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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1.5 குற்றியலுகரம், குற்றியலிகரம்

மதிப்பீடு

கீழ்க்காணும் சொற்களைக் குற்றியலுகர வகையின் அடிப்படையில் வகைப்படுத்துக.

Answer:
ஆறு, எஃகு, கரும்பு, விறகு, உழக்கு, எட்டு, ஏடு, பந்து, காசு, கொய்து.

பொருந்தாத சொற்களை எடுத்து எழுதுக

Answer:
1. பசு, விடு, ஆறு, கரு – கரு
2. பாக்கு, பஞ்சு, பாட்டு, பத்து – பஞ்சு
3. ஆறு, மாசு , பாகு , அது – அது
4. அரசு, எய்து, மூழ்கு, மார்பு – அரசு
5. பண்பு, மஞ்சு, கண்டு, எஃகு – எஃகு

குறுவினா

Question 1.
‘குற்றியலுகரம்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து விளக்கம் தருக.
Answer:
குறுமை + இயல் + உகரம் – குற்றியலுகரம். வல்லின எழுத்துக்கள் ஆறின் மீதும் ஏறி (சேர்ந்து வரும் உகரம் தனக்கு உரிய ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவிலிருந்து அரை மாத்திரையாகக் குறைந்து ஒலிக்கும். இதற்குக் குற்றியலுகரம் என்று பெயர். எடுத்துக்காட்டு: காசு, எஃகு, பயறு, பாட்டு, பந்து, சால்பு.

Question 2.
குற்றியலிகரம் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
(i) குறுமை + இயல் + இகரம் = குற்றியலிகரம்.
(ii) வரகு + யாது = வரகியாது.
(iii) குற்றியலுகரச் சொற்களின் முன் யாது என்னும் சொல் வருமொழியாக வந்து சேரும் போது, நிலைமொழியீற்று ‘உ’ கரம் இகரமாகத் திரிந்து தன் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவிலிருந்து குறைந்து அரை மாத்திரை அளவில் ஒலிக்கும். இது ‘குற்றியலிகரம் எனப்படும்.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
ஒன்று முதல் பத்து வரையுள்ள எண்ணுப் பெயர்களைப் பட்டியலிட்டு எழுதுங்கள்; அவற்றில் குற்றியலுகரச் சொற்களை எடுத்து எழுதுங்கள்.
1. ஒன்று
2. இரண்டு
3. மூன்று
4. நான்கு
5. ஐந்து
6. ஆறு
7. ஏழு
8. எட்டு
9. ஒன்பது
10. பத்து
Answer:
குற்றியலுகரச் சொற்கள் :

1. ஒன்று – மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
2. இரண்டு – மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
3. மூன்று – மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
4. நான்கு – மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
5. ஐந்து – மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
6. ஆறு – நெடில்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
8. எட்டு – வன்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
9. ஒன்ப து – உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
10. பத்து – வன்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 2.
குற்றியலுகர எண்ணுப் பெயர்களைக் குற்றியலுகர வகையின் அடிப்படையில் வகைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:
ஒன்று, இரண்டு, மூன்று, நான்கு, ஐந்து, ஆறு, ஏழு, எட்டு, ஒன்பது, பத்து

1. நெடில் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் – ஆறு
2. உயிர் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகம் – ஒன்பது
3. வன்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் – எட்டு, பத்து
4. மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் – ஒன்று, இரண்டு, மூன்று, நான்கு, ஐந்து

Question 3.
குற்றியலுகர எண்ணுப் பெயர்களின் மாத்திரை அளவைக் கண்டுபிடியுங்கள்.
Answer:

Question 4.
கு, சு, டு, து, று ஆகிய குற்றியலுகரத்திதை இறுதியாகக் கொண்ட ஈரெழுத்துச் சொற்களைத் திரட்டுக.
Answer:

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக:

Question 1.
குறில் எழுத்துகளைக் குறிக்க …………. என்ற அசைச் சொல்லைப் பயன்படுத்துகிறோம்.
அ) கரம்
ஆ) கான்
இ) கேனம்
ஈ) கோடை
Answer:
அ) கரம்

Question 2.
நெடில் எழுத்துகளைக் குறிக்க ……….. என்ற அசைச் சொல்லைப் பயன்படுத்துகிறோம்.
அ) கேனம்
ஆ) கரம்
இ) கான்
ஈ) கோடை
Answer:
இ) கான்

Question 3.
குற்றியலுகரம் தனக்கு முன் உள்ள எழுத்தைக் கொண்டு ………….. வகையாகப் பிரிக்கப்படும்.
அ) 3
ஆ) 5
இ) 6
ஈ) 1
விடை :
இ) 6

Question 4.
தனி நெடிலைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் …………..
அ) நெடில் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
ஆ) உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
இ) இடைத்தொடர் குற்றியலுகரம்
ஈ) மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
Answer:
அ) நெடில் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 5.
ஈரெழுத்துச் சொற்களாக மட்டும் அமையும் குற்றியலுகரம் எது?
அ) மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
ஆ) நெடில் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
இ) இடைத்தொடர் குற்றியலுகரம்
ஈ) உயிர்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
Answer:
ஆ) நெடில் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 6.
தனிநெடில் அல்லாத உயிர்மெய் எழுத்தைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் …………….
அ) உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
ஆ) வன்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
இ) நெடில்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
ஈ) இடைத்தொடர் குற்றியலுகரம்
Answer:
அ) உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 7.
தன் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவில் இருந்து குறுகி ஒலிக்கும் இகரம் ………….. எனப்படும்.
அ) குற்றியலுகரம்
ஆ) குற்றியலிகரம்
இ) முற்றியலுகரம்
ஈ) ஐகாரக்குறுக்கம்
Answer:
ஆ) குற்றியலிகரம்

Question 8.
குற்றியலிகரம் …………… இடங்க ளில் மட்டும் வரும்.
அ) இரண்டு
ஆ) மூன்று
இ) ஐந்து
ஈ) ஆறு
Answer:
அ) இரண்டு

Question 9.
மியா’ என்பது ஓர் அசைச்சொல். இச்சொல்லில் வரும் மி’யில் உள்ள இகரம் …..
அ) குற்றியலிகரம்
ஆ) குற்றியலுகரம்
இ) முற்றியலுகரம்
ஈ) மகரக்குறுக்கம்
Answer:
அ) குற்றியலிகரம்

நிரப்புக :

Question 1.
சால்பு – இது ………….. ஆகும்.
Answer:
இடைத்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 2.
கயிறு – இது …………… ஆகும்.
Answer:
உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 3.
……… என்னும் எழுத்தைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரச் சொற்கள் இல்லை .
Answer:
வ்

பொருத்துக :

Answer:
1 – ஈ),
2 – அ),
3 – ஆ),
4 – இ),
5 – எ),
6 – ஏ),
7 – ஊ),
8 – உ)

விடையளி :

Question 1.
‘மூதல் எழுத்து என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
உயிர் எழுத்துகள் பன்னிரண்டும் , மெய் எழுத்துகள் பதினெட்டும் ஆக முப்பது எழுத்துகளும் முதல் எழுத்துகள் எனப்படும்.

Question 2.
சார்பெழுத்து எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:
சார்பெழுத்து பத்து வகைப்படும்.
அவை உயிர்மெய், ஆய்தம், உயிரளபெடை, ஒற்றளபெடை, குற்றியலுகரம், குற்றியலிகரம், ஐகாரக்குறுக்கம், ஒளகாரக்குறுக்கம், மகரக்குறுக்கம், ஆய்தக்குறுக்கம் என்பனவாகும்.

Question 3.
முற்றியலுகரம் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

• தனிக்குறில் எழுத்தை அடுத்து வரும் வல்லின உகரங்கள் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவுக்கு முழுமையாக ஒலிக்கும்.
• வல்லினம் அல்லாத உகரங்கள் எப்போதும் முழுமையாகவே ஒலிக்கும்.
• இவ்வாறு ஓசை குறையாமல் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவில் முழுமையாக ஒலிப்பதை முற்றியலுகரம் என்பர்.
  எடுத்துக்காட்டு: புகு , பசு , விடு, அது, வறு

Question 4.
குற்றியலுகரத்தின் வகைகளைப் பற்றி கூறுக.
Answer:
குற்றியலுகரம் ஆறு வகைப்படும். அவை,

• நெடில் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
• ஆய்தத்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
• உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
• வன்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
• மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்
• இடைத்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம்

Question 5.
நெடில்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:

• தனி நெடிலைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் ‘நெடில்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் எனப்படும்.
• இவை ஈரெழுத்துச் சொற்களாக மட்டும் அமையும்.
  எடுத்துக்காட்டு: பாகு, மாசு, பாடு, காது

Question 6.
ஆய்தத்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
ஆய்தத் எழுத்தைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் ஆய்தத் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் எனப்படும்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு: எஃகு, அஃது.

Question 7.
உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
தனிநெடில் அல்லாத உயிர்மெய் எழுத்தைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் உயிர்த்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் எனப்படும்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு:
அரசு (ர – ர் + அ), கயிறு (J – ய்+இ, ஒன்பது (ப – ப்+அ), வரலாறு (லா – ல் + ஆ)

Question 8.
வன்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
வல்லின க், ச், ட், த், ப், ற் மெய் எழுத்துகளைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் வன் தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் எனப்படும்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு: பாக்கு, பேச்சு, பாட்டு, பத்து, உப்பு, பற்று

Question 9.
மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
மெல்லின (ங், ஞ், ண், ந், ம், ன்) மெய் எழுத்துகளைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் மென்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் எனப்படும்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு: பங்கு, மஞ்சு, பண்பு, பந்து, அம்பு, கன்று.

Question 10.
இடைத்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் சான்றுடன் விளக்குக.
Answer:
இடையின ய், ர், ல், வ், ழ், ன்) மெய் எழுத்துகளைத் தொடர்ந்து வரும் குற்றியலுகரம் இடைத்தொடர்க் குற்றியலுகரம் எனப்படும்.
எடுத்துக்காட்டு: எய்து, மார்பு, சால்பு, மூழ்கு.

Question 11.
தனிக்குறில் எழுத்தை அடுத்து வரும் வல்லின உகரங்கள் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவுக்கு முழுமையாக ஒலிக்குமா?
Answer:
தனிக்குறில் எழுத்தை அடுத்து வரும் வல்லின உகரங்கள் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவுக்கு முழுமையாக ஒலிக்கும்.

Question 12.
ஓசை குறையாமல் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவில் முழுமையாக ஒலிப்பது எது?
Answer:
ஓசை குறையாமல் ஒரு மாத்திரை அளவில் முழுமையாக ஒலிப்பது முற்றியலுகரம். எடுத்துக்காட்டு : புகு , பசு , விடு, அது, வறு.

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

கேட்க :

Question 1.
தமிழின் சிறப்பைப் பற்றிய அறிஞர்களின் சொற்பொழிவுகளைக் கேட்டு மகிழ்க. உயர்திரு. ச.பாலன் அவர்களின் சொற்பொழிவு:
Answer:

• மிக மிக உயர்ந்த மொழி தமிழ்மொழி.
• பேரறிஞர்கள் பலர் தங்கள் நூல்கள் வாயிலாக தமிழ்மொழியின் சிறப்பை விரிவாக எடுத்துரைத்துள்ளனர்.
• ”யாமறிந்த மொழிகளிலே தமிழ்மொழி போல் இனிதாவது எங்கும் காணோம்” என்றார் மகாகவி பாரதியார்.
• ‘கம்பனை போல் வள்ளுவரைப் போல் இளங்கோவைப் போல் பூமிதனில் யாங்ஙனுமே பிறந்தது இல்லை என்றார் பாரதியார்.
• பெருமை மிக்க நூல்களும் அறிஞர்களும் சிறப்பித்து பாடிய தமிழ் உலக அளவிலே மிகச் சிறந்த ஒரு மொழியாகப் போற்றப்படுகின்றது.
• செம்மொழி என்றால் பிறமொழிகளின் தாக்கம் இல்லாமலும் சில மொழிகளுக்கு தாயாகவும் இலக்கண இலக்கிய வளமுடையதாகவும் இருக்க வேண்டும்.
• கன்னடம், மலையாளம், தெலுங்கு ஆகியவற்றிற்கு தாய்மொழியாக இருக்கிறது நம் தமிழ்மொழி.
• தமிழின் பெருமையை விளக்கும் வண்ணம் அறிஞர்கள் பலர் நூல்களை எழுதி வெளியிட்டுள்ளார்கள்.

கவிக்கோ அப்துல்ரகுமானின் உரை :

• தமிழ்மொழி பேசுவதற்கு அதிகம் மூச்சு விடவேண்டியது இல்லை
• தமிழ் உலகத்திலேயே உயர்ந்தமொழி.
• ஆதி மொழி தொன்மை மொழி தமிழ் மொழியாகும்.
• இரண்டு நாடுகளின் அரசாங்கமொழி ஸ்ரீலங்கா, சிங்கப்பூர்.
• மலேசியாவில் ஒரே கல்விமொழி.
• செம்மொழிகளில் முழுமையான இலக்கண வடிவம் கொண்டது தமிழ்மொழி தொல்காப்பியம்.

கீழ்க்காணும் தலைப்புகளில் இரண்டு நிமிடம் பேசுக

Question 1.
நான் அறிந்த பழமொழிகள் வணக்கம் :

அன்னைத் தமிழில் வணங்குகிறேன்! நான் அறிந்த பழமொழிகளைப் பற்றி இங்கு பேச வந்துள்ளேன்.

1. முயற்சி திருவினையாக்கும் :
பழமொழி விளக்கம் : முயற்சியைக் கைவிடாமல் தொடர்ந்து எந்தவொரு செயலையும் செய்து வந்தால் வாழ்வில் உயர்வு அடையலாம் என்பதே இப்பழமொழியின் விளக்கம். ‘சித்திரமும் கைப்பழக்கம், செந்தமிழும் நாப்பழக்கம்’ என்பதை உணர்ந்து தொடர்ந்து முயற்சி செய்தால் வாழ்வில் வெற்றி பெறலாம் என்பதே இப்பழமொழி உணர்த்தும் நீதி.

2. இளமையில் கல் :
பழமொழி விளக்கம் :
மனித வாழ்வில் கல்வி இன்றியமையாதது. ஆனால் கற்க வேண்டிய இளம் வயதில் கல்வி கற்க வேண்டும். இளமையில் மட்டுமே கல்வியை கற்க முடியும், கற்க வேண்டும் என்பது இப்பழமொழியின் நீதியாகும்.

3. காற்றுள்ளபோதே தூற்றிக்கொள் :
பழமொழி விளக்கம் :
வாழ்க்கையில் வெற்றி பெற நினைப்பவர்கள் அதற்கான சந்தர்ப்பம் கிடைக்கும்போது அந்த சந்தர்ப்பதை தவறவிடாமல் பயன்படுத்தி வெற்றி பெற வேண்டும்.

4. உப்பிட்டவரை உள்ளளவும் நினை :
பழமொழி விளக்கம் : நாம் பசியால் வாடிய பொழுது நமக்கு உணவளித்தவரை என்றுமே மறக்கக்கூடாது. நம்முடைய உள்ளத்தில் என்றுமே அவர்களை நினைக்க வேண்டும்.

5. கற்றது கைம்மண் அளவு கல்லாதது உலகளவு :
பழமொழி விளக்கம் :
எனக்கு எல்லாம் தெரியும் என்று செருக்கு கொள்ளக்கூடாது. ஏனெனில் நாம் கற்றுக் கொண்டது நமது கையினைப் போன்ற சிறிய அளவே. கல்லாதது உலகளவு உள்ளது என்பதே இப்பழமொழியின் விளக்கம். எல்லாம் தெரியும் என்ற செருக்கு ஒருவனுக்கு இருக்கக்கூடாது என்பதை உணர்த்துவதே இப்பழமொழியின் நீதியாகும்.

சொற்களை எடுத்து எழுதுக

Question 1.
கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள வினாக்களுக்கு ஏற்பத் தொடரில் அழுத்தம் தர வேண்டிய சொற்களை எடுத்து எழுதுக.

Answer:

அறிந்து பயன்படுத்துவோம்

திணை இரண்டு வகைப்படும். அவை, 1. உயர்திணை, 2. அஃறிணை ஆறு அறிவுடைய மனிதர்களை உயர்திணை என்பர். பறவைகள், விலங்கினங்கள், தாவரங்கள் மற்றும் உயிரற்ற பொருள்களை அஃறிணை என்பர்.

படத்திற்கு பொருத்தமான திணையை எழுதுக
Answer:

கீழ்க்காணும் சொற்களை உயர்திணை, அஃறிணை என வகைப்படுத்துக

வயல், முகிலன், குதிரை, கயல்விழி, தலைவி, கடல், ஆசிரியர், புத்தகம், சுரதா, மரம்

Answer:

கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு கட்டுரை எழுதுக

தாய்மொழிப் பற்று

முன்னுரை – மொழி பற்றிய விளக்கம் – தாய்மொழி – தாய்மொழிப் பற்று – தாய்மொழிப் பற்றுக் கொண்ட சான்றோர் – சாதுவன் வரலாறு – நமது கடமை – முடிவுரை)

முன்னுரை:
அன்னைத் தமிழ் ! இன்பத் தமிழ் ! இனிய தமிழ் ! பைந்தமிழ்! செந்தமிழ்! என பலவாறு போற்றிப் பேசும் நம் தாய் மொழியாம் தமிழ் மொழி பற்றி இக்கட்டுரையில் ஆய்வதே நம் சீரிய நோக்கமாகும்.

மொழிபற்றிய விளக்கம்:
மனிதன் தன் எண்ணங்களை மனித உணர்ச்சிகளை பிறருக்கு வெளிப்படுத்துவதற்காக அவனால் உருவாக்கப்பட்டதே மொழியாகும். வாயினால் பேசப்பட்டுப் பிறரால் கேட்டு உணரப்படுவது பேச்சு மொழியாகும். கண்ணால் கண்டு உணருமாறு வரிவடிவமாக எழுதப்பட்டு படிக்கப்படுவது எழுத்துமொழியாகும்.

