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Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Number System Intext Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1 Number System Intext Questions

(Try These Textbook Page No. 1)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Answers Question 1.
Write the following integers in ascending order: -5,0,2,4, -6,10, -10
Solution:
Plotting the points on the number line, we get

The numbers are placed in an increasing order from left to right.
∴ Ascending order: -10 < -6 < -5 < 0 < 2 < 4 < 10

7th Maths Number System Question 2.
If the integers -15, 12, -17, 5, -1, -5, 6 are marked on the number line then the integer on the extreme left is _____ .
Solution:
The least number will be on the extreme left.
∴ -17 will be on the extreme left.

Number System 7th Standard Question 3.
Complete the following pattern:
50, ___ 30, 20, _, 0, -10, _, _, -40, _, ___.
Solution:
The difference between the consecutive number is 10.
50, 40, 30,20, 10, 0, -10, -20, -30, -40, -50, -60

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Books Answers Question 4.
Compare the given numbers and write “<”, “>” or in the boxes.

Solution:
(a)  A positive number is greater than a negative number.
(b) 1000,0 is less than all positive integers.
(c)

7th Maths Exercise 1.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Write the given integers in descending order, -27, 19, 0, 12, -4, -22, 47, 3, -9, -35.
Solution:
Separating positive and the negative integers, we get -27, -4, -22, -9, -35
Arranging the numbers in descending order -4 > -9 > -22 > -27 > -35
The positive numbers are 19,12,47, 3
Arranging in descending order, we get 47 > 19 > 12 > 3
0 stands in the middle.
∴ Descending order: 47 > 19 > 12 > 3 > 0 > -4 > -9 > -22 > -27 > -35

(Try This Text Book Page No. 3)

7th Maths Guide Try These Question 1.
Find the value of the following using the number line activity.
(i) (-4) + (+3)
(ii) (-4) + (-3)
(iii) (+4) + (-3)
Solution:
(i) (-4) + (+3)
To find the sum of (-4) and (+3), we start at zero facing positive direction continuing in the same direction and move 4 units backward to represent (-4).
Since the operation is addition we maintain the same direction and move three units forward to represent (+3)
We land at -1
So (-4) + (+3) = -1

(ii) (-4) + (-3)
From zero move 4 steps backward to represent (-4)
From the same direction again move 3 units backward to represent (-3)
We land at -7 So (-4) + (-3) = -7

(iii) (+4) + (-3)
We start at zero facing positive direction and move 4 steps forward to represent (+4) Since the operation is addition we maintain the same direction and move three units backward to represent (-3).
We land at +1.
So (+4) + (-3) = +1

(Properties of Addition Textbook Page No. 6)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Solutions Question 1.
Complete the given table and check whether the sum of two integers is an integer or not?
(i) 7 + (-5) = (+2)
(ii) (-6)+ (-13) = (-19)
(iii) 25 + 9 = 34
(iv) (-12) + 4 = -8
(v) 41 + 32 = 73
(vi) (-19) + (-15) = (-34)
(vii) 52 + (-15) = (+37)
(viii)(-7) + 0 = (-7)
(ix) 0 + 12 = 12
(x) 14 + 0 = 14
(xi) (-6) +(-6) = (-12)
(xii) (-27) + 0 = -27
Solution:
The sum of two integers is an integer.

(Try These Textbook Page No. 7)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Maths Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) 20 + (-11) = -(11)+ 20 [∵ Addition is commutative]
(ii) (-5) + (-8) = (-8) + (-5) [∵ Addition is commutative]
(iii) (-3) +12 =12 + (-3) [∵ Addition is commutative]

7th Standard Number System Question 2.
Say True or False.
(i) (-11) + (-8) = (-8) + (-11)
(ii) -7 + 2 = 2 + (-7)
(iii) (-33) + 8 = 8 + (-33)
Solution:
(i) True, because addition is commutative for intergers
(ii) True, by commutative property on intergers
(iii) True, by commutative property on intergers

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Question 3.
Verify the following.
(i) [(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-2) + [(-9) + 6]
(ii) [7 + (-8)] + (-5) = 7 + [(-8) + (-5)]
(iii) [(-11) + 5]+ (-14) = (-11) + [5 + (-14)]
(iv) (-5) + [(-32) +(-2)] = [(-5) + (-32) + (-2)]
Solution:
(i) [(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-2) + [(-9) + 6]
[(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-11) + 6 = -5
Also (-2) + [(-9) + 6] = (-2) + (-3) = -5
Both the cases the sum is -5.
∴ – [(-2) + (-9)] + 6 = (-2) + [(-9) + 6]

(ii) [7 + (-8)] +(-5) = 7 + [(-8) + (-5)]
Here [7 + (-8)] + (-5) = (-1) + (-5) = -6
Also 7 + [(-8) + (-5)] = 7 + (-13) = 7 – 13 = -6
In both the cases the sum is -6.
∴ [7 + (-8)] + (-5) = 7 + [(-8) + (-5)]

(iii) [(-11) + 5] + (-14) = (-11) + [5 + (-14)]
Here [(-11) + 5] + (-14) = (-6) + (-14) = (-20)
(-11) + [5 + (-14)] = (-11) +(-9) = (-20)
In both the cases the sum is -20.
∴ [(-11) + 5] + (-14) = (-11) + [5 + (-14)]

(iv) (-5) + [(-32) + (-2)] = [(-5) + (-32)] + (-2)
(-5) + [(-32) + (-2)] = (-5) + (-34) = -39
Also [(-5) + (-32)] + (-2) = (-37) + (-2) = -39
In both the cases the sum is -39.
∴ (-5)+ [(-32) +(-2)] = [(-5)+ (-32)] +(-2)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Answers Pdf Question 4.
Find the missing integers:
(i) 0 + (-95) = -95
(ii) -611 + 0 = -611
(iii) ____ + 0 = _____ Any integer; the same integer
(iv) 0 + (-140) = -140

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Book Solutions Question 5.
Complete the following:
(i) -603 + 603 = 0
(ii) 9847+ (-9847) = 0
(iii) 1652 + (-1652) = 0
(iv) -777 + 777 = 0
(v) –5281 +5281 = 0

Exercise 1.2

Subtraction of Integers

(Try These Text book Page No. 11)

Samacheer Kalvi 7th Maths Answers Question 1.
Do the following by using number line.
(i) (-4) – (+3)
Solution:
We start at zero facing positive direction move 4 units backward to represent (-4). Then turn towards negative side and move 3 units forward.

We reach -7.
∴ (-4) – (+3) = -7.

(ii) (-4) – (-3)
Solution:
We start at zero facing positive direction. Move 4 units backward to represent -4. Then turn towards the negative side and move 3 units backwards.

We reach at-1.
∴ (-4) – (-3) = -1.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Standard Maths Question 2.
Find the values and compare the answers.
(i) (-6) – (-2) and (-6) + 2
Solution:
(-6) – (-2) = -6 + (Additive inverse of-2)
= -6 + (+2) = -4
Also (-6)+ 2 = -4
∴ (-6) – (-2) = (-6) + 2

(ii) 35 – (-7) and 35 + 7.
Solution:
35 – (-7) = 35 + (Additive inverse of -7) = 35 + (+7) = 42
Also 35 + 7 = 42 ; 35 – (-7) =35 + 7

(iii) 26 – (+10) and 26 + (-10)
Solution:
26 – (+10) = 26 + (Additive inverse of +10) = 26 + (-10) = 16
Also 26 + (-10) = 16; 26 – (+10) = 26 + (-10)

Number System 7th Class Question 3.
Put the suitable symbol <, > or = in the boxes.

Solution:
(i) -10 – 8 = -18 & -10 + 8 = – 2
(ii) (-20) + 10 = -10 & (-20) – (-10) = -10
(iii) -70 – 50 = (-70) + (-50) = -20
(iv) 100 – (+100) = 0 & 100 – (-100) = 100 + (+100) = 200
(v) -50 – 30 = -50 + (-30) = -80 Also -100 + 20 = – 80

(Try These Text book Page No. 14)

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 7th Maths Solutions Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.
(i) (-7) – (-15) = +8
-7 – (-15) = -7 + (Additive inverse of-15)
= -7 + 15 = +8
(ii) 12 – (-7) = 19          12 – (-7) = 19
(iii) -4 – (-5) = 1

Question 2.
Find the values and compare the answers.
(i) 15 – 12 and 12 – 15
(ii) -21 – 32 and -32 – (-21)
Solution:
(i) 15 – 12 = 3 & 12-15 = 12 +(-15) = -3

(ii) -21 – 32 = (-21) + (-32) = -53
Also -32 – (-21) = (-32) + (+21) = -11 ; -53 < -11

Question 3.
Is associative property true for subtraction of integers. Take any three examples and check.
Solution:
Consider the numbers 1,2 and 3. Now (1 – 2) – 3 = -1 – 3 = -4
Also 1 – (2 – 3) = 1 – (-1) = 1 + 1 = 2
∴ (1 – 2) – ≠ 1 – (2 – 3)
∴ Associative property is not true for subtraction of integers.

Exercise 1.3

Multiplication of Integers

(Try These Textbook Page No. 16)

Question 1.
Find the product of the following
(i) (-20) × (-45) = +900 [As we know the product of two negative integers is positive, the answer is +900.]
(ii) (-9) × (-8) = 72 [ ∵ Product of two negative integers is positive]
(iii) (-30) × 40 × (-1) = (+1200) [Product of two integers with opposite sings is negative integer.
(-30) × 40 × (-1) = (-1200) × (-1) = +1200)]
(iv) (-50) × 2 × (-10) = -1000 [Product of two integers with opposite signs is negative.
(+50) × 2 × (-10) = 100 × (-10) = -1000)]

Question 2.
Complete the following table by multiplying the integers in the corresponding row and column headers.

Solution:
We know that
(i) product of two positive integers is positive
(ii) product of two negative integers is
(ii) product of two negative integers is positive
(iii) product of integers with opposite sign is negative.
∴ The table will be as follows:

Question 3.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(i) (-55) × (-22) × (-33) < 0
(ii) (-1521) × 2511 < 0
(iii) 2512 – 1525 < 0
(iv) (1981) × (+2000) < 0
Solution:
(iii) and (iv) are incorrect because 2512 – 1252 is a positive integer.
Also (+1981) × (+2000) is a positive integer.

(Try These Textbook Page No. 18)

Question 1.
Find the product and check for equality
(i) 18 × (-5) and (-5) × 18
Solution:
Here 18 × (-5) = -90 Also (-5) × 18 = -90
∴ 18 × (-5)= (-5) × 18

(ii) 31 × (-6) and (-6) × 31
Solution:
Here 31 × (-6) = -186 Also (-6) × 31 =-186
∴ 31 × (-6)= (-6) × 31

(iii) 4 × 51 and 51 × 4
Solution:
Here 4 × 51 = 204 Also 51 × 4 = 204
∴ 4 × 51 = 51 × 4

Question 2.
Prove the following.
(i) (-20) × (13 × 4) = [(-20) × 13] × 4
Solution:
LHS = (-20) × (13 × 4) = (-20) × 52 = -1040
RHS = [(-20) × 13] × 4 = (-260) × 4 = -1040
LHS = RHS
∴ (-20) × (13 × 4) = [(-20) × 13] × 4

(ii) [(-50) × (-2)] × (-3) = (-50) × [(-2) × (-3)]
Solution:
LHS = [(-50) × (-2)] × (-3) = 100 × (-3) = -300
RHS = (-50) × [(-2) × (-3)] = (-50) × 6 =-300
LHS = RHS
∴ [(-50) × (-2)] × (-3) = (-50) × [-2) × (-3)]

(iii) [(-4) × (-3)] × (-5) = (-4) × [(-3) × (-5)]
Solution:
LHS = [(-4) × (-3)] × (-5) = 12 × (-5) = -60
RHS = (-4) × [(-3) × (-5)] = (-4) × 15 = -60
LHS = RHS
∴ [(-4) × (-3)] × (-5) = (-4) × [(-3) × (-5)]

(Try These Textbook Page No. 19)

Question 1.
Find the values of the following and check for equality:
(i) (-6) × (4 + (-5)) and ((-6) × 4) + ((-6) × (-5))
Solution:
(-6) × (4 + (-5)) = (-6) × (-1) = 6 .
((-6) × 4) + ((-6) × (-5)) = (-24)+ 30 = 6
Hence (-6) × (4 + (-5)) = ((-6) × 4) + ((-6) × (-5))

(ii) (-3) × [2 + (-8)] and [(-3) × 2] + [(-3) × 8]
Solution:
(-3) × [2 + (-8)] = (-3) × (-6) = 18
Also [(-3) × 2] + [(-3) × 8] = (-6)+ (-24) = -30
(-3) × [2 + (-8)] ≠ [(-3) × 2] + [(-3) × 8]

Question 2.
Prove the following.
(i) [(-5) × (-76)] + [(-5) × 8]
Solution:
LHS = (-5) × [(-76) + 8] = (-5) × (-68)
= +340
RHS = [(-5) × (-76)] + [(-5) × 8]
= +380 + (-40) = +380 – 40
= +340
LHS = RHS
∴ (-5) × [(-76) + 8] = [(-5) × (-76)] + [(-5) × 8]

(ii) (42 × 7) + [42 × (-3)]
Solution:
LHS = 42 × [7 + (-3)]
= 168
RHS = (42 × 7) + [42 × (-3)] = 294 – 126
= 168
LHS = RHS
∴ 42 × [7 + (-3)] = (42 × 7) + [42 × (-3)]

(iii) [(-3) × (-4)] + [(-3) × (-5)]
Solution:
LHS = (-3) × [(-4) + (-5)] = (-3) × (-9)
= +27
RHS = [(-3) × (-4)] + [(-3) × (-5)] = 12 + 15 = 27
LHS = RHS
∴ (-3) × [(-4) + (-5)] = [(-3) × (-4)] + [(-3) × (-5)]

(iv) 103 × 25 = (100 + 3) × 25 = (100 × 25) + (3 × 25)
Solution:
First consider 103 × 25 = 2575
Now (100 + 3) × 25 = 103 × 25 = 2575
Also (100 × 25) + (3 × 25) = 2500 + 75
= 2575
∴ All the three are same. 103 × 25 = (100 + 3) × 25 = (100 × 25) +(3 × 25)

Exercise 1.4

Division of Integers

(Try These Text book Page No. 22)

Question 1.
(i) (-32) ÷ 4 = _____
(ii) (-50) ÷ 50 = ____
(iii) 30 ÷ 15 = ______
(iv) -200 ÷ 10 = _____
(v) -48 ÷ 6 = ______
Solution:
(i) -8
(ii) -1
(iii) 2
(iv) -20
(v) -8

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.5

12th Maths Exercise 5.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
A bridge has a parabolic arch that is 10m high in the centre and 30m wide at the bottom. Find the height of the arch 6m from the centre, on either sides.
Solution:
From the diagram, equation of the parabolic arch

∴ The required height =10 – y₁ = 10 – 1.6 = 8.4m.

12th Maths Exercise 5.5 Question 2.
A tunnel through a mountain for a four lane highway is to have a elliptical opening. The total width of the highway (not the opening) is to be 16m, and the height at the edge of the road must be sufficient for a truck 4m high to clear if the highest point of the opening is to be 5m approximately. How wide must the opening be?
Solution:
From the diagram,
AA’ = 16 m, OA = 8m, OB = 5m
∴ Equation of the ellipse is

∴ The required wide for the opening is 2y₁ = 2(4.8) = 9.6 m

12th Maths Exercise 5.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
At a water fountain, water attains a maximum height of 4m at horizontal distance of 0.5m from its origin. If the path of water is a parabola, find the height of water at a horizontal distance of 0.75m from the point of origin.
Solution:
From the diagram
Equation of the path of water

The refined height = 4 – y₁ = 4 – 1 = 3 m

10th Maths Exercise 5.5 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
An engineer designs a satellite dish with a parabolic cross section. The dish is 5m wide at the opening, and the focus is placed 1.2m from the vertex
(a) Position a coordinate system with the origin at the vertex and the x-axis on the parabola’s axis of symmetry and find an equation of the parabola.
(b) Find the depth of the satellite dish at the vertex.
Solution:
From the diagram,

(a) Consider the satellite dish is open rightward parabola
y² = 4 ax ……….. (1)
Clearly a = 1.2m
(1) ⇒ y² = 4(1.2)
y² = 4.8x
(b) Use the point (x₁, 2.5) in (1)
(2.5)² = 4(1.2)x₁
\(\frac{(2.5)^{2}}{4(1.2)}\) = y₁
x₁ = 1.3 m
∴ The depth of the satellite dish at vertex is 1.3 m

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Pdf Question 5.
Parabolic cable of a 60m portion of the roadbed of a suspension bridge are positioned as shown below. Vertical Cables are to be spaced every 6m along this portion of the roadbed. Calculate the lengths of first two of these vertical cables from the vertex.
Solution:
From the diagram,

Equation of the suspension bridge
(x – h)² = 4a(y – k)
But V (0, 3)
x² = 4a (y – 3)
Use the point (30, 16) in (1)
30² = 4a (16 – 3) ⇒ 900 = 13 × 4a
\(\frac{900}{13 \times 4}\) = a

(i) The length of the first vertical cable from the vertex is
Use (6, y₁) in (2)
(2) ⇒ (6)² = \(\frac{900}{13}\) (y₁ – 3)
\(\frac{36 \times 13}{900}\) = y₁ – 3
0.52 = y₁ – 3
y₁ = 3.52 m
(ii) The length of the second vertical cable from the vertex is
Use the point (12, y₂) in (2)
(2) ⇒ (12)² = \(\frac{900}{13}\) (y₂ – 3)
\(\frac{144 \times 13}{900}\) = y₂ – 3
0.52 = y₂ – 3
y₂ = 3.52 m

12th Samacheer Maths Solutions Question 6.
Cross section of a Nuclear cooling tower is in the shape of a hyperbola with equation \(\frac{x^{2}}{30^{2}}-\frac{y^{2}}{44^{2}}\) = 1. The tower is 150m tall and the distance from the top of the tower to the centre of the hyperbola is half the distance from the base of the tower to the centre of the hyperbola. Find the diameter of the top and base of the tower.
Solution:
From the diagram,equation of hyperbola is

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Guide Question 7.
A rod of length 1.2m moves with its ends always touching the coordinate axes. The locus of a point P on the rod, which is 0.3m from the end in contact with x-axis is an ellipse. Find the eccentricity.
Solution:
From the diagram,
(i) ∆^le OAB be a right angle triangle.
(ii) ∠APD and ∠PBC are corresponding angles, so corresponding angles are equal.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 12th Maths Question 8.
Assume that water issuing from the end of a horizontal pipe, 7.5m above the ground, describes a parabolic path. The vertex of the parabolic path is at the end of the pipe. At a position 2.5m below the line of the pipe, the flow of water has curved outward 3m beyond the vertical line through the end of the pipe. How far beyond this vertical line will the water strike the ground?
Solution:
From the diagram,

Equation of the water path is
x² = – 4 ay
Use the point (3, – 2.5) in (1)
(3)² = – 4a(- 2.5)
9 = 10a
a = \(\frac{9}{10}\) substituting in (1)
(1) ⇒ x² = -4\(\frac{9}{10}\)y …………. (2)
Use the point (x₁, -7.5) in (2)
(2) ⇒ x₁² = -4 \(\frac{9}{10}\)(-7.5) ⇒ x₁² = 30(\(\frac{9}{10}\))
x₁ = \(\sqrt{3 \times 9}\)
x₁ = \(3 \sqrt{3}\) m
∴ The water strikes the ground \(3 \sqrt{3}\) m beyond the vertical line.

12th Samacheer Maths Solution Question 9.
On lighting a rocket cracker it gets projected in a parabolic path and reaches a maximum height of 4m when it is 6m away from the point of projection. Finally it reaches the ground 12m away from the starting point. Find the angle of projection?
Solution:
From the diagram,

Equation of the parabolic path is
x² = -4ay
Use the point (6, -4) in (1)
(1) ⇒ (6)² = 16a
\(\frac{36}{16}\) = 10a
substitute a = \(\frac{9}{14}\) in (1)
(1) ⇒ x² = -4\(\left(\frac{9}{4}\right)\)y
x² = -9y ……….. (2)
Differentiate with respect to ‘x’

12th Maths 5th Chapter In Tamil Question 10.
Points A and B are 10km apart and it is determined from the sound of an explosion heard at those points at different times that the location of the explosion is 6km closer to A than B. Show that the location of the explosion is restricted to a particular curve and find an equation of it.
Solution:
From the diagram,

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.5 Additional Problems

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry 2 Question 1.
If a parabolic reflector is 20cm in diameter and 5cm deep, find the distance of the focus from the centre of the reflector.
Solution:

By the property of the parabolic reflector, the position of the bulb should be placed at the focus.
By taking the vertex at the origin the equation of the reflector is y² = 4ax.
Let PQ be the diameter of the reflector P = (5, 10)
Since P (5, 10) lies on the parabola,
10² = 4a × 5
ie., 100 = 20a ⇒ a = 5
So the focus is at a distance of 5cm from the vertex and focus is (5, 0).

Exercise 5.5 Class 12 Question 2.
The focus of a parabolic mirror is at a distance of 8cm from its centre (vertex). If the mirror 25cm deep, find the diameter of the mirror.
Solution:

Let the vertex be at the origin.
VF = a = 8cm
The equation of the parabola is
Y² = 4ax = 4(8)x = 32x
Depth of the mirror = x₁ = 25cm.
So, radius is 0.
⇒ y² = 32(25) = 800
y = \(\sqrt{800}=10 \sqrt{8}=10 \times 2 \sqrt{2}=20 \sqrt{2}\) = Radius of the mirror
∴ Diameter of the mirror = 2 × 20\(\sqrt{2}\) = 40 \(\sqrt{2}\) cm of the mirror.

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Question 3.
A cable of a suspension bridge is in the form of a parabola whose span is 40 mts. The roadway is 5 mts below the lowest point of the cable. If an extra support is provided across the cable 30 mts above the ground level, find the length of the support if the height of the pillars are 55 mts.
Solution:

The lowest point on the cable is taken as the vertex and it is taken as the origin.
Let AB, CD be the pillars.
Span of parabola = 40 mts = distance between AB and CD
C’V = VA’ = 20 mts
Height of each pillar = 55 mts ⇒ AB = 55 mts
So, A’B = 55 – 5 = 50 mts
Thus, the point B is (20, 50).
Equation of the parabola is x² = 4ay
Here, B is a point on the parabola, x² = 4ay
(20)² = 4a (50) ⇒ 4a = \(\frac{20 \times 20}{50}\) = 8
∴ The equation is x² = 8y
Let PQ be the length of the extra support RQ.
RQ = 30, RR’ = 5 ⇒ R’Q = 25
Let VR’ be x₁ ∴ Q is (x₁, 25).
Q is a point on parabola
x₁² = 8 x 25 = 200
x₁ = \(\sqrt{200}=10 \sqrt{2}\)
The entire length, PQ = 2 x₁ = 20\(\sqrt{2}\).mts.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Maths Question 4.
A kho-kho player in a practice session while running realises that the sum of the distances from the kho-kho poles from him is always 8m. Find the equation of the path traced by him if the distance between the poles is 6m.
Solution:

Give FP + F’P = 4
ie., 2a = 8 and
FF’ = 2ae = 6
ie., a = 4 and ae = 3
e = \(\frac{a e}{a}=\frac{3}{4}\)
b² = a²(1 – e²) = 16(1 – \(\frac{9}{16}\)) = 7
So the equation of the path is an ellipse whose equation is \(\frac{x^{2}}{16}+\frac{y^{2}}{7}\) = 1.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.1

12th Maths Exercise 5.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Obtain the equation of the circles with radius 5 cm and touching x-axis at the origin in general form.

Solution:
Given radius = 5 cm and the circle is touching x axis
So centre will be (0, ± 5) and radius = 5
The equation of the circle with centre (0, ± 5) and radius 5 units is
(x – 0)² + (y ± 5)² = 5²
(i.e) x² + y² ± 10 y + 25 – 25 = 0
(i.e) x² + y² ± 10y = 0

12th Maths Exercise 5.1 Question 2.
Find the equation of the circle with centre (2, -1) and passing through the point (3, 6) in standard form.
Solution:
Centre = C = (2, -1); Passing through = A = (3, 6)
So radius = CA = \(\sqrt{(2-3)^{2}+(-1-6)^{2}}=\sqrt{1+49}=5 \sqrt{50}\)
Now centre = (2, -1) and radius = \(\sqrt{50}\)
So equation of the circle is
(i.e) (x – 2)² + (y + 1)² = \(\sqrt{50}^{2}\) ⇒ (x – 2)² + (y + 1)² = 50

12th Maths Exercise 5.2 Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Find the equation of circles that touch both the axes and pass through (-4, – 2) in general form.
Solution:
Since the circle touches both the axes, its centre will be (r, r) and radius wil be r.
Here centre = C = (r, r) and point on the circle is A = (-4, -2)
CA = r ⇒ CA² = r²
(i.e) (r + 4)² + (r + 2)² = r²
⇒ r² + 8r +16 + r² + 4r + 4 – r² = 0
(i.e) r² + 12r + 20 = 0
(r + 2) (r + 10) = 0
⇒ r = -2 or -10
When r = -2, the equation of the circle will be (x + 2)² + (y + 2)² = 2²
(i.e) x² + y² + 4x + 4y + 4 = 0
When r = -10, the equation of the circle will be (x + 10)² + (y + 10)² = 10²
(i.e) x² + y² + 20x + 20y + 100 = 0

12th Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1 Question 4.
Find the equation of the circle with centre (2, 3) and passing through the intersection of the lines 3x – 2y -1 = 0 and 4x + y – 27 = 0 .
Solution:
To find the point of intersection of the two lines we have to solve the two equations.
Now solving them: 3x — 2y = 1 ……….. (1)
4x + y = 27 ……….(2)
(2) × 2 ⇒ 8x + 2y = 54 ……….. (3)
(1) ⇒ 3x – 2y = 1 ………. (1)
(3) + (1) ⇒ 11x = 55 ⇒ x = \(\frac{55}{11}\) = 5
Substituting x = 5 in (2) we get
20 + y = 27 ⇒ y = 27 – 20 = 7
∴ The point = A = (5, 7)
Given centre = C = (2, 3)
∴ radius = \(\sqrt{(5-2)^{2}+(7-3)^{2}}=\sqrt{9+16}=5\) = 5
Now centre = (2, 3) and radius = 5
So equation of the circle is
(x – 2)² + (y – 3)² = 5²
(i.e) x² + y² – 4x – 6y – 12 =0

Class 12 Maths Chapter 5 Exercise 5.1 Question 5.
Obtain the equation of the circle for which (3, 4) and (2, -7) are the ends of a diameter.
Solution:
The equation of a circle with (x₁ , y₁) and (x₂ , y₂ ) as end points of a diameter is
(x – x₁ )(x – x₂) + (y – y₁ )(y – y₂) = 0
Here the end points of a diameter are (3, 4) and (2, -7)
So equation of the circle is (x – 3 )(x – 2 ) + (y – 4) (y + 7.) = 0
x² + y² – 5x + 37 – 22 = 0

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry 2 Question 6.
Find the equation of the circle through the points (1, 0), (-1, 0), and (0, 1).
Solution:
Let the required circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …………. (A)
The circle passes through (1, 0), (-1, 0) and (0, 1)
(1, 0) ⇒ 1 + 0 + 2g(1) + 2f(0) + c = 0
2g + c = -1 ……………. (1)
(-1, 0) ⇒ 1 + 0 + 2g (-1) + 2f(0) + c = 0
-2g + c = -1 ……….. (2)
(0, 1) ⇒ 0 + 1 + 2g (0) + 2f(1) + c = 0
2f+ c = -1 ……….. (3)
Now solving (1), (2) and (3) .
2g + c = -1 ………… (1)
-2g + c = -1 ………….. (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2c = -2 ⇒ c = -1
Substituting c = -1 in (1) we get
2g – 1 = -1
2g = -1 + 1 = 0 ⇒ g = 0
Substituting c = -1 in (3) we get
2f – 1 =-1 ⇒ 2f = -1 + 1 = 0 ⇒ f = 0
So we get g = 0, f= 0 and c = -1
So the required circle will be
x² + y² + 2(0) x + 2(0)y – 1 = 0
(i.e) x² + y² – 1 = 0 ⇒ x² + y² = 1

Exercise 5.1 Class 12 Question 7.
A circle of area 9n square units has two of its diameters along the lines x + y = 5 and x – y = 1. Find the equation of the circle.
Solution:
Area of the circle = 9π
(i.e) πr² = 9π
⇒ r² = 9 ⇒ r = 3
(i.e) radius of the circle = r = 3
The two diameters are x + y = 5 and x – y = 1
The point of intersection of the diameter is the centre of the circle = C
To find C: Solving x + y = 5 ……… (1)
x – y = 1 ………. (2)
(1) + (2) ⇒ 2x = 6 ⇒ x = 3
Substituting x = 3 in (1) we get
3 + y = 5 ⇒ y = 5 – 3 = 2
∴ Centre = (3, 2) and radius = 3
So equation of the circle is (x – 3)² + (y – 2)² = 3²
(i.e) x² + y² – 6x – 4y + 4 =0

Ex 5.1 Class 12 Question 8.
If y = \(2 \sqrt{2} x\) + c is a tangent to the circle x² + y² =16 , find the value of c .
Solution:
The condition for the line y = mx + c to be a tangent to the circle x² + y² = a² is
c² = a²(1 + m²)
Here x² + y² = 16 ⇒ a² = 16
y = \(2 \sqrt{2} x\) + c ⇒ m = \(2 \sqrt{2}\) and c = c
The condition is c² = a² (1 + m²)
(i.e) c² = 16(1 + 8) = 144
⇒ c = ± 12

Chapter 5 Maths Class 12 Question 9.
Find the equation of the tangent and normal to the circle x² + y² – 6x + 6y – 8 = 0 at (2, 2).
Solution:
The equation of the tangent to the circle x² + y² + 2 gx + 2fy + c = 0 at (x₁, y₁) is
xx₁ + yy₁ + g(x + x₁) + f(y + y₁) + c = 9
So the equation of the tangent to the circle
x² + y² – 6x + 6y – 8 = 0 at (x₁, y₁) is
xx₁ + yy₁ – \(\frac{6\left(x+x_{1}\right)}{2}+\frac{6\left(y+y_{1}\right)}{2}\) – 8 = 0
(i.e) xx₁ + yy₁ – 3(x + x₁) + 3(y + y₁) – 8 = 0
Here (x₁, y₁) = (2, 2)
So equation of the tangent is
x(2) + y(2) – 3(x + 2) + 3(y + 2) – 8 = 0
(.i.e) 2x + 2y – 3x – 6 + 3y + 6 – 8 = 0
(i.e) -x + 5y – 8 = 0 or x – 5y + 8=0
Normal is a line ⊥r to the tangent
So equation of normal circle be of the form 5x + y + k = 0
The normal is drawn at (2, 2)
⇒ 10 + 2 + k = 0 ⇒ k = -12
So equation of normal is 5x + y – 12 = 0

Chapter 5 Class 12 Maths Question 10.
Determine whether the points (-2, 1), (0, 0) and (-4, -3) lie outside, on or inside the circle x² + y² – 5x + 2y – 5 = 0 .
Solution:
To find the position of a point with regard to a given circle, substitute the point in the equation of the circle if we get a positive value, the point lies outside the circle.
If we get a -ve value the point lies inside the circle and if we get O then the point lies on the circumference of the circle.
The given circle is x² + y² – 5x + 2y – 5 = 0 ……….. (1)
Substituting the point (-2, 1) in (1) we get
4 + 1 – 5(-2) + 2(1) – 5 = 5 + 10 + 2 – 5 = 12
⇒ (- 2, 1) lies outside the circle
Substituting the point (0, 0) in (1) we get
-5 < 0 ⇒ (0, 0) lies inside the circle Substituting the point (-4, -3) in (1) we get 16 + 9 + 20 – 6 – 5 = 34 >0
⇒ (- 4, -3) lies outside the circle

12th Maths 5th Chapter Samacheer Kalvi Question 11.
Find centre and radius of the following circles.
(i) x² + (y + 2)² = 0
(ii) x² + y² + 6x – 4y + 4 = 0
(iii) x² + y² – x + 2y – 3 = 0
(iv) 2x² + 2y² – 6x + 4y + 2 = 0
Solution:
(i) x² + (y + 2)² = 0
(i.e) x² + y² + 4y + 4 = 0
Comparing this equation with the general form x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
we get 2g = 0 ⇒ g = 0
2f = 4 ⇒ f= 2 and c = 4
Now centre = (-g, -f) = (0, -2)
Radius = r = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{0+4-4}\)
∴ Centre = (0, -2) and radius = 0

(ii) x² + y² + 6x – 4y + 4 = 0
Comparing with the general form we get
2g = 6, 2f = -4
⇒ g = 3, /= -2 and c = 4
Centre = (-g, -f) = (-3, 2)
Radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{9+4-4}\)= 3
∴ Centre = (-3, 2) and radius = 3

(iii) x² + y² – x + 2y – 3 = 0
Comparing with the general form of the circle we get

(iv) 2x² + 2y² – 6x + 4y + 2 = 0
(÷ by 2) ⇒ x² + y² – 3x + 2y + 1 =0
Comparing this equation with the general form of the circle we get
2g = -3, 2f= 2
g = \(-\frac{3}{2}\), g= 1 and c = 1
So centre = (-g, -f) = (\(\frac{3}{2}\), -1)
and radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}=\sqrt{\frac{9}{4}+1-1}=\frac{3}{2}\)
∴ Centre = (\(\frac{3}{2}\), -1) and radius = \(\frac{3}{2}\)

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Pdf Question 12.
If the equation 3x² + (3 -p) xy + qy² – 2px = 8 pq represents a circle, find p and q. Also determine the centre and radius of the circle.
Solution:
For a circle co-eff of x² = co-efif of y²
⇒ 3 = q
co-eff of xy = 0
⇒ 3 – p = 0 ⇒ p = 3
So p = q = 3
So the equation of the circle becomes 3x² + 3y² – 6x – 72 = 0
(÷ by 3) ⇒ x² + y² – 2x – 24 = 0
Comparing this equation with the general form of the circle we get
2g = -2, 2f = 0
g = -1, f = 0 and c = -24
So centre = (-g, -f) = (1, 0) and radius = \(\sqrt{g^{2}+f^{2}-c}\) = 5
∴ Centre =(1,0) and radius = 5

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry – II Ex 5.1 Additional Problems

Ex5 1 Class 12 Question 1.
Find the equation of the circle whose centre is (2, -3) and passing through the intersection of the line 3x – 2y = 1 and 4x + y = 27.
Solution:
Solving 3x – 2y = 1 and 4x+y = 27
Simultaneously, we get x = 5 and y = 7
∴ The point of intersection of the lines is (5, 7)

Now we have to find the equation of a circle whose centre is (2, -3) and which passes through (5,7)

∴ Required equation of the circle is
(x – 2)² + (y + 3)² = \((\sqrt{109})^{2}\)
⇒ x² + y² – 4x + 6y – 96 = 0

Class 12 Maths Chapter 5 Question 2.
Find the equation of a circle of radius 5 whose centre lies on x-axis and which passes through the point (2, 3).
Solution:
Let the centre of the circle be (h, k). Since the centre lies on x-axis, we have k = 0
Therefore, centre = (h, 0)
Also the circle has radius 5 units and passes through the point (2, 3).

Hence the centre is (6, 0) or (-2, 0)
∴ The equation of the circle is
(x – 6)² + (y – 0)² = 5² ⇒ x² + y² – 12x+ 11 = 0 (Or) (x + 2)² + (y – 0)² = 5² ⇒ x² + y² + 4x – 21 =0

Two Dimensional Analytical Geometry Question 3.
Find the centre and radius of the following circles:
x² + y² – 2x + 4y – 4 = 0 and 2x² + 2y² + 16x – 28y + 32 = 0. Also find the ratio of their diameters.
Solution:
Comparing the equation x² + y² – 2x + 4y – 4 = 0 with x² + y² + 2gx + 2 fy + c = 0, we get
2g = -2 ⇒ g = -1, 2f = 4 ⇒ f = 2, c = -4

Comparing with x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
2g = 8 ⇒ g = 4, 2f = -14 ⇒ f = -7, c = 16

Diameter = 2r₂ = 2 × 7 = 14 units
Ratio of their diameters = 6 : 14 = 3 : 7.

Class 12 Maths Ex5.1 Question 4.
Find the equation of the circle whose radius is 4 and which is concentric with the circle x² + y² + 2x – 6y = 0
Solution:
x² + y² + 2x – 6y = 0 …(1)
Here 2g = 2 ⇒ g = 1, 2f = -6 ⇒ f = -3
Centre of the circle = (-g, -f) = (-1, 3)
Since the required circle is concentric with (1), its centre is also (-1, 3).
∴ The equation of the circle whose centre is (-1, 3) and radius 4 is
(x + 1)² + (y – 3)² = 4²
⇒ x² + y² + 2x – 6y – 6 = 0

Exercise 5.1 Class 12 Solutions Question 5.
Show that the four points (1, 0), (2, -7), (8,1) and (9, 6) are concyclic.
Solution:
Let the equation of the circle be Since it passes through (1,0) ⇒ x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …(1)

Exercise 5.1 Class 12 Maths Question 6.
Find the equation of a circle which passes through the points (1, -2) and (4, -3) and whose centre lies on the line 3x + 4y = 0
Solution:
Let the equation of the circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …(1)
Since it passes through (1, -2) and (4, -3)
∴ 5 + 2g – 4f + c = 0 …(2)
and 25 + 8g – 6f + c = 0 …(3)
Also (-g, -f) centre of circle (1) lies on 3x + 4y = 7
-3g – 4f = 7 …(4)
Subtracting (2) from (3), we get
20 + 6g – 2f = 0 …(5)
Solving (4) and (5), we get

Substituting these values of g and f in (2)

∴ From (1), we get,

Which is the required equation on the circle.

Math Solution Class 12 Chapter 5 Question 7.
Find the equation (s) of the circle passing through the points (1, 1) and (2, 2) and whose radius is 1.
Solution:
Let the equation of the circle be
x² + y² + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0 …. (1)
Since it passes through (1,1)
∴ 1 + 1 + 2g + 2f + c = 0
⇒ 2g + 2f + c + 2 = 0 ….(2)
Again it passes through (2, 2)
∴ 4 + 4+ 4g + 4/+ c = 0
⇒ 4g + 4f + c + 8 = 0 …(3)

Adding (2) and (4)
g² + 2g + f² + 2f + 2 = 1
g² + 2g + (-g – 3)² + 2(-g – 3) + 1 = 0
⇒ 2g² + 6g + 4 = 0 ⇒ g² + 3g + 2 = 0
⇒ (g + 1)(g + 2) = 0 ⇒ g = -1, -2
when g = -1, from (5), f = – (-1) – 3 = 1 – 3 = -2
when g = -2, from (5), f = – (-2) – 3 = 2 – 3 = -1
Substituting g = -1, f = -2 in (2), we get
2(-1) + 2(-2) + c + 2 =0
⇒ – 6 + c + 2 = 0 ⇒ c = 4
Now putting g = -1, f = -2 and c = 4 in (1), we get
x² + y² – 2x – 4y + 4 = 0
Again putting g = -2, f = -1 in (2), we get
2(-2) + 2(-1) + c + 2 =0
⇒ -4 – 2 + c + 2 =0 ⇒ c = 4
Putting g = -2, f = -1 and c = 4 (in) (1), we get
x² + y² – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0
Hence the required equation (s) of the circle are
x² + y² – 2x – 4y + 4 =0 and x² + y² – 4x – 2y + 4 = 0.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 6 Trigonometry Ex 6.4

10th Maths Exercise 6.4 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
From the top of a tree of height 13 m the angle of elevation and depression of the top and bottom of another tree are 45° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the second tree. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:

Ex 6.4 Class 10 Samacheer Question 2.
A man is standing on the deck of a ship, which is 40 m above water level. He observes the angle of elevation of the top of a hill as 60° and the angle of depression of the base of the hill as 30°. Calculate the distance of the hill from the ship and the height of the hill. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:


∴ The height of the hill = 120 + 40 = 160 m
The distance of the hill from the ship is AC = x = \(40 \sqrt{3}\) m = 69.28 m

10th Maths Exercise 6.4samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
If the angle of elevation of a cloud from a point ‘h’ metres above a lake is θ₁ and the angle of depression of its reflection in the lake is θ₂. Prove that the height that the cloud is located from the ground is \(\frac{h\left(\tan \theta_{1}+\tan \theta_{2}\right)}{\tan \theta_{2}-\tan \theta_{1}}\)
Solution:

Let AB be the surface of the lake and let p be the point of observation such that AP = h meters.
Let C be the position of the cloud and C’ be its reflection in the lake. Then CB = C’B.
Let PM be ⊥^r from P on CB
Then ∠CPM = θ₁, and ∠MPC = θ₂
Let CM = x.
Then CB = CM + MB = CM + PA
= x + h



Hence proved

10th Maths Exercise 6.4 Question 4.
The angle of elevation of the top of a cell phone tower from the foot of a high apartment is 60° and the angle of depression of the foot of the tower from the top of the apartment is 30°. If the height of the apartment is 50 m, find the height of the cell phone tower. According to radiations control norms, the minimum height of a cell phone tower should be 120 m. State if the height of the above mentioned cell phone tower meets the radiation norms.
Solution:


Since 150m > 120m, yes the height of the above mentioned tower meet the radiation norms.

10th Maths Trigonometry Exercise 6.4 Question 5.
The angles of elevation and depression of the top and bottom of a lamp post from the top of a 66 m high apartment are 600 and 30° respectively. Find
(i) The height of the lamp post.
(ii) The difference between height of the lamp post and the apartment.
(iii) The distance between the lamp post and the apartment. (\(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:


= 114.312 m

10th Maths Exercise 6.3 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Three villagers A, B and C can see each T other across a valley. The horizontal distance between A and B is 8 km and the horizontal distance between B and C is 12 km. The angle of depression of B from A is 20° and the angle of elevation of C from B is 30° . Calculate :

(i) the vertical height between A and B.
(ii) the vertical height between B and C. (tan20° = 0.3640, \(\sqrt{3}\) = 1.732)
Solution:

Students can Download Computer Applications Chapter 6 Word Processor Basics (OpenOffice Writer) Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Chapter 6 Word Processor Basics (OpenOffice Writer)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Word Processor Basics (OpenOffice Writer) Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

11th Computer Application Chapter 6 Book Back Answers Question 1.
Which is the opening screen of OpenOffice?
(a) Star desktop
(b) Star Center
(c) Star Screen
(d) Star window
Answer:
(b) Star Center

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Computer Application Question 2.
Which option allows you to assign text, tables, graphics and other items to a key or key combination?
(a) Automatic
(b) Autoformat
(c) Auto Text
(d) Autographies
Answer:
(c) Auto Text

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Application Question 3.
Which menu contains the Numbering option?
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Tools
(d) Format
Answer:
(c) Tools

Samacheer Kalvi Computer Application Question 4.
There are types of hyperlinks displayed on the left pane of the dialog box?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

11th Computer Application Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
………………….. menu contains the Numbering option.
(a) File
(b) Edit
(c) Tools
(d) Format
Answer:

11th Computer Applications Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The option inserts an image that overlaps the text which as a result will be hidden.
(a) Font style
(b) Wrap Through
(c) Font group
(d) Shadow
Answer:
(b) Wrap Through

Computer Application Samacheer Kalvi Question 7.
……………………….. is the default setting, with which the table occupies the entire width of the text area.
(a) Default
(b) Right
(c) Left
(d) Automatic
Answer:
(a) Default

Question 8.
……………………… icon on the drawing toolbar gets you a text box.
(a) Text icon
(b) Text box icon
(c) Draw icon
(d) Draw box icon
Answer:
(a) Text icon

Question 9.
……………………. allows you to assign text, tables, graphics and other items to a key or key combination.
(a) Auto
(b) Automatic
(c) AutoText
(d) Default
Answer:
(c) AutoText

Question 10.
……………………… is the shortcut key for finding and replacing text in a document.
(a) Ctrl + F
(b) Ctrl + F4
(c) Ctrl + F5
(d) Ctrl + F7
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + F

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
How do you insert pictures in to your document?
Answer:
Open office Writer has the ability to insert and edit images in a more simple way.

1. Place the insertion pointer where you want the image to appear.
2. Select Insert → Picture From file.
3. The insert picture dialog box appears where the picture gallery opens from which the desired picture can be selected.
4. Click on the Open button.
5. The selected picture is inserted into the document.

Question 2.
What are Hyperlinks?
Answer:
There are four types of hyperlinks displayed on the left pane of the dialog box:

1. Internet: A web address, normally starting with http://
2. Mail and News: For example an email address.
3. Document: A hyperlink that points to another document or to another place in the presentation.
4. New document: The hyperlink creates a new document.

Question 3.
What is auto text in writer?
Answer:
AutoText allows you to assign text, tables, graphics and other items to a key or key combination. For example, rather than typing “Tamil Nadu” every time you use that phrase, you might just type “tn” and press F3. You can also save a formatted Tip as AutoText and then insert a copy by typing “tip” and pressing F3.

Question 4.
How do you merge cells in a table?
Answer:
To merge a group of cells:

1. Select the cells to merge.
2. Right click and choose Cell → Merge or choose Table → Merge Cells from the menu bar.

Question 4.
What is the use of Word Art in writer?
Answer:
Word Art is a text modifying feature in the open office writer. It includes effects such as shadows, outlines, colors, gradients, and 3D effects that can be added to a word or phrase. Word Art helps to apply Special effects and change the appearance of the text to make it more presentable and attractive.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
Write about the drawing toolbar?
Answer:
Open office writer uses the drawing tools, to create various shapes by using the Drawing toolbar.
To use th e drawing tools repeatedly, you can move this toolbar to a convenient place on the window. The drawing toolbar can be obtained by clicking View → Toolbars → Drawing.

Question 2.
What are comments, footnotes and endnotes in writer?
Answer:
Footnotes appear at the bottom of the page on which they are referenced. Endnotes are collected at the end of a document. To work effectively with footnotes and endnotes.
→ Insert footnotes.
→ Define formate of footnotes.
→ Define the location of footnotes on the page.
To insert a footnote on an endnote, then select Insert → Footnote / Endnote from the Menu bar or click directly by icon Insert footnote or Insert endnote.

Question 3.
How do you insert cells, rows and columns?
Answer:
To insert rows or columns inside a table:

• Place the insertion pointer in the row or in the column where you would like to add new rows or columns and right-click.
• Choose Row → Insert – to insert a row or Column → Insert – to insert a column. A dialog box will appear, from which you can select the number of rows or columns to insert. You can also set the position of the new rows or columns to Before or After.
• Click OK to close the dialog box.

Question 4.
Write the steps to insert line numbers in writer?
Answer:
Line numbering puts automatic line numbers in the margin. The use of line numbers make it easier to identify specific locations in the document. The most common method of assigning numbers to lines is to assign every line a unique number, starting at 1 for the first line, and incrementing by 1 for each successive line. To apply line numbering:
Click Tools → Line Numbering and select the Show numbering option in the top left comer. Then click OK.

Question 5.
What is a Watermark?
Answer:
Watermarks are images or text displayed in transparency across the text. To create a watermark, it is best to use a Font works object wrapped in the background. The Wrap Through option inserts an image that overlaps the text which as a result will be hidden. To make the text appear, change the transparency of the picture, although the words under the image become visible, they may be difficult to read and will appear lighter than the rest of the text.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
What are the different methods to change margin in writer?
Answer:
Page margins are the white space around the top, bottom, left, and right of your document. Margins let Writer know where to start placing the text at the top of a document, when to move on to the next page at the bottom, where to start typing text on the left side, and where to stop • and move to the next line on the right.

Changing or setting page margins in open office writer can be done in two ways:

1. Using the Page rulers-quick and easy, but does not have precise values.
2. Using the Page Style dialog box- can specify precise values for the margins.

Changing page margins – using Ruler:

1. The shaded sections of the rulers are the margins.
2. Hold the mouse pointer over the line between the gray and white sections.
3. The mouse pointer turns into a double-headed arrow.
4. Hold down the left mouse button and drag the mouse to move the margin and release it at the required point.
5. The new margin is set.

Using the Page Style dialog box:
To change margins using the Page Style dialog box.

1. Right-click anywhere on the page and select Page from the popup menu or select page tab of page style dialog box.
2. In the Margins boxes, specify the values for left, right, top and bottom margins.
3. Click on ok button.

Question 2.
What are Header and Footer? How do you insert page numbers?
Answer:
Header:
It is a section of the document that appears in the top margin, Which displays the title or chapter name, author name of a document.

Footer:
It is a section of the document that appears in the bottom margin of the page which displays the page number, date, time etc., which gets displayed on all the pages automatically.

Inserting Header and Footer:

1. Select from the main menu Insert → Header → Default
2. The header text area is separated from the normal text area.
3. Enter the text that is to be repeated in all pages or Select Insert → Fields → Title.

Similarly to insert a Footer, the steps are as given below:

1. Select from the main menu Insert → Footer → Default
2. Place the insertion pointer in the footer part of the page.
3. Select Insert → Fields → Date to insert date in all the pages.
4. Once the headers and footers are given in the first page, the same text appears in all the pages.

Inserting and Formatting page numbers:
Once the Header / footer area is enabled, the page numbers can be inserted by performing the following steps:

1. position the cursor where you want to insert the number
2. choose Insert → Fields → Page Number
3. The page number appears with a gray background

Question 3.
Write about the drawing toolbar?
Answer:
Open office writer uses the drawing tools, to create various shapes by using the Drawing toolbar. To use the drawing tools repeatedly, you can move this toolbar to a convenient place on the window. The drawing toolbar can be obtained by clicking View → Toolbars → Drawing.

To use a drawing tool, the steps are as given below:

1. Click in the document where you want the drawing to be anchored.
2. Select the tool from the Drawing toolbar. The mouse pointer changes to a drawing- functions pointer.
3. Move the cross-hair pointer to the place in the document where you want the graphic to appear and then click-and-drag to create the drawing object.
4. Release the mouse button. The selected drawing function remains active, so you can draw another object of the same type.
5. To cancel the selected drawing function, press the Esc key or click on the Select icon on the Drawing toolbar.
6. You can now change the properties (fill color, line type and weight, anchoring, and others) of the drawing object using either the Drawing Object Properties toolbar or the choices in the dialog box.

Question 4.
Explain Page formatting in writer?
Answer:

The most important thing in a word processor is how to format the page with elements such as margins, numbering, page layout, headers and footers. Formatting your pages makes them look more attractive and makes them easier to read.

Changing Page Size:
The default page size in writer is 8.5 × 11”, the same as that of a standard A4 printing paper. However, for different types of documents, you may need to change the page size. To change the paper size:

1. Select the page whose page size is to be changed
2. Select Format → Page, the page style dialog box.
3. Select Page Tab.
4. In the paper format group, select the format like A4, legal ….
5. Or the width and height option can be used to set the page size.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Computer Applications Solutions Word Processor Basics (OpenOffice Writer) Additional Questions and Answers

I. Choose The Correct Answer

Question 1.
Which is the leading open-source office software to works on all common computers and available in many languages.
(a) OpenOffice
(b) StarOffice
(c) MSOffice
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) OpenOffice

Question 2.
Which company has developed by OpenOffice writer?
(a) Microsoft
(b) Kingsoft
(c) Apache
(d) Sun micro systems
Answer:
(c) Apache

Question 3.
The open screen of the OpenOffice is known as:
(a) starcenter
(b) desktop
(c) window
(d) screen
Answer:
(a) starcenter

Question 4.
The keyboard shortcut key can be used to open a new text document in OpenOffice:
(a) Ctrl + O
(b) Ctrl + A
(c) Ctrl + N
(d) Ctrl + S
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + N

Question 5.
The bar, that displayed at the top most part of the window:
(a) Toolbar
(b) Title bar
(c) Menu bar
(d) Scroll bar
Answer:
(b) Title bar

Question 6.
Which is called a flashing vertical bar appears at the beginning of the screen?
(a) Insertion pointer
(b) Cursor
(c) Horizontal ruler
(d) Vertical ruler
Answer:
(a) Insertion pointer

Question 7.
The keyboard shortcut key can be used to close a document in OpenOffice:
(a) Ctrl + N
(b) Ctrl + A
(c) Ctrl + W
(d) Ctrl + Q
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + W

Question 8.
The keyboard shortcut key can be used to open an existing document in OpenOffice:
(a) Ctrl + 0
(b) Ctrl + A
(c) Ctrl + N
(d) Ctrl + S
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + 0

Question 9.
Which key is used to delete the character left of the insertion pointer?
(a) Backspace key
(b) Delete key
(c) Shift key
(d) Home key
Answer:
(a) Backspace key

Question 10.
Which key is used to delete the character right of the insertion pointer?
(a) Backspace key
(b) Delete key
(c) Shift key
(d) Home key
Answer:
(b) Delete key

Question 11.
The key is used toggle between Insertion mode and overwritten mode:
(a) Insert key
(b) Home key
(c) Shift key
(d) Ctrl key
Answer:
(a) Insert key

Question 12.
The OpenOffice writer provides help window, which function key is used to getting the help window?
(a) F1
(b) F2
(c) F3
(d) F4
Answer:
(a) F1

Question 13.
Which option is used to removed by selecting highlighted text?
(a) Cancel
(b) No fill
(c) Change
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) No fill

Question 14.
For selecting whole document which shortcut key is used?
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + W
(c) Ctrl + M
(d) Ctrl + S
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + A

Question 15.
Which shortcut key is used to clear the formatting document?
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + W
(c) Ctrl + M
(d) Ctrl + A
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + M

Question 16.
A first-line indentation indents value is:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) positive

Question 17.
The hanging indent value can be entered as:
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) negative

Question 18.
In page orientation, the height of the document is more than the width is called:
(a) portrait
(b) landscape
(c) legal
(d) A4 size
Answer:
(a) portrait

Question 19.
In page orientation-the width of the document is more than height is called:
(a) portrait
(b) landscape
(c) legal
(d) A4 size
Answer:
(b) landscape

Question 20.
Which shortcut key is used to find the replace the text?
(a) Ctrl + F
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + P
(d) Ctrl + S
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + F

Question 21.
Which menu option is choosed to open AutoCorrect dialog box?
(a) Tools → Change
(b) Tools → AutoCorrect
(c) Tools → Add
(d) Tools → Ignore
Answer:
(b) Tools → AutoCorrect

Question 22.
Which command is used to deselect the size of the picture?
(a) Crop
(b) Format
(c) Cut
(d) Delete
Answer:
(a) Crop

Question 23.
Which option is used to inserts an image that overlaps the text which result will be hidden?
(a) Drawing toolbar
(b) Wrap through
(c) Format
(d) Transparency
Answer:
(b) Wrap through

Question 24.
Which key is assign the AutoText shortcut?
(a) Ctrl + FI
(b) Ctrl + F2
(c) Ctrl + F3
(d) Ctrl + F4
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + F3

Question 25.
A specified number of rows and columns are called:
(a) Table
(b) Cell
(c) Column
(d) Row
Answer:
(a) Table

Question 26.
Which combination key is used to insert table dialog box?
(a) Ctrl + F10
(b) Ctrl + F11
(c) Ctrl + F11
(d) Ctrl + F12
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + F12

Question 27.
Multiple copies of a document to send to a list of different recipients is called:
(a) Mail merge
(b) Copy
(c) address book
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(a) Mail merge

Question 28.
Which opition can choose to print all colour text and graphics as gray scale in OpenOffice?
(a) Tools > options > OpenOffice.org > print
(b) Tools > options > OpenOffice.org > ok
(c) Tools > options > OpenOffice.org > Next
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Tools > options > OpenOffice.org > print

Question 29.
When using Tab key in OpenOffice writer by default moving insertion point is:
(a) 1 inch
(b) ^1/4 inch
(c) ^1/2 inch
(d) 2 inch
Answer:
(c) ^1/2 inch

Question 30.
Which rules you can add to decorate any or all the four sides of a paragraph?
(a) Highlighted
(b) Borders
(c) Shading
(d) Bold
Answer:
(b) Borders

Question 31.
Which can you use as background for enhancing the appearance of a text or paragraph?
(a) Highlighted
(b) Borders
(c) Shading
(d) Bold
Answer:
(c) Shading

Question 32.
The section’of the document that appears in the top margin:
(a) header
(b) footer
(c) margin
(d) window
Answer:
(a) header

Question 33.
The section of the document that appears in the bottom margin:
(a) header
(b) footer
(c) margin
(d) window
Answer:
(b) footer

Question 34.
Which is the shortcut key to insert a comment within the text?
(a) Ctrl + Alt + C
(b) Ctrl + Alt + I
(c) Ctrl + Alt + V
(d) Ctrl + Alt + C
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + Alt + C

Question 35.
Which shortcut key is used to undo last action?
(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Ctrl + F
(c) Ctrl + Z
(d) Ctrl + E
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + Z

Question 36.
Which shortcut key is used to center aligned text?
(a) Ctrl + C
(b) Gtrl + F
(c) Ctrl + Z
(d) Ctrl + E
Answer:
(d) Ctrl + E

Question 37.
Which combination of shortcut is used subscript a number?
(a) Ctrl + Shift + B
(b) Ctrl + Shift + V
(c) Ctrl + Shift + P
(d) Ctrl + Shift + S
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + Shift + B

Question 38.
Which combination of shortcut key is used superscript a number?
(a) Ctrl + Shift + B
(b) Ctrl + Shift + V
(c) Ctrl + Shift + P
(d) Ctrl + Shift + S
Answer:
(c) Ctrl + Shift + P

Question 39.
Which shortcut key is used to inserting a new paragraph without numbering?
(a) Alt + Shift
(b) Alt + Enter
(c) Alt + Tab
(d) Ctrl + Enter
Answer:
(b) Alt + Enter

Question 40.
Which shortcut key is used to apply default paragraph style?
(a) Ctrl + 0
(b) Ctrl + 1
(c) Ctrl + 2
(d) Ctrl + 3
Answer:
(a) Ctrl + 0

Question 41.
……………………. is the pictorial representation of data.
(a) Object
(b) Charts
(c) Shapes
(d) Colour
Answer:
(b) Charts

II. Short Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by word processing?
Answer:
Word processor is a computer software to create, edit, manipulate, transmit, store and retrieve a text document. The above said activities are called as “Word Processing”. In other words, Word processing is an activity carried out by a computer with suitable software to create, edit, manipulate, transmit, store and retrieve text documents.

Question 2.
What are the familiar open source word processing software?
Answer:
OpenOffice Writer, LibreOffice Writer, Abiword etc.

Question 3.
What are the familiar Tamil word processor?
Answer:
Tamil OpenOffice writer, Tamil Libre, Kamban 3.0, Mentamizh 2017 there are familiar word processors exclusively for Tamil Language.

Question 4.
How to open the OpenOffice Writer?
Answer:
A new OpenOffice Writer document can be created by various methods. From windows, select
Start → All Programs → OpenOffice → OpenOffice Writer.
(or)
From Star Center (Welcome Screen): Double-click on “OpenOffice” icon the desktop.

Question 5.
What is meant by star center?
Answer:
In OpenOffice, open screen is called as “Star Center”. Writer is one of the components of OpenOffice. So, it may be invoked from the “Star Center” by simply clicking on the “Text Document” icon.

Question 6.
How can you close the OpenOffice application?
Answer:
This button is called as “Close” button,when you click this button, the application is closed and OpenOffice returns back to the desktop. So, the red colored close button may be called as “Exit” or “Quit”.

There is another (‘x’) mark on the right most comer of the menu bar. This is actually used to close your document. When you click this (‘x’) mark, your document will be closed, OpenOffice will be still opened.

Question 7.
What are the types of toolbar available in the menu bar?
Answer:
Under the menu bar, there are two toolbars available by default.
They are:

1. Standard Tool bar
2. Formatting Toolbar.

Question 8.
What are the types of ruler scale?
Answer:
The ruler is a scale below the formatting toolbar which shows the margins. There are two set of rulers

1. Horizontal ruler and
2. Vertical ruler. Horizontal rules is used to set left and right margins of a page and vertical ruler for top and button setting.

Question 9.
What is called insertion pointer?
Answer:
The work space is the blank area which is used to type the content of the file. A flashing vertical bar appears at the beginning of the screen which is called as “Insertion pointer”.

Question 10.
Which is known as word wrap?
Answer:
When the text reaches the end of the line, the word is automatically wrapped to the next line. This feature in any word processor is known as “Word Wrap”.

Question 11.
How to save the document?
Answer:
One can select the drive and folder where the file will be stored. To save a document for a first time,the following steps are used:
Click File → Save → (or) File → Save As (or) Ctrl + S.

Question 12.
How to set a password to protect your document while saving a file?
Answer:
In OpenOffice writer, a document can be protected with a password. You can set a password to protect your document while saving a file. To save a file with password, click on “Save with Password”check box and then click “Save” button. Immediately it shows “Set Password” dialog box. Enter a password in “Enter Password to open” text box and retype the same password in “Confirm Password” box for confirmation. Finally click ‘OK’ button.

Question 13.
What is the use of Insert key?
Answer:
To insert a text in between if something is left out, the insertion can be made by taking the insertion pointer to the current location and Press the Insert Key the newly typed text is inserted, so that the existing text moves to the right. Press the Insert Key again, the text is over written on the existing text. This is called ‘Type over mode’. You can toggle between the insert mode and type over mode by pressing the‘Insert key’.

Question 14.
What is the purpose of using paste special option?
Answer:
When you move or copy information, the paste option is used to send the information as a whole. But, to move or copy only some aspects of the data, like only its formatting or only value, the Paste Special option is used. To use the paste special, select the text and apply move or copy, then at the destination location,
Click Edit → Paste Special (or) press Ctrl + Shift + V, (or) Alt + E + S the Paste Special dialog box opens.

Question 15.
What is difference between paste and paste special?
Answer:
Paste:
Paste is a feature that lets a user cut or copy items from Cells and transfer them to another completely.

Paste Special:
Paste Special allows the items being transferred to be formatted in several different ways. Paste Special is a feature found in software like Microsoft Word, Microsoft Excel and Open Office.

Question 16.
What is meant by Text formatting?
Answer:
A font is a set of characters in a particular style. Changing the default appearance of the text like changing the font type, size, color, style etc., are called as Text formatting.

Question 17.
What are the short cut commands using to make the text Formatting?
Answer:

Question 18.
What is the use of change case option of format menu?
Answer:
Normally any text can be typed in upper or lower case. The text can be changed to different cases like:

1. Uppercase (Capital letters)
2. Toggle case (reverse case),
3. Sentence case (first letter of each sentence Capital),
4. Capitalize every word (first letter of each word capital),
5. Lower case. (Small letters)
   1. This can be done by:
   2. Select the text to change case
   3. Select Format → Change case.

Question 19.
What is meant by highlighting?
Answer:
Highlighting is used to draw attention to important information in a text. Highlighting is beneficial because it first asks the reader to pick out the important parts, and then gives an effective way to review that information later.
Highlighting can be applied by selecting the text and click Highlighting icon.

Question 20.
What is meant by hanging indent?
Answer:
This is a special kind of indent where the first line of the paragraph alone hangs outside leaving the rest of the text. To apply Hanging indent, a negative value is given in the “first line” option of the paragraph dialog box.

Question 21.
What are the types different page orientation?
Answer:
Page orientation refers to hgw the document will be displayed on screen and printed. There are two different orientations:
Landscape:
The width of the document is more than the height. This is best suited for displaying professional photos, invitations, albums, tables etc.,

Portrait:
This is the most common orientation. Here, the height of the document is more than the width. Normally books, newspapers will be displayed in this format.

Question 22.
What is the function of AutoCorrect?
Answer:
Auto Correct function has the facility to correct the common misspellings and typing errors, automatically. For example, “hte” will be changed to “the” which can be done through the menu option, Tools → AutoCorrect.

Question 23.
What is meant by spell check program?
Answer:
Spell check is a software program that corrects spl74568f.dfml d,589f fjidflfefelling errors in ewfword processing, email and documents, Spell check identifies and corrects misspelled words and the grammatical error is displayed with a green wavy line under the wrong word.

Question 24.
What is meant by table?
Answer:
A table is a grid with a specified number of rows and columns. Tables can often be used as an alternative to spreadsheet to organize materials. A well-designed table can help readers understand better what you are trying to convey.

Question 25.
What is meant by formatting table?
Answer:
Formatting a table involves formatting of the table layout, formatting of the table text, adjusting the size of the table, its position on the page, adding or removing rows or columns, merging and splitting cells, changing borders and the background.

III. Explain in Brief

Question 1.
What are the common software packages in OpenOffice?
Answer:
OpenOffice is a productive office suite with a collection of different software packages such as
OpenOffice Writer – Word Processor to create text documents
OpenOffice Calc – Spreadsheet to create worksheets
OpenOffice Base – Database
OpenOffice Impress – Presentation software
OpenOffice Draw – Drawing Software
OpenOffice Formula – Create formula and equations

Question 2.
What are the important features which provides OpenOffice writer?
Answer:

1. Templates and styles.
2. Page layout methods, including frames, columns, and tables.
3. Embedding or linking of graphics, spreadsheets, and other objects.
4. Built-in drawing tools.
5. Master documents to group a collection of documents into a single document.
6. Change tracking during revisions.
7. Database integration, including a bibliography database.
8. Export to PDF, including bookmarks.

Question 3.
Draw a OpenOffice writer window? With mark the important components?
Answer:
OpenOffice Writer window such as Title bar, Menu bar, Standard Toolbar, Formatting Toolbar, Ruler, Work space and Status bar. The components of a OpenOffice writer window are explained.

Question 4.
How to select a text continuous and discontinuous?
Answer:
In any word processor, the text has to be selected for performing any operation like copying, moving, formatting etc. This text selection can be done by two methods;

1. Selecting the continuous text.
2. Selecting the non continuous text.

Continuous text:
To select the text continuously take the insertion pointer to the starting of the text.

Selecting the continuous text:
To select the text continously take the insertion pointer to the starting of the text.

1. Hold the SHIFT key and drag the mouse across until the required text is selected and then release the SHIFT key.
2. The select text can be used for any operation.

Selecting the non continuous text:
To select the text not continuously, take the insertion pointer to the starting of the text,

1. Hold the CTRL key and drag across it till the required text is selected and release the CTRL key.
2. The required text is selected for any operation.

Question 5.
How to use the help system in open writer?
Answer:
Open Office Writer provides several forms of help. By pressing FI or select Help from the menu bar the help window appears.

1. To activate tool tips, extended tips, and the help Agent, click Tools → Options → OpenOffice.
2. For a more detailed explanation, select Help → What’s This? and hold the mouse pointer over the icon where you want more help with.

Question 6.
How can you change the line spacing adjustment?
Answer:
Line spacing determines the amount of vertical space between lines of text in a paragraph. By default, the lines are single-spaced, that is the spacing accommodates the largest font in that line, plus a small amount of extra space. In Open Office, setting line spacing is quite easy through the context menu, select the line or word or phrase, right-click → line spacing, select the type single, 1.5 or double. There are seven different types of line spacing.

1. Select the entire document by Edit → Select All.
2. Format → paragraph.
3. The paragraph dialog box appears, click Indents and spacing tab.
4. In the line spacing option, select the type and click ok button.

Question 7.
What is a indent? What are the types of Indent?
Answer:
Indent is the distance from the left and right margin of a paragraph. It is used to improve the efficiency and readability of the paragraph and makes the paragraph look more attractive.
There are four types of indents:

1. Left Indent
2. Right Indent
3. First Line Indent and
4. Hanging Indent.

Question 8.
How to change the page colour and borders?
Answer:
Changing the page color is not quite common. To do so, in the page style dialog box, in the Background option, click on color and select the “color” from the color palette or select “graphic” to apply an image as a page background.

Borders can be applied to an entire document, an entire page, paragraph, or just to certain sections of the document. From the page style dialog box, select the Border tab, the user defined area helps to define the area of borders, the line style of borders, color of borders can be selected.

Question 9.
Howto insert special characters and equations?
Answer:
Many symbols which are used in a mathematical equation like alpha (α), beta (β), pi (π) etc.,, are not available on the standard keyboard. However, representing these characters are very much essentia in mathematical equations. To insert such characters, the procedure given below
is folio-wed:

1. Place the cursor in your document where you want the character to appear.
2. Click on the Insert → Special character.
3. The Special character dialog box appears from which the desired symbol can be selected by clicking on the character.
4. As you select each character, it is shown on the lower right, along with the numerical code for that character.
5. If you do not find a particular special character you want, try changing the font selection.
6. Click the Ok button and the character is inserted at the current location.

Question 10.
How to inserted the chart in the worksheet?
Answer:
Charts are pictorial representations of data. The data can be either typed in cells in writer or it can be inserted.
Click inside the Writer table.

1. Choose Insert → Object → Chart, You see a chart preview and the Chart Wizard.
2. The chart toolbar at the top of the page which contains the formatting tools.
3. The insert menu shows the various attributes of the chart like Title, Legends, Axis, grid, label etc.,

Question 11.
What are the steps needed to create watermark?
Answer:

1. Insert the image or text of your choice
2. Anchor the image to the page and
3. Select the wrap through option form the Format Wrap menu or right-clicking on the image and selecting Wrap
4. Wrap Through from the pop-up menu
5. Move the image into the desired position
6. The Picture toolbar should be displayed when the image is selected
7. Change the transperency to a suitable value so that the text can be read.

Question 12.
What are the steps follows to assign Auto Text?
Answer:
To assign AutoText shortcut to some text, the steps arc as follows:

1. Type the text into your document.
2. Select the text so that it is highlighted.
3. Select Edit → AutText (or press Ctrl+F3).
4. Enter a name for your shortcut. Writer will suggest a one-letter shortcut, which you can change.
5. Click the AùtoText button on the right and select New (text only) from the menu.
6. Click Close to return to your document.

Question 13.
How can you merging and splitting cells?
Answer:
To merge a group of cells:

1. Select the cells to merge.
2. Right click and choose Cell → Merge or choose Table → Merge Cells from the menu bar.
   1. To split a cell:
   2. Place the insertion pointer inside the cell.
   3. Right click and choose Cell → Split, or choose Table → Split Cells from the menu bar.
   4. Select the direction of the split, horizontally (for rows), or vertically (for columns), as well as the total number of cells to create.

Question 14.
What are the basic types of graphics in OpenOffice writer?
Answer:

1. Image files, including photos, drawings, scanned images, and others.
2. Diagrams created using OOo’s drawing tools.
3. Charts created using OOo’s Chart facility.

IV. Explain in detail

Question 1.
Explain the menu bar in OpenOffice writer?
Answer:
Menu Bar:
The menu bar is just below the title bar which comprises of various menus consisting of various options.

File:
The File menu contains the commands of all file management tasks like, Create a new file, Open an existing file, Close the current file, Save a file, Save As another file, print file, Export file etc.,

Edit:
The Edit menu contains the editing commands like, cut, copy, paste, Undo, Redo etc.,

View:
The View menu contains the commands which are used to modify the environment of write like display of toolbars, web layout, print layout, navigator etc.,

Insert:
The Insert menu contains commands for inserting various elements such as pictures, tables, charts, comments, headers, footers, special characters, cross reference etc.,

Format:
The Format menu contains the commands of various text and page formatting features like page size, layout, font characteristics, bullets and numbering etc.,

Tables:
The Table menu contains various tools to manage and manipulate tables such as create tajfie, insert rows, insert columns, s’plit cells, merge cells etc.,

Tools:
The Tools menu contains various tools and functions such as spell check, macros, mail merge, end notes/footnotes etc.,

Window:
The window menu shows display options such as New Window, Close Windows, Split and Freeze. .

Help:
The Help menu lists out the inbuilt help features available with OpenOffice.

Question 2.
What are the different shortcut keys of moving within a document?
Answer:
There are different ways of moving within a document. There are many shortcut keys given in Table which are used to move easily within a document.

Question 3.
Explain the various editing operations using a document?
Answer:
The various editing operations like cut, copy and paste.
Moving: To move a text from one location to another.

1. Select the text to he moved.
2. Click Ctrl + X or Cut Icon or Edit → Cut.
3. The text is removed from the source location and placed in the clipboard.
4. Take the insertion pointer to the new location to be moved and
5. Click Ctrl + V or Paste Icon or Edit → Paste.

The required text is moved to the required location.
Copying: To copy a text from one location to another.

1. Select the text to be copied .
2. Click Ctrl + C or Copy Icon or Edit → Copy
3. A duplicate copy of the text is made and send to the clipboard
4. Take the insertion pointer to the new location to be copied and
5. Click Ctrl + V or Paste Icon or Edit → Paste

The required text is copied to the required location.
The Editing shortcut keys are:

Question 4.
What are the various alignment in formatting paragraph?
Answer:
A paragraph is any text that ends with a hard return. A hard return is accomplished anytime you press the Enter key. Paragraph Alignment or justification refers to the way in which the lines of a paragraph are aligned. Paragraph alignment lets you control the appearance of individual paragraphs.

There are four types of alignment available in Open office Writer – left-alignment, Right-alignment, Center-alignment, and Justify-alignment. The paragraph formatting can also be done by icons using the formatting toolbar.

Question 5.
How can you use Bullets and Numbering in a document?
Answer:
Bullets:
This is a paragraph level attribute that applies a bullet character to the start of the paragraph. In bulleted lists, each paragraph begins with a bullet character. This is suitable when the text has to be presented as a list of items preceded by a bullet symbol and no sequence has to be followed. Bullets are quickly created by clicking on the bullet icon.

Numbering:
This attribute applies a numeral to the start of the paragraph. Numbering is more suitable when the text has to be presented as a sequence. In numbered list, each paragraph begins with an expression that includes a number or letter and a separator such as a period or parenthesis. The numbers in a numbered list are updated automatically when you add or remove paragraphs in the list. Numbering is quickly created by clicking on the numbering icon.

Style of Bullets and Numbering:
The default type of bullet is (•) and the default type of numbering is (1,2, 3 ……………….). The style of bullets and numbering can be changed by applying the following steps:

1. Select the text to be bulleted.
2. Format → Bullets and Numbering.
3. Select Bullets Tab.
4. The bullets and Numbering dialog box where different styles of bullets are displayed.
5. Click on the required style.
6. Click OK button.
7. The selected text is bulleted

To apply Numbering:

1. Select the text to be numbered.
2. Format → Bullets and Numbering.
3. Select Numbering Type Tab.
4. The Bullets and Numbering dialog box where different styles of numbering are displayed.
5. Click on the particular style.
6. Click Ok button.
7. The selected text is numbered.

Question 6.
How can you find a word in Find and Replace text?
Answer:
OpenOffice Writer has a Find and Replace feature that helps to locate for a text inside a document and replace it with another word. In addition to finding and replacing words and phrases, you can also use wildcards and regular expressions to perform advanced search. To search a word

1. Click Edit → Find & Replace (or) Ctrl + F
2. The Find & Replace dialog box appears.

Steps to find & replace a text

• Type the text you want to find in the Search for box.
  Eg: To search a word “Bombay” in a document and replace with “Mumbai”, enter the word “Bombay” in the Search for box.
• To replace the text with different text, type the new text in the Replace with box.
  Enter the word “ Mumbai” in the Replace with box and Click Find button, to start the search, the found word is highlighted and the first occurance of “Bombay” is highlighted.
  
• To replace text, click Replace button. The highlighted word is replaced with the word given in the Replace with box.
• Click Find All, Writer selects all instances of the search text in the document. All occurrences of Bombay are highlighted.
• Click Replace All button, Writer replaces all matches. This will replace all occurances of “Bombay” with “Mumbai”.
• Enable Match case to perform the search case sensitively so that uppercase and lower cases are distinguished separately.
• Enable Whole Words only to make the search more specific to words used separately alone.

Question 7.
Discuss the Auto spell check?
Answer:
Auto spell check option checks each word as it is typed and displays a wavy red line under any misspelled words. Once the word is corrected, the red wavy line disappears. This can be done through clicking the icon.

To perform a separate spelling check on the document (or a text selection) click the Spelling and Grammar button. This checks the document or selection and opens the Spelling dialog box if any misspelled words are found, This can be achieved by clicking the icon

Here are some more features of the spelling tool:

• Right-click on a word with a wavy underline, to open a powerful context menu. Correct words can be selected from the suggested words on the menu. The selection will replace the misspelled word with correct word. Other menu options are discussed below.
• The dictionary language can be changed (For example, Spanish, French, or German) from the Spelling dialog box.
• The new words can be added to a dictionary. Click Add in the Spelling dialog box and pick the dictionary to add it to.

Question 8.
How can you using different techniques to insert tables?
Answer:
Different techniques to insert tables:
To insert a new table, position the insertion pointer where you want the table to appear, then use any of the following methods to open the Insert Table dialog box.

There are two methods to create a table:

1. Table Icon:
To insert a table quickly from the standard tool bar:

1. Place the insertion pointer where you want the table to appear.
2. Click the arrow to the right side of the Table icon
3. In the drop down grid, select the number of rows and columns for the table. (iv) The table will appear at the location of your insertion pointer.

2. Insert table dialog box:
To insert a table with more control over the settings and properties, use the Insert Table dialog box.
To open the dialog box: Select Table → Insert → Table (or) Ctrl +F12 or left-click the Table icon. From this dialog box, you can:

1. Select the number of rows and columns of the table.
2. Give a Name to the table to later distinguish it in the Navigator.
3. Select the Heading option to define the first row in the table as the heading.
4. Select the Repeat heading option to repeat the heading row if the table more than one page.
5. Select the Don’t split table option to prevent the table from spanning more than one page.
6. Select the Border option to surround each cell of the table with a border.

Students who are preparing for the Science exam can download this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 10th Science Chapter 19 from here for free of cost. These Tamilnadu State Board Textbook Solutions PDF cover all 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Book Back Questions and Answers.

All these concepts of Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life are explained very conceptually by the subject teachers in Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF as per the prescribed Syllabus & guidelines. You can download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Book Solutions Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life State Board Pdf for free from the available links. Go ahead and get Tamilnadu State Board Class 10th Science Solutions of Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Solutions Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life

Kickstart your preparation by using this Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 19th Science Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life Questions and Answers and get the max score in the exams. You can cover all the topics of Chapter 19 easily after studying the Tamilnadu State Board Class 19th Science Textbook solutions pdf. Download the Tamilnadu State Board Science Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life solutions of Class 19th by accessing the links provided here and ace up your preparation.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Textual Evaluation Solved

I. Choose the Correct Answer.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru Science Question 1.
Biogenetic law states that _____.
(a) Ontogeny and phylogeny go together.
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.
(c) Phylogeny recapitulates ontogeny.
(d) There is no relationship between phylogeny and ontogeny.
Answer:
(b) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru Science Question 2.
The ‘use and disuse theory’ was proposed by _____.
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Ernst Haeckel
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck
(d) Gregor Mendel.
Answer:
(c) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

10th Science Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Paleontologists deal with _____.
(a) Embryological evidences
(b) Fossil evidences
(c) Vestigial organ evidences
(d) All the above.
Answer:
(b) Fossil evidences

10th Science Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
The best way of direct dating fossils of recent origin is by _____.
(a) Radio – carbon method
(b) Uranium lead method
(c) Potassium – argon method
(d) Both (a) and (c).
Answer:
(a) Radio – carbon method

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 10th Science Question 5.
The term Ethnobotany was coined by _____.
(a) Khorana
(b) J.W. Harshberger
(c) Ronald Ross
(d) Hugo de Vries.
Answer:
(b) J.W. Harshberger

II. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The characters developed by the animals during their life time, in response to the environmental changes are called _____.
Answer:
Acquired characters.

Question 2.
The degenerated and non-functional organs found in an organism are called _____.
Answer:
Vestigial organ.

Question 3.
The forelimbs of bat and human are examples of ______ organs.
Answer:
Homologous.

Question 4.
The theory of natural selection for evolution was proposed by _____.
Answer:
Charles Darwin.

III. State whether True or False. If false, write the correct statement.

Question 1.
‘The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Charles Darwin?
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: ‘The use and disuse theory of organs’ was postulated by Jean Baptiste Lamarck.

Question 2.
The homologous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern?
Answer:
False.
Correct statement: The homologous organs look dissimilar and perform dissimilar functions, but they have the same origin and developmental pattern.

Question 3.
Birds have evolved from reptiles.
Answer:
True.

IV. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. (c) rudimentary tail and thick hair on the body
2. (a) caudal vertebrae and vermiform appendix
3. (d) a wing of a bat and a wing of an insect
4. (b) a forelimb of a cat and a bat’s wing
5. (f) Thiruvakkarai
6. (e) radiocarbon dating.

V. Answer in a word or Sentence

Question 1.
A human hand, a front leg of a cat, a front flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. What is the name given to these organs?
Answer:
Homologous organs.

Question 2.
Which organism is considered to be the fossil bird?
Answer:
Fossil bird Archaeopteryx.

Question 3.
What is the study of fossils called?
Answer:
Palaeontology.

VI. Short Answers Questions

Question 1.
The degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character. Why is it an acquired character?
Answer:
Kiwi does not have the need to fly that is why they do not have wings. The characters developed by the animals during their life in response to environmental changes. The vestigial wings are so small (invisible) under the bristly, hair-like two-branched feathers. So the degenerated wing of a kiwi is an acquired character.

Question 2.
What is the study of fossils called?
Answer:
Palaeontology is called as the study of fossils.

Question 3.
Define Ethnobotany and write its importance.
Answer:
Ethnobotany is the study of a region’s plants and their practical uses through the traditional knowledge of the local culture of people.
Importance of Ethnobotany:

• It provides traditional uses of the plant.
• It gives information about certain unknown and known useful plants.
• The ethnomedicinal data will serve as a useful source of information for the chemists, pharmacologists and practitioners of herbal medicine.
• Tribal communities utilize ethnomedicinal plant parts like bark, stem, roots, leaves, flowers, flower bud, fruits, seeds, oils, resins, dyes and gum for the treatment of diseases like diarrhoea, fever, headache, diabetes, jaundice, snakebites and leprosy, etc.

Question 4.
How can you determine the age of the fossils?
Answer:
The age of fossils is determined by radioactive elements present in it. They may be carbon, uranium, lead or potassium.

VII. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Natural selection is a driving force for evolution-How?
Answer:
Darwin published his observations under the name “origin of species”. It elaborates on the theory of natural selection for evolutionary transformation.
The principles of Darwinism tells that natural selection is a driving force for evolution.

1. Overproduction: Living beings have the ability to reproduce and have the capacity to multiply in a geometrical manner.

2. Struggle for existence: Due to overproduction, a geometric ratio of increase in population occurs. The space to live and food available for the organisms remain the same. This creates a competition among the organisms, for food and space, leading to struggle.

• The competition may be among the individuals of the same species (Intraspecific struggle).
• Competition between the organisms of different species living together (Interspecific struggle).
• Natural conditions like extreme heat or cold drought and floods can affect the existence of organisms (Environmental struggle).

3. Variations: Small variations are important for evolution. According to Darwin, favourable variations are useful to the organisms and unfavourable variations are harmful or useless to the organisms.

4. Survival of the fittest or Natural selection: During the struggle for existence, the organisms which can overcome the challenging situation, survive and adapt to the surrounding environment. Organisms, which are unable to face the challenges, are unfit to survive and disappear. The process of selection of organisms with favourable variation is called Natural selection.

5. Origin of species: According to Darwin, new species originates by the gradual accumulation of favourable variations for a number of generations.

Question 2.
How do you differentiate homologous organs from analogous organs?
Answer:

Question 3.
How does fossilization occur in plants?
Answer:
A plant fossil is any preserved part of a plant that has died long back. Fossils may be a prehistoric impression that may be hundred to millions of years old. Majority of the plant fossils are disarticulated parts of plants, it is rare to find plants to be preserved as whole.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Skills (HOTS) Questions

Question 1.
Arun was playing in the garden. Suddenly he saw a dragonfly sitting on a plant. He observed the wings of it. He thought it looked similar to a wing of a crow. Is he correct? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
No. He is not correct. Both crow and dragonfly have the same function of flying with wings. But it’s the origin (basic structure) is different. Dragonfly wing is the membranous extension. But the wing of the crow is the modification of forelimb.

Question 2.
Imprints of fossils tell us about evolution- How?
Answer:
Fossil records show that evolution has taken a gradual process from simple to complex organisms. The study of fossils helps us to understand the link of evolution. The origin of modem birds is supported by the evidence of palaeontology.

Question 3.
Octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. Can we group these animals together to establish a common evolutionary origin? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Convergent evolution is the process, by which the independently evolved features, may similar to each other, but can arise through different developmental pathways. So the octopus, cockroach and frog all have eyes. The independently evolved eye may similar in each other, but can arise through different developmental pathways.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Science Origin and Evolution of Life Additional Questions Solved

I. Fill in the blanks.

Question 1.
The history of life has two aspects namely ______ and ______.
Answer:
Origin of life; The evolution of life.

Question 2.
The theory which postulates that life originates from pre – existing life is ______.
Answer:
Biogenesis.

Question 3.
_____ is the gradual change occurring in living organisms over a period of time.
Answer:
Evolution.

Question 4.
Sexual reproduction, which involves meiosis helps in the recombination of ______ during gametic fusion.
Answer:
Genes.

Question 5.
The major concept in astrobiology is the ______.
Answer:
Habitable zone.

Question 6.
The organisms, which live in extreme environmental conditions on Earth are called ______.
Answer:
Extremophiles.

Question 7.
Fossil records show that evolution has taken a gradual process from simple to _______ organisms.
Answer:
Complex.

II. Match the following:

Question 1.

Answer:

1. (e) origin of the universe
2. (d) preserve hard and soft parts
3. (f) fossil bird
4. (a) study of regions and practical use of plants
5. (b) organisms buried and cause depression
6. (c) other names for astrobiology.

Question 2.

Answer:

1. (d) Life from a chemical reaction
2. (i) Biogenetic law
3. (e) Father of palaeontology
4. (a) use and disuse theory
5. (h) Origin of species
6. (b) Mutation theory
7. (c) Father of Indian palaeobotany
8. (f ) Radioactive carbon
9. (g) Ethnobotany.

III. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The theory of idea embodies that life on Earth is a divine creation ______.
(a) chemical reaction
(b) special creation
(c) spontaneous generation
(d) Biogenesis.
Answer:
(b) special creation

Question 2.
Palaeontology deals with the study of ______.
(a) analogous organs
(b) fossils
(c) gradual change
(d) homologous organ.
Answer:
(c) gradual change

Question 3.
The other name for continuous variation is ______.
(a) germinal variation
(b) somatic variation
(c) discontinuous variation
(d) fluctuating variation.
Answer:
(d) fluctuating variation.

Question 4.
It is a branch of palaeontology that deals with the recovery and identification of plant remain of geological past ______.
(a) palaeobotany
(b) Embryology
(c) mutation
(d) palaeontology.
Answer:
(a) palaeobotany

Question 5.
Book ‘Philosophic Zoologique’ published in the year 1809 was written by:
(a) Darwin
(b) Lamarck
(c) Wallace
(d) Mendel
Answer:
(b) Lamarck

IV. Answer the following shortly.

Question 1.
What is Abiogenesis?
Answer:
Abiogenesis or spontaneous generation theory states that life originated spontaneously from lifeless matter. It was believed that fishes originated from mud, frogs from moist soil and insects from decaying matter.

Question 2.
What is the cosmic origin?
Answer:
Cosmic origin of extraterrestrial theories states that life came from outer space. The unit of life called spores (panspermia) were transferred to different planets including Earth.

Question 3.
What is the chemical evolution of life?
Answer:
Chemical evolution of life theory states that life arose by a series of sequential chemical reactions. The first form of life could have come from pre – existing non – living inorganic molecules, which gave rise to the formation of diverse organic molecules, which are transformed into a colloid system to produce life.

Question 4.
Name the evidence of evolution What do they support?
Answer:

• Evidence from morphology and Anatomy.
• Evidence from embryology.
• Evidence from palaeontology.

Evolution is best understood by observing the relationship between the existing organisms and the similarities of the extinct organisms. This evidence supports the concept that all organisms have evolved from common ancestors.

Question 5.
Explain the evidence of evolution from Embryology.
Answer:
The embryos from fish to mammals are similar in their early stages of development. The study of comparative embryology of different animals supports the concept of evolution. The differentiation of their special characters appears in the later stages of development. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny. The stages of development of the individual animal repeat the evolutionary history of the entire race of the animal.

Question 6.
Represent a flow chart showing the postulates of Lamarckism?
Answer:
The postulates of Lamarckism:

Question 7.
Explain the evidence of evolution from palaeontology.
Answer:
Palaeontology deals with the study of fossils. The study of fossils helps us to understand the line of evolution of many invertebrates and vertebrates. Fossil records show that evolution has taken a gradual process from simple to complex organisms.

The origin of modem birds is supported by the evidence from palaeontology. Archaeopteryx is the oldest known fossil bird. It is considered to be a connecting link between reptiles and birds. It had wings with feathers, like a bird. It had a long tail, clawed digits and conical teeth like a reptile.

Question 8.
What is evolution?
Answer:
Formation of new species due to changes in specific characters over several generations as a response to natural selection is called evolution. Evolution is the gradual change occurring in living organisms over a period of time.

Question 9.
Represent a flow chart showing the postulates of Darwinism?
Answer:
The postulates of Darwinism:

Question 10.
Explain the types of variation?
Answer:
Variations are the differences found among individuals of the same species and the offspring of the same parent. New species originate by the gradual accumulation of variations. Evolution would not be possible without variation.
Somatic variation and germinal variation are the two types of variations:

1. Somatic variation: The variation which affects the body (somatic) cells of the organisms are called somatic variation, which is not heritable. They occur due to environmental factors.
2. Geminal variation: The variations, which are produced in germ cells and inherited are called germinal variation. They are classified into two types.
   • Continuous variation: Small variations which occur among individuals of a population, and occur by gradual accumulation is called continuous variation. They are also called fluctuating variation, e.g. skin colour, height and weight and colour of the eye, etc.
   • Discontinuous variation: These changes are sudden, which occur in an organism, due to mutations. These large variations are not useful for evolution, e.g. short – legged Ancon sheep and six or more digits (fingers) in human, etc.

Question 11.
Explain the importance of fossils?
Answer:
Importance of fossils:

1. They throw light on phylogeny and evolution of plants.
2. Fossil plants give a historical approach to the plant kingdom.
3. Fossils are useful in the classification of plants.
4. Fossil plants can be used in the field of descriptive and comparative anatomy.

Question 12.
What are Extremophiles?
Answer:
The organisms which live in extreme environmental conditions on Earth are called extremophiles within our own solar system, there are many areas that are different from the Earth. We may find the presence of life similar to extremophile bacteria.

Question 13.
What is Astrobiology or Exobiology? What does it deal?
Answer:
Astrobiology or exobiology is the science which looks for the presence of extraterrestrial in the universe.
Astrobiology deals with the origin, evolution and distribution of life in the universe and to investigate the possibility of living in another world.

The major concept in astrobiology is the habitable zone. Astrobiology explains that any planets can support the existence of life if it fulfils two criteria:

• It must have the right mass to retain an atmosphere.
• It must have an orbit at the right distance from Sun, that it allows liquid water to exist. The distance needs to be neither too hot nor too cold and is often called the Goldilocks zone for life.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Explain in detail with diagrams, the evidence of evolution, through morphology and anatomy.
Answer:
The comparative study of morphology and anatomy of organisms have evolved from a common ancestor.

(i) Homologous organs: The homologous organs are those which have inherited from common ancestors with similar developmental pattern in embryos. The forelimbs of mammals are homologous structures. A human hand, a front leg of a cat, flipper of a whale and a bat’s wing look dissimilar and adapted for different functions. Their mode of development and the basic structure of bone are similar.

(ii) Analogous organs: The analogous organs look similar and perform similar functions but they have different origin and developmental pattern. The function of the wings of a bat, the wings of a bird and wings of an insect are similar, but their basic structures are different.

(iii) Vestigial organs: The degenerated and non¬functional organs of animals are called vestigial organs. The same organs are found to be well- developed and functional, in some of the related forms. Some of the vestigial organs in man are a vermiform appendix, nictitating membrane, caudal vertebra and coccyx, etc.

(iv) Atavism: The reappearance of ancestral characters in some individuals is called atavism, e.g. Presence of rudimentary tail in newborn babies, the presence of thick hair on the human body.

Question 2.
(a) Name the popular names of Lamarckism.
(b) Explain the principles of Lamarckism.
Answer:
(a) Lamarckism is the hypothesis that an organism can pass on characteristics, that it has acquired through use or disuse, during it’s lifetime to the offspring. Lamarck’s theory of evolution was published in ‘Philosophic Zoologique’ in the year 1809. Lamarckism is popularly known as ‘Theory of inheritance of Acquired Characters” or “Use and Disuse theory”

(b) (i) internal vital force: Due to the inherent ability of the living organisms or their component parts tend to increase in ‘ size continuously.

(ii) Environment and new needs: A change in the environment brings about changes in the need of the organisms. In response to the changing environment, the organisms develop certain adaptive characters. The adaptations may be in the form of development of new parts of the body.

(iii) Use and disuse theory: Lamarck’s use and disuse theory state that, if an organ is used constantly, the organ develops well and gets strengthened. When an organ is not used for a long time, it gradually degenerates. The ancestors of Giraffe were provided with a short neck and short forelimbs. Due to a shortage of grass, they are forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimbs resulted in the development of long neck and long forelimbs, which is an example fcc constant use of an organ. The degenerated wing of Kiwi is an example for organ of disuse.

(iv) Theory of Inheritance of acquired characters: Animals respond to the changes when there is a change in the environment. The develop adaptive structures. The characters, developed during their lifetime, in response to the environmental changes are called acquired characters. The acquired characters are transmitted to the offspring by the process of inheritance.

VI. Higher-Order Thinking skills [HOTS] Questions

Question 1.

1. What is the reason for the long neck of a giraffe.
2. Name the theory based on the shown figure.

Answer:

1. Due to a shortage of grass, they were forced to feed on leaves from trees. The continuous stretching of their neck and forelimb as resulted in the development of a long neck and long forelimbs.
2. Theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 2.
What are living fossils?
Answer:
Living fossils are living organisms that are similar in appearance to their fossilized distant ancestors and usually have no extinct close features, eg. Ginko Biloba.

Question 3.
What is Mars 2020 Astrobiology?
Answer:
NASA is developing the Mars 2020, Astrobiology to investigate an astrobiological relevant ancient environment on Mars, its surface geological processes and the possibility of past life on Mars and preservation of biosignatures within accessible geological materials.

Believing that the Tamilnadu State Board Solutions for Class 19th Science Chapter 19 Origin and Evolution of Life Questions and Answers learning resource will definitely guide you at the time of preparation. For more details about Tamilnadu State Board Class 19th Science Chapter 19 textbook solutions, ask us in the below comments and we’ll revert back to you asap.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.3

11th Maths Exercise 2.3 Question 1.
Represent the following inequalities in the interval notation:
Solution:

⇒ x ∈ [-1, 4)

[] closed interval, end points are included
() ➝ open interval
end points are excluded

(ii) x ≤ 5 and x ≥ -3[i] x ≤ 5 and x ≥ -3
Solution:

x ∈ [-3, 5)

(iii) x < -1 or x < 3
Solution:

x ∈ (-∞, -1) or x ∈ (-∞, 3)

(iv) – 2x > 0 or 3x – 4 < 11
Solution:
-2x > 0 ⇒ 2x < 0 ⇒ x < 0
x ∈ (-∞, 0)
3x – 4 < 11
⇒ 3x – 4 + 4 < 11 + 4

11th Maths Exercise 2.3 Answers Question 2.
Solve 23x < 100 when
(i) x is a natural number,
(ii) x is an integer.
Solution:
23x <100

(i.e.,) x > 4.3
(i) x = 1, 2, 3, 4 (x ∈ N)
(ii) x = …. -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 (x ∈ Z)

11th Maths Chapter 2 Solution Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
Solve -2x ≥ 9 when
(i) x is a real number,
(ii) x is an integer,
(iii) x is a natural number.
Solution:
-2x > 9 ⇒ 2x ≤ -9

(ii) x = …. -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
(iii) x = 1, 2, 3, 4

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solution Question 4.

Solution:

(ii)

Solution:

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Example Sums Question 5.
To secure A grade one must obtain an average of 90 marks or more in 5 subjects each of maximum 100 marks. If one scored 84, 87, 95, 91 in first four subjects, what is the minimum mark one scored in the fifth subject to get A grade in the course?
Solution:
Required marks = 5 × 90 = 450
Total marks obtained in 4 subjects = 84 + 87+95 + 91 = 357
So required marks in the fifth subject = 450 – 357 = 93

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Question 6.
A manufacturer has 600 litres of a 12 percent solution of acid. How many litres of a 30 percent acid solution must be added to it so that the acid content in the resulting mixture will be more than 15 percent but less than 18 percent?
Solution:
12% solution of acid in 600 l ⇒ 600 × \(\frac{12}{100}\) = 72 l of acid
15% of 600 l ⇒ 600 × \(\frac{15}{100}\) = 90 l
18% of 600 l ⇒ 600 × \(\frac{18}{100}\) = 108 l
Let x litres of 18% acid solution be added

(600 + x)15 ≥ 7200 + 30x
9000+ 15x ≥ 7200 + 30x
1800 ≥ 15x
x ≤ 120
Let x litres of 18% acid solution be added

10800 + 18 ≤ 7200 + 30x
3600 ≤ 12x
x > 300
The solution is 120 ≤ x > 300

Samacheer Kalvi Class 11 Maths Solutions Question 7.
Find all pairs of consecutive odd natural numbers both of which are larger than 10 and their sum is less than 40.
Solution:
Let the two numbers be x and x + 2
x + x + 2 < 40
⇒ 2x < 38

⇒ x< 19 and x > 10
so x = 11 ⇒ x + 2 = 13
x = 13 ⇒ x + 2 = 15
x = 15 ⇒ x + 2 = 17
When x = 17 ⇒ x + 2 = 19
So the possible pairs are (11, 13), (13, 15), (15, 17), (17, 19)

Samacheer Kalvi 11 Maths Solutions Question 8.
A model rocket is launched from the ground. The height h of the rocket after t seconds from lift off is given by h(t) = -5t² + 100t; 0 ≤ r ≤ 20. At what time the rocket is 495 feet above the ground?
Solution:
h(t) = -5t² + 1oot
at t = 0, h(0) = 0
at t = 1, h(1) = -5 + 100 = 95
at t = 2, h(2) = -20 + 200 = 180
at t =3, h(3) = -45 + 300 = 255
at t = 4, h(4) = -80 + 400 = 320
at t = 5, h(5) = -125 + 500 = 375
at t = 6, h(6) = – 180 + 600 = 420
at t = 7, h(7) = -245 + 700 = 455
at t = 8, h(8) = – 320 + 800 = 480
at t = 9, h(9) = -405 + 900 = 495
So, at 9 secs, the rocket is 495 feet above the ground.

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Answers Question 9.
A Plumber can be paid according to the following schemes: In the first scheme he will be paid Rs. 500 plus Rs.70 per hour, and in the second scheme he will be paid Rs. 120 per hour. If he works x hours, then for what value of x does the first scheme give better wages?
Solution:
I scheme with x hr
500 + (x- 1) 70 = 500 + 70x – 70
= 430 + 70x
II scheme with x hours
120x
Here I > II
⇒ 430 + 70x > 120x
⇒ 120x – 70x < 430
50x < 430
\(\frac{50 x}{50}<\frac{430}{50}\)
x < 8.6 (i.e.) when x is less than 9 hrs the first scheme gives better wages.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Question 10.
A and B are working on similar jobs but their annual salaries differ by more than Rs 6000. If B earns Rs. 27000 per month, then what are the possibilities of A’s salary per month?
Solution:
A’s monthly salary = ₹ x
B’s monthly salary = ₹ 27000
Their annual salaries differ by ₹ 6000
A’s salary – 27000 > 6000
A’s salary > ₹ 33000
B’s salary – A’s salary > 6000
27000 – A’s salary > 6000
A’s salary < ₹ 21000
A’s monthly salary will be lesser than ₹ 21,000 or greater than ₹ 33,000

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Solutions Chapter 2 Basic Algebra Ex 2.3 Additional Questions

11th Maths Solutions Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.

Solution:

Multiplying both sides by 30, we get 15x ≥ 2(4x – 1) ⇒ 15x ≥ 8x – 2⇒ 15x – 8x ≥ -2

11th Maths Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Question 2.
Ravi obtained 70 and 75 marks in first two unit tests. Find the minimum marks he should get in the third test to have an average of at least 60 marks.
Solution:
Let x be the marks obtained by Ravi in the third test.

⇒ 145 + x ≥ 180 ⇒ x >180 – 145
⇒ x ≥ 35
Thus, Ravi must obtain a minimum of 35 marks to get an average of at least 60 marks.
Note. A minimum of 35 marks.
⇒ Marks greater than or equal to 35.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 11th Maths Question 3.
To receive Grade ‘A’ in a course, one must obtain an average of 90 marks or more in five examinations (each of 100 marks). If Sunita’s marks in first four examinations are 87, 92, 94 and 95, find minimum marks that Sunita must obtain in fifth examination to get Grade ‘A’ in the course.
Solution:
Let x be the marks obtained by Sunita in the fifth examination. Then,

⇒ 368 + x ≥ 450 ⇒ x ≥ 450 – 368
⇒ x ≥ 82
Thus, Sunita must obtain marks greater than or equal to 82,
i. e., a minimum of 82 marks.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Maths Solution Question 4.
Find the pairs of ceonsecutive odd positive integers both of which are smaller than 10 such that their sum is more than 11.
Solution:
Let x be the smaller of the two consecutive odd positive integers, then the other is x + 2 .
According to the given conditions.
x < 10, x + 2 < 10 and x + (x + 2) > 11
⇒ x < 10, x < 8

From (1) and (2), we get 9
\(\frac{9}{2}\) < x < 8
Also, x is an odd positive integer. x can take values 5 and 7.
So, the required possible pairs will be (x, x + 2) = (5, 7), (7, 9)

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Maths Question 5.
Find all pairs of consecutive even positive integers, both of which are larger than 5 such that their sum is less than 23.
Solution:
Let x be the smaller of the two consecutive even positive integers, then the other is x + 2. According to the given conditions.

Also, x is an even positive integer.
x can take the values 6, 8 and 10.
So, the required possible pairs will be (x, x + 2) = (6, 8), (8, 10), (10, 12)

Maths Solution Class 11 Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
Forensic Scientists use h = 61.4 + 2.3F to predict the height h in centimetres for a female whose thigh bone (femur) measures F cm. If the height of the female lies between 160 to 170 cm find the range of values for the length of the thigh bone?
Solution:
Given h = 61.4 + 2.3 F
Given h = 160 ⇒ 160 = 61.4 + 2.3 F
⇒ 2.3 F = 160 – 61.4 = 98.6

Given h = 170 ⇒ 170 = 61.4 + 2.3 F
⇒ 170 – 61.4 = 2.3 F
2.3F = 108.6

So the ranges of values are 42.87 < x < 47.23

Students can Download Tamil Chapter 2.3 விலங்குகள் உலகம் Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2.3 விலங்குகள் உலகம்

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
ஆசிய யானைகளில் ஆண் – பெண் யானைகளை வேறுபடுத்துவது ….
அ) காது
ஆ) தந்தம்
இ) கண்
ஈ) கால்கள்
Answer:
ஆ) தந்தம்

Question 2.
தமிழகத்தில் புலிகள் காப்பகம் அமைந்துள்ள இடம் ………..
அ) வேடந்தாங்கல்
ஆ) கோடியக்கரை
இ) முண்டந்துறை
ஈ) கூந்தன்குளம்
Answer:
இ) முண்டந்துறை

Question 3.
‘காட்டாறு’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………….
அ) காடு + ஆறு
ஆ) காட்டு + ஆறு
இ) காட் + ஆறு
ஈ) காட் + டாறு
Answer:
அ) காடு + ஆறு

Question 4.
‘அனைத்துண்ணி ’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் ……………..
அ) அனைத்து + துண்ணி
ஆ) அனை + உண்ணி
இ) அனைத் + துண்ணி
ஈ) அனைத்து + உண்ணி
Answer:
ஈ) அனைத்து + உண்ணி

Question 5.
‘நேரம் + ஆகி’ என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல் ……….
அ) நேரமாகி
ஆ) நேராகி
இ) நேரம் ஆகி
ஈ) நேர் ஆகி
Answer:
அ) நேரமாகி

Question 6.
‘வேட்டை + ஆடிய’ என்பதனைச் சேர்த்தெழுதக் கிடைக்கும் சொல்
அ) வேட்டை ஆடிய
ஆ) வேட்டையாடிய
இ) வேட்டாடிய
ஈ) வேடாடிய
Answer:
ஆ) வேட்டையாடிய

கோடிட்ட இடத்தை நிரப்புக

Question 1.
‘காட்டின் வளத்தைக் குறிக்கும் குறியீடு’ – என்று அழைக்கப்படும் விலங்கு
Answer:
புலி

Question 2.
யானைக் கூட்டத்திற்கு ஒரு ……….. யானைதான் தலைமை தாங்கும்.
Answer:
பெண்

Question 3.
கரடிகளைத் தேனீக்களிடமிருந்து காப்பது அதன் ………
Answer:
அடர்ந்த முடிகள்

குறுவினா

Question 1.
காடு – வரையறு.
Answer:
வளம் நிறைந்த நிலம், அடர்ந்த மரம், செடி கொடிகள், நன்னீர், நறுங்காற்று என் அனைத்தும் நிரம்பியது காடாகும். இது பறவைகள், விலங்குகள், தாவரங்கள் போன்ற
பல்லுயிர்களின் வாழ்விடமாகும்.

Question 2.
யானைகள் மனிதர்களை ஏன் தாக்குகின்றன?
Answer:

• பொதுவாக யானைகள் மனிதர்களைத் தாக்குவது இல்லை.
• யானையின் வழித்தடங்களில் குறுக்கிடும் போது தான் மனிதர்களைத் தாக்குகின்றன.

Question 3.
கரடி ‘அனைத்துண்ணி ‘ என அழைக்கப்படுவது ஏன்?
Answer:
கரடி பழங்கள், தேன், உதிர்ந்த மலர்கள், காய்கள், கனிகள், புற்றீசல், கரையான் போன்ற வற்றை உணவாக உள்கொள்வதால் அனைத்துண்ணி என அழைக்கப்படுகின்றன.

Question 4.
மானின் வகைகள் சிலவற்றின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:
இந்தியாவில் சருகுமான், மிளாமான், வெளிமான் என்பவை மானின் வகைகள் ஆகும்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
புலிகள் குறித்து நீங்கள் அறிந்து கொண்ட செய்திகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

• புலிகள் தனித்து வாழும் இயல்பு உடையவை. ஒரு குறிப்பிட்ட எல்லைக்குள் ஒரு புலி
  மட்டுமே வாழும். மற்ற புலிகள் அந்த எல்லைக்குள் செல்லாது.
• கர்ப்பம் அடைந்த புலியானது 90 நாட்களில் இரண்டு அல்லது மூன்று குட்டிகள் ஈனும் (அல்லது) ஈன்றெடுக்கும். அந்தக் குட்டிகளை இரண்டு ஆண்டுகள் வரை வளர்த்து ஆளாக்கும்.
• அப்புலிக்குட்டிகள் வேட்டையாடக் கற்றவுடன் அவற்றுக்கான எல்லைகளையும் பிரித்துத் தனியாக அனுப்பிவிடும். புலிதான் ஒரு காட்டின் வளத்தைக் குறிக்கும் குறியீடு.
• புலி தனக்கான உணவை வேட்டையாடிய பின்பு வேறு எந்த விலங்கையும்
  வேட்டையாடுவதில்லை. எனவே இதனைப் பண்புள்ள விலங்கு என்று கூறுவர்.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
காடுகளை அழிப்பதால் ஏற்படும் விளைவுகளை பட்டியலிடுக.
Answer:
காடுகளை அழிப்பதால் ஏற்படும் விளைவுகள் :

(i) மரங்களை அழிப்பதால் கார்பன்-டை- ஆக்ஸைடு வாயுவின் அளவு அதிகரிக்கின்றது. இதனால் சுற்றுச்சூழல் பாதிக்கப்படுகிறது. பல உயிரினங்களின் வாழ்விடங்கள் அழிக்கப்படுகின்றன.

(ii) காடுகளை அழிப்பதன் விளைவாக மழை அளவு குறைகிறது. தட்ப வெப்பநிலை
மாற்றமடைகிறது. மண் அரிமானம் ஏற்படுகிறது.

(iii) புவி வெப்பமடைதல் நடைபெறுகிறது. இதன் விளைவாக தீயன உண்டாகின்றன.
மழைக் காலங்கள் மாறுபடுகின்றன. இயற்கைத் தாவரங்கள், மரங்கள் சட்டத்திற்குப் புறம்பாக அழிக்கப்படுகின்றன.

(iv) காடுகளை அழிப்பதால் காட்டில் வாழும் காட்டு விலங்கினங்கள் நாட்டுக்குள் புகுந்து பயிர்களை அழிக்கின்றன. மேலும் மனித உயிர்களை அச்சுறுத்திக் கொல்லுகின்றன. யானை, காட்டெருமை, புலி போன்ற விலங்குகள் கூட்டமாக உணவிற்காகவும் நீருக்காகவும் விளை நிலங்களுக்குள் வந்து அவற்றை அழிக்கின்றன.

(v) காடுகளை அழிப்பதாலும் மற்ற வெவ்வேறு காரணங்களாலும் பல்வேறு தாவர
இனங்கள் மற்றும் விலங்கினங்கள் அழிவுக்குத் தள்ளப்படுகின்றன.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
விலங்குகள் தொடர்பான பழமொழிகளைத் திரட்டி வருக.
Answer:
(எ.கா) புலி பசித்தாலும் புல்லைத் தின்னாது.

• கழுதைக் கெட்டா குட்டிச்சுவர்.
• உள்ளூரில் ஓணான் பிடிக்காதவன், உடையார்பாளையம் போய் உடும்பு பிடிப்பானா?
• நாய் வாலை நிமிர்த்த முடியாது.
• கழுதைக்கு தெரியுமா கற்பூர வாசனை.

Question 2.
காட்டு விலங்குகளின் படங்களைத் திரட்டி படத்தொகுப்பினை உருவாக்குக.
Answer:

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
பண்புள்ள விலங்கு என்று எதனைக் குறிப்பிடுகிறோம்.
அ) புலி
ஆ) சிங்கம்
இ) கரடி
ஈ) மான்
Answer:
அ) புலி

Question 2.
‘காட்டுக்கு அரசன்’ என்று போற்றப்படும் விலங்கு எது?
அ) சிங்கம்
ஆ) சிறுத்தை
இ) புலி
ஈ) கரடி
Answer:
அ) சிங்கம்

Question 3.
யானை மிகுந்த நினைவாற்றல் கொண்ட விலங்கு .
அ) சரி
ஆ) இல்லை
இ) தவறு
ஈ) இவைகளில் ஏதுமில்லை
Answer:
அ) சரி

நீரப்புக :

Question 1.
இந்தியாவில் குஜராத் மாநிலத்தில் …….. சரணாலயத்தில் மட்டுமே ஆசிய சிங்கங்கள்
உள்ளன.
Answer:
கிர்

Question 2.
தமிழ்நாட்டில் வனக்கல்லூரி அமைந்துள்ள இடம் ………….
Answer:
மேட்டுப்பாளையம்

Question 3.
நன்கு வளர்ந்த கரடி ………. கிலோ எடை வரை இருக்கும்.
Answer:
160

விடையளி :

Question 1.
புலிகள் காப்பகம் எங்கு உள்ளது?
Answer:

• புலிகள் காப்பகம் முண்டந்துறையில் உள்ளது.
• முண்டந்துறை தமிழ்நாட்டில் உள்ளது.

Question 2.
பல்லுயிர்களின் வாழ்விடம் தான் இக்காடு-இக்கூற்றை மெய்ப்பிக்க.
Answer:

• மனித முயற்சி இன்றி அதாவது மனித முயற்சி இல்லாமல் வளர்ந்த மரங்கள்,
  செடி, கொடிகள், புல், புதர்கள், பூச்சி இனங்கள், பறவைகள், விலங்குகள் போன்ற பல்லுயிர்களின் வாழ்விடம் தான் இந்தக் காடாகும்.
• இந்தக் காட்டின் இடை இடையே காட்டாறுகளும் நீரோடைகளும் இருக்கும்.

Question 3.
முண்டந்துறை புலிகள் காப்பகம் – குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

• தமிழ்நாட்டில் இரண்டாவது மிகப்பெரிய காப்பகம் முண்டந்துறை புலிகள் காப்பகம் ஆகும்.
• இது 895 சதுர கிலோ மீட்டர் பரப்பளவு கொண்டது.
• இங்கு யானை, புலி, சிறுத்தை, மான், கரடி, காட்டு மாடு போன்ற அரிய விலங்குகள் வாழ்கின்றன.

Question 4.
உலகில் எத்தனை வகையான யானைகள் உள்ளன?
Answer:

• உலகில் இரண்டு வகையான யானைகள் உள்ளன. ஆசிய யானை, ஆப்பிரிக்கா யானை.
• ஆசிய யானைகளில் ஆண் யானைக்குத் தந்தம் உண்டு. பெண் யானைக்குத்
  தந்தம் இல்லை. ஆப்பிரிக்க யானைகளில் இரண்டுக்கும் தந்தம் உண்டு.

Question 5.
யானைகள் எப்போதும் கூட்டமாகத்தான் இருக்குமா? ஆம் எனில் விளக்கம் தருக.
Answer:

• ஆம். யானைகள் எப்போதும் கூட்டமாகத்தான் வாழும். இந்தக் கூட்டத்திற்கு ஒரு பெண் யானைதான் தலைமை தாங்கும். யானைகள் தங்களுக்குத் தேவையான தண்ணீர் மற்றும் உணவு ஆகியவற்றிற்காக இடம் பெயர்ந்து கொண்டே இருக்கும்.
• ஒரு யானை நாள் ஒன்றுக்கு 250 கிலோ புல், இலை தழைகளை உணவாக
  உட்கொள்ளும். அதற்குக் குடிக்க அறுபத்தைந்து லிட்டர் தண்ணீர் தேவைப்படும்.
• யானை மிகுந்த நினைவாற்றல் கொண்ட பாசமிகு விலங்கு ஆகும்.

Question 6.
தமிழ்நாட்டில் வனக்கல்லூரி எங்கு அமைந்துள்ளது?
Answer:
தமிழ்நாட்டில் வனக்கல்லூரி கோவை மாவட்டத்தில் உள்ள மேட்டுப்பாளையத்தில் அமைந்துள்ளது.

Question 7.
தமிழ்நாடு வேளாண்மைப் பல்கலைக்கழகம் எங்கு உள்ளது?
Answer:

• கோவையில் தமிழ்நாடு வேளாண்மைப் பல்கலைக் கழகம் உள்ளது.
• இங்கு இளநிலை வனவியல், முதுநிலை வனவியல் ஆகிய படிப்புகள் உள்ளன.

Question 8.
கரடி தன் உடலை தேனீக்களிடமிருந்து எவ்வாறு பாதுகாத்துக் கொள்கிறது?
Answer:
கரடியின் உடலைப் போர்த்தி இருக்கும் அடர்ந்த முடிகள் தேனீக்களிடமிருந்து அதனைக் காப்பாற்றுகின்றன.

Question 9.
சிங்கம் பற்றி குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:
(i) உலகில் ஆசியச் சிங்கம். ஆப்பிரிக்கச் சிங்கம் என இரண்டு வகைச் சிங்கங்கள்
உள்ளன. இந்தியாவில் குஜராத் மாநிலத்தில் ‘கிர்’ சரணாலயத்தில் மட்டுமே ஆசியச் சிங்கங்கள் உள்ளன.

(ii) நீளம், உயரம், பருமன், எடை, பலம், வேட்டைத்திறன் ஆகிய அனைத்திலும் சிங்கத்தை விட புலியே உயர்ந்தது. எனவே புலியே காட்டுக்கு அரசன் என்கிறார்கள் இயற்கை விஞ்ஞானிகள்.

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Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 1 Introduction to Macro Economics

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Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Introduction to Macro Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions

12th Economics 1st Chapter Question Answer Question 1.
The branches of the subject Economics is –
(a) Wealth and welfare
(b) production and consumption
(c) Demand and supply
(d) micro and macro
Answer:
(d) micro and macro

12th Economics Chapter 1 Question 2.
Who coined the word ‘Macro’?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) J M Keynes
(c) Ragnar Frisch
(d) Karl Matrix
Answer:
(c) Ragnar Frisch

12th Economics Chapter 1 Book Back Answers Question 3.
Who is regarded as Father of Modem Macro Economics?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) J M Keynes
(c) Ragnar Frisch
(d) Karl Matrix
Answer:
(b) J M Keynes

12th Economics 1st Chapter Question 4.
Identify the other name for Macro Economics?
(a) Price Theory
(b) Income Theory
(c) Market Theory
(d) Micro Theory
Answer:
(b) Income Theory

12th Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 5.
Macro economics is a study of –
(a) individuals
(b) firms
(c) a nation
(d) aggregates
Answer:
(d) aggregates

12th Economics 1st Chapter Answer Question 6.
Indicate the contribution of JM Keynes to economics?
(a) Wealth of Nations
(b) General Theory
(c) Capital
(d) Public Finance
Answer:
(b) General Theory

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Question 7.
A steady increase in general price level is termed as –
(a) Wholesale price index
(b) Business Cycle
(c) Inflation
(d) National Income
Answer:
(c) Inflation

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 12th Economics Question 8.
Identify the necessity of Economic policies?
(a) To solve the basic problems
(b) To overcome the obstacles
(c) To achieve growth
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Samacheer Kalvi Economics 12th Question 9.
Indicate the fundamental economic activities of an economy?
(a) Production and Distribution
(b) Production and Exchange
(c) Production and Consumption
(d) Production and Marketing
Answer:
(c) Production and Consumption

12 Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 10.
An economy consists of –
(a) consumption sector
(b) Production sector
(c) Government sector
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

12th Economics Question Answer Question 11.
Identify the economic system where only private ownership of production exists.
(a) Capitalistic Economy
(b) Socialistic Economy
(c) Globalisic Economy
(d) Mixed Economy
Answer:
(a) Capitalistic Economy

12th Economics Lesson 1 Question 12.
Economic system representing equality in distribution is –
(a) Capitalism
(b) Globalism
(c) Mixedism
(d) Socialism
Answer:
(d) Socialism

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Book Question 13.
Who is referred as ‘Father of Capitalism’?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Thackeray
(d) JM Keynes
Answer:
(a) Adam Smith

Economic 12th Chapter 1 Question 14.
The country following Capitalism is –
(a) Russia
(b) America
(c) India
(d) China
Answer:
(b) America

12th Economics Answer Pdf Question 15.
Identify The Father of Socialism?
(a) JM Keynes
(b) Karl Marx
(c) Adam Smith
Answer:
(b) Karl Marx

12th Economics 1st Lesson Question And Answer Question 16.
An economic system where the economic activities of a nation are done both by the private and public together is termed as –
(a) Capitalistic Economy
(b) Socialistic Economy
(c) Globalisic Economy
(d) Mixed Economy
Answer:
(b) Socialistic Economy

Economics Samacheer Kalvi Question 17.
Quantity of a commodity accumulated at a point of time is termed as –
(a) production
(b) stock
(c) variable
(d) flow
Answer:
(b) stock

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solution Book Question 18.
Identify the flow variable?
(a) money supply
(b) assests
(c) income
(d) foreign exchange reserves
Answer:
(c) income

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Book Back Answers Question 19.
Identify the sectors of a Two Sector Model?
(a) Households and Firms
(b) Private and Public
(c) Internal and External
(d) Firms and Government
Answer:
(a) Households and Firms

12th Economics Question And Answer Question 20.
The Circular Flow Model that represents an open Economy?
(a) Two Sector Model
(b) Three Sector Model
(c) Four Sector Model
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Four Sector Model

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

12th Economics 1st Lesson Question 1.
Define Macro Economics?
Answer:

1. Macro Economics is the study of the economy as a whole.
2. In other words, macro economics deals with aggregates such as national income, employment and output.
3. Macro Economics is also known as ‘Income Theory’.

Economics 12th Class Chapter 1 Question 2.
Define the term ‘Inflation’?
Answer:

1. Inflation refers to steady increase in general price level.
2. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as wholesale Price.
3. Index, Consumer Price Index, etc, are needed.

Samacheer Kalvi Economics Question 3.
What is meant by an ‘Economy’?
Answer:

1. An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary.
2. An economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.

Class 12 Economics Chapter 1 Question 4.
Classify the economies based on status of development?
Answer:
Status of Development:
Developed, underdeveloped, undeveloped and developing economies.

Question 5.
What do you mean by Capitalism?
Answer:

1. Capitalism, is total freedom and private ownership of means of production.
2. Capitalistic economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez faire, in Latin) or market economy where the role of the government is minimum and market determines the economic activities.

Question 6.
Define ‘Economic Model’?
Answer:

1. A model is a simplified representation of real situation.
2. Economists use models to describe economic activities, their relationships and their behaviour.
3. A model is an explanation of how the economy, or part of the economy, works.
4. Most economic models are built with mathematics, graphs and equations, and attempt to explain relationships between economic variables.

Question 7.
‘Circular Flow of Income’ – Define?
Answer:

1. The circular flow of income is a model of an economy showing connections between different sectors of an economy.
2. It shows flows of income, goods and services and factors of production between economic agents such as firms, households, government and nations.
3. The circular flow analysis is the basis of national accounts and macroeconomics.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
State the importance of Macro Economics?
Answer:
The importance and the need for introducing a macro outlook of an economy are given below:

1. There is a need to understand the functioning of the economy at the aggregate level to evolve suitable strategies and to solve the basic problems prevailing in an economy.
2. Understanding the future problems, needs and challenges of an economy as a whole is important to evolve precautionary measures.
3. Macro economics provides ample opportunities to use scientific investigation to understand the reality.
4. Macro economics helps to make meaningful comparison and analysis of economic indicators.
5. Macro economics helps for better prediction about future and to formulate suitable policies to avoid economic crises, for which Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences is awarded.

Question 2.
Describe the different types of economic systems?
Answer:
There are three major types of economic systems. They are:

1. Capitalistic Economy (Capitalism):

1. Capitalistic economy is also termed as a free economy (Laissez faire, in Latin) or market economy where the role of the government is minimum and market determines the economic activities.
2. The means of production in a capitalistic economy are privately owned.
3. Manufacturers produce goods and services with profit motive.
4. The private individual has the freedom to undertake any occupation and develop any skill.
5. The USA, West Germany, Australia and Japan are the best examples for capitalistic economies.
6.  However, they do undertake large social welfare measures to safeguard the downtrodden people from the market forces.

2. Socialistic Economy (Socialism):

1. The Father of Socialism is Karl Marx. Socialism refers to a system of total planning, public ownership and state control on economic activities.
2. Socialism is defined as a way of organizing a society in which major industries are owned and controlled by the government.
3. A Socialistic economy is also known as ‘Planned Economy’ or ‘Command Economy’.
4. In a socialistic economy, all the resources are owned and operated by the government.
5. Public welfare is the main motive behind all economic activities. It aims at equality in the distribution of income and wealth and equal opportunity for all.
6. Russia, China, Vietnam, Poland and Cuba are the examples of socialist economies. But, now there are no absolutely socialist economies.

3. Mixed Economy (Mixedism):

1. In a mixed economy system both private and public sectors co-exist and work together towards economic development.
2. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism.
3. In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government.
4. India, England, France and Brazil are the examples of mixed economy.

Question 3.
Outline the major merits of capitalism?
Answer:
Merits of Capitalism:

1. Automatic Working:
   Without any government intervention, the economy works automatically.
2. Efficient Use of Resources:
   All resources are put into optimum use.
3. Incentives for Hard work:
   Hard work is encouraged and entrepreneurs get more profit for more efficiency.
4. Economic Progress:
   Production and productivity levels are very high in capitalistic economies.
5. Consumers Sovereignty:
   All production activities are aimed at satisfying the consumers.
6. Higher Rates of Capital Formation:
   Increase in saving and investment leads to higher rates of capital formation.
7. Development of New Technology:
   As profit is aimed at, producers invest on new technology and produce quality goods.

Question 4.
Indicate the demerits of socialism?
Answer:
Demerits of Socialism:
1. Red Tapism and Bureaucracy:
As decision are taken by government agencies, approval of many officials and movement of files from one table to other takes time and leads to red tapism.

2. Absence of Incentive:
The major limitation of socialism is that this system does not provide any incentive for efficiency. Therefore, productivity also suffers.

3. Limited Freedom of Choice:
Consumers do not enjoy freedom of choice over the consumption of goods and services.

4. Concentration of Power:
The State takes all major decisions. The private takes no initiative in making economic decisions. Hence, the State is more powerful and misuse of power can also take place.

Question 5.
Enumerate the features of mixed economy?
Answer:
Features of Mixed Economy:
1. Ownership of Property and Means of Production: The means of production and properties are owned by both private and public. Public and Private have the right to purchase, use or transfer their resources.

2. Coexistence of Public and Private Sectors:
In mixed economies, both private and public sectors coexist. Private industries undertake activities primarily for profit. Public sector firms are owned by the government with a view to maximize social welfare.

3. Economic Planning:
The central planning authority prepares the economic plans. National plans are drawn up by the Government and both private and public sectors abide. In general, all sectors of the economy function according to the objectives, priorities and targets laid down in the plan.

4. Solution to Economic Problems:
The basic problems of what to produce, how to produce, for whom to produce and how to distribute are solved through the price mechanism as well as state intervention.

5. Freedom and Control:
Though private has freedom to own resources, produce goods and ‘ services and distribute the same, the overall control on the economic activities rests with
the government.

Question 6.
Distinguish between Capitalism and Globalism?
Answer:
Capitalism:
The system where the means of production are privately owned and market determines the economic activities.

Globalism:
An economic system where the economic activities of a nation are inter connected and inter dependent on each other nation.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the two sector circular flow model?
Answer:
Circular Flow of Income in a Two-Sector Economy:
There are only two sectors namely, household sector and firm sector.

1. Household Sector:

1. The household sector is the sole buyer of goods and services, and the sole supplier of factors of production, i.e., land, labour, capital and organisation.
2. It spends its entire income on the purchase of goods and services produced by the business sector.
3. The household sector receives income from firm sector by providing the factors of production owned by it.

2. Firms:

1. The firm sector generates its revenue by selling goods and services to the household sector.
2. It hires the factors of production, i.e., land, labour, capital and organisation, owned by the household sector.
3. The firm sector sells the entire output to households.
4. In a two – sector economy, production and sales are equal and there will be a circular flow of income and goods.
5. The outer circle represents real flow (factors and goods) and the inner circle represents the monetary flow (factor prices and commodity prices).
6. Real flow indicates the factor services flow from household sector to the business sector, and goods and services flow from business sector to the household.
7. The basic identities of the two-sector economy are as under:

Y = C + 1
Where
Y is Income; C is Consumption; I is investment.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In One Page.

Question 1.
Discuss the scope of Macro Economics?
Answer:
The study of macro economics has wide scope and it covers the major areas as follows:
1. National Income:
Measurement of national income and its composition by sectors are the basic aspects of macroeconomic analysis. The trends in National Income and its composition provide a long term understanding of the growth process of an economy.

2. Inflation:
It refers to steady increase in general price level. Estimating the general price level by constructing various price index numbers such as Wholesale Price Index, Consumer Price Index, etc, are needed.

3. Business Cycle:
Almost all economies face the problem of business fluctuations and business cycle. The cyclical movements (boom, recession, depression and recovery) in the economy need to be carefully studied based on aggregate economic variables.

4. Poverty and Unemployment:
The major problems of most resource – rich nations are poverty and unemployment. This is one of the economic paradoxes. A clear understanding about the magnitude of poverty and unemployment facilitates allocation of resources and initiating corrective measures.

5. Economic Growth:
The growth and development of an economy and the factors determining them could be understood only through macro analysis.

6. Economic Policies:
Macro Economics is significant for evolving suitable economic policies. Economic policies are necessary to solve the basic problems, to overcome the obstacles and to achieve growth.

Question 2.
Illustrate the functioning of an economy based on its activities?
Answer:
An economy is referred to any system or area where economic activities are carried out. Each economy has its own character. Accordingly, the functions or activities also vary. The functioning of an economy by its activities is explained in flow chart.

1. In an economy, the fundamental economic activities are production and consumption.
2. These two activities are supported by several other activities.
3. The ultimate aim of these activities is to achieve growth. The ‘exchange activity’ supports the production and consumption activities. These activities are influenced by several economic and non – economic activities.
4. The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising, planning, government policy and others.
5. The major non – economic activities are environment, health, education, entertainment, governance, regulations etc.
6. In addition to these supporting activities, external activities from other economies such as import, export, international relations, emigration, immigration, foreign investment, foreign exchange earnings, etc. also influence the entire functioning of the economy.

Question 3.
Compare the features of capitalism and socialism?
Answer:
Features of Capitalistic Economy:
1. Private Ownership of Property and Law of Inheritance:
The basic feature of capitalism is that all resources namely, land, capital, machines, mines etc. are owned by private individuals. The owner has the right to own, keep, sell or use these resources according to his will. The property can be transferred to heirs after death.

2. Freedom of Choice and Enterprise:
Each individual is free to carry out any occupation or trade at any place and produce any commodity. Similarly, consumers are free to buy any commodity as
per their choice.

3. Profit Motive:
Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy. Each individual organization produce only those goods which ensure high profit. Advance technology, division of labour, and specialisation are followed. The golden rule for a producer under capitalism is ‘to maximize profit.’

4. Free Competition:
There is free competition in both product and factor market. The government or any authority cannot prevent firms from buying or selling in the market. There is competition between buyers and sellers.

5. Price Mechanism:
Price mechanism is the heart of any capitalistic economy. All economic activities are regulated through price mechanism i.e., market forces of demand and supply.

6. Role of Government:
As the price mechanism regulates economic activity, the government has a limited role in a capitalistic economy. The government provides basic services such as, defense, public health, education, etc.

7. Inequalities of Income:
A capitalist society is divided into two classes – ‘haves’ that is those who own property and ‘have-nots’ who do not own property and work for their living. The outcome of this situation is that the rich become richer and poor become poorer. Here, economic inequality goes on increasing.

Features of Socialism:

1. Public Ownership of Means of Production:
All resources are owned by the government. It means that all the factors of production are nationalized and managed by the public authority.

2. Central Planning:
Planning is an integral part of a socialistic economy. In this system, all decisions are undertaken by the central planning authority.

3. Maximum Social Benefit:
Social welfare is the guiding principle behind all economic activities. Investments are planned in such a way that the benefits are distributed to the society at large.

4. Non – existence of Competition:
Under the socialist economic system there is absence of competition in the market. The state has full control over production and distribution of goods and services. The consumers will have a limited choice.

5. Absence of Price Mechanism:
The pricing system works under the control and regulation of the central planning authority.

6. Equality of Income:
Another essential feature of socialism is the removal and reduction of economic inequalities. Under socialism private property and the law of inheritance do not exist.

7. Equality of Opportunity:
Socialism provides equal opportunity for all through free health, education and professional training.

8. Classless Society:
Under socialism, there is a classless society and so no class conflicts. In a true socialist society, everyone is equal as far as economic status is concerned.

Question 4.
Compare the feature among Capitalism, Secularism and Mixedism?
Answer:

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Introduction to Macro Economics Addtional Questions and Answers

Part – A
I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
John Maynard Keynes book “The General theory of Employment, Interest and Money” was published in –
(a) 1936
(b) 1946
(c) 1956
(d) 1966
Answer:
(a) 1936

Question 2.
The word ‘Macro’ is derived from the Greek word –
(a) Makros
(b) Macros
(c) Macrow
(d) Mac
Answer:
(a) Makros

Question 3.
………………….. is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy.
(a) Benefit
(b) Additional
(c) Profit
(d) Loss
Answer:
(c) Profit

Question 4.
Capitalism and Socialism are two extreme and ……………………… approaches.
(a) normal
(b) opposite
(c) upward
(d) downward
Answer:
(b) opposite

Question 5.
Capitalist Economy is also termed as a Economy.
(a) Free
(b) Costly
(c) Value
(d) Govt
Answer:
(a) Free

Question 6.
The USA, West Germany, Australia and Japan are the best examples for economies.
(a) Socialistic
(b) Capitalistic
(c) Mixed
(d) Profit
Answer:
(b) Capitalistic

Question 7.
In a ……………………… Economy, all the resources are owned and operated by the government.
(a) Capitalistic
(b) Globalistic
(c) Socialistic
(d) Mixed
Answer:
(c) Socialistic

Question 8.
…………………… are planned in such a way that the benefits are distributed to the society at large.
(a) Investment
(b) Production
(c) Distribution
(d) Services
Answer:
(a) Investment

Question 9.
Who promotes balanced growth of the economy?
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Globalism
(d) Mixedism
Answer:
(d) Mixedism

Question 10.
In …………………….. economies both private and public sectors coexist.
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Globalism
(d) Mixed
Answer:
(d) Mixed

Question 11.
…………………….. is considered as the Father of socialism.
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Keynes
(c) Karlmarx
(d) Marshall
Answer:
(c) Karlmarx

Question 12.
…………………………. is another name for economics.
(a) Political economy
(b) Socialist economy
(c) Capitalist economy
(d) Planned economy
Answer:
(a) Political economy

Question 13.
The socialist economy is also known as economy.
(a) Market
(b) Common
(c) Traditional
(d) Mixed
Answer:
(b) Common

Question 14.
Economics is a ……………………. science.
(a) Political
(b) Social
(c) Physical
(d) Natural
Answer:
(b) Social

Question 15.
In a ………………….. Economy there is no central co – ordinator.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalist
(c) Socialist
(d) Traditional
Answer:
(b) Capitalist

Question 16.
In a socialist economy, all decisions regarding production and distribution are taken by
(a) market forces
(b) central planning authority
(c) customs and traditions
(d) private sector
Answer:
(b) central planning authority

Question 17.
Co – existence of public and private sector is called economy.
(a) Mixed
(b) Socialist
(c) Capitalist
(d) Traditional
Answer:
(a) Mixed

Question 18.
The government has minimum role in …………………….. economy.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalist
(c) Socialist
(d) Traditional
Answer:
(b) Capitalist

Question 19.
Economic planning is an important feature of …………………… Economy.
(a) Mixed
(b) Capitalism
(c) Socialism
(d) Traditional
Answer:
(a) Mixed

Question 20.
Welfare is ignored in ……………………….. Economy.
(a) Mixidism
(b) Socialistic
(c) Capitalistic
(d) Traditional
Answer:
(c) Capitalistic

Question 21.
Free trade economy is otherwise called ……………………….. economy.
(a) Socialist
(b) Capitalist
(c) Traditionalist
(d) Mixidist
Answer:
(b) Capitalist

Question 22.
Extreme inequality is prevented in ……………………… system.
(a) Socialist
(b) Capitalist
(c) Mixidist
(d) Traditionalist
Answer:
(a) Socialist

Question 23.
Market forces have only a limited role to play in ………………………. economy.
(a) Mixidist
(b) Socialist
(c) Capitalist
(d) Traditionalist
Answer:
(b) Socialist

Question 24.
India is the best example for …………………………. economy.
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Mixedism
(d) Traditionalism
Answer:
(c) Mixedism

Question 25.
What is main motive of capitalism?
(a) Profit
(b) Benefit
(c) Excess money
(d) Loss
Answer:
(a) Profit

II. Match the following and choose the correct answer by using codes given below

Question 1.
A. Father of Capitalism – (i) Adam Smith
B. Father of Socialism – (ii) Karl Marx
C. Net Economic Welfare – (iii) Samuelson
D. Father of Macro Economics – (iv) J.M. Keynes
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D (i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
Answer:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)

Question 2.
A. Mixed Economy – (i) Welfare Oriented
B. Socialist Economy – (ii) Subsistence Economy
C. Capitalist Economics – (iii) Economic Planning
D. Traditional Economy – (iv) Profit Motive
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
Answer:
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)

Question 3.
A. Minimum Role of Government – (i) Freedom of choice
B. Absence of monopoly – (ii) Capitalism
C. Capitalist Economy – (iii) Socialism
D. Socialist Economy – (iv) Central planning
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (ii) B (i) C (iii) D (iv)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)

Question 4.
A. Traditional Economy – (i) Socialism
B. Minimum Role of Government – (ii) Traditions and customs
C. Absence of Monopoly – (iii) Capitalism
D. Administered prices – (iv) Mixed Economy
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
(c) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)
(d) A (ii) B (iv) C (iii) D(i)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)

Question 5.
A. Private property – (i) Capitalist Economy
B. Bureaucratic expansion – (ii) Laissez Faire Economy
C. Market Economy – (iii) Socialism
D. Socialism – (iv) China and Cubs
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
(c) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)
(d) A (i) B (iii) C (ii) D (iv)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iii) C (i) D (iv)

III. State whether the statements are true or false.

Question 1.
(i) In Mixed Economy, both public and private sector co-existence.
(ii) Mixed Economy followed by India.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (0 and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) Profit Motive of Capitalist Economy.
(ii) Basic problems are solved by customs and traditions.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) is false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 3.
(i) Father of Macro Economics – Adam Smith.
(ii) Father of Capitalism – Adam Smith

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 4.
(i) The Father of Socialism is Karl Marx.
(ii) Socialism is Profit Motive.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5.
(i) Capitalism and Socialism are same approaches.
(ii) Capitalism and Socialism are two extreme and opposite approaches.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(i) is false but (ii) is true

IV. Which of the following is correctly matched:

Question 1.
(a) One Sector Model – firm
(b) Two Sector Model – firm, government
(c) Three Sector Model – firm, household, government
(d) Four Sector Model – firm, household, government Industry
Answer:
(c) Three Sector Model – firm, household, government

Question 2.
(a) Capitalist Economy – USA, West Germany, Australia
(b) Socialist Economy – Japan, USSR
(c) Mixed Economy – Russia, Cuba
(d) Traditional Economy – India, China
Answer:
(a) Capitalist Economy – USA, West Germany, Australia

Question 3.
(a) Capitalism – Marshall
(b) Socialism – Karl Marx
(c) Mixidism – Adam Smith
(d) Traditionalism – Samuelson
Answer:
(b) Socialism – Karl Marx

Question 4.
(a) Macro – Greek word – Makros
(b) Macro – Latin word – Maker
(c) Macro – French word – Macro
(d) Macro – English word – Large
Answer:
(a) Macro – Greek word – Makros

Question 5.
(a) The first Noble Prize in Economic Science – Ragnar Frisch
(b) The General Theory of Employment – Adam Smith
(c) Planned Economy – J.M. Keynes
(d) Free Economy – Karl Marx
Answer:
(a) The first Noble Prize in Economic Science – Ragnar Frisch

V. Which of the following is not correctly matched:

Question 1.
(a) Equal opportunity – Mixidism
(b) Profit Motive – Capitalism
(c) Social Benefit – Socialism
(d) Traditional – Traditionalism
Answer:
(a) Equal opportunity – Mixidism

Question 2.
(a) Micro – small
(b) Macro – large
(c) Micro – very very small
(d) Macro – makros
Answer:
(c) Micro – very very small

Question 3.
(a) Traditional Economy – Subsistence Economy
(b) Economics is a – social science
(c) Economics other name – Political Economy
(d) Consumers Enjoy – Socialism
Answer:
(d) Consumers Enjoy – Socialism

Question 4.
(a) Private ownership – Capitalism
(b) Public ownership – Socialism
(c) Ownership of property – Mixidism
(d) Social welfare – Traditionalism
Answer:
(d) Social welfare – Traditionalism

Question 5.
(a) Traditional Government Involvement only
(b) Capatalist – Internal Regulation only
(c) Socilaistic – Complete Involvement
(d) Mixodistic – Limited Role Answers
Answer:
(a) Traditional Government Involvement only

VI. Pick the odd one out.

Question 1.
(a) Rapid Economic growth
(b) Balanced Economic growth
(c) Economic Equality
(d) Ineffeciency
Answer:
(d) Ineffeciency

Question 2.
(a) Public ownership
(b) Central planning
(c) Price Mechanism
(d) Maximum Social Benefit
Answer:
(c) Price Mechanism

Question 3.
(a) Households
(b) Firms
(c) Government
(d) Factories
Answer:
(d) Factories

Question 4.
(a) National Income
(b) Inflation
(c) Business cycle
(d) Non – Economic factor
Answer:
(d) Non – Economic factor

Question 5.
(a) Capitalism
(b) Socialism
(c) Globalism
(d) Mixidism
Answer:
(c) Globalism

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): Macro Economics is the study of the economy as a whole.
Reason (R): Macro Economics is also known as “Income theory”.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Inflation refers to steady increase in general price level.
Reason (R): Deflation refers to steady increase in general price level.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A):
The major economic activities include transportation, banking, advertising.
Reason (R): The major economic activities include only Industrial development.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Capitalistic Economy is Social Welfare Economy.
Reason (R): Capitalistic Economy is also free Economy or market Economy.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

PART – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
Define Globalism?
Answer:
Globalism:
The term coined by Manfred D Steger (2002) to denote the new market ideology of globalisation that connects nations together through international trade and aiming at global development. This ideology is also termed as ‘Extended Capitalism’.

Question 2.
Define Mixed Economy (or) Mixedism?
Answer:

1. In a mixed economy system both private and public sectors co – exist and work together towards economic development.
2. It is a combination of both capitalism and socialism. It tends to eliminate the evils of both capitalism and socialism.
3. In these economies, resources are owned by individuals and the government. India, England, France and Brazil are the examples of mixed economy.

Question 3.
What is meant by Four Sector Economy?
Answer:

• In a Four – sector economy, in addition to household, firms and government, a fourth sector namely, external sector is included.
• In real life, only four – sector economy exists. This model is composed of four sectors namely,
  • Households
  • Firms
  • Government
  • External sector
• In four – sector economy, expenditure for the entire economy include domestic expenditure (C + I + G) and net exports (X – M).

Question 4.
Define Profit Motive?
Answer:
Profit Motive:
Profit is the driving force behind all economic activities in a capitalistic economy. Each individual and organization produce only those goods which ensure high profit. Advance technology, division of labour, and specialisation are followed. The golden rule for a producer under capitalism is ‘to maximize profit. ’

PART – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
Discuss the limitations of Macro Economics?
Answer:
Macro economics suffers from certain limitations. They are:

1. There is a danger of excessive generalisation of the economy as a whole.
2. It assumes homogeneity among the individual units.
3. There is a fallacy of composition. What is good of an individual need not be good for nation and vice versa. And, what is good for a country is not good for another country and at another time.
4. Many non – economic factors determine economic activities; but they do not find place in the usual macroeconomic books.

Question 2.
Outline the Major Demerits of Capitalism?
Answer:

1. Concentration of Wealth and Income:
   Capitalism causes concentration of wealth and income in a few hands and thereby increases inequalities of income.
2. Wastage of Resources:
   Large amount of resources are wasted on competitive advertising and duplication of products.
3. Class Struggle:
   Capitalism leads to class struggle as it divides the society into capitalists and workers.
4. Business Cycle:
   Free market system leads to frequent violent economic fluctuations and crises.
5. Production of non essential goods:
   Even the harmful goods are produced if there is possibility to make profit.

Question 3.
Indicates the Merits of Socialism?
Answer:

1. Reduction in Inequalities:
   No one is allowed to own and use private property to exploit others.
2. Rational Allocation of Resources:
   The central planning authority allocates the resources in a planned manner. Wastages are minimised and investments are made in a pre planned manner.
3. Absence of Class Conflicts:
   As inequalities are minimum, there is no conflict between rich and poor class. Society functions in a harmonious manner.
4. End of Trade Cycles:
   Planning authority takes control over production and distribution of goods and services. Therefore, economic fluctuations can be avoided.
5. Promotes Social Welfare:
   Absence of exploitation, reduction in economic inequalities, avoidance of trade cycles and increase in productive efficiency help to promote social welfare.

PART – D
Answer The Following Questions In One Page.

Question 1.
State the Merits and Demerits of Mixed Economy?
Answer:
Merits of Mixed Economy:

1. Rapid Economic Growth:
The best advantage of mixed economy is that it promotes rapid economic growth. Thus, both public requirements and private needs are taken care of.

2. Balanced Economic Growth:
Mixedism promotes balanced growth of the economy. It promotes balanced growth between agriculture and industry, consumer goods and capital goods, rural and urban etc.

3. Proper Utilization of Resources:
In a mixed economy, the government can ensure proper utilization of resources. The government controls most of the important activities directly and the private sector indirectly.

4. Economic Equality:
The government uses progressive rates of taxation for levying income tax to bring about economic equality.

5. Special Advantages to the Society:
The government safeguards the interest of the workers and weaker sections by legislating on minimum wages, and rationing, establishing fair price shops and formulating social welfare measures.

Demerits of Mixed Economy

1. Lack of Coordination:
The greatest drawback of mixedism is lack of coordination between public sector and private sector. As both work with divergent motives, it creates many coordination related problems.

2. Competitive Attitude:
It is expected that both government and private should work with a complementary spirit towards the welfare of the society, but in reality they are competitive in their activities.

3. Inefficiency:
Most of the public sector enterprises remain inefficient due to lethargic bureaucracy, red tapism and lack of motivation.

4. Fear of Nationalization:
In a mixed economy, the fear of nationalization discourages the private entrepreneurs in their business operations and innovative initiatives.

5. Widening Inequality:
Ownership of resources, laws of inheritance and profit motive of people widens the gap between rich and poor. Ultimately the inequality of capitalism and inefficiency of socialism are found in mixed economies.

Question 2.
Classify the concepts of Macro Economics?
Answer:
The important concepts used in macro economics are presented below:

Stock and Flow Variables:
Variables used in economic analysis are classified as stock and flow. Both stock and flow variables may increase or decrease with time.

1. Stock refers to a quantity of a commodity measured at a point of time. In macro economics, money supply, unemployment level, foreign exchange reserves, capital etc are examples of stock variables.

2. Flow variables are measured over a period of time. National Income, imports, exports, consumption, production, investment etc are examples of flow variables.

3. Economic Models A model is a simplified representation of real situation. Economists use models to describe economic activities, their relationships and their behaviour. A model is an explanation of how the economy, or part of the economy, works. Most economic models are built with mathematics, graphs and equations, and attempt to explain relationships between economic variables. The commonly used economic models are the supply-demand models and circular flow models and Smith models.

Question 3.
Briefly explain circular flow of Income in a Three Sector Economy?
Answer:
Circular Flow of Income in a Three-Sector Economy:

• In addition to household and firms, inclusion of the government sector makes this model a three-sector model.
• The government levies taxes on households and firms, purchases goods and services from firms, and receive factors of production from household sector.
• On the other hand, the government also makes social transfers such as pension, relief, subsidies to the households.
• Similarly, Government pays the firms for the purchases of goods and services. The Flow Chart illustrates three-sector economy model:
• Under three sector model, national income (Y) is obtained by adding Consumption expenditure (C), Investment expenditure (I) and Government expenditure (G).
• Therefore: Y = C + I + G.

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Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Kingdom Animalia Text Book Back Questions and Answers

I. Multiple Choice Questions
Choose the correct answer

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Zoology Question 1.
The symmetry exhibited in cnidarians is –
(a) Radial
(b) Bilateral
(c) Pentamerous radial
(d) Asymmetrical
Answer:
(a) Radial

Class 11 Zoology Chapter 2 Notes Question 2.
Sea anemone belongs to phylum –
(a) Protozoa
(b) Porifera
(c) Coelenterata
(d) Echinodermata
Answer:
(c) Coelenterata

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Biology Question 3.
The excretory cells that are found in platyhelminthes are –
(a) Protonephridia
(b) Flame cells
(c) Solenocytes
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Samacheer Kalvi 11 Zoology Solutions Question 4.
In which of the following organisms, self-fertilization is seen?
(a) Fish
(b) Round worm
(c) Earthworm
(d) Liver fluke
Answer:
(d) Liver fluke

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Zoology Solutions Question 5.
Nephridia of Earthworms are performing the same functions as –
(a) Gills of prawn
(b) Flame cells of Planaria
(c) Trachea of insects
(d) Nematoblasts of Hydra
Answer:
(b) Flame cells of Planaria

Zoology Class 11 Chapter 2 Question 6.
Which of the following animals has a true coelom?
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(c) Sycon
(d) Taenia solium
Answer:
(b) Pheretima

Kingdom Zoology Question 7.
Metameric segmentation is the main feature of –
(a) Annelida
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Coelenterata
Answer:
(a) Annelida

11th Zoology Solutions Question 8.
In Pheretima locomotion occurs with help of –
(a) circular muscles
(b) longitudinal muscles and setae
(c) circular, longitudinal muscles and setae
(d) parapodia
Answer:
(c) circular, longitudinal muscles and setae

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 11th Bio Zoology Question 9.
Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature?
(a) Insects
(b) Birds
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(a) Insects

Kingdom Animalia Pdf Question 10.
Which of the following is a crustacean?
(a) Prawn
(b) Snail
(c) Sea anemone
(d) Hydra
Answer:
(a) Prawn

Zoology Kingdom Question 11.
The respiratory pigment in cockroach is –
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Haemoerythrin
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Haemoerythrin

11th Zoology Samacheer Kalvi Question 12.
Exoskeleton of which phylum consists of chitinous cuticle?
(a) Annelida
(b) Porifera
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Echinodermata
Answer:
(a) Annelida

Question 13.
Lateral line sense organs occur in –
(a) Salamander
(b) Frog
(c) Water snake
(d) Fish
Answer:
(d) Fish

Question 14.
The limbless amphibian is –
(a) Icthyophis
(b) Hyla
(c) Rana
(d) Salamander
Answer:
(a) Icthyophis

Question 15.
Four chambered heart is present in –
(a) Lizard
(b) Snake
(c) Scorpion
(d) Crocodile
Answer:
(d) Crocodile

Question 16.
Which of the following is not correctly paired?
(a) Humans – Ureotelic
(b) Birds – Uricotelic
(c) Lizards – Uncotelic
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic
Answer:
(d) Whale – Ammonotelic

Question 17.
Which of the following is an egg laying mammal?
(a) Deiphinus
(b) Macropus
(c) Ornitho rhynchus
(d) Equus
Answer:
(c) Ornitho rhynchus

Question 18.
Pneumatic bones are seen in –
(a) Mammalia
(b) Aves
(c) Reptilia
(d) Sponges
Answer:
(b) Aves

Question 19.

Match the following columns and select the correct option.

(a) p – (ii), q – (i), r – (iii), s – (iv)
(b) p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)
(c) p – (ii), q – (iv), r – (i), s – (iii)
(d) p – (i), q – (ii), r – (iii), s – (iv)
Answer:
(b) p – (iii), q – (iv), r – (ii), s – (i)

Question 20.
In which of the following phyla, the adult shows radial symmetry but the larva shows bilateral symmetry?
(a) Mollusca
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Annelida
Answer:
(b) Echinodermata

Question 21.
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Physalia – Portugese man of war
(b) Pennatula – Sea fan
(c) Adamsia – Sea pen
(d) Gorgonia – Sea anemone
Answer:
(a) Physalla – Portugese man of war

Question 22.
Why are spongin and spicutes important to a sponge?
Answer:
Spongin and spicules provide support and supports the soft body parts of the sponges. The spicules give the sponges rigidity and form to the sponges

Question 23.
What are the four characteristics common to most animals?
Answer:
The characteristics common to most animals are the arrangement of cell layers.

• The levels of organization.
• Nature of coelom.
• The presence or absence of segmentation and notochord.
• Organization of the organ system.

Question 24.
list the features that all vertebrates show at some point in their deelopnwnt.
Answer:
All vertebrates possess notochord during embryonic stay. li is repLaced by vertebra) column. All vertebrates possess pained appendages such as fins or lunits. Skin is covered by protective skeleton comprising of scales. fiathcrs hairs, claws, nails etc. Respiration is aerobic through gills, skin. buccopharyngeal cavity’ and lungs. All vertebrates have a muscular heart with two, three or four chambers and kidneys for excretion and osmoregulation.

Question 25.
Compare closed and opened circulatory system.
Answer:
Closed circulatory system:

• The circulation in which blood is present inside the blood vessels is called closed circulatory’ system
• It is found in higher organisms, e.g. annelids, cephalochordates and vertebrates.

Open circulatory system:

• The circulation in which blood remains filled in tissue spaces due to the absence of blood vessels is called open circulatory system
• It is found in lower organisms. e.g. arthropods, molluscs and echinoderms.

Question 26.
Compare schizocoelom with enterocoeloni.
Schizocoelom:

• The coelom which is formed by splitting of Mesoderm is called schizocoelom.
• It is found in lower invertebrates like annelids, arthropods and molluscs.

Enterocoeloni:

• The coelom which is formed from the Mesodermal pouches of archenteron is called enteroceolem.
• It is found in echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 27.
Identify the structure that the archenteron becomes in a developing animal.
Answer:
The archenteron becomes the cavity of the digestive tract.

Question 28.
Observe the animal below and answer the following questions
(a) Identify the animal
(b) What type of symmetry does this animal exhibit?
(c) Is this animal Cephalized?
(d) How many germ layers does this animal have?
(e) How many openings does this animal’s digestive system have?
(f) Does this animal have neurons?

Answer:
(a) Sea anemone (Adarnasia)
(b) Radial symmetry
(c) No
(d) Two (ectoderm and endoderm)
(e) One
(f) No.

Question 29.
Choose the term that does not belong in the following group and explain why it does not belong?
Answer:

• Notochord, cephalisation, dorsal nerve cord and radial symmetry.
• Notochord, cephalisation and dorsal nerve cord are the characteristic features of chordates. The radial symmetry is not a characteristic feature of chordate. It is the feature of cnidarian and adult echinoderms. Hence it does not belong to the group.

Question 30.
Why flat worms are called acoelomates?
Answer:
Flat worms are called acoelomate because they do not possess a body cavity.

Question 31.
What are flame cells?
Answer:
Flame cells are the specialized excretory cells in flat worms. They help in excretion and osmoregulation.

Question 32.
Concept Mapping – Use the following terms to create a concept map that shows the major characteristic features of the phylum nematoda: Round worms, pseudocoelomates, digestive tract, cuticle, parasite and sexual dimorphism.
Answer:

Question 33.
In which phyla is the larva trochopore found?
Answer:
Annelida.

Question 34.
Which of the chordate characteristics do tunicates retain as adults?
Answer:
Ventral and tabular heart. Respiration is through gill slits.

Question 35.
List the characteristic features that distinguish cartilaginous fishes with living jawless fishes.
Answer:
Cartilaginous Fishes:

• These have powerful jaws which help in predation.
• These are free living predatory fishes.
• These are advanced over jawless fishes.
• These have a tough skin covered by dermal
• Respiration is by lamelliform gills without operculum.
• Paired fins are present.
• Fertilization is internal
• Viviparous e.g. Scoliodon

Living Jawless Fishes:

• They do not have jaws and the mouth is circular and suctorial.
• These are ectoparasites on fishes.
• These are primitive over cartilaginous fishes.
• The skin is soft and devoid of scales.
• These have six to fifteen pair of gills slits.
• Paired fins are absent.
• Fertilization is external
• Oviparous, e.g. Lamprey

Question 36.
List three features that characterise bony fishes.
Answer:

• These fishes have bony endoskeleton.
• The skin is covered by ganoid, cycloid or ctenoid scales.
• Gills are covered by an operculum.
• They are ammonotelic.
• They have mesonephric kidneys.
• External fertilization is seen.

Question 37.
List the functions of air bladder in fishes.
Answer:

• Air bladder helps in gaseous exchange.
• It helps in maintaining buoyancy.

Question 38.
Write the characteristics that contributes to the success of reptiles on land.
Answer:

• The characteristics that contribute to the success of reptiles on land are as follows:
• The presence of dry and comified skin with epidermal scales or scutes which prevent the loss of water.
• The presence of metanephric kidney.
• They are uricotelic (they excrete uric acid to prevent the loss of water).

Question 39.
List the unique features of bird’s endoskeleton.
Answer:

• The endoskeleton of birds is bony
• The long bones are hollow with air cavities (pneumatic)
• The body is covered by feathers.

Question 40.
Could the number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous female be equal? Why?
Answer:
No. The number of eggs or young ones produced by an oviparous and viviparous female cannot be equal. When the oviparous animals lay eggs in the external environment or in the medium, the chance of survival and successful development into the adults are not certain. But in case of viviparous animals, young ones are nurtured by the adult animals. Hence, oviparous animals lay more eggs if they are fertilized in the medium or in water.

Entrance Examination Questions Solved
Choose the correct answer
Question 1.
Classification of sponges is primarily based on the …………. (JCECE-2003)
(a) body organization
(b) body plan
(c) skeleton
(d) canal system
Answer:
(c) skeleton

Question 2.
Symmetry is cnidaria is …………. (AMU-2009)
(a) radial
(b) bilateral
(c) pentamerous
(d) spherical
Answer:
(a) radial

Question 3.
Cavity of coelenterates is called …………. (BHU-2008)
(a) coelenteron
(b) coelom
(c) cavity
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) coelenteron

Question 4.
Sea anemone belongs to phylum …………. (BCECE-2005)
(a) protozoa
(b) porifera
(c) coelenterata
(d) echinodermata
Answer:
(c) coelenterata

Question 5.
Medusa is the reproductive organ of …………. (BHU-2008)
(a) Hydra
(b) Aurelia
(c) Obelia
(d) Sea anemone
Answer:
(b) Aurelia

Question 6.
The excretory cells, that are found in platyhelminthes …………. (J & K CET-2007)
(a) Protonephridia
(b) Flame cells
(c) Solenocytes
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Flame cells

Question 7.
In which of the following organisms, self-fertilization is seen? (CCET-2007)
(a) Fish
(b) Round worm
(c) Earthworm
(d) Liver fluke
Answer:
(d) Liver fluke

Question 8.
Nephridia of Earthworms are performing same function as …………. (J & KCET-2003)
(a) gills of prawn
(b) flame cells of Planaria
(c) trachea of insects
(d) nematoblasts of Hydra
Answer:
(b) flame cells of Planaria

Question 9.
Phylum of Taenia solium is …………. (BCECE-2004)
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Annelids
(c) Platylelminthes
(d) Mollusca
Answer:
(c) Platylelminthes

Question 10.
Ascaris is found in …………. (RPMT-2004)
(a) body cavity
(b) lymph nodes
(c) tissue
(d) alimentary canal
Answer:
(d) alimentary canal

Question 11.
Which of the following animals has a true coelom? (J & K CET-2007)
(a) Ascaris
(b) Pheretima
(c) Sycon
(d) Taenia solium
Answer:
(b) Pheretima

Question 12.
Metameric segmentation is the main feature of ………….
(a) Annelida
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Coelenterata
Answer:
(a) Annelida

Question 13.
Body cavity lined by mesoderm is called …………. (J & T CET-2005)
(a) coelenteron
(b) pseudocoel
(c) coelom
(d) blastocoel
Answer:
(c) coelom

Question 14.
Which of the following have the highest number of species in nature? (AIPMT-2011)
(a) Insects
(b) Birds
(c) Angiosperms
(d) Fungi
Answer:
(a) Insects

Question 15.
Which of the following is a crustacean? (Guj-CET-2011)
(a) Prawn
(b) Snail
(c) Sea anemone
(d) Hydra
Answer:
(a) Prawn

Question 16.
The respiratory pigment present in cockroach is …………. (OJEE-2010)
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Haemocyanin
(c) Oxyhaemoglobin
(d) None of these
Answer:
(d) None of these

Question 17.
Book lungs are respiratory organs in …………. (AMU-2008)
(a) Insects
(b) Arachnids
(c) Molluscans
(d) Echinoderms
Answer:
(b) Arachnids

Question 18.
The excretory organ in cockroach is …………. (Kerala-CEE-2007)
(a) Malpighian corpuscle
(b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Green gland
(d) Metanephridia
Answer:
(b) Malpighian tubules

Question 19.
Exoskeleton of which phylum consists of chitinous cuticle? (J & KCET-2007)
(a) Annelida
(b) Porifera
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Echinodermata
Answer:
(c) Arthropoda

Question 20.
In cockroach, vision is due to …………. (PMET-2005)
(a) one compound eye
(b) two compound eyes
(c) two simple eyes
(d) two compound and two simple eyes.
Answer:
(b) two compound eyes

Question 21.
Which of the following respires through gills? (J & K CET-2005)
(a) Whale
(b) Turtle
(c) Frog
(d) Prawns
Answer:
(d) Prawns

Question 22.
Animals active at night are called …………. (J & K CET-2004)
(a) diurnal
(b) nocturnal
(c) parasites
(d) nocto – diumal
Answer:
(b) nocturnal

Question 23.
Salient features of Arthropoda is ……….. (RPMT-2003)
(a) aquatic and free living
(b) chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages
(c) radulla
(d) none of those
Answer:
(b) chitinous exoskeleton and jointed appendages

Question 24.
The second largest number of species containing phylum in the animal kingdom is ……….. (J & K CET-2008)
(a) Annelida
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Mollusca
(d) Chordata
Answer:
(c) Mollusca

Question 25.
Mollusca is ………… (JCECE-2006)
(a) Triploblastic, acoelomate
(b) Triploblastic, coelomate
(c) Diploblastic, acoelomate
(d) Diploblastic, coelomate
Answer:
(b) Triploblastic, coelomate

Question 26.
Tube feet are the locomotory organs of ………….
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Echinodermata
(c) Mollusca
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(b) Echinodermata

Question 27.
Given below are four matchings of a animal and its kind of respiratory organ …………. (PMT 2003)
(A) Silver fish – Trachea
(B) Scorpion – Book lung
(C) Sea squirt – Pharyngeal gills
(D) Dolphin – Skin
The correct matchings are
(a) A and B
(b) A,B and C
(c) B and D
(d) C and D
Answer:
(b) A,B and C

Question 28.
Which one of the following is a matching pair of an animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits? (PMT 2003)
(a) Pheretima – Sexual dimorphism
(b) Rana – Complete metamorphosis
(c) Chameleon – Mimicry
(d) Taenia – Polymorphism
Answer:
(b) Rana – Complete metamorphosis

Question 29.
Two common characters found in centipede, cockroach and crab …………. (PMT 2006)
(a) book lungs and antennae
(b) compound eyes and anal cerci
(c) joint legs and chitinous exoskeleton
(d) green gland and tracheae
Answer:
(c) joint legs and chitinous exoskeleton

Question 30.
Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic? (PMT 2009)
(a) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(b) Ctenophores
(c) Sponges
(d) Coelenterates (cnidarians)
Answer:
(a) Aschelminthes (round worms)

Question 31.
Which one feature is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion? (AIIMS 2004)
(a) Nephridia
(b) Ventral nerve cord
(c) Cephalization
(d) Antennae
Answer:
(b) Ventral nerve cord

Question 32.
Which one of the following features is common in silverfish, scorpion, dragonfly and prawn?
(a) Three pairs of legs and segmented body
(b) Chitinous cuticle and two pairs of antennae
(c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton
(d) Cephalothorax and trachea
Answer:
(c) Jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton

Question 33.
Peripatus is known as a connecting link, because it has the characters of both …………. (BHU 1993)
(a) Fishes & amphibians
(b) Reptiles & birds
(c) Aves & fishes
(d) Arthropoda & annelids
Answer:
(d) Arthropoda & annelids

Question 34.
Osphradium of Pila globosa is ………… (BHU 1994, 2000, 2007)
(a) thermoreceptor
(b) Pheretima
(c) chemoreceptor
(d) tangoreceptor
Answer:
(c) chemoreceptor

Question 35.
Green glands present in some arthropods help in …………. (BHU 1998, 2007)
(a) respiration
(b) excretion
(c) digestion
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) excretion

Question 36.
Squid, cuttle fish and Octopus belongs to class of …………. (BHU 1998, 2001)
(a) decapoda
(b) scaphopoda
(c) cephalopoda
(d) apods
Answer:
(c) cephalopoda

Question 39.
The canal system is a characteristic feature of …………. (BHU 1999, 2002)
(a) sponges
(b) echinoderms
(c) helminthes
(d) coelenterates
Answer:
(a) sponges

Question 40.
Malpighian tubules are …………. (BHU 2006)
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) excretory organs of frog
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) endocrine glands of insects
Answer:
(a) excretory organs of insects

Question 41.
Caterpillar and maggot are …………. (BHU 2007)
(a) larvae
(b) nymphs
(c) adults
(d) pupa
Answer:
(a) larvae

Question 42.
Excretory organ of platyhelminthes is …………. (BHU 2008)
(a) gills
(b) flame cells
(c) nephridia
(d) trachea
Answer:
(b) flame cells

Question 43.
Water vascular system is a characteristic of …………. (BHU 2008)
(a) ctenophore
(b) annelid
(c) echinodermata
(d) arthropoda
Answer:
(c) echinodermata

Question 44.
Tube feet are the characteristic structures of …………. (DPMT 1993, 2008)
(a) jellyfish
(b) starfish
(c) cuttlefish
(d) crayfish
Answer:
(b) starfish

Question 45.
Hormone, which helps in metamorphosis in insects is …………. (DPMT 1996)
(a) pheromone
(b) ecdysone
(c) thyroxine
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) ecdysone

Question 46.
The muscles associated with the heart of insects are …………. (DPMT 1996, 2006)
(a) alary
(b) striped
(c) radial
(d) pericardial
Answer:
(a) alary

Question 47.
Which of the following organisms is pseudocoelomate? (DPMT 2001, 2006)
(a) Hookworm
(b) Liver fluke
(c) Jelly fish
(d) Leech
Answer:
(a) Hookworm

Question 48.
Which of the following is not reported to have any fresh water forms? (DPMT 2003)
(a) Mollusca
(b) Sponges
(c) Coelenterates
(d) Echinoderms
Answer:
(d) Echinoderms

Question 49.
Pseudocoelom is not found in ………… (DPMT 2004)
(a) Ascaris
(b) Ancylostoma
(c) Fasciola
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) Fasciola

Question 50.
Animals devoid of respiratory, excretory and circulatory organs belong to phylum ………… (DPMT 2004)
(a) echinodermata
(b) platyhelminthes
(c) porifera
(d) mollusca
Answer:
(c) porifera

Question 51.
Cilia of gills of bivalve molluscs help in …………. (DPMT 2005)
(a) protection
(b) respiration
(c) excretion
(d) feeding
Answer:
(b) respiration

Question 52.
All flat worms differ from all round worms in having …………. (DPMT 2009)
(a) triploblastic body
(b) solid mesoderm
(c) bilateral symmetry
(d) metamorphosis in the life history
Answer:
(b) solid mesoderm

Question 53.
Parthenogenesis can be seen in …………. (UPCPMT 1995)
(a) frog
(b) honey bee
(c) moth
(d) all of these
Answer:
(b) honey bee

Question 54.
The endocrine gland of insects, which secretes the juvenile hormone, is …………. (UP-CPMT 1995)
(a) corpora allata
(b) corpora albicans
(c) corpora myecaena
(d) all of these
Answer:
(a) corpora allata

Question 55.
Malpighian tubules are …………. (UP – CPMT 1996, 2008)
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) respiratory organs of insects
(c) excretory organs of frog
(d) endocrine glands of insects
Answer:
(a) excretory organs of insects

Question 56.
In mollusca, eye is present over a stalk called …………. (UP-CPMT 2000, 2007)
(a) osphradium
(b) ostracum
(c) ommatophore
(d) operculum
Answer:
(c) ommatophore

Question 57.
Which of the following symmetries is found in adult sea anemone? (UP – CPMT 2004)
(a) Radial
(b) Biradial
(c) Bilateral
(d) Spherical
Answer:
(a) Radial

Question 58.
Feeding in sponges takes place through …………. (UP-CPMT 2005)
(a) choanocytes
(b) nurse cells
(c) ostia
(d) osculum
Answer:
(a) choanocytes

Question 59.
Osphradium is meant for …………. (UP-CPMT 2005)
(a) excretion
(b) nutrition
(c) selection and rejection of food
(d) grinding of food
Answer;
(c) selection and rejection of food

Question 60.
Excretory product of spider is …………. (UPCPMT 2007)
(a) uric acid
(b) ammonia
(c) guanine
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) guanine

Question 61.
Which of the following is not the character of Taenia soliuml …………. (UPCPMT 2007)
(a) Polysis
(b) Proglottid
(c) Metamerism
(d) Strobila
Answer:
(c) Metamerism

Question 62.
Daphnia is commonly known as …………. (UP-CPMT 2007)
(a) clam shrimp
(b) fairy shrimp
(c) water fleas
(d) tadpole shrimp
Answer:
(c) water fleas

Question 63.
Wuchereria is found in …………. (UP-CPMT 2007)
(a) lymph nodes
(b) lungs
(c) eye
(d) gonds
Answer:
(a) lymph nodes

Question 64.
“Turbellarians” are free living …………. (UP-CPMT 2008)
(a) flatworms
(b) trematodes
(c) nematodes
(d) cesrtodes
Answer:
(a) flatworms

Question 65.
Polyp phase is absent in …………. (UP-CPMT 2008)
(a) Physalia
(b) Obselia
(c) Hydra
(d) Aurelia
Answer:
(d) Aurelia

Question 66.
Animals having pseudocoelomate and triploblastic nature are present in phyla …………. (UP-CPMT 2008).
(a) annelida
(b) arthropoda
(c) aschelminthes
(d) platyhelminthes
Answer:
(c) aschelminthes

Question 67.
Primitive nervous system is formed in …………. (UP-CPMT 2009)
(a) sponge
(b) cnidaria (coelenterate)
(c) echinodermata
(d) annelida
Answer:
(b) cnidaria (coelenterate)

Question 68.
Tissues are absent in the body of …………. (UP-CPMT 2009)
(a) sponge
(b) annelida
(c) platyhelminthes
(d) arthropoda
Answer:
(a) sponge

Question 69.
Linmulus belongs to class ………….
(a) onychophora
(b) insect
(c) merostomata
(d) Crustacea
Answer:
(c) merostomata

Question 70.
Ambulacral system is mainly useful for ………….
(a) locomotion
(b) feeding
(c) circulation
(d) defence
Answer:
(b) feeding

Question 71.
Which of the following is a excretory organ in mollusca?
(a) Keber’s organ
(b) nephridia
(c) Malpighian organ
(d) Flame cells
Answer:
(a) Keber’s organ

Question 72.
Mouth parts of housefly are ………….
(a) Piercing and sucking type
(b) Biting and sucking type
(c) Sponging and sucking type
(d) biting and chewing type
Answer:
(c) Sponging and sucking type

Question 73.
Anus is absent in
(a) Periplaneta
(b) Unio
(c) Fasciola
(d) Pheretima
Answer:
(c) Fasciola

Question 74.
Asymmetry in gastropoda is due to ………….
(a) twisting
(b) torsion
(c) coiling
(d) none of these
Answer:
(b) torsion

Question 75.
The pigment haemocyanin is found in ………….
(a) mollusca
(b) chordate
(c) echinodermata
(d) annelida
Answer:
(a) mollusca

Question 76.
The development of adult characteristics in a moulting insect is promoted by ………….
(a) pheromone
(b) thyroxine
(c) juvenile hormone
(d) ecdysone
Answer:
(d) ecdysone

Question 77.
If you are given an insect, a spider, a Peripatus and a crab, based on which character you can identify an arachnid from others?
(a) one pair of legs
(b) sense organs
(c) four pairs of legs
(d) number of wings
Answer:
(c) four pairs of legs

Question 78.
Choanocytes perform ………….
(a) reproduction
(b) nutrition
(c) discretion of spicules
(d) excretion
Answer:
(b) nutrition

Question 79.
Common characteristics of cockroach, housefly and mosquito are ………….
(a) one pair each of wings and halters
(b) three pairs of legs and one pair of developed wings
(c) two pair of legs and two compound eye
(d) compound and simple eyes
Answer:
(a) one pair each of wings and halters

Question 80.
The secondary host of Taenia is ………….
(a) snail
(b) pig
(c) man
(d) dog
Answer:
(b) pig

Question 81.
The exoskeleton of insect is made up of ………….
(a) pectin
(b) lignin
(c) chitin
(d) suberin
Answer:
(c) chitin

Question 82.
Collar cells are found in ………….
(a) aschelminthes
(b) cnidaria
(c) arthropoda
(d) sponges
Answer:
(d) sponges

Question 83.
Ommatidia are the units that constitute the compound eyes in …………. (AMU 1995).
(a) Fish ‘
(b) Insects
(c) Mammals
(d) Birds
Answer:
(b) Insects

Question 84.
Which of the following animals possesses ink gland?(AMU 2003)
(a) Blue Whale
(b) Scorpion
(c) Sea Urchin
(d) Cuttle Fish
Answer:
(d) Cuttle Fish

Question 85.
Comb plates are present in …………. (AMU 2004)
(a) echinoderms
(b) ctenophores
(c) annelids
(d) molluscs
Answer:
(b) ctenophores

Question 86.
Which of the following does not belong to phylum cnidaria?(AMU 2004)
(a) Sea pen
(b) Sea lily
(c) Sea-fan
(d) Sea anemone
Answer:
(b) Sea lily

Question 87.
Protonephridia are the excretory structures present in …………. (AMU 2005)
(a) Planaria
(b) Roundworm
(c) Tapeworm
(d) Prawn
Answer:
(a) Planaria

Question 88.
Which of the following is not an annelid? (AMU 2007)
(a) Leech
(b) Earthworm
(c) Sea mouse
(d) Sea cucumbers
Answer:
(d) Sea cucumbers

Question 89.
Blood worms are the larvae of …………. (AMU 2007)
(a) Hirudinaria
(b) Chironomus
(c) Limulus
(d) Daphnia
Answer:
(b) Chironomus

Question 90.
Pick the odd pair …………. (AMU 2008)
(a) Porifera : spicules
(b) Scyphozoan : coral reef
(c) Nematode : pseudocoelomate
(d) Cestoda : proglottid
Answer:
(b) Scyphozoan : coral reef

Question 91.
Insect metamorphosis having larval stage is called …………. (AFMC 1994)
(a) Incomplete metamorphosis
(b) Retrogressive metamorphosis
(c) Heteromorphosis
(d) Complete metamorphosis
Answer:
(d) Complete metamorphosis

Question 92.
Which of the following is not an insect? (AFMC 1996)
(a) Cockroach
(b) Spider
(c) Mosquito
(d) Bedbug
Answer:
(b) Spider

Question 93.
Which of the following enters intestine by penetrating through skin? (AFMC 2003)
(a) Hook worm
(b) Ascaris
(c) Pin worm
(d) Filarialworm
Answer:
(a) Hook worm

Question 94.
In nemathelminthes the coelom is not lined by peritoneum is …………. (AFMC 2004)
(a) acoelom
(b) pseudocoelom
(c) enterocoelom
(d) haemocoel
Answer:
(b) pseudocoelom

Question 95.
Leech secretes which of the following anticoagulant? (AFMC 2004)
(a) Hirudin
(b) Heparin
(c) Serotonin
(d) Histamine
Answer:
(a) Hirudin

Question 96.
Canal system in porifera is not concerned with …………. (AFMC 2005)
(a) respiration
(b) nutrition
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) none of these
Answer:
(c) sexual reproduction

Question 97.
Johnston’s organ is present in …………. (AFMC 2007)
(a) antenna of insect
(b) head of cockroach
(c) abdomen of housefly
(d) abdomen of spider
Answer:
(a) antenna of insect

Question 98.
Which of the following is not an arachnid? (AFMC 2007)
(a) Spider
(b) Itchmite
(c) Louse
(d) Tick
Answer:
(c) Louse

Question 99.
Fasciola hepatica is …………. (AFMC 2007)
(a) hermaphrodite self fertilizing
(b) hermaphrodite, cross fertilizing
(c) unisexual
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 100.
Match the excretory organs listed under column I with the animals given under column II. Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets of the column.

(a) A – q; B -1; C – s; D – r
(b) A = s ; B= q; C= p; D= t
(c) A -1; B – q; C – s; D – r .
(d) A = q; B = s ; C =t; D= p
Answer:
(a) A – q; B -1; C- s; D – r

Question 101.
Entomology is concerned with the study of ………….
(a) formation and properties of soil
(b) agricultural practices
(c) various aspects of human life
(d) various aspects of insects.
Answer:
(d) various aspects of insects.

Question 102.
Which phylum of the animal kingdom is exclusively marine? (Orissa 2003, 2006)
(a) Porifera
(b) Arthropoda
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Molluscs
Answer:
(c) Echinodermata

Question 103.
Study of ticks and mites is ………….
(a) Acarology
(b) Entomology
(c) Malacology
(d) Carcinology
Answer:
(a) Acarology

Question 104.
Larva of mosquito is ………….
(a) maggot
(b) caterpillar
(c) grub
(d) none of these
Answer:
(d) none of these

Question 105.
Transparent hairs on catkins and caterpillars function to?
(a) Trap heat
(b) Trap moisture
(c) Reflect light
(d) Drink water
Answer:
(b) Trap moisture

Question 106.
Which of the following traits is not the characteristic of echinodermata?
(a) Water vascular system
(b) Trochophore larva
(c) Aristotle’s lantern
(d) Radial and indeterminate cleavage
Ans.
(b) Trochophore larva

Question 107.
Which of the following is pseudocoelomate?
(a) Nematode
(b) Chordate
(c) Echinodermata
(d) Arthropoda
Answer:
(a) Nematode

Question 108.
Which is not correct for sponges?
(a) Internal fertilization
(b) External fertilization
(c) Gemmule formation
(d) Gametes are formed from epidemial cells.
Answer:
(b) External fertilization

Question 109.
Triploblastic, schizocoelic and unsegmented soft bodied animals belongs to the phylum ……….. (J&K 1998)
(a) annelid
(b) mollusca
(c) nemathelminthes
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) mollusca

Question 110.
Which one of the following animals belongs to the phylum cnidaria? (J&K 1998)
(a) Silver fish
(b) Squid
(c) Jelly fish
(d) Echidna
Answer:
(c) Jelly fish

Question 111.
Palaemon (prawn) is a …………. (J & K 2000)
(a) fish
(b) insect
(c) soft shell mollusca
(d) crustacean
Answer:
(d) crustacean

Question 112.
Tapeworm occurs as a parasite in …………. (J&K 2001)
(a) liver
(b) stomach
(c) intestine
(d) all of these
Answer:
(c) intestine

Question 113.
What distinguishes an insect from crustacean? (J&K 2002. 2005)
(a) number of eyes
(b) arrangement of nerve cords
(c) number of appendages
(d) presence of wings.
Answer:
(c) number of appendages

Question 114.
Leeches are usually …………. (J&k 2005)
(a) herbivorous
(b) insectivorous
(c) carnivorous
(d) sanguvorous
Answer:
(d) sanguvorous

Question 115.
Wuchereria bancrofti is a common filarial worm. It belongs to the phylum …………. (J&K 2007)
(a) Platyhelminthes
(b) Nemathelminthes
(c) Annelid
(d) Coelenterate
Answer:
(b) Nemathelminthes

Question 116.
The dioecius animal is …………. (J&K 2008)
(a) Liver fluke
(b) Aurelia
(c) Tapeworm
(d) Earthworm
Answer:
(b) Aurelia

Question 117.
Malpighian tiihuies remove excretory products from ………….
(a) Mouth
(b) Haemolymph
(c) Oesophagus
(d) Alimentary canal
Answer:
(b) Haemolymph

Question 118.
Which of the following cell type is capable of giving rise to other ccli types in sponges?
(a) Pinacocytes
(b) Archaeocytes
(c) Thesocytes
(d) Collencytes
Answer:
(b) Archaeocytes

Question 119.
The infective stage of Entarnoeba histolytica is ………….
(a) cyst
(b) spore
(c) egg
(d) trophozoite
Answer;
(d) trophozoite

Question 120.
Gonads of Obelia occur in ………….
(a) on blastocyst
(b) in hydrula stage
(c) radial canals of medusa
(d) bases of entacies of medusa
Answer:
(c) radial canals of medusa

Question 121.
Which one of the following features is common to leech, cockroach and scorpion?
(a) nephridia
(b) ventral nerve cord
(c) cephalization
(d) antennae
Answer:
(b) ventral nerve cord

Question 122.
Excretory organs of flatworms are ………….
(a) Malpighian tubules
(b) Neprons
(c) Protonephridia
(d) Nnepridia
Answer:
(c) Protonephridia

Question 123.
Sea cucumbers belong to class ………….
(a) Echinoidea
(b) Ilolothuroidea
(c) Ophiuroidea
(d) Asteroidean
Answer:
(b) Holothuroidea

Question 124.
One of the following is a very unique feature of the mammals …………. (PMT2004, DPMT 1996. 1998)
(a) Homeothermy
(b) Presence of diaphragam
(c) Four chambered heart
(d) Rib cage
Answer:
(b) Presence of diaphragam

Question 125.
Uricotelisum is found in …………. (PMT 2004)
(a) Mammals and birds
(b) Fishes and fresh water protozoans
(c) Birds, reptiles and insects
(d) Frogs and toads
Answer:
(c) Birds, reptiles and insects

Question 126.
Which one of the following characters is not typical of the class mammalian? (PMT 2004)
(a) Thecodont dentition
(b) Alveolar lungs
(C) Ten pairs of cranial nerves
(d) Seven cervical vertebrate
Answer:
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves

Question 127.
Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry? (PMT 2008)
(a) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
(b) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(c) Scales on their hind limbs
(d) Four – chambered heart
Answer:
(e) Scales on their hind limbs

Question 128.
Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises ‘Jawless fishes’? (PMT2009)
(a) Mackerals and rohu
(b) Lampreys and hag fishes
(c) Guppies and hag fishes
(d) Lampreys and eels
Answer:
(b) Lampreys and hag fishes

Question 129.
Camouflage of chameleon is associated with …………. (AIIMS 1995)
(a) Chromoplast
(b) Chromosome
(c) Chromatophore
(d) Chromomere
Answer:
(c) Chromatophore

Question 130.
In fast swimming fishes, propulsion is due to …………. (A1IMS 2000)
(a) Pelvic fin
(b) Pectoral fin
(c) Dorsal fin
(d) Caudal fin
Answer:
(d) Caudal fin

Question 131.
Body temperature of cold blooded animals …………. (AIIMS 2000)
(a) Is constant
(b) Fluctuates with surrounding temperature
(c) Becomes very low (a) times
(d) Is very cold
Answer:
(b) Fluctuates with surrounding temperature

Question 132.
Which of the following is an egg laying mammal? (AUMS 2001)
(a) Kangaroo
(b) Platypus
(c) Penguin
(d) Whale
Answer:
(b) Platypus

Question 133.
Which of the following are uricotelic animals? (AIIMS 2002)
(a) rohu and frog
(b) camel
(c) lizard and crow
(d) earthworm and eagle
Answer:
(c) lizard and crow

Question 134.
Which of the following does not come under the class mammals? (AIIMS 2007)
(a) flying fox
(b) hedgehog
(c) manatee
(d) lamprey
Answer:
(d) lamprey

Question 135.
Which of the following is concerned with the formation of urea in rabbit? (BHU 1994,2007)
(a) spleen
(b) kidney
(c) blood
(d) liver
Answer:
(d) liver

Question 136.
Lateral line is present in …………. (BHU 1996)
(a) dog fish
(b) jelly fish
(c) star fish
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) dog fish

Question 137.
The largest and heaviest mammals in the world is …………. (BHU 1994)
(a) blue whale
(b) elephant
(c) lion
(d) tiger
Answer:
(a) blue whale

Question 138.
Ichthyophis is a member of …………. (AIIMS 1997)
(a) amphibian
(b) mollusca
(c) reptilian
(d) annelid
Answer:
(a) amphibian

Question 139.
Renal portal system is absent in …………. (AIIMS 1998,2008)
(a) reptiles
(b) amphibians
(c) reptiles and amphibians
(d) birds
Answer:
(b) amphibian

Question 140.
Bone marrow is absent in …………. (AIIMS 2000)
(a) reptilian
(b) amphibian
(c) fishes
(d) birds
Answer:
(d) birds

Question 141.
Urea is formed in which organ of rabbit? (AIIMS 2001)
(a) liver
(b) kidney
(c) spleen
(d) lung
Answer:
(a) liver

Question 142.
Which of the following is not classified as amphibian? (AIIMS 2003)
(a) frog
(b) salamander
(c) tortoise
(d) ichthiophis
Answer:
(c) tortoise

Question 143.
The excretory material of bony fish is …………. (AIIMS 2004)
(a) urea
(b) protein
(c) ammonia
(d) amino acid
Answer:
(c) ammonia

Question 144.
Limbless amphibians belong to the order …………. (AIIMS 2007)
(a) anura
(b) urodela
(c) gymnophiona
(d) lissamphibia
Answer:
(c) gymnophiona

Question 145.
Which of the following snakes is non-poisonous?…………. (AIIMS 2007)
(a) cobra
(b) krait
(c) viper
(d) python
Answer:
(d) python

Question 146.
Placoid scales are found in …………. (AIIMS 2008)
(a) reptilia
(b) bony fishes
(c) cartilaginous fishes
(d) amphibians
Answer:
(c) cartilaginous fishes

Question 147.
Which of the following is a correct sequence of decreasing order of number of species? (AIIMS 2008)
(a) aves, pisces, reptiles, amphibians, mammals
(b) pisces, aves, reptiles, mammals, amphibians
(c) pisces, mammals, reptiles, amphibians, aves
(d) amphibians, aves, pisces, mammals, reptiles
Answer:
(b) pisces, aves, reptiles, mammals, amphibians

Question 148.
Excretory organ in Balanoglossus are …………. (DPMT 1991, 2008)
(a) nephridia
(b) antennary gland
(c) collar cord
(d) proboscis gland
Answer:
(d) proboscis gland

Question 149.
Reptiles share which of the following character with birds and mammals? (DPMT 1994)
(a) Amnion
(b) Homeothermy
(c) Diaphragm
(d) Hippie
Answer:
(a) Amnion

Question 150.
Cowper’s gland is present in …………. (DPMT 1996)
(a) Frog
(b) Earthworm
(c) Rabbit
(d) Cockroach
Answer:
(c) Rabbit

Question 151.
Which of the following pairs belong to the category of cold blooded animals? (DPMT 1998)
(a) bat & rat
(b) snakes & birds
(c) frog & snakes
(d) birds & monkey
Answer:
(c) frog & snakes

Question 152.
The character of birds without exception is …………. (UP-CPMT 1995)
(a) omnivorous
(b) beak without teeth
(c) flying wings
(d) lay eggs with calcareous shells
Answer:
(b) beak without teeth

Question 153.
Quill feathers (a) the base of quill wings are called …………. (UP-CPMT 1995)
(a) remiges
(b) coverts
(c) barbules
(d) down feathers
Answer:
(a) remiges

Question 154.
Which of the following pair of organisms are uricotelic? (UP-CPMT 2000)
(a) cartilaginous fishes and mammals
(b) reptiles and mammals
(c) birds and insects
(d) bony fishes and lizards
Answer:
(c) birds and insects

Question 155.
In the urinogenital organs of rabbit which one of following part is present in male but not in female? (UP-CPMT 2005)
(a) Urethra
(b) Fallopian tube
(c) Vagina
(d) Vas deferens
Answer:
(d) Vas deferens

Question 156.
Which one of the following features is present in some stage of the life history of all chordates? (UP-CPMT 2000)
(a) Blood flowing forward in dorsal blood vessel
(b) Pharyngeal gill slits
(c) A ventral hollow nerve cord
(d) Heart lying dorsally
Answer:
(b) Pharyngeal gill slits

Question 157.
Thoracic cage in rabbit is made up of …………. (UP-CPMT 2006)
(a) Ribs, vertebral column & diaphragm
(b) Ribs, diaphragm & sternum
(c) Vertebral column, diaphragm & sternum
(d) Ribs, vertebral column & sternum
Answer:
(d) Ribs, vertebral column & sternum

Question 158.
Which of the following has exoskeleton of scales and paired copulatory organ or penis? (UP-CPMT 2007)
(a) Sharks
(b) Lizards
(c) Urodela
(d) Urochordata
Answer:
(b) Lizards

Question 159.
Laterally compressed tail is found in ………….
(a) Fresh water snakes
(b) Terrestrial snakes
(c) Marine non-poisonous snakes
(d) Marine poisonous snakes
Answer:
(d) Marine poisonous snakes

Question 160.
Which of the following is characteristic feature of fishes?
(a) Tail and venous heart
(b) Epidermal scales and tail
(c) Venous heart and gills
(d) Epidcrmal scales and gills
Answer:
(c) Venous heart and gills

Question 161.
Similarity between fish and tadpole is ………….
(a) Scales
(b) Legs
(c) Lateral line
(d) Fins
Answer:
(c) Lateral line

Question 162.
Four-chambered heart is present in ………….
(a) frog
(b) crocodile
(c) shark
(d) lizard
Answer:
(b) crocodile

Question 163.
Right aortic arch is present in ………….
(a) reptiles only
(b) mammals only
(c) birds only
(d) both birds and mammals
Answer:
(c) birds only

Question 164.
Kidney of adult reptiles are …………. (AMU 1996)
(a) mesonephric
(b) metanephric
(c) pronephnc
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) metanephric

Question 165.
Marine fishes drink sea water to …………. (AMU 2001)
(a) meet their body salt requirements
(b) compensate loss of water from their body
(c) flush out nitrogenous wastes from their body
(d) achieve all of the above
Answer:
(d) achieve all of the above

Question 166.
In which of the following fishes the males have brood pouch, where eggs laid by the female remain till they hatch? (AMU 2002)
(a) Lung fish
(b) Climbing perch
(c) Salmon
(d) Sea horse
Answer:
(d) Sea horse

Question 167.
Match the names of branches of science listed under column-I with the field study given under column-II choose the choice which gives the correct combination of the alphabets …………. (AMU 2000)

(a) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r
(b) A – q, B – s , C – r, D – q
(c) A – s, B – q, C – p, D – r
(d) A – p, B – s, C – r, D – q
Answer:
(a) A – s, B – p, C – q, D – r

Question 168.
Identify the edible fresh water teleosts …………. (AMU 2001)
(a) Sharks
(b) Rays and skates
(c) Hilsa ilisha
(d) Catla catla
Answer:
(d) Catla catla

Question 169.
Turtles are …………. (AMU 2002)
(a) Pisces
(b) Reptiles
(c) Molluscans
(d) Arthropods
Answer:
(b) Reptiles

Question 170.
Harversian systems are found in the bones of …………. (AMU 2002)
(a) Pigeon
(b) Panther
(c) Pipe fish
(d) Python
Answer:
(b) Panther

Question 171.
Choose the correct combination of alphabets which matches the zoological names given under column I with their common names given under column-II

(a) A – F,B – G,C – E,D – H
(b) A – G,B – E,C – H,D – F
(c) A – F,B – E,C – H,D – G
(d) A – F,B – E,C – G,D – H
Answer:
(c) A – F,B – E,C – H,D – G

Question 172.
Which of the following statements is true? (AMU 2003)
(a) All chordates are vertebrates
(b) All vertebrates are chordates
(c) Invertebrates possess a tubular nerve cord
(d) Non-chordates have a vertebral column
Answer:
(b) All vertebrates are chordates

Question 173.
Choose the cat fish from the following. (AMU 2004)
(a) Cirrhina mriga / a
(b) Wa / logo atiti
(c) Lobeo rohita
(d) Catia calla
Answer:
(b) Wallago allu

Question 174.
A four chambered heart is not found in …………. (AMU 2004)
(a) Mammals
(b) Birds
(c) Snake
(d) Crocodile
Answer:
(c) Snake

Question 175.
Calotes versicolor is a …………. (AMU 1997)
(a) House lizard
(b) Rock lizard
(c) Garden lizard
(d) Flying lizard
Answer:
(c) Garden lizard

Question 176.
Scientific name of king cobra is …………. (AMU 2002)
(a) Naja naja
(b) Amphibians
(c) Naja Hannah
(d) Vipera russelli
Answer:
(c) Naja Hannah

Question 177.
Branch of zoology dealing with the study of amphibians and reptiles is called …………. (AMU 2003)
(a) Ichthyology
(b) Ornithology
(c) Herpetology
(d) Malacology
Answer:
(c) Herpetology

Question 178.
Adaptation of colour vision is found in …………. (AMU 2006)
(a) Mammals
(b) Aves
(c) Reptiles
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 179.
Epidemial scale is the characteristic feature of class reptilian, which of the following class is without epidermal scale? (AMU 2006)
(a) Fish
(b) Aves
(c) Mammals
(d) Amphibians
Answer:
(d) Amphibians

Question 180.
Duck-billed platypus is a connecting link between …………. (AMU 2007)
(a) Reptile and bird
(b) Living and non-living
(c) Reptile and mammal
(d) Echinodermata and chordate
Answer:
(c) Reptile and mammal

Question 181.
Which of the following is a egg laying mammal? (J&K 2005)
(a) Dolphin
(b) Platypus
(c) Whale
(d) Walrus
Answer:
(b) Platypus

Question 182.
In sharks, one of the following is absent …………. (J&K 2008)
(a) Claspers
(b) Placoid scales
(c) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
(d) Air bladder
Answer:
(d) Air bladder

Question 183.
Which one of the following animals belongs to cyclostomata? (J&K2008)
(a) Channa
(b) Loris
(c) Dodo
(d) Pertomyzon
Answer:
(d) Pertomyzon

Question 184.
Which of the following is dominant in desert?
(a) Lizard
(b) Tiger
(c) Leopard
(d) Hyla
Answer:
(a) Lizard

Question 185.
Two examples in which the nitrogenous wastes are excreted from body in the form of uric acid are ………….
(a) birds and lizards
(b) insects and bony fishes
(c) mammals and molluscs
(d) frogs and cartilaginous fishes
Answer:
(a) birds and lizards

Question 186.
The arrangement of ear ossicles in mammalian ear is ………….
(a) stapes, malleus, incus
(b) malleus, incus, stapes
(c) incus, malleus, stapes
(d) columella, inatleus, incus
Answer:
(b) malleus, incus, stapes

Question 187.
Snake has ………….
(a) movable eyelids
(b) immovable eyelids
(c) no cyclids
(d) eyelids in pouches
Answer:
(b) immovable eyelids

Question 188.
Which among these is correct combination of aquatic mammals? (NEET 2017)
(a) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
(b) Whales, Dolphin, Seals
(c) Trygon, Whales, Seals
(d) Seals, Dolphin, Sharks
Answer:
(b) Whales, Dolphin, Seals

Question 189.
In case of poriferance, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called …………. (NEET 2017)
(a) Oscula
(b) Coenocytes
(c) Mesenchymal cells
(d) Ostia
Answer:
(b) Coenocytes

Question 190.
Which is the National Aquatic animal of India? (NEET 2016)
(a) River Dolphin
(b) Blue whale
(c) Sca horse
(d) Gangetic shark
Answer:
(a) River Dolphin

Question 191.
An important characteristic that Hernichordates share with chordates is …………. (NEET2O17)
(a) Ventral tubular nerve chord
(b) Pharynx with gill slits
(c) Pharynx without gill slits
(d) Absence of notochord
Answer:
(a) Ventral tubular nerve chord

Samacheer Kalvi 11th Bio Zoology Kingdom Animalia  Additional Questions & Answers

Multiple Choice Question And Answer
Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which of the following has loose aggregates of cells without tissues?
(a) cnidarians
(b) flatworms
(c) sponges
(d) echinodenns
Answer:
(c) sponges

Question 2.
Which of the following has open type of circulation?
(a) frogs
(b) garden lizard
(c) man
(d) cockroach
Answer:
(d) cockroach

Question 3.
Which of the following is advantageous for the animals in locomotion, food capture etc.?
(a) asymmetrical
(b) radially symmetrical
(c) biradially symmetrical
(d) bilaterally symmetrical
Answer:
(d) bilaterally symmetrical

Question 4.
Which of the following restricts the free movement of internal organs?
(a) acoelom
(b) pseudocoelom
(c) schizocoelom
(d) enterocoelom
Answer:
(a) acoelom

Question 5.
Radiata include
(a) Diploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical animals
(b) Triploblastic and radially symmetrical animals
(c) Diploblastic and radially symmetrical animals
(d) Triploblastic and bilaterally symmetrical animals
Answer:
(c) Diploblastic and radially symmetrical animals.

Question 6.
The minute pores on the body of sponges are called
(a) oseuliem
(b) ostia
(c) choanocytes
(d) spongocoel
Answer:
(b) ostia

Question 7.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Polyp forms are free-living
(b) Medusa forms are sessile
(c) Medusa produces gametes
(d) Polyp reproduces sexually
Answer:
(c) Medusa produces gametes

Question 8.
Which of the following is the adaptation of flatworms for the endoparasitic mode of life?
(a) They are dorsoventrally flattened
(b) They have hooks, suckers or both
(c) Their body is not segmented
(d) They reproduce sexually
Answer:
(b) They have hooks, suckers or both

Question 9.
Sexual dimorphism is seen in –
(a) Sycon
(b) Hydra
(c) Liver flukes
(d) Ascaris
Answer:
(d) Ascaris

Question 10.
Which of the following shows metamerically segmented body?
(a) Aschelminthes
(b) Annelida
(c) Arthropoda
(d) Platyhelminthes
Answer:
(b) Annelida

Question 11.
Which of the following is the characteristic feature of the phylum Arthropoda?
(a) They have segmented legs
(b) They have collablasts for food capture
(c) They are end oparasites of animals
(d) They do not have chitinous exoskeleton
Answer:
(a) They have segmented legs

Question 12.
Which of the following is the rasping organ of molluscs found in the mouth?
(a) radula
(b) pallium
(c) misceral mass
(d) mantle
Answer;
(a) radula

Question 13.
Which of the following is bilaterally symmetrical in larval stages and radially symmetrical in adult?
(a) Molluscs
(b) Echinoderms
(c) Arthropods
(d) Annelids
Answer:
(b) Echinoderms

Question 14.
Which of the following has the anterior proboscis, collar and trunk?
(a) Ascidian
(b) Star fish
(c) Sea cucumber
(d) Balanoglossus
Answer:
(d) Balanoglossus

Question 15.
Urochordate means
(a) Chordates which have notochord in the head region
(b) Chordates which have notochord in the tail region of larval forms
(c) Chordates which have notochord in the tail region of adults
(d) Chordates which have no notochord
Answer:
(b) Chordates which have notochord in the tail region of larval forms.

Question 16.
Which of the following loses all the chordate characters in the adult stage?
(a) Cephalochordates
(b) Hemichordates
(c) Tunicates
(d) Chordates
Answer:
(c) Tunicates

Question 17.
Which of the following has cartilagenous endoskeleton with notochord?
(a) Exocoetus
(b) Labeo
(c) Hyla
(d) Scolidon
Answer:
(d) Scolidon

Question 18.
Which is the class of animals adapted for dual mode of life?
(a) Pisces
(b) Amphibia
(c) Reptilia
(d) Mammalia
Answer:
(b) Amphibia

Question 19.
Which of the following is the flight adaptation of birds?
(a) Pneumatic bones and strong flight muscles
(b) Homeothermic condition
(c) Migration to distant places
(d) Presence of homy covering on the beak
Answer:
(a) Pneumatic bones and strong flight muscles

Question 20.
Which of the following are truly terrestrial animals?
(a) Lung fishes
(b) Amphibians
(c) Mammals
(d) Reptiles
Answer:
(d) Reptiles

II Give Reasons
Question 1.
Closed type of circulation is advanced.
Answer:
Closed type of circulation is found in higher organisms like prochordates and vertebrates. The invertebrates have open type of circulation except annelids. The closed type of circulation is advanced because blood flows in blood vessels. There is a clear separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.

Question 2.
Pseudocoelomates are more advanced than acoelomates.
Answer:
Acoelomates do not have body cavity. Their body is solid and hence the movement of internal organs is restricted. Pseudocoelomates have pseudocoelomic fluid in the pseudocoelom. It acts as a hydrostatic skeleton and allows free movement of visceral organs and circulation of nutrients.

Question 3.
Sponges are primitive animals.
Answer:
Sponges have cellular grade of organisation. Tissues are not formed. The cells are loosely arranged. The division of labour is found among the group of cells.

Question 4.
Bioluminence is advantageous to ctenophores.
Answer:
Ctenophores are exclusively marine. They emit light. It helps the animals in finding food, mate and escape from the predators.

Question 5.
Tape worm and liver fluke are not destroyed by the digestive juices secreted by human beings.
Answer:
The body of helminth parasites is covered by a thick covering called tegument. This protects the worms. They have hooks, suckers or both for attachment.

Question 6.
All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.
Answer:
All Vertebrates have notochord during embryonic development. Later it is replaced by the vertebral column. But in lower chordates like prochordates, vertebral column is not present. They have only notochord in the adult or larval stage. Hence it is said that all vertebrates are chordates but all chordates do not have vertebrate characters

Answer the following

Questions 1.
Distinguish invertebrates and chordates.
Answer:
Invertebrates:

• The major group of animals which do not have notochord or vertebral column are Invertebrates.
• These are lower animals.

Chordates:

• The major group of animals which have notochord or vertebral column are chordates.
• These are higher animals.

Question 2.
Distinguish between invertebrates and vertebrates.
Answer:
Invertebrates:

• The major group of animals which do not have notochord or vertebral column are Invertebrates.
• These are lower animals.

Vertebrates:

• The major group of animals which have vertebral column are vertebrates
• These are higher animals.

Question 3.
What are choanocytes?
Answer:
The inner layer of sponges have a special type of cells called choanocytes. These flagellated collar cells create and maintain water flow through the sponge. It helps in respiration and digestion.

Question 4.
Distinguish between open type of circulation and closed type of circulation.
Answer:
Open Type of circulation:

• The circulation in which blood remains filled in tissue spaces is known as open type of circulation.
• This is seen in lower organisms, e.g. arthropods, molluscs echinoderms and urochordates.

Closed type of circulation:

• The circulation in which blood flows inside the blood vessels is known as closed type of circulation.
• This is seen in higher organisms, e.g. Annelids, cephalochordates and vertebrates.

Question 5.
Distinguish between Diploblastic animals and triploblastic animals.
Answer:
Diploblastic animals:

•  The animals in which the cells are arranged in two embryonic layers, the ectoderm and endoderm are called diploblastic animals.
• These are lower organisms, e.g. Cnidaria and ctenophora

Triploblastic animals:

• The animals in which the cells are arranged in three embryonic layers, the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are called triploblastic animals.
• These are higher organisms, e.g. Platyhelminthes to mammalia.

Question 6.
What are asymmetrical animals?
Answer:
The animals which lack a definite body plan and any plane passing through the center of the body does not divide them into two equal halves are known as asymmetrical animals, e.g. Sponges.

Question 7.
What is radial symmetry?
Answer:
When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides an organism into two identical parts, it is called radial symmetry, e.g. Cnidarian.

Question 8.
What is bilateral symmetry?
Answer:
The symmetry in which the animals have two similar halves on either side of the central place is bilateral symmetry, e.g. Flatworms and annelids.

Question 9.
What is biradial symmetry?
Answer:
The symmetry in which the animals have two planes of symmetry, longitudinal and sagittal axis and longitudinal and transverse axis is biradial symmetry, e.g. Ctenophores.

Question 10.
What are the advantages of bilateral symmetrical animals?
Answer:
The bilaterally symmetrical animals can seek food, locate mates, escape from predators and move more efficiently. These animals have dorsal ventral sides and anterior, posterior ends, right and left sides. They exhibit cephalization with sense organs and brain at the anterior end of the animal.

Question 11.
What are acoelomates?
Answer:
The animals which do not possess a body cavity are called acoelomates. The body is solid without perivisceral cavity. These have restricted free movement of internal organs, e.g. Flatworms.

Question 12.
What are pseudocoelomates?
Answer:
The animals which have the body cavity that is not fully lined by the mesodermal epithelium are called pseudocoelomates. The pseudocoel is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid. It acts as a hydrostatic skeleton and allows free movement of visceral organs and circulation of nutrients e.g. Roundworms.

Question 13.
What are eucoelomates?
Answer:
Eucoelomates are the animals which have true coelom that develops with the mesoderm and is lined by mesodermal epithelium called peritonium.

Question 14.
Distinguish between schizocoelomates and enterocoelomates
Answer:
Schizocoelomates:
In schizocoelometes, the body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm, e.g. Annelids, arthropods and molluscs.

Enterocoelomates:
In enterocoelomates, the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal pouches of archenteron. e.g. Echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 15.
Distinguish between parazoa and eunietazoa.
Answer:
Parazoa:
These include multicellular animals whose cells are loosely arranged without the formation of tissues or organs, e.g. Sponges

Eumetazoa:
These include multicellular animals with well defined tissues, organs and organ systems.

Question 16.
Distinguish between radiata and bilateria.
Answer:
Radiata:

• These include radially symmetrical animals.
• There are diploblastic e.g., Cnidarians and ctenophores

Bilateria:

• These include bilaterally symmetrical animals.
• There are triploblastic. e.g. Flat – worms

Question 17.
Distinguish between protostomia and deuterostomia.
Answer:
Protostomia:

• These include the eumetazoans in which embryonic blastopores develops into mouth.
• Acoelomata, pseudocoelomata and schizocoelomata are the three sub divisions of this division.

Deuterostomia:

• These include the cutnetazoans in which embryonic blastopore develops into anus.
• Enterocoelmata is the only one subdivision of this division.

Question 18.
What is canal system?
Answer:
The water transport system in sponges through which water enters through minute opores and goes out through the large opening called osculum. It helps in nutrition, circulation, respiration and excretion.

Question 19.
Distinguish between ostia and osculum.
Answer:
Ostia:

• The minute pores lining the body wall of sponges are called ostia.
• Water enters through ostia.

Osculum:

• The large opening in sponges is called osculum.
• Water goes out through osculum.

Question 20.
What spongocoel?
Answer:
The central cavity of the sponges is called spongocoel.

Question 21.
What are choanocytes?
Answer:
Choanocytes are the collar cells lining the spongocoel and the canals of sponges. These are helpful in creating water current in sponges.

Question 22.
Distinguish between asexual reproduction and sexual reproduction.
Answer:
Asexual Reproduction:

• The reproduction without involvement of gametes is called Asexual Reproduction.
• Zygote is not formed.

Sexual Reproduction:

• The reproduction with the involvement of gametes is called sexual reproduction.
• Zygote is formed by the process called fertilization.

Question 23.
Name the larvae of sponges.
Answer:
Parenchymula and amphiblastula.

Question 24.
What is indirect development?
Answer:
The development with different types of larval stages is called indirect development.

Question 25.
What is holozoic nutrition?
Answer:
The nutrition in which solid food materials are taken in by animals is called holozoic nutrition.

Question 26.
What are cnidocytes or cnidoblasts or nematocysts?
Answer:
The stinging cells found on the tentacles of cnidarians are called cnidocytes or cnidoblasts or nematocysts. They are useful for anchorage, defense and capturing prey.

Question 27.
What is coelenteron?
Answer:
The central visceral cavity of cnidarians is called coelenteron.

Question 28.
Distinguish between polyp and medusa.
Answer:
Polyp:

• The sessile body form of cnidarians is called polyp.
• It is the asexual generation

Medusa:

• The free living body form of cnidarians is called medusa.
• It is the asexual generation

Question 29.
What is metagenesis or Alternation of generation?
Answer:
The cnidarians exhibit sexual and asexual forms that alternate with each other. This is called metagenesis or Alternation of generation.

Question n 30.
Name the larva of cnidarians?
Answer:
Planula larva.

Question 31.
What are lasso cells or colloblasts?
Answer:
The special cells of ctenophores which helps in food capture are lasso cells or colloblasts.

Question 32.
Name the larva of ctenophores?
Answer:
Cydippid larva.

Question 33.
What are solanocytes?
Answer:
The specialized excretory cells of flatworms, flame cells are called solanocytes.

Question 34.
What are the larvae of flatworms?
Answer:
Miracidium, Sporocyst, redia, cercaria and metacercaria.

Question 35.
What is regeneration?
Answer:
The ability to regrow the lost parts is called regeneration, e.g. Planaria.

Question 36.
What is metamerism? –
Answer:
The body of annelids are divided into segments. This phenomenon is known as metamerism.

Question 37.
Name the respiratory pigments of annelids?
Answer:
Haemoglobin and chlorocruorin.

Question 38.
Name the larva of annelids.
Answer:
Trochophore larva.

Question 39.
What is moulting or ecdysis?
Answer:
The chitinous exoskeleton of arthropods is shed periodically. This process is known as moulting or ecdysis.

Question 40.
What are the respiratory organs of arthropods?
Answer:
Gills, Book gills, Book lungs and trachea.

Question 41.
Name the sensory organs of arthropods?
Answer:
Antennae, Simple and compound eyes and statocysts.

Question 42.
What are ctenidia?
Answer:
The feather like gills of molluscs are called ctenidia.

Question 43.
What is radula?
Answer:
The rasping organ found in the mouth of molluscs is called radula.

Question 44.
What is the function of ospharidium?
Answer:
Ospharidium are helpful to test the purity of water.

Question 45.
Name the respiratory pigment of molluscs.
Answer:
Haemocyanin, a copper containing pigment.

Question 46.
Name the larva of molluscs?
Answer:
Veliger larva.

Question 47.
What is water vascular system?
Answer:
The system which helps in nutrition and respiration in echinoderms is called water vascular system. Water enters into the body through special organs.

Question 48.
Name the larva of hemichordates?
Answer:
Tornaria larva.

Question 49.
What are urochordates?
Answer:
The chordates which have notochord only in the tail region of the larval stage are called urochordates e.g. Ascidian.

Question 50.
Distinguish between Agnatha and Gnathostomata.
Answer:
Agnatha:

• These include jawless fish-like aquatic vertebrates.
• They do not have paired appendages.

Gnathostomata:

• These include jawed vertebrates.
• They have paired appendages.

Question 51.
What are poikilothermic?
Answer:
The animals which change their body temperature according to the environment are called poikilothermic.

Question 52.
What is anadromous migration?
Answer:
The migration of marine fishes to fresh water body like rivers for spawning is known as anadromous migration.

Question 53.
Distinguish between oviparous and viviparous animals.
Answer:
Oviparous animals:

• The egg laying animals are known as oviparous animals.
• They lay eggs containing yolk for embryonic development e.g. birds.

Viviparous animals:

• The animals which give birth to young ones are called viviparous animals.
• The developing embryo derives nutrients from the parent, e.g. man

Question 54.
What are Ammonotelic animals?
Answer:
The animals which excrete ammonia dissolved in water are called ammonotelic animals. More water is spent, e.g. fishes.

Question 55.
What are ureotelic animals?
Answer:
The animals which excrete urea along with water are called ureotelic animals. Less water is spent e.g. man.

Question 56.
What are urecotelic animals?
Answer:
The animals which excrete uric acid in the form of pellets are called urecotelic animals. Very less water is spent e.g. birds.

Question 57.
Distinguish between hibernation and aestivation.
Answer:
Hibernation:

• The dormancy period for animals during winter is called hibernation.
• It is known as winter sleep.

Aestivation:

• The dormancy period for animals during summer is called Aestivation.
• It is know as summer sleep.

Question 58.
Distinguish between cleidoic eggs and non-cleidoic eggs.
Answer:
Cleidoic eggs:

• The eggs which have a thick and hard outermost shell are cleidoic eggs.
• This is a terrestrial adaptation, e.g., Reptiles and birds.

Non Cleidoic eggs:

• The eggs Which do not have a protective shell are non – Cleidoic eggs
• This is seen in aquatic animals, e.g., Fishes, amphibians.

Question 59.
What is rhamphotheca?
Answer:
The homy covering on the beak of birds is called rhamphotheca.

Question 60.
Name some flightless birds.
Answer:
Ostrich, kiwi and penguin.

Question 61.
Distinguish between poikilothermic and homeothermic.
Answer:
Poikilothermic:

• The animals which change their body temperature according to the environment are called poikilothermic animals.
• These cold blooded animals, e.g., fishes, amphibians and reptiles.

Homeothermic:

• The animals which maintain constant body temperature irrespective of environmental changes are called homeothermic animals.
• These are warm blooded animals, e.g., birds and mammals.

Question 62.
Explain various patterns of organisation in animals.
Answer:
Animals exhibit different patterns of organisation:
Cellular level of organisation :

• Cells are loosely arranged without the formation of tissues.
• There is division of labour among the cells, e.g., sponges.

Tissue level of organisation :

• Cells which perform similar function are grouped into tissues.
• The tissues perform a common function, e.g., cnidarians.

Organ level of organisation :
Different kinds of tissues aggregate to form an organ to perform a specific function e.g., flatworms and other hyper phyla.

Organ system level of organisation :

• The tissues are organised to form organs and organ systems.
• All the organ system function in a coordinated manner.

Question 63.
Explain symmetry in animals.
Answer:
Symmetry is the body arrangement in which parts lie on opposite side of the axis are identical. If the animals lack a definite body plane or irregular shaped and any plane passing through the center of the body does not divide them into two equal halves, these are known as asymmetrical, e.g., sponges, adult gastropods.

When any plane passing through the central axis of the body divides an organism into two equal parts, it is known as radial symmetry. They have a top and bottom side, e.g., cnidarians. Echinoderms have five planes of symmetry and show pentamerous radial symmetry. Animals which have two pairs of symmetrical sides are biradially symmetrical. Animal which have two similar halves on either side of the control plane show bilateral symmetry.

Question 64.
Classify animals based on coelom.
Answer:
The cavity between the body wall and the gut wall is called coelom. If the animals do not have coelom, they are called acoelomates. e.g., flatworms. In some animals, the body cavity is not fully lined by the mesodermal epithelium. The mesoderm is formed as scattered pouches between the ectoderm and endoderm. Such a body cavity is called a pseudocoel. The animals which have pseudocoel e.g. round worms.

If the coelom develops within the mesoderm and is lined by mesodermal epithelium it is called eucoelom. The animals which have true coelom are called eucoelomates. If the body cavity is formed by splitting of mesoderm, the animals are called schizocoelomates e.g., Annelids, arthropods and molluscs. If the body cavity is formed from the mesodermal ‘ pouches of archenteron, the animals are called enterocoelomate animals, e.g., echinoderms, hemichordates and chordates.

Question 65.
Classify the animal kingdom.
Answer:

Question 66.
Write the general characters of the phylum porifera.
Answer:

• They are aquatic, asymmetrical.
• They have pores all over the body.
• They are multicellular with cellular level of organisation. Tissues are not formed.
• They have canal system for circulation of water.
• They have skeleton made of calcareous or siliceous spicules.
• Nutrition is holozoic and digestion intracellular.
• Asexual reproduction by fragmentation and gemmule formation.
• Indirect development with parenchymula and amphiblastula larvae, e.g., Sycon and Spongilla.

Question 67.
Write the general characters of the phylum cnidaria.
Answer:

• The cnidaria are aquatic, radially symmetrical and diploblastic.
• The tentacles have stinging cells called cnidocytes or cnidoblasts or nematocysts.
• They exhibit tissue level of organisation.
• They have a central gastrovascular cavity called coelenderon.
• Digestion is by both extracellular and intracellular.
• Alternation of generation is seen in cnidarians which have polyp and medusa forms.
• Development is indirect with planula larva e.g. Physalia.

Question 68.
Write the general characters of the phylum ctenophora.
Answer:

• The animals are marine, diploblastic and radially symmetrical.
• They have eight external rows of ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion.
• Bioluminescence is seen.
• They lack nematocysts but have lasso cells which help in food capture.
• Digestion is by both extracellular and intracellular.
• Sexual reproduction is seen.
• Fertilization is external and development is indirect.
• Cydippid larva is seen, e.g., Pleurobrachia.

Question 69.
Write the general characters of flatworms.
Answer:

• The flatworms are flat, bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic animals.
• These are acoelomates with organ system level of organisation.
• They are endoparasites. They have hooks or suckers or both.
• They show pseudosegmentation.
• Flame cells or solanocytes are the excretory cells.
• Sexes are not separate.
• Fertilization is internal. Development is indirect with many larval stages like miracidium sporocyst, redia, cercaria and metacercaria. e.g., Taenia and liver fluke.

Question 70.
Write the general characters of the phylum aschelminthes.
Answer:

• The body of these worms is circular.
• They are free living or parasite.
• They are triploblastic, pseudocoelomates with organ system level of organisation.
• Body is covered by cuticle.
• Digestive system is complete with mouth, pharynx and anus.
• Excretory system consists of rennet glands.
• Sexes are separate. Sexual dimorphism is seen.
• Fertilization is internal.
• Development may be direct or indirect, e.g., Ascaris.

Question 71.
Write the general characters of the phylum annelida.
Answer:

• They are aquatic or terrestrials, free living or parasitic.
• They are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, schizocoelomates with organ system level of organisation.
• The body is metamerically segmented.
• Longitudinal and circular muscles help in locomotion.
• Closed type of circulation is seen.
• Respiratory pigments are present.
• Sexual reproduction is seen. Development is direct or indirect with a trochophore larva e.g., earthworm.

Question 72.
Write the general characters of the phylum arthropoda.
Answer:

• These are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, schizocoelomate, segmented animals.
• They have organ system grade of organisation.
• They have jointed appendages.
• Body is covered by chitinous exoskeleton. Body is divided into head, thorax and abdomen.
• Body cavity is filled with colourless blood. It is called haemocoel.
• Respiratory organs are gills, book gills, book lungs, trachea.
• Open type circulation is seen.
• Sense organs are present.
• Fertilization is internal, e.g., Limulus and insects.

Question 73.
Write the general characters of the phylum mollusca.
Answer:

• Molluscs are terrestrial or aquatic with organ system level of organisation.
• They are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate animals.
• Body is divided into head, foot and visceral hump.
• The digestive system is complete.
• Nephridia are the excretory organs.
• Open type of circulatory system is seen.
• Blood contains copper containing respiratory pigment called hemocyanin.
• They are oviparous.
• Development is indirect with a veliger larva, e.g., Pila and Octopus.

Question 74.
Write the general characters of the phylum echinodermata.
Answer:

• The adults are radially symmetrical but the larvae are bilaterally symmetrical.
• They have mesodermal endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles called spines.
• Water vascular system is present.
• Tube feet are the organs of locomotion, respiration and capture of food.
• The digestive system is complete with mouth on the ventral side and anus on the dorsal side.
• Excretory organ are absent.
• Open type of circulatory system is present.
• Reproduction is by sexual method.
• Fertilization is external.
• Indirect development with bilaterally symmetrical larval forms, e.g., starfish.

Question 75.
Write the general characters of hemichordata.
Answer:

• The Hemichordates have both invertebrate and vertebrate characters.
• They are worm like, tubiculous animals.
• They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic coelomate animals with organ system level of organisation.
• The body is divided into proboscis, collar and trunk.
• They are ciliary feeders.
• Circulatory system is simple and open.
• Excretion is by a single proboscis gland or glomerulus situated in the proboscis.
• Sexes are separate.
• Fertilization is external.
• Development is indirect with tomaria larva, e.g., Balanoglossus.

Question 76.
Write the general characters of urochordates or tunicates.
Answer:

• They are marine, sessile, pelagic or free swimming.
• Body is unsegmented and covered by a test or tunic.
• Ault forms are sac like.
• Coelom is absent.
• Notochord is present only in the tail region of the larval stage.
• Heart is ventral and tubular.
• Nerve cord is present only in the larval stage.
• They are hermaphrodites and development is indirect with a free swimming tadpole larva.
• Retrogressive metamorphosis is seen e.g. Ascidia.

Question 77.
Write the general characters of cephalochordates.
Answer:

• They are marine found in shallow waters.
• They lead a burrowing mode of life.
• They are fish like with notochord, nerve cord and pharyngeal gill slits throughout their life.
• Closed type of circulatory system is seen without heart.
• Excretion is by protonephridia.
• Sexes are separate.
• Fertilization is external.
• Development is indirect with a larva e.g. Amphioxus.

Question 78.
Write the general character of the subphylum vertebrata.
Answer:

• The vertebrates have notochord during embryonic stage. In adult, it is replaced by vertebral column. ,
• They have paired appendages.
• The skin is covered by protective skeleton like scales, feathers, hairs, claws, nails etc.
• Respiration is by gills, skin, buccopharyngeal cavity and lungs.
• They have a ventral heart with two, or three or four chambers.

Question 79.
Classify the subphylum Vertebrata.
Answer:

Question 80.
Write the general characters of the class Cyclostomata.
Answer:

• They are primitive, poikilothermic, jawless aquatic vertebrates.
• Body is slender and eel-like with six to fifteen pairs of gill slips.
• Mouth is circular without jaws and suctorial.
• Heart is two chambered. Closed types of circulation is seen.
• No paired appendages.
• Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous, e.g. Petromyzon.

Question 81.
Write the general characters of the class chondrichthyes.
Answer:

• They are cartilaginous marine fishes. .
• Notochord is persistent throughout life.
• The skin is covered by dermal placoid. scales.
• Caudal fin is heterocercal.
• Jaws are powerful.
• Respiration is by lamelliform gills without operculum.
• Mesonephric kidneys are present.
• They have two chambered heart.
• They are ureotelic.
• They are poikilothermic and viviparous.
• Sexes are separate and fertilization is internal, e.g., Scoliodon.

Question 82.
Write the general characters of the class osteichthyes.
Answer:

• They are marine or freshwater fishes.
• They have bony endoskeleton.
• The body is spindle-shaped.
• The skin is covered by ganoid, cycloid or ctenoid scales.
• Respiration is by four pairs of gills covered by operculum.
• Air bladder is present which helps in gaseous exchange (lung fishes) for maintaining buoyancy.
• They have two chambered heart.
• They have mesonephric kidneys and ammonotelic.
• Lateral line sense organ is present.
• External fertilization is seen and most forms are oviparous e.g. Labeo and Catla.

Question 83.
Write the general characters of the class Amphibia.
Answer:
Amphibians are adapted to live both in water and on land.

• They are poikilothermic.
• The body is divisible into head and trunk.
• They have two pairs of limbs.
• The skin is smooth or rough, moist, pigmented and glandular.
• Eyes have eyelids.
• Respiration is by gills, lungs and through the skin.
• Heart is three chambered.
• Kidneys are mesonephric and ureotelic.
• Sexes are separate and fertilization is external.
• They are oviparous and development is indirect, e.g. Bufo and Rana.

Question 84.
Write the general characters of the class Reptilia.
Answer:

• They are mostly terrestrial.
• The body is covered by dry and comified skin with scales.
• They have three chambered heart.
• They are poikilothermic.
• They are oviparous and they lay cleidoic eggs.
• They have metanephric kidney and are uricotelic.
• Fertilization is internal, e.g. Chelone and Chameleon.

Question 85.
Write the general characters of the class Aves.
Answer:

• They have feathers on the body.
• The forelimbs are modified into wings. The hind limbs are adapted for walking, running, swimming and perching.
• The skin has oil gland.
• The exoskeleton consists of feathers, scales, claws on legs.
• The bones are pneumatic.
• Respiration is by lungs with air sacs.
• The heart is four chambered with right systemic arch.
• They are homeothermic.
• Migration and parental care are seen.
• Urinary bladder is absent.
• Females have only left ovary.
• They are oviparous. The eggs are cleidoic.

Question 86.
Write the general characters of the class Mammalia.
Answer:

• The body is covered by hairs.
• They have mammary glands.
• They have two pairs of limbs adapted for walking, running, climbing, burrowing, swimming and flying.
• The skin has sweat glands, scent glands and sebaceous glands.
• Exoskeleton includes homy epidermal horns, spines, claws, nails, hooves and bony dermal plates.
• They have thecodont, heterodont and diphyodont teeth.
• External ears or pinnae are present.
• Heart is four chambered with left systemic arch.
• RBCs are non-nucleated.
• They have metanephric kidneys and they are ureotelic.
• They are homeothermic.
• Sexes are separate and fertilization is internal e.g. Platypus, kangaroo, elephants and man.

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