Prasanna

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.1

Exercise 3.1 Class 10 Maths Samacheer Question 1.
Solve the following system of linear equations in three variables
(i) x + y + z = 5; 2x – y + z = 9; x – 2y + 3z = 16
(ii) \(\frac { 1 }{ x } \) – \(\frac { 2 }{ y } \) + 4 = 0; \(\frac { 1 }{ y } \) – \(\frac { 1 }{ z } \) + 1 = 0; \(\frac { 2 }{ z } \) + \(\frac { 3 }{ x } \) = 14
(iii) x + 20 = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) + 10 = 2z + 5 = 110 – (y + z)
Solutions:
(i) x + y + z = 5 ………….. (1)
2x – y + z = 9 …………. (2)
x – 2y + 3z = 16 …………. (3)

Substitute z = 4 in (4)
3x + 2(4) = 14
3x + 8 = 14
3x = 6
x = 2
Substitute x = 2, z = 4 in (1)
2 + y + 4 = 5 ⇒ y = -1
x = 2, y = -1, z = 4

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solution Book Pdf Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

\(\frac{1}{y}\) = b
\(\frac{1}{z}\) = c in (1), (2) & (3)
a – 2b + 4 = 0 ⇒ a – 2b = -4 …………. (1)
b – c + 1 = 0 ⇒ b – c = -1 ……….. (2)
2c + 3a = 14 ⇒ 2c + 3a = 14 …………. (3)

(iii) x + 20 = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) + 10 = 2z + 5 = 110 – (y + z)
x = \(\frac { 3y }{ 2 } \) – 10 …………. (1)
2z + 5 = 110 – (y + z)
2z = 105 – y – z
y = 105 – 3z ………….. (2)
Substitute (2) in (1), x = \(\frac { 315 }{ 2 } \) – \(\frac { 9z }{ 2 } \) – 10
= 2z + 5 – 20
∴ 315 – 9z – 20 = 4z – 30
13 z = 315 – 20 + 30
= 325
z = \(\frac { 325 }{ 13 } \) = 25
x + 20 = 2z + 5
x + 20 = 50 + 5
x = 35
Substitute z = 25 in (2)
y = 105 – 3z = 105 – 75 = 30
y = 30
x = 35, y = 30, z = 25
The system has unique solutions.

10th Maths Exercise 3.1 Question 2.
Discuss the nature of solutions of the following system of equations
(i) x + 2y – z = 6 ; -3x – 2y + 5z = -12 ; x – 2z = 3
(ii) 2y + z = 3 (-x + 1); -x + 3y -z = -4 3x + 2y + z = – \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
(iii) \(\frac { y+z }{ 4 } \) = \(\frac { z+x }{ 3 } \) = \(\frac { x+y }{ 2 } \); x + y + z = 27
Solution:
(i) x + 2y – z = 6 …………. (1)
-3x – 2y + 5z = -12 ……… (2)
x – 2z = 3 …………… (3)

We see that the system has an infinite number of solutions.
(ii) 2y + z = 3(-x + 1);
-x + 3y – z = -4;
3x + 2y + z = –\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \)
2y + z + 3x = 3 ⇒ 3x + 2y + z = 3 ………….. (1)
-x + 3y – z = -4 …………. (2)
3x + 2y + z = –\(\frac { 1 }{ 2 } \) ………………. (3)


This is a contradiction. This means the system is inconsistent and has no solutions.

Sub. x = 3 in (4) ⇒ 5(3) – z = 0
15 – z = 0
-z = -15
z = 15
Sub, x = 3, z = 15 in (3)
x + y + z = 27
3 + y + 15 = 27
y = 27 – 18 = 9
x = 3, y = 9, z = 15
∴ The system has unique solutions.

Ex 3.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 3.
Vani, her father and her grand father have an average age of 53. One-half of her grand father’s age plus one-third of her father’s age plus one fourth of Vani’s age is 65. Four years ago if Vani’s grandfather was four times as old as Vani then how old are they all now?
Solution:
Let Vani’s age be x
Let Vani’s father’s age be y
Let Vani’s grand father’s age be z.

Sub, z = 84 in (3), we get
4x – 84 = 12
4x = 96
x = 24
Sub, x = 24, z = 84 in (1) we get
24 + y + 84 = 159
y = 159 – 108
= 51
∴ Vani’s age = 24 years
Her father’s age =51 years
Her grand father’s age = 84 years.

10th Maths Exercise 3.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
The sum of the digits of a three-digit number is 11. If the digits are reversed, the new number is 46 more than five times the former number. If the hundreds digit plus twice the tens digit is equal to the units digit, then find the original three digit number?
Solution:
Let the number be 100x + 10y + z.
Reversed number be 100z + 10y + x.
x + y + z = 11 …………… (1)
100z + 10y + x = 5(100x + 10y + z) + 46
100z + 10y + x = 500x + 50y + 5z + 46
499x + 40y – 95z -46 ………….. (2)
x + 2y = z
x + 2y – z = 0 ……………. (3)

10th Maths Algebra Exercise 3.1 Solutions Question 5.
There are 12 pieces of five, ten and twenty rupee currencies whose total value is ₹105. When first 2 sorts are interchanged in their numbers its value will be increased by ₹20. Find the number of currencies in each sort.
Solution:
Let x, y and z be number of currency pieces of 5,10,20 rupees
x + y + z = 12 ………. (1)
5x + 10y + 20z = 105 ………… (2)
10x + 5y + 20z = 125 …………. (3)

Sub, z = 2 in (5), we get
15y + 20 × 2 = 85
15y = 45
y = 3
Sub; y = 3, z = 2 in (1)
x + y + z = 12
x = 7
∴ The solutions are
the number of ₹ 5 are 7
the number of ₹ 10 are 3
the number of ₹ 20 are 2

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science History Solutions Chapter 2 Ancient Civilisations

Ancient Civilisations Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

9th Social Guide Question 1.
The earliest signs to denote words through pictures ……………
(a) Logographic
(b) Pictographic
(c) Ideographic
(d) Stratigraphic
Answer:
(b) Pictographic

Ancient Civilizations 9th Class Question 2.
The preservation process of dead body in ancient Egypt ……………
(a) Sarcophagus
(b) Hyksos
(c) Mummification
(d) Polytheism
Answer:
(c) Mummification

Ancient Civilizations 9th Class Question 3.
The Sumerian system of writing : ……………
(a) Pictographic
(b) Hieroglyphic
(c) Sonogram
(d) Cuneiform
Answer:
(b) Hieroglyphic

9 Social Guide Question 4.
The Harappans did not have the knowledge of ……………
(a) Gold and Elephant
(b) Horse and Iron
(c) Sheep and Silver
(d) Ox and Platinum
Answer:
(d) Ox and Platinum

9th Social Science Guide Question 5.
The Bronze image suggestive of the use of lost-wax process known to the Indus people.
(a) Jar
(b) Priest king
(c) Dancing girl
(d) Bird
Answer:
(c) Dancing girl

Ancient Civilizations Questions And Answers Question 6.
(i) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged to the Akkadians.
(ii) The Chinese developed the Hieroglyphic system.
(iii) The Euphrates and Tigris drain into the Mannar Gulf.
(iv) Hammurabi, the king of Babylon was a great law maker. .
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (i) and (ii) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is correct
Answer:
(d) (iv) is correct

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Book Answers Question 7.
(i) Yangtze River is known as Sorrow of China.
(ii) Wu-Ti constructed the Great Wall of China.
(iii) Chinese invented gun powder.
(iv) According to traditions Mfencius was the founder of Taoism.
(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iii) and (iv) are correct
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Samacheer Kalvi Guru 9th Social Science Question 8.
What is the correct chronological order of four civilisations of Mesopotamia?
(a) Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Babylonians
(b) Babylonians – Sumerians – Assyrians – Akkadians
(c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians – Assyrians
(d) Babylonians – Assyrians – Akkadians – Sumerians
Answer:
(c) Sumerians – Akkadians – Babylonians – Assyrians

9th Social Science Guide Pdf Download Question 9.
Assertion (A): Assyrians of Mesopotamian civilisation were contemporaries of Indus civilisation.
Reason (R): The Documents of an Assyrian ruler refer to the ships from Meluha.
(a) A and R are correct and A explains R
(b) A and R are correct but A doesn’t explain R
(c) A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) Both A and R are incorrect
Answer:
(d) Both A and R are incorrect

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. ……………. is a massive lime stone image of a lion with a human head.
2. The early form of writing of the Egyptians is known as ……………
3. ……………. specifies the Laws related to various crimes in ancient Babylonia.
4. …………… was the master archive keeper of Chou state, according to traditions.
5. The …………… figurines and paintings on the pottery from the sites suggest the artistic skills of the Harappans.
Answers:
1. The Great Sphinx of Ghiza
2. Hieroglyphic
3. Hammurabi code
4. Lao Tze
5. terracotta

III. Find out the correct statement.

Social Guide For Class 9 Question 1.
(a) The Great Bath at Harappa is well-built with several adjacent rooms.
(b) The cuneiform inscriptions relate to the epic of Gilgamesh.
(c) The terracotta figurines and dancing girl made of copper suggest the artistic skills of Egyptians.
(d) The Mesopotamians devised a solar calendar system.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

9th Standard Social Guide Question 2.
(a) Amon was considered the king of god in ancient Egypt.
(b) The fortified Harappan city had the temples.
(c) The great sphinx is a pyramid-shaped monument found in ancient Mesopotamia.
(d) The invention of the potter’s wheel is Credited to the Egyptians.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (a)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following briefly.

9th Std Social Science Guide Pdf Question 1.
The Egyptians excelled in art and architecture. Illustrate.
Answer:

1. The Egyptians excelled in art and architecture. Their writing is also a form of art.
2. Numerous sculptures, painting and carvings attest to the artistic skills of Egyptians.
3. The Pyramids are massive monuments, built as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs.
4. The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head.

9th Standard Social Science Guide Question 2.
State the salient features of the Ziggurats.
Answer:

1. Ziggurats were pyramid – shaped monuments found in the ancient Mesopotamia (Modem Iraq).
2. One of the most famous Ziggurats of the time is the one in the city of Ur.
3. The Ziggurats were at the city centre on a platform and appeared like steep pyramids with staircases leading to the top.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Guide Free Download Pdf Question 3.
Hammurabi Code is an important legal document. Explain.
Answer:

1. Hammurabi Code is an important legal document that specifies the laws related to various crimes.
2. It has 282 provisions specifying cases related to family rights, trade, slavery, taxes and wages. ‘
3. It is carved on a stone, which portrays Hammurabi as receiving the code from the Sun god Shamash.
4. It was a compilation of old laws based on retributive principles. .
5. The ‘eye for eye’ and ‘tooth for tooth’ form of justice is used in the Hammurabi Code.

Indus Valley Civilization Samacheer Kalvi Question 4.
Write a note on the Great Wall of China.
Answer:

• The Great Wall of China, one of the wonders of the world, was a massive effort undertaken for the protection of China from the Mongols.
• In 220 BCE, under Qin Shi Huang, earlier fortifications were connected by walls as a form of defence against invasions.
• It was built from third century BCE until 17th century CE.
• It ran for over 20,000 kilometres covering the hills and plains, from the border of Korea in the east to the Ordos Desert in the west.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

1. Early Civilizations:
Social Science Class 9 Guide Question 1.
What is meant by civilization?
Answer:
(a) Civilisation is seen as an advanced, organised way of life.
(b) It instilled a way of life that could be considered as an adaptation to particular environmental and cultural contents.

Social 9th Guide Question 2.
Name the important early Civilizations.
Answer:
The Egyptian, Mesopotamian, the Chinese and the Indus were the important Civilisations.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Pdf Question 3.
What supported the livelihood of a large number of people?
Answer:
The surplus food production by the farmers in the fertile regions supported the livelihood of. a large number of people.

Samacheer Kalvi 9th Social Science Book Answers Question 4.
What happened when civilization began to take shape?
Answer:
As civilizations began to take shape, huge buildings were built, the art of writing developed and science and technology contributed to the betterment of society.

2. Features of Egyptian Civilization:
Question 1.
Who built the pyramids and why?
Answer:
The pyramids are massive monuments built by Egyptians as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs. The Great Pyramids near Cairo are known as the Gizza Pyramids.

Question 2.
What is the process of mummification?
Answer:
(a) The Egyptians had the tradition of preserving the dead bodies using Natron salt;, a combination of sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate.
(b) The preservation process is called mummification.
(c) After 40 days when the salt absorbed all the moisture, the body was filled with sawdust and wrapped in strips of linen clothes and covered with fabric. The body was stored in a stone coffin called sarcophagus.

Question 3.
What is the belief system of ancient Egyptians?
Answer:
(a) The Egyptians believed in life after death.
(b) Egyptian practiced polytheism. They worshipped many Gods.

Question 4.
What is the importance of great sphinx?
Answer:
The Great sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head.
It is dated to the time of Pharaoh Khaffe. It is one of the largest sculptures of the world and measures seventy three metres in length and twenty metres in height.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
Define the terms Hieroglyphics and Cuneiform with their main features.
Answer:
Hieroglyphics: Egyptians are well known for their writing system. Their form of writing is known as hieroglyphic. Hieroglyphic was used in the inscriptions on seals and other objects. The heretic, an another form of writing, was used for common purposes. This form of writing used a pictogram-based system. It was developed around 3000 BCE and many texts and books were written using this script.

The Egyptian writing system was deciphered by the French scholar, Francois Champollion (1822 CE). He used the Rosetta stone, a trilingual inscription, for deciphering the script. This inscription, which was written in Hieroglyphic, Demotic and Greek,- was taken to France by Napoleon and from there it was taken to England. Now this inscription is on display in the British Museum London.

Cuneiform: Cuneiform is the Sumerian writing system. The shape of the letter is in the form of wedge and hence it is called cuneiform. Evolving around 3000 BCE, it is one of the earliest scripts of the world. The epic of Gilgamesh was written in this script. They used this script for commercial transactions and writing letters and stories. The clay tablets contain loads of information on the Sumerian civilization.

Question 2.
To what extent is the Chinese influence reflected in the fields of philosophy and literature.
Answer:
(i) Chinese poets and philosophers such as Lao Tze, Confucius, Mencius, Mo Ti (Mot Zu) and Tao Chien (365-427 CE) contributed to the development of Chinese civilization. Sun-Tzu, a military strategist, wrote the work called Art of War.

(ii) The Spring and Autumn Annals is the official chronicle of the state at the time. The Yellow Emperor’s Canon of Medicine is considered China’s earliest written book on medicine. It was codified during the time of Han Dynasty.

(iii) Lao Tze (c. 604-521 BCE) was the master archive keeper of Chou state. He was the founder of Taoism. He argued that desire is the root cause of all evils.

(iv) Confucius (551 —497 BCE) was famous among the Chinese philosophers. He was a political reformer. His name means Kung the master.

(v) He insisted on cultivation of one’s own personal life. He said, “If personal life is cultivated, family life is regulated; and once family life is regulated, national life is regulated.

(vi) Mencius (372-289 BCE) was another well-known Chinese philosopher. He travelled throughout China and offered his counsel to the rulers.

Student Activities

Question 1.
Mark the areas of Bronze Age civilization on the world map.
Answer:
The Bronze Age period: 3300 – 1200 B.C.
The location: China
(i) The Congshan people of China lived from around 300 B.C. to 2400 B.C. in China
(ii) Around 2300 B.C. in Europe.
The teacher can help the students to locate the place on the world map.

Question 2.
Prepare a chart on the pyramids and the mummies.
Answer:
Prepare a chart on the Pyramids and the Mummies with guidelines from the Textbook and the Internet. Students can be divided into groups & prepare the charts on the Pyramids and Mummies.

Question 3.
Collect the pictures of the seals and the pottery of Indus people.
Answer:
Download the pictures & collect them.
Assignment with teacher’s guidance
(i) Prepare a hand out comparing the ancient world civilizations.
Reference: Textbook & Internet
(ii) Prepare a scrap book collecting pictures on Indus civilization from website.
Students can collect pictures on Indus Civilization and paste it in their scrap book.

Ancient Civilisations Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………… times were mostly egalitarian in nature.
(a) Mesolithic
(b) Neolithic
(c) Palaeolithic
(d) Iron Age
Answer:
(a) Mesolithic

Question 2.
……………… became intimately connected with the Sangam Age Tamitagam by the Sea route.
(a) Romans
(b) Persians
(c) Egyptians
(d) Greeks
Answer:
(c) Egyptians

Question 3.
…………… were the contemporaries of the people of Indus and Egyptian civilisation.
(a) The Egyptians
(b) The Sumerians
(c) The Romans
(d) The Indus people
Answer:
(b) The Sumerians

Question 4.
……………. did not give much attention to the life after death.
(a) The Sumerians
(b) The Babylonians
(c) The Egyptians
(d) The Chinese
Answer:
(a) The Sumerians

Question 5.
The yellow river is known as the sorrow of …………
(a) Egypt
(b) Rome
(c) China
(d) Iraq
Answer:
(c) China

Question 6.
(i) The Egyptian king was known as the Pharaoh.
(ii) The preserved dead body is called the mummy..
(iii) The Egyptians have no belief in life after death.
(iv) Paprus was used for making paper.
(a) (i) is incorrect
(b) (ii) is incorrect
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (iv) is incorrect
Answer:
(c) (iii) is correct

Question 7.
(i) Egypt was called as the Gift of Nile
(ii) Egyptians practiced polytheism
(iii) Thoth is the God of death
(iv) Cuneiform is Egyptian way of writing
(a) (i) & (ii) are incorrect
(b) (iii) & (iv) are correct
(c) (iii) is correct
(d) (i) & (ii) are correct
Answer:
(d) (i) & (ii) are correct

Question 8.
Confucius was famous among the Chinese Philosophers.
(a) Lao Tze
(b) Confucius
(c) Mencius
(d) Sun Tzu
Answer:
(b) Confucius

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. The river Nile originates in ……………
2. The preserved dead body is called …………….
3. …………. was the God of writing and learning.
4. The city of Akkad later became the city of ……………. a commercial and cultural centre of largest Asia.
5. …………. is perhaps the oldest written epic on earth.
6. ………….. was the popular ruler of ten late (or) neo Assyrian Empire.
7. ………….. was the first military power in History.
8. Agriculture was the main occupation of the …………..
9. The ……………. refers to the large collection of terrcotta warrior images found in China.
10. The Indus Valley civilization is also known as ………….. civilisation.
11. The Indus people worshipped …………… trees.
12. The Harappans had close trade link with the ………………
Answers:
1. Lake Victoria
2. the mummy
3. Thoth
4. Babylon
5. The Epic of Gilgamesh
6. Ashurbanipal
7. Assyrian Empire
8. Mesopotamians
9. The Terracotta Army
10. Harappan
11. Pipal
12. Mesopotamians

III. Find out the correct statement.

Question 1.
(a) The oldest civilisation in Mesopotamia belonged to the Sumerians.
(b) The Sumerians believed to have originated from Central Asia.
(c) Sargon and his descendants ruled Mesopotamia for more than 200 years.
(d) The Akkadians dominated Sumeria briefly from 2500 BCE to 2450 BCE.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) correct
(c) incorrect
(d) incorrect

Question 2.
(a) The Harappans used painted Pottery.
(b) The Harappans have no knowledge about weights and measures.
(c) The Indus people buried the dead.
(d) The Indus civilization completely disappeared.
Answer:
(a) correct
(b) incorrect
(c) correct
(d) incorrect

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (a)
3. (e)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Answer the following briefly.

Question 1.
The term civilization is used to distinguish the Urban society from early forms of societies. Why?
Answer:

• The Urban society practised crafts, engaged in trade and exchange, adopted science and technology and formed political organisation.
• Hence the term civilisation is used to distinguish them from the early forms of societies.

Question 2.
What is Egyptian civilization known for?
As one of the oldest civilizations, the Egyptian civilisation is known for its monumental architecture, art, sciences and crafts at a very early age.

Question 3.
Mention the contributions of the Mesopotamian civilization.
Answer:

1. The invention of the potter’s wheel is credited to the Sumerians.
2. They developed the calender system of 360 days and divided a circle into 360 units.
3. The Cuneiform system of writing was their contribution.
4. The Hammurabi’s law code was another legacy of the Mesopotamians.

Question 4.
Write a short note on “Silk Road” in China.
Answer:

1. The greatest of the Han emperors Wu Ti (Han Wu the Great, 141 to 87 BCE) sent Zhang Qian as emissary to the West in 138 BCE.
2. It paved the way for the opening of the Silk Road in 130 BCE to encourage trade activities.
3. Because of the Silk Road and the resultant trade connections, China benefitted immensely during the rule of Emperor Zhang.

Question 5.
The Indus civilisation is known as Harappan civilisation rather than Indus. Why?
Answer:

• The Indus valley civiliSation is also known as the Harappan civilisation since Harappa was the first site to be discovered.
• This civilisation is known as Harappan civilisation rather than Indus valley civilisation, since it extended beyond the Indus river valley.

VI. Answer all the questions given under each caption.

Question 1.
The Babylonians.
(i) Who were the Babylonians?
Answer:
The Semitic people called Amorites who moved from the Arabian desert into Mesopotamia, were known as Babylonians

(ii) Name the oldest written epic on earth. .
Answer:
The Epic of Gilgamesh is the oldest written epic on earth.

(iii) Who was a great law-maker?
Answer:
Hammurabi the sixth king of Babylon was a great law-maker.

(iv) What was the previous name of Babylon?
Answer:
The previous name of Babylon was the city of Akkad.

Question 2.
Indus civilisation.
(i) What is the other name of Indus civilisation?
Answer:
The Harappan civilisation.

(ii) What did the Harappans use for construction?
Answer:
The Harappans used baked and unbaked bricks and stones for construction.

(iii) What kind of potterys were used by the Harappans?
Answer:
The Harappans used painted potteries. Their potteries have a deep red slip and black paintings.

(iv) What was their belief for the dead?
Answer:
The Indus people buried the dead. Burials were done elaborately.

VII. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
How did the Egyptians excel in art and architecture? Explain.
Answer:

1. The Egyptians excelled in art and architecture. Their writing is also, a form of art.
2. Numerous sculptures, painting and carvings attest to the artistic skills of Egyptians.
3. The pyramids are massive monuments built as tombs of mourning to the Pharaohs.
4. The great pyramids near Cairo are known as the Giza Pyramids.
5. Pyramids are considered to be one of the wonders of the world, and they were built between 2575 and 2465 BCE.
6. These monuments display the engineering, architectural and human resource management skills of the Egyptians.
7. The Great Sphinx of Giza is a massive limestone image of a lion with a human head.
8. It is dated to the time of Pharaoh Khaffe. It is one of the largest sculptures of the world
   and measures seventy three metres in length and twenty metres in height.

Question 2.
Compare the Indus Civilization with Tamil Civilization.
Answer:
(i) The similarity of the graffiti found on the megalithic burial pots of South India with the Indus script and the identical place names of Tamil Nadu and Indus region of Pakistan are presented as arguments to establish the relationship between the Indus civilisation and Tamil culture.

(ii) Researchers like Father Henry Heras, Asko Parpola and Iravatham Mahadevan find similarity between the Indus script and the Dravidian/Tamil language.

(iii) Archaeological evidence points out that several groups of people have been living in Tamil Nadu and South India continuously from the Mesolithic period.

(iv) A few groups from the Indus region might have migrated into southern India.

(v) Some of the ideas and technologies of the Indus civilisations had reached South India in the Iron Age.

(vi) The camelian beads, shell bangles and bronze mirrors found in the Megalithic/Early Historic sites of Tami Nadu were first introduced by the people of the Indus civilisation. More research is needed to arrive at any definite conclusion in this matter.

(vii) The towns of ancient Tamilagam such as Arikkamedu, Uraiyur and Keezhadi that flourished are part of the second urbanisation of India and these towns are much different from the Indus cities. These towns emerged approximately 1,200 years after the decline of the Indus civilisation.

Students can Download Tamil Chapter 1.3 தமிழரின் கப்பற்கலை Questions and Answers, Summary, Notes Pdf, Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Book Solutions Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 7th Tamil Solutions Term 2 Chapter 1.3 தமிழரின் கப்பற்கலை

மதிப்பீடு

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
தமிழர்கள் சிறிய நீர்நிலைகளைக் கடக்கப் பயன்படுத்தியது ……..
அ) கலம்
ஆ) வங்கம்
இ) நாவாய்
ஈ) ஓடம்
Answer:
ஈ) ஓடம்

Question 2.
தொல்காப்பியம் கடற்பயணத்தை …………………….. வழக்கம் என்று கூறுகிறது.
அ) நன்னீ ர்
ஆ) தண்ணீ ர்
இ) முந்நீர்
ஈ) கண்ணீ ர்
Answer:
இ)
முந்நீர்)

Question 3.
கப்பலை உரிய திசையில் திருப்புவதற்குப் பயன்படும் கருவி ……………….
அ) சுக்கான்
ஆ) நங்கூரம்
இ) கண்ண டை
ஈ) சமுக்கு
Answer:
அ) சுக்கான்

கோடிட்ட இடங்களை நிரப்புக

Question 1.
கப்பல் கட்டுவதற்குப் பயன்படும் மர ஆணிகள் ……….. …….. என அழைக்கப்படும்.
Answer:
தொகுதி

Question 2.
கப்பல் ஓரிடத்தில் நிலையாக நிற்க உதவுவது …
Answer:
நங்கூரம்

Question 3.
இழைத்த மரத்தில் காணப்படும் உருவங்கள் எனக் குறிப்பிடப்படும்.
Answer:
கண்ணடை

பொருத்துக –

1. எரா – திசைகாட்டும் கருவி
2. பருமல் – அடிமரம்
3. மீகாமன் – குறுக்கு மரம்
4. காந்த ஊசி – கப்பலைச் செலுத்துபவர்
Answer:
1. எரா – அடிமரம்
2. பருமல் – குறுக்கு மரம்
3. மீகாமன் – கப்பலைச் செலுத்துபவர்
4. காந்த ஊசி – திசைகாட்டும் கருவி

தொடர்களில் அமைத்து எழுதுக

1. நீரோட்டம்
கடல் நீரோட்டங்களின் திசையை தமிழர்கள் தம் பட்டறிவால் நன்கு அறிந்திருந்தனர்.

2. காற்றின் திசை
காற்றின் திசையை அறிந்து கப்பல்களைச் செலுத்தும் முறையைத் தமிழர்கள் நன்கு அறிந்திருந்தனர்.

3. வானியல் அறிவு
கப்பல் ஓட்டும் மாலுமிகள் சிறந்த வானியல் அறிவைப் பெற்றிருந்தனர்.

4. ஏற்றுமதி
பூம்புகார் துறைமுகத்திலிருந்து கப்பல்கள் மூலம் பொருள்கள் ஏற்றுமதியும் இறக்குமதியும் செய்யப்பட்டன.

குறுவினா

Question 1.
தோணி என்னும் சொல்லின் பெயர்க்காரணத்தைக் கூறுக.
Answer:

• எடைக் குறைந்த பெரிய மரங்களின் உட்பகுதியைக் குடைந்து எடுத்துவிட்டுத்த தோணியாகப் பயன்படுத்தினர் தமிழர்கள்.
• உட்பகுதி தோண்டப்பட்டவை என்பதால் அவை தோணிகள் எனப்பட்டன.
• சிறிய நீர்நிலைகளைக் கடக்கத் தமிழர்கள் தோணியைப் பயன்படுத்தினர்.

Question 2.
கப்பல் கட்டும்போது மரப்பலகைகளுக்கு இடையே தேங்காய் நார் அல்லது பஞ்சு வைப்பதன் நோக்கம் என்ன?
Answer:

• மரங்களையும் பலகைகளையும் ஒன்றோடு ஒன்று இணைக்கும் போது அவற்றுக்கு இடையே தேங்காய் நார், பஞ்சு ஆகியவற்றில் ஒன்றை வைத்து நன்றாக இறுக்கி ஆணிகளை அறைந்தனர்.
• சுண்ணாம்பையும் சணலையும் கலந்து அரைத்து அதில் எண்ணெய் கலந்து கப்பலின் அடிப்பகுதியில் பூசினர்.
• இதனால் கப்பல்கள் பழுதடையாமல் நெடுங்காலம் உழைத்தன.

Question 3.
கப்பல் உறுப்புகள் சிலவற்றின் பெயர்களைக் கூறுக.
Answer:
கப்பலின் உறுப்புகள் :

• கப்பல் பல்வேறு வகையான உறுப்புகளை உடையது.
• எரா, பருமல், வங்கு , கூம்பு, பாய்மரம், சுக்கான், நங்கூரம் போன்றவை கப்பலின் உறுப்புகளுள் சிலவாகும்.

சிறுவினா

Question 1.
சிறிய நீர்நிலைகளையும் கடல்களையும் கடக்கத் தமிழர்கள் பயன்படுத்திய ஊர்திகளின் பெயர்களை எழுதுக.
Answer:

• தமிழர்கள் தோணி, ஓடம், படகு, புணை, மிதவை, தெப்பம் போன்றவற்றைச் சிறிய நீர்நிலைகளைக் கடக்கப் பயன்படுத்தினர்.
• கலம், வங்கம், நாவாய் முதலியவை அளவில் பெரியவை.
• இவற்றைக் கொண்டு தமிழர்கள் கடல் பயணம் மேற்கொண்டனர்.

Question 2.
பண்டைத் தமிழரின் கப்பல் செலுத்தும் முறை பற்றி எழுதுக.
Answer:
கப்பலைச் செலுத்தும் முறை :

• காற்றின் திசையை அறிந்து கப்பல்களைச் செலுத்தும் முறையைத் தமிழர்கள் நன்கு அறிந்திருந்தனர்.
• இவ்வுண்மையை வெண்ணிக்குயித்தியார் தம் புறப்பாடலில் குறிப்பிடுகிறார். “நளியிரு முந்நீர் நாவாய் ஓட்டி வளி தொழில் ஆண்ட உரவோன் மருக – வெண்ணிக் குயத்தியார்
• கடலில் காற்று வீசும் திசை, கடல் நீரோட்டங்களின் திசை ஆகியவற்றைத் தமிழர்கள் தம் பட்டறிவால் நன்கு அறிந்து அவற்றுக்கு ஏற்ப உரிய காலத்தில் சரியான திசையில் கப்பலைச் செலுத்தினர்.

Question 3.
கப்பல் பாதுகாப்பானதாக அமையத் தமிழர்கள் கையாண்ட வழிமுறைகள் யாவை?
Answer:

• பெருந்திரளான மக்களையும் பொருள்களையும் ஏற்றிச் செல்லும் வகையில் பெரிய கப்பல்களைத் தமிழர் உருவாக்கினர்.
• நீண்ட தூரம் கடலிலேயே செல்ல வேண்டி இருந்ததால் கப்பல்களைப் பாதுகாப்பனவையாகவும் வலிமைமிக்கவையாகவும் உருவாக்கினர்.
• கப்பல் கட்டுவதற்கு உரிய மரங்களைத் தேர்ந்தெடுப்பதில் தமிழர்கள் மிகுந்த கவனம் செலுத்தினர். தண்ணீரால் பாதிப்பு அடையாத மரங்களையே கப்பல் கட்டப் பயன்படுத்தினர். நீர்மட்ட வைப்பிற்கு வேம்பு, இலுப்பை, புன்னை, நாவல் போன்ற மரங்களைப் பயன்படுத்தினர்.
• பக்கங்களுக்குத் தேக்கு, வெண்தேக்கு போன்ற மரங்களைப் பயன்படுத்தினர். நீளம், அகலம், உயரம் ஆகியவற்றைச் சரியான முறையில் கணக்கிட்டுக் கப்பலை உருவாக்கினர்.
• மரங்களையும் பலகைகளையும் இணைக்கும் போது அவற்றுக்கு இடையே தேங்காய் நார் அல்லது பஞ்சு இவற்றில் ஒன்றை வைத்து இறுக்கி ஆணிகளை அறைந்தனர். மரத்தால் ஆன ஆணிகளையே பயன்படுத்தினர்.

சிந்தனை வினா

Question 1.
இக்காலத்தில் மக்கள் வெளிநாடுகளுக்குச் செல்வதற்கு கடற்பயணத்தைப் பெரிதும் மேற்கொள்ளாதது ஏன் எனச் சிந்தித்து எழுதுக.
Answer:
தற்போது விமானம் கண்டுபிடிக்கப்பட்ட பிறகு, கடற்வழி பயணம் விரும்பத்தகாத ஒன்றாக மாறிவிட்டது. காலதாமதம் காரணமாக தற்பொழுது கடல் வழி பயணத்தைத் தவிர்த்து வான்வெளிப் பயணத்தை ஏற்றனர். அதன் காரணமாகவே கடற்வழிப் பயணத்தை பெரிதும் மேற்கொள்ளுதலைத் தவிர்த்தனர்.

கற்பவை கற்றபின்

Question 1.
பலவகையான கப்பல்களின் படங்களைச் சேகரித்துப் படத்தொகுப்பு ஒன்று உருவாக்குக.
Answer:
பாய்மரக்கப்பல்கள் :

• காற்றின் உதவியால் செலுத்தப்படும் கப்பல்கள் பாய்மரக்கப்பல்கள் எனப்பட்டன.
• பெரிய பாய்மரம், திருக்கைத்திப் பாய்மரம், காணப் பாய்மரம், கோசுப் பாய்மரம் போன்ற பலவகையான பாய்மரங்களைத் தமிழர் பயன்படுத்தினர்.

நீர்மூழ்கிக் கப்பல்கள் :

• இவை நீரில் மூழ்கியபடியே வெகு தொலைவு செல்லக்கூடிய நீர் ஊர்தி ஆகும்.
• நீர்மூழ்கிக் கப்பல்கள் போரில், பகைவர் கப்பல்களைத் தாக்குதல், முற்றுகையை முறியடித்தல், நீரில் இருந்தபடியே நிலப்பகுதியைத் தாக்குதல், இரகசியமாகச் சிறப்புப் E படைகளை முக்கியப் பகுதிகளில் இறக்கி வியூகம் அமைத்தல் ஆகிய பல பணிகளைச் ஓ செய்ய வல்லவை.

பயணிகள் கப்பல்கள் :

• பயணிகள் கப்பல்களின் அளவு சிறிய ஆற்று படகுகளில் இருந்து மிக பெரிய கப்பல்கள் வரை இருக்கும்.
• ஓர் இடத்திலிருந்து மற்றோர் இடத்திற்குப் பயணிகளைக் கொண்டு செல்லும் கப்பல்கள்.
• குறுகிய பயணங்களுக்குப் பயணிகள் மற்றும் வாகனங்களை ஏற்றிச் செல்லும் கப்பல்கள், இன்பப் பயணங்கள் மேற்கொள்ளப்படும் கப்பல்கள் இந்த வகையில் அடங்கும்.

எண்ணெய்க் கப்பல்கள் :

திரவ பெட்ரோலிய வாயு , திரவ இயற்கை எரிவாயு , வேதிப்பொருட்கள் ஆகியவற்றைச் சுமந்து செல்லும் கப்பல்கள்.

சரக்குக் கப்பல்கள் :

• சரக்குக் கப்பல் என்பது ஒரு துறைமுகத்தில் இருந்து இன்னொரு துறைமுகத்துக்குச் சரக்கு மற்றும் பல்வேறு  பொருட்களை எடுத்துச் செல்லும் கப்பலாகும்.
• சரக்குக் கப்பல்கள் பொதுவாக அவற்றின் தேவைக்கு ஏற்ப வடிவமைப்புச் செய்யப்படுகின்றன.
• பொருட்களை ஏற்றி இறக்கும் வசதிக்காக அவற்றில் பாரந்தூக்கிகளும் பொருத்தப்படுவதுண்டு.

Question 2.
தரைவழிப்பயணம், கடல்வழிப்பயணம், வான்வழிப்பயணம் ஆகியவை குறித்து வகுப்பறையில் கலந்துரையாடுக.
Answer:
இடம் : அரசு உயர்நிலைப்பள்ளி.

நடிகர்கள் : கபிலன், மணிவண்ண ன், கயல்விழி, தேன்மொழி, தமிழாசிரியர்,

விளக்கம் : ஏழாம் வகுப்பு மாணவர்கள் வகுப்பறையில் கலந்துரையாடுகின்றனர். உடன் தமிழாசிரியர் தமிழ்வேந்தன் அவர்கள் உரையாடலில் உடன் பங்கேற்கின்றார்.

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : மாணவச் செல்வங்களே! இன்று நாம் எதைப் பற்றி உரையாடப் போகிறோம் தெரியுமா?

கயல்விழி : சொல்லுங்கள் ஐயா! தெரிந்து கொள்கிறோம்.

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : கோடை விடுமுறையில் நீங்கள் ஊர்ப்பயணம் போவீர்களா?

மணிவண்ணன் : நிச்சயமாக

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : எங்கு போவீர்கள்?

தேன்மொழி : எங்கள் பாட்டி வீட்டிற்குப் போவேன் ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : எப்படி போவீர்கள்?

தேன்மொழி : பேருந்தில் பயணம் செய்வேன் ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : அதாவது தரைவழிப் பயணம் அப்படித்தானே!

தேன்மொழி : ஆமாம் ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : பேருந்து, சிற்றுந்து, மகிழுந்து, இரு சக்கரவாகனம் இவையாவும் தரைவழிப்பயணம் தானே!

கயல்விழி : ஆமாம் ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : தரைவழிப்பயணம் செல்வதில் சிக்கல்கள் ஏதாவது உண்டா?

கபிலன் : ஒன்றா இரண்டா எடுத்துச் சொல்ல ! பெருகி வரும் மக்கள்தொகையில் நகர்புறம், கிராமப்புறம் எங்கும்போக்குவரத்து இடையூறுகள் அதிகம். வாகனங்கள் மக்கள் தொகைப் போல பன்மடங்கு பெருகி உள்ளன ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : இதனைக் கட்டுப்படுத்த என்ன வழி?

கபிலன் : சாலைகளை விரிவாக்கம் செய்ய வேண்டும் ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : நல்ல கருத்து இது வரவேற்கத்தக்கது. இதைத்தவிர வேறு பயணம் ஏதாவது உண்டா ?

தேன்மொழி : உண்டு ஐயா ! கடல்வழிப் பயணம்

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : ஆதியில் பெருந்திரளான மக்கள் தங்களையும் தங்கள் உடைமைகளையும் ஏற்றிச் செல்ல கப்பலைமலைபோல நம்பி இருந்தனர்.

தேன்மொழி : அது மட்டுமல்ல ஐயா, நீண்ட தூரம் கடலிலேயே செல்ல வேண்டி இருந்தால் கப்பல் பயணம் பாதுகாப்பானது மற்றும் மனதிற்கு மகிழ்ச்சி தரக்கூடியது.

கயல்விழி : போக்குவரத்து இடையூறு கப்பல் பயணத்தில் இல்லை
ஐயா ! கடல் வழிப்பயணத்தில் துரிதமாக போக வேண்டிய இடத்திற்கு போய்ச் சேரலாம். மனதிற்கும் உடலுக்கும் புது தெம்பு தருவது இந்த ..
கடல் வழிப் பயணம்தான்.

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : நல்லது. இதைத் தவிர வேறு பயணம் ஏதாவது உண்டா ?

மணிவண்ண ன் : தரைவழிப் பயணம், கடல் வழிப்பயணம் இரண்டையும் பின்னுக்குத்
தள்ளும் பயணம் வான் வழிப் பயணம்தான்.

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : எப்படி?

மணிவண்ணன் : கட்டணச் செலவு கூடுதலாக இருந்தாலும் நாம் போய் சேர வேண்டிய இடத்திற்குச் சில மணிநேரங்களில் அலுங்காமல் குலுங்காமல் போய் சேரலாம். இதனால் நேரம் மிச்சம். சுகமான பயணம் ஐயா!

தமிழ்வேந்தன் : உண்மைதான்! இருப்பினும் நடுத்தர மக்களுக்கும், ஏழை எளிய மக்களுக்கும் சாதகமாக இருக்கும் பயணம் தரைவழிப் பயணம் மட்டும் தான். காத்திருப்பதிலும் ஒரு சுகம்தான்! கூட்ட நெரிசலில் பயணிப்பதும் ஒரு தனி சுகம்தான் !

(பள்ளி மணி ஒலிக்கிறது)

கூடுதல் வினாக்கள்

சரியான விடையைத் தேர்ந்தெடுத்து எழுதுக.

Question 1.
முந்நீர் வழக்கம் என்று தொல்காப்பியம் எதைக் குறிப்பிடுகிறது?
அ) கடற்பயணம்
ஆ) வான்வழிப்பயணம்
இ) தரைவழிப்பயணம்
ஈ) இவை ஏதுமில்லை
Answer:
அ) கடற்பயணம்

Question 2.
பூம்புகார் துறைமுகத்தில் இருந்து கப்பல்கள் மூலம் பொருள்களை ஏற்றுமதி இறக்குமதி செய்யப்பட்டன. இக்கூற்றை மெய்ப்பித்த நூல் எது?
அ) அகநானூறு
ஆ) பட்டினப்பாலை
இ) கலித்தொகை
ஈ) குறுந்தொகை
Answer:
ஆ) பட்டினப்பாலை

Question 3.
“உலகு கிளர்ந்தன்ன உருகெழு வங்கம்” – இத்தொடர் இடம் பெற்ற நூல் எது?
அ) அகநானூறு
ஆ) புறநானூறு
இ) பட்டினப்பாலை
ஈ) மதுரைக்காஞ்சி
Answer:
அ) அகநானூறு

Question 4.
பலவகையான கப்பல்களின் பெயர்கள் குறிப்பிடப்பட்டுள்ளன என்பதனை மெய்ப்பிக்கும் நூல் எது?
அ) சேந்தன் திவாகரம்
ஆ) ஏலாதி
இ) திருமந்திரம்
ஈ) சீவகசிந்தாமணி
Answer:
அ) சேந்தன் திவாகரம்

Question 5.
தமிழர்கள் பயன்பாட்டில் உருவான கப்பல்கள் பழுதடையாமல் நெடுங்காலம் உழைத்தன. இம்முறையைக் கண்டு வியந்தவர்.
அ) மார்க்கோபோலோ
ஆ) ஆம்ஸ்ட்ராங்
இ) கலிலியோ
ஈ) இவர்களில் யாருமில்லை
Answer:
அ) மார்க்கோபோலோ

Question 6.
கப்பலின் முதன்மையான உறுப்பாகிய அடிமரம் ……………. எனப்படும்
அ) எரா
ஆ) பருமல்
இ) சுக்கான்
ஈ) வங்கு
Answer:
அ) எரா

Question 7.
குறுக்கு மரத்தை ………….. என்பர்
அ) நங்கூரம்
ஆ) சமுக்கு
இ) கூம்பு
ஈ) பருமல்
Answer:
ஈ) பருமல்

Question 8.
கப்பல் செலுத்துபவரை ….. …… என அழைப்பர்.
அ) மாலுமி
ஆ) கம்மியர்
இ) கனரக வாகனம் ஓட்டுநர்
ஈ) இவர்களில் யாருமில்லை
Answer:
அ) மாலுமி

கோடிட்ட இடத்தை நிரப்புக

Question 1.
கப்பலை அழைக்கும் விளக்கு என்னும் பொருளுக்கு ………………… என்று பெயர்.
Answer:
கலங்கரை விளக்கம்

Question 2.
கடலில் செல்லும் கப்பல்களுக்குத் துறைமுகம் இருக்கும் இடத்தைக் காட்டுவதற்காக அமைக்கப்படுவது ………………
விடை:
கலங்கரை விளக்கம்

Question 3.
கலம் என்பதன் பொருள் …………
Answer:
கப்பல்

Question 4.
கரைதல் என்பதன் பொருள் ……………
Answer:
அழைத்தல்

Question 5.
கப்பலைச் செலுத்துவதற்கும், உரிய திசையில் திருப்புவதற்கும் பயன்படும் முதன்மையான கருவி ……………………. எனப்ப டும்.
Answer:
சுக்கான்

Question 6.
கப்பலை நிலையாக ஓரிடத்தில் நிறுத்தி வைக்க உதவும் உறுப்பு …………………… ஆகும்.
Answer:
நங்கூரம்]

Question 7.
மரத்தின் வெட்டப்பட்ட பகுதியை ……………. என்பர்.
Answer:
வெட்டுவாய்

Question 8.
……… என்பது இழைத்த மரத்தில் காணப்படும் உருவங்கள் ஆகும்.
Answer:
கண்ணடை

Question 9.
நீளம், அகலம், உயரம் ஆகியவற்றை சரியான முறையில் கணக்கிட்டுக் கப்பலை உருவாக்கினர். இவற்றை ……………………என்னும் நீட்டலளவையால் கணக்கிட்டனர்.
Answer:
தச்சு முழம்

Question 10.
பெரிய படகுகளில் முன் பக்கம் ………………………. என அழைக்கப்பட்டன.
Answer:
கரிமுக அம்பி, பரிமுக அம்பி

Question 11.
கப்பல்கள் பழுதடையாமல் நெடுங்காலம் உழைக்க மரத்தால் ஆன ஆணிகளைப் பயன்படுத்தினர் இந்த ஆணிகளை……………….. என்பர்.
Answer:
தொகுதி

Question 12.
பாய்மரங்களைத் ……………….. பயன்படுத்தினர்.
Answer:
தமிழர்]

Question 13.
தமிழர் கட்டிய கப்பல்களை ஐம்பது ஆண்டுகள் வரை பழுது பார்க்க வேண்டிய அவசியமில்லை எனக் கூறியவர் …………………
Answer:
வாக்கர் என்னும் ஆங்கிலேயர்

விடையளி :

Question 1.
பாய்மரக் கப்பல்கள் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
காற்றின் உதவியால் செலுத்தப்படும் கப்பல்கள் பாய்மரக் கப்பல்கள் எனப்பட்டன.

