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You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.8

9th Maths Exercise 3.8 Question 1.
Factorise each of the following polynomials using synthetic division:
(i) x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24
(ii) 2x³ – 3x² – 3x + 2
(iii) -7x + 3 + 4x³
(iv) x³ + x² – 14x – 24
(v) x³ – 7x + 6
(vi) x³ – 10x² – x + 10
Solution:
(i) x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24
Let p(x) = x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24
Sum of all the co-efficients = 1 – 3 – 10 + 24 = 25 – 13 = 12 ≠ 0
Hence (x – 1) is not a factor.
Sum of co-efficient of even powers with constant = -3 + 24 = 21
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers = 1 – 10 = – 9
21 ≠ -9
Hence (x + 1) is not a factor.
p (2) = 2³ – 3 (2²) – 10 × 2 + 24 = 8 – 12 – 20 + 24
= 32 – 32 = 0 ∴ (x – 2) is a factor.
Now we use synthetic division to find other factor

Thqs (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 4) are the factors.
∴ x³ – 3x² – 10x + 24 = (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 4)

(ii) 2x² – 3x² – 3x + 2
Let p (x) = 2x³ – 3x² – 3x + 2
Sum of all the co-efficients are
2 – 3 – 3 + 2 = 4 – 6 = -2 ≠ 0
∴ (x – 1) is not a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = -3 + 2 = – 1
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of x = 2- 3= -1
(-1) = (-1)
∴ (x + 1) is a factor
Let us find the other factors using synthetic division

Quotient is 2x² – 5x + 2 = 2x – 4x – x + 2 = 2x (x – 2) – 1 (x – 2)
= (x – 2) (2x – 1)
∴ 2x³ – 3x² – 3x + 2 = (x + 1) (x – 2) (2x – 1)

(iii) -7x + 3 + 4x³
Let p(x) = 4x³ + 0x² – 7x + 3
Sum of the co-efficients are = 4 + 0 – 7 + 3
= 7 – 7 = 0
∴ (x- 1) is a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = 0 + 3 = 3
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of x with constant = 4 – 7 = -3
-3 ≠ -3
∴ (x + 1) is not a factor
Using synthetic division, let us find the other factors.


Quotient is 4x² + 4x – 3
= 4x² + 6x – 2x – 3
= 2x (2x + 3) – 1 (2x + 3)
= (2x + 3) (2x – 1)
∴ The factors are (x – 1), (2x + 3) and (2x – 1)
∴ -7x + 3 + 4x³ = (x + 1) (2x + 3) (2x – 1)

(iv) x³ + x² – 14x – 24
Let p (x) = x³ + x² – 14x – 24
Sum of the co-efficients are = 1 + 1 – 14 – 24 = -36 ≠ 0
∴ (x – 1) is not a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = 1 – 24 = -23
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of x = 1 – 14 = -3
-23 ≠ -13
∴ (x + 1) is also not a factor
p(2) = 2³ + 2² – 14 (2) – 24 = 8 + 4 – 28 – 24
= 12 – 52 ≠ 0, (x – 2) is a not a factor
p (-2) = (-2)³ + (-2)² – 14 (-2) – 24
= -8 + 4 + 28 – 24 = 32 – 32 = 0
∴ (x + 2) is a factor
To find the other factors let us use synthetic division.

∴ The factors are (x + 2), (x + 3), (x + 4)
∴ x³ + x² – 14x – 24 = (x + 2) (x + 3) (x – 4)

(v) x³ – 7x + 6
Let p (x) = x³ + 0x² – 7x + 6
Sum of the co-efficients are = 1 + 0 – 7 + 6 = 7 – 7 = 0
∴(x- 1) is a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = 0 + 6 = 6
Sum of coefficient of odd powers of x = 1 – 7 = -7
6 ≠ -7
∴ (x + 1) is not a factor
To find the other factors, let us use synthetic division.

∴ The factors are (x – 1), (x – 2), (x + 3)
∴ x³ + 0x² – 7x + 6 = (x – 1) (x – 2) (x + 3)

(vi) x³ – 10x² – x + 10
Let p (x) = x³ – 10x² – x + 10
Sum of the co-efficients = 1 – 0 – 1 + 10
= 11 – 11 = 0
∴ (x – 1) is a factor
Sum of co-efficients of even powers of x with constant = -10 + 10 = 0
Sum of co-efficients of odd powers of = 1 – 1 = 0
∴(x + 1) is a factor
Synthetic division

∴ x³ + 10x² – x + 10 = (x – 1) (x + 1) (x – 10)

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 4 The World after World War II

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science History Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science History Board solutions for Chapter 4 The World after World War II Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science History Chapter 4 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

The World after World War II Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

World After War Walkthrough Pdf Question 1.
Who was the first director of Whampoa Military Academy?
(a) Sun Yat-Sen
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek
(c) Michael Borodin
(d) Chou En Lai.
Answer:
(b) Chiang Kai-Shek

10th Social Science Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Which American President followed the policy of containment of Communism?
(a) Woodrow Wilson
(b) Truman
(c) Theodore Roosevelt
(d) Franklin Roosevelt
Answer:
(b) Truman

History Chapter 4 Question 3.
When was People’s Political Consultative Conference held in China?
(a) September 1959
(b) September 1948
(c) September 1954
(d) September 1949
Answer:
(d) September 1949

Question 4.
The United States and European allies formed …………. to resist any Soviet aggression in Europe.
(a) SEATO
(b) NATO
(c) SENTO
(d) Warsaw Pact
Answer:
(b) NATO

Question 5.
Who became the Chairman of the PLO’s Executive Committee in 1969?
(a) Hafez al-Assad
(b) Yasser Arafat
(c) Nasser
(d) Saddam Hussein
Answer:
(b) Yasser Arafat

Question 6.
When was North and South Vietnam united?
(a) 1975
(b) 1976
(c) 1973
(d) 1974
Answer:
(b) 1976

Question 7.
Where was Arab League formed?
(a) Cairo
(b) Jordan
(c) Lebanon
(d) Syria
Answer:
(a) Cairo

Question 8.
When was the Warsaw Pact dissolved?
(a) 1979
(b) 1989
(c) 1990
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …….. was known as the “Father of modem China”.
2. In 1918, the society for the study of Marxism was formed in ……… University.
3. After the death of Dr. Sun Yat Sen, the leader of the Kuomintang party was ………..
4. ……….. treaty is open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.
5. The treaty of ……… provided for mandates in Turkish-Arab Empire.
6. Germany joined the NATO in ……….
7. ……….. was the Headquarters of the Council of Europe.
8. ……….. treaty signed on February 7, 1992 created the European Union.
Answers:
1. Dr. Sun Yat-Sen
2. Peking
3. Chiang Kai-Shek
4. Central
5. Versailles
6. 1955
7. Strasbourg
8. The Maastricht

III. Choose the correct statement/statements.

Question 1.
(i) In China (1898) the young emperor, under the influence of the educated minority, initiated
a series of reforms known as the 100 days of reforms.
(ii) The Kuomintang Party represented the interests of the workers and peasants.
(iii) Yuan Shih-Kai had lost prestige in the eyes of Nationalists, when he agreed to the demand of Japan to have economic control of Manchuria and Shantung.
(iv) Soviet Union refused to recognize the People’s Republic of China for more than two decades.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) is correct
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) In 1948, the Soviets had established left wing government in the countries of Eastern
Europe that had been liberated by the Soviet Army.
(ii) The chief objective of NATO was to preserve peace and security in the North Atlantic region.
(iii) The member countries of SEATO were committed to prevent democracy from gaining ground in the region.
(iv) Britain used the atomic bomb against Japan to convey its destructive capability to the USSR.
(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): America’s Marshall Plan was for reconstruction of the war-ravaged Europe. Reason (R): The US conceived the Marshal Plan to bring the countries in the Western Europe under its influence.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (b)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (a)

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
Write any three causes for the Chinese Revolution of 1911.
Answer:

1. The Disintegration of the Manchu dynasty.
2. With the death of Empress Dowager, the governors proclaimed their independence.
3. The new emperor was too little two years old who cannot take any decision.

Question 2.
Explain how in 1928 Kuomintung and Chiang-Kai Shek established Central Government in China.
Answer:

1. Chiang Kai-Shek became the leader of Kuomintang after the death of Sun Yat-Sen in 1925. Being an avowed critic of Communists, he removed all the important position holders in the communist party including Mao Tse Tung and Chou En Lai.
2. The communists increased their influence among the peasants and obtained recruits for their army. The Kuominatang represented the interests of the landlords and capitalists.
3. Chang Kai-Shek started conquering China. In early 1927 he successfully land siege on Shanghai and Nanking. He removed all communists in the Kuominatang Party. In 1928 he captured Pehung and established control government in China.

Question 3.
Write a note on Mao’s Long March.
Answer:
By 1933, Mao had gained full control of the Communist party of China. In 1934, the Communist party army of about 100,000 set out on a long march. The marchers were troubled greatly by Kuomintang forces, unfriendly tribes and local war lords. At last only 20,000 people reached northern Sheni region in 1935, after crossing nearly 6000 miles. By .1937, Mao became the leader of over 10 million people.

Question 4.
What do you know of Baghdad Pact?
Answer:
In 1955, Turkey, Iraq, Great Britain, Pakistan and Iran signed a pact known as Baghdad Pact. In 1958, the United States joined the organisation and therefore it came to be known as the Central Treaty Organisation. The treaty was open to any Arab nation desiring peace and security in the region.

Question 5.
What was Marshall Plan?
Answer:
The Secretary of state of USA George C. Marshall proposed the Marshall plan. The European nations who were affected by World War II will be given administrative and technical assistance, along with shipments of food, fuel and machinery by USA. This would help them for a early recovery and intum help USA to influence them.

Question 6.
The Suez Canal crisis confirmed that Israel had been created to serve the cause of western interests -Elaborate.
Answer:
In 1956, Nasser, the President of Egypt, nationalised Suez Canal. This measure undermined British interests with the failure of diplomacy, Britain and France decided to use force. Israel saw this as an opportunity to open the Gulf of Aqaba to Israeli shipping and put a stop to Egyptian border roads. On 29 October Israels, forces invaded Egypt, Britain used this opportunity to demand that its troops be allowed to occupy the canal zone to protect the canal. When Egypt refused British demand, it was bombed. Britain and France also attached Suez Canal area.

Question 7.
Write a note on Third World Countries.
Answer:
The term Third World Countries generally refers to the developing countries of the world. Earlier, the former colonies of Africa, Asia and Latin America were called as Third World countries.

Question 8.
How was the Cuban missile crisis defused?
Answer:
The Cuban Missile crisis was a confrontation between the United States and the Soviet Union which initiated by the American discovery of Soviet Ballistic missile deployment in Cuba. Finally, the Soviet President Nikita Khrushchev agreed to with draw the missiles and thus the missile crisis was defused.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption.

Question 1.
Cold War

(a) Name the two military blocs that emerged in the Post-World War II.
Answer:

1. The United States
2. The Soviet Union

(b) Who coined the term “Cold War” and who used it first?
Answer:
The term ‘Cold War’ was first coined by the English Writer George Orwell in 1945. Bernard Baruch, the US presidental adviser, was the first to use it in a speech.

(c) What was the response of Soviet Russia to the formation of NATO?
Answer:
Soviet Russia did not welcome the formation of the NATO. To counter it, Soviet Union organised the Soviet-bloc countries for united military actions under the Warsaw Pact in 1955.

(d) What was the context in which Warsaw Pact was dissolved?
Answer:
The Warsaw Pact was dissolved in 1991 following the fall of the Berlin Wall and the reunification of Germany.

Question 2.
Korean War

(a) Who was the President of North Korea during the Korean War?
Answer:
The president of North Korea was KIM II during the Korean War.

(b) Name the southern rival to the President of North Korea.
Answer:
The Southern rival to the President or North Korea was Syngman Rhee.

(c) How long did the Korean War last?
Answer:
The Korean war lasted for three years.

(d) What was the human cost of the War?
Answer:
The human cost of the Korean war was enormous.

Question 3.
Non-Aligned Movement (NAM)

(a) When and where was the first conference on Non-Aligned Movement held?
Answer:
The first conference on NAM was held at Belgrade in 1961.

(b) Who were the prominent personalities present in the first conference?
Answer:
The prominent personalities present in the first conference were Tito (Yugoslavia), Nasser (Egypt), Nehru (India), Nkrumah (Ghana) and Sukarno (Indonesia).

(c) What were the objectives of NAM?
Answer:
To fight all forms of colonialism and imperialism.

(d) List out any two basic principles of Non-Alignment Movement enunciated in the Belgrade
Conference.
Answer:
Two basic principles of NAM eximiated in the Belgrade conference were:

1. peaceful cooperation, commitment to peace and security
2. no military alliance with any super power.

VII. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Estimate the role of Mao Tse tung in making China a communist country.
Answer:

1. Chinese Revolution broke out in 1911. Mao joined the revolutionary army, but very soon left for his studies.
2. Later, Mao went to Peking and worked as an assistant librarian in Peking University.
3. Karl Marx and Lenin became very popular those days and in 1918, A society for the study of Marxism was formed in Peking University and Mao attended it.
4. The communist party of China was under the leadership of Mao – Tse- tung , But at the same time, Chiang Kai sheik’s Kuomintang party was very strong.
5. So, Mao organized the peasantry when the Kuomintang and Communist party rivalry continued, communists led by Mao-Tse-tung stayed for seven years and his army started growing gradually.
6. By 1933, he gained full control of the Chinese Communist party.
7. He organised a long march with 100,000 people. This legendry march was obstructed very badly by his rival party of Kuomintang.
8. Only 20,000 people finally reached safely .
9. By 1937, Mao had become the leader of China of over 10 million people.
10. By 1948, Communist control had been established over most parts of China.
11. In 1949, the people’s political consultative conference met in Peking.
12. The conference consisted of 650 delegates from the communist party and other left-wing organisations and elected the central Governing Council with Mao as its chairman.
13. Thus, Mao established the people’s Republic of China as a major communist power in the world next to the Soviet Union.

Question 2.
Attempt an essay on the Arab-Israeli wars of 1967 and 1973.
Answer:
The formation of Palestinian Liberation Organisation (PLO) was never friendly to Israel. It came to be attached frequently by Palestinian guerrilla groups based in Syria, Lebanon and Jordan. Israel also made violent retaliation. In November 1966, Israel attacked the village of Al-Sami in the Jordanian West Bank. The death toll in this attack was 18. In April 1967 Israel started air battle with Syria which resulted in the shooting down of six Syrian Mig fighter jet.

In his bid to show Egypt’s support for Syria, Nasser mobilised Egyptian forces in the Sinai, seeking the removal of UN emergency forces stationed there on May 18. On May 22, he closed the Gulf Aqaba to Israeli shifting. On June 5, Israel stoped a sudden pre-emptive air strike that destroyed more than 90 percent of Egypt’s air force on the tarmac. A similar air assault was in capacitated the Syria air force. Within three ways, Israel captured the Gaza Strip and all the Senai Peninsula up to the East Bank of the Suez Canal. On June 7, the Israeli forces drove Jordanian forces out of East Jerusalem and most the West Bank. The War ended when the UN Security Council called for a ceasefire.

Arab-Israel War of 1973

Egypt and Syria made a secret agreement in January 1973 to bring their armies under one command. Hafez al-Assad, the President of Syria was keen on retrieving Golan Heights. As Assad was aware that his country’s weapons were dated, he offered the Israelis a peace deal of they would withdraw from Sinai. Israel rejected the offer. Egypt and Syria then launched a sudden attack on the Yom Kippur religions holiday on 6 October 1973. Though Israel suffered heavy casualties, it could finally push back the Arab forces. But this time, due to UN intervention, Israel was forced to return to 1967 position. Arabs gained nothing out of this war too.

Question 3.
Narrate the history of transformation of Council of Europe into an European Union.
Answer:

1. The historical decision taken in the post II World War era was the integration of the States of western Europe.
2. In May 1949, ten countries met in London and signed to form a council of Europe, with head quarters at Strasbourg.
3. It consisted of a committee with the foreign ministers of the member countries and a Consultative Assembly drawn from the parliaments of foreign countries.
4. Initially, the European Defence Community (EDC) and European Coal and Steel community was established with six countries France, West. Germany, Italy, Belgium, Holland and Luxembourg.
5. As per the Treaty of Rome signed by the six countries, European Economic Community with headquarters at Brussels was established (EEC).
6. The EEC eliminated all types of barriers and made it as a European common market.
7. A common Agricultural policy and A common Trade policy was also evolved.
8. Throughout 1970’s and 1980’s the EEC kept on expanding.
9. The Single European Act (SEA) came into force on July 1, 1987.
10. According to the SEA, each member country was given multiple votes, depending on the country’s population.
11. The new procedure also increased the role of the European parliament.
12. On February 7 1992, The Maastricht Treaty created the European Union.
13. In the same year, A common currency Euro was introduced.
14. Common monetary policy with common monetary institutions were also planned and implemented.
15. At present, the European Union has 28 member states.
16. EU established its headquarters at Brussels, Belgium.
17. In. 1973, Britain became its member and voted to exit in 2017.

The World after World War II Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The death toll of Taiping Rebellion was ……… million.
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 40
Answer:
(a) 20

Question 2.
The Chinese Revolution broke out in the year …………….
(a) 1909
(b) 1906
(c) 1911
(d) 1910
Answer:
(c) 1911

Question 3.
The unity of China under Yuan Shih – Kai lasted for ………
(a) ten
(b) four
(c) eight
Answer:
(b) four

Question 4.
Kuomintang party was founded in the year …………….
(a) 1906
(b) 1911
(c) 1912
(d) 1905
Answer:
(c) 1912

Question 5.
Soviet Union tested the nuclear bomb in ………
(a) 1944
(b) 1949
(c) 1950
Answer:
(b) 1949

Question 6.
In the year 1928, Chiang-Kai-Sheik captured …………….
(a) Peking
(b) Beijing
(c) Shangai
(d) Nanking
Answer:
(a) Peking

Question 7.
Which European country colonised Vietnam?
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) France
Answer:
(c) France

Question 8.
Japan’s military base in China was …………….
(a) Manchuria
(b) Mangolia
(c) Port Arthur
(d) Liaotung
Answer:
(a) Manchuria

Question 9.
When did Ho Chi Minh form the Vietnamese Communist party?
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
Answer:
(a) 1930

Question 10.
Cold war means a war with no …………….
(a) weapons
(b) agreements
(c) Treaties
(d) dominations
Answer:
(a) weapons

Question 11.
European Union traces its origin from the ………
(a) ECSC
(b) EEC
(c) ETC
Answer:
(a) ECSC

Question 12.
……………. was an Inter alliance between the countries of North America and Europe.
(a) NATO
(b) Truman doctrine
(c) Marshall plan
(d) SEATO
Answer:
(a) NATO

Question 13.
The name of the single European currency ………
(a) Dollar
(b) Yen
(c) Euro
Answer:
(c) Euro

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The European Union was formed on ………
2. The European parliament meets in ………
3. The main body which drafts proposals for new European laws ………
4. The court of Justice of EU is located in ………
5. The EU’s budgets are managed by the ………
6. The Symbol of the Euro is ………
7. The total number states of European Union ………
8. The cold war period ended with the fall of ………
9. The ……… was a major rebellion.
10. In 1898, the young Emperor, initiated a series of reforms known as the ………
11. The ideas of ……… and Lenin became popular among intellectuals.
12. ……… was the first president of the state of Palestine on April 2, 1989.
13. ……… founded the communist party in Vietnam.
14. ……… occupied Vietnam in 1940.
Answers:
1. 1967
2. Strasbourg
3. The European commission
4. Luxemburg
5. The Court of Auditor
6. €
7. 28
8. Berlin wall
9. Taiping Rebellion
10. Hundred days of reform
11. Marx
12. Yasser Arafat
13. Ho Chi Minh 14. Japan

III. Match the following

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
Write a short note on Mao Tse-tung.
Answer:
Mao was bom in Hunan in South-east China. He came from a wealthy family ,learned man who enrolled himself in teacher’s training college. He supported Manchus. Mao concentrated on strengthening peasants and established People’s Republic of China.

Question 2.
What do you know of Arab nationalism.
Answer:
Since the dawn of the twentieth century, Arab nationalism was growing in Syria and Iraq. Subsequently nationalism became intense in Egypt. In March 1945, the Arab league was formed in Cairo. Its founder members were Egypt, Iraq, Syria, Lebanon, Saudi Arabia, Jordon and Yemen.

Question 3.
What do you understand by First, Second and Third world countries?
Answer:
The capitalist countries led by the USA were called as First World Countries. The communists led by the Soviet Union came to be known as Second World Countries. The developing countries of the world are called as Third World Countries.

Question 4.
What are the principal objectives of the EU?
Answer:

1. To establish European citizenship
2. To ensure civil rights of European citizens
3. To promote social progress
4. To protect European security
5. To ensure justice

Question 5.
How did the Soviet Union get disintegrated?
Answer:
The East European Communist states under the Soviet umbrella were in a deep economic and social crisis. The division within the ruling group was growing wider. Gorbachev was put into house arrest. Finally he resigned on 25th Dec. and on 31st Dec 1991. It was dissolved.

Question 6.
What is the significance of the EURO?
Answer:

1. The Euro is the name of the single European currency. Its symbol is €.
2. The Euro eliminated foreign exchange hurdles encountered by companies doing business across European border.
3. It promotes free trade policy.

Question 7.
Write a short note on NAM.
Answer:
The Non-Alignment Movement was called in short as NAM. It emerged at the Bandung conference in 1955. Peaceful co-existence, commitment to peace and security, no military alliances were the principles with which NAM operated.

Question 8.
Write a note on Single European Act.
Answer:

1. The Single European Act came into force on July 1, 1987.
2. It significantly expanded the EEC’s scope giving the meetings of the EPC a legal basis.
3. It also called for more intensive co-ordination of foreign policy among member countries.
4. According to the SEA, each member was given multiple votes, depending on the country’s population. Approval of legislation required roughly two-thirds of the votes of all members.
5. The new procedure also increased the role of the European parliament.

V. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Organs of the EU

(a) Which is the Legislative body of the EU?
Answer:
The European Parliament

(b) Where is the seat of the Court of Justice?
Answer:
Luxemburg

(c) What is the function of the European commission?
Answer:

1. It is responsible for initiating legislation and the day to day running of the EU.
2. It drafts proposals for New European laws and presents to the European parliament and the council.

(d) Who is responsible for the foreign exchange operation?
Answer:
The European central bank.

Question 2.
Palestine Liberation Organisation (PLO)

(a) What type of organisation was PLO?
Answer:
It is a political organisation representing all the Arabs and the descendants who live in Palestine, before the creation of Israel.

(b) What type of war does the PLO engage in?
Answer:
The PLO was engaged in Guerrilla war.

(c) Who was their prominent leader?
Answer:
Yasser Arafat was their prominent leader.

(d) How did his appearance raised world awareness on the political cause?
Answer:
He was wearing a Harley disguised pistol and carrying an olive branch and dressed in a military uniform.

VI. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a detailed report on the formation of the military alliances.
Answer:
The cold war was not a war with weapons. Rather, a war on Political, economical and ideological fronts.

The countries started making military alliances, so that they would have joint commands with standing forces.

North Atlantic Treaty Organisation: In short, it was called as NATO, by the United States and its European allies to resist the Soviet aggression in Europe.

The main aim of the NATO was to maintain peace and security in the North Atlantic region.

Members agreed if any one of them would be attacked, it would be an attack on NATO.

WARSAW PACT: As a counter to the NATO, Soviet Union organised the Soviet bloc countries, under the Warsaw pact, A Joint command of the armed forces with head quarters a Moscow was set up.

SEATO: South East Asia Treaty Organization was organised for the collective security of the South east Asian countries. Their aim is to prevent communism to gain popularity in their region. It was called as Manila pact.

CENTO: Central Treaty organisation was a pact signed by Iran, Iraq, Turkey, Pakistan, Britain. When USA joined it was called CENTO. Prior to that, it was called as Baghdad pact. It was open to any Arab region seeking peace and security in their region.

Question 2.
What are the achievements of the European Union?
Answer:
Single market:-

1. The EV has developed a single market through a standarized system of laws, which apply to all member states.
2. It ensures the free movement of people, goods, services and capital including the abolition of passport controls.
3. It maintains common policies of trade, agriculture, fisheries and regional development.

Common foreign and security policy:-

1. The EU is able to conclude treaties with countries and enacts legislation injustice and home affairs.
2. It has maintained representation at the World Trade Organisation, G – 8, G – 20 and at the United Nations.

Single Currency:-

1. The Euro is the name of the Single European currency
2. It was put into circulation on January 1, 2002.
3. The symbol of the Euro is €.
4. Euro eliminated foreign exchange hurdles encountered by companies doing business across European border and promotes free trade policy.

Enlargement of EU:-

1. The Union’s membership has grown from the original six to the present day 28 by successive enlargements.
2. The countires acceded to the treaties and by doing so, pooled their sovereignty in exchange for representation in the institutions.

Scientific Research:-

1. Scientific development is facilitated through the EUs frame work programmes.
2. The independent European Research Council allocates funds to European or national research projects.

EU’s role in the UNO :-

1. The EU has established a strong relationship with the UNO.
2. The EU co-operates with the UNO on a broad range of areas.
3. It extends financial support to UN programmes and projects.

Other Achievements:-

1. The EU is the largest contributor of foreign aid in the world.
2. Above all, unity was brought by the EU in the Eurozone.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 4 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 4 The World after World War II Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

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Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 4 Tamilnadu Agriculture

Tamilnadu Agriculture Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer:

Agriculture In Tamil Nadu 9th Class Question 1.
Irrigated land surface out of cultivable land is
(a) 27%
(b) 57%
(c) 28%
(d) 49%
Answer:
(b) 57%

9th Class Social Agriculture In India Lesson Question 2.
Out of the following which is not a food crop?
(a) Bajra
(b) Ragi
(c) Maize
(d) Coconut
Answer:
(d) Coconut

Agriculture 9th Class Question 3.
The productivity of paddy during the year 2014-2015
(a) 3,039 kg
(b) 4,429 kg
(c) 2,775 kg
(d) 3,519 kg
Answer:
(b) 4429 kilogram

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 4.
Both agricultural productivity and food productivity has ……..
(a) decreased
(b) not stable
(c) remained stable
(d) increased
Answer:
(d) Increased

Social Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 5.
The North-East monsoon period in Tamilnadu ………
(a) August – October
(b) September – November
(c) October – December
(d) November – January
Answer:
(c) October – December

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The major occupation of people in Tamilnadu is ……..
2. Tamilnadu receives rainfall from the ……. monsoon.
3. The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is …….. hectares.
Answers:
1. Agriculture
2. Northeast
3. 30 lakh and 33 thousand

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (c)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Give short Answers

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 1.
Give two examples for each food crop and non-food crops.
Answer:
Example for food crops: Paddy, Maize Example for non-food crops: Coconut, Cotton.

9th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
What are the factors responsible for the changes in cropping area?
Answer:
The size of the total cropping land in Tamil Nadu is 4,544 thousand hectare and this keeps on changing every year. Sufficient rains at the proper period will increase this extent of land. Failure or shortage in rainfall leads to the reduction of land usage for cultivation. .

Social Science 9th Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Who monitors the quantity and quality of ground water?
Answer:
The Union Ground Water Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of ground water. This continuous monitoring has categorized the Panchayat Union (blocks) in terms of the amount of groundwater used. 139 blocks in Tamilnadu are identified as excessive users of groundwater and 100 blocks as nearing the stage of excessive usage of groundwater. 11 blocks have been identified with reduced water quality. Only 136 blocks have enough quantity and quality water for usage.

Samacheer Kalvi 9 Social Question 4.
Tabulate the productivity of paddy from 1965 to 2015.
Answer:

Social Science Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 5.
On what factors does crop cultivation depend? List out the factors on which crop cultivation depend.
Answer:
Crop cultivation depends on – rainfall, availability of water, weather and market prices.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Question 6.
Differentiate small and marginal farmers.
Answer:

V. Answer in Detail

Social Science Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Give a note oh water resources Tamilnadu.
Answer:
Northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu. The Northeast monsoon rains are stored in reservoirs, lakes, pond and wells for cultivation. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu. 2,239 canals run through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9,750 km. There are 7,985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells and there are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.

The area of land that is irrigated using water from lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 1L91 lakh hectares of land.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Standard Social Question 2.
What are the problems faced by using ground water for agriculture?
Answer:
Agriculture in Tamil Nadu is dependent mostly on groundwater. Use of ground water for agriculture creates many hardships too. There would be no sufferings if the amount of water taken from the underground and the amount of water that goes into the underground during the rainy season are equal. On the contrary, as the amount of water taken increases, the ground water goes down resulting in complete dryness or change into unusable water.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Question 3.
Discuss about the source of irrigation for agriculture.
Answer:
There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the Northeast and Southwest monsoons. When the South West monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of the Cauvery River in Karnataka dams get filled and in turn the Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu gets water.

Northeast monsoon (Oct-Dec) is a major source of water for Tamil Nadu. The Northeast monsoon rains are’ stored in reservoirs, lakes, ponds and wells for cultivation. Conventional water bodies like lakes, ponds and canals provide water for agriculture in Tamil Nadu. 2,239 canals run through Tamil Nadu covering a length of 9,750 km. There are 7,985 small lakes, 33,142 large lakes, 15 lakh open wells and there are 3,54,000 borewells in the state where agriculture is carried out with the help of these water resources.

The area of land that is irrigated using water from lakes is very low. Nearly 3.68 lakh hectares of land obtain water from lakes. The canals provide water to 6.68 lakh hectares. Borewells irrigate 4.93 lakh hectares and open wells provide water to 11.91 lakh hectares of land.

Question 4.
Tabulate the crops grown in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Crops grown in Tamil Nadu are:

1. Paddy
2. Black gram
3. Maize
4. Coconut
5. Corn
6. Sugarcane
7. Millets

VI Activity

Question 1.
Analyse the cultivation of food crops and non-food crops of your village / area.
Answer:

Question 2.
Thanjavur is famous for which crop? Why is it so? Research.
Answer:
(a) The Principal crops in Thanjavur District are paddy, green gram, black gram, sugarcane,
cotton, groundnut, gingelly, coconut, fruits and vegetables in the areas where irrigation facility is available.
In the rainfed area cholam, kumbu, ragi, maize, some edible oil seeds, non-edible oil seeds, fodder crops etc.
(b) The land is ideal for growing crops like Rice. The major portion of Thanjavur land consists of alluvial deposits. Thanjavur is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
(c) Soil and Water Management Research Institute Kalluthottam was established in 1972. They conduct research on the improved methods of water conveyance, application and utilization on rice and other crops grown in the Cauvery Delta zone.

Question 3.
Collect statistical data, where paddy is being cultivated at Thanjavur District, which is called the Nerkalanjium of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
(a) Thanjavur is known as the Rice bowl of Tamil Nadu.
(b) Samba cultivation has picked up in Thanjavur District.
(c) In Tiruvarur district direct sowing has been done on 70,000 hectares of land, while transplantation has been completed on 11,500 hectares.
(d) High concentration of rice production are found in taluks of Orathanadu, Thiruvaiyaru, Kumbakonam, Pabanasam, Thiruvidaimarudur, etc.

Tamilnadu Agriculture Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
This is the total employee population engaged in agriculture according to 2001 census.
(a) 48.3%
(b) 49.3%
(c) 47.3%
(d) 46.3%
Answer:
(b) 49.3%

Question 2.
The total geographical area of Tamil Nadu is
(a) one crore thirty lakh and thirty three thousand hectares
(b) one crore twenty lakh and thirty two thousand hectares
(c) one crore forty lakh and thirty three thousand hectares
(d) one crore twenty five lakh and thirty thousand hectares
Answer:
(a) one crore thirty lakh and thirty three thousand hectares

Question 3.
The number of blocks identified as excessive users of ground water are
(a) 140
(b) 141
(c) 139
(d) 138
Answer:
(c) 139

Question 4.
……… cultivation is carried out at a large scale of 30 percent cultivated land area.
(a) Paddy
(b) Varagu
(c) Cholam
(d) Kambu
Answer:
(a) Paddy

Question 5.
Production capacity of rice in Tamil Nadu was …….. Kg per hectare in 2014 – 2015.
(a) 4420
(b) 4422
(c) 4425
(d) 4427
Answer:
(d) 4427

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The agricultural workers in Tamil Nadu in 2011 were ……..
2. A major portion of the workers involved in agricultural activities are ……… labourers.
3. Most of the cultivators in Tamil Nadu are …….. farmers.
4. There are no …….. rivers in Tamil Nadu.
5. The ……… Board is constantly monitoring the level and nature of ground water.
6. Tamil Nadu agriculture is dependent on ……….
7. Crops are divided into ……. and ……….
Answers:
1. 96 lakhs
2. landless
3. marginal
4. Perennial
5. Union Ground Water
6. ground water
7. food, non-food

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)

IV. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What happened to the number of workers engaged in Agriculture in the past ten years?
Answer:
It has been noticed that the number of farmers in Tamilnadu has got reduced during the last 10 years according to the 2011 census data. Similarly the number of agricultural workers also reduced during the same period.

Question 2.
What type of employees are involved in agricultural acitivities?
Answer:
A major portion of the workers involved in agricultural activities are landless labourers. All the land holders do not have the same amount of land. Many have very little land and very few people hold large areas of land.

Question 3.
“The total area of land under agriculture is shrinking fast.” What does it show?
Answer:
The total land area under agriculture is shrinking fast not only in Tamilnadu, but also throughout India. The number of marginal farmers has increased in India. In contrast, the number of marginal farmers is decreasing in Tamil Nadu. This shows that the farmers are doing other occupations.

Question 4.
Comment on water resources of Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
There are no perennial rivers in Tamil Nadu. Tamil Nadu receives the required water from the Northeast and Southwest monsoons. When the South West monsoon rains are high in the catchment areas of the Cauvery River in Karnataka dams get filled and in turn the Cauvery river in Tamil Nadu gets water.

Question 5.
How is the productivity of crops?
Answer:
The productivity of crops continues to increase. For example the productivity of paddy in 1965 – 66 was 1,409 kg. It increased to 2,029 kg in 1975-76 and 2,372 kg in 1985-86. It . increased to 2,712 kg after a decade. The production was 4,429 kg in the year 2014-15. In the past fifty years, the productivity of paddy has increased more than three times.

V. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Explain irrigation and croptypes.
Answer:
All cultivated crops can be classified as food crops and non-food crops. 57 percentage of the total land under food grain cultivation is irrigated. In 2014-15, 59 percentage of food crops and 50 percentage of non food crops were irrigated in Tamilnadu.

The total area of land cultivated in Tamil Nadu was 59 lakh and 94 thousand hectares in 2014—2015. Out of this non-food crops were 76%.

Paddy cultivation is carried out at a large scale of 30 percent cultivated land area and other food crops in 12 percent area. Millets are cultivated in a very low percentage of area. Sorghum(Cholam) cultivation in 7 per cent land area, cumbu in one percent and ragi in 1.7 per cent. Other millets occupy 6 per cent in the year 2014-2015.

The area cultivatable land changes every year as a result of many factors such as rainfall, availability of water, weather and market prices.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Set Language Ex 1.4

Exercise 1.4 Class 9 Maths Samacheer Question 1.
If P= {1, 2, 5, 7, 9}, Q = {2, 3, 5, 9, 11}, R = {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} and S = {2, 3, 4, 5, 8}, then find
(i) (P ∪ Q) ∪ R
(ii) (P ∩ Q) ∩ S
(iii) (Q ∩ S) ∩ R
Solution:
(i) (P ∪ Q) ∪ R
(P ∪ Q) = {1, 2, 5, 7, 9} ∪ {2, 3, 5, 9, 11} = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11}
(P ∪ Q) ∪ R = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7, 9, 11}

(ii)(P ∩ Q) ∩ S
(P ∩ Q) = {1, 2, 5, 7, 9} ∩ {2, 3, 5, 9, 11} = {2, 5, 9}
(P ∩ Q) ∩ S = {2, 5, 9} ∩ {2, 3, 4, 5, 8} = {2, 5}

(iii) (Q ∩ S) ∩ R
(Q ∩ S) = {2, 3, 5, 9, 11} ∩ {2, 3, 4, 5, 8} = {2, 3, 5}
(Q ∩ S) ∩ R = {2, 3, 5} ∩ {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} = {3, 5}

Exercise 1.4 Class 9 Maths Solution Samacheer Question 2.
Test for the commutative property of union and intersection of the sets
P = {x : x is a real number between 2 and 7} and
Q = {x : x is an irrational number between 2 and 7}
Solution:
Commutative Property of union of sets
(A ∪ B)’ = (B ∪ A)
Here P = {3, 4, 5, 6}, Q = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)}
P ∪ Q = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} = {3, 4, 5, 6, \(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} …………. (1)
Q ∪ P = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} ∪ {3, 4, 5, 6}= {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\), 3, 4, 5, 6} ………… (2)
(1) = (2)
∴ P ∪ Q = Q ∪ P
∴ It is verified that union of sets is commutative.
Commutative Property of intersection of sets (P ∩ Q) = (Q ∩ P)
P ∩ Q = {3, 4, 5, 6} ∩ {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} = { } ………. (1)
Q ∩ P = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}, \sqrt{6}\)} ∩ {3, 4, 5, 6} = { } …………. (2)
From (1) and (2)
P ∩ Q = Q ∩ P
∴ It is verified that intersection of sets is commutative.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Exercise 1.4 Question 3.
If A = {p, q, r, s}, B = {m, n, q, s, t} and C = {m, n, p, q, s}, then verify the associative property of union of sets.
Solution:
Associative Property of union of sets
A ∪ (B ∪ C) = (A ∪ B) ∪ C)
B ∪ C = {m, n, q, s, t} ∪ {m, n,p, q, s}= {m, n, p, q, s, t}
A ∪ (B ∪ C) = {p, q, r, s} ∪ {m, n, p, q, s, t} = {m, n, p, q, r, s, t} ………..… (1)
(A ∪ B) = {p, q, r, s} ∪ {m, n, q, s, t} = {p, q, r, s, m, n, t}
(A ∪ B) ∪ C = {p, q, r, s, m, n, t} ∪ {m, n, p, q, s} = {p, q, r, s, m, n, t} …………… (2)
From (1) & (2)
It is verified that A ∪ (B ∪ C) = (A ∪ B) ∪ C

9th Standard Maths Exercise 1.4 Question 4.
Verify the associative property of intersection of sets for A = {-11, \(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{5}\) ,7}, B = {\(\sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}\), 6, 13} and C = {\(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt{3}, \sqrt{5}\), 9}.
Solution:
Associative Property of intersection of sets A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C)

From (1) and (2), it is verified that A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C

9th Maths Exercise 1.4 Question 5.
If A = {x : x = 2ⁿ, n ∈ W and n < 4}, B = {x: x = 2 n, n ∈ N and n ≤ 4} and C = {0, 1, 2, 5, 6}, then verify the associative property of intersection of sets.
Solution:
A = {x : x = 2ⁿ, n ∈ W, n < 4}
⇒ x = 2°= 1
x = 2¹ = 2
x = 2² = 4
x = 2³ = 8
∴ A = {1, 2, 4, 8}

B = {x : x = 2n, n ∈ N and n ≤ 4}
⇒ x = 2 × 1 = 2
x = 2 × 2 = 4
x = 2 × 3 = 6
x = 2 × 4 = 8
∴ B = {2, 4, 6, 8}
C = {0, 1, 2, 5, 6}
Associative property of intersection of sets
A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C
B ∩ C = {2, 6}
A ∩ (B ∩ C) = {1, 2, 4, 8} ∩ {2, 6} = {2} ………..… (1)
A ∩ B = {1, 2, 4, 8} ∩ {2, 4, 6, 8} = {2, 4, 8}
(A ∩ B) ∩ C = {2, 4, 8} ∩ {0, 1, 2, 5, 6} = {2} …………….. (2)
From (1) and (2), It is verified that A ∩ (B ∩ C) = (A ∩ B) ∩ C

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 6.2 மழைச்சோறு Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 6.2 மழைச்சோறு

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
உங்கள் பகுதியில் பாடப்படும் மழை தொடர்பான நாட்டுப்புறப் பாடல்களைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
பாடல் – 1

ஆத்தா மகமாயி வந்திடம்மா
ஆத்தா மகமாயி வந்திடம்மா
உனக்கு எத்தனையோ பூச செஞ்சோம்
உனக்கு எத்தனையோ பூச செஞ்சோம்
வாம்மா வாம்மா வந்து மழைய குடும்மா
குடும்மா கருத்தம்மா
பசி வயிறு புடுங்கு தம்மா
மழை பெய்யச் சொல்லம்மா
மழை பெய்யச் சொல்லம்மா

பாடல் – 2

மழையப்பா மழையப்பா
கொஞ்சம் வாப்பா
இத்தனை நாள் வயல்
காணாதது போதாதா?
என்ன அப்பா கோபம்
மகன்கள் பண்ண
தப்ப மன்னிக்க மாட்டியா?
மன்னிச்சு வாப்பா
மானங்காக்க வாப்பா
மனமிரங்கி வாப்பா
மழையப்பா மழையப்பா

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
கனத்த மழை என்னும் சொல்லின் பொருள் ………………………
அ) பெருமழை
ஆ) சிறு மழை
இ) எடை மிகுந்த மழை
ஈ) எடை குறைந்த மழை
Answer:
அ) பெருமழை

Question 2.
‘வாசலெல்லாம்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ……………………
அ) வாசல் + எல்லாம்
ஆ) வாசல் + எலாம்
இ) வாசம் + எல்லாம்
ஈ) வாசு + எல்லாம்
Answer:
அ) வாசல்+எல்லாம்

Question 3.
‘பெற்றெடுத்தோம்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ……………………
அ) பெறு + எடுத்தோம்
ஆ) பேறு + எடுத்தோம்
இ) பெற்ற + எடுத்தோம்
ஈ) பெற்று + எடுத்தோம்
Answer:
ஈ) பெற்று + எடுத்தோம்

Question 4.
கால் + இறங்கி என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் …………………..
அ) கால்லிறங்கி
ஆ) காலிறங்கி
இ) கால் இறங்கி
ஈ) கால்றங்கி
Answer:
ஆ) காலிறங்கி

குறுவினா

Question 1.
மழைச்சோறு பாடலில் உழவர் படும் வேதனை எவ்வாறு கூறப்படுகிறது?
Answer:
(i) கடலைச் செடி, முருங்கைச் செடி, கருவேலங்காடு, காட்டுமல்லி என அனைத்தும் மழையில்லாமல் வாடிப்போனது. பெற்றெடுத்த குழந்தைகளின் பசியைத் தீர்க்க முடியவில்லை .

(ii) கலப்பை பிடிப்பவரின் கை சோர்ந்து விட்டது, ஏற்றம் இறைப்பவரின் மனம் தவிக்கிறது என்றும் இதற்குக் காரணம் மழை இல்லாமையே இன்று உழவர் வேதனைப் படுகின்றனர்.

Question 2.
மக்கள் ஊரைவிட்டு வெளியேறக் காரணம் என்ன?
Answer:
மழை இல்லாததால் உழவுத் தொழில் செய்ய முடியவில்லை. எனவே மக்கள் ஊரை விட்டு வெளியேறுகின்றனர்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
கோலம் கரையாத நிலையை மழைச்சோறு பாடல் எவ்வாறு விளக்குகிறது?
Answer:

• வாளியில் கரைத்த மாவால் வாசலில் கோலம் போட்டனர்.
• இந்தக் கோலத்தைக் கரைக்க மழை வரவில்லை !
• பானையில் மாவைக் கரைத்து, பாதை எல்லாம் கோலம் போட்டனர்.
• அந்தக் கோலம் கரைக்கவும் மழை வரவில்லை .

Question 2.
மழையின்மையால் செடிகள் வாடிய நிலையை விளக்குக.
Answer:

• கல் இல்லாத காட்டில் கடலைச் செடி நட்டு வளர்த்தார்கள். அதற்கும் மழை பெய்யவில்லை.
• முள் இல்லாத காட்டில் முருங்கைச் செடி நட்டு வளர்த்தார்கள். அதற்கும் மழை வரவில்லை .
• கருவேலங்காடும் மழையில்லாமல் பூக்கவில்லை.
• மழை இல்லாததால் காட்டு மல்லியும் பூக்கவில்லை.

Question 3.
மழைச்சோறு எடுத்தபின் எவ்வாறு மழை பெய்தது?
Answer:

• மழைச் சோறு எடுத்தபின், பேய் மழையாக ஊசிபோல கால் இறங்கி உலகமெல்லாம் பெய்கிறது.
• சிட்டுப் போல மின்னி மின்னி ஊரெங்கும் பெய்கிறது.
• ஊரெங்கும் செல்ல மழை பெய்கிறது.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
மழைவளம் பெருக நாம் செய்ய வேண்டுவன யாவை?
Answer:
மழை வளம் பெருக அதிகப்படியான மரங்களை நட்டு வளர்க்க வேண்டும். மரங்களை நட்டால் மட்டும் போதாது. அதனை நன்கு பராமரிக்க வேண்டும். எங்காவது மரங்கள் வெட்டப்படும் போது, அதனைத் தடுக்க வேண்டும். ஒவ்வொரு வீட்டிலும் மழைநீர் சேமிப்புத் தொட்டி கட்டாயம் வைக்க வேண்டும். மழை பெய்யும் காலங்களுக்கு முன் குளங்கள் குட்டைகளை தூர்வார வேண்டும்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
ஒரு நாட்டின் வளத்திற்கு அடிப்படையாக விளங்குவது …………………….
அ) மழை
ஆ) உணவு
இ) உடை
ஈ) பணம்
Answer:
அ) மழை

Question 2.
கல் இல்லாக் காட்டில் …………………….. போட்டனர்.
அ) முருங்கைச் செடி
ஆ) கடலைச் செடி
இ) கருவேல மரம்
ஈ) காட்டு மல்லி
Answer:
ஆ) கடலைச் செடி

Question 3.
முள்ளில்லா காட்டில் …………………. போட்டனர்.
அ) முருங்கைச் செடி
ஆ) கடலைச் செடி
இ) கருவேல மரம்
ஈ) காட்டு மல்லி
Answer:
அ) முருங்கைச் செடி

Question 4.
‘வனவாசம் சென்று விடுவோம்’ என்று கூறியவர் …………………..
அ) புலவர்
ஆ) குறவர்
இ) உழவர்
ஈ) மறவர்
Answer:
இ) உழவர்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
எங்கெல்லாம் கோலம் இடப்பட்டது?
Answer:
வாசல் மற்றும் பாதைகளில் கோலம் இடப்பட்டது.

Question 2.
கடலைச் செடி வாடக் காரணம் யாது?
Answer:
மழை இல்லாததால் கடலைச் செடி வாடியது.

Question 3.
எவற்றை உழவர்கள் தலையில் வைத்துச் செல்கின்றனர்?
Answer:
மழைச் சோறு வாங்கிய பானை, அகப்பை, பழைய முறம் ஆகியவற்றை உழவர்கள் தலையில் வைத்துச் செல்கின்றனர்.

Question 4.
சிட்டு போல மின்னியது எது?
Answer:
சிட்டு போல மின்னியது மழை.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
மழைச் சோற்று நோன்பு பற்றிக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:
(i) மழையில்லாமல் பஞ்சம் ஏற்படும் நேரங்களில் சிற்றூர் மக்கள் வீடு வீடாகச் சென்று உப்பில்லாத சோற்றை ஒரு பானையில் வாங்குவார்கள். ஊர்ப் பொது இடத்தில் வைத்து அனைவரும் பகிர்ந்து உண்பர்.

(ii) கொடிய பஞ்சத்தைக் காட்டும் அடையாளமாக இது நிகழும். இதனைக் கண்டு மனம் இரங்கி மழை பெய்யும் என்பது மக்களின் நம்பிக்கை. இதனை மழைச்சோற்று நோன்பு என்று கூறுவார்கள்.

சொல்லும் பொருளும்

பாதை – வழி
கனத்த – மிகுந்த
பெண்டுகளே – பெண்களே
சீமை – ஊர்

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 3 State Government

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State Government Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

State Government Lesson Questions And Answers Question 1.
The Governor of the State is appointed by the …………..
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice
Answer:
(c) President

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Social Question 2.
The Speaker of a State is a:
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of Government
(c) President’s agent
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Civics Chapter 3 Question 3.
Which among the following is not one of the powers of the Governor?
(a) Legislative
(b) Executive
(c) Judicial
(d) Diplomatic
Answer:
(d) Diplomatic

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 10th Social Question 4.
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) the Sneaker of State legislature
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Chapter 3 Civics Class 10 Question 5.
The Governor does not appoint …………….
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
(c) Advocate General of the State
(d) Judges of the High Court
Answer:
(d) Judges of the High Court

Question 6.
The Chief Minister of a State is appointed by:
(a) The State Legislature
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) The Speaker of State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(b) The Governor

Question 7.
The State Council of Ministers is headed by …………….
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Governor
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) The Chief Minister

Question 8.
The Legislative Council:
(a) Has a term of five years
(b) Has a term of six years
(c) Is a permanent house
(d) Has a term of four years
Answer:
(b) Has a term of six years

Question 9.
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is ……………
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years
Answer:
(c) 30 years

Question 10.
The members of the Legislative Council are:
(a) Elected by the Legislative Assembly
(b) Mostly nominated
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.
(d) Directly elected by the people
Answer:
(c) Elected by local bodies, graduates, teachers, Legislative Assembly etc.

Question 11.
Which one of the following States does not possess a bicameral legislature?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Telangana
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Tamil Nadu

Question 12.
The High Courts in India were first started at:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras
(b) Delhi and Calcutta
(c) Delhi, Calcutta, Madras
(d) Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
Answer:
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras

Question 13.
Which of the following States have a common High Court?
(a) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala and Telangana
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Answer:
(c) Punjab and Haryana

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. Governor of the state government surrenders his resignation to …………….
2. Members of the Legislative assembly (MLAs) are elected by the ………….
3. …………….. is the first women Governor of Tamil Nadu.
4. ………….. acts as the chancellor of universities in the state.
5. The Seventh Amendment Act of ………….. authorized the Parliament to establish a common high court for two or more states.
6. The Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission can be removed only by the …………….
Answers:
1. President
2. People
3. M. Fathima Bheevi
4. Governor
5. 1956
6. President

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (c)

IV. Choose the Correct Statement.

Question 1.
(i) Only some States in India have Legislative Councils.
(ii) Some members of Legislative Councils are nominated.
(iii) Some members of Legislative Councils are directly elected by the people.
(a) ii and iv are correct
(b) iii and iv are correct
(c) i and ii are correct
(d) i, ii, and iii are correct
Answer:
(c) i and ii are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A): There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State Legislature.
Reason (R): Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State Legislature only with the President’s approval.
(a) (A) is false but (R) is true
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct reason for (A)
Answer:
2. (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct reason for (A)

V. Answer the following.

Question 1.
How the State of Jammu and Kashmir differ from the other states of India?
Answer:

1. The Constitution of India grants special status to Jammu and Kashmir among Indian states.
2. The constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was adopted on the 17th November 1957 and came into force on 26th January 1957.
3. It is the only state in India to have a separate constitution.
4. The Directive principles of state policy and Fundamental duties are not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.
5. Right to property which is denied as a fundamental right to rest of the India is still guaranteed in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
What is the importance of the Governor of a state?
Answer:
The Governor is the Constitutional head of the State Executive. The administration of a State is carried on in the name of the Governor. He directly rules a State when there is the imposition of the President’s rule in the State. He is an integral part of the State legislative.

Question 3.
What are the qualifications for the appointment of a Governor?
Answer:

1. Article 157 and Article 158 of the constitution of India specify the eligibility requirements for the post of Governor. They are:
2. He should be a citizen of India
3. He must have completed 35 years of age.
4. He should not be a member of parliament or of any state legislature.
5. If he is a member of any of legislature he has to vacate his seat on assuming office.
6. He should not hold any other profitable occupation.

Question 4.
What is the original jurisdiction of the High Court?
Answer:
In their judicial capacity, the High Courts of the Presidency towns – Bombay, Calcutta and Madras have both original and appellate jurisdictions, while other High Courts have mostly appellate jurisdiction.
Only in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of court, they have original jurisdiction.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the ‘Appellate Jurisdiction’ of the High Court?
Answer:

1. As courts of appeal, all High Courts can hear appeals in civil and criminal cases from their subordinate courts as well as on their own.
2. They cannot exercise Jurisdiction over Tribunals established under the laws relating to Armed Forces of the country.

VI. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
What are the powers and functions of the Chief Minister?
Answer:
The powers and the functions of the Chief Minister are:

1. The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers. He recommends the persons who can be appointed as ministers by the Governor. He allocates the portfolio among the ministers.
2. He presides over the meetings of the council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
3. The Chief Minister is the principal channel of communication between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
4. He announces the Government policies on the floor of the House. He can introduce the Bills in the Legislative Assembly.
5. For smooth functioning of the State and for good center-state relations, he has to develop a rapport with the Union Government.

Question 2.
Describe the various powers and functions of the Governor.
Answer:
Powers and functions of the Governor: The Governor is the head of the State Executive .He is guided by the aid and advice of the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.

Executive power:

1. Governor is the constitutional head of the state. All the administration of the state is carried on in his name.
2. Being the executive head he makes various appointment as follows.
3. He appoints the leader of the majority party in the State Legislature as the Chief Minister of the state.
4. On the advice of the Chief Minister he appoints the other members of the Council of Ministers.
5. He appoints the advocate General of the state and determine his remuneration.
6. He appoints the Chairman and Members of the State Public Service Commission and the State Election Commissioner and determine the service and tenure of office.
7. He acts as the Chancellor of Universities in the State. He appoints the Vice-Chancellors of Universities in the State.
8. When the State Emergency is proclaimed by the President the Governor becomes the real executive.

Legislative powers:

1. The Governor is an integral part of the State Legislature.
2. He has the right to summon, prorogue the State Legislature and dissolve the State Legislative Assembly if no confidence motion is passed against the ruling party.
3. Commencement of the first session of the Legislature after the general election and the first session of each year is addressed by the Governor.
4. Relating to a bill pending in the legislature he can send messages to the houses.
5. When the office of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker falls vacant he can appoint any member of the Legislative Assembly to preside over.
6. He nominates 1 member from the Anglo-Indian community to the State Legislative Assembly and 1/6th of the members to the State Legislative Council from amongst the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science art, co-operative movement and social service.
7. In consultation with the Election Commission he decides on the question of disqualification of members of the State Legislature.
8. Every bill passed by the State legislature will become law only after his signature.
9. He has the option to give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for the reconsideration of the Legislature.
10. If any bill endangers the position of the State High Court he can reserve the bill passed by the Legislature for the consideration of the President.
11. Under Article 213 the Governor has the power to promulgate ordinances when the legislature is not in session.
12. These ordinances should be approved by the legislature within six months. He can also withdrew an ordinance at any time.
13. He has to lay before the State Legislature the Annual Reports of State Finance Commission, the State Public Service Commission and the Comptroller and Auditor General relating to the accounts.

Financial power:

1. Money bills can be introduced in the state Legislature only with his prior recommendation.
2. He causes the Annual Budget of the state to be presented in the Legislative Assembly.
3. If there is a need he presents through the Minister of Finance the state supplementary Budget.
4. No demand for any grant can be made except on his recommendation.
5. He can make advances out of the state contingency fund to meet any unforeseen expenditure.
6. He constitutes a Finance Commission after every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and the municipalities.

Judicial powers:

1. He appoints the Attorney General of the State.
2. The Chief Justice of the High Court in the state is appointed by the President in consultation with him.
3. He makes appointment, postings and promotions of the District Judges in consultation with the State High Court.
4. He appoints judges to the subordinate courts in the state.
5. He can pardon, commute or reprieve punishment on receipt of appeals of mercy.

Discretionary power: (special power)

1. He seeks information from the Chief Minister relating to the administrative and legislative matters of the state.
2. The Governor can reserve a bill for the consideration of the President.
3. He can call the leader of any party to form ministry in the state when no party get majority in the general elections.
4. If the Council of Ministers has lost its majority he can dissolve the Assembly.

Emergency Powers: If the Governor feels that the Government of the state is not carried on in accordance with the provisions of the constitution under Article 356 recommend to the President to impose President rule. At that time the (imposition of President Rule) administration of the state is carried on by the Governor as the representative of the President.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss the Functions of the State Legislature.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the State Legislature are almost the same as that of the Parliament.
(i) The State Legislature can pass laws on all subjects mentioned in the State List as per the constitutions. It can also pass laws on concurrent subjects.

(ii) The Legislature controls the finances of the State. The Lower House enjoys greater power than the Upper House in money matters. Money Bills can be introduced only in the Lower House of the Assembly.

(iii) The Legislature controls the Executive. The council of Ministers is responsible to the Assembly. The ministers have to answer questions asked by the members of the Legislature.

(iv) The Council cannot vote for grants.

(v) No new tax can be levied without the sanction and permission of the Assembly.

Question 4.
Critically examine the functions and powers of the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
Article 163 of our constitution provides for Council of Ministers to aid and advice the Governor. Article 163 (1) states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advice the Governor in the exercise of his function.

1. All the Ministers work as a team under the Chief Minister.
2. The Council of Ministers (cabinet) are responsible to formulate and decide the policies of the State and implements them effectively,
3. They are the instrumental in framing the policies of the State.
4. It decides the Legislative programmes of the Assembly and sponsors all important bills.
5. It decides all the bills or money bills to be introduced in the Legislative Assembly.
6. It chalks out programmes and schemes for the socio-economic changes so that the state makes head way in various inter related field.
7. It controls the financial policy and decides the structure.
8. It frames the proposal for incurring expenditure out of state reserves each Ministry is responsible in this matter.
9. Each Ministry of the Council of Ministers supervises, controls and co-ordinates the department concerned.
10. Annual Financial Statement called the Budget is finalised by the Council of Ministers.

The smooth functioning of the state lie in the hands of the Council of Ministers.

Question 5.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court.
Answer:
The powers and functions of the High Court:

1. The High Court enjoys original jurisdiction in matters of admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of court.
2. It hears appeals in both civil and criminal cases against the decisions of the subordinate courts and can review their judgments.
3. It can issue writs such as habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari not only for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights but also for other purposes.
4. It has the power of supervision over all courts and tribunals functioning in its territorial jurisdiction (except military courts or tribunals).
5. It controls and supervises the working of the lower courts and maintains records of its proceedings and decisions.

State Government Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The administration of a State is carried on in the name of the ……………
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) President
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer:
(b) Governor

Question 2.
In part ……………… of our constitution lays down a uniform structure for the State Government.
(a) VI
(b) IV
(c) IV (A)
(d) VII
Answer:
(a) VI

Question 3.
Who determines the number of judges of the High Court?
(a) The President
(b) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(c) Governor
(d) The Attorney General of India
Answer:
(a) The President

Question 4.
The ……………… commission was set up to suggest and review the centre state relations.
(a) Mandal (commission)
(b) Public service (commission)
(c) Sarkaria (commission)
(d) Election (commission)
Answer:
(c) Sarkaria (commission)

Question 5.
The Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu consists of ……………..
(a) 235 members
(b) 240 members
(c) 245 members
(d) 250 members
Answer:
(a) 235 members

Question 6.
The ……………… is the rapport between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Deputy Speaker
(d) Attorney General
Answer:
(a) Chief Minister

Question 7.
The ………….. is the real executive head of the State administration.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Minister
(c) IAS Officer
Answer:
(a) Chief Minister

Question 8.
If Chief Minister resigns it implies that the ……………… also has to resign.
(a) Governor
(b) Commission
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Advocate General
Answer:
(c) Council of Ministers

Question 9.
The ……………….. is the presiding officer of the Upper House.
(a) Speaker
(b) Chairman
(c) Chief Minister
Answer:
(b) Chairman

Question 10.
Every bill passes through ……………… readings before it becomes an Act.
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 3

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Tamil Nadu Legislative Council was abolished by Tamil Nadu Legislative Council (Abolition) Bill in …………..
2. Every Member of Legislative Council serves for ……………… term.
3. The …………….. Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of the High Court.
4. The writ of …………… is issued against a person who claims or usurps a public offence.
5. The Governor can reserve a bill for the consideration of the …………………
6. The …………….. is the Constitutional head of the State.
7. The Legislative Assembly elects two of its members as the ……………. and ……………..
8. The …………… is the highest judicial authority in a State.
9. The President of India appoints the ……………… of a High Court in consultation with the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and the Governor of that particular State.
10. The High Court has administrative control over the …………..
Answers:
1. 1986
2. Six years
3. 42^nd
4. Quo Warranto
5. President
6. Governor
7. Speaker and Deputy Speaker
8. High Court
9. Chief Justice
10. Subordinate Courts

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)
6. (j)
7. (h)
8. (f)
9. (g)
10. (i)

IV. Choose the Correct Statement.

Question 1.
(i) The institution of High Court originated in India in 1900.
(ii) The High Court of Guwahati is common for seven northeastern states
(iii) The High Courts are the highest courts at the State level.
(iv) Delhi, though not a State, has its own separate High Court.
(a) i, ii and in are correct
(b) ii, iii and iv are correct
(c) ii, iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iv are correct
Answer:
(c) ii, iii and iv are correct

Question 2.
(i) The Speaker vacates his office, if he cannot continue to be a member of the Assembly.
(ii) The Speaker cannot be removed from his office in any circumstances.
(iii) The Speaker does not vacate his office, when the Assembly is dissolved.
(iv) In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker performs his functions.
(a) i, ii and iii are correct
(b) i, ii and iv are correct
(c) ii, and iii are correct
(d) i, iii and iv are correct
Answer:
(d) i, iii and iv are correct

V. Answer in Brief

Question 1.
Write a brief note on the governance of the state as per the Indian constitution.
Answer:

1. The constitution of India contains provisions for the governance of both the Union and the States.
2. In part IV of the constitution from Article 152 to 237 is applicable to all . the states except Jammu and Kashmir.
3. The structure of the State Government consists of three branches to govern.
4. The Executive, the Legislature and the Judiciary.

Question 2.
What is Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
Habeas Corpus is a writ issued to a detaining authority, ordering the detainer to produce the detained person in the issuing court, along with the cause of his/her detention. If the detention is found to be illegal, the court issues an order to set the person free.

Question 3.
Name some states that have Bi-Cameral state legislature? What type of legislature Tamil Nadu has?
Answer:
Bihar, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Telengana and Jammu and Kashmir are some states having Bi-Cameral legislature. Legislative Assembly and Legislative Council. In Tamil Nadu the State legislature has only one house i.e. Legislative Assembly. It has Uni Cameral Legislature.

Question 4.
What do you know about the composition of the Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Legislative Assembly of Tamil Nadu consists of 235 members out of which 234 members are directly elected by the people from the constituencies on the basis of adult franchise and one member is nominated by the Governor from the Anglo-Indian community. However, seats shall be reserved in the House for the SCs and STs.

Question 5.
When was the legislative council abolished in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
The Tamil Nadu legislative council was abolished by Tamil Nadu legislative council (Abolition) Bill 1986. The Act came into force on 1st November 1986.

Question 6.
Mention one function of the judiciary.
Answer:
The judiciary settles disputes.

Question 7.
Name the states that have common High Court.
Answer:

1. The states of Punjab and Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court situated at Chandigarh.
2. The High Court of Guwahati is common for seven North Eastern states of Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
The seven north-east states have a common High Court. Where is this located?
Answer:
It is located at Guwahati.

Question 9.
Write a note on Court of Record.
Answer:
All the decisions and decrees issued by the High Court are printed and are kept as a record for future references by the court as well as by the lawyers. Thus it also acts as a Court of Record.

Question 10.
What is a judicial system?
Answer:
A judicial system is a mechanism of Court that a citizen can approach when a law is violated.

Question 11.
Name the branches of legal systems?
Answer:
(i) Civil and (ii) Criminal

Question 12.
Differentiate between the Supreme Court and the High Court.
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India is the apex Court in India. It hears both civil and criminal cases as well as those associated with the interpretation of the Constitution. At the state level, the High Court is the highest Court of appeal. Generally each state has a High Court, but two or more States may have a common High Court.

VI. Answer in Detail.

Question 1.
Mention the powers and functions of the Chief Minister relating to the Council’of Ministers.
Answer:
As the head of the Council of Ministers, th,e Chief Minister performs the following functions:

• The Chief Minister recommends the persons who can be appointed as Ministers by the Governor.
• He allocates the portfolio among the Ministers.
• He shuffles and reshuffles his ministry.
• He can ask a minister to resign or to advise the Governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.
• He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers and influences its decisions
• He can bring about the collapse of the Council of Ministers by resigning from office
• He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of all the Ministers.

Question 2.
Write a note on the appointment of the Chief Minister?
Answer:

1. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of the state.
2. The leader of the majority party or majority group in the State Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister.
3. In case no party commands absolute majority in the Legislative Assembly or the majority fails to elect its leader the Governor can use his discretionary power and invite the leader of the other largest party to form the ministry.
4. He has to prove the confidence (majority support) in the Legislative Assembly within the period stipulated by the Governor.
5. The term of the Chief Minister in general is five years .But it is not fixed.
6. He may remain as the Chief Minister as long as he enjoys the support of the Legislative Assembly.
7. When he losses the confidence of the majority in the Assembly he has to resign.

Question 3.
Write about the Judicial Review.
Answer:
Judicial review is the power of a High Court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State Governments. Though the phrase judicial review has no where been used in the Constitution, the provisions of Articles 226 and 227’ explicitly confer the power of judicial review on a High Court.

The 42^nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of High Court. It debarred the High Courts’ from considering the Constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 3 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 3 State Government Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Intext Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Number System Intext Questions

(Try These Textbook Page No. 1)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Answers Question 1.
Write the following integers in ascending order: -5,0,2,4, -6,10, -10
Solution:
Plotting the points on the number line, we get

The numbers are placed in an increasing order from left to right.
∴ Ascending order: -10 < -6 < -5 < 0 < 2 < 4 < 10

7th Maths Number System Question 2.
If the integers -15, 12, -17, 5, -1, -5, 6 are marked on the number line then the integer on the extreme left is _____ .
Solution:
The least number will be on the extreme left.
∴ -17 will be on the extreme left.

Number System 7th Standard Question 3.
Complete the following pattern:
50, ___ 30, 20, _, 0, -10, _, _, -40, _, ___.
Solution:
The difference between the consecutive number is 10.
50, 40, 30,20, 10, 0, -10, -20, -30, -40, -50, -60

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Books Answers Question 4.
Compare the given numbers and write “<”, “>” or in the boxes.

Solution:
(a)  A positive number is greater than a negative number.
(b) 1000,0 is less than all positive integers.
(c)

7th Maths Exercise 1.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Write the given integers in descending order, -27, 19, 0, 12, -4, -22, 47, 3, -9, -35.
Solution:
Separating positive and the negative integers, we get -27, -4, -22, -9, -35
Arranging the numbers in descending order -4 > -9 > -22 > -27 > -35
The positive numbers are 19,12,47, 3
Arranging in descending order, we get 47 > 19 > 12 > 3
0 stands in the middle.
∴ Descending order: 47 > 19 > 12 > 3 > 0 > -4 > -9 > -22 > -27 > -35

(Try This Text Book Page No. 3)

7th Maths Guide Try These Question 1.
Find the value of the following using the number line activity.
(i) (-4) + (+3)
(ii) (-4) + (-3)
(iii) (+4) + (-3)
Solution:
(i) (-4) + (+3)
To find the sum of (-4) and (+3), we start at zero facing positive direction continuing in the same direction and move 4 units backward to represent (-4).
Since the operation is addition we maintain the same direction and move three units forward to represent (+3)
We land at -1
So (-4) + (+3) = -1

(ii) (-4) + (-3)
From zero move 4 steps backward to represent (-4)
From the same direction again move 3 units backward to represent (-3)
We land at -7 So (-4) + (-3) = -7

(iii) (+4) + (-3)
We start at zero facing positive direction and move 4 steps forward to represent (+4) Since the operation is addition we maintain the same direction and move three units backward to represent (-3).
We land at +1.
So (+4) + (-3) = +1

(Properties of Addition Textbook Page No. 6)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Question 1.
Complete the given table and check whether the sum of two integers is an integer or not?
(i) 7 + (-5) = (+2)
(ii) (-6)+ (-13) = (-19)
(iii) 25 + 9 = 34
(iv) (-12) + 4 = -8
(v) 41 + 32 = 73
(vi) (-19) + (-15) = (-34)
(vii) 52 + (-15) = (+37)
(viii)(-7) + 0 = (-7)
(ix) 0 + 12 = 12
(x) 14 + 0 = 14
(xi) (-6) +(-6) = (-12)
(xii) (-27) + 0 = -27
Solution:
The sum of two integers is an integer.

(Try These Textbook Page No. 7)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Maths Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) 20 + (-11) = -(11)+ 20 [∵ Addition is commutative]
(ii) (-5) + (-8) = (-8) + (-5) [∵ Addition is commutative]
(iii) (-3) +12 =12 + (-3) [∵ Addition is commutative]

7th Standard Number System Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) (-11) + (-8) = (-8) + (-11)
(ii) -7 + 2 = 2 + (-7)
(iii) (-33) + 8 = 8 + (-33)
Solution:
(i) True, because addition is commutative for intergers
(ii) True, by commutative property on intergers
(iii) True, by commutative property on intergers

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Question 3.
Verify the following.
(i) [(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-2) + [(-9) + 6]
(ii) [7 + (-8)] + (-5) = 7 + [(-8) + (-5)]
(iii) [(-11) + 5]+ (-14) = (-11) + [5 + (-14)]
(iv) (-5) + [(-32) +(-2)] = [(-5) + (-32) + (-2)]
Solution:
(i) [(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-2) + [(-9) + 6]
[(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-11) + 6 = -5
Also (-2) + [(-9) + 6] = (-2) + (-3) = -5
Both the cases the sum is -5.
∴ – [(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-2) + [(-9) + 6]

(ii) [7 + (-8)] +(-5) = 7 + [(-8) + (-5)]
Here [7 + (-8)] + (-5) = (-1) + (-5) = -6
Also 7 + [(-8) + (-5)] = 7 + (-13) = 7 – 13 = -6
In both the cases the sum is -6.
∴ [7 + (-8)] + (-5) = 7 + [(-8) + (-5)]

(iii) [(-11) + 5] + (-14) = (-11) + [5 + (-14)]
Here [(-11) + 5] + (-14) = (-6) + (-14) = (-20)
(-11) + [5 + (-14)] = (-11) +(-9) = (-20)
In both the cases the sum is -20.
∴ [(-11) + 5] + (-14) = (-11) + [5 + (-14)]

(iv) (-5) + [(-32) + (-2)] = [(-5) + (-32)] + (-2)
(-5) + [(-32) + (-2)] = (-5) + (-34) = -39
Also [(-5) + (-32)] + (-2) = (-37) + (-2) = -39
In both the cases the sum is -39.
∴ (-5)+ [(-32) +(-2)] = [(-5)+ (-32)] +(-2)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Answers Pdf Question 4.
Find the missing integers:
(i) 0 + (-95) = -95
(ii) -611 + 0 = -611
(iii) ____ + 0 = _____ Any integer; the same integer
(iv) 0 + (-140) = -140

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Question 5.
Complete the following:
(i) -603 + 603 = 0
(ii) 9847+ (-9847) = 0
(iii) 1652 + (-1652) = 0
(iv) -777 + 777 = 0
(v) –5281 +5281 = 0

Exercise 1.2

Subtraction of Integers

(Try These Text book Page No. 11)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Answers Question 1.
Do the following by using number line.
(i) (-4) – (+3)
Solution:
We start at zero facing positive direction move 4 units backward to represent (-4). Then turn towards negative side and move 3 units forward.

We reach -7.
∴ (-4) – (+3) = -7.

(ii) (-4) – (-3)
Solution:
We start at zero facing positive direction. Move 4 units backward to represent -4. Then turn towards the negative side and move 3 units backwards.

We reach at-1.
∴ (-4) – (-3) = -1.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Standard Maths Question 2.
Find the values and compare the answers.
(i) (-6) – (-2) and (-6) + 2
Solution:
(-6) – (-2) = -6 + (Additive inverse of-2)
= -6 + (+2) = -4
Also (-6)+ 2 = -4
∴ (-6) – (-2) = (-6) + 2

(ii) 35 – (-7) and 35 + 7.
Solution:
35 – (-7) = 35 + (Additive inverse of -7) = 35 + (+7) = 42
Also 35 + 7 = 42 ; 35 – (-7) =35 + 7

(iii) 26 – (+10) and 26 + (-10)
Solution:
26 – (+10) = 26 + (Additive inverse of +10) = 26 + (-10) = 16
Also 26 + (-10) = 16; 26 – (+10) = 26 + (-10)

Number System 7th Class Question 3.
Put the suitable symbol <, > or = in the boxes.

Solution:
(i) -10 – 8 = -18 & -10 + 8 = – 2
(ii) (-20) + 10 = -10 & (-20) – (-10) = -10
(iii) -70 – 50 = (-70) + (-50) = -20
(iv) 100 – (+100) = 0 & 100 – (-100) = 100 + (+100) = 200
(v) -50 – 30 = -50 + (-30) = -80 Also -100 + 20 = – 80

(Try These Text book Page No. 14)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Maths Solutions Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) (-7) – (-15) = +8
-7 – (-15) = -7 + (Additive inverse of-15)
= -7 + 15 = +8
(ii) 12 – (-7) = 19          12 – (-7) = 19
(iii) -4 – (-5) = 1

Question 2.
Find the values and compare the answers.
(i) 15 – 12 and 12 – 15
(ii) -21 – 32 and -32 – (-21)
Solution:
(i) 15 – 12 = 3 & 12-15 = 12 +(-15) = -3

(ii) -21 – 32 = (-21) + (-32) = -53
Also -32 – (-21) = (-32) + (+21) = -11 ; -53 < -11

Question 3.
Is associative property true for subtraction of integers. Take any three examples and check.
Solution:
Consider the numbers 1,2 and 3. Now (1 – 2) – 3 = -1 – 3 = -4
Also 1 – (2 – 3) = 1 – (-1) = 1 + 1 = 2
∴ (1 – 2) – ≠ 1 – (2 – 3)
∴ Associative property is not true for subtraction of integers.

Exercise 1.3

Multiplication of Integers

(Try These Textbook Page No. 16)

Question 1.
Find the product of the following
(i) (-20) × (-45) = +900 [As we know the product of two negative integers is positive, the answer is +900.]
(ii) (-9) × (-8) = 72 [ ∵ Product of two negative integers is positive]
(iii) (-30) × 40 × (-1) = (+1200) [Product of two integers with opposite sings is negative integer.
(-30) × 40 × (-1) = (-1200) × (-1) = +1200)]
(iv) (-50) × 2 × (-10) = -1000 [Product of two integers with opposite signs is negative.
(+50) × 2 × (-10) = 100 × (-10) = -1000)]

Question 2.
Complete the following table by multiplying the integers in the corresponding row and column headers.

Solution:
We know that
(i) product of two positive integers is positive
(ii) product of two negative integers is
(ii) product of two negative integers is positive
(iii) product of integers with opposite sign is negative.
∴ The table will be as follows:

Question 3.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(i) (-55) × (-22) × (-33) < 0
(ii) (-1521) × 2511 < 0
(iii) 2512 – 1525 < 0
(iv) (1981) × (+2000) < 0
Solution:
(iii) and (iv) are incorrect because 2512 – 1252 is a positive integer.
Also (+1981) × (+2000) is a positive integer.

(Try These Textbook Page No. 18)

Question 1.
Find the product and check for equality
(i) 18 × (-5) and (-5) × 18
Solution:
Here 18 × (-5) = -90 Also (-5) × 18 = -90
∴ 18 × (-5)= (-5) × 18

(ii) 31 × (-6) and (-6) × 31
Solution:
Here 31 × (-6) = -186 Also (-6) × 31 =-186
∴ 31 × (-6)= (-6) × 31

(iii) 4 × 51 and 51 × 4
Solution:
Here 4 × 51 = 204 Also 51 × 4 = 204
∴ 4 × 51 = 51 × 4

Question 2.
Prove the following.
(i) (-20) × (13 × 4) = [(-20) × 13] × 4
Solution:
LHS = (-20) × (13 × 4) = (-20) × 52 = -1040
RHS = [(-20) × 13] × 4 = (-260) × 4 = -1040
LHS = RHS
∴ (-20) × (13 × 4) = [(-20) × 13] × 4

(ii) [(-50) × (-2)] × (-3) = (-50) × [(-2) × (-3)]
Solution:
LHS = [(-50) × (-2)] × (-3) = 100 × (-3) = -300
RHS = (-50) × [(-2) × (-3)] = (-50) × 6 =-300
LHS = RHS
∴ [(-50) × (-2)] × (-3) = (-50) × [-2) × (-3)]

(iii) [(-4) × (-3)] × (-5) = (-4) × [(-3) × (-5)]
Solution:
LHS = [(-4) × (-3)] × (-5) = 12 × (-5) = -60
RHS = (-4) × [(-3) × (-5)] = (-4) × 15 = -60
LHS = RHS
∴ [(-4) × (-3)] × (-5) = (-4) × [(-3) × (-5)]

(Try These Textbook Page No. 19)

Question 1.
Find the values of the following and check for equality:
(i) (-6) × (4 + (-5)) and ((-6) × 4) + ((-6) × (-5))
Solution:
(-6) × (4 + (-5)) = (-6) × (-1) = 6 .
((-6) × 4) + ((-6) × (-5)) = (-24)+ 30 = 6
Hence (-6) × (4 + (-5)) = ((-6) × 4) + ((-6) × (-5))

(ii) (-3) × [2 + (-8)] and [(-3) × 2] + [(-3) × 8]
Solution:
(-3) × [2 + (-8)] = (-3) × (-6) = 18
Also [(-3) × 2] + [(-3) × 8] = (-6)+ (-24) = -30
(-3) × [2 + (-8)] ≠ [(-3) × 2] + [(-3) × 8]

Question 2.
Prove the following.
(i) [(-5) × (-76)] + [(-5) × 8]
Solution:
LHS = (-5) × [(-76) + 8] = (-5) × (-68)
= +340
RHS = [(-5) × (-76)] + [(-5) × 8]
= +380 + (-40) = +380 – 40
= +340
LHS = RHS
∴ (-5) × [(-76) + 8] = [(-5) × (-76)] + [(-5) × 8]

(ii) (42 × 7) + [42 × (-3)]
Solution:
LHS = 42 × [7 + (-3)]
= 168
RHS = (42 × 7) + [42 × (-3)] = 294 – 126
= 168
LHS = RHS
∴ 42 × [7 + (-3)] = (42 × 7) + [42 × (-3)]

(iii) [(-3) × (-4)] + [(-3) × (-5)]
Solution:
LHS = (-3) × [(-4) + (-5)] = (-3) × (-9)
= +27
RHS = [(-3) × (-4)] + [(-3) × (-5)] = 12 + 15 = 27
LHS = RHS
∴ (-3) × [(-4) + (-5)] = [(-3) × (-4)] + [(-3) × (-5)]

(iv) 103 × 25 = (100 + 3) × 25 = (100 × 25) + (3 × 25)
Solution:
First consider 103 × 25 = 2575
Now (100 + 3) × 25 = 103 × 25 = 2575
Also (100 × 25) + (3 × 25) = 2500 + 75
= 2575
∴ All the three are same. 103 × 25 = (100 + 3) × 25 = (100 × 25) +(3 × 25)

Exercise 1.4

Division of Integers

(Try These Text book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
(i) (-32) ÷ 4 = _____
(ii) (-50) ÷ 50 = ____
(iii) 30 ÷ 15 = ______
(iv) -200 ÷ 10 = _____
(v) -48 ÷ 6 = ______
Solution:
(i) -8
(ii) -1
(iii) 2
(iv) -20
(v) -8

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.5

12th Maths Exercise 5.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
A bridge has a parabolic arch that is 10m high in the centre and 30m wide at the bottom. Find the height of the arch 6m from the centre, on either sides.
Solution:
From the diagram, equation of the parabolic arch

∴ The required height =10 – y₁ = 10 – 1.6 = 8.4m.

12th Maths Exercise 5.5 Question 2.
A tunnel through a mountain for a four lane highway is to have a elliptical opening. The total width of the highway (not the opening) is to be 16m, and the height at the edge of the road must be sufficient for a truck 4m high to clear if the highest point of the opening is to be 5m approximately. How wide must the opening be?
Solution:
From the diagram,
AA’ = 16 m, OA = 8m, OB = 5m
∴ Equation of the ellipse is

∴ The required wide for the opening is 2y₁ = 2(4.8) = 9.6 m

12th Maths Exercise 5.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
At a water fountain, water attains a maximum height of 4m at horizontal distance of 0.5m from its origin. If the path of water is a parabola, find the height of water at a horizontal distance of 0.75m from the point of origin.
Solution:
From the diagram
Equation of the path of water

The refined height = 4 – y₁ = 4 – 1 = 3 m

10th Maths Exercise 5.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
An engineer designs a satellite dish with a parabolic cross section. The dish is 5m wide at the opening, and the focus is placed 1.2m from the vertex
(a) Position a coordinate system with the origin at the vertex and the x-axis on the parabola’s axis of symmetry and find an equation of the parabola.
(b) Find the depth of the satellite dish at the vertex.
Solution:
From the diagram,

(a) Consider the satellite dish is open rightward parabola
y² = 4 ax ……….. (1)
Clearly a = 1.2m
(1) ⇒ y² = 4(1.2)
y² = 4.8x
(b) Use the point (x₁, 2.5) in (1)
(2.5)² = 4(1.2)x₁
\(\frac{(2.5)^{2}}{4(1.2)}\) = y₁
x₁ = 1.3 m
∴ The depth of the satellite dish at vertex is 1.3 m

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Pdf Question 5.
Parabolic cable of a 60m portion of the roadbed of a suspension bridge are positioned as shown below. Vertical Cables are to be spaced every 6m along this portion of the roadbed. Calculate the lengths of first two of these vertical cables from the vertex.
Solution:
From the diagram,

Equation of the suspension bridge
(x – h)² = 4a(y – k)
But V (0, 3)
x² = 4a (y – 3)
Use the point (30, 16) in (1)
30² = 4a (16 – 3) ⇒ 900 = 13 × 4a
\(\frac{900}{13 \times 4}\) = a

(i) The length of the first vertical cable from the vertex is
Use (6, y₁) in (2)
(2) ⇒ (6)² = \(\frac{900}{13}\) (y₁ – 3)
\(\frac{36 \times 13}{900}\) = y₁ – 3
0.52 = y₁ – 3
y₁ = 3.52 m
(ii) The length of the second vertical cable from the vertex is
Use the point (12, y₂) in (2)
(2) ⇒ (12)² = \(\frac{900}{13}\) (y₂ – 3)
\(\frac{144 \times 13}{900}\) = y₂ – 3
0.52 = y₂ – 3
y₂ = 3.52 m

12th Samacheer Maths Solutions Question 6.
Cross section of a Nuclear cooling tower is in the shape of a hyperbola with equation \(\frac{x^{2}}{30^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{44^{2}}\) = 1. The tower is 150m tall and the distance from the top of the tower to the centre of the hyperbola is half the distance from the base of the tower to the centre of the hyperbola. Find the diameter of the top and base of the tower.
Solution:
From the diagram,equation of hyperbola is

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Question 7.
A rod of length 1.2m moves with its ends always touching the coordinate axes. The locus of a point P on the rod, which is 0.3m from the end in contact with x-axis is an ellipse. Find the eccentricity.
Solution:
From the diagram,
(i) ∆^le OAB be a right angle triangle.
(ii) ∠APD and ∠PBC are corresponding angles, so corresponding angles are equal.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 12th Maths Question 8.
Assume that water issuing from the end of a horizontal pipe, 7.5m above the ground, describes a parabolic path. The vertex of the parabolic path is at the end of the pipe. At a position 2.5m below the line of the pipe, the flow of water has curved outward 3m beyond the vertical line through the end of the pipe. How far beyond this vertical line will the water strike the ground?
Solution:
From the diagram,

Equation of the water path is
x² = – 4 ay
Use the point (3, – 2.5) in (1)
(3)² = – 4a(- 2.5)
9 = 10a
a = \(\frac{9}{10}\) substituting in (1)
(1) ⇒ x² = -4\(\frac{9}{10}\)y …………. (2)
Use the point (x₁, -7.5) in (2)
(2) ⇒ x₁² = -4 \(\frac{9}{10}\)(-7.5) ⇒ x₁² = 30(\(\frac{9}{10}\))
x₁ = \(\sqrt{3 \times 9}\)
x₁ = \(3 \sqrt{3}\) m
∴ The water strikes the ground \(3 \sqrt{3}\) m beyond the vertical line.

12th Samacheer Maths Solution Question 9.
On lighting a rocket cracker it gets projected in a parabolic path and reaches a maximum height of 4m when it is 6m away from the point of projection. Finally it reaches the ground 12m away from the starting point. Find the angle of projection?
Solution:
From the diagram,

Equation of the parabolic path is
x² = -4ay
Use the point (6, -4) in (1)
(1) ⇒ (6)² = 16a
\(\frac{36}{16}\) = 10a
substitute a = \(\frac{9}{14}\) in (1)
(1) ⇒ x² = -4\(\left(\frac{9}{4}\right)\)y
x² = -9y ……….. (2)
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’

12th Maths 5th Chapter In Tamil Question 10.
Points A and B are 10km apart and it is determined from the sound of an explosion heard at those points at different times that the location of the explosion is 6km closer to A than B. Show that the location of the explosion is restricted to a particular curve and find an equation of it.
Solution:
From the diagram,

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.5 Additional Problems

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry 2 Question 1.
If a parabolic reflector is 20cm in diameter and 5cm deep, find the distance of the focus from the centre of the reflector.
Solution:

By the property of the parabolic reflector, the position of the bulb should be placed at the focus.
By taking the vertex at the origin the equation of the reflector is y² = 4ax.
Let PQ be the diameter of the reflector P = (5, 10)
Since P (5, 10) lies on the parabola,
10² = 4a × 5
ie., 100 = 20a ⇒ a = 5
So the focus is at a distance of 5cm from the vertex and focus is (5, 0).

Exercise 5.5 Class 12 Question 2.
The focus of a parabolic mirror is at a distance of 8cm from its centre (vertex). If the mirror 25cm deep, find the diameter of the mirror.
Solution:

Let the vertex be at the origin.
VF = a = 8cm
The equation of the parabola is
Y² = 4ax = 4(8)x = 32x
Depth of the mirror = x₁ = 25cm.
So, radius is 0.
⇒ y² = 32(25) = 800
y = \(\sqrt{800}=10 \sqrt{8}=10 \times 2 \sqrt{2}=20 \sqrt{2}\) = Radius of the mirror
∴ Diameter of the mirror = 2 × 20\(\sqrt{2}\) = 40 \(\sqrt{2}\) cm of the mirror.

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Question 3.
A cable of a suspension bridge is in the form of a parabola whose span is 40 mts. The roadway is 5 mts below the lowest point of the cable. If an extra support is provided across the cable 30 mts above the ground level, find the length of the support if the height of the pillars are 55 mts.
Solution:

The lowest point on the cable is taken as the vertex and it is taken as the origin.
Let AB, CD be the pillars.
Span of parabola = 40 mts = distance between AB and CD
C’V = VA’ = 20 mts
Height of each pillar = 55 mts ⇒ AB = 55 mts
So, A’B = 55 – 5 = 50 mts
Thus, the point B is (20, 50).
Equation of the parabola is x² = 4ay
Here, B is a point on the parabola, x² = 4ay
(20)² = 4a (50) ⇒ 4a = \(\frac{20 \times 20}{50}\) = 8
∴ The equation is x² = 8y
Let PQ be the length of the extra support RQ.
RQ = 30, RR’ = 5 ⇒ R’Q = 25
Let VR’ be x₁ ∴ Q is (x₁, 25).
Q is a point on parabola
x₁² = 8 x 25 = 200
x₁ = \(\sqrt{200}=10 \sqrt{2}\)
The entire length, PQ = 2 x₁ = 20\(\sqrt{2}\).mts.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Maths Question 4.
A kho-kho player in a practice session while running realises that the sum of the distances from the kho-kho poles from him is always 8m. Find the equation of the path traced by him if the distance between the poles is 6m.
Solution:

Give FP + F’P = 4
ie., 2a = 8 and
FF’ = 2ae = 6
ie., a = 4 and ae = 3
e = \(\frac{a e}{a}=\frac{3}{4}\)
b² = a²(1 – e²) = 16(1 – \(\frac{9}{16}\)) = 7
So the equation of the path is an ellipse whose equation is \(\frac{x^{2}}{16}+\frac{y^{2}}{7}\) = 1.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.1

12th Maths Exercise 5.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Obtain the equation of the circles with radius 5 cm and touching x-axis at the origin in general form.

Solution:
Given radius = 5 cm and the circle is touching x axis
So centre will be (0, ± 5) and radius = 5
The equation of the circle with centre (0, ± 5) and radius 5 units is
(x – 0)² + (y ± 5)² = 5²
(i.e) x² + y² ± 10 y + 25 – 25 = 0
(i.e) x² + y² ± 10y = 0

12th Maths Exercise 5.1 Question 2.
Find the equation of the circle with centre (2, -1) and passing through the point (3, 6) in standard form.
Solution:
Centre = C = (2, -1); Passing through = A = (3, 6)
So radius = CA = \(\sqrt{(2-3)^{2}+(-1-6)^{2}}=\sqrt{1+49}=5 \sqrt{50}\)
Now centre = (2, -1) and radius = \(\sqrt{50}\)
So equation of the circle is
(i.e) (x – 2)² + (y + 1)² = \(\sqrt{50}^{2}\) ⇒ (x – 2)² + (y + 1)² = 50

12th Maths Exercise 5.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Find the equation of circles that touch both the axes and pass through (-4, – 2) in general form.
Solution:
Since the circle touches both the axes, its centre will be (r, r) and radius wil be r.
Here centre = C = (r, r) and point on the circle is A = (-4, -2)
CA = r ⇒ CA² = r²
(i.e) (r + 4)² + (r + 2)² = r²
⇒ r² + 8r +16 + r² + 4r + 4 – r² = 0
(i.e) r² + 12r + 20 = 0
(r + 2) (r + 10) = 0
⇒ r = -2 or -10
When r = -2, the equation of the circle will be (x + 2)² + (y + 2)² = 2²
(i.e) x² + y² + 4x + 4y + 4 = 0
When r = -10, the equation of the circle will be (x + 10)² + (y + 10)² = 10²
(i.e) x² + y² + 20x + 20y + 100 = 0

12th Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1 Question 4.
Find the equation of the circle with centre (2, 3) and passing through the intersection of the lines 3x – 2y -1 = 0 and 4x + y – 27 = 0 .
Solution:
To find the point of intersection of the two lines we have to solve the two equations.
Now solving them: 3x — 2y = 1 ……….. (1)
4x + y = 27 ……….(2)
(2) × 2 ⇒ 8x + 2y = 54 ……….. (3)
(1) ⇒ 3x – 2y = 1 ………. (1)
(3) + (1) ⇒ 11x = 55 ⇒ x = \(\frac{55}{11}\) = 5
Substituting x = 5 in (2) we get
20 + y = 27 ⇒ y = 27 – 20 = 7
∴ The point = A = (5, 7)
Given centre = C = (2, 3)
∴ radius = \(\sqrt{(5-2)^{2}+(7-3)^{2}}=\sqrt{9+16}=5\) = 5
Now centre = (2, 3) and radius = 5
So equation of the circle is
(x – 2)² + (y – 3)² = 5²
(i.e) x² + y² – 4x – 6y – 12 =0

Class 12 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1 Question 5.
Obtain the equation of the circle for which (3, 4) and (2, -7) are the ends of a diameter.
Solution:
The equation of a circle with (x₁ , y₁) and (x₂ , y₂ ) as end points of a diameter is
(x – x₁ )(x – x₂) + (y – y₁ )(y – y₂) = 0
Here the end points of a diameter are (3, 4) and (2, -7)
So equation of the circle is (x – 3 )(x – 2 ) + (y – 4) (y + 7.) = 0
x² + y² – 5x + 37 – 22 = 0

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry 2 Question 6.
Find the equation of the circle through the points (1, 0), (-1, 0), and (0, 1).
Solution:
Let the required circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …………. (A)
The circle passes through (1, 0), (-1, 0) and (0, 1)
(1, 0) ⇒ 1 + 0 + 2g(1) + 2f(0) + c = 0
2g + c = -1 ……………. (1)
(-1, 0) ⇒ 1 + 0 + 2g (-1) + 2f(0) + c = 0
-2g + c = -1 ……….. (2)
(0, 1) ⇒ 0 + 1 + 2g (0) + 2f(1) + c = 0
2f+ c = -1 ……….. (3)
Now solving (1), (2) and (3) .
2g + c = -1 ………… (1)
-2g + c = -1 ………….. (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2c = -2 ⇒ c = -1
Substituting c = -1 in (1) we get
2g – 1 = -1
2g = -1 + 1 = 0 ⇒ g = 0
Substituting c = -1 in (3) we get
2f – 1 =-1 ⇒ 2f = -1 + 1 = 0 ⇒ f = 0
So we get g = 0, f= 0 and c = -1
So the required circle will be
x² + y² + 2(0) x + 2(0)y – 1 = 0
(i.e) x² + y² – 1 = 0 ⇒ x² + y² = 1

Exercise 5.1 Class 12 Question 7.
A circle of area 9n square units has two of its diameters along the lines x + y = 5 and x – y = 1. Find the equation of the circle.
Solution:
Area of the circle = 9π
(i.e) πr² = 9π
⇒ r² = 9 ⇒ r = 3
(i.e) radius of the circle = r = 3
The two diameters are x + y = 5 and x – y = 1
The point of intersection of the diameter is the centre of the circle = C
To find C: Solving x + y = 5 ……… (1)
x – y = 1 ………. (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3
Substituting x = 3 in (1) we get
3 + y = 5 ⇒ y = 5 – 3 = 2
∴ Centre = (3, 2) and radius = 3
So equation of the circle is (x – 3)² + (y – 2)² = 3²
(i.e) x² + y² – 6x – 4y + 4 =0

Ex 5.1 Class 12 Question 8.
If y = \(2 \sqrt{2} x\) + c is a tangent to the circle x² + y² =16 , find the value of c .
Solution:
The condition for the line y = mx + c to be a tangent to the circle x² + y² = a² is
c² = a²(1 + m²)
Here x² + y² = 16 ⇒ a² = 16
y = \(2 \sqrt{2} x\) + c ⇒ m = \(2 \sqrt{2}\) and c = c
The condition is c² = a² (1 + m²)
(i.e) c² = 16(1 + 8) = 144
⇒ c = ± 12

Chapter 5 Maths Class 12 Question 9.
Find the equation of the tangent and normal to the circle x² + y² – 6x + 6y – 8 = 0 at (2, 2).
Solution:
The equation of the tangent to the circle x² + y² + 2 gx + 2fy + c = 0 at (x₁, y₁) is
xx₁ + yy₁ + g(x + x₁) + f(y + y₁) + c = 9
So the equation of the tangent to the circle
x² + y² – 6x + 6y – 8 = 0 at (x₁, y₁) is
xx₁ + yy₁ – \(\frac{6\left(x+x_{1}\right)}{2}+\frac{6\left(y+y_{1}\right)}{2}\) – 8 = 0
(i.e) xx₁ + yy₁ – 3(x + x₁) + 3(y + y₁) – 8 = 0
Here (x₁, y₁) = (2, 2)
So equation of the tangent is
x(2) + y(2) – 3(x + 2) + 3(y + 2) – 8 = 0
(.i.e) 2x + 2y – 3x – 6 + 3y + 6 – 8 = 0
(i.e) -x + 5y – 8 = 0 or x – 5y + 8=0
Normal is a line ⊥r to the tangent
So equation of normal circle be of the form 5x + y + k = 0
The normal is drawn at (2, 2)
⇒ 10 + 2 + k = 0 ⇒ k = -12
So equation of normal is 5x + y – 12 = 0

Chapter 5 Class 12 Maths Question 10.
Determine whether the points (-2, 1), (0, 0) and (-4, -3) lie outside, on or inside the circle x² + y² – 5x + 2y – 5 = 0 .
Solution:
To find the position of a point with regard to a given circle, substitute the point in the equation of the circle if we get a positive value, the point lies outside the circle.
If we get a -ve value the point lies inside the circle and if we get O then the point lies on the circumference of the circle.
The given circle is x² + y² – 5x + 2y – 5 = 0 ……….. (1)
Substituting the point (-2, 1) in (1) we get
4 + 1 – 5(-2) + 2(1) – 5 = 5 + 10 + 2 – 5 = 12
⇒ (- 2, 1) lies outside the circle
Substituting the point (0, 0) in (1) we get
-5 < 0 ⇒ (0, 0) lies inside the circle Substituting the point (-4, -3) in (1) we get 16 + 9 + 20 – 6 – 5 = 34 >0
⇒ (- 4, -3) lies outside the circle

12th Maths 5th Chapter Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
Find centre and radius of the following circles.
(i) x² + (y + 2)² = 0
(ii) x² + y² + 6x – 4y + 4 = 0
(iii) x² + y² – x + 2y – 3 = 0
(iv) 2x² + 2y² – 6x + 4y + 2 = 0
Solution:
(i) x² + (y + 2)² = 0
(i.e) x² + y² + 4y + 4 = 0
Comparing this equation with the general form x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
we get 2g = 0 ⇒ g = 0
2f = 4 ⇒ f= 2 and c = 4
Now centre = (-g, -f) = (0, -2)
Radius = r = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{0+4-4}\)
∴ Centre = (0, -2) and radius = 0

(ii) x² + y² + 6x – 4y + 4 = 0
Comparing with the general form we get
2g = 6, 2f = -4
⇒ g = 3, /= -2 and c = 4
Centre = (-g, -f) = (-3, 2)
Radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{9+4-4}\)= 3
∴ Centre = (-3, 2) and radius = 3

(iii) x² + y² – x + 2y – 3 = 0
Comparing with the general form of the circle we get

(iv) 2x² + 2y² – 6x + 4y + 2 = 0
(÷ by 2) ⇒ x² + y² – 3x + 2y + 1 =0
Comparing this equation with the general form of the circle we get
2g = -3, 2f= 2
g = \(-\frac{3}{2}\), g= 1 and c = 1
So centre = (-g, -f) = (\(\frac{3}{2}\), -1)
and radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{\frac{9}{4}+1-1}=\frac{3}{2}\)
∴ Centre = (\(\frac{3}{2}\), -1) and radius = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Pdf Question 12.
If the equation 3x² + (3 -p) xy + qy² – 2px = 8 pq represents a circle, find p and q. Also determine the centre and radius of the circle.
Solution:
For a circle co-eff of x² = co-efif of y²
⇒ 3 = q
co-eff of xy = 0
⇒ 3 – p = 0 ⇒ p = 3
So p = q = 3
So the equation of the circle becomes 3x² + 3y² – 6x – 72 = 0
(÷ by 3) ⇒ x² + y² – 2x – 24 = 0
Comparing this equation with the general form of the circle we get
2g = -2, 2f = 0
g = -1, f = 0 and c = -24
So centre = (-g, -f) = (1, 0) and radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}\) = 5
∴ Centre =(1,0) and radius = 5

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.1 Additional Problems

Ex5 1 Class 12 Question 1.
Find the equation of the circle whose centre is (2, -3) and passing through the intersection of the line 3x – 2y = 1 and 4x + y = 27.
Solution:
Solving 3x – 2y = 1 and 4x+y = 27
Simultaneously, we get x = 5 and y = 7
∴ The point of intersection of the lines is (5, 7)

Now we have to find the equation of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and which passes through (5,7)

∴ Required equation of the circle is
(x – 2)² + (y + 3)² = \((\sqrt{109})^{2}\)
⇒ x² + y² – 4x + 6y – 96 = 0

Class 12 Maths Chapter 5 Question 2.
Find the equation of a circle of radius 5 whose centre lies on x-axis and which passes through the point (2, 3).
Solution:
Let the centre of the circle be (h, k). Since the centre lies on x-axis, we have k = 0
Therefore, centre = (h, 0)
Also the circle has radius 5 units and passes through the point (2, 3).

Hence the centre is (6, 0) or (-2, 0)
∴ The equation of the circle is
(x – 6)² + (y – 0)² = 5² ⇒ x² + y² – 12x+ 11 = 0 (Or) (x + 2)² + (y – 0)² = 5² ⇒ x² + y² + 4x – 21 =0

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Question 3.
Find the centre and radius of the following circles:
x² + y² – 2x + 4y – 4 = 0 and 2x² + 2y² + 16x – 28y + 32 = 0. Also find the ratio of their diameters.
Solution:
Comparing the equation x² + y² – 2x + 4y – 4 = 0 with x² + y² + 2gx + 2 fy + c = 0, we get
2g = -2 ⇒ g = -1, 2f = 4 ⇒ f = 2, c = -4

Comparing with x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
2g = 8 ⇒ g = 4, 2f = -14 ⇒ f = -7, c = 16

Diameter = 2r₂ = 2 × 7 = 14 units
Ratio of their diameters = 6 : 14 = 3 : 7.

Class 12 Maths Ex5.1 Question 4.
Find the equation of the circle whose radius is 4 and which is concentric with the circle x² + y² + 2x – 6y = 0
Solution:
x² + y² + 2x – 6y = 0 …(1)
Here 2g = 2 ⇒ g = 1, 2f = -6 ⇒ f = -3
Centre of the circle = (-g, -f) = (-1, 3)
Since the required circle is concentric with (1), its centre is also (-1, 3).
∴ The equation of the circle whose centre is (-1, 3) and radius 4 is
(x + 1)² + (y – 3)² = 4²
⇒ x² + y² + 2x – 6y – 6 = 0

Exercise 5.1 Class 12 Solutions Question 5.
Show that the four points (1, 0), (2, -7), (8,1) and (9, 6) are concyclic.
Solution:
Let the equation of the circle be Since it passes through (1,0) ⇒ x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …(1)

Exercise 5.1 Class 12 Maths Question 6.
Find the equation of a circle which passes through the points (1, -2) and (4, -3) and whose centre lies on the line 3x + 4y = 0
Solution:
Let the equation of the circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …(1)
Since it passes through (1, -2) and (4, -3)
∴ 5 + 2g – 4f + c = 0 …(2)
and 25 + 8g – 6f + c = 0 …(3)
Also (-g, -f) centre of circle (1) lies on 3x + 4y = 7
-3g – 4f = 7 …(4)
Subtracting (2) from (3), we get
20 + 6g – 2f = 0 …(5)
Solving (4) and (5), we get

Substituting these values of g and f in (2)

∴ From (1), we get,

Which is the required equation on the circle.

Math Solution Class 12 Chapter 5 Question 7.
Find the equation (s) of the circle passing through the points (1, 1) and (2, 2) and whose radius is 1.
Solution:
Let the equation of the circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …. (1)
Since it passes through (1,1)
∴ 1 + 1 + 2g + 2f + c = 0
⇒ 2g + 2f + c + 2 = 0 ….(2)
Again it passes through (2, 2)
∴ 4 + 4+ 4g + 4/+ c = 0
⇒ 4g + 4f + c + 8 = 0 …(3)

Adding (2) and (4)
g² + 2g + f² + 2f + 2 = 1
g² + 2g + (-g – 3)² + 2(-g – 3) + 1 = 0
⇒ 2g² + 6g + 4 = 0 ⇒ g² + 3g + 2 = 0
⇒ (g + 1)(g + 2) = 0 ⇒ g = -1, -2
when g = -1, from (5), f = – (-1) – 3 = 1 – 3 = -2
when g = -2, from (5), f = – (-2) – 3 = 2 – 3 = -1
Substituting g = -1, f = -2 in (2), we get
2(-1) + 2(-2) + c + 2 =0
⇒ – 6 + c + 2 = 0 ⇒ c = 4
Now putting g = -1, f = -2 and c = 4 in (1), we get
x² + y² – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0
Again putting g = -2, f = -1 in (2), we get
2(-2) + 2(-1) + c + 2 =0
⇒ -4 – 2 + c + 2 =0 ⇒ c = 4
Putting g = -2, f = -1 and c = 4 (in) (1), we get
x² + y² – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0
Hence the required equation (s) of the circle are
x² + y² – 2x – 4y + 4 =0 and x² + y² – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.4

10th Maths Exercise 6.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
From the top of a tree of height 13 m the angle of elevation and depression of the top and bottom of another tree are 45° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the second tree. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:

Ex 6.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 40 m above water level. He observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30°. Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:


∴ The height of the hill = 120 + 40 = 160 m
The distance of the hill from the ship is AC = x = \(40 \sqrt{3}\) m = 69.28 m

10th Maths Exercise 6.4samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point ‘h’ metres above a lake is θ₁ and the angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is θ₂. Prove that the height that the cloud is located from the ground is \(\frac{h\left(\tan \theta_{1}+\tan \theta_{2}\right)}{\tan \theta_{2}-\tan \theta_{1}}\)
Solution:

Let AB be the surface of the lake and let p be the point of observation such that AP = h meters.
Let C be the position of the cloud and C’ be its reflection in the lake. Then CB = C’B.
Let PM be ⊥^r from P on CB
Then ∠CPM = θ₁, and ∠MPC = θ₂
Let CM = x.
Then CB = CM + MB = CM + PA
= x + h



Hence proved

10th Maths Exercise 6.4 Question 4.
The angle of elevation of the top of a cell phone tower from the foot of a high apartment is 60° and the angle of depression of the foot of the tower from the top of the apartment is 30°. If the height of the apartment is 50 m, find the height of the cell phone tower. According to radiations control norms, the minimum height of a cell phone tower should be 120 m. State if the height of the above mentioned cell phone tower meets the radiation norms.
Solution:


Since 150m > 120m, yes the height of the above mentioned tower meet the radiation norms.

10th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.4 Question 5.
The angles of elevation and depression of the top and bottom of a lamp post from the top of a 66 m high apartment are 600 and 30° respectively. Find
(i) The height of the lamp post.
(ii) The difference between height of the lamp post and the apartment.
(iii) The distance between the lamp post and the apartment. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:


= 114.312 m

10th Maths Exercise 6.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Three villagers A, B and C can see each T other across a valley. The horizontal distance between A and B is 8 km and the horizontal distance between B and C is 12 km. The angle of depression of B from A is 20° and the angle of elevation of C from B is 30° . Calculate :

(i) the vertical height between A and B.
(ii) the vertical height between B and C. (tan20° = 0.3640, \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution: