Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.18

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 Answers Question 1.
If A is of order p × q and B is of order q × r what is the order of AB and BA?
Solution:
If A is of order p × q [∵ p × q q × r = p × r]
the order of AB = p × r [∵ q × r p × q = r ≠ p]
Product of BA cannot be defined/found as the number of columns in B ≠. The number of rows in A.

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 Question 2.
If A is of order p × q and B is of order q × r what is the order of AB and BA?
Answer:
Order of A = a × (a + 3)
Order of B = b × (17 – b)
Given: Product of AB exist
a + 3 = b
a – b = – 3 ….(1)
Product of BA exist
17 – b = a
– a – b = -17
a + b = 17 ………(2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2a = 14
a = \(\frac { 14 }{ 2 } \) = 7
Substitute the value of a = 7 in (1)
7 – b = -3 ⇒ -b = -3 -7
-b = -10 ⇒ b = 10
The value of b = 7 and b = 10

Ex 3.18 Class 10 Question 3.
Find the order of the product matrix AB if

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
If A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{2} & {5} \\ {4} & {3}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-3} \\ {2} & {5}\end{array}\right]\) find AB, BA and check if AB = BA?
Solution:

Exercise 3.18 Class 10 Question 5.

Solution:

Ex 3.18 Class 10 Samacheer Question 6.
Show that the matrices A = \(\left[\begin{array}{ll}{1} & {2} \\ {3} & {1}\end{array}\right]\), B = \(\left[\begin{array}{cc}{1} & {-2} \\ {-3} & {1}\end{array}\right]\) satisfy commutative property AB = BA
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 In Tamil Question 7.

(i) A(BC) = (AB)C
(ii) (A – B)C = (AC – BC)
(iii) (A- B)^T = A^T – B^T
Solution:
(i) A(BC) = (AB)C

10th New Syllabus Maths Exercise 3.18 Question 8.

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.18 3rd Sum Question 9.

Solution:

10th Maths 3.18 Question 10.
Verify that A² = I when A = \(\left(\begin{array}{cc}{5} & {-4} \\ {6} & {-5}\end{array}\right)\)
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Graph Question 11.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 10th Maths Question 12.

Solution:

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 10th Maths Question 13.
If A = \(\) show that A² – 5A + 7I₂ = 0.
Solution:

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2

6th Maths Guide Term 2 Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) The HCF of 45 and 75 is ______
(ii) The HCF of two successive even numbers is ______
(iii) If the LCM of 3 and 9 is 9, then their HCF is ______
(iv) The LCM of 26, 39 and 52 is ______
(v) The least number that should be added to 57 so that the sum is exactly divisible by 2, 3, 4 and 5 is ______
Solution:
(i) 15
(ii) 156
(iii) 2
(iv) 3
(v) 3

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Question 2.
Say True or False
(i) The numbers 57 and 69 are co-primes.
(ii) The HCF of 17 and 18 is 1.
(iii) The LCM of two successive numbers is the product of the numbers.
(iv) The LCM of two co-primes is the sum of the numbers.
(v) The HCF of two numbers is always a factor of their LCM.
Solution:
(i) False
(ii) True
(iii) True
(iv) False
(v) True

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Term 2 Question 3.
Find the HCF of each set of numbers using prime factorisation method.
(i) 18, 24
(ii) 51, 85
(iii) 61, 76
(iv) 84, 120
(v) 27, 45, 81
(vi) 45, 55, 95
Solution:
(i) 18, 24.
Prime factorisation of 18 = 2 × 3 × 3
Prime factorisation of 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3
Common factors of 18 and 24 = 2 × 3 = 6
HCF (18, 24) = 6

(ii) 51, 85
Prime factorisation of 51 = 3 × 17
Prime factorisation of 85 = 5 × 17
Common factors of 51 and 85 = 17
HCF (51, 85) = 17

(iii) 61, 76
Prime factorisation of 61 = 1 × 61
Prime factorisation of 76 = 2 × 2 × 19 × 1
Common factors of 61 and 76 = 1
HCF (61, 76) = 1

(iv) 84, 120
Prime factorisation of 84 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
Prime factorisation of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Common factors of 84 and 120 = 2 × 2 × 3
HCF (84, 120) = 12

(v) 27, 45, 81
Prime factorisation of 27 = 3 × 3 × 3
Prime factorisation of 45 = 3 × 3 × 5
Prime factorisation of 81 = 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
Common factors of 27, 45, 81 = 3 × 3 = 9
HCF (27, 45, 81) = 9

(vi) 45, 55, 95
Prime factorisation of 45 = 3 × 3 × 5
Prime factorisation of 55 = 5 × 11
Prime factorisation of 95 = 5 × 19
Common factors of 45, 55, 95 = 5
HCF (45, 55, 95) = 5

6th Maths Term 2 Exercise 1.2 Question 4.
Find the LCM of each set of numbers using prime factorisation method.
(i) 6, 9
(ii) 8, 12
(iii) 10, 15
(iv) 14, 42
(v) 30, 40, 60
(vi) 15, 25, 75
Solution:
(i) 6, 9
Prime factorisation of 6 = 2 × 3
Prime factorisation of 9 = 3 × 3
Product of common factors = 3
Product of other factors = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM (6, 9) = 3 × 6 = 18

(ii) 8, 12
8 = 2 × 4 = 2 × 2 × 2
12 = 2 × 6 = 2 × 2 × 3
Product of common factors = 2 × 2 = 4
Product of other factors = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 4 × 6 = 24
LCM (8, 12) = 24.

(iii) 10, 15
10 = 2 × 5
15 = 3 × 5
Product of common factors = 5
Product of other factors = 2 × 3 = 6
LCM (10, 15) = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 5 × 6 = 30

(iv) 14, 42
14 = 2 × 7
42 = 2 × 21 = 2 × 3 × 7
Product of common factors = 2 × 7
Product of other factor = 3
LCM (14, 42) = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 2 × 7 × 3 = 42
LCM (14, 42) = 42

(v) 30, 40, 60
30 = 3 × 2 × 5
40 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
60 = 2 × 3 × 2 × 5
Product of highest powers of the common factors = 3 × 2³ × 5 = 120
LCM (30, 40, 60) = 120

(vi) 15, 25, 75
15 = 5 × 3
25 = 5 × 5
75 = 5 × 5 × 3
Product of the highest powers of the common factors = 3 × 5² = 3 × 25 = 75
LCM (15, 25, 75) = 75

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Question 5.
Find the HCF and the LCM of the numbers 154,198 and 286.
Solution:
Prime factorisation of 154 = 2 × 7 × 11
Prime Factorisation of 198 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 11
Prime factorisation of 286 = 2 × 11 × 13

To find HCF
Product of common factors of 154, 198 and 286 = 2 × 11 = 22
HCF (154, 198, 286) = 22

To find LCM
Product of common factors of atleast two numbers = 2 × 11 = 22
Product of other factors = 7 × 3 × 3 × 13 = 819
LCM (154, 198, 286) = Product of common factors × Product of other factors = 22 × 819 = 18,018
LCM (154, 198,286) = 18,018

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Maths Question 6.
What is the greatest possible volume of a vessel that can be used to measure exactly the volume of milk in cans (in full capacity) of 80 litres, 100 litres and 120 litres?
Solution:
This Problem is HCF related problem
Prime factorisation of 80 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 5
Prime factorisation of 100 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 5
Prime factorisation of 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Product of common factors 80, 100 and 120 = 2 × 2 × 5 = 20
HCF (80, 100, 120) = 20
The volume of the vessel = 20 litres

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Term 2 Question 7.
The traffic lights at three different road junctions change after every 40 seconds, 60 seconds and 72 seconds respectively. If they changed simultaneously together at 8 a.m at the junctions, at what time will they simultaneously change together again?
Solution:
This is an LCM related problem
Finding the LCM of 40, 60 and 72
60 seconds = 1 min
360 min = 6 min

LCM (40, 60, 72) = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 2 × 3 = 360
After 360 seconds they will change again i.e after six minutes they will change again i.e at 8.06 am they will change again simultaneously.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Guide Question 8.
The LCM of two numbers is 210 and their HCF is 14. How many such pairs are possible?
Solution:
Let the numbers be 14x and 14y
14x × 14y = 14 × 210
⇒ \(x y=\frac{210}{14}=\frac{30}{2}=15\)
x = 1, y = 15; x = 3, y = 5
(14, 210), (42, 70) Two pairs

6th Maths Samacheer Kalvi Question 9.
The LCM of two numbers is 6 times their HCF. If the HCF is 12 and one of the numbers is 36, then find the other number.
Solution:
HCF = 12
Product of two numbers = LCM × HCF
36 × other number = 72 × 12
Other number = \(\frac{72×12}{36}\)
Other number = 24

Objective Type Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Term 2 Question 10.
Which of the following pairs is co-prime?
(a) 51, 63
(b) 52, 91
(c) 71, 81
(d) 81, 99
Solution:
(c) 71, 81

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Maths Question 11.
The greatest 4 digit number which is exactly divisible by 8, 9 and 12 is
(a) 9999
(b) 9996
(c) 9696
(d) 9936
Solution:
(d) 9936

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Question 12.
The HCF of two numbers is 2 and their LCM is 154. If the difference between numbers is 8, then the sum is
(a) 26
(b) 36
(c) 46
(d) 56
Solution:
(b) 36

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Maths Guide Question 13.
Which of the following cannot be the HCF of two numbers whose LCM is 120?
(a) 60
(b) 40
(c) 80
(d) 30
Solution:
(c) 80

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 4 Hydrosphere

Hydrosphere Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Hydrosphere 9th Class Question 1.
The Sunda Trench lies in the ……………… ocean.
(a) Atlantic
(b) Pacific
(c) Indian
(d) Antarctic
Answer:
(c) Indian

Hydrosphere Lesson Of 9th Class Pdf Question 2.
The temperature of the ocean waters generally ……………. at greater depth.
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) decreases

Hydrosphere Lesson Of 9th Class Question 3.
Ocean currents are produced due to ………………….
(a) due to rotation of earth
(b) due to variation in temperature
(c) due to earth’s movement
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

9th Class Social Hydrosphere Question 4.
Consider the following statements.
1. Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
2. Fishing is well developed in warm tropical waters.
3. Mixing of warm and cold currents facilitates plant nutrients for fish.
4. Inland fishing became significant in India.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer:
(b) 1 and 3 are correct

Hydrosphere Class 9 Question 5.
The oceanic ridge comes into existence due to ……………….
(a) convergence of tectonic plates
(b) divergence of tectonic plates
(c) lateral movements of plates
(d) stearing of plates
Answer:
(b) divergence of tectonic plates

Hydrosphere Solutions Question 6.
Which of the following indicates the correct sequence of the topography beneath the surface of the sea?
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(b) Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea plain-Sea trench.
(c) Sea plain-Continental slope-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
(d) Continental slope-Sea plain-Continental shelf-Sea trench.
Answer:
(a) Continental shelf-Continental slope-Sea plain-Sea trench.

The Temperature Of The Ocean Waters Generally Question 7.
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean
(b) Labrador current—North Atlantic Ocean
(c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea
(d) Mozambique current—Indian Ocehn.
Answer:
(a) Gulf Stream—Pacific Ocean; (c) Canary current—Mediterranean sea

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Questions And Answers Question 8.
The amount of planktons to be found in the ocean is determined by
1. Depth of the water
2. Ocean currents
3. Temperature and Salinity
4. Length of day and night
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Questions 9 to 12 are of Assertion (A), Reason (R) type.
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is correct

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 9.
Assertion (A): Oceans are always shown in blue in maps.
Reason (R): It indicates the natural colour of the oceans.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Question 10.
Assertion (A): Flat topped seamounts are known as Guyots.
Reason (R): All guyot features are of volcanic origin.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Submarine canyons are deep gorges on the ocean floor.
Reason (R): They are mainly restricted to continental shelf, slope and rise
Answer:
(B) both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): Atolls are more common in the Atlantic ocean.
Reason (R): The marine population at the depth is less.
Answer:
(A) both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following:

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (f)
4. (g)
5. (a)
6. (b)
7. (e)

III. Answer the following in brief:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term Hydrosphere?
Answer:
Hydrosphere, the third sphere of Earth is a collection of all forms of water on the earth.

Question 2.
What is the hydrological cycle?
Answer:
The continuous movement of water on, above and below the earth’s surface is called the Hydrological cycle.

Question 3.
Mention the various relief features of ocean floor.
Answer:
The ocean basins are characterised by the following major relief features:

• Continental shelf
• Continental slope
• Continental rise
• Deep sea plain or Abyssal plain
• Oceanic deep
• Oceanic ridge.

Question 4.
What are the factors that generate the ocean currents?
Answer:
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

• Earth’s rotation
• Prevailing winds and
• Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

Question 5.
Write a brief note on sea waves.
Answer:
Sea waves are ripples on water caused when winds blow over the sea. The height of these waves depends on the speed of wind, its duration and the direction from which they blow.

IV. Distinguish the following:

Question 1.
Spring tide and Neap tide.
Answer:

Question 2.
Abyssal plains and Ocean deeps.
Answer:

Question 3.
Tidal power and Hydel power.
Answer:

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere are called land and water hemispheres respectively.
Answer:
The continents and oceans are however, not evenly distributed in the northern and the southern hemispheres. The northern hemisphere holds 61% of land whereas the southern hemisphere holds 81% of water. It is because of this pattern of land and water distribution, the northern hemisphere is called as the land hemisphere and the southern hemisphere is called the water . hemisphere.

Question 2.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Write a paragraph on the origin of oceans.
Answer:

1. The ocean is a continuous body of salt water that forms the major part of hydrosphere.
2. Geoscientists believe that the oceans were formed on Earth nearly three billion years ago.
3. It is difficult to believe that in the beginning there was no water on our planet.
4. In due course of time, when the Earth started cooling, steam escaped from the interior and entered the atmosphere to form clouds.
5. At first, the clouds brought incessant rains.
6. The rain water filled the depressions for tens of thousands of years and eventually a super ocean was formed.

Question 2.
Write a note on continental shelf and continental slope.
Answer:
Continental Shelf:

1. A shallow and gently sloping platform extending out from the adjoining continental land mass into the sea is called Continental Shelf.
2. It is almost a uniform zone of sea bed with a gentle gradient.
3. They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest . fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.
4. The continental shelves have extensive deposits of minerals and mineral fuels. Hence, this zone becomes accessible for oil drilling and mining activities: e.g. Mumbai High in Arabian Sea.

Continental Slope:

1. A steep slope which descends from the edge of the continental shelf to the deep ocean- bed is called continental slope.
2. It forms a boundary between the Continental Crust and the oceanic crust.
3. This zone is free from deposits as they are steep. The most important characteristic of . continental slope is the presence of deep canyons and trenches.
4. Due to the low penetration of sunlight, the slope has nearly freezing temperature.
   Hence aquatic life has very slow rate of metabolism. .

Question 3.
What do you mean by ocean currents? Explain its types.
Answer:
Oceans Currents: The movement of oceanic water on the surface and at the depths in a definite direction is called ocean current. Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the northern hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the southern hemisphere.
The factors that generate ocean currents are:

• Earth’s rotation
• Prevailing winds and
• Differences in temperature and salinity of ocean water.

On the basis of temperature, ocean currents are classified as warm currents and cold currents. The movement of ocean currents from the low latitudes (tropical zones) towards high latitudes (temperate and polar zones) is called warm current, e.g. Gulf Stream in Atlantic Ocean, North Equatorial Current in Pacific Ocean.

The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes (temperate and polar regions) to low latitudes (tropical regions) is called cold currents, e.g. Labrador Current in Atlantic Ocean and Peruvian Current in Pacific Ocean.

Question 4.
Explain the influences of the marine resources on mankind.
Answer:
The biotic and abiotic resources found in the oceanic water and at the bottoms are called marine resources. The ocean’s resources play a vital role in sustaining the needs of society.
A diverse array of marine organisms is used for food, medicine, cosmetics, and a wealth of • industrial applications. The world’s demand for energy,
minerals and water have become increasingly dependent on non-living marine resources.

Hydrosphere Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The ……………. is called the Blue Planet.
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(a) Earth

Question 2.
The …………… is the watery part of the earth.
(a) Lithosphere
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Hydrosphere
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(c) Hydrosphere

Question 3.
The land of thousand lakes is ……………
(a) Norway
(b) Finland
(c) Britain
(d) Swedwen
Answer:
(b) Finland

Question 4.
The purest form of water is …………….
(a) rain water
(b) well water
(c) river water
(d) sea water
Answer:
(a) rain water

Question 5.
Extensive deposits of Minerals and Mineral fuels are found in ……………
(a) Continental slope
(b) Continental shelf
(c) Continental rise
(d) Deep Sea Plains
Answer:
(b) Continental shelf

Question 6.
Consider the following statements.
(i) Submarine Fans which are similar to the alluvial fans found in water.
(ii) Aquatic life has very slow rate of metabolism.
(iii) Dragon Hole is the deepest known under water sink hole in the world.
(iv) Abyssal plains are usually covered by the thick layer of sediments. ,
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 7.
The humankind depends on the Marine resources for its …………….
(a) Agricultural purposes
(b) Survival
(c) Industrial purposes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Survival

Question 8.
Which of the following correctly matched?
(a) Pacific ocean and Green land
(b) Atlantic ocean and Mariana Trench
(c) Arctic ocean and Trinity Islands
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands
Answer:
(d) Indian ocean and Andaman Nicobar Islands

Questions 9 to 12 are Assertion (A) Reason (R) type.
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 9.
Assertion (A): Continental slope is free from deposits as they are steep.
Reason (R): Abyssal plains appear as a uniform flat and featureless plain.
Answer:
(B) Both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

Question 10.
Assertion (A): Continental shelf is almost a uniform zone of sea bed with gentle gradient.
Reason (R): This enables sunlight to penetrate through the water.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

Question 11.
Assertion (A): Ocean currents are in clockwise motion in the Northern Hemisphere and in the anti-clockwise motion in the Southern hemisphere.
Reason (R): The movement of ocean currents from high latitudes to low latitudes is called warm currents.
Answer:
(C) A is correct but R is false.

Question 12.
Assertion (A): The ocean/sea water does not contains calcium in great quantities.
Reason (R): Many of the aquatic animals with shells use the dissolved calcium in the sea water to build their protective shells.
Answer:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R explains A.

II. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (f)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)
6. (d)

III. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Mention the three major processes involved in the Hydrological cycle.
Answer:
The three major processes involved in the water cycle are evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 2.
Why do we consider the oceans and seas as resource bowl of the earth?
Answer:
Oceans and seas are considered as resource bowl of the earth because of the immense availability of food, minerals, etc.

Question 3.
What Is Hypsometric curve?
Answer:
A Hypsometric Curve is a graphic representation which shows the height of a certain place • found on land and the height of ocean features at sea. ‘Hypso’ means height in Greek.

Question 4.
What do you know about Water Table?
Answer:
Water table is a level below the ground, where water is found collected beneath the Earth’s surface,

Question 5.
What is Dragon Hole?
Answer:
Dragon Hole is the deepest known underwater sink hole in the world. The local fishermen call it the‘eye’of the South China Sea.

Question 6.
Write a short note on the movement of the ocean water.
Answer:
The ocean water is dynamic. Temperature, salinity, density, external forces of the sun, moon and the winds keep the ocean waters in movement, both horizontally and vertically. . Waves and currents are in horizontal motion while tides have vertical motion.

Question 7.
What is called continental rise?
Answer:
At the base of the continental slope is a gently sloping layer of sediments which merge into the deep-sea floor. This underwater feature found between continental slope and abyssal plains is called the continental rise.

Question 8.
How is the energy of the falling wave water used?
Answer:
The energy of the falling wave water is used to turn hydro turbines to generate power. Wave energy power plants have been installed at Vizhinjam in Kerala coast and Andaman and Nicobar islands of India.

Question 9.
When was the National Institute oceanography established? What do they do?
Answer:
NIO (National Institute of Oceanography) was established in 1st January 1966. The headquarters of NIO is located at Dona Paula, Goa. It Conducts research and observations to understand oceanic features, Ocean engineering, marine Archaeology etc.

Question 10.
What is Sea Mount?
Answer:
Sea mount is an underwater mountain that rise from the sea floor due to undersea volcanic

IV. Distinguish the following.

Question 1.
Warm current and Cold current.
Answer:

Question 2.
Water table and Aquifers.
Answer:

Question 3.
Isobath and Isohaline.
Answer:

V. Give reasons for the following.

Question 1.
The earth is called the Blue Planet.
Answer:
The Earth is also called the Blue planet, as it holds water in abundance and thus stands unique among all other planets.

Question 2.
Oceans are the lifelines of Earth and Mankind.
Answer:
Oceans are the life blood of planet earth and mankind. The humankind depends on the marine resources’ for its survival. They are also essential for the economic prosperity, social wellbeing and quality of life.

Question 3.
Most of the Creek area get submerged.
Answer:
Most of the Creek area gets submerged due to high tide and at times of low tide, the creek emerges out along with poisonous creatures like snakes, scorpions.

Question 4.
Continental shelf provides good fishing ground.
Answer:
They are shallower, thus enables sunlight to penetrate through the water. This encourages abundant growth of grass, sea weeds and plankton. Hence these zones become the richest fishing grounds in the world, e.g. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

VI. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
The Great Barrier Reef. Explain.
Answer:
The Great Barrier Reef: The Great Barrier reef is the world’s largest coral reef system composed of 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands stretching for about 2,000 kilometres. It covers an area of about 3,50,000 km. The reef is located in the Coral sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia. The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from the outer space. This sprawling coral reef system is one of the most biologically diverse places on the planet. .Coral reefs are built by billions of tiny organisms, known as Coral polyps.CNN labelled it as one of the seven natural wonders of the world.

In-text HOTs Questions

Question 1.
“71% of the earth is covered by water but very little can be used by humans. Why?
Answer:
“A little amount of fresh water which is suitable for human consumption is present on the earth. Rest of the water we find in oceans. Sea water is saline and not suitable for consumption.

Question 2.
The oceans are salty. Why?
Answer:

1. As the rain erodes the rock acids in the rain water break down the rock.
2. Ions (or) electrically charged atomic particles are created.
3. These ions are carried away in runoff to streams and rivers and ultimately to the ocean.
4. Many of the dissolved ions are used by organisms in the ocean are removed from the water.
5. Others are left for long periods time where their concentrations increased overtime.
6. Sodium and chloride are the most prevalent ions in Sea water, (about 90%) making sea water salty as it is salty.

Question 3.
Why is the salinity at the equator less even though it experiences high temperature.
Answer:
The salinity at the equator is less even though it experiences high temperature, because of heavy rainfall and high relative humidity as precipitation adds good amount of fresh water to ocean water.

Question 4.
“Though Caspian Sea is enclosed its salinity is just 14 to 17 parts per thousand. Why is it so?
Answer:

1. The Caspian Sea is a fresh water lake in its Northern portions due to the current inflow of fresh water, and is most saline on the Iranian shore where the catchment basin centributes little flow.
2. Currently the mean salinity of the Caspian sea is one third that of Earth’s oceans.

Question 5.
What will happen if the seas and oceans contain only fresh water?
Answer:

1. Marine organisms would die as they are capable of surviving only in sea water (salt water).
2. Coral formation could not take place as they are made up of calcareous minerals.
3. Salt is quite important in daily usage.
4. We would have to rely on artificial production without natural salt, which would incur a lot of monetary and infrastructural expenses.
5. Salt water can hold heat better.
6. Sea life is adapted to salt water.
7. Ocean currents would be completely disrupted.

VIII. Enrichment Activity.

Question 1.
A) Study the map of ocean currents and then complete the table given below:

B) Map Work:
Mark the cold currents in blue and the warm currents in red in a World outline map.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.2

10th Maths Exercise 1.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 7} and B = {3, 0, -1, 7}, which of the following are relation from A to B ?
(i) R₁ = {(2, 1), (7, 1)}
(ii) R₂ = {(-1, 1)}
(iii) R₃ = {(2, -1), (7, 7), (1, 3)}
(iv) R₄ = {(7,-1), (0, 3), (3, 3), (0, 7)}
(i) A = {1, 2, 3, 7}, B = {3, 0,-1, 7}
Solution:
R₁ = {(2,1), (7,1)}

It is not a relation there is no element as 1 in B.
(ii) R₂ = {(-1, 1)}
It is not [∵ -1 ∉ A, 1 ∉ B]
(iii) R₃ = {(2, -1), (7, 7), (1, 3)}
It is a relation.
R₄ = {(7,-1), (0, 3), (3, 3), (0, 7)}
It is also not a relation. [∵ 0 ∉ A]

Ex 1.2 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, ….., 45} and R be the relation defined as “is square of ” on A. Write R as a subset of A × A. Also, find the domain and range of R.
Answer:
A = {1,2, 3, 4 . . . . 45}
The relation is defined as “is square of’
R = {(1,1) (2, 4) (3, 9)
(4, 16) (5,25) (6, 36)}
Domain of R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
Range of R = {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36}

Exercise 1.2 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 3.
A Relation R is given by the set {(x, y) /y = x + 3, x ∈ {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}}. Determine its domain and range.
Solution:
x = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
y = x + 3

⇒ y = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
R = {(x, y)}
= {(0, 3),(1, 4),(2, 5),(3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8)}
Domain of R = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
Range of R = {3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}

10th Maths Exercise 1.2 Question 4.
Represent each of the given relation by (a) an arrow diagram, (b) a graph and (c) a set in roster form, wherever possible.
(i) {(x, y)|x = 2y,x ∈ {2, 3, 4, 5},y ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4)
(ii) {(x, y)|y = x + 3, x, y are natural numbers <10}
Solution:
(i){(x, y)|x = 2y, x ∈ {2, 3, 4, 5},y ∈ {1, 2, 3, 4}} R = (x = 2y)
2 = 2 × 1 = 2
4 = 2 × 2 = 4

