Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Development Of Industries In India 8th Standard Question 1.
Which of the following activities of the people will not come under handy craft?
(a) Carving statues out of stone
(b) Making bangles with glass
(c) Weaving silk sarees
(d) Smelting of iron
Answer:
(d) Smelting of Iron

Question 2.
The oldest industry in India was ……….. industry.
(a) Textile
(b) Steel
(c) Electrical
(d) Fertilizers
Answer:
(a) Textile

Question 3.
The woolen and leather factories became prominent in …………
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmadabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Decca
Answer:
(c) Kanpur

Question 4.
What was the aim of first Three Five year Plans of India?
(a) To control population growth
(b) To reduce illiteracy rate
(c) To built a strong industrial base
(d) To empower the women
Answer:
(c) To built a strong industrial base

Question 5.
What was not the reason for the decline of Indian Industries?
(a) Loss of royal patronage
(b) Competition of machine made goods
(c) Industrial policy of India
(d) Trading policy of British
Answer:
(c) Industrial policy of India

II. Fill in the Blanks

  1. ……….. was the integral part in the life of the people.
  2. Industrial revolution took place in …………
  3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in ………………
  4. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly Valley at ………. near Calcutta.
  5. ………… shortened the distance between Europe and India.

Answer:

  1. Craft
  2. 1948
  3. 1939
  4. Rishra
  5. Suez Canal

III. Match the following

  1. Tavernier – Drain Theory
  2. Dacca – Paper mill
  3. Dadabai Naoroji – Artisan
  4. Ballygunj – Muslin
  5. Smiths – French traveller

Answer:

  1. Tavernier – French traveller
  2. Dacca – Muslin
  3. Dadabai Naoroji – Drain Theory
  4. Ballygunj – Paper mill
  5. Smiths – Artisan

IV. State True or False

  1. India was famous for cotton and silk cloths.
  2. The railway was introduced in India by the British.
  3. Steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Jamshedpur.
  4. The industrial policy of 1948, brought mixed economy in industrial sector.
  5. The tenth and eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of Agricultural production.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True
  5. False

V. Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) According to Edward Baines, ‘The birth place of cotton manufacture is in England’.
(ii) Before mechanised industry handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in rural India.
(iii) Saurashtra was known for tin industry.
(iv) Construction of Suez Canal made the British goods cheaper in India.

(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii and iv are correct
(c) iii and iv are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answer:
(b) ii and iv are correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian handicrafts collapsed under the colonial rule.
Reason (R) : British made India as the producer of raw materials and markets for their finished products.
(a) A is correct R is correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R is correct
(d) Both A and R is wrong
Answer:
(c) Both A and R is correct

Question 3.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(a) Bernier – Shajahan
(b) Cotton mill – Ahmedabad
(c) TISCO – Jamshedpur
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980
Answer:
(d) Economic Liberalisation – 1980

VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences

Question 1.
What are the traditional handicrafts industries of India?
Answer:

  1. The traditional handicrafts industries of India are textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
  2. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils.

Question 2.
Write about the Drain theory.
Answer:
The Drain theory of Dadabai Naoroji was the first to acknowledge that the poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to Britain.

Question 3.
Name the inventions which made the production of textiles on large scale?
Answer:
The invention of cotton gin, flying shuttle, spinning jenny and steam engine in England, which made the production of textiles on large scale.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Confederation of Indian Industry.
Answer:

  1. The Confederation of Indian Industry is a business association in India.
  2. CIT is a non – Govemment, not – for – profit, industry – led and industry – managed organisation.
  3. It was founded in 1985.

Question 5.
What is de – industrialisation?
Answer:
The process of disruption of traditional Indian crafts and decline in national income has been referred to as de – industrialisation.

VII. Answer the following

Question 1.
How was the trading policy of British caused for the decline of the Indian Industries?
Answer:

  1. All the policies implemented by the British government in India had a deep impact on India’s indigenous industries.
  2. Free trade policy followed by the East India Company compelled the Indian traders to sell their goods below the market prices.
  3. This forced many craftsmen to abandon their ancestral handicraft talents.
  4. East India company’s aim was to buy the maximum quantity of Indian manufactured goods at the cheapest price and sell them to other European countries for a huge profit.
  5. This affected the traditional Indian industry.
  6. The British followed the policy of protective tariffs that was much against the trading interests of India.
  7. Heavy duties were charged on Indian goods in Britain, but at the same time, the English goods entering India were charged only nominal duties.

Question 2.
Write in detail about the plantation industries.
Answer:
Plantation industries :

  1. The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans. This provide jobs on large scale.
  2. In reality, it could meet the increasing demands for tea, coffee and indigo by the British Society.
  3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1839.
  4. Coffee plantation also started simultaneously.
  5. As the tea plantation was the most important industry of Eastern India, coffee plantation became the center of activities in South India.
  6. The Third important plantation, which gave birth to factory was jute.
  7. All these Industries were controlled by many former employees of the British East India Company.

Question 3.
Explain Industrial development after 1991 reforms.
Answer:

  1. The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
  2. India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
  3. The Tenth and Eleventh five year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
  4. The abolition of Industrial licensing, dismantling of price controls, dilution of reservation of small scale industries.
  5. Virtual abolition of monopoly law enabled Indian industry to flourish,
  6. The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

VII. HOTs

Question 1.
How do handicraft products differ from machine made products?
Answer:
Handicraft:
Something you make with your own hands, especially an ornament or decoration, is a handicraft. Instead, items made by artisans like pottery, handwoven blankets, handmade jewellery and quilts stitched by hand are all examples of handicrafts.

Machine made Products:
Machine made Products are produced faster and all are exactly the same. Machine manufacturing is faster and more economical. Also machine made goods are cheaper than hand made goods.

IX. Mark the following places on the outline map of India

1. Bombay
2. Calcutta
3. Dacca
4. Jamshedpur
5. Rishra
6. Ahmedabad
7. Kanpur
8. Kulti
9. New Delhi
10. Assam
Answer:
Development Of Industries In India 8th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2

X. Project and Activity

Question 1.
Name the industries in your state and divide them into Agro based metal based and forest based.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India 2

Question 2.
Prepare a project on air, water, and land pollution due to the industrial development in India.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
Make a power point presentation on the industrial development of India and highlight the main features of those developments.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Development of Industries in India Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
The ………….. in India has a rich history.
(a) Craft
(b) Steel
(c) Agricultural
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Craft

Question 2.
Saurashtra was known for ………………
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Bell Metal
(c) Muslin Clothes
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Bell Metal

Question 3.
Dacca was identified with ………….
(a) Tin Industry
(b) Muslin Clothes
(c) Bell Metal
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Muslin Clothes

Question 4.
The Tradition Indian Industry was known in the fields of …………..
(a) textiles
(b) woodwork
(c) ivory
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 5.
Mummies in …………. tombs dating from 2000 BC were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
(a) Egyptian
(b) British
(c) Spanish
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Egyptian

Question 6.
A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a …………..
(a) dress
(b) matchbox
(c) tin
(d) all the above
Answer:
(b) match box

Question 7.
………… industry was the oldest industry in India.
(a) Steel
(b) Jute
(c) Textile
(d) Sugar
Answer:
(c) Textile

Question 8.
Poverty of the Indian people was due to the British exploitation of India’s resources and the drain of India’s wealth to …………
(a) England
(b) Britain
(c) Egyptian
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Britain

Question 9.
Free trade policy followed by the ………….
(a) India
(b) England
(c) East India Company
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(c) East India Company

Question 10.
The process of Industrialization started in India from the mid ………..
(a) 18th Century
(b) 19th Century
(c) 20th Century
(d) 21st Century
Answer:
(c) 20th Century

Question 11.
The beginning of modern industry is associated with the development in mainly plantation like …………
(a) jute
(b) cotton
(c) steel
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 12.
The ……….. was the first to attract the Europeans.
(a) Machine based Industries
(b) Plantation Industries
(c) Heavy Industries
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Plantation Industries

Question 13.
The Assam Tea Company was founded in ……………
(a) 1839
(b) 1939
(c) 1739
(d) 1840
Answer:
(a) 1839

Question 14.
The Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) was setup in …………..
(a) 1905
(b) 1906
(c) 1907
(d) 1908
Answer:
(c) 1907

Question 15.
In India, Modern Industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry at ……….. in 1854.
(a) Madras
(b) Calcutta
(c) Delhi
(d) Bombay
Answer:
(d) Bombay

Question 16.
The First Paper Mill was started in …………. near Calcutta in 1870.
(a) Ballygunj
(b) Rishra
(c) Kanpur
(d) Jamshedji
Answer:
(a) Ballygunj

Question 17.
Steel was First manufactured by modern methods at Kulti in ………….
(a) 1843
(b) 1874
(c) 1865
(d) 1878
Answer:
(b) 1874

Question 18.
The year 1991 undered a new era of the ……………..
(a) Modernisation
(b) Industrialization
(c) Economic liberalisation
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Economic liberalisation

Question 9.
The New Policy welcomes ……………
(a) Craft
(b) Foreign Investment
(c) Agriculture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Foreign Investment

Question 20.
………….. is an important component of economic growth.
(a) Modernisation
(b) Privatisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Industrialisation
Answer:
(d) Industrialisation

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. ………….. industry was started in Hoogly valley at Rishra near Culcutta
  2. The …………. and ………… factories become prominent in Kanpur.
  3. The ………… tea company was founded in 1939.
  4. The steel was first manufactured by modern methods at ………..
  5. ………… for tin industry.
  6. The Second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture is ……….
  7. The British conquest transformed Indian economy (self-reliant) into ………economy.
  8. The accelerated industrialization began with the development of ……….. and ……………
  9. The length of ………….. increased from 2,573 Km in 1861 to 55,773 Km in 1914.
  10. ………….. mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
  11. The heavy industries included the ……….. and ……….. industry.
  12. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of ………. century.
  13. Industrial Policy Resolution 1956, industries were classified into ………. categories.
  14. ………….. skills were short in supply.
  15. Very important aim of the first three five year plans were ……………. India.
  16. A new era of the economic liberalization in …………..
  17. The …………. policy welcomes foreign investments.
  18. …………. has now a large verity of industries producing goods of varied nature
  19. Give example for primary sector ……….
  20. There was a limited development of mining, especially …………

Answer:

  1. Jutej
  2. Wollen and leather
  3. Assam
  4. Jamshedpui
  5. Vanga
  6. Handicrafts
  7. colonial
  8. roadways and railways
  9. railways
  10. Cotton
  11. Iron and Steel
  12. 20th Century
  13. Three
  14. Technical
  15. Strong Industrial
  16. 1991
  17. New
  18. India
  19. agriculture
  20. coal

III. Match the following:

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science History Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Development of Industries in India 3

  1. b
  2. a
  3. d
  4. c
  5. f
  6. c

IV. State True or False:

  1. Jute industry was started in the Hoogly ally at Rishra near Punjab.
  2. Suez canal shortened the distance between Europe and India.
  3. The Assam Tea Company was founded in 1939.
  4. The expand form of TISCO – True Iron and Steel Company.
  5. Cotton Mills were opened in Bombay and Ahmadabad.
  6. India was famous for its quality of cotton and silk clothes.
  7. Saurashtra was known for Dacca.
  8. Vanga was known for tin industry.
  9. India become the market for the finished products of Britain.
  10. During the first half of 19th Century western countries were industrialization.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True
  7. False
  8. True
  9. True
  10. True

V. Consider the following statements and Tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
(ii) Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.
(iii) The process of industrialization started In India from the mid-18’ century.
(iv) The plantation industry was the first to attract the Europeans.

(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(b) (i), (iii) & (iv) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) & (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Assertion (A) : Indian became the market for the finished products of Britain.
Reason (R) : The British conquest transformed Indian Economy (self-reliant) into colonial economy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Shajahan – Jamshedpur
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry
(c) TISCO – Bernier
(D) 1991 – New Agricultural Policy
Answer:
(b) Bombay – First Textile Industry

Question 4.
Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
a) Paper Mill – Muslin
(b) Smiths – Artisan
(c) Drain Theory – The British exploitation of India’s resources
(d) De – industrialisation – 19th Century
Answer:
(a) Paper Mill – Muslin

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
Write a short note on industrial development during 1965 – 1980.
Answer:

  1. As the first three five year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
  2. The consumer goods sector is the backbone of rural economy.
  3. As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

Question 2.
Classify the Industries on the basis of raw material.
Solution:
On the basis of raw material used, industries can be classified into –

  1. Agro – based Industries
  2. Mineral – based Industries

Question 3.
When and where was the first paper mill started?
Answer:
The first paper mill was started in Ballygunj near Calcutta in 1870.

Question 4.
Write any two machine based industries started in India.
Answer:

  1. In India modern industrial sector in an organised form started with the establishment of cotton textile industry in Bombay in 1854.
  2. In 1855, Jute industry was started in the hooghly valley at Rishra near Calcutta.

Question 5.
Write about the Muslin of Dacca.
Answer:

  1. Mummies in Egyptian tombs dating from 2000 BC (BCE) were found wrapped in Indian muslins of the finest quality.
  2. A 50 meters of this thin fabric could be squeezed into a match box.

Question 6.
What happen to Indian handicrafts under the colonical rule?
Answer:
Indian handicrafts that had made the country famous collapsed under the colonical rule.

Question 7.
Which is an important component of economic growth?
Answer:

  1. Industrialization is an important component of economic growth.
  2. India’s industrial expansion over the plan period presents a mixed picture.

Question 8.
Write about Indian road network.
Answer:

  1. The Indian road network has become one of the largest in the world.
  2. Government efforts led to the expansion of the network of National Highways, State highways and major district roads, which in turn has directly contributed to industrial growth.

Question 9.
Classify the Industries oh the basis of ownership?
Answer:
On the basis of ownership it can be classified into –

  1. Public Sector
  2. Private Sector
  3. Joint Sector and
  4. Co – operative Sector

Question 10.
What are the specialized goods produced by the Traditional Crafts?
Answer:
Some specialized goods produced by the traditional crafts are:

  1. Cotton textiles
  2. Muslin
  3. Wool
  4. Silk and
  5. Metal articles

VII Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Explain the phases of Industrial development in India.
Answer:
1. Industrial development during 1950’s to 1965:

  • During this phase, a majority of consumer goods were produced in India.
  • The Industrial sector was underdeveloped with weak infrastructure.
  • The first three Five-Year plans were very important because their aim was to build a strong industrial base in independent India.

2. Industrial development during 1965’s – 1980:

  • As the first three Five-year plans mostly focused on the development of the capital goods sector, the consumer goods sector was neglected.
  • The consumer goods sector is the beck bone of rural economy.
  • As a result, there was a fall in the growth rate of industrial production.

3. Industrial development during 1980’s till 1991:

  • The period of the 1980’s can be considered as the period of the industrial recovery.
  • This period witnessed quite a healthy industrial growth.

4. Industrial development post 1991 Reforms:

  • The year 1991 ushered a new era of the economic liberalization.
  • India took major decision to improve the performance of the industrial sector.
  • The Tenth and Eleventh Five-year plans witnessed a high growth rate of industrial production.
  • The new policy welcomes foreign investments.

Question 2.
Discuss about the Traditional Crafts of India.
Answer:

  1. The Crafts in India has a rich history. Crafts were an integral part in the life of the people.
  2. Before arrival mechanized industry, the production of Indian handicrafts was the second largest source of employment in Rural India next to agriculture.
  3. The traditional Indian industry was known in the fields of textiles, woodwork, ivory, stone cutting, leather, fragrance wood, metal work and jewellery.
  4. The village artisans such as potters, weavers, smiths produced articles and utensils for domestic use.
  5. Some specialized goods were produced for cotton textiles, muslin, wool, silk and metal articles.
  6. India was famous for its fine quality of cotton and silk clothes.
  7. There are references made in many scholarly works to the professions of the weaver, the tailor and the dyer.
  8. Certain centers of metal industry well quite well known.
  9. For example, Saurashtra was known for bell metal, Vanga for tin industry and Dacca was identified with muslin clothes.

Question 3.
Write in detail about the Heavy Industries.
Answer:

  1. The heavy industries included the iron and steel industry, steel was first manufactured by modem methods at Kulti in 1874.
  2. Iron and steel industries began rooted in the Indian soil in the beginning of 20th century.
  3. However, the credit for the development of large-scale manufacture of steel in India goes to Jamshedji Tata.
  4. The Tata Iron and steel company (TISCO) was setup in 1907 at Jamshedpur,
  5. It started producing pig iron in 1911 and steel ingots in 1912.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Air Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Air Lesson Question 1.
Which of the following is true about oxygen?
(a) Completely burning gas
(b) Partially burning gas
(c) Doesn’t support burning
(d) Supports burning
Answer:
(d) Supports burning

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 2.
Aerated water contains –
(a) air
(b) oxygen
(c) carbon dioxide
(d) nitrogen
Answer:
(c) carbon dioxide

Question 3.
Solvay process is a method to manufacture –
(a) lime water
(b) aerated water
(c) distilled water
(d) sodium carbonate
Answer:
(d) sodium carbonate

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide with water changes –
(a) blue litmus to red
(b) red litmus to blue
(c) blue litmus to yellow
(d) doesn’t react with litmus
Answer:
(a) blue litmus to red

Question 5.
Which of the following is known as azote?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Sulphur
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(b) Nitrogen

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. ……………. is called as vital life.
  2. Nitrogen is ……………. than air.
  3. ……………. is used as a fertilizer.
  4. Dry ice is used as a …………….
  5. The process of conversion of iron into hydrated form of oxides is called …………….

Answer:

  1. Oxygen
  2. lighter
  3. Nitrogen
  4. refrigerant
  5. rusting

III. Match the following

Question 1.

  1. Nitrogen – Respiration in living animals
  2. Oxygen – Fertilizer
  3. Carbon dioxide – Refrigerator
  4. Dry ice – Fire extinguisher

Answer:

  1. Nitrogen – Fertilizer
  2. Oxygen – Respiration in living animals
  3. Carbon dioxide – Fire extinguisher
  4. Dry ice – Refrigerator

IV. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What are the sources of oxygen?
Answer:

  1. Atmospheric air, water.
  2. Plants and animals.
  3. Minerals in the form of silicates, carbonates, oxides.

Question 2.
Mention the physical properties of oxygen.
Answer:
Physical properties of oxygen:

  1. Oxygen is a colorless, odorless and tasteless gas.
  2. It is a poor conductor of heat and electricity
  3. Oxygen dissolves readily in cold water.
  4. It is denser than air.
  5. It can be made into liquid (liquefied) at high pressure and low temperature.
  6. It supports combustion.

Question 3.
List out the uses of nitrogen.
Answer:
Uses of nitrogen:

  1. Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
  2. It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
  3. It is used to prepare ammonia (by Haber’s process) which is then converted into fertilizers and nitric acid.
  4. It is used for inflating tyres of vehicles.

Question 4.
Write about the reaction of nitrogen with non metals.
Answer:
Nitrogen reacts with non-metals like hydrogen, oxygen etc., at high temperature to form their corresponding nitrogen compounds.
Non-metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Nitrogen compound
Example:
8th Science Air Lesson Samacheer Kalvi Term 2 Chapter 3

Question 5.
What is global warming?
Answer:
The increased green house effect is caused due to increase in the air pollutants and it results in the average increase of temperature of the atmosphere. This is called as Global warming.

Question 6.
What is dry ice? What are its uses?
Answer:

  1. Solid carbon dioxide, called as dry ice is used as a refrigerant.
  2. The gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog which is used in stage shows and movie effects.

