Prasanna

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.4 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.4

Choose the correct answer form the given alternatives.

Question 1.
Area bounded by the curve y = x(4 – x) between the limits 0 and 4 with x-axis is ________
(a) \(\frac{30}{3}\) sq.units
(b) \(\frac{31}{2}\) sq.units
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) sq.units
(d) \(\frac{15}{2}\) sq.units
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) sq.units
Hint:

Question 2.
Area bounded by the curve y = e^-2x between the limits 0 ≤ x ≤ ∞ is ______
(a) 1 sq.units
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\) sq.unit
(c) 5 sq.units
(d) 2 sq.units
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2}\) sq.unit
Hint:

Question 3.
Area bounded by the curve y = \(\frac{1}{x}\) between the limits 1 and 2 is ________
(a) log 2 sq.units
(b) log 5 sq.units
(c) log 3 sq.units
(d) log 4 sq.units
Answer:
(a) log 2 sq.units
Hint:
Area = \(\int_{1}^{2} \frac{1}{x} d x\)
= \((\log x)_{1}^{2}\)
= log 2 – log 1
= log 2 (Since log 1 = 0)

Question 4.
If the marginal revenue function of a firm is MR = \(e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\), then revenue is ______
(a) \(-10 e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\)
(b) \(1-e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\)
(c) \(10\left(1-e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\right)\)
(d) \(e^{\frac{-x}{10}}+10\)
Answer:
(c) \(10\left(1-e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\right)\)
Hint:

Question 5.
If MR and MC denotes the marginal revenue and marginal cost functions, then the profit functions is ________
(a) P = ∫(MR – MC) dx + k
(b) P = ∫(MR + MC) dx + k
(c) P = ∫(MR) (MC) dx + k
(d) P = ∫(R – C) dx + k
Answer:
(a) P = ∫(MR – MC) dx + k

Question 6.
The demand and supply functions are given by D(x) = 16 – x² and S(x) = 2x² + 4 are under perfect competition, then the equilibrium price x is ________
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c)4
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 2
Hint:
D(x) = 16 – x² , S(x) = 2x² + 4
Under equilibriuim, D(x) = S(x)
⇒ 16 – x² = 2x² + 4
⇒ 3x² = 12
⇒ x = ±2.
Since x cannot be negative x = 2.

Question 7.
The marginal revenue and marginal cost functions of a company are MR = 30 – 6x and MC = -24 + 3x where x is the product, then the profit function is _______
(a) 9x² + 54x
(b) 9x² – 54x
(c) 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\)
(d) 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\) + k
Answer:
(d) 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\) + k
Hint:
Profit = ∫(MR – MC) dx + k
= ∫(30 – 60) – (-24 + 3x) dx + k
= ∫(54 – 9x) dx + k
= 54x – \(\frac{9 x^{2}}{2}\) + k

Question 8.
The given demand and supply function are given by D(x) = 20 – 5x and S(x) = 4x + 8 if they are under perfect competition then the equilibrium demand is _______
(a) 40
(b) \(\frac{41}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{40}{3}\)
(d) \(\frac{41}{5}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{40}{3}\)
Hint:
D(x) = S(x) in equilibrium
20 – 5x = 4x + 8
9x = 12
x = \(\frac{4}{3}\) = x₀
p₀ = 20 – 5(\(\frac{4}{3}[/ltex])
= 20 – [latex]\frac{20}{3}\)
= \(\frac{40}{3}\)

Question 9.
If the marginal revenue MR = 35 + 7x – 3x², then the average revenue AR is _______
(a) 35x + \(\frac{7 x^{2}}{2}\) – x³
(b) 35x + \(\frac{7 x}{2}\) – x²
(c) 35 + \(\frac{7 x}{2}\) + x²
(d) 35 + 7x + x²
Answer:
(b) 35x + \(\frac{7 x}{2}\) – x²
Hint:

Question 10.
The profit of a function p(x) is maximum when _______
(a) MC – MR = 0
(b) MC = 0
(c) MR = 0
(d) MC + MR = 0
Answer:
(a) MC – MR = 0
Hint:
P = Revenue – Cost
P is maximum when \(\frac{d p}{d x}\) = 0
\(\frac{d p}{d x}\) = R'(x) – C'(x) = MR – MC = 0

Question 11.
For the demand function p(x), the elasticity of demand with respect to price is unity then ________
(a) revenue is constant
(b) cost function is constant
(c) profit is constant
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) revenue is constant
Hint:

Question 12.
The demand function for the marginal function MR = 100 – 9x² is _______
(a) 100 – 3x²
(b) 100x – 3x²
(c) 100x – 9x²
(d) 100 + 9x²
Answer:
(a) 100 – 3x²
Hint:
R = ∫(MR) dx + c₁
R = ∫(100 – 9x²) dx + c₁
R = 100x – 3x³ + c₁
When R = 0, x = 0, c₁ = 0
R = 100x – 3x³
Demand function is \(\frac{R}{x}\) = 100 – 3x²

Question 13.
When x₀ = 5 and p₀ = 3 the consumer’s surplus for the demand function p_d = 28 – x² is _______
(a) 250 units
(b) \(\frac{250}{3}\) units
(c) \(\frac{251}{2}\) units
(d) \(\frac{251}{3}\) units
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{250}{3}\) units
Hint:

Question 14.
When x₀ = 2 and P₀ = 12 the producer’s surplus for the supply function P_s = 2x² + 4 is _______
(a) \(\frac{31}{5}\) units
(b) \(\frac{31}{2}\) units
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) units
(d) \(\frac{30}{7}\) units
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{32}{3}\) units
Hint:

Question 15.
Area bounded by y = x between the lines y = 1, y = 2 with y-axis is ______
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}\) sq.units
(b) \(\frac{5}{2}\) sq.units
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\) sq.units
(d) 1 sq.unit
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\) sq.units
Hint:

Question 16.
The producer’s surplus when the supply function for a commodity is P = 3 + x and x₀ = 3 is _______
(a) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
(c) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
(d) \(\frac{7}{2}\)
Ans:
(b) \(\frac{9}{2}\)
Hint:
x₀ = 3, p = 3 + x ⇒ p₀ = 3 + 3 = 6

Question 17.
The marginal cost function is MC = 100√x. find AC given that TC = 0 when the output is zero is ______
(a) \(\frac{200}{3} x^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
(b) \(\frac{200}{3} x^{\frac{3}{2}}\)
(c) \(\frac{200}{3 x^{\frac{3}{2}}}\)
(d) \(\frac{200}{3 x^{\frac{1}{2}}}\)
Answer:
(a) \(\frac{200}{3} x^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
Hint:

Question 18.
The demand and supply function of a commodity are P(x) = (x – 5)² and S(x) = x² + x + 3 then the equilibrium quantity x₀ is ________
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 19
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint:
At equilibrium, P(x) = S(x)
⇒ (x – 5)² = x² + x + 3
⇒ x² – 10x + 25 = x² + x + 3
⇒ 11x = 22
⇒ x = 2

Question 19.
The demand and supply function of a commodity are D(x) = 25 – 2x and S(x) = \(\frac{10+x}{4}\) then the equilibrium price p₀ is _________
(a) 5
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 10
Answer:
(a) 5
Hint:
At equilibrium, D(x) = S(x)
25 – 2x = \(\frac{10+x}{4}\)
⇒ 100 – 8x = 10 + x
⇒ x = 10
That is x₀ = 10
P₀ = 25 – 2(x₀) = 25 – 20 = 5

Question 20.
If MR and MC denote the marginal revenue and marginal cost and MR – MC = 36x – 3x² – 81, then the maximum profit at x is equal to _______
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 5
Answer:
(c) 9
Hint:
The maximum profit occurs when MR – MC = 0
⇒ 36x – 3x² – 81 = 0
⇒ x² – 12x + 27 = 0
⇒ (x – 9)(x – 3) = 0
⇒ x = 9, 3
Now \(\frac{d p}{d x}\) = 36x – 3x² – 81 ⇒ \(\frac{d^{2} p}{d x^{2}}\) = 36 – 9x
At x = 9, \(\frac{d^{2} p}{d x^{2}}\) = 36 – 81 < 0
At x = 3, \(\frac{d^{2} p}{d x^{2}}\) = 36 – 27 > 0
Therefore profit is maximum when x = 9.

Question 21.
If the marginal revenue of a firm is constant, then the demand function is ________
(a) MR
(b) MC
(c) C(x)
(d) AC
Answer:
(a) MR
Hint:
MR = k (constant)
Revenue function R = ∫(MR) dx + c₁
= ∫kdx + c₁
= kx + c₁
When R = 0, x = 0, ⇒ c₁ = 0
R = kx
Demand function p = \(\frac{R}{x}=\frac{k x}{x}\) = k constant
⇒ p = MR

Question 22.
For a demand function p, if \(\int \frac{d p}{p}=k \int \frac{d x}{x}\) then k is equal to _______
(a) η_d
(b) -η_d
(c) \(\frac{-1}{\eta_{d}}\)
(d) \(\frac{1}{\eta_{d}}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{-1}{\eta_{d}}\)
Hint:

Question 23.
Area bounded by y = e^x between the limits 0 to 1 is _________
(a) (e – 1) sq.units
(b) (e + 1) sq.units
(c) (1 – \(\frac{1}{e}\)) sq.units
(d) (1 + \(\frac{1}{e}\)) sq.units
Answer:
(a) (e – 1) sq.units
Hint:

Question 24.
The area bounded by the parabola y² = 4x bounded by its latus rectum is _______
(a) \(\frac{16}{3}\) sq.units
(b) \(\frac{8}{3}\) sq.units
(c) \(\frac{72}{3}\) sq.units
(d) \(\frac{1}{3}\) sq.units
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{8}{3}\) sq.units
Hint:
y² = 4x
Comparing with y² =4ax gives a = 1
Since parabola is symmetric about x – axis,

Question 25.
Area bounded by y = |x| between the limits 0 and 2 is _______
(a) 1 sq.units
(b) 3 sq.units
(c) 2 sq.units
(d) 4 sq.units
Answer:
(c) 2 sq.units
Hint:
When x lies between 0 and 2
|x| = x

Area = 2 sq.units

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 3 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 3

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
Her silver locks were scattered untidily.
(a) orderly
(b) hygienically
(c) neatly
(d) disorderly
Answer:
(d) disorderly

Question 2.
Men with fallible memories try to make out a case for their superiority.
(a) error-prone
(b) infallible
(c) valuable
(d) malicious
Answer:
(a) error-prone

Question 3.
Even among the best of us ……….. there is wordly guile.
(a) morality
(b) cunningness
(c) virtue
(d) wisdom
Answer:
(b) cunningness

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
I was the purchaser of a picture.
(a) consumer
(b) client
(c) seller
(d) bidder
Answer:
(c) seller

Question 5.
It is the immediate concern of every individual.
(a) indifference
(b) worry
(c) anxiety
(d) apprehension
Answer:
(a) indifference

Question 6.
I was shedding blood in a lavish manner.
(a) tough
(b) Extravagant
(c) easy
(d) frugal
Answer:
(d) frugal

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “reputation”.
(a) repute
(b) rep
(c) reput
(d) reption
Answer:
(b) rep

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “Nyctophobia”.
(a) the fear of sleeping in the dark
(b) the fear of falling in love
(c) the fear of being in the dark
(d) the fear of narcotics
Answer:
(c) the fear of being in the dark

Question 9.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “blue”.
(a) chair
(b) berry
(c) black
(d) colour
Answer:
(b) berry

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
These were dreams of long standing that had finally come to fruition.
(a) bear fruit
(b) fulfilment of a plan
(c) eat fruits
(d) sell fruits
Answer:
(b) fulfilment of a plan

Question 11.
Choose the phrasal verb from the options given to substitute the underlined word in the given sentence.
Don’t ever mock the condition of poor people.
(a) look into
(b) look down upon
(c) look forward to
(d) look towards
Answer:
(b) look down upon

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “code”.
(a) in
(b) re
(c) un
(d) de
Answer:
(d) de

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “FAQ”.
(a) Frequently Answered Question
(b) Frequently Asked Question
(c) Fire Alarming Quiz
(d) Fairly Asked Question
Answer:
(b) Frequently Asked Question

Question 14.
The number of syllables in ‘beautiful’ is
(a) tetra
(b) tri
(c) penta
(d) di
Answer:
(a) tetra

Question 15.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
He has dedicated his life for their welfare.
(a) SVCA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVIODO
(d) SVOA
Answer:
(d) SVOA

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
I am good ……….. playing pranks.
(a) on
(b) at
(c) to
(d) From
Answer:
(b) at

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following statement.
She plays basketball on Sundays,………….?
(a) isn’t she
(b) shouldn’t she
(c) doesn’t she
(d) can’t she
Answer:
(c) doesn’t she

Question 18.
Choose the right combination for the blended word “spork”.
(a) spoon + cork
(b) spoon + fork
(c) spoon + work
(d) spoon + dork
Answer:
(b) spoon + fork

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
The ancestral house has been handed down from generation to generation.
(a) stored
(b) distributed
(c) hidden
(d) delivered
Answer:
(d) delivered

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with a suitable relative pronoun.
The criminals, two of ………… managed to escape, were caught yesterday.
(a) which
(b) whom
(c) who
(d) that
Answer:
(b) whom

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“His brow is deeply lined with thought, his head is highly domed;”
(a) Whose looks are described here?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) Macavity’s looks are described over here.
(b) Personification.

Question 22.
“Make dust our paper, and with rainy eyes
Write sorrow on the bosom of the earth.”
(a) Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
(b) What do you mean by ‘rainy eyes’?
Answer:
(a) Metaphor.
(b) Eyes shedding tears is said to be rainy eyes.

Question 23.
“And reassure myself anew
Thai you are not me and I’m not you.”
(a) Who are ‘they’?
(b) What does the poet reassure?
Answer:
(a) ‘They’ are athletes who play rough unmindful of cracking bones or jaws of the opponent in the field.
(b) The poet reassures himself that he is not one of the athletes and the athletes are not in his group either. So, he is safe.

Question 24.
“And ‘this my faith that every flower Enjoys the air it breathes….”
(a) What is the poet’s faith?
(b) What trait of Nature do we see here?
Answer:
(a) The poet has faith that nature lives, breathes and enjoys its own presence. Twigs, birds, creepers all live in harmony with each other in absolute bliss and contentment.
(b) Harmonious relationship of birds, brook, plants and creepers and willingness to co-exist with one another is the trait evident in nature.

Question 25.
“Most of all, I want to relearn
How to laugh, for my laugh in the mirror
Shows only my teeth like a snake’s bare fangs!”
(a) Why does the poet want to relearn how to laugh?
(b) Whom does the poet want to relearn to laugh from?
Answer:
(a) The poet has forgotten to laugh naturally. He wants to relearn to laugh because his laugh in front of the mirror shows his teeth like a snake’s bare fangs.
(b) The poet wants to relearn to laugh from his little son.

Question 26.
“The ones that are true and stand on their own
Are really the ladder for the rise of Man.”
(a) Who help in the progress of the society?
(b) Identify the figure of speech in the second line.
Answer:
(a) People who are true to themselves and rely on their own skills help the progress of the society.
(b) Metaphor

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Mother : Can we go to the mall this evening?
Bharath : Here it is, Thank you!
Answer:
Bharath’s mom asked Bharath if they could go to the mall that evening. Bharath said that he was afraid he couldn’t as he was preparing for his examination.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
They/He/She/Someone gifted me a dress. I received it with joy.
Answer:
A dress was gifted to me. It was received with joy.

Question 29.
Convert the following into a simple sentence.
Gold is expensive yet every lady is crazy after it.
Answer:
Though gold is expensive, every lady is crazy after it.

Question 30.
I forgot the answer. I lost marks. (Combine using ‘If’)
Answer:
If I forgot the answer, I would lose marks.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Have I not reason to lament
What Man has made of Man?
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: William Wordsworth was inspired by a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars and amidst happy nature couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: William Wordsworth derived extreme pleasure listening to the songs of birds and voiceless communication of joy between plants, twigs and flowers. Though he could not fathom the meaning, he realized the blissful state of nature. But he remembered the depravity of man which was evident in Napoleonic wars. He was fed up with man’s capacity to destroy innocent lives and property. So, he lamented “what man has made of man”.

Question 32.
I want to be what I used to be
Answer:
Reference: This line is from the poem “Once upon a time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while contrasting the present hypocrisy with his past genuine relationships.

Explanation: During childhood the poet, like any child, laughed with human warmth. He used to express his love through his eyes. Now, he is changing his faces like dresses to suit the occasions and to ensure social acceptance. So, he wants to be what he used to be in the childhood.

Question 33.
And when you think he’s half asleep, he’s always wide awake
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.

Context: The poet says these words about the ability of the mysterious cat to hoodwink everyone.

Explanation: Macavity is a master of deceitfulness and suavity. When he appears to be half- asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
What was the reaction of Bryson’s wife to his antics?
Answer:
Mrs. Bryson saw the quixotic behaviour of her husband. She was neither angry nor exasperated. But she just expressed her deep sense of wonder. She said, ‘I can’t believe you do this for a living”.

Question 35.
‘Wisdom was meant for the mansion, not for the market place’ What does this statement signify?
Answer:
During the monarchical or feudal days, universities had to train scholars and poets to adorn the chambers of royalty or the gilded mansions of the lords and nobles. Those were the days when eminent scholars were not asked to confront the problems of the masses. They were content to work in secluded places. So, the speaker says that their wisdom was meant for the mansion and not for the market place.

Question 36.
What was the turning point in the relationship between the boy author and his grandma?
Answer:
The boy author’s parents got settled in the city. They sent for them. That was a turning point in the relationship between the author and his grandmother.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences.

1. enters/millions tons/the/every year/of/ocean/plastic
2. close/like/others/helping/my/friends
3. hawkers/there/eatables/so many/were/selling

Answer:

1. Millions tons of plastic enters the ocean every year.
2. My close friends like helping others.
3. There were so many hawkers selling eatables.

Question 38.
Describe the process of withdrawing cash from an ATM.
Answer:

1. Find an ATM of any bank.
2. Take your ATM card and put it in the slot.
3. Select the option – withdrawal.
4. Enter your secret pin when asked.
5. Wait until your transaction is complete and collect your currency.
6. Collect your card and transaction slip and leave the ATM.
7. Never share your ATM number or secret pin.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. Mumbai, Hyderabad Join UNESCO’s Network Of Creative Cities
2. “Jammu And Kashmir, Ladakh Taking Step Towards New Future Today,” Says PM
3. Delhi Is The Most Polluted City In The World Today, Says Air Quality Report

Answer:
1. Mumbai and Hyderabad are among the 66 urban settlements designated as creative cities by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO). The designation came on World Cities’ Day, celebrated on October 31, making the two cities part of the 246-member Organisation’s Network of Creative Cities.

2. Jammu and Kashmir will have political stability and the cycle of governments formed and brought down for vested interests will stop, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said today on his government’s decision to end special status to the state under Article 370 and split it into two union territories that come into existence from today.

3. New Delhi in 2019 topped the list for being the most polluted city in the world, according to a real-time air quality ranking report by IQ Air Visual, a portal that tracks air quality and air pollution across the globe.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs choosing the suitable words given in brackets.
Answer:

1. Haste makes ……….. (results, waste, mess)
2. Look before you ……….. (leap, jump, walk)
3. ……… loves company. (Wise, Miser, Misery)

Answer:

1. waste
2. leap
3. Misery

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Would you agree that the author’s grandmother was a person strong in character? If yes, give instances that show this.
Answer:
Yes, I agree that the author’s grandmother was a person strong in character. She was a strong woman with strong beliefs. Although she was not formally educated, she was serious about the author’s education. She could not adjust herself to the western way of life, Science and English education. She hated music and disapproved of its teaching in school. She was a deeply religious lady.

Her lips were always saying a silent prayer. She was always telling the beads of her rosary. She went to the temple daily and read the scriptures. She was distressed to know that there was no teaching about God and holy books at Khushwant’s new English school.

She was a kind lady. She used to feed dogs in the village. In the city, she took to feeding the sparrows. Although old in years and weak in body, she had great strength of mind. Knowing her impending death, she played a drum and sang with full-throated ease along with her neighbours. Just before her death, she refused to talk to the members of the family as she did not want to waste her time. She wanted to make up for the time lost when she had not prayed to God. She lay peacefully in bed saying prayers and telling the beads of her rosary till she breathed her last.

[OR]

Why is Robert Lynd amazed at the efficiency of humans to remember things?
Answer:
Robert Lynd is amazed of the efficiency of human memory. Modem man remembers telephone numbers, names of film stars, cricketers, football champions and even notorious murderers. He remarks with jest that man does not forget a single item of his clothing. No one forgets to shut the door when leaving the house. The institution of family survives in modem cities because ordinary people have efficient memory power.

In the ordinary life, man remembers almost everything he is expected to remember like birthdays and Valentine’s day. He remembers appointments for dinner and lunch. He remembers what the weather was in a long-past August. Not even one in thousand forgets, simple things like switching off lights before going upstairs or a single item of dressing. Almost everybody remembers to do the right things of the right moment till it is time to go to bed.

Question 42.
Explain the things the poet has learnt when he grew into an adult.
Answer:
The African poet observes a marked change in the attitude of modem people. Those who were once so genuine, warm and sincere, have now suddenly turned cold and hostile towards him. He realizes that the early values in the society like sincerity, good-naturedness, simplicity, whole-heartedness, hospitality, friendliness, originality and uniqueness have now drastically changed.

The earlier warmth and heartfulness have gone. He finds himself behaving the same way as those around him. He has learnt to wear different faces for different occasions. He wears faces like dresses. He says not what his heart tells him. His smiles are also fake. He smiles only to be socially accepted. He has learnt to say “Good bye”, when he wants to say ‘good riddance’. After being bored, he brings a fake smile and says “It’s been nice talking to you”.

[OR]

Do you think the poet wants to say that man is unhappy because he has lost his link with nature and forgotten how to enjoy nature or because man is cruel to other men?
Answer:
The poet William Wordsworth wants to convey the readiness of nature to teach the art of living together in harmony, peace and bliss. But man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature. His greed and love for possession of territories and abject cruelty to fellow humans and nature has disillusioned the poet. He has almost lost faith in the capacity of humans to love and live in harmony with nature.

Man has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. Rare species in the forests are on the brink of extinction. Animals and birds in the red list are growing in number to the great distress of nature lovers. So, I believe Wordsworth is unhappy for both (i.e) man’s losing the link with nature and his infinite capacity to be cruel to other men.

Question 43.
Write an essay of about 150 words by developing the following hints.
‘A Shot in the Dark’ – story of Philip Sletherby – befriended Mrs. Saltpen Jago, – Sletherby intends to achieve – using Mrs. Jago’s influence – train journey – Sletherby – gets Bertie, a travelling companion – Bertie claim – Mrs. Jago’s second son – Sletherby doubts – crest on Bertie – does not match – with Mrs. Jago – not able to tell mother’s hair colour – Bertie asks to borrow-Sletherby refuses. Reaches Mrs. Jago’s estate – two crests for Mrs. Jago’s estate – one matches with Bertie – Mrs. Jago of late, changed hair colour.
Answer:
Philip Sletherby is a pleasant looking young man who was well built and served the army. After four years of serving the army he returns and leaves for Chalkshire to meet Mrs. Saltpen Jago as she was an influential woman in Chalkshire and London. It was very important for Philip Sletherby to impress her. Mr. Philip Sletherby was also a politician but not much known to the people of Chalkshire. He wishes to contest for an MP seat in Chalkshire with the recommendation of Mrs. Saltpen-Jago. Fortunately he had been invited to spend the weekend with her at Brill Manor.

He believes that his political pilgrimage would turn out to be a blessing. He encounters an angry young travelling companion. Mr. Philip Sletherby loves things and uses people to advance his career prospects. At the very beginning, he doubts the credentials of Bertie who introduces himself as the younger son of Mrs. Saltpen Jago. He is quick to judge people. Though the young man wanted only three pounds, he quizzes him with many questions about his royal crest and contradicts him with his ice- cold logic. He offers to assist the young man in distress. But when Bertie wants to leave, he refuses to part with money saying that his mom was a pronounced blonde.

He prided himself for his cleverness. But he is shocked to see the double crest on the car’s door panel, demi- lion holding a cross-crosslet in his paw and a greyhound. He is petrified to learn from K.C. that Mrs. Saltpen-Jago had recently dyed her beautiful dark brown hair blonde. Mr. Sletherby realized that his cleverness has, in reality, turned out to be his meanness. He becomes troubled that his political future may be lost due to his three pound de-buckle. He has proved himself penny wise and pound foolish.

[OR]

Many patients wait – dentist’s clinic – tensed – tooth – being extracted – the arrival of the dentist – Joe, the first patient – called in – the nurse goes – with hammer – reaction – other visitors- go away fear. – was to open tool box.
Answer:
C.V. Burgess is a master craftsman who reveals only a few names. The first patient Joe and his wife Emily are the most dominant characters. Joe is inside the surgical room. Emily is anxious about the husband. Among the two children the dramatist uses only the girl’s name Dorothea and the Dentist hospital becomes a play area for Dorothea and the little boy who claim the same magazine for reading.

The snobbish woman who goes on showing her photo album gives us an impression if she came to see the doctor or to show her photos. The whole play revolves around the dramatic irony of patients’ guess as to what happened inside the dentists’ room and what really happened. The pliers, hack saw and the huge hammer were taken inside the dentist’s room only for opening the tool cabinet. But the patients wondered how these would be used in dental surgery.

The groaning noise from inside the dentist’s rooms and the vexation of Emily Joe add to the fear of the patients waiting. A few women patients leave the waiting room scared of subjecting themselves to the torture of having their bad teeth extracted with carpentry tools. The nurse moves about with all feigned seriousness without disclosing the fact of the misplacement of key.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
People moan about poverty as a great evil; and it seems to be an accepted belief that if people had plenty of money, they would be happy and useful and get more out of life. But, as a rule, there is more genuine satisfaction in life and more obtained from life in the humble cottages of the poor men than in the palaces of the rich. I always pity the sons and daughters of rich men, who are attended by servants and have governesses at a later stage. At the same time, I am glad to think they do not know what they have missed.

It is because I know how sweet and happy and pure the home of honest poverty is, how free from perplexing care and from social envies and jealousies how loving and united its members are in the common interest of supporting the family – that I sympathise with the rich man’s son and congratulate the poor man’s son. It is indeed for these reasons that from the ranks of the poor, so many strong, eminent, self-reliant men have always sprung and must spring in the future. If you find a list of the immortals who weren’t born to die, you will find that most of them were born poor.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 214
No. of words to be written in the summary: 214/3 = 71 ± 5

Rough Draft
Poverty is thought to be a great evil. People believe that only those who are rich will be happy and be abIe to get more out of life. But in reality it is the poor men, who enjoy the life to the fullest. It is only the poor people who are able to explore various opportunities that come their way and use it sensibly to achieve big in life is happiness in their homes as there is no social envies or jealousy. All famous people who live in our memones were born poor.

Fair Draft
Poverty – A Blessing In Disguise:
Poverty is thought to be a great evil. People believe that if they are rich, they will be happy and get more out of life. But in reality it is the poor men, who enjoy the life to the fullest. Only the poor people are able to think freely and explore various opportunities that come their way. There is happiness in their homes as there is no social envies or jealousy. All famous people who live in our memories were born poor.

No. of words in the summary: 82

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Poverty-A Blessing In Disguise
Answer:
Poverty – A great evil Accepted belief – rich r hpy.,
Genuine satisfaction A life in poor cottages
Pity rich m’s kids -hpy., they know not what they miss
Home A the Honest Poor
Hpy., pure, loving, united
free 4m worries, envy
Common Interest – Support family
Strong, eminent, self-reliant m arise
Conclusion: The list A immortals were mostly born poor,
Abbreviations: R – are; A – of; hpy. – happy; 4m – from; m – men

Question 45.
You are Radhika, studying in ZZZ School, Nilakkottai. There is an irregular supply of electricity in your town almost everyday. Write a letter to the Principal requesting him to arrange for a generator in the school.
Answer:

2nd June 2020

From
Radhika
ZZZ School

To
The Principal
ZZZ School
Nilakkottai

Respected Sir,
Sub: Arrange Generator in the School.
With due respect, I would like to submit the following facts for your kind consideration. As you know, the summer is in full swing. The temperature has already crossed 29°C. The afternoons are very hot. To add to our plight, the electricity department resorts to frequent and unannounced power-cuts. This irregular supply of electricity hinders our studies as it affects our concentration and efficiency. We are preparing hard for the forthcoming examinations. In the welfare of all the students, I request you to arrange for a generator of high power in the school.
Thanking you

Yours faithfully,
Radhika.

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Cleanliness is next to Godliness’.
Answer:
Cleanliness is next to Godliness
The famous proverb ‘Cleanliness is next to Godliness’ indicates that cleanliness is the one of the most essential parts of a healthy life. As we all know that the habit of cleanliness is in our tradition and culture. Elders stress on the need to be clean always and insinuates us to do pooja and have a meal only after taking a shower. Having food should be preceded by proper hand wash. Even in some houses there are restrictions of entering to the temple and kitchen without taking bath.

Priests tell us to take bath, wash hands and wear clean clothes before involving in the pooja. There was a strict tradition of hand washing before meals among the Jewish elders too. There is a close connection between personal cleanliness and moral health of the person. Personal cleanliness is considered as the symbol of purity of body and soul. People who do not take daily bath or wear dirty clothes generally lose their confidence, self-respect and well being. Regular and proper cleanliness of self and surroundings prevent germs and thus keeps diseases out of our way.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) Chitra bought half litre of milk.
(b) It has been raining since five hours.
(c) The cat jumped on the wall.
(d) One of his brother is in Sri Lanka.
(e) Children prefer TV games than story books.
Answer:
(a) Chitra bought half a litre of milk.
(b) It has been raining for five hours.
(c) The cat jumped off the wall.
(d) One of his brothers is in Sri Lanka.
(e) Children prefer TV games to story books.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) The of cattle……..the roar of a lion and trembled with fear. (heard /herd)
(b) If you worked hard, you ……… pass, (appropriate modal verb)
(c) My grandmother ………… take me to temple on Fridays, (appropriate semi-modal verb)
(d) ………. bad weather, the cricket match was cancelled. (Use a suitable link word)
Answer:
(a) herd, heard
(b) will
(c) used to
(d) Due to

Question 47.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Invasions of exotic species into new geographical areas sometimes occur naturally without human agency. However, human actions have increased this trickle to a flood. Human caused introductions may occur either accidently or as a consequence of human transport, or intentionally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities.

Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and native communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake, Boiga irregularis into Guam, an island in the pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction. One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there. If the species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome.

The extent to which this homogenization can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virtue of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introductions have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogenous.

It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to recolonize after the last glaciations).Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arises where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.
Question.

1. What has usually triggered the invasions of exotic species in different parts of the world?
2. What do you mean by “legitimate”?
3. How were 10 endemic forest bird species made extinct?
4. What is the major reason for biodiversity?
5. What is biodiversity?

Answer:

1. Human actions have triggered the invasion of exotic species either accidentally or as a consequence of transport.
2. Legitimate means ‘conforming to the law or to rules’.
3. The 10 bird species were brought to extinction through nest predation.
4. One of the major reasons for the world’s great biodiversity is the occurrence of centres of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the world are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there.
5. Biodiversity is a term that describes the variety and variability of life on Earth.

[OR]

Frame a dialogue between an inspector and a civilian who has lost his bike.
Answer:
Inspector : What brings you here?
Anand : Sir, I lost my Royal Enfield bike.
Inspector : Where had you parked it?
Anand : I had parked it in front of Bank of India in Mahalakshmi Street.
Inspector : Is it not a “No parking zone”?
Anand : Yes, Sir, it was a “No parking Zone”.
Inspector : Then the traffic police might have towed it away.
Anand : How do I verily if my bike has been towed away sir?
Inspector : Go behind the station and see if your bike is there. Pay the fine and take it.
Anand : Okay Sir. Thank you so much.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.3

Question 1.
Calculate consumer’s surplus if the demand function p = 50 – 2x and x = 20
Solution:
Given demand function p = 50 – 2x, x₀ = 20

Hence the consumer’s surplus is 400 units.

Question 2.
Calculate consumer’s surplus if the demand function p = 122 – 5x – 2x², and x = 6
Solution:
Demand function p = 122 – 5x – 2x² and x = 6
when x = x₀ = 6
p₀ = 122 – 5(6) – 2(36)
= 122 – 30 – 72
= 20

Hence the consumer’s surplus is 378 units

Question 3.
The demand function p = 85 – 5x and supply function p = 3x – 35. Calculate the equilibrium price and quantity demanded. Also, calculate consumer’s surplus.
Solution:
Given p_d = 85 – 5x and p_s = 3x – 35
At equilibrium prices p_d = p_s
85 – 5x = 3x – 35
⇒ 8x = 120
⇒ x = 15
p₀ = 85 – 5(15) = 85 – 75 = 10

The equilibrium price is ₹10, the quantity demanded is 15. The consumer surplus is 562.50 units.

Question 4.
The demand function for a commodity is p = e^-x .Find the consumer’s surplus when p = 0.5.
Solution:
Given demand function p = e^-x
At p = 0.5, (i.e) p₀ = 0.5,
we have p₀ = \(e^{-x_{0}}\)
⇒ 0.5 = \(e^{-x_{0}}\)
Taking log_e on both sides
log_e(0.5) = -x₀

Question 5.
Calculate the producer’s surplus at x = 5 for the supply function p = 7 + x.
Solution:
Given supply function is p = 7 + x, x₀ = 5
p₀ = 7 + x₀ = 7 + 5 = 12
Producer’s surplus

Hence the producer’s surplus is \(\frac{25}{2}\) units

Question 6.
If the supply function for a product is p = 3x + 5x². Find the producer’s surplus when x = 4.
Solution:
Given the supply function p_s = 3x + 5x²
when x = 4, (i.e) x₀ = 4,
p₀ = 3 (4) + 5(4)² = 12 + 80 = 92

Hence the producer’s surplus is 237.3 units.

Question 7.
The demand function for a commodity is p = \(\frac{36}{x+4}\). Find the consumer’s surplus when the prevailing market price is ₹ 6.
Solution:
Given p = \(\frac{36}{x+4}\)
The marker price is ₹6 (i.e) p₀ = 6

So the consumer’s surplus when the prevailing market price is ₹ 6 is (36 log \(\frac{3}{2}\) – 12) units.

Question 8.
The demand and supply functions under perfect competition are p_d = 1600 – x² and p_s = 2x² + 400 respectively. Find the producer’s surplus.
Solution:
Given demand function p_d = 1600 – x² and
Supply function p_s = 2x² + 400
Perfect competition means there is equilibrium between supply and demand
p_s = p_d
⇒ 1600 – x² = 2x² + 400
⇒ 3x² = 1200
⇒ x² = 400
⇒ x = ± 20
The value of x cannot be negative. So x = 20 we take x₀ = 20.
p₀ = 1600 – (20)² = 1600 – 400 = 1200


Hence the producer’s surplus is \(\frac{32000}{3}\) units.

Question 9.
Under perfect competition for a commodity the demand and supply laws are \(p_{d}=\frac{8}{x+1}-2\) and \(p_{s}=\frac{x+3}{2}\) respectively. Find the consumer’s and producer’s surplus.
Solution:
Given \(p_{d}=\frac{8}{x+1}-2\) and \(p_{s}=\frac{x+3}{2}\)
Here, since there is perfect competition, there is equilibrium, that is p_d = p_s

Since the value of x cannot be negative, x = 1 we take this value as x₀


Hence under perfect competition,
(i) The consumer’s surplus is (8 log 2-4) units
(ii) The producer’s surplus is \(\frac{1}{4}\) units.

Question 10.
The demand equation for a products is x = \(\sqrt{100-p}\) and the supply equation is x = \(\frac{p}{2}\) – 10. Determine the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus, under market equilibrium.
Solution:
Given demand equation is x = \(\sqrt{100-p}\) and supply equation is x = \(\frac{p}{2}\) – 10
So the demand law is x² = 100 – p
⇒ p_d = 100 – x²
Supply law is given by x + 10 = \(\frac{p}{2}\)
⇒ p_s = 2(x + 10)
Under equilibrium p_d = p_s
⇒ 100 – x² = 2(x + 10)
⇒ 100 – x² = 2x + 20
⇒ x² + 2x – 80 = 0
⇒ (x + 10) (x – 8) = 0
⇒ x = -10, 8
The value of x cannot be negative, So x = 8
When x₀ = 8, p₀ = 100 – 8² = 100 – 64 = 36

= 288 – 2(112)
= 64
So the producer’s surplus is 64 units.

Question 11.
Find the consumer’s surplus and producer’s surplus for the demand function p_d = 25 – 3x and supply function p_s = 5 + 2x.
Solution:
Given p_d = 25 – 3x and p_s = 5 + 2x
At market equilibrium, p_d = ps_s
⇒ 25 – 3x = 5 + 2x
⇒ 5x = 20
⇒ x = 4
When x₀ = 4, p₀ = 25 – 12 = 13

So the consumer’s surplus is 24 units.

So the producer’s surplus is 16 units.

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TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Production which involves several stages for manufacturing finished products is known as …………
(a) Analytical industry
(b) Synthetic industry
(c) Processing industry
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Processing industry

Question 2.
The classification of companies on the basis of incorporation are …………
(i) Chartered companies
(ii) Public companies
(iii) Statutory companies
(iv) Private companies
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 3.
Which of the following helps in maximizing sale of goods to society?
(a) Business success
(b) Laws and Regulations
(c) Ethics
(d) Professional Management
Answer:
(c) Ethics

Question 4.
An organisation carrying out activities to move goods from the producer to consumers is …………
(a) Transport
(b) Logistics
(c) Channels
(d) Marketing
Answer:
(a) Transport

Question 5.
A Co-operative fails because of …………
(a) Unlimited Membership
(b) Cash trading
(c) Mismanagement
(d) Loss making
Answer:
(c) Mismanagement

Question 6.
Activities undertaken out of love and affection or with social service motive are termed as:
(a) Economic activities
(b) Monetary activities
(c) Non-economic activities
(d) Financial activities
Answer:
(c) Non-economic activities

Question 7.
The largest commercial bank of India is …………
(a) ICICI Bank
(b) SBI
(c) PNB
(d) RBI
Answer:
(b) SBI

Question 8.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i) Bonded warehouses
(ii) Private warehouses
(iii) Refrigerated warehouses
(iv) Special commodity warehouses

List – II
1. Private Business enterprise
2. Tobacco, Cotton
3. Non-payment of customers duty
4. Cold storages

Codes:
(a) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 2
(c) (i) 3, (ii) 2, (iii) 4, (iv) 1
(d) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
Answer:
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 2

Question 9.
Small shops which deal in a particular line of products are called as …………
(a) Market traders
(b) Single line stores
(c) Supermarket
(d) Street market
Answer:
(b) Single line stores

Question 10.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(а) Income Tax – Indirect tax
(b) Internal trade – Within the boundaries of a nation
(c) SGST – Direct tax
(d) Export trade – Home trade
Answer:
(b) Internal trade – Within the boundaries of a nation

Question 11.
………… banks were nationalised in India, in the year 1969.
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 6
(d) 21
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 12.
The Institutional warehouse started with the support of the Government is …………
(a) Bonded warehouse
(b) Public warehouse
(c) Food Corporation of India
(d) Custom Bonded
Answer:
(c) Food Corporation of India

Question 13.
A partner neither contribute capital, nor he is entitled to manage the business is known as …………
(a) Active Partner
(b) Dormant partner
(c) Nominal Partner
(d) Secret Partner
Answer:
(c) Nominal Partner

Question 14.
The primary objective of the state enterprise is to …………
(a) Earn profit
(b) Provide employment
(c) Serve the people
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Serve the people

Question 15.
The basic principle of Insurance is …………
(a) Insurable interest
(b) Co-operation
(c) Subrogation
(d) Proximate causa
Answer:
(b) Co-operation

Question 16.
Buying and selling of goods through electronic network is known as …………
(a) E-commerce
(b) Internet
(c) Website
(d) Trade
Answer:
(a) E-commerce

Question 17.
The members in the Joint Hindu family are called …………
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parceners
(c) Generations
(d) Partners
Answer:
(b) Co-parceners

Question 18.
The oldest form of organisation in public sector is …………
(a) Public Sector undertakings
(b) Departmental undertakings
(c) Multinational corporations
(d) Statutory corporation
Answer:
(b) Departmental undertakings

Question 19.
Which one helps in announcing the arrival of new products and their uses to the people?
(a) Advertising
(b) Banking
(c) Trade
(d) Transport
Answer:
(a) Advertising

Question 20.
Which one is internal source of finance?
(a) Retained earnings
(b) Shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Public deposits
Answer:
(a) Retained earnings

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by balance of trade?
Answer:
Balance of trade denotes the difference between the value of import and the value of export during a year.

Question 22.
What is meant by statutory company?
Answer:
Companies established by a Special Act passed in a Parliament or Assembly is known as Statutory company. It is also called as Statutory Corporation, (e.g.,) LIC, Food Corporation of India and RBI.

Question 23.
What is income Tax?
Answer:
Income tax is a direct tax under which tax is calculated on the income, gains or profits earned by a person such as individuals and other artificial entities (a partnership firm and company etc.).

Question 24.
What is GATT?
Answer:
The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed at Geneva on 30th October 1947 by 23 countries. It came into effect on 1st January 1948.

Question 25.
Joint Hindu family is created by Hindu law. The membership of this form of business is acquired by birth. Who will look after the business in this kind?
Answer:
‘Karta’ is the head of the family and he looks after the Joint Hindu Family Business. He is also called as the manager. The Karta is entitled to deal with outsiders.

Question 26.
What are the non-corporate enterprises?
Answer:

• Sole trading concern
• partnership firm
• Joint Hindu family business

Question 27.
What is meant by limited liability?
Answer:
The liability of a shareholder is limited. The risk of loss is limited to the unpaid amount on the face value of shares held.

Question 28.
Write any two advantages of water transport.
Answer:

• It is considered as the cheapest mode of transport among the other modes of transport.
• It is most suitable for heavy loads.

Question 29.
Define the term Assessee.
Answer:
Assessee means a person by whom any tax or any other sum of money is payable under Income Tax Act. It includes every person in respect of whose income is assessed every year.

Question 30.
What is a Self Help Group?
Answer:
Rural development is one of the main pillars of progress of India. It has lagged behind in many aspects of development even after six decades of the independence of India. Self Help Group has emerged as a new model for combating poverty.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write any three characteristics of sole proprietorship.
Answer:

• Ownership by one man:
  This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
• Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
  Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
• Unlimited Liability:
  When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 32.
Explain the features of Self Help Groups.
Answer:
Features of Self Help Groups:

• The motto of every self help group members should be “Saving first – Credit later”.
• Self help group is homogeneous in terms of economic status.
• The ideal size of a self help group ranges between 10 and 20 members.

Question 33.
What is meant by pathways transport?
Answer:
Pathways transport is the oldest form of transport found in hilly areas, forest areas and in remote places. These are used by human beings for transport.

Question 34.
Distinguish between Extractive industries and Genetic industries.
Answer:

Extractive Industries:

• These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
• Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of geographical or natural environment.

Genetic Industries:

• These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
• The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries and apiary, etc.

Question 35.
Write a short note about state warehousing corporation.
Answer:
State Warehousing Corporation (SWC):
Every state government is given power to establish its own Warehousing Corporation after getting approval from the Central Warehousing Corporation (CWC). 50% of the capital is contributed by the CWC and the balance 50% contributed by State Government.

Question 36.
What is the need for corporate governance?
Answer:
Corporate Governance is the system by which businesses are directed and controlled in the best interests of all stakeholders. It maintains balance among individual goals, societal goals, economic goals and social goals. Good corporate governance enables corporate success and economic development.

Question 37.
What is bill of lading?
Answer:
Bill of Lading refers to a document signed by ship owner or to his agent mentioning that goods specified have been received and it would be delivered to the importer or his agent at the port of destination, if in good condition subject to terms and conditions mentioned therein.

Question 38.
Write any three demerits of UGST.
Answer:

• Several Economists says that GST in India would impact negatively on the real estate market. It would add up to 8 percent to the cost of new homes and reduce demand by about 12 percent.
• Another criticism is that COST, SGST are nothing but new names for Central Excise/ Service Tax, VAT and CST. Hence, there is no major reduction in the number of tax layers.
• A number of retail products currently have only four percent tax on them. After GST, garments and clothes could become more expensive.

Question 39.
Write a note on housing co-operatives.
Answer:
The co-operative housing societies are meant to provide residential accommodation to their members. People who want to build houses of their own join together and form housing societies.

Services:

• They advance loans to members to build houses.
• Instead of granting loan, they construct houses for their members.

Question 40.
Explain the term NEFT.
Answer:
National Electronic Fund Transfer (NEFT) was launched by the RBI in 2005. Under this electronic funds transfer system, bulk transfer of transactions are settled in batches during specific timings across India. Individuals and institutions which maintain accounts with a NEFT enabled bank branch are eligible for using NEFT.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Write a note on consumer co-operative society.
Answer:
Consumer co-operatives are organized by consumers that want to achieve better prices or quality in the goods or services they purchase. In contrast to traditional retail stores or service providers, a consumer co-operative exists to deliver goods or services rather than to maximize profits from selling those goods or services.

Nationally, the most, widely used co-operative form is the credit union, with some 90 million members. Credit union assets have grown a hundred-fold in three decades. Credit unions are essentially co-operatives of people that use banking services. Students’ co-operative stores, co-operative provision stores, supermarkets set up on co-operative societies of India are examples of this type.

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
What is meant by prospectus? Explain any six contents of the prospectus.
Answer:
According to Section 2(36) of the Companies Act, any document inviting the public to buy its shares or debentures comes under the definition of prospectus. It also applies to advertisements inviting deposits from the public. A prospectus is “the only window through which a prospective investor can look into the soundness of a company’s venture”.
Contents:

• The prospectus contains the main objectives of the company.
• The name and address of the signatories of the Memorandum of Association.
• The name, address and occupation of directors and managing directors.
• The number and classes of shares and debentures.
• Name and address of the auditors, bankers and solicitors of the company.
• Time and place where copies of balance sheets, profits and loss account and the auditor’s report may be inspected.

Question 42 (a).
Explain services rendered by wholesalers to retailers.
Answer:

1. Financial Assistance:
   Wholesalers provide financial assistance to retailers by selling goods on credit.
2. Meeting the Requirements:
   Due to limited capital and lack of space in his facility a retailer cannot hold large variety of products.
3. Introduction of New Products:
   Wholesalers bring new products and their uses to the notice of retailers.
4. Price Stability:
   Wholesalers reduce price fluctuations by adjusting supply and demand and save the retailers from loss arising from price fluctuations.
5. Economy in Transport:
   A wholesaler often delivers goods at the door steps of retailers and save their time and cost of transport.
6. Regular Supply:
   Wholesalers keep large stock of varieties, of goods and provide a regular supply of goods as per the retailer’s need.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Describe the importance of international trade.
Answer:

1. International finance helps in calculating exchange rates of various currencies of nations and the relative worth of each and every nation in terms thereof.
2. It helps in comparing the inflation rates and getting an idea about investing in international debt securities.
3. It helps in ascertaining the economic status of the various countries and in judging the foreign market.
4. International Financial Reporting System (IFRS) facilitates comparison of financial statements made by various countries.
5. It helps, in understanding the basics of international organisations and maintaining the balance among them.

Question 43 (a).
Partnership is formed by agreement. It is desirable to have a written agreement. What is the name of the agreement? Explain the contents of it.
Answer:
(1) Name:
Name of the Firm.

(2) Nature of Business:
Nature of the proposed business to be carried on by the partners.

(3) Duration of Partnership:
Duration of the partnership business whether it is to be run for a fixed period of time or whether it is to be dissolved after completing a particular venture.

(4) Capital Contribution:
The capital is to be contributed by the partners. It must be remembered that capital contribution is not necessary to become a partner for, one contribute his organizing power, business acumen, managerial skill, etc., instead of capital.

(5) Withdrawal from the Firm:
The amount that can be withdrawn from the firm by each partner.

(6) Profit / Loss Sharing:
The ratio in which the profits or losses are to be shared, If the profit sharing ratio is not specified in the deed, all the partners must share the profits and bear the losses equally.

(7) Interest on Capital:
Whether any interest is to be allowed on capital and if so, the rate of interest.

(8) Rate of Interest on Drawing:
Rate of interest on drawings, if any.

(9) Loan from Partners:
Whether loans can be accepted from the partners and if so the rate of interest payable thereon.

(10) Account Keeping:
Maintenance of accounts and audit.

(11) Salary and Commission to Partners:
Amount of salary or commission payable to partners for their services. (Unless this is specifically provided, no partner is entitled to any salary).

(12) Retirement:
Matters relating to retirement of a partner. The arrangement to be made for paying out the amount due to a retired or deceased partner must also be stated.

(13) Goodwill Valuation:
Method of valuing goodwill on the admission, death or retirement of a partner.

(14) Distribution of Responsibility:
Distribution of managerial responsibilities. The work that is entrusted to each partner is better stated in the deed itself.

(15) Dissolution Procedure:
Procedure for dissolution of the firm and the mode of settlement of accounts thereafter.

(16) Arbitration of Dispute:
Arbitration in case of disputes among partners. The deed should provide the method for settling disputes or difference of opinion. This clause will avoid costly litigations.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Explain any five principles of Co-operatives.
Answer:
(1) Voluntary and Open Membership:
Cooperatives are voluntary organizations, open to all people able to use its services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political or religious discrimination.

(2) Democratic Member Control:
Cooperatives are democratic organizations controlled by their members – those who buy the goods or use the services of the cooperative who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

(3) Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to, and democratically control, the capital of the cooperative. This benefits members in proportion to the business they conduct with the cooperative rather than on the capital invested.

(4) Autonomy and Independence:
Cooperatives are autonomous, self-help organizations controlled by their members. If the cooperative enters into agreements with other organizations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the cooperative’s autonomy.

(5) Education, Training, and Information:
Cooperatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their cooperative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of cooperatives.

Question 44 (a).
State the constraints of barter system.
Answer:
(1) Lack of double coincidence of wants:
Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, Barter cannot take place.

(2) Non-existence of common measure of value:
Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.

(3) Lack of direct contact between producer and consumers:
It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.

(4) Lack of surplus stock:
Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
RBI is the central bank of our country. It is the apex bank and also controls the other banks. The functions of RBI can be grouped under three heads:
A. Leadership and Supervisory functions
B. Traditional functions
C. Promotional functions
Explain any five traditional functions of RBI:
Traditional Functions of RBI:
Answer:
(1) Banker and Financial Advisor to the Government:
The RBI accepts money into the Central and State Governments’ accounts and makes payments on their behalf. It advises the government on the quantum, timing and terms of new loans.

(2) Monopoly of Note Issue:
The RBI is the sole authority to print and issue all currency notes in India except one rupee note. One rupee note and all coins are issued by the Ministry of Finance.

(3) Banker’s Bank:
The relationship between RBI and other banks in the country is just like the relationship of a commercial bank with its customers. All commercial banks can receive loans from RBI by rediscounting of bills.

(4) Controller of Credit and Liquidity:
Controlling the credit money in circulation and the interest rate in the country is a major function of RBI.

(5) Lender of the Last Resort:
In times of emergency, any bank in India can approach RBI for financial assistance. RBI provides them credit.

Question 45 (a).
Explain the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
• Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
• It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to a wholesaler or retailer.
• It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
• It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living.

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
Explain the principles of insurance.
Answer:
(1) Utmost Good Faith:
According to this principle, both insurer and insured should enter into contract in good faith. Insured should provide all the information that impacts the subject matter. Insurer should provide all the details regarding insurance contract.

(2) Insurable Interest:
The insured must have an insurable interest in the subject matter of insurance. Insurable interest means some pecuniary interest in the subject matter of the insurance contract.

(3) Indemnity:
Indemnity means security or compensation against loss or damages. In insurance, the insured would be compensated with the amount equivalent to the actual loss and not the amount exceeding the loss. This principle ensures that the insured does not make any profit out of the insurance. This principle of indemnity is applicable to property insurance alone.

(4) Causa Proxima:
The word ‘Causa proxima’ means ‘nearest cause’. According to this principle, when the loss is the result of two or more cause, the proximate cause, i.e., the direct. The direct, the most dominant and most effective cause of loss should be taken into consideration. The insurance company is not liable for the remote cause.

(5) Contribution:
The same subject matter may be insured with more than one insurer then it is known as ‘Double Insurance’. In such a case, the insurance claim to be paid to the insured must be shared on contributed by all insurers in proportion to the sum assured by each one of them.

(6) Subrogation:
Subrogation means ‘stepping the shoes on others’. According to this principle, once the claim of the insured has been settled, the ownership right of the subject matter of insurance passes on to the insurer.

(7) Mitigation:
In case of a mishap, the insured must take off all possible steps to reduce or mitigate the loss or damage to the subject matter of insurance.

Question 46(a).
Banks can be classified as follows:
(a) Based on the functions of banks
(b) Based on the status given by RBI
(c) Based on the ownership pattern
What are the banks based on functions? Explain any five kinds of banks.
Answer:
(1) Commercial banks:
Banks which accept deposits from the public and grant loans to traders, individuals, agriculture, industries, transport, etc., in order to earn profit. Their lending is in comparatively small amounts and mostly for short and medium period. e.g., State Bank of India.

(2) Development Banks:
Huge finance required for investment, expansion and modernisation of big industries and others are granted by a separate type of banks called development banks. They are also called industrial banks, e.g., IFCI and SIDBI.

(3) Co-operative Banks:
All cooperative banks in India are owned by its customers or members who are farmers, small traders and others. Co-operative banks in India are either urban based or rural based, e.g., NAFED and Tamil Nadu State Apex Co-operative Bank – Head Office, Chennai.

(4) Foreign Banks:
Banks which have registered office in a foreign country and branches in India are called foreign banks, e.g., Bank of America – USA.

(5) Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):
The RRBs were formed under the Regional Rural Bank Act 1976, jointly by the Central Government, State Government, and a sponsor bank. e.g., Pandian Grama Bank.

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
In India, Joint Hindu Family Business is a distinct form of organisation. A person can become member by birth. What are the features of Joint Hindu Family Business? Explain any five features.
Answer:
Features of Joint Hindu Family Business are:

1. Governed by Hindu Law
2. Management
3. Membership by birth
4. Liability
5. Permanent existence
6. Implied authority of Karta
7. Minor as a co-parcener;
8. Dissolution

Explanation:

1.  Governed by Hindu law:
   The business of the Joint Hindu Family is controlled and managed by the Hindu law.
2. Membership by birth:
   The membership of the family can be acquired only by birth. As soon as a male child is bom in the family, the child becomes a member.
3.  Liability:
   Except the Kartha, the liability of all other members is limited to their shares in the business.
4. Minor also as a co-parcener:
   In a Joint Hindu Family firm, even a new bom baby can be a co-parcener.
5.  Dissolution:
   It can be dissolved only at the will of the members of the family.

Question 47 (a).
What are the contents of Memorandum of Association?
Answer:
(1) Name Clause:
The name clause requires you to state the legal and recognized name of the company. You are allowed to register a company name only if it does not bear any similarities with the name of an existing company.

(2) Situation Clause:
The registered office clause requires you to show the physical location of the registered office of the company. You are required to keep all the company registers in this office in addition to using in handling all the outgoing and incoming communication correspondence.

(3) Objective Clause:
The objective clause requires you to summarize the main objectives for establishing the company with reference to the requirements for share holding and use of financial resources. You also need to state ancillary objectives; that is, those objectives that are required to facilitate the achievement of the main objectives.

(4) Liability Clause:
The liability clause requires you to state the extent to which shareholders of the company are liable to the debt obligations of the company in the event of the company dissolving. You should show that shareholders are liable only to their shareholding and/or to their commitment to contribute to the dissolution costs upon liquidation of a company limited by guarantee.

(5) Capital Clause:
The capital clause requires you to state the company’s authorized share capital, the different categories of shares and the nominal value (the minimum value per share) of the shares. You are also required to list the company’s assets under this clause.

(6) Association Clause:
The association clause confirms that shareholders bound by the MOA are willingly associating and forming a company. You require seven members to sign an MOA for a public company and not less than two people for a MOA of a private company. You must conduct the signing in the presence of witness who must also append his signature.

[OR]

Question 47 (b).
Explain the various kinds of deposits accepted by commercial banks.
Answer:
Broadly deposit accounts can be classified into demand deposits and time deposits.
(A) Demand Deposits:
These deposits are repayable on demand on any day. This consists of savings deposits and current deposits.

1. Savings Deposits:
   General public deposit their savings into this account. This account can be opened in one individual’s name or more than one name.
2. Current Deposits:
   This account is suitable for business institutions. Individuals too can open this account. A higher minimum balance should be kept in this account.

(B) Time Deposits:
These include fixed deposits and recurring deposits which are repayable after a period.

1. Fixed Deposits (FD):
   Certain amount is deposited for a fixed period for a fixed rate of interest.
2. Recurring Deposits (RD):
   Certain sum is deposited into the account every month for one year or five years or the agreed period. Interest rate is more than savings deposits and almost equal to fixed deposits.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.12

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{-1}{2 x^{2}}+c\)
Hint:

Question 2.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{2^{x}}{\log 2}+c\)

Question 3.
\(\int \frac{\sin 2 x}{2 \sin x} d x\) is _______
(a) sin x + c
(b) \(\frac {1}{2}\) sin x + c
(c) cos x + c
(d) \(\frac {1}{2}\) cos x + c
Answer:
(a) sin x + c
Hint:

Question 4.
\(\int \frac{\sin 5 x-\sin x}{\cos 3 x} d x\) is _____
(a) -cos 2x + c
(b) –\(\frac {1}{2}\) cos 2x + c
(c) \(-\frac{1}{4}\) cos 2x + c
(d) -4 cos 2x + c
Answer:
(a) -cos 2x + c
Hint:

Question 5.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{2}(\log x)^{2}\)
Hint:

Question 6.

Answer:
(b) \(2 \sqrt{1+e^{x}}+c\)
Hint:

Question 7.

Answer:
(b) \(2 \sqrt{e^{x}}+c\)
Hint:

Question 8.

Answer:
(a) \(e^{2 x} x^{2}+c\)
Hint:

Question 9.

Answer:
(d) \(\log \left|e^{x}+1\right|+c\)
Hint:

Question 10.
\(\int\left[\frac{9}{x-3}-\frac{1}{x+1}\right] d x\) is _____
(a) log|x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c
(b) log|x – 3| + log|x + 1| + c
(c) 9log|x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c
(d) 91og|x – 3| + log|x + 1| + c
Answer:
(c) 9log|x – 3| – log|x + 1| + c

Question 11.

Answer:
(b) \(\frac{1}{2} \log \left|4+x^{4}\right|+c\)
Hint:

Question 12.

Answer:
(b) \(\log |x+\sqrt{x^{2}-36}|+c\)
Hint:

Question 13.

Answer:
(b) \(2 \sqrt{x^{2}+3 x+2}+c\)
Hint:

Question 14.
\(\int_{0}^{1}(2 x+1) d x\) is _______
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint:

Question 15.
\(\int_{2}^{4} \frac{d x}{x}\) is _______
(a) log 4
(b) 0
(c) log 2
(d) log 8
Answer:
(c) log 2
Hint:

Question 16.
\(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-2 x} d x\) is _____
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Hint:

Question 17.
\(\int_{-1}^{1} x^{3} e^{x^{4}} d x\) is _______
(a) 1
(b) \(2 \int_{0}^{1} x^{3} e^{x^{4}} d x\)
(c) 0
(d) 2
Answer:
(c) 0
Hint:

Question 18.
If f(x) is a continous function and a < c < b, then \(\int_{a}^{c} f(x) d x+\int_{c}^{b} f(x) d x\) is _____
(a) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x-\int_{a}^{c} f(x) d x\)
(b) \(\int_{a}^{c} f(x) d x-\int_{a}^{a} f(x) d x\)
(c) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x\)
(d) 0
Answer:
(c) \(\int_{a}^{b} f(x) d x\)

Question 19.
The value of \(\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x d x\) is _______
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2
Hint:

Question 20.

Answer:
(a) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
Hint:

Question 21.

Answer:
(b) 0
Hint:

Question 22.
The value of \(\int_{2}^{3} f(5-x) d x-\int_{2}^{3} f(x) d x\) is _______
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 0
Hint:

Question 23.

Answer:
(c) \(\frac{28}{3}\)
Hint:

Question 24.
\(\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \tan x d x\) is _______
(a) log 2
(b) 0
(c) log√2
(d) 2 log 2
Answer:
(a) log 2
Hint:

Question 25.
Using the factorial representation of the gamma function, which of the following is the solution for the gamma function Γ(n) when n = 8 is _______
(a) 5040
(b) 5400
(c) 4500
(d) 5540
Answer:
(a) 5040
Hint:
Γ(8) = Γ(7 + 1) = 7! = 5040

Question 26.
Γ(n) is _____
(a) (n – 1)!
(b) n!
(c) n Γ(n)
(d) (n – 1) Γ(n)
Answer:
(a) (n – 1)!
Hint:
Γ(n) = Γ(n – 1) + 1 = (n – 1)!

Question 27.
Γ(1) is ______
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) n
(d) n!
Answer:
(b) 1
Hint:
Γ(1) = (1 – 1)! = 0! = 1

Question 28.

Answer:
(d) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x} x^{n-1} d x\)

Question 29.
Γ(\(\frac{3}{2}\)) is _____
(a) √π
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\)
(c) 2√π
(d) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
Answer:
(b) \(\frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2}\)
Hint:

Question 30.
\(\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{4} e^{-x} d x\) is _______
(a) 12
(b) 4
(c) 4!
(d) 64
Answer:
(c) 4!
Hint:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.11

Evaluate the following integrals as the limit of the sum:

Question 1.
\(\int_{0}^{1}(x+4) d x\)
Solution:

Question 2.
\(\int_{1}^{3} x d x\)
Solution:

Question 3.
\(\int_{1}^{3}(2 x+3) d x\)
Solution:

Question 4.
\(\int_{0}^{1} x^{2} d x\)
Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Integral Calculus I Ex 2.10

Question 1.
Evaluate the following.

(i) Γ(4)
Solution:
Γ(4) = Γ(3 + 1) = 3! = 6

(ii) Γ(\(\frac{9}{2}\))
Solution:

(iii) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-m x} x^{6} d x\)
Solution:

(iv) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-4 x} x^{4} d x\)
Solution:

(v) \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\frac{x}{2}} x^{5} d x\)
Solution:

Question 2.

Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.1

Question 1.
Using Integration, find the area of the region bounded the line 2y + x = 8, the x-axis and the lines x = 2, x = 4
Solution:
The given lines are 2y + x = 8, x-axis, x = 2, x = 4

Question 2.
Find the area bounded by the lines y – 2x – 4 = 0, y = 1, y = 3 and the y-axis.
Solution:
Given lines are y – 2x – 4 = 0, y = 1, y = 3, y-axis
y – 2x = 4 = 0 ⇒ x = \(\frac{y-4}{2}\)
We observe that the required area lies to the left to the y-axis

Question 3.
Calculate the area bounded by the parabola y² = 4ax and its latus rectum.
Solution:
Given parabola is y² = 4ax
Its focus is (a, 0)
Equation of latus rectum is x = a
The parabola is symmetrical about the x-axis
Required area = 2[Area in the first quadrant between the limits x = 0 and x = a]

Question 4.
Find the area bounded by the line y = x, the x-axis and the ordinates x = 1, x = 2.
Solution:
Given lines are y = x, x-axis, x = 1, x = 2

Question 5.
Using integration, find the area of the region bounded by the line y – 1 = x, the x axis and the ordinates x = -2, x = 3
Solution:
Given lines are y – 1 = x, x-axis, x = -2, x = 3

Question 6.
Find the area of the region lying in the first quadrant bounded by the region y = 4x², x = 0, y = 0 and y = 4.
Solution:
The given parabola is y = 4x²
\(x^{2}=\frac{y}{4}\)
comparing with the standared form x² = 4ay
\(4 a=\frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow a=\frac{1}{16}\)
The parabola is symmetric about y-axis
We require the area in the first quadrant.

Question 7.
Find the area bounded by the curve y = x² and the line y = 4
Solution:
Given the parabola is y = x² and line y = 4
The parabola is symmetrical about the y-axis.
So required area = 2 [Area in the first quadrant between limits y = 0 and y = 4]

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TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The Reserve Bank of India commenced its operations from April 1 ………………..
(a) 1936
(b) 1935
(c) 1934
(d)1923
Answer:
(b) 1935

Question 2.
What kind of tax is the GST?
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Debenture on the type of goods and services
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Indirect tax

Question 3.
Who wrote “Arthasasthra”?
(a) Kautilya
(b) Chanakya
(c) Thiruvalluvar
(d) Elangovadigal
Answer:
(a) Kautilya

Question 4.
Which is not a division of activities based on the ownership?
(a) Private enterprise
(b) Foreign enterprise
(c) Public enterprise
(d) Joint enterprise
Answer:
(b) Foreign enterprise

Question 5.
The board of directors of a company is elected by ………………
(a) creditors
(b) debtors
(c) debenture holders
(d) share holders
Answer:
(d) share holders

Question 6.
Enterprises operating in several countries but managed from one country is termed as ………………
(a) Government company
(b) Multinational company
(c) Private company
(d) Joint venture
Answer:
(b) Multinational company

Question 7.
The traditional functions of RBI are ………………
(i) Monopoly of note issue
(ii) Monetary authority
(iii) Regulating Banking System
(iv) Banker’s Bank
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iv)

Question 8.
Which of the following is not applicable in insurance contract?
(a) Unilateral contract
(b) Conditional contract
(c) Indemnity contract
(d) Inter-personal contract
Answer:
(c) Indemnity contract

Question 9.
The advantages of sole trading are ………………
(i) easy formation
(ii) limited capital
(iii) flexibility
(iv) hasty decision
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 10.
Air consignment note is prepared in ……………. forms.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 11.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i)  Barter system
(ii) Bank official
(iii) Sole trading
(iv) Joint Hindu family

List – II
(1) Employment
(2) Invention of money
(3) Co-parcener
(4) Non-corporate enterprise
code:
(a) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 3
(b) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(c) (i) 4, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 1
(d) (i) 3, (ii) 2, (iii) 1, (iv) 4
Answer:
(a) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 3

Question 12.
The role of government in logistics management is through ………………..
(a) Legislations
(b) Governance
(c) Transport
(d) Distribution
Answer:
(d) Distribution

Question 13.
Which of the following holder is given voting right?
(a) Debentures
(b) Preference shares
(c) Equity shares
(d) Bonds
Answer:
(c) Equity shares

Question 14.
Who is the last middleman in the channel of distribution?
(a) Wholesaler
(b) Producer
(c) Retailer
(d) Customer
Answer:
(c) Retailer

Question 15.
……………….. warehouses are licensed by the government and are permitted to accept the goods on bond.
(a) Bonded
(b) Cold storage
(c) Public
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Bonded

Question 16.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Life insurance – Nearest cause
(b) Causa proxima – Life assurance
(c) Health insurance – Life Insurance
(d) Motor vehicle insurance – Mediciaim policy
Answer:
(d) Motor vehicle insurance – Mediciaim policy

Question 17.
The features of partnership are ………………
(i) contractual relationship
(ii) limited liability
(iii) mutual agency
(iv) common seal
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 18.
Which is not a Regional Rural Bank ?
(a) Pallavan Grama Bank
(b) Valluvar Grama Bank
(c) Pandian Grama Bank
(d) Indian Bank
Answer:
(d) Indian Bank

Question 19.
From the following which one is non-corporate form of business?
(a) Joint stock company
(b) Sole Trading Business
(d) Government Company
(d) Co-operatives
Answer:
(b) Sole Trading Business

Question 20.
Outsource is carried out for the benefit of ………….
(a) global village
(b) transport
(c) factory
(d) time and money
Answer:
(d) time and money

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Mention any four examples of MNC.
Answer:

1. Coca-cola corporation
2. Unilever Ltd
3. Sony corporation
4. IBM

Question 22.
What is meant by Marine Insurance?
Answer:
Marine insurance is a contract of insurance under which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the insured against marine losses. The insured pays the premium for the insurer’s guarantee to make good the losses arising from marine perils. Marine perils may be damage of ship, fire, etc.

Question 23.
Give some examples of sole trading business.
Answer:
Saravana Stores, Hotel Saravana Bhavan, grocery stores, petty shops, etc.

Question 24.
It is a document involved in export trade. It is issued by the captain of the ship. What does it mean? Write a short note about this.
Answer:
This document is Mate’s Receipt. It is issued by the captain of the ship acknowledging the receipt of goods on board by him to the port of specified destination. This contains details like quantity of goods shipped and number of packages condition for packing, etc.

Question 25.
What is meant by private company?
Answer:
Private limited company is a type of company which is formed with minimum two shareholders and two directors, the minimum requirement with respect to authorised or paid up capital of Rs. 1,00,000 has been omitted by the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015 w.e.f 29th of May, 2015. Another crucial condition of a private limited company is that it by its articles of association restricts the right to transfer its shares and also prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.

Question 26.
It is a private sector bank. It is also called as non-banking financial companies. What is the name of the bank? Mention any two objectives of the bank.
Answer:
The name of the bank is Small Finance Banks (SFBs). It is a private sector bank. Objectives:

• Mobilising rural savings (accepting deposits).
• Providing credit to farmers and small industries.

Question 27.
Give the meaning of trade.
Answer:
The buying and selling of goods and services consists of trade. Trade is conducted in order to earn profit.

Question 28.
Human activity is divided into:

1. economic activity
2. non-economic activity.

What is meant by non-economic activity? Mention two examples of this.
Answer:
Activities undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs are called non-economic activities.
Examples – cooking food for family, celebrating festivals, etc.

Question 29.
What do you mean by Articles of Association?
Answer:
Articles of Association is a secondary document which contains the purpose, duties and responsibilities of the members. It has to be filed with the registrar of companies at the time of forming the company. It contains the details of the internal management of the company.

Question 30.
Who is a franchisee?
Answer:
The individual who acquires the right to operate the business or use the trademark of the seller is known as the franchisee.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain any three objectives of IMF.
Answer:
International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international organisation, having headquarters in Washington DC.
Objectives:

• Promoting international monetary co-operation.
• Ensuring balanced international trade.
• Ensuring exchange rate stability.

Question 32.
Trade between buyer and seller of different countries is called foreign trade. It is also called international trade. What is the classification of foreign trade?
Answer:
On the basis of sale and purchase of goods and services, international or foreign trade can be divided into three types:
They are –

• Export trade:
  Selling of goods from one country to another country.
• Import trade:
  When a country purchases goods from another country is called import trade.
• Entrepot trade:
  Goods are imported for the purpose of exporting is called entrepot trade.

Question 33.
What are the various kinds of social responsibilities?
Answer:

• Economic responsibility
• Legal responsibility
• Ethical responsibility
• Discretionary responsibility

Question 34.
For commencing a company, two main documents are needed. They are:

1. Memorandum of Association,
2. Articles of Association.

Articles of Association is a document which contains the duties and responsibilities of members. What are the contents of Articles of Association? (Any six points)
Answer:

• Amount of shares, capital, value and type of shares.
• Rights of each class of shareholders regarding voting, dividend, return of capital.
• Rules regarding issue of shares and debentures.
• Procedures as well as regulations in respect of making calls on shares.
• Manner of transfer of shares.
• Declaration of dividends.
• Borrowing powers of the company.
• Rules regarding the appointment, remuneration, removal of directors.
• Procedure for conducting proxy, quorum, meetings, etc.
• Procedures concerning keeping of books and audits.
• Seal of the company.
• Procedures regarding the winding up of the company.

Question 35.
Siva takes a policy for the non-recovery of freight.

1. What kind of policy is this?
2. Also write a brief note about this.

Answer:

1. The policy is freight insurance, coming under marine insurance.
2. A marine policy is taken to safeguard against non-recovery of freight; it is called as freight insurance. It is useful to the shipping company to collect the freight.

Question 36.
Write any three characteristics of sole trader.
Answer:

• Ownership by one man:
  This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
• Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
  Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
• Unlimited Liability:
  When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 37.
Write down the functions of IMF.
Answer:
IMF is an international organisation having head quarters at Washington DC.
Functions of IMF:

• It acts as a short term credit institution at the international level. .
• It provides machinery for ordinary adjustments of exchange rates.
• It promotes economic stability and global growth by encouraging countries.

Question 38.
Why is balance of payments prepared?
Answer:
Balance of payments help in framing monetary, fiscal and trade policies of country. Government keenly observes balance of payment position of its important trade partners in making policy decisions. It reveals whether a country produces enough economic output to pay for its growth.

Question 39.
What is the necessity of entrepot trade?
Answer:
Meaning of Entrepot Trade:
If a country imports goods for the purpose of exporting the same goods to other country, it is known as entrepot trade. Necessity for Entrepot Trade – A country can re-export the goods for the following reasons:

• The country may not have any accessible trade routes connecting the importing country.
• The goods imported may require further processing before exporting. For this, some facilities may not be available in exporting or importing country.
• There may not have any bilateral trade agreement between both the countries.
• Importer and exporter may not share good economic relation with each other.

Question 40.
What is pledge?
Answer:
A customer transfers the possession of an article with the creditor (banker) and receives loan. Till the repayment of loan, the article is under the custody of the borrower. If the debtor fails to refund the loan, creditor (banker) will auction the article pawned and adjust the outstanding loan from the sale proceeds.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
What is IRDAI? Explain the objectives of IRDAI.
Answer:
Insurance Regulatory Development and Authority of India is the statutory and apex body that governs, regulates and supervises the insurance in India. It was constituted in the year 2000 by Parliament of India Act called IRDAI Act, 1999.
Objectives of IRDAI:

• To promote the interest and rights of policy holders.
• To promote and ensure the growth of Insurance industry.
• To ensure speedy settlement of genuine claims and to prevent frauds and malpractices.
• To bring transparency and orderly conduct in financial markets, dealing with insurance.

[OR]

Question 41(b).
Explain the features of factoring.
Answer:

1. Maintenance of book-debts:
   A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of debtors of a business institution.
2. Credit coverage:
   The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
3. Cash advances:
   Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
4. Collection service:
   Issuing reminders, receiving part payments, collection of cheques from part of the factoring service.
5. Advice to clients:
   From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advises Jregarding the credit worthiness of customers, perception of customers about the products of the client, etc.

Question 42 (a).
What are the hindrances of business? Explain any five hindrances.
Answer:
There are so many hindrances of business. They are as follows:
(1) Hindrance of Person:
The manufacturers and consumers do not know each other. It is called as hindrance of a person. It is removed by the trade or trader. The trader is connecting the producer and the consumer.

(2) Hindrance of Place:
The manufacturing place is different from the place of consumption. This difficulty is known as hindrance of place. It is removed by the transport.

(3) Hindrance of Time:
Goods are produced in one season but may be demanded throughout the year. Some goods are produced throughout the year, but may be used in certain season. It is known as hindrance of time. It is removed by the warehouse.

(4) Hindrance of risk:
Fire, theft, floods, etc., may bring huge loss to the business. It is known as hindrance of risk. It is overcome by the insurance companies.

(5) Hindrance of knowledge:
The difficulty of not knowing the place and availability of goods is known as hindrance of knowledge. It is removed by advertising and communication.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Every business enterprise has certain objectives which regulate and generate its activities. The objectives may be classified into five types. Explain the objectives of business.
Answer:
(1) Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes creation of customers, regular innovations and best possible use of available resources.

(2) Social Objectives:
Social objective are those objectives of business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of the society. Since business operates in a society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare

(3) Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, supply of quality goods to consumers, customers’ satisfaction, etc.

(4) Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well-being as well as fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped and deprived of proper education and training. The human objectives of business may thus include economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees and development of human resources.

(5) National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 43 (a).
The trade takes place between the traders of one country is known as Internal trade. Whereas the trade takes place between two countries is called as International trade. Distinguish between internal trade and international trade.
Answer:

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Describe the functions of IMF.
Answer:

• It acts as short term.credit institution at the international level.
• It provides machinery for ordinary adjustments of exchange rates.
• It has a reservoir of currencies of the member countries from which a borrower can borrow currencies of other nations.
• It promotes economic stability and global growth by encouraging countries adopt sound economic and financial policies.
• It offers technical assistance and training to help member countries strengthen and implement effective policies. Technical assistance is offered in formulating banking, fiscal, monetary and exchange policies.
• It helps member countries correct their imbalance in balance of payment.

Question 44 (a).
Describe the role of Chamber of Commerce in promotion of internal trade.
Answer:

1. Transportation or inter-state movement of goods:
   The Chambers facilitate registration of vehicles, surface transport policies, construction of highways and roads in promoting interstate movement of goods.
2. Harmonisation CGST and SGST structure.
3. Marketing of agro products and related issues:
   The associations of agriculturists and other federations interact with farming co-operatives to streamline local subsidies and formulate marketing policies for selling agro products.
4. Weights and measures and prevention of duplication of brands:
   They help the Government in formulation and implementation of uniform policies in weights and measures and prevention of duplication of brands.
5. Promoting sound infrastructure:
   They interact with Government to construct roads, ports, electricity, railways, etc.
6. Labour legislation:
   They interact with the Government on regular basis and the issues related to labour laws, retrenchments, compensation, etc., so that the industry can run efficiently, generate employment and achieve maximum productivity.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
What are the differences between bill of lading and Charter party?
Answer:

Question 45 (a).
Goods were exchanged for goods prior to invention of money. It is known as barter system. There are certain constraints for the barter system. What are the constraints of the barter system?
Answer:
The constraints of barter system are:
(1) Lack of Double Coincidence of Wants:
Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, barter cannot take place.

(2) Non-existence of Common Measure of Value:
Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.

(3) Lack of Direct Contact between Producer and Consumers:
It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.

(4) Lack of surplus stock:
Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
Distinguish between economic and non-economic activity.
Answer:

Question 46 (a).
What are the five features of income tax?
Answer:
Features of Income Tax in India:
(1) Levied as Per the Constitution:
Income tax is levied in India by virtue of entry No. 82 of list I (Union List) of Seventh Schedule to the Article 246 of the Constitution of India.

(2) Levied by Central Government:
Income tax is charged by the Central Government on all incomes other than agricultural income. However, the power to charge income tax on agricultural income has been vested wife the State Government as per entry 46 of list II, i.e., State List.

(3) Direct Tax:
Income tax is direct tax. It is because the liability to deposit and ultimate burden are on sane person. The person earning income is liable to pay income tax out of his own pocket am cannot pass on the burden of tax to another person.

(4) Annual Tax:
Income tax is an annual tax because it is the income of a particular year which is chargeable to tax.

(5) Taxon Person:
It is a tax on income earned by a person. The term ‘person’ has been defined under the income tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of person or body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons. The persons who are covered under Income tax Act are called ‘assessees’

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
Describe the features of factoring.
Answer:

• Maintenance of book-debts:
  A factor takes the responsibility of maintaining the accounts of cebtors of a business institution.
• Credit coverage:
  The factor accepts the risk burden of loss of bad debts leaving the seller to concentrate on his core business.
• Cash advances:
  Around eighty percent of the total amount of accounts receivables is paid as advance cash to the client.
• Collection service:
  Issuing reminders, receiving part payments, collection of cheques from part of the factoring service.
• Advice to clients:
  From the past history of debtors, the factor is able to provide advices regarding the credit worthiness of customers, perception of customers about tie products of the client, etc.

Question 47 (a).
Compare CGST and SGST
Answer:

Question 47 (b).
Point out the objectives of WTO.
Answer:

• Improving the standard of living of people in member countries.
• Making optimum utilization of world’s resources for sustainable development of member countries.
• Promoting an integrated more viable and durable trading system in the sphere of international business.
• Expansion of trade in goods and services.
• Ensuring full employment and large steady growth volume of real income and effective demand. .
• Protecting the environment.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1 .
……………. refers to occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries.
(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) Industry
Answer:
(a) Employment

Question 2.
The following are the disadvantages of a sole trader.
(i) Limited capital
(ii) Unlimited liability
(iii) Easy formation
(iv) Small capital
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii)

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a function of RBI?
(a) Banker to the Government
(b) Acceptance of deposits
(c) Banker’s Bank
(d) Monopoly of Note issue
Answer:
(b) Acceptance of deposits

Question 4.
Which one of the following is a type of Marine insurance?
(a) Money back
(b) Mediclaim
(c) Health Insurance
(d) Cargo Insurance
Answer:
(d) Cargo Insurance

Question 5.
Registration of partnership is ……………
(a) Compulsory
(b) Optional
(c) Not necessary
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Optional

Question 6.
The relationship between the outsiders and the company is defined in …………….
(a) Prospectus
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Memorundum of Association
(d) Certificate of incorporate
Answer:
(a) Prospectus

Question 7.
In 1969 ……………. Banks were nationalised in India.
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 6
(d) 26
Answer:
(b) 14

Question 8.
MSMEs are important for the nations economy because they significantaly contributed to
(a) industrial production
(b) exports
(c) employment
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 9.
Co-operative fails because of …………….
(a) Unlimited membership
(b) Cash trading
(c) Mismanagement
(d) Loss making
Answer:
(c) Mismanagement

Question 10.
Which is not recent trend in transportation?
(a) Mono rail
(b) Pipeline transport
(c) Bullock cart
(d) Conveyor transport
Answer:
(c) Bullock cart

Question 11.
Which one of the following is a type of Marine insurance?
(a) Money back
(b) Mediclaim
(c) Hull insurance
(d) Cargo insurance
Answer:
(c) Hull insurance

Question 12.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i) Limited liability
(ii) Unlimited liability
(iii) Voluntary organization
(iv) Special Statute

List – II
(1) Public corporation
(2) Co-operatives
(3) Joint stock company
(4) Partnership

Codes:
(a) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 2
(c) (i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 2, (iv) 1
(d) (i) 2, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 3
Answer:
(b) (i) 3, (ii) 4, (iii) 1, (iv) 2

Question 13.
Aids to trade is also called as …………….
(a) Trade
(b) Advertisement
(c) Warehousing
(d) Auxiliaries to trade
Answer:
(d) Auxiliaries to trade

Question 14.
Dispersion of decision making power to branches / subsidiaries to head office represents …………….
(a) Centralisation
(b) Decentralisation
(c) Power
(d) Integration
Answer:
(b) Decentralisation

Question 15.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Development Banks – Pallavan Grama Bank
(b) Specialised Banks – Private Sector Bank
(c) Regional Rural Banks – EXIM Bank
(d) Indian Bank – Industrial Bank
Answer:
(d) Indian Bank – Industrial Bank

Question 16.
The main benefit of outsourcing is …………….
(a) Productivity
(b) Cost reduction
(c) Skill
(d) Units
Answer:
(b) Cost reduction

Question 17.
Debenture holders are entitled to a fixed rate of …………….
(a) dividend
(b) profits
(c) interest
(d) ratio
Answer:
(c) interest

Question 18.
An ………………. is a document prepared by the importer and sent to the exporter to buy the goods.
(a) invoice
(b) indent
(c) enquiry
(d) charter party
Answer:
(b) indent

Question 19.
………………. acts as connective link between the producer and the consumer.
(a) Trade
(b) Industry
(c) Commerce
(d) Business
Answer:
(a) Trade

Question 20.
……………….. is the basic principle behind every insurance contract.
(a) Service
(b) Co-operation
(c) Fixed deposit
(d) Social service
Answer:
(b) Co-operation

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What do you mean by business?
Answer:
Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

Question 22.
When two or more families agree to live and work together to earn profit – Identify the form of business organization. Also give any two features of it.
Answer:
The form of business organization is Joint Hindu Family Business. They are doing business with family property.
Features:

• Governed by Hindu Law
• Membership by birth

Question 23.
What is meant by barter system?
Answer:
In barter system, goods were exchanged for goods prior to invention of money.

Question 24.
Some enterprises operate in more than one country. But it is incorporated in one country. What does the organisation mean? What are the other names of the organisation?
Answer:
The name of the organisation is Multinational Corporation. The other names of MNC is known by:
(a) Global enterprise
(b) International enterprise
(c) World enterprise
(d) Transnational corporation

Question 25.
Are low taxes possible in Co-operative society?
Answer:
Yes, Low taxes are possible in co-operative society because it is a non-profit enterprise, and government provides various exemptions and tax concessions.

Question 26.
What are the services included in the service business?
Answer:
Educational, Medical, Hospitality and banking are the services included in service businesses. Bank service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country.

Question 27.
Who is called a partner?
Answer:
The persons who enter into partnership are individually called ‘Partners’.

Question 28.
Who are Rochdale pioneers?
Answer:
At first, the co-operative movement was started by Robert Owen, in the year 1844. He formed a consumer’s co-operative society in England with 28. workers as members, called “Rochdale Society of Equitable Pioneers”.

Question 29.
Give a short note on FCI.
Answer:
Food Corporation of India (FCI) provides storage facilities for food grains. It also hires storage capacity from other sources such as Central Warehousing Corporation, State Warehousing Corporation and Private parties. It was set up under the Food Corporation Act 1964.

Question 30.
Write a short note on debentures.
Answer:
Debentures are an important instrument for raising long term debt capital. A company can raise funds through issue of debentures which bear a fixed rate of interest.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What is charter party?
Answer:
When goods are to be consigned in large quantity, it is advantageous to hire the whole or substantial part of the ship. The document through which this contract is made is known as ‘Charter Party’ may also be known as ‘Voyage Charter’ or ‘Time Charter’. The person who hires the ship is known as ‘Charter’. The charter becomes responsible to the third parties for the acts of the master and crew of the ship.

Question 32.
What is meant by ‘Mail order retailing’?
Answer:
Mail order business is the retail trade that sells the goods through mail. There is no direct contact between the buyer and seller in this type of trading.
Procedure:

1. Advertisements provide information about the products to consumers.
2. Order receiving and processing: On receiving orders, the goods are sent to the customers through the post office by Value Payable Post (VPP).
3. Receiving Payments: At the time of receiving goods, the customers have to make full payment of goods.

Question 33.
Mention the functions of ‘SAARC’
Answer:

1. Monitoring and co-ordinating the development programme.
2. Determining inter-sectoral priorities.
3. Mobilizing cooperation within and outside the region.
4. Dealing with modalities of financing!

Question 34.
Write any three characteristics of sole proprietorship.
Answer:

• Ownership by one man:
  This is owned by single person. The sole trader contributes the required capital. He is not only the owner of the business but also manages the entire affairs.
• Freedom of work and Quick Decisions:
  Since an individual is himself as a owner, he need not consult anybody else. Hence he can take quick decisions.
• Unlimited Liability:
  When his business assets are not sufficient to pay off the business debts he has to pay from his personal property.

Question 35.
Distinguish between extractive and genetic industries.
Answer:

1. Extractive Industries:
   These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
   Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of geographical or natural environment.
2. Genetic Industries:
   These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
   The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries and apiary, etc.

Question 36.
What is meant by ATM?
Answer:
ATM means Automated Teller Machine. A customer can withdraw money any time, anywhere in India from the ATM machine using the ATM card given by his / her bank. The machine also shows the balance available in the customers’ account, provides statement print of the few past transactions, etc.

Question 37.
List the kinds of social responsibility.
Answer:

• Economic responsibility
• Legal responsibility
• Ethical responsibility
• Discretionary responsibility

Question 38.
List the steps in factoring process.
Answer:

1. The firm enters into a factoring arrangement with a factor, which is generally a financial institution, for invoice purchasing.
2. Whenever goods are sold on credit basis, an invoice is raised and a copy of the same is sent to the factor.
3. The debt amount due to the firm is transferred to the factor through assignment and the same is intimated to the customer.

Question 39.
Write a note on agricultural income.
Answer:
Agricultural income is any rent or revenue derived from land which is situated in India and is used for agriculture purposes. It is fully exempted from tax u /s 10(1) and as such does not form part of total income.

Question 40.
There are two schools of Hindu law in Joint Hindu family business organisation. What are the two schools of Hindu law? Explain.
Answer:
In Joint Hindu Family business, there are two schools of Hindu Law: one is Dayabhaga which is prevalent in Bengal and Assam, and the other is Mitakshara prevalent in the rest of the country. In Mitakshara Law, there is a son’s right by birth in the property of joint family.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Business consists of many hindrances, while facilitating the production and distribution of goods.
(i) List out any five hindrances.
(ii) Explain any three.
(iii) How they are overcome?
Answer:
(i) For production of goods and services, there are so many hindrances. They are:

• Hindrance of person
• Hindrance of place _
• Hindrance of Time
• Hindrance of knowledge .
• Hindrance of Finance

(ii) 1. Hindrance of Person:
The problem of not knowing the place of consumers is called as hindrance of person. Because the manufacturer does not know the consumer, and the consumer does not know the producer. This difficulty is called Hindrance of person.

2. Hindrance of place:
The difficulty of connecting the place of production with the place of consumption is known as hindrance of place. The goods may be produced in one place but it may be used throughout the world, in many places. This problem is known as place hindrance.

3. Hindrance of Time:
Goods may be produced in certain period only. But it may be demanded throughout the year. Some goods may be produced throughout the year, but may be used in certain time only. This difficulty is known as hindrance of time.

(iii) Hindrance of person may be eliminated by the trader; the trader links the producer and consumer.
Hindrance of place can be overcome by the transport. The transport is connecting the place of production and place of consumption. Hindrance of time can be removed by warehouses. Goods can be stored in the warehouses till the time of demand.

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
Explain briefly about Business Process Outsourcing under the following headings:
(i) Meaning
(ii) Core activities
(iii) Any three benefits

(i) Meaning of outsourcing:
Business process outsourcing is a recent type of business in service sector. BPO (Business process sector) refers to outsourcing the work which is routine in nature to an outside agency. This practice was in USA in few companies.

(ii) Core Activities:
Companies can benefit in the long run provided they are keen on their core activities. A core activity involves experience, expertise, efficiency and even investment in the field of specialisation.

(iii) Benefits:

1. Focusing on the core activities:
   Companies can focus on their core competence, a few areas where the company has distinct capability.
2. To fill up economic development:
   Outsourcing stimulates entrepreneurship, encouraging employment opportunities, which increases economic development.
3. Reduction in investment:
   Companies through outsourcing avails the services of outsiders which in turn reduces the investment requirements.

Question 42 (a).
TO manage the government, revenue is needed. For the revenue, the government is collecting income from various methods. That revenue is used to meet the expenses of the government.
(i) How the government is collecting revenue from the public?
(ii) Also explain the methods of collecting tax.
Answer:
(i) The government is levying Tax for getting revenue. Tax is a compulsory payment by the public. It is the basic source of revenue to the government.

(ii) Tax is divided into two types:

1. Direct Tax:
   If a tax is levied on the income or wealth of a person and paid by that person directly to the government, it is called direct tax. Example: Income Tax, Wealth Tax and Capital Gains Tax.
2. Indirect Tax:
   If a tax is levied on the goods or services of a person (seller); it is collected from the buyers and is paid by seller to the Government, it is called indirect tax. Example:

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Explain the functions of wholesalers, (any 5)
Answer:
Meaning of wholesalers:
The traders who are engaged in wholesale trade are called wholesalers. A wholesaler buys goods in bulk directly from manufacturers and sells them in small lots to customers.
Functions of Wholesalers – The following are the functions of wholesalers:

(1) Collection of Goods:
Wholesaler collects the goods from the manufacturers or producers in bulk.

(2) Storage of Goods:
Wholesaler collects and stores them safely in warehouses, till they are sold out.

1. Distribution:
   Wholesaler sells goods to different retailers. Thus he performs the function of distribution.
2. Financing:
   Wholesalers provide financial support to producers and manufacturers by providing money in advance to them. He also sells goods to retailer on credit.
3. Risk Taking:
   Wholesaler buys finished goods from the producer and stores them in the warehouses till they are sold out. The wholesalers bear the risk arising from price, and damage of goods.
4. Grading and Packing:
   Wholesaler classifies the goods into different categories. He grades the goods on the basis of quality, size and weight, etc.
5. Providing Information:
   Wholesalers provide valuable information to retailers and producers.

Question 43(a).
Explain the types of Mercantile agents.
Answer:
Mercantile Agents are also called functional middlemen. A businessman appoints a person to buy and sell goods on his behalf. There are many types of Mercantile Agents:
(1) Brokers:
A broker is one who bargains for another and receives commission for his service. He brings the buyer and the seller to negotiate the contract.

(2) Factors:
A factor is a mercantile agent to whom goods are entrusted for sale by a principal. He takes physical possession of the goods, but does not obtain ownership of the goods.

(3) Commission Agent or Consignees:
A commission agent buys and sells goods on behalf of the principal for a fixed rate of commission. All risks connected with his transactions are borne by the principal.

(4) Del-credere Agents:
The agent who guarantees to the principal the collection of cash from credit sales is called ‘del-credere agent’. He is paid an additional commission known as del-credere commission for bearing the risk.

(5) Auctioneers:
They are agents who sell goods by auction on behalf of their principals. They are selling by giving notification to the public. The notice gives details about the date, time, place and details of goods for sales.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
What are the objectives of GST?
Answer:

• To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax and One
  Market)
• To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
• To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected oh the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.
• To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
• To simplify tax return procedures through common forms and avoidance of visiting tax departments.
• To provide online facilities for payment of taxes and submission of forms.

Question 44 (a).
Explain any five principles of Co-operative society.
Answer:
(1) Voluntary and Open Membership:
Co-operatives are voluntary organisations, open to all people able to use its services and willing to accept the responsibilities of membership, without gender, social, racial, political or religious discrimination.

(2) Democratic Member Control:
Co-operatives are democratic organisations controlled by their members – those who buy the goods or use the services of the co-operative-who actively participate in setting policies and making decisions.

(3) Member’s Economic Participation:
Members contribute equally to, and democratically control, the capital of the co-operative. This benefits members in proportion to the business they conduct with the co-operative rather than on the capital invested.

(4) Autonomy and Independence:
Co-operatives are autonomous, self-help organisations controlled by their members. If the co-operative enters into agreements with other organisations or raises capital from external sources, it is done so based on terms that ensure democratic control by the members and maintains the co-operative’s autonomy.

(5) Education, Training, and Information:
Co-operatives provide education and training for members, elected representatives, managers and employees so they can contribute effectively to the development of their co-operative. Members also inform the general public about the nature and benefits of co-operatives.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
Explain the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

• It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
• Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
• It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to a wholesaler or retailer.
• It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
• It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living.

Question 45 (a).
Distinguish between economic activity and non-economic activity.
Answer:

[OR]

Question 45 (b).
State the constraints of barter system.
Answer:
The constraints of barter system are:
(1) Lack of Double Coincidence of Wants:
Unless two persons who have surplus have the demand for the goods possessed by each other, barter could not materialize. If this “coincidence of wants” does not exist, barter cannot take place.

(2) Non-existence of Common Measure of Value:
Barter system could not determine the value of commodities to be exchanged as they lacked commonly acceptable measures to evaluate each and every commodity.

(3) Lack of Direct Contact between Producer and Consumers:
It was not possible for buyers and sellers to meet face to face in many contexts for exchanging the commodities for commodities.

(4) Lack of surplus stock:
Absence of surplus stock was one of the impediments in barter system. If the buyers and sellers do not have surplus then no barter was possible.

Question 46 (a).
Explain the classification of companies on the basis of nationality.
Answer:
1. Domestic Companies:
A company which cannot be termed as foreign company under the provision of the Companies Act should be regarded as a domestic company.

2. Foreign Companies:
A foreign company means a company which is incorporated in a country outside India under the law of that country. The following documents must be filed with the Registrar of Companies-

• A certified copy of the charter or statutes under which the company is incorporated.
• The full address of the registered office of the company.
• A list of directors and secretary of the company.
• The name and address of any Indian resident who is authorised to accept legal documents on behalf of the company.
• The full address of the company’s principal place of business in India.

3. Multi National Companies:
A Multi National Company (MNC) is a huge industrial organisation which-

• Operates in more than one country.
• Carries out production, marketing and research activities.
• Seeks to maximise profits world over. A domestic company or a foreign company can be a MNC.

[OR]

Question 46 (b).
Every nation has one central bank. It controls the entire banking system of the country.

1. What is the name of our central bank?
2. Explain the organisational structure of our central bank.

Answer:

1. In India the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank
2. The head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai. This central office has 33 departments in 2017. It has four zonal offices in Mumbai, Delhi, Calcutta and Chennai functioning under local boards with deputy governors as their heads. It also has 19 regional offices and 11 sub-offices (2017).

The RBI is governed by a central board of directors. The 21 member board is appointed by the Government of India. It consists of:

• One Governor and four deputy governors appointed for a period of four years
• Ten Directors from various fields
• Two Government officials
• Four Directors – one each from local boards

Question 47 (a).
What are the advantages of warehousing?
Answer:

1. It safeguards the stock for the merchants who do not have storage place.
2. Warehouses reduce the distribution cost of the traders by storing the goods in bulk and allow the trader to take the goods in small lots to his shop.
3. It helps in selection of channel of distribution. The producer will prefer whether to a wholesaler or retailer.
4. It assists in maintaining the continuous sale and avoid the possibilities of “Out of Stock”.
5. It creates employment opportunities for both skilled and unskilled workers to improve their standard of living. .

[OR]

Question 47 (b).
Short term and medium term loans are provided by commercial banks. It is repayable in one lump sum or in installments. Loans may be of various types. Explain the various kinds of loan granted by the commercial banks.
Answer:
Banks can provide various kinds of loan to the customers. They are as follows:

1.  Housing Loan:
   Accepting the title deeds of the house as security, banks provide medium and long term loans, based on the monthly income of the customer. It is a boon to the middle class salaried employees who cannot afford to pay the full price of a house in a lump sum.
2. Consumer Loans:
   Loan is granted to the customer to purchase durables like refrigerator, air-conditioner, laptop, washing machine, television, etc.
3. Vehicle Loans:
   Two wheelers, cars, buses and other vehicles can be purchased by individuals as well as organisations obtaining vehicle loans from the banks.
4. Educational Loan:
   Loan is provided by banks to students for studying undergraduate, post graduate or professional courses. Loan may be received in instalments to pay the educational fees.
5. Jewel Loan:
   Customers can pledge their gold jewels and obtain loans from banks. Interest should be paid every month.