(c) {(2, 1), (4, 2)}
(ii) {(x, y)|y = x + 3, x,+ are natural numbers <10}
x = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9} R = (y = x + 3)
y = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
R = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8), (6, 9)}


(c) R = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 7), (5, 8), (6, 9)}

10th Maths Exercise 1.2 Answers Question 5.
A company has four categories of employees given by Assistants (A), Clerks (C), Managers (M) and an Executive Officer (E). The company provide ₹10,000, ₹25,000, ₹50,000 and ₹1,00,000 as salaries to the people who work in the categories A, C, M and E respectively. If A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄ and As were Assistants; C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄ were Clerks; M₁, M₂, M₃ were managers and E₁,E₂ were Executive officers and if the relation R is defined by xRy, where x is the salary given to person y, express the relation R through an ordered pair and an arrow diagram.
Solution:
A – Assistants → A₁, A₂, A₃, A₄, A₅
C – Clerks → C₁, C₂, C₃, C₄
D – Managers → M₁, M₂, M₃
E – Executive officer → E₁, E₂
(a) R = {(10,000, A₁), (10,000, A₂), (10,000, A₃),
(10,000, A₄), (10,000, A₅), (25,000, C₁),
(25,000, C₂), (25,000, C₃), (25,000, C₄),
(50,000, M₁), (50,000, M₂), (50,000, M₃),
(1,00,000, E₁), (1,00,000, E₂)}

(b)

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
கல்வி குறித்து வழங்கப்படும் பழமொழிகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• கல்வி கரையில கற்பவர் நாள் சில.
• கல்வி அழகே அழகு.
• கத்த (கற்ற) வித்த(வித்தை) காலத்துக்கு உதவும்.
• நூறு நாள் கத்தது (கற்றது), ஆறு நாள் விடப்போகும்.
• கற்க கசடற.
• இளமையில் கல்.
• நூல் பல கல்.

Question 2.
கற்றோரின் சிறப்புகளைப் பற்றிப் பிற நூல்களில் இடம் பெற்ற பாடல்களைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
கண்ணுடையோர் என்பவர் கற்றோர் முகத்து இரண்டு
புண்ணுடையார் கல்லா தவர். – திருக்குறள்

நிறைகுடம் நீர்தளும்பல் இல். – பழமொழி

மன்னனும் மாசறக் கற்றோனும் சீர்தூக்கில்
மன்னனில் கற்றோன் சிறப்புடையன் – மன்னர்க்கு
தன்தேச மல்லால் சிறப்பில்லை
கற்றோர்க்குச் சென்ற இடமெல்லாம் சிறப்பு. – மூதுரை

Question 3.
பின்வரும் நாலடியார் பாடலைப் படித்துச் சுவைக்க.
Answer:
கல்வி கரையில கற்பவர் நாள் சில
மெல்ல நினைக்கின் பிணி பல – தெள்ளிதின்
ஆராய்ந் தமைவுடைய கற்பவே நீரொழியப்
பாலுண் குருகின் தெரிந்து.

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
கற்றவருக்கு அழகு தருவது ………………………….
அ) தங்கம்
ஆ) வெள்ளி
இ) வைரம்
ஈ) கல்வி
Answer:
ஈ) கல்வி

Question 2.
‘கலனல்லால்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………………………..
அ) கலன் + லல்லால்
ஆ) கலம் + அல்லால்
இ) கலன் + அல்லால்
ஈ) கலன் + னல்லால்
Answer:
இ) கலன் + அல்லால்

சொற்றொடரில் அமைத்து எழுதுக.

1. அழகு – கல்வியே உண்மையான அழகு.
2. கற்றவர் – கல்வி கற்றவரே உலகில் உயர்ந்தவர்.
3. அணிகலன் – மனிதனுக்கு உண்மையான அணிகலன் கல்வி ஆகும்.

குறுவினா

Question 1.
யாருக்கு அழகு செய்ய வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை?
Answer:
கல்வி கற்றவருக்கு அழகு செய்ய வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கப்பாடல் கூறும் கருத்துகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• ஒளிவீசும் மணிகளால் செய்யப்பட்ட அணிகலன்களுக்கு மேலும் அழகுபடுத்த வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை.
• அதுபோலக் கல்வி கற்றவருக்கு அக்கல்வியே அழகு தரும்.
• அதனால் அழகுபடுத்தும் அணிகலன்கள் கற்றவருக்குத் தேவையில்லை.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
கல்வியின் பயன்களாக நீங்கள் கருதுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• நம்முள் புதைந்து கிடக்கும் ஆற்றலை வெளிக்கொண்டு வரும்.
• பகுத்து அறியும் அறிவைத் தரும்.
• துன்பம் வரும் முன் தடுத்து நிறுத்தும் அறிவைத் தரும்.
• மெய்ப்பொருள் காணும் அறிவினைத் தரும்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
குமரகுருபரரின் காலம் ……………………..
அ) கி.பி. 15
ஆ) கி.பி. 17
இ) கி.பி. 18
ஈ) கி.பி. 16
Answer:
ஆ) கி.பி. 17

Question 2.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கத்தில் உள்ள வெண்பாக்கள் ……………………
அ) 100
ஆ) 102
இ) 103
ஈ) 104
Answer:
ஆ) 102

குறுவினா

Question 1.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கம் – பெயர்க்காரணம் கூறுக.
Answer:
மக்களின் வாழ்வுக்குத் தேவையான நீதிகளைச் சுட்டிக்காட்டுவதால், இந்நூல் நீதிநெறி விளக்கம் எனப் பெயர்பெற்றது.

Question 2.
குமரகுருபரர் இயற்றிய நூல்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

• கந்தர் கலிவெண்பா
• கயிலைக் கலம்பகம்
• சகலகலாவல்லி மாலை
• மீனாட்சியம்மை பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்
• முத்துக்குமாரசுவாமி பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
குமரகுருபரர் பற்றி நீவிர் அறிந்தவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:
பெயர் : குமரகுருபரர்
பிறந்த ஊர் : ஸ்ரீவைகுண்டம்
பெற்றோர் : சண்முக சிகாமணி – சிவகாமசுந்தரி
காலம் : கி.பி. 17
இயற்றிய நூல்கள் : திருவாரூர் நான்மணிமாலை, கந்தர்கலிவெண்பா, கயிலைக் கலம்பகம், சகலகலாவல்லிமாலை, மீனாட்சியம்மை பிள்ளைத்தமிழ், முத்துக்குமாரசுவாமி பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் முதலியன.

சொல்லும் பொருளும்

1. கலன் – அணிகலன்
2. முற்ற – ஒளிர
3. வேண்டாவாம் – தேவையில்லை

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Relations and Functions Ex 1.5

Exercise 1.5 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 1
Using the functions f and g given below, find fog and gof. Check whether fog = gof.
(i) f(x) = x – 6, g(x) = x²
(ii) f(x) = \(\frac{2}{x}\), g(x) = 2x² – 1
(iii) f(x) = \(\frac{x+6}{3}\) g(x) = 3 – x
(iv) f(x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4
(v) f(x) = 4x²– 1,g(x) = 1 + x
Solution:
(i) f(x) = x – 6, g(x) = x²
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x²) = x² – 6 …………….. (1)
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(x – 6) = (x – 6)²
= x² + 36 – 12x = x² – 12x + 36 ……………… (2)
(1) ≠ (2)
∴ fog(x) ≠ gof(x)

(iii) f(x) = \(\frac{x+6}{3}\) g(x) = 3 – x

(iv) f(x) = 3 + x, g(x) = x – 4
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x – 4) = 3 + x – 4
= x – 1 ………… (1)
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(3 + x) = 3 + x – 4
= x – 1 ……………… (2)
Here fog(x) = gof(x)

(v) f(x) = 4x² – 1, g(x) = 1 + x
fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(1 + x) = 4(1 + x)² – 1
= 4(1 + x² + 2x) – 1 = 4 + 4x² + 8x – 1
= 4x² + 8x + 3 ……………. (1)
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(4x² – 1)
= 1 + 4x² – 1 = 4x² …………….. (2)
(1) ≠ (2)
∴ fog(x) ≠ gof(x)

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Find the value of k, such that f o g = g o f

(i) f(x) = 3x + 2, g(x) = 6x – k
Answer:
f(x) = 3x + 2 ;g(x) = 6x – k
fog = f[g(x)]
= f (6x – k)
= 3(6x – k) + 2
= 18x – 3K + 2
g0f= g [f(x)]
= g (3x + 2)
= 6(3x + 2) – k
= 18x + 12 – k
But given fog = gof.
18x – 3x + 2 = 18x + 12 – k
-3k + 2 = 12 – k
-3 k + k = 12-2
-2k = 10
k = \(\frac { -10 }{ 2 } \) = -5
The value of k = -5

(ii) f(x) = 2x – k, g(x) = 4x + 5
Answer:
f(x) = 2x – k ; g(x) = 4x + 5
fog = f[g(x)]
= f(4x + 5)
= 2(4x + 5) – k
= 8x + 10 – k
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(2x – k)
= 4(2x – k) + 5
= 8x – 4k + 5
But fog = gof
8x + 10 – k = 8x – 4k + 5
-k + 4k = 5 – 10
3k = -5
k = \(\frac { -5 }{ 3 } \)
The value of k = \(\frac { -5 }{ 3 } \)

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Answers Question 3.
if f(x) = 2x – 1, g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), show that fog = gof = x
Solution:
f(x) = 2x – 1, g(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{2}\), fog = gof = x

Ex 1.5 Class 10 Samacheer Question 4.
(i) If f (x) = x² – 1, g(x) = x – 2 find a, if g o f(a) = 1.
(a) Find k, if f(k) = 2k -1 and
fof (k) = 5.
Answer:
(i) f(x) = x² – 1 ; g(x) = x – 2 .
gof = g [f(x)]
= g(x² – 1)
= x² – 1 – 2
= x² – 3
given gof (a) = 1
a² – 3 = 1 [But go f(x) = x² – 3]
a² = 4
a = \(\sqrt { 4 }\) = ± 2
The value of a = ± 2

(ii) f(k) = 2k – 1 ; fof(k) = 5
fof = f[f(k)]
= f(2k – 1)
= 2(2k – 1) – 1
= 4k – 2 – 1
= 4k – 3
fof (k) = 5
4k – 3 = 5
4k = 5 + 3
4k = 8
k = \(\frac { 8 }{ 4 } \) = 2
The value of k = 2

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Question 5.
Let A,B,C ⊂ N and a function f: A → B be defined by f(x) = 2x + 1 and g : B → C be defined by g(x) = x². Find the range of fog and gof
Solution:
f(x) = 2x + 1
g(x) = x²
fog(x) = fg(x)) = f(x²) = 2x² + 1
gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(2x + 1) = (2x + 1)²
= 4x² + 4x + 1
Range of fog is
{y/y = 2x² + 1, x ∈ N}
Range of gof is
{y/y = (2x + 1)², x ∈ N}.

