Laxmi

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 Globe

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Textual Evaluation

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. The line of latitude which is known as the Great Circle is __________
2. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth from the West to East are called __________
3. The 90° lines of latitude on the Earth are called __________
4. The Prime Meridian is also called __________
5. The world is divided into time zones __________ time zone

Answer:

1. Equator
2. Parallels of latitude
3. North Pole and South Pole
4. Greenwich Meridian
5. 24

II. Choose the best answer :

1. The shape of the Earth is _______.
(a) Square
(b) Rectangle
(c) Geoid
(d) Circle
Answer:
(c) Geoid

Question 2.
The North Pole is ……………..
(a) 90° N Latitude
(b) 90° S latitude
(c) 90° W Longitude
(d) 90° E longitude
Answer:
(a) 90° N Latitude

Question 3.
The area found between 0° and 180° E lines of longitude is called _______.
(a) Southern Hemisphere
(b) Western Hemisphere
(c) Northern Hemisphere
(d) Eastern Hemisphere
Answer:
(d) Eastern Hemisphere

Question 4.
The 23 1/2° N line of latitude is called ……………..
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Antarctic Circle
Answer:
(b) Tropic of Cancer

Question 5.
180° line of longitude is _______.
(a) Equator
(b) International Date Line
(c) Prime Meridian
(d) North Pole
Answer:
(b) International Date Line

Question 6.
The Sun is found overhead the Greenwich Meridian at ……………..
(a) 12 midnight
(b) 12 noon
(c) 1 p.m.
(d) 11 a.m.
Answer:
(b) 12 noon

Question 7.
A day has _____.
(a) 1240 minutes
(b) 1340 minutes
(c) 1440 minutes
(d) 1140 minutes
Answer:
(c) 1440 minutes

Question 8.
Which of the following lines of longitude is considered for the Indian Standard Time?
(a) 82 1/2° E
(b) 82 1/2° W
(c) 81 1/2° WE
(d) 81 1/2° W
Answer:
(a) 82 1/2° E

Question 9.
The total number of lines of latitude are ________
(a) 171
(b) 161
(c) 181
(d) 191
Answer:
(c) 181

Question 10.
The total number of lines of longitude are ……………
(a) 370
(b) 380
(c) 360
(d) 390
Answer:
(c) 360

III. Circle the odd one

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

V. Examine the following statements :

1. The Earth is spherical in shape.
2. The shape of the Earth is called a geoid.
3. The Earth is flat.

Look at the options given below and choose the correct answer.
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct
(d) 1,2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(c) 1 and 2 are correct

VI. Examine the following statements :

Statement I : The lines of latitude on Earth are used to find the location of a place and define the heat zones on Earth.
Statement II: The lines of longitudes on Earth are used to find the location of a place and to calculate time.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II is correct
(c) Both the statements are correct
(d) Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

VII. Name the following :

1. The imaginary lines drawn horizontally on Earth.
2. The imaginary lines drawn vertically on Earth.
3. The three dimensional model of the Earth.
4. India is located in this hemisphere based on lines of longitude.
5. The network of lines of latitude and longitude.

Answer:

1. Latitudes
2. Longitudes
3. globe
4. Eastern hemisphere
5. Earth grid

VIII. Answer Briefly :

Question 1.
What is a geoid?
Answer:

1. The Earth cannot be compared with any other geometrical shape as it has a very unique shape.
2. Hence, its shape is called a geoid (earth shaped).

Question 2.
What is local time?
Answer:

1. The time in a particular region or area expressed, with reference to the meridian passing through it. (or)
2. When the sun is overhead on a particular line of longitude, it is 12 noon at all the places located on that line of longitude. This is called local time.

Question 3.
How many times would the sun pass overhead a line of longitude?
Answer:
The sun is overhead on a line of longitude only once a day.

Question 4.
What are lines of latitude and longitude?
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines that run east and west direction on the Earth are called lines or parallels of latitude
2. The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North pole and the south pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.

Question 5.
Name the four hemispheres of the Earth.
Answer:

1. Northern Hemisphere,
2. Southern Hemisphere,
3. Eastern Hemisphere and
4. Western Hemisphere.

IX. Give Reasons :

Question 1.
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:

1. All nations of the world agreed to have the Greenwich Meridian as the international Standard Meridian (0°).
2. This line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian and it is also known as the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 V20) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone
Answer:
This region receives very slanting rays of the sun. The temperature is very low. Hence, this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:

1. The International Date line is not straight.
2. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same country world have different dates.
3. So the International Date line is found zigzag in certain places to avoid confusion.

IX. Give reason:

Question 1.
The 0° line of longitude is called the Greenwich Meridian.
Answer:

1. All nations of the world agreed to have the Greenwich Meridian as the international Standard Meridian (0°).
2. This line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian and it is also known as the Greenwich Meridian because it passes through Greenwich.

Question 2.
The regions on Earth between North & South lines of latitude (66 Vi°) and poles (90°) is called Frigid Zone.
Answer:

1. From the Arctic circle (66 ‘A° N) to the North Pole (90° N) and from the Antarctic circle (66 Vi0 S) to the South Pole (90° S) the sun’s rays full further inclined, through „ out the year.
2. The temperature is very low.
3. Hence this region is known as Frigid Zone.

Question 3.
The International Date Line runs zigzag.
Answer:

1. The International Date line is not straight.
2. If the line is drawn straight, two places in the same country world have different dates.
3. So the International Date line is found zigzag in certain places to avoid confusion.

X. Answer in detail :

Question 1
What are the uses of globe?
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is huge and we live on a very area, we are not able to see the Earth as a whole.
2. But when we travel to space, we can see the Earth as a whole.
3. So, in order to see the shape of the Earth as a whole and to know its unique features, a three dimensional model of the Earth was created with a specific scale in the name of globe.

Question 2.
How are the hemispheres divided on the basis of lines of latitude and longitude?
Explain with diagrams.
Answer:

Question 3.
What are the significant lines of latitude? Explain the zones found between them,
Answer:
The significant lines of latitude are
(a) Equator – 0°
(b) Tropic of Cancer – 23 1/2°N
(c) Tropic of Capricorn – 23 1/2°S
(d) Antarctic Circle – 66 1/2°S
(e) Arctic Circle – 66 1/2°N
(f) North Pole – 90°N
(g) South Pole – 90°S.

(i) Torrid zone:
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer (231A°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 40S) is called the Torrid Zone.

(ii) Temperate zone:
From the Tropic of Cancer (23!/2°N) to the Arctic Circle (661/2°N) and from the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2 0S) to the Antarctic Circle (661/2°S), the Sun’s rays fall slantingly. Moderate temperature prevails in this region. Hence, this region is called Temperate Zone.

(iii) Frigid zone:
From the Arctic Circle (66 1/2°N) to the North Pole (90°N) and from the Antarctic Circle (66 1/2 0S) to the South Pole (90°S), the Sun’s rays fall further inclined, throughout the year. Hence, this region is called Frigid Zone.

Question 4.
Explain; Indian Standard Time.
Answer:

1.  The longitudinal extend of India is from 68° 7’E to 97° 25’E
2. As many as twenty nine lines of longitude pass through India.
3. Having 29 standard time is not logical.
4. Hence 821/2° E line of longitude is observed as the prime meridian to calculate the Indian standard Time.

XI. Activity :

Question 1.
There are five positions marked on the grid given below. Look at them carefully and fill the blanks with reference to the lines of latitude and longitude. The first one is done for you.

1. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point A 40° N 30° W
   
2. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point B 2Q°N 1Q° W.
3. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point C 10° N 20° E.
4. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point D 40° S 50° E,
5. The latitudinal and longitudinal reference of point E 20° S 20°. W.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe IntextActivities

Question 1.
What is the difference in time between the GMT and 1ST?
Answer:
Indian Standard Time is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
Eg: 7:15 a.m. GMT is 12:45 p.m. 1ST (that is GMT + 5 hrs and 30 min.

Question 2.
If it is 5 a.m. at New York City, USA. what would be the time at New Delhi, the capital of India?
Answer:
If it is 5 a.m. at New York City, USA., then the time at New Delhi would be 3:30 p.m. (India time is 10 hours and 30 minutes ahead New York, United States).

Question 3.
If it is 12 Midnight at London, what would be the time in India?
Answer:
If it is 12 Midnight at London, then the time in India would be 5:30 a.m.

Question 4.
The standard time of Sydney city in Australia is found to be at a difference of _____ hours from that of the GMT.
Answer:
10 Hours. It is according to Australian Eastern Standard Time, (GMT+10). But during Summer, it will be 11 Hours. (GMT+11).

Question 5.
Mr. Senthamizh travels by flight from Chennai to London. He boarded the aeroplane at 9a.m After 12 hours of travel, at what time (GMT) would he have reach London?
Answer:
He would reach London at 3.30 p.m. GMT.

Question 6.
Based on the longitudinal extent, in which hemisphere is our country located? Look at the globe and answer.
Answer:
Based on the longitudinal extent, our country is located in Eastern hemisphere

HOTS

Question 1.
Based on the latitudinal extent, in which hemisphere is India located?
Answer:
Based on the latitudinal extent, our country is located in Northern hemisphere

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Globe Additional Questions:

I. Fill In the blanks:

1. When we travel to space, we can see the ______ as Whole
2. The Earth is ______ at the poles.
3. The Earth bulges at the ______
4. The Earth moves around the ______
5. The Earth rotates from the ______
6. The Earth is inclined on its axis at an inclination of ______
7. The first globe was created by the ______
8. Aryabhatta wrote ______
9. The first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude was ______
10. Geographia’ was written by ______
11. The latitudinal extent between 1° line of latitude on Earth is ______
12. The sun’s rays ______ equally on all parts of the earth.
13. The lines of longitude converge at the ______
14. Two opposite meridians form a ______
15. Based on the longitudinal extent, India is located in the ______
16. The Royal Astronomical observatory is located in ______
17. The sun is overhead on a line of longitude a day ______
18. The word meridian is derived from the Latin word ______
19. Local time is calculated when the sun is ______
20. Russia has time zones ______

Answer:

1. Earth
2. Flat
3. Equator
4. Sun
5. West to East
6. 23 1/2°
7. Greeks
8. Aryabhatta Siddhanta
9. Ptolemy
10. 111 km
11. do not fall
12. Poles
13. Great-circle
14. hemisphere.
15. Eastern
16. England
17. only once
18. Meridianus
19. Overhead at noon
20. 7

II. Choose the best answer :

Question 1.
The Earth is ____
(a) Oval shaped
(b) Flat
(c) Spherical shaped
(d) Rectangular
Answer:
(c) Spherical shaped

Question 2.
The latitude which divides the Earth into two halves
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Equator
Answer:
(d) Equator

Question 3.
Tropic of Cancer is Otherwise called as ……………..
(a) Kadagavari
(b) Nilanaduvarai
(c) Magaravarai
Answer:
(a) Kadagavari

Question 4.
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer, is known as .
(a) Torrid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Frigid Zone
(d) Heat Zone
Answer:
(a) Torrid Zone

Question 5.
The International Meridian Conference (1884) was held in ……………..
(a) Canada
(b) Mexico
(c) Washington DC
Answer:
(c) Washington DC

III. Circle the odd one :

IV. Match the following.

Answer:

1. iv
2. v
3. i
4. ii
5. iii

V. Examine the following statements :

a.When you move towards the East from any meridian the time increases.
b.When you move towards the West from any meridian the line decreases.
c.The earth rotates from West to East on its own axis.

Look at the options given below and ehoose the correct answer,

1. a and c are correct
2. b and c are correct
3. a and b are correct
4. a, b, c are correct

Answer:
(4) a, b, c are correct

VI. Examine the following statements :
Statement I : The 180° line of longitude has been fixed as the International Date of Line, drawn on the Pacific Ocean between Alaska and Russia through Bering Strait.
Statement II : The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and the 180° East line of longitude is known as Western Hemisphere.
Choose the correct option :
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong
(b) Statement I is wrong; II is correct
(c) Both the statements are wrong
(d) Both the statements are correct
Answer:
(a) Statement I is correct; II is wrong

VII. Name the following :

1. 0° latitude.
2. 23 1/2°S latitude.
3. 23 1/2°N latitude.
4. 66 1/2°S latitude.
5. 66 1/2°N latitude.

Answer:

1. Equator
2. Tropic of Capricorn
3. Tropic of Cancer
4. Antarctic Circle
5. Arctic Circle

VIII. Answer Briefly:

Question 1.
What was mentioned by Aryabhatta in his book?
Answer:
In his ‘Aryabhatta Sidhanta’ Aryabhatta mentioned that the stars in the sky seems to move towards the West because of the Earth’s rotation on its axis.

Question 2.
Who was Ptolemy?
Answer:

1. Ptolemy was a Greco – Roman mathematician, astronomer and geographer.
2. He was the first person to draw the lines of latitude and longitude on a map.

Question 3.
Mention about ‘Geographia’.
Answer:

1. Geographia was authored by Ptolemy.
2. He gave a detailed description about the Earth’s surface to size and circumference.
3. He also mentioned about many locations based on the lines of latitude and longitude

Question 4.
How many parallels are found on the Earth?
Answer:

1. The lines of latitude consist of 89 parallels in the Northern Hemisphere.
2. There are 89 parallels in the Southern Hemisphere.
3. One at the Equal and the two poles are found as points.
4. Totally there are 181 parallels found on earth.

Question 5.
What are called meridians of longitude?
Answer:
The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North Pole and the South Pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.

Question 6.
What is a Prime Meridian?
Answer:
The 0° line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian.

Question 7.
What are Western Longitudes?
Answer:
The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian (0°) and 180° West line of longitude are called Western longitude.

Question 8.
What is known as Eastern Hemisphere?
Answer:
The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longtitude and the 180° East line of longtitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.

Question 9.
What is GMT?
Answer:
Greenwich Mean Time : GMT is the mean solar time at the Royal observatory in Greenwich, London, reckoned from midnight.

Question 10.
How many time zones are there in the USA?
Answer:
The United States is spread across six time zones. From west to east, they are Hawaii, Alaska, Pacific, Mountain, Central and Eastern.

Question 11.
How many time zones in Europe, Africa, Australia and Asia.
Answer:

1. Europe – 11 time zones
2. Africa – 6 times zones
3. Australia – 3 time zones
4. Asia – 11 time zones

Question 12.
What is the time difference between

1. India and Greenwich Mean Time
2. India and U.S.A
3. India and Dubai
4. India and Australia.

Answer:

1. India is 5 hours 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time.
2. India is 10 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Washington, DC, U.S.A.
3. India is 1 hour and 30 minutes a head of Dubai.
4. Australia is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of India. (Canberra Act)

IX. Give Reasons:

Question 1.
The length of the lines of latitude decreases from the equator.
Answer:

1. Since the Earth is geoid shaped, the length of the lines of latitude decreases from the Equator towards the South and North Poles.
2. The 90° North and South Poles are not found as lines but as points.

Question 2.
All the places on earth do not have the same amount of temperature.
Answer:

1. The Sun’s rays do not fall equally on all parts of the earth.
2. They fall vertically over the equator and slanting towards the poles.
3. Thus all the places on earth do not have the same amount of temperature

Question 3.
The region from the Equator towards the Tropic of Cancer (23‘/2°N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23!4°S) is called Torrid Zone.
Answer:

1. The Sun’s rays fall vertically over this region and the average temperature is very high.
2. Hence this region is known as the Torrid Zone.

X. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note an Latitudes.
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines which are drawn horizontally on East – West direction on the Earth are called the lines or parallels of latitudes.
2. The 0° line of latitude which divides the Earth into two halves is known as the Equator.
3. From the equator, parallel lines are drawn towards the North and South Poles at equal intervals.
4. The latitudinal extent between 1° line of latitude on Earth is 111 km.
5. Since the Earth is geoid shaped, the length of the lines of latitude decreases from the equator towards the south and North poles.
6. The lines of latitude that are drawn horizontally between the equator and the North Pole are called Northern latitudes.
7. Those which are found between the equator and the South Pole are called Southern Latitudes.
8. The area of the Earth found between the Equator (0°) and the North Pole (90°N) is called the Northern Hemisphere.
9. The area of the Earth from the equator (0°) to the South Pole (90°S) is called the Southern Hemisphere.

Question 2.
Write a note on Longitudes.
Answer:

1. The imaginary lines drawn vertically connecting the North Pole and the South Pole are called lines or meridians of longitude.
2. These lines of longitude are seen as semi circles.
3. The 09 line of longitude is called the Prime Meridian.
4. There are 180 lines of longitude towards the East and West from the Prime Meridian.
5. So there are totally 360 lines of longitude.
6. These lines converge at the poles. The 180°W and 180°E line of longitude are the same line.
7. The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian and the 180° East line of longitude are called Eastern Longitudes.
8. The lines of longitude that are found between the Prime Meridian (0°) and the 180° West line of longitude are called Western Longitudes.
9. The part of the Earth between the 0° line of longitude and the 180° East line of longitude is known as the Eastern Hemisphere.
10. The part of the Earth from 09 line of longitude to 180° West line of longitude is called Western Hemisphere.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The Post-Mauryan India

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science The Post-Mauryan India Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The last Mauryan emperor was killed by
(a) Pushyamitra
(b) Agnimitra
(c) Vasudeva
(d) Narayana
Answer:
(a) Pushyamitra

Question 2.
…………… was the founder of Satavahana dynasty.
(a) Simuka
(b) Satakarani
(c) Kanha
(d) Sivasvati
Answer:
(a) Simuka

Question 3.
was the greatest of all the Kushana emperors.
(a) Kanishka
(c) Kadphises II
(b) Kadphises I
(d) Pan-Chiang
Answer:
(a) Kanishka

Question 4.
The Kantara School of Sanskrit flourished in the …………… during 2nd century BC.
(a) Deccan
(b) north-west India
(c) Punjab
(d) Gangetic Valley
Answer:
(b) north-west India

Question 5.
Sakas ruled over Gandhara region
(a) Sirkap
(b) Taxila
(c) Mathura
(d) Purushpura
Answer:
(a) Sirkap

II. Match the statement with the reason and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Assertion (A) : Colonies of Indo-Greeks and Indo-Parthians were established along the north-western part of India.
Reason (R) : The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually intermarried anti intermixed with the indigenous population.
a. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c. A is correct but R is not correct.
d. A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I : Indo-Greek rulers introduced die system and produced coins with
inscription and symbols, engraving figures on them.
Statement II : Indo-Greek rule was ended by the Kushanas.
a. Statement I is wrong, but statement II is correct.
b.Statement II is wrong, but statement I is correct.
c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are wrong.
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong, but a statement I is correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one
Pushyamitra, Vasudeva, Simuka, Kanishka
Reason:

1. All of the three generals assassinated their kings.
2. Kanishka followed Buddhism, whereas the other three rulers were not followers of Buddhism.

Question 4.
Answer the following in a word

1. Who was the last Sunga ruler?
2. Who was the most important and famous king of Sakas?
3. Who established Kanva dynasty in Magadha?
4. Who converted Gondophemes into Christianity?

Answer:

1. Devabhtu
2. Vasudeva
3. Vasudeva
4. St.Thomas

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. was the founder of Indo-Parthian Kingdom.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after death.
3. Hala is famous as the author of
4. was the last ruler of Kanva dynasty
5. Kushana’s later capital was

Answer:

1. Gonduphres
2. Asokas
3. Sattasai
4. Susarma
5. Peshavar or Purushpura

IV. State whether True or False

1. Magadha continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture even after the fall of the Mauryan Empire.
2. We get much information about Kharavela from Hathigumba inscription.
3. Simuka waged a successful war against Magadha.
4. Buddhacharita was written by Asvaghosha.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True

V. Match the following :

1. Patanjali -1.Kalinga
2. Agnimitra – 2. Indo-Greek
3. King Kharavela – 3.Indo-Parthians
4. Demetrius – 4. Second grammarian
5. Gondophemes – 5. Malavikagnimitra

Answer:

1. 4
2. 5
3. 1
4. 2
5. 3

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following

1. The Kushanas formed a section of the yueh-chi tribes who inhabited north-western China.
2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.
3. The Great Stupa of Sanchi and the railings which enclose it belong to the Sunga period.
4. Pan-Chiang was the Chinese general defeated by Kanishka.

Answer:

2. Kanishka made Jainism the state religion and built many monasteries.

VII. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
What happened to the last Mauryan emperor?
Answer:

1. The last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha, was assassinated by his own general, Pushyamitra Sunga.
2. He established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha.

Question 2.
Write a note on Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
Answer:
Agnimitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra (Agnimitra was the son of Pushyamitra)

Question 3.
Name the ruler of Kanva dynasty.
Answer:

1. The Kanva dynasty produced four kings and their rule lasted only for 45 years.
2. The Kanvas rulers were
   • Vasudeva
   • Bhumi Mitra
   • Narayana
   • Susarman

Question 4.
Highlight the literary achievements of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. The Satavahana king Hala was himself a great scholar of Sanskrit.
2. Hala is famous as the author of Sattasai (Saptasati) 700 stanzas in Prakrit.

Question 5.
Name the places where Satavahana’s monuments are situated.
Answer:

1. Gandhara, Mathura, Amaravati, Bodha Gaya, Sanchi and Bharhut were known for splendid monuments and art.
2. The Mathura School of Sculpture produced images and life-size statues of the Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain deities.

Question 6.
Give an account of the achievements of Kadphises I.
Answer:

1. Kadphises I was the first military and political leader of the Kushanas.
2. He overthrew the Indo-Greek and Indo-Parthian rulers.
3. He established himself as a sovereign ruler of Bactria.
4. He extended his power in Kabul, Gandhara and upto Indus.

Question 7.
Name the Buddhist saints and scholars who adorned the court of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His court was adorned with a number of Buddhist saints and scholars, like Asvaghosha, Vasumitra and Nagarjuna.

VIII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Who invaded India after the decline of the Mauryan empire?
Answer:

1. The break-up of Mauiyan empire resulted in the invasions of Sakas, Scythians, Parthians, Indo-Greeks or Bactria Greeks and Kushanas from the north-west.
2. In the South, Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
3. There were Sunga and Kanvas in the north before the emergence of Gupta dynasty.
4. Chedis (Kalinga) declared t heir independence.
5. Though Magadha ceased to be the premier state of India, it continued to be a great centre of Buddhist culture.

Question 2.
Give an account of the conquests of Pushyamitra Sunga.
Answer:

1. Pushyamitra Sunga established his Sunga dynasty in Magadha.
2. He extended his kingdom westward to include Ujjain and Vidisha.
3. He successfully repulsed the invasion of Bactria king.
4. He thwarted an attack from the Kalinga king, Kharavela.
5. He also conquered Vidarbha.

Question 3.
Write a note on GautamiputraSatakarni.
Answer:

1. GautamiputraSatakarni was the greatest ruler of the family .
2. In the Nasik prashasti, published by his mother GautamiBalasri, Gautamiputra Satakami is described as the destroyer of Sakas, Yavanas (Greeks) and Pahlavas (Parthians).
3. The extent of the empire is also mentioned in the record.
4. Their domain included Maharashtra, north Konkan, Berar, Gujarat, Kathiawar and Malwa.
5. His ship coins are suggestive of Andhras’ skill in seafaring and their naval power.
6. The Bogor inscriptions suggest that South India played an important role in the process of early state formation in Southeast Asia.

Question 4.
What do you know of Gondopharid dynasty?
Answer:

1. Indo – Parthian kingdom or Gondopharid dynasty was founded by Gondophernes.
2. The domain of Indo-Parthians comprised Kabul and Gandhara.
3. The name of Gondophernes is associated with the Christian apostle St. Thomas.
4. According to Christian tradition, St.Thomas visited the court of Gondophernes
5. St. Thomas converted Gondophernes to Christianity.

Question 5.
Who was considered the best known Indo-Greek King. Why?
Answer:

1. Menander was one of the best known Indo-Greek kings.
2. He is said to have ruled a large kingdom in the north-west of the country.
3. His coins were found over an extensive area ranging from Kabul valley and Indus river to western Uttar Pradesh.
4. MilindaPanha, a Buddhist text, is a discourse between Bactrian king Milinda and the learned Buddhist scholar Nagasena.
5. This Milinda is identifed with Menander.
6. Menander is believed to have become a Buddhist and promoted Buddhism.

Question 6.
Who was Sakas?
Answer:

1. Sakas as nomads came in huge number and spread all over northern and western India.
2. They were against the tribe of Turki normads.
3. They were Scthians, nomadic ancient Iranians.
4. They were known as Sakas in Sanskrit.
5. The Indo – Greek rule in India was ended by them.

Question 7.
Give an account of the religious policy of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka was an ardent Buddhist.
2. His empire was a Buddhist empire.
3. He adopted Buddhism under the influence of Asvaghosha, a celebrated monk from Pataliputra.
4. He was as equal as the exponent and champion of Mahayanism.
5. He made Buddhism as the state religion.
6. He built many stupas and monasteries in Mathura, Taxila and many other parts of his kingdom.
7. He sent Buddhist missionaries to Tibet, China and many countries of Central Asia for the propagation of Buddha’s gospel.
8. He organised the fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana near Srinagar to sort out the differences between the various schools of Buddhism. It was only in this council that Buddhism was split into Hinayanism and Mahayanism.

IX. HOTS :

Question 1.
The importance of Gandhara School of Art.
Answer:

1. The Gandhara School of Art had developed in the first century A.D along with Mathura School during the reign of Kushana emperor Kanishka.
2. Both Sakas and Kushanas were patrons of Gandhara school which is known for the first sculpture representations of the Buddha in human form.
3. The art of the Gandhara school was primarily Mahayana.
4. The Gandhara school of Indian Art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
5. The Greeks were good cave builders. The Mahayana Buddhist learnt the art of carving out caves from them and became skilled in rock cut architecture.

Question 2.
Provide an account of trade and commerce during the post – Mauryan period in South India..
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained a friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with foreign countries.
3. His coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles.
4. The inscriptions in the coins were in the Kharosthi language.

X. Activity :

Question 1.
Prepare an album with centres of archaeological monuments of Satavahanas and Kushanas.
Answer:
Satavahanas :

1. Several metal figurines and unique bronze objects were found from Bramhapuri.
2. A bronze statue of the standing Buddha discovered in Oc-Eo (an archaeological site in Vietnam) resembles the Amaravati
3. The later Satavahana kings issued lead or bronze coins depicting ships with two masts.
4. A stone seal discovered in NakhonPattom in Thailand has the same design.
5. Gandhara, Madhura, Amaravati, Bodh Gaya, Sanchi and Bharhut were known for splendid monuments and art.
6. The Mathura School of Sculputre produced images and life-size statues of the Buddhist, Brahmanical and Jain deities.

Kushanas :

1. Kanishka’s coins portray images of Indian, Greek, Iranians divinities.
2. He encouraged Gandhara school of art as well as Mathura school of art.
3. His greatest contribution to Buddhist architecture was the Kanishka stupa at Peshawar, Pakistan.
4. Several Buddhist statues are directly connected to the reign of Kanishka like Bodhisattra statues.

Question 2.
Arrange a debate in the classroom on the cultural contribution of Indo-Greeks Sakas and Kushanas
Answer:
Indo-Greeks:

1. Indo-Greek rulers introduced a die system and produced properly shaped coins with inscription, symbols and engraved figures on Indo-greeks.
2. Indians learnt this art from Indo-greeks.
3. The Gandhara school of Indian art is heavily indebted to Greek influence.
4. The Greeks were good cave builders. The Mahayana Buddhist learnt the art of carving out caves from them and became skilled in rock-cut architecture.

Sakas:

1. Rudradaman’s Junagadh/Gimar inscription was the first inscription in chaste Sanskrit.
2. In India, the Sakas were assimilated into Indian society.
3. They began to adopt Indian names and practice Indian religious beliefs.

Kushanas :

1. Kanishka was a great patron of art and literature. His court was adorned with a number of Buddhist saints and scholars, like Asvaghosha, Vasumitra and Nagarajuna.
2. He founded the town of Kanishkapura in Kashmir and furnished the capital of Puiushapura with magnificent public buildings.
3. The Gandhara school of the art flourished during this time.
4. The most favourable subject of the Gandhara artists was the carving of sculptures of Buddha.
5. Buddhist learning and culture was taken to China and Mongolia from Takshashila.
6. The great Asiatic culture mingled with Indian Buddhist culture during the Kushana time.

XI. Answer Grid

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Mauryan India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In the of India Satavahanas became independent after Asoka’s death.
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Answer:
(b) South

Question 2.
Pushyamitra made ……………. as his capital.
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Peshavar
(c) Kundalavana
(d) Bharhut
Answer:
(a) Pataliputra

Question 3.
Simuka, the founder of the Satavahana dynasty ruled for
(a) 20 yrs
(c) 22 yrs
(b) 21 yrs
(d) 23 yrs
Answer:
(d) 23 yrs

Question 4.
The world-famous life-size statue of Buddha was at ……………. Valley.
(a) Bamyan
(b) Gangetic
(c) Kashmir
(d) Kenyan
Answer:
(a) Bamyan

Question 5.
Hala belonged to dynasty.
(a) Indogreek
(b) Kushana
(c) Sunga
(d) Satavahana
Answer:
(d) Satavahana

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Assertion (A) :Gautamiputra Satakarni was the greatest ruler of the family.
Reason (R) :He is described as the destroyer of the Sakas, Yavanas and Pahlavas.
a. A is correct but R is not correct.
b. A is not correct but R is correct.
c. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Statement I :Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese Buddhist monk and traveller is one of the sources of the Post Mauryan period.
Statement II :Saka rule was founded by Maos or Mogain in the Gandhara region.
a. Both the statements are correct.
b. Both the statements are wrong.
c. Statement I is wrong but statement II is correct.
d. Statement II is wrong but statement I is correct.
Answer:
(a) Both the statements are correct

Question 3.
Circle the odd one.
Bhumi Mitra, Nagaijuna, Susarman, Krishna.
Answer:
Krishna
Reason : Krishna was a ruler from Satavahana dynasty. Other three were from Kanva  dynasty.

Question 4.

1. Answer the following in one word.
2. Mention the other term of Satavahanas.
3. Name the second grammarian in Sanskrit.
4. Name the Sunga ruler who performed two AsvamedhaYagnas.
5. Whose work was Sattasai?

Answer:

1. Andhras
2. Patanjali
3. Pushyamitra
4. Hala

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The author of Harshacharita was _______
2. Patanjali wrote _______
3. Nagarjuna’s work was _______
4. Agnimitra’s son was _______
5. Pushyamitra’s capital was _______
6. Under the Sungas _______ became the court language.
7. The great stupa of sanchi and railings belong to the _______ period.
8. The Sakas appointed _______ as provicial governor
9. Initially the Kushana capital was _______
10. Kanishka defeated the Chinese general _______

Answer:

1. Banabhatte
2. Mahabhasya
3. Madhyamikasutra
4. Vasumitra
5. Pataiiputra
6. Sanskrit
7. Sunga
8. Kshatrapas / Satraps
9. Kabul
10. Pan-Chiang

IV. True or False :

1. Agminitra is said to be the hero of Kalidasa’s Malavikagnimitra.
2. The Satavahanas played an important role in defending the Gangetic valley.
3. The last Kanva ruler was Satakami.
4. Bactria became independent under Diodotus I.
5. Menander promoted Jainism.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Match

1. Sungas – i. Narayana
2. Kanvas – ii. Sirkap
3. Satavahanas – iii. Pahlavas
4. Sakas – iv. Vasumitra
5. Indo Parthians – v. Simuka

Answer:

1. – iv
2. – i
3. – v
4. – ii
5. – iii

VI. Find out the wrong statement from the following :

1. The Sunga dynasty lasted for about one hundred years.
2.  The Sungas promoted Shaivism.
3. The Kanva dynasty produced four Kings.
4. Yavanas were Greeks.

Answer:
2. The Sungas promoted Shaivism

VII. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
Mention the importance of the Sunga period.
Answer:

1. The Sungas played an important role in defending the Gangetic Valley from the encroachments of the Bactrian Greeks.
2. Pushyamitra, and then his successors, revived Vedic religious practices and promoted Vaishnavism.
3. Sanskrit gradually gained ascendancy and became the court language.

Question 2.
Name the domain of Satavahanas.
Answer:

1. Maharashtra
2. North Konkan
3. Berar
4. Gujarat
5. Kathiawar
6. Malda.

Question 3.
Who published Nasik Prashasti?
Answer:
Nasik Prashasti was published by Gautami Balasri, mother of Gautamiputra Satakami.

Question 4.
Where was Buddhist learning and culture taken to?
Answer:
Buddhist learning and culture was taken to China and Mongolia from Takshashila.

Question 5.
What facilitated the establishment oflndo-Greek and Indo-Parthian colonies along the north western part of India?
Answer:

1. The Bactrian and Parthian settlers gradually inter-married and inter-mixed with the indigenous population.
2. This facilitated the establishment oflndo-Greek and Indo-Parthian colonies along the north western part of India.

Question 6.
What was the change brought in by the Sunga period in the railings and gateways of the Buddhist Stupas?
Answer:
During the Sunga period, stone was replaced by wood in the railings and the gateways of the Buddhist stupas as seen in Bharhut and Sanchi.

Question 7.
Who was Kaharavela?
Answer:

1. King Kharavela of Kalinga was a contemporary of the Sungas.
2. We get information about Kharavela from the Hathigumba inscription.

Question 8.
Write about the Buddhist Statue at Bamyan Valley.
Answer:

1. The world famous life-size statue of Buddha at Bamyan valley on the mountains is located in the northwestern frontiers of ancient India.
2. They were carved out of the solid rocks by the dedicated artists of the Gandhara School of Art during the Post-Mauryan period.

Question 9.
Write a note on Kadphises
Answer:

1. Kadphises II maintained friendly relationship with the emperors of China and Rome.
2. He encouraged trade and commerce with the foreign countries.
3. Some of his coins contained the inscribed figures of Lord Siva and his imperial titles were inscribed in the Kharosthi language.

VIII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Mention about the archaeological sources and literary source of the Post-Mauryan Period.
Archaeological Sources of the Post-Mauryan period :
Answer:

1. Ayodhya Inscription of Dana Deva
2. Persepolis, Nakshi Rustam Inscriptions
3. Moga (Taxila copper plate)
4. Junagadh/Gimar Inscription
5. Nasik Prasasti
6. Inscription of Darius I
7. Coins of Satavahanas
8. Coins of Kadphises II
9. Roman Coins

Literary Sources:

1. Puranas
2. Gargi Samhita
3. Harshacharita of Banabhatta
4. Mahabhasyaof Patanjali
5. Brihastkatha of Gunadhya
6. Madhyamika Sutra of Nagaijuna
7. Buddhacharita of Asvaghosha
8. Malavikagnimitra of Kalidasa

Question 2.
Write a note on Demetrius
Answer:

1. Demetrius was the son of Greco-Bactrian ruler Euthydemus.
2. He was king of Macedonia from 294 to 288 BC.
3. Numismatic evidence proves that Demetrius issued bi-lingual square coins with Greek on the obverse and Kharosthi on the reverse.
4. Scholars are not able to decide which of the three, named Demetrius, was the initiator of the Yavana era, commencing for second century BC in India..

Question 3.
Who were Kushanas?
Answer:

1. The Kushanas formed a section of the Yueh-chi tribes, who inhabited north western China in the remote past.
2. In the first century BC, the Yueh-chi tribes were composed of five major sections of which the Kushanas attained political ascendancy over others.
3. By the beginning of Christian era, all the yueh-chi tribes had acknowledged the supremacy of the Kushanas.
4. They settled down in the Bactrian and Parthian lands.
5. The Kushanas gradually overran Bactria and Parthia and established themselves in northern India.
6. Their concentration was mostly in the Punjab, Rajaputana and Kathiawar.
7. Kushana rulers were Buddhists.
8. Takshashila and Mathura continued to be great centres of Buddhist learning, attracting students from China and western Asia.

Question 4.
Write about the Conquests of Kanishka.
Answer:

1. Kanishka conquered and annexed Kashmir
2. He waged a successful war against Magadha.
3. He also waged a war against a ruler of Parthia to maintain safety and integrity in his vast empire on the western and south-western border.
4. After the conquest of Kashmir and Gandhara, he turned his attention towards China.
5. He defeated the Chinese general Pan-Chiang and safeguarded the northern borders of India from Chinese intrusion.
6. His empire extended form Kashmir down to Benaras, and the Vindhya mountain in the south. It included Kashgar, Yarkhand touching the borders of Persia and Parthia.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Early man settled near________and practiced agriculture.
(a) plains
(b) bank of rivers
(c) mountains
(d) hills
Answer:
(b) bank of rivers

Question 2.
The birth place of democracy is ………………..
(a) China
(b) America
(c) Greece
(d) Rome
Answer:
(c) Greece

Question 3.
________ is celebrated as the International Democracy Day.
(a) September 15
(b) October 15
(c) November 15
(d) December 15
Answer:
(a) September 15

Question 4.
Who has the right to work in a direct Democracy?
(a) Men
(b) Women
(c) Representatives
d) All eligible voters
Answer:
(d) All eligible voters

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Direct Democracy is practiced in ________
2. The definition of democracy is defined by________
3. People choose their representatives by giving their________
4. In our country________democracy is in practice.

Answer:

1. Switzerland
2. Abraham Lincoln
3. Votes
4. Representative

III. Answer the following :

Question 1.
What is Democracy?
Answer:

1. The citizens of a country select their representatives through elections.
2. Thus they take part in the direct governance of a country. This is termed democracy.

Question 2.
What are the types of democracy?
Answer:
Direct democracy and Representative democracy

Question 3.
Define Direct Democracy.
Answer:

1. In a direct democracy, only the citizens can make laws.
2. All changes have to be approved by the citizens.
3. The politicians only rule over parliamentary procedure. Eg. Switzerland.

Question 4.
Define: Representative Democracy
Answer:
Representative democracy is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected officials representing a group of people.

Question 5.
What are the salient features of our constitution that you have understood?
Answer:

1. Constitution of India guides the Indians in all aspects and maintains law and order.
2. It ensures freedom, equality and justice to everyone.
3. It defines the political principles, the structure of government, the powers and responsibilities.
4. It fixes the Rights and Duties and Directive Principles of the Citizens.
5. It is the longest written constitution in the world.

IV. HOTS:

Question 1.
Compare and contrast direct democracy and representative democracy.
a. Direct Democracy Vs Representative Democracy :
Answer:

(i) A direct democracy or pure democracy is a form of government wherein the citizens have a direct say in the formation of laws and issues that affect them. In a representative democracy form of government, the citizens vote for or elect a representative to represent them in Congress or Senate.

(ii) In a direct democracy the decisions are always upheld. In a representative democracy, the representative may or may not consider their decisions and act on his own.

(iii) Direct democracy in suitable for small communities or countries while most countries with large population opt for a representative government.

(iv) In a direct democracy, citizens are more actively involved in their government. The citizens of a representative democracy often let their representatives decide on issues for them.

VI. Activity:

Question 1.
Discuss about the merits and demerits of democracy.
Answer:
The merits of democracy are :

1. A democratic government is better form of government because it is more accountable form of government.
2. Democracy improves the quality of decision making,
3. Democracy enhances the dignity of citizens.
4. Poor and least educated has the same status as the rich and educated.
5. Democracy allows us to correct own mistake.

Demerits:

1. Leaders keep on changing leading to instability.
2. Democracy in all about political competition and power play and there is no scope for mortality.
3. So many people have to be consulted in a democracy that it lead to delays.
4. Democracy leads to corruption for it is based on electoral competition.
5. Ordinary people do not know what is good for them, they should not decide anything

HOTS

Question 1.
Is it possible to practise Direct Democracy in India?
Answer:

1. Direct democracy is not possible in India, because of its large population. It is not possible to sit together and make decisions.
2. All Indians are not literate. So India has representative democracy.
3. India cannot practice direct democracy. Some people might lack interest in decision making process. Unavailability of proper resources, heavy work load might cause the whole system to slow down.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Democracy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
In a direct democracy the politicians only rule over ______
(a) Parliamentary procedure
(b) Group decision
(c) Single man’s ideas
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Parliamentary procedure

Question 2.
The Earliest written constitution still in effect is ………………
(a) Greek Democracy
(b) Sanmerinos Democracy
(c) Roman Democracy
Answer:
(b)Sanmerinos Democracy

Question 3.
In India we follow representative democracy because
(a) People like it
(b) Vast population
(c) Financially weak
(d) Do not have enough resources
Answer:
(b) Vast Population

Question 4.
In a Direct Democracy, only the ……………… can make laws
(a) President
(b) Prime minister
(c) Citizens
Answer:
(c) Citizens

Question 5.
A Law and order is maintained in India by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Ministers
(c) Constitution
(d) Assembly
Answer:
(c) Constitution

Question 6.
Chief architect of Indian Constitution is
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rajaji
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Patel
Answer:
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambekar

Question 7.
Indian constitution defines
(a) Political Principles
(b) Rules and Regulations
(c) Directive Principles
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 8
In a democracy the power is vested in the hands of the .
(a) Ministers
(b) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court
(c) People
Answer:
(c) People

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. In the beginning, the early men were ________
2. India adopted democracy after it achieved its ________
3. Representative democracy is also known as ________
4. In India we follow parliamentary________
5. Indian constitution ensures freedom, equality and to everyone ________
6. Indian constitution was drafted by the ________ committee
7. The first among the democratic countries of the world is ________
8. The first country to allow women to vote is ________
9. In India all the people above ________ years of age enjoy Universal Adult Franchise.
10. One of our leaders who insisted on voting rights was ________

Answer:

1. hunters
2. Independence
3. Indirect democracy
4. Democracy
5. Justice
6. Drafting
7. India
8. New Zealand
9. 18
10. Mahatma Gandhi

III. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
How were the empires formed?
Answer:

1. When man lived in groups, tribes were formed.
2. The victorious tribes formed kingdoms by uniting the other tribal groups.
3. These kingdoms later integrated to form empires.

Question 2.
What is an Election?
Answer:
A process by which a representative is chosen is called election.

Question 3.
Mention the two types of representative democracy,
Answer:
Representative democracy can be either Parliamentary democracy as followed in India and England or Presidential democracy as followed in the USA and Canada.

Question 4.
What is meant by democratic decision making?
Answer:

1. In the system of democracy, the power to take decisions does not lie with the head.
2. In the contrary, a group holds the power but adheres of the rules and regulations.
3. All the members of the group hold open discussions and take final decisions only when everyone is convinced. .
4. This is called democratic way of decision making.

Question 5
Mention about the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution,
Answer:

1. Indian Constitution was drafted by the Drafting Committee of the Constitution Assembly.
2. It was headed by Dr. B.R. Ambadkar.
3. That is why we call him the Chief architect of our constitution.

Question 6.
Explain the aims of democracy.
Answer:

1. In a democracy the power is vested in the hands of the people.
2. For that the people should have rights to take decisions.
3. So the representative government elected by the people to form a democratic system, all those above the age of 18 are given voting rights to elect representatives.
4. At the same time the representatives have the responsibility to protect the welfare

Questions 7.
When did the women get voting rights in the world?
Answer:

1. New Zealand was the first country to allow women to vote in 1893.
2. Voting rights to women were given in 1918 and 1920 in the UK and USA respectively.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Plants in Daily Life

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
One of the following birds is an example of plant pollinator
(a) Duck
(b) Parrot
(c) Humming bird
(d) Dove
Answer:
(c) Humming bird

Question 2.
Natural Mosquito repellant is
a. Nutmag
b. Bamboo
c. Ginger
d. Neem
Answer:
d. Neem

Question 3.
Which of the following is not a root?
(a) Potato
(b) Carrot
(c) Radish
(d) Turnip
Answer:
(a) Potato

Question 4.
Which of the following medicinal plants has anticancer properties?
a. Amla
b. Tulasi
c. Turmeric
d. Aloe
Answer:
a. Amla

Question 5.
Which is the national tree of India?
(a) Neem tree
(b) Jack tree
(c) Banyan tree
(d) Mango tree
Answer:
(c) Banyan tree

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. In every year October _______ is celebrated as world food day.
2. _______ is an example of textile fibre.
3. I am the state tree of Tamilnadu. Who am I _______ ?
4. The juice of the leaves of _______ plant relieves cough and bronchitis.
5. The edible seeds of leguminous plants are called _______

Answers:

1. Sixteenth
2. Cotton
3. Palm tree
4. Tulasi
5. Pulses

III. True or False – If False, give the correct answer :

Question 1.
Plants grown for decorative purposes are called as softwood.
Answer:
False. Plants grown for decorative purposes are called Ornamental plants.

Question 2.
Silkworm eats mulberry leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Cauliflower is used for ornamental purpose.
Answer:
False. Jasmine is used for ornamental purpose.

Question 4.
Cotton cloth is not suitable for summer season.
Answer:
False. Cotton cloth is suitable for summer season.

Question 5.
Sugarcane is used as bio fuel.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following :

Question 1.

1. Fibre yielding plant – Chloramine
2. Hardwood – Spice
3. Neem – Hemp
4. Clove – Cereals
5. Millet – Teakwood

Answer:

1. Fibre yielding plant – Hemp
2. Hardwood – Teakwood
3. Neem – Chloramine
4. Clove – Spice
5. Millet – Cereals

V. Analogy :

Question 1.
mango : fruit:: maize : _______
Answer:
cereals.

Question 2.
coconut: fibre :: rose : _______
Answer:
ornamental.

Question 3.
Bees: Polinate insect:: earthworms : _______
Answer:
Natural manure

VI. Give Very Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is food?
Answer:
Any nutritious substance that people or animals eat or drink or that plants absorb in order to maintain life and growth is called Food.

Question 2.
What are the medicinal plants?
Answer:
Plants that have ingredients which can be used in drug preparation are known as medicinal plants. (Eg.) Tulsi, Neem etc.

Question 3.
How hardwoods differ from softwoods?
Answer:
Hardwoods:

1. Present in angiosperms (flowering plants)
2. It is used to prepare furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction.
3. Example: Teak, Jackfruit.

Softwoods:

1. Present in gymnosperm (non-flowering plants)
2. It is used to produce plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
3. Example: Katampu, Pine

Question 4.
What is spice?
Answer:
Spices are the aromatic parts of tropical plant traditionally used to flavour food. Bark, roots, leaves, flowers or stems of certain plants primarily used for flavouring colouring or preserving food.
(Eg.) roots – vetiver,
leaves – curry leaves
seeds – fenugreek
flower bud – clove

Question 5.
Name any three medicinal plants, which are available in your area?
Answer:
Neem tree, Tulsi tree, Amla tree are the medicinal plants.

Question 6.
What are the uses of timber?
Answer:

1. A timer is used in the construction of buildings, making of furniture
2. It is used in making fibreboard, paper making.

VII. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
What is a symbiotic relationship?
Answer:

1. The relationship between animals and plants, benefiting both of them is known as a symbiotic relationship.
2. (Eg.) Silkworms – feeding on Mulberry leaves – produce silk fibres.
3. Honey bee – feed on pollen and honey of plants – Agents of cross-pollination and form vegetables and fruits along with honey.

Question 2.
Write the uses of neem?
Answer:

1. Neem leaf is used for leprosy, eye disorders, intestinal worms, stomach upset, skin ulcer, diseases of heart and blood vessels, fever, diabetes and liver problem.
2. Neem flowers can be used to treat intestinal worm.
3. Neem oil is rich in vitamin E and fatty acid. It helps to improve skin elasticity.

Question 3.
Name any five plants and their parts that we eat.
Answer:

1. Carrot, Beetroot and radish – Taproots
2. Potato, Ginger, Turmeric – Underground stem
3. Curry leaves, Coriander leaves – Leaves
4. Drum stick – Leaves, Unripe fruit and bark.
5. Paddy, Wheat, Maize and Ragi – Seeds

VIII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Write short notes on – Timber yielding plants.
Answer:

1. The wood needed for the construction of buildings and making of furniture are obtained from certain plants.
2. We use wood for these purposes due to their features like durability, stylish finishing and resistance to temperature changes.
3. All commercial timbers are classified into two classes as Hardwoods and softwoods based essentially on their structure.

i. Hardwoods:
Hardwoods are angiosperms (flowering plants), the largest group of land plants. High-quality furniture, decks, flooring and wooden construction are being made only using hardwood. Example: Teak, Jackffuit.

ii. Softwoods:
Softwoods come from gymnosperm (non-flowering plants) trees. Certain angiosperms also yield softwood.
Softwoods have a wide range of applications such as making plywood, wooden boxes, medium-density Fibreboard (MDF) and paper making.
Example: Katampu, Pine.

Question 2.
Comment on the importance of plant-animal interaction.
Answer:
Animal – Plant interactions :

1. Animals and birds play an important role in spreading seeds of various plants.
2. The digestive enzymes in the digestive system of the birds soften the protective layer of the seeds and make it easier to germinate.
3. If this natural relationship between animals and plants are affected, it shows its impact on the economy too.

IX. Questions based on Higher Order Thinking Skills :

Question 1.
Desert does not have water. Why? Give the reason?
Answer:

1. Most deserts get less than 10 inches of rainfall each year.
2. The evaporation rate is higher than the rainfall.
3. In the desert, there is little water available for plants (cactus-like) and other organisms.
4. Cactus like plants and animals living in such areas are adapted to save water and to endure drought.
   (Eg.) Cactus Camel etc.

Question 2.
Kavitha said, “Palm tree is a tall tree, so it gives hardwood”! Do you agree with her statement (or) not? Explain Why?
Answer:
No. I don’t agree with her statement.

1. Palm tree is technically neither hardwood nor softwood.
2. It comes from a separate family known as Arecaceae.
3. It has significantly different cellular structure from either soft or hardwoods

Question 3.
Look at the diagram given below and answer the following questions,
a. Soil fertility is increased by bacteria. How?

Answer:
Bacteria like Pseudomonas are used to fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil for agriculture. So they increase the soil fertility.

b. Honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants. Why?

Answer:

1. Bees are the best pollinators. Bright colour of flower, smell and honey attract honey bees.
2. The bees go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their legs.
3. It results in cross pollination takes place and the formation of vegetable and fruit. So honey bees are essential for the reproduction of the plants.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Intext Activities

Activity 1

Question 1.
Tabulate the names of vegetables, Cereals and pulses you know.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 2

Question 1.
How do Rava, Maida, Sago and Vermicelli are made? Discuss with your friends.

Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 3

Question 1.
Ask your parents about the medicinal uses of plants such as Phylanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vettiver, Thuthuvalai and make a write up. What are the other plants used for medicinal purpose in your area?
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Activity 4

Question 1.
Take a small quantity of cotton swap. Hold in between your thumb and fore finger. Now, gently Start pulling out the cotton, while continuously twisting the Fibres.
Are you able to make a yam?

The process of making yam from Fibres is called Spinning.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Plants in Daily Life Additional Questions

I. Choose the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
From the earliest time ______ have been the staple food of India.
i. Rice
ii. Millet
iii. Oats
iv. Pulses.
(a) i and ii
(c) i and iv
(b) ii and iii
(d) i and iii
Answer:
(a) i and ii

Question 2.
Rava uppuma is made of
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Millet
(d) Sorghum
Answer:
(b) Wheat

Question 3.
For making rope, fibres are obtained from _______ free.
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Coconut
(d) Jack fruit
Answer:
(c) Coconut

Question 4.
The wealth of any country largely depends upon its
(a) Educational development
(b) Agricultural development
(c) Industrial development
(d) Political development
Answer:
(b) Agricultural development

Question 5.
________ are the best for pollinations.
(a) Housefly
(b) Mosquito
(c) Birds
(d) Honeybees
Answer:
(d) Honeybees

Question 6.
Carpentry works depend on
(a) Medicinal plants
(b) Fibre plants
c) Ornamental plants
(d) Timber plants
Answer:
(d) Timber plants

Question 7.
We obtain _______ from plants for making tyre, seats etc.
(a) Plastic
(b) Rubber
(c) Pencil
(d) Wood
Answer:
(b) Rubber

Question 8.
Neem coated urea releases _______ gradually and helps the plants.
(a) Oxygen
(b) Carbon
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Sulphur
Answer:
(c) Nitrogen

II. Fill up the blanks:

1. Plants, based on their economic values and uses, may be broadly classified into _______ categories.
2. The heartbeat of an Indian kitchen is _______
3. We get food from roots is _______
4. _______ are secured in Pods.
5. India is the _______ largest producer of fruits and vegetables.
6. Some medicinal plants like _______ are used to produce medicines.
7. For making mattresses _______ is used.
8. _______ alone accounts for over 50% of raw jute production.
9. Hardwoods are _______ the largest group of land plants.
10. To decorate houses we are planting climber plant like _______
11. _______ are economically useful for us in silk production.
12. _______ are used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
13. Indian scientists have made a _______ formulation from the Palak to cure Osteoarthritis.

Answers:

1. six
2. Spices
3. Carrot
4. Pulses
5. Second
6. Fungi
7. Silk cotton
8. West Bengal
9. Angiosperms
10. Mullai
11. Silkworms
12. Blue gree algae
13. Nano

III. True or False. If False, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
The useful Hardwoods and Softwoods are given by fibre plants.
Answer:
False. The useful hardwoods and softwoods are given by timber plants.

Question 2.
In the cabbage the edible part is leaves.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food.
Answer:
True.

Question 4.
Cardamom and black pepper are pulses.
Answer:
False. Cardamom and black pepper are spices.

Question 5.
In turmeric, the Rhizome part is used to help body to fight foreign invaders.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
The process of making yam from fibres is called yam production.
Answer:
False. The process of making yam from fibres is called spinning.

Question 7.
Hibiscus trees are used to decorate houses.
Answer:
False. Hibiscus shrubs are used to decorate houses.

Question 8.
Plants and algae living in coral reefs are the food for variety of fishes.
Answer:
True.

IV. Analogy:

Question 1.
Tomato : Vegetable :: Wheat: _______
Answer:
Pulses

Question 2.
Roots as food : Beetroot:: Stem as food : _______
Answer:
Potato

Question 3.
Spices : Cardamom :: Medicinal plant: _______
Answer:
Amla

Question 4.
Protect from scurvy : Amla :: Bronchitis, expectorant: _______
Answer:
Tulsi

Question 5.
Leaf fibres : Agave :: Husk fibres : _______
Answer:
Coconut.

Question 6.
Hardwoods: angiosperm
Soft woods : _______
Answer:
Gymnosperm.

Question 7.
Shrubs : Crape Jasmine :: Climbers : _______
Answer:
Allamanda.

Question 8.
Fix nitrogen in the soil: Pseudomonas :: Produce bio-fuel: _______
Answer:
Jatropha.

V. Match the following :

A.

Answer:
i – c
ii – a
iii – b
iv – e
v – d.

B.

Answer:
i – d
ii – e
iii – a
iv – b
v – c.

VI. Give Short Answer:

Question 1.
Define – Economic botany.
Answer:
Economic botany is the study of the relationship between people and plants and the uses of plants in the economy.

Question 2.
Name the plant from which we get cordage or rope?
Answer:
Fibres got from coconut stem, stalk of the compound leaf and husk fibres of the coconut are the sources from which cordage or rope is processed.

Question 3.
Define – Cereals.
Answer:
Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

Question 4.
Why do we consider cotton as cash crop?
Answer:

1. Cotton give textile fibres used for making garments or dress materials or fabric.
2. 80% cotton is used in making fabrics or cotton mixed fabrics.
3. Because of its large scale cultivation, manufacture and industry if is a commercially very important plant. So known as cash crop.

Question 5.
Name some medicinal plants.
Answer:
The medicinal plants are Phyllanthus, Vallarai, Black nightshade, Tippili, Vetiver, Thuthuvalai, Neem and Tulsi.

Question 6.
What are the specialities of Teak Wood?
Answer:

1. Teak is a hardwood, durable and strong.
2. Teak central wood is deposited with gum, resin oil etc and so strong that it can’t be destroyed by termites and other insects.
3. Doors, windows, roof and railway sleeper wood and cots are made out of it.

Question 7.
Classify the Fibre yielding parts based on the plant parts.
Answer:

1. Plant Fibres include seed hairs – Cotton.
2. Stem Fibres – Flax, jute.
3. Leaf Fibres – Agave.
4. Husk Fibres – Coconut.

Question 8.
Name some states in which jute crop is grown.
Answer:
Jute crop is grown in seven states – West Bengal, Assam, Odisha, Bihar, UttarPradesh, Tripura and Meghalaya.

Question 9.
Classify the Ornamental plants.
Answer:

1. Shrubs – Hibiscus, Crape Jasmine and Crotons
2. Climbers – Mullai, Allamanda and Bougainvilleam
3. Trees – Golden shower tree, Mandarai, Delonix tree

Question 10.
How pollination takes place by insects?
Answer:
Bright colured flowers, smell and honey attract insects. As the insects go from one flower to another they leave the pollen grains from their body. This results in cross pollination.

Question 11.
Define – Osteoarthritis.
Answer:
Osteoarthritis is a joint disease affecting joints and knee in old age and any age people. Pala spinach is used to cure the disease.

VII. Answer in detail :

Question 1.
Classify the plants as food with example.
1. Vegetables
2. Cereals
3. Pulses
Plants also give us coffee, tea, sugar and raw materials for oil.

1. Vegetables: We get vegetables from different parts of the plants.
Roots : eg : Beetroot, Carrot.
Leaves : eg : Curry Leaves, Cabbage.
Stems : eg : Potato, Yam.
Flowers : eg : Banana flower, Cauliflower.
Fruits : eg : Amla, Guava.

2. Cereals : Cereals are edible components of grain of cultivated grass.
Example : Rice, Wheat, Bajra, Millet.

3. Pulses : (i) Pulses are edible seeds of plants legume family. Pulses are secured in pods.
(ii) Example : Bengal gram, Green mung bean.

4. Spices : Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants traditionally used to flavour the food. Spices come from the bark1 or roots of certain plants, leaves, flowers, or stems of plants primarily used for flavoring, coloring or preserving food.

Spices used in India : Following spices are included in a variety of Indian dishes Cardamom, black pepper, curry leaves, fenugreek, fennel, ajwain, bay leaves, cumin, coriander seeds, turmeric, cloves, ginger, nutmeg, and cinnamon.

Question 2.
Give any five medicinal plants and their medicinal use.
Answer:
Here is a list of plants that have the highest medicinal value.

Question 3.
Give other uses of plants.
Answer:

1. Maintain soil fertility – Plants maintain soil fertility. Plants like blue green algae and bacteria like Pseudomonas are also extensively used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.
2. Prevent soil erosion – Plants when grown in dense will prevent soil erosion. This is prevented by plants if grown around.
3. Bio-fuels – Some plants are also grown for the sake of bio-fules. Plant fuel is less toxic as it does not emit harmful gases and also less expensive. Ex : Jatropha. Even the plant waste is used to generate electricity. Ex : Sugar mills.
4. Rubber and Natural Plastic – Natural plastics and rubber are also produced from plants.
5. Neem oil coated Urea – Neem coated urea releases nitrogen gradually and helps the plants to absorb maximum nitrogen. It reduces the impact of urea on the environment.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 4 South Indian Kingdoms

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Who among the following built the VaikundaPerumai temple?
(a) Narasimhavarma II
(b) Nandivarma II
(c) Dantivarman
(d) Parameshvaravarma
Answer:
(b) Nandivarma II

Question 2.
Which of the following titles were the titles of Mahendra Varma I?
(a) Mattavilasa
(b) Vichitra Chitta
(c) Gunabara
(d) all the three

Question 3.
Which of the following inscriptions describes the victories of Pulakesin II ?
(a) Aihole
(b) Saranath
(c) Sanchi
(d) Junagath
Answer:
(a) Aihole

II. Read the statement and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Statement I : Pallava art shows transition from rock-cut monolithic structure to stone built temple.
Statement II : Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram is an example of Pallava art and architecture.
a. Statement I is wrong.
b. Statement II is wrong,
c. Both the statements are correct
d. Both the statements are wrong.
Answer:
(c) Both the statements are correct

Question 2.
Consider Hie following statement! about Pallava Kingdom.
Statement I : Tamil literature flourished under Pallava rule, with the rise in popularity of Thevaram composed by Appar.
Statement II : Pallava King Mahendi avarman was the author of the play MattavilasaPrahasana.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer:
b. II only

Question 3.

Consider the following statements about the Rashtrakuta dynasty and find out which of the following statements are correct.

1. It was founded by Dantidurga.
2. Amogavarsha wrote Kavirajmarga.
3. Krishna I built the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.

a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the three
Answer:
(d) all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
a. Ellore caves – Rashtrakutas
b. Mamallapuram – Narasimhavarma I
c. Elephanta caves – Ashoka
d. Pattadakal – Chalukyas
Answer:
(c) Elephanta caves – Ashoka

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
a. Dandin – Dasakumara Charitam
b. Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba
c. Bharavi – Kirataijuneeyam
d. Amogavarsha – Kavirajamarga
Answer:
b. Vatsyaya – Bharathavenba

III. Fill in the blanks :

1. _______ defeated Harsha Vardhana on the banks of the river Narmada.
2. _______ destroyed Vatapi and assumed the title Vatapikondan
3. _______ was the author of Aihole Inscription.
4. _______ was the army general of Narasimhavarma I.
5. The music inscriptions in _______ and _______ show Pallavas’ interest in music.

Answer:

1. Pulakesin II
2. Narasimhavarma
3. Ravikirti
4. Paranjothi
5. Kudumianmalai, Thirumayam temples

IV. Match the following:

1. Pallavas – a. Kalyani
2. Eastern Chalukyas – b. Manyakheta
3. Western Chalukyas – c. Kanchi
4. Rashtrakutas – d. Vengi

Answer:

1. c
2. d
3. a
4. b

V. State True or False :

1. The famous musician Rudracharya lived during Mahendravarma I.
2. The greatest king of the Rashtrakuta dynasty was Pulakesin II.
3. Mamallapuram is one of the UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
4. Thevaram was composed by Azhwars.
5. The Virupaksha temple was built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha Temple.

Answer:

1. True
2. False
3. True
4. False
5. True

VI. Answer in one or two sentences.

Question 1.
Name the three gems of Kannada literature.
Answer:
The three gems of Kannada literature were Pampa, Sri Ponna and Raima.

Question 2.
How can we classify the Pallava architecture?
Answer:

1. Rock – cut temples
2. Mahendravarman style
3. Monolithic Rathas and sculptural Mandapas – Mamallan Style
4. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style

Question 3.
What do you know of Gatika?
Answer:

1. Gatika means monastery or Centre of learning.
2. It was popular during the Pallava times at Kanchi.
3. It attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
4. Vatsyaya who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at kanchi (Gatika). Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain.

Question 4.
Panchapandavar rathas are monolithic rathas. Explain
Answer:

1. The five rathas (chorits), Popularly called panchapandavar rathes, signify five different style of temple architecture.
2. Each rather has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.

Question 5.
Make a note on Battle of Takkolam.
Answer:

1. Krishna III was the last able ruler of Rashtrakuta dynasty,
2. He defeated the Cholas in the battle of Takkolam (presently in Vellore Dt) and captured Thanjavur.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Examine Pallavas’ contributions to architecture.
Answer:

1. 1. Pallava period is known for architectural splendour.
   2. Pallava’s architecture can be classified as
2. Rock-cut temples – Mahendravarman style.
3. Monlithic Rathas and Sculptural Mandapas – Mamallan style.
4. Structural Temples – Rajasimhan style and Nandivarman style.

1. Mahendravarman Style:

The best example of MahendraVarma style monuments are cave temples at Mandagapattu, Mahendravadi, Mamandur, Dalavanur, Tiruchirapalli, Vallam, Tirukazhukkundram and Siyamangalam.

2. Mamalla Style:

1. The five rathas (chariots), popularly called Panchapandavar rathas, signify five different style of temple architecture.
2. Each ratha has been carved out of a single rock.
3. So they are called monolithic.
4. The popular mandapams they built are Mahishasuramardhini mandapam, Thirumoorthi mandapam and Varaha mandapam.
5. The most important among the Mamalla style of architecture is the open art gallery.

3. Rajasimha Style and Nandivarma Style :

1. Narasimhavarma II, also known as Rajasimha, constructed structural temples using stone blocks.
2. The best example of the structural temple is Kailasanatha temple at Kanchipuram.
3. This temple was built by using sand stones.
4. Kailasanatha temple is called Rajasimheswaram.
5. The last stage of the Pallava architecture is also represented by structural temples built by the later Pallavas.
6. The best example is Vaikunda Perumal temple at Kanchipuram.

Question 2.
Write a note on Elephanta island and Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Answer:
Elephanta island:

1. Elephanta is an island near Mumbai. It is originally known as Sripuri and the local people called Gharapuri.
2. The Portuguese named it as Elephanta after seeing the image.
3. The Trimurthi Siva icon and the images of dwarapalakas are seen in the cave temple.

Kailasanatha temple at Ellora:

1. Krishna I built Kailasanatha temple. It was one of the 30 temples carved out at Ellora.
2. The temple covers an area of over 60,000 sq.feet and vimanam rises to a height of 90 feet.
3. It portrays typical Dravidian features and has a resemblance of the shore temple at Mamllapuram.

VIII. HOTS :

Question 1.
Give an account on Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Answer:
Western Chalukyas of Kalyani:

1. They were the descendants of Badami Chalukyas ruled from Kalyani (modem day Basavakalyan).
2. In 973, Tailapa II, a feudatory of the Rashtrakuta mling from Bijapur region, defeated Parmara of Malwa.
3. Tailapa II occupied Kalyani and his dynasty quickly grew into an empire under Someswara I.
4. Someswara I moved the capital from Manyakheta to Kalyani.
5. For over a century, both the Chalukyas and the Cholas fought many fierce battles to control the fertile region of Vengi.
6. In the late 11th century, under Vikramaditya VI, vast areas between the Narmada river in the north and Kaveri river in the South came under Chalukya control.
7. The Kasi Vishwesvara Temple at Lakkundi, the Mallikaijuna temple at Kuruvatti, the Kalleshwara temple at Bagali and the Mahadeva temple at Itagi represent well known examples of the architecture of Western Chalukyas of Kalyani.

X. Activity:

Question 1.
a. Sketch the biography of Mahendravarma 1 and Pulakesin 11.
Answer:
Mahendravarma I :

1. Mahendravarma I (600-630 CE) was a Pallava king.
2. He was the son of Simhavishnu.
3. During his reign the Chalukya king Pulakesin II attacked the Pallava kingdom. He was succeeded by his son Narasimavarma I.
4. He was a great patron of art and literature amongst the Pallavas.
5. In the inscription at the Mandagapattu rock cut temple hails him as Vichitrachitta.
6. It is claimed that the temple was built without wood, brick, mortar or metal
7. He authorsed the play Mattavilasa Prahasana
8. He was initially a patron of Jain faith but converted to Saiva faith under the influence of Saiva Saint Appar.

Pulakesin – II:

1. Pulakesin II (610-642 CE) was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi (present day Badami in Karnataka).
2. During his reign, the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover most of the Deccan region in Peninsular India.
3. He was the son of the Chalukya king Kirttivarman-I.
4. The most notable military achievement of Pulakesin was his victory over Harshavardhana.
5. He got defeated by Narasimha varma I, who attained the title “Vatapikondan’.
6. Pulakesin was a Vaishnavite, but was tolerant to other faiths including Shaivism, Buddhism and Jainism.
7. He patronised several scholars including Ravikirtti, who composed his Aihole inscription.

b. See the picture and write a few sentences on it.

Arjunas’ Penance :

1. This magnificent relief, carved in the mid-seventh century, measures approximately 30m long and 15m high.
2. Its huge size and scale is difficult to imagine from photographs.
3. A person, standing on the ground in front of it, could barely touch the elephants’ feet.
4. The subject is either Arjuna’s penance or the Descent of the Ganges.
5. The composition of the relief includes the main elements of the story and the scenes of the natural and celestial worlds.
6. Arjuna stands on one leg, his arms upraised in a Yoga posture.

XI. Answer Grid :

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science South Indian Kingdoms Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Kalabhras were defeated by ________
(a) Simhavarman-II
(b) Simhavishnu
(c) Narasimhal
(d) Mahendravarman
Answer:
(b) Simhavishnuj

Question 2.
The central part of the Pallava kingdom.
(a) Thondaimandalam
(b) Kongumandalam
(c) Pandya mandalam
(d) Kumarimandalam
Answer:
(a) Thondaimandalam

Question 3.
The Konkan coast was brought under the Chalukyas by
(a) Kirtivarman I
(b) Kirtivarman II
(c) Vikramaditya I
(d) Vikramaditya III
Answer:
(a) Kirtivarman I

Question 4.
The new capital of Rashtrakutas
(a) Manyakheta
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Broach
(d) Pattadakl
Answer:
(a) Manyakheta

Question 5.
Vakataka style was used in ______.
(a) painting
(b) Dance
(c) Music
(d) Cave Temple
Answer:
(a) painting

II. Match the statement with reason and tick the appropriate answer :

Question 1.
Statement I :The cave temples at Badami contain fine sculptures of Vishnu.
Statement II :The Mallikarjuna temple at Kuruvatti was built by the Rashtrakutas.
a. Statement I is wrong.
b. Statement II is wrong.
c. Both the statements are correct
d. Both the statements are wrong
Answer:
(b) Statement II is wrong!

Question 2.
Consider the following statements about Pattadakal and find out the – correct statements.
Statement I :Pattadakal is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
Statement II :It has ten temples.
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
Answer:
c. Both I and II

Question 3.
Consider the following statement about the Mamalla style and find out which of the following statements are correct.

1. The five rathas are called monolithic.
2. The most important Mamalla style of architecture is the open art gallery.
3. Several miniature sculptures are found on the wall,

a. I only b.
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. all the three
Answer:
d. all the three

Question 4.
Which of the following is not a correct pair?
a. Thondai mandalam – Pallavas
b. Mahendra style – Dravidian
c. Simhavishnu – Vatapikondan
d. Paranjothi – Siruthondar
Answer:
c. Simhavishnu – Vatapikondan

Question 5.
Find out the wrong pair
a. Parantaka – Cholas
b. Amoga varsha – Manyakheta
c. Rashtrakutas – Ellora
d. Kasi Vishwesvara – Pallavas
Answer:
d. Kasi Vishwesvara – Pallavas

III. Fill in the blanks:

1. The Jain Narayana temple was built by the _______
2. There are impressive images of at the entrance of _______ the cave temple of Elephanta.
3. Kailasanatha temple portrays typical _______ features
4. Adipurana depicts the life of _______
5. Vikramaijuna Vijaya was written by _______
6. Krishna III built the Krishneswara temple at _______
7. Dahtidurga was an official of high rank under the _______
8. The Vishnu temple at Badami was built by _______
9. The Persian _______ King sent an embassy to the court of Pulakesin II
10. Nalayira divyaprabandam was composed by _______

Answer:

1. Rastrakutas
2. Dwarapalakas
3. Drvidian
4. Rishabadeva
5. Adikavi Pampa
6. Rameshwaram
7. Chalukya
8. Mangalesa
9. Khusru II
10. Azhwars

IV. Match :

1. Vatapi – i. Kirtivarman II
2. Shore Temple – ii. Kalyani
3. Dakshin Chitram – iii. Chalukyas
4. Dantidurga – iv. Mahendravarman I
5. omeswara I – v. Mamallpuram

Answer:

1. – iii
2. – v
3. – iv
4. – i
5. – ii

V. True or False

1. Narasimhavarman I was also known as Rajasimha.
2. Kailasanatha temple at Kanchi is known as Rajasimheswaram.
3. Bharathavenba was written in Tamil.
4. The first Eastern Chalukya ruler was Vishnuvaradhana.
5. Rashtrakutas adopted the Vakataka style in paintings.

Answer:

1. False
2. True
3. True
4. True
5. False

VI. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What formed Thondaimandalam?
Answer:

1. The central part of the Pallava kingdom was Thonadimandalam.
2. It covered a large political region comprising the northern parts of Tamil Nadu and the adjoining Andhra district.

Question 2.
What do you know about the literary work of Mahendravarma?
Answer:

1. Mahendravarman wrote plays including Mattavilasa Prahasana.
2. The play wrote in Sanskrit denigrates Buddhism.

Question 3.
Write about Siruthondar.
Answer:

1. Narsimhavarman-I’s army general was Paranjothi.
2. He was popularly known as Siruthondar (one of the 63 Nayanmars).
3. Paranjothi led the Pallava army during the invasion of Vatapi.
4. After the victory he had a change of heart and devoted himself to Lord Siva.

Question 4.
‘Vesara style’ – Explain.
Answer:

1. During the Chalukya period a new style of architecture known as ‘Vesera’ was developed.
2. Versa is a combination of south Indian (Dravida) and north Indian (Nagara) building styles.

Question 5.
What is the significance of the Aihole inscription?
Answer:

1. Aihole inscription is found at Meguti temple in Aihole (Bagalkot district, Karnataka).
2. It is written in Sanskrit by Ravikirti, a court poet of Chalukya king Pulakesin II.
3. It makes a mention of the defeat of Harsha by Pulakesin II.

VII. Answer the following :

Question 1.
Write a note on Pattadakal.
Answer:

1. Pattdakal is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
2. It is a small village in Bagalkot district of Karnataka.
3. It has ten temples.
4. Out of them, four were built in northern style (Nagara), while the rest six are in the southern (Dravida) style.
5. Virupaksha Temple and Sangameshwara Temple are in Dravida style and Papanatha temple is in Nagara style.
6. The Virupaksha temple is built on the model of Kanchi Kailasanatha temple.
7. Sculptors brought from Kanchi were employed in its construction

Question 4.
Mention the contribution of Rashtrakutas to literature.
Answer:

1. Kannada language became more prominent.
2. Kavirajamarga composed by Amogavarsha was the first poetic work in Kannada language.
3. Court poets produced eminent works in Kannada.
4. The three gems of Kannada literature during the period were Pampa, Sri Ponna and Raima.
5. Adikavi Pampa was famous for his creative works Adipuranaand Vikramaijunavijaya.
6. The life of Rishabadeva, the first Jain Tirthankara is depicted in Adipurana.
7. In Vikramarjunavijaya Pampa’s patron, Chalukya Arikesari, is identified with Arjuna, epic hero of Mahabharatha.

Question 3.
Write about education and literature under the Pallavas.
Answer:

1. Gatika (monastery or centre of learning) at Kanchi was popular during the Pallava times and it attracted students from all parts of India and abroad.
2. Vatsyaya who wrote Nyaya Bhashya was a teacher at Kanchi.
3. The treatise on Dakshin Chitram was compiled during the reign of Mahendravarma I.
4. The greatest Sanskrit Scholar, Dandin, lived in the court of Narasimhavarma I. Dandin composed Dashakumara Charita.
5. Bharavi, the author of the epic Kiratarjuniya, lived in the time of Simhavishnu.
6. Tamil literature has also flourished during the Pallava rule. Thevaram was composed by Nayanmars and Nalayiradivyaprabantham by Azhwars.
7. Perundevanar, patronized by Narasimhavarman II, translated the Mahabharata into Tamil as Bharathavenba.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Understanding Disaster

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Textual Evaluation

I. Answer in brief :

Question 1.
Define Disaster.
Answer:

1. A disaster is a serious disruption of the functioning of a society involving human and material loss.
2. Disaster is broadly classified into natural and man-made disasters.

Question 2.
What were the subjects taught at Nalanda University?
Answer:

1. Buddhism
2. Yoga
3. Vedic literature
4. Medicine

Question 3.
Write a short note on ‘Thunder and lightning’.
Answer:

1. Thunder is a series of sudden electrical discharge resulting from atmospheric conditions.
2. This discharge results in sudden flashes of light and trembling sound waves which are commonly known as thunder and lightning.

Question 4.
Highlight the achievement of Guptas in metallurgy.
Answer:

1. The achievement of Guptas in metallurgy was the Mehrauli Iron pillar. King Chandragupta installed it in Delhi.
2. This pillar has lasted through the centuries without rusting.

Question 5.
Name the three kinds of tax collected during the Harsha’s reign.
Answer:

1. Bhaga
2. Hiranya
3. Bali

II. Answer in a paragraph:
Question 1.
What is flood? Explains the do’s and don’ts during floods.
Answer:
(i) An overflow of a large amount of water, beyond its normal limits, especially on the rainfed areas is called a flood.
(ii) During floods – Do’s.

(a) To find out the settlement area whether it is to be affected by flood or not.
(b) Keeping radio, torch and additional batteries, storing drinking water, dry foods items, salt and sugar. Safeguarding materials like kerosene, candle, match box, clothes and valuable things.
(c) Keeping umbrella and bamboo poles.
(d) Keeping first aid box and strong ropes to bind things.
(e) To dig canals from the farm land, to drain the excessive water, keeping sand bags etc.

(iii) During floods – Don’ts.
(a) Try to connect electricity once it is cut.
(b) Operate vehicles.
(c) Swim against floods.
(d) Avoid going on excursions.
(e) Neglect flood warning messages.

III. Activity

Make a flood plan:
On a piece of paper, draw your village/town map roughly. Locate your home, school and playground on the map. Then draw the rivers/stream/lake and road, located nearest to your village/town. Answer the questions listed below.

Question 1.
Which areas and roads would be mostly affected by flood?
Answer:

1. Floods can happen on flat or low-lying areas when water is supplied by rainfall or snowmelt more rapidly than it can either infiltrate or run off.
2. The excess accumulates in place, sometimes to hazardous depths.
3. Surface soil can become saturated, which effectively stops infiltration, where the water table is shallow, such as a floodplain, or from intense rain from one or a series of storms.
4. Infiltration also is slow to negligible through frozen ground, rock, concrete.
5. Areas near water bodies such as lake, river, etc. are also affected by flood.

Question 2.
Can you find out evacuation route?
Answer:

1. In order to avoid great losses and fatality affected by flooding, an evacuation route is to be found out.
2. A study of non physical mitigation, i.e. to establish some alternatives of evacuation routes to some temporary shelters is to be conducted well in advance.
3. A research on the selected several evacuation routes, with the help of Geographic Information System (GIS) can be done.
4. The research can be conducted by analyzing the flood magnitude, inundation area, population density, settlement concentration, temporary shelter locations, topographic condition and existing road system.

Question 3.
If you live in a flood-prone area, what are the precautionary measures you hav e to take during heavy rains?
Answer:
Precaution measures:

1. Listen to the weather reports from Radio, TV, etc.
2. Do not wait until you see rising water.
3. Get out of low areas subject to flooding.
4. If driving, do not drive through flooded roadways!

Be prepared to evacuate:

1. Identify places to go. .
2. Identify alternative travel routes that are not prone to flooding.

Protect your property:

1. Move valuables and furniture to higher levels.
2. Disconnect electrical appliances. Do not touch them if you are wet or standing in water.
3. Bring outside possessions indoors or tie them down securely.
4. Seal vents to basements to prevent flooding.

Question 4.
What are things that you should have in your ‘Go- Kit’ / ‘Drive -away kit’?
‘Go-Kit’ – emergency kit should include some of the following items:
Answer:

1. Drinking water containers.
2. Food that does not require cooking.
3. Cash.
4. Medications and first aid supplies.
5. Clothing, Blanket, toiletries.
6. Battery-powered radio.
7. Flashlights.
8. Extra batteries.
9. Important documents: insurance papers, medical records, bank account numbers.

Question 5.
Make a Hst of emergency numbers. (‘Go-kit’-A kit prepared by and for an Individual
or group who expects to develop It in alternative locations during emergency)
Answer:
The following are the list of Emergency help line telephone numbers:

1. Police – 100
2. Police SMS – 9500099100
3. Fire Service / Rescue Service – 101
4. Traffic Police – 103
5. Accidents – 100,103
6. Traffic Police SMS – 9840000103
7. Ambulance Service – 102, 108
8. Women Help line – 1091
9. Child Help line – 1098
10. Emergency & Accidents – 1099
11. Senior Citizen Help line – 1253
12. Emergency Help line in National Highways – 1033
13. Coastal Emergency Help line – 1093
14. Blood Bank Emergency Help line – 1910
15. Eye Bank Emergency Help line – 1919.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Social Science Understanding Disaster Additional Questions

I. Fill in the blanks:

1. Stampede is a _________ disaster
2. Avalanches are_________ disaster.
3. The point where an earthquake originate is called its_________
4. Volcanoes are_________where lava erupts.
5. The waves generated by earthquake and volcanic eruptions are called _________
6. A low pressure area which encircled by high-pressure wind is called _________
7. Tsunami Early Warning System was established at Hyderabad in _________
8. Floods that occur within six hours during heavy rainfall are known as _________
9. The lessening of the adverse impacts of hazards and related disasters is _________
10. Rain fed area is primarily supported with _________

Answer:

1. Manmade
2. Natural
3. focus
4. openings/vents
5. Tsunami
6. Cyclones
7. 2007
8. flash floods
9. Mitigation
10. rain water

II. Match the following.

Answer:

1. – iv
2.  – i
3. – v
4. – ii
5. – iii

III. Choose the correct pair:

a. Floods – (i) Massive waves up to 30 m.
b. Cyclone – (ii) Lava
c. Avalanches – (iii) ice, snow and rock fall
d. Landslide – (iv) Low pressure
Answer:
(c) Avalanches – iii) ice, snow and rock fall.

Question 2.
Statement I : Do not go to the Coast to watch Tsunami.
Statement II : During floods drink cold water.
Find out the correct option.
a) I & II are correct
b) I & II are wrong
c) I is correct
d) II is correct
Answer:
(c) I is correct.

Question 3.
Assertion (A) : Man made disasters involve human and material loss.
Reason (R) : The stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, causing
suffocation and trampling.
a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is gives the correct explanation.
b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not giving the correct explanation of (A)
c) Both (A) and (R) are correct
d) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is gives the correct explanation

IV. Give short answers to the following questions.

Question 1.
What does the World Disaster Report say?
Answer:

1. The latest development which has been discovered in the World Disaster Reports recently is that the disasters have increased in frequency and intensity.
2. India is one of the most disaster-prone countries of the world.

Question 2.
Explain the terms focus and epicentre.
Answer:

1. The point where an earthquake originate is called its focus.
2. The vertical point at the surface from the focus is called epicentre.

Question 3.
What are Volcanoes?
Answer:
Volcanoes are openings or vents where lava, small rocks and steam erupt on to the Earth’s surface.

Question 4.
Define Tsunami.
Answer:
Tsunami are waves generated by earthquake, volcanic eruptions and underwater landslides.

Question 5.
Explain the term cyclones.
Answer:
A low pressure area which encircled by high-pressure wind is called a cyclone.

Question 6.
Mention the types of floods.
Answer:
a) Flash floods : Such floods that occur within six hours during heavy rainfall.
b) River floods : Such floods are caused by Precipitation over large catchment areas or by melting of snow.
c) Coastal floods : Sometimes floods are associated with cyclone high tides and tsunami.

Question 7.
What are the causes of floods?
Answer:
Causes of floods are :

1. Torrential Rainfall
2. Encroachment of the rivers bank
3. Excessive rainfalls in rivers catchment.
4. Inefficient engineering design in the construction of embankments, dams, and canals.

Question 8.
Mention the effects of floods.
Answer:
The effects of the floods are :

1. Destruction of drainage system
2. Water pollution
3. Soil erosion
4. Stagnation of water
5. Loss of agricultural land and cattle
6. Loss of life and spread of contagious diseases.

Question 9.
What is Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR)
Answer:
Disaster Risk Reduction :

1. The practice of reducing disaster risks through systematic efforts to analyze and manage the causal factors of disasters.
2. There are four key approaches to public awareness for disaster risk reduction.
3. Campaigns, participatory learning, informal education, and formal school based interventions.

V. Give brief answers for the following:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on man made disaster.
Answer:

1. Fire : Massive forest fires may start in hot and dry weather as a result of lightning and human carelessness or from other causal factors.
2. Destruction of buildings : Demolition of buildings by human activities.
3. Accidents in industries : Chemical, biological accidents that occur due to human error, (e.g.) Bhopal gas tragedy.
4. Accidents in Transport : Violation of road rules, carelessness cause accidents
5. Terrorism : The social unrest or differences in principles leads to terrorism
6. Stampede : The term stampede is a sudden rush of a crowd of people, usually resulting in injuries and death from suffocation and trampling.

Question 2.
What do you know about the society during the Gupta rule?
Answer:

1. The society that adhered to four vama system was patriarchal.
2. ‘Manu’ was in force.
3. Women should be under the protection of their father, husband or eldest son.
4. Polygamy was widely prevalent. The kings and feudatory lords often had more than one wife.
5. Sati was practised during the Gupta rule.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 7 Parts of Computer

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Which one of the following is an output device?
(a) Mouse
(b) Keyboard
(c) Speaker
(d) Pendrive
Answer:
(c) Speaker

Question 2.
Name the cable that connects CPU to the Monitor
(a) Ethernet
(b) Power cord
(c) HDMI
(d) USB
Answer:
(b) Power cord

Question 3.
Which one of the following is an input device?
(a) Speaker
(b) Keyboard
(c) Monitor
(d) Printer
Answer:
(b) Keyboard

Question 4.
Which one of the following is an example for wireless connections?
(a) Wi-Fi
(b) Electric wires
(c) VGA
(d) USB
Answer:
(a) Wi-Fi

Question 5.
Pen drive is _______ device
(a) Output
(b) Input
(c) Storage
(d) Connecting cable
Answer:
(c) Storage

II. Match the following:

1. VGA – Input device
2. Bluetooth – Connecting cable
3. Printer – LDMI
4. Keyboard – Wireless connection
5. HDMI – Output device

Answer:

1. VGA – Connecting cable
2. Bluetooth – Wireless connection
3. Printer – Output device
4. Keyboard – Input device
5. HDMI – LDMI

III. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Name the parts of a computer.
Answer:
Input unit (keyboard, mouse, scanner), Central Processing Unit (CPU),
Output unit (monitor, printer, speaker) are the parts of computer.

Question 2.
Bring out any two differences between input and output devices.
Answer:
Input device:

1. It helps to send the data and commands for the processing.
2. Example: Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Barcode reader, web-camera, Microphone-mic

Output device:

1. The output unit converts command received by the computer in the form of binary signals into easily understandable characters.
2. Example : Monitor, Printer, Speaker, Scanner

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Intext Activities

Activity 1

(Look at the magic of connecting cables to desktop computer with 4,3,2,1 formula, start from 4 proceed till 1. Now your computer is ready to use). By connecting the various parts of a computer we can assemble a computer. For the construction activity, students have to use 4-3-2-1 formula. A system consist of mouse, key board, monitor, CPU, power cables, and connecting cables Students has to connect the four parts of a computer in row 4, using the cables in row 3, through the power cables in row 2 to construct a system.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Science Parts of Computer Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The _______ is used to move the pointer on a computer screen.
(a) Pendrive
(b) Microphone
(c) Mouse
(d) Scanner
Answer:
(c) Mouse

Question 2.
The page on the monitor can be moved up and down using the .
(a) Scroll ball
(b) Left button
(c) Right button
Answer:
(a) Scroll ball

Question 3.
Memory can be expanded externally with the help of _______
(a) Compact Disc
(b) Mouse
(c) Keyboard
(d) Light pen
Answer:
(a) Compact disc

Question 4.
Micro computer is also known as ………
(a) Desktop computer
(b) Personal computer
(c) Laptop
(d) Tablet
Answer:
(b) Personal computer

Question 5.
To connect the speaker to the computer, is used.
(a) mic cable
(b) Audio jack
(c) power cord
(d) Data cable
Answer:
(b) Audio jack

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The data is processed in the _______
2. The output unit converts, commend received by the computer in the form of _______
3. The Computer system which has _______ monitor, emits less heat.
4. _______ computer comes under the micro computer.
5. As the computer is connected with one another, it is also called as _______
6. To connect the Mic to the CPU _______ is used.

Answers:

1. CPU
2. binary signals
3. TFT
4. personal
5. system
6. mic wire/cord

III. Give short answer:

Question 1.
Give some examples of input devices.
Answer:
Keyboard, Mouse, Scanner, Barcode Reader, Microphone, Web camera, Light pen are some input devices.

Question 2.
What are the two types of keys in key board?
Answer:
Keyboard has two types of keys namely number keys and alphabet keys.

Question 3.
Give the uses of right and left button of mouse.
Answer:
Right button is used to select files and to open folder. Left button is used to carryout corrections in the file.

Question 4.
What are the parts of CPU?
Answer:
CPU has three parts, namely

1. Memory unit
2. Arithmetic logic unit. (ALU)
3. Control unit.

Question 5.
Define: Memory unit.
Answer:
The memory unit in the computer saves all data and information temporarily.

Question 6.
Give some examples of output device.
Answer:
Monitor, Printer, Speaker, Scanner are some of the output device.

Question 7.
Name of types of monitors.
Answer:
There are two types of monitors, namely

1. Cathode Ray Tube monitors (CRT)
2. Thin Film Transistor monitors (TFT)

Question 8.
How is a computer classified?
Answer:
A Computer can be classified as follows:

1. Main frame Computer
2. Mini Computer
3. Micro or personal Computer
4. Super Computer

Question 9.
What are the types of Personal Computer?
Answer:
Personal Computer can be classified into three types.

1. Desk top
2. Laptop
3. Tablet.

Question 10.
What is the use of Ethernet?
Answer:
Ethernet cable helps to establish internet connectivity.

Question 11.
Give two examples of wireless connection.
Answer:
Blue tooth and WiFi are used to connect internet without using cables.

Question 12.
What is the use of Bluetooth?
Answer:
Mouse, Keyboard can be connected to the computer using the bluetooth. Using the Bluetooth, the data can be shared with nearby devices.

Question 13.
What is the use of Wi-Fi?
Answer:
Net connectivity can be obtained using the WiFi without any connecting cables. Any data from anywhere can be shared using WiFi.

IV. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the types of connecting cables? Describe them.
Answer:
Types of Cables:

• Video Graphics Array (VGA)
• High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI)
• Universal Serial Bus (USB)
• Data cable
• Power Cord
• Mic cable
• Ethernet cable

1. VGA cable It is used to connect the computer monitor with the CPU.
2. USB cable /cord Devices like Printer, Pendrive, Scanner, Mouse, Keyboard, web camera, and Mobile phone devices are connected with the computer using USB cord or cable.
3. HDMI cable HDMI cable transmits high quality and high bandwidth streams of audio and video. It connects monitor, projector with the computer.
4. Data cable Data cable transmits data and it is used to connect tablet, mobile phones to the CPU for data transfer.
5. Audio jack The audio jack is used to connect the speaker to the computer.
6. Power cord Power cord temporarily connects an appliance to the main electricity supply.
7. Mic cable To connect the Mic to the CPU, Mic wire/cord is used.
8. Ethernet Ethernet cable helps to establish internet connectivity.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 18 Tamil Computing Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 18 Tamil Computing

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Computer Tamil Computing Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Answer to the following questions

Question 1.
List of the search engines supporting Tamil.
Answer:
Google and Bing provide searching facilities in Tamil, which means you can search everything through Tamil. A Google search engine gives you an inbuilt Tamil virtual keyboard.

Question 2.
What are the keyboard layouts used in Android?
Answer:
Sellinam and Ponmadal – are familiar Tamil keyboard layouts that works on Android operating system in Smart phone using phonetics.

Question 3.
Write a short note about Tamil Programming Language.
Answer:
Based on Python programming language, the first Tamil programming language “Ezhil” (எழில்) is designed. With the help of this programming language, you can write simple programs in Tamil.

Question 4.
What TSCII?
Answer:
TSCII (Tamil Script Code for Information Interchange) is the first coding system to handle our Tamil language in an analysis of an encoding scheme that is easily handled in electronic devices, including non – English computers. This encoding scheme was registered in IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) unit of ICANN.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Tamil Virtual Academy.
Answer:
With the objectives of spreading Tamil to the entire world through internet, Tamil Virtual University was established on 17th February 2001 by the Govt, of Tamil Nadu. Now, this organisation is functioning with the name “Tamil Virtual Academy”. This organisation offers different courses regarding Tamil language, Culture, heritage etc., from kindergarten to under graduation level.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Tamil Computing Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Human civilization developed with the innovation of computer in the ……………
(a) 11th century
(b) 13th century
(c) 16th century
(d) 20th century
Answer:
(d) 20th century

Question 2.
…………… is not just a language, it is our identity, our life and our source.
(a) English
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Tamil
(d) Hindi
Answer:
(c) Tamil

Question 3.
Getting government services through internet is known as ……………
(a) e – library
(b) e – govemance
(c) Tamil programming language
(d) Tamil translation applications
Answer:
(b) e – govemance

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is e – governance?
Answer:
Getting Government services through internet is known as e – Govemance. Govt, of Tamil Nadu has been giving its services through Internet. One can communicate with Govt, of Tamil Nadu from any comer of the state. One can get important announcements, government orders, and government welfare schemes from the web portal of Govt. of. Tamil Nadu.

Question 2.
Write short notes on e – library.
Answer:
E – Libraries are portal or website of collection of e – books. Tamil e – Library services provide thousands of Tamil Books as ebooks mostly at free of cost. It is the most useful service to Tamil people who live far away from their home land.

Question 3.
Explain Tamil translation applications.
Answer:
Thamizpori (தமிஸ்ப்பூரி) is a Tamil translation application having more than 30000 Tamil words equalent to English words. Using this application, we can translate small English sentences into Tamil. Google also gives an online translation facility, using this online facility we can translate from Tamil to any other language and vice versa.

Question 4.
Define Tamil office automation application.
Answer:
Famous Office automation software like Microsoft Office, Open Office etc., provides complete Tamil interface facility. These softwares are downloadable and installed in your computer. After installation, your office automation software environment will be completely changed to Tamil. Menu bars, names of icons, dialog boxes will be shown in Tamil. Moreover, you can save files with Tamil names and create folders with Tamil names.

Question 5.
Explain ISCII
Answer:
Indian Script Code for Information Interchange (ISCII ), is one of the encoding schemes specially designed for Indian languages including Tamil. It was unified with Unicode.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is Unicode?
Answer:
Unicode is an encoding system, designed to handle various world languages, including Tamil. Its first version 1.0.0 was introduced on October 1991. While introduction of this scheme, can be able to handle nearly 23 languages including Tamil. Among the various encoding scheme, Unicode is the suitable to handle Tamil.

Question 2.
Define tamil typing and interface software.
Answer:
Tamil is mostly used to type documents in word processors and search information from internet. Typing Tamil using Tamil interface software is the familiar one among the different. methods of typing. This is the simplest method of typing Tamil in both Computer and Smart phones.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Tamil in internet.
Answer:
Internet is the best information technological device, through which we get know everything from Internet. In 2017 a study conducted by KPMG a Singapore based organization along with google, reported that, Tamil topped the list, among the most widely used languages in India where 42% are using the Internet in Tamil.
Moreover in 2021 onwards, 74% of people in India will access internet using Tamil and it will be in the top usage of Internet in India.

Question 4.
Explain Tamil operating system?
Answer:
An operating system is needed to access electronic systems such as computer and smart phone. Microsoft Windows is very popular operating system for personal computers. Linux is another popular open source operating system. Operating systems are used to access a computer easily. An operating system should be easy to work and its environment should be in understandable form. Thus, all operating systems used in computers and smart phones offered environment in Tamil.

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 17 Computer Ethics and Cyber Security

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following deals with procedures, practices and values?
(a) piracy
(b) programs
(c) virus
(d) computer ethics
Answer:
(d) computer ethics

Question 2.
Commercial programs made available to the public illegally are known as ……………….
(a) freeware
(b) warez
(c) free software
(d) software
Answer:
(b) warez

Question 3.
Which one of the following are self – repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves?
(a) viruses
(b) worms
(c) spyware
(d) Trojans
Answer:
(b) worms

Question 4.
Which one of the following tracks a user visiting a website?
(a) spyware
(b) cookies
(c) worms
(d) Trojans
Answer:
(b) cookies

Question 5.
Which of the following is not a malicious program on computer systems?
(a) worms
(b) Trojans
(c) spyware
(d) cookies
Answer:
(d) cookies

Question 6.
A computer network security that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing traffic is ……………….
(a) cookies
(b) virus
(c) firewall
(d) worms
Answer:
(c) firewall

Question 7.
The process of converting cipher text to plain text is called ……………….
(a) Encryption
(b) Decryption
(c) key
(d) proxy server
Answer:
(b) Decryption

Question 8.
e – commerce means ……………….
(a) electronic commerce
(b) electronic data exchange
(c) electric data exchange
(d) electronic commercialization
Answer:
(a) electronic commerce

Question 9.
Distributing unwanted e-mail to others is called.
(a) scam
(b) spam
(c) fraud
(d) spoofing
Answer:
(b) spam

Question 10.
Legal recognition for transactions are carried out by ……………….
(a) Electronic Data Interchange
(b) Electronic Data Exchange
(c) Electronic Data Transfer
(d) Electrical Data Interchange
Answer:
(a) Electronic Data Interchange

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is harvesting?
Answer:
A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others account(s).

Question 2.
What are Warez?
Answer:
Shareware publishers encourage users to give copies of programs to friends and colleagues but ask everyone who uses that program regularly to pay a registration fee to the program’s author directly. Commercial programs that are made available to the public illegally are often called warez.

Question 3.
Write a short note on cracking.
Answer:
Cracking is where someone edits a program source so that the code can be exploited or modified. “Cracking” means trying to get into computer systems in order to steal, corrupt, or illegitimately view data.

Question 4.
Write two types of cyber attacks.
Answer:
Cyber Attack:

1. Virus
2. Worms

Function:

1. A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
2. Worms are self – repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.

Question 5.
What is a Cookie?
Answer:
A cookie (also called HTTP cookie, web cookie, Internet cookie, browser cookie, or simply cookie) is a small piece of data sent from a website and stored on the user’s computer memory (Hard drive) by the user’s web browser while the user is browsing internet.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is the role of firewalls?
Answer:
A firewall is a computer network security based system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined security rules. A firewall commonly establishes a block between a trusted internal computer network and entrusted computer outside the network. They are generally categorized as network – based or host – based. Network based firewalls are positioned on the gateway computers of LANs [local area Network], WANs [Wide Area Network] and intranets.

Question 2.
Write about encryption and decryption.
Answer:
Encryption and decryption are processes that ensure confidentiality that only authorized persons can access the information. Encryption is the process of translating the plain text data (plaintext) into random and mangled data (called cipher – text). Decryption is the reverse process of converting the cipher – text back to plaintext. Encryption and decryption are done by cryptography. In cryptography a key is a piece of information (parameter) that determines the functional output of a cryptographic algorithm.

Question 3.
Explain symmetric key encryption.
Answer:
Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption. The main disadvantage of the symmetric key encryption is that all authorized persons involved, have to exchange the key used to encrypt the data before they can decrypt it. If anybody intercepts the key information, they may read all messages.

Question 4.
What are the guidelines to be followed by any computer user?
Answer:
Generally, the following guidelines should be observed by computer users:

1. Honesty : Users should be truthful while using the internet.
2. Confidentiality : Users should not share any important information with unauthorized people.
3. Respect : Each user should respect the privacy of other users.
4. Professionalism : Each user should maintain professional conduct.
5. Obey The Law : Users should strictly obey the cyber law in computer usage.
6. Responsibility : Each user should take ownership and responsibility for their actions.

Question 5.
What are ethical issues? Name some.
Answer:
An Ethical issue is a problem or issue that requires a person or organization to choose between alternatives that must be evaluated as right (ethical) or wrong (unethical). These issues must be addressed and resolved to have a positive influence in society.
Some of the common ethical issues are listed below:

1. Cyber crime
2. Software Piracy
3. Unauthorized Access
4. Hacking
5. Use of computers to commit fraud.
6. Sabotage in the form of viruses.

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What are the various crimes happening using computer?
Answer:
Crime:

1. Crime Function
2. Cyber stalking
3. Malware
4. Harvesting
5. Identity theft
6. Intellectual property theft
7. Salami slicing

Function:

1. Hacking, threats, and blackmailing towards a business or a person.
2. Harassing through online.
3. Malicious programs that can perform a variety of functions including stealing, encrypting or deleting sensitive data, altering or hijacking core computing functions and monitoring user’s computer activity without their permission.
4. A person or program collects login and password information from a legitimate user to illegally gain access to others’ account(s).
5. It is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals, usually for financial gain.
6. Stealing practical or conceptual information developed by another person or company.
7. Stealing tiny amounts of money from each transaction.

Question 2.
What is piracy? Mention the types of piracy? How can it be prevented?
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes:
1. stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

2. Downloading software from illegal network sources.
An entirely different approach to software piracy is called shareware, acknowledges the futility of trying to stop people from copying software and instead relies on people’s honesty.

Shareware publishers encourage users to give copies of programs to friends and colleagues but ask everyone who uses that program regularly to pay a registration fee to the program’s author directly. To prevent unauthorized access, Firewalls, Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS), Virus and Content Scanners, Patches and Hot fixes are used.

Question 3.
Write the different types of cyber attacks.
Answer:
Cyber Attack:

1. Virus
2. Worms
3. Spyware
4. Ransomware

Function:

1. A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
2. Worms are self – repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.
3. Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.
4. Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber – attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Computer Ethics and Cyber Security Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
A moral code that is evaluated as right is ………………..
(a) piracy
(b) viruses
(c) cracking
(d) ethics
Answer:
(d) ethics

Question 2.
……………….. is a crime where the criminals impersonate individuals for financial gain.
(a) intellectual property theft
(b) Identity theft
(c) Salami slicing
(d) Spoofing
Answer:
(b) Identity theft

Question 3.
Stealing data from a computer system without the knowledge or permission is called ………………..
(a) warez
(b) hacking
(c) cracking
(d) phishing
Answer:
(b) hacking

Question 4.
One of the most common virus is ………………..
(a) Ransomware
(b) Spyware
(c) worms
(d) Trojan
Answer:
(d) Trojan

Question 5.
……………….. is the intermediary between the end users and a web browser.
(a) Firewall
(b) Proxy server
(c) Cookies
(d) Warez
Answer:
(b) Proxy server

PART – 2
II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is hacking?
Answer:
Hacking is intruding into a computer system to steal personal data without the owner’s permission or knowledge (like to steal a password). It is also gaining unauthorized access to a computer system, and altering its contents.

Question 2.
What is proxy server? Explain its working.
Answer:
A proxy server acts as an intermediary between the end users and a web server. A client connects to the proxy server, requesting some service, such as a file, connection, web page, or other resources available from a different server. The proxy server examines the request, checks authenticity and grants the request based on that. Proxy servers typically keep the frequently visited site addresses in its cache which leads to improved response time.

Question 3.
Mention any 2 reasons as to why the websites use cookies?
Answer:

1. To collect demographic information about who has visited the Web site.
2. It helps to personalize the user’s experience on the Website.

Question 4.
What is meant by MITM?
Answer:
Man – in – the – middle attack (MITM; also Janus attack) is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other.

Question 5.
Define software piracy.
Answer:
Software Piracy is about the copyright violation of software created originally by an individual or an institution. It includes stealing of codes / programs and other information illegally and creating duplicate copies by unauthorized means and utilizing this data either for one’s own benefit or for commercial profit.

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is cyber crime?
Answer:
A cyber – crime is a crime which involves computer and network. This is becoming a growing threat to society and is caused by criminals or irresponsible action of individuals who are exploiting the widespread use of Internet. It presents a major challenge to the ethical use. of information technologies. Cyber – crime also poses threats to the integrity, safety and survival of most business systems.

Question 2.
Write a short note on ethics.
Answer:
Ethics means “What is wrong and What is Right”. It is a set of moral principles that rule the behavior of individuals who use computers. An individual gains knowledge to follow the right behavior, using morals that are also known as ethics. Morals refer to the generally accepted standards of right and wrong in the society. Similarly, in cyber – world, there are certain standards such as

1. Do not use pirated software.
2. Do not use unauthorized user accounts.
3. Do not steal others’ passwords.
4. Do not hack.

Question 3.
Differentiate Spyware and Ransomware.
Answer:
Spyware:
Spyware can be installed on the computer automatically when the attachments are open, by clicking on links or by downloading infected software.

Ransomware:
Ransomware is a type of malicious program that demands payment after launching a cyber-attack on a computer system. This type of malware has become increasingly popular among criminals and costs the organizations millions each year.

Question 4.
What are the types of encryption?
Answer:
There are two types of encryption schemes as listed below:
1. Symmetric Key encryption : Symmetric encryption is a technique to use the same key for both encryption and decryption.

2. Public Key encryption : Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption

Question 5.
Write down the points to be noted to be safe from cyber crime.
Answer:
To protect the information the following points to be noted:

1. Complex password setting can make your surfing secured.
2. When the internet is not in use, disconnect it.
3. Do NOT open spam mail or emails that have an unfamiliar sender.
4. When using anti – virus software, keep it up – to – date.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Explain public key encryption and asymetric encryption in digital certificate.
Answer:
Public key encryption is also called Asymmetric encryption. It uses the concept of a key value pair, a different key is used for the encryption and decryption process. One of the keys is typically known as the private key and the other is known as the public key. The private key is kept secret by the owner and the public key is either shared amongst authorized recipients or made available to the public at large.

The data encrypted with the recipient’s public key can only be decrypted with the corresponding private key. A digital certificate in a client – server model of communication is one of the example of Asymmetric Encryption. A certificate is a package of information that identifies a user and a server.

It contains information such as an organization’s name, the organization that issued the certificate, the users’ email address and country, and user’s public key. When a server and a client require a secure encrypted communication, they send a query over . the network to the other party, which sends back a copy of the certificate. The other party’s public key can be extracted from the certificate. A certificate can also be used to uniquely identify the holder.

Question 2.
Write short notes on:

1. Spam
2. Fraud
3. Cyber stalking
4. Spoofing
5. Virus
6. Worms

Answer:

1. Spam : Distribute unwanted e – mail to a large number of internet users.
2. Fraud : Manipulating data, for example changing the banking records to transfer money to an unauthorized account.
3. Cyber stalking : Harassing through online.
4. Spoofing : It is a malicious practice in which communication is send from unknown source disguised as a source known to the receiver.
5. Virus : A virus is a small piece of computer code that can repeat itself and spreads from one computer to another by attaching itself to another computer file. One of the most common virus is Trojan.
6. Worms : Worms are self – repeating and do not require a computer program to attach themselves. Worms continually look for vulnerabilities and report back to the author of the worm when weaknesses are discovered.

Question 3.
Explain digital signature with a functional diagram.
Answer:
Digital signatures are based on asymmetric cryptography and can provide assurances of evidence to origin, identity and status of an electronic document, transaction or message, as well as acknowledging information given by the signer. To create a digital signature, signing software (email) creates a one – way hash of the electronic data to be signed.

The user’s private key to encrypt the hash, returning a value that is unique to the hashed data. The encrypted hash, along with other information such as the hashing algorithm, forms the digital signature. Any change in the data, even to a single bit, results in a different hash value. This attribute enables others to validate the integrity of the data by using the signer’s public key to decrypt the hash.

If the decrypted hash matches a second computed hash of the same data, it proves that the data hasn’t changed since it was signed. If the two hashes don’t match, the data has either been tampered with in some way (indicating a failure of integrity) or the signature was created with a private key that doesn’t correspond to the public key presented by the signer (indicating a failure of authentication).

Students can Download Computer Science Chapter 15 Polymorphism Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Solutions Chapter 15 Polymorphism

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Science Polymorphism Text Book Back Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which of the following refers to a function having more than one distinct meaning?
(a) Function Overloading
(b) Member overloading
(c) Operator overloading
(d) Operations overloading
Answer:
(a) Function Overloading

Question 2.
Which of the following reduces the number of comparisons in a program?
(a) Operator Overloading
(b) Operations overloading
(c) Function overloading
(d) Member overloading
Answer:
(c) Function overloading

Question 3.
void dispchar(char ch = ‘$\ int size=10)
{

for(int i = 1;i< = size;i ++)
cout << ch;

}
How will you invoke the function dispchar() for the following input?
To print $ for 10 times
(a) dispchar();
(b) dispchar(ch,size);
(c) dispchar($,10);
(d) dispchar(T, 10 times);
Answer:
(c) dispchar($,10);

Question 4.
Which of the following is not true with respect to function overloading?
(a) The overloaded functions must differ in their signature.
(b) The return type is also considered for overloading a function.
(c) The default arguments of overloaded functions are not considered for overloading.
(d) Destructor function cannot be overloaded.
Answer:
(d) Destructor function cannot be overloaded.

Question 5.
Which of the following is invalid prototype for function overloading
(a) void fun (intx);
void fun (char ch);
(b) void fun (intx);
void fun (inty);
(c) void fun (double d);
void fun (char ch);
(d) void fun (double d);
void fun (inty);
Answer:
(a) void fun (intx);
void fun (char ch);

Question 6.
Which of the following function(s) combination cannot be considered as overloaded function(s) in the given snippet?
void print(char A,int B); // F1
void printprint(int A, float B); // F2
void Print(int P=10); // F3
void printQ; // F4
(a) F1, F2, F3, F4
(b) F1, F2, F3
(c) F1, F2, F4
(d) F1, F3, F4
Answer:
(d) F1, F3, F4

Question 7.
Which of the following operator is by default overloaded by the compiler?
(a) *
(b) +
(c) + =
(d) = =
Based on the following program answer the questions (8) to (10)
#include
using namespace std;
class Point {
private:
int x, y; .
public:
Point(int x1,int y1)
{

x=x1;y=y1;

}
void operator+(Point & pt3);
void show() {cout << “x =” << x << “y =” << y; }
};
void Point: :operator + (Point & pt3)
{

x+=pt3.x;
y += pt3.y;

}
int main()
{

Point pt1(3, 2),pt2(5, 4);
pt1+pt2;
pt1.show();
return 0;
}

Answer:
(b) +

Question 8.
Which of the following operator is overloaded?
(a) +
(b) Operator
(c) : :
(d) =
Answer:
(a) +

Question 9.
Which of the following statement invoke operator overloading?
(a) pt1 + pt2;
(b) Point pt1(3, 2),pt2(5, 4);
(c) ptl.show();
(d) return 0;
Answer:
(d) return 0;

Question 10.
What is the output for the above program?
(a) x = 8, y = 6
(b) x = 14, y = 14
(c) x = 8, y = 6
(d) x = 5, y = 9
Answer:
(d) x = 5, y = 9

PART – 2
II. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What is function overloading?
Answer:
The ability of the function to process the message or data in more than one form is called as function overloading. In other words function overloading means two or more functions in the same scope share the same name but their parameters are different.

Question 2.
List the operators that cannot be overloaded.
Answer:
Operator that are not overloaded are follows:

1. scope operator ::
2. sizeof
3. member selector.
4. member pointer selector *
5. ternary operator ?:

Question 3.
class add{int x; public: add(int)}; Write an outline definition for the constructor.
Answer:
add (int temp)
{

x = temp;

}

Question 4.
Does the return type of a function help in overloading a function?
Answer:
No. The return type of overloaded functions are not considered for overloading same data type.

Question 5.
What is the use of overloading a function?
Answer:
Function overloading is not only implementing polymorphism but also reduces the number of comparisons in a program and makes the program to execute faster. It also helps the programmer by reducing the number of function names to be remembered.

PART – 3
III. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What are the rules for function overloading?
Answer:
Rules for function overloading:

1. The overloaded function must differ in the number of its arguments or data types.
2. The return type of overloaded functions are not considered for overloading same data type.
3. The default arguments of overloaded functions are not considered as part of the parameter list in function overloading.

Question 2.
How does a compiler decide as to which function should be invoked when there are many functions? Give an example.
Answer:
When you call an overloaded function (when there are many functions with same name), the compiler determines the most appropriate definition to use by comparing the argument types used to call the function with the parameter types specified in the definitions. The process of selecting the most appropriate overloaded function or operator is called overload resolution.
Example:
#include using namespace std; void print (int i)
{

cout<< “It is integer” <<i<< endl;

}

void print (string c)

{

cout<< “It is string”<< c << endl;

}
int main ()
{

print (10);
print (“Good”);
return 0;

}
Output:
It is integer 10
It is string Good

Question 3.
What is operator overloading? Give some example of operators which can be overloaded.
Answer:
The term operator overloading, refers to giving additional functionality to the normal C++ operators like It is also a type of polymorphism in which an operator is overloaded to give user defined meaning to it.

For example ‘+’ operator can be overloaded to perform addition on various data types, like for Integer, String (concatenation) etc.

Question 4.
Discuss the benefit of constructor overloading?
Answer:
Function overloading can be applied for constructors, as constructors are special functions of classes. A class can have more than one constructor with different signature. Constructor overloading provides flexibility of creating multiple type of objects for a class.

1. Memory is allocated for the objects.
2. Initialisation for the objects.

Question 5.
class sale ( int cost, discount ;public: sale(sale &); Write a non inline definition for constructor specified;
Answer:
class sale
{

int cost, discount;
public:
sale (sale&);

};
// non inline constructor
sale: : sale(sale&s)
{

cost = s.cost;
discount = s.discount;

}

PART – 4
IV. Answers to all the questions

Question 1.
What are the rules for operator overloading?
Answer:
Following are some rules to be followed while implementing operator overloading.

1. Precedence and Associativity of an operator cannot be changed.
2. No new operators can be created, only existing operators can be overloaded.
3. Cannot redefine the meaning of an operator’s procedure. You cannot change how integers are added. Only additional functions can be to an operator.
4. Overloaded operators cannot have default arguments.
5. When binary operators are overloaded, the left hand object must be an object of the relevant class.

Question 2.
Answer the question (i) to (v) after going through the following class.
classBook
{
intBookCode ; char Bookname[20];float fees;
public:
Book() //Function 1
{
fees = 1000;
BookCode = 1;
strcpy (Bookname, “C++”);
}
void display(float C) //Function 2
{
cout << BookCode << “:”<< Bookname << “:”<< fees << endl;
~ Book() //Function 3
{
cout << “End of Book Object”<< endl;
}

Book (intSC, char S[ ], float F); //Function 4

};
1. In the above program, what are Function 1 and Function 4 combined together referred as?
2. Which concept is illustrated by Function3? When is this function called/ invoked?
3. What is the use of Function3?
4. Write the statements in main to invoke functionl and function2
5. Write the definition for Function4.
Answer:

1. Constructor overloading (function 1 and function 4 are constructors with different signatures in the class book)
2. Function 3 is destructor of the class. Function 3 is executed when the object of the class book goes out of scope.
3. Function 3 is destructor of the class.
   • Destructor (function3) will free resources if any that the object may have acquired during its lifetime
   • Destructor function removes the memory of an object which was allocated by the constructor at the time of creating an object. Thus frees the unused memory.
4. book b;
   b.display (4.5);
5. Book: :Book (int sc.char.s[], float, F) // Function 4
   {
   Book Code = SC
   strcpy (Book name, S);
   fees = F;
   }

Question 3.
Write the output of the following program.
Answer:
include
using namespace std;
class Seminar
{
int Time;
public:
Seminar()
{

Time = 30; cout << “Seminar starts now” << endl;

}
void Lecture()
{
cout << “Lectures in the seminar on”<< endl;
}
Seminar(int Duration)
{

Time=Duration;cout<< “Welcome to Seminar”<<endl;

}
Seminar(Seminar &D)
{

Time=D.Time;cout<< “Recap of Previous Seminar Content”<<endl;

}
~Seminar()
{
cout<< “Vote of thanks”<<endl;
}
};
int main()
{

Seminar s1, s2(2), s3(s2);
s1.Lecture();
return 0;

}
Output:
Seminar starts now
Welcome to seminar
Recap of previous seminar content
Lectures in the seminar on
Vote of thanks
Vote of thanks
Vote of thanks

Question 4.
Debug the following program.
Answer:

Corrected Program

Output
Enter string: God
Enter string: Bless
First string is: God
Second string is: Bless
Concatenated string is: God Bless

Question 5.
Answer the questions based on the following program
#include
#include
using namespace std;
class comp
{
public:
char[10];
void getstring(char str[10])
{
strcpy(s,str);
}
void operator = = (comp);
};
void comp::operator = = (comp ob)
{
if(strcmp(s,ob.s) = = 0)
cout << “\nStrings are Equal”;
else
cout<< “\nStrings are not Equal”;
}
int main()
{
comp ob, ob1;
char stringl[10], string2[10];
cout << “Enter First String:”; cin >> string1;
ob.getstring(string1);
cout<< “\n Enter Second String:”; cin >> string2;
ob1.getstring(string2);
ob = = obi;
return 0;
}
(i) Mention the objects which will have the scope till the end of the program.
(ii) Name the object which gets destroyed in between the program.
(iii) Name the operator which is over loaded and write the statement that invokes it.
(iv) Write out the prototype of the overloaded member function.
(v) What types of operands are used for the overloaded operator?
(vi) Which constructor will get executed? Write the output of the program.
Answer:
(i) Objects: ob and obi of main ()
(ii) object ob of void operator = = (comp ob);
(iii) Overloaded operator: = =
Statement that invokes: ob = = ob1;
(v) void operator = = (comp ob):
(v) Operands used are the objects of the class comp
(vi) The default constructor generated by the compiler will be executed.[comp();]

Output 1
Enter first string: hello Enter second string: hello String are equal

Output 2
Enter first string: hello Enter second string: fine String are not equal.

Samacheer kalvi 11th Computer Science Arrays and Structures Additional Questions and Answers

PART – 1
I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The number and types of a function’s parameters are called the …………………
(a) overload resolution
(b) function’s signature
(c) function overloading
(d) operator overloading
Answer:
(b) function’s signature

Question 2.
The process of selecting the most appropriate overloaded function or operator is called …………………
(a) overload resolution
(b) prototype
(c) polymorphism
(d) operator overload
Answer:
(a) overload resolution

Question 3.
The return type of overloaded functions are not considered for overloading same …………………
(a) polymorphism
(b) prototype
(c) data type
(d) overloading
Answer:
(c) data type

Question 4.
………………… cannot have default arguments.
(a) Operator overloading
(b) Overloaded operators
(c) Function overloading
(d) prototype
Answer:
(b) Overloaded operators

Question 5.
The mechanism of giving special meaning to an operator is known as …………………
(a) operator overloading
(b) parameter
(c) function overloading
(d) polymorphism
Answer:
(a) operator overloading

Question 6.
Operator overloading provides new definitions for most of the ………………… operators.
(a) *
(b) + = =
(c) +
(d) C++
Answer:
(d) C++

Question 7.
The overloaded operator is given using the keyword ………………… followed by an operator symbol.
(a) operator
(b) data type
(c) object
(d) function
Answer:
(a) operator

PART – 2
II. Very Short Answers

Question 1.
Give the syntax for operator overloading.
Answer:
RetumType classname :: Operator Operator Symbol (argument list)
{

\\ Function body

}
Example: Deposit Deposit: : operator + (Deposit dl);

Question 2.
Write a program for function overloading.
C++ Program to demonstrate function overloading
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
void print(int i)
{cout << “It is integer” << i <<endl;}
void print(double f)
{ cout << “It is float” << f <<endl;}
void print(string c)
{ cout << “It is string” << c <<endl;}
int main() {

print(10);
print(10.10);
print(“Ten”);
return 0;

}
Output:
It is integer 10
It is float 10.1
It is string Ten

PART – 3
III. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is function signature?
Answer:
The ability of the function to process the message or data in more than one form is called as function overloading. It implies that two or more functions in the same scope share the same name but their parameters are different. In this situation, the functions that share the same name are said to be overloaded and the process is called function overloading. The number and types of a function’s parameters are called the function’s signature.

Question 2.
Explain overload resolution.
Answer:
When you call an overloaded function, the compiler determines the most appropriate definition . to use, by comparing the argument types you have used to callthe function with the parameter types specified in the definitions. The process of selecting the most appropriate overloaded function or operator is called overload resolution.

PART – 4
IV. Explain in Detail

Question 1.
Give the output of the following program.
Answer:

Output:
value of x is 7
value of x is 9.132
value of x and y is 85,64

Question 2.
Write the coding for the following output using constructor overloading.
Output:
Constructor without parameters..
Parameterized constructor…
Copy Constructor…
Enter data… 20 30
Object a:
The numbers are..20 30
The sum of the numbers are.. 50
Object b :
The numbers are..10 20
The sum of the numbers are.. 30
Object c..
The numbers are..10 20
The sum of the numbers are.. 30
Answer:
#include
using namespace std;
class add
{
int num1, num2, sum;
public:
add()
{
cout << “\n Constructor without parameters…”;
num1 = 0;
num2 = 0;
sum = 0;
}
add (int s1, int s2 )
{
cout << “\n Parameterized constructor…”;
num1= s1;
num2=s2;
sum=0;
}
add (add &a)
{
cout << “\n Copy Constructor…”; ‘
num1 = a.num1;
num2 = a.num2;
sum = 0;
}
void getdata()
{
cout << “\n Enter data …”; cin>>num 1 >> num2;
}
void addition()
{
sum=num 1 + num2;
}
void putdata()
{
cout << “\n The numbers are..”;
cout < cout << “\n The sum of the numbers are..” << sum; }
};
int main()
{
add a, b (10, 20), c(b);
a. getdata();
a. addition();
b. addition();
c. addition();
cout << “\n Object a : “;
a. putdata();
cout << “\n Object b : “;
b. putdata();
cout << “\n Object c..”;
c. putdata();
return 0;
}

Question 3.
Write a program to find the area of a rectangle using constructor overloading in a class.
Answer:
Output:
Enter the value of length and breadth 10 20
Non parameterized constructor
area of Rectangle is 60
Parameterized constructor with one argument
area of Rectangle 8
Parameterized constructor with two argument
area of Rectangle 10
copy constructor
area of Rectangle 10