Prasanna

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th commerce Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Coca-cola company is an example of ………….
(a) MNC
(b) Govt Company
(c) Joint Venture
(d) Public company
Answer:
(a) MNC

Question 2.
A Government company purchases shares in the name of ………….
(a) Prime minister
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) State Chief Minister
Answer:
(b) President

Question 3.
The terms used in insurance are ………….
(i)) Nomination
(ii) Fixed Deposit
(iii) Indent
(iv) Surrender value
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iv)

Question 4.
The partnership deed is also called ………….
(a) Articles of Association
(b) Articles of partnership
(c) Partnership Act
(d) Partnership
Answer:
(b) Articles of partnership

Question 5.
A warehouse holds goods as a center ………….
(a) marketing
(b) storing
(c) distribution
(d) selling
Answer:
(c) distribution

Question 6.
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(i) Chain stores
(ii) Market traders
(iii) Speciality stores
(iv) Auctioneers

List – II
1. Internal trader
2. Mercantile agent
3. Fixed shop large retailers
4. ixed shop small retailers

Codes:
(a) (i) 1, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 4
(b) (i) 4, (ii) 3, (iii) 2, (iv) 1
(c) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 2
(d) (i) 4, (ii) 2, (iii) 3, (iv) 1
Answer:
(c) (i) 3, (ii) 1, (iii) 4, (iv) 2

Question 7.
Which of the following is not a land transport?
(a) Bullock cart
(b) Tramways
(c) Air transport
(d) Railway transport
Answer:
(c) Air transport

Question 8.
The main benefits of logistics is ………….
(a) productivity
(b) cost minimisation
(c) profitability
(d) storage
Answer:
(b) cost minimisation

Question 9.
…………. In Joint Hindu family business, how one gets the membership?
(a) By agreement
(b) By birth
(c) By investing capital
(d) By Managing
Answer:
(c) By investing capital

Question 10.
Co-operative fails because of ………….
(a) Unlimited Membership
(b) Cash trading
(c) Mismanagement
(d) Loss-making
Answer:
(c) Mismanagement

Question 11.
Occupation of an engineer is ………….
(a) Employment
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Sole proprietor
Answer:
(b) Business

Question 12.
Hindrance of risk is removed by ………….
(a) Transport
(b) Insurance
(c) Warehouse
(d) Advertisement
Answer:
(b) Insurance

Question 13.
Which of the following is not an electronic banking function?
(a) NEFT
(b) RTGS
(c) ECS
(d) Safety lockers
Answer:
(d) Safety lockers

Question 14.
…………. is an acknowledgement of receipt of goods issued by dock authorities to the owner of the goods.
(a) Dock receipt
(b) Dock warrant
(c) Warehouse warrant
(d) Delivery order
Answer:
(a) Dock receipt

Question 15.
Investment limit of micro enterprise under manufacturing sector does not exceed lakhs.
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 25

Question 16.
The main aim of home trade is ………….
(a) To raise the standard of living
(b) To provide the essential goods and services economically
(c) To raise the national income
(d) To obtains all type of goods
Answer:
(b) To provide the essential goods and services economically

Question 17.
Day market is called as ………….
(a) Angadi
(b) Market
(c) Nalangadi
(d) Allangadi
Answer:
(c) Nalangadi

Question 18.
In which form, the owner, establisher and manager is only one?
(a) Joint enterprise
(b) Govt company
(c) Co-operative society
(d) Sole proprietor
Answer:
(d) Sole proprietor

Question 19.
Re-export trade is otherwise called as trade.
(a) Entrepot
(b) Export
(c) Import
(d) Foreign
Answer:
(a) Entrepot

Question 20.
The Head quarters of WTO is located at ………….
(a) New york
(b) London
(c) Geneva
(d) Brazil
Answer:
(c) Geneva

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is meant by Allangadi?
Answer:
The night market was called as Allangadi according to Saint Poet Ilango in Silapathigaram, Madurai-Kanchi.

Question 22.
An organization which is formed voluntarily for the public service ‘One man – One vote’ principle is followed in this organization. What is that organization? Write a short note about this.
Answer:
It is a co-operative organisation. Co-operative organisation is formed for the service of the members. It can be voluntarily organised by the public. In this organisation, man is given importance than money.

Question 23.
Who is called Karta?
Answer:
All the affairs of a Joint Hindu Family are controlled and managed by one person who is known as‘Karta or Manager’.

Question 24.
Write a note on ECS.
Answer:
Electronic Clearing Service (ECS) was launched by the RBI in 1995. It is an electronic method of fund transfer from a bank to another bank.

Question 25.
What do you mean by industry?
Answer:
Industry refers to economic activities, which are connected with conversion of resources into useful goods. The production side of business activity is referred as industry.

Question 26.
Who is a sleeping partner?
Answer:
A sleeping partner is the one who contributes capital and shares in the profits or losses of the firm but does not take part in the management of the business.

Question 27.
Write the meaning of the term ‘bank’.
Answer:
In simple words, bank is an institution, which deals in money and credit. The Bank, normally refers to Commercial Bank.

Question 28.
What is a crop insurance?
Answer:
This policy is to provide financial support to farmers in case of a crop failure due to drought or flood. It generally covers all risks of loss or damages relating to production of rice, wheat, millets, oil seeds and pulses, etc.

Question 29.
What do you mean by Articles of Association?
Answer:
Articles of Association is a secondary document which contains the purpose, duties and responsibilities of the members. It has to be filed with the registrar of companies at the time of forming the company. It contains the details of the internal management of the company.

Question 30.
What is Mutual funds?
Answer:
An individual investor, who wants to invest in equities and bond with a balance of risk and return generally can invest in mutual funds. Nowadays people invest in stock markets through a mutual fund.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
What is meant by Government company?
Answer:
A “Government company” is defined under Section 2(45) of the Companies Act, 2013 as “any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government, or by any State Government or Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company”.

Question 32.
Explain any three features of public corporation.
Answer:
A public corporation is a form of public enterprise, which is created by a special Act of Parliament or State Legislature.
Features:

1. Special Statute:
   It is created by a special Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Act defines its objectives, functions and relations to the ministry.
2. Separate Legal Entity:
   A public corporation is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession and common seal.
3. Capital Provided by the Government:
   The capital of a public corporation is provided by the government or by agencies of the government.

Question 33.
Who can demand performance?
Answer:

1. Promisee – Only a promisee can demand performance and not a stranger demand performance of the contract.
2. Legal Representative – Legal representative can demand Exception performance. Contrary intention appears from the contract. Contract is of a personal nature.
3. Third party – Exception to “stranger to a contract”.

Question 34.
What is Bill of lading?
Answer:
Bill of Lading, refers to a document signed by ship owner or to his agent mentioning that goods specified have been received and it would be delivered to the importer or his agent at the port of destination if good condition subject to terms and conditions mentioned therein.

Question 35.
Write short notes on:
(a) Industry
(b) Employment
Answer:
(a) Industry:
It includes all those business activities which are connected with raising, production or processing of consumer goods. Example – bread, butter and shoes.

(b) Employment:
It refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries. Example – manager, clerk, bank official.

Question 36.
What are the different modes of discharge by implied consent?
Answer:
Different modes of discharge by implied consent are:
(a) Novation
(b) Alteration
(c) Recession
(d) Remission
(e) Accord and Satisfaction
(f) Waiver
(g) Merger

Question 37.
State two disadvantages of franchising.
Answer:
(1) Franchising fees:
The initial franchising fee and the subsequent renewal fee can be very high in case of successful businesses. From the franchisee’s point of view, this may be a deterrent.

(2) Fixed royalty payment:
The franchisee has to make payment of royalty to the franchiser on a regular basis. This considerably reduces the income of the franchisee.

Question 38.
Who is a del-credere agent?
Answer:
The agent who guarantees to the principal the collection of cash from credit sales is called ‘del-credere agent’. If they do not pay the agent would bear the loss himself. He is given an additional commission known as del-credere commission bearing the risk.

Question 39.
Point out any three objectives of WTO.
Answer:

1. Improving the standard of living of people in member countries.
2. Making optimum utilization of world’s resources for sustainable development of member countries.
3. Promoting an integrated more viable and durable trading system in the sphere of international business.

Question 40.
What are the contents of indent?
Answer:
Contents of an Indent:
(a) Quantity of goods sent
(b) Design of goods
(c) Price
(d) Nature of packing shipment
(e) Mode of shipment
(f) Period of delivery
(g) Mode of payment

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41(a).
Dissolution of firm means dissolution of partnership. In this, the business comes to an end. Dissolution of partnership means the termination of the original partnership agreement. Explain the circumstances of dissolving the partnership through court.
Answer:
Dissolution of partnership means that the business comes to an end. It may be dissolution of firm, or dissolution of partnership.
Dissolution of firm is taken in two ways:

1. Without order of the court
2. With the order of the court

Dissolution with the older of the court: The court may order dissolution of a firm at a suit of a partner in any of the following circumstances:
(a) When a partner becomes insane.
(b) Permanent incapacity of any partner.
(c) Misconduct of any partner.
(d) Breach of agreement which makes the business impracticable.
(e) Transfer of interest to third person.
(f) Continued loss.
(g) When the court finds that it is just and equitable to dissolve the firm.

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
Explain any five general utility functions of commercial banks.
Answer:
Secondary functions of commercial banks can be classified into agency services and general utility services.

General Utility Functions:

1. Issue of demand drafts and bankers’ cheques:
   Demand drafts and Bankers’ cheques are issued to public and customers. Instead of sending money they can attach these instruments.
2. Accepting bill of exchange:
   Banks accept bills on behalf of customers and make payments to the foreign exporter.
3. Safety Lockers:
   Valuable documents and jewels etc can be kept in a vault provided by a bank for a rent.
4. Letter of credit:
   This document is given by bank on behalf of importing customer to exporter, guaranteeing payment for the imports.
5. Travellers’ cheques:
   Customers need not carry cash during travel in India or abroad. The denomination and words are printed in the cheque.

Question 42(a).
What are the hindrances of business? Explain any five hindrances.
Answer:
There are so many hindrances of business. They are as follows:

1. Hindrance of Person:
   The manufacturers and consumers do not know each other. It is called as hindrance of a person. It is removed by the trade or trader. The trader is connecting the producer and the consumer.
2. Hindrance of Place:
   The manufacturing place is different from the place of consumption. This difficulty is known as hindrance of place. It is removed by the transport.
3. Hindrance of Time:
   Goods are produced in one season but may be demanded throughout the year. Some goods are produced throughout the year, but may be used in certain season. It is known as hindrance of time. It is removed by the warehouse.
4. Hindrance of risk:
   Fire, theft, floods, etc., may bring huge loss to the business. It is known as hindrance of risk. It is overcome by the insurance companies.
5. Hindrance of knowledge:
   The difficulty of not knowing the place and availability of goods is known as hindrance of knowledge. It is removed by advertising and communication.

[OR]

Question 42 (b).
Every business enterprise has certain objectives which regulate and generate its activities. The objectives may be classified into five types. Explain the objectives of business.
Answer:

(1) Economic Objectives:
Economic objectives of business refer to the objective of earning profit and also other objectives that are necessary to be pursued to achieve the profit objective, which includes creation of customers, regular innovations and best possible use of available resources.

(2) Social Objectives:
Social objectives are those objectives of business, which are desired to be achieved for the benefit of the society. Since business operates in a society by utilizing its scarce resources, the society expects something in return for its welfare.

(3) Organizational Objectives:
The organizational objectives denote those objectives an organization intends to accomplish during the course of its existence in the economy like expansion and modernization, supply of quality goods to consumers and customers’ satisfaction, etc.

(4) Human Objectives:
Human objectives refer to the objectives aimed at the well-being as well as fulfillment of expectations of employees as also of people who are disabled, handicapped and deprived of proper education and training. The human objectives of business may thus include economic well-being of the employees, social and psychological satisfaction of employees and development of human resources.

(5) National Objectives:
Being an important part of the country, every business must have the objective of fulfilling national goals and aspirations.

Question 43(a).
Write the procedure for registration of a partnership firm.
Answer:
Procedure for registration of a partnership firm:
A statement should be prepared stating the following particulars:

• Name of the firm
• The principal place of business
• Name of other places where the firm carried on business
• Names and addresses of all the partners
• The date on which each partner joined the firm
• The duration of the firm

This statement signed by all the partners should be produced to the Registrar of Firms along with the necessary registration fee of Rs. 3. Any change in the above particulars must be communicated to the Registrar within 14 days of such alteration.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Write short notes on:

1. Analytical Industry
2. Genetic Industry
3. Construction Industry

Answer:

1. Analytical Industry:
   It analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of oil refinery.
2. Genetic Industries:
   These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction. The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary and etc., are classic examples of genetic industries.
3. Construction Industries:
   These industries are involved in the construction of building, dams, bridges, roads, as well as tunnels and canals.