10th Maths 1.5 Exercise Question 6.
Let f(x) = x² – 1. Find (i) fof (ii) fofof
Answer:
f(x) = x² – 1
(i) fof = f[f{x)]
= f(x² – 1)
= (x² – 1)² – 1
= x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1
= x⁴ – 2x²

(ii) fofof = fof[f(x)]
= fof (x² – 1)
= f(x² – 1)² – 1
= f(x⁴ – 2x² + 1 – 1)
= f (x⁴ – 2x²)
fofof = (x⁴ – 2x²)² – 1

10th Maths Exercise 1.5 In Tamil Question 7.
If f: R → R and g : R → R are defined by f(x) = x⁵ and g(x) = x⁴ then check if f,g are one-one and fog is one-one?
Solution:
f(x) = x⁵
g(x) = x⁴
fog = fog(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x⁴)
= (x⁴)⁵ = x²⁰
f is one-one, g is not one-one.
∵ g(1) = 1⁴ = 1
g(-1) = ( -1)⁴ = 1
Different elements have same images
fog is not one-one. [∵ fog (1) = fog (-1) = 1]

Exercise 1.5 Class 10 Maths Question 8.
Consider the functions f(x), g(x), h(x) as given below. Show that
(f o g) o h = f o(g o h) in each case.
(i) f(x) = x – 1, g(x) = 3x + 1 and h(x) = x²
(ii) f(x) = x², g(x) = 2x and h(x) = x + 4
(iii) f(x) = x – 4, g(x) = x² and h(x) = 3x – 5
Answer:
(i) f(x) = x – 1, g (x) = 3x + 1, h(x) = x²
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(3x + 1)
= 3x + 1 – 1
fog = 3x
(fog) o h(x) = fog [h(x)] ,
= fog (x²)
= 3(x²)
(fog) oh = 3x² …..(1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(x²)
= 3(x²) + 1
= 3x² +1
fo(goh) x = f [goh(x)]
= f[3x² + 1]
= 3x² + 1 – 1
= 3x² ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(fog) oh = fo (goh)
Hence it is verified

(ii) f(x) = x² ; g (x) = 2x and h(x) = x + 4
(fog) x = f[g(x)]
= f (2x)
= (2x)²
= 4x²
(fog) oh (x) = fog [h(x)]
= fog (x + 4)
= 4(x + 4)²
= 4[x² + 8x + 16]
= 4x² + 32x + 64 …. (1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(x + 4)
= 2(x + 4)
= 2x + 8
fo(goh) x = fo [goh(x)]
= f[2x + 8]
= (2x + 8)²
= 4×2 + 32x + 64 …. (2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(fog) oh = fo(goh)

(iii) f(x) = x – 4 ; g (x) = x²; h(x) = 3x – 5
fog (x) = f[g(x)]
= f(x²)
= x² – 4
(fog) oh (x) = fog [h(x)]
= fog (3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)² – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(1)
goh (x) = g[h(x)]
= g(3x – 5)
= (3x – 5)²
= 9x² + 25 – 30x
fo(goh)x = f[goh(x)]
= f[9x² – 30x + 25]
= 9x² – 30x + 25 – 4
= 9x² – 30x + 21 ….(2)
From (1) and (2) we get
(fog) oh = fo(goh)

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Question 9.
Let f ={(-1, 3),(0, -1),(2, -9)} be a linear function from Z into Z . Find f(x).
Solution:
f ={(-1, 3), (0, -1), 2, -9)
f(x) = (ax) + b ………… (1)
is the equation of all linear functions.
∴ f(-1) = 3
f(0) = -1
f(2) = -9
f(x) = ax + b
f(-1) = -a + b = 3 …………… (2)
f(0) = b = -1
-a – 1 = 3 [∵ substituting b = – 1 in (2)]
-a = 4
a = -4
The linear function is -4x – 1. [From (1)]

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 1.5 Question 10.
In electrical circuit theory, a circuit C(t) is called a linear circuit if it satisfies the superposition principle given by C(at₁ + bt₂) = aC(t₁) + bC(t₂), where a, b are constants. Show that the circuit C(t) = 31 is linear.
Answer:
Given C(t) = 3t
C(at₁) = 3at₁ …. (1)
C(bt₂) = 3 bt₂ …. (2)
Add (1) and (2)
C(at₁) + C(bt₂) = 3at₁ + 3bt₂
C(at₁ + bt₂) = 3at₁ + 3bt₂
= Cat₁ + Cbt₂ [from (1) and (2)]
∴ C(at₁ + bt₂) = C(at₁ + bt₂)
Superposition principle is satisfied.
∴ C(t) = 3t is a linear function.

Students who are preparing for the Science exam can download this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 12 from here for free of cost. These Tamilnadu State Board Textbook Solutions PDF cover all 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Book Back Questions and Answers.

All these concepts of Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 1 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 12 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 12th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology solutions of Class 12th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the correct answer.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Pdf Question 1.
Casparian strips are present in the ______ of the root.
(a) cortex
(b) pith
(c) pericycle
(d) endodermis.
Answer:
(d) endodermis

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Question 2.
The endarch condition is the characteristic feature of:
(a) root
(b) stem
(c) leaves
(d) flower
Answer:
(b) stem

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Question 3.
The xylem and phloem arranged side by side on same radius is called ______.
(a) radial
(b) amphivasal
(c) conjoint
(d) none of these.
Answer:
(c) conjoint

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Notes Question 4.
Which is formed during anaerobic respiration?
(a) Carbohydrate
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Acetyl CoA
(d) Pyruvate.
Answer:
(b) Ethyl alcohol

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 Questions And Answers Question 5.
Kreb’s cycle takes place in:
(a) chloroplast
(b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) stomata
(d) inner mitochondrial membrane
Answer:
(b) mitochondrial matrix

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Question 6.
Oxygen is produced at what point during photosynthesis?
(a) when ATP is converted to ADP
(b) when CO₂ is fixed
(c) when H₂O is splitted
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(b) when CO₂ is fixed

II. Fill in the blanks

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Physiology Question 1.
Cortex lies between ______.
Answer:
Epidermis and endodermis.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 One Mark Questions Question 2.
Xylem and phloem occur on the same radius constitute a vascular bundle called ______.
Answer:
Conjoint.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 3.
Glycolysis takes place in ______.
Answer:
The cytoplasm of the cell.

10th Science 12th Chapter 12 Question 4.
The source of O₂ liberated in photosynthesis is ______.
Answer:
Byproduct.

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Class 10 In Tamil Question 5.
________ is ATP factory of the cells.
Answer:
Mitochondria.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement

Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Meaning In Tamil Question 1.
Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of water in a plant.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Phloem tissue is involved in the transport of food in plants.

10th Science Plant Anatomy And Plant Physiology Book Back Answers Question 2.
The waxy protective covering of a plant is called cuticle.
Answer:
True.

Plants Anatomy And Physiology Question 3.
In monocot, stem cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: In monocot stem, the cambium is absent in between xylem and phloem.

Plant Anatomy And Physiology Question 4.
Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot root.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Palisade parenchyma cells occur below the upper epidermis in dicot leaf.

Plant Anatomy And Physiology Class 10 Pdf Question 5.
Mesophyll contains chlorophyll.
Answer:
True.

Question 6.
Anaerobic respiration produces more ATP than aerobic respiration.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
1. (c) Fem
2. (d) Secondary growth
3. (a) Dracaena
4. (e) Conduction of water
5. (b) Translocation of food.

V. Answer in a Sentence

Question 1.
What is the collateral vascular bundle?
Answer:
When xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery, it is called the collateral vascular bundle.

Question 2.
Where does the carbon that is used in photosynthesis come from?
Answer:
Carbondioxide present in atmosphere.

Question 3.
What is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway?
Answer:
Glycolysis is the common step in the aerobic and anaerobic pathway.

Question 4.
Name the phenomenon by which carbohydrates are oxidized to release ethyl alcohol.
Answer:
Fermentation (Anaerobic respiration)

VI. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give an account on a vascular bundle of dicot stem.
Answer:
The vascular bundles of dicot stem are:

• Conjoint: Xylem and phloem lie on the same radius.
• Collateral: Xylem lies towards the centre and phloem lies towards the periphery.
• Endarch: Protoxylem lies towards the centre and metaxylem lies towards the periphery.
• Open: The cambium is present in between xylem and phloem.

The vascular bundles are arranged in the form of a ring around the pith.

Question 2.
Write a short note on mesophyll.
Answer:
The tissue present between the upper and lower epidermis in leaf is called mesophyll. It is differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.

Question 3.
Draw and label the structure of oxysomes.
Answer:

Question 4.
Name the three basic tissues system in flowering plants.
Answer:
The three basic tissue system in flowering plants are:

1. Dermal or Epidermal tissue system
2. Ground tissue system
3. Vascular tissue system

Question 5.
What is photosynthesis and wherein a cell does it occur?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is a process in which the green plants use sunlight and the green pigment chlorophyll, to synthesize, nutrients from carbon dioxide from air and water. The photosynthesis occurs in green parts of the plant such as leaves, stems and floral buds.

Question 6.
What is respiratory quotient?
Answer:
The ratio of volume of carbon dioxide liberated and the volume of oxygen consumed, during respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (R.Q)
\(\mathrm{R} . \mathrm{Q} .=\frac{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{CO}_{2} \text { liberated }}{\text { Volume of } \mathrm{O}_{2} \mathrm{consumed}}\)

Question 7.
Why should the light dependent reaction occur before the light independent reaction?
Answer:
During light dependent reaction photosynthesis pigment absorb the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂.
During light independent CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of ATP and NADPH₂ produced during light dependent reaction.

Question 8.
Write the reaction for photosynthesis.
Answer:

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate the following
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root
(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration.
Answer:
(a) Monocot root and Dicot root

(b) Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration

Question 2.
Describe and name three stages of cellular respiration that aerobic organisms use to obtain energy from glucose.
Answer:
The three stages of Aerobic respiration are:
(i) Glycolysis (Glucose splitting): It is the breakdown of one molecule of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid. Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell. It is the first step of both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

(ii) Krebs Cycle: This cycle occurs in the mitochondria matrix. At the end of glycolysis, 2 molecules of pyruvic acid enter into mitochondria. The oxidation of pyruvic acid into CO₂ and water takes place through this cycle. It is also called the Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle (TCA).

(iii) Electron Transport Chain: This is accomplished through a system of electron carrier complex called electron transport chain (ETC) located on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. NADH₂ and FADH₂ molecules formed during glycolysis and Krebs cycle are oxidised to NAD⁺ and FAD⁺ to release the energy via electrons. As they move, the electron release energy which is trapped by ADP to synthesis ATP. This is called oxidative phosphorylation. In this O₂ gets reduced to water.

Question 3.
How does the light – dependent reaction differ from the light – independent reaction? What are the end products and reactants in each? Where does each reaction occur within the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light – dependent photosynthesis is called Hill reaction or Light reaction. The Light independent reactions are called Biosynthetic phase.

In the light – dependent reaction, the chlorophyll absorbs the light energy and convert it into chemical energy ATP and NADPH₂. In the light – independent reaction, CO₂ is reduced into carbohydrates with the help of light generated ATP and NADPH₂. The light – dependent reaction is carried out in the Grana of the chloroplast. The Light independent reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills(HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
The reactions of photosynthesis make up a biochemical pathway.
(A) What are the reactants and products for both light and dark reactions?
(B) Explain how the biochemical pathway of photosynthesis recycles many of its own reactions and identify the recycled reactants.
Answer:
(a) Light reactions are carried out in the Thylakoid membranes (Grana) of the chloroplast which use water and energy from the Sun to produce NADPH, ATP and Oxygen. The Dark reaction is carried out in the stroma of the chloroplast. It uses NADPH, ATP and CO₂ and produces NADP + ADP + P and high energy sugars.

(b) The Light reactions use light to synthesize ATP and NADPH. The dark reaction or Calvin cycle uses these reactants to produce sugar from additional CO₂ molecule. This cycle then produces NAP + ADP + P; (inorganic phosphate) which is used in the light reactions, with water molecules to produce ATP and NADPH again.

Question 2.
Where do the light-dependent reaction and the Calvin cycle occur in the chloroplast?
Answer:
Light-dependent reaction takes place in the presence of light energy in thylakoid membranes (grana) of the chloroplast Calvin cycle occurs at the stroma of the chloroplast.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Additional Questions Solved

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The father of Plant Anatomy is _____.
(a) Melvin Calvin
(b) C.N.R. Rao
(c) Robin Hill
(d) Nehemiah Grew.
Answer:
(d) Nehemiah Grew.

Question 2.
The passage cells are found in endodermis of:
(a) dicot stem
(b) monocot stem
(c) dicot root
(d) dicot leaf
Answer:
(c) dicot root

Question 3.
The vascular bundle consists of _____.
(a) Xylem and Phloem
(b) Hypodermis and Endodermis
(c) Cortex and Pericycle
(d) Pith and Stele.
Answer:
(a) Xylem and Phloem

Question 4.
The vascular bundles are skull shaped in:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

Question 5.
The protoxylem lacuna is present in the vascular bundles of:
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Answer:
(d) monocot stem

II. Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The epidermis has many minute pores called _____.
Answer:
Stomata.

Question 2.
Epiblema, the outermost layer of the root is called ____ or _____ layer.
Answer:
Rhizodermis or Piliferous.

Question 3.
All the tissues, inner to Endodermis constitute _____.
Answer:
Stele.

Question 4.
______ provides mechanical support to plants.
Answer:
Sclerenchyma.

Question 5.
The barrel-shaped innermost layer of Dicot stem Endodermis is also called _____.
Answer:
Starch Sheath.

Question 6.
Each vascular bundle of monocot stem is surrounded by a few-layer of sclerenchyma cells called _____.
Answer:
Bundle Sheath

Question 7.
______ consists of sieve tubes and elements of companion cells.
Answer:
Phloem.

III. State whether the statements are true or false. Correct the false statement.

Question 1.
Pith is differentiated in monocot stems.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Pith is not differentiated in monocot stems.

Question 2.
In monocot leaves, the mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade and spongy parenchyma.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
Dicot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: Monocot leaf is an isobilateral leaf.

Question 4.
The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the stele.
Answer:
False.
Correct Statement: The lateral roots of dicot plant originate from the pericycle.

Question 5.
Cuticle and Stomata are absent in Epiblema of Dicot root.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.

Answer:
1. (d) Colourless plastids
2. (c) Chlorophyll and Carotenoids
3. (e) Green pigment
4. (b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
5. (a) Photosystems.

V. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Where does the break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide, water and energy takes place?
Answer:
The break down of pyruvate to give carbondioxide. water and energy takes place in Mitochondria.

Question 2.
Draw the overview of Hill and Calvin Cycle.
Answer:

Question 3.
Name the energy currency in the living organism. When and where it is produced?
Answer:
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is called the energy currency in the living organism. It is produced in mitochondria during the process of respiration.

Question 4.
What are Bulliform cells?
Answer:
Some of the upper epidermal cells of monocot leaves are large and thin-walled. So they are called Bulliform cells.

Question 5.
Label the parts of the transverse section of Dicot Root.
Answer:

Question 6.
Define conjuctive tissue.
Answer:
The tissue present between xylem and phloem is called conjuctive tissue. In monocot the conjuctive tissue is sclerenchymatous tissue and in dicot it is parenchymatous tissue.

Question 7.
List out the two important factors which affect photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Internal Factors:
   • Pigments
   • Leafage
   • Accumulation of carbohydrates
   • Hormones
2. External Factors:
   • Light
   • Carbon dioxide
   • Temperature
   • Water
   • Mineral elements

Question 8.
Mention the components and functions of different Tissue Systems.
Answer:

VI. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
(a) Label the parts of the Transverse section of a monocot stem.
(b) Mention the differences between Dicot and Monocot stem.
Answer:
(a)

(b)

Question 2.
With a labelled diagram, explain the structure and function of mitochondria.
Answer:
Mitochondrial Membranes: It consists of two membranes called inner and outer membrane. Each membrane is 60 – 70 A° thick. The outer mitochondrial membrane is smooth and freely permeable to most small molecules. It contains enzymes, proteins and lipids. It has porin molecules (proteins) which form channels for passage of molecules through it.

The inner mitochondrial membrane is semi – permeable membrane and regulates the passage of materials into and out of the mitochondria. It is rich in enzymes and carrier proteins. It consists of 80% of proteins and lipids.

Cristae: The inner mitochondrial membrane gives rise to finger-like projections called cristae. These cristae increase the inner surface area (fold in the inner membrane) of the mitochondria to hold a variety of enzymes.

Oxysomes: The inner mitochondrial membrane bear minute regularly spaced tennis racket shaped particles known as oxysomes (F₁ particle). They involve in ATP synthesis.

Mitochondrial matrix: It is a complex mixture of proteins and lipids. The matrix contains enzymes for Krebs cycle, mitochondrial ribosomes(70 S), tRNAs and mitochondrial DNA.

Question 3.
(a) Draw and label the ultrastructure of a chloroplast.
(b) Write the structure and function of the chloroplast.
Answer:
(a) Ultra Structure of a Chloroplast.

(b) Structure and function of Chloroplast.
Chloroplasts are green plastids, containing the green pigment called Chlorophyll. It has the following structures:

1. Envelope: It has outer and inner membranes, which are separated by intermembrane space.
2. Stroma: Matrix present inside to the membrane is called stroma, which contains DNA, 70 S ribosomes and other molecules needed for protein synthesis.
3. Thylakoids: It consists of thylakoid membrane that encloses thylakoid lumen. Thylakoid forms a stack of disc – like structures called granum.
4. Grana: Some of the thylakoids are arranged in the form of discs, stacked one above the other called grana. These stacks are termed as grana, they are interconnected to each other by membranous lamellae called Fret channels.

Functions:

• Photosynthesis
• Storage of starch
• Synthesis of fatty acids
• Storage of lipids
• Formation of chloroplasts.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
What are non – green plants? Give an example.
Answer:
The plants, which do not have the green pigment, Chlorophyll and so they cannot prepare their food independently are called non-green plants. Eg. Orchids lack Chlorophyll.

Question 2.
Protophloem is the first formed phloem. If the protophloem surrounds by xylem, what kind of arrangement of phloem would you call it Give example.
Answer:
If the protophloem is surrounded by xylem the vascular bundle is said to be Concentric Amphivasal Vascular bundles. Eg: Dracaena

Question 3.
How does photosynthesis take place on plants that have, red, brown and yellow leaves, and are not green? How do they prepare food?
Answer:
These leaves have a much larger concentration of chromoplasts, which synthesize and store pigments such as orange carotenes, yellow xanthophylls and other red pigments. But these leaves, still possess chlorophyll ‘a’ and chlorophyll ‘b’ and can synthesize food. But these leaves have more chromoplasts and so the leaves do not appear green. Yet they can prepare food.

Question 4.
The cross-section of a plant material shown the following features on viewing under the microscope.
(a) Radially arranged Vascular bundles
(b) Xylem is exarch and polyarch
(c) Metaxylem is polygonal in shape.
Identify the slide.
Answer:
The given features are characters of dicot root.

Believing that the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 12th Science Chapter 12 Plant Anatomy and Plant Physiology Questions and Answers learning resource will definitely guide you at the time of preparation. For more details about Tamilnadu State Board Class 12th Science Chapter 12 textbook solutions, ask us in the below comments and we’ll revert back to you asap.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.6

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Simplify


Solution:

Ex 3.6 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Simplify


Solution:

Exercise 3.6 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Subtract \(\frac{1}{x^{2}+2}\) from \(\frac{2 x^{3}+x^{2}+3}{\left(x^{2}+2\right)^{2}}\)
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 Question 4.
Which rational expression should be subtracted from \(\frac{x^{2}+6 x+8}{x^{3}+8}\) to get \(\frac{3}{x^{2}-2 x+4}\)
Solution:

Exercise 3.6 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 5.

Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 3.6 In Tamil Question 6.
If A = \(\frac{x}{x+1}\), B = \(\frac{1}{x+1}\), prove that

Solution:

10th Maths 3.6 Question 7.
Pari needs 4 hours to complete a work. His friend Yuvan needs 6 hours to complete the same work. How long will be take to complete if they work together?
Answer:
Let the work done by Pari and Yuvan together be x
Work done by part = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \)
Work done by Yuvan = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \)
By the given condition
\(\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \) + \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \) ⇒ \(\frac { 3+2 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \)
\(\frac { 5 }{ 12 } \) = \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \)
5x = 12 ⇒ x = \(\frac { 12 }{ 5 } \)
x = 2 \(\frac { 2 }{ 5 } \) hours (or) 2 hours 24 minutes

10th Maths Algebra Question 8.
Iniya bought 50 kg of fruits consisting of apples and bananas. She paid twice as much per kg for the apple as she did for the banana. If Iniya bought Rs. 1800 worth of apples and Rs. 600 worth bananas, then how many kgs of each fruit did she buy?
Answer:
Let the quantity of apples and bananas purchased be ‘x’ and ‘y’
By the given condition
x + y = 50 ………(1)
Cost of one kg of apple = \(\frac { 1800 }{ x } \)
Cost of one kg of banana = \(\frac { 600 }{ y } \)
By the given condition
One kg of apple = \(2 \frac{(600)}{y}\)
Total cost of fruits purchased = 1800 + 600
x × 2 \(\frac{(600)}{y}\) + y \(\frac{(600)}{y}\) = 2400
\(\frac { 1200x }{ y } \) = 2400 – 600
\(\frac { 1200x }{ y } \) = 1800
1200 x = 1800 × y
x = \(\frac { 1800x }{ 1200 } \) = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \)
Substitute the value of x in (1)
\(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) + y = 50
\(\frac { 5y }{ 2 } \) = 50
5y = 100 ⇒ y = \(\frac { 100 }{ 5 } \) = 20
x = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) = \(\frac{3 \times 20}{2}\)
= 30
The quantity of apples = 30 kg
The quantity of bananas = 20 kg

Guys who are planning to learn and understand the topics of 10th Social Science Geography can grab this Tamilnadu State board solutions for Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers from this page for free of cost. Make sure you use them as reference material at the time of preparation & score good grades in the final exams.

Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science Geography Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science Geography Board solutions for Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Climate And Natural Vegetation Of India Class 10 Question 1.
Meteorology is the science of ………
(a) Weather
(b) Social
(c) Political
(d) Human
Answer:
(a) Weather

Climate And Natural Vegetation Of India Question 2.
We wear cotton during:
(a) Summer
(b) Winter
(c) Rainy
(d) Northeast monsoon
Answer:
(a) Summer

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Question 3.
Western disturbances cause rainfall in ………..
(a) Tamilnadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Answer Question 4.
……………. helps in quick ripening of mangoes along the coast of Kerala and Karnataka.
(a) Loo
(b) Norwester
(c) Mango showers
(d) Jet stream
Answer:
(c) Mango showers

Climate Of India Is Labelled As Dash Question 5.
…….. is a line joining the places of equal rainfall.
(a) Isohyets
(b) Isobar
(c) Isotherm
(d) Latitudes
Answer:
(a) Isohyets

The Climate Of India Is Labelled As Question 6.
Climate of India is labelled as:
(a) Tropical humid
(b) Equatorial Climate
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate
(d) Temperate Climate
Answer:
(c) Tropical Monsoon Climate

Question 7.
The monsoon forests are otherwise called as ………
(a) Tropical evergreen forest
(b) Deciduous forest
(c) Mangrove forest
(d) Mountain forest
Answer:
(b) Deciduous forest

Question 8.
……………. forests are found above 2400m Himalayas.
(a) Deciduous forests
(b) Alpine forests
(c) Mangrove forests
(d) Tidal forests
Answer:
(b) Alpine forests

Question 9.
Sesahachalam hills, a Biosphere reserve is situated in …….
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
Answer:
(b) Andhra Pradesh

Question 10.
……………. is a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(a), (b) and (c)

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (b)
4. (a)
5. (c)

III. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option from the given below ones.

Question 1.
Assertion(A): Monsoons are a complex meteorological phenomenon.
Reason(R): Meteorologists have developed a number of concepts about the origin of monsoons.
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A

Question 2.
Assertion(A): The Himalayas acts as a climatic barrier.
Reason(R): The Himalayas prevents cold winds from central Asia and keep the Indian Subcontinent warm. (Give option for this questions).
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A
(b) Both (A) and (B) are true: R does not explain A
(c) (A) is correct (R) is false
(d) (A) is false (R) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (B) are true: R explains A

IV. Choose the inappropriate answer.

Question 1.
Tidal forests are found in and around:
(a) Desert
(b) The deltas of Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) The delta of Godavari
(d) The delta of Mahanadhi
Answer:
(a) Desert

Question 2.
Climate of India is affected by ……
(a) Latitudinal extent
(b) Altitude
(c) Distance from the sea
(d) Soil
Answer:
(d) Soil

V. Answer briefly

Question 1.
Define ‘Meteorology’.
Answer:

1. The branch of science concerned with the processes and phenomena of the atmosphere.
2. It is a means of forecasting the weather.

Question 2.
What is meant by ‘normal lapse rate’?
Answer:
Temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 metres of ascent. It is called normal lapse rate.

Question 3.
What are ‘jet streams’?
Answer:

1. ‘Jet Streams’ are the fast moving winds blowing in a narrow zone in the upper layer of the atmosphere.
2. They play a vital role in the onset of South West monsoon and cause Tropical depressions both during South West monsoon and Retreating monsoon.

Question 4.
Write a short note on ‘Monsoon wind’.
Answer:

• The word ‘monsoon’ has been derived from the Arabic word ‘Mausim’ which means ‘season’.
• These winds appear to blow from southwest for six months and from northeast for another six months.
• In India it is used to refer to the winds which reverse their directions in summer and winter.

Question 5.
Name the four distinct seasons of India.
Answer:
On the basis of the monsoon variations, the meteorologists recognize four distinct seasons of India. They are

1. Winter or Cold weather season (January-February).
2. Summer or Hot weather season (March-May).
3. Southwest monsoon or Rainy season (June-September).
4. Northeast monsoon season (October-November).

Question 6.
What is ‘burst of monsoon’?
Answer:

1. The Southwest monsoon winds are moisture laden winds because they originate from the Indian Ocean.
2. When they approach the southern part of Kerala they give rain with violent thunderstrom including the onset of monsoon and lightening. This is known as the ‘brust of the Monsoon’.

Question 7.
Name the areas which receive heavy rainfall.
Answer:

1. The areas that receive 200cm and above rainfall annually comes under heavy rainfall regions.
2. The Western coast, Assam, South Meghalaya, Tripura, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 8.
State places of mangrove forest in India.
Answer:

• The deltas of Ganga,
• The Mahanadi,
• The Krishna,
• The Godavari and
• The Kaveri is covered by mangrove forest in India.

Question 9.
Name the trees of tropical evergreen forest.
Answer:

1. Tropical evergreen forests are found in the areas where the annual rainfall is 200cm and more.
2. The most important trees of these forests are Ebony, Mahogany, Rubber, Rose wood, Iron wood, Cedar, Bamboo, Coconut, Cinchona and Candes.

Question 10.
Write any five biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:

1. Agasthyamalai
2. Dibru Saikhowa
3. Dihang Dibang
4. Great Nicobar
5. Gulf of Mannar
6. The Nilgiris
7. Sundarbans

Question 11.
What is ‘Project Tiger’?
Answer:

1. ‘Project Tiger” is a Project launched in April 1973 with the aim to conserve tiger population specifically constituted “Tiger Reserves” in India:
2. This project is benefited tremendously with an increase of over 60%. The 1979 consensus put the population at 3,015.

VI. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
Weather and Climate
Answer:

Question 2.
Tropical Evergreen Forest and Deciduous Forest.
Answer:

Question 3.
North Fast Monsoon and South West Monsoon.
Answer:

VII. Give reasons.

Question 1.
Western Coastal plain is narrow.
Answer:
The Western coastal plain is narrowly located in between the Arabian sea coast and the Western Ghats in a gap having 50 km width only.

Question 2.
India has a tropical monsoon climate.
Answer:
India has a monsoon type of climate because it lies between the latitudes 20° N to 20° S where monsoons are experienced. In this the wind charges direction with the change in season.The monsoon winds prevail mainly in Indian Ocean. The conditions are made in such a way that the winds blows from the South-West from April to October and from opposite direction, the north-east from October to April.

Question 3.
Mountains are cooler than the plains.
Answer:
As per the Normal Lapse rate phenomena temperature decreases with increasing altitudes at the rate of 6.5°C for every 1000 mts of ascent. Thus mountains are cooler than the plains.

VIII. Write in detail.

Question 1.
Write about South West Monsoon.
Answer:

1. The southwest monsoon is the most significant feature of the Indian climate.
2. The onset of the southwest monsoon takes place normally over the southern tip of the country by the first week of June, advances along the Konkan coast in early June and covers the whole country by 15th July.
3. The monsoon is influenced by global phenomenon like ElNino.
4. Prior to the onset of the southwest monsoon, the temperature in the north India reaches upto 46°C.
5. The sudden approach of monsoon wind over south India with lightning and thunder is termed as the ‘break’ or ‘burst of monsoon’.
6. It lowers the temperature of India to a large extent.
7. The monsoon wind strikes against the southern tip of Indian land mass and gets divided into two branches.
8. One branch starts from Arabian sea and the other from Bay of Bengal.
9. The Arabian sea branch of southwest monsoon gives heavy rainfall to the west coast of India as it is located in the windward side of the Western Ghats.
10. The other part which advances towards north is obstructed by Himalayan Mountains and results in heavy rainfall in north.
11. As Aravalli Mountain is located parallel to the wind direction, Rajasthan and western part do not get much rainfall from this branch.
12. The wind from Bay of Bengal branch moves towards northeast India and Myanmar.
13. This wind is trapped by a chain of mountains namely Garo, Khasi and Jaintia are mainly responsible for the heaviest rainfall caused at Mawsynram located in Meghalaya.
14. Later on, this wind travel towards west which results in decrease in rainfall from east to west.
15. Over all about 75% of Indian rainfall is received from this monsoon.
16. Tamilnadu which is located in the leeward side receives only a meagre rainfall.

Question 2.
Describe the forests of India.
Answer:
On the basis of climate , soil and land forms the natural vegetation of India

is divided into the following types:

Tropical Evergreen Forest:

1. These forests are found in areas with 200cm or more annual rainfall.
2. Western Ghats in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala , Andaman & Nicobar islands Assam, West Bengal, Nagaland, Mizoram, Manipur and Meghalaya states have this type of forests.
3. Important trees: Rubber, Mahogany, Ebony, Cedar etc not fully exploited due to dense foliage and lack of transport.

Tropical Deciduous Forest or Monsoon Forest:

1. They are found in the areas with 100 to 200cm annual rainfall.
2. Areas: Region from Punjab, Assam, Great Plains, Punjab Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Central India, Madhya Pradesh, Chattisgarh . In South India, Andhra Pradesh Telangana, Karnataka, TamilNadu and Kerala.
3. Important Trees: Teak, Sal, Bamboo, Sandal wood, Rose wood, Padauk etc. shed their leaves during spring and early summer. These forests are economically valuable as they provide timber wood and essential raw materials for industries.

Tropical Dry forest:

1. These forests are found in the areas with 50 to 100 cm rainfall.
2. These are found in East Rajasthan, western Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, West Karnataka and East TamilNadu.
3. Important trees: Bamboo, Kirkar, Khair, Babool.

Desert and Semi desert Vegetation:

1. They are also called Tropical thorn forests.
2. These are found in areas of less than 50cm annual rainfall.
3. They are found in the states of North west India., West Rajasthan, South west Haryana, North Gujarat and dry parts of Deccan plateau.
4. Babul, Khair and wild palms are common trees.

Mountain or Himalayan forests:
These forests are classified on the basis of altitude and amount of rainfall.

(a) Eastern Himalayan forests:

• These are found on the slopes of mountains in north east states.
• As they receive more than 200 cm rainfall the vegetation is of evergreen type.
• In the altitude between I200-2400m main trees like Sal, Oak, Laurel, Cinnamon, Chestnut are seen.
• From 2400 – 3600m altitude – Oak, Silver fir, pine, Spruce and Juniper are the major trees.

(b) Western Himalayan Forest:

• The rainfall of this region is moderate.
• These forests are found in the states of Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarkhand.
• Up to 900m altitude semi desert vegetation.
• From 900 m to 1800 m chirtree.
• From 1800m to 3000m altitude covered with semi temperatem coniferous forest.
• Deodar, Poplar and birch are the main trees.

Alpine Forests:

1. It occurs all along the Himalayas above 2400 m altitude.
2. These forest have mainly coniferous trees. Oak, Silver fir, Pine and Juniper are the main trees.

Tidal Forest:

1. These forests are also known as Mangrove forests.
2. These forests are found in and around the deltas estuaries and creeks prone to tidal influence.
3. They are Swampy in nature.
4. The delta of Ganga – Brahmaputra, Deltas of Mahanadi, Godavari and Krishna have this type of forests.

Coastal forests:

1. These are littoral forests generally found in coastal areas.
2. Casuarina, Palm and Coconut are the main trees.
3. The Eastern and Western coasts especially Kerala and Goa coasts are known for these forests.

Riverine Forests:

1. These forests are found along the rivers on Khader areas.
2. The riverines of Great plains have this type of vegetation.
3. These forests are known for tamarisk and tamarind trees.

Question 3.
Write the names of biosphere reserves and their location in India.
Answer:
Biosphere reserves are protected areas of land coastal environments wherein people are an integral component of the system.

IX. Map.

Mark the following in the outline map of India
1. Direction of South West Monsoon wind
2. Direction of North East Monsoon wind
3. Areas of heavy rainfall
4. Mountain forests
5. Panna biosphere reserve
6. Agasthiyamalai biosphere reserve
Map is given on the next page

In-Text Hots Questions:

Question 1.
Why is Mawsynram, the wettest place in the world.
Answer:
Mawsynram is the wettest place in the world because climate with an extraordinary showers and long monsoonal season and a short dry season.

Find Out:

Question 1.
Find out the temperature of Ooty (2240 m) if it is 35°C in Chennai (6.7 m).
Answer:
Due to the presence of trees and abundant flora, Ooty never experiences a hot day even in the peak of summer. Ooty’s weather is characterised by abundant sunshine, rains, chill and fresh air ushered by the spring season.

The temperature of Ooty is 22°C when the temperature of Chennai is 35°C.

Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The place that get rainfall from the western disturbance is
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmedabad
Answer:
(a) Jammu & Kashmir

Question 2.
Western Disturbances causes snowfall in:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Punjab
(c) Assam
(d) Kerala
Answer:
(a) Jammu and Kashmir

Question 3.
The Coastal areas enjoy climate.
(a) Continental
(b) Equable
(c) humid
Answer:
(b) Equable

Question 4.
The average rainfall of India is about:
(a) 118 cm
(b) 300 cm
(c) 100 cm
(d) 400 cm
Answer:
(a) 118 cm

Question 5.
The Predominant soil in the coastal plains and north Indian Plains is ………..
(a) Alluvial
(b) Black
(c) Arid
Answer:
(a) Alluvial

Question 6.
……………. trees are the most prominent of the Alpine forest.
(a) Mangrove
(b) Coniferous
(c) Coconut
(d) Teak
Answer:
(b) Coniferous

Question 7.
Thunderstorms are called Kalbaisakhis in ……….
(a) Chennai
(b) Haryana
(c) Punjab
Answer:
(c) Punjab

Question 8.
These forests are found along the rivers on Khadar areas:
(a) Coastal
(b) Evergreen
(c) Riverine
(d) Deciduous
Answer:
(c) Riverine

Question 9.
Frequent cyclones are formed in the ………
(a) Arabian Sea
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Indian Ocean
Answer:
(b) Bay of Bengal

Question 10.
Cold desert Biosphere Reserve is in:
(a) West Bengal
(b) Odisha
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Himachal Pradesh

Question 11.
The variation on …….. elements give rise to variety of vegetation.
(a) climate
(b) water
(c) monsoon
Answer:
(a) climate

Question 12.
…………….. is net a part of the world network biosphere reserves of UNESCO.
(a) Nilgiri
(b) Agasthiyamalai
(c) Great Nicobar
(d) Kachch
Answer:
(d) Kachch

Question 13.
In the coastal areas ……… plateau act as a barrier.
(a) Malwa
(b) Deccan
(c) Shillong
Answer:
(c) Shillong

Question 14.
Chennai enjoys ……. climate.
(a) equable
(b) continental
(c) moderate
Answer:
(a) equable

Question 15.
Continental climate is experienced by ………..
(a) Bombay
(b) Delhi
(c) Kolkatta
Answer:
(b) Delhi

Question 16.
The south-east trade winds originate in the ……..
(a) land
(b) ocean
(c) river bed
Answer:
(b) ocean

Question 17.
In the upper layers of the troposphere ……… are found.
(a) Jet streams
(b) hot streams
(c) Wet streams
Answer:
(a) Jet streams

Question 18.
The unifying factor of the climate of India is …….. winds.
(a) westerly
(b) northern
(c) monsoon
Answer:
(c) monsoon

Question 19.
Retreating monsoon winds flow from ………….
(a) land to sea
(b) Sea to land
(c) over land
Answer:
(a) land to sea

Question 20.
Kalbaisakhi are the thunder storms caused in ……..
(a) Punjab
(b) Assam
(c) Bihar
Answer:
(a) Punjab

Question 21.
Southwest monsoon get deflected when they cross the ………
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) equator
(c) Artie circle
Answer:
(b) equator

Question 22.
The Arabian sea branch of monsoon wind first strikes against the …………
(a) Eastern Ghats
(b) Deccan plateau
(c) Western Ghats
Answer:
(c) Western Ghats

Question 23.
The amount of rainfall received by ………. is 100 to 200 cm of rainfall.
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) punjab
Answer:
(b) Madhya Pradesh

Question 24.
The Old alluvium is called ……….
(a) Bhangar
(b) Khader
(c) Regur soil
Answer:
(a) Bhangar

Question 25.
The red soil is …….. of moisture.
(a) retentive
(b) high retentive
(c) non-retentive
Answer:
(c) non-retentive

Question 26.
The ……… soil is rich in humus and organic matter.
(a) Arid & Desert
(b) Laterite
(c) forest & mountain
Answer:
(c) forest & mountain

Question 27.
Palmyra is found in ………. forests.
(a) Tropical Evergreen
(b) Thorn and Scrub
(c) Tropical Deciduous Monsoon
Answer:
(b) Thorn and Scrub

Question 28.
In Tamil Nadu ………… forests are found in Vedaranyam.
(a) Thom & Scrub
(b) Tropical Evergreen
(c) Mangrove
Answer:
(c) Mangrove

Question 29.
Shrub vegetation is found in ……….
(a) Himadri
(b) Shiwalik Range
(c) Himachal
Answer:
(a) Himadri

Question 30.
Gir National Park is found in ………
(a) Gujarat
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttaranchal
Answer:
(a) Gujarat

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (e)
4. (a)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (c)
5. (b)

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

III. Fill in the blanks.

1. The cold polar winds from Central Asia is prevented by the ………..
2. The low pressure depressions originate over the Mediterranean sea is called ……….
3. Thunder showers in Kerala during May are called ………….
4. The occurrence of sudden rainfall with violent thunder and lightening is termed as ………..
5. The crop that grow well in black soil is ………..
6. The mighty ……… in the north play a vital role in influencing the climate of India.
7. The Himalayas act not only as physical barrier but also as ………
8. The diversion of the monsoon winds are responsible for ……. rainfall over the entire coastal area.
9. Since the northern plains are far away from the influence of the seas, they have ……….
10. The pressure belts and the wind systems follow the apparent movements of the ……….
11. The Velocity of winds depends upon the ……….. gradient.
12. The South-east trade wind blow from over ……… land in summer.
13. Jet streams cause rainfall in ……… India.
14. Mausim is an ………. word.
15. Mausim means ……… winds.
16. During the winter, the sun is overhead in the Tropic of ………
17. Tamil Nadu gets its winter rainfall from the …….. winds.
18. The snowfall in the hills of Jammu and Kashmir is caused by the ………..
19. The resins caused by the Western disturbances is useful for the cultivation of ………..
20. In Summer season, the Sun’s rays are vertical over ………
21. Equable climate is also called as the ……….
22. Mawsynram receives highest rainfall ……. in the world.
23. Project Tiger was launched in ……….
24. India has more than ……… of animal species.
25. India has a rich and diversified ……….
26. The Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL) was constituted in …………
27. Wet forest of Assam is the natural habitat of …………
28. ……….. is the only habitat remaining for Lion.
29 ……… and …….. Island has the minimum area under forest cover.
30. The species of animals are referred to as ……..
Answers:
1. Himalayas
2. Western disturbances
3. Mango showers
4. Monsoon Burst
5. Wheat
6. Himalayas
7. climatic
8. orographic
9. continental
10. Sun
11. pressure
12. hot
13. North-west
14. Arabic
15. reversal
16. capricorn
17. retreating monsoon
18. Western Disturbance
19. wheat
20. Tropic of cancer
21. British climate
22. 1141 cm
23. April 1973
24. 89,000
25. wildlife
26. 1952
27. elephant
28. Gir forest
29. Andaman, Nicobar
30. fauna

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
Which place has the lowest recorded temperature in India?
Answer:
Drass in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 2.
Which part of India experiences the highest range of temperature in a day?
Answer:
Desert of Rajasthan.

Question 3.
Where is monsoon experienced mainly?
Answer:
Monsoon are experienced mainly in 20° N to 20° S latitude.

Question 4.
What is meant by EL Nino?
Answer:
EL Nino is a Spanish word meaning ‘the child’ and refers to the baby christ.

Question 5.
When does winter season occur in India?
Answer:
The cold weather season begins from mid November in northern India and stay till February.

Question 6.
Which winds prevail during winter season?
Answer:
The north-east trade winds prevail over the country during winter season.

Question 7.
What is the duration of retreating monsoon in India?
Answer:
October – November

Question 8.
What are the effects of tropical cyclones?
Answer:
The effect of tropical cyclones is that it is often very destructive and cause great damage to life and properly.

Question 9.
Which are the regions that receive heavy rainfall and flood prone in India?
Answer:
The Western Coast and North-Eastern India

Question 10.
Which regions of India still has natural vegetation in real sense?
Answer:
In accessible regions of Himalayas, Hilly regions of Central India, Marusthali.

Question 11.
What kind of Vegetation is supported by the sandy soil of the desert?
Answer:
Cactus or thorny busters.

Question 12.
What does the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude in Himalayas result in?
Answer:
Succession of natural vegetation belt.

Question 13.
Name the most widespread forest of India.
Answer:
Tropical deciduous forest.

Question 14.
To what height does the trees of evergreen forests achieve?
Answer:
The trees reach great height up to 60 metres or even above.

Question 15.
Which important endangered animal is found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal?
Answer:
The one-horned rhinoceros are found in the jungles of Assam and West Bengal.

Question 16.
Name the important trees of Alpine Vegetation.
Answer:
Silver for, junipers, pines and birches.

Question 17.
Name two evergreen broad leaf trees.
Answer:
Oaks and Chestnut.

Question 18.
The undulating and rough terrains are areas of which kind of natural vegetation.
Answer:
Grassland and Woodland.

Question 19.
What is the important characteristic features of dense mangrove forest?
Answer:
In mangrove trees, roots of the plants are submerged under water.

Question 20.
Name the important varieties of trees found in Mangrove forests.
Answer:
In the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta, sundari trees are found, which provide durable hard timber. Palm, coconut, keora, agar, abo grow in some parts of the delta.

Question 21.
How are Tropical Deciduous forests divided on the basis of availability of water?
Answer:

• They are divided into two types: Moist and dry deciduous forests.

Question 22.
To which type of vegetation does rubber belong to?
Answer:
Tropical rainforests

Question 23.
What is the natural habitat of elephant?
Answer:
Wet forest of Assam.

Question 24.
What is the natural habitat for wild ass and camels?
Answer:
Arid area of Rann of Kutch and the Thar desert.

Question 25.
Name the biosphere reserves of India which is included in the world network of bio reserve?
Answer:
Sundarbans, Nilgiris, Gulf of Manner, Nanda Devi.

Question 26.
Which biosphere reserve is located at the trijunction of Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu?
Answer:
Nilgiris

Question 27.
Which are the most majestic animals among the mammals? Where are they found?
Answer:
Elephants. They are found in the hot wet forests of Assam, Karnataka and Kerala.

Question 28.
When was Wildlife Protection Act implemented?
Answer:
Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in 1972 in India.

Question 29.
Where are tigers mostly found in India?
Answer:
Tigers are found in the forests of Madhya Pradesh, the Sundarbans of West Bengal and the Himalayan region.

Question 30.
Name the migrating birds that come to India during winter.
Answer:
Siberian Crane and Flamingo.

V. Answer briefly.

Question 1.
What is the weather?
Answer:
Weather refers to the state of atmosphere of a place at a given point of time.

Question 2.
Name the factors determining the climate of India.
Answer:

1. Latitude
2. Altitude
3. Distance from the seas
4. Monsoon winds
5. Position of Mountains; and
6. Jet Streams

Question 3.
Write a note on Norwesters:
Answer:

1. Northwestern or Kalbaisakhis are the local severe storms or violent thunderstorms with strong winds and rain lasting for short durations.
2. It occurs over the eastern and Northeastern parts of Bihar, West Bengal ‘ and Assam during April and May.

Question 4.
What is the effect of latitude on the climate of India?
Answer:

• The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country.
• Almost half of the country lying south of the Tropic of cancer, belongs to the tropical area and areas of north of the Tropic lies in the sub-tropics.

Therefore, India’s climate has characteristics of tropical as well as subtropical climates.

Question 5.
How do western disturbances helpful to agriculture?
Answer:
Western disturbances occur during cold weather season. These winds cause rainfall in Punjab-Haryana and Himachal Pradesh and is very useful for the cultivation of winter wheat.

Question 6.
How do the north east trade winds of India get reversed into south west monsoon winds?
Answer:

• By early June, the low pressure condition over the northern plains intensifies It attracts the trade winds of the southern hemisphere.
• These south-east trade winds originate over the warm subtropical areas of the southern oceans.
• They cross the equator and blow in a southwesterly direction entering the Indian Peninsular as the south west monsoon.

Question 7.
Write a note on the uneven distribution of rainfall in India.
Answer:

1. The distribution of rainfall in India is highly uneven.
2. About 11% area receives over 200 cm of annual, rainfall, 21% area receives 125-200 cm. 37% area receives 75-125 cm, 24% area gets 35 to 75 cm and 7% area gets less than 35 cm.

Question 8.
What are the steps taken by government to protect flora and fauna?
Answer:

• Financial and technical assistance to Botanical Garden.
• Eco development projects have been introduced.
• National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Biosphere reserves have been set up.

Question 9.
What were the objectives of Wild life (protection) Act of 1972?
Answer:
The Government of India enacted wild life protection Act in 1972.
The objectives of this Act.

1. Protecting the wild life of the country.
2. To control poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in wild life and its diversities.

Question 10.
Describe about Norwesters.
Answer:
When the winds blow from south-west to north-east directions in Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal, they cause local storms called “Norwesters” in the north eastern part of India during the summer season. Thus thunder storms are also called Kalbaisakhi (of the month of Baisakh) in Punjab.

Question 11.
Name the state animal of Tamil Nadu. Why its population is continuously decreasing?
Answer:

1. The Nilgiri Tahr is the state animal of Tamil Nadu.
2. In the Western Ghats continuous poaching and Eucalyptus cultivation hamper its habitat causing its depletion.

Question 12.
Name the biosphere reserve that have been included in the world network of biosphere reserve.
Answer:

1. The Sundarbans in the West Bengal
2. Nanda Devi in Uttarkhand
3. The Gulf of Manner in Tamil Nadu
4. The Nilgiris (Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu)

Question 13.
Name some Bird sanctuaries in India.
Answer:
Pulicat, Vedanthangal, Point Calimer-TamilNadu.
Chilka lake – Odhisha
Bharathpur – Rajasthan
Ranganthittu – Karnataka.

Question 14.
Describe the climatic conditions of Tropical Deciduous forests.
Answer:
Climate of tropical deciduous forests is influenced by the monsoons. These forests are found in regions receiving them. Forests shed their leaves for 6 – 8 weeks in dry summer, to conserve moisture.

Question 15.
Where are migrating birds found in India?
Answer:
During winter, birds auch as Siberian cranes come in large numbers. One such place favourable with birds is the Rann of Kutch. At a place where the desert merges with the sea, flamingo with their brilliant pink plumage come in thousands to build nest mounds from the salty mud and raise their young ones.

Question 16.
What are the main causes that have created major threat to the natural environment?
Answer:

• Hunting by greedy hunters for commercial purposes.
• Pollution due to chemical and industrial waste.
• Acid deposits.
• Introduction of alien species
• reckless cutting of the forests to bring land under cultivation and inhabitation, are also responsible for the imbalance.

Question 17.
Give the importance of biodiversity.
Answer:

• Crops are being selected from a biodiverse environment, i.e., from the reserve of edible plants.
• Many medicinal plants are being experimented and selected
• The animal were selected from large stock provided by nature as milch animal.

Question 18.
How are forests useful to us? Give examples.
Answer:
Forests provide to man food, fibre, fodder, timber, fuel, wood and act as a host of other essential items.

• It provides raw materials to industry and transport.
• Forest is a renewable resource and is widely used as domestic fuel in third world countries.
• Forest also influences the environment by modifying local climate, controlling soil erosion and deposits humans in the soil regulating stream flows.
• Minor forest products provide livelihood to many forests dwellers. Besides, forest is the home of various wild animals and birds. It offers recreation to man and also boosts the tourism industry.

Question 19.
How can we save our ecosystem and preserve it?
Answer:

• Checking growth of population otherwise population explosion will result in imbalance.
• Checking the land pollution and air pollution.
• Waste from houses and industries should be treated properly.
• Avoiding deforestation indiscriminately.

Question 20.
Describe the need for the conservation of natural resources.
Answer:
If we go on exploiting the natural resources, there will be no more resources available in future. So, there is an urgent needs to conserve the nature.

Some of the needs are,

• To maintain ecological balance for supporting life.
• To preserve different kinds of species (biodiversity)
• To make the resources available for present and future generation.
• To ensure the survival of human race.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Give an account on ” Wildlife” in India.
Answer:

1. The term wildlife includes animals of any habitat in nature.
2. India has a rich and diversified wildlife.
3. The India fauna consists of about 81,251 species of animals out of the world’s total of about 1.5 million species.
4. The faunal diversity of the country consists of about 6500 invertebrates, 5000 molluses, 2546 fishes, 1228 birds, 458 mammals, 446 reptiles, 204 amphibians, 4 Panthers and about 60,000 species of insects.
5. Our country is the home to tigers, leopards, snow leopards, pythons, foxes, crocodiles, rhinoceroses, camels, monkeys, elephants, antelopes, deer, bison etc.
6. At present situation deforestation and other anthropogenic interferences in the natural habitats have caused extinction of some species and many are facing the danger of extinction.
7. Wild life maintain ecological balance, so, conservation and management of biodiversity of India is necessary.

Question 2.
Mention any five facts that are important to understand the mechanism of the monsoon.
Answer:
To understand the mechanism of the monsoons the following facts are important.

1. The differential heating and cooling of land and water creates low pressure on the landmass of India while the seas around experience comparatively high pressure.
2. The shift of the position of Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) in summer over the Ganga plain (this is the equatorial through normally positioned about 5° N of the equator also known as the monsoon trough during the monsoon season.
3. The presence of the high-pressure area, east of Madagascar, approximately at 20° S over the high-pressure area affects the Indian monsoon.
4. The Tibetan plateau gets intensely heated during summer, which results in strong vertical air currents and the formation of high pressure over the plateau at about 9 km above sea level.
5. The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.

Question 3.
Describe the commonly used medicinal plants in India.
Answer:

1. Sarpagandha: Used to treat blood pressure is found only in India.
2. Jamun: The juice from ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic and has digestive properties. The powder of the seed is used for controlling diabetes.
3. Arjun: The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
4. Babool: Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
5. Neem: has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties.
6. Tulsi Plant: Used to cure cough and cold.

Question 4.
What are the major important steps taken by the government to protect flora and fauna of the country?
Answer:

1. Now 18 biosphere reserves have been set up in the country to protect flora and fauna. Four out of these, the Sunderbans in the west Bengal, Nanda Devi in Uttarakhand, the Gulf of Mannar in Tamil Nadu and the been included in the world network of biosphere reserves.
2. Financial and technical assistance is provided to many Botanical Gardens by the government since 1992.
3. Project Tiger, Proj ect Rhino, Project Great Indian Bustard and many other ecodevelopmental project have been introduced.
4. Over 102 national parks, 514 wildlife sanctuaries and zoological gardens are set up to take care of natural heritage.
5. The killing of Wildlife has been banned by the government special forest officers have been appointed to catch greedy hunters.
6. Periodic census is being taken to find out the latest position of some rare species so that they can be preserved for our future generations.

Question 5.
Write the importance of forests.
Answer:

• Forests provides valuable timber for domestic and commercial use. They supply new
  materials for industries.
• It supplies a number of products such as Lac, Gum, Resins, Tanning materials, medicines, Herbs, Honey and spices.
• Export of forest products earns valuable foreign exchange.
• Grazing cattle in the forests helps in dairy farming.
• Many forest reserves have been developed into tourist centres.
• Forests absorb atmospheric carbon-dioxides and help in controlling air pollution.
• They help in water percolation and thus maintain underground water table.
• They provide natural habitats to primitive tribes animals and birds.
• They are the moderators of climate and affect temperature, humidity and rainfall.
• Forests meet nearly 40% of the energy needs of the country.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 2 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Climate and Natural Vegetation of India Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

Students can Download Tamil Chapter 2.2 அழியாச் செல்வம் Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2.2 அழியாச் செல்வம்

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
ஒருவர் தம் குழந்தைகளுக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்க வேண்டிய செல்வம்
அ) வீடு
ஆ) கல்வி
இ) பொருள்
ஈ) அணிகலன்
Answer:
ஆ) கல்வி

Question 2.
கல்வியைப் போல் , ……………….. செல்லாத செல்வம் வேறில்லை .
அ) விலையில்லாத
ஆ) கேடில்லாத
இ) உயர்வில்லாத
ஈ) தவறில்லாத
Answer:
ஆ) கேடில்லாத

Question 3.
‘வாய்த்தியின்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………………..
அ) வாய்த்து + ஈயீன்
ஆ) வாய் + தீயின்
இ) வாய்த்து + தீயின்
ஈ) வாய் + ஈயீன்
Answer:
ஆ) வாய் + தீயின்

Question 4.
கேடில்லை’ என்னும் கொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ……..
அ) கேடி + இல்லை
ஆ) கே + இல்லை
இ) கேள்வி + இல்லை
ஈ) கேடு + இல்லை
Answer:
ஈ) கேடு = இல்லை

Question 5.
எவன் + ஒருவன் என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் …………..
அ) எவன் ஒருவன்
ஆ) எவன்னொருவன்
இ) எவனொருவன்
ஈ) ஏன்னொருவன்
Answer:
இ) எவனொருவன்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
கல்விச் செல்வத்தின் இயல்புகளாக நாலடியார் கூறும் செய்திகளை எழுதுக.
Answer:
கல்வியைப் பொருள் போல் வைத்திருப்பினும் அது பிறரால் கொள்ளப்படாது. ஒருவற்கு வாய்க்கும் படி கொடுத்தாலும் குறைவுபடாது : மிக்கச் சிறப்பினை உடைய அரசராலும் கவா முடியாது போன்ற இயல்புகளைக் கொண்டது.

சிறுவினா

கல்விச் செல்வம் குறித்து நாலடியார் கூறும் கருத்துகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• கல்வியைப் பொருள் போல் வைத்திருப்பினும் அது பிறரால் கொள்ளப்படாது. ஒருவற்கு வாய்க்கும்படி கொடுத்தாலும் குறைவுபடாது. மிக்கச் சிறப்பினை உடைய அரசராலும் கவர முடியாது.
• ஆதலால் ஒருவர் தம் குழந்தைகளுக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்க வேண்டிய செல்வம் கல்வியே ஆகும்.
• மற்றவை செல்வம் ஆகாது என்பன நாலடியார் கூறும் கருத்துகளாகும்.

சிந்தனை வினா

கல்விச் செல்வம் அழியாதக் செல்வம் எனப்படுவது ஏன்? சிந்தித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
i) ஒரு மனிதன் தம்முடன் அனைத்துச் செல்வங்களையும் வைத்திருந்தாலும் அவனுக்கு கல்வியில்லையேல் அனைத்துச் செல்வங்களும் அழிந்து விடும். ஆனால் அழியாத ஒரு செல்வம் கல்விச் செல்வம் மட்டுமே

(ii) கற்றவன் எந்த இடத்திற்குச் சென்றாலும் அவன் பிற சமூகத்தால் மதிக்கப்படுகின்றான். இதற்குக் காரணம் அவன் கற்ற கல்வியே. கற்றவனுக்கு தனது நாடும் ஊருமே அல்லாமல் எந்த நாடும் ஊரும் தன்னுடைய ஊராகும்.

(iii) கல்வி, தொழிலுக்கு வழிகாட்டுகிறது. கல்வி என்பது வாழ்க்கை வாழ்வதற்காக உதவும் கருவியாகும். அறிவியலும் சமூகமும் வாழ்நாள் முழுவதும் தொடரும் கருவியாகும். கல்வி கற்றவரிடம் ஒழுக்கம், பண்பு, நேர்மை, நீதி இவைகள் அனைத்தும் ஒருங்கே அமைந்து காணப்படும். எனவே கல்வியானது ஒரு மனிதனின் முக்கியத் தேவையாக இருக்கிறது. எந்தவொரு சமூகமும் கல்வி இல்லாமல் இவ்வுலகில்லை.

(iv) கல்வி கற்றவன் ஒழுக்கமாகவும், திறமையாகவும், அறிவாளியாகவும் சமுதாயத்தால் மதிக்கப்படுவனாக இருப்பான். எனவே என்றுமே அழியாத செல்வம் கல்வி மட்டுமே.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
கல்வியின் சிறப்பை விளக்கும் பிற பாடல்களைத் திரட்டி எழுதுக.
Answer:

• வேற்றுமை தெரிந்து நாற்பாலுள்ளும் – கீழ்ப்பால்
  ஒருவன் கற்பின் மேற்பாலொருவனும் அவன்கட் படுமே. ………….- புறநானூறு )
• கடைநிலத்திற் பிறந்தவர் எனினும்
  கற்றறிந்தவரைத் தலைநிலத்து வைப்பர். ………………………………- நாலடியார்
• கற்றோர்க்குக் கல்வி நலனே கலன் அல்லால்
  மற்றோர் அணிகலம் வேண்டாவாம்: …………………….- நீதிநெறி விளக்கம்
• நெஞ்சத்து நல்லம் யாம் என்னும்
  கல்வியழகே அழகு : …………………….- நாலடியார்
• கற்கக் கசடறக் கற்பவை கற்றபின்
  நிற்க அதற்குத் தக. …………….- திருக்குறள்

Question 2.
கல்வியின் சிறப்பை விளக்கும் கதை ஒன்றனை அறிந்து வந்து வகுப்பறையில் கூறுக.
Answer:
கல்வி தந்த உயர்வு : சிறுவர் கல்வி சிறுகதைகள்
ஒரு குக்கிராமத்தில் அன்னம்மாள் என்னும் பெண்மணி வாழ்ந்து வந்தாள். அப்பெண்மணி ஓர் அந்தணனின் மனைவி : அன்னம்மாளின் நல்வினைப் பயனால், அவளுக்கு முதலில் ஓர் ஆண் குழந்தை பிறந்தது. பெற்றோர் அக்குழந்தைக்கு, கபிலன் – என்னும் பெயர் சூட்டி, அருமைமிகு வளர்ந்து வந்தனர். அதன் பின்னர் பிறந்த ஓர் ஆண் குழந்தைக்குக் கோவிந்தா என்னும் பெயரையும், பெண் குழந்தைக்குக் அம்பிகை என்னும் ! பெயரையும் சூட்டி மகிழ்ந்தாள்.

கபிலன், கோவிந்தா, அம்பிகை ஆகிய மூவரும் சிறுவர்களாக இருந்தபோதே, அவர்களுடைய பெற்றோர் இறந்து விட்டனர்: தாய்ப் பறவையை இழந்த, சிறகு முளைக்காத குஞ்சுகள் போலப் பிள்ளைகள் மூவரும் அல்லலுற்றனர்.

அவர்களுக்கு உண்ண உணவில்லை உடுத்த உடை இல்லை : அவர்கள் மிகவும் வறுமையில் வாடினர். உடன்பிறந்தாரைப் பாதுகாக்கும் பொறுப்பு கபிலனுக்கு உரியதாயிற்று. அவன் என்ன செய்வான் பாவம் !
கபிலன் வீடுதோறும் சென்று பிச்சை வாங்கி வந்து; தம்முடன் பிறந்தவர்களுக்குக் கொடுத்து, தாமும் உண்டு ஒருவாறு காலத்தைக் கழித்து வந்தான். கபிலன் பிச்சை வாங்க செல்லும் போது, அவனது உள்ளம் உருகும்; உடல் நடுங்கும், மென்மையான முகத்தில் துன்பம் தோன்றும் கண்களில் நீர் நிறைந்து வழியும் பிச்சை இடாதவரின் கடுஞ்சொல்லும் சுடுமுகமும், அவனது துன்பத்தை மேலும் மேலும் வளர்த்த வண்ணம் இருந்தன.

அந்நிலையில், கபிலனின் பிஞ்சு உள்ளத்தில் ஓர் எண்ணம் தோன்றி; அவனை மிகவும் வருத்திக் கொண்டிருந்தது. “எப்படியாவது நாம் படித்துவிட்டால் இத்தொழிலை விட்டு விடலாம்!” என்று நினைத்தான்.

அந்த வருத்தத்தினிடையே கபிலன், ”படித்தேயாக வேண்டும்’ என்னும் முடிவைக் கொண்டான். உடனே அந்த ஊரில் இருந்த ஆசிரியரை அடைந்து, வணங்கி நின்று, “ஐயா! படிக்க வேண்டும் என்னும் விருப்பம் உண்டாகிறது. நான் எடுப்பதோ பிச்சை, உடுப்பதோ கந்தல் ஆடை நீங்கள் அருள்கூர்ந்து அடியேனுக்குக் கல்விச் செல்வத்தைக் கொடுங்கள். உங்கள் பிள்ளைகளில் அடியேனும் ஒருவன்!” என்று கூறினான்.

அதைக் கேட்ட ஆசிரியர், தம் கையில் இருந்த பிரம்பைக் கீழே வைத்தார்; சிறுவனாகிய கபிலனை நோக்கினார். “சிறுவனே! உன் குறிக்கோள் மிகவும் உயர்ந்தது. அது எல்லாருடைய உள்ளத்திலும் உண்டாகிற அழுக்கில்லாத ஆசை. இங்குக் கிடக்கும் பனையோலைகளே உனக்குப் பெருவாழ்வளிக்கும் பொன்னேடுகள். இப்பனையோலையில் எழுதி தருகிறேன். நீ படித்துக்கொள்!” என்று கூறினார். கபிலனின் உள்ளம் குளிர்ந்தது; முகம் மலர்ந்தது.

அன்றே கபிலன் படிக்கத் தொடங்கினான். “இன்ன நேரத்தில் இன்ன வேலை செய்ய வேண்டும்” என்று ஒரு திட்டம் வகுத்துக் கொண்டான்; முறைப்படி கடமை புரிந்தான். கபிலன் தெலுங்கில் ஓரளவு அறிவு பெற்ற பின், வடமொழியையும் பயின்றான்.

Question 3.
பின்வரும் பாடலைப் படித்து மகிழ்க.
Answer:
வெள்ளத்தால் அழியாது வெந்தணலால்
வேகாது வேந்த ராலும்
கொள்ளத்தான் முடியாது கொடுத்தாலும்
நிறைவன்றிக் குறைவு றாது
கள்ளர்க்கோ பயமில்லை காவலுக்கு
மிக எளிது கல்வி யென்னும்
உள்ளபொருள் உள்ளிருக்கப் புறத்தேயோர்
பொருள்தேடி உழல்கின் றீரே. -தனிப்பாடல் திரட்டு

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சொல்லும் பொருளும் :

1. வைப்புழி – பொருள் சேமித்து வைக்கும் இடம்
2. கோட்படா – ஒருவரால் கொள்ளப்படாது
3. வாய்த்து ஈயில் – வாய்க்கும்படி கொடுத்தலும்
4. விச்சை – கல்வி

நிரப்புக.

Question 1.
வைப்புழி என்பதன் பொருள் …………
Answer:
பொருள் சேமித்து வைக்கும் இடம்

Question 2.
விச்சை என்பதன் பொருள் ….
Answer:
கல்வி

Question 3.
…………….. சமண முனிவர்கள் பலரால் எழுதப்பட்ட நூலாகும்.
Answer:
நாலடியார்

பாடலின் பொருள்

கல்வியைப் பொருள் போல வைத்திருப்பினும் அது பிறரால் கொள்ளப்படாது. ஒருவற்கு வாய்க்கும்படி கொடுத்தாலும் குறைவுபடாது. மிக்க சிறப்பினை உடைய அரசராலும் கவர முடியாது. ஆதலால் ஒருவர் தம் குழந்தைகளுக்குச் சேர்த்து வைக்க வேண்டிய செல்வம் கல்வியே ஆகும். மற்றவை செல்வம் ஆகாது.