Prasanna

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TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 1

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
The house was in a dilapidated condition.
(a) decrepit
(b) vigorous
(c) diluted
(d) designated
Answer:
(a) decrepit

Question 2.
The coaches lauded me on the silver.
(a) reproached
(b) rebuked
(c) rescinded
(d) appreciated
Answer:
(d) appreciated

Question 3.
He had to explain the venerable relationship.
(a) disciplined
(b) disreputable
(c) revered
(d) irrelevant
Answer:
(c) revered

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I was peering at an attractive painting.
(a) gorgeous
(b) smart
(c) ugly
(d) beautiful
Answer:
(c) ugly

Question 5.
The villagers were enormously overwhelming.
(a) extremely
(b) awfully
(c) appallingly
(d) insignificantly
Answer:
(d) insignificantly

Question 6.
Each task involved tremendous work and energy.
(a) marvellous
(b) incredible
(c) terrific
(d) meagre
Answer:
(d) meagre

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “promenade”.
(a) men
(b) promen
(c) prom
(d) prod
Answer:
(c) prom

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “graphomania”.
(a) The humanistic study of language and literature
(b) The belief that all events in life are predetermined and inevitable
(c) A passion for writing
(d) A collection of selected literary passages
Answer:
(c) A passion for writing

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Last straw’.
(а) Dislike to choose or make a decision
(b) The final problem in a series of problems
(c) The person you are talking about arrives
(d) Take the credit for something you don’t deserve
Answer:
(b) The final problem in a series of problems

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
My uncle Thomas during our Thanksgiving dinner, did his whole spiel about how the government is controlled by lizard people!
(a) high flown speech to attract people
(b) narration of cooked up jokes
(c) situation where monarchy is felt
(d) detective stories with criminal act.
Answer:
(a) high flown speech to attract people

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “biscuit”.
(a) box
(b) bin
(c) tin
(d) load
Answer:
(c) tin

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “announce”.
(a) er
(b) ing
(c) ship
(d) ment
Answer:
(d) ment

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “ODS”.
(a) Ozone Dialling Services
(b) Organic Deleting Substances
(c) Ozone Depleting Substances
(d) Ozone Dual Secretion
Answer:
(c) Ozone Depleting Substances

Question 14.
Someone who represents a king or queen and rules for him or her in another country.
(a) Chancellor
(b) Viceroy
(c) Dean
(d) Assassin
Answer:
(b) Viceroy

Question 15.
Obsessive passion for balloons and ballooning is known as……….
(a) Eulogomania
(b) Barbarian
(c) Balloonomania
(d) Dromomania
Answer:
(c) Balloonomania

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
The lady has been missing………….last week.
(a) from
(b) since
(c) on
(d) by
Answer:
(b) since

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Everybody should be given an opportunity,………?
(a) shouldn’t they
(b) won’t they
(c) wouldn’t they
(d) isn’t it
Answer:
(a) shouldn’t they

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
You won’t get the contract unless you give the mayor a bribe.
(a) salt
(b) sweetener
(c) sweet box
(d) money
Answer:
(b) sweetener

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
The ancestral jewellery has been handed down from generation to generation.
(a) stored
(b) delivered
(c) hidden
(d) distributed
Answer:
(b) delivered

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
……….. subject do you like better, Maths or Chemistry?
(a) Which
(b) What
(c) Whose
(d) That
Answer:
(a) Which

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“Well, ego it might be pleased enough
But zealous athletes play so rough……”
(a) What pleases the ego?
(b) Why are athletes often rough during play?
Answer:
(a) When players outsmart their opponents and crack their vertebrae and spine, the ego is pleased.
(b) Enthusiastic athletes, in a bid to impress umpires and the spectators play roughly.
Besides, they have no feelings for their opponents in the ring/playground.

Question 22.
“And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there……”
(a) What did the poet notice about the twigs?
(b) What was the poet’s thought about then?
Answer:
(a) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.
(b) The poet thought the twigs were experiencing the joy of their contact with the breezy air.

Question 23.
“Cocktail face, with all their conforming smiles
Like a fixed portrait”
(а) Why does the poet use the term “Cocktail” for the face?
(b) Identify the figure of speech employed in the second line.
Answer:
(a) The face does not show a single emotion. It is no more the index of the mind. It is the combination of various emotions. So, the poet uses the term “cocktail face”.
(b) Simile.

Question 24.
“Defeat we repel, courage our fort;”
(a) How do we react to defeat?
(b) Which is considered as our stronghold?
Answer:
(a) We defy defeat.
(b) Courage is our stronghold.

Question 25.
“That rounds the mortal temples of a king Keeps Death his court, and there the antic sits”
(a) What rounds the mortal temples of a king?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the second line.
Answer:
(a) The crown rounds the mortal temples of a king.
(b) Personification

Question 26.
“Macavity’s a Mystery Cat: he’s called the Hidden Paw…”
(a) Does the poet talk about a real cat?
(b) Why is he called the Hidden Paw?
Answer:
(a) No, the poet talks about an imaginary character.
(b) He is called a “Hidden paw“ because even Scotland Yard is unable to arrest him after he commits any crime. He does not leave his foot prints in the spot of crime.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Kamala : Do you know many students from our school joined the professional courses this year?
Vineetha : According to my knowledge only six students have joined the professional courses.
Answer:
Kamala asked Vineetha whether she knew that many students from their school joined the professional courses that year. Vineetha said that she knew only six students had joined the professional courses.

Question 28.
Change into passive voice of the following sentence.
The labourers are washing and cleaning the hall.
Answer:
The hall is being washed’and cleaned by the labourers.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If Ramesh hadn’t squandered all his savings, he wouldn’t be poor now.
Answer:
Had he not squandered all his savings, he wouldn’t be poor now.

Question 30.
She is sure that Ram has stolen Simon’s wallet. (Transform this sentence into a compound sentence)
Answer:
Ram has stolen Simon’s wallet and she is sure about it.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 x 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Through primrose tufts, in that sweet bower,
The periwinkle trail’d its wreaths;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the accommodative nature of wild plants and creepers.

Explanation: Plants, creepers and birds live in harmony with each other. Primrose allows periwinkle to lean, encircle its stem and grow knowing that a creeper needs the support of a fellow plant to grow. This harmonious co-existence in nature makes Wordsworth long for the same among humans.

Question 32.
I’m glad that when my struggle begins
‘Twixtprudence and ego, prudence wins.
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Confessions of a Bom Spectator” written by Ogden Nash.

Context: The poet, the bom spectator says these words while fascinated by the glory of the game.

Explanation: The poet is tempted to participate in the.game however his ego and prudence come to logger heads. He is very happy as prudence prevails’and he successfully overcomes the desire of satisfying the ego. He stays out of dangerous games and continues to enjoy all games as a spectator.

Question 33.
He, who does not stoop, is a king we adore.
We bow before competence and merit;
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words while describing the attributes of simple and honest people.

Explanation: The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. Such upright people admire those who never stoop down to conquer. They respect competent and meritorious people in high places.

(ii) Answer any two of the following in 20-30 words. [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
As a friend of the narrator, describe how you would have behaved at the auction.
Answer:
As an author’s friend, I would have dissuaded him from continuing the risk he was taking by bidding. I would have reasoned with him that bidding without even the security deposit of 500 pounds in the bank had the potential threat of facing public-disgrace. If I insisted, he would definitely give up bidding. Friendship is a heavy responsibility. One can’t permit a friend to go toward? a tight comer unthinkingly.

Question 35.
Give a few instances of Bryson’s confused acts.
Answer:
He would end up standing in an alley on the wrong side of a self-locking door trying to locate a restroom in a cinema theatre. He would often go to the hotel desk, at least two to three times a day asking what his room number was. The author had a serious problem of orientation in any new place.

Question 36.
How do the chemists make fortunes out of the medicines people forget to take?
Answer:
Similar to the author, many remember to forget medicine as soon as the appointed time arrives. The forgotten medicines tend to aggravate the illness. As a vicious cycle, again they are forced to buy costlier medicines. Thus people who forget to take medicines contribute to the fortunes of chemists.

(iii) Answer any three of the following questions briefly: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences, (change to pie chart/graph or table)

1. work/a/makes/no/boy/Jack/and/paly/all/dull
2. be/companionship/a/life/good/burden/without/would
3. family/us/provides/great/a/system/support

Answer:

1. All work and no play makes Jack a dull boy.
2. Life would be a burden without good companionship.
3. Family provides us a great support.

Question 38.
Describe the process of bathing your cat.
Answer:

1. Make the cat feel comfortable. Talk softly with the cat.
2. In a tub add some cat shampoo to the water.
3. Soak your kitty from the neck down and wash the cat in a massaging motion.
4. Keep the shampoo out of the cat’s eyes, nose, mouth, and ears.
5. To minimize the risk, of creating an ear infection, put a cotton ball or a small soft material used to stop up a wound or an opening in each ear.
6. Rinse the cat thoroughly using the water in the tub. Then, drain the tub and rinse two more times with warm water.
7. Wash your kitty’s face with water and a washcloth.
8. Pay attention to your cat throughout the bath time. If the cat seems to be too frightened by anything you are doing, stop it immediately.
9. Use a wet washcloth to wipe the cat in the end.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Hima wins Gold for India.
2. New Scheme for Women announced by the Ministry.
3. Temperature falls down by 1 degree this summer.

Answer:

1. Hima Das won the first gold in Athletics for India in the Commonwealth Games.
2. Prakash Javadekar, the minister for Human Resources Development, announced a new scheme for women.
3. There is a fall of 1 degree in the average temperature in Chennai this summer.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. A ……….. of thousand miles begins with a single step, (flight, train, journey)
2. An ounce of protection is worth a pound of (cure, leopard, medicine)
3. A ……… stone gathers no moss, (rough, rolling, still)

Answer:

1. Journey
2. cure
3. rolling

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Describe the friendship between Khushwant Singh and grandmother.
Answer:
Khushwant Singh’s grandmother was closely involved in bringing him up when the author lived with her in the village during his early life. She used to wake him up early in the morning. While bathing and dressing him, she sang her prayers. She hoped that the young boy would learn it by heart. She then gave him breakfast – a stale chapatti with butter and sugar.

Then they would go together to the temple school. While the author learnt his lessons, the grandmother would read holy books. They returned home together. She used to verify what the author learnt in school everyday. A turning point came in their friendship when his parents called them to the city. Although they shared a room, she could not help him much. She hated music, Science and Western education. The common link of their friendship was gradually snapped.

[OR]

Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”?
Answer:
After Mary Kom’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004.

She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary. There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Kom’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her, “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.

Question 42.
How does the poet establish the victory of common sense over ego?
Answer:
The poet is sure of his limitations. He had only modest of physiques. He can’t imagine receiving blows in a boxer’s ring. He has seen zealous athletes playing so rough that they never consider the . feelings of fellow players. They are insensitive to the cracking wrist and snapping knees of fellow players. When his ego and prudence clashed, ego told him to seek glory in sports, but his prudence always ignored it. Thus common sense prevailed. He remained a cheerful life-time fan of successful athletes. He was contented as a spectator of all kinds of games and sports and world famous athletes.

[OR]

What are the mysterious ways in which Macavity acts?
Answer:
Macavity is an elusive master criminal who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime. He baffles Scotland Yard police and the flying squad as he disappears before their arrival to the scene of crime. He defies law of gravity and his powers of levitation make the fakir stare with wonder. Macavity loots the larder. He ransacks the jewel case. He is an elusive criminal who escapes from the spot of crime before the flying squad or Scotland Yard reach there.

He breaks every human law and laws of gravity. He breaks greenhouse glasses. He steals stealthily into the kitchen and empties milk. When an important treaty in the embassy is missing or when the admiralty loses some plans or drawings, the investigation terms conclude that it is the work of Macavity. But Macavity, as a wonder of wonders, would be miles away relaxing somewhere.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
Miss Meadows-upset-remains gloomy-in class-taxes the students-sing sad-the girls sense her change-Basil-She thinks of the letter-called by headmistress-telegram- happy and returns to the class with vigour and good cheer.
Answer:
Miss Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to Science Mistress demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval.

Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love. The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle. After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush.

She goads’the children to sing a song of joy congratulating someone for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

[OR]

Jack and Jill- believe – things in installments— recently purchased – house – on easy installment – Aunt Jane – visited – preached – ease and comfort of buying – in installments the couple – first baby in installment.
Answer:
The Never Never Nest is a comic one-act play about a young couple who make full use of the buy-now-pay-later system. Jack and Jill were a young married couple who had a small baby. One day Aunt Jane visited them and was surprised to find that even though Jack’s salary was not high, they lived in a beautiful house with all comforts.

She began to wonder whether, as a wedding gift she had given them 2000 pounds instead of 20 pounds. Otherwise how did Jack and Jill buy all these things? Then Jane understood that though they had everything, nothing really belonged to them. They bought everything on instalments. Only a steering wheel of the car, a wheel and two cylinders had been paid for. The total amount to be paid towards instalments was more than their earnings. Aunt Jane was shocked at the way Jack and Jill ran their family.