Question 44 (a).
Explain any five essentials of a valid contract.
Answer:

1. Offer and Acceptance:
   There must be two parties to an agreement namely one party making the offer and the other party accepting it.
2. Legal Relationship:
   The parties must have the intention to create legal relationship between them. An agreement of Social or domestic nature is not at all a contract.
3. Lawful Consideration (quid pro quo):
   As per Contract Act under Sec. 2(d) Consideration means something in return. A contract without consideration becomes invalid.
4. Lawful Object (Section 23):
   The object of agreement should be lawful and legal. It must not be immoral, illegal or opposed to public policy.’
5. Free Consent (Section 13 and 14):
   Consent of the parties must be free and genuine. Consent means agreeing upon same thing in the same sense at the same time i.e. there should be consensus – ad – idem. Consent is said to be free when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation or mistake.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
Tax is classified into direct and indirect tax. Tax is a revenue to the government. It is used for the welfare of the country. Distinguish between direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:

Question 45 (a).
Explain the advantages of warehousing.
Answer:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 5 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 5

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 × 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
Her silver locks were scattered untidily over her pale, puckered face.
(a) graceful
(b) fresh
(c) smoothed
(d) wrinkled
Answer:
(d) wrinkled

Question 2.
It is the efficiency rather than the inefficiency of human memory that compels my wonder.
(a) irritation
(b) inability
(c) inferiority
(d) ability
Answer:
(d) ability

Question 3
we have to re-call the struggles of the past and realize the perils and possibilities.
(a) safeties
(b) dangers
(c) securities
(d) certainty
Answer:
(b) dangers

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
The other teams had already completed their weight in, which is compulsory for all players.
(a) required
(b) obligatory
(c) voluntary
(d) compulsion
Answer:
(b) obligatory

Question 5.
The staff looked so prosperous and unsympathetic.
(a) rich
(b) wealthy
(c) poor
(d) luxurious
Answer:
(c) poor

Question 6.
It was at this point that my wife looked at me with an expression of wonder – not anger or exasperation.
(a) irritation
(b) calmness
(c) vexation
(d) annoyance
Answer:
(b) calmness

Question 7.
Choose the clipped form of “Demonstration”.
(a) Demon
(b) Monster
(c) Demo
(d) Station
Answer:
(c) Demo

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “Pathologist”.
(a) one who studies diseases
(b) one who studies insects
(c) one who studies earthquake
(d) one who studies birds
Answer:
(a) one who studies diseases

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom “Back to the wall”.
(a) In serious difficulty
(b) abandoning one who is in difficulty
(c) try any mkhod to overcome a crisis
(d) sign of something going wrong
Answer:
(a) In serious difficulty

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence:
Talking business at dinner is a “faux pas” in France.
(a) genuine
(b) social blunder
(c) summary
(d) secret session
Answer:
(b) social blunder

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “toll”.
(a) Plaza
(b) late
(c) proof
(d) wheel
Answer:
(a) Plaza

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable prefix to the root word “audible”.
(a) in
(b) re
(c) un
(d) de
Answer:
(a) in

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “GST”.
(a) Goods and Service Trade
(b) Goods and Savings Term
(c) Goods and Service Tax
(d) Good Social Tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and Service Tax

Question 14.
Choose the Tri-syllabic word.
(a) grandmother
(b) tourist
(c) photographer
(d) lesson
Answer:
(a) grandmother

Question 15.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word – accident.
(a) _ment
(b) _able
(c) _al
(d) _ic
Answer:
(c) _al

Question 16.
Replace the underlined word choosing the most appropriate phrasal verb.
The meeting will continue in your absence.
(a) carry on
(b) carry out
(c) carry off
(d) carry in
Answer:
(a) carry on

Question 17.
Choose the unclipped form of ‘mark’.
(a) remark
(b) market
(c) demarcate
(d) marks
Answer:
(c) demarcate

Question 18.
Complete the following sentence with the most appropriate phrase.
He played ……….. his illness.
(a) in case of
(b) in spite of
(c) in the event of
(d) with regards to
Answer:
(b) in spite of

Question 19.
Choose the most appropriate question tag for the following sentence.
Cities are increasingly becoming urbanised, ………?
(a) don’t they
(b) do they
(c) aren’t they
(d) are they
Answer:
(c) aren’t they

Question 20.
Complete the following sentence choosing the most appropriate modal verb.
Bharath ……….. like to meet the celebrity.
(a) will
(b) can
(c) would
(d) may
Answer:
(c) would

Part – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“If this belief from heaven be sent,
If such be Nature’s holy plan.”
(a) What is the figure of speech implied in this line.
(b) Why does the poet call it ‘holy’?
Answer:
(a) Personification
(b) The poet believes that the harmonious, peaceful and happy co-existence of birds, plants, trees and brooks soothes the troubled mind of man. So, the poet feels as if he were inside a sacred place when he is in the woods. So, he calls the plan‘holy’.

Question 22.
“For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity
(a) Identify the poem and the poet.
(b) Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
(a) Poem : Macavity – The Mystery Cat Poet: T.S. Eliot.
(b) Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked, all the time involved in doing something evil.

Question 23.
“A life that knows no kneeling and bending We are proud and feel so tall”
(a) What kind of a life, does the poet talk about?
(b) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
(a) The poet talks about the ordinary people who do not bend before.the mighty. They defy authority and power in order to defend truth.
(b) knows and kneeling are the alliterated words.

Question 24.
“And nothing can we call our own but death And that small model of the barren earth”
(a) Pick out the rhyming words in these lines.
(b) What is the small model of the barren earth?
Answer:
(a) call, small and death, earth are rhyming words.
(b) The human body is the small model of barren earth.

Question 25.
“But now they only laugh with their teeth,
While their ice-block-cold eyes…”
(a) Who are ‘they’?
(b) Identify the figure of speech used here.
Answer:
(a) They are modem people.
(b) ‘Ice block cold eyes’ has been used as a metaphor. It implies that the man who laughs with his ice cold block eyes has no real emotions.

Question 26.
“With all my heart I do admire Athletes who sweat for fun or hire”
(а) Whom does the poet admire?
(b) For what reason do the athletes sweat?
Answer:
(a) The poet admires athletes who play games.
(b) The athletes play and sweat for fun or money.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Rewrite the following dialogue in reported form.
Taj : Where are you going now?
Harsha : I am going to the library. Are you coming with me.
Answer:
Taj asked Harsha where he was going then. Harsha replied that he was going to the library and enquired whether he was coming with her.

Question 28.
Rewrite the following sentence in its passive form.
Kaleel wrote a letter to the editor.
Answer:
A letter to the editor was written by Kaleel.

Question 29.
Combine the sentences using ‘if’.
Ragavi did not come yesterday. She was ill.
Answer:
If Ragavi had not been ill, she would have come yesterday.

Question 30.
Transform the following into a complex sentence.
Balaji was too tired to work.
Answer:
Balaji was so tired that he could not work.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
“In that sweet mood when pleasant thoughts
Bring sad thoughts to the mind.”
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “Lines Written in Early Spring” written by William Wordsworth.

Context: William Wordsworth was inspired in a small woodland grove, a landscape of beauty. He came upon this spot when walking near Alford village. While sensing the blissful mood and happiness of birds, plants, creepers and the murmuring brook, he juxtaposed what humans did to their kind in Napoleonic wars and amidst happy nature couldn’t help feeling sad. At that occasion, he said these words.

Explanation: The poet was captivated by the celestial beauty of the woodland near Alford village. The chirping of birds, the blooming flowers and the brooks expressed their ecstasy of being alive. But their charm, peace and contentment made Wordsworth compare the lives of war-mongers. Suddenly he became sad.

Question 32.
“I have learned to wear my faces Like dresses …”
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “Once Upon a Time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context : The poet says these words while admitting how he himself started putting on appearances to conform to the changed attitude of people in modem times.

Explanation : The poet registers his displeasure over the negative changes that have influenced the behaviour of adults. The adults have mastered the art of changing their facial expressions according to the situations merely to ensure social acceptance. The poet also has started wearing faces like dresses, changing them according to fashion and season and almost daily. He regrets his hypocrisy but is helpless.

Question 33.
“Our lands, our lives, and all, are Bolingbroke’s,
And nothing can we call our own but death;”
Answer:
Reference : These lines are from the poem “The Hollow Crown” by William Shakespeare. The poem is an excerpt from the play “Richard II”.

Context: Richard II after being defeated by his rebellious cousin Bolingbroke says these words in dejection.

Explanation : Henry II is routed in the war. Some of his loyal nobles try to cheer him up. But Richard II faces the hard reality. He openly admits his failure. He says their lands, lives and all belong to the victor Bolingbroke. They can call nothing but death as their own.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 34.
Why did the grandmother accompany the author to school?
Answer:
Grandma was a pious lady. The school was attached to the temple. So, the grandmother accompanied the author to his school. While he learnt letters of alphabets, she spent her time inside the temple reciting prayers and telling the beads of her rosary.

Question 35.
What is a tight corner? What happens when one finds oneself in a tight corner?
Answer:
Tight comer is a difficult situation. When one finds oneself in a tight comer, one worries and thinks seriously about the ways of getting out of it.

Question 36.
When does human memory work with less than its usual capacity?
Answer:
Human memory works with less than its usual capacity in matters like taking medicine. The author explains that human memory represents the willingness to remember certain things. It forgets what it does not wish to remember. Humans are blessed with “selective amnesia”.

(iii) Answer any three of the following: [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Re-arrange the shuffled words and frame into meaningful sentences.

1. them/ being/ is/ a house /constructed/ by.
2. the door/ not/ slammed/ be/ let.
3. saw/ entering/I/ somebody/neighbour’s house/ my.

Answer:

1. A house is being constructed by them.
2. Let the door not be slammed.
3. I saw somebody entering my neighbour’s house.

Question 38.
Extend the conversation with three more exchanges.
Seema : Could I get something to eat immediately?
Waiter : Yes Ma’am. We have hot idlies.
Answer:
Seema : I would like to have one plate of Idlies .
Waiter : Please be seated Ma’am. I’ll get you in two minutes.
Seema : And also a cup of coffee, please.
Waiter : Yes, Ma’am. Here it is.
Seema : What is the bill amount?
Waiter: It is fifty rupees, Ma’am.
Seema : Do you accept card?
Waiter : Yeah Ma’am. We accept both credit and debit cards.

Question 39.
Expand the following news headlines:

1. AIIMS hospital at Madurai soon.
2. New Syllabus and textbooks for Std 1, 6, 9 and 11 students.
3. India won the ODI series against New Zealand.

Answer:
1. The Prime Minister has told the press reporters that all the clearances have been made for the All India Institute of Medical Sciences hospital at Madurai and it will function soon.

2. New syllabus and textbooks for standard 1,6,9 and 11th students are implemented this academic year 2018-19 by the Tamil Nadu Government.

3. In a series of five One Day International cricket matches with New Zealand, India won the trophy, by winning three matches against New Zealand.

Question 40.
Describe the process of making lime juice.
Answer:

1. Wash and dry the limes. Cut each one into half with a sharp knife.
2. Press or squeeze the lime halves using a citrus juicer.
3. Add a pinch of salt and sugar to taste.
4. Filter the content and add ice cubes.

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
Why was Mary Kom named the “Queen of Boxing”.
Answer:
After Mary Korn’s first silver medal in Pennsylvania in 2001, there was no looking back. Her medal haul continued even after her marriage putting an end to the speculation of family and friends that her marriage may slow down her career progression. She retained the world title in the third World Women’s Boxing Championship at Podolsk in Russia in 2005. She won her fourth gold also in 2006. She had won several golds for India from 2001 to 2004. She had won all the Senior Women’s Boxing Championships, Second Women’s Championship (2002), Second Asian Women’s Boxing Championship at Hisar (2003) and the Witch Cup Boxing Championship at Paes, Hungary.

There were a number of other International World Championships in Taiwan, Vietnam, Denmark and so on. But it was retaining her World title in 2006 by defeating Steluta Duta of Romania which was considered as Mary Kom’s greatest achievement in life. With this hat-trick of World Championship wins, the media christened her, “Queen of Boxing” and “Magnificent Mary”.

[OR]

Bring out the pun in the title “The Accidental tourist”.
Answer:
The title “accidental tourist” implies that a man travels a lot and is always confused. He gets into trouble because of his unintentional acts and. clumsiness. He does not happen to travel by accident because he should buy a ticket, go to the airport and board the aircraft with careful plan. But during his travel he does meet with numerable accidents. The later interpretation is very apt for the author. The story depicts many humorous travel experiences like being pinned in a crash position in his own seat by a fellow passenger, spilling drink on a co-passenger, making his own teeth, gum, chin and tongue scrub-resistant navy blue by his unwise mannerism of sucking the pen, while thinking. The author accidentally gets into trouble often. Hence the pun in the use of “accidental” is pertinent.

