Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4

Students can Download Maths Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4

Information Processing in Maths 8th Standard  Miscellaneous Practice Problems

Information Processing Solution Question 1.
The rule of Fibonacci Sequence is F(n) = F(n – 2) + F(n – 1). Find the 11th to 20th Fibonacci numbers.
Solution:
Fibonacci series is given by F(n) = F(n – 2) + F(n – 1)
∴ F(11) = F(11 – 2) + F(11 – 1) = F(9) + F(10)
Similarly F(12) ; = F(12 – 2) + F(12 – 1) = F(11) + F(10)
F(13) = F(12) + F(11)
F(14) = F(13) + F(12)……
F(20) = F(19) + F(18)
The Fibonacci series given by
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 1

8th Maths Book Information Processing Question 2.
In a library, 385 Math books, 297 Science books and 143 Tamil books are bundled equally in numbers. What is the maximum numbers of books possible in a bundle, for all types of books? (Use repeated division method)
Solution:
In library, no. of math books – 385
Science books – 297 .
Tamil books – 143
We need to find HCF by repeated division method.
Step 1:
First let us take the bigger 2 numbers which are 385 & 297 & find their HCF using repeated division method.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 2
Step 2:
Now let us find the HCF of 11 & 143
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 3
∴ ’11’ is the HCF of 11 & 143
∴ Therefore, the HCF of 385, 297 & 143 is 11.
So, the maximum number of books possible in a bundle, for all types of books is 11.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4

Repeated Subtraction Method Question 3.
Find the length of the largest which piece of wood used to measure exactly the lengths 4 m, 50 cm and 6 m 30 cm woods.( Use repeated subtraction method)
Solution:
Piece 1 of wood length = 4 m 50 cm ; 1m = 100 cm
∴ 4m 50 cm = 4 x 100 + 50 = 450 cm
Piece 2 of wood length = 6 m 30 cm = 6 x 100 + 30 = 630 cm
Now, we need to find the HCF of 450 & 630 by repeated subtraction method.
Let bigger number be m & smaller number be n
Therefore, m = 630 & n = 450
m – n = 630 – 450 = 180; now m = 450, n = 180
m – n = 450 – 180 = 270; now m = 180, n = 270
n – m = 270 – 180 = 90; now m = 180, n = 90
m – n = 180 – 90 = 90
∴ now m = n …90 is HCF
Answer:
length of larget peice of wood to measure exactly the lenth of both pieces of wood is 90 cm

Question 4.
Using both repeated division method and repeated subtraction method and find the greatest number that divides 167 and 95, leaving 5 as reminder.
We need to find a number ‘x’ that divides 167 & 95 having 5 as reminder.
Therefore, if we subtract 5 from both the numbers, there wont be any reminder when the numbers are divided by ‘x’.
∴ x is the HCF of (167 – 5) & (95 – 5)
= 162 & 90
Finding HCF of 162 & 90 by repeated division method,
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 4
∴ HCF of 162 & 90 is 18.
HCF of 162 & 90 using repeated subtraction method
Let m = 162 & n = 90
m – n = 162 – 90 = 72
m – n = 90 – 72= 18
m – n = 72 – 18 = 54
n – m = 54 – 18 = 36
n – m = 36 – 18 = 18
now m = n = 18
Answer:
The number is 18
∴ 18 is the HCF

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4

Question 5.
Praveen recently got the registration number for his new two-wheeler. Here, the number is given in the form of mirror – image. Encode the image and find the correct registration number of praveen’s two – wheeler.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 5
Solution:
The mirror image is
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 6
When we place an imaginary mirror & visualize the image seen in the mirror, we will get the below.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.4 7
∴ The answer is Option c

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
(i) If a number has 5 or 6 digits in it then, its square root will have………digits.
(ii) The value of 180 lies between integers………and……….
(iii) \(\sqrt{10}\) × \(\sqrt{6}\) × \(\sqrt{15}\) =……………
(iv) \(\frac{\sqrt{300}{\sqrt{192}}\) =…………….
(v) \(\sqrt{65.61}\) =…………….
Solution:
(i) 3
(ii) 13, 14
(iii) 30
(iv) \(\frac{5}{4}\)
(v) 8.1

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.2

Question 2.
Estimate the value of the following square roots to the nearest whole number:
(i) \(\sqrt{440}\)
(ii) \(\sqrt{800}\)
(iii) \(\sqrt{1020}\)
Solution:
(i) We have 20² = 400
21² = 441
∴ \(\sqrt{440}\)  \(\widetilde { – } \) 21

(ii) We have 28² = 784
29² = 841
∴ \(\sqrt{800}\) \(\widetilde { – } \) 28

(iii) We have 31² = 961
32² = 1024
∴ \(\sqrt{1020}\) \(\widetilde { – } \) = 32

Question 3.
Find the least number that must be added to 1300 so as to get a perfect square. Also find the square root of the perfect square.
Solution:
We work out the process of finding square root by long division method.
The given number is 1300
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 1
So we have 36² < 1300 < 37²
Also 1300 is (469 – 400) = 69 less than 37². So if we add 69 to 1300 it will be perfect square. Hence the required, least number is 69 and the perfect square number is 1300 + 69 = 1369
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 2
∴ \(\sqrt{1369}\) = 37

Question 4.
Find the least number that must be subtracted to 6412 so as to get a perfect square. Also find the square root of the perfect square.
Solution:
Let us work out the process of finding the square root of 6412 by long division method.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 3
The remainder in the last step is 12. Is if 12 be subtracted from the given number the remainder will be zero and the new number will be a perfect square.
∴ The required number is 12.
The square number is 6412 – 12 = 6400
Also \(\sqrt{6400}\) = 80

Question 5.
Find the square root by long division method.
(i) 17956
(ii) 11025
(iii) 6889
(iv) 1764
(v) 418609
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 4
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 5

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.2

Question 6.
Find the square root of the following decimal numbers:
(i) 2.89
(ii) 1.96
(iii) 67.24
(iv) 31.36
(v) 2.0164
(vi) 13.9876
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 6

Question 7.
Find the square root of each of the following fractions:
(i) \(\frac{144}{225}\)
(ii) 7\(\frac{18}{49}\)
(iii) 6\(\frac{1}{4}\)
(iv) 4\(\frac{25}{36}\)
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 7
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.2 8

Question 8.
Say True or False:
(i) \(\frac{\sqrt{32}}{\sqrt{8}}=2\)
(ii) \(\sqrt{\frac{625}{1024}}=\frac{25}{32}\)
(iii) \(\sqrt{28}{7}=2\sqrt{7}\)
(iv) \(\sqrt{225}{64}=\sqrt{289}\)
(v) \(\sqrt{1 \frac{400}{441}}=1 \frac{20}{21}\)
Solution:
(i) true
(ii) true
(iii) false
(iv) false
(v) false

Objective Type Questions

Question 9.
\(\sqrt{48}\) is approximately equal to
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Solution:
(c) 7
Hint:
\(\sqrt{49}\) = 7

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.2

Question 10.
\(\sqrt{128}\) – \(\sqrt{98}\) + \(\sqrt{18}\) =
(a) \(\sqrt{2}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{8}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{48}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{32}\)
Solution:
(d) \(\sqrt{32}\)
Hint:
\(\sqrt{128}-\sqrt{98}+\sqrt{18}=8 \sqrt{2}-7 \sqrt{2}+3 \sqrt{2}=4 \sqrt{2}=\sqrt{32}\)

Question 11.
\(\sqrt{22+\sqrt{7+\sqrt{4}}}=\)
(a) \(\sqrt{25}\)
(b) \(\sqrt{33}\)
(c) \(\sqrt{31}\)
(d) \(\sqrt{29}\)
Solution:
(a) \(\sqrt{25}\)
Hint:
\(\sqrt{22+\sqrt{7+\sqrt{4}}}=\sqrt{22+\sqrt{7+2}}=\sqrt{22+3}=\sqrt{25}\)

Question 12.
The number of digits in the square root of 123454321 is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7
Solution:
(b) 5
Hint:
\(=\frac{n+1}{2}=\frac{10}{2}=5\)

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Universe and Space Science

Students can Download Science Term 3 Chapter 3 Universe and Space Science Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Solutions Term 3 Chapter 3 Universe and Space Science

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science Universe and Space Science Text Book Exercise

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I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
Which of the following is a celestial body?
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c)Stars
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 2.
Mangalyaan was sent to …………….
(a) Moon
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer:
(b) Mars

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Question 3.
Chandrayaan -1 was launched on …………….
(a) 22nd October 2008
(b) 8th November 2008
(c) 22nd July 2019
(d) 22nd October 2019
Answer:
(a) 22nd October 2008

Question 4.
……………. is called as Red planet.
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Earth
(d) Mars
Answer:
(d) Mars

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Question 5.
Which of the following is the working principle of Rockets?
(a) Newton’s first law
(b) Newton’s second law
(c) Newton’s third law
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Newton’s third law

Question 6.
Cryogenic fuels are stored at …………….
(a) room temperature
(b) low temperature
(c) very low temperature
(d) very high temperature
Answer:
(c) very low temperature

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Question 7.
……………. was the first manned mission of NASA to go to the moon.
(a) Apollo-5
(b) Apollo-8
(c) Apollo-10
(d) Apollo-11
Answer:
(b) Apollo-8

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The study about stars and planets are known as ……………
  2. Our Sun belongs to …………… Galaxy.
  3. Mars revolves around the Sun once in …………… days.
  4. …………… is India’s first interplanetary mission.
  5. …………… was the first man to walk on the surface of the Moon.

Answer:

  1. Astronomy
  2. Milky way
  3. 687
  4. Mars Orbiter Mission
  5. Neil Armstrong

III. Say True or False. If false, correct the statement:

Question 1.
The Sun and the celestial bodies form Solar system.
Answer:
true

Question 2.
Chandrayaan-1 was launched from Sriharikota.
Answer:
True.

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Question 3
Mars is the smallest planet in the Solar system.
Answer:
False
Correct statement:
Mercury is the smallest planet in the Solar system.

Question 4.
PSLV and GSLV are India’s popular satellites.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
The propellant of a rocket is only in the form of solids.
Answer:
False Correct statement:
The propellant of a rocket is may be in the form of solids or liquids.

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IV. Match the following:

  1. Chandrayaan – Fuel
  2. Mangalyaan – Moon
  3. Cryogenic – First manned mission to the moon
  4. Apple – 8 – First man landing mission to the moon
  5. Apollo-11 – Mars

Answer:

  1. Chandrayaan – Moon
  2. Mangalyaan – Mars
  3. Cryogenic – Fuel
  4. Apple – 8 – First manned mission to the moon
  5. Apollo-11 – First man landing mission to the moon

V. Answer briefly:

Question 1.
What are celestial objects?
Answer:
The stars, the planets, the Moon and any other objects like asteroids and comets in the sky are called celestial objects.

Question 2.
Define galaxy.
Answer:
A collection of billions of stars held together by mutual attraction is called galaxy.

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Question 3.
What are the objectives of Chandrayaan-1?
Answer:

  1. To find the possibility of water on the Moon.
  2. To find the elements of matter on the Moon.
  3. To search for the existence of Helium-3.
  4. To make a 3-dimensional atlas of the Moon.
  5. To study about the evolution of the solar system.

Question 4.
List out the objectives of Mangalyaan.
Answer:

  1. To develop the technology required for interplanetary mission. .
  2. To explore the surface of Mars.
  3. To study the constituents of the Martian atmosphere.
  4. To provide information about the future possibility of life and past existence of life

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Question 5.
What are Cryogenic Fuels?
Answer:
Cryogenic fuels are the fuels used in rocket engine. They are maintained or stored at very low temperature in order to keep them in liquid state.

Question 6.
Name the Indians worked at NASA.
Answer:
Kalpana Chawla and Sunitha Williams.