தாய்மொழி:
அவரவர் தாய்மொழியே அவரவர்க்கு உயர்வாகும். தமிழ்மொழியைத்தாய்மொழியாகக் கொண்ட ஒவ்வொருவரும் தமிழின் பெருமையை, அதன் தொன்மையை கட்டாயமாக அறிந்திருக்க வேண்டும். தாய்மொழி மூலம் கல்வி கற்றால் உணர்ச்சியும் உணர்வும் ஒரு சேர மனித இனத்தினை உயர்ந்த நிலைக்கு இட்டுச் செல்லும் என்பதில் சிறிதும் ஐயமில்லை .

தாய்மொழிப் பற்று:
தன்னிகரில்லாத தமிழ் என்றும் ‘இருந்தமிழே உன்னால் இருந்தேன் இமையோர் விருந்தமிழ்தம் என்றாலும் வேண்டேன்” – (தமிழ்விடு தூது) ‘தமிழுக்கும் அமுதென்று பேர்’ என்றும் பாரதிதாசன் பைந்தமிழ் இனிமையை போற்றிப் பாடுகிறார். எண்ணற்ற வேர்ச் சொற்களால் புதிய புதிய சொற்களை ஆக்கிக் கொள்ளும் திறன் படைத்தது, தமிழ். தமிழின் எழுத்து வகைப்பாடும் வரிசை முறையும் மொழியியலாளரையும் வியக்க வைப்பன.

தாய்மொழிப் பற்றுக் கொண்ட சான்றோர்:

• சூரிய நாராயண சாஸ்திரி என்ற தன்னுடைய பெயரை பரிதிமாற் கலைஞர் என மாற்றிக் கொண்டவர். தாய்மொழி மீது மிகுந்த பற்றும் அக்கறையும் கொண்டவர்.
• வேதாச்சலம் என்ற தம் பெயரை மறைமலையடிகள் என மாற்றிக் கொண்டவர். செந்தமிழில் கட்டுரைகள் எழுதி புகழ் பெற்றவர்.

நமது கடமை:

• தாய்மொழியில் கல்வி கற்க வேண்டும்.
• தாய்மொழியில் சொற்களஞ்சியம் பெருக வேண்டும்.
• தாய்மொழியில் சாதனைகள் பல படைக்க வேண்டும்.

முடிவுரை:

ஒண்டமிழ், வான் தமிழ், தேன் தமிழ், பைந்தமிழ் என்ற பலவாறு போற்றிப் புகழ்பாடும் தாய் மொழியாம் தமிழில் எண்ணற்ற கருத்துக் குவியல்கள் பொதிந்துள்ளன. அனைத்தையும் நாம் வாழ்நாளில் பயன்படுத்தி இன்புற வேண்டும்.

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

தொகைச் சொற்களை விரித்து எழுதுக.

(எ.கா.) இருதிணை – உயர்திணை, அஃறிணை

Answer:

1. முக்கனி : மா, பலா, வாழை
2. முத்தமிழ் : இயல், இசை, நாடகம்
3. நாற்றிசை : கிழக்கு, மேற்கு, வடக்கு, தெற்கு
4. ஐவகை நிலம்: குறிஞ்சி, முல்லை , மருதம், நெய்தல், பாலை
5. அறுசுவை : இனிப்பு, புளிப்பு, கார்ப்பு, துவர்ப்பு, கசப்பு, உவர்ப்பு

ஒரே சொல் வருமாறு கட்டங்களில் எழுதுக

கட்டங்களிலுள்ள எழுத்துகளை மாற்றி, மேலிலிருந்து கீழாகவும் இடமிருந்து வலமாகவும் எழுதினால் ஒரே சொல் வருமாறு கட்டங்களில் எழுதுக.

Answer:

இரு பொருள் கொண்ட ஒரு சொல்லால் நிரப்புக

(எ.கா.) அரசுக்குத் தவறாமல் வரி செலுத்த வேண்டும்.
ஏட்டில் எழுதுவது வரி வடிவம்.

Answer:

1. மழலை பேசும் மொழி அழகு.
இனிமைத் தமிழ் மொழி எமது

2. அன்னை தந்தையின் கைப் பிடித்துக் குழந்தை நடை பழகும்.
விராக சீனா நம அறிஞர் அண்ணாவின் சிறப்பு அவரது அடுக்குமொழி நடை.

3. நீ அறிந்ததைப் பிறருக்குச் சொல்.
எழுத்துகள் தொடர்ந்து நின்று பொருள் தருவது சொல்.

4. உழவர்கள் நாற்று நட வயலுக்குச் செல்வர்.
குழந்தையை மெதுவாக நட என்போம்.

5. நீதிமன்றத்தில் தொடுப்பது வழக்கு.
நீச்சத் தண்ணி குடி என்பது பேச்சு வழக்கு.

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக

என் பொறுப்புகள்

1. கடிதங்கள், கட்டுரைகள் போன்றவற்றை எழுதும் போது திருத்தமான நடையையே கையாள்வேன்.
2. பொம்மலாட்டம், தெருக்கூத்து போன்ற நாட்டுப்புறக் கலைகளைப் போற்றுவேன்.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 6 Man and Environment

Man and Environment Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Man And Environment Class 9 Question 1.
All external influences and factors that affect the growth and development of living organisms is ………
(a) Environment
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biotic factors
(d) Abiotic factors.
Answer:
(a) Environment

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Question 2.
The ‘World Population Day’ is observed on every year.
(a) August 11^th
(b) September 11^th
(c) July 11^th
(d) January 11^th
Answer:
(c) July 11^th

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 3.
The statistical study of human population is
(a) Demography
(b) Morphology
(c) Etymology
(d) Seismography
Answer:
(a) Demography

Social Science Class 9 Chapter 1 Man And Environment Question 4.
The extraction of valuable minerals and other geological minerals from the mines, is …..
(a) Fishing
(b) Lumbering
(c) Mining
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(c) Mining

Samacheer Kalvi Social Science 9th Std Question 5.
The Secondary sector of the economy produces …… from raw materials.
(a) Semi finished goods
(b) Finished goods
(c) Economic goods
(d) raw materials
Answer:
(b) Finished goods

Social Solutions For Class 9 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Gradual increase of the earth’s temperature by the Green house gases in the atmosphere is called …….
(a) Acid rain
(b) thermal pollution
(c) Global warming
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(c) Global warming

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below.

Social Samacheer Kalvi 9th Question 7.
Assertion (A): Ozone layer in the stratosphere is considered as a protective shield.
Reason (R): It prevents the UV radiation from reaching the earth’s surface.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

9th Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 8.
Assertion (A): In tertiary activities, instead of producing goods by themselves, they are in the process of production.
Reason (R): People in Tertiary activities are purely eco friendly.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) A and R are correct, but A does not explain R
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect.
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R.
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R is incorrect.

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

IV. Answer the following in brief:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘density of population’?
Answer:
Density of population refers to the number of people living per square kilometre. An area is said to be sparsely populated when it has a large area with less number of people. Similarly, smaller the area with a large number of people, it is said to be densely populated.

9th Social Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
What is ‘black death’?
Answer:
The black death is estimated to have killed 30 – 60 percent of Europe’s total population during the 14th century. The dominant explanation for black death is attributed to the outbreak of plague.

Samacheer Kalvi Social 9th Question 3.
Where do we have high and low densities of population?
Answer:
Areas of high density (above 50 people per sq.km) – East Asia, South Asia, North West Europe & Eastern North America.

Areas of low density (less than 10 people per sq.km) – Central Africa, Western Australia, Northern Russia, Canada, etc.

9th Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Question 4.
What is Green House effect?
Answer:
Global warming is caused by the increase of green house gases such as carbondioxide, methane, water vapour and Chloro Fluoro Carbons(CFC), carbon monoxide, photo chemical oxidants and hydrocarbons, which are responsible for the heat retention ability of the atmosphere. Global warming causes climatic change, ozone layer depletion, rise in sea level and drowning of coastal inhabited land, melting of ice, etc., They are posing an even greater threat to human existence and so, man must start thinking of protecting the environment from pollution.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Question 5.
Write any two ways of how the locals and the government restored Palk Bay. Restoration of Palk Bay
Answer:
Local communities, government and civic organisations all came together not just to conserve the remaining mangroves, but also to restore it.

• Saplings of native species of plants and trees are being grown, planted and cared for.
• Live colonies of coral from the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve are being transplanted to Palk Bay. The existing mangroves and the region are being mapped and the way land is used around the mangrove is being studied.
• The local communities are actively involved in the conservation and restoration of the mangroves. Education and awareness programmes about mangrove ecosystem are being undertaken.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9 Social Science Question 6.
Define

1. Population growth
2. Infant Mortality Rate
3. Census
4. Sustainable Development.

Answer:

1. Population growth refers to an increase in the number of people who reside in a particular area during a particular period.
2. The number of deaths under one year of age for every 1000 live births in a year is known as Infant Mortality Rate
3. Census is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically. It records information about the characteristics of population such as age, sex, literacy and occupation.
4. “Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”.

V. Distinguish the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 9 Social Question 1.
Birth rate and Death Rate
Answer:

Question 2.
Emigration and Immigration
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Solutions Question 3.
Rural settlement and urban settlement
Answer:

Social Science 9th Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Metropolitan and Mega cities
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Social 9th Question 5.
Primary Activities Secondary Activities
Answer:

VI. Give reasons for the following:

9th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Question 1.
Reforestation is encouraged throughout the world.
Answer:
Deforestation results in many effects like floods and droughts, loss of soil fertility, air pollution, extinction of species, global warming, spread of deserts, depletion of water resource, melting of ice caps and glaciers, rise in sea level and depletion of ozone layer. Therefore, reforestation is encouraged throughout the world in order to conserve our mother Earth.

9th Social Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Acid rain destroys the ecosystem.
Answer:
When pollutants combine with water vapour in the presence of sunlight and oxygen, they form dilute sulphuric and nitric acids in the atmosphere. When this mixture precipitates from the atmosphere, it is called acid rain. This would cause lot of damages to life and property. It would affect the health of humans and animals, alter the constituents of water bodies, plants and trees may die as it deteriorates the soil quality and many more damages to nature.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Solutions Question 3.
The economy of the quaternary sector is called knowledge economy.
Answer:
Quaternary sector deals with the activities related to Research and Development, as well as knowledge. For e g. Services like consultation, education and banking. Hence, it is called as knowledge economy.

Question 4.
Population growth has to be brought under control.
Answer:
Population growth leads to high competition for all available resources. It leads to poor quality of life, education, food supply, low income and so on. The resources of Earth may exhaust one day and would lead to the end of mankind.

Question 5.
Sustainable development growth has been set to protect the planet.
Answer:
The excessive usage of natural and manmade resources deplete its availability for the future generation. Hence conservation and awareness are the two important terms that can bring sustainability to our living: When we use the word sustainability to mean maintain, it means to maintain it forever. This is because our actions have a lasting effect on the environment and we should protect it for our future generations.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Explain the factors affecting the distribution of population.
Answer:
The world population is not uniformly distributed, owing to the following factors.

• Physical Factors: Physical factors include temperature, rainfall, soil, relief, water, natural vegetation, distribution of minerals and availability of energy resources.
• Historical Factors: Regions with historical importance (river valley civilizations), war and constant invasions fall under historical factors responsible for population distribution.
• Economic Factors: Educational institutions, employment opportunities, manufacturing industries, luxurious amenities, trade and commerce and other facilities encourage dense population in an area.

Question 2.
Describe the patterns of rural settlement with neat diagrams.
Answer:
Rectangular pattern:
Rectangular pattern of settlements are found in plain areas or valleys. The roads are rectangular and cut each other at right angles.

Linear pattern:
In a linear pattern, the houses are located along a road, railway line and along the edge of the river valley or along a levee.

Circular or semicircular pattern:
The pattern of settlement that is found around the lakes, ponds and sea coasts are called circular or semi circular pattern.

Star like pattern:
Where several metalled or unmetalled roads converge, star shaped settlements develop. In the star shaped settlements, houses are spread out along the sides of roads in all directions.

Triangular pattern:
Triangular patterns of rural settlement generally develop at the confluence of rivers.

T-Shaped, Y-Shaped, Cross-Shaped or
Cruciform settlements:
T-shaped settlements develop at trijunctions of the roads (T), while Y-shaped settlements emerge as the places where two roads converge with the third one. Cruciform settlements develop on the cross-roads which extend in all four directions.

Nebular pattern:
The arrangement of roads is almost circular which ends at the central location or nucleus of the settlement around the house of the main landlord of the village or around a mosque, temple or church.

VIII. HOTS:

Question 1.
Study your area and write down about its settlement pattern.
Answer:

1. My area is Velachery, Chennai – 42.
2. It was developed after the late 1990, in the Southern axis radiating out of the city.
3. It was built over a complex of low-lying wetlands.
4. In an already sunken Velachery, repeated road repairs had led to the roads increasing in height.
5. Lifting houses to escape floods.
6. Though Velachery is still a low lying area and the rainy season will be bad, it wouldn’t be as bad as before.
7. It is a place where we can get all facilitites like transport, shopping, restaurants, hair parlours etc., within 1 km

IX. Map skill:

A. On the outline map of the world mark the following.
1. An area of high density of population in Europe
2. An area of low density of population in Australia
3. PalkBay
4. A fracking banned country
5. England – A country affected by‘black death’
6. Denmark – First country where the modem census was conducted «
7. River Hwang Ho

B. On the outline map of Tamil Nadu mark the following.

1. A metropolitan city
2. A district with 7857 people per sq. km.
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Palk Strait

Man and Environment ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The interaction between man as an individual with his family, occupation and society is ……..
(a) Natural Environment
(b) Human Environment
(c) Man-made Environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Human Environment

Question 2.
The physical factor is ………..
(a) temperature
(b) war
(c) trade
(d) commerce
Answer:
(a) temperature

Question 3.
The economical factor is ……..
(a) rainfall
(b) water
(c) soil
(d) luxurious amenities
Answer:
(d) luxurious amenities

Question 4.
To enter (or) come into a new country for the purpose of settling there is known as ………..
(a) internal migration
(b) emigration
(c) immigration
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) immigration

Question 5.
The rural settlement that is found at the confluence of rivers is ……….
(a) linear pattern
(b) circular pattern
(c) star like pattern
(d) triangular pattern
Answer:
(d) triangular pattern

Question 6.
Transforming raw materials into finished goods is activity.
(a) primary
(b) secondary
(c) tertiary
(d) quinary
Answer:
(b) secondary

Question 7.
…….. is man-made pollution.
(a) Vehicular emission
(b) Wind erosion
(c) Pollen disposal
(d) Evaporation of organic compounds
Answer:
(a) Vehicular emission

Question 8.
Dry recyclable wastes are ……..
(a) food products
(b) packing plastics
(c) diapers
(d) mobiles
Answer:
(b) packing plastics

Question 9.
Van Mahotsav is a weeklong festival celebrated between ………
(a) 1^st and 7^th July
(b) 1^st and 7^th June
(c) 1^st and 7^th August
(d) 1^st and 71^th September
Answer:
(a) 1^st and 7^th July

Question 10.
…… disease is caused by water pollution.
(a) Hypertension
(b) Mental illness
(c) Stress
(d) Diarrhoea
Answer:
(d) Diarrhoea

II. Consider the given statements and choose the right option given below:

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Noise pollution is basically a problem of urban areas, industrial areas, transport areas due to bombardment, traffic etc.
Reason (R): It has an impact on the habitat of animals migration and health of inhabitants.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct and A does not explain R
(c) A is incorrect and R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Things used for domestic purposes can be reused and recycled.
Reason (R): Organic waste matter should be disposed off far away from settlements.
(a) Both A and R are incorrect
(b) Both A and R are correct
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) A and R are correct and A explains R
Answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct

III. Match the following:

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (d)

IV. Fill in the blanks.
1. …….. is the statistical study of human population.
2. ……. is an official enumeration of population carried out periodically.
3. …… is a condition when a country has more people than its resources to sustain.
4. Cities with more than 50 lakh population are called ……..
5. ……… Activities pertain to the extraction of raw materials from the earth’s surface.
6. …….. is a poisonous gas made up of molecules consisting three oxygen atoms.
7. ……. refers to the process of increase in urban population and urban areas in a country.
8. The economic sustainability is successfully implemented through strong ………
Answers:
1. Demography
2. Census
3. Overpopulation
4. megacities
5. Primary
6. Ozone
7. Urbanisation
8. Public Distribution System

V. Answer the following in brief.

Question 1.
Define Environment.
Answer:
Environment is a set of relationships between man and nature. Man has survived through the ages, dwelling within his surrounding called the environment.

Question 2.
Write a short note on “Human Environment”.
Answer:
Human environment is defined as the interaction between man as an individual, with his family, occupation and society. It is also related to various cultural aspects such as education, religion, economics and politics.

Question 3.
What is Demography?
Answer:
In ancient Greek, ‘demos’ means people and ‘graphis’ means study Of measurement: So, ‘Demography’is the statistical study of human population.

Question 4.
What does population distribution refer to?
Answer:
Population distribution refers to the way in which people are spread out across the earth’s surface.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Nebular pattern of road arrangement?
Answer:
The arrangement of roads is almost circular which ends at the central location or nucleus of the settlement around the house of the main landlord of the village or around a mosque, temple or church.

Question 6.
Mention the patterns of Rural Settlement.
Answer:

1. Rectangular pattern
2. Linear pattern
3. Circular or semicircular pattern
4. Star like pattern
5. Triangular pattern
6. T-Shaped, Y-Shaped, Cross-Shaped or Cruciform settlements
7. Nebular pattern

Question 7.
What are the control measures of Noise pollution?
Answer:
The control measures of noise pollution are:

1. Development of green belt vegetation.
2. Installation of decibel meters along highways and in places of public gatherings.
3. Planting trees along the compound wall to protect houses.

Question 8.
State the problems of urbanisation.
Answer:
As the town expands, it mounts more pressure on transport system, water supplies, sewage and profuse disposal. The overall development creates problems like air pollution, water pollution, traffic congestion and noise pollution etc., This disturbed environment affects the human beings as mental illness, heart troubles, breathing problems etc.

Question 9.
Classify wastes.
Answer:
Wastes can be classified into five types, which are commonly found around the house. These . include liquid waste, solid rubbish, organic waste, recyclable rubbish and hazardous waste like e-waste.

Question 10.
What do you mean by Environmental Sustainability?
Answer:
Environmental sustainability is the ability of the environment to support a defined level of environmental quality and natural resource extraction rates forever to mankind. Unnecessary disturbances to the environment should be avoided whenever possible.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Natural Environment and Human Environment.
Answer:

Question 2.
Rectangular Pattern and Linear Pattern.
Answer:

Question 3.
Tertiary Activities and Quarternary Activities.
Answer:

Question 4.
Town and City
Answer:

VII. Give Reasons

Question 1.
“It is easy to add but difficult to maintain.”
Answer:

1. Population is a dynamic phenomenon where the distribution and composition are constantly changing.
2. Human population increases as babies are born and decreases as people die. So it is easy to increase the number but difficult to maintain.

Question 2.
“Human settlement can be described as any temporary (or) permanent unit area”.
Answer:

1. During the early days man preferred tree branches, caves, pits (or) even rock cuts as his shelter.
2. Slowly settlements came into existence.
3. Later small settlements developed into villages, towns, cities. So he started living in settled areas.

Question 3.
“We must use forest products properly”.
Answer:
Besides providing habitats for animals and livelihoods for humans, forest products are one of the most essential things in our day to day life. Therefore we must use forest products properly.

Question 4.
“Pollution is an unfavourable modification of the natural world”.
Answer:
Pollute means to degrade or to make dirty. It is caused entirely (or) partly due to direct (or) indirect actions of human beings. So pollution is an unfavourable modification of the natural world.

Question 5.
Why do we get impervious diseases like skin cancer, blindness, loss of plankton?
Answer:
Due to the depletion of ozone layer, UV rays fall on the earth’s surface, and leads to impervious diseases like skin cancer, blindness, loss of plankton etc.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
Define Sustainable Development. Explain Social Sustainability and Economic Sustainability.
Answer:
“Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs”. For sustainable development to be achieved, it is crucial to harmonize three core elements: economic growth, social aspects and environmental protection. These elements are interconnected and are crucial for the wellbeing of individuals and societies. To achieve true sustainability, we need to balance the economic ,social and environmental factors of sustainability in equal harmony.

Social Sustainability
The ability of a social system such as a country, family or organization to function at a defined level of social well being and harmony is called social sustainability. Problems like war, endemic poverty, widespread injustice and low education rates are symptoms of a system in socially unsustainable. The balancing capacity of a government in maintaining peaceful existence towards other countries and at the same time providing the requirements of its citizens without affecting the environment creates social sustainability.

Economic Sustainability
The people on earth consume far more than what is their fair share.

• The economic sustainability is successfully implemented through strong Public Distrubution System.
• Economic sustainability ensures that our economic growth maintains a healthy balance with our ecosystem.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 5 Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu

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Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Successful Industrial Clusters In Tamilnadu Question 1.
‘The Detroit of Asia’ is …………….
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Industrial Clusters Meaning In Tamil Question 2.
Pumpsets and motors are produced mostly in
(a) Salem
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Dharampuri
Answer:
(b) Coimbatore

Industrial Clusters Question 3.
Tuticorin is known as …………
(a) Gatew ay of India
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu
(c) Pump city
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Gateway of Tamil Nadu

Question 4.
…………….. are an essential aspect of a nation’s development.
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Railway
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Industry

Question 5.
Tiruppur is knowm for ……………..
(a) Leather tanning
(b) Lock making
(c) Knitwear
(d) Agro-processing
Answer:
(c) Knitwear

Question 6.
Along with Ambur and Vaniyambadi is also a centre for leather goods exports.
(a) Chennai
(b) Sivakasi
(c) Coimbatore
(d) Madurai
Answer:
(a) Chennai

Question 7.
IT means …………….
(a) Indian Technology
(b) Information Technology
(c) Institute Technology
(d) Initiative Technology
Answer:
(b) Information Technology

Question 8.
A successful Industrial cluster entirely created by the Tamil Nadu is:
(a) Hosur
(b) Dindigul
(c) Kovilpatti
(d) Tirunelveli
Answer:
(a) Hosur

Question 9.
SIPCOT was formed in the year …………….
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1971
(d) 1978
Answer:
(c) 1971

Question 10.
Which is the Tamil Nadu Industrial Development Agency?
(a) SIPCOT
(b) TANSIDCO
(c) TIDCO
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………… are very important in the modem economic activities of man.
2. ………….. are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common market and technologies.
3. Hundred of leather and tannery facilities are located around ………………. District in Tamil Nadu.
4. ……………… is fondly called as ‘Little Japan’.
5. Special Economic Zones policy was introduced in …………….
6. ……………. is an innovator of new ideas and business processes.
Answers:
1. Industries
2. Industrial clusters
3. Vellore
4. Sivakasi
5. April 2000
6. Entrepreneur

III. Choose the correct statement

Question 1.
I. Entrepreneurship promotes capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the public.
II. They are not providing large scale employment to artisan, technically qualified persons and professionals.
III. Entrepreneurs help the country to increase the GDP and per capitals income.
IV. Entrepreneurs not promote country’s export trade.
(a) I and IV is correct
(b) I only correct
(c) III and IV is correct
(d) I and III is correct
Answer:
(d) I and III is correct

IV. Pick out odd one.

Question 1.
Which one of the following is not having leather factories?
(a) Ranipet
(b) Dharmapuri
(c) Ambur
(d) Vaniyambadi
Answer:
(b) Dharmapuri

Question 2.
Which one of the following is not a Industrial developing agency?
(a) TIDCO
(b) SIDCO
(c) MEPG
(d) SIPCOT
Answer:
(c) MEPG

V. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (e)
5. (b)

VI. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Why should a developing economy diversify out of agriculture?
Answer:
The demand for agricultural products remains constant at all levels of income, The agricultural products need to be processed and preserved to exports them, and there are limit for the primary sector to absorb labour. For all these reasons, a developing economy diversify out of agriculture.

Question 2.
Why are wages low in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
There are limits to the ability of agriculture to absorb labour due to the declining marginal productivity of land. As a result, labour productivity in the agricultural sector cannot increase much. Wages cannot increase as a result poverty levels may remain high, especially when more and more people continue to rely on agriculture for their livelihood.

Question 3.
What is meant by an industrial cluster?
Answer:
Industrial clusters are groups of firms in a defined geographic area that share common markets, technologies and skill requirements.

Question 4.
What are the routes for cluster formation?
Answer:
Apart from the Chennai region, industrial growth has been concentrated in several small towns clusters. Throughout the state, with the western region being more dominant these clusters specialise in a range of activities like clothing, home furnishing, textiles, leather, poultry, coir products, transport, equipment servicing, engineering services and auto component making.

Question 5.
Mention the 3 areas of policy-making that helped Tamil Nadu become one of the most industrialised states in the country.
Answer:

1. Education – The state is known for its vast supply of Technical Human Resources.
2. Infrastructure – Excellent Infrastructure facilities like transport facilities, electricity, markets, widespread m the state.
3. Industrial promotion – Efforts taken to promote specific sectors like automobile, auto components. IT etc..

Question 6.
Mention any three industrial development agencies in Tamil Nadu and their role.
Answer:
SIPCOT: (State Industries Promotion Corporation of Tamil Nadu), 1971
It was formed in the year 1971 to promote industrial growth in the state by setting up industrial estates.

TANSIDCO: (Tamil Nadu Small Industries Development corporation), 1970
TANSIDCO is a state-agency of the state of Tamil Nadu established in the year 1970 to promote small-scale industries in the state. It gives subsidies and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale sector.

TIDCO (TamilNadu Industrial Development Corporation), 1965:
TIDCO is another government agency to promote industries in the state and to establish industrial estates.

Question 7.
What are the problems of industrialization currently in Tamil Nadu?
Answer:

1. Some of the Industrial clusters tend to generate a lot of polluting effluents that affects health.
2. Decrease in the employment potential due to use of capital intensive technology.
3. Quality of employment suffer a§ workers are employed temporarily.

Question 8.
What is Meant by Entrepreneur?
Answer:
Entrepreneur is an innovator of new ideas and business processes. He possesses management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Question 9.
What is Entrepreneurship?
Answer:
It is a process of an action of an entrepreneur Who undertakes efforts to establish his enterprise. It is the ability to run the business-facing risk and innovating new ideas.

VII. Brief Answer.

Question 1.
What are the contributions of industrialization to development?
Answer:
As stated earlier, it is essential to produce inputs to other producers in an economy. Even agriculture requires inputs from industry such as fertilizers and tractors to increase productivity.

Second, a market exists for both producers and consumer goods. Even services like banking, transport and trade are dependent on the production of industrial goods.

Third, by using modem methods of production, industries contribute to better productivity’ and hence lower cost of production of all goods produced. It therefore helps people to buy goods at a cheaper rate and help create demand for more products.

Fourth, through such expansion of production, industrialization helps to absorb the labour force coming out of agriculture. Employment generation is therefore an important objective of industrialisation.

Fifth, a related advantage of industrialization is therefore technological change. Through use of modem techniques, industrialisation contributes to learning of such methods and their improvement. As a result labour productivity, ie, output per unit of labour input increases, which can help workers earn higher wages.

Sixth, expanding incomes lead to more demand for goods and services. If an economy is not able to produce enough to meet such demand, it has to rely on imports and therefore spends a lot of foreign exchange. If the economy does not earn enough from exporting, it will be difficult to meet the growing demand. Industrialization therefore helps an economy to save and also generate foreign exchange through exports.

Question 2.
Write a note on history of industrialisaton in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu has a vast coastline therefore the region has been involved in trade with both South – East and West Asia for several centuries.
2. The introduction of cotton cultivation in Western and Southern Tamil Nadu by the Colonial Government led to the emergence of large – scale textile Industries.
3. The introduction of Railways also expanded the market for cotton yam and helped to develop this sector.
4. The Chennai and Tuticorin ports in Tamil Nadu led to the greater Industrial development.
5. The growth of Jaggery Industry in South Tamil Nadu and match factory in the Sivakasi region, Leather production in Dindigul, Vellore and Ambur region are remarkable development of Industries in Tamil Nadu.
6. Another major development in the Western region is the introduction of electricity from hydro- electric power in 1930’s.
7. The emergence of workshops for servicing engines and also for demand for spare parts.
8. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) in Tiruchy and Avadi Industrial Estate in 1950’s to supplying to the large firms in the region.
9. The Salem Steel Plant was set up in 1973 to produce stainless steel.
10. In 1990’s with the,ideas of Liberalisation phase, many MNC’s has been opened such as Nokia, Foxconn, Samsung etc.,
11. Tamil Nadu has been halied as a model for successfully using the SEZ route to attract productive Investments also.

Question 3.
What are the important characteristics of successful industrial clusters?
Answer:
The following are the chief characteristics of a successful cluster.

• geographical proximity of small and medium enterprises (SMEs)
• sectoral specialisation
• close inter-firm collaboration
• inter-firm competition based on innovation
• a socio-cultural identity, which facilitates trust
• multi-skilled workforce
• active self-help organisations, and
• supportive regional and municipal governments.

Question 4.
Write about the Textile industry cluster in Tamil Nadu.
Answer:

1. Tamil Nadu is the home to the largest textile sector in the country.
2. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore is often referred as the Manchester of South India.
3. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.
4. Palladam, Somanur small towns near Coimbatore region, and Erode and Salem region have large number of powerloom units.
5. Cotton knitwear firms accounting for nearly 80% of the cotton knitwear exports and generates large employment in Tiruppur region.
6. Because of the success in the global market, it is seen as one of the most dynamic clusters in the Global South countries in the Southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
Write in detail about the types of policies adopted by the Tamil Nadu government to industrialise?
Answer:
Industrial Policy of Tamil Nadu:
Tamil Nadu enjoys growth and has excellent infrastructure. A straggly established cluster and political stability are the major advantages. The state government has a pro-active industrial policy and is very encouraging when it comes to SEZs.
Important industrial policies:
(a) Tamil Nadu Industrial Policy – 2014
(b) Implementation of Industrial Policy – 2015
(c) Tamilnadu State Environmental Policy – 2014
(d) Tamilnadu SEZs Policy – 2013
(e) Tamilnadu Automobiles and Auto Parts Policy – 2014
(f) Tamilnadu Biotechnology Policies – 2014

Question 6.
Explain the role of Entrepreneur.
Answer:
Entrepreneur is a person one who possesses management skills, strong team building abilities and essential leadership qualities to manage a business.

Role of Entrepreneur:

1. To promote development of Industries.
2. To remove regional disparities by Industrialising rural and backward areas.
3. To help the country to increase the GDP and Pre-capita income.
4. They contribute towards the development of society by reducing concentration of Income and wealth.
5. They promote capital formation by mobilising the idle saving of the citizens and country’s exports.
6. Entrepreneurs provide large – scale employment to artisans, technically qualified persons and work in an environment of changing
7. technology and try to maximize profits by innovations.
8. To enable the people to avail better quality goods at lower prices.
9. This results in the improvement of their standard of living.

VIII. Case studies

Question 1.
Choose a cluster in Tamil Nadu based on online research and write a note on it.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

IX. Activity and project.

Question 1.
Write a note on a cluster or a firm near your school/home based on your observations.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

X. Life Skills

Question 1.
Teacher and Students discuss about the entrepreneurs and their activities and Write an a essay in the topic of “If you are like a Entrepreneur”.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Industrial Clusters in Tamil Nadu Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
In the year 1965 …………….. was formed.
(a) TIDCO
(b) TALW
(c) TANSI
Answer:
(a) TIDCO

Question 2.
Countries in the Southern hemisphere are called Global ………………. countries.
(a) Western
(b) South
(c) Eastern
(d) Minor
Answer:
(b) South

Question 3.
……………. gives subsides and provide technical assistance for new firms in the small scale
sector.
(a) TANSIDCO
(b) SIPCOT
(c) TANSI
Answer:
(a) TANSIDCO

Question 4.
………………. is nicknamed as the Detroit of Asia.
(a) Madurai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Chennai
(d) Tiruppur
Answer:
(c) Chennai

Question 5.
The MEPZ headquarters is located on:
(a) Chennai
(b) Coimbatore
(c) Madurai
(d) Ramnad
Answer:
(a) Chennai

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. Food products are taken over longer distances processed and ……………..
2. Countries in the southern hemisphere are called …………….
3. The ……………. district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country.
4. ……………. is famous for cotton knitwear.
5. Chennai is nick named as ………………
Answers:
1. branded
2. Global South countries
3. Vellore
4. Tiruppur
5. The Detroit of Asia

III. Match the following.

a.

Answer:
1. (f)
2. (c)
3. (e)
4. (d)
5. (b)
6. (a)

b.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘Industry’?
Answer:
Any human activity which is engaged in the conversion of raw materials into readily usable materials is called an Industry.

Question 2.
What is consumer goods rector?
Answer:
If the output is consumed by the final consumer, it is called as consumer goods sectors.

Question 3.
Name few examples of Industrial clusters.
Answer:
Clothing, home furnishing, textiles, leather, poultry, coir products, engineering services, etc., are few examples of Industrial sector clusters.

Question 4.
How do clusters Originate?
Answer:
Clusters may arise due to many factors. Certain clusters evolve over a long time in history when artisans settle in one locality and evolve over centuries. Hand loom weaving clusters are one example of this development.

Government may decide to encourage manufacturing using raw materials from a region, which may also lead to emergence of clusters.

Question 5.
Why is Coimbatore often referred to as the ‘Manchester of South India”?
Answer:
Most of the cotton textile Industries are located in Coimbatore region since the colonial period, so it is called as Manchester of South India.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Write about the major Industrial Clusters and their specialisation in Tamil Nadu. Automotive Clusters:
Answer:
Chennai is nicknamed as “ The Detroit of Asia” because of its large auto industry base. Chennai is home to large number of auto assembly and coponents making firms.
While there were a few domestic firms like TVS, TI Cycles, Ashok Leyland and Standard Motors earlier in the post-reform period, several MNC firms like Hyundai, Ford, Daimler- Benz and Renault-Nissan have opened factories in the region.

Textile Cluster:
Tamil Nadu is home to the largest textiles sector in the country. Because of the development of cotton textile industry since the colonial period, Coimbatore often referred as the “Manchester of South India”

At present, most of the spinning mills have moved to the smaller towns and villages at a radius over 100 to 150 km around the Coimbatore city. Tamil Nadu is the biggest producer of cotton yam in the country.

Palladam and Somanur, small towns near Coimbatore and the villages near these towns, are home to a dynamic power loom weaving cluster as well. Power loom is however more widespread with Erode and Salem region too having a large number of power loom units.

Leather and Leather Goods Clusters:
Tamil Nadu accounts for 60% of leather tanning capacity in India and 38 % of all leather Leather footwear, garments and components. Hundreds of leather and tannery facilities are located around Vellore and its nearby towns, such as Ranipet, Ambur and Vaniyambadi. The Vellore district is the top exporter of finished leather goods in the country. The leather products sector too is a major employment generator.

Fireworks, Matches and Printing Cluster:
Sivakasi region, once famous for its match industry has now become a major centre for printing and fireworks in the country. It is believed to contribute to 90% of India’s fireworks production, 80% of safety matches and 60% of offset printing solutions. The offset printing industry has a high degree of specialization among firms with several of them undertaking just one operation required for printing. All these industries have their origin in the colonial period and at present offer employment to a large number of workers.

Question 2.
Write a note a Special Economic Zones.
Answer:

1. SEZ (or) Special Economic Zones are set up based on the policy that was introduced in april 2000.
2. This was set up to have hazzle free environment for exports.
3. The policy provides for setting up of SEZs in the public, private, joint sector (or) by the State Governments.
4. It also envisaged that some of the existing Export Processing Zone would be converted into Special Economic Zones.
5. Accordingly, the Government has converted EPZ into SEZ in almost eight places in Tamil Nadu.
6. The Madras Export Processing Zone (MEPZ) is one of the seven export processing zones in the country set up by the Central Government.
7. It was established in 1984 to promote foreign direct investment, enhance foreign exchange earnings and create greater employment opportunities in the region.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Geography Solutions Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade

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India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

India Population Transport Communication And Trade Question 1.
The scientific study of different aspects of population is called ……..
(a) Photography
(b) Demography
(c) Choreography
(d) Population density
Answer:
(b) Demography

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Question 2.
The state with highest literacy rate as per 2011 census is:
(a) Tamil nadu
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttarpradesh.
Answer:
(c) Kerala

10th Social India Map In Tamil Question 3.
Human Development is measured in terms of …….
(a) Human Resource Index
(b) Per capita index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) UNDP
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index

10th Social India Outline Map Question 4.
…………………. transport provides door to door services.
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways.
Answer:
(b) Roadways

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Geography Book Question 5.
The length of Golden Quadrilateral superhighways in India is
(a) 5846 km
(b) 5847 km
(c) 5849 km
(d) 5800 km
Answer:
(a) 5846 km

10th India Outline Map Question 6.
The length of navigable Inland waterways in India is:
(a) 17,500 km
(b) 5000 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 1000 km
Answer:
(c) 14,500 km

Question 7.
The National Remote sensing Centre (NRSC) is located at
(a) Bengaluru
(b) Chennai
(c) Delhi
(d) Hyderabad
Answer:
(d) Hyderabad

Question 8.
The transport useful in the inaccessible areas is:
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
(d) Waterways
Answer:
(c) Airways

Question 9.
Which of the following is associated with helicopter services?
(a) Air India
(b) Indian Airlines
(c) Vayudoot
(d) Pavan Hans
Answer:
(d) Pavan Hans

Question 10.
The major import item of India is:
(a) Cement
(b) Jewells
(c) Tea
(d) Petroleum
Answer:
(d) Petroleum

II. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (f)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

III. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is Human Development?
Answer:
Dr Mahabub-ul-haq defined Human Development as “it is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment. It covers the full range of human choices from a sound physical environment to economic, social and political freedom”.