Question 42.
Do you think the poet wants to say that man is unhappy because he has lost his link with nature and forgotten how to enjoy nature or because man is cruel to other men?
Answer:
The poet William Wordsworth wants to convey the readiness of nature to teach the art of living together in harmony, peace and bliss. But man has lost his sensitivity to listen to the joyful lessons of nature. His greed and love for possession of territories and abject cruelty to fellow humans and nature has disillusioned the poet. He has almost lost faith in the capacity of humans to love and live in harmony with nature.

Man has gone to the extent of denuding the forest which really sustains life on earth. Rare species in the forests are on the brink of extinction. Animals and birds in the red list are growing in number to the great distress of nature lovers. So, I believe Wordsworth is unhappy for both (i.e.) man’s losing the link with nature and his infinite capacity to be cruel to other men.

[OR]

Write a short summary of the poem “The Hollow Crown”.
Answer:
Shakespeare portrays the fleeting nature of human glory. King Richard II, on the verge of surrender to his rebellious cousin Bolingbroke, talks about the nature of temporal power and death. He talks about graves, epitaphs and worms. He explains how even monarchs leave nothing behind as their own except a small patch of land in which they are buried. The dejected king talks on various ways kings get killed. Some are slain in the battle field, some poisoned to death by their own spouses.

The kings who believed their bodies to be impregnable brass are shattered by just a pinprick. In fact, death is in supreme command which waits for the king, and only allows the king to act as if he were ruling and in control of everything. He chides his loyal friends who still believe that he is a monarch and tells them that he is an ordinary mortal just like them. He is humbled as he is powerless before the impending death.

Question 43.
Narrate the experiences of Leacock with the photographer.
Answer:
The author had to wait for an hour. He had a disturbing feeling that he had done an unwarrantable thing in breaking in on the photographer’s privacy and his scientific pursuits with a face like his. After studying his face for sometime the photographer said that the face was wrong. He commented that the face would be better three quarters full. Then he held the author’s face making him believe that he was going to kiss it.

He twisted the author’s face as far as it would go. He said that he didn’t like the head. He asked him to open the mouth a little and then close it. Then he said that the ears were bad. He suggested that he should droop them a little more. He asked him to roll his eyes under the lids. He asked him to turn his face upward a little and keep his hand on the knee. He instructed the author to hump the neck and contract the waist and also twist the hip. These numerous instructions and cynical comments about the features of his face annoyed him.

He exploded with anger saying that he had lived with the same face for forty years. He even wanted to leave the place without taking the photograph. When he was about to get up, the photographer clicked the button. The photographer looked pleased. He said that he had caught the author in a moment of animation. Thus the experience with the photographer was really annoying.

[OR]

Describe Miss Meadows’ mood before and after receiving the telegram. How did it affect her class.
Answer:
Miss. Meadow was heart-broken. The letter written by Basil had pierced her heart and she was bleeding. Her hatred and anger became a knife and she carried it with her. Her icy cold response to science Miss demonstrates it. She is least bothered about the tender feelings of young children who look at her face all time for a friendly nod or smile of approval. Her favourite pupil Mary Beazley is baffled at her treatment of the chrysanthemum she had brought with so much love.

The choice of the song “A lament” perfectly jells well with her worst mood. She is in fact in her heart lamenting over the loss of love, trust and future hopes. She is unnecessarily severe with young children forcing them to redo the singing which drives them to despair, pain and tears they manage to stifle. After she receives the telegram from Basil apologizing for his insane letter, her mood changes to joy. She takes the chrysanthemum and keeps it close to her lips to conceal her blush.

She goads the children to sing a song of joy congratulating some one for success. She persuades them to show warmth in their voices. Her warm and lively voice dominates the tremulous voices of the young ones. The young ones now realize that Miss Meadow who was in a wax earlier is now in her elements.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Answer:
There are basically two types of auctions: ascending-bid auctions and descending-bid auctions. Ascending-bid auctions start out with a low bid for an object. The price of the object is gradually raised until only one bidder remains. By contrast, descending-bid auctions start out with a high bid and the price is progressively lowered until a customer expresses a willingness to purchase the object. Both procedures have a number of variants.

For example, in some types of auctions a professional auctioneer declares the suggested bids. In other types of auctions, however, the customers make their own bids. Another variant, used at places such as eBay or Yahoo Auction, is called a “buyout option”. A high price for an item is declared. Anyone willing to pay that price is guaranteed a purchase. This variant seems to appeal consumers who dislike uncertainty: for a fixed price they are guaranteed an object. “Buyout options” are most commonly used if the seller has a stock of several copies of the same item.

Both ascending-bid and descending-bid auctions can be conducted in either open or closed formats. In open formats, all participants know what exactly how much an object is going for. For example, at many Japanese fish markets, wholesalers gather around the fish to be purchased and raise their hands as the auctioneer names progressively higher prices. In closed auctions, participants are unaware of how much other participants are willing to pay for an object.

For example, a case in which participants used sealed envelopes to place their bids on a piece of real estate represents this type of auction. Though open auctions generally yield higher prices, closed formats are sometimes preferred in situations in which the privacy of the prospective buyers is considered paramount or the need to document precisely how much each party bid is high.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 302
No. of words to be written in the summary: 302/3 = 101 ± 5

Rough Draft
The-two types of auctions are ascending-bid and descending-bid. Ascending-bid start with a low bid and is raised until one remains. But, descending-bid auctions starts with a high bid and lowered until a customer buys. In some, a professional declares the bids. In others, the customers do. If you hate uncertainty and the seller has many copies, ‘Buyout option;’ is best since it’s fixed prize. Both procedures have a number of variants. They can be conducted in open or closed formats. In open formats, like Japanese fish markets all participants know the on-going rate. In closed auctions such as real estates, the participants use sealed envelopes. Though open auctions yield higher prices, closed formats are preferred.

Fair Draft
Types of Auctions
The two types of auctions are ascending-bid and descending-bid. Ascending-bid start with a low bid and is raised until one remains. But, descending-bid auctions starts with a high bid and lowered until a customer buys. In some, a professional declares the bids. In others, the customers do. If you hate uncertainty and the seller has many copies, ‘Buyout option’ is best since it’s fixed prize. They can be conducted in open or closed formats. In open formats, like Japanese fish markets, all participants know the on-going rate. In closed auctions such as real estates, the participants use sealed envelopes. Though open auctions yield higher prices, closed formats are preferred.

No. of words in the summary: 109

[OR]

Note-making
Title: Types of Auctions
Answer:
1. Two Types of Auctions
(a) Ascendg.-bid auctns.
(b) Descendg.-bid auctns.

2. Procedure
(a) Ascendg. start-low bid and gradly.raisd.
(b) Descendg. start-high bid and progressvly lowered.
(c) Both have no. of variants

• Professnl. auctioners. declare the bids.
• custmrs. make their own bids.
• High price-anyone willing – a purchaser

3. Both conducted – either open or closed.
(a) Open formats – know what exctly.
(b) Closed auctns. – unaware – how much.

4. Prices yielded
(a) Open auctns – yield highr. prices
(b) Closed auctns. – preferred in stituatns. of privcy. of buyrs.

Abbreviations used: Ascendg. – ascending; Descendg. – Descending; progressvly – progressively; Professnl. – Professional; custmrs. – customers; exctly. – exactly; auctns. – auctions, highr. – higher; stituatns. – stituations; privcy. – privacy; buyrs. – buyers

Question 45.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The term plutocracy is generally used to describe these two distinct concepts: one of a historical nature and one of a modem political nature. The former indicates the political control of the state by an oligarchy of the wealthy. Examples of such plutocracies include the Roman Republic, some city-states in Ancient Greece, the civilization of Carthage, the Italian city-states/merchant republics of Venice, Florence, Genoa, and pre-WWII Empire of Japan zaibatsus. Before the equal voting rights movement managed to end it in the early 20th century, many countries used a system where rich persons had more votes than poor.

A factory owner may for instance have had 2000 votes while a worker had one or if they were very poor no right to vote at all. Even artificial persons such as companies had voting rights. Most western democracies permit partisan organizations to raise funds for politicians, and political parties frequently accept significant donations from various individuals (either directly or through corporations or advocacy groups.
Questions.

1. What is the historical nature of plutocracy? .
2. Which word in the passage mean “important”.
3. State whether the following statement is True or False.
   The poor were denied the right to vote.
4. Name any two plutocratic countries.
5. How do political parties raise funds?

Answer:

1. The historical nature of plutocracy is the political control of the state by an oligarchy of the wealthy.
2. Significant means important.
3. True
4. Roman republic and some city – states in ancient Greece.
5. Political parties frequently accept significant donations from various individuals (either directly or through corporations or advocacy groups).

[OR]

Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow:
Answer:
I know what the caged bird feels, alas!
When the sun is bright on the upland slopes;
When the wind stirs soft through the springing grass,
And the river flows like a stream of glass;
When the first bird sings and the first bud opes,
And the faint perfume from its chalice steals-
I know what the caged bird feels!
Questions.
3. In line 4, the phrase “like a stream of glass” suggests the water is………..
(a) cold
(b) clear
(c) dirty
(d) hard

2. In line 5, the word ‘opes” means
(a) Closes
(b) cracks
(c) opens
(d) falls

3. What is the tone or the mood of the poem?
4. Suggest a suitable title for the poem.
5. Pick one word from the poem which is opposite to ‘stink’.
Answer:

1. (b) clear
2. (c) opens
3. The tone of the poem is desperation and agony.
4. “Freedom” is the suitable title for the poem.
5. perfume

Question 46.
Read the following advertisement and respond to it with a resume / bio-data / CV considering yourself fulfilling the conditions specified:
[Write XXXX for your name and YYYY for your address]
Wanted
English teacher – post graduate with computer knowledge, and good communication skills.
Minimum 2 Years of Experience is mandatory.
Apply to : Post Box No : 1998
C/o. The Hindu
Chennai – 02.

2nd February 2021
From
XXXX
YYYY

To
Post Box No : 1998
C/o. The Hindu,
Chennai – 600 002.
Respected Sir,
Sub : Application for the post of an English Teacher.
In response to your advertisement on ‘The Hindu’, dated 26th August 2018,1 wish to apply for the post of an English Teacher in your esteemed institution. I will be thankful, if you kindly select me as a candidate for the said post. My bio-data is enclosed herewith for your kind perusal.
Thank you,

Yours faithfully,
XXXX
Enel: Curriculum Vitae

Curriculum Vitae:

Name: XXXX
Father’s Name : S Tharanivel
Residential Address: YYYY
Date of Birth : 10.09.1992
Marital Status: Married
Educational Qualification : M.A., B.Ed. (English)
Computer Knowledge : Java, C++ Programming and Cisco Networking
Work Experience : Working as a post graduate English teacher in Chaitanya since June 2016.
Languages Known : English, Hindi, Telugu and Tamil.
Strength : Positive attitude to work.
References : Dr. S.K. Rajan, Professor in English, D.G. Vaishnav College, Arumbakkam, Chennai – 600 106.

Declaration:
I hereby declare that the above particulars are true and correct to the best of my knowledge.
Date: 2.2.2021
Place: YYYY
Signature
XXXX
Address on the Envelope :
To
Post Box No : 1998
C/o. The Hindu
Chennai – 600 002.

[OR]

Write a paragraph in about 200 words on any one of the following :
(a) My ambition in life.
(b) The impact of Computers in the modern world.
Answer:
(a) My ambition in life
“If music be the food of love play on” says Orsino in Shakespeare’s most famous play, “Twelfth Night”. I heard the melodious lullaby my mom used to sing when I was a baby in the cradle. I am told I had stayed awake long hours to listen to my mom’s charming voice. Most of my family members are passionately in love with music. They keep murmuring some classical song or Gajal even while mopping the floor of cutting vegetables. Unlike other parents, my parents never asked me if I wanted to become a doctor or engineer. They just let me be. Just like thirsty people gravitating towards water cooler in summer, I just listened to songs and enjoyed them.

I can never recall which point of time I decided to make a career in music. It just happened like falling in love. I started practicing music first with my family members. Then I learnt from a master. He initiated me into the dream world of ragas and helped me identify the names of ragas. He took me to music concerts where world’s best musicians sang and played both classical and western music. As music has no language, I listen to all kinds of songs. I’ve decided to become a musician by profession. I love to pursue music because it would be nice to do what you love most and be paid fabulously for it.

(b) The impact of Computers in the modern world:
Computers have encroached into all walks of modem life. Computers help us in billing, reserving trains or flight tickets. Transfer or receive money online. Browse through important website and refer to materials pertaining to important concepts. Refer to probable Questions for NEET/JEE/IIT from trusted websites. One can appear for recruitment tests through online.

Thus, one’s opportunities to get employed in Government services also is determined by computers. Computers guide the path of missiles and space crafts too. Lessons programmed in computer can be listened to and one can write mock tests and enhance the chances of success in academic career with the help of computer. We can use QR codes and see lesson related videos also through Diksha portal. Today without computer literacy (i.e.) 4th R, a person can’t be considered fully literate.

Question 47.
Frame a dialogue with a minimum of ten exchanges for the given situation:
Between two players after their team lose a match very narrowly.
Answer:
Player A: I can’t believe that we lost the match by just 2 runs.
Player B: I had very much confidence that we would win.
Player A: Our team has really talented players. Everybody is shocked and upset.
Player B: Definitely the umpire has made some mistakes.
Player A: Do you think that he has missed out something?
Player B: May be. But we too had a few drawbacks like Ravi dropped a very easy catch.
Player A: There was something wrong in our fielding also.
Player B: Yes, if Srikanth hadn’t missed that catch, things would have been different.
Player A: We should not worry about the defeat. We always have another chance.
Player B: Okay. Let us do more practice and prove our capacity in the next game.

[OR]

Develop the following hints into a readable passage and give a suitable title.
Farmer in a village – had a hen – Golden egg – farmer became rich by selling golden eggs – greedy – thought to get all eggs at a time – killed the hen – found no eggs.
Answer:
Greedy Farmer
Once upon a time, there lived a farmer in a village with his family. He had a hen which laid an egg every day. It was not an ordinary egg, but, a golden egg. He became rich by selling the golden eggs. But he was not satisfied with what he used to get daily. He became so greedy that he planned to get all the golden eggs at a time. He decided to kill the hen and get all the eggs together. The next day when the hen laid a golden egg, he caught hold of the hen, took a sharp knife, chopped off its neck and cut its body open. There was nothing but blood all around and no trace of any egg at all. He was very much grieved because now he would not get even a single egg.
Moral: One who desires more, loses all.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Differential Equations Ex 4.4

Solve the following:

Question 1.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}-\frac{y}{x}=x\)
Solution:

Question 2.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y cos x = sin x cos x
Solution:
The given equation can be written as \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + (cos x) y = sin x cos x
It is of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q dx
Here P = cos x, Q = sin x cos x
∫P dx = ∫cos x dx = sin x

Question 3.
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y = x⁴
Solution:
The given equation can be written as \(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{2}{x} y=x^{3}\)

Question 4.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{3 x^{2}}{1+x^{3}} y=\frac{1+x^{2}}{1+x^{3}}\)
Solution:
The given equation is of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q

Question 5.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x}=x e^{x}\)
Solution:
The given equation is of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q

Question 6.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + y tan x = cos³ x
Solution:
The given equation is of the form \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + Py = Q
where P = tan x, Q = cos³ x
Now ∫P dx = ∫tan x dx = log sec x

Question 7.
If \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y tan x = sin x and if y = 0 when x = \(\frac{\pi}{3}\) express y in terms of x
Solution:
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + 2y tan x = sin x
Here P = 2 tan x and Q = sin x
∫P dx = ∫2 tan x = 2 log sec x = log sec² x

c = -sec\(\frac{\pi}{3}\) = -2
The solution is y sec² x = sec x – 2

Question 8.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}+\frac{y}{x}=x e^{x}\)
Solution:

Question 9.
A bank pays interest by continuous compounding, that is by treating the interest rate as the instantaneous rate of change of principal. A man invests ₹ 1,00,000 in the bank deposit which accrues interest, 8% per year compounded continuously. How much will he get after 10 years? (e^0.8 = 2.2255)
Solution:
Let P be the principal at time ‘t’
According to the given condition,

The man will get ₹ 2,22,550 after 10 years.

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TN State Board 11th Commerce Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The place where the goods are sold is …………
(a) Angadi
(b) Market
(c) Nalangadi
(d) Allangadi
Answer:
(a) Angadi

Question 2.
Activities undertaken with the object of earning money are called as …………
(a) Economic activities
(b) Monetary activities
(c) Non-monetary activities
(d) Financial activities
Answer:
(a) Economic activities

Question 3.
Small shops which deal in a particular line of products are called as …………
(a) Market traders
(b) Single line stores
(c) Super market
(d) Street stalls
Answer:
(b) Single line stores

Question 4.
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below …………

codes:

Answer:
(b) (i) 2, (ii) 3, (iii) 4, (iv) 1,

Question 5.
The features of sole proprietorship are …………
(i) Limited liability
(ii) Maintenance of secrecy
(iii) Common seal
(iv) Quick decisions
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii) and (iv)

Question 6.
The members in the Joint Hindu Family are called …………
(a) Kartha
(b) co-parceners
(c) generations
(d) partners
Answer:
(b) co-parceners

Question 7.
Foreign banks begun their operations since …………
(a) 1978
(b) 1979
(c) 1980
(d) 1981
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 8.
Hindrance of knowledge is removed by …………
(a) Transport
(b) Advertising
(c) Warehouse
(d) Insurance
Answer:
(b) Advertising

Question 9.
On the basis of size, industries may be classified as follows. Out of the given, which is not correct?
(a) Macro industries
(b) Micro industries
(c) Small industries
(d) Medium industries
Answer:
(a) Macro industries

Question 10.
According to Saint Poet Ilango, the night market was called as …………
(a) Angadi
(b) Nalangadi
(c) Allangadi
(d) Market
Answer:
(c) Allangadi

Question 11.
Find out the unsuitable place of location of Automatic Vending Machines from the following.
(a) Railway station
(b) Airports
(c) Bus stand
(d) Petrol pumps
Answer:
(c) Bus stand

Question 12.
Movement of goods and services, intellectual property, human assets, technology and so on among the countries.
(a) International trade
(b) International business
(c) Entrepot trade
(d) Internal trade
Answer:
(a) International trade

Question 13.
Which of the following is not a function of insurance?
(a) Lending funds
(b) Risk sharing
(c) Capital formation
(d) Protection of life
Answer:
(d) Protection of life

Question 14.
Outsourcing job is given to developing countries specifically for …………
(a) cheap labour
(b) land
(c) capital
(d) factors
Answer:
(a) cheap labour

Qustion 15.
An ………… is a document prepared by the importer and sent to the exporter to buy the goods.
(a) invoice
(b) indent
(c) enquiry
(d) charter party
Answer:
(b) indent

Question 16.
WTO was established on …………
(a) 1-1-1996
(b) 1-1-1997
(c) 1-1-1995
(d) 1-1-1994
Answer:
(c) 1-1-1995

Question 17.
Table A of the companies Act is a …………
(a) Model Minutes Book
(b) Model form of Balance Sheet
(c) Model of AOA
(d) Model of MO A
Answer:
(c) Model of AOA

Question 18.
Centralised control in MNC’s implies control exercised by …………
(a) Branches
(b) Subsidiaries
(c) Headquarters
(d) Parliament
Answer:
(c) Headquarters

Question 19.
Ethics is important for …………
(a) Top Management
(b) Middle level Management
(c) Non-managerial employees
(d) All of them
Answer:
(d) All of them

Question 20.
The minimum number of members to start a co-operative is …………
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) 10

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Who is a-minor?
Answer:
Under the Indian Majority Act, a person who has not completed 18 years of age is a minor. He can be admitted to the benefit of partnership.

Question 22.
Define the term person.
Answer:
The term ‘person’ has been defined under the Income tax Act. It includes individual, Hindu Undivided Family, Firm, Company, local authority, Association of person or body of Individual or any other artificial juridical persons.

Qustion 23.
What do you mean by employment?
Answer:
It refers to the occupation in which people work for others and get remuneration in the form of wages or salaries.

Question 24.
What is cargo insurance?
Answer:
When a marine insurance policy is taken by the cargo owner to be compensated for loss caused to his cargo during the journey, it is known as cargo insurance.

Question 25.
What are the services included in the service business?
Answer:
Educational, medical, hospitality and banking are the services included in service businesses. Bank service is the nerve center of industry and commerce in a country.

Question 26.
It is a private sector bank. It is also called as non-banking financial companies. What is the name of the bank? Mention any two objectives of the bank.
Answer:
The name of the bank is Small Finance Banks (SFBs). It is. a private sector bank.
Objectives:

1. Mobilising rural savings (accepting deposits).
2. Providing credit to farmers and small industries.

Question 27.
What is free enterprise?
Answer:
A business enterprise which accepts and discharges social obligations enjoys greater freedom. Thus, social responsibilities are essential for avoiding governmental action against business. Such action will reduce the freedom of decision making in business.

Question 28.
Give any three functions of warehouses.
Answer:

1. Storage
2. Price stabilization
3. Equalization of demand and supply

Question 29.
Liquids and gases are transported by this method. What is the kind of transport?
Answer:
This is known as pipeline transport. It is a recent trend in transport. It can transport the goods through pipe. It can transport oil, natural gas and bio-fuel, etc.

Question 30.
Who are the mercantile agents?
Answer:
Mercantile Agents are also called functional middlemen. A businessman appoints a person to buy and sell goods on his behalf and gives him the right to borrow money on the security of goods. He is known as mercantile agent.

PART – III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Write short notes on:
(a) business
(b) profession
Answer:
(a) Business refers to any human activity undertaken on a regular basis with the object to earn profit through production, distribution, sale or purchase of goods and services.

(b) Professions are those occupations which involve rendering of personal services of a special and expert nature. A profession is something which is more than a job. It is a career for someone who is competent in their respective areas.

Question 32.
What are the types of franchising?
Answer:
Franchising means providing license to do a business and giving training.
Types of franchising:

• Product / trade name franchising:
  In this, the franchisee deals with a manufacturer’s product.
• Business format franchising:
  When a franchiser awards rights covering all business aspects to the franchisee, it is called business format franchising.

Question 33.
Comment on cold storage warehouse.
Answer:
Goods are transferred in refrigerated containers and stored in refrigerated warehouse. These warehouses are used for storing perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, eggs, butter, fish and meat, etc. Goods stored in cold storages without deterioration in quality, can be made available throughout the year.

Question 34.
Distinguish between extractive industries and genetic industries.
Answer:
Extractive Industries:

1. These industries extract or draw out products from natural sources.
2. Extractive industries supply some basic raw materials that are mostly products of geographical or natural environment.

Genetic Industries:

1. These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction.
2. The seeds, nursery companies’ poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary, etc.

Question 35.
List any three objectives of GST.
Answer:

• To create a common market with uniform tax rate in India. (One Nation, One Tax, One Market).
• To eliminate the cascading effect of taxes, GST allows set-off of prior taxes for the same transactions as input tax credit.
• To boost Indian exports, the GST already collected on the inputs will be refunded and thus there will be no tax on all exports.

Question 36.
What do you mean by ECS?
Answer:
Electronic Clearing Service (ECS) is an electronic method of fund transfer from a bank to another bank. It was launched by the RBI in 1995. ECS credit can be used to credit salary, dividend, interest, pension, etc. ECS debit is used to debit monthly telephone bills, electricity bills, equated monthly installments (EMI) payments, etc.

Quetion 37.
What do you mean by human activity? Explain.
Answer:
Human activity is an activity performed by a human being to meet his/her needs and wants or may be for personal satisfaction. Human activities can be categorized into economic and non-economic activities.

Question 38.
Explain the origin of RBI.
Answer:
The Imperial Bank of India carried out the note issue and other functions of the central bank. In 1926, the Hilton-Young Commission or the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (J. M. Keynes and Sir Ernest Cable were its members) made recommendation to create a central bank.

As a result the RBI Act 1934 was passed and RBI launched its operations from April 1, 1935. RBI was established with a share capital of Rs. 5 crores divided into shares of Rs. 100 each fully paid up. The Head office of the RBI is situated in Mumbai.

Question 39.
Several countries like Russia, Canada, Australia and China have already introduced the tax for the goods. But our country introduced the tax for the goods during the year 2017. What is the name of the tax? Also write the meaning and three objectives of the tax.
Answer:
The name of the tax is Goods and Services Tax (GST).
GST is the tax levied on the supply (consumption) of goods and services. A manufacturer need not pay GST. GST is applicable to all goods and services except alcohol and specified petroleum products.

Objectives:

• The foremost objective of GST is to create uniform tax in India.
• To increase the tax base by bringing more number of tax payers and increase tax revenue.
• Tax return procedures may be simplified, to avoid visiting tax departments.

Question 40.
What is unlimited liability?
Answer:
The liability of the proprietor for the debts of the business is unlimited. The creditors have the right to recover their dues even from the personal property of the proprietor in case the business assets are not sufficient to pay their debts.

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41 (a).
Describe the different kinds of GST.
Answer:
GST is of three kinds: CGST, SGST / UGST, and IGST.
(A) CGST – Central Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government on all supply of goods within a state (intra-state) under CGST Act 2017.

(B) SGST – State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the State Governments under State GST Act. (Tamil Nadu GST Act 2017 passed by Tamil Nadu Govt.)

(C) UGST – Union Territory Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the five Union Territory Administrations in India under UGST Act 2017.

(D) IGST – Inter-State Goods and Services Tax – imposed and collected by the Central Government and the revenue shared with States under IGST Act 2017.

(E) IGST on exports – All exports are treated as Inter-State supply under GST. Since exports are zero rated, GST is not imposed on all goods and services exported from India. Any input credit paid already on exports will be refunded.

[OR]

Question 41 (b).
A public corporation is created by a statute. It is also known as a Statutory Corporation. Explain any five features of public corporation.

(1) Special Statute:
A public corporation is created by a special Act of the Parliament or the State Legislature. The Act defines its powers, objectives, functions and relations with the ministry and the Parliament (or State Legislature).

(2) Separate Legal Entity:
A public corporation is a separate legal entity with perpetual succession and common seal. It has an existence, independent of the Government. It can own property; can make contracts and file suits, in its own name.

(3) Capital Provided by the Government:
The capital of a public corporation is provided by the Government or by agencies controlled by the government. However, many public corporations have also begun to raise money from the capital market.

(4) Financial Autonomy:
A public corporation enjoys financial autonomy. It prepares its own budget; and has authority to retain and utilize its earnings for its business.

(5) Management by Board of Directors:
Its management is vested in a Board of Directors, appointed or nominated by the Government. But there is no Governmental interference in the day-to-day working of the corporation.

Question 42 (a).
Compare business with profession and employment.
Answer:

Question 42 (b).
The traders who have no fixed place of sales are called Itinerants. They are also called as mobile traders. Explain the various types of Itinerant traders.
Answer:
The traders who have no fixed place of sales are called Itinerants. They move from one place to another place to find out the customers.

They are divided into four types:

(1) Peddlers and Hawkers:
Peddlers are individuals who sell their goods by carrying it on their head or shoulders. Hawkers are petty retailers who sell their goods at various places such as bus stop, railway station, public park using a vehicle to carry the goods.

(2) Street vendors:
The traders sit on the footpath of the road or at the end of the road and sell their goods such as fruits, vegetables, books are called Street vendors.

(3) Market traders:
Small traders open their shops at different places on fixed days or such as every Sunday or alternative Wednesdays (Varasandhai – weekly market).
Examples:
Pollachi, Manaparai, Ranipet, etc.

(4) Cheap Jacks:
These are retailers who have independent shops of temporary nature in a business locality. They deal in consumer goods and services such as shoes, plastic items, etc.

Question 43(a).
What are the functions, of wholesalers?
Answer:
Following are the functions of wholesalers:

1. Collection of Goods:
   Wholesaler collects the goods from manufacturers or producers in bulk.
2. Storage of Goods:
   Wholesaler collects and stores them safely in warehouses, till they are sold out.
3. Distribution:
   Wholesaler sells goods to different retailers. Thus he performs the function of distribution.
4. Financing:
   Wholesalers provide financial support to producers and manufacturers by providing money in advance to them.
5. Risk Taking:
   Wholesaler buys finished goods from the producer and keeps them in the warehouses till the time they are sold and assumes the risk arising from price, spoilage of goods, and changes in demand.
6. Grading Packing and Packaging:
   Wholesaler classifies the goods into different categories.
7. Providing Information:
   Wholesalers provide valuable information to retailers and producers.
8. Transportation:
   A wholesaler arranges for the transport of goods from producers to his warehouse and from the warehouse to retailer.

[OR]

Question 43 (b).
Explain the characteristics of a supermarket.
Answer:

1. Supermarkets are generally situated at the main shopping centres.
2. The goods kept on racks with clearly labelled price and quality tags in such stores.
3. The customers move into the store to pickup goods of their requirements, bring them to the cash counter, make
4. payment and take home delivery.
5. The goods are sold on cash basis only. No credit facilities are made available.
6. Supermarkets are organised on departmental basis.
7. It requires huge investment.

Question 44(a).
What are the factors affecting a channel of distribution?
Answer:
The factors affecting a channel of distribution are as follows:

Product Characteristics:
Seasonal products are distributed through less layer of middlemen. Non-standardized products that are made according to customer specifications may be delivered directly.

Market Characteristics:
The size of the market for the goods is a major factor while selecting the route for distribution of products.

Number of Consumers:
Large purchases made by few consumers require centralised distribution.

Middlemen factor:
Middlemen who are experienced and have produced more sales are wanted by all producers. Long channel naturally increases the cost and price of the product.

Capacity of the Manufacturer:
A financially strong producer may select a high technology oriented channel which will reduce cost in the long run.
Cost and Time Involved in the Channel of Distribution: The channel cost should go along with the quality of service provided by middlemen.

Services Required along with the Product:
Machinery or equipment which need to be installed and demonstrated should be sold with shorter channel.

Life Cycle of the Product:
An established product can select an ordinary channel. But a new product entering into the market should be carefully promoted by experienced middlemen.

[OR]

Question 44 (b).
Explain the advantages of Air transport.
Advantages of Air transport:
Answer:

1. It provides a regular, convenient, efficient and quick service.
2. Perishable goods like fruits, vegetables, egg, meat, etc., can be transported quickly.
3. It does not require huge investment for construction and maintenance of track like railways.
4. They provide comfortable services for passengers and safety for their goods.
5. It can be used to move goods to areas, which are inaccessible to other means of transport.
6. It is very much helpful for flood or landslide and war rises to the occasion to save human ‘ life from danger.

Question 45 (a).
Industry means, which is connected with conversion of raw materials into finished goods. It may be of various types. Explain:
(a) Analytical industry
(b) Genetic industry
(c) Construction industry.
Answer:
(a) Analytical Industry:
It analyses and separates different elements from the same materials, as in the case of oil refinery.

(b) Genetic Industries:
These industries remain engaged in breeding plants and animals for their use in further reproduction. The seeds, nursery companies, poultry, diary, piggery, hatcheries, nursery, fisheries, apiary etc are classic examples of genetic industries.

(c) Construction Industries:
These industries are involved in the construction of building, dams, bridges, roads, as well as tunnels and canals.

Question 45 (b).
Explain the procedure for the registration of partnership firm.
Answer:
Procedure for registration:
A statement should be prepared stating the following particulars:

1. Name of the firm.
2. The principal place of business.
3. Name of other places where the firm carried on business.
4. Names and addresses of all the partners.
5. The date on which each partner joined the firm.
6. The duration of the firm.

This statement signed by all the partners should be produced to the Registrar of Firms along with the necessary registration fee of Rs.3. Any change in the above particulars must be communicated to the Registrar within 14 days of such alteration.

Question 46 (a).
Distinguish between contract and agreement.
Answer:

Question 46 (b)
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was established on 1st January 1995. The GATT was renamed as WTO. Explain the objectives of WTO.
Answer:
The objectives of WTO are:

• Improving the standard of living of people in member countries.
• Making optimum utilization of world’s resources for sustainable development of member countries.
• Promoting an integrated more viable and durable trading system in the sphere of international business.
• Expansion of trade in goods and services.
• Ensuring full employment and large steady growth volume of real income and effective demand.
• Protecting the environment.

Question 47 (a)
Briefly explain the auxiliaries to trade.
Answer:
Commerce includes not only trade but also services such as transport, warehousing, packaging, insurance, banking and sales promotion which are incidental or auxiliaries to trade.

Trade:
The term trade is used to denote buying and selling. Therefore who buys and sells is a trader. A trader is a middleman between the producer and the consumer.

Transportation:
Goods produced are to be sent to different places where they are demanded. It is done by transporting.

Banking:
To start the business or to run it smoothly, we need money. Banks supply money in the form of loan. Business activities cannot be undertaken unless funds are available. The funds can be obtained from the bank.

Insurance:
Business involves many types of risks. Factory building, machinery, furniture must be protected against fire, theft and other risks. Employees are also protected against the risk of accident. Insurance provides protection in all such cases.

Warehousing:
Usually goods are not sold or consumed immediately after the production. They are to be kept in stock to make them available as and when required. Warehousing helps the firms to overcome the problem of storage and stores the goods for future usage.

[OR]

Question 47 (b)
A Joint stock company is a distinct form of business organisation. It is useful to overcome the limitations of sole trader and partnership. There are so many features of company. What are the characteristics of Joint Stock Company?
Answer:
Characteristics of a Joint Stock Company:

(1) Separate legal entity:
Under Incorporation, a company becomes a separate legal entity as compared to its members. The company is distinct and different from its members.

(2) Limited Liability:
The liability of the members of the company is limited to contribution to the assets of the company upto the face value of shares held by him. A member is liable to pay only the uncalled money due on shares held by him.

(3) Transferability of shares:
Shares in a company can be freely transferable. When a member transfers his shares to another person, the transferee becomes the shareholder of the company.

(4) Common Seal:
A company is an artificial person and does not have a physical presence. So the common seal is necessary because the company cannot sign the documents. It is the official signature of the company.

(5) One Share – One Vote:
The principle of voting in a company is one share – one vote. If a person has 10 shares, he has 10 votes in the company. So in a company, money is given more importance than a man.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Differential Equations Ex 4.3

Solve the following homogeneous differential equations

Question 1.
x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x + y
Solution:

Question 2.
(x – y) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = x + 3y
Solution:

Question 3.
\(x \frac{d y}{d x}-y=\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}}\)
Solution:

Question 4.
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{3 x-2 y}{2 x-3 y}\)
Solution:

Question 5.
(y² – 2xy) dx = (x² – 2xy) dy
Solution:

Question 6.
The slope of the tangent to a curve at any point (x, y) on it is given by (y³ – 2yx²) dx + (2xy² – x³) dy = 0 and the curve passes through (1, 2). Find the equation of the curve.
Solution:

Question 7.
An electric manufacturing company makes small household switches. The company estimates the marginal revenue function for these switches to be (x² + y²) dy = xy dx where x represents the number of units (in thousands). What is the total revenue function?
Solution:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Differential Equations Ex 4.2

Question 1.
Solve
(i) \(\frac{d y}{d x}=a e^{y}\)
(ii) \(\frac{1+x^{2}}{1+y}=x y \frac{d y}{d x}\)
Solution:

Question 2.
Solve: y(1 – x) – x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
Solution:
y(1 – x) – x \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 0
Separating the variables,

log x – x = log y + c is the general solution

Question 3.
Solve:
(i) y dx – x dy = 0
(ii) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) + e^x + y e^x = 0
Solution:
(i) y dx – x dy = 0
Separating the variables,
y dx = x dy

Integrating,
\(\int \frac{1}{y+1} d y=\int-e^{x} d x\)
log (y + 1) = -e^x + c is the general solution

Question 4.
Solve: cos x (1 + cos y) dx + sin y (1 + sin x) dy = 0
Solution:
cos x (1 + cos y) dx + sin y (1 + sin x) dy = 0
Separating the variables,
cos x (1 + cos y) dx = -sin y (1 + sin x) dy

Question 5.
Solve: (1 – x) dy – (1 + y) dx = 0
Solution:
(1 – x) dy – (1 + y) dx = 0
Separating the variables,
(1 – x)dy = (1 + y) dx
\(\frac{d y}{1+y}=\frac{d x}{1-x}\)
Integrating, we get
\(\int \frac{1}{1+y} d y=\int \frac{1}{1-x} d x\)
log(y + 1) = -log(1 – x) + log c
log(y + 1) + log(1 – x) = log c
(y + 1) (1 – x) = c

Question 6.
Solve:
(i) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y sin 2x
(ii) log(\(\frac{d y}{d x}\)) = ax + by
Solution:
(i) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = y sin 2x
Separating the variables, \(\frac{d y}{y}\) = sin 2x dx
Integrating, we get
∫\(\frac{1}{y}\) dy = ∫sin 2x dx
log y = \(-\frac{\cos 2 x}{2}+c\) is the required solution

Question 7.
Find the curve whose gradient at any point P(x, y) on it is \(\frac{x-a}{y-b}\) and which passes through the origin.
Solution:
The gradient at any point P (x, y) on the curve is given by \(\frac{d y}{d x}\)
According to the problem
\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{x-a}{y-b}\)
Separating the variables,
(y – b) dy = (x – a) dx
Integrating,
∫(y – b) dy = ∫(x – a) dx

(or) (y – b)² = (x – a)² + b² – a² is the required equation of the curve.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 4 Differential Equations Ex 4.1

Question 1.
Find the order and degree of the following differential equations.

Solution:

Question 2.
Find the differential equation of the following
(i) y = cx + c – c³
(ii) y = c(x – c)²
(iii) xy = c²
(iv) x² + y² = a²
Solution:
(i) y = cx + c – c³ ……. (1)
Here c is a constant which has to be eliminated
Differentiating w.r.t x, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = c …… (2)
Using (2) in (1) we get,
\(y=\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right) x+\frac{d y}{d x}-\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{3}\) which is the required differential equation.
(ii) y = c(x – c)² …… (1)
We have to eliminate c
Differentiating w.r.t x ,we get, \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 2c(x – c) ….. (2)
Dividing (2) by (1) we get

Question 3.
Form the differential equation by eliminating α and β from (x – α)² + (y – β)² = r²
Solution:

Question 4.
Find the differential equation of the family of all straight lines passing through the origin.
Solution:
The general equation for a family of lines passing through the origin is
y = mx ……. (1)
Differentiating w.r.t x,
\(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = m ……. (2)
Using (2) in (1)
y = (\(\frac{d y}{d x}\)) x is the required differential equation

Question 5.
Form the differential equation that represents all parabolas each of which has a latus rectum 4a and whose axes are parallel to the x-axis.
Solution:
Equation of parabola whose axis is parallel to the x-axis with latus rectum 4a is
(y – β)² = 4a(x – α) ………(1)
Here (α, β) is the vertex of the parabola.
Differentiating (1) w.r.t x, we get
2(y – β) \(\frac{d y}{d x}\) = 4a ……. (2)
Again, differentiating (2) w.r.t x, we get

Question 6.
Find the differential equation of all circles passing through the origin and having their centers on the y-axis.
Solution:

The circles pass through the origin. They have their centres at (o, a)
The circles have radius a. so the equation of the family of circles is given by
x² + (y – a)² = a²
x² + y² – 2ay + a² = a²
x² + y² = 2ay ……. (1)
Differentiating w.r.t x,

\(\frac{d y}{d x}=\frac{2 x y}{x^{2}-y^{2}}\) is the required differential equation of all circles passing through origin and having their centres on the y-axis.