Before she left, she gave ten pounds to Jill and told them to make at least one article completely theirs, using that money. While Jack went with aunt Jane to the bus stop, Jill sent the money to Dr. Martin. Jack came back and said that he wanted to pay two months instalments on the car using the aunt’s gift. But Jill said that by paying this money to Dr. Martin, their baby would become completely theirs.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
The tests of life are its plus factors. Overcoming illness and suffering is a plus factor for it moulds character. Steel is iron plus fire, soil is rock plus heat. So lets include the plus factor in our lives.

Sometimes the plus factor is more readily seen by the simple-hearted. Often it takes a third eye or a change in focus, to see the plus factor. Walking along the corridors of a hospital recently where patients were struggling with fear of pain and tests, I was perturbed. What gave me a fresh perspective were the sayings put up everywhere, intended to uplift. One saying made me conscious of the beauty of the universe in the midst of pain, suffering and struggle. The other saying assured me that God was with me when I was in deep water and that no troubles would overwhelm me.

The import of those sayings also made me aware of the nether springs that flow into people’s lives when they touch rock bottom or are lonely or guilt ridden. The nether springs make recovery possible, and they bring peace and patience in the midst of negative forces.

The forces of death and destruction are not so much physical as they are psychic and psychological. When malice, hatred and hard-heartedness prevail, they get channeled as forces of destruction. Where openness, peace and good-heartedness prevail, the forces of life gush forth to regenerate hope and joy. The life force is triumphant when love overcomes fear. Both fear and love are deep mysteries, but the effect of love is to build, whereas fear tends to destroy. Love is generally the plus factor that helps build character. It creates bonds and its reach is infinite.

It is true there is no shortage of destructive elements – forces and people who seek to destroy others and in the process destroy themselves – but at the same time there are signs of love and life everywhere that are constantly enabling us to overcome setbacks. So lets not look at gloom and doom – let us seek positivity and happiness. For it is when you seek that you will find what is waiting to be discovered.

Summary:
No. of words given in the original passage: 360
No. of words to be written in the summary: 360/3 = 120 ± 5

Rough Draft
Tfte-tests-of life like illness, suffering, pain and disability build character. The forces of death and destruction are not so much physical as they are psychic and psychological. The simple- hearted have the ability to view them as science of hope and the presence of God. Even in the midst of suffering there is God. The belief that amongst pain and-suffenrig the universe is still beautiful and God present gives strength to overcome obstacles. One must ralise there is an underlying human strength that emerges during troubles. This brings peace and patience. Malice, hatred and hard heartedness causes destruction. Where openness, peace and good heartedness causes life to gush forth an regenerate hope and joy. Life is triumphant when love overcomes fear. Love builds, whereas fear is destructing. love helps build character, its reach is infinite. The forces of destruction can be overcome by the power of love.

Fair Draft
The tests of life – the plus factors:
The tests of life like illness, suffering, pain and disability build character. The simple-hearted have the ability to view them as signs of hope and the presence of God. Even in the midst of suffering there is God. The belief that amongst pain and suffering the universe is still beautiful and God present gives strength to overcome obstacles. One must realize there is an underlying human strength that emerges during troubles. This brings peace and patience. Malice, hatred and hard-heartedness cause destruction. Whereas openness, peace and good heartedness cause life to gush forth and regenerate hope and joy. Life is triumphant when love overcomes fear. Love builds, whereas fear destructs. Love helps build character, its reach is infinite. The forces of destruction can be overcome by the power of love.

No. of words in the summary: 129

[OR]

Note-making
Title: The Tests of Life – the Plus Factors
Answer:
The Importance of the Tests of Life
(a) Illness& Suffering build Char.
(b) Simple hearted-View disability + vely eg: boy with hunch-backed companion.

Change of focus required:
(a) Sayings in hospital – awaken one to beauty of universe amidst pain; presence of God

• Give strength to overcome obstacles
• Realisation- underlying hum. strength in troubles
• Bring Peace &Patience

Forces of Destruction
(a) Psychic & psychlgcal
(b) Consist of malice, hatred & hard headedness
(c) Fear destroys

Forces of Life
(a) Openness, peace& good heartedness
(b) Love overcomes fear. Love builds char.& bonds ‘
(c) Discover signs of love, defeat destrctve elmnts.

Abbreviations: char. – character;2. +vely – positively; hum. – human; psychlgcal – psychological; destrctve – destructive; elmnts – elements.

Question 45.
You are Vineeth, Ramakrishna Road, Mylapore, Chennai. Write a letter to prestigious newspaper highlighting the need to save water and raise the water table.
Answer:
From
Vineeth
Ramakrishna Road, Mylapore
Chennai

To
The Editor
Indian Express
Chennai
Respected Sir,
Sub: Need to save and harvest water.
Through the column of your prestigious newspaper, I want to highlight the urgent need to save and harvest water.

Water is the basic amenity for human beings, animals and birds. Globalisation of our economy has given a free rein to the multinationals. Bottling of water is a thriving business in India. The companies are minting money in the name of providing pure and clean water to people. Rivers are being sold: They are eyeing water supply in big cities. They play no role in conserving water. Water resources are facing a serious threat of depletion. Wells, hand- pumps and tube wells are sucked dry. If water table falls, farmers will not be able to cultivate crops. It will create chaotic conditions.

The government and public must understand the urgent need to save water. We should not waste a drop of water. Water harvesting must be done on a large scale in the rainy season. We must store water in lakes, tanks and ponds. Recycling of water is the need of the hour. Let us take urgent steps to meet the urgent situation. Act before it is too late and the situation becomes beyond redemption.

Thanking you
Yours faithfully,
Vineeth
Address on the Envelope
To
The Editor
Indian Express
Chennai

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘The Defects of Our Education System’.
Answer:
The Defects of Our Education System
The prime objective of our education system is to develop a child’s personality. It should train not only the mind, but also the body and soul. Unfortunately, our present education system fails to achieve these objectives. The present education system does not make a child creative. It makes him a crammer. A child or the pupil has to mug up nearly 200-300 pages a year to pass the examination. Students are not given any practical training. Moreover, the admission system has become the laughing stock of society.

The school authorities have a provision for interviews for the tiny tots who seek admission to pre-nursery. This is the height of absurdity. Our nation requires engineers, scientists, technicians and doctors who have understood the concepts clearly and are able to show their smartness in the work. An educated person should not only have bookish knowledge. He must have practical knowledge too. Unless a person has enough practical knowledge in his field he would be a failure in his profession leading to jeopardising many lives.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(а) She goes to school by feet.
(b) Sun rises in the east.
(c) Gopinath is one of the tallest boy.
(d) I am a teacher, isn’t I?
(e) Neither Ram nor Arun are present today.
Answer:
(a) She goes to school on feet.
(b) The Sun rises in the east.
(c) Gopinath is one of the tallest boys.
(d) I am a teacher, aren’t I?
(e) Neither Ram nor Arun is present today.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(а) He said “ I shall not ……….. my hair until I ………..” (die / dye )
(b) I ………. speak five languages, (appropriate modal verb)
(c) Rita ……… go to Church on Sundays, when she was a small girl, (appropriate semi-modal verb)
(d) ……… ill health, Radha went to school, (appropriate link word)
Answer:
(a) dye, die
(b) can
(c) used to
(d) In spite of

Question 47.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Answer:
Grounding, or Earthing, is a new-age therapy that is fast gaining ground. Its proponents argue that when the bare skin of our feet connects with the electric charge of the earth, we are ‘grounded’, that is to say, the free radicals creating havoc in our bodies are neutralized.
The result is emotional and physical health.

Modern lifestyle factors such as life in high-rise buildings, sleep on elevated cots (as different from beds spread on the floor) and the wearing of shoes with rubber soles have contributed to our lack of direct skin connection with the earth’s surface. Electrons from the earth may be the best source of antioxidants for our bodies and they have zero negative secondary effects, because our bodies have evolved over eons of physical contact with the ground. Our modern lifestyles have broken this natural connection with the ground and taken our immune system by surprise, depriving it of its primordial source of energy.

Research by Oschman, Chevalier, and Brown studied the effects of grounding on the immune system, inflammation, wound healing and treatment of autoimmune diseases. They concluded that disconnect from earth has an “important, insidious, and overlooked Contribution to physiological dysfunction and to the alarming global rise in non-communicable, inflammatory-related chronic diseases”. Chronic fatigue, injury, inflammation and autoimmune disorders may be the results of this disconnect.

The practice of grounding rests on the fact that we are bioelectrical beings living on an electrical planet. Our bodies operate electrically. Our cells transmit multiple frequencies that run our heart, immune system, muscles, and nervous system. Multiple positive effects can be created by a reconnection to the earth. These include decreased levels of inflammation and pain, reduced stress levels, improved circulation, and mood enhancement.
Questions.

1. Which new therapy is gaining currency?
2. How can emotional and physical health be gained naturally?
3. What has the habit of wearing rubber chappals prevented us from getting?
4. What would be the best source of anti-oxidants for humans?
5. What are the obvious harms due to man’s disconnection with earth?

Answer:

1. Grounding, or Earthing, is a new-age therapy that is fast gaining currency.
2. The practice of grounding rests on the fact that we are bioelectrical beings living on an electrical planet. When we connect with the earth, cells transmit multiple frequencies that run our heart, immune system, muscles, and nervous system. Multiple positive effects can be created by a reconnection to the earth.
3. The habit of wearing chappals has prevented from electrons from the earth entering our body.
4. Electrons from the earth may be the best source of antioxidants for our bodies and they have zero negative secondary effects.
5. Man’s disconnection from the earth has led to depriving the immune system of its primordial source of energy.

[OR]

Frame a dialogue between two friends on choosing the right career.
Answer:
Sanju : Hi! How is your exam preparations going on?
Ranjana : Good so far. I’m more worried about the career that I have chosen. I have to work really hard since I want to become a doctor.
Sanju : Oh! That’s a good decision. There are new diseases and ailments on the rise and good doctors are needed to analyse and cure the patients.
Ranjana : Yes that’s true. I have done some research and I’m really interested to pursue in the medical field. What is your choice of career?
Sanju : I would like to become an agriculture scientist.
Ranjana : I thought you preferred engineering.
Sanju : No. Farmers of our country are in desperate situation. I really want to help them.
Ranjana : That’s very thoughtful of you.
Sanju : Yes. After seeing the pitiable state of farmers of our country I have taken this decision. I would like to empower them with new technologies available.
Ranjana : That’s good Sanju!

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Miscellaneous Problems

Question 1.
A manufacture’s marginal revenue function is given by MR = 275 – x – 0.3x². Find the increase in the manufactures total revenue if the production is increased from 10 to 20 units.
Solution:
Given MR = 275 – x – 0.3x²
R = ∫(MR) dx + k
But given that production is increased from 10 to 20 units. so,

Thus the total revenue is increased by ₹ 1900

Question 2.
A company has determined that marginal cost function for x product of a particular commodity is given by MC = 125 + 10x – \(\frac{x^{2}}{9}\). Where C is the cost of producing x units of the commodity. If the fixed cost is ₹ 250 what is the cost of producing 15 units.
Solution:

Question 3.
The marginal revenue function for a firm is given by MR = \(\frac{2}{x+3}-\frac{2 x}{(x+3)^{2}}+5\). Show that the demand function is P = \(\frac{2}{x+3}\) + 5
Solution:

Question 4.
For the marginal revenue function MR = 6 – 3x² – x³, Find the revenue function and demand function.
Solution:
MR = 6 – 3x² – x³
Revenue function R = ∫(6 – 3x² – x³) dx + k

Question 5.
The marginal cost of production of a firm is given by C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac{x}{20}\) the marginal revenue is given by R'(x) = 30 and the fixed cost is ₹ 100. Find the profit function.
Solution:

Question 6.
The demand equation for a product is p_d = 20 – 5x and the supply equation is p_s = 4x + 8. Determine the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus under market equilibrium.
Solution:
Given p_d = 20 – 5x and p_s = 4x + 8
Under market equilibrium, p_d = p_s
20 – 5x = 4x + 8

Consumer’s surplus,

Producers surplus,

Hence at market equilibrium,
(i) the consumer’s surplus is \(\frac{40}{9}\) units
(ii) the producer’s surplus is \(\frac{32}{9}\) units

Question 7.
A company requires f(x) number of hours to produce 500 units. It is represented by f(x) = 1800x^-0.4. Find out the number of hours required to produce additional 400 units. [(900)^0.6 = 59.22, (500)^0.6 = 41.63]
Solution:
Given that for producing 500 units, the company requires f(x) = 1800 x^-0.4 hours.
Now it has to produce an additional 400 units.
So totally 900 units.
No. of hours needed

Question 8.
The price elasticity of demand for a commodity is \(\frac{p}{x^{3}}\). Find the demand function if the quantity of demand is 3 when the price is ₹ 2.
Solution:

Question 9.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve between the parabola y = 8x² – 4x + 6 the y-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
Solution:

The shaded region is the area required.

