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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 Ulysses

12th English Poem Ulysses Warm Up

Introduction:
The poem ‘Ulysses’ is a dramatic monologue that contains 70 lines of blank verse. Ulysses, the king of Ithaca, gathers his men together to prepare for the journey and exhorts them not to waste their time left on earth. Ulysses has grown old, having experienced many adventures at the battle of Troy and in the seas. After returning to Ithaca, he desires to embark upon his next voyage. His inquisitive spirit is always looking forward to more and more of such adventures.

The poem can be divided into three parts:

1. the thirst for adventure, which does not allow Ulysses to remain in his kingdom as a mere ruler
2. Ulysses handing over the responsibility to his son Telemachus, with total confidence in his abilities
3. Ulysses’ clarion call to his sailors, urging them to venture into unknown lands.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Ulysses English Textual Questions

1. Complete the summary of the poem, choosing words from the list given below. Lines 1 to 32

It little profits that an idle king,
By this still hearth, among these barren crags,
Match’d with an aged wife, I mete and dole
Unequal laws unto a savage race,

That hoard, and sleep, and feed, and know not me.
I cannot rest from travel: I will drink
Life to the lees: All times I have enjoy’d
Greatly, have suffer’d greatly, both with those

That loved me, and alone, on shore, and when
Thro’ scudding drifts the rainy Hyades
Vext the dim sea: I am become a name;
For always roaming with a hungry heart

Much have I seen and known; cities of men
And manners, climates, councils, governments,
Myself not least, but honour’d of them all;
And drunk delight of battle with my peers,

Far on the ringing plains of windy Troy.
I am a part of all that I have met;
Yet all experience is an arch wherethro’
Gleams that untravell’d world whose margin fades

For ever and forever when I move.
How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnish’d, not to shine in use!
As tho’ to breathe were life! Life piled on life

Were all too little, and of one to me
Little remains: but every hour is saved
From that eternal silence, something more,
A bringer of new things; and vile it were

For some three suns to store and hoard myself,
And this gray spirit yearning in desire
To follow knowledge like a sinking star,
Beyond the utmost bound of human thought.

This is my son, mine own Telemachus,
To whom I leave the sceptre and the isle, –
Well-loved of me, discerning to fulfil
This labour, by slow prudence to make mild

A rugged people, and thro’ soft degrees
Subdue them to the useful and the good.
Most blameless is he, centred in the sphere
Of common duties, decent not to fail

offices of tenderness, and pay
Meet adoration to my household gods,
When I am gone. He works his work, I mine.
There lies the port; the vessel puffs her sail:

There gloom the dark, broad seas. My mariners,
Souls that have toil’d, and wrought, and thought with
me That ever with a frolic welcome took
The thunder and the sunshine, and opposed
Free hearts, free foreheads – you and I are old;

Old age hath yet his honour and his toil;
Death closes all: but something ere the end,
Some work of noble note, may yet be done,
Not unbecoming men that strove with Gods.

The lights begin to twinkle from the rocks:
The long day wanes: the slow moon climbs: the deep
Moans round with many voices. Come, my friends,
‘T is not too late to seek a newer world.

Push off, and sitting well in order smite
The sounding furrows; for my purpose holds
To sail beyond the sunset, and the baths
Of all the western stars, until I die.

It may be that the gulfs will wash us down:
It may be we shall touch the Happy Isles,
And see the great Achilles, whom we knew.
Tho’ much is taken, much abides; and tho’

We are not now that strength which in old days
Moved earth and heaven, that which we are, we are;
One equal temper of heroic hearts,
Made weak by time and fate, but strong in will
To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield.

Ulysses is (1) ______ to discharge his duties as a (2) ______ , as he longs for (3) ______ He is filled with an (4) ______ thirst for (5) ______ and wishes to live life to the (6) ______ He has travelled far and wide gaining (7) ______ of various places, cultures, men and (8) ______ He recalls with delight his experience at the battle of Troy. Enriched by his (9) ______ he longs for more and his quest seems endless. Like metal which would (10) ______ if unused, life without adventure is meaningless. According to him living is not merely (11) ______ to stay alive. Though old but zestful, Ulysses looks at every hour as a bringer of new things and yearns to follow knowledge even if it is (12) ______
Answers:

1. unwilling
2. king
3. adventure
4. unquenchable
5. travel
6. fullest
7. experience
8. matters
9. knowledge
10. rust
11. breathing
12. unattainable

Lines 33 to 42

Ulysses desires to hand over his (1) _____ to his son Telemachus, who would fulfil his duties towards his subjects with care and (2) _____ Telemachus possesses patience and has the will to civilise the citizens of Ithaca in a (3) _____ way. Ulysses is happy that his son would do his work blamelessly and he would pursue his (4) _____ for travel and knowledge.
Answer:

1. kingdom
2. prudence
3. tender
4. quest

Lines 44 to 70

Ulysses beckons his sailors to (1) _____ at the port where the ship is ready to sail. His companions who have faced both (2) _____ and sunshine with a smile, are united by their undying spirit of adventure. Though death would end everything, Ulysses urges his companions to join him and sail beyond the sunset and seek a newer (3) _____ , regardless of consequences. These brave hearts who had once moved (4) _____ and earth, may have grown old and weak . physically but their spirit is young and (5) _____ His call is an inspiration for all those who seek true knowledge and strive to lead (6) _____ lives.
Answers:

1. gather
2. thunder
3. world
4. heaven
5. undaunted
6. meaningful

2. Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Ulysses Poem Questions And Answers Question (а)
‘Ulysses is not happy to perform his duties as a king.’ Why?
Answer:
Ulysses is not happy to perform the ordinary duties of a king mainly because his heart is in voyages beyond horizon. He is bored with the task of enforcing law and order and giving reward and punishment to a savage race.

Ulysses Questions And Answers Question (b)
What does he think of the people of his kingdom?
Answer:
The citizen of Ithaca hoard, sleep and feed. They don’t understand the aspirations of the dreamer Ulysses.

12th English Poem Ulysses Paragraph Question (c)
What has Ulysses gained from his travel experiences?
Answer:
Ulysses has met people hailing from different cultural backgrounds. He has learnt much from their manners, climates, councils and governments. He learnt strategies of warfare in battles.

Ulysses Poem Erc Question (d)
Pick out the lines which convey that his quest for travel is unending.
Answer:
“How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!
The lines quoted above convey his quest for travel is unending.

12th English Ulysses Paragraph Question (e)
‘As tho’ to breathe were life!’ – From the given line what do you understand of Ulysses’ attitude to life?
Answer:
Ulysses strongly believes that just breathing is not life. Life has to be adventurous and full of action.

Ulysses Poem Questions And Answers Pdf Question (J)
What does Ulysses yearn for?
Answer:
Ulysses yearns for following knowledge like a sinking star beyond the utmost bound of human thought.

Ulysses Question Answer Question (g)
Who does the speaker address in the second part?
Answer:
The speaker addresses the readers in the second part explaining the difference between his roles and that of Telemachus.

Ulysses Poem Short Questions And Answers Question (h)
Why did Ulysses want to hand over the kingdom to his son?
Answer:
Ulysses finds Telemachus discerning and prudent. Besides, Ulysses is wearing the crown uneasily as the call for adventure and desire to sail beyond sunset is obsessing his mind. So, he wants to hand over the kingdom to Telemachus.

Ulysses Short Questions And Answers Question (i)
How would Telemachus transform the subjects?
Answer:
Ulysses believes that his son Telemachus is wise and kind enough to transform rugged citizens into mild and civilized subjects by his tenderness and love.

Question (j)
‘He works his work, I mine’ – How is the work distinguished?
Answer:
Telemachus would do the work of ruling Ithaca with prudence and tenderness. Ulysses will pursue his dream of adventure and try to meet great Achilles in the other world.

Question (i)
In what ways were Ulysses and his mariners alike?
Answer:
Both Ulysses and his fellow sailors are now old. They no more have the strength they possessed in olden days moving earth and heaven. They are made weak by time and fate but strong in will “to strive, to seek, to find and not to yield.” They share the heroic temper and undying quest for knowledge and adventure.

Question (j)
What could be the possible outcomes of their travel?
Answer:
The sailors and Ulysses may be washed down by the gulfs or they could touch Greek paradise and meet their hero Achilles. They may die happily braving the elements of nature.

3. Identify the figures of speech employed in the following lines.

Question (a)
“Thro” scudding drifts the rainy Hyades
Vext the dim sea…”
Answer:
The figure of speech Personification is employed in the above lines.

Question (b)
“For always roaming with a hungry heart”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (c)
“And drunk delight of battle with my peers;”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (d)
“…..the deep
Moans round with many voices.”
Answer:
Personification

Question (e)
“To follow knowledge like a sinking star.”
Answer:
Simile

Question (f)
“ There lies the port the vessel puffs her sai”
Answer:
Personification

Additional Questions

Question (a)
“I will drink life to the lees'”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (b)
“Vext the dim sea:”
Answer:
Personification

Question (c)
“Yet all experience is an arch wherethro”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (d)
“Gleams that untravell’d world whose margin fades”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (e)
“To rust unburnish’d, not to shine in use!”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (f)
“There gloom the dark, broad seas. My mariners,”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (g)
“Souls that have toil’d, and wrought, and thought with me”
Answer:
Synecdoche (part of the whole)

Question (h)
“The thunder and the sunshine, and opposed”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (i)
“T is not too late to seek a newer world.”
Answer:
Synecdoche

Question (j)
“…in order smite The sounding furrows;”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (k)
“To sail beyond the sunset, and the baths”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (l)
“It may be we shall touch the Happy Isles,”
Answer:
Allusion (in Greek mythology the place is known as Greek paradise)

Question (m)
“And see the great Achilles, whom we knew.”
Answer:
Allusion (Greek mythology)

Appreciate The Poem

4. Read the sets of lines from the poem and answer the questions that follow.

(a) “…I mete and dole
Unequal laws unto a savage race,
That hoard, and sleep, and feed, and know not me.”

Question (i)
What does Ulysses do?
Answer:
Ulysses, like a grocery shop owner, measures and delivers rewards and punishments unto a large number of uncivilized citizens.

Question (ii)
Did he enjoy what he was doing? Give reasons.
Answer:
No, he did not enjoy is work. He does not like the idea of ministering variable justice to people who like “drones” or animals just eat, sleep and multiply their kind. He wants to leave such work to his son.

Question (b)
“Yet all experience is an arch wherethrough
Gleams that untravelled world, whose margin fades
For ever and for ever when I move. ”

Question (i)
What is experience compared to?
Answer:
Experience is compared to an arch.

Question (ii)
How do the lines convey that the experience is endless?
Answer:
Through the arch of experience one can see the untravelled world. But the experience in the untravelled has a margin whose border fades as one moves forward. Thus experience is endless.

Question (c)
“Little remains: but every hour is saved
From that eternal silence, something more,
A bringer of new things; and vile it were”

Question (i)
How is every hour important to Ulysses?
Answer:
One lives in this world for a limited time. Every hour can provide new knowledge. So, every hour is very important.

Question (ii)
What does the term ‘Little remains’ convey?
Answer:
Ulysses realizes that he has become old. He has not much time left. He doesn’t want to die resting in his kingdom. He states that his remaining lifetime is very limited.

Question (d)
“This is my son, mine own Telemachus,
To whom I leave the sceptre and the isle
Well-loved of me,”

Question (i)
Who does Ulysses entrust his kingdom to, in his absence?
Answer:
Ulysses entrusts his kingdom to his beloved son Telemachus in his absence.

Question (ii)
Bring out the significance of the ‘sceptre’.
Answer:
Sceptre is an ornamental staff carried by a King on ceremonial occasions as a symbol of sovereignity. It symbolizes the power of a king.

(e) ‘‘That ever with a frolic welcome took
The thunder and the sunshine, and opposed”

Question (i)
What do ‘thunder’ and ‘sunshine’ refer to?
Answer:
Thunder and sunshine refers to misfortunes and happy days. Ulysses and his comrades had undergone both kinds of experiences.

Question (ii)
What do we infer about the attitude of the sailors?
Answer:
The sailors shared the undying quest for exploration, adventure and for seeking newer knowledge in the untravelled world. They even welcomed dangers in fighting with Gods. They enjoyed the thrill of action and never worried about the outcome of battles or quests. They have equal temper of heroic hearts.

(f) ‘‘Death closes all: but something ere the end,
Some work of noble note, may yet be done,
Not unbecoming men that strove with Gods.”

Question (i)
The above lines convey the undying spirit of Ulysses. Explain.
Answer:
Ulysses is aware of ageing and substantial decrease in his physical strength. He knows that will close in on him sooner or later. But before that happens, he wants to sail beyond the sunset/horizon and if possible meet warriors like Achilles. He wants to achieve something worthy of those who challenged and fought with Gods. Thus these lines show the undying spirit of Ulysses.

Question (ii)
Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines,
Answer:
ere, end, noble, note are the words that alliterate.

(g) “……… for my purpose holds
To sail beyond the sunset, and the baths Of all the western stars, until I die.”

Question (i)
What was Ulysses’ purpose in life?
Answer:
Ulysses proposes to sail beyond sunset and baths. His goal is not death but is in death. He seeks life in death. Ordinary mortals can’t reach ‘Happy isles’ or baths while they are alive.Ulysses wants to find direct evidence of spiritual reality after death. He wants to venture into the unknown.

Question (ii)
How long would his venture last?
Answer:
His venture would last until he confronts his death.

Question (h)
“One equal temper of heroic hearts,
Made weak by time and fate, but strong in will
To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield. ”

Question (i)
Though made weak by time and fate, the hearts are heroic. Explain.
Answer:
Ulysses and his compatriots have visited many strange places in their previous voyages and enjoyed misfortunes and glorious triumphs with the same heroic temperament. They might have become old and may not have the same strength they had in youth. But they still share the thirst for travel and pursuit of knowledge in the unexplored world. Their bravery and spiritual strength are intact.

Question (ii)
Pick out the words in alliteration in the above lines.
Answer:
Strive, seek, heroic, hearts are the words that alliterate.

5. Explain with reference to the context the following lines.

Question (a)
“I cannot rest from travel: I will drink
Life to the lees:”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: Ulysses, after spending many years in the seas returns to Ithaca and starts ruling his country. But his heart is not in the administration of his kingdom. He wants to sail again. At this context he says these words. He wishes to enjoy life to the fullest and so he can’t afford to idle away his remaining life as a king.

Question (b)
“I am become a name;
For always roaming with a hungry heart”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: Ulysses says these words while discussing the reputation he has earned among the common multitude due to his daring adventures. He has roamed the world like a hungry lion. This line has a biblical alusion as well “Blessed are they which do hunger and thirst after righteousness” – Matthew V. 6.

Though Ulysses is aware of his fame, it doesn’t motivate him to stay or settle down in the kingdom of Ithaca. His inquisitive spirit is always looking for newer knowledge through ‘the arch’ to the untravelled world.

Question (c)
“How dull it is to pause, to make an end,
To rust unburnished, not to shine in use!”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while discussing the mental agony of Ulysses who is unable to settle down with his ageing wife Penelope and son Telemachus. Ulysses finds doling out justice to a savage people as ‘boring’. He does not want to settle down and die in Ithaca. He compares himself to a sword which may rust if left unused. He wants to lead an active and adventurous life till his death.

Question (d)
“To follow knowledge like a sinking star,
Beyond the utmost bound of human thought”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the quest Ulysses has for adventure and fulfillment. Similar to a sinking star, Ulysses wants to pursue in his failing old age to pursue knowledge like the goal of Goethe’s Faust, his quest is defined by the pursuit of new and unique knowledge “beyond the utmost bound of human thought”.

Question (e)
“He works his work, I mine.’’’’
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while justifying the decision of Ulysses to pass on his kingdom to Telemachus. Ulysses explains the polar difference between himself and his son Telemachus. His son will be a ‘fair’ and ‘decent’ ruler. Unlike Ulysses, Telemachus is rooted in regular political life. He enjoys leading “savage” population and the responsibility of showing the subject better moral codes of conduct and upholding justice. Whereas Ulysses finds this “slow” and intolerable. So, he wishes his son to rule Ithaca and for himself he wishes to set sail to the unknown.

Question (f)
“….you and I are old;
Old age hath yet his honour and his toil;”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: Poet, in this part of the monologue describes the address made by Ulysses to his compatriots who were with him during “thunders and sunshine”. He admits the fact that they are growing old. But he does not want to retire like ordinary mortals. He accepts gracefully the honour befitting old age as a result of varied cultural experiences. Yet, he does not want old people to bow out of the field of action. He sincerely believes there is more work to be done, lands to be explored and newer knowledge to be acquired in old age before death.

Question (g)
“The long day wanes: the slow moon climbs: the deep
Moans round with many voices.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: The poet poet continues to discuss old age and the tantalising call of the oceans to conquer. Ulysses hints at the probable end of the cycle of life in the words “The long clay wanes”. The symbol of darkness or night is mostly associated with death. The lure of ocean to resume his voyages beyond the point of sunset is too tempting to resist. The dark unfathomable sea beckons him and his compatriots with mysterious voices.

Question (h)
“It may be we shall touch the Happy Isles,
And see the great Achilles, whom we knew.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words through Ulysses as to the probable outcome of the daring voyage at the fag end of his life. Ulysses is uncertain about the probable outcome of his last voyage. But he infers that he might reach ‘Happy Isles’ and see the ‘great Achilles’ who was dipped in the river of life.

Question (i)
“We are not now that strength which in old days
Moved earth and heaven;”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words through Ulysses when he wants to justify the reasons for resuming the daring voyage. He admits the decline in the compatriots’ physical strength with which they were able to move heaven and earth in their youth. He asks his compatriots to ignore the infinity of age and draw on their inner spiritual strength to resume their voyage beyond sunset.

Question (j)
“To strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘Ulysses” written by Alfred Tennyson.
Context and Explanation: Tennyson says these words through Ulysses who makes his motto loud and clear in these words. The final line of the poem is Ulysses’ enduring challenge to readers as well. The challenge if the aged ones could push ahead with vigour and strength of will no matter how fragile their bodies are. To yield to age or weakness is to be less than fully human. It might be honourable to live a peaceful settled life in the old age. But one would naturally miss out most exciting moments of life if one does not venture out, at least a little towards the unknown.

6. Answer the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 words each.

Question (a)
What makes Ulysses seek newer adventures?
Answer:
In the context of the poem, Ulysses has grown old. He has experienced all daring adventures. He has won the hearts of people during the battle at Troy. Back home, as per the prophecy of Tiresias, he rules Ithaca for a brief time. But he is fed up with a conventional duties of a king. He laments his own uselessness as a ruler of idle people who lead life like savages, just eating and sleeping. They don’t understand the over vaulting ambition of their adventurous king Ulysses who had moved earth and heavens in the past. He wishes to embark upon his next voyage. It might be his last. He is quite sensitive to the moans of the seas tantalising him and his compatriots to set sail quickly. He wants “to drink life to the lees”. Ulysses doesn’t want to bask on the glory he has earned in the past.

His inquisitive spirit is restless. He has seen much’ and acquired knowledge of various cultures of the world. But he considers all such experiences like an “arch” leading him to the unexplored or “untravelled world”. He wants to sail towards the area ‘beyond sunset’. He must shine in use like a sword but not “rust unbumished”. Yet at home, in the kingdom of Ithaca, he feels bored and yearns to truly engage with what is left of life. He is impatient for “new” experiences lamenting everyday and every hour to seek “something more”. His quest for adventure and fulfillment, like the goal of Goethe’s Faust is defined by the pursuit of new knowledge “beyond the utmost bound of human thought”.

Question (b)
List the roles and responsibilities Ulysses assigns to his son Telemachus, while he is away.
Answer:
The entire poem is a monologue. Yet the second part of the poem is an address to the readers justifying his decision to transfer the rule to his son Telemachus. The cloak of a king seems to be unfit for the temperament of Uly sses. He finds ruling Ithaca a boring thing. He finds Telemachus rooted to the political life of Ithaca. His role is merely to lead a ‘savage race’ to accept standard norms of behaviour in the society. He believes Telemachus fits well with the role of the ruler of “uninspired and imprudent citizens” and may discharge his duties with honour and grace. When he is away, he wants his son Telemachus to dispense variable justice to the subjects of Ithaca and guide them in the path of virtues and morals.

Question (c)
What is Ulysses’ clarion call to his sailors? How does he inspire them?
Answer:
In the third part of the poem, Ulysses makes a clarion call to his hearty compatriots (i.e.) mariners. They have been with him both during ‘thick and thin’ or thunders or sunshine. Similar to Ulysses they possess “free hearts and free foreheads” (i.e.) their hearts and brains are unburdened by domestic cares and resposibilities. They had frolicsome time fighting along with Ulysses against great warriors and Gods in the past. Ulysses does not want to live in memory of glory. He believes they need not waste away their precious time in nostalgic memories just recounting their escapades to younger generation. They can really do ‘ something of noble note’ before the end. He is conscious of the impending death in old age. But he tells it is not “too late to seek a newer world”.

The many “voices of the ocean” call out to the mariners to resume voyage. Ulysses is not content with having earned a name for himself. He has seen many countries and acquired knowledge of various cultures. Those experiences are not to be taken as accomplishments. They are just an ‘arch’leading them to “untravelled world” and constantly sailing to the ever expanding horizon. He does not want his compatriots to miss even an hour which could prrovide them novel experiences in their voyage. He persuades his compatriots to gather at the port as the sails are already puffing up welcoming them all. Their life would be one of fulfillment only when they venture out into the unkown on the seas. He uses an emotional bait to his mariners. He highlights the probable outcome of their voyage. They might reach the “Happy Isles” (i.e.) great paradise and meet Achilles, their war hero. No matter how much strength they have, they still have some “strength of will” left to strive, to seek, to find, and not to yield.

Listening Activity

Listen to the poem and fill in the blanks with appropriate words and phrases. If required listen to the poem again.

Wander-thirst

BEYOND the East the sunrise, beyond the West the sea, And East and West the wander-thirst that will not let me be; It works in me like madness, dear, to bid me say good-bye; For the seas call, and the stars call, and oh! the call of the sky!

I know not where the white road runs, nor what the blue hills are; But a man can have the sun for a friend, and for his guide a star; And there’s no end of voyaging when once the voice is heard, For the rivers call, and the roads call, and oh! the call of the bird!

Yonder the long horizon lies, and there by night and day The old ships draw to home again, the young ships sail away; And come I may, but go I must, and, if men ask you why, You may put the blame on the stars and the sun and the white road and the sky.

Choose the best option and complete the sentences:

Question 1
works like madness in the poet.
(a) Wander – Thirst
(b) Bidding Farewell
(c) Eastern Sunrise
(d) Western Seas
Answer:
(a) Wander – Thirst

Question 2.
A man could choose as his guide.
(a) the sun
(b) the hills
(c) a star
(d) a bird
Answer:
(c) a star

Question 3.
There is no end of once the voice is heard.
(a) walking
(b) roaming
(c) talking
(d) voyaging
Answer:
(d) voyaging

Question 4.
The old ships return, while the young ships
(a) drift
(b) move
(c) sail
(d) wander
Answer:
(c) sail

Question 5.
The blame is on the sun, stars, the road and the
(a) hills
(b) trees
(c) seas
(d) sky
Answer:
(d) sky

Ulysses About The Poet

Alfred Tennyson was the poet laureate of England and Ireland during Queen Victoria ‘s reign. Tennyson excelled in writing short lyrics such as “Break, Break, Break“, “ Tears Idle Tears“, “The Charge of the Light Brigade” and.‘Crossing the Bar’. Tennyson’s use of the musical qualities of words to emphasise his rhythms and meanings is sensitive.

Ulysses Summary in English

Introduction
‘Ulysses’ is a dramatic monologue in which Ulysses, the king of Ithaca expresses his undying thirst of adventure overseas. Tennyson has written this poem in memory of Arthur Henry Hallam who died young. Death is not the end for both Arthur and Ulysses.

Thirst for adventure
Ulysses addresses mariners in the third part. Ulysses does not see any worth in staying in the comfort of family life with his wife. As a king, he listens to the complaints of people and gives rewards and punishments for the citizens of his country. He discloses his inner nature, “cannot rest from travel!” He has become a living icon of travel overseas. He wants “to drink life to the lees”. He confesses that he has both enjoyed and suffered a lot during his travels. He has gained profound wisdom during his travels and battles. Enriched by his new gained cultural knowledge, he longs to resume his voyages. He believes that to rest is rust. Every hour has the •potential to bring new knowledge. So, it is meaningless to stay.

Passing on the inheritance
In the second part addresses the reader explaining why Ulysses doesn’t want to continue to rule. Ulysses wishes to hand over his kingdom to his son Telemachus. He believes he would rule the kingdom and render appropriate justice to his subjects. Telemachus, unlike Ulysses, is rooted to the soil. He is kind to the subjects and addresses their needs. Besides, Ulysses hopes that Penelope, his aging wife would be happy to spend her last years with her son and grandchildren. So, Ulysses can resume his voyage along with his old friends.

Call to set sail
Ulysses called his old companions to the port where the ship awaits them all. His old companions have fought many battles alongside him and share the undying quest for adventure. Ulysses persuades his friends to join him on his voyage to the edge of the world and beyond to find a new world. He knows the limitations of his companions. They may have grown old and weak due to age. Their physical powers may not be the same as when they had once moved heaven and earth. But he is confident that their spirit is young and undaunted. His clarion call would inspire invariably all those who seek knowledge and strive to lead meaningful lives.

Conclusion
People who are endowed with an unquenchable thirst for ever-expanding knowledge and incurable love for long distances Ulysses continues to be a source of inspiration.

Ulysses Summary in Tamil

முடிவுரை:
தன் அறிவு வேட்கையை அதிகப்படுத்துவதில் | ஆர்வம் கொண்டவர்களுக்கும் மற்றும் மாறாத தொலைதூரப் பயணத்தில் காதல் கொண்டவர்களுக்கும் | யுலிசஸ் எப்போதும் தூண்டுதலாக இருக்கிறார்.

சாகசத்தின் மேல் ஆவல்
யுலிசஸ் மூன்றாம் பாகத்தில் கப்பலோட்டிகளிடத்தில் சொற்பொழிவாற்றுகிறார். தன் குடும்பத்தாருடன் சொகுசு வாழ்க்கை வாழ்வதில் எந்தப் பயனும் இல்லை என எண்ணுகிறார். ஒரு அரசனாக குடிமக்களின் கூற்றுகளைக் கேட்டு அதற்கு ஏற்ற பரிசையும் மற்றும் தண்டனையும் வழங்குகிறார். கடற் பயணம் செய்யாமல் இருக்க முடியாது என்ற தன்னுடைய உள்ளுணர்வை வெளிப்படுத்துகிறார். கடல் கடந்த பயணங்களை மேற்கொள்ளும் உயிரோவியமாகத் திகழ்ந்தார். வாழ்க்கை முழுவதும் பயணிக்க விரும்புகிறார். அவர் பயணத்தில் மேற்கொண்ட இன்ப துன்பங்களை ஒப்புக் கொள்கிறார். அவர் பயணத்தின் போது ஏற்பட்ட அனுபவங்களாலும் மற்றும் எதிர்கொண்ட போர்களினாலும் ஆழ்ந்த ஞானத்தை அடைந்திருந்தார். புதிதாக பெறப்பெற்ற பண்புகளின் புலமையால், அவர் பயணங்களை மேற்கொள்வதில் ஆர்வத்தைக் காட்டினார். சோம்பலாக கிடந்தால் உடல் துருப்பிடித்து விடும் என எண்ணினார். ஒவ்வொரு கணமும் புதுப் பொலிவைக் கொண்டு வரும் ஆற்றல் மிக்கது. ஆதலால், ஓரிடத்தில் ஒண்டிக் கிடப்பதில் பயனில்லை என எண்ணினார்.

பரம்பரை சொத்துக்களை கைமாற்றம் செய்தல்:
இரண்டாம் பாக சொற்பொழிவில் அவருக்கு அரசாள்வதில் ஏன் விருப்பம் இல்லை என்பதைக் குறித்துக் கூறுகிறார். யுலிசஸ் தன் இராஜ்ஜியத்தை தன் புதல்வன் டெலிமேக்கஸ் (Tele Macus) இடம் கைமாற்றுகிறார். அவர் தன் புதல்வன் நல்ல முறையில் அரசாண்டு தன் குடிமக்களுக்கு தக்க நீதி வழங்குவான் என எண்ணினார். டெலிமாக்கஸ், யுலிசஸ் போல் அல்லாமல் ஒரே இடத்தில் ஊன்றி நிற்பவராய் இருந்தார். அவர்தம் குடிமக்களுக்கு அன்பார்ந்தவராகவும் அவர்கள் குறைகளைக் கேட்டறிபவராகவும் இருந்தார். அது தவிர யுலிசஸ் தன் வயது முதிர்ந்த மனைவி பெனைலோப்பிம், மகனுடனும் பேரப் பிள்ளைகளுடனும் மகிழ்ச்சியோடு இருப்பார் என நம்பினார். ஏனெனில், அது அவர் தன் தோழர்களுடன் கடல் பயணம் மேற்கொள்ளத் தக்கவாறு அமையும்.

கடல் பயணம் மேற்கொள்ளல்:
யுலிசஸ் தன் நண்பர்களைத் தமக்காக காத்துக் கொண்டிருக்கும் துறைமுகத்திற்கு வருமாறு அழைப்பு விடுகிறார். அவர் தோழர்களும் கடல் பயணத்தின் போது பல கடற்போர்களில் ஈடுபட்டு தனக்கு உள்ள கடல் பயணத்தின் மேல் உள்ள ஆவலைப் பகிர்ந்து கொண்டனர். உலகின் விளிம்பை அடைந்து அதற்கு அப்பாலும் செல்வதற்கு தன்னுடன் கடல் பயணம் மேற்கொள்ள நண்பர்களைத் தூண்டுகிறார். அவர் தம் நண்பர்களின் குறைகளை அறிந்திருந்தார். அவர்கள் வயது முதிர்ச்சியால் பலவீனமாகக் காணப்பட்டனர். அவர்கள், முன்னர் வானத்தையும், பூமியையும் அளந்தது போல் அவர்கள் உடல் வலிமை தற்போது இல்லை. ஆனால், அவர்கள் ஊக்கம் குன்றாமல், சளைக்கா வண்ணம் தொடரவேண்டும் என்பதில் உறுதியாக இருந்தார். அவரின் வீர முழக்கம் புதிய அனுபவத்தை நாடி மற்றும் அர்த்தமுள்ள வாழ்க்கையை வாழ முயற்சிக்கும் அனைவருக்கும் தூண்டுதலாக இருக்கும்.

முன்னுரை:
யூலிஸ் என்பது வியத்தகு மோனோலாலஜி ஆகும். இதில் இதாகா மன்னனான யுலிசஸ் வெளிநாடுகளில் சாகசத் தன்மையற்ற தாகத்தை வெளிப்படுத்துகிறார். டென்னிசன் இளம் கவிஞரான ஆர்தர் ஹென்றி ஹாலமின் நினைவாக இந்தக் கவிதை எழுதினார். ஆர்தர் மற்றும் யுலிசஸ் இருவருக்கும் முடிவே இல்லை.

Ulysses Glossary

Textual:

Additional:

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Solutions Poem Chapter 4 Macavity – The Mystery Cat

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11th English Guide Warm Up

A. French proverb goes thus: ‘The dog may be wonderful prose, but only the cat is poetry.’ You may have observed that all animals possess a number of unique qualities. Fill in the columns with words and phrases associated with each of the following animals.