Question 2.
What is migration? State its types.
Answer:
It is the movement of people across regions and territories.

1. Internal migration and
2. International migration.

Question 3.
Write any four advantages of railways.
Answer:
Advantages of Railways:

1. Cater to the needs of large scale movement of traffic for freight and passengers.
2. Promotes trade, tourism, education etc.
3. Promotes National integration by bringing people together.
4. Facilitates the quick movement of perishable goods.

Question 4.
Write a note on Pipeline network transport in India.
Answer:
Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural products and natural gas from oil fields to the refineries, factories and big thermal power plants. Pipelines are more reliable and considerably safer mode of transportation. The possibility of pilferage or product less on pipelines is almost negligible. The basic limitations of pipelines is that they are capital intensive mode of transportation.

Question 5.
State the major Inland waterways of India.
Answer:

1. Ganga – Bhagirathi – Hoogly river system between Haldia and Allahabad.
2. Stretch of the Brahmaputra river between Dhubri and Sadiya National Waterway.
3. The waterway between Kollam and Kottapuram – the first national waterway.

Question 6.
What is communication? What are its types?
Answer:
Communication refers to exchange of ideas, messages, emotions, either written or oral, from one place to another.
Types of communications are :

1. personal communication and
2. mass communication.

Question 7.
Define “International trade”.
Answer:
Trade carried on between two or more countries is called “International trade”. It is also called as external trade or foreign trade. It has two components Exports and Imports.

Question 8.
State the merits of Roadways.
Answer:

1. Cost of construction of roads is much lower.
2. Provides door to door services thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
3. Used as feeder to other modes of transport to reach any destination be it railway station, sea port or airport, one need to travel through roads.

IV. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
The density of population and growth of population.
Answer:

Question 2.
Personal communication and mass communication.
Answer:

Question 3.
Print Media and Electronic Media.
Answer:

Question 4.
Roadways and Railways.
Answer:

Question 5.
Waterways Airways
Answer:

Question 6.
Internal trade and International trade.
Answer:

V. Answer the following in a paragraph.

Question 1.
What is urbanization? Explain its impacts.
Answer:
“The process of society’s transformation from rural to urban is known as urbanization”.

Impacts of Urbanization:

1. Overcrowding in urban centres.
2. It creates urban sprawl.
3. It leads to the formation of slums.
4. Shortage of houses in urban areas.
5. It creates water scarcity in the cities.
6. It creates drainage problem.
7. It poses the problem of solid waste management.
8. It increases traffic congestion in cities.
9. It increases the rate of crime.

A rapid rate of urbanization in society is taken as an indicator of its economic development.

Question 2.
Explain the importances of satellite communication in India.
Answer:
Satellite images are used for weather forecasting, monitory of natural calamities, surveillance of border areas etc. The communication through satellites emerged as a new era in communication in our country after the establishment of Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) in 1969. Satellite systems in India can be grouped into two on the basis of two satellites namely “Indian National Satellite” (INSAT) and “Indian Remote Sensing Satellite” (IRS). These satellites collect data in several spectral band and transmit there to ground stations for various uses. The communication and remote sensing satellites INSAT and IRS have revolutionized India’s communication system. Metrological studies and natural resource management.

The National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA) at Hyderabad provides facilities for acquisition of data and its processing. There is no doubt that India has irrefatably arrived as a space power in the world. The INSAT series are used for relaying signals to television, telephone, radio, mobile phone. It is also useful in weather detection, internet. The INSAT series GSAT series, GSAT series KALPANA -1, HAMSAT, EDUSAT are the major communication satellite used for communication purpose. GSAT – 7A is the recent launch for communication programs. INSAT – IB launched on 30th August, 1983 is the first communication satellite in INSAT series.

Question 3.
Bring out the distribution and density of population in India.
Answer:
The term “Population Distribution” refers to the way the people are spaced over the earth’s surface.

The distribution of population in India is unevenly distributed due to the vast variation in the availability of resources.

Factors that affect the distribution of population are: Terrain, climate, soil, water bodies, mineral resources, industries, transport and urbanization.

Areas of high concentration of population: Industrial centres and the areas of good agricultural lands.

Areas of thin population: high mountains, arid lands, thickly forested areas and some remote comers and some areas are even uninhabited.

Most populous states in India: Uttar Pradesh is the most populous state in India (199.5 million) followed by Maharashtra (112.3 million), Bihar (103.8 million) West Bengal (91.3 million) and the combined Andhra Pradesh (84.6 million).

Least populated State: Sikkim (0.61 million).

Union territory with high population: Delhi (16.75 million). Union territory with least population – Lakshadweep (64,073).

Question 4.
Explain the process of measuring Human Development.
Answer:
Dr. Mahabub – ul – Haq defined as “It is a process of enlarging the range of people’s choice, increasing their opportunities for education, health care, income and empowerment”. Human
Development Index (HDI) is a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development.

1. Health – life expectancy at birth,
2. Education – expected years of schooling for school age children and average years of schooling for the adult population,
3. Income – Measured by gross national income and per capita income.

Question 5.
Classify and explain the roadways in India.
Answer:
Roadways play an important role in carrying goods and passengers for short, medium and long distances. It is highly suitable for short-distance services.

For the purpose of construction and maintenance Roadways in India are classified into:

1. National Highways (NH)
2. State Highways (SH)
3. District Roads
4. Rural Roads (Village roads)
5. Border Roads
6. International Highways

National Highways:

1. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways of India is responsible for the development and maintenance of the National Highways in India.
2. These Highways are connecting capitals of states, major ports, rail junctions, industrial and tourist centres.
3. The total length of the National Highways in India is 1,01,011 Km which accounts for 1.8% of total road network length in 2016.
4. The longest National Highway NH-7 runs from Varanasi (U.R) to Kanyakumari (T.N) to a distance of 2369 km.
5. The shortest National Highway is NH-47A, runs from Emakulum to Kochi port (Willington Island) covering a distance of 6 km.

State Highways:

1. These roads are administered and financed by State Governments.
2. These highways link important cities, towns and district headquarters within the state and connect them with national highways or highways of neighbouring states.
3. State highways run to a length of 1,76,166 km as of 2016.

District Roads:

1. District Roads are constructed and maintained by the Public Works Department of the states.
2. District Roads provide connectivity between the district and taluk headquarters with the state highways and national highways.
3. The total length of the road is 5,61,940 km in 2016.
4. Rural Roads (Village Roads): They are maintained by village Panchayats.
5. It links different villages with their neighbouring towns.
6. Rural roads connectivity is a key component of Rural development.
7. The total length of Rural roads in India is 39,35,337 km as of 2016.
8. Rural roads consists of Panchayat roads, (Zilla Parishad, Panchayat Samiti, Gram Panchayat), roads of the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY) and those constructed by the State PWDs.

Border Roads:

1. They are constructed and maintained by Border Roads Organization established in 1960 for the development of the roads of Northern and North Eastern border areas.
2. These are the roads of strategic importance in border areas.
3. The Border Road organization has constructed world’s highest road joining Chandigarh and Leh in Ladak (at an altitude 4,270 mt).
4. Golden Quadrilateral: This project was launched in 1999.
5. It connects India’s four metropolitan cities Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai Mumbai.
6. It has 4/6 lanes and of 5,846 km long.
7. North-South and East-West corridors: These two corridors intersect at Jhansi.
8. North-South Corridor connects Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kaniyakumari in Tamil Nadu (4,076 km).
9. The East-West corridor connects Silchar in Assam with port town of Porbandar in Gujarat (3,640 km).

Express ways: These are the multi lane good quality highways for high speed traffic. Eg: (a) Mumbai – Pune Road, (b) Delhi – Agra.

International Highways:

1. These Highways have been constructed with an aid from World Bank under an agreement with the Economic and Social Commission for Asia-pacific (ESCAP).
2. These roads link India with her neighbouring countries – Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar.

India has the second-longest road network in the world.

VI. On the outline map of India mark the following.

1. National Highway NH-7.
3. Major International Airports in India.

2. Major seaports in India.
4. Densely populated state of India.
5. State of highest literacy in India.

6. Railway zones of India

In-Text Hots Questions:

Question 1.
What could be the reason for uneven distribution of population in India?
Answer:
The uneven distribution of population in the country is the result of several factors such as physical, socio-economic and historical ones.

Physical factors: Relief, climate, water, natural, vegetation, mineral and energy resources.

Socio-economic factors: Religion, political issues economy, human settlements, transport network, industrialization, urbanization, employment opportunity etc.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for the rapid growth of population in India?
Answer:

• Widening gap between birth and death rates.
• Low age at marriage.
• High illiteracy.
• Religious attitudes towards family planning.

Question 3.
The sex ratio in our country is always unfavourable to females. Give reasons.
Answer:

1. Attitude of the people: Prestige and pride in having male child made them to prefer a male child to a female child.
2. Female infanticide: Even now in same places it is being done for fear of neglect by their family members if they give birth to a female child.
3. Future marriage expenses on female child.
4. Considered as weaker sex so will not be given opportunity to prove their ability suppressed by male domination.

Question 4.
Find out what are the functions of NHAI.
Answer:
The functions of National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) are:

• To develop, maintain and manage the national highways and any other highways vested in, or entrusted to it by the Government.
• Survey, develop, maintain and manage highways vested in, or entrusted to it.
• Construct offices or workshops and establish and maintain hotels, motels, restaurants and rest-rooms at or near the highways vested in, or entrusted to it.
• Construct residential buildings and townships for its Employees.
• Regulate and control the plying of vehicles on the highways vested in or entrusted to it for the proper management thereof.
• Provide such facilities and amenities for the users of the highways vested in, or entrusted to it as are in the opinion the Authority, necessary for the smooth flow of traffic on such highways.
• Advise the Central Government on matters relating to highways.

Question 5.
What are the highlights and benefits of the Golden Quadrilateral Highways?
Answer:
The main objective of this project is connectivity, speed and safety.

Connectivity: Connects four major metropolitan cities enhances the movement of goods and people to the industrial areas enhances job development.
Access to hinterland of agricultural areas to market areas, ports for export needs.

Speed: Reduces the travel time.

Safety: Six lanes super highways meant for safety.

This project was launched in the year 1999. Implemented by National Highway Authority of India.

Encourages the private sector companies to invest, develop and maintain these highways.

Question 6.
Why is air travel preferred in the north eastern states?
Answer:

• Due to mountains, rivers, etc. road journey becomes too long even for short distance.
• So air travel is the most feasible option and the costs are also quite low due to subsidies by the government.
• Most of the cities have regional active airports.
• Air transport is preferred mainly in the North eastern states of India.

Question 7.
Find out the major trade blocks which are useful for multilateral trade.
Answer:
Major trade blocks useful for Multilateral trade.

EU: European Union

APEC: (Asian Pacific Economic Community) .

ASEAN: (Association of South East Asian Nations)

SAPTA: (South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement)

These trade blocks made the international trade easier. All member countries who signed the agreement are treated equally. These trade blocks remove the barriers and complications arose between nations in international trade.

Activity:

Question 1.
Prepare a seminar topic about “Role of Railways in Indian Economy”.
Answer:
Role of Railways in Indian Economy

• Railways are the principle mode of transportation for freight and passengers in India.
• Railways also make it possible to conduct multifarious activities like business, sight seeing, pilgrimage along with transportation of goods over longer distances.
• Railways in India bind the economic life of the country as well as accelerate the development of industry and agriculture.
• The distribution pattern of the railway netw ork in the country has been largely influenced by physiographic, economic and administrative factors.

Question 2.
Collect the names for different types of goods and differentiate it and make a table as perishable and non-perishable goods.
Answer:
Perishable goods are foods like fresh meat, seafood, and ripe fruits.
Non-perishable are items that do not spoil or decay.
Ex. Canned goods, all pasta types, sugar, flour, curls and chips if air-sealed.

Question 3.
Collect the countries names and make it as a table of Bilateral trade and multilateral trade countries.
Answer:

Find Out:

The important National Highways in India and label it on the outline map of India.

The important National Highways in India are:
NH-6- Hazira to Kolkata (via Nagpur, Raipur, Sambalpur and Dhule)
NH-7 -Varanasi to Kanyakumari (Nagpur, Bangaluru and Madurai
NH-8 – Delhi to Mumbai (Jaipur, Ahmedabad and Vadodara)
NH-9 – Pune to Machilipatnam and Hyderabad, Vijayawada

The important National Highways in India.

India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India is the ……. most populous country in the world.
(a) first
(b) second
(c) sixth
Answer:
(b) second

Question 2.
The …………………. is the least populous state.
(a) Assam
(b) Goa
(c) Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer:
(c) Sikkim

Question 3.
Postal service and telegraph are some of the ………. communication.
(a) personal
(b) professional
(c) mass
Answer:
(a) personal

Question 4.
In India the year of demographic divide registered negative growth rate is ………………….
(a) 1921
(b) 1931
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
Answer:
(a) 1921

Question 5.
The headquarters of the Northern Railways is ………
(a) Jabalpur
(b) Allahabad
(c) Guwahati
Answer:
(c) Guwahati

Question 6.
The National Highways Authority of India was established in:
(a) 1975
(b) 1985
(c) 1995
(d) 2005
Answer:
(c) 1995

Question 7.
The first railway line was laid between in 1853.
(a) Delhi and Kolkata
(b) Mumbai and Kolkata
(c) Mumbai and Thane
Answer:
(c) Mumbai and Thane

Question 8.
Indian Railways is organized into …………………. zones for operations and management.
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 16
(d) 19
Answer:
(c) 16

Question 9.
Trade blocs are created to make the ……. trade easier.
(a) Multilateral
(b) Bilateral
(c) Local
Answer:
(a) Multilateral

Question 10.
The …………………. is the fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
(a) Roadways
(b) Railways
(c) Waterways
(d) Airways
Answer:
(c) Waterways

Question 11.
The headquarters of Indian Railways is ……..
(a) Mumbai
(b) New Delhi
(c) Nagpur
Answer:
(b) New Delhi

Question 12.
The …………………. are the most powerful means of print media.
(a) Radio
(b) Magazines
(c) Fax
(d) Newspapers
Answer:
(d) Newspapers

Question 13.
The highways connecting the four metropolitan cities – Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.
(a) Six lanes super highways
(b) Expressways
(c) Border Roads
Answer:
(a) Six lanes super highways

Question 14.
Primitive method of trade was known as system.
(a) communication
(b) barter
(c) bilateral
(d) balanced
Answer:
(b) barter

Question 15.
Metro Rail transport in Chennai was introduced in …….
(a) 2015
(b) 2014
(c) 2005
Answer:
(a) 2015

Question 16.
Since 1957 All India Radio came to be called ……..
(a) Akshvani
(b) Sooriyan FM
(c) Vivith Bharathy
Answer:
(a) Akshvani

Question 17.
The Government of India merged all the Indian Airlines under ………
(a) TATA Airline
(b) National Aviation Corporation of India
(c) Airport Authority of India
Answer:
(b) National Aviation Corporation of India

Question 18.
Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays.
(a) Railways
(b) Pipelines
(c) Roadways
Answer:
(b) Pipelines

Question 19.
Which of the following sates is not connected with the H.V.J. Pipeline?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
Answer:
(b) Maharashtra

Question 20.
Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the
east coast?
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradip
(c) Vishakhapatnam
Answer:
(c) Vishakhapatnam

Question 21.
Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries?
(a) Internal Trade
(b) International Trade
(c) Local Trade
Answer:
(b) International Trade

Question 22.
The National Highway No.l is also known as
(a) Mahatma Gandhi Marg
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru Road
Answer:
(b) Sher Shah Suri Marg

Question 23.
Trade carried in cities, towns and villages is called
(a) External trade
(b) Local trade
(c) international trade
Answer:
(b) Local trade

Question 24.
The Indian National Highways are maintained by the department of …….
(a) State Public Works Department
(b) Zila Parishad
(c) Central Public Works Department
Answer:
(c) Central Public Works Department

Question 25.
Which one of the following organizations constructs Border roads in India?
(a) PWD
(b) CPWD
(c) NHAI
Answer:
(c) NHAI

Question 26.
World has become a global village due to which of the following?
(a) Transport and communication
(b) Engineering Industry
(c) International trade
Answer:
(a) Transport and communication

Question 27.
Border Roads Organization was established in
(a) 1950
(b) 1955
(c) 1960
Answer:
(c) 1960

Question 28.
The longest highways of India is
(a) National Highway – 8
(b) National Highway – 7
(c) National Highway – 1
Answer:
(b) National Highway – 7

Question 29.
Delhi and Mumbai are connected by …..
(a) National Highway – 1
(b) National Highway – 15
(c) National Highway – 8
Answer:
(c) National Highway – 8

Question 30.
Which Port is the major iron ore exporting port of the country?
(a) Mumbai Port
(b) Marmagoa
(c) Kandala Port
Answer:
(b) Marmagoa

Question 31.
The biggest port is …….
(a) Mumbai Port
(b) Marmagoa Port
(c) Kandala Port
Answer:
(a) Mumbai Port

Question 32.
The extreme south – western port is …….
(a) Tuticorin Port
(b) Kochi Port
(c) New Mangalore Port
Answer:
(b) Kochi Port

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. Our National Integration is strengthened by the ……
2. …… have been replaced by more powerful diesel or electric engines.
3. There are ……… major ports located on the coast line of India.
4. Crude oil, petroleum and natural gas are transported by ……….
5. The largest terrestrial network of the world is ……….
6. The latest means of communication is ………
7. The multi purpose satellite system for telecommunication is …… – INSAT
8. The roadways are able to connect most of the ……… villages.
9. It is easier to construct and maintain ………..
10. National highways are maintained by ……… Government.
11. Indian railways system is the ……… in Asia.
12. Under transport the ….. forms the lifeline of the country.
13. The city ……. is the focal point from where railway lines radiate in all directions.
14. River Ganga is navigable upto …….
15. This world has been shrunk since the introduction of ……..
Answers:
1. Railways
2. Steam Engines
3. 13
4. pipelines
5. Doordharshan
6. Satellite
7. Indian National Satellite
8. remote
9. roadways
10. Central
11. largest
12. Railways
13. Delhi
14. Varanasi
15. Internet

III. Match the following.

Answers:
(1 – c)
(2 – d)
(3 – a)
(4 – e)
(5 – b)

Answers:
(1 – d)
(2 – a)
(3 – e)
(4 – c)
(5 – b)

Answers:
(1 – e)
(2 – c)
(3 – a)
(4 – b)
(5 – d)

Answers:
(1 – d)
(2 – c)
(3 – e)
(4 – b)
(5 – a)

IV. Answer in one word.

Question 1.
What provides information regarding the population of our country?
Answer:
The Census of India.

Question 2.
When was the first Census held in India?
Answer:
1872

Question 3.
When was the first complete census taken?
Answer:
1881

Question 4.
After how many years Census is held in India?
Answer:
Census is held regularly after every tenth year.

Question 5.
Which is the most comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic data in India?
Answer:
Indian Census

Question 6.
What is the population of India according to 2001 and 2011 Census?
Answer:
India’s population size as on March 2001 stood at 1,028 million and in 2011 is 1,210 million.

Question 7.
Which is the most populous state of India?
Answer:
Uttar Pradesh

Question 8.
Which is the least populated state of India?
Answer:
Sikkim

Question 9.
Which is the least populated region of India?
Answer;
Lakshadweep

Question 10.
Name the five most populated states in India.
Answer:

1. Uttar Pradesh,
2. Maharashtra,
3. Bihar,
4. West Bengal and
5. Andhra Pradesh.

Question 11.
Define population density.
Answer
It is calculated as the number of persons per unit area.

Question 12.
Which is the least densely populated state of India?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh with 17 persons per sq.km.

Question 13.
Name the three main processes of change of population.
Answer:
Birth rates, death rates and migration.

Question 14.
Which two countries have a higher average population density than India?
Answer:
Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 15.
What are various types of migration?
Answer:
Internal migration and International migration.

Question 16.
Define age structure.
Answer:
It refers to the number of people in different age groups in a country.

Question 17.
Define sex ratio.
Answer:
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the popultion.

Question 18.
Is sex ratio balanced in India?
Answer:
No

Question 19.
Which regions of India has the highest and lowest sex ratio as per Census 2011?
Answer:
Kerala has a sex ratio of 1084 females per 1000 males, Delhi has only 866 females per 1000 males.

Question 20.
Who is a literate?
Answer:
A person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

V. Distinguish between.

Question 1.
National Highways and State Highways.
Answer:

Question 2.
Exports and Imports.
Answer:

Question 3.
Village Roads and District Roads.
Answer:

Question 4.
Bilateral Trade and Multilateral Trade
Answer:

Question 5.
Birth Rate and Death Rate
Answer:

Question 6.
Favourable balance of trade and Unfavaourable balance of Trade
Answer:

VI. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
What is the position of Indian population in the World?
Answer:

1. India is the second most populous country in the world.
2. It is the home of 17.5% of world’s population.
3. One out of every six persons in the w orld is from India.
4. Our population is almost equal to the combined population of USA, Indonesia, Brazil, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Japan.

Question 2.
How is the population of India grouped?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories.

1. Children (below 15 years): They are economically unproductive and need to be provided with food, clothing, education and medical care.
2. Working Age (15-59 years): They are economically productive and biologically reproductive. They comprise the working population.
3. Aged (above 59 years): They can be economically productive though they may have retired.

Question 3.
What does the term “population change” refer to?
Answer:
The term “population change” refers to an increase or decrease of population of an area from one period to another period.

Question 4.
Name the three major superhighway project.
Answer:

1. Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways: It links Delhi – Kolkata – Chennai – Mumbai and Delhi by six lane Super Highways.
2. North – South Corridor: Linking Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu).
3. East-West Corridor: Linking Silcher (Assam) and Porbandar (Gujarat). The major objective of these Super Highways is to reduce the time and distance between the mega cities of India.

Question 5.
Name the three major means of transport in the world?
Answer:
The three major means of transport in the world are:

1. Land transport: Roadways, Railways and pipelines.
2. Waterways: Inland waterways and ocean routes
3. Air transport: Domestic airways and International airways.

Question 6.
What is trade? What are the types of ti;ade?
Answer:

1. Trade is an act or process of buying, selling or exchanging goods and services.
2. Types of trades are
   • Internal trade
   • International trade.

Question 7.
Write about the merits of air transport.
Answer:
Airways are the quickest, costliest most modem and comfortable means of transport.

1. Facilitates connectivity on a regional, national and international scale.
2. Made accessibility by connecting difficult terrains like high mountains and deserts.
3. It carries passengers, freight and mail.
4. Air transport plays a key role in times of emergency, during the time of natural and man made calamities like floods, epidemics and wars.

Question 8.
What are the merits of pipeline transport?
Answer:

1. It can be laid through difficult terrain as well as under water.
2. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent cost for maintenance and operation is low.
3. It ensures steady supply and minimizes transhipment losses and delays.
4. Pipeline operation involves very low consumption of energy.

Question 9.
What are the different kinds of mail services introduced by Department of posts?
Answer:

1. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and airlifted between ‘ stations both land and air.
2. The second class mail includes-book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals, carried by surface mail covering land and water transport.
3. Recently six mail channels have been introduced to facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities. They are Rajdhani channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk mail Channel

Question 10.
Explain MRTS (Metro Rail System).
Answer:

1. The Mass Rapid Transit System is an elevated line of the suburban railways in Chennai.
2. This Railway is administrated by the state owned Southern Railway.
3. This railway line currently runs from Chennai beach to Velachery covering 17 stations for a distance of 25 km.

Question 11.
What do you mean by Foreign Exchange?
Answer:
Foreign Exchange is the mechanism or process by which payments between any two places operating under different national currency systems are effected without passing of actual money or gold etc.

Question 12.
What are the four ship building yards in India?
Answer:

1. Hindustan Shipyard at Vishakhapatnam.
2. Garden reach workshop at Kolkata.
3. Mazagaon Dock at Mumbai.
4. Kochin Ship Yard and Kochi.

Question 13.
Define the term Dependency Ratio.
Answer:
The ratio between the economically active and economically inactive of population is termed as Dependency Ratio.

VII. Answer in a paragraph:

Question 1.
Define population. Why there is a need to study population?
Answer:

1. The total number of people residing in a country at a specified period of time is called “population” of that country. The study of population is known as Demography.
2. The human population has many components but the most fundamental are its numbers, composition, distribution and density. The study on these aspects also would reveal the work force of the country.
3. Population census of India provides the detailed information about the demography of India.

Question 2.
Name the major National Waterways of our country.
Answer:

1. The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km). National Waterways No. 1
2. The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891 km) – National Waterways No.2
3. The West Coast Canal in Kerala (Kottapuram – Komman – Udyogmandal and Champakkara Canals – 205 km) – National Waterways No.3
4. Specified stretches of Godavari and Krishna rivers along with Kakinada Puducherry Stretch of canals (1078 km) – National Waterways No.4 (v) Specified stretches of river Brahmani along with Matai river, delta channels of Mahanadi and Brahmani rivers and East Coast Canal (588 km) – National Waterways No.5.

There are some other inland waterways on which substantial transportation taken place. These are Mandavi, Zuari and cumberjua, Sundarbans, Barak, backwaters of Kerala and tidal stretches of some other rivers.

Question 3.
Explain about the population composition.
Answer:
Population composition refers to characteristics such as age, sex, marital status, caste, language, education, occupation etc.

The study of composition of population helps us to understand the Social, economic and demographic structure of population.

Age Composition: Population of a county is generally grouped into three broad categories.

1. Children less than 15 years of age (29.5%)
2. The people above 60years (8%)
3. These two categories falls under dependent population (37,5%)
4. Independent population 16 – 59 years (62.5%)

It shows that our country has enormous man power i.e., working force.

Sex Ratio: Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 male population.

This is an important social indicator to measure the extent of equality between males and females in a society at a given rime.

According to 2011 census the sex ratio of the country is 940 females per 1000 males.

Literacy Rate: It is an important indicator of quality of people.

The people who are able to read and write are known as literates. The percentage of literate people to the total population is termed as literacy rate.

As per 2011 India’s literacy rate is 74.04%.

Occupational Structure: The economically active part of a country’s population are termed as workers.

They are placed under three categories as main workers, marginal workers and non workers.

Main workers are those who worked for the major part of the preceding year at least 6 months or 183 days.

Who worked less than six months are marginal.

People who have not worked at all comes under non workers.

In India as per 2011 census 75.23% are main workers and 24.77% of the people belong to marginal workers.

Question 4.
What are the means of transportation and communication called the lifelines of a nation and its economy?
Answer:
The development of a country depends upon the production of goods and services as well as their movement to their destination. Transport plays an important role in the economy. Because of transport raw materials reach to the factory or industry, and finally finished products reach to the consumer. It has helped in both production and distribution of goods. Hence, all efficient means of transport are prerequisites for fast development.

India is well – linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet etc., have been contributing to its socio-economic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has also enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life. Hence, it is right to say that means of transportation and communication are the lifelines of a nation and its economy.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 5 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Geography Chapter 5 India: Population, Transport, Communication, and Trade Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Maths Solutions Chapter 1 Set Language Ex 1.1

Set Language Maths 9th Class Question 1.
Which of the following are sets?
(i) The Collection of prime numbers upto 100.
(ii) The Collection of rich people in India.
(iii) The Collection of all rivers in India.
(iv) The Collection of good Hockey players.
Solution:
(i) A = {2, 3, 5, 7,11, 13,17,19, 23, 29, 31, 37, 41, 43, 47, 53, 59, 61, 67, 71, 73, 79, 83, 89 and 97}
As the collection of prime numbers upto 100 is known and can be counted (well defined). Hence this is a set.
(ii) The collection of rich people in India. Rich people has no definition.
Hence, it is not a set.
(iii) A = {Cauvery, Sindhu, Ganga, }
Hence, it is a set.
(iv) The collection of good hockey players is not a well – defined collection because the criteria for determining a hockey player’s talent may vary from person to person.
Hence, this collection is not a set.

9th Maths Set Language Exercise 1.1 Question 2.
Listthe set of letters of the following words in Roster form.
(i) INDIA
(ii) PARALLELOGRAM
(iii) MISSISSIPPI
(iv) CZECHOSLOVAKIA
Solution:
(i) A = {I, N, D, A}
(ii) B = {P, A, R, L, E, O, G, M}
(iii) C = {M, I, S, P}
(iv) D = {C, Z, E, H, O, S, L, V, A, K, I}.

9th Maths Exercise 1.1 In Tamil Question 3.
Consider the following sets A = {0, 3, 5, 8} B = {2, 4, 6, 10} C = {12, 14, 18, 20}
(a) State whether True or false.
(i) 18 ∈ C
(ii) 6 ∉A
(iii) 14 ∉ C
(iv) 10 ∈ B
(v) 5 ∈ B
(vi) 0 ∈ B

(b) Fill in the blanks?
(i) 3 ∈ ___
(ii) 14 e ___
(iii) 18 ___ B
(iv) 4 ___ B
Solution:
(a) (i) True
(ii) True
(iii) False
(iv) True
(v) False
(vi) False,

(b) (i) A
(ii) C
(iii) ∉
(iv) ∈

9th Maths Exercise 1.1 Question 4.
Represent the following sets in Roster form.
(i) A = The set of all even natural numbers less than 20.
(ii) B = {y : y = \(\frac{1}{2 n}\), n ∈ N, n ≤ 5}
(iii) C = (x : x is perfect cube, 27 < x < 216}
(iv) D = {x : x ∈ Z, -5 < x ≤ 2}
Solution:
(i) A= {2,4, 6, 8,10, 12, 14,16, 18}
(ii) N = { 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}

(iii) C = {64, 125}
(iv) D = {-4,-3, -2, -1,0, 1, 2}

9th Maths Set Language Exercise 1.1 Solutions Question 5.
Represent the following sets in set builder form.
(i) B = The set of all Cricket players in India who scored double centuries in One Day Internationals.
(ii) C = { \(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{2}{3}, \frac{3}{4} \ldots . .\)}.
(iii) D = The set of all tamil months in a year.
(iv) E = The set of odd Whole numbers less than 9.
Solution:
(i) B = {x : x is an Indian player who scored double centuries in one day internationals}
(ii) C = {x : x = \(\frac{n}{n+1}\), n ∈ N}
(iii) D = {x : x is a tamil month in a year}
(iv) E = {x : x is odd number, x ∈ W, x < 9, where W is the set of whole numbers}.

Class 9 Maths Chapter 1 Set Language Question 6.
Represent the following sets in descriptive form.
(i) P = {January, June, July}
(ii) Q = {7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29}
(iii) R= {x : x ∈ N,x< 5}
(iv) S = {x : x is a consonant in English alphabets}
Solution:
(i) P is the set of English Months begining with J.
(ii) Q is the set of all prime numbers between 5 and 31.
(iii) R is the set of all natural numbers less than 5.
(iv) S is the set of all English consonants.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Numbers and Sequences Ex 2.8

10th Maths Exercise 2.8 Question 1.
Find the sum of first n terms of the G.P.
(i) 5, -3, \(\frac { 9 }{ 5 } \), – \(\frac { 27 }{ 25 } \), ……….
(ii) 256, 64, 16, ……..
Solution:
(i) 5, -3, \(\frac { 9 }{ 5 } \), \(\frac { -27 }{ 25 } \), ………

(ii) 256, 64, 16,…….
a = 256

Ex 2.8 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Find the sum of first six terms of the G.P. 5, 15, 45, …
Solution:
G.P.= 5, 15, 45, 15

Exercise 2.8 Class 10 Maths Solution Question 3.
Find the first term of the GP. whose common ratio 5 and whose sum to first 6 terms is 46872.
Solution:
Common ratio, r = 5
S₆ = 46872

10th Maths Exercise 2.8 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Find the sum to infinity of (i) 9 + 3 + 1 + ….
(ii) 21 + 14 + \(\frac { 28 }{ 3 } \) + ….
Solution:
(i) 9 + 3 + 1 + ….

(ii) 21 + 14 + \(\frac { 28 }{ 3 } \) + ….

Exercise 2.8 Class 10 Maths Question 5.
If the first term of an infinite G.P. is 8 and its sum to infinity is \(\frac { 32 }{ 3 } \) then find the common ratio.
Solution:
a = 8

2.8 Maths Class 10 Question 6.
Find the sum to n terms of the series
(i) 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 +…. to n terms
(ii) 3 + 33 + 333 + …. to n terms
Solution:
(i) 0.4 + 0.44 + 0.444 + … to n terms
= 4 (0.1 + 0.11 + 0.111 + … to n terms)
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 } \) (0.9 + 0.99 + 0.999 + … to n terms)
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 9 } \) (1 -0.1) + (1 – 0.01) +(1 – 0.001) + … n terms)

(ii) 3 + 33 + 333 + … to n terms.
= 3 (1 + 11 + 111 + …….. to n terms)
= \(\frac { 3 }{ 9 } \) (9 + 99 + 999 +… to n terms)
\(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) = [(10 – 1) + (100 – 1) + (1000 – 1) + … to n terms]
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 3 } \) [(10 + 100 + 1000 + .. ) + (-1)n]

2.8 Exercise Class 10 Question 7.
Find the sum of the Geometric series
3 + 6 + 12 + …… + 1536.
Solution:
3 + 6 + 12 + …… + 1536
Here a = 3

Ex 2.8 Class 10 Question 8.
Kumar writes a letter to four of his friends. He asks each one of them to copy the letter and mail to four different persons with the instruction that they continue the process similarly. Assuming that the process is unaltered and it costs ₹2 to mail one letter, find the amount spent on postage when 8th set of letters is mailed.

Solution:
Kumar (1) 2 × 4
Cost of posting 1^st set of Letters.
Cost of posting 2^nd set of letters

Amount spent
[a + ar + ar² +… ar^n-1]
= 4 [2 + 2 × 4 + 2 × 42 ÷ + 2 × 4⁷]
= 4 [S_n] Here n = 8, r = 4
It is a G.P

∴ Cost of postage after posting 8th set of letters
= 4 × 43690 = ₹ 174760

Class 10 Maths Exercise 2.8 Solutions Question 9.
Find the rational form of the number 0.\(\overline{123}\)
Solution:
Let x = 0.123123123 ………. ⇒ x = 0.\(\overline{123}\) …..(1)
Multiplying 1000 on both rides
1000 x = 123.123123… ⇒ 1000x = 123.\(\overline{123}\) …..(2)
(2) – (1) = 1000x – x 123.\(\overline{123}\) – 0.\(\overline{123}\).
⇒ 999 x = 123
⇒ x = \(\frac { 123 }{ 999 } \)
⇒ x = \(\frac { 41 }{ 333 } \) Rational number

Exercise 2.8 Class 10 Question 10.
If Sn = (x + y)+(x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + …n terms then prove that (x – y)

Solution:
Sn = (x + y) + (x² + xy + y²) + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) + …n terms
⇒ x. S_n = (x + y)x + (x² + xy + y²)x + (x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) x + ….
⇒ x. S_n = x² +xy + x³ + x²y + y²x + x⁴ + x³y
+ x² y² + y³ x +…… ….(1)
Multiplying ‘y’ on both sides,
= y.S_n = (x + y)y + (x² + xy + y²) y+
(x³ + x²y + xy² + y³) y + ….
= y.S_n = xy + y² + x²y + xy² + y³ + x³y
+ x³y + x²y² + xy³ + y⁴ + ……….
(1) – (2) ⇒

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.11

10th Maths Exercise 3.11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Solve the following quadratic equations by completing the square method
(i) 9x² – 12x + 4 = 0
(ii) \(\frac{5 x+7}{x-1}\) = 3x + 2
Solution:

Ex 3.11 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
Solve the following quadratic equations by formula method
(i) 2x² – 5x + 2 = 0
(ii) \(\sqrt{2} f^{2}\) – 6f + \(3 \sqrt{2}\)
(iii) 3y² – 20y – 3 = 0
(iv) 36y² – 12 ay + (a² – b²) = 0
Solution:
(i) 2x² – 5x + 2 = 0
The formula for finding roots of a quadratic equation ax² + bx + c = 0 is

Exercise 3.11 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
A ball rolls down a slope and travels a distance d = t² – 0.75t feet in t seconds. Find the time when the distance travelled by the ball is 11.25 feet.
Solution:
Distance d = t² – 0.75 t,
Given that d = 11.25 = t² – 0.75 t.
t² – 0.75t – 11.25 = 0

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Measurements Ex 2.2

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Term 2 Question 1.
Say the time in two ways:

Solution:
(i) 10 : 15 hours; quarter past 10; 45 minutes to 11
(ii) 6 : 45 hours; quarter to 7; 45 minutes past 6
(iii) 4 : 10 hours; 10 minutes past 4; 50 minutes to 5
(iv) 3 : 30 hours; half-past 3; 30 minutes to 4
(v) 9 : 40 hours; 20 minutes to 10; 40 minutes past 9.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Term 2 Question 2.
Match the following:
(i) 9.55 – (a) 20 minutes past 2
(ii) 11.50 – (b) quarter past 4
(iii) 4.15 – (c) quarter to 8
(iv) 7.45 – (d) 5 minutes to 10
(v) 2.20 – (e) 10 minutes to 1?
Solution:
(i) 9.55 – (d) 5 minutes to 10
(ii) 11.50 – (e) 10 minutes to 12
(iii) 4.15 – (b) quarter past 4
(iv) 7.45 – (c) quarter to 8
(v) 2.20 – (a) 20 minutes past 2

6th Maths Guide Term 2 Question 3.
Convert the following :
(i) 20 minutes into seconds
(ii) 5 hours 35 minutes 40 seconds into seconds
(iii) 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours into minutes
(iv) 580 minutes into hours
(v) 25200 seconds into hours
Solution:
(i) 20 minutes into seconds
20 minutes = 20 × 60 seconds = 1200 seconds
(ii) 5 hours 35 minutes 40 seconds into seconds

∴ 5 hours 35 minutes 40 seconds = 20,140 seconds
(iii) 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours into minutes
3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours = 3 hours 30 minutes
= 3 × 60 minutes + 30 minutes
= 180 minutes + 30 minutes
= 210 minutes
∴ 3\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) hours = 210 minutes
(iv) 5580 minutes into hours
580 minutes = \(\frac{580}{60}\) hours = 9 hours 40 minutes
∴ 580 minutes = 9 hours 40 minutes
(v) 25200 seconds into hours
25200 seconds = \(\frac{25200}{60}\) minutes = 420 minutes = \(\frac{420}{60}\) hours = 7 hours
∴ 25200 seconds = 7 hours

Samacheer Kalvi Term 2 Question 4.
The duration of electricity consumed by the farmer for his pumpset on Monday and Tuesday was 7 hours 20 minutes 35 seconds and 3 hours 44 minutes 50 seconds respectively. Find the total duration of consumption of electricity.
Solution:
Total duration of electricity consumed on both the days
= 7 hours 20 min 35 sec + 3 hours 44 min 50 sec
= (7 + 3) hours (20 + 44) min (35 + 50) sec
= 10 hours 64 min 85 seconds
= 11 hours 5 min 25 seconds

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Book Solutions Question 5.
Subtract 10 hrs 20 min 35 sec from 12 hrs 18 min 40 sec.
Solution:

1 hour 58 minutes 05 seconds

6th Standard Maths Exercise 2.2 Question 6.
Change the following into 12 hour format:
(i) 02 : 00 hours
(ii) 08 : 45 hours
(iii) 21 : 10 hours
(iv) 11 : 20 hours
(v) 00 : 00 hours
Solution:

Term 2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
Change the following into 24 hour format.
(i) 3.15 a.m.
(ii) 12.35 p.m.
(iii) 12.00 noon
(iv) 12.00 midnight.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Guide Term 2 Question 8.
Calculate the duration of time.
(i) from 5.30 a.m to 12.40 p.m
(ii) from 1.30 p.m to 10.25 p.m
(iii) from 20:00 hours to 4:00 hours
(iv) from 17:00 hours to 5 :15 hours
Solution:
(i) from 5.30 a.m. to 12 .40 p.m.
Duration of time from 5.30 a.m. to noon = 12 : 00 – 5 : 30 = 6 : 30 i.e 6 hours 30 minutes
From noon to 12.40 p.m the duration = 00 hours 40 minutes
Total duration = 6 hours 30 minutes + 00 hours 40 minutes
= 6 hours 70 minutes
= 6 hours + (60 + 10) minutes
= 6 hours + 1 hr 10 minutes
= 7 hours 10 minutes
∴ Duration of time from 5.30 am to 12.40 pm = 7 hours 10 minutes
(ii) from 1.30 pm to 10.25 p.m.

(iii) from 20 : 00 hrs to 4 : 00 hrs.

(iv) from 17 : 00 hours to 5 : 15 hours.

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Question 9.
The departure and arrival timing of the Vaigai Superfast Express (No. 12635) from Chennai Egmore to Madurai Junction are given. Read the details and answer the following.

(i) At what time does the Vaigai Express start from Chennai and arrive at Madurai?
(ii) How many halts are between there Chennai and Madurai?
(iii) How long does the train halt at the Villupuram junction?
(iv) At what time does the train come to Sholavandan?
(v) Find the journey time from Chennai Egmore to Madurai?
Solution:
(i) It starts from Chennai at 13 : 40 hrs and arrive at Madurai at 21 : 20 hrs.
(ii) There are 8 halts.
(iii) Departure from Villupuram = 15 hours 55 minutes
Arrival at Villupuram = 15 hours 50 minutes
The train halt at Villupuram for = 05 minutes
(iv) At 20 : 34 hours the train come to Sholavandan
(v) Arrival time at Madurai = 20 hours 80 (20 + 60) minutes
Departure time from Chennai Egmore = 13 hours 40 minutes
Journey Time = 07 hours 40 minutes

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Standard Maths Question 10.
Manickam joined a chess class on 20.02.2017 and due to exam, he left practice after 20 days. Again he continued practice from 10.07.2017 to 31.03.2018. Calculate how many days did he practice?
Solution:
From the date of joining = 20 days From 10.07.2017 to 31.03.2018
July – 22
Aug – 31
Sep – 30
Oct – 31
Nov – 30
Dec – 31
Jan – 31
Feb – 28
Mar – 31
Total – 265
Total no of practice days = 265 + 20 = 285 days

Class 6 Maths Chapter 2 Exercise 2.2 Solutions Question 11.
A clock gains 3 minutes every hour. If the clock is set correctly at 5 a.m, find the time shown by the clock at 7 p.m?
Solution:
5 a.m. = 5.00 hours
7 p.m = 19.00 hours
Difference = 19.00 – 5.00 = 14.00 hours
Time gain = 14 × 3 = 42 minutes
Time shown by the clock = 7.42 p.m

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solutions Question 12.
Find the number of days between the republic day and kalvi valarchi day in 2020.
Solution:
2020 is a leap year republic day – 26.01.2020
Kalvi valarchi day – 15.07.2020
Jan – 5
Feb – 29
Mar – 31
April – 30
May – 31
June – 30
July – 14
Total – 170 days

6th Class Maths Exercise 2.2 Question 13.
If 11th of January 2018 is Thursday, what is the day on 20th July of the same year?
Solution:
January – 21 Days (31 – 10)
February – 28 Days
March – 31 Days
April – 30 Days
May – 31 Days
June – 30 Days
July – 19 Days
Total – 190 Days
190 days ÷ 7
190 days = 27 weeks + 1 day
Required day is the first day after Thursday.
∴ 20th of July is Friday.

Samacheer Kalvi Maths 6th Question 14.
(i) Convert 480 days into years
(ii) Convert 38 months into years
Solution:
(i) 480 days = \(\frac{480}{365}\)
= 1 year 115 days
= 1 year 3 months 25 days

(ii) 38 months = \(\frac{38}{12}\)
= 3 years 2 months

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 6th Maths Term 2 Question 15.
Calculate your age as on 01.06.2018
Solution:

Age is 12 years 2 months

Objective Type Questions

Samacheer Kalvi 6th Maths Solution Question 16.
2 days = …….. hours
(i) 38
(ii) 48
(iii) 28
(iv) 40
Solution:
(ii) 48

Samacheer Kalvi Class 6 Maths Solutions Question 17.
3 weeks = _____ days.
(a) 21
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 28
Solution:
(a) 21

Question 18.
Number of ordinary years between two consecutive leap years is
(i) 4 years
(ii) 2 years
(iii) 1 year
(iv) 3 years
Solution:
(iv) 3 years

Question 19.
What time will it 5 hours after 22 : 35 hours?
(a) 2 : 30 hrs
(b) 3 : 35 hrs
(c) 4 : 35 hrs
(d) 5 : 35 hrs
Solution:
(b) 3 : 35 hrs

Question 20.
2 \(\frac{1}{2}\) years is equal to months.
(i) 25
(ii) 30
(iii) 24
(iv) 5
Solution:
(ii) 30

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science History Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science History Board solutions for Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science History Chapter 7 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Anti Colonial Movements And The Birth Of Nationalism Question 1.
Which one of the following was launched by Haji Shariatullah in 1818 in East Bengal?
(a) Wahhabi Rebellion
(b) Farazi Movement
(c) Tribal uprising
(d) Kol Revolt
Answer:
(b) Farazi Movement

Question 2.
Who declared that “Land belongs to God” and collecting rent or tax on it was against divine law?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Sidhu
(c) Dudu Mian
(d) Shariatullah
Answer:
(c) Dudu Mian

Question 3.
Who were driven out of their homeland during the process of creation of Zamins under Permanent Settlement?
(a) Santhals
(b) Titu Mir
(c) Munda
(d) Kol
Answer:
(a) Santhals

Question 4.
Find out the militant nationalist from the following.
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Justice Govind Ranade
(c) Bipin Chandra pal
(d) Romesh Chandra
Answer:
(c) Bipin Chandra pal

Question 5.
When did the Partition of Bengal come into effect?
(a) 19 June 1905
(b) 18 July 1906
(c) 19 August 1907
(d) 16 October 1905
Answer:
(d) 16 October 1905

Question 6.
What was the context in which the Chota Nagpur Tenancy Act was passed?
(a) Kol Revolt
(b) Indigo Revolt
(c) Munda Rebellion
(d) Deccan Riots
Answer:
(c) Munda Rebellion

Question 7.
Who set up the first Home Rule League in April 1916?
(a) Annie Basant
(b) Bipin Chandra Pal
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Tilak
Answer:
(d) Tilak

Question 8.
Who drew the attention of the British to the suffering of Indigo cultivation through his play Nil darpan?
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Birsa Munda
Answer:
(a) Dina Bandhu Mitra

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. In 1757, Robert Clive was financially supported by…………….., the moneylenders of Bengal.
2. …………….. was an anti-imperial and anti-landlord movement originated in and around 1827.
3. The major tribal revolt took place in Cbotanagpur region was ……………….
4. The ………….. Act, restricted the entry of non-tribal people into the tribal land.
5. Around 1854 activities of social banditry were led by ………………
6. The British Commander of Kanpur killed by the rebels during the 1857 Rebellion was ……………..
7. Chota Nagpur Act was passed in the year ……………..
8. W.C. Bannerjee was elected the president of Indian National Congress in the year …………..
Answers:
1. Jagat Seths
2. Wahhabi rebellion
3. Kol revolt
4. Chotanagpur Tenancy Act
5. Bir Singh
6. Major General High Wheelor
7. 1908
8. 1885

III. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The company received ₹ 22.5 million from Mir Jafar and invested it to propel the industrial revolution in Britain.
(ii) Kols organized an insurrection in 1831-1832, which was directed against Government officers and money lenders.
(iii) In 1855, two Santhal brothers Sidhu and Kanu led the Santhal Rebellion.
(iv) In 1879, an Act was passed to regulate the territories occupied by the Santhals.
(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(c) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(a) (i) (ii) and (iii) are correct

Question 2.
(i) Dudu Mian laid emphasis on the egalitarian nature of Islam and declared that “Land belongs to God” .
(ii) According to the Doctrine of Lapse, new territories under the corrupt Indian rulers were to be annexed.
(iii) The British officials after the suppression of 1857 Revolt were given power to judge and take the lives of Indians without due process of law.
(iv) One of the causes of the failure of the Revolt of 1857 was many of the Indian princes and zamindars remained loyal to the British.
(a) (ii) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(b) (i) (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer:
(c) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
(i) One of the most significant contributions of the early Indian Nationalists was the formulation of an economic critique of colonialism.
(ii) The early Congress leaders stated that the religious exploitation in India was the primary reason for the growing poverty.
(iii) One of the goals of the moderate Congress leaders w as to achieve Swaraj or self-rule.
(iv) The objective of partition was to curtail the Bengali influence and weaken the nationalist movement.
(a) (i) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (ii) and (iii) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Under colonial rule, for the first time in Indian history, Government claimed a direct proprietary right over forests.
Reason (R): Planters used intimidation and violence to compel farmers to grow indigo.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
Answer:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Question 5.
Assertion (A): The Revolt of 1857 was brutally suppressed by the British army.
Reason (R): The failure of the rebellion was due to the absence of Central authority.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are wrong
(b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct
(c) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(d) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Answer:
(b) (A) is wrong and (R) is correct

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
How are the peasant uprisings in British India classified?
Answer:
The peasants uprising in British India are classified in to four categories:

1. Restorative Rebellions – To attempt to restore old order and old social relations.
2. Religious movements – Led by religions leaders to liberate the locals by restructuring society on certain religious principles.
3. Social banditry – Looked upon by their people as heroes or champions of their cause.
4. Mass Insurrection – Leaderless and spontaneous uprisings.

Question 2.
Write about the Kanpur Massacre of 1857.
Answer:
The Siege of Cawnpur was a key episode in the Indian rebellion of 1857. The besieged Company forces and civilians in Cawnpur (now Kanpur) were unprepared for an extended siege and surrendered to rebel forces under Nana Sahib, in return for a safe passage to Allahabad. However under ambiguous circumstances, their evacuation from Cawnpur turned into a massacre, and most of the men were killed.

Question 3.
Name the territories annexed by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse.
Answer:
Satara, Sambalpur, parts of Punjab, Jhansi, and Nagpur were the territories annexed under the Doctrine of Lapse.

Question 4.
What do you mean by drain of wealth?
Answer:
The colonial economy was a continuous transfer of resources from India to Britain without any favourable returns back to India. This is called the drain to wealth.

Question 5.
Explain the concept of constructive Swadeshi.
Answer:
Constructive Swadeshi: It largely stress upon self – help.

1. It focused on building alternative-institutions of self governance that would operate free of British control.
2. It also laid emphasis on the need of self strengthening of the people.
3. In turn it would help them in creating a worthy citizen for political agitation.
4. Swadeshi shops spread all over the place selling textiles, handlooms, soaps, earthenwares match and leather goods.

Question 6.
Highlight the objectives of Home Rule Movement.
Answer:
The following were the objectives of the Home Rule Movements in India –

• To attain self-government within the British Empire by rising constitutional means.
• To obtain the status of dominion, apolitical position accorded later to Australia, Canada, South Africa and New Zealand.
• To use non-violent constitutional methods to achieve goals.

Question 7.
Summarise the essence of Lucknow Pact.
Answer:
Lucknow Pact was signed in the year 1916. Under the provision of this pact.

1. Congress and Muslim League agreed to work together to attain self Government in India.
2. A separate electorate for Muslim was accepted by the Congress leadership.

VI. Answer all the questions under each caption.

Question 1.
Deccan Riots
(а) When and where did the first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appear?
Answer:
The first recorded incident of rioting against the moneylenders in the Deccan appeared in May 1875, in Supa, a village near Poona.

(b What was the right given to moneylenders under a new law of the British?
Answer:
Under a new law, the British moneylenders were allowed to attach the mortgaged land of the defaulters and auction it off.

(c) What did it result in?
Answer:
It resulted in transfer of lands from the cultivators to the non-cultivating classes.

(d) Against whom was the violence directed in the Deccan riots.
Answer:
The violence was directed mostly at the Gujarat moneylenders.

Question 2.
The Revolt of 1857.

(a) Who assaulted his officer, an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt?
Answer:
Mangal Pandey assaulted his officer, this was an incident that led to the outbreak of 1857 Revolt.

(b) Who was proclaimed the Sahhensha – e- Hindustan in Delhi?
Answer:
Bahadhur Shah – II was proclaimed as Shahensha – e – Hindustan in Delhi.

(c) Who was the correspondent of London Times who reported on the brutality of the 1857 revolt?
Answer:
William Howard Russell was the correspondent of London Times who reported on the brutality of the 1857 Revolt.

(d) What did the Queen’s proclamation say on matters relating to religion?
Answer:
The Queen’s proclamation said that the British would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters.

Question 3.
Indian National Congress
(a) What were the techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed?
Answer:
The techniques adopted by the Congress to get its grievances redressed included appeals, petition and delegation to Britain.

(b) What do you know of Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate?
Answer:
Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bal Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandra Pal of Bengal were three prominent leaders during the Swadeshi period. They are often referred to as Lal-Bal-Pal triumvirate.

(c) Where was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of Indian National Congress was held at Bombay.

(d) How did the British respond to the Swadeshi Movement?
Answer:
The British brutally crushed the Swadeshi movement by arresting prominent leaders and putting them into the prison.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the causes and consequences of the Revolt of 1857.
Answer:
Political Cause: The annexation policy of British India: Two major policies were followed to bring more territories under British rule.

(a) Doctrine of Paramountcy:
(i) New territories were annexed on the grounds that the native rulers were corrupt and inefficient.
(ii) British claimed themselves as paramount, supreme authority.

(b) Doctrine of Lapse:
(i) If a native ruler does not have biological male heir of their own to the throne after his death the territory would ‘lapse’ in to British India.
(ii) Sambalpur, Satara, Jhansi, parts of Punjab and Nagpur were annexed by the British through Doctrine of Lapse.

Religious Cause:
(i) Indian Sepoys were prohibited from wearing religious marks on their forehead.
(ii) To render their services overseas. Crossing sea meant the loss of their caste. So Sepoys at Barrackpore refused to go to Burma by sea.

Economic Cause: Discrimination in salary and promotion. They felt humiliated by racial abusement.

Immediate Cause:

1. Introduction of cartridges to the new Enfield Rifles.
2. There was a strong suspicion that the new cartridge was greased with cow and pig fat
3. The cartridge had to be bitten off before loading (pork is forbidden to the Muslims and cow is sacred to the Hindus) so the Sepoys refused to use it.
4. In 29th March a Sepoy named Mangal Pandey assaulted his European officer Along with some other Sepoys and Mangal Pandey were court martialled and hanged.

This fuelled the anger among the Sepoys and started revolt.

Consequences of the Revolt: The Revolt was suppressed: Army had been restored to British control under Martial law.

1. The British officers were given power to judge and take the life of Indians without dae process of law.
2. Bahadhur shah II was captured and sent to Burma.
3. The British parliament passed a law proclaiming the transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown.
4. The structure of the Indian army was revised army was reduced and Indians were restrained from holding important ranks and positions.
5. Queen Victoria proclaimed that the British would not interfere in traditional institutions and religious matters of Indians.
6. It was promised that more Indians would be absorbed in Government services.
7. Secretary of state was appointed to review the Indian affairs.

Question 2.
How did the people of Bengal respond to the partition of Bengal (1905)?
Answer:

1. The partition of Bengal that took place in 1905, resulted in widespread protests all across India. It started a new phase of the Indian national movement.
2. The partition instead of dividing the Bengali people along the religious line united the leaders of both the groups – extremist and moderate.
3. The people of Bengal adopted new techniques of protest. The boycott of British goods was one such method.
4. The day Bengal was officially partitioned was declared as a day of mourning. Thousand’s of people took bath in River Ganga and marched on the streets of Calcutta singing Vande Mataram.
5. The people of Bengal were outraged at what they saw as a ‘divide and rule’ policy of the British government.

Question 3.
Attempt a narrative account of how Tilak and Annie Besant by launching Home Rule Movement sustained the Indian freedom struggle after 1916?
Answer:
The Indian National Movement was revived and also radicalised during the Home Rule Movement (1916- 1918), led by Lokamanya Tilak and Annie Besant.

1. It emerged as a mass movement against the British betrayal to the Indian cause of self Government after the I World War in return for the support rendered.
2. Tilak first set up the Home Rule League in April 1916.
3. In September 1916 Annie Besant by the demand of her followers started the Home Rule Movement in Madras (Adyar) without the support of the congress.
4. Both the leagues worked independently.
5. They succeeded in enrolling young people in large numbers and extending the movement to the areas,
6. The Home Rule league was utilised to carry propaganda through press, speeches, public meetings, lectures, discussions and touring in favour of self Government.
7. Both declared their strong view of self Government as right based on the national principle of self determination.
8. The Home Rule Movement led to the reunion of moderate and the extremists leaders of Congress at the Lucknow session.
9. Opened the fresh talks with the leaders of the Muslim League and decided to work together for self Government.
10. The demand for Swaraj was raised by Tilak and Annie Besant gained popularity.
11. This strong hold of both the leaders made the British parliament to announce Montagau – Chelmsford reforms which promised gradual progress of India towards self Government.

VIII. Activity

Question 1.
Identify the Acts passed in British India from 1858 to 1919, with a brief note on each. The Government of India Act, 1858.
Answer:

1. The Government of India Act 1858, marked the beginning of new chapter in the constitutional history of India.
2. Liquidation of East India Company, and the powers of government, territories and revenues ‘ were transfer to the British Crown.

The Indian Council Act, 1861

1. It enabled the Governor-General to associate the people of the land with work of legislation.
2. However, the legislative councils were merely talk shops with no power to criticize the administration or ask for some information. Their scope was fixed in legislation purpose alone; they had no right to move some kind of vote of no confidence.

The Indian Council Act, 1892

1. This act marks the beginning of representative form of Government in India.
2. Indian National Congress had adopted some resolutions in its sessions in 1885 and 1889 and put its demand. The major demands placed were as follows:
   • A simultaneous examination of ICS to be held in England and India
   • Reforms of the legislative council and adoption of the principle of election in place of nomination
   • Opposition to the annexation of Upper Burma
   • Reduction in the Military expenditure.

The Indian Councils Act, 1909 (The Morely-Minto Reforms)
(i) The British viceroy of India (1905-10)—was able to introduce several important innovations into the legislative and administrative machinery of the British Indian government.

(ii) The act also increased the maximum additional membership of the Imperial Legislative Council from 16 to 60.

The Government of India Act, 1919 (The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms)
(i) Subjects of administration were divided into two categories – ‘Central’ and ‘Provincial’. All important subjects (like Railways and Finance) were brought under the category of Central, while matters relating to the administration of the Provinces were classified as Provincial.

(ii) The provincial subjects were divided into two groups viz. reserved and transferred.

• The reserved subjects were kept with the Governor and transferred subjects were kept with the Indian Ministers.
• This division of subjects was basically what they meant by introducing the Diarchy.
• The reserved subjects were the essential areas of law enforcement such as justice, police, and revenue. The transferred subjects were such as public health, public works, education etc.

Question 2.
Mark the important Centres of 1857 Revolt in an outline map.
Answer:

Question 3.
Prepare album with pictures of frontline leaders of all the ant-colonial Struggles launched against the British.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The British historians call the Revolt of 1857 as ……………….
(a) Military revolt
(b) The great revolt
(c) Freedom struggle
Answer:
(a) Military revolt

Question 2.
The battle of plassey was orchestrated by:
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Hugh Rose
(c) Birsa Munda
(d) Major Munro
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 3.
During the great revolt of 1857 the Governor General of India was ……………….
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Ripon
(c) Lord Canning
Answer:
(c) Lord Canning

Question 4.
The British favoured the ……………….. to suppress the peasant uprising.
(a) religious leaders
(b) tribal leaders
(c) local population
(d) zamindars
Answer:
(d) zamindars

Question 5.
The first sign of unrest appeared at ………………
(a) Meerut
(b) Bareilly
(c) Barrackpore
Answer:
(c) Barrackpore

Question 6.
In ……………….. the sepoys at Barrackpur near Calcutta refused to go to Burma by sea, as it meant the loss of their caste.
(a) 1814
(b) 1824
(c) 1815
(d) 1826
Answer:
(b) 1824

Question 7.
The wife of Nawab of Oudh was ……………..
(a) Mumtaj Mahal
(b) Fathima Begum
(c) Begum Hazrat Mahal
Answer:
(c) Begum Hazrat Mahal

Question 8.
After the sepoy revolt, the first civil rebellion broke out in parts of:
(a) North-Western Provinces and Oudh
(b) Bengal and Bihar
(c) North-Eastern Provinces
(d) Central Provinces
Answer:
(a) North-Western Provinces and Oudh

Question 9.
Viceroy means ………………
(a) The representative of the crown
(b) General of an army
(c) Religious leader
Answer:
(a) The representative of the crown

Question 10.
The British Parliament adopted the ……………….. in November 1858.
(a) Lucknow Pact
(b) Swadeshi Movement
(c) Indian Government Act
(d) Rowlatt Act
Answer:
(c) Indian Government Act

Question 11.
The last Emperor of the Mughals …………..
(a) Babur
(b) Akbar
(c) Bahadur Shah – II
Answer:
(c) Bahadur Shah – II

Question 12.
The second half of the ……………….. saw the emergence of national political consciousness.
(a) 16th Century
(b) 17th Century
(c) 18th Century
(d) 19th Century
Answer:
(d) 19th Century

Question 13.
Queen Victoria’s proclamation of 1858 was described as ……………
(a) Human Rights
(b) Magna Carta
(c) citizenship
Answer:
(b) Magna Carta

Question 14.
Partition of Bengal was introduced by:
(a) Lord Lytton
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Rippon
(d) Lord Curzon
Answer:
(d) Lord Curzon

Question 15.
The Nawab of Bengal after Alivardi Khan was ……………..
(a) Tipu Sultan
(b) Siraj-ud-daulah
(c) Mir Questionaim
Answer:
(b) Siraj-ud-daulah

Question 16.
The British who lead the company’s army against Siraj-ud-daulah at plassey was …………..
(a) Robert Clive
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Edmund Burke
Answer:
(a) Robert Clive

Question 17.
One-third of the population was wiped out from Bengal because ……………
(a) a terrible famine occurred there
(b) a civil war broke out
(c) an epidemic broke out
Answer:
(a) a terrible famine occurred there

Question 18.
The riots were ……………….
(a) cultivators
(b) zamindars
(c) traders
Answer:
(a) cultivators

Question 19.
The Indigo Commission was set up to enquire into the system of indigo production. Whom did the commission hold guilty?
(a) The riots
(b) The government
(c) The planters
Answer:
(c) The planters

Question 20.
After the indigo production collapsed in Bengal, the planters shifted their operation to ……………….
(a) Gujarat
(b) Bihar
(c) Odissa
Answer:
(b) Bihar

Question 21.
At which battle was the Nawab of Bengal Siraj-ud-daulah defeated by the East India Company?
(a) Battle of Plassey
(b) Battle of Buxar
(c) Battle of Panipat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Battle of Plassey

Question 22.
Who led the Farazi Movement after the death of Dudu Mian?
(a) Titu Mir
(b) Birsa Munda
(c) Sidhu
(d) Noah Mian
Answer:
(d) Noah Mian

Question 23.
Who provided leadership of the 1857 revolt in Bareilly?
(a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
(b) Khan Bahadur
(c) Nana Saheb
(d) Rani Lakshmi Bai
Answer:
(b) Khan Bahadur

Question 24.
The Indigo Revolt began in the year ……………
(a) 1857
(b) 1858
(c) 1859
(d) 1875
Answer:
(c) 1859

Question 25.
Who among the following was not an extremist leader?
(a) Lala Lajpat Rai
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Bipin Chandra Pal
(d) Bai Gangadhar Tilak
Answer:
(b) Vallabhbhai Patel

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The British territories were broadly divided into administrative units called …………..
2. The Royal charter could not prevent other European powers from entering the ………….. Markets.
3. The Bengal Nawabs asserted their power and autonomy after the death of …………..
4. ………….. was made the Nawab of Bengal after the defeat of Siraj-ud-daulah at Plassey.
5. The first Anglo-Maratha war ended with the treaty of …………..
6. Indigo cultivation was done under two main systems known as …………… and …………..
7. By the terms of the Permanent Settlement, the rajas and taluqdars were recognized as …………………
8. ……………… developed Ryotwari System which gradually extended all over South India.
9. The indigo villages were usually around indigo factories owned by ……………….
10. The planters at times pressurised the village between to sign the …………… on behalf of the ryots.
11. The British described the tribal people as …………….
12. Tribals went to work in the ………….. and the ………….. in Bihar.
13. The new law passed in 1850 made …………… into ………….. easier.
14. The Revolt of 1857 began from …………….
15. Mangal Pandey a young soldier was hanged to death for ………….. his officer in ……………
16. The Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar died in the …………… jail.
17. In the countryside peasants and zamindars resented the …………….. and the rigid methods of ……………. collection.
18. Nana Saheb, the adopted son of the late Peshwa Baji Rao, gathered armed forces and expelled the……………….. from the city.
19. …………… fought a guerrilla war against the British with the support of several tribal and peasant leaders.
20. The section of Indian nationalists who had little patience for the non-political constructive programmes was called ……………..
21. After the Battle of Plassey, the British adopted the policy of ……………..
22. Many of the peasant revolts were led by …………….. leaders.
23. The Kol uprising took place in Chotanagpur and Singbhum region of Jharkhand and Orissa, under the leadership of ……………. and …………
24. After the 1857 revolt, the British captured Bahadur Shah and transported him to …………….
Answers:
1. Presidencies
2. Eastern
3. Aurangzeb
4. Mir Jafar
5. Salbai
6. Nij, ryots
7. Zamindars
8. Thomas Munro
9. Planters
10. contract
11. Savage
12. tea plantations, Coal mines
14. Meerut
15. Attacking, Barrackpore
16. Rangoon
17. High takes, revenue
18. British garrison
19. Nana Saheb
20. Militant nationalists
21. territorial expansion
22. religious
23. Bindrai, Singhrai
24. Burma

III. True or false

1. Siraj-ud-daulah got help from his commander Mir Jafar and finally won victory in the Battle of Plassey.
2. Birsa urged his followers to purify themselves, give up drinking liquor and stop believing in witchcraft and sorcery.
3. The British wanted to preserve the tribal way of life.
4. The traders and moneylenders never deceived the tribal people.
5. Many tribal groups did not like the colonial forest laws and therefore revolted.
Answers:
1. False
2. True
3. False
4. False
5. True

IV. Choose the correct statement.

Question 1.
(i) The Munda rebellion prompted the British to formulate a policy on tribal land.
(ii) The early objectives of the Congress were to develop and consolidate sentiments of national unity.
(iii) The Indian princes and zamindars were neither loyal to the British power.
(iv) The leaders of the 1857 revolt were defeated due to lack of weapons, organisation, discipline and betrayal by their aides.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

Question 2.
(i)The boycott and Swadeshi were liked to each other.
(ii) Pheroze Shah Mehta and Gokhale were the two important extremist leaders.
(iii) The methods of moderate leaders failed to yield any substantive change in the British attitude
(iv) The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha came into existence in 1870.
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct

Question 3.
Assertion (A): The plight of the indigo growers war miserable.
Reason (R): They were trapped in debts which were often passed from father to son.
(a) Both A and R are correct
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(d) Both A and R are correct but R .is not the correct explanation of A
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

V. Match the following.
a.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

b.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (d)

c.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

d.

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5.(d)

VI. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
How did the East India Company restructure the Mughal revenue system?
Answer:

1. British – The East India Company introduced land tenures and altered the agrarian relations.
2. Zamindars and other who collected the revenue never given the possession right on land.
3. No wide spread system of private ownership. In this way East India Company restructured the Mughal revenue system.

Question 2.
What was the main reason for the defeat of Siraj-ud-daulah at Plassey?
Answer:
Mir Jafar, one of Siraj-ud-daulah’s commanders did not fight the battle.

Question 3.
“Tribes” who are they?
Answer:

1. Tribes in India were and are very much part of the Indian society.
2. Infact they are the Indian peasantry subsisting through shifting cultivation.
3. The modem usage of word tribe in India restricts the definition to distinguish them from the rest of the Indian society, a stratified system based on caste.

Question 4.
How did the company purchase Indian goods?
Answer:
It purchased Indian goods with gold and silver imported from Britain.

Question 5.
What were the impacts of the transfer of power from East India Company to the Crown?
Answer:

1. After the transfer of power to the Crown.
2. De-industrialisation led to massive unemployment workers were forced out of the land.
3. Heavy taxation mined agriculture.
4. Famine deaths increased.
5. Peasants were forced to pay revenue directly to the Government.
6. Mortgaged land of the defaulters were auctioned by the moneylenders.
7. Peasants were trapped in the vicious-cycle of debt and forced to abandon cultivation.

Question 6.
When was Robert Clive appointed the Governor of Bengal?
Answer:
He was appointed the Governor of Bengal in 1764.

Question 7.
What were the two elements of early Indian response to colonialism?
Answer:
First response: Tribal uprisings and peasant rebellions made an attempts to restore the old order in the late 18th and early 19th century. It was restorative in nature.

Second response: In the second half of 19th-century response was in the ‘ form of Indian Nationalism emphasising on consciousness of unity and National aspiration.

Question 8.
What is indigo?
Answer:
It is a plant that produces rich blue colour used as a dye.

Question 9.
Why did cloth dyers prefer indigo to woad?
Answer:
Cloth dyers preferred indigo as a dye because it produced a rich blue colour whereas the dye from woad was pale and dull.

Question 10.
Mention different types of activities of tribal people.
Answer:
(a) Some practised Jhum cultivation
(b) Some were hunter-gatherers
(c) Some herded animals
(d) Some took to settled cultivation

Question 11.
Who was Birsa?
Answer:
Birsa belonged to a family of Mundas, a tribal group that lived in Chottanagpur.

Question 12.
What did people say about Birsa?
Answer:
People said that he had miraculous powers. He could cure all diseases and multiply grain.

Question 13.
What problems did Birsa set out to resolve?
Answer:
(a) The familiar ways of tribals seemed to be disappearing.
(b) Their livelihoods were under threat.
(c) The religion appeared to be in danger.

Question 14.
On what charges was Birsa convicted?
Answer:
Birsa was convicted on the charges of rioting.

Question 15.
When did Birsa die and how?
Answer:
He died of cholera in 1900 in jail.

Question 16.
Name any two smaller rulers who acknowledged the suzerainty of Bahadur Shah Zafar.
Answer:
Nana Saheb and Birjs Qadar.

Question 17.
Who was Tantia Tope?
Answer:
He was the general of Nana Saheb.

Question 18.
Name the important leaders and centres of the mutiny.
Answer:
Important leaders:

1. Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi
2. Tantia Tope
3. Nana Saheb and Kunwar Singh.

Important centres:

1. Kanpur
2. Delhi
3. Lucknow

Question 19.
Why was not the revolt widespread?
Answer:

• There was no unity among the rebels.
• It did not extend beyond north India.
• South India, Punjab, Sind and Rajasthan kept quiet.
• The rulers of the Indian States who did not support the movement remained neutral.
• A large number of rulers of the Indian States and the big zamindars did not join the movement
• The educated Indians did not support the movement.

Question 20.
The early Indian response to colonial exploitation and the colonial political and economic domination consisted of two elements. Mention them.
Answer:
The two responses:
(i) The first response in the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries was restorative in nature. Both tribal uprising and peasant rebellion made an attempt to restore the older order.

(ii) The second response appeared in the second half of the nineteenth century in the form of Indian nationalism that progressively imagined India as a nation emphasising on a consciousness of unity, and national aspiration.

Question 21.
Mention some of the issues that added to a sense of resentment among the Indian peasants and tribals against the British.
Answer:
Some of the issues are – the concept of private property rights in land, rigorous collection of land revenue, encroachment of tribal land by the non-tribal people, the interference of Christian missionaries in the socio-religious life of the local people.

Question 22.
What is the significance of the peasant rebellion that erupted in the first half of the nineteenth century India?
(OR)
What were the characteristics of the peasant uprisings that began except in India in the first half of the nineteenth century ?
Answer:
(i) The peasant uprisings clearly showed an awareness of the power structure in rural society and a strong will to restructure the authority.

(ii) The rebels were quite familiar with the political source of oppression and demonstrated in their actions against the Zamindar houses, grain stocks, the money lenders, and the merchants.

(iii) At times, the British state machinery, which came forward to protect these local agents of oppression, was also attacked.

Question 23.
Highlight the reasons that make the Great Rebellion of 1857 so significant.
(OR)
Why are the events of 1857- 58 significant?
Answer:
The event of 1857-58 is significant for the following reasons,

1. This was the first major revolt of armed forces accompanied by civilian rebellions.
2. The revolt witnessed the unprecedented violence, peipetrated by both sides.
3. The revolt brought an end to the East India Company and the governance of the Indian subcontinent was taken over by the British Crown.

Question 24.
Mention some of the key demands of the Indian National Congress.
Answer:
Here are some of the key demands made by the Indian National Congress:

1. Creation of legislative councils at provincial and central level.
2. Increasing the number of elected members in the legislative council.
3. Separating judicial and executive functions.
4. Reducing military expenditure.
5. Reduction of home charges.

VII. Answer all the questions given under each caption:

Question 1.
Farazi – Movement

(a) When and by whom was Farazi movement launched?
Answer:
In 1818 Farazi movement was lunched by Shariatullah.

(b) What did he advocate?
Answer:
He advocated the participants to abstain from un islamic activities.

(c) What was the result of it?
Answer:
This resulted in conflict directly with zamindars and in turn with the British who favoured the zamindars.

(d) Who revived this movement in the 1870?
Answer:
This movement was revived by Noahmian in the 1870s.

Question 2.
Revolt at Kanpur.
(a) Who joined the rebels at Kanpur and with whom?
Answer:
Nana Saheb joined the rebels with his commander Tantia Tope.

(b) What happened to the English?
Answer:
The English surrendered to the rebel force. The English men, women and children were mercilessly massacred.

(c) Who defeated Nana Saheb?
Answer:
Sir Colin Campbell defeated Nana Saheb.

(d) When was Cawnpur brought under British control?
Answer:
Kanpur was brought under the control of the British by the middle November 1857.

Question 3.
State of indian After the Battle of Plassey

(a) What was the policy adopted by the British after Plassey battle?
Answer:
British adopted the policy of territorial expansion.

(b) Name the areas that have undergone changes?
Answer:
Army, police, judicial system, land revenue administration and other institutions of Governance had systematic changes.

(c) What was the early Indians response to?
Answer:
The early Indians response to Colonial exploitation, political and Economic Domination.

(d) What was the nature of the response?
Answer:
The response in the. late 18th and early 19th Century was restorative in nature.

Question 4.
Munda Rebellion.
(a) Mention two reasons that aggravated the miseries of Munda people.
Answer:

• The corrupt police
• Lack of access to justice and the disillusionment with Christian missionaries.

(b) Describe briefly the role of Birsa Munda in this rebellion.
Answer:
Birsa Munda gave an impetus to the movement by declaring himself as the messenger of God. He claimed that he had a prophecy and promised supernatural solution to the problem of Munda people. The Munda leaders utilised the cult of Birsa Munda to recruit more people to their cause. A serious of night meetings were held and subsequently a revolt was planned.

(c) When did the revolt take place? How can you say that it was a violent revolt?
Answer:
The revolt took place on the Christmas day in 1889. The rebels resorted to violence. They burnt down buildings and shot arrows at the Christian missionaries, and Munda Christian converts. They also made attacks on police stations and government officials.

(d) How was resistance crushed?
Answer:
Their resistance was crushed and Birsa Munda was arrested who later died in jail.

VIII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Discuss the four major trends discerned during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
Answer:
Boycott and Swadeshi were the part of the plan to make India self-sufficient. Four major trends can be discerned during the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.

The Moderate Trend:

1. Had faith in British rule and their sense of justice and democratic practice.
2. The moderate leaders were not ready to wrest power from British in one single movement.
3. Boycott and Swadeshi Movement was of limited significance to them.

Constructive Swadeshi:

1. Focused on self-help through Swadeshi industries national schools arbitration courts and constructive programmes in the villages.
2. Rejected the self-defeating modest approach of moderates.
3. It remained non-political in nature.

Militiant Nationalism:

1. Focused more on a relentless boycott of foreign goods.
2. Had little patience for the non – political constructive programmes.
3. They ridiculed the idea of self-help.

Revolutionary terrorism:

1. A radical response to the British rule with violent methods.
2. It marked the shift from the mass – based movement to individual action.
3. British officials who were anti – Swadeshi or repressive towards native population were targeted.

Question 2.
Mention the results of the Great Revolt of 1857.
Answer:

1. It put an end to the company’s rule in India in 1858. The administration of India was directly taken over by the British Crown.
2. By a special Act, both the Board of Control and the Court of Directors were abolished.
3. The office of the Secretary of State for India was created. He was assisted by an Indian council of 15 members.
4. The Governor General of India was designated as viceroy of India.
5. The policy of ruthless conquest in India was given up.
6. The Indian princess were given the right of adoption.

Social and religious changes:

1. Full religious freedom was guaranteed to Indians.
2. Indian were also given assurance that high posts would be given to them without any discrimination.

Military changes:

1. The Indian army was thoroughly re-organized.
2. The number of the European forces were increased.
3. The artillery was put under the charge of the British.

Queen Victoria’s Proclamation of 1858:

1. Queen Victoria’s Proclamation was issued in 1858.
2. According to Queen Victoria’s Proclamation the English East India. The administration of India was taken over by the British Crown. The revolt paved the way for the rise of the national movement and it served as a source of inspiration in the later struggle for freedom.

Question 3.
What do you know about Militant Nationalism?
Answer:

1. The following three were the well known extremist leaders of the Indian National Congress. Lala Lajpat Rai of Punjab, Bala Gangadhar Tilak of Maharashtra and Bipin Chandrapal of Bengal during the period of Swadeshi Movement.
2. They were referred to as Lai – Bal – Pal Triumvirate.
3. Punjab, Bengal and Maharashtra emerged as the hotbed of militant nationalism during the Swadeshi Movement.
4. In south India Tuticorin became the most important location of Swadeshi activity.
5. V.O.Chidambaranar launched Swadeshi Navigation Company as a part of it.
6. One of the common goals of the extremist leaders was to achieve Swaraj or Self-rule.
7. Political murders and individual acts of terrorism were not approved by the Militant leaders.

Question 4.
Describe the circumstances that led to the Indigo Revolt in 1859.
Answer:
(i) Natural Indigo dye was highly valued by cloth makers around the World. Many Europeans sought to make their fortunes by becoming Indigo planters in India. They employed Indian peasants to grow the Indigo which was processed into dye at the planters factories. The dye was then exported to Europe.

(ii) The Indian peasants were not interested in growing Indigo. Instead they wanted to grow food crops. But they were forced to grow indigo. The British planters gave them cash advances to help pay for the rent of the land or other costs. These advances needed to be repaid with interest.

(iii) At the end of the season, the planters paid the cultivators low prices for their indigo. Moreover, the small amount they earned was not enough to pay back the cash advance with interest. So, they fell into debt.

(iv) The peasants would be forced to enter into another contract to grow indigo. And same thing would be repeated once again. Thus, the peasants were never able to clear their debts. Debts were often passed from father to son.
Finally, they revolted against the oppressive system in 1859 which came to be known as the Indigo Revolt. The peasants took a collective decision and refused to grow indigo. The movement quickly spread far and wide.

IMPORTANT EVENTS AND YEARS:
Year – Events
1855 – Birth of Indian National Congress
1856 – The General Services Enlistment Act
1857 – The Great Revolt
1858 – Queen Victoria’s Proclamation
1858 – Darbar at Allahabad
1858 – Vernacular Press Act
1905 – Partition of Bengal, Swadeshi Movement
1906 – Formation of the Muslim league
1907 – Surat Split
1909 – Minto – Morley Reforms Act

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 7 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science History Chapter 7 Anti-Colonial Movements and the British of Nationalism Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Trigonometry Ex 3.4

11th Maths Exercise 3.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.

Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 3.4 Question 2.

Solution:

11th Maths Exercise 3.4 Answers Question 3.

Solution:


since x is in III quadrant
Both sin x and cos x are negative

11 Maths Samacheer Solution Question 4.

Solution:

Class 11 Maths Ex 3.4 Solutions Question 5.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11 Maths Solutions Question 6.

Solution:

(ii) L.HS = cos(π + θ) = cos(180° + θ)
= cos 180° cos θ – sin 180° sin θ
= (-1) cos θ – (0) sin θ
= – cos θ = RHS

(iii) LHS = sin (π + θ) = sin π cos θ + cos π sin θ
= (0) cos θ + (-1) sin θ
= -sin θ = RHS

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Solution Question 7.
Find a quadratic equation whose roots are sin 15° and cos 15°
Solution:

11th Maths Samacheer Solutions Question 8.
Expand cos(A + B + C). Hence prove that cos A cos B cos C = sin A sin B cos C + sin B sin C cos A + sin C sin A cos B, if A + B + C = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
Solution:
Taking A + B = X and C = Y
We get cos (X + Y) = cos X cos Y – sin X sin Y
(i.e) cos (A + B + C) = cos (A + B) cos C – sin (A + B) sin C
= (cos A cos B – sin A sin B) cos C – [sin A cos B + cos A sin B] sin C
cos (A + B + C) = cos A cos B cos C – sin A sin B cos C – sin A cos B sin C – cos A sin B sin C If (A + B + C) = π/2 then cos (A + B + C) = 0
⇒ cos A cos B cos C – sin A sin B cos C – sin A cos B sin C – cos A sin B sin C = 0
⇒ cos A cos B cos C = sin A sin B cos C + sin B sin C cos A + sin C sin A cos B

Trigonometry 3.4 Class 11 Question 9.
Prove that
(i) sin(45° + θ) – sin(45° – θ) = \(\sqrt{2}\)sin θ.
(ii) sin(30° + θ) + cos(60° + θ) = cos θ.
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Question 10.
If a cos(x + y) = b cos(x – y), show that (a + b) tan x = (a – b) cot y.
Solution:
a cos (x + y) = b cos (x – y)
a[cos x cos y – sin x sin y] = 6[cos x cos y + sin x sin y]
(i.e) a cos x cos y – a sin x sin y = b cos x cos y + b sin x sin y
a cos x cos y – b sin x sin y = a sin x sin y + b cos x cos y

⇒ a cot y – b tan x = a tan x + b cot y
a cot y – b cot y = a tan x + b tan x
⇒ (a + b) tan x = (a – b) cot y.

Samacheer Kalvi Class 11 Maths Solutions Question 11.
Prove that sin 105° + cos 105° = cos 45°.
Solution:
sin 105° = sin (60°+ 45°)
= sin 60° cos 45° + cos 60° cos 45°

= cos 45° = RHS

Samacheer Kalvi Maths 11th Question 12.
Prove that sin 75° – sin 15° = cos 105° + cos 15°.
Solution:
RHS = cos 105° + cos 15° = cos (90° + 15°) + cos (90° – 75°)
= – sin 15° + sin 75°
= sin 75° – sin 15° = LHS

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Question 13.
Show that tan 75° + cot 75° = 4
Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11 Maths Question 14.
Prove that cos(A + B) cos C – cos(B + C) cos A = sin B sin(C – A).
Solution:
LHS = (cos A cos B – sin A sin B) cos C – (cos B cos C – sin B sin C) cos A
= cos A cos B cos C – sin A sin B cos C – cos A cos B cos C + cos A sin B sin C
= cos A sin B sin C – sin A sin B cos C
= sin B [sin C cos A – cos C sin A]
= sin B [sin (C – A)] = RHS

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 11th Maths Question 15.
Prove that sin(n + 1) θ sin(n – 1) θ + cos(n + 1) θ cos(n – 1)θ = cos 2θ, n ∈ Z.
Solution:
Taking (n + 1) θ = A and (n – 1) θ = B
LHS = sin A sin B + cos A cos B
= cos (A – B)
= cos[(n + 1) – (n – 1)]θ
= cos (n + 1 – n + 1)θ = cos 2θ = RHS

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 11th Maths Question 16.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Question 17.
Prove that
(i) sin(A + B) sin(A – B) = sin² A – sin² B
(ii) cos(A + B) cos(A – B) = cos² A – sin² B = cos² B – sin² A
(iii) sin²(A + B) – sin²(A – B) = sin2A sin2B
(iv) cos 8θ cos 2θ = cos² 5θ – sin² 3θ
Solution:
(i) LHS = sin (A + B) sin (A – B)
= (sin A cos B + cos A sin B) (sin A cos B – cos A sin B)
= sin²A cos² B – cos² A sin² B
= sin² A (1 – sin² B) – (1 – sin² A) sin² B
= sin² A – sin² A sin² B – sin² B + sin² A sin² B
= sin² A – sin² B = RHS

(ii) LHS = cos (A + B) cos (A – B) = (cos A cos B – sin A sin B) (cos A cos B + sin (A sin B)
= cos² A cos² B – sin² A sin² B
= cos² A (1 – sin² B) – (1 – cos² A) sin² B
= cos² A – cos² A sin² B – sin² B + cos² A sin² B
= cos² A – sin² B = RHS
Now cos² A – sin² B = (1 – sin² A) – (1 – cos² B)
= 1 – sin² A – 1 + cos² B
= cos² B – sin² A

(iii) sin² A – sin² B = sin (A + B) sin (A – B)
LHS = sin² (A + B) – sin² (A – B) = sin [(A + B) + (A – B)] [sin (A + B) – (A – B)]
= sin 2A sin 2B = RHS

(iv) LHS = cos 8θ cos 2θ
= cos (5θ + 3θ) cos (5θ – 3θ) .
We know cos (A + B) cos (A – B) = cos² A – sin² B
∴ cos (5θ + 3θ) cos (5θ – 3θ) = cos² 5θ – sin² 3θ = RHS

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Question 18.
Show that cos² A + cos² B – 2 cos A cos B cos(A + B) = sin²(A + B).
Solution:
LHS = cos² A + cos² B – 2 cos A cos B [cos A cos B – sin A sin B]
= cos² A + cos² B – 2 cos² A cos² B + 2 sin A cos A sin B cos B
= (cos² A – cos² A cos² B) + (cos² B – cos² A cos² B) + 2 sin A cos A sin B cos B
= cos² A (1 – cos² B) + cos² B (1 – cos² A) + 2 sin A cos A sin B cos B
= cos² A sin² B + cos² B sin² A + 2 sin A cos B sin B cos A
= (sin A cos B + cos A sin B)²
= sin² (A + B) = RHS

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solution Question 19.
If cos(α – β) + cos(β – γ) + cos(γ – α) = \(-\frac{3}{2}\), then prove that cos α + cos β + cos γ = sin α + sin β + sin γ
Solution:

2 cos (α – β) + 2cos (β – γ) + 2cos (γ – α) = -3
2cos(α – β) + 2cos(β – γ) + 2cos (γ – α) + 3 = 0
[2 cos α cos β + 2 sin α sin β] + [2 cos β cos γ + 2 sin β sin γ] + [2 cos γ cos α + sin γ sin α] + 3 = 0
= [2 cos α cos β + 2 cos β cos γ + 2 cos γ cos α] + [2 sin α sin β + 2 sin β sin γ + 2 sin γ sin α] + (sin² α + cos² α) + (sin² β + cos² β) + (sin² γ + cos² γ) = 0
⇒ (cos² α + cos² β + cos² γ + 2 cos α cos β + 2 cos β cos γ + 2 cos γ cos α) + (sin² α + sin² β) + (sin² γ + 2 sin α sin β + 2 sin β sin γ + 2 sin γ sin α) = 0
(cos α + cos β + cos γ)² + (sin α + sin β + sin γ)² = 0
=(cos α + cos β + cos γ) = 0 and sin α + sin β + sin γ = 0
Hence proved

Samacheer 11 Maths Solutions Question 20.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Question 21.

Solution:

11th Maths Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 22.

Solution:

11th Samacheer Kalvi Maths Question 23.

Solution:

Question 24.

Solution:

Maths Samacheer Kalvi 11th Question 25.

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Trigonometry Ex 3.4 Additinal Questions

10th Maths Exercise 3.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Prove that sin (A + B) sin (A – B) = cos² B – cos² A
Solution:
LHS = sin (A + B) sin (A – B)
= (sin A cos B + cos A sin B) (sin A cos B – cos A sin B)
= sin² A cos² B – cos² A sin² B
= (1 – cos² A) cos² B – cos² A (1 – cos² B)
= cos² B – cos² A cos² B – cos² A + cos² A cos² B
= cos² B – cos² A = RHS

Question 2.
Prove that
(i) sin A + sin(120° + A) + sin (240° + A) = 0
(ii) cos A + cos (120° +A) + cos (120° – A) = 0
Solution:
(i) sin A + sin(120° + A) + sin (240° + A)
= sin A+ sin 120° cos A + cos 120° sin A + sin 240° cos A + cos 240° sin A …… (1)

By substituting these values in (1), we get,

(ii) cos 120° = cos (180° – 60°) = – cos 60° = \(\frac{-1}{2}\)
LHS = cos A + cos (120° + A) + cos (120° – A)
= cos A + cos 120° cos A – sin 120° sin A + cos 120° cos A + sin 120° sin A
= cos A + 2 cos 120° cos A

Question 3.

Solution:

tan (A + B) = 1 ⇒ A+ B = 45°

Question 4.
If A + B = 45°, show that (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B) = 2 and hence deduce the value of tan \(22 \frac{1^{0}}{2}\).
Solution:
Given A + B = 45° ⇒ tan (A + B) = tan 45°

(i.e.) tan A + tan B = 1 – tan A.tan B
(i.e.) 1 + tan A + tan B = 2 – tan A tan B (add 1 on both sides)
1 + tan A + tan B + tan A tan B = 2
(i.e.) (1 + tan A) (1 + tan B) = 2