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VI. Answer in detail:

Question 1.
What are the achievements of Chandrayaan -1?
Answer:

  1. The discovery of presence of water molecules in the lunar soil.
  2. Chandrayaan-1 confirmed that the Moon was completely molten once.
  3. Chandrayaan-1 has recorded images of the landing site of the US space-craft Apollo-15 and Apollo-11.
  4. It has provided high-resolution spectral data on the mineralogy of the Moon.
  5. The existence of aluminium, magnesium and silicon were picked up by the X-ray camera.
  6. More than 40,000 images have been transmitted by the Chandrayaan-1 camera in 75 days.
  7. The acquired images of peaks and craters show that the Moon mostly consists of craters.
  8. Chandrayaan-1 beamed back its first images of the Earth in its entirety.
  9. Chandrayaan-1 has discovered large caves on the lunar surface that can act as human shelter on the Moon.

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Question 2.
Explain the parts of a rocket.
Answer:
There are four major parts or systems in a rocket. They are:

  1. Structural system
  2. Payload system.
  3. Guidance system.
  4. Propulsion system.

1. Structural system (Frame):
It is the frame that covers the rocket. It is made up of very strong but light weight materials like titanium or aluminum. Fins are attached to some rockets at the bottom of the frame to provide stability during the flight.

2. Payload system:
It is the object that the satellite is carrying into the orbit. Payload depends on the rocket’s mission. The rockets are modified to launch satellites with a wide range of missions like communications, weather monitoring, spying, planetary exploration, and as observatories. Special rockets are also developed to launch people into the Earth’s orbit and onto the surface of the Moon.

3. Guidance system:
Guidance system guides the rocket in its path. It may include sensors, on-board computers, radars, and communication equipments.

4. Propulsion system:
It takes up most of the space in a rocket. It consists of fuel (propellant) tanks, pumps and a combustion chamber. There are two main types of propulsion systems. They are: liquid propulsion system and solid propulsion system.

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Question 3.
Write a note on Apollo missions.
Answer:

  1. Apollo Missions are the most popular missions of NASA.
  2. These missions made American Astronauts to land on the Moon.
  3. It consists of totally 17 missions.
  4. Among them Apollo -8 and Apollo-11 are more remarkable.
  5. Apollo-8 was the first manned mission to go to the Moon. It orbited around the Moon and came back to the Earth.
  6. Apollo-11 was the first ‘Man Landing Mission’ to the moon. It landed on the Moon on 20th July 1969. –
  7. Neil Armstrong was the first man to walk on the surface of the Moon.

VII. Higher Order Thinking Questions:

Question 1.
Why we are always seeing one side of the Moon?
Answer:
Moon doesn’t have its own light, but it reflects the sunlight. The time period of rotation of the Moon about its own axis is equal to the time period of revolution around the Earth. That’s why we are always seeing its one side.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Science 3 Universe and Space Science Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
……………. was the first man landing mission to go to the Moon.
(a) Apollo 8
(b) Apollo 11
(c) Chandrayaan – 1
(d) Chandrayaan – 2
Answer:
(b) Apollo 11

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Question 2.
……………. is India is first interplanetary mission.
(a) MOM
(b) Mangalyaan
(c) Chandrayaan -1
(d) None
Answer:
(b) Mangalyaan

Question 3.
……………. system guides the rocket in its path.
Answer:
(a) Propulsion
(b) Structural
(c) Payload
(d) Guidance
Answer:
(d) Guidance

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Question 4.
Liquid hydrogen, hydrazine and ……………. are the liquid fuels.
Answer:
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Nitrate
(c) Chlorate salts
(d) Ethyl alcohol
Answer:
(d) Ethyl alcohol

Question 5.
To provide information about the future possibility of life and past existence of life on the planet. This is one the objectives of …………….
Answer:
(a) Chandrayaan – 1
(b) Chandrayaan – 2
(c) Mangalyaan
(d) Apollo 8
Answer:
(c) Mangalyaan

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II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Sun and the Celestial bodies revolving around it form the ……………
  2. A collection of billions of stars held together by mutual attraction is called ……………
  3. Our Sun belongs to a galaxy called ……………
  4. Billions of galaxies form the ……………
  5. The …………… system is the frame that covers the rocket.
  6. …………… and …………… rockets are India’s popular rockets.
  7. The first ever satellite …………… was launched in 1975.
  8. Mars rotates about its own axis once in …………… hours …………… minutes.
  9. …………… became the first Asian country to reach Mars and the first nation in the world to achieve this in the first attempt.
  10. …………… became the first Indian women astronaut to go to space.

Answer:

  1. solar system
  2. galaxy
  3. Milky way
  4. Universe
  5. structural
  6. PSLV, GSLV
  7. Aryabhata
  8. 24, 37
  9. India
  10. Kalpana Chawla

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III. True or False – if false, give the correct statement:

Question 1.
Propulsion system may include sensors, radars and communication equipments.
Answer:
False

Correct statement:
Guidance system may include sensors, radars and communication equipments.

Question 2.
Structural system is made up of very strong but light weight materials like titanium and aluminium.
Answer:
True.

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Question 3.
The propellants may be in the form of a liquid or gas.
Answer:
False

Correct statement:
The propellants may be in the form of a liquid or solid.

Question 4.
Liquid hydrogen, hydrazine and ethyl alcohol are the liquid fuels.
Answer:
True.

Question 5.
Combustion of solid propellants can be stopped once it is ignited.
Answer:
False

Correct statement:
Combustion of solid propellants cannot be stopped once it is ignited.

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IV. Match the following:

  1. Chandrayaan – 1 – (a) Cosmonaut
  2. Chandrayaan – 2 – (b) Mars Orbiter
  3. Mangalyaan – (c) Dr. Mylsamy Annadurai
  4. Rakesh Sharma – (d) Dr. Kailasa vadivoo Sivan

Answer:

  1. c
  2. d
  3. b
  4. a

V. Very short answer questions:

Question 1.
Name an Indian pilot who was selected as a cosmonaut in a joint space program between India and Soviet Russia.
Answer:
Rakesh Sharma.

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Question 2.
Name the solid fuels used in rockets.
Answer:
Polyurethanes and Polybutadienes.

Question 3.
Name the fuels which do not need any ignition system.
Answer:
Cryogenic fuels.

Question 4.
Name the principle which is used in rocket propulsion.
Answer:
Newton’s third law (For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction).

Question 5.
What are the 4 major parts or systems in a rocket?
Answer:

  1. Structural system
  2. Payload system
  3. Guidance system
  4. Propulsion system

Question 6.
Name the 2 popular rockets of India.
Answer:
Polar satellite launch vehicle (PSLV). Geosynchronous satellite launch vehicle (GSLV)

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Question 7.
What are the most popular missions of NASA?
Answer:
Apollo missions

VI. Short answer questions:

Question 1.
Write a note on propulsion system of rocket.
Answer:

  1. It takes up most of the space in a rocket.
  2. It consists of fuel (propellant) tanks, pumps and a combustion chamber.
  3. There are two main types of propulsion systems, liquid propulsion system and solid propulsion system.

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Question 2.
What is a propellant?
Answer:
A propellant is a chemical substance that can undergo combustion to produce pressurized gases whose energy is utilized to move a rocket against the gravitational force of attraction.

Question 3.
Write a note on orbiter and lander of Chandrayaan – 2.
Answer:
1. Orbiter:
It revolves around the Moon and it is capable of communicating with Indian Deep Space Network (IDSN) at Bylalu as well as Vikram Lander.

2. Lander:
It is named as Vikram in the memory of Dr. Vikram A. Sarabhai, the father of Indian space program

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Question 4.
Write about Sunitha William’s work at NASA.
Answer:

  1. Sunitha Williams started her career as an astronaut in August 1998.
  2. She made two trips to the International Space Station.
  3. She set a record of the longest space walking time by a female astronaut in 2012, with a total space walk of 50 hour and 40 minute (7 space walks).
  4. She is one of the crew of NASA’s Manned Mars Mission.

VII. Long answer questions:

Question 1.
Explain about the launching of satellite in a particular orbit.
Answer:

  1. Before being launched into the space, rockets will be held down by the clamps on the launching pad initially.
  2. Manned or unmanned satellites will be placed at the top of the rocket.
  3. When the fuel in the rocket is burnt, it will produce an upward thrust. There will be a point at which the upward thrust will be greater than the weight of the satellite.
  4. At that point, the clamp will be removed by remote control and the rocket will move upwards.
  5. According to Newton’s third law, for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
  6. As the gas is released downward, the rocket will move upward.
  7. To place a satellite in a particular orbit, a satellite must be raised to the desired height and given the correct speed and direction by the launching rocket.
  8. If this high velocity is given to the rocket at the surface of the Earth, the rocket will be burnt due to air friction.
  9. Moreover, such high velocities cannot be developed by a single rocket, So. multistage rockets are used.

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Question 2.
Explain the two types of propellant.
Answer:
1. Liquid propellants:

  • Fuel and oxidisers are combined in a combustion chamber where they bum and come out from the base of the rocket with a great force.
  • Liquid hydrogen, hydrazine and ethyl alcohol are the liquid fuels.
  • Some of the oxidizers are oxygen, ozone, hydrogen peroxide and fuming nitric acid.

2. Solid propellants :

  • Fuel and oxidiser compounds are already combined.
  • When they are ignited they bum and produce heat energy.
  • Combustion of solid propellants cannot be stopped once it is ignited.
  • Solid fuels used in rockets are polyurethanes and polybutadienes. Nitrate and chlorate salts are used as oxidizers.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Defence & Foreign Policy

Students can Download Social Science Civics Term 3 Chapter 1 Defence & Foreign Policy Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Defence & Foreign Policy

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Defence & Foreign Policy Textual Evaluation

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The Supreme Commander of the Armed forces is our-
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Minister
Answer:
(a) President

Question 2.
The primary mission of Indian Army is to ensure-
(a) National Security
(b) National Unity
(c) Defending the nation from external aggression
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
The Army day is-
(a) 15th January
(b) 1st February
(c) 10th March
(d) 7th October
Answer:
(a) 15th January

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Question 4.
Assam Rifles is under the control of-
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b)National Security Advisor
(c) PMO
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer:
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

Question 5.
Indian Coast Guard was established in-
(a) 1976
(b) 1977
(c) 1978
(d) 1979
Answer:
(c) 1978

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Question 6.
India’s foreign policy is based on several principles. One of which is-
(a) Satyameva Jayate
(b) Panchasheel
(c) both of these
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Panchasheel

Question 7.
Which of the following islands belonged to India?
(a) Andaman and Maldives
(b) Andaman and Lakshadweep Island
(c) Sri Lanka and Maldives
(d) Maldives and Lakshadweep Island
Answer:
(b) Andaman and Lakshadweep Island

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II. Fill in the Blanks:

  1. The Madras Regimental Army centre is at ………….
  2. The Indian Navy Chief is ………….
  3. …………. is first and only officer of Indian Air Force to be promoted to Five Star rank Marshal of Indian Air Force.
  4. The chief architect of India’s foreign policy was ………….
  5. The Word Non-Alignment was coined by ………….

Answer:

  1. Wellington, Udhagamandalam, Tamil Nadu
  2. Admiral
  3. Arjan Singh
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru
  5. V.K. Krishna Menon

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III. Match the following:

Question 1.

  1. Nelson Mandela – 8 members
  2. National war Memorial – Field Marshal
  3. Manekshaw – Energy development
  4. SAARC – Apartheid
  5. BCIM – New Delhi

Answer:

  1. Nelson Mandela – Apartheid
  2. National war Memorial – New Delhi
  3. Manekshaw – Field Marshal
  4. SAARC – 8 members
  5. BCIM – Energy development

IV. State true or false:

  1. Central Armed Police Force serve under the Ministry of Defence.
  2. The Madras Regiment is one of the oldest infantry regiment.
  3. The Rapid Action Force is a specialised wing of the CRPF.
  4. NCC Cadets are given basic military training.
  5. Bangladesh is a part of India.
  6. Myanmar is land bridge to ASEAN nations.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. True
  5. False
  6. True

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V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Consider the following statement related to Armed forces.