Answer:

B. People admire some of these animal qualities. What are they? Have you noticed some of them in yourself or in others? Share your views with the class.

Cats are stealthy and walk without making noise.
My friend Vimal / Mala is cat-like. He / She surprises me often appearing suddenly. Jackal is clever and persuades others like Ratna / Raja to work for him. Whenever a difficult assignment is given, he / she praises the gifted student and gets his/ her work done. Elephant is graceful and known for strong memory. Murugan / Neela is very gentle and has terrific memory. One must be very cautious with such persons. Even a small hurt will be in their memory for long.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Macavity – The Mystery Cat Textual Questions

A. Based on your understanding of the poem, answer the following question in a sentence or two.

Macavity’s a Mystery Cat: he’s called the Hidden Paw
For he’s the master criminal who can defy the Law.
He’s the bafflement of Scotland Yard, the Flying Squad’s despair:
For when they reach the scene of crime – Macavity’s not there!

Macavity, Macavity, there’s no one like Macavity,
He’s broken every human law, he breaks the law of gravity.
His powers of levitation would make a fakir stare,
And when you reach the scene of crime – Macavity’s not there!

You may seek him in the basement, you may look up in the air
But I tell you once and once again, Macavity’s not there!
Macavity’s a ginger cat, he’s very tall and thin;
You would know him if you saw him, for his eyes are sunken in.

His brow is deeply lined with thought, his head is highly domed;
His coat is dusty from neglect, his whiskers are uncombed.
He sways his head from side to side, with movements like a snake;
And when you think he’s half asleep, he’s always wide awake.

Macavity, Macavity, there’s no one like Macavity,
For he’s a fiend in feline shape, a monster of depravity.
You may meet him in a by-street, you may see him in the square
But when a crime’s discovered, then Macavity’s not there!

He’s outwardly respectable. (They say he cheats at cards.)
And his footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s.
And when the larder’s looted, or the jewel-case is rifled,
Or when the milk is missing, or another Peke’s been stifled,

Or the greenhouse glass is broken, and the trellis past repair
Ay, there’s the wonder of the thing! Macavity’s not there!
And when the Foreign Office find a Treaty’s gone astray,
Or the Admiralty lose some plans and drawings by the way,

There may be a scrap of paper in the hall or on the stair
But it’s useless to investigate, Macavity’s not there!
And when the loss has been disclosed, the Secret Service say:
‘It must have been Macavity!’ but he’s a mile away.

You’ll be sure to find him resting, or a licking of his thumbs,
Or engaged in doing complicated long division sums.
Macavity, Macavity, there’s no one like Macavity,
There never was a Cat of such deceitfulness and suavity.

He always has an alibi, and one or two to spare:
At whatever time the deed took place, MACAVITY WASN’T THERE!
And they say that all the Cats whose wicked deeds are widely known,
(I might mention Mungojerrie, I might mention Griddlebone)

Are nothing more than agents for the Cat who all the time
Just controls their operations: the Napoleon of Crime

11th English Guide Pdf Download Question (i)
What is Macavity’s nickname?
Answer:
Macavity’s nickname is “ Hidden Paw”.

Macavity The Mystery Cat Book Back Answers Question (ii)
Why is the Flying Squad frustrated?
Answer:
The Flying squad is frustrated because every time they rush to the spot of crime to arrest Macavity, he is not there.

11 English Guide Question (iii)
Which law does Macavity break?
Answer”
Macavity breaks human law and also the law of gravity.

11th English Book Back Answers Question (iv)
What makes the fakir stare in wonder?
Answer:
Macavity’s power of levitation makes the fakir stare in wonder.

English Guide For Class 11 Question (v)
Describe Macavity’s appearance.
Answer:
Macavity is veiy tall and slim. His eyes are sunken. His brow is deeply lined. His head is highly domed. His coat is dusty and whiskers unkempt.

11th English Samacheer Guide Question (vi)
Where can you encounter Macavity?
Answer:
One may meet Macavity in a street or in the square. But he vanishes when a crime is committed.

11th Std English Book Answers Question (vii)
Why does the poet say Macavity is ‘out wardly’ respectable?
Answer:
The poet says that Macavity is respectable ‘out wardly’ because all his stealthy, criminal activities betray his vile nature.

11th Samacheer Kalvi English Book Back Answers Question (viii)
Why is Macavity called the ‘Napoleon of Crime’?
Answer:
He is agile and cautious. He is a monster of depravity

Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Question (ix)
Which two characters does the poet refer to as examples of wicked cats?
Answer:
Mungojerrie and Griddlebone are examples of wicked cats.

11 Std English Guide Pdf Question (x)
Mention any two qualities of Macavity.
Answer:
Similar to Napoleon he was a strategist and military leader. Macavity controlled the operations of all the wicked cats in London.

B. Read the poem once again and complete the summary using the words given in the box.

Macavity – The Mystery Cat’ is a humorous poem, where the poet T.S. Eliot describes the mysterious

(a) ______ of a shrewd vile cat. He commits a crime at every possible opportunity.He is an elusive master (b) ______ who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime.Even the Scotland Yard, the London (c) ______ agency is unable to arrest him. The Flying Squad is (d) ______ because every time they rush to the crime spot to seize Macavity, he is not there. He breaks the human law as well as the law of (e) ______ He baffles even a (f) ______ with his powers of levitation. Macavity appears tall and thin with (g) ______ eyes. He is always preoccupied with some serious (h) ______ His coat is dusty and his (i) ______ are unkempt. Macavity is a (f) ______ in the guise of a cat. He appears to be outwardly (k) ______ but his actions disprove it. Macavity loots the (l) ______ , ransacks the jewel-case, and breaks the (m) ______ glass but wonder of wonders he is not to be found anywhere there. He is always a mile away from the scene of crime, happily relaxing or doing difficult (n) ______ sums. He is clever at making up an (o) ______ every time he plots a crime. All the notorious cats are nothing but the (p) ______ of Macavity, the Napoleon of Crime.
Answer:
(a) qualities
(b) criminal
(c) detective
(d) baffled
(e) gravity
(f) fakir
(g) sunken
(h) thought
(i) whiskers
(j) fiend
(k) respectable
(p) agents
(0) larder
(m) greenhouse
(n) division
(o) alibi

C. Read the poem and answer the following in a short paragraph of 8 to 10 sentences each.

English Guide 11th Pdf Question (i)
What are the mysterious ways in which Macavity acts?
Answer:
Macavity is an elusive master criminal who leaves no evidence after he commits a crime. He baffles Scotland Yard police and the flying squad as he disappears before their arrival to the scene of crime. He defies law of gravity and his powers of levitation make me fakir stare with wonder. Macavity loots the larder. He ransacks the jewel case. He is an elusive criminal who escapes from the spot of crime before the flying squad or Scotland Yard reach there. He breaks every human law and laws of gravity. He breaks greenhouse glasses. He steals stealthily into . the kitchen and empties milk. When an important treaty in the embassy is missing or. when the admiralty loses some plans or drawings, the investigation terms conclude that it is the work of Macavity. But Macavity, as a wonder of wonders, would be miles away relaxing somewhere.

Question (ii)
Give an account of Macavity’s destructive mischief.
Answer:
Macavity is a “Friend in feline shape”. He loots the food from the larder. Jewel case gets ransacked. Milk gets robbed. A pekinese dog is stifled. Greenhouse glass is broken. Important agreement in the embassy is tom and important drawings in the admiralty are lost. The investigation team may find a scrap of paper in the stairs but Macavity always makes good his escape after doing all the above destructive activities. Besides, he is the Napoleon of crime controlling the operations of all cats in London.

Question (iii)
Describe the appearance and qualities of Macavity.
Answer:
Macavity is tall and thin. His eyes are sunken in. His brow is deeply lined with thought. His head is highly domed. His coat is dusty and his whiskers unkempt. He makes movements like a snake. He is a friend in feline shape. He is a monster of depravity. He is a cat of deceitfulness and suavity. When one thinks he is half-asleep, he is wide awake. He is an elusive, agile and phantom-like cat.

D. Read the given lines and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Macavity’s a Mystery Cat: he’s called the Hidden Paw…

Question (a)
Does the poet talk about a real cat?
Answer:
No, the poet talks about an imaginary character.

Question (b)
Why is he called the Hidden Paw?
Answer:
He is called a “ Hidden paw “ because even Scotland Yard is unable to arrest him after he commits any crime. He does not leave his foot prints in the spot of crime.

(ii) He’s the bafflement of Scotland Yard, the Flying Squad’s despair: For when they reach
the scene of crime Macavity’s not there!..

Question (a)
What is ‘Scotland Yard’?
Answer:
Scotland Yard, is the world famous headquarters of London metropolitan police service known for quick investigation of crime and nabbing the criminal in record time.

Question (b)
Why does the flying squad feel disappointed?
Answer:
Flying squad reach the scene of crime very fast. But Macavity is not at all there. The flying squad is disappointed because they are unable to arrest the crafty criminal.

(iii) He sways his head from side to side, with movements like a snake;
And when you think he’s half asleep,he’s always wide awake…

Question (а)
Explain the comparison made here.
Answer:
The poet compares the movement of the cat to that of a snake. He employs a simile here.
The movement is quiet but swift.

Question (b)
What does he pretend to do?
Answer:
He pretends to be half asleep when he is fully awake. .

Question (c)
Identify the figure of speech in the first line.
Answer:
Simile.

(iv) For he’s a fiend in feline, shape, a monster of depravity.

Question (a)
How is the cat described in this line?
Answer:
Macavity is described as a “demon in the shape of a cat”.

Question (b)
Explain the phrase ‘monster of depravity’.
Answer:
Satan is called the master of depravity. T.S. Eliot calls Macavity, the master of depravity. He means that the cat is an embodiment of evil. He is wicked, all the time involved in doing something evil.

(v) And his footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s.

Question (а)
What seems to be a challenge for the Scotland Yard?
Answer:
Scotland Yard police, known for its efficiency to nab criminals in record time, is unable to link any crime to Macavity. He has an alibi when ever a crime is committed. Arresting Macavity with clinching evidence for his involvement in a crime is a challenge for Scotland Yard.

Question (b)
Why do they need his footprints?
Answer:
They need Macavity’s foot prints to prove the court of law that he was present in the scene of crime.

(iv) It must have been Macavity!’ but he’s a mile away.

Question (a)
What is Macavity blamed for?
Answer:
Macavity is blamed for most of the crimes which leave the Scotland police and flying squad fuming and fretting because he just vanishes after every crime is committed. Besides, he leaves no proof or evidence behind.

Question (b)
Where is he?
Answer:
He is in a by-street or in the square when a crime is discovered. He always has one or two alibi.

(vii) There never was a Cat of such deceitfulness and suavity.

Question (a)
Which cat is being talked of here?
Answer:
Macavity is being talked of here.

Question (b)
How is he different from the rest?
Answer:
Other cats are lazy and just stay in the kitchen and take the food offered by their master. But Macavity is agile and defies law of the land and laws of gravity.. Despite doing all wicked things, he pretends to be innocent. So the poet claims one can never come across such a cat of “Deceitfulness and suavity”

E. Explain the following lines with reference to the context.

Question (i)
His powers of levitation would make a fakir stare
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem “Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot. Context: T.S Eliot says, these words describing the skills of Macavity – The mystery cat. Explanation: Macavity does all kinds of mischiefs, petty thefts. He breaks things also. But before anyone could link the crime to Macavity he makes good his escape, floating in the air, jumping from building to building. His powers of levitation baffles even a fakir who has mystical powers.
Comment: The truth behind levitation is well brought out.

Question (ii)
And when you think he’s half asleep, he’s always Wide awake
Answer:
Reference : There words are from the poem “ Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.
Context: The poet says these words about the ability of the mysterious cat to hoodwink everyone.
Explanation: Macavity is a master of deceitfulness and suavity. When he appears to “be half-asleep with his half-closed eyes, he would be wide-awake. He is an enigma to everyone. Comment: Macavity is indeed a mystery.

Question (iii)
And his footprints are not found in any file of Scotland Yard’s
Answer:
Reference: These words are. from the poem “ Macavity the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot. Context: The poet says these words about the clever escape Macavity makes after every crime is committed.
Explanation: Scotland yard police is known all over the world for its capacity to investigate crimes and nab criminals in record time. But many crimes happen in London. Before Scotland Yard or the flying squad could reach the spot of crime, the criminal vanishes without leaving
any trace of the evidence. Scotland yard police wants to nab him with evidence. But his foot prints are nowhere to be found. So, Scotland Yard is unable to arrest Macavity.
Comment: The mysterious moves of Macavity stuns even the Scotland Yard.

Question (iv)
There may be a scrap of paper in the hall or on the stair.
But it’s useless to investigate…
Answer:
Reference: There words are from the poem “Macavity- the mysterious cat” written by T.S. Eliot .
Context: The poet says these words while discussing the left over evidences of crime. Explanation: The Scotland yard police and the flying squads are guardians of peace in London. They keep watch. But whenever Macavity does a crime, he leaves before the police arrives. The clues like empty larder, rifled jewel case, disappearance of a treaty or drawings from the office or admiralty may lead to some shredded bits of paper lying on the floor or the staircase. But thsese bits of paper can’t help the police nab Macavity. They know it is the work of Macavity but they are helpless.
Comment: Not a trace is left behind by mysterious Macavity.

Question (v)
He always has an alibi, and one or two to spare
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “ Macavity – the mystery cat” written by T.S. Eliot.
Context: The poet says these words while describing the deceitful and clever nature of Macavity.
Explanation: Macavity breaks laws of the land regularly. But gets away before the long arm. of the law reaches the spot of crime. He always has an alibi (one or more to spare) to escape from being caught. This proves his cleverness.
Comment: The wit of Macavity needs high commendation.

Additional Questions

Question (vi)
Mecavity is a Mystery cat; he’s called the Hidden paw
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “Macavity – the mystery cat”.
Context: T.S. Eliot says these words while discussing the deceitfulness and the ability of the wicked cat to disappear room after a crime is committed.
Explanation: The poet describes the attributes of the mystery cat “ Macavity the cat is deceitful • and he baffles Scotland yard. The modus operandi of each unsolved crime points to Macavity only. But the lack of evidence like foot print prevents Scotland yard police from arresting him. Hence, he is called “The Hidden Law”.
Comment: Does Macavity truly have an unseen paw?

Question (vii)
Just controls their operation ; the Napoleon of Crime .
Answer:
Reference: These words are from the poem, “ Macavity – the mystery cat, written by T.S. Eliot.
Context: The poet says this about the daring acts of evil done by enigmatic villainous cat Macavity.
Explanation: Scotland yard police is unable to arrest Macavity as he leaves no evidence of crime he commits. He has many agents whose operations are controlled by him. Macavity is like military despot Napoleon, he guides all wicked cats in London unseen.
Comment: There is indeed no difference between Napoleon and Macavity.

F. Eliot has used many figures of speech to present the poem to the readers in an interesting way. He has attributed human qualities to a cat in this poem.

Question (i)
Identify the literary devices used in the following lines: .

Question (a)
He sways his head from side to side,with movements like a snake.
Answer:
simile

Question (b)
They say he cheats at cards.
Answer:
Personification

Additional:
(c) for he’s a friend in feline shape – Personification
(d) He’s outwardly respectable (they say he cheats at cards) – personification (The animal is attributed to human qualities)
(e) Just control their operations ; the Napoleon of Crime – Personification
(f) He always has an alibi and one or two to spare – Personification
(g) Or engaged in doing a complicated long division sums – Personification
(h) Are nothing more than agents for the Cat – Personification
(i) Just controls their operations the Napoleon or crime – metaphor

Question (ii)
Give four instances where the poet has used alliteration in the poem.
Answer:
milk, missing, larder’s, looted, sways, side to side, snake, break, broke – Alliteration

Question (iii)
What is the rhyme scheme used in the poem?
Answer:
Rhyme scheme of the poem is aa bb

(iv) Pick out all the pairs of rhyming words used in the poem.

Rhyming words in the poem
(a) Paw: Law
(b) despair: there
(c) Macavity: gravity
(d) stare: there
(e) air: there
(f) thin: in
(g) domed: uncombed
(h) snake: awake
(i) Macavity: depravity
(j) Square : their
(k) cards: yards
(l) rifled: stifled
(m) repair: there
(n) astray: way
(o) stair: there
(p) say: away
(q) thumbs : sums.
(r) Macavity: suavity
(s) spare: there
(t) known: bone
(u) time: crime

listening Activity

G. First, read the following sets of limericks with missing words. Now, listen to them being read out aloud by your teacher or played on the recorder. As you enjoy the absurd fun, complete the verse with what you hear. You may listen to them again, if required.

I
A wonderful bird is the (i) ______
His beak can hold more than his (ii) _______ can.
He can hold in his beak Enough food for a (iii) _______ !
But I’ll be darned if I know how the Peli-can?

II
There once was a (iv) _______ at the zoo
Who always had something to do
When it (iv) _______ him, you know,
To go to and fro.
He (v) _______ . it and went fro and to.

III
There once was a (vi) _______ little bunny
Who I thought was sweet and (vii) _______ .
He ate all the carrots,
And looked at the .(ix) _______
And that was my cute little (x) _______
Answers:
(i) pelican
(ii) belly
(iii) week
(iv) bear
(v) bored
(vi) reversed
(vii) cute
(viii) funny
(ix) Parrots
(x) bunny

Speaking Activity

H. Speaking Activity

Work with a partner. Read the following questions and share your views with the class. Have you heard of the phrase ‘cat’s paw’? The meaning is similar to that of ‘firing from the other’s shoulder’. ‘Cat’s paw’ refers to a person who is used unwittingly or unwillingly by another person to accomplish his own purpose.

Question (a)
This phrase originates from the fable ‘The Monkey and the Cat’. Explain how Macavity contradicts the phrase ‘cat’s paw’.
Answer:
Cat’s paw means being an incumbent in someone’s hand and do what the other person says. But Macavity is the master. He’s nicknamed the “hidden paw”. He is the Napoleon of crime controlling the operation of all the wicked cats in London. Macavity really contradicts “cat’s paw” absolutely.

Question (b)
‘When the mouse laughs at the cat, there is a hole nearby.’ Explain the meaning of this statement to your friends.
Answer:
Mouse knows the capacity of the cat to pounce on him and make a meal of him in just records. The mouse could dare to laugh at the cat when the scope of escape into the hole is bright.

Question (c)
Compose your own limericks on an elephant, a peacock and a butterfly. Read it put to your class.

1. Butterfly
A Spider awaits a butterfly
As he comes fluttering by
It’s caught in the silken trap
And straggles acts wings flap
Battling for survival under the blue skies

2. An elephant
There was a little elephant
To whom the river bank was forbidden .
But he went to the brink
Waiting for the crow to drink
And a bitter lesson when his flunk got bitten

3. A Peacock
“Joy is a peacock. It’s beauty so rare
A rainbow of colours that vibrantly flares
After the rain, brightly they come out
Into a fan-like form uniquely it creates
Never forgot, this vision, joyfully it illuminates”!

Macavity – The Mystery Cat About the Poet:

T.S Eliot (1888-1965) is an Essayist, play wright, literary and social critic. He moved out of USA to become a citizen of Great Britain at the age of 25. He renounced his American Passport when he was 39. He attracted widespread attention for his poem “The Love Song” of Alfred Prufrock (1915). It was seen on his Masterpiece of modern movement. It was followed by some of his best known poems including “The Wasteland” (1922), “The hollow men” (1915), “Ash Wednesday” (1930) and “Four quarters” (1943). During his stay in Harvard University, he developed a deep understanding of Indian philosophy and also studied Sanskrit. It is said that when he wrote the poem “The Wasteland”, doctors expressed concern over the health of his mind and strongly advised him to avoid writing.

But he wrote the poem in any paper that was found. It was Ezra Pound who brought order by editing the poem. He is well remembered for his plays such as “Murder in the Cathedral” (1935) and “The Cocktail Party” (1949). He was awarded the Nobel Prize for Literature in 1948 for his outstanding, pioneering contribution to modern poetry.

Macavity – The Mystery Cat Summary

“Macavity, The mystery cat”, is a humorous poem from a serious poet. The poet describes the atrocities done by Macavity. He commits crime after crime with impunity and without leaving any evidence. He looks for the opportune moment to commit the crime and gets away before the Scotland yard Police troops come in. Every time he does a crime, he is sensible enough to stay out of the spot of crime when investigators reach the spot of crime. He breaks every human law and even the law of gravity.

His powers of levitation startles even a fakir. He is always preoccupied with some serious thought. He has dirty coat and unkempt hair like modem gypsies. He is a hypocrite who appears to be respectable but does every mean act. He loots food, ransacks the jewel case and breaks the green house glass. But it is amazing that nobody is able to find him in the scene of crime. It looks as if all the vile cat in the area act as per his script. Like cold-blooded criminals, he always makes up an alibi every time he commits a criminal act. He is the chief of all wicked cats. He resembles “Napoleon of crime”, the chief of criminal act.

Macavity – The Mystery Cat Glossary

Textual:
Admiralty – a Government Department that administered the British Navy
alibi – a claim Of evidence that one was elsewhere when a Crime was committed
bafflement total confusion
deceitfulness – cunnmgness
defy – to resist or to challenge
depravity – evil quality; immorality
fakir – a holy person who live son alms and has the power to levitate
feline – cat
fiend – demon
Flying Squad – a police force ready to plunge into action
ginger – alert and cautious
larder – cupboard for storing food
levitation – the action of rising and floating in air
Peke – a Pekinese dog
rifle – ransack; to steal
Scotland Yard – the headquarters of London Metropolitan Police Service
stifle – suppress someone from acting; restrain
suavity – confidence and sophistication
trellis – wooden bar used as a support for creepers

Additional:
atrocities – cruelty; violation; wrongdoing
complicated – tough
criminal – law breaker
go astray – become useless; trangress
hypocrite – pretender, one who acts like adifferent person
impunity – doing wicked things without ever getting punished;unpunished
investigate – enquire
limerick – a humourous verse of five lines
startles – amazes
treaty – pact
vile – wicked

The main aim is to share the knowledge and help the students of 11th English to secure the best score in their final exams. Use the concepts of Samacheer Kalvi 11th English Book Solutions Poem Chapter 4 Macavity – The Mystery Cat Questions and Answers in Real time to enhance your skills. If you have any doubts you can post your comments in the comment section, We will clarify your doubts as soon as possible without any delay.

Students can Download English Poem 3 All the World’s a Stage Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th English Solutions Poem Chapter 3 All the World’s a Stage

Warm Up

This is Life Cycle of butterfly.

All The World’s A Stage Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
Discuss with your partner the different stages in the grow th of man from a new born to an adult.
Answer:
An infant pukes on the mother’s arms. As he is unable to articulate his needs, he keeps on crying like a kitten. Then he goes to school giving up his freedom. He is made to learn things he doesn’t want to learn. Then he becomes an adult hopelessly in love. He wastes his purple youth writing love letters or songs admiring the beauty of his love. Some join army or police force to serve the nation. At the peak of adulthood, they are quite touchy about honour and believe it to be more important than life itself.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th English All the World’s a Stage Textual Questions

1. Fill in the blanks using the words given in the box to complete the summary of the poem.

Shakespeare considers the whole world a stage where men and women are only (1) _____ They (2) _____ the stage when they are borm and exit when they die. Every man, during his life time; plays seven roles based on age. In the first act, as an infant, he is wholly (3) _____ on the mother or a nurse. Later, emerging as a school child, he slings his bag over his shoulder and creeps most (4) _____ to school. His next act is that of a lover, busy (5) _____ ballads for his beloved and yearns for her (6) _____ In the fourth stage, he is aggressive and ambitious and seeks (7) _____ in all that he does. He (8) _____ solemnly to guard his country and becomes a soldier. As he grows older, with (9) _____ and wisdom, he becomes a fair judge. During this stage, he is firm and (10) _____ In the sixth act, he is seen with loose pantaloons and spectacles. His manly voice changes into a childish (11) _____ The last scene of all is his second childhood. Slowly, he loses his (12) _____ of sight, hearing, smell and taste and exits from the roles of his life.
Answer:

1. actors
2. enter
3. dependent
4. reluctantly
5. composing
6. attention
7. reputation
8. promises
9. maturity
10. serious
11. treble
12. faculties

2. From your understanding of the poem, answer the following questions briefly in a sentence or two.

12th English All The World’s A Stage Paragraph Question (a)
What is the world compared to?
Answer:
The world is compared to a stage.

12th English Poem All The World’s A Stage Question (b)
“And they have their exits and their entrances” – What do the words ‘exits’ and ‘entrances’ mean?
Answer:
‘Entrances’ means life. ‘Exits means death.

All The World’s A Stage Poem Appreciation Questions And Answers Question (c)
What is the first stage of a human’s life?
Answer:
The first stage of human life is “infant”. The babe on nurse’s arms pukes and mewls.

All The World’s A Stage Questions And Answers Question (d)
Describe the second stage of life as depicted by Shakespeare.
Answer:
The second stage is school boy. The boy goes to school with a heavy heart like a snail.

12th English Unit 3 Poem Question (e)
How does a man play a lover’s role?
Answer:
As a lover, man sings serenades seeking the attention of his lady love.

12th English All The World’s A Stage Question (f)
Bring out the features of the fourth stage of a man as described by the poet.
Answer:
In the fourth stage, man becomes aggressive and ambitious and seeks glory in all his pursuits. He is ready to enter the mouth of cannon for a moment of glory.

All The World’s A Stage Question And Answers Question (g)
When does a man become a judge? How?
Answer:
In the fifth stage, man grows mature and wise. He becomes an impartial judge. He is firm and serious about his opinions.

All The World’s A Stage Poem Questions And Answers Pdf Question (h)
Which stage of man’s life is associated with the ‘shrunk shank’?
Answer:
In the sixth stage, man becomes thin and weak. His fashionable dresses of youthful days have now become too lose to use for his shrunk shank (i.e.) legs that have become very lean with age.

All The World’s A Stage Question Answer Question (i)
Why is the last stage called second childhood?
Answer:
The last stage is called the second childhood. The old man slowly loses all his senses. He requirs the support of a nurse or wife to do anything. In this stage, he departs from the world.

3. Explain the following lines briefly with reference to the context.

All The World’s A Stage Question And Answer Question (a)
“They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says this while hinting at the beginning and the end of life. The poet divides man’s life into seven stages. The first stage symbolises birth and the last stage death. So, he uses the words “entrances and exits”.

Question Answer Of All The World’s A Stage Question (b)
‘‘Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation”.
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the fourth stage when the young man becomes a soldier and runs after short-lived glory. He has inflated sense of honour and ready to insist on duels to settle matters touching his honour. He does not realise that the reputation he seeks is short-lived like a bubble.

All The World’s A Stage Summary Question (c)
“Is second childishness and mere oblivion;
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says this while man gets ready to leave this world (i.e.) the last stage of his life on this lonely planet. In this stage, man becomes totally forgetful. He loses his teeth, eyesight and taste. He loses all his senses of perception. Like a baby, he can’t do anything on his own. So, the poet calls this stage “second childhood” when the old man behaves in a childish manner.

All The World’s A Stage Poem Paragraph Additional Questions

Explain the following lines briefly with reference to the context.

All The World’s A Stage English Workshop Answers Question (a)
“His acts being seven ages. At first the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms;”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William . Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the first seven stages of life on the stage (i.e.) earth. The first stage/Act is infancy. The babe vomits on the arms of the nurse and cries like a kitten.

All The World’s A Stage Reference To Context Question (b)
“All the world’s a stage,
And all the men and women merely players;”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while philosophising and classifying stages of life. The poet compares the world to a stage. All men and women are simply actors playing different roles on the different stages of life.

All The World’s A Stage Poem Questions Question (c)
“Then the whining school-boy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail’
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.
Context’and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the second stage of life. During boyhood, the school boy goes to school reluctantly in snail speed with a heavy heart. In ‘Romeo and Juliet’, Shakespeare compares a school boy going to school like a lover going away from his lady love with a heavy heart.

All The World’s A Stage Pictures Question (d)
“Sighing like furnace, with a woeful ballad
Made to his mistress’ eyebrow.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage’ written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the third stage of life when he becomes a lover. At this stage, he yearns for the attention of his lady love. He composes ballads expressing his agony caused by unrequitted love. He sings songs praising the beauty of his mistress trying to win her heart.

All The World’s A Stage Poem In Tamil Question (e)
“Seeking the bubble reputation
Even in the cannon’s mouth.”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage” written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the fourth stage of life. In this stage, youngman becomes a soldier. He is quick to anger and attaches great importance to honour. He is ready to lay down his life for the fleeting bubble of reputation.

All The World’s A Stage Poem Reference To Context Question (f)
“…And then the justice,
In fair round belly with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws and modern instances;”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage” written by William ‘ Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the fifth stage of life. At this stage, he behaves like a judge pronouncing his decisive opinions with the modem instances. He quotes wise maxims from his own life experiences to influence other people. He is fond of eating delicacies unmindful of the protruding belly size.

Question (g)
“And so he plays his part The sixth age shifts
Into the lean and slipper ’dpantaloon,”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage” written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the impact of ageing on the physical appearance. In the sixth stage, he becomes old, thin and unsteady.

Question (h)
“Hisyouthful hose, well said, a world too wide
For his shrunk shank; and his big manly voice,”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage” written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words to describe the unsuitability of one’s own dress as one advances in years. As the young man turns old, his legs become thin and his trousers become very loose giving easy access to legs but tough to wear as the waistline has also thinned. His manly voice has become feeble. When he speaks, it looks like a child piping up his dreams.

Question (i)
“…Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,”
Answer:
Reference: These lines are from the poem ‘All the world’s a stage” written by William Shakespeare.
Context and Explanation: The poet says these words while describing the preparedness of the old man in the last stage of life to exit from this lonely planet. The poet beautifully says the “eventful history” (i.e.) life which was spiced up with many interesting things is now coming to a dramatic close. The eternal jewel of life, ‘the soul’, is going to depart the body which had kept it imprisoned for long. The soul celebrates the joy of freedom in death.

Appreciate The Poem

4. Read the poem once again carefully and identify the figure of speech that has been used in each of the following lines from the poem.

“All the world’s a stage,
And all the men and women merely players;
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
His acts being seven ages. At first the infant,

Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms;
Then the whining school-boy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail
Unwillingly to school. And then the lover,
Sighing like furnace, with a woeful ballad
Made to his mistress’ eyebrow. Then a soldier,
Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,

Seeking the bubble reputation
Even in the cannon’s mouth. And then the justice,
In fair round belly with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws and modern instances;
And so he plays his part. The sixth age shifts
Into the lean and slipper’d pantaloon,

With spectacles on nose and pouch on side;
His youthful hose, well sav’d, a world too wide
For his shrunk shank; and his big manly voice,
Turning again toward childish treble, pipes
And whistles in his sound. Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion;
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.”

Question (a)
“All the world’s a stage”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (b)
“And all the men and women merely players”
Metaphor

Question (c)
“And shining morning face, creeping like snail’
Simile

Question (d)
“Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,”
Answer:
Simile

Question (e)
“Seeking the bubble reputation”
Answer:
Metaphor

Question (f)
“Hisyouthful hose, well sav’d, a world too wide”
Answer:
Alliteration

Question (g)
“and his big manly voice, turning again toward childish treble”
Answer:
Metaphor

5.Pick out the words in ‘alliteration’ in the following lines,

Question (a)
“and all the men and women merely players”
Answer:
and all the men and women merely players

Question (b)
“And one man in his time plays many parts”
Answer:
And one man in his time plays many parts

Question (c)
“Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel ”
Answer:
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel.

6. Read the given lines and answer the questions that follow.

(a) “Then the whining school-boy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail
Unwillingly to school ”

Question (i)
Which stage of life is being referred to here by the poet?
Answer:
Boyhood is referred to here.

Question (ii)
What are the characteristics of this stage?
Answer:
Innocence, joy and care-free life are the characteristics of this stage in life.

Question (iii)
How does the boy go to school?
Answer:
The boy goes to school unwillingly. He is slow like a snail.

Question (iv)
Which figure of speech has been employed in the second line?
Answer:
Simile is employed in the second line.

(b) “Then a soldier,
full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation Even in the cannon’s mouth.

Question (i)
What is the soldier ready to do?
Answer:
The soldier is ready to lay down his life.

Question (ii)
Explain ‘bubble reputation’.
Answer:
Reputation is a transitory thing. It doesn’t even last a minute like the life of a bubble.

Question (iii)
What are the distinguishing features of this stage?
In this stage, the youthful soldier attaches great value to honour. He is quick to temper and challenges people for fight for the sake of honour. He often swears to assert his valour.

(c) “And then the justice,
In fair round belly with good capon lin’d,
With eyes severe and beard of formal cut,
Full of wise saws and modern instances;’’’’

Question (i)
Whom does justice refer to?
Answer:
Justice refers to man in his fifth stage when he becomes critical of everyone else’s opinion in life.

Question (ii)
Describe his appearance.
Answer:
He has a pot belly and is fond of eating delicacies.

Question (iii)
How does he behave with the people around him?
Answer:
His eyes are severe. He often gives advice to people.

Question (iv)
What does he do to show his wisdom?
Answer:
To show of his wisdom, he often quotes modem examples and words of wisdom.

Additional Questions

Read the given lines and answer the questions that follow.

(a) “All the world’s a stage
And all the men and women merely players:
They have their exits and their entrances;
And one man in his time plays many parts,
His acts being seven ages.”

Question (i)
What are all the men and women of this world?
Answer:
The men and women of the world are just like players on the stage of life.

Question (ii)
Explain: ‘They have their exits and their entrances’.
Answer:
They take birth and enter the world. They die and depart from the world.

Question (iii)
How many parts does every man enact and play?
Answer:
Every man enacts and plays seven different roles in life.

Question (iv)
Why is this world compared to a stage?
Answer:
This world is like a big stage where men and women are ever busy in playing their respective roles.

(b) “At first the infant,
Mewling and puking in the nurse’s arms.
Then the whining schoolboy, with his satchel
And shining morning face, creeping like snail
Unwillingly to school.”

Question (i)
What does man do in the first stage of life?
Answer:
In the first stage of life man plays the role of an infant. He is always crying and vomiting in the nurse’s arms.

Question (ii)
Does the schoolboy show eagerness to go to school?
Answer:
No, the schoolboy doesn’t show any interest in going to school. Rather he is unwilling to go there.

Question (iii)
How does the schoolboy walk up to his school?
Answer:
He is inching slowly and unwillingly like a snail towards his school.

Question (iv)
Explain, ‘Mewling and pucking’.
Answer:
It means crying and vomiting.

(c) “And then the lover,
Sighing like furnace, with a woeful ballad
Made to his mistress’ eyebrow.”

Question (i)
What is the third stage of life?
The third stage of man’s life is that of a lover.

Question (ii)
What is the poetic device used in the second line?
Answer:
‘Simile’ is used as a poetic device in the second line.

Question (iii)
What does the lover do for his mistress?
Answer:
The lover is ahvays sighing and longing for his beloved. He writes a sad ballad describing the eyebrow of his mistress.

Question (iv)
Explain, ‘sighing like furnace’.
Answer:
It means moaning, breathing deeply and sadly like a fire place.

(d) “Then a soldier.
Full of strange oaths, and bearded like the pard,
Jealous in honour, sudden and quick in quarrel,
Seeking the bubble reputation.
Even in the cannon’s mouth.”

Question (i)
Describe the two traits of a soldier.
Answer:
A soldier is always ready to swear and is full of oaths. He is ever ready to compete for honour and glory.

Question (ii)
What is the poetic device used in : ‘bearded like a pard’?
Answer:
The poet uses a simile for comparison.

Question (iii)
Why does the soldier risk his life and what for?
Answer:
The soldier risks his life a momentary reputation and is ready even to enter the cannon’s mouth.

Question (iv)
How is the soldier bearded?
Answer:
He is bearded like a pard or a leopard.

(e) “The sixth age shifts
Into the lean and slippered pantaloon,
With spectacles on nose and pouch on side,
His youthful hose, well saved, a world too wide For his shrunk shank; and his big manly voice,
Turning again toward childish treble, pipes
And whistles in his sound.’’

Question (i)
What is a ‘lean and slippered pantaloon’?
Answer:
It means a thin old man wearing slippers and loose trousers.

Question (ii)
What does the phrase ‘a world too wide’ here mean?
Answer:
The stockings he bought in his youth have become too loose for his shrunk and thin legs.

Question (iii)
How does the ‘mainly voice’ turn into ‘childish’ in the sixth stage of life?
Answer:
His manly voice turns into childish trebles and whistles when he speaks as he has no teeth in his mouth.

Question (iv)
What is the sixth stage of man’s life?
Answer:
In the sixth stage of life man plays the role of a ‘lean and slippered pantaloon’.

(f) “Last scene of all,
That ends this strange eventful history,
Is second childishness and mere oblivion,
Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste, sans everything.”

Question (i)
What is the last scene of man’s life?
Answer:
The last scene that ends man’s eventual life is a ‘second-childishness’. In this stage he appears and behaves like a child.

Question (ii)
Why is the last stage of man has been called a ‘second childishness’?
Answer:
The last stage of man’s life has been called a ‘second childishness’ as man’s appearance and activities in this stage are quite similar to those of a child.

Question (iii)
How is the last stage of man’s life a ‘mere oblivion’?
Answer:
The last stage of life is a ‘mere oblivion’ as old age is another stage of forgetfulness.

Question (iv)
Explain ‘eventful history’.
Answer:
It means the life-long history of man full of interesting incidents and experiences.

7. Complete the table based on your understanding of the poem.

Answer:

8. Based on your understanding of the poem, answer the following questions in about 100 – 150 words each. You may add your own ideas if required, to present and justify your point of view.

Question (а)
Describe the various stages of a man’s life picturised in the poem “All the World’s a stage.”
Answer:
Shakespeare has beautifully portrayed this world as a huge open theatre where in all humans play seven acts/ages. In the first act, he is a helpless infant puking on the nurse’s arms mewling like a kitten. In the second stage, he is the grumbling/whining school student. He moves to school like a snal/unwllingly with his slate and bag. In the third Act, he is a lover sighing and yearning for the attention of his lady love.

He composes romantic ballads complaining his love that he needs a better deal. In the fourth Act, he becomes a quick-tempered soldier, aggressive and ambitious, ready to stake his life for the sake of bubble reputation. As he matures, he becomes a wise judge of contemporary life quoting wise maxims to endorse his opinion. He is firm and serious. In the sixth act, his stout legs become thin making his trousers of youth unsuitable. Thin and lean legs easily travel through them but are unable to stay due to a slimmed waist. His bass voice has become treble like that of a child. In the last act, he is sans teeth, sanys eyes, sans taste and sans everything (i.e.) loses all senses. He departs the world.

Question (b)
Shakespeare has skill fully brought out the parallels between the life of man and actors on stage. Elaborate this statement with reference to the poem.
Answer:
Shakespeare has beautifully compared the growth of humans by stages with his emergent role during that stage. In the first stage man plays the role of an infant. As an infant, he does represent characterisation of mewling and puking. In the second Act, he does the role of a school boy with the characteristics of unwillingness to go to schools and innocence shining in his face. In the third Act, he performs the role of a lover head over heels in love with a beautiful lady. He composes woeful romantic ballads and sings serenades to impress his love. In the fourth act, he plays the impressive role of a short-tempered, honour pursuing soldier.

He is ready to put his mouth in the Cannon’s mouth for conquering the bubble like honour in order to defend the territory of his country. In the fifth Act, he performs the role of a mature and fair judge criticising the ways of the world often spicing up his conversations with wise remarks and wit. His pot belly and well-cut beard shows the social status he enjoys in life. In the sixth act, he is old. He performs the role of a thin old man wearing ill-fitting loose garments with a changed treble in his voice. He is bespectacled and slow in walking. In the final act, he becomes a total invalid losing all senses of hearing, taste and sight. Then the performer leaves the stage (i.e.) the lonely planet.

Speaking Activity

Shakespeare describes the characteristics of the various stages of man. You are in the second stage of life. What do you think of your roles and responsibilities at this stage? Discuss with your partner and share your ideas with the class.
Answer:
At school age, imagination takes wings. Inquisitiveness is common among my peers. Parents, society and teachers want us only to study. But we need to explore the world around us. At home, it is our responsibility to keep our things in order. We need to assist the perennial worker, we mean, our moms in completing their domestic chores. Occasionally, we shall take care of siblings too not as a work but as a duty towards a family member who will be a life long companion to us.

Listening Activity

Listen to the poem and fill in the blanks with appropriate words and phrases. If required listen to the poem again.

The World Is Too Much with Us
The world is too much with us; late and soon, Getting and spending, we lay waste our powers; Little we see in Nature that is ours;We have given our hearts away, a sordid boon! This Sea that bares her bosom to the moon, The winds that will be howling at all hours,And are up- gathered now like sleeping flowers,

For this, for everything, we are out of tune; It moves us not. – Great God! I’d rather be A Pagan suckled in a creed outworn; So might I, standing on this pleasant lea, Have glimpses that would make me less forlorn; Have sight of Proteus rising from the sea; Or hear old Triton blow his wreathed horn.

The World Is Too Much with Us:
The world is too much with us; late and soon
Getting and spending, we lay waste our powers
Little we see in (1) ______ that is ours;
We have given (2) ______ away, a sordid boon!
This Sea that bares her bosom (3) ______
(4) ______ that will be howling at all hours,
And are up-gathered now like (5) ______
,For this, for everything, we are (6) ______ ;
It (7) ______ . us not. Great God! I’d rather be
A Pagan suckled in a creed outworn;
So might I, standing on this pleasant lea
Have glimpses that would make me less forlorn;
Have sight of Proteus rising (8) ______
Or hear old Triton blow his wreathed horn.
Answers:

1. Nature
2. our hearts
3. to the moon
4. The winds
5. sleeping flowers
6. out of tune
7. moves
8. from the sea

All the World’s a Stage About The Poet

William Shakespeare (1564-1616) was a prolific writer during the Elizabethan and Jacobean ages of British theatre (sometimes called the English Renaissance). Shakespeare’s plays are perhaps his most enduring legacy. Shakespeare’s poems remain popular to this day. Shakespeare’s rich and diverse works have spawned countless adaptations across multiple genres and cultures. His writings have been compiled in various iterations of The Complete Works of William Shakespeare. William Shakespeare continues to be one of the most important literary7 figures of the English language.

All the World’s a Stage Summary in english

Introduction
‘All the world’s a stage’ is an extract from the play ‘As you like it’, a romantic comedy by Shakespeare.

A metaphor defining world
Shakespeare claims this world as a stage in a theatre. All men and women are only actors. The stage has both exits and entrances. Similarly, men and women take birth and enter the world. They live their lives and go out of it when they die. Every man plays seven emergent roles and lives through seven stages of life.

Infancy and boyhood
With the birth of an infant begins the first stage of man’s life. The infant cries and vomits on the arms of his nurse. Then he grows into a school-going boy. He is unwilling to go to the school. He moves towards school at a snail’s speed.

Thirst for love and glory
In the third stage, man plays the role of a lover. He sighs like a fumace.He keeps on writing ballads praising the beauty of the eyes of his beloved. The fourth stage is that of a soldier. He keeps a beard like that of a leopard. He always runs after honour and fame. He is ready even to enter a cannon’s mouth just for momentary glory and bubble of reputation.

Wisdom and failing health
In the fifth stage, man plays the role of a justice. He is fond of eating chicken and develops a fat round belly. He is full of wise sayings and modem instances. He is a man of wisdom and knowledge. In the sixth stage, man becomes weak and thin in body. He wears slippers, spectacles and clothes that he bought when he was young. These pants and stockings have become loose for his shrunk and thin legs.

Second childhood
The seventh stage is the ‘second childhood’. In this stage, man becomes very old and starts behaving like a child. He is left with no teeth and becomes weak in eyesight. Actually, he loses taste and becomes a victim of forgetfulness. The poet describes this helpless state as “Sans teeth, sans eyes, sans taste and sans everything” nicely. Then the man departs from this world.

Conclusion
Shakespeare condenses the life of man beautifully and portrays it well. The revisit of childhood in old age proves his profound understanding of human life.

All the World’s a Stage Summary in Tamil

முன்னுரை
‘All the World’s a stage’ (‘உலகம் ஒரு நாடக மேடை’) என்ற கவிதை சேக்ஸ்பியரின் ‘As you like it’, என்ற | நகைச்சுவை கலந்த கற்பனை கதையின் ஒரு சாரம் ஆகும்.

உலகம் ஒரு நாடக மேடை:
சேக்ஸ்பியர் உலகத்தை ஒருநாடக மேடையாகக் கருதுகிறார். அதில் அனைத்து ஆணும், பெண்ணும் நடிகர்களே. இந்த நாடக மேடையின் உள்ளே வரவும் வெளியே செல்லவும் வழிகள் உள்ளன. அதே போல தான் மனிதன் பிறந்து இந்த உலகத்துக்கு வருகிறான். அவனது வாழ்நாளை வாழ்ந்துவிட்டு வெளியே போய்விடுகிறான். ஒவ்வொரு மனிதனும் ஏழு கதாபாத்திரங்களாக வாழ்க்கை மேடையில் நடிக்கிறான்.

குழந்தை பருவமும், விடலைப் பருவமும்:
குழந்தை பருவமே மனிதனின் முதல் பாகம் ஆகும். வாந்தியும், அழுகையுமாக முதல் பாகம் செவிலிப் பெண் தோளில் இருக்கிறான். பிறகு பள்ளிப் பருவம் அடைகிறான். பள்ளிக்கூடம் போக மனமில்லாது இருக்கிறான். பள்ளிக்கூடத்தை நோக்கி நத்தை போல் நகர்கிறான்.

காதல், புகழ் என ஈர்ப்புக்குள்ளாகிறான்:
மூன்றாம் பாகத்தில் காதலனாக கதாபாத்திரம் ஏற்கிறான். எரியும் அடுப்பைப் போன்று குமுறுகிறான். தன் காதலியின் கண்களைக் குறித்து கவிதை மழை பொழிகிறான். நான்காம் பாகத்தில் சிப்பாய் வேடம் ஏற்கிறான். சிறுத்தை போன்று மீசையை வளர்த்துக் கொள்கிறான். பேர் மற்றும் புகழின் பின்னால் ஓடுகிறான். தற்காலிக பேருக்கும், புகழுக்கும் ஆசைப்பட்டு பீரங்கி | வாயினுள் நுழையவும் தயாராக இருக்கிறான்.

அறிவு முதிர்ச்சியும், குன்றும் ஆரோக்கியமும்:
ஐந்தாம் பாகத்தில் தானே ஒரு நீதிபதி ஆகிறான். கோழி மாமிசத்தின் பால் ஆவல் கொண்டு அதை உண்டு பெரிய தொப்பையுடன் தோன்றுகிறான். அறிவு முதிர்ச்சியுடனும், புதுப் பொலிவுடனும் தோன்றுகிறான். அறிவும் ஆற்றலுமுடையவனாய்த் திகழ்கிறான். ஆறாம் பாகத்தில் உடல் வலுவிழந்து சோர்வடைகிறான், ஒல்லி வடிவமாய், காலில் செருப்புமாய் ஒரு சிரிப்பு நடிகனைப் போல் தோற்றமளிக்கிறான். இளம் வயதில் அணிந்த கண்ணாடியும், துணிகளும், செருப்பும் அணிந்து கொள்கிறான். சுருங்கிய தோல்களுக்கும், ஒல்லியான கால்களுக்கும் இந்த உடையும், செருப்பும் தொள தொளவென காணப்படுகின்றன.

இரண்டாம் குழந்தை பருவம்:
ஏழாம் பருவம் இரண்டாவது குழந்தை பருவம் எனலாம். இந்த பாகத்தில் மிகவும் வயது முதிர்ந்த ஒரு குழந்தையின் இயலாமைத் தனத்தை செயல்பாட்டில் காட்டுகிறான். பற்களை இழந்து, கண் பார்வைக் குன்றிப் போகிறான். குழந்தையின் குரல் போல் மாறி, குரல் ஒரு விசில் சத்தமாய் மாறுகிறது. இது கடைசி அத்தியாயம் எனலாம். அவனின் அதிசயமான பரப்பரப்பூட்டும் நிகழ்வுகள் நிறைந்த வரலாறானது ஒரு முடிவுக்கு வருகிறது. தன் இரண்டாம் குழந்தைப் பருவத்தில் பிறரைச் சார்ந்து வாழும் நிலையை அடைகிறான். பற்களை இழந்து, கண் பார்வையை இழந்து, நாவின் | சுவை இழந்து, பின் அனைத்தையும் இழக்கிறான். உலகத்தை விட்டு வெளியேறுகிறான்.

முடிவுரை:
சேக்ஸ்பியர் மனித வாழ்க்கையை சுருக்கி அழகாக அதை வர்ணித்து இருக்கிறார். வயோதிகத்தில் திரும்பும் குழந்தைத் தனம் என்பது அவர் மனித வாழ்க்கையை அவர் ஆழ்ந்து அறிந்து கொண்டதை உணர்த்துகிறது.

All the World’s a Stage Glossary

Textual:

Additional:

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II TextBook Evalution

I. Choose the correct answer.

12th Chemistry Chapter 3 Book Back Answers Question 1.
In which of the following, NH₃ is not used?
(a) Nessler’s reagent
(b) Reagent for the analysis of IV group basic radical
(c) Reagent for the analysis of III group basic radical
(d) Tollen’s reagent
Answer:
(a) Nessler’s reagent

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Chemistry Question 2.
Which is time regarding nitrogen?
(a) least electronegative element
(b) has low ionisation enthalpy than oxygen
(c) d-orbitals available
(d) ability to form pπ – pπ bonds with itself
Answer:
(d) ability to form pπ – pπ bonds with itself

12th Chemistry 3rd Lesson Book Back Answers Question 3.
An element belongs to group 15 and 3 rd period of the periodic table, its electronic configuration would be …………
(a) 1s²2s²2p⁴
(b) 1s²2s²2p³
(c) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p²
(d) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³
Answer:
(d) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s²3p³

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 12th Chemistry Question 4.
Solid (A) reacts with strong aqueous NaOH liberating a foul smelling gas(B) which spontaneously bum in air giving smoky rings. A and B are respectively …………
(a) P₄(red) and PH₃
(b) P₄(white) and PH₃
(c) S₈ and H₂S
(d) P₄(white) and H₂S
Answer:
(b) P₄(white) and PH₃

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Class 12 Chemistry Question 5.
In the brown ring test, brown colour of the ring is due to …………
(a) a mixture of NO and NO₂
(b) Nitroso ferrous sulphate
(c) Ferrous nitrate
(d) Ferric nitrate
Answer:
(b) Nitroso ferrous sulphate

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Question 6.
On hydrolysis, PCl₃ gives …………
(a) H₃PO₃
(b) PH₃
(c) H₃PO₄
(d) POOL
Answer:
(a) H₃PO₃

Chemistry Class 12 Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
P₄O₆ reacts with cold water to give …………
(a) H₃PO₃
(b) H₄P₂O₇
(c) HPO₃
(d) H₃PO₄
Answer:
(a) H₃PO₃

Samacheer Kalvi Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Question 8.
The basicity of pyrophosphorous acid ( H₄P₂O₅) is …………
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(b) 2

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Chemistry Question 9.
The molarity of given orthophosphoric acid solution is 2M. its normality is …………
(a) 6N
(b) 4N
(c) 2N
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) 6N

Chapter 3 Chemistry Class 12 Notes Question 10.
Assertion – bond dissociation energy of fluorine is greater than chlorine gas
Reason – chlorine has more electronic repulsion than fluorine
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(d) Both assertion and reason are false. The converse is true.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Question 11.
Among the following, which is the strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) Cl₂
(b) F₂
(c) Br₂
(d) I₂
Answer:
(b) F₂

Class 12 Chemistry Samacheer Kalvi Question 12.
The correct order of the thermal stability of hydrogen halide is …………
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
(c) HCl > HF > HBr > HI
(d) HI > HCl > HF > HBr
Answer:
(b) HF > HCl > HBr > HI

Samacheer Kalvi 12 Chemistry Solutions Question 13.
Which one of the following compounds is not formed?
(a) XeOF₄
(b) XeO₃
(c) XeF₂
(d) NeF₂
Answer:
(d) NeF₂

Class 12 Chemistry Chapter 3 Notes Pdf Download Question 14.
Most easily liquefiable gas is …………
(a) Ar
(b) Ne
(c) He
(d) Kr
Answer:
(c) He

12th Chemistry Chapter 7 Book Back Answers Question 15.
XeF₆ on complete hydrolysis produces …………
(a) XeOF₄
(b) XeO₂F₄
(c) XeO₃
(d) XeO₂
Answer:
(c) XeO₃

Question 16.
On oxidation with iodine, sulphite ion is transformed to …………
(a) S₄\({ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }\)
(b) S₂\({ O }_{ 6 }^{ 2- }\)
(c) S\({ O }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)
(d) S\({ O }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }\)
Answer:
(c) S\({ O }_{ 4 }^{ 2- }\)

Question 17.
Which of the following is strongest acid among all?
(a) HI
(b) HF
(c) HBr
(d) HCl
Answer:
(a) HI

Question 18.
Which one of the following orders is correct for the bond dissociation enthalpy of halogen molecules?
(a) Br₂ > I₂ > F₂ > Cl₂
(b) F₂ > Cl₂ > Br₂ > I₂
(c) I₂ > Br₂ > Cl₂ > F₂
(d) Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ > I₂
Answer:
(d) Cl₂ > Br₂ > F₂ > I₂

Question 19.
Among the following the correct order of acidity is …………
(a) HClO₂ < HCIO < HClO₃ < HClO₄
(b) HClO₄ < HClO₂ < HCIO < HClO₃
(c) HClO₃ < HClO₄ < HClO₂ < HCIO
(d) HCIO < HClO₂ < HClO₃ < HClO₄
Answer:
(d) HCIO < HClO₂ < HClO₃ < HClO₄

Question 20.
When copper is heated with cone HNO₃ it produces …………
(a) CU(NO₃)₂ , NO and NO₂
(b) Cu(NO₃)₂ and N₂O
(c) CU(NO₃)₂ and NO₂
(d) Cu(NO₃)₂ and NO
Answer:
(c) CU(NO₃)₂ and NO₂

II. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What is inert pair effect?
Answer:
In p-block elements, as we go down the group, two electrons present in the valence s-orbital become inert and are not available for bonding (only p-orbital involves chemical bonding). This is called inert pair effect.

Question 2.
Chalcogens belongs to p-block. Give reason.
Answer:
Chalcogens are ore forming elements. Most of the ores are oxides and sulphides, therefore oxygen, sulphur and other group 16 elements are called Chalcogens. In O, S, Se, Te and Po last electron enters to p-orbital. Therefore Chalcogens belongs to p-block.

Question 3.
Explain why fluorine always exhibit an oxidation state of -1?
Answer:
Fluorine the most electronegative element than other halogens and cannot exhibit any positive oxidation state. Fluorine does not have d-orbital while other halogens have d-orbitals. Therefore fluorine always exhibit an oxidation state of-1 and others in halogen family shows +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation states.

Question 4.
Give the oxidation state of halogen in the following.

1. OF₂
2. O₂F₂
3. Cl₂O₃
4. I₂O₄

Answer:
1. OF₂
+2 + 2(x) = 0
+2 = -2x
2x = -2
x =-1

2. O₂F₂
2(+1) + 2x = 0
2x = – 2
x = – 1

3. Cl₂O₃
2(x) + 3(-2) =0
2x = +6
x = +3

4. I₂O₄
2(x) + 4(-2) =0
2x = +8
x = +4

Question 5.
What are interhalogen compounds? Give examples.
Answer:
Each halogen combines with other halogens to form a series of compounds called interhalogen compounds. For example, Fluorine reacts readily with oxygen and forms difluorine oxide (F₂O) and difluorine dioxide (F₂O₂).

Question 6.
Why fluorine is more reactive than other halogens?
Answer:
Fluorine is the most reactive element among halogen. This is due to the minimum value of F – F bond dissociation energy. Hence fluorine is more reactive than other halogens.

Question 7.
Give the uses of helium.
Answer:

1. Helium and oxygen mixture is used by divers in place of air oxygen mixture. This prevents the painful dangerous condition called bends.
2. Helium is used to provide inert atmosphere in electric arc welding of metals
3. Helium has lowest boiling point hence used in cryogenics (low temperature science).
4. It is much less denser than air and hence used for filling air balloons

Question 8.
What is the hybridisation of iodine in IF₇? Give its structure.
Answer:
Hybridisation of iodine in IF₇ is sp³d³ Structure of IF₇ is pentagonal bipyramidal.

Question 9.
Give the balanced equation for the reaction between chlorine with cold NaOH and hot NaOH.
Answer:
1. Reaction between chlorine with cold NaOH:
Cl₂+ H₂O → HCl + HOCl
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
HOCl + NaOH → NaOCl + H₂O
Overall reaction

Chlorine reacts with cold NaOH to give sodium chloride and sodium hypochlorite.

2. Reaction between chlorine with hot NaOH:
Cl₂ + H₂O → HCl + HOCl
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
HOCl + NaOH → NaOCl + H₂O
3NaOCl → NaClO₃+ 2NaCl
Overall reaction

Chlorine reacts with hot NaOH to give sodium chlorate and sodium chloride.

Question 10.
How will you prepare chlorine in the laboratory?
Answer:
1. Chlorine is prepared by the action of cone, sulphuric acid on chlorides in presence of manganese dioxide.
4NaCl + MnO₂ + 4H₂SO₄ → Cl₂ + MnCl₂ + 4NaHSO₄ + 2H₂O

2. It can also be prepared by oxidising hydrochloric acid using various oxidising agents such as manganese dioxide, lead dioxide, potassium permanganate or dichromate.
PbO₂ + 4HCl → PbCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
MnO₂ + 4HCl → MnCl₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂
2KMnO₄ + 16HCl → 2KCl + 2MnCl + 8H₂O + 5Cl₂
K₂Cr₂O₇ + 14HCl → 2KCl + 2CrCl₃ + 7H₂O + 3Cl₂

3. When bleaching powder is treated with mineral acids chlorine is liberated
CaOCl₂ + 2HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O + Cl₂
CaOCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + Cl₂

Question 11.
Give the uses of sulphuric acid.
Answer:

1. Sulphuric acid is used in the manufacture of fertilisers, ammonium sulphate and super phosphates and other chemicals such as hydrochloric acid, nitric acid etc.
2. It is used as a drying agent and also used in the preparation of pigments, explosives etc.

Question 12.
Give a reason to support that sulphuric acid is a dehydrating agent.
Answer:
Sulphuric acid is highly soluble in water and has strong affinity towards water and hence it can be used as a dehydrating agent. When dissolved in water it forms mono ( H₂SO₄. H₂O ) and di ( H₂SO₄. 2H₂O ) hydrates and the reaction is exothermic. The dehydration property can also be illustrated by its reaction with organic compounds such as sugar, oxalic acid and formic acid.

Question 13.
Write the reason for the anamolous behaviour of Nitrogen.
Answer:
1. Due to its small size, high electro negativity, high ionisation enthalpy and absence of d-orbitals.

2. N, has a unique ability to form pπ – pπ multiple bond whereas the heavier members of this group (15) do not form pπ – pπ bond, because their atomic orbitals are so large and diffused that they cannot have effective overlapping.

3. Nitrogen exists a diatomic molecule with triple bond between the two atoms whereas other elements form single bond in the elemental state.

4. N cannot form dπ – pπ bond due to the absence of d – orbitals whereas other elements can.

Question 14.
Write the molecular formula and structural formula for the following molecules.
(a) Nitric acid
(b) dinitrogen pentoxide
(c) phosphoric acid
(d) phosphine
Answer:

Question 15.
Give the uses of argon.
Answer:
Argon prevents the oxidation of hot filament and prolongs the life in filament bulbs.

Question 16.
Write the valence shell electronic configuration of group-15 elements.
Answer:
General electronic configuration of group 15 elements are ns²np³.

1. Nitrogen – [He] 2s² 2p³
2. Phosphorous – [Ne] 3s² 3p³
3. Arsenic – [Ar] 3d¹⁰ 4s² 4p³
4. Antimony – [Kr] 4d¹⁰ 5s² 5p³
5. Bismuth – [Ne] 4f¹⁴ 5s¹⁰ 6s² 6p³

Question 17.
Give two equations to illustrate the chemical behaviour of phosphine.
Answer:
1. Phosphine reacts with halogens to give phosphorous penta halides.
PH₃ + 4Cl₂ → PCl₅ + 3HCl

2. Phosphine forms coordination compound with lewis acids such as boron trichloride.

3. Phosphine precipitates some metal from their salt solutions.
3AgNO₃ + PH₃ → Ag₃P + 3HNO₃

Question 18.
Give a reaction between nitric acid and a basic oxide.
Answer:
Nitric acid reacts with bases and basic oxides to form salts and water.

1. ZnO + 2HNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + H₂O
2. 3FeO + 10HNO₃ → 3Fe(NO₃)₃ + NO + 5H₂O

Question 19.
What happens when PCl₅ is heated?
Answer:
On heating phosphorous pentachloride, it decomposes into phosphorus trichloride and chlorine.
PCl₅ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) PCl₃ + Cl₂

Question 20.
Suggest a reason why HF is a weak acid, whereas binary acids of the all other halogens are strong acids.
Answer:
The hydrogen halides are extremely soluble in water due to the ionisation.
X + H₂O → H₃O⁺ + X^–
( X = F, Cl, Br or I )

Solutions of hydrogen halides are therefore acidic and known as hydrohalic acids. Hydrochloric, hydrobromic and hydroiodic acids are almost completely ionised and are therefore strong acids but HF is a weak acid. For HF,

• HF + H₂O \(\rightleftharpoons\) H₃O⁺ + F^–
• HF + F^– → \({ HF }_{ 2 }^{ – }\)

At high concentration, the equilibrium involves the removal of fluoride ions is important. Since it affects the dissociation of hydrogen fluoride, therefore it is a weak acid.

Question 21.
Deduce the oxidation number of oxygen in hypofluorous acid – HOF.
Answer:
In case of O – F bond is HOF, fluorine is most electronegative element. So its oxidation number is -1. Thereby oxidation number of O is +1. Similarly in case of O – H bond is HOF. O is highly electronegative than H. So its oxidation number is -1 and oxidation number of H is +1. So, Net oxidation of oxygen is – 1 + 1 = 0.

Question 22.
What type of hybridisation occur in

1. BrF₅
2. BrF₃

Answer:
1. BrF₅
BrF₅ is a AX₅ type. Therefore is has sp³d² hybridisation. Hence, BrF₅ molecule has square pyramidal shape.

2. BrF₃
BrF₃ is a AX₃ type. Therefore it has sp³d hybridisation. Hence, BrF₃ molecule has T-shape.

Question 23.
Complete the following reactions.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
Write the products formed in the reaction of nitric acid (both dilute and concentrated) with zinc.
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the best answer.

Question 1.
About 78% of earth atmosphere contains,…………
(a) P
(b) As
(c) N
(d) Bi
Answer:
(c) N

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a pnictogens?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Antimony
Answer:
(b) Oxygen

Question 3.
Which one of the following shows isotopes?
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Arsenic
(c) Antimony
(d) Bismuth
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 4.
Nitrogen gas in atmosphere is separated industrially from liquid air by …………
(a) simple distillation
(b) Fractional distillation
(c) Sublimation
(d) Distillation under reduced pressure
Answer:
(b) Fractional distillation

Question 5.
Bond order for nitrogen molecule is …………
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 0
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 6.
Nitrogen gas is …………
(a) Inert
(b) Noble
(c) More reactive
(d) Less reactive
Answer:
(a) Inert

Question 7.
Which one of the following is used in cryosurgery?
(a) Liq N₂
(b) Liq NH₃
(c) Liq Na
(d) Liq H₂
Answer:
(a) Liq N₂

Question 8.
The dielectric constant of ammonia is (K) …………
(a) 10^-30
(b) 10^-14
(c) 10³⁰
(d) 10¹⁴
Answer:
(a) 10^-30

Question 9.
When ammonia reacts with copper sulphate solution to give complex, the colour of complex is …………
(a) violet
(b) deep blue
(c) blue
(d) Red
Answer:
(b) deep blue

Question 10.
H – N – H bond angle in NH₃ is …………
(a) 109° 28’
(b) 107° 28’
(c) 104°
(d) 107°
Answer:
(d) 107°

Question 11.
Shape of ammonia is …………
(a) Planar
(b) Square planar
(c) Pyramidal
(d) Square pyramidal
Answer:
(c) Pyramidal

Question 12.
Nitric acid prepared in large scales using …………
(a) Ostwald’s process
(b) Haber’s process
(c) Contact process
(d) Deacon’s process
Answer:
(a) Ostwald’s process

Question 13.
Benzene undergoes nitration reaction to form nitrobenzene in this reaction takes place due to the formation of …………
(a) Hydronium ion
(b) Hydride ion
(c) Nitronium ion
(d) Nitrasonium ion
Answer:
(c) Nitronium ion

Question 14.
Oxidation state of N m FINO₃ is…………
(a) ±2
(b) +3
(c) +4
(d) +5
Answer:
(d) +5

Question 15.
Compound used in photography is …………
(a) AgNO₃
(b) AgBr
(c) AgCl
(d) AgI
Answer:
(a) AgNO₃

Question 16.
Sodium nitrate
(a) Photography
(b) Firearms
(c) Royal water Sosurgerv …………
(d) Cryosurgery
Answer:
(b) Firearms

Question 17.
Nitrogen sesquoxide colour is …………
(a) colourless
(b) Brown
(c) Blue
(d) Red
Answer:
(c) Blue

Question 18.
White phosphorous is also called as …………
(a) Red phosphorous
(b) Black phosphorous
(c) Scarlet phosphorous
(d) Yellow phosphorous
Answer:
(d) Yellow phosphorous

Question 19.
White (Yellow) phosphorous glows in the dark due to oxidation which is called …………
(a) phosphorescence
(b) phosphorus
(c) Fluorescence
(d) Liminoscence
Answer:
(a) phosphorescence

Question 20.
Yellow phosphorous reacts with alkali on boiling in an inert atmosphere liberates …………
(a) Phosphorous acid
(b) Phosphoric acid
(c) Phosphine
(d) Pyrophosphoric acid
Answer:
(c) Phosphine

Question 21.
Consider the following statements.
(i) phosphine is the most important hydride of phosphorous
(ii) phosphine is a poisonous gas with rotten egg smell.
(iii) phosphine is a powerful reducing agent

Which of the above statement(s) is / are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) only
Ansswer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 22.
When phosphine is heated with air it bums to gives …………
(a) Orthophosphoric acid
(b) Metaphosphoric acid
(c) Pyrophosphoric acid
(d) Phosphoroustrioxide
Answer:
(b) Metaphosphoric acid

Question 23.
Hybridisation of P in phosphine is …………
(a) sp³d
(b) sp³d²
(c) sp3d3
(d) sp3
Answer:
(d) sp3

Question 24.
Compounds used in Holme’s signal are …………
(a) Phosphine + Acetylene
(b) H₃PO₃+H₃PO₃
(c) Calcium carbide + calcium phosphide
(d) Calcium carbonate + calcium phosphate
Answer:
(c) Calcium carbide + calcium phosphide

Question 25.
Chalgogens are also called as …………
(a) Ore forming elements
(b) Group-16 elements
(c) group 17 elements
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 26.
Element present in the volcanic ashes is …………
(a) Oxygen
(b) Sulphur
(c) Selenium
(d) Tellurium
Answer:
(b) Sulphur

Question 27.
The decomposition of potassium chlorate speed up in the presence of …………
(a) MnO₂
(h) Mn₃O₄
(c) MnSO₄
(d) KMnO₄
Answer:
(a) MnO₂

Question 28.
Pure ozone is …………
(a) yellow gas
(b) blue gas
(c) Pale blue gas
(d) bright blue gas
Answer:
(c) Pale blue gas

Question 29.
Shape of ozone …………
(a) V-shape
(b) Linear shape
(c) bent shape
(d) spherical shape
Answer:
(c) bent shape

Question 30.
The rate of decompositon of ozone drops sharply in …………
(a) acidic medium
(b) alkaline medium
(c) neutral medium
(d) Ether medium
Answer:
(b) alkaline medium

Question 31.
Which one of the following used as fuel in rockets?
(a) Liq O₂
(b) Liq CO₂
(c) Liq N₂
(d) Liq He – O₂
Answer:
(a) Liq O₂

Question 32.
Find out crystalline allotrophic form of sulphur?
(a) γ – sulphur
(b) λ – sulphur
(c) α – sulphur
(d) milk of sulphur
Answer:
(c) α – sulphur

Question 33.
Consider the following statements
(i) α – sulphur is the only thermodynamically stable allotrophic form.
(ii) At 140 ° C the mono clinic sulphur melts to form mobile pale yellow liquid called γ – sulphur
(iii) Monoclinic sulphur is stable between 96°C-119°C and slowly changes into λ- sulphur

Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Question 34.
Sulphur di oxide, how many times heavier than air?
(a) 2 times
(b) 2.5 times
(c) 2.2 times
(d) 2.3 times
Answer:
(c) 2.2 times

Question 35.
Which one of following has temporary bleaching action?
(a) Chlorine
(b) SO₃
(c) H₃SO₄
(d) SO₂
Answer:
(d) SO₂

Question 36.
Sulphuric acid can be manufactured by …………
(a) Ostwald’s process
(b) Lead chamber process
(c) Deacon’s process
(d) Haber’s process
Answer:
(b) Lead chamber process

Question 37.
Sulphuric acid is manufactured by contact process, catalyst used in contact process is …………
(a) V₂O₅
(b) TiCl₄
(c) Fe
(d) Mo
Answer:
(c) V₂O₅

Question 38.
Benzene reacts with sulphuric acid to gives …………
(a) sulphate
(b) sulphide
(c) sulphonic acid
(d) sulphite
Answer:
(c) sulphonic acid

Question 39.
Reagent used to detect sulphate ion is …………
(a) BaCl₂
(b) BaSO₃
(c) (CH,COO),Pb
(d) both (a) and (c)
Answwer:
(d) both (a) and (c)

Question 40.
Deacon’s process is used to manufacture …………
(a) Cl₂
(b) F₂
(C) Br
(d) I₂
Answer:
(a) Cl₂

Question 41.
Catalyst used in Deacon’s process is …………
(a) CuCl₂
(b) Cu₂Cl₂
(c) CuBr
(d) Cu₂Br₂
Answer:
(b) Cu₂Cl₂

Question 42.
C₁₀H₁₆ + 8C₁₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) A. Identify A?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Carbon
(d) Propane
Answer:
(c) Carbon

Question 43.
Passing chlorine gas through dry slaked lime to produce …………
(a) CaOCl
(b) CaOCl₂
(c) CaO
(d) CaCl₂
Answer:
(b) CaOCl₂

Question 44.
Which one of the following is used for purification of drinking water?
(a) SO₃
(b) SO₂
(c) Br₂ / H₂O
(d) Cl₂
Answer:
(d) Cl₂

Question 45.
Which one of the following is a weak acid?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI
Answer:
(a) HF

Question 46.
Reagent not stored in glass bottles?
(a) HCI
(b) HBr
(c) HF
(d) HI
Answer:
(c) HF

Question 47.
More reactive element is
(a) Fluorine
(b) Chlorine
(c) Bromine
(d) Iodine
Answer:
(a) Fluorine

Question 48.
The correct order of the acidity of hydrohalic acids?
(a) HF > HCI > HBr > HI
(b) HCI >HF >HBr >HI
(c) HBr > HCI >HF > HI
(d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF
Answer:
(d) HI > HBr > HCI > HF

Question 49.
Consider the following statements
(i) In interhalogen compounds, the central atom will be the smaller one.
(ii) It can be formed only between two halogen and not more than two halogens.
(iii) They are strong reducing agents.

Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(c) (i) and (iii)

Question 50.
Shape of ClF₃ is …………
(a) Linear
(b) T-shape
(c) Pyrimidal
(d) Square planar
Answer:
(b) T-shape

Question 51.
Which one of the following is more acidic?
(a) HOCl
(b) HCIO₂
(c) HClO₃
(d) HClO₄
Answer:
(d) HClO₄

Question 52.
When XeF₆ reacts with 2.5 M NaOH gives …………
(a) Na₄XeO₆
(b) Na₂XeO₃
(c) XeO₂F₂
(d) XeO₃
Answer:
(a) Na₄XeO₆

Question 53.
Shape of XeF₆ is …………
(a) Octahedron
(b) Distorted octahedron
(c) Pyramidal
(d) Tetrahedron
Answer:
(b) Distorted octahedron

Question 54.
Which one of the following can penetrate through dense fog?
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Kr
(d) Rn
Answer:
(c) Kr

Question 55.
Find out radioactive element?
(a) He
(b) Rn
(c) Xe
(d) Ar
Answer:
(b) Rn

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The 11th most abundant element is ………….
2. …………. is the principle gas of atmosphere.
3. Nitrogen is chemically ………….
4. …………. process for the synthesis of ammonia.
5. …………. is used for the manufacture of calcium cyanamide
6. …………. is a pungent smelling gas.
7. Ammonia acts as a …………. agent.
8. With excess of chlorine, ammonia reacts to give …………. an explosive substance.
9. When excess ammonia is added to aqueous solution of copper sulphate …………. colour compound is formed.
10. Pure nitric acid becomes …………. on standing.
11. …………. is used in gunpower for firearms.
12. The decomposition of ammonium nitrate gives ………….
13. White phosphorous is colourless but becomes pale yellow due to formation of a …………. upon standing.
14. The white phosphorous can be changed into …………. by heated it to 420°C in the absence of air and light.
15. …………. reacts with alkali on boiling in an inert atmosphere liberating phosphine.
16. …………. is used in the match boxes.
17. Phosphine is …………. smelling gas.
18. Phosphine has a …………. shape.
19. …………. is used for producing smoke screen.
20. When phosphorous trichloridie is hydrolysed with cold water it gives ………….
21. Elements belonging group 16 are called ………….
22. Under ordinary condition oxygen exists as a …………. gas.
23. Allotrophic form of oxygen is …………. and ………….
24. Pure ozone is …………. gas.
25. …………. is used in welding purpose.
26. Monoclinic sulphur is stable between 96° and 119°C and slowly changes into ………….
27. …………. gas is found in volcanic eruptions.
28. A large amount of …………. gas is released into atmosphere from plants using coal and oil and copper melting plants.
29. Sulphurdioxide gas has …………. odour.
30. Sulphurdioxide can be used for …………. and …………. in agriculture.
31. In SO₃ S-atom undergoes …………. hybridisation.
32. In SO₃ a double bond arises between S and O is due to …………. overlapping.
33. High boiling point and viscosity of sulphuric acid is due to ………….
34. …………. is used as a drying agent.
35. The main source of fluorine is ………….
36. The main source of chlorine is ………….
37. Chlorine is a …………. gas.
38. Chlorine is soluble in water and its solution is referred as ………….
39. …………. is produced by passing chlorine gas through dry slaked lime.
40. …………. is used in extraction of gold and platinum.
41. …………. is used for extraction of glue from bone.
42. At room temperature, hydrogen halides are gases but …………. can be readily liquefied.
43. Liberation of iodine which gives a …………. colouration with starch.
44. Each halogen combines with other halogens to form a series of compounds called ………….
45. Structure of AX₇ type is ………….
46. Oxidation state of Cl in HClO₄ is ………….
47. Noble gases have the …………. ionisation energy.
48. Xenon reacts with PtF₆ and gave an ………….
49. Kr and fluorine gases are irradiated with SbF it forms ………….
50. Shape of XeOF₄ is ………….
51. Helium used for filling air ………….
52. …………. is used in fluorescent bulbs.
53. …………. is used in high speed electronic flash bulbs.
54. Radon is a source of …………. rays.
55. …………. is formed by the hydrolysis of urea.
56. …………. element subtimes at 889 K.
57. Yellow phosphorus has a characteristics …………. smell.

Answers:

1. phosporous
2. Nitrogen
3. Inert
4. Haber’s
5. Nitrogen
6. Ammonia
7. Reducing
8. Nitrogen trichloride
9. Deep blue
10. Yellow
11. Nitric acid / NaNO
12. Nitrous oxide
13. Layer of red phosphorous
14. Red phosphorous
15. White phosphorous
16. Red phosporous
17. Rotten fish
18. Pyramidal
19. Phosphine
20. phosporous acid
21. Chalgogens
22. diatomic
23. dioxygen and ozone
24. pale blue
25. Oxyacetylene
26. Rhombic sulphur
27. Sulphurdioxide
28. SO₂
29. Suffocating
30. disinfecting crops and plants
31. sp²
32. pπ – dπ
33. Hydrogen bonding
34. Sulphuric acid
35. Fluorite
36. Sodium chloride
37. Green yellow
38. Chlorine water
39. Bleaching powder
40. Chlorine
41. Hydrochloric acid
42. hydrogen fluroide
43. blue-black
44. Inter-halogen compounds
45. pentagonal bipyramidal
46. +7
47. largest
48. orange yellow solid [XePtF₆]
49. KrF₂. 2SbF₃
50. Square pyramidal
51. Balloons
52. Krypton
53. Xenon
54. Gamma
55. Ammonia
56. Arsenic
57. Garlic

II. Match the following:

Question 1.
(i) Haber’s process – (a) HNO₃
(ii) Deacon’s process – (b) Ammonia
(iii) Contact process – (c) Chlorine
(iv) Ostwald’s process – (d) H₂SO₄
Answer:
(i) b
(ii) c
(iii) d
(iv) a

Question 2.
(i) Nitric acid – (a) Purification of bone black
(ii) HCl – (b) Photography
(iii) White (yellow) phosphorous – (c) Rotten fish smell
(iv) Phosphine – (d) Phosphorescence
Answer:
(i) b
(ii) a
(iii) d
(iv) c

Question 3.
(i) Nitrogen sesquoxide – (a) H₂N₂O₂
(ii) Nitrous oxide – (b) H₄N₂O₄
(iii) Hyponitrous acid – (c) N₂O
(iv) Hydronitrous acid – (d) N₂O₃
Answer:
(i) d
(ii) c
(iii) a
(iv) b

Question 4.
(i) N₂O – (a) +5
(ii) N₂O₄ – (b) +3
(iii) N₂O₅ – (c) +1
(iv) N₂O₃ – (d) +4
Answer:
(i) c
(ii) d
(iii) a
(iv) b

Question 5.
(i) White phosphorous – (a) Volcanic eruptions
(ii) Red phosphorous – (b) Yellow phosphorous
(iii) Phosphine – (c) Match boxes
(iv) SO₂ – (d) smoke screen
Answer:
(i) b
(ii) c
(iii) d
(iv) a

Question 6.
(i) ammonia – (a) suffocating odour
(ii) SO₂ – (b) Rotten fish smell
(iii) PH₃ – (c) Greenish yellow gas
(iv) Cl₂ – (d) pungent smelling gas
Answer:
(i) d
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) c

Question 7.
(i) XeF₄ – (a) sp³
(ii) XeOF₂ – (b) sp³d²
(iii) XeO₃ – (c) sp³d³
(iv) XeF – (d) sp³d
Answer:
(i) b
(ii) d
(iii) a
(iv) c

Question 8.
(i) Helium – (a) flash bulbs
(ii) Neon – (b) radioactive
(iii) Krypion – (c) air balloons
(iv) Radon – (d) Brilliant red
Answer:
(i) c
(ii) d
(iii) a
(iv) b

IV. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Assertion (A) – Xenon is used in high speed electronic flash bulbs used by photographers.
Reason (R) – Xenon emits an intense light in discharge tubes instantly.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Assertion (A) – Noble gases have the largest ionisation energy compared to any other elements.
Reason (R) – Noble gases have incomplete filled orbital.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong

Question 3.
Assertion (A) – Hydrogen iodide decomposes at 400⁰C while hydrogen fluoride and hydrogen chloride are stable at this temperature.
Reason (R) – Thermal stability of hydrogen halides decreases from fluoride to iodide.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 4.
Assertion (A) – The bleaching of chlorine is temporary.
Reason (R) – Chlorine oxidises ferrous salts to ferric salts.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(d) A is wrong but R is correct

Question 5.
Assertion (A) – Sulphuric acid is highly reactive.
Reason (R) – Sulphuric acid can act as strong acid and an oxidising agent.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A

Question 6.
Assertion (A) – Sulphuric acid is a high boiling point and viscous liquid.
Reason (R) – This is due to the association of molecules together through hydrogen bonding.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 7.
Assertion (A) – Monoclinic sulphur is less stable than rhomobic sulphur.
Reason (R) – Monoclinic sulphur is stable between 96°C – 119°C and slowly changes into rhombic sulphur.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A

Question 8.
Assertion (A) – Nitrogen gas is chemically inert.
Reason (R) – Nitrogen has low bonding energy.
(a) A and R are correct and R explains A
(b) A and R are correct but doesn’t explains A
(c) A is correct but R is wrong
(d) A is wrong but R is correct
Answer:
(c) A is correct but R is wrong

V. Find the odd one out
Question 1.
(a) NO
(b) HNO₃
(C) NO₂
(d) N₂O
Answer:
(b) HNO₃
Hint: HNO₃ is acid and other are oxides.

Question 2.
(a) Nitrous acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Hyponitrous acid
(d) Pemitrous acid
Answer:
(d) Pemitrous acid
Hint: Pemitrous acid contains peroxide linkage others doesn’t have peroxide linkage.

Question 3.
(a) White phosphorous
(b) Red phosphorous
(c) phosphorous pentaoxide
(d) black phosphorous
Answer:
(c) phosphorous pentaoxide
Hint: P₂O₅ is a compound of phosphorous and others are allotropic form of phosphorous.

Question 4.
(a) PH₃
(b) HPO₃
(c) H₃PO₃
(d) H₃PO₄
Answer:
(a) PH₃
Hint: PH₃ is hydrides of phosphorous and others are oxo acids of phosphorous.

Question 5.
(a) He
(b) Ne
(c) Ar
(d) Xe
Answer:
(d) Xe
Hint: Xe forms several chemical compounds than others.

VI. Find out the correct pair.

Question 1.
(a) Helium – filament bulbs
(b) Krypton – prevent bonds
(c) Xenon – Lasers
(d) Radon – flash bulbs
Answer:
(c) Xenon – Lasers

Question 2.
(a) Ra – gamma rays
(b) Xe – cancer growth
(c) Ne – balloons
(d) Kr – advertisement bulb
Answer:
(a) Ra – gamma rays

Question 3.
(a) ClF₃ – Linear
(b) BrF₅ – T Shaped
(c) IF₄ – square pyrimidal
(d) BrF₅ – square pyrimidal
Answer:
(d) BrF₅ – square pyrimidal

Question 4.
(a) XeOF₂ – sp³
(b) XeF₆ – sp³d³
(c) XeF₄ – sp³
(d) XeOF₄ – sp³d
Answer:
(b) XeF₆ – sp³d³

Question 5.
(a) OF₂ = -1
(b) Cl₄O₄ = -1
(c) I₂O₄ = -1
(d) I₂O₉ = -1
Answer:
(a) OF₂ = -1

Question 6.
(a) Royal water – Dissolving gold
(b) Chlorine – Entraction of glue from bone
(c) HCl- Extraction of gold
(d) Chlorine – Temporary bleaching
Answer:
(a) Royal water – Dissolving gold

Question 7.
(a) O – 2s²2p³
(b) S – 3s²3p⁴
(c) Se – 4d¹⁰5s²5p⁴
(d) Te – 3d¹⁰4s²4p⁴
Answer:
(b) S – 3s²3p⁴

VI.Find out the incorrect pair.

Question 1.
(a) Nitrogen gas – inert
(b) Ammonia – pungent smelling gas
(c) Nitric acid – oxidizing agent
(d) Phosphine – rotten egg smell
Answer:
(d) Phosphine – rotten egg smell

Question 2.
(a) Liquid nitrogen – biological preservation
(b) Nitric acid – photography
(c) white phosphorous – yellow phosphorous
(d) phosphorous – welding
Answer:
(d) phosphorous – welding

Question 3.
(a) N₂O = +1
(b) N₂O = +2
(c) N₂O₃ = +5
(d) NO₂ = +4
Answer:
(c) N₂O₃ = +5

Question 4.
(a) Hvponitrous acid – N₂O
(b) Nitrous acid – HNO₂
(c) pernitric acid – HNO₄
(d) pernitrous acid – HOONO
Answer:
(a) Hvponitrous acid – N₂O

Question 5.
(a) PH₃ – Holme’s signal
(b) O₂ – welding
(c) H₂SO₄ – Disinfecting crops
(d) SO₃ – Bleaching hair
Answer:
(c) H₂SO₄ – Disinfecting crops

Question 6.
(a) H₂SO₄ drying agent
(b) Chlorine – Deacon’s process
(c) HCI – purification of bone black
(d) Helium – flash bulbs
Answer:
(d) Helium – flash bulbs

Question 7.
(a) ICl – Linear
(b) CIF₃ – T shape
(c) IF₅ – pentagonal bipyramidal
(d) IF₇ – pentagonal bipyramidal
Answer:
(c) IF₅ – pentagonal bipyramidal

Question 8.
(a) HOCl = +2
(b) HOCl = +3
(e) HOCI = +5
(d) HOCl₄ = +7
Answer:
(a) HOCl = +2

Question 9.
(a) XeF₄ – sp³d³
(b) XeF₆ – sp³d³
(e) XeOF₄ – sp³d²
(d) XeO₃ – sp³d
Answer:
(d) XeO₃ – sp³d

Question 10.
(a) He – cryogenics
(b) Ne – advertisement
(c) Kr – flurescent bulbs
(d) Ra – Lasers.
Answer:
(d) Ra – Lasers.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II 2 Mark Questions and Answers

Question  1.
What are pnictogens?
Answer:
The group – 15 elements like nitrogen, phosphorous Arsenic, Antimony and Bismuth are collectively called as pnictogens. Their general outer electronic configuration is ns²np³.

Question 2.
What happen when sodium azide undergoes thermal decomposition?
Answer:
Pure nitrogen gas can be obtained by the thermal decomposition of sodium azide about 575K
2NaN₃ \(\underrightarrow { 575K }\) 2Na + 3N₂

Question 3.
How will you prepare ammonia from nitrogen? and mention the name of process?
Answer:
Nitrogen directly reacts with hydrogen gives ammonia. This reaction is favoured by high pressures and at optimum temperature in the presence of iron catalyst,
N₂ + 3H₃ \(\rightleftharpoons\) 2NH₃
This process is called as Haber’s process.

Question 4.
Why nitrogen gas is chemically inert?
Answer:
The chemically inert character of nitrogen is largely due to high bonding energy of the molecules 225 cal mol^-1 .Interestingly the triply bonded species is notable for its less reactivity in comparison with other iso-electronic triply bonded systems such as -C \(\equiv\) C – C \(\equiv\) Q, X- C \(\equiv\) N, etc.

Question 5.
Mention the uses of nitrogen?
Answer:

1. Nitrogen is used for the manufacture of ammonia, nitric acid and calcium cyanamide etc.
2. Liquid nitrogen is used for producing low temperature required in cryosurgery, and so in biological preservation

Question 6.
Explain the action of heat on ammonia.
Answer:
Above 500°C ammonia decomposes into its elements. The decomposition may be accelerated by metallic catalysts like Nickel, Iron. Almost complete dissociation occurs on continuous sparking.
2NH₃ \(\underrightarrow { { 500 }^{ 0 }C } \) N₂ + 3H₂

Question 7.
Prove ammonia act as a reducing agent?
Answer:
Ammonia reduces the metal oxides to metal when passed over heated metallic oxide.
3PbO + 2NH₃ → 3Pb + N₂ + 3H₂O

Question 8.
What happen when copper sulphate reacts with ammonia?
Answer:
When excess ammonia is added to aqueous solution copper sulphate a deep blue colour Complex [Cu(NH₃)₄ ]²⁺ is formed.

Question 9.
Pure nitric acid is colourless, on standing it becomes yellow. Justify your answer.
Answer:
Nitric acid decomposes on exposure to sunlight or on being heated, into nitrogen dioxide, water and oxygen.
4HNO₄ → 4NO₂ + 2H₂O + O₂
Due to this reaction pure acid or its concentrated solution becomes yellow on standing.

Question 10.
Write the products formed in the reaction of nitric acid with dilute and concentrated with magnesium.
Answer:
1. Magnesium with cone. HNO₃:
4Mg + 10HNO₃ → 4Mg(NO₃)₂ + NH₄NO₃ + 3H₂O
Magnesium reacts with concentraated nitric acid to gives both magnesium nitrate and ammonium nitrate.

2. Magnesium with dil HNO₃:
Magnesium reacts with dilute nitric acid to gives both magnesium nitrate and nitrous oxide.
4Mg + 10HNO₃ → 4 Mg(NO₃)₂ + N₂O + 5H₂O

Question 11.
Give the uses of nitric acid.
Answer:

1. Nitric acid is used as a oxidising agent and in the preparation of aquaregia.
2. 4. Salts of nitric acid are used in photography (AgNO₃) and gunpowder for firearms. (NaNO₃) .

Question 12.
How will you prepare nitric oxide from sodium nitrite?
Answer:
When sodium nitrite reacts with ferrous sulphate in the presence of sulphuric acid to gives nitric oxide.
2NaNO₂ + 2FeSO₄ + 3H₂S → Fe₂(SO₄)₃ + 2NaHSO₄ + 2H₂O + 2NO

Question 13.
How will you prepare nitrogen pentoxide?
Answer:
Nitric acid reacts with phosphorous pentaoxide to give nitrogen pentoxide.
2HNO₃ + P₂O₅ → N₂O₅ + 2HPO₃

Question 14.
Draw the structure of

1. N₂O
2. N₂O₃

Answer:
1. N₂O (Nitrous oxide)

2. N₂O₃ (Nitrogen sesquoxide)

Question 15.
Draw- the structure of

1. N₂O₄
2. N₂O₃

Answer:
1. N₂O₄ (Nitrogen tetraoxide)

2. N₂O₅

Question 16.
Draw the structure of

1. Hyponitrous acid
2. Hydronitrous acid.

Answer:
(a) Hypon trous acid – H₂N₂O₂
HO – N = H – OH

(b) Hydronitrous acid:

Question 17.
Mention the allotropic forms of phosphorous?
Answer:
The most common allotropic forms of phosphorous

1. white phosphorous
2. Red phosphorous
3. Black phosphorous

Question 18.
Why white phosphorous is also known as yellow phosphorous?
Answer:
The freshly prepared white phosphorus is colourless but becomes pale yellow due to formation of a layer of red phosphorus upon standing. Hence it is also known as yellow phosphorus.

Question 19.
What is phosphorescence?
Answer:
White (yellow) phosphorous glows in the dark due to oxidation which is called phosphorescence.

Question 20.
Why white phosphorous undergoes spontaneous combustion in air?
Answer:
White phosphorous ignition temperature is very low and hence it undergoes spontaneous combustion in air at room temperature and during in the combusition process, white phosphorous produces P₂O₅.

Question 21.
Draw the structure of

1. white phosphorous
2. red phosphorous

Answer:
1. White phosphorous

2. Red phosphorous

Question 22.
How will you convert red phosphorous into P₂O₃ and P₂Q₅?
Answer:
Red phosphorus reacts with oxygen on heating to give phosphorus trioxide or phosphorus pentoxide.
P₄ + 3O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) P₄O₆(phosphorous trioxide)
P₄ + 5O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) P₄Q₁₀ (phosphorous pentaoxide)

Question 23.
How will you prepare orthophosphoric acid from phosphorous?
Answer:
When phosphorous is treated with cone.nitric acid it is oxidised to orthophosphoric acid. This reaction is catalysed by iodine crystals.

Question 24.
Mention the uses of phosphorous?
Answer:

1. The red phosphorus is used in the match boxes.
2. It is also used for the production of certain alloys such as phosphor bronze.

Question 25.
Show that phosphine is weakly basic?
Answer:
Phosphine is weakly basic and forms phosphonium salts with halogen acids.
PH₃ +HI → PH₄I
PH₄I + H₂O \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) PH₃+ H₃O^– + I^–

Question 26.
Draw the structure of PCl₃
Answer:

Question 27.
How will you prepare PCl₃ from white phosphorous?

1. When a slow stream of chlorine is passed over white phosphorous, PCl₃ is formed
2. It can also be obtained by treating white phosphorous with thionyl chloride.

Question 28.
What happen when PCl₃ is treated with cold water?
Answer:
When PCl₃ is hydrolysed with cold water it gives phosphorous acid.

Question 29.
How will you prepare PCl₃ ?
Answer:
When PCl₃ is treated with excess chlorine, phosphorous pentachloride is obtained.
PCl₃+ Cl₂ → PCl₅

Question 30.
Mention the uses of PCl₃ and PCl₅?
answer:

1. Phosphorus trichloride is used as a chlorinating agent and for the preparation of H₂PO₃.
2. Phosphorous pentachloride is a chlorinating agent and is useful for replacing hydroxyl groups by chlorine atom.

Question 31.
Draw the structure of H₃PO₂ and H₃PO₃?
Answer:

Question 32.
Draw the structure of H₄P₂O₆ and H₄P₂O₃?
Answwer:
(i) H₄P₂O₆
(ii) H₄P₂O₃

Question 33.
Give the method to prepare hypophosphorous acid and pyrophosphoric acid?
Answer:
1. Hypophosphorous acid – Phosphorous reacts with water to give hypophosphorous acid.

2. Pyrophosphoric acid – Phosphorous acid is heated they produce pyrophosphoric acid.

Question 34.
Complete the reactions

1. HgO \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) ?
2. BaO₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) ?

Answer:

1. HgO \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) 2Hg + O₂
2. 2BaO₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) 2BaO + O₂

Question 35.
Give and explain the reaction used to estimation of ozone.
Answer:
Ozone oxidises potassium iodide to iodine.
O₃ + 2KI + H₂O → 2KOH + O₂ + I₂
This reaction is quantitative and can be used for estimation of ozone.

Question 36.
Write a short notes on Rhombic sulphur?
Answer:
Rhombic sulphur also known as a sulphur, is the only thermodynamically stable allotropic form at ordinary temperature and pressure. The crystals have a characteristic yellow colour and composed of S₈ molecules. When heated slowly above 96°C, it converts into monoclinic sulphur. Upon cooling below 96°C the β form converts back to a form.

Question 37.
Write a notes on monoclinic sulphur?
Answer:
Monoclinic sulphur also contains S₈ molecules in addition to small amount of S₆ molecules. It exists as a long needle like prism and is also called as prismatic sulphur. It is stable between 96° – 119°C and slowly changes into rhombic sulphur.

Question 38.
What are λ – sulphur?
Answer:
Sulphur also exists in liquid and gaseous states. At around 140° C the monoclinic sulphur melts to form mobile pale yellow liquid called λ sulphur.

Question 39.
How will you prepare sulphurdioxide by laboratory method?
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide is prepared in the laboratory treating a metal or metal sulphite with sulphuric acid.
Cu + 2H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + SO₂ + 2H₂O
\({ SO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) + 2H⁺ → H₂O + SO₂

Question 40.
Complete the reactions,
Answer:

1. Zns + O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) ?
2. FeS₂ + O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) ?

Answer:

1. 2Zns + 3O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) 2ZnO + 2SO₂
2. 4FeS₂ + 11O₂ \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) 2Fe₂O₃ + 8SO₂

Question 41.
What happen when sulphurdioxdie reacts with sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate?
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide reacts with sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate to form sodium bisulphite and sodium sulphite respectively.

Question 42.
Mention the uses of sulphurdioxide?
Answer:

1. Sulphur dioxide is used in bleaching hair, silk, wool etc…
2. It can be used for disinfecting crops and plants in agriculture.

Question 43.
Why sulphuric acid is high boiling and viscous liquid ?
Answer:
Sulphuric acid is high boiling and viscous liquid this is due to the association of molecules together through hydrogen bonding.

Question 44.
Explain the reaction between benzene and sulphuric acid.
Answer:
Sulphuric acid reacts with benzene to give benzene sulphuric acid.

Question 45.
Give the uses of sulphuric acid?
Answer:

1. Sulphuric acid is used in the manufacture of fertilisers, ammonium sulphate and super phosphates and other chemicals such as hydrochloric acid, nitric acid etc…
2. It is used as a drying agent and also used in the preparation of pigments, explosives etc..

Question 46.
Draw the structure of H₂SO₃ and H₂SO₄ ?
Answer:
1. H₂SO₃

2. H₂SO₄

Question 48.
Draw the structure of

1. Pyrosulphuric acid
2. Peroromonosulphuric acid?

Answer:
1. Pyrosulphuric acid H₂S₂O₇

2. Peroromonosulphuric acid H₂SO₅

Question 49.
What happen when chlorine reacts with trupentine?
Answer:
When chlorine burnt with turpentine it forms carbon and hydrochloric acid.

Question 50.
How will you prepare hydrochloric acid by laboratory method?
Answer:
It is prepared by the action of sodium chloride and concentrated sulphuric acid

• NaCl + H₂SO₄ → NaHSO₄ + HCl
• NaHSO₄ + NaCl → Na₂SO₄ + HCl

Dry hydrochloric acid is obtained by passing the gas through conc. sulphuric acid

Question 51.
Mention the uses of hydrochloric acid?
Answer:

1. Hydrochloric acid is used for the manufacture of chlorine, ammonium chloride, glucose from com starch etc.,
2. It is used in the extraction of glue from bone and also for purification of bone black.

Question 52.
Complet the following reaction?
Answer:

Question 53.
Why noble gases have the largest ionisation energy?
Answer:
Noble gases have the largest ionisation energy compared to any other elements in a given row as they have completely filled orbital (ns²np⁶) in their outer most shell. They are extremely stable and have a small tendency to gain or lose electrons. Hence noble gases have the largest ionisation energy.

Question 54.
Mention the uses of Neon?
Answer:
Neon is used in advertisement as neon sign and the brilliant red glow is caused by passing electric current through neon gas under low
pressure.

Question 55.
Give the uses of Krypton?
Answer:

1. Krypton is used in fluorescent bulbs, flash bulbs etc…
2. Lamps filed with krypton are used in airports as approaching lights as they can penetrate through dense fog.

Question 56.
Mention the application of Xenon?
Answer:

1. Xenon is used in fluorescent bulbs, flash bulbs and lasers.
2. Xenon emits an intense light in discharge tubes instantly. Due to this it is used in high speed electronic flash bulbs used by photographers.

Question 57.
Give the uses of Radon?
Answer:

1. Radon is radioactive and used as a source of gamma rays
2. Radon gas is sealed as small capsules and implanted in the body to destroy malignant i.e. cancer growth.

Question 58.
Why are pentahalides more covalent than trihalides?
Answer:
Since elements in the +5 oxidation state have less tendency to lose electrons than in the +3 oxidation state, therefore elements in the +5 oxidation state are more covalent than in the +3 oxidation state. In other words, pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides.

59. Why is N₂ less reactive at room temperature?
Answer:
Due to the presence of triple bond between the two nitrogen atoms, the bond dissociation energy of N₂ (941.4 kJ mol^–) is very high. Therefore, N₂ is less reactive at room temperature.

Question 60.
Why is ICl more reactive than I₂ ?
Answer:
ICl bond is weaker than I – I bond. Therefore ICl can break easily to form halogen atoms which readily brings about the reaction.

Question 61.
Why is helium used in diving apparatus?
Answer:
It is used as a diluent for oxygen in modern diving apparatus because of its very low solubility in blood.

Question 62.
Give the disproportionation reaction of H₃PO₃?
Answer:
H₃PO₃ on heating undergoes self-oxidation reduction as:

Question 63.
Why is red Phosphorus less reactive than white Phosphorus?
Answer:
White Phosphorus is more reactive than red Phosphorus under normal conditions because of angular strain in the P₄ molecule where the angles are only 60°.

Question 64.
Nitrogen does not form any pentahalide like Phosphorus. Why?
Answer:
Nitrogen does not form pentahalide due to non-availability of the d-orbitals in its valence shell.

Question 65.
Give reason for the following. Among the noble gases only Xenon is well known to form chemical compounds?
Answer:
Xe is largest in size and has the highest polarising power.

Question 66.
Why is hydrogen sulphide, with greater molar mass a gas, while water a liquid at room temperature?
Answer:
H₂O molecules are associated with intermolecular H-bonding, H₂S is not because oxygen is more electronegative and smaller in size than sulphur. That is why H₂O is a liquid and H₂S is a gas.

Question 67.
Noble gases are chemically inert. Give reasons.
Answer:
Noble gases are chemically inert because they have their octet complete except Helium, i.e. they have a stable electronic configurations.

Question 68.
Why do noble gases exist as monoatomic?
Answer:
Noble gases have stable electronic configuration, that is why they have no tendency to lose or gain electrons.Therefore they do not form covalent bond.

Question 69.
Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule and Phosphrus as P⁴. Why?
Answer:
Nitrogen has a triple bond between its two atoms because of its small size and high electro negativity. Phosphorus P⁴ has single bond, that is why it is tetra-atomic.

Question 70.
Why is H₂S more acidic than water?
Answer:
It is because bond dissociation energy of S – H bond is less than O – H bond due to longer bond length.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II 3 Marks Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the following reactions.
(i) 6Li + N₂ → ?
(ii) 3Ca + N₂ → ?
(iii) 2B + N₂ → ?
Answer:

Qustion 2.
How is ammonia prepared?
Answer:
1. Ammonia is formed by the hydrolysis of urea.
NH₂CONH₂ + H₂O → 2NH₃ + CO₂

2. Ammonia is prepared in the laboratory by heating an ammonium salt with a base.
\({ 2NH }_{ 4 }^{ + }\) + OH^– → 2NH₃+ H₂O
2NH₄Cl + CaO → CaCl₂ + 2NH₃ + H₂O

3. It can also be prepared by heating a metal nitrides such as magnesium nitride with water.
Mg₃N₂+ 6H₂O → 3Mg(OH)₂ + 2NH₃

Question 3.
Explain the structure of ammonia.
Answer:
Ammonia molecule is pyramidal in shape N – H bond distance is 1.016 A and H – H bond distance is 1.645 A with a bond angle 107°. The structure of ammonia may be regarded as a tetrahedral with one lone pair of electrons in one tetrahedral position hence it has a pyramidal shape as shown in the figure.

Question 4.
How will you prepare nitric acid?
Answer:
Nitric acid is prepared by heating equal amounts of potassium or sodium nitrate with concentrated sulphuric acid.
KNO₃ + H₂SO₄ → KHSO₄ + HNO₃

The temperature is kept as low as possible to avoid decomposition of nitric acid. The acid condenses to a fuming liquids which is coloured brown by the presence of a little nitrogen dioxide which is formed due to the decomposition of nitric acid.
4HNO₃ → 4NO₂ + 2H₂O + O₂

Question 5.
Discuss the Commercial method to prepare Nitric acid.
(Or)
How will you prepare nitric acid by Ostwald’s process?
Answer:
Nitric acid prepared in large scales using Ostwald’s process. In this method ammonia from Haber’s process is mixed about 10 times of air. This mixture is preheated and passed into the catalyst chamber where they come in contact with platinum gauze. The temperature rises to about 1275 K and the metallic gauze brings about the rapid catalytic oxidation of ammonia resulting in the formation of NO, which then oxidised to nitrogen dioxide.
4NH₃ + 5O₂ → 4NO + 6H₃O + 120kJ
2NO + O₂ → 2NO₃

The nitrogen dioxide produced is passed through a series of adsorption towers. It reacts with water to give nitric acid. Nitric acid formed is bleached by blowing air.
6NO₂ + 3H₂O → 4HNO₃ + 2NO + H₂O

Question 6.
Draw the structure of the following compounds.
(a) Nitrous acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Pernitric acid
Answer:

Question 7.
Identify A, B and C from the following reactions.

1. P₄ + Mg → A
2. P₄+ Ca → B
3. P₄ + Na → C

Answer:

1. P₄ + 6Mg → 2Mg₃P₂ (Magnesium phosphide)
2. P₄ + 6Ca → 2Ca₃P₂ (Calcium phosphide)
3. P₄+ 12Na → 2Na₃P (Sodium phosphide)

Question 8.
How will you prepare phosphine and explain the purification of phosphine?
Answer:
Phosphine is prepared by action of sodium hydroxide with white phosphorous in an inert atmosphere of carbon dioxide or hydrogen.

Phosphine is freed from phosphine dihydride (P₂H₄) by passing through a freezing mixture. The dihydride condenses while phosphine does not. Phosphine can also prepared by the hydrolysis of metallic phosphides with water or dilute mineral acids.

Phosphine is prepared in pure form by heating phosphorous acid.

A pure sample of phosphine is prepared by heating phosphonium iodide with caustic soda solution.

Question 9.
What happens when PH₃ reacts with oxygen or air?
Answer:
When phosphine air or oxygen it bums to give meta phosphoric acid.

Question 10.
Explain the structure of phosphine.
Answer:
In phosphine, phosphorus shows sp₃ hybridisation. Three orbitals are occupied by bond pair and fourth comer is occupied by lone pair of electrons. Hence, bond angle is reduced to 94°. Phosphine has a pyramidal shape.

Question 11.
Discuss the uses of phosphine.
Answer:
Phosphine is used for producing smoke screen as it gives large smoke. In a ship, a pierced container with a mixture of calcium carbide and calcium phosphide, liberates phosphine and acetylene when thrown into sea. The liberated phosphine catches fire and ignites acetylene. These burning gases serves as a signal to the approaching ships. This is known as Holmes signal.

Question 12.
How does PCl₃ reacts with the following reagents?

1. C₂H₅OH
2. C₂H₅COOH

Answer:

1. C₂H₅OH + PCl₃ → C₂H₅Cl + H₃PO₃
2. C₂H₅COOH + PCl₃ → C₂H₅COCl + H₃PO₃

Question 13.
Explain the reaction between PCl₅ and water.
Answer:
Phosphorous pentachloride reacts with water to give phosphoryl chloride and orthophosphoric acid.

Question 14.
Explain the structure of phosphorous trioxide (P₂O₃).
Answer:
In phosphorous trioxide four phosphorous atoms lie at the comers of a tetrahedron and six oxygen atoms along the edges. The P – O bond distance is 165.6 pm which is shorter than the single bond distance of P – O (184 pm) due to pπ – dπ bonding and results in considerable double bond character.

Question 15.
Discuss the structure of phosphorous pentaoxide (P₂O₃).
Answer:
In P₄O₁₀ each P atoms form three bonds to oxygen atom and also an additional coordinate bond with an oxygen atom. Terminal coordinate P – O bond length is 143 pm, which is less than the expected single bond distance. This may be due to lateral overlap of filled p orbitals of an oxygen atom with empty d-orbital on phosphorous.

Question 16.
Mention the uses of oxygen.
Answer:

1. Oxygen is one of the essential component for the survival of living organisms.
2. It is used in welding (oxyacetylene welding)
3. Liquid oxygen is used as fuel in rockets etc.

Question 17.
Give and explain reducing behaviour of sulphur dioxide.
Answer:
As Sulphur dioxide can readily be oxidised, it acts as a reducing agent. It reduces chlorine into hydrochloric acid.
SO₂ + 2H₂O + Cl₂ → H₂SO₄ + 2HCl
It also reduces potassium permanganate and dichromate to Mn²⁺ and Cr³⁺ respectively.

• 2KMnO₄ + 5SO₂ + 2H₂O → K₂SO₄ + 2MnSO₄ + 2H₂SO₄
• K₂Cr₂O₇ + 3SO₂ + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + Cr₂(SO₄)₃ + H₂O

Question 18.
Why bleaching action of sulphur dioxide is temporary?
Answer:
In presence of water, sulphur dioxide bleaches coloured wool, silk, sponges and straw into colourless due to its reducing property.
SO₂ + 2H₂O → 2H₂SO₄ + 2(H)

However, the bleached product (colourless) is allowed to stand in air, it is reoxidised by atmospheric oxygen to its original colour. Hence bleaching action of sulphur dioxide is temporary.

Question 19.
Explain the structure of sulphur dioxide.
Answer:
In sulphur dioxide, sulphur atom undergoes sp² hybridisation. A double bond arises between S and O is due to pπ- dπ overlapping.

Question 20.
How will you manufacture sulphuric acid by contact process?
Answer:
Manufacture of sulphuric acid by contact process involves the following steps:
1. Initially sulphur dioxide is produced by burning sulphur or iron pyrites in oxygen/air.
S + O₂ → SO₂
4FeS₂ + 11O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃ + 8SO₂

2. Sulphur dioxide formed is oxidised to sulphur trioxide by air in the presence of a catalyst such as V₂O₅ or platinised asbestos.

3. The sulphur trioxide is absorbed in concentrated sulphuric acid and produces oleum (H₂S₂O₇). The oleum is converted into sulphuric acid by diluting it with water.

To maximise the yield the plant is operated at 2 bar pressure and 720 K. The sulphuric acid obtained in this process is over 96 % pure.

Question 21.
Prove that H₂SO₄ is a strong dibasic acid.
Answer:
Sulphuric acid forms two types of salts namely sulphates and bisulphates.

Question 22.
Draw the structure of
(a) Marshall’s acid
(b) polythionic acid
(c) Dithionic acid
Answer:

Question 23.
What happens when chlorine reacts with ammonia?
Answer:
1. If chlorine reacts with excess ammonia, it gives nitrogen and ammonium chloride.
8NH₃ + 3Cl₂ → N₂ + 6NH₄Cl

2. If ammonia reacts with excess chlorine, it gives nitrogen trichloride and ammonium chloride.
4NH₂ + 3Cl₂ → NCl₂ + 3NH₄Cl

Question 24.
Bleaching action of chlorine is permanent. Justify this statement.
Answer:
Chlorine is a strong oxidising and bleaching agent because of the nascent oxygen.

Colouring matter + Nascent oxygen → Colourless oxidation product
Therefore, bleaching of chlorine is permanent. It oxidises ferrous salts to ferric, sulphites to sulphates and hydrogen sulphide to sulphur.

Question 25.
Give the uses of chlorine.
Answer:

1. Purification of drinking water
2. Bleaching of cotton textiles, paper and rayon
3. It is used in extraction of gold and platinum

Question 26.
What is Royal water?
Answer:
When three parts of concentrated hydrochloric acid and one part of concentrated nitric acid are mixed, aquaregia is obtained. This is also known as Royal water. This is used for dissolving gold, platinum etc.
Au + 4H⁺ + \({ 4NO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) + 4 Cl^– → \({ AuCl }_{ 4 }^{ – }\) + NO + 2H₂O
3Pt + 16H⁺ + \({ 4NO }_{ 3 }^{ – }\) + 18Cl^– → \({ 3PtCl }_{ 3 }^{ 2- }\) + NO + 8H₂O

Question 27.
Why HF is not stored in glass bottles?
Answer:
HF rapidly reacts with silica and glass to form soluble salt and that process leads to break the glass bottles. Hence HF is not stored in glass bottles.
SiO₂ + 4HF → SiF₄ + 2H₂O
Na₂SiO₃ + 6HF → Na₂SiF₆ + 3H₂O

Question 28.
Give the properties of inter halogen compounds.
Answer:
Properties of inter halogen compounds:

1. The central atom will be the larger one.
2. It can be formed only between two halogen and not more than two halogens.
3. Fluorine can’t act as a central metal atom being the smallest one.
4. Due to high electronegativity with small size fluorine helps the central atom to attain high coordination number
5. They can undergo the auto ionization.
6. They are strong oxidizing agents.

Question 29.
How will you prepare Xenon fluoride?
Answer:
Xenon fluorides are prepare by direct reaction of xenon and fluorine under different conditions as shown below.

Question 30.
Complete the following reaction.
(i) XeOF₄ + SiO₂ → A + SiF₆
(ii) A + SiO₂ → B + SiF₆
Answer:

Question 31.
What happens when XeF₆ reacts 2.5 M solution of NaOH?
Answer:
When XeF₆ reacts with 2.5 M of NaOH, sodium per xenate is obtained.

Question 32.
Give two examples to show the anomalous behaviour of fluorine.
Answer:
The anomalous behaviour of fluorine is due to its:

1. Small size
2. highest electronegativity
3. low F-F bond dissociation enethalpy
4. non-availability of d-orbitals in its valence shell.

The two examples are:
1. Due to non-availability of d-orbitals in its valence shell, fluorine cannot expand its octet, therefore, shows only -1 oxidation state while all other halogens due to the presence of d-orbitals shows positive oxidation states of +1, +3, +5 and +7 besides oxidation state of -1.

2. Due to its small size, the three lone pair of electrons on each F atom in F – F molecule, repel the bond pair. As a result, F – F bond dissociation energy is lower than that of Cl – Cl bond.

Question 33.
Why does the reactivity of nitrogen differ from Phosphorus?
Answer:
Nitrogen exists as a diatomic molecule (N \(\equiv\) N). Due to the presence of a triple bond between the two N – atoms the bond dissociation energy is large (941.4 kJ mol^-1). As a result nitrogen is said to be chemically inert in its elemental state. In contrast, P – P single bond is much weaker (213 kJ mol^-1) than N \(\equiv\) N triple bond Therefore, phosphorus is much more reactive than nitrogen.

Question 34.
Why does NH₃ form hydrogen bond but PH₃ does not?
Answer:
The electronegativity of N (3.0) is much higher than that of FI (2.1). As a result, N – H bond is quite polar and hence NH₃ undergoes intermolecular H-bonding. In contrast, both P and H have an electronegativity of 2.1. Therefore P – H bond is non-polar and hence PH₃ does not undergo H – bonding.

Question 35.
Can PCl₅ act as an oxidising as well as a reducing agent? Justify.
Answer:
Oxidation state of P in PCl₅ is +5. Since P has five valence electrons in its valence shell, therefore it cannot increase its oxidation state beyond +5 by donating its electrons, therefore PCl₅ cannot act as a reducing agent. However, it can decrease its oxidation number from +5 to +3 or some lower value, therefore PCl₅ acts as an oxidising agent. For example, it oxidises Ag to AgCl.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry p-Block Elements – II 5 Mark Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does ammonia react with

1. Excess Cl₂
2. Na
3. CuSO₄
4. O₂ / ∆

Answer:
1. Reaction with Excess Cl₂

2. Reaction with Na:

3. Reaction with CuSO₄

4. Reaction with O₂

Question 2.
Explain the reaction of metals with nitric acid.
Answer:
The reactions of metals with nitric acid are explained in 3 steps as follows:
Primary reaction:
Metal nitrate is formed with the release of nascent hydrogen
M + HNO₃ → MNO₃ + (H)

Secondary reaction:
Nascent hydrogen produces the reduction products of nitric acid.

Tertiary reaction:
The secondary products either decompose or react to give final products

For examples:
Copper reacts with nitric acid in the following manner
3Cu + 6HNO₃ → 3Cu(NO₃)₂ + 6(H)
6(H) + 3HNO₃ → 3HNO₂ + 3H₂O
3HNO₂ → HNO₃ + 2NO + H₂O

Overall reaction
3Cu + 8HNO₃ → 3CU(NO₃)₂ + 2NO + 4H₂O

The concentrated acid has a tendency to form nitrogen dioxide
Cu + 4HNO₃ → 3CU(NO₃)₂ + 2NO₂ + 2H₂O

Question 3.
How will you prepare ozone by laboratory method? Explain the structure of ozone.
Answer:
In the laboratory ozone is prepared by passing electrical discharge through oxygen. At a potential of 20,000 V about 10% of oxygen is converted into ozone it gives a mixture known as ozonised oxygen. Pure ozone is obtained as a pale blue gas by the fractional distillation of liquefied ozonised oxygen.


Structure of ozone:
The ozone molecule have a bent shape and symmetrical with delocalised bonding between the oxygen atoms.

Question 4.
A is a king of acid. A reacts with HBr to give B and Bromine. A reacts with Na₂CO₃ to give C and carbon dioxide. Identify A, B and C. Give the reaction.
Answer:
1. King of acid is sulphuric acid (A).

2. Sulphuric acid (A) reacts with HBr to give SO₂ (B) and Bromine.

3. Sulphuric acid (A) reacts with Na2CO₃ to give sodium sulphate (C) and CO₂.

Question 5.
How does Sulphuric acid react with the following:
(a) Al
(b) KNO₃
(c) NaBr
(d) C₆H₆
Answer:

Question 6.

1. Explain the test for sulphate (or) sulphuric acid.
2. What happens when sulphuric acid reacts with oxalic acid?

Answer:
1. Dilute solution of sulphuric acid or aqueous solution of sulphates gives white precipitate with barium chloride solution. It can also be detected using lead acetate solution. Here a white precipitate of lead sulphate is obtained.

2. Sulphuric acid reacts with oxalic acid to give CO and CO₂

Question 7.
Discuss the manufacture of chlorine.
Answer:
Electrolytic process:
When a solution of brine (NaCl) is electrolysed, Na+ and CP ions are formed. Na⁺ ion reacts with OH^– ions of water and forms sodium hydroxide. Hydrogen and chlorine are liberated as gases.

Deacons process:
In this process a mixture of air and hydrochloric acid is passed up a chamber containing a number of shelves, pumice stones soaked in cuprous chloride are placed. Hot gases at about 723 K are passed through a jacket that surrounds the chamber.

The chlorine obtained by this method is dilute and is employed for the manufacture of bleaching powder. The catalysed reaction is given below,

Question 8.

1. How is bleaching powder prepared?
2. What happens when benzene reacts with chlorine?

Answer:
1. Bleaching powder is prepared by passing chlorine gas through dry slaked lime (Calcium hydroxide).

2. Benzene reacts with chlorine in the presence of ferric chloride to give chlorobenzene.

Question 9.
Cone. H₂SO₄ is added followed by heating to each of the following test tubes labelled (I) to (IV). Identify in which of the above test tube the following change will be observed. Support your answer with the help of chemical equation:
(a) formation of black substance
(b) evolution of brown gas
(c) evolution of colourless gas
(d) formation of a brown substance which on dilution becomes blue.
(e) disappearance of yellow powder along with evolution of colourless gas.
Answer:

Question 10.
Give reasons for each of the following:

1. Bleaching of flowers by Cl₂ is permanent while by SO₂ is temporary.
2. Molten aluminium bromide is a poor conductor of electricity.
3. Nitric oxide becomes brown when released in air.
4. PCl₅ is ionic in nature in the solid state.
5. Ammonia is a good complexing agent.

Answer:
1. Cl₂ bleaches by oxidation, while SO₂ does it by reduction. The reduced product gets oxidise again and the colour is regained back.

2. Aluminium bromide exists as a dimer, Al₂Br₆. In this structure, each aluminium atom forms one coordinate bond by accepting a lone pair of electrons from the bromine atom of another aluminium bromide molecule and thus complete the octet of electrons. Due to lack of free electrons, molten aluminium bromide is a poor conductor of electricity.

3. Nitric oxide reacts with air and oxidised into NO₂ which is brown in colour.
2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂

4. In solid state PCl₅ exists as [PCl₄]⁺ [PCl₆]^– and hence it is ionic in nature. Due to its ionic nature, it conducts current on fusion.

5. N atom in ammonia has lone pair of electrons which can coordinate with other atoms or cations required for the stability of electron pair.

Question 11.
How will you prepare the following compounds.
(a) Hyponitrous acid
(b) Nitrous acid
(c) Pernitrous acid
(d) Pernitric acid
Answer:

Common Errors And Its Rectificaations:

Common Errors:

1. Oxidation number rules may be confused.
2. Oxidation number of oxygen may get confused.
3. Molecular formula and compound name may get confused.

Rectifications:

1. Oxidation number of fluorine is always -1.
2. Always oxygen is -2 but in peroxide it is -1. When it comes as a first element its oxidation number is positive..
3. Student should memorise the formula using short cut method, e.g. Phosphorous acid – H₃PO₃ Phosphoric acid – H₃PO₄ e.g. Phosphorous acid – H₃PO₃ By pronunciation, ‘O’ indicates oxygen is more.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th English Note Making and Summarising

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Notes are short written record of facts to aid the memory. Notes are usually taken to record a speech or dictation while listening to it or after reading a book, magazine or article. They are referred back whenever needed and may be reproduced in the desired way.

The Necessity Of Note – Making
Knowledge is vast and unlimited, but our memory is limited. We cannot remember all the information all the time. Hence note – making is necessary. With the help of notes we can recall the entire information read/heard months ago. It is quite useful to students preparing for many subjects. At the time of examinations, it is not possible to go through voluminous books. At such critical times, notes are quite handy. Hence note-making fulfils three useful functions:

1. It keeps a lot of information at our disposal for ready reference.
2. It helps us reconstruct what was said or written and thus accelerates the process of remembering/recall.
3. It comes in handy in delivering a speech, participation in a debate/discussion, writing an essay and revising lessons before an examination.

How Note – Making Helps Us

While making notes we do not simply read the passage/listen to speech but consider various points made by the writer/speaker and draw our own inferences about what is being presented. Thus note-making helps us in understanding the passage in a better way and organising our thoughts systematically.

Characteristics Of Good Notes

1. Short and Compact: Good notes must be short and compact.
2. Complete Information: They must contain all the important information.
3. Logical: They must be presented in a logical way.
4. Understandable: They should be understandable when consulted at a later stage.

Mechanics Of Note – Making

While making notes we follow certain standard practices. These may be listed as follows:
(a) Heading and Subheadings
(b) Abbreviation and Symbols
(c) Note – form
(d) Numbering and Indentation

Heading And Sub – Headings

The heading reflects the main theme whereas the subheadings point out how it has been developed. The selection of proper heading and subheading reveals the grasp of the passage by the students. In the absence of proper assimilation of main ideas and subsidiary points, it is impossible to make notes.

Solved Questions
Read the following passages carefully and make notes and summarize.

PASSAGE 1
The epidemic of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportion in recent times causing grave concern specially to the medical fraternity. To contain and control the increasing death and disability from heart attacks and to focus on public awareness and their involvement at global level, the World Health Organisation (WHO) and the World Heart Federation observed September 24th as the World Heart Day. What causes heart attacks? Dr H.S. Wasir, Chief Cardiologist and Medical Director, Batra Hospital and Medical Research Centre lists four main habits which adversely affect the heart health. These are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, cigarette smoking and excessive alcohol consumption, and stressful lifestyle.

The importance of physical exercise in minimising the incidence of heart attacks cannot be underestimated. “Physical exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy life in general and prevention of heart attacks in particular.” There are several studies showing that physically active people have higher longevity than those sedentary or physically inactive.

Notes:
Healthy Heart

1. World Heart Day: 24 September.
(a) To control death & disability
(b) To increase awareness

2. Causes of Heart Attacks
(a) Lack of physical exercise
(b) Wrong eating habits
(c) Smoking & alcohol
(d) Stressful lifestyle

3. Role of Physical Exercise.
(a) Prevents heart attacks – longer life
(b) Isotonic – beneficial; isometric – harmful
(c) Walking: best exercise
(i) 30 to 60 meters brisk walk
(ii) no equipment, money, material or membership of club
(iii) early morning: ideal for walking.

4. Consult cardiologist before beginning an exercise program.

Summary
Rough draft: Healthy Heart

The epithet of heart attacks has been attaining alarming proportions in recent times causing grave to the medical fraternity. To have control on increasing death and disability due’ total art attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation nSssj^served September 24th as World Heart Day to focus on public awareness. “Physi&ak exercise,” says Dr. Wasir, “plays a major role in achieving a long and healthy life ing&netul and prevention of heart attacks ’’ in particular.” According to health experts, their age main habits that cause heart attack, these are lack of physical exercise, wrong&atijjg habits, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption and stressful lifestyle. The effect§’«Qieart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking.

Fair Draft: Healthy Heart
In recent times, heart attack is an epidemic disease that causes grave concern to the medical fraternity. To have control on increasing death and disability due to heart attacks, the World Health Organisation (W.H.O) and World Heart Federation has observed September 24th as the World Heart Day to focus on public awareness. According to health experts, there are four main habits that cause heart attack, these are lack of physical exercise, wrong eating habits, smoking, excessive alcohol consumption and stressful lifestyle. The effects of heart attack can be reduced to greater extent with the help of regular exercise like walking.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 100

PASSAGE 2
Scientists in the USA and Japan are developing a set of smart materials that clean themselves off dirt and stains besides eliminating foul odors and dangerous bacteria. Exploiting powerful catalytic properties, researchers succeeded in creating tiles, glass, paint, paper and cloth that can keep themselves sparkling clean. The first item to reach the market, a self – cleaning wall and counter tile, can not only kill bacteria but also eliminate odors and staining associated with smoke from cooking oils and cigarettes, reports the journal Technology Review. The key to the self – cleaning world of the future is the interaction between titanium dioxide and ultraviolet rays from the sun or fluorescent lights. The special properties of titanium dioxide – a substance used to make paint and toothpaste white – were first discovered by Tokyo University chemist Akira Fujishima and Associates in 1969. Their research showed that when exposed to solar energy, titanium dioxide has the ability to break down water into hydrogen and oxygen.