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
What happens when carbon dioxide is passed through lime water? Write the equation for this reaction.
Answer:
When a limited amount of CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
When an excess amount of CO2 is passed through lime water, it first turns milky and the milkyness disappears due to the formation of soluble calcium hydrogen carbonate, Ca(HCO3)2.

Question 2.
Name the compounds produced when the following substances burn in oxygen:

  1. Carbon
  2. Sulphur
  3. Phosphorous
  4. Magnesium
  5. Iron
  6. Sodium

Answer:

  1. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
  2. Sulphur dioxide (SO2)
  3. Phosphorus trioxide (P2O3) (or) Phosphorus pentoxide (P2O5)
  4. Magnesium Oxide (MgO)
  5. Iron Oxide (Fe2O3)
  6. Sodium Oxide (Na2O)

Question 3.
How does carbon dioxide react with the following?

  1. Potassium
  2. Lime water
  3. Sodium hydroxide

Answer:
1. Potassium combine with CO2 to form potassium carbonate.
4K + 3CO2 → 2K2CO3 + C

2. When a limited amount of CO2 is passed through lime water, it turns milky due to the formation of insoluble calcium carbonate.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O
(Calcium carbonate)
Sodium hydroxide (base) is neutralized by carbon dioxide (acidic) to form sodium carbonate (salt) and water.
Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air
Question 4.
What are the effects of acid rain? How can we prevent them?
Answer:
Acid rain affects us in many ways. Some of the consequences are given below.

  1. It irritates eyes and skin of human beings.
  2. It inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
  3. It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
  4. It causes corrosion of many buildings, bridges, etc.

Preventive measures:
Acid rain and its effects can be controlled by the following ways.

  1. Minimizing the usage of fossil fuel such as petrol, diesel etc.
  2. Using CNG (Compressed Natural Gas).
  3. Using non – conventional source of energy.
  4. Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.

VI. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
Soda bottle bursts sometimes when it is opened during summer. Why?
Answer:

  1. In soda bottle carbon dioxide gas is dissolved in water under pressure.
  2. The gas in the bottle expands.
  3. Hence, the pressure inside the bottle increases.
  4. Thus the bottle may burst in hot summer.

Question 2.
It is said that sleeping beneath the tree during night is bad for health. What is the reason?
Answer:
During night trees absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide. Therefore, anyone who sleeps under tree, will not get oxygen, which can cause breathing problems, suffocation etc.

Question 3.
Why does the fish die when it is taken out of water?
Answer:

  1. Gills are richly supplied with blood capillaries and can readily absorb the oxygen dissolved in water.
  2. When fishes are taken out of water, the supply of oxygen to the fishes is cut as the fishes cannot absorb and breathe using the oxygen present in the atmosphere.
  3. Hence they die, when it is taken out of water.

Question 4.
How do astronauts breathe when they go beyond earth’s atmosphere?
Answer:

  1. Astronauts cannot breathe in space unless they carry their own oxygen with them.
  2. They can make their own oxygen by using energy from the solar arrays to split hydrogen and oxygen from water.

Do you know?

Question 1.
Nowadays nitrogen is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres. Have you noticed it? Why do people prefer nitrogen instead of compressed air in tyres?
Answer:
It is because nitrogen tyres hold pressure longer as compared to compressed air. Nitrogen gas in the tyre escapes more slowly than compressed air does.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Air Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Question 1.
…………… is necessary for all acids.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) CO2
(c) Oxygen
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(c) Oxygen

Question 2.
Tri oxygen molecule is known as ……………
(a) hydrogen
(b) oxygen
(c) nitrogen
(d) ozone
Answer:
(d) ozone

Question 3.
About 78% by volume of air is ……………
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) nitrogen

Question 4.
Carbon dioxide gas is ……………
(a) heavier than air
(b) lighter than air
(c) as heavy as air
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) heavier than air

Question 5.
A gas which neither burns nor supports burning is …………….
(a) Oxygen
(b) Helium
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon dioxide
Answer:
(d) Carbon dioxide

Question 6.
A gas which is used to remove carbon impurities from steel.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Hydrogen
Answer:
(b) Oxygen

Question 7.
Venus atmosphere consists of roughly 96 – 97% of …………….
(a) Oxygen
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) none
Answer:
(c) Carbon dioxide

Question 8.
Carbon dioxide gas is …………… in nature.
(a) basic
(b) acidic
(c) sweet
(d) none
Answer:
(b) acidic

Question 9.
…………… gas is essential for the proper growth of all plants.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) CO2
(c) Oxygen
(d) none
Answer:
(a) Nitrogen

Question 10.
Lighter metals like Na, K combine with CO2 to form corresponding …………….
(a) Nitrates
(b) Carbonates
(c) Oxide
(d) none
Answer:
(b) Carbonates

II. Fill in the Blanks

  1. …………… exists in nature as silicates, carbonates, oxides and water.
  2. Metals like magnesium, iron and sodium bum with oxygen and give basic …………….
  3. …………… has pH less than 5.6.
  4. CO2 is along with …………… in the manufacture of fertilizers like urea.
  5. CO2, N2O, CH4 and CFC are known as …………….
  6. ……………. is used to prepare soft drinks or aerated drinks.
  7. ……………. is used as a substitute for compressed air in tyres.
  8. Liquid nitrogen is used as a ……………..
  9. Oxygen is used to oxidize …………….
  10. Phosphorous bums with suffocating smell and gives ……………..

Answer:

  1. Oxygen
  2. Oxides
  3. Acid rain
  4. ammonia
  5. Greenhouse gases
  6. CO2
  7. Nitrogen
  8. refrigerant
  9. rocket fuel
  10. Phosphorous pentaoxide

III. Match the following

Question 1.

1.Oxygen(a)Carbon dioxide
2.Azote(b)Nitrogen
3.Solvay process(c)Vital life
4.Gun powder(d)No life

Answer:

  1. c
  2. d
  3. a
  4. b

Question 2.

1.Nitrogen(a)Acid rain
2.CO2(b)Global warming
3.Melting of glaciers(c)Volcanic gases
4.Corrosion of bridges(d)Aerated drinks

Answer:

  1. c
  2. d
  3. b
  4. a

IV. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
Oxygen is the poor conductor of heat and electricity.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Nitrogen is about two times more soluble in water then oxygen.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Oxygen is about two times more soluble in water than Nitrogen.

Question 3.
Nitrogen is an essential element present in proteins and nucleic acids which are the building blocks of living things.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Non-metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Nitrogen compound.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
Solid form of CO2 is called as dry ice which undergoes condensation.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Solid form of CO2 is called as dry ice which undergoes sublimation.

Question 6.
Acid rain inhibits germination and growth of seedlings.
Answer:
True

Question 7.
An average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is called as acid rain.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
An average increase in the temperature of the atmosphere is called as global warming.

Question 8.
Rain water is actually the purest form of water.
Answer:
True

Question 9.
The increase in the levels of greenhouse gases results in the gradual increase of temperature of the earth’s surface.
Answer:
True

Question 10.
Nitrogen gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Solid CO2 gas is so cold that moisture in the air condenses on it, creating a dense fog.

V. Assertion and Reason

Question 1.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : Green house gases maintain the temperature.
Reason : Green house gases absorb the infra red rays.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Carbon dioxide occurs as carbonates in nature.
Reason : Carbon dioxide can exist as a liquid at atmospheric pressure.
Answer:
(c) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.

VI. Answer briefly

Question 1.
What is acid rain?
Answer:
Rain mixed with sulphuric acid is called acid rain.

Question 2.
Name some green house gases.
Answer:
CO2, N2O, CH4, CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon) etc.

Question 3.
Name the microbe which converts atmospheric nitrogen directly into soluble nitrogen compounds.
Answer:
Bacteria.

Question 4.
Write the reaction of oxygen with hydrocarbons.
Answer:
Hydrocarbon + O2 > CO2 + Water vapour + Heat energy + Light.

Question 5.
Write the reaction of carbon dioxide with lime water.
Ca(OH)2 + CO2 → CaCO3 + H2O.

Question 6.
Write any two preventive measures for acid rain.
Answer:

  1. Using CNG
  2. Proper disposal of the industrial wastes.

Question 7.
Write about the combustible property of Oxygen.
Answer:
Oxygen is a non – combustible gas as it does not bum on its own. It supports the combustion of other substances.

Question 8.
Write any two effects of global warming.
Answer:

  1. Increase in frequency of floods, soil erosion and unseasonal rains.
  2. Loss of biodiversity due to the extinction of coral reefs and other key species.

Question 9.
What do you mean by aerated water?
Answer:
Aerated water is nothing but carbon dioxide dissolved in water under pressure. This is also called soda water.

Question 10.
Write any two preventive measures of global warming.
Answer:

  1. Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
  2. Restricting the use of CFC’s.

Question 11.
Write the reaction of oxygen with non – metals.
Answer:
Oxygen reacts with various non – metals like hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon, sulphur, phosphorus etc., to give corresponding non – metallic oxides which are generally acidic in nature.
Non – metal + Oxygen → Non – metallic oxide
Example:
C + O2 → CO2

Question 12.
Write a note on rusting process.
Answer:
The process of conversion of iron into its hydrated form of oxide in the presence of air and moisture (humid atmosphere) is called rusting. Rust is hydrated ferric oxide.
4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
Fe2O3 + X H2O → 2Fe2O3 . X H2O
(X = Number of water molecules which is variable).

Question 13.
Write the reaction of nitrogen with metals.
Answer:
Nitrogen reacts with metals like lithium, calcium, magnesium etc., at high temperature to form their corresponding metal nitrides.
Metal + Nitrogen \(\underrightarrow { \Delta } \) Metal nitride
Example:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air 3

Question 14.
Write about occurrence of carbon dioxide.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is present in air to the extent of about 0.03% in volume. It is evolved by the plants and animals during respiration and is produced during fermentation reactions. Much of the naturally occurring CO2 is emitted from the magma through volcanoes. CO2 may also originate from the bio – degradation of oil and gases. Human CO2 emissions upset the natural balance of the carbon cycle.

Question 15.
Write the reaction of carbon dioxide with metals.
Answer:
Lighter metals like sodium, potassium and calcium, combine with CO2 to form corresponding carbonates whereas magnesium gives its oxide and carbon.
Example :
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air 4

Question 16.
What are the effects of global warming?
Answer:

  1. Melting of ice cap and glaciers.
  2. Increase in frequency of floods, soil erosion and un – seasonal rains.
  3. Loss of biodiversity due to the extinction of coral reefs and other key species.
  4. Spreading of waterborne and insectborne diseases.

Question 17.
Complete the following:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air 5
Answer:

  1. Natural fixation
  2. From leguminous plants
  3. From ammonia and ammonium salts
  4. From nitric acid and nitrate salts

Question 18.
What is green house effect?
Answer:

  1. Certain gaseous molecules present in the atmosphere absorb the infra red rays and reradiate the heat in all directions.
  2. Hence, these gases maintain the temperature of earth’s surface.
  3. The gases which absorb these radiations are called green house gases and this effect is called green house effect.

Question 19.
Complete the table:

MetalConditionProduct formed
KRoom temperature(i)
Ca(ii)CaO
(iii)Even at high temperatureNo action
FeHigh temperature(iv)

Answer:

  1. Potassium oxide (K2O)
  2. Heating slightly
  3. Au or Pt
  4. Iron Oxide (Fe3O4)

VII. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the uses of oxygen.
Answer:
Uses of oxygen:

  1. It is used as oxy – acetylene light for cutting and welding metals.
  2. It is used to remove carbon impurities from steel.
  3. Plants and animals use oxygen from the air for respiration.
  4. It is used to oxidize rocket fuel.
  5. It is used for artificial respiration by scuba divers, mountaineers, astronauts, patients etc.
  6. Mixed with powdered charcoal it is used as explosives.
  7. It is used in the synthesis of methanol and ammonia.

Question 2.
Write the physical properties of nitrogen.
Answer:

  1. Physical properties of nitrogen
  2. It is a colorless, tasteless and odorless gas.
  3. It is slightly lighter than air.
  4. It is slightly soluble in water.
  5. Nitrogen becomes a liquid at low temperature and looks like water. When it freezes, it becomes a white solid.
  6. It is neutral to litmus like oxygen.

Question 3.
Write the uses of nitrogen.
Answer:
Uses of Nitrogen:

  1. Liquid nitrogen is used as a refrigerant.
  2. It provides an inert atmosphere for conducting certain chemical reactions.
  3. It is used to prepare ammonia (by Haber’s process) which is then converted into fertilizers and nitric acid.
  4. It is used for inflating tyres of vehicles.
  5. It is used for filling the space above mercury in high temperature thermometer to reduce the evaporation of mercury.
  6. Many explosives such as TNT (Trinitrotoluene), nitroglycerin and gun powder contain nitrogen.
  7. It is used for the preservation of fresh foods, manufacturing of stainless steel, reducing fire hazards and as part of the gas in incandescent light bulbs.

Question 4.

  1. Explain the physical properties of carbon dioxide.
  2. Write the preventive measures to control the effect of global warming.

Answer:
1. Physical properties of carbon dioxide:

  • Carbon dioxide is a colorless and odorless gas.
  • It is heavier than air.
  • It does not support combustion.
  • It is fairly soluble in water and turns blue litmus slightly red. So it is acidic in nature.
  • It can easily be liquefied under high pressure and can also be solidified. This
  • solid form of CO2 is called dry ice which undergoes sublimation.

2. Preventive measures:

  • Reduction in the use of fossil fuels.
  • Controlling deforestation.
  • Restricting the use of CFCs.
  • Planting more trees.
  • Reducing, reusing and recycling resources.

VIII. Higher Order Thinking Questions

Question 1.
What will happen if oxygen has the capacity to burn itself?
Answer:
If oxygen has the capacity to bum itself, striking a match stick will be enough to bum all the oxygen in our planet’s atmosphere.

IX. Solve the crossword Puzzle by using the clues given below.

Question 1.
Across:
1. A gas that supports combustion.
4. The compound that turns lime water milky.
5. The Gaseous jacket that surrounds the Earth.
6. It is used as a refrigerant.
7. Solid form of carbon dioxide.
Down:
2. The process by which atmospheri&oitrogen is converted into nitrates.
3. The common name of the compound formed when nails are exposed to moist air.
8. It changes the fertility of the soil, destroys plants and aquatic life.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Air 6

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hazards Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Define Hazard Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
……………. percentage of nitrogen is present in the air.
(a) 78.09%
(b) 74.08%
(c) 80.07%
(d) 76.63%
Answer:
(a) 78.09%

Hazards May Lead To Answer Question 2.
Tsunami in Indian Ocean took place in the s ear …………….
(a) 1990
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2008
Answer:
(b) 2004

Mention The Types Of Drought Samacheer Kalvi Question 3.
The word tsunami is derived from ……………. language.
(a) Hindi
(b) French
(c) Japanese
(d) German
Answer:
(c) Japanese

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Question 4.
The example of surface water is –
(a) Artesian well
(b) Groundwater
(c) Subsurface water
(d) Lake
Answer:
(d) Lake

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Question 5.
Event that occurs due to the failure of monsoons.
(a) Condensation
(b) Drought
(c) Evaporation
(d) Precipitation
Answer:
(b) Drought

II. Fill in the anks

  1. Hazards may lead to ……………..
  2. Landslide is an example of …………….. hazard.
  3. On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into …………….. categories.
  4. Terrorism is an example of …………….. hazard.
  5. Oxides of Nitrogen are …………….. pollutants which affects the human beings.
  6. Chernobyl nuclear accident took place in ……………..

Answer:

  1. disaster
  2. Geologic (or) Seismic
  3. Eight
  4. Human – induced
  5. Primary
  6. 26th April 1986

III. Match the following

Define Hazard Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2
Answer:
Hazards May Lead To Answer Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2

IV Answer in brief

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Question 1.
Define‘hazard’.
Answer:
‘Hazards are defined as a thing, person, event or factor that poses a threat to people, structures or economic assets and which may cause a disaster.’

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.
What are the major types of hazards?
Answer:

  1. Atmospheric hazard
  2. Geologic 7 Seismic hazard
  3. Hydrologic hazard
  4. Volcanic hazard
  5. Environmental hazard
  6. Biological hazard
  7. Human – induced hazard
  8. Technological hazard

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Question 3.
Write a brief note on hazardous wastes.
Answer:
The wastes that may or tend to cause adverse health effects on the ecosystem and human beings are called hazardous wastes.

8th Social Solution Question 4.
List out the major flood prone areas of our country.
Answer:

  1. The major flood prone areas in north and northeast India are, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, North Bihar, West Bengal and Brahmaputra valley.
  2. Coastal Andhra Pradesh, Odisha and Southern Gujarat are the other regions which are also prone to flood often.

Question 5.
Mention the types of drought.
Answer:
Drought could be classified into three types. They are:

  1. Meteorological drought
  2. Hydrological drought
  3. Agricultural drought

Question 6.
Why should not we construct houses at foothill areas?
Answer:
We should not construct houses at foothill areas because it has rapid downward movement of rocks and soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity which leads to landslides.

V. Distinguish the following :

Question 1.
Hazards and disasters.
Answer:
1. Hazard:
A natural hazard is a natural process and event that is a potential threat to human life and property.

2. Disasters:
A disaster is a hazardous event that occurs over a limited time span in a defined area and causes great damage to property / loss of life, also needs assistance from others.

Question 2.
Natural hazard and human-made hazard.
Answer:
Natural Hazards:

  1. These are the results of natural processes and man has no role to play in such hazards.
  2. For example: Earthquakes, Floods, Cyclonic storms and volcanic eruption etc.

Human – made – Hazards:

  1. These are caused by undesirable activities of human. It can be the result of an accident such as an industrial chemical leak or oil spill.
  2. For example: Hazardous wastes, pollution of air, water and land etc.

Question 3.
Flood and drought.
Answer:
Flood:

  1. Flood is an event in which a part of the earth’s surface gets inundated.
  2. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are the common causes of flood.

Drought:

  1. Any lack of water to satisfy the normal needs of agriculture, livestock, industry or human population may be termed as a drought.
  2. Droughts in India occur in the event of a failure of monsoon.

Question 4.
Earthquake and tsunami.
Answer:
1. Earthquake:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of stock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

2. Tsunami:
Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide or volcanic eruption. It is generally noticed in the coastal regions and travel between 640 and 960 Km/h.

VI. Answer in a paragraph

Question 1.
Write an essay on air pollution.
Answer:
Pollution of Air :

1. Air is a mixture of several gases.

2. The main gases are nitrogen (78.09%) for forming products such as fertilizers for plants and for making the air inert, oxygen (20.95%) for breathing and carbon dioxide (0.03%) for photosynthesis.

3. Some other gases like argon, neon, helium, krypton, hydrogen, zenon and methane are also present.

4. Air pollution is the contamination of the indoor or outdoor air by a range of gases. Air pollution can be categorized into primary and secondary pollutants.

5. A primary pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.

6. A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted.

7. Primary pollutants are as follows:

  • Oxides of Sulphur
  • Oxides of Nitrogen
  • Oxides of Carbon
  • Particulate Matter and
  • Other primary pollutants

8. Secondary pollutants are as follows:

  • Ground Level Ozone
  • Smog

Question 2.
Define earthquake and list out its effects.
Answer:
Earthquakes:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

Effects of Earthquakes:

  1. The Primary effects of earthquakes are ground shaking, ground rupture, landslides, Tsunamis and soil liquefaction.
  2. The Secondary effects of earthquakes are fires.
  3. The effects of earthquakes are terrible and devasting. Thus leads to distraction of buildings, loss of money, property and lines of people. This affects the mental and emotional health of people.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation on the causes of landslides.
Answer:

1. Landslide is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.

2. The causes of landslides are wide ranging, They have two aspects in common.

3. Force of gravity and

4. Failure of Soil

5. Landslides are considered of two types. They are:

  • Naturally occuring disaster.
  • Human induced changes in the environment.

6. Natural causes of landslides are:

  • Climatic changes
  • Seismic activities
  • Weathering
  • Soil erosion
  • Forest fires
  • Gravity and
  • Volcanic eruption

7. Human causes of landslides includes deforestation mining, construction of roads and railways over the mountain.

Question 4.
Elaborately discuss the effects water pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution:

  1. Water pollution may be defined as alteration in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.
  2. In India, water pollution has been taking place on a large scale.
  3. Some of these waterborne diseases are Typhoid, Cholera, Paratyphoid fever, Dysentery, Jaundice and Malaria.
  4. Chemicals in the water also have negative effects on our health.
  5. Pesticides – can damage the nervous system and cause cancer because of the Carbonates and organophosphere that they may contain.
  6. Both surface and groundwater bodies are polluted to a great extent.

VII. Activities

Question 1.
Name the hazards which you have identified.
Mention The Types Of Drought Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 2.
List out the hazards that occur frequently and occasionally in your place.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Book Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Question 3.
On the map of Tamilnadu shade the 13 coastal districts in different colors.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Hazards Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
…………. is an example of human induced pollutants hazard.
(a) Terrorism
(b) Evaporation
(c) Nuclear accident
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Terrorism

Question 2.
…………. in Indian ocean took place in the year 2004.
(a) Earthquake
(b) Droughts
(c) Landslide
(d) Tsunami
Answer:
(d) Tsunami

Question 3.
A …………. hazard ¡s a natural process.
(a) Socio natural hazard
(b) Human – made
(c) Natural
(d) All the bove
Answer:
(C) Naturall

Question 4.
…………. can be broadly classified Into three types.
(a) Economics
(b) Hazards
(c) Environment
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Hazards

Question 5.
The main examples of natural hazards are ………….
(a) earthquakes
(b) floods
(c) cyclonic
(d) all of these
Answer:
(d) all of these

Question 6.
…………. hazards are caused by undesirable activities of human.
(a) Human – made
(b) Natural
(c) Socio – natural
(d) Atmospheric
Answer:
(a) Human – made

Question 7.
…………. are caused by natural forces in mountainous areas.
(a) Over populations
(b) Landslides
(c) Socio – natural
(d) Hydrologic hazard
Answer:
(b) Landslides

Question 8.
…………. Is a serious problem In most big Urban.
(a) Storm
(b) Landslides
(c) Smog
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(c) Smog

Question 9.
…………. surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of mangroves.
(a) Storm
(b) Smog
(c) Flood
(d) Droughts
Answer:
(a) Stormi

Question 10.
Heavy rainfall and large waves In seas are the common causes of …………..
(a) Droughts
(b) Smog
(c) Tsunami
(d) Flood
Answer:
(d) Flood

Question 11.
…………. storm is a strong wind circulating around a low pressure area in the atmosphere.
(a) Tropical cyclone
(b) Cyclonic
(c) Heavy
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Cyclonic

Question 12.
The west coast of India is …………. vulnerable to storm surges than the east coast.
(a) less
(b) more
(c) great
(d) high
Answer:
(a) less

Question 13.
…………. drought is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below a specific level.
(a) Agricultural
(b) Hydro – logical
(c) Landslides
(d) Meteorological
Answer:
(d) Meteorological

Question 14.
…………. droughts associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs.
(a) Hydro – logical
(b) Agricultural
(c) Meteorological
(d) Both ‘b’ and ‘c’
Answer:
(a) Hydro – logical

Question 15.
…………. droughts refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to lack of rainfall.
(a) Meteorological
(b) Agricultural
(c) Hydro – logical
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(b) Agricultural

Question 16.
…………. in India occur in the event of a failure of monsoon.
(a) Floods
(b) Landslides
(c) Droughts
(d) Earthquakes
Answer:
(c) Droughts

Question 17.
The dry region lying in the leeward side of the …………..
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Eastern Ghats
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Western Ghats

Question 18.
…………. is a rapid downward movement of rock, soil and vegetation down the slope under the influence of gravity.
(a) Drought
(b) Flood
(c) Landslide
(d) Earthquake
Answer:
(c) Landslide

Question 19.
…………. is a mixture of several gases.
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Soil
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Air

Question 20.
…………. pollutant is an air pollutant emitted directly from a source.
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of these.
Answer:
(a) Primary

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Hazards can be broadly classified into …………. types
  2. Smog is a serious problem in most …………. areas.
  3. The beginning of …………. century, the earth supported a human population.
  4. The meaning of old french “Hazards” ………….
  5. A catastrophe was recover …………. time.
  6. …………. can disturb the safety health, welfare of people.
  7. …………. is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust.
  8. …………. percentage of carbon di oxide present in the air.
  9. …………. percentage of oxygen present in the air.
  10. …………. nuclear accident took place in 26th April 1986.
  11. …………. hazards are caused by the combined effect forces and misdeeds of human.
  12. Storm surge hazards may be worsened by the destruction of …………..
  13. A sudden rise of seawater due to tropical cyclone is called ……………
  14. In Tamil Nadu coast …………… and …………… districts are frequently affected.
  15. The drought could be classified into …………… major types.
  16. Presence of steep slope and heavy rainfall are the major causes of …………….
  17. The word ‘tsu’ meaning ……………..
  18. The word ‘nami’ meaning ……………..
  19. The atomic bomb dropped on Hiroshima (Japan) in ………………
  20. ……………… the wastes resulting from ordnance manufacturing and some industrial gases.
  21. ……………… refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide (or) volcanic eruption.

Answer:

  1. Three
  2. big urban
  3. Twenty first
  4. a game of dice
  5. long
  6. Hazards
  7. Earthquake
  8. 0.03%
  9. 20.95%
  10. Chernobyl
  11. Socio – natural
  12. mangroves
  13. storm surge
  14. Cuddalore, Nagapattinam
  15. three
  16. Landslides
  17. harbour
  18. ‘wave’
  19. 1945
  20. Explosives
  21. Tsunami

III. Match the following

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards
Answer:

  1. c
  2. e
  3. d
  4. b
  5. a

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 2 Hazards
Answer:

  1. e
  2. d
  3. b
  4. c
  5. a

IV. State True or False

  1. Hazards are classified into natural, human – made and socio – natural hazards
  2. Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.
  3. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are not the common causes of flood.
  4. The West coast of India is more vulnerable to storm surge than the east coast.
  5. The coastal belt around the Gulf of Kutch.
  6. The droughts could be classified into six types.
  7. Hydro – logical droughts is associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs.
  8. Agricultural drought refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to more of rainfall.
  9. Weak ground structure, mining, construction of roads and railways over the mountains are the causes of landslides.
  10. The word ‘Tsunami’ is derived from latin world ‘tsu’ meaning harbour.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. False
  5. True
  6. False
  7. True
  8. False
  9. True
  10. False

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (✓) the appropriate answer

Question 1.
Which of the following statements are correct:
(i) Oxides of Nitrogen are primary pollutants which affects the human beings.
(ii) On the basis of origin, hazard can be grouped into eight categories.
(iii) Delayed actions may increase the economic losses.
(iv) The major causes of water pollution in India are sewages and soil wastes,

(a) (i) & (ii) are Correct
(b) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) are Correct
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Consider the following statements and tick the appropriate answer
Statement (A) : Water pollution may be defined as alteration in which the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water.
Reason (R) : Water pollution cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) Both A and Rare wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which one of rthe following is correctly matched?
(a) Secondary Pollutant – Smog
(b)Primary Pollutant – Ground Level Ozone
(c) Water Pollution – Earthquake
(d) 2016 – Tsunami in India
Answer:
(a) Secondary Pollutant – Smog

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Ecosystem – Hazardous waste
(b) Chemic1als – Explosives
(c) Carbon di oxide – 0.05%
(d) Oxygen – 20.95%
Answer:
(C) Carbon di oxide – 0.05%

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
List out any four major causes of water pollution in India.
Answer:

  1. Urbanization
  2. Industrial effluents
  3. Se-wages
  4. Solid wastes

Question 2.
Define prevention.
Answer:
Prevention is defined as the activities taken to prevent a natural calamity or potential hazard from having harmful effects on either people or economic assets.

Question 3.
Define Water Pollution.
Answer:
Water Pollution may be defined as alteration in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of water, which may cause harmful effects in human and aquatic life.

Question 4.
List out any four major hazardous wastes.
Answer:

  1. Chemicals
  2. Biomedical wastes
  3. Flammable wastes
  4. Explosives

Question 5.
What do you mean by Tsunami?
Answer:

  1. Tsunami refers to huge ocean waves caused by an earthquake, landslide or volcanic eruption.
  2. It is generally noticed in the coastal regions and travel between 640 and 960 Km/h.

Question 6.
List out the major drought prone areas of our country.
Answer:

  1. The arid and semi arid region from Ahmadabad to Kanpur on one side and from Kanpur to Jalandhar on the other.
  2. The dry region lying in the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

Question 7.
What is earthquake?
Answer:
Earthquake is a violent tremor in the earth’s crust, sending out a series of shock waves in all directions from its place of origin.

Question 8.
List out the Atmospheric hazards.
Answer:
Tropical storms, Thunderstorms, Lightning, Tornadoes, Avalanches, Heat waves, fog and forest fire.

Question 9.
What do you meant by hazard?
Answer:
The word ‘hazard’ owes its origin to the word ‘hazart’ in old French meaning a game of dice (in Arabic-az-zahr; in Spanish – azar).

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1
What is flood? What are the Major causes of flood?
Answer:
Meaning of flood :

  1. Flood is an event in which a part of the earth’s surface gets inundated.
  2. Heavy rainfall and large waves in seas are the common causes of flood.

Major causes of floods: The Major causes of floods are,
1. Meteorological Factors:

  • Heavy rainfall
  • Tropical cyclones
  • Cloud burst

2. Physical Factors:

  • Large catchment area.
  • Inadequate drainage arrangement

3. Human Factors:

  • Deforestation
  • Siltation
  • Faulty agricultural practices
  • Faulty irrigation practices
  • Collapse of dams
  • Accelerated urbanization

Question 2.
What is cyclonic storms? Explain about the cyclonic storms.
Answer:
Cyclonic Storms:

  1. A Cyclonic storm is a strong wind circulating around a low pressure area in the atmosphere.
  2. It rotates in anti – clockwise direction in Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the southern Hemisphere.
  3. Tropical Cyclones are characterized by destructive winds, storms surges and exceptional levels of rainfall, which may cause flooding.
  4. Wind speed may reach upto 200 Km/h and rainfall may record upto 50 cm/ day for several consecutive days.
  5. A sudden rise of seawater due to tropical cyclone is called storm surge.
  6. It is more common in the regions of shallow coastal water.

East Coastal areas vulnerable to storm surges:

  1. North Odisha and West Bengal coasts. ,
  2. Andhra Pradesh coast between Ongole and Machilipatnam.
  3. Tamil Nadu coast (among 13 coastal districts, Nagapattinam and Cuddalore districts are frequently affected).

West Coastal areas vulnerable to storm surges:

  1. The west coast of India is less vulnerable to storm surges than the east coast.
  2. Maharashtra coast, North of Hamai and adjoining South Gujarat coast and the coastal belt around the Gulf of Cambay.
  3. The coastal belt around the Gulf of Kutch.

Question 3.
Give a detailed explanation about droughts.
Answer:
Droughts:
Any lack of water to satisfy the normal needs of agriculture, livestock, industry or human population may be termed as a drought.

Classifications of drought:
The drought could be classified into three major types. They are:

1. Meteorological drought:
ft is a situation where there is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below ‘ a specific level.

2. Hydrological drought:
It is associated with reduction of water in streams, rivers and reservoirs. It is of two types.

  • Surface water and
  • Ground water drought

3. Agricultural drought:

  • It refers to the condition in which the agricultural crops get affected due to lack of rainfall.
  • Droughts in India occur in the event of failure monsoon.

The Major areas highly prone to drought are:

  • The arid and semi arid region from Ahmadabad to Kanpur on one side and from Kanpur to Jalandhar on the other.
  • The dry region lying in the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3 When Instinct Works

Students can Download Lesson 3 When Instinct Works Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf Supplementary Chapter 3 helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3 When Instinct Works

A. Comprehension.

When Instinct Works Summary Question 1.
Choose the best option

When Instinct Works Question 1.
The season mentioned in the lesson is _________
(a) spring
(b) autumn
(c) summer
(d) winter
Answer:
(b) autumn

When Instinct Works Book Back Answers Question 2.
In one low part of the road the _________was halfway up to black beauty’s knees.
(a) the river
(b) dust
(c) water
(d) leaves
Answer:
(c) water

When Instinct Works Question Answer Question 3.
The bridge was broken in the _________
(a) front
(b) rear
(c) middle
(d) up
Answer:
(c) middle

8th English When Instinct Works Question 4.
The instinct in _________had often saved the lives of men.
(a) girls
(b) animals
(c) birds
(d) boys
Answer:
(b) animals

When Instinct Works 8th Std Question 5.
Black beauty dared not move even to the sharp snap of the _________
(a) stick
(b) thread
(c) whip
(d) kick
Answer:
(c) whip

When Instinct Works Summary In Tamil Question 2.
Match the following.

1. Man at the toll gate(a) had many stories to tell.
2. Bridge(b) wise.
3. John(c) have special knowledge.
4. Black beauty(d) flashing a torch.
5. Animals(e) sturdy rail.

Answer:

  1. d
  2. e
  3. a
  4. b
  5. c

When Instinct Works Theme Question 3.
Fill in the blanks.
When Instinct Works Summary Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3

  1. Just then, the man at the ______ on the other side ran out, ______ a torch.
  2. Even when John tried to ______ him forward Beauty did not move.
  3. We were saved because Beauty had known that something was ______ with the bridge.
  4. Suddenly an ______ tree came crashing down and fell right in front of us.
  5. He told that the bridge had just broken due to the ______
  6. As we went through the wood, the ______ of the trees were swaying and making a rushing sound.
  7. A little later, when we reached the bridge Beauty came to a ______
  8. When we started back from the town, it was late in the ______ The wind was much ______
  9. John said we must go back to the ______ find another way to the wooden
  10. Oh! What a good ______ he gave me that night. And then a really thick

Answer:

  1. toll gate; flashing
  2. lean
  3. wrong
  4. oak
  5. flood
  6. branches; terrible
  7. sudden stop
  8. afternoon; stronger
  9. cross ways; bridge
  10. Supper; bed of straw

When Instinct Works Mind Map Question 4.
Based on your understanding of the story write the answers for the following questions in a sentence or two. .

When Instinct Works Lesson Plan Question 1.
Did Black Beauty like to pull the cart?
Answer:
Yes, Black Beauty liked to pull the cart, as it was very light and the high wheels rolled along so smoothly.

When Instinct Works Summary In English Question 2.
How was the weather?
Answer:
The weather was very windy and the dry leaves blew across the road. There had been a great deal of rain.

When Instinct Works In Tamil Question 3.
Describe the bridge.
Answer:
The low wooden bridge had sturdy rails on both sides. As the river banks were fairly high, the bridge went across just level.

When Instinct Works Story In Tamil Question 4.
What was the alternate plan suggested by John to reach the wooden bridge?
Answer:
The alternate plan suggested by John to reach the wooden bridge was to go back to four cross ways.

When Instinct Works Theme Question 5.
Why was Black Beauty reluctant to cross the bridge?
Answer:
The moment Black Beauty’s feet touched the ground which was the first part of the bridge, the horse sensed something was wrong. So it was reluctant to cross the

When Instinct Works Mind Map Question 5.
Write the answers for the following questions in 100 words.

When Instinct Works Lesson Plan Question 1.
What did the man at the toll gate on the other side tell them?
Answer:
The man told them that the bridge was broken in the middle. Part of it had been carried away by the flood. If they proceed, they will be drowned in the river.

When Instinct Works Summary In English Question 2.
Was Black Beauty afraid to cross the bridge?
Answer:
No, Black Beauty was not afraid to cross the bridge. But it knew that there was some problem and the bridge was not safe to cross.

When Instinct Works In Tamil Question 3.
What did John think about human’s attitude on animals?
Answer:
John thought many people did not take very good care of their animals or make friends with them as they should do. According to John, such attitude of human should be changed. Master told John that God had given animals a special knowledge and quicker to respond to danger. This instinct in animals, the Master continued, had often saved the lives of men. John had many stories to tell of dogs and horses, and the wonderful ways the animals had saved the lives of people.

When Instinct Works Story In Tamil Questions 4.
What would have happened to all the three if Black Beauty had not been wiser?
Answer:
It Black beauty had not been wiser, all the three would have been drowned at the wooden bridge.

Question 5.
Where did John take Black Beauty and what did he give her?
Answer:
John took black beauty to the stable. He gave her a good supper and a thick bed of straw to relax.

Question 6.
How will you take care of your pet? Write about in fifty words.
Answer:
I will take care of my pet dog by providing it with a protected and clean living environment. I always keep fresh water and quality food for my pet. I will also communicate with it and develop a relationship with it. I will take my pet for a walk, every morning and evening.

Step To Success

Coding – Decoding verbal reasoning.

Question 1.
In a certain code language, if Violet is called as Green, Green is called as Red, Red is called as Brown, Brown is called as Orange, Orange is called as Yellow, Yellow is called as Blue and Blue is called as Indigo, then what is the colour of human blood in that language?
(a) Red
(b) Blue
(c) Green
(d) Violet.
(e) Brown
Answer:
(e) Brown

Question 2.
In a certain code language, if Pen means Eraser, Eraser means Book, Book means Scale, Scale means Sharpener, Sharpener means Duster and Duster means Table, then what is the name of the object that is used to clean the black board in that language?
(a) Duster
(b) Sharpener
(c) Table
(d) Scale
(e) Book
Answer:
(b) Sharpener

Question 3.
In a certain code language, if Bread is called Butter, Butter is called Milk, Milk is called Shirt, Shirt is called Shoe, Shoe is called Bicycle, Bicycle is called Watch, Watch is called Aeroplane and Aeroplane is called Ship, then which of the following indicates time in that language?
(a) Watch
(b) Bicycle
(c) Milk
(d) Ship
(e) Aeroplane
Answer:
(e) Aeroplane

Connecting To Self

Put a ✓for the do’s and put a✗ for dont’s
When Instinct Works Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3

Answer:
When Instinct Works Book Back Answers Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Supplementary Chapter 3

When Instinct Works Additional Questions

I. Choose the Correct Answers (MCQ).

Question 1.
John harnessed black beauty to the ______ cart
(a) old
(b) broken
(c) new
(d) damaged
Answer:
(c) new

Question 2.
But the cart was so good and master drove
(a) strongly
(b) gently
(c) roughly
(d) harshly
Answer:
(b) gently

Question 3.
There were good sturdy on both sides.
(a) slabs
(b) pipes
(c) rails
(d) bamboos

Question 4.
He held my and calmed my nerves.
(a) bridle
(b) ears
(c) girdle
(d) band
Answer:
(a) bridle

Question 5.
The man at the toll gate was flashing a torch like a .
(a) foolish man
(b) mad man
(c) horrified man
(d) beggar man
Answer:
(b) mad man

Question 6.
Then an tree fell right across the road in front of them.
(a) Pine
(b) Cypress
(c) Ebony
(d) Oak
Answer:
(d) Oak

II. Identify the Character / Speaker.

  1. One morning in the autumn, my master had to go on a long journey”.
  2. I hope no branches fall down on us”.
  3. “I wish we were out of this wood”.
  4. “That was close! What shall we do now?”
  5. “Hoy, Hoy, Hoy, Stop!”.
  6. “You really are a beauty!”.
  7. “Go on, Beauty”.
  8. “There is something wrong sir”.
  9. “Are you safe, my dear?”.
  10. .I was grateful for everything for I was tired”.

Answer:

  1. Black beauty horse
  2. John
  3. Master
  4. Master
  5. The man at the toll gate
  6. John
  7. Master
  8. John
  9. Mistress
  10. Black Beauty (horse)

III. Write True or False against each statement.

1. Many of the houses were under water.
2. In one low part of the road, the water was halfway up to the knees.
3. The river was rising slowly.
4. Black Beauty had to wait for a long time in the town.
5. John praised Black Beauty.
Answer:
False
True
False
True
True

IV. Match the following.

1. The bridge(a) gently
2. Branches(b) trotted softly
3. Master drove(c) swaying like twigs
4. Black beauty(d) to greet master
5. Mistress ran out(e) broken in the middle

Answer:

  1. (e)
  2. (c)
  3. (a)
  4. (b)
  5. (d)

IV. Very Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
How did the high wheels roll?
Answer:
The high wheels rolled along so smoothly.

Question 2.
What were there on both sides of the bridge?
Answer:
There were good sturdy rails on both sides of the bridge.

Question 3.
What did the man at the toll gate say?
Answer:
The man at the toll gate said that the river was rising fast.

Question 4.
What did the master say to John?
Answer:
The master said that he had never been out in such a bad storm.

Question 5.
How were the branches swaying?
Answer:
The branches were swaying like twigs.

V.Short Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What did John do to calm Black Beauty?
Answer:
John jumped out and in a moment was standing by the horse’s head. He held its bridle and calmed its nerves.

Question 2.
What did Black Beauty see in it’s master’s house after their return?
Answer:
Black Beauty saw that all the lights were on. As they came up to the door, the mistress ran out to greet the master.

VI. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Question 1.
What happened when John, Black beauty and the master were returning home?
Answer:
When they were returning home late in the afternoon, the wind was much stronger and the great branches were swaying. The wind made a terrible rushing sound. Suddenly an oak tree fell in front of them. When Black Beauty came to the bridge, it sensed some danger. So it did not move forward. The man on the other side told them that the bridge was broken in the middle. All the three were saved by the wisdom of Black Beauty.

VIII. Rearrange the Jumbled Sentences.

A
1.Come on!, Beauty. Whats’the matter?’
2. Of course, I could not tell what the problem was, but I knew very well that the bridge was not safe.
3. He got down from the cart and came to my head.
4. He took hold of my bridle and tried to lead me forward.
5.”There is something wrong sir” said John.
Answer:
5, 3,4,1, 2
5. “There is something wrong sir” said John.
3. He got down from the cart and came to my head.
4. He took hold of my bridle and tried to lead me forward.
1. ‘Come on!, Beauty. Whats’ the matter?’
2. Of course, I could not tell what the problem was, but I knew very well that the bridge was not safe.

IX. Read the passage and answer the questions.

A.
One morning in the autumn, my master had to go on a long journey, John harnessed me to the new cart. I liked too pull as it was very light and the
high wheels rolled along so smoothly.

Question 1.
When did they go on a long journey?
Answer:
One morning in the autumn they went on a long journey.

Question 2.
Who harnessed Black Beauty to the new cart?
Answer:
John harnessed Black Beauty to the new Cart.

Question 3.
Was the cart light?
Answer:
Yes, the cart was light to pull.

B.
They went into the house and I heard no more. John took me to the stable. Oh! What a good supper he gave me that night. And then a really thick bed of straw. I was grateful for everything for I was tired.

Question 1.
Where did John take Black Beauty?
Answer:
John took Black Beauty to the stable.

Question 2.
What did he give him that night?
Answer:
He gave him a good supper and a thick bed of straw that night.

Question 3.
Why was Black Beauty grateful for everything?
Answer:
Black Beauty was grateful for everything because it was tired.

When Instinct Works Adapted From ‘Black Beauty” By Anna Sewell Summary

This lesson is about the special knowledge given to animals by God. The instinct in animals had saved the lives of men. One morning late in the autumn, John harnessed Black Beauty, the horse to the new cart. The Master, John and Black Beauty proceeded on a long journey. It was very windy and there was a great deal of rain. When they came to the entrance of the toll gate, the man at the toll gate warned them that the river was rising fast. Suddenly an oak tree came crashing down in front of them. The river was flooding and it grew darker. Black Beauty sensed danger, the moment its feet touched the bridge. It made a dead stop. The man at the other end of the toll gate flashed a torch and said that the bridge was broken in the middle. John praised Black Beauty for saving their lives. If the horse had not been wiser, they would have drowned. John gave a good supper and a thick bed of straw to the horse. Black Beauty was grateful for everything, as it was tired

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பாடப்பகுதியில் இடம்பெற்றுள்ள ஒரு பத்தியைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து, அதிலுள்ள வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் எடுத்து எழுதி வகைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:
இன்றைய கல்வி குறிப்பிட்ட பாடங்களை நெட்டுருச் செய்து தேர்வில் தேதி பட்டம் பெற்று ஒரு தொழிலில் நுழைவதற்குக் கல்வி ஒரு கருவியாகக் கொள்ளப்பட்டு வருகிறது. நாளடைவில் கல்விக்கும் வாழ்விற்கும் தொடர்பு இல்லாமல் போகிறது.

  • பாடங்களை – ஐ – இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு
  • தேர்வில் – இல் – ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு
  • தொழிலில் – இல் – ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு
  • நுழைவதற்கு கு – நான்காம வேற்றுமை உருபு

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
பெயர்ச்சொல்லின் பொருளை வேறுபடுத்துவது ………………… ஆகும்
அ) எழுவாய்
ஆ) செயப்படுபொருள்
இ) பயனிலை
ஈ) வேற்றுமை
Answer:
ஈ) வேற்றுமை

Question 2.
எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை ……………………. வேற்றுமை என்று அழைக்கப்படுகிறது.
அ) எழுவாய்
ஆ) செயப்படுபொருள்
இ) விளி
ஈ) பயனிலை
Answer:
இ) விளி

Question 3.
உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் ………………………….. வேற்றுமை வரும்.
அ) மூன்றாம்
ஆ) நான்காம்
இ) ஐந்தாம்
ஈ) ஆறாம்
Answer:
அ) மூன்றாம்

Question 4.
‘அறத்தான் வருவதே இன்பம்’ – இத்தொடரில் …………………….. வேற்றுமை பயின்று வந்துள்ளது.
அ) இரண்டாம்
ஆ) மூன்றாம்
இ) ஆறாம்
ஈ) ஏழாம்
Answer:
ஆ) மூன்றாம்

Question 5.
‘மலர் பானையை வனைந்தாள்’ – இத்தொடர் …………………….. பொருளைக் குறிக்கிறது.
அ) ஆக்கல்
ஆ) அழித்தல்
இ) கொடை
ஈ) அடைதல்
Answer:
அ) ஆக்கல்

பொருத்துக

1. மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை – அ) இராமனுக்குத் தம்பி இலக்குவன்
2. நான்காம் வேற்றுமை – ஆ) பாரியினது தேர்
3. ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை – இ) மண்ணால் குதிரை செய்தான்
4. ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை – ஈ) ஏவுதல் கலையில் சிறந்தவன் ஏகலைவன்
Answer:
1. இ
2. அ
3. ஈ
4. ஆ

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
எழுவாய் வேற்றுமையை விளக்குக.
Answer:

  • எழுவாயுடன் வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் எதுவும் இணையாமல், எழுவாய் தனித்து நின்று, இயல்பான பொருளைத் தருவது எழுவாய் வேற்றுமை என்பர்.
  • இதனை முதல் வேற்றுமை’ என்றும் கூறுவர்.
  • எடுத்துக்காட்டு: பாவை வந்தாள்.

Question 2.
நான்காம் வேற்றுமை உணர்த்தும் பொருள்கள் யாவை?
Answer:
கொடை, பகை, நட்பு, தகுதி, அதுவாதல், பொருட்டு, முறை, எல்லை.

Question 3.
உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

  • வினை கொண்டு முடிகிற பொருளைத் தன்னிடத்தும் உடன் நிகழ்கிறதாக உடையது உடனிகழ்ச்சி ஆகும்.
  • ஒடு, ஓடு ஆகிய மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் வரும்.

எடுத்துக்காட்டு :

  • தாயோடு குழந்தை சென்றது.
  • அமைச்சரோடு அலுவலர்கள் சென்றனர்.

மொழியை ஆள்வோம்

கேட்க

Question 1.
கல்வியின் சிறப்புகளை விளக்கும் கதைகளைக் கேட்டு மகிழ்க.
Answer:
ஒரு ஊரில் வயதான பெரியவர் ஒருவர் இருந்தார். அவருக்கு இரண்டு மகன்கள். மூத்த மகன் படிப்பதே கிடையாது. அந்தப் பெரியவர் எவ்வளவு சொல்லியும் இளமைப்பருவத்தில் அவன் கேட்கவில்லை.

ஆனால் இளைய மகனோ, தந்தையின் சொல்லை மீறாமல் நன்கு படித்தான். தந்தையின் விருப்பப்படி விவசாயத்தைச் செய்தான். ஆனால் பெரிய மகனோ படிக்காமல், வேலைக்கும் செல்லாமல் ஊதாரித்தனமாக சுற்றிக் கொண்டிருப்பான்.

முதியவர் இறக்கும் போது ஒரு உயிலை எழுதி வைத்துச் சென்றார். வீட்டைச் சுற்றி உள்ள காலி இடத்தில் புதையல் இருக்கிறது என அதில் எழுதப்பட்டிருந்தது. அந்த முதியவர் இறந்தவுடன் காலியிடத்தை ஆளுக்குப் பாதியாகப் பிரித்துக் கொண்டனர்.

மூத்த மகன் தனக்குரிய பகுதியைத் தோண்டிப் பார்த்துவிட்டு புதையல் எதுவும் இல்லாததால், தன் தந்தை தன்னை ஏமாற்றி விட்டதாக சொல்லி குழிகளை மூடி விடுகிறான். ஆனால் இளையவனோ தோண்டிப் பார்த்துவிட்டு, அதனை மூட மனமில்லாமல் தென்னம் பிள்ளைகளை நட்டான்.

மூத்தவன் கல்வியறிவு இல்லாததால் சொத்தினை விற்று, பரம ஏழையாகப் போனான். இளையவனுக்கு, தென்னம் பிள்ளைகள் வளர்ந்து, பணத்தை அள்ளிக் கொடுத்தது.

கீழ்க்காணும் தலைப்பில் இரண்டு நிமிடம் பேசுக.

கல்வியே அழியாச் செல்வம்

தாயே! தமிழே! வணக்கம்.

தாய் பிள்ளை உறவு அம்மா உனக்கும் எனக்கும். பெருமைமிகு சபைக்கு முதற்கண் வணக்கம்.

கல்வியே அழியாச் செல்வம் என்னும் தலைப்பில் சில நிமிடங்கள் உங்கள் முன் பேசுகின்றேன். “தொட்டணைத் தூறும் மணற்கேணி மாந்தர்க்குக் கற்றனைத் தூறும் அறிவு” என்பார் திருவள்ளுவர். ஆம்! படிக்கப் படிக்கத்தான் நம் அறிவும் V பெருகும். அதுதான் அழியாத செல்வம். செல்வம் சேகரித்து வைத்திருந்தால் அது ஒருநாள் திருடு போகலாம். பொருட்கள் வாங்கி வைத்தால், அது ஒருநாள் வெள்ளத்தில் அடித்துச் செல்லலாம் அல்லது தீக்கு ஆளாகலாம். ஆனால் கல்விச் செல்வத்தைத் திருட முடியாது. எரிக்க முடியாது. வெள்ளத்தால் அடித்துச் செல்ல முடியாது.

மற்றவர் மனதில் அழியாமல் அது நிற்கும். அதனால் தான் அழியாத செல்வம் கல்விச் செல்வம் என்கின்றனர். எனவே அழியாத கல்விச் செல்வத்தை நாம் அனைவரும் கற்போம்.

நன்றி! வணக்கம்.

சொல்லக்கேட்டு எழுதுக.

தமிழ் மொழிக்கு வளம் சேர்த்த ஒரு நூல்; தமிழுக்கு வாழ்வியல் உண்மைகளை உணர்த்தும் ஒரு நூல்; தன் தோற்றத்தால் தமிழ்நாட்டுக்கு உலகப் பெரும் புகழைப் பெற்றுத் தந்த சிறந்த நூல் திருவள்ளுவரின் திருக்குறள். திருக்குறள் பற்றிப் பேசாத புலவர் இலர்; எழுதாத அறிஞர், எழுத்தாளர் இலர்.

பள்ளிப் பருவத்திலும் திருக்குறள் படிக்கப்படுகின்றது. பருவம் வளரவளர அதுவும் நுட்பமாகக் கற்கப்படுகின்றது. திருக்குறளுக்குரிய சிறப்பே அதுதான். அஃது எல்லாப் பருவத்தாருக்கும் வேண்டிய விழுமிய நூல். எனவே திருக்குறளில்லாத வீடும் இருக்கக் கூடாது! திருக்குறள் படிக்காத தமிழரும் இருக்கக் கூடாது!

கீழ்க்காண்பவற்றுள் ஒரு சொல்லை எடுத்து ஒன்றுக்கு மேற்பட்ட சொற்களுடன் இணைத்துப் புதிய சொற்களை உருவாக்குக.

மா – மாவிலை, மாமரம், மாங்காய்
தேன் – மலர்த்தேன், தேன்சிட்டு, தேன்கூடு
மலர் – தேன்மலர்
செம்மை – சேயிலை, செங்குருவி, செந்தேன்

சிட்டு – சிட்டுக்குருவி, தேன்சிட்டு
கனி – மாங்கனி, கனிமரம், தேன்கனி
குருவி – சிட்டுக்குருவி, குருவிக்கூடு
இலை – மாவிலை
காய் – மாங்காய், காய்கனி
கூடு – தேன்கூடு, குருவிக்கூடு
முட்டை – குருவிமுட்டை
மரம் – மாமரம், செம்மரம்

பின்வரும் தொடர்களில் உரிய இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக்குறிகளை இடுக.

1. பூக்கள் நிறைந்த இடம் சோலை ஆகும்.
2. திருக்குறள் அறம், பொருள், இன்பம் என்னும் முப்பால் பகுப்பு கொண்டது.
3. தமிழ்மொழி செம்மையானது, வலிமையானது, இளமையானது.
4. கபிலன், “தன் தந்தையிடம் இன்று மாலை விளையாடப் போகட்டுமா?” என்று கேட்டான்.
5. திரு. வி. க. எழுதிய ‘பெண்ணின் பெருமை‘ என்னும் நூல் புகழ்பெற்றது.

பின்வரும் பத்தியில் உரிய இடங்களில் நிறுத்தக்குறிகளை இடுக.

‘நூல் பல கல்‘ என்பர் பெரியோர். அறிவை வளர்க்கும் நூல்கள் அனைத்தையும் நம்மால் விலை கொடுத்து வாங்க முடியுமா? முடியாது. நூலகங்கள் இக்குறையை நீக்க உதவுகின்றன. பல்வேறு துறைகளைச் சேர்ந்த அனைத்து நூல்களும் நிறைந்த இடம் நூலகமாகும். நூலகத்தின் வகைகளாவன மைய நூலகம், மாவட்ட நூலகம், கிளை நூலகம், ஊர்ப்புற நூலகம். ‘எனக்கு பிடித்த நூல்களுடன் வாழ்நாள் முழுவதும் சிறையில் அடைத்தாலும் மகிழ்ச்சியடைவேன்‘ என்றார் நேரு. ஆகவே, நூலகத்தின் பயன் அறிவோம்! அறிவு வளம் பெறுவோம்!

கீழ்க்காணும் விளம்பரத்தைப் படித்து வினாக்களுக்கு விடை எழுதுக.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை 1

Question 1.
எந்த நாளை முன்னிட்டுப் புத்தகக் கண்காட்சி நடத்தப்படுகிறது?
Answer:
உலகப் புத்தக நாள்.

Question 2.
புத்தகக் கண்காட்சி எங்கு நடைபெறுகிறது?
Answer:
இராயப்பேட்டை ஒய்.எம்.சி.ஏ மைதானம்.

Question 3.
புத்தகக் கண்காட்சி எத்தனை நாள்கள் நடைபெறுகிறது?
Answer:
11 நாட்கள். (ஏப்ரல் 13 முதல் ஏப்ரல் 23 வரை)

Question 4.
புத்தகக் கண்காட்சிக்கான நுழைவுக் கட்டணம் எவ்வளவு?
Answer:
நுழைவுக் கட்டணம் இல்லை.

Question 5.
புத்தகம் வாங்குவோருக்கு வழங்கப்படும் சலுகை யாது?
Answer:
10 சதவீதக் கழிவு.

கொடுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள குறிப்புகளைக் கொண்டு கட்டுரை எழுதுக.

முன்னுரை – நூலகத்தின் தேவை – வகைகள் – நூலகத்திலுள்ளவை – படிக்கும் முறை – முடிவுரை

நூலகம்

முன்னுரை :
‘நூலகம் அறிவின் ஊற்று’
‘வீட்டிற்கு ஒரு நூலகம் அமைப்போம்’
என்றார் பேரறிஞர் அண்ணா . ஊரில் உள்ள ஒரு நூலகத்தையாவது, நாம் பயன்படுத்த வேண்டாமா? நூலகத்தைப் பயன்படுத்தும் முன் நூலகத்தைப் பற்றி தெரிந்து கொள்வோம்.

நூலகத்தின் தேவை :
‘சாதாரண மாணவர்களையும்
சாதனையாளர்களாக உயர்த்துவது நூலகம்’

  • ஏழை மாணவர்களும் இளைஞர்களும் படிப்பதற்குத் தேவையான நூல்களை விலை கொடுத்து வாங்க முடிவதில்லை. சில நூல்களின் விலை மிகவும் அதிகமாக உள்ளது.
  • அன்றாடச் செய்தித்தாள்களைக் கூட அவர்களால் வாங்க இயலாத நிலை உள்ளது.
  • ஆகவே, இலவசமாக நூல்களைப் படிக்க நூலகம் தேவைப்படுகின்றது.

வகைகள் :
மாவட்ட மைய நூலகம், மாவட்ட கிளை நூலகம், ஊர்ப்புற நூலகம், தனியார் நூலகம், கல்லூரி நூலகம், பல்கலைக்கழக நூலகம், நடமாடும் நூலகம், மின் நூலகம் எனப் பலவகை நூலகங்கள் உள்ளன.

நூலகத்தில் உள்ளவை :
‘அறிவுப் பசிக்கு உணவு நூலகம்’
தமிழ் மற்றும் ஆங்கிலக் கதை, கவிதை, கட்டுரை, ஆய்வுநூல்கள், வரலாற்று நூல்கள், அறிவியல் நூல்கள், தொழில்நுட்ப நூல்கள், போட்டித் தேர்வு நூல்கள், நாளிதழ்கள், வார இதழ்கள், மாத இதழ்கள், அகராதிகள், களஞ்சியங்கள் ஆகியவை நூலகத்தில் உள்ளன.

படிக்கும் முறை :
நூலகத்தில் நூல்களை எடுத்து அமைதியாகப் படிப்பதற்காக ஒதுக்கப்பட்டுள்ள இடத்தில் அமர்ந்து படிக்க வேண்டும். நூல்களைக் கிழிக்கவோ, சேதப்படுத்துவதோ கூடாது. படித்து முடித்தவுடன் மீண்டும் உரிய அலமாரியில் நூலை வைக்க வேண்டும்.

முடிவுரை :
‘நம் அகம்
நூல் அகம்’
நாளும் நூல் பல கற்று சிறந்த மேதையாக வரவும், நூலகம் துணை செய்கிறது. நூலகம் தேடிச் சென்று, நூல்களைப் படிப்போம்! உயர்வோம்!!
‘நூலகம் அறிஞர்களின் வாழ்வில்லம்’

மொழியோடு விளையாடு

கீழ்க்காணும் வினாக்களுக்கு விடைகளைக் கட்டத்தில் நிரப்புக. வட்டத்தில் சிக்கிய எழுத்துகளை எடுத்து எழுதுக. எழுத்துகளை முறைப்படுத்தி கல்வி பற்றிய பழமொழியைக் கண்டறிக.

1. திரைப்படப் பாடலாசிரியர் சோமுவின் ஊர் …………………………
2. கேடில் விழுச்செல்வம் ……………………….
3. குமரகுருபரர் எழுதிய நூல்களுள் ஒன்று ……………………….
4. ‘கலன்’ என்னும் சொல்லின் பொருள் ……………………….
5. ஏட்டுக் கல்வியுடன் …………………………. கல்வியும் பயில வேண்டும்.
6. திரு. வி. க. எழுதிய நூல்களுள் ஒன்று ………………………
7. மா + பழம் என்பது …………………. விகாரம்.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை 2
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை 3
பழமொழி – அறிவே ஆற்றல்

நிற்க அதற்குத் தக…..

என் பொறுப்புகள்:

1. நாள்தோறும் ஒரு திருக்குறள் கற்பேன்.
2. அனைவரிடமும் அன்புகொண்டு வாழ்வேன்.

கலைச்சொல் அறிவோம்

1. நிறுத்தக்குறி – Punctuation
2. அணிகலன் – Ornament
3. திறமை – Talent
4. மொழிபெயர்ப்பு – Translation
5. விழிப்புணர்வு – Awareness
6. சீர்திருத்தம் – Reform

இணையத்தில் காண்க

Question 1.
திரு. வி. க. எழுதிய நூல்களின் விவரங்களை இணையத்தில் தேடி எழுதுக.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை 4
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.5 வேற்றுமை 5

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
வேற்றுமை வகை ……………….
அ) ஆறு
ஆ) ஏழு
இ) எட்டு
ஈ) மூன்று
Answer:
இ) எட்டு

Question 2.
இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு ……………….
அ) கண்
ஆ) ஐ
இ) கண்
ஈ) ஓடு
Answer:
ஆ) ஐ

Question 3.
உடனிகழ்ச்சிப் பொருளில் வரும் வேற்றுமை ……………………
அ) நான்காம் வேற்றுமை
ஆ) ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை
இ) மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை
ஈ) ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை
Answer:
இ) மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை

Question 4.
‘முல்லைக்குத் தேர் கொடுத்தான்’ இதில் இடம்பெறும் நான்காம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள்
அ) தகுதி
ஆ) நட்பு
இ) பகை
ஈ) கொடை
Answer:
ஈ) கொடை

Question 5.
‘புகை மனிதனுக்குப் பகை’ – இதில் இடம்பெறும் நான்காம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள் ……………………
அ) தகுதி
ஆ) நட்பு
இ) பகை
ஈ) முறை
Answer:
இ) பகை

Question 6.
‘செங்குட்டுவனுக்குத் தம்பி இளங்கோ’ இதில் இடம்பெறும் நான்காம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள் ……………….
அ) அதுவாதல்
ஆ) பொருட்டு
இ) முறை
ஈ) எல்லை
Answer:
இ) முறை

Question 7.
‘தலையின் இழிந்த மயிர்’ – இதில் இடம்பெறும் ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமைப் பொருள்
அ) நீங்கல்
ஆ) ஒப்பு
இ) எல்லை
ஈ) ஏது
Answer:
அ) நீங்கல்

Question 8.
உரிமைப் பொருளில் வரும் வேற்றுமை ……………………….
அ) முதல் வேற்றுமை
ஆ) ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை
இ) ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை
ஈ) எல்லை
Answer:
இ) ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை

குறுவினா

Question 1.
வேற்றுமை என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
பெயர்ச்சொல்லின் பொருளை வேறுபடுத்தும் முறைமையை வேற்றுமை என்பர்.

Question 2.
வேற்றுமை எத்தனை வகைப்படும்? அவை யாவை?
Answer:

  • வேற்றுமை எட்டு
  • வகைப்படும்.
  • முதல் வேற்றுமை
  • ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமை
  • இரண்டாம் வேற்றுமை
  • ஆறாம் வேற்றுமை
  • மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை
  • ஏழாம் வேற்றுமை
  • நான்காம் வேற்றுமை
  • எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை

Question 3.
வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
பெயர்ச்சொல்லுடன் இணைக்கப்படும் அசைகளை வேற்றுமை உருபுகள் என்பர்.

Question 4.
மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமைக்கு உரிய உருபுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
ஆல், ஆன், ஒடு, ஓடு.

Question 5.
ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமைக்குரிய உருபுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
இல், இன்.

Question 6.
ஆறாம் வேற்றுமைக்கு உருபுகள் யாவை?
Answer:
அது, ஆது, அ.

Question 7.
உருபு இல்லாத வேற்றுமைகள் எவை?
Answer:

  • முதலாம் வேற்றுமை
  • எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை

Question 8.
மூன்றாம் வேற்றுமை உருபு எவ்வெவ் பொருள்களில் வரும்?
Answer:
கருப்பொருள், கருத்தா பொருள்.

Question 9.
சொல்லுருபுகள் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
சில இடங்களில் உறுப்புகளுக்குப் பதிலாக முழு சொற்களே வருவதும் உண்டு. அவற்றைச் சொல்லுருபுகள் என்பர்.

Question 10.
ஐந்தாம் வேற்றுமையிலும் ஏழாம் வேற்றுமையிலும் வரும் உருபு எது?
Answer:
இல்.

Question 11.
முதல் வேற்றுமை, எட்டாம் வேற்றுமை ஆகியவற்றின் வேறு பெயர்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

  • முதல் வேற்றுமையை எழுவாய் வேற்றுமை என்பர்.
  • எட்டாம் வேற்றுமையை விளி வேற்றுமை என்பர்.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Migration and Urbanisation

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1 Migration and Urbanisation

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Migration and Urbanisation Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Migration And Urbanisation 8th Class Question 1.
People move from …………… to …………… mainly in search of better jobs.
(a) Rural to Urban
(b) Urban to Rural
(c) Hills to plains
(d) Plains to hills
Answer:
(a) Rural to Urban

The Migration In Search Of Fertile Agricultural Land Is Dash Migration Question 2.
A person moves from his own country to another country is known as ……………
(a) Immigrant
(b) Refugee
(c) Emigrant
(d) Asylum seeker
Answer:
(c) Emigrant

Urbanization Is Determined By Dash Number Of Factors Question 3.
The migration in search of fertile agricultural land is …………… migration.
(a) Rural to Rural
(b) Rural to Urban
(c) Urban to Rural
(d) Urban to Urban
Answer:
(a) Rural to Rural

The Migration In Search Of Fertile Agricultural Land Is Question 4.
War is one of the …………… causes of human migration.
(a) Demographic
(b) Socio – Cultural
(c) Political
(d) Economic
Answer:
(c) Political

Mass Migration Is Absent In The Modern Period True Or False Question 5.
The main reason for the development of urbanization in pre – historic period was ……………
(a) Production of food grains
(b) Domestication of cattle
(c) Fishing
(d) hunting
Answer:
(b) Domestication of cattle

II. Fill in the Blanks

  1. Urbanization is determined by …………… number of factors.
  2. …………… is the major push factor operating in rural areas.
  3. …………… Metropolitan city in India has the second highest urban population in the world.
  4. The movement of a person based on his free will and desire to live in a better place is …………… migration.
  5. In modem time urban growth was accelerated by the development of ……………

Answer:

  1. Three
  2. Poverty
  3. Delhi
  4. Voluntary
  5. Towns and cities

III. Match the following

  1. Emigration – In migration
  2. Immigration – Out migration
  3. Pull factor – Employment
  4. Push factor – Socio – Cultural migration
  5. Marriage – Employment opportunity

Answer:

  1. Emigration – Out migration
  2. Immigration – In migration
  3. Pull factor – Socio – Cultural migration
  4. Push factor – Employment opportunity
  5. Marriage – Employment

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

  1. Slums are generally found in cities.
  2. Mass migration is absent in the modem period.
  3. The process of Urbanisation has a short history.
  4. Cities and towns are the major polluters of environment.
  5. Transhumance is also referred as seasonal migration.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. False
  4. True
  5. True

V. Consider the given statements and choose the correct option the given ones

Statement (A) – Urbanisation is mainly due to the movement of people from rural to cities.
Reason (R) – Rural to Urban migration is not a predominant one.
(a) A is correct but R is incorrect
(b) Both A and R are incorrect
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(a) A is correct but R is incorrect

VI. Answer the following questions in brief

Is The Major Push Factors Operating In Rural Areas Answer Question 1.
Define “Migration”.
Answer:
Migration has been defined differently by different experts. In general migration is defined as the permanent or semi permanent change of residence of an individual or group of people over a significant distance. So, the term migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another.

Major Push Factors Operating In Rural Areas Question 2.
What are the causes of rural to urban migration?
Answer:

  1. Ecological or Natural causes of migration
  2. Economic causes of migration
  3. Socio – cultural causes of migration
  4. Demographic causes of migration
  5. Political causes of migration

People Move From To Mainly In Search Of Better Jobs Question 3.
State the causes of the ecological or natural migration.
Answer:

  1. Natural causes include volcanic eruption, mankind changed considerably.
  2. At this stage, people continued to move from one region to another in search of fertile land for cultivation.

The Process Of Urbanisation Has A Short History True Or False Question 4.
Name any two pull factor of migration.
Answer:

  1. Availability of better job opportunity.
  2. Fertile land

Question 5.
What is Urbanization?
Answer:
Urbanization refers to the process in which there is an increase in the proportion of population living in towns and cities.

Question 6.
List out any four most populous cities in the world.
Answer:

  1. Tokyo (Japan)
  2. Delhi (India)
  3. Shanghai (China)
  4. Mexico city (Mexico)

VII Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
What are the different types of migration? Explain.
Answer:
Migration can be classified in several ways. They are:
1. Based on the movement associated with administrative limits.

(a) Internal Migration
(b) International Migration

2. Based on the willingness of the migrants for migration.

(a) Voluntary Migration
(b) Involuntary Migration

3. Based on the duration of stay of migrants in the place of destination.

(a) Short term Migration
(b) Long term Migration
(c) Seasonal Migration

1. Based on the movement associated with administrative limits.
(a) Internal Migration:

  1. The movement of people within a country is known as internal migration.
  2. Further internal migration is classified into four types. They are,
    • Rural to Urban migration
    • Urban to Urban migration
    • Rural to Rural migration and
    • Urban to Rural migration

(b) International Migration:
Migration that occurs across the national boundaries are known as international migration.

2. Based on the Willingness of the migrants for migration:
(a) Voluntary migration:

  1. If the migration takes place on perspus free will, initiative and desire to live in a better place.

(b) Involuntary migration:

  1. If the migration takes place against the will of migrants is known as involuntary migration.

3. Based on the duration of stay of migrants in the place of destination:
(a) Short term migration:

  1. The migrants stay outside only for a short duration before returning to the place of origin.

(b) Long term migration:

  1. The migrants stay outside at least for a few years.

(c) Seasonal migration:

  1. Usually a group of people migrates from their native places during a particular season and return after end of that season.
  2. Transhumance is an another example of seasonal migration.

Question 2.
Explain in detail about the various causes of migration.
Answer:
1. Ecological or Natural causes of migration:

  • The causes operate under this category are natural ones. They include Valcanic eruption, mankind changed considerably.
  • At this stage, people continued to move from one region to another in search of fertile land for cultivation.

2. Economic causes of migration:

  • Economy is one of the most important causes of human migration from one area to another.
  • The availability of fertile agricultural land, employment opportunities, development of technology etc. are some of the economic causes that attract the migration.

3. Socio – cultural causes of migration:

  • Socio – cultural causes also play some roles in the process of migration.
  • For example, women after marriage.

4. Demographic causes of migration:

  • In demographic sense, the population composition like age and sex, over population and under population are the major causes of migration.
  • Over population is considered as a push factor and under population to be pull factor in the context of migration.

5. Political causes of migration:

  • Various political causes like colonization, wars, Government policies etc. have always been playing important role in human migration from time to time.

Question 3.
Discuss the problems of urbanisation.
Answer:
1. Housing and Slums:

  • There is a lack of space for housing and a marked reduction in the quality of housing in the urban areas due to increase in population.

2. Over Crowding:

  • Over – crowding leads to unhealthy environment in the urban areas.
  • It also the cause of many diseases and riots.

3. Water Supply, Drainage and Sanitation:

  • No city has round the clock water supply in the world.
  • Drainage situation is equally bad.
  • The removal of garbage is a Himalayan task for urban local bodies.

4. Transportation and Traffic:

  • Absence of planned and adequate arrangements for traffic and transport is another problem in urban centers.
  • The increasing number of two wheeler and cars make the traffic problem worse.

5. Pollution:

  • Towns and cities are the major polluters of environment.
  • Several cities discharge their entire sewage and industrial effluents untreated into the near by rivers. Industries in and around the urban centers pollute the atmosphere with smoke and toxic gases.

VIII. Map Study

Question 1.
On the outline map of the world mark the following places

  1. Tokyo
  2. New Delhi
  3. Mexico city
  4. Shanghai
  5. Sao Paulo
  6. Oceania
  7. Latin America
  8. Paris
  9. London
  10. Cairo

Answer:
Migration And Urbanisation 8th Class Samacheer Kalvi Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1

IX. Activities

Question 1.
List out and analyze the reason for migration of people in your locality.
Answer:
People migrate for a number of reasons. The reasons and causes for migration would normally fall under these areas:

  1. Environmental – Better climate, calamities and natural disasters are examples of environmental causes or reasons.
  2. Economic – Moving to find work or moving to follow a particular career path is an example of economic cause or reason.
  3. Cultural – Religious freedom and education is an example of cultural cause or reason.
  4. Political – Civil war or escaping from political persecution is an example of political cause.
  5. Social – Moving for a better quality of life or moving closer to a family member or friend is an example of a social cause or reason.

Question 2.
Collect the pictures and information regarding the effects of urbanization and make an album.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Migration and Urbanisation Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
…………… refers to the movement of people from one place to another.
(a) Privatization
(b) Migration
(c) Modernisation
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Migration

Question 2.
…………… move from rural to urban mainly in search of beter jobs.
(a) Children
(b) People
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) People

Question 3.
…………… is determined by three number of factors.
(a) Globalization
(b) Privatization
(c) Liberalization
(d) Urbanization
Answer:
(d) Urbanization

Question 4.
Transhumance is also referred as …………… migration.
(a) Seasonal
(b) Migration
(c) Socio – Cultural Migration
(d) Mass Migration
Answer:
(c) Socio – Cultural Migration

Question 5.
Cities and towns are the major polluters of …………….
(a) Environment
(b) Urbanization
(c) Privatization
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 6.
Poverty is the major push factor operating in …………… areas.
(a) Urban
(b) Rural
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Rural

Question 7.
Delhi Metropolitan City in India has the …………… highest urbam population in the world.
(a) First
(b) Third
(c) Second
(d) Fourth
Answer:
(c) Second

Question 8.
In …………… time urban growth was accelerated by the development of towns and cities.
(a) Modem
(b) Medieval
(c) Classical
(d) Ancient
Answre:
(a) Modern

Question 9.
…………… are generally found in cities.
(a) Fields
(b) Slums
(c) Wells
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Slums

Question 10.
…………… around the urban centers polluted the atmosphere with smoke and toxic gases.
(a) Trades
(b) Transhumances
(c) Industries
(d) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Answer:
(c) Industries

Question 11.
The favorable factors which attract people towards a location are called …………… factors.
(a) Push
(b) Pull
(c) Natural
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Pull

Question 12.
The unfavorable factors which make the people to move out from a location are called …………… factors.
(a) Push
(b) Pull
(c) Natural
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Push

Question 13.
Human migration is categorized under …………… groups.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) two
(d) five
Answer:
(d) five

Question 14.
Wars have been one of the significant causes of migration since …………….
(a) Modem time
(b) Ancient time
(c) Classical time
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Ancient time

Question 15.
Migration that occurs across the national boundaries are known as …………… migration.
(a) Urban
(b) Rural
(c) Involuntary
(d) International
Answer:
(d) International

Question 16.
…………… takes place on person’s free will, initiative and desire to live in a better place.
(a) Involuntary migration
(b) Voluntary migration
(c) Rural migration
(d) All of these
Answer:
(b) Voluntary migration

Question 17.
The movement of the people within a country is known as …………… migration.
(a) Urban migration
(b) Internal
(c) International
(d) Involuntary
Answer:
(b) Internal

Question 18.
…………… migration takes place against the will of migration.
(a) Rural
(b) Internal
(c) Involuntary
(d) Voluntary
Answer:
(c) Involuntary

Question 19.
Transhumance is an another example of …………… migration.
(a) Rural
(b) Seasonal
(c) Urban
(d) Voluntary
Answer:
(b) Seasonal

Question 20.
The industrial revolution in the …………… century
(a) 18th Century
(b) 20th Century
(c) 19th Century
(d) 16th Century
Answer:
(c) 19th Century

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. …………… is one of the most important causes of human migration from one area to another.
  2. In 2017 …………… was the largest country of Origin of International migrants followed by Mexico.
  3. …………… Migration is the movement of population from rural areas to growing towns and cities.
  4. …………… in Urban areas leads to the pollution of air, water and soil.
  5. …………… is driven by three factors.
  6. To Improve their financial status, the migration is said to be ……………
  7. One of the most important aspect of Social Science is …………….
  8. Women mostly migrate after their ……………
  9. …………… to Urban migration is the migration between one urban center to the other like in search of higher salaries.
  10. Rural to urban migration is the most …………… one.
  11. …………… migration may be from a few days to few months.
  12. …………… migrants stay outside at least for a few years.
  13. …………… period primitive man started domestication of plants and animals.
  14. The excess production of food grains was the major reason for ……………
  15. During the beginning of the …………… century itself many cities were found near the Aegean Sea.
  16. …………… period starts from 17th century.
  17. The latest development in Urbanization was noticed in the continent of …………..
  18. In 1950 …………… percentage of the world’s population was Urban.
  19. The removal of …………… is a Himalayan task for urban local bodies.
  20. Industries in and around the Urban centers pollute the atmosphere with and …………… gases.

Answer:

  1. Economy
  2. India
  3. Rural to Urban
  4. Over population
  5. Urbanization
  6. Voluntary
  7. “Human Migration”
  8. Marriage
  9. Urban
  10. common
  11. Short – term
  12. Long – term
  13. Ancient period
  14. Urbanization
  15. 7th Century
  16. Modern
  17. Africa
  18. 30%
  19. garbage
  20. Smoke, toxic

III. Match the following:

The Migration In Search Of Fertile Agricultural Land Is Dash Migration Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1
Answer:

  1. e
  2. a
  3. d
  4. b
  5. c

Urbanization Is Determined By Dash Number Of Factors Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1
Answer:

  1. c
  2. d
  3. a
  4. e
  5. b

IV. State True or False

  1. Transhumance is an example of short term migration.
  2. Wars have been considered as political causes of migration.
  3. Urbanization is driven by five factors.
  4. Modem period start from 20th century.
  5. Generally over population is considered as pull factor.
  6. In 2019, the total population in Northern America is 366,400,324
  7. One of the most important aspects of social science is “Birds Migration”.
  8. The favorable factors which attract people towards a location are called push factors.
  9. Unemployment is a economic causes of migration.
  10. Volcanic eruption is a social causes of migration.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. False
  4. False
  5. False
  6. True
  7. False
  8. False
  9. True
  10. False

V. Consider the following statements and Tick (✓) the appropriate answer:

Question 1.
(i) During the early days, people moved from one place to another in search of food.
(ii) Human migration is categorized under two groups.
(iii) Various economic causes determine the level and direction of migration.
(iv) Migration that occurs across the national boundaries are known as international migration.

(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) are Correct
(b) (i), (ii) & (iv) are Correct
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) are Correct
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are Correct
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv) are Correct

Question 2.
Statement (A): Large scale movement of people from rural to urban areas causes over crowding in cities.
Reason (R) : The over population in Urban areas leads to the pollution of air, water and soil.
(a) A is correct but R is incorrect
(b) Both A and R are incorrect
(c) Both A and R are correct
(d) A is incorrect and R is correct
Answer:
(c) Both A and R are correct!

Question 3.
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Brain drain – Economic consequence
(b) Environmental causes – Earth quake
(c) Example for Demographic consequences – People become generous.
(d) Social consequences – Pollution of air, water
Answer:
(a) Brain drain – Economic consequence

Question 4.
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Short term migration – Few years
(b) Long term migration – Stay outside at least few years
(c) Involuntary migration – Migration take place against the will.
(d) Europe – Female migrants outnumber male migrants.
Answer:
(a) Short term migration – Few years

VI. Answer the following one or two sentences

Question 1.
What do you mean by Migration?
Answer:
The term migration refers to the movement of people from one place to another.

Question 2.
What are the Factors influencing Migration?
Answer:

  1. There are number of factors which are responsible for the migration of human population.
  2. These factors can be grouped under the heads of favorable and unfavorable factors.

Question 3.
What is pull factors?
answer:
The favorable factors which attract people towards a location are called pull factors.

Question 4.
What is push factors?
Answer:
The unfavorable factors which make the people to move out from a location are called push factors.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Economic causes of Migration.
Answer:

  1. Economy is one of the most important causes of human migration from one area to another.
  2. The availability of fertile agricultural land, employment opportunities, development of technology etc. are some of the economic causes that attract the migration.

Question 6.
What is Demographic causes of Migration?
Answer:
In demographic sense, the population composition like age and sex, over population and under population are the major causes of migration.

Question 7.
What is voluntary migration?
Answer:

  1. If the migration takes place on person’s free will, initiative and desire to live in a better place.
  2. To improve their financial status, the migration is said to be voluntary.

Question 8.
What are the consequences of Migration?
Answer:

  1. Demographic consequences.
  2. Social consequences.
  3. Economic consequences.
  4. Environmental consequences.

Question 9.
What are the factors influencing urbanization?
Answer:
Urbanization is driven by three factors. They are,

  1. Natural population growth.
  2. Rural to Urban Migration and
  3. Reclassification bf rural areas into urban areas.

VII. Answer the following in detail

Question 1.
Describe the consequences of Migration.
Answer:
1. Demographic consequences:
It changes age and sex composition of population. Migration of females after their marriage leads to decline in sex ratio in the source regions and increase the sex ratio in the regions of destinations.

2. Social consequences:
The Migration of people from different regions towards an urban area leads to the formation of plural society. It helps the people to come out of narrow mindedness and people become generous.

3. Economic consequences:
The Migration of more people from over populated to under populated regions results the imbalance of the resource – population ratio. In some cases, the regions of over and under population may become the regions of optimum population. Migration may influence the occupational structure of the population of our area. Brain drain is a consequence of migration.

4. Environmental consequences:
Large scale movement of people from rural to urban areas causes overcrowding in cities and puts heavy pressure on resources. It leads to rapid growth of cities. The over population in urban areas leads to the population of air, water and soil. The lack of space for housing and the rising off and cost lead to the formation of slums.

Question 2.
Explain about the demographic causes of migration and political causes of migration.
Answer:
Demographic causes of Migration:

  1. In demographic sense, the population composition like age and sex, over population and under population are the major causes of migration.
  2. It is well known fact that adults are more migratory than any other age-groups.
  3. Women mostly migrate after their marriage.
  4. Generally over population is considered as a push factor and under population to be Pull factor in the context of migration.

Political cause of Migration:

  1. Various political causes like colonization, wars, government policies etc. have always been playing important role in human migration from time to time.
  2. Wars have been one of the significant causes of migration since ancient time.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு

Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு Text Book Back Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Tamil Solutions Chapter 4.1 கல்வி அழகே அழகு

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
கல்வி குறித்து வழங்கப்படும் பழமொழிகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

  • கல்வி கரையில கற்பவர் நாள் சில.
  • கல்வி அழகே அழகு.
  • கத்த (கற்ற) வித்த(வித்தை) காலத்துக்கு உதவும்.
  • நூறு நாள் கத்தது (கற்றது), ஆறு நாள் விடப்போகும்.
  • கற்க கசடற.
  • இளமையில் கல்.
  • நூல் பல கல்.

Question 2.
கற்றோரின் சிறப்புகளைப் பற்றிப் பிற நூல்களில் இடம் பெற்ற பாடல்களைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
கண்ணுடையோர் என்பவர் கற்றோர் முகத்து இரண்டு
புண்ணுடையார் கல்லா தவர். – திருக்குறள்

நிறைகுடம் நீர்தளும்பல் இல். – பழமொழி

மன்னனும் மாசறக் கற்றோனும் சீர்தூக்கில்
மன்னனில் கற்றோன் சிறப்புடையன் – மன்னர்க்கு
தன்தேச மல்லால் சிறப்பில்லை
கற்றோர்க்குச் சென்ற இடமெல்லாம் சிறப்பு. – மூதுரை

Question 3.
பின்வரும் நாலடியார் பாடலைப் படித்துச் சுவைக்க.
Answer:
கல்வி கரையில கற்பவர் நாள் சில
மெல்ல நினைக்கின் பிணி பல – தெள்ளிதின்
ஆராய்ந் தமைவுடைய கற்பவே நீரொழியப்
பாலுண் குருகின் தெரிந்து.

பாடநூல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
கற்றவருக்கு அழகு தருவது ………………………….
அ) தங்கம்
ஆ) வெள்ளி
இ) வைரம்
ஈ) கல்வி
Answer:
ஈ) கல்வி

Question 2.
‘கலனல்லால்’ என்னும் சொல்லைப் பிரித்து எழுதக் கிடைப்பது ………………………..
அ) கலன் + லல்லால்
ஆ) கலம் + அல்லால்
இ) கலன் + அல்லால்
ஈ) கலன் + னல்லால்
Answer:
இ) கலன் + அல்லால்

சொற்றொடரில் அமைத்து எழுதுக.

1. அழகு – கல்வியே உண்மையான அழகு.
2. கற்றவர் – கல்வி கற்றவரே உலகில் உயர்ந்தவர்.
3. அணிகலன் – மனிதனுக்கு உண்மையான அணிகலன் கல்வி ஆகும்.

குறுவினா

Question 1.
யாருக்கு அழகு செய்ய வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை?
Answer:
கல்வி கற்றவருக்கு அழகு செய்ய வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கப்பாடல் கூறும் கருத்துகளைத் தொகுத்து எழுதுக.
Answer:

  • ஒளிவீசும் மணிகளால் செய்யப்பட்ட அணிகலன்களுக்கு மேலும் அழகுபடுத்த வேறு அணிகலன்கள் தேவையில்லை.
  • அதுபோலக் கல்வி கற்றவருக்கு அக்கல்வியே அழகு தரும்.
  • அதனால் அழகுபடுத்தும் அணிகலன்கள் கற்றவருக்குத் தேவையில்லை.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
கல்வியின் பயன்களாக நீங்கள் கருதுவனவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:

  • நம்முள் புதைந்து கிடக்கும் ஆற்றலை வெளிக்கொண்டு வரும்.
  • பகுத்து அறியும் அறிவைத் தரும்.
  • துன்பம் வரும் முன் தடுத்து நிறுத்தும் அறிவைத் தரும்.
  • மெய்ப்பொருள் காணும் அறிவினைத் தரும்.

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
குமரகுருபரரின் காலம் ……………………..
அ) கி.பி. 15
ஆ) கி.பி. 17
இ) கி.பி. 18
ஈ) கி.பி. 16
Answer:
ஆ) கி.பி. 17

Question 2.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கத்தில் உள்ள வெண்பாக்கள் ……………………
அ) 100
ஆ) 102
இ) 103
ஈ) 104
Answer:
ஆ) 102

குறுவினா

Question 1.
நீதிநெறி விளக்கம் – பெயர்க்காரணம் கூறுக.
Answer:
மக்களின் வாழ்வுக்குத் தேவையான நீதிகளைச் சுட்டிக்காட்டுவதால், இந்நூல் நீதிநெறி விளக்கம் எனப் பெயர்பெற்றது.

Question 2.
குமரகுருபரர் இயற்றிய நூல்கள் யாவை?
Answer:

  • கந்தர் கலிவெண்பா
  • கயிலைக் கலம்பகம்
  • சகலகலாவல்லி மாலை
  • மீனாட்சியம்மை பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்
  • முத்துக்குமாரசுவாமி பிள்ளைத்தமிழ்

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
குமரகுருபரர் பற்றி நீவிர் அறிந்தவற்றை எழுதுக.
Answer:
பெயர் : குமரகுருபரர்
பிறந்த ஊர் : ஸ்ரீவைகுண்டம்
பெற்றோர் : சண்முக சிகாமணி – சிவகாமசுந்தரி
காலம் : கி.பி. 17
இயற்றிய நூல்கள் : திருவாரூர் நான்மணிமாலை, கந்தர்கலிவெண்பா, கயிலைக் கலம்பகம், சகலகலாவல்லிமாலை, மீனாட்சியம்மை பிள்ளைத்தமிழ், முத்துக்குமாரசுவாமி பிள்ளைத்தமிழ் முதலியன.

சொல்லும் பொருளும்

1. கலன் – அணிகலன்
2. முற்ற – ஒளிர
3. வேண்டாவாம் – தேவையில்லை

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 1 My Hobby: Reading

Students can Download English Poem 1 My Hobby: Reading Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 1 My Hobby: Reading

My Hobby Reading Poem Explanation of poetic lines

Line No.

Poem Lines

Explanation

1

My hobby is readingThe poet declares in the first line itself that reading is his hobby.

2-3

It helps me In thought breeding.He says his reading hobby helps him to grow and cultivate many good thoughts.

4-5

It takes me to places Near and far,Those thoughts take the poet not only to the nearby places but also to the remote and far areas.

6-7

It keeps my rational Doors ajar.The poet compares his mind to a room and expresses that reading habit enables him to keep the doors of his mind unlocked and half open to permit intelligent and logical reasoning. At the same time, it prevents the unwanted entry of bad and wrong things.

8-9

It teaches me To cackle and cryReading practises the poet to take in both happiness and sorrow in the same spirit. It teaches him to laugh loudly during happy times and to cry and let out sorrow during painful times.

10-11

Without wings It lets me fly.Reading does not restrict or control the thoughts of the poet. Without wings it allows his thoughts to soar high and fly.

12-13

I wish If all the children could read,The poet aspires that all the children should go to school and study, there should be no illiterates.

14

In constructing a vigorous society,He believes that if all the children are well educated, then they can build a dynamic, strong and powerful society.

15

Then we shall succeed.If such a society is created, we shall succeed and reach the pinnacle in our lives.

My Hobby Reading Poem Summary GLOSSARY

ajar – slightly open
breeding – procreation
cackle – informal laugh
constructing – establish / create
hobby – leisure time activity
rational – intelligence
read – educated
vigorous – powerful
without wings – without limits

1. Comprehension Questions.

My Hobby Reading Question 1.
What is the hobby of the poet?
Answer:
Reading is the hobby of the poet.

My Hobby Reading Question Answer Question 2.
What does ‘ajar’ mean ?
Answer:
‘Ajar’ means slightly open door.

My Hobby Reading Poem Question Answer Question 3.
Can the poet fly without wings ?
Answer:
No, the poet cannot fly without wings, but- his thoughts and imaginations can fly everywhere without wings.

My Hobby Poem 8th Standard Question 4.
What can children do to society if they read ?
Answer:
If all the children could read, they could construct a dynamic society.

My Hobby 8th Class Question 5.
What is theme of the poem?
Answer:
The theme of the poem is, ‘Reading hobby’.

2. On the basis of your understanding of the poem, tick the most suitable option to complete the statements.

My Hobby Reading Poem Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Chapter 1

3.Complete the table given below in order to understand the poem better.
Answer:
My Hobby Reading Poem Summary Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Term 1 Chapter 1

Figure Of Speech

a. Rhyming words :

A Tiny Little Plant
Deep in the heart of a little seed,
Lay buried so, so deep,
A tiny little plant fast asleep.
Out came the bright Sunshine,
Down crept its light,
Into the seed, too bright.
A little plant woke up to see,
How bright the world might be.

Answer the following:

My Hobby Poem Questions And Answers Question 1.
List the rhyming words in the first three lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words – deep – asleep.

My Hobby Poem Question 2.
Which line in the poem rhymes with ‘Down crept its light’?
Answer:
Into the seed, too bright.

b. Rhyme Scheme:
Answer the following:

a. Identify the rhyme scheme of the given short poem.
My dog likes bones,
He eats them up,
He’s very sweet,
He’s just a pup.
Answer:
a b c b.

b. Complete this rhyme on your own with a abab rhyme scheme.
Peas porridge hot,
Peas porridge cold,
Answer:
Peas porridge in the pot Nine days old.

My Hobby: Reading Additional Questions

I. Poem Comprehension – Additional

My Hobby Reading Summary Question 1.
My hobby is reading
It helps me
In thought breeding.
It takes me to places
Near and far,
It keeps my rational
Doors ajar.

(a) What does the word ‘rational’ mean?
Answer:
‘Rational’ means intelligence.

(b) Pick out the rhyming words in these lines.
Answer:
The rhyming words : Reading – breeding; far – ajar.

(c) How does reading help the poet?
Answer:
Reading helps the poet to grow and cultivate good thoughts.

(d) Whose hobby was reading in the poem ‘My Hobby’ ?
Answer:
Reading was the hobby of the poet Arunachalam Chandrashekaran.

(e) What does the term ‘thought breeding1 mean?
Answer:
The term ‘thought breeding’ means cultivating many good thoughts in a person whose hobby is reading.

(f) How does reading take the poet near and far?
Answer:
When the poet reads about a content related to something near him and when he reads a content of something far, it takes him near and far.

(g) What are ‘rational doors’?
Answer:
The poet compares his mind to a room and reading habit are the doors of his mind.

2. It teaches me
To cackle and cry
Without wings
It lets me fly.

(a) Why should reading teach us both to laugh and cry?
Answer:
Life is made of both joy and sorrow. Reading helps us to take both equally.

b. How does the poet fly?
Answer:
The poet does not fly physically in the air. His thoughts expand and fly in all directions.

3. I wish
If all the children could read,
In constructing a vigorous society,
Then we shall succeed.

(a) Who can build a vigorous society?
Answer:
The children can build a vigorous society.

(b) How can we succeed?
Answer:
We can succeed, if we can build a dynamic, strong and powerful society.

(c) Pick out the alliterated words.
Answer:
‘shall – succeed’ are the alliterated words.

II. Short Questions and Answers.

My Hobby Question Answer Question 1.
How does his hobby help him ?
Answer:
His hobby helps him to cultivate many good thoughts.

My Hobby Reading Poem Book Back Answers Question 2.
Where does the reading take him ?
Answer:
Reading takes him to the nearby as well as to the far and remote places.

Poem On My Hobby In English Question 3.
What does reading teach him ?
Answer:
Reading teaches him to laugh loudly and at the same time even to cry.

III. Paragraph Questions with Answers.

Poem On My Hobby Question 1.
What are the five ways in which reading helps us?
Answer:
Reading hobby helps us to grow and cultivate many good thoughts. The content we read not only takes to nearby places but also to the remote and far areas according to what we read.
Reading habit enables to keep the doors of our mind unlocked and half open to permit intelligent and logical reasoning at the same time to prevent unwanted entry of bad and wrong things. Reading practices us to take in both happiness and sorrow in the same spirit. It teaches us to laugh loudly during happy times and to cry and let out sorrow during painful times.
Reading does not restrict or control our thoughts. Without wings it allows our thoughts to soar high and fly.

Question 2.
How can we form a ‘vigorous society’ according to the poet Arunachalam?
Answer:
According to the poet Arunachalam we can form a vigorous – active, strong, healthy and a dynamic society if all the children cultivate a reading habit, go to school, study and are educated. In such a society the people will be successful, prosper and flourish.

Poetic Devices in this poem.

The poet uses the following poetic devices in his poem, ‘My Hobby: Reading

1. Imagery: The poet weaves the advantages of reading hobby in his imagination.
a) The poet does not physically travel ‘near and far’, only his thoughts travel.
b) There is no literal door, the poet imagines his mind’s entrance as ‘door’,
c) The poet does not fly in the air. His thoughts, imaginations and ideas only made to ‘fly’ by his ‘ reading hobby.

2. Rhyme : This short poem has rhyming ending at every alternate line.
Reading and breeding; far and ajar; cry and fly; read and succeed.

3. Couplet: It is a fifteen-line poem. Each couplet .after the first line presents a different thought concept.
Example: Line 2, 3 tells about thought breeding, line 4,5 speaks of ‘rational door’.
Line 6, 7 about joy and sorrow, lines 8,9 flying without wings.

Pick out the rhyming words from the poem and write them in the table.
My Hobby Reading Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 1 Poem Chapter 1

Warm up

Question 1.
What are your leisure time activities? Why do you do them?
Answer:
My leisure activities are watching television and singing. I do them because they relax my soul and body.

Question 2.
Do you read books? What types of books do you read?
Answer:
Yes, I read books. I read books of Enid Blyton, Ruskin Bond and Comic books.

My Hobby: Reading Summary

The poem is written in 2010 by Arunachalam Chandrashekharan, a professional in library and information sciences. His long term deep association with the books in his library has made him to script this poem on reading as a great hobby.

The poet declares in the first line itself that reading is his hobby. He says his reading hobby helps him to grow and cultivate many good thoughts. Those thoughts take the poet not only to the nearby places but also to the remote and far areas.

The poet compares his mind to a room and expresses that reading habit enables him to keep the doors of his mind unlocked and half open to permit intelligent and logical reasoning. At the same time, it prevents the unwanted entry of bad and wrong things. Reading practises the poet to take in both happiness and sorrow in the same spirit. It teaches him to laugh loudly during happy times and to cry and let out sorrow during painful times.

Reading does not restrict or control the thoughts of the poet. Without wings it allows his thoughts to soar high and fly.

The poet aspires that all the children should go to school and study, there should be no illiterates. He believes that if all the children are well educated, then they can build a dynamic, strong and powerful society. If such a society is created, we shall succeed and reach the pinnacle in our lives.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Weather and Climate

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2 Weather and Climate

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Weather and Climate Textbook Evaluation

I. Choose the correct answer

Weather And Climate Class 8 Question 1.
Earth’s atmosphere contains about …………… percentage of nitrogen and oxygen.
(a) 78% and 21%
(b) 22% and 1%
(c) 21% and 0.97%
(d) 10% and 20%
Answer:
(a) 78% and 2l%]

Define Weather Class 8 Question 2.
…………… is generally defined as the average conditions of the weather of a place or a region.
(a) Earth
(b) Atmosphere
(c) Climate
(d) sun
Answer:
(c) climate

8th Social Weather And Climate Question 3.
The earth receives energy from …………….
(a) Current
(b) Electro magnetic radiation
(c) Waves
(d) Heat
Answer:
(b) Electro magnetic radiation

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Social Science Question 4.
Which one the following represents places with equal amount of rainfall
(a) Isotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyets
Answer:
(d) Isohyets

Climate Match The Following Question 5.
………….. is used to measure the humidity.
(a) Anemometer
(b) Barometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) Thermometer
Answer:
(c) hygrometer

II. Fill in the Blanks

  1. ……………… refers to the condition of atmosphere for a short period of time.
  2. The scientific study of weather is called ………………
  3. The highest temperature ever recorded on the earth is …………….
  4. ……………. is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour and the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold.
  5. …………….. and ……………. are measured by anemometer and wind vane respectively.
  6. ………………. are imaginary lines which connect the same temperatures of different places.

Answer:

  1. Weather
  2. Meterology
  3. 56.7°C
  4. Relative humidity
  5. Wind speed, Wind direction
  6. Isotherms

III. Match the following

Weather And Climate Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2

Answer:

  1. iv
  2. iii
  3. v
  4. i
  5. ii

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

Weather And Climate Answer Question 1.
The atmosphere is a layer of gases surrounding the planet.
Answer:
True

Weather And Climate Question Answer Question 2.
The Scientific study of weather is called Climatology.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
The Scientific study of weather is called meterology.

Define Climate Class 8 Question 3.
Isohel refers equal sunshine.
Answer:
True

Weather Definition Geography Question 4.
Humidity is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Air pressure is calculated by Aneroid Barometer.

V. Answer in brief

Match The Following Climate Question 1.
Define‘weather’.
Answer:
Weather is the day today conditions(state) of the atmosphere at any place as regards sunshine, temperature, cloud cover. Wind fog condition, air pressure, humidity, precipitation and such other elements.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8 Social Science Question 2.
What is insolation?
Answer:
Insolation is the solar radiation that reaches the earth’s surface. The earth and its atmosphere get heated from the sun through insolation.

Question 3.
What is meant by atmospheric pressure?
Answer:
The weight of air above a given area on the earth’s surface is called atmospheric pressure or air pressure.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Planetary winds”
Answer:

  1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds.
  2. Trade winds, Westerlies and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

Question 5.
What are “Isolines”?
Answer:
Distribution of weather elements are shown by means of Isolines on maps. Isolines are lines which join the places of equal values of weather elements.

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Weather and climate.
Answer:
Weather:

  • Weather is the day to day condition of the atmosphere at any place
  • Refers to short periods like a day, a week, a month etc.,
  • Sunshine, temperature, cloud cover, wind, fog condition, air pressure, humidity precipitation are some weather elements.

Climate:

  • Average condition of the weather of a place or a region.
  • Determined by measuring weather elements for a long period of time usually for 35 years
  • Latitude, Altitude, direction of winds, distance from the sun, Ocean currents are some of the factors determining climate.

Question 2.
Absolute and relative humidity.
Answer:
Absolute humidity:

  • Mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air.
  • Expressed usually in grams per cubic metre of air.

Relative humidity:

  • Ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature.
  • Expressed as a percentage.

Question 3.
Permanent and seasonal winds.
Answer:
Permanent winds:

  • The ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year.
  • Also called Planetary winds. Example Trade wings, Weather winds

Seasonal winds:

  • Winds which change their direction according to season in a year. Blow from sea to land in summer and land to sea in winter.
  • Also called Monsoon winds. Example North east monsoon winds, South west monsoon winds

VII. Give reasons.

Question 1.
The Weather and climate in different regions vary.
Answer:
Angle of the sun’s rays, the length of daytime, altitude, distribution of land and water bodies, location and direction of mountain ranges, air pressure, winds and ocean currents are the major factors which affect the weather and climate of a region.

Question 2.
Temperature decreases with increase in altitude.
Answer:
Temperature varies both horizontally and vertically. Temperature always decreases with increasing height is known as Lapse rate which is 6.5 degree Celsius per 1000 meters in troposphere.

Question 3.
Mountain climbers carry oxygen cylinders while ascending peaks.
Answer:
With decreasing air pressure,the availability of oxygen to breath also decreases. At very high altitudes, atmospheric pressure and available oxygen get so low that people can become sick and even die. Mountain climbers use bottled oxygen when they ascend very high peaks.

VIII. Answer in a paragraph.

Question 1.
How is temperature measured?
Answer:
Measuring Temperature:
1. The temperature of a unit volume of air at a given time is measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit, and Kelvin. Meteorologist measures the temperature by the Thermometer, Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum Thermometer.

2. The energy received by the earth through insolation is lost by outgoing radiation.

3. Atmosphere is mainly heated by outgoing radiation from 2 to 4pm .So the maximum temperature is recorded between 2 and 4 pm regularly and minimum temperature is recorded around 4 am before sunrise.

Mean Temperature:
1. The average of maximum and minimum temperatures within 24 hours is called mean daily temperature [(87°F + 73°F)/2=80°F].

2. Diurnal range of temperature is the difference between the maximum and minimum temperatures of a day. Annual range of temperature is the difference between the highest and lowest mean monthly temperatures of a year.

Question 2.
Write about the wind and its types.
Answer:
The horizontal movement of air is called wind.
The wind systems are broadly categorized into three as follows.

  • Planetary winds
  • Seasonal winds
  • Local winds

1. Planetary Winds are the ones which blow almost in the same direction throughout the year. So, they are called as Permanent or planetary winds. Trade winds, Westerlies and polar easterlies are the types of prevailing winds.

2. Seasonal winds are those which change their direction according to season in a year. They are called as monsoon winds. These winds blow from sea to land during summer and land to sea during winter.

3. Local winds are the winds blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or a short period of a year. Land and sea breezes are example of these winds.

Question 3.
List out the weather elements and associated measuring instruments.
Answer:
Temperature, rainfall, pressure, humidity and wind are the major elements of weather and climate.
1. Temperature:
Measured in scales like Celsius, Fahrenheit and Kelvin. Meterorologists Measure the temperature by the Thermometer. Stevenson screen and minimum and maximum thermometer.

2. Rain:
Is a major component of the water cycle and is the source of most of the fresh water on the earth. Rainfall is measured by raingauge.

3. Air Pressure:
Meteorologist uses barometer/aneroid barometer to measure the air pressure. Barograms are used for recording continuous variation in atmospheric pressure.

4. Humidity:
Hygrometer is used to measure the humidity, (which comprises wet and dry bulbplate side by side in the Stevenson screen)

V. Wind

1. Meteorologist measures wind direction using wind vane or weather cock. Wind speed is measured by anemometer. Wind need rose is a diagram used to depict the direction and periods (No. of days) of prevailing winds on map.

2. Meteorograph or triple register is an instrument which records wind speed and direction, sunshine and precipitation. It also provides graphic representation.

IX. Give any three suggestions to reduce global warming.

  1. …………………………..
  2. ………………………….
  3. ………………………….

Answer:

  1. Switching over to renewable energy sources.
  2. Reduce water wastage
  3. Shrinking carbon profile.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Geography Weather and Climate Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
The ……………. receive slanting sun’s rays.
(a) Polar regions
(b) Equator
(c) Torrid zone
(d) Indian Ocean
Answer:
(a) Polar regions

Question 2.
The degree of heat present in the air is termed as ……………..
(a) Pressure
(b) Humidity
(c) Temperature
(d) Rainfall
Answer:
(c) temperature

Question 3.
Which of the following represents places of equal sunshine ……………..
(a) Iosotherm
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isohyet
Answer:
(b) Isohel

Question 4.
The distribution of temperature is shown by means of ……………..
(a) Isocryme
(b) Isohel
(c) Isobar
(d) Isotherm
Answer:
(d) Isotherm

Question 5.
Based on the heat received from the sun, the earth is divided into ………………. zones.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) 3

Question 6.
The standard air pressure at sea level is ………………
(a) 1014.25 mb
(b) 1016.25 mb
(c) 1013.25 mb
(d) 1020.25 mb
Answer:
(c) 1013.25 mb

Question 7.
The scale is a sacle for measuring wind speeds.
(a) Richter
(b) Vernier
(c) Ratio
(d) Beaufort
Answer:
(d) Beaufort

Question 8.
…………….. has a large area where the average wind speed is low.
(a) France
(b) India
(c) Brazil
(d) Australia
Answer:
(c) Brazil

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The word climate is derived from the word …………… which means inclination.
  2. The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth was at …………… station in Antartica.
  3. There is a close relationship between …………… and rainfall distribution.
  4. Generally, rainfall is high in …………… region.
  5. Rainfall is high in the equatorial region and …………… gradually towards poles.
  6. Low pressure system are also called …………… and ……………
  7. High pressure is called …………….
  8. …………… is used to show the distribution of air pressure. [Ans : ]
  9. The highest air pressure at sea level was recorded at …………… Russia.
  10. The small variations in pressure that exist largely determine the …………… and …………… patterns of the earth.
  11. The level of humidity …………… towards poles form equator.
  12. ……………. air holds more water vapour.

Answer:

  1. Klimo
  2. Soviet Vostok
  3. Temperature
  4. Equatorial
  5. Decreases
  6. Depression, cyclones
  7. Anti cyclones
  8. Iso bar
  9. Agata
  10. wind, storm
  11. Decreases
  12. Warm

III. Match the following

Define Weather Class 8 Samacheer Kalvi Social Science Geography Solutions Term 1 Chapter 2
Answer:

  1. iii
  2. i
  3. iv
  4. ii

IV. State whether the following statements are True or False

Question 1.
The climate does not often change like weather.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
Soil does not affect the distribution of temperature.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Soil affect the distribution of temperature.

Question 3.
The lowest temperature ever recorded on the earth is – 89.2°C.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
Humans are sensitive even to small variation in pressure.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Humans are not sensitive even to small variation in pressure.

V. Answer in brief

Question 1.
State the composition of gases in atmosphere.
Answer:
Earth’s atmosphere contains about 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.97% argon, 0.03% carbon dioxide and 0.04% trace amounts of other gases and water vapour.

Question 2.
Define temperature.
answer:
Temperature is one of the key elements of weather and climate. The degree of heat present in the air is termed as temperature.

Question 3.
What does temperature influence?
Answer:
The temperature influences the level of humidity, the process of evaporation, condensation and precipitation.

Question 4.
Name the three mechanisms through which the earth received heat from solar radiation.
Answer:
Radiation, Conduction and Convection.

Question 5.
Define Low pressure.
Answer:
Low pressure area is an area in the atmosphere where the pressure is lower than its surrounding areas. In this situation, the wind
from the surroundings blow towards the centre of low pressure.

Question 6.
Define High pressure.
Answer:
High pressure is an area of atmosphere where the barometric pressure is higher than its surrounding areas. In this case, the wind from the centre of high pressure blows towards the surrounding low pressure areas.

Question 7.
What do low pressure and high pressure lead to?
Answer:
Low pressure leads to cloudiness, wind, and precipitation. High pressure leads to fair and calm weather.

Question 8.
Define Humidity.
Answer:
Humidity refers to the degree of water vapour present in the atmosphere in gaseous form in particular time and place.

Question 9.
Mention the effects of relative humidity.
Answer:
Relative humidity affects human health and comfortness. Very high and very low humidity are injurious to health. It also affects the stability of different objects, buildings and electrical applications.

Question 10.
How do the passengers in aircraft remain comfortable while flying?
Answer:
Aircraft take time to get used to the altitude as the quick move from high pressure to low pressure can cause decompression sickness. Aircraft create artificial pressure in the cabin which makes the passengers remain comfortable while flying.

Question 11.
Mention a few least windy places on earth.
Answer:
Gabon, Congo and DR Congo in Africa, Sumatra, Indonesia and Malaysia are the least windy places on earth.

Question 12.
Write a note on Al – Balakhi.
Answer:
Al – Balakhi, an Arab Geographer collected climatic data from the Arab travellers and prepared the First climatic Atlas of the world

VI. Distinguish the following

Question 1.
Seasonal and Local winds.
Answer:
Seasonal winds:

  • Winds which change their direction according to season in a year. Also called monsoon winds.
  • Example North East and South west monsoon winds.

Local winds:

  • Winds which blow over a small area only during a particular time of a day or short period of a year.
  • Example Land and Sea breezes.

VII. Give Reason for the following

Question 1.
The polar regions are extremely cold in winters.
Answer:
The earth is spherical in shape. So, the sun’s rays fall unevenly on the earth’s surface. The Polar regions receive slanting sun’s rays. Hence there is little or no sunlight, thus there is an extreme cold winters.

Question 2.
Temperature varies with time due to changes.
Answer:
Temperature varies with time due to changes in the level of radiation which reach the earth surface. This is due to motions of the earth (The rotation and revolution) and inclination of the earth’s axis.

Question 3.
Our ears pop in Airplanes.
Answer:
As you go up in an airplane, the atmospheric pressure becomes lower than the pressure of the air inside your ears. Your ears pop because they are trying to equalize or match the pressure.

VIII. Answer in a Paragraph

Question 1.
Explain the Heat Zones of the earth.
Answer:
Heat zones of the earth:
The fact that the earth is spherical in shape results in different parts of the earth getting heated differently. Based on the heat received from the sun, Earth is divided into three heat zones. They are

1. Torrid Zone:
It is a region between the tropic of cancer and the tropic of Capricorn. This region receives the direct rays of the sun and gets the maximum heat from the sun. This zone known as the torrid or the tropical zone

2. Temperate zone:
This zone lies between the Tropic of cancer and the Arctic circle in the Northern Hemisphere and between the Tropic of Capricorn and the Antartic circle in the southern Hemisphere. This zone gets the slanting rays of the sun and the angle of the sun’s rays goes on decreasing towards as the poles. Thus this zone experiences moderate temperature.

3. Frigid Zone:
The frigid zone lies between the Arctic circle and the North Pole and between the Antartic circle and the South Pole. This region also known as Polar region. Since it receives the extremely low temperature throughout the year,these regions are covered with snow.

Question 2.
Explain the ways in which humidity is expressed.
Answer:
1. Specific humidity is a ratio of the water vapor content of the mixture to the total air content on a mass basis. It is expressed in grams of vapour per kilogram of air.

2. Absolute Humidity is the mass or weight of water vapour present per unit volume of air. It is expressed usually in grams per cubic meter of air.

3. Relative humidity is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the maximum amount of water vapour it can hold at a given temperature. It is expressed as a percentage.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Light Text Book Exercises

I. Choose the best answer

8th Science Light Question And Answer Question 1.

Mirrors having a curved reflecting surface are called as –
(a) Plane mirrors
(b) Spherical mirrors
(c) Simple mirrors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Spherical mirrors

Light Book Back Answers Question 2.
The spherical mirror with a reflecting surface curved inward is called –
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Curved mirror
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Concave mirror

8th Std Science Light Lesson Question 3.
The centre of a sphere of which the reflecting surface of a spherical mirror is a part is called –
(a) Pole
(b) Centre of curvature
(c) Cradius of curvature
(d) Aperture
Answer:
(b) Centre of curvature

8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question 4.
The spherical mirror used as a rear view mirror in the vehicle is –
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Convex mirror

8th Standard Light Lesson Question Answer Question 5.
The imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature and pole of a spherical mirror is called –
(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Pole
(c) principal axis
(d) Radius curvature
Answer:
(c) principal axis

Light Samacheer Kalvi Question 6.
The distance from the pole to the focus is called –
(a) Pole length
(b) Focal length
(c) principal axis
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Focal length

8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question Answer Question 7.
Focal length is equal to half of the –
(a) Centre of curvature
(b) Axis
(c) Radius of curvature
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Radius of curvature

8th Science Light Lesson Question 8.
If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 10 cm, what is the value of its radius of curvature?
(a) 10 cm
(b) 5 cm
(c) 20 cm
(d) 15 cm
Answer:
(c) 20 cm

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Question 9.
If the image and object distance is same, then the object is placed at –
(a) Infinity
(b) At F
(c) Between f and P
(d) At C
Answer:
(d) At C

Light 8th Standard Question 10.
The refractive index of water is –
(a) 1.0
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.44
(d) 1.52
Answer:
(b) 1.33

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The spherical mirror used in a beauty parlour as make – up mirror is ………………
  2. Geometric centre of the spherical mirror is ………………
  3. Nature of the images formed by a convex mirror is ………………
  4. The mirror used by the ophthalmologist to examine the eye is ………………
  5. It the angle of incidence is 45°, then the angle of reflection is ………………..
  6. Two mirrors are parallel to each other, then the number of images formed is ………………

Answer:

  1. Concave mirror
  2. pole
  3. Smaller, virtual and erect
  4. Concave mirror
  5. 45°
  6. Infinite

III. Match the following

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Science Question A.
8th Science Light Question And Answer Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3
Answer:

  1. c
  2. a
  3. d
  4. b

Samcheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Question B.
Light Book Back Answers Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3
Answer:

  1. b
  2. c
  3. d
  4. a

IV. Answer in brief

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Science Question 1.
What is called a spherical mirror?
Answer:
Spherical mirrors are one form of curved mirrors. If the curved mirror is a part of a sphere, then it is called a ‘spherical mirror’.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Question 2.
Define focal length.
Answer:
The distance between the pole and the principal focus is called focal length (f) of a spherical mirror.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Question 3.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 25 cm. Find its focal length.
Answer:
Given : Radius of curvature = 25 cm
To find: f = ?
Solution:
f = \(\frac { R }{ 2}\) = \(\frac { 25 }{ 2 }\)
f = 12.5 cm

Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Question 4.
Give two applications of a concave and convex mirror.
Answer:
Concave mirrors:

  1. Concave mirrors are used while applying make – up or shaving, as they provide a magnified image.
  2. They are used in torches, search lights and head lights as they direct the light to a long distance.

Convex mirrors:

  1. Convex mirrors are used in vehicles as rear view mirrors because they give an upright image and provide a wider field of view as they are curved outwards.
  2. They are found in the hallways of various buildings including hospitals, hotels, schools and stores. They are usually mounted on a wall or ceiling where hallways make sharp turns.

Samacheer Guru 8th Science Question 5.
State the laws of reflection.
Answer:

  1. The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the same plane.
  2. The angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are always equal.

8th Standard Light Lesson Question 6.
If two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle of 45°, find the number of images formed.
Answer:
Given :
Angle of inclination = 45°
To find : Number of images formed = \(\frac { 360° }{ angle }\) – 1
Solution:
= \(\frac { 360° }{ 45% }\) – 1
= 8 – 1
= 7 images

Question 7.
Define the refractive index of a medium.
Answer:
The amount of refraction of light in a medium is denoted by a term known as refractive index of the medium, which is the ratio of the speed of light in the air to the speed of light in that particular medium.

Question 8.
State the Snell’s law of refraction.
Answer:
Refraction of light rays, as they travel from one medium to another medium, obeys two laws, which are known as Snell’s laws of refraction. They are:

1. The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal at the point of intersection, all lie in the same plane.

2. The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence (i) to the sine of the angle of refraction (r) is equal to the refractive index of the medium, which is a constant.
\(\frac { sin i }{ sin r}\) = µ

V. Answer in detail

Question 1.
Explain the images formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
Light Book Back Answers Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3

Question 2.
What is reflection? Write short notes on regular and irregular reflection?
Answer:
A ray of light, falling on a body having a shiny polished and smooth surface alone is bounced back. This bouncing back of the light rays as they fall on the smooth, shiny and polished surface is called reflection.
Regular reflection:

  1. When a beam of light (collection of parallel rays) falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected.
  2. After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other. Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
  3. Hence, the law of reflection is obeyed in this case and thus a clear image is formed. This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.

Irregular reflection:

  1. In the case of a body having a rough or irregular surface, each region of the surface is inclined at different angles.
  2. When light falls on such a surface, the light rays are reflected at different angles.
  3. In this case, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
  4. Hence, the law of reflection is not obeyed in this case and thus the image is not clear. Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.

Question 3.
Explain the working of a periscope.
Answer:
Periscope:

  1. It is an instrument used for viewing bodies or ships, which are over and around another body or a submarine.
  2. It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light.
  3. It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end, inclined at an angle of 45°.
  4. Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and gets reflected vertically downward.
  5. This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
  6. In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher resolution.
  7. The distance between the mirrors also varies depending on the purpose of using

Question 4.
What is dispersion? Explain in detail.
Answer:

  1. Splitting of white light into its seven constituent colours (wavelength), on passing through a transparent medium is known as dispersion of light.
  2. Dispersion occurs because, light of different colours present in white light have different wavelength and they travel at different speeds in a medium.
  3. Refraction of a light ray in a medium depends on its speed.

Question 5.
Speed of light in air is 3 x 108 m s-1 and the refractive index of a medium is 1.5. Find the speed of light in the medium.
Answer:
Given :
Speed of light in air c = 3 x 108 ms-1
Refractive index of a medium µ = 1.5
To find : Speed of light in medium v = ?
Formula :
µ = \(\frac { c }{ v}\)
Solution:
1.5 = \(\frac{3×10^{8}}{v}\)
v =\(\frac{3×10^{8}}{1.5}\)
v = 2 x 108 ms-1
Speed of light in medium v = 2 x 108 ms-1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Light Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer

Question 1.
Which object use the reflection of light?
(a) Kaleidoscope
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 2.
Which surface will not reflect most of the light falling on them?
(a) Rough surface
(b) Smooth surface
(c) Shining surface
(d) Opaque surface
Answer:
(a) Rough surface

Question 3.
Which of the following demonstrates the law of reflection?
8th Std Science Light Lesson Samacheer Kalvi Term 1 Chapter 3
Answer:
8th Standard Science Light Lesson Samacheer Kalvi Term 1 Chapter 3

Question 4.
The ENT doctor uses a …………….
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Convex mirror
(d) Convex lens
Answer:
(b) Concave mirror

Question 5.
In dispersion, the colour of light that will bend more is ……………..
(a) Red
(b) yellow
(c) Green
(d) Violet
Answer:
(d) violet

Question 6.
Reflection by a looking mirror is called …………….
(a) Regular reflection
(b) Irregular reflection
(c) Regular and irregular reflection
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Regular reflection

Question 7.
The velocity of light in vacuum is 3 x 108 ms-1 and in glass is 2 x 108 ms-1. The refractive index of glass is .
(a) 2
(b) 1.5
(c) 1.8
(d) 1.33
Answer:
(b) 1.5

Question 8.
Incident angle of a ray of light is 30°. The angle between the incidend ray and the reflected ray is …………….
(a) 50°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 15°
Answer:
(c) 60°

Question 9.
In the head lights of motor vehicles, ……………… mirrors are used as reflectors.
(a) Plane mirrors
(b) Concave lenses
(c) Convex mirrors
(d) Concave mirrors
Answer:
(d) Concave mirrors

Question 10.
The phenomenon of light passing through the object is called ……………..
(a) Reflection
(b) Refraction
(c) Dispersion
(d) Total internal reflection
Answer:
(b) Refraction

II. Fill in the Blanks

  1. The bouncing back of light from a surface is called …………….
  2. ……………. mirrors make things look larger when objects are placed close to it
  3. Convex mirror always forms ……………. and ……………. image.
  4. The incident ray, ……………. ray and the ……………. at the point of incidence, all lie on the same plane.
  5. A ray of light incident along normal to the mirror ……………. its path.
  6. When light passes from one medium to another the ray gets bent. This property of light is called ……………..
  7. Spherical mirrors are one form of …………… mirrors.
  8. ……………… mirrors magnify the object placed close to them.
  9. The image formed by convex mirrors is ……………… than the object
  10. …………….. mirrors form the perfect image of an object.
  11. The …………….. of a mirror determines the type of image it forms.
  12. The ……………. is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Answer:

  1. Reflection
  2. Concave
  3. Virtual and erect
  4. Reflected, normal
  5. Retraces
  6. Refraction
  7. Curved
  8. Concave
  9. Smaller
  10. Plane
  11. Shape
  12. Mirror

III. True or False – if false give the correct statement

Question 1.
We can see things around us only when the light reflected by them reaches our eyes.
Answer:
True.

Question 2.
Light is a form of energy and it travels in a straight line.
Answer:
True.

Question 3.
The periscope is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The mirror is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Question 4.
Curved mirrors have surfaces that are spherical, cylindrical, parabolic and ellipsoid.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Curved mirrors form the perfect image of an object.
Answer:
False. Correct statement: Plane mirrors form the perfect image of an object.

Question 6.
Curved mirrors produce images that are either enlarged or diminished.
Answer:
True.

Question 7.
A thin layer of molten aluminium or silver is used for coating glass plates that will then become mirrors.
Answer:
True.

Question 8.
The most common example of a convex mirror is the make – up mirror.
Answer:
False.
Correct statement:
The most common example of a concave mirror is the make – up mirror.

IV. Match the following

Question 1.
8th Standard Light Lesson Question Answer Samacheer Kalvi Term 1 Chapter 3
Answer:

i. e
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
v. b

Question 2.
Light Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3
Answer:

i. e
ii. d
iii. a
iv. c
v. b

Question 3.
8th Standard Science Light Lesson Question Answer Samacheer Kalvi Term 1 Chapter 3
Answer:

i. d
ii. c
iii. b
iv. e
v. a

V. Assertion and Reason

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true, but the reason is false.
(d) If the assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 1.
Assertion : A ray incident along normal to the mirror retraces its path
Reason : In reflection, angle of incidence is always equal to angle of reflection.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 2.
Assertion : Convex mirrors are used as rear view mirror in vehicles for observing traffic at our back.
Reason : A convex mirror has a much larger field of view.
Answer:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 3.
Assertion : The mirrors used in search lights are parabolic and not concave spherical.
Reason : In concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
Answer:
(c) The assertion is true, but the reason is false
Correct explanation:
In search lights, we need an intense parallel beam of light. If a source is placed at the focus of a concave spherical mirror only paraxial rays are rendered parallel. Due to large aperture of mirror, marginal rays give a divergent beam. But in case of parabolic mirror, when source is at the focus, beam of light produced over the entire cross – section of the mirror is a parallel beam.

Question 4.
Assertion : We can see the rainbow in the sky when the rain starts falling after a spell of bright sunlight.
Reason : The rainbow is formed due to the dispersion of light.
Answer:
(d) The assertion is false, but the reason is true
Correct explanation:
The rainbow is formed when the light passes through the water droplets in air after it rains and gets dispersed into seven colours.

VI. Very short Answers

Question 1.
How does the light travel?
Answer:
The light travels along straight lines.

Question 2.
What is reflection of light?
Answer:
The bouncing back of light when it falls on smooth surface is called reflection.

Question 3.
What is mirror?
Answer:
The mirror is an optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.

Question 4.
What type of image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
Real and inverted image. If the object is placed very close to the mirror then the image is virtual and erect.

Question 5.
What is rainbow?
Answer:
The rainbow is seen as a large area in the sky with many colours.

Question 6.
Name the triangular piece of glass that splits white light into different colours.
Answer:
Prism.

Question 7.
What is the composition of sunlight?
Answer:
Sunlight is a mixture of seven colours.

Question 8.
Light bends as it passes from one medium to another. What is this phenomenon called?
Answer:
Refraction of light.

Question 9.
Name the two types of spherical mirrors.
Answer:

  1. Concave mirror
  2. Convex mirror.

Question 10.
The angle between incident ray and reflected ray is 60°. What is the value of angle of incidence?
Answer:
8th Science Light Lesson Samacheer Kalvi Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3
since angle of incidence = angle of reflection.
So, angle of incidence = 30°.

VII. Short Answer

Question 1.
Light travels fastest in vacuum. Why?
Answer:
Light travels fastest in vacuum than any other medium because there is no obstruction to the passage of light in vacuum.

Question 2.
Distinguish between real and virtual images.
Answer:
Real image:
Type of image which can be obtained on a screen is called a real image

Virtual image:
An image which cannot be obtained on a screen is called a virtual image.

Question 3.
State any two uses of concave mirrors.
Answer:

  1. It is used as a reflector in torches, light houses, head lights of vehicles, etc., as it diverges the rays of light.
  2. A dentist uses a concave mirror to obtain a magnified image of the teeth of the patient.

Question 4.
A convex rear view mirror is preferred over a plane mirror in a car. Why?
Answer:
Since convex mirror forms a smaller and virtual image, it can be used to see a much larger area than the area visible by a plane mirror.

Question 5.
What type of image is formed by a concave mirror?
Answer:
The image formed by a concave mirror is real and inverted. If the object is placed very rear to the mirror then the image formed is virtual and erect.

Question 6.
Why do we need a shiny surface for reflection?
Answer:
The extent of reflection depends upon the shine and smoothness of the surface. More is the shine and smoothness of the surface more will be the reflection.

Question 7.
The radius of curvature of a spherical mirror is 18 cm. What is the focal length of this mirror?
Answer:
f = \(\frac { R}{ 2 }\)
R = 18 cm
f = \(\frac { 18}{ 2 }\) = 9 cm.

Question 8.
What happens to light when it gets dispersed? Give an example.
Answer:
Light is splitted into its constituent colours, when it gets dispersed.
Example:
Rainbow formation is due to the dispersion of white light after passing through water droplets.

Question 9.
If two mirrors are placed at an inclination of 30° then how many images can be seen?
Answer:
Formula : Number of images N = \(\frac { 360°}{ 30° }\) – 1
Given: θ = 30°
Solution:
N = \(\frac { 360°}{ 30° }\) – 1
= 12 – 1 = 11 images.

Question 10.
What is the speed of light in diamond if its refractive index is 2.41?
Formula :
Refractive index µ =\(\frac {Speed of light in air (c) }{ Speed of light in the medium (v) }\)
Given : µ = 2.41
Solution:
c = 3 x 108ms-1
µ = \(\frac { c }{ v }\)
v =\(\frac{3×10^{8}}{2.41}\)
Speed of light in diamond v = 1.24 x 108 ms-1

Question 11.
A light ray moves from glass (Vglass = 2.0 x 108ms-1) to diamond (Vdiamond = 1.25 x 108 ms-1). What is the refractive index of diamond with respect to glass?
Answer:
Refractive index of diamond with respect to glass
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 10
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 11
= \(\frac { 200 }{ 125 }\)
= 1.60 (No unit).

Question 12.
Find the refractive index of water with respect to glass if the refractive index of water is \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) and the reiractive index of glass is \(\frac { 3 }{ 2 }\)
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 12
Solution:
= \(\frac { 4 }{ 3 }\) x \(\frac { 2}{ 3 }\)
= \(\frac { 8 }{ 9}\)
Thus, refractive index
of water with respect to glass = \(\frac { 8 }{ 9}\) (No unit).

VIII. Long Answer

Question 1.
Differentiate between regular and irregular reflection.
Answer:
Regular reflection:

  1. When a beam of light (collection of parallel rays) falls on a smooth surface, it gets reflected. After reflection, the reflected rays will be parallel to each other.
  2. Here, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray will be equal.
  3. Hence, the law of reflection is obeyed in this case and thus a clear image is formed.
  4. This reflection is called ‘regular reflection’ or ‘specular reflection’.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Light 8th Standard Samacheer Kalvi Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Example : Reflection of light by a plane mirror and reflection of light from the surface of still water.

Irregular reflection:

  1. In the case of a body having a rough or irregular surface, each region of the surface is inclined at different angles.
  2. When light falls on such a surface, the light rays are reflected at different angles. In this case, the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection of each ray are not equal.
  3. Hence, the law of reflection is not obeyed in this case and thus the image is not clear. Such a reflection is called ‘irregular reflection’ or ‘diffused reflection’.

Samacheerkalvi.Guru 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Samcheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light
Example : Reflection of light from a wall.

Question 2.
Explain the construction and working of kaleidoscope.
Answer:
Construction:

  1. Take three equal sized plane mirror strips and arrange them in such a way that they form an equilateral triangle.
  2. Cover the sides of the mirrors with a chart paper. With the help of a chart paper cover the bottom of the mirrors also.
  3. Put some coloured things such as pieces of bangles and beads inside it.
  4. Now, cover the top portion with the chart paper and make a hole in it to see.
  5. You can wrap the entire piece with coloured papers to make it attractive.
  6. Now, rotate it and see through its opening. You can see the beautiful patterns.

Question 3.
Explain the construction, working of periscope with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

  1. It is an instrument used for viewing bodies or ships, which are over and around another body or a submarine.
  2. It is based on the principle of the law of reflection of light. It consists of a long outer case and inside this case mirrors or prisms are kept at each end, inclined L’9ht at an angle of 45°.
  3. Light coming from the distant body, falls on the mirror at the top end of the periscope and gets reflected 450 vertically downward.
  4. This light is reflected again by the second mirror kept at the bottom, so as to travel horizontally and reach the eye of the observer.
  5. In some complex periscopes, optic fibre is used instead of mirrors for obtaining a higher resolution.
  6. The distance between the mirrors also varies depending on the purpose of using the periscope.

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 8th Standard Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Question 4.
Explain the uses of periscope.
Answer:

  1. It is used in warfare and navigation of the submarine.
  2. In military it is used for pointing and firing guns from a ‘bunker’.
  3. Photographs of important places can be taken through periscopes without trespassing restricted military regions.
  4. Fibre optic periscopes are used by doctors as endoscopes to view internal organs of the body.

Question 5.
Explain the images formed by a convex mirror for different position of the object.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Question 6.
Answer:
1. A pencil placed in water in a glass appear to be bent at the surface of separation.

2. The base of a swimming pool appears to be raised due to refraction of light.

3. We should look straight down into the river while catching fish. If observed obliquely, the fish appears to be closer to the surface of the water than it actually is.

4. Stars look like tiny dots when viewed from earth, because they are far away from us. The light from the stars has to travel a long distance through the atmosphere before it reaches us. The atmosphere has various layers of different refractive indices. Light is refracted through each of them. These layers are turbulent. Every time one of the layers shifts, the thickness and refractive indices of air change and the light is refracted differently, creating a twinkling effect.

IX. Complete the given table

Question 1.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light
Answer:

  1. At F
  2. Diminished
  3. At C
  4. Magnified
  5. Virtual and erect

X. Draw the following

Question 1.
Concave mirror.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi.Guru 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Question 2.
Convex mirror.
Answer:
Samacheer Guru 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light

Question 3.
Draw the ray diagram and write the characteristics of the image formed when an object is placed

  1. At infinity in front of a concave mirror.
  2. At infinity in front of a convex mirror.

Answer:
8th Standard Light Lesson Samacheer Kalvi Term 1 Chapter 3
Position of the image : At F
Image size : Highly diminished
Nature of the image : Real and inverted

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 23
Position of the image : At F
Image size : Highly diminished , point sized
Nature of the image : Virtual and erect

Question 4.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a periscope.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 17

Question 5.
Draw a ray diagram to show a light ray travels from denser medium (glass) to rarer medium (air).
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 24
When a light ray travels from denser medium to rarer medium, it speeds up and refracts away from the normal.

Question 6.
Draw a ray diagram to show a light ray travels from rarer medium (air) to denser medium (water).
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 25
When a light ray travels from rarer to denser medium, it bends towards the normal.

XI. Cross word puzzle

Across:
3. The geometrical centre of a spherical mirror.
6. Centre of the sphere from which the mirror is made.
7. An optical device with a polished surface that reflects the light falling on it.
8. Image which can be formed on a screen.
9. Image which cannot be formed on a screen.
10. The bending of a light ray when it passes from one medium to another medium of different density.

Down:
1. Mirror which converges a parallel beam of light passing through it.
2. Imaginary line passing through the centre of curvature of the mirror.
4. Mirror which diverges a parallel beam of light passing through it.
5. The formation of rainbow is an example of ______.
Answer:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 1 Chapter 3 Light 26
Across:
3. Pole
6. Centre Of Curvature
7. Mirror
8. Real
9. Virtual
10. Refraction

Down:
1. Concave
2. Principal Axis
4. Convex
5. Dispersion

XI. Creative questions : HOTS

Question 1.
Imagine that parallel rays are incident on an irregular surface. Are the rays reflected from the surface parallel to each other?
Answer:
No, the reflected rays from irregular surface are in different direction.

Question 2.
A safety vest helps to keep the workers who are working by the roadside safe. This especially so during the nights. Why?
Answer:
The reflectors on the safety vest reflect light into the motorists eyes.
This help to alert the motorists of the wearer’s presence on the road.

Question 3.
What is the difference between virtual images of an object formed by a concave mirror and a convex mirror?
Answer:
The virtual image of an object formed by a concave mirror is always magnified one but the image formed by a convex mirror is always diminished one.

Question 4.
What is a virtual image? Give one situation where a virtual image is formed.
Answer:
The image formed by the plane mirror appears behind it. We cannot however touch it. Also, the image of the object cannot be obtained on a screen, whether it is held in front of the mirror or behind it. Such type of images are not real. They are virtual images.

Question 5.
If all objects around us were to reflect light in a regular way, what problem might we face?
Answer:

  1. Irregular reflection is what makes us see all the objects and everything around us.
  2. If light were to get regularly reflected then every object would act like a mirror and our surroundings would be illuminated.
  3. This would have a blinding effect on eyes making it harder for us to see.

Question 6.
Car rear view mirrors carry a warning message that “objects in the rear view mirror are closer than they appear”. Why do you think this is so?
Answer:

  1. Convex mirrors used in vehicles as rear – view mirrors are labeled with the safety warning: ‘Objects in the mirror are closer than they appear’ to warn the drivers. This is because inside the mirrors, vehicles will appear to be coming at a long distance.
  2. Convex mirrors form erect and smaller images of the objects.
  3. This does not give us the exact idea how far the vehicle is from us.
  4. Thus, to avoid accidents, car view mirrors carry a warning message.