Question 10.
Find the area of the region bounded by the curve y² = 27x³ and the lines x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2.
Solution:
The given curve is y² = 27x³
The lines are x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 4 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 4

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
A student embarks on a career after graduation.
(a) rupture
(b) completes
(c) begins
(d) summons
Answer:
(c) begins

Question 2.
I was both upset and worried.
(a) disappointed
(b) disliked
(c) destined
(d) distracted
Answer:
(a) disappointed

Question 3.
It is indelibly branded on letters of fire on my heart.
(a) unforgettable
(b) misunderstood
(c) ineligible
(d) inerasable
Answer:
(d) inerasable

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
There was no sound but a curious smothered noise from my friend.
(a) suffocated
(b) suppressed
(c) expressed
(d) stifled
Answer:
(c) expressed

Question 5.
My blood congealed.
(a) thickened
(b) thinned
(c) solidified
(d) froze
Answer:
(b) thinned

Question 6.
Turn the despondent into optimistic citizens.
(a) hopeful
(b) hopeless
(c) frustrated
(d) desperate
Answer:
(a) hopeful

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “microphone”
(a) micro
(b) mice
(c) mike
(d) phone
Answer:
(c) mike

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “Philology”.
(a) The study of phylogenetic trees
(b) The humanistic study of language and literature
(c) The study of cell and its structure
(d) The study of the physical world
Answer:
(b) The humanistic study of language and literature

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom “a drop in the ocean”.
(a) extreme
(b) large
(c) plenty
(d) meagre
Answer:
(d) meagre

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence People of Kashmir wants to maintain the “status quo”.
(a) retain existing condition
(b) law and order
(c) introduce new changes
(d) law and order
Answer:
(a) retain existing condition

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “duty”.
(a) of-
(b) on-
(c) whole-
(d) in-
Answer:
(b) on-

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word “public”.
(a) sy
(b) ment
(c) tion
(d) ize
Answer:
(d) ize

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “EU”
(a) Electric Unit
(b) European Union
(c) Emergency Unit
(d) European Unity
Answer:
(b) European Union

Question 14.
Choose the correct syllabification of the word ‘crescendo’.
(a) cre-scen-do
(b) cr-e-scen-do
(c) crescen-do
(d) cres-cen-do
Answer:
(a) cre-scen-do

Question 15.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
Mani answered my question promptly.
(a) SVCA
(b) SVOA
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVIODOA
Answer:
(d) SVIODOA

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
She kept the book ……….. the book shelf.
(a) in
(b) on
(c) to
(d) from
Answer:
(a) in

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
Cities are increasingly becoming urbanised,……..?
(a) isn’t it
(b) shouldn’t they
(c) aren’t they
(d) doesn’t it
Answer:
(c) aren’t they

Question 18.
Substitute the underlined word with the appropriate polite alternative.
Sagar’s cat had to be killed because it had cancer.
(a) put in
(b) put down
(c) put up
(d) put out
Answer:
(b) put down

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
Meena pointed out that the shops would be already closed.
(a) foretold
(b) described
(c) mentioned
(d) showed
Answer:
(c) mentioned

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun
The man …….. suitcase was stolen is over there.
(a) which
(b) whose
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(b) whose

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“The budding things spread out their fan
To catch the breezy air;
And I must think, do all I can,
That there was pleasure there”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words in the given lines.
(b) Describe the activity of the twigs.
Answer:
(a) Fan and can, air and there are the rhyming words in the given Hines.
(b) The budding twigs spread out their fan to catch the breezy air.

Question 22.
“….. -for within the hollow crown
That rounds the mortal temples of a king
Keeps Death his court, and there the antic sits”
(a) Where is the hollow crown placed?
(b) What does it hold within?
Answer:
(a) The hollow crown is placed over the head of the king.
(b) The hollow crown holds death within.

Question 23.
“Cocktail face, with all their conforming smiles Like a fixed portrait”
(a) What is the figure of speech employed in the first line?
(b) What does “a portrait smile” symbolise?
Answer:
(a) Metaphor.
(b) It symbolizes “rigid and fake face lacking human warmth.” In other words, it means the face wears an artificial and deceitful expression all the time conforming to the mould of behaviour set by the changed society.

Question 24.
“ You ’d think my ego it would please To swap positions with one of these.”
(а) Did it please the poet’s ego to swap places with athletes?
(b) Why wasn’t the poet interested to swap places with athletes even to please his ego?
Answer:
(a) No, the poet’s ego was not pleased to swap places with the athletes.
(b) The poet wants his ego to be pleased but not at the cost of mortal risk. He knows how zealous athletes unmindful of cracking of limbs of fellow players move ahead.

Question 25.
“Honour is a property, common to all:
In dignity and pride no one need to be poor”
(a) Who are considered rich?
(b) What is their asset?
Answer:
(a) Those who possess dignity and pride are considered rich.
(b) Honour is their asset.

Question 26.
“There never was a Cat of such deceitfulness and suavity.”
(a) Which cat is being talked of here?
(b) How is he different from the rest?
Answer:
(a) Macavity is being talked of here.
(b) Other cats are lazy and just stay in the kitchen and take the food offered by their master. But Macavity is agile and defies law of the land and laws of gravity. Despite doing all wicked things, he pretends to be innocent. So, the poet claims one can never come across such a cat of “Deceitfulness and suavity”

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Sasha : Return me the laptop if you have finished your work.
Harsha : Here it is, Thank you!
Answer:
Sasha asked Harsha to return her laptop if she had finished her work. Harsha returned it, thanking her.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its active form.
This experience Will never be forgotten by me.
Answer:
I will never forget this experience.

Question 29.
Convert the following compound sentence into a simple sentence.
He is not only a good writer but also an outstanding lecturer.
Answer:
Besides being a good writer he is an outstanding lecturer.

Question 30.
The taste of success was sweet but it broke up Victor’s family. (Rewrite using ‘Though’)
Answer:
Though the taste of success was sweet, it broke up Victor’s family.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
While their ice-block-cold eyes Search behind my shadow
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem, “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while lamenting over the changes in the behaviour of modem people.

Explanation: The poet expresses the behaviour of people. The laugh is purely plastic, (i.e) lifeless. The eyes are devoid of emotions and hence described as “iceblock” (i.e) cold and hostile. They search behind the shadows means that ‘they’ are characterized by predatory or ulterior motives to exploit.

Question 32.
Athletes, I’ll drink to you,
Or eat with you,
Or anything except compete with you…
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Confessions of a Bom Spectator” written by Ogden Nash.

Context: The poet says these while contemplating the probability of swapping places with them.

Explanation: The poet has limp and bashful spirit which feeds on other people’s heroic deeds. The zealous players maim one another to win laurels. The thrill and excitement of all kinds of sports and games pleases the poet but he is wise enough to stay out and be a spectator because he has modest of physiques. He admits he would rather share a drink with them in a pub or dine with them in a restaurant. He is even ready to buy the most expensive tickets, as expensive as radium, to see them play the rough games but never compete with them.

Question 33.
To seek a gain we adore none:
We are proud and feel so tall.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet uses these words praising ordinary people leading contented life.

Explanation: The simple folks do not stoop to underhand dealings to achieve their desired goals in life. The efforts made in reaching even the smallest positions in life,- if done with sincerity of purpose and deep devotion, is worthy of hearty appreciation. They are straight forward and derive their pride from their own integrity.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What did the first ‘silver’ mean to Mary Kom? Why?
Answer:
The first international silver medal in Boxing meant a lot to Mary Kom. The boxing contest and all that followed got clearly etched in her memory. Besides, it gave her the confidence that she could take on anyone in the ring in a boxing contest.

Question 35.
Why did the narrator feel he could have welcomed a firing party?
Answer:
The author had made many bids in a low margin and got escaped. But he got trapped by saying “and fifty” when a picture was put up for sale with a starting price of 4000 guineas. No one else raised the stake. The auctioneer rang the bell and the author realized with alarm how on earth he could ever raise that much money. He thought he could find a firing party to shoot him down. Death is better than public disgrace.

Question 36.
According to Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, universities ensure democratic way of life for the future generations. How?
Answer:
It is in the universities that we can develop the true spirit of democracy, we can also facilitate the appreciation of other’s point of view and adjustment of differences through discussions. It can be kept healthy and strong by the exercise of individual responsibility and judgement.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences.

1. everything/ will /sense/ make/ perfect/ someday.
2. effect/ we/ in/ did/ much/ sales/ last/ not/ year/ improvement.
3. the/ please/ not/ do/ on/ grass/ step.

Answer:

1. Someday everything will make perfect sense.
2. We did not effect much improvement in sales last year.
3. Please do not step on the grass.

Question 38.
Describe the process of mowing a lawn.
Answer:

1. When using a push mower, always push in a forward direction.
2. Be sure to wear closed-toe shoes, not sandals or flip-flops.
3. Keep an eye out for pets and children, especially if you have a loud mower.
4. Wear sunglasses or some other eye-covering to protect your eyes from any debris that might shoot up while you mow.
5. When mowing on a slope, move side to side instead of up and down the slope to reduce the risk of injury from slipping.
6. Above all ensure that the blades are sharp.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Sports to be made part of CBSE system: Union Minister Kiren Rijiju
2. State education boards to be regulated by national body: Draft NEP
3. European leaders leave for Kashmir visit

Answer:
1. Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports (independent-in-charge) Kiren Rijiju on Tuesday said the CBSE was preparing a system to ensure sports becomes a substantial part of education to determine the achievement of a student.

2. The government’s draft National Education Policy (NEP) has proposed a central regulator for all school boards, meaning the state education boards will be regulated by a national body headed by the Union human resources, development minister.

3. The delegation of European Union Members of Parliament (MPs) left for Jammu and Kashmir on Tuesday morning. The EU delegation is expected to meet locals in Srinagar and ask them about their experiences, following the revocation of Article, which granted special status to J&K.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.

1. Actions ……….. louder than words, (shows, speak, experience)
2. A drowning man will clutch at a ………. (stick, pole, straw)
3. Adversity and loss make a man ………… (wise, poor, lost)

Answer:

1. speak
2. straw
3. wise

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Bill Bryson “ached to be suave”. Was he successful in his mission? List his “unsuave ways.
Answer:
Bill Bryson expresses his genuine desire to be “suave”. He would love just once in his life time to rise from the dinner table as if he had not experienced an “extremely localized seismic event, get into a car without leaving 14 inch coat outride, wear light-coloured trousers without ever discovering” at the end of the day that he had at various times and places sat on chewing gum, ice-cream cough syrup and motor oil. No, Bill Bryson was not successful in his mission.

Twice he spilled his drinks on a sweet nun who happened to sit next to him. He tried to show off his wisdom to another attractive lady. As usual, he was sucking his pen. His shirt, teeth and gum carried the unscrubbable navy blue stain for many days. He always did “liquid mischief’. His clumsy behaviour in the aeroplane made the saintly nun use abusive language. To avoid unsuave ways, he gave up air-travel with his family members. His wife and children supported him yet failed to refine his manners.

[OR]

How do Universities mould students apart from imparting academic education to them?
Answer:
Universities mould students by providing various opportunities to develop their soft skills and to develop values which would contribute to the process of nation building. They enable graduates to develop patience and perseverance. They help them develop faith in their own inherent ability to shoulder responsibilities. They are oriented to become citizens of democracy and repay to the society quality services which would reform the lives of the poor people.

They develop true spirit of democracy among young graduates. They enable appreciation of others point of view. The graduates are also provided opportunities to adjust with difference through amicable discussions. The universities, apart from imparting education mould the student’s character and personality too.

Question 42.
The poem does not focus on the destination but the journey towards it. Discuss.
Answer:
The poet discusses the merits of efforts, duty and devotion and values of honesty, uprightness and service-mindedness. He does not have any special appreciation to those who reach great peaks like Himalayas. He appreciates the process, the journey and not the destination. When the whole world has a perspective of seeking glory using any foul method or underhand dealing, the poet differs from it.

For him the means is more important than the end. However modest may be one’s position is, it is adorable if attained by competence and merit. Pride is not in heights one reaches but in a life that knows no bending or kneeling. The poet respects one who does not stoop as a king. Thus the poet pays importance to the journey of life not the destination.

[OR]

According to the poet what contributes most to the injuries sustained by the athletes?
Answer:
According to the poet, zealous athletes play so rough that they do not even consider one another’s feelings in their dealings with other players. The players are mostly goaded by prize money or glory from the media’s light on them. They maim each other as they romp. Cracking vertebrae and spines don’t stop the rough players. Most of the players don’t have sportsmanship.

They don’t treat success and failure equally. In order to get the light of fame on their face, they are ready to permanently disable a rival player too. The crazy desire for championship titles and the light of fame on them leads them to ignore swollen eyes, snapping of knee joints or cracking of wrists. In short, the poet believes the apathy of zealous players and obvious indifference to the pain and debilitating injury contribute most to the injuries sustained by athletes.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
Miss Meadows – upset – remains gloomy – in class – taxes the students – sing sad – the girls sense her change – Basil – She thinks of the letter – called by headmistress – telegram – happy and returns to the class with vigour and good cheer.
Answer:
The Singing Lesson, written by Katherine Mansfield, is all about a surprising day of a music teacher’s life. Miss Meadows, a music teacher, receives a letter from her finance which states quite plainly that Basil, her finance, isn’t ready to marry her and feels that the marriage would fill him with disgust. Naturally she’s filled with despair, anger and sadness. Her usrfal calm and cheery demeanor turns gloomy and angry that day and this change doesn’t go unnoticed by her students. During the lesson she’s rather harsh with her students. She tells them that today they would be practising a lament.

Then she tells them that they must feel the despair, the pain and the sorrow in order to perform the piece perfectly. During the lesson she’s informed by another colleague that Basil, her finance, has sent a telegram for her. Her first thought is that Basil has committed suicide! Yes, you read that right. It’s because the school has a rule; telegram can be sent to the workers during working hours only in case of death or emergency situation.

But in the telegram Basil had asked her to ignore the first letter and that he had bought the hat-stand which they had been thinking of lately. In short, the marriage is happening. The content of the telegram definitely lights up her mood. She returns and continues her class, now practicing a cheerful song, singing with expressions, more loudly and cheerfully than any of her students.

[OR]

The title – new trend of young middle – class couple – buying in easy installments – Jack and Jill, serious matter – with six pounds earning – installments were higher than income – playwright feels – couples would make a nest – but never settle or nest happily.
Answer:
The Never Never Nest is a comic one-act play about a young couple who make foil use of the buy-now-pay-later system. Jack and Jill were a young married couple who had a small baby. One day Aunt Jane visited them and was surprised to find that even though Jack’s salary was not high, they lived in a beautiful house with all comforts. She began to wonder whether, as a wedding gift she had given them 2000 pounds instead of 20 pounds.

Otherwise how did Jack and Jill buy all these things? Then Jane understood that though they had everything, nothing really belonged to them. They bought everything on installments. Only a steering wheel of the car, a wheel and two cylinders had been paid for. The total amount to be paid towards installments was more than their earnings. Aunt Jane was shocked at the way Jack and Jill ran their family. Before she left, she gave ten pounds to Jill and told them to make at least one article completely theirs, using that money.

While Jack went with aunt Jane to the bus stop, Jill sent the money to Dr. Martin. Jack came back and said that he wanted to pay two months installments on the car using the aunt’s gift. But Jill said that by paying this money to Dr. Martin, their baby would become completely theirs.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Observe the eating habits of your dog. It does not eat, except when hungry. It does not drink, unless it is thirsty. It does not gorge itself. It stops eating when it has had enough. A dog also sets a perfect example of adaptability. If it is moved to a strange place, it is able to adapt itself to that place and to its thousand peculiarities without a murmur of complaint. It is able to learn and adapt to a new family’s ways and customs. It is quick and ready to please. Man, being accustomed to comfort and wealth will be lost if suddenly stripped of all he is accustomed to.

A dog also teaches us a thing or two about, unselfish love. When a dog knows death is approaching, it tries, with its last vestige of strength, to crawl away elsewhere to die, in order to burden its owners no more. A dog does things with all vigour. However, when there is nothing to do, it lies down and rests. It does not waste its strength and energy needlessly. Many working people are burning the candles at both ends. Many suffer nervous breakdowns due to stress. Perhaps, they should learn to rest like a dog does. A dog above all is truly man’s best friend.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 215
No. of words to be written in the summary: 215/3 = 71 ± 5

Rough Draft
A dog does no eat without an appetite and stops when he has had enough. He adapts to new surroundings. A dog quickly learns the ways of his new family and tries to please them. He has unselfish love. It rests peacefiItty. It dies elsewhere to avoid problem to the owner. Unlike the dog, man leads stressful lives. Many suffer nervous breakdowns due to stress. Perhaps, they should learn to rest like a dog does. A dog above all is truly man’s best friend.

Fair Draft
Lessons from Dogs
A dog does not eat without an appetite and stops when he has had enough. He adapts to new surroundings. A dog quickly learns the ways of his new family and tries to please them. He has unselfish love. It rests peacefully. It dies elsewhere to avoid problem to the owner. Unlike the dog, man leads stressful lives. We find difficult to adapt to new situations or surroundings. Thus we need to learn some meaningful lessons from dogs.

No. of words in the summary: 78

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Lesson from Dogs
Answer:
Dog’s appetite

• eats only when hungry,
• drinks only when thirsty

Adaptability

• dog quickly adapts to its new environment and family,
• loves the family and make them happy

Tasks

• a dog does its work with full vigour
• it rests when all is done

Death
dies elsewhere to avoid problem to the owner

Man

• takes unnecessary stress
• unable to adapt
• needs to learn from dogs nature

Question 45.
Read the following advertisement and prepare a resiime/bio-data/CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified.
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted
Applications are invited for the post of a Security Officer in a Multinational Company from men with a degree in any subject and a ‘C’ certificate in NCC. Eligible candidates please apply with curriculum vitae to
Box No. 123, C/o. The Hindu, Chennai – 600002
Answer:

2nd Aug 2020

From
XXXX
YYYY
To
Post box No. 123
C/o The Hindu
Chennai – 600 002
Sir,
Sub: Applying for the post of Security Officer – Reg.
With reference to your advertisement in ‘The Hindu” dated 02.08.2020, I wish to apply for the post of ‘Security Officer’ in your company. I have furnished my curriculum vitae below for your kind perusal and favourable consideration.
Curriculum Vitae:
Name : XXXX
Date of Birth : 31.12.1991
Address : YYYY
Qualification : B.Sc., 1st class, ‘C’ certificate in NCC from Loyola college
Experience : Security Officer for 3 years, AKK Foods, T. Nagar, Chennai – 17
Languages known : Tamil, Telugu, Hindi, English
If I am selected, I assure that, I shall do my job to the best of my ability.

Yours faithfully
XXXX

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘How will you protect the Earth from the evil of deforestation’.
Answer:
How will you protect the Earth from the evil of deforestation
Deforestation leaves wild animals and birds homeless. We, humans face a lot of undesirable environmental changes. The most threatening one is Global Warming. Deforestation affects seasonal cycles. We experience droughts or floods, long summer or winter, thus, deforestation affects seasonal cycles. One more harmful effect of deforestation is soil erosion. Thus, the harmful consequences of deforestation are manifold. Tropical rainforests are being felled substantially for the purpose of farming and human habitation.

Afforestation should be done in a large scale. This should be initiated by government and we all should actively participate and involve and most importantly act to protect mother nature. We should permit tribal people to use twigs and dry woods instead of felling trees for firewood. If we incentivize tree plantation in the fringes of the forests, the tribal community will earn some livelihood and at the same time protect the forests from greedy timber smugglers.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) Neither of the boys are guilty.
(b) Balaji is junior than me.
(c) He is a honourable man.
(d) Slow and steady win the race
(e) The news are very good.
Answer:
(a) Neither of the boys is guilty.
(b) Balaji is junior to me.
(c) He is an honourable man.
(d) Slow and steady wins the race.
(e) The news is very good.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) Vani’s ……… daughter ………. to the new situation well, (adopted / adapted)
(b) Dravid ……….. play the piano. (Fill in with a modal verb)
(c) She ………. read many books in school. (Fill in with a semi-modal)
(d) ……….. you have an entry pass, you can get in. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) adopted, adapted
(b) can
(c) used to
(d) If

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) General Elections take place after every five years in India.
(b) The Reserve Bank revised the interest rate.
(c) One thousand interest connections were given in Pollachi.
(d) The new serial will begin on Monday.
(e) Athletics rarely gets coverage in the Media.
(Cpmmerce, Politics, Sports, Maths, Computer)
Answer:
(a) Politics;
(b) Commerce;
(c) Computer;
(d) Media;
(e) Sports

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Tejaswini Sawant is an Indian shooter from the Maharashtrian city of Kolhapur. Her father Ravinder Sawant was an officer in the Indian Navy. Tejaswini represented India in 2004 at the 9th South Asian Sports Federation Games. She, in the 2006 Commonwealth Games, won one gold medal in Women’s 10m Air Rifle Singles and Women’s 10m Air Rifle pairs. In 2009, in the 50m Rifle 3 positions, she won a bronze and in 2010 she became a world champion in 50m Rifle Prone game held in Germany. In the 2010 Commonwealth Games, she won one bronze and two silver medals in the women’s 50m Rifle Prone Pairs, the Women’s 50m Rifle Prone Singles and the Women’s 50m Rifle 3 positions respectively. Tejaswini was the first Indian shooter to win a Gold medal at the world championship in 50m Rifle Prone Game.
Questions.

1. Who is Tejaswini Sawant?
2. In which year did she represent India at the 9th South Asian Sports Federation Games?
3. In which year did she win gold medal?
4. Where was the Rifle Prone game held in where she became the world champion?
5. What did she win in 2010 Commonwealth Games?

Answer:

1. Tejaswini Sawant is an Indian shooter.
2. She represented India at the 9th South Asian Sports Federation Games in 2004.
3. In 2006, she won a Gold medal in the Commonwealth Games.
4. She became a world champion in the 50m Rifle Prone game held in Germany.
5. In the 2010 Commonwealth Games, she won one bronze and two silver medals.

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Choose the correct answer form the given alternatives.

Question 1.
Area bounded by the curve y = x(4 – x) between the limits 0 and 4 with x-axis is ________
(a) \(\frac{30}{3}\) sq.units
(b) \(\frac{31}{2}\) sq.units
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) sq.units
(d) \(\frac{15}{2}\) sq.units
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) sq.units
Hint:

Question 2.
Area bounded by the curve y = e^-2x between the limits 0 ≤ x ≤ ∞ is ______
(a) 1 sq.units
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\) sq.unit
(c) 5 sq.units
(d) 2 sq.units
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\) sq.unit
Hint:

Question 3.
Area bounded by the curve y = \(\frac{1}{x}\) between the limits 1 and 2 is ________
(a) log 2 sq.units
(b) log 5 sq.units
(c) log 3 sq.units
(d) log 4 sq.units
Answer:
(a) log 2 sq.units
Hint:
Area = \(\int_{1}^{2} \frac{1}{x} d x\)
= \((\log x)_{1}^{2}\)
= log 2 – log 1
= log 2 (Since log 1 = 0)

Question 4.
If the marginal revenue function of a firm is MR = \(e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\), then revenue is ______
(a) \(-10 e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\)
(b) \(1-e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\)
(c) \(10\left(1-e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\right)\)
(d) \(e^{\frac{-x}{10}}+10\)
Answer:
(c) \(10\left(1-e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\right)\)
Hint:

Question 5.
If MR and MC denotes the marginal revenue and marginal cost functions, then the profit functions is ________
(a) P = ∫(MR – MC) dx + k
(b) P = ∫(MR + MC) dx + k
(c) P = ∫(MR) (MC) dx + k
(d) P = ∫(R – C) dx + k
Answer:
(a) P = ∫(MR – MC) dx + k

Question 6.
The demand and supply functions are given by D(x) = 16 – x² and S(x) = 2x² + 4 are under perfect competition, then the equilibrium price x is ________
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c)4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2
Hint:
D(x) = 16 – x² , S(x) = 2x² + 4
Under equilibriuim, D(x) = S(x)
⇒ 16 – x² = 2x² + 4
⇒ 3x² = 12
⇒ x = ±2.
Since x cannot be negative x = 2.

Question 7.
The marginal revenue and marginal cost functions of a company are MR = 30 – 6x and MC = -24 + 3x where x is the product, then the profit function is _______
(a) 9x² + 54x
(b) 9x² – 54x
(c) 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\)
(d) 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\) + k
Answer:
(d) 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\) + k
Hint:
Profit = ∫(MR – MC) dx + k
= ∫(30 – 60) – (-24 + 3x) dx + k
= ∫(54 – 9x) dx + k
= 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\) + k

Question 8.
The given demand and supply function are given by D(x) = 20 – 5x and S(x) = 4x + 8 if they are under perfect competition then the equilibrium demand is _______
(a) 40
(b) \(\frac{41}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{40}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{41}{5}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{40}{3}\)
Hint:
D(x) = S(x) in equilibrium
20 – 5x = 4x + 8
9x = 12
x = \(\frac{4}{3}\) = x₀
p₀ = 20 – 5(\(\frac{4}{3}[/ltex])
= 20 – [latex]\frac{20}{3}\)
= \(\frac{40}{3}\)

Question 9.
If the marginal revenue MR = 35 + 7x – 3x², then the average revenue AR is _______
(a) 35x + \(\frac{7 x^{2}}{2}\) – x³
(b) 35x + \(\frac{7 x}{2}\) – x²
(c) 35 + \(\frac{7 x}{2}\) + x²
(d) 35 + 7x + x²
Answer:
(b) 35x + \(\frac{7 x}{2}\) – x²
Hint:

Question 10.
The profit of a function p(x) is maximum when _______
(a) MC – MR = 0
(b) MC = 0
(c) MR = 0
(d) MC + MR = 0
Answer:
(a) MC – MR = 0
Hint:
P = Revenue – Cost
P is maximum when \(\frac{d p}{d x}\) = 0
\(\frac{d p}{d x}\) = R'(x) – C'(x) = MR – MC = 0

Question 11.
For the demand function p(x), the elasticity of demand with respect to price is unity then ________
(a) revenue is constant
(b) cost function is constant
(c) profit is constant
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) revenue is constant
Hint:

Question 12.
The demand function for the marginal function MR = 100 – 9x² is _______
(a) 100 – 3x²
(b) 100x – 3x²
(c) 100x – 9x²
(d) 100 + 9x²
Answer:
(a) 100 – 3x²
Hint:
R = ∫(MR) dx + c₁
R = ∫(100 – 9x²) dx + c₁
R = 100x – 3x³ + c₁
When R = 0, x = 0, c₁ = 0
R = 100x – 3x³
Demand function is \(\frac{R}{x}\) = 100 – 3x²

Question 13.
When x₀ = 5 and p₀ = 3 the consumer’s surplus for the demand function p_d = 28 – x² is _______
(a) 250 units
(b) \(\frac{250}{3}\) units
(c) \(\frac{251}{2}\) units
(d) \(\frac{251}{3}\) units
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{250}{3}\) units
Hint:

Question 14.
When x₀ = 2 and P₀ = 12 the producer’s surplus for the supply function P_s = 2x² + 4 is _______
(a) \(\frac{31}{5}\) units
(b) \(\frac{31}{2}\) units
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) units
(d) \(\frac{30}{7}\) units
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) units
Hint:

Question 15.
Area bounded by y = x between the lines y = 1, y = 2 with y-axis is ______
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\) sq.units
(b) \(\frac{5}{2}\) sq.units
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\) sq.units
(d) 1 sq.unit
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\) sq.units
Hint:

Question 16.
The producer’s surplus when the supply function for a commodity is P = 3 + x and x₀ = 3 is _______
(a) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Ans:
(b) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
Hint:
x₀ = 3, p = 3 + x ⇒ p₀ = 3 + 3 = 6

Question 17.
The marginal cost function is MC = 100√x. find AC given that TC = 0 when the output is zero is ______
(a) \(\frac{200}{3} x^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{200}{3} x^{\frac{3}{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{200}{3 x^{\frac{3}{2}}}\)
(d) \(\frac{200}{3 x^{\frac{1}{2}}}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{200}{3} x^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
Hint:

Question 18.
The demand and supply function of a commodity are P(x) = (x – 5)² and S(x) = x² + x + 3 then the equilibrium quantity x₀ is ________
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 19
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint:
At equilibrium, P(x) = S(x)
⇒ (x – 5)² = x² + x + 3
⇒ x² – 10x + 25 = x² + x + 3
⇒ 11x = 22
⇒ x = 2

Question 19.
The demand and supply function of a commodity are D(x) = 25 – 2x and S(x) = \(\frac{10+x}{4}\) then the equilibrium price p₀ is _________
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 10
Answer:
(a) 5
Hint:
At equilibrium, D(x) = S(x)
25 – 2x = \(\frac{10+x}{4}\)
⇒ 100 – 8x = 10 + x
⇒ x = 10
That is x₀ = 10
P₀ = 25 – 2(x₀) = 25 – 20 = 5

Question 20.
If MR and MC denote the marginal revenue and marginal cost and MR – MC = 36x – 3x² – 81, then the maximum profit at x is equal to _______
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 9
Hint:
The maximum profit occurs when MR – MC = 0
⇒ 36x – 3x² – 81 = 0
⇒ x² – 12x + 27 = 0
⇒ (x – 9)(x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = 9, 3
Now \(\frac{d p}{d x}\) = 36x – 3x² – 81 ⇒ \(\frac{d^{2} p}{d x^{2}}\) = 36 – 9x
At x = 9, \(\frac{d^{2} p}{d x^{2}}\) = 36 – 81 < 0
At x = 3, \(\frac{d^{2} p}{d x^{2}}\) = 36 – 27 > 0
Therefore profit is maximum when x = 9.

Question 21.
If the marginal revenue of a firm is constant, then the demand function is ________
(a) MR
(b) MC
(c) C(x)
(d) AC
Answer:
(a) MR
Hint:
MR = k (constant)
Revenue function R = ∫(MR) dx + c₁
= ∫kdx + c₁
= kx + c₁
When R = 0, x = 0, ⇒ c₁ = 0
R = kx
Demand function p = \(\frac{R}{x}=\frac{k x}{x}\) = k constant
⇒ p = MR

Question 22.
For a demand function p, if \(\int \frac{d p}{p}=k \int \frac{d x}{x}\) then k is equal to _______
(a) η_d
(b) -η_d
(c) \(\frac{-1}{\eta_{d}}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\eta_{d}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{-1}{\eta_{d}}\)
Hint:

Question 23.
Area bounded by y = e^x between the limits 0 to 1 is _________
(a) (e – 1) sq.units
(b) (e + 1) sq.units
(c) (1 – \(\frac{1}{e}\)) sq.units
(d) (1 + \(\frac{1}{e}\)) sq.units
Answer:
(a) (e – 1) sq.units
Hint:

Question 24.
The area bounded by the parabola y² = 4x bounded by its latus rectum is _______
(a) \(\frac{16}{3}\) sq.units
(b) \(\frac{8}{3}\) sq.units
(c) \(\frac{72}{3}\) sq.units
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\) sq.units
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{8}{3}\) sq.units
Hint:
y² = 4x
Comparing with y² =4ax gives a = 1
Since parabola is symmetric about x – axis,

Question 25.
Area bounded by y = |x| between the limits 0 and 2 is _______
(a) 1 sq.units
(b) 3 sq.units
(c) 2 sq.units
(d) 4 sq.units
Answer:
(c) 2 sq.units
Hint:
When x lies between 0 and 2
|x| = x

Area = 2 sq.units

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TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 3

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
Her silver locks were scattered untidily.
(a) orderly
(b) hygienically
(c) neatly
(d) disorderly
Answer:
(d) disorderly

Question 2.
Men with fallible memories try to make out a case for their superiority.
(a) error-prone
(b) infallible
(c) valuable
(d) malicious
Answer:
(a) error-prone

Question 3.
Even among the best of us ……….. there is wordly guile.
(a) morality
(b) cunningness
(c) virtue
(d) wisdom
Answer:
(b) cunningness

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I was the purchaser of a picture.
(a) consumer
(b) client
(c) seller
(d) bidder
Answer:
(c) seller

Question 5.
It is the immediate concern of every individual.
(a) indifference
(b) worry
(c) anxiety
(d) apprehension
Answer:
(a) indifference

Question 6.
I was shedding blood in a lavish manner.
(a) tough
(b) Extravagant
(c) easy
(d) frugal
Answer:
(d) frugal

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “reputation”.
(a) repute
(b) rep
(c) reput
(d) reption
Answer:
(b) rep

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “Nyctophobia”.
(a) the fear of sleeping in the dark
(b) the fear of falling in love
(c) the fear of being in the dark
(d) the fear of narcotics
Answer:
(c) the fear of being in the dark

Question 9.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “blue”.
(a) chair
(b) berry
(c) black
(d) colour
Answer:
(b) berry

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
These were dreams of long standing that had finally come to fruition.
(a) bear fruit
(b) fulfilment of a plan
(c) eat fruits
(d) sell fruits
Answer:
(b) fulfilment of a plan

Question 11.
Choose the phrasal verb from the options given to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Don’t ever mock the condition of poor people.
(a) look into
(b) look down upon
(c) look forward to
(d) look towards
Answer:
(b) look down upon

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “code”.
(a) in
(b) re
(c) un
(d) de
Answer:
(d) de

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “FAQ”.
(a) Frequently Answered Question
(b) Frequently Asked Question
(c) Fire Alarming Quiz
(d) Fairly Asked Question
Answer:
(b) Frequently Asked Question

Question 14.
The number of syllables in ‘beautiful’ is
(a) tetra
(b) tri
(c) penta
(d) di
Answer:
(a) tetra

Question 15.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He has dedicated his life for their welfare.
(a) SVCA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVOA
Answer:
(d) SVOA

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
I am good ……….. playing pranks.
(a) on
(b) at
(c) to
(d) From
Answer:
(b) at

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
She plays basketball on Sundays,………….?
(a) isn’t she
(b) shouldn’t she
(c) doesn’t she
(d) can’t she
Answer:
(c) doesn’t she

Question 18.
Choose the right combination for the blended word “spork”.
(a) spoon + cork
(b) spoon + fork
(c) spoon + work
(d) spoon + dork
Answer:
(b) spoon + fork

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
The ancestral house has been handed down from generation to generation.
(a) stored
(b) distributed
(c) hidden
(d) delivered
Answer:
(d) delivered

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
The criminals, two of ………… managed to escape, were caught yesterday.
(a) which
(b) whom
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(b) whom

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“His brow is deeply lined with thought, his head is highly domed;”
(a) Whose looks are described here?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Macavity’s looks are described over here.
(b) Personification.

Question 22.
“Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
(b) What do you mean by ‘rainy eyes’?
Answer:
(a) Metaphor.
(b) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.

Question 23.
“And reassure myself anew
Thai you are not me and I’m not you.”
(a) Who are ‘they’?
(b) What does the poet reassure?
Answer:
(a) ‘They’ are athletes who play rough unmindful of cracking bones or jaws of the opponent in the field.
(b) The poet reassures himself that he is not one of the athletes and the athletes are not in his group either. So, he is safe.

Question 24.
“And ‘this my faith that every flower Enjoys the air it breathes….”
(a) What is the poet’s faith?
(b) What trait of Nature do we see here?
Answer:
(a) The poet has faith that nature lives, breathes and enjoys its own presence. Twigs, birds, creepers all live in harmony with each other in absolute bliss and contentment.
(b) Harmonious relationship of birds, brook, plants and creepers and willingness to co-exist with one another is the trait evident in nature.

Question 25.
“Most of all, I want to relearn
How to laugh, for my laugh in the mirror
Shows only my teeth like a snake’s bare fangs!”
(a) Why does the poet want to relearn how to laugh?
(b) Whom does the poet want to relearn to laugh from?
Answer:
(a) The poet has forgotten to laugh naturally. He wants to relearn to laugh because his laugh in front of the mirror shows his teeth like a snake’s bare fangs.
(b) The poet wants to relearn to laugh from his little son.

Question 26.
“The ones that are true and stand on their own
Are really the ladder for the rise of Man.”
(a) Who help in the progress of the society?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the second line.
Answer:
(a) People who are true to themselves and rely on their own skills help the progress of the society.
(b) Metaphor

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Mother : Can we go to the mall this evening?
Bharath : Here it is, Thank you!
Answer:
Bharath’s mom asked Bharath if they could go to the mall that evening. Bharath said that he was afraid he couldn’t as he was preparing for his examination.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
They/He/She/Someone gifted me a dress. I received it with joy.
Answer:
A dress was gifted to me. It was received with joy.

Question 29.
Convert the following into a simple sentence.
Gold is expensive yet every lady is crazy after it.
Answer:
Though gold is expensive, every lady is crazy after it.

Question 30.
I forgot the answer. I lost marks. (Combine using ‘If’)
Answer:
If I forgot the answer, I would lose marks.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Have I not reason to lament
What Man has made of Man?
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: William Wordsworth was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars and amidst happy nature couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: William Wordsworth derived extreme pleasure listening to the songs of birds and voiceless communication of joy between plants, twigs and flowers. Though he could not fathom the meaning, he realized the blissful state of nature. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property. So, he lamented “what man has made of man”.

Question 32.
I want to be what I used to be
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while contrasting the present hypocrisy with his past genuine relationships.

Explanation: During childhood the poet, like any child, laughed with human warmth. He used to express his love through his eyes. Now, he is changing his faces like dresses to suit the occasions and to ensure social acceptance. So, he wants to be what he used to be in the childhood.

Question 33.
And when you think he’s half asleep, he’s always wide awake
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.

Context: The poet says these words about the ability of the mysterious cat to hoodwink everyone.

Explanation: Macavity is a master of deceitfulness and suavity. When he appears to be half- asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What was the reaction of Bryson’s wife to his antics?
Answer:
Mrs. Bryson saw the quixotic behaviour of her husband. She was neither angry nor exasperated. But she just expressed her deep sense of wonder. She said, ‘I can’t believe you do this for a living”.

Question 35.
‘Wisdom was meant for the mansion, not for the market place’ What does this statement signify?
Answer:
During the monarchical or feudal days, universities had to train scholars and poets to adorn the chambers of royalty or the gilded mansions of the lords and nobles. Those were the days when eminent scholars were not asked to confront the problems of the masses. They were content to work in secluded places. So, the speaker says that their wisdom was meant for the mansion and not for the market place.

Question 36.
What was the turning point in the relationship between the boy author and his grandma?
Answer:
The boy author’s parents got settled in the city. They sent for them. That was a turning point in the relationship between the author and his grandmother.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences.

1. enters/millions tons/the/every year/of/ocean/plastic
2. close/like/others/helping/my/friends
3. hawkers/there/eatables/so many/were/selling

Answer:

1. Millions tons of plastic enters the ocean every year.
2. My close friends like helping others.
3. There were so many hawkers selling eatables.

Question 38.
Describe the process of withdrawing cash from an ATM.
Answer:

1. Find an ATM of any bank.
2. Take your ATM card and put it in the slot.
3. Select the option – withdrawal.
4. Enter your secret pin when asked.
5. Wait until your transaction is complete and collect your currency.
6. Collect your card and transaction slip and leave the ATM.
7. Never share your ATM number or secret pin.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Mumbai, Hyderabad Join UNESCO’s Network Of Creative Cities
2. “Jammu And Kashmir, Ladakh Taking Step Towards New Future Today,” Says PM
3. Delhi Is The Most Polluted City In The World Today, Says Air Quality Report

Answer:
1. Mumbai and Hyderabad are among the 66 urban settlements designated as creative cities by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). The designation came on World Cities’ Day, celebrated on October 31, making the two cities part of the 246-member Organisation’s Network of Creative Cities.

2. Jammu and Kashmir will have political stability and the cycle of governments formed and brought down for vested interests will stop, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said today on his government’s decision to end special status to the state under Article 370 and split it into two union territories that come into existence from today.

3. New Delhi in 2019 topped the list for being the most polluted city in the world, according to a real-time air quality ranking report by IQ Air Visual, a portal that tracks air quality and air pollution across the globe.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.
Answer:

1. Haste makes ……….. (results, waste, mess)
2. Look before you ……….. (leap, jump, walk)
3. ……… loves company. (Wise, Miser, Misery)

Answer:

1. waste
2. leap
3. Misery

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Would you agree that the author’s grandmother was a person strong in character? If yes, give instances that show this.
Answer:
Yes, I agree that the author’s grandmother was a person strong in character. She was a strong woman with strong beliefs. Although she was not formally educated, she was serious about the author’s education. She could not adjust herself to the western way of life, Science and English education. She hated music and disapproved of its teaching in school. She was a deeply religious lady.

Her lips were always saying a silent prayer. She was always telling the beads of her rosary. She went to the temple daily and read the scriptures. She was distressed to know that there was no teaching about God and holy books at Khushwant’s new English school.

She was a kind lady. She used to feed dogs in the village. In the city, she took to feeding the sparrows. Although old in years and weak in body, she had great strength of mind. Knowing her impending death, she played a drum and sang with full-throated ease along with her neighbours. Just before her death, she refused to talk to the members of the family as she did not want to waste her time. She wanted to make up for the time lost when she had not prayed to God. She lay peacefully in bed saying prayers and telling the beads of her rosary till she breathed her last.

[OR]

Why is Robert Lynd amazed at the efficiency of humans to remember things?
Answer:
Robert Lynd is amazed of the efficiency of human memory. Modem man remembers telephone numbers, names of film stars, cricketers, football champions and even notorious murderers. He remarks with jest that man does not forget a single item of his clothing. No one forgets to shut the door when leaving the house. The institution of family survives in modem cities because ordinary people have efficient memory power.

In the ordinary life, man remembers almost everything he is expected to remember like birthdays and Valentine’s day. He remembers appointments for dinner and lunch. He remembers what the weather was in a long-past August. Not even one in thousand forgets, simple things like switching off lights before going upstairs or a single item of dressing. Almost everybody remembers to do the right things of the right moment till it is time to go to bed.

Question 42.
Explain the things the poet has learnt when he grew into an adult.
Answer:
The African poet observes a marked change in the attitude of modem people. Those who were once so genuine, warm and sincere, have now suddenly turned cold and hostile towards him. He realizes that the early values in the society like sincerity, good-naturedness, simplicity, whole-heartedness, hospitality, friendliness, originality and uniqueness have now drastically changed.

The earlier warmth and heartfulness have gone. He finds himself behaving the same way as those around him. He has learnt to wear different faces for different occasions. He wears faces like dresses. He says not what his heart tells him. His smiles are also fake. He smiles only to be socially accepted. He has learnt to say “Good bye”, when he wants to say ‘good riddance’. After being bored, he brings a fake smile and says “It’s been nice talking to you”.

[OR]

Do you think the poet wants to say that man is unhappy because he has lost his link with nature and forgotten how to enjoy nature or because man is cruel to other men?
Answer:
The poet William Wordsworth wants to convey the readiness of nature to teach the art of living together in harmony, peace and bliss. But man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature. His greed and love for possession of territories and abject cruelty to fellow humans and nature has disillusioned the poet. He has almost lost faith in the capacity of humans to love and live in harmony with nature.

Man has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. Rare species in the forests are on the brink of extinction. Animals and birds in the red list are growing in number to the great distress of nature lovers. So, I believe Wordsworth is unhappy for both (i.e) man’s losing the link with nature and his infinite capacity to be cruel to other men.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
‘A Shot in the Dark’ – story of Philip Sletherby – befriended Mrs. Saltpen Jago, – Sletherby intends to achieve – using Mrs. Jago’s influence – train journey – Sletherby – gets Bertie, a travelling companion – Bertie claim – Mrs. Jago’s second son – Sletherby doubts – crest on Bertie – does not match – with Mrs. Jago – not able to tell mother’s hair colour – Bertie asks to borrow-Sletherby refuses. Reaches Mrs. Jago’s estate – two crests for Mrs. Jago’s estate – one matches with Bertie – Mrs. Jago of late, changed hair colour.
Answer:
Philip Sletherby is a pleasant looking young man who was well built and served the army. After four years of serving the army he returns and leaves for Chalkshire to meet Mrs. Saltpen Jago as she was an influential woman in Chalkshire and London. It was very important for Philip Sletherby to impress her. Mr. Philip Sletherby was also a politician but not much known to the people of Chalkshire. He wishes to contest for an MP seat in Chalkshire with the recommendation of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. Fortunately he had been invited to spend the weekend with her at Brill Manor.

He believes that his political pilgrimage would turn out to be a blessing. He encounters an angry young travelling companion. Mr. Philip Sletherby loves things and uses people to advance his career prospects. At the very beginning, he doubts the credentials of Bertie who introduces himself as the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen Jago. He is quick to judge people. Though the young man wanted only three pounds, he quizzes him with many questions about his royal crest and contradicts him with his ice- cold logic. He offers to assist the young man in distress. But when Bertie wants to leave, he refuses to part with money saying that his mom was a pronounced blonde.

He prided himself for his cleverness. But he is shocked to see the double crest on the car’s door panel, demi- lion holding a cross-crosslet in his paw and a greyhound. He is petrified to learn from K.C. that Mrs. Saltpen-Jago had recently dyed her beautiful dark brown hair blonde. Mr. Sletherby realized that his cleverness has, in reality, turned out to be his meanness. He becomes troubled that his political future may be lost due to his three pound de-buckle. He has proved himself penny wise and pound foolish.

[OR]

Many patients wait – dentist’s clinic – tensed – tooth – being extracted – the arrival of the dentist – Joe, the first patient – called in – the nurse goes – with hammer – reaction – other visitors- go away fear. – was to open tool box.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading.

The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would be used in dental surgery.

The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
People moan about poverty as a great evil; and it seems to be an accepted belief that if people had plenty of money, they would be happy and useful and get more out of life. But, as a rule, there is more genuine satisfaction in life and more obtained from life in the humble cottages of the poor men than in the palaces of the rich. I always pity the sons and daughters of rich men, who are attended by servants and have governesses at a later stage. At the same time, I am glad to think they do not know what they have missed.

It is because I know how sweet and happy and pure the home of honest poverty is, how free from perplexing care and from social envies and jealousies how loving and united its members are in the common interest of supporting the family – that I sympathise with the rich man’s son and congratulate the poor man’s son. It is indeed for these reasons that from the ranks of the poor, so many strong, eminent, self-reliant men have always sprung and must spring in the future. If you find a list of the immortals who weren’t born to die, you will find that most of them were born poor.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 214
No. of words to be written in the summary: 214/3 = 71 ± 5

Rough Draft
Poverty is thought to be a great evil. People believe that only those who are rich will be happy and be abIe to get more out of life. But in reality it is the poor men, who enjoy the life to the fullest. It is only the poor people who are able to explore various opportunities that come their way and use it sensibly to achieve big in life is happiness in their homes as there is no social envies or jealousy. All famous people who live in our memones were born poor.

Fair Draft
Poverty – A Blessing In Disguise:
Poverty is thought to be a great evil. People believe that if they are rich, they will be happy and get more out of life. But in reality it is the poor men, who enjoy the life to the fullest. Only the poor people are able to think freely and explore various opportunities that come their way. There is happiness in their homes as there is no social envies or jealousy. All famous people who live in our memories were born poor.

No. of words in the summary: 82

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Poverty-A Blessing In Disguise
Answer:
Poverty – A great evil Accepted belief – rich r hpy.,
Genuine satisfaction A life in poor cottages
Pity rich m’s kids -hpy., they know not what they miss
Home A the Honest Poor
Hpy., pure, loving, united
free 4m worries, envy
Common Interest – Support family
Strong, eminent, self-reliant m arise
Conclusion: The list A immortals were mostly born poor,
Abbreviations: R – are; A – of; hpy. – happy; 4m – from; m – men

Question 45.
You are Radhika, studying in ZZZ School, Nilakkottai. There is an irregular supply of electricity in your town almost everyday. Write a letter to the Principal requesting him to arrange for a generator in the school.
Answer:

2nd June 2020

From
Radhika
ZZZ School

To
The Principal
ZZZ School
Nilakkottai

Respected Sir,
Sub: Arrange Generator in the School.
With due respect, I would like to submit the following facts for your kind consideration. As you know, the summer is in full swing. The temperature has already crossed 29°C. The afternoons are very hot. To add to our plight, the electricity department resorts to frequent and unannounced power-cuts. This irregular supply of electricity hinders our studies as it affects our concentration and efficiency. We are preparing hard for the forthcoming examinations. In the welfare of all the students, I request you to arrange for a generator of high power in the school.
Thanking you

Yours faithfully,
Radhika.

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Cleanliness is next to Godliness’.
Answer:
Cleanliness is next to Godliness
The famous proverb ‘Cleanliness is next to Godliness’ indicates that cleanliness is the one of the most essential parts of a healthy life. As we all know that the habit of cleanliness is in our tradition and culture. Elders stress on the need to be clean always and insinuates us to do pooja and have a meal only after taking a shower. Having food should be preceded by proper hand wash. Even in some houses there are restrictions of entering to the temple and kitchen without taking bath.

Priests tell us to take bath, wash hands and wear clean clothes before involving in the pooja. There was a strict tradition of hand washing before meals among the Jewish elders too. There is a close connection between personal cleanliness and moral health of the person. Personal cleanliness is considered as the symbol of purity of body and soul. People who do not take daily bath or wear dirty clothes generally lose their confidence, self-respect and well being. Regular and proper cleanliness of self and surroundings prevent germs and thus keeps diseases out of our way.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) Chitra bought half litre of milk.
(b) It has been raining since five hours.
(c) The cat jumped on the wall.
(d) One of his brother is in Sri Lanka.
(e) Children prefer TV games than story books.
Answer:
(a) Chitra bought half a litre of milk.
(b) It has been raining for five hours.
(c) The cat jumped off the wall.
(d) One of his brothers is in Sri Lanka.
(e) Children prefer TV games to story books.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The of cattle……..the roar of a lion and trembled with fear. (heard /herd)
(b) If you worked hard, you ……… pass, (appropriate modal verb)
(c) My grandmother ………… take me to temple on Fridays, (appropriate semi-modal verb)
(d) ………. bad weather, the cricket match was cancelled. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) herd, heard
(b) will
(c) used to
(d) Due to

Question 47.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Invasions of exotic species into new geographical areas sometimes occur naturally without human agency. However, human actions have increased this trickle to a flood. Human caused introductions may occur either accidently or as a consequence of human transport, or intentionally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities.

Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and native communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake, Boiga irregularis into Guam, an island in the pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction. One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there. If the species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome.

The extent to which this homogenization can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virtue of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introductions have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogenous.

It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to recolonize after the last glaciations).Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arises where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.
Question.

1. What has usually triggered the invasions of exotic species in different parts of the world?
2. What do you mean by “legitimate”?
3. How were 10 endemic forest bird species made extinct?
4. What is the major reason for biodiversity?
5. What is biodiversity?

Answer:

1. Human actions have triggered the invasion of exotic species either accidentally or as a consequence of transport.
2. Legitimate means ‘conforming to the law or to rules’.
3. The 10 bird species were brought to extinction through nest predation.
4. One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there.
5. Biodiversity is a term that describes the variety and variability of life on Earth.

[OR]

Frame a dialogue between an inspector and a civilian who has lost his bike.
Answer:
Inspector : What brings you here?
Anand : Sir, I lost my Royal Enfield bike.
Inspector : Where had you parked it?
Anand : I had parked it in front of Bank of India in Mahalakshmi Street.
Inspector : Is it not a “No parking zone”?
Anand : Yes, Sir, it was a “No parking Zone”.
Inspector : Then the traffic police might have towed it away.
Anand : How do I verily if my bike has been towed away sir?
Inspector : Go behind the station and see if your bike is there. Pay the fine and take it.
Anand : Okay Sir. Thank you so much.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.3

Question 1.
Calculate consumer’s surplus if the demand function p = 50 – 2x and x = 20
Solution:
Given demand function p = 50 – 2x, x₀ = 20

Hence the consumer’s surplus is 400 units.

Question 2.
Calculate consumer’s surplus if the demand function p = 122 – 5x – 2x², and x = 6
Solution:
Demand function p = 122 – 5x – 2x² and x = 6
when x = x₀ = 6
p₀ = 122 – 5(6) – 2(36)
= 122 – 30 – 72
= 20

Hence the consumer’s surplus is 378 units

Question 3.
The demand function p = 85 – 5x and supply function p = 3x – 35. Calculate the equilibrium price and quantity demanded. Also, calculate consumer’s surplus.
Solution:
Given p_d = 85 – 5x and p_s = 3x – 35
At equilibrium prices p_d = p_s
85 – 5x = 3x – 35
⇒ 8x = 120
⇒ x = 15
p₀ = 85 – 5(15) = 85 – 75 = 10

The equilibrium price is ₹10, the quantity demanded is 15. The consumer surplus is 562.50 units.

Question 4.
The demand function for a commodity is p = e^-x .Find the consumer’s surplus when p = 0.5.
Solution:
Given demand function p = e^-x
At p = 0.5, (i.e) p₀ = 0.5,
we have p₀ = \(e^{-x_{0}}\)
⇒ 0.5 = \(e^{-x_{0}}\)
Taking log_e on both sides
log_e(0.5) = -x₀

Question 5.
Calculate the producer’s surplus at x = 5 for the supply function p = 7 + x.
Solution:
Given supply function is p = 7 + x, x₀ = 5
p₀ = 7 + x₀ = 7 + 5 = 12
Producer’s surplus

Hence the producer’s surplus is \(\frac{25}{2}\) units

Question 6.
If the supply function for a product is p = 3x + 5x². Find the producer’s surplus when x = 4.
Solution:
Given the supply function p_s = 3x + 5x²
when x = 4, (i.e) x₀ = 4,
p₀ = 3 (4) + 5(4)² = 12 + 80 = 92

Hence the producer’s surplus is 237.3 units.

Question 7.
The demand function for a commodity is p = \(\frac{36}{x+4}\). Find the consumer’s surplus when the prevailing market price is ₹ 6.
Solution:
Given p = \(\frac{36}{x+4}\)
The marker price is ₹6 (i.e) p₀ = 6

So the consumer’s surplus when the prevailing market price is ₹ 6 is (36 log \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 12) units.

Question 8.
The demand and supply functions under perfect competition are p_d = 1600 – x² and p_s = 2x² + 400 respectively. Find the producer’s surplus.
Solution:
Given demand function p_d = 1600 – x² and
Supply function p_s = 2x² + 400
Perfect competition means there is equilibrium between supply and demand
p_s = p_d
⇒ 1600 – x² = 2x² + 400
⇒ 3x² = 1200
⇒ x² = 400
⇒ x = ± 20
The value of x cannot be negative. So x = 20 we take x₀ = 20.
p₀ = 1600 – (20)² = 1600 – 400 = 1200


Hence the producer’s surplus is \(\frac{32000}{3}\) units.

Question 9.
Under perfect competition for a commodity the demand and supply laws are \(p_{d}=\frac{8}{x+1}-2\) and \(p_{s}=\frac{x+3}{2}\) respectively. Find the consumer’s and producer’s surplus.
Solution:
Given \(p_{d}=\frac{8}{x+1}-2\) and \(p_{s}=\frac{x+3}{2}\)
Here, since there is perfect competition, there is equilibrium, that is p_d = p_s

Since the value of x cannot be negative, x = 1 we take this value as x₀


Hence under perfect competition,
(i) The consumer’s surplus is (8 log 2-4) units
(ii) The producer’s surplus is \(\frac{1}{4}\) units.

Question 10.
The demand equation for a products is x = \(\sqrt{100-p}\) and the supply equation is x = \(\frac{p}{2}\) – 10. Determine the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus, under market equilibrium.
Solution:
Given demand equation is x = \(\sqrt{100-p}\) and supply equation is x = \(\frac{p}{2}\) – 10
So the demand law is x² = 100 – p
⇒ p_d = 100 – x²
Supply law is given by x + 10 = \(\frac{p}{2}\)
⇒ p_s = 2(x + 10)
Under equilibrium p_d = p_s
⇒ 100 – x² = 2(x + 10)
⇒ 100 – x² = 2x + 20
⇒ x² + 2x – 80 = 0
⇒ (x + 10) (x – 8) = 0
⇒ x = -10, 8
The value of x cannot be negative, So x = 8
When x₀ = 8, p₀ = 100 – 8² = 100 – 64 = 36

= 288 – 2(112)
= 64
So the producer’s surplus is 64 units.

Question 11.
Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus for the demand function p_d = 25 – 3x and supply function p_s = 5 + 2x.
Solution:
Given p_d = 25 – 3x and p_s = 5 + 2x
At market equilibrium, p_d = ps_s
⇒ 25 – 3x = 5 + 2x
⇒ 5x = 20
⇒ x = 4
When x₀ = 4, p₀ = 25 – 12 = 13

So the consumer’s surplus is 24 units.

So the producer’s surplus is 16 units.

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TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Production which involves several stages for manufacturing finished products is known as …………
(a) Analytical industry
(b) Synthetic industry
(c) Processing industry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Processing industry

Question 2.
The classification of companies on the basis of incorporation are …………
(i) Chartered companies
(ii) Public companies
(iii) Statutory companies
(iv) Private companies
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 3.
Which of the following helps in maximizing sale of goods to society?
(a) Business success
(b) Laws and Regulations
(c) Ethics
(d) Professional Management
Answer:
(c) Ethics

Question 4.
An organisation carrying out activities to move goods from the producer to consumers is …………
(a) Transport
(b) Logistics
(c) Channels
(d) Marketing
Answer:
(a) Transport

Question 5.
A Co-operative fails because of …………
(a) Unlimited Membership
(b) Cash trading
(c) Mismanagement
(d) Loss making
Answer:
(c) Mismanagement

Question 6.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as:
(a) Economic activities
(b) Monetary activities
(c) Non-economic activities
(d) Financial activities
Answer:
(c) Non-economic activities

Question 7.
The largest commercial bank of India is …………
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) SBI
(c) PNB
(d) RBI
Answer:
(b) SBI

Question 8.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i) Bonded warehouses
(ii) Private warehouses
(iii) Refrigerated warehouses
(iv) Special commodity warehouses

List – II
1. Private Business enterprise
2. Tobacco, Cotton
3. Non-payment of customers duty
4. Cold storages

Codes:
(a) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 2
(c) (i) 3, (ii) 2, (iii) 4, (iv) 1
(d) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
Answer:
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 2

Question 9.
Small shops which deal in a particular line of products are called as …………
(a) Market traders
(b) Single line stores
(c) Supermarket
(d) Street market
Answer:
(b) Single line stores

Question 10.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(а) Income Tax – Indirect tax
(b) Internal trade – Within the boundaries of a nation
(c) SGST – Direct tax
(d) Export trade – Home trade
Answer:
(b) Internal trade – Within the boundaries of a nation

Question 11.
………… banks were nationalised in India, in the year 1969.
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 6
(d) 21
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 12.
The Institutional warehouse started with the support of the Government is …………
(a) Bonded warehouse
(b) Public warehouse
(c) Food Corporation of India
(d) Custom Bonded
Answer:
(c) Food Corporation of India

Question 13.
A partner neither contribute capital, nor he is entitled to manage the business is known as …………
(a) Active Partner
(b) Dormant partner
(c) Nominal Partner
(d) Secret Partner
Answer:
(c) Nominal Partner

Question 14.
The primary objective of the state enterprise is to …………
(a) Earn profit
(b) Provide employment
(c) Serve the people
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Serve the people

Question 15.
The basic principle of Insurance is …………
(a) Insurable interest
(b) Co-operation
(c) Subrogation
(d) Proximate causa
Answer:
(b) Co-operation

Question 16.
Buying and selling of goods through electronic network is known as …………
(a) E-commerce
(b) Internet
(c) Website
(d) Trade
Answer:
(a) E-commerce

Question 17.
The members in the Joint Hindu family are called …………
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parceners
(c) Generations
(d) Partners
Answer:
(b) Co-parceners

Question 18.
The oldest form of organisation in public sector is …………
(a) Public Sector undertakings
(b) Departmental undertakings
(c) Multinational corporations
(d) Statutory corporation
Answer:
(b) Departmental undertakings

Question 19.
Which one helps in announcing the arrival of new products and their uses to the people?
(a) Advertising
(b) Banking
(c) Trade
(d) Transport
Answer:
(a) Advertising

Question 20.
Which one is internal source of finance?
(a) Retained earnings
(b) Shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Public deposits
Answer:
(a) Retained earnings

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade denotes the difference between the value of import and the value of export during a year.

Question 22.
What is meant by statutory company?
Answer:
Companies established by a Special Act passed in a Parliament or Assembly is known as Statutory company. It is also called as Statutory Corporation, (e.g.,) LIC, Food Corporation of India and RBI.

Question 23.
What is income Tax?
Answer:
Income tax is a direct tax under which tax is calculated on the income, gains or profits earned by a person such as individuals and other artificial entities (a partnership firm and company etc.).

Question 24.
What is GATT?
Answer:
The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed at Geneva on 30th October 1947 by 23 countries. It came into effect on 1st January 1948.

Question 25.
Joint Hindu family is created by Hindu law. The membership of this form of business is acquired by birth. Who will look after the business in this kind?
Answer:
‘Karta’ is the head of the family and he looks after the Joint Hindu Family Business. He is also called as the manager. The Karta is entitled to deal with outsiders.

Question 26.
What are the non-corporate enterprises?
Answer:

• Sole trading concern
• partnership firm
• Joint Hindu family business

Question 27.
What is meant by limited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held.

Question 28.
Write any two advantages of water transport.
Answer:

• It is considered as the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
• It is most suitable for heavy loads.

Question 29.
Define the term Assessee.
Answer:
Assessee means a person by whom any tax or any other sum of money is payable under Income Tax Act. It includes every person in respect of whose income is assessed every year.

Question 30.
What is a Self Help Group?
Answer:
Rural development is one of the main pillars of progress of India. It has lagged behind in many aspects of development even after six decades of the independence of India. Self Help Group has emerged as a new model for combating poverty.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write any three characteristics of sole proprietorship.
Answer:

• Ownership by one man:
  This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
• Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
  Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
• Unlimited Liability:
  When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 32.
Explain the features of Self Help Groups.
Answer:
Features of Self Help Groups:

• The motto of every self help group members should be “Saving first – Credit later”.
• Self help group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
• The ideal size of a self help group ranges between 10 and 20 members.

Question 33.
What is meant by pathways transport?
Answer:
Pathways transport is the oldest form of transport found in hilly areas, forest areas and in remote places. These are used by human beings for transport.

Question 34.
Distinguish between Extractive industries and Genetic industries.
Answer:

Extractive Industries:

• These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
• Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of geographical or natural environment.

Genetic Industries:

• These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
• The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries and apiary, etc.

Question 35.
Write a short note about state warehousing corporation.
Answer:
State Warehousing Corporation (SWC):
Every state government is given power to establish its own Warehousing Corporation after getting approval from the Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). 50% of the capital is contributed by the CWC and the balance 50% contributed by State Government.

Question 36.
What is the need for corporate governance?
Answer:
Corporate Governance is the system by which businesses are directed and controlled in the best interests of all stakeholders. It maintains balance among individual goals, societal goals, economic goals and social goals. Good corporate governance enables corporate success and economic development.

Question 37.
What is bill of lading?
Answer:
Bill of Lading refers to a document signed by ship owner or to his agent mentioning that goods specified have been received and it would be delivered to the importer or his agent at the port of destination, if in good condition subject to terms and conditions mentioned therein.

Question 38.
Write any three demerits of UGST.
Answer:

• Several Economists says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market. It would add up to 8 percent to the cost of new homes and reduce demand by about 12 percent.
• Another criticism is that COST, SGST are nothing but new names for Central Excise/ Service Tax, VAT and CST. Hence, there is no major reduction in the number of tax layers.
• A number of retail products currently have only four percent tax on them. After GST, garments and clothes could become more expensive.

Question 39.
Write a note on housing co-operatives.
Answer:
The co-operative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members. People who want to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies.

Services:

• They advance loans to members to build houses.
• Instead of granting loan, they construct houses for their members.

Question 40.
Explain the term NEFT.
Answer:
National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) was launched by the RBI in 2005. Under this electronic funds transfer system, bulk transfer of transactions are settled in batches during specific timings across India. Individuals and institutions which maintain accounts with a NEFT enabled bank branch are eligible for using NEFT.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write a note on consumer co-operative society.
Answer:
Consumer co-operatives are organized by consumers that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer co-operative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profits from selling those goods or services.

Nationally, the most, widely used co-operative form is the credit union, with some 90 million members. Credit union assets have grown a hundred-fold in three decades. Credit unions are essentially co-operatives of people that use banking services. Students’ co-operative stores, co-operative provision stores, supermarkets set up on co-operative societies of India are examples of this type.

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
What is meant by prospectus? Explain any six contents of the prospectus.
Answer:
According to Section 2(36) of the Companies Act, any document inviting the public to buy its shares or debentures comes under the definition of prospectus. It also applies to advertisements inviting deposits from the public. A prospectus is “the only window through which a prospective investor can look into the soundness of a company’s venture”.
Contents:

• The prospectus contains the main objectives of the company.
• The name and address of the signatories of the Memorandum of Association.
• The name, address and occupation of directors and managing directors.
• The number and classes of shares and debentures.
• Name and address of the auditors, bankers and solicitors of the company.
• Time and place where copies of balance sheets, profits and loss account and the auditor’s report may be inspected.

Question 42 (a).
Explain services rendered by wholesalers to retailers.
Answer:

1. Financial Assistance:
   Wholesalers provide financial assistance to retailers by selling goods on credit.
2. Meeting the Requirements:
   Due to limited capital and lack of space in his facility a retailer cannot hold large variety of products.
3. Introduction of New Products:
   Wholesalers bring new products and their uses to the notice of retailers.
4. Price Stability:
   Wholesalers reduce price fluctuations by adjusting supply and demand and save the retailers from loss arising from price fluctuations.
5. Economy in Transport:
   A wholesaler often delivers goods at the door steps of retailers and save their time and cost of transport.
6. Regular Supply:
   Wholesalers keep large stock of varieties, of goods and provide a regular supply of goods as per the retailer’s need.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Describe the importance of international trade.
Answer:

1. International finance helps in calculating exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
2. It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
3. It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.
4. International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) facilitates comparison of financial statements made by various countries.
5. It helps, in understanding the basics of international organisations and maintaining the balance among them.

Question 43 (a).
Partnership is formed by agreement. It is desirable to have a written agreement. What is the name of the agreement? Explain the contents of it.
Answer:
(1) Name:
Name of the Firm.

(2) Nature of Business:
Nature of the proposed business to be carried on by the partners.

(3) Duration of Partnership:
Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.

(4) Capital Contribution:
The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for, one contribute his organizing power, business acumen, managerial skill, etc., instead of capital.

(5) Withdrawal from the Firm:
The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.

(6) Profit / Loss Sharing:
The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared, If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.

(7) Interest on Capital:
Whether any interest is to be allowed on capital and if so, the rate of interest.

(8) Rate of Interest on Drawing:
Rate of interest on drawings, if any.

(9) Loan from Partners:
Whether loans can be accepted from the partners and if so the rate of interest payable thereon.

(10) Account Keeping:
Maintenance of accounts and audit.

(11) Salary and Commission to Partners:
Amount of salary or commission payable to partners for their services. (Unless this is specifically provided, no partner is entitled to any salary).

(12) Retirement:
Matters relating to retirement of a partner. The arrangement to be made for paying out the amount due to a retired or deceased partner must also be stated.

(13) Goodwill Valuation:
Method of valuing goodwill on the admission, death or retirement of a partner.

(14) Distribution of Responsibility:
Distribution of managerial responsibilities. The work that is entrusted to each partner is better stated in the deed itself.

(15) Dissolution Procedure:
Procedure for dissolution of the firm and the mode of settlement of accounts thereafter.

(16) Arbitration of Dispute:
Arbitration in case of disputes among partners. The deed should provide the method for settling disputes or difference of opinion. This clause will avoid costly litigations.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Explain any five principles of Co-operatives.
Answer:
(1) Voluntary and Open Membership:
Cooperatives are voluntary organizations, open to all people able to use its services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political or religious discrimination.

(2) Democratic Member Control:
Cooperatives are democratic organizations controlled by their members – those who buy the goods or use the services of the cooperative who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

(3) Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to, and democratically control, the capital of the cooperative. This benefits members in proportion to the business they conduct with the cooperative rather than on the capital invested.

(4) Autonomy and Independence:
Cooperatives are autonomous, self-help organizations controlled by their members. If the cooperative enters into agreements with other organizations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the cooperative’s autonomy.

(5) Education, Training, and Information:
Cooperatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their cooperative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of cooperatives.

Question 44 (a).
State the constraints of barter system.
Answer:
(1) Lack of double coincidence of wants:
Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, Barter cannot take place.

(2) Non-existence of common measure of value:
Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.

(3) Lack of direct contact between producer and consumers:
It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.

(4) Lack of surplus stock:
Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
RBI is the central bank of our country. It is the apex bank and also controls the other banks. The functions of RBI can be grouped under three heads:
A. Leadership and Supervisory functions
B. Traditional functions
C. Promotional functions
Explain any five traditional functions of RBI:
Traditional Functions of RBI:
Answer:
(1) Banker and Financial Advisor to the Government:
The RBI accepts money into the Central and State Governments’ accounts and makes payments on their behalf. It advises the government on the quantum, timing and terms of new loans.

(2) Monopoly of Note Issue:
The RBI is the sole authority to print and issue all currency notes in India except one rupee note. One rupee note and all coins are issued by the Ministry of Finance.

(3) Banker’s Bank:
The relationship between RBI and other banks in the country is just like the relationship of a commercial bank with its customers. All commercial banks can receive loans from RBI by rediscounting of bills.

(4) Controller of Credit and Liquidity:
Controlling the credit money in circulation and the interest rate in the country is a major function of RBI.

(5) Lender of the Last Resort:
In times of emergency, any bank in India can approach RBI for financial assistance. RBI provides them credit.

Question 45 (a).
Explain the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
• Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
• It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to a wholesaler or retailer.
• It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
• It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living.

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
Explain the principles of insurance.
Answer:
(1) Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details regarding insurance contract.

(2) Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

(3) Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

(4) Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e., the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

(5) Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

(6) Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

(7) Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 46(a).
Banks can be classified as follows:
(a) Based on the functions of banks
(b) Based on the status given by RBI
(c) Based on the ownership pattern
What are the banks based on functions? Explain any five kinds of banks.
Answer:
(1) Commercial banks:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc., in order to earn profit. Their lending is in comparatively small amounts and mostly for short and medium period. e.g., State Bank of India.

(2) Development Banks:
Huge finance required for investment, expansion and modernisation of big industries and others are granted by a separate type of banks called development banks. They are also called industrial banks, e.g., IFCI and SIDBI.

(3) Co-operative Banks:
All cooperative banks in India are owned by its customers or members who are farmers, small traders and others. Co-operative banks in India are either urban based or rural based, e.g., NAFED and Tamil Nadu State Apex Co-operative Bank – Head Office, Chennai.

(4) Foreign Banks:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks, e.g., Bank of America – USA.

(5) Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
The RRBs were formed under the Regional Rural Bank Act 1976, jointly by the Central Government, State Government, and a sponsor bank. e.g., Pandian Grama Bank.

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
In India, Joint Hindu Family Business is a distinct form of organisation. A person can become member by birth. What are the features of Joint Hindu Family Business? Explain any five features.
Answer:
Features of Joint Hindu Family Business are:

1. Governed by Hindu Law
2. Management
3. Membership by birth
4. Liability
5. Permanent existence
6. Implied authority of Karta
7. Minor as a co-parcener;
8. Dissolution

Explanation:

1.  Governed by Hindu law:
   The business of the Joint Hindu Family is controlled and managed by the Hindu law.
2. Membership by birth:
   The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as a male child is bom in the family, the child becomes a member.
3.  Liability:
   Except the Kartha, the liability of all other members is limited to their shares in the business.
4. Minor also as a co-parcener:
   In a Joint Hindu Family firm, even a new bom baby can be a co-parcener.
5.  Dissolution:
   It can be dissolved only at the will of the members of the family.

Question 47 (a).
What are the contents of Memorandum of Association?
Answer:
(1) Name Clause:
The name clause requires you to state the legal and recognized name of the company. You are allowed to register a company name only if it does not bear any similarities with the name of an existing company.

(2) Situation Clause:
The registered office clause requires you to show the physical location of the registered office of the company. You are required to keep all the company registers in this office in addition to using in handling all the outgoing and incoming communication correspondence.

(3) Objective Clause:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for share holding and use of financial resources. You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

(4) Liability Clause:
The liability clause requires you to state the extent to which shareholders of the company are liable to the debt obligations of the company in the event of the company dissolving. You should show that shareholders are liable only to their shareholding and/or to their commitment to contribute to the dissolution costs upon liquidation of a company limited by guarantee.

(5) Capital Clause:
The capital clause requires you to state the company’s authorized share capital, the different categories of shares and the nominal value (the minimum value per share) of the shares. You are also required to list the company’s assets under this clause.

(6) Association Clause:
The association clause confirms that shareholders bound by the MOA are willingly associating and forming a company. You require seven members to sign an MOA for a public company and not less than two people for a MOA of a private company. You must conduct the signing in the presence of witness who must also append his signature.

[OR]

Question 47 (b).
Explain the various kinds of deposits accepted by commercial banks.
Answer:
Broadly deposit accounts can be classified into demand deposits and time deposits.
(A) Demand Deposits:
These deposits are repayable on demand on any day. This consists of savings deposits and current deposits.

1. Savings Deposits:
   General public deposit their savings into this account. This account can be opened in one individual’s name or more than one name.
2. Current Deposits:
   This account is suitable for business institutions. Individuals too can open this account. A higher minimum balance should be kept in this account.

(B) Time Deposits:
These include fixed deposits and recurring deposits which are repayable after a period.

1. Fixed Deposits (FD):
   Certain amount is deposited for a fixed period for a fixed rate of interest.
2. Recurring Deposits (RD):
   Certain sum is deposited into the account every month for one year or five years or the agreed period. Interest rate is more than savings deposits and almost equal to fixed deposits.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.12

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{-1}{2 x^{2}}+c\)
Hint:

Question 2.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{2^{x}}{\log 2}+c\)

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{\sin 2 x}{2 \sin x} d x\) is _______
(a) sin x + c
(b) \(\frac {1}{2}\) sin x + c
(c) cos x + c
(d) \(\frac {1}{2}\) cos x + c
Answer:
(a) sin x + c
Hint:

Question 4.
\(\int \frac{\sin 5 x-\sin x}{\cos 3 x} d x\) is _____
(a) -cos 2x + c
(b) –\(\frac {1}{2}\) cos 2x + c
(c) \(-\frac{1}{4}\) cos 2x + c
(d) -4 cos 2x + c
Answer:
(a) -cos 2x + c
Hint:

Question 5.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}(\log x)^{2}\)
Hint:

Question 6.

Answer:
(b) \(2 \sqrt{1+e^{x}}+c\)
Hint:

Question 7.

Answer:
(b) \(2 \sqrt{e^{x}}+c\)
Hint:

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) \(e^{2 x} x^{2}+c\)
Hint:

Question 9.

Answer:
(d) \(\log \left|e^{x}+1\right|+c\)
Hint:

Question 10.
\(\int\left[\frac{9}{x-3}-\frac{1}{x+1}\right] d x\) is _____
(a) log|x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c
(b) log|x – 3| + log|x + 1| + c
(c) 9log|x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c
(d) 91og|x – 3| + log|x + 1| + c
Answer:
(c) 9log|x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c

Question 11.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2} \log \left|4+x^{4}\right|+c\)
Hint:

Question 12.

Answer:
(b) \(\log |x+\sqrt{x^{2}-36}|+c\)
Hint:

Question 13.

Answer:
(b) \(2 \sqrt{x^{2}+3 x+2}+c\)
Hint:

Question 14.
\(\int_{0}^{1}(2 x+1) d x\) is _______
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint:

Question 15.
\(\int_{2}^{4} \frac{d x}{x}\) is _______
(a) log 4
(b) 0
(c) log 2
(d) log 8
Answer:
(c) log 2
Hint:

Question 16.
\(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-2 x} d x\) is _____
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Hint:

Question 17.
\(\int_{-1}^{1} x^{3} e^{x^{4}} d x\) is _______
(a) 1
(b) \(2 \int_{0}^{1} x^{3} e^{x^{4}} d x\)
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0
Hint:

Question 18.
If f(x) is a continous function and a < c < b, then \(\int_{a}^{c} f(x) d x+\int_{c}^{b} f(x) d x\) is _____
(a) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x-\int_{a}^{c} f(x) d x\)
(b) \(\int_{a}^{c} f(x) d x-\int_{a}^{a} f(x) d x\)
(c) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x\)
(d) 0
Answer:
(c) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x\)

Question 19.
The value of \(\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x d x\) is _______
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint:

Question 20.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
Hint:

Question 21.

Answer:
(b) 0
Hint:

Question 22.
The value of \(\int_{2}^{3} f(5-x) d x-\int_{2}^{3} f(x) d x\) is _______
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 0
Hint:

Question 23.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{28}{3}\)
Hint:

Question 24.
\(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \tan x d x\) is _______
(a) log 2
(b) 0
(c) log√2
(d) 2 log 2
Answer:
(a) log 2
Hint:

Question 25.
Using the factorial representation of the gamma function, which of the following is the solution for the gamma function Γ(n) when n = 8 is _______
(a) 5040
(b) 5400
(c) 4500
(d) 5540
Answer:
(a) 5040
Hint:
Γ(8) = Γ(7 + 1) = 7! = 5040

Question 26.
Γ(n) is _____
(a) (n – 1)!
(b) n!
(c) n Γ(n)
(d) (n – 1) Γ(n)
Answer:
(a) (n – 1)!
Hint:
Γ(n) = Γ(n – 1) + 1 = (n – 1)!

Question 27.
Γ(1) is ______
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) n
(d) n!
Answer:
(b) 1
Hint:
Γ(1) = (1 – 1)! = 0! = 1

Question 28.

Answer:
(d) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x} x^{n-1} d x\)

Question 29.
Γ(\(\frac{3}{2}\)) is _____
(a) √π
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\)
(c) 2√π
(d) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\)
Hint:

Question 30.
\(\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{4} e^{-x} d x\) is _______
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 4!
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 4!
Hint:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.11

Evaluate the following integrals as the limit of the sum:

Question 1.
\(\int_{0}^{1}(x+4) d x\)
Solution:

Question 2.
\(\int_{1}^{3} x d x\)
Solution:

Question 3.
\(\int_{1}^{3}(2 x+3) d x\)
Solution:

Question 4.
\(\int_{0}^{1} x^{2} d x\)
Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.10

Question 1.
Evaluate the following.

(i) Γ(4)
Solution:
Γ(4) = Γ(3 + 1) = 3! = 6

(ii) Γ(\(\frac{9}{2}\))
Solution:

(iii) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-m x} x^{6} d x\)
Solution:

(iv) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-4 x} x^{4} d x\)
Solution:

(v) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{x}{2}} x^{5} d x\)
Solution:

Question 2.

Solution: