Category: Class 11

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 90 Marks

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Part-I

Answer all the Questions. [15 x 1 = 15]
Choose the most appropriate answers from the given alternatives and write the option code and corresponding answer.

Question 1.
The oxidation number of Carbon in CH₂F₂ is …………………………. .
(a) + 4
(b) – 4
(c) 0
(d) + 2
Answer:
(c) 0

Question 2.
The energy of an electron in the third orbit of hydrogen atom is – E. The energy of an electron in the first orbit will be.
(a) – 3E
(b) \(-\frac{E}{3}\)
(c) \(-\frac{E}{9}\)
(d) – 9E
Answer:
(d) – 9E

Question 3.
The effective nuclear charge experienced by d1 electron in the given electronic configuration, (Is)² (2s, 2p)⁸ (3s, 3p)⁸ (3d)¹ (4s)² is ……………………. .
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2.1
(d) 6.9
Answer:
(b) 3

Question 4.
The type of H-bonding present in orthonitro phenol and p-nitro phenol are respectively.
(a) Inter molecular H-bonding and intra molecular H-bonding
(b) Intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding
(c) Intra molecular H-bonding and no H-bonding
(d) Intra molecular H-bonding and intra molecular H-bonding
Answer:
(b) Intra molecular H-bonding and inter molecular H-bonding

Question 5.
When CaC₂ is heated in atmospheric nitrogen in an electric furnace, the compound formed is
(a) Ca(CN)₂
(b) CaNCN
(c) CaC₂N₂
(d) CaNC₂
Answer:

Question 6.
When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, on cooling occurs because the molecules …………………………. .
(a) are above the inversion temperature
(b) exert on attractive force on each other
(c) do work equal to the loss in kinetic energy
(d) collide with loss of energy
Answer:
(b) exert on attractive force on each other

Question 7.
Among the following statements, which on is/are correct?
(i) During cyclic process the amount of heat absorbed by the surrounding is equal to work done on the surrounding.
(ii) Refractive index is an example for intensive property.
(iii) If the enthalpy change of a process is positive then the process is spontaneous.
(iv) The entropy of an isolated system increases during spontaneous process.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iv)
(d) (ii) only
Answer:
(d) (ii) only

Question 8.
If Kb and Kf for reversible reaction are 0.8 x 10 5 and 1.6 x 10^ respectively, the value of equilibrium constant is.
(a) 20
(b) 0.2 x 10^-1
(c) 0.05
(d) 0.2
Answer:
(a) 20

Question 9.
Assertion: Mixture of carbon tetrachloride and chloroform show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.
Reason: In the mixture, the inter molecular force of attraction between chloroform and carbon tetrachloride is weaker than those between molecules of carbon tetrachloride and chloroform molecules.
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Both assertion and reason are false.
(d) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

Question 10.
Shape and hybridisation of IF₅ are
(a) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp³d²
(b) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp³d
(c) Square pyramidal, sp³d²
(d) Octahedral, sp³d²
Answer:
(c) Square pyramidal, sp³d²

Question 11.
Which of the following is optically active?
(a) 3-chloro pentane
(b) 2-chloro propane
(c) meso-tartaric acid
(d) glucose
Answer:
(d) glucose

Question 12.
Which of the following species is not electrophile in nature? ‘
(a) Cl⁺
(b) BH₃
(c) H₃O⁺
(d) ⁺NO₂
Answer:
(c) H₃O⁺

Question 13.
group is ortho para directing and deactivating group.
(a) amino
(b) methyl
(c) halogen
(d) aldehyde
Answer:
(c) halogen

Question 14.
The raw material for Rasching process is
(a) chloro benzene
(b) phenol
(c) benzene
(d) anisole
Answer:
(c) benzene

Question 15.
cause kidney damage.
(a) Cadmium, Mercury
(b) Lead, Cadmium
(c) Freon, Fluoride
(d) Copper, Cadmium
Answer:
(a) Cadmium, Mercury

Part-II

Answer any six from the following questions. Question No. 24 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
What is syngas? How it is prepared?
Answer:
The mixture of CO and H₂ gases are called syngas.
Preparation: C + H₂O → CO + H₂

Question 17.
Write any two similarities between beryllium and aluminum.
(i) Beryllium and aluminium have same electronegativity values.
(ii) BeCl₂ and A1C1₃ forms dimeric structure. Both are soluble in organic solvents and are strong Lewis acids.

Question 18.
What is inversion temperature?
Answer:
The temperature below which a gas obey Joule-Thomson effect is called inversion temperature
\(\text { (T) } . \quad \mathrm{Ti}=\frac{2 \mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{Rb}}\)

Question 19.
What is the effect of added inert gas on the reaction of equilibrium?
Answer:
When an inert gas (i.e., a gas which does not react with any 6ther species involved in equilibrium) is added to an equilibrium system at constant volume, the total number of moles of gases present in the container increases, that is, the total pressure of gases increases, the partial pressure of the reactants and the products are unchanged. Hence at constant volume, addition of inert gas has no effect on equilibrium.

Question 20.
Linear form of carbon dioxide molecule has two polar bonds. Yet the molecule has zero dipole moment. Why?
Answer:

• The linear form of carbon dioxide has zero dipole moment, even though it has two polar bonds.
• In C02, there are two polar bonds [C = O], which have dipole moments that are equal in magnitude but have opposite direction.
• Hence the net dipole moment of the CO₂ is μ = μ₁ + μ₂ = μ₁ + (- μ₁) = 0
  • 
• In this case, \(\mu=\vec{\mu}_{1}+\vec{\mu}_{2}=\vec{\mu}_{1}+\left(-\vec{\mu}_{1}\right)=0\)

Question 21.
How do you detect the presence of nitrogen and sulphur together in an organic compound?
Answer:
If both N and S are present, a blood-red colour is obtained due to the following reactions

Question 22.
What happens when acetylene undergoes ozonolysis?
Answer:
When acetylene undergoes ozonolysis,

Question 23.
What is Green chemistry?
Answer:

• Green chemistry is a chemical philosophy encouraging the design of products and processes that reduces or eliminates the use and generation of hazardous substances.
• Efforts to control environmental pollution resulted in development of science for the synthesis of chemicals favourable to environment.
• Green chemistry means science of environmentally favourable chemical synthesis.

Question 24.
Calculate the orbital angular momentum for d and f orbital.
Answer:
Orbital angular momentum = √1(1 (1+1) h/2π.
For d orbital = √(2 x 3) h/2π = √6 h/2π
For f orbital =  √(3(3 + 1)) h/2π = √12 h/2π

Part-III

Answer any six froita the following questions. Q. No. 33 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What do you understand by the term mole?
Answer:
The mole is defined as the amount of a substance which contains 6.023 x 10²³ particles such as atoms, molecules or ions. It is represented by the symbol “n”.

Question 26.
Ionisation potential of nitrogen is greater than that of oxygen. Explain by giving appropriate reason.
Answer:
N (Z = 7) Is² 2s² 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹ 2p_z¹. It has exactly half filled electronic configuration and it is more stable. Due to stability, ionization energy of nitrogen is high.

O (Z = 8) Is² 2s² 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹ 2p_z¹ It has incomplete electronic configuration and it requires less ionization energy. I.E₁ N > I.E₁ O

Question 27.
Among the alkali metal halides, which is covalent? Explain with reason.
Answer:
All alkali metal halides are ionic crystals. However lithium halides shows covalent character, as it is the smallest cation that exerts high polarising power on the halides.

Question 28.
Derive ideal gas equation.
Answer:
The gaseous state is described completely using the following four variables T, P, V and n. Each gas law relates one variable of a gaseous sample to another while the other two variables are held constant.

Therefore, combining all equations into a single equation will enable to account for the change in any or all of the variables.

• Boyle’s law: V α \(\frac{1}{P}\)
• Charles’law: V α T
• Avogadro’s law: V α n

We can combine these equations into the following general equation that describes the physical behaviour of all gases.
\(\mathrm{V} \propto \frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)
\(\mathrm{V}=\frac{\mathrm{nRT}}{\mathrm{P}}\), where R = Proportionately constant.

The above equation can be rearranged to give PV = nRT – Ideal gas equation. Where, R is also known as Universal gas constant.

Question 29.
Define molar heat capacity. Give its unit.
Answer:
Molar heat capacity is defined as “the amount of heat absorbed by one mole of a substance in raising the temperature by 1 Kelvin”. It is denoted as C_m.

Unit of Molar heat capacity: SI unit of C_m is JK^-1 mol^-1.

Question 30.
What is vapour pressure of a liquid? What is relative lowering of vapour pressure?

1. The pressure of the vapour in equilibrium with its liquid is called vapour pressure of the liquid at the given temperature.
2. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is defined as the ratio of lowering of vapour pressure to vapour pressure of pure solvent.
3. Relative lowering of vapour pressure = \(\frac{p_{\text {solvent }}-p_{\text {solution }}}{p_{\text {solvent }}}^{\circ}\)

Question 31.
Explain a suitable method for purifying and separating liquids present in a mixture having very close boiling point.
Answer:
Fractional distillation: This method is used to purify and separate liquids present in the mixture having their boiling-point close to each other. The process of separation of the components in liquid mixture at their respective boiling points in the form of vapours and the subsequent condensation of those vapours is called fractional distillation. This method is applied in distillation of petroleum, coal tar and crude oil.

Question 32.
What is polymerisation? Explain the two types of polymerisation reaction of acetylene.
ANswer:
A polymer is a large molecule formed by the combination of large number of small molecules (monomers). This process is known as polymerisation.

Acetylene undergoes two types of polymerisation reactions, they are:

• Linear polymerisation
• Cyclic polymerisation

(i) Linear polymerisation: Acetylene forms linear polymer, when passed into a solution of cuprous chloride and ammonium chloride.

(ii) Cyclic polymerisation: Acetylene undergoes cyclic polymerisation on passing through red hot iron tube. Three molecules of acetylene polymerises to form benzene.

Question 33.
The bond length between all the four carbon atoms is same in 1,3 – butadine. Explain with reason.
Answer:

1,3-butadiene is a conjugated molecule with four overlapping p-orbital on adjacent atoms. And π-electrons are delocalised over four atoms. This shortens the bond length of central C – C bond. Thus, the bond length between all the four C-atoms are same in 1,3-butadiene.

Part – IV

Answer all the following questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) What are auto redox reactions? Give example.
(ii) Define orbital. What are the n and 1 values of 3p_x and 4d_x²-y² electron?
[OR]
(b) (i) Why hydrogen peroxide is stored in plastic containers, not in glass container?
(ii) Give the general electronic configuration of lanthanides and actinides.
Answer:
(a) (i) Auto redox reactions: It is a redox reaction in which a substance act as both the oxidizing agent and the reducing agent. (Reaction occur in the same substance)

(ii) 1. Orbital is a three dimensional space which the probability of finding the electron is maximum.
2. For 3p_x electron – n value =3, l value =1
3. For 4d_x²-y² electron n value = 4, l value = 2

[OR]

(b) (i) The aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide is spontaneously disproportionate to give oxygen. The reaction is slow but it is explosive when it is catalyzed by metal or alkali dissolved from glass. For this reason, its solution are stored in plastic bottles.
\(\mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{aq})} \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_{2} \mathrm{O}_{(\mathrm{i})}+1 / 2 \mathrm{O}_{2(\mathrm{g})}\)

(ii) 1. The electronic configuration of lanthanides is 4f^1-14 5d^0-1 6s².
2. The electronic configuration of actinides is 5f^1-14 6d^0-1 7s².

Question 35.
(a) (i) Why blue colour appears during the dissolution of alkali metals in liquid ammonia?
(ii) What is Boyle’s temperature? What happens to real gases above and below the Boyle’s temperature?

[OR]

(b) (i) Derive the relation between KP and Kc for general homogeneous gaseous reaction.
(ii) How do you measure heat changes of a constant pressure?
Answer:
(a) (i) M + (x + y)NH₃ → [M(NH₃)_x]⁺ + [e(NH₃)_y]^–
The blue colour of the solution is due to the ammoniated electron which absorbs energy in the visible region of light and thus imparts blue colour to the solution. The solutions are paramagnetic and on standing slowly liberate hydrogen resulting in the formation of amide. In concentrated solution, the blue colour changes to bronze colour and become diamagnetic.

(ii)

1. Over a range of low pressures, the real gases can behave ideally at a particular temperature called as Boyle temperature or Boyle point.
2. The Boyle point varies with the nature of the gas.
3. Above the Boyle point, the compression point Z > 1 for real gases i.e. real gases show positive deviation.
4. Below the Boyle point, the real gases first show a-decrease for Z, reaches a minimum and then increase with increase in pressure. So, it is clear that at low pressure and at high temperature, the real gases behave as ideal gases.
5. 

[OR]

(b) (i) Consider a generaL reaction in which all reactants and products arc ideal gases.

P = Active mass x RT
Based on the above expression, the partial pressure of the reactants and products can be expressed as.
\(\begin{array}{ll}
p_{A}^{x}=[\mathrm{A}]^{x} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{x} & p_{\mathrm{B}}^{y}=[\mathrm{B}]^{y} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{y} \\
p_{\mathrm{C}}^{\prime}=[\mathrm{C}]^{\prime} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{\prime} & p_{\mathrm{D}}^{m}=[\mathrm{D}]^{m} \cdot[\mathrm{RT}]^{m}
\end{array}\)

On substitution in equation (2),

where Δn_g is the difference between the sum of number of moles of products and the sum of number of moles of reactants in the gas phase.

(ii) 1. Measurement of heat change at constant pressure can be done in a coffee cup calorimeter.
2. We know that ΔH = q_p (at constant P) and therefore, heat absorbed or evolved, q_p at constant pressure is also called the heat of reaction or enthalpy of reaction, ΔH_r.
3. In an exothermic reaction, heat is evolved, and system loses heat to the surroundings. Therefore, q_p will be negative and Reaction AH. will also be negative. Mixture
4. Similarly in an endothermic reaction, heat is absorbed, q_p is positive and ΔH_r will also be positive.

Question 36.
(a) (i) Draw the M.O. diagram of oxygen molecule. Calculate its bond order and magnetic character.
(ii) Draw and explain the graph obtained by plotting solubility versus temperature for calcium chloride.

[OR]

(b) (i) Write the IUPAC names of the following compunds:

(ii) Calculate the formal charge on carbon and oxygen for the following structure

(a)

1. Electronic configuration of O atom is Is² 2s² 2p⁴
2. Electronic configuration of O₂ molecule is

3. Bond order \(\frac{N_{b}-N_{a}}{2}=\frac{10-6}{2}=2\)
4. Molecule has two unpaired electrons, hence it is paramagnetic.

(ii) Even though the dissolution Of calcium chloride is exothermic, the solubility increases moderately with increase in temperature. Here, the entropy factor also plays a significant role in deciding the position of the equilibrium.

[OR]

(b) (i) (x) 5-oxohexanoic acid (y) 4-chloropent-2-yne (z) 2-ethoxypropane
(ii)

Question 37.
(a) (i) Explain about the inductive effect.
(ii) What do you mean by confirmation? Explain about staggered conformation in ethane.

[OR]

(b) (i) Among the following compounds, o-dichloro benzene and p-dichloro benzene, which has higher melting point? Explain with reason.
(ii) Write notes on the adverse effect caused by ozone depletion.
Answer:
(a) (i) Inductive effect:
1. It is defined as the change in the polarization of a covalent bond due to the presence of adjacent bonded atoms or groups in the molecule. It is denoted as I-effect.
2. Atoms or groups which lose electron towards a carbon atom are said to have a +1 effect.
Example, CH₃ —, (CH₃)₂ CH —, (CH₃)₂ C— etc.
3. Atoms or groups which draw electrons away from a carbon atom are said to have a -I effect.
Example, —NO₂. -I, Br, -OH, C₆H₅ etc.
4. For example, consider ethane and ethyl chloride. The C—C bond in ethane is non¬polar while the C-C bond in ethyl chloride is polar. We know that chlorine is more electronegative than carbon and hence it attracts the shared pair of electrons between C—Cl in ethyl chloride towards itself.

This develops a slight negative charge on chlorine and a slight positive charge on carbon to which chlorine is attached. To compensate it, the C₁ draws the shared pair of electron between itself and C₂. This polarization effect is called inductive effect.

(ii) The rotation about C—C single bond axis yielding several arrangements of a hydrocarbon called conformers.

Staggered conformation: In this conformation, the hydrogens of both the carbon atoms are far apart from each other. The repulsion between the atoms is minimum and it is the most stable conformer.

[OR]

(b) (i) The melting point of p-dichloro benzene is higher than the melting point of the corresponding ortho and meta isomers. The higher melting which leads to more close packing of its moleules in the crystal lattice and consequently strong intermolecular attractive forces which requires more energy for melting.
p-dichlorobenzene > o-dichlorobenzene > m-dichlorobenZene

(ii) 1. The formation and destruction of ozone is a regular natural process, which never disturbs the equilibrium level of ozone in the stratosphere. Any change in the equilibrium level of ozone in the atmosphere will adversely affect the life in biosphere in the following ways.
2. Depletion of ozone layer will allow more UV rays to reach the earth surface and would cause skin cancer and also decreases the immunity level in human beings.
3. UV radiations affects plant proteins which lead to harmful mutation in plant cells.
4. UV radiations affect the growth of phytoplankton and as a result ocean food chain is disturbed and it even damages the fish productivity.

Question 38.
(a) (i) Calculate the uncertainty in the position of an electron, if the uncertainty in its velocity is 5.7 x 10⁵ ms^-1.
(ii) What is the mass of glucose (C₆ H₁₂ O₆) in it one litre solution which is isotonic with 6 gl^-1 of urea (NH₂ CONH₂)?

[OR]

(b) (i) An organic compound (A) of molecular formula C₂H₆O, on heating with conc.H₂SO₄ gives compound (B). (B) on treating with cold dilute alkaline KMnO₄ gives compound (C). Identify (A), (B) and (C) and explain the reactions.
(ii) A simple aromatic hydrocarbon (A) reacts with chlorine to give compound (B). Compound (B) reacts with ammonia to give compound (C) which undergoes carbylamine reaction. Identify (A), (B) and (C) arid explain the reactions.

(a) (i) Uncertainty in velocity = Δv = 5.7 x 10⁵ ms^-1.
Mass of an electron = m = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg.
Uncertainty in position = Δx = ?

(ii) Osmotic pressure of urea solution (π₁) = CRT

(b)

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Chemistry Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Chemistry Model Question Paper 2 English Medium

Time: 2½ Hours
Total Score: 70 Marks

General Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I. II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are to be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

PART-I

Answer all the Questions. [15 x 1 = 1]
Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

Question 1.
Match the List-I with List-Il using the correct code given below the list.

Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 3 1 2 4
Answer:
(b) 3 4 1 2

Question 2.
The energies E₁ and E₂ of two radiations are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation between their wavelengths i.e. Xl and X2 will be ……………… .
(a) \(\frac{\lambda_{1}}{\lambda_{2}}=1\)
(b) λ₁ = 2λ₂
(c) \(\lambda_{1}=\sqrt{25 \times 50} \lambda_{2}\)
(d) 2λ₁ = λ₂
Answer:
(b) λ₁ = 2λ₂

Solution:

Question 3.
In which of the following options the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation of property indicated against it? (NEET 2016 Phase-l)
(a) 1 < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)
(b) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)
(c) AI³⁺ < Mg²⁺ < Na⁺ < F- (increasing ionic size)
(d) B < C < O < N (increasing first ionization enthalpy)
Answer:
(a) 1 < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

Question 4.
For decolourisation of I mole of acidified KMnO4, the moles of H202 required is
(a) 1/2
(b) 3/2
(c) 5/2
(d) 7/2
Answer:
(c) 5/2

Question 5.
The compound (X) on heating gives a colourless gas and a residue that is dissolved in water to obtain (B). Excess of CO₂ is bubbled through aqueous solution of B, C is formed. Solid (C) on heating gives back X. (B) is ………………………. .
(a) CaCO₃
(b) Ca(OH)₂
(c) Na₂CO₂
(d) NaHCO₃
Answer:
(b) Ca(OH)₂

Solution:

Question 6.
Which law is used in the process of enriching the isotope of U²³⁵ from other isotopes?
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(c) Graham’s law of diffusion
(d) Charles’ law
Answer:
(c) Graham’s law of diffusion

Question 7.
The enthalpies of formation of Al₂O₃ and Cr₂O₃ are -1596 kJ and -1134 kJ, respectively. ΔH for reaction 2A1 + Cr₂O₃ → 2Cr + Al₂O₃ is …………………… .
(a) -1365 kJ
(b) 2730 kJ
(c) -2730 kJ
(d) -462 kJ
Answer:
(d) -462 kJ

Solution:

Question 8.
Solubility of carbon dioxide gas in cold water can be increased by
(a) increase in pressure
(b) decrease in pressure
(c) increase in volume
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) increase in pressure

Solution:

increase in pressure, favours the forward reaction.

Question 9.
Two liquids X and Y on mixing gives a warm solution. The solution is
(a) ideal
(b) non-ideal and shows positive deviation from Raoults law
(c) ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
(d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law
Answer:
(d) non-ideal and shows negative deviation from Raoults Law

Solution: ΔH_mix is negative and show negative deviation from Raoults law.

Question 10.
Which of the following molecules have bond order equal to 1?
(a) NO, HF, HC1, Li₂, CO
(b) H₂, Li₂, HF, Br₂, HC1
(c) Li₂, B₂, CO, NO, He₂⁺
(d) B₂, CO, He₂⁺, NO, HF
Answer:
(b) H₂, Li₂, HF, Br₂, HC₁

Question 11.
How many cyclic and acyclic isomers are possible for the molecular formula C3H60?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(c) 9

Question 12.
Statement-I: Fluoro acetic acid is stronger acid than acetic acid
Statement-II: Fluorine has high electronegativity and it is facilitate to dissociate the O-H bond easily.
(а) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.
(b) Statement-I and II are correct but statement-II is not correct explanation of statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is wrong.
(d) Statement-I is wrong but statement-II is correct
Answer:
(а) Statement-I and II are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I.

Question 13.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons in which all the bonds between the carbon atoms are single bond.
(ii) Alkenes are saturated hydrocarbons in which atleast one carbon – carbon double bond is present.
(iii) Alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons in which atleast one carbon – carbon triple bond is present.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) only (ii)
Answer:
(b) (i) and (iii)

Question 14.
Product X is ……………….. .
(a) CH₄
(b) C₂H₆
(c) HCHO
(d) CH₃OH
Answer:
(a) CH₄

Question 15.
Eutrophication causes reduction in
(a) dissolved oxygen
(b) dissolved nitrogen
(c) dissolved salts
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) dissolved oxygen

Part-II

Answer any six questions in which question No. 22 is compulsory. [6 x 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Explain about the factors that affect electronegativity?
Answer:

• Effective nuclear charge: As the nuclear charge increases, electronegativity also increases along the periods.
• Atomic radius: The atoms in smaller size will have larger electronegativity.

Question 17.
How do you convert para-hydrogen into ortho-hydrogen?
Answer:
Para hydrogen can be converted into ortho hydrogen by the following ways:

• By treating with catalysts platinum or iron.
• By passing an electric discharge.
• By heating > 800°C.
• By mixing with paramagnetic molecules such as O₂, NO, NO₂.
• By treating with nascent/atomic hydrogen.

Question 18.
Gases don’t settle at the bottom of a container?
Answer:
Gases by definition are the least dense state of matter. They have negligible intermolecular forces of attraction. So they are all free to roam separately. So the least dense gas particles will not sink at the bottom of a container.

Question 19.
Define – Normality.
Answer:
Normality (N): It is defined as the number of gram equivalents of solute in 1 litre of the solution.
\(\mathrm{N}=\frac{\text { Number of gram equivalent of solute }}{ \text { Volume of solution (in }\mathrm{L})}\)

Question 20.
If there is no change in concentration why is the equilibrium state considered dynamic?
Answer:
At chemical equilibrium the rate of two opposing reactions are equal and the concentration of reactants and products do not change with time. This condition is not static and is dynamic, because both the forward and reverse reactions are still occurring with the same rate and no macroscopic change is observed. So chemical equilibrium is in a state of dynamic equilibrium.

Question 21.
In CH4, NH3 and H20 the central atom undergoes sp3 hybridization – yet their bond angles are different. Why?
Answer:

1. In CH₄, NH₂ and H₂O the central atom undergoes sp³ hybridisation. But their bond angles are different due to the presence of lone pair of electrons.
2. It can be explained by VSEPR theory. According to this theory, even though the hybridisation . is same, the repulsive force between the bond pairs and lone pairs are not same.
3. Bond pair-Bond pair < Bond pair — Lone pair < Lone pair -Lone pair
   So due to the varying repulsive force the. bond pairs and lone pairs are distorted from regular geometry and organise themselves in such a way that repulsion will be minimum and stability will be maximum.
4. In case of CH₄, there are 4 bond pairs and no lone pair of electrons. So it remains in its regular geometry, i.e., tetrahedral with bond angle = 109° 28’.
5. H₂O has 2 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs. There is large repulsion between Ip-lp. Again repulsion between Ip-bp is more than that of 2 bond pairs. So 2 bonds are more restricted to form inverted V shape (or) bent shape molecule with a bond angle of 104° 35’.
6. NH₃ has 3 bond pairs and 1 lone pair. There is repulsion between Ip-bp. So 3 bonds are more restricted to form pyramidal shape with bond angle equal to 107° 18’.

Question 22.
Identify the compound in the following reaction,

Answer:

Question 23.
ClassIfy the following compounds in the form of alkyl, allylic, vinyl, benzyllc halides,
(a) CH₂ = CH – CH₂ CI
(b) C₆H₅CH₂I
(c) CH₃ – CH – CH₃
(d) CH₂ = CH – Cl
Answer:

Question 24.
Define — Smog.
Answer:

1. Smog is a combination of’ smoke and fog which form droplets that remains suspended in the air.
2. Smog is a chemical misture of gases that forms a brownish yellow haze. It mainly consists of ground level ozone, oxideš of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, SO2, acidic aerosols and some other gases.

Part – III

Answer any six questions in which question No. 30 is compulsory. [6 x 3 = 18]

Question 25.
Explain how effective nuclear charge is related with stability of the orbital?
Answer:

1. In a multi-electron atom, in addition to the electrostatic attractive force between the electron and nucleus, there exists a repulsive force among the electrons.
2. These two forces are operating in the opposite direction. This results in the decrease in the nuclear force of attraction on electron.
3. The net charge experienced by the electron is called effective nuclear charge.
4. The effective nuclear charge depends on the shape of the orbitals and it decreases with increase in azimuthal quantum number.
5. The order of the effective nuclear charge felt by a electron in an orbital within the given shell is s > p > d > f.
6. Greater the effective nuclear charge, greater is the stability of the orbital. Hence, within a given energy level, the energy of the orbitals are in the following order s < p < d < f.

Question 26.
Write a notes on hydrogen sponge.
Answer:
(i) Hydrogen sponge (or) Metal hydride e.g., palladium-hydrogen system is a binary hydride (Pdll).
(ii) Upon heating, H atoms diffuse through the metal to the surface and recombine to form molecular hydrogen. Since no other gas behaves this way with palladium, this process has been used to separate hydrogen gas from other gases:
\(2 \mathrm{Pd}_{(\mathrm{s})}+\mathrm{H}_{2(\mathrm{g})} \rightleftharpoons 2 \mathrm{PdH}_{(\mathrm{s})}\)
(iii) The hydrogen molecule readily adsorb on the palladium surface, where it dissociates into atomic hydrogen. The dissociated atoms, dissolve into the interstices or voids (octahedral or tetrahedral) of the crystal lattice.

(iv) Technically, the formation of metal hydride is by chemical reaction but it behaves like a physical storage method, i. e., it is absorbed and released like a water sponge. Such a reversible uptake of hydrogen in metals and alloys is also attractive for hydrogen storage and for rechargeable metal hydride battery applications.

Question 27.
In what way lithium differs from other metals of the same group?
Answer:

Lithium	Other elements of the family
Very hard.	Very Soft.
High melting and boiling point.	Low melting and boiling point.
Least reactive.	More reactive.
Reacts with nitrogen to get Li3N.	No reaction.
Reacts with bromine slowly.	Reacts violently.
Burnt in air gives monoxide only.	Burnt in air gives peroxides also, apart from monoxides. K, Rb and Cs gave superoxides.
Compounds are partially soluble in water.	Highly soluble in water.
Lithium nitrate decomposes to form an oxide.	Other metals on heating gives nitrite.
Extremely small in size.	Comparatively large in size.
Li+ has greater polarizing power.	Other M+ ions have comparatively larger polarizing power.

Question 28.
A 0.25 M glucose solution at 370.28 K has approximately the pressure as blood does what is the osmotic pressure of blood?
Sol.
C = 0.25 M
T = 370.28 K
(π)_glucose = CRT
(π) = 0.25 mol L^-1 x 0.082 L atm K^-1 mol^-1 x 370.28K
= 7.59 atm

Question 29.
Write the important principles of VSEPR theory to predict the shape of molecules.
Answer:

1. The shape of a molecule depends upon the no. of electron pairs around the central atom.
2. There is a repulsive force between the electron pairs, which tend to repel one another.
3. The electron pairs in space tend to occupy such positions that they are at maximum distance, so that the repulsive force will be minimum.
4. A multiple bond is treated as if it is a single bond and the remaining electron pairs which constitute the bond may be regarded as single super pair.

Question 30.
0.26 g of an organic compound gave 0.039 g of water and 0.245 g of CO₂ on combustion. Calculate the percentage of carbon and hydrogen.
Answer:
Weight of organic compound = 0.26 g
Weight of water = 0.039 g
Weight of CO₂ = 0.245 g

Percentage of hydrogen
18 g of water contains 2 g of hydrogen
0.039 g of water contains = \(\frac{2}{18} \times \frac{0.039}{0.26} \text { of } \mathrm{H}\)
∴ % of hydrogen = \(\frac{0.039}{0.26} \times \frac{2}{18}\) x 100 = 1.66%

Percentage of carbon
44 g of CO₂ contains 12 g of C
0. 245 g of CO₂ contains = \(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{0.245}{0.26}\) g of C
% of Carbon = \(\frac{12}{44} \times \frac{0.245}{0.26}\) x 100 = 25.69%

Question 31.
How will you distinguish l-butyne and 2-butyne?

Answer:
In l-butyne, terminal carbon atom contains atom one acidic hydrogen, therefore it will react with silver nitrate in the presence of ammonium hydroxide to give silver butynide. Whereas 2-butyne does not undergo such type of the reaction, because of the absence of acidic hydrogen.

Question 32.
Write the structure of the following compounds,
(a) l-Bromo-4 -ethyl cyclohexane
(b) 1, 4-Dichlorobut-2-ene
(c) 2-Chloro-3-methyl pentane
Answer:
(a) l-bromo-4 ethylcyclo hexane
(b) 1,4-dichloro but-2-ene
(c) 2-chloro-3-methyl pentane Br

Question 33.
Explain how does green house effect cause global warming.
Answer:

1. The earth’s atmosphere allows most of the visible light from the sun to pass through and reach the earth’s surface. As earth’s surface is heated by sunlight, it radiates a part of this energy back towards the space as longer IR wavelengths.
2. Some of the heat is trapped by CH₄, CO₂, CFCs and water vapour present in the atmosphere. They absorb IR radiations and block a large portion of earth’s emitted radiations.
3. The radiations thus absorbed is partly remitted to the earth’s surface. Therefore the earth’s surface gets heated up by a phenomenon called greenhouse effect.
4. Thus greenhouse effect is defined as the heating up of the earth surface due to trapping of infrared radiations reflected by earth’s surface by CO₂ layer in the atmosphere. The heating up of the earth through the greenhouse effect is called global warming.

Part-IV

Answer all the questions. [5 x 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) (i) Write the steps to be followed for writing empirical formula. (3)
(ii) What do you understand by the terms empirical formula and molecular formula? (2)
[OR]
(b) (i) Explain the shape of s and p-orbital. (2)
(ii) The mass of an electron is 9.1 x 10^-31 kg. If its kinetic energy is 3.0 x 10^-25 J. Calculate its wavelength. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) Empirical formula shows the ratio of numher of atoms of different elements in one molecule of the compound.

Steps for finding the Empirical formula:
The percentage of the elements in the compound is determined by suitable methods and from the data collected; the empirical formula is determined by the following steps.

1. Divide the percentage of each element by its atomic mass. This will give the relative number of atoms of various elements present in the compound.
2. Divide the atom value obtained in the above step by the smallest of them so as to get a simple ratio of atoms of various elements.
3. Multiply the figures so obtained, by a suitable integer if necessary in order to obtain whole number ratio.
4. Finally write down the symbols of the various elements side by side and put the above numbers as the subscripts to the lower right hand of each symbol. This will represent the empirical formula of the compound.
5. Percentage of Oxygen = 100 – Sum of the percentage masses of all the given elements.

(ii)

(b) (i) s-orbital: For is orbital, l = 0, m = 0, f(θ) = 1/√2 and g((φ) = 1√2π. Therefore, the angular distribution function is equal to 1/2√π. i.e. it is independent of the angle θ and φ. Hence, the probability of finding the electron is independent of the direction from the nucleus. So, the shape of the s orbital is spherical.

p-orbital: For p orbitals l = 1 and the corresponding m values are -1, 0 and +1. The three different m values indicates that there are three different orientations possible for p orbitals. These orbitals are designated as p_x, p_y and p_z. The shape of p orbitals are dumb bell shape.

(ii) Step I. Calculation of the velocity of electron
Kinetic energy =1/2 mu² = 3.0 x 10^-25 J = 3.0 x 10^-25 kg m² s^-2

Step II. Calculation of wavelength of the electron According to de Broglie’s equation,

Question 35.
(a) (i) Explain the exchange reactions of deuterium, (2)
(ii) Explain the action of soap with hard water. (3)
[OR]
(b) (i) Derive ideal gas equation. (3)
(ii) CO₂ gas cannot be liquified at room temperature. Give the reason. (2)
Answer:
(a) (i) Deuterium can replace reversibly hydrogen in compounds either partially or completely depending upon the reaction conditions. These reactions occur in the presence of deuterium.

(ii) Action of soap with hard water:

• The cleaning capacity of soap is reduced when used in hard water.
• Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of long chain fatty acids.
• When soap is added to hard water, the divalent magnesium and calcium cations present in hard water relict with soap.
• The sodium salts present in soaps are converted to their corresponding magnesium and calcium.salts which are precipitated as scum or precipitate.
  

(b) (i) Ideal gas equation:
The gaseous state is described completely using the following four variables T, P, V and n. Each gas law relates one variable of a gaseous sample to another while the other two variables are held constant.

Therefore, combining all equations into a single equation will enable to account for the change in any or all of the variables.

Boyle’s law: V α \(\frac{1}{P}\)
Charles’ law: V α T
Avogadro’s law: V α n

We can combine these equations into the following general equation that describes the physical behaviour of all gases.
\(\mathrm{V} \propto \frac{\mathrm{nT}}{\mathrm{P}}\)

The above equation can be rearranged to give PV = nRT – Ideal gas equation.

Where, R is also known as Universal gas constant.
(ii) Only below the critical temperature, by the application of pressure, a gas can be liquefied. CO₂ has critical temperature as 303.98 K. Room temperature means (30 + 273 K) 303 K. At room temperature, (critical temperature) even by applying large amount of pressure CO₂ cannot be liquefied. Only below the critical temperature, it can be liquefied. At room temperature, CO₂ remains as gas.

Question 36.
(a) (i) Why deep-sea divers use air diluted with helium gas in their air tanks? (3)
(ii) What is molal depression constant? Does it depend on nature of the solute. (2)

[OR]

(b) (i) Write the resonance structures for ozone molecule and N20? (2)
(ii) Draw MO diagram of CO and calculate its bond order. (3)
Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Deep-sea divers carry a compressed air tank for breathing at high pressure under water. This air tank contains nitrogen and oxygen which are not very soluble in blood and other body fluids at normal pressure.
2. As the pressure at the depth is far greater than the surface atmospheric pressure, more nitrogen dissolves in the blood when the diver breathes from tank.
3. When the divers ascends to the surface, the pressure decreases, the dissolved nitrogen comes out of the blood quickly forming bubbles in the blood stream. These bubbles restrict blood flow, affect the transmission of nerve impulses and can even burst the capillaries or block them. This condition is called “the bends” which are painful and dangerous to life.
4. To avoid such dangerous condition they use air diluted with helium gas (11.7 % helium, 56.2% nitrogen and 32.1% oxygen) of lower solubility of helium in the blood than nitrogen.

(ii) K_f = molar freezing point depression constant (or) cryoscdpic constant. ΔT_f = K_f. m, where ΔT_f = depression in freezing point, m = molality of the solution K_f= cryoscopic constant If m = 1, ΔT_f = k_f

i. e., cryoscopic constant is equal to the depression in freezing point for 1 molal solution cryoscopic constant depends on the molar concentration of the solute particles. K_f is directly proportional to the molal concentration of the solute particles.
\(\Delta \mathrm{T}_{f}=\mathrm{K}_{f} \times \frac{\mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{B}} \times 1000}{\mathrm{M}_{\mathrm{B}} \times \mathrm{W}_{\mathrm{A}}}\)

W_B = mass of the solute, W_A = mass of solvent, M_B = molecular mass of the solute.

[OR]

(b)

• Electronic configuration of C atom: Is², 2s² 2p²
  Electronic configuration of O atom: ls² 2s² 2p⁴
• Electronic configuration of CO molecule is: \(\sigma 1 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 1 s^{2} \sigma 2 s^{2} \sigma^{*} 2 s^{2} \pi 2 p_{y}^{2} \pi 2 p_{z}^{2} \sigma 2 p_{x}^{2}\)
• Bond order = \(\frac{N_{b}-N_{a}}{2}=\frac{10-4}{2}=3\)
• Molecule has no unpaired electron, hence it is diamagnetic.

Question 37.
(a) (i) What are cis-trans isomerism? Explain with example.
(ii) Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds,

[OR]

(b) (i) What is enzymatic browning?
(ii) How will you convert nitrile into primary amine?
Answer:
(a) (i)

• Geometrical isomers are the stereoisomers which have different arrangement of groups or atoms around a rigid framework of double bonds. This type of isomerism occurs due to restricted rotation of double bonds or about single bonds in cyclic compounds.
• In 2-butene, the carbon-carbon double bond is sp² hybridised. The carbon-carbon double bond consists of a a bond and a n bond. The presence of π bond lock the molecule in one position. Hence, rotation around C = C bond is not possible.
• 
• These two compounds are termed as geometrical isomers and are termed as cis and trans form.
• The cis isomer is the one in which two similar groups are on the same side of the double bond. The_trans isomer is that in which two similar groups are on the opposite side of the double bond. Hence, this type of isomerism is called cis-trans isomerism.

(ii)

[OR]

(b) (i) 1. Apples contains an enzyme called polyphenol oxidase (PPO) also known as tyrosinase.
2. Cutting an apple exposes its cells to the atmospheric oxygen and oxidizes the phenolic compounds present in apples. This is called the “enzymatic browning” that turns a cut apple brown.
3. In addition to apples, enzymatic browning is also evident in bananas, pears, avocados and even potatoes.

(ii) Converting nitrile into primary amine:

Question 38.
(a) An organic compound (A) of a molecular formula C₂H₄, decolourises bromine water. (A) on reacts with Cl₂ gives (B). (A) reacts with HBr to give (C). (A) reacts with hydrogen in the presence of Ni to give D. Identify A, B, C and D. Explain the reactions. (5)

[OR]

(b) (i) Explain the harmful effects of acid rain. (3)
(ii) What is Eutrophication? (2)
Answer:
(a) 1. C₂H₄ (A), decolorises the bromine water. Therefore it contains double bond. Hence (A) is ethylene.

[OR]

(b) (i)

1. Acid rain causes damage to buildings made us of marbles. This attack on marble is termed as stone leprosy.
   CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂↑
2. Acid rain affects plant and animal life in aquatic ecosystem.
3. It is harmful for agriculture, as it dissolves in the earth and removes the nutrients needed for the growth of plants.
4. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as iron, lead and copper into drinking water which have toxic effects.
5. It causes respiratory ailment in humans and animals.

(ii) Eutrophication: When the growth of algae increases in the surface of water, dissolved oxygen in water is greatly reduced. This phenomenon is known as eutrophication. Due to this growth of fishes gets inhibited.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Economics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 5 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
Cost functions are derived from ………………. function.
(a) production
(b) investment
(c) demand
(d) consumption
Answer:
(a) production

Question 2.
Producer’s equilibrium is achieved at the point where: …………….
(a) Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution [MRTS] is greater than the price ratio
(b) MRTS is lesser than the price ratio
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other
(d) The slopes of isoquant and isocost lines are different
Answer:
(c) MRTS and price ratio are equal to each other

Question 3.
Utility means
(a) Equilibrium point at which demand and supply are equal
(b) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services
(c) Total value of commodity
(d) Desire for goods and services
Answer:
(b) Want-satisfying capacity of goods and services

Question 4.
Which one of the following is a developed nation?
(a) Mexico
(b) Ghana
(c) France
(d) Srilanka
Answer:
(c) France

Question 5.
The weakness of Indian Economy is
(a) Economic disparities
(b) Mixed economy
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Adequate employment opportunities
Answer:
(a) Economic disparities

Question 6.
Explicit cost plus implicit cost denote cost.
(a) social
(b) economic
(c) money
(d) fixed
Answer:
(b) economic

Question 7.
“Economics is a science” The basis of this statement is
(a) Relation between cause and effect
(b) Use of deductive method and inductive method for the formations of laws
(c) Experiments
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
The world fastest growing economy is
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Germany
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

Question 9.
Find the odd one out:
(a) “An inquiry into the nature and the causes of the wealth of nations”
(b) “ Principles of Economics”
(cj “Nature of significance of Economic Science”
(d) “ Ceteris paribus”
Answer:
(b) “ Principles of Economics”

Question 10.
Choice is always constrained or limited by the ………………. of our resources.
(a) scarcity
(b) supply
(c) demand
(d) abundance
Answer:
(a) scarcity

Question 11.
Identify the year of launch of MUDRA Bank.
(a) 1995
(b) 2000
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 12.
The highest rate of tax under GST is [as on July 1st 2017]
(a) 18%
(b) 24%
(c) 28%
(d) 32%
Answer:
(c) 28%

Question 13.
The concept of meeting unexpected expenditure according to Keynes is
(a) Transaction motive
(b) Precautionary motive
(c) Speculative motive
(d) Personal motive
Answer:
(b) Precautionary motive

Question 14.
The cost that remains constant at all levels of output is…………….cost.
(a) fixed
(b) variable
(c) real
(d) social
Answer:
(a) fixed

Question 15.
Revenue received from the sale of additional unit is termed as revenue.
(a) profit
(b) average
(c) marginal
(d) total
Answer:
(c) marginal

Question 16.
Function with single independent variable is ………………….
(a) Multivariate function
(b) Bivariate function
(c) Univariate function
(d) Polynomial function
Answer:
(c) Univariate function

Question 17.
The new economic policy is concerned with the following:
(a) foreign investment
(b) foreign technology
(c) foreign trade
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 18.
Utility is a ………………… concept.
(a) objective
(b) subjective
(c) mathematical
(d) derivative
Answer:
(b) subjective

Question 19.
The head quarters of southern Railway is
(a) Tiruchirapalli
(b) Chennai
(c) Madurai
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(b) Chennai

Question 20.
Which feature is identified with rural areas?
(a) Low population density
(b) High population density
(c) Low natural resources
(d) Low human resources
Answer:
(a) Low population density

Part – II

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
Explicit cost – define
Answer:
Payment made to other for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs.

Question 22.
What is meant by distribution?
Answer:
Distribution means division of income among the four factors of production in terms of rent to landlords, wage to labourer, interest to capital and profit to entrepreneurs. The theory of functional distribution deals with how the relative prices of these factors of production are determined. The theory of factor prices is popularly known as the theory of distribution.

Question 23.
Define opportunity cost and provide an example.
Answer:

• Opportunity cost refers to the cost of next best alternative use. In other words, it is the value of the next best alternative foregone.
• For example, a farmer can cultivate both paddy and sugarcane in a farm land. –
• If he cultivates paddy, the opportunity cost of paddy output is the amount of sugarcane output given up.
• Opportunity Cost is also called as “ Alternative Cost” or Transfer cost.

Question 24.
Write the short note on natural resources.
Answer:

• Any stock or reserve that can be drawn from nature is a Natural Resources.
• The major natural resources are – land, forest, water, mineral and energy.
• India is rich in natural resources, but majority of the Indians are poor.
• Nature has provided with diverse climate, several rivers for irrigation and power generation, rich minerals, rich forest and diverse soil.

Question 25.
What do you mean by interest?
Answer:

• Interest is the reward paid by the borrower to the lender for the use of capital.
• Interest is the price paid for the use of capital in any market.
• Generally speaking, interest is a payment made by a borrower to the lender for the money borrowed.

Question 26.
List out the reasons for low per capita income as given by V.K.R.V. Rao.
Answer:
Rao ga c the following reasons for low per capita income and low levels of per capita nutrition in India:

• Uneconomic holdings with sub-divisions and fragmentation.
• Low levels of water availability for crops.
• Excess population pressure on agriculture due to the absence of a large industrial sector.
• Absence of capital.
• Absence of autonomy in currency policy, and in general in monetary matters encouraging holding of gold.

Question 27.
What is meant by Economics?
Answer:

• The term or word ‘Economics’ comes from the Ancient Greek “oikonomikos” [oikos means “households” and nomos means “management” “custom” or “law”].
• Thus, the term “Economics” means “management of households”.
• The subject was earlier known as “Political Economy” is renamed as Economics.

Question 28.
Find the average cost function where TC = 60 + lOx + 15x²
Answer:

Question 29.
Give the meaning of non- renewable energy.
Answer:
Non-renewable energy sources :

• The sources of energy which cannot be renewed or re-used are called non-renewable energy sources.
• Basically these are the energy sources which will get exhausted over a period of time.
• Some of the examples of this kind of resources are coal, oil, gas etc.

Question 30.
Point out any one feature of Indian Economy.
Answer:
India has a mixed economy:

• Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy.
• This means both private and public sector co-exist and function smoothly.
• The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector, while, due to the liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
• This markets it a perfect model for public-private partnership.

Part – III

Answer any seven question in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Define Economic Development.
Answer:

• The economic development is indicated not just by GDP, but by an increase in citizen’s quality of life or well being. .
• The quality of life is being assessed by several indices such as Human Developments Index [HDI]
• On the basis of the level of economic development, nations are classified as developed and developing economies.
• Developed economies are those countries which are industrialized.
• Developments economics are also termed as advanced countries.
• On the other hand, countries which have not fully utilized their resources like land, mines, workers, etc. and have low per capita income are termed as under developed economics.

Question 32.
Specify the nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition and monopoly?
Answer:
Nature of entry of competitors in perfect competition:

• Large number of Buyers and sellers.
• Homogeneous product and uniform price.
• Free entry and exit.
• Absence of Transport cost.
• Perfect Mobility of factors of production.
• Perfect knowledge of the Market.
• No Government Intervention.

Nature of entry of competitors in Monopoly:

• There is a single producer / seller of a product.
• The product of a monopolist is unique and has no close substitute.
• There is strict barrier for entry of any new firm.
• The monopolist is a price-maker.
• The monopolist earns maximum profit / abnormal profit.

Question 33.
What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel Sheet?
Answer:

• MS – excel is used in data analysis by using formula.
• A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
• The intersection of rows and columns is termed as cell.
• MS – Excel 2007 version supports up to 1 million rows and 16 thousand columns per work sheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

• Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
• Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel work sheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data
and formula

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area chart, line chart etc.

Question 34.
Differentiate between firm and Industry.
Firm
A firm refers to a single production unit in an industry, producing a large or a small quantum of a commodity or service, and selling it at a price in the market.
Its main objective is to earn a profit. There may be other objectives as described by managerial and behavioral theories of the firm.

Industry :
An industry refers to a group of firms producing the same product or service in an economy. For example: A group of firms producing cement is called a cement industry.

Question 35.
What are the measures taken towards Globalization?
Answer:

• As globalization measures tend to integrate all economies of the world and bringing them all under one umbrella.
• They pave the way for redistribution of economic power at the world level.
• Well-developed countries are favoured in this process and the welfare of the less- developed countries will be neglected.
• Globalization refers to the integration of the domestic (Indian) economy with the rest of the world.
• Import liberalization through reduction of tariff and non-tariff barriers, opening the doors to Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) are some of the measures towards globalization.

Question 36.
Describe the development of textile Industry in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Ncidu is the largest textile hub of India.
• Tamil Nadu is known as the “Yam Bowl” of the country accounting for 41% of India’s cotton yam production.
• The textile industry plays a significant role in the Indian economy by providing direct employment to an estimated 35.million people, and thereby coiitributing 4% of GDP and 35% of gross export earnings.
• The textile sector contributes to 14% of the manufacturing sector.
• From spinning to garment manufacturing, entire textile production chain facilities are in Tamil Nadu.
• About half of India’s total spinning mill capacity is. in Tamil Nadu.
• The western part of Tamil Nadu comprising Coimbatore, Tirupur, Erode, Dindigul and Karur has the  majority of spinning mills manufacturing cotton, polyester, blended yam and silk yam used by garment units in Tamil Nadu, Maharastra etc.,
• Yam is also exported to China, Bangladesh, etc.,
• Tirupur known as “knitting city” is the exporter of garments worth USD (United States Dollar) 3 billion.
• Karur is the major home for textile manufacturing (curtain cloth, bed linens, kitchen linens, toilet linens, table linens, wall hangings etc.,) and export hub in India.
• Erode is the main cloth market in South India for both retail and wholesale ready-mades.

Question 37.
The Handicrafts declined in India in British Period. Why?
Answer:

• The Indian handicrafts products had a worldwide market. ,
• Indian exports consisted chiefly of hand weaved cotton and silk fabrics, calicoes, artistic wares, wood carving etc.
• Through discriminatory tariff policy, the British Government purposefully destroyed the handicrafts.
• With the disappearance of Nawabs and Kings. There was no one to protect Indian handicrafts.
• Indian handicraft products could not complete with machine – made products.
• The introduction of railways in India increased the domestic market for the British goods.

Question 38.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Energy:

• Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern States as seen in following table.
• Installed capacity of power utilities in States in southern region.
• Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
• Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.

• Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai.
• These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Thermal Power:

• In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu [North Chennai] Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:
Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in following table:

Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 39.
State any two causes of housing problem in rural areas.
Answer:

• House is one of the basic needs of every family. Provision of better housing facilities increases the productivity of labour. The housing problem is getting aggravated due to rapid adaptation of nuclear families.
• Housing does not mean provision of house alone but also proper water supply, good sanitation, proper disposal of sewage etc.

Question 40.
Describe the features of human wants.
Answer:

• Wants are unlimited: Human wants are countless in number and various in kinds. When one want is satisfied another want crops up. Human wants multiply with the growth of civilization and development.
• Wants become habits: Wants become habits; for example, when a man starts .reading news paper in the morning, it becomes a habit. Same is the case with drinking tea or chewing pans.
• Wants are Satiable: Though we cannot satisfy all our wants, at the same time we can
  satisfy particular wants at a given time. When one feels hungry, he takes food and that want is satisfied. .
• Wants are Alternative: There are alternative ways to satisfy a particular want eg. Idly, dosa or chappathi.
• Wants are Competitive: All our wants are not equally important. So, there is competition among wants. Hence, we have to choose more urgent wants than less urgent wants.
• Wants are Complementary: Sometimes, satisfaction of a particular want requires the use of more than one commodity. Example: Car and Petrol, Ink and Pen.
• Wants are Recurring: Some wants occur again and again. For example, if we feel hungry, we take food and satisfy our want. But after sometime, we again feel hungry and want food.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Illustrate the Ricardian Theory of Rent.
Answer:

• The Classical theory of Rent is called “Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
• “Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil” – David Ricardo

Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

• Land differs in fertility.
• The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture.
• Rent depends upon fertility and location of land .
• Theory assumes perfect competition.
• It is based on the assumption of long period.
• There is existence of marginal land or no – rent land.
• Land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
• Land is used for cultivation only.
• Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Statement of the Theory:
There are three grades of land, namely A, B and C in that island. ‘A’ being most fertile ‘B’ less fertile and ‘C’ the least fertile. They will first cultivate all the most fertile land. The yield per acre on ‘A’ grade land is 40 bags of paddy. The same amount labour and capital employed in ‘A’ grade land. The yield per acre on ‘B’ grade land is 30 bags of paddy.

The Surplus of 10 bags [ 40-30] per acre appears on ‘A’ grade land. This is “ Economic Rent” land of ‘A’ grade land.

The yield per acre on ‘C’ grade land is 20 bags of paddy. This surplus of ‘A’ grade land is now raised to 20 bags [40-20] and it is the “ Economic Rent” of ‘A’ grade land.
The ‘C’ grade land cost of production is just equal to the price of its produce and therefore does not yield any rent [20-20]. Hence ‘C’ grade land is called ‘No – Rent land or marginal . land ’. The land which yields rent is called Ricardian Theory of Rent “intra-marginal land”.

Diagrammatic Explahation:

• In diagram, X- axis represents various grades of land and Y axis represents yield per acre [in bags].
• OA, AB and BC are the ‘A’ grade ‘B’ grade and ‘C’ grade lands respectively.
• The ‘C’ grade land is the no – rent land.”
• ‘A’ land ‘B’ grade lands are “intra – marginal lands”.
• The economic rent yielded by ‘A’ and ‘B’ grade lands is equal to the shaded area of their respective rectangles.

[OR]

(b) Write the important mineral resources in India.
Answer:
Important Mineral Resources:
(i) Iron -ore:

• India possesses high quality iron -ore in abundance.
• The total reserves of iron-ore in the country are about 14.630 million tonnes of haematite and 10,619 million tonnes of magnetite.
• Hematite iron is mainly found is Chattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha , Goa and Karnataka.
• Some deposits of iron ore are also found in Kerala, Tamilnadu and Andra Pradesh.

(ii) Coal and Lignite:

• Coal is the largest available mineral resource.
• India ranks third in the world after China and USA in coal production
• The main centres of coal in India are the West Bengal, Bihar, Madhya. Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.
• Bulk of the coal production comes from Bengal-Jharkhand coalfields.

(iii) Bauxite:

• Bauxite is a main source of metal like aluminium.
• Major reserves are concentrated in the East Coast bauxite deposits of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh.

(iv) Mica:

• Mica is a heat resisting mineral which is also a bad conductor of electricity.
• It is used in electrical equipments as an insulator. ‘
• India stands first in sheet mica production and contributes 60% of mica trade in the world.
• The important mica bearing pegmatite is found in Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and Rajasthan.

(v) Curde Oil:

• Oil is being explored in India at many place of Assam and Gujarat.
• Digboi, Badarpur, Naharkatia, Kasimpur, Palliaria, Rudrapur, Shivsagar, Mourn [All in Assam] and Hay of Khambhat, Ankaleshwar and Kalor [All in Gujarat] are the important places of oil exploration in India.

(vi) Gold:

• India possesses only a limited gold reserve.
• There are only three main gold mine regions Kolar Goldfield, Kolar district and Hutti goldfield in Raichur district [both in Karnataka] and Ramgiri Goldfield in Anantpur district [Andhra Pradesh]

(vii) Diamond:

• The total reserves of diamond is estimated at around 4582, thousand carats which are mostly available in Panna [Madhya Pradesh], Rammallakota of Kumur district of Andhra Pradesh and also in the basin of Krishna River.
• The new Kimberlile fields have been discovered in Raipur and Pastar districts of Chhattisgarh, Nuapada and Bargarh districts of Odisha, Narayanpet-Maddur Krishna areas of Andhra Pradesh and Raichur-Gulbarga districts of Karnataka.

Question 42.
(a) What are basic economics problems?
Answer:
Basic economics problems:

• If resources are abundant and wants are so few, then there would be no economic problem.
• But this situation can never exist.
• Resources are always scarce and our wants are numerous.
  Hence in every society certain choices have to be made.

The Economic Problem :

• Wants, desires; unlimited
• Resources: Scarce – Not freely available
• Economic choice
• Economics – How people use scarce resources to satisfy unlimited wants.

What and how much to produce?
Every society must decide on what goods it will produce and how much of these it will produce.

In this process, the crucial decisions include:

• Whether to produce more of food, clothing and housing or to have more luxury goods.
• Whether to have more agricultural goods or to have industrial goods and services.
• Whether to use more resources in military services.
• Whether to have more consumption goods or to have investment goods.
• Whether to spend more on basic education or higher education.

How to produce?
Every society has to decide whether it will use labour – intensive technology on capital intensive technology; that is whether to use more labour and less more machines and vice versa.

For whom to produce?

• Every society must also decide how its produce be distributed among the different sections of the society.
• It must also decide who gets more and who gets less?
• It should also decide whether or not a minimum amount of consumption be ensured for everyone in the society.
• Due to the scarcity of resources, a society faces the compulsion of making choice among alternatives.
• It face the problem of allocating the scare resources to the production of different possible goods and services and of distributing the produced goods and services among individuals within the economy.

[OR]

(b) List out the properties of iso-quants with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Properties of Iso-quant Curve:

1. The iso-quant curve has negative slope.
It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output. In the diagram combination A refers to more of capital K5 and less of labour L2. As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin.
This explains the concept of diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTSlk). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of iso-quant curve.

This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the iso-quant is convex to the origin.

3. Non inter-section of Iso-quant curves.
For instance, point A lie on the isoquants IQ₁ and IQ₂ But the point C shows a higher output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁ If C = A, B = A, then C = B. But C > B which is illogical.

4. An upper iso-quant curve represents a higher level of output.
Higher IQS show higher outputs and lower IQ_s show lower outputs, for upper iso-quant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve. ‘
The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an iso-quant curve.

5. Iso-quant curve does not touch either X axis or Y axis.
No iso-quant curve touches the X axis or Y axis because in IQ₁ only capital is used, and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

Question 43.
(a) Bring out features of perfect competition.
Answer:
Features of the perfect competition:
(0 Large Number of Buyers and sellers

• “A large number of buyers” implies that each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market.
• This means that he has no power to fix the price of the product.
• He is only a price-taker and not a price-maker ‘
• Large number of sellers” implies that share of each individual seller is a very very small quantum of a product.
• No power to fix the price of the product.

(ii) Homogeneous Product and Uniform Price

• The product sold and bought is homogeneous in nature, in the sense that the units of the product are perfectly substitutable.
• All the units of the product are identical i.e., of the same size, shape, colour, quality etc.
• Therefore, a uniform price prevails in the market.

(iii) Free Entry and Exit

• In the short run, it is possible for the very efficient producer, producing the product at a very low cost, to earn super normal profits.
• An inefficient producer, who is unable to bring down the cost incurs loss.

(iv) Absence of Transport Cost
The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the absence of the transport cost.

(v) Perfect Mobility of Factors of Production

• The prevalence of the uniform price is also due to the perfect mobility of the factors of production.
• As they enjoy perfect freedom to move from one place to another and from one occupation to another, the price gets adjusted.

(vi) Perfect Knowledge of the Market
All buyers and sellers have a thorough knowledge of the quality of the product, prevailing price etc.

(vii) No Government Intervention
There is no government regulation on supply of raw materials, and in the determination of price etc.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Marginal productivity theory of distribution.
Answer:
Introduction:

• This theory was developed by Clark, Wickseed and Walras . The Marginal productivity theory of Distribution explains how the prices of various factors of production are determined.
• This theory explains how rent, wages, Interest and profit are determined.
• This theory is also known as “ General Theory of Distribution ” or “ National Dividend Theory of Distribution”.

Assumptions:

• All the factors of production are homogenous.
• Factors of production can be substituted for each other.
• There is perfect competition both in the factor market and product market.
• There is perfect mobility of factors of production.
• There is full employment of factors.
• This theory is applicable only in the long – run.
• The entrepreneurs aim at profit maximization!
• There is no government intervention in fixing the price of a factor.
• There is no technological change. ,

Explanation of the theory:
According to the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution, the price or the reward for any factor of production is equal to the marginal productivity of that factor. Each factor is rewarded according to its marginal productivity.

Marginal Product:
The Marginal Product is also known as “ Marginal Physical Product “ [MPP]. The Marginal Product of a factor of production means the addition made to total product by employment of an additional unit of that factor. The Marginal Product may be expressed as MPP, VMP and MRP.

• Marginal Physical product [MPP]: The Marginal Physical Product of a factor is the increment in the total product obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
• Value of a marginal product [VMP]: The Value of Marginal Product is obtained by multiplying the marginal physical product of the factor by the price of product. Symbolically VMP = MPP x Price
• Marginal Revenue product : [MRP]: The Marginal Revenue Product of a factor is the increment in the total revenue which is obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
  MRP = MPP x MR

The Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution states that

• The price of a factor of production depends upon its productivity.
• The price of a factor is determined by and will be equal to marginal revenue product of that factor.
• Under certain conditions the price of a factor will be equal to both the average and marginal products of that factor.

Question 44.
(a) Analyse the causes for Rural Indebtedness.
Answer:
The Causes for Rural Indebtedness:
(i) Poverty of Farmers:

• The vicious circle of poverty forces the farmers to borrow for consumption and cultivation.
• Thus poverty, debt and high rates of interest hold the farmer in the grip of money lenders.

(ii) Failure of Monsoon:

• Frequent failure of monsoon is a curse to the farmers and they have to suffer due to the failure of nature.
• Farmers find it difficult to identify good years to repay their debts. ‘

(iii) Litigation:

• Due to land disputes litigation in the court compels them to borrow heavily.
• Being uneducated and ignorant they are caught in the litigation process and dry away their savings and resources.

(iv) Money Lenders and High Rate of Interest:
The rate of interest charged by the local money lenders is very high and the compounding
of interest leads to perpetuate indebtedness of the farmer.

[OR]

(b) Explain shift in the demand curve.
Answer:
A shift in the demand curve occurs with a change in the value of a variable other than its price in the general demand function. An increase or decrease in demand due to changes in conditions of demand is shown by way of shifts in the demand curve.

On the left hand side of the diagram, the original demand curve is dd, the price is OP, and the quantity demanded is P₃. Due to change in the conditions of demand (change in income, taste or change in prices of substitutes and /or complements) the quantity . demanded decreases from OQ₁ to OQ₂. This is shown in the demand curve to the left side new demand curve is d₁d₁,. This is called decrease in demand.

On the right hand side of the diagram, the original price is OP₁ and the quantity demanded is OQ₁ . Due to changes in other conditions, the quantity purchased has increased to OQ₂ Thus the demand curve shifts to the right d₁d₁. This is called increase in demand.

‘Extension’ and ‘Contraction’ of demand follow a change in price. Increases and decreases in demand take place when price remains the same and the other factors bring about demand changes.

Question 45.
(a) What is Duopoly and characteristics of Duopoly?
Answer:
Duopoly is a special case of the theory of oligopoly in which there are only two sellers. Both the sellers are completely independent and no agreement exists between them. Even though they are independent, a change in the price and output of one will affect the other, and may set a chain of reactions. A seller may, however, assume that his rival is unaffected by what he does, in that case he takes only his own direct influence on the price.

Characteristics of Duopoly:

• Each seller is fully aware of his rival’s motive and actions.
• Both sellers may collude (they agree on all matters regarding the sale of the commodity).
• They may enter into cut-throat competition.
• There is no product differentiation. .
• They fix the price for their product with a view to maximising their profit.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution.
Answer:
Introduction:

• This theory was developed by Clark, Wickseed and Walras. The Marginal productivity theory of Distribution explains how the prices of various factors of production are determined.
• This theory explains how rent, wages, Interest and profit are determined.
• This theory is also known as “General Theory of Distribution” or “National Dividend Theory of Distribution”.

Assumptions:

• All the factors of production are homogenous.
• Factors of production can be substituted for each other.
• There is perfect competition both in the factor market and product market.
• There is perfect mobility of factors of production.
• There is full employment of factors.
• This theory is applicable only in the long – run.
• The entrepreneurs aim at profit maximization.
• There is no government intervention in fixing the price of a factor.
• There is no technological change.

Explanation of the theory:
According to the Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution, the price or the reward for any factor of production is equal to the marginal productivity of that factor. Each factor is rewarded according to its marginal productivity.

Marginal Product:
The Marginal Product is also known as “ Marginal Physical Product “ [MPPJ. The Marginal Product of a factor Of production means the addition made to total product by employment of an additional unit of that factor. The Marginal Product may be expressed as MPP, VMP and MRP.

• Marginal Physical Product [MPP]: The Marginal Physical Product of a factor is the increment in the total product obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
• Value of a Marginal Product [VMP]: The Value of Marginal Product is obtained by multiplying the marginal physical product of the factor by the price of product. Symbolically VMP = MPP x Price
• Marginal Revenue Product: [MRP]: The Marginal Revenue Product of a factor is the increment in the total revenue which is obtained by the employment of an additional unit of that factor.
  MRP = MPP x MR

The Marginal Productivity Theory of Distribution states that

• The price of a factor of production depends upon its productivity.
• The price of a factor is determined by and will be equal to marginal revenue product of that factor.
• Under certain conditions the price of a factor will be equal to both the average and marginal products of that factor.

Question 46.
(a) Explain the objectives and characteristics of SEZs.
Answer:

• The Special Economic Zones [SEZs] Policy was announced in April 2000.
• The Special Economic Zones Act of 2005, the government has so far notified about 400 such zones in the country.

Major objectives of SEZs:

• To enhance foreign investment, especially to attract foreign direct investment [FDI] and thereby increasing GDP.
• To increase shares in Global Export. (International Business)
• To generate additional economic activity.
• To create employment opportunities.
• To develop infrastructure facilities.
• To exchange technology in the global market.

Main Characteristics of SEZ:

• Geographically demarked area with physical security.
• Administrated by single body authority.
• Streamlined procedures.
• Having separate custom area.
• Governed by more liberal economic laws.
• Greater freedom to the firms located in SEZs.

[OR]

(b) Describe the qualitative aspects of population.
Answer:
Tamil Nadu stands sixth in population with 7.21 crore against India’s 121 crore as per 2011 censes. Tamil Nadu’s population is higher than that of several countries according to UN report. Tamil Nadu population 7.2 [crores] in 2017.

Density:

• The density of population which measures population per sq.km is 555 [2011] against 480 [2001],
• Tamil Nadu ranks 12th in density among the Indian States and overall it is 382 for India.

Urbanisation:

• Tamil Nadu is the most urbanized state with 48.4% of urban population against 31.5% for • India as a whole.
• The State accounts for 9.61% of total urbanites irt India against 6% share of total population.
• Sex Ratio [Numbers of female per 1000 males],
• Balanced sex ratio implies improvement in quality of life of female population.
• The sex ratio in Tamil Nadu is nearing balance with 995 which is far better compared to most of the states and all India level.
• Tamil Nadu stands third next only to Kerala State and Puducherry Union Territory in sex ratio.

Question 47.
(a) Explain basic problems of the economy with the help of production possibility curve.
Answer:
The problem of choice between relatively scarce commodities due to limited productive resources with the society can be illustrated with the help of a geometric device, is known as production possibility curve. Production possibility curve shows the menu of choice
along which a society can choose to substitute one good for another, assuming a given state of technology and given total resources.

The explanation arid analysis of production possibility curve is based upon certain assumptions, some of them are following:

• The time period does not change. It remains the same throughout the curve.
• Techniques of production are fixed.
• There is full employment in the economy.
• Only two goods can be produced from the given resources.
• Resources of production are fully mobile.
• The factors of production are given in quantity and quality.
• The low of diminishing returns operates in production.

Every production possibility curve is based upon these assumptions. If some of these assumptions changes or negelected, then it affects the nature of production possibility curve.

To draw this curve we take the help of production possibilities schedule, as shown below.
Production possibilities schedule

The schedule suggests that if all resources are thrown into the production of food, a maximum of 500 tons of food can be produced, given the existing technology. If on the other hand, all resources are instead used for producing cars, 25 cars can be produced. In between these two extreme possibilities exist. If we are willing to give up some food, we can have some cars.

We can obtain a production possibility curve by drawing production possibilities schedule graphically. The quantity of food is shown on x-axis and the number of cars is shown on y-axis, the different six production possibilities are being shown as point P₁ P₂ P₃ P₄ P₅ & P₆

Problems of the economy

1. The problem of choice:
The problem of choice arise because of the given limited resources and unlimited wants, may relate to the allocation of resources between the goods for the higher income group and the lower income group and the goods for the defense and the civilians. Since PPC is the locus of the combination of the goods the problem of choice will not arises when we choose any point on PPC.

2. Solution of central problems:
The central problems of an economy can be explained with the help of PPC. The solution of problem of what to produce involves the decision regarding the choice of location on the production possibility carves. A production combination represented by any point inside the PPC indicates that the economy is using inefficient methods of production and inefficient combination of resources.

[OR]

(b) What are the properties of indifference curve?
Answer:
Indifference curves are subjective and unique to each person nevertheless they have in common the following properties:

1. Indifference curve must have negative slope:
An indifference curve has a negative slope, which denotes that if the quantity of ‘ commodity (y) decreases, the quantity of the other (x) must increase, if the consumer is to stay on the same level of satisfaction.

2. Indifference curves are convex to the origin:
Indifference curves are not only negatively sloped, but are also convex to the origin.
The convexity of the indifference curves implies that not only two commodities are substitutes for each other but also the fact that the marginal rate of substitution (MRS) between the goods decreases as a consumer moves along an indifference curve.

3. Indifference curve cannot intersect:
IC₁ is lower indifference curve denoting lesser satisfaction. Combination C and B fall on IC₁
IC₂ is upper indifference curve denoting higher satisfaction. C and A combinations are on IC₂
At the point of intersection, C = B on IC₁ and C = A on IC₂. So A = B whereas, A is in upper IC and B is on lower IC.
This is not possible.

4. Indifference curves do not touch the horizontal or vertical axis.
If they touch the axis, it violates the basic assumption that the consumer purchases two commodities in a combination.

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 7 Spreadsheets Basics (OpenOffice Calc) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 7 Spreadsheets Basics (OpenOffice Calc)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Spreadsheets Basics (OpenOffice Calc) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the first electronic spreadsheet?
(a) Excel
(b) Lotus 1-2-3
(c) VisiCalc
(d) OpenOffice Calc
Answer:
(c) VisiCalc

Question 2.
Which of the following applications was the parent to OpenOffice Calc?
(a) VisiCalc
(b) LibreCalc
(c) Lotus 123
(d) StarOffice Calc
Answer:
(b) LibreCalc

Question 3.
Grid of cells with a programmable calculator:
(a) Spreadsheet
(b) Database
(c) Word processor
(d) Linux
Answer:
(a) Spreadsheet

Question 4.
A column heading in Calc as a:
(a) Number
(b) Symbol
(c) Date
(d) Alphabet
Answer:
(d) Alphabet

Question 5.
Which key is used to move the cell pointer in the forward direction within the worksheet?
(a) Enter
(b) Tab
(c) Shift + Tab
(d) Delete
Answer:
(b) Tab

Question 6.
A formula in Calc may begin with:
(a) =
(b) +
(c) –
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 7.
What will be the result from the following formula? (Assume A1 = 5, B2 = 2)? + A1 B2:
(a) 7
(b) 25
(c) 10
(d) 52
Answer:
(b) 25

Question 8.
What will be the result from the following expression? (AssumeH1 = 12, H2 = 12)? = H1<>H2:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) 24
(d) 1212
Answer:
(b) False

Question 9.
Which of the following symbol is used to make a cell address as an absolute reference?
(a) +
(b) %
(c) &
(d) $
Answer:
(d) $

Question 10.
Which of the following key combinations is used to increase the width of the current column?
(a) Alt + Right arrow
(b) Ctrl + Right arrow
(c) Alt + Left arrow
(d) Ctrl + Left arrow
Answer:
(a) Alt + Right arrow

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What are the types of toolbars available in OpenOffice Calc?
Answer:
Under the menu bar, there are three toolbars available by default. They are:

1. Standard toolbar
2. Formatting toolbar
3. Formula bar

Question 2.
What is a Cell pointer?
Answer:
Cell pointer is a rectangle box which can be moved around the worksheet. The cell in which the cell pointer is currently located is known as “Active cell”. When you type any content, it will appear in the active cell.

Question 3.
Write about the text operator in OpenOffice Calc?
Answer:
In Calc, “&” is a text operator which is used to combine two or more texts as a single text. Joining two different texts is also known as “Text Concatenation”. An expression using the text operator has the following syntax:

Question 4.
Write the general syntax of constructing a formula in Calc?
Answer:
General Syntax of constructing a formula is:
= cell referencel <operator> cell reference2 <operator>
Cell references are of two types

1. Relative cell reference
2. Absolute Cell reference.

If you refer cell addresses directly while constructing formulae, it is called as “Relative Cell reference”.

Question 5.
What are the keyboard shortcuts to cut, copy and paste?
Answer:
Cut:
Cells you want to cut the formula using Ctrl + X.

Copy:
Copy the formula using Ctrl + C.

Paste:
Paste the copied formula using Ctrl + V.

Question 6.
Can you edit the contents of a cell? If yes, explain any one of the method of editing the cell content?
Answer:
Yes, you can edit the contents of a cell in several distinct ways. Use this method convenient for you,

1. Double-click the cell you would like to edit. The cursor is placed where you double clicked.
2. Press the F2 key, the cursor is placed at the end of the text.
3. Click anywhere in the formula bar. The formula bar changes to have an entered and check mark.

Question 7.
What are the options available in “Insert Cells” dialog box?
Answer:
The “Insert Cells” dialog box appear with four options.

1. Shift cells down
2. Shift cells right
3. Entire row
4. Entire Column

Question 8.
Match the following:

Answer:

1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (a)

Question 9.
Define the following
(i) Text Operator
(ii) Rows and Columns of spreadsheet.
Answer:
(i) Text Operator:
In Calc, “&” is a text operator which is used to combine two or more texts as a single text. Joining two different texts is also known as “Text Concatenation”. An expression using the text operator has the following syntax:

(ii) Rows and Columns of spreadsheet: the formula bar contains the worksheet of work area which consist of grid cells The worksheet has number of rows and columns, where each column is labelled as A, B, C, D … AA, AB, AC … and the rows are numbered from 1,2,3 … OpenOffice Calc version 4.1.5 contains 1024 columns and 10,48,576 rows. Column heading starts from A and end with AMJ. In the case of Microsoft Excel 2016, there are 16,384 columns (A to XF(d) and 10,48,576 rows available.

Question 10.
Differentiate between Copy-Paste and Cut-Paste?
Answer:
Copy – paste:

1. Select the cell or group of cell you want to copy, then using Ctrl + C (or) Edit → copy (or) copy icon.
2. Select the cells in which you want to paste, using Ctrl + V (or) Edit → paste (or) paste – icon.

Cut- paste:

1. Select the cell or group of cell you want to cut, then using Ctrl + X (or) Edit → cut (or) cut-icon.
2. Move the cell pointer to the cell in which you want to paste, using Ctrl + V (or) Edit → paste (or) paste-icon.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write a short note on OpenOffice Calc?
Answer:
OpenOffice.org (OOo), commonly known as OpenOffice, is the leading open-source office software suite for word processing, spreadsheets, presentations, graphics, database and more. It is available in many languages and works on all common computers. It stores all your data in an International open standard format and can also read and write files from other common office software package.

Question 2.
Write about inserting columns and rows in Calc?
Answer:
Inserting columns:
In Calc, you can insert a new column anywhere in the worksheet.

Step 1:
Select the column where a new column should be inserted.

Step 2:
Right-click on the selected column name that you selected. A pop-up menu will appears.

Step 3:
click the “Insert Columns” option from the menu.

Now, a new column will be inserted to the left of the current column.
A new column can also be inserted using Insert → Columns command.

Inserting rows:
In Calc, you can insert a new row anywhere in the worksheet.

Step 1:
Select the row where a new row to be inserted.

Step 2:
Right-click on the row number a pop-up menu will appears.

Step 3:
click “Insert Rows” option from the menu.
Now, a new row will be inserted to above the current row.

Insert → Rows command is used to insert a new row.

Question 3.
Differentiate Deleting data using Backspace and Delete?
Answer:

1. Backspace key is used to delete the character left of the insertion pointer of the cell.
2. Delete key is used to delete the character right of the insertion pointer of the cell.
3. This can be done while typing or after typing in the cell.

Question 4.
Write any three formatting options?
Answer:

Question 5.
In cell A1 = 34, A2 = 65, A3 = 89; write the formula to find the average?
Answer:
To find the average, using anyone of the following ways.
Typing in the formula bar

1. = (A1+A2+A3)/3 (or)
2. = AVERAGE (A1; A3)

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain about changing the column width in Calc?
Answer:
Changing the column width in Calc in different ways available.
(i) Using mouse to change the column width. Keep the mouse button pressed and drag left or right in order to change the width of the column.

(ii) Using the dialog to change the column width. Click to choose Format → Column → Width, then enter the column width in the dialog box, which appears on the screen, then click OK button. Now that you want coloumn width increased.

Question 2.
Write the steps to generate the following series. 5, 10, 20 ……………….. 2560?
Answer:

1. Select Edit → Fill → Series option is used to generate different set of series. Now fill series dialog box appeared.
2. Down / right / up / left, select the cell direction in the dialog box.
3. Choose growth series type, this type can generate multiplication series. This is suitable for given series.
4. Initial value of the series should be typed in the start value text box. That is 5.
5. End value of the series should be type in the end value text box, that is 2560.

Increment value between the first and second value of your series. So, the next value (third value) of the series will be generated based on this value. If you want to generate a decreasing order series, negative value should be specified an on increment value.

Question 3.
Read the following table
Answer:

Above table shows the sales figures for “Air Cooler” sold in four major cities of Tamilnadu from the year 2012 to 2016. Based on this data, write the formula to calculate the following.
(i) Total sales in the year 2015.
= SUM (B5 : E5) (or)
= B5 + C5 + D5 + E5

(ii) Total sales in Coimbatore from 2012 to 2016.
= SUM (E2 : E6) (or)
= E2 + E3 + E4 + E5 + E6

(iii) Total sales in Madurai and Tiruchi during 2015 and 2016.
= SUM (C5 : C6 ~ D5 : D6)

(iv) Average sales in Chennai from 2012 to 2016.
– AVERAGE (B2 ; B6) (or)
= (B2 + B3 + B4 + B5 + B6)/5

(v) In 2016, how many “Air Coolers” are sold in Chennai compared to Coimbatore?
= SUM IF (B2 : B6, > = , E2 : E6, “CHENNAI”, “COIMBATORE”)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Spreadsheets Basics (OpenOffice Calc) Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
……………………. is a very useful office automation tool for a tabular form.
(a) Word
(b) Calc
(c) Spreadsheet
(d) Database
Answer:
(c) Spreadsheet

Question 2.
Which name of the spreadsheet software is Microsoft Corporation introduced?
(a) Lous 1-2-3
(b) Excel
(c) StarCalc
(d) VisiCalc
Answer:
(b) Excel

Question 3.
The father of the spreadsheet is called:
(a) Charles Babbage
(b) Daniel Singer Dan Bricklin
(c) Stephen Hawking
(d) Bill Gates
Answer:
(b) Daniel Singer Dan Bricklin

Question 4.
The popular open source spreadsheet software presently maintained by Apache foundation:
(a) VisiCalc
(b) OpenOffice Calc
(c) Excel
(d) StarCalc
Answer:
(b) OpenOffice Calc

Question 5.
Which feature help you to add the contents of a cluster of adjacent cells?
(a) Autosum
(b) Autofill
(c) Function
(d) Chart
Answer:
(a) Autosum

Question 6.
Which feature guides you to work effectively while you work by displaying various helpful tips and techniques?
(a) Charts
(b) Wizard
(c) Function
(d) Autosum
Answer:
(b) Wizard

Question 7.
Which feature can be used to create formulas to complex calculation?
(a) Charts
(b) Wizard
(c) Function
(d) Autosum
Answer:
(c) Function

Question 8.
The main area of the OpenOffice code Calc window is called:
(a) Work area
(b) cell
(c) box
(d) function bar
Answer:
(a) Work area

Question 9.
How many worksheet available in the spreadsheet by default?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 10.
Which menu contains the commands which are used to modify the environment of Calc?
(a) View
(b) Insert
(c) Tools
(d) Help
Answer:
(a) View

Question 11.
Which menu lists inbuilt help features available with OpenOffice?
(a) View
(b) Insert
(c) Tools
(d) Help
Answer:
(d) Help

Question 12.
The bar, which is used a very important elements in a spreadsheet:
(a) Formula bar
(b) Formatting toolbar
(c) Standard bar
(d) Scrolling bar
Answer:
(a) Formula bar

Question 13.
Which box is used to show the contents of the current cell and shows what you typed in a cell?
(a) Address box
(b) Name box
(c) Input line
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Input line

Question 14.
Which button is used to move the screen the relative distance?
(a) Scroll buttons
(b) Vertical scroll bar
(c) Horizontal scroll bar
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Scroll buttons

Question 15.
The intersection of every row and column makes a box, which is called:
(a) cell
(b) row
(c) column
(d) table
Answer:
(d) table

Question 16.
The combination of column headings and row number:
(a) row number
(b) cell address
(c) column heading
(d) table
Answer:
(b) cell address

Question 17.
A rectangle element which can be moved around the worksheet:
(a) cell
(b) cell address
(c) cell pointer
(d) active cell
Answer:
(c) cell pointer

Question 18.
The cell in which the cell pointer is currently located is known as:
(a) cell
(b) cell address
(c) cell pointer
(d) active cell
Answer:
(d) active cell

Question 19.
How many navigation buttons are used to move the different worksheet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 20.
At the bottom of the sheet tabs and horizontal scrolling bar is called:
(a) status bar
(b) formula bar
(c) standard bar
(d) scroll bar
Answer:
(a) status bar

Question 21.
Which is shows current serial number of the sheet / total number of sheets available?
(a) Sheet count
(b) Page style
(c) Selection mode
(d) Zoom
Answer:
(a) Sheet count

Question 22.
How many modes shows the selection mode of the current sheet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 23.
When you open a new spreadsheet, the cell pointer is located in cell A1. So the cell A1 is known as:
(a) Cell pointer
(b) Home cell
(c) Bottom cell
(d) Direct cell
Answer:
(b) Home cell

Question 24.
Which keys are used to move the cell pointer anywhere in the worksheet?
(a) Shift key
(b) Tab key
(c) Direction keys
(d) Home key
Answer:
(c) Direction keys

Question 25.
How many direction keys are available to move the cell pointer in the worksheet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 26.
How many data types are generally classified using spreadsheet?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

Question 27.
In generally, the data can be entered in the cell, the default aligned is:
(a) left
(b) right
(c) center
(d) justify
Answer:
(a) left

Question 28.
The Indian data format in the system:
(a) DD / MM / YYYY
(b) YYYY / MM / DD
(c) MM / DD / YYYY
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) DD / MM / YYYY

Question 29.
Combination of values, operators and cell references is called as:
(a) Data
(b) Operators
(c) Expression
(d) Reference
Answer:
(c) Expression

Question 30.
How many operators can support the OpenOffice Calc?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 31.
Relational operators are also known as:
(a) Comparative operator
(b) Arithmetic operator
(c) Logical operator
(d) Boolean operator
Answer:
(a) Comparative operator

Question 32.
A continuous group of cell is called as:
(a) range
(b) reference
(c) relational
(d) text
Answer:
(a) range

Question 33.
How many types of reference operators are used in the spreadsheet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 34.
Which is the range reference operator using worksheet?
(a) ,
(b) ;
(c) :
(d) –
Answer:
(c) :

Question 35.
Which is the reference concatenation operator used in calc?
(a) ,
(b) ;
(c) ~
(d) :
Answer:
(c) ~

Question 36.
Which is the Intersection Operator using OpenOffice calc?
(a),
(b) \
(c) ~
(d) !
Answer:
(d) !

Question 37.
Which of the following operator is used as text operator?
(a) \
(b) ~
(c) &
(d) :
Answer:
(c) &

Question 38.
How many types of cell reference are used in the worksheet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 39.
The OpenOffice calc, spreadsheets are stored the default extension file name is:
(a) .xls
(b) .ods
(c) .txt
(d) .doc
Answer:
(b) .ods

Question 40.
The extension file name of the animated image is:
(a) .gif
(b) .ods
(c) .jpg
(d) .mp3
Answer:
(a) .gif

Question 41.
Which of the following combination key can be used as close the document?
(a) Ctrl + W
(b) Ctrl + C
(c) Ctrl + E
(d) Ctrl + L
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + W

Question 42.
If you are not willing to save the file, then click:
(a) open
(b) discard
(c) ok
(d) save
Answer:
(b) discard

Question 43.
The process of copy and paste can be replaced by a click and drag it is called as:
(a) autofill
(b) copy the cell
(c) move the cell
(d) delete the cell
Answer:
(a) autofill

Question 44.
How many options having insert cells dialog box?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Question 45.
The user gives additional effect to the text in a cell is known as:
(a) formatting
(b) deleting
(c) copying
(d) moving
Answer:
(a) formatting

Question 46.
Which of the shortcut key is to align the center the data within the cell?
(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + E
(c) Ctrl + B
(d) Ctrl +1
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + E

Question 47.
Which of the following shortcut key is used to visually change the format of a numeric content in currency symbol?
(a) Ctrl + Shift + 4
(b) Ctrl + Shift + 5
(c) Ctrl + Shift + 6
(d) Ctrl + Shift + 3
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + Shift + 4

Question 48.
How many types are there to inserting functions into worksheet?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 49.
Which operator can be used in begins a function?
(a) +
(b) –
(c) =
(d) i
Answer:
(c) =

Question 50.
Which combination of shortcut key can be involved in function wizard?
(a) Ctrl + FI
(b) Ctrl + F2
(c) Ctrl + F3
(d) Ctrl + F4
Answer:
(b) Ctrl + F2

Question 51.
How many types of tabs are used in function wizard?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 52.
How many types function are categorized?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12
Answer:
(c) 11

Question 53.
The OpenOffice Calc, arguments are separated by:
(a) ,
(b) –
(c) :
(d) .
Answer:
(b) –

Question 54.
The one of the most important feature of spreadsheet is the ability to create that based on numeric data is:
(a) charts
(b) data
(c) series
(d) range
Answer:
(a) charts

Question 55.
The chart should be created in the specify the range of data is called:
(a) charts
(b) data range
(c) series
(d) format
Answer:
(b) data range

Question 56.
Which one of the method is used to re-arrange the items in ascending or descending order based on alphabets?
(a) Filtering
(b) Sorting
(c) Range
(d) Series
Answer:
(b) Sorting

Question 57.
Which method are used to show only the selected portion of data from a large size database?
(a) Sorting
(b) Filters
(c) Series
(d) Data range
Answer:
(b) Filters

Question 58.
How many types of filters are available?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 59.
The formatting aspect of the data tools lies in the virtualization of those data for easy understanding of the user that can you specify:
(a) conditional formatting
(b) filter
(c) sorting
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) conditional formatting

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
Name the some popular spreadsheet software?
Answer:
VisiCalc, Lotus 1-2-3, StartCalc, MS-Excel, OpenOffice Calc etc.,

Question 2.
How to create a new worksheet in OpenOffice Calc?
Answer:
A new spreadsheet can be created from various methods. From windows, select Start → All Programs → OpenOffice → OpenOffice Calc.
Double click on “OpenOffice” icon the desktop.

Question 3.
What is the spreadsheet?
Answer:
The outline of the window is very similar to other application windows of OpenOffice. The main area of the Calc window is called as “Work area” or “Worksheet”.
A worksheet is a grid of cells with a programmable calculator attached to each cell.

Question 4.
What is a cell and cell address?
Answer:
Intersection of each row and column makes a box which is called as “Cell”. Each cell has its unique address. Cell address is the combination of column heading and row number.

Question 5.
How will you working with data in a worksheet?
Answer:
When you open a new spreadsheet, the cell pointer is located in cell Al. So, the Cell A1 is known as “Home Cell”. Cell pointer can be moved anywhere in the spreadsheet using the • direction keys.

Question 6.
What is the uses of direction keys?
Answer:
“Tab key” is used to move the cell pointer towards the right side or forward direction. “Shift+Tab” is used to move backward i.e. from right to left in a row. “Enter” key is also used to move the cell pointer. Enter moves the cell pointer to a cell below the current cell i.e. downwards. Four “direction keys” are used to move the cell pointer anywhere in the worksheet.

Question 7.
How can you entering formula in the worksheet?
Answer:
In Calc, you can enter formulas in two methods, either directly into the cell or at the input line. Formula in Calc may start with equal (=) or plus (+) or minus (-) sign followed by a combination of values, operators and cell references. But, as a general , practice, all formulas should start with an equal sign. If any formula starts with a + or -, the values will be considered as positive or negative respectively.

Question 8.
What is an Expression?
Answer:
Operators are symbols for doing some mathematical, statistical and logical calculations, combination of values, operators and cell references is called as “Expression”.

Question 9.
What are the variety of operators in Calc?
Answer:

1. Arithmetic Operators
2. Relational Operators
3. Reference Operators
4. Text Operators.

Question 10.
What is meant by relational operators?
Answer:
Relational operators are symbols used for comparing two values such as greater than, less than, equal to etc. The relational operators are also called as “Comparative operators”. These operators return either a True or a False.
List of Relational operators:
> – greater than
< – less than
> = – greater than equal to
< = – less than equal to
= – equal to
<> – not equal to

Question 11.
What is called range? Give its types?
Answer:
Reference operators are used to refer cell ranges. A continuous group of cells is called as “Range”. There are three types of reference operators that are used to refer cells in Calc. They are –

1. Range Reference Operator
2. Range Concatenation
3. Intersection Operator

Question 12.
What is a Range reference operator?
Answer:
Colon (:) is the range reference operator. It is used to group a range of cells. An expression using a range operator has the following syntax: reference left : reference right.

Where reference left is the starting cell address of a linear group of cells or upper left comer address of a rectangular group of cells. Reference right may be a last cell address of a linear group or lower right comer address of a rectangular group of cells.

Question 13.
What is reference concatenation operator and write the syntax with example?
Answer:
Concatenation means joining together. Tilde (~) symbol is used as a concatenation operator in Calc. An expression using a concatenation operator has the following syntax: reference left ~ reference right.

Eg: If you want to find the sum of the values from Alto A6 and C3 to F3.
The formula is = SUM (A1 : A6 ~ C3 : F3)

Question 14.
What is a intersection operator and write the syntax?
Answer:
Intersection operator is used to join two set of groups. It is very similar to Range concatenation operator. The intersection operator is represented by an exclamation, reference left reference right.

Question 15.
What are the steps should follow to construction of formula?
Answer:
To construct a formula, you should follow the steps below:

1. Cell pointer should be in the cell in which you want to display the result.
2. Formula should begin with an = sign.
3. In a formula, use only cell reference (cell addresses) instead of the actual values within the cells.
4. While constructing a formula, BODMAS rule should be kept in mind.

Question 16.
What is a Absolute cell reference and give the example?
Answer:
(i) While writing a formula, if you use the $ symbol in front of a column name and row number, it will become an “Absolute Cell reference”.

(ii) Examples of Absolute cell references:
Adding values of A1, B1, C1, D1 = $A$1 + $B$1 + $C$1 + $D$1
Subtract E4 from H3 = $H$3 – $E$4.

Question 17.
What is the help of file extension in the file name?
Answer:
A file extension or file name extension helps to identify the type of file. Following table gives the file extension of commonly used files.

Question 18.
What is meant by Auto save?
Answer:
The OpenOffice saves a file at regular intervals. This is called as “Auto Save” feature. The default time interval is 15 minutes. It can be reduced even to one minute. If any unexpected shutdown occurs, this feature will recover your file.

Question 19.
How can you Inserting multiple columns?
Answer:
Step 1: Select the column where a new column should be inserted.
Step 2: Right-click on the selected column name that you selected. A pop-up menu appears. Step 3: Click the “Insert Columns” option from the menu.
Now, a new column will be inserted to the left of the current column.

Question 20.
How can you delete multiple columns or rows in worksheet?
Answer:
Multiple columns or rows can be deleted at a time.

1. Select the required columns or rows for deletion.
2. Right-click on the selected columns or row.
3. Choose Delete Columns or Delete Rows from the pop-up menu or Edit → Delete Cells.

Question 21.
Write the syntax of direct insert method SUM function?
Answer:
SUM is the most frequently used function to add a set of values.
The syntax of the SUM ( ) is
= SUM (range 1; range 2; range 3 ……….. range n)
If you want to know the sum of the values on A1, A2, A3, A4, A4 in A5, Place your cell pointer in A5 and directly type the formulae as follows.
= SUM (A1 : A4)

Question 22.
What are the points should be kept in mind while inserting a function?
Answer:
While inserting a function the following points should be kept in mind.

1. A function should begin with an equal sign.
2. Use proper name of the function to be used.
3. Arguments should be given within the brackets as per the syntax. Each function has unique argument list.
4. Press, “Enter” key aftef typing the function.

Question 23.
Describe the chart?
Answer:
One of the most important features of spreadsheet is the ability to create charts based on numeric data. The charts are used to present data in an easy manner. Creating charts is the key factor for the of success of spreadsheet. OpenOffice Calc provides a “chart wizard” to create and manipulate charts.

Question 24.
What are the types of chart wizard?
Answer:
Chart wizard has 4 steps viz.

1. Chart type
2. Data Range
3. Data Series and
4. Chart Elements.

Question 25.
What is meant by sorting?
Answer:
Sorting is the process of arranging data in ascending or descending order. There are two types of sorting in OpenOffice Calc. They are,

1. Simple Sorting
2. Multi Sorting
3. Sort by selection.

Question 26.
What is the use of filters with types?
Answer:
Filter is a way of limiting the information that appears on screen. Filters are a feature for displaying and browsing a selected list or subset of data from a worksheet. The visible records satisfy the condition that the user sets. Those that do not satisfy the condition are only hidden, but not removed. OpenOffice Calc allows three types of filters. They are AutoFilter, Standard Filter and Advanced Filter.

Question 27.
How can you change the worksheet name?
Answer:
Every sheet name can be renamed. To rename a sheet, just double-click on the sheet, which will show a small box. It shows the current name; delete or overwrite the existing name and type a new name; click OK button. New name will be displayed on the sheet.

Question 28.
What is the hierachy of operators using in arithmetic Calculation?
Answer:
When arithmetic operators are used in a formula, Calc calculates the results using the rule of precedence followed in Mathematics. The order is:

1. Exponentiation ( A )
2. Negation (-)
3. Multiplication and Division ( *, /)
4. Addition and Subtraction (+, -)

Question 29.
What is the use of formatting text?
Answer:
Formatting Data in a cell gives additional effect to the text. Additional effect includes changing the font style, font size, automatic wrapping, bold, underline, italic etc. The data in Calc can be formatted in several ways. Using formatting icons can be used.

Question 30.
What is save?
Answer:
Technically saving is a process of transferring or shifting contents from primary memory. (RAM) to Secondary storage medium such as Hard disk, Pen drive, memory chip etc.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write the important elements in the formula bar?
Answer:
Formula bar:
This is a very important element in a spreadsheet. It contains Name box, Function Wizard, Sum button, Function button and Input line.

Name box:
It display the current cell address

Function Wizard:
It is used to insert function

Sum button:
It is used to quickly insert sum function

Input Line:
This is used to show the contents of the current cell. It always shows actually what you typed in a cell. It is also used to edit the contents.

Question 2.
What is the use of scrolling bar in the spreadsheet?
Answer:
Spreadsheet window also has two sets of scrolling bars.

1. Vertical Scrollbar
2. Horizontal Scrollbar
3. Scroll Buttons

1. Vertical Scroll bar:
It is used to move the screen up and down.

2. Horizontal Scroll bar:
It is used move the screen left and right.

3. Scroll buttons:
Used to move the screen the relative distance.

Question 3.
What are the uses in the navigation buttons?
Answer:
On the left of the sheet tab, four navigation buttons are used to move sheets if you have more number of worksheets.

1. Move to the First sheet
2. Move to the previous sheet
3. Move to Next sheet
4. Move to the Last sheet

Left comer of status bar shows the total count of sheets and the present active sheet number.
Eg: if the status bar shows sheet 3/12; 3 refers to the serial number of the current sheet and 12 refers to the total number of sheets available.

Question 4.
What are the different types of Data types?
Answer:
Data are in different types. Data are made up of alphabets, numbers, Date and time is another data type even though it has numbers and symbols. In general, data types are classified as:
Alphabetic data type – consists of alphabets only.
Numeric data type – consists only numbers (whole number or fractional numbers)
Alphanumeric data types – consists of a combination of alphabets and numerals
Date data type – consists only dates
Time data type – consists only time

Question 5.
How will you save the worksheet?
Answer:
The process of saving a worksheet is very similar to saving a document. Steps to save a worksheet are as follows:
Step 1: File → Save (or) Ctrl + S (or) Click “Save” icon on the standard tool bar.
Step 2: If the spreadsheet has not been saved previously, the Save As dialog box will appear.
Step 3: Type the name in “File Name” list box. OpenOffice Calc Spreadsheets are stored with extension .ods by default.
Step 4: Click ‘Save’ button.

Question 6.
How can you open an existing worksheet?
Answer:
To reopen an existing worksheet, the File → Open command (or) “Open” icon (or) Ctrl + O can be used. An Open dialog will appears that is similar to “Save As” dialog box.
The name of the file to be opened can be chosen from the list or folder in which worksheet has been saved.

Question 7.
Write about power ( ) function?
Answer:
POWER ( ) is a function which is used to calculate power of an exponent value of a number. This function is categorized as a Mathematical function. There are two inputs needed to find the power value of a number. They are, Base value and exponent value. For example, to find the value of 25 is the base value, 2 is the exponent value.
Hence, the syntax of POWER ( ) is
= POWER (Base ; Exponent)
Both Base and Exponent are arguments. In Calc, arguments are separated by a semicolon.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Write the any 5 features of OpenOffice Calc?
Answer:
(i) Connecting with Excel:
Ability to open, edit, and save Microsoft Excel spreadsheets.

(ii) AutoSum:
Helps you to add the contents of a cluster of adjacent cells.

(iii) List AutoFill:
Automatically extends cell formatting when a new item is added to the end of a list.

(iv) AutoFill:
Allows you to quickly fill cells with repetitive or sequential data such as chronological dates or numbers, and repeated text. AutoFill can also be used to copy functions. You can also alter text and numbers with this feature.

(v) Charts:
helps you in presenting a graphical representation of your data in the form of Pie, Bar, Line charts and more. OpenOffice Calc provides a ‘Chart Wizard’ to create and manipulate charts.

(vi) Functions:
which can be used to create formula to perform complex calculations on data.

(vii) Database functions:
To arrange, store, and filter data.

Question 2.
Draw a OpenOffice Calc window and mark the parts?
Answer:

1. Title Bar
2. Control Buttons
3. Menu Bar
4. Tools Bar
5. Name Box / Address Box
6. Quick Function Wizard
7. Formula Bar / Input Line
8. Formatting Properties
9. Zoom
10. Scrollbar
11. Status Bar

Question 3.
Explain the Menu Bar?
Answer:
Below the title bar is menu bar. Most of the menus are very similar to what you learn in OpenOffice Writer.

(i) File:
Menu contains the commands of all file management tasks like, Create a new file, Open an existing file, Close the current file, Save a file, Save a file in another name, print file, Export file etc.

(ii) Edit:
Menu contains the editing commands like, cut, copy, paste, Undo, Redo, Fill etc., Most of the menu items are similar to Writer Edit menu. But, for Calc, some special editing options are available under this menu.

(iii) View:
Menu contains the commends which are used to modify the environment of calc.

(iv) Insert:
Menu contains commands for inserting various calc elements such as cells, columns, rows, functions, charts etc.,

(v) Format:
Menu contains the commands of various text and cell formatting features.

(vi) Tools:
Menu contains various tools and functions such as spell check, protect document, insert pictures, macros, etc.,

(vii) Data:
Menu contains the commands to manipulate data in a spreadsheet such as sort, filter, subtotal, validity etc.,

(viii) Window:
Menu shows display options such as New Window, Close Windows, Split and Freeze.

(ix) Help:
Menu lists in-built help features available with OpenOffice.

Question 4.
Explain the status bar in the worksheet?
Answer:
Below of the sheet tabs and horizontal scrolling bar is “Status Bar”. It shows the current status of the worksheet.

(i) Sheets count:
Displays current serial number of the sheet / total number of sheets available.

(ii) Page Style:
Displays the page style of the current sheet. To make changes, just double¬click on “Default” and it will show you the “Page Style” dialog box, which is used to change the margin, orientation, paper size, inserting header, footer, border style etc.,

(iii) Selection Mode:
Displays the selection mode of the current sheet. There are three modes available to select the cells of a worksheet. They are, Standard (ST(d), Extend (EXT) and Add (AD (d).

(iv) Unsaved Changes:
An asterisk ( * ) symbol indicates the changes made in the worksheet that are not yet saved. If you saved your changes, it will disappear.

(v) Cell information:
Shows the sum of the values of selected cells.

(vi) Zoom slider:
used to increase or decrease the view scale (zoom). The default zooming scale is 140%.

Question 5.
Tabulate the Arithmetic operators with example?
Answer:
Arithmetic operators are the symbols for performing simple arithmetic operations such as addition, subtraction, multiplication, division etc., These operators return a numerical result.

Question 6.
Tabulate the Relational operators with example?
Answer:
Relational operators are symbols used for comparing two values such as greater than, less than, equal to etc. So, the relational operators are also called as Comparative operators. These operators return either a True or a False.

Question 7.
How can you generating series in a worksheet?
Answer:
Edit → Fill → Series Command is used to generate different set of series. Before using this feature, a set of cells should be selected. Using Fill Series feature, you can fill series of values at any direction. (Remember that, auto fill only fills either right or down).

Direction:
Down / Right / Up / Left (Selected cell direction will be default).

Series type:

Linear:
To generate addition series (2, 4, 6, 8, 10 )

Growth:
To generate multiplication series (2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64 ………………)

Date:
To generate date series (when you select date as series type; time unit section gets enabled.)

AutoFill:
To generate a continuous series of values (1, 2, 3, ). When you select “AutoFill”, time unit section and End value, increment text boxes become disabled.

Time Unit:
(Enabled only when you select the series type as “Date”.) To generate date series day-wise To generate date series weekend-wise To generate date series month-wise

Year:
To generate date series year-wise

Start Value:
Initial value of the series should be typed

End Value:

1. End value of the series should be typed
2. If you fail to specify the end value, Series will be generated upto the selected cells.
3. If your selection is less than the specified end value, series will be generated only upto the selected cells.

Question 8.
Write the any five familiar file type of extension?
Answer:
Familiar File Type:

1. Text Files
2. Microsoft Word Documents
3. OpenOffice Documents
4. Microsoft Excel
5. OpenOffice Calc
6. Microsoft PowerPoint

Extension:

1. .txt
2. .doc/.docx
3. .odt
4. .xls / .xlsx
5. .ods
6. ppt / .pptx

Question 9.
What are the types of Function categorised in a drop down list box?
Answer:
Function Wizard has two tabs viz. Functions and Shortcuts. In Functions Tab, the list of categories is available in Category drop down list box. In Calc, the functions are categorized into 11 types. They are,

1. Database
2. Date and Time
3. Financial
4. Information
5. Logical
6. Mathematical
7. Array
8. Statistical
9. Spreadsheet
10. Text
11. Add-in

Question 10.
How can you Insert and using power ( ) function in a worksheet?
Answer:
Step 1:
In cell A2 type the base value 25.

Step 2:
In cell B2 type the exponent value 2.

Step 3:
Move the cell pointer to C2; in which you want display result.

Step 4:
Click (fx) icon from Formula bar (or) choose Insert —► Functions (or) Press Ctrl + F2.

Step 5:
Pull down category list box, Choose “Mathematical”.
All function under Mathematical category displayed in the “Functions” list box.

Step 6:
Scroll the “Functions” list box and select “POWER ( )”.
The function wizard shows description about the selected function on the right comer of the dialog box.

Step 7:
Click “Next” command button. Now, Function wizard appears.

Step 8:
Click on the cell which is contains the base value (A2).
Now, Minimized wizard shows the cell address you selected (A2).

Step 9:
Click “Maximize” button to display full wizard. Now, Function wizard appears.

Step 10:
Directly type the cell address which is contains exponent, in Exponent box; or repeat steps 7, 8 and 9.
The Formula box the displays syntax of the with input values and Result box displays the result value.

Step 11:
Result Function box at the top right comer is also shows the result of the function.
If the result is correct, click “OK” button, else click “Back” button, to display the previous page of this wizard.

Question 11.
How an you create a chart and write the steps?
Answer:
The following steps is followed to create a chart for the given data.
Step 1:
Select Data: Select the data from A1 to F11.

Step 2:
To open the Chart Wizard: Click “Chart” icon from Standard toolbar (or) choose
Insert → Chart.

Step 3:
Selecting Chart type and shape: Select “Chart type” as Column and style as Normal
Check “3D look” and click “Cylinder shape”. Click “Next” button.
If the user wants change any other type or shape, click on the style image. Preview of the chart displayed on the backgroup of the chart wizard. So, you can view the chart at every stage of design.

Step 4:
Defining Data range:
In this case, the data has been selected earlier. So, the selected data range is displayed in “Data range” box.
Other settings are by default, “Next” to move step 5.

Step 5:
Adding or Removing Data series:

• “Data Series” list box shows all the columns to be included in the chart.
• Click on the “Total” in the data series box and click “Remove” button to remove the column.
• If you don’t want to add or remove any other column click “Next” button to move to the last step.

Step 6:
Adding Title, Subtitle, Name of X and Y axis:

• Type the title and subtitle of the chart in “Title” and “Subtitle” box.
• Type the name of the X and Y-axis in the respective boxes.
• The display layout textbox is selected to the right which is the default.
• Click “Finish” button.

Question 12.
What is a filter and explain its types?
Answer:
Filter is a way of limiting the information that appears on screen. Filters are a feature for displaying and browsing a selected list (or) subset of data from a worksheet. The visible records satisfy the condition that the user sets. Those that do not satisfy the condition are only hidden, but not removed.

OpenOffice Calc allows three types of filters. They are AutoFilter, Standard Filter and Advanced Filter.

(i) Auto Filter:
Auto Filter applies a drop-down list box to each field (columns) filled with similar data available in that field. Using the list box item, you can filter the data that matches the criteria of the data concerned.

Using Auto Filter:

• Click Auto Filter icon available on the “Standard tools bar” (or) Click Data → Filter → Auto Filter.
• The list box contains similar data in the fields.
• Each list box item will be considered as filter criteria.
• Select the data iterrf from the list box. Now, Calc shows only the records which are satisfy the selected criteria.

Removing Auto Filter:

• To remove auto filter, click “Auto filter” icon once again .
• The original table is displayed without filter.

(ii) Standard Filter:
Auto filter is used only for single criteria on a data, whereas the Standard filter is used for multiple critieria to filter.

Step 1:

1. Select Data → Filter → Standard Filter.
2. Now, the entire data is selected and “Standard Filter” dialog box dispalys.

Step 2:

1. Select the column heading from the “Field name” list box for first criteria.
2. Select conditional opeator such as >, <, = etc., from “Condition” list box.
3. Type or select the value of criteria in the “Value” box.

Step 3:

1. Select the one of the logical operator (And / Or) from “Operator” list box to fix second criteria.
2. Follow the step 2, for the next criteria.

Step 4:
Click “OK” to finish.

Remove Standard Filter:
Select Data → Filter → Remove Filter.

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TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 4 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The first person used the mathematics in economics is ………………..
(a) Sir William Petty
(b) Giovanni Ceva
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Irving Fisher
Answer:
(a) Sir William Petty

Question 2.
Countries today are to be ……………….. for their growth.
(a) Dependent
(b) Interdependent
(c) Free trade
(d) Capitalist
Answer:
(b) Interdependent

Question 3.
Abstinence Theory of Interest was propounded by …………………
(a) Alfred Marshall
(b) N W Senior
(c) Bohm – Bawerk
(d) Knut Wicksell
Answer:
(b) N W Senior

Question 4.
The main aim of the firm as ………………..
(a) Product maximisation
(b) Profit maximisation
(c) Saving maximisation
(d) Investment maximisation
Answer:
(b) Profit maximisation

Question 5.
First world war started in the year ………………..
(a) 1914
(b) 1814
(c) 1941
(d) 1841
Answer:
(a) 1914

Question 6.
In 1614, Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from ………………..
(a) Akbar
(b) Shajakhan
(c) Jahangir
(d) Noorjakhan
Answer:
(c) Jahangir

Question 7.
The PQLI was developed by ………………..
(a) Planning commission
(b) Nehru
(c) Morris
(d) Biswajeet
Answer:
(c) Morris

Question 8.
The process of improving the rural areas, rural people and rural living is defined as . ………………..
(a) Rural economy
(b) Rural economics
(c) Rural employment
(d) Rural development
Answer:
(d) Rural development

Question 9.
Who among the following propagated Gandhian Economic thinkings?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) V.K.R.V. Rao
(c) J.C. Kumarappa
(d) A.K. Sen
Answer:
(c) J.C. Kumarappa

Question 10.
The New Foreign Trade Policy was announced in the year ………………..
(a)2000
(b) 2002
(c) 2010
(d) 2015
Answer:
(d) 2015

Question 11.
“An Indian farmer is bom in debt; lives in debt, dies in debt and bequeaths debt” – who said this?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Gandhi
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling
Answer:
(d) Sir Malcolm Darling

Question 12.
Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic competition?
(a) One seller
(b) Few sellers
(c) Product differentiation
(d) No entry
Answer:
(c) Product differentiation

Question 13.
The main source of irrigation in Tamil Nadu is ………………..
(a) River
(b) Tank
(c) Well
(d) Canals
Answer:
(c) Well

Question 14.
What is the term used to denote the co – existence of two different features in an economy?
(a) Technology
(b) Dependency
(c) Dualism
(d) Inequality
Answer:
(c) Dualism

Question 15.
A statement of equality between two quantities is called ………………..
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 16.
In health Index, Tamil Nadu is ahead of ………………..
(a) Kerala
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Gujarat

Question 17.
The first differentiation of Total Revenue function gives ………………..
(a) average revenue
(b) profit
(c) marginal revenue
(d) zero
Answer:
(c) marginal revenue

Question 18.
The arguments against LPG is ………………..
(a) economic growth
(b) more investment
(c) disparities among people and regions
(d) modernizations
Answer:
(c) disparities among people and regions

Question 19.
Suppose D = 50 – 5P. When D is zero then ………………..
(a) Pis 10
(b) P is 20
(c) Pis5
(d) P is – 10
Answer:
(a) Pis 10

Question 20.
In which market form does absence of competition prevail?
(a) Perfect competition
(b) Monopoly
(c) Duopoly
(d) Oligopoly
Answer:
(b) Monopoly

Part – II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 × 2 = 14]

Question 21.
State the various components of central sector schemes under post-harvest measures.
Answer:

• Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, Value Addition Preservation, Infrastructure and modernization of slaughter house.
• Scheme for quality Assurance, Codex Standards Research and Development and other promotional activities.

Question 22.
Define “ Excess capacity”.
Answer:

• Excess capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.
• In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces delibourately output which is less than the optimum output that is the output corresponding to the minimum average cost.
• This leads to excess capacity which is actually a waste in monopolistic competition.

Question 23.
Name out the different types of land tenure existed in India before independence.
Answer:
The three different types of land tenure existed in India before independence. They were:

• Zamindari System (or) Landlord – Tenant System
• Mahalwari System (or) Communal System of farming
• Ryotwari System (or) the owner Cultivator System

Question 24.
What are the renewable sources of power in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu tops in power generation among the southern States as seen in following table.
• Installed capacity of power utilities in States in southern region.
• Tamil Nadu is in the forefront of all other Indian States in installed capacity.
• Muppandal wind farm is a renewable energy source, supplying the villagers with electricity for work.
• Wind farms were built in Nagercoil and Tuticorin apart from already existing ones around Coimbatore, Pollachi, Dharapuram and Udumalaipettai.
• These areas generate about half of India’s 2,000 megawatts of wind energy or two percent of the total power output of India.

Thermal Power:

• In Tamil Nadu the share of thermal power in total energy sources is very high and the thermal power plants are at Athippattu [North Chennai] Ennore, Mettur, Neyveli and Thoothukudi.
• The generation of power under various sources is given below.

Hydel Energy:

• There are about 20 hydro-electric units in Tamil Nadu.
• The prominent units are Hundah, Mettur, Periyar, Maravakandy, Parson Valley etc.

Solar Energy:
Tamil Nadu tops in solar power generation in India as seen in following table:

Southern Tamil Nadu is considered as one of the most suitable regions in the country for
developing solar power projects.

Wind Energy:

• Tamil Nadu has the highest installed wind energy capacity in India.
• The State has very high quality of offshore wind energy potential off the Tirunelveli coast
  and southern Thoothukudi and Rameswaram coast.

Question 25.
Write a short note on village sarvodhaya.
Answer:

• According to Gandhi, “Real India was to be found in village and not is towns or cities”.
• So he suggested the development of self-sufficient self-dependent villages.

Question 26.
State the production Function.
Answer”
Production function refers to the relationship among units of the factors of production [in puts] and the resultant quantity of a good produced [out put].
According to George J. Stigler,” Production function is the relationship between inputs of productive services per unit of time and outputs of product per unit of time.

Question 27.
What is profit?
Answer:

• The entrepreneur coordinates all the other three factors (land, labour and capital) of production.
• Entrepreneur is rewarded for his services in the form of profit.
• Profit is a return to the entrepreneur for the use of his entrepreneurial ability.
• It is the net income of the organizer.
• Profit is the amount left with the entrepreneur after he has payments made for all the other factors (land, labour and capital) used by him in the production process.

Question 28.
Mention the indicators which are used to calculate HDI.
Answer:
HDI is based on the following three indicators:

• Longevity is measured by life expectancy at birth.
• Educational attainments.
• Standard of living is measured by real GDP per Capita [PPP $].

Question 29.
What are Giffen goods? why?
Answer:
Giffen Paradox: The Giffen good or inferior good is an exception to the law of demand. When the price of an inferior goods, falls, the poor will buy less and vice versa.

Question 30.
Rural poverty – Define.
Answer:

• Rural poverty refers to the existence of poverty in rural areas.
• Poverty in India has been defined as the situation in which an individual fails to earn sufficient income to buy the basic minimum of subsistence.
• On the basis of recommended nutritional intake, persons consuming less than 2400 calories per day in rural areas are treated as they are under rural poverty.

Part – III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 × 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain the scarcity definition of Economics and assess it.
Answer:

• Lionel Robbins published a book “An Essay on the Nature and Significance of Economic Science” in 1932.
• According to him, “Economics is a science which studies human behaviour as a relationship between ends and scarce means which .have alternative uses.”

The major features of Robbins’ definition:

• Ends refer to human wants.
• Human beings have unlimited number of wants.
• Resources or means that go to satisfy the unlimited human wants are limited or scarce in supply.
• The scarcity of a commodity is to be considered only in relation to its demand.
• Further the scarce means are capable of having alternative uses.
• An individual grades his wants and satisfies first his most urgent want.
• Economics, according to Robbins, is a science of choice.

Criticism:

• Robbins does not make any distinction between goods conductive to human welfare and goods that are not.
• Economics deals not only with the micro-economic aspects of resource-allocation and the determination of the price of a commodity.
• Robbins’ definition does not cover the theory of economic growth and development.

Question 32.
Distinguish between explicit cost and Implicit cost.
Explicit Cost :

1. Payment made to others for the purchase of factors of production is known as Explicit Costs.
2. It refers to the actual expenditures of the firm to purchase or hire the inputs the firm needs.
3. Explicit cost includes wages, payment of raw materials, rent for the building, interest for capital invested, expenditure on transport and advertisement, other expenses like licence fee, depreciation and insurance charges.

Implicit Cost :

1. Payment made to the use of resources that the firm already owns, is known as Implicit Cost.
2. Implicit Cost refers to the imputed cost of a firm’s self-owned and self employed resources.
3. A firm or producer may use his own land, building, machinery, car and other factors in the process of production.

Question 33.
What are the crucial decisions involving ‘What is produced’?
Answer:
Every society much decide on what goods it will produce and how much of these it will produce.
In this process, the crucial decisions include:

• Whether to produce more of food, clothing and housing or to have more luxury goods.
• Whether to have more agricultural goods or to have industrial goods and services.
• Whether to use more resources in education and health or to use more resources in military services.
• Whether to have more consumption goods or to have investment goods.
• Whether to spend more on basic education or higher education.

Question 34.
Enumerate the remedial measures to rural poverty. ,
Answer:

• Since rural unemployment and rural poyerty are interrelated, creation of employment opportunities would support elimination of poverty.
• Poverty alleviation schemes and programmes have been implemented, modified, consolidated, expanded and improved over time.
• However, unemployment, begging, rag-picking and slumming continues.
• Unless employment is given to all the people poverty cannot be eliminated.

Question 35.
Write a note on Foreign Investment Policy.
Answer:

• Foreign Investment Policy measure has enhanced the Industrial competition and improved . business environment in the country.
• Foreign Investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
• The government announced a specified list of high technology and high investment priority industries.
• Automatic permission was granted for Foreign Direct Investment [FDI] upto 51% foreign equity.
• The limit was raised to 74% and subsequently to 100% for many of these industries.
• Foreign Investment Promotion Board [FIPB] has been set up to negotiate with international firms and approve foreign direct investment.

Question 36.
State any two districts with favourable sex ratio. Indicate the ratios.
Answer:
Population Growth in Tamil Nadu Districts at a (2011 census) Sex Ratio highest and lowest:
Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with highest
Tire Nilgiris (1041 females), Thanjavur (1031 females), Nagapattinam (1025 females)
Sex Ratio (per 1000 males) District with Lowest
Theni (900 females), Dharmapuri (946 females)

Question 37.
Write a note on Foreign Investment Policy.
Answer:

• Foreign Investment Policy measure has enhanced the Industrial competition and improved business environment in the country.
• Foreign Investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
• The government announced a specified list of high technology and high investment priority industries.
• Automatic permission was granted for Foreign Direct Investment [FDI] upto 51% foreign equity.
• The limit was raised to 74% and subsequently to 100% for many of these industries.
• Foreign Investment Promotion Board [FIPB] has been set up to negotiate with international firms and approve foreign direct investment.

Question 38.
Mention the relationship between Marginal utility and Total utility.
Answer:

Marginal utility :

1. Marginal utility goes on diminishing.
2. Marginal utility becomes zero.
3. Marginal utility becomes negative.

Total utility :

1. Total utility goes on Increasing.
2. Total utility maximum.
3. Total utility diminishes.

Question 39.
Bring out the Relationship among Total, Average and Marginal Products.
Answer:

Question 40.
State and explain the elasticity of supply.
Answer:

• Elasticity of supply may be defined as the degree of responsiveness of change in supply to change in price on the part of sellers.
• It is Mathematically expressed as,
  Elasticity of supply = Proportionate change in supply / Proportionate change in price
  

Where Q_s represents the supply, P represents price , A denotes a change.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 × 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Explain the law of equi-marginal utility.
Answer:
The law of the Equi-marginal utility:

• The law of diminishing marginal utility is applicable only to the want of a single commodity.
• The law of equi – marginal utility explains the behavior of a consumer when he consumer more than one commodity.
• Wants are unlimited but the income which is available are limited.
• This law explains how the consumer spends his limited income on various commodities to get maximum satisfaction.
• Law of Equi – Marginal Utility is also known as the law of substitution.
• “The law of consumer’s equilibrium ”
• “Gossen’s second law ” and “ The law of maximum satisfaction”.

Definition:

Marshall states the law as If a person has a thing which he can put to several uses, he will distribute it among these uses in such a way that it has the same marginal utility in all. For, if it had a greater marginal utility in one use than another he would gain by taking away some of it from the second use and applying it to first”.

Assumption:

• The consumer is rational in the sense that he wants to get maximum satisfaction.
• The utility of each commodity is measurable in cardinal numbers.
• The marginal utility of money remains constant.
• The income of the consumer is given.
• There is perfect competition in the market.
• The prices of the commodities are given.
• The law of diminishing marginal utility operates.

Illustration:
This law can be illustrated with the help of table. Let us assume that the consumer has a given income of ₹11. He wants to spend this entire income [i.e.₹11 ] on Apple and Orange. The price of an Apple and the price of an orange is ₹1 each.

If the consumer wants to attain maximum utility, he should buy 6 units of apples and 5 units of oranges, so that she can get [92 + 58] = 150 units. No other combination of Apple and Orange can give higher than 150 utilities .

Diagrammatic Illustration:

• fn the diagram, X – axis represents the amount of money spent and Y-axis represents the marginal utilities of Apple and Orange respectively.
• If the consumer spends ₹ 6 on Apple and ₹ 5 on Orange, the marginal utilities of both are equal, i.e. AA₁ — BB₁ [4 = 4], Hence, he gets maximum utility:

Criticisms:

• In practice, utility cannot be measured, only be felt.
• This law cannot be applied to durable goods.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Internal and External economies of scale.
Answer:
Internal Economics of Scale:

• Internal Economies of scale refers to the advantages enjoyed by the production unit which causes a reduction in the cost of production of the commodity.
• For example, a firm enjoying the advantage of an application of most modem machinery, generation of internal capital, an improvement in managerial skill etc. are sure to reduce the cost of production. They are of various types:

(a) Technical Economies:

• When the size of the firm is large, large amount of capital can be used.
• There is a possibility to introduce up-to-date technologies; this improves productivity of ‘ the firm.
• Research and development strategies can be applied easily.

(b) Financial Economies:
Big firms can float shares in the market for capital expansion, while small firms cannot easily float shares in the market.

(c) Managerial Economies:
Large scale production facilitates specialization and delegation.

(d) Labour Economies:

• Large scale production implies greater and minute division of labour.
• This leads to specialization which enhances the quality.
• This increases the productivity of the firm.

(e) Marketing Economies:

• In the context of large scale production, the producers can both buy raw-materials in bulk at cheaper cost and can take the products to distant markets.
• They enjoy a huge bargaining power.

(f) Economies of survival:

• Product diversification is possible when there is large scale production.
• This reduces the risk in production.
• Even if the market for one product collapses, market for other commodities offsets it.

External Economies of Scale:

• External Economies of Scale refer to changes in any factor outside the firm causing an improvement in the production process. ,
• This can take place in the case of industry also.
• These are the advantages enjoyed by all the firms in industry due to the structural growth.

Important external economies of scale are listed below :

1. Increased transport facilities
2. Banking facilities
3. Development of townships
4. Development of information and communication.

Question 42.
(a) Explain various divisions of Economics.
Answer:
Economics sub divisions are:

(i) Consumption:

• Human wants coming under consumption is the starting point of economic activity.
• In this section the characteristics of human wants based on the behaviour of the consumer, the diminishing marginal utility and consumer’s surplus are dealt with.

(ii) Production:

• Production is the process of transformation of inputs into output.
• This division covers the characteristics and role of the factors of production namely land, labour, capital and organization.

(iii) Exchange:

• Exchange is concerned with price determination in different market forms.
• This division covers trade and commerce.
• Consumption is possible only if the produced commodity is placed in the hands of the consumer.

(iv) Distribution:

• Production is the result of the coordination of factors of production.
• Since a commodity is produced with the efforts of land, labour, capital and organization, the produced wealth has to be distributed among the cooperating factors.
• The reward for factors of production is studied in this division under rent, wages, interest and profit.
• Distribution studies about the pricing of factors of production.

[OR]

(b) Discuss about the Indian Economy during British period.
Answer:
Indian Economy during the British period:

• India’s sea route trade to Europe started only after the arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on May 20, 1498.
• The Portuguese had traded in Goa as early as 1510.
• In 1601 the East India Company was chartered, and the English began their first inroads into the Indian ocean.
• In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was successful in getting permission from Jahangir for setting up factories and slowly moved all parts of India.
• Hundred years after Battle of Plassey, the rule of the East India Company finally did come to an end.
• In 1858, British Parliament passed a law through which the power for governance of India was transferred from the East India Company [EIC] to the British Crown.
• Even the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown did not materially alter the situation.
• Britain had exploited India over a period of two centuries of its colonial rule.

On the basis of the form of colonial exploitation, economic historians have divided the whole period into three phases:

• The period of merchant Capital
• The period of Industrial Capital
• The period of Finance Capital.

Question 43.
(a) Describe briefly the Innovation Theory of Profit.
Answer:
Innovation Theory of Profit:

• Innovation theory of profit was propounded by Joesph. A. Schumpeter.
• Schumpeter says an entrepreneur is not only an undertaker of a business, but also an innovator in the process of production.
• Profit is the reward for “innovation”.

According to Schumpeter, an innovation may consist of the following:

•  Introduction of a new product.
•  Introduction of a new method of production.
• Opening up of a new market.
• Discovery of new raw materials
• Reorganization of an industry / firm.

When any one of these innovations is introduced by an entrepreneur, it leads to reduction in the cost of production and thereby brings profit to an entrepreneur.

To obtain profit continuously, the innovator needs to innovate continuously. The real • innovators do so. Imitative entrepreneurs cannot innovate.

[OR]

(b) Explain the strong features of Indian economy.
Answer:
Strengths of Indian Economy:
1. India has a mixed economy:

• Indian economy is a typical example of mixed economy.
• This means both private and public sectors co-exist and function smoothly.
• The fundamental and heavy industrial units are being operated under the public sector.
• The liberalization of the economy, the private sector has gained importance.
• This makes it a perfect model for public-private partnership.

2. Agriculture plays the key role:

• Agriculture being the maximum pursued occupation in India.
• It plays an important role in its economy as well.
• Around 60% of the people in India depend upon agriculture for their livelihood.
• In fact, about 17% of our GDP today is contributed by the agriculture sector.
• Green revolution, ever green revolution and inventions is bio technology have made agriculture self sufficient and also surplus production.
• The export of agriculture products such as fruits, vegetables, spices, vegetable oils, tobacco, animal skin, etc. also add to forex earning through international trading.

3. An emerging market:

• Indian has emerged as vibrant economy sustaining stable GDP growth rate even in the midst of global downtrend.
• This has attracted significant foreign capital through FDI and FII.
• India has a high potential for prospective growth.
• This also makes it an emerging market for the world.

4. Emerging Economy:

• Emerging as a top economic giant among the world economy.
• India bags the seventh position in terms of nominal Gross Domestic Product [GDP] and third in terms of Purchasing Power Parity [PPP]
• As a result of rapid economic growth, Indian economy has a place among the G20 countries.

5 Fat Growing Economy:

•  India’s economy is well known for high and sustained growth.
• The world’s fastest growing economy in the year 2016-17 with the growth rate of 7.1 % in GDP.

6. Fast Growing Service Sector:

• The service sector, contributes a lion’s share of the GDP in India.
• There has been a high rise growth in the technical sectors like information technology.

7. Large Domestic Consumption:

• With the faster growth rate in the economy the standard of living has improved a lot.
• The standard of living has considerably improved and life style has changed.

8. Rapid Growth of Urban Areas:

• Urbanization is a key ingredient of the growth of any economy.
• Improved connectivity is transport and communication, education and health have speeded up the pace of urbanization.

9. Stable Macro Economy:

• The Indian economy has been projected and considered as one of the most stable economies of the world.
• The current year’s Economic survey represents the Indian economy to be a “heaven of macroeconomic stability, resilience and optimism”.

10. Demographic dividend:

• This means that India is a pride owner of the maximum percentage of youth.
• The young population is not only motivated but skilled and trained enough to maximize the growth.
• Thus human capital plays a key role in maximizing the growth prospects is the countiy.
• This has invited foreign investments to the country and outsourcing opportunities too.

Question 44.
(a) Elucidate the laws of Returns to Scale. Illustrate.
Laws of Returns To Scale: In the long – run, there is no fixed factor; all factors are variable. The laws of returns to scale explain the relationship between output and the scale of inputs in the long – run when all the inputs are increased in the same proportion.

Assumptions:
Laws of Returns to Scale are based on the following assumptions.

• All the factors of production, [such as land, labour and capital] are variable but organization is fixed.
• There is no change in technology.
• There is perfect competition in the market.
• Outputs or returns are measured in physical quantities.

Three Phases of Returns to Scale:

1. Increasing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent,
   output increase by more than one percent. ‘
2. Constant Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases exactly by one percent.
3. Diminishing Returns to Scale: In this case if all inputs are increased by one percent, output increases by less than one percent.

The three laws of returns to scale can be explained with the help of the diagram below. In the figure, the movement from point a to point b represents increasing returns to scale. Because, between these two points output has doubled, but output has tripled. The law of constant returns to scale is implied by the movement from the point b to point c. Because, between these two points inputs have doubled and output also has doubled. Decreasing returns to scale are denoted by the movement from the point c to point d since doubling the factors from 4 units to 8 units product less than the increase in inputs, that is by 33.33%.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the long run cost curve with suitable diagram.
Answer:

• In the long run all factors of production become variable. The existing size of the firm can be increased in the case of long run. There are neither fixed inputs nor fixed costs in the long run.
• LAC is given in diagram.
• Long run average cost (LAC) is equal to long run total costs divided by the level of output.
  LAC = LTC/Q

where, LAC denotes Long-Run Average Cost,
LTC denotes Long-run Total Cost and Q denotes the quantity of output. The LAC curve is derived from short-run average cost curves. It is the locus of points denoting the least cost curve of producing the corresponding output. The LAC curve is called as ‘Plant Curve’ or ‘Boat shape Curve’ or ‘Planning Curve’ or ‘Envelop Curve’.

Question 45.
(a) Illustrate the uncertainty Bearing Theory of profit.
Answer:
Uncertainty theory was propounded by the American economist Frank H.Knight. Profit is the reward for “ uncertainty bearing”. He distinguishes between “ Insurable” and “non-insurable” risks.

Insurable Risks:

• Certain risks are measurable or calculable .
• Some of the examples of these risks are the risk of fire, theft and natural disasters.
• Such risks are compensated by the Insurance companies.

Non-Insurable Risks:

• There are some risks which are immeasurable or incalculable.
• The examples of these risks are competition, market condition, technology change and public policy.
• No Insurance Company can undertake these risks.
• The term “risks” covers the first type of events (measurable – insurable)
• The term “uncertainty” covers the second type of events (unforeseeable or incalculable or not measurable or non-insurable).
• According to Knight, profit does not arise.
• On account of risk-taking, because the entrepreneur can guard himself against a risk by taking a suitable insurance policy.
• Uncertain events cannot be guarded against in that way.
• An entrepreneur takes himself the burden of facing an uncertain event, he secures remuneration.
• That remuneration is “profit”.

[OR]

(b) Write a brief note on the Gandhian economic ideas.
Answer:
Gandhian Economics is based on ethical foundations. Gandhi wrote “ Economics that hurts the moral well-being of an individual or a nation is immoral, and therefore , Sinful”. Gandhi repeated the same belief” that economy is untrue which ignores dr disregards moral values”.

Salient features of Gandhian Economic Thought:

(i) Village Republics:

• India lives in villages.
• He was interested in developing the villages as self-sufficient units.
• He opposed extensive use of machinery, urbanization and industrialization.

(ii) On Machinery :

• Gandhi described machinery as ‘Great sin’. He said that “Books could be written to demonstrate its evils”.
• It is necessary to realize that machinery is bad.
• Instead of welcoming machinery as a boon, we should look upon it as an evil. •
• It would ultimately cease.

(iii) Industrialism:

• Gandhi considered industrialism as a curse on mankind.
• He thought industrialism depended entirely on a country’s capacity to exploit.

(iv) Decentralization:
Gandhi advocated a decentralized economy i.e., production at a large number of places on a small scale or production in the people’s homes.

(v) Village Sarvodaya:

• According to Gandhi, “ Real India was to be found in villages and not in towns or cities”.
• He suggested, self – dependent villages.

(vi) Bread Labour:

• Gandhi realized the dignity of human labour.
• He believed that God created man to eat his bread by the sweat of his brow.
• Bread labour or body labour was the expression that Gandhi used to mean manual labour.

(vii) The Doctrine of Trusteeship:
Trusteeship provides a means of transforming the present capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one.

(viii) On the Food Problem:

• Gandhi was against any sort of food controls.
• Once India was begging for food grain, but now India tops the world with very large production of food grains, fruits, vegetables, milk, egg, meat etc.

(ix) On Population:

• Gandhi opposed the method of population control through contraceptives.
• He was, however, in favour of birth control through Brahmacharya or self – control.
• He considered self – control as a sovereign remedy to the problem of over population,

(x) On Prohibition:

• Gandhi regarded the use of liquor as a disease rather than a vice.
• He felt that it was better for India to be poor than to have thousands of drunkards.
• Many states depend on revenue from liquor sales.

Question 46.
(a) Describe briefly the innovation Theory of profit.
Answer:
Innovation Theory of Profit:

• Innovation theory of profit was propounded by Joesph. A. Schumpeter.
• Schumpeter says an entrepreneur is not only an undertaker of a business, but also an • innovator in the process of production.
• Profit is the reward for “innovation”.
• According to Schumpeter, an innovation may consist of the following:
  1. Introduction of a new product.
  2. Introduction of a new method of production.
  3. Opening up of a new market.
  4. Discovery of new raw materials
  5. Reorganization of an industry / firm. –
• When any one of these innovations is introduced by an entrepreneur, it leads to reduction in the cost of production and thereby brings profit to an entrepreneur.
• To obtain profit continuously, the innovator needs to innovate continuously. The real innovators do so. Imitative entrepreneurs cannot innovate.

[OR]

(b) Describe the performance of 12 five year plans in India.
Performance of Five Year Plans:
First Five Year Plan – [1951 – 1956]

• It was based on the Harrod – Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved the GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan – [1956 – 1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved growth rate of 4.1%

Third Five Year Plan- [1961- 1966]

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self propelled position or take off.
• Due to Indo – China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%.

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 – 1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self reliance.
• This plan failed and could achieve growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan – [1974 – 1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved the growth of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan – [1980 -1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self reliance.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan establishment of the self sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0% .

Eighth Five Year Plan – [1992-1997]

• In this plan the top priority was given to development of the human resources (i.e) employment, education and public health.
• This plan was successful and got annual growth rate of 6.8%.

Ninth Five Year Plan – [1997 – 2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio of 15%
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence the five year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

Question 47.
(a) Explain the economy of Agriculture in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• Tamil Nadu, with seven agro climatic zone and varied soil types is better suited for the production of fruits, vegetables, spices, plantation crops, flowers and medicinal plants.
• The State is the largest producer of loose flowers and the third largest producer of fruits. Tamil Nadu has historically been an agricultural State.
• At present, Tamil Nadu is the India’s second biggest producer of rice, next only to West
  Bengal.
• The state is one of the major producers of turmeric. It is also the leading producer of Kambu, Com, Groundnut, Oil seeds and Sugarcane.
• It ranks first in production of plantation crops and banana and coconut, second in mbber and cashew nut, third in pepper and fourth in sugarcane.
• The gross cropped area under all crops was 58.97 lakh hectares in the year 2013-14. The area under food crops account for 72.9% and that of non-food crops is 27.1%.
• Among the food crops paddy takes a major share. Among the non-food crops, groundnut and coconut take a major share.

[OR]

(b) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:
Transport: Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State. Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

Road Transport:

• There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

Rail Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Head quartered at Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
• Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

Air Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
• Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.
• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
• Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

Ports:

• Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
• The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
• All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
• This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
• It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
• Ennore port was recently converted from an intermediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

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TN State Board 11th Economics Model Question Paper 3 English Medium

Instructions:

1.  The question paper comprises of four parts.
2.  You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. questions of Part I, II. III and IV are to be attempted separately
4. Question numbers 1 to 20 in Part I are objective type questions of one -mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer
5. Question numbers 21 to 30 in Part II are two-marks questions. These are to be answered in about one or two sentences.
6. Question numbers 31 to 40 in Parr III are three-marks questions, These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 41 to 47 in Part IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered) in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 90

Part – I

Choose the correct answer. Answer all the questions: [20 × 1 = 20]

Question 1.
The costs of self-owned resources are termed as ………………… cost.
(a) real
(b) explicit
(c) money
(d) implicit
Answer:
(d) implicit

Question 2.
The concept of elasticity of demand was introduced by ………………………….
(a) Ferguson
(b) Keynes
(c) Adam Smith
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(d) Marshall

Question 3.
Elasticity of demand is equal to one indicates………………………
(a) Unitary Elastic Demand
(b) Perfectly Elastic Demand
(c) Perfectly Inelastic Demand
(d) Relatively Elastic Demand
Answer:
(a) Unitary Elastic Demand

Question 4.
When price remains constant, AR will be ……………………..MR.
(a) equal to
(b) greater than
(c) less than
(d) not related to
Answer:
(a) equal to

Question 5.
Which is considered as the basic unit for rural areas?
(a) Panchayat
(b) Village
(c) Town
(d) Municipality
Answer:
(b) Village

Question 6.
India is the largest producer of ……………….. in the world.
(a) fruits
(b) gold
(c) petrol
(d) diesel
Answer:
(a) fruits

Question 7.
Under perfect competition, the shape of demand curve of a firm is …………………….
(a) vertical
(b) horizontal
(c) negatively sloped
(d) positively sloped
Answer:
(b) horizontal

Question 8.
According to the Loanable Funds Theory, supply of loanable funds is equal to ……………………..
(a) S + BC + DH + DI
(b) I + DS + DH + BM
(c) S+ DS + BM + DI
(d) S + BM + DH + DS
Answer:
(a) S + BC + DH + DI

Question 9.
A book seller sold 40 books with the price of ₹ 10 each. The total revenue of the seller is ₹ …………………
(a) 100
(b) 200
(c) 300
(d) 400
Answer:
(d) 400

Question 10.
Increase in demand is caused by …………….
(a) increase in tax
(b) higher subsidy
(c) increase in interest rate
(d) decline in population
Answer:
(b) higher subsidy

Question 11.
Density of population = …………………………..
(a) Land area / Total population
(b) Land area / Employment .
(c) Total population / land area of the region
(d) Total population / Employment
Answer:
(c) Total population / land area of the region

Question 12.
The position of Indian Economy among the other strongest economies in the world is ……………..
(a) Fourth
(b) Sixth
(c) Fifth
(d) Tenth
Answer:
(b) Sixth

Question 13.
A Statement of equality between two quantities is called ……………..
(a) Inequality
(b) Equality
(c) Equations
(d) Functions
Answer:
(c) Equations

Question 14.
Product obtained from additional factors of production is terms as ……………
(a) Marginal product
(b) Total product
(c) Average product
(d) Annual product
Answer:
(a) Marginal product

Question 15.
An example of selling cost is ……………..
(a) Raw material cost
(b) Transport cost
(c) Advertisement cost
(d) Purchasing cost
Answer:
(c) Advertisement cost

Question 16.
Indicate the cause for rural poverty……………..
(a) lack of non – farm employment
(b) high employment
(c) low inflation
(d) high Investment
Answer:
(a) lack of non – farm employment

Question 17.
Knitted garment production is concentrated in……………..
(a) Coimbatore
(b) Tiruppur
(c) Erode
(d) Karur
Answer:
(b) Tiruppur

Question 18.
Identify the feature of rural economy.
(a) Dependence on agriculture
(b) High population density
(c) Low level of population
(d) Low level of inequality
Answer:
(a) Dependence on agriculture

Question 19.
Which of the following cities does not have international airport?
(a) Madurai
(b) Tiruchirapalli
(c) Paramakudi
(d) Coimbatore
Answer:
(c) Paramakudi

Question 20.
Which of the following is the way of privatisation?
(a) Disinvestment
(b) Denationalization
(c) Franchising
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Part-II

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 30 is compulsory. [7 x 2 = 14]

Question 21.
What is Iso-cost line?
Answer:

• The iso-cost line is an important component in analysing producer’s behaviour.
• The iso-cost line illustrates all the possible combinations of two factors that can be used at given costs and for a given producer’s budget.
• Simply stated, an iso-cost line represents different combinations of inputs which shows the same amount of cost.
• The iso-cost line gives information on factor prices and financial resources of the firm.
• It is otherwise called as “iso-price line” or “isO-income line” or “iso-expenditure line” or “total outlay curve”.

Question 22.
Who is price – taker?
Answer:
‘A large number of buyers’ implies that each individual buyer buys a very very small quantum of a product as compared to that found in the market. This means that he has no power to fix . the price of the product. He is only a price taker.

Question 23.
State the various components of central sector schemes under post-harvest measures.
Answer:

• Mega food parks, Integrated cold chain, Value Addition Preservation, Infrastructure and modernization of slaughter house.
• Scheme for quality Assurance, Codex Standards, Research and Development and other promotional activities.

Question 24.
What is the Value of marginal product?
Answer:
The Value of Marginal Product is obtained by multiplying the marginal physical product of the factor by the price of product. Symbolically VMP = MPP x Price

Question 25
What are the degrees of price elasticity of demand?
Answer:
The price elasticity of demand, commonly known as the elasticity of demand refers to the responsiveness and sensitiveness of demand for a product to the changes in its price. In other words, the price elasticity of demand is equal to

Question 26.
Define “Excess Capacity”.
Answer:

• Excess capacity is the difference between the optimum output that can be produced and the actual output produced by the firm.
• In the long run, a monopolistic firm produces deliberately output which is less than the optimum output that is the output corresponding to the minimum average cost.
• This leads to excess capacity which is actually a waste in monopolistic competition.

Question 27.
What is meant by Economics?
Answer:

• The term or word ‘Economics’ comes from the Ancient Greek “oikonomikos” [oikos means “households” and nomos means “management” “custom” or “law”].
• Thus, the term “Economics” means “management of households”.
• The subject was earlier known as “Political Economy” is renamed as Economics.

Question 28.
What are the objectives of Tenth five year plan.
Answer:
Tenth Five Year Plan [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio to 15% by 2012.
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Question 29.
Define Rural Electrification.
Answer:

• Rural Electrification refers to providing electrical power to rural areas.
• The main aims of rural electrification are to provide electricity to agricultural operations and to enhance agricultural productivity.
• To increase cropped area, to promote rural industries and to lighting the villagers.
• In order to improve this facility the supply of electricity is almost free for agricultural purpose in many states and the electricity tariff is charged in rural areas is kept very low.

Question 30.
What are the phases of colonial exploitation of India?
Answer:

• India was a colony for long time. Colonialism refers to a system of political and social relations between two countries, of which one is the ruler and the other is its colony.
• The ruling country not only has political control over the colony, but it also determines the economic policies of the subjugated country.
• The people living in a colony cannot take independent decisions in respect of utilisation of the country’s resources and important economic activities.
• India had the bitter experience of colonialism.

Part-III

Answer any seven questions in which Question No. 40 is compulsory. [7 x 3 = 21]

Question 31.
Explain about the period of Merchant capital.
Answer:

• The period of merchant capital was from 1757 to 1813.
• The only aim of the East India Company was to earn profit by establishing monopoly trade in the goods with India and the East India’s.
• During this period, India had been considered as the best hunting ground for capital by the East Indian company to develop industrial capitalism is Britain.
• When Bengal and South India came under political shake of the East India company in 1750s and 1760s, the objective of monopoly trade was fulfilled.
• The company administration succeeded in generating huge surpluses which were repatriated to England, and the Indian leaders linked this problem of land revenue with that of the drain.
• Above all, the officers of the company were unscrupulous and corrupt.

Question 32.
Illustrate the uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics.
Answer:
Uses of Mathematical Methods in Economics:

• Mathematical Methods help to present the economic problems in a more precise form.
• Mathematical Methods help to explain economic concepts.
• Mathematical Methods help to use a large number of variables in economic analyses.
• Mathematical Methods help to quantity the impact or effect of any economic activity implemented by Government or anybody. There are of course many other uses.

Question 33.
Elucidate the different types of land tenure system in colonial India.
Answer:
Land Tenure refers to the system of land ownership and management. The features that distinguish a land tenure ‘system from the others relate to the following:

• Who owns the land
• Who cultivates the land.
• Who is responsible for paying the land revenue to the government.

Based on these questions, three different types of land tenure existed in India before Independence. They were:

• Zamindari System or the Land Lord – Tenant System.
• Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming.
• Ryotwari System or the Owner Cultivator System.

Zamindari System or the Land lord Tenant System:

• Under this system the land lord or the Zamindars were declared as the owners of the land and.they were responsible to pay the land revenue to the government.
• The share of the government in total rent collected was fixed as 10/11th the balance going to the Zamindars as remuneration.

Mahalwari System or Communal System of Farming:

• After introduction of this system, it was later extended to Madhya Pradesh and Punjab.
• The ownership of the land was maintained by the collective body usually the villagers which served as a unit of management.

Ryotwari System (or) the Owner Cultivator System:

• This system was initially introduced in Tamil Nadu and later extended to Maharashtra, Gujarat, Assam, Coorg, East Punjab and Madhya Pradesh.
• Under this system the* ownership rights of use and control of land were held by the tiller himself.

Question 34.
What are the features of a market?
Answer:

• Buyers and sellers of a commodity or a service.
• A commodity to be bought and sold.
• Price agreeable to buyer and seller.
• Direct or indirect exchange.

Question 35.
Explain GSDP in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

• The Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) refers to the total money value of all the goods and services produced annually in the state.
• Tamil Nadu is the second largest economy in Jndia with a GSDP of $ 207.8 billion in 2016-2017 according to the Directorate of Economics and Statistics, Tamil Nadu.
• The GSDP of Tamil Nadu is equal to the GDP of Kuwait on nominal term and GDP of UAE on PPP terms. Per capita GSDP would be better for intercountry or interstate comparisons.
• Tamil Nadu GSDP = $207.8 billion in 2016-17.

Question 36.
Distinguish between micro economics and macro economics.
Answer:
Micro Economics

1. It is that branch of economics which deals with the economic decision-making of individual economic agents such as the producer, the consumer etc.
2. It takes into account small components of the whole economy.
3. It deals with the process of price determination in case of individual products and factors of production.
4. It is known as price theory
5. It is concerned with the optimization goals of individual consumers and producers

Macro Economics :

1. It is that branch of economics which deals with aggregates and averages of the entire economy. E.g., aggregate output, national income, aggregate savings arid investment, etc.
2. It takes into consideration the economy of the country as a whole.
3. It deals with general price-level in any economy.
4. It is also known as the income theory.
5. It is concerned with the optimization of the growth process of the entire economy.

Question 37.
What are the important features of utility?
Answer:

• Utility is psychological. It depends on the consumer’s mental attitude. For example, a vegetarian derives no utility from mutton.
• Utility is not equivalent to usefulness. For example, a smoker derives utility from a cigarette; but, his health gets affected.
• Utility is not the same a pleasure. A sick person derives utility from taking a medicine, but definitely it is not providing pleasure.
• Utility is personal and relative. An individual obtains varied utility from one and the same good in different situations and places.
• Utility is the function of the intensity of human want. An individual consumer faces a tendency of diminishing utility.
• Utility cannot be measured objectively. It is a subjective concept and it cannot be measured numerically.
• Utility has no ethical or moral significance. For example, a cook derives utility from a knife using which he cuts some vegetables, and a killer wants to stab his enemy by that knife. In economics, a commodity has utility if it satisfies a human want.

Question 38.
What are the steps involved in executing a MS Excel Sheet?
Answer:

1. MS – excel is used in data analysis by using formula.
2. A spread sheet is a large sheet of paper which contains rows and columns.
3. The intersection of rows and columns is termed as cell.
4. MS – Excel 2007 version supports up to 1 million rows and 16 thousand columns per work sheet.

MS Excel Start From Various Options:

• Click Start → Program → Micro Soft Excel
• Double click the MS Excel Icon from the Desktop

Worksheet:
MS – Excel work sheet is a table like document containing rows and columns with data
and formula .

There are four kinds of calculation operators. They are:

1. Arithmetic
2. Comparison
3. Text Concatenation [link together]
4. Reference

MS – Excel helps to do data analysis and data presentation in the form of graphs, diagrams, area chart, line chart etc.

Question 39.
Write any three objectives of Industrial Policy 1991.
Answer:

• Economic development of a country particularly depends on the process of Industrialisation.
• At the time of Independence, India inherited a weak and shallow Industrial base.
• Therefore during the post-Independence period, the Government of India took special emphasis on the development of a solid Industrial base.

Question 40.
What are the main menus of MS word?
Answer:

Main Menus of MS word :

1. Home menu :
   It is used to change the fonts, font size, change the text color and apply text style bold, italic, underline etc.
2. Insert :
   It is used to insert page numbers, charts, tables, shapes, word art forms, equations, symbols and pictures
3. Page Lay out :
   It is used to change the margin size, split the text into more columns, background colour of a page
4. Review:
   Spell Check, Grammar, Translate
5. View:
   Print layout, full screen, reading, document view

Ms word is a word processor, which helps to create, edit, print and save documents for future retrieval and reference.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [7 x 5 = 35]

Question 41.
(a) Bring out the relationship between AR and MR curves under various price conditions.
Answer:
Relationship between AR and MR Curves:
If a firm is able to sell additional units at the same price then AR and MR will be constant and equal. If the firm is able to sell additional units only by reducing the price, then both AR and MR will fall and be different.

Constant AR and MR (at Fixed Price)
When price remains constant or fixed, the MR will be also constant and will coincide with AR. Under perfect competition as the price is uniform and fixed, AR is equal to MR and their shape will be a straight line horizontal to X – axis. The AR and MR Schedule under constant price is given in the below table and in the diagram.

Declining AR and MR (at Declining Price)
When a firm sells large quantities at lower prices both AR and MR will fall but the fall in MR will be more steeper than the fall in the AR.

It is to be noted that MR will be lower than AR. Both AR and MR will be sloping downwards straight from left to right. The MR curve divides the distance between AR Curve and Y-axis into two equal parts. The decline in AR need not be a straight line or linear. If the prices are declining with the increase in quantity sold, the AR can be non-linear, taking a shape of concave or convex to the origin.

[OR]

(b) Describe the features of oligopoly.
Answer:
Features of oligopoly:

• Few large firms: Very few big firms own the major control of the whole market by producing major portion of the market demand.
• Interdependence among firms: The price and quality decisions of a particular firm are dependent on the price and quality decisions of the rival firms.
• Group behaviour: The firms under oligopoly realise the importance of mutual co-operation.
• Advertisement cost: The oligopolist could raise sales either by advertising or improving the quality of the product.
• Nature of product: Perfect oligopoly means homogeneous products and imperfect oligopoly deals with heterogeneous products.
• Price rigidity: It implies that prices are difficult to be changed. The oligopolistic firms do not change their prices due to the fear of rival’s reaction.

Question 42.
(a) Illustrate the Richardian theory of Rent.
Answer:

• The Classical theory of Rent is called “ Ricardian Theory of Rent.”
• “Rent is that portion of the produce of the earth which is paid to the landlord for the use of the original and indestructible powers of the soil.” – David Ricardo

Ricardian theory of rent assumes the following:

• Land differs in fertility.
• The law of diminishing returns operates in agriculture
• Rent depends upon fertility and location of land
• Theory assumes perfect competition.
• It is based on the assumption of long period.
• There is existence of marginal land or no – rent land.
• Land has certain “Original and indestructible powers”.
• Land is used for cultivation only.
• Most fertile lands are cultivated first.

Statement of the Theory:
There are three grades of land, namely A, B and C in that island. ‘A’ being most fertile ‘B’ less fertile and ‘C’ the least fertile. They will first cultivate all the most fertile land. The yield per acre on ‘A’ grade land is 40 bags of paddy. The same amount labour and capital employed in ‘A’ grade land. The yield per acre on ‘B’ grade land is 30 bags of paddy.

The Surplus of 10 bags [ 40-30] per acre appears on ‘A’ grade land. This is “ Economic Rent” land of ‘A’ grade land.
The yield per acre on ‘C’ grade land is 20 bags of paddy. This surplus of ‘A’ grade land is now raised to 20 bags [40-20] and it is the “ Economic Rent” of ‘A’ grade land.

The ‘C’ grade land cost of production is just equal to the price of its produce and therefore does not yield any rent [20-20], Hence ‘C’ grade land is called ‘No – Rent land or marginal land ’. The land which yields rent is called Ricardian Theory of Rent “intra-marginal land”.

Diagrammatic Explanation:

• In diagram, X- axis represents various grades of land and Y-axis represents yield per acre [in bags].
• OA, AB and BC are the ‘A’ grade ‘B’ grade and ‘C’ grade lands respectively.
• The ‘C ’ grade land is the no – rent land.”
• ‘A’ land ‘B’ grade lands are “intra – marginal lands”.
• The economic rent yielded by ‘A’ and ‘B’ grade lands is equal to the shaded area of their respective rectangles.
  

[OR]

(b) Differentiate between ‘firm’ and ‘Industry’.
Answer:
Firm :
A firm refers to a single production unit in an industry, producing a large or a small quantum of a commodity or service, and selling it at a price in the market.

Its main objective is to earn a profit. There may be other objectives as described by managerial and behavioral theories of the firm.

Industry :
An industry refers to a group of firms producing the same product or service in an economy. For example: A group of firms producing cement is called a cement industry.

Question 43.
(a) List out the properties of Iso-quants with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Properties of Iso-quant Curve:

1. The iso-quant curve has negative slope.
It slopes downwards from left to right indicating that the factors are substitutable. If more of one factor is used, less of the other factor is needed for producing the same level of output. In the diagram combination A refers to more of capital K5 and less of labour Lr As the producer moves to B, C, and D, more labour and less capital are used.

2. Convex to the origin.
This explains the concept of diminishing Marginal Rate of Technical Substitution (MRTS_Lk). For example, the capital substituted by 1 unit of labour goes on decreasing when moved from top to bottom. If so, it is called diminishing MRTS. Constant MRTS (straight line) and increasing MRTS (concave) are also possible. It depends on the nature of iso-quant curve.

This means that factors of production are substitutable to each other. The capital substituted per unit of labour goes on decreasing when the iso-quant is convex to the origin.

3. Non inter-section of Iso-quant curves.
For instance, point A lie on the isoquants IQ₁ and IQ₂ But the point C shows a higher
output and the point B shows a lower level of output IQ₁.
If C = A, B = A, then C = B.
But C > B which is illogical.

4. An upper iso-quant curve represents a higher level of output.
Higher IQ_S show higher outputs and lower IQ_S show lower outputs, for upper iso-quant curve implies the use of more factors than the lower isoquant curve.

The arrow in the figure shows an increase in the output with a right and upward shift of an iso-quant curve.

5. Iso-quant curve does not touch either X – axis or Y – axis.
No iso-quant curve touches the X axis or Y axis because in IQ₁, only capital is used, and in IQ₂ only labour is used.

[OR]

(b) If total cost = 10 + Q³, find out AC, AVC, TFC, AFC when Q = 5.
Answer:
Formulas: TC = TFC + TVC

1. TC = 10 + Q³. Total cost has two components TFC and TVC.
2. TFC = is the total fixed cost which does not change with the level of output.
3. It is determined by putting the value of Q.

Given the total cost function TC = 10 + Q³
Q = units of output. Where Q = 5
Here TFC = 10 (TFC will not change when output changes.)
TC = 10 + (5)³
TC = 10 – 125
TC = 135
.’. 135 = 10 +TVC
135 – 10= TVC
TVC =125
TVC = 125, TC = 135 .’. TFC = ?
TC = (TFC + TVC)
135 = x + 125 .
135 – 125 = 10
.’. TFC =10

AC = AFC + AVC
AC = 2 + 25
AC = 27

Question 44.
(a) Explain the public transport system in Tamil Nadu.
Transport: Tamil Nadu has a well established transportation system that connects all parts of the State. This is partly responsible for the investment in the State. Tamil Nadu is served by an extensive road network in terms of its spread and quality, providing links between urban centres, agricultural market-places and rural habitations in the countryside. However, there is scope for improvement.

Road Transport:

• There are 28 national highways in the State covering a total distance of 5,036 km.
• The State has a total road length of 167,000 km, of which 60,628 km are maintained by Highways Department.

Rail Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has a well-developed rail network as part of Southern Railway, Head quartered at Chennai.
• Tamil Nadu has a total railway track length of 6,693 km and there are 690 railway stations in the State.
• Main rail junctions in the State include Chennai, Coimbatore, Erode, Madurai, Salem, Tiruchirapalli and Tirunelveli.
• Chennai has a well-established suburban Railway network, a Mass Rapid Transport system and is currently developing a Metro System, with its first underground stretch operational since May 2017.

Air Transport:

• Tamil Nadu has four major international airports.
• Chennai International Airport is currently the third largest airport in India.
• Other international Airports in Tamil Nadu include Coimbatore International Airports, Madurai International

Airport and Tiruchirapalli International Airport.

• It also has domestic airports at Tuticorin, Salem, and Madurai.
• Increased industrial activity has given rise to an increase in passenger traffic as well as freight movement which has been growing at over 18% per year.

Ports:

• Tamil Nadu has three major ports; one each at Chennai, Ennore and Tuticorin, as well as one intermediate port in Nagapattinam, and 23 minor ports.
• The ports are currently capable of handling over 73 million metric tonnes of cargo annually (24 % share of India).
• All the minor ports are managed by the Tamil Nadu Maritime Board, Chennai Port.
• This is an artificial harbour and the second principal port in the country for handling containers.
• It is currently being upgraded to have a dedicated terminal for cars capable of handling 4,00,000 vehicles.
• Ennore port was recently converted from an intennediate port to a major port and handles all the coal and ore traffic in Tamil Nadu.

[OR]

(b) What are the ideas of Information and communication technology used in economics?
Answer:
Introduction: Information and communication Technology [ICT] is the infrastructure that enables computing faster and accurate.
The following table gives an idea of range of technologies that fall under the category of ICT

The evaluation of ICT has five phases:
They are evaluation in: (a) Computer (b) PC – Personal Computer (c) Micro Processor
(d) Internet (e) Wireless links
In Economics, the uses of mathematical and statistical tools need the support of ICT for:
(a) Data Compiling (b) Editing (c) Manipulating (d) Presenting the results

Question 45.
(a) Mention the function of APMC?
Answer:
The Agriculture Produce Market Committee [APMC] Act 2003, the Agricultural Produce Market Committee [AMPC] is a statutory body constituted by State Government in order to trade in agricultural or horticultural or livestock products.

Functions of APMC:

• To promote public private partnership in the ambit of agricultural markets.
• To provide market led extension services to farmer.
• To bring transparency in pricing system and transactions taking place in market in a transparent manner.
• To ensure payments to the farmers for the sale of agricultural produce on the same day.
• To promote agricultural activities.
• To display data on arrivals and rates of agricultural produce from time to time into the market.

[OR]

(b) List out the objectives of MUDRA Bank.
Answer:

• Regulate the lender and the borrower of microfinance and bring stability to the microfinance system.
• Extend finance and credit support to Micro Finance Institutions [MFI] and agencies that lend money to small businesses, retailers, self-help groups and individuals.
• Register all MFIs and introduce a system of performance rating and accreditation for the first time.
• Offer a Credit Guarantee scheme for providing guarantees to loans being offered to micro businesses.
• Introduce appropriate technologies to assist in the process of efficient lending, borrowing and monitoring of distributed capital.

Question 46.
(a) Examine the law of variable proportions with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
The law states that if all other factors are fixed and one input is varied in the short run, the total output will increase at an increasing rate at first instance, be constant at a point and then eventually decrease. Marginal product will become negative at last.

According to G.Stigler, “As equal increments of one input are added, the inputs of other productive services being held constant, beyond a certain point, the resulting increments , of product will decrease, i.e., the marginal product will diminish”.

Assumptions:
The Law of Variable Proportions is based on the following assumptions.

• Only one factor is variable while others are held constant.
• All units of the variable factor are homogeneous.
• The product is measured in physical units.
• There is no change in the state of technology.
• There is no change in the price of the product.

Total Product (TP)
Total product refers to the total amount of commodity produced by the combination of all inputs in a given period of time.
Summation of marginal products, i.e. TP = EMP where, TP = Total Product, MP = Marginal Product

Average Product (AP)
Average Product is the result of the total product divided by the total units of the input employed. In other words, it refers to the output per unit of the input.
Mathematically, AP = TP/N
Where, AP = Average Product
TP = Total Product
N = Total units of inputs employed

Marginal Product (MP)
Marginal Product is the addition or the increment made to the total product when one more unit of the variable input is employed. In other words, it is the ratio of the change in the total product to the change in the units of the input. It is expressed as

MP = ATP/AN
where, MP = Marginal Product
∆TP = Change in total product
∆N = Change in units of input
It is also expressed as
MP = TP (n) – TP (n -1)
Where, MP = Marginal Product
TP(n) = Total product of employing n’h unit of a factor .
TP(n – 1) = Total product of employing the previous unit of a factor, that is, (n – 1)^th unit of a factor.

The Law of Variable Properties is explained with the help of the following schedule and diagram.

In above table, units of variable factor (labour) are employed along with other fixed factors of production. The table illustrates that there are three stages of production. Though total product increases steadily at first instant, constant at the maximum point and then diminishes, it is always positive forever. While total product increases, marginal product increases up to a point and then decreases. Total product increases up to the point where the marginal product is zero. When total product tends to diminish marginal product becomes negative.

In diagram, the number of workers is measured on X axis while TPL, APL and MPL are denoted on Y axis. The diagram explains the three stages of production as given in the above table.

Stage I
In the first stage MP_L increases up to third labourer and it is higher than the average product, so that total product is increasing at an increasing rate. The tendency of total product to increase at an increasing rate stops at the point A and it begins to increase at a decreasing rate. This point is known as ‘Point of Inflexion’.

Stage II
In the second stage, MP_L decreases up to sixth unit of labour where MPL curve intersects the X-axis. At fourth unit of labour MP_L = AP_L. After this, MPL curve is lower than the AP_L .TP_L increases at a decreasing rate.

Stage III
Third stage of production shows that the sixth unit of labour is marked by negative MP_L, the AP_L continues to fall but remains positive. After the sixth unit, TP_L declines with the employment of more units of variable factor, labour.

[OR]

(b) Discuss the short run cost curves with suitable diagram.
Answer:
Short run Cost Curves:
Total Fixed Cost (TFC):
All payments for the fixed factors of production are known as Total F ixed Cost. A hypothetical TFC is shown in below table and diagram.

For instance if TC = Q³ – 18Q² + 91Q + 12, the fixed cost here is 12. That means, if Q is zero, the Total cost will be 12, hence fixed cost.
It could be observed that TFC does not change with output. Even when the output is zero, the fixed cost is ₹ 1000. TFC is a horizontal straight line, parallel to X axis.

Total Variable Cost (TVC):
All payments to the variable factors of production is called as Total Variable Cost. Hypothetical TVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Output (in unit) Total Variable Cost (in ?)

In the diagram the TVC is zero when nothing is produced. As output increases TVC also increases. TVC curve slopes upward from left to right.

For instance in TC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q + 12, variable cost, TVC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q

Total Cost Curves:
Total Cost means the sum total of all payments made in the production. It is also called as Total Cost of Production. Total cost is the summation of Total Fixed Cost (TFC) and Total Variable Cost (TVC). It is written symbolically as

TC = TFC + TVC. For example, when the total fixed cost is ₹ 1000 and the total variable cost is ? 200 then the Total cost is = ₹ 1200 (₹ 1000 + ₹ 200).

If TFC = 12 and
TVC = Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q
TC= 12 + Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q

Average Fixed Cost (AFC):
Average Fixed Cost refers to the fixed cost per unit, of output. It is obtained by dividing the total fixed cost by the quantity of output. AFC = TFC / Q where, AFC denotes average fixed cost, TFC denotes total fixed cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, if TFC is 1000 and the quantity of output is 10, the AFC is ₹ 100, obtained by dividing ₹ 1000 by 10. TVC is shown in below table and diagram.

It is to be noted that

1. AFC declines as output increases, as fixed cost remains constant.
2. AFC curve is a downward sloping throughout its length, never touching X and Y axis. It is asymptotic to both the axes.
3. The shape of the AFC curve is a rectangular hyperbola.

Average Variable Cost (AVC):
Average Variable Cost refers to the total variable cost per unit of output. It is obtained by dividing total variable cost (TVC) by the quantity of output (Q). AVC = TVC / Q where, AVC denotes Average Variable cost, TVC denotes total variable cost and Q denotes quantity of output. For example, When the TVC is ₹ 300 and the quantity produced is 2, the AVC is ₹ 150, (AVC = 300/2 = 150) AVC is shown in the below table and diagram.

Average Total Cost (ATC) or Average Cost (AC):
Average Total Cost refers to the total cost per unit of output.
It can be obtained in two ways.

1. By dividing the firm’s total cost (TC) by the quantity of output (Q). ATC = TC / Q.
For example, if TC is ₹ 1600 and quantity of output is Q = 4, the Average Total Cost is ₹ 400. (ATC = 1600/4 = 400)
If ATC is Q³ – 18 Q² + 91 Q + 12, then AC = Q² – 18 Q +91 + 12/Q

2. By ATC is derived by adding together Average Fixed Cost (AFC) and Average Variable Cost (AVC) at each level of output. ATC = AFC + AVC.

For example, when Q = 2, TFC = 1000, TVC = 300; AFC = 500; AVC =150; ATC=650.
ATC or AC is shown in the below table and diagram

Marginal Cost (MC):
Marginal Cost is the cost of the last single unit produced. It is defined as the change in total costs resulting from producing one extra unit of output. In other words, it is the addition made to the total cost by producing one extra unit of output. Marginal cost is important for deciding whether any additional output can be produced or not. MC = ∆TC / AQ where MC denotes Marginal Cost, ∆TC denotes change in total cost and ∆Q denotes change in total quantity.

For example, a firm produces 4 units of output and the Total cost is ₹ 1600. When the firm produces one more unit (4+1 = 5 units) of output at the total cost of ₹ 1900, the marginal cost is ₹ 300. MC = 1900 – 1600 = ₹ 300

Question 47.
(a) Describe the performance of Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth five year plan in India.
Answer:
Performance of Five Year Plans:
First Five Year Plan-[1951-1956]

• It was based on the Harrod – Domar Model.
• Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved the GDP growth rate of 3.6%. [more than its target]

Second Five Year Plan-[1956-1961]

• It was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model.
• Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country.
• This plan was successful and achieved growth rate of 4.1 %

Third Five Year Plan- [1961-1966]

• This plan was called ‘Gadgil Yojana’.
• The main target of this plan was to make the economy independent and to reach self propelled position or take off.
• Due to Indo – China war, this plan could not achieve its growth target of 5.6%.

Fourth Five Year Plan – [1969 – 1974]

• There are two main objectives of this plan (i.e) growth with stability and progressive achievement of self reliance. ‘
• This plan failed and could achieve growth rate of 3.3% only against the target of 5.7%.

Fifth Five Year Plan-[1974-1979]

• In this plan top priority was given to agriculture, next came industry and mines.
• This plan achieved the growth of 4.8% against the target of 4.4%.

Sixth Five Year Plan – [1980 – 1985]

• The basic objective of this plan was poverty eradication and technological self reliance.
• Its growth target was 5.2% but it achieved 5.7%

Seventh Five Year Plan – [1985 – 1990]

• This plan establishment of the self sufficient economy, opportunities for productive employment.
• Its growth target was 5.0% but it achieved 6.0% ‘

Eighth Five Year Plan-[1992-1997]

• In this plan the top priority was given to development of the human resources (i.e) employment, education and public health.
• This plan was successful and got annual growth rate of 6.8%.

Ninth Five Year Plan – [1997 – 2002]

• The main focus of this plan was “growth with justice and equity”.
• This plan failed to achieve the growth target of 7% and Indian economy grew only at the rate of 5.6%.

Tenth Five Year Plan – [2002 – 2007]

• This plan aimed to double the per capita income of India in the next 10 years.
• It aimed to reduce the poverty ratio of 15%
• Its growth target was 8.0% but it achieved only 7.2%

Eleventh Five Year Plan – [2007 – 2012]

• Its main theme was “faster and more inclusive growth”.
• Its growth rate target was 8.1 % but it achieved only 7.9%

Twelfth Five Year Plan – [2012 – 2017]

• Its main theme is “faster, more inclusive and sustainable growth”.
• Its growth rate target is 8%
• Since the Indian Independence the five year plans of India played a very prominent role in the economic development of the country.

[OR]

(b) Explain the Foreign Investment policy.
Answer:

• Foreign Investment Policy measure has enhanced the Industrial competition and improved business environment in the country.
• Foreign Investment including FDI and FPI were allowed.
• The government announced a specified list of high technology and high investment priority industries.
• Automatic permission was granted for Foreign Direct Investment [FDI] upto 51% foreign equity.
• The limit was raised to 74% and subsequently to 100% for many of these industries.
• Foreign Investment Promotion Board [FIPB] has been set up to negotiate with international firms and approve foreign direct investment.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium Pdf, Tamil Nadu 11th Biology Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Biology Model Question Paper 1 English Medium

Instructions:

1. The question paper comprises of four parts Questions for Botany and Zoology are asked separately.
2. You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
3. All questions of Part I, II, III, and IV are to be attempted separately.
4. Question numbers 1 to 8 in Part I are Multiple Choice Questions of one mark each. These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and Writing the option code and the Corresponding answer.
5. Question numbers 9 to  4 in Part II are two-marks questions. This also is answered in about one or list sentences.
6. Question numbers 15 to 19 in Part III are three-marks questions These are to be answered in about three to five short sentences.
7. Question numbers 20 and 21 in Part  IV are five-marks questions. These are to be answered in detail Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 70

Bio-Botany [Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer.  [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Which of the following pteridophyte is used as a biofertiliser?
(a) Marsilea
(b) Pteridium
(c) Pteris
(d) Azolla
Answer:
(d) Azolla

Question 2.
Which is not a character of root stock?
(a) Nodes
(b) Intemodes
(c) Terminal bud
(d) Root cap
Answer:
(d) Root cap

Question 3.
Who first proposed the early elementary rule of naming plants?
(a) A.P.de Candolle
(b) Linnaeus
(c) Alphonse de Candolle
(d) Simpson
Answer:
(b) Linnaeus

Question 4.
Which of the following alone is formed in the division of plant cells?
(a) Aster
(b) Centrioles
(c) Spindle
(d) Microtubules
Answer:
(c) Spindle

Question 5.
A complete turn of the helix comprises
(a) 34 nm
(b) 3.4 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 2 nm
Answer:
(b) 3.4 nm

Question 6.
Sun hemp is obtained from
(a) Crotolaria juncea
(b) Corchorus capsularis
(c) Linum ustitaissimum
(d) Cannabis sativa
Answer:
(a) Crotolaria juncea

Question 7.
The color of the light is determined by its
(a) Intensity
(b) Refractive power
(c) Wave length
(d) Reflection
Answer:
(c) Wave length

Question 8.
Which among the following step is common in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration?
(a) Pyruvate oxidation
(b) Glycolysis
(c) ETC
(d) TCA cycle
Answer:
(b) Glycolysis

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Write the chemical composition of bacterial cell wall.
Answer:
The chemical composition of cell wall is rather complex and is made up of peptidoglycan or mucopeptide (N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and peptide chain of 4 or 5 aminoacids).

Question 10.
Differentiate between vegetative morphology & reproductive morphology.
Answer:
Vegetative morphology :
Vegetative morphology deals with the shoot system and root system.

Reproductive morphology :
Reporductive morphology deals with flowers, inflorescence, fruits and seeds.

Question 11.
What are vernacular names? Give an example.
Answer:
Vernacular names are kjiown as common names, Example: Albizia amara L. is called as Usilai in South Tamil Nadu and Thurinji in North Tamil Nadu.

Question 12.
What is the role of plasmodesmata in a plant cell?
Answer:
Plasmodesmata act as a channel between the protoplasm of adjacent cells through which I many substances pass through.

Question 13.
Define transport in plants. Mention the tissues involved in transportation.
Answer:
Transport is the process of moving water, minerals and food to all parts of the plant body.
Conducting tissues such as xylem and phloem play an important role in transport.

Question 14.
What is a Lichen?
Answer:
Lichens is a mutual association of Algae and Fungi. Algae prepares food and fungi absorbs water and provides thallus structure.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 x 3 = 9]

Question 15.
List out the importance of Mycorrhiza.
Answer:

• Flelps to derive nutrition in Monotropa, a saprophytic angiosperm.
• Improves the availability of minerals and water to the plants.
• Provides drought resistance to the plants.
• Protects roots of higher plants from the attack of plant pathogens.

Question 16.
Classify buds based on their origin & function.
Answer:
Based on origin, buds are classified into (a) Terminal or Apical bud and (b) Lateral or Axillary or Axil bud. Based on function, buds are classified into (a) Vegetative bud and (b) Floral or Reproductive bud.

Question 17.
Distinguish between Karyokinesis & Cytokinesis.
Answer:
Karyokinesis

1. Involves division of nucleus.
2. Nucleus develops a constriction at the center and becomes dumbcllshaped.
3. Constriction deepens and divides the nucleus into two.

Cytokinesis :

1. Involves division of cytoplasm.
2. Plasma membrane develops a constriction along nuclear constriction.
3. It deepens centripetally and finally divides the cell into two cells.

Question 18.
Draw & label bicollateral vascular bundle.
Answer:

Question 19.
Point out the significances of photorespiration.
Answer:
Significance of photorespiration

• Glycine and Serine synthesised during this process are precursors of many biomolecules like chlorophyll, proteins, nucleotides.
• It consumes excess NADH + H+ generated.
• Glycolate protects cells from Photo oxidation.

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 × 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Define ptyxis & explain its types.
Answer:
Rolling or folding of individual leaves is called ptyxis. There are seven types of ptyxis as follows:

1. Reclinate – When the upper half of the leaf blade is bent upon the lower half as in loquat (Eriobotiya japonica).
2. Conduplicate – When the leaf is folded lengthwise along the mid-rib, as in guava, sweet
   potato and camel’s foot tree (Bauhinia).
3. Plicate or Plaited – When the leaf is repeatedly folded longitudinally along ribs in a zig¬zag manner, as in Borassus flabellifer.
4. Circinate – When the leaf is rolled from the apex towards the base like the tail of a dog, as in ferns.
5. Convolute – When the leaf is rolled from one margin to the other, as in banana, aroids and Indian pennywort. Musa and members of Araceae.
6. Involute – When the two margins are rolled on the upper surface of the leaf towards the mid-rib or the centre of the leaf, as in water lily, lotus, Sandwich Island Climber (.Antigonon) and Plumbago.
7. Crumpled – When the leaf is irregularly folded as in cabbage.

[OR]

Explain Clitoria ternatea in botanical terms. Draw floral diagram.
Answer:

1. Habit: Twining climber
2. Root: Branched tap root system having nodules.
3. Stem: Aerial, weak stem and a twiner.
4. Leaf: Imparipinnately compound, alternate, stipulate showing reticulate venation. Leaflets are stipellate.
   Petiolate and stipels are pulvinated.
5. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary
6. Flower: Bracteate, bracteolate, bracteoles usually large, pedicellate, heterochlamydeous, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic and hypogynous.
7. Calyx: Sepals 5, synsepalous, green showing valvate aestivation. Odd repel is anterior in position.
8. Corolla: Petals 5, white or blue apopetalous, irregular papilionaceous corolla showing, descendingly imbricate aestivation.
9. Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous (9) + 1 nine stamens fused to form a bundle and the tenth stamen is free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introse and dechising by longitudinal slits.
10. Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, uni-locular, with many ovules on marginal placentation, ovary superior, style simple and incurved with feathery stigma.
11. Fruit: Legume
12. Seed: Non-endospermous, reniform.
13. Floral Formula:
    

Question 21.
Explain about Cohesion – Tension Theory.
Answer:
Cohesion-tension theory was originally proposed by Dixon and Jolly (1894) and again put forward by Dixon (1914, 1924). This theory is based on the following features:

i. Strong cohesive force or tensile strength of water: Water molecules have the strong mutual force of attraction called cohesive force due to which they cannot be easily separated from one another. Further, the attraction between a water molecule and the wall of the xylem element is called adhesion. These cohesive and adhesive force works together to form an unbroken continuous water column in the xylem. The magnitude of the cohesive force is much high (350 atm) and is more than enough to ascent sap in the tallest trees.

ii. Continuity of the water column in the plant: An important factor which can break the water column is the introduction of air bubbles in the xylem. Gas bubbles expanding and displacing water within the xylem element is called cavitation or embolism. However, the overall continuity of the water column remains undisturbed since water diffuses into the adjacent xylem elements for continuing ascent of sap.

iii. Transpiration pull or Tension in the unbroken water column: The unbroken water column from leaf to root is just like a rope. If the rope is pulled from the top, the entire rope will move upward. In plants, such a pull is generated by the process of transpiration which is known as transpiration pull. Water vapour evaporates from mesophyll cells to the intercellular spaces near stomata as a result of active transpiration.

The water vapours are then transpired through the stomatal pores. Loss of water from mesophyll cells causes a decrease in water potential. So, water moves as a pull from cell to cell along the water potential gradient. This tension, generated at the top (leaf) of the unbroken water column, is transmitted downwards from petiole, stem and finally reaches the roots. The cohesion theory is the most accepted among the plant physiologists today.

[OR]

Demonstrate alcoholic fermentation using Kuhne’s apparatus.
Answer:
Demonstration of alcoholic fermentation:
Take a Kuhne’s fermentation tube which consists of an upright glass tube with side bulb. Pour 10% sugar solution mixed with baker’s yeast into the fermentation tube the side tube is filled plug the mouth with lid. After some time, the glucose solution will be fermented. The solution will give out an alcoholic smell and level of solution in glass column will fall due to the accumulation of CO₂ gas.

It is due to the presence of zymase enzyme in yeast which converts the glucose solution into alcohol and CO₂. Now introduce a pellet of KOH into the tube, the KOH will absorb CO₂ and the level of solution will rise in upnght tube.

Bio-Zoology[Maximum Marks: 35]

Part – I

Answer all the questions. Choose the correct answer. [Answers are in bold] [8 × 1 = 8]

Question 1.
Two words comprising the binomial nomenclature are
(a) Family & genus
(b) Order & Family
(c) Genus & species
(d) Species & Variety
Answer:
(c) Genus & species

Question 2.
Which of the following animals has a true coelom?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(c) Sycon
(d) Taenia Solium
Answer:
(b) Pheretima

Question 3.

Answer:
(a) 1 – (ii), 2 – (i),  3 – (iv), 4 – (iii)

Question 4.
ERV stands for ………..
(a) Expiratory Reserve Volume
(b) Exchange Reserve Volume
(c) Exchange Residual Volume
(d) Expiratory Residual Volume
Answer:
(a) Expiratory Reserve Volume

Question 5.
Which of the following is an correct statement?
(a) There are about 5 to 6-5 millions of RBC mnr3 of blood in a healthy man.
(b) Approximately 7000 to 8000 per cubic mm of WBC’s are seen in the blood of an average healthy individuals. ‘
(c) Lymphocytes constitute 38% of WBC’s
(d) Blood normally contains 1,50,000-3,50,000 platelets mm-3 of blood.
Answer:
(d) Blood normally contains 1,50,000-3,50,000 platelets mm-3 of blood.

Question 6.
Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Sarcomere is the functional unit of cardiac muscles.
(b) Myoglobin is a red-coloured respiratory pigment of the muscle fibre.
(c) The study of muscle is called myology.
(d) Skeletal muscle is attacked to the bone by a bundle of collagen fibres known as tendon.
Answer:
(a) Sarcomere is the functional unit of cardiac muscles.

Question 7.
Which is right combination of names of ear ossicles?
(a) Malleus, incus and cochlus
(b) Malleus, incus and stapes
(c) Magnus, incus and stapes
(d) Malleus, incus and cochlea
Answer:
(b) Malleus, incus and stapes

Question 8.
This breed is chiefly found in West Bengal.
(a) Brahma
(b) Aseet
(c) Leghorn
(d) Chittagorg
Answer:
(d) Chittagorg

Part – II

Answer any four of the following questions. [4 × 2 = 8]

Question 9.
Name the sensory organs of arthopods?
Answer:
Antennae, Simple and Compound eyes, statocysts.

Question 10.
Distinguish between living and non living things
Answer:
Living things :

1. Living things exhibit life processes such as nutrition, respiration, excretion, metabolism. growth, movement.
2. These are b lotie component of ecosystem.

Non-living things

1. Non living things do not exhibit life processes.
2. These are abiotic component of ecosystem.

Question 11.
Define tissues.
Answer:
Group of cells that are similar in structure and perform a common or related functions are called tissues.

Question 12.
Draw the diagram of Rana hexadactlya – Brain dorsal view.
Answer:

Question 13.
Name the proteins which regulates the contraction of muscles.
Answer:
Actin, myosin, tropomyosin and troponin.

Question 14.
List any three common uses of shellac.
Answer:

1. Shellac with denatural alcohol is used to remove dust on the walls.
2. Coating of metals with shellac prevents rusting.
3. Shellac coating on citrus fruits increases their shelf life.

Part – III

Answer any three questions in which question number 19 is compulsory. [3 × 3 = 9]

Question 15.
What are flame cells and their functions?
Answer:
Flame cells are the specialized excretory cells in flatworms. They help in excretion and osmoregulation. Flame cells or solanocytes are the excretory cells.

Question 16.
How does cockroach survive without a head?
Answer:
A cockroach can live for a week without its head. Due to their open circulatory system, and the fact that they breathe through little holes on each of their body segments, since they are not dependent on the mouth or head to breathe. The cockroach dies later due to starvation.

Question 17.
Distinguish between Oviparous and Viviparous animals.
Answer:
Oviparous animals  :

1. The egg laying animals are known as Oviparous animals.
2. They make contain yolk for embryonic development, eg. Birds

Viviparous animals :

1. The animals which give birth to young ones are called Viviparous animals.
2. The developing embryo derives nutrients from the parent, eg. Man

Question 18.
Explain limbic systems.
Answer:
Limbic system: The inner part of the cerebral hemisphere constitutes the limbic system. The main components of limbic system are olfactory bulbs, cingulate gyrus, mammillary body, . amygdala, hippocampus and hypothalamus. The limbic system is called ‘emotional brain’ because it plays a primary role in the regulation of pleasure, pain, anger, fear, sexual feeling and affection. The hippocampus and amygdala also play a role in memory. Brain stem is the part of the brain between the spinal cord and the diencephalon. It consists of mid brain, pons varolii and medulla oblongata.

Question 19.
Draw the diagram and label the parts of lobes of cerebral hemisphere.
Answer:

Part – IV

Answer all the questions. [2 x 5 = 10]

Question 20.
Write the general characteristics of phylum Echinodermata.
Answer:
All Echinoderms are marine animals. The adults are radially symmetrical but the larvae are bilaterally symmetrical. These animals have a mesodermal endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles and hence the name Echinodermata (spiny skin). They are exclusively marine with organ system level of organisation. The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of the water vascular system or ambulacral system with tube feet or podia, which helps in locomotion, capture and transport of food and respiration.

The digestive system is complete with mouth on ventral side and anus on the dorsal side. Excretory organs are absent. The nervous system and sensory organs are poorly developed. The circulatory system is open type without heart and blood vessels. Sexes are separate. Reproduction is sexual and fertilization is external, pevelopment is indirect with free swimming bilaterally symmetrical larval forms. Some echinoderms exhibit autotomy with remarkable powers of regeneration.

Examples: Asterias (Starfish or sea star), Echinus (Sea-urchin), Antedon (Sea-lily), Cucumaria (Sea-cucumber), Ophiura (Brittle star)

[OR]

Explain the respiratory system of Rana hexadactyla.
Answer:
Frog respires on land and in the water by two different methods. In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration). Dissolved oxygen in the water gets, exchanged through the skin by diffusion. On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs. In buccal respiration on land, the mouth remains permanently closed while the nostrils remain open. The floor of the buccal cavity is alternately raised and lowered, so air is drawn into and expelled out of the buccal cavity repeatedly through the open nostrils. Respiration • by lungs is called pulmonary respiration. The lungs are a pair of elongated, pink coloured saclike structures present in the upper part of the trunk region (thorax). Air enters through the nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to the lungs. During aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through skin.

Question 21.
What are the steps of insertion of nucleus into Oyster?
Answer:
In this method, a piece of mantle of living oyster is cut off and inserted together with a suitable nucleus inside the living tissue of another oyster. Following steps are taken for the insertion of nucleus.

a. Fitness of oyster for operation
The selected oysters for the insertion of nucleus should be healthy and strong enough to overcome the stress during operation

b. Preparation of graft tissues
The piece of tissue which is inserted inside the mantle is called as ‘GRAFT’ tissue. The outer edges of these graft squares must be known because nacre secreting cells are found only on the outer surface of the mantle so it is essential to keep the outer surface in contact with the inserted nucleus.

c. Preparation of nucleus
Any small particle may function as nucleus to initiate the pearl formation but it is reported that calcareous nucleus is the best because the deposition of nacre was found to be more on calcarious nucleus.

d. Insertion of nucleus
For the insertion of nucleus, oysters are fixed in a desk clamp in the position of right valve facing upward. Mantle folds are smoothly touched to expose the foot and the main body mass, followed by an incision into the epithelium of the foot and a slender channel into the main mass one graft tissue which functions as a bed for the nucleus.

e. Post operation care :
Nucleated oysters are placed into cages and suspended into sea water and attached with floating rafts to a depth of 2 to 3 metres for about 6 to 7 days to recover from the shocks due to operation. This period of 6 to 7 days is known as ‘Recovery period’. About 3000 to 3600 nucleated oysters are kept in different cages suspended in sea water at 2 to 3 meters depth for 3 to 6 years and undisturbed except at the time of clearing and inspection.

[OR]

Write a note on Pectoral girdle.
Answer:
The upper limbs are attached to the pectoral girdles. These are very light and allow the upper limbs a degree of mobility not seen anywhere else in the body. The girdle is formed of two halves. Each half of the pectoral girdle consists of a clavicle or collar bone and a scapula. The scapula is a large, thin, triangular bone situated in the dorsal surface of the ribcage between the second and seventh ribs. It has a slightly elevated ridge called the spine which projects as a flat, expanded process called the acromion.

The clavicle articulates with this process. Below the acromion is a depression called the glenoid cavity which articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint. Each clavicle is a long slender bone with two curvatures which lies horizontally and connects axial skeleton with appendicular skeleton.

Students can Download Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 Pdf in English Medium, Tamil Nadu 11th Physics Model Question Papers helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

TN State Board 11th Physics Previous Year Question Paper June 2019 in English Medium

Instructions:

• The question paper comprises of four parts.
• You are to attempt all the parts. An internal choice of questions is provided wherever applicable.
• All questions of Part I, II, III and IV are to be attempted separately.
• Question numbers 1 to 15 in Part I are Multiple choice Questions of one mark each.  These are to be answered by choosing the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives and writing the option code and the corresponding answer.
• Question numbers 16 to 24 in Part II are two-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about one or two sentences.
• Question numbers 25 to 33 in Part III are three-mark questions. These are lo be answered in about three to five short sentences.
• Question numbers 34 to 38 in Part IV are five-mark questions. These are lo be answered in detail. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

Time: 2½ Hours
Max Marks: 70

PART – I

Answer all the questions. [15 × 1 = 15]

Question 1.
If π = 3.14, then the value of π² is _________
(a) 9.8596
(b) 9.860
(c) 9.86
(d) 9.9
Answer:
(c) 9.86
π = 3.14
π² = (3.14)² = 9.8596
Rounding off, we get π² = 9.86

Question 2.
If an object is thrown vertically upward with initial speed ‘u ’ from the ground, then the time
taken by the object to return to the ground is ________
(a) \(\frac{u^{2}}{2 g}\)
(b) \(\frac{u^{2}}{g}\)
(c) \(\frac{u}{2 g}\)
(d) \(\frac{2 u}{g}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{2 u}{g}\)
When body moves upward, v = 0; s = h
v = u + at

Question 3.
If the position vector of a particle is given by \(\vec{r}=5 t^{2} \hat{i}+7 t \hat{j}+4 \hat{k}\), then its velocity lies in:
(a) X-Z plane
(b) X-Y plane
(c) along Y-direction
(d) along X- direction
Answer:
(b) X-Y plane

Question 4.
Force acting on a particle moving at constant speed:
(a) always zero
(b) need not be zero
(c) always non-zero
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(a) always zero

Question 5.
What of the following force is pseudo force?
(a) viscous force
(b) surface tension
(c) centrifugal force
(d) cannot be concluded
Answer:
(c) centrifugal force

Question 6.
What is the minimum velocity with which a body of mass ‘m’ must enter a vertical loop of radius R, so that it can complete the loop?
(a) \(\sqrt{2 g R}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{3 g R}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{g R}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\sqrt{5 g R}\)

Question 7.
A rigid body rotates with an angular momentum ‘L’. If its kinetic energy is halved, the angular momentum will be:
(a) L
(b) \(\frac{\mathrm{L}}{2}\)
(c) 2L
(d) \(\frac{\mathbf{L}}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{\mathbf{L}}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 8.
A round object of mass M and radius R rolls down without slipping along an inclined plane. The fractional force:
(a) decreases the rotational and translational motion
(b) dissipates kinetic energy as heat
(c) converts transnational energy into rotational energy
(d) decreases the rotational motion
Answer:
(c) converts transnational energy into rotational energy

Question 9.
If the radius of Earth is ‘R’, at what height acceleration due to gravity becomes zero?
(a) R
(b) \(\frac{R}{4}\)
(c) 2R
(d) \(\frac{R}{2}\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{R}{2}\)

Question 10.
If two wires have the same dimension but of different materials, the graph between load and extension is as follow, then which of the following is true:

(a) Y_B = Y_A
(b) Y_A < Y_B (c) Y_A > Y_B
(d) Y_A = Y_B = 0
Answer:
(c) Y_A > Y_B

Question 11.
The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on __________
(a) viscosity
(b) surface tension
(c) density
(d) the angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
Answer:
(d) the angle of contact between the surface and the liquid

Question 12.
The efficiency of a heat engine working between 27°C and 127°C is:
(a) 50 %
(b) 25 %
(c) 12.5 %
(d) 75 %
Answer:
(b) 25 %
T₁ = 127°C = 400 K
T₂ = 27°C = 300 K

Question 13.
The ratio \(\gamma=\frac{C_{P}}{C_{V}}\) for a gas mixture consisting of 8 g of helium and 16 g of oxygen is :
(a) \(\frac{23}{15}\)
(b) \(\frac{15}{23}\)
(c) \(\frac{27}{11}\)
(d) \(\frac{17}{27}\)
Answer:
(c) \(\frac{27}{11}\)
Helium is a mono atomic gas and oxygen is diatomic gas.

Question 14.
In a simple harmonic oscillation, the acceleration against displacement for one complete oscillation will be __________
(a) an ellipse
(b) a circle
(c) a parabola
(d) a straight line
Answer:
(d) a straight line

Question 15.
A person standing between two parallel hills fires a gun and hears the first echo after ‘t₁’ sec, and the second echo after ‘t₂’ sec. The distance between the hills is _______
(a) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1}-t_{2}\right)}{2}\)
(b) \(\frac{v\left(t_{1} t_{2}\right)}{2\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)}\)
(c) \(v\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
(d) \(\frac{v}{2}\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
Answer:
(d) \(\frac{v}{2}\left(t_{1}+t_{2}\right)\)
Distance b/w man and hill 1, d₁ = \(\frac{v t_{1}}{2}\)
Distance b/w man and hill 2, d₂ = \(\frac{v t_{2}}{2}\)
Distance b/w the two hills, d = d₁ + d₂
\(\mathrm{d}=\frac{\mathrm{v}\left(\mathrm{t}_{1}+\mathrm{t}_{2}\right)}{2}\)

PART – II

Answer any six questions in which Q. No. 23 is compulsory. [6 × 2 = 12]

Question 16.
Check the following equation by dimensional method: E = mc²
Answer:
Let us assume that the Energy E depends on mass m and velocity of light c.
E ∝ m^a c^b
E = km^ac^b where K a constant
Dimensions of E = [ML²T^-2]
Dimensions of m = [M]
Dimensions of c = [LT^-1]
Substituting the values in the above equation [ML²T^-2] = K [M]^a[LT^-1]^b
By equating the dimensions,
a = 1; b = 2; -b = -2
E = k.mc²
The value of constant k = 1
E = mc²
This is Einstein’s mass energy relation.

Question 17.
What is the difference between scalar and vector? Give examples.
Answer:

Question 18.
State Lami’s theorem.
Answer:
If a system of three concurrent and coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then Lami’s theorem states that the magnitude of each force of the system is proportional to sine of the angle between the other two forces.
\(\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{1}\right| \propto \sin \alpha,\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{2}\right| \propto \sin \beta,\left|\overrightarrow{\mathrm{F}}_{3}\right| \alpha \sin \gamma\)

Question 19.
Define the centre of gravity.
Answer:
The centre of gravity of a body is the point at which the entire weight of the body acts, irrespective of the position and orientation of the body.

Question 20.
An electron moving with velocity 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s, revolving in a circular orbit of radius 0.53 Å. Calculate its angular velocity.
Answer:
v = 2.2 × 10⁶ m/s
r = 0.53 Å = 0.53 × 10^-10 m
Angular velocity, \(\omega=\frac{v}{r}=\frac{2.2 \times 10^{6}}{0.53 \times 10^{-10}}\)
ω = 4.15 × 10¹⁶ rads^-1

Question 21.
What is Reynold’s number? Give its significance.
Answer:
It is a dimensionless number which determines the nature of the flow of fluid through a pipe. Reynold’s number is given by,
\(\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{c}}=\frac{\rho v \mathrm{D}}{\mathrm{n}}\)
If, R_c < 1000 – streamline
R_c > 2000 – turbulent
1000 < R_c < 2000 – unsteady

Question 22.
Define specific heat capacity.
Answer:
Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of a substance by 1 Kelvin or 1°C
∆Q = ms∆T
Therefore, \(s=\frac{1}{m}\left(\frac{\Delta Q}{\Delta T}\right)\)
The SI unit for specific heat capacity is J kg^-1 K^-1

Question 23.
Define the root mean square speed.
Answer:
Root mean square speed is defined as the square root of the mean of the square of speeds of all molecules.

Question 24.
A particle executing SHM covers a displacement of half of the amplitude in one second. Calculate its time period.
Answer:
Displacement, X = A sin(ωt)

PART – III

Answer any six questions in which Q. No. 29 is compulsory. [6 × 3 = 18]

Question 25.
What are the limitations of dimensional analysis?
Answer:
Limitations of Dimensional analysis

1. This method gives no information about the dimensionless constants in the formula like 1, 2, ……… π, e, etc.
2. This method is not suitable to derive relations involving trigonometric, exponential and logarithmic functions.
3. It can only check on whether a physical relation is dimensionally correct but not the correctness of the relation. For example, using dimensional analysis, \(s=u t+\frac{1}{3} a t^{2}\) is dimensionally correct whereas the correct relation is \(s=u t+\frac{1}{2} a t^{2}\)

Question 26.
Find the maximum speed at which a car turn round a curve of 36 m radius on a level road. Given the co-eff. of friction between the tyre and road is 0.53.
Answer:
Radius of the curve r = 36 m
Coefficient of friction µ = 0.53
Acceleration due to. gravity g = 10 ms^-2
\(v_{\max }=\sqrt{\mu r g}=\sqrt{0.53 \times 36 \times 10}=13.81 \mathrm{ms}^{-1}\)

Question 27.
Give the difference between elastic and inelastic collision.
Answer:

Question 28.
The position vector of the particle has a length of 1 m makes an angle of 30° with X-axis. What are the lengths of x and y components of the position vector?
Answer:
Given:
Length of position vector = 1 m
Angle made with x-axis = 30

Length of X component (OB) = OA cos θ = 1 × cos 30°
\(l_{x}=\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} \mathrm{m}\) (or) 0.87 m
Length of Y component (AB) = OA sin θ = 1 × sin 30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 0.5 m.
ly = 0.5 m

Question 29.
State Kepler’s laws.
Answer:

1. Law of Orbits: Each planet revolves moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci of the ellipse.
2. Law of the area: The radial vector line joining the Sun to a planet sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time.
3. Law of the period: The square of the time period of revolution of a planet around the Sun in its elliptical orbit is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse.
   T² ∝ a³
   \(\frac{T^{2}}{a^{3}}\) = constant

Question 30.
Explain any three factors affecting the surface tension of a liquid.
Answer:

1. The presence of any contamination or impurities considerably affects the force of surface tension depending upon the degree of contamination.
2. The presence of dissolved substances can also affect the value of surface tension. For example, a highly soluble substance like sodium chloride (NaCl) when dissolved in water (H₂O) increases the surface tension of water. But the sparingly soluble substance like phenol or soap solution when mixed in water decreases the surface tension of water.
3. Electrification effects surface tension. When a liquid is electrified, surface tension decreases. Since external force acts on the liquid surface due to electrification, the area of the liquid surface increases which acts against the contraction phenomenon of the system.

Question 31.
Define degrees of freedom. Give an example.
Answer:
The minimum number of independent coordinates needed to specify the position and configuration of a thermo-dynamical system in space is called the degree of freedom of the So its degree of freedom is one.
Example:

1. A free particle moving along x-axis needs only one coordinate to specify it completely. So its degree of freedom is one.
2. Similarly, a particle moving over a plane has two degrees of freedom.
3. A particle moving in space has three degrees of freedom.

Question 32.
Explain any three applications of reflection of a sound wave.
Answer:
(a) Stethoscope: It works on the principle of multiple reflections. It consists of three main parts:

• Chest piece
• Earpiece
• Rubber tube

(b) Echo: An echo is a repetition of sound produced by the reflection of sound waves from a wall, mountain or other obstructing surfaces. The speed of sound in air at 20°C is 344 ms^-1. If we shout at a wall which is at 344 m away, then the sound will take 1 second to reach the wall. After reflection, the sound will take one more second to reach us. Therefore, we hear the echo after two seconds.

(c) SONAR: Sound Navigation and Ranging. Sonar systems make use of reflections of sound waves in the water to locate the position or motion of an object. Similarly, dolphins and bats use the sonar principle to find their way in the darkness.

Question 33.
A child is playing on a sliding board. If he is sliding down:
(a) Mention the forces acting on the child.
(b) Draw FBD (Free Body Diagram).
(c) Write the force equation.
Answer:
(a) ma = mg sin θ – f_k

(c) F = mg sin θ

PART – IV

Answer all the questions. [5 × 5 = 25]

Question 34.
(a) Explain in detail the triangle law of addition.
Answer:
Let us consider two vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) as shown in figure. To find the resultant of the two vectors we apply the triangular law of addition as follows:

Represent the vectors \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\) by the two adjacent sides of a triangle taken in the same order. Then the resultant is given by the third side of the triangle as shown in figure. To explain further, the head of the first vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) is connected to the tail of the second vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). Let θ be the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). Then \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) is the resultant vector connecting the tail of the first vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\) to the head of the second vector \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\). The magnitude of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\)(resultant) is given geometrically by the length of \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) (OQ) and the direction of the resultant vector is the angle between \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}\). Thus we write \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{R}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{A}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{B}}\)
\(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OQ}}=\overrightarrow{\mathrm{OP}}+\overrightarrow{\mathrm{PQ}}\)

1. Magnitude of resultant vector: The magnitude and angle of the resultant vector are determined by using triangle law of vectors as follows.
From the figure, consider the triangle ABN, which is obtained by extending the side OA to ON. ABN is a right-angled triangle.



[OR]
Question 34(b).
Discuss the four types of oscillation.
Answer:
(i) Free oscillations: When the oscillator is allowed to oscillate by displacing its position from the equilibrium position, it oscillates with a frequency which is equal to the natural frequency of the oscillator. Such an oscillation or vibration is known as free oscillation or free vibration. In this case, the amplitude, frequency and the energy of the vibrating object remain constant.
Examples:

• The vibration of a tuning fork.
• Vibration in a stretched string.
• Oscillation of a simple pendulum.
• Oscillations of a spring-mass system.

(ii) Damped oscillations: During the oscillation of a simple pendulum (in the previous case), we have assumed that the amplitude of the oscillation is constant and also the total energy of the oscillator is constant. But in reality, in a medium, due to the presence of friction and air drag, the amplitude of oscillation decreases as time progresses. It implies that the oscillation is not sustained and the energy of the SHM decreases gradually indicating the loss of energy. The energy lost is absorbed by the surrounding medium. This type of oscillatory motion is known as damped oscillation. In other words, if an oscillator moves in a resistive medium, its amplitude goes on decreasing and the energy of the oscillator is used to do work against the resistive medium. The motion of the oscillator is said to be damped and in this case, the resistive force (or damping force) is proportional to the velocity of the oscillator.
Examples:

• The oscillations of a pendulum (including air friction) or pendulum oscillating inside an oil-filled container.
• Electromagnetic oscillations in a tank circuit.
• Oscillations in a dead beat and ballistic galvanometers.

(iii) Maintained oscillations: While playing in swing, the oscillations will stop after a few cycles, this is due to damping. To avoid damping we have to supply a push to sustain oscillations. By supplying energy from an external source, the amplitude of the oscillation can be made constant. Such vibrations are known as maintained vibrations.
Example:
The vibration of a tuning fork getting energy from a battery or from the external power supply.

(iv) Forced oscillations: Any oscillator driven by an external periodic agency to overcome the damping is known as a forced oscillator or driven oscillator. In this type of vibration, the body executing vibration initially vibrates with its natural frequency and due to the presence of external periodic force, the body later vibrates with the frequency of the applied periodic force. Such vibrations are known as forced vibrations.
Example: Soundboards of stringed instruments.

Question 35.
(a) Explain the vertical motion of blocks connected by a string.
Answer:
Vertical motion: Consider two blocks of masses m₁ and m₂ (m₁ > m₂) connected by light and inextensible string that passes over a pulley as shown in Figure.

Let the tension in the string be T and acceleration a.
When the system is released, both the blocks start moving, m₂ vertically upward and m₁ downward with same acceleration a. The gravitational force m₁g on mass m₁ is used in lifting the mass m₂.
The upward direction is chosen as y-direction. The free-body diagrams of both masses are shown in Figure.

Applying Newton’s second law for mass m₂
\(\mathrm{T} \hat{j}-m_{2} g \hat{j}=m_{2} a \hat{j}\)
The left-hand side of the above equation is the total force that acts on m₂ and the right-hand side is the product of mass and acceleration of m₂ in the y-direction.
By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T – m₂g = m₂a …… (1)
Similarly, applying Newton’s second law for mass m₁
\(\mathbf{T} \hat{j}-m_{1} g \hat{j}=-m_{1} a \hat{j}\)
As mass mx moves downward (\(-\hat{j}\)), its acceleration is along (\(-\hat{j}\)) By comparing the components on both sides, we get
T – m₁g = -m₁a
m₁g – T = m₁a ……. (2)
Adding equations (1) and (2), we get
m₁g – m₂g = m₁a + m₂a
(m₁ – m₂)g = (m₁ + m₂)a …….. (3)
From equation (3), the acceleration of both the masses is
\(a=\left(\frac{m_{1}-m_{2}}{m_{1}+m_{2}}\right) g\) …… (4)
If both the masses are equal (m₁ = m₂), from equation (4)
a = 0
This shows that if the masses are equal, there is no acceleration and the system as a whole will be at rest.
To find the tension acting on the string, substitute the acceleration from the equation (4) into the equation (1).

[OR]
Question 35(b).
What are stationary waves? Write the characteristics of stationary waves.
Answer:
Explanation of stationary waves: When the wave hits the rigid boundary it bounces back to the original medium and can interfere with the original waves. A pattern is formed, which are known as standing waves or stationary waves.
Characteristics of stationary waves:

1. Stationary waves are characterised by the confinement of a wave disturbance between two rigid boundaries. This means, the wave does not move forward or backwards in a medium (does not advance), it remains steady at its place. Therefore, they are called “stationary waves or standing waves”.
2. Certain points in the region in which the wave exists have maximum amplitude, called as anti-nodes and at certain points, the amplitude is minimum or zero, called as nodes.
3. The distance between two consecutive nodes (or) anti-nodes is \(\frac{\lambda}{2}\)
4. The distance between a node and its neighbouring anti-node is \(\frac{\lambda}{4}\)
5. The transfer of energy along the standing wave is zero.

Question 36(a).
Derive the expression of a moment of inertia of the rod about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to the rod.
Answer:
Let us consider a uniform rod of mass (M) and length (l) as shown in the figure. Let us find an expression for moment of inertia of this rod about an axis that passes through the centre of mass and perpendicular to the rod. First, an origin is to be fixed for the coordinate system so that it coincides with the centre of mass, which is also the geometric centre of the rod. The rod is now along the x-axis. We take an infinitesimally small mass (dm) at a distance (x) from the origin. The moment of inertia (dl) of this mass (dm) about the axis is, dl = (dm)x²
As the mass is uniformly distributed, the mass per unit length (λ) of the rod is, \(\lambda=\frac{\mathbf{M}}{l}\)
The (dm) mass of the infinitesimally small length as, dm = λdx = \(\frac{M}{l}\) dx
The moment of inertia (i) of the entire rod can be found by integrating dI,
\(\begin{aligned}
&\mathrm{I}=\int d \mathrm{I}=\int(d m) x^{2}=\int\left(\frac{\mathrm{M}}{l} d x\right) x^{2}\\
&\mathrm{I}=\frac{\mathrm{M}}{l} \int x^{2} d x
\end{aligned}\)
As the mass is distributed on either side of the origin, the limits for integration are taken from to -l/2 to l/2


[OR]
Question 36(b).
State ideal gas laws. Derive the equation of state for an ideal gas.
Answer:
Boyle’s law: For a given gas at low pressure (density) kept in a container of volume V, experiments revealed the following information.
When the gas is kept at a constant temperature, the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume P ∝ \(\frac{1}{V}\)
Charles’ law: When the gas is kept at constant pressure, the volume of the gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature V ∝ T.
By combining these two equations we have
PV = CT. Here C is a positive constant.
We can infer that C is proportional to the number of particles in the gas container by considering the following argument. If we take two containers of the same type of gas with the same volume V, same pressure P and same temperature T, then the gas in each container obeys the above equation. PV = CT. If the two containers of gas are considered as a single system, then the pressure and temperature of this combined system will be same but volume will be twice and a number of particles will also be double.

For this combined system, V becomes 2V, so C should also double to match with the ideal gas equation \(\frac{P(2 V)}{T}=2 C\). It implies that C must depend on the number of particles in the gas and also should have the dimension of \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{PV}}{\mathrm{T}}\right]=\mathrm{JK}^{-1}\). So we can write the constant C as k times the number of particles N.
Here k is the Boltzmann constant (1.381 × 10^-23 JK^-1) and it is found to be a universal constant. So the ideal gas law can be stated as follows
PV = NkT ……..(1)
The equation (1) can also be expressed in terms of mole.
Suppose if the gas contains µ mole of particles then the total number of particles can be written as N = µN_A …(2)
where NA is Avogadro number (6.023 × 10²³ mol^-1)
Substituting for N from equation (2), the equation (1) becomes PV = µN_AkT. Here N_Ak = R called universal gas constant and its value is 8.314 J /mol. K
So the ideal gas law can be written for µ mole of gas as
PV = µRT ……..(3)
This is called the equation of state for an ideal gas. It relates the pressure, volume and temperature of the thermodynamic system at equilibrium.

Question 37(a).
Derive the expression of escape speed.
Answer:
Consider an object of mass M on the surface of the Earth. When it is thrown up with an initial speed v_i, the initial total energy of the object is
\(\mathrm{E}_{i}=\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) ……. (1)
where M_E is the mass of the Earth and R_E the radius of the Earth. The term \(-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) is the potential energy of the mass M.
When the object reaches a height far away from Earth and hence treated as approaching infinity, the gravitational potential energy becomes zero [U(∞) = 0] and the kinetic energy becomes zero as well. Therefore the final total energy of the object becomes zero. This is for minimum energy and for minimum speed to escape. Otherwise, kinetic energy can be nonzero.
E_f = 0
According to the law of energy conservation,
E_i = E_f ……. (2)
Substituting (1) in (2) we get,
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}-\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}=0\)
\(\frac{1}{2} \mathrm{M} v_{i}^{2}=\frac{\mathrm{GMM}_{\mathrm{E}}}{\mathrm{R}_{\mathrm{E}}}\) …….(3)
Consider the escape speed, the minimum speed required by an object to escape Earth’s gravitational field, hence replace v_i with v_e i.e.,
\(\frac{1}{2} M v_{e}^{2}=\frac{G M M_{E}}{R_{E}}\)

From equation (4) the escape speed depends on two factors acceleration due to gravity and radius of the Earth. It is completely independent of the mass of the object. By substituting the values of g (9.8 ms^-2) and R, = 6400 km, the escape speed of the Earth is v_g = 11.2 kms^-1. The escape speed is independent of the direction in which the object is thrown. Irrespective of whether the object is thrown vertically up, radially outwards or tangentially it requires the same initial speed to escape Earth’s gravity.
[OR]
Question 37(b).
Explain the different types of moduli of elasticity.
Answer:
From Hooke’s law, the stress in a body is proportional to the corresponding strain, provided the deformation is very small. Here we shall define the elastic modulus of a given material. There are three types of elastic modulus.
(a) Young’s modulus (b) Rigidity modulus (or Shear modulus) (c) Bulk modulus
Young’s Modulus: When a wire is stretched or compressed, then the ratio between tensile stress (or compressive stress) and tensile strain (or compressive strain) is defined as Young’s modules.

The negative sign indicates when pressure is applied on the body, its volume decreases. Further, the equation implies that a material can be easily compressed if it has a small value of bulk modulus. In other words, bulk modulus measures the resistance of solids to change in their volume. For example, we know that gases can be easily compressed than solids, which means, gas has a small value of bulk modulus compared to solids. The S.I. unit of K is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm^-2 or Pa (pascal).
The rigidity modulus or shear modulus: The rigidity modulus is defined as the ratio of the shearing stress to shearing strain,

Further, the above implies, that a material can be easily twisted if it has a small value of rigidity modulus. For example, consider a wire, when it is twisted through an angle 0, a restoring torque is developed, that is
τ ∝ θ
This means that for a larger torque, the wire will twist by a larger amount (angle of shear θ is large). Since rigidity modulus is inversely proportional to the angle of shear, the modulus of rigidity is small. The S.I. unit of ηR is the same as that of pressure i.e., Nm^-2 or pascal.

Question 38.
(a) Two objects of masses 3 kg and 6 kg are moving with the same momentum of 30 kgms^-1.
(i) Will they have the same kinetic energy?
(ii) Will they have the same speed? Prove it.
Answer:
m₁ = 3 kg and m₂ = 6 kg
P = 30 kg ms^-1

[OR]
Question 38(b).
In a series of successive measurements in an experiment, the readings of a period of rotation of a wheel were found out to be 2.15s, 2.25s, 2.28s and 2.32s. Calculate:
(i) mean value of the period of rotation
(ii) absolute error in each measurement
(iii) mean absolute error
(iv) relative error and
(v) percentage error. Express the result in proper form.
Answer: