


Answer:
(c) p – (iv), Q – (iii), R – (ii),  S – (i)

Question 6.
Which one of the following diseases is caused due to our own body antibodies act against our own body substance?
(a) Tetany
(b) Osteoporosis
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) Gout
Answer:
(c) Myasthenia gravis

Question 7.
Silk is obtained from ………………
(a) Laccifer lacca
(b) Nosema bombycis
(c) Attacus ricini
(d) Attacus mvlitta
Answer:
(d) Attacus mvlitta

Question 8.
The good egg layers and delicious breed is ………………..
(a) Chittagong
(b) Leghorn
(c) Plymouth
(d) Aseel
Answer:
(a) Chittagong

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Differentiate between closed type and open type of circulatory system.
Answer:
Closed circulatory system :

1. The circulation in which lood is present inside the blood vessels is called closed circulatory system
2. It is found in higher organisms. e.g. annelids. cephalochordates and vertebrates.

Open circulatory system

1. The circulation in which blood remains filled in tissue spaces due to the absence of blood vessels is called open circulatory system
2. It is found in lower organisms. e.g. arthropods, molluscsand echinoderms

Question 10.
How does gall stones are formed?
Answer:
Any alteration in the composition of the bile can cause the formation of stones in the gall bladder. The stones are mostly formed of crystallized cholesterol in the bile. The gall stone causes obstruction in the cystic duct, hepatic duct and also hepato-pancreatic duct causing pain, jaundice and pancreatitis.

Question 11.
At Tuticorin region, the pearl oyster diving people have some changes in their blood. State the reasons for it.
Answer:
When a person descends deep into the sea, the pressure in the surrounding water increases which causes the lungs to decrease in volume. This decrease in volume increases the partial pressure of the gases within the lungs. This effect can be beneficial, because it tends to drive additional oxygen into the circulation, but this benefit also has a risk, the increased pressure can also drive nitrogen gas into the circulation.

This increase in blood nitrogen content can lead to a condition called nitrogen narcosis. When the diver ascends to the surface too quickly a condition called ‘bends’ or decompression sickness occurs and nitrogen comes out of solution while stilUin the blood forming bubbles. Small bubbles in the blood are not harmful, but large bubbles can lodge in small capillaries, blocking blood flow or can press on nerve endings.

Decompression sickness is associated with pain in joints and muscles and neurological problems including stroke. The risk of nitrogen narcosis and bends is common in scuba divers.

Question 12.
Depolarization means reversal of polarity. Mention the iconic charge of both sides of axolemma.
Answer:
Depolarization – Reversal of polarity
When a nerve fibre is stimulated, sodium voltage-gate opens and makes the axolemma permeable to Na+ ions; meanwhile the potassium voltage gate closes. As a result, the rate of flow of Na+ ions into the axoplasm exceeds the rate of flow of K+ ions to the outside fluid [ECF], Therefore, the axolemma becomes positively charged inside and negatively charged outside. This reversal of electrical charge is called Depolarization.

Question 13.
Expand the word SMGA and write its uses.
Answer:
Skeletal Muscle Glycogen Analysis (SMGA) – Used to measure an Athlete’s sporting performance by taking muscle biopsies. It is a standard method to measure muscle glycogen. Muscle glycogen provides the main source of energy during anaerobic exercise. Furthermore, total glycogen stores within the body also contribute significantly to energy metabolism in endurance-type events lasting longer in duration. A single glycogen molecule may contain 5000 glucose units compared to that of 5000 individual glucose molecules.

Question 14.
In your class various height of students over there. Why so? Write the reason.
Answer:
Students in the class are of different heights because of the secretion of growth hormone. Those students who are of maximum height secrete more growth hormone and those students , with low secretion of growth hormone are dwarf or reduced in growth, because growth hormone promotes the growth of all tissue and metabolic processes of body.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Hemichordates posses the characters of echinoderms and chordates. Write any 3 characters of echinoderms as well as chordates seen in hemichordates.
Answer:
Three character of echinoderms seen in hemichordates.

1. Hemichordates are marine habitats.
2. Circulatory system is open type.
3. External fertilization.

Three character of chordates seen in hemichordates.

1. Sexes are separate.
2. Triploblastic animals.
3. Coelomate animals.

Question 16.
Name the visual units of compound eyes of cockroach.
Answer:
Ommatidium (simple eye) is the visual unit of compound eye of cockroach. Each eye of cockroach has 2000 simple eys or ommatidia.

Question 17.
Give an examples for stenohaline and euryhaline.
Answer:
Example of stenohaline animal is Gold fish.
Example for euryhaline animals is Salmon.

Question 18.
Brain is the chief organ of our body. It controls endocrine function by a special structure. What is the name of it ? How does it control ?
Answer:
Brain controls the endocrine system of our body by a special structure called hypothalamus. Hypothalamus is a small cone shaped structure that projects downward from the brain ending into the pituitary stalk. It interlinks both the nervous system and endocrine system.

Though pituitary gland is known as master endocrine glands that controls the other endocrine glands, but it is, in turn controlled by the hypothalamus. Hypothalamus contains groups of neurosecretary cells. It produces neurotransmitters which regulate the secretions of the pituitary. The hormones produced by the hypothalamus acts either as a releasing hormone or as a inhibitory hormone.

Question 19.
Write the different types of silkworm in our country.
Answer:
Different types of silkworm in our country are,

1. Bombyx mori
2. Antheraea assamensis
3. Antheraea mylitta
4. Attacus ricini

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write a short note on buccal cavity of Frog.
Answer:
The alimentary canal consists of the buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, duodenum, ileum and the rectum which leads to the cloaca and opens outside by the cloacal aperture. The wide mouth opens into the buccal cavity. On the floor of the buccal cavity lies a large muscular sticky tongue. The tongue is attached in front and free behind. The free edge is forked. When the frog sights an insect it flicks out its tongue and the insect gets glued to the sticky tongue. The tongue is immediately withdrawn and the mouth closes.

A row of small and pointed maxillary teeth is found on the inner region of the upper jaw. In addition vomerine teeth are also present as two groups, one on each side of the internal nostrils. The lower jaw is devoid of teeth. The mouth opens into the buccal cavity that leads to the oesophagus through the pharynx.

[OR]

Explain the refractive errors of eye.
Answer:
Refractive errors of eye:
Myopia (near sightedness): The affected person can see the nearby objects but not the distant objects. This condition may result due to an elongated eyeball or thickened lens; so that the image of distant object is formed in front of the yellow spot. This error can be corrected using concave lens that diverge the entering light rays and focuses it on the retina.

Hypermetropia (long sightedness): the affected person can see only the distant objects clearly but not the objects nearby. This condition results due to a shortened eyeball and thin lens; so the image of closest object is converged behind the retina. This defect can be overcome by using convex lens that converge the entering light rays on the retina.

Presbyopia: Due to aging, the lens loses elasticity and the power of accommodation. Convex lenses are used to correct this defect.
Astigmatism is due to the rough (irregular) curvature of cornea or lens. Cylindrical glasses are used to correct this error.
Cataract: Due to the changes in nature of protein, the lens becomes opaque. It can be corrected by surgical procedures.

Question 21.
Kidney functioning is regulated by hormonal feedback control mechanism. Explain this mechanism.
Answer:
Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin, juxtaglomerular apparatus and atrial natriuretic factor regulate the kidney function.

Antidiuretic hormone or Vasopressin: When there is excessive loss of fluid from the body or when there is an increase in the blood pressure, the osmoreceptors of the hypothalamus stimulates the neurohypophysis to secrete the antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin. It facilitates reabsorption of water by increasing the number of aquaporins on the cell surface membrane of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct.

When the water loss from the body is less or when you drink excess amount of juice, osmoreceptors stop secreting ADH and the aquaporins of the collecting ducts move into the cytoplasm. Hence dilute urine is produced to maintain the blood volume.

Renin angiotensin: Juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) is a specialized tissue in the afferent arteriole of the nephron. It consists of macula densa and granular cells. The macula dcnsa cells sense distal tubular flow and affect afferent arteriole diameter. The granular cells secrete an enzyme called renin. A fall in glomerular blood flow, glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate, can activate JG cells to release renin. This converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin-I. Angiotensin converting enzyme converts angiotensin-I to angiotensin-II.

Angiotensin-II stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule by vasoconstriction of the blood vessels and increases the glomerular blood pressure. Angiotensin-II stimulate adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone that causes reabsorption of Na+, K+ excretion and absorption of water from the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct. This increases the glomerular blood pressure and glomerular filtration rate. This complex mechanism is generally known as Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS).

Atrial natriuretic factor: Excessive stretch of cardiac atrial cells cause an increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart and release Atrial Natriuretic Peptide or Factor (ANF). It travels to the kidney where it increases Na+ excretion and increases the blood flow to the glomerulus, acting as vasodilator on the afferent glomerular arterioles and as a vasoconstrictor on efferent arterioles.

It decreases aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex and decreases release of renin, thereby decreasing angiotensin-II. ANF acts antagonistically to the renin-angiotensin system, aldosterone and vasopressin.

[OR]

Explain, how the combination of aquaculture and hydroponics techniques can be successfully executed in our homes.
Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture (growing fish) and hydroponics (growing plants in non-soil media and nutrient-laden water). Aquaponics may also prevent toxic water runoff. It also maintains ecosystem balance by recycling the waste and excretory products produced by the fish. In India, aquaponics was started in 2013. Some primary methods of aquaponic gardening that are in use nowadays are as follows:

1. Deep water culture is otherwise known as raft based method. In this method a raft floats in water. Plants are kept in the holes of raft and the roots float in water. This method is applicable for larger commercial scale system. By this method fast growing plants are cultivated.

2. Media based method involves growing plants in inert planting media like clay pellets or shales. This method is applicable for home and hobby scale system. Larger number of fruiting plants, leafy green plants, herbs and other varieties of plants can be cultivated.

3. Nutrient Film technique involves the passage of nutrient rich water through a narrow trough or PVC pipe. Plants are kept in the holes of the pipe to allow the roots to be in free contact with in the water stream.

4. Aqua vertica is otherwise known as vertical aquaponics. Plants are stacked on the top of each other in tower systems. Water flows in through the top of the tower. This method is suitable for growing leafy greens, strawberries and other crops that do not need supporting solid substratum to grow.

Advantages of Aquaponic gardening Water conservation: No need of water discharge and recharge as the water is maintained by recycling process.

Soil: Bottom soil may be loaded with freshwater. Microbes in water can convert the waste materials into usable forms like ammonia into nitrates which are used by the plants. Thus the soil fertility is maintained.

Pesticides: In this system use of pesticides is avoided and hence it is ecofriendly.
Weeds: Since the plants are cultured in confined conditions, growth of weeds is completely absent. The utilization of nutrient by plants is high in this method.

Artificial food for fishes: In this system plant waste and decays are utilized by fishes as food. So, the need for the use of supplementary feed can be minimized.

Fertilizer usage: Artificial or chemical fertilizers is not required for this system since the plants in the aquaponics utilize the nutrients from the fish wastes dissolved in water. Cultivable fishes like tilapia, trout, koi, gold fish, bass etc., are cultured in aquaponics. Common cultivable plants like tomato, pepper, lettuce, cucumber, and rose are co-cultivated in this method.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Previous Year Question Paper March 2019 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
For every CO₂ molecule entering the C₃ cycle, the number of ATP and NADPH required is ………………….
(a) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH
(b) 3 ATP + 3 NADPH
(c) 2 ATP + 2 NADPH
(d) 2 ATP + 3 NADPH
Answer:
(a) 3 ATP + 2 NADPH

Question 2.
If the haploid number of chromosomes for an angiosperm is 14, then the number of chromosome in its endosperm would be………………….
(a) 42
(b) 28
(c) 7
(d) 14
Answer:
(a) 42

Question 3.
Vexillary aestivation is characteristic feature of ……………….family.
(a) Solanaceae
(b) Brassicaceae
(c) Fabaceae
(d) Asteraceae
Answer:
(c) Fabaceae

Question 4.
Which of the following represents symport?

Answer:

Question 5.

Answer:
The above structure represents a …………………..
(a) Polynucleotide
(b) Amino acid
(c) Nucleoside
(d) Nucleotide
Answer:
(d) Nucleotide

Question 6.
The pairing of Homologous chromosomes on Meiosis is known as …………………..
(a) Disjunction
(b) Synergids
(c) Bivalent
(d) Synapsis
Answer:
(d) Synapsis

Question 7.
Photosynthetic roots are seen in …………………..
(a) Vanda
(b) Tinospora
(c) Cuscuta
(d) Viscum
Answer:
(b) Tinospora

Question 8.
Match:

(a) (1 )-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)
(b) (1)-(iii), (2)-(ii), (3)-(i), (4)-(iv)
(c) (1)-(iv), (2)-(ii), (3)-(iii), (4)-(i)
(d) (1)-(i), (2)-(iv), (3)-(iii), (4)-(ii)
Answer:
(a) (1 )-(iii), (2)-(iv), (3)-(ii), (4)-(i)

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
(a) What is Plectostele? Give an example.
(b) Mention any one character shared by gymnosperms and angiosperms.
Answer:
(a) Plectostele: Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates, e.g., Lycopodium clavatum.

(b) Gymnosperms :

1. Vessels are absent (except Gnetales)
2. Phloem lacks companion cells

Angiosperms :

1. Vessels are present
2. Companion cells are present

Question 10.
List the primary ftmctions of Leaf.
Answer:
Primary functions of the leaf:

1. Photosynthesis
2. Transpiration
3. Gaseous exchange
4. Protection of buds
5. Conduction of water and dissolved solutes

Question 11.
A series of events leading to the formation of new cell is known as Cell Cycle. Give the diagrammatic view of Cell Cycle.
Answer:

Question 12.
Name the following diagrams.
Answer:

Question 13.
Mention the different types of plasmolysis seen in plant cells.
Answer:

1. Incipient plasmolysis
2. Evident plasmolysis and
3. Final plasmolysis.

Question 14.
Tabulate any two differences between Cyclic and Non-Cyclic photophosphorylation.
Answer:
Differences between Cyclic Photophosphorylation and Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation:

Cyclic Photophosphorylation :

1. PS I only involved.
2. Photolysis of water does not take place.

Non-Cyclic Photophosphorylation :

1. PS I and PS II involved.
2. Photolysis of water takes place.

Part – III

Answer any 3 questions. Question No. 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Explain the different types of placentation with example.
Answer:

• Marginal placentation: It is with the placentae along the margin of a unicarpellate ovary. e.g., Fabaceae.
• Axile placentation: The placentae arises from the column in a compound ovary with septa. e.g., Hibiscus, tomato and lemon.
• Superficial placentation: Ovules arise from the surface of the septa, e.g., Nyrhphaeceae.
• Parietal: It is the placentae on the ovary walls or upon intruding partitions of a unilocular, compound ovary, e.g., Mustard, argemone and cucumber.
• Free-central placentation: It is with the placentae along the column in a compound ovary without septa, e.g., Caryophyllaceae, Dianthus and primrose.
• Basal: It is the placenta at the base of the ovary, e.g, Sunflower (Asteraceae) Marigold.

Question 16.
(a) Draw and label the structure of Mitochondria.
(b) Why Mitochondria is called as ‘the power house of a cell’?
Answer:
(a) Structure of Mitochondrion:

(b) Since huge amount of energy is generated in mitochondria in the form of ATP molecules they are called ‘power house of the cell’.

Question 17.
A transverse section of the trunk of a tree shows concentric rings which are known as growth rings. What are the significances of studying about these rings ?
Answer:

• Age of wood can be calculated
• The quality of timber can be ascertained
• Radio-Carbon dating can be verified
• Past climate and archaeological dating can be made.
• Provides evidence in forensic investigation

Question 18.
(a) What is the formula for Respiratory Quotient?
(b) Write any two significances of Pentose Phosphate Pathway.
Answer:
(a) Formula for Respiratory Quotient:

(b) Significances of Pentose Phosphate Pathway:

• HMP shunt is associated with the generation of two important products, NADPH and pentose sugars, which play a vital role in anabolic reactions.
• Coenzyme NADPH generated is used for reductive biosynthesis and counter damaging the effects of oxygen free radicals

Question 19.
(a) The equations given below represent the different stages of Nitrogen Cycle in plants.

In the above equations [A], [B], [C] indicate the bacteria which is responsible for the reaction. Name them.
(b) Define Denitrification.
(c) Which enzyme is required for Nitrogen fixation?
Answer:
(a) (i) A – Nitrosomonas
(ii) B – Nitrobacter
(iii) C – Pseudomonas
(b) Denitrification: Nitrates in the soil are converted back into atmospheric nitrogen by a process called denitrification. Bacteria involved in this process are Pseudomonas, Thiobacillus and Bacillus subtilis.

(c) Enzyme required for Nitrogen fixation: Nitrate Reductase, Nitrite Reductase

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
(a) (i) A Danish Physician, Christian Gram developed a staining procedure to differentiate bacteria. List the various steps involved in that procedure.
(ii) Distinguish between Deoxy viruses and Ribo viruses with example.
[OR]
(b) Describe the Floral characters of Allium Cepa with a neat floral diagram.
Answer:
(a) (i) Gram staining Techniques :

1. Prepare a smear of bacterial culture.
2. Stain with crystal violet for 30 seconds
3. Rinse in distilled water for 2 seconds
4. Grams Iodine for 1 minute
5. Rinse in distilled water
6. Wash in 95% ethanol or acetone for 10 to 30 seconds
7. Rinse in distilled water
8. Safranin for 30-60seconds
9. Rinse in distilled water and blot
10. Observe under microscope

(ii) Deoxy viruses
Viruses having DNA are called deoxyviruses. E.g. Animal viruses except HIV

Ribo viruses :
Viruses having RNA are called riboviruses. E.g. Plant viruses except cauliflower mosaic vims (CMV)

[OR]

(b) Floral Characters of Allium cepa:
Answer:

• Habit: Perennial herb with bulb.
• Root: Fibrous adventitious root system
• Stem: Underground bulb
• Leaf: A cluster of radical leaves emerges from the underground bulb, cylindrical and fleshy having sheathy leaf bases with parallel venation.
• Inflorescence: Scapigerous i.e. the inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.
• Flower: Small, white, bracteate, bracteolate, pedicellate, complete, trimerous, actinomorphic and hypogynous. Flowers are protandrous.
• Perianth: Tepals 6, white, arranged in two whorls of three each, syntepalous showing valvate aestivation.
• Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls of three each, epitepalous, apostamenous / free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse and dehiscing longitudinally.
• Gynoecium: Tricarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with two ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.
• Fruit: A loculicidal capsule.
• Seed: Endospermous .
• Floral Formula:
  
  

Question 21.
(a) (i) Draw and label the internal structure of Nerium leaf
(ii) Name the following Vascular Bundle.
Answer:

(b) (i) Write any four points regarding Physiological effects of cytokinins.
(ii) Define Vernalisation.

In the above representation, what does P_r and P_fr stand for?
Answer:
(a) (i) Internal structure of Nerium leaf:

(ii) Vascular Bundle :
(A) Concentric Amphivasal vascular bundle
(B) Radial arrangement

[OR]

(b) (i) Physiological effects of cytokinins:

• Cytokinin promotes cell division in the presence of auxin (IAA)
• Cytokinin can break the dormancy of certain light-sensitive seeds like tobacco and induces seed germination
• Cytokinin promotes the growth of lateral bud in the presence of apical bud
• Cytokinin (i) increases rate of protein synthesis (ii) induces the formation of inter-fascicular cambium (iii) overcomes apical dominance (iv) induces formation of new leaves, chloroplast and lateral shoots.

(ii) Vernalisation: Many species of biennials and perennials are induced to flower by low temperature exposure (0°C to 5°C). This process is called vernalization. The term vernalization was first used by T.D. Lysenko (1938).

(iii) P_r – Phytochrome red (660 nm)
P_fr– Phytochrome far red(730 nm)

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. [8 × 1 = 8]

Choose the most appropriate answer from the given four alternative and write the option code and the corresponding answer.

Question 1.
Vital Capacity is ………………………………
(a) RV + ERV
(b) TV + IRV + ERV
(c) TV + IRV
(d) TV + ERV
Answer:
(b) TV + IRV + ERV

Question 2.
When a cockroach tries to enter into the ear of a sleeping person, which one of the following process will start ?
(a) Stimulation of negative feedback mechanism
(b) Neuromuscular fatigue
(c) Unconditioned reflex
(d) Conditioned reflex
Answer:
(c) Unconditioned reflex

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correct pair ?
(a) Exotic breed – Cyprinus Carpio
(b) Apiculture – Reeling
(c) Sericulture – Propolis
(d) Milch breed – Malvi
Answer:
(a) Exotic breed – Cyprinus Carpio

Question 4.
If Henle ’s Loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which one of the following is to be expected ?
(a) The urine will be more concentrated
(b) The urine will be more diluted
(c) There will be no urine formation
(d) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
Answer:
(b) The urine will be more diluted

Question 5.
The cytoplasm of the muscle fibre is called …………………….
(a) Myofibril
(b) Sarcoplasm
(c) Sarcomere
(d) Sarcolemma
Answer:
(b) Sarcoplasm

Question 6.
Three domain classification was proposed by
(a) Cavalier Smith
(b) R.H. Whittaker
(c) Carolus Linnaeus
(d) Carl Woese
Answer:
(d) Carl Woese

Question 7.
Which of the statements regarding lac insect is True ?
(i) Microscopic resinous crawling scale insect.
(ii) Inserts its proboscis into plant tissue, suck juices and grows.
(iii) Secretes lac from the hind end of the body.
(iv) The male lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac.
(a) (ii), (i) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 8.
Which of the following is not present in the same rank ?
(a) Diptera
(b) Insecta
(c) Primata
(d) Orthoptera
Answer:
(c) Primata

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Classify the animals based on the body cavity.
Answer:
The cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is called coelom. In some animals, the body cavity is not fully lined by the mesodermal epithelium. The mesoderm is formed as scattered pouches between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called a pseudocoel. The animals which have pseudocoel e.g. round worms.

If the coelom develops within the mesoderm and is lined by mesodermal epithelium it is called eucoelom. The animals which have true coelom are called eucoelomates. If the body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm, the animals are called schizocoelomates. e.g., Annelids, arthropods and molluscs. If the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal pouches of archenteron, the animals are called enterocoelomate animals, e.g., echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 10.
Name the layers found in Human Blood Vessels.
Answer:

• The blood vessels in humans are composed of three layers, tunica intima, tunica media and tunica externa.
• The inner layer, tunica intima or tunica interna supports the vascular endothelium, the middle layer.
• Tunica media is composed of smooth muscles and an extra cellular matrix which contains a protein, elastin.
• The outer layer, tunica externa or tunica adventitia is composed of collagen fibres.

Question 11.
We are not consuming urea. But in our body urea is produced. Why?
Answer:
If too much of protein is consumed, the body cannot store the excess amino acids formed from the digestion of proteins. The liver breaks down the excess amino acids and produces urea.

Question 12.
List the disorders of muscular system.
Answer:
Myasthenia gravis, tetany, muscle fatigue, atrophy, muscle pull and muscular dystrophy are the disorders of muscular system.

Question 13.
Do you know your lower limb segments ? Write the 3 segments of lower limb.
Answer:

• Hinge joint which is the knee joint
• Gliding joint is between the tarsals
• Ball and socket joint which is between femur and hip bone
• Saddle joint is between the tarsal and metatarsal

Question 14.
Name the three zones which are present in Adrenal gland.
Answer:

• Zona glomerulosa : The outer thin layer constitutes about 15% of adrenal cortex, and secretes mineralocorticoids.
• Zona fasciculata: The middle widest layer constitutes about 75% of adrenal cortex and secretes glucocorticoids such as cortisol, corticosterone and trace amounts of adrenal androgen and oestrogen.
• Zona reticularis: The inner zone of adrenal cortex constitute about 10% of adrenal cortex and secretes the adrenal androgen, trace amount of oestrogen and glucocorticoids.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
Compare the anatomical features between Phylum Annelida and Arthropoda.
Answer:

Question 16.
Why do we call cockroach a vector ?
Answer:
Cockroaches carry with them harmful germs of various bacterial diseases like cholera, diarrhoea, tuberculosis, and typhoid and hence are known as “Vectors”.

Question 17.
Why, villi present in the intestine, are not present in the stomach?
Answer:
In small intestine digestion gets completed and the absorption of digested food materials like glucose, amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol takes place. The food materials are to be retained in the intestine by increasing the surface area. Hence villi are present in the intestine. Stomach is the temporary storing organ of food. In the stomach, HCl pepsin, renin and lipase are secreted. These are concerned with digestion. Hence villi are not present in the stomach.

Question 18.
Enumerate the benefits of Poultry Farming.
Answer:
Benefits of Poultry farming are:

• It does not require high capital for construction and maintenance of the poultry farming.
• It does not require a big space.
• It ensures high return of investment within a very short period of time.
• It provides fresh and nutritious food and has a huge global demand.
• It provides employment opportunities for the people.

Question 19.
Pituitary gland is commonly called “master gland” of the body. Why?
Answer:
Pituitary gland is commonly called the master gland” of the body because it regulates the activity of other endocrine glands such as adrenal gland, thyroid gland, testis and ovary.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write the kingdom, phylum and class for Pigeon. Write the characteristics of birds that are suitable for flying.
Answer:

• Kigdom : Animalia
• Phylum: chordata
• Class : Aves
• The forelimbs are modified into wings,
• The hind limbs are adapted for walking, running, and swimming and perching.
• The endoskeleton is fully ossified (bony) and the long bones are hollow with air cavities.
• The pectoral muscles of flight (pectoralis major and pectoralis minor) are well developed.
• The skin is dry and devoid of glands except the oil gland or preen gland at the base of the tail.
• The exoskeleton consists of epidermal feathers, scales, claws on legs and the homy covering on the beak.
• Respiration is by compact, elastic, spongy lungs that are continuous with air sacs to supplement respiration.
• The heart is four chambered. Aves are homeothermic.
• Urinary bladder is absent.

[OR]

In our heart, all the four chambers are completely partitioned. It results in non-mixing of oxygenated blood with deoxygenated blood. Explain the double circulation related to it.
Answer:

• Circulation of the blood was first described by William Harvey in 1628. There are two types of blood circulation in vertebrates, single circulation and double circulation.
• The blood circulates twice through the heart first on the right side then on the left side to complete one cardiac cycle.
• The complete double blood circulation is more prominent in mammals because of the complete partition of all the chambers (Auricles and ventricles) in the heart.
• In systemic circulation, the oxygenated blood entering the aorta from the left ventricle is carried by a network of arteries, arterioles and capillaries to the tissues. The deoxygenated blood from the tissue.
• This increases the diffusion distance and reduces the efficiency of the gas exchange.
• In contrast high pressure is required to force blood through the long systemic circuits.
• Hence the arteries close to the heart have increased pressure than the arteries away from the heart.
• Completely separated circuits (pulmonary and systemic) allow these two different demands
  to be met with. ‘

Question 21.
Differentiate between sympathetic and parasympathetic Neural system.
Answer:
Sympathetic Neural system (SNS)

1. SNS originates in the thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord.
2. Sympathetic ganglia are linked up to form a chain.
3. Preganglionic fibres are short and the postganglionic fibres are long.
4. Noradrenaline is produced at the terminal ends of the postganglionic fibres at the effector organs. Hence the system is adrenergic.
5. Active during stressful conditions preparing the body to face them.
6. The overall effect is excitatory and stimulating.
7. It is considered as the flight or fight system.

Parasympathetic Neural system (PNS) :

1. PNS originates in the cranial region of the brain and the sacral region of the spinal cord.
2. Its ganglia remain isolated.
3. Preganglionic fibres are long and the postganglionic fibres are short.
4. Acetylcholine is produced at the terminal ends of the postganglionic fibres at the effector organs. Hence the system is cholinergic.
5. Active during relaxing times restoring normal activity after a stress.
6. The overall effect is inhibitory.
7. It is considered as ‘The Rest and Digest System’ or ‘The Feed and Breed System’.

[OR]

Discuss the various techniques adopted in cattle breeding.
Answer:
There are two methods of animal breeding, namely inbreeding and outbreeding

1. Inbreeding: Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes. Continuous inbreeding reduces fertility and even productivity, resulting in “inbreeding depression”. This c^n be avoided by breeding selected animals of the breeding population and they should be mated with superior animals of the same breed but unrelated to the
breeding population. It helps to restore fertility and yield.

2. Outbreeding: The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations. Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

Out crossing: It is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals below average in productivity.

Cross breeding: Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traitsfhybrid vigour or heterosis.)

Interspecific hybridization: In this method of breeding mating is between male and female of two different species. The progeny obtained from such crosses are different from their parents, and may possess the desirable traits of the parents. Have you heard about Mule? It was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

3. Artificial insemination: Artificial insemination is a technique in which the semen collected from the male is injected to the reproductive tract of the selected female. Artificial insemination is economical measure where fewer bulls are required and maximum use can be made of the best sire.

4. Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology (MOET) : It is another method of propagation of animals with desirable traits. This method is applied when the success rate of crossing is low even after artificial insemination. In this method Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) is administered to cows for inducing follicular maturation and super ovulation. Instead of one egg per cycle, 6-8 eggs can be produced by this technology.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Identify the Archaebacterium.
(a) Acetobacter
(b) Erwinia
(c) Treponema
(d) Methanobacterium
Answer:
(d) Methanobacterium

Question 2.
Endosperm in gymnosperm is formed ……………….
(a) at the time of fertilization
(b) before fertilization
(c) after fertilization
(d) along with the development of embryo
Answer:
(b) before fertilization

Question 3.
A true fruit is the one, where
(a) only ovary of the flower develops into fruit
(b) ovary and calyx of the flower develops into fruit
(c) ovary, calyx and thalamus of the flower develops into fruit
(d) all floral whorls of the flower develops into fruit
Answer:
(a) only ovary of the flower develops into fruit

Question 4.
Which of the following electron opaque chemical is used in Electron microscope?
(a) Strontium
(b) Deuterium
(c) Palladium
(d) Uranium
Answer:
(c) Palladium

Question 5.
In S phase of the cell cycle………………..
(a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell
(b) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell
(c) Chromosome number is increased
(d) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell
Answer:
(a) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell

Question 6.
Rolling & unrolling of leaves due to whether change are controlled by………………..
(a) Sensory cells
(b) Motor cells
(c) Subsidory cells
(d) Trichomes
Answer:
(b) Motor cells

Question 7.
The inhibitory effect of oxygen in photosynthesis was first discovered by ……………………….
(a) Warburg
(b) Van Helmont
(c) Dutrochet
(d) Desaussure
Answer:
(a) Warburg

Question 8.
The most widely occuring cytokinin in plants is ………………
(a) Iso propyl adenine
(b) Iso pentenyl adenine
(c) Indole propionic acid
(d) Iso propionic adenine
Answer:
(b) Iso pentenyl adenine

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Define bacteria and bacteriology.
Answer:
Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiquitous, microscopic organisms. The study of bacteria is called bacteriology.

Question 10.
Why do we use the term ‘form genera’ for fossil plants?
Answer:
The term ‘form genera’ is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments.

Question 11.
Where does the inflorescence axis arise in cauliflorous type of inflorescence?
Answer:
In cauliflorous type, inflorescence developed directly from a woody trunk.
Example: Theobroma cocoa.

Question 12.
Compare pinnate (or) unicostate venation and palmate (or) multicostate venation.
Answer:
Pinnate (or) unicostate venation
In pinnate (or) unicostate there is only one prominent midrib.

Palmate (or) multicostate venation
In palmate (or) multicostate there are many midribs running parallel to each other.

Question 3.
Draw and label (a) Branchysclereids (b) Osteoclereids
Answer:

Question 14.
Nitrogen is a Macronutrient – Justify.
Answer:
Nitrogen (N) is required by the plants in greatest amount. It is an essential component of proteins, nucleic acids, amino acids, vitamins, hormones, alkaloids, chlorophyll and cytochrome.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
How the vascular plants dominate the Earth?
Answer:
The success and dominance of vascular plants is due to the development of,

• Extensive root system.
• Efficient conducting tissues.
• Cuticle to prevent desiccation.
• Stomata for effective gaseous exchange.

Question 16.
Explain the three different types of trailers with an example.
Types of Trailers:

1. Prostrate (Procumbent): A stem that grows flat on the ground, e.g., Evolvulus alsinoides, Indigofera prostrata.
2. Decumbent: A stem that grows flat but becomes erect during reproductive stage. e.g., Portulaca, Tridax, Lindenbergia.
3. Diffuse: A trailing stem with spreading branches, e.g., Boerhaavia diffusa, Merremia tridentata.

Question 17.
Name any three synthetic auxins.
Answer:

1. 2,4-Dichloro Phenoxy Acetic Acid (2,4-D)
2. 2,4,5-Trichloro Phenoxy Acetic Acid (2,4,5-T)
3. Napthalene Acetic Acid (NAA)

Question 18.
Compare the Gynoecium of Pisum sativum and Datura metal.
Answer:
Gynoecium of Pisum sativum :

1. Mono Carpellary
2. Unilocular
3. Ovules on marginal placentation
4. Feathery stigma

Gynoecium of Datura metal :

1. Bicarpellary
2. Tetralocular
3. Ovules on axile placentation
4. Bilobed stigma

Question 19.
Draw the diagram representing oxygen evolving complex.
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Tabulate the differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.
Answer:

[OR]

Explain Allium cepa in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram.
Answer:
Botanical description of Allium, cepa:

• Habit: Perennial herb with bulb.
• Root: Fibrous adventitious root system
• Stem: Underground bulb
• Leaf: A cluster of radical leaves emerges from the underground bulb, cylindrical and fleshy having sheathy leaf bases with parallel venation.
• Inflorescence: Scapigerous i.e. the inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground
  bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.
• Flower: Small, white, bracteate, ebrcteolate, pedicellate, complete, trimerous, actinomorphic and hypogynous, Flowers are protandrous.
• Perianth: Tepals 6, white, arranged in two whorls of three each, syntepalous showing valvate aestivation.
• Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls of three each, epitepalous, apostamenous free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse and dehiscing longitudinally.
• Gynoecium: Tricarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with two ovules in
  each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.
• Fruit: A loculicidal capsule.
• Seed: Endospennous
• Floral Formula:
  

Question 21.
Differentiate between C₃ & C₄ plants.
Answer:
Differences between C₃ and C₄ plants
C₃ Plants:

1. CO₂ fixation takes place in mesophyll cells only.
2. CO₂ acceptor is RUBP only.
3. First product is 3C- PGA.
4. Kranz anatomy is not present.
5. Granum is present in mesophyll cells.
6. Normal Chloroplast.
7. Optimum temperature 20° to 25°C.
8. Fixation of CO₂ at 50 ppm.
9. Less efficient due to higher photorespiration. ,
10. RUBP carboxylase enzyme used for fixation.
11. 18 ATPs used to synthesize one glucose.
12. Efficient at low CO₂.
13. Example: Paddy, Wheat, Potato and so on. –

C₄ Plants :

1. CO₂ fixation takes place mesophyll and bundle sheath.
2. PEP in mesophyll and RUBP in bundle sheath cells.
3. First product is 4C- OAA.
4. Kranz anatomy is present.
5. Granum present in mesophyll cells and absent in bundle sheath.
6. Dimorphic chloroplast.
7. Optimum temperature 30° to 45°C.
8. Fixation of CO₂ even less than 10 ppm.
9. More efficient due to less photorespiration.
10. PEP carboxylase and RUBP carboxylase used.
11. Consumes 30 ATPs to produce one glucose.
12. Efficient at higher CO₂.
13. Example: Sugar cane, Maize, Sorghum, Amaranthus and so on.

[OR]

Classify and explain the plants based on photoperiodism.
Answer:

• Long day plants: The plants that require long critical day length for flowering are called long day plants or short night plants. Example: Pea, Barley and Oats.
• Short long day plants: These are long day plants but should be exposed to short day lengths during early period of growth for flowering. Example: Wheat and Rye.
• Short day plants: The plants that require a short critical day length for flowering are called short day plants or long night plants. Example: Tobacco, Cocklebur, Soybean, Rice and Chrysanthemum.
• Long short day plants: These are actually short-day plants but they have to be exposed to long days during their early periods of growth for flowering. Example: Some species of Bryophyllum and Night jasmine.
• Intermediate day plants: These require a photoperiod between long day and short day for flowering. Example: Sugarcane and Coleus.
• Day neutral plants: There are a number of plants which can flower in all possible photoperiods. They are also called photo neutrals or indeterminate plants. Example: Potato. Rhododendron, Tomato and Cotton.

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [1 × 8 = 8]

Question 1.
True species are ………………….
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Feeding on the same food
(d) Reproductively isolated
Answer:
(d) Reproductively isolated

Question 2.
Which of the following snakes is non-poisonous?
(a) Cobra
(b) Krait
(c) Viper
(d) Python
Answer:
(d) Python

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (iv) 2 – (i), 3 – (ii), 4 – (Hi)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iv), 2 – (ii), 3 – (i), 4 – (iii)
(d) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (iii), 4 – (i)
Answer:

Question 4.
JMV stands for …………….
(a) Juxta medullary nephrons
(b) Juxta memory nephrons
(c) Juxta medullary neuron
(d) Juxta memory neuron
Answer:
(a) Juxta medullary nephrons

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) Tuberculosis is a condition in which the pleura becomes inflammed.
(b) Pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that occurs in the lungs.
(c) Asthma is an infectious disease caused due to mycobacterium tuberculosis.
(d) Lung cancer is an inflammation of the lining of your bronchial tubes.
Answer:
(b) Pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that occurs in the lungs.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Axial skeleton contains 80 bones.
(b) Appendicular skeleton contains 126 bones.
(c) Skull contains 28 bones.
(d) Vertebral column contains 26 bones in adults.
Answer:
(c) Skull contains 28 bones

Question 7.
Visual area is located in …………….
(a) Occipital lobe
(b) Parietal lobe
(c) Frontal lobe
(d) Temporal lobe
Answer:
(a) Occipital lobe

Question 8.
It is the parathyroid gland.
(a) Decreases blood Ca⁺² level
(b) Increases blood Ca⁺² level
(c) Promotes collagen synthesis by osteoblasts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Decreases blood Ca+2 level

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is cladogram?
Answer:
A tree diagram which represents the evolutionary relationship among organisms in known as cladogram.

Question 10.
Distinguish between radiate and bilateria.
Answer:
Radiata

1. These include radially symmetrical animals.
2. These are diploblastic eg. Cnidarians, Ctenophores

Bilateria :

1. These include bilaterally symmetrical animals.
2. These are triploblastic eg. flat-worms.

Question 11.
Draw the diagram of Balanoglossus and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 12.
What are the components of food?
Answer:
The components of food are carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, vitamins, minerals, fibre and water.

Question 13.
What is Osmotic regulation?
Answer:
Osmotic regulation is the control of tissue osmotic pressure which acts as a driving force for movement of water across biololgical membranes.

Question 14.
What is periosteum?
Answer:
The external surface of the bone is covered by a double layered membrane called periosteum.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What are the three domains of life?
Answer:
Three domain classification was proposed by Carl Woese (1977) and his co-workers. They classified organisms based on the difference in 16s rRNA genes. This adds the taxon domain higher than the kingdom. In this system, prokaryotes are divided into two domains-bacteria and Arachaea. All eukaryotes are placed under the domain Eukarya. Archae appears to have common features with Eukarya. Archaea differ from bacteria in cell wall composition and differ from bacteria and eukaryotes in membrane composition and rRNA types.

Question 16.
Define typhlosole.
Answer:
The dorsal wall of the ftitestine of earthworm is folded into the cavity as the typhlosole.
This fold contains blood vessels and increases the absorptive area of the intestine.

Question 17.
Differentiate parazoa and eumetazoa.
Parazoa :
These include multicellular animals whose cells are loosely arranged without the formation of tissues or organs, e.g. sponges

Eumetazoa :
These include multicellular animals with well defined tissues, organs and organ systems.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of neuron.

Question 19.
What are the different types of silk worms?
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Describe class Mammalia.
Answer:
(L. Mamma – Breast)
They are found in a variety of habitats.Their body is covered by hair, a unique feature of mammals. Some of them are adapted to fly or live in water. Presence of mammary glands is the most unique feature of mammals. They have two pairs of limbs adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing, swimming and flying.

Their skin is glandular in nature, consisting of sweat glands, scent glands and sebaceous glands.Exoskeleton includes homy epidermal horns, spines, scales, claws, nails, hooves and bony dermal plates. Teeth are thecodont,heterodont and diphyodont. External ears or pinnae are present.

The heart is four chambered and possess a left systematic arch. Mature RBCs are circular, biconcave and non nucleated. Mammals have a large brain when compared to other animals They show greatest intelligence among all animals. Their kidneys are metanephric and are ureotelic. All are homeothermic, sexes are separate and fertilization is internal.

Examples: Oviparous- Ornithorhynchus (Platypus), Viviparous- Macropus (Kangaroo), Pteropus (Flying fox), Macaca (Monkey), Cams (Dog), Felis (Cat), Elephas (Elephant), Equus (Horse), Delphinus (Common dolphin) Balaenoptera (Blue whale), Panthera tigris (Tiger), Panther leo (Lion), Homo sapiens (Human), Bos (Cattle).

[OR]

Explain the disorders of the respiratory system of Man.
Answer:
Respiratory system is highly affected by environmental, occupational, personal and social factors. These factors may be responsible for a number of respiratory disorders. Some of the disorders are discussed here.

Asthma-It is characterized by narrowing and inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles and difficulty in breathing.Common allergens for asthma are dust, drugs, pollen grains, certain food items like fish, prawn and certain fruits etc.

Emphysema- Emphysema is chronic breathlessness caused by gradual breakdown of the thin walls of the alveoli decreasing the total surface area of a gaseous exchange, i.e., widening of the alveoli is called emphysema. The major cause for this disease is cigarette smoking, which reduces the respiratory surface of the alveolar walls.

Bronchitis-The bronchi when it gets inflated due to pollution smoke and cigarette smoking, causes bronchitis. The symptoms are cough, shortness of breath and sputum in the lungs.

Pneumonia-Inflammation of the lungs due to infection caused by bacteria or virus is called pneumonia. The common symptoms are sputum production, nasal congestion, shortness of breath, sore throat, etc.

Tuberculosis-Tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculate. This infection mainly occurs in the lungs and bones. Collection of fluid between the lungs and the chest wall is the main complication of this disease.

Occupational respiratory disorders-The disorders due to one’s occupation of working in industries like grinding or stone breaking, construction sites, cotton industries, etc. Dust produced affects the respiratory tracts.

Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis. Silicosis and asbestosis are occupational respiratory diseases resulting from inhalation of particle of silica from sand grinding and asbestos unto the respiratory tract. Workers, working in such industries must wear protective masks.

Question 21.
Explain the Refractive errors of eye or defects of human eye.
Answer:
Refractive errors of eye :
Myopia (near sightedness): The affected person can see the nearby objects but not the distant objects. This condition may result due to an elongated eyeball or thickened lens; so that the image of distant object is formed in front of the yellow spot. This error can be corrected using concave lens that diverge the entering light rays and focuses it on the retina.

Hypermetropia (long sightedness): The affected person can see only the distant objects clearly but not the objects nearby.This condition results due to a shortened eyeball and thin lens; so the image of closest object is converged behind the retina. This defect can be _ overcome by using convex lens that converge the entering light rays on the retina.

Presbyopia: Due to aging, the lens loses elasticity and the power of accommodation. Convex lenses are used to correct this defect.
Astigmatism is due to the rough (irregular) curvature of cornea or lens.Cylindrical glasses are used to correct this error.

Cataract: Due to the changes in nature of protein, the lens becomes opaque. It can be corrected by surgical procedures.

[OR]

Briefly explain the structure of thyroid gland.
Answer:
The butterfly shaped thyroid gland is a bilobed gland located below the laryns on each side of upper trachea. It is the largest endocrine gland in the body. Its two lateral lobes are connected by a median tissue mass called isthmus. Each lobe is made up of many lobules.

The lobules consist of follicles called acini. Each acinus is lined with glandular, cuboidal or squamous epithelial cells. The lumen of acinus is filled with colloid, a thick glycoprotein mixture consisting of thyroglobulin molecules.

Hormones of the thyroid gland are often called the major metabolic hormones. The follicular cells of thyroid gland secrete two hormones namely tri-iodothyronine (T₃) and thyroxine or tetra- iodothyronine (T₄). The parafollicular cells or ‘C’ cells of thyroid gland secrete a hormone called thyrocalcitonin. Iodine is essential for the normal synthesis of thyroid hormones.

Thyroid releasing hormone from the hypothalamus stimulates the adenohypophysis to secrete TSH, which intum stimulates the thyroid gland to secrete the thyroid hormones. Thyroid hormones show a negative feedback effect on the hypothalamus and pituitary.

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TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which one of the following statement about virus is correct?
(a) Possess their own metabolic system
(b) They are facultative parasites
(c) They contain DNA or RNA
(d) Enzymes are present
Answer:
(c) They contain DNA or RNA

Question 2.
An example of colonial algae is…………………….
(a) Chlorella
(b) Volvox
(c) Ulothrix
(d) Spirogyra
Answer:
(b) Volvox

Question 3.
In Artabotrys, ……………………….is modified into hook.
(a) leaflets
(b) inflorescence axis
(c) petiole
(d) axillary buds
Answer:
(b) inflorescence axis

Question 4.
In china rose the flower are……………………….
(a) Actinomorphic. Epigynous with valvate aestivation
(b) Zygomorphic, hypogynous with imbricate aestivation
(c) Zygomorphic, epigynous with twisted aestivation
(d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation
Answer:
(d) Actinomorphic, hypogynous with twisted aestivation

Question 5.
Terminalisation of chiasmata occurs at ……………..
(a) Zygotene
(b) Leptotene
(c) Diakinesis
(d) Pachytene
Answer:
(c) Diakinesis

Question 6.
The study of tissues is called as………………..
(a) Anatomy
(b) Cytology
(c) Histology
(d) Embryology
Answer:
(c) Histology

Question 7.
Identify the wrong statement(s).
(i) Molybdenum is a micronutrient.
(ii) Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen are skeletal elements.
(iii) Manganese is the activator for RUBP carboxylase.
(iv) Potassium maintains osmotic potential of the cell.
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (if)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iii)

Question 8.
Foolish seedling disease affects ………………….
(a) Maize
(b) Rice
(c) Sorghum
(d) Wheat
Answer:
(b) Rice

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Deuteromycetes are imperfect fungi – Justify.
Answer:
The fungi belonging to Deuteromycetes lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi.

Question 10.
Why bryophytes are called as Non-vascular cryptogam?
Answer:
Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent in bryophytes, hence called as ‘Non-vascular cryptogams’.

Question 11.
What are root stocks? What are its function?
Answer:
Perennial and some biennial herbs have underground stems, which are generally known as root stocks. Root stock functions as a storage and protective organ.

Question 12.
Define Cladogram.
Answer:
The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladogram, a tree-shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships.

Question 13.
Mention the drawbacks of diffusion.
Answer:
In diffusion, there is a lack of control over the transport of selective molecules. There is a possibility of harmful substances entering the cell by a concentration gradient.

Question 14.
What is Phytol tail? Mention its role.
Answer:
a. Phytol tail is the lipophilic tail of chlorophyll molecule.
b. It helps in anchoring the chlorophyll to lamellae.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
State the 3 types of viral symmetry.
Answer:

1. Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus and Herpes virus.
2. Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus and TMV.
3. Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage and Vaccinia virus.

Question 16.
What is the importance of inflorescence.
Answer:
Function of inflorescence is to display the flowers for effective pollination and facilitate seed dispersal. The grouping of flowers in one place gives a better attraction to the visiting pollinators and maximize the energy of the plant.

Question 17.
Write a brief note on Manganese toxicity.
Answer:
Increased Concentration of Manganese will prevent the uptake of Fe and Mg, prevent translocation of Ca to the shoot apex and cause their deficiency. The symptoms of manganese toxicity are appearance of brown spots surrounded by chlorotic veins.

Question 18.
Draw the ultra structure of Plant Cell.
Answer:

Question 19.
Mention the role of ethylene in agriculture field.
Answer:

• Ethylene normally reduces flowering in plants except in Pine apple and Mango.
• It increases the number of female flowers and decreases the number of male flowers.
• Ethylene spray in cucumber crop produces female flowers and increases the yield.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Explain the various phases in Cell Cycle.
Answer:
The different phases of cell cycle are as follows:
Interphase: Longest part of the cell cycle, but it is of extremely variable length. At first glance the nucleus appears to be resting but this is not the case at all. The chromosomes previously visible as thread like structure, have dispersed. Now they are actively involved in protein synthesis, at least for most of the interphase.
C-Value is the amount in picograms of DNA contained within a haploid nucleus.

G₁ Phase: The first gap phase – 2C amount of DNA in cells of G₁ The cells become metabolically active and grows by producing proteins, lipids, carbohydrates and cell organelles including mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum. Many checkpoints control the cell cycle. The checkpoint called the restriction point at the end of G₁ it determines a cells fate whether it will continue in the cell cycle and divide or enter a stage called G₀ as a quiescent stage and probably as specified cell or die. Cells are arrested in G₁ due to:

Nutrient deprivation: Lack of growth factors or density dependant inhibition.
Undergo metabolic changes and enter into G₀ state.

Biochemicals inside cells activates the cell division. The proteins called kinases and cyclins activate genes and their proteins to perform cell division. Cyclins act as major checkpoint which operates in G₀ to determine whether or not a cell divides.

G₀ Phase: Some cells exit G₁ and enters a quiescent stage called G₀ , where the cells remain metabolically active without proliferation. Cells can exist for long periods in G₀ phase. In G0 cells cease growth with reduced rate of RNA and protein synthesis. The G₀ phase is not permanent. Mature neuron and skeletal muscle cell remain permanently in G₀. Many cells in animals remains in G₀ unless called on to proliferate by appropriate growth factors or other extracellular signals. G₀ cells are not dormant.

S phase – Synthesis phase – cells with intermediate amounts of DNA.
Growth of the cell continues as replication of DNA occur, protein molecules called histones are synthesised and attached to the DNA. The centrioles duplicate in the cytoplasm. DNA content increases from 2C to 4C.

G₂ – The second Gap phase – 4C amount of DNA in cells of G₂ and mitosis Cell growth continues by protein and cell organelle synthesis, mitochondria and chloroplasts divide. DNA content remains as 4C. Tubulin is synthesised and microtubules are formed. Microtubles organise to form spindle fibre. The spindle begins to form and nuclear division follows.

One of the proteins synthesized only in the G₂ period is known as Maturation Promoting Factor (MPF). It brings about condensation of interphase chromosomes into the mitotic form.

DNA damage checkpoints operates in G₁ S and G₂ phases of the cell cycle.

[OR]

Explain in detail about the various life cycle patterns in plants.
Answer:
Life cycle patterns in plants
Alternation of Generation: Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation. Following type of life cycles are found in plants.

a. Haplontic life cycle:
Gametophytic phase is dominant, photosynthetic and independent, whereas sporophytic phase is represented by the zygote. Zygote undergoes meiosis to restore haploid condition. Example: Volvox and Spirogyra.

b. Diplontic life cycle:
Sporophytic phase (2n) is dominant, photosynthetic and independent. The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to few celled gametophyte. The gametes fuse to form zygote which develops into sporophyte. e.g., Fucus, gymnosperms and angiosperms.

c. Haplodiplontic life cycle:
This type of life cycle is found in Bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. Both the phases are multicellular, but they differ in their dominant phase. In Bryophytes dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte.

Life cycle patterns in plants (a) Haplontic, (b) Diplontic, (c) Haplo-diplontic
In Pteridophytes sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte (n).

Question 21.
Describe Lundegardh’s Cytochrome Pump Theory.
Answer:
Lundegardh’s Cytochrome Pump Theory:
Lundegardh and Burstrom (1933) observed a correlation between respiration and anion absorption. When a plant is transferred from water to a salt solution the rate of respiration increases which is called as anion respiration or salt respiration. Based on this observation Lundegardh (1950 and 1954) proposed cytochrome pump theory which is based on the following assumptions:

• The mechanism of anion and cation absorption are different.
• Anions are absorbed through cytochrome chain by an active process, cations are absorbed passively.
• An oxygen gradient responsible for oxidation at the outer surface of the membrane and reduction at the inner surface.

According to this theory, the enzyme dehydrogenase on inner surface is responsible for the fonnation of protons (H⁺) and electrons (e^– ). As electrons pass outward through electron transport chain there is a corresponding inward passage of anions. Anions are picked up by oxidized cytochrome oxidase and are transferred to other members of chain as they transfer the electron to the next component.

The theory assumes that cations (C⁺) move passively along the electrical gradient created by the accumulation of anions (A^–) at the inner surface of the membrane.

Main defects of the above theory are:

1. Cations also induce respiration.
2. Fails to explain the selective uptake of ions.
3. It explains absorption of anions only.

[OR]

State the differences between photorespiration and dark respiration.
Answer:

Photorespiration

1. It takes place in photosynthetic green cells.
2. It takes place only in the presence of light.
3. It involves chloroplast, peroxisome and mitochondria.
4. It does not involve Glycolysis, Kreb’s Cycle, and ETS.
5. Substrate is glycolic acid.
6. It is not essential for survival.
7. No phosphorylation and yield of ATP.
8. NADH₂ is oxidised to NAD⁺.
9. Hydrogen peroxide is produced.
10. End products are CO₂ and PGA.

Dark respiration :

1. It takes place in all living cells.
2. It takes place all the time.
3. It involves only mitochondria.
4. It involves glycolysis, Kreb’s Cycle and ETS.
5. Substrate is carbohydrates, protein or fats.
6. Essential for survival.
7. Phosphorylation produces ATP energy.
8. NAD⁺ is reduced to NADH₂.
9. Hydrogen peroxide is not produced.
10. End products are CO₂ and water.

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [Answers are in bold] [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Turbellarians are free living……………
(a) Flatworms
(b) Trematodes
(c) Nematodes
(d) cesrtodes
Answer:
(a) Flatworms

Question 2.
Renal portal system is absent in …………..
(a) Reptiles
(b) Amphibians
(c) Reptiles and amphibians
(d) Birds
Answer:
(d) Birds

Question 3.
Match the List I and List II:

(a) 1 – (in), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)
(b) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i), 3 (iv), 4 – (iii)
(c) 1 – (iii), 2 – (/), 3 – (iv), 4 – (ii)
(d) 1 – (ii), 2 – (iv), 3 – (in), 4 – (i)
Answer:
(a) 1 – (in), 2 – (iv), 3 – (ii), 4 – (i)

Question 4.
PNS stands for …………………..
(a) Peripheral neural system
(b) Primary neural system
(c) Pitutiary nephron system
(d) Peripheral nephron system
Answer:
(a) Peripheral neural system

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) Large intestine completes digestion and absorbs nutrients.
(b) Anus expels wastes.
(c) Rectum is the openifig for waste elimination.
(d) Esophagus helps in the conduction of the food to stomach.
Answer:
(d) Esophagus helps in the conduction of the food to stomach.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Hind brain comprises of cerebellum, pons varolii and medulla oblongata.
(ft) The mid brain is located between the diencephalon and the pons.
(c) Hypothalamus forms the floor of the diencephalon.
(d) The superficial region of the cerebrum is called gyri.
Answer:
(d) The superficial region of the cerebrum is called gyri.

Question 7.
There is no DNA in ………………….
(a) Mature RBC’s
(b) Mature spermatozoa
(c) Hair root
(d) Ovum
Answer:
(a) Mature RBC’s

Question 8.
Centres for sense of smell are located in ……………………. .
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Mid brain
(c) Olfactory lobes
(d) Cerebrum
Answer:
(c) Olfactory lobes

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
What is radial symmetry?
Answer:
When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides an organism into two identical parts, it is called radial symmetry, e.g., Cnidarian.

Question 10.
Why do you call cockroach a pest?
Answer:
Cockroach destroy food and contaminates it with their offensive odour. They are carriers of a number of bacterial diseases. The cockroach allergen can cause asthma to sensitive people.

Question 11.
Why do plants not require a digestive system?
Answer:
Plants are autotrophs. They prepare their own food using C02, H20 in the pressure of sunlight trapped by the chlorophyll pigment present in the leaves. There is no need of digestive system for plants as they use the starch as such.

Question 12.
Draw the the structure of Blood Vessel – Large Vein.
Answer:

Question 13.
What are Nodes of Rannier?
Answer:
The Schwann cells covering the axen are not Continuous. There are gaps in the myelin sheath
between adjacent schwann cells. These gaps are called Nodes of Ranvier.

Question 14.
Define outbreeding.
Answer:
The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What is Vermicompost?
Answer:
Vermicompost is the compost produced by the action of earthworms in association with all other organisms in the compost unit.

Question 16.
What is the difference between a zoo and wild life sanctuary?
Answer:

Zoo :

1. Zoo is a place where animals and birds are in captivity of artificially created habitat.
2. Public can have easy access to the zoo.
3. Zoo is based on commercial aspects.
4. Animals are caged and hence they are not free to roam about.

Wild Life Sanctuary :

1. Wild life sanctuary is the natural habitat of wild animals and birds.
2. Public does not have easy access to the wild life sanctuaries.
3. Sanctuaries are non-commercial.
4. In a sanctuary, animals can roam about freely.

Question 17.
What is lymph? Write its function.
Answer:
About 90% of fluid that leaks from capillaries eventually seeps back into the capillaries and the remaining 10% is collected and returned to blood system by means of a series of tubules known as lymph vessels or lymphatics. The fluid inside the lymphatics is called lymph.

The lymph nodes successfully prevent the invading microorganisms from reaching the blood stream. Cells found in the lymphatics are the lymphocytes. Lymphocytes collected in the lymphatic fluid are carried via the arterial blood and are recycled back to the lymph. Fats are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals present in the villi of the intestinal wall.

Question 18.
Draw the diagram of LS of the human eye and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 19.
What are the main duties of a worker bee?
Each worker has to perform different types of work in her life time. During the first half of her life, she becomes a nurse bee attending to indoor duties such as secretion of royal jelly, prepares beebread to feed the larvae, feeds the queen, takes care of the queen and drones, secretes bees wax, builds combs, cleans and fans the bee hive. Then she becomes a soldier and guards the bee hive. In the second half her life lasting for three weeks, she searches and gathers the pollen, nectar, propolis and water. –

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Draw the flowchart of classification of phylum chordata.

[OR]

Describe the life cycle of Lampito mauritii.
Answer:
Lampito mauritii begins its life cycle, from the fertilized eggs. The eggs are held in a protective cocoon. These cocoons have an incubation period of about 14-18 days after which they hatch to release juveniles The juveniles undergo changes into non-clitellate forms in Phase -1 after about 15 days, which then cocoon develops a clitellum, called the clitellate at the end of the growth phase – II taking 15¬17 days to complete. During the reproductive stage, earthworms copulate, and later shed their cocoons in the soil after about 10 days.
The life cycle of Lampito mauritii takes about 60 days to complete.

Question 21.
Explain the structure of Nephron.
Answer:
Each kidney has nearly one million complex tubular structures called nephron. Each nephron consists of a filtering corpuscle called renal corpuscle (malpighian body) and a renal tubule. The renal tubule opens into a longer tubule called the collecting duct. The renal tubule begins with a double walled cup shaped structure called the Bowman’s capsule, which encloses a ball of capillaries that delivers fluid to the tubules, called the glomerulus. The Bowman’s capsule and the glomerulus together constitute the renal corpuscle.

The endothelium of glomerulus has many pores (fenestrae). The external parietal layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up of simple squamous epithelium and the visceral layer is made of epithelial cells called podocytes. The podocytes end in foot processes which cling to the basement membrane of the glomerulus. The openings between the foot processes are called filtration slits.

The renal tubule continues further to form the proximal convoluted tubule [PCT] followed by a U-shaped loop of Henle (Henle’s loop) that has a thin descending and a thick ascending limb. The ascending limb continues as a highly coiled tubular region called the distal convoluted tubule [DCT], The DCT of many nephrons open into a straight tube called collecting duct.

The collecting duct runs through the medullary pyramids in the region of the pelvis. Several collecting ducts fuse to form papillary duct that delivers urine into the calyces, which opens into the renal pelvis.

In the renal tubules, PCT and DCT of the nephron are situated in the cortical region of the kidney whereas the loop of Henle is in the medullary region. In majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends only very little into the medulla and are called cortical nephrons. Some nephrons have very long loop of Henle that run deep into the medulla and are called juxta medullary nephrons (JMN).

The capillary bed of the nephrons- First capillary bed of the nephron is the glomerulus and the other is the peritubular capillaries. The glomerular capillary bed is different from other capillary beds in that it is supplied by the afferent and drained by the efferent arteriole. The efferent arteriole that comes out of the glomerulus forms a fine capillary network around the renal tubule called the peritubular capillaries.

The efferent arteriole serving the juxta medullary nephron forms bundles of long straight vessel called vasa recta and runs parallel to the loop of Henle. Vasa recta is absent or reduced in cortical nephrons.

[OR]

Explain the endoerenal function of gonads.
Answer:
Testis: A pair of testis is present in the scrotal sac of males. The testis functions as a sex organ and also as an endocrine gland. The testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and interstitial cells or Leydig cells. The Leydig cells secrete several male sex hormones, collectively called androgens, mainly testosterone.

Functions of testosterone: Under the influence of FSH and LH, testosterone initiates maturation of male reproductive organs, and the appearance of secondary sexual characters, muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, masculine voice and male sexual behaviour. It enhances the total bone matrix and plays a stimulating role in the process of . spermatogenesis.

Ovary: Females have a pair of ovaries located in the pelvic region of the abdomen. The ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues.lt produces the eggs or ova. The ovaries secrete the steroid hormones oestrogen and progesterone. Oestrogen is responsible for the maturation of reproductive organs and the development of secondary sexual characters at puberty. Along with progesterone, oestrogens promotes breast development and initiate the cyclic changes during menstrual cycle.

Progesterone prepares the uterus for implantation of the fertilized ovum.lt decreases the uterine contraction during pregnancy and stimulates the development of mammary glands and milk secretion. It is responsible for premenstrual changes in the uteris and is essential for the formation of placenta.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 8 Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is used to move quickly from one slide to another?
(a) Compass Navigator
(b) Navigator
(c) Fill color
(d) Page border
Answer:
(b) Navigator

Question 2.
Which is the shortcut key to view the slideshow?
(a) F6
(b) F9
(c) F5
(d) F10
Answer:
(c) F5

Question 3.
In Impress, which views shows thumbnail versions of all your slides arranged in horizontal rows?
(a) Notes
(b) Outline
(c) Handout
(d) Slide Sorter
Answer:
(d) Slide Sorter

Question 4.
Identify the default view in Irhpress.
(a) normal
(b) slide sorter
(c) handout
(d) notes
Answer:
(a) normal

Question 5.
Which menu contains the Slide Transition option?
(a) Slide Show
(b) View
(c) Tools
(d) Format
Answer:
(b) View

Question 6.
Identify the extension of the Impress presentation.
(a) ,odp
(b) .ppt
(c) .odb
(d) ,ood
Answer:
(a) ,odp

Question 7.
In presentation tools, the entry effect as one slide replaces another slide in a slide show. Identify the option that suits after reading the statement.
(a) animation
(b) slide transition
(c) custom animation
(d) rehearse timing
Answer:
(b) slide transition

Question 8.
Vanya has made a presentation on “Global Warming”. She wants to progress her slide show automatically while speaks on the topic in the class. Which features of Impress would she use?
(a) Custom Animation
(b) Rehearse Timing
(c) Slide Transition
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (b)

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between a slide and a slide show?
Answer:
Slide:
A slide is a single page of a presentation. Collectively, a group of slides may be known as a slide deck.

Slideshow:
A slide show is an exhibition of a series of slides or images in an electronic device or in a projection screen. It is a collection of pages arranged in sequence that contains text and images for presenting to an audience.

Question 2.
How many in-built slide layouts does impress consists of?
Answer:
Twelve.

Question 3.
What do you understand by a presentation?
Answer:
A presentation software is a computer software package used to show information, in the form of a slide show.
It includes three major functions:

1. An editor that allows the text to be inserted and formatted,
2. A method for inserting and manipulating graphic images and
3. A slide-show system to display the content.

Question 4.
Define a template in Impress?
Answer:
A impress design template is a premade design you can use to lend cohesiveness, visual organization and appeal to your presentation. It you choose the option from template, it uses a template design already created as the basis for a new presentation.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the slide layout?
Answer:
Pre-packaged layouts are shown in impress properties. You can choose the one that you want, use it as it is or modify it to suit your own requirements. At present, it is not possible to create custom layouts.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
How many types of views are provided by Impress to its users?
Answer:
The view is designed to ease the completion of certain tasks.
Normal view:
Is the main view for creating individual slides. Use this view to format and design slides and to add text, graphics, and animation effects.

Outline view:
Shows topic titles, bulleted lists, and numbered lists for each slide in outline format. Use this view to rearrange the order of slides, edit titles and headings, rearrange the order of items in a list, and add new slides.

Notes view:
lets you add notes to each slide that are not seen when the presentation is shown.

Slide Sorter view:
Shows a thumbnail of each slide in order. Use this view to rearrange the order of slides, produce a timed slide show, or add transitions between selected slides.

Handout view:
Lets you print your slides for a handout. You can choose one, two, three, four, or six slides per page from Tasks pane → Layouts. Thumbnails can be re-arranged in this view by dragging and dropping them.

Question 2.
Who uses the presentation software and why?
Answer:

• Presentation software are being used in a variety of different fields. Some fields that are commonly used as education, research, business communication, entertainment etc.,
• A presentation is used while speaking to a group with a presentation to support and organize your information.
• The presentation is to communicate an audience that the most powerful and effective ones.

Question 3.
Define the Slide Sorter view and its significance?
Answer:
Slide sorter view is to rearranged the sliders. A thumbnail of each slide in order, use this view to rearrange the order of slides, produce a timed slide show, or add transitions between selected slides. The tasks pane on the right displays four pages that allow you to specify the master slide, layout, transitions, and animation effects for the object on your slides.

Question 4.
What is a Normal view? Explain?
Answer:
There are two ways to place a slide in the Slide Design area of the Normal view: clicking the slide thumbnail in the Slides pane or using the Navigator. To open the Navigator, click the Navigator button in the Standard Toolbar or press Ctrl + Shift + F5 and select a slide by scrolling down the Navigator list until you find the one that you want and then double-click it.

Question 5.
How are transition effects helpful in creating an effective presentation in Impress?
Answer:
Slide transitions are the animation like effects that occur when you move from one slide to the next during a presentation, you can control the speed, add sound and customize the properties of transition effects.
Using this transition effects will keep the audience visually interested by using movements.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Valarmathi’s teacher asks her to create a presentation in OpenOffice Impress. As Valarmathi has never worked in Impress before, help her to perform the following tasks:
(i) She wants that except for the first slide, all the slides should have the same design. For this, what does she need to do?
After completing the presentation with same design for all slides, she needed for.
(a) Select Format → Page from the Menu bar on the page setup, dialog box, choose background tab.

(b) Select the type of fill you want for your background from the fine choices, None, color, gradient, hatching or bitmap. A list of choices for the selected fill type will appear → select it. Select one of the items on the list and click OK. The fill you have choosen is added to slide master then go normal view.

(c) Select the first slide then right click → select slide design then select the design in slide master, then right click, a popup menu will appear, it display ‘back ground settings for
all’ you can choose ‘No’ option. The only first slide would not appear the background design.

(ii) To easily communicate with her audience, she wants to provide them with a hard copy of the slides of the presentation. What should she create for it?
To print the presentation slides the one of the way click – “print file” icon directly in the menu bar, to sent the entire document to default pointer defined for your computer. In the print dialog box include the number of hard copies option, she needed more copies, then type that you want needed and then click ‘ok’ button.

(iii) She wants to insert some pictures and movie files in some slides. How can she do that? She has to select the slide where she want to insert picture. Once the picture has been inserted it can be formatted extensively.
Select from the menu bar: Insert → Picture → file / picture in computer.

(iv) Suggest her the view that would be the most suitable for showing the presentation to the audience.
Normal view.

(v) To make her presentation more attractive, she wants to add some effects in it. How can she do it? Suggest.
Adding special effect meAnswer:custom animation and slide transition.

• To apply special effects to fonts. Use the font effect page. A sample of the text is displaying in the lower part of dialog box, then you can select designed font effect.
• She can apply various graphic filters and effects to the pictures by graphic filters.
• Slide transitions are the effects take place when one slide gives way to the next one in presentation. Click slide transition page on the task pane.
• She can use slide animation effects.

Question 2.
Explain how a presentation can help a salesperson to promote his/her products?
Answer:

1. Presentation is help a sales person to promote his / her products, explain the short presentation.
2. Presentation will give visual video, pictures to understand a better of products.
3. Presentation help sales person to present prospect challenges is easier.
4. By using presentation, sales person can make audience understand easier and he can get more feedback.
5. Sales person can explain with physical demonstration by shocking animations. It makes the audience to concentrate.

Question 3.
Sivabalan created a presentation to be shown at his school’s Annual Function. Just 5 minutes before the presentation, he noticed that he has Miss-pelt the name of the school, which is appearing in all the 30 slides of the presentation. How can he rectify this mistake in all the slides in one-shot?
Answer:
Open the presentation,

1. On the ‘Home’ Tab → Editing → Choose → Replace option.
   Top left of the screen, then click Find → Replace option.
2. New window pops-out. Find what box.
3. In the find what box, you can enter the word ‘Miss-pelt school name’.
4. Then in the replace with box enter the correct ‘school name word’ and then click ‘Replace All’ option.
5. Now, the correct school Name will be changed in all slides.

Question 4.
List some advantages of using templates?
Answer:

1. The standard templates, it is easily create colour, attractive designs for slides.
2. Easy to modify the templates are available even we can download from Internet.
3. Attractive designs of templates are available, it will be the audience to look up of the presentation.
4. It creates attentive of audience.
5. Quick customization of templates, text, fonts, pictures were available. –
6. It have professional computer design.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Presentation Basics (OpenOffice Impress) Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the following software package used to show information in the form of a slide show?
(a) Presentation
(b) Spreadsheet
(c) Database
(d) Application
Answer:
(a) Presentation

Question 2.
The most commonly known presentation program are OpenOffice.org:
(a) powerpoint
(b) impress
(c) keynote
(d) none
Answer:
(b) impress

Question 3.
Which of the following is one of the way to start Impress?
(a) All programs → Openoffice → Impress
(b) All programs → Staroffice → Impress
(c) All programs → Office → Powerpoint
(d) All programs → Office → Presentation
Answer:
(a) All programs → Openoffice → Impress

Question 4.
How many types of presentation backgrounds that you provided by Impress?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 30
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 5.
Which is you can select to start with a blank presentation?
(a) <ORIGINAL>
(b) <NEXT>
(c) <NEW>
(d) <OUTPUT>
Answer:
(a) <ORIGINAL>

Question 6.
Generally, presentations are created for computer screen display, that you would select the option:
(a) <ORIGINAL>
(b) <SCREEN>
(c) <NEW>
(d) <OUTPUT>
Answer:
(b) <SCREEN>

Question 7.
Which is good choice for the transition between the different slides speed?
(a) Normal
(b) Medium
(c) Fast
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Medium

Question 8.
How many parts are there main Impress Window?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 9.
How many sections are there tasks pane?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 10.
The name that you see at the top of your Impress window?
(a) Title bar
(b) Tool Bars
(c) Menu bar
(d) Scroll bar
Answer:
(a) Title bar

Question 11.
Which is used to hides the window from view but it remains as a button on the task bar?
(a) Minimize button
(b) Maximize button
(c) Restore button
(d) Close button
Answer:
(a) Minimize button

Question 12.
Which is a measurement tool in the software programs that allow the user to align on a page?
(a) view
(b) ruler
(c) menu
(d) format
Answer:
(b) ruler

Question 13.
The bar which is at the bottom of the window is called:
(a) horizontal toolbar
(b) vertical toolbar
(c) standard toolbar
(d) formatting toolbar
Answer:
(a) horizontal toolbar

Question 14.
The bar which is at the side of the window is called:
(a) horizontal toolbar
(b) vertical toolbar
(c) standard toolbar
(d) formatting toolbar
Answer:
(b) vertical toolbar

Question 15.
How many tabs are available in the workspace view buttons?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 16.
The shortcut keys are used to display the navigator?
(a) Ctrl + Shift + F5
(b) Ctrl + Shift + F2
(c) Ctrl + Shift + F3
(d) Ctrl + Shift + F4
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + Shift + F5

Question 17.
Which is the mainview for creating individual slides?
(a) Normal view
(b) Outline view
(c) Notes view
(d) Handout view
Answer:
(a) Normal view

Question 18.
Use this view to rearrange the order of slides and produce a timed slide show:
(a) normal view
(b) slide sorter view
(c) outline view
(d) notes view
Answer:
(b) slide sorter view

Question 19.
Which view contains all the slides of the presentation in their numbered sequence?
(a) Normal view
(b) Slide sorter view
(c) Outline view
(d) Notes view
Answer:
(c) Outline view

Question 20.
Which view is used for setting up the layout of your slides?
(a) Normal view
(b) Outline view
(c) Notes view
(d) Handout view
Answer:
(d) Handout view

Question 21.
The normally a title slide is:
(a) first slide
(b) last slide
(c) second slide
(d) none
Answer:
(a) first slide

Question 22.
Which function key is used to adjustments for the formatting of the title?
(a) F9
(b) F10
(c) F11
(d) F12
Answer:
(c) F11

Question 23.
Which slide is used as the starting point for other slides?
(a) Master slide
(b) Slide show
(c) Notes master
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Master slide

Question 24.
All of the characteristics of slide masters are controlled by:
(a) Slide master
(b) Styles
(c) Slide show
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Styles

Question 25.
You can create new slide, that inherited from the slide is known as:
(a) Slide master
(b) Slide show
(c) Styles
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Slide master

Question 26.
To start creating a custom animated image, open the Animator dialog box from:
(a) apply
(b) insert
(c) move
(d) create
Answer:
(b) insert

Question 27.
During the slide show that allowed displays all frames of animated GIF files:
(a) animation
(b) slide sorter
(c) slide show
(d) none
Answer:
(a) animation

Question 28.
Slide animation are similar to:
(a) transitions
(b) slide sorter
(c) slide show
(d) none
Answer:
(a) transitions

Question 29.
Which view is used that Animation effects need to applied that can you select individual object on a single slide?
(a) Normal view
(b) Outline view
(c) Notes view
(d) Handout view
Answer:
(a) Normal view

Question 30.
The Edit points toolbar should be displayed. If not select it from:
(a) Edit → Toolbars → Edit points
(b) View → Toolbars → Edit points
(c) Edit → Toolbars → View points
(d) View → Toolbars
Answer:
(b) View → Toolbars → Edit points

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Write the uses of presentation?
Answer:

1. Presentation software is used to create presentations, quizzes, e-leaming packages, and multimedia products.
2. Most presentation software packages will create your multimedia product using a series of slides.
3. Text, images, video, animations, links and sound can be combined on each slide to create a final product.

Question 2.
Write any three commonly used presentation program?
Answer:
The most commonly known presentation programs are OpenOffice.org Impress, Microsoft PowerPoint and Apple’s Keynote.

Question 3.
What are parts have Main Impress Window?
Answer:
The main Impress window has three parts: the Slides pane, the Workspace, and the Tasks pane.

Question 4.
What is the function of slide pane?
Answer:

1. The Slides pane contains thumbnail pictures of the slides in your presentation, in the order of our insertion of slides.
2. Clicking a slide in this pane selects it and places it in the Workspace. While it is there, you can apply any changes that are desired to that particular slide.

Question 5.
What is custom Animation?
Answer:
A variety of animations for selected elements of a slide are listed here. Animation can be added to selected elements of a slide, and it can also be changed or removed later.

Question 6.
What is the use of Ruler bar?
Answer:
The ruler is a measurement tool in the software programs that allow the user to align graphics, text, tables, or other elements on a page.

Question 7.
What is the two types of rulers?
Answer:
The horizontal ruler appears at the top of the document, and the vertical ruler is on the left-side of the document. To enable ruler, click on the View tab, then click on the Ruler to show the horizontal and vertical ruler.

Question 8.
What is the scroll bar and its type?
Answer:
Scroll bar is a bar on the bottom or side of the window to scroll through a page. Two scroll bars are present. The bar which is at the bottom of the Window is called Horizontal Tool bar. The bar which is at the side of the Window is Vertical Tool bar.

Question 9.
How many view buttons are available in the workspace?
Answer:
The Workspace has five tabs: Normal, Outline, Notes, Handout, and Slide Sorter. These five tabs are called View Buttons.

Question 10.
What is the uses of status bar?
Answer:
Status Bar is present at the bottom of your window, which gives you some statistics about the file that you are viewing. It is a good practice to check the information shown there. In case you do not need the information in the Status Bar, you can hide it by selecting View → Status Bar from the main menu.

Question 11.
What is the uses of Master slide?
Answer:
A slide master is a slide that is used as the starting point for other slides. It is similar to a page style in Writer: it controls the basic formatting of all slides based on it. A slide show can have more than one slide master.

Question 12.
Define slide master or master slide?
Answer:
A slide master has a defined set of characteristics, including the background color, graphic, or gradient; objects (such as logos, decorative lines, and other graphics) in the background; headers and footers; placement and size of text frames; and the formatting of text.

Question 13.
How can you create a New Master Slide?
Answer:
A New Master slide can be created either by using the Master View dialog box or by using right click the slides in the Slides pane.

Question 14.
What are the drawing free from shapes available in the tool bar?
Answer:
Basic Shapes, Symbol Shapes, Block Arrows, Flowcharts, Call outs, Stars.

Question 15.
What is the use of play button?
Answer:
You can review the animation at any time by clicking the Play buttons well as navigate the various frames using the other controls available.

Question 16.
What is a meant by Interactions?
Answer:
Interactions what happens when you click a button or link Most tasks associated with putting together a show from your slides are best done in Slide Sorter view.

Question 17.
Explain the usage of Rehearse Time in option of presentation software?
Answer:
OpenOffice Impress assists you in defining the right rehearse time in for automatic slide changes. Impress records the display time for each slide, so the next time you play the show with automatic slide changes, the timing will be as recorded.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the types for creating a new presentation?
Answer:
You can create a presentation by any one of the following types.

1. By selecting an Empty presentation.
2. By selecting From template.
3. By selecting from Open existing presentation.

Question 2.
What are the various ways to start Impress?
Answer:
You can start Impress in several ways:

1. In order to open Impress using Start button, click Start button and select All Programs → Open Office → OpenOffice Impress.
2. If it is already pinned in the Start menu, just click and open it.

Question 3.
What are the more efficient method than using the slide pane?
Answer:

1. Change the slide transition following the selected slide or after each slide in a group of slides.
2. Change the sequence of slides in the presentation.
3. Change the slide design. (A window opens allowing you to load your own design.
4. Change slide layout for a group of slides simultaneously. (This requires using the Layouts section of the Tasks pane.)

Question 4.
What is the function of Navigator?
Answer:
The Navigator displays all objects contained in a document. It provides another convenient way to move around a document and find items in it. The Navigator button is located on the Standard toolbar. You can also display the Navigator by choosing Edit → Navigator on the menu bar or pressing Ctrl + Shift + F5.

Question 5.
Write the outline view purposes?
Answer:
Outline view serves two purposes.
Making changes in the text of a slide:

• Add or delete text in a slide just as in the Normal view.
• Move the paragraphs of text in the selected slide up or down by using the up and down arrow buttons (Move Up or Move Down) on the Text Formatting toolbar.

Comparing the slides with your outline (if you have prepared one in advance). If you notice from your outline that another slide is needed, you can create it directly in the Outline view or you can return to the Normal view to create it, then return to review all the slides against your outline in the Outline view.

Question 6.
How can you add notes to a slide in notes view?
Answer:
Click the Notes tab in the Workspace.
Select the slide to which you will add notes.

1. Double-click the slide in the Slide pane, or
2. Double-click the slide’s name in the Navigator.

In the text box below the slide, click on the words Click to add notes and begin typing.

Question 7.
How can you change the number of slides per row in slide sorter view?
Answer:
Change the number of slides per row, if desired:

1. Check View → Toolbars → Slide View to show the Slide view toolbar.
2. Adjust the number of slides (up to a maximum of 15).
3. After you have adjusted the number of slides per row, View → Toolbars → Slide View will remove this toolbar from view.

Question 8.
How can you move a slide in a presentation using the slide sorter?
Answer:
Click the slide. A thick black border is drawn around it. Drag and drop it to the location you want.

1. As you move the slidg, a black vertical line appears to one side of the slide.
2. Drag the slide until this black vertical line is located where you want the slide to be moved.

Question 9.
How can you select a group of slides?
Answer:
To select a group of slides, use one of these methods:
(i) Use the Control (Ctrl) key:
Click on the first slide and, while pressing Control, select the other desired slides.

(ii) Use the Shift key:
Click on the first slide, and while pressing the Shift key, select the final slide in the group. This selects all of the other slides in between the first and the last.

(iii) Use the cursor:
Click on the first slide to be selected. Hold down the left mouse button.

(iv) Drag the cursor to the last slide thumbnail.

Question 10.
How can you create the first slide?
Answer:
The first slide is normally a title slide. Decide the layout as per its purpose of presentation. You can use the pre-packaged layouts available in the Layout section of the Tasks pane. Suitable layouts are Title Slide (which also contains a section for a subtitle) or Title Only, Title and Content, Title and two content and so on.

Question 11.
How can you Insert a new slide?
Answer:
Insert a new slide. This can be done in a variety of ways take your pick.

1. Insert → Slide.
2. Right-click on the present slide, and select Slide → New Slide from the pop-up menu.
3. Click the empty space after the last slide also to create a new slide by right clicking New Slide.
4. Click the Slide icon in the Presentation toolbar.

Question 12.
What is the function of styles in master slides and its types?
Answer:
All of the characteristics of slide masters are controlled by styles. The styles of any new slide you create are inherited from the slide master from which it was created. In other words, the styles of the slide master are available and applied to all slides created from that slide master.

Changing a style in a slide master result in changes to all the slides based on that slide master; it is, however, possible to modify each individual slide without affecting the slide master.

Click View → Master → Slide Master
It is possible to view the Master slides in two styles:

1. Slide Master
2. Notes Master

IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Write the steps to change the layout of slide?
Answer:
Steps to change the layout of slide.

1. Apply slide layout in normal view on view tab → normal.
2. In Normal view, click Thumbnail Pane on the left. Then click the slide that you want to apply a layout to.
3. On the ‘home’ Tab, click ‘layout’ and then select the layout that you want to change the slide layout in slide master view.
4. On view tab click → slide master. In the slide master view, in the Thumbnail pane on the left, click a slide layout that you want be changed.

Question 2.
Write the steps to change the background of a presentation?
Answer:
(i) In the ‘Design’ tab, click the arrow of the background icon and choose background in the drop-down list. The background dialog box will appear.

(ii) In the background dialog box click the arrow under the backdrop fill and you will be presented with the following options.

(iii) Choose one of eight colours displayed to select colour outside of the colour scheme, click more colours choose a colour from either the standard tab or the custom tab and click ok.

(iv) To change the gradient, texture, pattern or picture, click fill effects.

(v) To apply gradient to the back drop, go to the ‘gradient’ tab and select colour style, transparency and shading style. Click ok to apply the changes.

(vi) To apply a textures to the backdrop, go to the ‘Texture’ tab and select a texture. Custom textures can be applied by selecting a file with ‘other texture’ button, click OK to apply changes.

(vii) To apply pattern to the backdrop, go to the ‘pattern’ Tab and select pattern, Foreground and background colour. Click ok to apply changes.

(viii) To use a picture for the backdrop, go to the ‘picture’ tab and select the picture button. Click ok to apply changes.

(ix) Then finally, you can click ‘Apply’ or ‘Apply to All’ to either apply the background to the current slide or all the slides.

Question 3.
Differentiate between Slide Transition and Slide Animation?
Answer:
Slide Transition:

1. These are the animation effects that are applied to whole slide.
2. For a slide can have only one transition effect.
3. Transition effects appear slide show view, when slides change from one to the next. We can control the speed of each slide transition.
4. Transition effect provide visual impact.
5. Transitions are available, including no transition.

Slide Animation:

1. These are the animation effects that are applied to object on a slide.
2. Each object on the slide can have multiple animation effects.
3. Flip, flash, checkboard, push and zoom are transitition effects in animation. These effects can be applied to slides. When one slide moving to other slide is animation.
4. Animation effect provide grab the audience is attention.
5. Removing animation effects on the custom animation page of the task pane.

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General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
……………is the amount incurred in order to produce and sell the goods and services. ‘
(a) Creditor
(b) Debtor
(c) Stock
(d) Expense
Answer:
(d) Expense

Question 2.
…………..is the incapability of a person or an enterprises to pay the debts.
(a) Asset
(b) Liability
(c) Insolvency
(d) Sales
Answer:
(c) Insolvency

Question 3
……………….requires analytical skill.
(a) Accounting
(b) Single entry
(c) Book-keeping
(d) Ledger
Answer:
(a) Accounting

Question 4.
The word ‘convention’ refers …………………
(a) Traditions
(b) Trade
(c) Business
(d) Accounting
Answer:
(a) Traditions

Question 5.
Goodwill is an example of …………….. accounts.
(a) Real
(b) Nominal
(c) Tangible real
(d) Intangible real
Answer:
(d) Intangible real

Question 6.
Journal means…………….
(a) Daily
(b) Monthly
(c) Yearly
(d) Weekly
Answer:
(a) Daily

Question 7.
Net position of an account cannot be ascertained from…………….
(a) Journal
(b) Ledger
(c) Trial balance
(d) Balance sheet
Answer:
(a) Journal

Question 8.
Total of debit > total of credit =…………….
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Nil balance
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(a) Debit balance

Question 9.
Two methods of preparing a trial balance are…………….
(a) Financial method and total method
(b) Total method and normal method
(c) Balance method and financial method
(d) Balance method and total method
Answer:
(d) Balance method and total method

Question 10.
The accounts you would find in a sales ledger are those of ……………….
(a) Income and expenses
(b) Trade payables
(c) Trade receivables
(d) Assets
Answer:
(c) Trade receivables

Question 11.
The balance in the petty cash book is ……………
(a) An asset
(b) A liability
(c) An income
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) An asset

Question 12.
The bank statement shows an overdrawn balance of ₹ 2,000. A cheque for ₹ 500 drawn in favour of a creditor has not yet been presented for payment. When the creditor prevents the cheque for payment, the bank balance will be…………….
(a) ₹ 1,500
(b) ₹ 2,500 (overdrawn)
(c) ₹ 2,500
(d) ₹ 3,500
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,500 (overdrawn)

Question 13.
Suspense account will remain in the books until the location and ……………….
(a) Errors of principle
(b) Errors of omission
(c) Compensating errors
(d) Rectification of errors
Answer:
(d) Rectification of errors

Question 14.
Two-sided errors are not revealed by ……………..
(a) Debit balance
(b) Credit balance
(c) Balance sheet
(d) Trial balance
Answer:
(d) Trial balance

Question 15.
The amount of depreciation goes on decreasing year after year in proportion to the unexpired ………….
life of the
(a) Time
(b) Assets
(c) Maintenance
(d) Factors
Answer:
(b) Assets

Question 16.
The period for which an asset can be used in the enterprise is known as estimated useful…………….
(a) Life of an asset
(b) Actual cost of asset
(c) Other factors
(d) Scrap value of an asset
Answer:
(a) Life of an asset

Question 17.
The net loss which arises in a business is an example of…………….
(a) Revenue loss
(b) Capital loss
(c) Neither of the two
(d) None
Answer:
(a) Revenue loss

Question 18.
Sales account has credit balance and sales returns has ………………..
(a) Debit balance
(b) Journal
(c) Credit balance
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Debit balance

Question 19.
Capital contributed by proprietor is a liability to the ……………..
(a) Expense
(b) Income
(c) Debit
(d) Business
Answer:
(d) Business

Question 20.
Software are used by those enterprises where ……………. are somewhat peculiar in nature.
(a) Financial transactions
(b) Software
(c) Debit
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) Financial transactions

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What are the steps involved in the process of accounting?
Answer:

1. Identifying
2. Measuring
3. Recording
4. Classifying
5. Summarising
6. Interpreting and
7. Communicating financial information

Question 22.
What is accounting equation?
Answer:
The relationship of assets with that of liabilities to outsiders and to owners in the equation form is.known as accounting equation.

Question 23.
What is meant by Posting?
Answer:
The process of transferring the debit and credit items from the journal to the ledger accounts is called posting.

Question 24.
State whether the balance of the following accounts should be placed in the debit or the credit column of the trial balance:
(i) Carriage outwards (ii) Carriage inwards (iii) Sales (iv) Purchases
Answer:
(i) Carriage outwards – Debit balance
(ii) Carriage inwards – Debit balance
(iii) Sales – Credit balance
(iv) Purchases – Debit balance

Question 25.
Define Bill of exchange.
Answer:
According to the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, “Bill of exchange is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order, signed by the maker, directing a certain person to pay a certain sum of money only to, or to the order of a certain person or to the bearer of the instrument”.

Question 26.
What is bank reconciliation statement?
Answer:
The bank reconciliation statement is a statement that reconciles the balance as per the bank column of cash book with the balance as per the bank statement by giving the reasons for such difference along with the amount.

Question 27.
What is Error of principle?
Answer:
It means the mistake committed in the application of fundamental accounting principles in recording a transaction in the books of accounts.

Question 28.
What is Annuity method?
Answer:
Under this method, not only the original cost of the asset but also the amount of interest on ‘ the investment is taken into account while computing depreciation. The idea of considering interest is that if the investment is made in any other asset instead of the relevant fixed asset, it would have earned certain rate of interest.

Question 29.
What is meant by deferred revenue expenditure?
Answer:
An expenditure, which is revenue expenditure in nature, the benefit of which is to be derived over a subsequent period or periods is known as deferred revenue expenditure.

Question 30.
What is meant by software?
Answer:
A set of programs that form an interface between the hardware and the user of a computer system are referred to as software.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 is compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write any three objectives of Accounting?
Answer:

1. To keep a systematic record of financial transactions and events.
2. To ascertain the profit or loss of the business enterprise.
3. To ascertain the financial position or status of the enterprise.

Question 32.
Write any three principles of double entry system.
Answer:

1. In every business transaction, there are two aspects.
2. The two aspects involved are the benefit or value receiving aspect and benefit or value . giving aspect.
3. These two aspects involve minimum two accounts, atleast one debit and atleast one credit.

Question 33.
Dinesh, a customer is declared insolvent and 40 paise in a rupee is received from the estate for his due ₹ 10,000.
Answer:

Question 34.
What are the limitations of trial balance? (any three)
Answer:

1. It is possible to prepare trial balance of an organisation, only if the double entry system . is followed.
2. Even if some transactions are omitted, the trial balance will tally.
3. Trial balance may be even though errors arc committed in the books of account.

Question 35.
Enter the following transactions in returns inward book of Magesh a textile dealer:

Answer:

Question 36.
From the following particulars prepare a bank reconciliation statement of Jayakumar as on 31st December, 2016.
a. Balance as per cash book ₹ 7,130.
b. Cheques deposited but not cleared ₹ 1,000.
c. A customer has deposited ₹ 800 into the bank directly.
Answer:

Question 37.
Rectify the following errors:
1. Sales book is undercast by ₹ 200.
2. Purchases book is overcast by ₹ 300.
3. The total of salary account is carried forward ₹ 2,000 excess.
Answer:
1. Sales account should be credited with ₹ 200.
2. Purchases account shoftld be credited with ₹ 300.
3. Salary account is to be credited with ₹ 2,000.

Question 38.
On 01.01.2017 a firm purchased a machine at a cost of ₹ 1,00,000. Its life was estimated to be 10 years with a scrap value of ₹ 10,000. Compute the amount of depreciation to be charged at the end of each year.
Answer:

Question 39.
Ascertain gross profit or gross loss from the following:

Answer:

Note: Carriage on sales and office rent are indirect expenses, so they should be shown in profit and loss account.

Question 40.
List out the various reports generated by computerised accounting system.
Answer:
Day books/Joumals, Ledgers, Trial balance, Trading account, Profit and loss account, Balance sheet, etc.
In accounting, computer is commonly used in the following areas:

1. Recording of business transactions.
2. Payroll accounting.
3. Stores accounting and
4. Generation of accounting reports.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) From the data given below (concatenate).
(i) Fill the address in B3 using CONCATENATE FUNCTION.
(ii) Change KAMARAJAR SALAI given in C2 as lower case in C3.
(iii) Change Chennai given in D2 as upper case in D3.

Answer
Procedure:
(i) To fill the address

• Open a new spread sheet in MS – Excel
• Enter all given values as given in the question
• Enter the formula in the cell B3 as = CONCATENATE (“A2”, “B2”, “C2”, “D2”, “H2”)
  Answer: ANAND 123 KAMARAJAR SALAI Chennai 600018

(ii) To change KAMARAJAR SALAI given in C2 as lower case in C3
Enter the formula in the cell C3 as = LOWER (C2)
Answer: Kamarajar Salai

(iii) To change Chennai given in D2 as UPPER case in D3.
Enter the formula in the cell D3 as = UPPER (D2).
Answer: CHENNAI

[OR]

(b) What are the differences between book-keeping and accounting?
Answer:

Question 42.
(a) Complete the missing items.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Complete and rewrite the missing.

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Prepare ledger accounts from the following transactions.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Rectify the following Journal Entries.


Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Prepare Trial balance of Chitra as on 31st March, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) A company purchased machinery costing X 90,000 on January 1, 2015 and spent X 10,000 on its erection. On July 1, 2017, the machinery was sold for X 58,000. The company written off depreciation at 20% p.a. under written down value method. Prepare machinery account. The books are closed on 31st December every year.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) Record the following transactions of Vijay Electrical & Co., in the purchase book, purchase returns book, sales book and sales return book.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Identify the following items into capital or revenue.
1. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000
2. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000
3. ₹ 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
4. Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
5. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
1. Revenue
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital
5. Revenue

Question 46.
(a) From the following balances of Niruban, prepare balance sheet as on 31st December, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Give necessary entries to adjust the following on 31st December, 2017.

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) From the following information, prepare bank reconciliation statement as on 31st December, 2017 to find out the balance as per bank statement.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare three column cash book in the books of Thiru Durairaj.

Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each.
   These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in the above three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Who is considered to be the internal user of the financial information?
(a) Creditor
(b) Employee
(c) Customer
(d) Government
Answer:
(b) Employee

Question 2.
GAAPs are:
(a) Generally Accepted Accounting Policies
(b) Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions
(d) None of these .
Answer:
(c) Generally Accepted Accounting Provisions

Question 3.
The rule of stock valuation ‘cost price or realisable value’ whichever is lower is based on the accounting principle of:
(a) Materiality
(b) Money measurement
(c) Conservation
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(c) Conservation

Question 4.
In India, Accounting Standards are issued by …………………..
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(&) The Cost and Management Accountants of India
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
Answer:
(d) The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India

Question 5.
Accounting equation is formed based on the accounting principle of ………………..
(a) Dual aspect
(b) Consistency
(c) Going Concern
(d) Accrual
Answer:
(a) Dual aspect

Question 6.
Real account deals with …………………
(a) Individual persons
(b) Expenses and losses
(c) Assets
(d) Incomes and gains
Answer:
(c) Assets

Question 7.
If the total of the debit side of an account exceeds the total of its credit side, it means:
(a) Credit balance
(b) Debit balance
(c) NIL balance
(d) Debit and credit balance
Answer:
(b) Debit balance

Question 8.
The amount brought into the business by the proprietor should be credited to ……………..
(a) Cash account
(b) Drawings account
(c) Capital account
(d) Suspense account
Answer:
(c) Capital account

Question 9.
While preparing the trial balance, the accountant finds that the total of the credit column is short by ₹ 200. This difference will be…………
(a) Debited to suspense account
(b) Credited to suspense account
(c) Adjusted to any of the debit balance
(d) Adjusted to any of the credit balance
Answer:
(b) Credited to suspense account

Question 10.
Purchase returns book is used to record …………….
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(b) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately
(c) returns of assets to the supplier for which cash is received immediately
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) returns of goods to the supplier for which cash is not received immediately

Question 11.
A cash book with discount, cash and bank column is called …………….
(a) Simple cash book
(b) Double column cash book
(c) Three column cash book
(d) Petty cash book
Answer:
(c) Three column cash book

Question 12.
In Triple column cash book, the balance of bank overdraft brought forward will appear in ……………….
(a) Cash column debit side
(b) Cash column credit side
(c) Bank column debit side
(d) Bank column credit side
Answer:
(d) Bank column credit side

Question 13.
A bank statement is a copy of ……………..
(a) Cash column of the cash book
(b) Bank column of the cash book
(c) A customer’s account in the bank’s book
(d) Cheques issued by the business
Answer:
(c) A customer’s account in the bank’s book

Question 14.
A bank reconciliation statement is prepared to know the causes for the difference between:
(a) The balance as per the cash column of the cash book and bank column of the cash book
(b) The balance as per the cash column of the cash book and bank statement
(c) The balance as per the bank column of the cash book and the bank statement
(d) The balance as per petty cash book and the cash book
Answer:
(c) The balance as per the bank column of the cash book and the bank statement

Question 15.
Wages paid for installation of machinery wrongly debited to wages account is an error of ……………..
(a) Partial omission
(b) Principle
(c) Complete omission
(d) Duplication
Answer:
(b) Principle

Question 16.
Depreciation provided on machinery is debited to ……………..
(a) Depreciation account
(b) Machinery account
(c) Trading account
(d) Provision for depreciation account
Answer:
(a) Depreciation account

Question 17.
Amount received from IDBI as a medium term loan for augmenting working capital:
(a) Capital expenditures
(b) Revenue expenditures
(c) Revenue receipts
(d) Capital receipts
Answer:
(d) Capital receipts

Question 18.
Carriage inwards will be shown ………….
(a) In the trading account
(b) In the profit and loss account
(c) On the liabilities side
(d) On the assets side
Answer:
(a) In the trading account

Question 19.
Accrued interest on investment will be shown
(a) On the credit side of profit and loss account
(b) On the assets side of balance sheet
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 20.
An example of output device is ………………..
(a) Mouse
(b) Printer
(c) Scanner
(d) Keyboard
Answer:
(b) Printer

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 21 is compulsory: [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is hardware?
Answer:
The physical components of a computer constitute its hardware. Hardware consists of input devices and output devices that make a complete computer system.

Question 22.
What is outstanding expense?
Answer:
Expenses which have been incurred in the accounting period but not paid till the end of the accounting period are called outstanding expenses.

Question 23.
Write a short note on revenue receipts.
Answer:
Receipts which are obtained in the normal course of business are called revenue receipts. It is recurring in nature. The amount received is generally small.

Question 24.
Mention any two methods of depreciation.
Answer:

1. Straight line method
2. Written down value method.

Question 25.
Give rectifying journals for the following:
1. Goods sold to Anand for Answer: 1,000 on credit was not entered in the sales book.
2. An amount of Answer: 400 paid for repairs to the machinery stands wrongly posted to machinery account.
Answer:

Question 26.
What is “Full Disclosure Principle” of accounting?
Answer:
Accounts must disclose Ml and fair information. It implies that the accounts must be prepared honestly and all material information should be disclosed in the accounting statement.

Question 27.
Classify the following into personal, real and nominal accounts.
1. Capital 2. Building 3. Outstanding wages 4. Salaries.
Answer:
1. Capital – Personal account.
2. Building – Real account.
3. Outstanding wages – Representation personal account.
4. Salaries – Nominal account.

Question 28.
Mention any two utilities of ledger.
Answer:

1. Quick information about a particular account.
2. Control over business transactions.

Question 29.
What is a ‘Debit note’?
Answer:
A ‘debit note’ is a document, bill or statement sent to the person to whom goods are returned. This statement informs that the supplier’s account is debited to the extent of the value of goods returned.

Question 30.
What is “Imprest Money”?
Answer:
The amount given to the petty cashier in advance is known as “Imprest Money”. The word
imprest means payment in advance.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which question No. 31 ¡s compulsory: [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Fill in the missing information in the following journal entries:

Answer:

Question 32.
Give journal entries and post them to cash account.

Answer:

Question 33.
Prepare a trial balance with the following information:

Answer:

Question 34.
From the following transactions of Ram Home Appliances for July, 2017 prepare purchases book.

Answer:

Question 35.
From the following particulars of Simon traders, prepare a bank reconciliation statement as on 31st March, 2018.
(a) Debit balance as per bank statement ₹ 2,500.
(b) Cheques deposited amounting to ₹ 10,000, not yet credited by bank.
(c) Payment through net banking for ₹ 2,000, omitted in the cash book.
Answer:

Question 36.
Rectify the following errors before the preparation of trial balance:
(a) Returns outward book was undercast by ₹ 2,000.
(b) Returns inward book total was taken as ₹ 15,000 instead of ₹ 14,000.
(c) The total of the purchases account was carried forward ₹ 100 less.
Answer:
(a) Returns outward account should be credited with ₹ 2,000.
(b) Returns inward account should be credited with ₹ 1,000.
(c) Purchases account should be debited with ₹ 100.

Question 37.
From the following information, calculate the amount of depreciation and rate of depreciation under straight line method.
Purchase price of machine ₹ 2,00,000.
Expenses to be capitalized ₹ 50,000.
Estimated residual value ₹ 15,000.
Expected useful life 5 years
Answer:

Question 38.
Find out the amount of sales from the following information.

Answer:
Cost of goods sold = Opening stock + Net purchases + Direct expenses – Closing stock ‘ ‘ =20,000 + 70,000 + 10,000 – 30,000 = 70,000
Let the sales be = 100
Less: Gross profit (20% on sales, i:e., 100) = 20
Cost of goods sold = 80
Therefore, percentage of gross profit on cost of goods sold is \(\frac{20}{80} \times 100\) = 25%
Gross profit = 25% on ₹ 70,000 i.e., \(\frac{25}{1000} \times 100\) x 70,000 = ₹ 17,500
Sales = Cost of goods sold + Gross profit
= 70,000+ 17,500 = 87,500 Sales = 87,500

Question 39.
Ascertain net profit or net loss from the following.

Answer:
`

Question 40.
Enter the following transactions in a single column cash book of Ramalingam for the month of July, 2017.

Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) A trader received his bank statement on 31st December, 2017 which showed an overdraft balance ₹ 12,000. On the same day, his cash book showed a debit balance of ₹ 2,000. Analyse the following transactions. Choose the possible causes and prepare a bank reconciliation statement to show the causes of differences.
a. Cheque deposited for ₹ 2,000 on 21st December, 2017. Bank credited the same on 26th December, 2017.
b. Cheque issued for payment on 26th December, 2017 amounting to ₹ 2,500, not yet presented until 31st December, 2017.
c. Bank charges amounting to?₹ 200 not yet entered in the cash book.
d. Online payment for ₹ 1,500 entered twice in the cash book.
e. Cheque deposited amounting ₹ 1,000, but omitted in the cash book. The same cheque was dishonoured by bank, but not yet entered in cash book.
f. Cheque deposited, not yet entered by bank amounting ₹ 17,800.
Answer:

Note: Transactions (a) and (e) have been entered in both cash book and bank statement so it will not be entered.

[OR]

(b) From the following trial balance of Sharan, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account for the year ending 31st December, 2017 and Balance sheet as on that date. The Closing stock on 31st December, 2017 was valued at ₹ 2,50,000.


Answer:

Question 42.
(a) The following errors were located after the preparation of trial balance. The difference in trial balance has been taken to suspense account. Rectify them.
a. The total of purchases book was carried forward ₹ 70 less.
b. The total of sales book was carried forward ₹ 340 more.
c. The total of purchases book was carried forward ₹ 150 more.
d. The total of sales book was carried forward ₹ 200 less.
e. The total of purchases returns book was carried ₹ 350 less.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Prepare analytical Petty cash book from the following particulars under imprest system:

Answer:

Question 43.
(a) Calculate the amount of depreciation and rate of depreciation from the following by using ‘straight line method’. Also give journal entries for the first two years. The books are closed on 31st December every year.
January 1, 2016 payment to vendor for purchase of machinery ₹ 1,00,000.
January 1, 2016 transport cost ₹ 1,000.
January 1, 2016 installation cost ₹ 9,000.
Estimated scrap value at the end of the life ₹ 5,000.
Estimated life 10 years.
Answer:

[OR]

(b) Write out a cash book with discount, cash and bank columns in the books of Mahendran.

Answer:

Question 44.
(a) Enter the following transactions in the proper subsidiary books of Suman who is dealing in electronic goods for the month of January, 2017.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) From the following balances obtained from the books of Siva, prepare Trading and Profit and Loss Account.
Tamil Nadu 11th Accountancy Model Question Paper 5 English Medium – 28
Adjustments:
a. Closing stock on 31.12.2016 was ₹ 4,500.
b. Manager is entitled to receive commission @ 5 % net profit after providing such commission.
Answer:

Question 45.
(a) From the following balances extracted from the books of Rajeshwari as on 31st March, 2017, prepare the trial balance.

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Identify the following items into capital or revenue:
1. Audit fees paid ₹ 10,000.
2. Labour welfare expenses ₹ 5,000.
3. ? 2,000 paid for servicing the company vehicle.
4. Repair to furniture purchased second hand ₹ 3,000.
5. Rent paid for the factory ₹ 12,000.
Answer:
1. Revenue
2. Revenue
3. Revenue
4. Capital
5. Revenue

Question 46.
(a) Show the direct ledger posting for the following transactions:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Complete the missing informations:

Answer:

Question 47.
(a) Complete the missing informations:

Answer:

[OR]

(b) Give examples for,the followings:
1. Increase in capital and increase in asset.
2. Decrease in liability and decrease in asset.
3. Increase in one asset and decrease in another asset.
4. Decrease in one liability and increase in another liability.
5. Decrease in one asset and increase in another asset.
Answer:
1. Commenced business with cash ₹ 1,00,000.
2. Paid to creditors ₹ 10,000.
3. Bought furniture for cash ₹ 5,000.
4. Accepted a bill drawn by creditors for ₹ 20,000.
5. Sold goods for cash ₹ 10,000.