(i) The Indian Army is the land based branch of Armed forces.
(ii) The mission of Indian Army is not only ensure the national security but also conducts humanisation rescue operations.

(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (i)
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India.
Reason (R): The President is the head of the State and occupies the highest position.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is correct and R does not explain A
(c) A is correct and R is wrong
(d) Both A and R are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R explains A

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Question 3.
Assertion (A): India has favored international co-operation.
Reason (R): She believes that all disputes among nations can be solved through friendly co-operation.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is not true about “Apartheid?”

(i) Apartheid is a policy of racial discrimination.
(ii) It is against humanism.
(iii) The policy of racialism is practiced in India.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

Question 5.
Find the odd One out
(a) Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
(d) Lakshadweep
Answer:
(c) Myanmar

VI Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why national security is very entail?
Answer:

  1. National security is very essential for the political, social and economic development of any country,
  2. It is also important for the growth a country’s peace and peospenty.

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Question 2.
What does the following abbreviation stand for?
(a) SFF
(b) ICG
(c) BSF
(d) NCC
Answer:
(a) SFF – The Special Frontier Force
(b) ICG – Indian Coast Guard
(e) BSF – The Border Security Force
(d) NCC – National Cadet Corps

Question 3.
Write a short note on CRPF
Answer:

  1. CRPF means The Central Reserve Police Force.
  2. This mission is to maintain Rule of law, Public order and internal security effectively and efficiently.
  3. It aims to preserve national integrity and promote social harmony and development by upholding supremacy of the constitution.
  4. Its specialized wing is The Rapid Action Force.

Question 4.
Name of the founding fathers of Non-Aligned Movement.
Answer:
The founding fathers of Non-Aligned Movement were Jawaharlal Nehru of India. Tito of Yugoslavia, Nasser of Egypt, Sukarno of Indonesia, and Kwame Nkumarah of Ghana.

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Question 5.
Write the basic principles of India’s Foreign Policy.
Answer:
The basic principles of India’s foreign policy are-

  1. Preservation of national interest
  2. Achievement of world peace
  3. Disarmament
  4. Abolition of Colonialism, Racism and Imperialism
  5. Increasing the number of friendly nations

Question 6.
Name the member countries of the SAARC.
Answer:
The member countries of SAARC are Inida, BangLadesh, Pakistan, Nepal,Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives and Afghanistan.

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VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Describe tie structure and administration of Indian Arty.
Answer:
Army:

  1. The Indian Army is the land-based branch and it the largest unicellular arm in the world
  2. It is commanded by the Chief of Army Staff (COAS), who is a four-star general.
  3. The primary mission of the Indian Army is to ensure national security. national unity. defending the nation from internal aggression, internal thresh.
  4. The Indian Army baa a regimental system
  5. It is operationally and geographically divided into seven commands.

Navy:
The primary objective of the navy is to safeguard the nations maritime Borden. and in conjunction with other Armed Forces of the union, act to deter or defeat any threats or aggression against the territory. people or maritime interests of India.

Air Force:
The Indian Air Force is the air arm of the Indian armed forces. Its primary mission is to secure Indian airspace and to conduct serial warfare during aimed conflict. The Chief of Air Staff, an air chief marshal, is a four-star officer and is responsible for the bulk or operational command of the Air Force.

Question 2.
Write about Paramilitary Detract Forces.
Answer:

  1. the Paramilitary Defence Forces help in maintaining internal security.
  2. Protecting the Coastal line. and assisting the army are known as ‘Paramilitary Forces”.
  3. Assist the army forces.
  4. The responsibility is the security of important places like Railway stations.Oil fields and refineries, water reservoirs lines.
  5. They also participate in the management of natural or man-made disasters
  6. During peace time, the protect the international borders.

They can be divided as:

  1. TheAsaamRilles(AR)
  2. The Special Frontier Force (SFF)

1. the Assam Rifles (AR):

  • This was established in 1835 by the British in the Assam region, as a militia called the ‘Cachar Levy’.
  • There are currently 46 battalions of Assam Rifles and it n under the Ministry of Home Affaira (MBA).

2. The Special Frontier Force (SFF):

  • It was created in 1962.
  • This force was put under the duvet supervision of the Intelligence Bureau
  • Later it was brought under the Research and Analysis Wing. India’s external intelligence agency.

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Question 3.
Write five principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India was the chief architect of India’s foreign policy. Nehru was a supporter of world peace. He declared the five principles of peace, known as Panchsheel. These principles included:

  1. Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.
  2. Mutual non-aggression
  3. Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
  4. Equality and mutual benefit
  5. Peaceful co-existence.

Question 4.
India focuses on improving ties with its neighbours. How?
Answer:
1. It is part of India’s foreign policy that actively focuses on improving ties with India’s immediate neighbours.

2. India provides neighbours with support to improve the free flow of goods, people, energy, capital and information.

3. ACT East Policy:
Myanmar is our land bridge to the countries of the Association of the Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The main purpose is to ensure a stable and multipolor balance of power in the Indo-Pacific region.

SAARC:
To foster the bonds of brotherhood, co-operation and peaceful co-existence SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) was established. The member countries are India. Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, Maldives and Afghanistan are the eight members of the SAARC.

BCIM:
This Bangladesh – China – India – Myanmar Economic corridor envisages the formation of a thriving economic belt, focusing on cross – border transport, energy and telecommunication networks.

BIMSTEC:
It refers Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation. The member countries are Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal.

BBIN:
Bangladesh – Bhutan – India – Nepal has signed a framework to enable movement of passengers, cargo vehicles and for energy development. It has high status in the South East Asia. ’

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VIII. HOTs :

Question 1.
A career in defense forces promises one of the most prestigious and respected position in the country. State the importance.
Answer:

  1. Being a part of the defense forces is one of the most prestigious and respected position in the country.
  2. Young aspirants who aspire to choose a career full of excitement, challenges and adventure can join the defense forces.
  3. When it comes to lifestyle, the defense forces is unmatched. Regular exercise and proper routine key a soldier physically fit and active during his working age.
  4. Each person serves the motherland in his own way and contributes to the growth and development, but he serves his country at the cost of his life.
  5. Having a government job is the best thing for any one in an economy.
  6. The glamor of the uniform, badges add a sense of pride in the person.
  7. The armed forces take care of the family of its men.
  8. Even after retirement private job opportunities are there.
  9. Leadership quality is well developed with various types of experience.
  10. It is the most thrilling career in the world.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Defence & Foreign Policy Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
National security is very essential for …………….
(a) Political development
(b) Social development
(c) Economic development
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) All of the above

Question 2.
Indian Army is operationally and geographically divided into ……………. commands.
(a) Five
(b) Seven
(c) Six
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Seven

Question 3.
The Assam Rifles came into being in …………….
(a) 1830
(b) 1840
(c) 1835
(d) 1845
Answer:
(c) 1835

Question 4.
Kadaram was conquered by …………….
(a) Raja Raja
(b) Rajendra
(c) Mamalla
(d) Narasimhan
Answer:
(b) Rajendra

Question 5.
The Central Industrial Security Forces (CISF) was set up in …………….
(a) 1969
(b) 1950
(c) 1955
(d) 1972
Answer:
(a) 1969

Question 6.
Normal tenure of membership in Home guards is ……………. years.
(a) 2 to 4
(b) 3 to 5
(c) 1 to 2
(d) 5 to 6
Answer:
(b) 3 to 5

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Question 7.
The end of racialism in South Africa ended in …………….
(a) 1889
(b) 1992
(c) 1990
(d) 1995
Answer:
(c) 1990

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. India has always maintained ……………. relationship with all the other countries in the world.
  2. Indian Armed Forces come under …………….
  3. Indian Air force primary mission is to secure …………….
  4. The highest attainable rank in the Indian Army is …………….
  5. During peace time, the paramilitary forces also have the responsibility of protecting the ……………. borders.
  6. National Cadet Corps is a ……………. organisation.
  7. India’s foreign policy was evolved with the background of her ……………. sufferings.
  8. A determined fighter against apartheid was …………….
  9. South East Asia begins with ……………. India.
  10. India gives highest priority to her …………….

Answer:

  1. cordial
  2. Ministry of Defence
  3. Indian Air force
  4. Field Marshal
  5. International
  6. Tri – Services
  7. Colonial
  8. Nelson Manadala
  9. North East
  10. Neighbours

III. Match the following:

  1. Navy Day – a) 8th October
  2. Coast Guard Day – b) 7th October
  3. Air Force Day – c) 7th December
  4. Rapid Action Force Day – d) 4th December
  5. Armed Forces Flag day – e) 1st February

Answer:

  1. d
  2. e
  3. a
  4. b
  5. c

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IV. State True or False:

  1. The Government of India has given higher priorities to the defence sector.
  2. Assam Rifles and special frontier Force belong to Central Armed Police Forces.
  3. Manekshaw was the first Field Marshal of India.
  4. The border security force is a Border Guarding Force of India
  5. Recruitment to the Defence Services in restricted to some Indians.
  6. Non – alignment means neutrality, involvement and isolationism.
  7. India’s foreign policy is to maintain peace, freedom and mutual co-operation among the people.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. True
  4. True
  5. False
  6. False
  7. True

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V. Choose the Correct answer:

Question 1.
(i) Indian Armed forces serve under the Ministry of Defence.
(ii) Assam Rifles and Special Frontier Force come under Paramilitary Forces.

(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) Both (i), and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer:
(c) Both (i), and (ii)

Question 2.
Assertion (A): The Government of India has given higher priorities to the defence sector.
Reason (R): India has to strengthen its security to defend its border from any foreign aggression.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Nehru was a supporter of world peace.
Reason (R): Nehru declared the fire principles of peace, known as Panchsheel.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

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Question 4.
Which of the following statements is not true about SAARC ?
Answer:
(i) India believes in regional co-operation.
(ii) SAARC means South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation.
(iii) Nepal is not a member of SAARC.

(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) only
Answer:
(d) (iii) only

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VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Mention the division of the Security Forces in India.
Answer:
Security forces in India can be divided into:

  1. Indian Armed Forces – Army, Navy, Airforce and Coast Guard.
  2. Paramilitary Forces – Assam Rifles and Special Frontier
  3. Central Armed Police Forces – BSF, CRPF, ITBP, CISF and SSB.

Question 2.
Write about the National War Memorial.
Answer:

  1. The National War Memorial is a monument built by the Government of India
  2. It is to honor the Indian Armed Forces.
  3. The memorial is spread over 40 acres of land and is built around the existing Chatri near India gate in New Delhi.
  4. The names of armed forces personnel martyred during the conflicts are inscribed on the memorial walls.

Question 3.
When did the Madras Regiment Originate?
Answer:

  1. The Madras Regiment is one of the oldest infantry regiment of the Indian Army.
  2. It was originating in the year 1758.
  3. The Regimental Centre is at Wellington, Udhagamandalam, Tamil Nadu.

Question 4.
Explain the term OTA.
Answer:

  1. In 1962, after the Sino-Indian War, the need to expand the number of officers was felt,
  2. Two Officers Training Schools (OTS) were established in Pune and Chennai to train officers for Emergency Commission into the Army.
  3. On 1st January 1988, the school was renamed as the Officers Training Academy (OTA).

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Question 5.
Name the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPR).
Answer:
The Central Armed Police Forces include.

  1. The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
  2. Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
  3. The Border Security Force (BSF)
  4. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
  5. Special Service Bureau (SSB)

Question 6.
What is the main purpose of ITBP.
Answer:

  1. This force is specialised in high altitude operations.
  2. It is deployed for border guarding duties from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh (India – China border).

Question 7.
Write a note on National Cadet Corps. (NCC).
Answer:

  1. NCC is a Tri-Services Organization, comprising the Army, Navy and Air Force.
  2. It is engaged in grooming the youth of the country into disciplined and patriotic citizens.
  3. It is a voluntary organization.
  4. It recruits cadets from high schools, colleges and universities all over India.
  5. The Cadets are given basic military training in small arms and parades.