Notes
Self Cleaning Materials

1. Self-cleaning materials
(a) Clean dirt, stains
(b) Eliminate foul odour & dangerous bacteria

2. Self-clearing tiles – people of work.
(a) Ultraviolet rays – * Ti02

3. Special properties of TiOz
(a) Ti02 makes paint/toothpaste white
(b) Ability to break down H20 into H2 and 02
(c) Absorbs energy from ultraviolet band + reacts with H20 vapours → produced 02 → break organic matter → C02 + trace elements

Summary
Rough’ttraft: Self Cleaning Materials
Scientists in thetfSAiand Japan are developing a set of smart materials that clean themselves off dirt and taus but also eliminate odors and dangerous bacteria. The first item to reach the market/a’selfAfieaning wall and counter tile, can not only kill bacteria but also eliminate odours arm causing associated with smoke from cooking oils and cigarettes, reports the journal Technology Review. Some tiles, glass, paint, paper and cloth have been introduced those can be’ kept dean manually. Titanium dioxide and Ultraviolet rays from the sun are the keys to the’self^cleaning world.

Fair Draft: Self Cleaning Materials
Scientists of Japan and USA have developed many smart materials that not only clean themselves off dirt and stains but also eliminate odours and dangerous bacteria. Some tiles, glass, paint, paper and cloth have been introduced those can be kept clean manually. Titanium dioxide and Ultraviolet rays from the sun are the keys to the self – cleaning world.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

PASSAGE 3
According to the National Council for Applied Economic Research’s latest report, India: Human Development Report which is a profile of the Indian states in the 1990s, there are many problems in women’s education. Girls are taken out of school as soon as some calamity hits the family’s fortunes. They are made to look after their younger siblings and they are not looked upon as ‘investment’. In order to marry them off early and without problems, girls are not allowed to traverse long distances to go to school. They are not allowed to study under male teachers. Affluent families invest in girls’ education only if they are assured of getting better bridegrooms.

When women are educated, they can at least look after their own and the family’s health, better. Without adequate education, there is a low level of awareness about ailments and sheer ignorance can cause them to ascribe ailments to non – medical, often supernatural causes. Uneducated women are often too shy to reveal their diseases and many do not go to doctors out of fear that it may cause undue expenses to their budgetary balances. Pregnant women in many villages have been found not to be given any special diet. In fact they often reduce their food intake because of the prevailing belief that they cannot digest heavy food. There is gender disparity in most states in the treatment of young children and the elderly.

In any case, a majority of the rural areas do not have provision for primary health care services. The prevalence of diseases is rather high in the southern states, West Bengal and Punjab perhaps because of better reporting of sickness and the availability of treatment. About 41 million individuals receive medication for major illnesses at a point of time in India and the highest prevalence is of hypertension followed by tuberculosis. The critical issues of education and health are closely connected with expansion of job opportunities and while reducing unemployment has been a standard slogan during the elections by all parties, the emphasis on health and education has been subdued.

Notes
Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
1. Female dropouts in schools
(a) Family hit by calamity – girl looks after siblings
(b) Girl’s education. – not regarded investment
(i) rich – investment, if better bridegroom
(c) Problem-free marriage
(i) early age
(ii) no long distance to school
(iii) no male teachers

2. Results of inadequate female education.
(a) Health probs.
(i) ignorance
(ii) superstitions
(iii) shyness about disease
(iv)fear of undue expenses
(v)lack of proper diet to pregnant women

3. Lack of rural/health care services
(a) High prevalence of diseases 41 million get medication.
(b) Southern states, West Bengal & Punjab
(i) better reporting of sickness
(ii) availability of treatment.
(c) Most common diseases
(i) hyper tension
(ii) T.B.

Summary
Rough draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
Women’s arts education is still lagging behind under various factors. If any calamity hits, girls are taken^out of school to look after their younger siblings. Girls education is not regarded as asihvqstment. When women are educated, they can at least look after their own and the ralmlVs health, better. Only the rich class people educate their girls for better match. MokNa^the parents do not like to send their girl child in distant school or taught by male teacher. The working women give up their job with an increase in their family income. Secbn4Jy inadequate education in female create health problems due to ignorance, superstitiPn§and fear of undue expense. There is lack of rural health care services so rural women become victims of diseases like T.B., hypertension etc. There is gender disparity ‘furriest states in the treatment of young children and the elderly.

Fair Draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
Women’s education is still lagging behind under various factors. If any calamity hits, a girls are taken out of school to look after their younger siblings. Girls education is not regarded as investment. Only the rich class people educate their girls for better match. Most of the parents do not like to send their girl child in distant school or taught by male teachers. The working women give up their job with an increase in their family income. Secondly inadequate education in female create health problems due to ignorance, superstitions and fear of undue expense. There is lack of rural health care services so the rural women become victims of diseases like T.B., hypertension etc.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 115

PASSAGE 4
The distribution of forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. The concentration of forests is mostly in the hills of western districts and in the Javadi group of hills in Vellore district. Dense forests are also seen in Salem district. More than half of the area in the Nilgiris is under forest. Other districts hold 1% to 5% of area under forests. Thanjavur being the alluvial plain is suitable for agriculture which has less than 1% of forest cover.

The forests of Tamil Nadu have different types of trees. Most of the trees in the state shed their leaves in the dry season. Tamil Nadu has large areas of sandal wood plantations, about 5,88,000 hectares. Hard wood trees are available in the forests of Coimbatore, Nilgiris and Kanyakumari. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Notes
Forests in Tamil Nadu
Uneven distribution – concentration in western districts, Nilgiris, Javadi hills, Vellore and Salem – other districts have 1 – 5% forests. Thanjavur only 1% of land under forests.

Different kinds of trees.
Deciduous trees, Hardwood trees, Sandalwood trees and Ordinary trees for firewood available – 5,88,000 hectares under sandalwood.

Spread
Hardwood trees – Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Nilgiris
Firewood – Madurai, Thanjavur and Coimbatore
Rubber – Kanyakumari

Summary
Rough’drai’t: Forests in Tamil Nadu
The distributibiKQf forests among different districts of the state is very uneven. Forest cover is denseSuwestem districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than l%^of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees/San^lalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found inTSAQyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyaktmri has rubber plantations. Trees that are used as fuel are found in Madurai, Coimbatore and Thanjavur districts. Kanyakumari district has rubber plantations.

Fair Draft: Forests in Tamil Nadu
Forest cover is dense in western districts, Javadi hills, Vellore, Nilgiris and Salem. Thanjavur has less than 1% of forest cover. Tamil Nadu forests have hardwood, firewood and sandalwood trees. Sandalwood trees are found in 5,88,000 hectares. Hardwood and firewood are found in Kanyakumari, Coimbatore and Thanjavur. Nilgiris has good cover of hardwood, Kanyakumari has rubber plantations.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 57

PASSAGE 5
Oils are of three main kinds – vegetable, animal and mineral oil. Vegetable oil is obtained by crushing oilseeds. Mineral oil is pumped out from deep under the earth. Animal oil is got from the fat of animals. To extract vegetable oil, the dried oilseeds are put in the crushing machine and oil is squeezed out. This is found deep below the ground. Holes are drilled and oil is pumped out or forced out. The crude oil is a source of many useful things. We get kerosene, petrol and diesel out of crude oil. We use most of the vegetable oils for cooking. Mineral oils are mainly used as fuel. Animal oils are used as medicine. For example, shark liver oil is given to strengthen weak children. Neem oil, lime oil and sandalwood oil also have medicinal value.

Notes:
Three kinds of oil

• Vegetable oil – crushing dried seeds – using machines
• Mineral oil – holes drilled – deep under the ground – oil pumped out crude oil – refined – petrol/diesel/kerosene
• Animal oil – fat of animals – whales, sharks – blubber melted

Uses of oil

• Vegetable oil – edible – used for cooking – for making soaps residue – oil cake – used as cattle feed.
• Mineral oil – used as fuels
• Animal oil – used as medicine – skin care soaps.

Summary
Rough draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health

Oils are of mrbe’Oiiain kinds – vegetable, animal and mineral oil. Vegetable oil is obtained by crushing’ my seeds. Vegetable oil is extracted from dried seeds by crushing. Mineral oils are purer pinout from underground. Animal oils are extracted from the fat or blurb of whale andsharl^s. We get kerosene, petrol and diesel from crude oil. Vegetable oils are used for cooking mineral oils are used as fuels. Neem oil, lime oil and sandalwood oil also have medic math value.

Fair Draft: Neglect of Women’s Education & Health
Vegetable oil is extracted from dried seeds by crushing. Mineral oils are pumped out from underground. Animal oils are extracted from the fat or blurb of whale and sharks. We get kerosene, petrol and diesel from crude oil. Vegetable oils are used for cooking. Mineral oils are used as fuels.

No. of words in the Fair Draft: 50

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Media and Democracy

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Media and Democracy Textual Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer:

7th Class Social 2nd Lesson Question Answers Question 1.
Which one of the following comes under print media?
(a) Radio
(b) Television
(c) Newspaper
(d) Internet
Answer:
(c) Newspaper

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Social Question 2.
Which one of the following is the broadcast media?
(a) Magazines
(b) Journals
(c) Newspaper
(d) Radio
Answer:
(d) Radio

Social Term 2 Question 3.
Which invention has brought the world closure?
(a) Typewriter
(b) Television
(c) Telex
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Television

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 7th Social Question 4.
Which is mass media?
(a) Radio
(b) Television
(c) Both a & b
(d) None of these
Answer :
(c) Both a & bi

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Standard Social Question 5.
Why is it necessary for media to be independent?
(a) to earn money
(b) to encourage company
(c) to write balanced report
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) to write balanced report

II Fill in the blanks

1. _______ have made the ‘vorld smaller and closer.
2. Every individual person is a medium of _______
3. Printing press was invented by _______
4. _______ is i code of values which govern our lives.
5. _______ is the radio broadcast of the Government of India.

Answers:

1. Mass media
2. expression
3. Johannes Gutenberg
4. Ethics
5. Akashvanil

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1. Narrowcast media – films
2. Social media – posters
3. Print media – seminar
4. Web media – google web site
5. Broadcast media – facebook

Answers:

1. Narrowcast media – seminar
2. Social media – facebook
3. Print media – posters
4. Web media – google web site
5. Broadcast media – films

IV. Consider the following statements Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion:Print media has been referred to as peoples University
Reason :They perfom the role of public informer, educate, custodian of public interest.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is Correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one
(a) newspapers
(b) magazine
(c) journals
(d) twitter
(e) posters
Answer:
(d) twitter

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer form thftsSodes given below.
a. Media is generally the agency for inter-personal communication.
b. Media is very powerful entity on the earth.
c. Media plays a prominent role in the formation of public opinion.
d. Media does not have any responsibility
i. a,b and c are correct
ii. a,c and d are correct
iii. b,c and d are correct
iv. a,b and d are correct
Answer:
i. a, b and c are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What is media?
Answer:
Media is generally the agency for inter-personal communication. Media im in A every broadcasting and narrowcasting medium.

Question 2.
How does the public get the news about the decision that are taken in the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
The procedure is as follows :

1. After the discussion is over in the Legislative Assembly, a press conference called by the minister so as to pass on the necessary information.
2. The Minister then explains all the steps decided and taken by the government to press and media personal.
3. The press and media personnel clarify any doubts related to the meeting
4. All the information is published in the newspapers and shown on TV Channels

Question 3.
What are the importance of local media?
Answer:
Local media is important because it can generate quick and on the spot informal ion about the facts which are going on and make the people aware of it. It is a very good medium for getting news instantly.

Question 4.
Media is the fourth pillar of democracy. Justify
Answer:
Media ensures the transparency in the working of all the above three systems. Thus fourth pillar of democracy ensures that all people living in far off areas of country are aware of what’s happening in rest of the country.

Question 5.
State any two responsibility of media.
Answer:

1. Maintain transparency in government.
2. Help people in nourishing their rights.

VI. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
How can we classify media?
Answer:
Classification of Media:

• Narrowcast Media – Cable Television, Direct mail, Seminar
• Broadcast Media – Films, Television, Radio
• Print Media – Newspapers, Magazine, Journals, Books, Posters, Reports.
• Web Media – Google website and Blogs
• Social Media – Twitter, Facebook, WhatsApp and Instagram

Question 2.
In what ways does the media play an important role in a democracy?
Solution:

1. Media is the back bone of democracy.
2. In our democratic society mass media is the driving force of public opinion
3. Media strengthens the democratic value. It enlightens and empowers the peop I o.
4. It can educate the voters and ensures that government is transparenl .m l accountable.
5. Media carry every report of action of administration of the government
6. Based on the information, the citizen can learn about the functioning ol Mi government and day to day happenings taking place around them.

Question 3.
What are the advantages of media?
Solution:

1. People get the latest news in a very short time
2. People get to bring out their hidden talents.
3. Great in promoting mass consumer products.
4. Serves as a good source of entertainment
5. Media leads to diffusion of different cultures.

VII. HOTs

Question 1.
Is Media necessary? Why?
Answer:
Yes, Media is necessary. In today’s society, the use of social media has become necessary for daily social interaction and access to news and information and decision making. It is a valuable communication tool with others locally and worldwide, as well as to share, create and spread information.

Question 2.
What do you know about the term press conference?
Answer:
A press conference is an event organized to officially distribute information and answer questions from the media. Press conferences are held by corporations and other businesses, politicians and other government officials.

Question 3.
In what ways media affects our daily lives?
Answer:
Media is considered as the best source to know about the happenings of world. Newspaper, magazine, radio, television and internet are the different types of media. It greatly affects our lives because media has the power to influence out thoughts. This influence is sometimes positive and sometimes negative.

Question 4.
Media is a boon or bane.
Answer:
The media can be both boon or bane, depending on our usage. If we use it intelligently,it will be useful in gaining knowledge and for best impact. Also some stunts in movies and television are copied by people, which leads to major accidents in our society.

VIII. Activity

Question 1
locus on a particular news. Collect information about that news from various media. Compare and write down the similarity and differences
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Prepare an album – ‘the growth of media’ (from early period to till now).
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 3.
Prepare a newspaper and circulate in your class.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Social Science Media and Democracy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
______ are the examples of personal communication.
(a) E-mail
(b) TN.
(c) Radio
(d) Newspapers
Answer:
(a) E-mall

Question 2.
______ are the examples of Mass communication.
(a) Letters
(b) Telephone
(c) Cell Phone
(d) Newspapers
Answer:
(d) Newspapers

Question 3.
Which year printing press was invented?
(a) 1450
(b) 1440
(c) 1453
(d) 1457
Answer:
(c) 1453

Question 4.
______ are portrayed in many cinemas.
(a) Social problems
(b) Political problems
(c) Economic problems
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Social problems

Question 5.
Which one of the following comes under social medium?
(a) Newspaper
(b) Twitter
(c) Radio
(d) Seminar
Answer:
(b) Twitter

Question 6.
Which one of the following comes under Narrow cast media?
(a) Cable Television
(b) Films
(c) Books
(d) Posters
Answer:
(a) Cable Television

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. ______ is generally the agency for inter-personal communication.
2. Media is the plural of the ______ medium.
3. ______ are used for communicating with the masses.
4. People depend on the media for various needs including ______ and
5. The media has a massive responsibility in providing ______ coverage.
6. Media is the back bone of ______

Answers:

1. Media
2. word
3. Mass communication
4. entertainment, information
5. factual
6. democracy

III. Match the following:

1. Murikatha – (a) Public informer
2. Print media – (b) Communicate messages
3. Media – (c) Legislature
4. Democracy – (d) Cinemas
5. Social problems – (e) Religious media

Answers:

1. – e
2. – a
3. – b
4. – c
5. – d

IV. Consider the following statements: Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Assertion: Media is very powerful entity on the earth.
Reason : It is a mirror which shows various social, political and economic activities around us.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is Correct
(d) Botharewrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 2.
Find the odd one
(a) Letters
(b) Telephone
(c) E-mail
(d) Fax
(e) Radio
Answer:
(e) Radio

Question 3.
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.
a. An individual interacts through the media to reach other individual and institutions.
b. Media creates the awareness.
c. Media provide a balanced report on any matters
d. Media strengthens the democratic value.
i. a,b and c are correct
ii. a,b,c and d are correct
iii. a and d are correct iv. b and d are correct
Answer:
ii. a,b,c and d are correct

V. Answer in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the types of communication?
Answer:
Communication can be classified into:

• Personal communication – these are meant for personal use, like letters, telephone, cell phone, E-mail and fax.
• Mass communication – these are used for communicating with the masses. Newspapers, Radio, TV, Collectively they are termed as media.

Question 2.
What is the four pillars of democracy?
Answer:
The four pillars of democracy are Legislature, Executive, Judiciary, and Media.

Question 3.
What is ethics?
Answer:
Ethics is a code of values which govern our lives. So they are very essential loi moral and healthy life.

Question 4.
What are the fundamental objectives of media?
Answer:
The fundamental objectives of media are to serve the people with news, comments and information on matters of public interest in a fair, accurate, unbiased and decent manner and language.

Question 5.
What is the meaning of democracy?
Answer:
Democracy means rule by the people. It combines two Greek words. Demos refers to citizen. Kratos means either power or rule.

VI. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
What is the importance of Media?
Answer:

1. Media is very powerful entity on the earth.
2. it is a mirror which shows various social, political and economic activities around us.
3. Media keeps the people awakened and it has become one of the major instruments of social change.
4. It also advertises the various products produced by the private companies.
5. It creates the awareness.
6. Media provide a balanced report on any matters.
7. It fights against the sociopolitical evils and injustice in our society while bringing empowerment to the masses and facilitating development.

Students can Download Social Science History Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Urban Changes During the British Period

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Textual Evaluation

Make an Album Making of Chennai From Early Period Till Now

I. Choose the correct answer:

Urban Changes During The British Period  Question 1.
Ancient towns are –
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro
(b) Delhi and Hyderabad
(c) Bombay and Culcutta
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Harappa and Mohenjodaro

Urban Changes During The British Period Book Back Answers Question 2.
Coastal towns developed by the British were –
(a) Surat
(b) Goa
(c) Bombay
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Urban Changes During The British Period 8th Standard Question 3.
A new trend of urbanisation began in the latter half of 19th century as a result of –
(a) Opening of Suez Canal
(b) Introduction of steam navigation
(c) Construction of railways
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 4.
The British arrived India for.
(a) for trading
(b) for preaching their religion
(c) for working
(d) for ruling
Answer:
(a) for trading

Question 5.
Fort St. George was constructed by the British in –
(a) Bombay
(b) Cuddalore
(c) Madras
(d) Calcutta
Answer:
(c) Madras

Question 6.
Which of the following port was the East India Company’s principal settlement until 1774?
(a) Fort St. William
(b) Fort St David
(c) Fort St. George
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Fort St. George

II. Fill in the Blanks:

1. The network of railroads in India was introduced in …………………………
2.  ……………………….. rightly regarded as the Father of Local Self – Government in India.
3. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced ……………………….. in the provinces.
4. ……………………….. was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
5. Francis Day and Andrew Cogan got permission to establish a factory -cum trading post at madrasapatnam  in………………………..

Answer:

1. 1853
2. Ripon
3. Dyarchy
4. Sir Josiah Child
5. 1639

III. Match the following:

Question 1.

1. Bombay – Religious centres
2. Cantonment towns – Hill stations
3. Kedamath – Ancient town
4. Darjeeling – Seven island
5. Madurai – Kanpur

Answer:

1. Bombay – Seven island
2. Cantonment towns – Kanpur
3. Kedamath – Religious centres
4. Darjeeling – Hill stations
5. Madurai – Ancient town

IV. State true or false:

1. Towns flourished since prehistoric times in India.
2. British acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey.
3. Fort St. Williams is in Madras.
4. Army people began to live in cantonments.
5. Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in 1998.

Answer:

1. True
2. True
3. False
4. True
5. False

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): India became the agricultural colony of Britain.
Reason (R): The one – way free trade policy followed by British and the Industrial revolution destroyed Indian indigenous industries.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true?
i) Srirangarayalu gave the English the grant of Madrasapatnam.
ii) Day and Cogan were jointly responsible for the construction of Fort St. George.
iii) In 1969 the state of Madras was rechristened as Tamil Nadu.
(a) i only
(b) i and ii
(c) ii and iii
(d) iii only
Answer:
(a) i only

Question 3.
Assertion (A): British built up their alternative capitals in hilly areas.
Reason (R): They found the Indian summer inhospitable.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
What is an urban area?
Answer:
An urban area is one that has a high population density engaged in occupations other than food production, living in a highly built environment.

Question 2.
Hilly areas were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Why?
Answer:

• The British coming from a cool temperate climate, found the hill stations protective from hot weather and epidemics.
• So they built up the alternative capitals in cool areas.
• So highly hills areas were distinctive features of colonial urban development.

Question 3.
Name the three Presidency cities?
Answer:
In the late 18th century Calcutta, Bombay and Madras rose as Presidency cities.

Question 4.
State any four reason for the new trend of urbanization in the 19th century.
Answer:

• The causes for the new trend of urbanization in the 19th century were
• Opening of Suez Canal, introduction of steam navigation, construction of Railways, Canals and harbours.
• Growth of factory industries etc.

Question 5.
Write short note on Cantonment towns.
Answer:

• Since the British needed strong military camps and established the cantonment towns.
• Army people began to live in these places and gradually they were grown up into a city.
• E.g. Kanpur and Lahore.

Question 6.
What were the regions covered in the Madras presidency during British regime?
Answer:
The region covered in the Madras Presidency during the British regime covered were

• Modem day Tamil Nadu
• The Lakshadweep Island
• Northern Kerala
• Rayalaseema
• Coastal Andhra
• Districts of Karnataka and various districts of southern Odisha.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the colonial urban development.

Answer:
(i) Port cities:

• The British arrived in India for trading. Madras, Calcutta and Bombay became the important ports. They played important role in trade. These cities became the prominent commercial areas with tall European – styled buildings.
• Fort St. George in Madras and Fort St. William in Calcutta were the best examples.

(ii) Cantonment towns:

• The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force. So they needed strong military camps and established the cantonments
• For e.g, Kanpur, Lahore.

(iii) Hill Stations:

• Hill stations were distinctive features of colonial urban development. Although Hill stations were not unknown, prior to their founding by the British in India, they were few and had a small population and were often visited for specific purpose.
• For e.g. Srinagar was a Mughal recreational centre, Kedamath and Badrinath were Hindu religious Centres.

(iv) Railway towns:

• Railway towns were also a type of urban settlements and were established in 1853 after the introduction of railways by the British.
• By the nature of railway transport, all the towns were located on the plains.

Question 2.
Trace the origin and growth of Madras.
Answer:
Origin and Growth of Madras:
(a) The beginning of the city of Madras goes back to the earliest stages of British commercial enterprise in India. The English East India Company was started in 1600 A.D(C.E).

(b) The English, after some efforts secured the privilege of building a factory at Masulipatnam. It was well protected from the monsoon winds.

(c) The official grant for the land was given by Damarla Venkatapathy Nayak, the deputy of the Raja of Chandragiri (12km west ofTirupathi). Damarla gave British a piece of land between Cooum river and the Egmore.

(d) India Company’s Francis Day accompanied by his interpreter Beri Thimmappa and superior Andrew Cogan. By this Francis Day and Andrew Cogan (the chief of the Masulipatnam Factory), was granted permission to establish a factory – cum – trading post and a fort at Madrasapatnam in 1639.

(e) This fortified settlement came to be known as Fort St. George settlement. It is otherwise referred to as the White Town. While the nearby villages inhabited by local population was called as Black Town. Collectively the White Town and the Black Town were called Madras.

Question 3.
India became an agricultural colony of Britain. How?
Answer:

1. In the beginning, the policies of the British proved harmful to the process of urbanisation.
2. Later the economic policies followed by the British led to the rapid transformation of India’s economy into a colonial economy and development of cities.
3. The one way free trade predominance of British, Indian manufacturing industries were destroyed.
4. There was a sudden collapse of the urban handicrafts industry.
5. Towns and cities long famed for their specialized products gazed continually shrinking market.
6. The manufacturing towns lost their previous importance.
7. The industrial revolution, high import duties and other restrictions imposed on the import of Indian goods into Britain and Europe led to the decline of Indian industries.
8. Thus, India became the agricultural colony of Britians.

VIII. Project and Activity:

Question 1.
Make an album – ‘Making of Chennai’ (from early period till now)
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Mark port cities, cantonment towns, hill stations on the outline map of India, (any four places from each)
Answer:
https://docs.google.com/document/d/1E_6s-FcB-9iWcpIxNNeEzgOvbtb2JnuJOxvwzxQMmko/edit

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Urban Changes During the British Period Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
The evolution of towns has occurred in.
(a) ancient towns
(b) medieval towns
(c) modern towns
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 2.
Most of the ancient towns in India developed as.
(a) administrative centres
(b) religious centres
(c) cultural centres
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Some of the important medieval towns of India are.
(a) Delhi, Hyderabad and Harappa
(b) Jaipur, Lucknow and Agra
(c) Nagpur, Madurai and Mohenjadaro
(d) Madurai, Varanasi and Lucknow
Answer:
(b) Jaipur, Lucknow and Agra

Question 4.
The British developed new towns depending on its.
(a) location
(b) purpose
(c) resources
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 5.
DeIndustrialisation under the British took place due to their.
(a) economic policy
(b) industrial policy
(c) political policy
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) economic policy

Question 6.
One of the old populous manufacturing towns was.
(a) Delhi
(b) Harappa
(c) Dacca
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Dacca

Question 7.
The introduction of railways in British India resulted in.
(a) the diversion of trade routes
(b) export of raw materials
(c) uprooting the traditional industries
(d) ail the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 8.
British developed new centers of trade at.
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 9.
The trade of English East India Company expanded in.
(a) 1639
(b) 1661
(c) 1690
(d) 1757
Answer:
(d) 1757

Question 10.
The British established the cantonments since they needed.
(a) raw materials
(b) commercial centers
(c) strong military camps
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) strong military camps

Question 11.
Some of the hill stations developed by the British were.
(a) Kedamath and Badrinath
(b) Simla and Nainital
(c) Kanpur and Lahore
(d) Srinagar and Delhi
Answer:
(b) Simla and Nainital

Question 12.
The charter _______established Municipal administration in the three presidency Towns
(a) 1812
(b) 1793
(c) 1850
(d) 1909
Answer:
(b) 1793

Question 13.
English trade did not thrive at Masulipatnam due to.
(a) Lack of resources
(b) Leak of Transport
(c) Famine
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Famine

Question 1 4.
Francis Day was.
(a) The Director of East India Company
(b) Member of the Masulipatnam Council
(c) Mayor of Madras Municipal Corporation
(d) The Chief of the Masulipatnam Factory
Answer:
(b) Member of the Masulipatnam Council

Question 15.
Beri Thimmappa was.
(a) The Deputy of the Raja of Chandragiri
(b) An Interpreter
(c) Superior of Francis Day
(d) Councillor
Answer:
(b) An Interpreter

II. Fill in the blanks:

1. The medieval towns of India functioned either as______city or______city.
2. In the beginning of eighteenth century, the policies of the British proved harmful to the process of______.
3. The native rulers lost their kingdom to the British by means of various______ of the colonial power.
4. Srinagar was a______recreational centre.
5. Darjeeling was wrested from the rulers of______.
6. The introduction of______made hill station more accessible.
7. Damarla gave British a piece of land between Cooum river and______.
8. Collectively the White Town and the Black Town were called______.
9. Srirangarayapatnam and Chennapatnam were together known______
10. Madras was officially renamed as Chennai in______.
11. In western India______was the main port of the East India Company.

Answer:

1. Fort,port
2. urbanisation
3. policies
4. Mughal
5. sikkim
6. railways
7. Egmore
8. Madras
9. Madrasapatnam
10. 1996
11. 1. 1. Bombay

III. Match the following:

Answer:

1. d
2. a
3. e
4. b
5. c

IV. State True or False:

1. During ancient times most of the towns developed as headquarters of Kingdoms.
2. The policies of the British proved useful in the process of urbanisation.
3. The stiff competition of imported goods crashed down the industrial structure in India.
4. Madras, Calcutta and Bombay became the prominent commercial centres under the British.
5. The British developed the hill stations as Sanatoriums also.
6. By the nature of railway transport, all the towns were located on the hills.

Answer:

1. False
2. False
3. True
4. True
5. True
6. False

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The trade of English East India company expanded after 1757.
Reason (R): The British gradually acquired political control after the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 2.
Which of the following statement(s) is / are not true
(i) Ripon’s Resolution is known as MagnaCarta of Local Self-Government.
(ii) Lord Mayo’s famous Resolution of 1870 supported the development of local self-government.
(iii) After Independence India got the unique opportunity of moulding local government.
(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) i, ii and iii
Answer:
(d) i, ii and iii

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The British established cantonments.
Reason (R): The British occupied the Indian territory and political power by their military force.
(a) A is correct and R is Wrong
(b) A is wrong and R is Correct
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Mention the names of the few ancient towns in India.
Answer:
Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Varanasi, Allahabad and Madurai are well – known ancient towns in India.

Question 2.
Write a note on Medieval towns in India.
Answer:

• During medieval times, most of the towns developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms.
• They functioned either fort city or port city.
• Important among them are Delhi. Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.

Question 3.
Mention a few Coastal towns.
Answer:

1. The Europeans first developed some coastal towns.
2. They were Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry.

Question 4.
Mention the three main cities developed by the British.
Answer:

1. The British after consolidated their power in India developed three main cities – Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkatta.
2. They served as administrative headquarters and trading centres.

Question 5.
How were the newly developed towns known?
Answer:
The newly developed towns are known differently as hill towns, industrial towns, court towns, railway station towns, cantonments and administrative towns.

Question 6.
Mention the factors which led to the decline of Indian Industries.
Answer:

1. The traditional industrial base of Indian cities, was destroyed by Industrial revolution.
2. The high import duties and other restrictions imposed on the import of Indian goods into Britain and Europe led to the decline of Indian industries.

Question 7.
Why was there a new trend of urbanisation in the latter half of the nineteenth century?
Answer:

1. The opening of Suez Canal
2. Introduction of Steam Navigation
3. Construction of railways
4. Canals, harbours, growth of factory industries, coal mining, tea plantation, banking, shipping and insurance, all these created a new trend urbanisation in the latter half of the nineteenth century.

Question 8.
Write a note on the administration of the Presidency towns.
Answer:

1. The Governor General to appoint justices of peace in the Presidency towns.
2. After various trials, a system of government was evolved with essential features like a large corporation with elected members, a strong independent executive authority to check accounts and perform essential duties such as sanitation water supply and collection of revenue etc.

Question 9.
How did Calcutta became a Presidency?
Answer:

1. In 1690, the English merchants founded a settlement at Sutanati.
2.  In 1698, they secured Zamindari rights over Sutanati, Calcutta and Gobindpur.
3. The company established Fort William at Calcutta.
4. Calcutta became Presidency with a Governor and Council to manage its affairs.

Question 10.
How did the administrative headquarters emerge as the most important towns and cities of the country?
Answer:

1. By the beginning of 20th century, Calcutta, Bombay and Madras had become the leading administration, commercial and industrial cities of India.
2. These cities became the central commercial area with buildings of European style.
3. Sub urban railways, tram car and city buses gave the colonial cities a new look and status.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write a note on the evolution of towns in India.
Answer:

1. The evolution of towns has occurred in different ways and in different stages in India.
2. They can be classified into ancient towns, medieval towns and modem towns.
3.  Most of the ancient towns like Harlappa. Mohenjodaro, Varanasi, Allahabad and Madurai developed as administrative, religious and cultural centres.
4. The medieval towns like Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur developed as headquarters of principalities and kingdom.
5. The Europeans first developed some coastal towns such as Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry in modem India.
6. Then the British developed Madras, Bombay and Calcutta as the administrative headquarters and trading centres.
7. The newly developed towns are known differently as hill towns, industrial towns, court towns, railway station towns, cantonments and administrative towns.

Question 2.
Write about the development of Local Government in the British India.
Answer:
The development of local government in the British India may be traced in three distinct phases.
(a) First phase (1688-1882):

1. Municipal government in India has been in existence since 1688 with the formation of Madras Municipal Corporation with a Mayor.
2. Sir Josiah Child, one of the Directors of the East India Company was responsible for the formation of the corporation.
3. The Charter Act of 1793, established Municipal administration in the three
   Presidency Towns.
4. The Act of 1850 provided the formation of municipalities North Western Frontier provinces, Oudh and Bombay.

(b) Second phase (1882-1920):

1. Ripon’s Resolution on local Self – Government was a landmark in the history of local self-government.
2. So Ripon is rightly called the “Father of Local Self-Government” in India.

(c) Third phase (1920-1950):

1. The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced Dyarchy in the provinces.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced Provincial Autonomy.
3. With the attainment of Independence in 1947 India had the unique opportunity of making and moulding local government to meet the needs of the free nation.

Question 3.
How did Bombay become a main part in Western India?
Answer:

1. Bombay was initially seven Islands.
2. It was under, the Portuguese from 1534 onwards.
3. Portuguese king gave it as a dowry to Charles II of England when he married the former’s sister in 1661.
4. King leased it to the East India Company.
5. The city of Bombay began to grow when the East India Company started using Bombay as its main port in Western India.
6.  In 1687, the English East India Company transferred its headquarters from Surat to Bombay.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Solutions Chapter 7 Chemical Kinetics

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Elements Text Book Evalution

I. Choose the correct answer.

12th Chemistry Chapter 7 Book Back Answers Question 1.
For a first order reaction A → B the rate constant is x min^-1. If the initial concentration of A is 0.01 M, the concentration of A after one hour is given by the expression.
(a) 0.01 e^-x
(b) 1 x 10^-2 (1 – e^-60x)
(c) (1 x 10^-2) e^-60x
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) (1 x 10^-2) e^-60x
Answer:
Solutions:

In this case
k = x min^-1 and [A₀] = 0.01 M
= 1 x 10^-2 M
t = 1 hour = 60 min
[A] = 1 x 10^-2(e^-60x)

12th Chemistry 7th Lesson Book Back Answers Question 2.
A zero order reaction X → Product, with an initial concentration 0.02M has a half life of 10 min. If one starts with concentration 0.04M, then the half life is …………….
(a) 10 s
(b) 5 min
(c) 20 min
(d) cannot be predicted using the given information
Answer:
(c) 20 min
Solutions:

Given,
[A₀] = 0.02 M ; t_1/2 = 10 min
[A₀] = 0.04 M ; t_1/2 = ?
Substitute in (1)
10 min ? 0.02 M ……………………..(2)
t_1/2 ∝ 0.04 M ……………………..(3)
Dividing Eq.(3) by Eq. (2) we get,
\(\frac { { t }^{ 1/2 } }{ 10min }\) = \(\frac { 0.04M }{ 0.02M }\)
t_1/2 = 2 x 10 min = 20 min

Chemical Kinetics Book Back Answers Question 3.
Among the following graphs showing variation of rate constant with temperature (T) for a reaction, the one that exhibits Arrhenius behavior over the entire temperature range is ……………

Answer:

Solution:

In k = In A – \(\left( \frac { { E }_{ a } }{ R } \right)\) \((\frac { 1 }{ T })\)
this equation is in the form of a straight
line equation y = c + m x
a plot of ink vs \((\frac { 1 }{ T })\) is a straight line with negative slope.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Chemistry Question 4.
For a first order react ion A → product with initial concentration x mol L^-1, has a half life period of 2.5 hours. For the same reaction with initial concentration mol L^-1 the half life is
(a) (2.5 x 2) hours
(b) \((\frac { 2.5 }{ 2 })\) hours
(c) 2.5 hours
(d) Without knowing the rate constant, t_1/2 cannot be determined from the given data
Answer:
(d) Without knowing the rate constant, t_1/2 cannot be determined from the given data.
Solutions:
For a first order reaction
t_1/2 = \(\frac { 0.693 }{ k }\) t_1/2 does not depend on the initial concentration and it remains constant (whatever may be the initial concentration)
t_1/2 = 2.5 hrs .

Samacheer 12 Chemistry Solutions Question 5.
For the reaction, 2NH₃ → N₂ + 3H₂, if

then the relation between
k₁, k₂ and k₃ is
(a) k₁ = k₂ = k₃
(b) k₁ = 3 k₂ = 2 k₃
(c) 1.5k₁ = 3 k₂ = k₃
(d) 2k₁ = k₂ = 3 k₃
Answer:
(c) 1.5k₁ = 3 k₂ = k₃
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Question 6.
The decomposition of phosphine (PH₃) on tungsten at low pressure is a first order reaction. It is because the …………….
(a) rate is proportional to the surface coverage
(b) rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
(c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
(d) rate of decomposition is slow
Answer:
(c) rate is independent of the surface coverage
Solution:
Given:
At low pressure the reaction follows first order, therefore Rate ∝ [reactant]¹ Rate ∝ (surface area) At high pressure due to the complete coverage of surface area, the reaction follows zero order. Rate ∝ [reactant]°. Therefore the rate is independent of surface area.

Chemical Kinetics Solutions Question 7.
For a reaction Rate = k [acetone]^3/2 then unit of rate constant and rate of reaction respectively is …………..
(a) (mol L^-1 s^-1), (mol^-1/2 L^1/2 s^-1)
(b) (mol^-1/2 L^1/2 s^-1), (mol L^-1 s^-1)
(c) (mol^1/2 L^1/2 s^-1), (mol L^-1 s^-1)
(d) (mol L s^-1), (mol^1/2 L^1/2 s)
Answer:
(b) (mol^1/2 L^1/2 s^-1), (mol L^-1 s^-1)
Solution:
Rate = k [A]ⁿ
Rate = \(\frac { -d[A] }{ dt } \)
unit of rate = \(\frac { mol{ L }^{ -1 } }{ s }\) = mol L^-1 s^-1
unit of rate constant = \(\frac { (mol{ L }^{ -1 }{ S }^{ -1 }) }{ { (mol{ L }^{ -1 }) }^{ n } }\)
= mol^1-n L^n-1 S^-1
in this case, rate k [Acetone]^3/2
n = 3/2
mol^1-(3/2) L^(3/2)-1 s^-1
mol^-(1/2) L^(1/2) s^-1

Samacheer Kalvi Class 12 Chemistry Solutions Question 8.
The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities?
(a) Enthalpy
(b) Activation energy
(c) Entropy
(d) Internal energy
Answer:
(b) Activation energy
Solution:
A catalyst provides a new path to the reaction with low activation energy. i.e., it lowers the activation energy.

Chemical Kinetics In Tamil Question 9.
Consider the following statements:
(i) increase in concentration of the reactant increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
(ii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if E_a = o
(iii) rate constant k is equal to collision frequency A if E_a = o
(iv) a plot of ln (k) vs T is a straight line.
(v) a plot of In (k) vs \((\frac { 1 }{ T })\) is a straight line with a positive slope.

Correct statements are
(a) (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (v)
(d) (i), (ii) and (v)
Answer:
(a) (ii) only
Solutions:
In zero order reactions, increase in the concentration of reactant does not alter the rate, So statement (i) is wrong.

if E_a = O (so, statement (ii) is correct, and statement (iii) is wrong)
k = A e°
k = A
in k = A – \(\left( \frac { { E }_{ a } }{ R } \right)\) \(\frac { 1 }{ T }\)
this equation is in the form of a straight line equation yc + m x. a plot of Ink vs \(\frac { 1 }{ T }\) is a straight line with negative slope so statements (iv) and (v) are wrong.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Class 12 Chemistry Question 10.
In a reversible reaction, the enthalpy change and the activation energy in the forward direction are respectively – x kJ mol^-1 and y kJ mol^-1. Therefore, the energy of activation in the backward direction is ………..
(a) (v – x)kJ mol^-1
(b) (x + y) J mol^-1
(c) (x – y) kJ mol^-1
(d) (x + y) x 10³ J mol^-1
Answer:
(d) (x + y) x 10³ J mol^-1
Solution:

12th Chemistry Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 200K to 400K? (R 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1)
(a) 234.65 kJ mol^-1 K^-1
(b) 434.65 kJ mol^-1 K^-1
(c) 434.65 J mol^-1 K^-1
(d) 334.65 J mol^-1 K^-1
Answer:
(c)434.65 J mol^-1 K^-1
Solutions:

Question 12.

This reaction follows first order kinetics. The rate constant at particular temperature is 2.303 x 10² hourd. The initial concentration of cyclopropane is 0.25 M. What will be the concentration of cyclopropane after 1806 minutes? (Log 2 = 0.30 10)
(a) 0.125 M
(b) 0.215 M
(c) 0.25 x 2.303 M
(d) 0.05 M
Answer:
(b) 0.2 15 M
Solution:

Question 13.
For a first order reaction, the rate constant is 6.909 min^-1.The time taken for 75% conversion in minutes is …………
(a) \((\frac { 3 }{ 2 })\) log 2
(b) \((\frac { 3 }{ 2 })\) log 2
(c) \((\frac { 3 }{ 2 })\) log \((\frac { 3 }{ 4 })\)
(d) \((\frac { 2 }{ 3 })\) log \((\frac { 4 }{ 3 })\)
Answer:
(b) \((\frac { 3 }{ 2 })\) log 2
Solution:
k = \((\frac { 2.303 }{ t })\) log \(\left( \frac { \left[ { A }_{ 0 } \right] }{ \left[ A \right] } \right)\)
[A₀] = 100
[A] = 25
[A₀]= 100; [A]=25
6.909 = \((\frac { 2.303 }{ t })\) log \((\frac { 100 }{ 25 })\)
t = \((\frac { 2.303 }{ 6.909 })\) log (4) ⇒ t = \((\frac { 1 }{ 3 })\) log 2²
t = \((\frac { 2 }{ 3 })\) log 2

Question 14.
In a first order reaction x → y; if k is the rate constant and the initial concentration of the reactant x is 0.1 M, then, the half life is ……..
(a) \((\frac { log2 }{ k })\)
(b) \((\frac { 0.693 }{ (0.1)k })\)
(c) \((\frac { In2 }{ k })\)
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) \((\frac { In2 }{ k })\)
Solution:
k = \((\frac { 1 }{ t })\) In \(\left( \frac { \left[ { A }_{ 0 } \right] }{ \left[ A \right] } \right)\)
[A₀] = 0.1
[A] = 0.05
k = \(\left( \frac { 1 }{ { t }_{ 1/2 } } \right)\) In \((\frac { 0.1 }{ 0.05 })\)
k = \(\left( \frac { 1 }{ { t }_{ 1/2 } } \right)\) In (2) ⇒ t_1/2 = \((\frac { In(2) }{ k })\)

Question 15.
Predict the rate law of the following reaction based on the data given below:
2A + B → C + 3D

(a) rate = k [A]² [B]
(b) rate = k [A][B]²
(c) rate = k [A][B]
(d) rate = k [A]^1/2 [B]^3/2
Answer:
(b) rate = k [A][B]²
Solution:
rate₁ = k [0.1]ⁿ [0.1]^m ……………(1)
rate₂ = k [0.2]ⁿ [0.1]^m …………(2)
Dividing Eq.(2) by Eq.(1)

\(\frac { 2x }{ x }\) = 2ⁿ
∴ n = 1
rate₃ = k [0.1]ⁿ [0.2]^m …………..(3)
rate₄ = k [0.2]ⁿ [0.2]^m …………..(4)
Dividing Eq.(4) by Eq.(2)

\(\frac { 8 }{ 2 } \) = 2^m
∴m = 1
∴ rate = k [A]¹ [B]²

Question 16.
Assertion: rate of reaction doubles when the concentration of the reactant is doubles if it is a first order reaction.
Reason: rate constant also doubles
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Solution:
For a first reaction, when the concentration of reactant is doubled, then the rate of reaction also doubled. Rate constant is independent of concentration and is a constant at a constant temperature, i.e., it depends on the temperature and hence, it will not be doubled and when the concentration of the reactant is doubled.

Question 17.
The rate constant of a reaction is 5.8 x 102 s¹. The order of the reaction is ………….
(a) First order
(b) zero order
(c) Second order
(a) Third order
Answer:
(a) First order
Solution:
The unit of rate constant is s^-1 and it indicates that the reaction is first order.

Question 18.
For the reaction N₂ O_5(g) → 2NO_2(g) +\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) – O_2(g) the value of rate of disappearance of N₂O₅ is given as 6.5 x 10^-2 mol L^-1s^-1 The rate of formation of NO₂ and O₂ is given respectively as …………….
(a) (3.25 x 10^-2 mol L^-1s^-1) and (1.3 x 10^-2 mol L^-1s^-1)
(b) (1.3 x 10^-2 mol L^-1s^-1) and (3.25 x 10² mol L^-1s^-1)
(c) (1.3 x 10^-1 mol L^-1s^-1) and (3.25 x 10^-2 mol L^-1s^-1)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) (1.3 x 10^-1 mol L^-1s^-1) and (3.25 x 10^-2 mol L^-1s^-1)

Question 19.
During the decomposition of H₂O₂ to give dioxygen, 48g O₂ is formed per minute at certain point of time. The rate of formation of water at this point is …………….
(a) 0.75 mol min^-1
(b) 1.5 mol min^-1
(c) 2.25 mol min^-1
(d) 3.0 mol min^-1
Answer:
(d) 3.0 mol min^-1
Solution:
H₂O₂ → H₂O + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)O₂
Rate =
No. of moles of oxygen = \((\frac { 48 }{ 32 })\) = 1.5 mol
Rate of formation of oxygen = 2 x 1.5
= 3 mol min^-1

Question 20.
If the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the time for half reaction is also doubled. Then the order of the reaction is …………
(a) Zero
(b) one
(c) Fraction
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Zero
Solution:
For a first order reaction t^1/2 is independent of initial concentration .i.e., n \(\neq\) 1 for such cases

Question 21.
In a homogeneous reaction A ? B + C + D, the initial pressure was P₀ and after time t it was P. Expression for rate constant in terms of P₀, P and t will be ……….

Answer:

Solution:

Question 22.
If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 60 minutes, 50% of the same reaction under the same conditions would be completed in ………
(a) 20 minutes
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 35 minutes
(d) 75 minutes
Answer:
(b) 30 minutes
Solution:

Question 23.
The half life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 560 days, 1 g of element will be reduced to
(a) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) g
(b) \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) g
(c) \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) g
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 16 }\) g
Answer:
(d) \(\frac { 1 }{ 16 }\) g
Solution:
in 140 days ⇒ initial concentration reduced to \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) g
in 280 days ⇒ initial concentration reduced to \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) g
in 420 days ⇒ initial concentration reduced to \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) g
in 560 days ⇒ initial concentration reduced to \(\frac { 1 }{ 8 }\) g

Question 24.
The correct difference between first and second order reactions is that …………
(a) A first order reaction can be catalysed a second order reaction cannot be catalysed.
(b) The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on [A₀] the half life of a second order reaction does depend on [A₀].
(c) The rate of a first order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations.
(d) The rate of a first order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations,
Answer:
(b) The half life of a first order reaction does not depend on [A₀]; the half life of a second order reaction does depend on [A₀].
Solution:
For a first order reaction
t_1/2 = \(\frac { 0.6932 }{ k }\)
For a second order reaction

Question 25.
After 2 hours, a radioactive substance becomes \((\frac { 1 }{ 16 })\)^th of original amount. Then the half life (in mm) is ………………
(a) 60 minutes
(b) 120 minutes
(c) 30 minutes
(d) 15 minutes
Answer:
(c) 30 minutes
Solution:

II . Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Define average rate and instantaneous rate.
Answer:
1. Average rate:
The average rate of a reaction is defined as the rate of change of concentration of a reactant (or of a product) over a specified measurable period of time.

2. insantaneous rate:
Instantaneous rate of reaction gives the tendency of the reaction at a particular point of time during its course (or) The time derivative of the concentration of a reactant (or product) converted to a positive number is called the instantaneous rate of reaction.

Question 2.
Define rate law and rate constant.
1. Rate law:
The expression in which reaction rate is given in terms of molar concentration of the reactants with each term raised to some power, which may or may not be same as the Stoichiometric coefficient of the reacting species in a balanced chemical equation.
x A + y B → products
Rate = k [A]^m [B]^m
k = Rate constant

2. Rate constant:
For a reaction involving the reactants A and B, Reaction rate = k [A]^m [B]^m The constant k is called rate constant of the reaction. If [A] = 1 M and [B] = 1 M; Reaction rate = k Thus, the rate constant (k) of a reaction is equal to the rate of reaction when the concentration of each reactant is equal to 1 mol L^-1. The change in the concentration of reactant or product per unit time under the condition of unit concentration of all the reactant.

Question 3.
Derive integrated rate law for a zero order reaction A product. A reaction in which the rate is independent of the concentration of the reactant over a wide range of concentrations is called as zero order reactions. Such reactions are rare. Let us consider the following hypothetical zero order reaction.
A → Product
The rate law can be written
Rate = k [A]°
(∴[A]° = 1)
– d [A] k (l)
\(\frac { -d[A] }{ dt }\) = k(1)
-d[A] = k dt
Integrate the above equation between the limits of [A₀] at zero time and [A] at some later time ‘t’,

Question 4.
Define half life of a reaction. Show that for a first order reaction half life is independent of Initial concentration.
Answer:
Half life of a reaction is defined as the time required for the reactant concentration to reach one half of its initial value. For a first order reaction, the half life is a constant i.e., it does not depend on the initial concentration. The rate constant for a first order reaction is given by,

Question 5.
What is an elementary reaction? Give the differences between order and molecularity of a reaction.
Answer:
Elementary reaction – Each and every single step in a reaction mechanism is called an elementary reaction. Differences between order and molecularity:
Order of a reaction:

1. It is the sum of the powers of concentration terms involved in the experimentally determined rate law.
2. It can be zero (or) fractional (or) integer.
3. It is assigned for a overall reaction.

Molecularity of a reaction:

1. It is the total number of reactant species that are involved in an elementary step.
2. It is always a whole number, cannot be zero or a fractional number.
3. It is assigned for each elementary step of mechanism.

Question 6.
Explain the rate determining step with an example.
Answer:
1. Most of the chemical reactions occur by multistep reactions. In the sequence of steps it is found that one of the steps is considerably slower than the others. The overall rate of the reaction cannot be lower in value than the rate of the slowest step.

2. Thus in a multistep reaction the experimentally determined rate corresponds to the rate of the slowest step. The step which has the lowest rate value among the other steps of the reaction is called as the rate determining step (or) rate limiting step.

3. Consider the reaction,
2A + B → C + D
going by two steps as follows,

Here the overall rate of the reaction corresponds to the rate of the first step which is the slow step and thus the first step is called as the rate determining step of the reaction. In the above equation, the rate of the reaction depends upon the rate constant k ( only. The rate of second step dosn’t contribute experimentally determined overall rate of the reaction.
For example,
NO_2(g) + CO_2(g) → NO_(g) + CO_2(g)
Which occurs in two elementary steps:

• NO₂ + NO₂ → NO + NO₃ (Slow)
• NO₃+ CO → NO₂ + CO₂ (fast)

Because the first step is the lowest step, the overall reaction cannot proceed any faster than the rate of the first elementary step. The first elementary step in this example is therefore the rate determining step.

The rate equation for this reaction is equal to the rate is constant of step-1 multiplied by the reactants of that first step. If the rate constant of step-1 is denoted as k₁ then the rate of the first step in the reaction (and the total reaction) will be,
Rate = k, [NO₂] [NO₂]
= k₁ [NO₂]₂

Question 7.
Describe the graphical representation of first order reaction.
Answer:
Rate constant for first order reaction is,
kt = ln\(\left( \frac { \left[ { A }_{ 0 } \right] }{ \left[ A \right] } \right)\)
kt = In [A₀] – In [A]
In[A] = In [A₀] – kty = c + mx
If we follow the reaction by measuring the concentration of the reactants at regular time interval ‘t’, a plot of ln[A] against ‘t’ yields a straight line with a negative slope. From this, the rate constant is calculated.

Question 8.
Write the rate law for the following reactions.

1. A reaction that is 3/2 order in x and zero order in y.
2. A reaction that is second order in NO and first order in Br₂.

Answer:
1. \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) x + y (excess) → products
– \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac { d[x] }{ dt }\) = k [x]^3/2

2. 2NO + Br₂ → products
– \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac { d[NO] }{ dt }\) = k [NO]² [Br₂]

Question 9.
Explain the effect of catalyst on reaction rate with an example.
Answer:

1. Significant changes in the reaction can be brought out by the addition of a substance called catalyst.
2. A catalyst is substance which alters the rate of a reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change.
3. They may participate in the reaction, but again regenerated and the end of the reaction.
4. In the presence of a catalyst, the energy of activation is lowered and hence, greater number of molecules can cross the energy barrier and change over to products, thereby increasing the rate of the reaction.
5. For example, decomposition of potassium chlorate is enhanced by addition of MnO₂.

2KClO₃ \(\frac{\mathrm{MnO}_{4}}{\Delta} 2 \mathrm{KCl}\) + 3O₂ (MnO₂ – Catalyst)

Question 10.
The rate law for a reaction of A, B and C has been found to be rate = k[A]² [B][L]^3/2. How would the rate of reaction change when

1. Concentration of [L] is quadrupled
2. Concentration of both [A] and [B] are doubled
3. Concentration of [A] is halved
4. Concentration of [A] is reduced to(1/3) and concentration of [L] is quadrupled.

Solution:
Rate = k [A]² [B] [L]^3/2 ………….(1)
1. when [L] = [4L]
Rate = k [A]² [B] [4L]^3/2
Rate = 8 (k[A]² [B] [L]^3/2) …………………..(2)
Comparing (1) and (3) rate is increased by 8 times.

2. when [A] = [2A] and [B] = [2B]
Rate = k[2A]² [2B ] [L]^3/2
Rate = 8 (k[A]² [B] [L]^3/2 …………….(3)
Comparing (1) and (3); rate is increased by 8 times.

3. when [A] = \([\frac { A }{ 2 }]\)
Rate = k \([\frac { A }{ 2 }]\)² [L]\(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
Rate = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) (k[A]² [B] [L]^3/2) ……………..(4)
Comparing (1) and ( 4); rate is reduced to \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) times.

4. when [A] = \([\frac { A }{ 3 }]\) and [L] = [4L]
Rate k\(\frac { A }{ 3 }\)² [B] [4L]^3/2
Rate = \([\frac { 8 }{ 9 }]\) (k[A]² [B] [L]^3/2) ……………….(5)
Comparing (1) and (5); rate is reduced to 8/9 times.

Question 11.
The rate of formation of a dimer in a second order reaction is 7.5 x 10^-3 mol L^-1s^-1 at 0.05 mol L^-1 monomer concentration. Calculate the rate constant.
Solution:
Let us consider the dimensation of a monomer M
2M → (M)₂
Rate = k [M]ⁿ
Given that n =2 and [M] = 0.05 mol L^-1
Rate = 7.5 x 10^-3 mol L^-1s^-1
Rate 7.5 x 10³ mol L^-1 s^-1
k = \(\frac { Rate }{ { \left[ M \right] }^{ n } }\)
k= =\(\frac { 7.5\times { 10 }^{ -3 } }{ { \left( 0.05 \right) }^{ 2 } }\) = 3 mol^-1 Ls^-1

Question 12.
For a reaction x +y + z → products, the rate law is given by rate = k [x]^3/2 [y]^1/2 what is the overall order of the reaction and what is the order of the reaction with respect to z.
Solution:
Rate = k [x]^3/2 [y]^1/2
overall order = \(\left( \frac { 3 }{ 2 } +\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \right)\) = 2
i.e., second order reaction.
Since the rate expression does not contain the concentration of Z , the reaction is zero order with respect to Z.

Question 13.
Explain briefly the collision theory of bimolecular reactions.
Answer:
Collision theory is based on the kinetic theory of gases. According to this theory, chemical reactions occur as a result of collisions between the reacting molecules. Let us understand this theory by considering the following reaction.
A_2(g) + B_2(g) → 2AB_(g)

If we consider that, the reaction between A₂ and B₂ molecules proceeds through collisions between them, then the rate would be proportional to the number of collisions per second. Rate ix Number of molecules colliding per litre per second (or) Rate ∝ Collision rate. The number of collisions is directly proportional to the concentration of both A₂ and B₂.
Collision rate ∝ [A₂] [B₂] …………………(1)
Collision rate = Z [A₂] [B₂] ……………………..(2)
Where, Z is a constant.

The collision rate ¡n gases can be calculated from kinetic theory of gases. For a gas at room temperature (298K) and 1 atm pressure, each molecule undergoes approximately 10⁹ collisions per second, i.e., I collision in 10⁹ second. Thus, if every collision resulted in reaction, the reaction would be complete in 10⁹ second.

In actual practice this does not happen. It implies that all collisions are not effective to lead to the reaction. In order to react, the colliding molecules must possess a minimum energy called activation energy. The molecules that collide with less energy than activation energy will remain intact and no reaction occurs.

Fraction of effective collisions (f) is given by the following expression, \({ e }^{ \frac { { -E }_{ a } }{ RT } }\)
Fraction of collisions is further reduced due to orientation factor i.e., even if the reactant collide with sufficient energy, they will not react unless the orientation of the reactant molecules is suitable for the formation of the transition state. The fraction of effective collisions (f) having proper orientation is given by the steric factor P.

Rate = P x f x collision rate
Rate= P x \({ e }^{ \frac { { -E }_{ a } }{ RT } }\) x Z [A₂] [B₂] ……..(1)
As per the rate law, Rate = k [A₂] [B₂] ………………….(2)
Where k is the rate constant
On comparing equation (1) and (2), the rate constant k is,
k = p Z \({ e }^{ \frac { { -E }_{ a } }{ RT } }\)

Question 14.
Write Arrhenius equation and explains the terms involved.
Answer:
Arrhenius equation:
k = A\({ e }^{ \frac { { -E }_{ a } }{ RT } }\)
A = Arrhenius factor (frequency factor)
R = Gas constant
k = Rate constant
E_a = Activation energy
T = Absolute temperature (in K)

Question.15.
The decomposition of Cl₂O₇ at 500K in the gas phase to Cl₂ and O₂ is a first order reaction. After 1 minute at 500K, the pressure of Cl₂O₇ falls from 0.08 to 0.04 atm. Calculate the rate constant in s^-1.
Answer:
Solution:
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{A}_{0}\right]}{[\mathrm{A}]}\)
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 1 min }\) log \(\frac { [0.08] }{ [0.04] }\)
k = 2.303 log 2
k = 2.303 x 0.3010
k = 0.693 2 min^-1
k = \((\frac { 0.6932 }{ 60 })\) s-1
k = 1.153 x 10^-2 s^-1

Question 16.
Give the examples for a zero order reaction.
Answer:
Examples for a zero order reaction:
1. Photochemical reaction between H₂ and Cl
H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) \(\underrightarrow { h\nu }\) 2HCI_(g)

2. Decomposition of N₂O on hot platinum surface
N₂ O_(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) N_2(g) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O_2(g)

3. lodination of acetone in acid medium is zero order with respect to iodine.
CH₃COCH₃ + I₂ \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \) ICH₂COCH₃ + HI
Rate k [CH₃COCI₃] [H⁺]

Question 17.
Explain pseudo first order reaction with an example.
Answer:
A second order reaction can be altered to a first order reaction by taking one of the reactant in large excess, such reaction is called pseudo first order reaction. Let us consider the acid hydrolysis of an ester,
CH₃COOCH_3(aq) +H₂ O₍₁₎ \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } } \) CH₃COOH_(aq) + CH₃OH_(aq)
Rate = k [CH₃COOCH₃] [H₂O]

If the reaction is carried out with the large excess of water, there is no significant change in the concentration of water during hydrolysis. i.e., concentration of water remains almost a constant. Now we can define k [H₂O] = k
∴ The above rate equation becomes
Rate k [CHCOOCH] Thus it follows first order kinetics.

Question 18.
Identify the order for the following reactions

1. Rusting of Iron
2. Radioactive disintegration of ₉₂U²³
3. 2 A+ B → products; rate = k [A]^1/2 [B]²

Answer:
1.
Theoritically order value may be more than one but practically one.

2. All radioactive disintegrations are first order reactions

3. 2A + 3B → products:
rate = k[A]^1/2 [B]²
Order = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) + 2 = \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) = 2.5

Question 19.
A gas phase reaction has energy of activation 200 kJ mol^-1. If the frequency factor of the reaction is 1.6 x 10¹³ s^-1. Calculate the rate constant at 600 K. (e^-40.09 = 3.8 x I0^-18 )
Solution:

Question 20.
For the reaction 2x +y → L find the rate law from the following data.

Answer:
Rate = k [x]ⁿ [y]^m
0.15 = k [0.2]ⁿ [0.02]^m ……………..(1)
0.30 = k [0.4]ⁿ [0.02]^m ……………… (2)
1.20 = k [0.4]ⁿ [0.08]^m ……………… (3)
Dividing Eq(3) by Eq (2) we get

Question 21.
How do concentrations of the reactant influence the rate of reaction?
Answer:
The rate of a reaction increases with the increase in the concentration of the reactants. The effect of concentration is explained on the basis of collision theory of reaction rates.

According to this theory, the rate of a reaction depends upon the number of collisions between the reacting molecules. Higher the concentration, greater is the possibility for collision and hence the rate.

Question 22.
How do nature of the reactant influence rate of reaction?
Answer:
Nature and state of the reactant:
We know that a chemical reaction involves breaking of certain existing bonds of the reactant and forming new bonds which lead to the product.

The net energy involved in this process is dependent on the nature of the reactant and hence the rates arc different for different reactants. Let us compare the following two reactions that we carried out in volumetric analysis.

1. Redox reaction between ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) and KMnO₄
2. Redox reaction between oxalic acid and KMnO₄

The oxidation of oxalate ion by KMnO₄ is relatively slow compared to the reaction between KMnO₄ and Fe . In fact heating is required for the reaction between KMnO₄ and Oxalate ion and is carried out at around 60°C. The physical state of the reactant also plays an important role to influence the rate of reactions. Gas phase reactions are faster as compared to the reactions involving solid or liquid reactants.

For example, reaction of sodium metal with iodine vapours is faster than the reaction between solid sodium and solid iodine. Let us consider another example that we carried out in inorganic qualitative analysis of lead salts.

If we mix the aqueous solution of colorless potassium iodide with the colorless solution of lead nitrate, precipitation of yellow lead iodide take place instantancously, whereas if we mix the solid lead nitrate with solid potassium iodide, yellow coloration will appear slowly.

Question 23.
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 1.54 x 10 s^-1. Calculate its half life time.
Answer:
We know that, t, 0.693 k
t_1/2 = 0.693/1.54 x 1o^-3 = 450 s

Question 24.
The half life of the homogeneous gaseous reaction SO₂CI₂ → SO₂ + Cl₂ which obeys first order kinetics Is 8.0 minutes. How long will it take for the concentration of SO₂Cl₂ to be reduced to 1% of the initial value?
Answer:
We know that, k = 0.693/ t_1/2
k = 0.693/8.0 minutes = 0.087 minutes ^-1
For a first order reaction,
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ k }\) log \(\left( \frac { \left[ { A }_{ 0 } \right] }{ \left[ A \right] } \right)\)
t = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 0.087{ min }^{ -1 } }\) log\(\frac { 100 }{ 1 }\)
t = 52.93 mm

Question 25.
The time for half change in a first order decomposition of a substance A is 60 seconds. Calculate the rate constant. How much of A will be left after 180 seconds?
Answer:
1. Order of a reaction = 1
t_1/2 = 60
seconds, k = ?
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 60 }\)
We know that, k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ { t }_{ 1/2 } }\)
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 60 }\) = 0.01155 s^-1

2. [A₀] = 100%
t = 180 s
k = 0.01155 seconds^-1
[A] = ?
For the first order reaction k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 60 }\) log \(\left( \frac { \left[ { A }_{ 0 } \right] }{ \left[ A \right] } \right)\)
0.9207 = log 100 – log [A]
log [A] = log 100 – 0.9207
log [A] = 2 – 0.9207
log[A] = 1.0973
[A] = antilog of (1.0973)
[A] = l2.5%

Question 26.
A zero order reaction is 20% complete in 20 minutes. Calculate the value of the rate constant. In what time will the reaction be 80% complete?
Answer:
1. A = 100%, x = 20%, Therefore, a – x =100 – 20 = 80
For the zero order reaction k= \((\frac { x }{ t })\) ⇒
k = \((\frac { 20 }{ 20 })\) = 1
Rate constant for a reaction = 1

2. To calculate the time for 80% of completion
k = 1, a = l00, x = 80%, t = ?
Therefore, t = \((\frac { x }{ k })\) = \((\frac { 80 }{ 1 })\) = 80 min

Question 27.
The activation energy of a reaction is 225 k cal mol^-1 and the value of rate constant at 40°C is 1.8 x 10^-5 s^-1. Calculate the frequency factor, A. Here, we arc given that
Answer:
E_a = 22.5 kcal mol^-1 = 22500 cal mol^-1
T = 40°C = 40 + 273 = 313 K
k = 1.8 x 10^-5 sec^-1
Substituting the values in the equation
log A = log k + \(\left( \frac { { E }_{ a } }{ 2.303RT } \right)\)
log A = log (l .8 x 10^-5) + \(\left( \frac { 22500 }{ 2.303\times 1.987\times 313 } \right)\)
log A = log (l.8) – 5 + (15.7089)
log A = (10.9642)
A = antilog ( 10.9642)
A = 9.208 x 10¹⁰ collisions s^-1

Question 28.
Benzene diazonium chloride in aqueous solution decomposes according to the equation
C₆H₅N₂CI C₆H₅CI + N₂. Starting with an initial concentration of 10 g L^-1 volume of N₂. gas obtained at 50°C at different intervals of time was found to be as under:

Show that the above reaction follows the first order kinetics. What is the value of the rate constant ?
Solution:
For a first order reaction
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac { a }{ (a-x) }\)
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac { { V }_{ \infty } }{ { V }_{ \infty }-{ V }_{ t } }\)
In this case, V_∞ = 58.3 ml
The value of k at different time can be calculated as follows:

Since the value of k comes out to be nearly constant, the given reaction is of the first order. The mean value of k = 0.0674 min^-1

Question 29.
From the following data, show that the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is a reaction of the first order:

Where t is the volume of standard KMnO₄ solution required for titrating the same volume of the reaction mixture.
Solution:
Volume of KMnO₄ solution used Amount of H₂O₂ present. Hence if the given reaction is of the first order, it must obey the equation
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac { a }{ (a-x) }\)
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac { { V }_{ 0 } }{ { V }_{ t } }\)
In this case,V₀ = 46.1 ml
The value of k at each instant can be calculated as follows:

Thus, the value of k comes out to be nearly constant. Hence it is a reaction of the first order.

Question 30.
A first order reaction is 40% complete in 50 minutes. Calculate the value of the rate constant. in what time will the reaction be 80% complete?
Answer:
1. For the first order reaction k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac { a }{ (a-x) }\)
Assume, a = 100 %, x = 40%, t = 50 minutes
Therefore, a – x = 100 – 40 = 60
k = (2.303/50) log (100/60)
k = 0.010216 min^-1
Hence the value of the rate constant is 0.010216 min^-1

2. t = ?, when x = 8O%
Therefore, a – x = 100 – 80 = 20
From above, k = 0.0102 16 min^-1
t = (2.303 / 0.010216) log (100 / 20)
t = 157.58 min
The time at which the reaction will be 80% complete is 157.58 min.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Elements Evaluate yourself

Question 1.
Write the rate expression for the following reactions, assuming them as elementary reactions.

1. 3A + 5B₂ → 4CD
2. X₂ + Y₂ → 2XY

Answer:
1. 3A + 5B₂ → 4CD
Rate = – \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 }\) \(\frac { \triangle [A] }{ dt }\)
= – \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) \(\frac { \triangle [{ B }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\)
= + \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) \(\frac { \triangle [CD] }{ dt }\)

2. X₂ + Y₂ → 2XY
Rate = – \(\frac { \triangle [{ X }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\)
= + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \( [latex]\frac { \triangle [{ XY }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\)

Question 2.
Consider the decomposition of N₂O_5(g) to form NO_2(g) and O_2(g). At a particular instant N₂O₅ disappears at a rate of 2.5 x 10^-2 mol dm^-3 s^-1. At what rates are NO₂ and O₂ formed? What is the rate of the reaction?
Solution:
2N₂O_5(g) → 4NO_2(g) + O_2(g)
from the stoichiometry of the reaction.
– \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac { d[{ N }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 5 }] }{ dt }\)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) \(\frac { d[{ N }{ O }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\)
= –\(\frac { d[{ N }{ O }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\)
= 2 –\(\frac { d[{ N }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 5 }] }{ dt }\)
Rate of disappearance of N₂O₅ is 2.5 x 10^-2 mol dm^-3 s^-1
∴ The rate of formation of NO2 at this temperature is 2 x 2.5 x 10^-2 = 5 x 10^-2 mol dm^-3 s^-1.
– \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac { d[{ N }_{ 2 }{ O }_{ 5 }] }{ dt }\)
= – \(\frac { d[{ O }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\)
∴ \(\frac { d[{ O }_{ 2 }] }{ dt }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x 2.5 x 10^-2 mol dm^-3 s^-1
= 1.25 x 10^-2 mol dm^-3 s^-1

Question 3.
For a reaction, X + Y → Product quadrupling [x], increases the rate by a factor of 8. Quailrupling both [x] and [y] increases the rate by a factor of 16. Find the order of the reaction with respect to x and y. what is the overall order of the reaction?
Solution:

z = k[x]^m [y]ⁿ …………(1)
8z = k[x]^m [y]ⁿ …………(2)
16z = k[x]^m [y]ⁿ ……………(3)
Dividing Eq (2) by Eq (1) we get,

8 = 4^m ⇒2³ = (2²)m ⇒ 2 = 2^2m
2m = 3
m = 3/2
1.5 order with respect to x.
Dividing Eq (3) by Eq (1) we get,

16 = 4^m. 4ⁿ
16 = 4². 4ⁿ
\(\frac { 16 }{ 16 }\) = 4ⁿ
1 = 4n
∴ n = 0 [Zero order with respect to y]
Overall order of the reaction.
k [x]^m [y]ⁿ
k [x]^1.5 [y]⁰
Order (1.5+0) = 1.5

Question 4.
Find the individual and overall order of the following reaction using the given data.
2NO(g) + Cl₂ (g) → 2NOCI(g)

Solution:
Rate = k [NO]^m [CI₂]
For experiment 1, the rate law is,
Rate₁ = k [NO]^m [CI₂]ⁿ
7.8 x 10^-5 k[0.1]^m [0.1]ⁿ ………………(1)

For experiment 2, the rate law is.
Rate₂ = k [NO]^m [CI₂]ⁿ
3.12 x 10^-4 = k[O.2]^m [0.1]ⁿ ……………….(2)

For experiment 3, the rate law is,
Rate₃ = k [NO]^m [CI₂]ⁿ
9.36 x 10^-4 = k [O.2]^m [0.3]^m ……………(3)
Dividing Eq (2) by Eq (l) we get,

4 = \(\frac { 0.2 }{ 0.1 }\)^m
⇒ 2² = 2^m
∴m = 2
Therefore the reaction is secondary order with respect to NO.
Dividing Eq (3) by Eq (2) we get,

Therefore the reaction is first order with respect to Cl₂
The rate law is, Rate = k [NO]₂ [Cl₂]¹
The overall order of the reaction (2 +1) = 3.

Question 5.
In a first order reaction A → products, 60% of the given sample of A decomposes in 40 min. what is the half life of the reaction?
Solution:
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{A}_{0}\right]}{[\mathrm{A}]}\)
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 40min }\) log \(\frac { 100 }{ (100-60) }\)
k = 0.0575 (0.3979) ⇒ k = 0.02287 min^-1
t_1/2 = \(\frac { 0.6932 }{ k }\) log \(\frac { 0.6932 }{ 0.02287 }\)
t_1/2 = 30.31 min.

Question 6.
The rate constant for a first order reaction is 2.3 x 10^-4 s^-1. If the initial concentration of the reactant is 0.01 M. what concentration will remain after 1 hour?
Solution:
Rate constant of a first order reaction k = 2.3 x 10^-4 s^-1
Initial concentration of the reactant [A₀] = 0.01 M
Initial concentration ot the reactant [A₀] = 0.01 M
Concentration will remain after 1 hour [A] =7
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ t }\) log \(\frac{\left[\mathrm{A}_{0}\right]}{[\mathrm{A}]}\)
2.3 x 10^-4 = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 1 hour }\) log \(\frac { [0.01] }{ [A] }\)
\(\frac { 2.3\times { 10 }^{ -4 }\times 1 }{ 2.303 }\) = log [0.01] – log[A]
9.986 x 10^-5 = – 2 – log [A]
11.986 x 10^-5 = – log [A]
[A] = Antilog (-11.986 x 10^-5)
[A] = 0.997 M

Question 7.
Hydrolysis of an ester in an aqueous solution was studied by titrating the liberated carboxylic acid against sodium hydroxide solution. The concentrations of the ester at different time intervals are given below.

Show that, the reaction follows first order kinetics.
Solution:
The value of k at different time can be calculated as follows:

This value shows that reaction follows first order kinetics.

Question 8.
For a first order reaction the rate constant at 500K is 8 x 10^-4 s^-1. Calculate the frequency factor, if the energy of activation for the reaction is 190 kJ mol^-1.
k = 8 x 10^-4s
T = 500K
E_a = 190 kJ mol^-1 A = ?
According to Arrhenius equation,

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Elements Text book Example problems

Question 1.
The oxidation of nitric oxide (NO)
2NO_(g) + O_2(g) → NO_2(g)
Series of experiments are conducted by keeping the concentration of one of the reactants constant and the changing the concentration of the others.

Find out the individual overall order of the reaction.
Solution:
Rate = k [NO]^m [O₂]ⁿ
For experiment 1, the rate law is
Rate₂ = k [NO]^m [O₂]ⁿ
19.26 x 10^-2 = k[1.3]^m [1.1]ⁿ ………………(1)
Similarly for experiment 2
Rate₂ = k [No]^m [O₂]ⁿ
38.40 x 10^-2 = k [1.3]^m [2.2]ⁿ …………………..(2)
For experiment 3
Rate₃ = k [NO]^m [O₂]ⁿ
76.8 x 10^-2 = k [2.6]^m [1.1]ⁿ ……….(3)
Dividing Eq (2) by Eq (1)
\(\frac { 38.40\times { 10 }^{ -2 } }{ 19.26\times { 10 }^{ -2 } }\) = \(\frac { k{ \left[ 1.3 \right] }^{ m }{ \left[ 2.2 \right] }^{ n } }{ k{ \left[ 1.3 \right] }^{ m }{ \left[ 1.1 \right] }^{ n } }\)
2 = \({ \left( \frac { 2.2 }{ 1.1 } \right) }^{ n }\)
2 = 2ⁿ
i.e., n= 1
Therefore the reaction is first order with respect to O₂
Dividing Eq (3) byEq (1)
\(\frac { 76.8\times { 10 }^{ -2 } }{ 19.26\times { 10 }^{ -2 } }\) = \(\frac { k{ \left[ 2.6 \right] }^{ m }{ \left[ 1.1 \right] }^{ n } }{ k{ \left[ 1.3 \right] }^{ m }{ \left[ 1.1 \right] }^{ n } }\)
4 = \({ \left( \frac { 2.6 }{ 1.3 } \right) }^{ m }\)
4 = 2^m
i.e., m = 2
Therefore the reaction is second order with respect to NO
The rate law is Rate₁ = k [NO]² [O₂]¹
The overall order of the reaction = (2 + 1) = 3

Question 2.
Consider the oxidation of nitric oxide to form NO₂
2NO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO_2(g)

• Express the rate of the reaction in terms of changes in the concentration of NO, O₂ and NO₂.
• At a particular instant, when [O₂] is decreasing at 0.2 mol L^-1 s^-1 at what rate is
  [NO₂] increasing at that instant?

Solution:

Question 3.
What is the order with respect to each of the reactant and overall order of the following reactions?
1.  5Br^–_(aq) + BrO₃^– _(aq)+ 6H⁺_(aq)  → 3Br₂₍₁₎ +3H₂O₍₁₎
The experimental rate law is
Rate = k [Br^–] [BrO₃^–][H⁺]²

2.  CH₃ CHO_(g) \(\underrightarrow { \triangle }\) CH_4(g) + CO_(g)
the experimental rate law is
Rate = k [CH₃CHO]^3/2
Solution:
1. First order with respect to Br^–, first order with respect to BrO₃^– and second order with respect to H⁺. Hence the overall order of the reaction is equal to 1+1+2=4

2. Order of the reaction with respect to acetaldehyde is \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)and overall order is also \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)

Question 4.
The rate of the reaction x + 2y → product is 4 x 10^-3 mol L^-1 s^-1, if [x] = [y] = 0.2 M and rate constant at 400K is 2 x 10^-2 s^-1. what is the overall order of the reaction.
Solution:

Comparing the powers on both sides, the overall order of the reaction n + m = 1

Question 5.
A first order reaction takes 8 hours for 90% completion. Calculate the time required for 80% completion. (log 5 = 0.6989; log10 = 1)
Solution:
For a first order reaction,

Let [A₀] = 100M
When
t = t_90%; [A] = 10M (given that t_90% = 8 hours)
t = t_80%; [A] = 20M

Find the value of k using the given data
k = \(\frac{2.303}{t_{90 \%}}\) log \((\frac { 100 }{ 10 })\)
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 8 hours }\) log 10
k = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 8 hours }\) (1)
Substitute the value of k in equation (2)
t_80% = \(\frac { 2.303 }{ 2.303/8 hours }\) log (5)
t_80% = 8 hours x 0.6989
t_80% = 5.59 hours

Question 6.
The half life of a first order reaction x → products is 6.932 x 10⁴ s at 500K . What percentage of x would be decomposed on heating at 500K for 100 min. (e^0.06 = 1.06)
Solution:
Given t_1/2 = 0.6932 x 10⁴ s
To solve: when t = 100 min

We know that for a first order reaction,t_1/2 = \(\frac { 0.6932 }{ k }\)

Question 7.
Show that in case of first order reaction, the time required for 99.9% completion is nearly ten times the time required for half completion of the reaction.
Solution:
Let [A₀] = 100
When t = t_99.9%; [A] = (100 – 99.9) = 0.1

Question 8.
The rate constant of a reaction at 400 and 200K are 0.04 and 0.02 s^-1 respectively. Calculate the value of activation energy.
Answer:
According to Arrhenius equation.

Question 9.
Rate constant k of a reaction varies with temperature T according to the following Arrhenius equation. log k = log A \(\frac { { E }_{ a } }{ 2.303R }\) \(\frac { 1 }{ T }\).

Where E is the activation energy. When a graph is plotted for log k Vs \(\frac { 1 }{ T }\) a straight line with a slope of 4000K is obtained. Calculate the activation energy.
Solution:

E_a = – 2.303 Rm
E_a = – 2.303 x 8.314 JK^-1 mol^-1 x (-4000k)
E_a = 76,589 J mol^-1
E_a = 76,589 kJ mol^-1

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Elements Additional Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Chemistry Chemical Kinetics Elements 1 Mark Questions and Answers

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is a slow reaction?
(a) Rusting of iron
(b) Combustion of carbon
(c) Reaction between BaCl₂ and dil. H₂SO₄
(d) Reaction between acidified K₂Cr₂O₇ with NaCl.
Answer:
(a) Rusting of iron

Question 2.
Which one of the following is the unit of rate of reaction?
(a) s^-1
(b) mol s^-1
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1
(d) mol L s
Answer:
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1

Question 3.
For a gas phase reaction, the unit of reaction rate is ……………
(a) s^-1
(b) atm s^-1
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1
(d) mol^-1 L^-1 s^-1
Answer:
(b) atm s^-1

Question 4.
For the reaction A → 2B, the rate of the reaction is ………….
(a) +\(\frac { d[B] }{ dt }\) = 2 – \(\frac { d[A] }{ dt }\)
(b) +\(\frac { d[A] }{ dt }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) \(\frac { d[B] }{ dt }\)
(c) Rate = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { d[A] }{ dt }\)
(d) Rate = 2\(\frac { d[B] }{ dt }\)
Answer:
(a) +\(\frac { d[B] }{ dt }\) = 2 – \(\frac { d[A] }{ dt }\)

Question 5.
Consider the following statement.
(i) In ionisation of cyclopropane, if the concentration of cyclopropane is reduced half, the rate increases twice.
(ii) The rate of the reaction depends upon the concentration of the reactant.
(iii) Order values must be determined experimentally.

Which of the above statement (s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) only
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(a) (i) only

Question 6.
In the reaction 2NO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO_2(g) the order of the reaction with respect to NO is…………
(a) first order
(b) second order
(c) third order
(d) zero order
Answer:
(b) second order

Question 7.
In the reaction 2NO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO_2(g). the order of the reaction with respect to O₂is …….
(a) zero order
(b) first order
(c) second order
(d) third order
Answer:
(b) first order

Question 8.
The overall order of the reaction 2NO_(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO_2(g) is …………….
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 0
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 9.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Rate of the reaction does not depend on the initial concentration of the reactants.
(ii) Rate constant of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of reactants.
(iii) Rate constant of the reaction is equal to the rate of the reaction, when the concentration of each of the reactants is unity.
Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(a) (iii) only

Question 10.
The overall molecularity of the reaction 2H₂ O_2(aq) \(\underrightarrow { { I }^{ – } }\) 2H₂O₁ + O_2(g) is …………
(a) unimolecular
(b) bimolecular
(c) termolecular
(d) pentamolecular
Answer:
(b) bimolecular

Question 11.
Which of the following is the order of decomposition of hydrogen peroxide catalysed by I^– ………….
(a) First order
(b) Second order
(c) Zero order
(a) Third order
Answer:
(a) First order

Question 12.
Consider the following statements.
(i) order cannot be zero.
(ii) Molecularity can be zero (or) fractional (or) integer.
(iii) order can be determined only by experiment.

Which of the above statement(s) is / are not correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iii) only
(d) (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(c) (iii) only

Question 13.
The overall order of the reaction 5Br^– + BrO₃^– + 6H⁺ is ……..
(a) 4
(b) 3/2
(c) 12
(d) 1
Answer:
(a) 4

Question 14.
Which one of the following reaction is a fractional order reaction?
(a) 2NO +O₂ → 2NO₂
(b) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g) + CO_(g)
(c) 2H₂O₂ → 2H₂)O₍₁₎ + O_2(g)
(d) H₂ + Br₂ → 2HBr
Answer:
(b) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g) + CO_(g)

Question 15.
The order of decomposition of acetaldehyde is …………….
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) 2
(d) 5/2
Answer:
(b) 1.5

Question 16.
Which one of the following is the unit of rate constant for a first order reaction?
(a) mol^-1 L s^-1
(b) mol L^-1 s^-1
(c) s^-1
(d) mol L S
Answer:
(c) s^-1

Question 17.
Which one of the following is an example for first order reaction?
(a) 2NO_(g)+ O_2(g) → 2NO_2(g)
(b) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g) + CO_(g)
(c) SO₂ Cl₂₍₁₎ → SO_2(g) + Cl_2(g)
(d) 2HBr → H₂ + Br₂
Answer:
(c) SO₂ Cl₂₍₁₎ → SO_2(g) + Cl_2(g)

Question 18.
Which one of the following is not an example for first order reaction?
(a) N₂O_5(g) → 2NO_2(g) \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O_2(g)
(b) SO₂Cl₂₍₁₎ → SO_2(g) + Cl_2(g)
(e) H₂O_2(aq) → H₂O₁\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)O_2(g)
(d) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g) + CO_(g)
Answer:
(d) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g) + CO_(g)

Question 19.
What is the order of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene?
(a) 1.5
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 20.
Which one of the following is an example of pseudo first order reaction?
(a) CH₃CHO_4(g) → CH_4(g) + CO_(g)
(b) 2H₂O_2(aq) → H₂O₍₁₎ +O_2(g)
(c) CH₃COOCH_3(aq) + H₂O₍₁₎ \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } }\) CH₃COOH_(aq) + CH₃OH_(aq)
(d) Isomerisation of cyclo propane to propene
Answer:
(c) CH₃COOCH_3(aq) + H₂O₍₁₎ \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } }\) CH₃COOH_(aq) + CH₃OH_(aq)

Question 21.
Which one of the following is called pseudo first order reaction?
(a) Decomposition of acetaldehyde
(b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester
(c) Isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene
(d) Decomposition of hydrogen peroxide
Answer:
(b) Acid hydrolysis of an ester

Question 22.
Which of the following is an example of zero order reaction?
(a) lodination of acetone in acid medium
(b) Hydrolysis of an ester in acid medium
(c) Decomposition of acetaldehyde
(d) Isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene
Answer:
(a) lodination of acetone in acid medium

Question 23.
Which one of the follow is not zero order reaction?
(a) H_2(g) + Cl_2(g) \(\underrightarrow { h\nu }\)  2HCI_(g)
(b) N₂O_(g) \(\rightleftharpoons\) N_2(g) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) O_2(g)
(c) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g)+ CO_(g)
(d) CH₃COCH₃ + I₂ \(\underrightarrow { { H }^{ + } }\) CH₂COCH₃ + HI
Answer:
(c) CH₃CHO_(g) → CH_4(g)+ CO_(g)

Question 24.
Consider the following statements.
(i) For a first order reaction, half life period is independent of initial concentration.
(ii) Photo chemical reaction between H₂ and Cl₂ is a zero order reaction
(iii) Acid hydrolysis of an ester is a second order reaction

Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (iii) only
(c) (i) & (ii)
(d) (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
(c) (i) & (ii)

Question 25.
The formula of half life for an nth order reaction involving reactant A and n \(\neq\) 1 is

Answer:

Question 26.
The half life period of first order reaction is 10 seconds. What is the time required for 99.9% completion of that reaction?
(a) 20 seconds
(b) 1000 seconds
(c) 100 seconds
(d) 999 seconds
Answer:
(c) loo seconds
Hint:
10 x t_1/2 = t_99.9%
∴ t_99.9% = 10 x 10 sec = 100 sec

Question 27.
Which one of the following is known as arrhenius equation?

Answer:

Question 28.
Which one of the following does not affect the rate of the reaction?
(a) Nature of the reactant
(b) Concentration of the reactants
(c) Surface area and temperature
(d) pressure
Answer:
(d) pressure

Question 29.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Higher the concentration, slower is the possibility for collision and rate also slower
(ii) Increase in surface area of reactant leads to more collisions per litre per second
(iii) Gas phas reactions are slower as compared to solid or liquid reactants

Which of the above statement is/are not correct?
(a) (ii)
(b) (i) & (iii)
(c) (ii) & (iii)
(d) (i) & (ii)
Answer:
(b) (i) & (iii)

Question 30.
Which of the following reaction take place at a faster rate?

Answer:

Question 31.
Which one of the following graph is not correct ………..

Answer:

Question 32.
The half life of paracetamol with in the body is ………
(a) 2 hours
(b) 2.5 hours
(c) 6 hours
(d) 10 hours
Answer:
(b) 2.5 hours

Question 33.
What is the order of radioactive decay?
(a) first order
(b) zero order
(c) second order
(d) third order
Answer:
(a) first order

Question 34.
t_1/2 of the reaction increases with increase in initial concentration of the reaction means the order of the reaction will be …………
(a) first order
(b) zero order
(c) second order
(d) third order
Answer:
(b) zero order

Question 35.
The reaction rate that does not decrease with time is …………
(a) pseudo first order reaction
(b) first order reaction
(c) zero order reaction
(d) second order reaction
Answer:
(c) zero order reaction

Question 36.
The rate of the reaction X → Y becomes 8 times when the concentration of the reactant ‘X’ is doubled. The rate law of the reaction is ………
(a) – \(\frac { d[x] }{ dt }\) = k[X]²
(b) – \(\frac { d[x] }{ dt }\) = k[X]³
(c) – \(\frac { d[x] }{ dt }\) = k[X]⁴
(d) – \(\frac { d[x] }{ dt }\) = k[X]⁸
Answer:
(b) – \(\frac { d[x] }{ dt }\) = k[X]³

Question 37.
The decomposition of ammonia gas on platinum surface has a rate constant k = 2.5 x 10^-4 mol L^-1 s^-1 What is the order of the reaction?
(a) first order
(b) second order
(c) third order
(d) zero order
Answer:
(d) zero order

Question 38.
A reaction is 50% completed in 2 hours and 75% completed in 4 hours. Then the order of the reaction is ………….
(a) first order
(b) zero order
(c) second order
(d) third order
Answer:
(a) first order
Answer:
(a) first order

Question 39.
What is the rate equation for the reaction A + B → C has zero order?
(a) Rate = k
(b) Rate = k [A]
(c) Rate = k [A]. [B]
(a) Rate = k. \(\frac { 1 }{ [c] }\)
Answer:
(c) Rate = k [A]. [B]

Question 40.
How does the value of rate constant vary with reactant concentration?

Answer:

Question 41.
Identify the reaction order if the unit of rate constant is s^-1 ……….
(a) zero order reaction
(b) second order reaction
(c) first order reaction
(d) third order reaction
Answer:
(c) first order reaction

Question 42.
What is unit of zero order reaction?
(a) s^-1
(b) mol^-1 L^-1 s^-1
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1
(d) mol L s^-1
Answer:
(c) mol L^-1 s^-1

Question 43.
Which of the following factor affect the rate of the reaction’?
(a) volume
(b) pressure
(c) cone
(d) all the above
Answer:
(c) cone

Question 44.
Acid hydrolysis of an ester is an example of ………
(a) zero order reaction
(b) Pseudo first order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) first order reaction
Answer:
(b) Pseudo first order reaction

Question 45.
Polymerisation reactions follows ………………. order kinetics.
(a) fractional
(b) first
(c) zero
(d) Pseudo first
Answer:
(a) fractional

Question 46.
Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by ……….
(a) changing concentration of the reactants
(b) Evaluating rate constants at standard temperature
(c) Evaluating rate constants at two different temperature
(d) Evaluating reIocities of reaction at two different temperature
Answer:
(c) Evaluating rate constants at two different temperature

Question 47.
Which of the following is the fastest reaction?

Answer:

Question 48.
Half life period of a reaction is found to be inversely proportional to the cube of its initial concentration. The order of the reaction is ………
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 49.
A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to ………
(a) the decrease in the number of collisions
(b) increase in the number of activated molecules
(c) the shortening of mean free path
(d) the lowering of activation energy
Answer:
(b) increase in the number of activated molecules

Question 50.
The minimum energy of a molecule would possess in order to enter into a fruitful collision is known as …………..
(a) Reaction energy
(b) collision energy
(c) Activation energy
(d) Threshold energy
Answer:
(a) Threshold energy

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The unit of the rate of a reaction is ………..
2. For a ……….. reaction, the unit of the reaction rate is atm s
3. An elementary step is characterised by its ………..
4. The total number of reactant species involved in an elementary step is called ………..
5. The sum of powers of concentration terms involved in the experimentally determined rate law is called ………..
6. The overall order of decomposition of acetaldehyde to methane and carbon monoxide is ………..
7. A second order reaction can be altered to a first order reaction by taking one of the reactant in large excess, it is called ………..
8. A reaction in which rate is independent of the concentration of the reactant over a wide range of concentration is called ………..
9. All radioactive disentegration reactions follow ……….. kinetics.
10. For a first order reaction, half life does not depend on ………..
11. Half life period of zero order reaction is ……….. proportional to initial concentration of the reactant.
12. Half life period ……….. reaction is directly proportional to initial concentration of the reactant.
13.  ……….. was proposed by Max Trautz and William lewis.
14. Collision theory was proposed by ……….. in 1916 and in ……….. 1918.
15. For a gas at room temperature (298 K) and I atm, each molecule undergoes approximately ……….. per second.
16. In order to react, the collidng molecules must possess a minimum energy called ………..
17. Generally the reaction rate tends to double when the temperature is increased by ………..
18. The number of collisions of reactant molecules per second is known as ………..
19. Heating is required for the reaction between KMnO₄ and oxalate ion and is carried out at around ………..
20. ……….. reactions are faster as compared to reactions involving solid or liquid reactants.
21. The rate of the reaction ……….. with the increase in the concentration of the reactants.
22. Higher the concentration of reactants greater is the possibility of and hence the ………..
23. In the presence of catalyst the energy of activation is ……….. and hence greater number of molecules change over to products there by increasing the rate of the reaction.
24. Bio availability of drugs within the body and this branch of study is called ………..
25. ……….. has a half life of 2.5 hours within the body.
26. The change in concentration of species per unit time gives the ……….. of the reaction.
27. The rate constant is equal to the rate of the reaction when concentration of reactants is ………..
28. Increase in surface area of reactant leads to more collisions per litre per second and hence the rate of the reaction is ………..
29. Acid hydroJysis of an ester is an example of ………..
30. Molecularity of a chemical reaction will never be equal to ………..

Answer:

1. moI L^-1 s^-1
2. gas phase
3. molecularity
4. Molecularity
5. order
6. 3/2 or 1.5
7. Pseudo first order reaction
8. Zero order reaction
9. First order
10. initial concentration
11. directly
12. zero order
13. Collision theory
14. Max Trautz, William lewis
15. 10 collisions
16. Activation energy
17. 10°C
18. Frequency factor (A)
19. 60°C
20. Gas phase
21. increases
22. collisions, rate
23. lowered
24. Pharmaco kinetics
25. Paracetamol
26. rate
27. unity
28. increased
29. Pseudo first order reaction
30. zero

III. Match the following

Match the list I and II using the code given below the list.

Quetion 1.

Answer:
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

Question 2.

Answer:
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2