Question 2.
பாய்மரங்களின் பல வகைகளைக் குறிப்பிடுக.
Answer:
பெரிய பாய்மரம், திருக்கைத்திப் பாய்மரம், காணப் பாய்மரம், கோசுப் பாய்மரம் போன்ற ல பலவகையான பாய்மரங்களைத் தமிழர் பயன்படுத்தினர்.

Question 3.
பாய்மரங்களைக் கட்டும் கயிறுகளின் வகைகளை வரிசைப்படுத்துக.
Answer:

1. ஆஞ்சான் கயிறு
2. தாம்பாங்கயிறு
3. வேடாங்கயிறு
4. பளிங்கைக் கயிறு
5. மூட்டங்கயிறு
6. இளங்கயிறு
7. கோடிப்பாய்க்கயிறு.

Question 4.
கப்பல் செலுத்துபவரை எவ்வாறு அழைப்பர்?
Answer:
கப்பல் செலுத்துபவரை மாலுமி, மீகாமன், நீகான், கப்பலோட்டி முதலிய பல பெயர்களால் அழைப்பர்.

Question 5.
எரா என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
கப்பலின் முதன்மையான உறுப்பாகிய அடிமரம் எரா எனப்படும்.

Question 6.
சுக்கான் என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:
கப்பலைச் செலுத்துவதற்கும், உரிய திசையில் திருப்புவதற்கும் பயன்படும் முதன்மையான கருவி சுக்கான் எனப்படும்.

Question 7.
நங்கூரம் எதற்கு பயன்படுகிறது?
Answer:
கப்பலை நிலையாக ஓரிடத்தில் வைக்க உதவும் உறுப்பு நங்கூரம் ஆகும். இது கப்பலை ஓரிடத்தில் நிறுத்துவதற்குப் பயன்படுகிறது.

Question 8.
சமுக்கு என்றால் என்ன?
Answer:

• சமுக்கு என்னும் ஒரு கருவியையும் கப்பலில் பயன்படுத்தினர் என்று கப்பல் சாத்திரம் என்னும் நூல் குறிப்பிடுகிறது.
• இது காந்த ஊசி பொருத்தப்பட்ட திசை காட்டும் கருவியாக இருக்கலாம் என ஆய்வாளர்கள் கருதுகின்றனர்.

Question 9.
மீகாமன் – குறிப்பு வரைக.
Answer:

• மீகாமன் என்பதற்குக் கப்பலைச் செலுத்துபவர் என்பது பொருளாகும்.
• கப்பல் ஓட்டும் மாலுமிகள் சிறந்த வானியல் அறிவையும் பெற்றிருந்தனர்.
• கோள்களின் நிலையை வைத்துப் புயல், மழை போன்றவை தோன்றும் காலங்களையும் கடல் நீர் பொங்கும் காலத்தையும் அறிந்து தகுந்த காலத்தில் கப்பல்களைச் செலுத்தினர்.
• கடலில் காற்று வீசும் திசை, கடல் நீரோட்டங்களின் திசை ஆகியவற்றைத் தமிழர்கள் அறிந்திருந்தனர்.

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 3 Algebra Ex 3.15

10th Maths Exercise 3.15 Solutions Question 1.
Graph the following quadratic equations and state their nature of solutions,
(i) x² – 9x + 20 = 0
Solution:

Step 1:
Points to be plotted : (-4, 72), (-3, 56), (-2, 42), (-1, 30), (0, 20), (1, 12), (2, 6), (3, 2), (4, 0)
Step 2:
The point of intersection of the curve with x axis is (4, 0)
Step 3:

The roots are real & unequal
∴ Solution {4, 5}

(ii) x² – 4x + 4 = 0

Step 1: Points to be plotted : (-4, 36), (-3, 25), (-2, 16), (-1, 9), (0, 4), (1, 1), (2, 0), (3, 1), (4, 4)
Step 2: The point of intersection of the curve with x axis is (2, 0)
Step 3:

Since there is only one point of intersection with x axis, the quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 has real and equal roots.
∴ Solution{2, 2}

(iii) x² + x + 7 = 0
Let y = x² + x + 7
Step 1:

Step 2:
Points to be plotted: (-4, 19), (-3, 13), (-2, 9), (-1, 7), (0, 7), (1, 9), (2, 13), (3, 19), (4, 27)
Step 3:
Draw the parabola and mark the co-ordinates of the parabola which intersect with the x-axis.

Step 4:
The roots of the equation are the points of intersection of the parabola with the x axis. Here the parabola does not intersect the x axis at any point.
So, we conclude that there is no real roots for the given quadratic equation,

(iv) x² – 9 = 0
Let y = x² – 9
Step 1:

Step 2:
The points to be plotted: (-4, 7), (-3, 0), (-2, -5), (-1, -8), (0, -9), (1,-8), (2, -5), (3, 0), (4, 7)
Step 3:
Draw the parabola and mark the co-ordinates of the parabola which intersect the x-axis.

Step 4:
The roots of the equation are the co-ordinates of the intersecting points (-3, 0) and (3, 0) of the parabola with the x-axis which are -3 and 3 respectively.
Step 5:
Since there are two points of intersection with the x axis, the quadratic equation has real and unequal roots.
∴ Solution{-3, 3}

(v) x² – 6x + 9 = 0
Let y = x² – 6x + 9
Step 1:

Step 2:
Points to be plotted: (-4, 49), (-3, 36), (-2, 25), (-1, 16), (0, 9), (1, 4), (2, 1), (3, 0), (4, 1)
Step 3:
Draw the parabola and mark the co-ordinates of the intersecting points.

Step 4:
The point of intersection of the parabola with x axis is (3, 0)
Since there is only one point of intersection with the x-axis, the quadratic equation has real and equal roots. .
∴ Solution (3, 3)

(vi) (2x – 3)(x + 2) = 0
2x² – 3x + 4x – 6 = 0
2x² + 1x – 6 = 0
Let y = 2x² + x – 6 = 0
Step 1:

Step 2:
The points to be plotted: (-4, 22), (-3, 9), (-2, 0), (-1, -5), (0, -6), (1, -3), (2, 4), (3, 15), (4, 30)
Step 3:
Draw the parabola and mark the co-ordinates of the intersecting point of the parabola with the x-axis.

Step 4:
The points of intersection of the parabola with the x-axis are (-2, 0) and (1.5, 0).
Since the parabola intersects the x-axis at two points, the, equation has real and unequal roots.
∴ Solution {-2, 1.5}

Question 2.
Draw the graph of y = x² – 4 and hence solve x² – x – 12 = 0
Solution:



Point of intersection (-3, 5), (4, 12) solution of x² – x – 12 = 0 is -3, 4

10th Maths Graph 3.15 Answers Question 3.
Draw the graph of y = x² + x and hence solve x² + 1 = 0.
Solution:

Draw the parabola by the plotting the points (-4, 12), (-3, 6), (-2, 2), (-1, 0), (0, 0), (1, 2), (2, 6), (3, 12), (4, 20), (5, 30)

To solve: x² + 1 = 0, subtract x² + 1 = 0 from y = x² + x.
x² + 1 = 0 from y = x² + x

Plotting the points (-2, -3), (0, -1), (2, 1) we get a straight line. This line does not intersect the parabola. Therefore there is no real roots for the equation x² + 1 = 0.

10th Maths Guide Graph Question 4.
Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x + 2 and use it to solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0.
Solution:

Draw the parabola by plotting the point (-4, 6), (-3, 2), (-2, 0), (-1, 0), (0, 2), (1, 6), (2, 12), (3, 20), (4, 30).

To solve x² + 2x + 1 = 0, subtract x² + 2x + 1 = 0 from y = x² + 3x + 2

Draw the straight line by plotting the points (-2, -1), (0, 1), (2, 3)
The straight line touches the parabola at the point (-1,0)
Therefore the x coordinate -1 is the only solution of the given equation

10th Graph Exercise 3.15 Solutions Question 5.
Draw the graph of y = x² + 3x – 4 and hence use it to solve x² + 3x – 4 = 0. y = x² + 3x – 4
Solution:

Draw the parabola using the points (-4, 0), (-3, -4), (-2, -6), (-1, -6), (0, -4), (1, 0), (2, 6), (3, 14), (4, 24).

To solve: x² + 3x – 4 = 0 subtract x² + 3x – 4 = 0 from y = x² + 3x – 4 ,

The points of intersection of the parabola with the x axis are the points (-4, 0) and (1, 0), whose x – co-ordinates (-4, 1) is the solution, set for the equation x² + 3x – 4 = 0.

10th Maths Graph Answers Question 6.
Draw the graph of y = x² – 5x – 6 and hence solve x² – 5x – 14 = 0.
Solution:

Draw the parabola using the points (-5, 44), (-4, 30), (-3, 18), (-2, 8), (-1, 0), (0, -6), (1, -10), (2, -12), (3, -12), (4, -10)

To solve the equation x² – 5x – 14 = 0, subtract x² – 5x – 14 = 0 from y = x² – 5x – 6.

The co-ordinates of the points of intersection of the line and the parabola forms the solution set for the equation x2 – 5x – 14 = 0.
∴ Solution {-2, 7}

10th Class Maths Graph Pdf Question 7.
Draw the graph of y = 2x² – 3x – 5 and hence solve 2x² – 4x – 6 = 0. y = 2x² – 3x – 5
Solution:

Draw the parabola using the points (-4, 39), (-3, 22), (-2, 9), (-1, 0), (0, -5), (1, -6), (2, -3), (3, 4), (4, 15).

To solve 2x² – 4x – 6 = 0, subtract it from y = 2x² – 3x – 5

Draw a straight line using the points (-2, -1), (0, 1), (2, 3). The points of intersection of the parabola and the straight line forms the roots of the equation.
The x-coordinates of the points of intersection forms the solution set.
∴ Solution {-1, 3}

10th Maths Graph Question 8.
Draw the graph of y = (x – 1)(x + 3) and hence solve x² – x – 6 = 0.
Solution:
y = (x – 1)(x + 3) = x² – x + 3x – 3 = 0
y = x² + 2x – 3

Draw the parabola using the points (-4, 5), (-3, 0), (-2, -3), (-1,-4), (0, -3), (1, 0), (2, 5), (3, 12), (4, 21)

To solve the equation x² – x – 6 = 0, subtract x² – x – 6 = 0 from y = x² – 2x – 3.

Plotting the points (-2, -3), (-1, 0), (0, 3), (2, 9), we get a straight line.
The points of intersection of the parabola with the straight line gives the roots of the equation. The co¬ordinates of the points of intersection forms the solution set.
∴ Solution {-2, 3}

You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Book Solutions Guide Pdf, Tamilnadu State Board help you to revise the complete Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Solutions Chapter 5 Coordinate Geometry Ex 5.1

10th Maths Exercise 5.1 Samacheer Kalvi Question 1.
Find the area of the triangle formed by the points
(i) (1, -1), (-4, 6) and (-3, -5)
(ii) (-10, -4), (-8, -1) and (-3, -5)
Solution:

(ii) (-10, -4), (-8, -1) and (-3, -5)

Exercise 5.1 Class 10 Samacheer Kalvi Question 2.
Detemine whether the sets of points are collinear ?

Solution:
(i)


∴ The given points are collinear

10th Maths Exercise 5.1 Question 3.
Vertices of given triangles are taken in order and their areas are provided aside. In each case, find the value of ‘p’.

Solution:
Area 20 sq. units.

8p = 104
p = 13

Ex 5.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 4.
In each of the following, find the value of ‘a’ for which the given points are collinear.
(i) (2, 3), (4, a) and (6, -3)
(ii) (a, 2 – 2a), (-a + 1, 2a) and(-4 – a,6 – 2a)
Solution:

10th Maths Coordinate Geometry Exercise 5.1 Question 5.
Find the area of the quadrilateral whose vertices are at
(i) (-9, -2), (-8, -4), (2, 2) and (1, -3)
(ii) (-9, 0), (-8, 6), (-1, -2) and (-6, -3)
Solution:
(i) (-9, -2), (-8, -4), (2, 2), and (1, -3)

(ii) (-9, 0), (-8, 6), (-1, -2) and (-6, -3)

10th Maths Ex 5.1 Question 6.
Find the value of k, if the area ofa quadrilateral is 28 sq.units, whose vertices are (-4, -2), (-3, k), (3, -2) and (2, 3)
Solution:

10th Maths 5.1 Question 7.
If the points A(-3, 9) , B(a, b) and C(4,-5) are collinear and if a + b = 1, then find a and b.
Solution:

Maths Ex 5.1 Class 10 Samacheer Question 8.
Let P(11, 7), Q(13.5, 4) and R(9.5, 4) be the mid-points of the sides AB, BC and AC respectively of ∆ABC . Find the coordinates of the vertices A, B and C. Hence find the area of ∆ABC and compare this with area of ∆PQR.
Solution:
p (11, 7), Q (13.5, 4), and R (9.5, 4) are the mid points of the sides of a ∆ABC.

Samacheer Kalvi 10th Maths Exercise 5.1Question 9.
In the figure, the quadrilateral swimming pool shown is surrounded by concrete patio. Find the area of the patio.

Solution:
Area of the patio = Area of the quadrilateral ABCD – Area of the swimming pool EFGFI.
Area of the quadrilateral ABCD

10th Standard Maths Exercise 5.1 Question 10.
A triangular shaped glass with vertices at A(-5, -4), B(1, 6) and C(7, -4) has to be painted.
If one bucket of paint covers 6 square feet, how many buckets of paint will be required to paint the whole glass, if only one coat of paint is applied.
Solution:

10th Maths Exercise 5.1 Answers Question 11.
In the figure, find the area of
(i) triangle AGF
(ii) triangle FED
(iii) quadrilateral BCEG
Solution:

Guys who are planning to learn and understand the topics of 10th Social Science Civics can grab this Tamilnadu State board solutions for Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers from this page for free of cost. Make sure you use them as reference material at the time of preparation & score good grades in the final exams.

Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Civics Solutions Chapter 5 India’s International Relations

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social Science Civics Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social Science Civics Board solutions for Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

India’s International Relations Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Me Mahon Line is a border between ………………
(a) Burma and India
(b) India and Nepal
(c) India and China
(d) India and Bhutan
Answer:
(c) India and China

Question 2.
India is not a member of which of the following
(1) G20
(2) ASEAN
(3) SAARC
(4) BRICS
Select the correct option:
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 1
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer:
(b) 2 and 4

Question 3.
OPEC is ………..
(a) An international insurance Co.
(b) An international sports club
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries
(d) An international company
Answer:
(c) An Organisation of Oil Exporting Countries

Question 4.
With which country does India share its longest land border?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Myanmar
(c) Afghanistan
(d) China
Answer:
(a) Bangladesh

Question 5.
Match the following and choose the correct answer form the codes given below.

(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
Answer:
(a) 3 1 4 2

Question 6.
How many countries share their border with India?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
Answer:
(c) 7

Question 7.
Which two island countries are India’s neighbours?
(a) Sri Lanka and Andaman island
(b) Maldieves and Lakshadweep island
(c) Maldieves and Nicobar island
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves
Answer:
(d) Sri Lanka and Maldieves

Question 8.
Which Indian state is surrounded by three countries?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Sikkim
Answer:
(d) Sikkim

Question 9.
How many Indian states have their boundary with Nepal?
(a) Five
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(a) Five

Question 10.
Who drew up the borders for newly independent Pakistan?
(a) Lord Mountbatten
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe
(c) Clement Atlee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Sir Cyril Radcliffe

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… is a small Himalayan kingdom.
2. India’s gateway to South East Asia is ………….
3. …………… is a buffer country between India and China.
4. A strip of land …………. belongs to India on West Bengal and Bangladesh border.
5. …………… is known as the Land of a thunderbolt.
6. India and Sri Lanka are separated by …………
Answers:
1. Bhutan
2. Myanmar
3. Nepal
4. Teen Bigha Corridor
5. Bhutan
6. Palk strait

III. Consider the following statement and tick the appropriate answer

Question 1.
The Kaladan transport project by India and Myanmar consists of which of the following modes of transport?
1. Roads
2. Railways
3. Shipping
4. Inland water transport
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question 2.
Assertion (A): India and France launched International Solar Alliance.
Reason (R): It was done to bring together countries between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn for co-operation of solar energy.
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) A is correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is wrong and R is correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(a) A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 3.
Which of the following statements are true?
Statement 1. ICCR has initiated a Tagore Chair in University of Dhaka.
Statement 2. Mayanmar is India’s gateway to western countries.
Statement 3. Nepal and Bhutan are land locked nations.
Statement 4. Sri Lanka is one of the partner in Nalanda University Project of India.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:
(c) 1, 3 and 4

Question 4.
Assertion (A): OPEC has vested interest in India’s economic growth.
Reason (R): Devoid of necessary oil resources India strongly focuses on agriculture and industrial production.
(a) A is correct and R explains A
(b) A is wrong and R is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are wrong
Answer:
(c) Both are correct

IV. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (d)
3. (b)
4. (c)
5. (a)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Name the neighbouring countries of India.
Answer:
Afghanistan, Pakistan, Bhutan, China, Nepal, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Strategic partnetship Agreement (SPA).
Answer:
Indo-Afghan relation was strengthened by the Strategic Partnership Agreement (SPA). SPA provides assistance to re-build Afghan’s infrastructure, institutions, agriculture, water, education, health and providing duty-free access to the Indian market.

Question 3.
Mention the member countries of BRICS.
Answer:
Brazil,. Russia, India, China and South Africa.

Question 4.
What do you know about Kaladan Multi – Model Transit Transport?
Answer:
India is building the Kaladan Multi-Model Transit Transport, a road-river-port cargo transport project to link Kolkata to Sittwe in Myanmar. A project aiming to connect Kolkata with Ho Chi Minh City on the South Sea for the formation of an economic zone will have a road pass through Myanmar, Cambodia and Vietnam and work on the first phase connecting Guwahati with Mandalay is currently undemay.

Question 5.
How do you assess the importance of Chabahar agreement?
Answer:

1. A trilateral agreement called the Chabahar Agreement was signed between India, Afghanistan and Iran, which has led to the establishment to transit and transport corridor among three countries using Chabahar port.
2. This port is seen as golden gateway for India to access land locked markets of Afghanistan and central Asia by passing Pakistan.

Question 6.
List out any five global groupings in which India is a member.
Answer:
India is a member of formal groupings like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the Commonwealth.

Question 7.
What is the role of Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM)?
Answer:
In the manufacturing sector Japan announced its co-operation of training 30,000 Indian people in the Japan India Institute of Manufacturing (JIM) providing Japanese style manufacturing skills to enhance India’s manufacturing Industry base and contribute to “Make in India” and “Skill India” initiatives.

VI. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
Highlight India and International organisation with special reference to any three India’s global groupings.
Answer:
India is potential superpower and has a growing international influence all around the world. Being a newly industralised county, India has great history of collaboration with several countries. It has acted as prominent member of several international organizations and has been a founding member of some. India is a member of formal grouping like UNO, NAM, SAARC, G20 and the Common Wealth.

India has been extending a helping hand to the UNO, in all its efforts in ending military conflicts, and in promoting peace and progress among the nations.

Question 2.
Trace the reason for the formation of BRICS and write its objectives. BRICS:
Answer:

1. Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa are leading emerging economies and political powers at the regional and international level.
2. The BRICS organisations headquarters is in Shangai, China.
3. BRICS opened up a possibility for countries of Global South to challenge the Global North.

Reason for the formation of BRICS:

1. To be an alternative to world bank and IMF to challenge U.S supremacy.
2. To provide self owned and self – managed organisations to carry out developmental and economical plans in its member nations.

Objectives of BRICS

1. To achieve regional development.
2. It act as a bridge between developed and developing countries.
3. To contribute extensively to development of humanity.
4. To establish a more equitable and fair world.
5. Boost intra BRICS trade in their local currencies to increase trade co-operation and cope with the current international financial crisis.
6. To promote the technological information exchange among the member states.
7. To enhance inclusive economic growth that will lead to an increase in the creation of jobs, fight against poverty and accelerate the economic transformation of members.

Question 3.
Mention OPEC missions and how does it help other countries?
Answer:
OPEC’s mission:

1. To coordinate oil policies in its member countries
2. Help stabilise oil markets
3. To secure fair and stable income to petroleum producers
4. An efficient, economic and regular supply of oil to consuming nations
5. A fair return on capital to those investing in the petroleum industry

How does OPEC help other countries:
The OPEC Fund for International Development (OPID) is an institution that helps finance projects with low interest loans. It also provides grants to social and humanitarian projects. OPEC has an Information Centre with over 20,000 volumes including books, reports, maps and conference proceedings related to petroleum, energy and the oil market. The Information Centre is open to the public and is often used by researchers and students.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Students can be asked to collect information form newspapers about India’s relatio with world countries.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2
Group project involving students to prepare an album with pictures on India’s latest projects with its neighboring countries.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

India’s International Relations Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
India was a dependent country till …………
(a) August 13, 1947
(b) August 15, 1947
(c) January 26, 1980
Answer:
(b) August 15, 1947

Question 2.
In which year Farakka accord on sharing of Ganga water signed?
(a) 1970
(b) 1973
(c) 1975
(d) 1977
Answer:
(d) 1977

Question 3.
In spite of past conflicts both ……………. are trying to come closer.
(a) India and Bangladesh
(b) India and Afghanistan
(c) India and Pakistan
Answer:
(c) India and Pakistan

Question 4.
…………….. is a landlocked nation.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
…………. was the first country to recoginse the Republic of china.
(a) England
(b) Russia
(c) India
Answer:
(c) India

Question 6.
Bangladesh got freedom from …………….. in …………
(a) India, 1951
(b) Nepal, 1961
(c) Pakistan 1971
Answer:
(c) Pakistan 1971

Question 7.
Which country is an important partner in our energy needs for petroleum and natural gas?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Myanmar
(d) All the above
Answer:
(c) Myanmar

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. ……………… relation was strengthened by the strategic-Partnership Agreement.
2. India was the first nation to acknowledge ……………. as an independent country.
3. By the Farakka Barrage issue, the distribution of …………. water was settled amicably.
4. India and Bangladesh share ……………. common rivers.
5. ………….. known as a land of thunder bolt.
6. India declared the bilateral trade relation known as …………. to …………..
7. ………….. being the manufacturing hub of the world.
8. Maldives is located south of Lakshadweep islands in the ……………
9. India’s second largest border is shared with …………….
10. …………… is a small land locked country.
Answers:
1. Indo-Afghan
2. Bangladesh
3. Ganga
4. 54
5. Bhutan
6. Bharat, Bhutan
7. China
8. Indian Ocean
9. Myanmar
10. Nepal

III. Match the following.

a.

Answer:
1. (c)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (a)
5. (b)

IV. Short Answer

Question 1.
Explain about LOC.
Answer:

1. The ceasefire line determined in 1949 was called the LOC after 1972.
2. This is the boundary that came to be agreed between India and Pakistan under the Shimla agreement of 1972.
3. It was called Radcliffe line at the time of partition 1947. (Radcliffe was the chairman of the border commission) This is now called LOC.

Question 2.
Which is the fundamental factor of India’s foreign policy?
Answer:
The recognition of sovereign equality of all people living in various parts of the world is the fundamental factor in India’s foreign policy.

Question 3.
Give a short note on BRICS payment system.
Answer:
At the 2015 BRICS summit, ministers from the BRICS nations initiated consultation a payment system that would be an alternative to the society for world wide Inter Bank Financial Telecommunication system (SWIFT).

Question 4.
Explain India’s role towards China.
Answer:
When China became republic in 1949. India was the first country to recognize it. Both the countries have successfully attempted to restore the economic lines. China has formally declared that she will back India’s claim for becoming a permanent member of united Nation’s Security Council.

Question 5.
List out the important Pilgrimage destination in India.
Answer:
Pashupati and Janakpur are traditional centres in Nepal where as Varanasi and the four Dhaans (Badrinathpuri, Dwareka and Rameshwaram) are important pilgrimage destination in India.

Question 6.
Prove that India is a very good friend of Bangladesh.
Answer:
It is due to the effort and support of Smt.Indira Ghandhi, the Prime Minister of India, Bangladesh got freedom from Pakistan in 1971. In 1972, a 25 years treaty of friendship co-operation and peace was sighed in Dacca by India and Bangladesh. The Farakka Barrage issue regarding the distribution of Ganga water was settled amicably. Thus India is a very good friend of Bangladesh. Our friendship with Bangladesh will go on forever.

V. Detail.

Question 1.
Discuss India and its Neighbours?
Answer:

1. India has always been known as a peace – loving country. India is surrounded by many neighbouring countries with whom she has traditionally tried to maintain friendly and good neighbourly relations.
2. India’sposition is unique in its neighbourhood.
3. India’s neighbours had been a part of a homogeneous culture prevailing in the Indian subcontinent for last five thousand years.
4. India is a vast country with Pakistan and Afghanistan to the north – west.
5. China, Nepal, Bhutan to the North.
6. Bangladesh to the east.
7. Myanmar to the Far East.

Sri Lanka (from South – East) and Maldives (from South – West) are two countries that lie close to India separated by the Indian ocean. India has cordial historical, religious, economic, ethnic and linguistic relationship will all of these countries.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 5 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social Science Civics Chapter 5 India’s International Relations Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

Guys who are planning to learn and understand the topics of 10th Social ScienceEconomics can grab this Tamilnadu State board solutions for Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers from this page for free of cost. Make sure you use them as reference material at the time of preparation & score good grades in the final exams.

Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social ScienceEconomics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 4 Government and Taxes

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social ScienceEconomics Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social ScienceEconomics Board solutions for Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social ScienceEconomics Chapter 4 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Government and Taxes Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
The three levels of governments in India are ………………
(a) Union, state and local
(b) Central, state and village
(c) Union, municipality and panchayat
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Union, state and local

Question 2.
In India, taxes are including:
(a) Direct taxes
(b) Indirect taxes.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 3.
Which is the role of government and development policies?
(a) Defence
(b) Foreign policy
(c) Regulate the economy
(d) all of above
Answer:
(d) all of above

Question 4.
The most common and important tax levied on an individual in India is:
(a) Service tax
(b) Excise duty.
(c) Income tax
(d) Central sales tax
Answer:
(c) Income tax

Question 5.
Under which tax one nation, one uniform tax is ensured ……………
(a) Value added tax (VAT)
(b) Income tax
(c) Goods and service tax
(d) Sales tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and service tax

Question 6.
Income tax was introduced in India for the first time in the year:
(a) 1860
(b) 1870
(c) 1880
(d) 1850
Answer:
(a) 1860

Question 7.
………………. tax is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership.
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Corporate tax
(d) Excise duty
Answer:
(b) Wealth tax

Question 8.
What are identified as causes of black money?
(a) Shortage of goods
(b) High tax rate
(c) Smuggling
(d) All of above
Answer:
(d) All of above

Question 9.
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by …………..
(a) Individuals
(b) Corporations
(c) Trusts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
Payments are:
(a) Fees and fines
(b) Penalities and forfeitures
(c) None of the above
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

II. Fill in the blanks.

1. …………… is levied by the government for the development of the state’s economy.
2. The origin of the word ‘tax’ is from the word ……………
3. The burden of the ……………… tax cannot be shifted to others.
4. ………….. tax is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
5. The Goods and Service Tax act came into effect on ………………
6. The unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called …………….
Answers:
1. Tax
2. Taxation
3. Direct
4. Corporate
5.1 July 2017
6. Black money

III. Which of the following statement is correct about GST?

Question 1.
(i) GST is the ‘one-point tax’.
(ii) This aims to replace all direct taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State governments.
(iii) It will be implemented from 1 July 2017 throughout the country.
(iv) It will unified the tax structure in India.
(a) i and ii are correct
(b) ii, iii and iv are correct
(c) i, iii and iv are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(c) i, iii and iv are correct

Question 2.
Choose the incorrect statements.
(i) Shortage of goods, whether natural or artificial, is the root cause of black money.
(ii) Industrial sector has been the major contributor to black money.
(iii) Smuggling is one of the major sources of black money.
(iv) When the tax rate is low, more black money is generated.
(a) i and ii
(b) iv
(c) i
(d) ii and iii
Answer:
(b) iv

IV. Match the following.

Answer:
1. (d)
2. (e)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (c)

V. Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
Define tax.
Answer:
According to Prof. Seligman, “A tax is a compulsory contribution from a person to the Government to defray the expenses incurred in the common interest of all, without reference to special benefits conferred”.

Question 2.
Why we pay tax to the government?
Answer:
The levying of taxes aims to raise revenue to fund governance or to alter prices in order to affect demand. States and their functional equivalents throughout history have used money provided by taxation to carry out many functions. Some of these include expenditures on economic infrastructure (transportation, sanitation, public safety, education, healthcare our systems, to name a few), military, scientific research, culture and the arts, public works and public insurance and the operation of government itself. A government’s ability to raise taxes is called its fiscal capacity.

Question 3.
Write the canons of tax system?
Answer:
Canon of equity, Canon of certainty, canons of Economy and Convenience, Canon of Productivity and Canon of Elasticity.

Question 4.
What are the types of tax? Give examples.
Answer:
(i) J.S. Mill defines a direct tax as “one which is demanded from the very persons who it is intended or desired should pay it.” Some direct taxes are income tax, wealth tax and corporation tax.

(ii) If the burden of the tax can be shifted to others, it is an indirect tax. The impact is on one person while the incidence is on the another person. Therefore, in the case of indirect taxes, the tax payer is not the tax bearer. Some indirect taxes are stamp duty, entertainment tax, excise duty and goods and service tax (GST).

Question 5.
Write short note on Goods and Service Tax.
Answer:
The Goods and services taxes is one of the indirect taxes levied when a consumer buys a good or service. The tax came into effect on 1 July 2017. ’ The motto is one nation, one market, one tax.

Question 6.
What is progressive tax?
Answer:
Progressive tax rate is one in which the rate of taxation increases (multiplier) as the tax base increases (multiplicand). The amount of tax payable is calculated by multiplying the tax base with the tax rate. In the case of a progressive tax, the multiplicand (income) increases. When income increases, the tax rate also increases. This is known as a progressive tax.

Question 7.
What is meant by black money?
Answer:
Black money is unaccounted money. It is the income on which taxes have not been paid. In other words, the unaccounted money that is concealed from the tax administrator is called black money.

Question 8.
What is tax evasion?
Answer:
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by individuals, corporations and trusts. Tax evasion often entails taxpayers deliberately misrepresenting the true state of their affairs to the tax authorities to reduce their tax liability and includes dishonest tax reporting, such as declaring less income, profits or gains than the amounts actually earned, or overstating deductions.

Question 9.
Write some causes of tax evasion.
Answer:

1. Hight rate of taxes.
2. Low educational level of population.
3. Complicated procedures of tax payments.
4. Lack of citizen’s tax integrity.

Question 10.
What is the difference between tax and payments?
Answer:

VI. Brief Answer

Question 1.
Briefly explain the role of government in development policies.
Answer:
The role of government and development policies:
In India, the three levels of governments, namely, union, state and local, have been carrying out various functions for the benefit of people and society at large. These roles are into divided into seven categories for easy understanding.

Defence: This is an essential security function to protect our nation from our enemies. We know that we have three services, namely, army, navy and air force. The Union government is responsible for creating and maintaining defence forces.

Foreign Policy: In today’s world, we need to maintain friendly relationships with all the other countries in the world. India is committed to world peace. We should also maintain cordial economic relationships through exports and imports, sending and receiving investments and labour. This service is also provided by the Union government.

Conduct of periodic elections: India is a democratic country. We elect our representatives to Parliament and state assemblies. The Union government creates laws and administrative system and conducts elections to these two legislature institutions. Similarly the state governments conduct elections to local bodies within the state.

Law and order: Both the Union and state governments enact numerous laws to protect our rights, properties and to regulate our economy and society. To settle disputes, the Union government has a vibrant judicial system consisting of courts at the national, state and lower levels and state governments take the responsibility for administering the police force in respective states.

Public administration and provision of public goods: The government generally administers the economy and society through various departments, for example, revenue department, schools, hospitals, rural development and urban development. The list of departments with the Union and state governments are available in the public domain. The local governments provide public goods like local roads, drainage, drinking water and waste collection and disposal.

Redistribution of income and poverty alleviation: Governments collect various taxes to finance the various activities mentioned earlier. The taxes are collected in a way that the high-income people can bring in more tax revenue to the government than the poor. The governments also spend money such that the poor are given some basic necessities of life like food, shelter, clothing education, health care and monthly income to the very poor persons. Thus collecting taxes and spending for the poor is how the government redistributes income and introduces measures to reduce poverty.

Regulate the economy: The Union government, through the Reserve Bank of India, controls money supply and controls the interest rate, inflation and foreign exchange rate. The main objective is to remove too much of fluctuation in these rates. The Union also controls the economy through various other agencies such as Securities Exchange Board of India and Competition Commission of India. All the governments in India run public sector enterprises to provide important goods and services at affordable rates to the people.

Question 2.
Explain some direct and indirect taxes.
Answer:
Taxes are compulsory payments to Government by the people without expecting anything in return. Taxes are of two types: Direct taxes and Indirect taxes. .
Direct Taxes: A tax imposed on an individual or organisation which is paid directly is called as Direct taxes.

Some of the Direct taxes are explained below:

Income Tax:

1. It is charged directly based on the income of a person.
2. The rate at which it is charged varies depending on the level of income.

Corporate Tax:

1. It is charged on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders.
2. It is charged on interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India.
3. It is also charged for fees for a technical services and dividends.

Wealth Tax:

1. It is charged on the benefits derived from property ownership, on its current market value. .

Indirect Taxes:
Stamp Duty:

1. It is a tax that is paid on official documents like marriage registration or documents related to a property in contractual agreements.

Entertainment Tax:

1. It is a tax that is charged by the Government on any source of entertainment provided. Eg: Amusement Parks, Movie tickets, Exhibitions.

Excise Duty:

1. It is levied on the goods at the time of its manufacture.
2. In addition to sales tax, this tax is imposed.

Goods and services Tax:

1. It is levied when a consumer buys a goods or services.
2. GST varies with the nature of the goods.

Question 3.
Write the structure of GST.
Answer:
Structure of Goods and Service Tax (GST):
State Goods and Service Tax (SGST): Intra state (within the state) VAT/sales tax, purchase tax, entertainment tax, luxury tax, lottery tax and state surcharge and cesses.

Central Goods and Service Tax (CGST): Intra state (within the state) Central Excise Duty , service tax, countervailing duty, additional duty of customs, surcharge, education and secondary/higher secondary cess

Integrated Goods and Service Tax (IGST): Inter state (integrated GST) There are four major GST rates: 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%. Almost all the necessities of life like vegetables and food grains are exempted from this tax.

Question 4.
What is black money? Write the causes of black money.
Answer:
Black money is funds earned in the black market on which income and other taxes have not been paid.

Cause of Black money:

1. Shortage of goods: Even if it is shortage occurring naturally or created artificially, it is the root cause of black money.
2. Licensing proceeding: Permit, quota, license all these are associated with maldistribution of commodities in short supply which results in black money.
3. Contribution of the Industrial sector: For example the controller of public limited companies tries to buy commodities at lower prices and bill them at high amount and the balance goes to them personally.
4. Smuggling: Precious metals like gold and silver, electronic goods, textiles were levied heavy excise duty. To avoid paying these duties, smuggling is done illegally that results in black money.
5. Tax structure: When tax rates are high, tax evasion naturally arises that leads to generation of black money.

Question 5.
Explain the role of taxation in economic development.
Answer:
The role of taxation in developing economics is as follows.
Resource mobilisation: Taxation enables the government to mobilise a substantial amount of revenue. The tax revenue is generated by imposing direct taxes such as personal income tax and corporate tax and indirect taxes such as customs duty, excise duty, etc.

Reduction in equalities of income: Taxation follows the principle of equity. The direct taxes are progressive in nature. Also certain indirect taxes, such as taxes on luxury goods, is also progressive in nature.

Social welfare: Taxation generates social welfare. Social welfare is generated due to higher taxes on certain undesirable products like alcoholic products.

Foreign exchange: Taxation encourages exports and restricts imports, Generally developing countries and even the developed countries do not impose taxes on export items.

Regional development: Taxation plays an important role in regional development, Tax incentives such as tax holidays for setting up industries in backward regions, which induces business firms to set up industries in such regions.

Control of inflation: Taxation can be used as an instrument for controlling inflation. Through taxation the government can control inflation by reducing the tax on the commodities.

VII. Project and activity

Question 1.
Collect information about the local taxes (water, electricity and house tax etc).
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 2.
Students purchase some goods on the shop. The teacher and students discuss those goods, maximum retail price, purchasing price or GST.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Government and Taxes Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
……………. is an essential security function to protect our nation from our enemies.
(a) Foreign policy
(b) Defence
(c) Excise duty
Answer:
(b) Defence

Question 2.
From …………………. many economists had given lists of Canons of taxation.
(a) Marshall
(b) Adam Smith
(c) Pigou
(d) Malthus
Answer:
(b) Adam Smith

Question 3.
In India taxes are collected by all the ……………. tiers of government.
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
Answer:
(b) three

Question 4.
A Government’s ability to raise taxes is called its …………………. capacity.
(a) Fiscal
(b) Monetary
(c) Defence
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Fiscal

Question 5.
The taxes on properties are collected by ……………… Governments.
(a) Local
(b) State
(c) Union
Answer:
(a) Local

Question 6.
The act of GST was passed in the parliament on 29th March :
(a) 2015
(b) 2016
(c) 2017
(d) 2018
Answer:
(c) 2017

Question 7.
…………….. is one of the major sources of black money.
(a) Saving
(b) Smuggling
(c) Shortage of good
Answer:
(b) Smuggling

II. Fill in the blanks :

1. The Union government is responsible for creating and maintaining ……………..
2. The ……………. conduct elections to local bodies within the state.
3. Tax means …………………
4. The present Indian tax system is based on the …………….. tax system.
5. …………… was the first country to implement GST in 1954.
Answers:
1. defence forces
2. state government
3. estimate
4. ancient
5. France

III. Match the following.

Answers:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (d)
4. (b)
5. (a)

IV. Short Answer:

Question 1.
Who levies tax? why?
Answer:
Tax is levied by the Government for the development of the State’s economy.

Question 2.
Write about corporate tax.
Answer:
It is levied on companies that exist as separate entities from their shareholders. It is charged on royalties, interest gains from sale of capital assets located in India and fees for a technical services and dividends.

Question 3.
What do you understand by local tax?
Answer:
Local tax is a tax charged by a local government such as a city or country.

Question 4.
Write about stamp duty.
Answer:
Stamp duty is a tax is paid on official documents like marriage registration or documents related to a property and in some contractual agreements.

Question 5.
What is the aim motto of goods and services tax?
Answer:
It aims to replace all indirect taxes levied on goods and services by the Central and State Governments. Its motto is “One nation, one market, one tax”.

V. Answer the following in detail.

Question 1.
What are the effects of Tax evasion.
Answer:

1. Tax evasion results in black money.
2. It prevents the resource mobilisation of the Central Government leading to shortage of funds.
3. It leads to distorting saving and Investment pattern of the economy and availability of resources for various sectors of the economy.
4. Tax evasion undermines the equity attributes of the tax system.
5. Tax evasion and black money encourage the concentration of economic power in few hands.
6. It consumers time and energy of tax administration to find out the tax evaders and put them under the right stream.

Question 2.
Explain the causes of tax evasions.
Answer:
(i) Tax evasion resulting in black money prevents the resource mobilisation efforts of the Union government. Shortage of funds distorts implementation of developmental plans and forces the government to resort to deficit financing in case public expenditure is inelastic.

(ii) Tax evasion interferes with the declared economic policies of the government by distorting saving and investment patterns and availability of resources for various sectors of the economy.

(iii) Tax evasion undermines the equity attribute of the tax system. Honest taxpayers willingly bear disproportionate tax burden, feel demoralised and lured to join the tax evaders’ camp.

(iv) Tax evasion and black money encourage the concentration of economic power in the hands of undeserving groups in the country, which, in turn, is a threatening to the economy in its way.

(v) Evasion of tax consumes time and energy of tax administration to disentangle the intricate manipulations of tax dodgers.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 4 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social ScienceEconomics Chapter 4 Government and Taxes Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

Guys who are planning to learn and understand the topics of 10th Social ScienceEconomics can grab this Tamilnadu State board solutions for Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers from this page for free of cost. Make sure you use them as reference material at the time of preparation & score good grades in the final exams.

Students who feel tough to learn concepts can take help from this Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Book Solutions Guide Pdf, all the Questions and Answers can easily refer in the exams. Go to the below sections and get 10th Social ScienceEconomics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Tamilnadu State Board Solutions PDF.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 10th Social Science Economics Solutions Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade

Do you feel scoring more marks in the 10th Social ScienceEconomics Grammar sections and passage sections are so difficult? Then, you have the simplest way to understand the question from each concept & answer it in the examination. This can be only possible by reading the passages and topics involved in the 10th Social ScienceEconomics Board solutions for Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers. All the Solutions are covered as per the latest syllabus guidelines. Check out the links available here and download 10th Social ScienceEconomics Chapter 2 textbook solutions for Tamilnadu State Board.

Globalization and Trade Textual Exercise

I. Choose the correct answer.

Globalisation Will Result In Class 10 Question 1.
Who is the head of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
(a) Ministerial conference
(b) Director General
(c) Deputy Director General
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Director General

Globalisation Class 10 Notes Question 2.
How many countries were membership in WTO at present?
(a) 159
(b) 164
(c) 148
(d) 128
Answer:
(b) 164

Economics Class 10 Globalisation Question 3.
Colonial advent in India.
(a) Portuguese, Dutch, English, Danish, French
(b) Dutch, English, Danish , French
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English
(d) Danish, Portuguese, French, English, Dutch
Answer:
(c) Portuguese , Danish, Dutch, French, English

Question 4.
Who first came to India for trading purpose?
(a) Roman Empire
(b) Portuguese
(c) Dutch
(d) Danish
Answer:
(b) Portuguese

Question 5.
When did Portuguese colonize India?
(a) 1600 AD
(b) 1602 AD
(c) 1498 AD
(d) 1616 AD
Answer:
(b) 1602 AD

Question 6.
GATT’s first round held in:
(a) Tokyo
(b) Uruguay
(c) Torquay
(d) Geneva
Answer:
(d) Geneva

Question 7.
India signed the Dunkel proposal in ………………
(a) 1984
(b) 1976
(c)1950
(d) 1994
Answer:
(d) 1994

Question 8.
Who granted the English “golden Fireman” in 1632?
(a) Jahangir
(b) Sultan of Golconda
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb
Answer:
(b) Sultan of Golconda

Question 9.
Foreign Investment policy (FIP) announced in ………..
(a) June 1991
(b) July 1991
(c) July-Aug 1991
(d) Aug 1991
Answer:
(c) July-Aug 1991

Question 10.
Indian government was introduced ……………… in 1991.
(a) Globalization
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) New Economic Policy
(d) none
Answer:
(c) New Economic Policy

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The Dutch captured Pondicherry in ……………..
2. A better economy introduce rapid development of the ………………
3. The East India Company built fortified factory in Madras which known as ……………
4. WTO agreement came into force from ………………
5. The term globalization invented by ……………
6. French East India company established second factory at …………………..
Answers :
1. 1693
2. Capital market
3. Frot St. George
4. January 1, 1995
5. Prof. Theodore Levitt
6. Pulicut

III. Choose the Correct Statement.

1. (i) The East Indian Company specially to participate in the East Indian Spice Trade and later added cotton, silk, Indigo.
(ii) Merchants of the Dutch East India Company first established at Calicut.
(iii) Nanadesis were a guild of traders at the time of Hoysala Empire
(a) i is correct
(b) ii and iii are correct
(c) i and iii are correct
(d) i, ii and iii are correct
Answers:
(a) i is correct

IV. Match the Following

Answers:
1. (c)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (e)
5. (b)

V Give Short Answers.

Question 1.
What is Globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is the process of integrating various economies of the world with the home country without any types of barriers to operating on an International scale.

Question 2.
Write the types of globalization.
Answer:
There are three types of globalization – (i) Archaic globalization (ii) Proto globalization and (iii) Modem globalization.

Question 3.
Write short note on Multinational Corporation.
Answer:
Multi-national Corporation is a corporate organisation which owns (or) control the production of goods (or) services in any other country other than its home country. It is otherwise called as Trans-National Corporation (or) Multi-National Enterprise.

Question 4.
Short note: The Dutch in South India.
Answer:
The Dutch undertook several voyages from 1596 and formed the Dutch East India Company in 1602. In 1605, Admiral Van der Hagen established Dutch factory at Masulipatnam and ‘ PAiapoli, Devanampatinam. In 1610, upon negotiating with the king of Chandragiri, found another factor}’ at Pulicut. Pulicut was the headquarters of the Dutch in India.

Question 5.
What are the reforms made to adopt Globalization?
Answer:

1. Abolition of Industrial licensing, Reduction in the number of industries reserved for public sector.
2. Fixation of a realistic exchange rate of rupee to exchange exports of Indian goods.
3. Foreign private sector by making rupee convertible on trade.
4. Foreign exchange regulations were suitably amended.
5. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) was reduced to increase lending by RBI.

Question 6.
What is Fair trade ?
Answer:
Fair trade is an industrial arrangement designed to help producers in developing countries achieve better trading conditions. Fair trade is about better prices, decent working conditions and fair terms of trade for farmers and workers.

Question 7.
Write any five principles of fair trade practices?
Answer:

1. Raising and stabilising the incomes of small scale farmers, farm workers and artisans .
2. Equal distribution of economic gains, opportunities and risks associated with the production and sale of these goods.
3. Increasing the organisational and commercial capacities of producer groups.
4. Promoting labour rights and right of the workers to organise trade unions.
5. Promoting safe and sustainable farming methods and working conditions.

Question 8.
What is the main objective of WTO?
Answer:
The main objective of WTO is to set and enforce rules for international trade and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalisations.

Question 9.
Write short note on TRIPs and TRIMs.
Answer:
TRIPs means Trade Related aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. Under TRIPs, patent shall be available for any invention (whether product or process) in all fields of industrial technologies.

TRIMs means Trade Related Investment Measures. It refers to certain , restrictions imposed by a Government in respect of foreign investment in the country in order to give adequate provisions for the home industries.

Question 10.
Write the positive impact of Globalization.
Answer:
Positive impacts of globalization:

• A better economy introduces rapid development of the capital market.
• Standard of living has increased.
• It has generated employment opportunities.
• It increases GDP of a country.
• It helps to increase in free flow of goods and also to increase Foreign Direct Investment.

VI. Brief Answer.

Question 1.
Write briefly the history of globalization.
Answer:
The historical background of globalization can be discussed in three steps –
(i) Archaic Globalization – It is an early form of globalization. It existed during the Hellenistic Age. It established a trade link between the Roman Empire, Parthian Empire and the Han Dynasty. The commercial links between these powers inspired the development of the Silk Road. The Islamic Golden Age was also an important early stage of globalization.

(ii) Proto Globalization – It was characterised by the rise of maritime European empires in the 16^th and 17^th centuries. In the 17^th century, globalization became private business phenomenon like British East India Company founded in 1600, described as the first multinational company.

(iii) Modern Globalization – The 19^th and 20^th centuries witnessed the advent of modern globalization. Global trade and capital investment increased. Several multinational firms came into being.

Question 2.
Briefly explain the evolution of MNC and its advantages and disadvantages.
Answer:
Multinational Corporation is a corporate organisation which owns (or) controls the production of goods and services in another country other than its home country.

Evolution of MNC:

1. MNCs first started their activities in 1920’s by controlling the raw materials of the host countries in the industrial sector. Later in the manufacturing and the service sector after 1950’s.
2. Of the MNCs at present, four are major one’s USA, UK, France, Germany, of which USA is the largest MNC.
3. With the gain of enormous power in host countries, huge resources with themselves, they are able to invest in research and development at a greater level.
4. This helped them to manufacture new products and discover new’ processes and exploit Technological developments.

Advantages:

1. Production of quality goods at lower cost, without cost of transportation.
2. Reducing prices and increasing the purchasing power of the Consumer’s world wide.
3. Advantages of tax variation.
4. Induce job opportunities in the local economy.

Disadvantages:

1. May develop a monopoly for certain products.
2. May have damage/harm effect on the environment.
3. May also lead to the downfall of smaller/ local business.
4. MNC may neglect ethical standards and laws. Their motive is always improving business with enormous capital.

Question 3.
Explain the trade and traders in south India.
Answer:
(i) Southern Indian trade guilds were formed by merchants in order to organise and expand their trading activities. Trade guilds became channels through which Indian culture was exported to other lands.
(ii) South Indian trade was dominated by the Cholas and it replaced the Pallavas.
(iii) In the year 1053 AD (CE) the Kalinga Traders brought red coloured stone for trade and also cotton textile to Southeast Asia.
(iv) Several trade guilds operated in medieval Southern India such as the Gatrigas, Nakaras, Ayyavole, Gavaras etc. The Nakaras and Gavaras met only in the temple premises.
(v) Several European traders also arrived in South India such as the Portuguese, Dutch, Danes, French and the British. These traders established their companies / factories and strengthened their root in the Indian soil.

Question 4.
Write about the World Trade Organisation.
Answer:

1. World Trade Organisation was formed in April 1994 based on cbe signing of the final Act of the Uruguay Round by the member nations of GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade).
2. The headquarters of the WTO is in Geneva, Switzerland.
3. The main objectives of WTO is to ensure rules for international trade and to provide a forum for negotiating and monitoring further trade liberalization.
4. To resolve trade disputes and to ensure that developing countries, secure a better share of growth in World Trade.
5. To ensure full employment and broad increase in effective demand and transperancy of decision making process.
6. World Trade Organisation gives five types of subsides like cash subsidies, tax concessions, loan guarantees, stock purchases, procurement subsidies, thereby reducing the cost of doing business.
7. At present, there are 164 member countries in WTO .
8. The structure of WTO consists of a Director General, four Deputy Director General and other 600 official staff from around 80 member countries.

Question 5.
Write the challenges of Globalization.
Answer:
The following are the challenges of globalization.

1. To ensure that the benefits of globalization extent to all countries. That will certainly not happen automatically.
2. To deal with the fear that globalization leads to stability, which is particularly marked in the developing world.
3. To address the very real fear in the industrial world that increased global competition will lead memorably to a race to the bottom in wages, labour rights, employment practices, and the environment.
4. Globalization and all of the complicated problems related to it must not be used as excuses to avoid searching for new ways to cooperate in the over all interest of countries and people.
5. People have started consuming more junk foods. This has badly affected their health.

Globalization and Trade Additional Questions

I. Choose the correct answer.

Question 1.
Who started establishing trading posts from Africa to Asia and Brazil in the 16th century?
(a) The Dutch
(b) The Portuguese
(c) The French
(d) The British
Answer:
(b) The Portuguese

Question 2.
The New Economic policy was introduced in the year …………………
(a) 1986
(b) 1947
(c) 1956
(d) 1991
Answer:
(d) 1991

Question 3.
Which among the following is the largest exporting country?
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer:
(a) USA

Question 4.
The term ………………… Globalization signifies a process of internationalisation and …………………
(a) Privatisation
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalization
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Globalization

Question 5.
How many countries participated in the seventh round of GATT?
(a) 23
(b) 99
(c) 102
(d) 117
Answer:
(b) 99

Question 6.
The History of Globalization can be studied under ………………… stages.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 7.
……………. creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets.
(a) Technology
(b) Globalization
(c) Trade barriers
Answer:
(b) Globalization

Question 8.
Modern Globalization is the ………………… stage of Globalization.
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(c) three

Question 9.
The most important factor that has stimulated globalization is ……………
(a) population explosion
(b) urbanization
(c) rapid improvement in technology
Answer:
(c) rapid improvement in technology

Question 10.
An early form of Globalization is called ………………… Globalization.
(a) Archaic
(b) Modem
(c) Proto
(d) Millenium
Answer:
(a) Archaic

II. Fill in the Blanks.

1. The signing of the Final Act of the Uruguay Round by member nations of GATT in April 1994 paved the way for setting up of the ………….
2. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act, 1974 referred directly to the operations of ………….. in India.
3. In 1605, Admiral van der Hagen established ……………..
4. In 1701 …………….. was the headquarters of the French
5. TRIM refers to Trade Related ……………… Measure.
6. In the middle of the 20th century, production was mainly or largely organised ………………..
7. A company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is known as ……………
8. Investment made by multinational corporations is called ……………….
9. The process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as …………….
10. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the Governments of different countries is known as …………..
Answers:
1. WTO
2. MNCs
3. Dutch
4. Pondicherry
5. Investment
6. nationally
7. Multinational Corporation
8. Foreign Investment
9. Globalization
10. Liberalization

III. Match the Following.

Answer:
1. (e)
2. (c)
3. (a)
4. (b)
5. (d)

Answer:
1. (b)
2. (e)
3. (d)
4. (c)
5. (a)

IV. Answer in brief.

Question 1.
What is the advantage of Fair Trade Mark?
Answer:
The Fair Trade Mark was launched in 2002 and Fair Trade Mark has become the most widely, recognized social and development label in the world. Fair Trade companies a credible way to ensure that their trade has a positive impact.

Question 2.
What caused economic crisis in India in the early 1990s?
Answer:
In India the period after 1980-81 was marked by several balance of payment difficulties mainly due to hike in oil price and Gulf war in 1990-91 and hostilities in West Asia. India lost credit in the international market. This caused economic crisis.

Question 3.
What do you understand by G7 countries? List them.
Answer:
G7 countries refers to the developed countries of the world. G7 countries are Unites States, United Kingdom, Germany, France, Canada, Italy and Japan.

Question 4.
Mention any three negative impact of globalization.
Answer:
(i) Globalization has caused environmental damage. Increased production means increased utilisation of natural resources. Besides, increased trade results to increased transport, which was fossil fuels. As a result, pollution has increased, leading to climate change.

(ii) Globalization has led to increased market competition, hence leading to fluctuation in prices.
(iii) Due to globalization, most global economy jobs are insecure and temporary.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the terms FEMA and FERA.
Answer:
FERA refers to the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act. This act was passed in India in 1974 which directly permits. The operations of MNCs in India.

FEMA refers to the Foreign Exchange Management Act of 1999. Under FEMA, the emphasis on management rather than regulation.

Question 6.
What is the term ‘investment’ means?
Answer:
Money spent on buying land, building and machines, etc.

Question 7.
Whom does fair trade support? Why?
Answer:
Fair Trade is for farmers and workers. They support the development of thriving farming and worker communities that have more control over their futures and protecting the environment in which they live and work.

Question 8.
What is the aim of World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
Answer:
Its aim is to liberalize international trade.

Question 9.
How many countries are currently the members of the WTO?
Answer:
164 countries

Question 10.
What was the main channel connecting countries in the past?
Answer:
Foreign trade was the main channel connecting countries in the past.

Question 11.
What is an MNC?
Answer:
An MNC (Multi-National Corporation) is a company that owns and controls production in more than one nation.

Question 12.
Why are MNC’s attracted to India?
Answer:
India has high skilled engineers who can understand the technical aspects of production. It also has educated English speaking youth, who can provide customer care services.

Question 13.
What is the most common route for MNC investments?
Answer:
The most common route for MNC investments is to buy up local companies and then to expand production.

Question 14.
How does liberalization of trade benefit businesses?
Answer:
With liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.

Question 15.
Why is fair globalization essential?
Answer:
Fair globalization would create opportunities for all and also ensure that the benefits of globalization are shared better.

Question 16.
Differentiate between investment and foreign investment.
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, buildings, machineries and other equipments is called investment, and the investment made by MNC’s is called foreign investment.

Question 17.
Why are MNC’s setting their customer care centres in India?
Answer:
MNC’s are setting up their customer care centres in India due to the availability of cheap and skilled labour and good English speaking people.

Question 18.
Differentiate between foreign trade and foreign investment.
Answer:

Question 19.
Describe any three ways in which countries can be linked through globalization.
Answer:

1. By movements of goods.
2. By movement of services.
3. By movement of investments.
4. By movement of technology.
5. By the movement of people between countries.

V. Answer in detail.

Question 1.
What is Globalization? What are its negative impacts on countries?
Answer:
Globalization is the integration of the domestic economy with the world economy.

Its negative impacts are:

1. When there is too much flow of capital among the countries, it may lead to unfair and immoral distribution of income.
2. There is possibility of losing the independency of the domestic policies, thereby losing national Integrity.
3. Building up infrastructure facilities led to resource extraction. This increase negative ecological and social costs.
4. In order to earn foreign exchange, rapid increase in exploitation of natural resources.
5. Much relaxation of environmental standards and regulation.

Question 2.
What is SEZ? Explain.
Answer:
In recent years, Central and State Governments in India are taking special steps to attract foreign companies to invest in India. So Special Industrial Zones are being set up. They are also called as Special Economic Zones. They have world class facilities like electricity, water, transport, recreational and educational facilities. Companies that set up production units in SEZs do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

Recently, the Government of India has set up Special Economic Zones in Southern States especially in Tamil nadu, Karnataka, Andhra and Kerala with a view to boost exports. Nanguneris SEZ, Ennore SEZ, Coimbatore SEZ are some of the SEZ’s in Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
What were the reforms made in India to adopt Globalization?
Answer:

1. Abolition of Industrial licensing , except for a few industries.
2. Number of Industries reserved for public sector are reduced.
3. The exchange rate of rupee is fixed very much realistically to exchange export of Indian goods.
4. Rupee was made convertible on trade, on current account enabling foreign private sector to invest easily.
5. Reduction of Import duties.
6. Suitable amendment of foreign exchange regulations.
7. The (SLR) Statutory Liquidity Ratio was redi’ced to increase lending by RBI.

We think the data given here clarify all your queries of Chapter 2 and make you feel confident to attempt all questions in the examination. So, practice more & more from Tamilnadu State Board solutions for 10th Social ScienceEconomics Chapter 2 Globalization and Trade Questions and Answers & score well. Need any information regarding this then ask us through comments & we’ll give the best possible answers very soon.

Students of 12th can get the pdf links of Tamilnadu State Board Economics Solutions here. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Book Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics

It is very important to put the textbook aside while preparing for the exams. So, if you follow Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Questions and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The word ‘statistics’ is used as ………………………
(a) Singular
(b) Plural
(c) Singular and Plural
(d) None of above
Answer:
(c) Singular and Plural

Question 2.
Who stated that statistics as a science of estimates and probabilities?
(a) Horace Secrist
(b) R. A Fisher
(c) Ya-Lun-Chou
(d) Boddington
Answer:
(d) Boddington

Question 3.
Sources of secondary data are …………………………..
(a) Published sources
(b) Unpublished sources
(c) Neither published nor unpublished sources
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
The data collected by questionnaires are …………………………..
(a) Primary data
(b) Secondary data
(c) Published data
(d) Grouped data
Answer:
(a) Primary data

Question 5.
A measure of the strength of the linear relationship that exists between two variables is called …………………………..
(a) Slope
(b) Intercept
(c) Correlation coefficient
(d) Regression equation
Answer:
(c) Correlation coefficient

Question 6.
If both variables X and Y increase or decrease simultaneously, then the coefficient of correlation will be …………………………..
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) One
Answer:
(a) Positive

Question 7.
If the points on the scatter diagram indicate that as one variable increases the other variable tends to decrease the value of r will be …………………………..
(a) Perfect positive
(b) Perfect negative
(c) Negative
(d) Zero
Answer:
(c) Negative

Question 8.
The value of the coefficient of correlation r lies between …………………………..
(a) 0 and 1
(b) – 1 and 0
(c) – 1 and + 1
(d) – 0.5 and + 0.5
Answer:
(c) – 1 and + 1

Question 9.
The term regression was used by …………………………..
(a) Newton
(b) Pearson
(c) Spearman
(d) Galton
Answer:
(d) Galton

Question 10.
The purpose of simple linear regression analysis is to …………………………..
(a) Predict one variable from another variable
(b) Replace points on a scatter diagram by a straight-line
(c) Measure the degree to which two variables are linearly associated
(d) Obtain the expected value of the independent random variable for a given value of the dependent variable
Answer:
(a) Predict one variable from another variable

Question 11.
A process by which we estimate the value of dependent variable on the basis of one or more independent variables is called …………………………..
(a) Correlation
(b) Regression
(c) Residual
(d) Slope
Answer:
(b) Regression

Question 12.
If Y = 2 – 0.2X, then the value of Y intercept is equal to …………………………..
(a) -0.2
(b) 2
(c) 0.2X
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) 2

Question 13.
In the regression equation Y = β₀ + β₁ X, the Y is called …………………………..
(a) Independent variable
(b) Dependent variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Dependent variable

Question 14.
In the regression equation X = β₀ + β₁ X, the X is called …………………………..
(a) Independent variable
(b) Dependent variable
(c) Continuous variable
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Independent variable

Question 15.
Econometrics is the integration of …………………………..
(a) Economics and Statistics
(b) Economics and Mathematics
(c) Economics, Mathematics and Statistics
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Economics, Mathematics and Statistics

Question 16.
Econometric is the word coined by …………………………..
(a) Francis Galton
(b) Ragnar Frish
(c) Karl Person
(d) Spearsman
Answer:
(b) Ragnar Frish

Question 17.
The raw materials of Econometrics are ……………………………
(a) Data
(b) Goods
(c) Statistics
(d) Mathematics
Answer:
(a) Data

Question 18.
The term Uiin regression equation is …………………………..
(a) Residuals
(b) Standard error
(c) Stochastic error term
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Stochastic error term

Question 19.
The term Uiis introduced for the representation of …………………………..
(a) Omitted Variable
(b) Standard error
(c) Bias
(d) Discrete Variable
Answer:
(a) Omitted Variable

Question 20.
Econometrics is the amalgamation of …………………………..
(a) 3 subjects
(b) 4 subjects
(c) 2 subjects
(d) 5 subjects
Answer:
(a) 3 subjects

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 21.
What is Statistics?
Answer:

1. The term‘Statistics’is used in two senses: as singular and plural.
2. In singular form it simply means statistical methods.
3. Statistics when used in singular form helps in the collection, presentation, classification and interpretation of data to make it easily comprehensible.
4. In its plural form it denotes collection of numerical figures and facts.
5. In the narrow sense it has been defined as the science of counting and science of averages.

Question 22.
What are the kinds of Statistics?
Answer:
Types of Statistics:
1. There are two major types of statistics named as Descriptive Statistics and Inferential Statistics.

2. Descriptive Statistics:
The branch of statistics devoted to the summarization and description of data is called Descriptive Statistics.

3. Inferential Statistics:
The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data to make an inference about a population of data is called Inferential Statistics.

Question 23.
What do you mean by Inferential Statistics?
Answer:
Inferential Statistics:

1. The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data to make an inference about a population of data is called Inferential Statistics.
2. It draws conclusion for the population based on the sample result.
3. It uses hypotheses, testing and predicting on the basis of the outcome.
4. It tries to understand the population beyond the sample.

Question 24.
What are the kinds of data?
Answer:

Question 25.
Define Correlation?
Answer:
Correlation is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables. Sir Francis Galton, is responsible for the calculation of correlation coefficient.

Question 26.
Define Regression?
Answer:

1. The term ‘Regression’ was first coined and used in 1877 by Francis Galton while studying the relationship between the height of fathers and sons.
2. The average height of children bom of parents of a given height tended to move or “regress” toward the average height in the population as a whole.
3. Gabon’s law of universal regression was confirmed by his friend Karl Pearson, who collected more than a thousand records of heights of members of family groups.
4. The literal meaning of the word “regression” is “Stepping back towards the average”.

Question 27.
What is Econometrics?
Answer:
Origin Of Econometrics:

1. Economists tried to support their ideas with facts and figures in ancient times.
2. Irving Fisher is the first person, developed mathematical equation in the quantity theory of money with help of data.
3. Ragnar Frisch, a Norwegian economist and statistician named the integration of three subjects such that mathematics, statistical methods and economics as Econometrics” in 1926.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 28.
What are the functions of Statistics?
Answer:
Functions of Statistics:

1. Statistics presents facts in a definite form.
2. It simplifies mass of figures.
3. It facilitates comparison.
4. It helps in formulating and testing.
5. It helps in prediction.
6. It helps in the formulation of suitable policies.

(I) Statistics are an aggregate of facts:
For example, numbers in a calendar pertaining to a year will not be called statistics, but to be included in statistics it should contain a series of figures with relationships for a prolonged period.

(II) Statistics are numerically enumerated, estimated and expressed.

(III) Statistical collection should be systematic with a predetermined purpose:
The purpose of collection of statistics should be determined beforehand in order to get accurate information.

(IV) Should be capable of being used as a technique for drawing comparison:
It should be capable of drawing comparison between two different sets of data by tools such as averages, ratios, rates, coefficients etc.

Question 29.
Find the Standard Deviation of the following data:
14, 22, 9, 15, 20, 17, 12, 11


∴ σ = 4.18

Question 30.
State and explain the different kinds of Correlation?
Answer:

Type I:
Based on the direction of change of variables:
Correlation is classified into two types as Positive correlation and Negative Correlation based on the direction of change of the variables.

Positive Correlation:
The correlation is said to be positive if the values of two variables move in the same direction.

Ex 1:
If income and Expenditure of a Household may be increasing or decreasing simultaneously. If so, there is positive correlation. Ex. Y = a + bx

Negative Correlation:
The Correlation is said to be negative when the values of variables move in the opposite directions. Ex. Y = a – bx

Ex 1:
Price and demand for a commodity move in the opposite direction.

Type II:
Based upon the number of variables studied
There are three types based upon the number of variables studied as

1. Simple Correlation
2. Multiple Correlation
3. Partial Correlation

Simple Correlation:
If only two variables are taken for study then it is said to be simple correlation. Ex. Y = a + bx

Multiple Correlations:
If three or more than three variables are studied simultaneously, then it is termed as multiple correlation.

Ex: Determinants of Quantity demanded
Qd = f (P, Pc, Ps, t, y)
Where Qd stands for Quantity demanded, f stands for function.
P is the price of the goods,
P_c is the price of competitive goods
P_s is the price of substituting goods
t is the taste and preference
y is the income.

Partial Correlation:
If there are more than two variables but only two variables are considered keeping the other variables constant, then the correlation is said to be Partial Correlation.

Type III: Based upon the constancy of the ratio of change between the variables

Correlation is divided into two types as linear correlation and Non – Linear correlation based upon the Constancy of the ratio of change between the variables.

Linear Correlation:
Correlation is said to be linear when the amount of change in one variable tends to bear a constant ratio to the amount of change in the other.
Ex. Y = a + bx

Non Linear:
The correlation would be non-linear if the amount of change in one variable does not bear a constant ratio to the amount of change in the other variables.
Ex. Y = a + bx²

Question 31.
Mention the uses of Regression Analysis?
Answer:
Use of Regression Analysis:

1. Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.
2. Both the variables may be random variables.
3. It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes functional relationship.
4. Besides verification it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given value.
5. Regression coefficient is an absolute figure. If we know the value of the independent variable, we can find the value of the dependent variable.
6. In regression there is no such spurious regression.
7. It has wider application, as it studies linear and nonlinear relationship between the variables.
8. It is widely used for further mathematical treatment.

Question 32.
Specify the objectives of econometrics?
Answer:
Objectives of Econometrics:
The general objective of Econometrics is to give empirical content to economic theory. The specific objectives are as follows:

1. It helps to explain the behaviour of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic phenomena.
2. It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between the variables
3. It helps to establish new theories and new relationships.
4. It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter.

Question 33.
Differentiate the economic model with econometric model?
Answer:
Economic Model:

1. Economic model is the theoretical construct that represents the complex economic process.
2. Economic model is based on mathematical modeling.
3. Economic model is focused on establishing the logical relationships between the variables in the model.
4. Economic model is applied in stating the theoretical relationship into mathematical equations.
5. Economic model believes that outcome is certain and exact. So disturbance term is not required.
6. Economic model is deterministic in nature.
7. The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by is the economic model

Econometric Model:

1. Econometric model is the statistical concept that represents the numerical estimate of the variables involved in economic process.
2. Econometric model is based on statistical modeling.
3. Econometric model is focused on estimating the magnitude and direction of relationship between the variables.
4. Econometric model is applied in stating the empirical extent of the economic model.
5. Econometric model believes that outcome is certain but not exact. So disturbance term plays the vital role.
6. Econometric model is stochastic in nature.
7. The Keynesian consumption function: C = a + by + µ is the econometric model

Question 34.
Discuss the important statistical organizations (offices) in India?
Answer:

1. Official Statistics are statistics published by government agencies or other public bodies such as international organizations.
2. They provide quantitative or qualitative information on all major areas of citizens’ lives.
3. Official Statistics make information on economic and social development accessible to the public, allowing the impact of government policies to be assessed, thus improving accountability.
4. The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) came into existence as an Independent Ministry in 1999 after the merging of the Department of Statistics and the Department of Programme Implementation.
5. The Ministry has two wings, Statistics and Programme Implementation.

National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO):

1. The National Sample Survey Organisation, now known as National Sample Survey Office, is an organization under the Ministry of Statistic of the Government of India.
2. It is the largest organisation in India, conducting regular socio-economic surveys.
3. It was established in 1950. NSSO has four divisions:
   1. Survey Design and Research Division (SDRD)
   2. Field Operations Division (FOD)
   3. Data Processing Division (DPD)
   4. Co-ordination and Publication Division (CPD)

The Programme Implementation Wing has three Divisions, namely,

1. Twenty Point Programme
2. Infrastructure Monitoring and Project Monitoring
3. Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme.

Besides these three wings, there is National Statistical Commission created through a Resolution of Government of India (MOSPI) and one autonomous Institute, viz., Indian Statistical Institute declared as an institute of National importance by an Act of Parliament.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions.

Question 35.
Elucidate the nature and scope of Statistics?
Nature of Statistics:

1. Different Statisticians and Economists differ in views about the nature of statistics, some call it a science and some say it is an art.
2. Tipett on the other hand considers Statistics both as a science as well as an art.

Scope of Statistics:
Statistics is applied in every sphere of human activity – social as well as physical – like Biology, Commerce, Education, Planning, Business Management, Information Technology, etc.

Statistics and Economics:

1. Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many economic problems
2. Such as fluctuation in wages, prices, production, distribution of income and wealth and so on.

Statistics and Firms:
Statistics is widely used in many firms to find whether the product is conforming to specifications or not.

Statistics and Commerce:

1. Statistics are life blood of successful commerce.
2. Market survey plays an important role to exhibit the present conditions and to forecast the likely changes in future.

Statistics and Education:

1. Statistics is necessary for the formulation of policies to start new course, according to the changing environment.
2. There are many educational institutions owned by public and private engaged in research and development work to test the past knowledge and evolve new knowledge.
3. These are possible only through statistics.

Statistics and Planning:
1. Statistics is indispensable in planning. In the modem world, which can be termed as the “world of planning”, almost all the organisations in the government are seeking the help of planning for efficient working, for the formulation of policy decisions and execution of the same.

2. In order to achieve the above goals, various advanced statistical techniques are used for processing, analyzing and interpreting data.

3. In India, statistics play an important role in planning, both at the central and state government levels, but the quality of data highly unscientific.

Statistics and Medicine:

1. In Medical sciences, statistical tools are widely used. In order to test the efficiency of a new drug or to compare the efficiency of two drugs or two medicines, t – test for the two samples is used.
2. More and more applications of statistics are at present used in clinical investigation.

Statistics and Modern applications:

1. Recent developments in the fields of computer and information technology have enabled statistics to integrate their models and thus make statistics a part of decision making procedures of many organisations.
2. There are many software packages available for solving simulation problems.

Question 36.
Calculate the Karl Pearson Correlation Co-efficient for the following data?
Answer:

Question 37.
Find the regression equation Y on X and X on Y for the following data?
Answer:



= \(\frac { 16810 }{ 17250-225 } \) = 1.01
X on Y
X – \(\bar { X } \) = b_Xy (Y – \(\bar { Y } \) )
X – 43.5 = 1.01 (Y – 64.5)
X – 43.5 = 1.01 Y – 65.145 [64.5 × 1.01]
X – 43.5 = 1.01 Y – 65.145
X – 43.5 = 0.01 Y – [65.145 – 43.5]
X = 0.01 Y – 21.645

Question 38.
Describe the application of Econometrics in Economics?
Answer:
Origin Of Econometrics:

• Economists tried to support their ideas with facts and figures in ancient times.
• Irving Fisher is the first person, developed mathematical equation in the quantity theory of money with help of data.
• Ragnar Frisch, a Norwegian economist and statistician named the integration of three subjects such that mathematics, statistical methods and economics as Econometrics” in 1926. Ragnar Anton Kittil Frisch Noble Memorial Prize in 1969.
• The term econometrics is formed from two words of Greek origin, ‘oukovouia’ meaning economy and ‘uetpov’ meaning measure. Econometrics emerged as an independent discipline studying economics phenomena.
• Econometrics may be considered as the integration of economics, Statistics and Mathematics.
• Econometrics is an amalgamation of three subjects which can be easily understood by following Venn diagram and picture representation.
• Economics + Mathematics = Mathematical Economics
• Mathematical Economics + Statistical Data & Its Technique = Econometrics
• {Economics + Statistics + Mathematics} + Empirical Data = Econometrics

Definitions:

• In the words of Arthur S. Goldberger, “Econometrics may be defined as the social science in which the tools of economic theory, mathematics and statistical inference are applied to the analysis of economic phenomena”.
• Gerhard Tinbergen points out that “Econometrics, as a result of certain outlook on the role of economics, consists of application of mathematical statistics to economic data to lend empirical support to the models constructed by mathematical economics and to obtain numerical results”.
• H Theil“Econometrics is concerned with the empirical determination of economic laws”
• In the words of Ragnar Frisch “The mutual penetration of quantitative econometric theory and statistical observation is the essence of econometrics”.
• Econometrics means economic measurement. Econometrics deals with the measurement of economic relationships.

Objectives Of Econometrics:
The general objective of Econometrics is to give empirical content to economic theory. The specific objectives are as follows:

1. It helps to explain the behaviour of a forthcoming period that is forecasting economic phenomena.
2. It helps to prove the old and established relationships among the variables or between the variables
3. It helps to establish new theories and new relationships.
4. It helps to test the hypotheses and estimation of the parameter.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A
I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The term statistics originated in the Latin word known as ………………………….
(a) Statistik
(b) Status
(c) Statisque
(d) Statistics
Answer:
(b) Status

Question 2.
The fundamental principles of statistics were developed by the biologist ………………………….
(a) Ronald Fisher
(b) Gottfried Achenwall
(c) R.A. Fisher
(d) GR Neison
Answer:
(a) Ronald Fisher

Question 3.
The first book to have statistics as its title was ………………………….
(a) Contributions to vital statistics
(b) Principles of statistics
(c) Statistics principles
(d) Statistics probabilities
Answer:
(a) Contributions to vital statistics

Question 4.
The subjects of statistics can be attributed to ………………………….
(a) Francis GP. Neison
(b) Ronald Fisher
(c) Gottfried Achenwall
(d) R.A. Fisher
Answer:
(d) R.A. Fisher

Question 5.
To prepare a systematic study of birth and death related data is called ………………………….
(a) Principles of statistics
(b) Contributions of vital statistics
(c) Subject of statistics
(d) Statistics evolution
Answer:
(b) Contributions of vital statistics

Question 6.
Who is the father of statistics?
(a) Gottfried Achenwall
(b) Francis GP. Neison
(c) Ronald Fisher
(d) R.A. Fisher
Answer:
(d) R.A. Fisher

Question 7.
…………………………. form helps in the collection, presentation, classificationandinterpretation of data make it easily comprehensible.
(a) Singular form
(b) Plural form
(c) Collection form
(d) Presentation form
Answer:
(a) Singular form

Question 8.
Statistics is applied in every sphere of ………………………….
(a) Physical activity
(b) Human activity
(c) Maths activity
(d) Statistics activity
Answer:
(b) Human activity

Question 9.
Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many …………………………. problems.
(a) Statistical
(b) Technical
(c) Economic
(d) Maths
Answer:
(c) Economic

Question 10.
Statistics are life blood of successful ………………………….
(a) Maths
(b) Datas
(c) Calculations
(d) Commerce
Answer:
(d) Commerce

Question 11.
In the modem world, which can be termed as the “World of planning”?
(a) Statistics
(b) Datas
(c) Numerical data
(d) Five year plan
Answer:
(a) Statistics

Question 12.
Since 2007, 29^th June every year is celebrated as …………………………
(a) Economic day
(b) Datas day
(c) Statistics day
(d) Planning day
Answer:
(c) Statistics day

Question 13.
In India, statistics play an important role of planning, both at the central and ……………………….. government levels.
(a) State
(b) Local
(c) District
(d) National
Answer:
(a) State

Question 14.
Statistical tools are widely used in …………………………..
(a) Statistical science
(b) Technical science
(c) Medical science
(d) Engineering science
Answer:
(c) Medical science

Question 15.
The branch of statistics devoted to the summerization and description of data is called ………………………… statistics.
(a) Descriptive
(b) Inferential
(c) Qualitative
(d) Quantitative
Answer:
(a) Descriptive

Question 16.
The branch of statistics concerned with using sample data is called ……………………… statistics.
(a) Descriptive
(b) Qualitative
(c) Descriptive
(d) Inferential
Answer:
(d) Inferential

Question 17.
…………………………. are those that can be quantified in definite units of measurement
(a) Quantitative
(b) Qualitative
(c) Descriptive
(d) Inferential
Answer:
(a) Quantitative

Question 18.
……………………….. is called a measure of central tendency or an average or a measure of location.
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Mean
(c) Cental value
(d) Geometric mean
Answer:
(c) Cental value

Question 19.
…………………….. is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.
(a) Standard Deviation
(b) Arithmetic mean
(c) Mean
(d) Median
Answer:
(a) Standard Deviation

Question 20.
…………………… is a statistical device that helps to analyse the covariation of two or more variables.
(a) Deviation
(b) Standard deviation
(c) Correlation
(d) Median
Answer:
(c) Correlation

Question 21.
………………………. Method is very simple and non-mathematical method.
(a) Scatter Diagram
(b) Graphic
(c) Karl Pearson’s
(d) Actual mean
Answer:
(a) Scatter Diagram

Question 22.
The literal meaning of the word “Regression” is stepping back towards the …………………………….
(a) Standard deviation
(b) Mean deviation
(c) Average
(d) Median
Answer:
(c) Average

Question 23.
…………………………. may be considered as the integration of economics, statistics and mathematics.
(a) Mathematical economics
(b) Statistical economics
(c) Technic economics
(d) Econometrics
Answer:
(d) Econometrics

Question 24.
The Central statistical office is one of the two – wings of the …………………………
(a) State statistical organisation
(b) National statistical organisation
(c) District statistical organisation
(d) World statistical organisation
Answer:
(b) National statistical organisation

II. Match The Following And Choose The Correct Answer By Using Codes Given Below.

Question 1.
A. Galton – (i) Principle of statistics
B. Ragnar Frisch – (ii) Regression
C. P.C. Mohalanobis – (iii) Econometrics
D. Ronald Fisher – (iv) Modem Statistics
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)

Question 2.
A. Statistics – (i) Solving economic problems
B. Statistical data – (ii) Successful commerce
C. Statistical tools – (iii) World of planning
D. Statistics life blood – (iv) Medical science
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
Answer:
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)

Question 3.
A. Types of statistics – (i) Central value
B. Statistics data categories – (ii) Primary data
C. Collection of data – (iii) Central value
D. Measure of central tendency – (iv) Descriptive statistics
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (ii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
Answer:
(b) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)

Question 4.
A. Karl Pearson – (i) Regression
B. Measures of dispersion – (ii) Standard Deviation
C. Sir. Francis Galton – (iii) Absolute
D. Stepping back towards the average – (iv) Correlation
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)
Answer:
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)

Question 5.
A. NSSO – (i) 1999
B. MOSPI – (ii) 1877
C. Francis Galton – (iii) 1890 – 1962
D. R.A. Fisher – (iv) 1950
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)
Answer:
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)

Question 6.
A. Francis GP. Neison – (i) England
B. Gottfried Achenwall – (ii) Contributions to vital statistics
C. Ronald Fisher – (iii) P.C. Mahalanobis
D. Modem statistics – (iv) Statistik
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D(i)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)

III. Choose The Correct Statement:

Question 1.
(i) Statistics is indispensable planning.
(ii) In the modem world, it can be termed as the “World of planning”.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) Statistical data and techniques are immensely useful in solving many economic problems.
(ii) Fluctuation in Inflation, Deflation.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 3.
(i) Quantitative data are those that can be quantified in definite units of measurement.
(ii) These refer to characteristics in successive measurements yield quantifiable observations.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 4.
(i) Karl Pearson introduced the concept of Standard deviation.
(ii) Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Relative measure of dispersion.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5.
(i) The term econometrics is formed from two words of Greek origin, ‘Oukovovia’ meaning economy and ‘vetpov’ meaning measure.
(ii) Econometrics may be considered as integration of economics, statistics and mathematics.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

IV. Which of The Following Is Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Gottfried Achenwall – Statistics
(b) GP. Neison – Contributions to vital statistics
(c) Ronald Fisher – Movemental contribution
(d) Modem statistics – Ronald Fisher
Answer:
(b) GP. Neison – Contributions to vital statistics

Question 2.
(a) Quantitative data – Gender, community
(b) Qualitative data – Age, income
(c) Nominal data – Classification of students
(d) Rank data – Collection of data
Answer:
(c) Nominal data – Classification of students

Question 3.
(a) Central value – Measure of central tendency
(b) Dispersion – Average
(c) Standard Deviation – Ronald Fisher
(d) Sir Francis Galton – Graphic Method
Answer:
(a) Central value – Measure of central tendency

Question 4.
(a) Francis Galton – Stepping back towards the average
(b) Irving Fisher – Data
(c) Ragner Frisch – Technique
(d) Econometrics – Economy + Metrics
Answer:
(a) Francis Galton – Stepping back towards the average

Question 5.
(a) Arthur S. Gold Berger – Maths
(b) Gerherd Tinbergen – Social
(c) H. Theil – Economic laws
(d) Ragnar Frisch – Statistics
Answer:
(c) H. Theil – Economic laws

V. Which of The Following is Not Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Statistic Regression – Y₁ = β₀ + β₁X₁
(b) Econometrics Regression – Y₁ = β₀ + β₁X₁ + U₁
(c) Regression lines – X on Y ⇒ X = a + by
(d) Actual Mean Method = \(\frac { \Sigma X }{ N } \)
Answer:
(d) Actual Mean Method = \(\frac { \Sigma X }{ N } \)

Question 2.
(a) SDRD – Survey Design and Research Division
(b) FOD – Field Operations Division
(c) DPD – Division Processing Data
(d) CPD – Co – Operation and Publication Division
Answer:
(c) DPD – Division Processing Data

Question 3.
(a) NSO – National Statistical Office
(b) CSO – Cental Statistical Office
(c) NSSO – National Sample Survey Organisation
(d) NAD – National Arithematic Division
Answer:
(d) NAD – National Arithematic Division

Question 4.
(a) NAD – National Accounts Division
(b) SSD – Social Stastistics Division
(c) ESD – Economic Social Division
(d) TD – Training Division
Answer:
(c) ESD – Economic Social Division

Question 5.

Answer:

VI. Pick The Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Functions of Statistics
(a) Statistics presents facts in a definite form
(b) It simplifies mass of figures
(c) It helps firms
(d) It helps in formulating and testing
Answer:
(c) It helps firms

Question 2.
Based upon the number of variables studied as
(a) Simple correlation
(b) Multiple correlation
(c) Partial correlation
(d) Linear correlation
Answer:
(d) Linear correlation

Question 3.
Methods of studying correlation
(a) Scatter diagram method
(b) Graphic method
(c) Maths method
(d) Method of least squares
Answer:
(c) Maths method

Question 4.
NSSO divisions are
(a) Survey Design and Research Division [SDRD]
(b) Fashion Operation Division [FOD]
(c) Data Processing Division [DPD]
(d) Co – ordination and Publication Division [CPD]
Answer:
(b) Fashion Operation Division [FOD]

Question 5.
CSO Director Generals are
(a) National Accounts Division [NAD]
(b) Sample Statistics Division [SSD]
(c) Economic Statistics Division [ESD]
(d) Co – ordination and Publication Division [CPD]
Answer:
(b) Sample Statistics Division [SSD]

VII. Assertion and Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The monumental contribution to the subject of statistics can be attributed to R.A. Fisher was able to apply statistics to a variety.
Reason (R): Fields such as Biometry, Genetics, Psychology, Education, Agriculture and others.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): In singular form it simply means simple method.
Reason (R): Singular forms help in the collection, presentation, classification and interpretation of data.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Statistics is indispensable in planning.
Reason (R): In the modem world, which can be termed as the “World of Planning” almost all organisations.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Quantitative data are those that can be quantified in definite units of measurement.
Reason (R): These refer to characteristics of a subject or an object.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are tme and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are tme but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Ronald Fisher introduced the concept of Standard Deviation.
Reason (R): Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
Write five averages?
Answer:

1. There are five averages.
2. Among them mean, median and mode are called simple averages and the other two averages geometric mean and harmonic mean are called special averages.

Question 2.
Write meaning of averages?
Answer:

1. “A measure of central tendency is a typical value around which other figures congregate.”
2. “An average stands for the whole group of which it forms a part yet represents the whole.”
3. “One of the most widely used set of summary figures is known as measures of location.”

Question 3.
Write the kinds of dispersion?
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

1. Absolute measure of dispersion
2. Relative measure of dispersion

Question 4.
Explain the calculation of standard deviation individual series?
Answer:
Calculation of Standard deviation-individual Series:
There are two methods of calculating Standard deviation in an individual series.
(a) Deviations taken from Actual mean
(b) Deviation taken from Assumed mean
Standard Deviation =
Where, \(\bar { X } \) = mean value of distribution
n = number of observations

Question 5.
Write the four methods of studying correlation?
Answer:
Methods of Studying Correlation:
The various methods of ascertaining whether two variables are correlated or not are:

1. Scatter diagram Method
2. Graphic Method
3. Karl Pearson’s Co-efficient of correlation and
4. Method of Least Squares.

Question 6.
Explain the advantages of Scatter diagram method?
Answer:
Advantages of Scatter Diagram method:

1. It is very simple and non- mathematical method
2. It is not influenced by the size of extreme item.
3. It is the first step in resting the relationship between two variables.

Question 7.
Write the two regression lines?
Answer:
Two Regression lines:
X on Y => X = a + by
Y on X => Y = a + bx

Question 8.
Write flow chart of Anatomy/Methodology of Econometrics?
Answer:
Flow Chart of Anatomy / Methodology of Econometrics:
Anatomy of Econometric Modeling

Question 9.
Explain the statistics and econometrics regression equations?
Answer:
Statistics Regression:
Yi = β₀ + β₁X₁
Econometrics Regression:
Yi = β₀ + β₁X_i + U_i
(with more than 2 variables) or
Y = β₀ + β₁X₁ + β₂X₂ + β₃X₃ + U_i

1. Systematic Part: β₀ + β₁X₁ or explained part and Random Part: U_f unexplained part in a regression.
2. U_i represents the role of omitted variables in specifying a regression relationship of Y on X.
3. Hence, the U_i cannot and should not be ignored.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
Explain the sources of collection of data?
Answer:
Sources of Collection of data:
Based on the data sources, data could be seen as of two types, viz., secondary data and primary data. The two can be defined as under:

(I) Primary data:

1. Those data which do not already exist in any form, and thus have to be collected for the first time from the primary source(s).
2. By their very nature, these data are fresh and first-time collected covering the whole population or a sample drawn from it.

(II) Secondary data:

1. They already exist in some form: published or unpublished in an identifiable secondary source.
2. They are, generally, available from published source(s), though not necessarily in the form actually required, e.g. Data from CSO, NSSO, RBI….

Question 2.
Briefly explain the kinds of measures of dispersion?
Answer:
There are two kinds of measures of dispersion, namely

1. Absolute measure of dispersion
2. Relative measure of dispersion

Absolute measure of dispersion indicates the amount of variation in a set of values in terms of units of observations. Relative measures of dispersion are free from the units of measurements of the observations. They are pure numbers. They are used to compare the variation in two or more sets, which are having different units of measurements of observations. Standard Deviation is one of the methods of Absolute measure of dispersion.

Karl Pearson introduced the concept of standard deviation in 1893. Standard deviation is also called Root- Mean Square Deviation. The reason is that it is the square – root of the mean of the squared deviation from the arithmetic mean. It provides accurate result. Square of standard deviation is called Variance.

Question 3.
Briefly explain the calculation of standard deviation individual series steps?
Answer:
Steps:

1. Find out the actual mean of given data ( \(\bar { X } \) )
2. Find out the deviation of each value from the mean (x = X – \(\bar { X } \) )
3. Square the deviations and take the total of squared deviations Σx²
4. Divided the total Σx² by the number of observation ( \(\frac { \Sigma x^{ 2 } }{ n } \) )
5. The square root of ( \(\frac { \Sigma x^{ 2 } }{ n } \) ) is standard deviation.

\(\frac { \Sigma x^{ 2 } }{ n } \) = Variance = \(\frac { \Sigma (x-\bar { x } )^{ 2 } }{ n } \)
When the sample size is less than 30, variance = \(\frac { \Sigma (x-\bar { x } )^{ 2 } }{ n-1 } \)
When n = number of observations.

Question 4.
Calculate the standard deviation from the following data by Actual Mean Method?
125, 15, 23, 42, 27, 25, 23, 25 and 20
Solution:
Deviations from actual mean.

\(\bar { X } \) = \(\frac{225}{9}\) = 25

σ = 6.88

Question 5.
Calculate the standard deviation for the following data by assumed mean method?
[43, 48, 65, 57, 31, 60, 37, 48, 78, 59]
Solution:
Deviation from assumed mean

Question 6.
Write the assumptions of the Linear Regression Model?
Answer:
Assumptions of the Linear Regression Model:
The Linear regression model is based on certain assumptions

1. Some of them refer to the distribution of the random variable .
2. Some of them refer to the relationship between U_i and the explanatory variables (x₁, x₂, x₃ given in the above example).
3. Some of them refer to the relationship between U_i the explanatory variables themselves.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 1.
Explain the Scatter Diagram Method. Advantages and Disadvantages with diagram?
Answer:
Scatter Diagram Method:

1. Scatter diagram is a graph of observed plotted points where each point represents the values of X and Y as a coordinate.
2. It portrays the relationship between these two variables graphically.

Advantages of Scatter Diagram method:

1. It is very simple and non- mathematical method
2. It is not influenced by the size of extreme item.
3. It is the first step in resting the relationship between two variables.

Disadvantages of Scatter diagram method:

1. It cannot establish the exact degree of correlation between the variables, but provides direction of correlation and depicts it is high or low.

Question 2.
Briefly explain Karl Pearson’s co-effecient of correlation?
Answer:
Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Correlation:

1. Karl Pearson’s Method is popularly known as Pearson’s coefficient of correlation denoted by the symbol V.
2. The coefficient of correlation V measures the degree of linear relationship between two variables say X and Y.
3. The Formula for computing Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of correlation is:

(I)

‘r’ is caluculated by Direct Method without taking deviation of terms either from actual mean or assumed mean.

(II) r is calculated by taking the Deviation from actual mean.

(III) ‘r’ is caluculated by taking assumed mean

Where dx refers to deviations ofx series from assumed mean (x – \(\bar { x } \) ), dy refers to deviations of y series from an assumed mean of (y – \(\bar { y } \) )
Σdxdy = Sum of product of the deviations x and y series from their assumed means.
Σdx² = Sum of the squares of the deviation of x series from an assumed mean
Σdy² = Sum of the squares of the deviations of y series from an assumed mean
Σdx = Sum of the deviation of x series from an assumed mean of x
Σdy = Sum of the deviation of y series from an assumed mean of y

Question 3.
Explain the procedure for computing the correlation co – effecient for direct and deviation from actual mean method steps?
Answer:
Procedure for Computing the Correlation Coefficient: (For Direct and Deviation from actual mean method).

1. Step – 1 Calculate the mean of two series ‘X’ ‘Y’
2. Step – 2 Calculate the deviations ‘X’ and Y in two series from their respective mean.
3. Step – 3 Square each deviations of ‘X’ and ‘ Y’ then obtain the sum of the Squared deviation
4. Step – 4 Multiply each deviation under X with each deviation under Y and obtain the product of ‘xy’. Then obtain the sum of the product of X, Y. Then obtain the sum of the product of x, y is Σxy.
5. Step – 5 Substitute the value in the formula.

Question 4.
State the formula of Karl Pearson’s co – effecient of correlation upgrouped data?

1. Direct Method:
(I)

(II) Assumed Mean Deviation Method

2. Indirect Method:
dx = (x – \(\bar { x } \) ) and dy = (y – \(\bar { y } \) )
r is free from origin
r is free from unit of measurement -1 ≤ r ≤ + 1

Question 5.
Calculate Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of correlation from the following data and interpret its value:

Solution: Let us take Price as X and supply as Y
Computation of Pearson’s Correlation Coefficient:



Price of the product and supply for the product is positively correlated. When price of the product increases then the supply for the product also increases.

Question 6.
Estimate the coefficient of correlation with actualmean method for the following data?

Solution:


Applying in Formula

r = 0.327, The Car is getting old in years the cost of maintainance is also increasing. The age of Car and its maintainance are positively correlated.

Question 7.
Find the Karl Pearson coefficient of Correlation between X and Y from the following data:

Solution:
Formula for Assumed Mean Deviation method.



Take the assumed values A = 16 & B = 27 therefore dx = X – A ⇒ X – 16 and
dy = Y – A ⇒ Y = 27

There exists a positive high correlation between X and Y.

Question 8.
Explain the difference between correlation and regression?
Answer:
Difference between Correlation and Regression:
Correlation:

1. Correlation is the relationship between two or more variables, which vary with the other in the same or the opposite direction.
2. Both the variables X and Y are random variables.
3. It finds out the degree of relationship between two variables and not the cause and effect relationship.
4. It is used for testing and verifying the relation between two variables and gives limited information.
5. The coefficient of correlation is a relative measure. The range of relationship lies between -1 and +1.
6. There may be spurious correlation between two variables.
7. It has limited application, because it is confined only to linear relationship between the variables.
8. It is not very useful for further mathematical treatment.

Regression:

1. Regression means going back and it is a mathematical measure showing the average relationship between two variables.
2. Both the variables may be random variables.
3. It indicates the cause and effect relationship between the variables and establishes functional relationship.
4. Besides verification it is used for the prediction of one value, in relation to the other given value.
5. Regression coefficient is an absolute figure. If we know the value of the independent variable, we can find the value of the dependent variable.
6. In regression there is no such spurious regression.
7. It has wider application, as it studies linear and nonlinear relationship between the variables.
8. It is widely used for further mathematical treatment.

Question 9.
Explain Fit the Regression equation on [X on Y]?
Answer:
Fit regression equation X on Y and Y on X for the following data.
\(\bar { X } \) = 12, \(\bar { Y } \) = 10, σy = 0.2, σx = 0.1 and r = 0.85
Solution:
The regression X on Y is
(X – \(\bar { X } \) ) r = r × \(\frac{σx}{σy}\) × (X – \(\bar { X } \) )
Given \(\bar { X } \) = 12, \(\bar { Y } \) = 10
r = 0.85, σx = 0.1 and σy = 0.2
Then substituting the values in formula
(X – 12) = 0.85 × (0.1/0.2) × (Y – 10)
(X – 12) = 0.85 × (0.5) × (Y – 10)
X = 0.425 × (Y – 10) + 12
X = 0.425 Y – 4.25 + 12
X = 0.425 Y + 7.75
Y on X
Y = 0.425 Y + 7.75

Question 10.
Explain Fit the Regression equation on [Y on X]?
Answer:
The regression Y on X is
(Y – \(\bar { Y } \) ) r = r × \(\frac{σx}{σy}\) × (X – \(\bar { X } \) )
Given \(\bar { X } \) = 12, \(\bar { Y } \) = 10
r = 0.85, σx = 0.1 and σy = 0.2
Then substituting the values in formula
(Y – 10) = 0.85 × (0.2/0.1) × (X – 12)
(Y – 10) = 0.85 × (2) × (X – 12)
Y = 1.7 × (X – 12) + 10
Y = 1.7 X – 20.4 + 10
Y = 1.7 X – 10.4
Y on X
Y = 1.7 X – 10.4

Question 11.
Briefly explain Methodology of Econometrics?
Answer:
Methodology of Econometrics:
Broadly speaking, traditional or classical econometric methodology consists of the following steps.

1. Statement of the theory or hypothesis
2. Specification of the mathematical model of the theory
3. Specification of the econometric model of the theory
4. Obtaining the data
5. Estimation of the parameters of the econometric model
6. Hypothesis testing
7. Forecasting or prediction
8. Using the model for control or policy purposes.

Question 12.
Explain the explanatory variables Assumptions?
Answer:
The explanatory variables are called assumptions.
Assumptions:

1. “U” is a random real variable. That is “U” may assume positive, negative or zero values. Hence the mean of the “U” will be zero.
2. The variance of “U” is constant for all values of “U”
3. The “U” has a normal distribution.
4. The Covariances of any U. with any other U are equal to zero
5. “U” is independent of explanatory variable (s)
6. Explanatory variables are measured without error.
7. The explanatory variables are not perfectly linearly correlated.
8. The variables are correctly aggregated.
9. The relationship is correctly identified and specified.
10. Parameters are linear.

Question 13.
Explain the flow chart of statistics and programme Implementation of the Ministry wings?
Answer:
The Ministry has two wings, Statistics and Programme Implementation

Share this Tamilnadu State Board 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Introduction to Statistical Methods and Econometrics Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the grammar issues in exams. Keep visiting this site frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.

Students of 12th can get the pdf links of Tamilnadu State Board Economics Solutions here. You can Download Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Book Solutions Chapter 10 Environmental Economics Questions and Answers, Notes Pdf, Guide Pdf helps you to revise the complete Tamilnadu State Board New Syllabus and score more marks in your examinations.

Tamilnadu Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Environmental Economics

It is very important to put the textbook aside while preparing for the exams. So, if you follow Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Textbook Solutions you can cover all the topics in Chapter 10 Environmental Economics Questions and Answers. This helps to improve your communication skills.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Environmental Economics Text Book Back Questions and Answers

Part – A
Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
The term environment has been derived from a French word …………………………
(a) Environ
(b) Environs
(c) Environia
(d) Envir
Answer:
(c) Environia

Question 2.
The word biotic means environment
(a) Living
(b) Non – living
(c) Physical
(d) None of the the above
Answer:
(a) Living

Question 3.
Ecosystem is smallest unit of …………………………
(a) Ionosphere
(b) Lithosphere
(c) Biosphere
(d) Mesosphere
Answer:
(c) Biosphere

Question 4.
Who developed Material Balance Models?
(a) Thomas and Picardy
(b) Non – market goods
(c) Joan Robinson and J.M. Keynes
(d) Joseph Stiglitz and Edward Chamberlin
Answer:
(d) Joseph Stiglitz and Edward Chamberlin

Question 5.
Environmental goods are …………………………
(a) Market goods
(b) Non – market goods
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Non – market goods

Question 6.
In a pure public good, consumption is …………………………
(a) Rival
(b) Non – rival
(c) Both
(d) None of the the above
Answer:
(a) Rival

Question 7.
One of the most important market failures is caused by …………………………
(a) Positive externalities
(b) Negative externalities
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Negative externalities

Question 8.
The common source of outdoor air pollution is caused by combustion processes from the following …………………………
(a) Heating and cooking
(b) Traditional stoves
(c) Motor vehicles
(d) All the above
Answer:
(b) Traditional stoves

Question 9.
The major contributor of Carbon monoxide is …………………………
(a) Automobiles
(b) Industrial process
(c) Stationary fuel combustion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Automobiles

Question 10.
Which one of the following causes of global warming?
(a) Earth gravitation force
(b) Oxygen
(c) Centripetal force
(d) Increasing temperature
Answer:
(d) Increasing temperature

Question 11.
Which of the following is responsible for protecting humans from harmful ultraviolet rays?
(a) UY – A
(b) UV – C
(c) Ozone layer
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Ozone layer

Question 12.
Global warming also refers to as …………………………
(a) Ecological change
(b) Climate Change
(c) Atmosphere change
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 13.
Which of the following is the anticipated effect of Global warming?
(a) Rising sea levels
(b) Changing precipitation
(c) Expansion of deserts
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Changing precipitation

Question 14.
The process of nutrient enrichment is termed as …………………………
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Limiting nutrients
(c) Enrichment
(d) Schistosomiasis
Answer:
(b) Limiting nutrients

Question 15.
Primary cause of Soil pollution is …………………………
(a) Pest control measures
(b) Land reclamation
(c) Agricultural runoff
(d) Chemical fertilizer
Answer:
(d) Chemical fertilizer

Question 16.
Which of the following is main cause for deforestation?
(a) Timber harvesting industry
(b) Natural afforestation
(c) Soil stabilization
(d) Climate stabilization
Answer:
(a) Timber harvesting industry

Question 17.
Electronic waste is commonly referred as …………………………
(a) Solid waste
(b) Composite waste
(c) E – waste
(d) Hospital waste
Answer:
(c) E – waste

Question 18.
Acid rain is one of the consequences of ………………………… Air pollution.
(a) Water Pollution
(b) Land pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) Soil Pollution
Answer:
(a) Water Pollution

Question 19.
Sustainable Development Goals and targets are to be achieved by …………………………
(a) 2020
(b) 2025
(c) 2030
(d)2050
Answer:
(c) 2030

Question 20.
Alkali soils are predominantly located in the ………………………… plains?
(a) Indus – Ganga
(b) North – Indian
(c) Gangetic plains
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 21.
State the meaning of environment?
Answer:

1. Meaning of Environmental Economics is a different branch of economics that recognizes the value of both the environment and economic activity and makes choices based on those values.
2. The goal is to balance the economic activity and the environmental impacts by taking into account all the costs and benefits.
3. In short, Environmental Economics is an area of economics that studies the financial impact of environmental issues and policies.
4. Environmental Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the economic effects of national or local environmental policies around the world.

Question 22.
What do you mean by ecosystem?
Answer:

1. An ecosystem includes all living things (plants, animals and organisms) in a given area, interacting with each other, and also with their non-living environments (weather, earth, sun, soil, climate, atmosphere).
2. Ecosystems are the foundations of the Biosphere and they determine the health of the entire earth system.

Question 23.
Mention the countries where per capita carbondioxide emission is the highest in the world?
Answer:

1. United States of America – (USA)
2. Europian Union – (EU)
3. Japan
4. Russian Federation
5. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
6. Saudi Arabia
7. China.

Question 24.
What are environmental goods? Give examples?
Answer:
1. Environmental goods are typically non-market goods, including clear air, clean water, landscape, green transport infrastructure (footpaths, cycle ways, greenways, etc.), public parks, urban parks, rivers, mountains, forests, and beaches.

2. Concerns with environmental goods focus on the effects that the exploitation of ecological systems have on the economy, the well – being of humans and other species, and on the environment.

Question 25.
What are the remedial measures to control noise pollution?
Answer:
Remedial measures to control Noise Pollution

1. Use of noise barriers
2. Newer roadway for surface transport
3. Traffic control
4. Regulating times for heavy vehicles
5. Installations of noise barriers in the work place
6. Regulation of Loudspeakers

Question 26.
Define Global warming?
Answer:
1. Global warming is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface (both land and water) as well as its atmosphere. Average temperatures around the world have risen by 0.75°C (1.4°F) over the last 100 years. About two thirds of this increase has occurred since 1975.

Carbon dioxide, methane, Chlorofluoro Carbon, nitrous oxides are the green house gases warming the earth’s surface. So it is also called green house effect. The CO₂ is the most important of the green house gases contributing to 50% of global warming.

2. Global warming adversely affects agriculture, horticulture and eco system.

Question 27.
Specify the meaning of seed ball?
Answer:

1. A seed ball (or seed bomb) is a seed that has been wrapped in soil materials, usually a mixture of clay and compost, and then dried.
2. Essentially, the seed is ‘pre-planted’ and can be sown by depositing the seed ball anywhere suitable for the species, keeping the seed safely until the proper germination window arises.
3. Seed balls are an easy and sustainable way to cultivate plants that provide a larger window of time when the sowing can occur.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 28.
Brief the linkage between economy and environment?
Answer:
Linkage between Economy and Environment:

1. Man’s life is interconnected with various other living and non-living things.
2. The life also depends on social, political, ethical, philosophical and other aspects of economic system.
3. In fact, the life of human beings is shaped by his living environment.
4. The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model”.
5. The model considers the total economic process as a physically balanced flow between inputs and outputs.
6. Inputs are bestowed with physical property of energy which is received from the environment.
7. The interdependence of economics and environment.

Economy – Environmental Interlinkages Material Balance Model

Question 29.
Specify the meaning of material balance principle?
Answer:

1. The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model” developed by AlenKneese and R.V. Ayres.
2. The model considers the total economic process as a physically balanced flow between inputs and outputs.
3. Inputs are bestowed with physical property of energy which is received from the environment.

1. The interdependence of economics and environment.

2. The first law of thermodynamics, i.e. the law of conservation of matter and energy, emphasizes that in any production system “what goes in must come out”. This is known as the Material Balance Approach or Material Balance Principle.

3. Moreover, all resources extracted from the environment eventually become unwanted wastes and pollutants. Production of output by firms from inputs resulting in discharge of solid, liquid and gaseous wastes. Similarly, waste results from consumption activities by households.

4. In its simple form the Material Balance Approach can be put in form equation.
M = G – R_C – R_P + R^r_P + R^r_c = R^d_c + R^d_c

Question 30.
Explain different types of air pollution?
Answer:
Types of Air pollution:
1. Indoor Air Pollution:
It refers to toxic contaminants that we encounter in our daily lives in our homes, schools and workplaces. For example, cooking and heating with solid fuels on open fires or traditional stoves results in high levels of indoor air pollution.

2. Outdoor Air Pollution:
It refers to ambient air. The common sources of outdoor air pollution are caused by combustion processes from motor vehicles, solid fuel burning and industry.

Question 31.
What are the causes of water pollution?
Answer:
Causes of Water Pollution:
Water pollution is caused due to several reasons. Here are the few major causes of water
pollution:

(I) Discharge of sewage and waste water:

1. Sewage, garbage and liquid waste of households, agricultural runoff and effluents from factories are discharged into lakes and rivers.
2. These wastes contain harmful chemicals and toxins which make the water poisonous for aquatic animals and plants.

(II) Dumping of solid wastes:
The dumping of solid wastes and litters in water bodies cause huge problems.

(III) Discharge of industrial wastes:
Industrial waste contains pollutants like asbestos, lead, mercury, grease oil and petrochemicals, which are extremely harmful to both people and environment.

(IV) Oil Spill:

1. Sea water gets polluted due to oil spilled from ships and tankers while travelling.
2. The spilled oil does not dissolve in water and forms a thick sludge polluting the water.

(V) Acid rain:

1. Acid rain is pollution of water caused by air pollution.
2. When the acidic particles caused by air pollution in the atmosphere mix with water vapor, it results in acid rain.

(VI) Global warming:
Due to global warming, there is an increase in water temperature as a result aquatic plants and animals are affected.

(VII) Eutrophication:

1. Eutrophication is an increased level of nutrients in water bodies.
2. This results in bloom of algae in water.
3. It also depletes the oxygen in water which negatively affects fish and other aquatic animal population.

Question 32.
State the meaning of e – waste?
Answer:
1. Electronic waste which is commonly referred as “e-waste” is the new byproduct of the Info Tech society.

2. It is a physical waste in the form of old discarded, end of life electronics.

3. It includes a broad and growing range of electronic devices from large household appliances such as refrigerators, air conditioners, cellular phones, computers and other electronic goods”.

4. Similarly, e-waste can be defined as the result when consumer, business and household devices are disposed or sent for re-cycling (example, television, computers, audio-equipments, VCR, DVD, telephone, Fax, Xerox machines, wireless devices, video games, other household electronic equipments).

Question 33.
What is land pollution? Mention the causes of land pollution?
Answer:
1. The land pollution is defined as, “the degradation of land because of the disposal of waste on the land”. Any substance (solid, liquid or gaseous) that is discharged, emitted or deposited in the environment in such a way that it alters the environment causes land pollution.

Causes of Land Pollution:

(I) Deforestation and soil erosion:

1. Deforestation carried out to create dry lands is one of the major concerns.
2. Land that is once converted into a dry or barren land, can never be made fertile again, whatever the magnitude of measures to convert it.

(II) Agricultural activities:

1. With growing human and pet animal population, demand for food has increased considerably.
2. Farmers often use highly toxic fertilizers and pesticides to get rid off insects, fungi and bacteria from their crops.
3. However the overuse of these chemicals, results in contamination and poisoning of land.

(III) Mining activities:
During extraction and mining activities, several land spaces are created beneath the surface.

(IV) Landfills:

1. Each household produces tones of garbage each year due to changing economic lifestyle of the people.
2. Garbage like plastic, paper, cloth, wood and hospital waste get accumulated.
3. Items that cannot be recycled become a part of the landfills that cause land pollution.

(V) Industrialization:

1. Due to increasing consumerism more industries were developed which led to deforestation.
2. Research and development paved the way for modem fertilizers and chemicals that were highly toxic and led to soil contamination.

(VI) Construction activities:

1. Due to urbanization, large amount of construction activities are taking place.
2. This has resulted in large waste articles like wood, metal, bricks, plastic.
3. These are dumped at the outskirts of urban areas that lead to land pollution.

(VII) Nuclear waste:

1. The leftover radioactive materials, harmful and toxic chemicals affect human health.
2. They are dumped beneath the earth to avoid any casualty.

Question 33.
Write a note on
(a) Climate change and
(b) Acid rain.
Answer:
(a) Climate Change:
1. The climate change refers to seasonal changes over a long period with respect to the growing accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.

2. Recent studies have shown that human activities since the beginning of the industrial revolution, have contributed to an increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by as much as 40%, from about 280 parts per million in the pre-industrial period, to 402 parts per million in 2016, which in turn has led to global warming.

3. Several parts of the world have already experienced the warming of coastal waters, high temperatures, a marked change in rainfall patterns, and an increased intensity and frequency of storms. Sea levels and temperatures are expected to be rising.

(b) Acid Rain:

1. Acid rain is one of the consequences of air pollution.
2. It occurs when emissions from factories, cars or heating boilers contact with the water in the atmosphere.
3. These emissions contain nitrogen oxides, sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide which when mixed with water becomes sulfurous acid, nitric acid and sulfuric acid.
4. This process also occurs by nature through volcanic eruptions.
5. It can have harmful effects on plants, aquatic animals and infrastructure.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 35.
Briefly explain the relationship between GDP growth and the quality of environment?
Answer:
GDP Growth:

1. Ross domestic product is the money value of final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year.
2. GDP can determined in 3 ways in all of which should in principle give the same result.
3. The real Economic GDP growth rate expressed as percentage that shows the rate of change in a countries GDP.
4. The Four supply Factors are natural resources capital goods, human resources and technology.
5. GDP is a monetary measure of the market value of all the final goods and services.
6. The contribution of the nature to GDP as well as depletion of natural resources are not accounted in the present system of National Income.

Quality of Environment:

1. Environmental quality is a set of properties and characteristics of the environment either generalized or local as they impinge on human beings and other organisms.
2. It is measure of condition of an environment relative to one or more species any human need or purpose.
3. Environmental quality has been continuously declining due to capitalistic mode of functioning.
4. Environment is a pure public good that can be consumed simultaneously by everyone and from which no one can be excluded.
5. A pure public good is one for which consumption is non-revival and from which it is impossible to exclude a consumer.
6. The environment directly affects health status and plays a major role in quality of life lived and good health disparties.

Question 36.
Explain the concepts of externality and its classification?
Answer:

Externalities refer to external effects or spillover effects resulting from the act of production or consumption on the third parties. Externalities arise due to interdependence between economic units.

Positive Consumption Externality:
When some residents of a locality hire a private security agency to patrol their area, the other residents of the area also benefit from better security without bearing cost.

Negative Consumption Externality:
A person smoking cigarette gets may gives satisfaction to that person, but this act causes hardship (dissatisfaction) to the non – smokers who are driven to passive smoking.

Positive Production Externality:

1. The ideal location for beehives is orchards (first growing fields).
2. While bees make honey, they also help in the pollination of apple blossoms.
3. The benefits accrue to both producers (honey as well as apple). This is called reciprocal untraded interdependency.
4. Suppose training is given for the workers in a company. If those trained workers leave the. company to join some other company, the later company gets the benefit of skilled workers without incurring the cost of training.

Negative Production Externality:

Question 37.
Explain the importance of sustainable development and its goals?
Answer:
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
1. It is crucial to harmonize three core elements such as economic growth, social inclusion and environmental protection.

2. A set of 17 goals for the World’s future can be achieved before 2030 with three unanimous principles fixed by United Nations such as Universality, Integration and Transformation.

1. End Poverty in all its forms everywhere
2. End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture
3. Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages
4. Ensure inclusive and quality education for all and promote lifelong learning
5. Achieve gender equality and empower women.and girls
6. Ensure access to water and sanitation for all
7. Ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modem energy for all.
8. Promote inclusive and sustainable economic growth, employment and decent work for all.
9. Build resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable industrialization and foster innovation.
10. Reduce inequality within and among countries
11. Make cities inclusive, safe, resilient and sustainable
12. Ensure sustainable consumption and production pattern
13. Take urgent action to combat climate change and its impacts
14. Conserve and sustainably use the oceans, seas and marine resources
15. Sustainably manage forests, combat desertification, halt and reverse land degradation, halt biodiversity loss
16. Promote just, peaceful and inclusive societies
17. Revitalize the global partnership for sustainable development.

Samacheer Kalvi 12th Economics Environmental Economics Additional Questions and Answers

Part – A
I. Multiple Choice Questions.

Question 1.
“All the conditions, circumstances, and influences surrounding and affecting the development of an organism or group of organisms” is called ………………………..
(a) Environment
(b) Economics
(c) Eco system
(d) Biosphere
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 2.
The relationship between the Economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a …………………….. model.
(a) Material Economic
(b) Material Eco
(c) Material balance
(d) Material Environment
Answer:
(c) Material balance

Question 3.
…………………….. Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the Economic effects.
(a) Biosphere
(b) Political
(c) Environment
(d) Philosphical
Answer:
(c) Environment

Question 4.
Environmental externalities are called ……………………..
(a) Externality
(b) Economic externalities
(c) Nagative externalities
(d) Positive externalities
Answer:
(d) Positive externalities

Question 5.
…………………….. is of contaminants environment.
(a) Pollution
(b) Air Pollution
(c) Water pollution
(d) Noise Pollution
Answer:
(a) Pollution

Question 6.
Vehicles smoke happens to release high amounts of ……………………..
(a) Carbon – di – oxide
(b) Carbon – monoxide
(c) Carbon
(d) Oxygen
Answer:
(b) Carbon – monoxide

Question 7.
…………………….. it creates several respiratory and heart ailments along with cancer.
(a) Water pollution
(b) Noise pollution
(c) Air pollution
(d) Land pollution
Answer:
(c) Air pollution

Question 8.
…………………….. is an increase in water temperature as a result aquatic plants and animals are affected.
(a) Oil spill
(b) Acid rain
(c) Global warming
(d) Eutrophication
Answer:
(c) Global warming

Question 9.
…………………….. is unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality.
(a) Air pollution
(b) Water pollution
(c) Noise pollution
(d) Land pollution
Answer:
(c) Noise pollution

Question 10.
…………………….. adversely affects agriculture, horticulture and eco system.
(a) Climate change
(b) Global warming
(c) Land pollution
(d) Acid rain
Answer:
(b) Global warming

Question 11.
Soil pollution is another form of …………………….. pollution.
(a) Land
(b) Fertilizer
(c) Chemical
(d) Medicinal
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 12.
…………………….. is the supplier of the forms of resources.
(a) Farmers
(b) Environment
(c) Chemicals
(d) Fertilizers
Answer:
(b) Environment

Question 13.
…………………….. is led to land pollution.
(a) Forestation
(b) Forest
(c) Fertilizers
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(d) Deforestation

Question 14.
Acid rain is one of the consequences of …………………….. pollution.
(a) Land
(b) Air
(c) Water
(d) Soil
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 15.
Atmospheric noise or static is caused by lighting discharges in ……………………..
(a) Thunder storms
(b) Flood
(c) Land slide
(d) Drought
Answer:
(a) Thunder storms

Question 16.
Polluted water is harmful for ……………………..
(a) Industries
(b) Agriculture
(c) Land pollution
(d) Soil pollution
Answer:
(b) Agriculture

Question 17.
Electronic waste is commonly referred as …………………….. is the new by product of the Info Tech society.
(a) E – waste
(b) Plastic waster
(c) Waste
(d) Rubber waste
Answer:
(a) E – waste

Question 18.
…………………….. is the current increase in temperature of the Earth’s surface as well as its atmosphere.
(a) Globe warming
(b) Global warming
(c) Globe spoiled
(d) Temperature warming
Answer:
(b) Global warming

Question 19.
…………………….. is an increased level of nutrients in water bodies.
(a) Eutrophication
(b) Global warming
(c) Acid rain
(d) Oil spill
Answer:
(a) Eutrophication

Question 20.
…………………….. is the supplier of all forms of resources like renewable and non – renewable.
(a) Environment
(b) Environmental goods
(c) Environmental quality
(d) Environmental wastes
Answer:
(a) Environment

Question 21.
Heavy machineries located inside big factories and industrial plants also emit pollutants into the ……………………..
(a) Land
(b) Soil
(c) Air
(d) Water
Answer:
(c) Air

Question 22.
…………………….. causes great damage to human beings, animals and crops.
(a) Natural
(b) Factories
(c) Acid rain
(d) Global warming
Answer:
(c) Acid rain

Question 23.
…………………….. is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
(a) Alternative approach
(b) Environmental protection
(c) Economic growth
(d) Sustainable development
Answer:
(d) Sustainable development

Question 24.
…………………….. is a system of agricultural production which relies on animal manure, organic waste, crop rotation, legumes and biological pest control.
(a) Organic farming
(b) Land forming
(c) Land pollution
(d) Soil pollution
Answer:
(a) Organic farming

II. Match The following And Choose The Correct Answer By Using Codes Given Below.

Question 1.
A. Causes of air pollution – (i) Solid waste
B. Types of water pollution – (ii) Vehicle exhaust smoke
C. Types of land pollution – (iii) Deforestation
D. Causes of land pollution (iv) Ground water pollution
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (iii) c (ii) D(i)
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B(i) C (iv) D (ii)
Answer:
(c) A (ii) B (iv) C (i) D (iii)

Question 2.
A. Organic farming – (i) Global warming
B. Effects of noise pollution – (ii) Animal manure
C. Effects of water pollution – (iii) Hearing loss
D. Effects of air pollution – (iv) Death of aquatic animals
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)
Answer:
(d) A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D(i)

Question 3.
A. World commision – (i) Seawater
B. Organic farming – (ii) Environment and Development
C. Oil spill – (iii) Nutrients in water
D. Eutrophication – (iv) Animal husbandry
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C(i) D (iii)
(c) A (iii) B (i) C (iv) D (ii)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)
Answer:
(b) A (ii) B (iv) C(i) D (iii)

Question 4.
A. Alkali soil – (i) High noise
B. Cardio vascular – (ii) Indo gangetic
C. Solid waste – (iii) Toxic chemicals
D. Skin cancer (iv) Rubbish
Codes:
(a) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)
(b) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(c) A (iii) B (iv) C (ii) D(i)
(d) A (iv) B (iii) C(i) D (ii)
Answer:
(a) A (ii) B (i) C (iv) D (iii)

Question 5.
A. Remedies of land pollution – (i) Sulphur dioxide
B. Acid rain – (ii) Degradation of land
C. Land pollution – (iii) Fossil fuel
D. Power plants – (iv) Usage of plastic
Codes:
(a) A (i) B (ii) C (iii) D (iv)
(b) A (ii) B (iii) C(iv) D (i)
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)
(d) A (iii) B (iv) C(i) D(ii)
Answer:
(c) A (iv) B (i) C (ii) D (iii)

III. State Whether The Statements Are True or False.

Question 1.
(i) Environmental economics is a different branch of economics that recognizes the value of both the environment and economic activity.
(ii) Environmental Economics involves theoretical and empirical studies of the economic effects.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 2.
(i) The relationship between the economy and the environment is generally explained in the form of a “Material Balance Model”.
(ii) This model developed by Alenkneese and R.V. Ayres.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

Question 3.
(i) Beneficial externalities are called “Positive externalities”.
(ii) Beneficial externalities are called “Negative externalities”.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(c) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(b) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 4.
(i) Surface water includes natural water found on the earth’s surface, like rivers, lakes, lagoons and oceans.
(ii) Hazardous substances coming into contact with this surface water, dissolving or mixing physically with the water can be called surface of land pollution.

(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false

Question 5.
(i) Noise pollution is unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality.
(ii) Noise pollution is also comes from highway, railway and airplane traffic and from outdoor construction activities.
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(b) Both (i) and (ii) are false
(c) (i) is true but (ii) is false
(d) (i) is false but (ii) is true
Answer:
(a) Both (i) and (ii) are true

IV. Which Of The Following Is Correctly Matched:

Question 1.
(a) Types of noise pollution – Death of aquatic animals
(b) Effects of water pollution – Factory mechinery
(c) Types of water pollution – Respiratory and heart problems
(d) Causes of air pollution – Vehicle exhaust smoke
Answer:
(d) Causes of air pollution – Vehicle exhaust smoke

Question 2.
(a) Environmental goods – Human beings
(b) Types of pollution – Transport
(c) Human health – Land pollution
(d) Microbiological pollution – Water pollution
Answer:
(d) Microbiological pollution – Water pollution

Question 3.
(a) Global warming – Affects industry
(b) Acid rain – Usage of pesticides
(c) Electronic waste – e – waste
(d) SDGs – Poverty increased
Answer:
(c) Electronic waste – e – waste

Question 4.
(a) Crackers – Big industry
(b) Soil pollution – Damaged river
(c) Farmers – Use highly toxic fertilizers
(d) Deforestation – Due to urbanisation
Answer:
(c) Farmers – Use highly toxic fertilizers

Question 5.
(a) Seed ball – Providing oxygen
(b) E – waste – Sustainable development
(c) Fertilizers used – Water pollution
(d) Oil spill – Sea water polluted
Answer:
(d) Oil spill – Sea water polluted

V. Which Of The Following Is Not Correctly Matched.

Question 1.
(a) Acid rain – Sulphur dioxide
(b) Agro – Eco system
(c) Negative production – Factory emission
(d) Ozone layer – Major cause of death
Answer:
(d) Ozone layer – Major cause of death

Question 2.
(a) Fossil fuel – Power plants
(b) Forest – Replenish soil
(c) Environmental goods – Pre – planted
(d) Agriculture – Fertilizer
Answer:
(c) Environmental goods – Pre – planted

Question 3.
(a) Sustainable development – Monitors
(b) Oil spill – Seawater
(c) Water – Land pollution
(d) Tree – Lungs of the Earth
Answer:
(c) Water – Land pollution

Question 4.
(a) Natural pollution – Aquatic and Human illness
(b) Global warming – Increasing temperature
(c) Discharge of sewage – Outdoor air pollution
(d) Organic farming – Deforestation
Answer:
(d) Organic farming – Deforestation

Question 5.
(a) Acid rain – Land pollution
(b) Soil – Soil contamination
(c) Heavy industries – Land pollution
(d) Environmental goods – Environmental quality
Answer:
(c) Heavy industries – Land pollution

VI. Pick The Odd One Out.

Question 1.
Types of Noise pollution
(a) Atmospheric noise pollution
(b) Industrial noise pollution
(c) Man made noise pollution
(d) Acid rain pollution
Answer:
(d) Acid rain pollution

Question 2.
Causes of Noise pollution
(a) Construction
(b) Motor vehicles
(c) Crackers
(d) Factory machinery
Answer:
(a) Construction

Question 3.
Types of Land pollution
(a) Solid waste
(b) Cardiovascular effects
(c) Pesticides and fertilizers
(d) Deforestation
Answer:
(b) Cardiovascular effects

Question 4.
Causes of Land Pollution
(a) Deforestation and soil erosin
(b) Agriculture activities spoiled
(c) Fertilizer spoiled
(d) Mining activities spoiled
Answer:
(c) Fertilizer spoiled

Question 5.
Organic farming
(a) Manure
(b) Biofertilizers
(c) Crop rotation
(d) Solid waste
Answer:
(d) Solid waste

VII. Assertion And Reason.

Question 1.
Assertion (A): The natural pollution causes both aquatic and human illness.
Reason (R): Pollution is damage to eco system and aesthetics of our surrounding.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’

Question 2.
Assertion (A): Vehicles smoke happens to release high amounts of carbon monoxide.
Reason (R): Chemicals like carbon-di-oxide are released during the burning process.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 3.
Assertion (A): Sewage, garbage and liquid waste of households, agriculture runoff and effluents from factories are discharged into lakes and rivers.
Reason (R): These wastes contain useful chemicals and toxins.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 4.
Assertion (A): Remedial measures to control air pollution is growing more plants and trees.
Reason (R): Remedial measures to control air pollution is establishment of industries in the town and cities.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false

Question 5.
Assertion (A): Soil pollution is another form of water pollution.
Reason (R): The upper layer of the soil is damaged is caused by the over use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.

(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation to ‘A’
(b) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true but ‘R’ is not the correct explanation to ‘A’
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
Answer:
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true

Part – B
Answer The Following Questions In One or Two Sentences.

Question 1.
Define “Solid wastes”?
Answer:
Solid Wastes:

1. Non-liquid, non-soluble materials, ranging from municipal garbage to industrial wastes that contain complex, and hazardous, substances.
2. Solid wastes include sewage sludge, agricultural refuse, demolition wastes, and mining residues.

Question 2.
What is organic farming?
Answer:

1. Organic farming is a system of agricultural production which relies on animal manure, organic waste, crop rotation, legumes and biological pest control.
2. It avoids use of synthetic fertilizer, pesticides and livestock additives.
3. Organic inputs have certain benefits, such as enriching soil for microbes.

Question 3.
Define “Sustainable Development”?
Answer:

1. Sustainable Development is development that meets the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
2. “The alternative approach (to sustainable development) is to focus on natural capital assets and suggest that they should not decline through time.”

Question 4.
Define “Noise pollution”?
Answer:

1. Noise pollution is unwanted or excessive sound that can have deleterious effects on human health and environmental quality.
2. Noise pollution is commonly generated by many factories.
3. It also comes from highway, railway and airplane traffic and from outdoor construction ’ activities.

Question 5.
Define “Deforestation”?
Answer:

1. Humans depend on trees for many things including life.
2. Trees absorb carbon dioxide from the air and release Oxygen, which is needed for life.
3. Forest helps replenish soils and help retain nutrients being washed away.
4. Deforestation is led to land pollution.

Question 6.
What are the types of pollution?
Answer:
Types of Pollution:

1. Air pollution
2. Water pollution
3. Noise pollution
4. Land pollution.

Part – C
Answer The Following Questions In One Paragraph.

Question 1.
Write note on “Remedial Measures to control land pollution?
Answer:
Remedial measures to control Land Pollution:

1. Making people aware about the concept of a Reduce, Recycle and Reuse
2. Buying biodegradable products
3. Minimizing the usage of pesticides
4. Shifting cultivation
5. Disposing unwanted garbage properly either by burning or by burying under the soil.
6. Minimizing the usage of plastics.

Question 2.
Mention the Remedial Measures to control water pollution?
Answer:
Remedial measures to control Water Pollution:

1. Comprehensive water management plan.
2. Construction of proper storm drains and settling ponds.
3. Maintenance of drain line.
4. Effluent and sewage treatment plant.
5. Regular monitoring of water and waste water.
6. Stringent actions towards illegal dumping of waste into the water bodies.

Question 3.
Explain the types of Noise pollution?
Answer:
Types of Noise Pollution:
(I) Atmospheric Noise:
Atmospheric noise or static is caused by lighting discharges in thunderstorms and other natural electrical disturbances occurring in the atmosphere.

(II) Industrial Noise:

1. Industrial noise refers to noise that is created in the factories.
2. When sound becomes noise it becomes unwanted.
3. Heavy industries like ship building, iron and steel have long been associated with Noise Induced Hearing Loss (NIHL).

(III) Man made Noise:
The main sources of man-made noise pollution are ships, aircraft, seismic exploration, marine construction, drilling and motor boats.

Part – D
Answer The Following Questions In About A Page.

Question 1.
What are the effects of Land pollution?
Answer:
Effects of Land Pollution:
(I) Soil pollution:

1. Soil pollution is another form of land pollution, where the upper layer of the soil is damaged.
2. This is caused by the overuse of chemical fertilizers, and pesticides.
3. This leads to loss of fertile land.
4. Pesticides kill not only pests and also human beings.

(II) Health Impact:

1. The land when contaminated with toxic chemicals and pesticides lead to problem of skin cancer and human respiratory system.
2. The toxic chemicals can reach our body through foods and vegetables.

(III) Cause for Air pollution:

1. Landfills and waste dumping lead to air pollution.
2. The abnormal toxic substances spread in the atmosphere cause transmit respiratory diseases among the masses.

(IV) Effect on wildlife:

1. The animal kingdom has suffered mostly in the past decades.
2. They face a serious threat with regards to loss of habitat and natural environment.
3. The constant human activity on land is leaving it polluted, forcing these species to move farther away.
4. Sometimes several species are pushed to the verge of extinction or disappear due to no conducive environment.

Question 2.
Briefly explain effects of Noise pollution?
Answer:
Effects of Noise Pollution:
(a) Hearing Loss:

1. Chronic exposure to noise may cause noise-induced hearing loss.
2. Older people are exposed to significant occupational noise and thereby reduced hearing sensitivity.

(b) Damage Physiological and Psychological health:

1. Unwanted noise can damage physiological and psychological health.
2. For example, annoyance and aggression, hypertension, and high stress levels.

(c) Cardiovascular effects:
High noise levels can contribute to cardiovascular problems and exposure to blood pressure.

(d) Detrimental effect on animals and aquatic life:
Noise can have a detrimental effect on animals, increasing the risk of death.

(e) Effects on wildlife and aquatic animals:
It creates hormone imbalance, chronic stress, panic and escape behavior and injury.

Question 3.
Explain the causes of Air pollution?
Answer:
Causes of Air Pollution:
(I) Vehicle exhaust smoke:

1. Vehicles smoke happens to release high amounts of Carbon monoxide.
2. Millions of vehicles are operated every day in cities, each one leaving behind its own carbon footprint on the environment.

(II) Fossil fuel based power plants:

1. Fossil fuels also present a wider scale problem when they are burned for energy in power plants.
2. Chemicals like sulphur dioxide are released during the burning process, which travel straight into the atmosphere.
3. These types of pollutants react with water molecules to yield something known as acid rain.

(III) Exhaust from Industrial Plants and Factories:
Heavy machineries located inside big factories and industrial plants also emit pollutants into the air.

(IV) Construction and Agricultural activities:

1. Potential impacts arising from the construction debris would include dust particles and gaseous emissions from the construction sites.
2. Likewise, using of ammonia for agriculture is a frequent byproduct that happens to be one of the most dangerous gases affecting air.

(V) Natural Causes:

1. Earth is one of the biggest polluters itself, through volcanoes, forest fires, and dust storms.
2. They are nature-borne events that dump massive amounts of air pollution into the atmosphere.

(VI) Household activities:
Household activities like cooking, heating and lighting, use of various forms of mosquito repellents, pesticides and chemicals for cleaning at home and use of artificial fragrances are some of the sources that contribute to air pollution.

Question 4.
Explain different sources of E – waste?
Answer:

Share this Tamilnadu State Board 12th Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Environmental Economics Questions and Answers with your friends to help them to overcome the grammar issues in exams. Keep visiting this site frequently to get the latest information on different subjects. Clarify your doubts by posting the comments and get the answers in an easy manner.