Question 7.
Find the differential equation of the family of a parabola with foci at the origin and axis along the x-axis.
Solution:
The given family of parabolas have foci at the origin and axis along the x-axis.

The equation of such family of parabolas is given by
y² = 4a(x + a) …… (1)
Differentiating w.r.t x,

\(y=2 x \frac{d y}{d x}+y\left(\frac{d y}{d x}\right)^{2}\) is the required differential equation.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Additional Problems

I. One Mark Questions

Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The area bounded by the curve y = e^x, the x-axis and the lines x = 0 and x = 3 is _______
(a) e³ – 1
(b) e³ + 1
(c) e³
(d) e³ – 2
Answer:
(a) e³ – 1
Hint:

Question 2.
The area bounded by the demand curve xy = 1, the x-axis, x = 1, x = 5 is ______
(a) log 5
(b) log \(\frac{1}{5}\)
(c) log 4
(d) \(\frac{1}{5}\) log 2
Answer:
(a) log 5
Hint:

Question 3.
If the marginal cost function MC = 7 – 4x then the cost function is _______
(a) 7x – 2x² + k
(b) 7 – 4x²
(c) \(\frac{7}{x}\) – 4
(d) 7x – 4x²
Answer:
(a) 7x – 2x² + k
Hint:
C = ∫MC dx
= ∫(7 – 4x) dx
= 7x – 2x² + k

Question 4.
The marginal revenue R'(x) = \(\frac{1}{(x+1)}\) Then the revenue function is _____
(a) \(\frac{-1}{x+1}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{(x+1)^{2}}\)
(c) \(\log \frac{1}{(x+1)}\)
(d) log|x + 1| + k
Answer:
(d) log|x + 1| + k
Hint:
Revenue function R = \(\int \frac{1}{x+1} d x\) = log|x + 1| + k

Question 5.
Match the following.

Answer:
(a) – (iii)
(b) – (iv)
(c) – (i)
(d) – (ii)

Question 6.
If demand function p = 35 – 2x – x² and demand x₀ = 3, then market price p₀ is ________
Answer:
p₀ = 35 – 2(3) – 3²
= 35 – 6 – 9
= 20

Question 7.
If supply law is p = 4 – x + x² and p₀ = 6, then demand x₀ is ________
Answer:
x² – x + 4 = 6
⇒ x² – x – 2 = 0
⇒ (x – 2) (x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = 2

Question 8.
Say True or False.
(a) Average cost function AC = \(\frac{\mathrm{MC}}{x}\)
(b) Total cost function C = ∫(MC) dx + k
(c) Demand function = P = Rx
(d) Elasticity of demand \(\eta_{d}=\frac{-p}{x} \frac{d x}{d p}\)
(e) Under market equilibrium x₀ = p₀
Answer:
(a) False
(b) True
(c) False
(d) True
(e) False

II. 2 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Find the area bounded by the curve y² = x³ and the lines x = 0, y = 1 and y = 2
Solution:

Question 2.
Find the area bounded by one arch of the curve y = sin ax and the x-axis.
Solution:

Question 3.
The marginal cost of a commodity is 3x² – 2x + 8. If there is no fixed cost find the total cost.
Solution:
C = ∫(MC) dx + k
= ∫(3x² – 2x + 8) dx + k
= x³ – x² + 8x + k
No fixed cost ⇒ k = 0
So total cost, C = x³ – x² + 8x

Question 4.
For the marginal revenue function MR = 3 – 2x – x², find the revenue function and demand function.
Solution:

Question 5.
The marginal cost at a production level of x units is C'(x) = 85 + \(\frac{375}{x^{2}}\). Find the cost of producing 10 extra units, after 15 units have been produced.
Solution:

But 15 units have been produced. We have to find the extra cost for 10 units that is, from 15 to 25 units. Hence

Required cost is ₹860

III. 3 and 5 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Find the area under the curve y = 4x² – 8x + 6 bounded by the y-axis, x-axis and the ordinate at x = 2.
Solution:
The shaded area is given by \(\int_{0}^{2} y d x\)

Question 2.
The marginal revenue for a commodity is MR = \(\frac{e^{x}}{100}+x+x^{2}\). Find the revenue function.
Solution:

Question 3.
The elasticity of demand with respect to price p is \(\frac{x-5}{x}\) x > 5. Find the demand function if the price is 2 when demand is 7. Also find the revenue function.
Solution:

⇒ log (x – 5) = -log p + log k
⇒ log (x – 5) + log p = log k
⇒ p (x – 5) = k
When p = 2, x = 1 ⇒ k = 4
Demand function is P = \(\frac{4}{x-5}\)
Revenue R = px or R = \(\frac{4x}{x-5}\), x > 5

Question 4.
The marginal cost and marginal revenue of a commodity are given by C'(x) = 4 + 0.08x and R'(x) = 12. Find the total profit, given that the total cost at zero output is zero.
Solution:
Given that, MC = 4 + 0.08x
C(x) = ∫(4 + 0.08x) dx + k₁
= 4x + 0.08\(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + k₁
= 4x + 0.04x² + k₁
But given when x = 0, C = 0, So k₁ = 0
C(x) = 4x + 0.04x²
Now given that MR = 12
R(x) = ∫12 dx + k₂ = 12x + k₂
Revenue R = 0 when x = 0 ⇒ k₂ = 0
R(x) = 12x
Total profit function P(x) = R(x) – C(x)
= 12x – 4x – 0.04x²
= 8x – 0.04x²

Question 5.
The marginal cost C'(x) and marginal revenue R'(x) are given by C'(x) = 20 + \(\frac{x}{20}\) and R’ (x) = 30. The fixed cost is ₹ 200. Find the maximum profit.
Solution:

Question 6.
The marginal cost of producing x units is C'(x) = 10.6x. The fixed cost is ₹ 50. The selling price per unit is Rs.5. Find (i) total cost function
(ii) total revenue function and
(iii) profit function.
Solution:
Given C'(x) = 10.6x
C'(x) = ∫(10.6x) dx + k
= 10.6\(\frac{x^{2}}{2}\) + k
= 5.3x² + k
The fixed cost is ₹ 50
(i.e.) when x = 0, c = 50 ⇒ k = 50
Hence cost function C = 5.3x² + 50
Now, total revenue = number of units sold × price/unit
Since x be the number of units sold.
The selling price is Rs.5 per unit.
Revenue R(x) = 5x
Profit P = Total revenue – Total cost
= 5x – (5.3x² + 50)
= 5x – 5.3x² – 50

Question 7.
The demand and supply functions under pure competition are p_d = 16 – x² and p_s = 2x² + 4. Find the consumer’s surplus and producers’ surplus at the market equilibrium price.
Solution:

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Paper 2 Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th English Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th English Model Question Paper 2

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3.00 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

PART – I

I. Answer all the questions. [20 x 1 = 20]
Choose the correct synonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 1.
Her rebuke was a sting to her daughter.
(a) scolding
(b) rebuttal
(c) praise
(d) congratulated
Answer:
(a) scolding

Question 2.
It was an effort that involved perseverance.
(a) feebleness
(b) persistence
(c) fragility
(d) shabbiness
Answer:
(b) persistence

Question 3.
I was not accustomed to the erratic climate.
(a) familiar
(b) unusual
(c) adopted
(d) ordained
Answer:
(a) familiar

Choose the correct antonym for the underlined words from the options given.

Question 4.
Only a few hours before the last chapter of her life she had omitted to pray.
(a) included
(b) rejected
(c) isolated
(d) contracted
Answer:
(a) included

Question 5.
The auctioneer built up the crescendo gradually.
(a) swelling
(b) zenith
(c) base
(d) curvature
Answer:
(c) base

Question 6.
A methodical learning will fetch best results.
(a) systematic
(b) disciplined
(c) chaotic
(d) perfect
Answer:
(c) chaotic

Question 7.
Choose the unclipped form of “movie”.
(a) moviepic
(b) moving picture
(c) movepie
(d) movietrails
Answer:
(b) moving picture

Question 8.
Choose the right definition for the given term “tautology”.
(а) A collection of selected literary passages
(b) Useless repetition
(c) One who adheres to the letter of the Koran, rejecting all traditions
(d) One who relates or collects anecdotes
Answer:
(b) Useless repetition

Question 9.
Choose the meaning of the idiom ‘Make a long story short’.
(a) Someone who lacks intelligence
(b) To understand the situation well
(c) A rare happening
(d) Come to the point – leave out details
Answer:
(d) Come to the point – leave out details

Question 10.
Choose the meaning of the foreign word in the sentence.
I planned to go downtown to meet with Betty, but I ran into a glitch.
(a) gutter
(b) slush
(c) small problem
(d) difference of opinion
Answer:
(c) small problem

Question 11.
Choose the word from the options given to form a compound word with “quarters”.
(a) neck
(b) school
(c) bottle
(d) head
Answer:
(d) head

Question 12.
Form a new word by adding a suitable suffix to the root word, “associate”.
(a) ly
(b) ness
(c) ion
(d) or
Answer:
(c) ion

Question 13.
Choose the expanded form of “DoT”.
(a) Department of Telecommunications
(b) Department of Tailors
(c) Director Of Tele-evangelists
(d) Department of Televisions
Answer:
(a) Department of Telecommunications

Question 14.
The correct syllabification of the word “adventurous” is
(a) ad-vent-ur-ous
(b) a-d-vent-u-rous
(c) ad-ven-tur-ous
(d) adven-tu-rous
Answer:
(c) ad-ven-tur-ous

Question 15.
Fear of high buildings is known as………..
(a) Batophobia
(b) Buillophobia
(c) Nyctophobia
(d) Topophobia
Answer:
(a) Batophobia

Question 16.
Fill in the blank with the suitable preposition.
He handed over the answer script ………….. the warning bell.
(a) behind
(b) over
(c) before
(d) on
Answer:
(c) before

Question 17.
Add a suitable question tag to the following sentence.
He never met anyone, ……….?
(a) didn’t he
(b) won’t he
(c) did he
(d) hasn’t he
Answer:
(c) did he

Question 18.
Choose the correct sentence pattern.
The children speak courteously.
(a) SVA
(b) SVOC
(c) SVOA
(d) SVC
Answer:
(a) SVA

Question 19.
Substitute the phrasal verb in the sentence with a single word.
It is really difficult to put up with a short-tempered person.
(a) oppose
(b) accept
(c) deny
(d) tolerate
Answer:
(d) tolerate

Question 20.
Fill in the blank with the suitable relative pronoun.
The dress ……… she bought yesterday are already stained.
(a) which
(b) that
(c) when
(d) whose
Answer:
(b) that

PART – II

II. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 2 = 14]
(i) Read the following sets of poetic lines and answer any four of the following. [4 x 2 = 8]

Question 21.
“To her fair works did Nature link
The human soul that through me ran;”
(а) How does the nature connect to the soul of the poet?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) The beauty of nature established a connection with the soul of the poet.
(b) Personification.

Question 22.
“ When officialdom demands Is there a doctor in the stands?”
(a) Why are doctors called from stands by the sponsors?
(b) Why does the poet make such an observation?
Answer:
(a) The doctors are called from the stands by the sponsors to attend to a badly hurt and bleeding athlete.
(b) The poet does not wish to swap place with either heroes or victims of brutal sports. So, he makes this remark.

Question 23.
“There was a time indeed
They used to shake hands with their hearts”
(a) Explain “Shake hands with their hearts”.
(b) Discuss the appropriateness of the term “used to” here?
Answer:
(a) The heart is a symbol of genuine emotions. The poet recalls the time when people used to smile and shake hands with their hearts. Now, things have become different.
(b) The word “used to” denotes a past discontinued action. Hence the term is appropriately used in this context.

Question 24.
‘‘And yet not so – for what can we bequeath Save our deposed bodies to the ground?”
(a) Why is the speaker sad?
(b) Identify the figure of speech.
Answer:
(a) The speaker (i.e.) king Richard II knows that he has nothing except his dead body to leave behind. So, he is sad.
(b) Metaphor

Question 25.
“If must have been Macavity! ’but he’s a mile away.”
(a) What is Macavity blamed for?
(b) Where is he?
Answer:
(a) Macavity is blamed for most of the crimes which leave the Scotland police and flying squad fuming and fretting because he just vanishes after every crime is committed. Besides, he leaves no proof or evidence behind.
(b) He is in a by-street or in the square when a crime is discovered. He always has one or two alibi.

Question 26.
“Honour is a property, common to all:
In dignity and pride no one need to be poor.”
(а) Who are considered rich?
(b) What is their asset?
Answer:
(a) Those who possess dignity and pride are considered rich.
(b) Honour is their asset.

(ii) Do as directed (any three) [3 × 2 = 6]

Question 27.
Report the following dialogue:
Srikanth : Doctor, a bee stung me. The pain is unbearable.
Doctor : Do not worry. I will apply some cream on it.
Answer:
Srikanth told the doctor that a bee had stung him and added that the pain was unbearable. The doctor advised him not to worry and added that he would apply some cream on it.

Question 28.
I drop this doll. It will break. (Combine using ‘If’).
Answer:
If I drop this doll, it will break.

Question 29.
Rewrite the sentence making an inversion in the conditional clause.
If I won the lottery, I would travel the world.
Answer:
Were I to win the lottery, I would travel the world.

Question 30.
He admitted his guilt. (Transform this sentence into a complex sentence)
Answer:
He admitted that he was guilty.

PART – III

III. Answer any seven of the following: [7 × 3 = 21]
(i) Explain any two of the following with Reference to the Context: [2 × 3 = 6]

Question 31.
Never shall we fail in what we commit,
Shall nourish the ones that nourish the world.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Everest is not the Only Peak” written by Kulothungan.

Context: The poet says these words about unsung heroes who are committed to the cause of sustaining those who sustain the world.

Explanation: Farmers nourish the people with food grains. Teachers nourish children’s minds with noble thoughts and inspire them to strive for the progress of the country. The poet claims simple people nourish those who nourish the world.

Question 32.
Athletes, I’ll drink to you,
Or eat with you,
Or anything except compete with you…
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Confessions of a Bom Spectator” written by Ogden Nash.

Context: The poet says these while contemplating the probability of swapping places with them.

Explanation: The poet has limp and bashful spirit which feeds on other people’s heroic deeds. The zealous players maim one another to win laurels. The thrill and excitement of all kinds of sports and games pleases the poet but he is wise enough to stay out and be a spectator because he has modest of physiques. He admits he would rather share a drink with them in a pub or dine with them in a restaurant. He is even ready to buy the most expensive tickets, as expensive as radium, to see them play the rough games but never compete with them.

Question 33.
I have learned to wear my faces
Like dresses …
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem “Once Upon a Time” written by Gabriel Okara.

Context: The poet says these words while admitting how he himself started putting oni appearances to conform to the changed attitude of people in modem times.

Explanation: The poet registers his displeasure over the negative changes that have influenced the behaviour of adults. The adults have mastered the art of changing their facial expressions according to the situations merely to ensure social acceptance. The poet also has started wearing faces like dresses, changing them according to fashion and season and almost daily. He regrets his hypocrisy but is helpless.

(ii) Answer any two of the following questions briefly: [2 x 3 = 6]

Question 34.
How was Mary Kom felicitated on her return to India?
Answer:
On her return, Mary Kom was given a warm welcome at the airport. Back at Imphal, she was greeted with garlands, drumbeats and dancing. There was a victory procession across the town. A felicitation programme was held at Langol. People showered her with rich encomiums. She was presented with a traditional shawl..

Question 35.
Who does the speaker claim to represent?
Answer:
The speaker wishes to represent some of the cardinal principles enunciated by those who offered to graduates in the past. He remarks that his speech would bear the layman’s point of view to the findings of experts in various fields of education. He promises to annotate the speeches of great educationists for the benefit of the graduates.

Question 36.
What was the reaction of Bryson’s wife to his antics?
Answer:
Mrs. Bryson saw the quixotic behaviour of her husband. She was neither angry nor exasperated. But she just expressed her deep sense of wonder. She said, ‘I can’t believe you do this for a living”.

(iii) Answer any three of the following questions briefly: [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 37.
Study the pie-chart and answer the questions that follow:
People taking different modes of transport in Chennai

Questions.

1. What percent of people travel by Bus?
2. Which mode of transport is used by the least percentage of people?
3. Which mode of transport is taken by the maximum number of people?

Answer:

1. Twenty percent of people travel by Bus.
2. Walking is used by the least percentage of people.
3. Train is taken by the maximum number of people.

Question 38.
Build a dialogue of minimum three exchanges between a parent and a School Principal.
Answer:
Parent : Good morning Sir, I was told that you wanted to meet me.
Principal : Good morning. Please sit down. Your son has got excellent drawing skills.
Parent : I am really glad to hear it.
Principal : I have given him the address of a nearby Art school.
Parent : Thanks Sir, 1 shall send him in the week ends.
Principal : This is a cheque for his fees there.
Parent : Thank you so much sir.
Principal : He has earned it. He only painted all the boards. He will become a great artist one day.

Question 39.
Describe the process of editing a video clip.
Answer:

1. Transfer the video clip to be edited to the computer.
2. Go to the folder or location and right-click on the video.
3. Select open with and a drop down menu will appear.
4. Click photos application. The video will open in the photos app.
5. Click edit and create. This option will be found in the top-right comer of the window. Click create a movie with text.
6. Name the video.
7. Drag the movie clip to the editing area and edit the video. Many options are available to edit in the ‘storyboard section’.
8. Once the editing is complete save the file.

Question 40.
Complete the proverbs using the words given below.
(a) Don’t judge a book by its (author, cover, colour)
(b) Strike while the iron is (hot, wet, cold)
(c) Too many cooks spoil the (recipe, dish, broth)
Answer:
(a) cover
(b) hot
(c) broth

PART – IV

IV. Answer the following: [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
How does the author prove that absent-mindedness is a boon as well as a bane?
Answer:
Absent – mindedness of people shocked the author when the Railway department published the list of lost articles. It was startling to note that young people forget bats, balls etc. The author attributes it to the abundant imagination and dreams. They are citizens of dreamland. Anglers also forget their fishing rods. Absent – mindedness is often a blessing in disguise. People can forget their unhappiness and live in a world of Utopia. Great thinkers, poets and philosophers are absent – minded because their minds are full of lofty ideas and imagination.

Socrates the philosopher and S.T. Coleridge the poet were absent – minded people. Similarly, Politicians have bad memories. States are yet to produce ideal statesmen who can remember their promises after winning the elections. Great writers, composers of music have amazingly great memories. Memory is half the substance of their art. Once a father took his baby out in a perambulator in the morning. He walked into a pub to have a glass of beer. The child was sitting in the perambulator outside in the street. After sometime, his wife came that way for shopping. She was shocked to find her baby sleeping in the perambulator.

She decided to teach her husband a lesson. She took the baby home. She expected her husband to come and apologize for losing the child. But he just walked in and casually asked his wife cheerfully what was there for lunch. Very few people like Einstein or Socrates would be capable of such absent-mindedness. Men should forget unpleasant things and remember pleasant things. Thus Absent – mindedness is both a boon and a bane.

[OR]

How does the speaker highlight the importance of giving back to the society?
Answer:
The graduates have drawn largely from the social chest. The largest taken from the society needs to be replenished. If graduates fail to pay back, ordinary people’s coffer will be empty. The supervisor’s education enjoins greater responsibility to society. Apart from their own individual advancement, society has got a right to expect an adequate return from the graduates.

The society does not expect them to payback in cash. But they must pay back in terms of service. They should tone up the society by bringing a light into the dark alleys. They should herald sunshine into dingy places. They must give solace to the affiliated people. They should also give hope unto the despondent and thus ensure a new life unto everyone.

Question 42.
‘Face is the index of the mind.’ Does this adage concur with the views of the poet?
Answer:
Unlike the people of the past, people in modem times “laugh only with their teeth” while their ice-block cold eyes search for something. Now, people shake hands without hearts. There is no human warmth in social relations. While they shake hands, they look for evidences to judge the financial status of a person. People say ‘feel at home’ and ‘come again’. But if a person visits a third time he is not welcomed. They all have cocktail faces ready for all occasions. Their conforming smiles are like fixed portrait smiles.

They wear standard, deceitful, artificial smile for all occasions. They have faces like masks. The poet has learnt from them how to use faces like dresses, home face, office face, street face, host face etc. Their faces, like the teeth of the elephant, show only what is accepted. The ugly side of their personality is cleverly hidden behind their deceitful smiles and polite words. So, the poet’s views do not concur with the adage “Face is the index of the mind”.

[OR]

In what way is every hillock similar to Everest?
Answer:
The poet does not compare rare feats of athletes, mountaineers or horsemen. He does not attach great value to positions or possessions. He scoffs at those who pull strings to achieve their ends. The means must justify the ends. One should not stoop to underhand dealings to-achieve their desired goals in life.

Those who reach great heights in life like Everest due to their hard work, perseverance and competence are adorable. At the same time those who trek any small hillocks can’t be underestimated. The efforts made in reaching even the smallest positions in life, if done with sincerity of purpose and deep devotion, is worthy of hearty appreciation. One who holds a humble position, but upright and serves as a ladder for fellow humans to reach great heights deserves our respect.

The poet admits that he is proud of people’s humble positions because their pride springs not from positions or possessions but the way they live. Their life knows no bending. The poet just doesn’t bother the height of the peak one reaches. It could even be a hillock. What matters is how one reaches that spot. If merit and competence have paved the way for their success and positions, however humble they are, the poet admires them.

Question 43.
Write a paragraph (150 words) by developing the following hints.
A policeman – dow n the street – checking doors – a man standing – stops to talk – about the childhood friends who agreed to meet – after 20 years – his friend there shows up – how each of them has changed – The criminal – arrested, and the undercover cop says – 20 years – change a good man into a criminal.
Answer:
The short story “After Twenty Years” takes place around 10 p.m. along a dark, windy New York City business avenue, mostly within the darkened doorway of a closed hardware store. This particular location had been a restaurant until five years ago. The plot begins with a policeman “on the beat” who discovers a man standing in the dark doorway.

The man then proceeds to explain why he is there. He and his best friend, Jimmy Wells had parted exactly twenty years ago to make their fortunes and had promised to meet at that spot “After Twenty Years”. He had gone west and gotten rich and was sure his friend, Jimmy would meet him if he were alive. They talked a while and the policeman carried on. The man from the west wonders if his friend will come. The drama increases in anticipation of the rendezvous.

Twenty minutes later, another man, whom we assume is his long lost friend, greets him warmly and they walk arm in arm discussing careers until they come to a well-lit comer near a drug store. The man from the west gets a good look at his companion and discovers that he is not his friend, Jimmy. We are treated to several surprises for the man from the west is under arrest and secondly he is actually ‘Silky Bob’, a gangster from Chicago and finally the stranger is a plainclothes policeman. However, it seems that these three surprises are not enough. We get the “real” surprise when Jimmy Wells, the original policeman didn’t have the heart to arrest Bob, because he was his friend.

[OR]

Narrator – wants – photograph – photographer wait for an hour – comments – angry – called on Saturday – proof – Narrator shocked – photograph – not like him – worthless bauble.
Answer:
‘With the Photographer’ by Stephen Leacock is narrated in the first person. The narrator while sitting in the photographer’s studio begins to read some magazines and sees how other people look and the narrator begins to feel insecure about his appearance. It is also noticeable that the photographer takes a dislike to his face judging it to be wrong. What should have been a simple process of taking a photograph becomes something of a nightmare for the narrator.

How confident the narrator becomes is noticeable when he returns to the photographer’s studio the following Saturday. He realises that the photograph that has been taken of him looks nothing like him. This angers the narrator as he was simply looking for a photograph that would show his likeness. He accepts that he may not be to everybody’s liking when it comes to his physical appearance but is angered by the changes made. The photographer has retouched the photograph so much that the narrator does not recognise himself.

The end of the story is also interesting as the reader realises that it is just a worthless bauble when he begins to cry. He has been judged solely by his appearance by the photographer whose job was to simply take a life like photograph.

Question 44.
Write a summary or Make notes of the following passage.
Any polished surface which reflects light is a mirror. Most mirrors are made of smooth glass. These glass strips are backed with a very thin layer of aluminium. Not all mirrors are flat. Convex mirrors bulge outwards. They make things look smaller. But they give us a wider view. They are often used as driving mirrors in cars. They are also used as security mirror in shops. Concave mirrors curve in wards. They are used as shaving mirrors, because they magnify things which are close. With distant things, they produce a tiny upside – down image. In large telescopes they are used to collect and focus the light.
Answer:
Summary
No. of words given in the original passage: 108
No. of words to be written in the summary: 108/3 = 36 ± 5

Rough Draft
A polished surface of glass that reflects light is a mirror. Convex mirror provide wider view and used as driving and security mirrors They make things look smaller. Concave mirrors magnify closer objects and hence used as shaving mirrors and in telescope to focus light.

Fair Draft
Mirrors
A polished surface of glass that reflects light is a mirror. Convex mirror provide wider view and used as driving mirrors and security mirrors. Concave mirrors magnify closer objects and hence used as shaving mirrors and in telescope to focus light.
No. of words in the summary: 41

[OR]

Notes
Title: Mirrors
Answer:
Different kinds of mirrors
Polished surface reflecting light-made of smooth glass-glass strips backed with thin layer of Aluminium.

Convex mirrors
Bulge outwards-make things look smaller-wider view-driving mirrors-security mirrors in shops.

Concave mirrors
Curve inwards-used as shaving mirrors-magnify close things-distant images upside down-large telescope used.

Question 45.
Write a letter to the Postmaster of your area informing him of the change of address.
Answer:
3rd Oct, 20xx
From
V. Sriram,
8, South street,
Karuppur Village,
PIN XXXXXX.

To
The Postmaster, .
Post Office,
Karuppur Village,
PIN XXXXXX
Sir,
Sub: Regarding changes of address.

I was earlier living in 15, Car street. We shifted our residence to 8, South street last week. Hence, I request you to redirect all letters, addressed to my former address to this new address.

Thanking you,
Yours Sincerely,
V. Sriram.
Address on the Envelope
To
The Postmaster,
Post Office
Karuppur Village
PIN XXXXXX

[OR]

Write an essay in about 150 words on ‘Disaster Management in India’.
Answer:
Disaster Management in India
National Institute of Disaster Management is a premier national institute. It trains people for capacity development programmes for managing natural disasters in India. The NIDM works under government’s directives to train and conduct checks to regulate effective earthquake and disaster control policies. Recently, Delhi witnessed One of the biggest mega mock drills conducted by the NIDM in India.

The buildings and infrastructures in India are quite vulnerable to calamities. They can’t withstand the rigours of a natural calamity. The Tsunami disasters in South India expose the unpreparedness and lack of skills in disaster management. The havoc caused by the floods and landslides in Kerdamath only underlines our weakness or inefficiency in tackling natural disaster on such a scale.

The NIDM can take due credit for its efficient work done during the ‘Hudhud’ cyclone. The cyclone struck the coastal areas of Andhra and Odisha. Proper warning and early evacuation in the affected areas limited losses and casualties. But again the NIDM proved quite ineffective when unprecedented floods rocked Srinagar and other parts of Jammu and Kashmir. It was the army and not the NIDM that stole the limelight by evacuating lakhs of marooned people and saving their lives.

The NIDM has a long way to go. It must prepare itself as a body that can cope with natural disasters with professional skills and efficiency.

Question 46.
Read the following sentences, spot the errors and rewrite the sentences correctly.
(a) Divide this apples among Rohith and Dhanush.
(b) I go to school on bus.
(c) Suguna is now free of danger.
(d) One of the boys are missing.
(e) Many students has turned up for the seminar.
Answer:
(a) Divide these apples between Rohith and Dhanush.
(b) I go to school by bus. .
(c) Suguna is now free from danger.
(d) One of the boys is missing.
(e) Many students have turned up for the seminar.

[OR]

Fill in the blanks appropriately.
(a) He had no ………. I gave him a………of advice. (Piece / Peace)
(b) Vanitha…………go to temple on Fridays , when she was young. (Semi-modal)
(c) ………. rain, they continued to play the match. (Linker / phrase)
(d) The milkman ……… (knock) the door at the moment. (Use the verb in the correct form) .
Answer:
(a) peace, piece
(b) used to
(c) In spite of
(d) is knocking

Question 47.
Identify each of the following sentences with the fields given below.
(a) The hybrid between lemon and pomegranate was unbelievably marvellous.
(b) The State Government has introduced QR code to enhance the quality of learning.
(c) The bird flu virus took a huge toll of lives in Philippines.
(d) Due to virus, the system became slow.
(e) Prakash Javadekar MHRD minister introduced a new scheme for empowerment of women.
(Politics, Computer, Agriculture, Education, Health)
Answer:
(a) Agriculture;
(b) Education;
(c) Health;
(d) Computer;
(e) Politics

[OR]

Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The first flags were probably hoisted in China. People flew flags in China over 4,000 years ago. Each part of the army had its own flag so the soldiers could see their leaders. Early flags were sticks of wood. They had pictures cut into the wood. Iran had metal flags about 3,000 years ago. Old Greek coins show pictures of flags. People in Rome also used flags over 2,000 years ago. People first made flags of cloth about 2,000 years ago. Those flags looked like today’s flags. Flags are important at sea. Most ships fly their own country’s flag and the flag of the country they are visiting. When a ship flies only its own flag, it is ready to fight.

Every country now has a flag. Every U.S. state has a flag. Clubs, teams, and schools have flags. The Olympics has a flag. The Olympics flag has five rings of five colours. Each ring stands for, or represents, a continent. It means that people from five continents – Africa, Asia, Europe, North America and South America – come to play. Railway lines also use flags. Railway flags tell the trains what to do. For example, a red flag tells the train to stop, just like a stop sign. A blue, white, or green flag tells the train that it can go. A blue flag on the side of a train means someone is working on the train. It means nobody can move the train.
Questions.

1. How many flags do most ships fly?
2. What were the first flags made of ?
3. Does every country have a flag?
4. Mention the role of a railway flag.
5. Describe the Olympic flag.
6. Answer:
7. Most ships fly two flags. One is of their own country and another is that of the country it intends to visit.
8. The first flags were made of sticks of wood.
9. Yes, every country has a flag.
10. A railway flag directs a train to stop or move forward. Red flag tells the train to stop. White, blue and green ones allow the train to pass. However, a blue flag on the side of a train indicates a technical problem with the train.
11. Olympic flag has five rings of colors explaining the representation of people from five continents (i.e.) Africa, Asia, Europe, North America and South America.

Students can download 12th Business Maths Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.2 Questions and Answers, Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Business Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Integral Calculus II Ex 3.2

Question 1.
The cost of an overhaul of an engine is ₹ 10,000 The operating cost per hour is at the rate of 2x – 240 where the engine has run x km. Find out the total cost if the engine runs for 300 hours after overhaul.
Solution:
Given that the overhaul cost is Rs. 10,000.
The marginal cost is 2x – 240
MC = 2x – 240
C = ∫ MC dx + k
C = x² – 240x + k
k is the overhaul cost
⇒ k = 10,000
So C = x² – 240x + 10,000
When x = 300 hours, total cost is
C = (300)² – 240(300) + 10,000
⇒ C = 90,000 – 72000 + 10,000
⇒ C = 28,000
So the total cost of the engine run for 300 hours after the overhaul is ₹ 28,000.

Question 2.
Elasticity of a function \(\frac{\mathbf{E}_{y}}{\mathbf{E}_{x}}\) is given by \(\frac{\mathbf{E}_{y}}{\mathbf{E}_{x}}=\frac{-7 x}{(1-2 x)(2+3 x)}\) Find the function when x = 2, y = \(\frac{3}{8}\)
Solution:

Question 3.
The elasticity of demand with respect to price for a commodity is given by \(\frac{(4-x)}{x}\) where p is the price when demand is x. Find the demand function when the price is 4 and the demand is 2. Also, find the revenue function.
Solution:

Question 4.
A company receives a shipment of 500 scooters every 30 days. From experience, it is known that the inventory on hand is related to the number of days x. Since the shipment, I(x) = 500 – 0.03x², the daily holding cost per scooter is ₹0.3. Determine the total cost for maintaining inventory for 30 days.
Solution:
Here inventory I(x) = 500 – 0.03x²
Unit holding cost C₁ = ₹0.3
T = 30 days
So total inventory carrying cost

Hence the total cost for maintaining inventory for 30 days is ₹ 4,419.

Question 5.
An account fetches interest at the rate of 5% per annum compounded continuously. An individual deposits ₹ 1,000 each year in his account. How much will be in the account after 5 years. (e^0.25 = 1.284)
Solution:
p = 1000, N = 5, r = 5% = 0.05

After 5 years ₹ 5680 will be in the account

Question 6.
The marginal cost function of a product is given by \(\frac{d c}{d x}\) = 100 – 10x + 0.1x² where x is the output. Obtain the total and the average cost function of the firm under the assumption, that its fixed cost is ₹ 500.
Solution:
Given MC = \(\frac{d c}{d x}\) = 100 – 10x + 0.1x²
C = ∫ MC dx + k
C = ∫ (100 – 10x + 0.1x²) dx + k
C = 100x – 5x² + \(\frac{0.1 x^{3}}{3}\) + k
The fixed cost is 500 ⇒ k = 500
Hence total cost function = 100x – 5x² + \(\frac{0.1 x^{3}}{3}\) + 500
Average cost function AC = \(\frac{c}{x}\)
\(=100-5 x+\frac{x^{2}}{30}+\frac{500}{x}\)

Question 7.
The marginal cost function is MC = 300 \(x^{\frac{2}{5}}\) and fixed cost is zero. Find out the total cost and average cost functions.
Solution:

Question 8.
If the marginal cost function of x units of output is \(\frac{a}{\sqrt{a x+b}}\) and if the cost of output is zero. Find the total cost as a function of x.
Solution:

Question 9.
Determine the cost of producing 200 air conditioners if the marginal cost (is per unit) is C'(x) = \(\left(\frac{x^{2}}{200}+4\right)\)
Solution:

Question 10.
The marginal revenue (in thousands of Rupees) functions for a particular commodity is 5 + 3e^-0.03x where x denotes the number of units sold. Determine the total revenue from the sale of 100 units. (Given e^-3 = 0.05 approximately)
Solution:
Given, marginal Revenue R'(x) = 5 + 3e^-0.03x
Total revenue from the sale of 100 units is

Total revenue = 595 × 1000 = ₹ 5,95,000

Question 11.
If the marginal revenue function for a commodity is MR = 9 – 4x². Find the demand function.
Solution:
Given, marginal Revenue function MR = 9 – 4x²
Revenue function, R = ∫(MR) dx + k

Question 12.
Given the marginal revenue function \(\frac{4}{(2 x+3)^{2}}-1\), show that the average revenue function is P = \(\frac{4}{6 x+9}-1\)
Solution:

Question 13.
A firm’s marginal revenue function is MR = 20 \(e^{\frac{-x}{10}}\left(1-\frac{x}{10}\right)\). Find the corresponding demand function.
Solution:

Question 14.
The marginal cost of production of a firm is given by C'(x) = 5 + 0.13x, the marginal revenue is given by R'(x) = 18 and the fixed cost is ₹ 120. Find the profit function.
Solution:
MC = C'(x) = 5 + 0.13x
C(x) = ∫C'(x) dx + k₁
= ∫(5 + 0.13x) dx + k₁
= 5x + \(\frac{0.13}{2} x^{2}\) + k₁
When quantity produced is zero, fixed cost is 120
(i.e) When x = 0, C = 120 ⇒ k₁ = 120
Cost function is 5x + 0.065x² + 120
Now given MR = R'(x) = 18
R(x) = ∫18 dx + k₂ = 18x + k₂
When x = 0, R = 0 ⇒ k₂ = 0
Revenue = 18x
Profit P = Total Revenue – Total cost = 18x – (5x + 0.065x² + 120)
Profit function = 13x – 0.065x² – 120

Question 15.
If the marginal revenue function is R'(x) = 1500 – 4x – 3x². Find the revenue function and average revenue function.
Solution:
Given marginal revenue function
MR = R’(x)= 1500 – 4x – 3x²
Revenue function R(x) = ∫R'(x) dx + c
R = ∫(1500 – 4x – 3x²) dx + c
R = 1500x – 2x² – x³ + c
When x = 0, R = 0 ⇒ c = 0
So R = 1500x – 2x² – x³
Average revenue function P = \(\frac{R}{x}\) ⇒ 1500 – 2x – x²

Question 16.
Find the revenue function and the demand function if the marginal revenue for x units is MR = 10 + 3x – x²
Solution:

Question 17.
The marginal cost function of a commodity is given by MC = \(\frac{14000}{\sqrt{7 x+4}}\) and the fixed cost is ₹ 18,000. Find the total cost and average cost.
Solution:

Question 18.
If the marginal cost (MC) of production of the company is directly proportional to the number of units (x) produced, then find the total cost function, when the fixed cost is ₹ 5,000 and the cost of producing 50 units is ₹ 5,625.
Solution:
Given that the marginal cost MC is directly proportional to the number of units x.
That is, MC ∝ x
MC = kx, where k is the constant of proportionality
Total cost C = ∫(MC) dx + c₁

Question 19.
If MR = 20 – 5x + 3x²
Solution:

Question 20.
If MR = 14 – 6x + 9x², find the demand function.
Solution:
MR = 14 – 6x + 9x²
R = ∫(14 – 6x + 9x²) dx + k
= 14x – 3x² + 3x³ + k
Since R = 0, when x = 0, k = 0
So revenue function R = 14x – 3x² + 3x³
Demand function P = \(\frac{R}{x}\) = 14 – 3x + 3x²