Question 8.
Who was Nelson Mandela?
Answer:

  1. Nelson Mandela – Leader of the African National Council of South Africa.
  2. He fought against the policy of apartheid known as racial discrimination.
  3. It is against humanism and democracy.
  4. India opposed all types of racial discrimination.
  5. The end of racialism in South Africa in 1990.

Question 9.
Mention the countries with which India shares its borers.
Answer:
India is a vast country with:

  1. Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north-west
  2. China, Nepal, Bhutan to the north
  3. Bangladesh to the east
  4. Myanmar to the far east
  5. Sri Lanka (south-east) and
  6. Maldives (south-west

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VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Explain the role of the Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF).
Answer:

  1. The Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) come under Ministry of Home affairs and with five wings.
  2. The Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) comes under CAPA.
  3. Its main mission is to enable government to maintain Rule of Law, public order and internal security effectively and efficiently.
  4. The Rapid Action Force is a specialised wing of the CRPF
  5. Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP). It is deployed for border guarding duties from Ladakh to Arunachal Pradesh (India – China border).
  6. The Border Security Force (BSF) is a border guarding force of India.
  7. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) was set up under an Act of the Parliament of India on 10th March 1969. Its duties are guarding sensitive governmental buildings, the Delhi Metro, and providing airport security.
  8. Sashastra Seema Bal/Special Service Bureau (SSB) is the border guardening force for Nepal and Bhutan border. –
  9. The Indian Home Guard is a voluntary force, tasked as an auxiliary to the Indian Police.
  10. To protect and guard our nation, our armed forces are always kept ready. Recruitment to the Defence services is open to all Indians.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.1

Students can Download Maths Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.1 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers Ex 1.1

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks:
i. The ones digit in the square of 77 is …………
ii. The number of non-square numbers between 24² and 25² is ……………….
iii. If a number ends with 5, its square ends with …………
iv. A square number will not end with numbers ………….
v. The number of perfect square numbers between 300 and 500 is …………
Solution:
i. 9
ii. 48
iii. 5
iv. 2, 3, 7, 8
v. 5

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.1

Question 2.
Say True or False:
i. When a square number ends in 6, its square root will have 6 in the unit’s place.
ii. A square number will not have odd number of zeros at the end.
iii. The number of zeros in the square of 961000 is 9.
iv. (7, 24, 25) is a Pythagorean triplet.
v. The square root of 221 is 21.
Solution:
i. True
ii. True
iii. False
iv. True
v. False

Question 3.
What will be the ones digit in the squares of the following numbers?
(i) 36
(ii) 252
(iii) 543
Solution:
(i) If a number ends with 6, its square ends with 6.
∴ Ones’ digit in the square of 36 is 6.

(ii) If a number ends with 2, its square ends with 4.
∴ Ones’ digit in the square of 252 is 4

(iii) If a number ends with 3, its square ends with 9.
∴ Ones’ digit in the square of 543 is 9.

Question 4.
Study the given numbers and justify why each of them obviously cannot be a perfect square.
(i) 1000
(ii) 34567
(iii) 408
Solution:
We know that the numbers end with odd number of zeros, 7 and 8 not perfect squares.
∴ 1000, 34567 and 408 cannot be perfect squares.

Question 5.
Find the sum without actually adding the following odd numbers:
(i) 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 +……..+ 35
(ii) The first 99 odd natural numbers.
Solution:
1 + 3 + 5 + 7 +……..+ 35.
Here there are 18 odd numbers from 1 to 35.
Sum of first n consecutive odd natural numbers = n²
∴ Sum of first 18 consecutive odd natural numbers = 18² = 18 × 18 = 324
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 1

(ii) The first 99 odd natural numbers.
Sum of first n consecutive natural numbers = n²
∴ Sum of 99 odd natural numbers = 99² = 99 × 99 = 9801
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 2

Question 6.
Express
(i) 15² and
(ii) 19²
as the sum of two consecutive positive integers.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 3

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.1

Question 7.
Write
(i) 10² and
(ii) 11²
as the sum of consecutive odd natural numbers.
Solution:
(i) 10²
10² = 100 = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19
(ii) 11²
11² = 121 = 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + 17 + 19 + 21

Question 8.
Find a Pythagorean triplet whose
(i) largest member is 65
(ii) smallest member is 10
Solution:
(i) Largest number is 65
Given largest number is 65.
We know that 2m, m² – 1, m² + 1 form a Pythagorean triplet.
let m² + 1 = 65
m² = 65 – 1
m² = 64
m² = 8 × 8
m = 8
∴ 2m = 2 × 8 = 16
m² – 1 = 64 – 1 = 63
∴ The required Pythagorean triplet is (16, 63, 65)

(ii) Smallest number is 10
We know that (2m, m² – 1, m² + 1) form a Pythagorean triplet.
Given smallest number is 10
let 2m = 10
m = \(\frac{10}{2}\)
m = 5
m² + 1 = 5² + 1 = 25 + 1 = 26
m² – 1 = 5² – 1 = 25 – 1 = 24
∴ The required Pythagorean triplet is (10, 24, 26)

Question 9.
Find the square root of the following by repeated subtraction method.
(i) 144
(ii) 256
(iii) 784
Solution:
(i) 144
Step 1: 144 – 1 = 143
Step 2: 143 – 3 = 140
Step 3: 140 – 5 = 135
Step 4: 135 – 7 = 128
Step 5: 128 – 9 = 119
Step 6: 119 – 11 = 108
Step 7: 108 – 13 = 95
Step 8: 95 – 15 = 80
Step 9: 80 – 17 = 63
Step 10: 63 – 19 = 44
Step 11: 44 – 21 = 23
Step 12: 23 – 23 = 0.
We get 0 in the 12th step.
∴ 144 is a perfect square and ⇒ \(\sqrt{144}\) = 12.

(ii) 256
Step 1: 256 – 1 = 255
Step 2: 255 – 3 = 252
Step 3: 252 – 5 = 247
Step 4: 247 – 7 = 240
Step 5: 240 – 9 = 231
Step 6: 231 – 11 = 220
Step 7: 220 – 13 = 207
Step 8: 207 – 15 = 192
Step 9: 192 – 17 = 175
Step 10: 175 – 19 = 156
Step 11: 156 – 21 = 135
Step 12: 135 – 23 = 112
Step 13: 112 – 25 = 87
Step 14: 87 – 27 = 60
Step 15: 60 – 29 = 31
Step 16: 31 – 31 = 0
We have subtracted odd numbers starting from 1 repeatedly from 256. We get 0 in the 8th step.
∴ 256 is a perfect square and \(\sqrt{256}\) = 16

(iii) 784
Step 1: 784 – 1 = 783
Step 2: 783 – 3 = 780
Step 3: 780 – 5 = 775
Step 4: 775 – 7 = 768
Step 5: 768 – 9 = 759
Step 6: 759 – 11 = 748
Step 7: 748 – 13 = 735
Step 8: 735 – 15 = 720
Step 9: 720 – 17 = 703
Step 10: 703 – 19 = 684
Step 11: 684 – 21 = 663
Step 12: 663 – 23 = 640
Step 13: 640 – 25 = 615
Step 14: 615 – 27 = 588
Step 15: 588 – 29 = 559
Step 16: 559 – 31 = 528
Step 17: 528 – 33 = 495
Step 18: 495 – 35 = 460
Step 19: 460 – 37 = 423
Step 20: 423 – 39 = 384
Step 21: 384 – 41 = 343
Step 22: 343 – 43 300
Step 23: 300 – 45 = 255
Step 24: 255 – 47 = 208
Step 25: 208 – 49 = 159
Step 26: 159 – 51 = 108
Step 27: 108 – 53 = 55
Step 28: 55 – 55 = 0
We have subtracted odd numbers starting from 1 repeatedly from 784, we get zero in the 28th step.
∴ 784 is a perfect square. \(\sqrt{784}\) = 28

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.1

Question 10.
Find the square root by prime factorisation method.
(i) 1156
(ii) 4761
(iii) 9025
Solution:
(i) 1156
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 4
1156 = 2 × 2 × 17 × 17
1156 = 2² × 17²
1156 = (2 × 17)²
∴ \(\sqrt{1156}\) = \((\sqrt{2×17})^{2}\) = 2 × 17 = 34
∴ \(\sqrt{1156}\) = 34

(ii) 4761
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 5
4761 = 3 × 3 × 23 × 23
4761 = 3² × 23²
4761 = (3 × 23)²
\(\sqrt{4761}\) = \((\sqrt{3 × 23})^{2}\)
\(\sqrt{4761}\) = 3 × 23
\(\sqrt{4761}\) = 69

(iii) 9025
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 6
9025 = 5 × 5 × 19 × 19
9025 = 5² × 19²
9025 = (5 × 19)²
\(\sqrt{925}\) = \((\sqrt{5 × 19})^{2}\) = 5 × 19 = 95

Question 11.
Examine if each of the following is a perfect square:
(i) 725
(ii) 190
(iii) 841
(iv) 1089
Solution:
(i) 725
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 7
725 = 5 × 5 × 29 = 5² × 29
Here the second prime factor 29 does not have a pair.
Hence 725 is not a perfect square number.

(ii) 190
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 8
190 = 2 × 5 × 19
Here the factors 2, 5 and 9 does not have pairs.
Hence 190 is not a perfect square number.

(iii) 841
841 = 29 × 29
Hence 841 is a perfect square

(vi) 1089
1089 = 3 × 3 × 11 × 11 = 33 × 33
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 9
Hence 1089 is a perfect square

Question 12.
Find the least number by which 1800 should be multiplied so that it becomes a perfect square. Also, find the square root of the perfect square thus obtained.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 10
We find 1800 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 2
= 2² × 3² × 5² × 2
Here the last factor 2 has no pair. So if we multiply 1800 by 2, then the number becomes a perfect square.
∴ 1800 × 2 = 3600 is the required perfect square number.
∴ 3600 = 1800 × 2
3600 = 2² × 3² × 5² × 2 × 2
3600 = 2² × 3² × 5² × 2²
= (2 × 3 × 5 × 2)²
\(\sqrt{3600}\) = \((\sqrt{2 × 3 × 5 × 2})^{2}\) = 2 × 3 × 5 × 2 = 60
∴ \(\sqrt{3600}\) = 60.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.1

Question 13.
Find the smallest number by which 10985 should be divided so that the quotient is a perfect square.
Solution:
We find 10985 = 5 × 13 × 13 × 13
= 5 × 13 × 13²
Here the prime factors 5 and 13 do not have pairs.
∴ We can divide 10985 by 65 (5 × 13) to get a perfect square
∴ When we divide 10985 by 65 we get quotient 169.
169 = 13 × 13
\(\sqrt{169}\) = 13
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 11

Question 14.
Is 2352 a perfect square? If not, find the smallest number by which 2352 must be multiplied so that the product is a perfect square. Find the square root of the new number.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 12
We find 2352 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7 × 7
2352 = 2² × 2² × 3 × 7²
Here the factor 3 has no pair.
∴ 2352 is not a perfect square.
We have to multiply 2352 by 3 so that the product is a perfect square.
Img 13
∴ 2352 × 3 = 2² × 2² × 7² × 3 × 3
7056 = 2² × 2² × 7² × 3²
7056 = (2 × 2 × 7 × 3)²
∴ \(\sqrt{7056}\) = \((\sqrt{2 × 2 × 7 × 3})^{2}\)
= 2 × 2 × 7 × 3 = 84
\(\sqrt{7056}\) = 84

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Ex 1.1

Question 15.
Find the least square number which is divisible by each of the numbers 8, 12 and 15.
Solution:
The least number divisible by each of the numbers 8, 12, 15 is their L.C.M
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 13
∴ LCM of 8, 12, 15 is (4 × 3 × 2 × 5) = 120
Resolving 120 into prime factors
We get 120 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5
Grouping into pairs of equal factors
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 1 Numbers 1.1 14
120 = (2 x 2) x 2 x 3 x 5
∴ The factors 2, 3 and 5 had no pairs.
Thus to make 120 a perfect square, we must multiply it by (2 x 3 x 5) = 30.
∴ The least square number divisible by 8,12 and 15 is 120 x 30 = 3600

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Students can Download English Lesson 1 Jack and the Beanstalk Questions and Answers, Summary, Activity, Notes, Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Textual Questions

A. True or false.

  1. The magic beans grew into a huge beanstalk.
  2. The beanstalk reached high into the sky in the evening.
  3. Everything is so big in the castle.
  4. The hen laid a perfect iron egg.
  5. Jack picked up the Giant’s hen.

Answer:

  1. True
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True

B. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The Giant smells the blood of an __________
  2. Jack asked his mom for an __________
  3. Jack chopped down the __________
  4. As soon as the giant was full, he fell fast __________

Answer:

  1. Englishman
  2. axe
  3. beanstalk
  4. asleep

C. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why was Jack’s mother angry?
Answer:
Jack’s mother was angry because she thought he was foolish in getting five magic beans for their cow.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 2.
Why was Jack surprised when reaching the sky?
Answer:
The wild beanstalk, that grew sky high and huge, surprised Jack

Question 3.
What did Jack find when he reached the top?
Answer:
Jack found a huge castle when he reached the top of the beanstalk.

Question 4.
What did Jack see in the castle?
Answer:
Jack saw a giant in the castle. Everything was so big in the castle.

Question 5.
What did the Giant eat for meal?
Answer:
The giant ate five sheep for his meal. He also had a golden egg from a hen.

Question 6.
Where did Jack hide when he saw the Giant?
Answer:
Jack hid himself in a cupboard.

Question 7.
What did Jack intend to take when the Giant asleep?
Answer:
Jack intended to take away the hen that laid a golden egg, when the giant was asleep.

Question 8.
What did the hen do when Jack picked it up?
Answer:
The hen squawked and tried to fly when jack picked it up.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 9.
What did Jack do when the Giant woke up?
Answer:
Jack hurried and climbed down the beanstalk as fast as he could, when the giant woke up.

Question 10.
Why did Jack ask for an axe?
Answer:
Jack asked for an axe to cut down the beanstalk, on which the giant was climbing down.

Jack and the Beanstalk Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct Synonyms for the Italicized words :

Question 1.
He was so excited to tell his mother about the old man.
(a) happy
(b) enthusiastic
(c) unhappy
(d) calm
Answer:
(b) enthusiastic

Question 2.
Mom they will make us rich! Trust me.
(a) believe
(b) obey
(c) society
(d) know
Answer:
(a) believe

Question 3.
Jack’s mother was very cross.
(a) happy
(b) sad
(c) angry
(d) dull
Answer:
(c) angry

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 4.
Whispering to himself.
(a) shouting
(b) yelling
(c) speaking
(d) muttering
Answer:
(d) muttering

Question 5.
Scared what is that noise?
(a) bold
(b) fearless
(c) calm
(d) afraid
Answer:
(d) afraid

Question 6.
It’s amazing.
(a) cool
(b) far
(c) wonderful
(d) unknown
Answer:
(c) wonderful

Question 7.
But the hen began to squawk.
(a) make a noise
(b) sit
(c) fly
(d) peck
Answer:
(a) make a noise

Question 8.
I have to chop this beanstalk,
(a) pluck
(b) pull
(c) push
(d) cut down
Answer:
(d) cut down

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 9.
The giant fell to the ground with a thud.
(a) softly
(b) harshly
(c) heairly
(d) lightly
Answer:
(c) heairly

Question 10.
Giant: Yelling I’ll get you!
(a) stillness
(c) heavy sound
(b) muteness
(d) secrecy
Answer:
(c) heavy sound

II. Choose the correct antonyms for the Italicized words.

Question 1.
Jack and his mother were very poor.
(a) penniless
(b) poverty
(c) good
(d) rich
Answer:
(d) rich

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 2.
He lived in a small cottage.
(a) little
(b) tiny
(c) few
(d) big
Answer:
(d) big

Question 3.
So, I think we have to sell the cow.
(a) give
(b) offer
(c) send
(d) buy
Answer:
(d) buy

Question 4.
Be careful, Jack!
(a) hold
(b) live
(c) protect
(d) careless
Answer:
(d) careless

Question 5.
Jack met a little old man.
(a) new
(b) aged
(c) poor
(d) young
Answer:
(d) young

Question 6.
He wanted to make his mother happy.
(a) cheerful
(b) safe
(c) unsafe
(d) un happy
Answer:
(d) un happy

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 7.
He was so existed to tell his mother.
(a) powerful
(b) calm
(c) short
(d) shockd
Answer:
(b) calm

Question 8.
What? you foolish boy!
(a) wise
(b) stupid
(c) careless
(d) play ful
Answer:
(a) wise

Question 9.
These beans are useless.
(a) fine
(b) great
(c) useful
(d) wall
Answer:
(c) useful

Question 10.
Jacks mother was very cross.
(a) fine
(b) pleasant
(c) rough
(d) angry
Answer:
(b) pleasant

III. Choose the right answer (MCQ) :

Question 1.
Jack and his mother had a _____
(a) horse
(b) cow
(c) dog
(d) cat
Answer:
(b) cow

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 2.
Jack saw an
(a) young
(b) rich
(c) poor
(d) old
Answer:
(d) old

Question 3.
Mother was on seeing the magic beans.
(a) happy
(b) cheerful
(c) sad
(d) angry
Answer:
(d) angry

Question 4.
The beans grew into a beanstalk.
(a) tiny
(b) long
(c) big
(d) huge
Answer:
(d) huge

Question 5.
On climbing the beanstalk Jack saw a
(a) hut
(b) house
(c) building
(d) castle
Answer:
(d) castle

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 6.
The giant ate sheep for a meal.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) six
(d) five
Answer:
(d) five

Question 7.
The giant had a hen that laid a egg
(a) silver
(b) normal
(c) golden
(d) iron
Answer:
(c) golden

Question 8.
Jack asked for an.
(a) knife
(b) scissors
(c) sword
(d) axe
Answer:
(d) axe

Question 9.
Jack hid in a to see the giant eat.
(a) beanstalk
(b) cupboard
(c) tree
(d) wall

Question 10.
During the the magic beans grew into a huge beanstalk.
(a) day
(b) noon
(c) evening
(d) night
Answer:
(d) night

IV. True or false.

  1. Jack sold the cow for a high price in the market.
  2. Mother was very happy to see the magic beans.
  3. Jack cut down the beanstalk.
  4. Jack and his mother had a goat.
  5. The giant ate four sheep for his meal.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. False
  3. True
  4. False
  5. False

V. Fill in the blanks.

  1. Jack and his mother were __________
  2. Jacks mother asked him to sell the __________
  3. The old man gave Jack __________ magic beans.
  4. Jack’s mother __________ the magic beans out of the window.
  5. Jack __________ the beanstalk when the giant climbed down.

Answer:

  1. poor
  2. cow
  3. five
  4. threw
  5. cut down

VI. Identify the character :

  1. “I would like to buy the cow from you”
  2. “Magic beans? Mmm”
  3. What? oh, you foolish boy!
  4. Wow! This beanstalk is huge!
  5. Fee, fi, fo, fum, I smell the blood of an Englishman.

Answer:

  1. Old man
  2. Jack
  3. Mother
  4. Jack
  5. giant

VII. Short Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
Why did Jack’s mother want to sell the cow?
Answer:
Jacks mother wanted to sell the cow because they were very poor and needed some money to live.

Question 2.
Whom did Jack see when he took cow to the market?
Answer:
Jack saw a little old man who offered five magic beans for his cow.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 3.
What did Jack’s mother do with the magic beans?
Answer:
Jack’s mother was very angry and threw the beans through the window.

Question 4.
What did the giant smell?
Answer:
The Giant smelt the blood of an Englishman.

Question 5.
What happened to the Giant when Jack cut down thfe beanstalk?
Answer:
The Giant, who climbed down the beanstalk to catch hold of Jack, fell down and died.

Question 6.
What did the hen do?
Answer:
The hen laid a golden egg everyday and Jack and his mother were not poor anymore.

Question 7.
Why were they called “Magic beans”?
Answer:
They were called “Magic beans” because they grew into a huge beanstalk over night. The beanstalk reached high into the sky.

VIII. Paragraph Questions and Answers :

Question 1.
What happened when Jack went to sell the cow in the market?
Answer:
When Jack went to sell the cow in the market, he met an old man on the way. The old man was willing to buy the cow. He offered five magic beans to Jack, in exchange for the cow. He told Jack that he would become rich with the magic beans. So, Jack got the five magic beans for his cow and returned home happily.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 2.
What happened to the magic beans?
Answer:
When Jack arrived at his home without any money, his mother was very angry at his foolishness. She threw away the five magic beans out of the window. During the night, the magic beans grew into a huge beanstalk. It reached high into the sky. Jack climbed on it. When he reached the top, he found a Giant was living in a huge castle.

Question 3.
What did the giant do? What happened to the giant at the end?
Answer:
Jack saw a giant in the huge castle. The giant ate five sheep. He had a hen which laid a golden egg every day. When the giant was asleep, Jack took the hen. The hen made a noise. The giant woke up and chased Jack. Jack climbed down the beanstalk quickly. He asked his mother for an axe. He cut down the beanstalk before the giant reached the ground. The giant fell to the ground and died. Jack and his mother lived happily ever after with the riches.

IX. Comprehension passage:

Read the passage and Answer the questions below.

Smelling human blood the giant woke up. Jack ran back to the beanstalk and climbed down quickly. When he reached the bottom he went to his mother to ask for an axe. Jack chopped the huge beanstalk on which the giant had also climbed down to catch him. When the beanstalk was chopped, the giant fell with a thud. His end came. Jack’s mother was surprised to see the giant. Jack took the hen home and it laid a golden egg everyday. Jack and his mother never saw poverty again.

Question 1.
What smell did the giant get?
Answer:
The giant smelt human blood.

Question 2.
What did Jack ask his mother for?
Answer:
Jack asked his mother for an axe.

Question 3.
What happened to the beanstalk?
Answer:
Jack cut down the beanstalk with an axe.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 4.
What happened to the giant?
Answer:
The giant who climbed down the beanstalk fell down writh a thud and died.

Question 5.
Hoe did Jack and his mother become rich?
Answer:
Jack took the hen home. It laid a golden egg everyday. Jack and his mother never saw – poverty again.

X. Rearrange the jumbled sentences :

Question A.
1. So Jack took the magic beans.
2. The old man offered five magic beans.
3. The mother asked Jack to sell the cow in the market. He and his mother were poor.
4. Once upon a time there was a boy named Jack.
Answer:
5. Once upon a time there was a boy named Jack.
4. He and his mother were poor.
3. The mother asked Jack to sell the cow in the market.
2. The old man offered five magic beans.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question B.
1. He saw a huge castle.
2. Jack climbed on the wild beanstalk.
3. Jacks mother was very angry.
4. During the night the beans grew into a wild beanstalk.
5. She threw the beans out of the window.
Answer:
3. Jack’s mother was very angry.
5. She threw the beans out of the window.
4. During the night the beans grew into a wild beanstalk.
2. Jack climbed on the wild beanstalk.
1. He saw a huge castle.

Grammar

Punctuation

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

If a sentence is not properly punctuated, the meaning will be changed.
For Example :

(a) “Let’s eat Grandpa!”
(b) “Let’s eat, Grandpa!”

(a) “A woman, without her man, is nothing
(b) “A woman: without her, man would be nothing”

(a) “I love baking my family and my friends”
(b) “I love baking, my family, and my friends”

(a) Kill him, not leave him
(b) Kill him not, leave him

A. Punctuate the following sentence.

(a) i like playing with my friends sandy sunny sameer.
Answer:
I like playing with my friends – Sandy, Sunny, Sameer

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

(b) we went through the smoky mountains, near shimla on our way to leh
Answer:
We went through the smoky mountains, near Shimla on our way to Leh

(c) my favourite soap is pears and my favourite toothpaste is pepsodent
Answer:
My favourite soap is Pears and my favourite toothpaste is Pepsodent

(d) friend priya speaks german and she is teaching me some words
Answer:
My friend Priya speaks German and she is teaching me some words

(e) he was honest sincere hard working
Answer:
He was honest, sincere, hard working;

(f) hindus muslims sikhs Christians live together in India
Answer:
Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, Christians live together in India

(g) long ago in a town in Switzerland there lived a famous man called william
Answer:
Long ago in a town in Switzerland there lived a famous man called William.

(h) akbar the greatest of the mughal emperors ruled wisely
Answer:
Akbar the greatest of the Mughal Emperors ruled wisely.

(i) tanya said to ilarahul is a nice guy
Answer:
Tanya said to Nila, “Rahul is a nice guy.”

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

B. Write the correct punctuation mark from above that best completes each sentence.
Example 1.
Congratulations_____You graduated with honors
Answer:
Congratulations! You graduated with honors!

Question 1.
Where is an exciting place to visit_____
Answer:
Where is an exciting place to visit?

Question 2.
Make sure to complete all your homework on time_____
Answer:
Make sure to complete all your homework on time.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 3.
Priya asked when are we going on a vacation _____
Answer:
Priya asked, “When are we going on a vacation?”

Question 4.
Terry Sam and Jeremy went to the movies together _____
Answer:
Terry, Sam and Jeremy went to the movies together.

Question 5.
Wow _____ What a wonderful event
Answer:
Wow! What a wonderful event!

Question 6.
I am so excited to see my family for Christmas _____
Answer:
I am so excited to see my family for Christmas!

Question 7.
what day of the week is your favorite _____
Answer:
What day of the week is your favorite?

Question 8.
You need to do your homework right after dinner _____
Answer:
You need to do your homework right after dinner.

Question 9.
Please take out the trash when you get home _____
Answer:
Please take out the trash when you get home.

Question 10.
My favorite team won the game _____
Answer:
My favorite team won the game.

Question 11.
What did you want to eat for lunch _____
Answer:
What did you want to eat for lunch?

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 12.
I had a great time at your party _____
Answer:
I had a great time at your party.

Question 13.
Do you know what time it is _____
Answer:
Will Do you know what time it is? .

Question 14.
How do we get to the amusement park _____
Answer:
How do we get to the amusement park?

Question 15.
I cant wait to go on summer vacation _____
Answer:
I cant wait to go on summer vacation.

Question 16.
What is your favorite food _____
Answer:
What is your favorite food?

Question 17.
You need to take out the trash when you get home _____
Answer:
You need to take out the trash when you get home.

Question 18.
Please hand me my backpack _____
Answer:
Please hand me my backpack.

Jack and the Beanstalk Grammar Additional

Punctuation

I. Punctuate the following sentences.

Question 1.
ramu asked his father can i go for a tour with my friends.
Answer:
Ramu asked his father, “Can I go for a tour with my friends?”

Question 2.
hari is an old man
Answer:
Hari is an old man

Question 3.
the women said how heavy the basket is
Answer:
The woman said ‘‘How heavy the basket is?”

Question 4.
Chennai bombay and kolkata are some of the major cities in india
Answer:
Chennai, Bombay and Kolkata are some of the major cities is India.

Question 5.
all indians are my brothers and sisters
Answer:
All Indians are my brothers and sisters

Question 6.
the doctor said how old are you
Answer:
The doctor said “How old are you?”

Question 7.
why are you late said the teacher
Answer:
“Why are you late?” said the teacher.

Question 8.
india has a great heritage
Answer:
India has a great heritage.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 9.
my uncle works for the world health organization
Answer:
My uncle works for the World Health Organization.

Question 10.
dont touch the teapot said my mother.
Answer:
“Don’t touch the teapot!” said my mother.

II. Write the correct punctuation mark from above that best completes each sentence.

Question 1.
i am not well today
Answer:
I am not well today.

Question 2.
What a surprise ______
Answer:
What a surprise!

Question 3.
How did you bring it _______
Answer:
How did you bring it?

Question 4.
Can you solve the problem ______
Answer:
Can you solve the problem?

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Question 5.
What a brilliant idea
Answer:
What a brilliant idea!

Question 6.
alas we lotst the match
Answer:
Alas! we lost the match!

Question 7.
How dare you call me a fool
Answer:
How dare you call me a fool!

Question 8.
How are you new
Answer:
How are you now?

Question 9.
My brother said the shops are closed
Answer:
My brother said, “The shops are closed

Question 10.
hurrah we have won the rolling up
Answer:
Hurrah! we have won the Rolling Cup!

Jack and the Beanstalk Summary

Section – I

At Home

Once upon a time, there was a boy named Jack, who lived with his mother. They were very poor. One day Jack’s mother asked him to sell their cow in the market. Jack took the cow for selling it. On the way, he met an old man who was willing to offer magic beans for his cow. He also told Jack that the magic beans would make him rich. So Jack took the magic beans home. His mother found him to be too foolish and threw the magic beans away through the window.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th English Solutions Term 3 Play Chapter 1 Jack and the Beanstalk

Section – II

The Ground & In The Castle

During the night, the beans grew into a very big beanstalk. Jack was surprised to see it sky high, he climbed to its top and found a huge castle and found everything to be big there. He realized that a giant there. He ate five sheep for a meal and had a hen that laid a golden egg everyday. Jack felt that he and his mother would become rich if they had the hen.

Section – III

In The Castle & At Home

Jack waited for the giant to fall asleep and quickly picked up the hen that laid golden eggs. But the hen squawked. The giant woke up. He smelled the blood of a human, he chased Jack. Jack ran back to the beanstalk and climbed down quickly. When he reached the bottom, he went to his mother to ask for an axe. Jack chopped the huge beanstalk on which the giant had also climbed to catch Jack. When the beanstalk fell the gaints end came, as he fell down. Mother was surprised to see the giant. Jack took the hen home and it laid a golden egg a day. This made Jack and his mother rich and happy.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The Judiciary

Students can Download Social Science Civics Term 3 Chapter 2 The Judiciary Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics Solutions Term 3 Chapter 2 The Judiciary

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics The Judiciary Textual Evaluation

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

I. Choose the best answer:

Question 1.
The highest and final judicial tribunal of India is-
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(c) Supreme Court

Question 2.
Judicial system provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between-
(a) Citizen
(b) Citizen and the government
(c) Two State governments
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 3.
Dispute between States of India comes to the Supreme Court under-
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Original jurisdiction

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 4.
Which of the following state/ Union territories have a common High Court?
(a) Punjab and Jammu Kashmir
(b) Assam and Bengal
(c) Panjab, Haryana and Chandigarh
(d) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
Answer:
(c) Panjab, Haryana and Chandigarh

Question 5.
The System of Public Interest Litigation has been introduced in India by-
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Political parties
(d) Constitutional amendments
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 6.
How many courts are there in apex level in India?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Ans:
(a) One

Question 7.
Supreme court is located at-
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) New Delhi
Answer:
(d) New Delhi

Question 8.
FIR means-
(a) First Information Report
(b) First information Result
(c) First Incident Report
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) First Information Report

Question 9.
The court that hear criminal cases are called-
(a) District court
(b) Sessions court
(c) Family court
(d) Revenue court
Answer:
(b) Sessions court

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

II. Fill in the Blanks:

  1. The ________High Court is the oldest High Court in India.
  2. The framers of the Constitution established ________and _______ judiciary in India.
  3. _______ a famous French philosopher propounded the idea of an independent judiciary.
  4. ________ deals with disputes over money, property and social matters.
  5. During ancient times, most of the Kings’ courts dispensed justice according to _______

Answer:

  1. Calcutta
  2. independent, impartial
  3. Montesquieu
  4. Civil Law
  5. Dharmal

III. Match the following:

  1. Supreme Court – social duties
  2. High Court – speedy justice
  3. Lok Adalat – highest court of appeal
  4. Sir Elijah Impey – highest court in the States
  5. Smiritis – chief justice

Answer:

  1. Supreme Court – highest court of appeal
  2. High Court – highest court in the States
  3. Lok Adalat – speedy justice
  4. Sir Elijah Impey – chief justice
  5. Smiritis – social duties

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IV. State True or False:

  1. The Supreme Court of India was inaugurated on 28th January 1951.
  2. During the Tughlaq period, the code of procedure was written in Arabic.
  3. The Regulating Act of 1773 made provision for the formation of Supreme Court.
  4. Sadar Diwani Adalat was a Criminal court of appeal.
  5. The Allahabad High Court is the largest court in India.
  6. The Constitution of India secures justice to all its citizen.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True

V. Choose the correct statement:

Question 1.
Consider the following statements.

(i) A law commission was setup by Macaulay.
(ii) It codified the Indian Laws.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

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Question 2.
Consider the following statements.

(i) An Indian Penal Code was prepared in 1860.
(ii) The Calcutta High Court was established in 1862.
(iii) The Government of India Act, 1935 created Federal Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii), (iii) only
(c) (i),(iii) only
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 3.
Which of the following statement is not true about India’s Supreme Court?
(i) The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of the land.
(ii) It was established by part V under Chapter IV of Indian Constitution.
(iii) Supreme court cannot transfer cases from one High court to another
(iv) Its decisions are binding on all courts
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Answer:
(c) iii

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Question 4.
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court is a Court of Record.
Reason (R): It maintains records of the court proceedings and its decisions are finding upon the lower courts.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong.
(b) Both A and R are Wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

Question 5.
Agree or disagree
(a) Every citizen of India can approach the Supreme court.
(b) Rich and powerful people control the judiciary system.
(c) Every citizen has a right to get justice through the courts.
(d) Politicians can not control over judges
Answer:
We agree with a, c, and d. Disagree with b

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VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Why do we need judicial system?
Answer:

  1. Judiciary plays an important role as an organ of the government.
  2. It administers justice, settles disputes, interprets laws, protects fundamental rights and acts as guardian of the Constitution.
  3. So we need a judiciary to be efficient in order to ensure proper justice.

Question 2.
What are the different levels of courts in India?
Answer:
The different levels of courts in India are

  1. Subordinate Courts.
  2. District Courts.
  3. High Court and
  4. Supreme Court

Question 3.
Differentiate Law and Judiciary.
Answer:
Law:
It is a system of rules imposed through a government or institution to govern people.

Judiciary:
In law, the Judiciary or Judicial system is the system of courts which administers Justice in the name of the State.

Question 4.
Write a note on Lok Adalat.
Answer:

  1. Lok Adalat was set up to provide speedy justice.
  2. It hears and settles the disputes in the language of the people in the public presence.
  3. A Lok Adalat is presided over by a retired judge along with a lawyer and a social worker.
  4. Cases are put forward without advocates.
  5. The first Lok Adalat was held on 1982 at Junagadh of Gujarat.

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Question 5.
What are the advantages of mobile courts?
Answer:

  1. Mobile courts will be of great relief to the rural people.
  2. It would create greater awareness about the judicial system among the rural masses, cut costs for them and render justice at their doorstep.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Write about the role of judiciary.
Answer:
Role of Judiciaiy can be classified as,
1. Dispute Resolution:
Role of Judiciary can be classified as, The Judicial system provides a mechanism for resolving disputes between Citizen, Citizens and the government, Two State governments,the Centre and the State governments

2. Judicial Review:
The Judicial has the power to declare a law unconstitutional if it believes that the law passed by the Parliament is violating the basic structure of the Constitution.

3. Upholding the Law and Enforcing Fundamental Rights:
Every citizen of India can approach the Supreme Court or High Court if they believe that their fundamental rights have been violated

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Question 2.
Differentiate Civil Law and Criminal Law.
Answer:
Civil Law:

  1. It deals with disputes over money property and social matters.
    Eg. Disputes relating to land, rent, marriage dispute etc.,
  2. A petition has to be filed before the relevant court by the affected parties.
  3. Sentences awarded in the form of money remuneration and as per the petitioner’s claim.

Criminal Law:

  1. It deals with conducts or acts that the law defines as offences.
    Eg. Theft, murder, women harassment etc.,
  2. It usually begins with lodging of an FIR (First Information Report) with police investigation after which a case is filed in the court.
  3. Punishment is awarded if proven guilty, the accused is sent to jail.

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Question 3.
Descrbe jurisdiction of Suppreme Court.
Answer:
1. Jurisdiction of Supreme Court:

  • The Supreme Court can hear dispute for the first time in that court only.
  • It is mainly concerned disputes between the Union and one or more states and between two or more states.

2. Appellate Jurisdiction:
It can hear appeals against the decisions made by the High Court on the granting of certificate by the High Court.

3. Advisory Jurisdiction: The Court can report to the President its opinion about a question of the public importance referred to it by the President.

4. Writs Jurisdiction:
The Writs are issued by the Supreme Court under Article 32 and by the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India.

5. Court of Record:
it maintains records of the court proceedings and its decisions are finding upon the lower courts.

6. Special Powers:
it supervises the functioning of the lower courts.

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VIII. Project and Activity:

Question 1.
Discuss: Is it necessary to have an independent judiciary? List two reasons.
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Question 2.
Organize your classroom for a lockup courtroom session. (Take a case with the help of the teacher)
Answer:
Activity to be done by the students themselves

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Social Science Civics The Judiciary Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Supreme Court administers ………….
(a) justice
(b) settles disputes
(c) protects fundamental rights
(d) all of the abovel
Answer:
(d) all of the above

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Question 2.
Fatawa – i – Alamgiri written in ………….
(a) 1670
(b) 1680
(c) 1660
(d) 1690
Answer:
(a) 1670

Question 3.
The East India Company established a Mayor’s Court in ………….
(a) Madras
(b) Bombay
(c) Calcutta
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Circuit Court was set up at ………….
(a) Calcutta
(b) Patna
(c) Dacca
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 5.
The cases dealing with land records are dealt with by ………….
(a) Sessions Court
(b) Panchayat Courts
(c) Revenue Courts
(d) LokAdalat
Answer:
(c) Revenue Courts

Question 6.
Fast Track courts were established in the year ………….
(a) 2000
(b) 1950
(c) 2010
(d) 1999
Answer:
(a) 2000Tele Law service is for the people in

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Question 7.
Tele Law service is for the people in ………. areas.
(a) industrial
(b) rural
(c) Urban
(d) Coastal
Answer:
(b) rural

Question 8.
In 2005 these courts were established ………….
(a) Mobile courts
(b) Family Courts
(c) E – courts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) E – courts

II. Fill In the blanks:

  1. In ancient period Dharmic laws governed not only the individual but also the ………….
  2. Amongst the Vajjis, there was a board of …………. Kulikas for the investigation of criminalcases.
  3. A under the British a supreme court was established in 1824 in ………….
  4. During the period of …………. four circuit courts were abolished.
  5. The founding fathers of India constitution accorded highest place to ………….
  6. Montesquieu was a …………. philosopher.
  7. District courts hear …………. at the district level.
  8. A Lok Adalat is presided over by a …………. along with a lawyer and a social worker.
  9. The first Lok Adalat was held on 1982 at …………. of Gujarat.
  10. The legal services authorities was passed in ………….
  11. The special power of the Supreme Court is to supervises the functioning of the ………….
  12. The Chief architect of the Indian constitution is …………..

Answer:

  1. Society
  2. eight
  3. Bombay
  4. William Bentinck
  5. Justice
  6. French
  7. civil cases
  8. retired judge
  9. Junagadh
  10. 1987
  11. lower courts
  12. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

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III. Match the following:

  1. Ancient India – (a) Murshidabad
  2. Fort William – (b) Law Commission
  3. Circuit Court – (c) Weaker Sections
  4. Macaulay – (d) Smiritis
  5. NALSA – (e) Calcutta

Answer:

  1. d
  2. e
  3. a
  4. b
  5. c

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IV. State True or False:

  1. Appeal proceeded from Gana Courts to Kula Courts
  2. A supreme Court was established in Madras in 1801
  3. Lord Cornwallis reorganised the civil and criminal judicial system.
  4. Supreme Court can not transfer judges of High Courts.
  5. The highest court of India is located in New Delhi.
  6. An effective judiciary should be independent as well as accountable.

Answer:

  1. False
  2. True
  3. True
  4. False
  5. True
  6. True

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V. Choose the correct Statement:

Question 1.
Consider the following Statements:

(i) A Supreme court was established for the first time at Fort Williams in Calcutta.
(ii) Sir Elijah Imphey was appointed its Chief Justice.

Which of the Statement/s given above is / are correct
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer:
(c) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 2.
Consider the following Statements:

(i) Family Courts specifically handle family law matters.
(ii) Mobile courts will be of great relief to the rural people.
(iii) The E-Court project was established in 2000 Which of the Statements given above is / are correct

(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (ii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (iii) only
Answer:
(b) (i) and (ii) only

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Question 3.
Which of the following statements is not true about different levels of courts in our country.

(i) Subordinate courts consider cases of civil and criminal nature.
(ii) District Courts can issue writs for restoring fundamental rights.
(iii) Supreme Court can transfer judges of High Court.
(iv) High Court can deal with cases within the jurisdiction of the state.

(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
Answer:
(b) (ii)

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Judiciary plays an important role as an organ of the government.
Reason (R): It administer justice, settles disputes, interprets laws protects fundamental rights.
(a) A is correct and R is wrong
(b) Both A and R are Wrong
(c) A is correct and R explains A
(d) A is correct and R does not explain A
Answer:
(c) A is correct and R explains A

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VI. Answer the following in one or two sentences:

Question 1.
Who was Montesquieu?
Answer:

  1. Montesquieu was the first political philosopher, who propounded the idea of an independent judiciary
  2. He was famous French philosopher.
  3. He believed in the theory of separation of powers of the three branches of the Government – Legislature, Executive and Judiciary.

Question 2.
What are Fast Track Court?
Answer:
Fast Track courts:
These courts were established in the year 2000 with an aim to clear the long pending Sessions and other lower judicial cases.

SamacheerKalvi.Guru

Question 3.
Explain the term Tele Law Initiative.
Answer:

  1. To provide legal aid and service to the people in rural areas, the Tele Law Initiative was launched by the Ministry of Law and Justice in collaboration with the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
  2. People can seek legal advice from the lawyers through video conferencing available at the common service centre on the ‘Tele Law’ Portal.

Question 4.
Mention the role of Family Court.
Answer:

  1. Family courts specifically handle family law matters.
  2. They are civil courts and are utilised for various family related claims such as Child custody, Divorce, Adoption, Juvenile issues etc.,

Quetion 5.
State the importance of E- Courts?
Answer:

  1. The E-Courts project was established in 2005.
  2. According to the project all the courts will get computerised.
  3. Judicial service centre is the part of e-court.
  4. The public as well as the advocates can ask directly the case status and next hearing dates free of cost.

Question 6.
What is NALSA?
Answer:

  1. The National Legal Service Authority has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker sections of the society.
  2. It also organise Lok Adalats for amicable settlement of disputes.

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Question 7.
Explain the term PIL.
Answer:

  1. Public Interest Litigation (PIL):
    PIL is a litigation filed in a court of law for the protection of public interest.
  2. The Supreme court introduced this šystem which allows a person to approach the court with his case.
  3. PIL can be filed for the following reasons such as violation of basic human rights, religious rights, pollution, and road safety.
  4. This could be done by a written letter stating the case. This concept is unique to the Indian Judiciary.

VII. Answer the following in detail:

Question 1.
Narrate the evolution of Indian Judiciary.
Answer:
1. Judiciary during ancient period:
During ancient times, the concept of justice was linked with religion. The king was regarded as the fountain head of Justice. Most of the Kings’ courts dispensed justice according to ‘dharma’, (righteousness and duty) a set of conventional laws, Dharmic laws governed not only the individual but also the society.

2. Judiciary during Medieval period:
The Tughlaq period saw the compilation of the code of civil procedure. It was called Fiqha-e-Feroze Shahi. The code prescribed details of the procedure and the law in several matters. It was written in Arabic and was translated into Persian.

3. Judiciary during Modern period:
(i) The Indian judicial system and laws we have today was formed by the British during the colonial rule in the country. The beginning of Indian codified common law is traced back to 1727 (Under the Charter of 1 726) when the Mayor ‘s court in Madras, Bombay and Calcutta were established by the East India Company.

(ii) Lord Cornwallis reorganised the civil and criminal judicial system. During tile period of William Bentinck four Circuit courts were abolished.

(iii) The Government of’ India Act 1935 created Federal Court.

Question 2.
Explain the Structure of Courts in India.
Answer:
There are three different levels of courts in our country.
1. Supreme Court of India:

  • Its decisions are binding on all courts.
  • Can transfer judges 6f High Courts.
  • Can move cases from any courts to itself.
  • Can transfer cases from one High Court to another.

2. High Court:

  • Can hear appeals from lower courts.
  • Can issue writs for restoring Fundamental Rights.
  • Can deal with cases within the jurisdiction of the State.
  • Exercises superintendence and control over courts below it.

3. District Court:

  • Deals with cases arising in the District.
  • Considers appeals on decisions given by lower courts.
  • Decides cases involving serious criminal offences.

4. Subordinate Courts:

  • Consider cases of civil and criminal nature.

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Question 3.
Write a note on

  1. District Court
  2. Sessions Court
  3. The Panchayat Courts
  4. The Revenue Courts.

Answer:

  1. District Courts – The Courts that hear civil cases at the district level are called District Courts.
  2. Sessions Court – The Courts that hear criminal cases are called the Sessions Court.
  3. The Panchayat Courts – The Panchayat Courts deal with Civil and Criminal cases at- the village level.
  4. The Revenue courts – The Revenue courts deal with the cases of land records. It also assesses and collects land revenue from the land holders.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2

Students can Download Maths Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer

Question (i)
Common prime factors of 30 and 250 are
(a) 2 x 5
(b) 3 x 5
(c) 2 x 3 x 5
(d) 5 x 5
Answer:
(a) 2 x 5
Hint:
Prime factors of 30 are 2 x 3 x 5
Prime factors of 250 are 5 x 5 x 5 x 2
∴ Common prime factors are 2 x 5

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2

Question (ii)
Common prime factors of 36, 60 and 72 are
(a) 2 x 2
(b) 2 x 3
(c) 3 x 3
(d) 3 x 2 x 2
Answer:
(d) 3 x 2 x 2
Hint:
Prime factors of 36 are 2 x 2 x 3 x 3
Prime factors of 60 are 2 x 2 x 3 x 5
Prime factors of 72 are 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 3
∴ Common prime factors are 2 x 2 x 3

Question (iii)
Two numbers are said to be co-prime numbers if their HCF is –
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 0
(d) 1
Answer:
(d) 1

Question 2.
Using repeated division method find HCF of the following:

  1. 455 and 26
  2. 392 and 256
  3. 6765 and 610
  4. 184, 230 and 276

1. 455 and 26 divisor
Solution:

  • Step 1: The larger number should be dividend = 455 & smaller number should be divisor = 26
  • Step 2: After 1st division, the remainder becomes new divisor & the previous divisor
  • becomes next dividend.
  • Step 3: This is done till remainder is zero.
  • Step 4: The last divisor is the HCF

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 1
Answer:
The HCF is 13.

2. 392 and 256
256 is smaller, so it is the 1st divisor
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 2
∴ HCF = 8

3. 6765 and 610
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 3
∴ HCF = 5

4. 184, 230 and 276
First let us take 184 & 230
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 4
∴ 46 is the Hi of 184, and 230.
Now the HCF of the first two numbers is the dividend for the third number.
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 5
Answer:
HCF of 184, 230 & 276 is 46

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2

Question 3.
Using repeated subtracting method find HCF of the following:

  1. 42 and 70
  2. 36 and 80
  3. 280 and 420
  4. 1014 and 654

1. 42 and 70
Solution:
Let number be m & n
m > n
We do m – n & the result of subtraction becomes new ‘m’. if m becomes less than n, we do n – m and then assign the result as n. We should do this till m = n. When m = n then ‘m’ is the HCF.
42 and 70 now m = 70, n = 42
70 – 42 = 28, now m = 42, n = 28
42 – 28 = 14, now m = 28, n = 14
28 – 14= 14, now m = 14, n = 14
we stop here as m = n
∴ HCF of 42 & 70 is 14

2. 36 and 80
Solution:
36 and 80 m = 80, n = 36
80 – 36 = 44, now n = 44, m = 36
Since n > m, we should do n m
44 – 36 = 8, now n = 8, m = 36
36 – 8 = 28
Similarly, processing, proceeding, we do repeated subtraction
till m = n
28 – 8 = 20
20 – 8 = 12
12 – 8 = 4
8 – 4 = 4 now m = n = 4
∴ HCF is 4

3. 280 and 420
Solution:
Let m = 420, n = 280
m – n = 420 – 280 = 140
now m = 280, n = 140
m – n = 280 – 140 = 140
now m = n = 140
∴ HCF is 140

4. 1014 and 654
Solution:
Let m = 1014, n = 654
m – n = 1014 – 654 = 360
now m = 654, n = 360
m – n = 654 – 360 = 294
now m = 360, n = 294
m – n = 360 – 294 = 66
now m = 294, n = 66
m – n = 294 – 66 = 228
now m = 66, n = 228
n – m = 228 – 66 = 162
now m = 162, n = 66
∴ m – n = 162 – 66 = 96
n – m = 96 – 66 = 30
Similarly 66 – 30 = 36
36 – 30 = 6
30 – 6 = 24
24 – 6 = 18
18 – 6 = 12
12 – 6 = 6
now m = n
∴ HCF of 1014 and 654 is 6

Question 4.
Do the given problems in repeated subtraction method
1. 56 and 12
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 6
2. 320,120 and 95
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 7
1. 56 and 12
Solution:
56 & 12
Let n = 56 & n = 12
m – n = 56 – 12 = 44
now m = 44, n = 12
m – n = 44 – 12 = 32
m – n = 32 – 12 = 20
m – n = 20 – 12 = 8
n – m = 12 = 8 = 4
m – n = 8 – 44. now m = n
HCF of 56 & 12 is 4

2. 320, 120 and 95
Let us take 320 & 120 first m = 320, n = 120
m – n = 320 – 120 = 200
m = 200, n = 120
∴ m – n = 200 – 120 = 80
120 – 80 = 40
80 – 40 = 40
∴ m = w = 40 → HCF of 320, 120
Now let us find HCF of 40 & 95
m = 95, n = 40
∴ m – n = 95 – 40 = 55
55 – 40 = 15
40 – 15 = 25
25 – 15 = 10
15 – 10 = 5
HCF of 40 & 95 is 5 10 – 5 = 5
HCF of 320, 120 & 95 is 5

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2

Question 5.
On a school trip, 56 girls and 98 boys went to Kanyakumari. They were divided into as many groups as possible so that there were equal numbers of girls and boys in each group. Find the largest group possible? (To find the HCF using repeated division method)
Solution:
56 girls & 98 boys. Now, we need to find HCF of 56 & 98
Using repeated division method. So, we first divide. 98 by 56
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 4 Information Processing Ex 4.2 8
Answer:
14.

Question 6.
Kalai wants to cut identical squares as big as she can, from a piece of paper measuring 168 mm and by 196 mm. What is the length of the side of the biggest square? (To find HCF using repeated subtraction method)
Solution:
Sides are 168 & 196
To find HCF of 168 & 196, we are to use repeated subtraction method.
m = 196, n = 168
m – n = 196 -168 = 28 now n = 28, m = 168
m – n = 168 – 28 = 140 now m = 140, n = = 28
m – n = 140 – 28 = 112 now m = 112, n = 28
m – n = 112 -28 = 84 now m = 84, n = 28
m – n = 84 – 28 = = 56 now m = 56, n = 28
m – n = 56 – 28 = 28
∴ HCF is 28
∴ Length of biggest square is 28

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Students can Download Maths Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3 Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Question I.
Construct the following trapeziums with the given measures and also find their area.

Question 1.
AIMS with \(\overline { AI } \) ∥ \(\overline { SM } \), AI = 6 cm, IM = 5 cm, AM = 9 cm and MS 6.5 cm.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 1
Given
AI = 6cm
IM = 5cm
AM = 9cm, and \(\overline { AI } \) ∥ \(\overline { SM } \)
MS = 6.5 cm
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 2
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment AI = 6cm.
  2. With A and I as centres, draw arcs of radii 9 cm and 5 cm respectively and let them cut at M
  3. Join AM and IM.
  4. Draw MX parallel to AI
  5. With M as centre, draw an arc of radius 6.5 cm cutting MX at S.
  6. Join AS AIMS is the required trapezium.

Calculation of Area:
Area of the trapezium AIMS = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq.units
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 4.6 x (6 + 6.5) = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 4.6 x 12.5
= 28.75 Sq.cm

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Question 2.
BIKE with \(\overline { BI } \) ∥ \(\overline { EK } \), BI = 4 cm, IK = 3.5 cm, BK = 6 cm and BE = 3.5 cm
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 3
Given:
In the trapezium BIKE,
BI = 4 cm
IK = 3.5 cm
BK = 6 cm
BE = 3.5 cm and \(\overline { BI } \) ∥ \(\overline { EK } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 4
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment BI = 4 cm.
  2. With B and I as centres, draw arcs of radii 6 cm and 3.5 cm respectively and let them cut at K.
  3. Join BK and IK
  4. Draw KX parallel to BI
  5. With B as centre, draw an arc of radius 3.5 cm.cutting KX at E
  6. Join BE. BIKE is the required trapezium.

Calculation of area:
Area of the trapezium BIKE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq. units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 3.5 x (4 + 4.2)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 3.5 x 8.2 = 14.35 sq.cm

Question 3.
CUTE with \(\overline { CD } \) ∥ \(\overline { ET } \), CU = 7 cm, ∠UCE = 80°, CE = 6 cm and TE = 5 cm.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 5
Given:
In the trapezium CUTE,
CU = 7 cm, ∠UCE = 80°,
CE = 6 cm, TE = 5 cm and \(\overline { CD } \) ∥ \(\overline { ET } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 6
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment CU = 7 cm.
  2. Construct an angle ∠UCE = 80° at C
  3. With C as centre, draw an arc of radius 6 cm cutting CY at E
  4. Draw EX parallel to CU
  5. With E as centre, draw an arc of radius 5 cm cutting EX at T
  6. 6. Join UT. CUTE is the required trapezium.

Calculation of area:
Area of the trapezium CUTE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq. units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.9 x (7 + 5) sq. units
= 35.4 sq.cm –

Question 4.
DUTY with \(\overline { DU } \) ∥ \(\overline { YT } \), DU = 8 cm, ∠DUT = 60°, UT = 6 cm and TY = 5 cm.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 7
Given:
In the trapezium DUTY
DU = 8 cm, ∠DUT = 60°,
UT = 6 cm, TY = 5 cm and \(\overline { DU } \) ∥ \(\overline { YT } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 8
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment DU = 8 cm.
  2. Construct an angle ∠DUT = 60° at U
  3. With U as centre, draw an arc of radius 6 cm cutting UA at T.
  4. Draw TX parallel to DU
  5. With T as centre, draw an arc of radius 5 cm cutting TX at Y
  6. Join DE. DUTY is the required trapezium.

Calculation of area:
Area of the trapezium DUT Y = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq. units= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.2 x (8 + 5) sq. units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.2 x 13
= 33.8 sq.cm ,

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Question 5.
ARMY with \(\overline { AR } \) ∥ \(\overline { YM } \), AR = 7 cm, RM = 6.5 cm ∠RAY = 100° and ∠ARM = 60° 5
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 9
Given:
In the trapezium ARMY
AR = 7 cm, RM = 6.5 cm,
∠RAY = 100° and ARM = 60°, \(\overline { AR } \) ∥ \(\overline { YM } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 10
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment AR = 7 cm.
  2. Construct an angle ∠RAX = 100° at A
  3. Construct an angle ∠ARN = 60° at R
  4. With R as centre, draw an arc of radius 6.5 cm cutting RN at M
  5. Draw MY parallel to AR
  6. ARMY is the required trapezium.

Calculation of area:
Area of the trapezium ARMY = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq. units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.6 x (7 + 4.8) sq. units
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.6 x 11.8 = 33.04 sq.cm

Question 6.
BELT with \(\overline { BE } \) ∥ \(\overline { TL } \), BT = 7 cm ∠EBT = 85° and ∠BEL = 110°
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 11
Given:
In the trapezium BELT
BE = 10 cm, BT = 7cm,
∠EBT = 85°, ∠BEL = 110° and \(\overline { BE } \) ∥ \(\overline { TL } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 12
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment BE = 10 cm.
  2. Construct two angles ∠TBE = 85° and ∠BEL =110° respectively at the points B and E.
  3. With B as centre, draw an arc of radius 7 cm cutting BX at T.
  4. Draw TL ∥ BE
  5. BELT is the required trapezium

Question 7.
CITY with \(\overline { CI } \) ∥ \(\overline { YT } \) Cl = 7 cm, IT = 5.5 cm, TY = 4 cm and YC = 6 cm.
Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 13
Given:
In the trapezium CITY,
Cl = 7 cm
IT = 5.5 cm
TY = 4 cm
YC = 6 cm, and \(\overline { CI } \) ∥ \(\overline { YT } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 14
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment Cl = 7 cm.
  2. Mark a point D on Cl such that CD = 4cm
  3. With D and I as centres, draw arcs of radii 6 cm and 5.5 cm respectively. Let them cut at T. Join DT and IT.
  4. With C as centre, draw an arc of radius 6 cm.
  5. Draw TY parallel to CL Let the line cut the previous arc at Y.
  6. Join CY. CITY is the required trapezium.

Calculation of area:
Area of the trapezium CITY = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq. units
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.5 x (7 + 4) sq. units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 5.5 x 11
= 30.25 sq.cm

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3 Geometry Ex 3.3

Question 8.
DICE with \(\overline { DI } \) ∥ \(\overline { EC } \), DI = 6 cm, IC = ED = 5 cm and CE = 3 cm. Solution:
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 15
Given:
In the trapezium DICE,
DI = 6 cm
IC = ED = 5 cm
CE = 3 cm and \(\overline { DI } \) ∥ \(\overline { EC } \)
Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 2 Chapter 3.3 111
Construction:
Steps:

  1. Draw a line segment DI = 6 cm.
  2. Mark a point M on DI such that DM = 3cm
  3. With D and I as centres, draw arcs of radii 5 cm each Let them cut at C. Join MC and IC.
  4. Draw CX parallel to DI
  5. With D as centre, draw an arc of radius 5 cm. Let it cut CX at E
  6. Join DE. DICE is the required trapezium.

Calculation of area:
Area of the trapezium DICE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x h x (a + b) sq. units = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 3.8 x (6 + 3) sq. units
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) x 3.8 x 9 = 17.1 sq. cm

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions

Students can Download Maths Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions

Question 1.
Which one is the best buy of the following purchases. A pack of 5 soaps for ₹ 180 or 4 soaps for ₹ 128.
Solution:
From the pack, Cost of 5 soaps = ₹ 180
∴ Cost of 1 soap = \(\frac { 180 }{ 5 } \) = ₹ 36.
Also Cost of 4 soaps = ₹ 128
∴ Cost of 1 soap = \(\frac { 128 }{ 4 } \) = ₹ 32.
∴ Buying the pack of 5 is the best buy.

Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Information Processing Samacheer Kalvi 8th Maths Solutions Term 3 Chapter 5 Information Processing Additional Questions